DROPPER NEET

MKNY/101 Milestone Test-1 Phase-1

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 18/06/2023 M.MARKS: 720

Code-A
Topic Covered
Physics : Basic Maths & Calculus, Vector, Units and Dimension, Motion in a Straight line, Motion in a Plane,
Newton's law of Motion
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Redox reactions, IUPAC
Botany : Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, The Living World
Zoology : Structural Organization in Animals, Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation

GENERAL INSTRUCTION

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.

2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics), Section -
II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and Section
B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 6. If vectors A and B are such that
dy | A + B| = | A | = | B|, then | A − B | may be equated
1. If x = at4 and y = bt3. Find
dx
to
4a 3b
(1) (2) 3
3bt 4at (1) |A| (2) | A |
2
3a 4b
(3) (4) (3) 2 |A| (4) 3|A|
4bt 3at

7. The angle that the vector A = 2iˆ + 3jˆ makes with

2. The slope of graph as shown in figure at points 1, 2
and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively, then y-axis is
(1) tan–1 (3/2) (2) tan–1 (2/3)
(3) sin–1 (2/3) (4) cos–1 (3/2)

8. The resultant of A and B is perpendicular to A .

What is the angle between A and B ?
(1) m1 > m2 > m3 A  A
(1) cos−1   (2) cos−1  − 
(2) m1 < m2 < m3  B  B
(3) m1 = m2 = m3 A  A
(3) sin −1   (4) sin −1  − 
(4) m1 = m3 > m2  B  B

3. The minimum value of y = 5x2 – 2x + 1 is 9. Let A = ˆiAcos  + ˆjAsin , be any vector. Another
1 2
(1) (2) vector B which is normal to A is :
5 5
(1) ˆiBcos  + ˆjBsin 
4 3
(3) (4) (2) ˆiBsin  + ˆjBcos 
5 5
(3) ˆiBsin  − ˆjBcos 
(4) ˆiAcos  − ˆjAsin 

2 2
4. Value of  3x dx +  sin xdx is
2

0 0
10. If A = 3iˆ + 4jˆ and B = 6iˆ + 8j,
ˆ A and B are the
(1) 8 (2) 7
(3) 9 (4) 10 magnitudes of A and B, then which of the
following is not true ?
5. The velocity-time graph of a car moving along a A 1
(1) A  B = 0 (2) =
straight road is shown in figure. The average B 2
velocity of the car in first 25 seconds is – (3) A  B = 48 (4) A = 5

11. For a body, angular velocity  = ˆi − 2jˆ + 3kˆ and

radius vector r = ˆi + ˆj + kˆ then its velocity,
(v =  r) is ?
(1) −5iˆ + 2jˆ + 3kˆ (2) −5iˆ + 2jˆ − 3kˆ
(3) −5iˆ − 2jˆ + 3kˆ (4) −5iˆ − 2jˆ − 3kˆ

12. If the unit of length is micrometre and unit of time

(1) 20 m/s (2) 14 m/s is microsecond, the unit of velocity will be :-
(3) 10 m/s (4) 17.5 m/s (1) 100 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) micrometre/s (4) m/s

[2]
13. A wave is represented by y = a sin (At – Bx + C) 20. A body with mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force
where A, B, C are constants. The dimensions of A, F = (−3iˆ + 4j)N
ˆ . If its initial velocity at t = 0 is
B, C are
u = (6iˆ − 12j)ms
ˆ −1 , the time at which it will just
(1) T–1, L, M0L0T0 (2) T–1, L–1, M0L0T0
(3) T, L, M (4) T–1, L–1, M–1 have a velocity along the Y-axis is
(1) never (2) 10 s
(3) 2 s (4) 15 s
dv
14. The equation = AT − Bv is describing the rate
dt
21. For a body of 25 kg mass, the velocity-time graph
of change of velocity of a body falling from rest in
is shown in figure. The force acting on the body is:
a resisting medium. The dimensions of A and B
are
(1) LT–3, T (2) LT–3, T–1
(3) LT, T (4) LT, T–1

15. If energy (E), velocity (V) and force (F), be taken

as fundamental quantities, then what are the (1) 25 N (2) 50 N
dimensions of mass :- (3) 12.5 N (4) 100 N
(1) EV2 (2) EV–2
(3) FV –1
(4) FV–2 22. A 100 g tennis ball coming at a speed of 20 m/s is
hit straight back by a bat to speed of 40 m/s. The
V magnitude of the average force F on the ball, when
16. The resistance is R = where V = (100 ± 5) volt it is in contact for 5 ms with the bat is: -
I
and I = (10 ± 0.2) ampere. What is the total error is (1) 1200 N (2) 6000 N
R? (3) 2400 N (4) 1000 N
(1) 5% (2) 7%
23. A body of mass 2 kg has an initial speed 5 ms–1. A
5
(3) 5.2 % (4)   % force acts on it for some time in the direction of
2 motion. The force-time graph is shown in figure.
The final speed of the body is:
17. In main scale of a vernier callipers 1 cm divided
into 10 equal divisions. The vernier scale has 10
equal divisions that correspond to 9 main scale
divisions. The measured value by this calliper is-

(1) 2.82 cm (2) 2.83 cm

(1) 9.25 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1
(3) 2.87 cm (4) 2.89 cm
(3) 14.3 ms–1 (4) 4.25 ms–1
18. A particle is moving with a constant speed along a
24. A particle moves in straight line in same direction
straight line path. A force is not required to
for 20 sec. with velocity 3 m/s and then moves
(1) Increase its speed
with velocity 4 m/s for another 20 sec. and finally
(2) Decrease the momentum moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 sec. What is
(3) Change the direction the average velocity of the particle?
(4) Keep it moving with uniform velocity (1) 3 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s (4) Zero
19. A car of mass m moving towards east with a
constant velocity v. If after some time car takes a 25. A car starts from rest travelling with constant
turn towards north and continues to move with acceleration. If distance covered by it in 10th
same speed, find change in magnitude of second of its journey is 19m, what will be the
momentum of the car. acceleration of car?
(1) Zero (2) 2mv (1) 4 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
(3) 3mv (4) 2mv (3) 2 m/s 2
(4) 1 m/s2

[3]
26. Drops of water fall from the roof of a building 27m 31. A bird is flying towards south with a velocity
high at regular intervals of time. When the first 40km/h and a train is moving with a velocity 40
drop reaches the ground, at the same instant fourth km/h towards east. What is the velocity of the bird
drop begins to fall. What are the distances of the w.r.t. an observer in the train?
second and third drops from the roof? (1) 40 2 km / h.N − E
(1) 6 m and 12 m (2) 6 m and 3 m (2) 40 2 km / h.S − E
(3) 12 m and 3 m (4) 8 m and 2 m
(3) 40 2 km / h.S − W

27. Which of the following velocity-time graphs (4) 40 2 km / h.N − W

represents uniformly accelerated motion?
32. If rain is falling at some angle from vertical and
has horizontal velocity 2 m/s in east direction.
(1) With what velocity a man must move on the
horizontal surface so that rain will appear vertical
to him: -
(1) 4 m/s in east direction
(2) 2 m/s in east direction
(2) (3) 2 m/s in west direction
(4) 2 m/s in a circular path:

33. A boat-man can row a boat to make it move with a

speed of 10 km/h in still water. River flows
(3) steadily at the rate of 6 km/h. and the width of the
river is 4 km. If the boat-man cross the river along
the minimum distance of approach then time
elapsed in rowing the boat will be:
2 3 2
(1) h (2) h
(4) 5 5 3
3 2 1
(3) h (4) h
5 2

28. A projectile is projected with initial velocity 34. A projectile is thrown into space so as to have the
maximum possible horizontal range equal to
(5i + 12j)m / s . If g = 10 ms−2 , then horizontal 200m. Taking the point of projection as the origin,
range is: the coordinates of the point where the velocity of
(1) 4.8 metre (2) 9.6 metre the projectile is minimum are:
(3) 19.2 metre (4) 12 metre (1) (200, 100) m (2) (50, 200) m
(3) (100, 50) m (4) (50, 100) m
29. A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an
angle of 60° to the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at 35. A boy wants to jump from building A to building
the highest point of its flight will be: – B. Height of building A is 39.2 m and building B
E E is 19.6m. Distance between buildings is 20 m.
(1) (2) Assuming boy jumps horizontally, then calculate
4 2
minimum velocity with which boy has to jump to
E
(3) (4) zero land safely on building B: -]
2

30. An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of

90 km/h drops a food packet while flying at a
height of 490 m. The horizontal range of the
packet is:
(1) 180 m (2) 250 m
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 500 m (4) 670 m
(3) 9.8 m/s (4) 19.6 m/s

[4]
 SECTION – B 39. A circular arc is of length  cm. Find angle
36. A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of subtended by it at the centre in radian and degree.
v = aiˆ + bjˆ . if range of the projectile is four times
the maximum height attained by it then :
(1) a = 2b (2) b = a
(3) b = 2a (4) b = 4a

37. Correct FBD of Block B (mass m, Fs = spring force) (1) 60° (2) 30°
(3) 90° (4) 15°

40. A river is flowing from West to East with a speed

of 5 m/min. A man can swim in still water with a
velocity 10 m/min. In which direction should the
man swim so as to take the shortest possible path
to go to the south: -
(1) 30° with downstream
(2) 60° with downstream
(1) (3) 120° with downstream
(4) South

41. The number of significant zeros in the number

0.040200 is
(1) 5 (2) 4
(2) (3) 2 (4) 3

42. A particle is in one-dimensional motion such that

its position as a function of time is given by
s = bt + ct2. Match the entries in column I with
corresponding entries in column II and tick the
(3) correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) Acceleration of particle (p) 3b + 9c
at t = 2 s
(b) Average velocity in (q) 4c + b
first 3 s
(4) (c) Displacement in first (r) 2c
3 second
(d) Velocity at t = 2s (s) b + 3c
(1) a-(q), (b)-(p), c-(s), d-(r)
(2) a-(r), (b)-(s), c-(q), d-(p)
38. Two projectiles are projected with velocity vA,vB at
(3) a-(r), (b)-(q), c-(s), d-(p)
angles  (from horizontal) and B (from vertical)
(4) a-(r), (b)-(s), c-(p), d-(q)
as shown in the figure below, such that vA  vB but
having same horizontal component of velocity.
43. Assertion : Mass is a measure of inertia of the
Which of the following can not be correct? body in linear motion.
Reason : Greater the mass, greater is the force
required to change its state of rest or of uniform
motion.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(1) TA  TB (2) HA  HB is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(3) RA  RB (4) RB  RA
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

[5]
44. Statement 1: Relative velocity of A w.r.t. B is 47. A ball is projected by a man in upward direction
greater than the velocity of either, when they are and it attains the maximum height 45 m. If the ball
moving in opposite directions. is projected by the man with the same speed at an
Statement 2 : Relative velocity of A w.r.t. angle  with the horizontal. The time of flight
B = vA − vB corresponds to maximum range will be ?
(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and (1) 3 2s (2) 3 s
statement 2 is correct explanation of statement (3) 2s (4) 4 s
1.
(2) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but
48. A person walks up on a stationary escalator in time
statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
4s. If he remains stationary on the escalator, then it
statement 1
can take him up in time 5s. The square of time
(3) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
taken by him to walk up the moving escalator is
(4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true. 2
9
(1)   s2 (2) 20 s2
45. Assertion : For one dimensional motion the angle  2
2
between acceleration and velocity must be zero.  20  2
Reason : One dimensional motion is always on a
(3)   s (4) 81 s2
9
straight line.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason 49. Statement 1: Newton's third law of motion
is a correct explanation for assertion. concludes that force occurs in pairs of action and
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason reaction.
is not a correct explanation for assertion Statement 2: Action and reaction both should act
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect on the same body.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (1) Statement 1 is correct whereas statement 2 is
incorrect
46. Two particles are separated by a horizontal (2) Statement 1 is incorrect whereas statement 2
distance x as shown in figure. They are projected is correct
as shown in figure with different initial speed. The (3) Both statements are correct
time after which the horizontal distance between (4) Both statements are incorrect
them becomes zero is
50. Time period of an oscillating water bubble
depends on pressure (P), density (d) and Energy
(E). Derive formula
5 1

x (1) T  P 6 d2 E 3
(1)
u 5 1
(2) T  P 6 d 2 E3
u
(2) −
5 1 1
2x (3) T  P 6 d 2 E 3
2u −
5
−
1
(3) (4) T  P 6 d 2 E3
x
(4) None of these

[6]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 59. Oxidation number of Cr atom in CrO5 and K3CrO8
51. The simplest formula of a compound containing respectively-
50% of element X (atomic mass 10) and 50% of (1) +6, +6
element Y (atomic mass 20) is- (2) +5, +6
(1) XY (2) XY3 (3) +6, +5
(3) X2Y (4) X2Y3 (4) +5, +5

52. Mass of one atom of an element is 4.0 × 10–24 g. 60. When one mole of ClO3− changes to Cl–
This is equal to- (1) It gains 6 mole electrons per mole
(1) 2.4 u (2) 24 u (2) It gains 4 mole electrons per mole
(3) 0.024 u (4) 0.24 u (3) It loses 6 mole electrons per mole
(4) It gains 3 mole electrons per mole
53. Four one litre flasks are separately filled with
gases CO2, F2, NH3 and He at same room 61. A reducing agent is a substance which can-
temperature and pressure. The ratio of total (1) Accept electron
number of atoms of these gases present in the (2) Donate electron
different flasks would be- (3) Reduce itself
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 3 (4) Oxidises another species
(3) 3 : 2 : 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 : 3 : 2
62. For the redox reaction :
54. The number of moles of electrons present in Fe2+ + Cr2O72− + H+ ⎯⎯ → Fe3+ + Cr3+ + H2O
64 g of CH4.
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the
(1) 64 (2) 40 balanced reaction are-
(3) 24 (4) 16
Fe 2+ Cr2O72− H
55. With increase of temperature, which of these (1) 1 6 12
changes? (2) 5 2 14
(3) 6 3 10
(1) Molality
(4) 6 1 14
(2) Weight fraction of solute
(3) Molarity
63. The oxidation state of phosphorous in various
(4) Mole fraction
compounds vary between-
(1) –3 to +5
56. In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3, the
(2) –1 to +3
number of moles of product formed will be
(3) –3 to +3
________, if starting from 2 moles of A,
(4) –5 to +5
1.2 moles of B and 1.44 moles of C.
(1) 0.48 (2) 0.3
64. The equivalent weight of MnCl2 is half of its
(3) 0.6 (4) 1 molecular weight when it is converted to-
(1) MnO−4 (2) Mn2O3
57. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled
in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water (3) MnO2 (4) MnO24−
produced in this reaction will be-
(1) 3 mol (2) 4 mol 65. The value of n in the following half equation is-
(3) 1 mol (4) 2 mol MnO4− + 2H2O + ne− → MnO2 + 4OH
(1) 3 (2) 5
58. The percentage of ethyl alcohol by weight is 46% (3) 4 (4) 6
in a mixture of ethyl alcohol and water. The mole
fraction of alcohol in this solution is- 66. Which compound acts as oxidising agent only?
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.75 (1) SO2 (2) H2S
(3) 0.46 (4) 0.54 (3) H2SO4 (4) HNO2

[7]
67. For the given redox reaction, 71. Number of sp2–sp2 sigma bonds in given
MnO4− + C2O42− + H+ → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O compound are:
The number of mole of permanganate ion required
per mole of oxalate ion for completion of reaction is-
1 2
(1) (2) (1) 2 (2) 3
5 5
5 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
(3) (4)
2 5
72. In given compound the C2–C3 bond is the type of:
68. Which of the following name is not correct HCC–CH2–CH=CH–CH3
according to IUPAC name system? (1) sp – sp2 (2) sp3 – sp3
CH2–Cl
(3) sp – sp3 (4) sp2 – sp2

(1)
73. The IUPAC name for isobutyl chloride is:
1-Chloro-1-phenylmethane (1) 2-Methyl-2-chlorobutane
(2) CH3–C–CH2–CH2–CH2COOH (2) 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane
(3) 1-Chloro-2-methylpropane
O
5-Oxohexanoic acid (4) 2-Methyl-3-chloropropane
(3) Br–CH2–CH=CH2
1-Bromoprop-2-ene 74. How many maximum numbers of alkyl radicals
CH3 that can be possible from isopentane?
(4) CH3–CH2–C–CH2–CH–CH3 (1) 5 (2) 4
Br CH3 (3) 3 (4) 2
4-Bromo-2,4-dimethylhexane
75. Observe the following table.
69. The IUPAC name of given compound is: Compound Common name IUPAC
CH3–CH–CHO name
CH3–OH Methyl alcohol I
(1) 1-Cyclobutylethane carbaldehyde CH3CH2CH2OH n-propyl alcohol Propan-1-ol
(2) 2-Cyclobutylpropanal CH3–CH–CH3 II Propan-2-ol
(3) 2-Cyclobutylpropanone OH
(4) Cyclobutanepropanal
III n-butyl alcohol Butan-1-ol
70. Which of the following has longest principle chain Identify I, II and III from the above table.
of carbon atoms? (1) I → methanol; II → tert-propyl alcohol;
CH2–CH3 III→CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(1) CH3–CH–CH2–CH–CH3 (2) I → methanol; II → propyl alcohol;
CH2–CH3 III→CH3CH2CH2OH
H3C CH3 CH3 (3) I → methanol; II → iso-propyl alcohol;
C III→CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(2) CH3–CH2–C–CH2–CH3 (4) I → methanol; II → tert-propyl alcohol;
III→CH3CH2CH2OH
C
H3C CH3 CH3 76. The IUPAC name of given compound is:
H3C CH3 CH3 O
C CH3 – CH – C – CH – OCH2CH3
(3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CH–CH3 OCH3 CH3
C (1) 2-Ethoxy-4-methoxypentan-2-one
H3C CH3 CH3 (2) 2-Methoxy-4-ethoxypentan-3-one
CH3 (3) 2-Ethoxy-4-methoxypentan-3-one
(4) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CH–CH2–CH3 (4) 2-Ethoxy-3-methoxypentan-3-one
CH2–CH3

[8]
77. The IUPAC name of following is: 83. The correct IUPAC name of 2-Ethyl-3-pentyne is:
(1) 3-Methyl-2-hexyne (2) 4-Ethyl-1-pentyne
(3) 4-Methyl-2-hexyne (4) 3-Ethyl-2-pentyne
Br
(1) 2-Bromo-3,4-dimethylhexane 84. The IUPAC name of the given compound is:
(2) 2,3-Dimethyl-5-bromohexane CH2–CN
(3) 2-Bromo-4,5-dimethylhexane
CH–CN
(4) 5-Bromo-2,3-dimethylhexane
CH2–CN
78. The correct IUPAC name of following will be: (1) 1,2,3-Tricyanopropane
CH3–CH2–C–COOH (2) Propane-1,1,1-tricarbonitrile
||
CH2 (3) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
(4) 3-Cyanopentane dicyanide
(1) 2-Methylbutanoic acid
(2) 2-Ethylpropanoic acid 85. Which is not the first member of given
(3) 2-Carboxy-1-butene homologous series?
(4) 2-Ethyl-2-propenoic acid (1) Alkadiene CH2=C=CH2
(2) Alkenyne HCC–CH=CH2
79. IUPAC name of the following is: (3) Ethyl ester CH3–CH2–O–C–CH3
O
O
(4) Ketone CH3–C–CH3
(1) 4,5-Dimethyloct-4-ene
(2) 3,4-Dimethyloct-5-ene SECTION-B
(3) 4,5-Dimethyloct-5-ene 86. The average atomic mass of neon based on
(4) 4,5-Dimethyloct-3-ene following data is:
Isotope Relative abundance
80. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
20
Ne 0.9051
(1) Acrylonitrile CH2=CH–CN
21
Ne 0.0027
(2) Allyl chloride CH2=CH–CH2Cl
22
Ne 0.0922
(3) s-Butyl group (1) 0.33 u (2) 20.187 u
CH3 –CH–C2H5
(3) 6.729 u (4) 18.058 u
(4) Vinyl chloride HCC–Cl
87. Which of the following combination of volumes
81. The Cl–C–Cl bond angle in 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethene (in mL) of C2H4(g) and O2(g) respectively is
and tetrachloromethane respectively are: required to obtain 400 mL of CO2(g)?
(All volumes are measured at STP).
(1) 120º and 109.5º
(1) 100, 300 (2) 200, 600
(2) 109.5º and 109.5º
(3) 200, 200 (4) 300, 300
(3) 109.5º and 120º
(4) 120º and 180º 88. 20 mL of CO is exploded with 30 mL of O2. Final
volume of the gases in mL will be at same T and P.
82. The IUPAC name of the following compound is: 2CO + O2 → 2CO2
COOH (1) 35 (2) 40
(3) 50 (4) 60

89. Aqueous solution of urea is 20% by mass of

solution. Molarity of the solution when density of
HO CN solution is 1.2 g/mL is-
(1) 5-Cyano-3-hydroxycyclohex-2-ene (1) 2 M (2) 4 M
carboxylic acid (3) 16 M (4) 8 M
(2) 3-Hydroxy-5-cyanocyclohex-5-enoic acid
(3) 3-Hydroxy-5-cyanocyclohex-2-enoic acid 90. Which among the following will not act as a
(4) 3-Carboxy-5-hydroxycyclohex-5-ene reducing agent?
carbonitrile (1) KNO2 (2) KI
(3) NaNO3 (4) H2S

[9]
91. Which is not an example disproportionation 96. The IUPAC name of the following compound is:
reaction? O
(1) Cl2 (g) + 2OH(aq) → CH3–CH CH – C – CH2Br
ClO (aq) + Cl (aq) + H2O(l)
− −
O
(2) 4ClO (aq) → 3ClO4− (aq) + 2Cl− (aq)
−
3
C
H3C CH3
(3) 2F2 (g) + 2OH(aq) →
(1) 1-Bromo-3,4-epoxy-4,4-dimethyl-2-hexanone
2F− (aq) + OF2 (g) + H2O(l) (2) 1-Bromo-3,3-dimethyl-2-oxo-2-hexanone
(4) S8 (s) + 12OH(aq) → (3) 1-Bromo-3,5-epoxy-4,4-dimethyl-2-hexanone
4S2− (aq) + 2S2O32− (aq) + 6H2O(l) (4) 1-Bromo-4,4-dimethyl-5-oxo-hexanone

92. CaCO3 decomposes to give CaO and CO2, if the 97. The common name of given ester is:
masses of CaO and CO2 produced are 5.6 g and CH3 CH3
4.4 g respectively by heating 12 g of an impure
CH3 – CH – C – O – C – CH3
CaCO3 sample, then the percentage impurity of
sample will be- O CH3
(1) 33.33% (2) 16.67% (1) Neobutyl isobutyrate
(3) 83.33% (4) 20% (2) t-Butyl n-butyrate
(3) t-Butyl isobutyrate
93. Assertion: The empirical mass of ethene is half of
its molecular mass. (4) Isobutyl isobutyrate
Reason: The empirical formula represents the
simplest whole number ratio of various atoms 98. The IUPAC name of the compound is:
present in a compound. CH3 – C = C –– CH – CH2 – C  CH
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
Cl CH3 C2H5
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason (1) 6-Chloro-4-ethyl-5-methylhept-5-en-1-yne
is not a correct explanation for assertion. (2) 5-Methyl-4-ethyl-6-chlorohept-5-en-1-yne
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect. (3) 6-Chloro-4-ethyl-5-methylhept-1-en-5-yne
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (4) 2-Chloro-4-ethyl-methylhept-6-en-2-yne

OH
99. The IUPAC name of the following compound
94. The IUPAC name of is: Br
O H
(1) 2-Formyl-3-hydroxy-4-methylene pentane is:
(2) 4-Formyl-2-methyl-1-penten-3-ol Br
(3) 3-Hydroxy-2-methyl-4-methylene pentanal (1) 1,3-dibromobenzene
(4) 3-Hydroxy-2,4-dimethyl-4-pentenal
(2) m-dibromobenzene
95. The IUPAC name of following cyclic compound (3) 1,5-dibromobenzene
will be: (4) None of the above
Cl
CH3 100. Statement-I: CH2=CH–CH=CH2 is a planar
compound.
Br C2H5 Statement-II: It has 9 bonds and 2 bonds.
(1) 4-Bromo-6-chloro-2-ethyl-1- (1) Statement-I and II are correct.
methylcyclohexene
(2) Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(2) 5-Bromo-1-chloro-3-ethyl-2-
(3) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is
methylcyclohexene
(3) 5-Bromo-3-chloro-1-ethyl-2- incorrect.
methylcyclohexene (4) Statement-I is incorrect, statement-II is
(4) 1-Bromo-5-chloro-3-ethyl-4- correct.
methylcyclohexene

[10]
 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION – A 107. Consider the following diagram and select the
101. Read the following statements and choose the option which is not true regarding the labelled
option for the set of all the correct ones. part.
a. All living organisms grow but growth is not a
defining property of living organisms
b. Reproduction is the fundamental
characteristic of all living organisms
c. All the living organisms possess metabolic
reactions
d. Self-consciousness is seen in most of the
animal species
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
(1) A - Performs the function of packaging
102. The number of species that are known and material
described range between (2) B - Contains excretory products and other
(1) 35-38 million (2) 3.8-4.0 million materials
(3) 13 - 14 million (4) 1.7 - 1.8 million (3) C - Made up of cellulose
(4) D - Contains xanthophyll
103. Select the option in which the scientific name is
printed correctly. 108. The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in
(1) Solanum Nigrum (2) Panthera leo cilia and flagella is referred as
(3) Mangifera indica (4) Homo sapiens (1) 9+2 array
(2) 9+0 arrangement
104. Which feature is not observed in prokaryotic cell? (3) 12+1 array
(1) Presence of cell envelope (4) 12+2 arrangement
(2) Presence of single, double stranded, circular
DNA 109. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(3) Absence of membrane bounded cell (1) Cell wall of algae is made up of cellulose,
organelles galactans, mannans, calcium carbonate
(4) Presence of cell wall that do not provide a (2) Cell wall protects the cell from mechanical
strong structural support to prevent the damage
bacterium from bursting and collapsing. (3) Plants never contain proteins in their cell
wall
105. In which of the following process/function, there (4) Primary cell wall of young plant cell is
is no role of Mesosome? capable of growth
(1) DNA replication and distribution of DNA in
between daughter cells 110. Read the following statements and choose the
(2) Secretion process option which is true for them.
(3) Cell wall formation Statement I : The steps of cell division are
(4) Movement of cilia and flagella themselves under genetic control.
Statement II : Cell growth in terms of
106. In prokaryotes, the polysome has ribosomes with cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process.
sub-units (1) Both statement I and II are correct
(1) 50 S and 20 S attached with mRNA (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(2) 40 S and 30 S attached with rRNA incorrect
(3) 50 S and 30 S attached with mRNA (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(4) 50 S and 30 S attached with rRNA correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

[11]
111. If a yeast cell divides into two daughter cells in 90 117. The set of rules and recommendations dealing
minutes then, how much time it takes to complete with the formal names of an organism is given in
its M phase? ICBN. Which amongst the following
characteristics would be there in this organism?
(1) Less than 4.5 minutes
a. Presence of both membrane bound and
(2) More than 85.5 minutes nonmembrane bound organelles.
(3) 12-15 minutes b. Heterotrophic mode of nutrition is
(4) 50-55 minutes predominant.
c. Presence of rigid cell wall made up of
cellulose.
112. A cell undergoing reduction division has 28 d. Occurrence of 70S ribosomes in the cytosol.
chromosomes in its G1 stage. What would be the The correct one(s) is/are
number of chromosomes in this cell just after S (1) All a, b, c and d (2) c only
phase? (3) a, c and d only (4) a and c only
(1) 112 (2) 56
118. According to the cell theory given by Rudolf
(3) 28 (4) 14
Virchow.
(1) Genetic information is stored in the
113. Which event marks the start of the second phase chromosomes in a cell
of mitosis? (2) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope (3) Different cell organelles perform different
(2) Beginning of condensation of chromatin types of activities
(4) Same type of cells together form a tissue
material
(3) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator 119. Disc shaped structure present on the centromere is
(4) Assemblage of nuclear envelope known as
(1) Centrosome (2) Kinetochore
114. Which of the following event is not associated (3) Chromatin (4) Telomere
with anaphase?
120. Select the correct option regarding the
(1) Splitting of centromeres
contribution of Robert Brown.
(2) Formation of cell plate (1) He first saw and described the true cells
(3) Separation of sister chromatids (2) He first classified the living and non-living
(4) Movement of sister chromatids to opposite (3) He discovered the chromosomes in the
poles nucleus
(4) He discovered the nucleus in the cell
115. Which feature is not related with Lysosome
121. Inclusion bodies in prokaryotes do not include
(1) Vesicular structure
(1) Cyanophycean granules
(2) It is not a part of endomembrane system
(2) Glycogen granules
(3) Formed by packaging in golgi apparatus (3) Gas vacuoles
(4) Lysosome has Carbohydrases, Lipases, (4) Plasmids
proteases for digesting carbohydrates, lipids
122. The layer that glues the neighbouring plant cells
and proteins respectively
together is __(i)__ composed of __(ii)__.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i)
116. The smallest living cell known lacks and (ii).
(1) DNA as genetic material (i) (ii)
(2) Cell wall (1) Middle lamella Calcium carbonate
(3) Ribosomes with 50S & 30S subunits (2) Cell wall Galactans
(3) Middle lamella Calcium pectate
(4) Proteins in plasma membrane
(4) Secondary wall Hemicellulose

[12]
123. Assertion : Meiosis ensures the production of 129. Assertion : Cytokinesis after telophase II results
haploid stage in asexually reproducing organisms. in formation of tetrad of cells.
Reason : After meiosis haploid cells are Reason : It leads to formation of four haploid
produced. cells.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A). of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true but Reason (R) is not a correct true but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A). explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (3) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(4) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (4) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

124. The endoplasmic reticulum that bears ribosomes 130. In animal cells, during the S-phase, which of
on its surface is frequently observed in the cells following occur(s)?
which are (1) DNA replication begins in cytoplasm
(1) Involved in the synthesis of glucose but not (2) Spindle fibres forming organelle duplicates
proteins in cytoplasm
(2) Actively involved in protein synthesis and (3) Spindle fibres forming organelle duplicates
secretion in nucleus
(3) Without nucleus such as mature RBC (4) Mitochondria duplicates in cytoplasm
(4) Not showing any biochemical processes
131. Double amount of DNA per cell is present in all
125. Choose the correct set w.r.t. genus Panthera? of the following phases, except
(1) leo, indica and tuberosum (1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(2) nigrum, melongena and tigris (3) G2 phase (4) Prophase
(3) leo, pardus and tigris
(4) leo, pardus and sapiens 132. Chromosomes are composed of two sister
chromatids, held together at the centromere in
126. Choose the correct match. (1) Prophase and anaphase
(1) Division - Dicotyledonae (2) Prophase and metaphase
(2) Class - Insecta (3) Metaphase and anaphase
(3) Order - Mammalia (4) Only metaphase
(4) Family - Diptera
133. Centromere splitting and chromatid separation is
127. Quick referral system in taxonomic studies are observed at
(1) Herbaria (1) Anaphase
(2) Botanical gardens (2) Anaphase II
(3) Manuals (3) Anaphase I
(4) Keys (4) Both (1) and (2)

128. A cell of onion root tip has 16 chromosomes and 134. Recombination during meiosis occurs between
80 pg DNA in G1 phase. (1) Non-sister chromatids of homologous
Choose the correct option regarding the amount of chromosomes
DNA at the end of S phase and number of (2) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
chromosomes at G2 phase respectively. chromosomes
S phase G2 phase (3) Sister chromatids of homologous
(1) 32 Chromosomes 80 pg DNA chromosomes
(2) 16 Chromosomes 8 Chromosomes (4) Sister chromatids of non-homologous
(3) 80 pg DNA 80 pg DNA chromosomes
(4) 160 pg DNA 16 Chromosomes

[13]
135. In oocytes of some vertebrates ____ lasts for 141. Assertion A : A normal diploid human cell has
months or years. one single DNA molecule of approximately two
(1) Leptotene meter length.
(2) Pachytene Reason R : A normal diploid human cell has 23
(3) Diplotene pairs of chromosomes.
(4) Diakinesis (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
SECTION – B (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
136. The morphology of chromosomes is best studied true but Reason (R) is not a correct
at explanation of Assertion (A).
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (4) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

137. Given below diagram indicates 142. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Synaptonemal complex formation - Zygotene
(2) Recombination nodule formation - Pachytene
(3) Terminalisation of chiasmata - Diplotene
(4) Disappearance of nucleolus - Diakinesis

143. A bivalent in pachytene stage, consists of

(1) Two chromatids and one centromere
(1) Early prophase
(2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(2) Metaphase
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(3) Transition to metaphase
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres
(4) Anaphase
144. Systematics
138. Statement I : Centrioles help in formation of (1) Is the term derived from Greek word systema
spindle fibres that gives rise to spindle apparatus (2) Is taxonomy along with evolutionary
during cell division in all plant cells. relationships among organisms
Statement II : Centrioles do not form basal body (3) Does not include nomenclature of organisms
of cilia and flagella. (4) Word was first used by Lamarck in his book
(1) Both statement I and II are correct 'Species Plantarum’
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect 145. Endoplasmic reticulum is often continued with
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (1) Cell wall (2) Lysosome
correct (3) Golgi body (4) Nuclear membrane
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

139. How many generations of mitosis are required for 146. Read the following statements and choose the
producing 128 cells from a single cell? correct option.
(1) 127 (2) 160 Statement I : No organelles, like the ones in
eukaryotes, are found in prokaryotic cells except
(3) 7 (4) 5
for ribosomes.
Statement II : Fimbriae are known to help in
140. Mitosis is significant for
attaching the bacteria to rocks in streams and also
(a) Growth to the host tissue.
(b) Healing and regeneration (1) Both statement I and II are correct
(c) Repair (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(d) Maintenance of cell size incorrect
(1) Only (a) and (b) (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(2) Only (c) and (d) correct
(3) Only (b) and (c) (4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)

[14]
147. Which amongst the following in eukaryotes are 149. A condition in cell division that leads to the
not single membrane bound? formation of syncytium is
(a) Lysosome (b) Vacuole (1) Failure of segregation of chromatids after
(c) Mitochondrion (d) Centrosome metaphase
(e) Chloroplast (f) Golgi complex (2) Failure of pairing of homologous
(g) Ribosome chromosomes during cell division
(1) (c) and (e) only (2) (d) and (g) only (3) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis
(3) (a), (b) and (f) (4) (c), (d), (e) and (g) (4) Lack of nuclear envelope formation in
telophase

148. Match the column-I and column-II

150. Match the following columns and choose the
Column-I Column-II correct option.
(a) Diplotene (i) Separation of Column I Column II
homologous A. Metaphase II (i) No replication of DNA
chromosomes of each takes place
bivalent B. Interkinesis (ii) Nucleolus reappears
(b) Anaphase-I (ii) Synapsis C. Metaphase I (iii) Univalent align themselves
(c) Pachytene (iii) Dissolving at equator
synaptonemal complex D. Telophase I (iv) Alignment of bivalents at
(d) Zygotene (iv) Action of recombinase the equator
enzyme A B C D
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

[15]
 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 156. The mosaic vision of cockroach has :
151. Match the column I and column II and choose (1) More sensitivity but less resolution
correct answer : (2) Less sensitivity but more resolution
Column - I Column-II (3) Both sensitivity and resolution are high
(A) Squamous (i) Nephrons (4) Both sensitivity and resolution are low
epithelium
(B) Cuboidal (ii) Endothelium of 157. Unpaired reproductive part of male cockroach is :
epithelium blood vessels (1) Testes (2) Phallic gland
(3) Colleterial gland (4) Vas deferens
(C) Columnar (iii) Bronchioles
epithelium 158. Which statement is incorrect :
(D) Ciliated (iv) Lining of (1) Labrum act as tongue in cockroach
epithelium Stomach (2) Epithelial tissue has a free surface
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (3) Epithelial tissue provides a covering or a
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii lining for some part of the body
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) The tissues are broadly classified into
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv Epithelial, Connective, Muscular and Neural

152. Neck of cockroach is : 159. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(1) Flexible extension of prothorax as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(2) Rigid extension of mesothorax Reason (R).
(3) Flexible extension of metathorax Assertion (A) : Blood vascular system of
(4) Flexible extension of head cockroach is an open type.
Reason (R) : Blood vessel are poorly develop and
153. Which one is part of male reproductive system of open into space or Haemocoel and visceral organs
cockroach : located into the haemocoel are bathed in blood or
(1) Spermatheca hemolymph.
(2) Vestibulum In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Colleterial gland correct answer from the options given below
(4) Ejaculatory ducts (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
154. Given below are two statements : one is labelled (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
Reason (R). (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Assertion (A) : Squamous Epithelium is correct explanation of (A)
composed of single layer of cube like cells.
Reason (R) : Cuboidal Epithelium Involve in 160. Adjacent cell communicate with each other by
function like secretion and absorption. which junction :
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction
correct answer from the options given below (3) Adhering junction (4) Ligament
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) 161. Match the column I and column II and choose
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false correct answer :
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true Column - I Column-II
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (A) Hepatic caeca (i) 12 pairs
correct explanation of (A) (B) Malpighian tubules (ii) 13
(C) Alary muscles (iii) 100 – 150
155. Six highly chitinous plate like teeth are found in (D) Heart chamber (iv) 6–8
.......... of cockroach : (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(1) Maxilla (2) Mandible (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) Gizzard (4) Rectum (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

[16]
162. Which statement is incorrect : 166. The ciliated epithelium found in :
(1) Sclerite of cockroach joined to each other by (1) Fallopian tubes
cartilage (2) Air sacs of lungs
(2) Simple epithelium divided into three types (3) Ducts of glands
(3) The compound epithelium consists of two or
(4) Lining of stomach
more cell layers
(4) The squamous epithelium with irregular
boundaries 167. In cockroach chitinous plate of each segment are
join to each other by :
163. Given below are two statements : (1) Articular membrane
Statement I : In male and female both sexes of (2) Ligament
cockroach, 10th segment bear a pair of jointed (3) Arthrodial membrane
filamentous structure called anal style. (4) Both (1) & (3)
Statement-II : In male genital pouch or chamber
lies at the hind end of abdomen bounded dorsally
168. Given below are two statements :
by 9th and 10th terga and ventrally by 9th sternum.
Statement I : Nuclei in cells of columnar
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below: epithelium are located at the base.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are Statement-II : Ciliated epithelium is modified
incorrect columnar or cuboidal cells and bear cilia on their
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is free surface.
incorrect Choose the correct answer from the option given
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is below:
correct (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
164. Match the column I and column II and choose
correct answer : incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Column-I Column-II
correct
(A) Adipose (i) Skeletal connective
tissue tissue (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(B) Ligament (ii) Dense connective
tissue 169. Which junction perform cementing to keep
(C) Cartilage (iii) Loose connective neighboring cells together :
tissue (1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junction
(D) Blood (iv) Fluid connective (3) Gap junction (4) All
tissue
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv 170. Read the following statement and choose correct
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv answer :
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (a) Movement of air into and out of the lungs is
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii carried out by creating a pressure gradient
between the lungs and atmosphere
165. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Cardiac muscle tissue is a (b) Inspiration is initiated by contraction of
contractile tissue present only in heart. diaphragm which increase the volume of
Statement-II : Cardiac muscle is an involuntary thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral axis
muscle. (c) Contraction of external intercostal muscles
Choose the correct answer from the option given lift up the ribs and sternum causing increase
below: in volume antero - posterio axis
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (d) On average a healthy human breathes 12-16
incorrect time / minute
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) b, d correct and a, c incorrect
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) b, c correct and a, d incorrect
correct (3) a, d correct and b, c incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) a, b, c, d correct

[17]
171. Which of the following is correct : 179. Which of the following is correct for percentage
(1) Inspiration is an active process and transport medium :
(2) Inspiration and expiration are passive process a - 3% O2 transport by plasma
(3) Expiration is always active process b - 70% CO2 transport by HCO3–
(4) Expiration and inspiration are always active c - 7% CO2 transport by RBCs
process d - 97% O2 transport by RBCs
e - 20 - 25% CO2 transport by plasma
172. Under which condition oxygen dissociation curve (1) a, b, d (2) a, b, e
will move towards the right : (3) b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d, e
(1) Low pO2
(2) High H+ concentration and high temperature
180. Volumes of air that will remain in the lungs after
(3) High pCO2
normal expiration :
(4) All of these
(1) E.R.V + R.V = 2300 mL
173. The maximum volume of air a person can breath (2) E.R.V + R.V = 3600 mL
in after forced expiration is : (3) E.R.V + T.V = 1600 mL
(1) ERV + TV + IRV (2) ERV + TV (4) E.R.V + T.V = 3500 mL
(3) ERV + IRV (4) IRV + TV
181. Which of the following factor favour the
174. Match the following respiratory organs with dissociation of O2 from oxyhaemoglobin :
animals : (1) Low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ conc.
Respiratory organ Animals (2) Low pO2, high pCO2, low pH
(A) Gills (i) Fishes (3) Low pO2, low H+ conc., high pH
(B) Trachea (ii) Reptile (4) Both (1) and (2)
(C) Lungs (iii) Insect
182. Which of the following factor affect the rate of
(D) Moist (iv) Most aquatic
diffusion of gases :
cuticle arthropods
(v) birds (1) Solubility of gases
(vi) Earthworms (2) Partial pressure/conc. gradient of diffusing gas
(1) a - i, b - iii, iv, c - ii, v, d - vi (3) Thickness of diffusion membrane
(2) a - i, iv, b - iii, c - ii, v, d - vi (4) All of these
(3) a - i, b - iii, v, c - ii, d - vi
(4) a - i, iv, b - iii, v, c - ii, d – vi 183. Match the types of W.B.C. with their percentage
in W.B.C.
175. Thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by : Types of W.B.C % in W.B.C
(1) Vertebral column (2) Sternum (a) Basophils (i) 2-3
(3) Diaphragm and ribs (4) All of these
(b) Neutrophils (ii) 20 - 25
176. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli, atmosphere (c) Eosinophils (iii) 6 - 8
and oxygenated blood in mm Hg are :
(1) 104, 159, 40 respectively (d) Monocytes (iv) 60 - 65
(2) 104, 159, 95 respectively (e) Lymphocytes (v) 0.5 – 1
(3) 104, 95, 45 respectively (1) a - v, b - iv, c - iii, d - i, e - ii
(4) 159, 104, 95 respectively
(2) a - v, b - iv, c - i, d - iii, e - ii
(3) a - i, b - iv, c - v, d - iii, e - ii
177. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli.
(4) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii, e - v
They do not collapse even after forceful
expiration, because of :
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume 184. Read the following events of blood clotting and
(2) Tidal Volume choose correct sequence in options :
(3) Expiratory Reserve Volume (i) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(4) Residual Volume (ii) Formation of clot
(iii) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
178. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number (iv) Thromboplastin formation
can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive (1) iv → iii → i → ii
loss of blood from the body : (2) iii → iv → i → ii
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Leucocytes (3) i → iv → iii → ii
(3) Neutrophils (4) Thrombocytes (4) i → iii → iv → ii

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185. Which of the following statement is incorrect : 190. Select the true statement about RBC from the
(1) A person of O blood group has anti A and following.
anti B antibodies in blood plasma (1) RBCs have an average life span of 120 days.
(2) ABO Blood group is based on the basis of (2) RBCs are destroyed in the spleen (graveyard
presence or absence of antigen in blood of RBCs).
plasma (3) RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the
(3) Person of AB blood group is universal mammals.
recipient (4) All the above
(4) Person of O blood group is universal donors
191. Select the correct matching.
Column I Column II
SECTION – B
(A) Fishes (i) Three-chambered
186. Match the column I and column II
(B) Amphibian (ii) Four-chambered
Column I Column II
(C) Reptiles (iii) One-chambered
(a) Basophils (i) Inflammation
(b) Neutrophils (ii) Blood clotting (D) Birds (iv) Two-chambered
(E) Mammals
(c) Plasma cells (iii) Phagocytosis
(F) Crocodile
(d) Platelets (iv) Antibodies
(1) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii (1) (A), (B) → (ii)
(2) (B),(C) → (i)
(2) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv
(3) (D), (E), (F) → (iv)
(3) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
(4) (A), (B), (C) → (ii)
(4) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d – ii
192. Bundle of His consists of
187. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by
(A) Right bundle branch
administering ...... A ....... to the mother (B) Left bundle branch
immediately after the delivery of first child : (C) Purkinje fibres
(1) A - anti Rh antibodies (D) AV bundle
(2) A - Rh antibodies (1) A, B and C only (2) A, B, C ,D
(3) A - Anti Rh antigen (3) B, C and D only (4) C and D only
(4) A - Rh antigen
193. Why SA node is called the pacemaker of heart?
188. Which of the following type cells lack nucleus in (1) It can change the contractile activity
most of mammals : generated by AV node.
(1) Erythrocytes (2) It delays the transmission of impulse between
(2) Eosinophils the atria and ventricles.
(3) Neutrophils (3) It gets stimulated when it receives neural
(4) Monocyte signal.
(4) It initiates and maintains the rhythmic
189. Which of the following is correct of A : contractile activity of heart.

194. A patient with blood group ‘A' was injured in an

accident and has lost a lot of blood during injury.
Which blood group the doctor should effectively
use in this case?
(1) AB (2) A/O
(3) B/O (4) AB/A/B

(1) In A pCO2– 40 mm Hg, pO2– 95 mm Hg 195. Pulmonary circulation is required for

(2) In A pCO2– 45 mm Hg, pO2– 104 mm Hg (1) Nutrient supply to lungs.
(3) In A pCO2– 40 mm Hg, pO2– 104 mm Hg (2) Elimination of waste products from the
(4) In A pCO2– 45 mm Hg, pO2– 95 mm Hg lungs.
(3) Oxygenation of deoxygenated blood.
(4) Nutrient supply to heart.

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196. Bicuspid valve/mitral valve is found between 199. Site for exchange of gases in respiratory system of
(1) Left atrium and left ventricle. human include
(2) Right atrium and right ventricle. (1) Pharynx, trachea and bronchi
(3) Right atrium and left ventricle. (2) Alveoli and their ducts
(4) Left atrium and right ventricle. (3) All bronchi and terminal bronchioles
(4) All bronchioles and bronchi
197. An atrioventricular valve prevents the back flow
or leakage of blood from the 200. Select the blood vessel among the following
(1) Right ventricle into the right atrium. which carries least CO2 in our body?
(2) Left atrium into the left ventricle. (1) Vena cava
(3) Aorta into the left ventricle. (2) Hepatic vein
(4) Pulmonary vein into the right atrium. (3) Pulmonary vein
(4) Pulmonary artery
198. Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi
at the level of
(1) 7th thoracic vertebra
(2) 3rd thoracic vertebra
(3) 5th thoracic vertebra
(4) 7th cervical vertebra

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