PRIYADARSHINI BHAGWATI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, NAGPUR

Department of Computer Science and Engineering

Academic Session 2021-22(Even Semester)

Sem-VI Sem CSE Subject:SEPM

MCQ based Question Bank

1) What is the first step in the software development lifecycle?

a) System Design
b) Coding
c) System Testing
d) Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
Answer: d) Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
Explanation: The first phase of the software development life cycle is the requirement
analysis, in which the software engineer analyzes the software requirement based on the
user's outlook.

2) What does the study of an existing system refer to?

a) Details of DFD
b) Feasibility Study
c) System Analysis
d) System Planning
Answer: c) System Analysis
Explanation: The study of an existing system refers to system analysis.

3) Which of the following is involved in the system planning and designing phase of the
Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
a) Sizing
b) Parallel run
c) Specification freeze
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: None.

4) What does RAD stand for?

a) Rapid Application Document
b) Rapid Application Development
 c) Relative Application Development
d) None of the above

Answer: b) Rapid Application Development

Explanation: RAD stands for Rapid Application Development is categorized as an agile
development method, which is meant to accomplish a quick turnaround and high-end
outcomes.

5) Which of the following prototypes does not associated with Prototyping Model?
a) Domain Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Horizontal Prototype
d) Diagonal Prototype
Answer: d) Diagonal Prototype
Explanation: There is nothing as such called Diagonal Prototype; however, the rest other
options do make sense.

6) The major drawback of RAD model is __________.

a) It requires highly skilled developers/designers.
b) It necessitates customer feedbacks.
c) It increases the component reusability.
d) Both (a) & (c)
Answer: d) Both (a) & (c)
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision, which may result in a team
over or under-develop functionality. Besides, it is not easy to hire highly specialized & skilled
developers/designers.

7) Which of the following does not relate to Evolutionary Process Model?

a) Incremental Model
b) Concurrent Development Model
c) WINWIN Spiral Model
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: The evolutionary process model is designed for rapid software development,
which starts from scratch with raw specifications and modifies as per the user requirement.

8) What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?

 a) Higher amount of risk analysis
b) Doesn't work well for smaller projects
c) Additional functionalities are added later on
d) Strong approval and documentation control

Answer: b) Doesn't work well for smaller projects

Explanation: A spiral model is an incremental approach, which is formed as a combination of
the waterfall model and prototyping model. The major drawbacks of the Spiral model are as
follows:
• Expensive
• Doesn't work well for smaller projects
• Risk analysis requires highly skilled experts.

9) Model selection is based on __________.

a) Requirements
b) Development team & users
c) Project type & associated risk
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: Model selection is based on requirements, a team of developers, users as well as
the risk involved in developing a project.

10) Which of the following option is correct?

a) The prototyping model facilitates the reusability of components.
b) RAD Model facilitates reusability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
d) None
Answer: c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
Explanation: None.

11) Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in
the lifecycle?
a) RAD & Waterfall
b) Prototyping & Waterfall
c) Spiral & Prototyping
d) Spiral & RAD

Answer: c) Spiral & Prototyping

Explanation: In the Prototyping model, the first phase is the requirement analysis phase,
which involves Brainstorming, QFD, and FAST, whereas the Spiral model encompasses
customer communication activities such as defining objectives.

12) When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following models will not result in
the desired output?
a) Prototyping & Waterfall
b) Prototyping & RAD
c) Prototyping & Spiral
d) RAD & Spiral
Answer: b) Prototyping & RAD
Explanation: The Prototyping model necessitates user participation as when a prototype is
created or designed, whereas, in the case of RAD, user participation is required in all four
phases.

13) Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy an
advanced version of the existing software in the market?
a) Spiral
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) RAD
d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: d) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation: None.

14) Arrange the following activities for making a software product by utilizing 4GT.
I. Design strategy
II. Transformation into product
III. Implementation
IV. Requirement gathering
a) 4, 1, 3, 2
b) 4, 3, 2, 1
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Answer: a) 4, 1, 3, 2
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned in option c represents the Fourth
Generation Techniques(4GT) Model.

15) Which of the following is an example of Black Box and Functional Processing?
 a) First Generation Language
b) Second Generation Language
c) Third Generation Language
d) Fourth Generation Language
Answer: d) Fourth Generation Language
Explanation: Functional processing or testing is commonly known as black-box testing,
where the existing contents are almost unknown, so anything could be demonstrated as a
black box. Hence the functionality of a black box can be defined in terms of inputs and outputs.

16) __________ is identified as fourth generation language.

a) Unix shell
b) C++
c) COBOL
d) FORTRAN

Answer: a) Unix shell

Explanation: Fourth-generation language is an advancement of third-generation
programming language.

17) The productivity of a software engineer can be reduced by using a 4GT.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b) False
Explanation: The fourth-generation programming languages are more programmer-friendly
and helpful in augmenting the program's efficiency as it uses English words and phrases. It
increases the programmer's productivity by enabling them to engage in the software
development life cycle.

18) Which of the following is the main advantage of deploying a 4GT model for producing
small-scale products, programs, and applications?
a) The productivity of software engineers is improved.
b) The time required for developing software is reduced.
c) CASE tools and code generators help the 4GT model by providing a credible solution to
their problems.
d) None of the above.

Answer: b) Time required for developing software is reduced.

Explanation: Since automated coding is done using CASE tools & code generators, proponents
claim a dramatic reduction in software development time.
19) Which of the following model has a major downfall to a software development life cycle in
terms of the coding phase?
a) 4GT Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) RAD Model
d) Spiral Model

Answer: a) 4GT Model

Explanation: Much more expertise is needed in the 4GT model for analyzing, designing, and
testing activities as it eliminates the coding phase.

20) Which of the following falls under the category of software products?
a) Firmware, CAD
b) Embedded, CAM
c) Customized, Generic
d) CAD, Embedded

Answer: c) Customized, Generic

Explanation: Customized and Generic are two kinds of software products.

21) Software maintenance costs are expensive in contrast to software development.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a) True
Explanation: For systems with long life, software maintenance cost is higher than that of the
software development cost.

22) Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback
report?
a) Deployment
b) Planning
c) Modeling
d) Construction

Answer: a) Deployment
Explanation: The deployment phase is the last phase of the software development life cycle in
which the software product is delivered to its end-user, who further assesses its performance
and revert back with the feedback if anything is required or missing as per the formulated
evaluation.

23) Which of the following refers to internal software equality?

a) Scalability
b) Reusability
c) Reliability
d) Usability

Answer: b) Reusability
Explanation: None.

24) RUP is abbreviated as __________, invented by a division of __________.

a) Rational Unified Process, IBM
b) Rational Unified Program, IBM
c) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
d) Rational Unified Program, Infosys

25) The RUP can be defined based on three main perspectives, i.e., static, dynamic & practice.
What is the purpose of static perspective?
a) It recommends some good practices that be included while carrying out the process.
b) It displays all the enacted process activities.
c) It portrays the phases that the model has entered over a specific time.
d) All of the above.

Answer: b) It displays all the enacted process activities.

Explanation: None.

26) Which one of the following activities is not recommended for software processes in
software engineering?
a) Software Evolution
b) Software Verification
c) Software Testing & Validation
d) Software designing

Answer: b) Software Verification

Explanation: Software verification is mainly considered for implementing and testing
activities.

27) Arrange the following activities to form a general software engineering process model.
I. Manufacture
II. Maintain
III. Test
IV. Install
V. Design
VI. Specification
a) 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
b) 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5
c) 6, 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4

Answer: a) 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
Explanation: None.

28) The agile software development model is built based on __________.

a) Linear Development
b) Incremental Development
c) Iterative Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

Answer: d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development

Explanation: In agile software development, the software is usually developed in increments
with the customer specifying necessary requirements in each increment. Here the main aim of
a developer is to meet customer satisfaction at the earliest by providing a valuable software
product. It is known as iterative because it chooses to work on one particular increment and
make the improvement in other iteration.

29) On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software development
process?
a) Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.
b) Based on the output, which is derived after negotiating in the software development
process.
c) Based on the interleaved specification, design, testing, and implementation activities.
d) All of the above
30) Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile software development?
a) Producing only the essential work products.
b) Utilizing the strategy of incremental product delivery.
c) Abolishing the project planning and testing.
d) All of the above

Answer: c) Abolishing the project planning and testing.

Explanation: Testing can never be avoided as it plays a significant role in the software
development life cycle.

31) Which of the following framework activities are carried out in Adaptive Software
Development (ASD)?
a) Assumption, Association, Learning
b) The investigation, Strategy, Coding
c) Requirements gathering, Adaptive cycle planning, Iterative development
d) All of the above

Answer: a) Assumption, Association, Learning

Explanation: An Adaptive Software Development approach is an empirical process control
model, which is based on observations. It continuously adjusts the design of the solution and
the process involved to create the solution based on observation throughout the project.

32) The __________ model helps in representing the system's dynamic behavior.
a) Object Model
b) Context Model
c) Behavioral Model
d) Data Model

Answer: c) Behavioral Model

Explanation: To represent the system's dynamic behavior, Behavioral models are used. The
behavioral model is modeled from the perspective of the system's processed data or the
events that stimulate responses from a system.

33) Model-driven engineering is nothing but a theoretical concept. It can never be transmuted
into a working/executable code.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b) False
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is a software development approach that represents
the system as a set model, which can be easily altered into an executable code.

34) The __________ and __________ are the two major dimensions encompassed in the Spiral
model.
a) Diagonal, Perpendicular
b) Perpendicular, Radial
c) Angular, diagonal
d) Radial, Angular

Answer: d) Radial, Angular

Explanation: The cumulative cost is represented by the radial dimension, whereas the
angular dimension represents the progress made in the completion of each consecutive cycle.
Each loop in the spiral model depicts the phase.

35) Which of the following technique is involved in certifying the sustained development of
legacy systems?
a) Reengineering
b) Forward engineering
c) Reverse engineering
d) Reverse engineering and Reengineering

Answer: d) Reverse engineering and Reengineering

Explanation: The process involved in certifying the sustained development of legacy systems
relies on Reverse engineering and Reengineering.

36) An erroneous system state that results in an unexpected system behavior is acknowledged
as?
a) System failure
b) Human error or mistake
c) System error
d) System fault

Answer: c) System error

Explanation: None.

37) What is the name of the approach that follows step-by-step instructions for solving a
problem?
a) An Algorithm
b) A Plan
c) A List
d) Sequential Structure

Answer: a) An Algorithm
Explanation: An algorithm is a precise step-by-step technique that takes an input instance (of
the given problem) as input(s) and produces output for the problem instance.

38) Which of the following word correctly summarized the importance of software design?
a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Efficiency
d) Accuracy

Answer: a) Quality
Explanation: The quality of a functional software functional depicts how well it can conform
with or adapts to a given design based on functional requirements or specifications.

39) Which of the following methodology results in SA/SD features?

a) Gane and Sarson methodology
b) DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
c) Constantine and Yourdon methodology
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: None.

40) __________ is not considered as an activity of Structured Analysis (SA).

a) Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model
b) Functional decomposition
c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
d) d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
Explanation: The module structure depicts the architecture of the software.
41) What does a directed arc or line signify?
a) Data Flow
b) Data Process
c) Data Stores
d) None of the above

Answer: a) Data Flow

Explanation: In the business information system, the data flow diagram is used to epitomize
the flow of the data.

42) What does a data store symbol in the Data Flow Diagram signify?
a) Logical File
b) Physical File
c) Data Structure
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: A logical file can be a data structure or physical file on the disk or vice versa.

43) __________ is not a direct measure of SE process.

a) Effort
b) Cost
c) Efficiency
d) All of the above

Answer: c) Efficiency
Explanation: Efficiency can never be measured as it is an indirect measure of the SE process.

44) What is the main task of project indicators?

a) To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks.
b) To evaluate the ongoing project's status.
c) To track potential risks.
d) None of the above

Answer: a) To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks.
Explanation: None.
45) What is the main intent of project metrics?
a) For strategic purposes
b) To minimize the development schedule.
c) To evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis
d) To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a
daily basis

Answer: d) To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality
on a daily basis
Explanation: A project metric refers to a quantifiable measure of the degree to which a
system, component, or process owns a certain trait.

46) Name the graphical practice that depicts the meaningful changes that occurred in metrics
data.
a) Function point analysis
b) Control Chart
c) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
d) None of the above

Answer: c) Control Chart

Explanation: A control chart is a method used to keep track of the variability of traits of
interest.

47) Which parameters are essentially used while computing the software development cost?
a) Hardware and Software Costs
b) Effort Costs
c) Travel and Training Costs
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: Estimation cost works out on assessing the amount of effort required to
complete each activity, followed by calculating the total cost of activities.

48) Which of the following is an incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
 a) Change management
b) System management
c) Internship management
d) Version management

Answer: c) Internship management

Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record, and
process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to
manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to
customers.

49) The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all-important software
functions, which is known as
a) Planning process
b) Decomposition
c) Association
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b) Decomposition
Explanation: None.

50) Which of the following Is not considered as an option for achieving reliable cost and effort
estimation?
a) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
b) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort
estimates.
c) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
d) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation

Answer: a) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and
dollars
Explanation: None.

51) Which of the following does not complement the decomposition techniques but offers a
potential estimation approach for their impersonal growth?
a) Empirical estimation models
 b) Decomposition techniques
c) Automated estimation tools
d) Both empirical estimation models and automated estimation tools

Answer: a) Empirical estimation models

Explanation: In computer software, the estimation model uses empirically derived formulas
for guessing the effort as a function of LOC or FP.

52) Which of the following is not included in the total effort cost?
a) Costs of lunch time food
b) Costs of support staff
c) Costs of networking and communications
d) Costs of air conditioning and lighting in the office space

Answer: a) Costs of lunch time food

Explanation: Employees incur it in the office.

53) Which of the following model has a misconception that systems are built by utilizing
reusable components, scripts, and database programs?
a) The reuse model
b) An early designed model
c) An application-composition model
d) A post architecture model

Answer: c) An application-composition model

Explanation: An application-composition model evaluates the development of a prototype.

54) Which of the following is used to predict the effort as a function of LOC or FP?
a) COCOMO
b) FP-based estimation
c) Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation
d) Process-based estimation
Answer: c) Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation
Explanation: Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation is used to calculate the effort by
utilizing the empirically derived formulas.

55) Once the requirements are stabilized, the basic architecture of the software can be
established. Which of the following version of the COCOMO model conforms to the given
statement?
a) Application composition model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Early design stage model
d) All of the above

Answer: a) Application composition model

Explanation: None.

56) Which of the following threatens the quality and timeliness of the produced software?
a) Business risks
b) Potential risks
c) Technical risks
d) Known risks

Answer: c) Technical risks

Explanation: Technical risks detect the possible design, enactment, interface, authentication,
and preservation problems.

57) Which of the following refers to the systematic attempt, which is implemented to ascertain
the threats to any project plan?
a) Performance risk
b) Risk identification
c) Risk projection
d) Support risk

Answer: c) Risk projection

Explanation: Once the risks are identified, the project manager takes his first step to avoid
them when required and control them.
58) Which of the following refers to the systematic attempt, which is implemented to ascertain
the threats to any project plan?
1. Performance risk
2. Risk identification
3. Risk projection
4. Support risk

Answer: c) Risk projection

Explanation: Once the risks are identified, the project manager takes his first step to avoid
them when required and control them.

59) Which of the following standards is used by the aviation industry?

1. CTRADO-172B
2. RTCADO-178B
3. RTRADO-178B
4. CTCADO-178B

Answer: b) RTCADO-178B
Explanation: RTCADO-178B is the most popular aviation standard, which has been altered to
a defacto standard.

Q1. A project plan is produced as ___ commence.

1. Software engineer
2. Management activities
3. Software professionals
4. None of the mentioned above
Answer: B) Management activities
Explanation:
As management operations begin, a project plan is created. The plan specifies the method and
tasks to be carried out, as well as the individuals who will carry out the work and the
processes for risk assessment, change control, and quality evaluation.

Q2. Effective software ___ focuses on the four Ps: people, product, process, and project.
1. Planning
2. Control
3. Project management
 4. All of the mentioned above
Answer: C) Project management
Explanation:
The four Ps of effective software project management are people, product, process, and
project. The order isn't random. Managers who lose sight of the fact that software engineering
is a deeply human endeavor will never be successful in project management.

Q3. Project managers plan, monitor, and control the work of a team of ____.
1. Software engineers
2. Management activities
3. Project management
4. None of the mentioned above
Answer: A) Software engineers
Explanation:
A team of software engineers is managed by project managers, who plan, monitor, and
regulate their work. The relationship between business and software specialists is
coordinated by senior management.

Q4. A small number of ___ are applicable to all software projects.

1. Software engineers
2. Management activities
3. Framework activities
4. None of the mentioned above
Answer: C) Framework activities
Explanation:
Only a few Framework actions are universally relevant to all software projects.

Q5. ____ is a people-intensive activity, and for this reason, competent practitioners often make
poor team leaders.
1. Project management
2. Management activities
3. Software engineers
4. All of the mentioned above
Answer: A) Project management
Explanation:
Because project management is such a people-intensive activity, competent practitioners
frequently make lousy team leaders. They simply lack the correct blend of interpersonal skills.
Q6. A good ___ must take charge of the project.
1. Software engineers
2. Planning
3. Project manager
4. All of the mentioned above
Answer: C) Project manager
Explanation:
The project must be managed by a good project manager. They must have the courage to take
command when necessary and the confidence to trust good technical experts to act on their
intuition.

Q7. The manager must remain under control in ___ situations.

1. High-stress
2. Low-stress
3. Medium-stress
4. None of the mentioned above
Answer: A) High-stress
Explanation:
A competent project manager must be able to "read" people; she must be able to decipher
verbal and nonverbal signals and respond to the requirements of those who send them. In
high-stress situations, the manager must maintain control.

Q8. A software team can avoid frustration if it is given as much responsibility for ___ as
possible.
1. Management
2. Planning
3. Decision making
4. None of the mentioned above
Answer: C) Decision making
Explanation:
If a software team is given as much decision-making authority as feasible, it can minimize
frustration. Understanding the product to be developed, the people doing the job, and
allowing the team to choose the process model can all help to avoid an ineffective process.

Q9. A software project manager is confronted with a dilemma at the very beginning of a ____.
1. Project manager
2. Software project
3. Software planning
4. None of the mentioned above
Answer: B) Software project
Explanation:
At the start of a software project, a software project manager is faced with a dilemma.
Quantitative estimates and a well-organized strategy are needed, yet solid data is absent.

Q10. Project planning begins with the melding of____.

1. The software planning
2. The project manager
3. The product and process
4. All of the mentioned above
Answer: C) The product and process
Explanation:
The blending of the product and the process is the first step in project planning. Each function
that your team is developing must go through a set of framework activities that your software
organization has established.