Haramaya Universisty

Haramaya Institute of Technology

Department of Civil Engineering
3rd Mock Exam of Exit Exam
1. One of the following is true about Shelby/thin-walled tube sampler:
A. This sampler is used to take undisturbed samples from cohesive soils.
B. Can be used in the field to obtain soil samples that are generally disturbed, but still representative.
C. It is used for making Standard Penetration Test.
D. None

2. As a geotechnical engineer how much depth of bore hole you will recommend for a G+5 wide concrete
hospital building foundation exploration?
A. 30.5
B. 18.5
C. 15.5
D. 20.5

3. One of the following is the Disadvantage of test pits

A. Cost effective
B. Provide detailed information of stratigraphy
C. Large quantities of disturbed soils are available for testing
D. Excavation below groundwater and into rock difficult and costly

4. The critical section for punching shear from face of column is:
A. 1.5d
B. 3d
C. d
D. At face of column

5. For a rectangular isolated footing, how much an eccentricity is formed if the foundation column is
subjected to axial load P = 1500kN and moment M = 375 kN-m.
A. 0.25
B. 0.5
1
 C. 0.3
D. 0.2

6. One of the following is make the Buttress walls different from Counterfort walls:
A. The vertical brackets are on the opposite side of the backfill
B. Made of reinforced concrete materials
C. Consists of cantilever wall with vertical brackets known as counterfort placed behind face of wall
D. Ordinarily used for walls height greater than 6.0m

7. A group of 9 piles with 3 piles in a row was driven into a soft clay extending from ground level to a
great depth. The diameter and the length of the piles were 30 cm and 10m respectively. The unconfined
compressive strength of the clay is 70 kPa. If the piles were placed 90 cm centre to centre, the allowable
load on the pile group on the basis of a shear failure criterion for a factor of safety of 2.5 is ______kN.
Use adhesion factor,  = 1.0
A. 1730
B. 1450
C. 1267
D. 1374

8. Which types of piles are driven in granular soils to achieve proper compaction of soil close to the ground
surface?
A. Point bearing piles
B. Friction piles
C. Compaction piles
D. Combined piles

9. Which one of the following is FALSE about mitigation to avoid damage from expansive soils?
A. To extend building foundations beneath the zone of water content fluctuation
B. To provide sufficient skin friction & adhesion below the zone of drying
C. To resist upward movement when the surface soils become wet and begin to swell
D. None of these

10. For braced cuts in clayey soils, the depth of the first strut below the ground surface should be;

2
 2
A. Less than 𝛾∗𝐶∗√𝑘𝑎
2
B. Equals to 𝛾∗𝐶∗√𝑘𝑎
2𝐶
C. Less than 𝛾∗√𝑘𝑎
2𝐶
D. Greater than 𝛾∗√𝑘𝑎

11. A 30x30 cm square concrete pile of 10m long is driven into sand stratum extending to a great depth. As
per standard penetration test conducted, average Ncorrected along and at the pile tip was 15.0 and unit
weight of the soil is 18 kN/m3. For a factor of safety, FS = 4.0; the allowable load on the pile will be;
A. 245
B. 265
C. 225
D. 205

12. Undiscerning excavation of borrow pits for road construction and other civil engineering works, without
the intention of restoring or reclaiming the pits will lead to one of the following environmental
problems;
A. Soil erosion
B. Formation of sinkholes
C. Land Slides
D. All of above

13. If the angle of internal friction (F) = 30° for a soil, the angle of failure plane relative to the major
principal plane in a triaxial test will be:
A. 60°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 67.6°

14. The effect of cohesion on a soil is to

A. Reduce both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity.
B. Increase both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity.
C. Reduce the active earth pressure intensity but to increase the passive earth pressure intensity.

3
 D. Increase the active earth pressure intensity but to reduce the passive earth pressure intensity.

15. The stress developed at a point in the soil exactly below a point loaded at the surface is
A. Proportional to the depth of point
B. Proportional to the square of the depth of point
C. Inversely proportional to the depth of point
D. Inversely proportional to the square of the depth of point

16. A fully saturated sample of clay has a void ratio of 0.825 and moisture content of 30% in its natural
state, if Gs=2.75 what will dry unit weight of the soil?
A. 19kN/m3
B. 13KN/m3
C. 12.5KN/m3
D. 15.1KN/m3

17. Newmark’s influence chart can be used for the determination of vertical stress under;

A. Circular load only

B. Rectangular loaded area only
C. Strip load only
D. Any shape of loaded area

18. The consolidation settlement caused by the plastic adjustment of soil fabrics and observed in saturated
cohesive soil is,

A. Immediate settlement

B. Primary consolidation settlement

C. Secondary consolidation settlement

D. Normally consolidated soil

19. If the porosity of a soil sample is 35% and the specific gravity of the particles is 2.7. The saturated unit
weight of the soil will be:
A. 17.6 kN/m3
B. 20.64 kN/ m3
C. 15.56 kN/ m3

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 D. 14.59 kN/ m3

20. The intensity of vertical pressure at a depth z directly below the point load Q on its axis of loading is:
0.4775Q
A.
z
0.4775Q
B.
z2
0.4775Q
C.
z3
0.4775Q
D.
z

21. Which of the following statement is true about unconfined compression test?
A. An unconfined compression test is a special case of triaxial compression test
B. An unconfined compression test is a special case of direct shear test
C. The confining pressure is maximum during an unconfined compression test
D. The cylindrical specimen of a soil is subjected to major principal stress till it fails due to shearing
along the plane of failure

22. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. When stress decreases, void ratio decreases
B. When stress decreases, coefficient of permeability decreases
C. When stress decreases, coefficient of volume change decreases
D. All of the above.

23. Which of the following is incorrect statement?

A. In a direct shear box test, the plane of shear failure is predetermined
B. Better control is achieved on the drainage of the soil in a triaxial compression test
C. Stress distribution on the failure plane in the case of triaxial compression test is uniform
D. Unconfined compression test can be carried out on all types of soils

24. How much is collapsing load, F due to a frame mechanism with plastic moment capacity indicated on
the frame members if Mpl is 60kN.m

5
 4m
F
2Mpl

Mpl

2m
3m
Mpl

A. 60 kN
B. 20 kN
C. 80 kN
D. 50 kN

25. All side continuous square slab with dimension ‘a’ is subjected to uniform load of ‘W. How much is
maximum the positive bending moment in middle strip if a ratio of support moment to the span
moment of 2 is used.

𝑊𝑎2
A.
24
5𝑊𝑎2
B.
192
𝑊𝑎2
C.
48
5𝑊𝑎2
D.
64

26. Which of the following does no not affect the magnitude of earthquake to be considered in structural
design of building?

A. Ground or soil type

B. Altitude of the building site reference to mean sea level
C. Mass of the building
D. Functional class of the building

27. Which of the following is the best and more effective shear wall arrangement to resist lateral load?

6
 A.

B.

C.

D.

28. Which of the following statement is wrong about wind load?

A. Peak velocity pressure of a wind force primary depends on shape of the building
B. The roughness factor accounts for the variability of the mean wind velocity at the site

C. The external pressure coefficients for buildings depend on the size of the loaded area
D. Magnitude of wind pressure increases when building height increased

29. Wind pressure on billboard shown below is determined to be 0.8 kN/m2. Calculate overturning
moment at the base of the billboard’s column.

7
 Wind

2m

3m
A. 19.2 kN-m
B. 6.4 kN-m
C. 25.6 kN-m
D. 32 kN-m

30. Identify the incorrect statement about the characteristic and mean cylindrical compressive strength of
concrete
A. The characteristic strength is the strength below which not more than 5% of the test results are
expected to fail.
B. The characteristic strength is the strength above which more than 5% of the test results are
expected to pass.
C. The characteristic strength is the strength above which not more than 5% of the test results are
expected to fail.
D. Mean strength is the strength below which not more than 50% of the test results are expected to
fail

31. One of the following is not true about the advantage of WSD over ULM and LSD methods.
A. It results in relatively large sections of structural members
B. It ensures better serviceability performance (fewer deflections, crack widths, etc.) under the usual
working loads.
C. Relatively simple in concept and application
D. It is a realistic assumption of the actual behavior with relatively fewer degrees of uncertainty

8
32. A singly reinforced concrete rectangular beam of size 250 × 450 is reinforced with 4∅20 𝑟𝑒𝑏𝑎𝑟𝑠 as
shown in the figure below. Using C20/25 concrete and S400 steel, the ultimate moment of resistance of
the section is nearly equal to

A. 437 kNm
B. 141 kNm
C. 125 kNm
D. 323 kNm

33. For the typical design of a solid slab, a 10mm diameter bar at 100mm centers is to be provided as the
main reinforcement. However, due to the unavailability of the 10mm diameter of bars at the
construction site, it was decided that the 10mm bars need to be changed into the 12mm bars. What
should be the new spacing of bars?
A. 175mm
B. 140mm
C. 150mm
D. 400mm

34. What does the assumption “plane section before bending remain plane after bending” imply?

A. The strain in the steel is equal to that of the concrete at the same level of stress
B. There is a linear strain profile between the concrete and the steel
C. There is a linear stress profile between the concrete and the steel
D. Shear deformations are neglected

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35. According to ES EN 1992-1:2015, the balanced moment of resistance of a singly reinforced
rectangular beam section with 0% moment redistribution is equal to

A. M=0.167fckbd2
B. M= 0.295fckbd2
C. M=0.295fcdbd2
D. A & C

36. As the percentage of carbon content of steel increase, its

A. Strength and ductility increase
B. Strength decreases and ductility increase
C. Strength increase and ductility decrease
D. Strength and ductility decrease

37. Bolts may transfer load by

A. Tension
B. Shear
C. Bearing
D. All of the above

38. Most of steel structures behave nonlinearity near their ultimate load due to
A. Material and geometric nonlinearity
B. Material yielding
C. Buckling
D. All of the above

39. Which of the following is the possible mode of failure of axially loaded compression member?
A. Yielding of gross area
B. Block shear of end region
C. Critical section rupture
D. None of the above

40. For which of the following case the lateral torsional buckling can be ignored in the design

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 A. Beams with square or circular section
B. Beams with major axis bending
C. Beams provided with closely spaced bracing for making the slenderness of the major axis low
D. All of the above

41. A given steel column is pinned at both end and has observed to have a buckling load of 300kN. If the
column is restrained against lateral movement at its mid-height, its buckling load will be
A. 150 kN
B. 600 kN
C. 1200 kN
D. 300 kN

42. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE?

A. Service limit state is restrictions on stress, deformation and crack width under regular service
conditions.
B. Strength limit state is meant to ensure that strength and stability, both local and global, are
provided to resist the specified statistically significant load combinations that a bridge is expected
to be subjected to in its design life.
C. The fatigue limit state is restrictions on stress range as a result of a single design truck occurring at
the number of expected stress range cycles.
D. Extreme limit state is taken as a set of material toughness requirements.

43. Which one of the following is not the factor to be considered while selecting the ideal site for a
proposed bridge?
A. Width of the river
B. Design method
C. Velocity of flow of water
D. Material and labor

44. In which of the following loads the dynamic effect is applied?

A. Design Truck Load
B. Retaining wall
C. Design Lane Load
D. Foundation Component

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45. Which one of the following is correct about vehicular loads?
A. The design tandem load shall consist of a load of 9.3kN/m, uniformly distributed in the
longitudinal direction.
B. The load effect of the design truck and the design tandem must each be superimposed with the
load effect of the design lane load in order to get the maximum effect.
C. The load effect of the design lane and the design tandem must each be superimposed with the
load effect of the design truck load in order to get the maximum effect.
D. The load effect of the design truck and the design lane must each be superimposed with the
load effect of the design tandem load in order to get the maximum effect.

46. Which one of the following is not advantage of continuous girder bridges over simply supported
bridges?
A. Require a smaller number of expansion joints
B. Reduce width of pier
C. High number of bearings over the pier
D. Rigidity quality over the bridge is improved

47. Elastomeric bearing is made of elastomer, either natural or synthetic rubber, which accommodates
A. Both translational and rotational movements
B. Only translational movements
C. Only rotational movements
D. Neither translational nor rotational movements

48. There will be a strong band in the slab of a building if

A. No hole is observed in the slab
B. There is an unsupported edge
C. There is a surrounding beam around the slab
D. All edges of a slab are supported

49. One of the following statements is true about columns and structural walls
A. A column can be considered a wall if the ratio of the cross-sectional dimensions is greater than 4
B. Shear walls are predominantly subjected to in-plane lateral loads but not to axial loads
C. Columns resist both axial and out-of-plane bending moments but not in-plane bending moments
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 D. The lateral load resistance of a building can be improved by the provisions of shear walls but not
of columns

50. Identify the correct statement According to ES EN 1992-1:2015 about the analysis of second-order
effects with axial loads include
A. The nominal stiffness method is primarily suitable for isolated members with constant normal
force and a defined effective length of l0.
B. The general method of analysis is based on non-linear analysis, including geometric nonlinearity
C. The nominal curvature method gives a nominal first-order moment based on a deflection
D. The nominal curvature method applies to adjacent members involved in the analysis, (e.g. beams,
slabs, or foundations)

51. Which of the following statements is not true about the methods of analysis of flat slabs
A. The equivalent frame method is suitable for regular layouts of columns but requires
engineering judgment for irregular layouts
B. The finite element analysis method allows the design of irregular column layouts and can
provide the design of reinforcement details.
C. The grillage analysis method has similar facilities to finite element models but cannot be used
for irregular layouts of columns.
D. Yield-line analysis methods can provide suitable designs for ULS but do not give adequate
information for serviceability design.

52. Identify the incorrect statement among the following

A. The Strip method of slab analysis is an upper-bound theorem of the theory of plasticity
B. The strip method of the slab analysis leads to adequate safety at the ultimate limit state, provided
that the reinforced concrete slab has a sufficiently plastic behavior
C. A yield line is a line in the plane of the slab across which reinforcing bars have yielded
D. A yield line is a line in the plane of the slab about which excessive deformation (plastic rotation)
under constant ultimate moment continues to occur leading to failure.

53. Which type of cement would you recommend for the following different kinds of projects respectively?
I. For the construction of a large-scale dam
II. For the construction of rigid pavement in a very cold region

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 III. For the construction of a marine structure
A. OPC, Low Heat, PPC
B. Rapid Hardening, Low Heat, Sulphate Resisting
C. Low Heat, Rapid Hardening, Sulphate Resisting
D. Low Heat, Rapid Hardening, OPC

54. Identify the incorrect statements from the given alternatives:

A. Natural seasoning of timber results in strong timber compared to artificial seasoning.
B. Artificial seasoning results in strong timber compared to the natural seasoning of timber.
C. Case-hardening and cup are the defects observed in timber due to seasoning.
D. Seasoning reduces the weight of the timber and imparts dimensional stability.

55. Given a concrete mix in which the proportions of cement to fine aggregate to coarse aggregate are 1: 2:
3 by weight, and using a w/c of 0.60 by weight. The specific gravity of cement, fine aggregate, and
coarse aggregate are 3.15, 2.65, and 2.65 respectively. For the data given and using arbitrary
proportioning, what is the cement factor (cement content in bags per meter cube of concrete)?

A. 3.14 bags
B. 5.28 bags
C. 7.14 bags
D. 6.28 bags

56. Consider the following statements

I. Stiffness of a material is measured by the modulus of elasticity
II. Toughness of a material is its ability to absorb energy in the plastic range
III. Ductility is the ability of a material to deform in the elastic range

Which of these statements are correct?

A. I, II & III
B. I & II
C. I & III
D. II & III

57. What is efflorescence?

14
 A. The formation of white patches on the brick surface due to insoluble salts in the brick clay.
B. Swelling of brick due to the presence of carbonaceous matter and gases
C. Deformation of brick due to exposure to rain
D. Impurities in the brick clay which show after burning

58. The cylinder strength of the concrete is less than the cube strength because of
A. The difference in the shape of the cross-section of the specimens
B. The difference in the slenderness ratio of the specimens
C. The friction between the concrete specimens and the steel plate of the testing machine
D. The cubes are tested without capping but the cylinders are tested with capping.

59. During a team meeting, a team member asks about the measurements that will be used on the project to
judge performance. The team member feels that some of the measures related to activities assigned to
him are not valid measurements. Which stage of the project management process is the ideal place to
consider the project?

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring & Controlling
D. Closing

60. A four-step risk assessment process reflecting standard risk management practice consists of

A. Risk identification, deflection, impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control

B. Risk acceptance, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control
C. Risk deflection, Contingency planning, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control
D. Risk identification, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control

61. When operating at a height, what safety measures should be in place to stop objects from falling and
striking people or equipment below?
A. To catch any falling things, an assistant should be stationed below
B. A sign should be post that say, "Walk here at your own risk."
C. Debris nets, toe boards or canopies should be in place
D. Below, there should be a helper who yells, "Falling objects!" every 60 seconds.

15
62. The figure below shows the network of a particular project which consists of seven activities with their
durations. Which one of the following is true about the minimum time to complete the project and the
critical path?

3
B (16) F (18)
A (9)
1 2
D (10) G
5 (15) 6
C (8)
4 E (12)

A. The minimum time to complete the project is 58 days and the critical path is A-B-F-G
B. The minimum time to complete the project is 44 days and the critical path is A-C-E-G
C. The minimum time to complete the project is 60 days and the critical path is A-C-D-F-G
D. The minimum time to complete the project is 62 days and the critical path is A-B-D-E-G

63. Which one of the following is not true about quality control and quality assurance plan during
construction?
A. Quality control in construction typically involves insuring compliance with minimum standards of
material and workmanship.
B. Quality control is a work method that facilitates the measurement of the quality characteristics of
a unit of work and compares them with the established standards.
C. Quality assurance plan is a document made by the project team, which ensures the finished product
meets all criteria making it the best possible quality.
D. The engineer’s approval of the quality assurance plan shall relieve the contractor from his
responsibility for the quality of the works

64. A fixed-price contract is typically sought by the project manager from the customer’s organization
when:
A. The risk and consequences associated with the contracted task are large and the customer wishes
to transfer the risk.
B. The project manager’s company is proficient at dealing with contract activities.
C. Neither the contractor nor the project manager understands the scope of the task.

16
 D. The project manager’s company has excess production capacity.

65. “In the procurement of construction projects, after the bid evaluation stage is completed, the next stage
is contract award recommendation, which is followed by the commencement of the project. For a
Government project, award recommendation, letter of award, notice to sign a contract agreement, and
letter of commencement of the project are usually prepared and sent to the winner of the tender by the
procurement entity. As the thumb rule, the selected contractor can start the project often when he/she/it
receives the letter of commencement.”

Read the above paragraph carefully and choose the correct answer from the following choices.
A. The word “stage” should be replaced by “step”
B. The word “commencement” should be replaced by “start”
C. The phrase “often when” should be replaced by “only if”
D. The phrase “thumb rule” should be replaced by “government command”

66. Which one of the following choices is true about the source of claim in the construction contract?
A. Entitlement of additional payment due to variation order
B. Delay in interim payment by the client
C. Work quality compromised by a contractor
D. All can be the reason for the source of a claim.

67. . The two most common channels of communication for engineers in the construction industry are
drawings and specifications. In contract document preparation, the expertise should be careful neither
to duplicate nor to overlap the two as the two are complementary to each other. However, in case of
duplication occurred, the specification prevails. Based on this description, which one of the following
is correct about the message of the description and the reason for using neither/nor?
A. For engineers, drawings do not have that much good language of communication.
B. Duplication results in wasting time in contract documents preparation
C. Duplication saves the cost of contract document preparation
D. Duplication reduces ambiguities for the contractor

68. If the Ethiopian Government looks for a company with a good reputation that can conduct a feasibility
study, handle design work, do cost estimation, and prepare tender documents in case of design bid build

17
 project delivery system is intended to be used, from the following letters A-D, Choose the correct type
of procurement the government is in need.
A. Procurement of goods
B. Procurement of works
C. Procurement of services
D. All are answers.

69. For infrastructure projects, which type of cost estimate does the government commonly use in our
country?
A. Approximate cost estimate
B. Detail cost estimate
C. Preliminary cost estimate
D. Plinth area method cost estimate

70. “Building surveyors conduct property valuation mainly before the beginning of the project in order to
determine the exact value of the project the owners have to invest in.”
Judge the following choice statements according to the criteria given below.
A. The reason is correct but the assertion is wrong
B. The assertion is correct but the reason is wrong
C. Both the assertion and the reason are wrong
D. Both the assertion and the reason are correct

71. Among the following, one is professionally recommended in areas of heavy rainfall/snowfall.

A. Curved roofs.
B. Flat roofs.
C. Pitched roofs.
D. Shell and Dome type of roofs.

72. For a given concrete wall of dimension 200cm*400cm (width*length), how much will be the width &
length dimensions on drawing paper if the scale becomes 1:50
A. (4*8) cm

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 B. (40*80) cm
C. (20*40) cm
D. (2*4) cm

73. Among building working drawings, which one is a drawing of the outline and partitions of a building
that would be seen when the building was cut horizontally about 1.2m above the floor level.
A. Section drawing
B. Longitudinal section drawing
C. Floor plan
D. Site plan

74. From the following one is false about the reason why a suspended floor is needed rather than a ground
bearing slab on the following
A. When soil with a low bearing capacity is encountered,
B. in areas of sloping sites,
C. When sites exhibit high water levels during construction.
D. When the land parcel is owned by a third party or the Authority restricted the ground for
construction.

75. Which of these is a benefit of producing buildings through off-site construction techniques?
A. Different companies will produce all components.
B. The climate conditions have no impact on production.
C. Design can be easily changed during construction.
D. All components are locally sourced.

76. How should a customer’s care needs be met during the different stages of construction development in
a residential area?
A. By making specific decisions for the client.
B. By continued consultation during the build.
C. By giving a single update at the project end.
D. By updating client multiple times each day.

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77. Which one of the following transportation planning types is used to predict route choice of
transportation?
A. Trip Generation
B. Trip Assignment
C. Modal Split
D. Trip Distribution

78. Ethiopian Road Authority (ERA) conducts traffic counts during three different periods of the year based
on economic activities of Ethiopia: high, medium and low. The surveys are conducted for the first seven
days of the months of _____,_____and _________.
A. February, June and October
B. February, July and November
C. May, September and December
D. January, May and November

79. Flow is the product of speed and density; the flow is equal to zero when one or both of these terms is
zero. It is also possible to deduce that the flow is maximized at some critical combination of speed and
density. One of the following conditions illustrate these points:
A. The modern traffic jam, where traffic densities are very high and speeds are very low.
B. Traffic densities are very high and drivers can obtain free flow speed without any undue stress
caused by other vehicles on the roadway.
C. The extremely low density compensates for the low speeds, and the resulting flow is very high.
D. None

80. Which one of the following is not the boundary condition of Greenshields Model
A. Flow is zero at zero density
B. Mean free speed occurs at zero density
C. Flow is zero at maximum density
D. Flow-density curves are concave

81. Level of Service (LOS) is a quality measure describing operational conditions within a traffic stream,
generally in terms of such service measures as speed and travel time, and comfort and convenience
Which one of the following is mis-matching

20
 A. Level of service F- ‘Stop-go’ basis
B. Level of service A- ‘flow is virtually zero’
C. Level of service E- ‘possible to maneuver’
D. Level of service C- ‘care is required when changing lane

82. The provision of traffic signals at intersection

A. Increase right-angled and rear-end collisions
B. Reduce right-angled and rear-end collisions
C. Reduce rear-end collisions but may increase right-angled collisions
D. Reduce right-angled collisions but may increase rear-end collisions

83. For Transportation purpose in Ethiopia, the first preference is given to:
A. Airlines
B. Shipping
C. Roads
D. Railways

84. Transition curve is provided in horizontal alignment

A. To increase the radius of curvature
B. To facilitate the application of superelevation
C. To counteract the centrifugal force developed
D. To prevent vehicle from skidding laterally

85. At highway stretches where the required overtaking sight distance cannot be provided, it is necessary
to incorporate in such sections the following;
A. At least twice the stopping sight distance
B. Half of the required overtaking sight distance
C. 1/3 of the required overtaking sight distance
D. Three times the stopping sight distance

86. Which one of the following is false regarding the mass haul diagram?
A. A negative value at the end of the curve indicates that borrow material is required
B. A positive value at the end of the curve is indicates that neither borrow nor waste exists

21
 C. A vertical break between any two lines indicates where balance does not occur
D. Any horizontal line which joins points on the curve is where balance is achieved

87. When two roads with two-lane, two-way traffic cross at an uncontrolled intersection, the total number
of potential major conflict points would be:
A. 32
B. 24
C. 16
D. 5

88. Which of the following is not the method of sub-surface drainage adopted under different situations
A. Control of capillary rise
B. Control of seepage flow
C. Lowering the water table
D. Providing an impervious type of road surfacing

89. Why flexible pavements are generally built in layer with better materials at top?
A. Because intensity of stress is high at top
B. Because to resist the high stress that will occur at the top
C. Because to reduce the stress that will reach to subgrade
D. All

90. During penetration testing the penetration value of bitumen was recorded 9mm, so what is the
penetration grade of this bitumen and in which weather area will you recommend?
A. The Penetration grade is 60/70 and I will recommend at hot area
B. The penetration grade is 80/100 and I will recommend at cold area
C. The penetration grade is 80/100 and I will recommend at hot area
D. The penetration grade is 60/70 and I will recommend at cold area

91. In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at

A. 7.5mm penetration only

22
 B. 2.5 mm penetration only
C. 5 mm penetration only
D. Both 2.5 mm and 5 mm penetration

92. The expected daily traffic on a planned two-way 6 lane highway consists of trucks of type-1 and type-
2 with 400 & 500 average daily volumes respectively on both directions. The wheel loads on type-1
truck are 24KN, 24KN and 12KN while the wheel loads on type-2 trucks are 24KN & 12KN. The
equivalency factor for 12KN force is 0.181 and for 24KN force is 3.22. If the design lane factor is 45%,
the annual traffic growth rate is 4.5%, and design period is 15 years, how much is the total ESAL to be
used for the design?
A. 4.5
B. 2.9
C. 7.4
D. 5.6

93. Which one of the following is not used as a filler material in hot mix asphalt mix design?
A. Lime
B. Cement
C. Bitumen
D. Rock Dust

94. Which are the two major parameters considered in marshal mix design?
A. Durability and stability
B. Density and durability
C. Density & Stability
D. Workability & Stability

95. Which type of dam cannot be constructed even on then rock foundations which are not sufficiently
strong enough?
A. Gravity Dam

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 B. Arch Dam
C. Geotechnical Dam
D. Embankment Dam

96. When the dam reservoir is full, the slope which is most likely to slide is:
A. Upstream Slope
B. Downstream slope
C. Both upstream and downstream slope
D. No effect

97. The cross-section of weir in order from upstream to downstream is _______.

A. launching apron → block protection → sheet pile → impervious floor → sheet pile→ filter
→launching apron
B. block protection → sheet pile → filter → sheet pile → impervious floor → launching apron
C. impervious floor → launching apron → sheet pile → block protection → sheet pile → filter
→launching apron
D. filter → impervious floor → sheet pile → block protection → launching apron → sheet pile →
launching apron

98. A narrow V-shaped valley indicates the choice of _____________

A. Concrete overflow dam
B. Spillway
C. Arch Dam
D. Earth Dam

99. The storage of water below the bottom of the lowest sluice way in a reservoir is called:
A. Useful Storage
B. Surcharge storage
C. Live storage
D. Dead storage

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100. A low gravity dam of elementary profile made up of concrete of relative density 2.57 and safe
allowable stress of foundation material 4.2 MPa. What is the maximum height of the dam without
considering the uplift force?
A. 120 m
B. 217 m
C. 279
D. D. 325

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