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Form 2 Holiday Assignment

(a) Tillage - (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ (b) Fallowing - (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ 13. Give two reasons why crop rotation is important in farming. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ 14. State two advantages of mixed farming over specialized farming. (1 mark) ............................................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................................................ 15. Give two examples of cash crops. (1 mark)

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

740 views

Form 2 Holiday Assignment

Uploaded by

Javya Jane

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

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2023 DECEMBER HOLIDAY ASSIGNMENTS

IN THIS DIGITAL AGE GETTING EDUCATIONAL RESOURCES IN NOW EASIER THAN EVER!!
DO YOU NEED ANY OF THE FOLLOWING:

-REVISION/TEACHING NOTES
-TERMLY EXAMS
-KCSE/KCPE MOCKS
-KCSE/KCPE PAST PAPERS
-SCHEMES OF WORK
-LESSON PLANS
-RECORDS OF WORK
-ACTED SETBOOK VIDEOS
-SETBOOKS' NOTES AND GUIDES
-EDUCATIONAL VIDEOS
-TEACHING POWERPOINTS

CONTACT/WHATSAPP THE LIBRARIAN 0743505350 AND RECEIVE WHATEVER YOU NEED IN-
STANTLY VIA WHATSAPP/EMAIL!!

FOR MARKING SCHEMES WHATSAPP 0743505350

Term 3 - 2023
AGRICULTURE
FORM 2

Time: 2 Hours

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..

Signature: …………………………………………………….. Date: …………………...

Instructions to Candidates

 Write your name, index number in the spaces provided.

 This paper has three sections A, B and C.

 Answer all the questions in section A and B and C in the spaces provided.

For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S

SCORE SCORE
A 1 – 17 30

B 18 – 23 30

24 20

25 20
C

Total Score 100

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SECTION A (30 MARKS)

Answer All the Questions in This Section in the Spaces Provided

1. State two biotic factors that are useful in agricultural production. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

..........................................................................................................................................................

2. Give four reasons why it is important to stake tomatoes. (2 marks)

...........................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................................

3. Give four signs that could enable a farmer to identify compost manure that is ready

(2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................................

4. List four farming practices that may help to achieve minimum tillage on a farm. (2 marks)

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5. Give four reasons why seed selection is important in the establishment of crops. (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

6. Give four reasons for keeping breeding records in a dairy farm. (2 marks)
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................................
7. State two characteristics of shifting cultivation. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................................

8. State four factors that determine spacing of crop. (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

9. Differentiate between olericulture and pomoculture as used in crop production. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

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10. State two characteristics of a large scale farming system. (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

11. State two physical agents of weathering. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

12. Define the following terms. (3 marks)

(a) Under sowing

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………….…………

(b) Over-sowing

………………………………………….…………………………………………………………

……………………………….……………………………………………………………………

c) Ammonification

………………………………………………………………………………………….…………

……………………………………………………………………………….……………………

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13. State four factors which determine soil depth. (2 marks)

i)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

ii)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

iii) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

iv) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

14. State four benefits of soil organisms in crop growth. (2 marks)

i)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

ii)…………………………………………………………………………………………...

iii)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

iv)…………………………………………………………………………………………..

15. State two conditions under which opportunity cost is zero. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
……………………………………………………………………………………………..………
…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
16. State four reasons for mulching. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
……………………………………………………………………………………………..………
…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
………………………………………………………………………………………..……………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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17. Give the function of each of the following in the preparation of compost manure.
(2marks)
a) Top soil
…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Well rotten manure
…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) A thin layer of wood ash
…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
d) Long pointed stick

…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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SECTION B 30 MARKS

18. The pictures below show some of the farm tools, observe them and answer the questions
that follow

W D

Y Z

(a) Identify each of the tools shown above (4 marks)

W……………………………………………………………………………………………

D……………………………………………………………………………………………

Y……………………………………………………………………………………………

Z……………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) State the use of the tool labeled Z and W (1 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. The diagrams labeled G, H, and S below illustrates three livestock parasites. Study them and

answer the questions that follow:

a) Identify the parasites: (1½ marks)

G……………………………………………………………………………………

H……………………………………………………………………………………

S……………………………………………………………………………………

b) State the category to which the three parasites G, H, and S belong to. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name the parts of organs of the host body where parasites G and S are found

respectively.

(1 mark)

G………………………………………………………………………………

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S……………………………………………………………………………………

d) State any three control measures of the parasite G. (1½ marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………

20 A farmer wants to prepare a ration for layers containing 18% DCP. Using maize germ
20% DCP and a wheat grain 10% DCP

(a). Calculate using peason’s square method the amount of each food stuff needed in order to
prepare 100kg of feeds. (4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State any other method used in computation of food ratio. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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21. The diagram below shows the digestive system of cattle. Study it and answer the
questions that follow.

a). Name the parts labelled N, P and Q.

N.......................................................................................................................... (1 mark)

P.......................................................................................................................... (1 mark)

b). State one function for each of the parts labelled S and T.

S....................................................................................................................... (1 mark)

T......................................................................................................................... (1 mark)

c). Give one enzyme produced by each of the parts labelled R and S.

R....................................................................................................................... (1/2 marks)

S................................................................................................................ (1/2 marks)

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22. The diagram below shows a field management practice carried out on a fruit crop. Study it

carefully and answer the question that follow.

a) Identify the practice (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give two reasons for carrying out the above practice. (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State three reasons for storing beans after harvesting. (3marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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23. Describe five principles of crop rotation. (5marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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SECTION C 40 MARKS

24. (a) Describe the production of tomatoes (Lycoperscon escalentum)

(i) Ecological requirements. (3marks)
(ii) Transplanting (3marks)
(iii) Field management practices (4marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) Explain four practices of maintaining soil fertility. (3marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Describe the lifecycle of a three host tick. (7 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

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25. (a) Outline four effects of endo-parasites to the host animals (4marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

(b) Give six precautions observed in pruning mature tea (6 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(c) Describe the procedure followed when collecting a soil sample form the field for testing in

the laboratory (6 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(d) Outline four advantages of intercropping crops (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Term 3 - 2023
ART AND DESIGN - Theory
FORM TWO (2)
Time: 2 Hours

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..
Signature: …………………………………………………….. Date: …………………...
Instructions to candidates:

a) Write your name, Class, Admin No and date in the spaces provided above
b) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
c) Answer all questions in section A, B and any one option from C.
d) Answers to all the questions must be written in the spaces provided.
e) Where drawings and diagrams are appropriate, they should be included within the text of your
answers
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Question Maximum Score

score

A 1 20
2 05
B 3 05
4 05
5 05
6 05
15
C
Max. Score 60

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that

All the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing

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1
SECTION A (20MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section.

1.
a) Study the artwork below

Analyze the artwork according to the following sub-titles

i. Approach (1mark)
_______________________________________________________________________________________

ii. Theme (1mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________

iii. Style (1mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

b) Identify the tools X and Y below and state their function (2marks)

A Y
A______________________________________________________________________________________
Y______________________________________________________________________________________

c) List any two animal fibers (2 mks)

d) (i)Define colour as an element of art. (1mk)

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2
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii)Give any two sets of monochromatic colour (2marks)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

e) Name and describe the type of balance exhibited on the floral structure below. (2marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

f) Explain three properties that make clay a suitable material for pottery (3marks)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

g) Study the artwork below and answer the questions that follow

i. Explain the technique and type used to create the above effect (2marks)
Technique_______________________________________________________________________________
Type___________________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Identify and label the varnishing point on the diagram above (1 mark)

h) What is tactile texture? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

i) What name is given to the drawing of a human bust from head to the torso? (1mark)
.....................................................................................................

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3
j) Explain the importance of priming a surface before painting. (1mark)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

SECTION B (25marks)
Answer all the questions in this section

2. Study the artworks below and answer the questions that follow

A B

a) Identify and name two techniques used to produce the above works in A and B.

A……………………………………………………………………………. (1mark)

B …………………………………………………………………………… (1mark)

b) (i)What is a fixative? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Give any two examples of fixatives as described above (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3.a)Identify and label the types of eye views A, B and C in the diagrams bellow (3marks)

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4
A

C
b)Differentiate between profile view and ¾ views with refference to potraiture. (2mks)

4.a) Name two main types of clay in refference to the source and mode of formation (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b)Bellow is a ceramic activity in progress.

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5
(i) Identify and name the art work technique abvove
…………………………………………………………………….. (1mark)

(ii) Differentiate between elasticity and plasticity of clay (2marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________

(iv)Define a glaze (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

6. Define ornaments (1mk)

(b)Name four beadwork techniques as used in ornamentry (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(c)Mention any two principles in ornamentry. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Distinguish between montage and photomontage (2mks)

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6
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Mention three characteristics of mosaic artworks (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (15marks)
Answer only one question in this section.

8. Using the space below,

Either
a) Sketch from memory a composition based on “a busy hair salon”.
OR
b).In Good calligraphic font of your choice, design the following in a well enclosed boarders:
“Painting is poetry that is seen rather than felt, and poetry is painting that is felt rather than seen”-
Leonardo da Vinci.

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7
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8
Term 3 - 2023
BIOLOGY
FORM TWO

Time: 2 Hours

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..
Signature: …………………………………………………….. Date: …………………...

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, admission number and school in the spaces provided above
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above
(c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided on the question paper
(d) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
(e) Candidates should answer the questions in English

Max Score Student’s Score

1. (a) State the two functions of a microscope. (2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State the role of state of a light microscope. (1 mark)

.…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. In old times, farmers used to kill large trees by peeling the bark. Explain the concept. (2 marks)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………...
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The diagram below shows a respiratory organ. Use it to answer the questions that follows.

(a) Identify the part labeled M. (1mark)

.………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) How is the part labeled N adapted to its function? (3 marks)

.……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The model of balloons below was used to demonstrate a certain process in plants.

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(a) What does the following parts represent in the plant:

(i) Balloons (1 mark)

….………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) Ring of sticky tape (1 mark)

….………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Explain what happen when air is blown into the two balloons through the open end of the
Y – tube? (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The graphs below shows reactions of enzymes in different parts of the alimentary canal.

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Give appropriate examples of enzymes represented by (3 marks)

A: …………………………………………………………………………………………………

B: …………………………………………………………………………………………………

C: …………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Name the compounds that are translocated in phloem. (2 marks)

….……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

7. (a) Name the common circulatory system diseases in humans which are diet related.

(2 marks)

(b) What does the term myogenic means. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Below is a diagram representing a section of a mammalian digestive system.

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study the diagram and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify parts labeled Q and S. (2 marks)

Q ………………………………………………………………………………………………

S ……………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Name two major components secreted into part labeled R. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. (a) Distinguish between excretion and secretion. (1 mark)

….……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) Why does anaerobic respiration of a given substrate yield a smaller amount of
energy than aerobic respiration? (2 marks)

….……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

10. Explain why blood leaving the lungs may not be fully oxygenated. (3 marks)

….……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

11. The sketch below represents the path taken by water from soil solution on its way to

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the leaves.

Name the physiological process responsible for movement of water in region labelled (i)
and (ii) and force(s) responsible in region (iii):

(i) …………………………………………………………………………… (1
mark)

(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………… (1
mark)

(iii) ……………………………………………………………………………… ( 1 mark)

12. Apart from urea, name three other components of mammalian urine. (3 marks)

….……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. State three adaptations of red blood cells to their function. (3 marks)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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14. (a) A dog weighing 15.2 kg requires 216 kj while a mouse weighing 50g requires 2736 kj per day.
Explain. (2 marks)
….…………………. ……………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. State two immunological roles of mammalian skin. (2 marks)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

16. Explain why a person can catch a cold several times in an year but only catches measles once in his

or her lifetime. (3 marks)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

17. Identify the apparatus shown below and state its functions. (2 marks)

Name…………………………………………………………………………

Role ….………………………………………………………………………….

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18. a) What is the role of epiglottis in human digestion. (1 mark)

.……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Write an equation to summarize the anaerobic respiration in plants. (1 mark)

….……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

19. (a) Explain why proteins are absent in the urine of a healthy person. (2 marks)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give the term used to describe the presence of protein in urine. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Why does the rate of transpiration reduce when humidity is high? (2 marks)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

21. What is the role of epiglottis in human digestion. (1 mark)

.……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………….

22. Name two chemical solutions used in the proteins test in the order of application. (2 marks)

….………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b.) What happens to erector pili muscles on a hot day. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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23. (a) What is the plural version of the following terms written in singular:

Singular Plural

Taxon ……………………….. (1 mark)

Genus ………………………… (1 mark)

(b) State two precautions that one should observe when collecting specimen for biological study.
(2 marks)

24. State two rules of binomial nomenclature. (2 marks)

25. Name the fluid that perform the following.

i. Reduce friction and make the lungs move freely in the chest cavity. (1mark)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Prevent collapsing of alveoli during exhalation. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. Define the following terms:

(a) Gaseous exchange. (1 mark)

(b) Excretion. (1 mark)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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27. Give two reasons why some plants lose their leaves during the dry season. (2 marks)

28 (a) Name the valve that prevents the back-flow of blood to the left ventricle during relaxation.
(1mark)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name the products of glycolysis. (2marks)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

29. Name three antigens that determines blood group in human. (3 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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BUSINESS STUDIES
FORM 2
TERM 3

TIME:2 HOURS
Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….
School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..
Signature: ……………………………………………………………………………………. Date: …………………...

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
i. Write your name, index number and admission number in the spaces provided above.
ii. Answer ALL the questions.
iii. Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are printed and that no questions
are missing.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

MARKS

QUESTION 15 16 17 18 19

MARKS

TOTAL MARKS

1|Page

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1. Outline 4 benefits of learning business studies to an individual. (4 Marks)
a) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

d) ………………………………………………………………………………………......

2. Outline four elements of demographic environment that may affect the operations of a
business. (4 Marks)
a) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

d) ………………………………………………………………………………………......

3. Outline four features of economic resources. (4marks)

e) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

f) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

g) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

h) ………………………………………………………………………………………......

4. Outline four benefits of entrepreneurship in the economy. (4mks)

a) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

d) ………………………………………………………………………………………......

5. State the line of communication involved in each of the following situations. (4 marks)

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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

a) The manager of Casio company Ltd talking to the manager of Sony company Ltd.
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b) A secretary asking for time off from her boss.
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c) The production manager giving instructions to the secretary of the sales manager.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) The ministry of Education sending a circular to school on change of term dates.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

6. Atoti owns a motor vehicle valued at Sh. 1,000,000. She insured the car at Sh. 300,000. The
motor vehicle was involved in an accident and declared a write off. Calculate the amount
Atoti should get from the insurer. (4marks)
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7. Indicate the rewards associated with each of the factors of production in the table below.
(4 Marks)

Factor of production Rewards

(a) Lake
(b) Driver
(c) Shareholder
(d) Tractor

8. State four ways of classifying partners in business enterprises. (4marks)

a) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

d) ………………………………………………………………………………………......

9. Highlight four features of a bonded warehouse. (4 Marks)

a) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) …………………………………………………………………………………………..

d) ………………………………………………………………………………………......

10. Indicate the type of advertising which fits the descriptions given below. (4 Marks)
a) Create awareness about a product ………………………………………………

b) Promotes the name of the manufacturer ……………………………………………...

c) Persuades a particular brand of a product ………………………………………………

d) Promotes a particular brand of a product ………………………………………………

11. Outline four benefits that may accrue to members of Savings and Credit Cooperative
Societies (Saccos) in Kenya. (4mks)

a) ………………………………………………………………………………………

b) ………………………………………………………………………………………

c) ………………………………………………………………………………………

d) ………………………………………………………………………………………

12. State four benefits that a farmer may get by transporting produce to the market by road.
(4 Marks)

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a. ………………………………………………………………………………………

b. ………………………………………………………………………………………

c. ………………………………………………………………………………………

d. ………………………………………………………………………………………

13. Outline any four emerging issues in office management (2mks)

a. ………………………………………………………………………………………

b. ………………………………………………………………………………………

c. ………………………………………………………………………………………

d. ………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Outline four features of mail order stores (4mks)

a. ………………………………………………………………………………………

b. ………………………………………………………………………………………

c. ………………………………………………………………………………………

d. ………………………………………………………………………………………

15. State four government initiated methods of protecting consumers from exploitation by
traders. (4mks)

i) ………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Explain five factors that lead to business success. (10 Marks)

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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

17. A flower farmer in Naivasha has secured market for her flowers in the UK . Explain five
reasons why the farmer should use air to transport his flowers (10 Marks)
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18. Describe the procedure followed in taking an insurance policy (10 Marks)

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19. Explain the five differences between a partnership and a private limited company.
(10 Marks)

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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

CHEMISTRY-233/1
TERM 3 – 2023

FORM 2

Time: 2 hours

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm no: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..
Signature: …………………………………… date: …………………...

Instructions:
 Write your name, class and House in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all questions in the spaces provided in this paper.
 All answers must be in English.
 Students must check to ascertain that all pages are printed as shown before attempting any
question.

For Examiners Use only

Maximum Score Student Score

80 marks

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 1

1. Name two types of flame produced by Bunsen burner (2 marks)

2. The diagrams below are some common laboratory apparatus. Name each apparatus and

State its use

Diagram Name Use

(½mark)
(½mark )

(½mark)
(½mark)

3. .The following apparatus were set up to separate a mixture of sodium chloride and ammonium
chloride salts.

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 2

a) Name the method used in this set up to separate the mixture of sodium chloride and ammonium
chloride. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
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b) What is the purpose of ice cold water in the experiment? (1mark)
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4. You are provided with water, lead carbonate, dilute nitric (V) acid and solid sodium chloride.
Describe in very clear steps how you would prepare a solid sample of lead chloride. (3 marks)

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5. (i) Using dots (.) and crosses (x) represent electrons, draw the electron diagram for ammonia.
(3 marks)

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 3

(ii) Explain the following observations; oxygen and sulphur are in the same group of the periodic
table. Water is liquid at room temperature and pressure while hydrogen sulphide is gaseous at room
temperature and pressure. (2 marks)

6. Phosphorus is in group V of the periodic table. Explain the following observations.

(i) Phosphorus exhibits two melting points. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) The chloride of phosphorus forms misty fumes in damp air. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
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7. Steam was passed over iron in a combustion tube as shown below. Study the diagram and answer
the questions that follow.

iron

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 4

Steam

(i) What must be included in the diagram for iron to react with steam? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place when the correction in (i) above is made.
(1 mark)

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8. Give two reasons why laboratory apparatus are made of glass. (2 marks)

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9. (i) State any two observations made when calcium is placed in a trough of water? (2 marks)

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(ii) State any one important use of the solution formed in (i) above. (1 mark)

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10. Study the flow chart below and answer the questions the follow.
Calcium hydroxide solution

CO2 (g)
White precipitate

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 5

CO2
Heat
Solution B
White residue + water + gas C

Name:
(a) White precipitate A…………………………………………… (1 mark)
(b) Solution B ……………………………………………………. (1 mark)
(c) Gas C…………………………………………………………. (1 mark)

11. (a) State two roles of chemistry in our society today. (2 marks)

(b) Give the definition of chemistry as a branch of science. (1 mark)

12. Metals are said to be Ductile Malleable and ductile in air. Explain the meaning of the underlined
words.
(i) Malleable (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Ductile (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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13. A student represented an atom of element Z as shown in the diagram below

xx x
x
Z xx
xx
x
xx 6
CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS
(I) What is the atomic number of element Z? Explain (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
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(II)Write the formula and electron arrangement of the ion of Z (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(III)Write equation for the reaction of Z with chlorine (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
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14. An element whose atomic number is 14 has three isotopes A, B and C. Use the information given
in the table below to answer the questions that follow.

Isotopes No of neutrons % realtive abundance

A 14 92.0
B 15
C 16. 3.0.
(i) Determine the relative abundance of the isotope B. (1 mark)

(ii) Calculate the relative atomic mass of the element above. (3 marks)

15. Element P, Q, R, and S have atomic numbers 2,10,12,and 17 respectively , select two elements that
belong to the same group (2 marks)

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 7

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16. Describe how you can extract oil from sim sim seeds (3marks)

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18. An isotope of element B has 30 neutrons and its mass number is 56. B forms a cation with 23
electrons. Write the formula of the cation indicating the mass and atomic numbers
(2 marks)

19. Classify the following processes as either chemical or physical (3 marks)

Process Type of change

i. Heating Ammonium
Chloride
ii. Obtaining kerosene from
crude oil
iii. souring of milk

20. (a) Which particles conduct electricity in; (2 marks)

(i) Molten lead (II) bromide

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Lead metal
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) The table below shows properties of some substances.

Substance Melting point (0C)Boiling point (0C) Electrical conductivity
Solid Liquid

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 8

A -112 -107 Poor Poor
B 801 1413 Poor Good
C 97.5 880 Good Good
D 44 280 Poor Poor
E 1700 2200 Poor Poor
F -110 46.3 Poor Poor
Select a substance which; (3 marks)
(i) Has a giant ionic structure.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(ii) Is a metal
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(iii)Has a giant atomic structure.

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(iv)Identify a substance that is a liquid at room temperature. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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21. Substances can can be classified as electrolytes or non-electrolytes.

I. Define the following terms; (2 marks)

(i) Electrolyte
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iii)Electrolysis
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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II. A group of Form two students from Kenya high School set up an experiment below to
investigate electrical conductivity in molten lead (II) bromide. Use it to answer the questions that
follow.

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 9

(a) Explain why heating is necessary in this experiment. (1 mark)

(b) Indicate on the diagram: (2 marks)

(i) The flow of electrons
(ii) Label the anode and cathode
(c) State and explain the observations made at: (4 marks)
(i) Anode
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) Cathode
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(d) Write half ionic equations for the reactions taking place at: (2 marks)
(i) Anode
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(ii) Cathode

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 10

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

III. Dilute sulphuric (VI) acid is an example of non – binary electrolyte. List the ions present in
dilute sulphuric (VI) acid. (2 marks)

22. Use the flow chart below to answer the questions that follow.

Ammonia P Q
Ammoniated Brine

Ammonia NH4Cl + NaHCO3

CaCl2 T R

Substance Y
NaHCO3
Water Slaker
CO2
Heat
CaO

CaCO3 S
Substance X
Na2CO3
(a) Name the substances labelled: (2 marks)
X………………………………………………………………………………………
Y………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name 2 substances being recycled in the process represented by the flow chart. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c) Name the process that takes place in: (2 marks)
S.……………………………………………………………………………………………
R……………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Give 2 uses of calcium chloride. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 11

………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Write equations for the reaction that take place in: (2 marks)

Q…………………………………………………………………………………………….
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T…………………………………………………………………………………………….
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(f) Other than softening of hard water give 2 other uses of sodium carbonate. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
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This is the last printed page.

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS 12

COMPUTER STUDIES

FORM TWO- TERM THREE

Time 2 HOURS

Name: …………………………………………………......…… AdmNo: ……….……

School: …………………………………………………………... Class: …………………

Candidate’s Signature: …….………...................................... Date: …...…………….

INSTRUCTIONS

 Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.

 Answer ALL the Questions

 All answers should be written in the spaces provided

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION SCORE
1 – 33

1. List four examples of documents that can be created using a word processor (2marks)

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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

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2. Explain four functions of the operating system (4marks)
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3. Computer output may be in forms. Describe each of the following forms listed below give example in each
case
a. Softcopy……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………(2marks)
b. Hardcopy…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………(2marks)
4. State three application areas of a spreadsheet (3marks)
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5. Differentiate between formula bar and cell address (2marks)
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6. a) Define the term computer system. (2marks)

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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

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b) List two ways by which software can be acquired (2marks)

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7. State the function of the cache memory (1mark)
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8. Differentiate between relative and absolute cell reference (4marks)
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9. Write the following computing a acronyms in full (2marks)
i. ISP…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. MODEM…………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. Describe the following path C:\windows\systems\Kenya.doc (2marks)
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11. a) Differentiate between the header and footer as used in word processing (2marks)
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b) Define the term mail merge (1mark)
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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

12. State the importance of the following features in a word processor application window (3marks)
a) Title bar
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b) Ruler bar
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c) Formatting toolbar
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13. Write the equivalent R1C1 reference for G20 (1mark)
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14. State two ways of creating a table (2marks)
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15. The formulas below are in the cell K5, write the formulas as they would appear when copied in cell R20.
(4marks)
K5 R20
=B8+G12
=H$25/$G$2
=MIN(L5:M18)
=RANK(F2,$F$2:$F$20,0)
16. State four ways in which computer user can protect from strain and injuries caused by computer. (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17. State three possible causes of warm booting a computer (3marks)
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18. State four ways through which one can ensure that a computer room is well ventilated (4marks)
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19. State two differences between a CD-R and a DVD -RW (4marks)
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20. Explain three types of computer buses (6marks)
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21. List four sources of graphical objects you can insert in a document (4marks)
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22. Describe the three files created in creating a mail merge (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

23. State three data security practices that can be carried out by an organization to protect data. (3marks)

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24. Using illustration differentiate between landscape and portrait page orientation (4marks)
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25. Define the term file as used in operating system (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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26. Explain the following commands as used with operating systems (2marks)
a. Renaming file
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b. Sort file
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27. Name any four programs that always run in the background when computer is started (2marks)
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28. Define the following terms (2marks)
(i) Hot swapping
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(ii) Master /slave configuration. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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29. List four requirements for basic computer setup and cabling (2marks)

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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

32. Differentiate between the following terms as used in database.

a. Validation rule and validation text. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b. Table and query. (2 marks)
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33. List four requirements for internet connectivity. (4 marks)
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CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

TERM 3 - 2023
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
FORM TWO (2)
Time: 2 Hours
Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..

Signature: …………………………………………………….. Date: …………………...

Instructions to candidates:

 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
 This paper consists of SIX questions.
 Answer any five questions on the foolscaps provided.
 Each question carries 20 marks.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

Score

INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THE SPACES PROVIDED

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR 1MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS
1a)Identify 6 Deutro-canonical books(6mks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Give the problems Moses faced as he led the Israelites during the Exodus (7mks)

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c) Identify the elements 0f Jewish worship found in the Christian worship today (8 mks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

2a) Give reasons why Jesus used parables in His teachings (7mks)

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR 2MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

__________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Explain the teachings of Jesus on the Kingdom of God from the parable of the mustard seed and the Yeast

(7mks)

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c)Identify the qualities of those of those who belong to the Kingdom of God. (6mks)

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR 3MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS

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3a) Narrate the parable of the wicked Tenants (8mks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Give seven signs of Eschatology as taught by Jesus (7mks)

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__________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________

c) Identify Five lessons Christians’ learn from Jesus reply to the Sadducees on resurrection (5mks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

4a) State Six accusation against Jesus during His trial (6mks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Write down the events that took place when Jesus was put to death (8mks)

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__________________________________________________________________________________________

c) What lessons do Christians learn about the nature of Jesus from the testimony of the repentant thief Lk

23:39-43 (6mks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

5a) Identify factors that undermine the responsibilities of modern Africa towards Spirits (6mks)

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__________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Outline factors that contributed to Harmony and Mutual Responsibility in the African Community (8mks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

c) State reasons for practicing initiation rites today (6mks)

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__________________________________________________________________________________________

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Term 3 - 2023
DRAWING AND DESIGN
FORM TWO
Time: 2½ Hours

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 TOTAL

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.

You should have the following for this examination:

 Drawing instruments
 3 sheet of drawing paper size A3
Answer ALL the questions

Questions in section B should be answered on the A3 drawing papers provided.

All dimensions are in millimeters unless otherwise stated.

Candidates may be penalized for not following the instructions given in this paper.

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Answer ALL the questions in this section in the A3 drawing papers provided.

1. Join two lines with an arc of radius 30cm. 3marks.

2. Construct a regular nonagon inside a circle whose radius is 30mm. Show all construction lines. (6 marks)

3. Sketch the three orthographic views of the figure below in first angle projection ( 6 marks)

4. Make a neat drawing of the component showing how centres for various arcs are obtained. 6marks
2

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5. Sketch the orthographic projections shown in figure 2.11 in oblique cavalier projections. (4 marks)

6. Figure below is incorrectly dimensioned. Copy the figure and dimension it correctly ( 4 marks)

7. Construct a triangle XYZ whose length XY is 50mm, angle ZXY is 450 and angle YZX is 750
3

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(6 Marks)

8. Produce an isometric projection from the three views given below drawn in 3rd angle.6marks

9. Draw the three orthographic views of the assembled mitre brittle joint shown below (6marks)

10. Draw the orthographic projections given below in two point perspective. (8 marks)

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11. In first angle orthographic projection, draw the three views of the block to a scale of 1:1. Insert any six
dimensions (15 marks)

12. Two views of a machine component are shown below. Draw an isometric projection of the block.
15marks

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13. Incomplete plan of a pentagonal based pyramid whose sides are 35 mm and a perpendicular height of
50mm is drawn below in fig . Draw the following ( 15 marks)
a. Complete plan
b. front elevation
c. The End elevation in direction of arrow X
d. Surface development

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Term 3 - 2023
ENGLISH
FORM TWO (2)
Time: 2 ½ Hours

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm. No: ...........................

School: ………………………………………………………… Class: ……………………..

Signature: …………………………………………………….. Date: ……………..……...

Instructions to the candidates

 Write your name and admission number in the spaces above.
 Attempt all questions in English in the spaces provided.
 Use good, legible handwriting.
 Check to ascertain that the paper has all the questions.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S

SCORE SCORE

1. Functional Writing 20
2. Comprehension 20

3. Oral Skills 25

4. Oral Poetry 20

5. Grammar 15

100

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1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 MARKS)

Imagine you are the games master in your school and in preparation for the school ball games
competition, you intend to place an order for sports items that are lacking in your institution.
The items are two volleyballs, a set of basketball uniforms, 10 pairs of rugby-playing boots
and two soccer goal nets. Write a business letter to the manager, Michezo Bora Ltd., placing
your order for the items. (20 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. COMPREHENSION (20 MARKS)

Read the passage below and attempt all the questions that follow.

In the traditional way of life, families obtained their daily food directly from the land they
cultivated. The land was looked upon as the main source of family wealth. The villages were
small as few houses were built. This meant that relatives lived in close proximity to one
another. This set-up enhanced social interaction among family members.

Economically, it was advantageous to have many children in a family as plenty of workers were
needed to cultivate the land. Jobs were available for everyone in the family. These ranged from
tilling the land and looking after animals to doing household chores. Accordingly, the
traditional family was the main unit of production and the home tended to be the center of
social, educational, training, recreational, and religious activities. Thus, there was increased
dependence between and among family members.

In contrast, modern families have acquired increased independence from other families. They
live in rural modern houses in individually-owned ‘Shambas’ isolated from other houses.
Alternatively, they live in urban areas surrounded by skyscrapers and the ring and ding of cars
and machines. Often, in both cases, relatives may be living too far, making frequent visits
difficult. The result is that family members are losing touch with one another.

Economically, the modern family is no longer the main unit of production. Husbands and
wives, sons and daughters are looking for work outside the home situation, Often, small
children who are not economically productive are left at home without adequate family care.
The recreation of the family has been entrusted to the entertainment industry made up of
television, radio, magazines, and cinemas theatres. Little wonder then that family members
keep drifting apart.

All these changes have altered the roles the family ought to play. First, there is less emphasis
on parents being primary trainers of youngsters. This role is entrusted to childminders who
are usually not family members. Thereafter, it falls on schools, churches, and other
organizations. In this scenario, the roles of the parents as models to their children, comforters
of and listeners to the children’s emotional needs are reduced.

Secondly, modern families tend to stay apart for a long time. Instead of using the traditional
family way of involving members to solve disputes, they turn to trained professionals like
lawyers for help and guidance. Modern families have, therefore, lost their obligations in solving
problems in the family.

In essence, children today do not get the full benefit of their rights as they did in traditional
families. For example, they are not always allowed to receive and return affection. Also, their
right to receive moral, sexual, and emotional guidance from their families has eroded seriously.
In light of all these issues, children growing up today are less likely to enjoy meaningful family
relations than their traditional counterparts.

(Adapted from Social Education and Ethics for Secondary School by Otiende, Wainaina
and Waiyaki, Longman Kenya pp6-8)
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Questions

1. How was land viewed in traditional society? (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. In what ways were social relations enhanced in the traditional society? (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. In your community, what economic roles were played by various family members according
to their sex and age? (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. Why would it be correct to say that the traditional family or traditional families catered for
all the needs of an individual? (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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5. Explain why modern families have grown increasingly independent in both rural and urban
areas. (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

6. What emotional needs do you think children have? (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

7. What roles should parents play in their children’s lives? (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. How have children of today been affected by the change in the roles played by families? (2
Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Explain the meaning of the following words and phrases as used in the passage. (4 Marks)

a) Close proximity
b) Primary trainers
c) Scenario
d) Enhanced social interactions

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3. ORAL SKILLS (25 MARKS)

a)Read the oral narrative below and answer the questions that follow:

The Chameleon and the Hare

The chameleon and the hare had always had misunderstandings. They always quarreled over

who between them could run faster than the other.

“Chameleon, you are the slowest animal on earth,” laughed the hare. “You cannot compete

in any race, even among the slowest animals, including snails.”

“My friend Hare, please avoid blowing your own trumpet I am certain you cannot defeat me

in a race. I will finish the race and have enough time to take a meal and a nap before you

arrive”.

And the great competition was set. Then the day came.

“On your marks, set, go!” the elephant started the race.

No sooner had the race started than the chameleon jumped on the hare’s tail. The hare ran

like he had never run before. At the finishing line, he started celebrating but when he

attempted to sit down and wait for the chameleon, the chameleon shouted, “Wooi!” Please

do not sit on me! I arrived long enough to have a meal and a nap. You can never defeat me

in a race!”

Questions

(i) Explain three ways in which you would capture the attention of the audience before

you start performing this narrative. (3 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

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(ii) Explain four ways in which you would know that you have captured and retained the

attention of the audience as the narrator. (4 marks)

..................................................................................................................................................

b)In the following underlined words indicate in which syllable you will place the stress marker
to bring out the intended meaning. (5 Marks)

i. I consider that an insult.

ii. Can a new convert, convert water into wine?
iii. I suspect that the suspect got away.

c) Study the conversation below between a taxi driver and a passenger who is disturbed by loud
music playing in the vehicle.

Passenger: Excuse me, sir, would you mind reducing the volume of the music, please?

Taxi driver: (ignoring her): Hey, where should I drop you?

Passenger: Excuse me, sir, did you hear me?

Taxi driver: What is it, woman? The volume is okay.

Passenger: It’s just a request as I need to receive a call.

Taxi driver:(interrupting): Then you should buy your car.

Passenger: I am sorry if I offended you but you have heard ...

Taxi driver: You have also heard my point.

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Questions

(i) Identify three instances of lack of etiquette on the part of the taxi driver. (3 marks)

..................................................................................................................................................

(ii) Identify two instances of etiquette characteristics of the passenger. (2 marks)

..................................................................................................................................................

d) Indicate the intonation in the following sentences. (4 marks)

(i) How do you write a good composition?

(ii) What a wonder!

(iii) Have you had your supper?

(iv) Wesa likes eating fruits after lunch.

e) Underline the silent letters in the following words. (4 marks)

(i) plumber

(ii) raspberry

(iii) bouquet

(iv) Sword

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4. ORAL POETRY

Read the oral poem below and then answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)

Bob bob, bobbing wagtail

Coming bobbing along.

Take your shield Little Girl Twin

And we go kill the Herdsmen

But the Herdsmen have done no harm

When they slaughtered their ox

They gave me a piece of bone

Take that to your mother Little Girl Twin

And I will take this to my father.

As I went trudging along

Eagle came and struck me

And I plucked a feather from him

From whom did you pluck the feather?

I plucked it from Sharp-Sharp-Claws

And where is Sharp-Sharp-Claws gone to?

He is gone to the papyrus patch

This is no papyrus patch

This is only a bogey marsh.

The plucky plucking woman

Where she plucks her hoe from

Is where she plucks beans from

Like this: kku!

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Questions

(a) Classify the above song. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Who is singing in the song? Give a reason. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Describe the tone the singer uses as the song is performed. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) State any two functions of the song (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………
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(f) Explain one economic activity from the community in which the song is picked
from. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(g) Explain the two voices singing in the poem (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(h) Summarize what the singer is singing about. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

(i) With illustration identify the moral values emphasized in the community. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 12 of 14

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5. GRAMMAR

(a) Complete each of the sentences below using appropriate articles. (a, an, the) (3 marks)

i. Janet knows how to play …………………………………..flute.

ii. I am working hard so that I can join …………………… university in South Africa.

iii. I was asked to read ……………………..eulogy of my grandmother on short notice.

(b) Use the right relative pronoun to complete the following sentences. (2 marks)

i) This is the man to ……………………………….. I gave the book.

ii) The farmer ……………………… cow stole into my garden has been arrested.

(c ) Fill in the gaps in the sentences below using a suitable collective noun. (2marks)

i) Aisha is proud of her ___________ of chickens.

ii) This morning Mum served the family a ______of bananas for breakfast.

(d) Change the following sentences from active voice to passive voice. (2marks)

i. Anne returned my book to the library.

…………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Tom scored the winning goal.

…………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Use commas where necessary in each of the following sentences. ( 2 marks)

i) I like reading books on birds reptiles insects and mammals.

ii) After the mother left the child began to cry.

f) Fill in the gaps below using the verbs in brackets in the present progressive aspect.
( 2 marks)

i) The guests___________dinner now. (eat)

ii) I ________ very tired today.( feeling)

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g) Fill in the gap using appropriate complex prepositions. (2marks)

i)______________________ what happened, we had rather talk to the principal. (In light of,
In view of)

ii) The suspect claimed that he had acted __________________ignorance.(out of, in spite of)

THE END

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Name……………………………………………………………………………………………….
Class:……………..Adm:.………..………Date………………………Sign……………………..
FORM TWO EXAMINATION
END TERM III
OCTOBER 2023
FRENCH
2 ¼ Hours
Instructions to candidates
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
4. This paper consists of 9 printed pages.
5. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s use only

Section Candidate’s Score

Compréhension

Grammar/ Com

Total

SECTION I: COMPREHENSION DES ECRITES

1. Read the texts below and answer the following questions

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1
PASSAGE I

Joanne va à Paris

Joanne est sortie de la maison à neuf heures et demie. Elle est allée à la gare en taxi. Elle a acheté
un aller-retour pour le train de 10h10 pour Paris. Elle a voulu monter dans le train tout de suite,
mais un passager lui a dit « Il faut composter votre billet, Mademoiselle. » Elle est vite allée
composter son billet.

Avant de monter dans le train, elle a aussi mangé un sandwich au fromage dans le buffet. Elle est
montée dans le train et il est bien parti à 10h10. Une heure plus tard, le train est arrivé à Paris.
Elle a cherché la consigne pour laisser sa valise, mais c’était fermé.

1. Questions

a) Le moyen de transport à la gare : ……………………………………………… (½ pt)

b) Elle a acheté……………………………………………………………….…… (½ pt)
c) Qui a parlé à Jeanne ? …………………………………………….……….…… (½ pt)
d) 4. Qu’est –ce qu’on lui a dit ? (½ pt)
e) A. Il faut valider le billet. B. Il faut monter dans le train. C. Il faut réserver une
place.
f) Avant de monter dans le train, elle est allée……………………………………. (½ pt)
g) 6 A quelle heure le train est-il arrivé à Paris …………………………..…………. (½ pt)
h) 8 Qu’est-ce que Joanne a voulu faire à la consigne ? …………………………….. (1pt)
i) 9. Donnez du passage ; les synonymes de (1pt)
« ticket » ……………………………………
« rapidement » ………..…………………………..

PASSAGE II

Jeune femme, 38 ans, mince, sans enfant, financièrement stable, aimant les animaux domestiques
de la ferme cherche jeune homme robuste de 38 à 40 ans, travailleur et bavard qui préfère la vie
du dehors, pour sortir ensemble et, si possible éventuellement pour mariage. Contactez les
Annonces, numéro 35.
2. Questions
(a) Qui est l’auteur du texte ? …………………………………………………….. [½ point]
(b) Précisez deux qualités physiques que cherche l’auteur dans ce texte :

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2
(i) ……………………………………………………………………………… [1 point]
(ii) ……………………………………………………...………………………
(c) Quelle est l’intention finale de l’auteur ? [½ point]
………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Passage III
Je m’appelle Toussaint. Mon père s’appelle Diallo, il est ingénieur. Ma mère s’appelle Sarah,
elle est directrice. J’ai deux frères et une sœur. Elles s’appellent Philippe, Patrick et Agnès.
Philippe est l’ainé. Il est en premier à l’université de Kenyatta. Je suis le deuxième né. Je suis
étudiant au lycée Mang’u. Agnès est la troisième née et Patrick le benjamin. Ils sont élèves à
l’école primaire Kuraihia.
J’aime beaucoup ma famille. Mes parents sont gentils mais strictes. Mes frères et ma sœur sont
sympas.
a. Comment s’appelle l’auteur? …………………………………………………. [½ point]
b. Combien de membres y-a-t-il dans sa famille? ………………………………… [½ point]
c. Nommez la profession de sa mère ……………… et son père………………….. [1point]
d. Donnez du passage le synonyme de [1point]
« cadet » ……………………………………………….
« gentils » ……………………………………………….
SECTION II: LA GRAMMAIRE
4. Change the verbs in brackets into PASSÉ COMPOSÉ. (10 pts)

Rafael Nadal ………….. (naitre) le 3 juin 1986 à Manacor, à Majorque. Il ……………………

(commencer) à jouer au tennis à l’âge de 5 ans. Son oncle Toni …………………… (devenir)
son entraîneur en 1990. Il ………………….……..….. (entrer) dans le classement ATP à 16 ans.
Rafael …………………………..…. (participer) à la Copa Davis pour la première fois en 2004.
Pendant la saison 2004-2005, il …………………..…..……… (obtenir) plus de 40 victoires.
Ses parents ………………………… (pouvoir) assister à la finale de Roland-Garros de 2005. Il
……………………………… (ne pas perdre) la finale de Roland-Garros de 2006 contre Roger
Federer. En 2006, il ……………………. (avoir) un accident de voiture à Majorque. Il ne parle
pas bien français car il ………………………….….. (ne pas apprendre) cette langue à l'école.
5. Respond to the following questions replacing with either y or en. (5 marks)
Exemple -Nous avons un auditeur en ligne. Monsieur, vous habitez à Nice ?

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3
- Non, je n’y habite pas.

a. - Vous pouvez profiter de la mer?

-Eh bien, je n’……………….. profite pas beaucoup, je travaille.

b.. -Est-ce que ton frère va aux États-Unis ?

Oui, il …………………………………………………………………………………

c. -Est-ce que Jacques va chez toi ?

- Non, il ……………………………………………………………………………..

d. – Vous mangez du pain à tous les repas ?

-Non, nous……………………………………………………………………………..

e. -Vous parlez quelquefois de votre passé ?

-Non, je …………………………………………………………………………………

6. Use one word only to complete the following (5 marks)

(a) Il montre son livre de français ……………………………………. Paul.

(b) D’abord, je prends une douche. ………………………je prends mon déjeuner.
(c) Tu n’as pas……………………………….……….stylo.
(d) La cantine est près de …………………………………………… piscine.
(e) On continue ? Non, je………………………….…………….fatiguée.
(f) Ils vont ………………………………………………………… Etats-Unis.
(g) Il est six heures ………………………………………………. matin
(h) Où se trouve la voiture ? La voiture est dans …………………………garage.
(i) Dans mon école, il y ………………………………. presque 1,200 élèves.
(j) Ouvrez la porte, s’il vous …………………………………….. !

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4
7. Change the following sentences from direct to indirect speech (5mks)

1. Paul dit: “J’ai faim.”

________________________________________________________________________

2. Jacques conseille: « Ecoute la chanson. »

________________________________________________________________________

3. François dit : « Je cherche mon écharpe. »

________________________________________________________________________

4. Valentine et François disent : « Nous prenons nos manteaux. »

________________________________________________________________________

5. Elle dit : « Il ne chante pas. »

________________________________________________________________________

8. Complétez le dialogue en conjuguant les verbes: (5 marks)

« continuer », « traverser », « aller », « prendre », « tourner », « arriver » « être ». « attendre »

- Pardon, monsieur, la place Stanislas, s’il vous plaît ?

- Vous ………………….…….. tout droit puis vous ……………..………….. la première à

gauche. Ensuite vous ……………..………….. à un carrefour. Là, ………….…………….. la rue
à la droite, ………………………….. toujours tout droit jusqu’à un rond-point. Vous
………………..………….. le feu orange. Puis, vous ……………….…………….. à droite.
Après, …………………..………….. la rue pour aller en face et enfin
……………………………….. la deuxième sur votre gauche. Vous
………………………….…….. arrivé !

- Merci bien. Au revoir.

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SECTION III: L’ECRIT

9. In 120-150 words, answer ONE question according to the instructions given.

Either
a. Vous organisez une activité scolaire dans votre école ou région. Ecrivez une
lettre à votre ami(e) en lui expliquant vos projets. [10 points]

b. Vous avez beaucoup apprécié votre visite chez votre ami(e). Écrivez-lui une
lettre en lui remerciant pour l’invite. [10 points]

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TERM 3 - 2023
GEOGRAPHY
FORM TWO (2)
312/1
Time: 2 Hours
Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….
School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..
Signature: …………………………………………………….. Date: …………………...

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

Answer all the questions in section

The candidate should ensure all pages are available

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Answer ALL questions in this Section.
1. a) What is the relationship between Geography and Mathematics. (2 marks)
b) Identify three areas studied under Practical Geography. (3 marks)
2. The diagram below represents the structure of the earth. Use it to answer question (a)
(a) Name: (i) the parts marked P (2 marks)
(ii) the discontinuity marked R (1 mark)
(iii) Apart from the core give the other name of the feature marked Q (1 mark)
(b) State three characteristics of the mantle. (3 marks)
3. a) Name two weather elements that can be recorded at a school weather station.
(2 marks)
b) Give 3 reasons why recording of data at a school weather station may be inaccurate.
(3 marks)
c) State 2 conditions to consider when siting a weather station (3 marks)

d) Mention 3 dangers associated with convectional rainfall (3marks)

4. a) What is an earthquake? (2 marks)
b) Distinguish between lava and magma (2 marks)
(c) Mention three earthquake seismic zone (3 marks)
5. a) Outline three characteristics of desert vegetation. (3 marks)
b) State two reasons for the reduced vegetation on mountain tops. (2 marks)
6. Name three types of maps (3 marks)
a) (i) convert the following scales into statement scale
-1:50000 (3 marks)
-1:250000 (3marks)
(ii) Give three uses of map scales (3 marks)
(iii) Mention 4 ways of representing relief on topographical? (4 mark)

7. a) Describe the following characteristics of minerals:

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(i) Color (2 marks)
(ii) Cleavage (2 marks)
(iii) Hardness (2 marks)
b) (i) Give two types of igneous rocks (2 marks)
(ii) Explain three reasons why sedimentary rocks are dominant along the Kenya coast.
(6 marks)
c) State four uses of rocks (4 marks)
d) You are planning to carry out a field on the rocks within your school environment.
(i) Give two secondary sources of information you would use to prepare for the field
study. (2 marks)
(ii) State why you would need the following items during the field study; (2 marks)
- A geological hammer
- A polythene bag
(iii)Suppose during the field study you collect marble, sandstone and granite, classify
each of these samples according to its mode of formation. (3 marks)

8. a) (i) Name two types of tectonic plate boundaries. (2 marks)

(ii) Describe the origin of continents according to the Theory of Continental Drift.
(3 marks)
(iii) Explain how the movement of magma causes earth movement. (2 marks)
b) Name one-fold mountain in:
(i) Asia (1 mark)
(ii) North America (1 mark)
(iii) South America (1 mark)
b) (i) Apart from fold mountains, name three other features resulting from folding.
(3 marks)
(ii) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe the formation of an over thrust fold.
(4 marks)
c) Explain four effects of folding on human activities. (8 marks)

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TERM 3- 2023
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT (311)
FORM TWO (2)
Time:
Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….
School: ………………………………………………………... Class: …………………...
Signature: ……………………………………………………... Date: …………………...

INSTRUCTIONS
• This paper has three sections i.e. Section A (25 marks), Section B (45 marks)
and Section C 30 marks)
• Section A has Q1-17, Section B has Q18-20 while Section C has Q21 and Q22
• Answer all the questions in this paper
• All answers must be written in English

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
1. State two ways through which archaeologists obtain information on the History of Kenya.
(2 marks)
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2. Name the earliest hominid closer to modern man. (1mark)
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3.Identify the remaining community in Kenya that belong to the Southern Cushites.
(1 mark)
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4.Give the name of the clan council of elders among the Nandi (1 mark)
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5.State two functions of Fort Jesus during the Portuguese rule. (2 marks)
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6.Give one advantage of a dual citizenship to a Kenyan. (1mark)
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7. Identify one economic responsibility of a Kenyan citizen. (1mark)

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8.Give two reasons for the development of early agriculture along river valleys. (2 marks)
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9.Identify two symbols of national unity in Kenya (2 marks)
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10.Give two functions of mission centers established by missionaries (2 marks)
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11.Why was the Trans-Atlantic trade referred to as Triangular trade. (1 mark)
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12.Give two forms of traditional currency used in Africa. (2 marks)
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13.Mention two uses of newspapers in the society today. (2 marks)

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14.State one way in which the use of bronze changed the Africans way of life. (1 mark)
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15.Name the main dispersal centre of iron smelting in Africa. (1 mark)

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16.Mention one initial problem that London faced when it was established. (1 mark)

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17.List two ways in which Kenyan citizens exercise direct democracy (2 marks)
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SECTION B (45 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
18.a) State three non-environmental reason for domestication of crops and animals by
early man. (3 marks)

b) (b) Describe the cultural and economic activities of man during middle Stone Age period (12
marks)

19(a)Apart from the Abagusii, name any three western Bantus in Kenya. (3 marks)
(b) Describe the social organization of the Abagusii during the pre-colonial period.
(12 marks)

20 a) State three advantages of road transport. (3 marks)

b) Explain six solutions to challenges facing industrialization in the Third World countries. (12
Marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
21 a) Identify three social responsibilities of a Kenyan Citizen (3 marks)
b) Explain six social -economic issues that cause conflict in the society (12 marks)

22 a) Give three sources of the British Constitution. (3 marks)

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b) Explain six factors that led to the growth of the Asante Empire by the 19th Century (12 marks)

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Name……………………………………………………………… Adm No.…………………

Class ………………………… Student’s Signature………………… Date………………….........

441/1
HOME SCIENCE
THEORY
Paper 1
October 2023
2 ½ hours

FORM TWO END OF YEAR EXAM

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and number in the spaces provided.
 Sign and date the examination in the spaces provided.
 This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
 Answer ALL questions in section A and B and any two questions from section C.
 Answers must be written in the spaces provided.

For Examiners use only.

Section Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
A 1-19 40

B 20 20

C 20

100 marks
Total

This paper consists of 10 Printed pages.

Students should check the question paper to ensure that all the
Papers are printed as indicated and no questions are missing

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SECTION A

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING THE QUESTIONS IN THE SPACES PROVIDED.

1. List down four moist methods that can be used when cooking. (2 mks)

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2. Identify four types of brushes you can use to remove dirt from various surfaces in your classroom. (2 mks)

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3. What is “Full strength starch” as used in laundry work. (2 mks)

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4. Give two ways in which anaemia can be caused in Kenya. (2 mks)

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5. Mention two ways of ensuring that fresh milk is safe for consumption at home. (2 mks)

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6. Highlight two ways in which kwashiorkor can be managed. (2 mks)

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7. Give the functions of the following sewing machine parts. (3 mks)

a) Bobbin winder

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b) Tension disc

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c) Stop- motion screw

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8. State two symptoms noted in severe case of diabetes in adults. (2 mks)

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9. State two problems that a homemaker may experience while planning to buy an item. (2 mks)

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10. Give the differences between perishable and non-perishable foods. (2 mks)

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11. State two points to observe when taking body measurements. (2 mks)

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12. State two good grooming habits that can prevent occurrence of lice. (2 mks)

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13. State two function of Ascorbic acid in the body. (2 mks)

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14. What is competitive advertisement? (2 mks)

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15. Give two reasons why you would not use acetone to remove stains on acetate fabrics. (2 mks)

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16. Identify two precautions to take when cleaning glass utensils. (2 mks)

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17. Give two reasons for using machine fell seam on children’s garments. (2 mks)

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18. What is the function of the following stitches (3 mks)

a) Fishbone stitch
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b) Loop stitches
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c) Chain stitch
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19. Mention the function of ammonia in laundry (2 mks)

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SECTION B (20 marks)

COMPULSORY

20. Your parents are away for the weekend and have requested you to carry out some tasks

a) Giving reasons explain how you would finish your cotton pillow case ready for use. (10mks)

b) Describe how you would thoroughly clean a cemented floor in the verandah. (10 mks)

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SECTION C (40 mks)

Answer any TWO questions from this section in the spaces provided after question 23

21. a) Explain four factors you would consider when buying spinach. (8 mks)

b) Give four ways of avoiding wastage in the kitchen when preparing meals. (4mks)

c) Highlight four reasons why you would not choose to live in a maisonette. (4 mks)

d) Explain four points to consider when selecting a drying rack. (4 mks)

22. a) Explain four finishing processes carried out during laundry. (8 mks)

b) Outline three points to consider when caring for kitchen cutting tools. (6 mks)

c) Explain three disadvantages associated with living in a temporary house. (6 mks)

23. a) Explain two reasons why a garment care label is important to a consumer. (4 mks)

b) Explain three reasons for cooking meat. (6 mks)

c) Giving an example in each case differentiate between substitute and complimentary products. (4mks)

d) Explain three methods of removing dirt from surfaces. (6 mks)

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MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS
Term 2 - 2023
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION (314)
FORM TWO (2)
Time: 2½ Hours

ATTEMPT ANY FIVE QUESTIONS

1 a). Explain the reasons for the revelation of the Quran. (6 marks)
b). Discuss six significance of the compilation of the Quran. (6 marks)
c). What are the lessons that Muslims can learn from the last three verses of Surah Al-Baqarah? (8 marks)

2. a). Explain the ways through which hadith evolved. (4 marks)

b). Discuss the contribution of hadith to Islamic culture. (8 marks)
c). What are the factors that necessitated the collection and compilation of Hadith? (8 marks)

3. a). State the acts forbidden to a Muslim in a state of Ihram. (8 marks)

b). Why do Muslims slaughter animals during Iddul-Adha? (8 marks)
c). Discuss four ways in which believing in the Day of Judgement affects the life of a Muslim. (4 marks)

4. a). Identify the significance of Tawheed in the life of a Muslim. (7 marks)

b). Explain the different types of Shirk. (6 marks)
c). Enumerate seven effects of sexual perversion in society. (7 marks)

5. a). Describe the types of Eddat. (8 marks)

b). Outline Umar ibn Khattab’s contribution to the cause of Islam during the prophet’s era. (7 marks)
c) What are the social achievements of the prophet (p.b.u.h)? (5 marks)

6. a). Explain eight contributions of Sheikh Al-Amin ibn Ali Al-Mazrui in promoting education among
Muslims in Kenya. (8 marks)
b). Outline the views of Hassan Al-Banna on Education. (6 marks)
c). Discuss the achievements of Sayyid Qutb. (6 marks)

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MTIHANI WA KISWAHILI WA KIDATO CHA PILI
MUHULA WA TATU-2023
𝟏
MUDA-𝟐 𝟐

MAAGIZO-Jibu maswali yote.

1. UFAHAMU (alama 15)

Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali
Mageuzi yanayotarajiwa katika idara ya polisi yameanza kubisha hodi baada ya kuzinduliwa kwa
mtaala mpya wa kutoa mafunzo kwa maafisa hawa walinda usalama.
Mtaala huu ulizinduliwa rasmi na Waziri wa Usalama nchini miaka michache iliyopita.Mtaala
huu ulilenga kuimarisha utendakazi katika kikosi hiki ambacho kwa muda sasa kimelaumiwa
kwa kukolewa ufisadi na uvunjaji wa haki za kimsingi.
Akihutubu katika hafla ya kuzindua mtaala huu,Waziri wa Usalama alisema kuzinduliwa kwa
mtaala huu wa kutoa mafunzo unaashiria mwanzo wa mageuzi makubwa yanayonuiwa
kukipatia kikosi hicho sura mpya.
“Nyakati zimebadilika na tutawapa maafisa hawa wa polisi mafunzo mapya.Tunataka kuunda
kikosi imara chenye n0idhamu na kinachoheshimu haki za kibinadamu.Tunataka kuwa na kikosi
kinachoakisi sura ya karne hii na kinachofikia hadhi ya kimataifa,”Waziri alisema.
Mtaala moya wa kutoa mafunzo kwa maafisa wa polisi ni matunda ya jopo lililoteuliwa na Rais
kutathmini mageuzi katika kikosi hicho .Mtaala uliandaliwa na Taasisi ya elimu nchini
ikishirikiana na wanafunzi kutoka chuo cha mafunzo ya polisi cha Kiganjo kwa usaidizi wa
wataalamu wa masula ya usalama kutoka Uswizi.
Chini ya Mtaala huo,maafisa wa polisi watapokea mafunzo kwa kipindi cha kati ya miezi 15 na
21 kinyume cha awali ilipowachukua miezi 9 pekee kukamilisha mafunzo!
Aidha ,alama za kujiunga na kikosi hicho zimeongezwa .Katika mtaala huo ,wanaojiunga na
idara ya polisi wa kawaida,kitengo cha G.S.U au polisi wa utawala ni lazima wawe wamepata
alama ya C katika mtihani wa kitaifa wa K.C.S.E na itawachukua miezi 15 kukamilisha mafunzo
ikiwa ni pamoja na miezi 3 ya kujifamahamisha na huduma ya kikosi.
Hii ni tofauti na awali ambapo alama ya kujiunga na kikosi cha polisi ilikuwa ya D katika
mtihani wa K.C.S.E .Mtaala mpya unasema asilimia 10 ya makurutu wawe na digrii kutoka
chuo kikuu na watapokea mafunzo kwa miezi 15 na kuhitimu cheo cha Naibu wa Inspekta wa
Polisi.
Kuanzia sasa ,sharti usawa wa kijinsia uzingatiwe kikamilifu katika uajiri wa
polisi.Wachanganuzi wa masuala ya usalama wanasema ukizingatiwa ipasavyo, mtaala huo
utasaidia kuunda msingi dhabiti wa kikosi imara ambacho wananchi wamekuwa wakihitaji.

Maswali
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a) Ni dalili ipi inayoonyesha mwanzo wa mageuzi? (alama 1)
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b) Mtaala mpya unalenga nini? (alama 4)
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c) Eleza lawama zinazoelekezewa kikosi cha polisi. (alama 2)
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d) Kwa mujibu wa taarifa eleza mageuzi matatu yaliofanywa katika kikosi cha polisi.
(alama 3)
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e) Taja makundi mawili yanayohusika katika kuandaa mtaala mpya. (alama 2)
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f) Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yalivyotumika katika kifungu (alama 3)
1) kubisha hodi
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ii) kukolewa
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iii) Makurutu
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2. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (alama 40)
CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR 2MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS
a) Taja aina mbili kuu za sauti za Kiswahili. (alama 2)
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b) Taja vigezo vitatu vinavyotumika kuainisha konsonanti. (alama 3)
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c) Taja aina mbili za konsonati zenye aina ya vipasuo. (alama 2)
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d) Andika maneno yenye miundo ya silabi ifuatayo. (alama 3)
i) KI
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ii) KKI
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iii) II
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e) Bainisha maneno haya yanapatikana katika ngeli ipi? (alama 2)
Ngoma
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Ukuta
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f) Bainisha mofimu katika neno hili. (alama 2)
Alienda
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g) Andika vinyume vya sentensi zifuatazo; (alama 2)

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i) Mama anaanika nguo.
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ii) Baba anaenda sokoni.
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h) Kanusha sentensi zifuatazo. (alama 2)
i) Mkulima analima shamba.
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ii) Mwanafunzi anasoma kitabu
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i) Bainisha aina za nomino hizi. (alama 3)
i) Sukari
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ii) Mwanafunzi
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iii) Malindi
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j) Bainisha aina za vitenzi katika sentensi zifutazo (alama 3)
i) Walikuwa kwake.
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ii) Tulienda kufagia darasa letu.
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iii) Amekwisha kusema hivyo mara nyingi.
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k) Tunga sentensi mbili kuonyesha maana tofauti ya neno. (alama 2)

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Hema
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l) Andika ukubwa wa sentensi hii. (alama 2)
Mwizi aliposhikwa hakutoroka.
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m) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika hali ya mazoea. (alama 1)
Wanafunzi walirauka alfajiri na mapema kwenda mjini.
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n) Andika upya sentensi ifuatayo kwa kutumia –amba-. (alama 1)
Tarakilishi iliyonunuliwa imeanza kutumiwa.
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o) Onyesha silabi inayowekewa shadda kwenye maneno yafuatayo. (alama 4)
Karatasi
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Shairi
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Barabara (njia kuu)
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Mto
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p) Eleza maana ya nahau hizi, (alama 2)
i) Nenda segemnege
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ii) Piga moyo konde

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q) Andika katika msemo wa taarifa; (alama 2)
“Wakazi wa eneo hili ni wafugaji stadi wa sungura”Kakangu aliniambia.
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s) Andika katika kauli ya kutendesha (alama 2)
Amani alkunywa pombe mpaka akalewa sana.
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3. ISIMU JAMII (alama 10)
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali.
“Aisee mimi ng’ombe, nilisema kitambo…
Na huyu mwenzangu amesema kuku na ugali .Harakisha kidogo bro tunachelewa!”
i) Tambua sajili inayorejelewa. (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
ii) Tambua sifa zinazobainisha sajili rejelewa. (alama 8)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. FASIHI SIMULIZI (alama 15)

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali
“Mwanangu ,masomo ni jambo muhimu sana .Utakapofika chuoni na kuanza maisha ya chuo
kikuu , tafadhali usijiingize katika mambo ya dunia,anasa na raha nyingi.Vitbau viwe rafiki wa
karibu .Jaribu kusaidiana na wenzako na utie bidii za mchwa masomoni.
Mwanangu kumbuka elimu ndio ufunguo wa maisha mema hapo usoni.Jiepushe na mambo
mabaya ili usiangukiwe na mti.Kumbuka aliye kando haangukiwi na mti.”
Maswali
a) Tambua kipera cha fasihi simulizi na kifungu hiki. Thibitisha jibu lako. (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Bainisha sifa tatu za kipera hiki zinazojitokeza kifunguni. (alama 3)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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c) Onyesha umuhimu wa toni moja inayotumiwa katika uwasilishaji wa kipera hiki.
(alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
d) Onyesha sifa mbili za nyimbo katika utambaji wa hadithi. (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
e) Fafanua vipengele muhimu katika kufanikisha uwasilishaji wa Fasihi simulizi.
(alama 4)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
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………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
f) Wewe ni kati ya wanaotambiwa hadithi katika mandhari maalum. Fafanua mambo
ambayo wewe na mwenzako mnaweza kuchangia wakati wa utambaji. (alama 3)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

MWISHO

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Term 3 - 2023
MATHEMATICS (Alternative A)
FORM TWO (2)
Time: 2½ Hours

Name: …………………………………………………......…… AdmNo: ……….……

School: …………………………………………………………... Class: …………………

Candidate’s Signature: …….………...................................... Date: …...…………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, admission number, school and class in the spaces provided at the top of this
page.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer ALL questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II.
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
provided below each question.
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical Tables may be used.
(h) This paper consists of 17 printed pages.
(i) Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the pages are printed as
indicated and no questions are missing.
For Examiners’ Use Only
SECTION I

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

SECTION II

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand
Total

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SECTION I (50 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section

1. Evaluate (3mks)
× ×

2. A number n is such that when it is divided by3,7,11 or 13 its remainder is always one .Find
the number (2mks)

3. Two containers have base areas of 750 cm2 and 120cm 2 respectively. Calculate the volume
of the larger container given that the volume of the smaller containers is 400cm2.( 3mks )

4. Solve the inequality and represent the solution on a number line. (3mks)
12- x >5< 2 x -2

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. .
5. use tables of logarithms to solve: (4 mks)
× .

6. Simplify completely (2mks)

2a2 + 6ab + 4b2
2(a2-b2)

7. Solve the equation

a) Cos (2x +35)0 = sin (3x-10)0 ( 3mks)

b) Hence find Tan (2x +4) without using table or calculators. (2mks)

8. Maina spent 1/3 of his net salary on school fees. He spent ¼ of the remainder on rent he then
spent 1/8 of what was left on transport .If finally he had sh.4200 what was his net salary.
(3mks)

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9. Solve the quadratic equation (3mks)
2x2 +3x – 2=0

10. The area of the triangle ABC is 28cm2. Find the length BC. (3mks)
A

7.2 cm

48.60
B C

11. The image of point A(6 , 4) is A’ (3 ,4) under the translation vector. Find the translation
vector (3mks)

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12. Find the size of the angle labeled x giving reason. (2mks)

13. A customer paid ksh. 5,880 for a suit after he was allowed a discount of 2% on the selling
price .If the discount had not been given the seller would have made the profit of 20% of the
sale of the suit . Determine the price at which the seller bought the suit. (3mks)

×
14. Evaluate (4mks)
× ×

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15. A line which join the point A(3 , k) and B (-2 ,5) is parallel to another line whose equation
is 5y + 2x =10 Find the value of K. (3mks)

16. The interior angle of a certain polygon is 840. If each of the other angles is 1470 how many
sides does the polygon have? (3mks )

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SECTION B
Answer any five questions from this section
17. (a) A bucket is in the shape of a frustum of a cone. Its diameter at the top and the bottom are
38 cm and 28 cm respectively. Its depth is 20cm.Determine the full capacity of the bucket in
litres. (6 mks)

(b) The above container was filled with water and later transferred to a cylinder of height
92cm. Calculate to 1 d.p the radius of the cylinder. (4mks)

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18. The slaughter house brought a number of sheep at sh. 1200 each and a number of oxen at
sh.15,000each. They paid a total of sh.135, 000. If they had brought twice as many sheep and
three oxen less. They would have saved sh. 15000.
a) Write two simultaneous equations presently the information. (2mks)

b) Find the number of each type of animal they brought. (5mks)

c) The sloughter house sold all the animal at a profit of 30% per sheep and 35% per oxen.
Determine the total profit they made. (3mks)

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19. Four towns A,B,C and D are such that B is 84km from A on a bearing of 0630 .C is 144 km
and on bearing S 300E from B.D is directly to the west of C and on a bearing of 1600 from
A.
a) Using a scale of 1 cm reps 20km show the relative position of the towns. (4 mks)

b) Use you scale drawing to find.

i. Distance AC (2mks)

ii. Bearing of A from C (2mks)

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iii. Distance DC. (2mks)

20. (a) A straight line L whose equation is 3y – 2x = -2 meets the x-axis at R. Determine the
coordinates of R. (2 mks)

b). A second line L2 is perpendicular to L1 at R. Find the equation of L2 in the form y=mx + c
where m and c as contract. (3 mks)

c). A third line L3 passes through (-4, 1) and is parallel to L1.Find

i. The equation of L3 in the form y=mx + c where m and c are constants. (2mks)

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ii. The coordinators of point S at which L3 intersects L2. (3mks)

21. (a)Draw line PQ, 8 cm long the line construct triangle PQR such that <QPR = 750 and line
PR= 7 cm measure line QR . (4 mks)

b).Construct a circle touching all the vertices of triangle PQR and measure its radius. (3 mks)

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c). Calculate the difference in area between the circle and triangle PQR. (3 mks)

22. The distance between Busia to Nairobi is 360 km.A bus left Busia at 7:30 am and traveled towards
Nairobi at an average speed of 90km/h. A Nissan left Nairobi at 9:30 am on the same day and
traveled towards Busia at an average speed of 120km/h.

Calculate.

a) How far from Busia they met to the nearest whole number. (5 mks)

b) The time they met. (2 mks)

c) A motorist started from Kisumu at 9:25am on the same day and traveled at an average speed
of 110km/h. He arrival at Nairobi at the same time with the bus. Calculate the distance from
Nairobi to Kisumu. (3 mks)

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23. The figures below shows two intersecting circles with centre A and B. <CBD =900 and BC =
BD =10cm <CAD = 720 and line CD is a common chord.

C
10 cm

A 72 0
B
10cm
D

Calculate
i. The length of common chord CD. (2 mks)

ii. The radius AC to the nearest whole number. (3 mks)

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iii. The area of intersection of the two circles that is shaded. (5 mks)

24. The height of 25 coffee shrubs in a certain farm in centimeters were recorded as below :

109 120 114 121 150

149 125 106 148 140

109 108 130 138 142

148 147 107 136 139

132 135 109 116 128

a). Illustrate this information on a frequency table using a class internal of 5 cm starting with

105 – 109 . (4 mks)

b). what is the model class (1mks)

d) Calculate the mean height. (2 mks)

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d). calculate the median height. (3 mks)

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Term 3 - 2023
PHYSICS
FORM TWO (2)
Time: 2 Hours

Name: ………………………………………………………….Adm No: ……………….

Instructions to candidates

 This paper consists of two sections A and B.

 Answer all the questions in the two sections in the spaces provided after each question
 All working must be clearly shown.
 Electronic calculators, mathematical tables may be used.
 All numerical answers should be expressed in the decimal notations.
 You may use:
 ‘gravitational acceleration, g, as 10m/s2
 Density of water = 1000kg/m3

For Examiner use only

SECTION QUESTION MAX MARKS CANDIDATE’S
SCORE

A 1 – 12 25
13 11

B 14 13

15 13

16 10

17 08

TOTAL 80

Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions
are missing.

SECTION A (25 Marks)

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1. Jane, a form one student, was working in the school laboratory when she got electrocuted.
Suggest the first aid measure which should be administered. (1 mark)

2. Define the term ‘moment’ of a force and state its SI unit (2 marks)

3. Diffusion in gases is faster than in liquids; give two reasons why this is so. (2 marks)

4. The figure below is a type of instrument for measuring the extent of hotness of a human body.

Figure 1
a) Identify the instrument (1 mark)

b) Label the part, A and state its function (2 marks)

5. Complete the ray diagram below to show how the eye views the tip of the lighted candle as the
object. (3 marks)

Figure 2

6. State the basic law of electrostatics (1 mark

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS Page 2 of 9

7. Briefly explain how an electroscope maybe used to test for an insulator (2 marks)

8. You are provided with the following apparatus: a bulb, connecting wires, a cell and a switch.
Using the provided apparatus, draw a well labelled circuit diagram of a simple electric circuit
(3 marks)

9. Explain the meaning of ‘polarization’ as a defect in simple cells (1 mark)

10. State two disadvantages of alkaline accumulators over lead acid accumulators (2 marks)

11. A car battery is rated 40 Ah and it is expected to supply a constant current for 120 minutes.
Determine the strength of current delivered. (3 marks)

12. Explain how hammering demagnetizes a bar magnet (2 marks)

SECTION B (55 Marks)

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS Page 3 of 9

13. Figure below, shows a micrometer screw gauge being used to measure the diameter of a
cylindrical object of length 10 cm. It has a zero-error of -0.02mm.

Figure 3

a) Identify the parts labelled P and M (2 marks)

b) State the diameter of the object (2 marks)

c) Determine the volume of the object (2 marks)

d) If an oil-drop of diameter 0.5 mm spreads on the surface of water to form an oil patch of
diameter 0.2 m, estimate the thickness of the oil molecule. (3 marks)

e) State any two assumptions made in the calculation (part d) above (2 marks)

14.
a) Define the following terms as used in waves:
i. Period (1 mark)

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS Page 4 of 9

ii. Wavelength (of a longitudinal wave) (1 mark)

b) The figure 4 below shows a displacement- distance graph for a certain wave motion.

Figure 4

Determine
i. The amplitude, A of the wave (1mark)

ii. The wavelength of the wave (1mark)

c) Given that the frequency of the wave (in part b, above) is 40Hz, determine the:

i. Periodic time (T) (1mark)

ii. Speed of the wave (3 marks)

d) State any two factors affecting the speed of sound in air (2 marks)

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e) A person standing 49.5 m from the foot of a tall cliff claps his hands and hears an echo 0.3
second later. Calculate the velocity of sound in air. (3 marks)

15. Define ‘atmospheric pressure’ (1 mark)

b) Figure 5 shows a simple mercury barometer.

Figure 5
i. Identify the part labelled X (1 mark)

ii. Explain how you would test for the X (2 marks)

c) The figure 6 below shows a U-tube filled with water, mercury and another liquid:

Figure 6
i. Determine the density of the liquid. (3 marks)

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ii. State possible reasons why mercury is used. (2 marks)

d) It is dangerous to stand close to a railway line on which a fast moving train is passing.
Explain (2 marks)

e) Differentiate between the: Bernoulli’s effect and Bernoulli’s principle (2 marks)

16.
a) Explain the meaning of the following terms:
i. Magnetic field (1 mark)

ii. Direction of a magnetic field (1 mark)

b) Figure 7 is a simple electromagnet, used for lifting and then releasing steel in a factory.

Figure 7

i. Suggest a material which most suitable for use in part labeled B (1 mark)

ii. Explain your answer in part, a above (1 mark)

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS Page 7 of 9

iii. Suggest any two modifications on the electromagnet above so that it can lift a slightly
heavier load (2 marks)

c) A conductor is carrying current in a magnetic field as shown in the figure below:

i. On the same diagram, draw the resultant field between the poles of
the magnet shown; (2 marks)

ii. Indicate the direction of the force acting on the conductor

(1 mark)

Figure 8

d) Using the domain theory, distinguish between magnet and magnetic material (1 mark)

17.
a) State the principle of moments (1 mark)

b) Define the term ‘Centre of gravity’ (1 mark)

c) Equal and parallel forces in opposite direction is called ‘anti-parallel forces.’ State any two
applications of the anti-parallel forces. (2 marks)

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS Page 8 of 9

d) Figure 9 shows a bolt being loosened using a spanner by application of forces F1 and F2.

Figure 9

The forces are applied in turns. If the two forces produce equal moment on the bolt, state with
reason which of the two forces is greater than the other. (2 marks)

e) Explain why a lorry loaded with bags of maize packed high up is likely to topple when
negotiating a corner. (2 marks)

This is the last printed page.

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR MARKING SCHEMES AND MORE EXAMS Page 9 of 9

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