Roll No. (C000 Test Date: (06-02-2022 ALATS ALL | THOWA | AAKASH TEST. | SERIES __.¢ por ae Medical Entrance Exam - 2022 ty-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (XII Studying Students) Read each question cartuly, It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropiate cele ntheansworsneet Markshouldbe darkand should completely filth crcl Rough work mustnotbe done onthe answer sheet Do not use while-ud or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change inthe answer once markee is alowed, ‘Studentcannot use log tables and calculators ar anyother material inthe examination hall 7. Before attempting the qustion paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains allpages and no page ismissing Each corect answer carries four marks. One mark wil be deducted foreach ncortect answer rom the total seace Before handing over the anewer sheet tthe nvigltor, candidate ‘should check that Roll No, and Gentve Code have been filed and marked correctly Immediately ater tho proscrbed examination time is over, he answer sheet tobe retumedto the inviatr. ‘There are two sections in each subject ie. Secton-A& Secton 8. You have to attempt all 35 questions from SectionA & only ‘sO questions outo 15 rom Section 8. Note : tis compulsory to fll Roll No. and Test Booklat Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will nt be consideredTOPICS OF THE TEST Lay Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure eS Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle & Cell division, The Living World Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues only, Biomolecules, Digestion and Absorptioncon MM : 720 [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer SECTION-A 1. Rocket propulsion works on (1) Law of thermodynamics (2) Newton's law of motion (3) Photoslectric effect (4) Superconductivity 2. The length of a rectangular plate is measured as 8 cm by vernier scale of least count 0.02 em and breadth as 4 cm by the same scale. The percentage (1) 0.25% (2) 05% (3) 0.75% (4) 1% 3. The position of a particle varies with function of time as y = (4sin t + 3cos f) m. Then the maximum displacement of the particle from origin will be (1) 5m (2) 7m (3) 4m (4) 3m 4, A physical quantity P is related to a, b and c as . The percentage error in measurement of a, band care 1%, 2% and 2% respectively. The maximum percentage error in the calculation of quantity P will be (1) 4% (3) 1% (2) 8% (4) 3% All India Aakai Time : 3 Hrs. 5. Match the following: List Listal (A) | Temperature | (P) [ Light year (8) | Mass (Q) | Shake (©) | Length (R) | Fahrenheit (©) | Time (8) [ Atomic Mass Unit (VAS, B5Q COR DOP Q ASR BS, CoP, DQ @ ASR, BoP, C58, DQ (A5Q, BoR CoP, DOS 6. Ifthe unit of force is 8 N, unit of length is 2 m and that of ime is 4s, then the unit of mass will be (1) 32kg (2) 10g (3) 20kg (4) 64 kg 7. The quantity having negative dimensions in mass is (1) Gravitational potential (2) Gravitational constant (3) Escape velocity (4) Acceleration due to gravity 8. Zero error belongs to the category of (1) Instrumental error (2) Personal errors (8) Imperfection in experimental procedural error (4) Accidental errors technique or ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456COE 9 10. " 12 13. eed ‘A body thrown vertically up with some velocity crosses a point Pin its path in 6 s and again in 10. If both times are counted from beginning, then the velocity of projection of the body will be (1) 40 mis (2) 80 m/s (3) 30 mis (4) 60 mis An object is thrown vertically upwards. It has velocity of 20 m/s when it reaches half of its maximum height. Ig = 10 mis, then the maximum height reached by the object will (1) 80m (2) 60m (3) 40m (4) 100 m The radius of a hollow sphere varies with time as r= (21+ 3) m, where fis time in second, The rate of change of surface area of the sphere at f= 1's will be (1) 402 mis. (2) 80x m/s (3) 20n mils (4) 60 mts A aricle starts from rest, Its acceleration (a) versus time (Q) plot is as shown in figure. The maximum speed of the particle is, ams) 10 zl ro) (1) 50 mis (2) 25 mis (3) 100 mis (4) 110 mis Consider the following velocity(v) - time(t) graph of ‘a moving particle. Choose the correct statement. v(mis) nei) 14. 15. 1” (1) Acceleration of the particle is constant (2) Acceleration of the particle is zero (8) Acceleration of the particle is increasing (4) Acceleration of the particle is decreasing ‘The distance travelled by a particle in t time is given bys to laP ner ua te vey and ate acceleration. The equation is (1) Dimensionally true (2) Dimensionally false (2) Numerically true (4) (1) and (3) are correct The vector parallel to 37 +4]) and magnitude same as that of B i +j) will be Two vectors B and @ each having magnitude R are incinad to each other such that tele esullantis equal to /3R.. Then the resultant of P and -G will be () BR @)R (2) 2R (4) Zero Velocity of a particle at ime t= 0is G=(4/ +6]) mis and it undergoes acceleration = (-i +2j) ms” The displacement of the particle at f= 2's will be (1) (67 +16])m (2) (67 +10j)m () (4-87) m (4) (47-+8j)m ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456con 18. 19. 20, 21 22, The resultant of two forces cannot be more than the (1) Average of the magnitude of forces (2) Sum of magnitude of two forces (3) Difference of magnitude of two forces (4) Magnitude of any single force A body projected at 45° with a velocity of 40 m/s has range of 100 m in presence of air resistance. The decrease in range due to air resistance is (g= 10 mis’) (1) 40m (2) 20m (3) 30m (4) 60m A shell is fired vertically upward with a velocity v, from the deck of a ship travelling at a speed of v, A person on shore observes the motion of the shell as parabola whose horizontal range is given by 2, 2 (y 2h (e) 2448 g 2y2 2 @ @ 4 g g Abody is projected with a velocity 30 m/s making an angle §3° with the horizontal. The time after which its vertical and horizontal components of velocities will be equal (g = 10 m/s) 4 3s (2) 3 4 3) § a) 4 @) 3s @ 4s The speed of a projectile u reduces by 50% on reaching the maximum height. The maximurs height willbe 3u 3u 5 as av a o> oF DOE Test Series for NEE 22 23. Apointon the rim of a wheel 6 min diameter rotating about its geometrical axis has linear velocity of 18 mis. The angular velocity of the wheel is (1) Sradis (2) 8 radis (3) 6 radis (4) 12 radis 24, The equation of trajectory of a projectile is y=10x-Zx, The maximum height of the projectile will be (1) 45m (2) 80m (3) 30m (4) 60m 25, The positon vector of a moving partce at any time “t sis gen by 7 =(37 +412)-t)m. ts velocity at will be (1) (5)-28) mis (2) (3-48) mis (3) (87 -3k) mis (4) (2]7-&) mis 26. Which of the following is a null vector? (2) Velocity vector of a body moving in a circle with uniform speed (0) Velocity vector of a body moving in a straight line with uniform speed (6) Position vector of the origin of the rectangular co-ordinate system (@) Displacement vector of a stationary object (1) Both (a) and (o) (2) Both (b) and (c) (3) (@),(B) and (c)_—_ (4) Both (c) and (a) 27. An aeroplane flying horizontally at an altitude of 490 m with speed of 180 kmph drops a bomb. The horizontal distance at which it hits the ground is (1) 400 m (2) 600 m (3) 500m (4) 100m ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COE 28. 29, 30, 34 32, eed The maximum distance to which a man can throw a ball by projecting it horizontally from a height h is h. The maximum height to which he can throw it vertically up from the ground is Man (2) 2h h h OF a2 ‘A body is projected at an angle 30° with horizontal on a planet with velocity of 60 mis. Its time of fight is 3 s then acceleration due to gravity on this planet is (1) 10 mis* (2) 20 mis* (3) Sis? (4) 16 mis? A person swims at an angle of 135° to the current of river to reach just opposite point on the other side of river. The ralio of person's velocity to river water velocity is (1) V8:4 (2) V2: (3) 1:2 (4) 1:3 Consider the following statements A and B given below and identify the correct answer. Statement A: Vectors /+3)+5% and 27-+6j+10k are parallel Statement B: / + j +h represents unit vector, (1) Both A and 6 are true (2) Both A and B are false @) Ais tue and Bis false (4) Ais false and Bis true if A+B=P and A-B=G, then P? +0? is equal to (1) ae (2) 2(4? +B?) (3) 24° - 8) 8) (4) 4AB 33. If wind is blowing from south at 10 mis, but to cyclist. it appears blowing from the east at 10 mis, then the velocity of the cyclist is (1) 10V2 mis towards S$ - Ww (2) 102 mis towards N-W (3) 10V2 mis towards S-E (4) 102 mis towards N-E 34, Angular velocity of a body in uniform circular motion is (1) A constant vector (2) Aconstant scalar (3) A magnitude changing vector (4) A direction changing vector 35. The position (x) of a particle moving along x-axis varies with time (f) as shown in the figure, The average acceleration of particle in time interval t=0tot=6sis x(m) tts) (1) Sis? (2) 4 mis? (3) 2.5 mis? (4) -S mis? SECTION-B 36, The value of 46.7 - 10.04 with due regard to significant figure is (1) 36.6 (3) 36 (2) 36.7 (4) 368 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456ICT) 37. The dimensional formula of acceleration gradient is a) Mery 2) wT @) MT 4 MT} 38. Match the column and column for angle between velocity and acceleration vectors in the following cases Column-l Column I (A) | Body moving vertically | (P) | 90° up (8) | For freely falling body | (a) dropped from rest ‘Changes from point to point (© | For projectile projected | (R) | Zero from ground at some angle 6 (0) | In uniform circular (8) | 180° motion (ASS, B5Q, CoP, DOR QASS, BOR C5Q DOP @BASR, BoP, C5Q, DOR (ASR, B30, CoR, DoP 39. f A=3/-47 and B=-i+4), then direction of A+ will be along (1) We x-axis (2) ve x-axis, (3) #ve yaxis (4) ~ve y-axis 40. Acar accelerates from rest at a constant rate 2:mis” for some time and after that it decelerates at a constant rate 3 m/s? and come to rest. If total time elapsed is 8 s, then maximum velocity acquired by car will be (1) 48.ms (2) 19.2 mis (3) 9.6 mvs (4) 8.4 mvs 44 42, 43, 44, 45, DOE Test Series for NEE 22 Aperson walking at 4 mis, finds rain drops falling on his head vertically with speed of 4 m/s. The actual speed of rain drop is (1) 6 mis (3) 4V2 mis (2) 4 mis (4) 10 mis The area under the velocity-time graph gives (1) Distance (2) Acceleration (3) Displacement (4) Change in velocity Two trains, each 100 m long are moving parallel towards each other in opposite direction at speeds 10 mis and 15 mis respectively. The time in which they will pass each other is (yas (2) 8s (3) 3s (4) 6s Which of the following velocity(v) - time(t) graph represent uniform motion? v v “) \. @ @) (4) 7 fot Acarcovers 2rd thet stance wih seed and 2rd dslance wih v sped then he average speed of the car is wy. Buy, 4) 2 2) Yio O ay @) ay, au, @) (4) 2 wiv ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COE eed 48. A parlicle moves along straight line such that its position at any time tis given by s = (f°—3f +3) m, where fis in second. The velocity of the parlicle when acceleration becomes zero is (1) mis (2) 4mis (3) 6 mis (4) -8mis 47. Which of the following number has least number of significant figure? (1) 0.90760 (2) 0.90200 (3) 0.09076 (4) 80.267 48. The pairs of physical quantities having different dimensional formula is (1) Impuise and momentum (2) Work and energy (3) Work and torque (4) Force and impulse [CHEM SECTION-A 51. Number of molecules in 0.2 mol GeHs is (1) Na (2) 0.2 @)02™ (4) 12% 52, Molarity of an aqueous solution of NaOH, which contains 0.2 mol NaOH in 500 mI solution, is (1) 02M (2) 04M (@) 1M (4) 4M 53, On combustion of 10 mi unknown gaseous hydrocarbon, 50 ml COz gas and 50 mi water vapours are evolved, then molecular formula of hydro-carbon will be (1) Catto (3) CaHs (2) Cate (4) Coto 49. Consider the following statements, Statement A: Solid angle has unit but it is dimensionless. Statement B: All dimensionless quantities are unitless. (1) Both A and B are true (2) Both A and B are false (3) Only Ais true (4) Only Bis true 50. A projectile is thrown at an angle of 60° from horizontal with a velocity of 20 mis. The magnitude of change in velocity during time interval in which it reaches the highest point is. (1) 10 mis (2) 103 mis (3) 20mis (4) Zero ISTRY] 54, 40.9 of a calcium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 5.6 g calcium oxide, What will be the percentage purity of calcium carbonate sample? (1) 20% (2) 25% (8) 35% (4) 40% 55. When 22.4 litres of No(g) reacts with 33.6 litres of He(g) at NTP then the mole(s) of NHs(a) formed will be (1) 0.5 mol (2) 2 mot (3) 1.5 mol (4) 1 mot 56, Which of the following has maximum number of oxygen atoms? (1) 8g Oe (3) 44g C02 (2) 64g S02 (4) 48g 0s ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456con 87. 58. 59, Molality of an aqueous solution of glucose in which 40 moles of glucose are present per 200 moles of solution, is (1) 555m (2) 13.89 m (3) 1.33. m (4) 14.33. m What moles of air are required at 0°C and 1 alm to completely burn 87 g butane (CeH:0)? (Given: Air contains 20% oxygen by volume) (1) 4.875 mol (2) 48.75 mol (3) 97.5 mol (4) 9.75 mol Match the element in column (A) with possible quantum numbers of its last filled electron in column (8) Column (A) ‘Column (B) (A) | Ca (i) @|F w (c)| cl (iii) ©] Na w wv) (1) (AMC), (BY), (CAI), (DH) (2) (A)(i), (B)-(iv), (CC), (D)ili) (3) (AM), (BH), (Ci), (DH) (4) (A), (BDV), (C)iv), (DH) DOE Test Series for NEE 22 60. The orbital angular momentum (in BM) for 4s orbital is h (1) Zero ae h eh (8) va (4) Vex 61. According to Bohr's theory, which among the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will release photon of least wavelength? (1) n=4t0 (2) n=4ton=1 (3) n=5to (4) n=@ton=1 62. de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of 10 mg mass moving with a speed of 6.6 mis, is (Given: h= 6.6 « 10 Js} (1) 10m (2) 10m 3) 10m (4) 10 m 63. If uncertainty in velocity of a microscopic particle is twice of uncertainty in position then uncertainty in velocity is equal to fh [hn Vor im 7 a 64. Ratio of radii of 4" orbit of He* ion to 3% orbit of Li?* jon ie (1) 4:2 (2) 1:3 8:3 (4:5 65, Select the orbital of hydrogen atom with highest energy among the following (1) 2s 2) 3s (@) 3d (4) 4p ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COE 66. 67. 68, 69. 70. n eed Maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the subshells for which n+l=4is (2 (2) 10 @8 (4) 18 Select the pair of orbitals which have electron density along the axes (1) Px, dey ©) Pardee Electromagnetic raciation having highest frequency among the following is (1) Xrays (2) Uv-rays (2) Microwave (4) yrays Minimum wavelength possible in Lyman seri for emission spectrum of H-atom is (2) Pr de (4) Px, dex (R= Rydberg constant) 1 2 OR Oz R 3 @F Or Correct electronic configuration of Palladium @:48)is (1) Ikr}4qss* (2) [kr}4a" (3) [Kr}4q°5s* (4) [Kr]4d°5s"5p! Select the incorrect statement among the following (1) Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom ignores the dual behaviour of electron (2) Region where probability density reduces to zero is known as node (3) For 1s-orbital in hydrogen atom, wave function has maximum value at r= 0 (4) 2px orbital has xy-plane as nodal plane funetion 72 73. 74, 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. Correct IUPAC symbol of nobelium (Z : 102) is (1) Np (2) No (3) Na (4) Ni Select the element of largest atomic size among the following (1) Na (2) Rb (3) Mg (a) 1 Pair of elements having diagonal relationship with each other is (1) Li, Na (2) U, Mg (3) BAL (4) CMg Select the incorrect match of the properties of the oxides (1) CO2 : Acidic oxide (2) SnOz : Amphoteric oxide (3) NeOs : Neutral oxide (4) BaO Basic oxide Select the odd electron species among the following (1) Bech, (2) Lic! (3) No (4) SFe Which among the following molecule has longest covalent bond length? (c=c csc (3) C=N (4) C=0 Select the non-polar molecule among the following (1) HO (2) NHo (3) PCls (4) XeF2 Consider following statements Statement A: Hybridisation and structure of SF is sp'd and see-saw respectively Statement B: 180° bond angle is present in ICls (1) Statement A and statement B both are true (2) Statement A is true and statement B is false (3) Statement A and statement B both are false (4) Statement A is false and statement B is true ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456con 80. Molecular orbital of only one nodal plane is (1) ots 2) 02s (3) o"1s (4) n*2px 81, Hybrid orbit of highest percentage p-character is (1) sp (2) sp (3) sp (4) sp’? 82, Which among the following molecular species does not exist? (1) Oz (2) Ce (8) OF (4) HE 83, Which among the following involves intramolecular hydrogen bonding? (1) H202 (2) p-nitrophenol (3) o-nitrophenot (4) HaBO3 84. Select the species which has eight electrons in bonding molecular orbitals (1) Ne (2) Be (3) Ce (4) Np 85. Select the pair of atomic orbitals which can result in sigma bond formation (If y-axis is intemuclear axis) (1) peand py (2) pyand py (3) sand pe (4) pand pe SECTION.B 86. Select the incorrect statement among the following (1) NCis does not exist (2) Number of pr-pa bonds in SOs is 2 (3) Central atom of |} has sp® hybridization (4) Allthe bond lengths in PCls are not equal 87. Select the species which contains bond angles of 90° (1) XeoFs (3) XeFs (2) CHy (4) COz 88, 89, 90, ot 92, 93, 94, 965, DOE Test Series for NEE Bond order of Cl 0' bond in C10; ion is (iy) (2) 2 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.75 Which among the following species is diamagnetic in nature? (1) 0 (2) Ng (3) (4) 03 Select the molecule of highest lattice energy among the folowing (1) LiF (2) Licl (3) Nal (4) NaBr Which of the following species contains equal number of « and x bonds? (1) CaHa (2) CaCe (3) C2{CN). (4) C2Cl(CN)2 In which pair of compounds, first compound has ‘more covalent character than second? (1) Mg0, NaF (2) Cad, Mgo (3) KCI, NaCl (4) PbCl, PbCls Which one of the following hydrogen bond (represented by dotted line) will be of highest bond energy? ()F-H (3) N-H N Number of lone pair(s) on Cl atom in HCIOs molecule is a4 2 3) 7 a6 Select the molecule which contains covalent, ionic and co-ordinate bonds? (1) NH (3) HNOs (2) cS: (4) PHecl ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COE 96. 97. 98. 101 102 103. eed Element of highest first ionization enthalpy among the following is (1) Be 2)N @c (4) F Maximum covalency of sulphur atom is (2 (2) 10 @)6 (4) 4 Which among the following ions does not have noble gas configuration? (1) Nav (2) Zn (3) Ca (4) Br [BOT, SECTION-A Select the incorrect option about prokaryotic cell (1) They contain single stranded circular DNA (2) They lack nucleus (3) They do not possess double membrane bound cell organelles (4) They possess cell wall Plasmid is all, except (1) Extra chromosomal DNA (2) Smaller than genomic DNA (3) Confers certain unique phenotypic characters to bacteria (4) Linear DNA Bacterial cells may be motile or non-motie. If motile, which of the following structures help in their motility? (1) Pili (2) Fimbriae (3) Flagella (4) Cilia 99. If vapour density of a gas is 14, then chemical formula of possible gas is (1) COz (2) Cate (3) CHs (4) Cats: 100. Number of electrons in 0.2 gram of P> ion is (1) 06 Na (2) 1.6 Na (3) 3.6 Na (4) 2N ANY] 104, Mark the incorrect statement about plasma membrane, (1) Inhuman RBC membrane, there is. approximately 52 percent protein and 40 percent lipid (2) Tail of lipids is non polar whereas head is polar (3) Integral proteins are partially or totally buried in the memorane (4) The ratio of protein and lipid remains same in ditferent cell ypes 405. Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Neutral solutes may move across the membrane by the process of simple diffusion. Statement B: Movement of water by diffusion is called osmosis, (1) Only statement A is incorrect (2) Only statement B is incorrect, (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456Test (Code-A) 106. Mark the odd one ws.t. defining feature of living organisms (1) Consciousness (2) Metabolism (2) Intrinsic growth (4) Reproduction 107. Select the mismatched option. (1) Golgi apparatus ~ Formation of glycoproteins (2) Vacuole — Can occupy up to 90 percent of the volume in plant cell — Contains hydrolytic enzymes ~ Actively involved in protein synthesis (3) Lysosome (4) SER 108. Select the correctly written scientific name of mango (1) Mangifera Indica L. (2) Mangifera indica Linn. (3) Mangifera indica Linn, (4) Mangifera Indica Linn, 109. Scientific names of plants are standardised by (1) IcBN (2) IczN (3) ICNB. (4) ICVeN 110. special type of leucoplast which stores carbohydrates (starch) is (1) Elaioplasts (2) Aleuroplasts 3) Amyloplasts (4) Chromoplast 4111, Mark the incorrect option for mitochondria (1) Double membrane bound (2) 705 ribosome is present (3) Few RNA molecules present (4) Ithas single linear DNA All India Aakash Test Series for NEE’ 22 112, Read the following statements and choose the incorrect one about chloroplast. (1) Chlorophyll pigments are present in thylakoids (2) Ribosomes of chloroplasts are smaller than cytoplasmic ribosomes (3) The inner chloroplast membrane is relatively more permeable than outer one (4) Stroma contains enzyme for carbohydrate synthesis 113. Select the incorrect match (1) Herbarium — Conserved plant specimens (2) Museum Preserved plant and animal specimens (3) Key — Analytical in nature (4) Flora Information of plants found in a particular area 114, Mark the incorrect statement about eukaryotic flagella (1) Peripheral microtubule doublets are 9 in number (2) Peripheral linkers (3) Arise from basal body (4) Not covered by plasma membrane doublets are interconnected by 115. Mycoplasma (1) Is a eukaryote (2) Is the smallest cell (3) Lacks double stranded DNA (4) Is devoid of nucteoid 116. Select the incorrect option about centrioles. (1) Help in formation of basal body (2) They form spindle fibres (3) Found in animal cells (4) It gives rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in all plant cells ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COE eed 117. In which of the following chromosomes, centromere is present at terminal position? (1) Metacentric (2) Telocentric (3) Sub-metacentric (4) Acrocentric 118. Chromatin in eukaryotic nucleus has all, except (1) DNA (2) Non-histone proteins (3) RNA (4) Acidic histone proteins 119. Polyribosomes or polysome helps in synthesis of (1) RNA (2) Proteins (3) Lipids (4) Fats 120. For the first time who observed the living cell? (1) Robert Brown (2) Anton von Leeuwenhoek (3) Robert Hooke (4) Flemming 121. Glycocalyx may be thick and tough in bacterial cells called (1) Cel wall (2) Slime layer (3) Capsule (4) Cell membrane 122. All of the following are inclusion bodies in prokaryotic cells, except (1) Phosphate granules (2) Cyanophycean granules (3) Glycogen granules (4) Sap vacuoles 123. (a) Genetic material is basically naked, not surrounded by nuclear membrane (b) Mesosome is present Above features are true for (1) Plants (2) Animals (3) Fungi (4) Bacteria 124, Nucleolus is the site for (1) tRNA synthesis (2) FRNA synthesis (3) Aerobic respiration (4) Carbohydrate synthesis 425. (a) Giant chromosomes (b) Have Balbiani rings (c) Show somatic pairing Above features are true for (1) SAT chromosomes (2) Lampbrush chromosomes (3) Polytene chromosomes (4) All sex chromosomes 126, In animal cells, DNA replication takes place in (1) G1 phase (2) Mphase (3) S phase (4) Ge phase 127. Crossing over and. pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place respectively in (1) Pachytene and Leptotene (2) Pachytene and Zygotene (3) Leptotene and Zygotene (4) Leptotene and Pachytene 128. Atthe ond of, Golgi complex, ER nucleolus and nuclear énvelope disappear (1) Telophase (2) Prophase (3) Metaphase | (4) Telophase | 129, Best stage to study morphology of chromosomes is (1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase (3) Prophase (4) Telophase 130, Centromere splits and chromatids separate in (1) Metaphase | (2) Anaphase | (3) Metaphase I (4) Anaphase 1 4181. In animal colls, cytokinesis takes place by (1) Furrow formation (2) Phragmoplast formation (3) Cell plate formation (4) Both (1) & (2) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456Test ) 12. If a melocyte has 40 chromosomes in its G: phase, then what will be the number of chromosomes in Gz phase? (1) 20 (2) 80 (@) 40 (4) 10 13. All ofthe following take place in interkinesis, except (1) Centriole duplication (2) ONA replication (3) Protein synthesis (4) RNA synthesis 134, Read the following statements and select the correct option. ‘Statement A: Melosis II is equational division. Statement B: Mitosis can occur in both diploid as well as haploid cells. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect 135. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of sister chromatids in of call cycle. (2) Metaphase (4) Telophase SECTION-B 136. Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place in (1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene (3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene 137. M phase lasts about cycle, (1) Less than 5% (2) More than 10% (3) More than 15% (4) Less than 50% 198. Cell suspends cell cycle and enters (1) Gi phase (2) Go phase (3) Ge phase (4) M phase (1) Prophase (3) Anaphase of the duration of cell All India Aakash Test Series for NEE’ 22 139, Microtubules are made up of tubulin protein. These proteins are synthesized during (1) G1 phase (2) S phase (3) G2 phase (4) M phase 140. Major check point in a cell cycle is (1) G2 M transition (2) Gi S transition 3) S> Getranstion (4) Metaphase > Anaphase transition 141. Which of the following is not amongst the seven obligate categories? (1) Kingdom (2) Tribe (3) Genus (4) Species 142, Peroxisomes are not considered as parts of the ‘endomembrane system because (1) Itis not involved in carbohydrate oxidation (2) Its functions are not coordinated with the functions of cell organelles of endomembrane system (3) They do not perform photosynthesis (4) Itis not surrounded by double membrane 143. Mark the incorrect option about ribosomes. (1) Itis smallest cell organelle (2) Itis membraneless cell organelle (3) Itis found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes (4) 808 type of ribosome is found in eukaryotic cell and its organelles 144, Select the incorrect statement (1) Cell wall protects the cell trom mechanical damage and infection (2) The primary cell wall of plants is capable of growth () Middle lamella is a layer mainly made up of calcium pectate (4) Secondary cell wall is formed on the outer side of primary cell wall ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COE eed 145. Cytoskeleton is not involved in 146. 147. 151 162 (1) Maintenance of the shape of the cell (2) Motility (3) Mechanical support (4) Protection of the cell from pathogen attack The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information of (1) Name of the collector (2) Common name of plant (3) Scientific name of plant (4) Height of the plant Select the incorrect statement about rules of biological nomenclature (1) Specific epithet should start with small letter 148. The stage of meiosis | during which separation of paired or synapsed homologous chromosomes takes place is (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (8) Pachytene (4) Diplotene Select the pair of organelles (1) ER, Nucleus (2) Lysosome, Golgi apparatus (8) Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus (4) Lysosome, Chloroplast 149. single membrane bound (2) If handwritten then scientific names should be | 150. The organelle within organelle is underlined seperately (:) ribosome (8) Biological names are generaly taken from Latin | (3) tyeegema language (4) Each organism may have two scientific names (3) Peroxisome consisting of single word only (4) Vacuole [ZOOLOGY] 4 4 4 SECTION-A The exoskeleton of an arthropod is made up of a biomacromolecule, which is a polymer of (1) N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid (2) N-acetyl glucosamine (3) Neacetyl muramic acid (4) N-acetyl galactosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid Identify a suitable option which correctly name the constituents of following given structure of a tripeptide. I I I HNN =G-CO-NH—C-CO-NH-G-COOH CH, CH, CH, | Hy OH OH (1) Tryptophan - Tyrosine — Alanine (2) Tyrosine - Glycine - Alanine (3) Phenylalanine — Aspartic acid - Serine (4) Tyrosine - Tryptophan — Serine ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456Test'5 (Code-A) 183. Select the essential sulphur containing amino acid among the following options. (1) Cysteine (2) Protine @) Isoleucine (4) Methionine 154. Which of the following is a mismatch? (1) Starch = Homopolymer of a(D) glucose (2) Cellulose - Homopolymer of B(D) glucose (3) Inulin = _-Heteropolymer of glucose and ribose (4) Glycogen - Homopolymer of a(D) glucose 155. Compounds found in retentate fraction after filtration of homogenised living tissue are (1) 2-deoxyribose, glucose (2) Chymotrypsin, insulin, (3) Galactose, sucrose (4) Adenylic acid, tyrosine Catharanthus roseus is a medicinal herb that produces a diverse array of secondary metabolites Tike. Which is used in chemotherapy to treat cancer. Fil the blank with an appropriate option (1) Codeine (2) Ricin (3) Vinblastin (4) Rubber Select the incorrect match, (1) Palmitic acid 16C saturated fatty acid (2) Stearic acid 18C saturated fatty acid (3) Arachidonic acid - 20C unsaturated fatty acid (4) Linoleic acid 156. 157 16C unsaturated fatty acid 158, Read the following given statements and choose the correct option w.rt. nucleotides, (@) Nucleotides are the polymers of nucleic acid. (b) If a phosphate group is found esterified to the sugar of nucleoside, it is termed as a nucleotide, 160. 161 162 Test Series for NEE DOE 22 (©) Uridylic acid is @ nucleotide which is found only in DNA (d) In a nucleotide, nitrogenous base is linked to sugar by glycosidic bond. (1) Statements (a) and (b) are correct (2) Statements (b) and (d) are correct (3) Statements (b) and (c) are correct (4) Statements (a) and (c) are correct Assertion (A): Starch lz complex is blue in colour. Reason (R): Starch forms helical secondary structure, In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the ‘correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true Complete the analogy and select the correct option. Foetal haemoglobin : 2« and 2y polypeptide chains ‘Adult haemoglobin (1) 2cc and 18 polypeptide chains (2) 3a and 38 polypeptide chains (3) 20.and 28 polypeptide chains (4) 3c. and 4y polypeptide chains Enzymes which catalyse joining of C-S bond falls Under the class (1) Transferases (2) Lyases (3) Hydrolases (4) Ligases Which of the following relationship was studied by Chargaff within any double stranded DNA molecule? (1) T=GA=G (2) A=C,G=T (3) A+T=C+G (4) A+G=T+C ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COE Test Series for NEET-2022 163. Read the folowing given statements wrt. enzyme inhibition and choose the eorreet option Statement-A Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate decreases the Vea but increases the Kn of a reaction Statement-B: Inhibition of cytochrome oxidase by cyanide is an example of competitive inhibition (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (2) Only statement Ais correct (4) Only statement B is correct 164. Which ofthe folowing graph correctly depicts the activity of most of the enzymes at different pH values? 024680 o2a 165. Assertion (A): In a polysaccharide, such as alycogen, the left end of its chain is non-reducing while the tight end Is reducing Reason (R): Free aldehyde group is present at left end of polysaccharide, In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. 166. 167 168. Test: (Code-A) (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct ‘explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the ‘correct explanation of (A) (8) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true Inner lining of pancreatic ducts and stomach respectively are formed by (1) Cuboidal epithelium and squamous epithelium (2) Columnar epithelium and squamous epithelium (3) Compound epithelium and columnar epithelium (4) Cilated epithelium and compound epithelium Read the following statements and choose the correct option. StatementA: Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. ‘Statement-B: Tight junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements are correct (4) Both statements are incorrect Select the incorrect match. (1) Blood — — Specialized connective tissue (2) Tendon ~ Dense regular connective tissue (3) Areolar = Loose connective tissue tissue (4) Bone — Dense irregular connective tissue ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456Test ) 169. Which of the following statement is incorrect wrt. skeletal muscles? (1) Skeletal muscles are found attached to bones (2) Skeletal muscle is a component of internal visceral organs (3) A sheath of tough connective tissue encloses several bundles of muscle fibres (4) In biceps, striated skeletal muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion 170. Select the incorrect match. (1) Cardiac - muscle fibres They never get fatigued (2) Non-striated — — muscle fibres Voluntary in action (3) Striated - muscle fibres Light and dark bands are present (4) Skeletal - muscle fibres Intercalated discs are absent 171, Large amoeboid cells which form pseudopodia and are present in the loose connective tissue are termed (1) Mast cells (2) Adipocytes (3) Macrophages (4) Osteoclasts 172. Excitability is a property of which set of cells present in various types of animal tissues? (1) Neurons, muscte cells found in bicops (2) Neuroglia, muscles found in biceps (2) Neurons, Neuroglia (4) Neuroglia, muscles cells found in heart wall All India Aakash Test Seri Es 22 173. Read the following given statements and choose the correct option. (1) Osteocytes are present lacunae (2) Limb bones interact with smooth muscles attached to them to bring about movements (3) Bone's matrix is rich in calcium salts but lacks collagen fibres (4) Cattilaginous tissue provides major structural framework to the body of an adult human 174. “itis the main circulating fluid that helps in transport of various substances.” Components of ‘it ‘mentioned in the above statement do not include (1) RBCs (2) Collagen fibres (3) Platelets (4) Wes 175, Complete the analogy and select the correct option, Cytoplasm of muscle fibres Cytoplasm of axon (1) Ooplasm (2) Axolemma (3) Axoplasm (4) Neuritlemma 176. Select the incorrect statement wrt. neural tissue. (1) It exerts the greatest contro! over the body's responsiveness to changing condition in spaces called Sarcoplasm (2) Its specialized to transmit messages in human body (3) Neuroglia make up less than one-half the volume of neural tissue in human body (4) Neuroglia are found in brain as well as in spinal cord 177. Nisst's granules are most likely to be found in (1) Axon (2) Neuroglia (3) Synapse (4) Soma ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COE eed 178. Which of the following gland is not a source of saliva? (1) Parotid (2) Sublingual (3) Sub-mandibular (4) Liver 179, Select the incorrect statement w.r. liver. (1) Glisson’s capsule is the characteristic feature of mammalian liver, (2) Mammalian liver contains Kupffer cells that are phagocytic in nature. (3) Liver is the largest gland of the body weighing about 1.2 to 1.5 kg in an adult human. (4) The structural and functional unit of liver is hepatocyte. 180. How many of the following given in the box are constituents of saliva? Lysozyme, IgA, Amylase, Water (1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three 181. Select the correct match (1) Enamel - Secreted by ameloblast cells which are mesodermal in origin (2) Dentine - Secreted by odontoblast cells which are ectodermal in origin Teeth are found embedded in tooth socket of jaw bones. (3) Thecodont (4) Crown — Remains capped with dentine formed principally of potassium nitrate Test: cr 182, Match List correctly with List-lI and choose the correct option. 1 List la. [Peyer's patches |( [Submucosal_glands| lof small intestine b. |Brunner’s glands (i) [Aggregated patches| lof lymphoid tissues lc. [Mucus neck cells (ji) [Secrate lysozyme a. [Paneth cells ) (1) atv), BG), fi, dQ) (2) afi, BA) efv), Ai) (3) ali), bai, efi), div) (4) af, BA, c(i), i) 183. Ifa person is found to be anemic, then which of the following cells would probably be non-functional? (1) Chief celts (2) Peptic cots (3) Parietal cells, (4) Zymogen cells 184. The fold which attaches the tongue to the floor of oral cavity is [Secrete mucus (1) Labial frenulum (2) Cartilaginous flap (3) Uvula (4) Lingual frenulum 185. Enzyme found in gastric juice of infants (1) Is secreted by parietal cells lining mucosa of stomach (2) Acts optimally at pH 6.8 (3) Is @ proteolytic enzyme which helps in the digestion of milk protein (4) Is named renin and is not a zymogen SECTION-B 186, An enzyme 'X’ is used to convert inactive 'Y’ enzyme which becomes proteolytic in nature upon activation and also shows autocatalysis. Identify the secretion in which "X’ enzyme is found. (1) Pancreatic juice (3) Gastric juice (2) Succus entericus (4) Saliva ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456Test ) 187. A person consumed 15 g carbohydrates and 40 proteins in his afternoon meal. Upon their complete oxidation within the cell, the total amount of physiological calorific value produced will be (1) 200 kcal (2) 150 kcal (3) 180 kcal (4) 220 kcal 188. Read the following given statements and choose the correct option Statement-A: Kwashiorkar is observed in children in the age group of 1-5 years due to deficiency of proteins in their diet Statement-B: Marasmus is usually observed in children in the age of 1-2 years. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct 189, Select the correct match. (1) Amino acids - Absorbed through simple diffusion only (2) Glucose — Absorbed through active transport only (3) Fructose Absorbed through facilitated transport (4) Fatty acids and glycerol Absorbed through simple diffusion, directly into blood 190. Which of the following reactions are correct w.rt. the process of digestion occurring in small intestine? (1) Lactose #228 Glucose + Fructose (2) Sucrose #8, Galactose + Glucose (3) Pepsinogen—***_, Pepsin (4) Nucleotide Nets, Nucleoside + Pi All India Aakash Test Series for NEE’ 22 191. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. hormones of GI tract, their source of release and their target corgan(s). Hormone| Source | Target organ (1) [Gastrin [Stomach [Stomach (2) |eck —[Duodenum —_|Gall bladder (3) [oie [Small intestine |Stomach (4) [Secretin. Stomach’ Pancreas, Istomach and liver 192, Choose the correct order of sequence of layers from inside to outside wrt. histology of stomach. (1) Serosa —> Submucosa > Mucosa —> Lamina propria -» Longitudinal muscle layer (2) Mucosa — Submucosa —> Circular muscle layer — Oblique muscle layer ~> Longitudinal muscle layer > Serosa (3) Mucosa» Submucosa -» Oblique muscle layer — Circular muscle layer —> Longitudinal muscle layer > Serosa (4) Submucosa — Circular muscle layer —> Oblique muscle layer -> Longitudinal muscle layer —> mucosa 193, Match column-| correctly with columr-I Column-t [Column-t fa.|Duodenum —|(i)_ [Small blind sac b.|Caecum (i) ['C’ shaped structure c. |Glottis (iii) a. [Gultet ley [Opening of oesophagus [Opening of larynx. Choose the correct option (1) aGi), Bi), efi), div) (2) aliv), BG), efi), i) (3) ai), bt, etiv), di) (4) ai), b(), efi), div) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456COE 194. 196. 196. eed ‘All of the following can be included in deciduous teeth except (1) incisors (2) First molars (3) Canines (4) Premolars Match column-| with column-ll and choose the correct option. [Column- Columnett Faeces are retained within the colon as the bowel la. [Jaundice |i) movements occur regularly lb. [Constipation (ji) |Liver is affected, skin and leyes turn yellow due to the ldeposition of bile pigments lc. [Vomiting (li) [Food is not property digested, leading to a feeling of fullness Ja. Indigestion (jv) [Ejection of stomach Jcontents through the mouth (1) (i, BG), eC, ivy (2) aliv) bai), efi), afi) (3) alii), b(),eCi, div) (4) ali), b(), efi), ai) The co-factor which binds to apoenzyme transiently, usually during the catalysis, is known as (1) Prosthetic group (2) Holoonzyme (@) Metation (4) Co-enzyme a 197. Select the metabolites. (1) Polymeric substances ~ Rubber, cellulose (2) Essential oil Lemon grass oll (3) Alkaloids - Morphine, codeine (4) Pigments — Anthocyanin, diterpene Read the following statements and choose the option which correctly states each statement as true (1) or false (F). (a) Anabolic pathways consume energy. (b) Catabolic pathways lead to the release of incorrect match w.rt. secondary 198. ©) Sieabae is a8 steps catabolic process. fa) (b) (e) a F F T @ 7 F F @) T T F (4) F T T 199, Select the correct statement wart, stomach. (1) Itis aU’ shaped bag lke structure (2) A muscular sphincter regulates the opening of ‘esophagus into the stomach (3) It is located in the upper right portion of the abdominal cavity (4) Ithas only 3 parts - cardiac, fundus and pylorus Principal structure for absorption of water in digestive tract is, (1) Caecum (3) Duodenum 200, (2) Jejunum (4) Colon a ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456NEET-UG 2021 Aakashians Create History! Hat-trick of Perfect Scores| {Ensen oon ert Mrinal Kutteri Tanmay Gupta —_Karthika G Nair 2YEARCLASSROOH ——-2YEARCLASSROOM 2 YEAR CLASSROOM 63649 17 9 27 50 ‘Aatashiane Quaed In ants no | Ris | Ranks in NEET-UG 2021) ““cc/IGHE"" reptoame — vonsoaie ep too ain Jsshan Chhabra Shahar Age Rajstcoyat Meghan Highest Number of Top Scorers In NET 2021 are from Aakash Scan the code to check all ae the ranks and watch what our toppers have to say. and many more stories of excellence in NEET-UG 2021 2675 from the classroom program “agua te ‘of Aakash BYJU’S. Download Aakash App cau rou-Re=) ws | (eS 1800-102-2727 aakash.ac.in