132/2023

Maximum : 100 marks

Time : 1 hour and 30 minutes

1. Which of the following is not true?

(A) Sum of all the elements in a symmetric matrix is zero
(B) If A is a skew symmetric matrix, then A 2 is a symmetric matrix
(C) Determinant of a skew symmetric matrix of odd order is always non zero
(D) If A is a skew symmetric matrix of order n, then det( AT ) = ( −1)n det ( A )

2. The system of equations x − 2 y + 3z = 17 , 2x + y + 2z = 6 , 2x − 4 y + 6z = 34 has :

(A) Unique solution (B) No solution
(C) Infinite number of solutions (D) None of these

3. f ( x ) = 5x 3 + 2x 2 − 3x . Consider the statements :

3
(i) f (x ) has a local maximum at x =
5
−1
(ii) f (x ) has a local minimum at x =
3
−3
(iii) f (x ) has a local maximum at x =
5
1
(iv) f (x ) has a local minimum at x = . Then
3
(A) (i) and (iv) are true (B) (ii) and (iii) are true
(C) (i) and (ii) are true (D) (iii) and (iv) are true

4. Equation of tangent to a curve at (2, 3) is 2x + 3 y = 13 . The equation of normal at (2, 3) is :

(A) 3x − 2 y = 0 (B) 3x − 2 y = 13
(C) 2x − 3 y = 0 (D) 2x − 3 y = 13

log(1 − x ) + cos x
5. lim =
x →0 x2
1
(A) 0 (B)
2
−1
(C) (D) −1
2

A 3
[P.T.O.]
6. Sum of coefficient in the expansion of (1 − 3x + 2x 3 )512 is :
(A) 0 (B) 2512
(C) −1 (D) −2

7. 2 i sec θ + tan θ = 2 , where i 2 = −1 . What is the value of sec θ + 2 i tan θ ?

(A) 2 2 (B) + 7
(C) 0 (D) 2i

 x (1 + x )
99
8. The value of dx is :
0

−1 11
(A) (B)
10100 10100
1 1
(C) (D)
10010 11100

9. Area bounded by the curve y = sin x between x = 0 and x = 2π and x -axis is :

(A) 0 sq. units (B) 2 sq. units
3
(C) sq. units (D) 4 sq. units
2

10. Angle between the straight lines 2x − y + 3 = 0 and x + 2 y + 3 = 0 is :

(A) 90° (B) 60°
(C) 45° (D) 30°

11. A projected stone which is provided to serve as a support for trusses and beams is known as :
(A) Lintel (B) Sill
(C) Cornice (D) Corbel

12. The angle of intersection of two plane mirrors of an optical square is :

(A) 45 (B) 90

(C) 30 (D) 22 12

13. The Bulking of sand caused due to :

(A) Air voids (B) Surface moisture
(C) Viscosity (D) All of above

132/2023 4 A
14. The sensitivity of bubble tube can be increased :
(A) viscosity of liquid is greater
(B) increasing the diameter of tube
(C) surface tension of the liquid is greater
(D) decrease the length of tube

15. The axis about which the lower and upper plates of a theodolite rotate is called :
(A) Trunnion axis (B) Horizontal axis
(C) Vertical axis (D) Level tube axis

16. Gudgeon pin connects :

(A) Crank and connecting rod (B) Piston and connecting rod
(C) Crank and crank shaft (D) None of the above

17. For multi cylinder engines :

(A) Lighter fly wheels are used
(B) Heavier fly wheels are used
(C) Number of cylinders does not affect
(D) None of the above

18. Which of the following act as a sort of regulating reservoir temporarily in the event of
rejection of load by the turbine in hydro electric power plant?
(A) Penstock (B) Trash rack
(C) Dam (D) Forebay

19. Select correct statements about economiser used in steam power plants :
(i) It reduces the losses of heat with the flue gases
(ii) It is intended for heating the feed water
(iii) It increases the consumption of fuel
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

20. Moderators used in nuclear power plant :

(A) Increases number of neutrons released
(B) Increases neutrons speed
(C) Reduces neutrons speed
(D) None of the above

A 5 132/2023
[P.T.O.]
21. A conductor of length 28 meter has a resistance of 0.84 Ω . If the area of cross section of the
conductor is 2 meter square then its specific resistance is ————— Ω − m :
(A) 4.7 × 10–8 (B) 6 × 10–8
(C) 12 × 10–8 (D) 0.06 × 10–8

22. The board of trade unit (BOT) represents :

(A) kWh (B) KW
(C) KVAR (D) KVA

23. Which of the following statement is / are correct about a Parallel Circuit?
(i) Different branch resistors have their individual currents.
(ii) The branch currents and conductance are additive.
(iii) Same voltage and current acts across all branches of the circuit.
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (iii) (D) All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)

24. If a capacitor is connected across a 100 V dc supply for 0.2 sec with a steady current of 0.3 A,
then its capacity is ————— Micro farad and charge is ————— Coulomb.
(A) 6000 and 0.006 (B) 60 and 0.006
(C) 0.06 and 60 (D) 600 and 0.06

25. The ratio of effective value to mean value of an alternating wave is called :
(A) Form factor (B) Peak factor
(C) Amplitude factor (D) Both (B) and (C)

26. Voltage across the non-conducting diode in a bridge rectifier is —————, where 6V is the
peak value of the input voltage.
(A) 0V (B) 6V
(C) 12V (D) None of the above

27. Function of relay is to :

(A) Break the fault current
(B) Sense the fault only
(C) Sense the fault and actuate the trip signal to CB
(D) None of the above

28. Statement which is not applicable to microcontroller :

(A) It is a general purpose digital computer
(B) It has internal RAM and ROM
(C) It has parallel and series I/O
(D) It has timer

132/2023 6 A
29. Pick the statement which does not satisfy for GSM :
(A) Is less secure
(B) Operates on spread spectrum technique
(C) Uses SIM card
(D) Uses TDMA technique

30. UPS requires :

(A) Only rectifier (B) Only inverter
(C) Both inverter and rectifier (D) None of these

31. The following are pairs of ISO-OSI layers/sub-layers and functionalities in which one of them
is incorrect. Identify the incorrect pair :
(A) Medium Access Control, Channel sharing
(B) Data Link Layer, Bit synchronization
(C) Network Layer, Routing
(D) Transport Layer, End-to-End process communication

32. A sender, which employs Stop and Wait ARQ technique, wants to send 10 packets to a
receiver. Assume that the channel is noisy and every 4th packet sent by the sender is lost.
How many packets the sender will have to send in total so that the receiver receives all the
10 packets correctly?
(A) 21 (B) 12
(C) 13 (D) 20

33. Consider the message M = 1010001101. The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) code for this
message using the divisor (generator) polynomial x 5 + x 4 + x 2 + 1 is :
(A) 10101 (B) 01011
(C) 01110 (D) 10110

34. A sender A, which employs Sliding Window protocol, wants to send 64 byte packets to a
receiver B. Assume that the Round Trip Time is 80 milliseconds, and the maximum
bandwidth of the channel connecting A and B is 64 kbps. What is the optimal window size
that A should use?
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 40 (D) 80

35. A sender A sends an IPv4 packet D to a receiver B. Assume that D reached B without any
error. Which of the following header fields of D would have changed during transit?
(i) TTL
(ii) Checksum
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) None of these

A 7 132/2023
[P.T.O.]
36. Two computers A and B have IPv4 addresses 10.14.2.115 and 10.14.2.90 respectively. Which
of the following should not be used as a subnet mask for both, if both A and B should belong
to the same subnet?
(A) 255.255.255.0 (B) 255.255.255.128
(C) 255.255.255.192 (D) 255.255.255.224

37. Identify the correct sequence in which the following packets are transmitted on the network
by a host when a browser requests a webpage from a remote server, assuming that the host
has just been restarted :
(A) DNS query, HTTP GET, TCP SYN
(B) DNS query, TCP SYN, HTTP GET
(C) HTTP GET, DNS query, TCP SYN
(D) TCP SYN, DNS query, HTTP GET

38. Consider the following two statements :

S1 : Destination MAC address of an ARP reply message is a broadcast address.
S2 : Destination MAC address of an ARP request message is a broadcast address.
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both S1 and S2 are false (B) S1 is false and S2 is true
(C) S1 is true and S2 is false (D) Both S1 and S2 are true

39. Consider the two well-known hard problems :

“Factorization Problem” (FP) and “Discrete Logarithm Problem” (DLP). The Security of RSA
cryptosystem is —————.
(A) Lost when FP has a polynomial time solution but is not affected when DLP has a
polynomial time solution
(B) Lost when DLP has a polynomial time solution but is not affected when FP has a
polynomial time solution
(C) Lost when either FP or DLP has a polynomial time solution
(D) Lost only when both FP and DLP have polynomial time solutions

40. Alice digitally signs a message (say, using RSA digital signature scheme) and sends it to Bob.
Verification of the signature by Bob requires :
(A) Alice’s public key (B) Bob's public key
(C) Alice’s private key (D) Bob’s private key

132/2023 8 A
41. Consider the following two statements :
S1 : A MAC provides both integrity and (data origin) authentication.
S2 : A digital signature provides both integrity and (data origin) authentication.
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both S1 and S2 are false (B) S1 is false and S2 is true
(C) S1 is true and S2 is false (D) Both S1 and S2 are true

42. The value of 5 −1 mod 23 is :

(A) 20 (B) 12
(C) 13 (D) None of these

43. Consider the following two statements :

S1 : FDMA has less issues due to signal interference than CDMA.
S2 : FDMA can accommodate more users per unit bandwidth than CDMA.
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both S1 and S2 are false (B) S1 is false and S2 is true
(C) S1 is true and S2 is false (D) Both S1 and S2 are true

44. The types of logical channels supported by the protocol L2CAP of Bluetooth are :
(A) Signalling and Connection-less logical channels only
(B) Signalling and Connection-Oriented logical channels only
(C) Connection-less and Connection oriented logical channels only
(D) Signalling, Connection-less and Connection oriented logical channels

45. In a J–K flip-flop, when J = 1 and K = 1, the output toggles continuously between 1 and 0.
This oscillation between 1 and 0 leads to a :
(A) Reset Condition (B) Race-around Condition
(C) Set Condition (D) Preset Condition

46. The Boolean expression (X+Y)(X+Z) can be simplified as :

(A) X+YZ (B) XY+YZ
(C) (X+Y)Z (D) (X+Z)Y

47. Which of the following values is to be considered for a “Don’t Care condition"?
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) Either 1 or 0 (D) None of the above

48. The hexadecimal equivalent of the octal number 675 is :

(A) 1BD (B) 2A3
(C) 445 (D) None of the above

A 9 132/2023
[P.T.O.]
49. The minimum number of D flip-flops needed to construct a modulo-258 counter is :
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 258 (D) 512

50. Which of the following is the corresponding min term when A=1, B=0, C=0 and D=1?
(A) A + B’ + C’ + D (B) A’ . B . C . D’
(C) A’ + B + C + D (D) A . B’ . C’ . D

n
51. A combinational circuit which has a single input, ‘n’ selection lines and a maximum of 2
outputs is a/an :
(A) Encoder (B) Multiplexer
(C) Decoder (D) Demultiplexer

52. A 16-bit address bus can handle a maximum of ————— different addresses.
(A) 25622 (B) 65536
(C) 32766 (D) 65652

53. A controller that takes control of the buses and transfers data directly between source and
destination bypassing the microprocessor is called :
(A) DMA Controller (B) Master-Slave Controller
(C) Disk Controller (D) Read-Write Controller

54. The memory address of the next instruction executed by the microprocessor 8086, when
operated in real mode with value in CS = 1000 and value in IP = E000, is :
(A) 10E00 (B) 1E000
(C) F000 (D) 1000 E

55. In 8086 assembly language, which of the following is not in the category of reserved words?
(A) directive (B) operator
(C) label (D) predefined symbol

56. Identify the addressing mode which is used in the following instruction :
MOV AX, [1562H]
(A) Register addressing mode (B) Register Indirect addressing mode
(C) Direct addressing mode (D) Immediate addressing mode

57. In 8255 PPI, which of the following modes takes only port C bits for set or reset?
(A) BSR Mode (B) Hand Shake I/O Mode
(C) Strobed I/O Mode (D) Bi-directional Data Bus Mode

132/2023 10 A
58. For the 8279 programmable keyboard/display controller, in the ————— mode, the key
matrix can be interfaced using either encoded or decoded scans.
(A) Interrupt Mode (B) Polled Mode
(C) Scanned Keyboard Mode (D) Scanned Sensor Matrix Mode

59. A RAM chip has a capacity of 1024 words of 8 bits each (1K × 8). The number of 2 × 4
decoders with enable line needed to construct a 16K × 16 RAM from 1K × 8 RAM is :
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) None of the above

60. The reason for performing Register Renaming in pipelined processors is :

(A) It is an alternative to register allocation at compile time
(B) It is done as part of address translation
(C) It is done for efficient access to function parameters and local variables
(D) It is done to eliminate output dependences and antidependences between
instructions

61. The performance of pipelined processor is badly affected if :

(A) The pipeline stages have different delays
(B) Consecutive instructions are dependent on each other
(C) The pipeline stages share a single hardware resource
(D) All of the above

62. In an instruction execution pipeline, the earliest that the data TLB (Translation Look a side
Buffer) can be accessed is :
(A) before effective address calculation has started
(B) during effective address calculation
(C) after effective address calculation has completed
(D) after data cache lookup has completed

63. Increasing the RAM of a computer typically increases the performance because :
(A) Virtual Memory increases (B) Fewer Page Faults occur
(C) Larger RAMs are faster (D) All of the above

64. Consider a direct mapped cache of size 32 KB with block size 32 bytes. The CPU generates 32
bit addresses. The number of bits needed for cache indexing and the number of tag bits are
respectively, ————— and —————.
(A) 10, 17 (B) 10, 22
(C) 15, 17 (D) 15, 22

A 11 132/2023
[P.T.O.]
65. Consider the following two resource allocation policies (to processes) :
P1: Make a process to release all resources before requesting a new resource.
P2: Make a process to request and get allocated all the required resources before execution.
Which of the policies will lead to deadlock prevention?
(A) Both P1 and P2 (B) P1 only
(C) P2 only (D) Neither P1 nor P2

66. In a uniprocessor system, three processes P1, P2, and P3 having overall execution time of 10,
20 and 30 units respectively, arrive at the zeroth instant. Each process spends the first 20%
of the overall execution time doing I/O operations, the next 70% of time doing computation,
and the last 10% of time doing I/O operations again. The operating system employs Shortest
Remaining Time First scheduling algorithm and schedules a new process either when the
running process gets blocked due to its I/O operations or when the running process finishes
its computing. Assume that all I/O operations of the processes can be overlapped. For what
percentage of the total time (from the zeroth instant till all processes finish) does the CPU
remain idle?
(A) 0% (B) 4.26%
(C) 10.64% (D) 30.03%

67. Which of the following scheduling algorithms is most suitable for a time-sharing operating
system?
(A) First Come First Serve (B) Shortest Job First
(C) Shortest Remaining Time First (D) Round Robin

68. A process executes the equivalent executable code of the following code:
for(i = 0; 1< n; i++) fork();
The number of child processes created which do not further create any child processes is :
(A) 2n − 1 (B) 2n
(C) 2n −1 − 1 (D) 2n −1

69. The arrival time and processing time of four processes, in the pattern (Process name, Arrival
time, Processing time) are as follows: (P1, 0, 6), (P2, 2, 12), (P3, 8, 8), (P4, 12, 4). Which of the
following process scheduling algorithms will give the lowest average turnaround time?
(A) First Come First Serve
(B) Shortest Job First (Without Preemption)
(C) Shortest Remaining Time First
(D) Round Robin with slot size of four time units

70. Belady's anomaly may occur if ————— page replacement policy is employed.
(A) FIFO (B) LRU
(C) MRU (D) Optimal

132/2023 12 A
71. There are three processes in a system. Each requires access to four units of a non-sharable
I/O device for their computation. What is the minimum number of instances of the I/O device
required so that the processes will never face a deadlock?
(A) 4 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) None of these

72. Consider the following two statements regarding Magnetic Disks with concentric circular
tracks :
S1 : The highest share of Disk Service Time is contributed by rotational latency.
S2 : All tracks have the same storage capacity.
Which of the following is correct?
(A) Both S1 and S2 are false (B) S1 is false and S2 is true
(C) S1 is true and S2 is false (D) Both S1 and S2 are true

73. class Parent {

final public void fun1 ( ) {
}
public void fun2 ( ) {
}
}
class Child extends Parent {
// <overriding instructions>
}
Which of the functions in the Parent class can be overridden by the Child class?
(A) fun1( ) only
(B) both fun1 ( ) and fun2 ( ) can be overridden
(C) fun2 ( ) only
(D) no method can be overridden

74. Which of the following statements is true in case of multiple catch blocks in JAVA?
(A) Either of the superclass or subclass can be caught first
(B) The superclass exception must be caught first
(C) The superclass exception cannot be caught first
(D) None of these

75. Which of the following contains only unimplemented methods?

(A) An Child Class (B) An Interface
(C) An Abstract class (D) None of these

A 13 132/2023
[P.T.O.]
76. Which is/are valid constructor(s) for Thread in JAVA?
1. Thread (Runnable r, String name)
2. Thread ( )
3. Thread (int priority)
4. Thread (Runnable r, int priority)
(A) 1 only (B) 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2

77. Consider the following code snippet in JAVA :

String str1 = new String (“Kerala”) ;
String str2 = new String (“Kerala”) ;
String str3 = “Kerala” ;
String str4 = “Kerala” ;
How many objects are created?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

78. What is the time complexity of the algorithm to check whether an edge exists between a
given pair of nodes, if the graph is represented as an adjacency list?
(A) O(V) (B) O(E)

(C) O(V+E) (D) O(V2)

79.

If the post order traversal of the above graph gives pq + rs∗ – then the label of the nodes 1, 2,
3, 4, 5, 6, 7 will be :
(A) –, +, ∗, p, q, r, s (B) p, +, q, –, r, ∗, s
(C) p, q, r, s, +, ∗, – (D) +, p, q, –, ∗, r, s

132/2023 14 A
80. A priority queue is implemented using a binary max heap. Which of the following is a valid
level order traversal of the heap and the content of the heap after two delete operations?
(A) [35, 22, 26, 23, 20, 18, 24] & [26, 23, 20, 18, 24]
(B) [35, 24, 23, 26, 20, 18, 22] & [24, 23, 20, 18, 22]
(C) [35, 24, 26, 23, 20, 18, 22] & [24, 23, 22, 18, 20]
(D) [35, 24, 22, 23, 20, 18, 26] & [24, 23, 22, 20, 18]

81. Local variables of a function are stored in :

(A) Heap (B) Stack
(C) Free Memory (D) Registers

82.

Which is the correct DFS search sequence of the above graph if the search starts from node
5 and reverse lexicographic ordering of the adjacent vertices are chosen for search?
(A) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0 (B) 5, 1, 2, 3, 0, 4
(C) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1, 0 (D) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2, 0

83. A software project involves execution of FIVE tasks T1 , T2 , T3 , T4 and T5 each of duration
8, 10, 13, 25 and 30 hours respectively. The tasks T2 and T4 can start only after T1 is
complete. Task T3 can start only after T2 is complete. Task T5 can start only after both T3
and T4 are complete :
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 13 (D) 18

84. What is the primary determinant of selecting activities in each iteration in the Spiral model
of software development?
(A) Risk (B) Iteration size
(C) Cost (D) Adopted process

A 15 132/2023
[P.T.O.]
85. In a software project COCOMO is used to estimate :
(A) effort and duration based on the size of the software
(B) effort and cost based on the duration of the software
(C) size and duration based on the effort of the software
(D) size, effort and duration based on the cost of the software

86. The measure of the time between observed system failures is :

(A) Probability of Failure on Demand (POFOD)
(B) Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF)
(C) Mean Time to Failure (MTTF)
(D) Availability (AVAIL)

87. Which of the following statement are TRUE about an SQL query?
(i) An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause even if it does not have a GROUP BY
clause
(ii) An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause only if it has GROUP BY clause
(iii) All attributes used in the GROUP BY clause must appear in the SELECT clause
(iv) Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause need to appear in the SELECT clause
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)

88. Consider the schema R = ( A , B, C , D ) and the dependencies A → B, B → C , C → D and

D → A . Let R = ( R 1 and R2) be a decomposition such that R1 ∩ R2 ≠ ⊘. The decomposition is :

(A) Not in 2NF (B) In 2NF but not in 3NF

(C) In 3NF but not in 2NF (D) In both 2NF and 3NF

89. When a transaction Ti requests a data item currently held by T j ,Ti is allowed to wait only if
it has a timestamp larger than that of T j (that is Ti is younger than T j ). Otherwise, T j is
rolled back. The scheme is :
(A) Wait-die (B) Wait-wound
(C) Wound-wait (D) Wait

132/2023 16 A
90. Which of the following is the correct way to register a jdbcOdbcDriver?
(A) jdbc . odbc . JdbcOdbcDriver obj = new
sun . jdbc . odbc . JdbcOdbcDriver ( ) ;
(B) odbc . JdbcOdbcDriver obj = new
sun . odbc . JdbcOdbcDriver ( ) ;
(C) jdbc . JdbcOdbcDriver obj = new
sun . jdbc . JdbcOdbcDriver ( ) ;
(D) jdbc . odbc . JdbcOdbc obj = new
sun . jdbc. odbc . JdbcOdbc ( ) ;

91. Given the basic ER and relational models, which of the following is correct?
(A) An attribute of an entity can have only one value
(B) An attribute of an entity cannot be composite
(C) In a row of a relational table, an attribute can have more than one value
(D) In a row of a relational table, an attribute can have exactly one value or a NULL
value

92. If a join operation J1 preserves those tuples which might get lost in join operation J2 :
(A) J1 is Natural Join and J2 is Outer Join
(B) J1 is Outer Join and J2 is Natural Join
(C) J1 is Left Outer Join and J2 is Right Outer Join
(D) J1 is Left Outer Join and J2 is Natural Join

93. Which of the following file organizations helps in fast retrieval of data?
(A) Sequential (B) B-Tree
(C) Heap (D) Hash

94. What is the correct syntax to write an HTML comment?

(A) /*Comment */ (B) // Comment
(C) <!- - Comment - -> (D) # Comment

95. Which of these tags is used for embedding CSS in an HTML page?
(A) <css> (B) <!DOCTYPE css>
(C) <script> (D) <style>

A 17 132/2023
[P.T.O.]
96. What is the correct output for the following JavaScript code snippet?
var a=6
var b = 1
var obj = {a : 50}
with (obj)
{
alert (b)
}
(A) Error (B) 1
(C) 50 (D) 6

97. <?php :
$var1 = 10;
$var2 = 20;
$var3 = 1;
if ($var1 > $var2 && $var3|| $var 3)
print “TRUE”;
else
print “FALSE”
?>
(A) No Output (B) TRUE
(C) FALSE (D) Syntax Error

98. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) A web cookie is a small piece of data sent from the website and stored in the user’s
web browser while browsing
(B) A web cookie is a small piece of data sent from the user’s browser to the server for
session management
(C) A web cookie is a small piece of data shared across the servers managing the
website
(D) None of the above

99. The right to use domain names delegated by the domain name registrars are accredited by :
(A) Internet Society (ISOC)
(B) Internet Research Task Force
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers

100. Which port number does FTP use for a data connection?
(A) 20 (B) 21
(C) 22 (D) 23

————————

132/2023 18 A
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

A 19 132/2023
[P.T.O.]
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

132/2023 20 A