NUST Engineering
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MATHS
1. The subset A of B which is different from the set of B itself, is called
a. Proper subset
b. Improper subset
Maths 1 to 80
Phy 81 to 140
c. Subset
d. Equal set
2. 0.123456789123456789123456789…. Chem 141 to 170
a. An irrational number
b. A rational number Eng 171 to 190
c. A whole number IQ 191 to 200
d. A –ive number
3. Every integer number is also
a. Irrational number
b. Whole number
c. Natural number
d. Rational number
4. The number √𝑛 , where n is a prime number is
a. A Rational number
b. An Irrational number
c. A Natural number
d. integer number
5. The additive inverse of real numbers
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
6. If z = a + b then?
a. –(a + b)
b. –a + b
c. a – b
d. none
7. The multiplicative inverse of 2 is
a. 0
b. 1
c. -2
d. ½
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8. Conjugate of (-3 , 4) is
a. (3 , 4)
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b. (3 ,-4)
c. (-3 ,-4)
d. (-3 , 4)
9. 1 > -1 -3 > -5, this property is called
a. Additive property
b. Transitive property
c. Multiplicative property
d. Closure property
10. It Q , R. are any sets, then Q – R =
a. Q ∩ ( 𝑄 − 𝑅)
b. Q−( 𝑄 ∪ 𝑅)
c. Q−( 𝑄 ∩ 𝑅)
d. Q ∪ ( 𝑄 − 𝑅)
11. The equation| x + 4| = x has solution
a. X = -2
b. X = 2
c. X = -4
d. X = 4
12. Geometrically, the modulus of a complex number represents its distance from the
a. Point (1 , 0)
b. Point (0 , 1)
c. Point (1 , 1)
d. Point (0 , 0)
13. Associative law of multiplication
a. ab = ba
b. a( bc) = ( ab )c
c. a( a + b ) = ab +bc
d. (a + b)c = ac + bc
14. a.a-1 = a-1.a =1 is a
a. Commutative law of multiplication
b. Multiplicative identity
c. Associative law of multiplication
d. Multiplicative inverse
15. ( a +bi ) – ( c + di ) =
a. (a + b) = ( c + d)
b. (a + c) + i( b + d)
c. (a - c) + i( c - d)
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d. (a - c) + i( b - d)
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16. ( a , b) +(-a , b) =
a. ( 0 , 0 )
b. ( a , b )
c. ( -a , -b )
d. ( 1 , 1 )
17. ( a , 0 ) x( c , 0 ) =
a. (0 ,ac)
b. (ac,0)
c. (0,0)
d. ( a , c )
18. ( 7 , 9 ) + ( 3 ,-5) =
a. ( 4 , 4)
b. (10 ,4)
c. ( 9 , -5 )
d. ( 7 , 3 )
19. If z1 =2 + 6i and z2 =3 + 7i, then which expression defines the products of z1 and z2?
a. 36 + (-32)i
b. -36 + 32i
c. 6 + (-11)i
d. 0, + (-12)i
20. Which element is the additive inverse of (a, b) in complex numbers?
a. ( a , 0)
b. ( 0 , b)
c. ( a , b)
d. ( -a , -b)
21. The set (Z , t ) forms a group
a. Forms a group w.r.t addition
b. Non commutative group w.r.t multiplication
c. Forms a group w.r.t multiplication
d. Does not form group
22. Which of the following has the same value as i113?
a. i
b. -1
c. –i
d. 1
23. P: Islamabad is a capital of Pakistan q: Lahore is not a city of Pakistan, the conjunction of p q is
a. False
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b. True
c. Not valid
d. Known
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b. 0
c. 2
d. None
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39. The set of the first element of the ordered pairs forming a relation is called ots:
a. Relation of A to B
b. Relation from B to A
c. Relation in A
d. Relation in B
c. ±1
d. 0
46. The values of cos 20+ sec 20 is always
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a. Less than 1
b. Equal to 1
c. Greater then 1,but less than 2
d. Greater than or equal to 2.
c. Division
d. Subtraction
53. The multiplicative inverse of – 1 in the {1,-1} is
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a. 1
b. -1
c. ±1
d. 0
e. Does not exist
b. Onto function
c. Bi-jective function
d. one – one function
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68. the set of the first elements of the orders pairs forming a relation is called its
a. relation in B
b. range
c. Domain
d. Relation in A
69. A function in which the second elements of the order pairs are distinct is called
a. Onto function
b. One-one function
c. Identity function
d. Inverse function
70. A function whose range is just one element is called
a. One –one function
b. Constant function
c. Onto function
d. Identity function
71. The graph of a quadratic function is
a. Circle
b. Straight line
c. Parabola
d. Triangle
72. To each element of a group there corresponds_______ inverse element
a. Two
b. One
c. No
d. Three
73. The set of integer is
a. Finite group
b. A group w.r.t addition
c. A group w.r.t multiplication
d. Not a group
74. The set of complex number forms
a. Commutative group w.r.t addition
b. Commutative group w.r.t multiplication
c. Commutative group w.r.t division
d. Non commutative group w.r.t addition
75. The set R is ______ w.r.t subtraction
a. Not a group
b. A group
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c. No conclusion drawn
d. Non commutative group
76. Power set of x I.e. p(x)__________under the binary operation of union U
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a. Forms a group
b. Does not form a group
c. Has no identity element
d. Infinite set although x is infinite
77. Any point, where f is neither increasing nor decreasing and f’’ (x) =0 at that point, is called a
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Stationary point
d. Constant point
83. The magnitude of the resultant of two forces is 2F. if the magnitude of each force is F, then
angle b/w these forces is
a. 00
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b. 900
c. 1200
d. 1800
84. I( k x j) is equal to
a. -1
b. 0
c. 1
d. 2
85. Three vectors of equal magnitude are acting on the three sides of an equilateral triangle. The
magnitude of their resultant is
a. 0
b. 3
c. √3
d. 1.72
86. The physical quantity which produces angular acceleration in the body is
a. Force
b. Moment of inertia
c. Impulse
d. Torque
87. The point at which an applied force produces linear motion but no rotatory motion is
a. Mid-point
b. Centre of gravity
c. Optical center
d. Pole
88. Bodies which fall freely under the action of gravity is an example of
a. Uniform acceleration
b. Variable acceleration
c. Uniform velocity
d. Average velocity
89. Crystalline solids have the properties such as
a. Regular arrangement
b. Covalent arrangement
c. Somewhat defective
d. All of them
90. A man throws a ball vertically upward in a compartment of an accelerated train. The ball will fall
a. In front of him
b. In his hand
c. Behind him
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d. Beside him
91. A bomber drops a bomb, when it is vertically above the target. It misses the target because of
a. Vertical component of the velocity of bomber
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b. Forces of gravity
c. Acceleration of the bomber
d. Horizontal component of the velocity of bomber
92. The property of the moving object by virtue of which it experts forces on the object that tries to
stop it is
a. Inertia of body
b. Quantity of motion of body
c. acceleration of body
d. all of these
93. the dot product of force and velocity is equal to
a. power
b. impulse
c. couple
d. momentum
94. the escape velocity from the earth gravitational field depend upon
a. rotation of earth
b. mass of body
c. radius of body
d. mass of earth
95. if the velocity of a body becomes half, the kinetic energy of body will become
a. one fourth
b. double
c. four times
d. half
96. a 60kg man In a lift which is moving upward with an acceleration of 4.8m/s2 will have apparent
weight of
a. 588N
b. 294N
c. 58.8N
d. 882N
97. The apparent weight of pilot when diving down in a jet plane with an acceleration of 9.8m/s2
will become
a. Double
b. Half
c. –ive
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d. 0
98. The geostationary satellites are
a. Stationary W.R.T earth
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b. rotating W.R.T earth
c. rotating very fast
d. rotating very slow
-1 -1
99. [ML T ] are the dimensions of
a. Angular momentum
b. Power
c. Impulse
d. Viscosity
100. A two meter high tank is full of water a hole is made in the middle of the tank. The speed of
efflux is
a. 4.9m/s
b. 9.8m/s
c. 4.42m/s
d. 3.75m/s
101. The quantity which specifies the displacement as well as the direction of motion in simple
harmonic motion is the
a. Phase angle
b. Angular frequency
c. Path difference
d. None
102. The number of loops in stationary waves depends upon
a. Velocity of waves
b. Wavelength of wave
c. Nature of the medium
d. Frequency of waves
103. When the light enters from air to glass, it suffers a change in the
a. Wavelength of light
b. speed of light
c. Frequency of light
d. Wavelength and speed of light
104. Which one of the following properties of light does not change with the nature of medium?
a. Frequency of light
b. Wavelength of light
c. speed of light
d. all of these
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105. we can hear sound around the corner but cannot see because of
a. interface
b. diffraction
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c. polarization
d. dispersion
106. The powers of the objective and eye piece of telescope are 0.5 diopter and 10 diopter
respectively. The magnifying power of telescope is
a. 0.5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 0.05
107. At constant temperature when the volume of the given mass of gas is doubled its density
becomes
a. Double
b. one fourth
c. four times
d. half
d. 2400 NC-1
112. The rate of change of electric potential w.r.t displacement is equal to
a. Potential gradient
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b. Electric potential energy
c. Electric intensity
d. Electric flux
113. A wire of uniform cross section A, length 1 and resistance R is cut into two equal pieces. The
resistivity of each piece will be
a. The same
b. One fourth
c. Double
d. One half
114. Two metallic conductors have the same value of resistivity. These conductors can be
differentiated from the values of their
a. Temperature coefficient
b. Resistance
c. Conductance
d. Conductivity
115. Two metallic wires are lying parallel. If the current in these wires be flowing in the same
direction, the wires will :
a. Attract each other
b. Repel each other
c. Have no force of attraction or repulsion
d. Remain stationary
116. The S.I unit of magnetic flux is weber which is equal to :
a. Nm/A
b. Nm2/A1
c. NA/ m1
d. NA/ m2
117. An electron and proton are projected with same velocity normal to magnetic field which one
will suffer greater deflection
a. Proton
b. Electron
c. Both will suffer greater defection
d. None
118. The magnetic field due to current in solenoids can be increased by
a. Increasing the number of turns per unit length
b. Using soft iron core
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c. Plastic substance
d. All of these
127. Choose the region of the spectrum which would be used to determine the structure of
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crystalline solids
a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. X rays
d. Ultraviolet
128. The depletion region contains
a. Electron
b. Holes
c. Electrons and holes
d. No holes and electrons
129. The process by which the potential barrier of the depletion region can be increased or
decreased is called
a. Amplification
b. Biasing
c. Modulation
d. Doping
130. The color of light emitted by light emitting diode depends upon
a. Forward voltage
b. Reverse current
c. Forward current
d. Type of semiconductors
131. The combination of AND and NOT gate is called
a. NAND gate
b. NOR gate
c. OR gate
d. XOR gate
132. If the temperature of the black body becomes double the intensity of radiation from it will
become
a. Double
b. Four time
c. Six times
d. Sixteen time
133. The scattering angle for which the Compton shift in wavelength is equal to Compton
wavelength is
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a. Ө =90o
b. Ө =0o
c. Ө =45o
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d. Ө =180o
134. The threshold frequency for a metal having work function 6.5e.V is
a. 6.4 x 10-19 HZ
b. 6.4 x 10-34 HZ
c. 1.5 x 1015 HZ
d. 1.5 x 10-15 HZ
135. The uncertainty in energy of photon which is emitted from an atom radiating for 104 second is
a. 4 x 10-7 joules
b. 4 x 10-17 eV
c. 6.6 x 10-20 eV
d. 4 x 10 joule
136. If an atom exists in the excited state n =5, the maximum number of transition takes place is
a. 6
b. 4
c. 10
d. 3
137. When the voltage of the target in the x ray tube increases then the
a. Penetrating power of x rays increase
b. Intensity of x ray increases
c. Wavelength of x ray increase
d. All of these
138. The frequency of light having wavelength 3 x 10-3
a. 1x 106
b. 1 x 107
c. 10 x 1010
d. 1 x 1013
139. The situation in which then excited state i.e metastable state contains more number of
electrons than the ground is called
a. Ionized state
b. Stimulation state
c. Population state
d. All of these
140. The excited state which persists for unusually longer period of time is called
a. Ground state
b. Ionized state
c. Metastable state
CHEM d. Ordinary excited state
141. %age of calcium in calcium carbonate is
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a. 80%
b. 30%
c. 40%
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d. 20%
142. The empirical formula of the compound having 50% Sulphur and 50% oxygen by mass is
a. SO
b. S 2O3
c. SO3
d. SO2
143. Bromine has two isotopes having the relative abundance as 75Br39 = 50.51% and 81Br35 = 49.49%.
the average atomic mass of bromine is
a. 81
b. 80
c. 79.5
d. 79
144. Equilibrium constant has units if
a. No. of moles of reactants and products are same
b. Unequal no of moles
c. Both
d. None of these
145. 1 mole of CH4 contains
a. 6.02 x 10 23 atoms of H
b. 4 g-atom of hydrogen
c. 1.81 x 1023 molecules of CH4
d. 3.0 g of carbon
146. How many moles of helium gas occupy 22.4 l at 0oC at 1 atm. Pressure
a. 011
b. 0.90
c. 1.0
d. 1.11
147. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4g of carbon dioxide is approximately?
a. 1.2 x 10 23
b. 6 x 10 22
c. 6 x 10 23
d. 12 x 10 23
148. If NA is Avogadro’s number, then number, then number of valence electrons in 4.2g of nitride
ions N3 – is
a. 2.4 NA
b. 4.2 NA
c. 1.6 NA
d. 3.2 NA
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154. The presence of common ions --------- the solubility of a slightly soluble ionic compound.
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Neither decrease nor increase
d. None
155. An X gram of calcium carbonate was completely burnt in air. The weight of the solid residue
formed is 28 g. what is the value of X in grams
a. 44
b. 200
c. 150
d. 50
156. What is the concentration of nitrate ions, if equal volumes of 0.1M AgNO3 and 0.1M NaCl are
mixed together?
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a. 0.1M
b. 0.2M
c. 0.05M
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d. 0.25M
157. Buffer solutions are
a. Which resist in change in PH and POH
b. Only in PH
c. Only POH
d. Does not resist
158. The volume in litters of CO2 liberated at STP when 10 grams of 90% pure limestone is heated
completely is
a. 22.4
b. 2.24
c. 20.16
d. 2.016
159. An organic compound contains 49.3% carbon, 6.84% hydrogen and its vapors density is 73.
Molecular formula of compound is
a. C3H5O2
b. C6H10O4
c. C3H10O2
d. C4H10O2
160. The number of atoms in 0.004g of magnesium is close to
a. 24
b. 2 x1020
c. 1020
d. 6.02 x 1023
The public distribution system, which provides food at low prices, is subject if vital concern. There is a
growing realization that though Pakistan has enough food to feed its masses three square meals a
days, the monster of s starvation and food insecurity continues to haunt the poor in our country.
Increasing the purchasing power of the poor through providing productive employment leading to rising
income, and thus good standard of living is the ultimate objective of public policy. However, till then, there
is a need to provide assured supply of food through a restructured more efficient and decentralized public
distribution system (PDS).
Although the PDS is extensive- it is one of the largest such systems in the world - it has yet to reach the
rural poor and the far off places.it remains an urban phenomenon, with the majority of the rural poor
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still out of its reach due to lack of economic and physical access. The poorest in the cities and the migrants
are left out, for they generally do not possess ration cards. The allocation of PDS supplies in big cities is
larger than in rural areas. In view of such deficiencies in the system, the PDS urgently needs to be steam
PAKHTOON KHAN AFRIDI
lined. In addition, considering the large food grains production combined with food subsidy on one hand
and the continuing slow starvation and dismal poverty of the rural population on the other, there is strong
case for making PDS target group oriented
The growing salaried class is provided job security, regular income, and %age insulation against inflation.
These gains of development have not percolated down to the vast majority of our working population.
If one compares only dearness allowance to the employees in public and private sector and looks at its
growth in past few years. The rising food subsidy is insignificant to the point of in equality. The food
subsidy is a kind of D.A to the poor, the self-employed and those in the organized sector of economy.
However, what is most unfortunate is that out of the large budget of the so-called food subsidy, the major
part of it is administrative cost and wastages. A small portion of the above budget goes to real consumer
and even lesser portion to the poor who are in real need.
It is true that subsidies should not become a permanent feature, except for the destitute, disabled widows
and the old. It is also true that subsidies often create a psychology of dependence and hence is habit-
forming, killing the general initiative of the people. By making PDS target group oriented, not only the
poorest and neediest would be reached without additional cost, but it will actually cut overall costs
incurred on large cities and for better off localities. When the food and food subsidy are limited the rural
and urban poor should have the priority in the PDS supplies. The PDS should be closely linked with PDS
should be closely linked with programs of employment generation and nutrition improvement.
176. Which of the following is the main reason for insufficient supply of enough food to the poorest?
a. Mismanagement of food stocks
b. Absence of proper public distribution system
c. Production of food is less than the demand
d. Governments apathy towards the poor
177. What, according to the passage, is he the main purpose of public policy in the long run?
a. Reducing the cost of living index by increasing supplies
b. Providing enough food to all the citizens
c. Good standard of living through productive employment
d. Equalizing per capita income across different strata of society
178. Which of the following is true of public distribution system?
a. It has improved its effectiveness over the years.
b. It has remained effective only in the cities
c. It is the unique in the world because of its effectiveness
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b. Sensible
c. Punctual
d. Diligent
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187. He had the nerve to suggest that I was cheating.(synonyms)
a. Strength
b. Capacity
c. Audacity
d. Courage
188. Apathy(antonyms)
a. Enemy
b. Love
c. Noble
d. Temptation
189. Outbreak (antonyms)
a. Confined
b. Smash
c. Reliability
d. Tumult
190. Indulgent: (antonyms)
a. Active
b. Agile
c. Squander
IQ d. Oppressive
191. The dasu hydro power project is to be built on ________river
a. Jhelum
b. Chenab
c. Ravi
d. Indus
192. The headquarter of Anjuman Tariqi-i-Urdu is located in _________
a. Lahore
b. Karachi
c. Rawalpindi
d. Multan