FIITJEE TALENT REWARD EXAM - 2023

for Students presently in Class V (Paper 1)

Time: 3 Hours SAMPLE PAPER Maximum Marks: 220

Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 30 Minutes on Section-I, 30 Minutes on Section-II, 45
Minutes on Section-III, 30 Minutes on Section-IV and 45 Minutes on Section-V.
2. This Question paper consists of 5 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Question Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject
no. Correct answer Wrong answer
1 to 12 +3 0
SECTION – I APTITUDE TEST
13 to 18 +4 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 19 to 23 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 24 to 28 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 29 to 33 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 34 to 38 +2 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 39 to 50 +1 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 51 to 62 +1 0
SECTION – III
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 63 to 74 +1 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 75 to 86 +1 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 87 to 90 +3 0
SECTION – IV CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 91 to 94 +3 0
BIOLOGY (PART-C) 95 to 98 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-A) 99 to 104 +3 0
SECTION – V
MATHEMATICS (PART-B) 105 to 110 +3 0

3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices,
in any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided below.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 105 to 110.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 110 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________

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 For questions 105 to 110
Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9 both inclusive.

Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

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 FTRE-2023-SAMPLE PAPER-C-V-(Paper-1)-AT+S&M

Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 18 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 18. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90° in the clockwise direction and then 135° in the
anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) East (B) North
(C) West (D) South

2. If A means ‘plus’, B means ‘minus’, C means ‘divided by’ and D means ‘multiplied by’,
then 18 A 12 C 6 D 2 B 5 = ?
(A) 15 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) None

3. Find the next term in the series.

16, 17, 21, 30, 46, 71, ?
(A) 99 (B) 107
(C) 112 (D) 126

4. Find the next term in the series.

4, 23, 122, 621, ?
(A) 960 (B) 1728
(C) 3120 (D) 2870

5. In a certain code, the word SYSTEM is coded as ZEXXHO then how do we code the word
FLOWER?
(A) MRTAHT (B) LQSAGR
(C) OQTZHS (D) LQSZHT
o
6. A man starts walking from a point and walks 12 km towards North. He, turns 90 left and walks a
distance and stopped. If the distance between initial point and final positions is 13 km, how much
distance he travelled after turning from the North?
(A) 1 km (B) 5 km
(C) 7 km (D) 2 km
Space for Rough Work

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7. In a certain code language, the word AMASSED is written as JUHYXIG. How will the word
KNOBBLY be written in that language ?
(A) TVVHGPB (B) SUTGFOA
(C) TTUVPQC (D) TVUHHOB

8. In a certain code language IMPLICIT is written as LRWUTPXK. How will the word NEWSCAST
be written in that language ?
(A) LSAZAITMI (B) LSAAZITIM
(C) LSASIZTIM (D) None of these

9. Figures given in question follows a set pattern. Determine the pattern and find the correct answer:
5, 14, 43, 128, ?
(A) 382 (B) 384
(C) 385 (D) 386

10. In a certain code GARNISH is written as RAGHSIN. How will GENIOUS be written in that code?
(A) ENGOIUS (B) NEGIOUS
(C) NGEOISU (D) GENOISU

11. If H = 8 and HAT = 29, then how BOX = ?

(A) 46 (B) 43
(C) 42 (D) 41

12. Rana left home and walked 5 km southwards, turned right, then walked 2 km and turned right,
then walked 5 km, again turned left, then walked 5 km. How many kilometres will he have to walk
to reach his home straight?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 17 (D) 15

(Puzzle for Q. No. 13 to 15)

Direction (Q. 13 – 15):

(i) There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F seated in a circle with their faces towards the centre.
(ii) A is second to the left to E.
(iii) C is between B and D.
(iv) F is second to the right of B.

13. Who is sitting on the immediate left of D ?

(A) A (B) E
(C) C (D) cannot be determined

14. What is F’s position in relation to C ?

(A) third to the left (B) second to the left
(C) second to the right (D) immediate right

15. Who is sitting between A and C ?

(A) D (B) B
(C) F (D) cannot be determined
Space for Rough Work

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(Comprehension for Q. No. 16 to 18)

Five police booths A, B, C, D and E are situated in the following manner:

A is 1 km East of D, B is 2 km South of E, C is 2 Km South of A, E is 3 km West of D.

16. Which three police booths are in the same line?

(A) ACD (B) ADE
(C) DEB (D) DEC

17. Of the three lying in the straight line which one is in the middle?
(A) A (B) B
(C) D (D) E

18. A is how many kms away from E?

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
Space for Rough Work

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Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 19 to 23. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

19. The time required by moonlight to reach the earth is ____________

(A) 1 sec (B) 1.3 sec
(C) 2 sec (D) 2.3 sec

20. In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and
Uranus?
(A) Earth and Jupiter (B) Jupiter and Saturn
(C) Saturn and Earth (D) Saturn and Neptune

21. Which of the following is not a function of a machine?

(A) To make our work convenient
(B) To enable us lift more load with less force
(C) To enable us make the measurement correctly
(D) To make our work faster

o
22. 1 A is equal to
(A) 10–10 m (B) 10–9 m
(C) 10–3 m (D) 10–2 m

23. Which of the following celestial bodies bear, 'The Sea of Tranquility' and 'The Ocean of Storms' ?
(A) Mars (B) Venus
(C) Moon (D) Sun
Space for Rough Work

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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 24 to 28. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

24. Which of the following substance is able to sublime?

(A) Carbon dioxide / Solid CO 2 (B) Salt
(C) Water (D) Air

25. Which of the following is NOT a metamorphic rock?

(A) Marble (B) Sandstone
(C) Quartzite (D) Slate

26. The full form of LPG is:

(A) Low quality paraffin gas (B) Liquefied petroleum gas
(C) Low quality petroleum gas (D) Liquefied paraffin gas

27. Which one of the following statements is correct about wind?

(A) Wind is produced due to uneven heating on the earth by the sun
(B) Wind is produced due to even heating on the earth by the sun
(C) Sun does not effect wind on earth
(D) Both (A) and (B)

28. Earthquakes are measured on

(A) Ruler (B) Barometer
(C) Richter scale (D) All of these
Space for Rough Work

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 29 to 33. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

29. If Ramya types 180 words in 4 minutes, how many words will she type in 9 minutes?
(A) 405 (B) 450
(C) 80 (D) 360

30. Two equal sides of a triangle are each 8 m less than twice the third side. If perimeter of triangle is
59 m. Find third side.
(A) 22 m (B) 15 m
(C) 30 m (D) 8 m

31. The value of 84  13  365 is equal to

(A) 627 (B) -727
(C) -627 (D) 727

2
32. If of 50% of x is 10, then find x.
5
(A) 100 (B) 50
(C) 25 (D) 80

33. The average of the sum of the squares of the first five natural number is
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 9
Space for Rough Work

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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 34 to 38. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

34. When you see your grandparents are not able to walk properly due to weak bones, what would
you suggest them to include in their diet?
(A) Minerals (B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates (D) Lipids

35. Aerial animals are animals which spend most of their time
(A) in water (B) in air
(C) on land (D) underground

36. The feet of frogs and ducks are webbed. This adaptation helps them in
(A) holding branches tightly (B) swimming in water
(C) flying in the air (D) grabbing and eating insets

37. Identify the name of an insectivorous plant.

(A) Zenia (B) Cactus
(C) Money plant (D) Pitcher plant

38. Deficiency of which of the following causes anemia?

(A) Iron (B) Calcium
(C) Iodine (D) Sodium
Space for Rough Work

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Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 39 to 50. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

39. Comets moves around the

(A) Earth (B) Venus
(C) Sun (D) Jupiter

40. Work done:

(A) is always positive (B) is always negative
(C) can be positive, negative or zero (D) none of these

41. Hand span is the distance between the tip of the ….. and the ……. of a fully stretched hand
(A) first finger, little finger (B) thumb, middle finger
(C) thumb, little finger (D) middle finger, little finer

42. 1 mm is equal to
(A) 1/10 m (B) 1/100 m
(C) 1/1000 m (D) 1/10000 m

43. A group of stars that form a beautiful pattern is known as…..

(A) Constellation (B) asteroids
(C) meteors (D) comets

44. Out of following which one is Jovian planet?

(A) Mercury (B) Jupiter
(C) Earth (D) Venus
Space for Rough Work

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45. Which of the following is an example of a wedge?

(A) Knife (B) screw
(C) stapler (D) nutcracker

46. To measure the mass of a pack of gum, which one is the most reasonable unit
(A) milligram (B) gram
(C) kilogram (D) all are correct

47. Nuclear energy is generated because of

(A) Joining of nuclei (B) Breaking of nuclei
(C) Both joining and breaking of nuclei (D) None of these

48. When the car is moving we can say it possess

(A) Potential energy (B) Heat energy
(C) Kinetic energy (D) Electrical energy

49. A particle is projected vertically upward with kinetic energy 150 J, its potential energy at highest
point will be, ignoring air resistance
(A) less than 150 J (B) greater than 150 J
(C) equal to 150 J (D) none of these

50. Asteroids have their orbits between the planets

(A) Mercury and Venus (B) Earth and Mars
(C) Mars and Jupiter (D) Jupiter and Saturn
Space for Rough Work

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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 51 to 62. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

51. Sandstone is an example of

(A) Non-foliated rock (B) Sedimentary rock
(C) Igneous rock (D) Metamorphic rock

52. For electrical equipment, which is the natural resource?

(A) Copper (B) Gold
(C) Bauxite ore (D) None of these

53. Solid  Liquid: Melting:: ……………:Freezing

(A) Gas  Liquid (B) Liquid  Gas
(C) Solid  Gas (D) Liquid  Solid

54. Rocks that contain fossils are called

(A) metamorphic rocks (B) igneous rocks
(C) core (D) sedimentary rocks

55. The Gondwana rock system is famous for which mineral?

(A) Coal (B) Limestone
(C) Copper (D) Diamond

56. For jewellery, which is the natural resource?

(A) Copper (B) Gold
(C) Bauxite ore (D) None of these

57. Which one of the following are causes of drought?

(A) Less rainfall (B) High temperature
(C) Dry winds (D) All of these
Space for Rough Work

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58. Which source of energy can be replenished quickly?

(A) Renewable (B) Non-renewable
(C) none of these (D) can’t say

59. _______is water in its gaseous form.

(A) Evaporation (B) Water vapour
(C) Atom (D) Condensation

60. 0 degree Celsius : Freezing point of water::_____:Boiling

(A) 110 degree Celsius (B) 100 degree Celsius
(C) 120 degree Celsius (D) 98 degree Celsius

61. For the Aluminium products, the natural resource is:

(A) Tree (B) Coal
(C) Bauxite ore (D) None of these

62. The central highlands of the Indian peninsula are composed of______
(A) from sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
(B) Igneous and sedimentary rocks
(C) from igneous and metamorphic rocks
(D) from sedimentary rocks
Space for Rough Work

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 63 to 74. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

63. How many lines can pass through any three collinear points?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinite

64. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 8?

(A) 87653234 (B) 78956042
(C) 64298602 (D) 98741032

65. Which statement is false?

(A) 4.69 > 4.6 (B) 1061 > 10.601
(C) 1.09 < 1.089 (D) 921.6 > 92.1601

66. A tetrahedron is a pyramid whose base is a

(A) triangle (B) square
(C) rectangle (D) quadrilateral

67. If two lines do not meet or intersect they are said to be _______.
(A) parallel (B) perpendicular
(C) intersecting (D) None of these

68. Distance all round a shape is called

(A) Area (B) Perimeter
(C) Volume (D) None of these

69. If 121  169  143  x then x is

(A) 143 (B) 121
(C) 13 (D) 11

70. Rs 2000 is lent out at 2% per annum for 10 years under simple interest. Calculate the amount (in
Rs).
(A) 1400 (B) 2400
(C) 200 (D) 1500
Space for Rough Work

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71. If the cost price of an article is Rs.12 and the selling price of the article is Rs 15. Find the profit
percentage.
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 10%

72. Amit scored 50, 60, 45, 80 and 75 marks in five different subject. The maximum marks in each
subject is 100. Find his average percentage of marks.
(A) 60% (B) 63%
(C) 62% (D) 65%

12
73. 0  ?
13
12
(A) (B) 0
13
(C) Does not exist (D) None of these

74. What do you call the triangle whose two of its angles are 40º and 70º ?
(A) Scalene (B) Obtuse
(C) Isosceles (D) Equilateral
Space for Rough Work

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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 75 to 86. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

75. The hard-protective covering of brain is called

(A) Sternum (B) Cranium
(C) Ribs (D) Vertebral column

76. The main unit of Nervous system is

(A) Neurons (B) Bones
(C) Cartilage (D) Platelets

77. A boy wants to build his muscles to look fit and smart. His diet should be rich in which of the
following nutrients?
(A) Proteins (B) Vitamins
(C) Carbohydrates (D) Fats

78. Match Column I with Column II

Column I Column II
P. Bulb (i) Potato
Q. Tuber (ii) Sweet Potato
R. Leaf (iii) Bryophyllum
S. Root (iv) Onion
(A) P – (iv); Q – (i); R – (iii); S – (ii) (B) P – (iii); Q – (ii); R – (iv); S – (i)
(C) P – (ii); Q – (iii); R – (i); S – (iv) (D) P – (i); Q – (iii); R – (iv); S – (ii)

79. Potato and ginger are underground

(A) root (B) leaf
(C) stem (D) none of these

80. Which joint allows movement in several directions?

(A) ball and socket (B) Hinge
(C) pivot (D) sliding

81. Deer eats only plant products and so is called

(A) Herbivore (B) Omnivore
(C) Carnivore (D) Decomposer
Space for Rough Work

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82. Which of the following animals has its body covered by a hard shell?
(A) Snake (B) Earthworm
(C) Fish (D) Snail

83. The nature of digestive juice in the stomach is

(A) Acidic (B) Basic
(C) Neutral (D) All

84. Nonessential parts of flowers are:

(A) Sepals and petals (B) Sepals and carpels
(C) Sepals and gynoecium (D) Androecium and gynoecium

85. The process by which seed grows into a new plant is called:
(A) germination (B) photosynthesis
(C) respiration (D) circulation

86. What is the name of the substance that gives skin and hair its pigment?
(A) Cerebrum (B) Iris
(C) Melanin (D) Quadriceps
Space for Rough Work

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Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – IV

Section – IV
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 2 Comprehensions. Each comprehension contains 2 Multiple Choice
Questions number 87 to 90. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

(Comprehension for Q. No. 87 to 88)

A mechanical device that changes the direction or magnitude of a force is known as a simple machine. In
general terms, they are defined as simple mechanisms that use leverage or mechanical advantage to
multiply force. Simple machines have few or no moving parts to modify motion and force.

87. The forces generated by a machine are

(A) magnetic force (B) mechanical force
(C) gravitational force (D) electrostatic force

88. The door knob of the house is an example of:

(A) wheel and axle arrangement (B) inclined plane
(C) wedge (D) none of these

(Comprehension for Q. No. 89 to 90)

The Universe consists of everything that exists anywhere in space. All the heavenly bodies such as the
sun, the moon and the stars which are seen with the naked eye and many more celestial bodies such as
planets, asteroids, satellites, comets, meteors, meteorite, which are not seen with the naked eyes.

89. The light coming from stars gives the idea of their
(A) Size (B) Rotational speed
(C) Mass (D) Temperature

90. Which of these is farthest from the Sun?

(A) Mars (B) Mercury
(C) Uranus (D) Pluto
Space for Rough Work

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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 2 Comprehensions. Each comprehension contains 2 Multiple Choice
Questions number 91 to 94. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

(Comprehension for Q. No. 91 to 92)

Natural resources contain metal and non-metal such as sodium, gold, coal, clay etc. The uses for the
earth’s natural resources are many from the food a person eats to the energy used to remain comfortable
in a home.

91. Which of the following are uses for the earth’s natural resources?
(A) Transportation (B) Food and drink
(C) Homes and building (D) All of these

92. Which one is natural resource?

(A) Metal (B) Non-metal
(C) Coal (D) All of these

(Comprehension for Q. No. 93 to 94)

Metamorphic rocks are formed through the process of heat and pressure. This occurs when pre-existing
rocks are subjected to high temperature and intense pressure deep within the earth’s crust.

93. Metamorphic rocks are the result of

(A) Sedimentation of particles (B) Weathering and erosion
(C) Heat and pressure (D) Water pressure

94. Primary factors responsible for the formation of metamorphic rocks is

(A) Temperature (B) Pressure
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
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BIOLOGY – (PART – C)
This part contains 2 Comprehensions. Each comprehension contains 2 Multiple Choice
Questions number 95 to 98. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

(Comprehension for Q. No. 85 to 96)

Seed germination is a process where a seed germinates, i.e. develops and grows into new plants. The
growth of an embryo from seed into seedling under favourable conditions is called seed germination.

95. Which of the following parts appears first in a plant?

(A) Radicle (B) Plumule
(C) Leaves (D) All of these

96. The state of inactive or rest, when seeds do not germinate is called
(A) Parthenocarpy (B) Dormancy
(C) Dead (D) Viable

(Comprehension for Q. No. 97 to 98)

Insects are one of the most common prey items for most carnivorous plants, they are sometimes called
insectivorous plants. Carnivorous plants absorb nitrogen from their animal prey through their leaves
specially modified as traps.

97. Which of the following statement is not true about Insectivorous plants?
(A) They eat animals (B) They are photosynthetic
(C) They grow in nitrogen deficient soil (D) They drink blood of animals

98. Which of the following is not an insectivorous plant?

(A) Sundew (B) Bougainvillea
(C) Nepenthes (D) Venus flytrap
Space for Rough Work

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 FTRE-2023-SAMPLE PAPER-C-V-(Paper-1)-AT+S&M

Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – V

Section – V
MATHEMATICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 99 to 104. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

99. The least number divisible by each of the number 15, 20, 24, 32 and 36 is
(A) 1460 (B) 1440
(C) 1480 (D) 1420

100. A machine prints 1500 news papers in 45 min. How many papers will be printed in 2 hrs?
(A) 3000 (B) 4000
(C) 2000 (D) 1000

101. If A of a ABC measure 56°, C = 3B, find the measure of B.

(A) 62° (B) 31°
(C) 93° (D) 56°

102. The product of three numbers is 29500, if two of the three numbers are 25 and 59 then the third
number is
(A) 15 (B) 18
(C) 22 (D) 20

103. The L.C.M. of 12, 24 and 36 is

(A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 108 (D) 72

104. Anand saves 55% of his income. If his income is Rs. 11000, then find his expenditure (in Rs).
(A) 6050 (B) 7450
(C) 4950 (D) 3350
Space for Rough Work

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – B)
This part contains 6 Numerical Based Questions number 105 to 110. The answer to each
question is a Single Digit Integer from 0 to 9 both inclusive.

3
105. A trader has a stock of 4 tonne wheat. If he would like to fill it in bags such that each bag
4
k
contains 50 kg, if number of bags is k, then is
19

x
106. Two supplementary angles differ by 44°, if the greater angle is xº then is
16

k
107. A person crosses a 1200 m long street in 10 minutes if speed is k(km/hr) then ?
1.2

1 1 1
108. 2 3 2  ?
3 2 6

4 2 n
109. If of a number exceeds its by 8, If the number is n then is
5 3 12

0.1 0.2  0.3

110. ?
0.0015
Space for Rough Work

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 FTRE-2023-SAMPLE PAPER-C-V-(Paper-1)-AT+S&M

FIITJEE TALENT REWARD EXAM - 2023

for Students presently in Class V (Paper 1)
ANSWER KEY (SAMPLE PAPER)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C
5. A 6. B 7. A 8. D
9. C 10. C 11. D 12. B
13. B 14. A 15. B 16. B
17. C 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. C 24. A
25. B 26. B 27. A 28. C
29. A 30. B 31. B 32. B
33. B 34. A 35. B 36. B
37. D 38. A 39. C 40. C
41. C 42. C 43. A 44. B
45. A 46. B 47. C 48. C
49. C 50. C 51. B 52. A
53. D 54. D 55. A 56. B
57. D 58. A 59. B 60. B
61. C 62. C 63. B 64. D
65. C 66. A 67. A 68. B
69. A 70. B 71. A 72. C
73. C 74. C 75. B 76. A
77. A 78. A 79. C 80. A
81. A 82. D 83. A 84. A
85. A 86. C 87. B 88. A
89. D 90. D 91. D 92. D
93. C 94. C 95. A 96. B
97. D 98. B 99. B 100. B
101. B 102. D 103. D 104. C
105. 5 106. 7 107. 6 108. 8
109. 5 110. 4

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