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AFCAT
AFCAT 27 Aug 2022 (Shift 1) Memory Based Paper (English)

120 mins 300 marks 100 questions

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Memory Based Paper

AFCAT 27 Aug 2022 (Shift 1)
 https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb

100 Questions

Que. 1 Direction: Below each of the following underlined idioms or phrases four possible substitutes
(words or group of words) are given. Select the one which is most nearly the same as the given
idiom or phrase.
Hit the hay
1. Feed the cattle
2. Go to sleep
3. Burn the hay
4. Lose the sheep
Correct Option - 2

Que. 2 Select the correct meaning of the given idiom-

To pull one's punches
1. be less forceful
2. pull someone's punches
3. throw the punches
4. having strong power
Correct Option - 1

Que. 3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Temporal
1. Wordly
2. Secular
3. Earthly
4. Religious
Correct Option - 4

Que. 4 The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence which is split into four
parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not
given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four
combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.
Le Corbusier was born in a small town____________. All his life he was marked by the harshness of these
surroundings and the puritanism of a Protestant environment.
P) in the mountainous Swiss Jura region
Q) since the 18th century the
R) world’s center of
S) precision watchmaking.
1. PQRS
2. QPRS
3. RPQS
4. SPQR
Correct Option - 1

Que. 5

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Directions: Select the segment of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error
mark 'No error' as your answer.
The blast wave they generate is significantly longer in duration and sometimes more
powerful than conventional explosives.
1. The blast wave they generate is significantly longer
2. in duration and sometimes more powerful
3. than conventional explosives.
4. No error
Correct Option - 3

Que. 6 In the following question, there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four
other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best
expresses the relationship like the original pair.
Xylem : Water:: Phloem: ______
1. Food
2. Photosynthesis
3. Carbon Dioxide
4. Gasses
Correct Option - 1

Que. 7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Archaic
1. Modern
2. Outdated
3. Obsolete
4. Frivolous
Correct Option - 1

Que. 8 Directions: Select the appropriate word from four alternatives provided to fill in the blanks
The petition before the Court prayed for ______ the appointment orders issued by the management.
1. granting
2. removing
3. dismissing
4. quashing
Correct Option - 4

Que. 9 Directions: The word “PLACATE” means.

1. To worship
2. To laugh
3. To force
4. To pacify
Correct Option - 4

Que. 10 In the following question, a sentence or a phrase is given which can be substituted by one
word. Choose the most appropriate word explaining the sentence or the phrase from the
given option.

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An amusing and interesting story

1. Poesy
2. Legend
3. Ballsy
4. Anecdote
Correct Option - 4

Que. 11 The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four
parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are
not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the
four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.
Almaty, formerly Alma-Ata, southeastern Kazakhstan.________________. With the coming of the railroad
in 1930, its population grew rapidly.
P) The modern city was founded in 1854
Q) Formerly the capital of Kazakhstan, it lost its capital status in 1995 to Aqmola (now Astana).
R) when the Russians established a military fortification
S) on the site of the ancient city of Almaty, destroyed by the Mongols in the 13th century.
1. QPRS
2. PQRS
3. SPQR
4. RPQS
Correct Option - 1

Que. 12 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best
substitute of the phrase.
Using or expressing something in more words than are needed
1. Verbatim
2. Verbal
3. Verbose
4. Reprimand
Correct Option - 3

Que. 13 The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four
parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are
not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the
four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.
Maps that William Clark made ___________ showed how to reach the Pacific Ocean by a combination of
waterways and land routes.
P) showing the geography of the West
Q) were published in 1810 and 1814.
R) The expedition did not find an all-water route across the continent, but the maps
S) These remained the best maps of the region until the 1840s.
1. QPSR
2. RQPS
3. SQPR
4. PQSR
Correct Option - 4

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Que. 14 Direction: Find the error in the following sentence. A part of the following sentence contains
an error. Select the correct option to replace the incorrect part.
In this hard time, utilise a little money you have in a proper manner now.
1. utilise the little money
2. In this urgent time
3. you had in a proper manner
4. hard times
Correct Option - 1

Que. 15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Kick the bucket
1. Be angry
2. Die
3. Be rude
4. Arrive
Correct Option - 2

Que. 16 Directions: Select the appropriate word from four alternatives provided to fill in the blanks
Rights _______ automatically to him who duly performs his duties.
1. belong
2. transfer
3. issue
4. accrue
Correct Option - 4

Que. 17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Devolve
1. Delegate
2. Centralize
3. Retain
4. Incline
Correct Option - 1

Que. 18 Choose the word that is the correct substitute for the given group of words
A person with bad habits or faults which cannot be changed or corrected
1. Infallible
2. Incurable
3. Insertable
4. Incorrigible
Correct Option - 4

Que. 19 Directions: Select the appropriate word from four alternatives provided to fill in the blanks
In the departmental inquiry, it was denied that the police had committed any _______ on people
under their custody.
1. Injuries

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2. crime
3. Blunder
4. excesses
Correct Option - 2

Que. 20 Choose the word almost nearest in the meaning to the word given below.
Placid
1. Clear
2. Calm
3. Enjoyable
4. Noise
Correct Option - 2

Que. 21 In the following question, there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four
other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best
expresses the relationship like the original pair.
Rabbit : hop :: duck : ____
1. waddle
2. whisk
3. remain
4. rush
Correct Option - 1

Que. 22 Read the following passage:

Landslides ___(X)____ reported in several parts of the state, of which the one at Koottickal in
Kottayam has claimed more than seven lives. “These disasters were caused ___(Y)____ to higher economic
activities like rock quarrying, construction ___(Z)____ new buildings and roads, and destruction of natural
forest in the highly economic zones.

Select the most appropriate word from the options against _____(X)______ .
1. were
2. was
3. is
4. have
Correct Option - 1

Que. 23 Select the most appropriate word from the options against _____(Y)______ .
1. used
2. need
3. due
4. in a view
Correct Option - 3

Que. 24 Select the most appropriate word from the options against _____(Z)______ .
1. for
2. of

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3. can
4. may
Correct Option - 2

Que. 25 Read the following passage:

The hydrogen wall has been described by scientists as the place ___(X)____ bubbles of solar wind
cease to exist. The mass of interstellar matter here is very small ____(Y)_____ strong enough to not let the
solar winds pass through. At the same time, it is not so strong to bust ____(Z)____ the solar wind build-up. It
acts like a wall pressing the solar winds inward.

Select the most appropriate word from the options against _____(X)______ .
1. when
2. where
3. what
4. why
Correct Option - 2

Que. 26 Select the most appropriate word from the options against _____(Y)______ .
1. since
2. because
3. but
4. in addition to
Correct Option - 3

Que. 27 Select the most appropriate word from the options against _____(Z)_____ .
1. into
2. upon
3. through
4. by
Correct Option - 3

Que. 28 Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing
the correct/most appropriate options:
Large-scale forest degradation and improper carbon sequestration are one of the causes of the recent flooding
witnessed in most parts of Karnataka and Kerala over the last two years. Carbon sequestration is a
natural/artificial process by which carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere and held in solid or liquid
form. Researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), in their latest study report, have found large-scale
land cover shaved off, leading to deforestation with degradation, causing 20–25% of anthropogenic (human-
related) carbon emissions, resulting in a regional impact on climate patterns. The loss of forest cover has also
modified the local rainfall pattern. The study, ‘Carbon Sequestration Potential of the Forest Ecosystems in the
Western Ghats: a Global Biodiversity Hotspot’, by researchers from the Centre for Ecological Sciences, IISc,
on the fragile Western Ghats, investigated landscape dynamics with climate trends and carbon sequestration
potential. The analysis indicated that the regions in the southern parts of Western Ghats (WG) in Kerala and
part of Karnataka have witnessed large-scale climate changes. The central Western Ghats area (Karnataka)
shows a very meager change in temperature (0.05 degrees Celsius increase), while the rainfall shows
increasing trends close to 100 mm and increase in rainy days up to two days. The northern portion of the
Western Ghats latitudes shows an increasing temperature of 0.5 degrees Celsius, four days increase in the
number of rainy days, and an increase in rainfall by between 100 mm and just over 250 mm. These analyses
demonstrate that land use has played a major role in moderating micro-climatic conditions in the Western

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Ghats over a temporal scale. The reduction in rainfall and an increase in temperature can affect carbon stock
in the region.

According to the passage, Select the correct statement/s-

a) The central Western Ghats area (Karnataka) shows a very meager change in temperature.
b) The analyses demonstrate that land use has played a major role in moderating micro-climatic conditions in
the Western Ghats.
c) Kerala and part of Karnataka have witnessed large-scale climate changes.
1. Only a
2. Only b
3. Only c
4. All of the above
Correct Option - 4

Que. 29 What will be the effect of the reduction in rainfall in the region?
1. Carbon Stocking
2. Increase in Temperature
3. Carbon Emission
4. Loss of forest
Correct Option - 1

Que. 30 According to the passage, what is the meaning of "Carbon Sequestration"?

1. A process in which carbon dioxide is kept in solid or liquid form.
2. A process of removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
3. A process of removing carbon monoxide and keeping it in solid or liquid form.
4. A process of removing moisture from carbon dioxide and keeping it in solid or liquid form.
Correct Option - 2

Que. 31 The average age of a man and his son is 40 years. The ratio of their ages is 11 : 5 respectively.
What is the son's age?
1. 25 years
2. 20 years
3. 28 years
4. 14 years
Correct Option - 1

Que. 32 Which one among the following is the largest?

1. 7/9
2. 11/14
3. 3/4
4. 10/13
Correct Option - 2

Que. 33 Out of four numbers, the average of the first three is 16 and that of the last three is 15. If the last
number is 21 then the first number is:
1. 22

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2. 21
3. 24
4. 28
Correct Option - 3

Que. 34 A man buys 2 dozen bananas at Rs.16 per dozen. After selling 18 bananas at the rate of Rs.12 per
dozen, the shopkeeper reduced the rate to Rs.4 per dozen. Find the loss percentage.
1. 37 %
2. 37.5 %
3. 38 %
4. 38.5 %
Correct Option - 2

Que. 35 A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container, 4 litres of milk were taken out and
replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained
by the container?
1. 31.5 liter
2. 32 liter
3. 29.16 liter
4. 28 liter
Correct Option - 3

Que. 36 Two dice are thrown together. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the two faces
is divisible by 4 or 6?
1. 1

2. 7

36

3. 5

36

4. 7

18

Correct Option - 4

Que. 37 The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. When both the numerator and
denominator are decreased by 6, then the denominator becomes 12 times the numerator. Determine
the fraction.
1. 18

2. 16

3. 7

18

4. 7

16

Correct Option - 3

Que. 38 94 is divided into two parts in such a way that the fifth part of the first and the eighth part of the
second are in the ratio 3 : 4 The first part is:
1. 30
2. 36
3. 50

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4. 64
Correct Option - 1

Que. 39 The area of a circular field is 13.86 hectares. Find the cost of fencing it at the rate of Rs. 4.40 per
metre.
1. 2808
2. 3808
3. 4808
4. 5808
Correct Option - 4

Que. 40 Machine P can print one faith books in 8 hours, machine Q can print the same number of books in
10 hours while machine R can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are started at 9 A.M. while
machine P is closed at 11 A.M. and the remaining two machines complete work. Approximately at what time
will the work (to print one lakh books) be finished?
1. 11:30 A.M.
2. 12 noon
3. 12:30 P.M.
4. 1:00 P.M.
Correct Option - 4

Que. 41 The simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate of 5 p.a. for 8 years is Rs. 840. The rate
of interest for which the same amount of interest can be received on the same sum after 5 years is
1. 7%
2. 8%
3. 9%
4. 10%
Correct Option - 2

Que. 42 A train leaves Meerut at 5 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 9 a.m. Another train leaves Delhi at 7 a.m. and
reaches Meerut at 10:30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
1. 6 : 36 A.M
2. 6 : 56 A.M
3. 7 : 36 A.M
4. 7 : 56 A.M
Correct Option - 4

Que. 43 A train 100 metres long, moving at a speed of 50 km per hour, crosses another train 120 metres
long coming from the opposite direction in 6 seconds. What is the speed of the second train?
1. 132 kmph
2. 82 kmph
3. 60 kmph
4. 50 kmph
Correct Option - 2

Que. 44

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2 2

The vale of the expresssion is

2.25 −1.25

2.25−1.25

1. 1
2. 2.5
3. 3.5
4. 3
Correct Option - 3

Que. 45 Simplify: 11 % of 9 1 1
% of 7 % of 6 % of 11088.
1 1

9 11 7 4

1. 0.677
2. 0.500
3. 0.125
4. 0.333
Correct Option - 2

Que. 46 What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹19,500 invested for 1 2

5
years at 10% p.a., interest
compounded annually?
1. ₹2,608
2. ₹2,480
3. ₹2,808
4. ₹2,880
Correct Option - 3

Que. 47 Which of the following fraction can be written as a Non-terminating decimal?

1. 7

18

2. 11

250

3. 21

28

4. None of the above

Correct Option - 1

Que. 48 The ratio of efficiencies of X and Y for doing a certain work is 5 ∶ 9. Working together, they can
complete a work in 15 days. X alone will complete 66 % of the same work in?
2

1. 28 days
2. 24 days
3. 35 days
4. 30 days
Correct Option - 1

Que. 49 A milkman makes 20% profit by selling milk mixed with water at Rs.8 per litre. If the cost price of
pure milk is Rs. 10 per litre then the ratio of milk and water in the given mixture.
1. 2:1
2. 1:2
3. 1:3
4. 3:1

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Correct Option - 1

Que. 50 At what time between 3 o'clock and 4 o'clock, both the hands of a clock will coincide with each
other?
1. 16
2
minutes past 3
11

2. 16
4
minutes past 3
11

3. 15
4
minutes past 3
11

4. 15
2
minutes past 3
11

Correct Option - 2

Que. 51 The Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award is given in India for contribution to the field of:
1. sports
2. social work
3. science and technology
4. literature
Correct Option - 3

Que. 52 Which among the following is a nuclear powered submarine of Indian Navy?
1. INS Shishumar
2. INS Shalki
3. INS Chakra
4. INS Sindhuvir
Correct Option - 3

Que. 53 Which DRDO developed anti tank missile is capable of being launched from helicopter?
1. Helina
2. SANT Missile
3. Nag Missile
4. Amogha
Correct Option - 1

Que. 54 Which is an indigenously launched Covid Vaccine?

1. Covaxin
2. Pfizer
3. Sputnik
4. AstraZeneca
Correct Option - 1

Que. 55 Asad Ali Khan is associated with which among the following musical instruments?
1. Rudra veena
2. Sitar
3. Tabla
4. Shehnai

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Correct Option - 1

Que. 56 With which country India has recently signed a Project Agreement (PA) for Air-Launched
Unmanned Aerial Vehicle?
1. United States
2. United Kingdom
3. Russia
4. Canada
Correct Option - 1

Que. 57 Who among the following started the newspaper 'Bahishkrit Bharat'?
1. Jyotiba Phule
2. Dr. B. R. Amdedkar
3. M. K. Gandhi
4. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
Correct Option - 2

Que. 58 The reign of Raja Krishnadev Raya is considered the golden age of which literary language?
1. Telugu
2. Tamil
3. Hindi
4. Malayalam
Correct Option - 1

Que. 59 Who wrote ‘Why I am an Atheist’?

1. Subhash Chandra Bose
2. Khushwant Singh
3. Bhagat Singh
4. Madan Lal Dhingra
Correct Option - 3

Que. 60 Supernova is
1. An asteroid
2. A black hole
3. A comet
4. A dying star
Correct Option - 4

Que. 61 With reference to the office of the Attorney General of India, Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
I. He is the highest law officer in the country.
II. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the
territory of India.
1. I only
2. II only

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3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Correct Option - 3

Que. 62 Who among the following won the Gold medal in 2020 Paralympics in Javelin Throw?
1. Piyush Khanna
2. Rameshwar Choudhary
3. Neeraj Chopra
4. Sumit Antil
Correct Option - 4

Que. 63 "Global Competitiveness Report" is released by which of the following organization?

1. WTO
2. WEF
3. SAARC
4. EU
Correct Option - 2

Que. 64 The most commonly used semiconductor element is ________.

1. Cu
2. A
3. C
4. Si
Correct Option - 4

Que. 65 Which among the following do not contribute to the green house effect?
1. Nitrogen
2. CFCs
3. Water Vapours
4. Ozone
Correct Option - 1

Que. 66 Match List I with the correct options of List II.

List I List II
1. (Grasslands) (Region) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
2. I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
I. Prairies A. South America
3. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
II. Downs B. Australia
4. I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
III. Llanos C. USA
Correct Option - 3
IV. Pampas D. Venezuela

Que. 67 Which one among the following substances does not contribute to global warming?
1. Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen
2. Methane
3. Carbon dioxide

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4. Water vapour
Correct Option - 1

Que. 68 Match List I with the correct options of List II.

List I List II
1. (Name of Operation) (Related to) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
2. I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
A. Rescue operation in
3. I. Operation Nistar I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
Yemen
4. B. Control of Jaffna I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
II. Operation Pawan
peninsula Correct Option - 4
C. Indo-Pak Navy 1971
III. Operation Trident
War
Que. 69 Which of the following is a short
D. 1986 Joint military range surface to surface missile?
IV. Operation Brasstacks
exercise
1. NAG
2. AKASH
3. PRITHVI
4. TRISHUL
Correct Option - 3

Que. 70 The first city to initiate a flood early warning system in India is
1. Kolkata
2. Mumbai
3. Chennai
4. Lucknow
Correct Option - 1

Que. 71 With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements:
I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax
exemption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Correct Option - 2

Que. 72 Which among the following factors contributes to Earthquake?

1. Location
2. Distance from the epicentre
3. Local geological conditions
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only

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4. 1, 2, and 3
Correct Option - 4

Que. 73 Which among the following factors does not contribute to Earthquakes?
1. Location
2. Distance from the epicentre
3. Local geological conditions
4. Rate of Evaporation
Correct Option - 4

Que. 74 When we jump out of a boat, the boat moves in the opposite direction. This is due to:
1. The fact that the net force acting on the boat is to be zero
2. Newton’s First Law of Motion
3. Newton’s Second Law of Motion
4. Newton’s Third Law of Motion
Correct Option - 4

Que. 75 Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion(A) and the other is labeled as
Reason(R).
Assertion(A): The Portuguese were the first European community to discover a direct sea route to India.
Reason(R): The Turks started levying too many taxes on the goods passing through the routes of trade and
commerce between Asia and Europe.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
1. A is false, but R is true.
2. A is true, but R is false
3. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
4. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Correct Option - 4

Que. 76 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Oak, Maple and Furniture
1.

2.

3.

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4.

Correct Option - 2

Que. 77 Select the correct option to complete the following analogy.

Rabbit : Hop :: Duck : ?
1. Waddle
2. Slither
3. Creep
4. Crawl
Correct Option - 1

Que. 78 Which diagram correctly represents the relationship of pigeons, birds, dogs?
1.

2.

3.

4.

Correct Option - 4

Que. 79 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

1.

2.

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3.

4.

Correct Option - 4

Que. 80 Divya travels 15 km south, turns left and travels 40 km to reach at the college gate. She then turns
right and travels 50 km. Finally, she turns right and travels 40 km. How much minimum distance
does she have to travel to go back to the starting point?
1. 65 km
2. 50 km
3. 40 km
4. 45 km
Correct Option - 1

Que. 81 In the given diagram, Circle represent Water, Rectangle represent Wheat and Square represent
Rice. Find the number of rice which are not water..

1. 9
2. 25
3. 16
4. 5
Correct Option - 2

Que. 82 In the given Venn diagram, the rectangle 'people having blue eyes', the triangle represents 'people
having extra fingers', and the circle represents 'people having dimples'.

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The number of people who have extra fingers and blue eyes and no dimples is A and if the number of people
who have extra fingers and dimples and no blue eyes is B. What is the sum of A and B?
1. 70
2. 40
3. 67
4. 43
Correct Option - 4

Que. 83 Find the missing character.

1. P
2. B
3. V
4. S
Correct Option - 4

Que. 84 If P denotes 'Addition’, Q denotes 'Division’, R denotes ‘Multiplication’ and S denotes

‘Subtraction’, then which of the statements given below is/are correct.
Statement I: 32 Q 4 P 16 S 4 R 2 = 24
Statement II: 27 Q 3 R 2 P 5 S 7 = 16
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Correct Option - 2

Que. 85 Rearrange the jumbled-up letters in their natural sequence and find the odd one out.
1. TOGA
2. GEPONI
3. RARPOT
4. LEEGA
Correct Option - 1

Que. 86 From amongst the figures (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E), select the figure which satisfies the same
conditions of placement of the dots as in figure (X)

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1. B
2. C
3. E
4. D
Correct Option - 1

Que. 87 Four letter-clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the odd one.
1. NGMAO
2. CNILPE
3. ANNABA
4. APELP
Correct Option - 2

Que. 88 K walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 km towards South. Then he walks 3 km
towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?
1. 5 km West
2. 5 km North-east
3. 7 km East
4. 7 km West
Correct Option - 2

Que. 89 Select a figure amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space(?) of figure X will
complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed).

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1.

2.

3.

4.

Correct Option - 4

Que. 90 Point B is 3m North of point A. Point C is 3m West of point B. Point D is 5m South of point C.
Point E is 7m East of point D. In which of the following directions is point E, with reference to
point B?
1. South-East
2. East
3. West
4. South
Correct Option - 1

Que. 91 If 'L' means '×', 'M' means '-', 'N' means '+', and 'O' means '÷', then what will be the value of the
following expression?
6 L 25 M 15 N 45 O 5
1. 145
2. 144
3. 150
4. 134
Correct Option - 2

Que. 92 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the
following series.

1.

2.

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3.

4.

Correct Option - 2

Que. 93 In a certain code language, ‘BREAD’ is written as ' JGKXH ' and ‘DANCE’ is written as ‘KITGJ’.
How will ‘CROWN’ be written in that language?
1. TCUXI
2. SCUXI
3. TCUXJ
4. TDUXI
Correct Option - 1

Que. 94 If Neelam says, “Anita's father Raj Is the only son of my father-in-law Sunil", then how is Kavita,
who is the sister of Anita, related to Sunil?
1. Grand Daughter
2. Niece
3. Daughter
4. Daughter-in-law
Correct Option - 1

Que. 95 A is the brother-in-law of B. B is the daughter of M who is the wife of G. J is the father of N. N is
the only son-in-law of G. B is the daughter-in-law of C who is grandparent of F. Then how is A
related to F?
1. Paternal uncle
2. Maternal uncle
3. Brother
4. Grandfather
Correct Option - 1

Que. 96 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

School : Principal :: Newspaper : ?
1. Editor
2. Printer
3. Reporter
4. Distributor
Correct Option - 1

Que. 97 Study the pattern in the first two pictures and then choose the number that can replace the question
mark (?) in the third picture.

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1. 22
2. 18
3. 26
4. 16
Correct Option - 2

Que. 98 From the given options, select the option in which the dot can be placed in exactly the same way as
shown in the figure (X) below.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Correct Option - 1

Que. 99 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

1.

2.

3.

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4.

Correct Option - 1

Que. 100 In a code language, the word 'MISTER' is coded as SGWWNS and the word 'FOREST' is coded
as 'UUHVTL', then the code for the word 'PERSON', in the same code language is
1. OPVUJW
2. OQVVJV
3. OQWVKV
4. OPWUKW
Correct Option - 2

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