SYSTEMS TEST II

ATR72-600

1. FAULT on START 2 pushbutton illuminates when:

a) A GCU failure during starting.
b) On RH engine, engine start selector is on start, propeller brake is on, but gust lock is
not engaged, or a GCU failure is detected during starting, or starter remains engaged
after 45%.
c) On RH engine, engine start selector is on start, propeller brake is on, but gust lock is
not engaged.
d) Starter remains engaged after 45%.

2. How do you shut off engine fuel supply?

a) By the PL.
b) By the CL.
c) By the FUEL 1(2) pump switch.
d) By the FUEL SO 1(2) switch.

3. What is the main engine parameter?

a) Propeller RPM (Np).
b) High pressure spool RPM (NH).
c) Low pressure spool (NL).
d) Torque (Tq).

4. The maximum ITT at starting is:

a) Up to 840 Celsius during 20 seconds.
b) Up to 950 Celsius during 5 seconds.
c) 840 < ITT< 950 Celsius: record in log book.
d) All three answers are correct.

5. During landing, when does the idle-gate move rearward to the Ground Idle position?
a) As soon as one main landing gear absorber is compressed.
b) Only after both main gear shock struts are compressed.
c) Only after all gear shock absorber are compressed.
d) Only after manual action from the pilot.

6. PROP BRK blue light is illuminated on the engine start panel and is displayed on the
EWD when:
a) Propeller brake is fully locked.
b) Propeller brake is not released.
c) Engagement or disengagement conditions are met.
d) The propeller brake is not locked in the fully locked or the fully released position.

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7. When does the ATPCS system detect an engine failure?

a) When oil press drops below 8 PSI.
b) When one torque drops below 18%.
c) When NP drops below 60% and the PL is above FI.
d) When NP drops below 60% and the CL is above FTR position.

8. During an engine failure sequence with ATPCS, ARM light goes off when:
a) Engine alive reach uptrim torque.
b) It doesn´t extinguished until we select the PWR MGT in other position than T/O.
c) Autofeathering sequence finishes in the fail engine.
d) When we select the CL to fuel S/O.

9. EEC activate the auto ignition when:

a) ITT sudden decreases due to a turbulence, water or ice ingestion.
b) When NP drops below 70.8%.
c) When NH drops below 30%.
d) When NH drops below 60%.

10. What element is used to communicate the cabin PEC inputs converting them into
electrical signals?
a) PIU (propeller interface unit).
b) PVM (propeller valve module).
c) PWR MGT (power management).
d) CL (condition Levers).

11. On ground, DC EXT PWR available and on line, DC BTC on ISOL:

a) Only DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 are isolated.
b) DC BUS 1 / DC BUS 2 and AC BUS 1 / AC BUS 2 are respectively isolated.
c) Batteries are isolated from their DC ESS / DC EMER BUS.
d) DC BUS and AC BUS 2 are isolated.

12. BAT Selector OFF means that:

a) Batteries are isolated from their respective HOT BAT BUS.
b) DC ESS BUS, DC STBY bus and INV 1 are isolated from the HOT MAIN BATTERY BUS.
c) EMER BUS is isolated from the HOT EMER.BAT BUS.
d) b + c are right.

13. In flight one arrow illuminated ON, the emergency supply shows:
a) The supply of DC STBY BUS from DC ESS or DC EMER BUS, according to the arrow
illuminated.
b) The supply of DC ESS and DC EMER BUS from DC BUS 1 or DC BUS 2.
c) The supply of DC ESS or DC EMER BUS from the corresponding HOT BAT BUS and
Battery discharging.

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14. In normal operation, the electric pump in each tank is used only to:
a) Star the engine, which pressurizes the jet pump via its HMU HP fuel pump for
subsequent pressurization on the fuel system.
b) Pressurize the jet pump, which pressurizes the fuel system for engine start and
subsequent normal operation.
c) Provide the additional fuel flow required for take-off since the jet pump alone is
incapable of maintaining such a high rate of flow.

15. When do the electric pumps normally stop?

a) Only if selected OFF pushbutton released.
b) Only if the jet pump pressure is above 8.5 PSI (600mb) the PUMP pushbutton is
(depressed).
c) Both of the above are correct.

16. Which spool is driven by the starter?

a) LP.
b) HP.
c) Power turbine.
d) NP.

17. The accessory gearbox is driven by:

a) The LP spool.
b) The power turbine
c) The HP spool
d) The power turbine and prop reduction gear box

18. Which of the following busses powers the engine fire detection systems?
a) HOT MAIN BAT BUS.
b) HOT EMER BAT BUS.
c) DC EMER BUS.
d) DC ESS BUS.

19. In normal cruise flight, what happens to the solenoid operated HP bleed valve and ENG
bleed valve on the left engine if DC BUS 2 is not powered?
a) They both close - the solenoids must be powered before these valves can open.
b) They both open (fail-safe open).
c) HP BLEED VALVE closes - BLEED VALVE opens is airflow is sufficient.
d) They operate normally, Ieft side valves are powered by DC BUS 1, right side valves
are powered by DC BUS 2.

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20. In addition to automatic closure when the associated "LEAK" or "OVHT" light is
illuminated, for what other reasons will a bleed valve automatically close?
a) Pulling related fire handle.
b) PROP BRAKE "ON" (for Ieft bleed valve ONLY).
c) Anytime the throttle is at FLIGHT IDLE.
d) Both "A" and "B" are correct.

21. In which cases does the bleed valve close automatically?

a) OVHT, Ieak or lack of air pressure.
b) Fire Handle actuated.
c) Prop. BRK on (for left bleed valve only).
d) a+b+c.

22. Air conditioning packs are installed:

a) Both in the left landing gear fairing.
b) One in each landing gear fairing (forward part).
c) One in each landing gear fairing (aft part).
d) Both in the using centre box.

23. The pneumatic outflow valve:

a) Is slaved to the electro pneumatic outflow valve, in all cases.
b) Operates in manual mode only.
c) Is slaved to the electro pneumatic outflow valve in automatic mode only.
d) Is never slaved.

24. With the pressurization mode push-button depressed (AUTO), and the man rate KNOB
at NORM, what happens to the pneumatically controlled manual outflow valve?
a) It closes.
b) It is pneumatically slaved to the electro pneumatic outflow valve.
c) It is electrically driven by the electro pneumatic outflow valve.
d) It opens.

25. On ground engine 1 not running, the ventilation panel being in AUTO configuration:
a) The OVBD valve is closed, the U/F valve is opened.
b) The OVBD valve is opened, the U/F valve is closed.
c) Both valves are closed.
d) Both valves are opened.

26. The exhaust mode p/b is on OVBD, acting on the OVBD valve override control SW?
a) You can change the position of the valve.
b) You cannot change the position of the valve.
c) You can only open the valve.
d) You can only close the valve.

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27. Exhaust mode fault illuminates in case of:

a) OVBD jammed full open.
b) OVBD valve position disagreement with associated control.
c) Fan failure or over temperature and CCAS is activated.
d) U/F valve position disagrees with associated control.

28. What is the maximum speed for windshield wiper operation?

a) 145kts.
b) 160kts.
c) 175kts.
d) 183kts.

29. What is the normal accumulator precharged pressure on the 3 gauges near the left
main gear bay?
a) 800 PSI.
b) 1 500 PSI.
c) 2 200 PSI.
d) 3 000 PSI.

30. Because of electrical system logic, the aux. Blue hydraulic pump pedestal push-button
works:
a) Only on the ground with no engine driven PC generator supplying.
b) Only on the ground but it makes no difference if an engine driven DC generator is
supplying.
c) Anytime when only battery power is available.
d) Anytime when only battery power is available or when external power is supplying.

31. With flaps in landing position, what is the highest radio altitude at which gear warnings
will occur if the gear is not down locked?
a) 1000 feet - with the gear lever set to "down".
b) 750 feet - regardless of gear Iever position.
c) 500 feet - regardless of gear Iever position.
d) 300 feet - with the gear Iever set to "up".

32. Maximum tire speed is:

a) 165 knots ground speed.
b) 165 knots indicated airspeed.
c) 165 knots true airspeed.

33. When "F" light illuminates on the antiskid panel:

a) Antiskid is lost on associated wheel.
b) Antiskid system is not activated.
c) Antiskid electrical supply is lost.

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34. RoII control operation is achieved:

a) Mechanically from the ailerons, hydraulically from the spoilers.
b) Mechanically from the spoilers, hydraulically from the ailerons.
c) Mechanically from the ailerons and spoilers.

35. SPLR lights illuminate to indicate:

a) Associated spoiler has failed.
b) Associated spoiler is in the retracted position.
c) Associated spoiler is not in the retracted position.

36. RolI trim control is performed using:

a) Only right aileron tab.
b) Only left aileron tab.
c) Both left and right aileron tab.

37. The EEC regulates the engine power depending on:

a) The power levers and PWR MGT selector position.
b) Flight conditions and the position status of the bleed air valves.
c) The condition levers and PWR MGT selector position.
d) A + B are correct.

38. Which are the conditions to engage the Propeller Brake:

a) Shock absorber compressed and gust lock on.
b) All of them are necessary.
c) Hydraulic pressure on the blue system (green ready light on).
d) CL engine #2 on FUEL S/O or FTR position.

39. In case of EEC failure in flight, we can expect the following engine reaction:
a) NH is frozen to its prior value (FAIL FIX)
b) NH and Torque provide 10% less, needing a PL manual input to restore the engine
power.
c) In case of fault light flashing, we should reset the EEC PB to restore NH normal
values.
d) NH increase to the OVERSPEED PROTECTION limit to provide the engine power.

40. When does the ATPCS system detect an engine failure?

a) When oil press drops below 8 PSI.
b) When one torque drops below 18%.
c) When NP drops below 60% and the PL is above FI.
d) When NP drops below 60% and the CL is above FTR position.

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41. In what situations does EEC activate the auto ignition?

a) In an ITT sudden decrease due to a turbulence, water or ice ingestion.
b) When NP´s drops below 70,8%.
c) When NH drops below 30%.
d) When NH drops below 60%.

42. In what position should be the PWR MGT selected to be the ATPCS activated on
ground and in flight?
a) Take off.
b) Climb.
c) MCT.
d) It is independent of the PWR MGT position, due to it depends from PL.

43. What type of engine has ATR 72-600, and which are its parts of the following?
a) PW127, 2 compressors, 2 turbines, combustion chamber and 2 free turbines
associated to the propeller.
b) PW127, 2 compressors, 2 turbines, combustion chamber and 2 compressors
associated to the propeller
c) PW124, 2 turbines, 2 combustion chambers and 2 compressors.
d) PW124F, 2 compressors, 2 turbines, combustion chamber and 2 compressors
associated to the propeller.

44. Would it be correct to have a NAC OVHT light just when MLG is in contact with the
ground?
a) Yes, but we´d have to stop the engine.
b) Yes, but we can continue taxing to the parking.
c) Yes, but we don´t do anything.
d) No, it is inhibited during 30" after landing.

45. The accessory gear box, which is driven by the "hp spool", contains drives for:
a) The DC STARTER/GENERATOR and ACW GENERATOR.
b) The DC STARTER/GENERATOR, the fuel HP PUMP and the OIL PUMP.
c) The DC STARTER/GENERATOR, the ACW GENERATOR, the fuel HP PUMP and the OIL
PUMP.

46. On the propeller reduction gear box are installed:

a) PEC, PVM (Propeller valve module), overspeed governor, the auxiliary feather pump
and the ACW GEN.
b) The ACW GEN, the fuel HP PUMP, the PCU and the associated accessories.
c) A plus PROP BRAKE (RH engine) and the fuel cooled oil cooler.

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47. Is the fuel heated before "hp pump", to prevent icing?

a) Yes, by means self-monitoring EEC.
b) No, it is not necessary.
c) Yes, by an automatic FUEL-HEATER installed at the filter outlet, heated by engine oil.

48. The stick pusher actuator is located:

a) On the captain pitch channel.
b) On the copilot pitch channel.
c) On both, pilot and copilot pitch channels.
d) In the autopilot servomechanism.

49. The travel limitation unit (TLU) is controlled by "MFC" modules 1a and 2a and:
a) Limits pedals stroke and rudder clearance (unlimited until 185Kts in acceleration,
limited until 180Kts in deceleration).
b) Can by controlled manually in case of MFC 1A and 2A failure.
c) A + B are correct.

50. The gust lock system acts on:

a) Roll control, pitch control and rudder control.
b) Roll control and pitch control
c) Roll control and rudder control.

51. Stick shaker advice is activated by:

a) One STICK SHAKER ACTUATOR, attached directly on F/O's control column.
b) One STICK SHAKER ACTUATOR, attached directly on CPT's control column.
c) Two STICK SHAKER ACTUATORS, each one attached directly on F/O's and CPT's
control columns.

52. In addition of EWD activation, if flaps asymmetry (6,7°) is detected by the "MFC":
a) Electrical power to the flap control system is isolated and flaps are locked in position.
b) Flaps control lever has no control on the system.
c) A + B are correct.

53. Flap unlock red light on EWD and warning alert is triggered when:
a) Flaps retract untimely more than 10º when flaps are selected at 15 or more.
b) Flaps retract untimely more than 4º when flaps are selected at 15 or more.
c) Flaps retract untimely more than 10º when flaps are selected at 30.

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54. Which of the following is true concerning the pitch uncoupling mechanism....
a) If the elevators have jammed, both pilots must uncouple the pitch uncoupling
mechanism.
b) Uncoupling the pitch uncoupling mechanism requires a force of about 115 lbs.
c) The uncoupling force must be applied on each control mechanism in the same
direction.
d) All of the above.

55. With the gust lock engaged, which items are restricted?
a) Ailerons.
b) Elevators.
c) Power levers.
d) All of the above.

56. An anti-retraction latch prevents selection of the landing gear level to the up position
as long as:
a) Nose landing gear shock absorber sense weight on wheels.
b) The three shock absorbers are not extend.
c) The three shock absorbers sense weight on wheels.
d) One shock absorber senses weight on wheels.

57. To consider the gear down, 3 green lights must be illuminated on:
a) Both, overhead and central panel.
b) Either, overhead or central instrument panel.
c) One panel only, the central instrument panel only.
d) The overhead panel.

58. The nose steering deflection angle is:

a) +/- 60º during hand wheel and towing operations.
b) +/- 91º during hand wheel and towing operations.
c) +/- 60º during towing and +/- 91º for hand wheel operations.
d) +/- 60º during hand wheel and +/- 91º for towing operations.

59. Aircraft is supplied by batteries only (Landing Gear Ind system):

a) System 1 only is supplied (central panel).
b) System 2 only is supplied (overhead panel).
c) Both systems are supplied.
d) There is no indications only with the batteries.

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60. The nose wheel steering operations:

a) Before take off, it will be maintained as soon as one gear stays on ground.
b) On landing it will works with nose gear locked down, nose and main shock absorbers
compressed.
c) A + B are correct.
d) No one is correct.

61. How long the anti-skid “f” should lights illuminate during a test of a normal system?
a) As long as the TEST pushbutton is depressed.
b) 10 seconds.
c) 6 seconds on the ground, 3 seconds in flight.
d) No one is correct.

62. The anti -skid test is inhibited at wheel speeds above:

a) 10 kts.
b) 17 Kts.
c) Never.
d) 35kts.

63. The brake and tire high temperature protections consist of:
a) The HOT light on the central panel indicating a brakes temperature of 150°C or more.
b) Fuse plugs designed to release internal tire pressure at high temperature (177°C or
more) on the main wheels.
c) A + B are correct.

64. The air conditioning OVHT caution light is ON when temperature is more than:
a) 82° C
b) 92° C
c) 102° C
d) 72° C

65. The Integrated Modular Avionics (IMA) consists on ……. Core Avionic Cabinets (CACs):
a) 1.
b) 2.
c) 3.
d) 4.

66. The MPC contains:

a) APM (Aircraft Performance Monitoring) function.
b) A single computer consisting FDAU (Flight Data Acquisition Unit) and DMU (Data
Management Unit).
c) Primarily facilitates maintenance by tracking and managing a/c system data.
d) All are correct

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67. Data Management Unit (DMU) is a component of:

a) None correct.
b) MFC.
c) IMA.
d) MPC.

68. PFD is divided into:

a) 3 areas.
b) 4 areas.
c) 5 areas.
d) 6 areas.

69. Each module of MFC is supplied by two electrical sources: primary and alternate.
Power supply switching is automatic:
a) Primary to alternate if primary V < 20 V and if alternate V > 22 V.
b) Primary to alternate if primary V < 19 V and if alternate V > 20 V.
c) Primary to alternate if primary V < 20 V and if alternate V > 21 V.
d) Primary to alternate if primary V < 19 V and if alternate V > 22 V.

70. The CDS is composed of:

a) 5 display units, 4 control panels, 2 MCDUs and 2 switching panels.
b) 5 display units, 6 control panels, 2 MCDUs and 2 switching panels.
c) 5 display units, 2 control panels, 2 MCDUs and 2 switching panels.
d) 5 display units, 6 control panels, 2 MCDUs and 4 switching panels.

71. 3 different ND formats can be displayed on the MFD, by depressing the ND pb on the
EFCP and then selecting the format using the FORMAT rotary knob on the EFCP. Those
are:
a) Flt Control, Alert & Procedure.
b) MEMO, VCP & Engine.
c) ROSE, Nil & ARC.
d) ROSE, ARC, FPLN.

72. If the pilot changes the ND to another page (system for example), a mini ND page is
displayed on the PFD, in place of the EHSI. In this case the formats of the mini ND can
the changed by the rotary knob to:
a) ROSE & ARC only.
b) ROSE & PLAN only.
c) PLAN & ARC only.
d) All are Correct.

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73. Four different system pages can be displayed on the MFD, by pressing the SYS pb
consecutively. They are:
a) DC-HYDRAULIC, ENGINE, CABIN & AC-DC ELECTRIC.
b) ACW-HYDRAULIC, ENGINE, CABIN & AC-DC ELECTRIC.
c) ACW-HYDRAULIC ENGINE, FUEL & AC-DC ELECTRIC.
d) ACW-HYDRAULIC ENGINE, CABIN & ACW ELECTRIC.

74. EWD has:

a) 4 windows.
b) 5 windows.
c) 6 windows.
d) Variable by selection.

75. EWD has 5 Windows – Engine Display, Flight Control Area, Alert Display, Procedures
and:
a) TAT & SAT Window.
b) Selected Window.
c) Permanent Data Window.
d) Speed Window.

76. Each hydraulic system is normally pressurized by means of:

a) An engine driven pump.
b) An ACW electric motor driven pump.
c) A DC electric motor driven pump.
d) An alternate pump.

77. The nominal hydraulic pressure of Blue and Green systems is:
a) 1.500 PSI
b) 2.500 PSI
c) 3.000 PSI
d) 3.500 PSI

78. The hydraulic fluid is contained in:

a) Two separate tanks (Blue in the left landing gear fairing, Green in the right landing
fear fairing).
b) A single common pressurized tank located in the hydraulic bay (left landing gear
fairing).
c) A single common not pressurized tank located in the hydraulic bay (left landing gear
fairing).
d) A single common not pressurized tank located in the hydraulic bay (right landing
gear fairing).

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79. Which systems are supplied by the Blue hydraulic circuit?

a) Nose wheel steering, Flaps, Spoilers, Propeller brake, Normal brake.
b) Nose wheel steering, Flaps, Spoilers, Propeller brake, Emergency & Parking brake.
c) Landing gear, Normal brake.
d) Landing gear, Emergency & Normal brake.

80. On ground, pressing the HYD AUX PUMP switch on the pedestal, can be used:
a) To energize the auxiliary pump, if BAT master switch in ON position.
b) To energize the auxiliary pump, regardless of BAT master switch position and to
pressurize the Blue hydraulic system.
c) To energize the auxiliary pump, regardless of BAT master switch position and to
pressurize the Green hydraulic system
d) Only operates in flight.

81. The OVHT alert on the HYD PWR panel indicates an:
a) Overheat of the hydraulic fluid reservoir.
b) Overheat in the return line.
c) Overheat of the pump case drain line.
d) Overheat in the supply duct.

82. In case of LO LVL alert, crossfeed valve is automatically closed:

a) But we can open it after gear extension.
b) And inhibited.
c) That is wrong. In case of LO LVL, crossfeed valve is automatically opened and
inhibited.
d) That is wrong. In case of LO LVL, crossfeed valve is automatically has to be closed
manually.

83. In case of dual DC generator loss

a) Hydraulic Blue and Green main pumps only are lost.
b) Hydraulic auxiliary pump only is lost.
c) Hydraulic auxiliary and Blue main pumps only are lost.
d) No hydraulic system is lost.

84. With both Blue hydraulic pumps OFF and Green hydraulic pump running, crossfeed
allows pressurization of:
a) Blue system, except braking accumulator.
b) Both, blue system and braking accumulator.
c) Only the braking accumulator.
d) The nose wheel steering and landing gear.

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85. In flight, gear up, in case of Blue main hydraulic pump LO PRESS:
a) Auxiliary pump take over automatically.
b) Auxiliary pump take over automatically if green pressure is not available.
c) Auxiliary pump does not take over automatically.
d) Auxiliary pump supplies both hydraulics systems.

86. When FUEL PUMP pushbutton is released out:

a) Electrical pump is de-activated and OFF white light illuminates on pushbutton.
b) Motive flow valve closes, stopping the jet pump operation by starvation.
c) Electrical pump is de-activated and OFF white light illuminates on pushbutton +
Motive flow valve closes, stopping the jet pump operation by starvation.
d) Electrical pump is de-activated and the pushbutton light is switched off.

87. Engine running, FEED LO PR associated with FWS activation means:

a) Double pump failure (jet pump + electrical pump).
b) A leak in the fuel circuit.
c) Double pump failure (jet pump + electrical pump) or a leak in the fuel circuit.
d) Jet pump failure.

88. In normal operation, fuel electrical pumps are mainly used to:
a) Start the engine.
b) Pressurize the jet pump.
c) Provide the additional fuel flow required for take off.
d) Replace the jet pump in case of failure.

89. LO LVL amber light and FWS activation mean that:

a) Fuel pump is not delivering the correct pressure.
b) Fuel quantity is lower than 100kg (220lbs).
c) Fuel quantity is lower than 160kg (352lbs).
d) Fuel quantity is lower than 50kg (110lbs).

90. The maximum asymmetrical fuel loading between wings is:

a) 730kg (1.609lbs).
b) 200kg (440lbs) .
c) 160kg (352lbs).
d) No specified limit.

91. Each electrical pump can supply one engine throughout the whole aircraft envelope:
a) False.
b) True.
c) True but only with crossfeed.
d) True, each electrical pump can even supply both engines throughout the aircraft
flight envelope.

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92. Where can you read the fuel quantity?

a) Fuel quantity is displayed on Weight page of the MCDU.
b) Fuel quantity is displayed on the EWD beside FOB (Fuel On Board).
c) Fuel quantity is displayed on the MFD secondary engine display page.
d) Fuel quantity is displayed on the FMA.

93. Where is the Fuel Used Reset button located?

a) On the VCP associated with the secondary engine system page.
b) On the VCP associated with the PERF page.
c) On the MCDU associated with the WEIGHT page.
d) On the MCDU associated with the primary engine system page.

94. The FUEL UNBALANCED amber message on EWD is triggered when:

a) There is a discrepancy greater than 160 Kg.
b) There is a discrepancy greater than 200 Kg.
c) There is a discrepancy greater than 730 Kg.
d) Answer A is correct but this message appears in the Memo Panel.

95. FUEL FEED LO PR amber message appears in EWD when the pressure is below 4 PSI in the
engine feed system, additional visual alerts are:
a) FEED LO PR light illuminates amber on Overhead Panel.
b) FEED LO PR amber label is displayed on MFD.
c) FEED LO PR amber label is displayed on PFD.
d) A+B are correct.

96.Where are the DC generators connected?

a) To the respective reduction gear box.
b) To the respective accessory gear box connected to the HP compressor.
c) To the respective turbine shaft.
d) To the respective RAM air turbine.

97. How the constant frequency AC power is obtained?

a) From each ACW generator.
b) Directly from batteries.
c) From DC power through two inverters.
d) From each DC generator.

98. Aircraft on ground, engines running and DC EXT PWR connected and ON:
a) DC EXT PWR has no priority over the DC GEN.
b) DC EXT PWR has priority over the DC GEN.
c) DC EXT PWR supplies the busses which are not supplied by the DC GEN.
d) The first on line has priority.

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99. On the MAIN ELEC PWR panel, what does the illumination of the amber arrows mean?
a) The supply of DC STBY BUS from DC ESS BUS or DC EMER BUS, according to one
illuminated.
b) DC BUS 1 supplies the DC EMER BUS and DC BUS 2 supplies the DC ESS BUS.
c) Both batteries are discharging.
d) The supply of DC EMER BUS and DC ESS BUS from DC BUS 1 or DC BUS 2.

100. What does the illumination of the UNDV amber light on the STBY BUS P/B on the
MAIN ELEC PWR panel mean?
a) The DC STBY BUS voltage is lower than 19.5V.
b) The DC STBY BUS voltage is lower than 24V.
c) The AC STBY BUS voltage is lower than 19.5V.
d) The AC STBY BUS voltage is lower than 110V.

101. With no external power, no engine running and the battery switch OFF, which items
does the GND HDLG BUS power?
a) The refuelling panel, the cargo door control panel, the cabin door.
b) The refuelling panel, the cargo door control panel, the cabin door, the HYD AUX
PUMP P/B.
c) The refuelling panel, the cargo door control panel, the cabin and cockpit entrance
light, the HYD AUX PUMP P/B.
d) The refuelling panel, the cargo door control panel, the cabin door, the HYD AUX
PUMP P/B, the hydraulic access panel.

102. The DC generator comes on line at:

a) NH=45%.
b) NH=61.5%.
c) NH=70%.
d) NH=66%.

103. Cross-start operation consists of:

a) Using the main battery up to 10% NH then it is assisted by the running DC generator
up to 45% NH during the secondary engine start.
b) Using the main battery up to 10% NH then running DC generator takes over up to
45% NH during the secondary engine start.
c) Using the running DC generator to start the secondary engine.
d) Using the running DC generator up to 10% NH then the main battery and the running
DC generator up to 45% NH during the secondary engine start.

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 SYSTEMS TEST II
ATR72-600

104. How is the ACW power obtained?

a) From each DC generator converted in ACW by TRU.
b) From each ACW generator and from ACW GPU.
c) From each DC generator converted in ACW by TRU, ACW GPU and from batteries.
d) From each ACW generator, from ACW GPU, and from batteries.

105. One ACW generator off-line:

a) The associated ACW BUS is lost.
b) ACW SVCE BUS only is shed.
c) All ACW busses remain supplied by the remaining generator.
d) The ACW BUS 2 is lost.

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