Kami Export - I Am Sharing 'PCEP - Book 4 - Specialized Newborn Care - 4th Edition' With You
Kami Export - I Am Sharing 'PCEP - Book 4 - Specialized Newborn Care - 4th Edition' With You
PCEP PCEP
BOOK
Perinatal Continuing Education Program, 4th Edition Perinatal Continuing Education Program
4TH EDITION
EDITOR IN CHIEF, NEONATOLOGY
Specialized
Robert A. Sinkin, MD, MPH, FAAP
Newborn Care
• Fetal Well-being
has enhanced the knowledge and skills • Is the Baby Sick? Recognizing and Preventing Problems in
of physicians, nurses, nurse midwives the Newborn
• Resuscitating the Newborn
and practitioners, respiratory therapists, • Gestational Age and Size and Associated Risk Factors
and other providers of care for pregnant women and newborns. • Thermal Environment
• Hypoglycemia
The fourth edition PCEP workbooks have been completely updated
MATERNAL AND FETAL CARE (BOOK 2)
with cutting-edge procedures and techniques developed by leading • Hypertension in Pregnancy
Earn
experts in perinatal care. These information-rich volumes provide • Obstetric Hemorrhage
concise information, step-by-step perinatal skill instruction, and • Infectious Diseases in Pregnancy
CME credits
• Other Medical Risk Factors in Pregnancy
practice-focused exercises. They offer time-saving, low-cost solutions • Obstetric Risk Factors: Prior or Current Pregnancy
or contact
for self-paced learning or as adjuncts to instructor-led skills teaching. • Psychosocial Risk Factors in Pregnancy
• Gestational Diabetes
hours!
PCEP IS A COMPREHENSIVE EDUCATION TOOL FOR • Prelabor Rupture of Membranes and Intra-amniotic
• Improving perinatal care techniques, practices, policies, and Infection
• Preterm Labor
procedures. • Inducing and Augmenting Labor
• Teaching both practical skills and core knowledge. • Abnormal Labor Progress and Difficult Deliveries
• Encouraging cooperation and communication among diverse • Imminent Delivery and Preparation for Maternal/Fetal
Transport
health care teams.
• Simplifying education planning and budgeting. NEONATAL CARE (BOOK 3)
• Oxygen
• Saving time—self-paced study approach streamlines the • Respiratory Distress
learning process. • Umbilical Catheters
• Saving money—providing top-notch education at low • Low Blood Pressure (Hypotension)
• Intravenous Therapy
per-participant costs. • Feeding
• Hyperbilirubinemia
• Infections
• Identifying and Caring for Sick and At-Risk Babies
CONVENIENT, HASSLE-FREE CME CREDITS AND
• Preparation for Neonatal Transport
CONTACT HOURS
• Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome (Neonatal Opioid
AMA PRA Category 1 Credit(s)™, AAPA Category 1 CME credits, and Withdrawal Syndrome)
ANCC contact hours are available from the University of Virginia. Visit
www.cmevillage.com for more information. SPECIALIZED NEWBORN CARE (BOOK 4)
• Direct Blood Pressure Measurement
The University of Virginia School of Medicine and School of Nursing is • Exchange, Reduction, and Direct Transfusions
jointly accredited by the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical • Continuous Positive Airway Pressure
Education (ACCME), the Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education • Assisted Ventilation With Mechanical Ventilators
(ACPE), and the American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) to • Surfactant Therapy
provide continuing education for the health care team. • Therapeutic Hypothermia for Neonatal Hypoxic-Ischemic
Encephalopathy
• Continuing Care for At-Risk Babies
FOR OTHER PEDIATRIC RESOURCES, VISIT THE AMERICAN ACADEMY • Biomedical Ethics and Perinatology
OF PEDIATRICS AT SHOP.AAP.ORG.
AAP
PCEP
Perinatal Continuing Education Program
Specialized
Newborn Care
4th Edition
BOOK 4
Information about obtaining continuing medical education and continuing education credit for book study may be
obtained by visiting www.cmevillage.com.
Several different approaches to specific perinatal problems may be acceptable. The PCEP books have been written to
present specific recommendations rather than to include all currently acceptable options. The recommendations in
these books should not be considered the only accepted standard of care. We encourage development of local
standards in consultation with your regional perinatal center staff.
The American Academy of Pediatrics is an organization of 67,000 primary care pediatricians, pediatric medical
subspecialists, and pediatric surgical specialists dedicated to the health, safety, and well-being of all infants, children,
adolescents, and young adults.
While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy of this publication, the American Academy of Pediatrics does
not guarantee that it is accurate, complete, or without error.
The recommendations in this publication do not indicate an exclusive course of treatment or serve as a standard of
medical care. Variations, taking into account individual circumstances, may be appropriate.
Statements and opinions expressed are those of the authors and not necessarily those of the American Academy of Pediatrics.
Any websites, brand names, products, or manufacturers are mentioned for informational and identification purposes
only and do not imply an endorsement by the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP). The AAP is not responsible for
the content of external resources. Information was current at the time of publication.
The publishers have made every effort to trace the copyright holders for borrowed materials. If they have
inadvertently overlooked any, they will be pleased to make the necessary arrangements at the first opportunity.
This publication has been developed by the American Academy of Pediatrics. The contributors are expert authorities
in the field of pediatrics. No commercial involvement of any kind has been solicited or accepted in the development of
the content of this publication.
Every effort has been made to ensure that the drug selection and dosages set forth in this publication are in
accordance with the current recommendations and practice at the time of publication. It is the responsibility of the
health care professional to check the package insert of each drug for any change in indications or dosage and for
added warnings and precautions.
Every effort is made to keep Perinatal Continuing Education Program consistent with the most recent advice and
information available from the American Academy of Pediatrics.
Please visit www.aap.org/errata for an up-to-date list of any applicable errata for this publication.
Special discounts are available for bulk purchases of this publication. Email Special Sales at [email protected]
for more information.
© 2022 University of Virginia Patent Foundation
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any
form or by any means—electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise—without prior permission
from the publisher (locate title at https://ebooks.aappublications.org and click on © Get permissions; you may also
fax the permissions editor at 847/434-8780 or email [email protected]). First American Academy of Pediatrics
edition published 2007; second, 2012; third, 2017. Original edition © 1978 University of Virginia.
Printed in the United States of America
5-316/0721 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
PC0029
ISBN: 978-1-61002-500-3
eBook: 978-1-61002-501-0
Cover design by Peg Mulcahy
Publication design by Peg Mulcahy
Library of Congress Control Number: 2020943714
Editors
Editor in Chief, Neonatology Editor in Chief, Obstetrics
Robert A. Sinkin, MD, MPH, FAAP Christian A. Chisholm, MD, FACOG
Charles Fuller Professor of Neonatology Medical Director for Outpatient Clinics, Labor,
Department of Pediatrics and Delivery
University of Virginia Children’s Hospital Vice Chair for Medical Education
Vice Chair for Academic Affairs Professor of Obstetrics and Gynecology
Division Head, Neonatology Division of Maternal-Fetal Medicine
Charlottesville, VA Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology
University of Virginia School of Medicine
Charlottesville, VA
Susan B. Clarke, MS, NPD-BC, RNC-NIC, CNS Susan Niermeyer, MD, MPH, FAAP
NRP Instructor Mentor Professor of Pediatrics
Master Trainer, Helping Babies Survive Section of Neonatology
Affiliate Faculty, Center for Global Health University of Colorado School of Medicine
Colorado School of Public Health Colorado School of Public Health
University of Colorado Anschutz Medical Campus Aurora, CO
Aurora, CO
Barbara O’Brien, MS, RN
Robert R. Fuller, MD, PhD Director, Oklahoma Perinatal Quality Improvement
Associate Professor Collaborative
Division of Maternal-Fetal Medicine University of Oklahoma Health Sciences Center
Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology Oklahoma City, OK
University of Virginia School of Medicine
Charlottesville, VA Chad Michael Smith, MD, FACOG
Medical Director, Oklahoma Perinatal Quality
Ann Kellams, MD, FAAP Improvement Collaborative
Professor, Department of Pediatrics Vice President, Medical Affairs, Mercy Hospital
Vice Chair for Clinical Affairs and Director of Oklahoma City
Breastfeeding Medicine Services Oklahoma City, OK
University of Virginia
Charlottesville, VA Jonathan R. Swanson, MD, MSc, FAAP
Professor of Pediatrics
Sarah Lepore, MSN, APRN, NNP-BC Chief Quality Officer for Children’s Services
University of Virginia Children’s Hospital Medical Director, Neonatal Intensive Care Unit
Neonatal Intensive Care Unit University of Virginia Children’s Hospital
Charlottesville, VA Charlottesville, VA
iii
iv
Credit is awarded upon passing book exams, not individual educational unit posttests. Possible
credits: Book 1, 14.5; Book 2, 16; Book 3, 17; Book 4, 9. To obtain credit, register online at
www.cmevillage.com, choose Courses & Programs, then E-Learning, and scroll down to the
PCEP program. Click on the PCEP program link and navigate to https://med.virginia.edu/cme/
learning/pcep/pcep-book-exam-certificate/ and pass the book exams.
All individuals involved in the development and delivery of content for an accredited CE/IPCE
activity are expected to disclose relevant financial relationships with ineligible companies
occurring within the past 24 months (such as grants or research support, employee, consultant,
stock holder, member of speakers bureau, etc). The University of Virginia School of Medicine
and School of Nursing employ appropriate mechanisms to resolve potential conflicts of inter-
est and ensure the educational design reflects content validity, scientific rigor, and balance for
participants. Questions about specific strategies can be directed to the University of Virginia
The faculty, staff, and planning committee engaged in the development of this CE/IPCE activ-
ity in the Joint Accreditation CE Office of the School of Medicine and School of Nursing have
no financial affiliations to disclose.
It is recommended that each clinician fully review all the available data on new products or
procedures prior to clinical use.
vi
GLOSSARY���������������������������������������������������������������������������������������� 211
INDEX�������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������������245
vii
viii
Objectives
In this unit you will learn the
A. Difference between direct and indirect blood pressure monitoring
B. Reasons for direct blood pressure monitoring
C. Equipment needed for direct blood pressure monitoring
D. Interpretation of blood pressure waveforms
Unit 1 Pretest
Before reading the unit, please answer the following questions. Select the one best
answer to each question (unless otherwise instructed). Record your answers on the
test and check them with the answers at the end of the book.
1. A damped pressure tracing may be caused by each of the following findings except
A. Air bubbles in the tubing
B. Hypotension
C. Severe anemia
D. A clot at the tip of the umbilical catheter
2. True False Special intravenous tubing is needed for direct blood pressure
monitoring.
3. True False A narrowed pulse pressure may suggest certain congenital heart
defects.
4. True False The reference range for direct blood pressure measurements
is different than the reference range for indirect blood pressure
measurements.
5. True False When a direct blood pressure monitoring waveform shows slow
decrease in pressure during diastole, it may indicate increased
systemic vascular resistance.
6. The transducer for direct blood pressure measurement should be level with the
A. Baby’s heart
B. Electronic monitor
C. Umbilical catheter
D. Intravenous infusion pump
7. Direct blood pressure measurement is used for each of the following reasons except
A. Continuous blood pressure monitoring
B. Increased accuracy of the measurements
C. Obtaining information about a baby’s cardiac status
D. Measurement of acid-base balance
E. Transducer cable
This connects the transducer with the electronic monitor. Sometimes the transducer and
cable are a single unit.
F. Intravenous pump
This pump should be able to deliver a low volume of fluid (,1 mL/h). It should also be
able to deliver fluid continuously, rather than in pulses. With advanced technology of
intravenous (IV) pumps, many are able to deliver low volumes with a syringe option to
enable monitoring indirect arterial pressure. If this is not an option, a syringe pump can
be used. Follow your hospital’s protocol for use of the appropriate device.
G. Intravenous solution
To obtain continuous blood pressure readings, the system must remain open between
the catheter and transducer. This significantly increases the risk of clot formation
within the catheter unless a continuous infusion of IV fluid is maintained.
Physiological (normal) saline will cause less sludging of blood in a catheter than a
glucose solution will; however, small babies may receive excessive sodium and insuffi-
cient glucose if normal saline is used to help keep the catheter patent. Calculate the
requirements of your patient. (See Book 1: Maternal and Fetal Evaluation and
Immediate Newborn Care, Unit 8, Hypoglycemia, and Book 3: Neonatal Care, Unit 5,
Intravenous Therapy.) Heparin should be added to the IV solution. Most experts rec-
ommend using an IV solution with 0.5 to 1.0 U of heparin per milliliter and infusing it
at a rate of at least 0.5 mL/h.
H. Mechanism to hold the transducer at the level of the baby’s heart
Sometimes the transducer is mounted on an IV pole with a holder that may be raised
or lowered as the baby’s position is changed. Most commonly, however, transducers
are designed to rest on the bed alongside the baby.
Self-test A
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
A1. Indirect blood pressure measurement uses an __________ __________ wrapped around the baby’s arm
or leg, while direct blood pressure measurement uses a __________ inserted into an __________.
A2. What are the 3 primary reasons for using direct blood pressure monitoring?
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A3. True False A continuous infusion should be given through an umbilical arterial catheter when it
is being used for continuous blood pressure monitoring.
A4. True False Non-distensible tubing is an optional piece of equipment for continuous direct blood
pressure monitoring.
A5. True False An intravenous pump that delivers fluid in regular, tiny pulses is the preferred type
of pump to use with a direct blood pressure monitoring arterial catheter.
Check your answers with the list near the end of the unit. Correct any incorrect answers and review
the appropriate section in the unit.
110
100
Systolic Blood Pressure (mm Hg)
90
Upper limit
80
of normal
70
60
50
40
30 Lower limit
20 of normal
10
0
750 1,000 1,250 1,500 1,750 2,000 2,250 2,500 2,750 3,000 3,250 3,500 3,750 4,000
60 Upper limit
of normal
50
40
30
20
10 Lower limit
of normal
0
750 1,000 1,250 1,500 1,750 2,000 2,250 2,500 2,750 3,000 3,250 3,500 3,750 4,000
Figure 1.1. Systolic and Diastolic Blood Pressure During the First Day After Birth
Adapted with permission from Zubrow AB, Hulman S, Kushner H, Falkner B. Determinants of blood pressure in infants admitted to neonatal
intensive care units: a prospective multicenter study. J Perinatol. 1995;15(6):470–479.
80 55
37 weeks
75 50
37 weeks
33–36 weeks
70
30
50
45 25
40 20
1 2 3 3 4 5 1 2 3 3 4 5
Days Since Birth Days Since Birth
Figure 1.2. Systolic and Diastolic Blood Pressure for Babies of Different Gestational Ages During the First 5 Days After Birth
Adapted with permission from Zubrow AB, Hulman S, Kushner H, Falkner B. Determinants of blood pressure in infants admitted to neonatal
intensive care units: a prospective multicenter study. J Perinatol. 1995;15(6):470–479.
Figure 1.3. Systolic Blood Pressure for Babies of Different Postmenstrual Ages
Adapted with permission from Zubrow AB, Hulman S, Kushner H, Falkner B. Determinants of blood pressure in infants admitted to neonatal
intensive care units: a prospective multicenter study. J Perinatol. 1995;15(6):470–479.
Peak Pressure
Dicrotic Notch
100
Aortic
Pressure 50
(mm Hg) Minimum Pressure
0
Systolic Phase Diastolic Phase
Electrocardiogram
0 0.5 1
Time (seconds)
The shape of the pattern corresponds with events happening within the heart. These
are described as follows:
• Systolic phase: Time during which the heart is ejecting blood
• Peak pressure: The highest point during systole (systolic pressure)
• Dicrotic notch: Point of closure of the aortic valve
• Diastolic phase: Time during which the heart is filling with blood
• Minimum pressure: The lowest point during diastole (diastolic pressure)
• Pulse pressure: The difference between peak and minimum pressures
• Mean pressure: The average pressure of the complete cardiac cycle
The key segments to recognize are the sharp increase during systole, the dicrotic notch,
and the slower decrease in pressure during diastole.
In addition to displaying the blood pressure waveform, nearly all monitors digitally
display continuous readings of systolic, diastolic, or mean arterial pressure (or any
combination of those).
B. Blood pressure waveform: abnormal configuration
1. Damped waveform
The most common cause of an abnormal pressure waveform is a damped tracing
in which the waveform “flattens out.” Usually, the systolic pressure will seem to be
decreased and the diastolic pressure will seem to be increased, causing little change
in the mean arterial pressure. These changes may be subtle or more dramatic, lead-
ing to an almost flat line for a pressure tracing. A damped waveform with subtle
changes can be recognized by the disappearance of the dicrotic notch.
A damped tracing may be caused by
• Air bubbles within the tubing or at the transducer: These air bubbles may be
very tiny. Careful inspection of the full length of the tubing and all connections
is required. If air bubbles are found, they should be flushed from the system while
taking care not to infuse any into the baby. Flush the tubing and transducer by
– Turning the stopcock off to the baby
– Opening the transducer to air
– Flushing the IV fluid through the transducer and out the port that is open to air
• Kink in the tubing: This is a rare occurrence but should be considered whenever a
waveform is damped.
• Hypotension: A baby in shock may also seem to have a damped waveform.
Always be sure to check the blood pressure values by indirect means and assess
the baby’s clinical condition.
• Clot at the tip or within the lumen of the catheter: This is the most common
reason for a damped tracing. If this is the suspected cause of a damped waveform,
aspirate blood from the catheter. Then slowly flush the catheter with 0.5 to 1.0 mL
of flush solution. Reopen the system between the catheter and the transducer. If
the waveform remains damped, and no other cause for a damped tracing can be
found, the catheter needs to be removed.
Reliable normal values of pulse pressure in newborns have not been defined. A pulse
pressure less than 10 mm Hg, however, is generally considered too narrow.
A pulse pressure significantly greater than the value of the diastolic pressure is
generally considered too wide. For example, a systolic pressure of 60 mm Hg and
a diastolic pressure of 20 mm Hg give a pulse pressure of 40 mm Hg, which is
significantly greater than the diastolic pressure.
These waveform findings are only suggestive of the abnormalities listed and must be considered
together with other clinical and diagnostic findings. Consult your regional perinatal center if
you have any questions about a baby’s cardiac status.
Self-test B
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
B1. A damped waveform may be caused by
Yes No
____ ____ Hypotension
____ ____ Air bubbles in the tubing
____ ____ Patent ductus arteriosus
____ ____ Clot at the catheter tip
B2. True False The pulse pressure is the same as the mean pressure.
B3. True False The lowest point of the waveform indicates the diastolic pressure.
B4. List 2 possible causes of a narrowed pulse pressure.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
B5. List 2 possible causes of a widened pulse pressure.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
Check your answers with the list near the end of the unit. Correct any incorrect answers and review
the appropriate section in the unit.
10
Self-test Answers
These are the answers to the Self-test questions. Please check them with the answers you gave and
review the information in the unit wherever necessary.
Self-test A
A1. Indirect blood pressure measurement uses an inflatable cuff wrapped around the baby’s arm
or leg, while direct blood pressure measurement uses a catheter inserted into an artery.
A2. Provides most accurate form of blood pressure measurement
Allows continuous measurement of blood pressure
Produces waveform shape that may aid in the diagnosis of certain clinical conditions
A3. True
A4. False.
Reason: Only non-distensible tubing allows accurate transmission of pressure
between the catheter and transducer without being “lost” in the elasticity of regular
intravenous tubing.
A5. False.
Reason: An intravenous pump that delivers a low volume of fluid continuously,
rather than in pulses, is the preferred type of pump for direct blood pressure
monitoring.
Self-test B
B1. Yes No
X Hypotension
X Air bubbles in the tubing
X Patent ductus arteriosus
X Clot at the catheter tip
B2. False.
Reason: The pulse pressure is the difference between peak (systolic) and minimum
(diastolic) pressures. Mean blood pressure is the average pressure of the complete
cardiac cycle.
B3. True
B4. Any 2 of the following causes:
• Coarctation of the aorta
• Pneumothorax
• Pneumopericardium or hemopericardium
• Aortic stenosis
• Hypoplastic left side of the heart
• Shock (cardiogenic, septic, or hemorrhagic)
• Heart failure
B5. Any 2 of the following causes:
• Patent ductus arteriosus
• Aortopulmonary window
• Arteriovenous fistula
• Truncus arteriosus
• Hyperthyroidism
• Aortic regurgitation
11
Unit 1 Posttest
After completion of each unit there is a free online posttest available at
www.cmevillage.com to test your understanding. Navigate to the PCEP pages
on www.cmevillage.com and register to take the free posttests.
Once registered on the website and after completing all the unit posttests, pay the
book exam fee ($15) and pass the test at 80% or greater to earn continuing education
credits. Only start the PCEP book exam if you have time to complete it. If you take the
book exam and are not connected to a printer, either print your certificate to a .pdf
file and save it to print later or return to www.cmevillage.com at any time and print a
copy of your educational transcript.
Credits are only available by book, not by individual unit within the books. Available
credits for completion of each book exam are as follows: Book 1: 14.5 credits; Book 2:
16 credits; Book 3: 17 credits; Book 4: 9 credits.
For more details, navigate to the PCEP webpages at www.cmevillage.com.
12
SKILL UNIT
13
Extension
with Luer lock
Stopcock
Fluid
infusion
Non-distensible
tubing
Transducer
with stopcock
Non-
distensible
tubing
Arterial setup.
If your kit is not preassembled, connect
the pieces in this sequence by using sterile
technique.
14
ACTIONS REMARKS
Extension
Arterial Non-distensible Transducer Non-distensible Fluid
tubing with Stopcock
catheter tubing with stopcock tubing infusion
Luer lock
Configuration During Infusion: System Open Between Intravenous Fluid and Arterial Catheter
15
ACTIONS REMARKS
Extension
Arterial Non-distensible Transducer Non-distensible Fluid
tubing with Stopcock
catheter tubing with stopcock tubing infusion
Luer lock
16
ACTIONS REMARKS
17
19
Objectives
In this unit you will learn
A. Why exchange, reduction, and direct transfusions are performed
B. What type of donor blood is used
C. The effects of anticoagulants on donor blood
D. How to prepare donor blood
E. How exchange, reduction, and direct transfusions are performed
F. How to monitor the baby for potential complications
20
Unit 2 Pretest
Before reading the unit, please answer the following questions. Select the
one best answer to each question (unless otherwise instructed). Record your
answers on the test and check them with the answers at the end of the book.
1. True False Blood glucose screening test results should be checked immediately
after any exchange transfusion.
2. True False When an umbilical arterial catheter is used in an exchange
transfusion, it is used only to withdraw blood from the baby.
3. True False No baby should undergo more than one exchange transfusion.
4. True False Packed red blood cells (hematocrit level .70%) of appropriate group
and type should be used for an exchange transfusion.
5. A reduction exchange transfusion is different from an exchange transfusion for
hyperbilirubinemia because
A. A larger volume of blood is exchanged.
B. Infectious complications are more likely to occur.
C. Blood is not given.
D. Rebound hypoglycemia is more likely to occur.
6. What is the preferred age of donor blood used for an exchange transfusion?
A. 1 to 10 days.
B. 10 to 15 days.
C. 15 to 20 days.
D. Age of the blood is not an issue.
7. True False A term, 4,000-g (8 lb 13 oz) baby with tachypnea who has been
treated for hypoglycemia and has a venous hematocrit level of 68%
should be considered for a reduction exchange transfusion.
8. True False Phototherapy lights should be used after every exchange transfusion
for babies with hyperbilirubinemia.
9. True False All preterm babies should be transfused with packed red blood cells
if their hematocrit level is less than or equal to 25%.
10. True False Capillary blood from a heel stick sample is the preferred way to test
a baby’s hematocrit level.
11. Which of the following findings is a possible sign of anemia in a stable, growing,
preterm baby?
A. Rapid weight gain
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hyperbilirubinemia
D. Tachypnea
(continued )
21
22
Blood should not be infused through a peripheral arterial catheter. Infusion through
a central arterial catheter is a very high-risk procedure and should be used only as
a last resort.
23
24
alkalosis may develop as citrate is metabolized in the liver to form bicarbonate. The resulting
metabolic alkalosis may persist for several days.
• Hyperkalemia: For an exchange transfusion in babies, use of CPDA-1–preserved donor
blood that does not exceed 10 days of age is recommended. Blood stored for more than
10 days may develop potassium levels that are dangerously high for babies. Laboratory
measurement of blood potassium level should be monitored prior to, during, and after an
exchange transfusion.
25
Box 2.1. Monitoring an Infant Before, During, and After Exchange Transfusion
1. Pre-exchange 2. Mid-exchange 3. Post-exchange
Abbreviations: RBC, red blood cell; TORCH, toxoplasmosis, rubella cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, and HIV.
26
Self-test A
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
A1. What are 4 possible problems with the use of citrate phosphate dextrose adenine–preserved blood?
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A2. The hematocrit level of donor blood used in an exchange transfusion should be _________% to
_________%.
A3. True False Blood is best warmed under a radiant warmer.
A4. Immediately after a double volume exchange transfusion, the baby’s bilirubin level will be _________
to _________ the level it was before the exchange.
A5. Identify whether each of the following methods may be used to withdraw or infuse blood
(or do both).
Withdraw Infuse
Yes No Yes No
Umbilical arterial catheter (unless route of last resort) ____ ____ ____ ____
Peripheral arterial catheter ____ ____ ____ ____
Umbilical venous catheter ____ ____ ____ ____
Peripheral intravenous line ____ ____ ____ ____
Check your answers with the list that follows the Recommended Routines. Correct any incorrect
answers and review the appropriate section in the unit.
27
of emboli due to air bubbles or tiny blood clots is much greater when blood is infused
through an artery rather than a vein.
For either exchange method, withdrawal and infusion should be done slowly and steadily
to avoid sudden shifts in the baby’s blood pressure. Sudden shifts in blood pressure have
been associated with intraventricular bleeding in newborns, particularly in preterm
babies. Withdrawal and infusion rates no faster than 2 to 3 mL/kg/min are recommended.
28
If the blood is allowed to settle during the procedure, the baby will receive mostly
plasma at the end of the exchange transfusion. This may cause the baby to have a low
post-exchange hematocrit level.
D. Record keeping
• At least 2 people are required for a pull-push exchange transfusion. After the UVC is
inserted, the second person is required to keep precise records of the blood exchanged
and the medications given to the baby, if any.
• Three people are generally required for a continuous exchange: one to withdraw the
baby’s blood, one to infuse the donor blood, and one to keep records.
With either method, each small increment of blood withdrawn and given is recorded, as
well as a “running total” of all blood removed from and given to the baby.
Keeping precise, detailed records is extremely important for avoiding unintentionally
overloading the baby with fluid or leaving the baby in a hypovolemic state at the end of
the exchange.
(continued )
29
30
Self-test B
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
B1. True False If an umbilical venous catheter is used to withdraw a baby’s blood for an
exchange transfusion, the donor blood can be infused through an arterial
catheter.
B2. List at least 2 possible cardiac complications of an exchange transfusion.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
B3. After an exchange transfusion for hyperbilirubinemia, a baby’s bilirubin level should be checked every
_______ to _______ hours.
B4. List at least 3 possible metabolic complications of an exchange transfusion.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
Check your answers with the list that follows the Recommended Routines. Correct any incorrect
answers and review the appropriate section in the unit.
31
2. What is polycythemia?
Polycythemia is a condition in which a baby has more RBCs than normal, with a resulting
increase in hematocrit level. When the hematocrit level of blood drawn from a free-flowing
large vessel is higher than approximately 65%, blood flow may become sluggish.
Sluggish blood flow may, in turn, cause poor tissue perfusion. The organs most affected by
sluggish flow may vary from baby to baby, leading to a wide range of possible problems.
Some babies with hematocrit levels between 65% and 70% will not show any of the follow-
ing signs, but almost all babies with hematocrit levels of 70% and above will show one or
more of them:
• Plethora (ruddy appearance) • Seizures
• Congestive heart failure • Poor feeding
• Cyanosis • Hypoglycemia
• Tremors • Respiratory distress
• Lethargy • Hyperbilirubinemia
A. How is polycythemia diagnosed?
Blood drawn from a vein or an artery should be used to measure a baby’s hematocrit
level. A baby’s capillary blood, or blood obtained when a heel stick is done, should not
be used. While capillary blood from a finger stick will provide accurate results in adults,
this is not true for babies.
Blood obtained from heel sticks in babies can give falsely high hematocrit values due
to venous stasis. Alternatively, if the heel is squeezed excessively to collect the blood
sample, interstitial fluid may dilute the sample and give falsely low hematocrit values.
32
3. Babies who are large for gestational age, especially babies of diabetic mothers
The reasons for this are not entirely clear.
4. Babies with certain chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome
C. Which babies with polycythemia need to be treated?
Complications of untreated polycythemia may include thromboembolic events, such
as cerebral artery thrombosis, necrotizing enterocolitis, and acute tubular necrosis.
Long-term motor and mental disabilities have also been associated with untreated
polycythemia.
Currently, there is some controversy over which babies should be treated. In general,
however, most experts agree that the following babies need treatment:
• Babies with venous or arterial hematocrit levels of at least 70%
• Babies with venous or arterial hematocrit levels between 65% and 70% who have
signs or symptoms of polycythemia
33
34
However, clinicians generally exchange a total volume of 20 mL/kg, repeat the hematocrit test
and assess the baby’s condition, and then may perform a second partial exchange if judged to
be necessary. Either the pull-push or the continuous method may be used.
Self-test C
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
C1. True False Untreated polycythemia has been associated with permanent intellectual
disability.
C2. Blood for determining a baby’s hematocrit level should be drawn from an __________________
or a __________________.
C3. List at least 5 possible signs of polycythemia.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
C4. In general, babies with hematocrit levels equal to or greater than _________% need to be treated for
polycythemia.
C5. A 1,980-g (4 lb 6 oz) 38-weeks’ gestational age baby that is small for gestational age is tachypneic
with a hematocrit level of 66%. You rule out other causes for her respiratory distress and determine
she needs a reduction exchange transfusion. How much blood would you exchange if her desired
hematocrit value is 50%?
______________ mL blood withdrawn
______________ mL physiological (normal) saline given
Check your answers with the list that follows the Recommended Routines. Correct any incorrect
answers and review the appropriate section in the unit.
35
36
If the most likely cause of the baby’s problems is anemia, you need to weigh the risks
of transfusion against the risks of problems the baby is demonstrating. When signs of
anemia are significant, and the baby’s hospitalization is being prolonged because of
these problems, a transfusion of packed RBCs may be necessary.
37
Self-test D
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
D1. True False Some babies will require a transfusion of packed red blood cells when their
hematocrit values fall below 40%, while other babies with hematocrit values
of 25% or lower will not require a transfusion.
D2. List 4 reasons transfusions of packed red blood cells are used.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
D3. True False Certain viral infections may occur as a result of a blood transfusion.
D4. Blood should be filtered before it is transfused to prevent the infusion of ________________.
Check your answers with the list that follows the Recommended Routines. Correct any incorrect
answers and review the appropriate section in the unit.
38
Recommended Routines
All the routines listed here are based on the principles of perinatal care presented in the unit
you have just finished. They are recommended as part of routine perinatal care.
Read each routine carefully and decide whether it is standard operating procedure in your
hospital. Check the appropriate blank next to each routine.
39
Self-test Answers
These are the answers to the Self-test questions. Please check them with the answers you gave and
review the information in the unit wherever necessary.
Self-test A
A1. Hypocalcemia
Hypoglycemia
Acidosis/alkalosis
Hyperkalemia
A2. The hematocrit level of donor blood used in an exchange transfusion should be
45% to 55%.
A3. False. Reason: Blood should be warmed only with a commercial blood warmer that has
the appropriate temperature control and alarm features.
A4. Immediately after a double volume exchange transfusion, the baby’s bilirubin level will be
one-third to one-half the level it was before the exchange.
A5. Withdraw Infuse
Yes No Yes No
Umbilical arterial catheter X X*
Peripheral arterial catheter X X
Umbilical venous catheter X X
Peripheral intravenous line X X
Self-test B
B1. False. Reason: Blood may be withdrawn from an artery but should not be infused into a
peripheral artery or through an umbilical arterial catheter (unless an umbilical arte-
rial catheter is the route of last resort). The risk of tissue damage from unintentional
infusion of air bubbles or tiny clots is much greater with an infusion through an ar-
tery rather than a vein.
B2. Any 2 of the following complications:
• Arrhythmia
• Volume overload or depletion
• Cardiorespiratory arrest
B3. After an exchange transfusion for hyperbilirubinemia, a baby’s bilirubin level should be
checked every 4 to 6 hours.
B4. Any 3 of the following complications:
• Hypocalcemia
• Hypoglycemia
• Hyperkalemia
• Rebound hyperbilirubinemia
• Acidosis or alkalosis
40
Self-test C
C1. True
C2. Blood for determining a baby’s hematocrit level should be drawn from an artery or a vein
(not heel stick).
C3. Any 5 of the following signs:
• Plethora
• Cyanosis
• Lethargy
• Poor feeding
• Respiratory distress
• Congestive heart failure
• Tremors
• Seizures
• Hypoglycemia
• Hyperbilirubinemia
C4. In general, babies with hematocrit levels equal to or greater than 70% need to be treated
for polycythemia.
C5. 44
44
Self-test D
D1. True
D2. Replace blood withdrawn for laboratory tests.
Treat hypovolemic babies.
Treat stable babies who have symptomatic anemia.
Maintain hematocrit levels of approximately 40% in sick babies.
D3. True, although risk is extremely small.
D4. Blood should be filtered before it is transfused to prevent the infusion of tiny blood clots.
41
Unit 2 Posttest
After completion of each unit there is a free online posttest available at
www.cmevillage.com to test your understanding. Navigate to the PCEP pages on
www.cmevillage.com and register to take the free posttests.
Once registered on the website and after completing all the unit posttests, pay the
book exam fee ($15) and pass the test at 80% or greater to earn continuing education
credits. Only start the PCEP book exam if you have time to complete it. If you take the
book exam and are not connected to a printer, either print your certificate to a .pdf file
and save it to print later or come back to www.cmevillage.com at any time and print a
copy of your educational transcript.
Credits are only available by book, not by individual unit within the books. Available
credits for completion of each book exam are as follows: Book 1: 14.5 credits;
Book 2: 16 credits; Book 3: 17 credits; Book 4: 9 credits.
For more details, navigate to the PCEP webpages at www.cmevillage.com.
42
SKILL UNIT
Exchange Transfusions
This skill unit will teach you how an exchange transfusion is performed. Not everyone will be
required to learn how to conduct an exchange transfusion; however, all staff members should
read this unit and attend a skill session to learn the equipment and sequence of steps so they
can assist with the preparation for an exchange transfusion.
Although the following steps are the same as the ones used in clinical practice to perform an
exchange transfusion, mannequins and models should be used for demonstration and practice
of this skill.
The staff members who will be asked to master all aspects of this skill will need to demon-
strate each of the following steps correctly:
1. Prepare the “baby” (mannequin) for the exchange transfusion.
43
ACTIONS REMARKS
44
ACTIONS REMARKS
45
ACTIONS REMARKS
46
ACTIONS REMARKS
47
ACTIONS REMARKS
48
ACTIONS REMARKS
Pull-Push Method
Donor blood
Blood filter
Blood warmer
Baby with
umbilical
Syringe 4-way stopcock
venous
catheter
Continuous Method
Infusion System Removal System
Blood filter
Collection
3-way bag for
stopcock #1 baby’s
blood
Blood warmer
Syringe with
50-mL 3-way 3-way
heparinized
syringe stopcock stopcock #2
saline
49
ACTIONS REMARKS
50
ACTIONS REMARKS
51
ACTIONS REMARKS
52
ACTIONS REMARKS
53
_______________________________________
_______________________________________
54
55
57
Objectives
In this unit you will learn
A. How continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) works
B. When CPAP should and should not be used
C. How CPAP is administered
D. When and how a baby is weaned from CPAP
58
Unit 3 Pretest
Before reading the unit, please answer the following questions. Select the one best
answer to each question (unless otherwise instructed). Record your answers on
the test and check them with the answers at the end of the book.
1. Which of the following is an appropriate way to provide nutrition to babies who need
continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) for acute respiratory disease who have
achieved cardiovascular stability?
A. Intravenous fluids
B. Tube feedings
C. Nipple feedings with a special nipple
D. None of the above
2. For which of the following babies would CPAP be most appropriate?
A. Post-term baby with choanal atresia
B. Preterm baby who is cyanotic because of congenital heart disease
C. Term baby with a pneumothorax
D. Preterm baby with respiratory distress syndrome
3. True False All babies with respiratory disease should receive CPAP.
4. True False High-flow nasal cannula can be used to deliver a consistent level
of CPAP.
5. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of CPAP?
A. Control the baby’s respiratory rate.
B. Decrease the baby’s metabolic rate.
C. Increase the baby’s arterial oxygen concentration.
D. Decrease the baby’s chance of developing a pneumothorax.
6. Which of the following indicates the general range of pressure used with nasal
CPAP when used in the treatment of respiratory distress syndrome?
A. 2 to 4 cm H2O pressure
B. 4 to 8 cm H2O pressure
C. 10 to 14 cm H2O pressure
D. 14 to 18 cm H2O pressure
7. A baby with respiratory distress syndrome is receiving nasal CPAP at 8 cm H2O
pressure and an inspired oxygen concentration (Fio2) of 60%. Arterial blood
gas results at these settings reveal that Pao2 5 94, Paco2 5 45 mm Hg, and
pH level 5 7.32. Which of the following next steps is the most appropriate one
to take to adjust the baby’s CPAP and oxygen therapy?
A. Decrease the Fio2 to 40% to 50%, and decrease the nasal CPAP to 6 cm
H2O pressure.
B. Decrease the Fio2 to 50%, and maintain the nasal CPAP at 8 cm H2O pressure.
C. Maintain the Fio2 of 60%, and discontinue the nasal CPAP.
D. Maintain the Fio2 of 60%, and increase the nasal CPAP to 10 cm H2O pressure.
59
CPAP is not useful, and may even be harmful, for babies with normal lung
compliance.
In general, CPAP should not be used for babies with respiratory distress caused by factors
such as birth asphyxia, most types of cyanotic congenital heart disease, or pneumothorax.
A few babies with respiratory distress caused by factors other than RDS and some small
preterm babies with apnea may also benefit from CPAP. Management of babies with these
special conditions is not discussed in this unit.
60
61
into the stomach. The open feeding tube provides a vent so that the stomach does not
become distended with gas.
E. Oxygen concentration
CPAP is a delivery system for oxygen/air and pressure. The concentration of oxygen
delivered through that system must still be regulated according to oxygen saturation
or arterial blood gas values (or both). In general, a baby should be started on CPAP
with the same inspired oxygen concentration (Fio2) that was previously being delivered
to the baby.
If a baby receiving nasal CPAP is crying vigorously, room air (21% oxygen) may be
inhaled through the mouth. Be sure the baby has been quiet for several minutes before
assessing the response to CPAP. The state of oxygenation is assessed with either pulse
oximetry or arterial blood gas determination (or both). Assessment of ventilation
requires arterial or capillary blood gas analysis. If the baby’s pulse oximeter fluctuates
considerably as a result of crying and breathing through the mouth, an oxygen hood
plus nasal CPAP may be helpful in maintaining constant oxygenation.
F. Feedings
In general, babies receiving CPAP for acute respiratory distress who are not yet stable
should not be fed human (breast) milk or formula, by either tube or nipple. Gastrointes-
tinal motility is decreased in sick babies with respiratory disease. This means that a feed-
ing is likely to stay in the stomach longer. However, many neonates with moderately se-
vere RDS tolerate trophic and low-volume feedings. Prolonged NPO periods (“nil per
os” or “nothing by mouth”) are not recommended.
Because of this, a baby is much more likely to regurgitate some of the milk (or formula)
or gastric juices (or both) and aspirate this fluid. Severe aspiration pneumonia could
result. It is, of course, extremely important to maintain intravenous therapy for any
baby receiving CPAP who is not receiving enteral nutrition.
Tube feedings may be used for babies who have recovered from severe respiratory dis-
tress but still require CPAP at relatively low pressure. Tube feedings may also be consid-
ered in newborns with mild respiratory distress who appear comfortable on CPAP.
62
With continued improvement in the baby’s condition, lowering the CPAP can continue slowly,
usually in increments of 1 cm H2O. Oxygenation should be assessed constantly with pulse
oximetry, and ventilation should be assessed intermittently with arterial blood gas measure-
ments. Discontinue CPAP when the baby is comfortable on 4 cm H2O pressure with an
oxygen requirement of 25% to 30% (or less), normal arterial blood gas measurements, and
normal work of breathing.
Continue the baby’s oxygen therapy by using an oxygen hood or a low-flow nasal cannula. Be
prepared to increase the Fio2 slightly for a brief period after CPAP is stopped. Adjust the Fio2
according to oximetry or arterial blood oxygen concentrations (or both).
Preterm babies born at less than 30 weeks’ gestation may benefit from remaining on
4 to 5 cm H2O CPAP, even at low concentrations of oxygen, to prevent atelectasis in the first
few weeks after birth. Maintaining the use of CPAP until the baby is on 21% oxygen with no
distress and weaning directly to room air is another acceptable strategy.
63
Unit 3 Posttest
After completion of each unit there is a free online posttest available at www.
cmevillage.com to test your understanding. Navigate to the PCEP pages on
www.cmevillage.com and register to take the free posttests.
Once registered on the website and after completing all the unit posttests, pay the
book exam fee ($15) and pass the test at 80% or greater to earn continuing education
credits. Only start the PCEP book exam if you have time to complete it. If you take the
book exam and are not connected to a printer, either print your certificate to a .pdf file
and save it to print later or come back to www.cmevillage.com at any time and print a
copy of your educational transcript.
Credits are only available by book, not by individual unit within the books. Available
credits for completion of each book exam are as follows: Book 1: 14.5 credits;
Book 2: 16 credits; Book 3: 17 credits; Book 4: 9 credits.
For more details, navigate to the PCEP webpages at www.cmevillage.com.
64
SKILL UNIT
65
66
ACTIONS REMARKS
67
ACTIONS REMARKS
68
ACTIONS REMARKS
Peak-INSP.
• Generally, pressures of 4 to 6 cm H2O CPAP IMV
10
20
69
ACTIONS REMARKS
70
71
Objectives
In this unit you will learn
A. The principles of mechanical ventilation
B. Which babies may require mechanical ventilation
C. What criteria are used for starting mechanical ventilation
D. How to set up a ventilator for babies with various types of respiratory problems
E. How to adjust ventilator settings
This unit is intended to teach only indications for, and initiation of, mechanical
ventilation, such as what might be needed for a sick baby prior to neonatal transport.
It will not address long-term management of ventilated babies or weaning of babies
from ventilators. Babies requiring mechanical ventilation for any length of time
should be treated in intensive care nurseries, where different philosophies about
ventilator management may be practiced.
72
Unit 4 Pretest
Before reading the unit, please answer the following questions. Select the one best
answer to each question (unless otherwise instructed). Record your answers on
the test and check them with the answers at the end of the book.
1. Which of the following measurements cannot be adjusted independently on most
infant ventilators?
A. Peak airway pressure
B. End-expiratory pressure
C. Inspiratory time
D. Inspired oxygen concentration
E. Expiratory resistance
2. Which of the following measurements is least reliable for determining the need for
mechanical ventilation?
A. Capillary Pco2
B. Capillary Po2
C. Arterial pH level
D. Arterial Pco2
E. Arterial Po2
3. Which of the following statements is correct when determining ventilator settings
for a baby with respiratory distress syndrome when compared to a baby with normal
lung findings?
A. End-expiratory pressure should be higher.
B. Inspiratory time should be shorter.
C. Expiratory time should be longer.
D. Peak inspiratory pressure should be lower.
4. In which of the following cases is mechanical ventilation most indicated?
A. A 3,500-g (7 lb 11 oz) baby with congenital pneumonia who is breathing 50%
oxygen and has a Pao2 of 60, Paco2 of 48, and pH level of 7.28
B. A 1,500-g (3 lb 5 oz) baby with respiratory distress syndrome who is breathing
80% oxygen and has a Pao2 of 45, Paco2 of 65, and pH level of 7.28
C. A 1,000-g (2 lb 3 oz) baby with no lung disease who has an apneic spell that
responds to tactile stimulation
D. A 3,000-g (6 lb 10 oz) baby who had severe perinatal compromise and has
a Pao2 of 70, Paco2 of 25, and pH level of 7.20 while breathing 21% oxygen
5. Which of the following statements is correct when determining ventilator settings
for a term baby with meconium aspiration when compared to a preterm baby with
respiratory distress syndrome?
A. Inspiratory time should be longer.
B. Expiratory time should be shorter.
C. End-expiratory pressure should be higher.
D. Ventilatory rate should be faster.
(continued )
73
74
Peak pressure
Pressure
Tidal volume
Figure 4.1. Tracing of Pressure, Flow, and Volume During a Mechanical Breath
75
76
Other experts believe that mechanical ventilation can be avoided by the early use of
nasal CPAP to establish functional residual capacity (volume of air left in the lungs
at the end of passive exhalation). Several studies have demonstrated that early use of
CPAP does not increase adverse outcomes when compared to elective intubation in the
delivery room.
D. Surfactant therapy
Intubation is typically required for surfactant administration. (See Unit 5, Surfactant
Therapy, in this book.) Many of these babies will require mechanical ventilation for a
time after surfactant is administered.
E. Absence of breathing (apnea)
If a baby has apneic spells that require repeated stimulation or bag-and-mask assistance,
mechanical ventilation may be required.
77
Self-test A
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
A1. Most infant ventilators work by
A. Delivering a preset volume into the lungs
B. Delivering a preset pressure for a preset time
A2. List 3 examples of babies who may require mechanical ventilation because of poor respiratory
muscle function.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A3. Respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation is indicated by
High ___________________________________________________________________________________
Low ___________________________________________________________________________________
Low ___________________________________________________________________________________
A4. Infant ventilator tubing circuits should have the following characteristics:
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A5. True False Respiratory failure refers only to babies who stop breathing completely.
A6. List 2 indications for mechanical ventilation other than respiratory failure or severe apnea.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
Check your answers with the list near the end of this unit. Correct any incorrect answers and review
the appropriate section in the unit.
78
• Expiratory time (TE): This is the time during which the baby passively exhales. If TE is too
short, expiration will be insufficient, and gas will be trapped in the lungs, possibly causing
lung damage and a pneumothorax. With most ventilators, TE cannot be set independently
but is determined by TI and the ventilatory rate. Expiratory time is calculated with the
following formula:
TE 5 (60/rate) 2 TI
For example, a ventilator for a baby with RDS is set for a TI of 0.3 seconds and ventilatory
rate of 45.
TE 5 (60/45) 2 0.3
TE 5 11∕3 2 0.3
TE 5 1.0 second
• Ventilatory rate: The ventilatory rate or breaths per minute is determined by the lengths of
TE and TI. Most ventilators have a separate knob that allows adjustment of the ventilatory
rate. This knob works by changing the length of TE. Thus, you set only the TI and ventilatory
rate. If the ventilatory rate is too low or very high, gas movement will be inadequate. If the
ventilatory rate is slightly high, gas movement will be excessive, and Paco2 will be too low.
• Inspired oxygen concentration (Fio2): This should be adjusted from 21% to 100%, as
determined by oxygen saturation or arterial blood gas values (or both), which is outlined
in Book 3: Neonatal Care, Unit 1, Oxygen.
• Flow rate: This is the speed at which the ventilator delivers a breath. If flow rate is too low, it
may not be possible for the ventilator to reach the desired PIP; if too high, the lungs may be
damaged. For most babies, regardless of illness, approximately 8 L/min will be adequate. If
very high PIP or very fast ventilatory rates are required, a higher flow rate may be necessary.
Many of the newer ventilators do not have a separate setting for flow rate, because the flow
rate adjusts electronically depending on the ventilation pattern selected.
• Mean airway pressure (MAP): MAP is the average pressure in the airway throughout the
respiratory cycle. It is a function of PIP, PEEP, TI, ventilatory rate, and flow rate settings. It is
not independently adjustable on most ventilators but will change when any one of the other
settings is increased or decreased. The MAP value is displayed on most infant ventilators.
Along with Fio2, MAP is important in determining a baby’s oxygenation level. In addition to
Fio2, adjustments in MAP may also be used to achieve an acceptable Pao2 level.
79
may be set to match the most effective bag ventilation; therefore, note the maximum pressure
and rate at which you are bag breathing for the baby or match the settings being used with
the T-piece resuscitator.
It is also important that you consider the disease process when deciding on initial settings.
Table 4.1 illustrates the relative settings for various conditions, and suggested initial settings
are shown in Table 4.2.
80
Some babies will have a combination of problems and will require settings between 2 catego-
ries. For example, an extremely low-birth-weight baby (,1,000 g [,2 lb 3 oz]) may have only
mild RDS but may require mechanical ventilation because of very weak respiratory muscles.
Although the baby has RDS, much lower peak pressure and PEEP will probably be required
than if the baby were bigger or had more severe lung disease (or both). Many experts are
advising short TI and rapid ventilatory rates while using lower PIP to potentially decrease
barotrauma to the lungs of extremely low-birth-weight babies.
81
Any ventilator change you make to correct one variable (eg, Pao2) is likely to affect another
variable (eg, Paco2). Use continuous pulse oximetry and perform an arterial blood gas analy-
sis approximately 20 to 30 minutes after making any significant change to a ventilator setting
(Table 4.4). It is generally recommended that you make only one ventilator change at a time.
Making more than one change simultaneously is likely to confuse what it was that caused the
response in the baby’s ventilation.
If the baby’s condition changes, assess the baby and the functioning of
the ventilator.
82
83
Note: If a ventilator adjustment is being made in response to an unacceptable Paco2 level, but
the baby has a normal Pao2 level, keep the MAP constant by adjusting one of the other
settings that also affects MAP. (See section 5.) If the Pao2 level is too low or too high,
adjust the Fio2 first and then consider adjusting the MAP, usually by adjusting the PEEP
or PIP.
84
Possible complications
• Air leaks: If the baby’s condition suddenly deteriorates, pneumothorax should be suspected
immediately. A thoracentesis or the insertion of a chest tube may be lifesaving. Air leaks into
the lung tissue, pericardium, or mediastinum can also occur and are detectable on a chest
radiograph. Refer to Book 3: Neonatal Care, Unit 2, Respiratory Distress, for the procedure
of needle thoracentesis and/or placing a chest tube.
• Blocked or displaced endotracheal tube: If the ETT becomes dislodged from the trachea
or blocked with mucus, the ventilator will continue to cycle, but the baby’s vital signs will
deteriorate. Suction the ETT and attempt to ventilate the baby with a resuscitation bag
connected to the ETT. Check breath sounds and chest movements. Check the return of CO2
with a colorimetric CO2 detector. Check the depth of insertion of the ETT by using the
numerical markings on the side of the tube (see Book 1: Maternal and Fetal Evaluation and
Immediate Newborn Care, Unit 5, Resuscitating the Newborn, for ETT placement). It may
have inadvertently moved out of appropriate position. If there is no improvement in the
baby’s condition, remove the ETT and assist the baby’s ventilation with bag and mask or
T-piece resuscitator until a new ETT can be inserted.
• Endotracheal tube slips in too far: If the tube slips in too far, it may enter the airway of one
lung and block air entry to the other lung. In this case, breath sounds will be unequal when
you listen with a stethoscope over the right and left lateral chest. In addition, one side of the
chest may rise more than the other. Check the depth of insertion of the ETT. If the tube is in
too deep, pull the tube back slightly as you use a stethoscope to listen for improved breath
sounds.
• Disconnected or malfunctioning ventilator: Most ventilators are equipped with alarms that
will sound if the tubing becomes disconnected. Even without an alarm, a tubing or power
disconnection can be detected because the airway pressure gauge will not rise normally with
each breath.
10. W
hat else should you do for a baby receiving mechanical
ventilation?
All babies receiving mechanical ventilation should have continuous electronic cardiac and
pulse oximetry monitoring and experienced staff in constant attendance. Complete resuscita-
tion equipment should be kept at the bedside.
Remember that continued monitoring for other risk factors (eg, hypoglycemia, hypothermia)
is essential to the baby’s total care. These more routine activities should not get lost because a
baby is receiving sophisticated respiratory support.
85
Self-test B
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
B1. List 5 controls that require adjustment on most infant ventilators.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
B2. Circle the appropriate ventilator setting for each of the 3 lung conditions.
Alveolar Disease Airway Disease Normal Lung
Findings
Peak inspiratory pressure High/Low High/Low High/Low
Positive end-expiratory pressure High/Low High/Low High/Low
Inspiratory time Long/Short Long/Short Long/Short
Expiratory time Long/Short Long/Short Long/Short
Ventilatory rate Slow/Fast Slow/Fast Slow/Fast
B3. List 3 observations or findings to consider before adjusting a ventilator.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
B4. List 4 common complications of mechanical ventilation.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
Check your answers with the list on the next page. Correct any incorrect answers and review the
appropriate section in the unit.
86
Self-test Answers
These are the answers to the Self-test questions. Please check them with the answers you gave and
review the information in the unit wherever necessary.
Self-test A
A1. B. Delivering a preset pressure for a preset time
A2. Any 3 of the following examples:
• Severe generalized illness
• Birth injury causing diaphragmatic paralysis
• Hypoventilation from sepsis, brain hemorrhage, or some other central nervous
system insult
• Extreme prematurity
A3. Paco2
Pao2
pH level
A4. Contain a small volume of gas (tubing diameter #2 cm).
Be nondistensible.
A5. False. Reason: Babies who have inadequate ventilation despite spontaneous respirations
are also in respiratory failure.
A6. Extreme prematurity (birth weight less than approximately 1,000 g [2 lb 3 oz])
Surfactant therapy
Self-test B
B1. Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP)
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
Inspiratory time (TI)
Ventilatory rate
Oxygen concentration
B2. Alveolar Disease Airway Disease Normal Lung Findings
Peak inspiratory pressure High High Low
Positive end-expiratory pressure High Low Low
Inspiratory time Long Short Short
Expiratory time Short Long Long
Ventilatory rate Slow Fast Slow
B3. Any 3 of the following observations:
• Chest movement
• Skin color
• Breath sounds that are equal or unequal
• Arterial blood gases
• Percentage of oxygen saturation
B4. Air leaks, such as a pneumothorax
Blocked or displaced endotracheal tube
Endotracheal tube that slips in too far
Disconnected or malfunctioning ventilator
87
Unit 4 Posttest
After completion of each unit there is a free online posttest available at
www.cmevillage.com to test your understanding. Navigate to the PCEP pages
on www.cmevillage.com and register to take the free posttests.
Once registered on the website and after completing all the unit posttests, pay the
book exam fee ($15) and pass the test at 80% or greater to earn continuing education
credits. Only start the PCEP book exam if you have time to complete it. If you take the
book exam and are not connected to a printer, either print your certificate to a .pdf file
and save it to print later or come back to www.cmevillage.com at any time and print a
copy of your educational transcript.
Credits are only available by book, not by individual unit within the books. Available
credits for completion of each book exam are as follows: Book 1: 14.5 credits;
Book 2: 16 credits; Book 3: 17 credits; Book 4: 9 credits.
For more details, navigate to the PCEP webpages at www.cmevillage.com.
88
SKILL UNIT
Endotracheal Tubes
This skill unit will teach you how to secure an endotracheal tube and how to suction it. Both
of the skills described in this unit are to be performed by teams of 2 people.
Not everyone will be required to learn and practice these skills; however, all staff members
should read this unit and attend a skill session to learn the equipment and sequence of steps
so they can assist with these skills. A video of endotracheal tube insertion may be viewed at
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lGTaA_UdIXw.
The staff members who will be asked to master all aspects of this skill will need to demon-
strate correctly each of the following steps:
Securing an Endotracheal Tube
Tape Method (used for relatively short duration intubations)
Commercial Stabilizer Method (for intubations of longer duration) (Use the brand stocked in
your hospital.)
1. Select the appropriately sized stabilizer for the tube.
2. Hold the endotracheal tube at the proper level.
3. Secure the stabilizer to the baby’s (mannequin’s) face.
4. Properly secure the tube into the stabilizer and lock it in place.
5. Listen to the baby (mannequin) to recheck correct tube placement.
89
Two different methods for long-term stabilization of an endotracheal tube are described. The
first method uses materials generally available in most hospitals. The second method requires
the purchase of a commercial stabilizer.
ACTIONS REMARKS
90
ACTIONS REMARKS
91
ACTIONS REMARKS
From https://www.coopersurgical.com/medical-devices/detail/neo-fit-neonatal-endotracheal-tube-grip
2. Collect the necessary equipment and Holders are manufactured to fit tubes of
supplies. various sizes but are not made for use with
• Plastic tube grip with adjustable hook 2.0-mm or smaller ETTs.
and loop strap
• Foam foot pads
• Foam “lollipop” securing tapes
3. If the tube was previously taped, remove Note the markings on the tube at the level of
the tape and ask an assistant to hold the the baby’s lip. Be sure the tube is held at this
tube in place. position.
4. Trial-fit the NEO-fit on the patient The ETT should be located near the center
prior to removing the adhesive liner. of the baby’s mouth.
Pectin-based skin prep may minimize
skin damage.
5. Remove the adhesive liners from the
bottom of the adhesive pads.
6. Affix the adhesive pads to the patient
adjacent to the ETT above the upper lip.
92
ACTIONS REMARKS
From https://www.neotechproducts.com/product/neobar/.
1. Collect the necessary equipment and The following instructions are a summary of
supplies. the instructions supplied by the manufacturer.
• ETT holder of the correct size to match Be sure to read the manufacturer’s full
the ETT being used instructions before use.
• Measuring tape that comes with the
NeoBar
2. Use the NeoBar tape to measure from the • Use the measuring tape that comes with
midline at the nasal septum to the opening the NeoBar to determine which size bar
of the ear canal. to use.
• The corresponding color on the tape that
falls over the opening of the ear canal cor-
responds to the NeoBar size for the baby. If
the size borders 2 colors, use the larger size.
93
ACTIONS REMARKS
94
ACTIONS REMARKS
95
ACTIONS REMARKS
9. Quickly insert the suction catheter only to Stimulation from the catheter tip will proba-
the measured distance. Begin suctioning by bly cause the baby to cough. Avoid excessive
occluding the thumbhole on the catheter stimulation.
and continue suctioning as the catheter is If the baby’s heart rate falls significantly, the
withdrawn. baby turns blue, or the oxygenation level
drops dramatically, stop the procedure
and assist the baby’s ventilation with a
resuscitation bag and appropriate oxygen.
10. Do not insert the catheter too far. The trachea can be damaged or even perfo-
rated by suctioning that is too vigorous.
11. The assistant should connect the resusci- Suctioning may cause some collapse of lung
tation bag and deliver several breaths at segments, which need to be reinflated after
slightly higher pressures than the baby the procedure.
was receiving prior to suctioning.
12. If significant amounts of material If the suctioned material is thick, consider
(eg, mucus, meconium) are retrieved by instilling 1/2 mL of sterile physiological
suctioning, repeat steps 8 through 11 (normal) saline down the ETT.
once the baby’s oxygenation level
is stable again.
13. Gently suction the baby’s mouth to clear To avoid contamination of the baby’s airway,
it of any saliva or mucus. always suction the mouth after the trachea
has been suctioned.
96
ACTIONS REMARKS
97
99
Objectives
In this unit you will learn
A. The nature of surfactant deficiency
B. How surfactant deficiency is treated
C. Which babies are likely to benefit from surfactant therapy
D. The recognized complications of administering surfactant
E. The general considerations for administration of commercial preparations of surfactant
100
Unit 5 Pretest
Before reading the unit, please answer the following questions. Select the one best
answer to each question (unless otherwise instructed). Record your answers on
the test and check them with the answers at the end of the book.
1. Which of the following statements about natural surfactant is accurate?
A. Contains phospholipids and proteins
B. Raises surface tension in the alveoli
C. Prevents alveolar collapse during inspiration
D. Is manufactured in the liver
2. Which of the following statements best describes the action of natural surfactant
when it is injected through an endotracheal tube?
A. Spreads very slowly to the lower airways
B. Is mostly absorbed into the pulmonary circulation and degraded by the liver
C. Will have a direct effect on alveolar stability
D. Is most commonly administered as a powder
3. Which of the following statements about surfactant deficiency is accurate?
A. It is the cause of respiratory distress syndrome.
B. Incidence increases with increasing gestational age.
C. It can be treated with intravenous surfactant.
D. It is only seen in preterm babies.
4. Which of the following babies is at lowest risk for developing respiratory distress
syndrome?
A. Baby was born at 29 weeks’ gestation.
B. Mother has diabetes mellitus.
C. Baby is infected with group B b-hemolytic streptococcus.
D. Mother is infected with HIV.
5. Preterm babies who have been stressed in utero have a__________ incidence of
respiratory distress syndrome.
A. Higher
B. Lower
6. Which of the following methods of surfactant administration is appropriate?
A. Bolus instillation into the trachea
B. Intravenous drip
C. Intratracheal drip
D. All of the above
7. True False All commercial surfactants contain the same components.
8. True False Betamethasone or dexamethasone administered to a pregnant
woman, plus surfactant administered to the preterm baby, is more
beneficial than surfactant administered alone.
9. True False By 32 weeks’ gestation, approximately 60% of fetuses are producing
adequate surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
10. True False All surfactant components are produced by the lung at the same time
during gestation.
11. True False Studies have shown that the earlier surfactant is used, the more
effective it is.
101
1. What is surfactant?
Surfactant is a complex of substances (phospholipids and proteins) that are essential to normal
lung function. The substances are produced by special cells in the lining of the alveoli and
are then secreted onto the surface of the alveoli. The surfactant components work together to
alter the surface tension at the air-liquid interface, so that the alveoli will remain open and not
collapse completely during exhalation (Figure 5.1).
Normal Collapsed
alveoli alveoli
102
Alveolar
Saccular
Canalicular
Birth
Pseudoglandular
Embryonic Surfactant
2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 30 32 34 36 38
Weeks
Gener- 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
ations
Bronchi Bronchioles Terminal Respiratory Alveolar ducts Alveolar
bronchioles bronchioles sac
103
104
Self-test A
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
A1. The naturally occurring surfactant complex is composed of 2 groups of substances:
________________ and ________________.
A2. Surfactant works by __________________ surface tension in the alveoli and preventing alveoli from
collapsing during __________________.
A3. True False All components of the surfactant complex appear for the first time at
32 weeks’ gestation.
A4. True False A preterm fetus that has been subjected to chronic stress will have a greater
chance of developing respiratory distress syndrome.
A5. List 4 factors known to increase the likelihood of a baby developing respiratory problems from
surfactant deficiency.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A6. True False When commercially available surfactant is given through an endotracheal
tube, it will eventually be absorbed by the lungs and re-secreted as natural
surfactant.
A7. True False Preterm babies born to women who received betamethasone or dexametha-
sone are more likely to require surfactant therapy than preterm babies born to
women who did not receive steroids.
A8. True False All commercially available surfactants contain the main components of
naturally occurring surfactant, but in different proportions.
Check your answers with the list near the end of the unit. Correct any incorrect answers and review
the appropriate section in the unit.
105
Correct endotracheal tube position is very important to ensure that the surfactant
is administered into the trachea, not into one mainstem bronchus and thus into
only one lung.
There is increasing evidence to support the use of “less invasive surfactant administration” tech-
niques in neonates with RDS. After surfactant administration, the compliance (stiffness) of the
lung is likely to change rapidly. As compliance improves (the lungs become less stiff), you should
make corresponding changes in ventilator or bag-and-mask ventilation pressures. Usually, a rapid
decrease in peak inspiratory pressure is needed first, but other changes may also be needed.
Monitor oxygen saturation continuously, check arterial blood gases frequently, and adjust the
baby’s inspired oxygen concentration and inspiratory pressure according to oxygen saturation
and Pao2 results. Low Paco2 is also an important indication to decrease peak inspiratory
pressure and rate.
106
107
The administration of surfactant after respiratory disease has developed is termed “res-
cue therapy.” Many clinicians elect to administer surfactant prophylactically to babies
born extremely preterm and to use a rescue approach for more mature babies who
develop respiratory distress after birth. Some experts advise a modified approach in
which surfactant is not given prophylactically but rather is given if a preterm baby
develops the slightest signs of RDS. These modifications have not been rigorously tested,
and their use must be guided by clinician preference. The presence and timing of mater-
nal antenatal steroid administration may also influence the decision.
Several reports have demonstrated that babies—including term babies with meconium
aspiration syndrome, pneumonia, and perhaps acute RDS—also benefit from surfactant
rescue therapy. There is currently insufficient information to recommend specific criteria
for treating such babies. However, some studies have shown that administration of
surfactant to patients with respiratory failure due to meconium aspiration syndrome
may reduce the need for extracorporeal membrane oxygenation in this population.
(See Cochrane Database Syst Rev. 2014;14[12]:CD002054.)
108
109
Self-test B
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
B1. Which of the following techniques have been shown to be important for administering all
commercially available surfactant products?
Yes No
____ ____ Administration through a special endotracheal tube connector, which has a
side port
____ ____ Careful positioning of the endotracheal tube tip in the mid-trachea
____ ____ Turning the baby 360°
____ ____ Monitoring oxygen saturation during administration
____ ____ Anticipating changes in lung compliance and adjusting ventilation pressures
accordingly
B2. True False Studies have shown that surfactant administered immediately after birth is more
effective than waiting until a baby develops clinically significant respiratory disease.
B3. Many clinicians recommend that a baby who continues to have clinically significant respiratory
distress after initial surfactant administration be re-treated in ______ to ______ hours.
B4. List 4 possible complications of surfactant therapy.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
Check your answers with the list near the end of the unit. Correct any incorrect answers and review
the appropriate section in the unit.
110
Self-test Answers
These are the answers to the Self-test questions. Please check them with the answers you gave and
review the information in the unit wherever necessary.
Self-test A
A1. The naturally occurring surfactant complex is composed of 2 groups of substances:
phospholipids and proteins.
A2. Surfactant works by altering surface tension in the alveoli and preventing alveoli from
collapsing during exhalation.
A3. False. Reason: The various components of surfactant are first produced at different times
during gestation. By 32 weeks of gestation, 60% of fetuses have adequate surfactant
for normal extrauterine respiration.
A4. False. Reason: Fetuses subjected to chronic stress are less likely to develop respiratory
distress syndrome.
A5. Preterm birth
Maternal diabetes mellitus
Pneumonia
Aspiration syndrome
A6. True
A7. False. Reason: Antenatal steroids and neonatal surfactant have an additive effect on
preventing respiratory distress syndrome.
A8. True. Beractant (Survanta), calfactant (Infasurf), and poractant (Curosurf) contain all the
natural phospholipids, but only 2 of the 3 proteins; synthetic surfactants contain
synthetic phospholipids, and no surfactant-specific protein, and currently none are
available commercially.
Self-test B
B1. Yes No
____ X Administration through a special endotracheal tube connector, which has
a side port
X ____ Careful positioning of the endotracheal tube tip in the mid-trachea
____ X Turning the baby 360°
X ____ Monitoring oxygen saturation during administration
X ____ Anticipating changes in lung compliance and adjusting ventilation pressures
accordingly
B2. True
B3. Many clinicians recommend that a baby who continues to have clinically significant
respiratory distress after initial surfactant administration be re-treated in 6 to 8 hours.
B4. Any 4 of the following complications:
• Administration to one lung
• Development of air leaks (eg, pneumothorax)
• Endotracheal tube that becomes slippery
• Endotracheal tube that becomes blocked with surfactant
• Severe oxygen desaturation that occurs during surfactant administration
111
Unit 5 Posttest
After completion of each unit there is a free online posttest available at
www.cmevillage.com to test your understanding. Navigate to the PCEP pages
on www.cmevillage.com and register to take the free posttests.
Once registered on the website and after completing all the unit posttests, pay the
book exam fee ($15) and pass the test at 80% or greater to earn continuing education
credits. Only start the PCEP book exam if you have time to complete it. If you take the
book exam and are not connected to a printer, either print your certificate to a .pdf file
and save it to print later or come back to www.cmevillage.com at any time and print a
copy of your educational transcript.
Credits are only available by book, not by individual unit within the books. Available
credits for completion of each book exam are as follows: Book 1: 14.5 credits;
Book 2: 16 credits; Book 3: 17 credits; Book 4: 9 credits.
For more details, navigate to the PCEP webpages at www.cmevillage.com.
112
SKILL UNIT
Surfactant Administration
There are several different commercial surfactant preparations. Each has been shown to be effec-
tive in preventing and treating neonatal respiratory distress syndrome, although the techniques for
administration vary slightly among the different preparations. Each manufacturer has prepared
detailed instructions about the recommended method for administering that company’s particular
product. These instructions are available in written and video formats. A sample surfactant
administration video may be viewed at https://www.youtube.com/embed/1tic3rMVBMs. You
may be asked to participate in a skill session to practice surfactant administration according to
the methods recommended for the surfactant chosen for use in your hospital.
Because administration techniques vary for the different products, it is recommended that
your hospital use only one brand of surfactant and that all staff become skilled in using that
113
115
Objectives
In this unit you will learn to
A. Identify hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
B. Understand how hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy occurs
C. Recognize how newborns with hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy present
D. Determine if a newborn is eligible for therapeutic hypothermia
E. Approach early management of neonates with hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
116
Unit 6 Pretest
Before reading the unit, please answer the following questions. Select the one best
answer to each question (unless otherwise instructed). Record your answers on
the test and check them against the answers at the end of the book.
1. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (HIE) is a term used to describe neonates with
encephalopathy at birth that is caused by hypoxia-ischemia around the time of
delivery. Which one of the following findings is supportive of a hypoxic-ischemic
event as the cause of the encephalopathy?
A. A cord blood gas analysis with a base deficit of 8 or base excess of 28.
B. A cord blood gas analysis with a base deficit of 16 or base excess of 216.
C. An arterial blood gas analysis at 2 hours after birth with a pH level of 7.1.
D. An Apgar score of #5 at 5 minutes after birth.
E. A history of forceps-assisted delivery.
2. HIE can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe on the basis of the degree of
encephalopathy. Which of the following findings would be seen in a newborn with
moderate encephalopathy?
A. Coma
B. Jitteriness
C. Dilated pupils
D. Hypotonia
E. Apnea
3. Therapeutic hypothermia is the only neuroprotective treatment currently available
to neonates with HIE. How soon should therapeutic hypothermia be initiated for
optimal brain protection?
A. Before 1 hour of age
B. Before 3 hours of age
C. Before 6 hours of age
D. Before 12 hours of age
E. Before 24 hours of age
4. A baby is born after emergent cesarean delivery for placental abruption. Therapeutic
hypothermia would not be indicated in which one of the following clinical scenarios?
A. A baby born at 38 weeks’ gestation with mild encephalopathy and seizures
B. A baby born at 33 weeks’ gestation with severe encephalopathy
C. A baby born at 39 weeks’ gestation with moderate encephalopathy
D. A baby born at 37 weeks’ gestation who required intubation for apnea and is
noted to be hypotonic at neurological examination
E. A baby born at 36 weeks’ gestation with Apgar scores of 1, 4, and 5 at
1 minute, 5 minutes, and 10 minutes, respectively
(continued )
117
118
While the incidence of HIE has decreased over the past several decades, it remains a major
global problem. HIE is the third leading cause of neonatal mortality worldwide and the fifth
leading cause of neonatal mortality in the United States, with an incidence of 1.5 to 2.0 per
1,000 live births (Early Human Dev. 2010;86[6]:329–338).
Importantly, neonates with HIE are at high risk for long-term neurodevelopmental impair-
ment, including cerebral palsy, seizures, and neurocognitive deficits.
119
The absence of a sentinel event does not rule out HIE in a newborn with
encephalopathy.
120
121
Because sentinel events are not always identified in newborns with HIE, a high index of suspi-
cion should be applied for infants with neonatal encephalopathy at birth. Conversely, the
presence of a sentinel event, low Apgar scores, and/or an unexpected need for resuscitation at
birth should prompt a careful neurological assessment of the newborn to rule out the presence
of encephalopathy. The early recognition and accurate classification of HIE is critically impor-
tant to be able to implement therapeutic hypothermia without delay (see Section 4). Providing
therapeutic hypothermia for eligible newborns as soon as possible after birth has been shown
to improve long-term outcomes.
The type of brain injury that occurs after HIE depends on the duration and severity of the
hypoxic-ischemic insult. Understanding the type of injury that occurred is helpful in under-
standing its potential long-term neurodevelopmental effects. There are 2 major types of injury
that occur after HIE in near-term and term infants (Table 6.4).
122
(continued )
123
Contact your referral center about infants who are slightly outside these
criteria to discuss potential eligibility for therapeutic hypothermia.
124
125
TIME IS BRAIN. Contact your referral center as soon as any stage of HIE is
suspected in a neonate, to discuss the eligibility for therapeutic hypothermia,
as well as the initiation of passive or active cooling and transfer of the neonate,
if applicable.
GA ≥ 35 weeksa No
Step 1 Birth weight ≥ 1,800 to 2,000 g Not eligiblec
< 6 hours after birthb
Yes
MODERATE-TO-SEVERE ENCEPHALOPATHY
Using a standardized neurological examinationf No
Step 3 Not eligiblec
OR
SEIZURES
Yes
Figure 6.1. Decision Criteria to Initiate Therapeutic Hypothermia for the Neonate With Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy
GA, gestational age. a 5 Neonates $ 34 weeks’ gestation and/or those with unclear gestational age may be eligible and should
be discussed with your referral center. b 5 Neonates 6–24 hours old may be eligible and should be discussed with your referral
center. Infants slightly outside these criteria or of uncertain gestational age should also be discussed with your referral
center. c 5 See Table 6.5. d 5 Blood gas (umbilical, arterial, venous, or capillary sampling) should be obtained within 1 hour
of birth. e 5 Late or variable decelerations, prolonged sustained fetal bradycardia (heart rate < 80 beats/min) for more than
15 minutes, cord prolapse, cord rupture, uterine rupture, maternal trauma, hemorrhage, or cardiorespiratory arrest.
f
5 Discussion of borderline cases is recommended, particularly regarding the severity of encephalopathy determination.
5. H
ow should early management of neonates with hypoxic-ischemic
encephalopathy be approached?
The goals of treatment for neonates with HIE are to prevent conditions that may aggravate
brain injury and provide timely evidence-based therapeutic hypothermia for neuroprotection.
In addition to supportive management and therapeutic hypothermia, evaluation for sepsis is
recommended in these patients.
126
Supportive Treatment
When providing supportive treatment, close monitoring is required to prevent further brain
injury and includes the following:
A. Close monitoring of the neonate’s temperature, even if passive or active cooling is not
initiated (see Table 6.6)
• Ideally, the neonate’s temperature should be monitored continuously using a rectal
temperature probe. If that is not possible, monitoring of core temperature every
15 minutes is recommended, because neonates with severe HIE can develop marked
hypothermia even if cooling is not initiated.
• In addition, preventing hyperthermia is important in these patients. Studies indicate
that increased temperatures in neonates with HIE lead to increased risk of death or
disability.
B. Close monitoring of vital signs
• Heart rate
• Oxygen saturation
• Blood pressure
• Blood gases in intubated patients
See Table 6.6 for vital signs goals and instructions.
(continued )
127
Neuroprotective Interventions
Currently, the only neuroprotective strategy shown to improve the outcomes of neonates with
HIE is therapeutic hypothermia. Other neuroprotective approaches under investigation include
the use of erythropoietin, melatonin, topiramate, magnesium sulfate, xenon, and stem cell therapy.
Although delayed therapeutic hypothermia started between 6 and 24 hours after birth may be
neuroprotective, current data indicate that the initiation of therapeutic hypothermia as soon
as possible and prior to 6 hours after birth is important to be able to optimize long-term out-
comes. For neonatal units that do not provide therapeutic hypothermia, early identification of
eligible infants is therefore critical. Once identified, transfer of the neonate to a referral center
that is able to provide therapeutic hypothermia should occur without delay.
128
Providers in centers that do not provide therapeutic hypothermia may consider the initiation
of passive or active cooling, particularly if transfer of the neonate to the referral center would
result in the initiation of cooling beyond 6 hours after birth. Passive or active cooling should
be considered only if the following conditions are met:
• Ability to closely monitor the neonate, including
— Continuous temperature monitoring (preferred) or monitoring of rectal temperature
every 15 minutes
— Continuous heart rate and oxygen saturation monitoring
— Close blood pressure monitoring
— Monitoring of serum blood glucose level
• Stable intravenous access
• A guideline in place that highlights the monitoring parameters and interventions for out-of-
range values (Table 6.6).
Of note, active cooling is not recommended in level 1 or 2 nurseries. Additional details on
passive and active cooling are provided in Table 6.6.
Self-test
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section. Use the chart to
find the answers to the questions.
A1. For which of the following cases is the baby eligible for therapeutic hypothermia?
Yes No
____ ____ 3-hour-old, 39 weeks’ gestation baby with seizures and a cord pH level
A
of 6.9
____ ____ A 5-hour-old, 40 weeks’ gestation baby with a 10-minute Apgar score of 5 and physical
examination findings of hypotonia, lethargy, and abnormal Moro reflex
____ ____ A 1-hour-old, 36 weeks’ gestation baby with a base excess of 210 and irritability and
tachypnea at examination
A2. List 3 findings in a neurological examination that are consistent with a diagnosis of severe
encephalopathy.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A3. What is the goal core temperature for neonates who are undergoing therapeutic hypothermia for
moderate to severe hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy?
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A4. List 3 recommended supportive care measures when caring for neonates with hypoxic-ischemic
encephalopathy.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
Check your answers with the list that follows the Recommended Routines. Correct any incorrect
answers and review the appropriate section in the unit.
129
Recommended Routines
All the routines listed here are based on principles of perinatal care presented in the unit you
have just finished. They are recommended as part of routine perinatal care.
Read each routine carefully and decide whether it is standard operating procedure in your
hospital. Check the appropriate blank next to each routine.
Self-test Answers
These are the answers to the Self-test questions. Please check them with the answers you gave and
review the information in the unit wherever necessary.
A1. Yes No
X ____ A 3-hour-old, 39 weeks’ gestation baby with seizures and a cord pH level
of 6.9
X ____ A 5-hour-old, 40 weeks’ gestation baby with a 10-minute Apgar score of 5
and physical examination findings of hypotonia, lethargy, and abnormal
Moro reflex
____ X A 1-hour-old, 36 weeks’ gestation baby with a base excess of 210 and irri-
tability and tachypnea at examination
A2. Absent spontaneous movement
Flaccidity
Coma
A3. 33°C to 34°C (91.4°F–93.2°F)
A4. Maintain adequate oxygen saturation
Avoid hypo- and hyperglycemia
Monitor closely for seizures
131
Unit 6 Posttest
After completion of each unit there is a free online posttest available at
www.cmevillage.com to test your understanding. Navigate to the PCEP pages
on www.cmevillage.com and register to take the free posttests.
Once registered on the website and after completing all the unit posttests, pay the
book exam fee ($15) and pass the test at 80% or greater to earn continuing education
credits. Only start the PCEP book exam if you have time to complete it. If you take the
book exam and are not connected to a printer, either print your certificate to a .pdf
file and save it to print later or return to www.cmevillage.com at any time and print a
copy of your educational transcript.
Credits are only available by book, not by individual unit within the books. Available
credits for completion of each book exam are as follows: Book 1: 14.5 credits;
Book 2: 16 credits; Book 3: 17 credits; Book 4: 9 credits.
For more details, navigate to the PCEP webpages at www.cmevillage.com.
132
SKILL UNIT
Passive Cooling
This skill unit will teach you how to initiate passive cooling for neonates with moderate to
severe encephalopathy, by following these basic steps:
1. Collect and prepare equipment.
2. Establish a plan for temperature monitoring.
3. Know the steps to correct temperatures below the goal temperature.
First, you must decide if the baby meets the cooling criteria. Does the baby meet any of these
criteria?
• Gestational age # 35 weeks
• Birth weight , 1,800 g (, 4 lb)
• Age more than 6 hours after birth
• Known lethal congenital anomaly
133
134
ACTIONS REMARKS
135
137
Objectives
In this unit you will learn to
A. Provide long-term care for an at-risk baby who remains in your hospital for longer than
several days.
B. Provide continuity of care for an at-risk baby who returns from an intensive care nursery
to your hospital.
C. Recognize the special problems some sick or preterm babies may develop, and the
monitoring and treatment guidelines for those problems.
D. Plan for the discharge of an at-risk baby from the hospital.
138
Unit 7 Pretest
Before reading the unit, please answer the following questions. Select the one best
answer to each question (unless otherwise instructed). Record your answers on
the test and check them with the answers at the end of the book.
1. A term baby with short bowel syndrome recently returned to your nursery from a
regional perinatal center. Which of the following measurements is least important for
you to monitor in this baby?
A. Urine pH level
B. Weight gain
C. Frequency of stool production
D. Blood electrolytes
2. Two weeks ago, a 1,500-g (3 lb 5 oz), preterm baby returned to your hospital after
3 weeks in a regional perinatal center. The parents live in your town and have visited
the baby once in the past 2 weeks. What would you do?
Yes No
_____ _____ Request consultation from social service department staff.
_____ _____ Call the parents and chat with them about their baby.
_____ _____ Begin making plans for the baby to be sent to a foster home.
3. Which of the following babies is at highest risk for developing hydrocephalus?
A. A term baby treated for hypoglycemia
B. A 1,000-g (2 lb 3 oz), preterm baby requiring assisted ventilation
C. A baby at 36 weeks’ postmenstrual age who received an exchange transfusion
D. 1,800-g (3 lb 151/2 oz) baby born at 40 weeks’ gestation
4. All of the following statements about retinopathy of prematurity are correct except
A. Laser photocoagulation may be helpful in reducing poor visual outcome from
retinopathy of prematurity.
B. Retinopathy of prematurity is unlikely to develop in babies born at term.
C. Mild to moderate retinopathy of prematurity may resolve completely.
D. All preterm babies with a Pao2 greater than 100 mm Hg will develop retinopathy
of prematurity.
5. A preterm baby requires assisted ventilation and several weeks of intensive care at a
regional perinatal center. Now the baby is stable, weighs 1,500 g (3 lb 5 oz), has no
respiratory distress, and is returning to your nursery for further weight gain. Which
of the following things should be done for this baby?
Yes No
_____ _____ Measure the baby’s head circumference once a week.
_____ _____ Start the baby on phenobarbital.
_____ _____ Weigh the baby daily.
_____ _____ Administer iron dextran intramuscularly.
_____ _____ Check the baby’s hematocrit value at least once a week.
_____ _____ Attach the baby to a cardiac or respiratory monitor.
(continued )
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B. Feeding
• Postmenstrual age is calculated as the baby’s gestational age at birth plus the postna-
tal age or corrected age, which is calculated by subtracting the number of weeks born
before 40 weeks of gestation from the chronological age.
To determine a baby’s current postmenstrual age, use the gestational age at birth and
add the number of weeks that have passed since birth. Babies less than approximately
32 weeks’ postmenstrual age should be fed with tube feedings. It is unusual for
a baby to have sufficiently achieved neurological maturity to coordinate sucking,
swallowing, and breathing before 32 weeks’ postmenstrual age.
Begin to feed the baby by nipple when he or she meets all of the following criteria:
• Reaches a postmenstrual age of 32 weeks
• Shows signs of readiness for oral feedings (sucks on a pacifier for 3 minutes with a
normal suck-burst-rest pattern, transitions to an alert state, and tolerates holding)
• Has a gag reflex
• Has a normal respiratory rate (,70 breaths/min)
• Is not critically sick (eg, stable respiratory status, not receiving vasopressors)
• Can demonstrate sucking proficiency at the breast or from a nipple on a bottle
Feeding may be from a bottle or by breast if the mother desires to breastfeed. Babies
who will be breastfeeding should be encouraged to explore the breast during kangaroo
care, even if they are less than 32 weeks’ postmenstrual age. They will generally not
latch onto the breast and, even if they aspirate a small amount of breast milk, it will
generally not injure their lungs.
The baby should be offered a pacifier to suck on during tube feedings. This has been
shown to aid in gastric motility and progression in oral feeding skills.
• Temperature control
Some babies may be ready to feed by mouth before they are able to control their tem-
peratures outside an incubator. If a baby weighs less than 1,500 g (,3 lb 5 oz) but oth-
erwise meets the criteria for oral feedings, the feedings may be given in the incubator.
• Fatigue
Frequently, babies tire when they first start to feed by nipple. For this reason, it is
recommended that you begin with oral nipple feeding, based on the baby’s cues, once
or twice per day. Then, you can work up to alternating feedings by mouth with tube
feedings and supplementing oral feedings with tube feedings.
Note: You may leave the feeding tube in place during a nipple feeding, but never
insert it immediately after a feeding. This may cause the baby to vomit and
aspirate milk into their lungs.
Wait at least 1 hour after an oral feeding before inserting a feeding tube.
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Step 4. Repeat the previous cycles for 24 hours. If the baby is managing feedings well by
mouth, increase the number of nipple feedings and decrease an equal number of
tube feedings until the baby is managing all feedings by mouth. Always follow
the baby’s cues.
Some babies will be unable to ingest the entire amount of a feeding by mouth and will
require supplemental feedings. To supplement partial oral feedings with tube feedings,
follow these steps.
Step 1. Give the baby the full feeding by tube. Leave the tube in place.
Step 2. At the time of the next feeding (2–3 hours later), give the baby as much of the
scheduled feeding by mouth as the baby will tolerate.
Step 3. S ubtract the amount the baby ingested by mouth from the total amount of
the planned feeding. The remaining amount should now be given through the
feeding tube.
Example
• The planned feeding is 45 mL (1.5 oz) every 3 hours.
• The baby ingests 30 mL (1 oz) by mouth.
• 45 mL (1.5 oz) – 30 mL (1 oz) 5 15 mL (0.5 oz) of the feeding that has not been
ingested.
• Give the remaining 15 mL (0.5 oz) to the baby through the feeding tube.
As a baby becomes less tired during feedings, the amount ingested by nipple will
increase. Do not force a baby to ingest more by mouth than the baby is capable of eat-
ing easily. This just tires the baby and makes it less likely that the next feeding by nipple
will go well. Some experts recommend not supplementing with tube feedings if the baby
ingests greater than 75% of the baby’s planned feeding by mouth.
Note: O
ther feeding methods, such as cup feeding and finger feeding, have been used.
The value and safety of these techniques for preterm babies are undergoing
evaluation and therefore are not discussed here.
See Book 3: Neonatal Care, Unit 6, Feeding, for additional information about feeding
preterm babies, as well as their vitamin and iron requirements.
C. Assessment of growth
The growth chart (Figure 7.1) can be used to plot the growth of a female baby born
preterm, while that baby remains hospitalized. There are separate growth charts for
boys and girls. The x-axis is postmenstrual age, or “corrected” age. Once the baby has
regained their birth weight (see Book 3: Neonatal Care, Unit 6, Feeding), this chart can
be used to plot the baby’s incremental weight, length, and head circumference.
• Weight
It is important for a baby to have consistent weight gain before being discharged
from the hospital. Daily weights should be obtained and recorded on a growth chart
that shows the normal weight gain for preterm babies. (See Book 3: Neonatal Care,
Unit 6, Feeding.)
Most preterm babies will be ready for discharge from the hospital when their weight
has reached 1,800 to 2,000 g (3 lb 151/2 oz–4 lb 61/2 oz), as long as they have met all
other discharge criteria. Stable preterm babies should demonstrate steady weight gain
of approximately 20 to 30 g (7⁄10 oz–1 oz) every day.
Many preterm babies are initially fed a 24-kcal/oz formula. They are usually changed
to a 22-kcal/oz formula when they reach approximately 1,800 g (3 lb 151/2 oz). Babies
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receiving breast milk may also have supplements added to it to increase the caloric density
and vitamin content. See Book 3: Neonatal Care, Unit 6, Feeding, for additional infor-
mation about feeding preterm babies, as well as their vitamin and iron requirements.
If the baby loses weight or does not gain weight appropriately for several days in a
row, you should ask:
– Is the baby getting adequate calories?
– Is the baby cold?
– Is the baby infected?
Example
Baby Crosby is a preterm baby who was transferred back to your hospital when he
was 14 days of age. His growth chart was sent with him.
Several days after arrival at your hospital, daily weights show Baby Crosby to be
gaining less than 20 to 30 g/d (,7⁄10 oz–1 oz/d). His growth is no longer following
the curve on the chart.
You examine the baby and find that his vital signs, color, activity, and feeding pattern are
all normal. You check the amount of calories he is receiving and find that it is adequate.
Baby Crosby is being weaned from his incubator. You note that for the past several
shifts he has been slightly cold, with an axillary temperature of 36.4°C (97.6°F).
You place Baby Crosby back in the incubator for several days. His weight gain gradually
returns to normal and again follows the line that other babies of his birth weight follow.
Prolonged, unrecognized cold stress may divert calories to produce heat, impairing
growth. Despite some unique compensatory mechanisms (eg, chemical [non-shivering]
thermogenesis), neonates—particularly low-birth-weight infants—have limited capac-
ity to thermoregulate and are prone to having a decreased core temperature. By
maintaining the baby in a thermoneutral environment, calorie consumption can be
used for appropriate weight gain and not be diverted for temperature control.
• Head circumference
It is important to measure the baby’s head circumference and record it on the middle
curves of the growth chart. Head size for some babies will increase more rapidly than
normal, while for other babies, head growth will be less than normal. Because the
normal increase in head size is only a very small amount each day, head circumference
is usually measured on a weekly (not daily) basis. Normally, a preterm baby’s head
circumference will increase between 0.5 and 1.0 cm (0.2 in and 0.4 in) each week.
Increased Head Growth/Hydrocephalus
Babies with very low birth weight or those who were critically ill who sustained an
intraventricular hemorrhage are at highest risk for developing hydrocephalus. Babies
with hydrocephalus may have
– Rapidly increasing head circumference (.1.25 cm/wk [.0.5 in/wk])
– Bulging fontanels
– Split sutures
– Eyes that look downward (“sunsetting eyes”)
– Prominent veins over the scalp
– Increased irritability
– Persistent vomiting
– Apnea
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If you note any of these signs, the baby should be observed very carefully
and evaluated with ultrasonography for possible hydrocephalus.
Babies with severe fetal growth restriction may have a bulging fontanelle and split
sutures as their nutrition and subsequent brain growth improves. Cranial
ultrasonography (US) in these babies would show normal ventricular size.
Decreased Head Growth
Head size for some babies will not increase as expected. These babies may have had
severe perinatal compromise or a congenital infection. Rarely, they may have prema-
ture closure of the cranial sutures and fusion of the cranial bones. They should be
evaluated with US. A magnetic resonance (MR) imaging study of the brain may be
indicated. Consult your regional perinatal center.
Head size for some babies will not increase as expected. These babies may have had
severe perinatal compromise or a congenital infection. Rarely, they may have prema-
ture closure of the cranial sutures and fusion of the cranial bones. Imaging studies,
such as head ultrasonography, computed tomography (CT), and MR imaging, may be
indicated. Consult your regional perinatal center for the best imaging technique to
consider for each specific case, as CT entails a significant amount of radiation expo-
sure. If head growth is very poor, the family should be counseled about the possibility
of developmental compromise, and the baby’s developmental progress should be
followed with regular, detailed evaluations.
• Length
A baby’s length should be measured and recorded every week. The most accurate
measurement requires that 2 individuals assist in measuring a baby by using a length
board. Normally, a baby’s length will increase approximately 0.5 cm/wk (0.2 in/wk).
If a baby’s length is not increasing, the baby likely has inadequate caloric intake. Less
common causes for poor increase in length include malabsorption of nutrients and rickets.
D. Monitoring for apnea
1. Which babies should be monitored for apnea?
Preterm babies and sick babies of any postmenstrual age may have apneic spells.
(See Book 3: Neonatal Care, Unit 2, Respiratory Distress.) For this reason, they re-
quire electronic monitoring of heart and respiratory rates. Babies in the following
groups should be monitored:
• All preterm babies weighing less than 1,800 g (,3 lb 151/2 oz)
• All babies less than 35 weeks’ postmenstrual age
• Any baby who has had an apneic spell
• All sick babies
2. How long should these babies be monitored?
Preterm babies should be electronically monitored until they are apnea free and have
reached a
• Weight of 1,800 g (3 lb 151/2 oz)
and
• Postmenstrual age of 35 weeks or more
Babies who have had an apneic spell, regardless of their weight or
postmenstrual age, should be electronically monitored until they are
apnea free.
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The specific duration of monitoring is controversial. Most experts agree that moni-
toring until a baby is apnea free for 5 to 8 consecutive days is adequate. Some ex-
perts recommend that babies born at younger gestational ages may need a longer
period of monitoring (7–8 days), while babies born at older gestational ages could be
safely monitored for a shorter duration (5–6 days). (See the following information if
medication is required to treat frequent apnea episodes.)
3. How do you monitor a baby who is receiving medications to prevent apnea?
Some babies have such frequent episodes of apnea that medications (most commonly
caffeine) are used to decrease the number of apneic spells by stimulating their central
nervous system.
If a baby referred to you is receiving a methylxanthine (caffeine), you should
• Provide continuous electronic cardiorespiratory monitoring. (See Book 1: Maternal
and Fetal Evaluation and Immediate Newborn Care, Unit 4, Is the Baby Sick?
Recognizing and Preventing Problems in the Newborn, Skill Unit: Electronic
Cardiorespiratory Monitoring.)
• Consider obtaining a methylxanthine level if the baby continues to have apnea or
if apnea recurs to determine if a higher dose of medication is warranted. If the
baby has tachycardia or vomiting, which are signs of toxicity, the medication
should be discontinued if the level is too high.
4. How long does a baby require medication to treat apnea?
Most preterm babies stop having frequent apneic spells when they reach a weight of
approximately 1,800 g (3 lb 151/2 oz) or a postmenstrual age of 32 weeks. Regardless
of a baby’s weight, the medication should be stopped when the apneic spells have
decreased to only 1 to 2 mild spells per day. This will allow time for the drug to be
metabolized and removed from the baby’s body to determine if the baby will have
apneic spells when the drug is no longer present in the blood. The amount of time
required for caffeine to be removed from the body varies, depending on the baby,
but generally takes 5 to 8 days.
Some centers obtain a blood level of caffeine to ensure that only minimal traces
of the drug (,5 mg/L) (ie, subtherapeutic levels) are present after discontinuing its
administration, followed by 5 to 8 consecutive days without an apneic spell.
Most experts are reluctant to discharge babies who are receiving a methylxanthine
except in rare, special cases, with very careful follow-up arrangements made between
you as the provider, the family, and the regional perinatal center. Babies who are dis-
charged on caffeine and not followed up carefully may eventually outgrow their orig-
inal drug dose, resulting in a low blood level of the medication. They may then have
a serious apneic spell at home. Babies who are sent home with medication for apnea
should also be discharged with an apnea monitor, and arrangements should be made
for adequate follow-up.
5. When can a baby who has had apnea go home?
• Predischarge preparation
Apnea may lead to hypoxia and bradycardia. If a spell is severe and goes undetected,
some babies will die.
In general, however, if a baby is not taking a medication for stimulation of the
respiratory center and has been apnea free for 5 to 8 consecutive days, it is
unlikely there will be a severe apneic spell at home.
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Therefore, babies who have had apnea may be discharged home when the baby
– Has had no apneic attacks for 5 to 8 consecutive days. (If a medication was used
to treat apnea, the “apnea countdown” should not commence until at least a suf-
ficient amount of time has been allowed for the medication to have reached a
subtherapeutic level, usually 5 days since the last dose administration. Most neo-
natal units have discontinued obtaining a xanthine drug level to confirm that it is
subtherapeutic.
– Maintains their body temperature in a bassinet or open crib
and
– No longer has any other problems
Or
• Home apnea monitoring
Occasionally, some babies are sent home with apnea monitors. These may include
– Babies who have demonstrated apnea despite weighing more than 1,800 g (.3 lb
151/2 oz) and reaching a postmenstrual age of 35 weeks or more
or
– Technology-dependent babies who have abnormal regulation of breathing or
symptomatic chronic lung disease (CLD) or airway abnormalities
– Babies who are discharged with methylxanthine for apnea
Discharging a baby with home apnea monitoring requires careful coordination
among the family, the regional perinatal center staff, and you as the provider. The
family must have received good instruction in use of the monitor and good train-
ing in cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The monitor company must be available to
assist the family and care for the monitor.
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F. Administering immunizations
Preterm or chronically ill babies who require prolonged hospitalization should be
immunized. Most babies, including preterm babies, who are 8 weeks’ postnatal age
respond appropriately to immunizations.
• Administration of the following vaccines should be considered for all babies at
8 weeks’ postnatal age, regardless of their degree of prematurity:
– Diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis vaccine
– Haemophilus influenzae type b conjugate vaccine
– Enhanced inactivated poliovirus vaccine
– Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
• Vaccines should be administered in full doses.
• Combination vaccines (the typical combinations used for any other infant) are available.
• Administering a rotavirus vaccine to the hospitalized baby is controversial. Please
consult local infectious disease experts and your regional perinatal team.
• Administration of hepatitis B vaccine should follow the schedule outlined in Book 3:
Neonatal Care, Unit 8, Infections.
• For babies who are returning to your hospital after a period of intensive care, you will
need to determine which vaccines have already been administered and when the next
doses are due according to the standard schedule.
• In general, vaccine-related adverse effects are no more common in preterm babies
than in term babies, although there are some reports of more apneic or bradycardic
spells in preterm babies, as well as an increased transient need for oxygen (typically
24–48 hours), especially in babies who were recently weaned off of oxygen therapy.
• Inactivated influenza vaccine should be administered to infants who are 6 months of
age or older.
Palivizumab (respiratory syncytial virus [RSV] prophylaxis): The American Academy
of Pediatrics recommends that palivizumab (a monoclonal antibody against RSV) be
administered before discharge and then monthly during RSV season to babies in the
groups listed below. RSV season usually runs from October through April, but it may
start earlier or end later in certain areas.
Eligibility Criteria for Palivizumab Administration
• Preterm babies born at less than 29 weeks’ gestation.
• Preterm babies with CLD who are younger than 12 months at the start of RSV season.
CLD is defined as occurring in a baby born at less than 32 weeks’ gestation who
requires greater than 21% supplemental oxygen or positive pressure ventilation for
at least the first 28 days after birth.
• Preterm children with CLD who are between 12 months and 2 years of age at the
start of RSV season and continue to require medical therapy. Medical therapy is
defined as necessitating corticosteroid therapy, diuretics, or supplemental oxygen
during the 6-month period prior to RSV season.
• Babies with hemodynamically significant congenital heart disease who are younger
than 12 months at the start of RSV season. These include babies who
– Require medication to control congestive heart failure
– Have moderate to severe pulmonary hypertension
– Have cyanotic heart disease (preoperative or postoperative)
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Other babies who qualify for palivizumab administration include babies with cystic
fibrosis, anatomical pulmonary abnormalities, or neuromuscular disorders, as well
as babies who have undergone a cardiac transplantation or are severely
immunocompromised during RSV season.
G. Screening for hearing deficits
Preterm and sick babies are at risk for hearing deficits. These babies should receive a
hearing screening before discharge.
Universal screening of all neonates, whether they are sick, at risk, or well, is recommended
and is mandated in most states.
The following factors place babies at risk for hearing loss:
• Birth weight less than 1,500 g (,3 lb 5 oz)
• Any of the congenital TORCH infections (toxoplasmosis, rubella cytomegalovirus,
herpes simplex, and HIV). (See Book 3: Neonatal Care, Unit 8, Infections.)
• Severe perinatal compromise
• Exposure to ototoxic medications
• Bacterial meningitis
• Severe hyperbilirubinemia
• Family history of childhood hearing impairment
• Malformations that involve the head or neck
• Stigmata or other findings associated with a syndrome known to include hearing impairment
When and how should hearing screening be conducted?
Hearing should be evaluated for all babies prior to discharge from the hospital or
by 3 months of age.
Initial screening involves electrophysiological response to sound, by using instruments
designed for newborns. However, it is recommended that babies who required more than
5 days of neonatal intensive care unit care be tested by using brainstem auditory evoked
response technology, because of their increased risk of nerve injury. If results of the initial
screening are equivocal, the baby should be referred for formal diagnostic testing. All
babies should continue to receive routine hearing tests at health supervision examinations.
Some babies are at increased risk of progressive hearing loss in early childhood and will
require rescreening after discharge, even if they have passed the initial NBS. Some states
mandate screening for congenital cytomegalovirus and, if results are positive, antiviral
therapy may be ordered. Serial screening for sensorineural hearing loss is recommended.
H. Screening for retinopathy of prematurity
Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is an eye disease of preterm babies that may result
from many different factors, including receiving oxygen therapy. The degree of visual
impairment may range from slight impairment to total blindness. The likelihood and
severity increases with the degree of prematurity. Once ROP has developed, it must be
closely followed with repeated examinations. The ocular damage may progress to cause
retinal detachment if it is not treated promptly, or it may completely resolve.
At-risk, preterm babies need to be examined at recommended time points to be able to
detect the changes of ROP and provide treatment before permanent vision loss occurs.
1. Which babies need examinations for ROP?
In general, the following babies should receive a dilated funduscopic examination by
an ophthalmologist who has experience in ROP:
• Any baby born at less than 30 weeks’ gestation or who had a birth weight of
1,500 g (3 lb 5 oz) or less
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• Any baby with a birth weight between 1,500 and 2,000 g (3 lb 5 oz and 4 lb
61/2 oz) but an unstable clinical course, who is believed to be at high risk for ROP
2. When and how should ROP screening be conducted?
The timing of the first eye examination depends on the baby’s gestational age at
birth (Table 7.1). The initial examination may have been conducted at the regional
perinatal center before the baby was discharged. First examinations should be
performed according to babies’ initial gestational age and corrected age.
The timing of follow-up examinations is dictated by the findings of the first examina-
tion. If both retinas are fully vascularized at the time of the first examination,
additional examinations may not be needed. If the retinas are not fully vascularized,
repeat examinations are indicated, even if there is no initial evidence of ROP.
The ophthalmologist will recommend follow-up examinations based on the initial
retinal findings. If the retina is not fully vascularized, follow-up examinations will be
recommended at intervals ranging from less than 1 week to as long as 3 weeks. The
ophthalmologist will also recommend when treatment is indicated.
Clear communication among clinicians and with parents must stress that follow-up is
essential for successful therapy and that there is a critical period during which treatment,
if needed, can be administered to prevent severe vision loss or blindness.
Even if laser or intravitreal medical therapy is not indicated, it is important for an oph-
thalmologist to follow up with the baby so the parent or parents will know what to ex-
pect for and from their baby. In addition, babies who have had ROP, whether or not
treatment was required, are at increased risk for other vision disorders, including strabis-
mus, amblyopia, and cataracts. Eyeglasses may be indicated in some cases and are most
beneficial when fitted at an early age.
Table 7.1. Timing of the First Eye Examination Based on Gestational Age at Birth
Age (weeks) at Initial Examination
Gestational Age (weeks) at Birth
Postmenstrual Age Chronological Age
22 31 9
23 31 8
24 31 7
25 31 6
26 31 5
27 31 4
28 32 4
29 33 4
30 34 4
Older gestational age, high-risk factors associ- Consider timing based on severity of comorbidities.
ated with the development of retinopathy of
prematurity (eg, anemia, poor weight gain, early
gestational age, low birth weight, lower Apgar
score, prolonged oxygen therapy)
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I. Predischarge cranial US
Most preterm babies born at less than 30 weeks’ gestation will have undergone cranial
US during their acute illness. Current recommendations include repeat cranial
US examination at 36 to 40 weeks’ postmenstrual age to be able to detect the late
development of unsuspected intraventricular hemorrhage, any increase in the size
of the ventricles, and/or periventricular leukomalacia (a risk factor for cerebral palsy).
Although controversial, it is generally not recommended for babies to undergo MR
imaging prior to discharge from the hospital, unless clinically indicated (eg, babies
with a concerning cranial US finding or neurological examination finding).
J. Sleep positioning and sleep environment
There is strong evidence that prone sleeping (on the stomach) increases the risk of
sudden unexpected infant death (SUID). While there are often good reasons for prone
positioning during acute care in the hospital, babies who are receiving continuing care
should be placed on their backs for sleep, and this should be communicated clearly to
the baby’s parent or parents. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends a safe
sleep environment to reduce the risk of all sleep-related infant deaths. Recommendations
include supine positioning, the use of a firm sleep surface, room-sharing without bed-
sharing, and the avoidance of soft bedding and overheating. Additional recommenda-
tions for SUID reduction include breastfeeding; routine immunizations; the use of a paci-
fier; and the avoidance of exposure to smoke, alcohol, and illicit drugs.
As a further precaution against an apparent life-threatening event or a brief resolved
unexplained event (BRUE), soft objects, such as pillows and stuffed or plush toys, should
not be placed in a baby’s sleeping area. Teach parents that loose or excessively soft bed-
ding should also be avoided, and the baby’s clothing should be close fitting. A one-piece
sleeper with no blanket or quilt may suffice.
K. Car seat testing
It is recommended that all infants born preterm (,37 weeks of gestation), those with a
birth weight of less than 2,500 g (,5 lb 8 oz), those with a cyanotic heart lesion or who
have undergone cardiac surgery, those who are hypotonic, and those who have micro-
gnathia undergo car seat testing prior to discharge home. These infants are at high risk
for desaturation and bradycardia while they are restrained in car seats.
Infants should be appropriately fitted and restrained in the car seat the parent or parents
will be using and should be monitored for 90 to 120 minutes or for the duration of
travel, whichever is longer. The infant’s heart rate, oxygen saturation level, and respira-
tory rate should be monitored. Failure of the car seat evaluation results would be
considered if there is
• Apnea for 20 seconds or longer
• Bradycardia with heart rate less than 80 beats/min
• Oxygen desaturation below 90% for more than 10 seconds
If an infant fails the car seat evaluation, reasons for the failure should be investigated
prior to discharge home. Use of a car bed may also be considered.
L. Assessment of the baby’s family
The birth of an at-risk or sick baby may create enormous emotional and financial
stresses for a family or single parent.
Feelings of anxiety, guilt, inadequacy, and anger are common. Additionally, geographic
distance often separates parents from their baby, which makes visiting difficult.
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• Request psychiatric assistance for parents who have marked emotional problems.
Providers are encouraged to work closely with their social workers to facilitate
these referrals and ensure that a safe discharge plan is in place.
M. What is developmental care?
Much interest has centered on modifying the nursery environment to reduce light, noise,
handling, and interrupted sleep when providing care to sick and at-risk babies. These
measures have come to be lumped under the term developmental care and have been
used for acutely ill babies and babies who need continuing care.
Many developmental care measures make intuitive sense, and some are particularly
welcomed by parents. Although data are accumulating that suggest individualized care
and family involvement can preserve the child’s development and outcome, large, well-
designed studies are needed to identify what actually makes a difference in childhood
outcomes before specific recommendations can be made about these care measures.
The staff in some neonatal intensive care units believe in caring for babies in a relatively
constant low-light environment while they are extremely immature and critically ill. As
these babies approach term and are getting ready for discharge, they should be exposed
to the day-night light variation they will encounter at home.
Self-test A
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
A1. Provide 2 reasons why a baby may need continuing care.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A2. List at least 7 basic components of continuing care for preterm babies.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A3. What are 3 important ways to assess the growth of babies who require continuing care?
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A4. Preterm babies who need continuing care should be monitored for ____________ until they weigh
more than ____________ grams (_____lb _____ounces), have reached a postmenstrual age of
____________ weeks, and have had no apneic spells for ____________ to ____________ consecutive
days.
A5. True False Most babies respond to immunizations when they reach 8 weeks’ postnatal age,
regardless of their gestational age at birth.
A6. True False To give a supplemental feeding, you first feed the baby as much as the baby will eat
orally, then insert a feeding tube and give the remainder of the calculated volume of
feeding through the tube.
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A7. Which of the following actions is important in weaning a baby from an incubator to a crib?
Yes No
_____ _____ Place a stocking cap on the baby’s head.
_____ _____ Begin antibiotics.
_____ _____ Give the baby at least 25% more calories.
_____ _____ Wrap the baby in extra blankets.
A8. If a baby’s head grows more rapidly than normal, the baby may be developing ____________.
A9. After being weaned to a crib, a baby does not gain weight for several days in a row. List 4 possible
reasons for the lack of weight gain.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A10. Babies who require medications to treat apnea need 2 types of monitoring.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A11. True False Babies may not have a gag reflex, even though they are at 32 to 34 weeks’ esti-
mated postmenstrual age.
A12. True False A 2,100-g (4 lb 10 oz) baby who requires caffeine for management of apneic spells
has had no apnea for 5 to 8 consecutive days. The baby may be safely discharged
home, with no additional monitoring needed.
A13. A baby should be evaluated for possible hydrocephalus if the head circumference grows more than
_______________________________ cm/wk (_________________in/wk).
A14. A normal weight gain is ______________________________ to ______________________________ g/d
(___________________________to _______________________________ oz/d).
A15. Name a drug that may be used for certain babies to decrease the number of apneic spells.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A16. A 1,900-g (4 lb 3 oz) baby has an apneic spell. The baby should be monitored until no apnea has
occurred for _______________________________ to _______________________________ consecutive
days.
A17. Name at least 3 signs that indicate when a low hematocrit value may be dangerous.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A18. Name at least 3 ways to assess parent-baby bonding.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
A19. It is recommended that a baby’s
• Weight be determined every _______________________________
• Head circumference be determined every _______________________________
• Length be determined every _______________________________
A20. Name 3 reasons why a baby who requires continuing care may become anemic.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
157
158
• The baby is stable when breathing room air or receiving low-flow oxygen therapy.
If the baby will be discharged with home oxygen therapy, then oxygen equipment, a
home cardiorespiratory monitor, and an oximeter should be arranged through a home
medical equipment agency. The parent or parents need to be trained in oxygen and
monitor use. The primary care physician should be informed about the baby’s special
medical needs. Usually, the regional perinatal center will also continue to be involved
in the baby’s care.
• The baby’s hematocrit value is stable or not rapidly decreasing. No baby who has
anemia symptoms should be discharged. A baby may be discharged if the hematocrit
value is as low as 22%, as long as the baby is otherwise doing well. Close follow-up
by the baby’s primary care physician will be important.
• Appropriate neonatal screening tests have been conducted (metabolic screening stud-
ies, eye examinations, hearing screening congenital heart disease screening).
– Many babies do not pass their initial hearing screening. Most will pass with repeat
testing; therefore, it is reasonable to repeat the screening prior to discharge.
– Many preterm babies have abnormal results from their newborn metabolic screen-
ings, especially screenings for congenital adrenal hyperplasia and hypothyroidism.
In addition, babies whose blood has been transfused prior to screening do not have
a valid hemoglobinopathy screening result, and this screening will need to be re-
peated in several weeks. It is important that newborn metabolic screening issues
have been resolved prior to discharge or clearly identified for follow-up.
• Immunizations have been administered according to the baby’s age and history.
or
Arrangements have been made for the baby’s primary care physician to see the baby
soon after discharge and to administer the immunizations.
– Palivizumab has been administered, as appropriate, according to the baby’s age, his-
tory, and risk factors, and according to the season of the year.
– Encourage parents to receive an influenza vaccine prior to or during the flu season.
Likewise, siblings and other caregivers should receive an influenza vaccine.
• The baby’s parent or parents have demonstrated the ability to care for their baby, and
the home situation is considered acceptable.
• The baby can tolerate being in a car seat and has passed a car seat test.
B. How do you plan for discharge?
• Anticipate the discharge a minimum of 2 weeks before the baby goes home.
• Notify the parent or parents of the possible discharge date. Solicit and answer their
questions and concerns.
• Notify any special individuals or groups involved in the care of the child (consultants,
public health department, social services).
• Check the parental visiting record and inquire about the home environment. If the
home situation seems unacceptable or unstable, request evaluation by a public health
nurse or social service representative (or both).
• If the baby requires special medications or treatments, make certain the parent or
parents understand the baby’s medical condition, are able to administer the medicines
appropriately, and can perform any necessary treatments. It is also recommended that
parents bring in discharge prescriptions to ensure that the medication formulations,
concentrations, and directions are the same as prescribed.
159
160
Self-test B
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
B1. True False A baby who has started receiving a new drug to treat an unstable medical condition
can be discharged the same day.
B2. True False An asymptomatic baby with a stable hematocrit value of 22% to 24% can be dis-
charged from the hospital.
B3. A baby is medically ready for hospital discharge. However, despite repeated attempts to contact the
parents, you have been unable to reach them for 2 weeks. One day, they appear unexpectedly at the
hospital and want to take their baby home. What would you do?
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
B4. List at least 5 activities that are important when planning for discharge.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
B5. True False An appropriate-size-for-gestational-age baby weighs 1,400 g (3 lb 1 oz), has never
had an apneic spell, and is gaining weight steadily. This baby can safely be dis-
charged home at this time.
Check your answers with the list that follows the Recommended Routines. Correct any incorrect
answers and review the appropriate section in the unit.
161
trauma to the lungs from ventilator therapy. It is generally defined as requiring supple-
mental oxygen at 36 weeks’ postmenstrual age. Some extremely preterm babies will
develop CLD, even if they did not need therapy with a ventilator or a high oxygen con-
centration. Babies with CLD may require supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula for
weeks or even months.
In general, these babies exhibit steady improvement and progressively require less
oxygen to maintain a good blood oxygen concentration. It is important to remember,
however, not to decrease supplemental oxygen too quickly, because chronic low blood
oxygen levels may cause serious, permanent damage to a baby’s heart and lung blood
vessels.
Unlike adults with CLD, these babies form new, healthy lung tissue as they grow;
therefore, they may eventually recover completely. If they become ill, it is usually related
to the onset of pneumonia or fluid retention.
Occasionally, some babies will require supplemental oxygen for such long periods that
you, the regional perinatal center, and the family may decide it is most reasonable for
the baby be cared for at home. These are very special cases, with the baby receiving
supplemental oxygen and other medications at home, and will be managed by you and
the regional perinatal center together.
B. Gastroesophageal reflux
Gastroesophageal reflux occurs when the stomach contents reflux into the esophagus.
This disorder, which is apparently more common in preterm babies than term babies,
is being diagnosed with increasing frequency in sick and at-risk babies. It typically
manifests with frequent spitting or vomiting after feedings or continual regurgitation,
and it may be associated with apnea and bradycardia.
Treatment regimens may include thickening feedings and positioning the baby. There is
no evidence that the use of acid inhibitors (H2-receptor antagonists or proton pump
inhibitors) decreases reflux, and there is increasing evidence that acid inhibition can
increase a baby’s risk for sepsis and necrotizing enterocolitis.
Consult with your regional perinatal center staff to establish a treatment plan specific to
each particular baby.
C. Short bowel syndrome
Sometimes babies are born with less than the normal length of intestines. Other babies
have variable lengths of intestine removed during surgery for certain types of bowel
disease, such as necrotizing enterocolitis.
Sometimes these babies have ostomies. If an ostomy is present, it will require special
care, and parents should receive detailed instructions. Ostomies may be permanent, or
the bowel may be reconnected at a later date.
Babies with a decreased amount of intestine for any reason may have trouble absorbing
milk or formula. They may have problems with weight gain, blood electrolyte imbal-
ance, or dehydration (or any combination of those). Breast milk remains the preferred
source of nutrition, because of growth hormones and digestibility. If breast milk is not
available, infant formulas with partially hydrolyzed protein or amino acid–based formu-
las are often needed. These babies will also require frequent weight checks and occa-
sional checks of blood electrolyte levels. Blood electrolyte samples are needed more
often if the volume of ostomy output or the number of stools increases.
162
D. Cholestatic jaundice
Babies who have required long periods of parenteral nutrition therapy may develop
increases in their direct (conjugated) bilirubin level. This may be associated with increases
in their liver enzyme levels. In most cases, this condition will resolve over time, with no
long-term complications. Abdominal US may be performed to rule out other causes. Many
babies benefit from the drug ursodiol, which stimulates bile solubility and flow. Monitoring
usually includes serial measurements of total and direct bilirubin and liver enzyme levels. If
the conjugated bilirubin level is highly increased and the baby’s stool is lacking pigment,
provide a water-soluble (liquid) form of fat-soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, and K, or
“ADEK”) until the cholestasis resolves, and consider consulting a gastroenterological expert.
E. Seizures
There are many causes of seizures in the newborn period. Babies may be receiving anti-
convulsants, such as phenobarbital, when they are sent home from nurseries. These
babies must be monitored for the recurrence of seizures and have their anticonvulsant
drug dose adjusted as they grow. Some will require determination of blood levels of their
anticonvulsant medication.
They must also be observed carefully for signs of developmental delay.
F. Hydrocephalus
Babies who were ill at birth will occasionally develop hydrocephalus, particularly if
they were born extremely preterm and developed an intraventricular hemorrhage. These
babies may require the insertion of a shunt to prevent the accumulation of excess cere-
brospinal fluid in the brain. The shunt may malfunction, and fluid pressure may build
up. These babies may also get shunt infections. Babies with shunts must be monitored
for change in activity level (eg, increased lethargy) or increase in head size (or both),
which would suggest a shunt malfunction or infection.
Babies with mild hydrocephalus but without shunts should have head circumferences
and tenseness of their fontanels checked frequently. Coordinate with the regional
perinatal center to schedule follow-up cranial US examinations.
G. Congenital heart disease and patent ductus arteriosus
Babies with congenital heart disease may be cyanotic (blue) or acyanotic (pink), depend-
ing on the type of abnormalities in the formation of their hearts.
Cyanotic babies frequently require surgery early in life. They require monitoring for the
level of blood oxygen, medication levels, and development of acidosis, and for “blue
spells.”
Babies with acyanotic heart disease are frequently receiving medications for congestive
heart failure. They require monitoring for signs of congestive heart failure and may need
adjustment of their medications.
Many preterm babies have a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) during their acute illness.
Medications (indomethacin, ibuprofen, or acetaminophen) may have been used to close
the PDA, or surgical ligation may have been required. Some babies may continue to have
a small PDA that is causing no or minimal symptoms. A systolic murmur may be heard.
The usual course for these PDAs is to eventually close on their own. However, follow-up
with a pediatric cardiologist should be arranged.
163
Soft, systolic murmurs are often heard in the growing preterm baby. These “physiologi-
cal,” “innocent,” or “flow” murmurs are not associated with other symptoms. They are
often associated with mild to moderate anemia, which causes rapid blood flow through
the lung.
164
Table 7.2. Monitoring and Treatment Guidelines for Babies With Special Problems
Monitoring Reason for Monitoring Abnormality Action
A. CLD (Also Known as Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia)
Weight (every day) Babies with CLD may retain fluid in their lungs and Rapid increase in weight • Decrease the baby’s fluid intake, perhaps by
may have right-sided heart failure. gain increasing the caloric density of the
feedings.
• Increase the diuretic dose or begin diuret-
ics.
Babies with CLD require more energy to breathe. Lack of weight gain • Review the concentration of calories in for-
Therefore, they may require more than the normal mula or human (breast) milk supplements.
number of calories to breathe and grow. • Check the baby’s blood oxygen concentra-
tion. Babies with chronically low blood ox-
ygen levels will not gain weight well. The
baby’s oxygen saturation levels should be
maintained slightly higher (eg, 92%–96%).
Medications Babies with CLD are frequently receiving several • Worsening arterial Increase the dose appropriately for the baby’s
166
Table 7.2. Monitoring and Treatment Guidelines for Babies With Special Problems (continued )
Monitoring Reason for Monitoring Abnormality Action
A. CLD (Also Known as Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia) (continued)
Chest radiography Babies with CLD frequently develop pneumonia. Pneumonia (always • Consider starting antibiotics.
compare follow-up ra- • Provide chest physical therapy.
diographs with prior
baseline radiographs)
Electrocardiography or CLD may lead to right ventricular hypertrophy. Worsening right • The baby’s oxygen saturation levels
echocardiography ventricular hypertrophy should be maintained slightly higher
(eg, 92%–98%). Make certain the baby’s
Pao2 is $ 60 mm Hg or the oxygen satura-
tion is 92%–98% (or both) during sleep
and all activities.
• Make certain the baby is receiving
adequate doses of diuretics.
• Extended periods of suboptimal oxygen-
ation or deteriorations should be evaluated
(continued )
5/29/21 8:08 AM
07_Unit7_BKIV_PCEP_137-180.indd 168
168
Table 7.2. Monitoring and Treatment Guidelines for Babies With Special Problems (continued )
Monitoring Reason for Monitoring Abnormality Action
A. CLD (Also Known as Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia) (continued)
Blood gas Initially, blood gases are frequently monitored in None None
sick babies, but monitoring frequency decreases as
the baby grows older and more stable. Generally,
capillary blood gases checked 1–2 times per week in
babies who require positive pressure with continu-
ous pulse oximetry provides adequate monitoring.
Oxygen Pao2 should be kept at approximately 60 mm Hg. Pao2 ,60 mm Hg or • Increase supplemental oxygen.
Oxygen saturation during all activities (feeding, oxygen saturation • Look for the cause of decreased Pao2
sleeping) should be kept slightly higher than that for ,90% (pneumonia, increased secretions, worsen-
respiratory distress syndrome (eg, 90%–94%). ing right-sided heart failure).
• Assess the baby for bronchospasm.
Carbon dioxide The carbon dioxide level is usually increased in CLD. Increased Paco2 over • Assess the baby for pneumonia.
• If the baby’s carbon dioxide level is progressively the baseline value • Obtain a chest radiograph.
increasing, the baby’s condition is worsening. • Suction any secretions.
• If the carbon dioxide level is decreasing, the baby
is improving.
examination should be performed by an growth factor may be used to treat early, ag-
ophthalmologist who has experience in ROP. gressive disease.
• If prescribed, have the baby fitted with correc-
tive eyeglasses early.
5/29/21 8:08 AM
(continued )
07_Unit7_BKIV_PCEP_137-180.indd 170
170
Table 7.2. Monitoring and Treatment Guidelines for Babies With Special Problems (continued )
Monitoring Reason for Monitoring Abnormality Action
D. Short Bowel Syndrome (continued)
Electrolytes and serum Babies with increased fluid losses through the • Decreased sodium • Increase the sodium intake in the baby’s diet.
urea nitrogen levels intestines may develop electrolyte abnormalities. level • Increase the potassium intake in the
• Decreased potassium baby’s diet.
level • Assess the baby for signs of dehydration
• Increased serum urea and consider administering intravenous
nitrogen levels fluids.
Family understanding The family must be educated about ostomy care, or • Lack of instruction • Teach the family about the importance of
of the baby’s condition care of the buttocks, and taught warning signs, such • Lack of interest their care and observations.
as increase in stools or ostomy output. • Observe the family’s ability to provide all
details of care for their baby.
E. Seizures
Anticonvulsant drugs As the baby grows and gains weight, the anticonvul- Increase in seizure activ- Discuss with your regional perinatal center
sant dose may need to be increased. ity staff the requirement for:
After administering a loading dose to achieve sup- • Drug level monitoring
172
Table 7.2. Monitoring and Treatment Guidelines for Babies With Special Problems (continued )
Monitoring Reason for Monitoring Abnormality Action
I. Congenital Heart Disease (continued)
Hematocrit value A low hematocrit value may cause CHF. • ,30% • Look for the cause for anemia.
A high hematocrit value may mean chronically • .60% • Assess the baby for increasing CHF.
worse hypoxia in a cyanotic baby. • Consult regional perinatal center staff.
Medications Babies with heart disease may be given medications
for which the dose will need to be increased with
growth and weight gain.
Diuretics Diuretics help prevent fluid retention resulting from Worsening CHF Increase the dose appropriately for the baby’s
CHF. weight.
Electrolytes (every Diuretics may cause excessive loss of sodium, Decrease in sodium level Carefully increase the dose of sodium supple-
week) potassium, chloride, or calcium (or any combination ment, but consider that a decrease in the se-
of those). rum sodium level in the presence of weight
gain may indicate worsening CHF.
Decrease in potassium Increase the potassium supplementation.
Physical examination Worsening CHF will cause increased rales, hepato- • Increased rales • Adjust the dosage of any medications
splenomegaly, and a gallop rhythm of the heart. • Increased hepato- according to the baby’s weight.
splenomegaly • Consult regional perinatal center staff.
• Presence of a gallop
5/29/21 8:08 AM
Abbreviations: CHF, congestive heart failure; CLD, chronic lung disease; Fio2, inspired oxygen concentration; ROP, retinopathy of prematurity.
PCEP BOOK 4: SPECIALIZED NEWBORN CARE
Self-test C
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
C1. Name 2 types of congenital heart disease.
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
C2. True False A baby with seizures appears normal at the time of discharge. In spite of this, the
child should be assessed later for the appearance of developmental delay.
C3. Babies with hydrocephalus may require insertion of a __________________________ to prevent the
accumulation of excess cerebrospinal fluid.
C4. True False Babies who require supplemental oxygen for months generally recover and can be
discharged from the hospital.
C5. True False Visual impairment from retinopathy of prematurity may range from slight impair-
ment to total blindness.
C6. Babies with cyanotic congenital heart disease may require monitoring for
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
C7. Two major problems with shunts used to treat hydrocephalus are ____________________________
and _____________________________.
C8. When babies with chronic lung disease become ill, it is usually with
______________________________ or _____________________________.
C9. Babies with acyanotic congenital heart disease are frequently given medications for
________________________________________________________________________________________
C10. The dose of anticonvulsant drugs should be adjusted according to the
A. Length of the baby
B. Weight of the baby
C. Head circumference of the baby
Check your answers with the list that follows the Recommended Routines. Correct any incorrect
answers and review the appropriate section in the unit.
174
Recommended Routines
All the routines listed below are based on the principles of perinatal care presented in the unit
you have just finished. They are recommended as part of routine perinatal care.
Carefully read each routine and decide whether it is standard operating procedure in your
hospital. Check the appropriate blank next to each routine.
Self-test Answers
These are the answers to the Self-test questions. Please check them with the answers you gave and
review the information in the unit wherever necessary.
Self-test A
A1. Any 2 of the following reasons:
• Additional weight gain
• Monitoring of special problems
• Physiological maturation to improve functions such as temperature control, regular
respirations, and feeding
A2. Any 7 of the following components:
• Temperature control
• Feeding
• Assessment of growth
• Apnea monitoring
• Monitoring for anemia
• Assessment of family
• Administering immunizations
• Screening of hearing
• Screening for retinopathy of prematurity
• Accustoming the baby to being in a supine (on the back) sleep position
• Predischarge cranial ultrasonography
A3. Weight
Head circumference
Length
A4. Preterm babies who need continuing care should be monitored for apnea until they weigh
more than 1,800 grams (3 lb 151/2 ounces), have reached a postmenstrual age of 35 weeks,
and have had no apneic spells for 5 to 8 consecutive days.
A5. True
A6. False. Reason: A feeding tube should not be inserted during or shortly after a feeding.
Doing so may cause the baby to vomit and thus increase the risk that the baby will
aspirate some of the feeding contents.
A7. Yes No
X Place a stocking cap on the baby’s head.
X Begin antibiotics.
X Give the baby at least 25% more calories.
X Wrap the baby in extra blankets.
A8. If a baby’s head grows more rapidly than normal, the baby may be developing
hydrocephalus.
A9. The baby is cold.
Caloric intake is inadequate.
The baby is acidotic.
The baby is infected (septic).
A10. Continuous electronic heart and respiratory rate monitoring
Checking the blood level of the medication
176
A11. True
A12. False. Reason: Prior to discharge, babies should be apnea free for 5 to 8 consecutive days
after the medications have been stopped and the baby’s blood has been tested and
been shown to be drug free (except in very rare circumstances when home monitor-
ing may be used and careful follow-up is ensured).
A13. A baby should be evaluated for possible hydrocephalus if the head circumference grows
more than 1.25 cm/wk (0.5 in/wk).
A14. A normal weight gain is 20 to 30 g/d (7⁄10 to 1 oz/d).
A15. Caffeine
A16 A 1,900-g (4 lb 3 oz) baby has an apneic spell. The baby should be monitored until
no apnea has occurred for 5 to 8 consecutive days.
A17. Any 3 of the following signs:
• Sustained heart rate faster than 160 beats/min
• Sustained respiratory rate faster than 60 breaths/min
• Onset of or increase in apneic spells
• Poor feeding and poor weight gain
A18. Any 3 of the following ways:
• Record the telephone calls and visits made by the baby’s parents.
• Record caretaking activities taught to the parents and performed by them.
• Assign one nurse to be the primary nurse communicating with the family.
• Have regular, frequent discussions among the nurses, physicians, and social workers
concerning parent-baby attachment and family interactions.
• Start assessment early, so there is time to address any problems or provide adequate
teaching before the baby is ready to be discharged home.
A19. Day
Week
Week
A20. Any 3 of the following reasons:
• Blood taken for laboratory tests
• Iron deficiency
• Normal decrease in hemoglobin level and hematocrit value that occurs in all babies in the
weeks after birth
• Lower hematocrit values of babies born preterm
A21. Yes No
X Unlimited visiting hours
X Adapting care routines for parents who wish to provide “kangaroo care”
X Many nurses caring for the baby and talking with the family
X Involvement of social service in special cases
X Teaching the parents how to bathe and feed their baby
A22. Any baby born at 30 weeks’ gestational age or less or with a birth weight of 1,500 g
(3 lb 5 oz) or less
Any baby with a birth weight of 1,500 g to 2,000 g (3 lb 5 oz–4 lb 6½ oz) with an
unstable course and thought to be at high risk for retinopathy of prematurity
A23. True
177
A24. False. Reason: Diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis; Haemophilus influenzae type b con-
jugate; enhanced inactivated poliovirus; and pneumococcal conjugate vaccines
should each be given in the usual dose of 0.5 mL for preterm and term babies.
A25. True
Self-test B
B1. False.
Reason: Babies requiring medication should have their conditions stabilized and
their response to any new medication assessed before being discharged.
B2. True. However, babies with signs of anemia should not be discharged.
B3. Evaluate the parents’ readiness and ability to care for their baby at home.
• Observe the parents taking care of their baby (feeding, bathing, changing diapers, etc).
Encourage the parents to visit for several hours or days (or both). Assist them in making
these arrangements.
• Ask the parents what preparations they have made at home for the baby.
• Determine a system for medical follow-up of the baby.
• Find out what questions or misunderstandings (or both) the parents have about their
baby. Provide them with the correct information.
• Contact a social service, public health department, etc, if additional assistance or follow-
up care is needed.
B4. Any 5 of the following activities:
• Plan ahead.
• Determine if the baby is medically ready for discharge.
• Review the parental visiting record and interactions with the baby.
• Assess the parents’ ability to care for their baby. Solicit and answer their questions and
concerns.
• Assess parents’ ability to give medications or provide special care measures (or both), if
the baby needs any.
• Notify any special individuals or groups involved in the baby’s care; make appointments
for well-baby care and for any special follow-up examinations that may be needed.
• Determine if preparations have been made in the home for the baby. Assess the home
environment.
• Determine what medical or social service follow-up (or both) will be needed and how
this will be achieved.
• Document the baby’s weight, length, and head circumference.
• Perform a detailed physical examination. Prepare this information to send to the baby’s
follow-up and primary care physicians.
• Review the baby’s immunizations; make appointments, as necessary, for follow-up hear-
ing and eye examinations.
• Provide car seat testing and use instructions.
B5. False.
Reason: Preterm babies are at risk for apneic spells until they reach a weight of
1,800 g (3 lb 151/2 oz) or more and a postmenstrual age of 35 weeks or more.
178
Self-test C
C1. Cyanotic (Babies are blue.)
Acyanotic (Babies are pink.)
C2. True
C3. Babies with hydrocephalus may require insertion of a shunt to prevent the accumulation of
excess cerebrospinal fluid.
C4. True
C5. True
C6. Arterial oxygen concentration
Blood level of drugs used to treat their condition
Development of acidosis
“Blue spells,” or times when the baby becomes extremely cyanotic
C7. Two major problems with shunts used to treat hydrocephalus are shunt blockage and shunt
infection.
C8. When babies with chronic lung disease become ill, it is usually with pneumonia or fluid
retention.
C9. Babies with acyanotic congenital heart disease are frequently given medications for
congestive heart failure.
C10. B. Weight of the baby
179
Unit 7 Posttest
After completion of each unit there is a free online posttest available at
www.cmevillage.com to test your understanding. Navigate to the PCEP pages
on www.cmevillage.com and register to take the free posttests.
Once registered on the website and after completing all the unit posttests, pay the
book exam fee ($15) and pass the test at 80% or greater to earn continuing education
credits. Only start the PCEP book exam if you have time to complete it. If you take the
book exam and are not connected to a printer, either print your certificate to a .pdf file
and save it to print later or come back to www.cmevillage.com at any time and print a
copy of your educational transcript.
Credits are only available by book, not by individual unit within the books. Available
credits for completion of each book exam are as follows: Book 1: 14.5 credits;
Book 2: 16 credits; Book 3: 17 credits; Book 4: 9 credits.
For more details, navigate to the PCEP webpages at www.cmevillage.com.
180
181
Objectives
In this unit you will learn to
A. Understand the basic principles of biomedical ethics and how they apply to neonates.
B. Define the terms used to describe decision makers in perinatology.
C. Define the terms necessary to understand the application of biomedical ethics to neonates.
D. Recognize how the principles of biomedical ethics are applied to certain cases.
E. Understand how practitioners can make decisions concerning the care of neonates by using
the principles of biomedical ethics.
Note: Whereas other units in this book describe the day-to-day care of women and neonates,
this unit describes important ethical aspects of care that occur across the spectrum of
care. In neonatology, the ethical issues are complex and, in some cases, abstract. This
unit will prepare the reader for biomedical ethical thought to help them be prepared for
when these situations arise in their clinical practice.
182
Unit 8 Pretest
Before reading the unit, please answer the following questions. Select the one best
answer to each question (unless otherwise instructed). Record your answers on
the test and check them with the answers at the end of the book.
1. True False Parents have full autonomy over their children.
2. True False The principle of respect for autonomy does not apply to newborns.
3. True False Newborns receive more rights than a fetus but less than those of a
toddler.
4. True False All infants born at 22 weeks’ gestation die and should not be
resuscitated.
5. True False The neurological outcome of neonates with trisomy 18 is so poor
that they should not be resuscitated.
6. True False Anencephalic newborns do not have any rights, because they lack
the capacity for eventual higher order thinking.
7. True False Unilateral decisions, when justified, do not need the permission of a
surrogate decision maker.
8. True False Opioid analgesia is appropriate to give in end-of-life scenarios as
long as the intent is to lessen the degree of suffering.
9. Mrs and Mr Francis present to your hospital at 22 weeks and 3 days of gestation.
The estimation of gestational age is accurate, given that this was an in vitro fertil-
ization pregnancy. You are the neonatologist on service. Mrs Francis is currently
stable, but the attending physician for maternal-fetal medicine (MFM) fears she will
deliver in the next 48 hours. This is a much desired pregnancy. Your hospital has a
policy against resuscitation at less than 23 weeks’ gestation, but you think a hospital
across town may offer resuscitation at this gestational age. What is your obligation
to this couple?
A. Discuss the case with the MFM attending physician and advocate for possible
transfer to an institution that would offer resuscitation.
B. Discuss the case with the MFM attending physician and advocate to keep the
patient at your current institution in the hopes that Mrs Francis does not deliver.
C. Emphasize that nothing can be done to save the fetus if born at less than
23 weeks of gestation.
D. Emphasize that, although you will not resuscitate their fetus if born at less
than 23 weeks of gestation, they are free to find a hospital that will offer
resuscitation.
(continued )
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184
185
and the ethics of care framework allows physicians to acknowledge the competent pregnant
mother as a decision-maker for her pregnancy.
186
placement of a chest tube in an infant with pneumothorax who has a high chance of
survival. Along with beneficence is the idea of the best-interest standard for decision
making in neonatology. While beneficent actions bring about an overall good for an
individual, they may be associated with a burden to the same individual. If the benefits
of the action outweigh the burdens of the action, the action may be justifiable.
C. Nonmaleficence
As stated previously, the principle of nonmaleficence refers to the avoidance of actions
that harm an individual. Many actions performed in the care of imperiled newborns
can harm them (eg, ventilators may contribute to chronic lung disease, the use of oxy-
gen contributes to retinopathy of prematurity). If, however, an action will lead to an
overall good, despite the harm it produces, it could still be performed. If the burden of
the harmful action is such that it would not be in the best interest of the individual,
however, then it should not be performed. The burdens of a harmful action must be
outweighed by the benefits of the same action.
D. Justice
The principle of justice formally means “to treat equals equally.” For example, if
2 pregnant women present at 23 weeks of gestation with the same predicted outcomes
for their neonates, it would not be just for one woman to receive the option of resusci-
tation for her fetus, while the other woman is not given that option.
A classic explanation for justice as it pertains to periviability, for example, is the provision of
fetal resuscitation at differing gestational ages, depending on where a mother presents for
care. While it is reasonable for a hospital to have a unilateral policy against resuscitation of
the fetus at certain gestational ages, it is important to note that the only relevant difference
between a neonate who is resuscitated versus one who is not may be their gestational age.
Importantly, even with the most accurate assessments, gestational age assessments may have a
margin of error that ranges from a few days to 2 weeks. Very early ultrasonographic assess-
ments have a margin of error of a few days, and those performed in the second trimester may
have a margin of error of up to 2 weeks.
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elucidated why this is so. For example, the equipment available does not fit into this in-
fant’s trachea, or the infant’s lungs are too underdeveloped to be able to adapt to life
outside of the womb.
B. Obligatory to treat (wrong not to treat)
Benefits of treatment outweigh the burdens of treatment. The balance of nonmalefi-
cence and beneficence are weighted such that life-sustaining treatment is favored.
C. Optional whether to treat (treatment neither required nor prohibited)
Treatment is morally neutral and optional. The presumption of always providing life-
sustaining treatment for the sick and injured does not hold when the treatments may
be involved with burdens that outweigh the benefit.
D. Obligatory not to treat (wrong to treat)
Health care providers have no obligation to provide pointless, futile, or contraindicated
treatment. The burdens can so outweigh the benefits that the treatment is wrong.
E. Harm principle
The harm principle attempts to set the limit for state intervention with regard to a
parent’s decisional authority. It has become an alternative to the best-interest standard
over the past 2 decades. The harm principle indicates that parental decisional authority
should be challenged only if their decision sets the neonate up for an unacceptable
degree of harm. If a parental decision endangers an infant or child, the state can then
intervene on the child’s behalf, in accordance with parens patriae. The harm threshold
for state intervention may be cases in which the harm incurred from a decision would
include loss of life, loss of health, loss of some major interest, and the deprivation of
basic needs.
Self-test A
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
A1. Which biomedical ethics principle (respect for autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, or justice)
can be considered the most important when making decisions for imperiled newborns?
________________________________________________________________________________________
A2. True False The burden of proof needed to challenge a parent’s authority over decision making
for their child is the same as the burden of proof needed to challenge their own
decision-making autonomy.
A3. The moral duty of a physician to a particular set of patients is dynamic and changes as outcomes
change. What is one group of patients for which the duty to resuscitate is now considered
obligatory?
________________________________________________________________________________________
A4. While it is a commonly used term, what is the biggest concern with the term “futility”?
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
Check your answers with the list that follows Self-test B. Correct any incorrect answers and review
the appropriate section in the unit.
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189
190
that punitive policies will only serve to prevent pregnant women from seeking out
counseling and MAT. In Tennessee, a law that criminalized maternal illicit substance
use in pregnancy expired and was not renewed. During the law’s existence, concerns
were raised that the criminalization of maternal substance use disorder would deter
women from seeking medical attention, thereby further affecting the potential health
outcome of the fetus.
Despite the presence of few state laws (Tennessee and South Carolina) that criminalized
the maternal use of illicit substances while pregnant, case law demonstrates that crimi-
nal charges of child endangerment, child abuse, and manslaughter have been filed suc-
cessfully in cases of maternal illicit substance use while pregnant. In lieu of criminal
statutes, some states have enacted civil statutes that would penalize a pregnant woman
who uses illicit substances. Importantly, civil law concerns itself with the rights and
duties of persons. Both civil law and criminal law may be punitive. While civil charges
will not lead to incarceration of the mother, they are grounds for cessation of parental
decisional authority. The idea behind all of these examples (both civil and criminal) is
to increase the potential beneficence to the fetus. It has been demonstrated, however,
that punitive policies are unjust, given that they do not account for a woman simply
not being able to access MAT. Additionally, such punitive policies are not evenly
applied across sociodemographic parameters.
Punitive legal approaches concerning mothers who use illicit substances while pregnant
have the following constraints, because they:
• Fail to recognize that all competent adults are entitled to informed consent and
bodily integrity.
• Treat substance use disorder as a moral failing.
• Discourage ongoing prenatal care.
• Apply said punishments unjustly to the most vulnerable women.
• Lay the groundwork for the criminalization of legal maternal behavior. For example,
if it is a crime to endanger the fetus by the maternal use of illicit substances and this
is a punishable offense, it is easy to imagine punishing a pregnant woman for not
adhering to her prescribed diet for the treatment of gestational diabetes.
At the crux of the stark differences between medical societies’ responses and policy-
makers’ responses is the interpretation of maternal substance use while pregnant.
Categorizing maternal substance use while pregnant as a moral wrong justifies both
civil and criminal proceedings, per policymakers and law enforcement officials. The
categorization as a medical problem, however, justifies the absence of court proceedings
and the pursuit of counseling and MAT.
The reality of maternal substance use during pregnancy lies somewhere in between. The
National Institute on Drug Abuse defines addiction as a chronic disease that is amena-
ble to therapy. This definition of addiction as a chronic disease, however, does not elim-
inate untoward effects on the fetus and neonate. Given that knowledge of maternal
substance use disorder can change the management of the neonate, medical screening
must take place. The routine testing of every mother for illicit substances is not feasible
and would violate the Fourth Amendment of the United States Constitution, which
prohibits illegal search and seizure. The action of screening for maternal illicit sub-
stance use may encourage a health professional to consider urine drug screening or
screening of neonatal meconium, but parental consent must be obtained from the
191
mother. Different states have differing requirements concerning the degree of consent
needed. As several studies have demonstrated, sending urine or meconium samples to
test for maternal illicit substance use without first screening the mother may result in
an explicit or implicit bias against women of color. Importantly, implicit biases occur in
a subconscious manner. Failure to seek maternal consent for testing and to screen
mothers appropriately would violate the principles of justice and respect for autonomy
on behalf of the mother.
192
used for data reporting (all live-born infants or only live-born infants for whom resus-
citation was attempted) and the study referenced. Possible reasons for a perceived
worsening of survival rates and outcomes across different studies could be the ability to
save smaller and sicker imperiled newborns who otherwise would have perished. Given
the still-high likelihood of moderate to severe NDI at periviable gestational ages, the
action of providing a trial resuscitation is considered permissible and not obligatory.
• Despite the possibility of survival at 22 weeks’ gestation, these infants still face a
very high likelihood of NDI.
• Parents faced with such a delivery ought to be counseled that while survival is possi-
ble, intact survival (ie, survival with moderate to severe NDI) is less likely.
• The values of the parent or parents must be ascertained when discussing a trial of
resuscitation at any gestation, but especially when dealing with fetuses at
periviable gestational ages.
• Depending on clinical circumstances (eg, the ability to transfer the mother to another
hospital while she is still pregnant), interventions to enhance the survivability of the
neonate at periviable gestational ages ought to be explored.
While 22 weeks’ gestation may be the lower limit of permissible resuscitation,
depending on local and institutional practices, the upper limit of honoring a parent’s
decisional authority concerning a trial resuscitation also seems to be lowering.
Classically, some ethicists have espoused that when the predicted intact survival of an
imperiled neonate exceeds 50% at birth, resuscitation should be performed. In most
cases, this corresponded to a gestational age of 25 weeks. Importantly, however, a
movement beyond gestational age as the sole determining factor in guiding resuscita-
tion practices has been adopted, given the importance of other factors, such as antena-
tal steroids, the sex of the fetus (with female periviable fetuses tending to have better
outcomes than male periviable fetuses), and maternal comorbid conditions. For exam-
ple, in the case of a mother who did not receive antenatal steroids, a hospital policy
may allow the resuscitation of a 25 weeks’ gestation fetus with fetal growth restriction
based solely on gestational age. Importantly, for a 24 weeks’ gestation female fetus that
is well grown, was administered antenatal steroids, and has no other comorbid condi-
tions, the predicted survival rate may be higher than that of the aforementioned
25 weeks’ gestation fetus. However, hospital policies with a unilateral declaration of
not offering resuscitation below a certain gestational age cut-off would not allow resus-
citation in this case. This violates the principle of “justice,” given that the action pro-
vided to the 2 neonates (resuscitation for one fetus and comfort measures only for
another fetus) is different and is not based on their predicted outcomes.
• As much as possible, both survival and morbidity statistics, if wanted by the family,
should be provided; however, they should be clearly differentiated during counseling.
• Failure to differentiate these statistics would put the health professional at risk of a
framing bias, that is, presenting only information that conforms with their own bias.
— For example, if a practitioner feels strongly that all infants born at 24 weeks’
gestation ought to receive a trial of resuscitation, they may only present the
projected survival statistics to the family (which can be as high as 70% in some
cohorts of ELBW infants born at 24 weeks’ gestation) and not the statistics
associated with a high likelihood of NDI even at that gestational age.
193
B. Confirmed trisomy 13 or 18
While traditionally thought of as uniformly fatal conditions, newer data suggest that
trisomy 13 and 18 can be survivable conditions in both the short term (to the time of
first hospital discharge) and long term (1 year after birth). While all infants with tri-
somy 13 and 18 will have some degree of congenital anomalies, it must be noted that
not all of their anomalies will result in early death. For example, both trisomy 13 and
18 are associated with limb anomalies that would not affect an infant’s ability to sur-
vive. Most neonates with either trisomy 13 or 18 present with anomalies that do not
require urgent or emergent surgical intervention in the immediate neonatal period.
Despite data on the need for surgical intervention during the first hospitalization,
infants with trisomy 13 and 18 remain at high risk for mortality prior to discharge
from the hospital.
• If possible, a birth plan should be pursued if the fetus has a diagnosis of trisomy
13 or 18.
• While many fetuses will not survive the labor process (and it may not be appropriate
to intervene on behalf of the fetus), approximately 40% of neonates can survive long
enough to be discharged home with feeding support in the form of a nasogastric
tube.
• Infants with trisomy 13 or 18 who are born in the very-low-birth-weight category
have a very high risk of mortality before the time of the first discharge home.
• Most infants with trisomy 13 or 18 who survive long enough to go home do not
require decision making pertaining to surgical intervention in the immediate neonatal
period.
• The death of a neonate with trisomy 13 or 18 after discharge from the NICU is
likely, but if a family’s goal is to spend time with their neonate while they are alive
and decide on what interventions would be appropriate over time, this should be
facilitated.
— For example, it would be reasonable to facilitate a maternal transfer of a
woman whose fetus has trisomy 13 or 18 to a center that is willing to provide
some life-prolonging or lifesaving therapies.
C. Anencephaly
The care of the anencephalic fetus and neonate brings several aspects of the designation
of human rights to the forefront of biomedical ethical thought. Some philosophers have
advocated that the designation of rights is based on an individual’s capacity to interact
with their environment. Human rights (such as the right to be treated with dignity and
respect) would be assigned based on someone’s ability to interact with others who also
have the ability to interact with them. For example, Person A can interact with Person
B in a meaningful way, such as smiling or talking to one another. Person B can also in-
teract with Person A in a meaningful way. Given their interaction with each other, they
would be afforded human rights. By this definition, then, anencephalic infants would
not receive the same human rights as an older infant would, because anencephalic in-
fants cannot interact in a meaningful way with another individual. Importantly, this
may also limit the rights of neonates who do not yet possess the ability to perform such
actions as the social smile, for example. Also included, from a standpoint of adult med-
icine or pediatrics outside of the NICU, would be the patient in a persistent vegetative
state or the comatose patient. If such patients can no longer communicate, are they no
longer deserving of their rights? Other philosophers have advocated that the genetic
194
makeup of an individual grants them the rights inherent to that species. For example, a
Homo sapiens child (regardless of the method of conception) is deserving of the rights
enjoyed by all Homo sapiens, given their unique genetic makeup. By following this
logic, then, it would be reasonable to assume that neonates with anencephaly are de-
serving of the rights afforded to all neonates. Although organ donation from neonates
with anencephaly is not common, the topic has recently been revisited. This would not
be within the purview of a referring institution, but some parents will discuss organ
donation and may seek transfer to a facility that is willing to provide such a service.
Importantly, the right of the anencephalic neonate to not be subjected to painful proce-
dures for the benefit of another patient must be respected. While it is unclear what de-
gree of pain neonates with anencephaly can experience, it cannot be said they do not
have the capacity to experience pain, given the varying degree of higher brain matter
present in reported autopsy cases.
• Parents may request or inquire about organ donation if their fetus receives a diagno-
sis of anencephaly.
• Organ donation from neonates is technically challenging, but not impossible.
• Hesitancy to procure organs from neonates also exists, given the inability to diag-
nose brain death definitively (instead relying on circulatory determination of death).
D. Profound encephalopathy
Regardless of the cause of a neonate’s profound encephalopathy at birth, cases exist in
which an unrecoverable insult has occurred. Examples of insults that can lead to such a
profound presentation include umbilical cord prolapse, maternal cessation of circula-
tion, uterine rupture, and maternal illicit drug overdose that causes death. The standard
of care for moderate to severe encephalopathy includes therapeutic hypothermia (see
Unit 6, Therapeutic Hypothermia for Neonatal Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy, in
this book). This is typically performed at a level 3 or 4 nursery and may require transfer
from the birth institution. Along the spectrum of infants with severe encephalopathy,
there are neonates who will undoubtedly have severe NDI. It is challenging to predict
which infants will be severely affected and receive little benefit from therapeutic hypo-
thermia. Within the scope of treatment for neonates with severe encephalopathy is the
idea of withdrawing life-sustaining measures, namely withdrawing respiratory support.
Neonates with severe respiratory depression resulting from encephalopathy often have a
degree of recovery that enables them to spontaneously breathe on their own, with little
to no respiratory support. In some of these cases, however, neurological outcomes are so
poor that the alternative (ie, death) would be preferable. This thought process appeals to
the notion of mercy and the avoidance of unnecessary suffering. Discussion with a level
3 or 4 receiving NICU concerning the appropriateness of transfer in select, profoundly
severe cases of encephalopathy, is reasonable. Transferring a neonate with an unrecover-
able insult who might die shortly after transport is not ideal, because the mother may
still be hospitalized or other loved ones may not be able to visit the dying neonate.
195
The right of the physician to cease resuscitative efforts or refuse to provide them in the event
of physiologically impossible or highly unlikely survival stems from several well-established
codes of professional conduct, as well as from the biomedical ethics literature. Simply put, if
a physician does not believe a treatment or intervention will work, they are not obligated to
provide it. This is true even if a family requests for an intervention to be performed. For exam-
ple, if a neonate is born at a previable gestational age or has a congenital malformation that
is unequivocally not compatible with life, a physician is under no obligation to provide life-
prolonging or life-sustaining therapies. Of course, the comfort of the neonate must be attended
to with the utmost care and consideration. Many hospitals also have policies in place to pro-
tect physicians from providing care they deem futile. Importantly, the definition of the word
“futile” must be clearly defined to the family and others involved in the care of the patient. As
much as possible, the word “futile” should be avoided, and those providing care in such cir-
cumstances must clearly elucidate the aspect of care that is not being provided and why such
care is inappropriate.
While the idea of making a decision unilaterally—without the permission or explicit input from
a caregiver—may seem paternalistic, such actions are morally justified. Less justifiable would
be the provision of a half-hearted attempt of resuscitation, the so-called slow code. If a neonate
cannot benefit from a trial of resuscitation or therapeutic modality, the resuscitation or modal-
ity should not be provided. To feign an effort for the benefit of others (or oneself) is to use the
neonate as a means to another’s end and may subject the neonate to unjustifiable pain and suf-
fering. Even the most intractable differences of opinion concerning the resuscitation status of a
neonate can often be remedied with continued counseling and education. Unilateral end-of-life
decision making ought to be reserved for very select cases and based only on the physiological
reality that a treatment is not working.
A different but also challenging task is making resuscitation decisions for neonates who
are predicted to survive a resuscitation, even though their survival will be associated
with severe comorbidities. Neurological comorbidities are not uncommon in neonates,
especially those born at periviable gestational ages. Some neurological comorbidities may be
predicted to be so severe that they would cause the physician to question whether resuscita-
tion is in the best interests of the patient. For example, a neonate with bilateral grade 4 intra-
ventricular hemorrhage (ie, periventricular hemorrhagic infarction) that is severe or an infant
with severe encephalopathy who is unresponsive may survive a trial of resuscitation; however,
their ultimate outcome would likely include a poor neurological prognosis. Under these cir-
cumstances, the physician should be hesitant to make a unilateral resuscitation decision and,
if resuscitation is not in the best interest of the patient, instead should counsel the family
accordingly.
In the midst of counseling in cases in which the physician believes that resuscitation is not in
the best interest of the neonate but the physician does not want to make a unilateral decision,
they can suggest a plan of care to the family and give the family an opportunity to disagree
with the plan. For example, in cases of renal agenesis with concurrent pulmonary hypoplasia,
the physician can suggest a trial of intubation and application of supplemental oxygen but
can also offer that no medications be given to increase the heart rate (eg, epinephrine). This
is termed informed non-dissent, and authorization is inferred from the absence of veto of the
family, rather than from the presence of an explicit agreement. Although this method is not
ideal, it can spare a patient potentially harmful treatments that would have very little benefit,
especially in the face of a poor neurological prognosis.
196
197
viewed as only end-of-life care; the services of a palliative care practitioner should be sought to
help facilitate goals of care discussions and to ensure patient comfort. Knowing that adults are
medicated for dyspnea at the end of life, it follows then that the comfort of the dying neonate
must also be ensured. While opioid analgesics are respiratory depressants in neonates, they also
mitigate any pain and/or discomfort felt by the neonate at the end of life. The physician should
feel free to use such medications, despite their potential side effects, on the basis of the doctrine
of double effect.
The doctrine of double effect dictates that, while a treatment may have an unwanted side
effect, as long as the intended primary effect was morally justified, the provision of the treat-
ment is also justified. For example, the provision of morphine at the end of life may cause
respiratory depression, but it is given for the morally justifiable reason of decreasing pain and
dyspnea at the end of life. The side effect of respiratory depression is not the intended effect of
the provision of morphine, but it is a known possibility.
The provision of a medication to actively end the life of a neonate is prohibited in the United
States. While certain states permit physician-assisted suicide, currently this practice does not
extend to the neonate. A protocol exists in the Netherlands for the active euthanasia of a neo-
nate in the case of hopeless and unbearable suffering. This protocol, which was developed in
2004 at the University of Groningen, is called the Groningen Protocol. Importantly, this pro-
tocol is not acted upon in a unilateral fashion by physicians in the Netherlands. Parent permis-
sion must be sought. Possible justification for this protocol is the prevention of a long death
by withdrawing the provision of artificial nutrition. Importantly, the withdrawal of artificial
nutrition is not an act of assisted suicide but rather the cessation of medical therapy.
As previously mentioned, most neonates die as a result of WLSM—typically the discontinua-
tion of respiratory support. There are some neonates who have the capacity to breathe on their
own but for whom death would be in their best interest. An example of such a patient may be
a neonate with severe encephalopathy who has recovered brainstem activity but is incapable
of interaction with their environment. One possible course for this infant would be the provi-
sion of artificial nutrition via a gastrostomy tube, if they cannot manage oral feedings. While
the neonate’s ability to interact with the environment would not change, they would be kept
alive by the receipt of artificial nutrition. Accepting that artificial nutrition is a medical treat-
ment, it follows that it too can be withdrawn, similar to a ventilator or an inotrope. In theory
this is true, but many persons at the bedside of imperiled newborns have difficulty accepting
the prospect of withdrawing artificial nutrition and hydration. Potential reasons for having
difficulty with accepting the withdrawal of artificial nutrition include the societal expectation
of providing food for a baby, as well as fears of suffering compounded by death resulting from
starvation. However, data extrapolated from the adult literature indicate that the fear of suffer-
ing compounded by starvation is unfounded, given the evidence from pain scores at the end of
life for adults, as well as symptom scores and self-reports.
In all instances of the provision of end-of-life care, regardless of the means of death, the com-
fort of the neonate must be of paramount importance. Palliative care services may help guide
the dying process. In addition to providing comfort for the neonate, it is also important to
provide as much support as possible to the family.
198
default, their parent or parents. The process of making a decision on behalf of a neonate with
input from the family is termed shared decision making. Parental decisional authority must be
balanced with beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice in pursuit of what is in the neonate’s
best interest. Similar to decision making for the neonate, decision making for the pregnant
woman must also be under the auspices of shared decision making. The balance for the preg-
nant woman is more complicated, given the presence of the fetus. And, as discussed previously,
the pregnant woman can refuse therapies that would be beneficial to the fetus.
The concept of shared decision making is based on a 3-step model: introducing a choice,
describing options, and helping patients make decisions through decision talk (explained
later in this section). This model is based on the basic tenets that, through deliberation and
understanding, patients can make decisions based on what matters most to them and to the
degree they want information conveyed to them. It is through good shared decision making
that patients are said to achieve informed preferences in care. An informed preference extends
beyond informed consent and is based on the optimal accurate expectations of both positive
and negative consequences of an action (eg, trial of resuscitation for a neonate born at
22 weeks’ gestation). It is through shared decision making that neonatologists can afford
agency to parents, in which agency refers to the capacity to act independently and make free
and informed choices. Agency is afforded to parents by providing information and supporting
the decision-making process. This same agency is afforded to a pregnant woman whose auton-
omy is respected in the face of refusing an intervention.
Shared Decision-Making Model (J Gen Intern Med. 2012;27:1361–1367)
A. Choice talk
Choice talk is the step of making sure patients and/or their surrogates know reasonable
options are available (eg, trial of resuscitation vs comfort care). Choice talk is consid-
ered a planning step toward shared decision making (Box 8.1).
(continued )
199
B. Option talk
Further detailed discussion about the informed preferences the patients or their surro-
gates may choose from appears in Box 8.2.
200
C. Decision talk
Decision talk supports the work of considering preferences and deciding what is best
(Box 8.3).
201
Deliberation
Initial Informed
Preferences Preferences
Decision Support
Brief as well as Extensive
202
Self-test B
Now answer these questions to test yourself on the information in the last section.
B1. What are some of the important facts to remind yourself of when presented with a laboring mother
whose fetus has trisomy 18?
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
B2. Health professionals who feel powerless when faced with the provision of life-prolonging care they
no longer believe to be beneficial should take what steps?
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
B3. True False Withdrawal of life-sustaining measures can only occur with surrogate permission,
while non-initiation of intensive care does not require surrogate permission.
B4. True False The doctrine of double effect protects the provision of pain medications at the end
of life in all instances.
203
Self-test Answers
These are the answers to the Self-test questions. Please check them with the answers you gave and
review the information in the unit wherever necessary.
Self-test A
A1. When making decisions for imperiled newborns, none of the principles can be considered
more important than the others. What matters in a case is the relative weight assigned to
each principle. For example, if a parent refuses a treatment for their child, nonmaleficence
and beneficence would both hold equal weight in terms of their importance to whether or
not parental authority could be challenged. That said, the weights assigned to both nonma-
leficence and beneficence would be different, based on the potential burdens and benefits of
the treatment in question.
A2. False. Reason: The burden of proof to challenge authority is less than the burden of proof
to challenge one’s autonomy. This is rooted in the idea of parens patriae, or the
state’s duty to protect the incompetent. An autonomous person can decide against a
lifesaving therapy if they are competent to do so; however, provided the burdens to
the child are insubstantial or are outweighed by the benefits, they cannot decide sim-
ilarly for their child. This is not to say that a parent must accept lifesaving therapy
for their child in absolutely all circumstances. For example, when the potential out-
come is uncertain, the parent ought to retain decisional authority.
A3. The most striking example of a change in patient populations for whom resuscitation is con-
sidered obligatory is for infants 25 weeks’ gestation and older. These infants represent a
population for whom the survival and predicted morbidity are such that resuscitation ought
to be provided, even against the wishes of the parents. There is less uncertainty related to the
outcomes of these infants when compared to infants born at 22 weeks’ gestation—and,
therefore, resuscitation is performed.
A4. Without qualifiers, “futility” is a meaningless term. While the chances of success for a resus-
citation may be dismal because of the physiological realities of the infant, simply saying,
“Resuscitation is futile” does not provide adequate information to the family about your
clinical reasoning. The word “futile” only has clinical meaning if there are qualifiers attached
to it in discussion with the family.
Self-test B
B1. Chiefly, it must be recognized that trisomy 18 is not a universally fatal diagnosis. In the
absence of a definitive birth plan (eg, a mother presents in labor at a community hospital),
life-prolonging interventions should be attempted to stabilize the infant and allow the family
to make a decision about ongoing provision of life-prolonging therapies. Contrary to popu-
larly held beliefs, many neonates with trisomy 18 will not need cardiac surgery during their
first admission.
B2. Under the auspices of shared decision making, every attempt should be made to reach a
joint conclusion that is in the best interests of the family. When disagreements exist, the hos-
pital ethics committee can serve as a resource to help navigate further complex discussions
with the family; the palliative care service can also serve as such a resource. Importantly,
some states allow for withdrawal of life-sustaining measures over the objection of a surro-
gate decision maker as long as certain protocols are followed. Health professionals should
familiarize themselves with state laws and hospital policies.
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B3. False.
Reason: As described previously, withdrawal can occur without permission in select
cases. Non-initiation of intensive care (or a trial of resuscitation) can only occur uni-
laterally when the patient in question is not expected to survive initiation of inten-
sive care or is not expected to survive a trial of resuscitation. In all other instances,
this decision ought to be arrived at under the auspices of the shared decision-making
model.
B4. False.
Reason: The doctrine of double effect only applies to pain medications administered
for the explicit reason of promoting comfort at the end of life and alleviating pain.
The doctrine does not protect those who would deliver pain medications in an
attempt to facilitate the death of the patient. Separate laws in some states and coun-
tries define the legality of physician-assisted suicide. Generally, such laws are not
applicable to neonates.
Unit 1 Posttest
After completion of each unit, there is a free online posttest available at
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Alpha fetoprotein: A normal fetal serum protein. When a fetus has an open neural tube defect, such as
anencephaly or meningomyelocele, increased amounts of this protein pass into the amniotic fluid and the
pregnant woman’s blood, thus providing the basis for an antenatal screening test. Low or high maternal
serum alpha fetoprotein levels may also indicate certain other fetal chromosomal defects or congenital
malformations.
ALT: Alanine transaminase. The serum level of this enzyme is used as a measure of liver function. When
liver cells are destroyed by disease or trauma, transaminases are released into the bloodstream. The
higher the ALT, the greater the number of destroyed or damaged liver cells.
Alveoli: The numerous, small, saclike structures in the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon
dioxide between the lungs and blood takes place.
Amniocentesis: A procedure used to obtain amniotic fluid for tests to determine genetic makeup, health,
or maturity of the fetus. Using ultrasound guidance, a needle is inserted through a pregnant woman’s
abdominal wall and into the uterus where a sample of amniotic fluid is withdrawn, usually at 16 to
20 weeks’ gestation. If done earlier (11–13 weeks), there is often insufficient amniotic fluid and the
complication rate is higher.
Amnioinfusion: Infusion of fluid into the amniotic cavity. Amnioinfusion may be done by either of the
following procedures: after membranes have ruptured, by passing a catheter through the cervix and into
the uterus and infusing physiologic (normal) saline solution or otherwise by infusing saline through an
amniocentesis needle placed through the maternal abdominal wall and into the uterus. Amnioinfusion
may be used to reduce cord compression (as indicated by variable fetal heart rate decelerations) during
labor when oligohydramnios is present.
Amnion: The inner membrane surrounding the fetus. The amnion lines the chorion but is separate from
it. Together these membranes contain the fetus and amniotic fluid.
Amniotic fluid: Fluid that surrounds the fetus and makes up the “water” in the “bag of waters.” It
provides a liquid environment in which the fetus can grow freely and serves as insulation, protecting
the fetus from temperature changes. It also protects the fetus from a blow to the uterus by distributing
equally in all directions any force applied to the uterus. Amniotic fluid is composed mainly of fetal urine,
but also contains cells from the fetus’s skin and chemical compounds from the fetus’s respiratory passages.
Amniotic fluid analysis: Evaluation of various compounds in the amniotic fluid that relate to fetal lung
maturity and fetal health. Fetal skin cells that normally float in the amniotic fluid may also be obtained
with amniocentesis and grown in a culture to allow determination of fetal chromosomal status.
Amniotic fluid embolism: Amniotic fluid that escapes into the maternal circulation, usually late in labor
or immediately postpartum. Rather than causing a mechanical blockage in the circulation as emboli of
other origin might do, amniotic fluid embolism is thought to cause an anaphylactic-type response in sus-
ceptible women. This response is dramatic and severe, with sudden onset of hypoxia and hypotension.
Seizures or cardiac arrest may occur. If a woman survives the initial phase, disseminated intravascular
coagulation often follows. Although rare, it is associated with a high maternal mortality rate.
Analgesia: Relative relief of pain without loss of consciousness. Administration of specific medications is
the most common way to provide analgesia.
Anemia: Abnormally low number of red blood cells. The red blood cells may be lost because of bleeding,
destroyed because of disease process, or produced in insufficient numbers. Anemia is determined by
measuring the hemoglobin or hematocrit.
Anencephaly: A lethal congenital defect of neural tube development in which there is partial or complete
absence of the skull and brain.
Anesthesia: Total relief of pain, with or without loss of consciousness. Usually requires more invasive
techniques than that required for analgesia. General inhalation anesthesia produces loss of conscious-
ness, while major conduction anesthesia, such as spinal or epidural injection of long-lasting local anes-
thetics, produces total loss of pain in a specific area of the body without loss of consciousness.
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Anomaly, congenital: Malformation resulting from abnormal development during embryonic or fetal
growth. For example, a cleft lip is a congenital anomaly, as is gastroschisis, anencephaly, and countless
others. Used synonymously with congenital malformation.
Antenatal: Period during pregnancy before birth. Synonymous with prenatal.
Antenatal testing: Techniques used to evaluate fetal growth and well-being prior to the onset of labor.
Examples include nonstress test, biophysical profile, and ultrasonography.
Antepartum: Period of pregnancy before delivery. Most often used for period of pregnancy preceding
the onset of labor. (Intrapartum is used to refer to the time during labor.) Used in reference to the
woman.
Antibody: A type of blood protein produced by the body’s lymph tissue in response to an antigen
(a protein that is foreign to the bloodstream). Each specific antibody is formed as a defense mechanism
against a specific antigen.
Antibody screening test: A test of maternal serum against a large variety of blood group antigens as a
screening test for possible blood group incompatibility between a pregnant woman and her fetus. If the
antibody screening test result is positive, the individual blood group incompatibility should be identified.
See also Coombs test.
Antibody titers: A test used to indicate the relative concentration of a particular antibody present in a
person’s blood. Example: A high rubella titer indicates a person has been exposed to rubella (German
measles) and formed a significant amount of antibody against the rubella virus and, therefore, will most
likely be able to ward off another attack of the virus without becoming ill.
Anticonvulsants: Drugs given to prevent the occurrence of seizures (convulsions). The most
common anticonvulsants used in infants are phenobarbital and phenytoin (Dilantin). Anticonvulsant
therapy, with certain medications, for a pregnant woman with a seizure disorder may affect health
of the fetus.
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS): Development of antibodies to naturally occurring phospho-
lipids in the blood, causing abnormal phospholipid function. Antiphospholipid antibodies may be
present in healthy women but are more commonly associated with a generalized disease (eg, lupus
erythematosus). They have a strong association with recurrent miscarriage, fetal growth restriction, pre-
eclampsia, and other factors adversely affecting fetal or maternal health.
Aorta: Main artery leaving the heart and feeding the systemic circulation. It passes through the
chest and abdomen, where it branches into smaller arteries. In a newborn, an umbilical arterial
catheter passes through one of the arteries in the umbilical cord and into the abdominal section of
the aorta.
Apgar score: A score given to newborns and based on heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex
irritability, and color. The score is given 1 minute after the baby’s head and feet are delivered (not from
the time the cord is cut) and again when the baby is 5 minutes of age. If the 5-minute score is less than
7, additional scores are given every 5 minutes for a total of 20 minutes. The 1-minute Apgar score indi-
cates a baby’s immediate condition; the 5-minute score reflects the baby’s condition and effectiveness of
resuscitative efforts. A low 5-minute score is a worrisome sign. It is not, however, a certain indicator of
damage. Likewise, a high score is not a guarantee of a healthy baby. The score is named for Dr Virginia
Apgar, who developed it. The 5 letters of her name may also be used to signify the 5 components of the
score: A 5 appearance (color), P 5 pulse (heart rate), G 5 grimace (reflex irritability), A 5 activity
(muscle tone), and R 5 respirations.
Apnea: Stoppage of breathing for 15 seconds or longer, or stoppage of breathing for less than 15 seconds
if also accompanied by bradycardia or cyanosis.
Appropriate for gestational age (AGA): Refers to a baby whose weight is above the 10th percentile and
below the 90th percentile for babies of that gestational age.
APS: See Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.
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Arrhythmia: Abnormal rhythm of the heartbeat. Fetal arrhythmias are rare. One of the more common
ones is congenital heart block, which occurs almost exclusively with maternal systemic lupus erythema-
tosus, although it is uncommon even in that situation. With a maternal arrhythmia, the more persistent
the arrhythmia and farther the rate is from normal (either faster or slower), the more likely it is there
will be a deleterious effect on maternal cardiac output and, thus, on blood flow to the uterus.
Artery: Any blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart.
Asphyxia: A condition resulting from inadequate oxygenation or blood flow and characterized by
low blood oxygen concentration, high blood carbon dioxide concentration, metabolic acidosis, and
organ injury.
Aspiration: (1) Breathing in or inhaling of a fluid (eg, formula, meconium, or amniotic fluid) into the
lungs. Aspiration usually interferes with lung function and oxygenation. If inhaled, meconium is irritat-
ing as well as obstructing, resulting in meconium aspiration syndrome, which often causes serious and
sometimes fatal lung disease. (2) Removal of fluids or gases from a cavity, such as the stomach, by
suction. Example: A nasogastric tube is inserted and an empty syringe is attached to the tube and used
to suck out or aspirate air and gastric juices from the stomach.
Assisted ventilation: Use of mechanical devices to help a person breathe. Bag and mask with bag
breathing, endotracheal tube with bag breathing, or a respirator machine may each be used to assist
ventilation.
AST: Aspartate transaminase. The serum level of this enzyme is used as a measure of liver function. As
with alanine aminotransaminase, liver damage causes transaminases to be released into the bloodstream.
Atelectasis: Condition in which lung alveoli have collapsed and remain shut.
Atony: Loss of muscle tone or strength. Uterine atony is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
Axillary: Refers to the axilla, or armpit.
Bacteriuria: Presence of bacteria in the urine.
Bag breathing: Artificially breathing for a person by inflating the lungs with a resuscitation bag and
mask or resuscitation bag and endotracheal tube.
Ballooning of lower uterine segment: A sign of impending labor, either term or preterm. The process
leading to labor produces thinning of the lower uterine segment of myometrium, so that the lower seg-
ment “balloons out” into the anterior fornix of the vagina. The ballooned segment may be seen during
speculum examination or palpated during digital examination.
BCG: Bacille Calmette-Guérin. Vaccine made from the Calmette-Guérin strain of Mycobacterium bovis
for immunization against tuberculosis.
Beneficence: Acting for the benefit of a patient.
b-human chorionic gonadotropin (b-hCG): A hormone produced by trophoblastic cells of the chorionic
villi. It is the first biochemical marker of pregnancy and produced in increasing amounts until maximal
levels are reached at 8 to 10 weeks. When b-hCG is present in the blood or urine of a woman, she is
pregnant. High titers are found with multifetal gestation and erythroblastosis fetalis; extremely high
titers may be seen with hydatidiform mole and choriocarcinoma, while declining or low levels are
found with spontaneous abortion and ectopic pregnancy.
Betamimetic: A drug that stimulates b-adrenergic receptors of smooth muscle, such as the myometrium
(uterine muscle), causing decreased contractions. Used to suppress the onset of premature labor. A
betamimetic drug is also called a b-adrenergic receptor agonist. An example is terbutaline.
Bilirubin: A substance produced from the breakdown of red blood cells. High blood bilirubin level
causes the yellow coloring of the skin (and sclera) that is termed jaundice.
Biophysical profile (BPP): A combination of measures used to evaluate fetal well-being. Each of the
5 components (nonstress test, ultrasound evaluation of amniotic fluid volume, fetal body movements,
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muscle tone, and respirations) is scored. Each measure is given 2 points if present, zero if absent (there is
no score of 1). The scores are added together for the final BPP score.
Biparietal diameter (BPD): Diameter of the skull, measured as the distance between the parietal bones,
which lie just above each ear. Ultrasonography is used to determine BPD of the fetal skull. Serial BPD
measurements are used to assess fetal growth and estimate fetal gestational age.
Bishop score: A system that scores cervical dilation, effacement, consistency, and position, as well as
station of the presenting part to assess the “readiness” of a cervix for labor. Scores correlate with the
likelihood that an attempt at induction of labor will be successful.
Blood gas measurement: Determination of the pH and concentration of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and
bicarbonate in the blood.
Blood glucose screening test: Any of several commercially available, small, thin, plastic reagent strips
designed to estimate blood glucose level with a single drop of blood. A color change caused by a drop
of blood placed on the reagent pad provides an estimate of the blood glucose level. In addition, several
handheld devices are designed to draw in a tiny amount of blood and give a digital readout of the
glucose level.
Blood group: Numerous blood groups are in humans, each defined by their antigenic responses. The
major blood groups are A, B, AB, and O, which are then further defined by their Rh type, positive or
negative, as well as various other minor antigens. Note: Every person is exposed to the major blood
group antigens (A and B) soon after birth, because the antigens are found in air, food, and water. Each
person who lacks one or both of the major blood group genes (A or B) will make antibodies against the
antigens they lack. Thus, persons with blood group O develop anti-A and anti-B antibodies and keep
them throughout life. If given a blood transfusion with group A or B blood, a person with group O
blood will have a transfusion reaction, which may in some cases be fatal. Similar reactions occur when
a person with group B blood is given group A blood, or vice versa. Group “AB” persons do not make
antibodies against either A or B because they have both antigens on their red blood cells. Persons with
group AB blood can receive blood from people with any major blood group, but AB blood should be
transfused only into persons with AB blood. Persons with group O blood should receive only blood
transfusions with O blood, but O blood may be used to transfuse a person with any major blood group.
This is why a person with AB blood is called a universal recipient and a person with O blood is called a
universal donor.
Blood pressure, diastolic: Lowest point of the blood pressure between heartbeats, when the heart is
relaxed.
Blood pressure, mean: The diastolic blood pressure plus one-third of the difference between the systolic
and diastolic blood pressure.
Blood pressure, systolic: Highest point of the blood pressure. The blood pressure during the heartbeat,
when the heart is contracted.
Blood smear: A thin layer of blood spread across a glass slide and studied under a microscope to
determine the types of blood cells present.
Blood type: See Blood group.
Bloody show: Bloody mucus passed from the vagina in late pregnancy, usually associated with cervical
effacement. It often heralds the onset of labor and is a normal finding. Any bleeding in pregnancy,
however, should be investigated.
BPD: See Biparietal diameter.
BPP: See Biophysical profile.
Brachial plexus nerve injury: Paralysis of the arm that results from injury to the upper brachial plexus. Is
associated with shoulder dystocia or a difficult breech delivery when traction is applied to the shoulder,
stretching the nerve trunks exiting from the cervical spinal cord (brachial plexus). However, about one-
half of these injuries occur in children in whom there was no evidence of either shoulder dystocia or
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breech delivery. The injury, therefore, may be initiated before birth by deformation of the neck
and shoulder by abnormal positioning of the fetus. Many such palsies will recover within the first
few years after birth.
Bracht maneuver: A method of delivering breech presentations in cases in which delivery is imminent
and neither a practitioner skilled in vaginal breech delivery nor cesarean delivery is immediately available.
Bradycardia: Slow heart rate. (1) Fetal: Considered to be a baseline heart rate of less than 110 beats/min
for 2 minutes or longer. Bradycardia alone may or may not indicate fetal distress. (2) Neonatal: Consid-
ered to be a sustained heart rate less than 100 beats/min.
Breech presentation: The feet- or buttocks-first presentation of a fetus. (1) Frank: Buttocks presenting,
with the fetus’s legs extended upward alongside the body. (2) Footling: One foot can be felt below the
buttocks. (3) Double footling: Both feet can be felt below the buttocks. (4) Complete: Buttocks present-
ing, with the knees flexed.
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD): Also called chronic lung disease. A form of chronic lung disease
sometimes seen in infants who have required ventilator therapy for any of a variety of lung problems,
including respiratory distress syndrome and meconium aspiration syndrome. Bronchopulmonary
dysplasia is thought to result from the combined effects of oxygen free-radical injury of premature
lungs and trauma to the lungs produced by high airway pressures generated by ventilators.
Brow presentation: The brow (forehead) of the fetus is the presenting part. On vaginal examination, the
anterior fontanel can be felt, but the posterior fontanel cannot. Management depends on whether the
presentation stays brow or changes to face or the baby’s neck flexes and the presentation becomes vertex.
Caput succedaneum: Edema of the fetal scalp that develops during labor. This swelling crosses suture
lines of the skull. Caput succedaneum may occur with a normal, spontaneous vaginal delivery, but a
lengthy labor or delivery by vacuum extraction increases the risk of occurrence.
Cardiac massage: See Chest compressions.
Cardiac output: Output of the left ventricle in milliliters per minute.
Central nervous system depression: Condition in which the body is less reactive than normal to stimuli,
such as a pinprick. Central nervous system depression may be characterized by delayed reflexes, lethargy,
or coma. It may result from a variety of causes, including certain drugs, certain metabolic disorders, or
asphyxia.
Cephalhematoma: Also called cephalohematoma. Hematoma under the periosteum of the skull and
limited to one cranial bone (does not cross suture lines) of the newborn. It is usually seen following
prolonged labor and difficult delivery, but may also occur with uncomplicated birth. Delivery with
forceps or vacuum extraction increases the risk of occurrence.
Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD): See Fetopelvic disproportion.
Cerclage of the cervix: The procedure of placing a suture around the cervix to prevent it from dilating
prematurely. There are several different techniques for placing the suture. Cervical cerclage is used as a
treatment for incompetent cervix.
Cervix: The lower, narrow end of the uterus, which opens into the vagina.
Cesarean delivery: Surgical delivery of the fetus through an abdominal incision. The uterine incision may
be classical (vertical, cutting through both the contractile and non-contractile segments) or confined to
the non-contractile lower uterine segment (either vertical or transverse incision).
Chest compressions: Artificial pumping of blood through the heart by a bellows effect created from
intermittent compression of the sternum, over the heart, during resuscitation.
Chickenpox: See Varicella-zoster virus.
Chlamydia: A type of microorganism with several species. Capable of producing a variety of illnesses,
including eye infection, pneumonia, and infection of the genitourinary tract.
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Choanal atresia: Congenital blockage of the nasal airway. Because babies breathe mainly through
their noses, a baby with choanal atresia will have severe respiratory distress at birth. The immediate
treatment is insertion of an oral airway. Surgical repair when the baby is stable is required for permanent
correction.
Chorioamnionitis: Inflammation of the fetal membranes, also known as intra-amniotic infection, or IAI.
The fetus may also become infected.
Chorion: Fetal membrane that surrounds the amnion, but is separate from it, and lies against the
decidual lining of the uterine cavity (endometrium). During embryonic development, the chorion gives
rise to the placenta.
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS): A highly specialized technique in which a tiny portion of the chorionic
villi, which contain the same genetic material as the fetus, is obtained in a manner similar to a needle
biopsy. The cells obtained may be analyzed for chromosomal defects. Chorionic villus sampling may
be done as early as 10 weeks’ gestation, with preliminary results available within as little as 2 days,
allowing earlier and more rapid detection of chromosomal disorders than is possible with amniocentesis.
The incidence of complications is similar to the risks associated with amniocentesis.
Chromosome: The material (DNA protein) in each body cell that contains the genes, or information
regarding hereditary factors. Each normal cell contains 46 chromosomes. Each chromosome contains
numerous genes. A baby acquires one-half of chromosomes from the mother and one-half from the
father. A chromosomal defect results from an abnormal number of chromosomes or structural damage
to the chromosomes. Example: Each cell in the body of a baby with Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
contains 47 instead of 46 chromosomes.
Chronic lung disease (CLD): See Bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
Circulatory system: The system that carries blood through the body and consists of the heart and blood
vessels. The systemic circulatory system carries blood to and from the head, arms, legs, trunk, and
all body organs except the lungs. The pulmonary circulatory system carries blood to the lungs, where
carbon dioxide is released and oxygen is collected, and returns the oxygenated blood to the systemic
circulatory system.
Cirrhosis: Chronic degeneration of the hepatic cells, replacing them with fibrosis and nodular tissue and
resulting in liver failure. Chronic hepatitis and alcoholism are common causes.
CLD: Chronic lung disease. See Bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
CMV: See Cytomegalovirus.
Coagulation: The process of blood clot formation.
Colon: The large intestine, which is between the small intestine and rectum.
Colonization: Persistent, asymptomatic presence of bacteria in a particular area of the body. If symptoms
develop, it becomes an infection. Example: Many women have vaginal or rectal colonization with group
B b-hemolytic streptococci but are entirely without symptoms, although maternal group B b-hemolytic
streptococci colonization poses a risk for life-threatening neonatal infection.
Compliance (of lung): Refers to elastic properties of the lungs. Babies with certain lung diseases have
decreased compliance (stiff lungs) and thus cannot expand their lungs well during inhalation.
Comprehensive ultrasound: Detailed ultrasound examination designed to review all parts of fetal anatomy.
Done when congenital malformations are suspected.
Condyloma: Warty growth of skin in the genital area caused by human papillomavirus.
Congenital: Refers to conditions that are present at birth, regardless of cause. Congenital defects may re-
sult from a variety of causes, including genetic factors, chromosomal factors, diseases affecting the preg-
nant woman, and drugs taken by the woman. The cause, however, of most congenital defects is un-
known. Note: Congenital and hereditary are not synonymous. Congenital means present at birth.
Hereditary means the genetic transmission from parent to child of a particular trait, which may be the
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trait for a specific inheritable disease and associated malformations. Some defects are congenital and
hereditary, but many are simply congenital with no genetic link.
Congenital rubella syndrome: A group of congenital anomalies resulting from an intrauterine rubella
infection. Anomalies commonly include cataracts, heart defects, deafness, microcephaly (abnormally
small head), and intellectual disability.
Congestive heart failure: A condition that develops when the heart cannot pump as much blood as it
receives. As a result, fluid backs up into the lungs and other tissues, causing edema and respiratory
distress. Congestive heart failure may result from a diseased or malformed heart, severe lung disease, or
too much fluid given to the patient.
Conjugation of bilirubin: Process that occurs in the liver and combines bilirubin with another chemical
so it may be removed from the blood and pass out of the body in the feces. Failure of bilirubin conjuga-
tion is one cause of jaundice.
Conjunctivitis: Inflammation of the membrane that covers the eye and lines the eyelids. Certain genital
tract infections, particularly Chlamydia and gonorrhea, in a pregnant woman can cause severe conjuncti-
vitis and eye damage in a newborn, unless proper neonatal treatment is given.
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP): A steady pressure delivered to the lungs by means of a
special apparatus or mechanical ventilator. Continuous positive airway pressure may be used for babies
with respiratory distress syndrome to prevent alveoli from collapsing during expiration.
Contraction stress test (CST): Termed oxytocin challenge test when oxytocin is used to induce contrac-
tions. A brief period of uterine contractions (either spontaneous or induced with nipple stimulation or
intravenous oxytocin administration) during which the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions are
monitored with an external monitor. It is a test used in certain high-risk pregnancies to assess fetal
well-being.
Coombs test: Test to determine the presence of antibodies in blood or on red blood cells. There are
2 forms of the test. The direct Coombs test detects antibodies attached to the red blood cells; the indirect
Coombs test detects antibodies within the serum. Example: The direct test is used to detect antibodies
present on the red blood cells of Rh-positive babies born to Rh-negative sensitized women. The indirect
test is used on a woman’s blood to detect antibodies to fetal Rh-positive cells. See also Antibody screen-
ing test.
Cord presentation: Also referred to as funic presentation. A situation in which the umbilical cord lies
against the membranes over the cervix, beneath the fetal presenting part. This poses a risk for cord
injury or prolapse when the membranes rupture.
Cordocentesis: See Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling.
Corticosteroids: Refers to any of the steroids of the adrenal cortex. Betamethasone and dexamethasone
are artificially prepared steroids that may be given to a woman to speed up the process of lung matura-
tion in her fetus when preterm delivery is unavoidable.
COVID-19: Coronavirus disease 2019, the clinical illness caused by infection with SARS-CoV-2
(severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2), a novel coronavirus that caused a global pandemic
beginning in late 2019.
CPAP: See Continuous positive airway pressure.
CPD: Cephalopelvic disproportion. See Fetopelvic disproportion.
Creatinine: A chemical in the blood excreted in urine and used as an indication of renal function.
Cryoprecipitate: A concentrated form of plasma. In a much smaller volume, it contains fibrinogen, coag-
ulation factor VIII, and some, but not all, of the other coagulation factors found in fresh frozen plasma.
Used in the treatment of severe disseminated intravascular coagulation.
CST: See Contraction stress test.
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changes in pressure that occur within the circulatory system once placental circulation is eliminated,
blood may flow from the aorta into the pulmonary artery, resulting in too much blood directed to the
lungs. This may cause congestive heart failure in the baby.
Dusky: See Cyanosis.
Dye test: In perinatal care, this usually refers to a test done to determine if the amniotic membranes are
ruptured. There is no indication for a dye test unless there is reason to suspect that rupture of mem-
branes has occurred, other tests are negative, and the diagnosis of ruptured membranes will affect clini-
cal management. Amniocentesis is done under ultrasound guidance. If indicated, a sample of amniotic
fluid is withdrawn for testing. A dye, usually indigo carmine, is then introduced through the amniocente-
sis needle. A sterile gauze pad (4 3 4 in) is placed high in the woman’s vagina. If no dye appears on the
pad after 20 to 30 minutes of sitting or walking, it is most likely that the membranes are intact and have
not ruptured.
Dyspnea: Difficult breathing, labored. This may accompany any variety of disease states or be a result of
physical exertion in a healthy person.
Dystocia: Difficult labor. (1) Uterine: Abnormal labor, particularly prolonged. Used to refer to weak or
ineffective uterine contractions. Usually used to describe a labor that has ceased progressing such that a
cesarean delivery is necessary. (2) Shoulder: Situation in which the shoulders of a baby in vertex presen-
tation become trapped after delivery of the head. This is an emergency, requiring immediate intervention
to avoid severe fetal hypoxia.
ECG: See electrocardiograph.
Eclampsia: Term used to describe the condition in which convulsions or coma develop in a pregnant
or postpartum woman with pregnancy-related hypertension. The condition of preeclampsia becomes
eclampsia whenever seizures or coma develop.
EDD: Estimated date of delivery. See Pregnancy due date.
Edema: Swelling due to an excessive amount of fluid in the tissues.
Effacement: The process of thinning of the cervix prior to and after the onset of labor.
Electrocardiograph: Also called electrocardiogram, electronic cardiac monitor. A device used for
recording the heart’s electrical activity.
Electrolyte: A substance that dissociates into ions when in solution (and thereby makes the solution
capable of conducting electricity). Commonly refers to sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate
in blood.
Embolus: A blood clot or other plug (eg, an air bubble) carried by the blood from a larger to smaller
blood vessel, where it lodges and obstructs the blood flow. Plural: emboli.
Embryo: Term used for the product of conception, from the time a fertilized egg is implanted until all
major structures and organs are defined. In humans, this is the first 8 weeks of development after con-
ception (10 weeks after the last menstrual period). After 8 weeks and until birth, the term fetus is used.
Endocrine system: Refers to organs that release hormones into the blood.
Endometritis: Infection of inner lining of the uterine cavity, the endometrium.
Engagement, engaged: Term applied during late pregnancy or in labor that indicates that the largest
diameter of the presenting part is at or below the smallest diameter of the pelvis. Usually the presenting
part is the fetal head, which is said to be engaged when a vaginal examination reveals the head to be at
or below the ischial spines.
Environmental oxygen: See Inspired oxygen.
Epidural: A technique for providing anesthesia during labor. A hollow needle is inserted between 2 verte-
brae in the woman’s spine, and a catheter is threaded through the needle and into the epidural space of
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the spinal column. A local anesthetic is then injected through the catheter into the epidural space. This
eliminates all sensation for the nerve roots that the drug contacts. The greater the volume of anesthetic
medication injected, the greater the number of nerve roots affected and, therefore, the larger the area of
body that is anesthetized. By anesthetizing only some of the spinal nerve roots, epidural anesthesia pro-
vides pain relief during labor but, at the same time, may also permit walking. As with spinal anesthesia,
the anesthetic medication also blocks the sympathetic nerves leaving the spinal cord. Because of this,
blood pressure of the woman may decline and requires careful monitoring. (For this reason, a loading
dose of 500–1,000 mL of physiologic [normal] saline solution may be given intravenously prior to intro-
duction of the anesthetic.)
Epigastric: Area immediately below the tip of the sternum in the center of the upper abdomen. Pain felt
here is usually related to liver or gallbladder disease. Of most importance in pregnant women with
preeclampsia, the onset of epigastric pain indicates swelling of the liver capsule. This often precedes the
onset of the first convulsion of eclampsia.
Epiglottis: The flap of cartilage that overlies the larynx. The epiglottis is open during breathing and
closes over the larynx during swallowing to prevent food from entering the trachea.
Epinephrine: A natural body hormone that is released by adrenal glands into the blood during stress. It
may also be used as a drug during resuscitation to constrict blood vessels and increase blood pressure,
and to increase heart rate and volume of blood pumped.
Erb palsy: The most common form of brachial plexus nerve injury in newborns.
Erythema: Redness of the skin produced by dilation of the smallest blood vessels. Example: The redness
that occurs around an infected wound.
Erythroblastosis fetalis: Hemolytic anemia resulting from the passage of antibodies between the pregnant
woman and the fetus across the placenta during pregnancy. Red blood cell alloantibodies may develop in
a woman when fetal red blood cells enter the maternal circulation during a prior pregnancy (most com-
monly at the time of delivery), or as a result of a blood transfusion (less common). The placenta transfers
immunoglobulin G antibodies from mother to fetus during pregnancy. If the fetal red blood cells exhibit
the specific antigen to which the mother has an alloantibody, the interaction between the antibody and
antigen leads to breakdown (hemolysis) of the fetal red blood cells. As the fetal blood-forming organs
produce red blood cells more rapidly than normal to replace those undergoing hemolysis, immature fetal
red blood cells (erythroblasts) are released into the fetal circulation. The consequences of untreated fetal
hemolytic anemia can include fetal hydrops and stillbirth.
Esophagus: The muscular tube that connects the throat and stomach.
Etiology: The cause of anything. Example: Sepsis may be the etiology of hyperbilirubinemia in a
newborn.
Exchange transfusion: Process during which a baby’s blood is removed and replaced with donor blood
so that when the exchange transfusion is completed, most of the baby’s blood has been replaced by
donor blood. Most often, exchange transfusions are used as a treatment for severe hyperbilirubinemia.
Expiration: (1) Period during the breathing cycle when the person is breathing out or exhaling.
(2) The end of a period of usefulness, validity, or effectiveness, such as the expiration date for a
product or medication, after which time the item should not be used. (3) Death.
Face presentation: The face is the presenting part. The chin (mentum) is the reference point, and it may
rotate either anteriorly (mentum anterior), in which case vaginal delivery is likely if the pelvis is normal
in size, or posteriorly. When the chin rotates posteriorly into the hollow of the sacrum (mentum poste-
rior), vaginal delivery is impossible unless the forces of labor or use of obstetric forceps are successful in
rotating the chin to the anterior position. Cesarean delivery is usually performed for mentum posterior
position.
FAD: See Fetal activity determination.
FAE: See Fetal alcohol effects.
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Familial: Used to describe a disease or defect that affects more members of a family than would be
expected by chance.
FAS: See Fetal alcohol syndrome.
Fat, brown: Fat tissue that has a rich blood and nerve supply. Babies have proportionally more brown
fat than do adults and metabolize or “burn” it as their main source of heat production, while adults
produce heat mainly by shivering. Extra oxygen and calories are used when brown fat is metabolized.
Fat, white: Type of fat that has few blood vessels and appears whitish. It is used mainly for insulation
and as a reserve supply of energy and is not nearly as metabolically active as brown fat.
Fatty acids: Substances resulting from the breakdown of fat. Fatty acids decrease binding of bilirubin to
albumin, thus increasing the chance of brain damage from hyperbilirubinemia.
Femoral pulse: Pulse felt in the groin, over the femoral artery.
Fern test: A test for amniotic fluid in the vagina, used when rupture of membranes is suspected. When
there is a pool of fluid in the vagina, a drop of it is smeared on a glass slide and allowed to dry in the
air. Salt content of the amniotic fluid will dry in a typical pattern, resembling a fern, while other fluids
(eg, urine) will not. If a fern pattern is seen, the membranes are ruptured.
Fetal activity determination (FAD): A noninvasive means to monitor fetal well-being that may be used by
either low- or high-risk pregnant women. Approximately 80% of gross fetal movements observed on
ultrasound are felt by the pregnant woman. Beginning at approximately 28 weeks’ gestation, a pregnant
woman records fetal activity daily according to one of several accepted protocols. Any significant
decrease in activity warrants prompt (the same day) investigation of fetal condition.
Fetal alcohol effects (FAE): The effects of maternal alcohol ingestion during pregnancy may be seen in a
baby without the baby having all the findings typical of fetal alcohol syndrome.
Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS): Constellation of findings, including intellectual disability, that may occur
in fetuses of women who ingest alcohol during pregnancy, especially early in gestation.
Fetal echocardiogram: An ultrasonographic technique that shows movements of the walls and valves of
the beating heart of a fetus. Certain valvular and other abnormalities of the fetal heart may be seen.
Used only when there is some reason to suspect that the fetus may have an abnormal heart.
Fetal heart rate, baseline: Approximate average fetal heart rate during any 10-minute period that is free
of accelerations, decelerations, and marked variability (.25 beats/min). The reference baseline range is
between 110 and 160 beats/min.
Fetal heart rate acceleration: Abrupt increase (at least 15 beats/min) in fetal heart rate (onset to peak rate
occurs in ,30 seconds) that lasts at least 15 seconds but less than 2 minutes.
Fetal heart rate deceleration: A decrease in the fetal heart rate that then returns to baseline. There are
3 types of decelerations (early, late, and variable), which are defined by their shape and relationship to
uterine contractions.
Fetal heart rate variability: Fluctuations in baseline fetal heart rate that are irregular in amplitude and
frequency. Visual inspection is used to classify the peak-to-trough beats per minute difference as absent
(no detectable change from baseline), minimal (fluctuation of #5 beats/min), moderate (fluctuation of
6–25 beats/min), or marked (fluctuation of $25 beats/min).
Fetal lung maturity: Analysis of a sample of amniotic fluid for the presence of surfactant components.
The lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio is one such test. See also Pulmonary maturity.
Fetal membranes: The amnion and chorion.
Fetal monitoring, external: Refers to continuous electronic monitoring using a device strapped to the
woman’s abdomen to detect the fetal heart rate, periodic rate changes, and timing of the uterine
contractions.
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Fetal monitoring, internal: Refers to continuous electronic monitoring using a wire attached to the fetal
presenting part to detect fetal heart rate and a pressure transducer placed inside the uterus to detect
onset and intensity of uterine contractions.
Fetal pole: A term used to describe the appearance of either end of the fetal body when the fetus is so
small the head cannot be distinguished from the breech.
Fetopelvic disproportion (FPD): Condition in which the internal size of the maternal pelvis is too small
or the fetal head is too large to allow vaginal delivery. Because exact measurements of the fetal head and
maternal pelvis cannot be made, this is a relative term.
Fetoscope: A specially constructed stethoscope used to listen to fetal heart rate.
Fetus: After development of organ systems (after the first 8 weeks from conception/10 weeks from the
last menstrual period), an embryo is called a fetus until delivery.
Fio2: Fractional inspired oxygen. The percentage of oxygen being inhaled. An environmental oxygen
concentration of 55% may also be written Fio2 5 55%. The Fio2 of room air is 21%.
Flaccid: Limp.
Flexion: Bending of a body part. Example: Flexion of the arm occurs when the elbow is bent. By contrast,
extension means the straightening of a body part.
Flip-flop phenomenon: Flip flop is caused by lowering the environmental oxygen concentration too
rapidly, or allowing a baby requiring oxygen therapy to breathe room air for even a short period. In
response, the arteries to the lungs constrict, thus limiting the amount of blood that can be oxygenated in
the lungs. The baby then requires an environmental oxygen concentration even higher than that breathed
previously to achieve the same arterial blood oxygen concentration.
Foramen ovale: The opening between the 2 upper chambers (atria) of the heart in the fetus. It consists of
redundant tissue in the interatrial wall that results in a functional closure of the opening when left atrial
pressure exceeds right atrial pressure shortly after birth.
Forceps: Obstetric forceps are 2 metal instruments, made in mirror image of each other, curved laterally
to follow the shape of the fetal head and vertically to fit the curve of the maternal pelvis. Used to assist
vaginal delivery of the fetal head and shorten the second stage of labor, for either maternal or fetal
reasons. They are made in a variety of sizes and shapes, including forceps designed to help deliver the
after-coming head in breech presentations. When forceps are used, the delivery is classified as midforceps,
low forceps, or outlet forceps, depending on fetal station and position when the forceps are applied.
FPD: See Fetopelvic disproportion.
Fundal height: During pregnancy, the fundus of the uterus can be felt higher and higher in the maternal
abdomen. The distance between the fundus and symphysis pubis (front pelvic bone) is the fundal height.
It is used as an estimate of gestational age of the fetus. Consistency in the technique used (preferably by
the same examiner) throughout pregnancy is important for accurate results.
Fundus: The broad top two-thirds of the uterus.
Gastroschisis: A defect of the abdominal wall during embryonic development, allowing abdominal or-
gans to protrude into amniotic fluid. As opposed to omphalocele, no peritoneal sac covers the organs
with gastroschisis.
GBS: See Group B b-hemolytic streptococcus.
GDM: Gestational diabetes mellitus. See Diabetes, gestational.
General inhalation anesthesia: An anesthetic technique that produces loss of consciousness. The patient is
usually given barbiturates or narcotics to induce anesthesia, followed by paralyzing drugs, endotracheal
intubation, and artificial ventilation. Anesthetic gases are used to continue the anesthetic state until the
surgical procedure is completed. Because the gases are quickly cleared from the blood by the lungs, the
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patient “wakes up” within a few minutes after the anesthetic gases are stopped. With this type of anes-
thesia, the drugs and gases used can cross the placenta and may depress a fetus. Anesthesia provided
to an obstetric patient must consider the unique physiological state of a pregnant woman as well as the
potential effect drugs given to her may have on the fetus.
Geneticist: A physician who specializes in knowing how genes are inherited by children from their
parents and the association between certain genetic abnormalities and specific physical characteristics.
Genitourinary tract: Pertaining to the reproductive organs and urinary organs.
Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM): See Diabetes, gestational.
Glottis: The vocal cords and opening between them that leads to the trachea.
Glucose tolerance test (GTT): A test for abnormal glucose metabolism. A fasting patient is given a stan-
dard dose of glucose orally, with the blood level of glucose determined at standard intervals.
Glycogen: Main storage form of glucose in the body. It is changed to glucose and released to the
bloodstream as needed.
Glycosylated hemoglobin (hemoglobin A1C): Reflects circulating blood glucose for the previous 3 months.
It is used as an indicator of long-term glucose control.
Gonorrheal ophthalmia, neonatal: Eye infection in newborns that results from gonorrhea bacteria
acquired by a baby during the birth process, if the woman has gonorrhea. Silver nitrate drops or
erythromycin ointment placed in the baby’s eyes shortly after delivery prevents the development of this
potentially damaging infection.
Gram stain: A specific stain for bacteria that separates gram-positive bacteria (which stain blue) from
gram-negative bacteria (which stain red). These 2 categories of bacteria vary in the types of disease they
cause and their antibiotic sensitivity. Gram stain of an infected body fluid (eg, urine, pus, amniotic fluid)
may identify the type of organism causing the infection and allow appropriate antibiotic therapy to
begin before culture and sensitivity studies can be completed.
Gravidity: Number of pregnancies a woman has had, regardless of pregnancy outcome. With her first
pregnancy, a woman is a primigravida. With her second pregnancy, a woman is, technically, a secundi-
gravida, and with her third or subsequent pregnancies, a multigravida. In practice, however, secundigrav-
ida is rarely used and multigravida is used to refer to any woman with her second, or subsequent,
pregnancy. See also Parity.
Group B b-hemolytic streptococcus (GBS): A type of streptococcal bacteria that can cause serious or
fatal neonatal illness. Some women, without evidence of infection, have chronic GBS vaginal or rectal
colonization, which may infect the fetus before delivery or the baby at the time of delivery.
Growth restriction: Describes fetuses that, on serial examination, are significantly smaller than would be
expected, with their growth falling below the 10th percentile for their gestational age.
Grunting: A sign of respiratory distress in a neonate. The grunt or whine occurs during expiration as a
result of the baby exhaling against a partially closed glottis. The baby grunts in an attempt to trap air
in the lungs and hold open the alveoli. Grunting sometimes may be normal immediately following birth;
after 1 to 2 hours it is always abnormal.
GTT: See Glucose tolerance test.
HBIG: Hepatitis B immune globulin. Administration of HBIG soon after delivery is part of the treatment
for newborns whose mothers are hepatitis B surface antigen–positive (test for hepatitis B).
HBsAg: See Hepatitis B surface antigen.
HCT: See Hematocrit.
Heart murmur, functional: A heart murmur that does not result from disease or an abnormality of the
heart. A functional heart murmur is not associated with abnormal functioning of the heart.
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HELLP syndrome: Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count occurring in association with
preeclampsia. An uncommon and severe form of pregnancy-related hypertension.
Hematocrit (Hct): A blood test showing the percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. Example: An
Hct of 40 means that 40% of the blood is red blood cells and 60% is plasma and other cells.
Hemoglobin (Hgb): (1) Blood test showing the concentration of Hgb in blood. (2) Oxygen-carrying part
of red blood cells.
Hemoglobinopathy: A genetic disorder that causes a change in the molecular structure of hemoglobin in
the red blood cells and results in certain typical laboratory and clinical changes, frequently including
anemia. Sickle cell disease is one type of hemoglobinopathy.
Hemolysis: Breakdown of red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia, therefore, is anemia that results from the
destruction of red blood cells, rather than loss of blood or inadequate production of red blood cells.
Hemorrhage: Bleeding; most often used to indicate severe bleeding.
Heparin lock: A technique used to prevent blood clot formation in an arterial or venous catheter, when a
continuous infusion of fluids is not being used. A solution of intravenous fluids with a specific concentra-
tion of heparin is flushed through the catheter and then the stopcock is closed to the catheter.
Hepatitis: Serious inflammation of the liver usually caused by a viral infection. There are several forms
of hepatitis, depending on the specific causative agent and mode of transmission. Infection may be acute
or chronic.
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg): Term for protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus. Screening
all prenatal patients for this antigen identifies women who are carriers for hepatitis B, and therefore at
risk for passing the virus to their fetuses before birth. Such newborns should be given hepatitis B immune
globulin and hepatitis B vaccine soon after birth.
Hepatosplenomegaly: Enlargement of the liver and spleen.
Hereditary: Used to describe a condition that is transmitted by the genes, from parents to their children.
Example: Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease, and eye color is a hereditary trait.
Heredity: Genetic transmission from parent to child of traits and characteristics. Example: A baby with
brown eyes can be said to have that color of eyes as part of his or her heredity.
Herpes: Refers to diseases caused by herpesvirus. Maternal herpes may have serious consequences for
the newborn.
Hgb: See Hemoglobin.
HIE: See Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy.
HIV: The virus that causes AIDS, which attacks and eventually overcomes the body’s immune system.
HPV: Human papillomavirus.
Hyaline membrane disease: Older name for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome.
Hydatidiform mole: A pregnancy characterized by grossly abnormal development of the chorionic villi,
which eventually form a mass of cysts. Usually, but not always, no fetus is present. Excessive secretion
from the trophoblast cells leads to very high levels of b-human chorionic gonadotropin. Vaginal bleeding
during the first trimester is common and may be the presenting sign. Uterine size does not usually corre-
spond to expected size for the dates of a pregnancy: larger than expected in about 50% of cases and
smaller than expected in about 30% of cases.
Hydramnios: Also called polyhydramnios. Abnormally large amount of amniotic fluid. It may be associ-
ated with fetal abnormalities (particularly gastrointestinal tract abnormalities that prevent amniotic fluid
from being swallowed into the gastrointestinal tract of the fetus) or certain maternal medical illnesses;
however, in most cases, the cause of hydramnios is unknown.
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Hydrocephalus: Enlargement of the head due to abnormally large collection of cerebrospinal fluid in the
brain. It may be congenital or acquired after birth. Accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid may be caused
by a blockage in the normal flow of fluid around the brain and spinal cord or by a decrease in the
normal absorption of the fluid.
Hydrops fetalis: Edema in the entire body of a fetus, accompanied by at least one effusion in a body
cavity (pleural, pericardial, or peritoneal). Usually a result of severe hemolytic anemia caused by Rh dis-
ease or other alloimmunizations, but may (rarely) be caused by certain other serious in utero conditions
or viral infections. In many cases the cause for hydrops is not clear.
Hyperbilirubinemia: Excess amount of bilirubin in the blood.
Hyperbilirubinemia, physiological: Hyperbilirubinemia due to a baby’s immature liver, which has a
limited ability to excrete bilirubin from the body, rather than hyperbilirubinemia due to a disease
process such as ABO incompatibility.
Hyperkalemia: High blood potassium level.
Hypernatremia: High blood sodium level.
Hyperosmolar: Used to describe a liquid with a higher concentration of particles than found in a physio-
logical fluid. For example, an intravenous solution may be hyperosmolar compared to blood, or formula
may be hyperosmolar compared to human (breast) milk.
Hypertension: High blood pressure. In adults, generally defined as higher than 130/80 mm Hg.
Hyperthermia: High body temperature; fever. In adults, generally defined as greater than or equal to
38.0°C (100.4°F).
Hypertonic: Used to describe a solution that is more concentrated than body fluid and therefore will
draw water out of the body’s cells, causing the cells to shrink.
Hypocalcemia: Low blood calcium level.
Hypoglycemia: Low blood glucose level.
Hypotension: Low blood pressure.
Hypothermia: Low body temperature.
Hypovolemia: Low blood volume.
Hypoxemia: Low concentration of oxygen in the arterial blood.
Hypoxia: A deficiency of oxygen and perfusion in the body tissues resulting in compromised metabolism
and injured tissue.
Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (HIE): Neonatal brain injury that presents at birth and is caused by a
newborn experiencing a hypoxic and/or ischemic event around the time of delivery.
IAI: See Intra-amniotic infection.
Icterus: See Jaundice.
Ileitis: Inflammation of the ileum, the distal portion of the small bowel (between the jejunum and
cecum). Usually represents Crohn disease, a chronic inflammation of the intestinal tract, most often
affecting the terminal ileum (may also involve the colon). Cause is unknown, complications are frequent
(eg, abscess, obstruction, fistula formation), and recurrence after treatment is common.
Ileus: Obstruction of the intestines. Commonly used to refer to a dynamic or functional ileus in which
there is an absence of peristalsis resulting from postsurgical inhibition of bowel motility but frequently
not associated with a mechanical blockage of the intestines.
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP): A disease of unknown cause in which the body destroys its
own platelets, causing thrombocytopenia and resulting in coagulation disorders and easy bruising. The
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fetus of a woman with ITP may also have thrombocytopenia. Formerly called idiopathic thrombocytope-
nic purpura.
In utero: Latin for “inside the uterus.”
In utero resuscitation: Term applied to measures taken to improve fetal oxygenation when there is a
non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern during labor. These measures include provision of 100% oxygen
by mask to the woman, correction of maternal hypotension (turn woman on her side or from one side
to the other, give fluids, or elevate legs), and reduction of uterine activity (stop oxytocin; consider use of
tocolytics).
Incompetent cervix: A condition in which the cervix (lower part of the uterus and entrance to the birth
canal) dilates prematurely, causing a spontaneous abortion or preterm delivery. A woman with an incom-
petent cervix is at risk for a preterm delivery with each pregnancy. See also Cerclage of the cervix.
Infant death rate: Number of babies that die within the first year after birth (365 days) per 1,000 live births.
Infective endocarditis: An infectious inflammatory process in which the infecting bacteria form growths
on the heart valves or endocardium. The process may have an acute or subacute course. Diagnosis is usu-
ally made during the subacute, longer-lasting stage. Heart tissue is permanently damaged, and the infec-
tion can be difficult or impossible to treat effectively. Patients with heart valve malformations are particu-
larly prone to developing these infective growths on the abnormal valves and surrounding endocardium.
Inferior vena cava: The major vein returning blood from the lower body to the right side of the heart.
Infiltration of intravenous fluids: Occurs when an intravenous catheter or needle in a peripheral vein
perforates the wall of the vein and the intravenous fluids infuse into the surrounding tissue instead of
bloodstream. Swelling and tenderness develop near the tip of the catheter. An infiltrated intravenous
catheter should be removed immediately because some intravenous fluids can cause severe tissue damage.
Infusion pump: A machine used to push fluid at a controlled, preset rate into an artery or vein. All
neonatal infusions should use a pump so the volume infused can be controlled precisely. Some pumps
infuse fluids by means of small, regular pulses, while other pumps, particularly syringe pumps, infuse
continuously.
INH: Isoniazid hydrazide. Generic name for an antituberculosis medication.
Insensible water loss: Body fluid lost through the skin and respiratory passages.
Inspired oxygen: The oxygen concentration that is being inhaled (not the concentration in the blood).
Also called environmental oxygen.
Intra-amniotic infection (IAI): Formerly known as chorioamnionitis, or infection of the fetal membranes,
which puts the fetus at risk for also becoming infected with the same organism.
Intra-arterial infusion: An infusion of fluid into an artery (eg, via a peripheral or an umbilical arterial
catheter).
Intracardiac: Inside the heart.
Intrapartum: Period of pregnancy during labor.
Intrauterine: Inside the uterus.
Intubation, endotracheal: Insertion of a hollow tube (endotracheal tube) into the trachea to suction for-
eign matter, such as meconium, from the trachea or deliver air or oxygen under pressure directly into the
lungs by assisted ventilation.
Iron: A mineral important for the formation of red blood cells. Iron deficiency is a common cause
of anemia.
Isosmolar: Of the same particle concentration as body fluid.
ITP: See Immune thrombocytopenic purpura.
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229
Meningomyelocele: Congenital defect of the spinal column. Part of the spinal cord and surrounding
membranes protrude through an opening in the spine and form a sac on the baby’s back. The sac may be
large or small, and located anywhere along the baby’s spine. There may be various degrees of neurologic
impairment occurring below the level of the meningomyelocele. It may be detected in the fetus by assess-
ment of maternal serum alpha fetoprotein.
Metabolism: All the physical and chemical processes that produce and maintain body tissue.
Methimazole: A mercaptol-imidazole compound used to treat hyperthyroidism.
MFM: See Maternal-fetal medicine.
Morbidity: Any complication or damage that results from an illness.
Mortality: Death.
Motility: Movement.
MSAFP: Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein. See Alpha fetoprotein.
Multifetal gestation: More than one fetus. Multifetal gestation may be used to describe a pregnancy
involving twins, triplets, quadruplets, quintuplets, or more.
Multigravida: Precise term for a pregnant woman who has had 2 or more previous pregnancies.
Commonly used, however, to refer to a pregnant woman who has had one or more previous pregnancies.
(Secundigravida is the precise term for a woman in her second pregnancy.)
MVP: See Maximum vertical pocket.
Myometrium: The muscular wall of the uterus.
Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan): A drug that counteracts the depressant effects of narcotics. Naloxone
may be given to a depressed baby whose mother received narcotic pain medication shortly before deliv-
ery. Adequate oxygenation with assisted ventilation, as necessary, should be provided before time is
taken to give this drug. Naloxone should be used with caution if maternal drug addiction is suspected.
Narcan: See Naloxone hydrochloride.
NAS: See Neonatal abstinence syndrome.
Nasal flaring: A sign of neonatal respiratory distress. Edges of the nostrils fan outward as the baby
inhales.
Nasogastric tube: A pliable tube that is inserted through the baby’s nose, down the esophagus, and into
the stomach. It is used for feeding or to decompress the stomach by intermittent or constant suctioning
of air or gastric juices out of the stomach.
NEC: See Necrotizing enterocolitis.
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC): A serious disease in which sections of the intestines are injured and may
die. Medical treatment may result in complete resolution, but in some cases portions of the intestines
must be surgically removed. It occurs more often in preterm infants, but the cause is unclear.
Neonatal: Refers to the time period from delivery through the first 28 days.
Neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS): Constellation of findings, including jitteriness, irritability,
hypertonia, seizures, sneezing, tachycardia, difficulty with feedings, or diarrhea, often occurring in babies
born to women who used heroin or methadone during pregnancy. These findings result from the baby’s
sudden withdrawal from maternal drugs following delivery.
Neonate: Baby from birth through the first 28 days of age.
Neonatal opioid withdrawal syndrome (NOWS): A condition that results from newborns being exposed
to opioids in the womb. NOWS symptoms can include tremors, excessive crying and irritability, and
problems with sleeping, feeding, and breathing.
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Neonatologist: A pediatrician who specializes in caring for newborns, particularly at-risk and sick
babies.
Nephrosis: General term used for any noninfectious disease of the kidney.
Neural tube defect: Used to describe any congenital defect in the brain or spinal cord (structures
that developed from the neural tube of the embryo), including anencephaly, encephalocele, and
meningomyelocele.
Neutral thermal environment: The very narrow environmental temperature range that keeps a baby’s
body temperature normal, with the baby having to use the least amount of calories and oxygen to
produce heat.
Nitrazine: Trade name for phenaphthazine.
Nonhemolytic jaundice: Hyperbilirubinemia not resulting from an excessive breakdown of red
blood cells.
Nonmaleficence: Avoiding harm to a patient.
Nonstress test (NST): One of several measures used to assess fetal well-being in high-risk pregnancies,
during which spontaneous fetal heart rate accelerations in relation to fetal activity are monitored with
an external electronic monitor. The pregnant woman is resting during the procedure and receives no
medication.
NOWS: See Neonatal opioid withdrawal syndrome.
NST: See Nonstress test.
OCT: Oxytocin challenge test. See Contraction stress test.
Oligohydramnios: An abnormally low amount of amniotic fluid. It may be associated with abnormalities
of the fetal kidney, ureter, or urethra (fetal urine is the primary component of amniotic fluid); certain fe-
tal chromosomal defects; fetal growth restriction; uteroplacental insufficiency; positional deformities
(due to prolonged uterine pressure in the absence of a fluid cushion); and umbilical cord compression
(particularly during labor). Oligohydramnios may also result from early, prolonged rupture of membranes.
Omphalocele: A congenital opening in the abdominal wall allowing the abdominal organs, covered with
a peritoneal membrane, to protrude and form a sac outside the abdominal cavity. See also Gastroschisis.
Ophthalmia: General term for any disease of the eye.
Oral airway: A device that allows babies with blocked nasal passages to breathe through their mouths. It
is inserted into the mouth and keeps the tongue forward, preventing it from obstructing the airway.
Orogastric tube: A pliable tube that is inserted through the baby’s mouth, down the esophagus, and into
the stomach. It is used for the same purposes as a nasogastric tube.
Orthopnea: Shortness of breath while lying down. It is usually caused by heart or lung failure and is
characterized by the patient sitting up to sleep.
Osmolarity: Concentration of particles in a solution. Synonymous with osmolality.
Ovulation: Release of an egg, ready for fertilization, from an ovary.
Ovum: Female reproductive cell that, after fertilization and implantation, becomes an embryo.
Oximeter: A device that reads the color of blood and reports the percentage saturation of hemoglobin
with oxygen (Spo2). The probe of an oximeter emits a light that is sensed by a detector. See also Pulse
oximetry.
Oxygen hood: Also called oxyhood. A small plastic box with a neck space designed to fit over a baby’s
head and allow precise control of a baby’s inspired (environmental) oxygen concentration.
Oxyhemoglobin saturation: Hemoglobin is the oxygen-carrying component of red blood cells. The
amount of oxygen attached to hemoglobin is measured as percent saturation and called oxyhemoglobin
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saturation (commonly shortened to “% sat” or “O2 sat”). The degree of saturation can range from
0% to 100%.
Oxytocin: A hormone occurring naturally in the body and also used to induce labor, enhance weak
labor contractions, and cause contraction of the uterus after delivery of the placenta.
Oxytocin challenge test (OCT): See Contraction stress test.
Paco2 or Pco2: Concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood (a specifies arterial blood).
Palate: Roof of the mouth. The structure that separates the oral and nasal passages. A cleft palate is one
that is split from front to back, sometimes with an opening so deep that the mouth and nasal passages
are connected.
Pao2 or Po2: Concentration of oxygen in the blood (a specifies arterial blood).
Parens patriae: The duty of the state to protect the vulnerable or incompetent.
Parenteral: Taking something into the body in a manner other than through the digestive canal (which is
enteral).
Parity: The condition of a woman with respect to having had one or more pregnancies reach a gestational
age of viability. Parity is determined by the number of pregnancies that reached viability, whether the
fetuses were live-born or stillborn, and not the number of fetuses. Twins, triplets, or more do not
increase a woman’s parity. Nulliparity is the condition of having carried no pregnancies to an age of
viability; primiparity, of having carried one pregnancy to an age of viability; secundiparity, of having
2 pregnancies reach viability; and multiparity, of having had 3 or more pregnancies reach viability. In
practice, however, secundiparity is rarely used and multiparity is used for any woman who has had 2 or
more pregnancies reach an age of viability. Example: A woman whose first pregnancy ended in stillborn
twins at 30 weeks’ gestation, second pregnancy ended in a single, healthy fetus born at 39 weeks, and
third pregnancy ended in spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks has a parity of 2. She is now pregnant for
the fourth time, at 32 weeks’ gestation, and therefore has a gravidity of 4. She may be described as a
gravida 4, para 2. When she delivers the current pregnancy, she will become a G4 P3.
Pelvis, contracted: Smaller than normal-sized pelvis. The pelvis may be too small to allow the vaginal
birth of a baby.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS): Also called cordocentesis. A highly specialized technique
during which a needle is inserted through a pregnant woman’s abdominal wall into the uterus and then
directly into an artery or vein of the umbilical cord, usually near the base of the cord at the placenta.
Ultrasound visualization of the fetus, placenta, and umbilical cord is used throughout the procedure. A
sample of fetal blood is obtained. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling may be used to detect congeni-
tal infections, isoimmune diseases, and chromosomal defects (for chromosomal defects, fetal blood can
yield results in a few days, while amniotic fluid cell culture may take several weeks). Percutaneous umbil-
ical blood sampling may also be used to give a direct blood transfusion to a fetus in cases of severe anemia.
Perfusion: The flow of blood through an organ or tissue.
Pericarditis: Inflammation of the pericardium, the sac of fibrous tissue surrounding the heart. Pericarditis
is sometimes caused by infection and other times by an inflammatory, noninfectious disease such as sys-
temic lupus erythematosus.
Perinatal: The time surrounding a baby’s birth. The perinatal period begins at 22 completed weeks and
ends 7 completed days after birth.
Perinatologist: Technically, a subspecialist physician who cares for the fetus and neonate. Often used,
incorrectly, to refer to an obstetrician with subspecialty training in maternal-fetal medicine.
Perinatology: Now more commonly referred to as maternal-fetal medicine, perinatology is a subspecialty
of obstetrics and gynecology that focuses on the care of patients with complicated pregnancies and the
diagnosis and care of conditions that affect the fetus before birth.
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Periodic heart rate changes: Fetal heart rate accelerations and decelerations. Their occurrence and rela-
tionship to fetal activity or uterine contractions is used as an estimate of fetal well-being, for antenatal
testing, and during labor.
Peripheral: The outward and surface parts of the body. Example: Peripheral circulation is the blood flow
in the skin, arms, and legs.
pH level: Refers to the acidity or alkalinity of a liquid. A blood pH level outside the reference range indi-
cates metabolic or respiratory disturbance.
Pharynx: Throat above the esophagus and below the nasal passages.
Phenaphthazine (Nitrazine): A pH-sensitive dye embedded in paper that, when dipped into fluids, esti-
mates pH of the fluid. Used primarily to distinguish amniotic fluid (which has an alkaline pH) from
urine or vaginal secretions (which are acidic) in pregnant patients with symptoms of premature rupture
of the membranes.
Phototherapy: Use of fluorescent, tungsten-halogen, or fiberoptic lights to treat hyperbilirubinemia in ne-
onates by breaking down bilirubin accumulated in the skin. The color of phototherapy lights ranges
from nearly white to deep blue, depending on the type and brand of lights.
Pierre Robin syndrome: A group of congenital anomalies that include a small jaw, a cleft palate, and
backward displacement of the tongue. Babies with Pierre Robin syndrome may have great difficulty
breathing or eating.
Placenta: Organ that joins the woman and fetus during pregnancy. The umbilical cord is implanted on
one side, while the other side is attached to the uterus. Maternal and fetal blood does not mix directly,
but nutrients and waste products are exchanged across a thin membrane that separates maternal and
fetal blood.
Placenta accreta: Term used to describe a rare condition of implantation in which the implanting tropho-
blasts not only penetrate the endometrium but continue into the myometrium as well. This eliminates the
normal cleavage plane in the decidua (endometrium during pregnancy) that allows normal spontaneous
separation of the placenta following delivery. Attempts to remove a placenta accreta by manual separa-
tion usually result in excessive hemorrhage. Hysterectomy may be the only way to remove the placenta,
as separation from the myometrium may be impossible, and emergency surgery may be required if heavy
bleeding begins.
Placenta previa: Abnormally low implantation of the placenta in the lower segment of the uterus. As the
placenta grows with pregnancy, it spreads so that it partially or completely covers the internal cervical os
at term. The resultant position of the placenta is in front of the fetus. Thus, a vaginal delivery would re-
quire delivery of the placenta before the fetus. Painless vaginal bleeding during the third trimester is the
most common sign of placenta previa. If not identified earlier, severe hemorrhage with maternal and fetal
compromise may occur as the cervix dilates during labor. Whether placenta previa is identified prenatally
or not until after labor has begun, cesarean delivery is required for the health of the woman and fetus.
Note: Early in gestation a placenta may appear to be low lying, but not be later in pregnancy. A diagno-
sis of placenta previa cannot be made until after 20 weeks’ gestation and should be reconfirmed at 26 to
28 weeks.
Placental abruption: Premature separation of a normally placed placenta. Placental separation can occur
at any time during pregnancy, but is most likely to occur during late pregnancy and before the onset
of labor. Several risk factors are associated with placental abruption, but usually the cause is unknown.
Depending on the degree of separation, bleeding may be slight or severe. If severe, both the woman and
fetus may go into shock. Bleeding, even severe bleeding, can be completely hidden behind the placenta.
In the most severe cases, the uterus is tense, boardlike, and tender. The woman’s blood pressure may fall,
and symptoms of shock or disseminated intravascular coagulation may develop. Fetal distress is com-
mon, and fetal death may occur. Placental abruption requires an emergency response.
Placental perfusion: Blood from the uterine artery flows into the intervillous space, bathing the placental
villi that protrude into this space with nutrients and oxygen. Flow of blood through the intervillous
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space allows perfusion of nutrients and oxygen into the fetus from the maternal blood and waste prod-
ucts of fetal metabolism to pass from the fetus to the maternal circulation. Fetal and maternal blood
does not mix. Nutrients and waste are exchanged across the thin membrane of the placental villi.
Pneumonia: Inflammation of the lungs. Neonatal pneumonia has many possible causes, such as bacterial
infection, aspiration of formula, or aspiration of meconium.
Pneumothorax: Rupture in the lung that allows air to leak outside the lung, form a collection of air
between the lung and chest wall, and thereby compress the lung so it cannot expand fully. Often when
a pneumothorax develops, a baby suddenly becomes cyanotic and shows signs of increased respiratory
distress. There are decreased breath sounds over the affected lung. Insertion of a tube or needle into
the chest is required to remove the air pocket and allow the lung to re-expand. Plural: pneumothoraces
(rupture in both lungs).
Polycythemia: Abnormally high number of red blood cells. It is more common in infants of diabetic
mothers and in newborns small for gestational age.
Polyhydramnios: Synonymous with hydramnios, although hydramnios is now the preferred term for this
condition.
Position, fetal: Relationship of the fetal-presenting part to the maternal pelvis. In vertex presentations,
the posterior fontanel is the reference point. With breech presentations, it is the tip of the fetal sacrum;
with face presentations, the chin; and with brow presentations, the anterior fontanel. Position is not the
same as presentation. A fetus in vertex presentation may be in any of several positions. Example: Left
occiput anterior position indicates that the fetal occiput, as determined by position of the posterior
fontanel, is located on the left side of the anterior part of the woman’s pelvis.
Positive-pressure ventilation: Artificial breathing for a person by forcing air or oxygen into the lungs under
pressure by bag and mask, bag and endotracheal tube, T-piece resuscitator, or mechanical ventilator.
Post-term: Refers to a fetus or baby whose gestation has been longer than 42 completed weeks.
Postnatal: The time after delivery, used in reference to the baby.
Postpartum: The time after delivery, used in reference to the mother.
Potter syndrome: A rare, fatal congenital malformation with characteristic facial appearance and absent
or hypoplastic kidneys. Oligohydramnios may be noted in the mother. These babies are often born at
term, are frequently small for gestational age, and may have hypoplastic lungs.
Preconceptional: Before conception. Refers to counseling women or families before conception regarding
the risks of various problems during pregnancy. This is particularly important when a woman has a dis-
ease known to affect pregnancy or fetal development or a family history of such problems or pregnancy
carries increased risks for a woman because of an illness or condition she has.
Preeclampsia: New-onset hypertension in pregnancy with excretion of protein into the urine, with or
without other laboratory abnormalities or symptoms.
Pregnancy due date: Expected date for the onset of labor. On average, the date of delivery will occur
280 days, or 40 weeks, after the first day of the last menstrual period. The reference range of variation is
2 weeks before or after the calculated due date. Babies delivered between 37 and 42 weeks’ gestation are
considered term. Babies delivered prior to the onset of the 37th week are designated preterm, and those
delivered after 416/7 weeks are considered postterm. Inaccuracies can occur with calculating the due date
because the date of the menstrual period may not be recalled correctly or there are variations in
the length of the preovulatory phase of a menstrual cycle. In some women with irregular periods, the
preovulatory phase may be prolonged several weeks or even months.
Premature rupture of membranes (PROM): Rupture of the membranes (“bag of waters”) before the
onset of labor.
Prenatal: The time during pregnancy and before birth of the baby. Synonymous with antenatal.
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Presentation: Refers to that part of the fetus that is in the birth canal and will deliver first. The normal
presentation, near term and during labor and delivery, is vertex (headfirst). Any other presentation at
that time is considered abnormal.
Preterm: Refers to that part of pregnancy between 200/7 weeks and 366/7 weeks (eg, preterm labor,
preterm rupture of the membranes, or an infant born before 37 weeks’ gestation).
Primary infection: First episode of a given infection. Some infections, such as cytomegalovirus or herpes,
remain latent, without symptoms, in a person but may recur from time to time. The primary infection,
however, is the most severe and likely to be the most damaging to a fetus or newborn. Other infections,
such as syphilis or gonorrhea, may be cured, but if reinfection occurs, it will be as severe as the first
infection.
Primigravida: A woman pregnant for the first time. See also Gravidity.
Primipara: A woman who has had one pregnancy carried to viability. See also Parity.
Prodromal labor: Refers to a patient having contractions but without sufficient cervical changes to make
the diagnosis of true labor.
Prodrome: The time before a disease or process reaches its full strength. Example: The prodrome of
a herpes infection may be mild itching in the area where the vesicles will later appear. This could be
described as prodromal itching.
Prognosis: A forecast of the most likely outcome of an illness.
Prolapse: Falling out of a viscus. For example, an umbilical cord that slips through the cervix ahead of
the fetus is a prolapsed cord, or a uterus that falls partially or completely into the vagina has prolapsed.
Prolapsed cord: Premature expulsion of the umbilical cord during labor and before the fetus is delivered.
This is an emergency situation because a prolapsed cord is likely to be compressed, which may cause se-
vere fetal compromise.
PROM: See Premature rupture of membranes.
Propylthiouracil (PTU): An antithyroid agent used to treat hyperthyroidism during the first trimester of
pregnancy.
Proteinuria: Condition in which proteins from the blood are present in the urine. Also called albuminuria.
Psychosis: Any major mental disorder in which a person loses contact with reality and is unable to process
information rationally.
PTU: See Propylthiouracil.
PUBS: See Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling.
Pudendal block: Nerve block by injection of local anesthetic into the area of the pudendal nerve. Used
primarily for anesthesia of the perineum for delivery.
Pulmonary: Refers to the lungs.
Pulmonary hypoplasia: Underdevelopment of the fetal lungs, usually related to in utero compression of
the fetal chest or lungs that prevents appropriate growth. This is seen with diaphragmatic hernia and
with severe oligohydramnios, such as may occur with Potter syndrome.
Pulmonary maturity: Refers to relative ability of the fetal lungs to function normally if the fetus were
to be delivered at the time a test for pulmonary maturity is performed. As the lungs mature, various
chemicals produced by the fetal lungs appear in the amniotic fluid. Lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio,
phosphatidyl glycerol detection, or lamellar body count may be performed on a sample of amniotic fluid
to assess fetal lung maturity.
Pulse oximetry: Uses a noninvasive device that allows continuous measurement of the saturation of he-
moglobin with oxygen. Hemoglobin changes color from blue to red as it becomes increasingly saturated
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with oxygen. A pulse oximeter uses a tiny light to shine through the skin and a light detector to measure
the color of light coming through the skin. The color of light coming through the skin is determined by
the amount of oxygen carried by hemoglobin in the red blood cells. From this the percentage of satura-
tion is calculated (Spo2). The percentage of saturation is not the same as a Pao2 value, which measures
the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma.
Quickening: The first time fetal movements can be felt by the pregnant woman. This usually occurs be-
tween 16 and 20 weeks of gestation. Quickening generally occurs later in pregnancy for a primigravida
than a woman who has had a previous pregnancy.
Radiant warmer: A servo-controlled heating device that is placed over a baby and provides radiant heat
to keep body temperature normal.
RDS: See Respiratory distress syndrome.
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS): Formerly called hyaline membrane disease. A disease mainly affect-
ing preterm infants, due to immaturity of the lungs and lack of surfactant. Without surfactant, the alve-
oli collapse during exhalation and are difficult to open with the next breath.
Resuscitation: The process of restoring or supporting cardiac function, blood pressure, and respiration so
as to provide adequate oxygenation and perfusion to a baby, child, or adult who is apparently dead or
near death. For newborns, resuscitation is needed most often in the delivery room; for adults, resuscita-
tion may be needed after any of a number of life-threatening events.
Resuscitation team: This concept refers to the fact that more than one person is needed to provide resus-
citation. At least 2, preferably 3, health care professionals, skilled in the techniques of resuscitation, are
needed for each resuscitation.
Reticulocyte count: Estimation of the number of newly formed red blood cells (reticulocytes) in a blood
sample.
Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP): Abnormal blood vessel growth in the eye that may lead to detach-
ment of the retina and partial or complete blindness. Blood vessel changes may result from many factors,
including excessively high arterial blood oxygen concentrations for a period that can be as short as a few
hours. The more preterm a baby, the more likely the baby is to develop ROP. Often ROP resolves spon-
taneously, but if permitted to proceed unchecked, scarring may occur and the retina may detach. It is
critical that babies with ROP be followed by an ophthalmologist trained in examining babies so that
laser therapy may be used to check the progression.
Retractions: A sign of respiratory distress. These occur with each breath as the skin is pulled inward
between the ribs as a baby tries to expand stiff lungs.
Retrolental fibroplasia (RLF): Scarring phase of retinopathy of prematurity.
Rh alloimmunization: Formerly referred to as Rh sensitization. (1) Development of antibodies by an
Rh-negative woman pregnant with an Rh-positive fetus. The antibodies cross the placenta into the fetus’s
blood, thus causing hemolysis of the fetus’s red blood cells. (2) Development of antibodies against the
Rh-positive red blood cells following a transfusion of Rh-positive blood unintentionally given to an
Rh-negative person.
Rh blood type: Besides the major blood groups of A, B, O, and AB, there are a number of minor groups,
of which the Rh system is the most important for perinatal care. Prevalence of the Rh factor varies by
ethnic and racial groups. In the white population, 85% have the Rh antigen and are said to be Rh posi-
tive, while 15% lack the Rh antigen and, therefore, are Rh negative. Regardless of ethnic or racial heri-
tage, persons who lack a blood antigen can make antibodies against that blood group. This means that
Rh-negative persons can make antibodies against Rh-positive blood, if their immune system has been ex-
posed to that blood (from external transfusion or transplacental transfer). Persons who have developed
such antibodies are said to be alloimmunized, or sensitized to that blood group. See also Rh alloimmuni-
zation and Erythroblastosis fetalis.
Rh disease: See Erythroblastosis fetalis.
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RhIg: Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM is one commercial name for Rh immune globulin products). The
antibodies from sensitized Rh-negative persons can be harvested, purified, and prepared for safe injection
into another Rh-negative, but unsensitized, woman. The product is called Rh immune globulin, or RhIg.
The injected antibodies contained in RhIg prevent alloimmunization by reacting with the antigens on the
few Rh-positive blood cells that may have escaped from the fetus into the maternal circulation. Rh-nega-
tive, unsensitized women should receive RhIg at 28 weeks’ gestation and again following delivery. Rh-
negative, unsensitized women should also receive RhIg within 72 hours of an abortion or an episode of
vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. Protection lasts for 12 weeks. Therefore, depending on the course of
the pregnancy, subsequent doses may also be needed. Use of RhIg protects fetuses in future pregnancies
from Rh disease.
Rhinitis: Inflammation of mucous membranes of the nasal passages, causing a characteristic runny
or stuffy nose. Although generally uncommon in newborns, rhinitis is frequently found in babies with
congenital syphilis.
RLF: See Retrolental fibroplasia and Retinopathy of prematurity.
ROP: In neonatal care, retinopathy of prematurity. In obstetric care, an abbreviation for a specific posi-
tion (right occiput posterior) of a vertex presentation during labor. See also Retinopathy of prematurity.
Rotation (of the fetal head): Gradual turning of the fetus during labor for the fetal head to accommo-
date size and shape of the maternal pelvis as the fetus descends through it.
Rubella: A mild viral infection, also called German measles. A rubella infection in a pregnant woman
during early pregnancy may result in infection of the fetus and cause rubella syndrome.
SARS-CoV-2: Severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2, a novel coronavirus that caused a global
pandemic of COVID-19 (coronavirus disease 2019), beginning in late 2019.
Scalp stimulation test: Test in which fetal heart rate response to mechanical stimulation of the fetal scalp
(by examiner’s gloved finger or sterile instrument) is assessed. Used as an estimate of fetal well-being
during labor.
Scaphoid abdomen: Sunken or hollow-looking abdomen, occurring when there is a diaphragmatic her-
nia, which allows the intestines to slip from the abdomen through a hole in the diaphragm and into the
chest cavity.
Secondary infection: Recurrent infection. See also Primary infection.
Sepsis: Infection of the blood. Also referred to as septicemia.
Serum bicarbonate: Also called blood or plasma bicarbonate. Concentration of bicarbonate in the blood.
Bicarbonate is the main body chemical responsible for the acid-base balance of the blood.
Serum urea nitrogen: A blood chemistry test of renal function. The higher the serum urea nitrogen, the
more urinary excretion has been impaired.
Servo control: A mechanism that automatically maintains skin temperature at a preset temperature. A
thermistor probe is taped to the baby, registers the skin temperature, and in turn activates a radiant
warmer or incubator to continue to produce heat, or to stop heating.
Sexually transmitted infection (STI): An infection that is transmitted from one partner to another during
sexual activity. Many infections can be transmitted in this way, but certain STIs can have significant
effect on the fetus or newborn, including syphilis, gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and HIV.
SGA: See Small for gestational age.
Shock: Collapse of the circulatory system due to inadequate blood volume, cardiac function, or vasomo-
tor tone. In babies, the causes are most often hypovolemia, sepsis, or severe acidosis. Symptoms are
hypotension, rapid respirations, pallor, weak pulses, and slow refilling of blanched skin. In pregnant
women, the cause is most often hemorrhage. Because of the expanded blood volume of pregnancy and
vasoconstrictive capabilities of most (young, healthy) pregnant women, blood loss may be severe before
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symptoms of shock (hypotension, weak and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, anxiousness or confusion,
and cold, clammy, pale skin) become evident.
Short bowel syndrome: A syndrome of weight loss and dehydration related to having less than the nor-
mal length of intestine. The less intestine a baby has, the less well nutrients can be absorbed. Short bowel
syndrome may result from a baby being born with an abnormally short bowel or may be the result of a
portion of the intestines having been removed for treatment of certain types of bowel disease.
Shoulder dystocia: Situation in which the baby’s shoulders become wedged between the maternal
symphysis and sacrum after delivery of the fetal head. The head may be pulled back against the
perineum as the woman relaxes her push that delivered the head (the “turtle sign”). Various procedures
may be tried to free the shoulders. Severe asphyxia or fetal death can occur if there is significant delay in
delivery of the shoulders and trunk.
Shunt: A diversion of fluid from its normal pathway. (1) Blood: In some sick babies, blood will be
shunted from the right side of the heart to the left (baby will be blue); in other babies, the shunt will be
from the left side of the heart to the right (baby will be in congestive heart failure). Commonly seen in
babies with congenital heart disease or severe lung disease in which the blood cannot be normally oxy-
genated. (2) Cerebrospinal fluid: An artificial pathway for the flow of cerebrospinal fluid when blockage
is in the normal pathway, resulting in hydrocephalus. Typically, cerebrospinal fluid is shunted through a
one-way valve from the ventricles into a small tube tunneled under the skin and empties into the abdom-
inal cavity. This is called a ventriculoperitoneal, or V-P, shunt.
Sickle cell anemia: A genetic hemoglobinopathy causing chronic anemia. Crises, resulting from infarction
of various body areas clogged by the sickled cells obstructing small blood vessels, may occur periodically.
Management during pregnancy is particularly complicated.
Sickle cell–hemoglobin C disease: A hemoglobinopathy similar to sickle cell anemia.
Sickle cell–thalassemia disease: Sickle cell disease and thalassemia are genetically transmitted anemic
diseases caused by abnormal hemoglobin. See Hemoglobinopathy.
Sims position: The patient rests on one side, with the upper leg drawn up so that the knee is close to
the chest. Often used with an emergency delivery in bed or outside the hospital. This position does not
allow for much assistance by an attendant but has the advantage of placing less tension on the perineum
during delivery and, therefore, may result in fewer lacerations.
SLE: Systemic lupus erythematosus.
Small for gestational age (SGA): A baby whose weight is lower than the 10th percentile for infants of
that gestational age.
“Sniffing” position: Proper position of a baby’s head during bag-and-mask ventilation or endotracheal
intubation. The head and back are in straight alignment, with the chin pulled forward as if sniffing.
This position is different from the one used for endotracheal intubation of an adult because the
relative size and relationship of anatomic structures is different between babies and adults. The
neck is not hyperextended (bent backward to an extreme degree) during endotracheal intubation
in babies.
Sodium bicarbonate: Drug used to counteract metabolic acidosis. After being given to a baby, it rapidly
changes to carbon dioxide and water. Therefore, it should be given only to babies who are breathing
adequately on their own or receiving adequate assisted ventilation. These babies can “blow off” the
excess carbon dioxide formed. If sodium bicarbonate is given to a baby with a high Paco2, it will make
the Paco2 go even higher and thereby worsen the acidosis.
Spinal (block): An anesthetic technique in which a local anesthetic is introduced into the subarachnoid
space of the spinal canal through a hollow needle placed (temporarily) in the spine. It is technically eas-
ier to perform placement of an epidural catheter because spinal fluid in the subarachnoid space will flow
out through the hollow needle and, thereby, identify proper placement of the needle before injection of
the anesthetic. Because the anesthetic also blocks sympathetic nerves leaving the spinal cord, the blood
pressure of the woman may decline. (For this reason, a loading dose of 500–1,000 mL of physiologic
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[normal] saline solution may be given intravenously prior to introduction of the anesthetic.) Spinal anes-
thetics are not ordinarily given until the second stage of labor has begun because the anesthetics used do
not remain effective for longer than 2 hours.
Spo2: The percentage of saturation of hemoglobin by oxygen as detected by a pulse oximeter, which
reads and reports how red the blood is. Fully saturated hemoglobin appears bright red, while desatu-
rated hemoglobin appears blue.
Sterile vaginal examination: Vaginal examination with a speculum, using sterile technique. In this situa-
tion, sterility obviously cannot be ensured. When a woman is pregnant and rupture of membranes is
known or suspected, the goal is to minimize the risk of introducing bacteria during examination.
Sternum: The breastbone. The chest bone that joins the left and right ribs.
STI: See Sexually transmitted infection.
Stopcock: Small device with 3 openings and a lever to close any 1 of the 3 openings. One opening is de-
signed to fit the hub of an intravenous catheter, umbilical catheter, or similar catheter. The other 2 are
designed to connect with a syringe or intravenous fluid tubing.
Stylet: Slender metal probe with a blunt tip that may be inserted inside an endotracheal tube to make the
tube stiffer during intubation. Also, the solid, removable center within certain needles.
Succenturiate lobe of placenta: A malformation of the placenta in which the placenta has a second lobe,
with the umbilical blood vessels traversing membranes between the main placenta and accessory or succen-
turiate lobe. Umbilical vessels between the 2 lobes may lie over the cervical os (creating the condition
known as vasa previa) and can be torn, particularly if the membranes are ruptured artificially. Also, the suc-
centuriate lobe may produce a placenta previa if it lies over the os, even though a previous ultrasound may
have reported a normally placed placenta, which may be accurate for the main portion of the placenta.
Superimposed preeclampsia: Development of preeclampsia in a woman who already has chronic
hypertension. Sometimes it is difficult to tell if the increase in blood pressure is due to poor control
of existing hypertension or development of preeclampsia. If the blood pressure increases and there is
increasing proteinuria, superimposed preeclampsia is most likely. This complication increases the risk of
development of eclampsia.
Supine: Position of a person when he or she is flat on his or her back.
Supine hypotension: In late pregnancy, the enlarged uterus may compress the vena cava when a woman
lies on her back. This reduces return of blood to the heart and, thus, reduces cardiac output. This then
causes a reduction in blood pressure and in the perfusion of body tissues. The woman may feel faint.
Most pregnant women lie on their sides to sleep. During labor it may be helpful to have a woman lie on
her side as much as possible. If supine hypotension develops with a woman resting on her back, uterine
blood flow may be affected, which might result in a non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern. One measure
to take if a non-reassuring fetal heart pattern occurs during labor is to turn a woman onto her side
(if on her back) or from one side to the other to relieve pressure on the vena cava.
Suprapubic puncture: A technique used to tap the bladder of a newborn. A needle is inserted into
the center of the lower abdomen, above the pubic bone, and into the bladder to obtain a sterile urine
specimen for culture.
Surfactant: A group of substances, including lecithin, that contributes to compliance (elasticity) of the
lungs by coating the alveoli and allowing them to stay open during exhalation. Without surfactant, the
alveoli collapse during expiration and are difficult to open with the next breath.
Symphysis pubis: Connection between the right and left hip bones in front of the body, in the pubic area.
Systemic: Refers to the whole body.
Tachycardia: Rapid heart rate. (1) Fetal tachycardia is considered to be a sustained heart rate faster than
160 beats/min. (2) Neonatal tachycardia is considered to be a sustained heart rate faster than 180 beats/
min while a baby is quiet and at rest.
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Tachypnea: Rapid respiratory rate. In a neonate, tachypnea is considered to be a sustained breathing rate
faster than 60 breaths/min.
Tent: Small cone-shaped device made of material that can expand. Used to dilate an orifice or keep a
wound open. In obstetrics, tents may be used for cervical ripening and may also be called osmotic dilators.
Teratogen: A substance that causes malformations in the developing embryo. Certain medications are
known teratogens and should not be taken during pregnancy. Most congenital malformations, however,
cannot be traced to a teratogen but are instead due to unknown factors (most common) or hereditary
factors.
Thalassemia: Any one of several hereditary hemolytic anemias caused by abnormal hemoglobin.
Thermistor probe: A small sensing device that measures temperature continuously and is able to detect
very small changes. Servo-control devices operate by a thermistor probe attached to the baby and then
the radiant warmer or incubator.
Thrombocytopenia: Abnormally low number of blood platelets.
Thrombophlebitis: Inflammation of a vein associated with the formation of a thrombus. In a superficial
blood vessel, a thin red streak will form in the skin directly over the path of the blood vessel and the
area will feel warm to the touch. Thrombophlebitis may develop at the site of a peripheral intravenous
catheter, in which case the catheter should be removed and the intravenous catheter restarted into an-
other vein. Further treatment is rarely needed. If thrombophlebitis develops in deep veins, however, it is a
serious condition, generally requiring treatment with intravenous heparin.
Thrombosis: The process involved in formation of a thrombus (blood clot in a vessel).
Thrombus: A blood clot that gradually forms inside a blood vessel and may become large enough to
obstruct blood flow. If a thrombus separates from the blood vessel and is carried in the blood, it
becomes an embolus. Plural: thrombi.
Thyroid storm: A sudden worsening of adult hyperthyroidism, usually triggered by trauma or surgery
and characterized by marked tachycardia and fever.
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): A protein secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that stimulates
thyroid function.
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI): An antibody produced by lymphocytes that, for unknown
reasons, stimulates the thyroid to release thyroxin. These antibodies may cross the placenta and cause
hyperthyroidism in the fetus.
Tocolysis: Administration of a drug to stop uterine contractions.
Tonus: The amount of continuous contraction of muscle. Uterine tonus refers to how tightly the muscle
of the uterus is contracted between labor contractions. With an internal monitor, it is measured as the
resting pressure in the uterus between contractions. Hypertonus refers to a uterus that remains exces-
sively tense and does not relax normally between labor contractions.
TORCH: Toxoplasmosis, other agents, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex. A specific group of
infections that can cause in utero fetal infection (usually resulting in severe damage) or, in the case of
herpes, life-threatening neonatal infection. The “other” category includes less common, serious infections
such as varicella, coxsackievirus B, and syphilis.
Toxemia: Term formerly used to refer, collectively, to all forms of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.
Toxoplasmosis: Disease caused by a type of protozoa (a type of microscopic one-cell organism). Toxo-
plasmosis in a woman may go unnoticed but may infect the fetus, thus causing congenital toxoplasmosis.
Congenital toxoplasmosis damages the central nervous system of the fetus and may lead to blindness,
brain defects, or death.
Trachea: The windpipe or tube of stacked cartilaginous rings that descends into the chest cavity from the
larynx and branches into the right and left bronchi, which branch further into smaller bronchioles inside
the lungs.
240
Transfusion, fetal-fetal: Situation that may occur, in utero, between fetuses of a multifetal gestation,
when there is a connection between an artery of one fetus and a vein of the other in a monochorionic
placenta. The fetus on the arterial side becomes a chronic blood donor to the fetus on the venous or
recipient side. When born, the donor twin may be pale, severely anemic, and small for gestational age.
The recipient twin may be red, polycythemic, and, occasionally, large for gestational age.
Transfusion, fetal-maternal: Situation that may occur in utero if an abnormal connection develops
between the fetal and maternal circulation in the placenta. The reverse direction of maternal-fetal
transfusion apparently does not occur. The newborn may present with findings similar to the “donor”
fetus described in fetal-fetal transfusion. To diagnose this condition, the woman’s blood can be tested for
the presence of fetal cells with the Kleihauer-Betke test.
Transverse lie: The body of the fetus lies horizontally across the maternal pelvis and hence across the
birth canal entrance. A cesarean delivery is required for safe delivery of a fetus in transverse lie.
Trendelenburg position: A position of the body that may be used for surgery or examination. The
patient lies supine on an inclined surface, with the head lowered below the level of the feet.
Trimester: A period of 3 months. The time during pregnancy is often divided into the first trimester
(first through third month), second trimester (fourth through sixth month), and third trimester (seventh
through ninth month).
Trisomy: Chromosomal abnormality in which there is an extra (third) chromosome of one of a normal
pair of chromosomes. The most common is trisomy 21 (three 21 chromosomes), which is also called
Down syndrome. Other trisomies also occur, such as trisomy 13 (three 13 chromosomes) and trisomy
18 (three 18 chromosomes), both of which have a characteristic set of multiple congenital anomalies.
TSH: See Thyroid-stimulating hormone.
TSI: See Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin.
Turner syndrome: A chromosomal abnormality in which there are 45 chromosomes, with the absent
chromosome being one sex chromosome (45,X) instead of the typical 46,XX (female) or 46,XY (male).
These individuals are phenotypically female and may have physical abnormalities including webbed
neck, low hairline, and certain skeletal, urinary tract, lymph system, and cardiac abnormalities. The baby
will have female external genitalia, but the ovaries may be completely absent and sexual development
will be severely impaired.
Twin-twin transfusion: See Transfusion, fetal-fetal.
Twins, conjoined: Twin fetuses joined together, usually at the chest or abdomen but may be at almost
any site, and sharing one or more organs. This results from incomplete separation during the process of
twinning of single ovum (which, if completely split, would have become identical twins). The greater the
degree of organ sharing, the less likely one or both twins can survive surgical separation.
Twins, fraternal: Two fetuses created from the fertilization and implantation of 2 separate ova.
Twins, identical: Two fetuses created from the division of one fertilized ovum.
Ultrasonography (US): A technique used to visualize the fetus and placenta by means of sound waves,
which bounce off of these structures and are turned into a picture outline. Used to assess fetal growth,
fetal well-being, congenital abnormalities, multifetal gestation, placental location, location of structures
during percutaneous umbilical blood sampling and amniocentesis, and volume of amniotic fluid.
Urine drug screening: Commonly available test in which the metabolic breakdown products of recently
taken drugs can be identified in the urine.
US: See Ultrasonography.
Uterine atony: Failure of the uterine muscle (myometrium) to contract in the immediate postpartum
period. A leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
Uterine dysfunction: Abnormal progress of labor due to uterine contractions that are inadequate in
strength or occur in an uneven, uncoordinated pattern.
241
Uterine fibroids: Tumors of the uterus made up of fibrous connective tissue and smooth muscle. Also
called leiomyomas. These myomas may become very large, occasionally interfering with implantation.
Other risks, although uncommon, include placenta previa, obstructed labor, preterm labor, postpartum
hemorrhage, and endometritis.
Uterine inertia: Inadequate labor caused by uterine contractions that are too short, too weak, and too
infrequent to produce adequate progress.
Uteroplacental: Refers to the uterus and placenta together as a functioning unit.
Uteroplacental insufficiency: An inexact term suggesting a placenta that is functioning poorly, with
inadequate transfer of nutrients and oxygen to the fetus, and used to explain some cases of in utero
growth restriction or fetal distress during labor.
Uterus: A hollow, muscular organ in which the fetus develops, often called the womb.
Vacuum extractor (VE): An instrument used to assist delivery, in which a plastic cup is placed over the
fetal occiput, suction is applied so the cup is sealed to the scalp, and then traction is applied to the cup.
There are risks, benefits, and specific indications for use of vacuum extraction.
Vagus nerve: A major nerve with branches to the heart and gastrointestinal tract. Something that
stimulates one branch of the vagus nerve may also affect another branch. Example: Suctioning deep
in the back of a baby’s throat directly stimulates part of the vagus nerve to the gastrointestinal tract
and indirectly may affect the branch to the heart and cause bradycardia (termed reflex bradycardia).
Varicella-zoster virus: The virus that causes chickenpox in children. Adults who were not infected
as children and, therefore, did not acquire immunity may also develop chickenpox, which, in adults,
can cause life-threatening pneumonia. Infection in a pregnant woman early in pregnancy can cause
severe fetal malformations and serious neonatal illness at term. Note: Reactivated infection in adults is
herpes zoster. This occurs in a small percentage of individuals who had chickenpox as children and
causes pain and the formation of vesicles along specific nerve tracks. These symptoms are known as
shingles.
VariZIG: Varicella-zoster immune globulin. Specific antibodies to the varicella-zoster virus obtained from
persons who have had the disease. Principally used to attenuate infection in the newborn of a mother
who has the infection.
Vasa previa: An abnormality of placental development. Instead of joining together at a point over the
placenta, the vessels that form the umbilical cord join some distance from the edge of the placenta. The
vessels lie on the membranes and, if the vessels lie across the cervical os, are exposed when the cervix di-
lates. This is a dangerous situation because when the membranes rupture or are artificially ruptured, the
vessels may tear open. The fetal hemorrhage that results is often fatal.
Vasoconstriction: Tightening of the blood vessels, allowing less blood flow through the vessels. Example:
When a significant volume of blood is lost, the small blood vessels in the skin will constrict, thus allow-
ing the remaining blood to be directed to the brain and other vital organs.
VBAC: Vaginal birth after cesarean.
VE: See Vacuum extractor.
Vein: Refers to blood vessels that return blood to the heart. In most veins, this blood is dark red because
it has a low oxygen concentration because most of the oxygen from the arterial blood has been trans-
ferred to the body’s cells for metabolism. The pulmonary veins, however, carry oxygenated blood as it
flows from the lungs to the heart.
Vertex: Top of the head. A fetus in vertex presentation is headfirst in the maternal pelvis. This presenta-
tion is identified on vaginal examination by palpation of the posterior fontanel in the center of the
birth canal.
Vital signs: Refers to the group of clinical measures that includes respiratory rate, heart rate, temperature,
and blood pressure.
242
Vitamin E: A vitamin important for maintaining red blood cell stability. When a baby is deficient in vita-
min E, the red blood cells may break down more rapidly than normal and the baby may become anemic.
Volume expander: Fluid used to replace blood volume, and thereby increase blood pressure, in cases
of hypotension thought to be due to hypovolemia. Blood or physiologic (normal) saline solution are
examples of volume expanders.
Woods maneuver: Maneuver for management of shoulder dystocia in which the fetus is rotated
180 degrees so the posterior shoulder becomes the anterior shoulder.
Zavanelli maneuver: Maneuver for management of shoulder dystocia in which the fetal head is replaced
into the vagina and a cesarean delivery is done.
243
A B pretest, 3
Abnormally shaped waveform, 9 Beneficence, 186–187 reference ranges, 6–7
Abnormally wide or narrow pulse Beractant (Survanta), 104 2 general types of, 4
pressure, 9–10 Best-interest standard, 186 Blood pressure waveforms, 4
ABO incompatibility, 24, 25 Biomedical ethics, 181–205 abnormal configurations, 8–9
Absence of breathing. See Apnea application to neonatology, 185, abnormally wide or narrow pulse
Acidosis, 24–25, 30t 192–195 pressure, 9–10
Air bubbles, tubing, 9 application to obstetrics, interpreting, 8–10
Air emboli, 29t 185–186, 189–192 normal configuration, 8
Air leaks beneficence in, 186–187 Blood types, donor, 24
in mechanical ventilation, 85 decision-making process for the Brief resolved unexplained event
in surfactant therapy, 109 care of neonates and, (BRUE), 154
Albuterol, 165t 198–201 Bronchopulmonary dysplasia,
Alkalosis, 24–25, 30t decision support model, 202f 161–162
Alveoli, 102 futility and, 187–188 BRUE. See Brief resolved unex-
Anemia harm principle and, 188 plained event (BRUE)
as complication of exchange justice in, 187
C
BOOK 4: INDEX
transfusion, 31t nonmaleficence in, 187
direct transfusions for signs of, obligatory to treat and, 188 Caffeine citrate, 165t
36–37 optional whether to treat and, Calfactant (Infasurf), 104
in utero, 34 188 Carbon dioxide, 169t
monitoring for, 149–150 other terms in, 187–188 Cardiopulmonary monitoring, 26
partial exchange transfusions in posttest, 205 Cardiorespiratory arrest, 30t
management of, 34–35 pretest, 183–184 Car seat testing, 154
Anencephaly, 194–195 principles of, 186–187 Catheter, clots in, 9, 30t
Anoxia, 119 respect for autonomy in, 186 Central arterial catheter, 27–28
Anticonvulsant drugs, 171t self-test, 188, 203–205 Cesarean delivery, maternal refusal
Aortic regurgitation, 10 unilateral decision making and, of, 189
Aortic stenosis, 10 195–196 CHD. See Congenital heart disease
Aortopulmonary window, 10 withdrawal of life-sustaining (CHD)
Apnea measures and, 197–198 Chest movement in mechanical
continuous positive airway Birth asphyxia, 60, 119 ventilation, 81, 83
pressure (CPAP) for, 60 Birth weight and reference blood Chest radiography, 28, 107, 167t,
mechanical ventilation for, 77 pressure range, 6 173t
monitoring for, 147–149 Blood Chlorothiazide, 166t
Aqueductal stenosis, 190 amount for exchange Choice talk, 199–200, 202f
Arrhythmias, 30t transfusion, 25 Cholestatic jaundice, 163
Arterial blood gases, 169t preparation for exchange Chronic lung disease of prematurity
in continuous positive airway transfusion, 25 (CLD), 161–162,
pressure (CPAP), preservation of, 24–25 165–169t
62–63 types of donor, 24, 25 Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine
in mechanical ventilation, 84 warming of, 25 (CPDA-1), 24
Arterial catheter, 4, 27 Blood emboli, 29t, 37 CLD. See Chronic lung disease of
Arteriovenous fistula, 10 Blood exchange transfusions. See prematurity (CLD)
Asphyxia, birth, 60, 119 Exchange transfusions Clots
Aspiration syndrome, 103 Blood pressure measurement, 3–7. blood, 28
Attachment, parent-baby, See also Transducer blood catheter, 9, 30t
155–156, 172t pressure monitors Coarctation of the aorta, 10
Autonomy, respect for, 186 posttest, 12 Commercial stabilizers, 92–94
245
246
247
248
249
PCEP PCEP
BOOK
Perinatal Continuing Education Program, 4th Edition Perinatal Continuing Education Program
4TH EDITION
EDITOR IN CHIEF, NEONATOLOGY
Specialized
Robert A. Sinkin, MD, MPH, FAAP
Newborn Care
• Fetal Well-being
has enhanced the knowledge and skills • Is the Baby Sick? Recognizing and Preventing Problems in
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• Resuscitating the Newborn
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• Hypoglycemia
The fourth edition PCEP workbooks have been completely updated
MATERNAL AND FETAL CARE (BOOK 2)
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Earn
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concise information, step-by-step perinatal skill instruction, and • Infectious Diseases in Pregnancy
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practice-focused exercises. They offer time-saving, low-cost solutions • Obstetric Risk Factors: Prior or Current Pregnancy
or contact
for self-paced learning or as adjuncts to instructor-led skills teaching. • Psychosocial Risk Factors in Pregnancy
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AMA PRA Category 1 Credit(s)™, AAPA Category 1 CME credits, and Withdrawal Syndrome)
ANCC contact hours are available from the University of Virginia. Visit
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The University of Virginia School of Medicine and School of Nursing is • Exchange, Reduction, and Direct Transfusions
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FOR OTHER PEDIATRIC RESOURCES, VISIT THE AMERICAN ACADEMY • Biomedical Ethics and Perinatology
OF PEDIATRICS AT SHOP.AAP.ORG.
AAP