MEDICAL LAB TECHNICIAN

PROMETRIC EXAM

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

MODEL PAPER-1
1.During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes
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A. More dense B. More acidic C. Finer D. Less dense
As a blood cell matures, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes more dense. This means that the DNA and associated
proteins in the nucleus become more tightly packed. This denser chromatin pattern allows for more efficient regulation of
gene expression and helps to maintain the stability and integrity of the genetic material within the cell.

2. Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci?

A. Fibrinolysin B. Catalase C. Coagulase D. Oxidase
Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus that causes the plasma to clot. This test is used to
differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci because it is specific to this bacteria. The presence
of coagulase activity indicates the presence of Staphylococcus aureus, while the absence of coagulase activity suggests
the presence of other types of staphylococci.

3.Which anemia is usually associated with severe burns is

A. Aplastic B. Hemolytic C. Macrocytic D. Microcytic
Hemolytic anemia is usually associated with severe burns. In this type of anemia, red blood cells are destroyed faster than
they can be produced, leading to a decrease in the overall number of red blood cells in the body. Severe burns can cause
damage to blood vessels and tissues, leading to the release of substances that can trigger the destruction of red blood
cells. This can result in hemolytic anemia, which is characterized by symptoms such as fatigue, pale skin, and shortness of
breath.

4.Blood group A individuals have

A. Anti-A in their serum B. Anti-O in their serum
C. Anti-B in their serum D. Antigen A and B on their red cells
Blood group A individuals have anti-B in their serum because they do not have the B antigen on their red blood cells. The
presence of anti-B antibodies allows their immune system to recognize and attack any foreign blood cells that do have the
B antigen, preventing incompatible blood transfusions.

5. A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred

A. For 1 year B. For 6 months C. For 5 years D. Permanently
A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred permanently because HBsAg is a marker for hepatitis
B virus infection. This means that the donor is currently infected with the virus and can transmit it to the recipient
through blood transfusion. Therefore, it is necessary to permanently defer the donor to ensure the safety of the blood
supply and prevent the transmission of hepatitis B to recipients.

6. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be used to help identify the antibody that is
attached to the patient's cells IN VIVO?
A. Direct anti-human globulin test B. Indirect anti-human globulin test
C. Elution D. D(u)

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Elution is the correct answer because it is a technique used to remove antibodies that are attached to the patient's cells in
vivo. This process involves breaking the antigen-antibody bond and separating the antibodies from the patient's cells. By
performing elution, the specific antibody that is attached to the patient's cells can be identified and further analyzed. The
other options, direct and indirect anti-human globulin tests, are used to detect the presence of antibodies but do not
specifically identify the antibody attached to the patient's cells.

7. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears

A. Clear (colorless) B. Light yellow or straw colored C. Greeen D. Bright red
The correct answer is light yellow or straw colored. Cerebral spinal fluid in patients with post-cerebral hemorrhage may
appear this way due to the presence of red blood cells and breakdown products of blood. The yellow color is caused by
the bilirubin pigment, which is a product of the breakdown of red blood cells. This color indicates that there is a small
amount of blood present in the fluid, but not enough to cause it to be bright red or green.

8. Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? 1. Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH) (LD) 2. Creatinine
Phosphokinase (CPK) (CK) 3. Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT)
A. 2 only B. 1,2, and 3 C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only
Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH), Creatinine Phosphokinase (CPK), and Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT) are
all enzymes that can be found in the heart muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

9. Water-soluble pigments are produced by

A. Yeasts B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Group A streptococcus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to produce water-soluble pigments such as pyocyanin, pyoverdine, and pyorubin.
These pigments are important for the survival and virulence of the bacterium. Pyocyanin, for example, has been shown to
have antimicrobial properties and can help Pseudomonas aeruginosa compete with other microorganisms in its
environment. Therefore, it is the most likely organism to produce water-soluble pigments among the options given.

10. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing

A. Immunoglobulin testing B. D(u) testing C. Reverse typing D. Autoagglutination tests
Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is not used in performing reverse typing. Reverse typing is a blood typing technique
that involves testing the patient's serum against known red blood cell antigens. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is
used in other blood typing techniques, such as direct typing and indirect antiglobulin testing, to detect antibodies that
have coated the patient's red blood cells. However, in reverse typing, the patient's serum is tested for the presence of
antibodies, so antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is not necessary.

11. Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone

A. Hydrocortisone B. Thyroxin C. Insulin D. ACTH

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Insulin is the correct answer because it is the hormone responsible for regulating blood glucose levels. Insulin is produced
by the pancreas and helps to lower blood glucose levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. It also
promotes the storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver and muscles. Without sufficient insulin, blood glucose levels can
become too high, leading to conditions like diabetes. ACTH, thyroxin, and hydrocortisone are not directly involved in the
regulation of blood glucose levels.

12. A fladellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is

A. Entamoeba coli B. Trichomonas tenax C. Trichomonas hominis D. Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomonas vaginalis is the correct answer because it is a flagellate that is commonly found in the urine of female
patients. This parasite is responsible for causing trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that primarily affects the
urogenital tract. It is most commonly found in the vagina, hence the name "vaginalis." Trichomonas hominis, Entamoeba
coli, and Trichomonas tenax are all different species of flagellates, but they are not typically found in the urine of female
patients.

13. The RA latex test is used as a screening test for

A. Thyroiditis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Vulvovaginitis D. Rheumatoid arthritis
The RA latex test is used as a screening test for rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that
causes chronic inflammation in the joints, resulting in pain, stiffness, and swelling. The RA latex test detects the presence
of rheumatoid factor (RF), an antibody that is often found in the blood of individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore,
a positive RA latex test indicates a higher likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis. The test helps healthcare professionals in
diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

14. Dilute normal urine is usually

A. Reddish-yellow B. Dark yellow C. Pale yellow D. Amber
Dilute normal urine is usually pale yellow because it contains a lower concentration of waste products and toxins. When
urine is diluted, it means that there is a higher water content, leading to a lighter color. Pale yellow urine indicates that
the body is well-hydrated and functioning properly. Dark yellow, reddish-yellow, and amber colors may suggest
dehydration or the presence of certain substances or medical conditions.

15. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
A. Levine B. Bernstein C. Weiner D. Landsteiner
Landsteiner is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance. This is because Landsteiner
discovered the ABO blood groups and proposed the theory of inheritance based on his experiments. His work laid the
foundation for our understanding of blood types and their inheritance patterns, which has been widely accepted in the
field of genetics and immunology.
16. A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test
A. Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies B. Is positive during the chancre stage
C. Indicates the severity of infection D. Indicates no infection

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The correct answer, "confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies," indicates that a reactive fluorescent treponemal
antibody (FTA-AB) test is used to detect the presence of antibodies produced by the body in response to a treponemal
infection. This test is commonly used to diagnose syphilis, as the presence of treponemal antibodies confirms the
infection. It does not indicate the severity of the infection or the specific stage of syphilis.

17. Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
A. Platelets B. Reticulocytes C. Howell-Jolly bodies D. Malaria
Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue stains are commonly used for counting reticulocytes. Reticulocytes are
immature red blood cells that still contain remnants of RNA. By staining them with these dyes, they become visible under
a microscope and can be counted to determine the rate of red blood cell production in the bone marrow. This is
particularly useful in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as anemia or bone marrow disorders.

18. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of

A. Cardiac muscle contractions B. Salt intake C. Osmotic pressure of body fluids D. Blood coagulation
Sodium plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of body fluids. Osmotic pressure refers to the pressure
exerted by the solutes in a solution, which helps regulate the movement of water across cell membranes. Sodium ions are
one of the main solutes in extracellular fluids, and their concentration affects the osmotic pressure. By controlling the
osmotic pressure, sodium helps maintain the balance of water inside and outside cells, ensuring proper hydration and
functioning of cells and tissues throughout the body.

19.An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes USUALLY indicates
A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Viral infection C. Bacterial infection D. Allergic reaction
An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes usually indicates a bacterial infection.
Neutrophilic granulocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response to bacterial
infections. When there is an infection, the body releases more neutrophils to help fight off the bacteria. Therefore, an
elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes is often seen in bacterial infections.

20. Safranin in a Gran stain is used as a

A. Mordant B. Primary stain C. Decolorizer D. Secondary stain
Safranin is used as a secondary stain in a Gram stain. A Gram stain is a differential staining technique used to classify
bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative based on their cell wall composition. In this technique, safranin is used as
a counterstain to stain the Gram-negative bacteria after the initial staining with crystal violet. Safranin stains the Gram-
negative bacteria pink or red, allowing them to be differentiated from the Gram-positive bacteria that are stained purple
by the primary stain, crystal violet. Therefore, safranin acts as a secondary stain in the Gram stain technique.

21. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
A. Percent deviation B. Stardard deviation C. Coefficient variation D. Quality control

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The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as the standard
deviation. The standard deviation measures the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of values. It is calculated by
taking the square root of the variance, which is the average of the squared differences between each value and the mean.
A higher standard deviation indicates greater variability, while a lower standard deviation indicates less variability.

22. An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being

A. Markedly bluish in color B. Packed with hemoglobin
C. Variable in shape D. Markedly pale in central color
An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as markedly pale in central color. Hypochromia refers to a condition
where the red blood cells have a decreased amount of hemoglobin, resulting in a paler appearance. This paleness is
particularly noticeable in the central area of the cell. It is not related to the shape, hemoglobin content, or bluish color of
the RBC.

23. Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their

A. Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide B. Serologic and biochemical characteristics
C. Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae D. Staining properties with polychrome dyes
Fungi are commonly identified based on their sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae. Sporulation
refers to the formation of spores, which are reproductive structures in fungi. The arrangement of spores on the hyphae,
which are thread-like structures in fungi, can vary and be used to distinguish different species. This method of
identification is important because it allows scientists to differentiate between different types of fungi and classify them
accordingly. Other characteristics mentioned in the options, such as serologic and biochemical characteristics, staining
properties, and solubility in potassium hydroxide, may also be used in fungal identification but are not as commonly relied
upon as sporulation and spore arrangement.

24. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of
A. Ketone bodies B. Protein C. Uric acid D. Glucose
Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by an increase in acid levels in the body. Ketone bodies are produced when
the body breaks down fatty acids for energy, particularly in conditions like diabetes or starvation. Therefore, testing urine
for the presence of ketone bodies can help detect metabolic acidosis. Protein, glucose, and uric acid are not directly
related to the detection of metabolic acidosis, making them incorrect options.

25. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
A. Specific gravity B. Hydrometry C. Refractive index D. Osmolality
Freezing point depression measurements are used to determine the osmolality of a solution. Osmolality is a measure of
the concentration of solute particles in a solution, specifically in this case, in urine. By measuring the freezing point
depression, the osmolality of the urine can be determined, which can provide important information about kidney
function and hydration levels. Therefore, freezing point depression measurements are part of the urine test procedure for
osmolality.

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26. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on
A. Serum only B.Plasma only C.Any body fluid D. Either serum or plasma
Fibrinogen determinations are performed on plasma only because fibrinogen is a protein that is present in the liquid
portion of blood, which is plasma. Serum is obtained by removing the clotting factors from plasma, including fibrinogen.
Therefore, fibrinogen cannot be accurately measured in serum. Additionally, fibrinogen is not present in other body fluids,
so it cannot be determined in any body fluid other than plasma.

27. To make a 1:5 dilution of serum sample, dilute

A. 5.0 mL of serum + 1.0 mL of diluent B. 1.0 mL of serum + 5.0 mL of diluent
C. 1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent D. 1.0 mL of serum + 6.0 mL of diluent
To make a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample, you need to mix 1.0 mL of serum with 4.0 mL of diluent. This means that the
total volume of the diluted solution will be 5.0 mL, with 1.0 mL being the serum and 4.0 mL being the diluent. This dilution
ratio indicates that for every 1 part of serum, you need to add 4 parts of diluent, resulting in a total of 5 parts. This
dilution is commonly used in laboratory settings to reduce the concentration of a sample for various analyses or
experiments.

28. Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile cells having an oval "head" with a rather long,
delicate, whip-like tail, These cells are most likely identified as
A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Spermatozoa C. Spirochetes D. Proteus vulgaris
The description of the cells having an oval "head" with a long, delicate, whip-like tail is characteristic of spermatozoa.
Proteus vulgaris is a bacterium and would not have this specific morphology. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan
parasite that has flagella, but its morphology is different from the described cells. Spirochetes are a type of bacteria that
have a spiral shape and would not match the given description. Therefore, the most likely identification based on the
given description is spermatozoa.

29. Antihuman serum globulin reagent

A. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies B. Occurs naturally in most humans
C. Is produced in humans D. Is produced in laboratory animals
The correct answer is "is produced in laboratory animals." This is because antihuman serum globulin reagent is a reagent
that is used in laboratory tests to detect antibodies in human serum. It is produced by injecting laboratory animals with
human serum globulin, which stimulates the animals to produce antibodies against the human serum globulin. These
antibodies are then collected and used as the antihuman serum globulin reagent in laboratory tests.

30. Beer's law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light
absorbed, the
A. Lower the concentration of the analyte B. More light transmitted
C. Higher the concentration of the analyte D. Longer the wavelength required

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According to Beer's law, the darker the color produced in a specimen, the more light is absorbed. This means that as the
concentration of the analyte increases, more light is absorbed, resulting in a darker color. Therefore, the correct answer is
"Higher the concentration of the analyte."

31. Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)

A. Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus B. Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus
C. Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband D. Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus
Rh immune globulin is given to a negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus. This is because Rh immune
globulin helps prevent the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against the Rh(D) antigen, which can
occur when the mother is Rh(D) negative and the fetus is Rh(D) positive. If the mother develops these antibodies, it can
lead to complications in future pregnancies with Rh(D) positive fetuses. Therefore, giving Rh immune globulin to the
negative mother after delivery of an Rh(D) positive fetus helps prevent the development of these antibodies.

32. What is the distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer called?
A. 1.0 cm B. 0.1 mm C. 1.0 mm D. 0.1 cm
The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer is called 0.1 mm.

33. Enterobius vermilcularis is a

A. Hookworm B. Flat worm C. Pinworm D. Filarial worm
Enterobius vermicularis is commonly known as the pinworm. It is a parasitic worm that infects the human intestines.
Pinworms are transmitted through the ingestion of their eggs, which are usually found on contaminated surfaces or in
food and water. Once inside the body, the eggs hatch in the small intestine and the larvae migrate to the large intestine,
where they mature into adult worms. The female pinworms then migrate to the anus to lay their eggs, causing intense
itching and discomfort. Pinworm infections are common, especially in children, and can be treated with medication.

34. Which of the following organisms are described as minute, very pleomorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-
negative rods that are media enriched with X and V factors?
A. Escherichia coli B. Bacillus anthracis C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Haemophilus influenzae
Haemophilus influenzae is the correct answer because it fits the description given in the question. It is described as
minute, very pleomorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods. Additionally, Haemophilus influenzae requires
media enriched with X and V factors for growth. Escherichia coli, Listeria monocytogenes, and Bacillus anthracis do not fit
the given description.

35. Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of
A. Hemoglobin B. Serum protein C. Amino acid D. Serum lipoprotein
Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of serum protein. Electrophoretic
fractionation is a technique used to separate different proteins based on their charge and size. In this case, the given

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fractions are all components of serum protein, which is a mixture of proteins found in blood plasma. Therefore, the
correct answer is serum protein.

36. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals

A. A heavy buffy coat B. Hemolysis C. Icteric plasma D. A high hematocrit
A heavy buffy coat may suggest the presence of leukemia. The buffy coat is the layer of white blood cells and platelets
that separates from the red blood cells after centrifugation. In a healthy individual, the buffy coat is usually thin. However,
in leukemia, there is an abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells, leading to a heavier buffy coat. This can be
an indication of leukemia and further diagnostic tests may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

37. Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of

A. Platelet function B. Factor X deficiency C. Factor VII deficiency D. Hemophilia
Clot retraction refers to the process by which a blood clot becomes more compact and retracts, leading to the formation
of a stable clot. This process is primarily dependent on the function of platelets, which play a crucial role in clot formation
and stabilization. Therefore, clot retraction can be used as an indicator of platelet function. Factor VII deficiency and
Factor X deficiency are related to the coagulation cascade, while hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's
ability to clot. None of these conditions directly impact clot retraction, making platelet function the correct answer.

38. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is

A. Chloride B. Bicarbonate C. Sodium D. Potassium
Sodium is the major cation found in the extracellular fluid. Cations are positively charged ions, and sodium is the most
abundant positively charged ion in the extracellular fluid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, regulating
blood pressure, transmitting nerve impulses, and supporting muscle function. Chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate are
also important ions in the body, but sodium is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid.

39. In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is

A. Simple filtration B. Secretion C. Re-absorption of water D. Selective re-absorption
The glomerulus is responsible for simple filtration in the formation of urine. It acts as a filter, allowing small molecules like
water, electrolytes, and waste products to pass through while preventing larger molecules like proteins and blood cells
from entering the filtrate. This initial filtration process helps to remove waste products from the blood and create a
concentrated urine solution.

40. Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci?
A. Oxidase B. Fibrinolysin C. Coagulase D. Catalase
Feedback
Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus that causes the plasma to clot. This test is used to
differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci because it is specific to this bacteria. The presence

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of coagulase activity indicates the presence of Staphylococcus aureus, while the absence of coagulase activity suggests
the presence of other types of staphylococci.

41. Reticulocytes contain

A. Basophilic granules B.Howell-Jolly bodies C. DNA remnants D. RNA remnants
Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain some RNA remnants. These remnants are leftover from the
process of synthesizing hemoglobin, which occurs in the reticulocytes. As the reticulocytes mature into erythrocytes
(mature red blood cells), the RNA remnants are removed, resulting in cells that do not contain any DNA remnants.
Therefore, the correct answer is RNA remnants.

42. Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is recommended by the International Committee
for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?
A. Oxyhemoglobin B. Cyanmethemoglobin C. Sulfhemoglobin D. Methemoglobin
Cyanmethemoglobin is the recommended method for hemoglobin determination by the International Committee for
Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards. This method involves the
conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin, which is stable and can be measured accurately. This method is widely
used in clinical laboratories for accurate and reliable measurement of hemoglobin levels in blood samples.

43. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the
A. Size of the particle being counted B. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
C. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell D. Value of the cell indices
Automated blood cell counters use the principle of counting the size of the particles. These counters measure the size of
the red blood cells to determine the number of cells present. By analyzing the size of the particles, the counter can
differentiate between different types of blood cells and provide accurate cell counts. This principle is effective because
different blood cell types have different sizes, allowing the counter to distinguish between them and provide valuable
information about the blood sample.

44. As a general rule, when a blood cell matures

A. The cell increases in size B. The nucleus increases in size
C. There is no change in the cell's size C. The cell decreases in size
When a blood cell matures, it undergoes a process called enucleation, where the nucleus is expelled from the cell. This
results in a decrease in the cell's size. The mature blood cell, also known as a red blood cell or erythrocyte, needs to lose
its nucleus to make more space for hemoglobin, the molecule responsible for carrying oxygen. This allows the cell to
become more efficient in its oxygen-carrying capacity. Therefore, the correct answer is that the cell decreases in size.

45. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?
A. Blood viscosity studies B. Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum
C. Immunoelectrophoresis D. Isoenzyme electrophoresis

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Immunoelectrophoresis is a method that combines electrophoresis and immunodiffusion techniques to study protein
abnormalities. It involves separating proteins based on their charge using electrophoresis and then detecting specific
proteins using antibodies. This technique is particularly useful for identifying and quantifying abnormal proteins, such as
those associated with autoimmune diseases or cancer. By comparing the protein profiles of healthy individuals with those
of patients, researchers can gain insights into the presence and nature of protein abnormalities, aiding in diagnosis and
treatment.

46. During Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in

A. Man B. Swine C. Cattle D. Fish
The correct answer is cattle because Taenia saginata is a tapeworm that primarily infects cattle. The larval stage of the
tapeworm develops in the muscles of cattle, and when humans consume undercooked or raw beef contaminated with
these larvae, they can become infected. Swine and fish can also be hosts for other types of tapeworms, but in the case of
Taenia saginata, the larval stage specifically develops in cattle.

47. Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring

A. Refractive index B.Ionic strength C. Freezing point depression D. Specific gravity
Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring freezing point depression. This is because the freezing point of a
solution is lower than that of the pure solvent, and the extent of this depression is directly related to the number of solute
particles present in the solution. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a solution, and by
measuring the freezing point depression, one can determine the osmolality accurately. Refractive index, specific gravity,
and ionic strength are not directly related to osmolality measurement.

48. Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as

A. Biliverdin B. Total bilirubin C. Conjugated bilirubin D. Prehepatic bilirubin
Unconjugated bilirubin refers to bilirubin that has not yet been processed by the liver. It is produced when red blood cells
break down and is transported to the liver for further processing. Prehepatic bilirubin is another term for unconjugated
bilirubin, as it indicates that the bilirubin has not yet reached the liver. Conjugated bilirubin, on the other hand, refers to
bilirubin that has been processed by the liver and is ready to be excreted. Total bilirubin is the sum of both unconjugated
and conjugated bilirubin. Biliverdin, on the other hand, is a green pigment that is converted to bilirubin in the body.

49. The end-product of purine metabolism is

A. Uric acid B. Creatinine C. Urea D. Creatine
Uric acid is the correct answer because it is the end-product of purine metabolism. Purine metabolism involves the
breakdown of purine nucleotides, which are components of DNA and RNA. The breakdown of these nucleotides leads to
the production of uric acid. Uric acid is then excreted from the body through urine. Urea, creatine, and creatinine are not
the end-products of purine metabolism, making them incorrect choices. Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism,
creatine is involved in energy metabolism, and creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism.

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50. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be
A. RBC and Hgb B. Hct and WBC C. RBC and WBC D. WBC and Hgb
A high background count on an automated blood cell counter indicates an increased number of non-cellular particles in
the sample, which can interfere with the accurate counting of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC). These
non-cellular particles can be debris, platelets, or other substances that may be mistaken as cells by the counter.
Therefore, a high background count would affect the accurate measurement of both RBC and WBC parameters.

MODEL PAPER-2
1. What is the normality of a solution of sodium hydroxide (molecular weight=40) containing 20 grams in 100 mL of
solution?
A. 5.0N B. 1.0N C. 0.5N D. 0.4N
The normality (N) of a solution is defined as the number of equivalents of solute per liter of solution. To calculate the
normality, we need to determine the number of equivalents of sodium hydroxide in the given solution. Sodium hydroxide
(NaOH) is a strong base that dissociates completely in water to form one hydroxide ion (OH-) per molecule. Therefore, the
number of equivalents is equal to the number of moles of sodium hydroxide.
First, we need to calculate the number of moles of sodium hydroxide in 20 grams. The molecular weight of sodium
hydroxide is 40 g/mol, so the number of moles is 20 g / 40 g/mol = 0.5 mol.
Next, we need to determine the volume of the solution in liters. The given solution has a volume of 100 mL, which is equal
to 0.1 L. Finally, we can calculate the normality by dividing the number of equivalents (moles) by the volume in liters: 0.5
mol / 0.1 L = 5.0N. Therefore, the normality of the sodium hydroxide solution is 5.0N.

2. Carbohydrates are organic compounds of

1. carbon 2. hydrogen 3. oxygen
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3
Carbohydrates are organic compounds that consist of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. These atoms are bonded
together in specific ratios, with the general formula for carbohydrates being (CH2O)n. Therefore, the correct answer is 1,
2, and 3, as all three elements are present in carbohydrates.

3. If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of
A. 3 B. 5 C. 20 D. 300
If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, it means that they fall within a range of two standard deviations on
either side of the mean. Since the normal distribution curve is symmetrical, the area outside this range on both sides is
equal. The ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of 20 because the total area outside this range is 5%
(2.5% on each side), and the total area under the curve is 100%. Therefore, the ratio is 5%/100% = 1/20.

4. To make a 1:5 dilution of serum sample, dilute

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A. 1.0 mL of serum + 5.0 mL of diluent B. 1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent
C. 1.0 mL of serum + 6.0 mL of diluent D. 5.0 mL of serum + 1.0 mL of diluent
To make a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample, you need to mix 1.0 mL of serum with 4.0 mL of diluent. This means that the
total volume of the diluted solution will be 5.0 mL, with 1.0 mL being the serum and 4.0 mL being the diluent. This dilution
ratio indicates that for every 1 part of serum, you need to add 4 parts of diluent, resulting in a total of 5 parts. This
dilution is commonly used in laboratory settings to reduce the concentration of a sample for various analyses or
experiments.

5. Which one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?

A. Transports glucose B. Regulates body temperature
C. Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation D. Provides humoral immunity
Gamma globulin is a type of protein found in the blood that plays a crucial role in providing humoral immunity. It is a
component of the immune system and contains antibodies that help in fighting off infections and diseases. These
antibodies are produced by B cells and are responsible for recognizing and neutralizing foreign substances such as
bacteria and viruses. Therefore, gamma globulin is essential for the body's immune response and helps protect against
various pathogens.

6. Which instruments do NOT measure concentrations of a particular molecule but of the total ions and molecules in
general (number of moles per kilogram of water)?
A. Osmometers B. Spectrophotometers
C. Blood gas analyzers D. Immunochemical analyzers
Osmometers are instruments that measure the total ions and molecules in a solution, rather than specifically measuring
the concentration of a particular molecule. They do this by determining the osmotic pressure of the solution, which is a
measure of the number of moles of solute per kilogram of water. Osmometers are commonly used in medical and
research laboratories to measure the osmolality of bodily fluids and other solutions. This information is useful in
diagnosing and monitoring certain medical conditions, as well as in various scientific and industrial applications.

7. Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring

A. Freezing point depression B. Refractive index
C. Specific gravity D. Ionic strength
Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring freezing point depression. This is because the freezing point of a
solution is lower than that of the pure solvent, and the extent of this depression is directly related to the number of solute
particles present in the solution. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a solution, and by
measuring the freezing point depression, one can determine the osmolality accurately. Refractive index, specific gravity,
and ionic strength are not directly related to osmolality measurement.

8. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and
A. Sulfuric acid B. Alkaline picrate

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C. Acetic anhydride D. Ammonium hydroxide
The correct answer is alkaline picrate. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction
of creatinine with alkaline picrate. This reaction forms a colored complex, which can be measured spectrophotometrically.
By measuring the absorbance of the complex, the concentration of creatinine in the blood sample can be determined.

9. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT

A. Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure B. Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi
C. Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow D. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction
The correct answer is hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction. Glomerular filtration is primarily influenced by factors
such as renal blood flow and cardiac function, as well as the presence of renal or urinary calculi. Hyperglycemia and renal
tubule malfunction, on the other hand, are not directly related to glomerular filtration.

10. Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as

A. Conjugated bilirubin B. Prehepatic bilirubin C. Total bilirubin D. Biliverdin
Unconjugated bilirubin refers to bilirubin that has not yet been processed by the liver. It is produced when red blood cells
break down and is transported to the liver for further processing. Prehepatic bilirubin is another term for unconjugated
bilirubin, as it indicates that the bilirubin has not yet reached the liver. Conjugated bilirubin, on the other hand, refers to
bilirubin that has been processed by the liver and is ready to be excreted. Total bilirubin is the sum of both unconjugated
and conjugated bilirubin. Biliverdin, on the other hand, is a green pigment that is converted to bilirubin in the body.

11. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in

A. Kidney disease B. Liver disease C. Myocardial infarction D. Obstructive jaundice
Obstructive jaundice is a condition characterized by the blockage of bile ducts, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in
the bloodstream. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver and bile ducts. When
there is a blockage in the bile ducts, such as in obstructive jaundice, the enzyme is released into the bloodstream,
resulting in greatly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Therefore, obstructive jaundice is the most likely cause for the
greatly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase mentioned in the question.

12. The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and

A. Lactic acid B. 3-hydroxy butyric acid C. Oxaloacetic acid D. Acetic acid
Explanation
The ketone bodies are acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 3-hydroxy butyric acid. Lactic acid, oxaloacetic acid, and acetic acid
are not considered ketone bodies.

13. Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone

A. ACTH B. Insulin C. Thyroxin D. Hydrocortisone
Insulin is the correct answer because it is the hormone responsible for regulating blood glucose levels. Insulin is produced
by the pancreas and helps to lower blood glucose levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. It also

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promotes the storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver and muscles. Without sufficient insulin, blood glucose levels can
become too high, leading to conditions like diabetes. ACTH, thyroxin, and hydrocortisone are not directly involved in the
regulation of blood glucose levels.

14. Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of
A. Hemoglobin B. Amino acid C. Serum protein D. Serum lipoprotein
Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of serum protein. Electrophoretic
fractionation is a technique used to separate different proteins based on their charge and size. In this case, the given
fractions are all components of serum protein, which is a mixture of proteins found in blood plasma. Therefore, the
correct answer is serum protein.

15. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?
A. Isoenzyme electrophoresis B. Immunoelectrophoresis
C. Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum D. Blood viscosity studies
Immunoelectrophoresis is a method that combines electrophoresis and immunodiffusion techniques to study protein
abnormalities. It involves separating proteins based on their charge using electrophoresis and then detecting specific
proteins using antibodies. This technique is particularly useful for identifying and quantifying abnormal proteins, such as
those associated with autoimmune diseases or cancer. By comparing the protein profiles of healthy individuals with those
of patients, researchers can gain insights into the presence and nature of protein abnormalities, aiding in diagnosis and
treatment.

16. Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is

A. Bound to globulin B. Bound to albumin C. Free D. Bound to cholesterol
Plasma thyroxine (T4) is mostly bound to globulin because globulin is a type of protein that acts as a carrier for T4 in the
bloodstream. This binding helps to protect T4 from being rapidly metabolized or excreted by the body. By being bound to
globulin, T4 can be transported to target tissues where it can be released and exert its hormonal effects.

17. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of

A. Blood coagulation B. Osmotic pressure of body fluids
C. Cardiac muscle contractions D.Salt intake
Sodium plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of body fluids. Osmotic pressure refers to the pressure
exerted by the solutes in a solution, which helps regulate the movement of water across cell membranes. Sodium ions are
one of the main solutes in extracellular fluids, and their concentration affects the osmotic pressure. By controlling the
osmotic pressure, sodium helps maintain the balance of water inside and outside cells, ensuring proper hydration and
functioning of cells and tissues throughout the body.

18. When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, each of the serum proteins in an electrical field migrates toward
A. The positive pole B. The negative pole C. Either pole D. Both poles

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When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, the serum proteins have a net negative charge. In an electrical field, negatively
charged particles migrate towards the positive pole. Therefore, the serum proteins will migrate towards the positive pole
in this scenario.

19. The end-product of purine metabolism is

A. Urea B. Creatine C. Creatinine D. Uric acid
Uric acid is the correct answer because it is the end-product of purine metabolism. Purine metabolism involves the
breakdown of purine nucleotides, which are components of DNA and RNA. The breakdown of these nucleotides leads to
the production of uric acid. Uric acid is then excreted from the body through urine. Urea, creatine, and creatinine are not
the end-products of purine metabolism, making them incorrect choices. Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism,
creatine is involved in energy metabolism, and creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism.

20. When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it
is known as a
A. Normal distribution curve B. Mean deviation curve C. Shift D. Trend
When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it is
known as a shift. This means that there is a consistent deviation from the mean in the same direction for a significant
number of consecutive days. It indicates a systematic change or movement in the data, rather than random fluctuations.

21. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
A. Coefficient variation B. Quality control C. Stardard deviation D. Percent deviation
The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as the standard
deviation. The standard deviation measures the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of values. It is calculated by
taking the square root of the variance, which is the average of the squared differences between each value and the mean.
A higher standard deviation indicates greater variability, while a lower standard deviation indicates less variability.

22. Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is recommended by the International Committee
for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?
A. Oxyhemoglobin B. Sulfhemoglobin C. Methemoglobin D. Cyanmethemoglobin
Cyanmethemoglobin is the recommended method for hemoglobin determination by the International Committee for
Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards. This method involves the
conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin, which is stable and can be measured accurately. This method is widely
used in clinical laboratories for accurate and reliable measurement of hemoglobin levels in blood samples.

23. When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted
A. 1:200 B. 1:50 C. 1:20 D. 1:10
In order to perform a white cell count using white blood cell pipets, blood needs to be diluted. The dilution ratio
determines the amount of blood that is mixed with a diluent solution. A dilution ratio of 1:20 means that for every 1 part

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of blood, 20 parts of diluent solution are added. This dilution allows for an accurate and manageable count of white blood
cells, as it helps to reduce the concentration of cells in the sample and makes it easier to count them under a microscope.

24. An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being

A. Variable in shape B. Packed with hemoglobin
C. Markedly bluish in color D. Markedly pale in central color
An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as markedly pale in central color. Hypochromia refers to a condition
where the red blood cells have a decreased amount of hemoglobin, resulting in a paler appearance. This paleness is
particularly noticeable in the central area of the cell. It is not related to the shape, hemoglobin content, or bluish color of
the RBC.

25. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments
A. Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes B. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
C. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes D. Do not count nucleated red blood cells
Most automated cell counting instruments count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes. Leukocytes, also known as
white blood cells, are responsible for the body's immune response and are found in the bloodstream. Nucleated red blood
cells are abnormal cells that may be present in certain medical conditions. Since leukocytes are also present in the
bloodstream and are involved in the immune response, automated cell counting instruments include them when counting
nucleated red blood cells.

26. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of
A. Howell-Jolly bodies B. Rubriblasts C. Heniz bodies D. Plasmodium species
Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of Heinz bodies. Heinz bodies
are abnormal aggregates of denatured hemoglobin that form within red blood cells. In individuals with G-6-PD deficiency,
the red blood cells are more susceptible to oxidative damage, leading to the formation of Heinz bodies. These bodies can
be visualized using supravital staining techniques, which stain the bodies and make them visible under a microscope.
Therefore, the presence of Heinz bodies indicates a deficiency of G-6-PD.

27. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes
A. Finer B. More dense C. Less dense D. More acidic
As a blood cell matures, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes more dense. This means that the DNA and associated
proteins in the nucleus become more tightly packed. This denser chromatin pattern allows for more efficient regulation of
gene expression and helps to maintain the stability and integrity of the genetic material within the cell.

28. As a general rule, when a blood cell matures

A. The cell increases in size B. The cell decreases in size
C. There is no change in the cell's size D. The nucleus increases in size

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When a blood cell matures, it undergoes a process called enucleation, where the nucleus is expelled from the cell. This
results in a decrease in the cell's size. The mature blood cell, also known as a red blood cell or erythrocyte, needs to lose
its nucleus to make more space for hemoglobin, the molecule responsible for carrying oxygen. This allows the cell to
become more efficient in its oxygen-carrying capacity. Therefore, the correct answer is that the cell decreases in size.

29. An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes USUALLY indicates
A. Bacterial infection B. Viral infection C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Allergic reaction
An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes usually indicates a bacterial infection.
Neutrophilic granulocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response to bacterial
infections. When there is an infection, the body releases more neutrophils to help fight off the bacteria. Therefore, an
elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes is often seen in bacterial infections.

30. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
A. Distilled water B. Highly-diluted blood C. Diluting fluid D. Lysing reagent only
The correct answer is diluting fluid because it is commonly used in automated cell counters to create a dilution of the
blood sample. This dilution helps in obtaining accurate and reliable cell counts by ensuring that the cells are evenly
distributed and not clumped together. The diluting fluid also helps in maintaining the integrity of the cells and preventing
any interference or contamination from other substances present in the sample.

31. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears

A. Clear (colorless) B. Bright red C. Light yellow or straw colored D. Greeen
The correct answer is light yellow or straw colored. Cerebral spinal fluid in patients with post-cerebral hemorrhage may
appear this way due to the presence of red blood cells and breakdown products of blood. The yellow color is caused by
the bilirubin pigment, which is a product of the breakdown of red blood cells. This color indicates that there is a small
amount of blood present in the fluid, but not enough to cause it to be bright red or green.

32. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be
A. WBC and Hgb B. RBC and Hgb C. RBC and WBC D. Hct and WBC
A high background count on an automated blood cell counter indicates an increased number of non-cellular particles in
the sample, which can interfere with the accurate counting of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC). These
non-cellular particles can be debris, platelets, or other substances that may be mistaken as cells by the counter.
Therefore, a high background count would affect the accurate measurement of both RBC and WBC parameters.

33. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals

A. Hemolysis B. Icteric plasma C. A high hematocrit D. A heavy buffy coat
A heavy buffy coat may suggest the presence of leukemia. The buffy coat is the layer of white blood cells and platelets
that separates from the red blood cells after centrifugation. In a healthy individual, the buffy coat is usually thin. However,

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in leukemia, there is an abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells, leading to a heavier buffy coat. This can be
an indication of leukemia and further diagnostic tests may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

34. Hansel's stain is appropriate for

A. Circulating eosinophils B. Phagocytic neutrophils
C. Nasal secrection for eosinophils D. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
Hansel's stain is appropriate for nasal secretion for eosinophils. This staining technique is used to identify and count
eosinophils, which are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections. By staining the
nasal secretion with Hansel's stain, eosinophils can be easily visualized under a microscope, allowing for the assessment of
eosinophil levels in the sample. This can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as allergic rhinitis or
eosinophilic rhinosinusitis.

35. Reticulocytes contain

A. DNA remnants B. RNA remnants C. Basophilic granules D. Howell-Jolly bodies
Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain some RNA remnants. These remnants are leftover from the
process of synthesizing hemoglobin, which occurs in the reticulocytes. As the reticulocytes mature into erythrocytes
(mature red blood cells), the RNA remnants are removed, resulting in cells that do not contain any DNA remnants.
Therefore, the correct answer is RNA remnants.

36. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is
A. Heparin B. Protamine sulfate C. Saliclate D. Coumadin
Coumadin is the correct answer because it is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain
clotting factors in the liver, including prothrombin. When Coumadin is given orally, it prolongs the prothrombin time,
which is a measure of how long it takes for blood to clot. This effect is desired in certain medical conditions where there is
a risk of excessive blood clotting. Heparin, protamine sulfate, and saliclate do not produce a prolonged prothrombin time
when given orally.

37. The screenign or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in
A. 0.50% NaCl B. 0.85% NaCl C. 0.90% NaCl D. 1.34% NaCl
The osmotic fragility of red cells refers to their susceptibility to rupture when exposed to different concentrations of salt
solutions. In this case, the correct answer is 0.50% NaCl because at this concentration, the red cells start to undergo
hemolysis or rupture. This indicates that they are more fragile and susceptible to bursting in lower salt concentrations
compared to the other options provided.

38. Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of

A. Factor VII deficiency B. Factor X deficiency C. Hemophilia D. Platelet function
Clot retraction refers to the process by which a blood clot becomes more compact and retracts, leading to the formation
of a stable clot. This process is primarily dependent on the function of platelets, which play a crucial role in clot formation

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and stabilization. Therefore, clot retraction can be used as an indicator of platelet function. Factor VII deficiency and
Factor X deficiency are related to the coagulation cascade, while hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's
ability to clot. None of these conditions directly impact clot retraction, making platelet function the correct answer.

39. Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency of Factor VIII?
A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
A deficiency of Factor VIII would affect the first stage of the coagulation process. Factor VIII is a crucial protein that plays a
role in the formation of a complex called the tenase complex. This complex is responsible for activating Factor X, which is
necessary for the subsequent stages of coagulation to occur. Without sufficient Factor VIII, the formation of the tenase
complex would be impaired, leading to a delay or inhibition of the coagulation process.
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40. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on

A. Serum only B. Plasma only C. Either serum or plasma D. Any body fluid
Fibrinogen determinations are performed on plasma only because fibrinogen is a protein that is present in the liquid
portion of blood, which is plasma. Serum is obtained by removing the clotting factors from plasma, including fibrinogen.
Therefore, fibrinogen cannot be accurately measured in serum. Additionally, fibrinogen is not present in other body fluids,
so it cannot be determined in any body fluid other than plasma.

41. In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as
A. Pneumonia B. Infectious hepatitis C. Lupus erythematosus D. Helicobacter pylori
Reagin reactivity in serologic tests for syphilis can be caused by both acute and chronic infections. Lupus erythematosus is
a chronic autoimmune disease that can lead to the production of reagin antibodies, which may result in a positive
serologic test for syphilis. Pneumonia, infectious hepatitis, and Helicobacter pylori are not typically associated with reagin
reactivity in syphilis tests.

42. The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is
A. 0.02 mL B. 0.05 mL C. 0.10 mL D. 0.15 mL
The correct answer is 0.05 mL. In the qualitative VDRL test, a small amount of inactivated serum is used to detect the
presence of antibodies to syphilis. This test is used to determine if a person has been exposed to the syphilis bacteria. The
quantity of 0.05 mL is sufficient to ensure accurate results without using an excessive amount of serum.

43. Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?

A. High molecular weight B. High order of specificity
C. Foreign to animal D. Produced by action of antibody
An antigen is characterized by its high order of specificity, meaning that it can specifically bind to a particular antibody or
immune receptor. This specificity allows the immune system to recognize and target specific antigens for immune
responses. High molecular weight is not a characteristic of all antigens, as some antigens can be small molecules. While

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many antigens may be foreign to the animal, not all antigens are. Additionally, antigens are not produced by the action of
antibodies, but rather they stimulate the production of antibodies.

44. The RA latex test is used as a screening test for

A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Thyroiditis C. Vulvovaginitis D. Infectious mononucleosis
The RA latex test is used as a screening test for rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that
causes chronic inflammation in the joints, resulting in pain, stiffness, and swelling. The RA latex test detects the presence
of rheumatoid factor (RF), an antibody that is often found in the blood of individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore,
a positive RA latex test indicates a higher likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis. The test helps healthcare professionals in
diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

45. The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is
A. 25 C for 1 hour B. 37 C for 30 min C. 56 C for 30 min D. 56 C for 10 min
The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is 56°C for 30 minutes. This temperature
and time combination is effective in deactivating any potential pathogens or contaminants in the serum while still
maintaining the integrity and functionality of the serum. It strikes a balance between ensuring safety and preserving the
desired properties of the serum for its intended use.

46. Group O patients can safely receive plasma from a donor who is group
A. A only B. AB only C. O only D. A, AB, or O
Group O patients can safely receive plasma from a donor who is group A, AB, or O because group O is considered the
universal donor for plasma transfusions. Group O blood does not have the A or B antigens on the red blood cells, so it can
be transfused to any blood type without causing an immune reaction. Group A and AB individuals can also donate plasma
to group O patients because plasma does not contain red blood cells and therefore does not have the A or B antigens.
However, group B individuals cannot donate plasma to group O patients because the plasma may contain antibodies that
could react with the recipient's red blood cells.

47. Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)

A. Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus B. Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband
C. Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus D. Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus
Rh immune globulin is given to a negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus. This is because Rh immune
globulin helps prevent the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against the Rh(D) antigen, which can
occur when the mother is Rh(D) negative and the fetus is Rh(D) positive. If the mother develops these antibodies, it can
lead to complications in future pregnancies with Rh(D) positive fetuses. Therefore, giving Rh immune globulin to the
negative mother after delivery of an Rh(D) positive fetus helps prevent the development of these antibodies.

48. Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A. Urine porphyrins B. Serum haptoglobin

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C. Post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin D. Pre-transfusion bilirubin
Serum haptoglobin may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Haptoglobin is a protein that binds to free hemoglobin
released from red blood cells during hemolysis. In a hemolytic transfusion reaction, there is destruction of red blood cells,
leading to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream. The binding of haptoglobin to free hemoglobin forms a
complex that is then cleared from the bloodstream. Therefore, a decrease in serum haptoglobin levels may indicate a
hemolytic transfusion reaction. Urine porphyrins, post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin, and pre-transfusion
bilirubin are not specifically related to detecting hemolytic transfusion reactions.
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49. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with

A. Anti-A serum B. Anti-AB serum C. Anti-A2 serum D. Dolichos biflorus serum
Dolichos biflorus serum is used to determine if a patient is A1 or A2. This serum is specifically used to detect the presence
of A2 antigen on red blood cells. If the serum reacts with the blood sample, it indicates that the patient is A2. If there is no
reaction, it means the patient is A1. The other serums listed (anti-A serum, anti-AB serum) are used for different blood
typing purposes and do not specifically differentiate between A1 and A2.
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50. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be used to help identify the antibody that
is attached to the patient's cells IN VIVO?
A. D(u) B. Elution C. Direct anti-human globulin test D. Indirect anti-human globulin test
Elution is the correct answer because it is a technique used to remove antibodies that are attached to the patient's cells in
vivo. This process involves breaking the antigen-antibody bond and separating the antibodies from the patient's cells. By
performing elution, the specific antibody that is attached to the patient's cells can be identified and further analyzed. The
other options, direct and indirect anti-human globulin tests, are used to detect the presence of antibodies but do not
specifically identify the antibody attached to the patient's cells.

MODEL PAPER-3
1. When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted
A. 1:50 B. 1:10 C. 1:200 D. 1:20
In order to perform a white cell count using white blood cell pipets, blood needs to be diluted. The dilution ratio
determines the amount of blood that is mixed with a diluent solution. A dilution ratio of 1:20 means that for every 1 part
of blood, 20 parts of diluent solution are added. This dilution allows for an accurate and manageable count of white blood
cells, as it helps to reduce the concentration of cells in the sample and makes it easier to count them under a microscope.

2. Which one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?

A. Provides humoral immunity B. Transports glucose
C. Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation D. Regulates body temperature

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Gamma globulin is a type of protein found in the blood that plays a crucial role in providing humoral immunity. It is a
component of the immune system and contains antibodies that help in fighting off infections and diseases. These
antibodies are produced by B cells and are responsible for recognizing and neutralizing foreign substances such as
bacteria and viruses. Therefore, gamma globulin is essential for the body's immune response and helps protect against
various pathogens.

3.The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and

A. Oxaloacetic acid B. 3-hydroxy butyric acid C. Lactic acid D. Acetic acid
The ketone bodies are acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 3-hydroxy butyric acid. Lactic acid, oxaloacetic acid, and acetic acid
are not considered ketone bodies.

4. When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, each of the serum proteins in an electrical field migrates toward
A. Both poles B. Either pole C. The negative pole D. The positive pole
When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, the serum proteins have a net negative charge. In an electrical field, negatively
charged particles migrate towards the positive pole. Therefore, the serum proteins will migrate towards the positive pole
in this scenario.

5. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments
A. Do not count nucleated red blood cells B. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
C. Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes D. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes
Most automated cell counting instruments count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes. Leukocytes, also known as
white blood cells, are responsible for the body's immune response and are found in the bloodstream. Nucleated red blood
cells are abnormal cells that may be present in certain medical conditions. Since leukocytes are also present in the
bloodstream and are involved in the immune response, automated cell counting instruments include them when counting
nucleated red blood cells.

6. Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged for
A. 15-30 seconds @ 1000 B. 5 min @ 5000 C. 2 min @ 2000 D. 3 min @ 3000
Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged at a speed of 1000 for a
duration of 15-30 seconds. Centrifugation is done to separate the cells from the serum or plasma in the mixture. This
process helps in obtaining a clear supernatant, which is necessary for accurate interpretation of the test results.
Centrifuging for a longer duration or at higher speeds may lead to hemolysis or improper separation of the components,
affecting the reliability of the test.

7. Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of
A. Pasteurello B. Bordetella C. Yersinia D. Haemophilus
Bordet-Gengou agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of Bordetella. This agar medium is selective for
Bordetella species as it contains specific nutrients and inhibitors that promote the growth of these bacteria while

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inhibiting the growth of other organisms. Fresh blood is added to enhance the growth of Bordetella species by providing
essential nutrients. Therefore, this agar medium is specifically designed for the isolation and identification of Bordetella
bacteria.

8. The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is
A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus viridans
Streptococcus pyogenes is the correct answer because it is known to cause both rheumatic fever and glomerular
nephritis. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can occur after a streptococcal infection, specifically caused by
Streptococcus pyogenes. Glomerular nephritis, on the other hand, is a type of kidney inflammation that can also be
caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans, and Staphylococcus haemolyticus are
not typically associated with these conditions.

9. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of
A. Plasmodium species B. Rubriblasts C. Heniz bodies D. Howell-Jolly bodies
Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of Heinz bodies. Heinz bodies
are abnormal aggregates of denatured hemoglobin that form within red blood cells. In individuals with G-6-PD deficiency,
the red blood cells are more susceptible to oxidative damage, leading to the formation of Heinz bodies. These bodies can
be visualized using supravital staining techniques, which stain the bodies and make them visible under a microscope.
Therefore, the presence of Heinz bodies indicates a deficiency of G-6-PD.

10. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and
A. Acetic anhydride B. Ammonium hydroxide C. Alkaline picrate D. Sulfuric acid
The correct answer is alkaline picrate. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction
of creatinine with alkaline picrate. This reaction forms a colored complex, which can be measured spectrophotometrically.
By measuring the absorbance of the complex, the concentration of creatinine in the blood sample can be determined.

11. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with

A. Alkaline copper B. Nitroprusside C. 2,4 dichloraniline D. Ferric chloride
The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with nitroprusside. Nitroprusside is a chemical compound that reacts
with ketones in the urine to produce a purple color. This color change indicates the presence of ketones in the urine,
which can be a sign of uncontrolled diabetes or other metabolic disorders. The impregnation of nitroprusside on the dip
stick allows for a quick and easy detection of ketones in the urine sample

12. Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?

A. Bacillus anthracis B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Clostridium botulinum D. Nocardia asteroides
Clostridium botulinum is a strict anaerobe because it cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. It is a bacterium that
produces the botulinum toxin, which causes the serious illness botulism. This bacterium is commonly found in soil and

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water, and it thrives in environments with low oxygen levels. Its ability to survive and produce toxins in anaerobic
conditions makes it a strict anaerobe. Bacillus anthracis, Listeria monocytogenes, and Nocardia asteroides are not strict
anaerobes as they can tolerate or even grow in the presence of oxygen

13. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing

A. Autoagglutination tests B. Reverse typing C. Immunoglobulin testing D. D(u) testing
Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is not used in performing reverse typing. Reverse typing is a blood typing technique
that involves testing the patient's serum against known red blood cell antigens. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is
used in other blood typing techniques, such as direct typing and indirect antiglobulin testing, to detect antibodies that
have coated the patient's red blood cells. However, in reverse typing, the patient's serum is tested for the presence of
antibodies, so antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is not necessary.

14. If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of
A. 5 B. 300 C. 3 D. 20
If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, it means that they fall within a range of two standard deviations on
either side of the mean. Since the normal distribution curve is symmetrical, the area outside this range on both sides is
equal. The ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of 20 because the total area outside this range is 5%
(2.5% on each side), and the total area under the curve is 100%. Therefore, the ratio is 5%/100% = 1/20

15. According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus species, the neterococci are placed in group
A. C B. D C. B D. A
According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus species, the neterococci are placed in group D.

16. The variety of media may be safely stored for months and is taken care to
A. Retain their moisture B. Maintain them at room temperature
C. Avoid exposing them to light D. Maintain them in an incubator
The correct answer is "retain their moisture". This means that the variety of media needs to be stored in a way that
ensures that they do not dry out. Moisture is important for the viability and effectiveness of the media, so it is important
to maintain the right level of moisture to prevent them from becoming unusable.

17. Water-soluble pigments are produced by

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Yeasts C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Group A streptococcus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to produce water-soluble pigments such as pyocyanin, pyoverdine, and pyorubin.
These pigments are important for the survival and virulence of the bacterium. Pyocyanin, for example, has been shown to
have antimicrobial properties and can help Pseudomonas aeruginosa compete with other microorganisms in its
environment. Therefore, it is the most likely organism to produce water-soluble pigments among the options given.

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18. Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? 1. Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH) (LD) 2. Creatinine
Phosphokinase (CPK) (CK) 3. Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT)
A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3
Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH), Creatinine Phosphokinase (CPK), and Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT) are
all enzymes that can be found in the heart muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3

19. Strepococcus pneumoniae

A. Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures B. Grows best at slightly acid pH
C. Is motile D. Capsules are produced by virulent strians
The correct answer is "capsules are produced by virulent strains". Strepococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that can cause
various infections, including pneumonia. Capsules are a key virulence factor for this bacterium, as they help protect it
from the host's immune system. Capsules are produced by virulent strains of Strepococcus pneumoniae and are a major
determinant of its pathogenicity. They allow the bacterium to evade phagocytosis and enhance its ability to cause disease

20. Which instruments do NOT measure concentrations of a particular molecule but of the total ions and molecules in
general (number of moles per kilogram of water)?
A. Blood gas analyzers B. Immunochemical analyzers C. Osmometers D. Spectrophotometers
Osmometers are instruments that measure the total ions and molecules in a solution, rather than specifically measuring
the concentration of a particular molecule. They do this by determining the osmotic pressure of the solution, which is a
measure of the number of moles of solute per kilogram of water. Osmometers are commonly used in medical and
research laboratories to measure the osmolality of bodily fluids and other solutions. This information is useful in
diagnosing and monitoring certain medical conditions, as well as in various scientific and industrial applications.

21. Group O patients can safely recieve plasma from a donor who is group
A. A, AB, or O B. O only C. AB only D. A only
Group O patients can safely receive plasma from a donor who is group A, AB, or O because group O is considered the
universal donor for plasma transfusions. Group O blood does not have the A or B antigens on the red blood cells, so it can
be transfused to any blood type without causing an immune reaction. Group A and AB individuals can also donate plasma
to group O patients because plasma does not contain red blood cells and therefore does not have the A or B antigens.
However, group B individuals cannot donate plasma to group O patients because the plasma may contain antibodies that
could react with the recipient's red blood cells.

22. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
A. Lysing reagent only B. Diluting fluid C. Distilled water D. Highly-diluted blood
The correct answer is diluting fluid because it is commonly used in automated cell counters to create a dilution of the
blood sample. This dilution helps in obtaining accurate and reliable cell counts by ensuring that the cells are evenly
distributed and not clumped together. The diluting fluid also helps in maintaining the integrity of the cells and preventing
any interference or contamination from other substances present in the sample.

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23. Which media is used to ISOLATE Staphylococcus aureus from specimens that have mixed bacterial flora such as
feces?
A. Mannitol salt agar B. MacConkey agar C. Eosin methylene blue agar (EMB) D. An enrichment broth
Mannitol salt agar is a selective and differential medium commonly used to isolate Staphylococcus aureus from specimens
that contain mixed bacterial flora such as feces. This medium contains high salt concentration which inhibits the growth of
most bacteria except for Staphylococcus species. Additionally, it contains mannitol and a pH indicator that allows for the
differentiation of Staphylococcus aureus based on its ability to ferment mannitol, producing acid and causing a change in
color of the medium. Therefore, mannitol salt agar is the appropriate choice for isolating Staphylococcus aureus from
mixed bacterial flora.

24. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is
A. Protamine sulfate B. Coumadin C. Saliclate D. Heparin
Coumadin is the correct answer because it is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain
clotting factors in the liver, including prothrombin. When Coumadin is given orally, it prolongs the prothrombin time,
which is a measure of how long it takes for blood to clot. This effect is desired in certain medical conditions where there is
a risk of excessive blood clotting. Heparin, protamine sulfate, and saliclate do not produce a prolonged prothrombin time
when given orally.

25. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears

A. Bright red B. Light yellow or straw colored C. Clear (colorless) D. Greeen
The correct answer is light yellow or straw colored. Cerebral spinal fluid in patients with post-cerebral hemorrhage may
appear this way due to the presence of red blood cells and breakdown products of blood. The yellow color is caused by
the bilirubin pigment, which is a product of the breakdown of red blood cells. This color indicates that there is a small
amount of blood present in the fluid, but not enough to cause it to be bright red or green

26. In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as
A. Pneumonia B. Helicobacter pylori C. Lupus erythematosus D. Infectious hepatitis
Reagin reactivity in serologic tests for syphilis can be caused by both acute and chronic infections. Lupus erythematosus is
a chronic autoimmune disease that can lead to the production of reagin antibodies, which may result in a positive
serologic test for syphilis. Pneumonia, infectious hepatitis, and Helicobacter pylori are not typically associated with reagin
reactivity in syphilis tests

27. Which anemia is usually associated with severe burns is

A. Macrocytic B. Aplastic C. Hemolytic D. Microcytic
Hemolytic anemia is usually associated with severe burns. In this type of anemia, red blood cells are destroyed faster than
they can be produced, leading to a decrease in the overall number of red blood cells in the body. Severe burns can cause
damage to blood vessels and tissues, leading to the release of substances that can trigger the destruction of red blood

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cells. This can result in hemolytic anemia, which is characterized by symptoms such as fatigue, pale skin, and shortness of
breath

28. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with

A. Anti-A serum B. Anti-A2 serum C. Anti-AB serum D. Dolichos biflorus serum
Dolichos biflorus serum is used to determine if a patient is A1 or A2. This serum is specifically used to detect the presence
of A2 antigen on red blood cells. If the serum reacts with the blood sample, it indicates that the patient is A2. If there is no
reaction, it means the patient is A1. The other serums listed (anti-A serum, anti-AB serum) are used for different blood
typing purposes and do not specifically differentiate between A1 and A2.

29. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes
A. More dense B. Less dense C. More acidic D. Finer
As a blood cell matures, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes more dense. This means that the DNA and associated
proteins in the nucleus become more tightly packed. This denser chromatin pattern allows for more efficient regulation of
gene expression and helps to maintain the stability and integrity of the genetic material within the cell.

30. Which test is used to measure capillary fragility?

A. Prothrombin time B. Bleeding time C. Tourniquet D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
The test used to measure capillary fragility is the Tourniquet test. This test involves applying a tourniquet to the upper
arm for 5 minutes and then releasing it. The appearance of petechiae (small red spots) on the skin within 20 minutes
indicates increased capillary fragility. This test is commonly used to evaluate disorders such as thrombocytopenia, dengue
fever, and vasculitis

31. When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it
is known as a
A. Shift B. Trend C. Mean deviation curve D. Normal distribution curve
When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it is
known as a shift. This means that there is a consistent deviation from the mean in the same direction for a significant
number of consecutive days. It indicates a systematic change or movement in the data, rather than random fluctuations

32. The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is
A. 0.05 mL B. 0.02 mL C. 0.10 mL D. 0.15 mL
The correct answer is 0.05 mL. In the qualitative VDRL test, a small amount of inactivated serum is used to detect the
presence of antibodies to syphilis. This test is used to determine if a person has been exposed to the syphilis bacteria. The
quantity of 0.05 mL is sufficient to ensure accurate results without using an excessive amount of serum

33. The etiologic agent of chancroid is

A. Haemophilus ducreyi B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Bordetella pertussis D. Haemophilus aegyptius

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The correct answer is Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection that is caused by the bacterium
Haemophilus ducreyi. This bacterium is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and can lead to the development of
painful genital ulcers. It is important to correctly identify the etiologic agent in order to provide appropriate treatment
and prevent further spread of the infection. Haemophilus aegyptius, Haemophilus influenzae, and Bordetella pertussis are
not associated with chancroid.

34. Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?

A. Dip stick B. Benedict's C. Clinitest D. Pandy
The dip stick test is specific for urinary glucose because it detects the presence of glucose in the urine. Benedict's and
Clinitest are used to test for reducing sugars in general, while Pandy is used to test for the presence of proteins in the
urine. Therefore, the dip stick test is the only option that specifically tests for urinary glucose.

35. Hansel's stain is appropriate for

A. Nasal secrection for eosinophils B. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
C. Circulating eosinophils D. Phagocytic neutrophils
Hansel's stain is appropriate for nasal secretion for eosinophils. This staining technique is used to identify and count
eosinophils, which are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections. By staining the
nasal secretion with Hansel's stain, eosinophils can be easily visualized under a microscope, allowing for the assessment of
eosinophil levels in the sample. This can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as allergic rhinitis or
eosinophilic rhinosinusitis

36. Optochin is used to help identify

A. Strepococci producing alpha hemolysis B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A) D. Staphylococcus aureus
Optochin is a chemical compound that is used in the identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as
pneumococcus. This bacteria is a common cause of respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia, and can also cause
meningitis and other invasive diseases. Optochin is added to a culture of bacteria, and if the bacteria are sensitive to
optochin, they will not grow. Streptococcus pneumoniae is sensitive to optochin, whereas the other bacteria listed in the
options are not affected by it. Therefore, the correct answer is Streptococcus pneumoniae.

37. The screening or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in
A. 0.50% NaCl B. 0.85% NaCl C. 0.90% NaCl D. 1.34% NaCl
The osmotic fragility of red cells refers to their susceptibility to rupture when exposed to different concentrations of salt
solutions. In this case, the correct answer is 0.50% NaCl because at this concentration, the red cells start to undergo
hemolysis or rupture. This indicates that they are more fragile and susceptible to bursting in lower salt concentrations
compared to the other options provided.

38. A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used

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A. Ammonium sulfate B. Concentrated formalin C. Zinc sulfate D. Zinc chloride
Zinc sulfate is used in the floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts. This method involves mixing the sample
with a solution containing zinc sulfate, which has a higher specific gravity than the ova and cysts. As a result, the ova and
cysts float to the surface while other debris sinks. This allows for easier detection and examination of the ova and cysts
under a microscope.

39. In the 1980s, Ewing, Bergey, and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) divided the
Enterobacteriaceae into several different tribes. Which one of the following is NOT a valid tribe under their
classification scheme?
A. Citrobactereae Citobacter B. Edwardsielleae Edwardsiella
C. Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae Salmonella-Shigella D. Escherichieae Escherichia-Shigella
The given answer, Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae Salmonella-Shigella, is not a valid tribe under the classification scheme
proposed by Ewing, Bergey, and the CDC in the 1980s. The other options listed, Escherichieae Escherichia-Shigella,
Citrobactereae Citobacter, and Edwardsielleae Edwardsiella, are valid tribes according to their classification.

40. The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is

A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Schistosoma mansoni C. Schistosoma hepatica D. Schistosoma japonicum
The correct answer is Schistosoma mansoni because it is known to have eggs with a pronounced lateral spine.
Schistosoma haematobium, Schistosoma japonicum, and Schistosoma hepatica do not have this characteristic.

41. The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is
A. 56 C for 10 min B. 56 C for 30 min C. 25 C for 1 hour D. 37 C for 30 min
The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is 56°C for 30 minutes. This temperature
and time combination is effective in deactivating any potential pathogens or contaminants in the serum while still
maintaining the integrity and functionality of the serum. It strikes a balance between ensuring safety and preserving the
desired properties of the serum for its intended use

42. The modified Griess nitrite test, when positive to any degree, is virtually dianostic of
A. Any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine) B. Bilirubin in the urine
C. Phenylalanine in the urine D. Significant bacteriuria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine)
The modified Griess nitrite test is used to detect the presence of nitrites in urine, which indicates the presence of
bacteria. A positive result in this test suggests the presence of significant bacteriuria, meaning a high concentration of
bacteria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine). This level of bacteriuria is considered clinically significant and may
indicate a urinary tract infection. The other options, such as any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of
urine), bilirubin in the urine, and phenylalanine in the urine, are not relevant to the Griess nitrite test.

43. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in

A. Myocardial infarction B. Obstructive jaundice C. Kidney disease D. Liver disease

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Obstructive jaundice is a condition characterized by the blockage of bile ducts, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in
the bloodstream. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver and bile ducts. When
there is a blockage in the bile ducts, such as in obstructive jaundice, the enzyme is released into the bloodstream,
resulting in greatly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Therefore, obstructive jaundice is the most likely cause for the
greatly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase mentioned in the question.

44. A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be
A. Homozygous Rh(D) positive B. Heterozygous Rh(D) positive
C. 50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D)negative C. Erythroblastotic
In this scenario, the mother is Rh(D) negative, which means she does not have the Rh(D) antigen on her red blood cells.
The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive, meaning he has two copies of the Rh(D) antigen. Since Rh(D) positive is
dominant over Rh(D) negative, all of their offspring will inherit one Rh(D) positive allele from the father and one Rh(D)
negative allele from the mother, making them heterozygous Rh(D) positive.

45. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT

A. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction B. Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi
C. Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure D. Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow
The correct answer is hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction. Glomerular filtration is primarily influenced by factors
such as renal blood flow and cardiac function, as well as the presence of renal or urinary calculi. Hyperglycemia and renal
tubule malfunction, on the other hand, are not directly related to glomerular filtration

46. Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency of Factor VIII?
A. Fourth B. Second C. First D. Third
A deficiency of Factor VIII would affect the first stage of the coagulation process. Factor VIII is a crucial protein that plays a
role in the formation of a complex called the tenase complex. This complex is responsible for activating Factor X, which is
necessary for the subsequent stages of coagulation to occur. Without sufficient Factor VIII, the formation of the tenase
complex would be impaired, leading to a delay or inhibition of the coagulation process

47. The infective stage of the hookworm is the

A. Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity B. Filariform larva with a pointed tail
C. Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity D. Filariform larva with a notched tail
The infective stage of the hookworm is the filariform larva with a pointed tail. This stage is able to penetrate the skin of
the host and migrate to the small intestine where it matures into an adult worm. The pointed tail helps the larva to
penetrate the skin more effectively. The rhabditiform larva, on the other hand, is the non-infective stage and is found in
the feces of the infected host.

48. A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains

A. Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm B. A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod

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C. Red blood cells int he cytoplasm D. Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus
A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains red blood cells in the cytoplasm. This is a characteristic feature of
this parasite, as it is known to invade and feed on red blood cells. The presence of red blood cells in the cytoplasm can be
used as a diagnostic feature to identify Entamoeba histolytica in a clinical sample

49. What is the normality of a solution of sodium hydroxide (molecular weight=40) containing 20 grams in 100 mL of
solution?
A. 1.0N B. 0.4N C. 0.5N D. 5.0N
The normality (N) of a solution is defined as the number of equivalents of solute per liter of solution. To calculate the
normality, we need to determine the number of equivalents of sodium hydroxide in the given solution. Sodium hydroxide
(NaOH) is a strong base that dissociates completely in water to form one hydroxide ion (OH-) per molecule. Therefore, the
number of equivalents is equal to the number of moles of sodium hydroxide. First, we need to calculate the number of
moles of sodium hydroxide in 20 grams. The molecular weight of sodium hydroxide is 40 g/mol, so the number of moles is
20 g / 40 g/mol = 0.5 mol.
Next, we need to determine the volume of the solution in liters. The given solution has a volume of 100 mL, which is equal
to 0.1 L.
Finally, we can calculate the normality by dividing the number of equivalents (moles) by the volume in liters: 0.5 mol / 0.1
L = 5.0N.
Therefore, the normality of the sodium hydroxide solution is 5.0N.

50. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be used to help identify the antibody that is
attached to the patient's cells IN VIVO?
A. Indirect anti-human globulin test B. D(u) C. Elution D. Direct anti-human globulin test
Feedback
Elution is the correct answer because it is a technique used to remove antibodies that are attached to the patient's cells in
vivo. This process involves breaking the antigen-antibody bond and separating the antibodies from the patient's cells. By
performing elution, the specific antibody that is attached to the patient's cells can be identified and further analyzed. The
other options, direct and indirect anti-human globulin tests, are used to detect the presence of antibodies but do not
specifically identify the antibody attached to the patient's cells.

MODEL PAPER-4
01. During the crossmatch procedure, a negative result on the addition of Coombs control cells indicated that the
A. Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test.
B. Antiglobulin reagent is detecting antibody globulin, indicating adequate washing during the crossmatch procedures.
C. Crossmatch is compatible and the blood may be infused

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D. Crossmatch is incompatible

02. The RA latex test is used as a screening test for

A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Thyroiditis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Vulvovaginitis
(The RA latex test is used as a screening test for rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that
causes chronic inflammation in the joints, resulting in pain, stiffness, and swelling. The RA latex test detects the presence
of rheumatoid factor (RF), an antibody that is often found in the blood of individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore,
a positive RA latex test indicates a higher likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis. The test helps healthcare professionals in
diagnosing and monitoring the disease.)

03. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of
A. Heniz bodies B. Howell-Jolly bodies C. Plasmodium species D. Rubriblasts
(Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of Heinz bodies. Heinz bodies
are abnormal aggregates of denatured hemoglobin that form within red blood cells. In individuals with G-6-PD deficiency,
the red blood cells are more susceptible to oxidative damage, leading to the formation of Heinz bodies. These bodies can
be visualized using supravital staining techniques, which stain the bodies and make them visible under a microscope.
Therefore, the presence of Heinz bodies indicates a deficiency of G-6-PD.)

04. Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their

A. Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide B. Staining properties with polychrome dyes
C. Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae D. Serologic and biochemical characteristics
(Fungi are commonly identified based on their sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae. Sporulation
refers to the formation of spores, which are reproductive structures in fungi. The arrangement of spores on the hyphae,
which are thread-like structures in fungi, can vary and be used to distinguish different species. This method of
identification is important because it allows scientists to differentiate between different types of fungi and classify them
accordingly. Other characteristics mentioned in the options, such as serologic and biochemical characteristics, staining
properties, and solubility in potassium hydroxide, may also be used in fungal identification but are not as commonly relied
upon as sporulation and spore arrangement.)

05. The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is
A. 0.10 mL B. 0.05 mL C. 0.02 mL D. 0.15 mL
(The correct answer is 0.05 mL. In the qualitative VDRL test, a small amount of inactivated serum is used to detect the
presence of antibodies to syphilis. This test is used to determine if a person has been exposed to the syphilis bacteria. The
quantity of 0.05 mL is sufficient to ensure accurate results without using an excessive amount of serum.)

05. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is

A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate

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(Sodium is the major cation found in the extracellular fluid. Cations are positively charged ions, and sodium is the most
abundant positively charged ion in the extracellular fluid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, regulating
blood pressure, transmitting nerve impulses, and supporting muscle function. Chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate are
also important ions in the body, but sodium is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid.)

06. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is

A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate
(Sodium is the major cation found in the extracellular fluid. Cations are positively charged ions, and sodium is the most
abundant positively charged ion in the extracellular fluid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, regulating
blood pressure, transmitting nerve impulses, and supporting muscle function. Chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate are
also important ions in the body, but sodium is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid.)

07. Which anemia is usually associated with severe burns is

A. Aplastic B. Hemolytic C. Microcytic D. Macrocytic
(Hemolytic anemia is usually associated with severe burns. In this type of anemia, red blood cells are destroyed faster
than they can be produced, leading to a decrease in the overall number of red blood cells in the body. Severe burns can
cause damage to blood vessels and tissues, leading to the release of substances that can trigger the destruction of red
blood cells. This can result in hemolytic anemia, which is characterized by symptoms such as fatigue, pale skin, and
shortness of breath.)

08. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with

A. Alkaline copper B. 2,4 dichloraniline C. Ferric chloride D. Nitroprusside
(The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with nitroprusside. Nitroprusside is a chemical compound that reacts
with ketones in the urine to produce a purple color. This color change indicates the presence of ketones in the urine,
which can be a sign of uncontrolled diabetes or other metabolic disorders. The impregnation of nitroprusside on the dip
stick allows for a quick and easy detection of ketones in the urine sample.)

09. When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it
is known as a
A. Trend B. Normal distribution curve C. Mean deviation curve D. Shift
(When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it is
known as a shift. This means that there is a consistent deviation from the mean in the same direction for a significant
number of consecutive days. It indicates a systematic change or movement in the data, rather than random fluctuations.)

10. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
A. Hydrometry B. Refractive index C. Specific gravity D. Osmolality
(Freezing point depression measurements are used to determine the osmolality of a solution. Osmolality is a measure of
the concentration of solute particles in a solution, specifically in this case, in urine. By measuring the freezing point

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depression, the osmolality of the urine can be determined, which can provide important information about kidney
function and hydration levels. Therefore, freezing point depression measurements are part of the urine test procedure for
osmolality.)

11. The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which organisms?
A. Endolimax nana B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Iodamoeba butschlii D. Balantidium coli
(Trichomonas vaginalis is a parasitic protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection. Unlike the
other organisms mentioned, Trichomonas vaginalis does not have a cystic stage of development. Cystic stages are a
common feature in many protozoa, including Balantidium coli, Endolimax nana, and Iodamoeba butschlii. These cysts
allow the organisms to survive outside of a host and are an important part of their life cycle. However, Trichomonas
vaginalis does not form cysts and instead exists in a motile form throughout its life cycle.)

12. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?
A. Immunoelectrophoresis B. Blood viscosity studies
C.Isoenzyme electrophoresis D. Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum
(Immunoelectrophoresis is a method that combines electrophoresis and immunodiffusion techniques to study protein
abnormalities. It involves separating proteins based on their charge using electrophoresis and then detecting specific
proteins using antibodies. This technique is particularly useful for identifying and quantifying abnormal proteins, such as
those associated with autoimmune diseases or cancer. By comparing the protein profiles of healthy individuals with those
of patients, researchers can gain insights into the presence and nature of protein abnormalities, aiding in diagnosis and
treatment.)

13. An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being

A. Packed with hemoglobin B. Markedly bluish in color
C.Markedly pale in central color D. Variable in shape
(An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as markedly pale in central color. Hypochromia refers to a condition
where the red blood cells have a decreased amount of hemoglobin, resulting in a paler appearance. This paleness is
particularly noticeable in the central area of the cell. It is not related to the shape, hemoglobin content, or bluish color of
the RBC.)

14. Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A. Urine porphyrins B. Pre-transfusion bilirubin
C.Post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin D. Serum haptoglobin
(Serum haptoglobin may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Haptoglobin is a protein that binds to free hemoglobin
released from red blood cells during hemolysis. In a hemolytic transfusion reaction, there is destruction of red blood cells,
leading to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream. The binding of haptoglobin to free hemoglobin forms a
complex that is then cleared from the bloodstream. Therefore, a decrease in serum haptoglobin levels may indicate a

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hemolytic transfusion reaction. Urine porphyrins, post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin, and pre-transfusion
bilirubin are not specifically related to detecting hemolytic transfusion reactions.)

15. Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?

A. High molecular weight B. Produced by action of antibody
C.Foreign to animal D. High order of specificity
(An antigen is characterized by its high order of specificity, meaning that it can specifically bind to a particular antibody or
immune receptor. This specificity allows the immune system to recognize and target specific antigens for immune
responses. High molecular weight is not a characteristic of all antigens, as some antigens can be small molecules. While
many antigens may be foreign to the animal, not all antigens are. Additionally, antigens are not produced by the action of
antibodies, but rather they stimulate the production of antibodies.)

16. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be used to help identify the antibody that is
attached to the patient's cells IN VIVO?
A. Elution B. Direct anti-human globulin test C. D(u) D. Indirect anti-human globulin test
(Elution is the correct answer because it is a technique used to remove antibodies that are attached to the patient's cells
in vivo. This process involves breaking the antigen-antibody bond and separating the antibodies from the patient's cells.
By performing elution, the specific antibody that is attached to the patient's cells can be identified and further analyzed.
The other options, direct and indirect anti-human globulin tests, are used to detect the presence of antibodies but do not
specifically identify the antibody attached to the patient's cells.)

17. Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is

A. Bound to cholesterol B. Bound to globulin C. Free D. Bound to albumin
Plasma thyroxine (T4) is mostly bound to globulin because globulin is a type of protein that acts as a carrier for T4 in the
bloodstream. This binding helps to protect T4 from being rapidly metabolized or excreted by the body. By being bound to
globulin, T4 can be transported to target tissues where it can be released and exert its hormonal effects.

18. Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency of Factor VIII?
A. Third B. First C. Second D. Fourth
(A deficiency of Factor VIII would affect the first stage of the coagulation process. Factor VIII is a crucial protein that plays
a role in the formation of a complex called the tenase complex. This complex is responsible for activating Factor X, which
is necessary for the subsequent stages of coagulation to occur. Without sufficient Factor VIII, the formation of the tenase
complex would be impaired, leading to a delay or inhibition of the coagulation process.)

19. The infective stage of the hookworm is the

A. Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity B. Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity
C.Filariform larva with a notched tail D. Filariform larva with a pointed tail

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(The infective stage of the hookworm is the filariform larva with a pointed tail. This stage is able to penetrate the skin of
the host and migrate to the small intestine where it matures into an adult worm. The pointed tail helps the larva to
penetrate the skin more effectively. The rhabditiform larva, on the other hand, is the non-infective stage and is found in
the feces of the infected host.)

20. A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains

A. Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus B. A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod
C.Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm D. Red blood cells int he cytoplasm
(A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains red blood cells in the cytoplasm. This is a characteristic feature of
this parasite, as it is known to invade and feed on red blood cells. The presence of red blood cells in the cytoplasm can be
used as a diagnostic feature to identify Entamoeba histolytica in a clinical sample.)

21. A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be
A. Heterozygous Rh(D) positive B. Homozygous Rh(D) positive
C.Erythroblastotic D. 50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D)negative
(In this scenario, the mother is Rh(D) negative, which means she does not have the Rh(D) antigen on her red blood cells.
The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive, meaning he has two copies of the Rh(D) antigen. Since Rh(D) positive is
dominant over Rh(D) negative, all of their offspring will inherit one Rh(D) positive allele from the father and one Rh(D)
negative allele from the mother, making them heterozygous Rh(D) positive.)

22. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT

A. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction B. Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow
C.Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi D. Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure
(The correct answer is hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction. Glomerular filtration is primarily influenced by factors
such as renal blood flow and cardiac function, as well as the presence of renal or urinary calculi. Hyperglycemia and renal
tubule malfunction, on the other hand, are not directly related to glomerular filtration.)

23. The modified Griess nitrite test, when positive to any degree, is virtually dianostic of
A. Bilirubin in the urine B. Significant bacteriuria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine)
C.Any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine) D. Phenylalanine in the urine
(The modified Griess nitrite test is used to detect the presence of nitrites in urine, which indicates the presence of
bacteria. A positive result in this test suggests the presence of significant bacteriuria, meaning a high concentration of
bacteria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine). This level of bacteriuria is considered clinically significant and may
indicate a urinary tract infection. The other options, such as any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of
urine), bilirubin in the urine, and phenylalanine in the urine, are not relevant to the Griess nitrite test.)
24. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in
A. Kidney disease B. Obstructive jaundice C. Myocardial infarction D. Liver disease

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(Obstructive jaundice is a condition characterized by the blockage of bile ducts, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in
the bloodstream. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver and bile ducts. When
there is a blockage in the bile ducts, such as in obstructive jaundice, the enzyme is released into the bloodstream,
resulting in greatly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Therefore, obstructive jaundice is the most likely cause for the
greatly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase mentioned in the question.)

25. In the 1980s, Ewing, Bergey, and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) divided the
Enterobacteriaceae into several different tribes. Which one of the following is NOT a valid tribe under their
classification scheme?
A. Escherichieae Escherichia-Shigella B. Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae Salmonella-Shigella
C.Edwardsielleae Edwardsiella D. Citrobactereae Citobacter
(The given answer, Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae Salmonella-Shigella, is not a valid tribe under the classification scheme
proposed by Ewing, Bergey, and the CDC in the 1980s. The other options listed, Escherichieae Escherichia-Shigella,
Citrobactereae Citobacter, and Edwardsielleae Edwardsiella, are valid tribes according to their classification.)

26. The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is

A. Schistosoma hepatica B. Schistosoma mansoni
C.Schistosoma haematobium D. Schistosoma japonicum
The correct answer is Schistosoma mansoni because it is known to have eggs with a pronounced lateral spine.
Schistosoma haematobium, Schistosoma japonicum, and Schistosoma hepatica do not have this characteristic.

27. The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is
A. 25 C for 1 hour B. 37 C for 30 min C. 56 C for 10 min D. 56 C for 30 min
(The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is 56°C for 30 minutes. This
temperature and time combination is effective in deactivating any potential pathogens or contaminants in the serum
while still maintaining the integrity and functionality of the serum. It strikes a balance between ensuring safety and
preserving the desired properties of the serum for its intended use.)

28. The screening or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in
A. 0.85% NaCl B. 1.34% NaCl C. 0.50% NaCl D. 0.90% NaCl
(The osmotic fragility of red cells refers to their susceptibility to rupture when exposed to different concentrations of salt
solutions. In this case, the correct answer is 0.50% NaCl because at this concentration, the red cells start to undergo
hemolysis or rupture. This indicates that they are more fragile and susceptible to bursting in lower salt concentrations
compared to the other options provided.)

29. A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used

A. Ammonium sulfate B. Concentrated formalin C. Zinc chloride D. Zinc sulfate

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(Zinc sulfate is used in the floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts. This method involves mixing the sample
with a solution containing zinc sulfate, which has a higher specific gravity than the ova and cysts. As a result, the ova and
cysts float to the surface while other debris sinks. This allows for easier detection and examination of the ova and cysts
under a microscope.)

30. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
A. Is present in the serum B. Is present in the blood cells
C.Is absent from the serum D. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
(According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody is absent from
the serum. This means that if a particular antigen is found on the surface of blood cells, the corresponding antibody that
can recognize and bind to that antigen is not present in the serum. This is an important concept in blood typing and
understanding immune responses, as it helps to explain why certain blood types can be incompatible with others.)

31.Hansel's stain is appropriate for

A. Nasal secrection for eosinophils B. Phagocytic neutrophils
C. Circulating eosinophils D. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
(Hansel's stain is appropriate for nasal secretion for eosinophils. This staining technique is used to identify and count
eosinophils, which are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections. By staining the
nasal secretion with Hansel's stain, eosinophils can be easily visualized under a microscope, allowing for the assessment of
eosinophil levels in the sample. This can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as allergic rhinitis or
eosinophilic rhinosinusitis.)

31. Optochin is used to help identify

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C.Strepococci producing alpha hemolysis D. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A)
(Optochin is a chemical compound that is used in the identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as
pneumococcus. This bacteria is a common cause of respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia, and can also cause
meningitis and other invasive diseases. Optochin is added to a culture of bacteria, and if the bacteria are sensitive to
optochin, they will not grow. Streptococcus pneumoniae is sensitive to optochin, whereas the other bacteria listed in the
options are not affected by it. Therefore, the correct answer is Streptococcus pneumoniae.)

32. The etiologic agent of chancroid is

A. Bordetella pertussis B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Haemophilus aegyptius
(The correct answer is Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection that is caused by the bacterium
Haemophilus ducreyi. This bacterium is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and can lead to the development of
painful genital ulcers. It is important to correctly identify the etiologic agent in order to provide appropriate treatment
and prevent further spread of the infection. Haemophilus aegyptius, Haemophilus influenzae, and Bordetella pertussis are
not associated with chancroid.)

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33. In using a urinometer to measure specific gravity, the correction facotr for each 3 degrees C higher or lower than
calibration temperature is
A. +/- 0.001 B. +/- 1.001 C. +/- 0.100 D. +/- 0.010
(The correction factor for each 3 degrees C higher or lower than calibration temperature is +/- 0.001. This means that for
every 3 degrees Celsius difference from the calibration temperature, the specific gravity reading obtained from the
urinometer needs to be adjusted by adding or subtracting 0.001. This correction factor accounts for the expansion or
contraction of the liquid being measured due to temperature changes, ensuring accurate readings.)

34. Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?

A. Benedict's B. Clinitest C. Dip stick D. Pandy
The dip stick test is specific for urinary glucose because it detects the presence of glucose in the urine. Benedict's and
Clinitest are used to test for reducing sugars in general, while Pandy is used to test for the presence of proteins in the
urine. Therefore, the dip stick test is the only option that specifically tests for urinary glucose.

35. When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it
is known as a
A. Shift B. Mean deviation curve C. Trend D. Normal distribution curve
When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it is
known as a shift. This means that there is a consistent deviation from the mean in the same direction for a significant
number of consecutive days. It indicates a systematic change or movement in the data, rather than random fluctuations.

36. The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is
A. 0.05 ml B. 0.10 mL C. 0.15 mL D. 0.02 mL
(The correct answer is 0.05 mL. In the qualitative VDRL test, a small amount of inactivated serum is used to detect the
presence of antibodies to syphilis. This test is used to determine if a person has been exposed to the syphilis bacteria. The
quantity of 0.05 mL is sufficient to ensure accurate results without using an excessive amount of serum.)

37. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes
A. Less dense B. More dense C. Finer D. More acidic
(As a blood cell matures, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes more dense. This means that the DNA and associated
proteins in the nucleus become more tightly packed. This denser chromatin pattern allows for more efficient regulation of
gene expression and helps to maintain the stability and integrity of the genetic material within the cell.)

38. Which test is used to measure capillary fragility?

A. Tourniquet B. Bleeding time C. Prothrombin time D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
(The test used to measure capillary fragility is the Tourniquet test. This test involves applying a tourniquet to the upper
arm for 5 minutes and then releasing it. The appearance of petechiae (small red spots) on the skin within 20 minutes

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indicates increased capillary fragility. This test is commonly used to evaluate disorders such as thrombocytopenia, dengue
fever, and vasculitis.)

39. In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as
A. Infectious hepatitis B. Helicobacter pylori C. Pneumonia D. Lupus erythematosus
(Reagin reactivity in serologic tests for syphilis can be caused by both acute and chronic infections. Lupus erythematosus
is a chronic autoimmune disease that can lead to the production of reagin antibodies, which may result in a positive
serologic test for syphilis. Pneumonia, infectious hepatitis, and Helicobacter pylori are not typically associated with reagin
reactivity in syphilis tests.)

40. Which anemia is usually associated with severe burns is

A. Aplastic B. Macrocytic C. Hemolytic D. Microcytic
(Hemolytic anemia is usually associated with severe burns. In this type of anemia, red blood cells are destroyed faster
than they can be produced, leading to a decrease in the overall number of red blood cells in the body. Severe burns can
cause damage to blood vessels and tissues, leading to the release of substances that can trigger the destruction of red
blood cells. This can result in hemolytic anemia, which is characterized by symptoms such as fatigue, pale skin, and
shortness of breath.)

41. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with

A. Anti-A serum B. Anti-A2 serum C. Dolichos biflorus serum D. Anti-AB serum
(Dolichos biflorus serum is used to determine if a patient is A1 or A2. This serum is specifically used to detect the presence
of A2 antigen on red blood cells. If the serum reacts with the blood sample, it indicates that the patient is A2. If there is no
reaction, it means the patient is A1. The other serums listed (anti-A serum, anti-AB serum) are used for different blood
typing purposes and do not specifically differentiate between A1 and A2.)

42. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is
A. Saliclate B. Coumadin C. Protamine sulfate D. Heparin
(Coumadin is the correct answer because it is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain
clotting factors in the liver, including prothrombin. When Coumadin is given orally, it prolongs the prothrombin time,
which is a measure of how long it takes for blood to clot. This effect is desired in certain medical conditions where there is
a risk of excessive blood clotting. Heparin, protamine sulfate, and saliclate do not produce a prolonged prothrombin time
when given orally.)

43. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears

A. Clear (colorless) B. Light yellow or straw colored C. Greeen D. Bright red
(The correct answer is light yellow or straw colored. Cerebral spinal fluid in patients with post-cerebral hemorrhage may
appear this way due to the presence of red blood cells and breakdown products of blood. The yellow color is caused by

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the bilirubin pigment, which is a product of the breakdown of red blood cells. This color indicates that there is a small
amount of blood present in the fluid, but not enough to cause it to be bright red or green.)

44. Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? 1. Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH) (LD) 2. Creatinine
Phosphokinase (CPK) (CK) 3. Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT)
A. 2 and 3 only B. 1,2, and 3 C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 only
(Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH), Creatinine Phosphokinase (CPK), and Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT) are
all enzymes that can be found in the heart muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.)

45. Strepococcus pneumoniae

A. Grows best at slightly acid Ph B. Is motile
C.Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures D. Capsules are produced by virulent strians
The correct answer is "capsules are produced by virulent strains". Strepococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that can cause
various infections, including pneumonia. Capsules are a key virulence factor for this bacterium, as they help protect it
from the host's immune system. Capsules are produced by virulent strains of Strepococcus pneumoniae and are a major
determinant of its pathogenicity. They allow the bacterium to evade phagocytosis and enhance its ability to cause disease.

46. Which instruments do NOT measure concentrations of a particular molecule but of the total ions and molecules in
general (number of moles per kilogram of water)?
A. Osmometers B. Immunochemical analyzers C. Spectrophotometers D. Blood gas analyzers
(Osmometers are instruments that measure the total ions and molecules in a solution, rather than specifically measuring
the concentration of a particular molecule. They do this by determining the osmotic pressure of the solution, which is a
measure of the number of moles of solute per kilogram of water. Osmometers are commonly used in medical and
research laboratories to measure the osmolality of bodily fluids and other solutions. This information is useful in
diagnosing and monitoring certain medical conditions, as well as in various scientific and industrial applications.)

47. Group O patients can safely recieve plasma from a donor who is group
A. AB only B. A, AB, or O C. A only D. O only
(Group O patients can safely receive plasma from a donor who is group A, AB, or O because group O is considered the
universal donor for plasma transfusions. Group O blood does not have the A or B antigens on the red blood cells, so it can
be transfused to any blood type without causing an immune reaction. Group A and AB individuals can also donate plasma
to group O patients because plasma does not contain red blood cells and therefore does not have the A or B antigens.
However, group B individuals cannot donate plasma to group O patients because the plasma may contain antibodies that
could react with the recipient's red blood cells.)

48. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
A. Lysing reagent only B. Distilled water C. Highly-diluted blood D. Diluting fluid

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(The correct answer is diluting fluid because it is commonly used in automated cell counters to create a dilution of the
blood sample. This dilution helps in obtaining accurate and reliable cell counts by ensuring that the cells are evenly
distributed and not clumped together. The diluting fluid also helps in maintaining the integrity of the cells and preventing
any interference or contamination from other substances present in the sample.)

49. Which media is used to ISOLATE Staphylococcus aureus from specimens that have mixed bacterial flora such as
feces?
A. Eosin methylene blue agar (EMB) B. Mannitol salt agar
C.An enrichment broth D. MacConkey agar
(Mannitol salt agar is a selective and differential medium commonly used to isolate Staphylococcus aureus from
specimens that contain mixed bacterial flora such as feces. This medium contains high salt concentration which inhibits
the growth of most bacteria except for Staphylococcus species. Additionally, it contains mannitol and a pH indicator that
allows for the differentiation of Staphylococcus aureus based on its ability to ferment mannitol, producing acid and
causing a change in color of the medium. Therefore, mannitol salt agar is the appropriate choice for isolating
Staphylococcus aureus from mixed bacterial flora.)

50. According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus species, the neterococci are placed in group
A. B B. D C. C D. A
(According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus species, the neterococci are placed in group D.)

MODEL PAPER-5
01. The variety of media may be safely stored for months and is taken care to
A. Avoid exposing them to light B. Retain their moisture
C.Maintain them at room temperature D. Maintain them in an incubator
(The correct answer is "retain their moisture". This means that the variety of media needs to be stored in a way that
ensures that they do not dry out. Moisture is important for the viability and effectiveness of the media, so it is important
to maintain the right level of moisture to prevent them from becoming unusable.)

02. Water-soluble pigments are produced by

A. Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Group A streptococcus
C.Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Yeasts
(Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to produce water-soluble pigments such as pyocyanin, pyoverdine, and pyorubin.
These pigments are important for the survival and virulence of the bacterium. Pyocyanin, for example, has been shown to
have antimicrobial properties and can help Pseudomonas aeruginosa compete with other microorganisms in its
environment. Therefore, it is the most likely organism to produce water-soluble pigments among the options given.)

03. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing

A. Autoagglutination tests B. Reverse typing C. Immunoglobulin testing D. D(u) testing
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(Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is not used in performing reverse typing. Reverse typing is a blood typing technique
that involves testing the patient's serum against known red blood cell antigens. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is
used in other blood typing techniques, such as direct typing and indirect antiglobulin testing, to detect antibodies that
have coated the patient's red blood cells. However, in reverse typing, the patient's serum is tested for the presence of
antibodies, so antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is not necessary.)

04. If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of
A. 3 B. 300 C. 20 D. 5
If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, it means that they fall within a range of two standard deviations on
either side of the mean. Since the normal distribution curve is symmetrical, the area outside this range on both sides is
equal. The ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of 20 because the total area outside this range is 5%
(2.5% on each side), and the total area under the curve is 100%. Therefore, the ratio is 5%/100% = 1/20.

05. Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?

A. Clostridium botulinum B. Nocardia asteroids C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Bacillus anthracis
(Clostridium botulinum is a strict anaerobe because it cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. It is a bacterium that
produces the botulinum toxin, which causes the serious illness botulism. This bacterium is commonly found in soil and
water, and it thrives in environments with low oxygen levels. Its ability to survive and produce toxins in anaerobic
conditions makes it a strict anaerobe. Bacillus anthracis, Listeria monocytogenes, and Nocardia asteroides are not strict
anaerobes as they can tolerate or even grow in the presence of oxygen.)

06. The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is
A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus viridans C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
Streptococcus pyogenes is the correct answer because it is known to cause both rheumatic fever and glomerular
nephritis. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can occur after a streptococcal infection, specifically caused by
Streptococcus pyogenes. Glomerular nephritis, on the other hand, is a type of kidney inflammation that can also be
caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans, and Staphylococcus haemolyticus are
not typically associated with these conditions.

07. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of
A. Howell-Jolly bodies B. Heniz bodies C. Plasmodium species D. Rubriblasts
(Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of Heinz bodies. Heinz bodies
are abnormal aggregates of denatured hemoglobin that form within red blood cells. In individuals with G-6-PD deficiency,
the red blood cells are more susceptible to oxidative damage, leading to the formation of Heinz bodies. These bodies can
be visualized using supravital staining techniques, which stain the bodies and make them visible under a microscope.
Therefore, the presence of Heinz bodies indicates a deficiency of G-6-PD.)

08. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and

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A. Ammonium hydroxide B. Alkaline picrate C. Acetic anhydride D. Sulfuric acid
(The correct answer is alkaline picrate. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction
of creatinine with alkaline picrate. This reaction forms a colored complex, which can be measured spectrophotometrically.
By measuring the absorbance of the complex, the concentration of creatinine in the blood sample can be determined.)

09. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with

A. Ferric chloride B. Nitroprusside C. 2,4 dichloraniline D. Alkaline copper
(The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with nitroprusside. Nitroprusside is a chemical compound that reacts
with ketones in the urine to produce a purple color. This color change indicates the presence of ketones in the urine,
which can be a sign of uncontrolled diabetes or other metabolic disorders. The impregnation of nitroprusside on the dip
stick allows for a quick and easy detection of ketones in the urine sample.)

10. When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, each of the serum proteins in an electrical field migrates toward
A. The negative pole B. Either pole C. Both poles D. The positive pole
(When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, the serum proteins have a net negative charge. In an electrical field, negatively
charged particles migrate towards the positive pole. Therefore, the serum proteins will migrate towards the positive pole
in this scenario.)

11. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments
A. Do not count nucleated red blood cells B. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
C.Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes D. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes
(Most automated cell counting instruments count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes. Leukocytes, also known as
white blood cells, are responsible for the body's immune response and are found in the bloodstream. Nucleated red blood
cells are abnormal cells that may be present in certain medical conditions. Since leukocytes are also present in the
bloodstream and are involved in the immune response, automated cell counting instruments include them when counting
nucleated red blood cells.)

12. Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged for
A. 2 min @ 2000 B. 5 min @ 5000 C. 15-30 seconds @ 1000 D. 3 min @ 3000
Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged at a speed of 1000 for a
duration of 15-30 seconds. Centrifugation is done to separate the cells from the serum or plasma in the mixture. This
process helps in obtaining a clear supernatant, which is necessary for accurate interpretation of the test results.
Centrifuging for a longer duration or at higher speeds may lead to hemolysis or improper separation of the components,
affecting the reliability of the test.

13. Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of
A. Bordetella B. Haemophilus C. Pasteurello D. Yersinia

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(Bordet-Gengou agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of Bordetella. This agar medium is selective for
Bordetella species as it contains specific nutrients and inhibitors that promote the growth of these bacteria while
inhibiting the growth of other organisms. Fresh blood is added to enhance the growth of Bordetella species by providing
essential nutrients. Therefore, this agar medium is specifically designed for the isolation and identification of Bordetella
bacteria.)

14. The end-product of purine metabolism is

A.Urea B. Creatine C. Uric acid D. Creatinine
(Uric acid is the correct answer because it is the end-product of purine metabolism. Purine metabolism involves the
breakdown of purine nucleotides, which are components of DNA and RNA. The breakdown of these nucleotides leads to
the production of uric acid. Uric acid is then excreted from the body through urine. Urea, creatine, and creatinine are not
the end-products of purine metabolism, making them incorrect choices. Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism,
creatine is involved in energy metabolism, and creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism.)

15. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be
A. Hct and WBC B. RBC and WBC C. WBC and Hgb D. RBC and Hgb
(A high background count on an automated blood cell counter indicates an increased number of non-cellular particles in
the sample, which can interfere with the accurate counting of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC). These
non-cellular particles can be debris, platelets, or other substances that may be mistaken as cells by the counter.
Therefore, a high background count would affect the accurate measurement of both RBC and WBC parameters.)

16. When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted
A. 1:20 B. 1:10 C. 1:200 D. 1:50
(In order to perform a white cell count using white blood cell pipets, blood needs to be diluted. The dilution ratio
determines the amount of blood that is mixed with a diluent solution. A dilution ratio of 1:20 means that for every 1 part
of blood, 20 parts of diluent solution are added. This dilution allows for an accurate and manageable count of white blood
cells, as it helps to reduce the concentration of cells in the sample and makes it easier to count them under a microscope.)

17. The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which organisms?
A. Endolimax nana B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Iodamoeba butschlii D. Balantidium coli
(Trichomonas vaginalis is a parasitic protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection. Unlike the
other organisms mentioned, Trichomonas vaginalis does not have a cystic stage of development. Cystic stages are a
common feature in many protozoa, including Balantidium coli, Endolimax nana, and Iodamoeba butschlii. These cysts
allow the organisms to survive outside of a host and are an important part of their life cycle. However, Trichomonas
vaginalis does not form cysts and instead exists in a motile form throughout its life cycle.)

18. WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?

A. Provides humoral immunity B. Transports glucose

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C. Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation D. Regulates body temperature
(Gamma globulin is a type of protein found in the blood that plays a crucial role in providing humoral immunity. It is a
component of the immune system and contains antibodies that help in fighting off infections and diseases. These
antibodies are produced by B cells and are responsible for recognizing and neutralizing foreign substances such as
bacteria and viruses. Therefore, gamma globulin is essential for the body's immune response and helps protect against
various pathogens.)

19. The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and

A. Lactic acid B. 3-hydroxy butyric acid C. Acetic acid D. Oxaloacetic acid
(The ketone bodies are acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 3-hydroxy butyric acid. Lactic acid, oxaloacetic acid, and acetic acid
are not considered ketone bodies.)

20. During Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in

A. Man B. Fish C. Swine D. Cattle
(The correct answer is cattle because Taenia saginata is a tapeworm that primarily infects cattle. The larval stage of the
tapeworm develops in the muscles of cattle, and when humans consume undercooked or raw beef contaminated with
these larvae, they can become infected. Swine and fish can also be hosts for other types of tapeworms, but in the case of
Taenia saginata, the larval stage specifically develops in cattle.)

21.Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring

A. Refractive index B. Freezing point depression C. Specific gravity D. Ionic strength
(Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring freezing point depression. This is because the freezing point of a
solution is lower than that of the pure solvent, and the extent of this depression is directly related to the number of solute
particles present in the solution. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a solution, and by
measuring the freezing point depression, one can determine the osmolality accurately. Refractive index, specific gravity,
and ionic strength are not directly related to osmolality measurement.)

22. Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as

A. Conjugated bilirubin B. Prehepatic bilirubin C. Total bilirubin D. Biliverdin
(Unconjugated bilirubin refers to bilirubin that has not yet been processed by the liver. It is produced when red blood cells
break down and is transported to the liver for further processing. Prehepatic bilirubin is another term for unconjugated
bilirubin, as it indicates that the bilirubin has not yet reached the liver. Conjugated bilirubin, on the other hand, refers to
bilirubin that has been processed by the liver and is ready to be excreted. Total bilirubin is the sum of both unconjugated
and conjugated bilirubin. Biliverdin, on the other hand, is a green pigment that is converted to bilirubin in the body.)

23.Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci?

A. Fibrinolysin B. Coagulase C. Oxidase D. Catalase

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(Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus that causes the plasma to clot. This test is used to
differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci because it is specific to this bacteria. The presence
of coagulase activity indicates the presence of Staphylococcus aureus, while the absence of coagulase activity suggests
the presence of other types of staphylococci.)

24. Reticulocytes contain

A. RNA remnants B. Howell-Jolly bodies C. Basophilic granules D. DNA remnants
(Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain some RNA remnants. These remnants are leftover from the
process of synthesizing hemoglobin, which occurs in the reticulocytes. As the reticulocytes mature into erythrocytes
(mature red blood cells), the RNA remnants are removed, resulting in cells that do not contain any DNA remnants.
Therefore, the correct answer is RNA remnants.)

25. Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is recommended by the International Committee
for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?
A. Cyanmethemoglobin B. Sulfhemoglobin C. Oxyhemoglobin D. Methemoglobin
(Cyanmethemoglobin is the recommended method for hemoglobin determination by the International Committee for
Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards. This method involves the
conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin, which is stable and can be measured accurately. This method is widely
used in clinical laboratories for accurate and reliable measurement of hemoglobin levels in blood samples.)

26. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the
A. Value of the cell indices B. Size of the particle being counted
C. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell D. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
(Automated blood cell counters use the principle of counting the size of the particles. These counters measure the size of
the red blood cells to determine the number of cells present. By analyzing the size of the particles, the counter can
differentiate between different types of blood cells and provide accurate cell counts. This principle is effective because
different blood cell types have different sizes, allowing the counter to distinguish between them and provide valuable
information about the blood sample.)

27. As a general rule, when a blood cell matures

A. There is no change in the cell's size B. The cell decreases in size
C.The nucleus increases in size D. The cell increases in size
(When a blood cell matures, it undergoes a process called enucleation, where the nucleus is expelled from the cell. This
results in a decrease in the cell's size. The mature blood cell, also known as a red blood cell or erythrocyte, needs to lose
its nucleus to make more space for hemoglobin, the molecule responsible for carrying oxygen. This allows the cell to
become more efficient in its oxygen-carrying capacity. Therefore, the correct answer is that the cell decreases in size.)

28. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?

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A. Blood viscosity studies B. Isoenzyme electrophoresis
C.Immunoelectrophoresis D. Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum
(Immunoelectrophoresis is a method that combines electrophoresis and immunodiffusion techniques to study protein
abnormalities. It involves separating proteins based on their charge using electrophoresis and then detecting specific
proteins using antibodies. This technique is particularly useful for identifying and quantifying abnormal proteins, such as
those associated with autoimmune diseases or cancer. By comparing the protein profiles of healthy individuals with those
of patients, researchers can gain insights into the presence and nature of protein abnormalities, aiding in diagnosis and
treatment.)

29. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals

A. Hemolysis B. Icteric plasma C. A heavy buffy coat D. A high hematocrit
(A heavy buffy coat may suggest the presence of leukemia. The buffy coat is the layer of white blood cells and platelets
that separates from the red blood cells after centrifugation. In a healthy individual, the buffy coat is usually thin. However,
in leukemia, there is an abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells, leading to a heavier buffy coat. This can be
an indication of leukemia and further diagnostic tests may be required to confirm the diagnosis.)

30. Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of

A. Factor VII deficiency B. Factor X deficiency C. Hemophilia D. Platelet function
(Clot retraction refers to the process by which a blood clot becomes more compact and retracts, leading to the formation
of a stable clot. This process is primarily dependent on the function of platelets, which play a crucial role in clot formation
and stabilization. Therefore, clot retraction can be used as an indicator of platelet function. Factor VII deficiency and
Factor X deficiency are related to the coagulation cascade, while hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's
ability to clot. None of these conditions directly impact clot retraction, making platelet function the correct answer.)

31. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is

A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate
(Sodium is the major cation found in the extracellular fluid. Cations are positively charged ions, and sodium is the most
abundant positively charged ion in the extracellular fluid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, regulating
blood pressure, transmitting nerve impulses, and supporting muscle function. Chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate are
also important ions in the body, but sodium is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid.)

32. In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is

A. Simple filtration B. Re-absorption of water C. Secretion D. Selective re-absorption
(The glomerulus is responsible for simple filtration in the formation of urine. It acts as a filter, allowing small molecules
like water, electrolytes, and waste products to pass through while preventing larger molecules like proteins and blood
cells from entering the filtrate. This initial filtration process helps to remove waste products from the blood and create a
concentrated urine solution.)

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33. What is the distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer called?
A. 0.1 cm B. 1.0 cm C. 0.1 mm D. 1.0 mm
(The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer is called 0.1 mm.)

34. Enterobius vermilcularis is a

A. Filarial worm B. Hookworm C. Pinworm D. Flat worm
(Enterobius vermicularis is commonly known as the pinworm. It is a parasitic worm that infects the human intestines.
Pinworms are transmitted through the ingestion of their eggs, which are usually found on contaminated surfaces or in
food and water. Once inside the body, the eggs hatch in the small intestine and the larvae migrate to the large intestine,
where they mature into adult worms. The female pinworms then migrate to the anus to lay their eggs, causing intense
itching and discomfort. Pinworm infections are common, especially in children, and can be treated with medication.)

35.Which of the following organisms are described as minute, very pleomorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-
negative rods that are media enriched with X and V factors?
A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Escherichia coli C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Bacillus anthracis
(Haemophilus influenzae is the correct answer because it fits the description given in the question. It is described as
minute, very pleomorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods. Additionally, Haemophilus influenzae requires
media enriched with X and V factors for growth. Escherichia coli, Listeria monocytogenes, and Bacillus anthracis do not fit
the given description.)

35. Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of
A. Serum lipoprotein B. Serum protein C. Hemoglobin D. Amino acid
(Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of serum protein. Electrophoretic
fractionation is a technique used to separate different proteins based on their charge and size. In this case, the given
fractions are all components of serum protein, which is a mixture of proteins found in blood plasma. Therefore, the
correct answer is serum protein.)

36. Antihuman serum globulin reagent

A. Is produced in laboratory animals B. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies
C.Is produced in humans D. Occurs naturally in most humans
(The correct answer is "is produced in laboratory animals." This is because antihuman serum globulin reagent is a reagent
that is used in laboratory tests to detect antibodies in human serum. It is produced by injecting laboratory animals with
human serum globulin, which stimulates the animals to produce antibodies against the human serum globulin. These
antibodies are then collected and used as the antihuman serum globulin reagent in laboratory tests.)

37. Beer's law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light
absorbed, the
A. More light transmitted B. Lower the concentration of the analyte

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C.Longer the wavelength required D. Higher the concentration of the analyte
(According to Beer's law, the darker the color produced in a specimen, the more light is absorbed. This means that as the
concentration of the analyte increases, more light is absorbed, resulting in a darker color. Therefore, the correct answer is
"Higher the concentration of the analyte.")

38. Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)

A. Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus B. Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband
C.Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus D.Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus
(Rh immune globulin is given to a negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus. This is because Rh immune
globulin helps prevent the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against the Rh(D) antigen, which can
occur when the mother is Rh(D) negative and the fetus is Rh(D) positive. If the mother develops these antibodies, it can
lead to complications in future pregnancies with Rh(D) positive fetuses. Therefore, giving Rh immune globulin to the
negative mother after delivery of an Rh(D) positive fetus helps prevent the development of these antibodies.)

39. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on

A. Any body fluid B. Either serum or plasma C. Serum only D. Plasma only
(Fibrinogen determinations are performed on plasma only because fibrinogen is a protein that is present in the liquid
portion of blood, which is plasma. Serum is obtained by removing the clotting factors from plasma, including fibrinogen.
Therefore, fibrinogen cannot be accurately measured in serum. Additionally, fibrinogen is not present in other body fluids,
so it cannot be determined in any body fluid other than plasma.)

40. To make a 1:5 dilution of serum sample, dilute

A. 1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent B. 5.0 mL of serum + 1.0 mL of diluent
C. 1.0 mL of serum + 5.0 mL of diluent D. 1.0 mL of serum + 6.0 mL of diluent
(To make a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample, you need to mix 1.0 mL of serum with 4.0 mL of diluent. This means that the
total volume of the diluted solution will be 5.0 mL, with 1.0 mL being the serum and 4.0 mL being the diluent. This dilution
ratio indicates that for every 1 part of serum, you need to add 4 parts of diluent, resulting in a total of 5 parts. This
dilution is commonly used in laboratory settings to reduce the concentration of a sample for various analyses or
experiments.)

40. Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile cells having an oval "head" with a rather long,
delicate, whip-like tail, These cells are most likely identified as
A. Spermatozoa B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Spirochetes D. Proteus vulgaris
(The description of the cells having an oval "head" with a long, delicate, whip-like tail is characteristic of spermatozoa.
Proteus vulgaris is a bacterium and would not have this specific morphology. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan
parasite that has flagella, but its morphology is different from the described cells. Spirochetes are a type of bacteria that
have a spiral shape and would not match the given description. Therefore, the most likely identification based on the
given description is spermatozoa.)

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41. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of
A. Glucose B. Protein C. Ketone bodies D. Uric acid
Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by an increase in acid levels in the body. Ketone bodies are produced when
the body breaks down fatty acids for energy, particularly in conditions like diabetes or starvation. Therefore, testing urine
for the presence of ketone bodies can help detect metabolic acidosis. Protein, glucose, and uric acid are not directly
related to the detection of metabolic acidosis, making them incorrect options.

42. Safranin in a Gran stain is used as a

A. Mordant B. Decolorizer C. Secondary stain D. Primary stain
(Safranin is used as a secondary stain in a Gram stain. A Gram stain is a differential staining technique used to classify
bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative based on their cell wall composition. In this technique, safranin is used as
a counterstain to stain the Gram-negative bacteria after the initial staining with crystal violet. Safranin stains the Gram-
negative bacteria pink or red, allowing them to be differentiated from the Gram-positive bacteria that are stained purple
by the primary stain, crystal violet. Therefore, safranin acts as a secondary stain in the Gram stain technique.)

43. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
A. Percent deviation B. Coefficient variation C. Stardard deviation D. Quality control
(The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as the standard
deviation. The standard deviation measures the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of values. It is calculated by
taking the square root of the variance, which is the average of the squared differences between each value and the mean.
A higher standard deviation indicates greater variability, while a lower standard deviation indicates less variability.)

44. An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being

A. Packed with hemoglobin B. Markedly bluish in color
C. Variable in shape D. Markedly pale in central color
(An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as markedly pale in central color. Hypochromia refers to a condition
where the red blood cells have a decreased amount of hemoglobin, resulting in a paler appearance. This paleness is
particularly noticeable in the central area of the cell. It is not related to the shape, hemoglobin content, or bluish color of
the RBC.)

45. Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their

A. Staining properties with polychrome dyes B. Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide
C.Serologic and biochemical characteristics D. Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae
(Fungi are commonly identified based on their sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae. Sporulation
refers to the formation of spores, which are reproductive structures in fungi. The arrangement of spores on the hyphae,
which are thread-like structures in fungi, can vary and be used to distinguish different species. This method of
identification is important because it allows scientists to differentiate between different types of fungi and classify them

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accordingly. Other characteristics mentioned in the options, such as serologic and biochemical characteristics, staining
properties, and solubility in potassium hydroxide, may also be used in fungal identification but are not as commonly relied
upon as sporulation and spore arrangement.)

46. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
A. Refractive index B.Specific gravity C. Osmolality D. Hydrometry
(Freezing point depression measurements are used to determine the osmolality of a solution. Osmolality is a measure of
the concentration of solute particles in a solution, specifically in this case, in urine. By measuring the freezing point
depression, the osmolality of the urine can be determined, which can provide important information about kidney
function and hydration levels. Therefore, freezing point depression measurements are part of the urine test procedure for
osmolality.)

47. An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes USUALLY indicates
A. Viral infection B. Allergic reaction C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Bacterial infection
An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes usually indicates a bacterial infection.
Neutrophilic granulocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response to bacterial
infections. When there is an infection, the body releases more neutrophils to help fight off the bacteria. Therefore, an
elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes is often seen in bacterial infections.

48. Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
A. Malaria B. Reticulocytes C. Platelets D. Howell-Jolly bodies
(Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue stains are commonly used for counting reticulocytes. Reticulocytes are
immature red blood cells that still contain remnants of RNA. By staining them with these dyes, they become visible under
a microscope and can be counted to determine the rate of red blood cell production in the bone marrow. This is
particularly useful in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as anemia or bone marrow disorders.)

49. A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred
A. Permanently B. For 1 year C. For 6 months D. For 5 years
(A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred permanently because HBsAg is a marker for hepatitis
B virus infection. This means that the donor is currently infected with the virus and can transmit it to the recipient
through blood transfusion. Therefore, it is necessary to permanently defer the donor to ensure the safety of the blood
supply and prevent the transmission of hepatitis B to recipients.)

50. A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test

A. Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies B. Is positive during the chancre stage
C.Indicates the severity of infection D. Indicates no infection
(The correct answer, "confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies," indicates that a reactive fluorescent treponemal
antibody (FTA-AB) test is used to detect the presence of antibodies produced by the body in response to a treponemal

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infection. This test is commonly used to diagnose syphilis, as the presence of treponemal antibodies confirms the
infection. It does not indicate the severity of the infection or the specific stage of syphilis.)

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