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National Standard Examination in Biology

NSEB - 2022
Answer & Solutions

1. MCH-1 is expressed by almost all normal cells but not abnormal and infected cells. Cells of which of the
following lymphoid lineages recognize tumor cells and virus-infected abnormal cells by the absence of MHC-
1?
A. TH Cells.
B. Tc Cells.
C. NK Cells.
D. B Cells

Answer (C)
Sol.
Natural killer cells receptors can detect abnormalities such as low 𝑀𝐻𝐶 1 display and unusual markers on cancer
cells and cells infected by some viruses. 𝑁𝐾 cells Use perforin and granzymes to kill their target.

2. Empirical data suggests that optimal group size of animals is determined by costs and benefits associated with it.
When predation risk and success rate were studied in prey-relationships, following graphs were obtained. Four
possible factors that influence the group sizes of prey populations are given below.

I. Conspicuousness of group II. Shared vigilance

III. Confusion effect IV. Every individual with equal chance of being attacked
Match these against the correct graphs marked P,Q, and R:

P Q R
(a) I II, III IV
(b) IV II III, IV
(c) IV II, III I
(d) I II, III IV

Answer (A & D)

Sol.
I. conspicuousness of group increased risk of attack.
3. In a protein structure, 𝛼 − helix hairpin, 𝛽 − hairpin and 𝛽 − 𝛼 − 𝛽 unit are the examples of:
A. Secondary structure
B. Super secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure

Answer (B)

Sol.
Many globular proteins contain combinations of 𝛼 − helix and 𝛽 − pleated sheet secondary structures. These
patterns are called super-secondary structures.
Ex:- 𝛼 − helix hairpin, 𝛽 − halix, hairpin, 𝛽 − 𝑑 − 𝛽 motif.

4. The immunoglobin (X) is present on mast cells and basophils. When bound to an antigen, it triggers the release of
(Y) that causes (Z). Here X, Y and Z respectively refers to:
A. IgA, Histamine and inflammation.
B. IgM, Interleukin and allergy.
C. IgE, Histamine and allergy.
D. IgD, Histamine and Interleukin.

Answer (C)

Sol.
𝐼𝑔𝐸 antibody is present on mast cells and basophils. On interaction of allergen with receptor bound 𝐼𝑔𝐸 molecule it
causes degranulation and triggers the release of histamine causes allergic response.

5. Compare adults of the animals listed below and find out which animal has both higher annual energy expenditure
and higher energy expenditure body weight per day?
A. Python
B. Frog
C. Man
D. Penguin

Answer (D)

Sol.
Birds are warm blooded, so require more energy. Penguins live in colder regions so will require more energy
expenditure.
Penguin have large body surface area.
Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area to volume ratio.

6. The correct sequence of arrangement in the decreasing order of size for Hemoglobin, E.coli ribosome and Tobacco
mosaic virus (T.M.V.) is;
A. E.coli ribosome > T.M.V. > hemoglobin
B. Hemoglobin > T.M.V. > E.coli ribosorme
C. T.M.V. > hemoglobin > E.coli ribosome
D. Hemoglobin > E.coli ribosome > T.M.V.

Answer (A)

Sol.
Diameter of the following:
E.coli ribosome 70𝑠: 210 Å, 𝑇𝑀𝑉 − 30 Å, Hemoglobin −0.5 Å
7. Which of the following animals is triploblastic, acoelomate and with ciliated body surface?
A. Obelia
B. Taenia
C. Planaria
D. Fasciola

Answer (C)

Sol.
Platyhelminthes are triploblastic, acoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical. Most of the organisms are parasitic except
planaria which is found in fresh water. It possesses cilia on its surface.

8. Several factors can influence optimal flock size in birds. The following graph indicates % time spent in three major
lifestyle habits by birds of different flock size.

The three habits I, II and III respectively are:

A. Feeding, scanning, fighting
B. Fighting, feeding, scanning
C. Scanning, feeding, fighting
D. Feeding, fighting, scanning

Answer (B)

Sol.
Fighting is a negative factor related to population size. When the birds flock spend maximum time in fighting then
population size decreases.

9. Predatory insects with two pairs of functional wings with an incomplete metamorphosis are:
A. Dragonflies
B. Wasps
C. Caddisflies
D. Moths

Answer (A)

Sol.
Unlike other insects Dragonflies don’t have pupa stage in their life cycle and therefore have incomplete
metamorphosis.

10. Which of the following tools is used to determine the 3D structure of protein?

A. X-rays
B. Mass spectrometry
C. Liquid chromatography
D. 2D gel electrophoresis
Answer (A)

Sol.
The 3D structure of protein is determined by X-ray crystallography and Nuclear magnetic resonance.

11. Among the following amino acids, arginine could have an ionic interaction with:
A. Lysine
B. Glutamic acid
C. Valine
D. Methionine

Answer (B)

Sol.
Ionic bond is an attractive force between the positive and negative charge. Arginine amino acid has positive charge
interact with acidic amino acid having negative charge i.e. Glutamic acid or Aspartic acid.

12. Embryos of reptiles, birds and mammals have extraembryonic membranes. They perform essential functions for the
developing embryo.
Match the predominant function with each type of membrane.
Membrane Function
i. Yolk sac P. Storing metabolic waste
ii. Chorion Q. Source of food
iii. Allantois R. Gas exchange
iv. Amnion S. Fluid enclosing and
protecting embryo

A. i-Q, ii-S, iii-P, iv-S

B. i-S, ii-P, iii-Q, iv-R
C. i-Q, ii-R, iii-P, iv-S
D. i-S, ii-Q, iii-R, iv-P

Answer (C)

Sol.
(C)

13. Consider the following five animals: horse, house cat, leopard, tortoise and wolf.

If they have to be correctly classified cladistically using the following scheme, what will be the characters at I, II, and
IV respectively?

A. I: carnivory II: hair IV: purring

B. I: hair II: purring IV: carnivory
C. I: purring II: hair IV: carnivory
D. I: hair II: carnivory IV: purring

Answer (D)
Sol.
The correct answer is option (d) as character I is common to wolf, leopard, house cat and horse but absent in
tortoise, which means character I is hair, i.e., a mammalian feature.
Character II is common to wolf, leopard and house cat but absent in horse, which means character II is carnivory
as horse is a herbivore.
Character III is present in leopard and house cat.
Character IV is present only in house cat; which means character IV is purring. A leopard roars while a cat purrs.

14. Birds show an adaptive cross-connection between blood vessels that increases the flexibility of their neck. The
anastomosis between blood vessels of left and right side, allowing blood to flow freely even when the head twists
and one of the vessels is pinched, is:

A. Carotid anastomosis
B. Cranial anastomosis
C. Jugular anastomosis
D. Branchial anastomosis

Answer (C)

Sol.
This Jugular anastomosis allow blood to flow from right to left side when the bird head is turned and one of the
jugulars is constricted.

15. An animal who is known to be marsupial shows the following body features:
∎Almost hairless big ears ∎ Forelimbs with sharp claws
∎Grey coat color ∎ Long sticky snout
What can be deduced about the animal’s habits/habitat?
i. The animal is likely to be diurnal. ii. The animal is likely to deep burrows.
iii.The habitat is likely to be sandy deserts. iv. The animal is likely to be insectivorous.

A. I and ii only
B. ii, iii and iv only
C. ii and iii only
D. all the four

Answer (D)

Sol.
Almost hairless big ears help to dissipate excess heat of the desert and help them listen for prey underground.
Forelimbs with sharp claws help in digging deep burrows.
Grey coat colour helps in reflecting heat in desert and also as camouflage Long sticky snout helps in capturing
insects feeding on them.

16. Carefully observe the experimental setup given below.

Hydrogen carbonate indicator is a cherry red coloured 𝑝𝐻 indicator which turns yellow in acidic conditions and purple
in alkaline conditions. At the start of the experiment, equal quantities of this indicator (cherry red in colour) were
added to each tube. A healthy green leaf of the same size was enclosed in each tube. The tubes were then kept for
15 min in a water bath to avoid heating due to the light source.
 After incubation for a certain period of time, what would be the colour of the indicator in tubes I, II and III respectively?

A. Cherry red, Cherry red, Yellow

B. Yellow, Cherry red, Purple
C. Purple, Yellow, Cherry red
D. Yellow, Purple, Cherry red

Answer (B)

Sol.
In bright light hydrogen carbonate indicator turns purple because rate of photosynthesis is high.
In moderate light hydrogen carbonate stays cherry red as, the rate of photosynthesis and respiration are equal.
In darkness hydrogen carbonate indicator turns yellow. As there is no photosynthesis.

17. Cyanogen bromide (𝐶𝑁𝐵𝑟) is a very selective agent that splits peptide bonds on the carboxyl side of every
methionine residue in a protein. The number of polypeptides that will result from cutting of given protein by 𝐶𝑁𝐵𝑟
is:
𝑁𝐻3+ ~~~~~ 𝑀𝑒𝑡. 𝑀𝑒𝑡 ~~~~~~ 𝑀𝑒𝑡 ~~~ 𝑀𝑒𝑡~~~~~ 𝐶𝑂𝑂−

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Answer (C)

Sol.
Cyanogen bromide is responsible for cutting peptide bonds on carbonyl side of methionine residues in a protein. In
the given polypeptide, there are four methionine residues between N and C terminal of linear chain of protein. So,
there will be four cuts on C-terminal of methionine residues to generate five polypeptides.

18. A hypothetical population had alleles “A” and “a” with frequencies 0.9 and 0.1 respectively. The genotypic
frequencies of “AA”, “Aa” and “aa” were 0.81, 0.18 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0.01 respectively. Suppose a negative selection pressure
acts against the dominant phenotype resulting in the reduction of the frequency of A in the present generation from
0.9 𝑡𝑜 0.8, then the genotypic frequencies of the zygotes formed would be respectively
A. 0.81; 0.18 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0.01
B. 0.64; 0.32 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0.04
C. 0.8; 0.1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0.1
D. 0.54; 0.44 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0.02

Answer (B)

Sol.
Frequency of dominant allele, 𝐴 = 0.8 ← 𝑃
Frequency of recessive allele, 𝑎 = 0.2 ← 𝑞

Genotypic frequency of 𝐴𝐴 = 𝑃2 = 0.8 × 0.8 = 0.64

Genotypic frequency of 𝐴𝑎 = 2𝑃𝑞 = 2 × 0.8 × 0.2 = 0.32
Genotypic frequency of 𝑎𝑎 = 𝑞 2 = 0.2 × 0.2 = 0.04

19. While studying the effect of two plant growth regulators; IAA and Cytokinin, five different sets of culture tubes with
varying concentrations of the hormones were prepared given in the following table. Explants of parenchymal tissue
derived from the stem of tobacco plant were transferred on culture medium of all sets. After a particular period of
time, the set V showed undifferentiated large mass of tissue.

Sets Conc. Of IAA (𝑚𝑔𝑑𝑚−3 ) Conc. Of Cytokinin (𝑚𝑔 𝑑𝑚−3 )

I - 02
 II 2.0 -
III 2.0 0.02
IV 0.02 1.0
V 2.0 0.2

What would be the expected result of culturing in set I to IV respectively?

A. Shoot formation, Root formation, No growth, Cell enlargement

B. No growth, Cell enlargement, Root formation, Shoot formation
C. Cell enlargement, No growth, Shoot formation, Root formation
D. Root formation, Shoot formation, Cell enlargement, No growth

Answer (B)

Sol.
𝐼 → Auxin absent → so no growth.
𝐼𝐼 → Auxin present but cytokinin absent so no callus formation.
Auxin will do cell enlargement.
𝐼𝐼𝐼 → More auxin – Root formation.
Iu → More cytokinin → shoot formation.

20. Veena found a preserved root specimen in her college laboratory. The specimen jar label was half torn so she could
not read the full name of the sample. She took a cross section and observed it under the microscope. She was not
aware of the exact tissue types so she drew the diagram and labeled it as per her understanding. Looking at the
features she mentioned, it could most likely be:

A. Stilt root of maize plant

B. Hanging root of an orchid
C. Pneumatophore of halophyte
D. Root of a Pteridophyte

Answer (B)

Sol.
Outer spongy, hygroscopic tissue is velamen and velamen is a characteristic feature of hanging roots of orchid.

21. During denaturation, globular protein becomes:

A. Insoluble and inactive

B. Inactive but soluble
C. Unfolded but more soluble
 D. Soluble

Answer (A)
Sol.
Globular proteins such as albumin, on denaturation, loses its functional tertiary structure and hence becomes
inactive. Denatured proteins become insoluble.

22. The process of speciation is depicted in the adjoining figure with three factors that influence speciation. Identify the
speciation that would explain the evolution of new species (marked with dark circle) from the original species
(marked with a white circle).

A. Sympatric speciation
B. Reproductive isolation
C. Allopatric speciation
D. Parapatric speciation

Answer (D)
Sol.
The correct answer is option (d) as in the figure both spatial as well mating differentiation lead to speciation.
Ecological differentiation is absent between new and original species. In parapatric speciation, new species evolve
in contiguous, yet spatially segregated habitats.
Unlike allopatric speciation, the population that diverge during parapatric speciation maintain a zone of contact and
do not cease the exchange of gene completely.
Option (a) is incorrect as sympatric speciation occurs when there are no physical barriers preventing any members
of a species from mating with another and all members are in close proximity to one another.

23. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common hematology test performed using blood containing
anticoagulant. It measures the rate at which the red blood cells (RBCs), in a sample of whole blood, fall to the
bottom inside the specific tube, under gravity. This sedimentation is due to rouleau formation where (RBCs) form
a stack because of their discoid shape. Which of the following statements about ESR is correct?

A. Inflammatory conditions cause increase in “Acute Phase Proteins” in plasma, that cause the (RBCs) to repel
from each other to form stacks.
B. Increasing positively charged plasma proteins, increases neutralization of the negative charges on the surface
of the (RBCs), which allows the formation of the rouleaux.
C. Bacterial endotoxins in plasma inhibit platelet aggregation causing RBC to clump.
D. Anticoagulants in the blood increase the negative ions in plasma which increases charges on RBC membranes
is causing them to stack and form the rouleaux.

Answer (B)
Sol.
Fibrinogen is a positively charged acute phase plasma protein which increases during systemic inflammation. It
neutralizes the negative change present on RBC surface, resulting in RBCs sticking together allowing the formation
of the rouleaux.
 24. The adjoining figure is a transverse section of root of a monocot plant showing the stele. Identify the part pointed
by arrow.

A. Adventitious root
B. Lateral root
C. Tap root
D. Adventitious bud

Answer (B)
Sol.
The part pointed by arrow in the diagram is lateral root. Lateral roots arise from the pericycle as shown in the image.

25. Evolutionary branching in a bird population is depicted in the figure below. Based on their phenotype (Bill size),
the individuals compete for resources (seeds of different sizes). An individual can utilize only unlimited fraction
(indicated by the dashed curve) of the total available resources (solid curve).

Which of the following statements most appropriately describes the current status of the bird population, as shown
in the figure?

A. The mean bill size on the population does not match the most abundant resources, and therefore selection
pushes the bill size to an intermediate value.
B. The resource in the middle of the distribution curve are utilized providing a new ecological niche to evolve
in future.
C. Since resources in the tales of the distribution curve are left unexploited, selection established in individuals
with either small or large beak sizes.
D. Selection pressure splits the population into two ecological specialist that evolve an optimal compromise of
foraging on the most abundant seeds and avoid competition.

Answer (B)
Sol.
Option (b) is the correct answer because medium sized seeds present in the middle of the distribution curve are
unutilized which can provide a new ecological niche to evolve in future.
Option (a) is incorrect because the mean bill size, i.e., medium sized in the population will match the most abundant
resource, i.e., medium sized seeds.
Option (c) is incorrect because since resources in the tails of the distribution curve are exploited, selection
establishes individuals with either small or large beak sizes.
Option (d) is incorrect because selection pressure splits the population into two ecological specialists that evolve
an optimal compromise of foraging on small or large sized seeds and avoid competition. Medium sized seeds are
the most abundant seeds.

26. A student in a biochemistry lab found three solutions in unlabeled beakers on his working table. He marked
the beakers as P, Q and R and found that the H+ concentration (moles per litre) of the three solutions were 10-
1
, 10-7 and 10-10 respectively. The solutions P, Q, and R respectively could be:

A. Baking soda; sea water and beer

B. Stomach acid; household ammonia and detergent
C. Tomato juice; human blood and milk of magnesia
D. Beer; human urine and vinegar

Answer (C)
Sol.
H+ Concentration 10−4 = PH 4 → Tomato Juice.
H+ Concentration of 10−7 = PH 7 → Human blood.
H+ Concentration of 10−10 = PH 10 → Milk of magnesia.

27. Most ants, bees and wasps exhibit haplodiploidy wherein males are haploid and develop from unfertilized eggs
while females are diploid and develop from fertilized eggs. Which of the following would be true if the genetic
relatedness between two daughters from the same mother in humans and ants are compared?
The genetic relatedness will be:

A. less by a factor of 0.5 in ants.

B. same in both cases.
C. greater by a factor of 0.25 in ants.
D. greater by a factor of 0.5 in ants.

Answer (C)
Sol.
Ants, Bees and Wasps exhibit haplodiploidy. Males which are haploid develop from unfertilized eggs, which
undergoes mitosis to produce gametes. As a result, all male gametes are identical.
Females are diploid, developed from fertilized eggs. They undergo meiosis to produce gametes. So, gametes
can be genetically different.
If a queen bee mated only once, (monogamous – all eggs fertilized by same type of sperm), the resulting
progeny or the worker bees from same mother - 2 daughter siblings show 3/4 relatedness.
In humans considering two daughters from same mother, the genetic relatedness is not more than ½.
So if ant daughter siblings are compared to human daughter siblings, the genetic relatedness between ant
siblings will be greater by a factor of 0.25.

28. Urea is used to produce conformational changes in protein and these changes can be studied using
fluorescence emission spectroscopy. In the adjoining figure changes in fluorescence emission is shown for
different excitation wavelengths for a protein both in the absence (dotted line) and in the presence (solid line)
of urea. Which of the excitation wavelengths marked as I, II, III, and IV will be the best one to study the
conformational changes?
 A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Answer (A)
Sol.
Intensity difference is highest at wavelength I, hence will be used to check conformational differences b/w protein
in the presence and absence of urea.

29. In a classic experiment, scientists selected fruit flies with many bristles (stiff, hairlike structures) on their
abdomen. At the start of the experiment, the average number of bristles was 9.5. In each of the successive
generations, scientists picked out 20% of the population with the greatest number of bristles and allowed them
to reproduce. After 86 generations of such selection, the average number of bristles had quadrupled, to nearly
40. This is an example of:

A. Disruptive selection

B. Natural selection

C. Stabilizing selection

D. Directional selection,

Answer (D)
Sol.
Direction selection result in more individuals acquiring value other than mean character value. In this case, a greater
number of fruit flies are being selected which have higher no of bristles instead of lower or intermediate number of
bristles.

30. Warm blooded animals have mechanisms evolved for insulating their bodies. Choose the option that correctly
depicts the increasing order of relative insulation that these body parts/components provide.

A. Fat; Muscle; dry fur

B. Muscle; fat; dry fur
C. Muscle; dry fur; fat
D. Dry fur; muscle; fat

Answer (B)
Sol.
Body fat has a low heat conductivity which provides insulation and greater thermal resistance compared to skin and
muscle issues. The heat conductivity of fat is about 50% less than that of muscles. Fur and feathers are used to
isolate a layer of air that can be warmed by the body and not be mixed with colder air outside the fur.
Muscles < fat < fur.

31. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about DNA polymerase I?

A. It helps in the removal of primer and subsequent gap filling.
B. It has both 5' to 3' and 3' to 5' exonuclease activity.
C. It has low processivity and polymerization rate.
D. It has only 5' to 3' exonuclease activity

Answer (D)
Sol.
It has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity. In Prokaryotes, DNA polymerase is of three main types I, II and III. All have
exonuclease as well as polymerase activity.
DNA polymerase I is also known as Kornberg enzyme. It processes RNA primers during lagging strand synthesis
and fill small gaps during DNA repair sections (3 ‘→ 5 ‘Exo muscles activity).
 32. The key characteristics that emerged during plant evolution are shown. P, Q and R respectively indicate:

A. P: Persistent green sporophyte, Q: Protected embryos, R: Stomata

B. P: Stomata, Q: Microphylls, R: Tracheids
C. P: Microphylls, Q: Persistent green sporophyte, R: Stomata
D. P: Protected embryos, Q: Stomata, R: Tracheids
Answer (D)
Sol.
Bryophytes evolved from green algae. They have internal fertilization and develop embryo.
Mosses have stomata. Club mosses are Pteridophytes which have tracheids.

33. The given figure is transverse section or a stem of Trifolium repens (White Clover), a flowering plant, with
Cuscuta epithymum growing on its stem. Identify the part pointed by arrows.

A. Cork cambium
B. Haustorium of parasite
C. Secondary phloem
D. Vascular cambium

Answer (B)
Sol.
Cuscuta is a parasitic plant. It has a specialized, modified root called haustoria, that penetrates the host plant and
functions to acquire necessary nutrients from the host.

34. Na+- K+ ATPase is essential for maintaining various cellular functions and its inhibition could result in diverse
pathologic states. Ca2+ transport in cardiac muscles is also linked to Na+- K+ ATPase. Cardiac glycosides such
as digoxin directly inhibit the Na+- K+ ATPase. With respect to cardiac muscles, which of the following
statements are correct events after digoxin inhibition of Na+- K+ ATPase?

A. Build-up of excessive K+ extracellularly, and depletion of intracellular Na+

B. Build-up of Ca2+ intracellularly leading to increased cardiac contractility.
C. Inhibition Na+- K+ ATPase stimulates the vagus nerve, causing an increase in heart rate.
D. Changes in Na+ ion concentration increases conduction of atrioventricular node causing stimulation of the
 sinoatrial node.

Answer (B)
Sol.
Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin inhibit Na+-K+ ATPase pump resulting in an increase in intracellular sodium
levels and increase in calcium level in the myocardial cells, causing an increases contractile activity of heart.

35. In insects, it has been found that change in the Ubx gene resulted in modifying a protein that blocks the
development of legs in the abdominal region. Among the positions indicated ag P, Q, R and S in the cladogram,
where the Ubx gene seems to have mutated?

A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
Answer (A)
Sol:
Ubx gain seems to have mutated at P as spiders lack abdominal legs.

36. What type of gene is involved in the inheritance pattern depicted in the adjoining human pedigree?

Note: the person from outside the family does not carry a defective allele.

A. X-linked recessive
B. Y- linked recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. Autosomal recessive

Answer (C)
Sol.
X-linked disorders are the diseases caused due to a defective gene present on the X-Chromosomes. The given
pedigree shows that the diseases is X- linked dominant.
 37. The concentration of four components of air during respiration is provided in the table;

Gas Air in Air in Air in Arterial blood Venous

(Pressure in Hg inhalation exhalation Alveolus Blood
mm)
1 158.25 116 100 95 37
2 5.0 47 47 47 47
3 596 568 573 573 573
4 0.3 28 40 40 46

Match the gases l, 2, 3, and 4 with their names.

A.1 - Carbon dioxide, 2 - Water vapour, 3 - Nitrogen, 4 - Oxygen.

B.1 - Oxygen, 2 - Carbon dioxide, 3 - Nitrogen, 4 - Water vapour.
C.1 - Oxygen, 2 - Water vapour, 3 - Nitrogen, 4 - Carbon dioxide.
D.1 - Nitrogen, 2 - Water vapour, 3 - Oxygen, 4 - Carbon dioxide.
Answer (C)
Sol.
Partial pressure of gases in inhaled air are as follows.

𝑃𝑁2 = %in atmospheric air × atmospheric pressure

0.786 × 760𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔 = 597.4 𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔

𝑃𝑂2 = %in atmospheric air × atmospheric pressure

0.209 × 760𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔 = 158.8 𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔

𝑃𝐻2𝑂 = %in atmospheric air × atmospheric pressure

0.004 × 760𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔 = 3.0 𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔

𝑃𝐶𝑂2 = %in atmospheric air × atmospheric pressure

0.0004 × 760𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔 = 0.3 𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔

Hence, the most appropriate answer is option (C).

38. A student was following an enzyme catalyzed reaction. As the reaction progressed, she obtained the following
graph showing the conversion of the substrate into product.

Which of the following is the correct method to calculate product formed per minute?

A. [(µmoles)3𝑚𝑖𝑛 − (µmoles)1𝑚𝑖𝑛 ]/2

B. [(µmoles)8𝑚𝑖𝑛 − (µmoles)7𝑚𝑖𝑛 ]
C. [(µmoles)8𝑚𝑖𝑛 − (µmoles)1𝑚𝑖𝑛 ]/7
D. [(µmoles)5𝑚𝑖𝑛 − (µmoles)0𝑚𝑖𝑛 ]/5
Answer (A)
Sol.
Product formed per minute
∆𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡
=
∆ 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

(µmoles)3𝑚𝑖𝑛 −(µmoles)1𝑚𝑖𝑛
=
2

39. Which of the following figures (marked a, b, c, and d) appropriately depict the relationship of (P) oxygen
content or water, (Q) oxygen consumption of resting fish and (R) oxygen consumption of active fish with
respect to water temperature?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer (D)
Sol.
Rate of diffusion increases with the increase in temperature
Curve P→ Oxygen content is decreasing with the increase in temperature
Curve R→ is showing the oxygen consumption of active fish. As the fish is active it requires more oxygen for
respiration.
 Curve R→ is the oxygen consumption of fish at rest. It will also show an increase as rate of diffusion increases with
the increase in water temperature.

40. Colonisation of drier terrestrial habitats became possible in birds and mammals due to development of the renal
system to manage osmotic concentration of urine. Which of the following adaptation is the most crucial for this
development?

A. Insertion of aquaporins into the luminal plasma membrane.

B. Differentiation of the kidney into the cortex and medulla
C. Appearance of Henle's loops.
D. Increase in renal circulation.

Answer (C)
Sol. Appearance of Henle’s loop was most crucial in conserving water (through counter current mechanism).

41. Swordtail fishes belong to genus Xiphophorus. Males of these fishes have a long, colorful tail extension called
Sword. Males with short swords are less likely to be chosen by the female. In order to find whether female behavior
of choosing longer sword evolved before or after the evolution of long sword, scientists used the closest relative of
this fish, the platyfish, which lacks sword. When they attached artificial long tail to male platyfish, females preferred
the fish with long tails. Indicate in the diagram showing evolutionary relationship where these traits most likely have
Evolved.

A. Female sensory bias: I Sword: II

B. Female choice: I Sword: IV, V
C. Female choice: II, III Sword: IV, V
D. Female choice: IV, V Sword: IV, V

Answer (A)
Sol.
In this study female platyfish were found to prefer males with artificial swords over those without swords despite
evidence that the common ancestor of platyfish and swordtail was swordless. These results suggest that evolution
of the sword in the swordtail clade was a consequence of selection arising from a pre-existing bias.

42. After making several unsuccessful attempts to qualify in the final wrestling team, a person went to take the advice
of a physical trainer. After he explained the case to him, the trainer advised him to take a blood test and then start
a regime of drug. He also advised blood test regime. The results of both tests are given.
 The most likely use of the drug is:

A. to increase strength of skeletal mass.

B. to reduce anaerobic respiration by the tissues.
C. to reduce body weight by increasing body respiration.
D. to get trained for endurance exercise to maintain low levels of ATP over long period

Answer (C)
Sol. The amount of ATP remains the same before and after treatment, but the level of glucose oxidation increases after
treatment. Rate of glucose oxidation increases with the increase in aerobic respiration.

43. Electrophoresis was carried out to test the efficacy of an anticancer drug. In lane 1- circular DNA sample alone, in
lane 2- DNA mixed with topoisomerase, and in lane 3- DNA+ topoisomerase mixed with the anticancer drug were
loaded in the wells of an agarose gel and electrophoresed the result was as follows.

What can be the possible mechanism of action of the drug?

A. The drug is likely to act by protecting the cells from damage.

B. The drug is likely to affect topoisomerase I and helping DNA repair mechanism.
C. The lane I and III represent intact supercoiled DNA thus indicating no effect of the drug.
D. The drug is likely to be effective by inhibiting topoisomerase I enzyme that helps in DNA repair at multiple
check points.

Answer (D)
Sol.
Topoisomerase I is an enzyme that can make single stranded cuts in the DNA double helix.

44. The blood in the capillaries has both a greater hydrostatic and greater osmotic pressure than the surrounding tissue
fluid. The difference in hydrostatic pressure tends to force water and dissolved materials out of the capillaries into
the tissue fluid while the difference in the osmotic pressure has the opposite effect, causing the capillaries to take
up water and the dissolved materials from the tissue fluid. If the osmotic pressure differential at the arteriole and the
venule ends are 25mm Hg each; then what would be the expected hydrostatic pressure differentials at the arteriole
and venule ends respectively?

A. 36 and 35
B. 16 and 15
C. 16 and 35
D. 36 and 15

Answer (D)
Sol.
Net pressure at arteriolar end = 11mm Hg
Net pressure = (Hydrostatic pressure) – Osmotic pressure
11 = HP – 25
HP = 36 mm Hg

Venular End
Net pressure = -10 mm Hg (inwards)
 -10 = (Hydrostatic pressure) – (Osmotic pressure)
HP = -10 + 25 = 15 mm Hg.

45. The response of the rates of photosynthesis (curve A) and respiration (curve B) to temperature is
depicted in the graph.

The optimal temperature for net photosynthesis is:

A. Between 10°𝐶 − 20°𝐶

B. Between 20°𝐶 − 30°𝐶
C. 32°𝐶
D. Between 40°𝐶 − 50°𝐶

Answer (B)
Sol.
As seen in the graph maximum difference between photosynthesis and respiration curve is seen in the range of
20°𝐶 − 30°𝐶, so this will be the optimum temperature for for net photosynthesis.

46. In the figure given below identify the type of transport across membrane (marked A, B, C, and D)
that needs maximum energy.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer (D)
Sol.
A→ Simple diffusion is a passive transport with no energy expenditure.

B and C → Facilitated diffusion is also passive transport, along the concentration gradient using channel protein or
carrier protein with no energy expenditure.

D→ Active transport of substances against the concentration gradient using carrier protein with energy expenditure.
47. Hydronephrosis is a condition in which kidneys become swollen due to incomplete emptying of the urinary tract.
Given below are the values of water content and some major electrolytes in four different tissue samples. One of
them is normal kidney. Identify the other three and match the right alphabet with the respective number.

Values per Kg Water K Na CI

fat free tissue (gm) (Mm) (mM) (Mm)
Normal Kidney 802.2 58.3 82.6 67.7
1. 765 82.1 32.4 21.5
2. 922 3.72 142.0 109.0
3. 830.1 56.4 77.3 53.0
i. Hydronephrotic Kidney ii. Muscle iii. Serum

A. 1.-ii, 2.-iii, 3.-i.

B. 1.-i, 2.-ii, 3.-iii.
C. 1.-iii, 2.-ii, 3.-i.
D. 1.-iii, 2.-i, 3.-ii.

Answer (D)
Sol.
Hydronephrosis
Accumulation of water in the kidneys. so, water content is more in hydronephrosis.

48. Curves I, II, III in graph represent the impact of inbreeding on the percentage of homozygotes in the successive
generations.

The types of breeding represented by the curves

I, II, and III respectively are:

A. Brother-sister mating; mating of first cousins; Self-fertilization

B. Mating of first cousins; brother-sister mating; Self-fertilization
C. Self-fertilization; brother-sister mating; Mating of first cousins
D. Self-fertilization; mating of first cousins; Brother-sister mating

Answer (C)
Sol.
Order of homozygous condition
Self fertilisation > Brother-sister mating > mating of first cousins.

49. Animal species use various channels to communicate with each other. The selection of a communication channel
depends on the ecology of the species and what kind of message the Animal wishes to convey to its receivers. A
few features of four such modes of communication (Numbered 1 to 4) are tabulated below.

Information available Cost to sender

Modes Fadeout Locatability of Broadcast Risk of being
sender expense caught
 1 Fast Fairly easy High Medium
2 Fast Easy Low Low
3 Slow Difficult Low Low
4 Fast Easy Low- High
Moderate

Choose the appropriate statements:

A. 1 is Tactile signals while 2 is Auditory signal

B. 1 is Auditory signals while 2 is Tactile signal
C. 3 is Chemical signal and 4 is Visual signals
D. 3 is visual signals and 4 Chemical signals

Answer (B and D)
Sol.
Broadcast expense of auditory signal is the highest. Chemical signals like pheromones can be detected by other
organisms and have highest risk of getting caught.

50. Km values of enzymes provide information about their applications. In this context identify the correct statements
from the following.

A. A high Km value indicates the need for high substrate concentrations in order to achieve maximum reaction
velocity.
B. A low Km value indicates the need for high substrate concentrations in order to achieve maximum reaction
velocity.
C. If two enzymes, with similar Vmax in different metabolic pathways compete for the same substrate, then
pathway involving enzyme that has the lower Km value is likely to be the ‘preferred pathway’.
D. If two enzymes, with similar Vmax in different metabolic pathways compete for the same substrate, then
pathway that has enzyme with the higher Km value is likely to be the ‘preferred pathway’

Answer (C)
Sol.
1
𝐾𝑚 ∝ 𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑛 𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑦𝑚𝑒

Low 𝐾𝑚 value → Greater deficiency

51. The figure below depicts glucose transport into intestinal cells. Study the figure carefully and
identify the correct statements.

A. 1 is a Uniport Transporter while 2 is a Symport Transporter

B. 1 is a Symport Transporter while 2 is a Uniport Transporter
C. 3 is 𝑁𝑎+ ions While 4 is 𝐾 + ions.
D. 3 is 𝐾 + ions and 4 is 𝑁𝑎+ ions.
Answer (b and c)

Sol.
1 is Sodium - Glucose Transporter which is an example of symport. Symport is the transport of two molecules into
the same direction. 2 is a Glucose Transporter which is an example of Uniport. Uniport is the transport of only one
molecule at a time in one direction. 3 is 𝑁𝑎+ and 4 is Potassium. To maintain the cell membrane potential, cell keeps
high concentration of 𝐾 + and low concentration of Na+ inside. This is maintained by moving 3 𝑁𝑎+ out of the cell and
2𝐾 + ions into the cell by utilizing ATP

52. Since the characters fundamental to land plants first appeared in Bryophytes, the key to understand transition of
plants from aquatic to terrestrial habitats can be found in Bryophytes. Which of the following statements are in
consonance with this hypothesis?

A. Stomata are seen originally as a sporangial specialization, but in some Bryophytes, it is also expressed in the
sporophyte vegetative body.
B. In most of the Bryophytes, rhizoid formation is restricted to the gametophyte.
C. The cell walls of Bryophytes contain lignin-related polyphenolic compounds as protection against UV irradiation
and attack by micro-organisms.
D. The mature gametophyte is a thallus or a leafy shoot in liverworts, a leaf shoot in mosses and a thallus in
hornworts.

Answer (A, B and C)

Sol.
Stomata are originally sporangial specialization. In mosses, it is also expressed in capsule.
Bryophytes have rhizoids in gametophyte while the sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte. Bryophytes have cell
wall with lignin compounds for protection against UV irradiation and attack by microorganisms.

53. Renal portal system in reptiles drains the posterior part of the body into the kidney. In this context, with respect to
reptilian body, which of the following statements are correct?

A. Drug molecule injected in muscles of the front legs and the same drug molecule injected in muscles of hind legs
can show different concentrations in circulating blood.
B. Pharmacokinetics of a drug molecule will be same when administered in the vein of front legs or the tail vein.
C. All drug molecules injected through the tail vein will show first site of metabolism in the liver.
D. Drugs which are nephrotoxic should be injected in the front legs to reduce toxicity.

Answer (A, D)
Sol.
Kidneys can metabolise the drugs injected into hind limbs. Drugs that are nephrotoxic, when injected into front legs
will exhibit less toxicity.

54. Eumeces okadae is an endemic skink of the Izu Islands in Japan. Growth and reproduction of female Eumeces
okadae living on two islands is shown in the adjoining figure. The island of Oh-shima has richest predator fauna
including weasels, snakes, and birds while Miyake-jima has only avian predators.
 Choose the correct statement from the following.

A. Divergence in the life history traits is influenced mainly by the age of maturity of the breeding Individual.
B. Populations in the island of Miyake-jima show a life history with late maturity with low fecundity.
C. Heavy predation leads to a life history with late maturity and high fecundity.
D. The divergence in life history traits is influenced by the age specificity and intensity of Predation regime.

Answer (A, B, D)
Sol.
Species undergoing r-selection are at Islands of Oh-shima and species undergoing
K-selection are at Islands of Miyake-jima due to difference in the rate of predation.
Therefore, species undergoing r-selection have high fecundity and early maturity.

55. Evolution of marine fishes shows that fish species have abandoned glomeruli to produce urine by
tubular mechanisms. Aglomerular kidney lacks not only glomeruli but also the distal tubules. If
aglomerular marine toadfish (Opsanus tau) is shifted to 10% sea water, it can survive upto several
months. Which of the following events(s) could be taking place in the fish during acclimatization to
dilute sea water?

A. Urine flow rate decreases.

B. Kidney starts excreting solutes.
C. The plasma osmotic pressure will increase.
D. Significant branchial and intestinal solute uptake mechanisms set in.

Answer (B, D)
Sol.
Marine fishes, with aglomerular kidney, when shifted from more saline to less saline environment, take in more
water to maintain the concentration of body fluid equal to the surrounding environment. As a result, they start
excreting more solute and there is a significant uptake of solute into branchial and intestinal areas.

56. Even in passive diffusion, energy is required for the solute to cross a bilayer membrane. This energy is related to
the energy of hydration for the solute. Listed below are some solutes, in the context of which, choose the correct
statement(s) from the following;

A. Glycol will diffuse fastest through a bilayer membrane amongst the three solutes listed
B. Erythritol will diffuse fastest through a bilayer membrane amongst the three solutes listed
C. The solute must first lose its waters of hydration, diffuse across the bilayer membrane, and then regain its waters
on the opposite side.
D. As the number of waters of hydration increases the activation energy for diffusion decreases.

Answer (A, C)
Sol.
Glycol is the smallest and with less number of OH-groups, so it requires relatively less energy of hydration and thus
it can diffuse faster through the lipid bilayer as compared to other two solutes.
57. The lineage of cells of immune system are shown
below in the figures. Identify the cells marked I, II, III
and IV from the statements given.

A. I is a T Lymphocyte while II is a B Lymphocyte.

B. I is a B Lymphocyte while II is a T Lymphocyte.
C. III is a granulocyte while IV is a macrophage.
D. III is a macrophage while IV is a granulocyte.

Answer (A, D)
Sol.
 T-lymphocytes develop in Thymus gland.
 Plasma cells are formed from B-lymphocytes.
 Macrophages develop from monocytes.
 Granulocytes develop from myeloid stem cell.

58. 𝐶4 photosynthesis is a complex physiological adaptation that confers greater productivity than the ancestral 𝐶3
photosynthetic type in environments where photorespiration is high. Identify correct statements related to the 𝐶4
physiology.

A. In 𝐶4 plants there is a temporal separation of 𝐶𝑂2 fixation and synthesis of glucose.

B. Leaf has functionally closely connected, discrete compartments, with a relatively large compartment to host the
Calvin cycle.
C. For adapting to arid areas, 𝐶4 plants have co-opted same areas of the leaf, for photosynthesis and for water
storage cells.
D. In most 𝐶4 plants, the feat of concentrating 𝐶𝑂2 is achieved by confining Rubisco to bundle-sheath cells.

Answer (B, C, D)
Sol.
Plants growing in tropics undergo high photorespiration. 𝐶4 plants are evolved to reduce or avoid photorespiration.
In 𝐶4 plants. like maize, with Kranz anatomy, the mesophyll cells are well connected to tightly packed bundle sheath
cells through plasmodesmata. Since,bundle sheath cells have agranal chloroplasts, they have relatively large area
for Calvin cycle. In most 𝐶4 pathway, 𝐶𝑂2 is primarily fixed into mesophyll cells and pumped to bundle sheath cells
where Rubisco is confined.

59. A study of the changes in the content of carotenoid pigments of young leaves of cotton in strong
and weak light was being carried out. Figure A shows the effects of transferring plants from shade
into full sunlight while figure B shows the effects of transfer from sunlight into dark.

Based on the observations, which of the following statements are true?

A. II could be violaxanthin, which protects thylakoid membrane lipids from photo-oxidation.

B. I could be xanthophylls, which contribute to increasing the light-harvesting capacity of the Photosystems.
C. I could be a photoprotector pigment like lutein.
D. III could be a pigment, which is essential for light-gathering in low light intensities.
Answer (A, B)
Sol.
II could be violaxanthin, which protects thylakoid membrane lipids from photo-oxidation. Xanthophylls prevent plants
from high light intensity. In the graph the carotenoid content is increasing with the intensity of light, so it is protecting
from high light intensity. Xanthophylls are carotenoids which increases the light harvesting capacity of photosystems
and passes it to reaction centers. High light intensity leads to the formation of some toxic products like reactive
oxygen species such as O2-, OH-, H2O2. Xanthophylls prevents the plants from high light intensity by non-
photochemical quenching.

60. Honey bee (Apis mellifera) is able to produce heat endothermically and is one of the main reasons for the wide
distribution of this species as it allows the whole colony to survive cold winters. Young bees, however, are
ectothermic and tend to position themselves, within the hive, in areas With the appropriate environmental conditions.
In an experimental arena, different group sizes of zones. The bees were allowed to freely position themselves within
these temperature zones and their positions were recorded after 30 minutes. The results are depicted below:

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The median percentage of bees at 31°𝐶 and 32°𝐶 temperature areas decreased with increasing group size.
B. Irrespective of the group size, 36°𝐶 is most likely to be the optimum temperature for the bees.
C. There is no significant difference in the preference for cooler temperature areas (31°𝐶 and 32°𝐶), in all group
sizes of bees.
D. In larger groups a percentage of bees may switch to cooler temperature areas (31°𝐶 and 32°𝐶) due to crowding
effects.

Answer (B, D)
Sol.
36°𝐶 is most likely the optimum temperature for the bees. Some percentage of bees switch to cooler areas (31°𝐶
& 32°𝐶) due to crowding effect.