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Question 1.

This document contains a 21 question practice test for an exam. The questions cover topics related to education including teaching methods, evaluation systems, research methods, logic, mathematics, and the scientific method. For each question there are 4 multiple choice answer options. This appears to be a practice test to help students prepare for an upcoming exam on education-related subjects.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
29 views

Question 1.

This document contains a 21 question practice test for an exam. The questions cover topics related to education including teaching methods, evaluation systems, research methods, logic, mathematics, and the scientific method. For each question there are 4 multiple choice answer options. This appears to be a practice test to help students prepare for an upcoming exam on education-related subjects.

Uploaded by

muhammedrafi
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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com

PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPER SET 1


Question Paper No.1
2nd December 2019, Morning shift

Q1. Which of the following refers to an attribute of every categorical proposition which is
determined by whether the preposition affirms or denies class inclusion?

(1) quality
(2) Quantity
(3) Distribution
(4) Comparison

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q2. Instructional communication in the distance education mode is

(1) unstructured
(2) Self-regulatory
(3) Informal
(4) Structured and interactive

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q3. Identify the factors affecting teaching related to positive learning environment in an institution:

(i) the extent to which teachers make clear presentation


(ii) The scope for sharing and open discussions with the classroom and institution as such
(iii) Teachers mastery of the content as reflected in answering students question
(iv) Frequent use of positive reinforces either in the institution or classroom
(v) Availability of teachers and his or her guidance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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(1) (i) and (ii)


(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv) and (v)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q4. A fallacy in which an opponent position is depicted as being more extreme or unreasonable than
is justified by what was actually asserted is called

(1) argumentum ad Baculum


(2) The red herring
(3) Argumentum ad Hominem
(4) Straw man

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q5. In the following two sets ,set I mention the evaluation system while set II give their descriptive
features. Match the two sets

Set I Set II
(evaluation system) (descriptive features)
(a) formative evaluation (i) comparing the students
performance with that of others
(b) summative evaluation (ii) indicating standards of
mastery
(c) norm referenced testing (iii) Diagnosing students
problems
(d) criterion referenced testing (iv) identifying scope for
improvement
(v) judging learning standards

choose the correct answers from the options given below:

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)


(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

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(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iv)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q6. Which of the following is the key teaching behaviour to make a teacher effective?

(1) teacher’s comments made for the purpose of organising upcoming teaching process
(2) Use of content hot process questions by teacher
(3) Engagement of students in the learning process
(4) Using student’s ideas and contributions

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q7. The distinction between Savikalpaka(determinate) and Nirvikalpaka(indeterminate) is made with


respect to which of the following pramanas?

(1) Anumana(inference)

(2) prathyaksha (perception)

(3) Arthapatti (postulation)

(4) Upamana(comparison)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

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Q8. The term 'Paksha' according to classical Indian school of logic refers to which of the following
terms in the process of inference

(1) major Term


(2) Undefined term
(3) Minor term
(4) Middle term

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q9. A sum of Rs. 2,000 yields Rs180 which simple interest in 9 months. The annual rate of interest is

(1) 9%
(2) 10%
(3) 11%
(4) 12%

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q10. Dynamics of good classroom communication involves:

(a) Indifference
(b) Motivation
(c) Being organised
(d) Exclusivity
(e) Participation
(f) Gendered views

Choose the correct option from the following

(1) (a) (b) and (c)


(2) (b) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) (c) and (e)
(4) (c) (e) and (f)

Options

1.1

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2.2

3.3

4.4

Q11. In a research problem ‘studying the efforts of teaching methods on a scholastic achievement of
boys and girls in terms of their socio economic background', which can be designated as
independent variable?

(1) Scholastic achievement


(2) Teaching methods
(3) Gender
(4) Socio economic background

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q12. In a thesis ' Format and styling of referencing' have been inappropriately followed. This is an
example of

(1) Technical lapse on the part of researcher


(2) Unethical practice of the researcher
(3) Inability of the researcher to write a thesis
(4) Lack of commitment on the part of research writing thesis

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q13. University department plans to undertake a study where in attitudes, values and biases of
teachers and students are to be probed with an eye on disclosing their patterns of adjustment.
Which types of research methods will be considered appropriate in this context

(i) Experimental method


(ii) Case study method
(iii) Descriptive method
(iv) Ethnographic method
(v) Historical method

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Select the correct answer from the options given below

(1) (i) and (ii)


(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (v)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q14. The principles of effective writing useful for both students and teachers are

(a) Stress on hyperboles


(b) Liberal use of adjectives
(c) Clarity
(d) Conciseness
(e) Correctness
(f) Use of complex sentences

Choose the correct option from the following

(1) (a),(b) and (c)


(2) (b),(c) and (d)
(3) (c), (d) and (e)
(4) (d),(e) and (f)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q15.when results obtained in a research study can be extended to a group larger than the sample
(outside the context of the study) it is called

(1) Internal validity


(2) Functional relationship
(3) External validity
(4) Hypothetical construct

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Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q16. The numbers are in the ratio 3 : 7. If 8 is added to both the numbers the ratio becomes 5:9. The
numbers are

(1) 12,28
(2) 6, 14
(3) 15, 35
(4) 24, 56

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q17.in the following list which belongs to the category of learner centred approaches?

(i) SWAYAM
(ii) Computer aided instruction
(iii) MOOCS
(iv) Quizzes
(v) Buzz sections

Select the correct answer from the options given below

(1) (i) and (iii)


(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (v)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

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Q18.the product of any three consecutive integers is divisible by 6. Therefore 3×4×5(=60) is divisible
by 6? Which type of reasoning is embodied here?

(1) Deductive reasoning


(2) Inductive reasoning
(3) Non-verbal reasoning
(4) Abductive reasoning

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q19. Given below are two statements- one is labelled as assertion (A) and other is labelled as
reason(R)

Assertion (A): communication does not include all human behaviour for exchange of information

Reason (R): communication involves the use of all five senses

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A


(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q20. Which of the following sequences correctly reflects science investigation?

(1) Conceptualization, theorizing, deduced consequences, observation and testing


(2) Testing, observation, conceptualization, theorizing and deduced consequences
(3) Theorizing, deducing consequences, testing, observing and conceptualising
(4) Observation, conceptualization, theorizing, deduced consequences and methods to verify
them

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

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4.4

Q21.If 'a ‘is inversely proportional to ‘b’ and 'b' is inversely proportional to’c’, then

(1) a is inversely proportional to c


(2) a is directly proportional to c
(3) a is constant
(4) a is directly proportional to bc

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q22.the basic requirements for organising teaching at reflective level deal with

(1) systematic and sequential presentation of facts and information by the teacher
(2) helping explore and explain problems and their solutions by students
(3) Translating and interpreting the facts by the students
(4) Giving concrete facts and action sequences by the teacher

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q23. A teacher tells his students-“when you learn this you will be able to carry out your project”.
What does this communication suggest?

(1) continued interest


(2) Ambiguous advice
(3) Potential threat
(4) Positive reinforcement

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

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Q24. The number X in the following series:

3, 8, 18, 38, X...is

(1) 78
(2) 80
(3) 76
(4) 74

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q25. If SOLUTION is R5KTSH5M then CHROME will be written as

(1) BQ5HL
(2) B5QLH
(3) BQ5LD
(4) BS5LH

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Comprehension

Directions Q 26-30: the following table gives the percentage of people having knowledge of different
programming languages. Assuming that the total number of people having knowledge about
programming language is 1200000. Answer the questions that follow the table

Programming % of people having


language knowledge
C++ 15%

C 25%

COBOL 12%

FORTRAN 13%

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Java 15%

LISP 10%

Python 10%

Q.26what is the average percentage of people having knowledge of programming language-python,


LISP AND JAVA?

(1) 1.04%

(2) 11.7%

(3) 26.6%

(4) 11.0%

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q27.the total number of people having knowledge about C, Java and COBOL is

(1) 480000
(2) 504000
(3) 516000
(4) 624000

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q28. The ratio of the number of people having knowledge about C to date of knowledge about Java
is

(1) 3:5
(2) 5:3
(3) 1:1

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(4) 5:2

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q29. How many people have knowledge about C language?

(1) 180000
(2) 300000
(3) 156000
(4) 144000

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q30. Difference in the number of people having knowledge of C and COBOL programming language
is

(1) 120000
(2) 180000
(3) 144000
(4) 156000

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q31.which of the following UN conferences or summit adopt the programme of action for the
sustainable development?

(1) Stockholm conference


(2) Rio de Janeiro conference
(3) Johannesburg summit
(4) Ahmedabad conference

Options

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1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q32. Consider the following storage devices

(a) Hard disc


(b) CD ROM
(c) DVD ROM

arrange these in ascending order of storage capacity and select the correct option

(1) (b), (c) and (a)


(2) (b), (a) and (c)
(3) (c), (b) and (a)
(4) (a), (c) and (b)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q33. In computer related activities what is the full form of WORM?

(1) Write On Random Memory


(2) Write On Real Memory
(3) Write Once Read Many
(4) Write Once Read Memory

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q34.which of the following is not suitable in the context of email?

(1) It is a letter send over a computer network


(2) It can be used to send unsolicited messages
(3) Email is snail-mail
(4) Email address includes domain name

Options

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1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q35. Identify environmental issues which are local in nature:

(i) Depletion of Ozone layer


(ii) Lake pollution
(iii) Soil erosion
(iv) Climate change
(v) Water logging
(vi) Solid waste management

Select the answer from the options given below:

(1) (ii) (iii) (v) and (vi)


(2) (iii) (iv) (v) and (vi)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q36.which one of the following is a non-statutory body?

(1) National Council for Teacher Education(NCTE)


(2) Bar Council of India (BCI)
(3) Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)
(4) National Assessment and Accreditation Council(NAAC)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q37. Which of the following is a 'decision support system ‘for assisting people in taking best
decisions for their children's future?

(1) E-Pathshala

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(2) Saransh
(3) Shaala Sidhdhi
(4) SWAYAM PRABHA

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q38.For encouraging worldwide awareness and action for the protection of our environment, UNEP
focused on the World Environment Day (2019) on which of the following themes?

(1) Conserve energy


(2) Tackle climate change
(3) Beat air pollution
(4) Save water

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q39.The Government of India has set up the ministry of Jal Shakti by merging/Training which of the
following:

(1) Ministry of Water Resources and Ministry of Earth Sciences


(2) Ministry of Water Resources; Ministry of River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation; and
Ministry of Rural Development
(3) Ministry of Water Resources; Ministry of River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation; ant
Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation
(4) Ministry of Water Resources

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q40.which of the following indicates the objective of the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change(UNFCCC)?

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(1) To stabilize greenhouse gases concentration in the atmosphere


(2) To prescribed limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries
(3) To lay down enforcement mechanism
(4) To prepare guidelines for formulation of Climate Action Plan by member countries

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q41. The Ancient Indian University known as chief centre for advanced and specialised studies in
Nyaya or logic was

(1) Jagaddala university


(2) Mithila university
(3) Nadia university
(4) Valabhi university

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q42.which of the following has been the basis for introduction of yoga in teacher training courses?

(1) National Policy of Education-1968


(2) National Policy on Education-1986
(3) Vision of Teacher Education in India: Quality and Regulatory Perspective-2012
(4) Draft National Education Policy-2019

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q43. Identify the ' NITI Aayog- Three Year Action Agenda Items' related to the field of higher
education:

(i) Autonomy for top colleges

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(ii) Reform of the regulatory system


(iii) establishing a system of project and scholar specific research grants
(iv) Promotion of research culture
(v) National research Foundation

Select correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i) (ii) and (iii)


(2) (ii) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv) (i) and (ii)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q44.Match List I with List II

List I List II
(E-initiatives) (descriptions)
(a)Vidwan (i) repository for full text thesis,
e books and journals
(b) digilocker (ii) education portal to facilitate
learning
(c)Sakshat (iii) database of leading
scientist/researches
(d)Shodh Ganga (iv) platform for issuance and
verification of documents and
certificates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(5) (a)-(I), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)


(6) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(7) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(8) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Options

1.1

2.2

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3.3

4.4

Q45.which items in the following constituted the non-conventional learning programs?

(i) Tea sommelier


(ii) Oriental languages
(iii) Spa management
(iv) Museology
(v) Comparative languages

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i) (ii) and (iv)


(2) (ii) (iii) and (v)
(3) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) and (v)

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

For questions (46-50)

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Political representation nonetheless is the vehicle that enabled the re-introduction of democracy
into the modern practical political vernacular. The resulting liberal democracy does not directly
dissent from the ancient Athenian democracy. Which in the era was virtually nothing existed that
approached democracy e as an actual or named political form and when it again became a focus of
political and theory, it was wedded representation-so that what we call a democracy is in fact a
distinctive kind of democracy, “a representative democracy”. While elections and popular pressure
Shirley have political impact the actions of representatives are the primary official mechanism for
translating democratic citizenship into political power. We rely on the representative process to
promote political goodness in democratic society. But when one imagines the idea of representation
these days its association with ethics or goodness does not spring to mind. It is an impossible
process after all-a mechanism method by which one entity stands for represents another, politically
required by the need to channel the judgements of millions of citizens into a legally authority’s
hands of a small number of public representatives or even the sentiments of thousands into the
leadership of single person.

Q46. What is the perception of the author with regard to representation and democracy?

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(1) Legal as well as ethical


(2) Universal participation
(3) Arbitrarily authoritative
(4) Centralisation of power in a few individuals

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q47.The political representation enabled the emergence of

(1) Athenian democracy


(2) Liberal democracy
(3) Actual democracy
(4) Theoretical democracy

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q48.according to the author the idea of democracy is viewed as

(1) Ethical politics


(2) Goodness of representation
(3) A representative process
(4) Channelizing views of a few people

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q49.which of the following implies characteristics of modern political vernacular?

(1) Populist politics

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(2) Absence of structure


(3) Ethical discourse
(4) Representativeness

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

Q50.according to the passage actions of political representatives manifest

(1) Political will


(2) Popular pressure
(3) Political power
(4) Self-effacing behaviour

Options

1.1

2.2

3.3

4.4

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ANSWER KEYS
Question Paper No.1
Q.No Answer Q.No

1 1 26 2

2 4 27 4

3 4 28 2

4 4 29 2

5 1 30 4

6 3 31 2

7 2 32 1

8 1 33 3

9 4 34 3

10 3 35 1

11 2 36 4

12 1 37 2

13 4 38 3

14 3 39 3

15 3 40 1

16 1 41 2

17 1 42 2

18 1 43 1

19 4 44 2

20 4 45 3

21 2 46 4

22 2 47 2

23 4 48 3

24 1 49 4

25 3 50 3

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