Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST – 5 MM : 720

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. A point charge (+ve) is brought near an isolated 3. The dielectric constant k of an insulator cannot be
conducting sphere. The electric lines of field are
(1) 3 (2) 6
best represented by
(3) 8 (4) Infinite
4. Two particles of masses m and 2m with charge 2q
+q
a. and q are placed in uniform electric field E. The
ratio of their accelerations will be
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
b. +q
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
5. Three point charges each +q are placed at the
corners of an equilateral triangle, the electric field
at the centre will be
c. +q
3kq kq
(1) (2)
r2 r2

3kq
(3) (4) Zero
2r 2
d. +q
6. A particle of mass m and charge is placed at rest
in a uniform electric field E. If gravity is neglected,
(1) a (2) b its path will be
(3) c (4) d (1) Parabolic (2) Helical
2. Electric flux through the surface (3) Straight line (4) Circular
7. Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude q are placed
+q
inside a cube. The total electric flux coming out of
+q +q
a. b. c. the cube will be

8q 16q
(1) In Fig. a is the largest (1)  (2) 0
0
(2) In Fig. b is the largest
(3) In Fig. c is the largest q
(3)  (4) Zero
(4) Is same for all figures 0

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)
8. The flux entering and leaving a closed surface are 11. The radii of two spheres are a and b respectively.
5 × 105 and 4 × 105 SI unit respectively, then the They are at equal electric potential. The ratio of
charge inside surface will be their surface charge densities is
(1) –8.85 × 10–7 C
a2 b
(2) 8.85 × 10–7 C (1) (2)
b2 a
(3) –6.85 × 107 C
(4) 6.85 × 10–7 C a b2
(3) (4)
9. The points representing equal potentials in the b a2
given uniform electric field are
12. Potential at a point x distance from the centre inside
the conducting sphere of radius R and charged with
Q is

S kQ kQ
(1) 2 (2)
x x

kQ
P Q (3) (4) kxQ
R
R
13. The force of attraction between two point charges
at distance d apart in a medium is F. What distance
apart should these point charges be kept in the
same medium, so that the force between them
(1) P and Q (2) S and Q becomes 16F?
(3) S and R (4) P and R
d d
10. If work done by the field in moving an electron from (1) (2)
2 4
A to B is 6.4 × 10–19 J, then the potential difference
VC – VA is (s1 and s2 are equipotential surfaces) d d
(3) (4)
C 3 2
B 14. Electric potential at any point is
s2 V  ( 5 x  3 y  15z ) volt , then magnitude of
A
s1 electric field is

E (1) 3 2 Vm–1
(1) – 4 V
(2) 4 2 Vm–1
(2) 4 V
(3) – 64 V (3) 5 2 Vm–1

(4) 64 V (4) 7 Vm–1

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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
15. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
v v
(1) Electrostatic field is conservative
(2) Electrostatic field lines between two dissimilar
charges produce length wise contraction (3) (4)
(3) Electrostatic field lines between two similar V V
charges produce length wise contraction
(4) Electrostatic force can provide central force 19. If the electric field is given by 5iˆ  4 ˆj  9kˆ , the
16. Two concentric spherical shells of radii a and b are electric flux through a surface of area 20 unit lying
shown in figure. The outer sphere is given a charge in y-z plane will be
q. The charge q on inner sphere will be
(1) 100 unit (2) 80 unit
q (3) 180 unit (4) 20 unit
q 20. Dipole moment of the charge distribution shown in
a figure is
b y
q (0,a)

(1) q (2) –q –x
–2q q (a,0)
a
(3) q (4) Zero
b
(1) 2qa
17. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an
electron. When it is accelerated from rest by a qa
potential difference of 1 kV, its kinetic energy will (2)
2
become
(3) 2qa
1
(1) 1840 keV (2) keV (4) Zero
1840
21. If C = 6 F, find the charge stored in capacitor C1.
(3) 1 keV (4) 920 keV
18. The velocity v acquired by an electron starting from C1 = C C2 = 2C
rest and moving through a potential difference V is
shown by 10 V
v v

(1) (2) (1) Zero (2) 90 C

V V (3) 40 C (4) 60 C

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)
22. Capacity of an isolated sphere A is C. When it is 26. The value of current I in the following circuit is
enclosed by an earthed concentric sphere B
capacity of the system increased to nC. The ratio 15 A 3A
of radii of B to A is

n2 n 8A
(1) (2)
n 1 n 1

2n 2n  1 I
(3) (4) 5A
n 1 n 1
23. A parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric slab of (1) 3 A (2) 13 A
dielectric constant k between the plates have (3) 23 A (4) – 3 A
capacity C and is charged to a potential V volt and
27. A potential difference V is applied to a conductor of
then isolated from battery. The dielectric slab is
slowly removed from the capacitor and then length l and radius r. When potential difference is
reinserted. The net work done by the system in this doubled, the drift velocity is
process is (1) Halved (2) Unchanged
1 (3) Doubled (4) Quadrupled
(1) Zero (2) (k  1)CV 2
2 28. The tolerance level of a resistor with the colour
2 code red, blue, orange, gold is
CV (k  1)
(3) (4) (k – 1)CV2
k (1) ± 5% (2) ± 10%
24. Six identical plates of area A are arranged as (3) ± 20% (4) ± 40%
shown. The distance between each two plates is d, 29. Variation of current passing through a conductor at
the net capacitance is
the voltage applied across its ends varies as shown
B in the curve. If the resistances are determined at
the points A, B, C and D, then

V D
A
C
0 A 7 0 A B
(1) (2)
d d A
6 0 A 5 0 A I
(3) (4)
d d
(1) Resistances at C and D are equal
25. A wire of resistance R is stretched till its radius is half
of the original value. Then the new resistance is (2) Resistance at B is higher than at A
(1) 2R (2) 4R (3) Resistance at C is higher than at B
(3) 8R (4) 16R (4) Resistance at A is lower than at C

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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
30. Two potentiometer has uniform potential gradient 34. In the circuit shown, the current through 8  is
across it. Two cells connected in series (i) to same before and after connecting E. The value of
support each other and (ii) to oppose each other E is
are balanced over 6 m and 2 m respectively on the
potentiometer wire. The emf of the cells are in the + –
ratio
12 V
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
6 8 10 
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
31. Two wires of resistance R 1 and R 2 have + –
temperature coefficient of resistance 1 and 2, E
respectively. These are joined in series. The
effective temperature coefficient is (1) 12 V (2) 6 V

1  2 (3) 4 V (4) 2 V
(1) (2) 1 2
2 35. The potential difference between A and B in the
following figure is
1R1   2R2 R1R2 1 2
(3) R1  R2 (4)
R12  R22 2A 6 9 5
32. The total current supplied to the circuit by the A B
12 V 4V
battery is
(1) 32 V (2) 48 V
6V
(3) 24 V (4) 14 V
2 36. Potential of point D is

C1 C2
1.5  6 V1 V2
A D B

3 1
(1) (V1  V2 )
2
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(3) 4 A (4) 6 A C1V2  C2V1
33. Two cells with the same emf and different internal (2) C1  C2
resistance r1 and r2 are connected in series with an
external resistance R. The value of R so that the
C1V1  C2V2
potential difference across the 1st cell be zero is (3) C1  C2
(1) r1r2 (2) r1 + r2
C2V1  C1V2
r r (4)
(3) r1 – r2 (4) 1 2 C1  C2
2
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)
37. Find equivalent capacitance between X and Y is 40. For a cell, a graph between potential difference V
nearly. across the terminals of cell and the current I is
plotted. The emf and internal resistance of the cell
E and r are
C1 C2 C3

X Y V (in volt)

2.0
C4
1.5
C5 1.0
0.5
C6 I (A)
1 2 3 4 5

C1 = C2 = C3 = 400 pF (1) E = 2 V, r = 0.5  (2) E = 2 V, r = 0.4 

C4 = C5 = C6 = 200 pF (3) E = 1 V, r = 0.5  (4) E = 1 V, r = 0.4 
(1) 810 pF (2) 205 pF 41. Which of the following is correct?
(3) 600 pF (4) 410 pF 4
38. The electric field at R = 5 m is I = 10 A 4 6
V (in volt) A C B
6 8
5
4 (1) VAC = VCB (2) VAC > VCB
3
(3) VAC < VCB (4) None of these
2
42. Find the current I shown in figure.
1

1 2 3 4 5 6 R (in m)
3 2
(1) 2.5 V/m (2) –2.5 V/m
(3) 0.4 V/m (4) –0.4 V/m 5V

39. Work done in taking a unit positive charge from P 2 3

to A is W1 and from P to B is W2, then
I
A d Q d B
d
5 5
(1)  A (2) – A
P 12 13
(1) W1 > W2 (2) W1 < W2
12 13
(3) – A (4) – A
(3) W1 = W2 (4) W1 + W2 = 0 5 5
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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
43. Electric field at perpendicular distance r from an 45. An insulated sphere of radius R has a uniform
infinite uniform straight linear charge distribution of volume charge density . The electric field at point
charge density  is
P inside the sphere at a distance r from the centre
  is
(1)  r (2) 2 r
0 0
R
(1) 3
2  0
(3)  r (4) 4 r
0 0

44. Electric field at axial point of short electric dipole is r

 (2) 3
E . Electric field at a point at the same distance on 0

equatorial point will be

(3) Zero
 
E E
(1)  (2)
2 2 2 ⎛ r ⎞
  (4) 3 ⎜  ⎟
(3) E (4) E ⎝ 0⎠

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. What would happen if SO 2 is passed through 49. What is the effective atomic number of central metal
acidified solution of potassium dichromate? atom in dibenzene chromium?
(1) Cr2(SO4)3 is formed (1) 36 (2) 34
(2) SO2 is oxidized (3) 32 (4) 35
(3) Both (1) & (2) 50. Value of CFSE, in tetrahedral complex having 3d4
configuration of metal ion, surrounded by strong
(4) CrO5 is formed field ligands, will be
47. How many moles of potassium permanganate are
2 2
required to oxidise one mole of ferrous oxalate in (1)  t (2)  t
acidic medium? 5 5
4 3
3 5 (3)  t (4)  t
(1) (2) 5 5
5 3
51. Which d orbitals are used for sp 2 d and d 2 sp 3
2 hybridization respectively?
5
(3) (4)
5 2 (1) d x 2  y 2 and d x 2  y 2 , d z2
48. Brass, bronze and german silver have one metal in (2) d x 2  y 2 and d z2 , dxy
common. This is
(1) Zn (2) Fe (3) d z2 and d x 2  y 2 , dxz

(3) Cu (4) Al (4) dxy and dyz , dxz

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)

52. Chloride ions obtained from 2.68 g of complex 57. Which of the following is method of refining of Zr
CoCl 3 ·6NH 3 were reacted with AgNO 3 to form and Ti?
2.87 g of AgCl. Predict the formula of complex a. Van Arkel Method
(Given molar mass of CoCl3·6NH3 = 267.5 g/mol,
b. Vapour phase refining
molar mass of AgCl = 143.5 g/mol)
c. Zone refining
(1) [CoCl3(NH3)3] (2) [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl
d. Mond’s process
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [CoCl(NH3)5]Cl2 (1) a only (2) a & b
53. What is not correct about [Fe(H2O)5NO]+2? (3) a, b & c (4) a, b, c & d

(1) Oxidation number of metal is +1 a

58. In the following reaction, Cr2O72 
 2
 CrO4 .
b
(2) Coordination number of metal is 6
What is a and b?
(3) It is a tetrahedral complex (1) a is pH = 7, b is pH = 8
(4) Ligand NO carries unit positive charge (2) a is H+, b is OH–

54. Transition metals act as catalysts due to (3) a is OH–, b is H+

(4) a is pH = 4, b is pH = 8
(1) Variable oxidation states
59. Compare the second ionisation energy of Ti, V, Cr
(2) Partially filled d orbitals and Mn
(3) Their almost similar size (1) Ti > V > Cr > Mn (2) Cr > Mn > V > Ti

(4) Less reactivity (3) Mn > Cr > V > Ti (4) Cr > V > Mn > Ti
60. A lanthanoid has ‘n’ unpaired electrons and another
55. Select the correct statement lanthanoid has (14 – n) unpaired electrons. It
means
(1) Flux always reacts with basic impurities to give
slag (1) Both lanthanoids show same colour

(2) Pyrolusite is an ore of chromium (2) Both show same magnetic behaviour
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Thermite is a mixture of Fe2O3 and Al in the
ratio of 3 : 1 (4) Both are radioactive
61. What is the reason of “Lanthanoid contraction”?
(4) All of these
(1) Shielding effect of 5d electrons
56. Ca3(PO4)·CaSiO3 is
(2) Ineffective shielding of 4f electrons
(1) Thomas slag (2) Flux (3) Poor shielding effect of one of 4f electrons
(3) Slag (4) Matrix (4) Strong shielding effect of 4f electrons
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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
62. Which can form octahedral complex? 69. Complexes
(1) d3 (2) d4 en
(3) d5 (4) All of these A en

63. For a configuration t 32g e1g of d4 configuration, which

M
is true?
and A M A
(1) 0 > P (2) P > 0
A
(3) P = 0 (4) No relation en
64. In the synergic bond of metal carbonyls en
(1) * molecular orbital of ligand is used
(1) Structural isomers
(2) * molecular orbital of metal is used
(2) Identical
(3)  molecular orbital of ligand as well as metals
are used (3) Cis and trans isomers
(4)  molecular orbital of metal is used (4) Optical isomers
65. Electronic configuration of a transition element is KL 70. Which of the following show same geometry?
3s2p6d5, 4s1. It shows its
a. Ni(PPH3)2Cl2
(1) Ground state (2) Excited state
b. Ni(CO)4
(3) Super excited state (4) Ionic state
66. Respective size of La+3 and Lu+3 will be c. [Ni(CN)4]–2

(1) 1.06 Å, 1.06 Å (2) 1.06 Å, 1.40 Å (1) a & b (2) b & c

(3) 1.06 Å, 0.85 Å (4) 1.06 Å, 1.60 Å (3) a & c (4) a, b & c
67. Which aqueous solution of given salt will be most 71. Ligand CH2 – COO– is
conducting in nature?
NH2
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(1) Bidentate ligand
(3) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (4) [Ni(CO)4]
68. Anti cancer drug is (2) Monodentate ligand

H 3N Cl H3N Cl (3) Tridentate ligand

(1) Pt (2) Pt (4) Tetradentate ligand

Cl NH3 H3N Cl 72. Formula of sodium tetra fluoro oxochromate (III) will
be
CH2 H2N Cl
Cl
CH2 Pt
(1) Na3[Cr(O)F4] (2) Na[Cr(O)F4]
(3) Pt (4)
Cl Cl H2N Cl (3) Na2[Cr(O)F4] (4) Na4[Cr(O)F4]
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)

73. EDTA is 79. An ore (A) on heating with sodium carbonate and
lime in the presence of air gives two compounds (B)
(1) Symmetrical polydentate ligand and (C). Aqueous solution of (C) on heating with
conc. sulphuric acid gives yellow compound (E). (E)
(2) Hexadentate ligand with –4 charge
with KCl gives an orange coloured strong oxidizing
(3) Chelating ligand agent. What is (C) and (E)?

(4) All of these (1) Na2CrO4, Na2Cr2O7

74. How many incomplete shells are there in f-block (2) Na2Cr2O7, Na2CrO4
elements? (3) Na2CrO4, K2CrO4
(1) 1 (2) 2 (4) Na2Cr2O7, K2Cr2O7
(3) 3 (4) 4 80. Which of the following ore contain both copper and
iron?
75. Which of the following is not an actinide?
(1) Malachite (2) Chalcopyrites
(1) Curium (2) Californium
(3) Iron pyrites (4) All of these
(3) Uranium (4) Terbium
81. In dichromate anion
76. In LiAlH4, ligand is
(1) Six (Cr – O) bonds are equivalent
(1) H (2) H–
(2) All (Cr – O) bonds are equivalent
(3) Al (4) Al+3
(3) Four (Cr – O) bonds are equivalent
77. In the extraction of gold,
(4) Three (Cr – O) bonds are equivalent
Gold ore + CN– + H2O + O2 [A] + OH– 82. Which of the following outer orbital complex has
[A] + Zn [B] + Au maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(1) d4 (octahedral) (2) d9 (octahedral)
What are [A] and [B]?
(3) d7 (octahedral) (4) d5 (octahedral)
(1) [A] – [Au(CN)4]–2, [B] – [Zn(CN)4]–2
83. Identify the non-ionisable octahedral complex
(2) [A] – [Au(CN)2]–, [B] – [Zn(CN)4]–2 among following
(3) [A] – [Au(CN)2]–, [B] – [Zn(CN)6]–4 (1) Pt(NH3)2Cl4 (2) Pt(NH3)3Cl4
(4) [A] – [Au(CN)]–, [B] – [Zn(CN)4]–2 (3) Pt(NH3)4Cl4 (4) Pt(NH3)5Cl4
78. The metal present in insulin, haemoglobin and 84. How many hydrogen bonds will be formed in a
vitamin B12 are respectively complex formed between Ni+2 and dimethylglyoxime?
(1) Zn, Hg, Cr (2) Co, Fe, Zn (1) Four (2) Six

(3) Mg, Fe, Co (4) Zn, Fe, Co (3) Two (4) Zero

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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
85. Which of the following does not occur in Bessemer 88. Which of the following ions will give colourless
converter, during extraction of copper? aqueous solution?
(1) 2FeS + 3O2 2FeO + 2SO2 (1) Ni2+ (2) Fe2+
(2) 2CuFeS2 + O2 Cu2S + 2FeS + SO2 (3) Sc3+ (4) Cr3+
(3) 2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2 89. Ligand which cannot show linkage isomerism, is
(4) 2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2
(1) NH3 (2) CN–
86. Which of the following shows maximum CFSE?
(3) NO2– (4) SCN–
(1) [Fe(H2O)6 ]+2 (2) [Fe(CN)6 ]–4
90. Among the following incorrect one is
(3) [Fe(CN)4(H2O)2]–2 (4) [Fe(CN)2(H2O)4]
(1) Calamine and siderite are carbonates
87. Which of the following salt does not give positive
chromyl chloride test? (2) Magnetite and cuprite are oxides
(1) CuCl2 (2) ZnCl2 (3) Zinc blende and galana are sulphides
(3) NH4Cl (4) HgCl2 (4) Carborundum is an oxide ore of aluminium

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Biological process of multiplication (3) Occurs when certain stage of growth and
maturity is obtained by organisms
(1) Can be carried out amitotically
(4) Is observed in some eukaryotes and most
(2) Is always uniparental prokaryotes
(3) Requires only one parent to produce clone 94. Mass flowering of this plant transforms hilly areas
(4) More than one option is correct of certain South Indian states into blue stretches.
This plant
92. Identify the incorrect statement
(1) Is known to be biennial
(1) Individual plant is not capable for sexual
(2) Survives for 50-100 years
reproduction
(3) Die after producing flowers at a regular intervals
(2) Algae reproduce asexually by conidia of 12 months
commonly
(4) Shows distinct flowering phase
(3) Rhizome or sucker are vegetative means of
95. ‘Terror of Bengal’ was introduced in India because
propagation in banana
of its beautiful flowers but become a menace due
(4) Both (1) & (2) to
93. Sexual reproduction is a complex process which (1) Specific shape of leaves
(1) Is a rapid mode of reproduction (2) Difficulty in controlling its spread

(2) Involves gamete formation by two different (3) Drawing O2 from air
plants always (4) Vegetative propagation by stolon
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)
96. Identify the incorrect statement(s): (1) a, b, c & e
a. Only asexual reproduction is present in (2) a, b, d & f
organisms with simple organisation.
(3) a, b & c
b. Asexual as well as sexual reproduction are
(4) All are correct
present in all living organisms.
99. Fill in the the blanks
c. Sexual reproduction is observed under
unfavourable conditions only. a. Developed stage of microsporangia is called
d. Asexual spores are always associated with (i) .
favourable conditions.
b. Innermost wall layer of microsporangium
(1) a, b & c only
(ii) the developing pollen grains.
(2) a, b & d only
(3) b & c only c. In (iii) angiospermic species, pollination
(4) All are incorrect takes place at three celled stage of pollen grain.
97. Read the statements given below: d. Vegetative cell of pollen grain is bigger and has
a. Larger number of sexually reproducing (iv) food reserve.
organisms produce two morphologically distinct
The incorrect match is :
type of gametes.
(1) (i) – Pollen sac
b. Heterogametic plant produces uniflagellate male
gametes always. (2) (ii) – Nourishes
c. A plant species with unisexual flowers is called (3) (iii) – Less than 40%
monoecious. (4) (iv) – Scarce
d. Ricinus has male and female flowers on the 100. Viability of pollen grain depends on
same plant.
(1) Genetic constitution of plant
How many of the above statements are correct?
(2) Temperature
(1) Two (2) One
(3) Humidity
(3) Three (4) Four
(4) More than one option is correct
98. Which of the following events are commonly found
in all sexually reproducing organisms? 101. Identify the correct statement :
a. Meiotic division (1) Integument surrounded by nucellus is called
megasporangium
b. Fusion of gametes
(2) Only one cell of nucellus undergoes meiosis
c. Formation of zygotes
(3) One meiosis and three mitotic divisions are
d. Embryo formation required in megagametogenesis
e. Gametic meiosis (4) Megaspore is the progenitor cell of male
f. Diploid and triploid phases gametophyte

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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

102. Central cell of emrbyo sac is characterised with 106. How many of the labelled structures are diploid in
ploidy w.r.t. the following diagram?
(1) Fusion of three cells

(2) Haploid condition

Pericarp
Endosperm
(3) Post fertilization changes

(4) More than one option is correct Aleurone

Scutellum
103. Seeds of legumes have no residual endosperm as
Coleoptile
(1) They do not show triple fusion
Plumule
(2) It is consumed partially by young plantlets
Radicle
(3) It is completely consumed during embryo Coleorhiza
development

(4) They produce albuminous seeds (1) Four

(2) Five
104. Which of the following mode of apomixis is closest
to amphimixis? (3) Six

(1) Diplospory (4) One

(2) Apospory 107. Fruits of strawberry and apple resemble in

(3) Adventitive embryony (1) Fusion of thalamus with endocarp

(2) Parthenocarpic development

(4) Polyembryony
(3) Development from single superior ovary
105. A cross is made between 4x × 8x plants.
(4) Formation involving floral parts in addition to
Plants obtained from this cross reproduce
ovary
apomictically without involving reduction division.
What would be the ploidy level in the subsequent 108. Select the correctly matched pair :
progeny? Column I Column II
(1) 4x (1) Persistent endosperm – Pea

(2) 6x (2) Persistent calyx – Mango

(3) 8x (3) Persistent nucellus – Wheat

(4) 2x (4) False fruit – Banana

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)

109. Read the statements given below : (3) Seeds have sufficient food reserves to nourish
immature haploid embryo on germination
a. The early stages of embryo development are
similar in both monocot and dicot plants. (4) Seeds may remain alive for long
b. Zygote starts to divide as soon as it is formed 113. Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, does not show
in angiosperms. following event.
Select the appropriate answer (1) Enters the ovule through the micropyle

(1) Both a & b are incorrect (2) May enter the ovule through the chalaza

(2) Only b is correct (3) Enters embryo sac through micropylar end only

(3) Both a & b are correct (4) Chemotactic movement of pollen tube towards
synergid
(4) Only a is correct
114. Find the odd one w.r.t. devices to prevent
110. Copra of coconut inbreeding
(1) Represents cellular endosperm (1) Dichogamy (2) Herkogamy
(2) Is formed when first cytoplasmic division is (3) Self sterility (4) Homogamy
followed by nuclear division
115. Which of the following pea characters is not
(3) Does not arise from PEN associated with chromosome 4?

(4) More than one option is correct (1) Pod shape (2) Stem height

111. Which of the following is not associated with seed (3) Pod position (4) Pod colour
formation? 116. In which of the following organism, males have only
one X-chromosome besides the autosomes,
(1) Integuments of ovules harden to form seed
whereas females have a pair of X-chromosomes?
coats
(1) Humans
(2) Seeds in pomegranate have fleshy inner and
outer integument (2) Grasshopper

(3) Water content is reduced (3) Birds

(4) Micropyle remains as a pore in the seed coat (4) Reptiles

117. In pea plant gene ‘A’ governs height of stem and
112. Seeds are the basis of our agriculture and offer
gene ‘B’ governs starch grain size. If plant is
several advantages to angiosperms. Find the odd heterozygous for these two genes and is selfed,
statement among the following : what are proportionate presence of different
(1) Seeds have better adaptive strategies for phenotypic groups?
dispersal (1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 :1
(2) Seeds may have wings for their dispersal (3) 9 : 6 : 1 (4) 4 : 2 : 2 : 1
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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
118. If a mulatto man (AaBb) is married to a white 123. Haemophilic female are extremely rare because
woman, find the possible phenotypic ratio in their
(1) Her mother should be haemophilic
progeny.
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 (2) Her father should be carrier

(3) 7 : 1 : 1 : 7 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) Her mother need not be carrier

119. Discovery of X-body is associated with an organism (4) Her father should be haemophilic

(1) With equal number of autosomes in sex cells 124. 47, XXY individuals are characterised with all of
these, except
(2) With at least one kind of sex chromosome
common in sperm and egg cell (1) Overall feminine development
(3) Not all gametes in male have sex (2) Gynaecomastia
chromosomes
(3) Sterility
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) Both (2) & (3)
120. In the given below cross in Drosophila, if selfing of
F 1 generation is made the result observed by 125. Genes A and B show, “law of independent
Morgan was : assortment” whereas C and D genes show
incomplete linkage. How many different types of
gametes will be formed by individual with genotype
AaBbCcDd?
y w y+ w+
(1) Eight (2) Four
Parental
y w (3) Sixteen (4) One
Yellow, white Wild type
126. Drosophila melanogaster is ideal material for
(1) Brown bodied and white eyed – 37.2% genetic studies for all these reasons, except
(2) Brown bodied and yellow eyed – 1.3% (1) Being haploid, even recessive characters can
(3) Yellow bodied and red eyed – 0.65% be studied

(4) White bodied and brown eyed – 1.3% (2) Clear differentiation of the sexes
121. Exposure of nucleic acid to nitrous acid results in (3) Complete life cycle in a short period
(1) Transversion type point mutation (4) Many types of hereditary variations are present
(2) Chromosomal aberrations 127. Which of the following disorder is mainly determined
(3) Frame shift mutation by mutation in the single gene?

(4) Transition type point mutation (1) Down’s syndrome

122. ‘X-rays cause mutation’ was first studied in (2) Leprosy

(1) Maize (2) Drosophila (3) Phenylketonuria

(3) Neurospora (4) Barley (4) Both (1) & (3)

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)

128. Which of the following cannot be true for deletion? 132. A cross is made between two plants (Aabb ×
AABb). What is the possibility of individuals with
(1) Chromosome aberration
green seed and inflated pod in pea?
(2) Cri-du-chat syndrome
[A – Yellow colour of seed, B – Inflated pod]
(3) Mutation
1
(4) Sickle cell anaemia (1)
4
129. Which of the following symptom characterise
Turner’s syndrome? 1
(2)
(1) Broad flat face 8

(2) Big and wrinkled tongue (3) Zero

(3) Small round head
1
(4)
(4) Rudimentary ovaries 16
130. In pedigree analysis mating with relatives is
133. ABO blood group system is characterised by ____
depicted through
different types of possible phenotypes with true
(1) breeding nature.

(1) Four (2) Three

(2)
(3) Two (4) One

(3) 134. Accumulation of mucous in the intestine and

malfunctioning of chloride ion channel characterise

(1) Lesch Nyhan syndrome

(2) Duschenne muscular dystrophy

(4) 5
(3) Huntington’s chorea
131. Find the odd one w.r.t. condition where (4) Cystic fibrosis
heterozygous individual shows intermediate
135. How many of the below given plants form light and
phenotype
non-sticky pollen grains?
(1) Feather colour in Andalusian fowl
Maize, Fig, Yucca, Wheat, Amorphophallus,
(2) Flower colour in Snapdragon Ophrys
(3) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa (1) Two (2) Four

(4) Pod colour in pea (3) Five (4) Three

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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

136. Asexual reproduction is a mode of multiplication in 140. Following is diagrammatic section view of ovary.
which new individuals develop from a single parent D
without involving fusion of sex cells, for which all of
the given statements will be considered as C
advantages, except one
(1) It is a rapid mode of reproduction
(2) Consumption of resources is lower
(3) The young ones are exact replicas of their
parent
B
(4) Adaptability to changes in environment is low
due to absence of new variations A
137. The division of the body of an individual into two Select the option which gives the correct
equal halves is binary fission, for which the identification of A, B, C and D with function/
incorrect statement is characteristics.

(1) No fixed fission plane exists in the body of an (1) A – Corpus luteum, secretes large amounts of
organism multiplying by simple binary fission progesterone for the maintenance of
(2) In oblique binary fission the plane of fission lies endometrium
at an angle to the transverse axis of body (2) B – Ovum, released from the ovary after the
(3) The binary fission divides body of Euglena and completion of second meiotic division
Vorticella into two unequal halves
(3) C – Corpus luteum, secretes estrogen to
(4) In Paramoecium the plane of binary fission maintain endometrium
runs along the transverse axis of the individual
(4) D – Graafian follicle, containing primary oocyte
138. Which hormone will passout in urine after in meiosis-I
menopause?
141. Sertoli cells which are located within seminiferous
(1) FSH
tubules are not known for one amongst the
(2) LH following given characteristics
(3) Estrogen
(1) They are elongated, pyramidal cells with their
(4) Progesterone apices projecting into lumen
139. Creation of a generation from a bud, fragment or a (2) They provide attaching sites to spermatocytes
propagule is termed as
and spermatids
(1) Embryogenesis
(3) They function in response to LH
(2) Parthenogenesis
(4) They secrete nourishing substances for
(3) Blastogenesis
differentiation of cells undergoing
(4) Gametogenesis spermatogenesis, hence called nurse cells
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)

142. Regarding accessory structures in male genital (2) B – Myometrium, exhibits strong uterine
tract, mark the statement that is incorrect contractions during delivery of the baby
(1) Cowper’s glands that lie 4-5 cm below the (3) C – Perimetrium, external thin membranous
prostate gland open into membranous urethra layer
and produce mucus rich secretion (4) D – Cervix, semen is released by the penis
into cervix
(2) Prostatic secretion makes up 60% of seminal
plasma and it also reacts with cervical mucus 145. The phenomenon of lutenisation in which follicular
to allow easy movement of sperms cells are converted into lutein cells by deposition of
yellowish lipid inclusions occurs under the influence
(3) Semen is a mucoid, milky, viscous fluid, with a of
pH of 7.3-7.5 carrying 200-300 million sperms
(1) Progesterone (2) Oestrogen
in an ejaculate
(3) FSH (4) LH
(4) Seminal vesicles produce fructose that serves
as a source of energy for sperms 146. Failure of LH surge in periodic cycle is expected to
occur if
143. Cleavage divisions are not known to
(1) GnRH production is high
(1) Show progressive decrease in cell size (2) Oestrogen production is low
(2) Show increase in nucleocytoplasmic ratio (3) Progesterone production prior to surge is high
(3) Be very fast (4) FSH production is high
(4) Show increase in oxygen consumption 147. Estrogen, in periodic cycle is not involved in
144. Following is diagrammatic sectional view of the (1) Causing secretion of mucus strings from cervix
female reproductive system. (2) Regeneration of endometrium through
proliferation
(3) Maintenance of endometrium
(4) The rising levels of estrogens causes the
endometrium to become thicker and more richly
A supplied with blood vessels and endometrial
B glands
C
148. The importance of APC (Anaphase Promoting
Complex) in fertilization is that
(1) It is contributed by the cells surrounding the
D ovum
Which of the following is incorrect identification of (2) It helps in suspending meiotic divisions of
the structure A, B, C and D with function/ developing ovum in metaphase II stage
characteristics? (3) It ensures restoration of meiosis II and
(1) A – Endometrium, undergoes cyclical extrusion of second polar body
changes during menstrual cycle (4) It ensures prevention of polyspermy
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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

149. A similarity between spermatogenesis and 154. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
oogenesis is that (1) Human male ejaculates about 200 to 300
(1) Both are discontinuous processes million sperms during a coitus
(2) Both show prolonged growth phase (2) For normal fertility, at least 40 percent must
have normal shape and size and 60 percent of
(3) Both produce larger and motile gametes
them must show vigorous motility
(4) Both produce haploid gametes from primary
(3) Neck of the sperm possesses two centriole
gametocytes proximal and distal. Proximal centriole helps in
150. Which of the following contraceptive device is fitted the first cleavage division of fertilised ovum
into cervix? (4) The acrosome is filled with enzymes that help
(1) Diaphragm (2) Condom in fertilization of ovum
(3) Loop (4) Cu-7 155. Select the option which correctly matches the
endocrine gland with its hormone and its function
151. Identify the property for which copper releasing
IUDs are not known Endocrine Hormone Function
gland
(1) Impairing sperm ascent
(1) Sertoli Inhibin Concentrates androgen
(2) Promoting phagocytosis of sperms cells in seminiferous tubules

(3) Interfering with implantation (2) Leydig LH Conversion of

cells granulosa cells to
(4) Increasing the viscosity of cervical mucus progesterone
producing cells
152. Which of the following structure is incorrectly
paired w.r.t. its function? (3) Anterior LH In males, LH stimulates
lobe of the synthesis and
(1) Centchroman  Inhibits implantation pituitary secretion of hormones
called androgens from
(2) Nonoxynol 9 Inhibits oogenesis testis
(3) MALA-D Inhibits ovulation (4) Pituitary GnRH Promotes negative
gland feedback for FSH
(4) Gossypol  Inhibits spermatogenesis
153. Which of the following correctly defines ZIFT? 156. Sometimes women wish to postpone the menstrual
bleeding for few days to participate in some
(1) Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor to competitive sports or religious functions. Which of
fallopian tube the following pills should be taken by her?
(2) Embryos more than 8 blastomeres are (1) She should take pills containing FSH and LH
transferred into the fallopian tube
(2) Progesterone like drugs should be started in
(3) Zygote or early embryos upto 8 blastomeres follicular phase, taken for 10 days
are transferred into the fallopian tube
(3) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), must be
(4) It is a procedure to form embryo in the taken till 3-4 days after the expected date
laboratory in which the sperm is directly injected (4) Progesterone like drugs can be started 3-4
into ovum days before the expected date
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)

157. The figure shows the human foetus within the 160. Hormone releasing IUDs like progestasert or
uterus of mother. Select the option which gives LNG-20 are _______ releasing devices
correct identification of labelled parts A and B with (1) Oestrogen (2) Copper
function/characteristic
(3) Progestogen (4) Centchroman
C
161. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Copper T – Suppresses sperm motility
and the fertilising capacity of
sperms
D (2) MALA-D – Inhibits ovulation, alters the
quality of cervical mucus
A (3) Saheli – New oral contraceptive, non-
steroidal preparation, effective
for 5 years once taken
B (4) Multiload-375 – Copper releasing IUD
(1) A – Decidua parietalis derived from 162. Terminal method of contraception is
trophoectoderm and source of hormones (1) MTP (2) Vasectomy
(2) B – Plug of mucus in cervix formed under the (3) ART (4) IUI
influence of progesterone
163. Lactational amenorrhea although a safe method of
(3) C – Yolk sac contraception is not characterised by
(4) D – Umbilical cord with its blood vessels and (1) Absence of periodic cycles
forms foetal portion of placenta
(2) High prolactin level following parturition
158. Which one of the natural methods of birth control is
(3) Preventing chances of failure
called as periodic abstinence?
(4) Being effective only upto six months following
(1) Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
parturition
(2) By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of 164. Mark the statement that defines MTP best
the menstrual cycle
(1) Legalised method to get rid of any unwanted
(3) By having coitus at the time of day break pregnancies
(4) By a premature ejaculation during coitus (2) Method that reduces total number of individuals
159. Vasa efferentia are ductules leading from 1
added to world population by th
(1) Epididymis to urethra 5

(2) Testicular lobules to rete testis (3) Intentional or voluntary termination of

pregnancy before full term
(3) Rete testis to vas deferens
(4) A method of illegal female foeticide reported
(4) Vas deferens to epididymis high in India
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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

165. The age group that is highly vulnerable to the 168. Match the following
sexually transmitted disease is
Column I Column II
(1) 13-16 years a. Syphilis (i) Acyclovir or Zovirax
recommended, has every
(2) 15-24 years
chance of relapse
(3) 25-35 years b. Gonorrhoea (ii) Caused by a DNA virus,
prevented by Recombivax-
(4) 45-55 years
HB
166. Delay in the detection of STDs can lead to all c. Genital herpes (iii) Skin rashes, swollen joints,
complications given below except one flu like illness

(1) Cancer of reproductive tract d. Hepatitis-B (iv) Caused by Neisseria, gives

a risk of blindness or
(2) Pelvic inflammatory diseases deafness to baby

(3) Still births and ectopic pregnancies (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Nausea, abdominal pain, breakthrough
bleeding, breast cancer etc. (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

167. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. features of (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
embryonic development at various months of 169. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
pregnancy? semen and seminal plasma?

(1) After one month – The embryos heart is (1) Secretions of male accessory glands constitute
of pregnancy formed seminal plasma
(2) Seminal plasma is rich in fructose, calcium and
(2) During the fifth – First movements of
certain enzymes
month the foetus and
appearance of hair (3) The seminal plasma along with sperms
on the head constitute semen
(4) Sperm is viable for only upto 24 hours
(3) By the end of – Most of the major organ
second month system are formed, the 170. What would be the level of gonadotropins after the
limbs and external surgical removal of ovaries?
genitalia are well
(1) Blood gonadotropin levels will remain the same
developed
(2) Blood gonadotropin levels will rise markedly
(4) By the end of – The body is covered with
(3) Blood gonadotropin levels will fall
second trimester fine hair, eyelids separate
eyelashes are formed (4) Gonadotropin secretion will fall
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 5 (Code A)

171. Mark the statements that are correct about infertility 174. The most widely accepted method of contraception
in males in India is
a. Higher scrotal temperature due to working in (1) Periodic abstinence
hot environment results in oligospermia.
(2) IUDs
b. Failure of projection of testes into scrotum in 7th
month of foetal life leads to infertility. (3) Barrier method
c. Deficiency of vitamin E and low fructose content (4) Vasectomy
are a cause of male infertility.
175. Hormones involved in ensuring successful
d. Drugs, immunological or even psychological
parturition are all except one
can cause infertility.
(1) Oestrogen (2) Cortisol
(1) a is correct
(2) a, b & d are correct (3) Oxytocin (4) HCG

(3) a, b & c are correct 176. If fertilization occurs the corpus luteum is rescued
from regression by _____ hormone.
(4) a, b, c & d are correct
172. Which of the following is a wrong match between (1) Progesterone secreted by placenta
the type of contraception and its function? (2) FSH and LH secreted by pituitary
Contraceptive device Function
(3) HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) secreted
(1) Contraceptive pills – Inhibit ovulation by placenta
(2) Sterilisation – Inhibit gamete (4) HPL (human placental lactogenic hormone)
formation
177. Which of the following hormone stimulates the
(3) IUDs – Inhibit implantation
Sertoli cells of seminiferous tubules to secrete
(4) Natural methods – Avoid chances of inhibin?
ovum and sperm
(1) Testosterone
meeting
173. The duration of which of the following phase of (2) LH
menstrual cycle will be of 14 days, in human beings
(3) FSH
if the length of the reproductive cycle is of 35 days.
(4) Gonadotropin
(1) Menstruation phase
(2) Proliferative phase 178. The growth of corpus luteum is initiated by

(3) Luteal/secretory phase (1) FSH (2) hCG

(4) Mid of follicular phase (3) Prolactin (4) LH

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Test - 5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

179. Which one of the following is the correct matching (4) Development of – In secretory phase and
of the events occurring during menstrual cycle? Corpus luteum increased secretion of
(1) Menstruation – Breakdown of progesterone
myometrium and ovum
180. In human female the blastocyst
not fertilised
(1) Forms placenta even before implantation
(2) Ovulation – LH and FSH attain peak
level and sharp fall in the (2) Gets implanted into uterus three days after
secretion is followed of ovulation
progesterone
(3) The trophoblast layer cells get differentiated as
(3) Proliferative phase – Rapid regeneration of
embryo
myometrium and
maturation of Graafian (4) Gets implanted in endometrium by trophoblast
follicle cells

  

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 Test Booklet Code A

Test No. 4

AKASH TE
A ST
IA for
D
SE
IN

MEDICAL
RI
AL L

Entrance Exams.
ES

2014
AIPMT
Test - 4 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

T EST – 4

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (1) 73. (4) 109. (4) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (3)
3. (3) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (1) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (2) 76. (3) 112. (2) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (2)
6. (3) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (1) 152. (3)
9. (4) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (2)
10. (3) 46. (4) 82. (1) 118. (1) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (1)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (3) 121. (4) 157. (4)
14. (4) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (2) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (3) 52. (4) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (2) 53. (2) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (4)
18. (1) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (1) 56. (4) 92. (4) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (4) 57. (4) 93. (2) 129. (4) 165. (4)
22. (3) 58. (3) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (4) 59. (1) 95. (4) 131. (1) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (3) 96. (1) 132. (2) 168. (3)
25. (3) 61. (2) 97. (4) 133. (3) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (3) 98. (2) 134. (1) 170. (4)
27. (4) 63. (4) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (3) 136. (2) 172. (1)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (3) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (3) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (4)
32. (3) 68. (3) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (4) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (4) 178. (1)
35. (4) 71. (4) 107. (1) 143. (2) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (1) 108. (3) 144. (2) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 4 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) 7. Answer (1)
Being longitudinal wave sound does not show Amplitude of y  a sin t  b cos t is A  a2  b 2
polarisation.
in given question it is
2. Answer (2)
2 2
⎛ 2x 2t ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
Comparing with y  a sin  ⎜  ⎟ A  ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
⎝  T ⎠ ⎝ a⎠ ⎝ b⎠

2 ab
 0.02 
 ab

8. Answer (1)
2
  100 cm In transverse wave, medium particles oscillate
0.02
perpendicular the direction of propagation of wave.
3. Answer (3)
9. Answer (4)
vT T1 10. Answer (3)

v 27 T2 2
Imax ⎛ I1  I2 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
vT  T Imin ⎜⎝ I1  I2 ⎟⎠

v1 T 11. Answer (4)


v2 27  273 12. Answer (2)

R
2v 2 T  2
T g

v2 300
13. Answer (2)

T Displacement antinodes are also known as pressure

4 nodes.
300
14. Answer (4)
T = 1200 K
1 T 1 T
T = 1200 – 273 = 927°C  
  2L 
4. Answer (2)
m
Decibel is measurement of loudness. where  
L
5. Answer (3)
15. Answer (3)
v H2 H2 MHe 1 T
 
v He MH2 He 2L 
An octave higher frequency means double frequency.
743 42 An octave lower frequency means half frequency.
 
5 25 5 16. Answer (3)
6. Answer (3) 17. Answer (2)

In propagation of wave energy and linear momentum ⎛a⎞

  tan1 ⎜ ⎟
is transferred. ⎝g ⎠

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Test - 4 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
18. Answer (1) 29. Answer (3)

 v 0  1
  k l = length of spring.
 v  vs  l
 330  33  150 30. Answer (3)
  150   225 Hz
 330  110  22 31. Answer (3)
19. Answer (2)
F
P F = Rate of change of momentum.
 T A
Hence with change in temperature, frequency 32. Answer (3)
changes. Pressure does not have any effect on velocity of
20. Answer (1) particle.
21. Answer (4) 33. Answer (4)

22. Answer (3) 34. Answer (2)

35. Answer (4)
23. Answer (4)
1
24. Answer (1) v
M
25. Answer (3)
36. Answer (4)
K=U
37. Answer (1)
1 1 Absolute zero is defined as the temperature at which
m2 (a 2  x 2 )  m2 x 2
2 2 velocity of gas molecules become zero.

a2 – x2 = x2 38. Answer (2)

a2 = 2x2 v12  v 22  ....  v n2

2
v rms 
n
a2 a
x2 = x 39. Answer (3)
2 2
40. Answer (2)
26. Answer (3)
n1F1  n2F2
27. Answer (4) F
n1  n2
v   a2  y 2 41. Answer (4)
28. Answer (2) 42. Answer (2)
N 43. Answer (1)

3RT
v rms 
M
mg 44. Answer (2)
45. Answer (3)
–(N – mg) = ma2
when N = 0, block does not fall. L
L cos
ma2 = mg 

g g Umax
2   h
a a
Kmax
1 g
 K max  Umax  mgh  mgl (1  cos )
2 a

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 4 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (4) 58. Answer (3)
Fact Fact
47. Answer (4) 59. Answer (1)
PH3 and NaBH4 are basic hydrides. HBr is acidic and Fact

CH4 is neutral. 60. Answer (3)

48. Answer (2) Fact

Volume strength = Molarity  11.2 61. Answer (2)

Na + NH3  NaNH2 + H2
= 5  11.2
62. Answer (3)
= 56 V
Fact
49. Answer (1)
63. Answer (4)
68
Strength   15  45.53 gL1 Ba2+ has largest ionic size.
22.4
64. Answer (4)
50. Answer (4)
NaH + H2O  NaOH + H2
2Ca3P2  12H2O  6Ca  OH2  4PH3 65. Answer (4)

51. Answer (2) Fact

Fact 66. Answer (3)

Fact
52. Answer (4)
67. Answer (4)
Fact
Conc. HNO3 react and with both Cu and Zn. In case
53. Answer (2)
of Al. It becomes passive.
Ca  HCO3 2  Na2 CO3  CaCO3  2NaHCO3
(inso lub le)
68. Answer (3)
(temp. hardness)
Fact
CaSO4  Na2 CO3  CaCO3  Na2 SO4 69. Answer (4)
(perm.hardness) (inso lub le)
Fact
54. Answer (4)
70. Answer (2)
2H2O  2F2  4HF  O2 After N and P, difference of size will be less due to
poor shielding by electrons in d and f subshell.
55. Answer (3)
71. Answer (4)
Fact

H
56. Answer (4) HNO2  HNO3  NO  H2O
ZnO + 2NaOH  Na2ZnO2 + H2O 72. Answer (1)
SnO + 2NaOH  Na2SnO2 + H2O Urea does not produce N2 gas on heating.
PbO + 2NaOH  Na2PbO2 + H2O 73. Answer (4)
57. Answer (4) N2O5 can act only as an oxidising agent.
Mg3N2 + H2O  Mg(OH)2 + NH3 74. Answer (2)
AlN + H2O  Al(OH)3 + NH3 Fact

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Test - 4 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
75. Answer (3) 80. Answer (1)
OH Fact
H2S2O3 : HO — S O 81. Answer (2)
S Fact
O O 82. Answer (1)
H2S2O6 : HO — S — S — OH XeF4 is nonpolar.
O O 83. Answer (4)
O O
XeO2F2 + H2O XeO3 + H2F2
H2S2O8 : HO — S — O — O —S — O — H
84. Answer (3)
O O
Fact
No S – S linkage is present in H2S2O8.
85. Answer (3)
76. Answer (3)
Fact
Fact
86. Answer (3)
77. Answer (3)
Fact
Fact 87. Answer (4)
78. Answer (4) Fact
Cl2O7 + H2O  2HClO3 88. Answer (4)
(Perchloric acid)
Fact
79. Answer (4)
89. Answer (1)
PbO2 + 4HCl PbCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
PCl3 hydrolysed in water
O3 + 2HCl O2 + H2O + Cl2
90. Answer (2)
MnO2 + 4HCl  MnCl2 + Cl2 + H2O
Fact

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (3) 106. Answer (3)
92. Answer (4) 107. Answer (1)
93. Answer (2) 108. Answer (3)
94. Answer (4) 109. Answer (4)
95. Answer (4) 110. Answer (2)
96. Answer (1) 111. Answer (1)
97. Answer (4) 112. Answer (2)

98. Answer (2) 113. Answer (4)

114. Answer (3)
99. Answer (1)
115. Answer (3)
100. Answer (3)
116. Answer (1)
101. Answer (2)
All photosynthetic green plants perform C3 cycle.
102. Answer (1)
117. Answer (2)
103. Answer (3)
118. Answer (1)
104. Answer (1)
One sucrose molecule will produce four molecule of
105. Answer (3) pyruvic acid.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 4 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
119. Answer (2) 142. Answer (4)
Pyruvic acid (3C) formed in cytoplasm by The hormones secreted by this gland interact with
glycolysis. intracellular receptors except calcitonin, this is
120. Answer (3) proteinaceous.
OAA produced in Kreb’s cycle. 143. Answer (2)
121. Answer (4)
A is, interneuron always absent in monosynaptic
122. Answer (1) reflex action.
123. Answer (3)
144. Answer (2)
124. Answer (2)
125. Answer (3) 145. Answer (3)
126. Answer (3) Male sex hormone testosterone increases libido i.e.,
127. Answer (3) male sexual behaviour.
128. Answer (4) 146. Answer (3)
129. Answer (4) Bony fishes, Aquatic amphibians, Aquatic insects,
130. Answer (3) Amoeba these are ammonotelic. Whereas,
131. Answer (1) mammals, terrestrial amphibians and sharks are
ureotelic. Reptiles, land snails, insects are uricotelic.
132. Answer (2)
133. Answer (3) 147. Answer (4)
134. Answer (1) B is corpous callosum absent in non-mammalian
135. Answer (3) brain.
136. Answer (2) 148. Answer (4)
All locomotion are movements but all movements are 149. Answer (2)
not locomotion.
Scapula is a large triangular bone situated in the
137. Answer (1)
dorsal part of the thorax between the second and the
Sphenoid bone, hyoid bone, vertebrochondral rib and seventh ribs.
occipital bone are included in axial skeleton.
Each limb is made of 30 bones.
Whereas, femur, scapula, metacarpals, patella and
Tibia are apart of appendicular skeleton. 150. Answer (2)
138. Answer (2) C is incorrect and D is correct.
Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals which act as
(i) A and B both are correct.
intercellular messengers and are produced in trace
amounts. (ii) E and F both are incorrect.
Almost all mammals have seven cervical vertebrae
(iii) G and H both are correct.
but there are exceptions.
139. Answer (4) 151. Answer (2)

The amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is low in red 152. Answer (3)

muscle fibres. Scala vestibuli – A
140. Answer (2) Reissner’s membrane – B
Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes Tectorial membrane – C
place in DCT. PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush
border epithelium. Scala media – D

141. Answer (4) Scala tympani – E

Thymus plays an important role in the differentiation Organ of Corti – F

of T-lymphocytes. Basilar membrane – G

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Test - 4 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

153. Answer (2) Scapula, Femur, present in appendicular skeleton

while Occipital and Ethmoid present in skull which
The inner ear contains a complex system called
is a part of axial skeleton.
vestibular apparatus located above the cochlea.
Rapid spasms in muscles due to low Ca++ in body Humerus, Radius, Femur, Tibia present in
fluid is known as tetany. appendicular skeleton

154. Answer (4) 164. Answer (2)

Hypothalamus secretes ADH and heart secretes 165. Answer (4)

ANF. 166. Answer (3)
155. Answer (3) 167. Answer (4)
156. Answer (1) 168. Answer (3)
In humans the excretory system consists of a pair Calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase are the
of kidneys, one pair of ureters and unpaired urinary regulatory protein in smooth muscles fibres.
bladder and urethra.
169. Answer (4)
157. Answer (4)
170. Answer (4)
158. Answer (4)
171. Answer (2)
Cockroach  Malpighian tubules  Uric acid
PCT  Reabsorption of nearly all of the essential
Frog  Mesonephric kidney  Urea
nutrients and 70 – 75% of electrolytes and water
Parrot  Metanephric kidney  Uric acid
172. Answer (1)
Bony fish  Gills  Ammonium ion
173. Answer (2)
159. Answer (4)
C is stapes connected to the oval window. 174. Answer (2)

160. Answer (3) 175. Answer (4)

H is the pineal gland. Tubular secretion occurs actively.

161. Answer (4) 176. Answer (4)
Prolactin secreted by pituitary gland. D represents 177. Answer (4)
hypothalamic neurons which secrete releasing
178. Answer (1)
hormones and also vasopressin and oxytocin.
Thyroxine, Triiodothyronine, Aldosterone, Cortisol,
162. Answer (2)
Androgen, Testosterone, Estradiol all are steroid
163. Answer (3) hormone so do not act like epinephrine. But
Frontal, Mandible, Zygomatic, Temporal present in oxytocin, vasopressin, prolactin, somatostatin,
skull and are included in axial skeleton. ACTH, GH, LH, FSH act similar to epinephrine.
179. Answer (3)
Atlas, Axis, Sacrum, Lumbar are vertebrae present
in vertrebal column included in axial skeleton. 180. Answer (3)

  

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