EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 1/11

Heriot-Watt University
School of Engineering and Physical Science
Mechanical & Chemical Engineering

B58FB / B48BB Fluid Mechanics

Tutorial Topic 4: Pipes & Components

1. Water flows through a pipe that connects a pressurised closed tank to an outlet that is
open to the atmosphere at the ground level. The elevation of the water surface in the tank
is 5m, and pipe is 12km long to cover an irrigation field. It is made of PVC with a diameter
of 0.2m, and an absolute roughness of 0.2 mm.

P1

5m

Figure 4.1: Discharging tank. P2

a. If the flow rate Q = 10 l/s, which is the pressure required in the tank? [1.22 bara]
b. If we the pressure in the tank rises to 5 bara, what will be the flowrate Q? [26 l/s]

2. Using equivalent length method, calculate the pressure difference between the two ends
of the pipeline shown in the figure below considering (a) the major frictional losses only
and (b) major frictional losses and minor form losses. Identify the total length and the
instrumentation from the figure. [5.71 bar ; 5.97 bar]

Figure 4.2: Pipeline System.

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 2/11

Additional data:
• Pipeline diameter 3 in.
• Fluid flow rate is 0.01 m3/s.
• Fluid density is 1100 kg/m3.
• Fluid viscosity is 0.6 x 10-3 N s/m2.
• Pipe absolute roughness is 0.035 mm.

3. Water at 5 °C (ρ = 1000 kg/m3 , μ = 1.519 x 10-3 kg/ms) flows through the coils of the heat
exchanger as shown below at a rate of 3.8 L/min. Determine the pressure drop between
the inlet and outlet of the horizontal device, given that absolute roughness of the copper
pipe (drawn tubing) is e = 0.0015 mm. You must identify the total length and the fittings
from the figure. [ 2.5 kPa ]

Figure 4.3: Heat Exchanger Coil.

4. Water flows steadily through a 2 cm diameter galvanised iron pipe (e = 0.15 mm) system
shown below at a rate of 5.6 x 10-4 m3/s. Your boss suggests that the friction losses in the
straight pipe sections can be neglected when compared to the losses in the threaded
elbows and fittings. Do you agree or disagree? Assume the minor loss coefficients of the
reducer and tee are 0.15 and 2. You must identify the length and the instrumentation from
the figure. [ Disagree ]

Figure 4.4: Galvanised Iron Pipe System.

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 3/11

5. A horizontal pipe carrying water with a density of 1000 kg/m3 goes through a flange that
reduces the cross-sectional from 0.002 m2 to 0.0005 m2. The manufacturer reports that
the flange has a discharge coefficient as 0.95. The pressure upstream of the reduction is
30 kN/m2 and the pressure change across the flange is 220 mmHg, determine:

(a) The fluid velocity upstream of the reduction. [1.88 m/s]

(b) The force exerted on the pipe by the fluid’s motion. [38.5 N]

6. A reservoir collects rainwater at the roof of a building. It drains into a pipeline and into
storage tank used to service a residential complex. The relative height between the
reservoir and the pipe exit and the length of different pipes are depicted below. Four pipes
are used, the diameter and the relative roughness is provided. The flow passes through
a fully open gate valve. You may neglect the loss in the sudden expansion and assume
the reservoir is very large and has a still level. The inlet section has a loss coefficient of
Kinlet = 0.5, and the exit pipe empties into a very large lake (i.e. Koutlet = 1).
(a) Find the expression that relates the level of the reservoir yreservoir with the velocity
of the fluid at the exit and the “total head loss” through the system.
(b) Find an expression for the “total head loss” as a function of friction factor(s), pipe
length(s) and diameter(s), loss coefficient(s) and velocity(ies).
(c) If the volumetric flow through the system is 5 dm3/s, calculate yreservoir [ 3.22m ]

yreservoir
Inlet

Sudden
expansion L = 50 m
L = 25 m h = 10 m
Gate valve
L = 50 m
L = 60 m outlet

Pipe 1 = L = 25m, diameter 5 cm , ε/e/D

D ==2210
x -4
10-4

Pipe 2 = L = 50m, diameter 5cm , ε/e/D

D ==55 10
x 10
-3 -3

Pipe 3 ; L = 50m, diameter 40 cm , ε/e/D

D ==2210 -4 -4
x 10

Pipe 4 ; L = 60m, diameter 40 cm , ε/e/D

D ==5510 -3
x 10-3

Figure 4.6: Rainwater Collector System.

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 4/11

Heriot-Watt University
School of Engineering and Physical Science
Mechanical & Chemical Engineering

B58FB / B48BB Fluid Mechanics

Tutorial Topic 4: Pipes & Components

Solutions

1. Water flows through a pipe that connects a pressurised closed tank to an outlet that is
open to the atmosphere at the ground level. The elevation of the water surface in the
tank is 5m, and pipe is 12km long to cover an irrigation field. It is made of PVC with a
diameter of 0.2m, and an absolute roughness of 0.2 mm.

P1

5m

Figure 4.1: Discharging tank. P2

a. If the flow rate Q = 10 l/s, which is the pressure required in the tank? [1.22 bara]
b. If we the pressure in the tank rises to 5 bara, what will be the flowrate Q? [26 l/s]

(a) We apply Bernoulli from the inlet of the pipe to the outlet of the pipe:

"
𝑃! 𝑣!" 𝑃" 𝑣"" 𝑃" 𝑣"" 𝐿$%$& 𝑣$%$&
+ + 𝑧! = + + 𝑧" + ℎ# = + + 𝑧" + 4 𝑓$%$&
𝜌𝑔 2𝑔 𝜌𝑔 2𝑔 𝜌𝑔 2𝑔 𝐷$%$& 2𝑔

Here 𝑣" = 𝑣$%$& because along the pipe we have the same diameter as in point (2) where
we apply Bernoulli, so:

'! +" ' +" ,#$#% +"" '! .'" ,#$#% +"
()
+ ")! + 𝑧! = ()" + ")" + 𝑧" + 4 𝑓$%$& -#$#% ")
so ()
= (𝑧" − 𝑧! ) + (1 + 4 𝑓$%$& -#$#%
) ")"

𝑃" = 1.013𝑏𝑎𝑟 because we are told it is open to the atmosphere, and (𝑧" − 𝑧! ) = −5 𝑚
because the exit point is lower than the tank. To calculate 𝑃! we need then to calculate
the head losses ℎ# , but they depend on the length 𝐿$%$& = 100𝑚, the diameter 𝐷$%$& =

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 5/11

0.2𝑚, and the velocity and friction factors. To calculate the friction factor we need to know
( +#$#% /#$#%
the reynolds in thar pipe section 𝑅𝑒$%$& = 0
, which depends on the velocity.
So if we know the flow rate Q, that moves through the pipe, it means we can calculate the
velocity, calculate Re and with it the friction factor.

1 3.3!3 5 !333 × 3.8" × 3."

𝑣$%$& = 2! = &'.""
= 0.32 𝑅𝑒$%$& ! = = 6.36 × 109
! 6 ! !3*+
)

& 3.333"
This pipe has a relative roughness of - = = 0.001. We have two options to calculate
3."
the fanning friction factor, to look for it in the chart entering with Re~64000 and e/D=0.001,
in which case we give an approximate reading of maybe ~ 0.0057/0.0059.

We can also look for the appropriate correlation equation to calculate f.

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 6/11

For this particular range of values, we could use the Haaland correlation (because
Re>40000 and e/D < 0.05). If the pipe was smooth, or if it was much rougher there would
be other correlations we can use, see above in lectures in Topic 4.

1 1

⎛ ! ⎞ ⎛ ! ⎞
𝑓=⎜ *+' ⎟ =⎜ *+' ⎟ = 0.00575
%' # %' #
!.# &. !.# &.
"#$.& ()* + $% ,- (.) /0 "#$.& ()* +$% ,- (.) /0
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

Now, we can now calculate the head loss and the value of 𝑃! :

𝑃! − 𝑃" 𝐿$%$& 𝑣""

= (𝑧" − 𝑧! ) + (1 + 4 𝑓$%$& )
𝜌𝑔 𝐷$%$& 2𝑔
𝐿$%$& 𝜌 𝑣""
𝑃! = 𝑃" + 𝜌𝑔(𝑧" − 𝑧! ) + (1 + 4 𝑓$%$& )
𝐷$%$& 2
!"333 !333 .3.8""
= 101325 + 1000. 9.81 . (−5) + (1 + 4. 0.00575. )
3." "

𝑃! = 101325 − 49050 + 69940 = 122214 𝑃𝑎

(b) What happens if we do NOT know the flow rate Q? We still have the same equation,

𝑃! − 𝑃" 𝐿$%$& 𝑣""

= (𝑧" − 𝑧! ) + (1 + 4 𝑓$%$& )
𝜌𝑔 𝐷$%$& 2𝑔

We know all the pressures 𝑃! = 5𝑏𝑎𝑟, 𝑃" = 1.013𝑏𝑎𝑟, (𝑧" − 𝑧! ) = −5𝑚, 𝐿$%$& = 100𝑚,
𝐷$%$& = 0.2𝑚, but not the velocity 𝑣" . We have an issue, why? because we cannot
calculate 𝑣" directly since the friction factor 𝑓$%$& … is also function of 𝑣" ! What we
have here is 1 equation and 1 unknown, but in an implicit form (unable to solve for
𝑣" ,). A way to find the solution is by iteration (this is NOT the same as trial and error).
You start with an assumption for the implicit term (f) function of 𝑣" so that:
a. Take an assumed value of 𝑓$%$& (in a system with a presumably large flow, a
reasonable guess is the value of f read from the moody chart for that particular
e/D at very high Re where the lines become horizontal).
b. Calculate velocity from Bernoulli equation.
c. Recalculate the correct value of the friction factor f with the velocity. This will
not be the same as the one you guessed but it will be closer to the solution.
d. Repeat (b) and repeat (c) until the values of the velocity and the friction factor
do not change, and so they are the solution to the equation.

For example, in this case we would start with a friction factor of 0.005 (because for very
high Re and e/D=0.001 that is what one reads in the moody chart, but no matter where
you start, if it is a reasonable f value the iteration will work). Bernoulli equation becomes

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 7/11

Iteration 1

𝑃! − 𝑃" 𝐿$%$& 𝑣""

= (𝑧" − 𝑧! ) + 4 𝑓$%$&
𝜌𝑔 𝐷$%$& 2𝑔

𝑔𝐷$%$& 𝑃! − 𝑃" 9.81 . 0.2 500000 − 101325

𝑣"" = B + (𝑧! − 𝑧" )C = B + 5C
2 𝑓$%$& 𝐿$%$& 𝜌𝑔 2 . 0.005 . 12000 1000 . 9.81
= 0.746 𝑚2/𝑠2

!333 × 3.:; × 3."

𝑣" = 0.863 𝑚/𝑠 and 𝑅𝑒$%$& = = 1.72 × 10<
! !3*+

Looking into moody chart or using Haaland we find that for these conditions, Re=172000
and e/D=0.001, the actual value of 𝑓$%$& should have been 0.00523. So we recalculate 𝑣"

Iteration 2

𝑔𝐷$%$& 𝑃! − 𝑃" 9.81 . 0.2 500000 − 101325

𝑣"" = B + (𝑧! − 𝑧" )C = B + 5C
2 𝑓$%$& 𝐿$%$& 𝜌𝑔 2 . 0.00523 . 12000 1000 . 9.81
= 0.713 𝑚2/𝑠2

!333 × 3.:9 × 3."

𝑣" = 0.844𝑚/𝑠 and 𝑅𝑒$%$& = ! !3*+
= 1.68 × 10<

Repeating the process, we find that for Re=168800 and e/D=0.001, 𝑓$%$& =0.00527.

Iteration 3

𝑔𝐷$%$& 𝑃! − 𝑃" 9.81 . 0.2 500000 − 101325

𝑣"" = B + (𝑧! − 𝑧" )C = B + 5C
2 𝑓$%$& 𝐿$%$& 𝜌𝑔 2 . 0.00527 . 12000 1000 . 9.81
= 0.708 𝑚2/𝑠2

!333 × 3.:9 × 3."

𝑣" = 0.841𝑚/𝑠 and 𝑅𝑒$%$& = ! !3*+
= 1.68 × 10<

Repeating the process again, we find that for Re=168200 and e/D=0.001,
𝑓$%$& =0.00527, we see that the value of the velocity and the friction factor in iterations
3 and 2 is almost identical, so this is the solution to the equation

Now that we know the velocity 𝑣" = 0.841 𝑚/𝑠 we can say that the flowrate that will move
through the pipe if the pressure 𝑃! is increased to 5 bar is

-"" 3."! 58 #%=>&6

𝑄 = 𝐴" 𝑣" = 𝜋 9
𝑣" = 𝜋 9
𝑣" = 0.026 6
= 26 6

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 8/11

2. Using equivalent length method, calculate the pressure difference between the two ends
of the pipeline shown in the figure below considering (a) the major frictional losses only
and (b) major frictional losses and minor form losses. Identify the total length and the
instrumentation from the figure. [5.71 bar ; 5.97 bar]

Figure 4.2: Pipeline System.

Additional data:
• Pipeline diameter 3 in.
• Fluid flow rate is 0.01 m3/s.
• Fluid density is 1100 kg/m3.
• Fluid viscosity is 0.6 x 10-3 N s/m2.
• Pipe absolute roughness is 0.035 mm.

D = 0.076 m
Q = 0.01 m3/s
ρ = 1100 kg/m3
µ = 0.6 x 10-3 N s/m2
e = 0.035 mm
e/D = 4.6 x 10-4

We apply bernoulli from point (1) is before the first valve, to point (2) after the last valve.
Written in terms of pressure we have

𝜌𝑢!" 𝜌𝑢""
𝑃! + + 𝜌𝑔𝑧! = 𝑃" + + 𝜌𝑔𝑧" + Δ𝑃#?66
2 2

Since the pipe does not change in diameter, continuity tells us that the velocity is constant
U2=U1. So the equation simplifies to

𝑃! − 𝑃" = 𝜌𝑔(𝑧" − 𝑧! ) + Δ𝑃#?66 = Δ𝑃@A/>?6=B=%C + Δ𝑃#?66

(a)
A = π/4 * (0.076)2 = 4.54 x 10-3 m2
u = Q/A =2.204 m/s
𝜌𝑢𝐷
Re = = 3.07 × 10<
𝜇

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 9/11

From Moody diagram – fanning friction factor (f = 0.0045),

"
𝐿 𝜌𝑢$%$& 220 2.2042"
Δ𝑃#?66(6E%F ?F#A) = 4𝑓 = 4 (0.0045) B C (1100) N O=
𝐷 2 0.076 2

= 139209 N/m2

Δ𝑃@A/>?6=B=%C = 𝜌𝑔(𝑧" − 𝑧! ) = (1100) (9.81) (40) = 431640 N/m2

so if we neglect the minor losses,

𝑃! − 𝑃" = Δ𝑃@A/>?6=B=%C + Δ𝑃#?66 = 139209 + 431640 = 570849 N/m2

(b)

Bends & Fittings:

3* 90o elbows = 3*35 = 105 equivalent pipe diameters (Le/D)

1*full open gate valve = 7.5 equivalent pipe diameters (Le/D)

1*full open globe valve = 450 equivalent pipe diameters (Le/D)

1* 45o elbows = 15 equivalent pipe diameters (Le/D)

Total equivalent pipe diameters Le/D (all fittings) = 577.5

"
,H,% ( J#$#%
Δ𝑃#?66(6E%FHI?>5) = 4𝑓 - "
= 4 (0.0045) (220/0.076+577.5) (1100) (2.2042/2)

= 166019.445 N/m2 (pressure loss bends and fittings + straight pipe).

Total pressure drop = bends, fittings, plus straight pipe plus hydrostatic losses

𝑃! − 𝑃" = Δ𝑃@A/>?6=B=%C + Δ𝑃#?66 =166019.445 + 431640 = 597659.445 N/m2 (5.97 bar).

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 10/11

3. Water at 5 °C (ρ = 1000 kg/m3 , μ = 1.519 x 10-3 kg/ms) flows through the coils of the heat
exchanger as shown below at a rate of 3.8 L/min. Determine the pressure drop between
the inlet and outlet of the horizontal device, given that absolute roughness of the copper
pipe (drawn tubing) is e = 0.0015 mm. You must identify the total length and the fittings
from the figure. [ 2.5 kPa ]

Figure 4.3: Heat Exchanger Coil.

1 ;.8 ×!3*,
𝑄 = 3.8 𝐿/ min = 6.3 × 10.< 𝑚8 /𝑠 so 𝑢=2= !.+×!'*" "
= 0.48 𝑚/𝑠
K( )
"

(J- (!333)(3.9:)(!.8×!3*" )
Re = 0
= (3.33!<!L)
= 3900 (almost turbulent)

e = 0.0015 mm so we have e/D = 1.2 x 10-4. . Using the Moody diagram you obtain the
fanning friction factor f = 0.010

𝐿% 𝑢%" 𝑢M"
ℎ=?=B# = T 4𝑓% B C + T 𝐾M
𝐷% 2𝑔 2𝑔

𝐾?J=&= = 1.5 (based on the loss coefficient k for 180o (threaded) return bend)

3.68 0.48" 0.48"

ℎ! = 4(0.010) B C + (7 × 1.5) = 0.256 𝑚
1.3 × 10." 2(9.81) 2(9.81)

𝑃! 𝑢!" 𝑃" 𝑢""

+ + 𝑧! = + + 𝑧" + ℎ#?66
𝜌𝑔 2𝑔 𝜌𝑔 2𝑔

'! ' '! '

()
= ()" + ℎ#?66 and ()
− ()" = ℎ#?66

𝑃! − 𝑃" = 𝜌𝑔ℎ#?66 = (1000)(9.81)( 0.256) = 2514.13 𝑃𝑎

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 11/11

4. Water flows steadily through a 2 cm diameter galvanised iron pipe (e = 0.15 mm) system
shown below at a rate of 5.6 x 10-4 m3/s. Your boss suggests that the friction losses in the
straight pipe sections can be neglected when compared to the losses in the threaded
elbows and fittings. Do you agree or disagree? Assume the minor loss coefficients of the
reducer and tee are 0.15 and 2. You must identify the length and the instrumentation from
the figure. [ Disagree ]

Figure 4.4: Galvanised Iron Pipe System.

𝑚8
𝑄 = 5.6 × 10.9
𝑠
Dpipe = 2 cm
e/Dpipe = 7.5 x 10-3

𝑄 5.6 × 10.9
𝑢= = = 1.78 𝑚/𝑠
𝐴 2 × 10." "
𝜋( 2 )

(J- (!333)(!.N:)("×!3*" )
Re = 0
= (3.33!)
= 35650.7 (turbulent)

Using the Moody diagram, you can obtain the fanning factor f = 0.0092

𝐿% 𝑢%" 0.425 (1.78)"

ℎ6E%F = T 4𝑓% B C = 4(0.0092) B C = 0.1263 𝑚
𝐷% 2𝑔 2 × 10." 2(9.81)

𝑢M" (1.78)"
ℎI?>5 = T 𝐾M = (2 × 1.5 + 0.15 + 2) = 0.8317 𝑚
2𝑔 2(9.81)

ℎ6E%F 0.1263
= = 0.15186
ℎI?>5 0.8317

Disagree because the pipe frictional losses is about 15% of the other form losses.

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 12/11

5. A horizontal pipe carrying water with a density of 1000 kg/m3 goes through a flange that
reduces the cross-sectional from 0.002 m2 to 0.0005 m2. The manufacturer reports that
the flange has a discharge coefficient as 0.95. The pressure upstream of the reduction is
30 kN/m2 and the pressure change across the flange is 220 mmHg, determine:

(a) The fluid velocity upstream of the reduction. [1.88 m/s]

(a) Qactual = Cd Qideal

So we first apply the Bernoulli equation to the system as if it underwent no energy loss.
" "
𝜌𝑢!,%/&B# 𝜌𝑢"%/&B#
𝑃! + 𝜌𝑔𝑧! + = 𝑃" + 𝜌𝑔𝑧" +
2 2
" "
((J"$.%/0 .J!,$.%/0 )
As 𝑧! = 𝑧" we have 𝑃! − 𝑃" =
"

Converting mmHg to Pa, hydrostatic pressure

∆𝑃 = 𝑃! − 𝑃" = 𝜌𝑔ℎ = 13600 × 9.81 × 0.22 = 29.35 𝑘𝑃𝑎

2(𝑃! − 𝑃" ) 2 × 29.35 𝑘𝑃𝑎 𝑚8

𝑄%/&B# = =X = 3.956 × 10.8
X 1 1 1 1 𝑠
𝜌N (1000) Y − Z
"− O 0.0005" 0.002"
𝐴"%/&B# 𝐴! "

5+ 5+
Qactual = Cd Qideal so. 𝑄BC=JB# = (0.95) 3.956 × 10.8 = 3.7586 × 10.8
6 6

𝑚8
3.7586 × 10.8
𝑢! = 𝑠 = 1.879 𝑚
0.002 𝑠

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 13/11

6. A reservoir collects rainwater at the roof of a building. It drains into a pipeline and into
storage tank used to service a residential complex. The relative height between the
reservoir and the pipe exit and the length of different pipes are depicted below. Four pipes
are used, the diameter and the relative roughness is provided. The flow passes through
a fully open gate valve. You may neglect the loss in the sudden expansion and assume
the reservoir is very large and has a still level. The inlet section has a loss coefficient of
Kinlet = 0.5, and the exit pipe empties into a very large lake (i.e. Koutlet = 1).
(d) Find the expression that relates the level of the reservoir yreservoir with the velocity
of the fluid at the exit and the “total head loss” through the system.
(e) Find an expression for the “total head loss” as a function of friction factor(s), pipe
length(s) and diameter(s), loss coefficient(s) and velocity(ies).
(f) If the volumetric flow through the system is 5 dm3/s, calculate yreservoir [ 3.22m ]

yreservoir
Inlet

Sudden
expansion L = 50 m
L = 25 m h = 10 m
Gate valve
L = 50 m
L = 60 m outlet

Pipe 1 = L = 25m, diameter 5 cm , ε/e/D

D ==2210
x -4
10-4

Pipe 2 = L = 50m, diameter 5cm , ε/e/D

D ==55 10
x 10
-3 -3

Pipe 3 ; L = 50m, diameter 40 cm , ε/e/D

D ==2210 -4 -4
x 10

Pipe 4 ; L = 60m, diameter 40 cm , ε/e/D

D ==5510 -3
x 10-3

Figure 4.6: Rainwater Collector System.

(a) Apply Bernoulli from the surface of the reservoir to the end of the exit pipe.

'! +!" '" +""

+ + 𝑧! = + + 𝑧" + ℎ# P1 = P2 = Patm and we can assume that v1 = 0
() ") () ")

𝑣""
𝑧! = + 𝑧" + ℎI
2𝑔

+"" 𝒗𝟐𝟐
𝑧! − 𝑧" = 10 + 𝑦>&6&>+?%> = ")
+ ℎI so 𝒚𝒓𝒆𝒔𝒆𝒓𝒗𝒐𝒊𝒓 = 𝟐𝒈
+ 𝒉𝒇 − 𝟏𝟎

(b) Bernoulli looks at a streamline (a fluid path) from inlet to outlet and the losses that it
will experience, so this streamline passes through sections of changing diameter and type
of pipe changes. We know how to calculate frictional or form losses in section of constant
velocity (and D) so we simply divide the entire pipe in !sections where D, v and f are
constant, and sum all the losses we would have moving from 1 to 2:

ℎ# = ℎ#,%F#&= + ℎI,$%$& ! + ℎI,$%$& " + ℎI,I,$%$& 8 + ℎI,I,$%$& 9 + ℎ#,+B#+& + ℎ#,?J=#&=

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021

EPS Mechanical/Chemical Engineering 14/11

" "
+#$#% ! +#$#% )
ℎ#,%F#&= = 𝑘%F#&= ")
ℎ#, ?J=#&= = 𝑘?J=#&= ")

" "
, +#$#% $ +#$#% )
ℎI, $%$& % = 4 𝑓% - ")
ℎ#,+B#+& = 𝑘+B#+& ")

"
𝐿$%$& ! 𝐿$%$& " 𝑣$%$& !
ℎ# = N𝑘%F#&= + 4 𝑓$%$& ! + 4 𝑓$%$& " O
𝐷$%$& ! 𝐷$%$& " 2𝑔
"
𝐿$%$& 8 𝐿$%$& 9 𝑣$%$& 9
+ N𝑘+B#+& + 4 𝑓$%$& 8 + 4 𝑓$%$& 9 + 𝑘?J=#&= O
𝐷$%$& 8 𝐷$%$& 9 2𝑔

(b) we need to calculate the velocity in each section:

1 3.33< 5 1 3.33< 5
𝑣$%$& ! = 2! = &'.',"
= 2.54 6
𝑣$%$& 8 = 2! = &'.)"
= 0.04 6
! !
) )

1 ! 5 1 3.33< 5
𝑣$%$& " = 2! = &'.',"
= 2.54 6
𝑣$%$& 9 = 2! = &'.)"
= 0.04 6
! !
) )

and with it the Re in each pipe and with it and the roughness the friction f:
𝜌 𝑣$%$& ! 𝑑$%$& ! 1000 × 2.54 × 0.05
𝑅𝑒$%$& ! = 𝑅𝑒$%$& " = = = 1.27 × 10<
𝜇 1 10.8

𝜌 𝑣$%$& ! 𝑑$%$& ! 1000 × 0.04 × 0.4

𝑅𝑒$%$& 8 = 𝑅𝑒$%$& 9 = = = 1.6 × 109
𝜇 1 10.8

If we look in Moody chart or use Haaland for these Re and the e/D given we have

𝑓$%$& ! ~0.0045 𝑓$%$& " ~0.0078 𝑓$%$& 8 ~0.0066 𝑓$%$& 9 ~0.0088

(c) We just need to substitute all values obtained in (c) as well and coefficients and geometry
in the equation obtained in (b) to calculate the losses
"
𝐿$%$& ! 𝐿$%$& " 𝑣$%$& !
ℎ# = N𝑘%F#&= + 4 𝑓$%$& ! + 4 𝑓$%$& " O
𝐷$%$& 8 𝐷$%$& " 2𝑔
"
𝐿$%$& 8 𝐿$%$& 9 𝑣$%$& 9
+ N𝑘+B#+& + 4 𝑓$%$& 8 + 4 𝑓$%$& 9 + 𝑘?J=#&= O
𝐷$%$& 8 𝐷$%$& 9 2𝑔

25 50 2.54"
ℎ# = B0.5 + 4 . 0.0045 + 4 0.0078 C
0.05 0.05 2 . 9.81
50 60 0.04"
+ B0.15 + 4 0.0066 + 4 0.0088 + 1C
0.4 0.4 2 . 9.81

ℎ# = 13.22 + 0.0007 = 13.22 𝑚

And now into the Bernoulli equation obtained in (a) to comptue the level of the reservoir
"
𝑣&Y%= 0.04"
𝑦>&6&>+?%> = + ℎI − 10 = + 13.22 − 10 = 3.22 𝑚
2𝑔 2 × 9.81

©Heriot-Watt University B58FB / B48BB Sep 2021