MANUFACTURING PROCESSES ONE AND MANUFACTURING PROCESSES TWO FOR INDUSTRIAL

ENGINEERING STUDENTS

EXAM CONTAINS 29 MULTIPLE CHOOSE QUESTIONS.

1. Which one of the following statement is not determined the quality of a sand mold for sand
casting?
A. Strength, Permeability, thermal stability, collapsibility and Reusability of sand mold.
B. Refractoriness, adhesiveness and amount of clay contents should be above 50%
C. Cohesiveness, high permeability and it should be reused for mold making.
D. All of the above
2. Which die-casting machines usually have a higher production rate?
A. cold-chamber die casting machine
B. hot-chamber die casting machine
C. Cold and hot chamber die casting machines have equal production rates.
D. None of the above.
3. Which operation do you do after the casting is removed from the mold?
A. trimming, sprues, runners, risers, and flash are removed,
B. surface cleaning, and inspection are done
C. heat treatment, and machining is necessarily done.
D. All of these
4. Among the following which one is not the general properties that distinguish metals from
ceramics and polymers?
A. High strength and stiffness.
B. Good electrical and thermal conductivity and higher density than ceramics or polymers.
C. Good electrical and thermal conductivity and lower density than ceramics or polymers.
D. None of the above
5. Identify the true statement about pure and alloys metals solidification during casting operation?
A. Pure metals solidify at a single temperature equal to the melting point and Most alloys
start to solidify at the liquidus and complete solidification occurs at the solidus, where
the liquidus is a higher temperature than the solidus
B. Alloys metals solidify at a single temperature equal to the melting point.
C. Most alloys and pure metals start to solidify at the liquidus and complete solidification
occurs at the solidus, where the liquidus is a higher temperature than the solidus.
D. Most pure metas start to solidify at the liquidus and complete solidification occurs at
the solidus, where the liquidus is a higher temperature than the solidus
6. In casting, a flask is ------------
A. beverage bottle for foundry men,
B. box which holds the cope and drag,
C. container for holding liquid metal,
 D. Metal which extrudes between the mold halves?
7. In casting, turbulence during pouring of the molten metal is undesirable for which of the
following reasons
A. It causes discoloration of the mold surfaces,
B. It dissolves the binder used to hold together the sand mold,
C. It increases erosion of the mold surfaces and the formation of metallic oxides that can
become entrapped during solidification,
D. It increases the mold filling time and total solidification time?
8. A riser in casting is ----------------------:
A. An insert in the casting that inhibits buoyancy of the core,
B. Gating system in which the sprue feeds directly into the cavity,
C. Source of molten metal to feed the casting and compensate for shrinkage during
solidification,
D. All of the above
9. The downsprue leading into the runner of a certain mold has a length = 175 mm. The cross-
sectional area at the base of the sprue is 400 mm2. The mold cavity has a volume = 0.001 m3.
Which of the following are the values of the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the
base of the downsprue, and the volume rate of flow, and (c) the time required to fill the mold
cavity
A. Velocity v = 1853 mm/s and Volume flow rate Q = 741,200 mm3/s
B. Velocity v = 1853 mm/s and Volume flow rate Q = 841,200 mm3/s
C. Velocity v = 1853 mm/s and Volume flow rate Q = 791,200 mm3/s
D. Velocity v = 1953 mm/s and Volume flow rate Q = 741,200 mm3/s
10. Good properties that determine the quality of a sand mold for sand casting are --------
A. Ability to maintain shape in the face of the flowing metal and can the sand be reused to
make other molds?
B. Ability of the mold to allow hot air and gases to escape from the cavity,
C. Ability to resist cracking and buckling when in contact with the molten metal,
D. All of these
E. None of the above
11. Which one of the following casting processes is the most widely used:
A. centrifugal casting,
B. die casting,
C. investment casting,
D. sand casting,
E. shell casting
12. Which of the following qualifies as a precision-casting process (two correct answers):
A. Ingot casting, and investment casting,
B. Investment casting and plaster-mold casting,
C. sand casting, and shell molding casting
D. All of the above
13. Which of the following are advantages of die casting over sand casting processes?
A. Better surface finish, closer tolerances and mold can be reused
B. Better surface finish, closer tolerances and mold can be used for one time.
C. , All metals includes metals with higher melting temperature can be cast,
D. Higher production rates and larger parts can be cast.
14. Which of the principal methods used to produce metallic powders?
A. The conversion of molten metal into droplets which solidify into powders
B. Reducing metallic oxides by use of reducing agents which combine with the oxygen to
free the metals in the form of powders.
C. Use of an electrolytic cell to deposit particles of the metal onto the cathode in the cell
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
15. In which one of metal forming temperature, we obtain better accuracy, better surface finish,
and high strength due to work hardening.
A. In hot metal forming operation.
B. In cold metal forming operation.
C. In warm metal forming operation.
D. All of these
16. Which of the following operations are categorized under bulk deformation processes?
A. Extrusion ,bending, forging and bar drawing operations
B. Forging, deep drawing, sheet metal working and rolling operations.
C. Extrusion, forging, rolling, and wire drawing.
D. Shearing, stretching and spinning operations.
17. A metal has a flow curve with strength coefficient = 850 MPa and strain-hardening exponent =
0.30. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 100 mm is stretched to a length = 157
mm. which of the following are the value of the flow stress at the new length and the average
flow stress that the metal has been subjected during the deformation.
A. Flow stress = 569.4 MPa and Average flow stress = 414.9 MPa.
B. Flow stress = 669.4 MPa and Average flow stress = 514.9 MPa.
C. Flow stress = 769.4 MPa and Average flow stress = 614.9 MPa.
D. Flow stress = 869.4 MPa and Average flow stress = 714.9 MPa.
18. Which of the following are categorized as forging operations?
A. coining, fullering, impact extrusion, and roll piercing,
B. swaging, thread rolling, trimming, and upsetting
C. Fullering, swaging and upsetting
D. All of the above
19. Which of the following bulk deformation processes are involved in the production of nails for
lumber construction
A. bar and wire drawing, extrusion, and flashless forging
B. Close die forging, impression dies forging, and, bar and wire drawing processes.
C. Upsetting, rolling, and impression die forging.
D. None of the above.
Manufacturing Engineering TWO

1. Which of the following are not basic categories of material removal processes?
A. conventional machining, abrasive processes, and powder metal forming processes
B. Extrusion processes, abrasive processes, and nontraditional processes
C. conventional machining, abrasive processes, and nontraditional processes
D. sheet metal drawing processes, abrasive processes, and nontraditional processes
2. Of the following are true during roughing turning operations in metal removal processes when
we are applied conventional lathe machine.
A. used to remove large amounts of material rapidly and to produce part geometry close
to the desired shape
B. Machining parameters such as low cutting speed, high feed and high depth of cut
are used for roughing turning operation,
C. Used to achieve the final geometry and surface finish with high cutting speed, low
feed and low depth of cut.
D. A and B
E. All of the following.
3. Orthogonal cutting involves the use of a wedge- shaped tool in which the cutting edge is---------
A. parallel to the direction of speed motion into the work material
B. Perpendicular to the direction of speed motion into the work material
C. At angle to the direction of speed motion into the work material
D. All of the above.
4. A finishing operation generally involves which one of the following combinations of cutting
conditions:
A. high cutting speed, feed, and depth of cut
B. high cutting speed, low feed, and depth of cut
C. low cutting speed, high feed, and depth of cut
D. Low cutting speed, feed, and depth of cut
5. The chip thickness ratio during orthogonal metal cutting can be calculated by using one of the
following equations.
chipthickness after cut
A. Chip thickness ratio = , always less than one
chipthickness before cut

chipthickness before cut

B. Chip thickness ratio = always greater than one
chipthickness after cut

chipthickness after cut

C. Chip thickness ratio = always equal to one
chipthickness before cut
 chipthickness before cut
D. Chip thickness ratio = always less than one
chipthickness after cut

6. Which one of the following metals would usually have the lowest unit horsepower in a
machining operation?
A. aluminum,
B. brass,
C. cast iron,
D. Steel
7. Low carbon steel having a tensile strength of 300 MPa and shear strength of 220 MPa is cut in a
turning operation with a cutting speed of 3.0 m/s. The feed is 0.20 mm/rev and the depth of cut
is 3.0 mm. The rake angle of the tool is 5° in the direction of chip flow. The resulting chip ratio is
0.45. Which one of the following is the value of the shear plane angle?
A. The shear plane angle = tan-1¿ ] = 25.0°
.
312 cos(45 °−5 °)
B. The shear plane angle = = 566 N
cos(25.0°+ 45.0 °−5 °)
(0.45 cos 5 °)
C. The shear plane angle = tan-1[ ¿] = 65.0°
1−0.45 sin 5 °¿
D. None of the above
8. In peripheral milling, cutting is accomplished by the peripheral teeth of the milling cutter
and the tool axis is moved in which direction to the work surface;
A. Parallel to the work surface
B. Perpendicular to the work surface
C. Either parallel or perpendicular to the work surface
D. All of these
9. A cylindrical workpart 200 mm in diameter and 700 mm long is to be turned in an
engine lathe. Cutting speed = 2.30 m/s, feed = 0.32 mm/rev, and depth of cut = 1.80
mm. which of the following are the values of cutting time and metal removal rate.
A. Machine time and metal removal rate will 10minutes and 1320mm3/second.
B. Machine time and metal removal rate will 9minutes and 2320mm3/second.
C. Machine time and metal removal rate will 20minutes and 1320mm3/second.
D. All of the above.
10. Which of the following is the fundamental difference between a fusion weld and a solid
state weld?
A. In fusion weld the coalescence is accomplished by melting two metal parts to be
joined while In a solid state weld, the heat and pressure are used to
accomplished join two parts of metal without base metal is melted.
B. In fusion weld the coalescence is accomplished by melting two metal parts to be
joined while In a solid state weld, the heat and pressure are used to
accomplished join two parts of metal with or without base metal is melted.
C. In a fusion weld, the metal is not melted while in a solid state weld, the metal is
melted to accomplish welding processes.
D. None of the above