DAV PUBLIC SCHOOLS, ODISHA ZONE

QUESTION BANK
SUB: SCIENCE CLASS -IX (2023-24)
TEXT BOOKS: NCERT SCIENCE STD -IX
NCERT EXAMPLAR CLASS IX SCIENCE
EXAM SCHEDULE 2023-24
NAME OF THE DATE FULL MARKS
EXAM
PRIODIC 1 DECEMBER TO 9 40
ASSESSMENT-III DECEMBER 2023

SYLLABUS
CHAPTER Periodic Assessment-III Marks (40
Marks)
Atoms and molecules (From page number 33 10
Ch: 3
to 40-excluding mole concept)
Structure of Atom (Page number 46 & 47- 3
Ch: 4
excluding Rutherford’s model of an atom)
Tissue (Complex permanent tissue and Animal 14
Ch:6
tissue, Page no-73 to 79)
Ch.10 Work and Energy 13

TYPOLOGY OF QUESTIONS
1 MCQ 1 MARK
2 ASSERTION AND REASON BASED 1 MARK
QUESTIONS
3 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-I 2 MARKS
4 SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-II 3 MARKS
5 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION 5 MARKS
6 CASE BASED QUESTIONS 4 MARKS

CH--- 3 : ATOMS AND MOLECULES

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1.Molecular mass of Baking Soda is
(a) 56u (b) 84u (c)100u (d) 80u
2. Oxygen: diatomic , Ozone :_______
(a) Monoatomic (b) Triatomic (c)Diatomic (d)Tetra atomic
3. An element X has valency equal to 3. What will be its formula with carbonate ions?
(a) X2(CO3)3 (b) X2CO3 (c) XCO3 (d)X(CO3)3
4. Which of the following is a correct statement:
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 (a) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphide, Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
(b) Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphate, Na2SO4 is sodium sulphite
(c) Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite, Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
(d) Na2S is sodium sulphite, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite, Na2SO4 is sodium sulphide
5. Percentage of phosphorous in calcium phosphate is
(a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 20 (d) 36
6. An element X is tetravalent and another element Y is divalent. The compound formed by
these two elements will be:
(a) XY (b) XY2 (c) X2Y (d)XY4
7. Two chemical species X and Y combine together to form a product P . X + Y  P, X and Y
cannot be broken down into simpler substances by simple chemical reactions. Which of the
following concerning the species X, Y and P are correct?
I. P is a compound. II. X and Y are compounds.
III. X and Y are elements. IV. P has a fixed composition.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, and IV
(c) II, III, and IV (d) I, III, and IV
8. Atomic number of three elements A, B and C are 9, 10 and 13. Which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) A and C will form cations.
(b) A will form an anion and C will form a cation.
(c) B will form a cation and A will form an anion.
(d) B and C will form anions.
9. The unit for measuring atomic radius is
(a) Kg (b) Angstrom (c) mm (d)nm
10. A particle X has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 18 electrons. This particle is most likely to
be
(a) A Cation (b) An Anion (c) A Molecule (d) A Compound
11. An element Z has valency of 3. Select the formula of oxide of Z.
(a) Z2O (b) Z2O3 (c) ZO3 (d) Z3O
12. Names of the elements present in lime stone
(a) Calcium, Carbon, Oxygen (b) Calcium, Oxygen
(c) Calcium, Sulphur, Oxygen (d) Calcium, Carbon, Sulphur
13. Which of the following is not a polyatomic ion?
(a) Ammonium (b) Nitrate (c) Bromide (d) Hydroxide
14. The number of atoms constituting a molecule is known as its atomicity. Then
atomicity of helium is
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
15. The name of compound represented by the formulae Al2(SO3)3 is
(a) Aluminium sulphide (b) Aluminium sulphate
(c) Ammonium sulphide (d) Aluminium sulphite
-
16. The number of atoms present in NO3 ion are
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

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 17. An element with symbol Ba is
(a) Boron (b) Bromine (c) Barium (d) Beryllium
18. Sulphur and Phosphorus molecules have the symbol, respectively as
(a) S4, P4 (b) S8, P8 (c) S8, P4 (d) S4, P8
19. An element M forms the oxide M2O3. The formula of its phosphate will be
(a) M2PO4 (b) M3PO4 (c) MPO4 (d) M2(PO4)3
3+
20. An ion M contains 10 electrons and 14 neutrons. The atomic number and mass number
of the element M respectively will be
(a) 10, 24 (b) 13, 24 (c) 13, 27 (d) 10,27

ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

The following questions consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion : The molecular mass of CH4 is 16u.

Reason : The word formula unit is used for those substances whose constituent particles
are ions.
2. Assertion : The atomicities of ozone, sulphur and argon are 3, 8 and 1 respectively.
Reason : The number of atoms constituting a molecule is known as its atomicity.
3. Assertion : The formula of Magnesium Chloride is MgCl.
Reason : One Mg atom donates two electrons to form Mg2+ ion and two chlorine atoms
gain two electrons to form the compound.
4. Assertion : The combining capacity of an element is known as its valency.
Reason : In CCl4, valency of carbon is 4 and Cl is 2.
5. Assertion : Atomic mass of aluminium is 27u.
Reason : An atom of aluminium is 27 times heavier than 1/12th of the mass of carbon-12
isotope.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-I (2 MARKS)
1. Write the chemical formulae for the following compounds and find the ratio by mass of
the combining elements in each one of them.
(H = 1u, C = 12u, O = 16u, S = 32u).
(a) Methane (b)Hydrogen sulphide
2. Calculate the molecular mass of the following:-
(a) Chlorine gas (b) Ammonia gas
(Given atomic mass of Cl = 35.5 u, N = 14 u, H = 1u)
3. Write the formulae of two divalent cations and two divalent anions .
4. Write formula for the following: (a) Zinc sulphate (b) Ammonium carbonate.

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 5. Which of the following are tri-atomic and tetra-atomic molecules?
CH3Cl, CaCl2, NH3, PCl3, P2O5, H2O, C2H5OH
6. Write the cations and anions present (if any) in the following compounds:
(a) CH3COONa (b) NaCl
(c) H2 (d) NH4NO3
7. The ratio by mass for hydrogen and oxygen in water is given as 1: 8 respectively.
Calculate the ratio by number of atoms for a water molecule.
8. Give the atomicity of the following compounds:
(a) Ca(OH)2 (b) Mg(HCO3)2
(c) MgCl2 (d)Al2(SO4)3
9. A bicarbonate of sodium is found to contain sodium, hydrogen, carbon and oxygen
combined together in the ratio of 23:1:12: 48 by mass. Derive the formula of the
bicarbonate and name it.
10. What is the mass percentage of different elements in CaCO 3?
(Atomic mass: Ca = 40, O = 16).
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-II (3 MARKS)
1. Write the chemical formulae of the following compounds by criss cross method
(a)Ammonium Chloride (b) Potassium dichromate (c) Sodium oxalate
2. An element ‘Y’ forms an oxide whose chemical formulae is Y2O3
(a)State the valency of Y.
(b)Write the chemical formulae of its: (a) Sulphate and (b) Chloride.
3. Write the names of the elements present in the following compounds
(a) Quick lime (b) Baking Soda (c) Lime stone
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (5 MARKS)
1. (i) If calcium salt of anion has formula Ca3X2, what is the valency of X?
Write the formula of
(a) Sodium salt of X and (b) Aluminium salt of X.
(ii) An element M has valency 2. Write the formulae of its hydroxide and nitride.
(iii) The formula of magnesium sulphate is MgSO4. Write the formula of
magnesium bicarbonate and magnesium nitride.
2. Write the chemical formula for the following compounds and compute the ratio by
mass of the combining elements in each of them
(a) Ammonia (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Magnesium Sulphide
3. Write the molecular formulae of all the compounds that can be formed by the
combination of the following ions.
Cu2+, Na+, Fe3+, Cl-, SO42-, PO43-

CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

1. We generally come across two types of compounds , one called ionic compounds and
other called molecular compounds. The first fundamental requirement to study these

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compounds is to know how we write the chemical formulae of these compounds. Ionic
compounds consist of positive and negative ions. Each ions carries a definite amount of
charge called valency of the ion. Knowing the symbols or formulae of the ions involved and
their valencies, the formula of the compound formed between them can be written. In
molecular compounds, as there are no ions present , the valencies of the elements involved
(generally non-metals) are their combining capacities found by combination of H, Cl or O
atoms.
(a) Write the symbol of one polyatomic cation and one polyatomic anion.
(b) Write the formula of calcium phosphate.
(c) The sulphate of an element M has he formula MSO 4 , what will be the formula of its
nitrate and carbonate.
OR
(c) Write the formulae of each
(i) Polyatomic cation (ii) Monoatomic anion
2. As more and more elements were discovered , it became very important to give appropriate
names and symbols to different elements. Though the names of most of the elements have
been taken from English , there are some elements which get their names from Latin, German
or Greek. Further, when the elements combine, they form molecules or compounds. The next
important study was how to write the formulae of these molecules or compounds. For this
purpose,the concept of valency was introduced.
(a) Why is the symbol of silver written as Ag?
(b) What do you mean by saying the molecular mass of oxygen is 32?
(c) What do you mean by Divalent cation and divalent anion? Why should NaCl be
better represented as (NaCl)n
OR
(c )Write the symbols of the following ions along with their charges:
(i) Oxalate ion (ii) Permanganate ion

CH---4 : STRUCTURE OF ATOM

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1.Thomson’s atomic model suggests that atoms are made up of which two types of
particles?
(a) Protons and neutrons (b) Electrons and neutrons
(c) Protons and electrons (d) Electrons and positrons
2. Which of the following properties is the correct about the cathode rays
(a) They are made up of positively charged particles
(b) They are made up of negatively charged particles
(c) They are made up of neutral particles
(d) They are made up of a mixture of charged particles.

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 3. The proton has a charge equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to that of
(a) neutron (b) deuterons (c) electron (d) canal rays
4. For a cathode ray discharge tube, which of the following conditions is appropriate?
(a) High voltage , low pressure (b) Low voltage , low pressure
(c) Low voltage , high pressure (d) High voltage , high pressure
5. What is the mass of a neutron in terms of the mass of electrons?
(a) 1838 times the mass of an electron
(b) 1/1838 times the mass of an electron
(c ) 1832 times the mass of an electron
(d) 1/1832 times the mass of an electron
6. Which of the following is not correct about anode rays?
(a) Anode rays are also called canal rays (b) Anode rays do not originate from anode
(c) Particles of anode rays always carry the same charge and same mass
(d) Protons are nothing but ionized hydrogen atoms
ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
The following questions consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion : No current flows between the electrodes of the discharge tube if the gas
inside is taken at atmospheric pressure even when high voltage is applied.
Reason : No ionisation of the gas takes place at atmospheric pressure.
2. Assertion: Anode rays originate from anode in a discharge rube.
Reason: Cathode rays ionize the gas present in the discharge tube.
3.Assertion: Cathode rays get deflected towards the positive plate of electric field.
Reason: Cathode rays consist of negatively charged particles known as electrons.
4. Assertion: Atom is electrically neutral.
Reason: A neutral particle , neutron is present in the nucleus of atom.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-I (2 MARKS)

1. Explain Thomson’s model of atom. Mention its drawbacks.
2. What are the actual values of charge and mass of electrons?
3. What should be the pressure inside the discharge tube and what should be the
voltage applied to obtain cathode rays?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-II (3 MARKS)
1. Define canal rays. Mention any three properties of canal rays.
2. Write any three properties of Cathode rays.

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 CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)
On the occasion of Diwali, Renu's mother made rice pudding and she asked Renu to
spread dry fruits randomly over the pudding. Renu learnt in her chemistry class about a
model of atom which can be represented by her mother’s rice pudding.

(a)Name the atomic model which resembles with rice pudding

(b) Dry fruits in the pudding represents which charge particles?
(c) Write the postulates of the Atomic model.
OR
(c ) Name the subatomic particles which was not mentioned in the above model of Atom.
Write the drawback of this model.

PORTION TO BE TAUGHT AFTER PA 3 EXAMINATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. The mass number A, atomic number Z and number of neutrons n are related as
(a) n =A - Z (b) n= A + Z (c) n =A X Z (d) none of these
2. Rutherford’s alpha (α) particles scattering experiment’ resulted in to discovery of
(a) Electron (b) Proton (c) Nucleus in the atom (d)Atomic mass
3. The number of electrons in an element X is 11 and the number of neutrons is12. Which of
the following is the correct representation of the element?
(a) 11 X 23 (b) 23 X 11 (c) 11 X 11 (d)11 X 12
4. A cation has a positive charge because
(a) there are more protons than neutrons
(b) the neutrons in the nucleus are charged
(c) there are lesser electrons than protons
(d) there are more electrons than protons
5. Elements with valency 2 are
(a) always metals (b) always metalloids
(c) either metals or non-metals (d)always non-metals

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 6. An atom with 10 protons and 10 neutrons will have a valency of
(a)3 (b)7 (c)1 (d)0
7. Maximum number of electrons which can be filled in the fourth shell of an atom is
(a)30 (b)35 (c)33 (d)32
8. The charge on the atom having 8 protons, 10 electrons is
(a)+2 (b) -2 (c) -1 (d) zero
9. The formula of a molecule is A2 . One molecule of A2 contains 16 protons. If the nucleon
number of A is 18, how many neutrons are there in one atom of X ?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d)10
10. A and B are the two atomic species: Atom Number of protons Number of neutrons
Atom Number of protons Number of
neutrons
A 6 6
B 6 8
Select the correct statement about A and B .
(a) A and B are isobars (b)A and B have different chemical properties
(c) A and have different physical properties
(d) A and B are the atoms of different elements

ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

The following questions consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): Most of the fast moving α-particles passed straight through the gold foil.
Reason (R) : Most of the space inside the atom is empty.
2. Assertion (A): Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons, are
allowed inside the atom.
Reason (R) : The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.
3. Assertion (A): Valency is the combining capacity of an atom.
Reason (R) : Isotopes are atoms of the same element, which have same mass numbers.
4. Assertion (A): Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of
the atomic number.
Reason (R) : Some of the α-particles were deflected by the gold foil by small angles.
5. Assertion (A): Cathode rays travel in straight lines.
Reason (R) : Cathode rays do not penetrate through thin sheets.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-I (2 MARKS)

1.Mention any two points Rutherford put forward to explain the nuclear model of an atom.
2.Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species A and B are given as under :
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 Element ( A) : Protons -17
Neutrons-18
Element ( B) : Protons -17
Neutrons-20
( a) What are the mass numbers of A and B ?
( b) How are they related to each other ?
3.The atomic number of Al is 13 and that of Cl is 17 . How many electrons, protons,
neutrons are present in a Al 3+ and Cl - ions?
4.State the characteristics of nucleus of an atom.
5.Why do helium, neon and argon have a zero valency ?
6.Why is atomic mass of chlorine taken as 35.5 u and not a whole number like 35 u or
36u?
7.Write the molecular formula for the following compounds :
(a) Copper (II) bromide (b)Iron (III) sulphide
(c) Aluminium (III) nitrate (d)Calcium (II) phosphate
8. (a) Which type of elements emit Alpha particles ?
(b) What are canal rays ?
9. (a) In the atom of an element X, 6 electrons are present in the outermost shell. If it
acquires a noble gas configuration by accepting a requisite number of electrons, then what
would be the charge on the ion so formed?
(b) When an atom is called electrically neutral ?
10. (a) Why chemical properties of all the isotopes of an element are same?
(b) Name the isotopes used in the treatment of goitre and cancer.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-II (3 MARKS)
1. For an elements ' X', it is given that atomic number=17 .
(i) Write the electronic configuration of the element X .
(ii) Find its valency.
(iii) What will be the formula of the compound formed between X(above ) and Y
having valency 3 ?
2. Two elements ' T' and ' Q' combine in ratio of 3:8 by mass and the compound 'R' is
formed. R is one of the essential components of photosynthesis to take place. If R is also
one of the green house gases, then
(i) Identify T,Q and R
(ii) How many electrons are needed to complete the octet of Q .
(iii) Write the electronic configuration of P and Q.
3.On the basis of the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the samples given
Below

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 Sample Protons Neutrons Electrons
A 11 12 10
B 6 6 6
C 20 20 20
D 18 22 18
E 6 8 6
Identify (a) the cation
(b) the pair of isobars
(c) the pair of isotopes
4. (i) Mention the number of electrons in Al 3+ and Cl--.
(ii) From Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment, give the experimental
evidence for deriving the conclusions that:
(a) most of the space inside the atom is empty.
(b) the nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
5. The given figure depicts the atomic structure of an atom of an elements 'X'

Write the following information about the element 'X'.

(a) Atomic number of 'X'. (b) Atomic mass of X
(c)Valence electrons of X. (d) Valency of X
(e) X should be metal or non metal (f) Name the element X.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (5 MARKS)

1 (i) Both helium and beryllium have two electrons in the Valence shells. Helium is a
noble gas whereas beryllium is a metal, justify.
(ii) Hydrogen exists in three isotopic forms . Why are the isotopes of hydrogen
chemically alike?
(iii)Name the isotope used to treat:
(a) Goitre (ii)Cancer
(iv) Study the composition of two nuclei of two atomic species L and M
L= protons 20, neutrons 20
M= protons 18, neutrons 22
Give the relation between the two.

2. (i) Copper is available in two isotopes such as 6329 Cu (69.15%) and 6529Cu (30.85%).
Calculate the average atomic mass of copper.

10
 (ii) State the postulates of Bohr's atomic model.
3.(i) State the limitations of Rutherford model of an atom.
(ii) Define valency by taking the example of oxygen.
(iii) Mg +2 has completely filled K and L shells. Find its atomic number.
(iv) Isotopes have similar chemical properties but they differ in physical properties
.Explain.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)
1. Bohr theory modified the atomic structure model by explaining that electrons move in
fixed orbitals (shells) and not anywhere in between and he also explained that each orbit
(shell) has a fixed energy. Rutherford explained the nucleus of an atom and Bohr modified
that model into electrons and their energy levels. Bohr’s model consists of a small nucleus
(positively charged) surrounded by negative electrons moving around the nucleus in orbits.
Bohr found that an electron located away from the nucleus has more energy, and the
electron which is closer to nucleus has less energy.
(a)Find out the valency of the atoms represented by the figures (a) and (b).

(b) Mention the atonic numbers of the two atoms represented above.
(c) List Bohr-Bury rules for distribution of electrons in different shells.(any two)
OR
(c)Calculate the number of electrons , neutrons and valency an atom of an element
with atomic number 16 and mass number 32. Write the electronic configuration of the atom .
2.

Using mass number of the above elements answer following questions:

(a)Write the number of isotopes of cobalt.
(b)Calculate number of neutron in cobalt-55(atomic number of cobalt=27)
(c)Define isobar. Write the possible isobar by using Box A, B and C
OR
(c)Define isotope. Write one use of cobalt isotope.
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ANSWERS (CH—ATOMS AND MOLECULES)
MCQ
1. (b) 84u
2. (b) Triatomic
3. (a) X2(CO3)3
4. (c)Na2S is sodium sulphide, Na2SO3 is sodium sulphite, Na2SO4 is sodium sulphate
5. (c) 20
6. (b) XY2
7. (c) II, III, and IV
8. (b) A will form an anion and C will form a cation.
9. (b) Angstrom
10. (b) Z2O3
11. (a) Calcium, Carbon, Oxygen
12. (a) Calcium, Carbon, Oxygen
13. (c) Bromide
14. (d) 1
15. (d) Aluminium sulphite
16. (a) 4
17. (c) Barium
18. (c) S8, P4
19. (c) MPO4
20. (c) 13, 27
ASSERTION AND REASON
1. (d) A is false but R is true.
2. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
3. (d) A is false but R is true.
4. (c) A is true but R is false.
5. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

CH—STRUCTURE OF ATOM
MCQ
1. (c) Protons and electrons
2. (b) They are made up of negatively charged particles
3. (c) electron
4. (a) High voltage , low pressure
5. (a) 1838 times the mass of an electron
6. (c) Particles of anode rays always carry the same charge and same mass
ASSERTION AND REASON
1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. (d) A is false but R is true.
3. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
4. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

12
PORTION TO BE TAUGHT AFTER PA3 EXAMINATION
MCQ
1. (a) n =A – Z
2. (c) Nucleus in the atom
3. (a) 11 X 23
4. (c) there are lesser electrons than protons
5. (c) either metals or non-metals
6. (d)0
7. (d)32
8.(b) -2
9.(d)10
10.(c)A and have different physical properties
ASSERTION AND REASON
1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. (c) A is true but R is false.
4. (d) A is false but R is true.
5. (c) A is true but R is false.
XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX

CHAPTER 6 :TISSUE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1.Intestine absorbs digested food. The type of epithelial tissue responsible is
(a)stratified squamous (b) cuboidal
(c) columnar (d) ciliated
2.Movement of passage of food in the intestine is caused by the contraction of
(a) cardiac muscle (b) striated muscle
(c) unstriated muscle (d) nerve tissue
3. A tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the sideways conduction of water in
the branches is
(a) tracheid (b) vessel
(c) xylem parenchyma (d) xylem fibre
4. Which if the following is NOT the characteristic feature of smooth muscle fibre ?
(a) The bear a central nucleus (b) These fibres are cylindrical in shape.
(c) The are present in internal organs (d)They are involuntary in nature
5. Identify X and Y in the given chart.

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 (a) X-Erythrocytes, Y-Leucocytes (b) X-Granulocytes, Y-Granulophils
(c) X-Granulocytes, Y-Agranulocyte (d) X-Agranulocytes, Y-Granulocyte
6. Identify the part that receives stimuli.

(a) b--dendrite (b) c--axon (c) d--cell body (d) a--dendrite

7. The image shows a setup of an experiment.

The image shows a setup of an experiment.

A student takes a leafy green Balsam plant and places it in Eosin solution. The solution is a
red coloured dye. After 4 hours, the student observes that the red colour appears on the parts
of the plant body. The tissue that is responsible for these changes is depicted in the option.
(a)xylem as it helps in the movement of water from roots to stem and leaves.
(b)phloem as it helps in the movement of water from roots to stem and leaves.
(c)xylem as it helps in the movement of water from leaves to roots and stem.
(d)phloem as it helps in movement of water from leaves to roots and stem.
8. The image shows the structure of two type of muscles that are present in two different
locations in the human body. Based on their location, find the conclusion about their
function.
(a)Both the muscles protect body organs.
(b)Both the muscles show voluntary movements.
(c)Both the muscles help in movement of body.
(d)Both the muscles show involuntary movements.
9. The image shows the structure of a specialised
epithelium.
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From the above diagram identify the type of epithelial tissue and its function.
(a)Glandular epithelial tissue, function--secretion of substances.
(b)Columnar epithelial tissue, function--protection from wear and tear.
(c) Cuboidal epithelial tissue, function--restrict movement of the tissue.
(d)Squamous epithelial tissue, function--transport of substances across permeable surface
10. Choose the wrong statement.
(a) The nature of matrix differs according to the functions of the tissue.
(b) Fats are stored below the skin and in between the internal organs.
(c) Epithelial tissues have intercellular spaces between them.
(d) Striated muscle tissue is multi nucleated and branched.
ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
The following questions consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): Nerve cells are design to transmit impulses across long distances at high
speed.
Reasoning (R): Dendrites are the finger like cells present on the cell body of neuron.
2. Assertion (A): Heart is made up of special type of tissues called as cardiac muscles.
Reasoning: Heart has 4 chambers for circulation of blood.
3.Assertion(A): Non striated muscles are said to be involuntary in nature.
Reason(R): Non -striated muscles can be moved according to will.
4. Assertion(A): Tissue that forms the inner lining of the mouth is called squamous
epithelium.
Reason(R): Cells of squamous epithelial tissue are flat .
5. Assertion(A): Surface of skin is impervious to water.
Reason(R): Surface of skin is covered by stratified squamous epithelium.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-I (2 MARKS)
1.Vascular tissue is the distinctive feature of the complex plants. Justify.
2.(a) On what factor the matrix of the connective tissue depends?
(b) Mention the characteristics of connective tissue.

15
3. Distinguish between tendon and ligament.
4. (a) Identify the tissue,
(b) How does it help in kidney?

5. Animals of colder regions and fishes of cold water have thicker layer of
subcutaneous fat. Give reason.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION-II (3 MARKS)
1.(a) Identify A and B.

(b) Differentiate between them based

on their matrix and nature.

2. Give reason
(a) It is easy to remove inner cheek cells but not skin.
(b) We push the mucus out of our respiratory tract easily.
(c) Animals move rapidly with response to stimuli.
3. (a)Identify the given tissue and label A and C.
(b)State three functions of this tissue.
4. Name the tissue.
(a)Tissue that forms the inner lining of mouth.
(b) Connective tissue whose matrix has sugar and
protein.
(c) Connective tissue that has fluid matrix.

5. Study the given diagram and answer.

(a) Identify A and B.
(b) Mention one similarity between them with respect to their cell
wall.
(c) How do they help higher plants.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (5 MARKS)

1.Study the diagram and answer the following:
(a) Identify the tissue.
(b) Label B, C and D.
(c) State one structural and one functional similarity
between B and D.
(d) Mention the function of cell C.

CASE STUDY QUESTION (4 MARKS)

16
 1. Muscle tissues are soft tissues that make up
the different types of muscles in most
animals, and give the ability of muscles to
contract. It is also referred to as my
propulsive tissue. Muscle tissue is formed
during embryonic development.
(a)Identify A and B.
(b)Write two specific features of tissue A which is not found in tissue B and C.
(c)Differentiate between B and C.
OR
State the location of tissue B and C in human body.
ANSWERS (MCQ)
1. (c) columnar
2. (c) unstriated muscle
3. (c) xylem parenchyma
4. (b) These fibres are cylindrical in shape.
5. (c) X-Granulocytes, Y-Agranulocyte
6. (d) a—dendrite
7. (a)xylem as it helps in the movement of water from roots to stem and leaves.
8. (d)Both the muscles show involuntary movements.
9. (a)Glandular epithelial tissue, function--secretion of substances.
10. (c) Epithelial tissues have intercellular spaces between them.
ASSERTION /REASON (ANSWERS)
1. (c) A is true but R is false.
2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
4. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
5. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

CHAPTER-WORK AND ENERGY

CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION (MCQS)
1. Which of the following is not the unit of energy ?
(a) joule (b) newton metre (c) newton metre/sec (d) kilowatt hour
2. When the momentum of a body increases by 100%,its KE increases by
(a)100% (b)200% (c)300% (d)400%
3. A 1 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 1 joule when its speed is:
(a) 0.45m/s (b) 1.4m/s (c) 1m/s (d)4.4m/s
4. A car is accelerated on a levelled road and attains a velocity 4 times of its

17
initial velocity. In this process the potential energy of the car
(a) does not change (b) becomes twice to that of initial
(c) becomes 4 times that of initial (d) becomes 16 times that of initial
5. A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200m on a levelled
road. The work done against the gravitational force will be (g =10 m s–2)
(a) 6 ×103 J (b) 6 J (c) 0.6 J (d) zero
6. The power of a pump that takes 10s to lift 100kg of water tank situated at a height of 20m
is:
(a) 2x104 W (b) 2x103 W (c) 200 W (d)1 kW
7. A particle of mass ‘m’ moves from rest under the action of a constant force ‘F’ which
acts for two seconds. The maximum power attained is :
(a) 2F2 /m (b) F2/m (c) 2F/m (d) 2Fm
8. If 1 Newton of force displaces a body by 1 m, the work done is
(a) 10 joule (b) 5 joule (c) 1 joule (d) Depends on time
9.A bullet entering a metal block of 30 cm length stops on reaching 25 cm. The energy with
the bullet will be lost
(a) in imparting momentum to the block (b) in the form of heat
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
10. If a stone of mass m falls a vertical distance d, the decrease in gravitational potential
energy is
(a) mg/d (b) md2/2 (c) mgd (d) md/g
11. If a force of F newton moves a body with constant speed v, the power delivered by it is
𝐹 𝑣
(a) (b) Fv (c) F2v (d)
𝑣 𝐹
12.A man holds and displaces a 20 kg mass horizontally in his stretched hand.
(a) He does zero work against force of gravity.
(b) He does 200 joules of work per metre.
(c) The work done against gravity cannot be estimated but non-zero.
(d) The work done against gravity is equal to the muscular energy.
13.Two masses m and 2m are dropped from certain height ‘h’. Then on reaching the ground,
(a) K.E. of them will be equal.
(b) K.E. of the heavier is 4 times the K.E. of the lighter.
(c) K.E. of the lighter is 4 times the K.E. of the heavier.
(d) K.E. of the heavier is more than that of the lighter.
14. Kinetic energy of a body moving with speed 10 m/s is 30J. If its speed becomes 30 m/s,
its kinetic energy will be
(a) 10 J (b) 90 J (c) 180 J (d) 270 J
15. On tripling the speed of motion of a body , the K E becomes
a) 9 times b)5 times c)4 times d)2 times
16.A mass is moving 5 m/s with speed of along the X-axis on a smooth surface , when a
force of 5 N acts on it along the Y-axis. The work done by the force is
a) 25 joule b) 10 joule c) Depends on the time d) Zero

18
17.The energy possessed by an oscillating pendulum of a clock is
(a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy
(c) restoring energy. (d) mechanical energy
18. Two objects of masses 1 × 10-3kg and 4 × 10-3 kg have equal momentum. What is the
ratio of their kinetic energies?
(a) 2:1 (b) 4:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:2
19. The momentum of a body is _________.
(a) directly proportional to velocity of the body, provided its mass remains constant.
(b) directly proportional to the mass of the body, provided its velocity remains constant.
(c) inversely proportional to the kinetic energy of the body
(d) Both (a) and (b)
20. A microphone converts sound energy to
a)a pulse b) a wave c) electrical energy d)sound energy
21. When a body falls freely towards the earth , then its total energy
a) increase b) decrease c) remains constant d)first increase and then decrease

A/R QUESTIONS
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),(c), and (d) as given below:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d)(A)is false, but (R) is true.
1. Assertion (A): The change in KE of a particle is the work done on it by the net force.
Reason (R) : Change in KE of a particle is equal to the work done only in case of a
system of one particle.
2. Assertion (A) : A winded toy car, when placed on the floor starts moving.
Reason (R) : Toy car has KE stored in it which facilitates the motion.
3. Assertion (A): When the momentum of a body is doubled its kinetic energy is
increased to 400%.
Reason (R): Kinetic Energy is equal to P2/2m , where P is the momentum of the body.
4. Assertion (A) : The work done by frictional force during a round trip is always zero.
Reason (R): Displacement of a body in round trip is zero.
5. Assertion (A): If a light body and a heavy body have same momentum, then they also
have same kinetic energy.
Reason (R): Kinetic energy depends on mass of the body.
6. Assertion (A) : When the force retards the motion of a body, the work done is zero.
Reason (R) : Work done depends on angle between force and displacement.
7. Assertion (A) : No work is done when a woman carrying a load on her head, walks
on a level road with a uniform velocity.

19
 Reason (R) : No work is done if force is perpendicular to the direction of
displacement.
8. Assertion (A): Winding up the spring of a toy car gives it energy for moving.
Reason (R): Work done in winding the spring get stored up as kinetic energy.
9. Assertion (A): The object which is in motion possesses energy called as kinetic
energy.
Reason (R): Kinetic energy is independent of the work done on an object.
10. Assertion (A): An object increases its energy when it goes upward.
Reason (R) : When object goes upwards, work is done against the gravity and energy of
the object increases.
11. Assertion (A): The work done by frictional force is negative.
Reason (R): Frictional force acts opposite to the direction of motion.
12. Assertion (A): A freely falling body has kinetic energy but no potential energy.
Reason (R): The potential energy of a body converts into kinetic energy while falling.
13. Assertion (A): The kinetic energy of a moving car is due to the work done by the
engine of the car.
Reason (R): The battery of a car converts chemical energy into electric energy.
14.Assertion (A): The power of a machine shows its efficiency to do work.
Reason (R): SI unit of power is watt.
15.Assertion (A): Greater the momentum of a body , more is its kinetic energy.
Reason (R): Kinetic energy is a scalar quantity and momentum is a vector quantity.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE - I QUESTIONS (2MARKS)
1. Is it possible that a force is acting on a body but still the work done is zero? Explain
giving one example.
2. When is the work done by a force said to be negative? Give one situation in which one of
the forces acting on the object is doing positive work and the other is doing negative work.
3. The kinetic energy of an object of mass ‘m’ moving with a velocity of 5 ms-1 is 25 J.
(a)What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is doubled?
(b)What will be its kinetic energy when its mass is doubled?
4. (a) An object of mass m is moving with a constant velocity v. How much work should be
done on the object to bring it to rest?
5. Avinash can run with a speed of 8 m s–1 against the frictional force of 10 N and Kapil can
move with a speed of 3 m s–1 against the frictional force of 25 N. Who is more powerful and
why?
6. What is the work done by the force of gravity in the following cases?
(a) Satellite moving around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 35000 km.
(b) A stone of mass 250 g is thrown up through a height of 2.5 m.
7. Name the transformation of energy involved in the following cases:
(a) When a body is thrown upwards. (b) When a body falls from the top of a hill.
(c) When coal burns. (d) When a fan moves.

20
 8.A porter lifts a luggage of 15 kg from the ground and puts it on his head 1.5 m above the
ground. Calculate the work done by him on the luggage.
9.A man of mass 60 kg runs up a flight of 30 steps in 40 s. If each step is 20 cm high ,
calculate his power.
10.An object of mass 5 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m. Find its kinetic energy , when it
is half way down.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE II QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
1. (a) What is meant by mechanical energy?
(b) An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its
potential energy? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half-
way down.
2. (a) Define power. Write its SI unit.
(b) Calculate the power of a 10 kg object accelerating by 10 m/s2 and reaching a
velocity of 5 m/s.
3. (a) Derive an expression for kinetic energy of a body having mass ‘m’ and moving with a
velocity ‘v’.
(b)Two masses m and 2m are dropped from heights h and 2h. On reaching the ground, find
the ratio of their kinetic energies.
4. (a) State the law of conservation of energy. Write its mathematical formula.
(b)What is the work done to increase the velocity of a car from 36 km h-1 to 72 km h-1 if
the mass of the car is 1500 kg? Is the work done by the force negative or a positive ?
5. The velocity of a body moving in a straight line is increased by applying a constant force
F, for some distance in the direction of the motion. Prove that the increase in the kinetic
energy of the body is equal to the work done by the force on the body.
6. Four men lift a 250 kg box to a height of 1 m and hold it without raising or lowering it.
(a) How much work is done by the men in lifting the box?
(b) How much work do they do in just holding it?
(c) Why do they get tired while holding it? (g = 10 m s –2)
7. (a) Define work. Give SI unit of work. Write an expression for positive work done.
(b) Calculate the work done in pushing a cart through a distance of 50 m against the force
of friction equal to 250 N. Also state the type of work done.
(c) Sarita lives on 3rd floor of building at the height of 15 m. She carries her school bag
weighing 5.2 kg from the ground floor to her house. Find the amount of work done by her
and identify the force against which she has done work (g = 10 ms –2).
8. (a) Define 1 kWh.
(b) If an electric iron of 1600 W is used for 45 minutes every day, find the electric energy
consumed in the month of March.
9. A truck of mass 1800 kg is moving with a speed of 54 km/h. When brakes are applied , it
stops with uniform negative acceleration at a distance of 200 m. Calculate the work done
before stopping.

21
 10.A heavy ball falls on a thick bed of wet sand from different heights 50 cm , 1 m and 2 m
respectively and the depressions created in the wet sand are careful measured.
a) Which impression is the deepest and why ?
b) Which impression is shallowest and why ?
11.A pump is used to raise water to a height of 20 m. It transfers 2000 kg of water in 15
minutes. Calculate the power of the pump. ( g =10 ms –2)
12.Two women Shanti and Kamla each of mass 50 kg and 60 kg respectively climb up
through a height of 10 m. Shanti takes 20 s while Kamla takes 40 s to reach. Calculate the
difference in the power expended by both. (take g = 10 ms –2)

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (5 MARKS)

1. (a) Define the S.I. unit of power.
(b) Establish the relationship between power, force and velocity.
(c) Compare the power at which each of the following is moving upwards against the
force of gravity?(given g=10 m/s2)
(i) A butterfly of mass 1.0 g that flies upward at a rate of 0.5 m/s.
(ii) A 250 g squirrel climbing up on a tree at a rate of 0.5m/s.
2. (a) State the Law of Conservation of Energy and express it in the
form of an equation. For a body of mass m falling from a point A at
height h above the ground, show mathematically that the total
energy at points A,B and C are same.
(b) A moving body of mass 20 kg has 40 joules of kinetic energy.
Calculate its speed.

3. a) Sarita lives on 3rd floor of building at the height of 15 m. She

carries her school bag weighing 5.2 kg from the ground floor to her house. Find the
amount of work done by her and identify the force against which she has done work. ( g =
10 m/s2).
b) Calculate the work done in pushing a cart through a distance of 50 m against the force
of friction equal to 250 N . Also state the type of work done.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS)

1. Work done is elaborated in such a way that it includes
both forces exerted on the body and the total displacement
of the body. The work we do in climbing the stairs is the
product of the force applied and the distance moved
upward (the height of the stairs.) Work (in joules) =
weight (in newtons) x the height of the stairs (in meters.)
Akash weighs 400 N. He runs upstairs which has a vertical height of 3 m.
a) How much work does Akash do when he climbs the stairs and reaches at the top?

22
 b) When he reaches to the top , he heard the call of his mother and he came back
down again. What happens to the potential energy gained by him when he climbed
up the stairs?
c) Calculate the power of Akash when he is running up the stairs in 3 s.
OR
Akash carries a box of weight 100N up the stairs. How much extra work does he do
when climbing the stairs than he would without the box?
2. The given diagram shows that a simple pendulum
consisting of a bob of mass 100 gm. Initially the bob
of the pendulum is at rest at ‘O'. It is then displaced to
one side at A. The height of 'A' above ‘O' is 5 cm.
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a)Find the potential energy of bob at position 'A' .
(b)Calculate the total energy of the bob at position B?
(c) Determine the potential energy and kinetic energy
of the bob at mean position 'O'?
OR
(c)Determine the kinetic energy and potential energy
of the bob at position 'P' whose height above 'O' is 2 cm?
3. When force is applied on a body in certain
direction , it displaces with certain angle with the
direction of force applied. The magnitude of work
done depends on the angle between the force and
displacement.
(a) Under what condition the work done by a body
is positive?
(b) What is the work done by an aeroplane against
the gravitational force when it flies at a certain height?
(c) A force of 20 N applied on a body , then it displaces 20 m. Calculate the amount of
work done. Also state the nature of work done.
OR
(c) A stone of 1/2 kg is thrown vertically upward to attain the maximum height of 15 m.
Calculate the work done by the stone. Also state the nature of the work done.

ANSWERS
(MCQ)
1. (c) newton metre/sec
2. (c) 300%
3. (b) 1.4m/s
23
4. (a) does not change
5. (d) zero
6. (b) 2x103 W
7. (a) 2F2 /m
8. (c) 1 joule
9. (c) Both (a) and (b)
10. (c) mgd
11. (b) Fv
12. (a) He does zero work against force of gravity
13. (d) K.E. of the heavier is more than that of the lighter.
14. (d) 270J
15. a) 9 times
16. d)Zero
17. (d) mechanical energy
18. (b) 4:1
19. (d) Both (a) and (b)
20. (c) Electrical energy
21. (c) remains constant

(ASSERTION REASONING)
1. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
2. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
3. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
4. (d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
5. (d)Assertion is false but reason is true.
6. (d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
7. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
8. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
9. (c)Assertion is true but Reason is false.
10. (b) Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
11. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
12. (d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
13. (b) Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
14. (b) Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
15. (b) Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX

24
 DAV PUBLIC SCHOOLS,ODISHA ZONE-1
SAMPLE PAPER 1 PERIODIC ASSESSMENT –3(2023-24)
 Check that this question paper contains 4printed pages.
 Set number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the
answer book by the candidate.
 Check that this question paper contains 19questions .
 Write down the Serial Number of the question in the left side of the margin before attempting it.
 15 minutes cooling time has been allotted to read this question paper only and do not write any answer on the
answer book during this period.

SUB: SCIENCE (THEORY)

CLASS -IX
Time: 1h 30 mins Maximum Marks: 40
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises four section A,B,C and D. There are 19 questions in the question paper.
All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section–A - question no. 1 to 10 - all questions and parts thereof are of one mark each. These
questions contain multiple choice questions (MCQs),very short answer questions and assertion -
reason type questions. Answers to these should be given in one word or one sentence.
(iii) Section–B - question no. 11,12 and13 are short answer type questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
(iv) Section–C - question no. 14and 15 short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks .Answers to these
questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
(v) Section–D – question no. - 16and 17 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer
to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(vi) Section E – question no.18 and 19 are case based questions.
(vi) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION – A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1
- 10. There is no negative mark for incorrect response.
1. An element X has valency equal to 3. What will be its formula with carbonate ions?
(a)X2(CO3)3 (b) X2CO3 (c) XCO3 (d)X(CO3)3 1
2. An element X is tetravalent and another element Y is divalent. The compound formed by these two
elements will be: 1
(a)XY (b) XY2 (c) X2Y (d)XY4
3. Which of the following is not correct about anode rays? 1
(a) Anode rays are also called canal rays
(b) Anode rays do not originate from anode
(c) Particles of anode rays always carry the same charge and same mass.
(d) Protons are nothing but ionized hydrogen atoms.
4. A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200m on a leveled road. The work
done against the gravitational force will be (g =10 m/s2) 1
(a) 6 ×103 J (b) 6 J (c) 0.6 J (d) zero

5. A 150 kg car engine develops 500 W for each kg. The force exerted by the car in moving the
at a speed of 108km/h: 1
(a) 2.5 x102N (b) 0.25x102N (c) 25 x 102 N (d) 0.025 x102 N

25
6. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. If the ball rebounds back to a height of 6 m ,then the energy of
the ball is reduced by :(g = 10 m/s2) 1
(a) 80% (b) 40% (c) 120% (d) 60%
7. While doing work and running ,you move your organs like hands ,legs etc. Which among the following is
correct? 1
(a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
(c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones.

8. The water conducting tissue generally present in gymnosperm is: 1

(a) vessels (b) sieve tubes (c) tracheid (d) xylem fibres

For question numbers 9and 10, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason
(R).Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, and reason (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true, but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): When a boy pulls a box on a horizontal surface with a constant non- zero force the work
done by gravitational force is zero . 1
Reason (R): The work done by frictional force is negative when an object is pulled over a horizontal
surface .
10. Assertion(A) :Atomic mass of aluminium is 27u. 1
Reason(R) :An atom of aluminium is 27 times heavier than 1/12th of the mass of carbon-12 isotope.
SECTION – B
Question No. 11 to 13 are very short answer questions.
11. Write the cations and anions present (if any) in the following compounds: 2
(a) CH3COONa (b) NaCl
(c) H2 (d) NH4NO3
12. The body of mass 50 kg is at rest. The body accelerates at a rate of 2 m/s2 for 10 s. Calculate the
change in its kinetic energy . 2
13. Explain Thomson’s model of atom. Mention its drawbacks. 2

SECTION – C
Question No.14 and 15 are short answer questions.
14. (a)Define power . Write its SI unit .
(b) A pump is required to lift 1000kg of water per minute from a well 12m deep and eject the same
amount of water with a speed of 20m/s. Calculate the power of the pump in lifting the water. Also find out
the power output of the pump. 3

26
15.

(a)Identify I and II. 3

(a) Differentiate between them on the basis of matrix.
(b) Name the tissue from the above that is rigid and richly supplied with blood.

SECTION – D
Question No. 16 and 17 are long answer questions.
16. (a) If calcium salt of anion has formula Ca3X2, what is the valency of X?
Write the formula of 5
(i) Sodium salt of X and
(ii) Aluminium salt of X.
(b) An element M has valency 2. Write the formulae of its hydroxide and nitride.
(c) The formula of magnesium sulphate is MgSO4. Write the formula of magnesium bicarbonate and
magnesium nitride.
17. Rohan has a brother who is an athlete. One day Rohan had gone to see his brother in a racing
competition. The race starts and after sometime, Rohan sees his brother in pain and not able to run
properly. He sees that the doctor immediately applies ice on his knees. Rohan is confused as to why
the doctor is applying ice on his brother’s knees. Can you clear his confusion by stating an appropriate
reason? 5
(a)Name the tissue which is flexible but considerable strength.
(b)Write two functions of skeletal connective tissue.
(c) Which type of the connective has great strength, limited flexibility?
(d) Fibers present in dense regular tissue.
SECTION – E
Q.No. 18 and 19 are case-based /data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is
provided in one of these sub-parts.
18. Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions. (1+1+2)
Muscle tissues are soft tissues that make up the different types of muscles in most animals, and give
the ability of muscles to contract. It is also referred to as my propulsive tissue. Muscle tissue is
formed during embryonic development.

27
 (a) Identify (a)and(c).
(b) State two similarities between a and c.
(c) Distinguish between b and c on the basis of structure and location .

OR
(c) write one point difference between voluntary and involuntary muscle .
19. Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions. (1+1+2)

A block of mass 30 kg is pulled up by constant force to a certain position in an inclined plane .

The path of the block is shown in the figure given below. A and B are the initial and final
position of the block respectively . :(g = 10 m/s2)

(a) Calculate the work done by the force in moving the block from A to B .
(b) Find the mechanical energy of the block when it is at height of 0.75 m from position A .
(c) If the object falls from position B , then compute its kinetic energy after it falls through a height of 1 m .
OR
(c) If the object falls from position B , then at what height its potential energy will be half of its kinetic energy
.

*****

DAV PUBLIC SCHOOLS, ODISHA ZONE

SAMPLE PAPER 2 FOR PERIODIC ASSESSMENT – III , 2023-24
• Please check that this question paper contains 4 printed pages.
• Check that this question paper contains 19 questions .
• Write down the Serial Number of the question in the left side of the margin before attempting it.

CLASS -IX
SUB: SCIENCE (THEORY)
Time: 1h 30 mins Maximum Marks: 40
General Instructions:

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 (i) The question paper comprises five sections A,B,C,D and E. There are 19 questions in the question
paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii)Section–A - question no. 1 to 10 - all questions are of one mark each. These questions contain multiple
choice questions (MCQs),very short answer questions and assertion - reason type questions. Answers
to these should be given in one word or one sentence.
(iii) Section–B - question no. 11,12 and 13 are short answer type questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words.
(iv) Section–C - question no. 14 and 15 short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks .Answers to
these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
(v) Section–D – question no. - 16 and 17 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer
to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(vi) Section E – question no.s 18 and 19 are case based questions.
(vi) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION – A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1 - 10.
There is no negative mark for incorrect response.
1. Molecular mass of a molecule of cane sugar (Sucrose) is (1)
(a) 180 (b) 342 (c) 310 (d) 278
2. An element M forms the oxide M2O3.The formula of its phosphate will be (1)
(a) M2PO4 (b) M3PO4 (c) MPO4 (d) M2(PO4)3
3. Which of the following is not correct about cathode rays? (1)
(a )Cathode rays travel in straight line (b) Cathode rays produce heating effect
(c) Cathode rays produce X rays when they strike a surface of hard metal
(d) Cathode rays are chargeless and massless radiations
4. The mass of a body is increased by 100% and velocity of a body is decreased by 50%. What is the
percentage change in its kinetic energy? Which of them can be a form of kinetic energy? (1)
(a) 50% (b)56% (c)75% (d)150%
5. Which of them can be a form of kinetic energy?
(a) Energy possessed by a bullet (b) Energy possessed by a train
(c) Energy possessed by a car (d) All of them are correct (1)
6.Inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchi and bronchioles are lined by epithelial cells. Find the type of
epithelia which lines them. (1)
(a) Squamous epithelium (b) Ciliated epithelium
(c) Columnar (d) Cubical epithelium
7. Which type of tissue changes the diameter of a blood vessel ? (1)
(a) Squamous epithelial
(b)) smooth muscle
(c)Blood
(d))All of the above
8. In order to increase the amount of work done, we should (1)
(a) increase the distance over which the force is applied.
(b) decrease the force applied.
(c) decrease the time taken to perform the work.
(d)) keep the force and distance the same.

For question numbers 9 and 10, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other
labeled Reason (R).Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below:

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 (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, and reason (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true, but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): The percentage of Cu in the different oxides formed by Cu is same.
Reason (R): A chemical compound is always made up of the same elements combined together in a
fixed proportion by mass. (1)
10. Assertion (A): A spring has potential energy, both when it is compressed or stretched. (1)
Reason (R): In compressing or stretching, work is done on the spring against the restoring force.

SECTION – B
Question No. 11 to 13 are very short answer questions.
11. An element E is trivalent. Write the formula of its (a) Chloride (b) Sulphide (2)
12. Define Canal rays .Why are they called as canal rays. Write any one property of canal ray. (2)
13. A force of 10 N acts on a body which has a mass of 2 kg for a period of 3 seconds. Find out the kinetic
energy acquired by the body in 3 seconds. (2)
SECTION – C
Question No.14 and 15 are short answer questions.
14. Study the given diagram and answer. (3)

.
(a)Name the tissue on the basis of its location.
(b)Explain its structure.
(c) How does it help human being?
15. A 5 kg ball is thrown upwards with a speed of 10 m/s. (3)
(a) Find the potential energy when it reaches the highest point.
(b) Calculate its kinetic energy when it is half way down .
(c) Calculate the height where its velocity is 20% of its original velocity.
SECTION – D
Question No. 16 and 17 are long answer questions.
16. (a) Define polyatomic ions.
(b) How many atoms are present in (i) H2S molecule (ii) PO43-
(c) Write the names of the elements present in (i) Baking Soda (ii) Potassium Sulphate (5)
17. (a) A tissue transport photosynthetic products in plants. Name it.
(b) State its elements.
(c) How is it vary from the tissue that transport water in plants. ( Any two) (5)
. SECTION – E
Q.No. 18 and 19 are case-based /data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is
provided in one of these sub-parts.

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 Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions. (1+1+2)
18. Neurons are the fundamental units of the nervous system. Neurons communicate by using
electricity and chemicals. The nervous system operates using an electrochemical process. An electrical
charge moves through the neuron.

(a) Name any two major parts of our body that consist of nervous tissue.
(b) Define a nerve.
(c) Label the above neuron.
OR
(c )What enables us to move rapidly.
19. Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions. (1+1+2)
The given diagram shows that a simple pendulum consisting of a bob
of mass 100 gm. Initially the bob of the pendulum is at rest at ‘O'. It is
then displaced to one side at A. The height of 'A' above ‘O' is 5 cm.
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) How does the kinetic energy and potential energy of the bob
change when it moves from A to B?
(b) Name the positions where the kinetic energy and the potential
energy of the bob is maximum an minimum
(c) Find the ratio of the potential energy of the bob at A and P.
OR
(c) Find the velocity of the bob at point P.

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