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SST Sample Paper

The document provides instructions for a social science exam for Class X. It outlines that the exam will have 5 sections (A-E) and 37 total questions. Section A contains 20 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 4 very short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 4 long answer questions worth 5 marks each. Section E contains 3 case-based questions with sub-questions worth 4 marks each. Section F contains 1 map-based question with parts from history and geography worth a total of 5 marks. The instructions provide details on time limits, answer length requirements, and overall and internal choice questions.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views

SST Sample Paper

The document provides instructions for a social science exam for Class X. It outlines that the exam will have 5 sections (A-E) and 37 total questions. Section A contains 20 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 4 very short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 4 long answer questions worth 5 marks each. Section E contains 3 case-based questions with sub-questions worth 4 marks each. Section F contains 1 map-based question with parts from history and geography worth a total of 5 marks. The instructions provide details on time limits, answer length requirements, and overall and internal choice questions.

Uploaded by

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Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Sample Paper 01

Social Science (Code 087)


Class X Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
i. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the question
paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words
v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each.
vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii.There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A
 ultiple Choice Questions (Q 1 to 20)
M 1X20=20

1. Choose the correct statement about the image given bellow.

(a) This image was painted by artist Lorenz Clasen.


(b) This image was painted by artist Julius Hübner
(c) Germania guarding the Rhine was the title of this painting.
(d) Philip Veit, was the artist who have made this painting.
2. Which one of the following options describe ‘Coalition’?
(a) Power usually changes between two main parties.
(b) Several parties competing to win elections and form the government.
(c) An alliance of several parties to form the government.
(d) All of the above.

3. What is meant by the term ‘Feminist’?


(a) The belief that men and women are unequal.
(b) A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men.
(c) The man who looks like the woman.
(d) The qualities which are considered typical of women.

4. Match the following:


Soils Major Crops
A. Black Soil I. Sugarcane
B. Laterite Soil II. Tobacco
C. Alluvial Soil III. Cashew nut
D. Red and Yellow Soil IV. Cotto
Options:
(a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

5. Consider the following statements regarding non-democratic regimes and identify the incorrect one
from the following?
(a) Principle of individual dignity has legal force in non-democratic regimes.
(b) These types of governments do not have to bother about public opinion.
(c) These often suppress internal social differences.
(d) These types of governments take less time to arrive at a decision.

6. Arrange the following in chronological order:


I. E.T. Paull, a popular music publisher, published a picture announcing the ‘Dawn of the Century’.
II. As the Swadeshi movement gathered momentum, nationalists mobilised people to boycott foreign
cloth.
III. Till the First World War, European Managing Agencies controlled a large sector of Indian industries.
IV. Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman, set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta.
Options:
(a) I, III, IV, II (b) III, IV, II, I (c) IV, I, II, III (d) I, II, IV, III

7. Which of the following is a ‘National Political Party”?


(a) Rashtriya Janata Dal (b) Bahujan Samaj Party
(c) Samajwadi Party (d) Rashtriya Lok Dal
8. The political party having its main objective of upliftment of lower caste people:
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party (b) Bahujan Samaj Party
(c) Communist Party of India (d) Indian National Congress

9. As per Human Development Report 2006, which neighbouring country has the highest income following:
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Nepal (c) Pakistan (d) India

10. Consider the following statements regarding language policy of Indian Federation.
1. Hindi was identified as the official language.
2. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as scheduled languages.
3. English can be used along with Hindi for official purpose.
Choose the right option from the following:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

11. Identify the cropping season with the help of the following information:
• These crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to
June.
• Some of the major crops are wheat, gram, mustard, etc.
• Availability of precipitation during winter months helps in the success of these crops.
Options:
(a) Kharif (b) Zaid (c) Rabi (d) None of these

12. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?


List-I List-II
(a) Unification of Germany 1814-1815
(b) Vienna Peace Treaty 1866-1871
(c) Napoleonic Wars 1900-1905
(d) Unification of Italy 1859-1870

13. Find the odd one out from the following:


(a) Groundnut, Linseed, Gram, Sesamum
(b) Pineapples, Apricots, Apples, Mangoes
(c) Wheat, Rice, Jowar, Maize
(d) Moong, Urad, Peas, Lentil

14. Identify the correct statement/s about Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
I. In India, it issues currency notes on behalf of the central government.
II. It supervises the functioning of informal sources of loans.
III. It monitors the SHGs in actually maintaining cash balance.
IV. It sees that banks give loans only to profit-making businesses and traders.
Options:
(a) III & IV (b) I, II & III (c) Only I (d) I & III
15. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary
sector.
Reason (R): Because it is a service sector.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is false.
(d) A is true, but R is true.

16. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in______.


(a) 1915 (b) 1910 (c) 1920 (d) 1925

17. Read the bar graph given below and find out which sector, as compared to 1973-74, has seen maximum
improvement in GDP contribution in the year 2013-2014.

(a) Secondary Sector (b) Equal Growth in all sectors


(c) Primary Sector (d) Tertiary Sector

18. Fill in the blank:


Company Manufactured Item
Parakh Foods Edible oil
Sundaram Fastners ?
Options:
(a) Automobiles (b) Nuts and bolts
(c) Medicines (d) Paints
19. What are the different things that people seek in the society besides good income?
(a) Freedom and security in the society (b) Respect in the society
(c) Equal treatment in the society (d) All of these

20. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio-de-Janeiro in Brazil, for the first international
Earth Summit. The summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection
and socio-economic development at the global level. The assembled leaders signed the Declaration
on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity. The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest
Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.
The term used to achieve development without damaging the environment and without compromising
with the needs of the future generations is:
(a) Socio-economic development (b) Agenda 21
(c) Global environmental development (d) Sustainable development

SECTION-B
 ery Short Answer Question (Q 21 to 24)
V 2X4=8

21. Write down three types of political party systems.

22. Analyse the importance of fast transport in globalisation.


O
State any two ways by which means of transport help in the growth of industries in India.

23. What kinds of problem were faced by India during the First World War period?

24. Differentiate between a MNC and a National Company.

SECTION-C
 hort Answer Based Question (Q 25 to 29)
S 3X5=15

25. State the advantages of local self-government.

26. Which sector usually provides maximum number of employment opportunities in urban centres? Why
is it so?

27. By giving three examples justify that India has land under a variety of relief features.
O
Resource planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. State two examples
which explain its need.

28. Discuss the Salt March to make it clear why it was an effective symbol of resistance against colonialism.

29. Mention any three situation through which the credit pushes the borrower into a debt trap.

SECTION-D
 ong Answer Based Question (Q 30 to 33)
L 5X4=20

30. Explain the term ‘Conservatism’ with special reference to Europe.


O
Analyse the measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of
collective identity amongst the French people.

31. What is the motive behind formation of Self Help Groups? Also briefly explain the functioning of this
group.
O
State any five measures from which loan can be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers.

32. How did the Belgians resolve the ethnic conflict?


O
Explain five differences between the democracies in Belgium and Sri Lanka.

33. “Railways are the lifelines of the country.” Comment.


O
In India roads are classified in different classes according to their capacity. State different types of roads
in brief.

SECTION-E
 ase Based Question (Q 34 to 36)
C 4X3=12

34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. On 31st January, 1930, he
sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands . Some of these were of general interest ; others
were
specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants.
The idea was to make the demands wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian society could identify
with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign. The most stirring of all was
the demand to abolish the salt tax. Salt was something consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and
it was one of the most essential items of food. The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its
production, Mahatma Gandhi declared, revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.
Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. If the demands were not fulfilled by llst March,
the letter stated, the Congress would launch a Civil Disobedience campaign. Irwin was unwilling
to negotiate. So, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous Salt March accompanied by 78 of his trusted
volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal
town of Dandi.
(i) Why salt was chosen as a symbol ofprotest?
(ii) Why Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi?
(iii) Describe briefly about the Salt or Dandi March undertook by Mahatma Gandhi.

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Arguments about democracy tend to be very passionate. This is how it should be, for democracy appeals
to some of our deep values. These debates cannot be resolved in a simple manner. But some debates
about democracy can and should be resolved by referring to some facts and figures. The debate about
the economic outcomes of democracy is one such debate. Over the years many students of democracy
have gathered careful evidence to see what the relationship of democracy with economic growth and
economic inequalities is.
A particular study shows that on an average dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record of
economic growth. But when we compare their record only in poor countries, there is virtually no
difference. While another study shows that within democracies there can be very high degree of
inequalities. In democratic countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 per cent people take away
more than 60 per cent of the national income, leaving less than 3 per cent for the bottom 20 per cent
population. Countries like Denmark and Hungary are much better in this respect.
One can easily infer that there is often inequality of opportunities available to the poorer sections.
(i) Which type of outcomes of democracy can be resolved with the help of facts or figures analysis?
(ii) Benefits of higher national income are enjoyed by a’ small proportion of its population while a
larger proportion has to settle with the remaining small portion of the national income. What is
strongly indicated by this fact?
(iii) Differentiate between democracy and dictatorship form of government.

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country
like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich
in certain types of resources, but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions which
can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions
which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water
resources, but lacks in infrastructural development.
(i) State how the optimum utilisation of resources can be done by planning.
(ii) Evaluate the necessary of planning in India.
(iii) Give two examples of resource availability in India.
SECTION-F
 ap Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b)
M 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their
correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The location of the Indian National Congress Session of 1927.
B. A place where Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law and manufactured salt by boiling
salt sea water.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.
C. A major port on the South-East coast of India.
D. A major sugarcane producing state.
E. A Software Technology Park
F. A major dam in Odisha.


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