Mock Revision Test-3 (2019-2021)
Mock Revision Test-3 (2019-2021)
B. Marking scheme:
5. For each question in Part A (I), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (−1) mark will be awarded.
6. For each question in Part A (II), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect option is
darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result in +4
marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in −2 marks, as a
wrong option is also darkened.
7. For each question in Part B, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no
negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
8. For each question in Part C, you will be awarded +3 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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REVIEW MOCK TEST (03) 921 LOT-PCM-2
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A silicon diode requires minimum current of 2mA to be above its knee point of its (V-I) characteristics.
Assuming voltage across diode is constant above its knee point. The value of maximum resistance that
should be connected in series with diode and battery of 10 V such that diode operates above its knee
point. (Assume resistance of diode to be zero)
(A) 5 k (B) 5.35 k
(C) 4.65 k (D) 9.30 k
3. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It
(A) will stay in north-south direction only
(B) will stay in east-west direction only
(C) will become rigid showing no movement
(D) will stay in any position.
5. The muscles of a normal eye are least strained when the eye is focused on an object
(A) far away from the eye
(B) very close to the eye
(C) at about 25 cm from the eye
(D) at about 1 m from the eye
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REVIEW MOCK TEST (03) 921 LOT-PCM-3
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
7. A particle has a rectilinear motion and the figure gives its displacement
as a function of time. Which of the following statements are true with
respect to the motion
(A) in the motion between O and A the velocity is positive and
acceleration is negative
(B) between A and B the velocity and acceleration are positive
(C) between B and C the velocity is negative and acceleration is
positive
(D) between C and D the acceleration is positive
8. A block of mass 2 kg is hanging over a smooth and light pulley through a light
string. The other end of the string is pulled by a constant force
F = 40 N. At t = 0 the system is at rest as shown. Then in the time interval from
2
t = 0 to t = seconds, pick up the correct statement (s) : (g = 10 m/s2)
10
(A) tension in the string is 40 N 2kg
(B) work done by gravity is – 20 J F=40N
(C) work done by tension on block is 80 J
(D) None of these
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REVIEW MOCK TEST (03) 921 LOT-PCM-4
PART – B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two p q r s t
columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A,
A p q r s t
B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any
given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE B p q r s t
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers
to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example: C p q r s t
1. A block of mass m is kept on rough inclined plane of inclination . The angle of inclination varies from
= 0 to = very slowly then match the column I with column II.
2
Column–I Column-II
(t)
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REVIEW MOCK TEST (03) 921 LOT-PCM-5
2. There are some situation given in column 1. Match the possible answers in column 2.
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
(B) Elliptical path of a particle with constant speed (q) Variable velocity
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REVIEW MOCK TEST (03) 921 LOT-PCM-6
Part C
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9.
3. The 1/v versus displacement graph of a particle is shown in the figure, 1/v (s/m)
where v is the speed of the particle. The particle is moving in a straight
4 B
line along positive x-axis. Calculate the time taken (in seconds) by the
particle to reach from the point A to B .
2
A
0 2 x (m)
y
4. Figure shows a smooth cylindrical pulley of radius R with centre at origin
of co-ordinates. An ideal thread is thrown over it on the two parts of ideal
thread two identical masses are tied initially at rest with co-ordinates (R, 0)
and (-R, -R) respectively. If mass at x-axis is given a slight upward jerk, it
leaves contact with pulley at (R cos, Rsin). Then find /sin.
m x
5. A simple microscope is rated 5X for a normal relaxed eye. What will be its magnifying power for a
relaxed farsighted eye whose near point is 40 cm?
6. A man can adjust power of his eye lens between 50 D and 75 D. His far point is infinity. The distance
between his retina and eye lens (in cm) is
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REVIEW MOCK TEST (03) 921 LOT-PCM-7
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. C
5. A 6. C, D 7. A, C, D 8. A, C
9. B, C, D 10. A, C
1. (A) → (s), (B) → (q), (C) → (r), (D) → (p)
2. A – (p,q,r,s) (B) – (p,q,r) (C) – (p, q, r) (D) – (q, r, s, t)
1. 4 2. 9 3. 6 4. 2
5. 8 6. 2
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REVIEW MOCK TEST (03) 921 LOT-PCM-8
Solutions
10 − 0.7
1. = 4.65 k
2 10−3
7. Slope of displacement time graph is velocity and rate of change of velocity is acceleration.
Part C
4 kx 3
1. a= ; kx = mg
5m 5
1 m ( )2
2. K.E. = 2v = mv2 = 18
2 2
1
3. Area under graph = v dx = t
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CH EM I STRY
(Batches: 921 Lot)
IIT-JEE, 2021
Time: 1 Hour Maximum Marks: 69
INSTRUCTIONS
A. Question Paper Format
1. The question paper consists of four parts.
2. Part-A – (01-05) contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.
3. Part-A – (06-10) contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
4. Part-B – (11-12) contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching column(s). The
codes for the Column(s) have choice (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE is/are correct
5. Part-C – (13-18) contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
B. Marking scheme:
(i). For each question in Part A (2), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be
awarded.
(ii). For each question in Part A (3), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: – 2In all other cases.
For example, if [A], [C] and [D] are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only [A] and [D] will get +2 marks; and darkening [A] and [B] will get 2 marks, as a wrong
option is also darkened.
(iii). For each question in Part B (4), you will be awarded +8 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.
Partial Marks : +2 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Other Cases : 0 In all other cases.
(iv). For each question in Part C (5), you will be awarded +3 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative
marking.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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website: www.fiitjee.com.
RMT-03- 921 LOT-CHEMISTRY-2
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
9
2. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction of weak acid HA with strong base is 10 , then the pH of
0.1M NaA is
(A) 5 (B) 9
(C) 7 (D) 8
4. At a certain temperature and a total pressure of 105 Pa, iodine vapour contains 40% by volume of
iodine atoms I2 2I(g) . Kp for the equilibrium is
(A) 105 Pa (B) 2.67 ×104 Pa
4
(C) 3.22 × 10 Pa (D) 1.52 × 105 Pa
5. Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass M) in water is w per 100 ml at 25°C. Its solubility
product at 25°C will approximately
(A) 109 (w/m)5 (B) 107 (w/m)5
5 5
(C) 10 (w/m) (D) 103 (w/m)5
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RMT-03- 921 LOT-CHEMISTRY-3
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
6. If the concentration of two acids are same their relative strengths can be compared by
k a1
(A) 1 (B)
2 k a2
k a1 [H ]1
(C) (D)
k a2 [H ]2
7.
The reaction SO 2 Cl2
SO2 Cl2 is exothermic and reversible. A mixture of SO2(g) and SO2Cl2(l)
is at equilibrium in a closed container. Now a certain quantity of extra SO2 is introduced into the
container, the volume remaining the same. Which of the following are not true
(A)The pressure inside the container will not change
(B)The temperature will not change
(C) The temperature will increase
(D) The temperature will decrease
9. In which of the following solvents are not silver chloride most soluble
(A) 0.1 mol dm–3 AgNO3 solution (B) 0.1 mol dm–3 HCl solution
(C) H2O (D) Aqueous ammonia
10. Which of the following are a general characteristic of equilibria involving physical processes?
(A) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature
(B) All measurable properties of the system remain constant
(C) All the physical processes stop at equilibrium
(D) The opposing processes occur at the same rate and there is dynamic but stable condition
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RMT-03- 921 LOT-CHEMISTRY-4
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RMT-03- 921 LOT-CHEMISTRY-5
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
13.
For the equilibrium AB(g) rd
A(g) B(g) at given temperature 1/3 of AB is dissociated then p/kp
will be numerically equal to ……….
14. The reaction takes place in two steps with equilibrium constant 10–2 for slow step and 102 for fast
step. The equilibrium constant of the overall reaction will be
15 Before equilibrium is setup for the chemical reaction N2 O 4 2NO2 , vapour density(d) of the
gaseous mixture was measured. If D is theoretical value of vapour density, variation of degree of
dissociation() with D/d is as shown in the graph. The value of D/d at the point A is
A
O D
d
16. NH4 COONH2 (s) 2NH3 (g) CO2 (g) , if equilibrium pressure is 3 atm for the above reaction, Kp for
the reaction is
17. M(OH)x has ksp of 4 10–9 and its solubility 10–3 M, the value of x is ……….
18. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X– and HX. The Kb for X– is 10–10. The pH of
the buffer is
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RMT-03- 921 LOT-CHEMISTRY-6
CH EM I STRY
(Batches: 921 Lot)
IIT-JEE, 2021
ANSWER KEYS
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B
5. B 6. A, C, D 7. A, B, D 8. A, C, D
9. A, B, C 10. A, B, D
17. 2 18. 4
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RMT-03- 921 LOT-CHEMISTRY-7
2. B
3. A
kp is constant and does not change with pressure.
40 5
4. Partial pressure of I atoms (PI) 105 Pa = 0.4 10 Pa
100
60
Partial pressure of I2 (PI2 ) 105 Pa 0.60 105 Pa
100
P2 (0.4 105 )2
KP I 2.67 104 Pa
PI2 0.6 105
5. B
6. A, C, D
7. A, B, D
8. A, C, D
9. A, B, C
10. A, B, D
13. 8
14. 1
k k1 k 2 102 102 10º 1
15.
N2 O3 (g)
2NO2 (g)
Dd D
1
d d
D
1
At A, = 0. Hence d
16. Suppose at equilibrium, PCO2 P
Then PNH3 2p atm
We are given that P + 2p = 3 atm
P = 1 atm i.e., PCO2 = 1 atm and PNH3 = 2 atm
2 2
Hence K p PNH3
PCO2 = 2 1 = 4
17. 2
[Salt]
18. pH pK a log
[Acid]
pKb = 10 (given)
pKa = 4
[Salt] = [Acid]
pH = pKa = 4
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website: www.fiitjee.com.
(Batches: 921 Lot)
INSTRUCTIONS
A. Question Paper Format
1. The question paper consists of four parts.
2. Part-A – (01-05) contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.
3. Part-A – (06-10) contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
4. Part-B – (11-12) contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Column(s). The
codes for the Column(s) have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE is/are correct
5. Part-C – (13-18) contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
B. Marking scheme:
(i). For each question in Part A (2), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark
will be awarded.
(ii). For each question in Part A (3), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.
Partial Marks : +1
For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: –2 In all other cases.
For example, if [A], [C] and [D] are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will get +4
marks; darkening only [A] and [D] will get +2 marks; and darkening [A] and [B] will get 2 marks, as a wrong
option is also darkened.
(iii). For each question in Part B (4), you will be awarded 8 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.
Partial Marks : +2 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Other Cases : 0 In all other cases.
(iv).For each question in Part C (5), you will be awarded +3 marks for correct answer and there will be no
negative marking.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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website: www.fiitjee.com.
921 Review Test-3_Math(000000.1)-2
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
n
2 1 1 1
1. The value of lim nn n 1 n n 2 ... n n1 is
n
2 2 2
2
(A) e (B) e
(C) e3 (D) e4
+ +
2. A derivable function f : R R satisfies the condition f(x) – f(y) = logex – logey + x – y x, y R . If
100
1
g(x) denotes the derivative of f(x). Then the value of the sum g is
n 1 n
4. If the maximum distance of any point on the ellipse x 2 + 2y2 + 2xy = 1 from its centre is r. Then r is
equal to
6 1 5 1
(A) (B)
2 2
3 1 2 1
(C) (D)
2 2
5. Let C be a curve which is the locus of the point of intersection of lines x = 2 + m and my = 4 – m, A
circle (x – 2)2 + (y + 1)2 = 25 intersects the curve C at four points P, Q, R and S. If O is the centre of
the curve C, then (OP)2 + (OQ)2 + (OR)2 + (OS)2 is
(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 100 (D) 200
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921 Review Test-3_Math(000000.1)-3
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
2 2
6. If A and B are variable points on the ellipse x + 4y = 4 and O is origin. If the pair of variable straight
lines x2 + 4y2 + axy = 0 represents equation OA & OB. Then locus of the point of intersection of
tangents drawn at points A and B
(A) x – 2y = 0 (B) 2x – y = 0
(C) x + 2y = 0 (D) 2x + y = 0
7. Which of the following equations in parametric form can represent a hyperbola where ‘t’ is a
parameter
a 1 b 1 tx y x ty
(A) x t , y t (B) t 0, 1
2 t 2 t a b a b
t
(C) x e t e t and y e t e t (D) x 2 6 2cos t, y 2 2 4cos 2
2
3 1
n r r
9. The value of lim cot 1 r is / then
n 2
r 1
(A) = (B) = 4
(C) = 2 (D) + = + 3
10. A function f(x) satisfies the relation f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + xy(x + y) x, y R if f(0) = – 1, then
(A) f(x) is polynomial (B) f(x) is an exponential
(C) f(x) is twice differentiable for all x R (D) f(3) = 8
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921 Review Test-3_Math(000000.1)-4
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Column(s). The codes for
the Column(s) have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE is/are correct
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website: www.fiitjee.com.
921 Review Test-3_Math(000000.1)-5
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
1 1 1
13. If f x lim sin4 x sin4 2x 2 sin4 22 x ... n sin4 2n x and g(x) is a differentiable function
n
4 4 4
4
satisfying g(x) + f(x) = 1, then the maximum value of f x g x is ______
x 2x 9x
14. If sin x where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then the number of
2 5 10
solutions in the interval (30, 60) is _____
15. Suppose the function f(x) – f(2x) has the derivative 5 at x = 1 and derivative 7 at x = 2. The derivative
of the function f(x) – f(4x) – 10x at x = 1 is equal to _____
x2 y2
16. A tangent to the ellipse 1 at any point P meet the line x = 0 at a point Q. Let R be the
25 16
image of Q in the line y = x, then circle whose extremities of a diameter are Q and R passes through
a fixed point (, ). Then + is equal to ______
17. Let the major axis of a standard ellipse equals the trans verse axis of a standard hyperbola and their
director circles have radius equal to 2R and R respectively. If e1 and e2 are the eccentricities of the
ellipse and hyperbola respectively, then the value of 4e22 e12
18. For each positive integer n, consider the point P in first quadrant with a abscissa n on the curve
y2 – x2 = 1. If dn represents the shortest distance from the point P to the line y = x and if
2
lim n dn , then 8 is equal to
n
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921 Review Test-3_Math(000000.1)-6
PART – C
13. 4 14. 2 15. 9 16. 0
17. 6 18. 1
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921 Review Test-3_Math(000000.1)-7
1. B
n
1 1 1
n 1 n 2 n 22 ... n 2n 1
= lim
n nn
1 1 1
2 1 2 3 ...
e e1/2 e1/2 e1/(2)3 ... e 2 2 2
1
1
1
e 2 e2
2. C
f x n f x 1
f x lim 1
n 0 n x
1
g(x) = 1
x
100
1 1 1 1
g g 1 g g ... g
n 1 n 2 3 100
=(1 + 2 + 3 … + 100) + 100 = 5050 + 100
= 5150
3. B
Let f(x) = mx + b
(i) f(f(x)) = x
m(mx + b) + b = x
m2x + (m + 1)b = x, m = 1, b = 0
(ii) f(–f(x)) = – x
– f(x) . m + b = –x
–m2x + b(1 – n) = – x
m=1b=0
so has two linear functions.
4. B
Centre is origin O(0, 0)
Let P be any point (r cos, r sin) on ellipse OP = r
r2cos2 + 2r2sin2 + 2r2sin cos = 1
2
r2
3 2sin2 cos 2
2 2 2 3 5
rmax
3 5 3 5 3 5
2
6 2 5 5 1
4 2
5 1
rmax
2
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921 Review Test-3_Math(000000.1)-8
y
5. C P
Equation of curve is (x – 2)(y + 1) = 4
Let x – 2 = X, y + 1 = Y
Curve C is XY = 4 Q
2 2 2
Equation of circle is X + Y = 25 = r O x
S
So, we know that
OP2 + OQ2 + OR2 + OS2 = 4r2
= 4 25 = 100 R
A
6. A, C P (h, k)
Equation of OA & OB x 2 + 4y2 + axy = 0 … (i)
xy
Equation of chord AB yk 1 … (ii) O
4
Then equation of OA & OB 2 2 B
2 2 x + 4y = 4
x xh
y2 yk … (iii)
4 4
2
1 h 2 2xyhk
2
x y 1 k
2
0 … (iv)
4 16 4
Equation (i) and (iv) are same so
4 h2 1 k 2
16 4
h2 = 4k2, x = 2y
x 2y = 0
7. A, C, D
x2 y2
(A) hyperbola 1
a2 b2
x2 y 2
(B) ellipse 2 2 1
a b
(C) hyperbola, x – y2 = 4
2
(D) hyperbola x2 – y2 = 6
8. A, B, C, D
Given f(a + x) = f(a – x)
(A) f(2a – x) = f(a + a–x) = f(a – (a – x)) = f(x)
(B) f(2a + x) = f(–x)
(C) f(2b + x) = f(–x)
(D) f(2a + x) = f(2b + x) so periodic with period 2b – 2a.
9. A, C
3 1
n r r r
1
lim cot
n
r 1 2
n
2r
lim tan1 4 2
n
r 1 1 r r
n
r2 r r2 r
lim tan1
n
r 1
1 r2 r r2 r
n
lim tan1 r 2 r tan1 r 2 r
n
r 1
2
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921 Review Test-3_Math(000000.1)-9
10. A, C, D
f x n f x
f x lim , f 0 0
n 0 n
f n xn x n
lim
n 0 n n
f n
lim lim x x n
n 0 n n 0
f x 1 x2
x3
f x xc
3
3x 2
f x 1 x2 1
3
f(3) = 9 – 1 = 8
13. 4
1 2
sin4 x sin2 x sin 2x
4
1 4 1 1
sin 2x sin2 2x 2 sin2 22 x
4 4 4
1 1 1
4 n
sin4 2n x n sin2 2n x n 1 sin2 2n 1 x
4 4
So f(x) = sin2x , g(x) = cos2x
4
Max f x g x 4
14. 2
x 2x x 2x
sin x
2 5 2 5
x x 2x 2x
sin x
2 2 5 5
x 2x
sin x … (i)
2
5
x 2x
RHS is 0
2 5
While [sinx] = 0, 1, – 1 so [sin x] – 1
x 2x
So [sin x] = 0, 0 if x = 10, 20.
2 5
15. 9
Let h(x) = f(x) – f(2x)
h(x) = f(x) – 2f(2x)
f(1) – 2 f(2) = 5 … (i)
f(2) – 2 f(4) = 7 … (ii)
Let g(x) = f(x) – f(4x) – 10x
g(x) = f(x) – 4f(4x) – 10
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921 Review Test-3_Math(000000.1)-10
= 19 – 10
g(1) = 9.
16. 0
x y
Equation of tangent of the ellipse at P(5 cos, 4 sin) is cos sin 1
5 4
It meets the line x = 0 at Q(0, 4 cosec) and image of Q in the line y = x is R (4 cosec , 0)
Equation of the circle is
x2 + y2 – 4(x + y) cosec = 0
each member of the family passes through the intersection of x 2 + y2 = 0 and x + y = 0
so fixed point (0, 0)
+ = 0.
17. 6
x2 y 2
Equation ellipse 1 (a > b)
a2 b2
2 2 2 2
And its director circles x + y = a + b
4R2
b2 = a2(1 – e12) = 4R2 2 e12 2 … (i)
a
Equation of hyperbola
x2 y2 2 2 2 2
2
2 1 , director circle x + y = a – b
a b1
b12 a 2 e 22 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
a b R a – a (e2 – 1) = R
1
R2
2 e22 … (ii)
a2
2 e12 4 2 e 22
4e22 e12 6
18. 1
P n, 1 n2
1 n2 n
dn
2
1 n2 n
lim n
n
2
lim
n 1 n2 n2
1
8 2 1.
n
2 2
1 n n 2 2
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