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2020 -2021

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Reduced Syllabus
Portion Book back
Questions Bank
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PREPARED BY

Mr.F.JOHNSON,B.T.ASST
St.Joseph's College Hr Sec School, Mr.A.YOVAN PETER,B.T.ASST
Trichy District. St.Joseph's College Hr Sec School ,
Trichy District.

Mr.A.JOHNSON,B.T.ASST

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Mr.G.STANLEY GUNASEELAN,B.T.ASST
St.Joseph's College Hr Sec School , St.Joseph's College Hr Sec School,
Trichy District.

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Trichy District.

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Mr.J.JOHN SUNDAR,B.T.ASST
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St.Joseph's College Hr Sec School ,
Trichy District.
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Thank You
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Teachers
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97864 51463

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Table Contents

Unit Title Page No.

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1 Laws of Motion 1

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2 Optics pr 2

3 Th rmal Physics 3
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4 Electricity 4

5 Acoustics 5
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6 Nuclear Physics 7
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7 Atoms and Molecules 9

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8 Periodic Classification of Elements 10

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9 Solutions 11

10 Types of Chemical Reactions 12

11 Carbon and its Compounds 14

12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology 15

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Unit Title Page No.

13 Structural Organisation of Animals DELETED

Transportation in Plants and Circulation in

14 16
Animals
15 Nervous System DELETED

16 Plant and Animal Hormones 18

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17 Reproduction in Plants and Animals 20

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18 Genetics 21

19 Origin and Evolution of Life

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20 Breeding and Biotechnology 24
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21 Health and Diseases 25

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22 Environmental Management 26
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23 Visual Communication DELETED

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1.Laws of Motion 5. A man of mass 100 kg has a weight of

___________ at the surface of the Earth

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION III. State whether the following statements

are true or false. Correct the statement
if it is false
I. Choose the correct answer
2. Apparent weight of a person is always equal
1) Inertia of a body depends on to his actual weight
a) weight of the object 3. Weight of a body is greater at the equator
b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet and less at the polar region.
c) mass of the object IV. Match the following
d) Both a & b
Column I Column II
3) Newton’s III law is applicable a. Newton’s I law - propulsion of a

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a) for a body is at rest rocket
b) for a body in motion b. Newton’s II law - Stable equilibrium of

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a body
c) both a & b

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c. Newton’s III law - Law of force
d) only for bodies with equal masses
d. Law of conservation - Flying nature of bird
4) Plotting a graph for momentum on the
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of Linear momentum
Y-axis and time on X-axis. slope of momen-
tum-time graph gives
V. Assertion & Reasoning
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a) Impulsive force b) Acceleration

c) Force d) Rate of force Mark the correct choice as
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(a) If both the assertion and the reason

7) One kilogram force equals to are true and the reason is the correct
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a) 9.8 dyne b) 9.8 × 104 N explanation of assertion.

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c) 98 × 104 dyne d) 980 dyne (b) If both the assertion and the reason are
8) The mass of a body is measured on planet true, but the reason is not the correct ex-
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Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a planet planation of the assertion.

of radius half that of the Earth then its value (c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
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will be____kg (d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.

a) 4 M b) 2M c) M/4 d) M
2. Assertion: The value of ‘g’ decreases as
10) To project the rockets which of the follow- height and depth increases from the surface
ing principle(s) is /(are) required? of the Earth.
a) Newton’s third law of motion
Reason: ‘g’ depends on the mass of the
b) Newton’s law of gravitation object and the Earth.
c) law of conservation of linear momentum
d) both a and c VI. Answer briefly.
1. Define inertia. Give its classification.
II. Fill in the blanks
2. Classify the types of force based on their
1. To produce a displacement ___________
is required application.
2. Passengers lean forward when sudden 3. If a 5 N and a 15 N forces are acting opposite
brake is applied in a moving vehicle. Th s to one another. Find the resultant force and
can be explained by ___________ the direction of action of the resultant force
4. Differentiate mass and weight.

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7. State Newton’s second law. 3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus
of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched
VII. Solve the given problems
on, the lens will produce
1. Two bodies have a mass ratio of 3:4 The a) a convergent beam of light
force applied on the bigger mass produces b) a divergent beam of light
an acceleration of 12 ms-2.What could be c) a parallel beam of light
the acceleration of the other body, if the d) a coloured beam of light
same force acts on it.
5. A convex lens forms a real, diminished point
4. The ratio of masses of two planets is 2:3 sized image at focus. Then the position of the
and the ratio of their radii is 4:7 Find the object is at
ratio of their accelerations due to gravity.
a) focus b) infinity
VIII. Answer in detail. c) at 2f d) between f and 2f

1. What are the types of inertia? Give an 7. In a myopic eye, the image of the object is

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example for each type. formed
2. State Newton’s laws of motion? a) behind the retina b) on the retina

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3. Deduce the equation of a force using c) in front of the retina d) on the blind spot

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Newton’s second law of motion. 8. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected
5. Describe rocket propulsion. by
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a) convex lens b) concave lens
IX. HOT Questions c) convex mirror d) Bi focal lenses
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1. Two blocks of masses 8 kg and 2 kg

9. Which of the following lens would you prefer
respectively lie on a smooth horizontal surface
to use while reading small letters found in a
in contact with one other. They are pushed by
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a horizontally applied force of 15 N. Calculate dictionary?

the force exerted on the 2 kg mass. a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
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3. “Wearing helmet and fastening the seat belt b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
is highly recommended for safe journey” c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
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Justify your answer using Newton’s laws of d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
motion.
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II. Fill in the blanks:

2.Optics 1. The path of the light is called as
2. The refractive index of a transparent
medium is always greater than
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
5. Amount of light entering into the eye is
I. Choose the correct answer controlled by
1. The refractive index of four substances A, B,
III. True or False. If false correct it.
C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively.
The speed of light is maximum in 1. Velocity of light is greater in denser medium
than in rarer medium
a) A b) B c) C d) D
3. Increase in the converging power of eye
2. Where should an object be placed so that
lens cause ‘hypermetropia’
a real and inverted image of same size is
obtained by a convex lens 4. The convex lens always gives small virtual
image.
a) f b) 2f
c) infinity d) between f and 2f

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IV. Match the following: 2. An object of height 3cm is placed at 10cm

Column - I Column - II from a concave lens of focal length 15cm.
1 Retina a Path way of light Find the size of the image.
2 Pupil b Far point comes IX. Higher order thinking (HOT) questions:
closer
1. While doing an experiment for the
3 Ciliary muscles c near point moves
away determination of focal length of a convex
4 Myopia d Screen of the eye lens, Raja Suddenly dropped the lens. It got
5 Hypermetropia f Power of accom- broken into two halves along the axis. If he
modation continues his experiment with the same lens,
(a) can he get the image? (b) Is there any
V. Assertion and reasoning type change in the focal length?
Mark the correct choice as 2. The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are
a) If both assertion and reason are true and having a large cornea and a large pupil. How

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reason is the correct explanation of assertion. does it help them?
b) If both assertion and reason are true but

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reason is not the correct explanation of 3.Thermal Physics

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assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
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d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
2. Assertion: Myopia is due to the increase in
I. Choose the correct answer
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the converging power of eye lens.

Reason: Myopia can be corrected with the 4. Temperature is the average ___________
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help of concave lens. of the molecules of a substance

VI. Answer Briefly a) difference in K.E and P.E
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b) sum of P.E and K.E

3. Draw a ray diagram to show the image
formed by a convex lens when the object is c) difference in T.E and P.E
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placed between F and 2F. d) difference in K.E and T.E

6. Differentiate convex lens and concave lens. 5. In the Given diagram, the possible direction
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of heat energy transformation is

7. What is power of accommodation of eye?
8. What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?

VII. Give the answer in detail

1. List any five properties of light
II. Fill in the blanks:
2. Explain the rules for obtaining images
formed by a convex lens with the help of ray 1. The value of Avogadro number ________
diagram. 2. The temperature and heat are _________
3. Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and quantities
Hypermetropia 3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy
VIII. Numerical Problems: required to raise the temperature of
_______ of water through______.
1. An object is placed at a distance 20cm from
4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the
a convex lens of focal length 10cm. Find the
graph between pressure and reciprocal of
image distance and nature of the image.
volume is ________________

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III. State whether the following statements IX. HOT question

are true or false, if false explain why?
If you keep ice at 0° C and water at 0° C in
2. Thermal energy always flows from a system
either of your hands, in which hand you will
at higher temperature to a system at lower
feel more chillness? Why?
temperature.
3. According to Charles’s law, at constant
4.Electricity
pressure, the temperature is inversely
proportional to volume.
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
IV. Match the items in column-I to the
items in column-II
I. Choose the best answer
Column-I Column-II
1. Which of the following is correct?
1. Linear expansion - (a) change in volume
a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power.

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2. Superficial expansion - (b) hot body to cold
b) Rate of change of charge is current.
body

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c) Rate of change of energy is current.
3. Cubical expansion - (c) 1.381 X 10-23 JK-1
d) Rate of change of current is charge.

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4. Heat transformation - (d) change in length
2. SI unit of resistance is
5. Boltzmann constant - (e) change in area
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a) mho b) joule
V. Assertion and reason type questions c) ohm d) ohm meter
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a. Both the assertion and the reason are true 3. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow
and the reason is the correct explanation when you close the switch?
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of the assertion. a) The switch produces electricity.

b. Both the assertion and the reason are
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b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.

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true but the reason is not the correct c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit.
explanation of the assertion.
d) The bulb is getting charged.
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c. Assertion is true but the reason is false.

4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of
d. Assertion is false but the reason is true.
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a) resistivity b) conductivity
1. Assertion: There is no effects on other end c) electrical energy d) electrical power
when one end of the rod is only heated.
Reason: Heat always flows from a region of II. Fill in the blanks
lower temperature to higher temperature of 1. When a circuit is open, _____________
the rod. cannot pass through it.
2. Assertion: Gas is highly compressible than 2. The ratio of the potential difference to the
solid and liquid current is known as ________.
Reason: Interatomic or intermolecular
4. The power of an electric device is a product
distance in the gas is comparably high.
of _________ and __________.
VI. Answer in briefly
III. State whether the following statements
1. Define one calorie. are true or false: If false correct the
4. State Boyle’s law statement.
5. State-the law of volume 1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between
power and voltage.

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3. The SI unit for electric current is the VIII. Long answer questions.
coulomb. 2. a) What is meant by electric current?
4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is b) Name and define its unit.
equal to 1000 kilowatt hour. c) Which instrument is used to measure
the electric current? How should it be
IV. Match the items in column-I to the items
connected in a circuit?
in column-II:
Column - I Column - II 3. a) State Joule’s law of heating.
(i) electric current (a) volt b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is
(ii) potential difference (b) ohm meter used as the heating element. Why?
(iii) specific esistance (c) watt IX. Numerical problems:
(iv) electrical power (d) joule 1. An electric iron consumes energy at
(v) electrical energy (e) ampere the rate of 420 W when heating is at the
maximum rate and 180 W when heating is

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V. Assertion and reason type questions: at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is

s.
Mark the correct choice as 220 V. What is the current in each case?
a) if both the assertion and the reason are true

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2. A 100 watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours
and the reason is the correct explanation of
daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for
the assertion.
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5 hours daily. Calculate the energy consumed
b) if both the assertion and the reason are (in kWh) in the month of January.
true, but the reason is not the correct
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explanation of the assertion. 3. A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA.

Calculate it’s
c) if the assertion is true, but the reason is
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a) power
false.
b) resistance
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d) if the assertion is false, but the reason is

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true. c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hour.

2. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the X. HOTS:

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point of highest potential is 2. How many electrons are passing per

the positive terminal of the second in a circuit in which there is a
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battery. current of 5 A?
Reason: The current fl ws towards the
point of the highest potential 3. A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn
out so that its length is increased to three
VI. Very short answer questions. times its original length. Calculate the new
1. Define the unit of current. resistance.
2. What happens to the resistance, as the
conductor is made thicker?
5.Sound
VII. Short answer questions
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
1. Define electric potential and potential
difference.
I. Choose the correct answer
3. State Ohm’s law.
1. When a sound wave travels through air,
4. Distinguish between the resistivity and the air particles
conductivity of a conductor.
a) vibrate along the direction of the wave
motion
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b) vibrate but not in any fi ed direction VII. Answer briefly

c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction
4. Explain why, the ceilings of concert halls
of the wave motion
are curved.
d) do not vibrate
VIII. Problem Corner
3. The frequency, which is audible to the
human ear is 2. The thunder of cloud is heard 9.8 seconds
a) 50 kHz b) 20 kHz later than the flash of lightning. If the
speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1, what will
c) 15000 kHz d) 10000 kHz
be the height of the cloud?
6. The sound waves are refl cted from an
obstacle into the same medium from 4. An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship
which they were incident. Which of the towards the bottom of the sea. It is
following changes? found that the time interval between the
transmission and reception of the wave is
a) speed b) frequency

in
1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea,
c) wavelength d) none of these
if the velocity of sound in the seawater is

s.
7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a 1400 ms–1?
planet is 500 ms–1. The minimum distance

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between the sources of sound and the 7. A strong sound signal is sent from a
obstacle to hear the echo, should be ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is
received back after 1s.What is the depth of
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a) 17 m b) 20 m c) 25 m d) 50 m
sea given that the speed of sound in water
II. Fill up the blanks 1450 ms–1?
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1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle IX. Answer in Detail

about its mean position is called _____
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2. What is mean by refl ction of sound?

2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels
Explain:
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from south to north, the particles of the

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a) reflection at the boundary of a rarer

medium would be vibrating in _____
medium
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III. True or false:- (If false give the reason)

b) reflection at the boundary of a denser
1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, medium
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liquids and even vacuum.

c) Reflection at curved surfaces
2. Waves created by Earth Quake are Infrasonic.
3. a) What do you understand by the term
IV. Match the following ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
1. Infrasonic - (a) Compressions
b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
2. Echo - (b) 22 kHz
c) Name three animals which can hear
3. Ultrasonic - (c) 10 Hz
ultrasonic vibrations.
4. High pressure
region - (d) Ultrasonography 4. What is an echo?
VI. Answer very briefl a) State two conditions necessary for
hearing an echo.
1. What is a longitudinal wave?
b) What are the medical applications of
2. What is the audible range of frequency? echo?
3. What is the minimum distance needed for c) How can you calculate the speed of
an echo? sound using echo?
5. Name three animals, which can hear
ultrasonic vibrations.
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8. Which of the following statements is/are

6.Nuclear physics correct?
i. α particles are photons
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION ii. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
iii. Ionization power is maximum for α rays

I. Choose the correct answer iv. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
a. (i) & (ii) are correct
1. Man-made radioactivity is also known as
_____________ b. (ii) & (iii) are correct

a. Induced radioactivity c. (iv) only correct

d. (iii) & (iv) are correct
b. Spontaneous radioactivity
c. Artific al radioactivity 10. In the nuclear reaction 6X12 α decay Z
YA,
the value of A & Z.
d. a & c
a. 8, 6 b. 8, 4

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2. Unit of radioactivity is _____________
c. 4, 8 d. cannot be determined
a. roentgen b. curie

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with the given data
c. becquerel d. all the above 11. Kamini reactor is located at __________

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3. Artific al radioactivity was discovered by a. Kalpakkam b. Koodankulam
____________
c. Mumbai d. Rajasthan
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a. Bequerel b. Irene Curie
12. Which of the following is/are correct?
c. Roentgen d. Neils Bohr
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i. Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear

4. In which of the following, no change in mass reactor and an atomic bomb.
number of the daughter nuclei takes place ii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is
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i) α decay ii) β decay controlled

iii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not
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iii) γ decay iv) neutron decay

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controlled
a. (i) is correct
iv. No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb
b. (ii) and (iii) are correct
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a. (i) only correct b. (i) & (ii) are correct

c. (i) & ( iv) are correct
c. (iv) only correct d. (iii) & (iv) are correct
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d. (ii) & (iv) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks
5. ____________ isotope is used for the
treatment of cancer. 1. One roentgen is equal to ____________
disintegrations per second
a. Radio Iodine b. Radio Cobalt
2. Positron is an____________.
c. Radio Carbon d. Radio Nickel
3. Anemia can be cured by ____________
6. Gamma radiations are dangerous because
isotope
a. it affects eyes & bones
5. _________is used to measure exposure rate
b. it affects tissues
of radiation in humans.
c. it produces genetic disorder
6. ________ has the greatest penetration
d. it produces enormous amount of heat power.
7. _____________ aprons are used to protect 7. Z
YA → YA + X ; Then, X is __________
Z+1
us from gamma radiations
8. Z
XA → ZYA Th s reaction is possible in
a. Lead oxide b. Iron ______________ decay.
c. Lead d. Aluminium

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2. A cobalt specimen emits induced radiation
of 75.6 millicurie per second. Convert this
11. The radio isotope of ________ helps to disintegration in to becquerel (one curie =
increase the productivity of crops. 3.7 × 1010 Bq)
12. If the radiation exposure is 100 R, it may
cause ______________.
VIII. Assertion and reason type questions:
III State whether the following statements Mark the correct choice as
are true or false: If false, correct the
(a) If both the assertion and the reason
statement
are true and the reason is the correct
2. Elements having atomic number greater explanation of the assertion.
than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are
IV. Match the following true, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
Match: III
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
a. Soddy Fajan Natural radioactivity
(d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.

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b. Irene Curie Displacement law
c. Henry Bequerel Mass energy equivalence 2. Assertion: In a β - decay, the neutron

s.
d. Albert Einstein Artific al Radioactivity number decreases by one.
Reason: In β - decay atomic number

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Match: V
increases by one.
a. Co - 60 Age of fossil
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b. I - 131 Function of Heart IX. Answer in one or two word (VSA)
c. Na - 24 Leukemia 1. Who discovered natural radioactivity?
d. C - 14 Thyroid disease
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2. Which radioactive material is present in the

V. Arrange the following in the correct ore of pitchblende?
3. Write any two elements which are used for
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sequence:
inducing radioactivity?
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1. Arrange in descending order, on the basis 4. Write the name of the electromagnetic
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of their penetration power radiation which is emitted during a natural

Alpha rays, beta rays, gamma rays, cosmic radioactivity.
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rays 5. If A is a radioactive element which emits

2. Arrange the following in the chronological an α - particle and produces 104Rf 259. Write
the atomic number and mass number of the
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order of discovery
element A.
Nuclear reactor, radioactivity, artific al
radioactivity, discovery of radium. 7. Which hazardous radiation is the cause for
the genetic disease?
VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blank
8. What is the amount of radiation that may
1. Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, cause death of a person when exposed to it?
Induced process : ________
10. Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
3. Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, 11. Which material protects us from radiation?
Effective functioning of heart : _____
4. Deflected by electric field : α ray, Null X. Answer the following questions in few
Deflection : __________ sentences.

VII. Numerical problems: 1. Write any three features of natural

and artificial radioactivity.
1. 88
Ra226 experiences three α - decay. Find the
3. Define one roentgen.
number of neutrons in the daughter element.
4. State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.

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9. Give any two uses of radio isotopes in the c.. 20 Protons and 40 electrons
field of agriculture? d. 40 Protons and 20 electrons
XI. Answer the following questions in detail.
9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen
2. Compare the properties of alpha, beta and molecule is
gamma radiations.
a. 16 g b. 18 g
XII. HOT Questions: c. 32 g d. 17 g
1. Mass number of a radioactive element is
232 and its atomic number is 90. When II. Fill in the blanks
this element undergoes certain nuclear 1. Atoms of different elements having _______
reactions, it transforms into an isotope of mass number, but ________ atomic
lead with a mass number 208 and an atomic
numbers are called isobars.
number 82. Determine the number of alpha
and beta decay that can occur. 2. Atoms of different elements having same
2. 'X – rays should not be taken often'. Give the number of ___________ are called isotones.

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reason. 3. Atoms of one element can be transmuted
3. Cell phone towers should be placed far away

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into atoms of other element by ________
from the residential area – why?
4. The sum of the numbers of protons and

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neutrons of an atom is called its __________
7.Atoms and molecules
5. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known as
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__________
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION 7. If a molecule is made of similar kind of
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atoms, then it is called ____________ atomic

I. Choose the best answer. molecule.
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1. Which of the following has the smallest mass? 8. The number of atoms present in a molecule
is called its ____________
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a. 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He

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b. 1 atom of He 10 Atomicity of phosphorous is ___________

c. 2 g of He
IV. True or False: (If false give the correct
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d. 1 mole atoms of He
statement)
2. Which of the following is a triatomic 1. Two elements sometimes can form more
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molecule? than one compound.

a. Glucose b. Helium 2. Noble gases are Diatomic
c. Carbon dioxide d. Hydrogen 3. The gram atomic mass of an element has
4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is no unit
a. 28 amu b. 14 amu 5. Molar mass of CO2 is 42g.
c. 28 g d. 14 g
V. Assertion and Reason:
5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?
a. Mass of a C – 12 atom Answer the following questions using the
b. Mass of a hydrogen atom data given below:
c. 1/12th of the mass of a C – 12 atom i)) A and R are correct, R explains the A.
d. Mass of O – 16 atom ii)
i)A is correct, R is wrong.
8. In the nucleus of Ca40, there are iii)
ii)A is wrong, R is correct.
20
iv)) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
a.. 20 Protons and 40 neutrons
b. 20 Protons and 20 neutrons

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1. Assertion: The Relative Atomic mass of a) 6,16 b) 7,17

aluminium is 27 c) 8,18 d) 7,18
Reason: An atom of aluminium is 27 times
heavier than 1/12th of the mass of the 2. The basis of modern periodic law is______.
C – 12 atom. a) atomic number
VI.
I Short answer questions b) atomic mass
c) isotopic mass
1. Define: Relative atomic mass.
d) number of neutrons
2. Write the different types of isotopes of
oxygen and its percentage abundance. 3. _____ group contains the member of
3. Define: Atomicity halogen family.
4. Give any two examples for heterodiatomic a) 17th b) 15th
molecules. c) 18th d) 16th
VII. Long answer questions 5. Chemical formula of rust is ________.

in
1. Calculate the number of water molecule a) FeO.xH2O b) FeO4.xH2O
present in one drop of water which weighs

s.
c) Fe2O3.xH2O d) FeO
0.18 g.

es
7. The process of coating the surface of metal
4. Give the salient features of “Modern atomic
theory”. with a thin layer of zinc is called______.
pr
a) painting b) thinning
VIII. HOT question
c) galvanization d) electroplating
1. Calcium carbonate is decomposed on heat-
ex

ing in the following reaction 8. Which of the following have inert gases
2 electrons in the outermost shell.
CaCO3 → C aO + CO2
vi

a) He b) Ne
ii. Calculate the gram molecular mass c) Ar d) Kr
l
ka

of calcium carbonate involved in this

reaction 10. ______ is an important metal to form
amalgam.
w.

IX. Solve the following problems

a) Ag b) Hg
1. How many grams are there in the following?
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c) Mg d) Al
i. 2 moles of hydrogen molecule, H2
ii. 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl2 II. Fill in the blanks
iii. 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S8 2. ________ is the longest period in the
periodical table.
iv. 4 moles of phosphorous molecule, P4
3. ________ forms the basis of modern
periodic table.
8.Periodic Classificaiton
of Elements 6. The scientist who propounded the modern
periodic law is ________.
8. ________ and ________ are called inner
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION transition elements.
10. The chemical name of rust is ________.
I. Choose the best answer.
1. The number of periods and groups in the
periodic table are______.

10
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III. Match the following 4. A solution in which no more solute can be

1.. Galvanisation - Noble gas elements dissolved in a defin te amount of solvent at a
2.. Calcination - Coating with Zn given temperature is called _______
3.. Redox reaction - Silver-tin amalgam a. Saturated solution
4.. Dental filling - Alumino thermic b. Un saturated solution
process c. Super saturated solution
5. Group 18 - Heating in the d. Dilute solution
elements absence of air
5. Identify the non aqueous solution.
IV. True or False: (If false give the correct a. sodium chloride in water
statement) b. glucose in water
1. Moseley’s periodic table is based on atomic c. copper sulphate in water
mass.
d. sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide
5. An alloy is a heterogenous mixture of metals.

in
7. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g.
V. Assertion and Reason If 25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of

s.
Answer the following questions using the water how much more salt is required for
data given below: saturation _____________.

es
i)) A and R are correct, R explains the A. a. 12g b. 11g c. 16g d. 20g
ii)
i) A is correct, R is wrong.
pr
9. Deliquescence is due to __________
iii)
ii) A is wrong, R is correct.
a. Strong affinity to water
iv)) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
ex

b. Less affinity to water

2. Assertion : Magnesium is used to protect c. Strong hatred to water
d. Inertness to water
vi

steel from rusting

Reason : Magnesium is more reactive than 10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in
l

iron
ka

nature?
I Short answer questions
VI. a. ferric chloride
b. copper sulphate penta hydrate
w.

4. State two conditions necessary for rusting of

c. silica gel
iron.
d. none of the above
ww

9.Solutions II. Fill in the blanks

1. The component present in lesser amount, in
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION a solution is called _______
2. Example for liquid in solid type solution is
I. Choose the best answer. _____
2. The number of components in a binary 4. Polar compounds are soluble in _____
solution is __________ solvents
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5 III. Match the following

3. Which of the following is the universal 1.. Blue vitriol – CaSO .2H O
4 2

solvent? 2.. Gypsum – CaO

a. Acetone b. Benzene 3.. Deliquescence – CuSO .5H O
c. Water d. Alcohol 4 2
4.. Hygroscopic – NaOH

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IV. True or False: (If false give the correct

10.Types of Chemical
statement)
Reactions
1. Solutions which contain three components
are called binary solution.
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
2. In a solution the component which is
present in lesser amount is called solvent.
I. Choose the correct answer.
3. Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms a
1. H2(g) + Cl29(g) → 2HCl(g) is a
non-aqueous solution.
a. Decomposition Reaction
4. The molecular formula of green vitriol is
b. Combination Reaction
MgSO4.7H2O
c. Single Displacement Reaction
5. When Silica gel is kept open, it absorbs
d. Double Displacement Reaction
moisture from the air, because it is
hygroscopic in nature 2. Photolysis is a decomposition reaction

in
V. Short answer caused by ___________
a. heat b. electricity

s.
1. Define the term: Solution
c. light d. mechanical energy
2. What is mean by binary solution

es
3. Give an example each i) gas in liquid 3. A reaction between carbon and oxygen is
ii) solid in liquid iii) solid in solid represented by C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + Heat.
pr
iv) gas in gas In which of the type(s), the above reaction
4. What is aqueous and non-aqueous solution? can be classified?
ex

Give an example. (i) Combination Reaction

(ii) Combustion Reaction
7. Define Hydrated salt.
vi

(iii) Decomposition
8. A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate Reaction
l

forms crystals as it cools. Why? (iv) Irreversible Reaction

ka

9. Classify the following substances into a. i and ii b. i and iv

deliquescent, hygroscopic. c. i, ii and iii d. i, ii and iv
w.

Conc. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate

4. The chemical equation
penta hydrate, Silica gel, Calcium chloride,
ww

Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s)↓ + 2NaCl(aq)

and Gypsum salt.
represents which of the following types of
VI. Long answer: reaction?
1. Write notes on i) saturated solution a. Neutralisation
ii) unsaturated solution b. Combustion
c. Precipitation
3. a) What happens when MgSO4.7H2O is d. Single displacement
heated? Write the appropriate equation
b) Define solubility 6. A single displacement reaction is represented
4. In what way hygroscopic substances differ by X(s) + 2HCl(aq) → XCl2(aq) + H2(g). Which of
from deliquescent substances. the following(s) could be X.
(i) Zn (ii) Ag (iii) Cu (iv) Mg.
VII. HOTS
Choose the best pair.
2. 'A' is a blue coloured crystaline salt. On
a. i and ii b. ii and iii
heating it loses blue colour and to give 'B'. c. iii and iv d. i and iv
When water is added, 'B' gives back to 'A'.
Identify A and B, write the equation.

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7. Which of the following is not an II. Fill in the blanks

“element + element → compound” type 1. A reaction between an acid and a base is
reaction? called _________________.
a. C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) 2. When lithium metal is placed in hydrochloric
b. 2K(s) + Br2(l) → 2KBr(s) acid, ________ gas is evolved.
c. 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) 4. The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked
d. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) lime to this juice, its pH _____________
8. Which of the following represents a (increse/decrese)
precipitation reaction? 5. The value of ionic product of water at 250 C
a. A(s) + B(s) → C(s) + D(s) is _____________.
b. A(s) + B(aq) → C(aq) + D(l) 6. The normal pH of human blood is
c. A(aq) + B(aq) → C(s) + D(aq) _________
d. A(aq) + B(s) → C(aq) + D(l) 7. Electrolysis is type of _______________
9. The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH ] – reaction

in
concentration is 8. The number of products formed in a

s.
a. 1 × 10–3 M synthesis reaction is _________
b. 3 M 9. Chemical volcano is an example for

es
c. 1 × 10–11 M _______________ type of reaction
d. 11 M 10. The ion formed by dissolution of H+ in water
pr
is called _______________

III. Match the following

ex

1. Identify the types of reaction

REACTION TYPE
vi

NH4OH(aq) + CH3COOH(aq) → CH3COONH4(aq) + H2O(l) Single Displacement

l
ka

Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) Combustion

w.

Heat
ZnCO3(s) + → ZnO(s) + CO2(g) Neutralisation
C2H4(g) + 4O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + Heat Thermal decomposition
ww

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct V. Short answer questions:
statement) 1. When an aqueous solution of potassium
1. Silver metal can displace hydrogen gas from chloride is added to an aqueous solution
nitric acid. of silver nitrate, a white precipitate is
formed. Give the chemical equation of this
2. The pH of rain water containing
reaction.
dissolved gases like SO 3, CO 2, NO 2 will
be less than 7. 3. Define combination reaction. Give one
3. At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, example for an exothermic combination
the concentration of the reactants and the reaction.
products will be equal. 4. Differentiate reversible and irreversible
4. Periodical removal of one of the products reactions
of a reversible reaction increases the VI. Answer in detail
yield.
1. What are called thermolysis reactions?
5. On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns
into yellow. Then the solution is basic. 2. Explain the types of double displacement
reactions with examples.
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VII. HOT questions 5. C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O is a

1. A solid compound ‘A’ decomposes on a. Reduction of ethanol
heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’. On passing b. Combustion of ethanol
the gas ‘C’ through water, it becomes acidic. c. Oxidation of ethanoic acid
Identify A, B and C. d. Oxidation of ethanal
2. Can a nickel spatula be used to stir copper 6. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which
sulphate solution? Justify your answer. contains about _______ of ethanol
a. 95.5 % b. 75.5 %
VIII. Solve the following problems c. 55.5 % d. 45.5 %
1. Lemon juice has a pH 2, what is the 7. Which of the following are used as
concentration of H+ ions?
anaesthetics?
2. Calculate the pH of 1.0 ×10–4 molar solution a. Carboxylic acids b. Ethers
of HNO3. c. Esters d. Aldehydes
3. What is the pH of 1.0 × 10–5 molar solution

in
of KOH? II. Fill in the blanks
4. The hydroxide ion concentration of a 1. An atom or a group of atoms which is

s.
solution is 1 × 10–11M. What is the pH of the responsible for chemical characteristics of an
solution? organic compound is called ____________.

es
2. The general molecular formula of alkynes is
11.Carbon and its _____________
pr
Compounds
3. In IUPAC name, the carbon skeleton of a
compound is represented by _________
ex

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION (root word / prefix / Suffix

4. (Saturated / Unsaturated) ___________
vi

I. Choose the best answer. compounds decolourize bromine water.

l

5. Dehydration of ethanol by conc. Sulphuric

ka

1. The molecular formula of an open chain

acid forms _______ (ethene/ ethane)
organic compound is C3H6. The class of the
6. 100 % pure ethanol is called ____________
w.

compound is
a. alkane b. alkene III. Match the following
ww

c. alkyne d. alcohol
Functional group - Benzene
2. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is
–OH
3-Methyl butan-1-ol. What type compound
Heterocyclic - Potassium stearate
it is?
a. Aldehyde b. Carboxylic acid Unsaturated - Alcohol
c. Ketone d. Alcohol Soap - Furan
3. The secondary suffi used in IUPAC Carbocyclic - Ethene
nomenclature of an aldehyde is ____
IV. Assertion and Reason:
a. - ol b. – oic acid
c. - al d. - one Answer the following questions using the
data given below:
4. Which of the following pairs can be the
i)) A and R are correct, R explains the A.
successive members of a homologous series?
a. C3H8 and C4H10 ii)
i) A is correct, R is wrong.
b. C2H2 and C2H4 iii)
ii) A is wrong, R is correct.
c. CH4 and C3H6 iv)) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
d. C2H5OH and C4H8OH

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2. Assertion: Alkanes are saturated a) cortex b) pith

hydrocarbons. c) pericycle d) endodermis
Reason: Hydrocarbons consist of covalent 2. The endarch condition is the characteristic
bonds. feature of
a) root b) stem
V. Short answer questions c) leaves d) flower
1. Name the simplest ketone and give its
3. The xylem and phloem arranged side by
structural formula.
side on same radius is called _________
2. Classify the following compounds based on
a) radial b) amphivasal
the pattern of carbon chain and give their
c) conjoint d) None of these
structural formula: (i) Propane (ii) Benzene
(iii) Cyclobutane (iv) Furan 4. Which is formed during anaerobic
respiration
VI. Long answer questions
a) Carbohydrate b) Ethyl alcohol

in
1. What is called homologous series? Give any b) Acetyl CoA d) Pyruvate
three of its characteristics?

s.
5. Kreb’s cycle takes place in
2. Arrive at, systematically, the IUPAC name
a) chloroplast

es
of the compound: CH3–CH2–CH2–OH.
b) mitochondrial matrix
3. How is ethanol manufactured from c) stomata
pr
sugarcane? d) inner mitochondrial membrane
4. Give the balanced chemical equation of the
6. Oxygen is produced at what point during
ex

following reactions:
photosynthesis ?
(ii) Evolution of carbon dioxide by the action a) when ATP is converted to ADP
vi

of ethanoic acid with NaHCO3. b) when CO2 is fixed

c) when H2O is splitted
l

(iii) Oxidation of ethanol by acidifi d

ka

d) All of these
potassium dichromate.
(iv) Combustion of ethanol. II. Fill in the blanks.
w.

1. The innermost layer of cortex in root is

VII. HOT questions called ____________.
ww

1. The molecular formula of an alcohol is 2. Xylem and phloem are arranged in an

C4H10O. The locant number of its –OH alternate radii constitute a vascular bundle
group is 2. called ____________.
(i) Draw its structural formula. 3. Glycolysis takes place in _______________.
(ii) Give its IUPAC name. 4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis
(iii) Is it saturated or unsaturated? is ________________.
III. State whether the statements are true or
12.Plant Anatomy and false. Correct the false statement.
Plant Physiology 1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport
of water in plant.
2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
called as cuticle.
I. Choose the correct answer 4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below
upper epidermis in dicot root.
1. Casparian strips are present in the
_____________ of the root.
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5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll. I Higher Order Thinking Skills(HOTS)

VIII.
6. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP 1. The reactions of photosynthesis make up a
than aerobic respiration. biochemical pathway.
A) What are the end product of light and
IV. Match the following
dark reaction of photosynthesis?
1. Amphicribal - Dracaena
B) Explain how the biochemical pathway
2. Cambium - Translocation of food
of photosynthesis recycles many of its
3. Amphivasal - Fern
own reactions and identify the recycled
4. Xylem - Secondary growth
reactants.
5. Phloem - Conduction of water
2. Where do the light dependent reaction and
V. Answer in a sentence the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
1. What is collateral vascular bundle?
2. Where does the carbon that is used in 14.Transportation in
photosynthesis come from? Plants and Circulation

in
3. What is the common step in aerobic and in Animals
anaerobic pathway?

s.
4. Name the phenomenon by which TEXTBOOK EVALUATION

es
carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl
alcohol.
I. Choose the correct answer
pr
I Short answer questions
VI. 1. Active transport involves
1. Give an account on vascular bundle of
ex

a) movement of molecules from lower to

dicot stem. higher concentration
2. Write a short note on mesophyll. b) expenditure of energy
vi

4. Name the three basic tissues system in c) it is an uphill task

l

fl wering plants. d) all of the above

ka

5. What is photosynthesis and where in a

2. Water which is absorbed by roots is
cell does it occur?
transported to aerial parts of the plant
w.

6. What is respiratory quotient? through

ww

7. Why should the light dependent reaction a) cortex b) epidermis

occur before the light independent reaction? c) phloem d) xylem
8. Write the reaction for photosynthesis?
3. During transpiration there is loss of
I Long answer questions
VII. a) carbon dioxide b) oxygen
1. Differentiate the following c) water d) none of the above
b))Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
4. Root hairs are
2. Describe and name three stages of cellular
respiration that aerobic organisms use to a) cortical cell b) projection of
obtain energy from glucose. epidermal cell
c) unicellular d) both b and c
3. How does the light dependent reaction
differ from the light independent reaction? 5. Which of the following process requires
What are the end product and reactants energy?
in each? Where does each reaction occur a) active transport b) diffusion
within the chloroplast? c) osmosis d) all of them

16
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8. A patient with blood group O was injured IV. State whether True or False. If false write
in an accident and has blood loss. Which the correct statement
group of blood should be used by doctor 1. The phloem is responsible for the
for transfusion? translocation of food.
a) O group b) AB group 2. Plants lose water by the process of
c) A or B group d) all blood group transpiration.
3. The form of sugar transported through the
9. ‘Heart of heart’ is called
phloem is glucose.
a)) SA node b)) AV node
4. In apoplastic movement the water travels
c)) Purkinje fibres d)) Bundle of His through the cell membrane and enter the cell.
10. Which one of the following shows correct 5. When guard cells lose water the stoma
composition of blood opens.
a)) Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte 6. Initiation and stimulation of heart beat
b)) Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen take place by nerves.

in
c)) Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC 8. WBC defend the body from bacterial and
viral infections.

s.
d)) Blood - Plasma + RBC+ WBC +Platelets
9. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid
II. Fill in the blanks

es
valves at the start of the ventricular systole
1. __________ involves evaporative loss of produces the fi st sound ‘LUBB’.
pr
water from aerial parts.
V. Answer in a word or sentence
2. Water enters into the root hair cell through 1. Name two layered protective covering of
ex

__________ membrane. human heart.

3. Part of the root that absorbs water from the 2. What is the shape of RBC in human blood?
vi

soil is __________. 3. Why is the colour of the blood red ?

l
ka

4. Normal blood pressure is __________. 5. Name the heart valve associated with the
major arteries leaving the ventricles.
5. The normal human heartbeat rate is about
w.

____________ time per minute.

VI. Short answer questions
III. Match the following
ww

1. What causes the opening and closing

Section I of guard cells of stomata during
1. Symplastic pathway - Leaf transpiration?
2. Transpiration - Plasmodesmata 3. Trace the pathway followed by water
3. Osmosis - Pressure in xylem molecules from the time it enters a
4. Root Pressure - Pressure gradient plant root to the time it escapes into the
atmosphere from a leaf.
Section II 4. What would happen to the leaves of a
1. Leukemia - Thrombocytes plant that transpires more water than its
absorption in the roots?
2. Platelets - Phagocyte
5. Describe the structure and working of the
3. Monocytes - Decrease in leucocytes
human heart.
4. Leucopenia - Blood Cancer
8. What is the importance of valves in the
5. AB blood group - Allergic condition
heart?
6. O blood group - Inflammation
9. Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it
7. Eosinophil - Absence of antigen
named so?
8. Neutrophils - Absence of antibody
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11 Why is the Sinoatrial node called the 2. Assertion: Persons with AB blood group
pacemaker of heart? are called an universal recipients, because
they can receive blood from all groups.
VII. Give reasons for the following statements
Reason: Antibodies are absent in persons
1. Minerals cannot be passively absorbed by with AB blood group.
the roots.
X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
2. Guard cells are responsible for opening and
closing of stomata. 1. When any dry plant material is kept in
3. The movement of substances in the phloem water, they swell up. Name and define the
can be in any direction. phenomenon involved in this change.
4. Minerals in the plants are not lost when the 2. Why are the walls of the left ventricle
leaf falls. thicker than the other chambers of the
heart?
5. The walls of the right ventricle are thicker
than the right auricles. 3. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound

in
of the heart. Why?
6. Mature RBC in mammals do not have cell
organelles. 5. Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants.

s.
Explain.
VIII. Long answer questions

es
1. How do plants absorb water? Explain.
16.Plant and Animal
pr
2. What is transpiration?Give the importance
Hormones
of transpiration.
ex

3. Why are leucocytes classifi d as

granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
each cell and mention its functions.
vi

4. Differentiate between systole and diastole. 2. The hormone which has positive effect on
l

Explain the conduction of heart beat. apical dominance is:

ka

5. Enumerate the functions of blood. a) Cytokinin b) Auxin

c) Gibberellin d) Ethylene
w.

IX. Assertion and Reasoning

Direction: In each of the following questions 3. Which one of the following hormones is
naturally not found in plants:
ww

a statement of assertion (A) is given and a

corresponding statement of reason (R) is given a) 2, 4-D b) GA3
just below it. Mark the correct statement as. c) Gibberellin d) IAA
a. If both A and R are true and R is correct 6. LH is secreted by
explanation of A a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland
b. If both A and R are true but R is not the c) Anterior pituitary d) Hypothalamus.
correct explanation of A
7. Identify the exocrine gland
c. A is true but R is false
a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal gland
d. Both A and R are false
c) Salivary gland d) Thyroid gland
1. Assertion: RBC plays an important role in
the transport of respiratory gases. 9. Which one is referred as “Master Gland”?
Reason: RBC do not have cell organelles a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland
and nucleus. c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland

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II Fill in the blanks 5. Pituitary gland is divided into four lobes.

1. _________ causes cell elongation, apical 6. Estrogen is secreted by corpus luteum.

dominance and prevents abscission.
V Assertion and Reasoning
5. The hormone which has negative effect on Direction: In each of the following questions
apical dominance is _________. a statement of assertion (A) is given and a
6. Calcium metabolism of the body is corresponding statement of reason (R) is given
controlled by _________. just below it. Mark the correct statement as.

8. The growth and functions of thyroid gland a. If both A and R are true and R is correct
is controlled by _________. explanation of A
9. Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones b. If both A and R are true but R is not the
in the children leads to _________. correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
III a) Match Column I with Columns II and III

in
d. Both A and R are false
Column I Column II Column III 1. Assertion: Application of cytokinin to

s.
marketed vegetables can keep them fresh
Auxin Gibberella Abscission

es
fujikuroi
for several days.
Reason: Cytokinins delay senescence of
Ethylene Coconut milk Internodal
pr
leaves and other organs by mobilisation of
elongation
nutrients.
ex

Abscisic acid Coleoptile tip Apical dominance 2. Assertion (A): Pituitary gland is referred
as “Master gland”.
Cytokinin Chloroplast Ripening
Reason (R): It controls the functioning of
vi

Gibberellins Fruits Cell division other endocrine glands.

l
ka

VI Answer in a word or sentence

III b) Match the following hormones with
2. Write the name of a synthetic auxin.
their deficiency states
w.

3. Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in

Hormones Disorders
tomatoes?
ww

a) Thyroxine - Acromegaly
4. What is the hormone responsible for the
b) Insulin - Tetany secretion of milk in female after child birth?
c) Parathormone - Simple goitre 5. Name the hormones which regulates water
d) Growth hormone - Diabetes insipidus and mineral metabolism in man.
e) ADH - Diabetes mellitus 6. Which hormone is secreted during
emergency situation in man?
IV State whether True or false, If false write
8. Name the endocrine glands associated with
the correct statement
kidneys.
1. A plant hormone concerned with
VII Short answer questions
stimulation of cell division and promotion
of nutrient mobilization is cytokinin. 1. What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
3. Ethylene retards senescence of leaves, 4. What will you do to prevent leaf fall and
flowers and fruits. fruit drop in plants? Support your answer
4. Exopthalmic goiter is due to the over with reason.
secretion of thyroxine. 5. What are chemical messengers?

19
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6. Write the differences between endocrine 4. The essential parts of a flower are
and exocrine gland. ___________ .
8. What are the hormones secreted by a)) Calyx and Corolla
posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? b)) Calyx and Androecium
Mention the tissues on which they exert c)) Corolla and Gynoecium
their effect.
d)) Androecium and Gynoecium
9. Why are thyroid hormones refered as
personality hormone? 6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed
10. Which hormone requires iodine for its by the division of ___________ .
formation? What will happen if intake of a)) generative cell
iodine in our diet is low? b)) vegetative cell
c)) microspore mother cell
VIII. Long answer questions
d)) microspore
1. (a) Name the gaseous plant hormone.

in
Describe its three different actions in plants. 7 What is true of gametes?
(b) Which hormone is known as stress a) They are diploid

s.
hormone in plants ? Why? b) They give rise to gonads

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4. Where are estrogens produced? What is the c)) They produce hormones
role of estrogens in the human body? d)) They are formed from gonads
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5. What are the conditions which occur due
8. A single highly coiled tube where sperms
to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the
are stored, get concentrated and mature is
conditions different from one another?
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known as
IX Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) a) Epididymis b) Vasa efferentia
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3. Senthil has high blood pressure, protruded c)) Vas deferens d) Seminiferous tubules
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eyeball and an increased body temperature. 9. The large elongated cells that provide
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Name the endocrine gland involved and

nutrition to developing sperms are
hormone secretion responsible for this
a)) primary germ cells b) Sertoli cells
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condition.
c) Leydig cells d) Spermatogonia
4. Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. Before
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the start of the exam , he sweats a lot, with 10 Estrogen is secreted by

increased rate of heart beat. Why does this a)) Anterior pituitary b) Primary follicle
condition occur? c)) Graffian follicle d)) Corpus luteum

17.Reproduction in II. Fill in the blanks

Plants and Animals 1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the
time of fertilization is ___________ .

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION 2. After fertilization the ovary develops into

___________ .

I. Choose the correct answer 4. Fertilization is __________ in humans

3. Syngamy results in the formation of IV. State whether the following statements are
_________ . True or False. Correct the false statement
a)) Zoospores b)) Conidia 6. Sex organs produce gametes which are
c)) Zygote d)) Chlamydospores diploid.

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7. LH is secreted by the posterior pituitary. VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
8. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy. 1. In angiosperms the pollen germinates
10. The increased level of estrogen to produce pollen tube that carries two
and progesterone is responsible for gametes. What is the purpose of carrying
menstruation. two gametes when single gamete can
fertilize the egg?
V. Answer in a word or sentence
2. Why menstrual cycle does not take place
1. If one pollen grain produces two male before puberty and during pregnancy ?
gametes, how many pollen grains are
needed to fertilize 10 ovules? 3. Read the following passage and answer
the questions that follow
2. In which part of the flower germination of
pollen grains takes place? Rahini and her parents were watching a
television programme. An advertisement
4. Mention the function of endosperm. flashed on the screen which was promoting
6. What is the enzyme present in acrosome use of sanitary napkins. Rahini’s parents
of sperm? suddenly changed the channel, but she

in
7. When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day objected to her parents and explained the
need and importance of such advertisement.

s.
observed?
a) What is first menstruation called?

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VI. Short answer question
When does it occur ?
4. Define triple fusion. b) List out the napkin hygiene measures
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6. Name the secondary sex organs in male taken during menstruation ?

8. How can menstrual hygiene be maintained c) Do you think that Rahini’s objection
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during menstrual days? towards her parents was correct? If so,

Why?
10. Identify the parts A, B, C and D
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A 18.Genetics
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D B

C
w.

11. Write the events involved in the sexual TEXTBOOK EVALUATION

reproduction of a flowering plant.
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a. Discuss the first event and write the types. I. Choose the correct answer
b. Mention the advantages and the 1. According to Mendel alleles have the
disadvantages of that event.
following character
12. Why are the human testes located outside a)) Pair of genes
the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in b)) Responsible for character
which they are present . c) Production of gametes
13. Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also d)) Recessive factors
called the secretory phase. Give reason.
2. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to
VII. Long answer questions
a) Segregation b) Crossing over
2. What are the phases of menstrual cycle? c)) Independent assortment d) Recessiveness
Indicate the changes in the ovary and uterus.
3. The region of the chromosome where
the spindle fibres get attached during cell
division
a)) Chromomere b)) Centrosome
21
c)) Centromere d)) Chromonema
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5. The _____________ units form the IV. Match the following

backbone of the DNA.
1.. Autosomes - Trisomy 21
a)) 5 Carbon sugar b) Phosphate 2.. Diploid condition - 9:3:3:1
c)) Nitrogenous bases d) Sugar phosphate 3.. Allosome - 22 pair of chromosome
6. Okasaki fragments are joined together by 4.. Down’s syndrome - 2n
___________________. 5.. Dihybrid ratio - 23rd pair of chromosome
a)) Helicase b)) DNA polymerase
c)) RNA primer d)) DNA ligase V. Answer in a sentence

7. The number of chromosomes found in 1. What is a cross in which inheritance of

human beings are __________________. two pairs of contrasting characters are
studied?
a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of
allosomes. 2. Name the conditions when both the alleles
b)) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome are identical?

in
c)) 46 autosomes 3. A garden pea plant produces axial white
d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of fl wers. Another of the same species

s.
allosomes. produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the
dominant trait?

es
II. Fill in the blanks
4. What is the name given to the segments
1. The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of
of DNA, which are responsible for the
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Mendel are called _________.
inheritance of a particular character?
2. Physical expression of a gene is called
5. Name the bond which binds the nucleotides
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_________
3. The thin thread like structures found in a DNA.
in the nucleus of each cell are called
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_________.
VI. Short answers questions
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4. DNA consists of two ____________ chains

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1. Why did Mendel select pea plant for his

III. Identify whether the statement are experiments?
w.

True or False. Correct the false statement 2. What do you understand by the term
1. A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F2 phenotype and genotype?
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generation is 3:1. 4. What are Okazaki fragments?

2. A recessive factor is altered by the presence 6. A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure
of a dominant factor. dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F1 and F2
3. Each gamete has only one allele of a gene. generations? Explain.
4. Hybrid is an off pring from a cross between 7. Explain the structure of a chromosome.
genetically different parent. 8. Label the parts of the DNA in the diagram
5. S ome of the chromosomes have an given below. Explain the structure briefly.
elongated knob-like appendages known as
telomere.
6. New nucleotides are added and new
complementary strand of DNA is formed
with the help of enzyme DNA polymerase.

22
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VII. Long answer questions 19.Origin and Evolution

1. Explain with an example the inheritance of Life
of dihybrid cross. How is it different from
monohybrid cross?
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
2. How is the structure of DNAorganised?
What is the biological significance of DNA? I. Choose the correct answer
3. The sex of the new born child is a matter of
1. Biogenetic law states that ______________
chance and neither of the parents may be
considered responsible for it. What would be a..Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
the possible fusion of gametes to determine b. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
the sex of the child? c..Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
d. There is no relationship between
I Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
VIII. phylogeny and ontogeny

in
1. Flowers of the garden pea are bisexual and
self-pollinated. Therefore, it is difficult to 2. The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed

s.
perform hybridization experiment by crossing by ______________.

es
a particular pistil with the specific pollen a..Charles Darwin
grains. How Mendel made it possible in his b.Ernst Haeckel
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monohybrid and dihybrid crosses? c.. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
2. Pure-bred tall pea plants are fi st crossed with d. Gregor Mendel
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pure-bred dwarf pea plants. The pea plants

5. The term Ethnobotany was coined by
obtained in F1 generation are then selfed to
produce F2 generation of pea plants. a. Khorana b. J.W. Harsbberger
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c. Ronald Ross d. Hugo de Vries

a. What do the plants of F1 generation look
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ka

like?
II Fill in the blanks
b. What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf
1. The characters developed by the animals
w.

plants in F2 generation?
during their life time, in response to
c. Which type of plants were missing the environmental changes are called
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in F1 generation but reappeared in F2 ______________.

generation?
4. The theory of natural selection for
3. Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family
evolution was proposed by ____________.
members say that she can give birth to only
female babies because of her family history. III State true or false. Correct the false
Is the statement given by her family members statements
true. Justify your answer. 1. The use and disuse theory of organs’ was
IX. Value based question postulated by Charles Darwin.

1. Under which conditions does the law of 3. Birds have evolved from reptiles.
independent assortment hold good and VI Short answers questions
why?
3. Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
VII Long answer questions
1. Natural selection is a driving force for
evolution-How?
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5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil,

20.Breeding and
but _________ is a rice variety produced
Biotechnology by mutation breeding that grows well in
saline soil.
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION III State whether true or false. If false, write
the correct statement
1. Raphano brassica is a man-made tetraploid
I Choose the correct answer produced by colchicine treatment.
1. Which method of crop improvement can be 2. The process of producing an organism
practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced? with more than two sets of chromosome
a.. Clonal selection b. mass selection is called mutation.
c.. Pureline selection d. hybridisation 4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the
2. Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of protein quality of the cultivated plant
_________.

in
V Understand the assertion statement,
a.. Sugarcane b. rice justify the reason given and choose the

s.
c.. Cow pea d. aize correct choice
3. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and a. Assertion is correct and reason is wrong

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selection for disease resistance against b. Reason is correct and the assertion is
rust pathogens is a variety of __________. wrong
pr
a.. Chilli b. Maize c. Both assertion and reason is correct
c.. Sugarcane d. Wheat d. Both assertion and reason is wrong.
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1. Assertion: Hybrid is superior than either

5. Which of the following is used to of its parents.
vi

produce products useful to humans by Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon

biotechnology techniques? inbreeding.
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a.. enzyme from organism 2. Assertion: Colchicine reduces the

b. live organism chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of
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c.. Vitamins
sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
d. Both (a) and (b)
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VI Answer in a sentence
10. In a hexaploid wheat( 2n = 6 x = 42 ) the
1. Give the name of wheat variety having
haploid (n) and the basic(x) number of
higher dietary fibre and protein.
chromosomes respectively are
a.. n = 7 nd x = 21 b. n = 21 and x = 21 VII Short answers questions
c.. n = 7 nd x = 7 d. n = 21 nd x = 7 1. Discuss the method of breeding for disease
resistance.
II Fill in the blanks
3. Name two maize hybrids rich in amino
1. Economically important crop plants with acid lysine
superior quality are raised by_________. 4. Distinguish between
2. A protein rich wheat variety is ________. a. somatic gene therapy and germ line
3. __________is the chemical used for gene therapy
doubling the chromosomes. b. undifferentiated cells and differentiated
cells
4. The scientific process which produces crop
plants enriched with desirable nutrients is 7. Differentiate between outbreeding and
called __________. inbreeding.

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VIII Long answers questions IV. Match the following

1. What are the effects of hybrid vigour in 1. Sarcoma - Stomach cancer
animals. 2. Carcinoma - Excessive thirst
2. Describe mutation breeding with an example. 3. Polydipsia - Excessive hunger
3. Biofortification may help in removing 4. Polyphagia - Lack of blood flow to
hidden hunger. How? heart muscle
5. Myocardial - Connective tissue
5. Discuss the importance of biotechnology Infarction cancer
in the field of medicine.
V. Fill in the blanks
IX Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
2. A highly poisonous chemicals derived from
2. Organic farming is better than Green tobacco is _________________
Revolution. Give reasons
VI. Analogy type questions. Identify the
3. Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. first words and their relationship and

in
Justify your answer. suggest a suitable word for the fourth
blank

s.
21.Health and 1. Communicable: AIDS: Non communicable:
Diseases ___________

es
VII. Answer in a sentence
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION 3. What are the contributing factors for Obesity?
5. What is metastasis?
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I. Choose the correct answer

1. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate VIII. Short answer questions
vi

secretion of adrenaline. The component 2. How is a cancer cell different from a normal
causing this could be cell ?
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a)) Nicotine b)) Tannic acid

IX. Long answer questions
c)) Curcumin d)) Leptin 1. Suggest measures to overcome the problems
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2. World 'No Tobacco Day' is observed on of an alcoholic.

a)) May 31 b)) June 6 X. Higher Order Thi king Skills (HOTS)
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c)) April 22 d)) October 2 2. Eating junk food and consuming soft drinks
8. Metastasis is associated with results in health problems like obesity, still
a)) Malignant tumour b) Benign tumour children prefer. What are the suggestions
c)) Both (a) and (b) d) Crown gall tumour you would give to avoid children eating
junk food/ consumption of soft drinks?
II. State whether True or False, if false write 3. Regular physical exercise is advisable for
the correct statement normal functioning of human body. What
1. AIDS is an epidemic disease. are the advantages of practising exercise in
3. Obesity is characterized by tumour daily life?
formation. XI. Value based questions
9. Nicotine is a narcotic drug. 1. Once a person starts taking drugs or alcohol
III. Expand the following abbreviations it is difficult to get rid of the habit. Why ?

2. HIV 3. BMI 4. AIDS

25
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XII.
I Assertion and Reasoning VIII.
I Assertion and Reasoning
In each of the following questions, a statement In each of the following question a statement
of Assertion is given and a corresponding of assertion(A) is given and a corresponding
statement of Reason is given just below it. statement of reason (R). Of the four statements
Of statements given below mark the correct given below mark the correct answer.
answer as
a. Both assertion and reason are true and
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true
reason is correct explanation of assertion.
and Reason is the correct explanation of
b. Both assertion and reason are true but
Assertion
reason is not the correct explanation of
b. If both Assertion and Reason are true that
assertion.
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Asssertion c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
c. Assertion is true but Reason is false d. Both assertion and reason are false.
d. Both Assertion and Reason are false
1. Assertion: Rainwater harvesting is to

in
1. Assertion: All drugs act on the brain. collect and store rain water.
Reason: Drugs disturb the functioning of

s.
Reason: Rainwater can be directed to
the body and mind.
recharge the underground water source.

es
22.Environmental 2. Assertion: Energy efficient bulbs like CFL
Management must be used to save electric energy.
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Reason: CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary
bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION our money.

vi

I. Fill in the blanks

l

5. Tidal energy is ___________ type of energy.

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II. State whether True or False.

Correct the statements which are false
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4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy.

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III.
I Match the following
1. Soil erosion - energy saving
2. Bio gas - acid rain
3. Natural gas - removal of vegetation
4. Green house gas - renewable energy
5. CFL bulbs - CO2
6. Wind - non-renewable energy
7. Solid waste - lead and heavy metals
V. Answer in a sentence
6. How are e-wastes generated?
VI.
I Short answer questions
1. What is the importance of rainwater
harvesting?

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