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Set 2

(1) The document provides instructions for a chemistry pre-board examination for Class XII students. It details the exam format including multiple choice questions, short answer questions, case studies, and long answer questions across 5 sections (A-E). (2) The exam contains 35 total questions worth a maximum of 70 marks and will take place on January 16, 2023 with a duration of 3 hours. (3) Section A contains 14 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 7 very short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Sections D and E contain case studies and long answer questions worth 4-5 marks

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
99 views

Set 2

(1) The document provides instructions for a chemistry pre-board examination for Class XII students. It details the exam format including multiple choice questions, short answer questions, case studies, and long answer questions across 5 sections (A-E). (2) The exam contains 35 total questions worth a maximum of 70 marks and will take place on January 16, 2023 with a duration of 3 hours. (3) Section A contains 14 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 7 very short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Sections D and E contain case studies and long answer questions worth 4-5 marks

Uploaded by

sanjith4aris
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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BANGALORE SAHODAYA SCHOOLS COMPLEX

PRE BOARD EXAMINATION - JANUARY 2023


CHEMISTRY (Code – 043)
CLASS XII
Date :16.01.2023 Maximum Marks: 70
No.of Pages: 06 SET 2 Time : 3hrs

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully:
1. There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
2. SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
3. SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
4. SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
5. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
6. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
7. All questions are compulsory.
8. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A
(Q. No. 1-14) The following questions are multiple choice questions with one correct answer.
Each question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.

1. Observe the diagram carefully. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Electrons flow from copper to zinc and current flows from zinc to copper.
b) Zinc is deposited at zinc electrode and copper dissolves at copper electrode.
c) Cell acts as electrolytic cell.
d) All of these.

2. Platinum is an inert electrode. Which statement about inert electrode is false?


a) It does not participate in cell reaction.
b) It provides surface area either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
c) It Provides surface for conduction of electrons.
d) It provides surface for redox reaction.

3. The rate constant of second order reactions has the unit


a) s-1 b) mol L-1 s-1 c) L2 mol-2 s-1 d) L mol-1 s-1

Class XII – Chemistry – Set 2 1


4. For the reaction A + 2B →AB2, the order with respect to reactant A is 2 and with respect to
reactant B is zero. What will be the change in the rate of the reaction if the concentration of A
is doubled and B is halved?
a) Increases four times b) Increases two times
c) Decreases four times d) No change.

5. The correct statement about the rate constant of a reaction is:


a) rate constant is nearly doubled with rise in temperature by 100C.
b) rate constant becomes half with rise in temperature by 100C.
c) rate constant remains unchanged with rise in temperature by 100C.
d) none of the above.

6. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with higher
catalytic activity?
a) High enthalpy of atomisation b) Paramagnetic behaviour
c) Colour of hydrate ions d) Variable oxidation states

7. Identify the correct IUPAC name of K3[Fe(CN)6]


a) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(III) b) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate (II)
c) Potassium hexacyanidoiron (III) d) Tripotassium hexacyanidoferrate(III)

8. Which substance is used to determine the hardness of water using a simple titration?
a) Mg(EDTA) b) Fe(EDTA) c) Na2(EDTA) d) Co(EDTA)

9. Which of the following substances has the highest melting point?


a) Chloromethane b) Tetrachloromethane c) Trichloromethane d) Dichloromethane

10. Mark the correct order of decreasing acidic strength of the following compounds.
i. Phenol ii. m-Nitrophenol iii. Methoxyphenol
iv. 2,4 – Dinitrophenol v. 2,4,6 – Trinitrophenol
a) v > iv > ii > i > iii b) iv > v > ii > i > iii
c) iii > i > ii > iv > v d) v < iv < ii < i < iii

11. The product of the following reaction is

a) Benzene b) Benzoquinone c) Picric acid d) Salicylaldehyde

12. On reduction of a carbonyl compound by Zn-Hg and Conc. HCl, it is converted to an


alkane. This reaction is known as,
a) Dow reduction b) Cope reduction c) Clemmensen reduction d) Wolf-Kishner reduction

13. The correct IUPAC name for CH2=CHCH2 – NH – CH3 is


a) Allylmethylamine b) 2–Amino–4–Pentene
c) 4–Aminopent–1–ene d) N–Methylprop–2–en–1–amine

Class XII – Chemistry – Set 2 2


14. The order of basic strength of amines in aqueous solution is
a) NH3 > (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2
b) NH3 > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH
c) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3
d) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > NH3

(Q. No. 15-18): Each of the following questions consist of two statements,
one is Assertion and the other is Reason. Choose the correct option.

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true

15. Assertion(A) – Albumin is a globular protein.


Reason(R) – Polypeptide chain coils around to give straight chain.

16. Assertion(A) – Primary amines undergo acylation easily.


Reason(R) – Primary amines have lowest boiling point among isomeric primary, secondary and
tertiary amines.

17. Assertion(A) – Phenyl ethyl ether reacts with HI to form phenol and ethyl iodide.
Reason(R) – Phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance.

18. Assertion(A) – Nb (Z=41) resembles Ta (Z=73) in its atomic radii.


Reason(R) – Atomic radius generally increases down the group.

SECTION B
(Q. No. 19-25): This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions.
The following questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each

19. How will the pH of aqueous copper sulphate be affected when it is electrolysed in the presence
of inert electrode. Justify with suitable reactions.

20. The C-14 content of an ancient piece of wood was found to have three tenths of that in living trees.
How old is that piece of wood? (log 3=0.4771, log 7=0.8540, half-life of C-14=5730 years)

21. Calculate the overall order of a reaction which has the rate expression,
a. Rate = k [A]2 [B]1/2
b. Rate= k [A]3/2 [B]-1

22. What is meant by Chelate effect? Give an example.


23. Write the formula of the main product formed in the following reaction.
a. CH3CH2-Br + AgCN(alc)
b. C2H5Cl + NaOC2H5(alc)
OR

Class XII – Chemistry – Set 2 3


a. + Mg dry ether

b. CH3-CH2-CH2-Br + KOH (alc)

24. How do you distinguish the following pair of compounds chemically?


(a) Ethanal and Methanal
(b) Benzaldehyde and Benzoic acid.

25. Justify the following statements.


(a) Tertiary amines do not react with Hinsberg’s reagent.
(b) pKb of Methanamine is less than that of Aniline.
OR
(a) Ethanamine is soluble in water, but Aniline is not.
(b) Aryl amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide process.

SECTION C
(Q. No. 26-30): This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question.
The following questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.

26. Based on Valence bond theory, Predict the following for the complex, [CoF6]3-
(a) Type of hybridization (b) Magnetic behaviour (c) Geometry of the complex.

27. (a) Find the Van’t Hoff’s factor for the complete dissociation of K4[Fe (CN)6].
(b) Calculate the mass of ascorbic acid (vitamin C, C6H8O6) to be dissolved in 75 g of acetic
acid to lower its melting point by 1·5 °C. (Kf for CH3COOH = 3·9 K kg mol-1)
(1+2)
28. (a) Write the reaction mechanism of conversion of tertiary butyl chloride to tertiary butyl alcohol.
(b) How do you convert Chlorobenzene to Phenol?
OR (2+1)
(a) Write the mechanism of the following reaction
CH3CH2CH2CH2Br + KCN →
(b) How will you convert 2,4,6 - Trinitrochlorobenzene to picric acid?

29. Explain the following reactions with an example.


(a) Reimer Tiemann’s reaction
(b) Hydroboration – oxidation process of alkenes
(c) Halogenation of Anisole

30. (a) Identify A and B in each of the following processes

(b) Write the equation for Carbylamine test with respect to Propanamine. (2+1)

Class XII – Chemistry – Set 2 4


SECTION D
(Q. No. 31-32): The following questions are case-based questions.
Each question has an internal choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each.
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:

31. An ideal solution may be defined as the solution which obeys Raoult's law exactly over the
entire range of concentration. The solutions for which vapour pressure is either higher or lower
than that predicted by Raoult's law are called non-ideal solutions.Non ideal solutions can show
either positive or negative deviations from Raoult's law depending on whether the A-B
interactions in solution are stronger or weaker than A - A and B - B interactions.
a. What type of deviation is shown by a solution containing Ethanol and Water?
b. What type of solution is formed by a mixture of Benzene and Toluene?
c. The vapour pressure of pure A and B are 450 mm and 700 mm of Hg respectively at 350K.
What are the mole fractions of A and B in the vapour phase, if the total pressure on mixing
is 600mm of Hg? (1+1+2)
OR
Calculate the mass of solute (non-volatile) with molar mass 40g/mol which must be dissolved
in 114 g of Octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80% of its original value.

32. The single-stranded RNA genome of SARS-CoV-2 contains 29891 nucleotides, encoding for
9860 amino acids. Corona Virus is highly contagious. Like other RNA viruses, SARS-CoV-
2, while adapting to their new human hosts, is prone to genetic evolution with the development
of mutations over time, resulting in mutant variants that may have different characteristics
than its ancestral strains.
 Alpha (B.1.1.7):
 Beta (B.1.351):
 Gamma (P.1):
 Delta (B.1.617.2):
 Omicron (B.1.1.529):
Despite the unprecedented speed of vaccine development against the prevention of COVID-19 and
robust global mass vaccination efforts including vaccine boosters, the emergence of these new
SARS-CoV-2 variants threatens to overturn the significant progress made so far in limiting the
spread of this viral illness. Coronaviruses (CoVs) are positive-stranded RNA(+ssRNA) viruses
with a crown-like appearance under an electron microscope (coronam is the Latin term for crown)
due to the presence of spike glycoproteins on the envelope. RNA synthesis in coronavirus is more
complex, transcription and replication may serve as a paradigm of RNA synthesis for RNA viruses
is general. The virus uses the host cell’s machinery to replicate. Covid – 19 vaccines are based on
RNA technology. ‘RNA based vaccine inject a short sequence of synthetic m-RNA that is enclosed
in a specially engineered lipid nano particle which provide instructions to produce the virus
antigens which produce antibodies to fight against coronavirus.
a) What are different types of RNA?
b) Give one structural difference between RNA and DNA?
c) How do m – RNA vaccine work? What are antigens? (1+1+2)
OR
c) What are products of hydrolysis of RNA? What are mutations?

Class XII – Chemistry – Set 2 5


SECTION E

(Q.No 33 – 35)- This section contains 3 questions with internal choice in two questions.
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each.

33. a) Eocell of a given redox reaction is 2.71 V.


Mg(s) + Cu2+ (0.01M) → Mg2+ (0.001M) + Cu(s)
Calculate Ecell for the reaction. Write the direction of flow of current when an
external opposite potential applied is
i. less than 2.71 V ii. greater than 2.71 V.
b) Write the products of electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl at cathode and anode giving
the reactions involved. (3+2)
OR
a) Calculate the emf for the given cell at 250C:
Cr | Cr3+ (0.1M) || Fe2+ (0.01M) | Fe
(Given; E0 (Cr3+/Cr) = - 0.74 V, E0 (Fe2+/ Fe) = - 0.44 V)
b) Write the products of electrolysis of molten NaCl at cathode and anode giving the
reactions involved.
34. a) Complete the following reactions
i. FeCr2O4 + Na2CO3 + O2 ii. K2MnO4 + HCl
b) Account for the following
i. Enthalpy of atomization of transition metal is high.
ii. Transition metals can form complex compounds in Zero oxidation state also.
iii. Cu2+ is blue whereas Zn2+ is colourless. (2+3)

35. a) Alkene (X) (C5H10) on ozonolysis gives a mixture of two compounds (Y) and (Z). Compound
(Y) gives positive Fehling's test and iodoform test. Compound (Z) does not give Fehling's testbut
give iodoform test. Identify the Compounds (X), (Y) and (Z). Write the reaction for ozonolysis
and formation of iodoform from Y and Z.
b) Account for the following:
i. Dipole moment of aldehydes and ketones higher than those of alcohols.
ii.Methanal is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction than ethanal.
OR (3+2)
a) (A), (B) and (C) are three non-cylic funtional isomers of a carbonyl compound with
molecular formula C4H8O. Isomers (A) and (C) give positive Tollen's test whereas isomer
(B) does not give Tollens' test but gives positive iodoform test. Isomers (A) and
(B) on reduction with Zn(Hg) and conc. HCl give the same product (D). Write
the structures of (A), (B), (C) and (D) and also write an equation to show the conversion
of A to D.
b) Account for the following:
i. Carboxylic acids do not give properties of aldehydes and ketones.
ii. Acetic acid can be halogenated in the presence of red P and Cl2 but formic acid
cannot be halogenated in the same way.

*********************

Class XII – Chemistry – Set 2 6

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