NTA NEET MOCK TEST- 10

PHYSICS
1. A bar magnet is suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field of induction B. When will the rate of
change of torque  with deflection  be maximum? [Here  is the angle between the magnetic field
and the magnetic moment of the bar magnet]
1)   00 2)   450 3)   60 0 4)   900
2. A circuit consists of three identical lamps connected to a battery as shown in the figure. When the
switch S is closed then the intensities A and B

1) will increase by eight times 2) will decrease by two times

3) will increase by more than two times 4) will remain the same
3. When shunt of 4  is attached to a galvanometer, the deflection in the galvanometer is reduced to
1
th . If an additional shunt of 2  is also connected. The deflection of galvanometer will be reduced
5
to
1 1
1) th of initial 2) th of initial 3) remains the same 4) None of these
10 13
4. The figure shows a network in which the cell is ideal and it has an emf E. The potential difference
across the resistance 2R is

4E E 3E
1) 2E 2) 3) 4)
7 7 7
5. If the voltage in the primary coil of a step – up transformer with a transformation ratio 3 : 2 is 30V,
then the voltage in the secondary coil is
1) 45 V 2) 15 V 3) 90 V 4) 300 V
6. A point charge Q is placed at the corner of a square plate of side a then the flux through the square
plate is

Q Q Q
1) 2) 3) 4) Zero
8 0 4 0 0
7. In Young’s double - slit experiment, the separation between the slits is halved and the distance
between the slits and the screen is doubled. The fringe width will
1) remain the same 2) be halved 3) be doubled 4) be quadrupled
8. Three long straight conductors are arranged parallel to each other in the same plane. They carry
currents of 1A, 2A and 3A in the same direction. The distance between the first two conductors is x
and the distance between the second and third conductors is y. If the middle conductor is in
equilibrium, then the ratio x : y is
1) 1 : 3 2) 3 : 1 3) 1 : 3 4) 3 : 1
9. A particle of mass m and charge q moving with constant velocity v along positive x direction enters a
region containinga uniform magnetic field B directed along the negative z direction, extending x = a
to x = b. For the particle to enter the region x>b, the minimum value of v is
qbB q b  a  B qaB q b  a  B
1) 2) 3) 4)
m m m 2m
10. Three rods of the same direction have thermal conductivity 3K, 2K and K as shown in the figure.
The temperature of the junction in steady – state is

200 100 50
1) C 2) C 3) 75C 4) C
3 3 3
11. If 21 J of heat energy is supplied to an ideal diatomic gas at constant pressure, then the change in its
internal energy is
1) 10 J 2) 12 J 3) 15 J 4) 18 J
12. An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA as shown in the P – V diagram. The total work done by
the gas during the cycle is

1) PV 2) 2PV 3) 4PV 4) 3PV

13. In a thermodynamic process, temperature and volume of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas are
varied according to the relation VT = k, where k is a positive constant. In this process, if the
temperature of the gas increased by T , then the amount of heat absorbed by gas is [R is the
universal gas constant]
1 3 2 1
1) RT 2) RT 3) RT 4) RT
2 2 3 3
C
14. There is a mixture of n moles of helium gas and 2n moles of oxygen gas. The value of P for the
CV
mixture is
23 40 67 19
1) 2) 3) 4)
15 27 45 13
15. The percentage change in internal energy, when a gas is cooled from 9270C to 27 0C, is
1) 75% 2) 300% 3) 50% 4) 100%
16. A transverse wave pulse is generated at the free end of a string which is hanging from a rigid
support. The speed of the wave pulse at distance x from the free end is proportional to
1
1) x 2 2) x 3) x 4)
x
17. While performing a resonance column experiment to measure the speed of sound, a student gets the
first resonance condition at a column length of 18cm during winter. Repeating the same experiment
during summer, she measures the column length to be x cm for the second resonance. Then
1) x  18 2) x  54 3) 18  x  36 4) 18  x  54
18. A particle is projected from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 ms 1 at an angle  with the
horizontal. Another particle is projected on the surface of some other planet with a velocity of 3ms 1
at the same angle and it follows a trajectory which is identical to the trajectory of the projectile which
is fired on earth. The value of the acceleration due to the gravity on that planet is [given that the
acceleration due to gravity on that planet is given that the acceleration due to gravity on the surface
of earth, g = 9.8 ms-2]
1) 16.3ms 2 2) 1.8ms 2 3) 3.5 ms 2 4) 5.9 ms 2
19. For the system shown in the figure, the inclined plane is fixed, all the pulleys are light and friction is
absent everywhere. The tension in the string will be

2 3 1
1) mg sin  2) mg sin  3) mg sin  4) 2mg sin 
3 2 2
20. In the arrangement shown, the pulleys, strings and the spring balance, all are ideal if m1  m2 , then
the reading of the spring balance is

1 4m1m2 2m1m2
1) m1  m2 2)  m1  m2  3) 4)
2 m1  m2 m1  m2
21. Each minute receives about 2 cal of heat energy per square centimeter from the sun. This is called
the solar constant S. The value of solar constant in S.I. units is
1) 8kW m 2 2) 1.4 kW m 2 3) 1.8 kW m2 4) 2.5 kW m2
22. The potential energy of a particle under a conservative force is given by U  x    x 2  3 x  J . The
equilibrium position of the particle is at
1) x  1.5 m 2) x  2 m 3) x  2.5 m 4) x  3 m
23. A bullet of mass 0.02 kg travelling horizontally with velocity 250 ms-1 strikes a block of wood of
mass 0.23 kg which rests on a rough horizontal surface. After the impact, the block and bullet move
together and come to rest after travelling a distance of 40 m. The coefficient of sliding friction of the
rough surface is (g=9.8 ms-2)
1) 0.75 2) 0.61 3) 0.51 4) 0.30
24. A skater of mass m standing on ice throws a stone of mass M = 2m with a velocity of v = 5m/s in
horizontal direction. If the coefficient of friction between the skater and the ice is 0.5, find the
distance over which the skater will move, (take g = 10 ms-2)
1) 20 m 2) 15 m 3) 10 m 4) 5 m
25. A ball of mass m = 0.5 kg is attached to the end of a string having length L = 0.5 m is rotated on a
horizontal circular path about the vertical axis. The maximum tension that the string can bear is 324
N. What is the maximum possible value of angular velocity of ball (in radian/s)?

1) 9 2) 18 3) 27 4) 36
26. The distance of Neptune and Saturn from the Sun are nearly 1013 and 1012 m respectively. Ratio of
their time period will be
1) 10 2) 100 3) 10 10 4) 1000
27. A man goes to a height equal to the radius of the earth from its surface. The weight of the person at
that height relative to his weight on the surface of earth is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4 5
28. A particle starts oscillating simple harmonically from its equilibrium position with time period T.
The ratio of KE and PE of the particle at the t = T/12 is
1) 1 : 4 2) 2 : 1 3) 3 : 1 4) 4 : 1
29. Find the phase difference between two waves which are represented by
y1  106 sin 100t   x / 50   0.5  m
y2  10 6 cos 100t   x / 50   m
[where x is expressed in meters and t is expressed in seconds]
1) 1.07 radians 2) 2.07 radians 3) 0.5 radians 4) 1.5 radians
30. What will be the change in interatomic distance (in A) of steel on applying a stress of 109 N / m 2 .
The young’s modulus of steel is 2 1011 N / m 2 and the interatomic distance in steel is 2.8 A0.
1) 7  10 3 2) 14  10 3 3) 21 103 4) 28  103
31. An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the following figure. Then the
velocity v of the fluid is

1) 3.0 m/s 2) 1.5 m/s 3) 1.0 m/s 4) 2.25 m/s

32. Two blocks of masses 10kg and 30 kg are placed along a vertical line. If 10kg block is raised through
a height of 7cm, then the distance through which other mass should be moved to raise the centre of
mass of the system by 1 cm is
1) 1 cm up 2) 1 cm down 3) 2 cm down 4) 2 cm up
33. If a given point P is in contact with ground initially and wheel of radius R is in pure rolling, then the
displacement of point P when point P reaches top most point of the sphere for the first time will be

1)  R 2) 2 R 3)  
 2 1 R 4)  
2 4 R
34. If an atom is excited to principal quantum number n, how many different wavelengths may be
observed in the spectrum of hydrogen sample during de – excitation?
n  n  1 n  n  1 n  n  2 n  n  2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
35. 1 amu (atomic mass unit) mass is equal to energy of
1) 931 keV 2) 93.1 eV 3) 931 MeV 4) 9.31 Mev
36. To measure the resistance of galvanometer by half deflection method, a shunt is connected to the
galvanometer. The shunt is
1) low resistance connected in parallel 2) low resistance connected in series
3) high resistance connected in parallel 4) high resistance connected in series
37. Cadmium rods are used in a nuclear reactor for
1) slowing down fast neutrons 2) speeding up slow neutrons
3) absorbing neutrons 4) provides more fuel to nuclear reactor.
38. What will be the number of photons emitted per second by a 10W sodium vapour lamp assuming
that 90% of the consumed energy is converted into light? Wavelength of sodium light is 590 nm,
h  6.63 10 34 Js
1) 1.67  1018 2) 1.67  10 20 3) 2.67  1019 4) 3.67  1023
39. A proton when accelerated through a potential difference of V volt has a wavelength  associated
with it. An   particle inorder to have the same  must be accelerated through potential difference
of
1) V volt 2) 4V volt 3) 2V volt 4) V / 8 volt
40. Find the potential difference between A and B as shown in the figure.

1) 15 V 2) Zero 3) 10 V 4) 5 V
41. Choose the type of semiconductor from the following options for which the electrical conductivity is
due to the breaking of its covalent bonds.
1) donor 2) acceptor 3) intrinsic 4) extrinsic
42. Two plano – convex lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 30 cm are placed together to form a double
convex lens. The final focal length
1) 12cm 2) 60 cm 3) 20 cm 4) 30 cm
43. A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of apex angle 300 and refractive
index 2 . The angle of deviation of the ray is
1) 30 0 2) 45 0 3) 15 0 4) None of these
44. In Young’s experiment, the third bright band for the wavelength of light source A having wavelength
6000A0 coincides with the fourth bright band for source B in the same arrangement. Wavelength of
light emitted by source B is
1) 6289 A0 2) 4500 A0 3) 2250 A0 4) 6000 A0
45. In Young’s double slit experiment how many maximas can be obtained on a screen (including the
central maxima) if   2000 A0 and d  7000 A0 ?
1) 12 2) 7 3) 18 4) 6
CHEMISTRY
46. In face centred cubic arrangement of A and B atoms, A atoms are at the corners of the unit cell and B
atoms at the face centres. One of the A atoms is missing from one corner in the unit cell. The
simplest formula of the compound is
1) A7 B3 2) AB3 3) A7 B24 4) A7/8 B5
47. In the first order reaction the concentration of reactant decreases from 800mol/dm3 to 50 mol/dm3 in
200 sec. The rate constant of reaction in s-1 is
1) 2 10 4 s 1 2) 1.386 102 s 1 3) 3.45 105 s 1 4) 2 10 4 s 1
48. CO2 cannot be obtained by heating:
1) Na2CO3 2) BeCO3 3) Li2CO3 4) Ca  HCO3  2
49. A gas can be compressed to a fraction of its volume. The same volume of a gas can be spread all
over a room. The reason for this is that
1) The volume occupied by molecules of a gas is negligible as compared to the total volume of the
gas
2) Gases consists of molecules which are in a state of random motion.
3) Gases consist of molecules having very large inter – molecular space which can be reduced or
increased.
4) None of these
50. An ideal gas is initially at temperature T and volume V. It’s volume increases by V due to an
V
increase in temperature of T , pressure remaining constant. The quantity   varies with
V T
temperatures

1) 2)

3) 4)
51. Which of the following vitamins given below is water soluble?
1) Vitamin K 2) Vitamin C 3) Vitamin D 4) Vitamin E
52. What is the mole fraction of toluene in the vapour phase of 30 0 C above a benzene – toluene solution.
The mole fraction of benzene in the solution phase is 0.400?
 PB0  119 torr and PT0  37.0 torr  , B stands for benzene and T stands for toluene
1) 0.237 2) 0.367 3) 0.428 4) 0.318
53. A compound that easily undergoes bromination is –
1) Phenol 2) Toluene 3) Benzene 4) Benzoic acid

54.
Which one of the following is true about this reaction?
1) A is meso – 2, 3 – butanediol formed by syn addition
2) A is meso – 2, 3 – butanediol formed by anti – addition
3) A is a racemic mixture of d and I – 2, 3 – butanediol formed by anti – addition
4) A is a racemic mixture of d and I – 2 , 3 – butanediol formed by syn addition
55. If Na  ion is larger than Mg 2 ion and S 2  is larger than Cl  ion, which of the following will be least
soluble in water?
1) Sodium chloride 2) Sodium sulphide 3) Magnesium chloride 4) Magnesium sulphide
56. The chemical processes involved in the production of steel from haematitie ore involves:
1) Reduction 2) Oxidation
3) Reduction followed by oxidation 4) Oxidation followed by reduction
57. Which one is the most likely structure of CrCl3.6 H 2O , if 1/3 of total chlorine of the compound is
precipitated by adding AgNO3 to its aqueous solution?
1) CrCl3.6 H 2O 2) Cr  H 2O 3 Cl3  .3H 2O
3) CrCl2  H 2O  4  Cl.2 H 2O 4) CrCl  H 2O 5  Cl2 .H 2O
58. The radiation with maximum frequency is
1) X – rays 2) Radio waves 3) UV rays 4) IR rays
59. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not
subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
1) CO2 is more volatile than CS2
2) Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2
3) CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than CS2
4) Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides
60. When benzene or its derivative is treated with carbon monoxide and hydrogen chloride in the
presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride, it gives
1) Benzaldehyde 2) Benzophenone 3) Benzyl alcohol 4) Benzal chloride
61. Which of the following system is most stable for a chelate?
1) Two fused cyclic system 2) Three fused cyclic system
3) Four fused cyclic system 4) Five fused cyclic system
62. Which of the following is NOT a tranquilizer?
1) Meprobamate 2) Equanil 3) Chlordiazepoxide 4) Bromopheniiramine

63. N 0 / 2 atoms of X(g) are converted into X  g  by energy E1 .N 0 / 2 atoms of X(g) are converted into
X   g  by energy E2. Hence, ionization potential and electron affinity of X(g) are:
2 E1 2  E1  E2  2 E1 2 E2  E  E2  , 2 E2
1) , 2) , 3) 1 4) None is correct
N0 N0 N0 N0 N0 N0
64. Nitrogen forms N2, but phosphorous is converted into P4 from P, the reason is
1) Triple bond is present between phosphorus atom
2) p  p bonding is strong in nitrogen
3) p  p bonding is weak in nitrogen
4) Multiple bond is formed easily
65. 4 ml of HCl solution pH=2 is mixed with 6 ml of NaOH solution of pH=12. What would be the final
pH of solution? (log 2=0.3)
1) 10.3 2) 11.3 3) 11 4) 4.3
66. The correct order in which the O  O bond length increases in the following is –
1) O2  O3  H 2O2 2) H 2O2  O3  O2 3) O3  O2  H 2O2 4) O2  H 2O2  O3
67. The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solution is
1) Rb   K   Cs   Na  2) Na   K   Rb   Cs 
3) K   Na   Rb   Cs  4) Cs   Rb   K   Na 
68. For which of the following van’t Hoff factor cannot be greater than unity?
1) K 4  Fe  CN 6  2) AlCl3 3) NH 2CONH 2 4) KNO3
69. Which of the following exhibits tautomerism?
1)  CH 3  2 NH 2)  CH 3 3 CNO 3) R3CNO2 4) RCH 2 NO2
70. Among the following solids, Schottky defect is NOT observed in –
1) ZnS 2) NaCl 3) KCl 4) CsCl
71. Which of the following relations gives the value of n =
Molecular Mass Molecular Mass Empirical Mass
1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
Atomic Mass Empirical Mass Molecular Mass
72. The following data were obtained from the first order decomposition of 2A  g   B  g   C  S  at a
constant volume and at a particular temperature

S.NO. Time Total pressure in Pascal

1 At the end of 10 min 300
2 After completion 200

The rate constant in min-1 is

1) 0.0693 2) 69.3 3) 6.93 4) 6.93  10 4
73. Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
1) SeO2 2) Al2O3 3) Sb2O3 4) Bi2O3

74. When
1) Propene is the major product
2) Ethane and C3 H 7 N  CH 3 2 are the only product
3) Ethene and propene are obtained while ethane as the major product
4) Equimolar amounts of ethane and propene are obtained
75. The best reagent to convert pent – 3 – en – 2 – ol into pent – 3 – en – 2 – one is
1) pyridinium chloro – chromate 2) chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid
3) acidic dichromate 4) acidic permanganate
76. On oxidation of S 2O32 by MnO4 in neutral aqueous medium, the oxidation state of S would change
from:
1) +6 to – 2 2) – 2 to + 2 3) – 2 to + 6 4) + 4 to + 6
77. Consider the reaction 2 NO  g   O2  g   2 NO2  g  ; Predict whether the reaction is spontaneous at
298 K.  f G  NO   86.69 kJ / mol ,  f G  NO2   51.84 kJ / mol
1) Yes, Spontaneous 2) No, the reaction is Non – spontaneous
3) Equilibrium 4) Cannot predict
78. Determine the stability order of given carbanions:

1) i > ii > iii 2) iii > i > ii 3) iii > ii > i 4) ii > iii > i
79. Equanil belongs to which of the following class to drugs?
1) Antibiotic 2) Tranqulizer 3) Antiseptic 4) Analgesic
80.  X   H 2 SO4  Y  , a colourless gas with irritating smell and
Y   K2Cr2O7  H 2 SO4  Green solution [X] and [Y] are, respectively –
1) SO32  , SO2 2) Cl  , HCl 3) S 2  , H 2 S 4) CO32 , CO2
81. An acidic solution of pH = 6 diluted 1000 times, the pH of the final solution becomes
1) 6.01 2) 9 3) 3.5 4) 6.99
82. Periodic classification of elements based on atomic volume curve was given by
1) Newland 2) Lother Mayer 3) Dobereiner 4) Mendeleev
83. Which of the following reagents convert the propene to 1 – propanol?
1) H 2O, H 2 SO4 2) Aqueous KOH
3) MgSO4 , NaBH 4 / H 2O 4) B2 H 6 , H 2 O, OH 
84. The conversion of ethyl chloride into diethyl ether takes place by
1) Williamson’s synthesis 2) Perkin’s reaction
3) Wurtz reaction 4) Grignard reaction
85. In the nucleophilic substitution reactions  S N 2 or S N 1 , the reactivity of alkyl halides follows the
sequence
1) R  I  R  Br  R  Cl  R  F 2) R  Cl  R  F  R  Br  R  I
3) R  F  R  Cl  R  Br  R  I 4) R  I  R  F  R  Cl  R  Br
86. Which of the following carboxylic acid undergoes decarboxylation easily?
1) C6 H 5  CO  CH 2  COOH 2) C6 H 5  CO  COOH
C6 H 5  CH  COOH C6 H 5  CH  COOH
| |
3) 4) NH 2
OH
87. Which of the following does not represent the correct order of the properties indicated?
1) Ni 2  Cr 2  Fe2  Mn2  size 
2) Sc  Ti  Cr  Fe  size 
3) Mn2  Ni 2  Co2  Fe2  unpaired electron 
4) Fe 2  Co 2  Ni 2  Cu 2  unpaired electron 
88. Maltose on hydrolysis gives
1) Mannose + glucose 2) Galactose + glucose 3) Glucose + Glucose4) Mannose + fructose
89. The IUPAC name of
CH 3  CH  CH  C  CHO
| |
OH CH 3
1) 4 – Hydroxy – 1- methylpentanal
2) 4 – Hydroxy – 2 – methylpent – 2 – en – 1 – al
3) 2 – Hydroxy – 4 – methylpent – 3 – en – 5 – al
4) 2 – Hydroxy – 3 – methylpent – 2 – en – 5 – al
90. Adsorption of gases on solid surface is generally exothermic because
1) Enthalpy is positive 2) Entropy decreases
3) Entropy increases 4) Free energy increases
BIOLOGY
91. ________ is used to speed up the malting process in the brewing industry.
1) GA1 2) GA2 3) GA3 4) GA4
92. Identify the following statements is true (T) or false (F) for genetic diversity and select the correct
option:
1) Genetic diversity is a diversity shown by a single species at genetic level
2) It is total genetic information contained in all individuals of a community
3) Rauwolfia vomitoria shows the variation in the term of concentration of active chemical reserpine.
4) India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of mango.
93. In flowering plants, meiosis takes place at the time of
1) Seed germination 2) Bud formation
3) Formation of pollen grains 4) Formation of root tip
94. C2 cycle is studied in
1) C4 plants
2) Those showing photorespiration
3) Both C4 plants and those showing photorespiration
4) None of the above
95. Which of the following statement is correctly paired?
1) Zn 2   It is an activator of nitrogenase during nitrogen fixation.
2) Mo – Activator of alcohol dehydrogenase
3) Mg 2  Activator of phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
4) Cu – Activator of RuBisCO
96. The back flow of faecal matter in the large intestine is prevented by the presence of
1) Sphincter of Oddi 2) Ileo – caecal value
3) Gastric – oesophageal sphincter 4) Pyloric sphincter
97. Which of the following is correct with respect to the sperms of fertile males?
1) At least 40% of sperms must have a normal shape and size
2) At least 60% of sperms must have a motility
3) At least 60% of sperms must have a normal shape and size.
4) Both 1 & 2
98. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct for aerobic muscles?
1) Such muscle contains red coloured oxygen storing pigment called myoglobin.
2) Such muscles contain a large number of mitochondria
3) they are also called red fibres.
4) All of these
99. The following is the illustration of the sequence of ovarian events ‘a’ to ‘I’ in a human female:

Identify developing follicle, mature follicles and corpus luteum

1) (a) to (d) – mature follicle, (e) to (f) developing follicle, (g) – (I) corpus luteum
2) (a) to (d) – developing follicle, (e) to (f) mature follicle, (g) – (I) corpus luteum
3) (a) to (d) – corpus luteum, (e) to (f) mature follicle, (g) – (I) developing luteum
4) None of these
100. In the electron transport system present in the inner mitochondrial membrane, complexes I and IV
are respectively
1) NADH dehydrogenase and FADH2
2) NADH2 and NADH dehydrogenase
3) NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome – c oxidase complex
4) NADH dehydrogenase and ATP synthase
101. Which of the following is considered a living fossil?
1) Locusta 2) Dentalium 3) Limulus 4) Ascidia
102. Which of the following is a common characteristic between earthworm, leech and a centipede?
1) they have Malpighian tubules 2) they are hermaphrodite
3) they have a ventral nerve cord 4) they have no legs
103. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
1) 72 hrs of coitus 2) 72 hrs of ovulation
3) 72 hrs of menstruation 4) 72 hrs of implantation
104. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged is
1) Asthma 2) Emphysema
3) Occupational respiratory disorders 4) Pneumonia
105. The main function of phloem is translocation of
1) Water 2) Mineral 3) Air 4) Food
106. BOD is
1) Directly proportional to the amount of organic waste
2) Directly proportional to the amount of DO
3) Inversly proportional to the amount of DO
4) Both 1 & 3
107. A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing
countries is
1) Flavr Savr tomatoes 2) Starlink maize
3) Bt Soybean 4) Golden rice
108. A plant cell that has the potential to develop into a full plant is called
1) Totipotency 2) Unipotency 3) Multipotency 4) Regeneration
109. The generative cell is destroyed by laser but a normal pollen tube is still formed because
1) The region of emergence of pollen tube is not harmed
2) Laser beam stimulates growth of pollen tube
3) Contents of killed generative cell stimulate pollen growth
4) Vegetative cell is not damaged
110. The frequency of recessive allele in a population is 0.2. The number of heterozygotes in a population
of 500 is
1) 150. 2) 240. 3) 160. 4) 64.
111. What is correct about self – incompatibility?
1) It is due to the non – synchronization of pollen release and stigma receptivity.
2) It is a genetic mechanism
3) It is seen only in unisexual flowers
4) It is due to the anther and stigma are placed at different positions.
112. In the given diagram of areolar connective tissue, identify parts labeled A – D.

1) A – Mast cell, B – Macrophage, C – Fibroblast, D – Collagen fibres

2) A – Macrophage, B – Mast cell, C – Fibroblast, D – Collagen fibres
3) A – Macrophage, B – Mast cell, C – Collagen fibres, D – Fibroblast
4) A – Mast cell, B – Macrophage, C – Collagen fibres, D – Fibroblast
113. What is true about ribosomes?
1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands for sedimentation differentiation.
2) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
4) These are self – splicing introns of some RNAs
114. Which of the following is the Pribnow box?
1) 5 ' TATAAT 3' 2) 5 ' TAATTA 3' 3) 5 ' AATAAT 3' 4) 5' ATATTA 3'
115. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately
1) 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues 2) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
3) 5 ml of CO2 to the alveoli 4) 5 ml of CO2 to the tissues
116. Choose the correct statement.
1) Vasa recta is well developed in cortical nephrons
2) The PCT and DCT are situated in the medulla of the kidney
3) The golmerulus encloses the Bowman’s capsule
4) The ascending limb of the Henle’s loop extends as the DCT
117. The chemical released by Penicilium notatum inhibited the growth of which microbe?
1) Clostridium 2) Streptomyces 3) Staphylococci 4) Saccharomyces
118. The bacterial cell divides in every minute. If it takes one hour to fill up a cup, how much time will be
taken to fill half the cup?
1) 59 minutes 2) 30 minutes 3) 60 minutes 4) 29 minutes
119. The breeding of the unrelated animals, which may be between individuals of the same breed but
having no common ancestors fro 4 – 6 generations is called
1) Inbreeding 2) Cross – breeding 3) Out – crossing 4) Inter – specific hybridization
120. Flowers are zygomorphic in
1) Aloe 2) Indigofera 3) Solanum nigrum 4) Colchicum
121. Both the lobes of thyroid gland are interconnected with
1) Connective tissue called the stromal tissue 2) Connective tissue called the thyroid tissue
3) Connective tissue called follicle tissue 4) Connective tissue called the isthmus tissue
122. Which of the following statement is correct regarding foetal development in humans?
1) By the end of the first month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits
2) By the end of 12 weeks (second trimester), most of the major organ systems are formed.
3) The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head is usually observed during
the fifth month.
4) By the end of about 26 weeks (end of the second trimester), the body is covered with fine hair, eye
– lids separate, and eyelashes are formed
123. Desert plants are generally
1) Viviparous 2) Succulent 3) Herbaceous 4) Heterophyllus
124. Ideal cloning vector should have
1) Restriction sites 2) Selectable marker 3) Origin of replication4) All of these
125. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
1) Recombinant DNA – DNA formed by the joining of segments of DNA from different sources.
2) Purine – Nitrogenous bases Cytosine, thymine and uracil
3) ATP – The principal energy carrying compound in the cell
4) r – RNA – RNA molecules found in ribosomes
126. Wine is prepared by fermentation of grape juice by
1) Bacillus liquifaciens 2) Penicillium roqueforti
3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae 4) Streptococcus aureus
127. Synapsids evolved around
1) 350 mya 2) 300 mya 3) 250 mya 4) 200 mya
128. Which of the following pigments is purplish – red and contains a vitamin derivative?
1) Rhodopsin 2) Iodopsin 3) Melanin 4) None of the above
129. Bast fibres are made up of
1) Parenchyma cells 2) Collenchyma cells 3) Sclerenchyma cells 4) Chlorenchyma cells
130. Which of the following does not happen during embryogenesis?
1) Cell multiplication 2) Cell differentiation 3) Equational division 4) Reduction division
131. All the following statements are correct, except
1) Interphse is the shortest period of cell cycle
2) Cell growth, in terms of cytoplasmic increase, is a continuous process
3) Cycles of growth and division allow a single cell to form a structure consisting of millions of cell
4) The replicated DNA are distributed to daughter nuclei by a complex series of events during cell
division.
132. The following statements are given about different plant growth hormones:
I. Cytokinin suppresses the synthesis of chlorophyll.
II. Auxins control apical dominance.
III. Gibberellins promote shoot elongation
IV. Abscisic acid enables seeds to withstand desiccation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) I and III 4) II, III and IV
133. Which of the following will decay faster?
1) Sapwood 2) Softwood
3) Wood with lot of fibres 4) Heart wood
134. A high density of tiger population in an area can result in
1) Migration 2) Interspecific competiton
3) Intraspecific competition 4) Protocooperation
135. Choose the option which rightly labels A, B, C and D in the figure given.

1) A – light chains, B – heavy chain, C – antigen binding sites, D – disulphide bonds

2) A – disulphide bonds, B – antigen binding site, C – heavy chains, D – light chains
3) A – antigen binding sites, B – light chain, C – heavy chains, D – disulphide bonds
4) A – antigen binding sites, B – disulphide bonds, C – light chains, D – heavy chains
136. In the electron transport system, a molecule of ATP is formed when an electron passes from:
1) Cytochrome – c to cytochrome – a 2) Cytochrome – a to cytochrome – c
3) Cytochrome – b to cytochrome – c1 4) Cytochrome – c to cytochrome – b
137. In the wall of the alimentary canal, what is the actual sequence of layers from outer to inner?
1) Serose, longitudinal muscle, mucosa, submucosa
2) Mucosa, serosa, longitudinal muscle
3) Serosa, longitudinal miscle, circular muscle, submucos, mucosa
4) Serosa, circular muscle, submucosa, mucosa
138. Read the following sentences:-
A) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose gel and extracted from the gel
piece.
B) E coli cloning vector pBR322 have several restriction sites, Ori, antibiotic resistance genes &
ROP.
C) The downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to product
D) Competent bacterial cells cannot take up the plasmid.
1) All are correct 2) Only is D is correct 3) Only D is incorrect 4) All are incorrect
139. Which of the following statements is false?
1) Aqueous humor leak out by canal of schlemm into blood capillaries and again reach upto their
veins.
2) A transparent, biconvex lens is present just after iris
3) Iris divides the vitreous chamber into two parts, anterior chamber and posterior chamber
4) Aqueous humor and vitreous humor both the fluids are secreted by the glands of ciliary body.
140. During ventricular systole
1) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is pumped into
the artery.
2) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the
pulmonary vein.
3) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the
pulmonary artery.
4) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the
pulmonary artery.
141. Which of the following is correct regarding glycolysis?
1) It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell
2) Hydrogen atoms are removed from NAD+ and transferred to PGAL.
3) ATP is consumed during the conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid.
4) Conversion of BPGA to PGA is an energy – yielding process.
142. Which one of the following statements is correct about secondary succession?
1) It begins on a bare rock.
2) It occurs on a deforested site.
3) It follows primary succession
4) It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace.
143. During ionic flux, uptake of ions into inner space is
1) Active 2) Passive 3) Energy – dependent 4) Both 1 & 3
144. Which of the following factors play a role in primary productivity?
1) Light and temperature 2) Water and nutrients
3) Photosynthesis capacity of producers 4) All of these
145. Which of the following hormones pass – through “route – B” in the given figure?

1) Oxytocin and Vasopressin 2) TSH and prolactin

3) GnRH and somatostatin 4) GH and gonadotropins
146. Find out wrong statement regarding Cycas.
1) It has an unbranched stem. 2) It possesses pinnately compound leaves
3) It is dioecious plant. 4) It is a non – archeological plant.
147. Variable number of tandem repeats (VTNRs) in the DNA molecule are highly useful in:
1) Monoclonal antibody production 2) DNA fingerprinting
3) Recombinant DNA technology 4) Stem cell culture
148. Parturition is induced by
1) A complex neuroendocrine mechanism 2) A neuro exocrine mechasnism
3) A physio – chemical mechanism 4) None of the above
149. All the following involves osmosis, except
1) Water entering from soil to root hair
2) Water passing from root hair to adjacent cells
3) Water movement into xylem vessel element
4) Water entering a mesophyll cell from xylem vessel element
150. When fungi feed on dead organic matter, they are known as
1) Dimorphic 2) Parasites 3) Saprophytes 4) None of these
151. State whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F) and choose the accurate option.
i) Abortions could happen spontaneously
ii) Infertility is the inability to produce viable offspring due to defects in the female partner only.
iii) Complete lactation could help in contraception.
iv) Creating awareness can help create a reproductively healthy society.
1) i – F, ii – F, iii – T, iv – T 2) i – F, ii – T, iii – F, iv – T
3) i – T, ii – F, iii – T, iv – T 4) i – T, ii – T, iii – F, iv – F
152. Which of the following types of gynoecium is associated with wind pollination?

1) 2) 3) 4)
153. A reduction in the quantity of oxygen evolution during photosynthesis is may be observed at
1) Light having wavelength more than 680 nm
2) Light having wavelength less than 680 nm
3) Light having wavelength 560 nm
4) Light having wavelength less than 360 nm
154. Read the below given statements with respect to three important steps of decomposition:
fragmentation, leaching and catabolism, Select the correct option.
i) Detritivores (eg., earthworm) breakdown detritus into smaller particles.
ii) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into soil horizontal and get precipitated as unavailable
salts.
iii) Decomposers (e.g., bacteria and fungi) secrete digestive enzymes and degrade detritus into
simpler inorganic substance.

Leaching Fragmentation Catabolism

A (i) (ii) (iii)
B (iii) (ii) (i)
C (ii) (i) (iii)
D (ii) (iii) (i)

1) b 2) A 3) C 4) D
155. The correct statements about the working or oral pills are:
i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
ii) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
iii) Inhibit spermatogenesis
1) i, ii & iii 2) i & ii 3) ii only 4) iii only
156. Species diversity generally increases as one proceeds from
1) Low altitude to high altitude, and from low latitudes to high latitudes.
2) High altitude to low altitude, and from low latitudes to high latitudes.
3) High altitude to low altitude, and from high latitudes to low latitudes.
4) Low altitude to high altitude, and from high latitudes to low latitudes.
157. In tissue culture experiments of tobacco callus, it was seen that when the culture medium contains
2ppm of IAA and 2ppm of kinetin, an undifferentiated mass of callus is produced. If the ratio of
kinetin to IAA is increased, then
1) The callus size would increase by repeated cell divisions.
2) Root initiation would take place
3) Shoot initiation would occur
4) The callus would die
158. In human beings, the color of skin is controlled by
1) Multiple alleles 2) Lethal genes 3) Polygenic effect 4) None of these
159. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of a sacromere. Mark the option with a correct
description of the structure labeled as A, B, C and D in the same.

1) A – Elastic fibre that bisects I – band, B – Width of this band reduces during muscle contraction
2) B – Consists of myosin filaments, C – Width of this band remains same during muscle contraction
3) C – Light band that contains actin filaments, D – Don’t exist when the sacromere get contracted
maximally
4) A – Z – line to which thin filaments are firmly attached, D – H – Zone which can be seen in a
maximally contracted muscle fibre also.
160. A nematode Meloidogyne incognita infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction
in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was based on the process of
1) RNAi 2) mRNA silencing
3) Anti – sense RNA technology 4) All of these
161. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
1) Ginger – Sucker 2) Chlamydomonas – Conidia
3) Yeast – Zoospores 4) Onion – Bulb
162. Transgenic crops are modified through genetic engineering to develop natural resistance to insect
pests. Which of these pairs consists of transgenic crops?
1) Bt Tobacco and Bt Cotton 2) Tomato and Bt rice
3) Maize and sugarcane 4) Bt Tomato and wheat
163. Given below is a list of various diseases/disorders.
a. Phenylketonuria; b. Grave’s diseases; c. Thalassemia; d. Rheumatoid arthritis; e. Myasthenia
gravis; f. colour blindness; g. Blindness
Which of the following represents hereditary disease?
1) a, b, d and e 2) a, c, e, f and g 3) c, f and g 4) a, c and f
164. Which of the following set of coenzymes are nucleotides and vitamin niacin?
1) NAD, NADP 2) FMN, FAD 3) ATP, ADP 4) ATP, FAD
165. The classification of organisms based on chromosome number is called
1) Cytotaxonomy 2) Numerical taxonomy
3) Karyotaxonomy 4) Biochemistry
166. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of
1) Industrial wastes poured into water bodies
2) Extent which water is polluted with organic compounds
3) Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin
4) Amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night
167. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about crack?
1) It interferes with transport of neurotransmitter dopamine.
2) It produces a sense of euphoria
3) Excessive dosage causes hallucinations
4) All of these
168. It has been found in many cells that ribosomes occur in chains along mRNA molecules. What is the
advantage of this arrangement as compared to a situation in which ribosomes occur singly
1) Fewer tRNA molecules are used in protein sysnthesis
2) Polypeptides can be produced more easily
3) A greater variety of polypeptides can be produced
4) Probability of gene mutation occurring is less
169. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in
1) Cyclic photophosphorylation 2) In PS II
3) Calvin cycle 4) Non – cyclic photophosphorylation
170. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anti –
coagulant heparin?
1) Neutrophils 2) Basophils 3) Eosinophils 4) Monocytes
171. The macronutrient which is an essential component of cell organic compounds, yet not obtained by
plants from soil, is
1) Nitrogen 2) Carbon 3) Phosphorous 4) Magnesium
172. Water potential in the leaf tissue is positive (+) during
1) Excessive transpiration 2) Low transpiration
3) Excessive absorption 4) Guttation
173. The living component of phloem tissue is
1) Sieve tube 2) Companion cells 3) Bast parenchyma 4) All of these
174. Taxonomy refers to
1) Plant classification 2) Plant nomenclature
3) Plant affinity 4) All of these
175. Which of the following is the most abundant protein in animals?
1) Haemoglobin 2) Keratin 3) RuBisCO 4) Collagen
176. Select the wrong statement from the following.
1) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, bounded by the thylakoid
membrane.
2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
3) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria
4) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane
177. The nephridia of earthworm are concerned with
1) Locomotion 2) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes
3) Digestion 4) Respiration
178. Primary roots and its branches constitute the
1) Tap root system 2) Adventious root system
3) Tertiary root system 4) Fibrous root system
179. ‘Bhang’ and ‘Ganja’ are
1) Extract of hemp plant – Cannabis sativa
2) Ripe poppy fruits and leaves
3) Dried leaves, flowers and buds of Cannabis indica plant
4) None of the above
180. Which of the following are common freshwater fishes?
1) Mackerel and Rohu 2) Rohu, common carp and Catla
3) Hilsa and Sardine 4) None of these
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