JEE Main 24-06-2022 (Evening) : Questions
JEE Main 24-06-2022 (Evening) : Questions
Questions
1. 120 g of an organic compound that contains only carbon and hydrogen give 330 g of CO2 and 270 g of water on
complete combustion. The percentage of carbon and hydrogen, respectively are
(a) 25 and 75
(b) 40 and 60
(c) 60 and 40
(d) 75 and 25
4. At 25°C and 1 atm pressure, the enthalpies of combustion are as given below:
−1
–286.0 –394.0 –1560.0
kJ mol
5. For a first order reaction the time required for completion of 90% reaction is 'x’ times the half life of the reaction.
The value of ‘x’ is
(Given: ln 10 = 2.303 and log 2 = 0.3010)
(a) 1.12
(b) 2.43
(c) 3.32
(d) 33.31
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6. Metals generally melt at very high temperature. Amongst the following the metal with the highest melting point will
be
(a) Hg
(b) Ag
(c) Ga
(d) Cs
8. In the industrial production of which of the following, molecular hydrogen is obtained as a byproduct?
(a) NaOH
(b) NaCl
(c) Na metal
(d) Na2CO3
9. Which one of the following compounds is used as a chemical in certain type of fire extinguishers?
(a) Baking soda
(b) Soda ash
(c) Washing soda
(d) Caustic Soda
11. Transition metal complex with highest value of crystal field splitting (∆0) will be
(a) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(b) [Mo(H2O)6]3+
(c) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(d) [Os(H2O)6]3+
12. Some gases are responsible for heating of atmosphere (green house effect).
Identify from the following the gaseous species which does not cause it.
(a) CH4
(b) O3
(c) H2O
(d) N2
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(a) B>A>C
(b) A>B>C
(c) C>B>A
(d) C>A>B
16. Hex-4-ene-2-ol on treatment with PCC gives 'A'. 'A' on reaction with sodium hypoiodite gives ‘B’, which on
further heating with soda lime gives 'C'. The compound ‘C’ is
(a) 2-pentene
(b) proponaldehyde
(c) 2-butene
(d) 4-methylpent-2-ene
17. The conversion of propan-1-ol to n-butylamine involves the sequential addition of reagents. The correct sequential
order of reagents is
(a) (i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN (iii) H2/Ni, Na(Hg)/C2H5OH
(b) (i) HCI (ii) H2/Ni, Na(Hg)/C2H5OH
(c) (i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN (iii) CH3NH2
(d) (i) HCI (ii) CH3NH2
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(a) Ranitidine
(b) Seldane
(c) Cimetidine
(d) Codeine
20. In the flame test of a mixture of salts, a green flame with blue centre was observed. Which one of the following
cations may be present?
(a) Cu2+
(b) Sr2+
(c) Ba2+
(d) Ca2+
21. At 300 K, a sample of 3.0 g of gas A occupies the same volume as 0.2 g of hydrogen at 200 K at the same
pressure. The molar mass of gas A is _______ g mol–1. (nearest integer) Assume that the behaviour of gases as
ideal (Given: The molar mass of hydrogen (H2) gas is 2.0 g mol–1.)
22. A company dissolves ‘x’ amount of CO at 298 K in 1 litre of water to prepare soda water. X = _____ × 10–3 g.
2
(nearest integer)
(Given: partial pressure of CO2 at 298 K = 0.835 bar. Henry's law constant for CO2 at 298K = 1.67 kbar. Atomic
mass of H, C and O is 1, 12, and 6 g mol–1, respectively)
24. The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.01 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1750 Ω . If the conductivity of
0.01M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.152 × 10–3 S cm–1, then the cell constant of the conductivity cell is ____ × 10–3
cm–1
25. When 200 mL of 0.2 M acetic acid is shaken with 0.6 g of wood charcoal, the final concentration of acetic acid
after adsorption is 0.1 M. The mass of acetic acid adsorbed per gram of carbon is _____ g.
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27. Manganese (VI) has ability to disproportionate in acidic solution. The difference in oxidation states of two ions it
forms in acidic solution is ______
28. 0.2 g of an organic compound was subjected to estimation of nitrogen by Dumas method in which volume of N2
evolved (at STP) was found to be 22.400 mL. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is _______ [nearest
integer]
(Given: Molar mass of N2 is 28 g mol–1, Molar volume of N2 at STP: 22.4L)
29.
Consider the above reaction. The number of π electrons present in the product ‘P' is _____
31. Let x ∗ y = x
2
+ y
3
and (x ∗ 1) ∗ 1 = x ∗ (1 ∗ 1) . Then a value of
4 2
is
−1 x +x −2
2 sin ( )
4 2
x + x + 2
π
(a) 4
π
(b) 3
π
(c) 2
π
(d) 6
(b) − log 3 e
(c) log 6 e
(d) −log 6 e
3x + y + z = 4
x + 2z = 1
have a unique solution (x∗, y∗, z∗). If (α, x∗), (y∗, α) and (x∗, −y∗) are collinear points, then the sum of
absolute values of all possible values of α is :
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
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35. ⎧
⎪
sin (x− [x])
, x ∈ (−2, −1)
⎪ x− [x]
Let f (x) = ⎨
max {2x, 3 [|x|]} , |x| < 1
⎪
⎩
⎪
1 , otherwise
where [t] denotes greatest integer ⩽ t . If m is the number of points where f is not continuous and n is the number
of points where f is not differentiable, then the ordered pair (m, n) is :
(a) (3, 3)
(b) (2, 4)
(c) (2, 3)
(d) (3, 4)
36. π/2
(a) 2π
(b) 0
(c) π
π
(d) 2
37.
2 2 2 2
n n n n
lim ( + + + ....+ )
2 2 2 2 2
n→∞ (n +1) (n+1) (n + 4) (n+2) (n +9) (n+3) (n + n ) (n+n)
is equal to
(a)
π 1
+ loge 2
8 4
(b) π
4
+
1
8
loge 2
(c) π
4
−
1
8
loge 2
–
(d) π
8
+ loge √ 2
38. A particle is moving in the xy-plane along a curve C passing through the point (3, 3). The tangent to the curve C at
the point P meets the x-axis at Q. If the y-axis bisects the segment PQ, then C is a parabola with
(a) length of latus rectum 3
(b) length of latus rectum 6
(c) focus ( , 0) 4
39. Let the maximum area of the triangle that can be inscribed in the ellipse + = 1, a > 2, having one of
x
2 y
2
2 4
a
–
its vertices at one end of the major axis of the ellipse and one of its sides parallel to the y-axis, be 6√3 . Then the
eccentricity of the ellipse is :
(a) √3
(b) 1
2
1
(c) √2
(d) √3
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40. Let the area of the triangle with vertices A (1, α), B (α, 0) and C (0, α) be 4 sq. units. If the point
(α, −α), (−α, α) and (α , β) are collinear, then β is equal to
2
(a) 64
(b) – 8
(c) – 64
(d) 512
X 0 1 2 3 4
P (X) k 2k 4k 6k 86
7
2
(b) 3
(c) 3
(d) 4
3
) cos (
π
3
− x) =
1
4
cos
2
2x, x ∈ [−3π, 3π] is :
(a) 8
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(a) 16
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 15
45. Let the points on the plane P be equidistant from the points (−4, 2, 1) and (2, −2, 3). Then the acute angle
between the plane P and the plane 2x + y + 3z = 1 is
π
(a) 6
π
(b) 4
π
(c) 3
(d) 5π
12
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46. Let a
^ and ^
b be two unit vectors such that ∣ (a
∣ ^
+
^
b) + ^
2 (a ×
^ ∣
b)∣ = 2. If θ ∈ (0, π) is the angle between a
^
(a) xy + 2y = 0
′′ ′
(b) x y − 6y +
2 ′′
= 0
3π
(c) x y − 6y + 3π = 0
2 ′′
(d) xy − 4y = 0
′′ ′
49. The slope of normal at any point (x, y) , x > 0, y > 0 on the curve y = y (x) is given by x
2
. If the curve
2 2
xy−x y −1
passes through the point (1, 1), then e.y (e) is equal to
1−tan (1)
(a) 1+tan (1)
(b) tan(1)
(c) 1
1+tan (1)
(d) 1−tan (1)
(a) 36
(b) 48
(c) 64
(d) 72
52. −1 a
Let S = {( ) ; a, b ∈ {1, 2, 3, . . . . .100}} and let T n = {A ∈ S : A
n (n+1)
= I }. Then the
0 b
100
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53. The number of 7-digit numbers which are multiples of 11 and are formed using all the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7 and 9
is ................ .
54. The sum of all the elements of the set {α ∈ {1, 2, . . . . . . , 100} : H C F (α, 24) = 1} is ................ .
56. The area (in sq. units) of the region enclosed between the parabola y 2
= 2x and the line x + y = 4 is ............ .
57. Let a circle C : (x − h) + (y − k) = r , k > 0, touch the x-axis at (1, 0). If the line x + y = 0 intersects
2 2 2
the circle C at P and Q such that the length of the chord PQ is 2, then the value of h + k + r is equal to .............. .
58. In an examination, there are 10 true-false type questions. Out of 10, a student can guess the answer of 4 questions
correctly with probability and the remaining 6 questions correctly with probability .
3
4
1
If the probability that the student guesses the answers of exactly 8 questions correctly out of 10 is , then k is
27k
10
4
equal to .............. .
rectum of H is equal to the length of latus rectum of E. If e and e are the eccentricities of H and E respectively,
H E
60. Let P be a parabola with vertex (3, 2) and focus (4, 4) and P be its mirror image with respect to the line
1 2
61. Identify the pair of physical quantities that have same dimensions
(a) velocity gradient and decay constant
(b) wien’s constant and Stefan constant
(c) angular frequency and angular momentum
(d) wave number and Avogadro number
62. The distance between Sun and Earth is R. The duration of year if the distance between Sun and Earth becomes 3R
will be
(a) √–3 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 9 years
–
(d) 3√3 years
63. A stone of mass m. tied to a string is being whirled in a vertical circle with a uniform speed. The tension in the
suing is
(a) the same throughout the motion.
(b) minimum at the highest position of the circular path.
(c) minimum at the lowest position of the circular path.
(d) minimum when the rope is in the horizontal position.
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64. Two identical charged particles each having a mass 10 g and charge 2.0 x 10-7 C are placed on a horizontal table
with a separation of L between them such that they stay in limitted equilibrium. If the coefficient of friction
between each particle and the table is 0.25. find the value of L. [Use g = 10ms-2]
(a) 12 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 5 cm
65. A Carnot engine takes 5000 kcal of heat from a reservoir at 727oC and gives heat to a sink at 127oC. The work
done by the engine is
(a) 3 × 10 J 6
(b) Zero
(c) 12.6 × 10 J 6
(d) 8.4 × 10 J 6
66. Two massless springs with spring constant 2k and 9k, carry 50 g and 100 g masses at their free ends. These two
masses oscillate vertically such that their maximum velocities are equal. Then the ratio of their respective
amplitude will be
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 2 : 3
68. The soft-iron is a suitable material for making an electromagnet. This is because soft-iron has
(a) low coercivity and high retentivity
(b) low coercivity and low permeability
(c) high permeability and low retentivity
(d) high permeability and high retantivity
69. A proton, a deuteron and an α-particle with same kinetic energy enter into a uniform magnetic field at right angle
to magnetic field. The ratio of the radii of their respective circular paths is
(a) 1 : √–2 : √2
–
–
(b) 1 : 1 : √2
–
(c) √2 : 1 : 1
–
(d) 1 : √2 : 1
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5
r r
positive constant. The equilibrium distance between the two atoms will be
1/5
(a) (
A
)
B
1/5
(b) (
B
)
A
1/5
(c) (
2A
)
B
1/5
(d) (
B
)
2A
72. An object of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. The air resistance produce a constant
retarding force of 10 N throughout the motion. The ratio of time of ascent to the time of descent will be equal to:
[Use g = 10 ms-2]
(a) 1 : 1
(b) √– –
2 : √3
– –
(c) √3 : √2
(d) 2 : 3
73. A fly wheel is accelerated uniformly from rest and rotates through 5 rad in the first second. The angle rotated by
the fly wheel in the next second, will be
(a) 7.5 rad
(b) 15 rad
(c) 20 rad
(d) 30 rad
74. A 100 g of iron nail is bit by a 1.5 kg hammer striking at a velocity of 60 ms-1. What will be the rise in the
temperature of the nail if one fourth of energy of the hammer goes into heating the nail ? [5pecific heat capacity of
iron = 0.42 Jg-1oC-1]
(a) 675o C
(b) 1600oC
(c) 17.85oC
(d) 6.75oC
75. If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 C, the energy stored in it increases by 44%. The original charge on
the capacitor is (in C)
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
76. A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly distributed charge of density ρ . The radius of cylindrical volume
is R. A charge particle (q) revolves around the cylinder in a circular path. The kinetic energy of the particle is :
2
ρqR
(a) 4ε0
2
ρqR
(b) 2ε0
qρ
(c) 4ε0 R
2
(d) 4ε0 R
qρ
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77. An electric bulb is rated as 200W. What will be the peak magnetic field at 4 m distance produced by the radiations
coming from this bulb? Consider this bulb as a point source with 3.5% efficiency.
(a) 1.19 x 10-8 T
(b) 1.71 x 10-8 T
(c) 0.84 x 10-8 T
(d) 3.36 x 10-8 T
78. The light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 3.8 eVand 1.4 eV respectively, illuminate a
metallic surface whose work function is 0.6 eV successively. The ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons
for the two frequencies respectively will be :
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
79. Two light beams of intensities in the ratio of 9: 4 are allowed to interfere. The ratio of the intensity of maxima and
minima will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 16 : 81
(c) 25 : 169
(d) 25 : 1
80. In Bohr's atomic model of hydrogen. let K. P and E arc the kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy of the
electron respectively. Choose the correct options when the electron undergoes transitions to a higher level :
(a) All K, P and E increase
(b) K decreases, P and E increase
(c) P decreases, K and E increase
(d) K increases, P and E decrease
81. A body is projected from the ground at an angle of 45o with the horizontal. Its velocity after 2s is 20 ms-1. The
maximum height reached by the body during its motion is ____m. (us g = 10 ms-2)
82. An antenna is placed in a dielectric medium of dielectric constant 6.25. If the maximum size of that antenna is 5.0
mm, it can radiate a signal of minimum frequency of _________GHz. (Given μ r =1 for dielectric medium)
83. A potentiometer wire of length 10 m and resistance 20Ω is connected in series with a 25 V battery and an external
resistance 30 Ω . A cell of emf E in secondary circuit is balanced by 250 cm long potentiometer wire. The value of
E (in volt) is . The value of x is _____
x
10
84. True travelling waves of equal amplitudes and equal frequencies move in opposite directions along a string. They
interfere to produce a stationary wave whose equation is given byy = (10 cos πx sin 2πt
) cm
T
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86. A sample contains 10-2 kg each of two substances A and B with half lives 4s and 8s respectively. The ratio of their
atomic weights is 1: 2. The ratio of the amounts of A and B after 16s is . The value of x is ________
x
100
87. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence 60° on the glass slab of refractive index √–
3. After refraction, the
–
light ray emerges out from other parallel faces and lateral shift between incident ray and emergent ray is 4√3 cm.
The thickness of the glass slab is ______ cm.
88. A circular coil of 1000 turns each pith area 1m2 is rotated about its vertical diameter at the rate of one revolution
per second in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.07T. The maximum voltage generation will be_________ V.
89. A monoatomic gas performs a work of where Q is the heat supplied to it. The molar heat capacity of the gas will
Q
90. In an experiment to verify Newton's law of cooling, a graph is plotted between, the temperature difference (ΔT) of
the water and surroundings and time as shown in figure. The initial temperature of water is taken as 80°C. The
value of t2 as mentioned in the graph will be___________.
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Answer Key
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. B
7. B 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. D
13. A 14. A 15. C 16. C 17. A 18. C
19. C 20. A 21. 45.00 22. 1221.00 23. 1107.00 24. 266.00
25. 2 26. 3 27. 3 28. 14 29. 2 30. 4
31. B 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. C 36. C
37. A 38. A 39. A 40. C 41. D 42. A
43. D 44. A 45. C 46. C 47. B 48. B
49. D 50. D 51. 80.00 52. 100.00 53. 576.00 54. 1633.00
55. 4.00 56. 18.00 57. 7.00 58. 479.00 59. 42.00 60. 10.00
61. A 62. D 63. B 64. A 65. C 66. B
67. B 68. C 69. D 70. C 71. C 72. B
73. B 74. C 75. A 76. A 77. B 78. B
79. D 80. B 81. 20.00 82. 06.00 83. 25.00 84. 05.00
85. 5.00 86. 25.00 87. 12.00 88. 440.00 89. 2.00 90. 16.00
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Solutions
1. (D)
Mass of H 2 O
% of H = 2
18
×
Mass of compound
× 100
2 270
= × × 100 = 25%
18 120
Mass of CO2
% of C = 12
44
×
Mass of compound
× 100
12 330
= × × 100 = 75%
44 120
2. (C)
hc
E = NA ×
λ
23 −34 8
6.02×10 ×6.63×10 ×3×10
E = = 399kJ/mol
−9
300×10
3. (B)
4. (C)
∆Hcomb(C2H6, g) = –1560kJ/mole
∆Hcomb(C, s) = –394 kJ/mole
∆Hcomb(H2, s) = –286 kJ/mole
C2H6(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
7
5. (C)
2.303 100
T90% = log( )
K 10
2.303
= log 10
K
2.303 100
T50% = log( )
K 50
2.303
= log 2
K
T90% log 10 1
= = = 3.32
T50% log 2 0.3010
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6. (B)
7. (B)
For Hall-Heroult process reaction may be written in the following way
2Al2O3 + 3C → 4Al + 3CO2
8. (A)
In the industrial production of NaOH , molecular hydrogen is obtained as a byproduct
Reaction at cathode:
H2 is obtained as a by product at cathode.
2H2O + 2e- → H2 +2OH-
Reaction at anode:
2Cl- → Cl2 + 2e–
9. (A)
Sodium bicarbonate (Baking soda) is used with H2SO4 in fire extinguisher.
10. (B)
Nitrogen do not have vacant d-orbitals so it does not expand it’s octet, while phosphorous have vacant 3d orbitals so it
can expand it's octet and can form pentahalides.
11. (D)
5d series member have more value of ∆0 in comparison to 3d and 4d complexes.
12. (D)
Green house gases are CO2, O3, CFCs, Water Vapours,CH4
Gas, which is not a responsible for green house is nitrogen.
13. (A)
Among the given carbocations, B is most stable as Lone pair of oxygen will be involved in resonance due to which B
carbocation gets stabilised . Then ,Carbocation A will show +I effect and has 4 alpha hydrogens which stabilises
carbocation A .But Carbocation C shows -I effect due to which it is least stable. So, the correct order is B > A > C
14. (A)
Both the statement (I) and (II) are correct.
The presence of weaker π-bonds make alkenes less stable than alkanes as in alkanes sigma bond is present. Also, the
bond strength of the double bond is greater than that of carbon-carbon single bond as bond length of double bond is
shorter than carbon-carbon single bond.
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15. (C)
16. (C)
17. (A)
18. (C)
Buna-N is an addition polymer of buta-1,3-diene and acrylonitrile.
19. (C)
The structure shown is of cimetidine
20. (A)
Cu2+ gives a green flame with blue centre.
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21. (45.00)
Wgas
(PV) = ( ) RTgas
gas M gas
W
H
2
(PV) = ( ) RT H 2
H2 M
H
2
3 0.2
( ) 300 = ( ) 200
M gas 2
3×3
Mgas = ( ) = 45
0.2
22. (1221.00)
p = KH xCO
2
WC /44
3 O
2
0.835 = 1.67 × 10 ×
W
CO 1000
2
+
44 18
WCO
2
= 1.221 g = 1221 × 10–3 g
23. (1107.00)
PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
t=0
5 0 0
t = Eq m
5-x x x
From ideal gas equation
PV = nRT
2.46 × 200 = (5 – x + x + x + 2) × 0.082 × 600
x=3
nPCl ×nCl
3 2 Ptotal
KP = × [ ]
nPCl ntotal
5
3×3 2.46 −3
× = 1.107 = 1107 × 10
2 10
24. (266.00)
κ = × cell constant
1
25. (2)
Initial concentration of CH3COOH =0.2 M
Initial millimoles of CH3COOH = 0.2 x 200=40 millimoles
Final remaining milimoles of CH3COOH= 0.1 x 200=20 millimole
Change in millimoles=40-20=20 millimole
0.6 g wood charcoal adsorbed=20milimole CH3COOH
So, 1g wood charcoal adsorbed=20/0.6 millimole CH3COOH
Mass of CH3COOH (per gm of charcoal)=20/0.6 x 60 x 10-3g =2g
26. (3)
(a) Baryte: BaSO4
Below are the sulphide (S2–) ores
(b) Galena: PbS
(c) Zinc blende: ZnS
(d) Copper pyrites: CuFeS2
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27. (3)
+7 +4
2− + −
3MnO (aq.) + 4H (aq.) → 2MnO + MnO2 + 2H2 O
4 4
28. (14)
Vol of N2 gas = 22.4 ml at STP
Mole of N2 gas = 22.4
22400
= 1000
1
mole
Weight of N2 gas = × 28 1000
1
% of N in organic compound is 28
1000
× 100
0.2
= 14%
29. (2)
Number of π electrons = 2
30. (4)
Ala-Gly-Leu-Ala-Val
The amino acids are connected to each other by 4 peptide bonds.
31. (B)
∵ (x ∗ 1) ∗ 1 = x ∗ (1 ∗ 1)
2
(x + 1) ∗ 1 = x ∗ (2)
2 2 2
(x + 1) + 1 = x + 8
4 2 2 2
x + x − 6 = 0 ⇒ (x + 3) (x − 2) = 0
2
x = 2
4 2
−1 x + x −2 −1 1
⇒ 2 sin ( ) = 2 sin ( )
4 2 2
x + x + 2
π
=
3
32. (B)
2x 2x x x
(e − 4) (6e − 3e − 2e + 1) = 0
2x x x
(e − 4) (3e − 1) (2e − 1) = 0
2x x 1 x 1
e = 4 or e = or e =
3 2
2
ℓn4 + ℓn
1
3
+ ℓn
1
= − ℓn3
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1/11/24, 3:30 PM JEE Main 24-06-2022 (Evening)
33. (C)
∣ 1 1 α∣
∣ ∣
Δ 3 1 1 = − (α + 3)
∣ ∣
∣ 1 0 2 ∣
∣ 2 1 α∣
∣ ∣
Δ1 4 1 1 = − (3 + α)
∣ ∣
∣ 1 0 2 ∣
∣ 1 2 α∣
∣ ∣
Δ2 = 3 4 1 = − (α + 3)
∣ ∣
∣ 1 1 2 ∣
∣ 1 1 2 ∣
∣ ∣
Δ3 = 3 1 4 = 0
∣ ∣
∣ 1 0 1 ∣
α ≠ −3, x = 1, y = 1, z = 0,
∣ α 1 1∣
∣ ∣
Now points (α, 1), (1, α) & (1, −1) are collinear ∣ 1 α 1
∣
= 0
∣ 1 −1 1∣
⇒ α (α + 1) − 1 (1 − 1) + 1 (−1 − α) = 0
2
α + α − 1 − α = 0
α = ± 1
34. (D)
Using AM ⩾ GM
1
x+x+x+y+y 3 2
⩾ (x . y ) 5
5
1
3x+2y
15
⩾ (2 ) 5
(3x + 2y)min = 40
35. (C)
sin (x+2)
⎧
⎪
⎪ , x ∈ (−2, −1)
x+2
f (x) = ⎨
max {2x, 0} , x ∈ (−1, 1)
⎪
⎩
⎪
1 , otherwise
+ sin h
f (−2 ) = lim f (−2 + h) = lim = 1
h
h → 0 h→0
f is continuous at x = − 2
sin (−1−h+2)
−
f (−1 ) = lim = sin 1
(−1−h+2)
h→0
+
f (−1) = f (−1 ) = 0
f (1
+
) = 1 & f (1
−
) = 0 ⇒ f is not continuous at x = 1
⇒ f is discontinuous at x = −1 & 1 m = 2
} ⇒
& f is not diff. at x = −1, 0 & 1 n = 3
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36. (C)
0 π/2
dx dx
I = ∫ 6
+ ∫ 6
x 6 x 6
(1+e ) (sin x+ cot x) (1+e ) (sin x+ cos x)
−π/2 0
Put x = − t
0 π/2
−dt dx
= ∫ 6
+ ∫ 6
−t 6 x 6
(1+e ) (sin t + cos t) (1+e ) (sin x+ cos x)
π/2 0
π/2
x
(e +1) dx
= ∫ 6
x 6
(1+e ) (sin x+ cos x)
0
π/2
dx
= ∫
2 4 2
(sin x+ cos 2 x) (sin x−sin xcos 2 x+ cos 4 x)
0
π/2
2 2
(1+tan x) sec x dx
= ∫ 4 2
tan x− tan x+ 1)
0
Put tan x = t
∞
2
(1+t ) dt
= ∫ 4 2
(t −t + 1)
0
1 1
∞ (1+ ) dt ∞ (1+ ) dt
t2 t2
= ∫ = ∫
2 1 2
t −1+ 1
0 0 (t− ) + 1
t2 t
Put t − 1
t
= z
1
(1 + 2
) dt = dz
t
∞
dz −1 ∞
= ∫ = (tan z)−∞
2
1+z
−∞
π π
= − (− ) = π
2 2
37. (A)
n
2
n
lim (∑ )
2 2
n→∞ (n + r ) (n+r)
r= 1
n
1
lim (∑ )
r 2 r
n→∞ (1+( ) ) (1+ ( ))
r= 1 n n
1 1 1
dx 1 1−x 1 1
= ∫ = ∫ + ∫ dx
2 2 2 2 1+x
(1+x ) (1+x) 1+x
0 0 0
1 1 x 1 1
= ∫ ( − ) dx + (ln (1 + x)
2 2 2 2 0
1+x 1+x
1
1 −1 1 2 1
= [tan x − ℓn (1 + x) ] + ℓn2
2 2 2
0
1 π 1 1
= [ − ℓn2] + ℓn2
2 4 2 2
π 1
= + ℓn 2
8 4
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38. (A)
Let point P (x, y)
′
Y − y = y (X − x)
y
Y = 0 ⇒ X = x − ′
y
y
Q (x − ′
, 0)
y
′ y dy dx
y = ⇒ 2 =
2.x y x
Length of L.R. = 3
Focus = ( , 0) 3
Ans. (a)
39. (A)
1
A = a (1 − cos θ) (4 sin θ)
2
A = 2a (1 − cos θ) sin θ
dA 2 2
= 2a (sin θ + cos θ − cos θ)
dθ
dA 2
= 0 ⇒ 1 + cos θ − 2 cos θ = 0
dθ
cos θ = 1 (Reject)
Or
−1 2π
cos θ = ⇒ θ =
2 3
2
d A 2
2
= 2a (2 sin θ − sin θ)
dθ
2
d A 2π
2
< 0 f or θ =
3
dθ
3√ 3 –
Now, A max =
2
a = 6√ 3
a = 4
−−
2
−−
2
√3
Now, e =
a −b
√ =
2 2
a
Ans. (a)
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40. (C)
∣ α 0 1∣
1 ∣ ∣
1 α 1 = ± 4
2 ∣ ∣
∣ 0 α 1∣
α = ± 8
Ans. (c)
41. (D)
7
x − 7x − 2 = 0
7
x − 7x = 2
7
f (x) = x − 7x (odd) & y = 2
42. (A)
P (1< x < 4 ∩ x ⩽ 2)
1< x< 4
P ( ) =
x ⩽ 2 P (x⩽ 2)
P (1< x ⩽ 2) P (x=2)
= =
P (x ⩽ 2) P (x ⩽ 2)
4k 4
= =
k+ 2k+ 4k 7
43. (D)
π π 1 2
cos ( + x) cos ( − x) = cos 2x
3 3 4
x ∈ [−3π, 3π]
2 π 2 2
4 (cos ( ) − sin x) = cos 2x
3
1 2 2
4 ( − sin x) = cos 2x
4
2 2
1 − 4 sin x = cos 2x
2
1 − 2 (1 − cos 2x) = cos 2x
let cos 2x = t
2
−1 + 2 cos 2x = cos 2x
2
t − 2t + 1 = 0
2
(t − 1) = 0
t = 1 cos 2x = 1
2x = 2nπ
x = nπ
n = − 3, − 2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3
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44. (A)
|(a2 −a1 ) ⋅ (b1 × b2 )|
SHORTEST distance |b 1 × b 2 |
a1 = (1, 2, 3)
a2 = (2, 4, 5)
⃗ ^ ^ ^
b2 = 2i + 3j + λk
⃗ ^ ^ ^
b2 = i + 4j + 5k
∣ ^ ^ ^ ⃗ ⃗ ∣
((2−1) i + (4−2) j + (5−3) k) ⋅ (b × b )
∣ 1 2 ∣
S . D. =
|b × b |
1 2
∣ ^ ^ ^ ∣
i j k
∣ ∣
⃗ ⃗
b1 × b2 = ∣ 2 3 λ ∣
∣ ∣
∣ 1 4 5 ∣
= (15 − 4λ) ^ ^ ^
i + (λ − 10) j + 5k
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
2 2
∣ ⃗ ⃗ ∣
b × b2 = √(15 − 4λ) + (λ − 10) + 25
∣ 1 ∣
Now
∣ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ∣
( i + 2 j + 2k) ⋅ [(15−4λ)+ i (λ−10) j + 5k]
∣ ∣
S.D. = 2 2
√ (15−4λ) + (λ−10) + 25
|15−4λ+2λ−20+10|
1
=
2 2 √3
√ (15−4λ) + (λ−10) + 25
(λ − 5) (λ − 11) = 0
⇒ λ = 5, 11
45. (C)
−
−→ −
−→ −
−→
Normal vector = AB = (OB − OA)
^ ^ ^
= (6 i − 4j + 2k )
or ^ ^
2 (3 i − 2 j +
^
k)
P ≡ 3 (x + 1) − 2(y) + 1 (z − 2) = 0
P ≡ 3x − 2y + z + 1 = 0
′
P ≡ 2x + y + 3z − 1 = 0
^ ⋅ n
^
∣ n ∣
angle between P & P
′
=
∣
1 2
|n 1 | |n 2 | ∣
= cos θ
−1 6−2+3
θ = cos ( )
√ 14× √ 14
−1 7 −1 1 π
θ = cos ( ) = cos ( ) =
14 2 3
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46. (C)
^ + ^ ^ × ^
|(a b) + 2 (a b)| = 2, θ ∈ (0, π)
^ + ^ ^ × ^ ^ + ^ ^ × ^
((a b) + 2 (a b)). ((a b) + 2 (a b)) = 4
2 2
^ + ^ ^ × ^
|a b| + 4 |(a b)| + 0 = 4
Now,
⃗ 2π
S1 2 |a ⃗ × b| = 2 sin ( )
3
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
^ − ^ 2π
|a b| = √1 + 1 − 2 cos ( )
3
−−−−−−−−−−−−
1
= √2 − 2 × (− )
2
–
= √3
S1 is correct.
S2 projection of a
^ on (a
^ + ^
b).
2π
^ 1+cos ( )
^ . (a
a ^+ b ) 3
=
^ 2π
^+ b |
|a √ 2+2 cos
3
1
1−
2
=
√1
1
=
2
47. (B)
−1 3 3
y = tan (sec x − tan x )
3
−1 1−sin x
= tan ( )
3
cos x
π 3
1−cos ( −x )
2
−1
= tan ( )
π
3
sin ( −x )
2
3
−1 π x
= tan (tan ( − ))
4 2
since
3
π x π
− ∈ (− , 0)
4 2 2
3
π x
y = ( − )
4 2
2
′ −3x ′′
y = , y = − 3x
2
3
4y = π − 2x
′′
−y
2
4y = π − 2x ( )
3
2 ′′
12y = 3π + 2x y
2 ′′ 3π
x y − 6y + = 0
2
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48. (B)
∼ ((A ∧ C) → B)
∼ (∼ (A ∧ C) ∨ B)
49. (D)
2
Slope of normal =
−dx x
=
dy 2 2
xy−x y −1
2 2 2
x y dx + dx − xydx = x dy
2 2 2
x y dx + dx = x dy + xydx
2 2
x y dx + dx = x (xdy + ydx)
2 2
x y dx + dx = xd (xy)
d (xy)
dx
=
x 1+x 2 y 2
ln kx = tan (xy) −1
. . . . (i)
ln k = ⇒ k = e
π
4
4
put x = e in (ii)
1+tan 1
∴ ey (e) =
1−tan 1
50. (D)
3 2
fλ (x) = 4λx − 36λx + 36x + 48
′ 2
fλ (x) = 12λx − 72λx + 36
′ 2
fλ (x) = 12 (λx − 6λx + 3) ⩾ 0
∴ λ > 0 & D ⩽ 0
2
36λ − 4 × λ × 3 ⩽ 0
2
9λ − 3λ ⩽ 0
3λ (3λ − 1) ⩽ 0
1
λ ∈ [0, ]
3
1
∴ λ largest =
3
4 3 2
f (x) = x − 12x + 36x + 48
3
∴ f (1) + f (1) = 72
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51. (80.00)
|z − 3| ⩽ 1
8x − 6y ⩽ 24
4x − 3y ⩽ 12
−−−−−−
minimum of (0, 4) from circle = √3 + 4 2 2
− 1 = 4
equation circle (x − 3) 2
+ y
2
= 1 . . . . (ii)
2
12−3y
2
( − 3) + y = 1
4
2
−3y
2
( ) + y = 1
4
2
25y 4
= 1 ⇒ y = ±
16 5
5
12
∴ x =
5
4 12
∴ 25 (α + β) = 25 ( + )
5 5
= 16 × 5 = 80
52. (100.00)
−1 a
A = [ ]
0 b
−1 a −1 a
2
A = [ ] [ ]
0 b 0 b
1 −a + ab
= [ ]
2
0 b
n (n+1)
∴ Tn = {A ∈ S; A = I}
∴ b must be equal to 1
∴ In this case A will become identity matrix and a can take any value from 1 to 100
2
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53. (576.00)
Digits are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9
Multiple of 11→ Difference of sum at even & odd
place is divisible by 11.
Let number of the form abcdefg
∴ (a + c + e + g) − (b + d + f) = 11x
a + b + c + d + e + f = 31
∴ either a + c + e + g = 21 or 10
∴ b + d + f = 10 or 21
Case-1
a + c + e + g = 21
b + d + f = 10
Case-2
a + c + e + g = 10
b + d + f = 21
54. (1633.00)
HCF (α, 24) = 1
Now, 24 = 2 . 3 2
Sum of values of α
= S (U ) − {S (multiple of 2) + S (multiple of 3)− S (multiple of 6)}
55. (4.00)
2022 1011
1 . (3 −1) 9 −1
=
2 2
1011
(10−1) −1
=
2
100λ+ 10110−1−1
=
2
10108
= 50λ +
2
= 50λ + 5054
= 50λ + 50 × 101 + 4
Rem (50) = 4.
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56. (18.00)
x = 4 − y
2
y = 2 (4 − y)
2
y = 8 − 2y
2
y + 2y − 8 = 0
y = − 4, y = 2
x = 8, x = 2
2
2 y
∫ [(4 − y) − ] dy
−4 2
2 3 2
y y
= [4y − − ]
2 6
−4
8 16 64
= 8 − 2 − + 16 + −
6 2 6
72
= 22 + 8 −
6
= 30 − 12 = 18
57. (7.00)
k = r
h = 1
OP = r, P R = 1
∣ r+1 ∣
OR =
∣ √2 ∣
2
(r+1)
2
r = 1 +
2
2 2
2r = 2 + r + 1 + 2r
2
r − 2r − 3 = 0
(r − 3) (r + 1) = 0
r = 3 , −1
h + k + r = 1 + 3 + 3
=7
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58. (479.00)
3
A = {1, 2, 3, 4} : P (A) = → Correct
4
1
B = {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} ; P (B) = Correct
4
8 Correct Ans.
4 4 2
4 3 6 1 3
(4, 4) : C4 ( ) ⋅ C4 ⋅ ( ) ⋅ ( )
4 4 4
3 1 5
4 3 1 6 1 3
(3, 5) : C3 ( ) ⋅ ( ) ⋅ C5 ( ) ⋅ ( )
4 4 4 4
2 2 6
4 3 1 6 1
(2, 6) : C2 ( ) ⋅ ( ) ⋅ C6 ( )
4 4 4
Total = 1
10
[3
4
× 15 × 3
2
+ 4 × 3
3
× 6 × 3 + 6 × 3
2
=
27
10
[2.7 × 15 + 72 + 2]
4 4
⇒ K = 479
59. (42.00)
2 2 2 2
x y x y
− = 1 + = 1
a
2 1 4 3
−−−−−− −−−−−
1 3 1
eH = √1 + eE = √1 − =
2 4 2
a
2 2×3
ℓ. R. = ℓR = = 3
a 2
2
= 3
a
2
a =
3
−−−−−
9 √ 13
eH = √1 + =
4 2
2 2 13 1
12 (e + e ) = 12 ( + )
H E 4 4
12 × 14
= = 42
4
60. (10.00)
P1 : Directrix :
x + 2y = k
x + 2y − k = 0
∣ 3+4−K ∣ –
= √5
∣ √5 ∣
|7 − k| = 5
7 − K = 5 7 − K = − 5
k = 2 k = 12
Accepted Rejected
Passes through
focus
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61. (A)
velocity gradient and decay constant
62. (D)
3/2
T2 r2 3/2
3r
= ( ) = ( )
T1 r1 r
T2 –
= 3√ 3
T1
63. (B)
minimum at the highest position of the circular path.
64. (A)
2
kq
2
= μmg
ℓ
−
−−−
2 −−−−−
9 −−−−−−
−14
−−−−−−−
−5+3
kq 9×10 ×4×10 36×10 6 −1 60
ℓ = √ = √ = √ = × 10 m = cm = 12cm
μmg −3 5 5
0.25×10×10 ×10 25
65. (C)
Given,
T 1 = 727 + 273 = 1000 K
Q1 = 3000 K . cal
Efficiency
w T2
η = = 1 =
Q T1
1
T2 400 3
3 3
w = Q1 (1 − ) = 5000 (1 − ) 10 = 5000 ( ) 10 cal
T1 1000 5
6 6 6
= 3 × 10 cal = 3 × 4.2 × 10 J = 12.6 × 10 J
66. (B)
V man = ω1 A1 = ω2 A2
√ K2 /m2
A1 ω2
= =
A2 ω1
√ K1 /m1
√ K2 √ m2
= ×
√ K1 √ m1
√ 9K √ 50 3
= × =
√ 2K √ 100 2
67. (B)
22
R eq =
3
68. (C)
high permeability and low retentivity
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69. (D)
For circular path in magnetic field
√ 2mE
r =
qB
E = kinetic energy
So,
√ m1 √ m2 √ m3 √1 √2 √4 –
r1 : r2 : r3 = : : = : : = 1 : √2 : 1
q q q e e 2e
1 2 3
70. (C)
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
71. (C)
du
F = − = 0
dr
−11 6
⇒ −10r A + 5r B = 0
1
2A 5
⇒ r = [ ]
B
72. (B)
Let a be the retardation produced by air resistive force a ta and td be the time of ascent and time of
Fair 10
= = = 2,
M 5
descent respectively.
If the particle rises upto a height h then
(g + a) t and h =
1 2 1 2
h = (g − a) t
a
2 2 d
−−− −−−− −
−
ta g−a
Therefore,
10−2 2
= √ = √ = √
td g+a 10+2 3
73. (B)
1 2
θ = ωt + αt
2
1 2
θ1 = α(1) . . . . (i)
2
1 2
θ1 + θ2 = α(2) . . . . (ii)
2
So, θ 2 = 3θ 1 = 3 × 5 = 15
74. (C)
1
4
kinetic energy of hammer is converted into heat. Which is transfer to the nail.
1 1 2
( Mhammer × v ) = Mnail sΔθ
4 2
2
2 1×1.5×(20)
1 Mhammer v 1.5×20×20 15×20×20 ∘
Δθ = = = = × 100 = 17.85 C
8 Mnail s 8×0.1×0.42 8×100×0.42 8×42×100
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75. (A)
2
Q
U =
2C
New charge ⇒ Q + 2
2
(Q+2)
U
′
= new energy = 2C
′ 44
U = U + U × = U × 1.44
100
2 2
(Q+2) Q
= × 1.44
2C 2C
− −−−
Q + 2 = Q × √ 1.44
Q + 2 = Q × 1.2
2 = 0.2Q
Q = 10 coulomb
76. (A)
Charge (λ) per unit length of cylinder =
Q
ℓ
2
ρ×πR ℓ
2
= = ρπR
ℓ
2 2
ρπR ρR
λ
E = = =
2πε0 r 2πε0 r 2ε0 r
2
mV
qE =
r
2
q×ρR 2
mV
=
2ε0 r e
2
qρR
2
mV =
2ε0
2
qρR
1 2
KE = mV =
2 4ε0
77. (B)
Power of light = Power = 100 × 3.5
100
I = Intensity = P ower
4πr
2
=
3.5×100
2
2
w/m
2
= 0.0173w/m
100×4π(4)
2 −−−−−
B C I ×2μ
0 0 −8
I = ; B0 = √ ; B 0 = 1.2 × 10 T
2μ C
0
78. (B)
−−−−−
V1 max 3.8−0.6 2
= √ =
V2 max 1.4−0.6 1
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79. (D)
Given
I1 9
=
I2 4
2
√I 1
( +1)
2
(√ I + √ I ) √I 2
Imax. 1 2
= 2
= = 25 : 1
Imin. 2
(√ I − √ I ) √I 1
1 2
( −1)
√I 2
80. (B)
Information
81. (20.00)
Assume initial speed is u then u ⃗ = u ^
i +
u ^
j at 2 sec v ⃗ = u ^
i (
u ^
− g × 2) j
√2 √2 √2 √2
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
2 2
Given⇒ v = 20 = √(
u
) + (
u
− 2g)
√2 √2
2 2
u u 40u 2 40 40 40
400 = + + 400 − ;u − u = 0; u (u − ) = 0 ⇒ u = 0 or u = m/s
2 2 √2 √2 √2 √2
2
40 1
2 2 ( ) 2
u (sin θ) (20)
Maximum height =
√2 √2
= = = 20m
2g 2g 20
82. (06.00)
− − − −
R. I . = √ ε r μr = 2.5
c
v =
2.5
λ v
I > ⇒ I >
4 4f
v
f > ⇒ f > 6GH z
4I
83. (25.00)
25 25 25 1
I = = = = Amp
R+R 20+30 50 2
n
Y = potential gradient = = × = 1V /m
iR
L
1
2
20
10
x = 25
84. (05.00)
4π
A = 10 cos = 5cm
3
85. (5.00)
From KVL
10 − 800I − 1000I1 = 0
5
I1 = Amp
1000
I1 = IL = 5mA
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1/11/24, 3:30 PM JEE Main 24-06-2022 (Evening)
86. (25.00)
m0
m = n
2
1
24 1 x
Ratio = 1
= = ; x = 25
4 100
22
87. (12.00)
Here, r = 30 ∘
t
d = sin(i − r)
cos r
– t 1
4√ 3 = × ⇒ t = 12
√3 2
88. (440.00)
Emax = N BAω = 1000 × 0.07 × 1 × 2 × 3.14 = 440 volt
89. (2.00)
Q
W =
4
Q
Q = + ΔU
4
3Q
ΔU =
4
3
nC vΔT = Q
4
nC ΔT = Q
Cv 3
=
C 4
4
C = Cv
3
4 3
= ×
3 2R
= 2R
90. (16.00)
ΔT = T water − T sourounding = T − T s
At t = 0
∘
ΔT = 60 and T = 80 C
80 − T s = 60
Therefore, T = 20 C s
∘
Between 0 to 6 minute
20 60+40
− k [( + 20) − 20]
6 min 2
Between 6 to t2 minute
20 40+20
= k [( + 20) − 20]
t2 −6 2
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