1704030081-Environment Pyq Workbok
1704030081-Environment Pyq Workbok
WORKBOOK
ENVIRONMENT
CONTENTS
ENVIRONMENT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS .................................................. 01-27
1. Ecology & Environment.................................................................................................... 1
2. Biodiversity ....................................................................................................................... 4
3. Resource Degradation & Management ........................................................................ 10
4. Environmental Pollution ................................................................................................ 14
5. Climate Change ............................................................................................................... 18
6. Environmental Governance ........................................................................................... 19
1. Consider the following statements: 4. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s)
1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. in the desert are as to inhibit water loss?
2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties. 1. Hard and waxy leaves
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 2. Tiny leaves
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent 3. Thorns instead of leaves
properties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
How many of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only two
5. Which one of the following is the best description
(c) Only three
of the term ‘ecosystem’?
(d) All four
(a) A community of organisms interacting with one
2. Which one of the following is the best example of another
repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present- (b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living
day extensive marshland? organisms
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (c) A community of organisms together with the
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans environment in which they live
(c) Naupada Swamp (d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
(d) Rann of Kutch
6. Which one of the following is the correct sequence
3. Consider the following statements: of a food chain?
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8. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, 14. Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
consider the following statements: 1. Excretion of Urea by animals
1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a
2. Burning of coal by man
chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within the populations of 3. Death of vegetation
a species. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
(a) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
15. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) None the following statements:
9. Which one of the following terms describes not 1. The country’s total geographical area under the
only the physical space occupied by an organism, category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujrat
but also its functional role in the community of as compared to other states
organisms? 2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal
(a) Ecotone (c) Habitat wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands
(b) Ecological niche (d) Home range Which of the above statements is/are correct?
10. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
as a part of an ecological succession because of: (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Insects and fungi
16. Consider the following:
(b) Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
1. Photosynthesis.
(c) Water limits and fire
2. Respiration.
(d) None of the above
3. Decay of organic matter.
11. Which one of the following is the correct 4. Volcanic action.
sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon
productivity?
cycle on earth?
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(a) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands 17. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine
upwelling zones are important as they increase the
12. Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/ marine productivity by bringing the:
occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Nutrients to the surface.
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to- the surface.
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, 18. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that
which of the following kinds of organism is/are mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge
known as decomposer organism/organisms? against coastal calamities. How do mangroves
function as a safety hedge?
1. Virus
2. Fungi (a) The mangrove swamps separate the human
3. Bacteria settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which
people neither live nor venture out.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only which people are in need of after any natural
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 disaster.
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(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
and serve as art excellent shelter during a cyclone (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
or tsunami.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms
and tides because of their extensive roots. 23. Which of the following have species that can
establish symbiotic relationship with other
19. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is organisms?
sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food
1. Cnidarians
crop – Rat – Snake – Hawk. In this food chain,
the highest concentration of the pesticide would 2. Fungi
accumulate in which one of the following? 3. Protozoa
(a) Food crop (c) Snake Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) Rat (d) Hawk (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
20. What is the use of biochar in farming?
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing
medium in vertical farming. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium,
24. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has
it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing
become dry and turned into a desert ?
microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, (a) Lake Victoria
it enables the growing medium to retain water (b) Lake Faguibine
for longer time. (c) Lake Oguta
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) Lake Volta
(a) 1 and 2 only
25. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs
(b) 2 only
of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its
(c) 1 and 3 only kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 wetlands best reflects the above statements?
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface
21. In case of which one of the following biogeochemical runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
cycles the weathering of rocks is the main source
(b) Algae from the nutrient base upon which
of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?
fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and
(a) Carbon cycle mammals thrive.
(b) Nitrogen cycle (c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining
(c) Phosphorus cycle sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Sulphur cycle (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess
nutrients.
22. Which of the following are detritivores?
26. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
1. Earthworms
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and
2. Jellyfish
semi-arid areas.
3. Millipedes
(b) Development of gardens using genetically
4. Seahorses modified flora.
5. Woodlice
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only sea surfaces.
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BIODIVERSITY
1. Which one of the following makes a tool with a 6. Consider the following trees:
stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
of wood?
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
(a) Fishing cat
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)
(b) Orangutan
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
(c) Otter
(a) Only one (c) All three
(d) Sloth bear
(b) Only two (d)
2. Consider the following statements regarding the
7. Which one of the following National Parks lies
Indian squirrels:
completely in the temperate alpine zone?
1. They build nests by making burrows in the
ground. (a) Manas National Park
2. They store their food materials like nuts and (b) Namdapha National Park
seeds in the ground. (c) Neora Valley National Park
3. They are omnivorous. (d) Valley of Flowers National Park
How many of the above statements are correct?
8. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
(b) Only two
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in
(c) All three India only.
(d) None 3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in
India only.
3. Which of the following organisms perform waggle
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
dance for others of their kin to indicate the
direction and the distance to a source of their food? (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Butterflies (b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Dragonflies
9. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala
(c) Honeybees Biosphere Reserve?
(d) Wasps (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife
Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger
4. Consider the following fauna: Reserve
1. Lion-tailed Macaque (b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad
2. Malabar Civet Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National
3. Sambar Deer Park
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or (c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and
most active after sunset? Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi
National Park
(a) Only one
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries;
(b) Only two and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
(c) All three
10. Consider the following statements:
(d) None
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
5. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops 2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to 3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
which one of the following organizations? 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
(a) The International Union for Conservation of
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Nature
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) The United Nations World Commission for
Environment and Development (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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11. Consider the following pairs: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Wildlife Naturally found in (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
17. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats the news, consider the following statements:
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only 2. It is one of the most important trees in the
tropical rain forest areas of South India.
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
12. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
waters.
2. More than one third of the world’s coral reefs are 18. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed
located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia found in India?
and Philippines. 1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers
in seawater.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal
phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. 2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often
19. Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and
mentioned in news?
distinct species of banana plant which attains a
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics. height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured
fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in
discovered?
which it grows.
(a) Anadaman Islands
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(b) Anamalai Forests
(d) None of the above
(c) Maikala Hills
14. In which one of the following State Pakhui Wildlife (d) Tropical rain forests of northeast
Sanctuary is located?
20. In which of the following regions of India are
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Meghalaya
you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian
(b) Manipur (d) Nagaland Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
15. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some
of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to (b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
which one of the following sites? (c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(a) Corbett National Park (d) Western Ghats
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary 21. Which of the following National Parks is unique
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary in being a swamp with floating vegetation that
supports a rich biodiversity?
(d) Sariska National Park
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
16. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
population of species of butterflies, what could be (c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
its likely consequence/consequences?
(d) Sultanpur National Park
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely
affected. 22. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal India, which of the following statements is/are
infections of some cultivated plants. correct?
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
species of wasps, spiders and birds. 2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
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3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of 28. The most important strategy for the conservation
the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1974. of biodiversity together with traditional human
life is the establishment of
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Biosphere reserves
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Botanical gardens
(b) 2 only (d) 3 only
(c) National parks
23. Which one of the following is the national aquatic (d) Wildlife sanctuaries
animal of India?
(a) Saltwater crocodile 29. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological
succession even on a bare rock, are actually a
(b) Olive ridley turtle
symbiotic association of:
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(a) Algae and bacteria (c) Bacteria and fungi
(d) Gharial
(b) Algae and fungi (d) Fungi and mosses
24. Which one of the following regions of India has a
30. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of
combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest
the following statements is/are correct?
and deciduous forest?
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are
(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
(b) South-West Bengal 1972
(c) Southern Saurashtra 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive
Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities,
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands in those zones except agriculture.
25. Which one of the following National Parks has a Select the correct answer using the code given below:
climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
temperate and arctic?
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Khangchendzonga National Park
(b) Nandadevi National Park 31. Which of the following have coral reefs?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Neora Valley National Park
2. Gulf of Kachchh
(d) Namdapha National Park
3. Gulf of Mannar
26. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons 4. Sunderbans
for the decline in the population of Ganges River Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Dolphins?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers (b) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally 32. Consider the following animals:
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural 1. Sea cow
chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers
2. Sea horse
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. Sea lion
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only Which of the above is/are mammal/ mammals?
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only
27. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to (b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize
the insects, disturbed by their movement through 33. In which of the following States is lion-tailed
grasses.Which of the following is/are such bird/ macaque found in its natural habitat?
birds? 1. Tamil Nadu
1. Painted Stork 2. Kerala
2. Common Myna 3. Karnataka
3. Black-necked Crane 4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (d) 3 only (b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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34. Consider the following : 39. In which one among the following categories
1. Star tortoise of protected areas in India are local people not
allowed to collect and use the biomass?
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog (a) Biosphere reserves
4. Spider monkey (b) National parks
Which of the above found in India? (c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar convention
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) Wildlife sanctuaries
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
40. Which one of the following groups of animals
35. Consider the following fauna of India: belongs to the category of endangered species?
1. Gharial (a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda,
2. Leatherback turtle Asiatic Wild Ass
3. Swamp deer (b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetah, Blue Bull, Great Indian
Bustard.
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey,
Saras (Crane)
(b) 3 only (d) None
(d) Lion Tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman
36. Government of India encourages the cultivation Langur, Cheetah
of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this
plant? 41. Which of the following can be threats to the
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in biodiversity of a geographical area?
preventing desertification. 1. Global warming
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel. 2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to 3. Invasion of alien species
live in cold areas of high altitudes. 4. Promotion of vegetarianism
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
42. Consider the following:
37. Other than resistance to pests, what are the
prospects for which genetically engineered plants 1. Black necked crane
have been created? 2. Cheetah
1. To enable them to withstand drought 3. Flying squirrel
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce 4. Snow leopard
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in Which of the above are naturally found in India?
spaceships and space stations
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only
4. To increase their shelf life
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only 43. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean
(b) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is completely destroyed for some reason?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely
38. Consider the following protected areas: affected.
1. Bandipur 2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely
2. Bhitarkanika affected.
3. Manas 3. The density of ocean water would drastically
4. Sunderbans decrease.
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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44. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx Which three of the above are correct criteria in this
and Chiru? context?
(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas like (a) 1, 2 and 6 (c) 1, 3 and 5
Africa and Arabia whereas Chiru is adapted to (b) 2, 4 and 6 (d) 3, 4 and 6
live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high
mountains of Tibetan Plateau. 49. Consider the following statements:
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is 1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower
poached for its musk latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity
(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru is normally greater in the lower altitudes as
exists in north east India only. compared to the higher altitudes.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above Which of the above statements is/are correct?
is correct.
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
45. Consider the following kinds of organisms: (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Bat
50. Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?
2. Bee
(a) Their growth in shady and dark places does not
3. Bird allow them to undertake sufficient photosynthesis
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents? and thus they depend on insects for nutrition
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (b) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient
soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 nitrogenous nutrition
(c) They cannot synthesize certain vitamins
46. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence
themselves and depend on the insects digested by
in the following ways: them
1. Soil formation (d) They have remained in that particular stage
2. Prevention of soil erosion of evolution as living fossils, a link between
3. Recycling of waste autotrophs and heterotrophs
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Which of the above statements is/ are correct? 59. Which of the following are the most likely places to
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 find the musk deer in its natural habitat?
1. Ascot Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Gangotri National Park
54. Consider the following statements: 3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined 4. Manas National Park
by legislation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a
few specific species of flora and fauna. (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only
interference is permitted.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 60. With reference to India’s Desert National Park,
which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
1. It is spread over two districts
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. There is no human habitation inside the park.
55. Consider the following pairs: 3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian
Protected area Well-known for Bustard.
1. Bhiterkanika, Orissa Salt Water Crocodile Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. Desert National Park, Great Indian Bustard (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
Rajasthan
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Eravikulam, Kerala Hoolak Gibbon
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 61. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one
(a) 1 only (c) 2 only has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Corbett
56. Which of the following Protected Areas are located (b) Ranthambore
in Cauvery basin? (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
1. Nagarhole National Park
(d) Sunderbans
2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve 62. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sancturary (a) Catfish (c) Oyster
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) Octopus (d) Pelican
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only 63. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned
in the news, consider the following statements:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. It is a fungus.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
57. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan
frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned
foothills of north- eastern India.
minivet and White-throated redstart are
(a) Birds Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) Primates (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(c) Reptiles (b) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) Amphibians
64. Which of the following is not a bird?
58. Which one of the following protected areas is well- (a) Golden Mahseer (c) Spoonbill
known for the conservation of a sub-species of the (b) Indian Nightjar (d) White Ibis
Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well
on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
65. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants ?
(a) Kanha National Park 1. Alfalfa
(b) Manas National Park 2. Amaranth
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary 3. Chickpea
(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Clover
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Select the correct answer using the code given below: 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal
becoming a danger to human life is sufficient
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only ground for its capture or killing.
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 (b) 2 only (d) 3 only
66. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife
67. Certain species of which one of the following
protection, consider the following statements:
organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the
government. (a) Ant (c) Crab
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such (b) Cockroach (d) Spider
1. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
which one of the following? for Statement-I
(a) Aluminium (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(b) Copper (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(c) Iron
4. Consider the following States:
(d) Titanium
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Consider the following statements: 2. Madhya Pradesh
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of 3. Maharashtra
components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 4. Odisha
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
With reference to the States mentioned above, in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area
(a) 1 only of State, which one of the following is the correct
ascending order?
(b) 2 only
(a) 2-3-1-4 (c) 3-2-4-1
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2-3-4-1 (d) 3-2-1-4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. In the context of which one of the following are
3. Consider the following statements:
the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’
Statement-I: mentioned?
According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water (a) Extraction of rare earth elements
Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each
year. (c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
Statement-II: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies
India needs to extract more than a quarter of the
World’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking 6. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s in India, which one of the following statements is
population living in its territory. correct?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the (a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five
above statements? categories.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships
Statement-I only.
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(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria 11. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but
for the identification of sites for landfills and what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing
waste processing facilities. countries in promoting this industry?
(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator 1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in
seas only and not on continents.
that the waste generated in one district cannot be
moved to another district. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae based
biofuel production requires high level of
7. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the expertise/technology until the construction is
following statements: completed.
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically 3. Economically viable production necessitates
the setting up of large scale facilities which may
reduces its water holding capacity.
raise ecological and social concerns.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to
the salinization of some agricultural lands. (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only 12. Which of the following is/are the advantage/
advantages of practicing drip irrigation?
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Reduction in weed
8. With reference to the circumstances in India 2. Reduction in soil salinity
agriculture, the concept of “Conservation 3. Reduction in soil erosion
Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices. (a) 1 and 2 only
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3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can 20. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used
occur. as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the
cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
one of the following statements is correct in this
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only context?
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the
manufacture of biodegradable plastics
16. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the
with which of the following? extraction of shale gas
1. Terrace cultivation (c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of
2. Deforestation anti-histamines
3. Tropical climate (d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
21. Consider the following organisms:
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Agaricus
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra
17. With reference to two non-conventional energy
sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, Which of the above is/are used as biofertiliser/
consider the following ‘statements: biofertilisers?
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a (b) 2 only (d) 3 only
mixture of propane and butane only that can be
extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 22. Consider the following agricultural practices:
2. In India abundant coalbed methane sources 1. Contour bunding
exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been 2. Relay cropping
found.
3. Zero tillage
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
In the context of global climate change, which of the
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in
the soil?
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
18. With reference to Neem tree, consider the (b) 3 only (d) None
following statements:
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control 23. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
the proliferation of some species of insects and 1. Bacteria
mites. 2. Fungi
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of 3. Flowering plants
biofuels and hospital detergents.
Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical are employed as bio-pesticides?
industry.
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 24. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the
sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India.
19. Consider the following statements: In this context, which of the following statements
1. Maize can be used for the production of starch. is/are correct?
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for 1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk
biodiesel. can be used in biomass gasification.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using 2. The combustible gases generated from biomass
maize. gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon
dioxide only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass
(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only gasification can be used for direct heat generation
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 but not in internal combustion engines.
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
25. Given below are the names of four energy crops. 30. Consider the following statements:
Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol? 1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as
(a) Jatropha (c) Pongamia “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central
Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
(b) Maize (d) Sunflower
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment
26. Which feature of some species of blue-green algae (Protection) Act.
helps promote them as bio-fertilizers? 3. India has the largest area under groundwater
(a) They convert atmospheric methane into ammonia irrigation in the world.
which the crop plants can absorb readily Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(b) They induce the crop plants to produce the (a) 1 only (c) 2 only
enzymes which help convert atmospheric
nitrogen to nitrates (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric 31. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in
nitrogen into a form that the crop plants can which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is
absorb readily
practised, results in :
(d) They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb 1. Reduced seed requirement
the soil nitrates in larger quantities
2. Reduced methane production
27. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia 3. Reduced electricity consumption
pinnata also considered a good option for the
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
production of bio-diesel in India?
1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
arid regions of India (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid
content of which nearly half is oleic acid 32. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? use of which is so widespread in our daily lives,
consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
fibres to reinforce their properties.
28. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero 2. Containers made of it can be used to store any
tillage in agriculture? alcoholic beverage.
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other
residue of previous crop. products.
2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by
direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is incineration without causing greenhouse gas
possible. emmisions.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
33. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one
29. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels,
of the following situations?
which of the following can be used as raw materials
for the production of biofuels? (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
1. Cassava (b) Development of building materials using plant
2. Damaged wheat grains residues
3. Groundnut seeds (c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction
4. Horse gram of shale gas
5. Rotten potatoes (d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/
6. Sugar beet protected areas
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ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION
1. Consider the following: How many of the statements given above are correct?
1. Aerosols (a) Only one
2. Foam agents
(b) Only two
3. Fire retardants
(c) All three
4. Lubricants
(d) None
In the making of how many of the above are
hydrofluorocarbons used?
5. “Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about
(a) Only one with reference to which one of the following?
(b) Only two (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by
(c) Only three mosquitoes.
(d) All four (b) Converting crop residues into packing material
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics.
2. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the
following statements: (d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal conversion of biomass.
combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as 6. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants
fuel for heat or power generation. in India, consider the following statements:
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run 1. None of them uses seawater.
vehicles. 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
How many of the above statements are correct? 3. None of them is privately owned.
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
3. Consider the following statements regarding (d) None
mercury pollution:
1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury 7. Consider the following statements:
pollution in the world. 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury environment.
pollution. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen
mercury.
compounds into environment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) All three
(d) None 8. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-
enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public
4. Which reference to the role of biofilter in transport, consider the following statements:
Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the
following statement:
elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing
uneaten fish feed. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and
hydrocarbon emissions.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste
in nitrate. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
fish in water. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (c) 4 only (a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Which of the following statements are correct 14. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard
about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’? criterion for:
1. Global warming might trigger the release of (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
methane gas from these deposits.
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ arc found in
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
dioxide after a decade or two.
15. Consider the following pairs:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Commonly used Unwanted
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only or materials controversial
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 chemicals likely to be
found in them:
10. Consider the following: 1. Lipstick Lead
1. Carbon monoxide 2. Soft drinks Brominated vegetable oils
2. Methane 3. Chinese fast food Monosodium glutamate
3. Ozone Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
4. Sulphur dioxide
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 4 only 16. In the cities of our country, which among the
following atmospheric gases are normally
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
considered in calculating the value of Air Quality
Index?
11. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion,
phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehen- 1. Carbon dioxide
sion. These chemicals are used as 2. Carbon monoxide
(a) Pesticides in agriculture 3. Nitrogen dioxide
(b) Preservatives in processed foods 4. Sulphur Dioxide
(d) Moisturizing agents in cosmetics Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only
12. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
that are released into environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine 17. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power
ecosystems. plants using coal as fuel, which of the following
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in statements is/are correct?
children. 1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks
for building construction.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop
plants in irrigated fields. 2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of
the Portland cement contents of concrete.
(d) They are often found to be used as food
adulterants. 3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium
oxide only, and does not contain any toxic
13. Which of the following is/are the possible elements.
consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Decreased salinity in the river.
2. Pollution of groundwater (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Lowering of the water table (b) 2 only (d) 3 only
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18. Brominated flame retardants are used in many 23. Which of the following can be found as pollutants
household products like mattresses and upholstery. in the drinking water in some parts of India?
Why is there some concern about their use? 1. Arsenic
1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the 2. Sorbitol
environment. 3. Fluoride
2. They are able to accumulate in humans and 4. Formaldehyde
animals. 5. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
19. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to 24. Consider the following:
the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?
1. Carbon dioxide.
1. Volcanic action 2. Oxides of nitrogen.
2. Respiration 3. Oxides of Sulphur
3. Photosynthesis Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from
4. Decay of organic matter coal combustion at thermal power plants?
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 25. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After
the addition of lead to petrol has been banned,
20. Which of the following are some important what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
pollutants released by steel industry in India? 1. Smelting units
1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Pens pencils
2. Oxides of nitrogen 3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics
3. Carbon monoxide
Select the correct answer using the codes given
4. Carbon dioxide
below:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
26. Consider the following statements: Chlorofluor-
ocarbons, known as ozone depleting substances
21. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment
are used:
by:
1. In the production of plastic foams
(a) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
2. In the production of tubeless tyres
(b) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide 3. In cleaning certain electronic components
(c) Ozone and carbon dioxide 4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans
(d) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
22. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction
(b) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
among:
(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence 27. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in
of sunlight the air is slowly raising the temperature of the
atmosphere, because it absorbs
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence
of sunlight (a) The water vapour of the air and retains its heat
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature (b) The UV part of the solar radiation
(d) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the (c) All the solar radiations
evening (d) The infrared part of the solar radiation
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28. Due to improper / indiscriminate disposal of old 32. Consider the following:
and used computers or their parts, which of the 1. Oxides of Hydrogen
following are released into the environment as 2. Oxides of Nitrogen
e-waste?
3. Oxides of Sulphur
1. Beryllium
Which of the above causes/cause acid rain?
2. Cadmium
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
3. Chromium
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury 33. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide
(CO) into the air may produce a condition in which
6. Lead oxygen supply in the human body decrease. What
7. Plutonium causes this condition?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) When inhaled into the human body, CO is
converted into CO2
(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only (c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of
hemoglobin
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory
29. There is a concern over the increase in harmful center in the brain
algal blooms in the sea waters of India. What could
34. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the
be the causative factors for this phenomenon? following as “exhaust”:
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
(a) NH3 (c) H2O
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
(b) CH4 (d) H2O2
3. Upwelling in the seas.
35. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
exposure to benzene pollution?
(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only 1. Automobile exhaust
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
30. Human activities in the recent past have caused 4. Using varnished wooden furniture
the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in
5. Using products made of polyurethane
the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in
the lower atmosphere because of: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. The photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the (b) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
oceans.
36. In rural road construction, the use of which of the
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps. following is preferred for ensuring environmental
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?
1. Copper slag
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
(b) 2 only (d) 3 only 3. Geotextiles
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
31. Recently, “oil zapper’’ was in the news. What is it?
5. Portland cement
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation
of oily sludge and oil spills. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 4 and 5 only
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea
oil exploration. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 5 only
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding 37. Consider the following statements:
maize variety. 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
(d) It is the latest technology to control the 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide
accidentally caused flames from oil wells. and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
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3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
40. Why is there a concern about copper smelting
(a) 1 only (c) 3 only plants?
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon
monoxide into environment.
38. Which one of the following statements best
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some
describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a
heavy metals into environment.
measure, in monetary value, of the
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
(a) Long-term damage done by a tone of CO2
emissions of a given year. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) Requirement of fossil fuels for a country to (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
provide goods and services to its citizens, based (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
on the burning of those fuels.
(c) Efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live 41. Among the following crops, which one is the most
in a new place. important anthropogenic source of both methane
(d) Contribution of an individual person to the and nitrous oxide?
carbon footprint on the planet Earth. (a) Cotton (c) Sugarcane
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 4 only
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (b) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
CLIMATE CHANGE
1. In the context of mitigating the impending global (d) Increased temperature at polar region due to
warming due to anthropogenic emission of carbon
global warming
dioxide, which of the following can be the potential
sites for carbon sequestration?
3. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP,
1. Abandoned and Uneconomic coal seams
has been developed for
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations (a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building
operations around the world
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the
world to enter carbon emission trading
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Enabling governments to assess the overall
2. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic carbon footprint caused by their countries
region has been a cause of concern. What could be
the reason for the formation of this hole? (d) Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time
and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and 4. What is blue carbon?
stratospheric’ clouds; and inflow of chloro-
(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
fluorocarbons
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; (b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and
and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons agricultural soils
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(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas 3. EP100 brings together leading companies
committed to driving innovation in energy
(d) Carbon present in atmosphere
efficiency and increasing competitiveness while
delivering on emmission reduction goals.
5. Consider the following statements:
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-
profit organization that drives climate action by 5. The International Energy Agency is the
Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.
building large networks and runs them.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership
with the Climate Group launched a global (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 3 and 5 only
initiative “EP100”. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
ENVIRONMENTAL GOVERNANCE
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 4. In the context of which of the following do some
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning
Statement-I technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct into stratosphere?
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
for Statement-I
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
cyclones
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the
2. Consider the following statements: Earth
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2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional 3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Climate Change officially decides and declares
Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable
Tribal Groups in any part of India.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
produce to forest dwellers.
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only 11. Consider the following:
1. Birds
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Dustblowing
7. Consider the following statements : 3. Rain
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers 4. Windblowing
the Government of India to Which of the above spread plant diseases?
1. state the requirement of public participation in (a) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
the process of environmental protection, and the
Procedure and manner in which it sought (b) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge 12. With reference to organic farming in India,
of environmental pollutants from various consider the following statements:
sources
1. ‘The National Programme for Organic
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the
guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
of Rural Development.
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food
Products Export Development Authority’
8. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the
introduced as an important feature in which of the implementation of NPOP.
following?
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and State.
Handling) Rules, 1998 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
Rules, 1999
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules,
2011 13. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011 from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas
9. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy the CPCB has been created by an executive order
(PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries of the Government.
transition towards greener and more inclusive 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and
economies, emerged at: helps reduce the burden of litigation in the
higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development
cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to
2002,Johannesburg improve the quality of air in the country.
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Development 2012, Rio deJaneiro
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change 2015,Paris (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit
14. Which of the following statement best describes
2016, New Delhi
“carbonfertilization?
10. Consider the following statements: (a) Increased plant growth due to increased
1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is concentration of carbondioxide in the
incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. atmosphere
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been (b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased
given Habitat Rights. concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
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(c) Increased acidity of oceans as the result of 19. Consider the following statements:
increased concentration of carbon dioxide in 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce
the atmosphere Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the initiative of G20 group of countries;
climate change brought about by the increased 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere hydrofluorocarbons.
15. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
following statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held
in Paris in 2015 20. Consider the following statements in respect of
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in
binding obligations. Commerce (TRAFFIC):
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The Mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
16. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected
under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
1972, what does it imply? (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
21. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals
in the context of:
are under captive protection; and how it is
impossible to prevent its extinction. (a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India. (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this (c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
context.
(d) Security of National Highways
17. With, reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’
22. On which of the following can you find the Bureau
which of the following statements is/are correct?
of Energy Efficiency Star Label?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
1. Ceiling fans
2. It provides technical and financial support
2. Electric geysers
to targeted developing countries to integrate
climate change into their development policies 3. Tubular fluorescent lamps
and budgets. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable
Development (WBCSD). (b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 23. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only 1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the United Nations Climate Change Conference
in 2015.
18. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, 2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of
which of the following animals cannot be hunted the United Nations.
by any person except under some provisions provided
by law? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Gharial (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Indian wild ass (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Wild buffalo
24. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the ‘Club of Rome’.
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2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be 28. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol?
achieved by 2030. (a) It is an international accounting tool for
Which of the above statements is/are correct? government and business leaders to understand,
quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions.
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
financial incentives to developing countries to
reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt
25. What is/are the importance/importances of
eco-friendly technologies.
the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat
Desertification? (c) It is an inter-governments agreement ratified by
1. It aims to promote effective action through all the member countries of the United Nations
to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified
innovative national programmes and supportive
levels by the year 2022.
inter-national partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and (d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives
North Africa regions, and its secretariat facilitates hosted by the World Bank.
the allocation of major portion of financial
29. The term Intended Nationally Determined
resources to these regions.
Contribution is sometimes seen in the news in the
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, context of:
encouraging the participation of local people in
(a) Pledge made by the European countries to
combating the desertification.
rehabilitate refuges from the war-affected Middle
Select the correct answer using the code given below: East.
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only (b) Plan of nation outlined by the countries of the
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 world to combat climate changes.
(c) Capital contributed by the member countries
26. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure
Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following Investment Bank.
statements is/are correct?
(d) Plain of action outlined by the countries of the
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member regarding Sustainable Developments Goals.
countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse 30. Which of following statements is/are correct?
gas emissions so that the rise in average global Proper design and effective implementation of UN-
temperature by the end of this century does not REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to
exceed 2 degree Centigrade or even 5 degree 1. Protection of biodiversity
Centigrade above pre-industrial levels. 2. Resilience of forest ecosystems
3. Developed countries acknowledged their 3. Poverty reduction
historical responsibility in global warming and
Select the correct answer using the code given below
committed to donate dollar 1000 billion a year
from 2020 to help developing countries to cope (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
with climate change. (b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
31. With reference to an initiative called ‘The
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’,
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World
27. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in Economic Forum.
the news, consider the following statements:
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
development.
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the
Development held in Johannesburg in 2002 value of ecosystems and biodiversity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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32. Which of the following best describe the aim of 3. One of the Chief Ministers of the State through
‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India? which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of
1. Incorporating environment benefits and costs NGRBA on rotation basis.
into the Union and State Budgets thereby Select the correct answer using the code given below.
implementing the ‘green accounting’.
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Launching the second green revolution to
enhance agriculture output so as to ensure food (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
security to one and all in the future.
36. With reference to the International Union for
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and
Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
responding to climate change by a combination
(IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade
of adaptation and mitigation measures.
in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
Select the correct answer using the code given below (CITES), which of the following statements is/are
(a) 1 only (c) 3 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and
CITES is an international agreement between
33. Consider the following pairs: governments.
Terms sometimes Their origin 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the
world to better manage natural environments.
seen in the news
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have
1. Annex-I Countries Cartagena Protocol
joined it, but this Convention does not take the
2. Certified Emissions Nagoya Protocol place of national laws.
Reductions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. Clean Development Kyoto Protocol
Mechanism (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
37. Which one the following is associated with the
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone
depleting substances?
34. The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important
Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)’ to (a) Bretton Woods Conference
traditional agricultural systems. What is the (b) Montreal Protocol
overall goal of this initiative?
(c) Kyoto Protocol
1. To provide modern technology, training in
modern farming methods and financial support (d) Nagoya Protocol
to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to
greatly enhance their agricultural productivity. 38. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the
news?
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional
farm practices and their associated landscapes, (a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems Development.
of the local communities (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade
3. To provide Geographical Indication status to Organization.
all the varieties of agricultural produce in such
(c) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel
identified GIAHS
on Climate Change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only Convention on Biological Diversity.
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
39. Which of the statements regarding ‘Green Climate
35. Which of the following are the key features of Fund’ is/are correct?
‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)’? 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries
1. River basin is the unit of planning and in adaption and mitigation practices to counter
management. climate change.
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD,
the national level. Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
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Select the correct answer using the code given below: 44. The term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 the name of:
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) An indigenously developed radar system inducted
into Indian Defence
40. ‘Bio-Carbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest (b) India’s satellite to provide services to the countries
Landscapes’ is managed by the: of Indian Ocean Rim
(a) Asian Development Bank (c) A scientific establishment set up by India in
(b) International Monetary Fund Antarctic region
(c) United Nations Environment Programme (d) India’s underwater observatory to scientifically
(d) World Bank study the Arctic region
41. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership 45. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is
Facility’, which of the following statements is/are constituted under the:
correct? (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
1. It is a global partnership of governments,
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration
businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
and Protection) Act, 1999
2. It provides financial aid to universities,
individual scientists and institutions involved (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
in scientific forestry research to develop eco- (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
friendly and climate adaptation technologies for
sustainable forest management. 46. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society
3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing (BNHS), consider the following statements:
Emissions from Deforestation and Forest 1. It is an autonomous organization under the
Degradation)’ efforts by providing them with
Ministry of Environment and Forests.
financial and technical assistance.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
based research, education and public awareness.
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
42. With reference to an organization known as
‘Bird Life International’, which of the following (a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
statements is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation
Organizations. 47. Consider the following international agreements:
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic
from this organization. Resources for Food and Agriculture.
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat
‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
Desertification.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 3. The World Heritage Convention.
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above has/have a bearing on the
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 biodiversity?
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
43. Which one of the following best describes the main
objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’? (b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm
seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds 48. Consider the following statements:
from others 1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established
(b) Involving the farmers for training in quality under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
seed production and thereby to make available 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a
quality seeds to others at appropriate time and statutory body.
affordable cost 3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired
(c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the by the Prime Minister.
production of certified seeds
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
(d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages and
(a) 1 only (c) 2 only
providing them technology and finance to set up
seed companies (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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49. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, 53. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
which of the following statements is/are correct? Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention
process for determining the nature and extent of
on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations
individual or community forest rights or both?
Framework Convention on Climate Change’.
(a) State Forest Department
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental
issues at global level. (b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer (c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal
of technology and funds to underdeveloped Revenue Officer
countries with specific aim to protect their (d) Gram Sabha
environment.
(d) Both (a) and (b) 54. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
50. Consider the following statements regarding 1. NBA checks the bio piracy and protects the
‘Earth Hour’: indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO. 2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch scientific research on genetic modification of
off the lights for one hour on a certain day every crop plants.
year. 3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights
3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the related to genetic/biological resources cannot be
climate change and the need to save the planet. made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
51. If a wetland of international importance is brought 55. If national water mission is properly and
under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply? completely implemented how will it impact the
country?
(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred,
1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be
are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland
met through recycling of waste water.
as a result of human interference.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with
(b) The country in which the wetland is located
inadequate alternative sources of water will be
should enact a law to prohibit any human activity
met by adopting appropriate technologies that
within five kilo metres from the edge of the
allow for the use of ocean water.
wetland
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the to the rivers of peninsular India
cultural practices and traditions of certain
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging
communities living in its vicinity and therefore
bore wells and for installing motors and pump
the cultural diversity therein should not be
sets to draw groundwater will be completely
destroyed
reimbursed by the Government.
(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
52. With reference to conservation organization called (a) 1 only (c) 3 and 4 only
Wetlands International, which of the following (b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
statements is/are correct?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed 56. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes
by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar the following major categories of ecosystem
Convention. services-provisioning, supporting, regulating,
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize preserving and cultural. Which one of the following
knowledge, and use the practical experience to is supporting service?
advocate for better policies. (a) Production of food and water
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) Control of climate and disease
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Nutrient Cycling and crop pollinator
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Maintenance of diversity
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57. Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the 61. Sustainable development is described as the
following statements is not correct? development that meets the needs of the present
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in without compromising the ability of future
conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol generations to meet their own needs. In this
perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups
development is intertwined with which of the
that have reduced greenhouse gases below their
following concepts?
emission quota
(a) Social justice and empowerment
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the
increase of carbon dioxide emission (b) Inclusive Growth
(d) Carbon credits are- traded at a price fixed from (c) Globalization
time to time by the United Nations Environment
(d) Carrying capacity
Programme
62. “Momentum for change: climate neutral now” is an
58. The “Red Data Books” published by the
initiative launched by :
International Union for Conservation of Nature
and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of: (a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the (b) The UNEP Secretariat
biodiversity hotspots,
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
(d) The World Meteorological Organization
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and
natural resources in various countries.
63. If a particular plant species is placed under
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972,
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only what is the implication?
(b) 2 only (d) 3 only (a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any
59. With reference to India, consider the following circumstances.
Central Acts:
(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) (d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the
Act, 1957 ecosystem.
3. Customs Act, 1962
64. Consider the following statements:
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Statement 1:
Which of the above acts have relevance to/bearing on
the biodiversity conservation in the country? The United Nations Capital Development Fund
(UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) None of the above
Statement 2:
60. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year
declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the following its commitment to grow and maintain the
following statements best describes as to how we urban forests.
should maintain these sites in the context of this
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
Convention?
above statements?
(a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and
so that they will not be exploited
Statement 2 is the correct and Statement 2 is the
(b) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach correct explanation for Statement 1
and permit tourism and recreation only
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
(c) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for
approach for a period without any exploitation, Statement 1
with specific criteria and specific period for each
site, and then allow sustainable use of them by (c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not
future generations correct
(d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach (d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is
and allow their simultaneous sustainable use correct
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65. With reference to ‘Water Credit’, consider the 68. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the
following statements: emission reduction pledges of different countries
is a:
1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water
and sanitation sector. (a) Database created by coalition of research
organisations
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
of the World Health Organization and the World
Bank. (c) Committee under “United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change”
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations
water needs without depending on subsidies.
Environment Programme and World Bank
Which of the statements given above are correct?
69. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines,
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only consider the following statements:
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed
15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not
66. ‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available exceed 5 μg/m³.
for promoting the adoption of: 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution
occur during the periods of inclement weather.
(a) Environmentally responsible practices in
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter
electronics recycling industry
the bloodstream.
(b) Ecological management of ‘Wetlands of 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
International Importance’ under the Ramsar
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
agricultural crops in degrade lands
(b) 1 and 4 only
(d) ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
exploitation of natural resources
(d) 1 and 2 only
67. With reference to the New York declaration on
70. Which one of the following has been constituted
Forests, which of the following statements are under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
correct?
(a) Central Water Commission
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations
(b) Central Ground Water Board
Climate Summit in 2014.
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of
forests. (d) National Water Development Agency
3. It is a legally binding international declaration. 71. Which one of the following best describes the term
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies “greenwashing”?
and indigenous communities. (a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception. products are eco-friendly and environmentally
sound.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs
(a) 1,2 and 4 only in the Annual Financial Statements of a country.
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only (c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences
while undertaking infrastructure development.
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental
(d) 2 and 5 only costs in a government project/programme.
*******
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ANSWERS
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sunlight to synthesize nutrients from carbon Since the hawk occupies the highest position in the
dioxide and water. Photosynthesis in plants food chain (Food crop-Rat-Snake-Hawk) the highest
generally involves the green pigment chlorophyll concentration of the pesticide accumulates within
and generates oxygen as a by-product. the hawk.
Respiration is a process by virtue of which living
organisms involving the production of energy, 20. Exp: (d)
typically with the intake of oxygen and the release
of carbon dioxide from the oxidation of complex 21. Exp: (c)
organic substances. Phosphorus cycle
In the decomposition process, different products Much of the phosphorus on Earth is tied up in
released are carbon dioxide (CO2), energy, water, rock and sedimentary deposits, from which it is
plant nutrients and resynthesized organic released by weathering, leaching, and mining.
carbon compounds. This release process is called The phosphorus cycle is slow compared to other
mineralization. The waste products produced by biogeochemical cycles such as the water, carbon,
micro-organisms are also soil organic matter. and nitrogen cycles.
Volcanic activity ranges from emission of gases, In nature, phosphorus is found mostly in the
non-explosive lava emissions to extremely violent form of phosphate ions. Phosphate compounds
explosive bursts that may last many hours. are found in sedimentary rocks, and as the rocks
Volcanoes have occasionally contributed to global weather—wear down over long time periods—
warming by producing significant amounts of the phosphorus they contain slowly leaches into
carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases. surface water and soils. Volcanic ash, aerosols,
and mineral dust can also be significant phosphate
sources, though phosphorus has no real gas phase,
17. Exp. (b)
unlike other elements such as carbon, nitrogen,
Marine Upwelling Zones and sulfur.
These are regions experiencing ocean ographic 22. Exp: (c)
phenomenon of upwelling that involves wind-
driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually Detritivores
nutrient-rich water towards the ocean surface, Typical detritivorous animals include millipedes,
replacing the warmer, usually nutrient-depleted springtails, woodlice, dung flies, slugs, many
surface water. They are important as they increase terrestrial worms, sea stars, sea cucumbers,
the marine productivity. fiddler crabs, and some sedentary polychaetes
such as worms of the family Terebellidae.
The marine productivity is not impacted
by the presence or absence of decomposer Jellyfish feed on phytoplankton and zooplanktons.
microorganisms and the bottom-dwelling Seahorses are predators and are fed mostly on
organisms on the surface. crustacean prey; small caridean shrimps and
amphipods as adults (both species), and copepods
18. Exp. (d) and larval meroplankton as juveniles.
Mangroves 23. Exp: (d)
Mangroves are trees found in coastal areas near Symbiosis
the equator that can easily adapt to live in harsh
Symbiosis is a close ecological relationship between
conditions. They can survive in both saltwater
the individuals of two (or more) different species.
and fresh water conditions, unlike most other
species. The relationship between cnidarians and
dinoflagellate algae is termed as “symbiotic”.
These mangroves can serve as a reliable safety
Two common mutualistic relationships involving
hedge against coastal calamities as they do not
fungi are mycorrhiza and lichen.
get uprooted by storms and tides because of their
extensive root system thus providing a natural Symbiosis in protozoa mostly represents a close
line of defence against tsunamis. mutualistic association between a protozoan and
unicellular symbionts (bacteria, cyanobacteria
19. Exp. (d) or/and unicellular algae) or protozoans and
a multicellular organism (ruminants, lower
Biomagnification termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants).
Biomagnification refers to the tendency of
24. Exp. (b)
pollutants to concentrate as they move from one
trophic level to another. Thus in biomagnification Lakes of West Asia
there is an increase in the concentration of a One example of increasing aridity in Mali appears
pollutant from one link in a food chain to another. in Lake Faguibine. These false-color Landsat
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satellite images of the lake show how it changed The water cycle in wetlands involves surface
over the decades. runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
Lying at the end of a series of basins watered by Your kidneys remove wastes and extra fluid from
the Niger River when it floods, Lake Faguibine has your body. Your kidneys also remove acid that is
experienced widely fluctuating water levels since produced by the cells of your body and maintain
the turn of the twentieth century but, at its fullest, a healthy balance of water, salts, and minerals. In
the same manner As sediment, excess nutrients
has ranked among the largest lakes in West Africa.
and chemicals flow off of the land, wetlands
In 1974, this lake covered roughly 590 square filter the run off before it reaches open water.
kilometers (230 square miles). Starting in the late Nutrients are stored and absorbed by plants or
1980s, a drop in precipitation steadily dried the microorganisms. Sediment settles at the bottom
lake. By the late 1990s, the traditional livelihoods after reaching an area with slow water flow.
of fishing, agriculture, and livestock herding
became impractical. Even though normal rainfall 26. Exp. (c)
resumed after the year 2000, the lake remained Miyawaki technique
nearly dry. The method involves planting two to four trees
per square metre. Miyawaki forests grow in two
25. Exp. (d) to three years and are self-sustaining.
Wetlands
BIODIVERSITY
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which usually consist of few males, typically 1-3, Statement 3 is correct: teak, (genus
and many females. Tectonagrandis), large deciduous tree of the
Option 2 is correct: The Malabar civet family Verbenaceae, or its wood, one of the most
is considered nocturnal and so elusive that little valuable timbers. Teak has been widely used in
is known about its biology and ecology apart India for more than 2,000 years.
from habitat use.The Malabar Civet is a critically 7. Exp. (d)
endangered species found in the Western Ghats
National Park
of India. It is a solitary and secretive animal that
inhabits dense tropical forests and is known for Manas National Park: About Grasslands of Terai
its distinctive black or dark brown fur with large and Bhabar type cover the half of the Park, the
riparian areas have colonizing grasslands and
white spots. It has a long body, a pointed snout,
woodlands of several species. The thick woodlands
and a long tail. Being primarily nocturnal, the are called Eastern Moist Deciduous Forests of
Malabar Civet has adaptations such as excellent various types. The undergrowths are very thick.
night vision and acute senses that allow it to There are more than 650 species of Angiosperms
navigate and hunt in low-light conditions. It feeds alone. The commonly seen trees are the Simul,
on a variety of small mammals, birds, insects, Oxi, Sissoo, Khaie, Gamari, etc.
fruits, and other vegetation. Manas is the only landscape in the world where
Option 3 is correct: Sambar is nocturnal or pristine Terai Grasslands are seen merging with
crepuscular. During the day, Sambar Deer the Bhabar grasslands interspersed with diverse
typically seek shade and rest in dense vegetation habitats ascending to Semi-Evergreen forests and
or near water bodies to avoid the heat. As the then to Bhutan Himalayas. The Biodiversity is
evening approaches, they become more active very rich here. The last population of the Pygmy
and start foraging for food, such as grasses,
Hog survives in the wilds of Manas and nowhere
leaves, shoots, fruits, and other plant materials.
else in the world.
They may continue their activities into the night,
making them partially nocturnal. The Sambar Namdapha National Park: Namdapha National
Deer (Rusa unicolor) is a large deer species found Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern
Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in
in various parts of South and Southeast Asia,
Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. It is also
including India. While Sambar Deer are primarily
the third largest national park in India in terms
crepuscular, meaning they are most active during
of area. It is located in the Eastern Himalayan
dawn and dusk, their activity patterns can vary sub-region and is recognized as one of the richest
depending on factors such as habitat, climate, and areas in biodiversity in India. The park harbours
predation risk. the northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests
in the world at 27°N latitude. The area is also
5. Exp. (a)
known for extensive Dipterocarp forests.
Option a is correct: The Invasive Species Neora Valley National Park: Neora Valley
Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of National Park was established in the year of 1986.
scientific and policy experts on invasive species, This park falls in the catchment area of the Neora
organized under the auspices of the Species River. Neora Valley National Park is distinct for its
Survival Commission (SSC) of the International pristine scenic beauty and rich bio-diversity. Due
Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It to wide range of altitude variation, the climate
was developed between 1998 and 2000 as part condition of the park varies from tropical to
temperate or even Sub-alpine in Rachilla Danda
of the global initiative on invasive species led by
area. Its floral diversity is noteworthy with mixed
the erstwhile Global Invasive Species Programme species of rhododendrons, bamboo, sal etc. along
(GISP). with several species of orchids.
6. Exp. (b) Valley of flowers National park: Valley of Flowers
is a vibrant and splendid national park reposing
Statement 1 is incorrect: Jackfruit are in West Himalayas. Nestled in Uttarakhand, this
evergreen tree that are native to India and alluring place is famous for its charming meadows
Malaysia, that have spread to Sri Lanka, China, of alpine flowers. Endowed with a diverse range
South-east Asia and to tropical Africa. They are of endemic flora, it is picturesque in its beauty.
cultivated for the large fruits that can vary in This lush region is also home to some rare and
shape and size, and for timber. endangered animal species. You may spot animals
like Asiatic black deer, snow leopard, musk deer,
Statement 2 is correct: Mahua is a medium- red fox, brown bear and blue sheep. High in the
sized deciduous tree, which grows to a height of lofty Himalayas of the Garhwal region sprawls
16-20 m. this enchanting valley. Legends believe it to be
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the place from where Hanuman had collected the of calcium carbonate from living and dead corals.
Sanjeevani buti for curing Lakshmana. This place Many other invertebrates, vertebrates, and plants
has floral pastures, running streams and beautiful live in close association to the corals, with tight
backdrop of the mountains. resource coupling and recycling, allowing coral
8. Exp. (a) reefs to have extremely high productivity and
biodiversity, such that they are referred to as ‘the
Biodiversity of India Tropical Rainforests of the Oceans’. Coral reefs are
The Great one horned rhino is commonly found believed by many to have the highest biodiversity
in Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan and in Assam, India. It of any ecosystem on the planet—even more than
is confined to the tall grasslands and forests in the a tropical rainforest.
foothills of the Himalayas. Double humped camel Globally, three major regions of coral reef
also known as Bactrian camel is a native to the
development are generally recognized, each with
steppes of Central Asia, though it is also found in
a somewhat distinctive biota. These are:
Numbra valley in India. However Asiatic Lion is
naturally found in India only. The Indo Pacific includes most of the Indian
Ocean (excluding the Red Sea), and the western
9. Exp. (a) Pacific. As per United Nations Environment
Agasthyamala biosphere reserve Programme (UNEP) coral reefs in Indonesia
18%, Australia: 17% and Philippines: 9% so
ABR in situated at the southern-most end of the
collectively that’ll be more than 33%. Thus
Western Ghats and spread over two southern
Australia, Indonesia and Philippines cover
states Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It covers Peppara
one third area.
and Shendurney wildlife sanctuaries and parts of
the Neyyar sanctuary in Kerala and the Kalakad The Wider Caribbean (tropical western
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu. Thus Atlantic) includes Florida, The Bahamas,
option a is correct Caribbean Sea proper, and coastal waters off
northeastern S. America.
10. Exp. (d)
The Red Sea
Species Dinesity
Marine herbivores are found within four groups 13. Exp. (b)
of species in the animal kingdom -- invertebrates, Prosopis Juliflora
fish, reptiles and mammals -- and include
Prosopis juliflora (P juliflora), an exotic tree, is
zooplankton, mollusks, the green sea turtle, the
one of the top invaders in India. A native of South
marine iguana and some fish species. Manatees
and Central America, it was introduced in India to
and dugongs are the only herbivores among
meet the fuel wood requirement of the rural poor
marine mammals.
and to restore degraded lands. It tends to reduce
Viviparous: This is when there is no egg at the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
all. Snakes that are viviparous nourish their
developing young through a placenta and yolk 14. Exp. (a)
sac, something that is highly unusual among
Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary
reptiles. Boa constrictors and green anacondas
are two examples of viviparous snakes, meaning Option (a) is correct: Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary
they give birth to live young with no eggs involved (862 km2, 92°36’ – 93°09’E and 26°54 – 27°16’N)
lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in
at any stage of development.
the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh.
11. Exp. (c)
15. Exp. (b)
Wild/etc
Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
Irrawaddy Dolphin is found in coastal areas in
South and Southeast Asia, and Irrawaddy River, An environment ministry’s expert committee has
it is also found in India’s Ganges, and Southeast approved Kuno Palpur in Madhya Pradesh as the
Asia’s Mekong River. They are also found in Chilika second home for Asiatic lions found only in Gir
lake in Orissa. They are not found in Chambal. national park.
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It does not have any impact on fungal infection of The species is edible and very sweet. The fruit pulp
cultivated plants. is orange in colour, distinctive from the white and
The predators (some species of wasps, spiders and yellow colour of regular bananas.
birds) of butterflies are also affected since their Unlike the other banana species whose flowers
prey quantity diminishes. are conical, its flowers are cylindrical.
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The dolphins are an indicator species for the river obstruction of river water, accidental caught-
ecosystem and are considered the mascot of a up in fishnets, use of synthetic fertilizers and
healthy aquatic environment. other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the
vicinity of rivers and sand mining among others
24. Exp. (d) are mainly responsible for shrinking of habitat
Forests and decline of Ganga river dolphins.
The South Andaman forests have a profuse Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
growth of epiphytic vegetation, mostly ferns has no impact on the decline in population of the
and orchids. The Middle Andaman sharbors Ganges River dolphin.
mostly moist deciduous forests. North Andaman The mammal is listed in the schedule I of the Indian
is characterised by the wet evergreen type, with
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and categorized
plenty of woody climbers. Typical forest coverage
as “endangered” by the World Conservation
of Andaman & Nicobar is made-up of twelve types
Union and enjoys high level of legal protection,
namely:
nationally and internationally.
Giant evergreen forest
Andamans tropical evergreen forest 27. Exp. (b)
Southern hilltop tropical evergreen forest Painted Stork is a fish eating bird. They forage
Cane brakes in flocks in shallow waters along rivers or lakes.
They immerse their half open beaks in water and
Wet bamboo brakes
sweep them from side to side and snap up their
Andamans semi-evergreen forest prey of small fish that are sensed by touch. As they
Andamans moist deciduous forest wade along they also stir the water with their feet
to flush hiding fish. They nest colonially in trees,
Andamans secondary moist deciduous forest
often along with other water birds.
Littoral forest
The Common Myna is closely associated with
Mangrove forest human habitation and thus easily found in
Brackish water mixed forest country sides.It is an opportunistic feeder on
Submontane hill valley swamp forest. insects, disturbed by grazing cattle. They are
accomplished scavengers, feeding on almost
25. Exp. (d) anything, including insects, fruits and vegetables,
scraps, pets’ food and even fledgling sparrows.
National Park
As the world’s only alpine crane species, the black-
The climate of Khangchendzonga and Nandadevi
National Parks varies from temperate to arctic and necked crane is unique among the cranes in that it
that of Neora National Park is subtropical. Only resides almost exclusively at high altitudes on the
Namdapha National Park has a climate that Tibetan Plateau and in the Himalaya, where for
varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate centuries it has been protected by local religious
and arctic. It is tropical and subtropical in the beliefs that discourage killing. The black-necked
southern region while it is of arctic type in the crane is tolerant of humans and their livestock,
northern part of the park. wintering in farming communities where it
has grown dependent on grain stubble fields
26. Exp. (c) for its very survival. The continued existence of
Decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphin the black-necked crane in its present numbers
is directly dependent on human agricultural
Ganges River Dolphin was declared India’s
practices, and the fate of the crane is directly
National Aquatic Animal in 2009.
intertwined with that of humans.
As per World Wildlife Fund (WWF) the Ganges
River dolphin or Susu, lives in one of the most 28. Exp. (a)
densely populated regions of the world. It
inhabits the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Biosphere reserves
Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, Biosphere Reserve is an international designation
and Bangladesh. This vast area has been altered by UNESCO for representation parts of natural
by the construction of more than 50 dams and and cultural landscapes extending over large
other irrigation-related projects. One of the area of terrestrial or coastal/marine ecosystems
main threats to the species is loss of habitat or a combination thereof. They are special
due in large part to the creation of dams and environments for both people and the nature and
irrigation projects. are living examples of how human beings and
Activities like construction of dams and barrages, nature can co-exist while respecting each other’s
embankments etc besides unsustainable need.
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Human activity is totally prohibited in National reefs are atolls, the others are all fringing reefs.
Parks while it is partially allowed in wildlife Patchy coral is present in the inter-tidal areas of
sanctuaries. No person can enter or reside the central west coast of the country.
here except under and in accordance with the Availability of coral reefs in Sundarbans has not
conditions of a permit granted. been reported in India.
29. Exp. (b) 32. Exp. (b)
Lichens Mammals
A lichen looks like a single organism, but it is Mammals are a warm-blooded vertebrate animal
actually a symbiotic relationship between of a class that is distinguished by the possession
different organisms. It is composed of a
of hair or fur, females that secrete milk for the
fungal partner (mycobiont) and one or more
nourishment of the young, and (typically) the
photosynthetic partners (photobiont). The
birth of live young. E.g. Sea cow and sea lion.
photosynthetic partner is generally green algae or
cyanobacteria. Sea horses are classified as fishes, in the genus
Hippocampus. They are a type of small fish that has
The dominant partner is the fungus, which gives
plates armored throughout the body (no scales).
the lichen the majority of its characteristics, from
There are around 50 different species of seahorses
its thallus shape to its fruiting bodies. The alga
in the world.
can be either a green alga or a blue-green alga,
otherwise known as cyanobacteria. Many lichens
33. Exp. (a)
will have both types of algae.
Lion-tailed macaque
30. Exp. (d) The lion-tailed macaque or the wanderoo, is an
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESAs) Old World monkey endemic to the Western Ghats
of South India from the Kalakkadu Hills (8°25’N)
ESAs are defined as those areas that are
north to Anshi Ghat (14°55’N) (Fooden 1975), in
ecologically and economically important, but
the states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
vulnerable even to mild disturbances, and
Although some sightings of the macaque have
hence demand careful management. Therefore
been made in Andhra Pradesh, naturally, they
‘ecologically and economically important’
are not found in Andhra Pradesh.
areas are those areas that are biologically and
ecologically ‘rich’, ‘valuable’ and or ‘unique’, and
34. Exp. (a)
are largely irreplaceable if destroyed.
Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Animal Species
Act 1986 (EPA) gives power to the Central The Indian star tortoise (Geochelone elegans) is a
Government i.e. the Union Ministry of threatened species of tortoise found in dry areas
Environment and Forests to take all measures and scrub forest in India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
that it feels are necessary for protecting and The monitor lizards are large lizards in the genus
improving the quality of the environment and to Varanus. They are native to Africa, Asia and
prevent and control environmental pollution. To Oceania, but are now found also in the Americas
meet this objective, the Central Government can as an invasive species. A total of 79 species are
restrict areas in which any industries, operations currently recognized.
or processes or class of industries, operations
or processes shall not be carried out or shall be The pygmy hog (Porcula salvania) is a critically
carried out subject to certain safeguards. Thus endangered suid, previously spread across
the government came up with the concept of Eco Bhutan, India and Nepal, but now only found in
Sensitive Zones. India (Assam).
The purpose of declaring Eco-sensitive Zones Spider monkeys are New World monkeys
around National Parks and Sanctuaries is to create belonging to the genus Ateles, part of the subfamily
some kind of “Shock Absorber” for the Protected Atelinrae, family Atelidae. Like other atelines,
Areas. They would also act as a transition zone they are found in tropical forests of Central
from areas of high protection to areas involving and South America, from southern Mexico to
lesser protection. It does not imply prohibition of Brazil. The genus contains seven species, all of
all kinds of human activities. which are under threat; the black-headed spider
monkey and brown spider monkey are critically
31. Exp. (a) endangered.
Coral Reefs
35. Exp. (d)
The major reef formations in India are
Endangered Animals
restricted to the Gulf of Mannar, Palk bay, Gulf
of Kutch, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the The endangered species are the species which
Lakshadweep islands. While the Lakshadweep faces a high risk of extinction in the near future.
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The IUCN status for all the species mentioned from the Bay of Bengal. It is not a tiger reserve.
above as of 2013 was endangered. Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
However, the current status is as follows: is a national park, UNESCO Natural World
Gharial: Critically Endangered Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant
reserve and a biosphere reserve in Assam.
Leatherback turtle: Critically Endangered
Sunderbans national park is located at the South
Swamp deer: Vulnerable Eastern tip of the 24 Paraganas district in the
state of West Bengal. The Sundarbans are a part
36. Exp. (c)
of the world’s largest delta formed by the rivers
Sea buckthorn Ganges,Brahmaputra and Meghna. Sundarban
Sea buckthorn is a medicinal plant found in the is a vast area covering 4262 square kms in India
Himalayan region. The fruit grows in the cold alone, with a larger portion in Bangladesh. 2585
deserts of Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, sq. kms of the Indian Sundarban forms the largest
Lahul-Spiti in Himachal Pradesh and some Tiger Reserve and National Park in India.
parts of Arunachal Pradesh.They have health-
promoting properties and can play a crucial 39. Exp. (b)
role in preventing soil erosion and help nitrogen National parks
fixation in cold and desert areas.
Indian subcontinents are not only well known
It was studied as a good option for the manufacture for its Cultural diversity, but also have a diverse
of biodiesel, however as of now, it has not been range of flora and fauna. Human activities are
established that Seabuckthorn oil is a “Rich” source permitted in a wildlife sanctuary whereas
of Biodiesel. The major use of seabuckthorn oil is these are completely restricted in a national
in medicinal and food use. park. Hunting is prohibited without permission
Since it is a shrub, it cannot provide timber for in a sanctuary; however, grazing and movement
commercial value. of cattle is permitted. Therefore, India houses a
number of wildlife sanctuaries and national parks
37. Exp. (d) that help in preserving the wildlife in its natural
form. Hunting and grazing are totally prohibited
Genetically Engineered Plants
in a national park.
Genetically modified crops (GM crops or biotech
crops) are plants used in agriculture, the DNA of 40. Exp. (a)
which has been modified using genetic engineering
Endangered species
methods. In most cases, the aim is to introduce
a new trait to the plant which does not occur The IUCN status for all the species mentioned in
naturally in the species. It helps: Option (a) as of 2012 was endangered. However,
To enable them to withstand drought the current status is as follows:
To increase the nutritive value of the produce Great Indian bustard: Critically Endangered
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Tibetan Plateau and remote parts of India and 45. Exp. (d)
Bhutan. Pollinating Agents
The cheetah is a large cat that occurs in Bats feed on the insects in the flowers as well as
Southern, North and East Africa, and a few on the nectar and flower parts Over 300 species of
localities in Iran. The species is IUCN Red Listed fruit depend on bats for pollination. These fruits
as vulnerable, as it suffered a substantial decline include: mangoes.
in its historic range in the 20th century due to
habitat loss, poaching, illegal pet trade, and Insect pollinators include bees, (honey bees,
conflict with humans. solitary species, bumblebees); pollen wasps
(Masarinae); ants; flies including bee flies,
The Indian giant flying squirrel, also called the hoverflies and mosquitoes; lepidopterans, both
large brown flying squirrel or the common giant butterflies and moths; and flower beetles.
flying squirrel, is a species of rodent. It is capable
Ornithophily or bird pollination is the pollination
of gliding flight using a skin membrane stretched
of flowering plants by birds. This coevolutionary
between front and hind legs. Eleven species of
association is derived from insect pollination
flying squirrels are found in India and mainly
(entomophily) and is particularly well developed
concentrated in the Himalayan and Northeast in some parts of the world, especially in the
regions, while the Western Ghats remain tropics and on some island chains.
depauperate with only two species. The species
is native to China, India, Laos, Myanmar, Sri 46. Exp. (d)
Lanka, Taiwan, Thailand, and Vietnam. It inhabits
dry deciduous and evergreen forests, usually at Biodiversity
higher elevations from 500m-2000m, and has Biodiversity is the sum total of all life forms on
been recorded on plantations. the planet Earth. It forms the basis for human
The snow leopard or ounce is a large cat native existence in the following ways:
to the mountain ranges of Central and South Asia. Soil formation
In India, their geographical range encompasses a Prevention of soil erosion
large part of the western Himalayas including the
states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Recycling of waste
Uttarakhand and Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh Pollination of crops
in the eastern Himalayas.
47. Exp. (b)
43. Exp. (a) Indian Wild Ass
Phytoplankton The Indian Wild Ass, also called Ghor Khar or
Phytoplankton are microscopic marine algae. Ghud Khur is found predominantly in the Little
If phytoplankton of an ocean is completely Rann of Kutch and its surrounding areas in
destroyed: Gujarat. It is also found in southern Pakistan,
Afghanistan, and south-eastern Iran. Saline
As plankton die, they suck up less carbon dioxide,
deserts (Rann), arid grasslands and shrub lands
thus warming the earth further. Which causes
are its preferred environment. A sandy and saline
more plankton to die. Thus the ocean as a carbon
area is the natural habitat of an Indian wild ass.
sink would be adversely affected.
The IUCN Red List has moved the Indian wild ass
Phytoplankton is the base of several aquatic food
from the ‘vulnerable’ to ‘endangered’ category,
webs. In a balanced ecosystem, they provide
indicating the need for heightened protection
food for a wide range of sea creatures including
measures. The animal has no predators in that
whales, shrimp, snails, and jellyfish. Thus if
area but its existence is threatened due to the
phytoplanktons die the food chains in the ocean
destruction of its habitat.
would be adversely affected.
There is no impact on the density of the ocean 48. Exp. (c)
water due to the death of the phytoplanktons.
Biodiversity hotspots
44. Exp. (a) Criteria for the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri
Antelopes Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots are as
follows:
Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas
whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and Species richness and endemism: Contain
semi-desert areas of cold high mountains at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as
endemics (> 0.5 percent of the world’s total)
Oryx has horns and not antelers whereas Chiru is
poached for its underwool. Threat perception: Loss of at least 70 percent of
its original habitat.
The Chiru or Tibetan Antelope is an endangered
animal found in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Vegetation density, ethno-botanical importance
Kashmir India. and adaptation of flora and fauna to warm
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and humid conditions are not the criteria for 52. Exp. (c)
designation of hotspots. King Cobra
Indian cobras are oviparous and lay their eggs
49. Exp. (c)
between the months of April and July. The female
Biodiversity snake usually lies between 10 and 30 eggs in rat
Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower holes or termite mounds and the eggs hatch 48 to
69 days later. The hatchlings measure between 20
latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes
and 30 centimetres (8 and 12 in) in length.
and along the mountain gradients, biodiversity
is normally greater in the lower altitudes as The highly venomous king cobra builds a nest for
her eggs, and even stays with the hatchlings for a
compared to the higher altitudes owing to higher
while after they have hatched. Conclusion: Most of
temperature and humid conditions which are
the world’s snake species (about 70%) reproduce
conducive for species survival. by laying eggs. But vipers, rattlesnakes, boas, and
most of the sea snakes give birth to live young.
50. Exp. (b)
Insectivorous 53. Exp. (d)
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Various agents, like wind, water, deforestation, Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical
overgrazing by cattle, etc., cause soil erosion. The industry especially in Ayurvedic medicine system.
various factors of soil erosion are:
19. Exp. (d)
Terrace cultivation: helps in conservation of
soil and water. Maize
Deforestation: Humans have taken land from Maize can be used for the production of starch.
the forest to cultivate in order to feed the ever- The starch is obtained from the endosperm of the
increasing population and to build houses, kernel.
industries, etc. Cutting down of trees on a Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for
large scale for these purposes is deforestation. biodiesel. Biofuels can be produced from many
The roots of trees hold the soil together, thus plants, including maize.
preventing the soil from getting uprooted. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using
When large areas of the forest are cleared, the maize. Eg: Corn beer, beer made from corn
topsoil gets eroded by wind and flowing water. (maize), is a traditional beverage in various
Tropical climate: Soil erosion due to intense cuisines.
rainfall in the tropics is a prominent factor.
However, in the current scheme of question, 20. Exp. (b)
since there is no option for 2 and 3 only to be Cluster bean (Guar)
correct together, the appropriate answer will
be option (b)- 2 only. The gum made from its seeds is used in the
extraction of shale gas. Guar grows well in
17. Exp. (d) semiarid areas, but frequent rainfall is necessary.
This legume is a valuable plant in a crop rotation
Coalbed methane and Shale gas cycle, as it lives in symbiosis with nitrogen-fixing
Coalbed methane is a form of natural gas extracted bacteria. Agriculturists in semi-arid regions of
from coal seams while Shale gas contains methane Rajasthan follow crop-rotation and use guar to
along with propane and butane that can be replenish the soil with essential fertilizers and
extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. nitrogen fixation, before the next crop.
The Gondwana sediments of eastern India host
21. Exp. (b)
the bulk of India’s coal reserves and all the current
CBM producing blocks. The vast majority of the Biofertilisers
best prospective areas for CBM development There has been found no reference of Agaricus as
are in eastern India, situated in Damodar Koel a biofertilizer.
valley and Son valley. Also India has identified six
basins as areas for shale gas exploration: Cambay Bio-fertilizers are defined as preparations
(Gujarat), Assam-Arakan (North East), Gondwana containing living cells or latent cells of efficient
(Central India), Krishna Godavari onshore (East strains of microorganisms that help crop plants’
Coast), Cauvery onshore, and Indo-Gangetic in uptake of nutrients by their interactions in the
basins. rhizosphere when applied through seed or soil.
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E.g.: Nostoc is a species of blue-green algae used consisting of carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide,
as biofertilizer to fix atmospheric nitrogen and is hydrogen, methane, water, nitrogen, along
used as inoculations for paddy crop grown both with contaminants like small char particles,
under upland and low-land conditions. ash and tars.
Although, the algae grow on their own in the rice Syngas, or synthesis gas, is a fuel gas mixture
fields, but all of them are not beneficial to crop. consisting primarily of hydrogen, carbon
The green algae like Spirogyra compete with the monoxide, and very often some carbon dioxide.
crop for nutrient and reduce tilering in the crop. The name comes from its use as intermediates
in creating synthetic natural gas (SNG) and for
22. Exp. (b) producing ammonia or methanol. Syngas is
Carbon sequestration usually a product of gasification and the main
application is electricity generation. Syngas is
Carbon sequestration is the process involved
combustible and often used as a fuel of internal
in carbon capture and the long-term storage
combustion engines. It has less than half the
of atmospheric carbon dioxide and may refer
energy density of natural gas.
specifically to the process of removing carbon
from the atmosphere and depositing it in
25. Exp. (b)
a reservoir. Some proven sustainable land
management practices for marginal, sloping, and Ethanol
hilly land where the soil productivity is very low Ethanol is a renewable fuel made from various
are Contour bunding, Relay cropping and Zero plant materials collectively known as “biomass.”
tillage.
Energy crops that can be cultivated for ethanol is
23. Exp. (d) maize. It can be produced by ethanol fermentation
and distillation. Maize ethanol results in lower
Bio-pesticides greenhouse gas emissions than gasoline and is
Biopesticides are certain types of pesticides derived fully biodegradable.
from such natural materials as animals, plants,
bacteria, and certain minerals. Plant-incorporated- 26. Exp. (c)
protectants or biopesticides also derive from Blue-green algae
genetic material that has been incorporated into
plants. Such plants manufacture the biopesticide Blue–green algae or cyanobacteria occur in an
for protection from specific pests. enormous diversity of habitats, freshwater and
marine, as plankton (free floating), mats and
Bacterial biopesticides must infect insects or their periphyton. They have the mechanism to convert
larvae to kill them. They are usually ingested and atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop
then parasitize their host. Bacillus thuringiensis,
plants can absorb readily.
or Bt, is one of the most widely used bacterial
biopesticides. The bacterium kills insect larva by 27. Exp. (c)
producing a toxin that binds to the larval stomach
cells. Pongamia pinnata
Fungal biopesticides don’t have to be ingested to Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of
inhibit or kill their target pests–physical contact the arid regions of India. It is often used for
is sufficient. Fungal biopesticides usually consist landscaping purposes as a windbreak or for
of fungal spores and are easy to apply with spray shade due to the large canopy and showy fragrant
equipment. flowers.
The oil and residue of the plant are toxic and
24. Exp. (a) induce nausea and vomiting if ingested, the fruits
Biomass gasification and sprouts, along with the seeds, are used in
many traditional remedies. Juices from the plant,
Biomass gasification is a process of converting
as well as the oil, are antiseptic and resistant to
solid biomass fuel into a gaseous combustible
pests. In addition M. pinnata has the rare property
gas (called producer gas) through a sequence of
of producing seeds of 25–40% lipid content of
thermo-chemical reactions.
which nearly half is oleic acid.Oil made from the
Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk seeds, known as pongamia oil, is an important
can be used in biomass gasification. asset of this tree and has been used as lamp oil,
Biomass gasification involves burning of biomass in soap making, and as a lubricant for thousands
in a limited supply of air to give a combustible gas of years.
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ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION
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have invested in the power industry and run coal- to the increased temperature and combustion
fired thermal power facilities. duration that accompanies the hydrogen addition,
an increase in NOx emissions is observed.
7. Exp. (d)
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is methane (CH4)
Nitrous oxide is emitted into the atmosphere stored at high pressure. CNG as a fuel can be
as a result of biomass burning, and biological used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and propane
processes in soils. Biomass burning is not only (C3H8) / LPG and its combustion produces fewer
an instantaneous source of nitrous oxide, but undesirable gases then the other mentioned fuels.
it results in a longer term enhancement of the Combustion is a high temperature exothermic
chemical reaction between a fuel and an oxidant
biogenic production of this gas.
that produces oxidized products. When 18-20% of
The current belief is that 90% of the emissions hydrogen as fuel is mixed into the CNG it becomes
come from soils. Nitrous oxide is formed in pollution free as it reduces the emission of carbon-
soils during the microbiological processes monoxide up to 20%.
nitrification and denitrification. Because nitrous Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural
oxide is a gas it can escape from soil during Gas. Therefore, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG.
these transformations. Nitrous oxide production Current price of HCNG is higher than CNG and will
is controlled by temperature, pH, water holding cost 72 paisa per kilometer more if implemented
capacity of the soil, irrigation practices, in DTC buses.
fertilizer rate, tillage practice, soil type, oxygen
concentration, availability of carbon, vegetation, 9. Exp. (d)
land use practices and use of chemicals. Nitrous Methane Hydrate
oxide emissions from agricultural soils are
Scientists concerned that global warming may
increased by the addition of fertilizer.
release huge stores of methane from reservoirs
Cattle release both ammonia and methane into the beneath Arctic tundra and deposits of marine
atmosphere. Ruminant animals do not efficiently hydrates -- a theory known as the “clathrate gun”
utilize dietary nitrogen. Excess nitrogen fed in the
hypothesis -- have turned to geologic history to
form of feed proteins is excreted in manure (urine
search for evidence of significant methane release
+ feces). Dairy cows on average secrete in milk 25
to 35 percent of the nitrogen they consume and during past warming events.
almost all the remaining nitrogen is excreted in Vast amounts of methane hydrate are buried in
urine and feces with about half of the nitrogen sediments on the continental shelves and slopes.
excreted in urine. Four different kinds of geological settings have the
Nitrogen emissions in chicken production occur in temperature and pressure conditions suitable for
several forms but mainly ammonia can contribute the formation and stability of methane hydrates:
directly or indirectly to several environmental
Sediment and sedimentary rock units below
and public health hazards. Chicken production
also contributes to some extent to climate change Arctic permafrost
through the emissions of nitrous oxide, fine Sedimentary deposits along continental
particulate matters, and methane. margins
Deep-water sediments of inland lakes and seas,
8. Exp. (b)
and
H-CNG reduces the emission of Carbon Monoxide
Under the Antarctic ice.
up to 70% but does not eliminate it.
H-CNG as a fuel reduces the emission of carbon- Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide
di-oxide and hydrocarbon as compared to other after a decade or two.
fuels. Compared with natural gas, HCNG has
10. Exp. (d)
many advantages when it comes to performance.
Research has shown that the brake effective From- Review Paper Emissions from Crop/Biomass
thermal efficiency increases with an increased Residue Burning Risk to Atmospheric Quality:
percentage of hydrogen. Another effect of the it may be safely concluded that crop residue/
addition of hydrogen is that the brake specific biomass residue burning not only emits poisonous
fuel consumption is reduced, the cycle by cycle gases such as SO2, CH4, CO2, CO, N2O, NOx, NO, NO2,
variations are also reduced, and the thermal
OC, BC, TC, NMHCs, SVOCs, VOCs, O3 etc; but also
efficiency is increased.
influences the quality of environment at large.
Emissions can also be improved with the addition
of hydrogen. Compared to pure natural gas, HCNG
11. Exp. (a)
reduces the HC emissions, which is in part due to
the increased combustion stability that comes In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl
with the addition of hydrogen. However, due parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed
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with apprehension. These chemicals are used as The higher the BOD value, the greater the amount
Pesticides in Agriculture. of organic matter or “food” available for oxygen
consuming bacteria.
12. Exp. (a)
Microbeads are itty-bitty plastic orbs that can 15. Exp. (d)
be found in exfoliating facial scrubs, cosmetics, Lead is a natural by-product occurring in
shower gels and toothpaste, among other products. cosmetics and food because it is absorbed from
They are part of a larger class of microplastics, or the earth and pollution into the raw materials
pieces of plastic less than five millimeters, or 0.2 used by both industries.
inch, long.
Brominated vegetable oils are not used in soft
Microbeads that wash down drains cannot be drink manufacturing.
filtered out by many wastewater treatment
plants, meaning that tiny plastics slip easily into Monosodium glutamate. Monosodium glutamate
waterways. Fish and other marine animals often (MSG) is a flavour enhancer commonly added
eat them, introducing potentially toxic substances to Chinese food, canned vegetables, soups
into the food chain. Thus they are harmful to and processed meats. The Food and Drug
marine ecosystem. Administration (FDA) has classified MSG as a food
ingredient that’s “generally recognized as safe,”
13. Exp. (c) but its use remains controversial.
Sand Mining and impact on environment
16. Exp. (b)
Sand Mining is an activity referring to the process
of the actual removal of sand from the foreshore Air Quality Index
including rivers, streams and lakes. Sand is mined The Air quality index in India was developed
from beaches and inland dunes and dredged from by the IIT Kanpur. The Index considers eight
ocean beds and river beds. pollutants —
Excessive in stream sand and gravel mining PM10 (particulate matter 10),
causes the degradation of rivers. In stream mining
PM5(particulate matter 5),
lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to
bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed NO2 (Nitrogen dioxide),
and along coastal areas causes the deepening SO2 (Sulphur dioxide),
of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of
CO (Carbon monoxide),
river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also lead
to saline water intrusion from the nearby sea. O3 (Ozone),
The effect of mining is compounded by the effect NH3 (Ammonia) and
of sea level rise. Any volume of sand exported
from streambeds and coastal areas is a loss to the Pb (Lead).
system. It is also a threat to bridges, river banks Carbon dioxide and Methane are not part of Air
and nearby structures. Sand mining also affects Quality Index.
the adjoining groundwater system and the uses of
the local people that they make of the river. 17. Exp. (a)
Sand mining transforms the riverbeds into large Fly ash
and deep pits; as a result, the groundwater table
Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks
drops and becomes polluted leaving the drinking
for building construction. Fly ash brick (FAB) is
water wells on the embankments of these rivers
a building material, specifically masonry units,
dry. Bed degradation from in stream mining
lowers the elevation of stream flow and the flood containing class C or class F fly ash and water.
plain water table which in turn can eliminate Owing to the high concentration of calcium oxide
water table dependent woody vegetation in in class C fly ash, the brick is described as “self-
riparian areas, and decrease wetted periods in cementing”.
riparian wetlands. For locations close to the sea, Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of
saline water may intrude into the fresh water the Portland cement contents of concrete, owing
body. to its pozzolanic properties. Fly Ash has very small
particles which makes the concrete highly dense
14. Exp. (c) and reduces the permeability of concrete. It can
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) add greater strength to the building. The concrete
mixture generates a very low heat of hydration
Biochemical Oxygen Demand is an important
which prevents thermal cracking.
water quality parameter which provides an
index to assess the effect discharged wastewater Fly ash may contain (apart from silicon dioxide
will have on the receiving environment (aquatic and calcium oxide) some toxic elements such as
ecosystems). arsenic, load, mercury etc.
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Trace elements like Mercury, Cadmium and Lead added up in volume, the threat to the environment
which are also health hazards. is significant. Besides adding harmful elements to
the environment, improper disposal of e-waste is
25. Exp. (b) a recycling opportunity lost. Almost all electronic
waste contains some form of recyclable material,
Lead Poisoning
including plastic, glass and metals.
Lead is a highly toxic metal and a very strong
Heptachlor is a synthetic chemical that was used
poison. in the past for killing insects in homes, buildings,
Lead is found in lead-based paints, including and on food crops.
paint on the walls of old houses and toys. It is also Plutonium is a radioactive waste.
found in:
art supplies 29. Exp. (d)
contaminated dust Algal blooms
gasoline products sold outside of the United There are two major causes of algal blooms,
States and Canada these are high temperatures (attributed to Global
Warming) and nutrients runoff. Blooming algae
Smelting units are a result of excess of nutrients, predominantly
Pens pencils: lead pencils are graphite pencils. phosphorus and nitrogen, in the waters. This
Though inks of some pens cause lead pollution. includes Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries,
But it does not really pose a health hazard. run-off from the land during the monsoon and
upwelling in the seas.
Hair oils and cosmetics: In cosmetics, there
have been some concerns about lead acetate 30. Exp. (c)
in Lipsticks in US. However there are varied
Carbon dioxide in lower atmosphere
options of the trace amount causing health
hazards. Human activities in the recent past have caused
the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in
26. Exp. (c) the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in
the lower atmosphere because:
Chlorofluorocarbons
The photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are nontoxic, oceans: involves use of carbon dioxide and
nonflammable chemicals containing atoms of release of oxygen.
carbon, chlorine, and fluorine. They are used Unlike carbon dioxide and other gases, calcium
in the manufacture of aerosol sprays, blowing carbonate is not able to move freely and so
agents for foams, packing materials, as solvents, remains in the sea ice and polar ice caps.
as refrigerants, degreasing agents and cleaning During the warmer summer, when the sea ice
agents for electronic components. melts, the calcium carbonate reacts with CO2
from the atmosphere and is dissolved. So in
27. Exp. (d) this way, CO2 is removed from the atmosphere
Carbon dioxide
31. Exp. (a)
The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in
Oil zapper
the air is slowly raising the temperature of the
atmosphere, because it absorbs the infrared part It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation
of the solar radiation of oily sludge and oil spills using bacteria.
Among GHGs, only water vapor has the ability to There are five different bacterial strains that are
absorb both incoming (UV) and outgoing (infrared) immobilized and mixed with a carrier material
such as powdered corncob. This mixture of five
radiation.
bacteria is called Oil Zapper. Oilzapper feeds on
hydrocarbon compounds present in crude oil and
28. Exp. (b)
the hazardous hydrocarbon waste generated by
E-wastes oil refineries, known as Oil Sludge and converts
Electronic waste, or e-waste, is a term for them into harmless CO2 and water.
electronic products that have become unwanted,
non-working or obsolete, and have essentially 32. Exp. (d)
reached the end of their useful life. Acid rain
Most electronics that are improperly thrown away All the statements are correct: The acid rain
contain some form of harmful materials such as is a result of reactions of Oxides of Hydrogen,
beryllium, cadmium, chromium, mercury and lead. Nitrogen and Sulphur. Some of the air pollutants
These materials might be trace elements, but when (especially nitrogen oxides and sulphur dioxide)
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react with the tiny droplets of water in clouds to in the country is generally 25 to 45 % whereas
form sulphuric and nitric acids. The rain from average ash content of imported coal varies from
these clouds then falls as very weak acid - which 10 to 20 %. Indian Coal has comparatively higher
is why it is known as “acid rain”. ash content than imported coal due to drift theory
of formation of coal deposits in India.
33. Exp. (b)
Carbon monoxide (CO) as pollutant 38. Exp. (a)
Option A is correct: The “social cost of carbon”
Excessive release of the pollutant carbon
(SCC) is the present value of the future damages
monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a
from one additional unit of carbon emissions
condition in which oxygen supply in the human
in a particular year. The Social Cost of Carbon
body decrease. This is because the inhaled CO
is usually estimated as the net present value of
has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as
climate change impacts over the next 100 years (or
compared to oxygen. It displaces oxygen and
longer) of one additional tonne of carbon emitted
quickly binds, so very little oxygen is transported
to the atmosphere today. It is the marginal global
through the body cells.
damage costs of carbon emissions.
34. Exp. (c) The model includes the essential ingredients
for calculating the SCC at the global scale, and
Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
is designed to be transparent and easy to use by
The energy is created in the fuel cell by reacting decision-makers and non-specialists.
the hydrogen in the tanks with oxygen from
the air over what is called a “proton exchange 39. Exp: (d)
membrane” and the end result is electricity and
Magnetite Pollution
water. No other toxic gas is produced.
Magnetite can have potentially large impacts on
35. Exp. (d) the brain due to its unique combination of redox
Exposure can occur occupationally and activity, surface charge, and strongly magnetic
domestically as a result of the ubiquitous use behavior.
of benzene-containing petroleum products,
Magnetite, a mixed Fe2+/Fe3+ oxide, is ubiquitous
including motor fuels and solvents. Active and
and abundant in PM in urban environments and
passive exposure to tobacco smoke is also a
significant source of exposure. might play a specific role in both neurodegeneration
and cardiovascular disease.
Some industries use benzene to make other
chemicals that are used to make plastics, resins, The specific presence of magnetite in the brain is
and nylon and synthetic fibers. Benzene is also important because it has been causally linked with
used to make some types of lubricants, rubbers, potential cellular responses to external magnetic
dyes, detergents, drugs, and pesticides. fields (e.g., in magnetic resonance imaging
Human exposure to benzene has been associated studies), aging, and with neurodegenerative
with a range of acute and long-term adverse disease.
health effects and diseases, including cancer and Sources of the magnetite nanoparticles:
aplastic anaemia.
Biogenic, chemically pure magnetite crystals
Benzene is highly volatile, and exposure occurs
occur in the bodies of a wide range of organisms
mostly through inhalation.1–3 Public health
actions are needed to reduce the exposure of both within the kingdoms of the Monera, Protista, and
workers and the general population to benzene. Animalia (e.g., magnetotactic microbes, insects,
molluscs, fish, birds, mammals). In the human
36. Exp. (a) brain, magnetite is also believed to precipitate
biologically as part of the iron metabolism.
37. Exp. (d)
Anthropogenically, Magnetite is an abundant
Statement 1 is correct: Constituents that are found constituent of atmospheric PM pollution,
at various concentrations in coal ash are arsenic, especially in the urban environment, where
cadmium, chromium, cobalt, copper, lead, lithium, it has been identified in petrol and diesel
mercury, molybdenum, selenium, thallium and exhaust, as brake-abrasion particles, in the air
uranium. of underground stations, along railway lines, at
Statement 2 is correct: Coal fired power plants lead welding workplaces, and in the emissions from
to significant emissions of particulate matter (PM), industrial combustion processes. Other sources
sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, of Magnetite pollution include microwave Stoves
volatile organic compounds, and carbon dioxide. within homes, Iron and Steel Plants, Power plants
Statement 3 is correct: Ash content of coal produced and Telephone lines.
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CLIMATE CHANGE
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Hydrology. Thus, not every wetland becomes a Section 2(i) of the the scheduled Tribes and other
Ramsar site but only those which have significant Traditional forest dweller Act defines a Minor
values related to these fields. Forest Produce (MFP) as all non-timber forest
The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) produce of plant origin and includes bamboo,
Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey,
catchment regions of the wetlands as determined waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants
by the authority. and herbs, roots, tuber and the like.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
4. Exp. (d)
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006,
Cirrus clouds do not reflect a lot of solar radiation popularly known as the Forests Rights Act (FRA),
back into space, but because they form at high was enacted in 2007. The Act recognizes and vests
altitudes and cold temperatures, they trap long- individual forest-dwellers with forest rights to
wave radiation and have a climate impact similar live in and cultivate forest land that was occupied
to greenhouse gases. Thus Thinning cirrus clouds before 13 December 2005 and grants community
would reduce the absorption of infrared radiation forest rights to manage, protect and regenerate
and proposed form of climate engineering to the forest under section 3(1)(i), and to own and
reduce global warming. dispose minor forest products from forests where
Another proposed Geo-engineering technique they had traditional access. Section 3(1)(c) of the
involves injecting reflective sulfate aerosol Forest Rights Act 2006 defines forest rights as
particles into Earth’s lower stratosphere to cast inclusive of ‘Right of ownership, access to collect,
a small proportion of the inbound sunlight back use and dispose of minor forest produce which
into space and cool the planet off. Thus both are have traditionally been collected within or outside
climate engineering/ Geo-engineering techniques village boundaries’. Individuals, communities and
to reduce global warming. gram sabhas having rights under this particular
section of the Act will not only have the rights to
5. Exp. (a)
use but also rights of ownership over MFPs. This
The Bill establishes the National Compensatory goes beyond the Provisions of the Panchayats
Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of (Extension To The Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation (PESA Act) which had authorised states to entrust
Fund under the Public Account of each state. panchayats and gramasabhas as the owners of
These Funds will receive payments for: (i) MFP.
compensatory afforestation, (ii) net present value
7. Exp. (b)
of forest (NPV), and (iii) other project specific
payments. The National Fund will receive 10% of Environment Protection Act, 1986: The Act
these funds, and the State Funds will receive the empowers the Central Government to take all
remaining 90%. appropriate measures to prevent and control
These Funds will be primarily spent on pollution and to establish effective machinery
afforestation to compensate for loss of forest for the purpose of protecting and improving
cover, regeneration of forest ecosystem, wildlife the quality of the environment and preventing,
protection and infrastructure development. abating and controlling environmental pollution.
The Bill also establishes the National and State The Act empowers the center to “take all such
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management measures as it deems necessary”.
and Planning Authorities to manage the National By virtue of this Act, Central Government has
and State Funds. armed itself with considerable powers which
include,
People’s participation is not mandatory in
compensatory in the compensatory afforestation coordination of action by state,
programmes carried out under the compensatory planning and execution of nationwide
fund act, 2016. programmes,
6. Exp. (b) laying down environmental quality standards,
especially those governing emission or
Parliament passed an amendment to the Indian discharge of environmental pollutants,
Forest Act, 1927 removing ‘bamboo’ plant growing
placing restriction on the location of industries
on non-forest lands from the definition of ‘tree’.
and so on.
The government claimed this would benefit
tribals and other dwellers living around forests. authority to issue direct orders, included orders
The amendment converted into law what had to close, prohibit or regulate any industry.
been passed as an ordinance before that. As they power of entry for examination, testing of
enjoy right to fell bamboos in forest areas. equipment and other purposes and power to
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analyze the sample of air, water, soil or any implementing inclusive green economy (IGE)
other substance from any place. policies and strategies.
The Act explicitly prohibits discharges of PAGE deploys the expertise and broad convening
environmental pollutants in excess of prescribed power of five UN agencies – International Labour
regulatory standards. Organization (ILO), United Nations Environment
There is also a specific prohibition against handling Programme (UNEP), United Nations Industrial
hazardous substances except those in compliance Development Organization (UNIDO), United
with regulatory procedures and standards. Nations Institute for Training and Research
(UNITAR) and United Nations Development
The Act provides provision for penalties. For each Programme (UNDP) – whose mandates, expertise
failure or contravention the punishment included and networks combined can offer integrated and
a prison term up to five years or fine up to Rs. 1 holistic support to countries on greener and more
lakh, or both. inclusive growth trajectories, ensuring coherence
The Act imposed an additional fine of up to Rs. and avoiding duplication.
5,000 for every day of continuing violation.
10. Exp. (a)
If a failure or contravention occurs for more
than one year, offender may be punished with The Critical Wildlife Habitats have been envisaged
imprisonment which may be extended to seven in Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
years. Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
Section 19 provides that any person, in addition Baigas are considered as a particularly vulnerable
to authorized government officials, may file a tribal group (PVTG) in the Indian Constitution and
complaint with a court alleging an offence under rely mostly on shifting cultivation, forest produce
the Act. and fishing for sustenance, spread over forested
areas of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. In
This “Citizens’ Suit” provision requires that the
2016, they became India’s first community to get
person has to give notice of not less than 60 days
habitat rights.
of the alleged offence of pollution to the Central
Government. Grampanchayats officially decides and declares
Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal
8. Exp. (c) Groups in any part of India.
E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 11. Exp. (d)
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Plant diseases
Change had notified the E-Waste Management
Rules, 2016 in supersession of the e-waste Most disease-causing viruses are carried and
(Management & Handling) Rules, 2011. transmitted naturally by insects and mites, which
are called vectors of the virus.
Announcing the notification of the rules, Minister
of State (Independent Charge) of Environment, Slugs, snails, birds, rabbits, and dogs also transmit
Forest and Climate Change, Shri Prakash a few viruses, but this is not common. Birds
Javadekar, said that norms had been made moving through crops can carry pathogens from
more stringent and reflected the government’s the infected plant to other plans. Woodpeckers
commitment to environmental governance. carry spores of tree pathogens.
He pointed out that the E-waste rules will now 12. Exp. (b)
include Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and
other mercury containing lamps, as well as other Organic Farming
such equipment. Ministry of Commerce has implemented the
The Minister said that for the first time, the Rules National Programme for Organic Production
will bring the producers under Extended Producer (NPOP) .
Responsibility (EPR), along with targets. He added Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state
that producers have been made responsible for by implementing organic practices on around
collection of E-waste and for its exchange. 75,000 hectares of agricultural land.
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(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Schedule VI contains the plants, which are
CPCB is also entrusted with the powers and prohibited from cultivation and planting.
functions under the Air (Prevention and Control
of Pollution) Act. 17. Exp. (a)
The NGT provides environmental justice and Global Climate Change Alliance
helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is
courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness an initiative of the European Union. Its overall
of streams and wells, and aims to improve the objective is to build a new alliance on climate
quality of air in the country. change between the European Union and the poor
developing countries that are most affected and
14. Exp. (a) that have the least capacity to deal with climate
Carbon fertilization change.
The CO2 fertilization effect or carbon fertilization The GCCA+ aim is to boost the efficiency of its
effect suggests that the increase of carbon response to the needs of vulnerable countries
dioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of and groups. Using ambitious and innovative
photosynthesis and eventually plant growth in approaches, it will achieve its goals by building
plants. The effect varies depending on the plant on its two mutually reinforcing pillars:
species, the temperature, and the availability of Under the first pillar, the GCCA+ serves as
water and nutrients. a platform for dialogue and exchange of
experience between the EU and developing
15. Exp. (b) countries, focusing on climate policy and
The Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture bringing renewed attention to the issue of
(GACSA) international climate finance. The results feed
into negotiations for a new climate deal under
The Global Alliance for ClimateSmart Agriculture the United Nations Framework Convention on
(GACSA), was launched on 23 September 2014 at Climate Change (UNFCCC).
the UN Climate Summit.
Under the second pillar, the GCCA+ acts as
GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action- a source of technical and financial support
oriented multi-stakeholder platform alliance of for the world’s most climate-vulnerable
partners with no binding obligations on Climate- countries, whose populations need climate
Smart Agriculture (CSA). finance the most. Extra efforts will be made to
GACSA works towards three aspirational strengthen the strategically important issues of
outcomes to: ecosystems-based adaptation, migration and
gender equality.
Improve farmers’ agricultural productivity
and incomes in a sustainable way; GCCA is a EU initiative and funded and
administered by European Union and European
Build farmers’ resilience to extreme weather commission.
and changing climate;
Reduce greenhouse gas emissions associated 18. Exp. (d)
with agriculture, when possible. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
India has not been instrumental in the creation Animals listed in schedule 1 and part II of schedule
of GACSA. 2 have absolute protection-offences under these
are prescribed the highest penalties.
16. Exp. (a)
Gharialis given legal protection under the
Schedule I Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Schedule 1 (Part II Amphibians and Reptiles) of
There are six schedules which give varying Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
degrees of protection. Indian Wild Ass is given legal protection under
Out of the six schedules,Schedule I and part II the Schedule 1 (Part I Mammals) of Wildlife
of Schedule II provide absolute protection and (Protection) Act, 1972
offences under these are prescribed the highest Wild Buffalo is given legal protection under
penalties. A species of tortoise declared protected the Schedule 1 (Part I Mammals) of Wildlife
under Schedule I enjoys the same level of (Protection) Act, 1972
protection as the tiger.
The penalties for Schedule III and Schedule IV are 19. Exp. (b)
less and these animals are protected. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC)
Schedule V includes the animals which may be The Climate and Clean Air Coalition to Reduce
hunted. These are Common crow, Fruit bats, Mice Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (CCAC)was
& Rats only. launched by the United Nations Environment
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Programme (UNEP) and six countries— Ballast, Solid State Inverter, Office Automation
Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and Products, Diesel Engine Driven Monosetpumps
the United States. It is a voluntary partnership of For Agricultural Purposes, Diesel Generator Set,
governments, intergovernmental organizations, Tubular fluorescent lamps, Room Air Conditioner
businesses, scientific institutions and civil society (Variable Speed), Chillers, Agricultural Pumpset.
organizations committed to protecting the climate
and improving air quality through actions to 23. Exp. (a)
reduce short-lived climate pollutants.
International Solar Alliance
It focuses on ozone, methane, Black Carbon, and
India and France launched an International
hydrofluorocarbons.
Solar Alliance to boost solar energy in developing
20. Exp. (b) countries. The initiative was launched at the
UN Climate Change Conference in Paris on 30
TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, November, 2015
a steering group composed of members of
TRAFFIC’s partner organizations, WWF and IUCN. The alliance includes around 120 countries that
support the “Declaration on the occasion to launch
It has an enviable reputation as a reliable and
the international solar alliance of countries
impartial organization, a leader in the field of
dedicated to the promotion of solar energy.”
conservation as it relates to wildlife trade, the
wildlife trade monitoring network, works to
24. Exp. (b)
ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not
a threat to the conservation of nature. The Sustainable Development Goals
TRAFFIC was established in 1976 and has The first report of the Club of Rome was the
developed into a global network, research-driven famous ‘The limits to growth’, brought out in
and action-oriented, committed to delivering 197 It highlighted the need for sustainable use
innovative and practical conservation solutions of resources through a computer simulation of
based on the latest information. exponential economic and population growth
TRAFFIC also works in close co-operation with with a finite supply of resources. There was no
the Secretariat of the Convention on International such mention of The Sustainable Development
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Goals then.
Flora (CITES). At the United Nations Sustainable Development
Summit on 25 September 2015, world leaders
21. Exp. (b) adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable
M-STrIPES Development, which includes a set of 17 SDGs
The full form of M-STrIPES is Monitoring System with 169 targets. .
for Tigers’-Intensive Protection and Ecological
Status. It’s a software monitoring system launched 25. Exp. (c)
by the Indian Government in 2010 in some tiger United Nations Convention to Combat
reserves. The aim is to reduce vulnerability of Desertification
tigers and ensure maintenance of tiger reserves.
Established in 1994, the United Nations Convention
The system would enable field managers to assist
to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the sole
intensity and spatial coverage of patrols in a
legally binding international agreement linking
geographic information system (GIS) domain.
environment and development to sustainable
22. Exp. (d) land management.
Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label The convention aims to promote effective
action through innovative national programmes
The Objectives of Standards & Labeling Program
and supportive international partnerships,
is to provide the consumer an informed choice
about the energy saving and thereby the cost committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging
saving potential of the marketed household and the participation of local people in combating
other equipment. desertification and land degradation.
The scheme is currently invoked for equipments/ The implementation of the UNCCD is geared
appliances Room Air Conditioner (Fixed Speed), around five regional implementation annexes:
Ceiling Fan, Colour Television, Computer, Direct Annex 1 for Africa,
Cool Refrigerator, Distribution Transformer,
Domestic Gas Stove, Frost Free Refrigerator, Annex 2 for Asia,
General Purpose Industrial Motor, Monoset Annex 3 for Latin America and the Caribbean,
Pump, Openwell Submersible Pump Set,
Stationary Type Water Heater, Electric geysers Annex 4 for Northern Mediterranean and
, Submersible Pump Set, Tfl, Washing Machine, Annex 5 for Central and Eastern Europe.
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32. Exp. (c) and coordinating authority for the Ganga River,
Green India Mission Objectives in exercise of the powers conferred under the
Environment (Protection) Act,1986.
To increase forest/tree cover to the extent of 5
million hectares (mha) and restore and improve The Prime Minister is ex-officio Chairperson of
quality of forest/tree cover on another 5 mha of the Authority.
forest/non-forest lands; Key Features of the New Approach of NGRBA
To improve/enhance eco-system services like River Basin will be the unit of planning and
carbon sequestration and storage (in forests and management. This is an internationally
other ecosystems), hydrological services and accepted strategy for integrated management
biodiversity; along with provisioning services like of rivers. Accordingly, a new institutional
fuel, fodder, and timber and non-timber forest mechanism in the form of National Ganga
produces (NTFPs); and
River Basin Authority (NGRBA) will spearhead
To increase forest based livelihood income of river conservation efforts at the national level.
about 3 million households. Implementation will be by the State Agencies
and Urban Local Bodies.
33. Exp. (c)
The minimum ecological flows for the entire
Environmental Governance Ganga will be determined through modeling
Annex I parties are industrialized countries exercises. NGRBA will take appropriate
belonging to the Organization for Economic measures in cooperation with the States to
Cooperation and Development (OECD) and regulate water abstraction for marinating
countries designated as Economies in Transition minimum ecological flows in the river.
under the Framework Convention on Climate
Attention would also be paid to the restoration
Change (FCCC), that pledged to reduce their
greenhouse gas emissions to 1990 levels by the of living parts of the river ecosystem for its
year 2000. holistic treatment to enable conservation of
species like dolphin, turtles, fishes and other
Certified Emission Reductions (CERs) are a type
native and endangered species in their river.
of emissions unit (or carbon credits) issued by the
Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) Executive
36. Exp. (b)
Board for emission reductions achieved by
CDM projects and verified by a DOE (Designated IUCN and CITES
Operational Entity) under the rules of the Kyoto IUCN is not an organ of the United Nations but
Protocol. Each CER unit is equal to one tonne of
has observer and consultative status at the United
CO
Nations. CITES (the Convention on International
The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
allows a country with an emission-reduction Flora) is an international agreement between
commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex governments.
B Party) to implement an emission-reduction
project in developing countries. IUCN, the International Union for Conservation
of Nature, helps the world find pragmatic
34. Exp. (b) solutions to our most pressing environment and
development challenges. It supports scientific
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems
research, manages field projects all over the
(GIAHS)
world and brings governments, non-government
GIAHS aims to protect traditional agricultural organizations, United Nations agencies, companies
system. it will not provide any modern and local communities together to develop and
technology and training. implement policy, laws and best practice. Its work
GIAHS aims to identify and safeguard agenda includes running through thousands of
ecofriendlty traditional farm pratices and field projects around the world to better manage
their associated landscapes, agricultural natural environments.
biodieversity and knowldege systems of the
local communities. CITES aims is to ensure that international trade
in specimens of wild animals and plants does
To provide Geographical Indication status to not threaten their survival. It is an international
all the varieties of agricultural produce in such agreement to which States and regional economic
identified GIAHS is not under the FAO or the
integration organizations adhere voluntarily.
GIAHS authority.
States that have agreed to be bound by the
Convention (‘joined’ CITES) are known as Parties.
35. Exp. (a)
Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) – in other words they have to implement the
‘National Ganga River Basin Authority’ (NGRBA) Convention – it does not take the place of national
as an empowered planning, financing, monitoring laws. Rather it provides a framework to be
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respected by each Party, which has to adopt its by the World Bank. It promotes reducing
own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector,
implemented at the national level. from deforestation and forest degradation
in developing countries (REDD+), and from
37. Exp. (b) sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-
Montreal Protocol use planning, policies and practices.
The Montreal Protocol is widely considered as
41. Exp. (c)
the most successful environment protection
agreement. The Protocol sets out a mandatory Forest Carbon Partnership Facility
timetable for the control and phase out of
The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is a
ozone depleting substances. This timetable
global partnership of governments, businesses,
has been reviewed regularly, with phase out
dates accelerated in accordance with scientific civil society, and indigenous people focused on
understanding and technological advances. reducing emissions from deforestation and forest
degradation, forest carbon stock conservation,
The Montreal Protocol sets binding progressive
the sustainable management of forests, and the
phase out obligations for developed and
enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing
developing countries for all the major ozone
depleting substances, including CFCs, halons and countries (activities commonly referred to as
less damaging transitional chemicals such as REDD+).
HCFCs. The World Bank assumes the functions of trustee
and secretariat.
38. Exp. (a)
One of the four strategic objectives of the
Rio+20 Conference FCPF is to assist countries in their REDD+ efforts
Rio+20 refers to the United Nations Conference by providing them with financial and technical
on Sustainable Development which took place in assistance in building their capacity to benefit
Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 2012 – twenty years from possible future systems of positive incentives
after the landmark 1992 Earth Summit in Rio. for REDD+.
At the Rio+20 Conference, world leaders, along It provide financial incentives to countries
with thousands of participants from the private
in their REDD+ efforts. However, there is no
sector, NGOs and other groups, came together to
shape how we can reduce poverty, advance social mention of assistance to universities, scientists
equity and ensure environmental protection on and institutions.
an ever more crowded planet.
42. Exp. (c)
39. Exp. (a) BirdLife International
Green Climate Fund BirdLife international is a global partnership of
The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the conservation organisations that strives to conserve
framework of the UNFCCC created to support the birds, their habitats and global biodiversity,
efforts of developing countries to respond to the working with people towards sustainability in
challenge of climate change. the use of natural resources. It is the World’s
GCF was founded as a mechanismto redistribute largest partnership of conservation organisations,
money from the developed to the developing with over 120 partner organisations 120 partner
world, in order to assist the developing countries organisations.
in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter
An Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) is
climate change.
an area recognized as being globally important
It was set up by the 194 countries who are parties habitat for the conservation of birds populations.
to the United Nations Framework Convention on
The British biologist Norman Myers coined the
Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010, as part of the
term “biodiversity hotspot” in 1988 through the
Convention’s financial mechanism.
article “The Environmentalist” as a biogeographic
GCF is headquartered in Songdo, Republic of region characterized both by exceptional levels of
Korea. plant endemism and by serious levels of habitat
loss.
40. ‘Exp. (d)
Bio Carbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest 43. Exp. (b)
Landscapes Seed Village Concept
The Bio Carbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable A village, wherein trained group of farmers are
Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, involved in production ‘of seeds of various crops
supported by donor governments and managed and cater to the needs of themselves, fellow
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farmers of the village and farmers of neighbouring document the concepts of nature conservation
villages in appropriate time and at affordable cost and the preservation of cultural properties.
is called “a seed village”.
48. Exp. (b)
44. Exp. (d)
Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory
IndARC advisory body advising the Government of India’s
IndARC is India’s first underwater moored Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
observatory anchored in the Kongs fjorden fjord, Change. It was established in 1962 under Section
half way between Norway (1100 km away from 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,
Norway) and the North Pole at a depth of 192 1960. Well-known humanitarian Rukmini Devi
metre. The data provided by IndARC helps: Arundale was instrumental in setting up the
board and was its first chair.
to understand the Arctic processes and their
influence on the Indian monsoon system through The National Tiger Conservation Authority
climate modelling studies; and (NTCA) is a statutory body of the Ministry, with
the response of the Arctic to climatic variability. an overarching supervisory / coordination role,
performing functions as provided in the Wildlife
45. Exp. (c) (Protection) Act, 197
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee National Ganga River Basin Authority’ (NGRBA) is
an empowered planning, financing, monitoring
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee and coordinating authority for the Ganga River,
(GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the in exercise of the powers conferred under the
Ministry of Environment and Forests under Environment (Protection) Act,1986. It is chaired
‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and
by the Prime Minister.
Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically
Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’, under the
49. Exp. (a)
Environment Protection Act, 1986.
Global Environment Facility
46. Exp. (c) The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for
Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) the following conventions:
Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) is one of Convention on Biological Diversity(CBD)
India’s biggest Non-Governmental Organizations United Nations Framework Convention on
(NGO) that was founded in 188 The sole aim of this Climate Change (UNFCCC)
organization is to conduct research activities and
observations on natural history and displaying UN Convention to Combat Desertification
rare specimens. (UNCCD)
BNHS Mission: Conservation of Nature, primarily Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic
Biological Diversity through action based on Pollutants (POPs)
Research, Education and Public Awareness. Minamata Convention on Mercury
It also organizes and conducts nature trails and
camps for the general public. 50. Exp. (c)
Earth Hour
47. Exp. (d)
Earth Hour is people’s movement inspiring
International agreements on Biodiversity
individuals to take stand against climate change.
The International Treaty on Plant Genetic It is organized by the World Wide Fund for
Resources for Food and Agriculture: It overlooks Nature (WWF) with an aim to enable harmonious
the conservation and sustainable use of all plant existence of human and wildlife.
genetic resources for food and agriculture and the
fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising Starting as a symbolic lights out event in Sydney
out of their use, in harmony with the Convention in 2007, Earth Hour is now the world’s largest
on Biological Diversity, for sustainable agriculture grassroots movement for the environment, to
and food security. raise the awareness about the climate change and
the need to save the planet and inspire millions of
The United Nations Convention to Combat people to take action for our planet and nature.
Desertification is only legally binding international
agreement to address problem of desertification
51. Exp. (a)
and other land issues. The Convention addresses
desertification and land issues specifically arid, Montreux Record
semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as dry The Montreux Record is a register of wetland
lands. sites on the List of Wetlands of International
The World Heritage Convention: The most Importance where changes in ecological character
significant feature of the 1972 World Heritage have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to
Convention is that it links together in a single occur as a result of technological developments,
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pollution or other human interference. the bio piracy and protects the indigenous and
It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. traditional genetic resources.
Indian sites include Keoladeo National Park, NBAs approval is required before seeking any
Rajasthan and Loktak Lake, Manipur. IPR based on biological material and associated
knowledge obtained from India.
52. Exp. (b)
55. Exp. (b)
Wetlands International
Impact of National Water mission
Wetlands International is the only global not-for-
Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met
profit organization dedicated to the conservation
through recycling of waste water
and restoration of wetlands, deeply concerned
about the loss and deterioration of wetlands such The water requirements of coastal cities with
as lakes, marshes and rivers. inadequate alternative sources of water will be
met by adopting appropriate technologies that
This organization is in partnership but not formed
allow for the use of ocean water.
under the Ramsar convention. It was founded in
1937 as the International Wildfowl Inquiry and There is no such provision of interlinking of rivers
the organization was focused on the protection of of Himalayan origin with the rivers of peninsular
waterbirds. Later, the name became International India and complete reimbursement by the
Waterfowl & Wetlands Research Bureau (IWRB). Government of expenses incurred by farmers for
digging bore wells and for installing motors and
Wetlands International’s work ranges from pump sets to draw groundwater .
research and community-based field projects to
advocacy and engagement with governments, 56. Exp. (c)
corporate and international policy fora and
conventions. Wetlands International works As per The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, the
through partnerships and is supported by supporting services are those that are necessary for
contributions from an extensive specialist expert the production of all other ecosystem services.
network and tens of thousands of volunteers. Examples of supporting services are primary
production, production of atmospheric oxygen,
53. Exp. (d) soil formation and retention, crop pollination,
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest nutrient cycling, water cycling, and provisioning
of habitat.
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
It extends to the whole of India except the State of 57. Exp. (d)
Jammu and Kashmir.
Carbon credits
Under the act, the Gram Sabha shall be the
A carbon credit is a permit or certificate allowing
authority to initiate the process for determining
the holder to emit carbon dioxide or other
the nature and extent of individual or community
greenhouse gases. It is awarded to countries or
forest rights or both that may be given to the forest
groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below
dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional
their emission quota
forest dwellers within the local limits of its
jurisdiction under this Act by receiving claims, Carbon credit prices are traded on an exchange.
consolidating and verifying them and preparing So their prices are never fixed.
a map delineating the area of each recommended
claim in such manner as may be prescribed for 58. Exp. (b)
exercise of such rights and the Gram Sabha shall, Red Data Books (IUCN)
then, pass a resolution to that effect and thereafter
The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is the
forward a copy of the same to the Sub-Divisional
world’s most comprehensive inventory of the
Level Committee.
global conservation status of threatenedplant and
animal species. It uses a set of quantitative criteria
54. Exp. (c)
to evaluate the extinction risk of thousands of
National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) species. These criteria are relevant to most species
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was and all regions of the world. With its strong
established by the Central Government in 2003 to scientific base, The IUCN Red List is recognized
implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). as the most authoritative guide to the status of
The NBA is a statutory Body and it performs biological diversity.
facilitative, regulatory and advisory functions for Endemic plant and animal species present in
the Government of India on issues of conservation, the biodiversity hotspots and protected sites for
sustainable use of biological resources and fair conservation of nature and natural resources in
and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of various countries are not a part of the Red Data
the use of biological resources. Thus NBA checks Book.
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60. Exp. (d) At present, there are 101 National Parks in India.
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Constitution of Various Bodies: The WPA act under which animals may be transferred among
provides for the constitution of bodies to be zoos nationally and internationally.
established under this act such as the National National Tiger Conservation Authority
and State Board for Wildlife, Central Zoo (NTCA): Following the recommendations of the
Authority and National Tiger Conservation Tiger Task Force, the National Tiger Conservation
Authority. Authority (NTCA) was constituted in 2005 for
Government Property: Hunted wild animals strengthening tiger conservation.
(other than vermin), animal articles or meat of a The Union Environment Minister is the
wild animal and ivory imported into India and an Chairperson of NTCA and the State Environment
article made from such ivory shall be considered Minister is the Vice-Chairperson.
as the property of the Government.
The Central Government on the recommendations
Bodies Constituted under the Act of NTCA declares an area as a Tiger Reserve.
National Board for Wildlife (NBWL): As per the More than 50 wildlife sanctuaries in India have
act, the central government of India shall constitute been designated as Tiger Reserves and are
the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL). protected areas under the Wildlife Protection Act,
It serves as an apex body for the review of all 1972.
wildlife-related matters and for the approval Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB): The act
of projects in and around national parks and provided for the constitution of Wildlife Crime
sanctuaries. Control Bureau (WCCB) to combat organized
The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister and wildlife crime in the country.
is responsible for promotion of conservation and The Bureau has its headquarters in New Delhi.
development of wildlife and forests. It is mandated to:
The Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Collect and collate intelligence related to organized
Change is the Vice-Chairperson of the board. wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the
The board is ‘advisory’ in nature and can only same to the State to apprehend the criminals.
advise the Government on policy making for Establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank.
conservation of wildlife.
Assist State Governments to ensure success in
Standing Committee of NBWL: The NBWL prosecutions related to wildlife crimes.
constitutes a Standing Committee for the purpose
of approving all the projects falling within Advise the Government of India on issues
protected wildlife areas or within 10 km of them. relating to wildlife crimes having national and
international ramifications, relevant policy and
The committee is chaired by the Minister of laws.
Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Schedules under the Act
State Board for Wildlife (SBWL): The state
governments are responsible for the constitution The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 has divided the
of the state board of wildlife. protection status of various plants and animals
under the following six schedules:
The Chief Minister of the state/UT is the chairperson
of the board. Schedule I:
The board advises the state government in: It covers endangered species that need rigorous
protection. The species are granted protection
The selection and management of areas to be from poaching, killing, trading etc.
declared as protected areas.
A person is liable to the harshest penalties for
The formulation of the policy for protection and violation of the law under this Schedule.
conservation of the wild life
Species under this Schedule are prohibited to be
Any matter relating to the amendment of any hunted throughout India, except under threat to
Schedule. human life or in case of a disease that is beyond
Central Zoo Authority: The act provides for the recovery.
constitution of Central Zoo Authority consisting of Some of the animals granted protection under the
a total 10 members including the Chairperson and Schedule I include:
a Member-Secretary.
The Black Buck
The Environment Minister is the chairperson.
Bengal Tiger
The authority provides recognition to zoos and
is also tasked with regulating the zoos across the Clouded Leopard
country. Snow Leopard
It lays down guidelines and prescribes rules Swamp Deer
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term plan for planting, care, and removal of city India is not its signatory.
trees can be established.
68. Exp. (a)
Standard 4: Allocate the Resources
The Climate Action Tracker is an independent
The city has a dedicated annual budget for the
scientific analysis that tracks government climate
routine implementation of the tree management
action and measures it against the globally agreed
plan.
Paris Agreement aim of “holding warming well
Standard 5: Celebrate Achievements below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming
The city holds an annual celebration of trees to 1.5°C.” A collaboration of two organisations,
to raise awareness among residents and to Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute, the
acknowledge citizens and staff members who CAT has been providing this independent analysis
carry out the city tree programme. to policymakers since 2009.
Hyderabad City has pledged its commitment by CAT quantifies and evaluates climate change
meeting five programme standards that show mitigation targets, policies and action. It also
their dedication and determination towards aggregates country action to the global level,
planting and conserving trees for a greener determining likely temperature increases during
future. Hyderabad City is demonstrating the 21st century using the MAGICC climate
leadership in management of its urban trees model. CAT further develops sectoral analysis
and is serving as part of the solution to many to illustrate required pathways for meeting the
of the global issues we face today. global temperature goals.
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