20-03-2022

Medical Entrance Exam - 2022

TEST No. 8
(XII Studying Students)

1. Read each question carefully. 8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the deducted for each incorrect answer from the total score.
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
9. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. marked correctly.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
sheet. No change in the answer once marked is allowed.
answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material
in the examination hall. 11. There are two sections in each subject i.e., Section-A & Section-B.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only
the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing. 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B.

Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
 Test No. 8

Physics Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory, Oscillations and Waves

Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques, Hydrocarbons,

Chemistry Environmental Chemistry

Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition, Photosynthesis in higher plants, Respiration in

Botany plants, Plant Growth and Development

Animal Kingdom and Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Morphology

Zoology (Cockroach only)
 Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

MM : 720 TEST - 8 Time : 3 Hrs.

[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :

SECTION-A 6. A box thermally insulated has two chambers

1. Boyle’s law is applicable for separated by a partition. One of volume V contains
an ideal gas at temperature T. The other of volume
(1) Isobaric process (2) Isochoric process
V
(3) Isothermal process (4) Adiabatic process is evacuated. If the partition is removed, the gas
2
2. When heat is given to an ideal gas in isothermal temperature inside the box will be
condition, the result will be
T 2T
(1) External work done (1) (2)
3 3
(2) Rise in temperature
(3) Increase in internal energy T
(3) (4) T
2
(4) External work done as well as rise in temperature
3. Temperature of 5 moles of an ideal gas which was 7. The amount of heat that must be supplied to
–2
held at constant volume was changed from 100°C 2 × 10 kg of nitrogen at room temperature to raise
to 120°C. The change in internal energy was found its temperature by 45°C at constant pressure is
to be 80 J. The specific heat capacity of the gas at (Molar mass of nitrogen is 28 g)
constant volume will be equal to (1) 614 J
–1 –1 –1 –1
(1) 8 J mol K (2) 4 J mol K (2) 756 J
–1 –1 –1 –1
(3) 0.4 J mol K (4) 0.8 J mol K (3) 934 J
4. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle ABCA as (4) 1012 J
shown in figure. If net heat supplied to gas in cycle
8. In thermodynamics, state variables are
is 5 J. What is work done by the gas in the process
C to A? (1) Heat and work
(2) Heat and internal energy
(3) Work only
(4) Internal energy only
9. The mean free path of the molecules of an ideal gas
of diameter d is proportional to
–2
(1) d (2) d
–1 2
(3) d (4) d
(1) 2 J (2) –5 J
10. An ideal gas at 300 K expands isothermally to
(3) 3 J (4) +5 J
double its volume. Then the pressure of the gas will
5. In an adiabatic process, the pressure of an ideal gas be
2
is increased by % . If  = 3 , then volume of the (1) Doubled (2) Halved
3 2
(3) More than double (4) Same
gas changes by
11. For a gaseous system, if heat rejected by the
2 2 system is 100 J and work done by the system is
(1) An increase of % (2) A decrease of %
3 3 20 J then change in internal energy is
4 4 (1) 80 J (2) 120 J
(3) An increase of % (4) A decrease of %
9 9 (3) –120 J (4) –80 J

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)

12. An ideal diatomic gas undergoes a polytropic process

described by equation P V = Constant . The molar
heat capacity of the gas during the process is
R 9R
(1) (2)
2 2
7R 13R (1) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 (2) U1 = U2 = U3
(3) (4)
2 2 (3) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 (4) Both (2) and (3)
13. When two bodies A and B are in thermal equilibrium 18. Select the correct option for a particle executing
then simple hormonic motion.
(1) Internal energy of A must be more than internal (1) Equilibrium at mean position must be stable
energy of B.
(2) Its motion must be periodic
(2) Internal energy of A must be equal to internal
(3) Its potential energy will not be conserved
energy of B.
(4) All of these
(3) Internal energy of A must be less than internal
energy of B. 19. A small block oscillates back and forth on smooth
concave surface of radius 1 m. What will be its
(4) Temperature of A must be equal to temperature period of oscillation for small amplitude?
of B.
(1) 4 s (2) 1 s
14. A Carnot refrigerator works between 0°C and 45°C.
(3) 2 s (4) 3 s
It is required to remove 2000 J of heat per second
in order to keep temperature of the freezer constant. 20. A simple pendulum having time period T is oscillating
The electric power required is about simple harmonically. If length of pendulum is
quadrupled then its time period becomes
(1) 330 W (2) 600 W
T
(3) 120 W (4) 110 W (1) (2) 2T
2
15. If two moles of an ideal gas is taken from state A to
state B as shown in figure, then work done on the T
(3) (4) 4T
–1 –1 4
gas is about (R = 8.31 J mol K )
21. A particle is performing simple harmonic motion
about origin on a straight line with amplitude of
10 cm and time period of 12 seconds. The minimum
time taken by particle to move from –5 cm to + 5 cm
is
(1) 2 s (2) 3 s
(3) 4 s (4) 6 s
22. The simple pendulum shown in cart has time period
(1) 2345 J (2) 2945 J T when cart is at rest. If cart moves with an
(3) 3452 J (4) 1516 J acceleration of 4.9 m s–2 towards left, then new time
period will be (g = 9.8 m s–2)
16. 7 g of N2 and 8 g of O2 is filled in a container of
volume 5 litre at temperature 27°C. Total pressure
–1 –1
of the gas is nearly (R = 0.082 litre atm mol K )
(1) 12 atm (2) 2.5 atm
(3) 5 atm (4) 10 atm
17. An ideal gas is taken from state A to state B via three
different processes, as shown in pressure volume 1 2
(1) T (2) T
diagram. If Q1, Q2 and Q3 indicate heat absorbed by 5 5
the gas and U1, U2 and U3 indicates change in
2
internal energies in three processes respectively, (3) T (4) T
then 3

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 Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

23. Two waves of exactly same frequency moving in 29. If the intensity of sound increases by a factor of 20,
opposite direction can produce then sound level increases by [log 2 = 0.3010]
(1) Beats (2) Echo (1) 12 dB (2) 10 dB
(3) Stationary waves (4) All of these (3) 20 dB (4) 13 dB
24. The equation of travelling wave is y = asin(bt + cx). 30. The apparent frequency of siren of an engine is
Then the ratio of wave velocity to maximum particle observed in the ratio 6 : 5 as the engine passes a
velocity is stationary observer. If the velocity of sound is
330 m/s, then velocity of the engine is
a 1
(1) (2) (1) 25 m/s (2) 20 m/s
b ca
(3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s
ab ac
(3) (4) 31. The frequency of 5th
harmonic of a pipe closed at
c b one end is 680 Hz. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s
25. Two sine waves of same frequency travel in the then length of the pipe will be
same direction in a medium. The amplitude of each (1) 37.5 cm (2) 62.5 cm
wave is A and phase difference between two waves
(3) 42.5 cm (4) 54.2 cm
is 90°. The resultant amplitude will be
32. The characteristics of a sound with the help of which
(1) 2A (2) 2A we can distinguish between shrill note and a grave
A note is
(3) (4) 3A
2 (1) Loudness
26. A string is fixed between two rigid support. Mass per (2) Pitch
unit length of string is . Now tension in the string is (3) Intensity
decreased by 36%. The percentage decrease in (4) Quality
frequency will be
33. The equation of standing wave in a stretched string
(1) 24% (2) 36%  x 
(3) 20% (4) 18% is given by y = 3 sin   cos ( 20t ) where x and y
 2 
27. The expansion of unit mass of a perfect gas at are in meter and t in second. Then minimum
constant pressure is shown in figure. Then a and b are separation between two particles which are at
antinodes and having same phase will be
(1) 2 m (2) 1 m
(3) 3 m (4) 4 m
34. The differential equation representing the SHM of
d 2y
particle is 16 + 9 y = 0 . If the particle is at mean
dt 2
(1) a = temperature (in °C) and b = volume
position initially, then time taken by the particle to
(2) a = temperature (in K) and b = volume reach half of its amplitude for first time will be
(3) a = volume and b = temperature (in °C)
2 
(4) a = volume and b = temperature (in K) (1) s (2) s
9 3
28. Internal energy of n moles of Helium at temperature
T1 K is equal to the internal energy of 2n moles of 4 5
(3) s (4) s
T1 9 9
oxygen gas at temperature T2 K then value of is 35. The velocity of sound is generally lesser in gases
T2
than solids because as compared to gases
5 8 (1) Elasticity of solids is very high
(1) (2)
3 3 (2) The density of solids is low and elasticity is high
10 7 (3) Both density and elasticity of solids is very low.
(3) (4)
3 3 (4) Density of solids is high and elasticity is low
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)

SECTION-B 42. A particle is executing SHM. If the magnitude of

36. A progressive wave of amplitude 2 m, wavelength maximum acceleration is equal to magnitude of
4 m and frequency 6 Hz is propagating in a string maximum velocity, then the time period of oscillation
towards positive y-axis. The equation of wave may is
be (y is in metre and t in s) (1) 1.57 s
(1) x = 2sin(0.5y + 12t) m (2) 3.14 s
(2) x = 2sin(0.5y – 12t) m (3) 6.28 s

(3) x = 2sin(y – 6t) m (4) 10.99 s

43. When sound waves are refracted from air to water,
(4) x = 2sin(y + 6t) m
then which of the following quantity will change?
37. A uniform rope of length 12 m and mass 4 kg is hung
(1) Wave number
vertically from a rigid support. A transverse wave
pulse is produced at lower end. The speed of wave (2) Wavelength
pulse at x = 2.5 m from lower end will be (g = 10 (3) Wave velocity
2
m/s ) (4) All of these
(1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s 44. A particle of mass 0.2 kg executes SHM under a
(3) 2.5 m/s (4) 7.5 m/s force F = –20x (N). If speed of particle at mean
position is 12 m/s, then amplitude of oscillation is
38. Choose the incorrect statement among the following
for a particle executing SHM. (1) 0.6 m (2) 0.3 m

(1) At the extreme position, acceleration is (3) 0.9 m (4) 1.2 m

maximum 45. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and
(2) At the mean position, speed is maximum 15 m from a sound source. The period of oscillation
is 0.05 s and velocity of sound is 300 m/s. What will
(3) Direction of velocity is always in the direction of be phase difference between the oscillations of two
acceleration points?
(4) Both (1) and (2)
 
39. A spring of force constant K is cut into four equal (1) rad (2) rad
6 2
parts. All the parts are arranged in parallel and
attached to a mass m. The period of oscillation will  2
(3) rad (4) rad
be 3 3
m m 46. The ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy of a
(1)  (2) 4 particle executing SHM at a distance equal to half of
K K
its amplitude is (the distance is measured from its
 m  m equilibrium position where potential energy is taken
(3) (4)
2 K 4 K as zero)
40. If the amplitude of sound is doubled and frequency (1) 4 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
reduced to one fourth, the intensity of sound at the (3) 2 : 1 (4) 5 : 2
same place will be 47. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its
(1) Decreased by a factor of 4 (1) Pressure and temperature are high
(2) Increased by a factor of 2 (2) Pressure and temperature are low
(3) Decreased by a factor of 2 (3) Pressure is low and temperature is high
(4) Increased by a factor of 4 (4) Pressure is high and temperature is low
41. Two wires are in unison. If tension in one of the 48. A molecule of a gas has six degrees of freedom then
wires is increased by 2%, 5 beats are produced per molar specific heat of the gas at constant volume is
second. Then initial frequency of each wire is (1) 3R (2) 2R
(1) 400 Hz (2) 1000 Hz 3R 5R
(3) (4)
(3) 500 Hz (4) 200 Hz 2 2
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 Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

49. For which combination of working temperatures the 50. Two waves y1 = 2sint and y2 = 4sin(t + )
efficiency of carnot engine is maximum? superimpose. Ratio of the maximum to minimum
(1) 300 K, 600 K intensity of resultant wave is
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 300 K, 700 K
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 350 K, 600 K
(3) 9 : 1
(4) 350 K, 700 K (4) 16 : 9

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A 56. Consider the following compounds
51. Numbers of sigma () and pi () bonds in
Hexa-1, 3-dien-5-yne respectively are
(1) 12 and 3 (2) 11 and 4
(3) 14 and 4 (4) 10 and 4 The compounds which will show keto-enol
tautomerism are
52. Correct order of –I effect of the given species is
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(1) –NO2 > –F > –CN (2) –CN > –NO2 > –F
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(3) –F > –NO2 > –CN (4) –NO2 > –CN > –F
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
53. Consider the following compounds
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
57. Which among the following alkenes on reductive
ozonolysis give ethanal as one of the products?
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds
will be in the order as (1) (2)
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
(3) (4)
(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
58. Which of the following compounds is least reactive
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
towards electrophilic aromatic substitution?
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
54. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen
present in an organic compound, ammonia evolved (1) (2)
from 1.5 g of a sample was neutralised by 15 mL of
1 M H2SO4 solution. The percentage of nitrogen
present in the organic compound is
(1) 28% (2) 17% (3) (4)
(3) 34% (4) 56%
59. Correct order of acidity of the given compounds is
55. Correct order of stability of the given carbocations is
(1) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH  CH >
  
(1) (CH3 )3C  (CH3 )3CCH2  (CH3 )2 CH CH3 – C  CH

  
(2) CH3 – C  CH > CH  CH > CH2 = CH2 >
(2) (CH3 )2CH  (CH3 )3C  (CH3 )3CCH2 CH3 – CH3
   (3) CH  CH > CH3 – C  CH > CH2 = CH2 >
(3) (CH3 )3C  (CH 3)2CH  (CH3 )3CCH2 CH3 – CH3
   (4) CH2 = CH2 > CH  CH > CH3 – C  CH >
(4) (CH3 )3CCH2  (CH 3)3C  (CH3 )2CH CH3 – CH3
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)

60. Consider the following reaction sequence 64. In Carius method of estimation of bromine, 0.5 g of
(CH CO) O an organic compound gave 0.564 g of AgBr. The
CH  CH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Re d hot iron tube
873 K
→ A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3 2
Anhyd·AlCl / 
→B percentage of bromine in the compound is (Molar
3

mass of AgBr = 188 g mol–1)

Major product B is
(1) 16%
(2) 32%
(3) 48%
(1) (2) (4) 30%
65. Major product of the given reaction is

(3) (4)

(1)
61. The most stable carbanion among the following
species is

(2)
(1) (2)

(3)

(3) (4) (4)

66. In the following conformations, the least stable
conformation of n-butane is
62. Consider the following statements.
(a) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3·xH2O is Prussian blue in colour
(b) Phosphorus cannot be detected by Lassaigne’s (1) (2)
test
(c) Carbon and hydrogen in organic compounds
are detected by heating the compounds with
copper (II) oxide
The correct statements are
(3) (4)
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only 67. Incorrect statement among the following is
(4) (a), (b) and (c) (1) Both pyridine and aniline are heterocyclic
63. Which among the following is an aromatic species? aromatic compounds
(2) Methyl anion is sp3 hybridised and pyramidal in
shape
(1) (2)
+ +
(3) Cl and NO2 are electrophiles

(3) (4) (4) Naphthalene is a benzenoid aromatic

compound
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 Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

68. Compound which gives H2 gas on reaction with 74. Consider the following compounds
sodium is
(1) CH3CH2C  CH (2) CH3C  CCH3
The correct order of boiling points of the given
(3) (4) CH3CH = CH2
compounds is
(1) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (2) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
69. Consider the following reaction sequence
(3) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (4) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(i) B H
CH3CH2CH2CH2Br ⎯⎯⎯⎯
alc.KOH
→ A(Major) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 6
− →B(Major)
 (ii) H2O2 /OH 75. Incorrect statement among the following is
Major product B is (1) Silica gel and alumina are commonly used
adsorbent in adsorption chromatography
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2 – OH
(2) Paper chromatography is an example of
(2) CH3 CH2 CHCH3 adsorption chromatography
|
OH (3) Fractional distillation is employed to separate
(3) different fractions of crude oil in petroleum
industry
(4) Mixture of chloroform and aniline can be
separated by distillation
CH3
| 76. Major product of the given reaction is
(4) CH3 –CH – CH2 – OH

70. Propyne on warming with mercuric sulphate and

dilute sulphuric acid at 333 K majorly gives
(1) Alcohol (2) Aldehyde
(3) Ketone (4) Carboxylic acid
(1) (2)
71. On the electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium
propanoate which of the following is not obtained?
(1) CO2 (2) CH3CH2CH3
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (4) H2
72. IUPAC name of the given compound is (3) (4)

77. Compound which does not decolorise Baeyer’s

reagent is
(1) But-1-ene (2) Propyne
(1) 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene (3) Cyclohexene (4) Benzene

(2) 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene 78. Consider the following statements

(a) Photochemical smog occurs in cool humid
(3) 3-Ethyl-5-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
climate
(4) 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-5-nitrobenzene
(b) Photochemical smog is oxidising in nature
73. The reagent used in the given conversion is (c) Ozone and peroxyacetyl nitrate are powerful
eye irritants
The correct statements are
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) H2, Pd-BaSO4, quinoline (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Na/liquid NH3 79. Total number of structural isomers of C6H14 is
(3) Zn/HCl (1) 7 (2) 5
(4) Dilute H2SO4 (3) 4 (4) 6
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)

80. Major product of the given reaction is SECTION-B

86. Moles of oxygen required for complete combustion
of one mole of benzene is
(1) 6 (2) 3
15 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3
87. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are
coplanar?
(3) (4)

81. Consider the following reaction sequence (1)

(2) CH2 = CH – CHO
(3) CH3 – C  CH
Major product B is (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

(1) CH3 − C− CH3

II 88. The pair of electrons in the given carbanion, ,
O
is present in which of the following orbitals?
(2) CH3CH2CHO
(1) sp (2) sp2
(3)
(3) Pure 2p orbital (4) sp3
89. Consider the following statements
(4) CH3CH2COOH (a) Boiling point of cis-But-2-ene is more than trans-
82. Which among the following is meta directing group But-2-ene
towards aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction? (b) cis-But-2-ene is more polar than trans-But-2-
(1) –OCH3 (2) –CH3 ene

(3) –NHCOCH3 (4) –CHO (c) In solid state, melting point of

trans-But-2-ene is greater than cis-But-2-ene
83. Which pollutant can cause ‘blue baby’ syndrome?
The correct statements are
(1) Cadmium (2) Nitrate
(1) (a) and (b) only
(3) Fluoride (4) Sulphate
(2) (b) and (c) only
84. The correct order of stability of the given radicals is (3) (a) and (c) only
• • •
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
CH(CH3 )2 C(CH3 )3 CH2CH3
(i) (ii) (iii) 90. Statement I: Electromeric effect is a permanent
effect.
(1) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
Statement II: In positive electromeric effect, the -
(2) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
electrons of multiple bond are transferred to that
(3) (iii) > (i) > (ii) atom to which the reagent gets attached.
(4) (ii) > (iii) > (i) In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the option given below.
85. Decreasing order of priority of functional group
according to IUPAC nomenclature is (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
(1) –OH > –CHO > –COOH > –COCl
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) –COCl > –COOH > –CHO > –OH
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) –COOH > –COCl > –CHO > –OH
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(4) –CHO > –COOH > –COCl > –OH incorrect
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91. Kjeldahl method is not applicable for which of the 97. Major product of the given reaction is
given compounds? (C6H5CO)2 O2
Ph – CH = CH2 + HCl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

(1) PhCH2CH2Cl (2) Ph – CH – CH3

(1) CH3CH2CN (2) |
Cl
(3) PhCH2CH3 (4) Ph – CH – CH2
(3) (4) | |
Cl Cl
92. Ethoxyethane and methoxypropane are 98. Consider the following statements
(1) Position isomers (a) On industrial scale, ethyne is prepared by
treating calcium carbide with water
(2) Metamers
(b) Propyne on reaction with excess of bromine/
(3) Tautomers
CCl4 gives 1, 1, 2, 2-Tetrabromopropane
(4) Functional group isomers
(c) Propyne forms silver salt with Tollens’ reagent
93. Isobutyl group among the following is
The correct statements are
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2 − (2) CH3 − CH − CH2 −
I (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
CH3
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH – (4) (CH3)3C– 99. Structure of gammaxane is
|
CH3

94. Incorrect statement among the following is (1) (2)

(1) AgCl is soluble in NH4OH solution
(2) Ammonium phosphomolybdate is blood red
coloured compound
(3) (4)
(3) Nitrogen can be quantitatively estimated by
Dumas method
(4) On treating sodium fusion extract with sodium 100. Match pollutants given in column I with their
nitroprusside, appearance of violet colour prescribed upper limit concentration in drinking
indicates presence of sulphur water given in column II.
95. Major products of the given reaction are
Column I Column II
KMnO
CH3 – C =CHCH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ 4
→ (Prescribed upper
H (Pollutants)
| limit concentration
CH3 in drinking water)
(1) Acetone and acetaldehyde a. Nitrate (i) 5 ppm
(2) Acetic acid and acetaldehyde
b. Lead (ii) 50 ppm
(3) Acetone and acetic acid
c. Zinc (iii) 0.2 ppm
(4) Acetone and carbon dioxide
96. In sulphur estimation, 0.25 g of an organic d. Iron (iv) 50 ppb
compound gave 0.466 g of barium sulphate. The
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
percentage of sulphur present in the organic
compound is (Molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) 25.6% (2) 42.8% (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) 64.2% (4) 32.8% (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 107. Select the correct sequence of the tissues for the
101. Which among the given is the only means of pathway of water movement in the root of a
gaseous movement within the plant body? flowering plant.
(1) Symport (1) Epidermis → Cortex → Endodermis →
Pericycle → Xylem
(2) Facilitated diffusion
(2) Epidermis → Cortex → Pericycle →
(3) Simple diffusion
Endodermis → Xylem
(4) Antiport
(3) Epidermis → Endodermis → Cortex → Xylem →
102. Select the correct set of characteristics for active Pericycle
transport.
(4) Epidermis → Cortex → Endodermis → Xylem →
(a) Do not saturate
Pericycle
(b) Sensitive to inhibitors
108. Read the following statements and select the
(c) It is an uphill movement correct option.
(d) Highly selective Statement-A – Apoplast pathway provides least
(e) Do not require any energy resistance to the movement of water.
(1) a, b and c Statement-B – In symplast pathway, water travel
(2) b, c and d through intercellular spaces and walls of cells.
(3) c, d and e (1) Both statements are correct
(4) a, d and e (2) Only statement A is correct
103. Select the in incorrect match. (3) Only statement B is correct
(1) Complex I – NADH dehydrogenase (4) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Complex II – Succinate dehydrogenase 109. Which of the given intermediates w.r.t. respiratory
(3) Complex III – Cytochrome bc1 pathway acts as a precursor for alkaloids and
pyrimidines?
(4) Complex IV – Cytochrome a reductase
(1) Oxaloacetic acid (2) Succinyl CoA
104. A plant cell becomes turgid when it is placed in
(1) Concentrated salt solution (3) Acetyl CoA (4) -ketoglutaric acid

(2) Isotonic solution 110. The physical property of water in which there is
attraction between water molecules and the walls of
(3) Hypertonic solution
xylem vessles, is known as
(4) Hypotonic solution
(1) Adhesion (2) Surface tension
105. What is the respiratory quotient for fatty acid,
(3) Capilarity (4) Cohesion
tripalmitin if it is used as a substrate?
111. Which among the following is formed by the process
(1) 1 (2) 0.9
of differentiation?
(3) 0.7 (4) Infinite
(1) Phellogen (2) Cork cambium
106. If a plant cell X having OP = 10 bar and TP = 7 bar
and cell Y having OP = 7 bar and TP = 6 bar. Which (3) Collenchyma (4) Wound cambium
of the given options is true for the above condition? 112. Magnesium is an activator for which of the given
(1) There will be continuous movement of water enzymes?
from cell X to cell Y (1) Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase-
(2) There will be movement of water from cell Y to oxygenase
cell X (2) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(3) There will be no net movement of water (3) Nitrogenase
(4) Water will move from cell X to Y till equilibrium (4) Lactate dehydrogenase
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 Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

113. Which of the given essential elements play an (3) A- Outer membrane
important role in the opening and closing of B- Inner membrane
stomata?
C- Grana
(1) Sodium (2) Potassium
(4) C- Inner membrane
(3) Phosphorous (4) Calcium
D- Starch granules
114. Which part of the plant is the site of perception of
E – Stroma
light/dark period for flowering?
121. Primary CO2 acceptor in Hatch-Slack pathway is
(1) Stem (2) Leaves
(1) A four-carbon molecule
(3) Flowers (4) Embryo of the seed
(2) Present in bundle-sheath cell
115. Which element plays a major role in splitting of
water during photosynthesis? (3) A five-carbon ketose sugar

(1) Mg (2) Mo (4) Present in mesophyll cell

(3) Mn (4) N 122. The primary CO2 fixation product in C3 cycle is

116. When the element is easily mobilised in plants, the (1) Phosphoenol pyruvate
deficiency symptoms first tend to appear in (2) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(1) Younger leaves (2) Older leaves (3) A C4 acid
(3) Floral bud (4) Root and shoot tips (4) Oxaloacetic acid
117. How many ATP are required to yield one molecule 123. Hormones which are essential in tissue culture for
of NH3 in biological nitrogen fixation? promoting root and shoot development respectively
in callus are
(1) 16 ATP (2) 18 ATP
(1) Auxin and ABA (2) GA and Ethylene
(3) 4 ATP (4) 8 ATP
(3) Cytokinin and ABA (4) Auxin and Cytokinin
118. Which of the following, scavenges oxygen from root
nodules to protect the nitrogenase enzyme? 124. Which of the following statements are true w.r.t.
chemiosmotic hypothesis?
(1) Rhizobium (2) Leghaemoglobin
(a) Splitting of water occur towards the lumen of the
(3) Molybdenum (4) Carotenoids
thylakoid membrane.
119. With respect to cell division, which among the
(b) Proton accumulate more in stroma.
following plant hormones show synergistic effect
with that of auxin? (c) NADPH reductase reaction occurs towards
stroma side of the thylakoid membrane.
(1) ABA (2) Ethylene
(d) This hypothesis explains how ATP is
(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin
synthesised in the chloroplast.
120. Identify the figure and select the correct option for
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (c), (d) and (b) only
the labels.
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
125. How many ATP molecules are consumed to fix one
CO2 molecule in C3 and C4 cycle respectively?
(1) 3 ATP and 2 ATP (2) 30 ATP and 36 ATP
(3) 25 ATP and 30 ATP (4) 18 ATP and 12 ATP
126. Which of the given statements is not true w.r.t
photosynthesis?
(1) It is a process in which green parts of the plant
(1) B- Stroma
synthesize or manufacture complex organic
E- Grana food substances
D- Stroma lamellae (2) It is an oxido-reduction process
(2) C- Stroma lamellae (3) It is not responsible for the release of oxygen
D- Grana into the atmosphere
E- Starch granule (4) It produces primary source of food on earth
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)

127. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. photosystem II (3) It helps to identify the factor which directly
(1) It occurs on the inner surface of thylakoid affects the biochemical process when its
quantity is changed
(2) It is involved only in non-cyclic
photophosphorylation (4) It states that if a chemical process is affected
by more than one factors, then its rate will be
(3) It is not associated with splitting of water
determined by the factor which is nearest to its
(4) The reaction centre has absorption maxima at maximum value
680 nm 132. Read the given statements and select the correct
128. Which of the following statements is incorrect? option.
(1) Ethylene breaks the dormancy of seed Statement A: Solute potential (s) and pressure
(2) Gibberellins increase the length of stem potential (p) are the two main components that
(3) Abscisic acid generally promotes growth determine water potential.
Statement B: Water potential of pure water at
(4) Cytokinin counteracts apical dominance
standard temperatures, which is not under any
129. Match the following columns and select the correct pressure, is taken to be zero.
option.
(1) Only statement A is correct
Column-I Column-II (2) Only statement B is correct
a. Joseph Priestley (i) First action (3) Both the statements are correct
spectrum of (4) Both the statements are incorrect
photosynthesis 133. Krebs cycle starts with
was described
(1) The activity of aconitase enzyme on citric acid
b. Jan Ingenhousz (ii) Hydrogen from a (2) Regeneration of oxaloacetic acid
suitable
(3) The conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid
oxidisable
compound (4) Condensation of acetyl group with oxaloacetic
reduces CO2 to acid and water
carbohydrates 134. By the application of which plant hormone, stem
elongation can be induced in “rossette plants”?
c. T.W. Engelmann (iii) Air is essential
for plants growth (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
d. Cornelius van Neil (iv) Sunlight is
essential for 135. Who has discovered and confirmed that release of
plant process a volatile substance from ripened oranges hastened
that purify air the ripening of unripe banana kept with it?
(1) F. Skoog (2) F.W. Went
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Cousins (4) E. Kurosawa
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
SECTION-B
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
136. How many FADH2, NADH + H+ and ATP
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) respectively are released from one turn of Krebs
130. Which of the given leaf pigments appears blue- cycle?
green in colour in chromatogram? (1) 1, 1 and 3 (2) 1, 3 and 1
(1) Chlorophyll a (2) Chlorophyll b (3) 2, 6 and 2 (4) 2, 3 and 1
(3) Carotenoid (4) Xanthophylls 137. Which of the following elements in the plant is not
131. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. law of limiting remobilised?
factors. (1) Nitrogen
(1) It was given by Blackman in 1905 (2) Phosphorus
(2) It is applicable when several factors affect any (3) Potassium
biochemical process (4) Calcium
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 Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

138. Necrosis refers to a b c d

(1) Loss of chlorophyll in leaves (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) Yellowing of leaves
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) Death of leaf tissues
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) Late flowering in plants
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
139. The process of exudation of liquid drops from the
margin of the leaves is called 145. In which organelle, glycine is synthesised during
photorespiration/C2 cycle?
(1) Guttation (2) Transpiration
(1) Chloroplast
(3) Translocation (4) Respiration
(2) Peroxisome
140. What is/are necessary condition(s) for imbibition to
(3) Golgi body
occur?
(4) Mitochondria
(1) Active transport
146. Cyclic-photophosphorylation is concerned with the
(2) Affinity between adsorbant and the liquid formation of
imbibed
(1) ATP and NADPH2
(3) Water potential gradient between surface of
(2) ATP, NADPH2 and water
absorbent and liquid imbibed
(3) ATP only
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) NADPH2 only
141. Which of the following enzymes of Krebs cycle is
147. Sulphur is present in all of the following chemicals,
found attached to inner mitochondrial membrane?
except
(1) Fumarase
(1) Cysteine (2) Threonine
(2) Citrate synthase (3) Thiamine (4) Coenzyme A
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
148. A + NH+4 + NADPH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Glutamate
Dehydrogenase
(4) Succinate thiokinase
glutamate + H2O + NADP
142. The ability of plant, to form different kinds of
structures in response to environment is called Select the correct option for A w.r.t. the above given
(1) Vernalization (2) Plasticity reaction.
(3) Photoperiodism (4) Quiescence (1) -ketoglutaric acid

143. Which type of transpiration contributes about 1% of (2) Succinic acid

total transpiration in plant? (3) Glutamic acid
(1) Lenticular transpiration (4) Aspartic acid
(2) Stomatal transpiration 149. A horticulturist wants to obtain more than one crop
during a year. Which of the given process should be
(3) Bark transpiration employed by him to achieve this?
(4) Cuticular transpiration (1) Photoperiodism
144. Match the following phytohormones with their (2) Scarification
composition and select the correct option.
(3) Stratification
Phytohormones Composition (4) Vernalisation
a. ABA (i) Terpenes 150. Which phytohormone is also known as stress
hormone?
b. Auxin (ii) Derivative of
carotenoid (1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellins
c. Gibberellins (iii) Adenine derivatives
(3) Ethylene
d. Kinetin (iv) Indole compounds
(4) ABA
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A 157. Choose the odd one w.r.t poisonous animal.
151. Characteristic which is shared by hemichordates (1) Naja (2) Vipera
and chordates is (3) Trygon (4) Labeo
(1) Radial symmetry 158. Heart receives only impure blood in animals
(2) True segmentation belonging to taxon
(3) Closed circulatory system (1) Reptilia (2) Pisces
(4) True coelom (3) Aves (4) Mammalia
152. Which of the following characteristic is applicable to 159. Select the correct option for Meandrina.
Echinus?
(1) Belongs to phylum Ctenophora
(1) Chitinous exoskeleton
(2) Shows polyp form only
(2) Presence of water canal system
(3) Characterised by presence of calcareous
(3) Internal fertilisation and direct development endoskeleton
(4) Complete digestive system with mouth on (4) An example of phylum Porifera
ventral side and anus on dorsal side
160. How many animals from the box given below belong
153. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t platyhelminths. to subphylum Vertebrata?
(1) Excretion occurs through flame cells.
Ascidia, Branchiostoma, Clarias, Petromyzon,
(2) Hooks and suckers are present in parasitic Macropus, Balanoglossus
organisms.
(3) Fertilisation is internal and development is (1) One (2) Two
through many larval stages. (3) Three (4) Four
(4) All members absorb nutrients from the host 161. Choose the option in which all the mentioned
directly through their body surface. animals undergo internal fertilisation.
154. Mesoderm is present between body wall and gut (1) Hippocampus, Bufo, Octopus
wall in all of the following except (2) Pristis, Betta, Pavo
(1) King crab (2) Earthworm (3) Corvus, Periplaneta, Scoliodon
(3) Hookworm (4) Sea walnut (4) Bungarus, Antedon, Chiton
155. Double, solid and ventral nerve cord, true coelom, 162. Select the correct match from the following.
metamerism and open circulatory system are (1) Clarias – 6-15 pairs of gill slits
characteristics of members of phylum
(2) Rana – Ammonotelic
(1) Chordata (2) Echinodermata
(3) Bungarus – Creeping mode of locomotion
(3) Annelida (4) Arthropoda
(4) Pteropus – Air sacs
156. Read the following statements and choose the
option which correctly states them as true (T) or 163. External ear openings are present in
false (F). (1) All vertebrates (2) All tetrapods
(a) Chordates possess dorsal, solid nerve cord, either (3) All reptiles (4) Most of the birds
in their embryonic stage or throughout their life. 164. Select the correct statement from the following.
(b) Adult tetrapods possess jaws. (1) Pseudocoelomate animals possess bilateral
(c) Presence of flagellated choanocytes is a symmetry.
characteristic feature of poriferans. (2) All triploblastic animals possess bilateral
(a) (b) (c) symmetry in their adult stage.
(1) F T T (3) All animals which possess organ system level of
organisation, also have open circulatory
(2) T T T
system.
(3) T T F (4) All true coelomate animals possess ventral
(4) T F T heart.
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165. Read the following statements and choose the 171. Reproduction by sexual means only is a
correct answer. characteristic of
A. All cyclostomes are vertebrates but all (1) Obelia (2) Physalia
vertebrates are not cyclostomes. (3) Ctenoplana (4) Sycon
B. All vertebrates possess either paired fins or 172. What is true about Petromyzon, Calotes and
paired limbs. Exocoetus?
(1) Both statements A and B are correct. (1) They all possess diaphragm.
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect. (2) They all exhibit internal fertilisation and direct
(3) Only statement A is correct. development.
(4) Only statement B is correct. (3) They all lack the capacity to regulate their body
166. Choose the correct statement w.r.t echinoderms. temperature.
(1) They are aquatic, mostly marine but some are (4) They all possess scales on their body.
present in freshwater. 173. Which of the following characteristic is present in
(2) Some members possess lateral appendages both Apis and Chiton?
i.e., parapodia which help in swimming. (1) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Their body is divided into proboscis, collar and (2) Haemolymph
trunk. (3) Mesoglea between ectoderm and endoderm
(4) They have an endoskeleton of calcareous (4) Tracheal system
ossicles.
174. Animal which has a soft body, surrounded by an
167. A rudimentary structure called stomochord is external calcareous shell is
present in
(1) Locusta (2) Dentalium
(1) Chordates (2) Hemichordates
(3) Cucumaria (4) Ophiura
(3) Molluscs (4) Arthropods
175. Choose the pair of phyla whose members show
168. Which of the following animals is correctly matched different types of symmetry w.r.t each other.
with its particular name and taxonomic category?
(1) Chordata, Arthropoda
Common Scientific Taxon (2) Arthropoda, Coelenterata
name name
(3) Hemichordata, Aschelminthes
(1) Turtle Calotes Amphibia (4) Platyhelminthes, Annelida
(2) Great white Carcharodon Osteichthyes 176. Identify the animal in the diagram given below and
shark select the correct description about it.

(3) Lamprey Petromyzon Cyclostomata

(4) Tortoise Testudo Mammalia
169. Characteristic which is shared by Hemidactylus and
Aptenodytes is
(1) Oviparity and indirect development
(2) Pneumatic bones
(3) Homeothermy
(4) Bony cranium and vertebral column
170. In urochordates, (1) Gill slits are separate and without operculum.
(1) Notochord is present from head to tail in larva (2) The skin is tough, containing minute placoid
only scales.
(2) Excretion takes place through a pair of kidneys (3) Cartilaginous endoskeleton.
(3) Notochord is present in larval stage only (4) The body has prehensile tail and mouth is
(4) Larva and adults both are sessile terminal.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)

177. Choose the correct set of phyla which includes the 183. Match the column-I and column-II and choose the
animals with blind sac body plan. correct answer w.r.t cockroach.
(1) Porifera and Coelenterata Column-I Column-II
(2) Porifera and Platyhelminthes (a) Anal style (i) Opens into gizzard
(3) Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes (b) Uricose (ii) Help in excretion
(4) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes glands
178. Which of the following is incorrect statement w.r.t (c) Collaterial (iii) Present only in male
Physalia? gland
(1) It is commonly known as Portuguese man-of- (d) Crop (iv) Present only in female
war.
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) Exists in both forms, polyp and medusa, and
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
exhibits alternation of generations.
184. In cockroach, ommatidia are present in the
(3) It is colonial.
(1) Head (2) Neck
(4) It has eight comb plates.
(3) Thorax (4) Abdomen
179. Choose the correct match w.r.t scientific name and
185. Consider the following characteristics.
common name of animals.
(a) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
(1) Aplysia – Sea hare
(b) Bioluminescence is well marked.
(2) Gorgonia – Sea pen
(c) Cnidoblasts are used for defense and to capture
(3) Wuchereria – Hookworm prey.
(4) Limulus – Lac insect Select the correct option for the above given
180. At the junction of A about B blind tubules characteristics.
called gastric caeca are present in cockroach. (1) (a) and (b) are characteristics of ctenophores
Choose the option to correctly fill the blanks A (2) (b) and (c) are characteristics of platyhelminths
and B. (3) (a) and (b) are characteristics of poriferans
A B (4) (a) and (c) are characteristics of ctenophores
SECTION-B
(1) Foregut and midgut 6-8
186. How many structures from the box given below are
(2) Midgut and hindgut 150 not associated with poriferans?
(3) Foregut and midgut 150 Osculum, Spicules, Spongin fibres,
Gastrovascular cavity, Hypostome
(4) Midgut and hindgut 6-8
(1) One (2) Three
181. Choose the mismatch w.r.t mouth parts of
cockroach. (3) Two (4) Four

(1) Maxilla – Grinding and incising region 187. The non-chordates may include all of the following
except
(2) Labrum – Upper lip
(1) Bilateral symmetry (2) Ventral heart
(3) Labium – Lower lip
(3) Metamerism (4) Schizocoelom
(4) Hypopharynx – Act as tongue 188. Choose the odd one w.r.t hermaphrodite
182. Which of the following structure/organ is present in organisms.
female cockroach only? (1) Spongilla (2) Fasciola
(1) Anal cerci (3) Pleurobrachia (4) Nereis
(2) Papillary muscles 189. Canis and Doliolum are included in the same
(3) Spermatheca (1) Class (2) Phylum
(4) Phallomeres (3) Sub-phylum (4) Division
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 Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

190. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the 194. Adamsia belongs to phylum
correct answer. (1) Porifera (2) Coelenterata
Column-I Column-II (3) Ctenophora (4) Platyhelminthes
(a) Ascaris (i) Flagellated choanocytes 195. In cockroach, how many ganglia are present in
abdomen region?
(b) Loligo (ii) Ventral mouth
(1) Nine (2) Three
(c) Scoliodon (iii) Radula
(3) Six (4) Two
(d) Euspongia (iv) Males are shorter than 196. One of the representative member of subphylum
females Urochordata from the following is
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (1) Pila (2) Asterias
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (3) Salpa (4) Saccoglossus
191. The mantle cavity is the space between the hump 197. Read the following statements and choose the
and mantle, in correct answer.
(1) Culex (2) Pheretima Statement A: The head of cockroach is connected
(3) Ancylostoma (4) Pila with thorax by a short extension of the prothorax
192. Excretion takes place through A in insects, while known as neck.
osmoregulation and excretion takes place through Statement B: Head of cockroach bears one simple
B in annelids. eye and one compound eye.
Choose the option to correctly fill the blanks A (1) Both statements are correct
and B. (2) Both statements are incorrect
A B (3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Feather-like gills Nephridia (4) Only statement B is correct
(2) Malpighian tubules Nephridia 198. Animals of the largest phylum
(1) Are devoid of head
(3) Nephridia Excretory tube
(2) Possess parapodia
(4) Feather-like gills Malpighian tubules
(3) Are devoid of blood capillaries
193. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t roundworms.
(4) Possess pseudocoelom
(1) Alimentary canal is complete with a well
199. Urinary bladder opens into the cloaca, in
developed muscular pharynx.
(1) Frog (2) Monkey
(2) Their body is circular in cross-section, hence
called roundworms. (3) Blue whale (4) Cuttlefish
(3) Most of the members are monoecious. 200. Flying fox possesses all of the following except
(4) They may be free living, aquatic or terrestrial (1) Vertebral column (2) Metanephric kidney
and parasitic in plants and animals. (3) Columella auris (4) Ventral heart

❑ ❑ ❑

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All Aakashians Create History!
India
Hat-trick of Perfect Scores
Rank (Classroom Program Students) 720 720

Mrinal Kutteri Tanmay Gupta Karthika G Nair

2 YEAR CLASSROOM 2 YEAR CLASSROOM 2 YEAR CLASSROOM

63649 18 9 27 50
5
Aakashians Qualified in Ranks in Ranks in Ranks in
State & UT Toppers
NEET-UG 2021 Across India Top 10 AIR Top 50 AIR Top 100 AIR

*Includes students from Classroom, Distance & Digital Courses across all categories

AIR
715 720

Jashan Chhabra Shubham Agarwal Nikhar Bansal Rajat Goyal Meghan HK

2 YEAR CLASSROOM 3 YEAR CLASSROOM 2 YEAR CLASSROOM 2 YEAR CLASSROOM 2 YEAR CLASSROOM

Highest Number of Top Scorers

in NEET 2021 are from Aakash# Scan the code to check all
Marks Scored Aakashians* the ranks and watch what
our toppers have to say.
710 25
700 98
695 164
690 241
685 325 and many more stories of
680 428 excellence in NEET-UG 2021
675 540 from the classroom program
#
As compared with the available database in public domain of other similar educational institutes. of Aakash BYJU’S.
*Includes students from Classroom, Distance & Digital Courses across all categories

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