Mark Scheme (Final)

Summer 2023

Pearson Edexcel International Advanced

Subsidiary Level In Chemistry (WCH12)
Paper 01
Unit 2: Energetics, Group Chemistry,
Halogenoalkanes and Alcohol
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Summer 2023
Question Paper Log Number: P71940A
Publications Code: WCH12_01_2306_MS
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2023
General Marking Guidance

• All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners

must mark the first candidate in exactly the same way as
they mark the last.
• Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must
be rewarded for what they have shown they can do rather
than penalised for omissions.
• Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not
according to their perception of where the grade boundaries
may lie.
• There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark
scheme should be used appropriately.
• All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be
awarded. Examiners should always award full marks if
deserved, i.e. if the answer matches the mark
scheme. Examiners should also be prepared to award zero
marks if the candidate’s response is not worthy of credit
according to the mark scheme.
• Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will
provide the principles by which marks will be awarded and
exemplification may be limited.
• When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of
the mark scheme to a candidate’s response, the team leader
must be consulted.
• Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate
has replaced it with an alternative response.
Using the Mark Scheme

Examiners should look for qualities to reward rather than faults to penalise. This
does NOT mean giving credit for incorrect or inadequate answers, but it does mean
allowing candidates to be rewarded for answers showing correct application of
principles and knowledge. Examiners should therefore read carefully and consider
every response: even if it is not what is expected it may be worthy of credit.

The mark scheme gives examiners:

• an idea of the types of response expected
• how individual marks are to be awarded
• the total mark for each question
• examples of responses that should NOT receive credit.

/ means that the responses are alternatives and either answer should receive full
credit.
( ) means that a phrase/word is not essential for the award of the mark, but helps the
examiner to get the sense of the expected answer.

Phrases/words in bold indicate that the meaning of the phrase or the actual word is
essential to the answer.
ecf/TE/cq (error carried forward) means that a wrong answer given in an earlier part
of a question is used correctly in answer to a later part of the same question.

Candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the mark. Make
sure that the answer makes sense. Do not give credit for correct words/phrases
which are put together in a meaningless manner. Answers must be in the correct
context.

Quality of Written Communication

Questions which involve the writing of continuous prose will expect candidates to:
• write legibly, with accurate use of spelling, grammar and punctuation in order to
make the meaning clear
• select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose and to complex
subject matter
• organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist vocabulary when
appropriate.

Full marks will be awarded if the candidate has demonstrated the above abilities.
Questions where QWC is likely to be particularly important are indicated (QWC) in
the mark scheme, but this does not preclude others.
Section A (Multiple Choice)

Question Answer Mark

number

1 The only correct answer is C (2Cl(g) → Cl2(g)) (1)

A is incorrect because the diagram represents an exothermic reaction and atomisation is always endothermic
B is incorrect because the diagram represents an exothermic reaction and ionisation is always endothermic
D is incorrect because the diagram represents an exothermic reaction and dissolving NH4NO3 is endothermic

Question Answer Mark

number

2(a) The only correct answer is C (14.7 %)) (1)

A is incorrect because ±7.37 is an uncertainty based on halving the difference between the experimental and data
book values and taking this as a percentage of the data book value
B is incorrect because ±8.65 is an uncertainty based on halving the difference between the experimental and data
book values and taking this as a percentage of the experimental value
D is incorrect because 17.3 compares the difference in values to the experimental rather than the data book value
Question Answer Mark
number

2(b) The only correct answer is B (lowers the error in the final value obtained) (1)
A is incorrect because increasing the specific heat capacity increases the magnitude of the final value which will then
be closer to the data book value
C is incorrect because the difference is 8.6% which is significant
D is incorrect because 8.6% is large compared with the measurement uncertainties

Mark
Question Answer
number

3 The only correct answer is A(+491 kJ mol−1) (1)

B is incorrect because the ΔrHo value for the formation of carbon monoxide has not been tripled
C is incorrect because −491kJ mol−1 is the enthalpy change for the reverse reaction
D is incorrect because −713kJ mol−1 is a calculation for the reverse reaction in which the ΔrHo value for the
formation of carbon monoxide has not been tripled
 Mark
Question Answer
number

4 (1)

The only correct answer is D

A is incorrect because the alkane with the most carbon atoms will always have the highest boiling temperature
B is incorrect because the alkane with the most carbon atoms will always have the highest boiling temperature
C is incorrect because the alkane with the most carbon atoms will always have the highest boiling temperature

Question Answer Mark

number

5 The only correct answer is C (cyclohexane molecules have a larger area of contact) (1)
A is incorrect because the cyclohexane molecules have fewer electrons than hexane molecules
B is incorrect because these molecules have negligible permanent dipole-permanent dipole forces
D is incorrect because neither molecule forms hydrogen bonds
Question Answer Mark
number

6 The only correct answer is B (propanal molecules have strong permanent dipole-permanent dipole forces) (1)
A is incorrect because butane molecules have more electrons than propanal molecules
C is incorrect because the areas of contact between the molecules will be similar and any difference is too small to
account for such a large difference in boiling temperature
D is incorrect because neither molecule forms hydrogen bonds in the pure liquid

Mark
Question Answer
number

7 (1)

The only correct answer is A :llllllll

B is incorrect because the O-----H─O bond angle should be 180º

C is incorrect because the hydrogen atoms bonded to carbon atoms cannot form hydrogen bonds
D is incorrect because the hydrogen atoms bonded to carbon atoms cannot form hydrogen bonds
Question Answer Mark
number

8 The only correct answer is B (chromium in K2Cr2O7 and K2CrO4) (1)

A is incorrect because chlorine is in oxidation state +7 in Cl2O7 and +5 in Ca(ClO3)2
C is incorrect because manganese is in oxidation state +6 in K2MnO4 and +7 in Mn2O7
D is incorrect because oxygen is in oxidation state −2 in K2O and −1 in K2O2

Question Answer Mark

number

9 The only correct answer is D (BaFeO4) (1)

A is incorrect because Ba2FeO3 is consistent with the oxidation number of Ba being +1 and of Fe being +4
B is incorrect because BaFeO3is consistent with the oxidation number of Fe being +4
C is incorrect becauseBa2FeO4is consistent with the oxidation number of Ba being +1

Question Answer Mark

number

10 The only correct answer is C (the sodium ion has a larger ionic radius than the lithium ion) (1)
A is incorrect because the greater reactivity of sodium does not lead to the formation of a peroxide
B is incorrect because the lower first ionisation energy of sodium does not affect the oxide formed
D is incorrect because thelithium ion has a higher charge density than the sodium ion
Question Answer Mark
number

11 The only correct answer is D (0.200 mol dm−3) (1)

A is incorrect because 0.025 is obtained by omitting to scale from 0.25 dm3 to 1 dm3 and halving the amount of NaOH
formed
B is incorrect because 0.050 is obtained by omitting to scale from 0.25 dm3 to 1 dm3
C is incorrect because 0.100 is obtained by halving the amount of NaOH formed

Question Answer Mark

number

12 The only correct answer is B (2.97 g) (1)

A is incorrect because 1.48 g does not take into account that 2 mol Mg(NO3)2 decompose
C is incorrect because 7.42 g does not take into account that 2 mol Mg(NO3)2 decompose or that 5 mol of gas form
D is incorrect because 14.8 g does not take into account that 5 mol of gas form

Question Answer Mark

number

13 The only correct answer is A (electrons being excited to higher energy levels and emitting yellow light on (1)
returning to the ground state)
B is incorrect because blue-violet is the complementary colour to yellow
C is incorrect because this describes the formation of a blue-violet colour by the reflection of a beam of white light
D is incorrect because this describes the formation of a yellow colour by the reflection of a beam of white light
Question Answer Mark
number

14 The only correct answer is A (copper(II)) (1)

B is incorrect because the presence of lead(II) slows the reaction down
C is incorrect because sodium nitrate has no significant effect on the rate
D is incorrect because zinc sulfate has no significant effect on the rate

Question Answer Mark

number

15 The only correct answer is A(1.3 cm3 min−1) (1)

B is incorrect because 2.5 cm3 min−1 is final total volume (20 cm3) divided by the total reaction time (8 min)
C is incorrect because 4.4 cm3 min−1 is the average rate in reaching point X
D is incorrect because 25 cm3 min−1 is the initial rate of formation of oxygen (taking a tangent at t = 0 to t =1)

Question Answer Mark

number

16 The only correct answer is C (R only) (1)

A is incorrect because P is a secondary halogenoalkane
B is incorrect because Q is a primary halogenoalkane
D is incorrect because Q is a primary halogenoalkane
Question Answer Mark
number

17 The only correct answer is D (water) (1)

A is incorrect because ethanol is a co-solvent
B is incorrect because nitrate ions are not effective nucleophiles
C is incorrect because the silver ion is positively charged and cannot be a nucleophile

Question Answer Mark

number

18(a) The only correct answer is C (phosphoric(V) acid) (1)

A is incorrect because 50% sulfuric acid is not concentrated enough to effect dehydration
B is incorrect because ethanolic potassium hydroxide cannot effect elimination of alcohols, only of halogenoalkanes
D is incorrect because red phosphorus is used with iodine to bring about a substitution reaction
Question Answer Mark
number

18(b) The only correct answer is A(elimination) (1)

B is incorrect because water is a product not a reactant
C is incorrect because both hydrogen and oxygen are lost
D is incorrect because no atom or group is replaced

TOTAL FOR SECTION A = 20 MARKS

Section B

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number

19(a) An answer that makes reference to the following (1)

• nucleophilic substitution Allow substitution nucleophilic

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number

19(b) An answer that makes reference to the following (2)

• IUPAC name (1) 2,2-dimethylpropanenitrile
Ignore punctuation errors e.g. spaces. omission of commas or
hyphen or ‘e’ in propane
Allow 2,2-dimethylpropanonitrile / 2,2-dimethylpropanitrile

• structure (1) Accept displayed, skeletal or structural formula or any

combination of these. e.g.

Accept CN for C≡N

Ignore connectivity errors on alkyl group e.g. CH3─C
Do not award C=N / C─N / NC
Standalone marks. No TE
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

19(c) An answer that makes reference to the following Standalone marks (2)

• ammonia / NH3 (1) Accept concentrated ammonia

Allow concentrated aqueous ammonia
Allow ammonia solution
Ignore gas
Do not award just aqueous ammonia
Do not award dilute ammonia (solution)
• (heat) under pressure Allow heat
and
and
in a sealed tube / container (in alcohol)
in alcoholic solution (1)
Accept alcohol or ethanolic or ethanol for alcoholic
Do not award heat under reflux
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

19(d)(i) An answer that shows the following (2)

• dipole on C─Br All four points correct scores (2)

• curly arrow from C─Br bond to Br atom or just beyond Any two or three points correct scores (1)
• lone pair on oxygen of OH−
• curly arrow from oxygen to positively charged carbon Do not award second curly arrow from negative charge
atom Penalise use of half-arrows once only
Ignore an extra OH− attacking the
2-bromo-2-methylpropane molecule.
Ignore lone pair on this extra species
Ignore extra curly arrows and lone pairs

Example of mechanism
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

19(d)(ii) An answer that makes reference to the following Standalone marks (2)
• heterolytic (bond) fission occurs (1) Allow heterolytic (bond) breaking
Allow heterolysis
Do not award heterolytic fission of any other bond.
Ignore heterolytic reaction
• the (pair of) electrons in the C─Br bond are transferred to Allow ‘the bonding electron pair is transferred to the
the bromine atom (1) bromine (atom)’
Allow ‘C─Br bond is broken and both electrons are
transferred to the bromine (atom)’
There must be an indication of two electrons (pair /
both)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number

19(d)(iii) An answer that makes reference to the following (2)

• (shape is) trigonal planar (1) Allow triangular planar
Ignore just ‘trigonal’
Ignore bond angles
• three bond pairs (and no lone pairs) Allow regions of electrons
and Do not award lone pairs / atoms for bond pairs
arranged to minimise repulsion (1) Allow for maximum separation
No TE on incorrect numbers of valence electron pairs
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

19(d)(iv) An answer that makes reference to the following (2)

All three correct scores (2)
Any two correct scores (1)
• two structures of isomeric alcohols C4H10O (1) Allow displayed, structural or skeletal formulae or any
combination of these
Allow C2H5 for CH3CH2
• third structure of isomeric alcohol C4H10O (1)
M2 depends on M1 being scored
Penalise connectivity errors only with horizontal OH
and once only
Penalise omission of H atoms in displayed structures
once only
Using C3H7OH scores zero

Examples of structures
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

19(e)(i) An answer that makes reference to the following (2)

• all species correct (1) Ag2O + H2O → 2Ag+ + 2OH−

• equation balanced (1) Non-ionic equation scores (1)

Ag2O + H2O → 2AgOH
Allow reversible arrow
Ignore state symbols even if incorrect

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number

19(e)(ii) An answer that makes reference to the following (1)

• (because silver(I) oxide is insoluble) it can easily be Allow (because silver(I) oxide is insoluble) it can be
separated from the reaction mixture (when reaction is reused
complete) Allow NaOH / KOH are caustic / corrosive (due to
high concentration of hydroxide ions)
Allow Ag2O is less corrosive (than NaOH)
Ignore reference to reactivity of NaOH and KOH
Ignore reference to reactivity of Na and K
Ignore reference to other silver compounds
(Total for Question 19 = 16 marks)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

20(a)(i) Here and throughout the paper (4)

Do not penalise correct premature rounding
Penalise incorrect rounding only in their final answer

Example of calculation
• identification and number of bonds broken Bonds broken:
and 7 × C─C + 18 × C─H + 12.5 × O=O
the values needed (1) E (bond breaking) = 7 × 347 + 18 × 413 + 12.5 × 498
• evaluation of energy required (1) = (+)16088 (kJ mol−1)
TE only if at least 2 bonds used
• identification of bonds formed Bonds formed:
and E (bond forming) = 16 × C=O + 18 × O─H
the values needed = 16 × 805 + 18 × 464
and
evaluation of energy produced (1) = (−)21232 (kJ mol−1)
• evaluation of enthalpy change of combustion (1) ΔcH = 16088 – 21232 = −5144 (kJ mol−1)
TE at each stage (even if final value is positive)
Ignore SF except 1 SF
Units are not required but if given must be correct for
the final value
Correct answer with some working scores (4)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

20(a)(ii) An answer that makes reference to the following (2)

• the bond enthalpies are averaged over a (large) number of Allow just bond enthalpies are average values
compounds (1)

• bond enthalpies always refer to substances in the gas phase Allow just octane is a liquid or water is a liquid
and Allow calculations using mean bond enthalpies do not
octane and water are liquids when the value of ΔcHo is include changes of state
obtained (1) Ignore non-standard conditions
Do not award explanations for experimental error such
as heat loss, or incomplete combustion
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

20(a)(iii) Example of calculation (2)

• calculation of molar mass of octane (1) M = 8 × 12 + 18 = 114 g mol−1
Allow mol octane = 1000÷(8x12 + 18x1) = 8.772
Ignore just (8x12 + 18x1)

• conversion of kJ mol−1 to MJ kg−1 1000 × 5470 ÷ 114 = 47982 kJ kg−1= 47.982 MJkg−1
and
calculation of percentage efficiency (1) Efficiency = 100 x 11 ÷ 47.982 = 22.925 /22.9 / 23%
Allow conversion of MJ kg−1 to kJ mol−1
= 114 x 11 x 1000 ÷ 1000 = 1254 (kJ mol−1)
and
Efficiency = 100 x 1254 ÷ 5470 = 22.925 /22.9 / 23%
Ignore SF except 1 SF
TE unless % efficiency > 100
Correct answer with no working scores (2)
Allow calculation using ΔcHo from mean bond
enthalpy data (−5144 kJ mol−1):
Efficiency =24.378%
Allow calculation using stated incorrect ΔcHo from
mean bond enthalpy data unless % efficiency > 100
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

20(a)(iv) An answer that makes reference to two of the following (2)

• heat loss to the surroundings (1) Accept specific examples such as

Heat loss due to friction in the engine
Heat loss via hot exhaust
Allow just ‘converted to heat’
Allow energy loss to the surroundings
Ignore just ‘friction’

• energy is used to bring the engine to operating Allow energy is used to warm up the engine
temperature (1) Allow energy is used to start the engine
Allow energy is used for aircon / electronic devices

• incomplete combustion (of the fuel) (1) Allow combustion is not smooth
Ignore inefficient combustion

Ignore references to standard conditions

Ignore fuel evaporates
Ignore petrol not 100% octane
Ignore the idea that some other force is moving the car
e.g. car is going downhill
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number
*20(b) This question assesses the student’s ability to show a coherent and Guidance on how the mark scheme should be applied.
logically structured answer with linkages and fully sustained 6
reasoning. The mark for indicative content should be added to the
mark for lines of reasoning. For example, a response
Marks are awarded for indicative content and for how the answer is with five indicative marking points that is partially
structured and shows lines of reasoning. structured with some linkages and lines of reasoning
scores 4 marks (3 marks for indicative content and 1
The following table shows how the marks should be awarded for mark for partial structure and some linkages and lines of
indicative content. reasoning).
Number of indicative marking Number of marks awarded for
points seen in answer indicative marking points If there were no linkages between the points, then the
6 4 same indicative marking points would yield an overall
5-4 3 score of 3 marks (3 marks for indicative content and no
marks for linkages).
3-2 2
1 1
In general it would be expected that
0 0
5 or 6 indicative points would get 2 reasoning marks
3 or 4 indicative points would get 1 reasoning mark
The following table shows how the marks should be awarded for
0, 1 or 2 indicative points would get 0 reasoning marks.
structure and lines of reasoning
Number of marks awarded If there is any incorrect chemistry, deduct mark(s) from
for structure of answer and the reasoning. If no reasoning mark(s) awarded do not
sustained lines of reasoning deduct mark(s).
Answer shows a coherent logical
structure with linkages and fully Comment: Look for the indicative marking points first,
2
sustained lines of reasoning then consider the mark for the structure of the answer
demonstrated throughout and sustained line of reasoning
Answer is partially structured
with some linkages and lines of 1
reasoning
Answer has no linkages between
0
points and is unstructured
 Answer Additional guidance Mark
Question
*20(b) Indicative points 6
Similarities Allow van der Waals forces
cont
• IP1both hydrogen and ammonia form London / Ignore permanent dipole-dipole forces in ammonia
dispersion forces Do not award H2 forms hydrogen bonds / permanent
dipole-dipole forces
• IP2 a temporary dipole forms in a molecule and induces a Accept fluctuating electron clouds result in differences in
dipole in an adjacent molecule electron density within the molecule
Allow instantaneous dipole-dipole attractions between
molecules
• IP3 the attraction (between the temporary dipoles) is small(er) Allow because H2 has only two / few electrons
in hydrogen because the H2 electron cloud is not easily Allow attraction is greater in ammonia because it has
polarised more electrons
Differences
• IP4 ammonia forms hydrogen bonds (because nitrogen is very Do not award ammonia forms hydrogen bonds with
electronegative) water

IP4 and IP5 may be scored by a diagram showing dipole

δ+ δ- and lone pair and with H bond labelled
:------

Allow N----H─N bond angle not equal to 180

hydrogen bond

• IP5 Accept hydrogen bond forms between the nitrogen lone Allow hydrogen bond forms between the δ− nitrogen
pair and the (δ+) hydrogen (of a different molecule) and the δ+ hydrogen (of a different molecule)

• IP6 ammonia liquefies more easily than hydrogen because Allow permanent dipole-dipole forces for H bonds here
hydrogen bonds are stronger than London forces Ignore just ‘H-bonding is the strongest IMF’
Ignore reference to boiling temperatures
Do not award hydrogen liquefies to form water
Do not award energy is required to liquefy a gas
(Total for Question 20 = 16 marks)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

21(a)(i) A diagram showing the following (1)

• new line starting at the origin clip

with
and
(a)(ii)
lower maximum
and
peak moved to the right Do not award if any part of the curve to the right of the
peak is below the 300ºC line
and
asymptotic line above the original Do not award if asymptote finishes higher than 25%
the height of the new peak

Example of Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

21(a)(ii) An answer that makes reference to the following (2)

EITHER
• Increasing the temperature increases the (average kinetic) Allow particles / molecules / atoms for collisions clip
energy of collisions throughout with
and (a)(i)
Allow just ‘increasing the temperature increases the
so more collisions have energy greater than the activation number of collisions with energy greater than Ea’
energy (1)

• adding a catalyst lowers the activation energy

and
so more collisions have energy greater than the activation
energy (1)
OR
• (rate increases when) more collisions have an energy Standalone mark
greater than (or equal to) the activation energy (1) Allow particles / molecules / atoms for collisions

• the area under the curve beyond Ea is increased when the In no other mark is scored increasing the temperature
temperature is increased increases the (average kinetic) energy of collisions
and and
when Ea becomes Ecat (1) adding a catalyst lowers the activation energy
scores (1)
M2 may be scored by clear labelling of the relevant
areas under the curves
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

21(b) An answer that makes reference to the following (2)

• Advantage: hydrogen is a useful by-product (1) Allow higher atom economy
Ignore higher temperature gives higher rate
Ignore oxygen not needed
• Disadvantage: higher temperature means higher energy Allow higher temperature is more expensive
costs (1) Allow the energy required is more expensive
Allow higher temperature needs more expensive equipment
Allow more energy is required
Ignore just ‘more expensive’
Ignore reference to yield
Do not award the hazards of hydrogen
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

21(c) An answer that makes reference to the following (2)

• (methanol) O─H stretch wavenumber range 3750-3200 (cm−1)(1) Allow OH or CO

• (methanal) C=O stretch wavenumber range 1740-1720 (cm−1) Ignore ROH / CH3OH / HCHO
or
(methanal) C─H stretch wavenumber range 2900-2820 (cm−1) Both wavenumber ranges without bonds
scores (1)
or
Specific wavenumbers within the ranges or
(methanal) C─H stretch wavenumber range 2775-2700 (cm−1) (1)
wavenumber ranges within the Data Booklet
ranges scores max (1)
If more than one wavenumber is given for
methanal all must be correct
Ignore alkyl C─H stretch wavenumber ranges
(Total for Question 21 = 7 marks)

TOTAL FOR SECTION B = 39 MARKS

Section C

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number

22(a) An answer that makes reference to the following (1)

• (safety) glasses / goggles / spectacles Allow gloves

Ignore laboratory coat / apron
Ignore mask
Ignore open window
Ignore all explanations for the selected safety
precaution
Do not award use in a cupboard / fume cupboard

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number

22(b)(i) An answer that makes reference to the following Example of equation (1)
• ionic equation for acid-carbonate reaction 2H+ + CaCO3 → Ca2+ + H2O + CO2

Allow 2H+ + CO32− → H2O + CO2

Allow multiples
Ignore state symbols even if incorrect
Do not award inclusion of spectator ions
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

22(b)(ii) Example of calculation (4)

• calculation of mass of HCl in 50 cm3 (1) mass of HCl = 85.0 × 50 ÷ 750 = 5.6667 (g)
• calculation of Mr of HCl HCl Mr = 36.5
and
calculation of moles of HCl in 50 cm3 (1) mol HCl = 5.6667 ÷ 36.5 = 0.15525 (mol)

• calculation of moles of CaCO3 (1) mol CaCO3 = 0.15525 ÷ 2

= 0.077626 / 7.7626 × 10−2 (mol)
• calculation of Mr of CaCO3 CaCO3 Mr = 100.1
and
calculation of mass of CaCO3 (1) 0.077626 × 100.1 = 7.7703 / 7.77 / 7.8 (g)
TE at each stage
Allow CaCO3 Mr = 100 giving 7.7626 (g)
If moles of HCl in 750 cm3 are calculated first
= 85÷36.5 = 2.3288 (mol). This scores M2 Correct answer with some working scores (4)
Ignore SF except 1 SF
If all the HCl is used, mass CaCO3 = 116.55 g
scores (3)
If the reacting ratio is used the wrong way round the
mass CaCO3 = 31.08 g
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

22(c)(i) An answer that makes reference to the following Example of equation (3)

• disproportionation (reaction) (1) standalone mark

Ignore ‘redox’
Ignore just ‘chlorine both oxidised and reduced’

• chlorine oxidised from zero (in Cl2) For M2 and M3 allow oxidation numbers of the species
shown in the equation
to +1 in HClO / ClO− (1)

• chlorine reduced from zero (in Cl2) to −1 in HCl / Cl− (1)

If M2 and M3 not scored just ‘chlorine oxidised from
zero (in Cl2) to +1 and reduced from zero (in Cl2) to
−1’ scores (1)
If M2 and M3 not scored the three oxidation numbers
of chlorine scores (1). This may be shown on the
equation
Do not award M2 / M3 if changes of oxidation
numbers of H and O given
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

22(c)(ii) Example of calculation (4)

• calculation of moles of oxygen (1) mol O2 = 113 ÷ 24000
= 4.7083 × 10−3 / 0.0047083 (mol)
• deduction of moles of NaOCl(1) mol NaOCl = mol O2 = 4.7083 × 10−3 / 0.0047083 (mol)

• calculation of Mr (NaOCl) & mass of NaOCl in 5 cm3(1) Mr (NaOCl) = 74.5

mass of NaOCl in 5 cm3 = 74.5 × 4.7083 × 10−3
= 0.35077 (g)
• calculation of mass of of NaOCl in 1 dm3 0.35077 × 200 = 70.154 = 70 (g dm−3)
and TE at each stage
answer given to 2 SF (1) Correct answer with some working scores (4)
The conversion from moles to mass omitted and the
answer given to 2 SF as 0.94 (mol dm−3 ) scores (3)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

22(c)(iii) An answer that makes reference to the following Standalone marks (2)
• propane-1,2,3-triol forms three hydrogen bonds per Allow propane-1,2,3-triol has three OH groups
molecule (1) and
forms hydrogen bonds
Allow ‘propane-1,2,3-triol forms three hydrogen bonds’
Do not award propane-1,2,3-triol has / forms OH− ions

• so the molecules are strongly attracted to each other (and Allow so the intermolecular forces are (very) strong
to surfaces ) (1) Allow so molecules do not move past each other (easily)
Allow the intermolecular forces need a lot of energy to
overcome
Ignore just ‘hydrogen bonding is the strongest
intermolecular force’

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number

22(d) An answer that makes reference to the following (2)

• toxic chlorine would be produced (1) Ignore just ‘forms chlorine’

• (because) the chlorine disinfectant equilibrium would Allow NaClO + 2HCl → NaCl + H2O + Cl2
move to the left (because the concentration of H+ would
increase (1) Allow HClO + HCl → H2O + Cl2

Do not award NaClO + HCl → NaOH + Cl2

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
number

22(e) Example of calculation (4)

H B O Na
% 5.2 11.3 71.4 12.1
• calculation of mol of each element (1) 5.2/1 11.3/10.8 71.4/16 12.1/23
mol
=5.2 =1.05 = 4.46 = 0.526
• calculation of ratio ÷ 0.526 9.89 2.00 8.48 1
and
calculation of simplest whole number ratio (1) ratio 20 4 17 2
TE for only 3 elements
• deduction of moles of water of crystallisation (1) Hydrogen is only in water so 10 H2O

• deduction of formula (1) Na2B4O7.10H2O

TE at each stage for formulae with H2O
Correct answer with some working scores (4)
Ignore SF except 1 SF
Incorrect rounding leads to formulae such as NaB2H10O8
which scores (1)
Processing this to NaB2O3.5H2O scores (3)

(Total for Question 22 = 21 marks)

TOTAL FOR SECTION C = 21 MARKS

TOTAL FORPAPER = 80 MARKS
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