Set - D

RESIDENCY MOCK TEST (OFFLINE) BATCH-2023

Topic: MS Faculty (Mock Test -01)
Total: 200 Question Total: 200 Marks Time: 160 Minutes Date: 03.11.2023

01. Vitamin-K dependent clotting factors are 07. Vitamin-D

a) Factor l a) is a steroid hormone
b) Factor ll b) undergoes 25 hydroxylation in the
c) Factor Vl kidney
d) Factor VII c) is stored in the liver
e) Factor IX d) undergoes 1-alpha- hydroxylation in
the liver
02. Microcytic hypochromic anaemia includes e) its synthesis in influenced by cortisol
a) Aplastic anaemia
b) Thalassemia 08. Complications of massive blood
c) Sickle cell anaemia transfusion are
d) Sideroblastic anaemia a) Hypocalcaemia
e) Iron deficiency anaemia b) Hypokalemia
c) Coagulopathy
03. In perspective of blood grouping, the d) Hyperthermia
fucosyltransferase is not expressed in e) Hypervolemia
a) Type O individuals
b) Rh negative individuals 09. The following nerves are involved in eye
c) Rh positive Individuals movements
d) Type AB individuals a) Optic
e) Type A individuals b) Oculomotor
c) Trochlear
04. The pulse pressure is directly d) Trigeminal
proportional to e) Abducent
a) Stroke volume
b) Compliance of the arterial blood 10. Factors increase pulmonary vascular
vessels resistance are
c) Elasticity of the arterial wall a) Hypoxia
d) Heart rate b) Acidosis
e) Diameter of the blood vessels c) Nitric oxide
d) Histamine
05. Sodium-Potassium pump e) Leukotrines
a) generates -4 mv of resting membrane
potential 11. Multipolar neurons are found in the
b) generates -86 mv of resting membrane a) Posterior root ganglia
potential b) Motor cells of the spinal cord
c) is an electrogenic pump c) Vestibular ganglia
d) causes cellular swelling d) Peripheral nerves
e) causes influx of 3 Na+ and efflux of 2 e) Retina
K+
12. Substances that enter cells by simple
06. Osmolarity of plasma diffusion are
a) Depends on electrolytes a) Glucose
b) Depends in lipids b) Oxygen
c) Is about 300 mosmol/L c) Carbon dioxide
d) Is about 28 mm Hg d) Amino acid
e) Measured by osmometer e) Nitrogen

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13. Cause(s) of type II respiratory failure 20. Tendency for turbulent flow increases in
includes(s) direct proportion to
a) Acute interstitial pneumonia a) the velocity of blood flow
b) Barbiturate overdose b) the diameter of the blood vessel
c) Pneumothorax c) the density of the blood vessel
d) Poliomyelitis d) the viscosity of the blood vessel
e) Pulmonary embolism e) The radius of the blood vessel
14. Components of Tetralogy of Fallot’s are 21. Cardiac muscle contains which of the
a) Ventricular septal defect following?
b) Atrial septal defect a) Myosin
c) Right ventricular hypertrophy b) actin
d) Pulmonary hypertension c) tropomyosin
e) Overriding of aorta d) troponin
e) dystropin
15. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by
a) Diarrhea 22. Causes of large ‘a’ wave in the JVP are
b) Shock a) Pulmonary HTN
c) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis b) Atrial fibrillation
d) Salicylate poisoning c) Heart block
e) Loop Diuretics d) Pregnancy
e) Thyrotoxicosis
16. Management of severe hyperkalemia
includes 23. Which of the following statements are
a) Calcium Gluconate true?
b) Salbutamol nebulization a. RBC is produced in yellow bone
c) Ipratropium bromide nebulization marrow
d) Glucose insulin infusion b. Blast cells can normally be present in
e) Hydrocortisone blood.
c. Philadelphia chromosome is
17. True for Myelinated fibers – chromosome number 21
a) Myelinated fibers have a lower d. myelofibrosis may occur in JAK 2
threshold for stimulation. mutation
b) Myelinated fibers have a higher e. in adult life hemopoietic marrow is in
threshold for stimulation. the central portion of femur.
c) Myelinated fibers can transmit
impulses at higher frequencies 24. Endocrine cause/s of hypertension is/are
d) Slow pain is carried by myelinated a) Addison's disease
fibers b) Hypothyroidism
e) Position sensation carried by c) Nelson's syndrome
unmyelinated fibers d) Acromegaly
e) Cushing's syndrome
18. special properties of the synaptic function
are: 25. Pituitary gland secretes
a) Synaptic response a) T4
b) Synaptic transmission b) TSH
c) Two-way conduction c) ACTH
d) Convergence d) Cortisol
e) Divergence. e) FSH
19. Specific gravity of blood increases in 26. Hormones acting via cAMP are
a) Cholera a) TSH
b) Burn b) Calcitriol
c) Plasma Pheresis c) Testosterone
d) 5%glucose infusion d) ADH
e) Gastroenteritis e) Parathormone

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27. hypokalemia is caused by which of the 34. Examples of liquefactive necrosis include
following hormones? a) Pus formation
a. aldosterone b) Tumor necrosis
b. insulin
c) Vessel necrosis in vasculitis
c. catecholamine
d. BEta blockers d) Ischemic brain necrosis
e. Beta agonists e) Ischemic colitis

28. Secretin family contains 35. Calcified metastasis occurs in the lungs
a) CCK
from the following organs
b) Glucagon
c) Bombosin a) Stomach
d) Subs –P b) Testis
e) VIP c) Breast
d) Ovary
29. At low flow rate saliva in the mouth is
e) Thyroid
a) hypotonic, acidic & rich in K
b) hypotonic, alkaline & rich in Na+
c) hypotonic, acidic & low in Na+ 36. In inflammation
d) hypertonic acidic & low in K a) Macrophage causes tissue injury
e) Hypertonic, alkaline & rich in K+ b) Mast cells release major basic protein
which recruits eosinophils
30. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is
found in c) C5a is chemotactic for macrophage
a) Renal tubular acidosis d) Bradykinin causes pain
b) Lactic acidosis e) NO causes vasoconstriction
c) Intestinal fistula
d) Methanol poisoning 37. The following mediators increase
e) Ureterosigmoidoscopy capillary permeability in acute inflammation
31. The primary function of ascending limb of a) Histamine
loop of Henle of kidney are b) Platelet Derived growth factor
a) Active reabsorption of sodium c) Bradykinin
b) Active reabsorption of chloride d) Angiotensin
c) Active reabsorption of potassium
e) Prostacyclin
d) Passive reabsorption of water
e) Passive reabsorption of urea
38. Epithelioid cell granuloma is found in
32. Cellular adaptations include following a) Syphilis
conditions b) Rhino-sporidiosis
a) Hypertrophy c) Amyloidosis
b) Hyperplasia d) Sarcoidosis
c) Dystrophy e) Toxoplasmosis
d) Dysplasia
e) Atrophy 39. Permanent cells which cannot regenerate
are
33. Reversible Cell injury leads to
a) Brain
a) Increased oxidative phosphorylation
b) Spleen
b) Influx of Na+ and H2O in the cell
c) Liver
c) Influx of K+ in the cell
d) Heart
d) Increased production of reactive
e) Kidney
oxygen species
e) Detachment of ribosome

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40. Wound healing may be impaired by 47. Tumours metastasize into bone include
a) Infection a) Papillary thyroid carcinoma
b) Anabolic steroid b) Pulmonary adenocarcinoma
c) Raised vitamin C levels c) Cervical squamous cell carcinoma
d) Low zinc levels d) Renal cell carcinoma
e) Age e) Prostatic adenocarcinoma
41. Which one is transudative process 48. Tumors escape body's immune
a) Nephrotic syndrome surveillance by
b) Malignancy a) Selective overgrowth of antigen
c) Congestive heart failure negative variants
d) TB b) Inhibition of regulatory T cells
e) Cirrhosis of liver c) Inactivation of immune regulatory
42. Arterial occlusion is commonly seen in pathways
a) Heart d) Reduced expression of MHC molecules
b) Lung e) Secretion of immune suppressive
c) Brain factors by tumor cells
d) Ovary
e) Small intestine 49. Staging of malignant disease is based on
a) Size of the tumor
43. Secondary causes of hypercoagulability b) Rupture of the tumor
are c) Spread to regional lymph node (s)
a) Cancer d) Irregularity of tumor
b) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome e) Degree of differentiation
c) Factor V mutation
d) Antithrombin III deficiency 50. Examples of premalignant condition
e) Myocardial infarction include
44. Locally malignant tumors are a) Endometrial hyperplasia
a) Osteoclastoma b) Nodular hyperplasia of prostate
b) Ewing’s sarcoma c) Leukoplakia
c) Marjolin’s ulcer d) Lichen planus
d) Rodent ulcer e) Xeroderma pigmentosum
e) Paget’s disease of the nipple
51. Fixatives are used to
45. Hormone dependent malignant tumor/s a) Keep the tissue viable
is/are b) Prevent autolysis
a) Bronchial carcinoma c) Facilitate tissue processing
b) Follicular carcinoma of thyroid d) Enhance H& E staining
c) Malignant melanoma e) Dissolve calcium in bony tissue
d) Prostatic carcinoma
e) Retinoblastoma 52. Features of autosomal dominant
disorders are
46. Dysplasia
a) Manifested in heterozygous state
a) Is always encountered in epithelium
b) Both males and females are affected
b) Is characterized by presence of mitosis
c) Complete penetrance is common
c) Is characterized by altered nuclear-
d) Onset is in early life
cytoplasmic ratio
e) New mutations occur in germ cells of
d) Always progress to cancer
elderly father
e) Of sometimes reverses to normal
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53. Features of Turner’s syndrome is/are 60. Planter flexion maintained by
a) Low hairline a) Tibialis Anterior
b) Pitting edema b) Gastrocnemius
c) Peroneus tortious
c) Shield chest
d) Flexor hallucis longus
d) Webbed neck e) Peroneus brevis
e) Ventricular septal defect
61. Regarding sensation of face
54. Derivatives of neural crest cells are
a) Predominantly supplied by facial nerve
a) Adrenal medulla
b) Tip of the nose supplied by maxillary
b) Sympathetic ganglia
nerve
c) Cranial nerve ganglia
c) Lower lip is supplied by mandibular
d) Olfactory epithelium
nerve
e) Frontal bone
d) Forehead is supplied by ophthalmic
55. The Azygos vein. nerve
a) Originates in the abdomen e) Angle of jaw by maxillary nerve
b) Arch of Azygos arches over the root of
Right lung 62. Posterior triangle of the neck contains the
c) Leaves the abdomen by the esophageal a) Great auricular nerve
opening b) Omohyoid muscle
d) Drains into right brachiocephalic vein c) Supraclavicular nerve
e) Content of middle mediastinum d) Roots of the brachial plexus
e) Vertebral artery
56. Regarding the relation of the 3rd part of
the duodenum anteriorly: 63. Ulnar nerve injury
a) Superior mesenteric vessels a) Loss of Abduction of thumb
b) Origin of IMA b) Loss of Abduction of fingers
c) Root of mesentery c) Froment’s sign positive
d) Right ureter d) Extension of inter phalangeal joints
e) Abdominal Aorta e) Loss of sensation in Lateral half of
digits
57. Collagen type-I fibers with their
distribution – 64. Cisterna chyli
a) Bone a) Situated at the level of L2 vertebrae
b) Tendon b) Communicate with thoracic duct
c) Basement membrane c) Azygos vein lies left to the cisterna
d) Hyaline cartilage chyli
e) Dermis d) Receives lymph from lumber lymph
trunk
58. Nucleus ambiguous containing cranial e) Lymphatics from anterior abdominal
nerves are directly drain to cisterna chyli
a) Trigeminal nerve
b) Facial nerve 65. Branches of superior mesenteric artery
c) Glossopharyngeal nerve a) ileocolic
d) Vagus b) Left colic
e) Cranial accessory nerve c) Middle colic
d)Right colic
59. The pancreas e) superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
a) is completely invested in peritoneum
b) usually had two major ducts 66. Formation of Anorectal ring
c) is related to both the greater sac of a) External Sphincter
peritoneum and omental bursa b) Internal Sphincter
d) lies anterior to the right and left renal c) Conjoint circular muscle coat
veins d) Fibro elastic Septa
e) is closely related to bile duct e) Pubo rectalis muscle

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67. Regarding diaphragm 74. Muscle responsible for abduction of
a) Aortic opening is muscular larynx
b) Right phrenic nerve passage through a) Aryepiglottic
oesophagus b) Lateral cricoarytenoid
c) oesophageal opening is tendinous c) Sternohyoid
d) left crus pierced by hemiazygos vein d) posterior cricoarytenoid
e) oesophageal opening is elliptical e) Thyroarytenoid
68. Meckel’s diverticulum is 75. Content of carotid sheath
a) A remnant of vitello intestinal duct a) External carotid artery
b) Usually presents from distal illeum b) common carotid artery
c) A true diverticulum c) Internal jugular vein
d) Found in the mesenteric border of the d) Internal carotid artery
ileum e) Hypoglossal nerve
e) A site of ectopic gastric tissue
76. Regarding femoral triangle
69. Structures related to the deep aspects of
a) Laterally by medial border of sartorius
the parotid gland
b) Floor is formed by adductor
a) Lingual nerve
brevis,iliacus
b) Styloid process
c) Apex formed by meeting of sartorius
c) Internal carotid artery
and adductor brevis
d) Glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Medially by medial border of adductor
e) Internal Jugular vein
Longus
70. Following are merocrine glands e) Contain femoral branch of
a) Mammary gland genitofemoral nerve
b) Sebaceous gland
c) Parotid gland 77. Plant alkaloids are
d) Submandibular gland a) Vincristine
e) Sublingual gland b) Vinblastine
71. The right atrium c) Doxorubicin
a) Forms most of the anterior surface of d) Cisplatin
the heart e) Methotrexate
b) Is anterior to the right pulmonary vein
c) Has the sino-atrial node in its wall 78. Most drugs:
d) Contains papillary muscles a) are either weak acids or weak bases
e) Is derived in part from the sinus b) can explore or modify physiological
venosus system
72. The renal arteries c) when non ionized are lipid insoluble
a) Arise from the aorta at the level of the d) are distributed on their pKa & pH
4th lumber vertebrae gradient across the membrane
b) Are related posteriorly to the crus of e) if acidic, accumulate more on acid side
the diaphragm of the same side
c) Supply branches to the corresponding of membrane
supra-renal gland
79. Bioavailability of a drug isn
d) Give testicular branches
e) Are unequal branches a) A fraction of unchanged drug in the
system circulation
73. Branchs from lateral cord of Brachial
b) identical with different formulations of
plexus
a) Long thoracic nerve thes same drug
b) Lateral cord of median nerve C) is affected by metabolism in the liver
c) Musculo cutaneous nerve d) 100% with intravenous route
d) Medial pectoral nerve e) A measure of the rate of absorption of
e) Thoracic nerve the drug

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80. drugs to be avoided in G6PD deficiency 87. Stimulation of beta-2 receptor causes-
states are a) bronchodilatation
a) chloroquine b) vasoconstriction
b) sulfamethoxazole c) glycogenolysis in liver
c) Digoxin d) increase in blood pressure
d) primaquine e) relaxation of gravid uterine muscle
e) gentamicin 88. Eicosanoid include following substance-
81. Teratogenic drugs are a) prostaglandin
a) phenytoin b) thrombaxane
b) retinoids c) leukotrienes
c) erythromycin d) sphingomyelin
d) captopril e) gangleosides
e) folic acid 89. cytotoxic drugs induced vomiting can be
82. Drugs producing effects via non-receptor prevented by-
mechanism ate: a) metoclopramide
a) mannitol b) domperidone
b) sumatriptan c) ondansetrone
c) magnesium tri silicate d) meclizine
d) ispagula e) promethazine
e) morphine
90. The renal excretion of drug will be
83. Drugs having low therapeutic index are reduced if:
a) digoxin a. The drug is weak acid and the urinary
b) diazepam PH is rendered acidic
c) omeprazole b. The drug is weak base and the urinary
d) heparin PH is rendered alkaline
e) methotrexate c. amphetamine, and ammonium chloride
84. Plasma half life of drugs gives idea about: is co-administered
a) duration of drug action d. The drug is aspirin and sodium
b) dose of the drug bicarbonate has been administered
c) mechanism of drug action e. The drug is ethanol and sodium
d) dose interval bicarbonate has been administered
e) potency of drugs 91. The non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
85. Drugs administered Through the drugs are:
sublingual route a) acetaminophen
a) digoxin b) sulphapyridine
b) carbamazepune c) colchicine
c) captopril d) indomethacin
d) nifedipine e) azathioprine
e) glyceryl trinitrate 92. Spironolactone
86. In pregnancy safe microbial/s is/are: A) is a k+ sparing diuretic
a) cefuroxime b) is more useful in hyperaldosteronism
b) amoxicillin c) has a steroid structure
c) levofloxacin d) can excrete 15-20%filtered sodium
d) azithromycin e) acts by blocking the na+/cl-
e) tetracycline transporter in DCT

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93. Following drugs are nephrotoxic 99. Effective antifungal drugs are:
a) gentamycin a) nystatin
b) lithium b) bacitracin
c) cadmium c) griesofulvin
d) metformin d) polymixin B
e) tazobactum-piperacillin e) Amphotericin B
100. Vitamins synthesize endogenously
94. Anti- fibrinolytic drugs include: a) Calcitonin
a) heparin b) Riboflavin
b) aprotinine c) Biotin
c) tranexamic acid d) Folic Acid
d) desmopressin e) Niacin
e) warfarin
101. Regarding urea cycle
95. Nitric oxide a) Liver is the only site
a) is inhibited by the lipopolysaccharide b) Occur in both Mitochondria &
of gram negative bacteria Cytoplasm
b) is a neurotransmitter c) Produces ATP
c) exists in a free radical form which can d) Urea is metabolized to Ammonia
be neurotoxic e) Another name is Ornithine cycle
d) synthesis is stimulated by tumour 102. Vitamin B12 deficiency
necrosolis factor a) Is caused by disease of terminal part of
e) is a useful therapy in angina ileum
b) Results in microcytic anemia
96. the following drugs induce bronchospasm c) Causes atrophy of gastric mucosa
a) noradrenaline d) Causes a reduction in circulating
b) morphine platelets
c) acetylcholine e) Causes pathological changes in CNS
d) slow-releasing substance of
103. Following are Transport protein
anaphylaxis (SRS-A)
a) Transferrin
e) adrenaline
b) Hemopexin
c) Bradykinin
97. Anti-diabetic drugs reducing body weight
d) Haptoglobin
are
e) Heme
a) thiazolidinediones
b) metformin 104. GLUT-4 is abundant in
c) SGLT-2 inhibitors a) Skeletal muscle
d) DPP-4 inhibitors b) Erythrocytes
e) GLP-1 analogues C) The brain
D) Adipose tissue
98. Women taking combined oral E) Renal tubular cells
contraceptive pills will have highr risk of 105. HDL is synthesized and secreted from
a) ovarian carcinoma a) Endothelium of blood vessel
b) breast cancer b) Adipose tissue
c) endometrial carcinoma c) Liver
d) cervical cancer d) Intestine
el gall bladder disease e) Kidney
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106. Leptin 112. Non-protein nitrogenous substances in
a) Is made from fatty acid urine include
b) Acts in the brain cells to inhibit feeding a) Amino acids
c) Deficiency can lead to obesity b) Urea
d) Is an enzyme c) Ammonia
e) Is produced in adipocytes d) Ascorbic acid
e) Porphyrins
107. Following statement are true for
oxidative deamination 113. Steroid nucleus is present in
a) Substrate is pyruvate a) Phospholipid
b) It occurs in mitochondria b) Prostaglandin
c) Removal of amino group from an c) Glycosaminoglycan
amino acid in the form of NH3 d) Cholecalciferol
d) Nature of the pathway is amphibolic e) Cholic acid
e) Generate carbon skeleton of amino
114. Which is true about secondary immune
acid
response
a) Take time to produce
108. Substrate for pyruvate production are
b) IgG predominates
a) Acetyl CoA c) Antibody affinity is high
b) Glucose d) Antibody is small amount
c) Cholesterol e) Time to peak response is generally 7 –
d) Alanine 10 days
e) Lactate
115. Acquired immunity has the following
characteristics
109. Followings are true for HDL
a) Antigen specific
a) Synthesized only in liver b) Is independent of innate immunity
b) A reservoir of Apo lipoproteins c) only T & B cells are involved.
c) Is a bad lipoprotein d) Has memory
d) Plays important role in reverse e) Primary & Secondary response is same
cholesterol transport.
116. Methods for detecting antibodies include
e) Uptake free cholesterol a) Indirect immunofluorescence
b) Coagulase test
110. Triacylglycerol rich lipoproteins are c) Hemagglutination inhibition
a) Chylomicron d) Enzyme linked immunoassay
b) Low density lipoprotein (LDL) e) Polymerase chain reaction
c) Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
117. Capsule
d) Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL)
a) Composed of polysaccharide
e) High density lipoprotein (HDL) b) Quellung reaction occur
c) Cause neutrophil chemotaxis
111. Thiamine pyrophosphate is an essential d) Bacillus has D-polyglutamate capsule
co-enzyme for e) Well Felix reaction occur
a) Conversation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
b) Transamination reaction 118. Bacterial spores are
a) Antibiotic resistance
c) Conversation of ketoglutarate to
d) Thermo Stable
succinate c) Reproductive stage in bacterial
d) Heme synthesis multiplication
e) Transketolase in HMP shunt d) easily destroyed by gamma radiation
e) Sensitive to antiseptics

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119. Genital tract infection that can cause 126. Regarding pneumonia, which are true
blockage of fallopian tubes are a) Diabetic Patient – Klebsiella
a) N. Gonorrhea b) Rusty sputum – Staphylococcus aureus
b) Candida c) Hyponatremia occurs in Legionella
c) Herpes genitalis pneumonia
d) M. tuberculosis d) Chlamydia psittaci causes atypical
e) Trichomonas vaginalis pneumonia
e) COPD Patient commonest organism for
120. Membrane bound organelles are pneumonia – coxiella
a) Mitochondria
127. Primary syphilis feature
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
a) Snail track ulcer
c) Centriole
b) Hard non tender ulcer chancre
d) Microtubules
c) Generalized Lymphadenopathy
e) Golgi Apparatus
d) Patchy alopecia
e) Agryll Robertson pupil present
121. Causes of painless Genital ulcer.
a) H. ducreyi 128. Regarding enterococci
b) T. Pallidum a) Grow in presence of high salt
c) Herpes Simplex virus concentration
d) Granuloma inguinale b) Part of normal flora of Large bowel
e) Behcet’s disease c) Is a common cause of UTI in
hospitalized patieut.
122. Normal flora of skin d) Administration of broad spectrum
a) Bacteroids antibiotics as catheterization are risk
b) Yeast factor
c) Acinatobacter e) Usually treated by aminoglycosides
d) Corynebacterium
e) E. Coli 129. Intranuclear inclusion body found in
a) Smallpox
123. Endospore formation is seen b) VZV
a) Clostridium difficile c) Human Papilloma
b) Bacillus d) Rabies
c) Brucella e) Nipah virus
d) Coxiella brunette 130. Multinucleated giant cell associated
e) Bacteroids fragilis viruses are
a) Coxa sackie
124. The following statement regarding b) Adenovirus
mechanism of development of resistance are c) Reo Virus
correct d) VZV
a) By increasing uptake of the drug e) Herpes simplex virus
within the Binding site,
b) By Conformational alteration in the 131. RNA nonenveloped virus are
Binding site a) Picorna virus
c) By Synthesizing enzyme b) Orthomyxovirus
d) By Forming new cell wall c) Retrovirus
e) By Developing efflux mechanism d) Reo virus
e) Corona virus
125. Heat sensitive medical devices are 132. Human papilloma virus
sterilized by a) HPV 1 to 4 cause genital wart
a) Ethylene oxide b) Can transmitted through skin
b) 70% Alcohol c) HPV 6 & 11 cause condylomata lata
c) Plasma sterilization d) Vaccine available 6, 11, 16, 18
d) Ionizing e) HPV 16 & 18 cause Ca cervix, vulva
e) Autoclave

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133. Methods of CD4 positive cells counting in 141. Risks of Massive transfusion of stored
HIV Infected patients are- blood are
a) Agglutination test a) Impaired supply of oxygen to tissue
b) ELISA b) Hypercalcemia
c) Flow cytometry c) Myocardial impairment
d) Microchip CD4 counting method d) ARDS
e) Immunoelectrophoresis e) Hypercoagulability
134. Nipah Virus-
142. Total parenteral nutrition
a) Member of paramyxovirus
a) Most commonly administered via any
b) Trigger GBS
vein
c) Cause encephalitis
b) Is indicated in approximately 25% of
d) Human to human transmission occur
patients in hospital, requiring nutritional
e) Bats are not natural reservoir
support
135. Type to covid-19 vaccine- c) Is indicated in all patients having
a) Protein based vaccine paralytic ileus
b) Viral vector vaccine d) Should be administered using infusion
c) RNA vaccine pump
d) Toxoid vaccine e) May induce hepatocyte dysfunction
e) Inactivated virus vaccine
143. Advantages of minimal access surgery
136. True statements about p. falciparum are
a) Incubation period more than 2 months a) Decreased heat loss from body cavities
b) Persists in liver as hypnozoite state b) Easy retrieval of larger specimens
c) Attack only normoblast c) Less wound related complications
d) Duration of a sexual cycle 48 hours d) Excellent tactile feedback
e) Recrudescence upto 1 year e) Early ambulation
137. Parasite residing intracellularly
a) Trichinella spiralis 144. Regarding diathermy
b) Babesia a) Unipolar has 2 active electrodes
c) Trypanosoma brucei b) May interfere with cardiac pacemaker
d) Cryptosporidium c) Electric current flows in one direction
e) Plasmodium d) In cutting mode there is interrupted
waveform of current
138. Parasites cause acute abdomen e) Bipolar can be used in circumcision
a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Cholonorchis sinensis 145. Muscle wasting during stress response
c) Entamoeba histolytica a) Provides amino acids to peripheral
d) Oxyuris vermicularis tissues
e) Wuchereia bancrofti b) Activated by the ubiquitin–proteasome
139. Discharging sinus may present- pathway
a) Scrofuloderma c) Major site is peripheral smooth
b) Madura foot muscles
c) Actinomycosis d) Can occur in respiratory muscles
d) Aspergillus e) Can result in death
e) Candida
146. Positive acute phase proteins are
140. Epstin Barr virus associated a) Albumin
complication b) CRP
a) severe pharyngeal edema c) Clotting factor I
b) Cranial nerve palsy d) Calcium
c) Meningoencephalitis e) Myoglobin
d) Thrombocytosis
e) Agranulocytosis

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147. Following agents are used for the 154. The main complications of abdominal
treatment of postoperative shivering surgery
a) Tramadol a) Paralytic ileus
b) Fentanyl b) Bleeding
c) Pethidine c) Perforation
d) Suxamethonium d) Abscess
e) Thiopentone e) Anastomotic leakage
148. Following drugs are volatile anesthetic
agents 155. Regarding splenectomy
a) Propofol a) Partial splenectomy can result in
b) Halothane splenic regeneration.
c) Enflurane b) During splenectomy the tail of the
d) Etomidate pancreas can be damaged.
e) Desflurane c) A gastric or pancreatic fistula can occur
as a post-splenectomy complication.
149. True In Ménétrier’s disease
d) In a left hemicolectomy the spleen can
a) Hyperchlorhydria
be in danger.
b) Gastric mucosal hypertrophy
e) The risk of opportunistic post-
c) Causes chronic gastritis
splenectomy infection (OPSI) is greatest
d) The disease is not premalignant
after the first 6 months of splenectomy.
e) Caused by over expression of
transforming growth factor alpha (TGF-
156. In hydatid disease
alpha)
a) The causative organism is E.
150. Premalignant conditions regarding granulosus
carcinoma of stomach b) Humans are definitive host
a) Iron deficiency anemia c) The normal intermediate host is the
b) Intestinal metaplasia dog
c) Agammaglobulinemia d) Hepatic lesions are often
d) Benign gastric ulcer asymptomatic
e) Adenomatous polyps less than 2 cm e) Diagnosis is made by needle aspiration
151. Regarding GOO of a suspected lesion
a) Bilious vomitus
b) Stenosis in first part of the duodenum 157. Features of acute pancreatitis include
c) Succussion splash a) Increased blood urea nitrogen
d) Early satiety b) Hypocalcaemia
e) Alkaline urine c) Hypoglycemia
152. Fluid loss in intestinal obstruction is due e) Raised HCT
to e) Hypokalemia
a) Vomiting
b) Increased intestinal absorption 158. Regarding osteomalacia
c) Hypovolemic shock a) S. ALP – normal
d) Fluid sequestration in the lumen of b) Bowing of diaphysis
bowel c) S. Calcium increase
e) Increased oral intake d) Deformity of skull
e) Cupping of metaphysis
153. Regarding colorectal cancers
a) Intake of calcium & selenium increase 159. Ankylosing spondylitis
the risk a) May begin in the sacroiliac joints
b) Most arises from the right side b) Is a process of calcification and
c) Microscopically they are columnar cell ossification of cartilage
adenocarcinoma c) Occurs most commonly in women
d) Neoadjuvant therapies reduce local d) Can be partly diagnosed by tissue
recurrence typing
e) Distant metastasis is a late feature e) Is a variant of rheumatoid arthritis

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160. The causal organisms in acute 167. Intra-venous urography
osteomyelitis in AIDS patient are a) Is superior to ultrasonography in
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis detecting kidney stone
b) Staphylococcus aureus b) Gives the same information as CT scan
c) Proteus mirabilis c) Causes injury to body
d) Pseudomonas d) Gives information about functional
e) E. coli status of the kidneys
e) Is technically very difficult to perform
161. Signs of a basal skull fracture
a) Pneumotympanum 168. Decreased pulmonary blood flow seen in
b) Raccoon’s sign a) Transposition of great vessels
c) Radiological evidence of intra-thoracic b) Total anomalous pulmonary venous
air return
d) CSF from nose or ear c) Tetralogy of Fallot
e) Battle’s sign d) Tricuspid atresia
e) Truncus arteriosus
162. Brown–Sequard syndrome
a) Loss of vibration 169. Ultrasonic measurements used to
b) Loss of ipsilateral power confirm gestational age are
c) Loss of contralateral power a) Crown-ramp length
d) Loss of ipsilateral pain b) Biparietal diameter
e) Loss of contralateral temperature c) Nuchal pad thickness
d) Gestational sac volume
163. Regarding Paget disease of bone- e) Yolk sac volume
a) Imbalance between osteoclast and
170. Causes of oligohydramnios are
osteoblast function
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Biopsy reveals a mosaic pattern of
b) Renal agenesis
lamellar bone
c) Poor placental perfusion
c) Low Serum calcium and phosphate
d) Anencephaly
levels are diagnostic
e) Post term pregnancy
d) Serum ALP concentration is decreased
e) Treatment: Bisphosphonates 171. Coagulation failure is an important
complication of
164. In high radial nerve palsy- a) Placenta previa
a) Lesion above the elbow b) Abruptio-placenta
b) Wrist drops c) Amniotic fluid embolism
c) Clawing of finger d) Gram-negative septicemia
d) Finger drops e) Uterine rupture
e) Tendon transfer bring good results
172. Regarding hypospadias
165. Contrast agents used in computed a) Deficient dorsal foreskin
tomography b) May be associated with bilateral UDT
a) Gadolinium c) May be associates with DSD
b) Iohexol d) Ideal age of repair in 6-12 months of
c) Iopamiro age
d) Iron magnetite e) Ritual circumcision can be done
e) Water
173. Regarding TAO
166. Risk factors for venous a) Common in male
thromboembolism b) Age more than 40 years
a) Heart failure c) Smoker
b) Nephrotic syndrome d) PMN leukocytes infiltrate only the
c) Paraproteinemia intima of the small and medium sized
d) Polycythemia arteries
e) Progesterone only pill e) Rest pain precedes claudication

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174. Serous tumors of ovary 180. Tonsils are supplied by following
a) Typically, smaller is size than mucinous arteries
tumor a) Lingual artery
b) Squamous metaplasia is frequently b) Descending pharyngeal artery
seen c) Branch form facial artery
c) BRCA-2 germline mutation causes a d) Ethmoidal artery
high risk of tumor development e) Branch from maxillary artery
d) Often unilateral
e) Psammoma calcification is a feature SBA
181. Copper is an essential constituents of
175. Common conditions causing secondary serum enzymes. Which function of copper is
amenorrhoea includes more vital for human body?
a) Asharman’s syndrome a) development of bone and nervous
b) Hypothalamic dysfunction system
c) Poly/cystic ovary syndrome b) necessary for synthesis of melanin
d) Hypoprolactinaemia c) for conversion from ferric to ferrous
e) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia iron
d) copper is involved mostly in metabolic
176. Accommodation function
a) Is weak in presbyopia e) synthesis of hemoglobin
b) Is a reflex mechanism
c) Helps for distance vision 182. Unmyelinated fibers are covered by :
d) Is paralyzed by pilocarpine a) Oligodendrocytes
e) Needs pupil constriction b) Schwann cell sheaths
c) Psammoma body
177. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by d) Myelin figures
a) Ptosis e) Schwann cell
b) Facial hyperhidrosis 183. A man of 45 years old came with fatigue
c) Miosis on climbing stairs, shortness of breath. He
d) Exophthalmos was diagnosed as a case of hypertrophic
e) Mydriasis cardiomyopathy. Which of the following
substance deficiency may have caused this?
178. Common causes of conductive hearing a) Dystrophin
loss in children are b) Troponin I
a) Otitis media with effusion c) Troponin T
b) Otosclerosis d) CKM- B
c) Acute otitis media e) Actin
d) Impacted wax
e) Congenital cholesteatoma
184. Caseating granuloma consistent with-
179. Regarding nasopharyngeal carcinoma a) TB
a) It is caused by EBV b) Crohn's disease
b) Commonest presentation is upper c) Meliodosis
neck swelling d) Brucellosis
c) Recurrent severe epistaxis is the main e) Aspergillosis
symptom
d) Sino-nasal undifferentiated carcinoma
185. Peculiarity of neoplastic cell -
is the differential diagnosis
e) Surgery is the mainstay of treatment a) Activating mutation of RB gene
b) Shortening of telomere
c) TP53 gene mutation is not mandatory
d) Warberg effect
e) Oxidative phosphorylation

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186. A patient undergone intra-arterial 190. A 42 years lady has an Axillary node
thrombolysis as a part of his hyperacute clearance for breast malignancy. Post
stroke management. Following the procedure operatively she reports weakness of the
shoulder she is unable to push herself
he develop breathlessness, delirium, purplish
forwards from a wall with the right arm and
skin rash over his acral parts. Possible the scapula is pushed out medially from the
explanation? chest wall. what is the most likely nerve
a) Pulmonary embolism injury?
b) Fluid embolism a) Spinal accessory nerve
c) Air embolism b) Median nerve
d) Cholesterol embolism c) Long thoracic nerve
d) C8, T1
e) Thromboembolism
e) C5, C6

187. Which one of the following drugs may 191. On inspecting the caecum, which of the
cause a precipitous fall in blood pressure and following structure is most likely to be
fainting on initial administration? identified at the point at which all the tenia
a. Atenolol coli converge?
a) Appendix tip
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Appendix base
c. Nifedipine c) Illeocecal valve
d. Prazosin d) Ileocolic artery
e. Verapamil e) Gonadal vessels

188. A 45-year-old man has recently been 192. A 30 year old boy becomes unwell while
helping scene of a earthquake.He develop
diagnosed with hypertension and started on
vomiting and afterwards diarrhea that is
monotherapy designed to reduce peripheral loose and extremely watery . what is the most
resistance and prevent NaCl and water likely organism?
retention. He has developed a persistent a) Campylobacter jejuni
cough. Which of the following drugs would b) Vibrio cholera
have the same benefits but would not cause c) Enterohaemorragic E.coli
cough? d) Clostridium Perfringes
e) Clostridium botulinum
a. Losartan
b. Nifedipine 193. which of the following is true regarding
c. Prazosin salmonella?
d. Propranolol a) Rose spots appear in all patients with
e. Labetalol typhoid
b) They Are normally present in gut as
commensals
189. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia occurs in
c) subsequent chronic biliary infection in
a) Hemolytic anemia 75% cases
b) Crigler Najjar syndrome d) A relative bradycardia is often seen in
c) Dubin johnson syndrome typhoid fever
d) Pre hepatic jaundice e) salmonella typhoid can be categorized
e) Gilbert syndrome into type A, B, C

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194. A 22 year old male presents with cramping abdominal pain, diarrhoea and bloating, stool
floats in toilet, no blood with stool.He just returned from holiday in Egypt .what is the most likely
cause?
a) Cryptosporidium
b) salmonella spp
c) E. Coli
d) chronic pancreatitis
e) Giardia lamblia

195. A HIV positive patient admitted hospital with diarrhoea. his CD4 count <50. which of the
organism most likely responsible?
a) Adenovirus
b) Norovirus
c) vibrio cholera
d) Clostridium difficile
e) cryptosporidium

196. Lack of physical exercise may be associated with following tumors except –
a) Breast
b) Endometrium
c) Kidney
d) Colon
e) Urinary bladder

197. Regarding Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis which one is true?

a) Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy is performed
b) No genetic predisposition
c) Incidence in UK is 1:1000
d) Presents with bilious projectile vomiting
e) Common in girl

198. The main etiological factor for urothelial cell carcinoma of the bladder –
a) dye worker.
b) Cigarette smoking.
c) Benzidine.
d) 2- naphthylamine.
e) None of the above.

199. A patient presents with fever, Parotitis, Orchitis. Which enzyme is found in blood?
a) S. Amylase
b) Ceruloplasmin
c) PSA
d) S lipase
e) ALT

200. Acute retention of urine does not occur in

a) Phimosis
b) Paraphimosis
c) Stricture urethra
d) Cystocele
e) Posterior urethral valve

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