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Section Quiz CH 1 - CH 14

The document appears to be a quiz summary from a security fundamentals course. It includes 7 multiple choice questions about concepts like confidentiality, integrity, availability, non-repudiation, and threats. For each question, the correct answer is selected and a short explanation is provided referencing the relevant course materials. The quiz summary achieves a perfect score of 100% and indicates a passing score is 80%.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
370 views494 pages

Section Quiz CH 1 - CH 14

The document appears to be a quiz summary from a security fundamentals course. It includes 7 multiple choice questions about concepts like confidentiality, integrity, availability, non-repudiation, and threats. For each question, the correct answer is selected and a short explanation is provided referencing the relevant course materials. The quiz summary achieves a perfect score of 100% and indicates a passing score is 80%.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1.1.4 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/2/2023 9:47:58 pm • Time Spent: 02:54

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

1 of 11 2023-01-02, 9:49 p.m.


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 Question 1:  Correct

A user copies files from her desktop computer to a USB flash device and puts the device
into her pocket. Which of the following security risks is most pressing?

Non-repudiation

Availability

Integrity

Confidentiality

Explanation

Confidentiality ensures that data is not disclosed to unintended persons. Removable


media poses a big threat to confidentiality because it makes it easy to remove data and
share it with unauthorized users.
Availability ensures that data is available when it is needed. Copying files to a server that
includes malware could threaten the data's availability if the malware deletes or corrupts
the data.
Integrity ensures that data is not modified or tampered with.
Non-repudiation provides validation of a message's origin.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 14.3.3 Information Classi�cation

 14.3.4 Information Classi�cation Facts

q_sec_intro_confidentiality_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes a cyber terrorist?

Desires some kind of financial reward or


revenge

Downloads and runs attacks available on the


internet

Exploits internal vulnerabilities to steal


information

Disrupts network-dependent institutions

Explanation

Cyber terrorists generally use the internet to carry out terrorist activities such as
disrupting network-dependent institutions.
Downloading and running attacks available on the internet is usually a script kiddie
activity.
Cybercriminals are after some kind of financial reward or revenge.
A spy applies for a job with a commercial competitor and then exploits internal
vulnerabilities to steal information.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

q_sec_intro_hack_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 3:  Correct

Your computer system is a participant in an asymmetric cryptography system. You've


created a message to send to another user. Before transmission, you hash the message
and encrypt the hash using your private key. You then attach this encrypted hash to your
message as a digital signature before sending it to the other user.
In this example, which protection does the hashing activity provide?

Non-repudiation

Integrity

Availability

Confidentiality

Explanation

Hashing of any sort, including within a digital signature, provides data integrity.
Signing the message with the private key creates non-repudiation.
A digital signature activity, as a whole, does not provide protection for confidentiality
because the original message is sent in cleartext.
No form of cryptography provides protection for availability.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 12.5.8 Forensic Data Integrity and Preservation

 12.5.9 Forensic Investigation Facts

q_sec_intro_integrity_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following is an example of an internal threat?

A user accidentally deletes the new product


designs.

A server backdoor allows an attacker on the


internet to gain access to the intranet site.

A water pipe in the server room breaks.

A delivery man is able to walk into a controlled


area and steal a laptop.

Explanation

Internal threats are intentional or accidental acts by employees, including:


• Malicious acts such as theft, fraud, or sabotage
• Intentional or unintentional actions that destroy or alter data
• Disclosing sensitive information through snooping or espionage
External threats are events that originate outside of the organization. They typically focus
on compromising the organization's information assets. Examples of external threats
include hackers, fraud perpetrators, and viruses.
Natural events are events that may reasonably be expected to occur over time, such as a
fire or a broken water pipe.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 13.2.1 Risk Types and Tolerance

 13.2.2 Risk Types and Tolerance Facts

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following could an employee also be known as?

Internal threat

Script kiddie

Exploit

Cybercriminal

Explanation

Employees are also known as internal threats. Employees can be the most overlooked, yet
most dangerous, threat agent because they have greater access to information assets
than anyone on the outside trying to break in.
An exploit is a procedure or product that takes advantage of a vulnerability to carry out a
threat.
Script kiddies download and run attacks available on the internet.
Cybercriminals usually seek to exploit security vulnerabilities for some kind of financial
reward or revenge.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 2.1.1 Threat Actor Types

 2.1.2 Threat Agents Overview

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

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 Question 6:  Correct

By definition, which security concept uses the ability to prove that a sender undeniably
sent an encrypted message?

Authentication

Integrity

Privacy

Non-repudiation

Explanation

The ability to prove that a sender undeniably sent a message is known as non-repudiation.
By various mechanisms in different cryptographic solutions, you can prove that only the
sender would be able to have initiated a certain communication. Therefore, the sender
cannot repute that they originated a message.
Integrity is protection against alteration. Authentication is the assignment of access
privileges to users.
Privacy is the protection and confidentiality of personal information.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 7.2.1 Cryptography Uses and Limitations

 7.2.2 Cryptography Uses and Limitations Facts

 7.2.5 Cryptographic Implementation Facts

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following includes all hardware and software necessary to secure data, such
as firewalls and antivirus software?

Policies

Physical security

Assets

Users and administrators

Explanation

Physical security includes all hardware and software necessary to secure data, such as
firewalls and antivirus software.
Users and administrators are the people who use the software and the people who
manage the software, respectively.
Policies are the rules an organization implements to protect information.
An asset is something that has value to a person or organization, such as sensitive
information in a database.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 11.4.2 Vulnerability Assessment Facts

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 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following are often identified as the three main goals of security? (Select
three.)

Assets

Integrity

Policies

Availability

Confidentiality

Employees

Non-repudiation

Explanation

The acronym CIA refers to confidentiality, integrity, and availability in respect to security.
These are often identified as the three main goals of any security-oriented task.
Non-repudiation provides validation of a message's origin.
Policies are the rules an organization implements to protect information.
Employees can be the most overlooked, yet most dangerous, threat agent because they
have greater access to information assets than anyone on the outside trying to break in.
An asset is something that has value to a person or organization, such as sensitive
information in a database.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is the correct definition of a threat?

Absence or weakness of a safeguard that could


be exploited

Any potential danger to the confidentiality,


integrity, or availability of information or
systems

The likelihood of an attack taking advantage of


a vulnerability

Instance of exposure to losses from an attacker

Explanation

A threat is any potential danger to the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of


information or systems.
Risk is the likelihood of a threat taking advantage of a vulnerability.
A vulnerability is the absence or weakness of a safeguard that could be exploited.
An exposure is an instance of exposure to losses from a threat agent.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

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 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following is an example of a vulnerability?

Misconfigured server

Virus infection

Unauthorized access to confidential resources

Denial-of-service attack

Explanation

A misconfigured server is a vulnerability. A vulnerability is the absence or weakness of a


safeguard that could be exploited, such as a USB port that is enabled on the server
hosting the database.
All of the other selections are examples of exposures. An exposure is an instance of
exposure to losses from a threat agent.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 2.4.1 Vulnerability Concerns

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 2.4.3 Impact of Vulnerabilities

 2.4.4 Impact of Vulnerabilities Facts

q_sec_intro_vulnerablitiy_secp7.question.fex

Copyright © 2023 TestOut Corporation All rights reserved.

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1.2.4 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/3/2023 12:41:58 pm • Time Spent: 08:57

Score: 90% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

The Application layer of the security model includes which of the following? (Select two.)

Log management

User management

Environmental controls

Web application security

User education

Explanation

The Application layer includes user management and web application security.
The Policies, Procedures, and Awareness layer includes user education.
The Physical layer includes environmental controls.
The Host layer includes log management.

References

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

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 Question 2:  Incorrect

When training your employees on how to identify various attacks, which of the following
policies should you be sure to have and enforce? (Select two.)

Encryption policies

Clean desk policies

Group policies

Password policies

Usage policies

Explanation

Be sure to have an effective password policy and clean desk policy in place, and don't
forget to enforce them. Be sure to train your employees on how to identify all the various
attacks that could target them. Train them on how to spot suspicious emails, instant
messages, downloads, attachments, and websites.
Encryption policies should protect you in the event you experience a physical security
breach. For example, if a hard drive were stolen, the thief wouldn't be able to access the
information stored on it.
An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) determines the rules for using a website or internet
service.
You can use Windows group policies to administer your Windows systems.

References

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

 13.1.1 Personnel Policies

 13.1.2 Personnel Policy Facts

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following reduces the risk of a threat agent being able to exploit a
vulnerability?

Countermeasures

Implementation of VLANs

Manageable network plans

Secure data transmissions

Explanation

A countermeasure is a means of mitigating potential risk. Countermeasures reduce the


risk of a threat agent being able to exploit a vulnerability. An appropriate countermeasure:
• Must provide a security solution to an identified problem
• Should not depend on secrecy
• Must be testable and verifiable
• Must provide uniform or consistent protection for all assets and users
• Should be independent of other safeguards
• Should require minimal human intervention
• Should be tamper-proof
• Should have overrides and fail-safe defaults

References

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

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 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following items would be implemented at the Data layer of the security
model?

Group policies

Auditing

Cryptography

Authentication

Explanation

Cryptography is implemented at the Data layer.


Authentication, authorization, and group policies are implemented at the Application
layer.
Auditing is implemented at the Host layer.

References

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following items would you secure in the Perimeter layer of the security
model?

Firewalls

Switches

Routers

VLANs

Explanation

Firewalls using ACLs are secured in the Perimeter layer.


Switches, routers, and VLANs are secured in the Network layer.

References

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

 5.6.2 Con�guring Web Threat Protection

 12.2.2 Recon�gure and Protect Endpoints Facts

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 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following is the single greatest threat to network security?

Unsecure physical access to network resources

Email phishing

Employees

Weak passwords

Explanation

Employees are the single greatest threat to network security. Therefore, user education is
very important.
• Employees need to be aware that they are the primary targets in most attacks.
• Phishing attacks are one of the most common attacks directed toward employees.
• Employees should be able to identify attacks through email, instant messages,
downloads, and websites.
• Effective password policies should be enforced, and passwords should not be written
down.
• Employees should be able to identify both internal and external threats.
• Employees need to be aware of the company's security policies.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

 2.1.1 Threat Actor Types

 2.1.2 Threat Agents Overview

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following is a security approach that combines multiple security controls and
defenses?

Countermeasure security

Layered security

Cumulative security

Perimeter security

Network security

Explanation

Layered security, sometimes called defense in depth security, is a security approach that
combines multiple security controls and defenses to create a cumulative effect.
Perimeter security includes firewalls with ACLs and a wireless network. Network security
includes the installation and configuration of switches and routers, the implementation of
VLANs, penetration testing, and the utilization of virtualization. A countermeasure is a
means of mitigating a potential risk. Countermeasures reduce the risk of a threat agent
exploiting a vulnerability.

References

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

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 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following items would be implemented at the Network layer of the security
model?

Penetration testing

Network plans

Wireless networks

Firewalls using ACLs

Explanation

The installation and configuration of switches and routers, the implementation of VLANs,
penetration testing, and virtualization are implemented at the Network layer.
Firewalls with ACLs and wireless networks are secured in the Perimeter layer.
Network plans are implemented at the Policies, Procedures, and Awareness layer.

References

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is one of the MOST common attacks on employees?

Remote attack

DNS attack

Phishing attack

Password attack

Explanation

Phishing attacks are one of the most common attacks directed at employees. In most
cases, employees are lured into clicking a link or downloading an attachment from a
seemingly legitimate email.

References

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

 2.3.1 Social Engineering Overview

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

 2.3.3 Social Engineering Motivation

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

 2.3.5 Social Engineering Techniques

 2.3.6 Social Engineering Techniques Facts

 2.3.7 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques

 2.3.8 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques Facts

 2.3.9 Use the Social Engineer Toolkit

 2.3.10 Investigating a Social Engineering Attack

 2.3.11 Identify Social Engineering

 5.6.4 Web Threat Protection Facts

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 13.3.2 Email Security Facts

q_def_plan_phishing_secp7.question.fex

 Question 10:  Correct

The Policies, Procedures, and Awareness layer of the security model includes which of the
following? (Select two.)

User education

Motion detectors

Server cages

Employee onboarding

Environmental controls

Explanation

User education and employee onboarding and off-boarding procedures are included in
the Policies, Procedures, and Awareness layer.
The Physical layer deals with server cages, motion detectors, and environmental controls.

References

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

 9.8.2 BYOD Security Facts

 13.1.1 Personnel Policies

 13.1.2 Personnel Policy Facts

q_def_plan_policy_secp7.question.fex

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2.1.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/3/2023 9:57:32 pm • Time Spent: 04:34

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

1 of 15 2023-01-03, 9:58 p.m.


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 Question 1:  Correct

An employee stealing company data could be an example of which kind of threat actor?

Persistent threat

Internal threat

External threat

Non-persistent threat

Explanation

An internal threat consists of someone like an employee that uses their authorized
privileges to carry out an attack.
A persistent threat is one that has a goal of remaining undetected and retaining access.
While an internal threat could also be persistent, it does not need to be.
A non-persistent threat is generally a one-time event in which the malicious actor doesn't
care if the attack is noticed. Again, it could also be an internal threat, but an internal threat
does not necessarily have to be non-persistent.
An external threat attacks from the outside and seeks to gain unauthorized access to data.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

 2.1.1 Threat Actor Types

 2.1.2 Threat Agents Overview

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

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 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term hacker?

A general term used to describe any individual


who uses their technical knowledge to gain
unauthorized access to an organization.

Any individual whose attacks are politically


motivated.

The most organized, well-funded, and


dangerous type of threat actor.

A threat actor who lacks skills and


sophistication but wants to impress their
friends or garner attention.

A threat actor whose main goal is financial gain.

Explanation

The term hacker is a general term used to describe any individual who uses their technical
knowledge to gain unauthorized access to an organization.
The following are specific types of hackers, also known as threat actors:
• A hacktivist is any individual whose attacks are politically motivated.
• A nation state is the most organized, well-funded, and dangerous type of threat actor.
• An organized crime threat actor is a group of cybercriminals whose main goal is
financial gain.
• A script kiddie is a threat actor who lacks skills and sophistication but wants to impress
their friends or garner attention. Script kiddies carry out an attack by using scripts or
programs written by more advanced hackers.

References

 2.1.2 Threat Agents Overview

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following threat actors seeks to defame, shed light on, or cripple an
organization or government?

Script kiddie

Nation state

Hacktivist

Insider

Competitor

Explanation

A hacktivist is any individual whose attacks are politically motivated. Instead of seeking
financial gain, hacktivists want to defame, shed light on, or cripple an organization or
government. Hacktivists often work alone. Occasionally, they create unified groups with
like-minded hackers. For example, the website wikileaks.org is a repository of leaked
government secrets, some of which have been obtain by hacktivists.
Script kiddies are usually motivated by the chance to impress their friends or garner
attention in the hacking community. Insider threat actors can be motivated by negative
feelings toward their employer, bribes from a competitor, or personal financial gain.
Competitors could be motivated by financial gain, competitor defamation, or obtaining
industry secrets.
There are two primary motives for nation state attacks,seeking to obtain sensitive
information (such as government secrets) or seeking to cripple the target's network or
infrastructure.

References

 2.1.1 Threat Actor Types

 2.1.2 Threat Agents Overview

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

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 Question 4:  Correct

The IT manager in your organization proposes taking steps to deflect a potential threat
actor. The proposal includes the following:
• Create and follow onboarding and off-boarding procedures.
• Employ the principal of least privilege.
• Have appropriate physical security controls in place.
Which type of threat actor do these steps guard against?

Insider

Script kiddie

Competitor

Hacktivist

Explanation

Because insiders are one of the most dangerous and overlooked threats to an
organization, you need to take the appropriate steps to protect against them, such as
requiring mandatory vacations, creating and following onboarding and off-boarding
procedure, employing the principal of least privilege, and having appropriate physical
security controls in place.
A script kiddie is an individual who carries out an attack by using scripts or programs
written by more advanced hackers.
A hacktivist is any individual whose attacks are politically motivated.
A competitor threat actor carries out attacks on behalf of an organization and targets
competing companies.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

 2.1.1 Threat Actor Types

 2.1.2 Threat Agents Overview

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

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 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

q_threat_agent_ovw_insider_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 5:  Correct

A script kiddie is a threat actor who lacks knowledge and sophistication. Script kiddie
attacks often seek to exploit well-known vulnerabilities in systems.
What is the BEST defense against script kiddie attacks?

Properly secure and store data backups.

Have appropriate physical security controls in


place.

Implement email filtering systems.

Build a comprehensive security approach that


uses all aspects of threat prevention and
protection.

Keep systems up to date and use standard


security practices.

Explanation

Because script kiddies lack knowledge and sophistication, their attacks often seek to
exploit well-known vulnerabilities in systems. As such, defense against script kiddies
involves keeping systems up-to-date and using standard security practices.
Having appropriate physical security controls in place is one of the steps that can be used
to protect insider threat actors. Implementing email filtering systems and proper securing
and storing data backups are two of the steps that can be used to protect against
organized crime threat actors.
Because nation states use so many different attack vectors and unknown exploits,
defending against these attacks involves building a comprehensive security approach that
uses all aspects of threat prevention and protection.

References

 2.1.1 Threat Actor Types

 2.1.2 Threat Agents Overview

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

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 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

q_threat_agent_ovw_kiddies_secp7.question.fex

 Question 6:  Correct

A hacker scans hundreds of IP addresses randomly on the internet until they find an
exploitable target. What kind of attack is this?

Targeted attack

Nation state attack

Insider attack

Opportunistic attack

Explanation

In this scenario, the hacker is looking for an easy target and doesn't care what they are
attacking. This is considered an opportunistic attack.
If the hacker had been targeting a certain individual, company, organization, or nation, it
would have been considered a targeted attack.
An insider attack is accomplished by a threat agent who has authorized access to an
organization and either intentionally or unintentionally carries out an attack.
A nation state attack is accomplished by a threat agent that is a sovereign state who may
wage an all-out war on a target and have significant resources and money at their
disposal.

References

 2.1.2 Threat Agents Overview

q_threat_agent_ovw_opp_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 7:  Correct

Match the general attack strategy on the left with the appropriate description on the right.
(Each attack strategy may be used once, more than once, or not all.)
Stealing information.

Exploitation

Preparing a computer to perform additional tasks in the attack.

Staging

Crashing systems.

Exploitation

Gathering system hardware information.

Reconnaissance

Penetrating system defenses to gain unauthorized access.

Breaching

Configuring additional rights to do more than breach the system.

Escalating
privileges

Explanation

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General attack strategies include the following steps:


• Reconnaissance is the process of gathering information about an organization, including
system hardware information, network configuration, and individual user information.
• A breach is the penetration of system defenses. Breaches are achieved using the
information gathered during reconnaissance.
• An escalating privileges attack is one of the primary objectives of an attacker, which can
be achieved by configuring additional (escalated) rights to do more than breach the
system.
• Staging is preparing a computer to perform additional tasks in the attack, such as
installing software designed to attack other systems.
• An Exploit is used to take advantage of known vulnerabilities in software and systems.
Types of exploitation include stealing information, denying services, crashing systems,
and modifying information.

References

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

q_att_def_strat_attack_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 8:  Correct

Match the general defense methodology on the left with the appropriate description on
the right. (Each methodology may be used once, more than once, or not all.)
The constant change in personal habits and passwords to prevent anticipated events
and exploitation.

Randomness

Diversifying layers of defense.

Variety

Giving users only the access they need to do their job and nothing more.

Principle of least privilege

Implementing multiple security measures to protect the same asset.

Layering

Eliminating single points of failure.

Layering

Giving groups only the access they need to do their job and nothing more.

Principle of least privilege

Explanation

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General defense methodologies include the following items:


• Layering is the process of implementing multiple security measures to protect the same
asset. Defense in depth or security in depth is the premise that no single layer is
completely effective in securing the assets. The most secure system/network has many
layers of security and eliminates single points of failure.
• When using the principle of least privilege, users or groups are given only the access
they need to do their job and nothing more. When assigning privileges, be aware that it
is often easier to give a user more access when they need it than to take away privileges
that have already been granted.
• Defensive layers should have variety and be diverse. Implementing multiple layers of
the exact same defense does not provide adequate strength against attacks.
• Randomness relies on the constant change in personal habits and passwords to prevent
anticipated events and exploitation.
• Security measures should provide protection, but not be so complex that you do not
understand and use them.

References

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

q_att_def_strat_defense_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is the BEST example of the principle of least privilege?

Mary has been given access to all of the file


servers.

Wanda has been given access to the files that


she needs for her job.

Lenny has been given access to files that he


does not need for his job.

Jill has been given access to all of the files on


one server.

Explanation

Wanda being given access only to what she needs to do her job is an example of the
principle of least privilege.
The principle of least privilege states that users or groups are given only the access they
need to do their jobs and nothing more.

References

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

 6.1.4 Access Control Best Practices

 13.1.1 Personnel Policies

 13.1.2 Personnel Policy Facts

 14.1.2 Audit Facts

q_att_def_strat_privilege_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 10:  Correct

In which phase of an attack does the attacker gather information about the target?

Escalating privileges

Breach the system

Exploit the system

Reconnaissance

Explanation

Reconnaissance is the phase of an attack where the attacker is gathering information


about the target. This can be done electronically using scanning tools or even physically by
going through dumpsters.
Escalation of privileges comes at the end of the attack when the attacker gains access to
unauthorized data.
Breaching or exploiting the system is when the attacker gains access to a system on the
target network using a vulnerability.

References

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

 2.3.1 Social Engineering Overview

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

 2.3.3 Social Engineering Motivation

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

 2.3.5 Social Engineering Techniques

 2.3.6 Social Engineering Techniques Facts

 2.3.7 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques

 2.3.8 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques Facts

 2.3.9 Use the Social Engineer Toolkit

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 2.3.10 Investigating a Social Engineering Attack

 2.3.11 Identify Social Engineering

 11.2.4 Reconnaissance

 11.2.5 Performing Reconnaissance

q_att_def_strat_recon_secp7.question.fex

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2.2.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/4/2023 3:34:33 pm • Time Spent: 11:08

Score: 80% Passing Score: 80%

1 of 13 2023-01-04, 3:35 p.m.


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 Question 1:  Incorrect

A collection of zombie computers have been set up to collect personal information. Which
type of malware do the zombie computers represent?

Trojan horse

Botnet

Spyware

Logic bomb

Explanation

A botnet is a collection of zombie computers that are controlled from a central control
infrastructure to propagate spam or to collect usernames and passwords to access secure
information.
A logic bomb is malware that lies dormant until triggered.
A Trojan horse is a malicious program that is disguised as legitimate software.
Spyware monitors the actions performed on a machine and then sends the information
back to its originating source.

References

 2.2.1 Malware

 2.2.2 Malware Facts

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

 4.2.8 Con�guring Windows Defender with Firewall Advanced Security

q_mal_botnet_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 2:  Correct

Which kind of virus operates only in memory and usually exploits a trusted application like
PowerShell to circumvent traditional endpoint security solutions?

Remote Access Trojan (RAT)

Fileless virus

Ransomware

Worm

Explanation

Fileless viruses operate only in memory to avoid detection by traditional endpoint security
solutions that are focused on matching signatures to files that have been written to the
hard drive.
A worm is a self-replicating program.
Ransomware denies access to a computer system until the user pays a ransom.
A Remote Access Trojan (RAT) is a malware program that includes a backdoor that allows
administrative control over the target computer.

References

 2.2.1 Malware

 2.2.2 Malware Facts

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

 4.2.8 Con�guring Windows Defender with Firewall Advanced Security

q_mal_fileless_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following describes a logic bomb?

A program that has no useful purpose, but


attempts to spread itself to other systems and
often damages resources on the systems
where it is found.

A program that appears to be a legitimate


application, utility, game, or screensaver that
performs malicious activities surreptitiously.

A program that performs a malicious activity at


a specific time or after a triggering event.

A type of malicious code similar to a virus


whose primary purpose is to duplicate itself
and spread while not necessarily intentionally
damaging or destroying resources.

Explanation

A logic bomb is a program that performs a malicious activity at a specific time or after a
triggering event. Logic bombs can be planted by a virus, a Trojan horse, or an intruder.
Logic bombs may perform their malicious activity at a specific time and date or when a
specific event occurs on the system, such as logging in, accessing an online bank account,
or encrypting a file.
A type of malicious code similar to a virus whose primary purpose is to duplicate itself and
spread, while not necessarily intentionally damaging or destroying resources, is a worm.
A program that appears to be a legitimate application, utility, game, or screensaver that
performs malicious activities surreptitiously is a Trojan horse.
A program that has no useful purpose but attempts to spread itself to other systems and
often damages resources on the systems where it is found is a virus.

References

 2.2.1 Malware

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 2.2.2 Malware Facts

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

 4.2.8 Con�guring Windows Defender with Firewall Advanced Security

q_mal_logic_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 4:  Correct

A type of malware that prevents the system from being used until the victim pays the
attacker money is known as what?

Denial-of-service attack (DoS attack)

Fileless virus

Ransomware

Remote Access Trojan (RAT)

Explanation

A type of malware used to prevent the system from being used until a ransom is paid by
the victim is known as ransomware.
While it does perform a denial of service, a DoS attack doesn't necessarily demand
payment.
A Remote Access Trojan (RAT) is a malware program that includes a backdoor that allows
administrative control over the target computer.
A fileless virus uses legitimate programs to infect a computer.

References

 2.2.1 Malware

 2.2.2 Malware Facts

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

 4.2.8 Con�guring Windows Defender with Firewall Advanced Security

q_mal_ransome_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which kind of malware provides an attacker with administrative control over a target
computer through a backdoor?

Crypto-malware

Potentially Unwanted Program (PUP)

Remote Access Trojan (RAT)

Trojan horse

Explanation

A Remote Access Trojan (RAT) provides a backdoor for an attacker to remotely control a
computer with administrative control. The other types of malware could be used in
conjunction with a RAT, but they do not provide the remote control access.
PUP is software that contains adware, installs toolbars, or has other unclear objectives.
Crypto-malware is ransomware that encrypts files until a ransom is paid.
A Trojan horse is a malicious program that is disguised as legitimate or desirable software.

References

 2.2.1 Malware

 2.2.2 Malware Facts

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

 4.2.8 Con�guring Windows Defender with Firewall Advanced Security

q_mal_rat_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which of the following are characteristics of a rootkit? (Select two.)

Collects various types of personal information.

Requires administrator-level privileges for


installation.

Resides below regular antivirus software


detection.

Monitors user actions and opens pop-ups


based on user preferences.

Uses cookies saved on the hard drive to track


user preferences.

Explanation

A rootkit is a set of programs that allow attackers to maintain hidden, permanent,


administrator-level access to a computer. A rootkit:
• Is almost invisible software.
• Resides below regular antivirus software detection.
• Requires administrator privileges for installation and then maintains those privileges to
allow subsequent access.
• Might not be malicious.
• Often replaces operating system files with alternate versions that allow hidden access.
Spyware collects various types of personal information, such as internet surfing habits and
passwords, and sends the information back to its originating source.
Adware monitors actions that denote personal preferences and then sends pop-ups and
ads that match those preferences.
Both spyware and adware can use cookies to collect and report a user's activities.

References

 2.2.1 Malware

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 2.2.2 Malware Facts

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

 4.2.8 Con�guring Windows Defender with Firewall Advanced Security

q_mal_rootkit_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following best describes spyware?

It monitors user actions that denote personal


preferences and then sends pop-ups and ads
to the user that match their tastes.

It monitors the actions you take on your


machine and sends the information back to its
originating source.

It is a program that attempts to damage a


computer system and replicate itself to other
computer systems.

It is a malicious program disguised as


legitimate software.

Explanation

Spyware monitors the actions you take on your machine and sends the information back
to its originating source.
Adware monitors the actions of the user that denote their personal preferences and then
sends pop-ups and ads to the user that match their tastes.
A virus is a program that attempts to damage a computer system and replicate itself to
other computer systems.
A Trojan horse is a malicious program disguised as legitimate software.

References

 2.2.1 Malware

 2.2.2 Malware Facts

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

 4.2.8 Con�guring Windows Defender with Firewall Advanced Security

q_mal_spyware_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following is a program that appears to be a legitimate application, utility,


game, or screensaver, but performs malicious activities surreptitiously?

Worm

Outlook Express

ActiveX control

Trojan horse

Explanation

A Trojan horse is a program that appears to be a legitimate application, utility, game, or


screensaver, but performs malicious activities surreptitiously. Trojan horses are very
common on the internet. To keep your systems secure and free from such malicious code,
you need to take extreme caution when downloading any type of file from just about any
site on the internet. If you don't fully trust the site or service that is offering a file, don't
download it.
Outlook Express is an email client found on Windows.
A worm is a type of malicious code similar to a virus. A worm's primary purpose is to
duplicate itself and spread while not necessarily intentionally damaging or destroying
resources.
ActiveX controls are web applications written in the ActiveX framework.

References

 2.2.1 Malware

 2.2.2 Malware Facts

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

 4.2.8 Con�guring Windows Defender with Firewall Advanced Security

q_mal_trojan_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 9:  Correct

In 2001, a worm exploited vulnerabilities in Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) to


infect over 250,000 systems in under nine hours. What was this worm called?

Michelangelo

Melissa

Nimda

Code Red

Explanation

The worm known as Code Red replicated across the internet with incredible speed using a
vulnerability in Microsoft IIS.
In 1991, the Michelangelo virus was designed to infect MS-DOS systems and remain
dormant until March 6, the birthday of Renaissance artist Michelangelo.
In 1999, the Melissa worm was the first widely distributed macrovirus that was propagated
in the form of an email message containing an infected Word document as an attachment.
In 2001, the Nimda worm took advantage of weaknesses found in the Windows platform
and propagated itself in several ways, including email, infected websites, and network
shares.

References

 2.2.1 Malware

 2.2.2 Malware Facts

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

 4.2.8 Con�guring Windows Defender with Firewall Advanced Security

q_mal_worms_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 10:  Correct

You have installed antivirus software on the computers on your network. You update the
definition and engine files and configure the software to update those files every day.
What else should you do to protect your systems from malware? (Select two.)

Schedule regular full-system scans.

Educate users about malware.

Disable UAC.

Enable chassis intrusion detection.

Enable account lockout.

Explanation

You should schedule regular full-system scans to look for any malware. In addition,
educate users about the dangers of downloading software and the importance of anti-
malware protections.
You should enable User Account Control (UAC) to prevent unauthorized administrative
changes to your system.
Use account lockout to help protect your system from hackers trying to guess passwords.
Use chassis intrusion detection to identify when the system case has been opened.

References

 2.2.3 Malware Protection Facts

q_mal_prot_anti-virus_secp7.question.fex

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2.3.12 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/7/2023 8:58:42 pm • Time Spent: 03:26

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

1 of 16 2023-01-07, 9:01 p.m.


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 Question 1:  Correct

Ron, a hacker, wants to get access to a prestigious law firm he has been watching for a
while. June, an administrative assistant at the law firm, is having lunch at the food court
around the corner from her office. Ron notices that June has a picture of a dog on her
phone. He casually walks by and starts a conversation about dogs. Which phase of the
social engineering process is Ron in?

Exploitation phase

Research phase

Development phase

Elicitation phase

Explanation

The development phase involves two parts. These are selecting individual targets within a
company and forming a relationship with those individuals.
The exploitation phase is when the attacker takes advantage of the relationship with the
victim and uses the victim to extract information, obtain access, or accomplish the
attacker's purposes in some way.
The research phase is when the attacker starts gathering information about the target
company or organization.
Elicitation is a technique used to extract information from a target without arousing
suspicion.

References

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

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 Question 2:  Correct

Social engineers are master manipulators. Which of the following are tactics they might
use?

Keylogging, shoulder surfing, and moral


obligation

Eavesdropping, ignorance, and threatening

Shoulder surfing, eavesdropping, and


keylogging

Moral obligation, ignorance, and threatening

Explanation

Social engineers are master manipulators. Some of the most popular tactics they use are
moral obligation, innate human trust, threatening, an easy reward, and ignorance.
Social engineering attacks include shoulder surfing, eavesdropping, USB and keyloggers,
spam and spim, and hoaxes.

References

 2.3.1 Social Engineering Overview

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

 2.3.3 Social Engineering Motivation

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

 2.3.5 Social Engineering Techniques

 2.3.6 Social Engineering Techniques Facts

 2.3.7 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques

 2.3.8 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques Facts

 2.3.9 Use the Social Engineer Toolkit

 2.3.10 Investigating a Social Engineering Attack

3 of 16 2023-01-07, 9:01 p.m.


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 2.3.11 Identify Social Engineering

q_social_engr_ovw_intim_secp7.question.fex

 Question 3:  Correct

Any attack involving human interaction of some kind is referred to as what?

Social engineering

A white hat hacker

Attacker manipulation

An opportunistic attack

Explanation

Social engineering refers to any attack involving human interaction of some kind.
Attackers who use social engineering try to convince a victim to perform actions or give
out information they wouldn't under normal circumstances.
An opportunistic attack is typically automated and involves scanning a wide range of
systems for known vulnerabilities, such as old software, exposed ports, poorly secured
networks, and default configurations.
A white hat hacker helps companies find vulnerabilities in their security infrastructure.
Social engineers are master manipulators and use multiple tactics on their victims.

References

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

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 Question 4:  Correct

An organization's receptionist received a phone call from an individual claiming to be a


partner in a high-level project and requesting sensitive information. The individual is
engaging in which type of social engineering?

Social validation

Authority

Persuasive

Commitment

Explanation

Authority social engineering entails an attacker either lying about having authority or using
their high status in a company to force victims to perform actions that exceed their
authorization level.
Persuasive social engineering entails an attacker convincing a person to give them
information or access that he or she shouldn't.
Social validation entails an attacker using peer pressure to coerce someone else to bend
rules or give information he or she shouldn't.
Commitment social engineering entails convincing someone to buy into an overall idea
and then demanding or including further specifics that were not presented up front.

References

 2.3.1 Social Engineering Overview

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

 2.3.3 Social Engineering Motivation

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

 2.3.5 Social Engineering Techniques

 2.3.6 Social Engineering Techniques Facts

 2.3.7 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques

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 2.3.8 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques Facts

 2.3.9 Use the Social Engineer Toolkit

 2.3.10 Investigating a Social Engineering Attack

 2.3.11 Identify Social Engineering

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following is a common social engineering attack?

Using a sniffer to capture network traffic

Logging on with stolen credentials

Distributing false information about an


organization's financial status

Distributing hoax virus-information emails

Explanation

Distributing hoax virus-information emails are a social engineering attack. This type of
attack preys on email recipients who are fearful and will believe most information if it is
presented in a professional manner. The victims of these attacks fail to double-check the
information or instructions with a reputable third-party antivirus software vendor before
implementing the recommendations. Usually, these hoax messages instruct the reader to
delete key system files or download Trojans.
Social engineering relies on the trusting nature of individuals to take an action or allow an
unauthorized action.

References

 2.3.1 Social Engineering Overview

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

 2.3.3 Social Engineering Motivation

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

 2.3.5 Social Engineering Techniques

 2.3.6 Social Engineering Techniques Facts

 2.3.7 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques

 2.3.8 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques Facts

 2.3.9 Use the Social Engineer Toolkit

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 2.3.10 Investigating a Social Engineering Attack

 2.3.11 Identify Social Engineering

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 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes an inside attacker?

An attacker with lots of resources and money


at their disposal.

An agent who uses their technical knowledge to


bypass security.

A good guy who tries to help a company see


their vulnerabilities.

An unintentional threat actor. This is the most


common threat.

Explanation

An insider could be a customer, a janitor, or even a security guard. But most of the time,
it's an employee. Employees pose one of the biggest threats to any organization. An
unintentional threat actor is the most common insider threat.
A hacker is any threat agent who uses their technical knowledge to bypass security, exploit
a vulnerability, and gain access to protected information.
A white hat hacker is a good guy who tries to help a company see the vulnerabilities that
exist in their security infrastructure.
Attacks from nation states are generally extremely well-supported and funded.

References

 1.1.3 Security Introduction

 1.2.3 Defense Planning Facts

 2.1.1 Threat Actor Types

 2.1.2 Threat Agents Overview

 2.1.5 Attack and Defense Strategy Overview

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following are examples of social engineering attacks? (Select three.)

Shoulder surfing

Port scanning

Impersonation

War dialing

Keylogging

Explanation

Social engineering leverages human nature. Internal employees are often the targets of
trickery, and false trust can quickly lead to a serious breach of information security.
Shoulder surfing and dumpster diving are examples of social engineering. Shoulder
surfing is the act of looking over an authorized user's shoulder in hopes of obtaining an
access code or credentials. Social engineers often employ keystroke loggers to capture
usernames and passwords. Impersonation is pretending to be trustworthy and having a
legitimate reason for approaching the target. This is done with the purpose of asking for
sensitive information or access to protected systems. These low-tech attack methods are
often the first course of action that a hacker pursues.
Port scanning and war dialing are technical attacks that seek to take advantage of
vulnerabilities in systems or networks.

References

 2.3.1 Social Engineering Overview

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

 2.3.3 Social Engineering Motivation

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

 2.3.5 Social Engineering Techniques

 2.3.6 Social Engineering Techniques Facts

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 2.3.7 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques

 2.3.8 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques Facts

 2.3.9 Use the Social Engineer Toolkit

 2.3.10 Investigating a Social Engineering Attack

 2.3.11 Identify Social Engineering

 11.7.2 Password Attack Facts

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 Question 8:  Correct

Compliments, misinformation, feigning ignorance, and being a good listener are tactics of
which social engineering technique?

Impersonation

Interrogation

Elicitation

Preloading

Explanation

Elicitation is a technique that aims to extract information from a target without arousing
suspicion. Some elicitation tactics are giving compliments, delivering misinformation,
feigning ignorance, and being a good listener.
Preloading is used to set up a target by influencing the target's thoughts, opinions, and
emotions.
In the interrogation phase, the attacker talks to the target about their statements.
Impersonation is pretending to be trustworthy and approaching the target to ask him or
her for sensitive information or convincing him or her to grant access to protected
systems.

References

 2.3.1 Social Engineering Overview

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

 2.3.3 Social Engineering Motivation

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

 2.3.5 Social Engineering Techniques

 2.3.6 Social Engineering Techniques Facts

 2.3.7 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques

 2.3.8 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques Facts

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 2.3.9 Use the Social Engineer Toolkit

 2.3.10 Investigating a Social Engineering Attack

 2.3.11 Identify Social Engineering

q_social_engr_tqs_elicit_secp7.question.fex

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 Question 9:  Correct

Having a legitimate reason for approaching someone to ask for sensitive information is
called what?

Footprinting

Preloading

Impersonation

Pretexting

Explanation

Impersonation is pretending to be somebody else and approaching a target to extract


information.
Pretexting is using a fictitious scenario to persuade someone to perform an action or give
information they aren't authorized to share.
Footprinting is similar to stalking, but in a social engineering context.
Preloading is influencing a target's thoughts, opinions, and emotions before something
happens.

References

 2.3.1 Social Engineering Overview

 2.3.2 Social Engineering Overview Facts

 2.3.3 Social Engineering Motivation

 2.3.4 Social Engineering Motivation Facts

 2.3.5 Social Engineering Techniques

 2.3.6 Social Engineering Techniques Facts

 2.3.7 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques

 2.3.8 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques Facts

 2.3.9 Use the Social Engineer Toolkit

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 2.3.10 Investigating a Social Engineering Attack

 2.3.11 Identify Social Engineering

 11.7.2 Password Attack Facts

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 Question 10:  Correct

Jason is at home, attempting to access the website for his music store. When he goes to
the website, it has a simple form asking for a name, email, and phone number. This is not
the music store website. Jason is sure the website has been hacked. How did the attacker
accomplish this hack?

Feigning ignorance

DNS cache poisoning

Host file modification

Social networking

Explanation

In DNS cache poisoning, the attacker launches the attack on the chosen DNS server. Then
the attacker changes a target website's IP address to a fake IP address. When the user
enters the target website's URL, the DNS server redirects them to the fake IP address that
was modified by the attacker. This ends up taking the target to a fake website controlled
by the attacker.
In host file modification, the attacker sends a malicious code as an email attachment.
When the user opens the attachment, the malicious code executes and modifies local host
files on the user's computer.
Many social engineers use applications such as Facebook, Twitter, and Instagram to gather
information and steal identities, among other nefarious acts.
An attacker feigning ignorance might make a wrong statement and then admit to not
knowing much about the subject, but that event does not occur in this attack scenario.

References

 2.3.8 Phishing and Internet-Based Techniques Facts

q_phishing_dns_poison_secp7.question.fex

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2.4.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/9/2023 8:13:17 am • Time Spent: 03:27

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

1 of 11 2023-01-09, 8:14 a.m.


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 Question 1:  Correct

Every ACME computer comes with the same account created at the factory. Which kind of
vulnerability is this?

Weak passwords

Misconfigurations

Default accounts and passwords

Backdoor

Explanation

The factory account is considered a default account and would be a well-known default
password.
This is not a backdoor, as it is not hard-coded.
This is not a misconfiguration because it is the factory default setting.
Although the password is weak because it is well-known, a default password could still be
considered complex if it meets password complexity requirements.

References

 2.4.1 Vulnerability Concerns

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 2.4.3 Impact of Vulnerabilities

 2.4.4 Impact of Vulnerabilities Facts

 4.2.2 Hardening Facts

 4.4.1 Linux Host Security

 4.4.2 Removing Unnecessary Services

 4.4.4 Con�gure iptables

 4.4.5 Con�gure iptables Facts

 8.3.1 Wireless Security

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 8.3.2 Wireless Security Facts

q_vuln_default_secp7.question.fex

 Question 2:  Correct

In healthcare, regulations often dictate that important systems remain unpatched to


maintain compliance. Which kind of vulnerability does this introduce?

Weak passwords

Inherent vulnerabilities

Misconfigurations

Application flaws

Explanation

Important systems may have to be left unpatched to comply with regulations or other
constraints. This leads to these systems having inherent vulnerabilities that must be
mitigated through other security controls.
Weak passwords are passwords that are blank, too short, dictionary words, or overly
simple.
Application flaws are flaws in the validation and authorization of users. These flaws
present the greatest threat to security in transactional applications.
The primary cause of misconfiguration is human error.

References

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 13.2.3 Analyzing Risks

 13.2.4 Analyzing Risks Facts

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which security control, if not applied, can allow an attacker to bypass other security
controls?

Physical access control

Principle of least privilege

Updating firmware or software

Changing default passwords

Explanation

With physical access to a system, many security controls can be circumvented. It is


important to secure access to devices.

References

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 14.2.1 Control Categories and Types

 14.2.2 Control Categories and Types Facts

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 Question 4:  Correct

A user is able to access privileged administrative features with an account that is not
granted administrator rights. Which type of vulnerability is this?

Privilege escalation

Stealing administrator credentials

Backdoor account

Weak passwords

Explanation

Privilege escalation allows a user to gain privileges that aren't normally available to that
user.
A backdoor account vulnerability would imply that the user knew a secret password in
addition to their account.
Stealing administrator credentials is not privilege escalation because the account used
already-granted privileges.
Weak passwords would not grant a user more privileges than what the account is
configured for.

References

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 5.9.2 Device Vulnerability Facts

 6.1.4 Access Control Best Practices

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 Question 5:  Correct

The root account has all privileges and no barriers. Which of the following is another name
for the root account?

Superuser account

Backdoor account

Default account

User account

Explanation

The root account is also known as the superuser account because it has the privilege to do
anything on the system.
It is possible that a default account or a backdoor account could have superuser privileges,
but these accounts are not inherently root accounts.

References

 2.4.1 Vulnerability Concerns

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 2.4.3 Impact of Vulnerabilities

 2.4.4 Impact of Vulnerabilities Facts

 4.4.2 Removing Unnecessary Services

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 Question 6:  Correct

A wireless access point configured to use Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is an example of
which kind of vulnerability?

Zero-day exploit

Weak security configurations

Unpatched software

Default settings

Explanation

Configuring a wireless access point with WEP would be considered a weak security
configuration because WEP has been shown to be insecure.
WEP is not a zero-day exploit because it is known to be a vulnerability. WEP is not a default
setting on modern wireless access points and cannot be patched to become secure, so it is
not an example of unpatched software.

References

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

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 Question 7:  Correct

Sometimes, an attacker's goal is to prevent access to a system rather than to gain access.
This form of attack is often called a denial-of-service attack and causes which impact?

Data loss

Availability loss

Identity theft

Data exfiltration

Explanation

Denial-of-service (DoS) attacks intend to create availability loss to an important service. An


example would be a botnet being used to exhaust the resources of a web server in order
to deny access to the websites that it hosts.
Data loss, data exfiltration, and identity theft are not the main purposes of denial-of-
service attacks.

References

 2.4.1 Vulnerability Concerns

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 2.4.3 Impact of Vulnerabilities

 2.4.4 Impact of Vulnerabilities Facts

 9.5.3 Cloud Security Controls Facts

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 Question 8:  Correct

When confidential or protected data is exposed, either intentionally or accidentally, it is


considered to be which of the following?

Data loss

Availability loss

Data exfiltration

Data breach

Explanation

A data breach is when confidential or protected data is exposed. Data loss involves the
loss of important data, such as a file being deleted. Data exfiltration could be used during
a data breach, but it in itself is not the definition of a data breach. Availability loss would
be an attack where the attacker is preventing authorized users from accessing the
systems.

References

 2.4.1 Vulnerability Concerns

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 2.4.3 Impact of Vulnerabilities

 2.4.4 Impact of Vulnerabilities Facts

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 Question 9:  Correct

DNS tunneling is a common method that allows an attacker to accomplish which attack?

Data loss

Medical identity theft

Availability loss

Data exfiltration

Explanation

A common tactic attackers use for data exfiltration is DNS tunneling. DNS tunneling is a
method that allows an attacker to hide data being sent to an outside host by disguising it
as DNS traffic on UDP port 53. Because DNS is critical to most network operations, it is
generally not blocked on the firewall.
The other answers are not directly associated with DNS tunneling.

References

 2.4.1 Vulnerability Concerns

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 2.4.3 Impact of Vulnerabilities

 2.4.4 Impact of Vulnerabilities Facts

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 Question 10:  Correct

Which impact of vulnerabilities occurs when an attacker uses information gained from a
data breach to commit fraud by doing things like opening new accounts with the victim's
information?

Availability loss

Identity theft

Data loss

Data exfiltration

Explanation

Identity theft is when an attacker uses data from a victim to commit fraud. Data loss is the
loss of files and documents, either accidentally or through malicious acts. Data exfiltration
is the transfer of information or files from a computer without authorization. Availability
loss is when an attacker performs a malicious act to make a network so busy that the
whole system goes down.

References

 2.4.1 Vulnerability Concerns

 2.4.2 Vulnerability Concerns Facts

 2.4.3 Impact of Vulnerabilities

 2.4.4 Impact of Vulnerabilities Facts

q_impact_vuln_identity_secp7.question.fex

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3.1.4 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/9/2023 1:42:56 pm • Time Spent: 03:29

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

1 of 11 2023-01-09, 1:43 p.m.


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 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following are solutions that address physical security? (Select two.)

Require identification and name badges for all


employees

Escort visitors at all times

Scan all floppy disks before use

Implement complex passwords

Disable guest accounts on computers

Explanation

Physical security controls physical access to the network or its components. Physical
security controls include:
• Requiring identification or key cards before entry is permitted
• Escorting visitors at all times
• Keeping doors and windows locked
• Keeping devices with sensitive information out of view of public users
• Keeping the server room locked (locking computers to racks or tables to prevent theft)
Implementing complex password, disabling guest accounts on computers, and scanning
all floppy disks before use are not considered physical security controls.

References

 3.1.1 Physical Security

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 3.1.3 Implement Physical Security

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 Question 2:  Correct

You are the security administrator for a small business. The floor plan for your
organization is shown in the figure below.
You've hired a third-party security consultant to review your organization's security
measures. She has discovered multiple instances where unauthorized individuals have
gained access to your facility, even to very sensitive areas. She recommends that you
provide employees with access badges and implement access badge readers to prevent
this from happening in the future.
Click on the office locations where access badge readers would be most appropriate.

Explanation

Access badge readers are typically implemented at building entrances to control access to
a facility. Only individuals who have an authorized access badge are allowed to enter the
facility. Individuals who do not have an access badge must be cleared and admitted by
security personnel. Additional access badge readers can be implemented within the facility
to further restrict access to sensitive areas, such as the server room.

References

 3.1.1 Physical Security

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 3.1.3 Implement Physical Security

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 Question 3:  Correct

If a fingerprint or retina scan is required to open a secured door, which kind of physical
security has been implemented?

Access list

Mantrap

Biometric locks

Double-entry door

Explanation

Biometric locks use unique physical characteristics of a person to authenticate his or her
access to a secured item. Often, these locks take the form of fingerprint scanners or retina
scanners.
An access list is incorrect because it is a list of names that a guard checks.
Mantraps and double-entry doors are also incorrect because they are styles of entryways
and don't check physical characteristics.

References

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 3.2.1 Hardware Security Guidelines

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

 3.2.3 Physical Network Protection

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

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 Question 4:  Correct

Which option is a benefit of CCTV?

Provide a corrective control

Reduce the need for locks and sensors on


doors

Expand the area visible by security guards

Increase security protection throughout an


environment

Explanation

A primary benefit of CCTV is that it expands the area visible by security guards. This helps
few guards oversee and monitor a larger area.
CCTV does not reduce the need for locks and sensors on doors and does not provide a
corrective control (it is a preventative, deterrent, or detective control). CCTV does not
increase security protection throughout an environment, as the range is limited to areas
over which it is aimed.

References

 3.1.1 Physical Security

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 3.1.3 Implement Physical Security

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 Question 5:  Correct

You want to use CCTV to increase your physical security, and you want the ability to
remotely control the camera position. Which camera type should you choose?

PTZ

C-mount

Bullet

Dome

Explanation

A Pan Tilt Zoom (PTZ) camera lets you dynamically move the camera and zoom in on
specific areas (cameras without PTZ capabilities are set looking a specific direction).
Automatic PTZ mode automatically moves the camera between several preset locations.
Manual PTZ lets an operator remotely control the position of the camera.
A bullet camera has a built-in lens and is long and round in shape. Most bullet cameras
can be used indoors or outdoors. A c-mount camera has interchangeable lenses, is
typically rectangular in shape, and carries the lens on its end. Most c-mount cameras
require special housing to be used outdoors. A dome camera is a camera protected with a
plastic or glass dome. These cameras are more vandal-resistant than other cameras.
Bullet, c-mount, or dome cameras can also be PTZ cameras.

References

 3.1.1 Physical Security

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 3.1.3 Implement Physical Security

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 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following controls is an example of a physical access control method?

Locks on doors

Smart cards

Hiring background checks

Access control lists with permissions

Passwords

Explanation

Locks on doors are an example of a physical access control method. Physical controls
restrict or control physical access.
Passwords, access control lists, and smart cards are all examples of technical controls.
Even though a smart card is a physical object, the card by itself is a part of a technical
implementation.
Requiring background checks for hiring is an example of a policy or an administrative
control.

References

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following can be used to stop piggybacking at a front entrance where
employees should swipe smart cards to gain entry?

Use weight scales

Deploy a mantrap

Install security cameras

Use key locks rather than electronic locks

Explanation

Piggybacking is when an authorized or unauthorized individual gains entry into a secured


area by exploiting the credentials of a prior person. Often, the first person authenticates,
unlocks the door, and then holds it open for the next person to enter without forcing them
to authenticate separately. Piggybacking can be stopped by a mantrap. A mantrap is a
single-person room with two doors. It often includes a scale to prevent piggybacking.
Mantraps requires proper authentication before the inner door unlocks to allow
authorized personal into a secured area. Those who fail to properly authenticate are held
captive until authorities respond.
A security camera may deter piggybacking, but it does not directly stop it.
Using weight scales inside a mantrap stops piggybacking, but they are not useful or
effective without the mantrap.
The use of conventional keys as opposed to electronic locks has little effect on preventing
piggybacking and may actually make piggybacking more prevalent.

References

 3.1.1 Physical Security

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 3.1.3 Implement Physical Security

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 Question 8:  Correct

After a security event that involves a breach of physical security, what is the term used for
the new measures, incident review, and repairs meant to stop a future incident from
occurring?

Recovery

Data breach

Prevention

Detection

Explanation

Recovery is the phase after a breach has occurred in which damage from the event is
repaired and a review is made to determine what should be done to prevent future
incidents of the same nature.
Prevention is incorrect because it is the phase before a breach occurs.
Detection is incorrect because it is the phase when the breach itself is discovered.
A data breach may be the result of a physical security incident, but is not one of the
phases.

References

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 12.1.1 Incident Response Process

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which kind of access control technology allows more than just the identity of an individual
to be transmitted wirelessly to either allow or deny access?

Proximity card

Biometric locks

Keypad locks

Smart card

Explanation

Unlike proximity cards that only transmit the owner's identity, smart cards can contain
and transmit many more pieces of information.
Biometric locks and keypad locks don't transmit data wirelessly. In contrast, they require
physical interaction.

References

 6.2.3 Authentication Facts

 6.6.12 Smart Card Authentication Facts

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 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following allows an easy exit of an area in the event of an emergency, but
also prevents entry? (Select two.)

Double-entry door

Mantrap

Bollard

Turnstile

PTZ CCTV

Explanation

A double-entry door has two doors that are locked from the outside and have crash bars
on the inside, allowing for an easy exit. Double-entry doors are typically used only for
emergency exits, and alarms sound when the doors are opened. A turnstile is a barrier
that permits entry in only one direction. Turnstiles are often used to permit easy exit from
a secure area. Entry is controlled through a mantrap or other system that requires
authentication for entry.
A mantrap is a specialized entrance with two doors that creates a security buffer zone
between two areas. Once a person enters into the space between the doors, both doors
are locked. To enter the facility, authentication must be provided. This may include visual
identification and identification credentials.
Bollards are short, sturdy posts used to prevent a car from crashing into a secure area.

References

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

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3.2.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/9/2023 2:46:42 pm • Time Spent: 02:33

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

1 of 13 2023-01-09, 2:47 p.m.


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 Question 1:  Correct

Your company has five salesmen who work out of the office and frequently leave their
laptops laying on their desks in their cubicles. You are concerned that someone might
walk by and take one of these laptops. Which of the following is the BEST protection
implementation to address your concerns?

Implement screen saver passwords.

Encrypt all company data on hard drives.

Require strong passwords in the Local Security


Policy.

Use cable locks to chain the laptops to the


desks.

Explanation

In this case, your main concern is that someone might steal the laptops. The best
protection against physical theft is to secure the laptops in place using a cable lock.
Requiring strong passwords or using encryption might prevent unauthorized users from
accessing data on the laptops, but these measures do not prevent physical theft.

References

 3.2.1 Hardware Security Guidelines

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

 3.2.3 Physical Network Protection

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

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 Question 2:  Correct

Your networking closet contains your network routers, switches, bridges, and some
servers. You want to make sure an attacker is not able to gain physical access to the
equipment in the networking closet. You also want to prevent anyone from reconfiguring
the network to set up remote access or backdoor access.
Which of the following measures are the best ways to secure your networking equipment
from unauthorized physical access? (Select two. Each measure is part of a complete
solution.)

Place your networking equipment in a TEMPEST


cage.

Place your networking equipment in a Van Eck


cage.

Place your networking equipment in a Faraday


cage.

Place your networking equipment in a room


that requires key card entry.

Place your networking equipment in a locked


cage.

Explanation

Placing your networking equipment in a locked cage inside of a locked room that also
requires key card access is the best way to physically secure your network from an
attacker who would attempt to gain physical access.
A Faraday cage prevents attackers from using Van Eck phreaking to gather electronic
emissions coming from your networking closet. The government uses a special emission
security specification called TEMPEST that requires the use of a Faraday cage.

References

 3.2.1 Hardware Security Guidelines

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

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 3.2.3 Physical Network Protection

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

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 Question 3:  Correct

You are an IT consultant. You are visiting a new client's site to become familiar with their
network. As you walk around their facility, you note the following:
• When you enter the facility, a receptionist greets you and escorts you through a locked
door to the work area where the office manager sits.
• The office manager informs you that the organization's servers are kept in a locked
closet. An access card is required to enter the server closet.
• She informs you that server backups are configured to run each night. A rotation of
tapes are used as the backup media.
• You notice the organization's network switch is kept in the server closet.
• You notice that a router/firewall/content filter all-in-one device has been implemented
in the server closet to protect the internal network from external attacks.
• The office manager informs you that her desktop system no longer boots and asks you
to repair or replace it, recovering as much data as possible in the process. You take the
workstation back to your office to work on it.
Which security-related recommendations should you make to this client?

Keep the network infrastructure devices (switch


and all-in-one device) in a locked room
separate from network servers.

Upgrade the server closet lock to a biometric


authentication system.

Replace the tape drive used for backups with


external USB hard disks.

Implement a hardware checkout policy.

Explanation

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In this scenario, you should recommend the client implement a hardware checkout policy.
A checkout policy ensures that hardware containing sensitive data does not leave the
organization's premises without approval and without recording the device's serial
number, make, and model number.
A biometric server room lock is probably not necessary in this scenario. It is acceptable to
keep servers and network devices, such as routers and switches, in the same room, as
long as that room is kept secure. There's no security advantage to using external hard
drives instead of tape backup media.

References

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

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 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following is the most important thing to do to prevent console access to the
router?

Keep the router in a locked room.

Implement an access list to prevent console


connections.

Set the console and enable secret passwords.

Disconnect the console cable when not in use.

Explanation

To control access to the router console, you must keep the router in a locked room. A
console connection can only be established with a direct physical connection to the router.
If the router is in a locked room, only those with access are able to make a console
connection. In addition, even if you had set console passwords, users with physical access
to the router could perform router password recovery and gain access.

References

 3.2.1 Hardware Security Guidelines

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

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 Question 5:  Correct

Burning, pulping, and shredding are three ways to securely dispose of data in which form?

Paper

Cloud

Disk

Tape

Explanation

Although tape and disk could be destroyed by industrial shredders, pulping can only be
done to paper by using water and chemicals to dissolve the paper.
Data in the cloud must be disposed of with tools from the cloud provider.

References

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

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 Question 6:  Correct

A computer or small network that is not connected to the rest of the network or the
internet is known as:

Air gap

Faraday cage

DMZ

Vault

Explanation

An air gap is a physical break between a computer or a small network to isolate it from
potential threats.
DMZ is incorrect because a DMZ is connected to other network segments.
A vault provides physical protection for network equipment.
A Faraday cage prevents wireless emissions from being leaked.

References

 3.1.1 Physical Security

 3.1.3 Implement Physical Security

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which device is used to allow a USB device to charge but blocks the data transfer
capabilities of the device?

Faraday cage

Bollard

Air gap

USB data blocker

Explanation

A USB data blocker prevents data from being transmitted while allowing the device to
draw power. This is useful for charging devices on unknown USB ports, such as those at
public charging stations.
An air gap is a network or device not connected to the rest of the network.
A bollard is physical protection to keep a vehicle from crashing into a secured area.
A Faraday cage prevents wireless emissions from being leaked.

References

 3.1.1 Physical Security

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 3.1.3 Implement Physical Security

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

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 Question 8:  Correct

Which device is often employed by power companies to protect cabling infrastructure


from having cables added or removed and to prevent emissions from being retrieved
from the air?

USB data blocker

Faraday cage

PDS

Air gap

Explanation

A protective distribution system (PDS) keeps cabling secure while also preventing
electronic emissions.
A USB data blocker prevents data from being transmitted while allowing the device to
draw power.
An air gap is a network or device not connected to the rest of the network.
A Faraday cage prevents wireless emissions from being leaked, but it does not protect
cabling.

References

 3.2.1 Hardware Security Guidelines

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

 3.2.3 Physical Network Protection

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which special network area is used to provide added protection by isolating publicly
accessible servers?

VLAN

Intranet

Internet

DMZ

Explanation

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of the network where extra security is placed to
protect the internal network from publicly accessible servers like web servers and email
servers.
A VLAN may be used to create a DMZ, but it is not inherently a DMZ.
The internet and intranet zones are the areas on the outside and inside of a network that
a DMZ is designed to protect.

References

 3.1.1 Physical Security

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 3.1.3 Implement Physical Security

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

 5.2.4 DMZ Facts

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 Question 10:  Correct

A Faraday cage is used to prevent what from leaving an area?

Network packets

Computers

Electromagnetic emissions

Hackers

Explanation

Faraday cages are used to prevent electromagnetic emissions like wireless signals from
leaving the cage. They are generally used in very high-security areas.
Network packets could leave a Faraday cage through a shielded cable.
Hackers and computers could be physically moved outside of a Faraday cage.

References

 3.1.1 Physical Security

 3.1.2 Physical Security Facts

 3.1.3 Implement Physical Security

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

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3.3.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/9/2023 4:42:08 pm • Time Spent: 04:05

Score: 90% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

It is important to follow correct procedures when running electrical cables next to data
cables in order to protect against which environmental concern?

Electromagnetic interference

Humidity

Temperature

Airflow

Explanation

Electromagnetic interference is when electrical devices or cabling puts out electromagnetic


pulses that can cause issues with data cabling and other unshielded devices.
Temperature, humidity, and airflow are all important parts of environmental control, but
they do not interfere with data cabling.

References

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

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 Question 2:  Incorrect

Most equipment is cooled by bringing cold air in the front and ducting the heat out of the
back. What is the term for where the heat is sent in this type of scenario?

Front aisle

Back aisle

Cold aisle

Hot aisle

Explanation

The hot aisle is where all of the heat is sent from the servers and network equipment to be
transmitted to the HVAC return vent.
The cold aisle is where the chilled air is sent so that the equipment can duct it through to
cool the devices.
Neither front nor back aisle is the correct term used in environmental controls.

References

 3.3.1 Environmental Controls

 3.3.2 Securing Environmental Systems

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

 3.3.4 Fire Protection Facts

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 Question 3:  Correct

What is the recommended humidity level for server rooms?

10% or lower

30%

50%

70% or higher

Explanation

Keep humidity between 40% and 60% to prevent electrostatic discharge, which causes
electrical charges that can damage computer components.

References

 3.2.1 Hardware Security Guidelines

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

 3.2.3 Physical Network Protection

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

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 Question 4:  Correct

Which deviation in power is the longest in duration?

Transient

Blackout

Sag

Surge

Explanation

A blackout is generally a longer outage of power. The rest of the events are relatively short
durations of less than a few seconds.

References

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

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 Question 5:  Correct

Power, heating, ventilation, air conditioning systems (HVAC), and utilities are all
components of which term?

Cold aisle

Infrastructure

Network protection

Hot aisle

Explanation

These components are all part of the infrastructure that supports network and server
operations.
The cold and hot aisles are part of the HVAC system, but do not make up the
infrastructure themselves.
Network protection is not part of the infrastructure.

References

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

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 Question 6:  Correct

You maintain a network for an industrial manufacturing company. You are concerned
about the dust in the area getting into server components and affecting network
availability.
Which of the following should you implement?

UPS

Backup generator

Line conditioner

Negative pressure system

Positive pressure system

Explanation

Use positive pressure systems. Positive pressure systems protect the air quality in the
facility by causing air to be forced out through doors, windows, and other openings.
Negative pressure systems draw air in, potentially bringing in airborne particles such as
dust, smoke from a fire, or contamination from a chemical leak. Positive pressure systems
are more energy-effective.
Line conditioners (also known as power conditioners) are used to improve the quality of
power by performing one or more of the following:
• Removing noise caused by electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency
interference (RFI)
• Providing small amounts of additional power to protect against power dips or sags
• Protecting against spikes and surges
Most UPS systems include line conditioners.

References

 3.2.1 Hardware Security Guidelines

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

 3.2.3 Physical Network Protection

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 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

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 Question 7:  Correct

Components within your server room are failing at a rapid pace. You discover that the
humidity in the server room is at 60% and the temperature is at 80 degrees.
What should you do to help reduce problems?

Add a de-humidifier to the server room.

Add a humidifier to the server room.

Add a separate A/C unit in the server room.

Add line conditioners in the server room.

Explanation

Keep the temperature between 70 and 74 degrees to prevent components from


overheating. In many cases, the server room is the hottest location in your building
because of the heat generated by the computer components. In most cases, you need a
separate A/C unit installed in the server room so that you can maintain temperature
without affecting the rest of the building.
Keep humidity between 40% and 60% to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD). Line
conditioners (also known as power conditioners) are used to improve the quality of power
by performing one or more of the following:
• Removing noise caused by EMI and RFI
• Providing small amounts of additional power to protect against power dips or sags
• Protecting against spikes and surges

References

 3.2.1 Hardware Security Guidelines

 3.2.2 Hardware Security Facts

 3.2.3 Physical Network Protection

 3.2.4 Physical Network Protection Facts

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

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 Question 8:  Correct

Which device is used to ensure power to a server or network device during short power
outages?

Line conditioner

Uninterruptible power supply

Backup generator

Surge protector

Explanation

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) provides continuous power using batteries for a
short period of time. Often, it is paired with a backup generator that can provide power
over a longer time period when provided with enough fuel.
Although a UPS often contains both surge protection and line conditioning, neither can
maintain power during an outage.

References

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

 12.7.1 Redundancy

 12.7.2 Redundancy Facts

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following fire extinguisher types is best used for the electrical fires that might
result when working with computer components?

Class A

Class B

Class C

Class D

Explanation

For electrical fires, choose a Class C fire extinguisher. Class C fire extinguishers use a gas
(CO2 or Halon) to remove oxygen from a fire. When purchasing a fire extinguisher,
purchase the type of extinguisher that is best suited for the type of fires that are likely to
occur in that area.
A Class A fire extinguisher uses water or soda acid and is best for fires using typical
combustible materials (wood, paper, cloth, plastics).
A Class B fire extinguisher uses either CO2 or FM200, but it is best suited for petroleum,
oil, solvent, or alcohol fires.
A Class D fire extinguisher uses a dry powder and is best for sodium and potassium fires.

References

 3.3.1 Environmental Controls

 3.3.2 Securing Environmental Systems

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

 3.3.4 Fire Protection Facts

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 Question 10:  Correct

You walk by the server room and notice that a fire has started. What should you do first?

Grab a fire extinguisher and try to put out the


fire.

Call the fire department.

Turn on the overhead sprinklers.

Make sure everyone has cleared the area.

Explanation

Your first action should be to ensure the safety of others. Make sure that people are out of
the area. Fires and other hazards can quickly spread, so fast action is required to make
sure that everyone is safe.
Call the fire department after you have taken steps to warn people who might be in
danger. In most cases, you should not try to put out fires on your own, as they can quickly
get out of control.

References

 3.3.1 Environmental Controls

 3.3.2 Securing Environmental Systems

 3.3.3 Environmental Control Facts

 3.3.4 Fire Protection Facts

q_fire_prot_suppress_02_secp7.question.fex

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4.1.4 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/27/2023 9:26:22 pm • Time Spent: 02:26

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You have hired 10 new temporary workers who will be with the company for three
months. You want to make sure that the user accounts cannot be used for login after that
time period. What should you do?

Configure account policies in Group Policy.

Configure account expiration in the user


accounts.

Configure account lockout in Group Policy.

Configure day/time restrictions in the user


accounts.

 Question 2:  Correct

Which Microsoft tool can be used to review a system's security configuration against
recommended settings?

Windows Defender

Microsoft Internet Explorer

Microsoft Security Compliance Toolkit

Registry Editor

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which type of update should be prioritized even outside of a normal patching window?

Microsoft updates

Monthly updates

Security updates

Critical updates

 Question 4:  Correct

Prepare to Document means establishing the process you will use to document your
network.
Which of the following makes this documentation more useful?

Identify who is responsible for each device.

Identify the choke points on the network.

Automate administration as much as possible.

Have a printed hard copy kept in a secure


location.

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 Question 5:  Correct

Documenting procedures and processes are part of which milestone in the NSA's
Manageable Network Plan?

Control Your Network

Document Your Network

Prepare to Document

Reach Your Network

 Question 6:  Correct

In which milestone should you use a network scanner and then confirm the scan manually
with a room-by-room walkthrough?

Protect Your Network

Map Your Network

Prepare to Document

Reach Your Network

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 Question 7:  Correct

Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is used to accomplish which part of a


manageable network?

Documentation

Patch management

Device accessibility

User access

 Question 8:  Correct

You have recently been hired as the new network administrator for a startup company.
The company's network was implemented prior to your arrival. One of the first tasks you
need to complete in your new position is to develop a manageable network plan for the
network.
You have already completed the first and second milestones, in which documentation
procedures were identified and the network was mapped. You are now working on the
third milestone, which is identifying ways to protect the network.
Which tasks should you complete as a part of this milestone? (Select two.)

Create an approved application list for each


network device.

Apply critical patches whenever they are


released.

Identify and document each user on the


network.

Physically secure high-value systems.

Set account expiration dates.

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 Question 9:  Correct

For Milestone 4 (Reach Your Network), which of the following would be considered a
secure protocol to use to reach your network?

FTP

HTTP

Telnet

SSH

 Question 10:  Correct

As you go through the process of making your network more manageable, you discover
that employees in the sales department are on the same network segment as the human
resources department.
Which of the following steps can be used to isolate these departments?

Identify the choke points on your network.

Move the sales department into the DMZ.

Implement the principle of least privilege for


the human resources department.

Create a separate VLAN for each department.

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4.3.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/27/2023 9:32:24 pm • Time Spent: 01:45

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You have placed a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) server in your DMZ behind your firewall. The
FTP server is to be used to distribute software updates and demonstration versions of
your products. However, users report that they are unable to access the FTP server.
What should you do to enable access?

Install a VPN.

Define user accounts for all external visitors.

Move the FTP outside of the firewall.

Open ports 20 and 21 for outbound


connections.

 Question 2:  Correct

FTPS uses which mechanism to provide security for authentication and data transfer?

Token devices

Multi-factor authentication

SSL

IPsec

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 Question 3:  Correct

To transfer files to your company's internal network from home, you use FTP. The
administrator has recently implemented a firewall at the network perimeter and disabled
as many ports as possible.
Now, you can no longer make the FTP connection. You suspect the firewall is causing the
issue. Which ports need to remain open so you can still transfer the files? (Select two.)

21

443

20

80

23

 Question 4:  Correct

You want to close all ports associated with NetBIOS on your network's firewalls to prevent
attacks directed against NetBIOS. Which ports should you close?

67, 68

135, 137-139

161, 162

389, 636

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following file transfer protocols use SSH to provide confidentiality during the
transfer? (Select two.)

HTTPS

FTPS

SFTP

SCP

FTP

 Question 6:  Correct

To increase security on your company's internal network, the administrator has disabled
as many ports as possible. However, now you can browse the internet, but you are unable
to perform secure credit card transactions.
Which port needs to be enabled to allow secure transactions?

80

443

21

69

23

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 Question 7:  Correct

You have a shared folder named Reports. Members of the Managers group have been
given Write access to the shared folder.
Mark Mangum is a member of the Managers group. He needs access to the files in the
Reports folder, but he should not have any access to the Confidential.xls file.
What should you do?

Remove Mark Mangum from the Managers


group.

Configure NTFS permissions for Confidential.xls


to allow read-only.

Add Mark Mangum to the ACL for the Reports


directory with Deny permissions.

Add Mark Mangum to the ACL for the


Confidential.xls file with Deny permissions.

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 Question 8:  Correct

You want to give all managers the ability to view and edit a certain file. To do so, you need
to edit the discretionary access control list (DACL) associated with the file. You want to be
able to easily add and remove managers as their job positions change.
What is the BEST way to accomplish this?

Add each user account to the file's DACL.

Create a security group for the managers. Add


all users as members of the group. Add the
group to the file's DACL.

Create a distribution group for the managers.


Add all users as members of the group. Add
the group to the file's DACL.

Add one manager to the DACL that grants all


permissions. Have this user add other
managers as required.

 Question 9:  Correct

If Mark has a read-write permission to the share \\fileserver\securefiles and a read-only


permission to the file coolstuff.docx on the NTFS file system shared by the file share, he is
able to perform which action?

Read the file.

Delete the file.

Change the contents of the file.

Rename the file.

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 Question 10:  Correct

You have a file server named Srv3 that holds files used by the development department.
You want to allow users to access the files over the network and control access to files
accessed through the network or through a local logon.
Which solution should you implement?

NTFS permissions and file screens

Share permissions and file screens

NTFS permissions and share permissions

Share permissions and quotas

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4.4.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/27/2023 9:41:00 pm • Time Spent: 02:27

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which command should you use to display both listening and non-listening sockets on
your Linux system? (Tip: enter the command as if in Command Prompt.)

netstat -a

 Question 2:  Correct

Which command should you use to scan for open TCP ports on your Linux system? (Tip:
enter the command as if in Command Prompt.)

nmap -sT

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 Question 3:  Correct

You need to increase the security of your Linux system by finding and closing open ports.
Which of the following commands should you use to locate open ports?

nslookup

traceroute

nmap

netstat

 Question 4:  Correct

What does the netstat -a command show?

All listening and non-listening sockets

All connected hosts

All listening sockets

All network users

 Question 5:  Correct

You want to make sure no unneeded software packages are running on your Linux server.
Select the command from the drop-down list that you can use to see all installed RPM
packages.

yum list installed 

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 Question 6:  Correct

Which action would you use in a rule to disallow a connection silently?

Accept

Drop

Reject

Forward

 Question 7:  Correct

In which of the iptables default chains would you configure a rule to allow an external
device to access the HTTPS port on the Linux server?

Input

Forward

Output

Accept

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 Question 8:  Correct

Which type of packet would the sender receive if they sent a connection request to TCP
port 25 on a server with the following command applied?
sudo iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp --dport 25 -j REJECT

ACK

RST

ICMP Unreachable Port

SYN

 Question 9:  Correct

You have configured the following rules. What is the effect?


sudo iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 25 -m conntrack --ctstate NEW,ESTABLISHED -j
ACCEPT
sudo iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp --sport 25 -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED -j
ACCEPT

Block SMTP traffic

Block SSH traffic

Allow SSH traffic

Allow SMTP traffic

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 Question 10:  Correct

Which command would you use to list all of the currently defined iptables rules?

sudo iptables -F

sudo /sbin/iptables-save

sudo iptables -A INPUT -j DROP

sudo iptables -L

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5.1.13 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/27/2023 9:48:28 pm • Time Spent: 01:32

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Where should an organization's web server be placed?

Extranet

Honeynet

DMZ

Intranet

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following is a privately controlled portion of a network that is accessible to


some specific external entities?

Internet

MAN

Extranet

Intranet

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 Question 3:  Correct

You want to create a collection of computers on your network that appear to have
valuable data but actually store fake data that could entice a potential intruder. Once the
intruder connects, you want to be able to observe and gather information about the
attacker's methods.
Which feature should you implement?

Extranet

NIDS

NIPS

Honeynet

 Question 4:  Correct

A honeypot is used for which purpose?

To entrap intruders

To disable an intruder's system

To delay intruders in order to gather auditing


data

To prevent sensitive data from being accessed

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following devices can apply quality of service and traffic-shaping rules based
on what created the network traffic?

Proxy server

All-in-one security appliances

Application-aware devices

Network access control

 Question 6:  Correct

You are the office manager of a small financial credit business. Your company handles
personal financial information for clients seeking small loans over the internet. You are
aware of your obligation to secure clients records, but the budget is an issue for your
company.
Which item would provide the BEST security for this situation?

Proxy server with access controls

Firewall on your gateway server to the internet

All-in-one security appliance

Network access control system

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 Question 7:  Correct

You are implementing security at a local high school that is concerned with students
accessing inappropriate material on the internet from the library's computers. The
students use the computers to search the internet for research paper content. The school
budget is limited.
Which content filtering option would you choose?

Allow all content except for the content you


have identified as restricted.

Block all content except for content you have


identified as permissible.

Restrict content based on content categories.

Block specific DNS domain names.

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes a honeyfile?

A file that has been digitally signed.

A default file in the /etc/security directory.

A file used to authenticate.

A single file setup to entice and trap attackers.

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 Question 9:  Correct

Members of the sales team use laptops to connect to the company network. While
traveling, they connect their laptops to the internet through airport and hotel networks.
You are concerned that these computers could pick up viruses that could spread to your
private network. You would like to implement a solution that prevents the laptops from
connecting to your network unless antivirus software and the latest operating system
patches are installed.
Which solution should you use?

NIDS

VLAN

DMZ

NAC

 Question 10:  Correct

A proxy server can be configured to do which of the following?

Act as a unified threat security device or web


security gateway.

Restrict users on the inside of a network from


getting out to the internet.

Block all content except for the content you


have identified as permissible.

Allow all content except for the content you


have identified as restricted.

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5.2.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/27/2023 9:55:38 pm • Time Spent: 01:52

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following terms describes a network device that is exposed to attacks and
has been hardened against those attacks?

Bastion or sacrificial host

Circuit proxy

Kernel proxy

Multi-homed

 Question 2:  Correct

Of the following security zones, which one can serve as a buffer network between a
private secured network and the untrusted internet?

Intranet

Extranet

DMZ

Padded cell

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following is the MOST likely to happen if the firewall managing traffic into the
DMZ fails?

The LAN is compromised, but the DMZ stays


protected.

Only the servers in the DMZ are compromised,


but the LAN will stay protected.

Nothing will happen - all devices will stay


protected.

All devices in the DMZ and LAN will be


compromised.

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 Question 4:  Correct

You have a company network that is connected to the internet. You want all users to have
internet access, but you need to protect your private network and users. You also need to
make a web server publicly available to internet users.
Which solution should you use?

Use a single firewall. Put the web server and


the private network behind the firewall.

Use firewalls to create a DMZ. Place the web


server inside the DMZ and the private network
behind the DMZ.

Use a single firewall. Put the web server in front


of the firewall and the private network behind
the firewall.

Use firewalls to create a DMZ. Place the web


server and the private network inside the DMZ.

 Question 5:  Correct

How many network interfaces does a dual-homed gateway typically have?

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 Question 6:  Correct

What needs to be configured on a firewall to allow traffic directed to the public resource in
the DMZ?

VPN

Packet filters

FTP

Subnet

 Question 7:  Correct

You have used firewalls to create a demilitarized zone. You have a web server that needs
to be accessible to internet users. The web server must communicate with a database
server for retrieving product, customer, and order information.
How should you place devices on the network to best protect the servers? (Select two.)

Put the database server inside the DMZ.

Put the web server on the private network.

Put the web server inside the DMZ.

Put the database server on the private network.

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 Question 8:  Correct

In which of the following situations would you most likely implement a demilitarized zone
(DMZ)?

You want to protect a public web server from


attack.

You want to detect and respond to attacks in


real time.

You want to encrypt data sent between two


hosts using the internet.

You want internet users to see a single IP


address when accessing your company
network.

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is another name for a firewall that performs router functions?

Screened subnet

Dual-homed gateway

Screening router

Screened-host gateway

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 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following is the BEST solution to allow access to private resources from the
internet?

FTP

Packet filters

VPN

Subnet

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5.3.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 3:09:27 pm • Time Spent: 06:01

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following describes how access control lists can be used to improve network
security?

An access control list filters traffic based on the


frame header, such as source or destination
MAC address.

An access control list filters traffic based on the


IP header information, such as source or
destination IP address, protocol, or socket
number.

An access control list looks for patterns of


traffic between multiple packets and takes
action to stop detected attacks.

An access control list identifies traffic that must


use authentication or encryption.

1 of 6 2023-01-28, 3:10 p.m.


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 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following are features of an application-level gateway? (Select two.)

Verifies that packets are properly sequenced

Uses access control lists

Reassembles entire messages

Allows only valid packets within approved


sessions

Stops each packet at the firewall for inspection

 Question 3:  Correct

You want to install a firewall that can reject packets that are not part of an active session.
Which type of firewall should you use?

Application-level gateway

VPN concentrator

Circuit-level gateway

Packet-filtering firewall

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 Question 4:  Correct

Jessica needs to set up a firewall to protect her internal network from the internet. Which
of the following would be the BEST type of firewall for her to use?

Stateful

Software

Hardware

Tunneling

 Question 5:  Correct

You have been given a laptop to use for work. You connect the laptop to your company
network, use it from home, and use it while traveling.
You want to protect the laptop from internet-based attacks. Which solution should you
use?

VPN concentrator

Proxy server

Network-based firewall

Host-based firewall

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 Question 6:  Correct

You have just installed a packet-filtering firewall on your network. Which options are you
able to set on your firewall? (Select all that apply.)

Port number

Checksum

Sequence number

Acknowledgement number

Digital signature

Source address of a packet

Destination address of a packet

 Question 7:  Correct

When designing a firewall, what is the recommended approach for opening and closing
ports?

Close all ports; open ports 20, 21, 53, 80, and
443.

Close all ports; open only ports required by


applications inside the DMZ.

Close all ports.

Open all ports; close ports that show improper


traffic or attacks in progress.

Open all ports; close ports that expose


common network attacks.

4 of 6 2023-01-28, 3:10 p.m.


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 Question 8:  Correct

You connect your computer to a wireless network available at the local library. You find
that you can access all of the websites you want on the internet except for two.
What might be causing the problem?

A proxy server is blocking access to the


websites.

The router has not been configured to perform


port forwarding.

A firewall is blocking ports 80 and 443.

Port triggering is redirecting traffic to the


wrong IP address.

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following best describes a stateful inspection?

Determines the legitimacy of traffic based on


the state of the connection from which the
traffic originated.

Allows all internal traffic to share a single public


IP address when connecting to an outside
entity.

Offers secure connectivity between many


entities and uses encryption to provide an
effective defense against sniffing.

Designed to sit between a host and a web


server and communicate with the server on
behalf of the host.

5 of 6 2023-01-28, 3:10 p.m.


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 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following are characteristics of a packet-filtering firewall? (Select two.)

Filters based on URL

Stateless

Filters IP address and port

Filters based on sessions

Stateful

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5.4.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 3:22:52 pm • Time Spent: 02:26

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You want to connect your small company network to the internet. Your ISP provides you
with a single IP address that is to be shared between all hosts on your private network.
You do not want external hosts to be able to initiate connection to internal hosts. Which
type of Network Address Translation (NAT) should you implement?

Dynamic

Static

Shared

Restricted

 Question 2:  Correct

Which NAT implementation assigns two IP addresses to the public NAT interface, allowing
traffic to flow in both directions?

Dynamic and static

Dynamic

Static

PAT

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 3:24 p.m.


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 Question 3:  Correct

Which device is NAT typically implemented on?

AD server

RADIUS server

Gateway router

ISP router

 Question 4:  Correct

Which problem does NAT help address?

IPSec not working properly

The shortage of IPv4 addresses

The shortage of IPv6 addresses

Registering IP addresses with an ISP

 Question 5:  Correct

At which layer of the OSI model do NAT routers operate?

Layer 1 (Physical layer)

Layer 7 (Application layer)

Layer 3 (Network layer)

Layer 5 (Session layer)

2 of 5 2023-01-28, 3:24 p.m.


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 Question 6:  Correct

How many concurrent connections does NAT support?

300

Unlimited

90

5,000

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following does a NAT router use to identify where a host is connected on the
switch?

Dynamic NAT

Static NAT

PAT

IPv4

3 of 5 2023-01-28, 3:24 p.m.


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 Question 8:  Correct

A network device is given an IP address of 172.16.0.55. Which type of network is this


device on?

Class B private network

Class C private network

IPv6 private network

Class A private network

 Question 9:  Correct

You have a small network at home that is connected to the internet. On your home
network, you have a server with the IP address of 192.168.55.199/16. You have a single
public address that is shared by all hosts on your private network.
You want to configure the server as a web server and allow internet hosts to contact the
server to browse a personal website.
What should you use to allow access?

Static NAT

DNS CNAME record

Multicast

Dynamic NAT

DNS A record

4 of 5 2023-01-28, 3:24 p.m.


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 Question 10:  Correct

You are the network administrator for a small company that implements NAT to access
the internet. However, you recently acquired five servers that must be accessible from
outside your network. Your ISP has provided you with five additional registered IP
addresses to support these new servers, but you don't want the public to access these
servers directly. You want to place these servers behind your firewall on the inside
network, yet still allow them to be accessible to the public from the outside.
Which method of NAT translation should you implement for these servers?

Dynamic

Overloading

Restricted

Static

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5.5.8 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 3:35:03 pm • Time Spent: 03:49

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

A salesperson in your organization spends most of her time traveling between customer
sites. After a customer visit, she must complete various managerial tasks, such as updating
your organization's order database.
Because she rarely comes back to your home office, she usually accesses the network
from her notebook computer using Wi-Fi access provided by hotels, restaurants, and
airports.
Many of these locations provide unencrypted public Wi-Fi access, and you are concerned
that sensitive data could be exposed. To remedy this situation, you decide to configure her
notebook to use a VPN when accessing the home network over an open wireless
connection.
Which key steps should you take when implementing this configuration? (Select two.)

Configure the browser to send HTTPS requests


through the VPN connection

Configure the VPN connection to use IPsec

Configure the VPN connection to use MS-


CHAPv2

Configure the VPN connection to use PPTP

Configure the browser to send HTTPS requests


directly to the Wi-Fi network without going
through the VPN connection

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 3:36 p.m.


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 Question 2:  Correct

A group of salesmen would like to remotely access your private network through the
internet while they are traveling. You want to control access to the private network
through a single server.
Which solution should you implement?

IDS

VPN concentrator

DMZ

IPS

 Question 3:  Correct

A VPN is primarily used for which of the following purposes?

Allow the use of network-attached printers

Allow remote systems to save on long-distance


charges

Support the distribution of public web


documents

Support secured communications over an


untrusted network

2 of 5 2023-01-28, 3:36 p.m.


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 Question 4:  Correct

Which VPN implementation uses routers on the edge of each site?

Always-on VPN

Site-to-site VPN

Host-to-host VPN

Remote access VPN

 Question 5:  Correct

Which VPN tunnel style routes only certain types of traffic?

Full

Split

Host-to-host

Site-to-site

 Question 6:  Correct

Which IPSec subprotocol provides data encryption?

ESP

AH

AES

SSL

3 of 5 2023-01-28, 3:36 p.m.


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 Question 7:  Correct

In addition to Authentication Header (AH), IPsec is comprised of what other service?

Extended Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Encryption File System (EFS)

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

 Question 8:  Correct

Which statement BEST describes IPsec when used in tunnel mode?

Packets are routed using the original headers,


and only the payload is encrypted

The identities of the communicating parties are


not protected

IPsec in tunnel mode may not be used for WAN


traffic

The entire data packet, including headers, is


encapsulated

4 of 5 2023-01-28, 3:36 p.m.


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 Question 9:  Correct

Which VPN protocol typically employs IPsec as its data encryption mechanism?

L2TP

PPTP

L2F

PPP

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following VPN protocols is no longer considered secure?

PPTP

SSL

IPsec

TLS

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5.6.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 4:18:37 pm • Time Spent: 00:26

Score: 10% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

You are investigating the use of website and URL content filtering to prevent users from
visiting certain websites.
Which benefits are the result of implementing this technology in your organization?
(Choose two.)

An increase in bandwidth availability

Prevention of phishing attempts

Identification and disposal of infected content

Prevention of emails containing threats

Enforcement of the organization's internet


usage policy

1 of 6 2023-01-28, 4:40 p.m.


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 Question 2:  Incorrect

Travis is sending a highly confidential email to Craig that contains sensitive data. Which of
the following should Travis implement to ensure that only Craig is able to read the email?

Spam filter

Anti-phishing software

Virus scanner

Encryption

 Question 3:  Incorrect

Which of the following types of proxies would you use to remain anonymous when surfing
the internet?

Forward

Content filter

Reverse

VPN

2 of 6 2023-01-28, 4:40 p.m.


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 Question 4:  Incorrect

As the security analyst for your organization, you have noticed an increase in emails that
attempt to trick users into revealing confidential information. Which web threat solution
should you implement to protect against these threats?

Data loss prevention

Proxies

Anti-phishing software

Encryption

 Question 5:  Incorrect

Which of the following are functions of gateway email spam filters? (Select two.)

Blocks users from visiting websites with


malicious content

Blocks email from specific senders

Helps enforce an organization's internet usage


policy

Filters messages containing specific content

Blocks phishing attempts, which try to access


confidential information

3 of 6 2023-01-28, 4:40 p.m.


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 Question 6:  Correct

You are configuring web threat protection on the network and want to block emails
coming from a specific sender. Which of the following should be configured?

Virus scanner

Encryption

Anti-phishing software

Spam filter

 Question 7:  Incorrect

As the security analyst for your organization, you have noticed an increase in user
computers being infected with malware. Which two solutions should you implement and
configure to remedy this problem? (Select two.)

Data loss prevention

Virus scanner

Proxies

Spam filters

Encryption

4 of 6 2023-01-28, 4:40 p.m.


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 Question 8:  Incorrect

You are configuring web threat protection on the network and want to prevent users from
visiting www.videosite.org. Which of the following needs to be configured?

Content filtering

Virus scanner

Anti-phishing software

Website filtering

 Question 9:  Incorrect

Which of the following types of proxies can be used for web filtering?

Content filter

Reverse

Transparent

VPN

5 of 6 2023-01-28, 4:40 p.m.


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 Question 10:  Incorrect

You are configuring web threat protection on the network and have identified a website
that contains malicious content. Which of the following should you configure?

Anti-phishing software

Content filtering

Web threat filtering

Virus scanner

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5.7.3 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 4:41:00 pm • Time Spent: 00:30

Score: 20% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following NAC agent types would be used for IoT devices?

Zero-trust

Permanent

Agentless

Dissolvable

 Question 2:  Incorrect

Which of the steps in the Network Access Control (NAC) implementation process occurs
once the policies have been defined?

Apply

Review

Plan

Test

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 4:42 p.m.


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 Question 3:  Incorrect

Which of the following defines all the prerequisites a device must meet in order to access
a network?

Identity Services Engine (ISE)

Authentication

Authorization

Zero-trust security

 Question 4:  Incorrect

Which of the following applies the appropriate policies in order to provide a device with
the access it's defined to receive?

Authorization

Identity Services Engine

Authentication

Zero-trust security

2 of 5 2023-01-28, 4:42 p.m.


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 Question 5:  Incorrect

Which of the following NAC agent types creates a temporary connection?

Dissolvable

Permanent

Zero-trust

Agentless

 Question 6:  Incorrect

What is Cisco's Network Access Control (NAC) solution called?

Network Access Protection

Network Address Translation (NAT)

Talos

Identity Services Engine (ISE)

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 Question 7:  Correct

You are configuring the security settings for your network. You have decided to configure
a policy that requires any computer connecting to the network to run at least Windows 10
version 2004. Which of the following have you configured?

NAC

NAT

NAP

ISE

 Question 8:  Incorrect

Which of the following NAC agent types is the most convenient agent type?

Permanent

Dissolvable

Zero-trust

Agentless

4 of 5 2023-01-28, 4:42 p.m.


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 Question 9:  Incorrect

You are part of a committee that is meeting to define how Network Access Control (NAC)
should be implemented in the organization. Which step in the NAC process is this?

Apply

Define

Plan

Review

 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which of the following BEST describes zero-trust security?

Only devices that pass authentication are


trusted.

Only devices that pass authorization are


trusted.

Only devices that pass both authentication and


authorization are trusted.

All devices are trusted.

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5.8.3 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 4:43:16 pm • Time Spent: 00:38

Score: 10% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

You are the security analyst for your organization and have discovered evidence that
someone is attempting to brute-force the root password on the web server. Which
classification of attack type is this?

Passive

External

Inside

Active

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 4:44 p.m.


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 Question 2:  Incorrect

Drag the network attack technique on the left to the appropriate description or example
on the right. (Each technique may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
Perpetrators attempt to compromise or affect the operations of a system.

Active attack

Unauthorized individuals try to breach a network from off-site.

External attack

Attempting to find the root password on a web server by brute force.

Active attack

Attempting to gather information without affecting the flow of information on the


network.

Passive attack

Sniffing network packets or performing a port scan.

Passive attack

 Question 3:  Incorrect

An attacker sets up 100 drone computers that flood a DNS server with invalid requests.
This is an example of which kind of attack?

Replay

Backdoor

Spamming

DDoS

2 of 5 2023-01-28, 4:44 p.m.


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 Question 4:  Incorrect

In which of the following zones would a web server most likely be placed?

High-trust zone

No-trust zone

Low-trust zone

Medium-trust zone

 Question 5:  Incorrect

Which area of focus helps to identify weak network architecture or design?

Network baseline

Documentation

Entry points

Inherent vulnerabilities

 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which classification of attack type does packet sniffing fall under?

Active

Passive

Inside

External

3 of 5 2023-01-28, 4:44 p.m.


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 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which area of focus do public-facing servers, workstations, Wi-Fi networks, and personal
devices fall under?

Network segmentation

Network baseline

Entry points

Inherent vulnerabilities

 Question 8:  Correct

Your network devices are categorized into the following zone types:
• No-trust zone
• Low-trust zone
• Medium-trust zone
• High-trust zone
Your network architecture employs multiple VLANs for each of these network zones. Each
zone is separated by a firewall that ensures only specific traffic is allowed.
Which of the following is the secure architecture concept that is being used on this
network?

Network segmentation

Network firewalling

Trust-zone networking

Virtual local area networking

4 of 5 2023-01-28, 4:44 p.m.


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 Question 9:  Incorrect

Your organization has started receiving phishing emails. You suspect that an attacker is
attempting to find an employee workstation they can compromise. You know that a
workstation can be used as a pivot point to gain access to more sensitive systems.
Which of the following is the MOST important aspect of maintaining network security
against this type of attack?

User education and training

Identifying inherent vulnerabilities

Identifying a network baseline

Network segmentation

Documenting all network assets in your


organization

 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which of the following is commonly created to segment a network into different zones?

DMZ

VLANs

DNS

VPNs

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5.9.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 4:45:24 pm • Time Spent: 00:52

Score: 30% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

While developing a network application, a programmer adds functionally that allows her
to access the running program without authentication so she can capture debugging data.
The programmer forgets to remove this functionality prior to finalizing the code and
shipping the application.
Which type of security weakness does this describe?

Privilege escalation

Weak password

Backdoor

Buffer overflow

1 of 6 2023-01-28, 4:46 p.m.


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 Question 2:  Incorrect

An attacker was able to gain unauthorized access to a mobile phone and install a Trojan
horse so that he or she could bypass security controls and reconnect later.
Which type of attack is this an example of?

Backdoor

Social engineering

Replay

Privilege escalation

 Question 3:  Incorrect

In an effort to increase the security of your organization, programmers have been


informed they can no longer bypass security during development.
Which vulnerability are you attempting to prevent?

Privilege escalation

Backdoor

Social engineering

Replay

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 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following are characteristics of a complex password? (Select two.)

Has a maximum of fifteen characters

Consists of letters, numbers, and symbols

Has a minimum of six characters

Consists of letters and numbers only

Has a minimum of eight characters

 Question 5:  Correct

An attacker has gained access to the administrator's login credentials. Which type of attack
has most likely occurred?

Password cracking

Privilege escalation

Buffer overflow

Backdoor

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 Question 6:  Correct

When setting up a new wireless access point, what is the first configuration change that
should be made?

SSID

Encryption protocol

Default login

MAC filtering

 Question 7:  Incorrect

You've just deployed a new Cisco router that connects several network segments in your
organization.
The router is physically located in a server room that requires an ID card to gain access.
You've backed up the router configuration to a remote location in an encrypted file. You
access the router configuration interface from your notebook computer by connecting it
to the console port on the router. You've configured the management interface with a
username of admin and a password of password.
What should you do to increase the security of this device?

Use an SSH client to access the router


configuration.

Include hard-coded passwords and hidden


service accounts.

Move the device to a secure data center.

Use a stronger administrative password.

4 of 6 2023-01-28, 4:46 p.m.


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 Question 8:  Incorrect

A relatively new employee in the data entry cubical farm was assigned a user account
similar to the other data entry employees' accounts. However, audit logs have shown that
this user account has been used to change ACLs on several confidential files and has
accessed data in restricted areas.
This situation indicates which of the following has occurred?

Physical security

Social engineering

Privilege escalation

External attack

 Question 9:  Incorrect

An attacker has obtained the logon credentials for a regular user on your network. Which
type of security threat exists if this user account is used to perform administrative
functions?

Privilege escalation

Impersonation

Replay

Social engineering

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 Question 10:  Incorrect

Travis and Craig are both standard users on the network. Each user has a folder on the
network server that only they can access. Recently, Travis has been able to access Craig's
folder.
This situation indicates which of the following has occurred?

Privilege escalation

Social engineering

Replay

External attack

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6 of 6 2023-01-28, 4:46 p.m.


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5.10.4 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 4:50:26 pm • Time Spent: 01:10

Score: 30% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

Which common design feature among instant messaging clients make them less secure
than other means of communicating over the internet?

Real-time communication

Peer-to-peer networking

Transfer of text and files

Freely available for use

 Question 2:  Incorrect

Which type of application allows users to share and access content without using a
centralized server?

Real-time communication

Instant messaging

Group Policy

Peer-to-peer software

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 4:51 p.m.


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 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following methods did Microsoft introduce in Windows 10 to help distribute
OS updates?

Server download

File Transfer Protocol

Group Policy

Peer-to-peer software

 Question 4:  Incorrect

Which of the following is a benefit of P2P applications?

Shared resources

Strong security

Real-time communication

Low-upload bandwidth

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 Question 5:  Correct

What do application control solutions use to identify specific applications?

Flags

Application signatures

Whitelists

Packet inspection

 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which of the following is susceptible to social engineering exploits?

Peer-to-peer software

Instant messaging

Real-time communication

Group Policy

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following is considered a major problem with instant messaging applications?

Real-time communication

Freely available for use

Transfer of text and files

Loss of productivity

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 Question 8:  Incorrect

You are the security analyst for your organization and have recently noticed a large
amount of spim on the company mobile devices. Employees rely on the IM app to
communicate with each other.
Which of the following countermeasures should you implement?

Use an IM blocker.

Create a blacklist.

Encrypt all IM traffic.

Disable instant messaging.

 Question 9:  Incorrect

You have implemented a new application control solution. After monitoring traffic and use
for a while, you have noticed an application that continuously circumvents blocking.
How should you configure the application control software to handle this application?

Tarpit

Drop

Flag

Block

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 Question 10:  Incorrect

You are implementing a new application control solution.


Prior to enforcing your application whitelist, you want to monitor user traffic for a period
of time to discover user behaviors and log violations for later review.
How should you configure the application control software to handle applications not
contained in the whitelist?

Tarpit

Flag

Drop

Block

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5.11.12 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 4:52:51 pm • Time Spent: 00:34

Score: 10% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

Which of the following scenarios would typically utilize 802.1x authentication?

Controlling access through a switch

Controlling access through a router

Authenticating remote access clients

Authenticating VPN users through the internet

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 Question 2:  Incorrect

You are the network administrator for a city library. Throughout the library are several
groups of computers that provide public access to the internet. Supervision of these
computers has been difficult. You've had problems with patrons bringing personal laptops
into the library and disconnecting the network cables from the library computers to
connect their laptops to the internet.
The library computers are in groups of four. Each group of four computers is connected to
a hub that is connected to the library network through an access port on a switch. You
want to restrict access to the network so that only library computers are permitted
connectivity to the internet.
What can you do?

Create a VLAN for each group of four


computers.

Configure port security on the switch.

Create static MAC addresses for each computer


and associate each address with a VLAN.

Remove the hub and place each library


computer on its own access port.

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 Question 3:  Incorrect

You manage a single subnet with three switches. They are connected to provide
redundant paths between the switches.
Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active path
between any two switches?

802.1x

Spanning Tree Protocol

Bonding

PoE

Trunking

 Question 4:  Incorrect

When configuring VLANs on a switch, which type of switch ports are members of all VLANs
defined on the switch?

Any port not assigned to a VLAN

Trunk ports

Each port can only be a member of a single


VLAN

Uplink ports

Gigabit and higher Ethernet ports

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

Which of the following best describes the concept of a virtual LAN?

Devices in separate networks (different


network addresses) logically grouped as if they
were in the same network.

Devices connected by a transmission medium


other than a cable (microwave, radio
transmissions).

Devices on the same network logically grouped


as if they were on separate networks.

Devices on different networks that can receive


multicast packets.

Devices connected through the internet that


can communicate without using a network
address.

 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which of the following switch attacks associates the attacker's MAC address with the IP
address of the victim's devices?

ARP spoofing/poisoning

DNS poisoning

MAC spoofing

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

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 Question 7:  Incorrect

Drag each description on the left to the appropriate switch attack type on the right.

5 of 8 2023-01-28, 4:58 p.m.


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ARP spoofing/poisoning
The
source
device
sends
frames
to the
attacker's
MAC
address
instead
of to the
correct
device.

Dynamic Trunking Protocol


Should be
disabled on
the switch's
end user
(access) ports
before
implementing
the switch
configuration
into the
network.

MAC flooding
Causes
packets to
fill up the
forwarding
table and
consumes
so much
of the
switch's
memory
that it
enters a
state
called Fail

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Open
Mode.
MAC spoofing
Can be used
to hide the
identity of
the
attacker's
computer or
impersonate
another
device on
the network.

 Question 8:  Incorrect

Which of the following attacks, if successful, causes a switch to function like a hub?

ARP poisoning

MAC flooding

MAC spoofing

Replay attack

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is a typical goal of MAC spoofing?

Reroute local switch traffic to a specified


destination

Cause a switch to enter fail open mode

Cause incoming packets to broadcast to all


ports

Bypass 802.1x port-based security

 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which protocol should you disable on the user access ports of a switch?

DTP

PPTP

IPsec

TCP

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5.12.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:01:21 pm • Time Spent: 02:06

Score: 60% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You are adding switches to your network to support additional VLANs. Unfortunately, the
new switches are from a different vendor than the current switches.
Which standard do you need to ensure that the switches are supported?

802.11

802.1x

802.3

802.1Q

 Question 2:  Incorrect

When configuring VLANs on a switch, what is used to identify which VLAN a device belongs
to?

IP address

Host name

MAC address

Switch port

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 Question 3:  Incorrect

Which 802.1Q priority is IP phone traffic on a voice VLAN tagged with by default?

 Question 4:  Correct

The IT manager has asked you to create four new VLANs for a new department. As you are
going through the VLAN configurations, you find some VLANs numbered 1002-1005.
However, they are not in use.
What should you do with these VLANs?

Delete them since they are not being used.

Nothing. They are reserved and cannot be used


or deleted.

Configure them so they can be used on the


new network.

Renumber them and assign them to ports on


the switch.

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

The IT manager has asked you to create a separate VLAN to be used exclusively for
wireless guest devices to connect to.
Which of the following is the primary benefit of creating this VLAN?

You can create a wireless guest network more


affordably with a VLAN than you can with a
router.

You can load-balance wireless guest network


traffic to have a lower priority than the rest of
the traffic on the network.

You can control security by isolating wireless


guest devices within this VLAN.

You can control broadcast traffic and create a


collision domain for just the wireless guest
devices.

 Question 6:  Correct

A virtual LAN can be created using which of the following?

Router

Switch

Gateway

Hub

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following is an appropriate definition of a VLAN?

A physical collection of devices that belong


together and are connected to the same wire
or physical switch.

A device used to route traffic between separate


networks.

A device used to filter WAN traffic.

A logical grouping of devices based on service


need, protocol, or other criteria.

 Question 8:  Correct

You manage a network that uses a single switch. All ports within your building connect
through the single switch.
In the lobby of your building are three RJ-45 ports connected to the switch. You want to
allow visitors to plug into these ports to gain internet access, but they should not have
access to any other devices on your private network. Employees connected throughout
the rest of your building should have both private and internet access.
Which feature should you implement?

Port authentication

VLANs

NAT

DMZ

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 Question 9:  Incorrect

You run a small network for your business that has a single router connected to the
internet and a single switch. You keep sensitive documents on a computer that you would
like to keep isolated from other computers on the network. Other hosts on the network
should not be able to communicate with this computer through the switch, but you still
need to access the network through the computer.
What should you use for this situation?

Port security

VPN

Spanning Tree Protocol

VLAN

 Question 10:  Correct

You are creating a VLAN for voice over IP (VoIP). Which command should you use?

switchport vlan voice [nnu m b e r ]

switchport vlan voip [nnu m b e r ]

switchport voice vlan [nnu m b e r ]

switchport voip vlan [nnu m b e r ]

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5.13.8 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:08:43 pm • Time Spent: 01:16

Score: 40% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following should be configured on the router to filter traffic at the router
level?

Anti-spoofing rules

SSH

Telnet

Access control list

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 Question 2:  Incorrect

You've just deployed a new Cisco router that connects several network segments in your
organization.
The router is physically located in a cubicle near your office. You've backed up the router
configuration to a remote location in an encrypted file. You access the router
configuration interface from your notebook computer using an SSH client with the
username admin01 and the password P@ssW0rd. You have used the MD5 hashing
algorithm to protect the password.
What should you do to increase the security of this device?

Use a Telnet client to access the router


configuration.

Change the default administrative username


and password.

Move the router to a secure server room.

Use encrypted Type 7 passwords.

 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following happens by default when you create and apply a new ACL on a
router?

ACLs are not created on a router.

All traffic is blocked.

The ACL is ignored until applied.

All traffic is permitted.

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 Question 4:  Incorrect

Which type of ACL should be placed as close to the source as possible?

Basic

Advanced

Standard

Extended

 Question 5:  Incorrect

You are deploying a brand new router. After you change the factory default settings, what
should you do next?

Configure anti-spoofing rules.

Configure SSH to access the router


configuration.

Secure the configuration file.

Update the firmware.

3 of 7 2023-01-28, 5:09 p.m.


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 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which of the following can make passwords useless on a router?

Not controlling physical access to the router

Storing the router configuration file in a secure


location

Using the MD5 hashing algorithm to encrypt


the password

Using SSH to remotely connect to a router

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 Question 7:  Incorrect

You've just deployed a new Cisco router that connects several network segments in your
organization.
The router is physically located in a server room that requires an ID for access. You've
backed up the router configuration to a remote location in an encrypted file. You access
the router configuration interface from your notebook computer using a Telnet client with
a username of admin and a password of P@ssW0rd. You have used the MD5 hashing
algorithm to protect the password.
What should you do to increase the security of this device? (Select two.)

Use TFTP to back up the router configuration to


a remote location.

Use a web browser to access the router


configuration using an HTTP connection.

Change the default administrative username


and password.

Use an SSH client to access the router


configuration.

Use encrypted Type 7 passwords.

5 of 7 2023-01-28, 5:09 p.m.


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 Question 8:  Correct

You've just deployed a new Cisco router that connects several network segments in your
organization.
The router is physically located in a locked server closet. You use an FTP client to regularly
back up the router configuration to a remote server in an encrypted file. You access the
router configuration interface from a notebook computer that is connected to the router's
console port. You've configured the device with the username admin01 and the password
P@ssW0rd. You have used the MD5 hashing algorithm to protect the password.
What should you do to increase the security of this device?

Use an SSH client to access the router


configuration.

Use SCP to back up the router configuration to


a remote location.

Move the router to a secure data center.

Use encrypted Type 7 passwords.

 Question 9:  Incorrect

You have configured your ACL to block outgoing traffic from a device with the IP address
192.168.1.52. Which type of ACL have you configured?

Basic

Standard

Extended

Advanced

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 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following does a router use to determine where packets are forwarded to?

Access control list

Routing table

Anti-spoofing rules

Firewall

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6.1.8 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:12:23 pm • Time Spent: 01:20

Score: 36% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

A remote access user needs to gain access to resources on the server. Which of the
following processes are performed by the remote access server to control access to
resources?

Identity proofing and authentication

Authentication and accounting

Authorization and accounting

Authentication and authorization

Identity proofing and authorization

 Question 2:  Correct

Audit trails produced by auditing activities are which type of security control?

Directive

Detective

Deterrent

Preventative

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following is used for identification?

PIN

Password

Username

Cognitive question

 Question 4:  Incorrect

You assign access permissions so that users can only access the resources required to
accomplish their specific work tasks. Which security principle are you complying with?

Principle of least privilege

Job rotation

Cross-training

Need to know

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

You want to implement an access control list in which only the users you specifically
authorize have access to the resource. Anyone not on the list should be prevented from
having access.
Which of the following methods of access control should the access list use?

Implicit allow, implicit deny

Explicit allow, explicit deny

Explicit allow, implicit deny

Implicit allow, explicit deny

 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which of the following principles is implemented in a mandatory access control model to


determine object access by classification level?

Need to Know

Ownership

Clearance

Principle of least privilege

Separation of duties

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 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which of the following is an example of privilege escalation?

Principle of least privilege

Privilege creep

Mandatory vacations

Separation of duties

 Question 8:  Incorrect

What is the primary purpose of separation of duties?

Grant a greater range of control to senior


management

Increase the difficulty of performing


administrative duties

Prevent conflicts of interest

Inform managers that they are not trusted

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 Question 9:  Incorrect

Which access control model is based on assigning attributes to objects and using Boolean
logic to grant access based on the attributes of the subject?

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Rule-Based Access Control

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

 Question 10:  Incorrect

You have implemented an access control method that only allows users who are
managers to access specific data. Which type of access control model is being used?

MAC

RBAC

DACL

DAC

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 Question 11:  Correct

Which of the following is an example of rule-based access control?

A subject with a government clearance that


allows access to government classification
labels of Confidential, Secret, and Top Secret.

Router access control lists that allow or deny


traffic based on the characteristics of an IP
packet.

A computer file owner who grants access to the


file by adding other users to an access control
list.

A member of the accounting team that is given


access to the accounting department
documents.

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6.2.8 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:14:35 pm • Time Spent: 01:01

Score: 40% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

Which of the following are examples of Something You Have authentication controls?
(Select two.)

Handwriting analysis

PIN

Photo ID

Smart card

Voice recognition

Cognitive question

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following identification and authentication factors are often well known or
easily discovered by others on the same network or system?

Password

Username

Biometric reference profile

PGP secret key

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following is a password that relates to things that people know, such as a
mother's maiden name or a pet's name?

Dynamic

Cognitive

One-time

Passphrase

 Question 4:  Correct

What type of password is maryhadalittlelamb?

Static

Passphrase

Cognitive

Composition

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

Match the authentication factor types on the left with the appropriate authentication
factor on the right. Each authentication factor type may be used more than once.

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PIN

Something You Know

Smart card

Something You Have

Password

Something You Know

Retina scan

Something You Are

Fingerprint scan

Something You Are

Hardware token

Something You Have

Passphrase

Something You Know

Voice recognition

Something You Are

Wi-Fi triangulation

Somewhere You Are

Typing behaviors

Something You Do

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 Question 6:  Incorrect

A smart card can be used to store all but which of the following items?

Identification codes

Cryptography keys

Digital signature

Biometric template original

 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which of the following are disadvantages of biometrics? (Select two.)

They can be circumvented using a brute force


attack.

Biometric factors for identical twins are the


same.

When used alone, they are no more secure


than a strong password.

They have the potential to produce numerous


false negatives.

They require time synchronization.

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 Question 8:  Incorrect

What is the MOST important aspect of a biometric device?

Enrollment time

Size of the reference profile

Accuracy

Throughput

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following defines the crossover error rate for evaluating biometric systems?

The number of subjects or authentication


attempts that can be validated.

The rate of people who are denied access when


they should be allowed access.

The rate of people who are given access when


they should be denied access.

The point where the number of false positives


matches the number of false negatives in a
biometric system.

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 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which of the following terms is used to describe an event in which a person who should
be allowed access is denied access to a system?

Error rate

False negative

False acceptance

False positive

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6.3.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:16:38 pm • Time Spent: 00:52

Score: 20% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which security mechanism uses a unique list that meets the following specifications:
• The list is embedded directly in the object itself.
• The list defines which subjects have access to certain objects.
• The list specifies the level or type of access allowed to certain objects.

Hashing

Conditional access

Mandatory access control

User ACL

 Question 2:  Incorrect

What is the process of controlling access to resources such as computers, files, or printers
called?

Authentication

Mandatory access control

Authorization

Conditional access

1 of 6 2023-01-28, 5:18 p.m.


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 Question 3:  Incorrect

Which of the following objects identifies a set of users with similar access needs?

DACL

Group

SACL

Permissions

 Question 4:  Incorrect

Which of the following identifies the type of access that is allowed or denied for an object?

DACL

User rights

SACL

Permissions

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

Which of the following is used by Microsoft for auditing in order to identify past actions
performed by users on an object?

Permissions

DACL

User rights

SACL

 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which type of group can be used for controlling access to objects?

Distribution

Authorization

Security

DACL

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 Question 7:  Incorrect

Marcus White has just been promoted to a manager. To give him access to the files that he
needs, you make his user account a member of the Managers group, which has access to
a special shared folder.
Later that afternoon, Marcus tells you that he is still unable to access the files reserved for
the Managers group. What should you do?

Have Marcus log off and log back in.

Add his user account to the ACL for the shared


folder.

Manually refresh Group Policy settings on the


file server.

Manually refresh Group Policy settings on his


computer.

 Question 8:  Incorrect

Which of the following terms describes the component that is generated following
authentication and is used to gain access to resources following login?

Access token

Account policy

Proxy

Cookie

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 Question 9:  Correct

Lori Redford, who has been a member of the Project Management group, was recently
promoted to manager of the team. She has been added as a member of the Managers
group.
Several days after being promoted, Lori needs to have performance reviews with the team
she manages. However, she cannot access the performance management system. As a
member of the Managers group, she should have the Allow permission to access this
system.
What is MOST likely preventing her from accessing this system?

Her user object has been assigned an explicit


Allow permission to the performance
management system, but she inherited the
Deny permission assigned to the Project
Management group (which she still belongs to).
Inherited Deny permissions override explicit
Allow permissions.

She is still a member of the Project


Management group, which has been denied
permission to this system. Deny permissions
always override Allow permissions.

She is still a member of the Project


Management group, which has been denied
permission to this system. However, being a
member of the Managers group should allow
her to access this system. Allow permissions
always override Deny permissions. There must
be an explicit permission entry that is
preventing her from accessing the
management system.

Her user object has been assigned an explicit


Deny permission to the performance
management system.

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 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which of the following is a privilege or action that can be taken on a system?

User rights

SACL

DACL

Permissions

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6.4.9 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:20:04 pm • Time Spent: 01:21

Score: 20% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following account types is a cloud-based identity and access management
service that provides access to both internal and external resources?

Administrator

Microsoft

Domain

Azure AD

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 Question 2:  Incorrect

You are consulting a small startup company that needs to know which kind of Windows
computer network model they should implement.
The company intends to start small with only 12 employees, but they plan to double or
triple in size within 12 months. The company founders want to make sure they are
prepared for growth.
Which networking model should they implement?

Workgroup

Client-server

Wired

Wireless

Public

Standalone

 Question 3:  Incorrect

Which of the following account types uses a single sign-on system that lets you access
Windows, Office 365, Xbox Live, and more?

Microsoft

Administrator

Azure AD

Domain

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 Question 4:  Incorrect

Mary, a user, is attempting to access her OneDrive from within Windows and is unable to.
Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause?

Mary has a local administrator account.

Mary needs to connect to Azure AD.

Mary has a local standard user account.

Mary needs to log in with a Microsoft account.

 Question 5:  Incorrect

Which networking model is based on peer-to-peer networking?

Standalone

Workgroup

None

Client-server

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 Question 6:  Partially Correct

You are a contract support specialist managing the computers in a small office. You see
that all the computers are only using local user accounts.
Which of the following models could this office be using? (Select two.)

Domain

Standalone

Azure AD

Workgroup

Client-server

Active Directory

 Question 7:  Incorrect

John, a user, is attempting to install an application but receives an error that he has
insufficient privileges. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

The application is not a valid Windows


application.

John has a local administrator account.

John needs to log in with a Microsoft account.

John has a local standard user account.

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 Question 8:  Incorrect

Which of the following are networking models that can be used with the Windows
operating system? (Select two.)

Active Directory

Organizational unit

Domain controller

Client-server

Workgroup

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 Question 9:  Incorrect

You are configuring a small workgroup. You open System Properties on each computer
that will be part of the workgroup.
Click the System Properties options you can use to configure each computer's workgroup
association. (Select two. Each option is part of a complete solution.)

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 Question 10:  Partially Correct

You manage a group of 20 Windows workstations that are currently configured as a


workgroup. You have been thinking about switching to an Active Directory configuration.
Which advantages would there be to switching to Active Directory? (Select two.)

Reduced need for specialized hardware

Decreased implementation cost

Centralized authentication

Increased local control of workstation settings

Centralized configuration control

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6.5.15 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:25:36 pm • Time Spent: 00:36

Score: 30% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

What is the name of the service included with the Windows Server operating system that
manages a centralized database containing user account and security information?

Active Directory

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 Question 2:  Incorrect

Match each Active Directory term on the left with its corresponding definition on the right.
Logical organization of resources

Organizational unit

Collection of network resources

Domain

Collection of related domain trees

Forest

Network resource in the directory

Object

Group of related domains

Tree

 Question 3:  Correct

What should you do to a user account if the user goes on an extended vacation?

Disable the account

Monitor the account more closely

Remove all rights from the account

Delete the account

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 Question 4:  Incorrect

You are creating a new Active Directory domain user account for the Rachel McGaffey user
account. During the account setup process, you assigned a password to the new account.
However, you know that the system administrator should not know any user's password
for security reasons. Only the user should know his or her own password.
Click the option you would use in the New Object - User dialog to remedy this situation.

 Question 5:  Incorrect

Click on the object in the TESTOUTDEMO.com Active Directory domain that is used to
manage individual desktop workstation access.

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 Question 6:  Correct

There are registry-based settings that can be configured within a GPO to control the
computer and the overall user experience, such as:
• Use Windows features such as BitLocker, Offline Files, and Parental Controls
• Customize the Start menu, taskbar, or desktop environment
• Control notifications
• Restrict access to Control Panel features
• Configure Internet Explorer features and options
What are these settings known as?

Administrative templates

Account policies

Software restriction policies

Local policies/security options

 Question 7:  Incorrect

You want to ensure that all users in the Development OU have a common set of network
communication security settings applied.
Which action should you take?

Create a GPO user policy for the Development


OU.

Create a GPO computer policy for the


Computers container.

Create a GPO folder policy for the folders


containing the files.

Create a GPO computer policy for the


computers in the Development OU.

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 Question 8:  Incorrect

The Hide Programs and Features page setting is configured for a specific user as follows:

Policy Setting

Local Group Policy Enabled

Default Domain Policy GPO Not configured

GPO linked to the user's organizational unit Disabled

After logging in, the user is able to see the Programs and Features page. Why does this
happen?

The Local Group Policy is applied last. It is set


to Enabled, which makes the Programs and
Features page visible.

The GPO linked to the user's organizational


unit is applied first, so this setting takes
precedence over settings that are applied later.

The GPO linked to the user's organizational


unit is applied last, so this setting takes
precedence.

The Default Domain GPO is applied last. It is set


to Not configured, so it doesn't change the
configuration.

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 Question 9:  Correct

Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are applied in which of the following orders?

GPO linked to site, GPO linked to domain, GPO


linked to organizational unit (lowest to highest),
Local Group Policy.

Local Group Policy, GPO linked to site, GPO


linked to domain, GPO linked to organizational
unit (highest to lowest).

Local Group Policy, GPO linked to site, GPO


linked to domain, GPO linked to organizational
unit (lowest to highest).

GPO linked to site, GPO linked to domain, GPO


linked to organizational unit (highest to lowest),
Local Group Policy.

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 Question 10:  Incorrect

You manage an Active Directory domain. All users in the domain have a standard set of
internet options configured by a GPO linked to the domain, but you want users in the
Administrators OU to have a different set of internet options.
What should you do?

Create a GPO user policy for the domain.

Create a GPO computer policy for the


Administrators OU.

Create a Local Group Policy on the computers


used by members of the Administrators OU.

Create a GPO user policy for the Administrators


OU.

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6.6.13 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:27:55 pm • Time Spent: 00:39

Score: 0% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

You want to make sure that all users have passwords over eight characters in length and
that passwords must be changed every 30 days.
What should you do?

Configure day/time settings in user accounts

Configure expiration settings in user accounts

Configure account lockout policies in Group


Policy

Configure account policies in Group Policy

 Question 2:  Incorrect

You are teaching new users about security and passwords.


Which of the following is the BEST example of a secure password?

JoHnSmITh

8181952

T1a73gZ9!

Stiles_2031

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 Question 3:  Incorrect

You are configuring the Local Security Policy of a Windows system. You want to prevent
users from reusing old passwords. You also want to force them to use a new password for
at least five days before changing it again.
Which policies should you configure? (Select two.)

Minimum password age

Maximum password age

Enforce password history

Password must meet complexity requirements

 Question 4:  Incorrect

For users on your network, you want to automatically lock user accounts if four incorrect
passwords are used within ten minutes.
What should you do?

Configure password policies in Group Policy

Configure the enable/disable feature in user


accounts

Configure day/time restrictions in user


accounts

Configure account lockout policies in Group


Policy

Configure account expiration in user accounts

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

You have just configured the password policy and set the minimum password age to 10.
What is the effect of this configuration?

The password must be entered within 10


minutes of the login prompt being displayed.

Users cannot change the password for 10 days.

Users must change the password at least every


10 days.

The previous 10 passwords cannot be reused.

The password must contain 10 or more


characters.

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 Question 6:  Incorrect

Upon running a security audit in your organization, you discover that several sales
employees are using the same domain user account to log in and update the company's
customer database.
Which action should you take? (Select two. Each response is part of a complete solution.)

Implement a Group Policy Object (GPO) that


restricts simultaneous logins to one.

Apply the Group Policy Object (GPO) to the


container where the sales user accounts reside.

Train sales employees to use their own user


accounts to update the customer database.

Delete the account that the sales employees


are currently using.

Implement a Group Policy Object (GPO) that


implements time-of-day login restrictions.

 Question 7:  Incorrect

You have hired ten new temporary employees to be with the company for three months.
How can you make sure that these users can only log on during regular business hours?

Configure account expiration in user accounts

Configure day/time restrictions in user


accounts

Configure account policies in Group Policy

Configure account lockout in Group Policy

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 Question 8:  Incorrect

Match each smart card attack on the left with the appropriate description on the right.
Software attacks
Exploits
vulnerabilitie
in a card's
protocols or
encryption
methods

Eavesdropping
Captures
transmission
data
produced by
a card as it is
used

Fault generation
Deliberately
induces
malfunctions
in a card

Microprobing
Accesses
the chip's
surface
directly to
observe,
manipulate,
and
interfere
with a
circuit

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 Question 9:  Incorrect

You manage a single domain named widgets.com.


Organizational units (OUs) have been created for each company department. User and
computer accounts have been moved into their corresponding OUs.
You define a password and account lockout policy for the domain. However, members of
the Directors OU want to enforce longer passwords than are required for the rest of the
users.
You need to make the change as easily as possible. Which of the following actions should
you take?

Go to Active Directory Users and Computers.


Select all user accounts in the Directors OU,
and then edit the user account properties to
require the longer password.

Create a new domain. Move the contents of the


Directors OU to the new domain and then
configure the necessary password policy on the
domain.

Create a GPO linked to the Directors OU.


Configure the password policy in the new GPO.

Implement a granular password policy for the


users in the Directors OU.

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 Question 10:  Incorrect

You manage a single domain named widgets.com.


Organizational units (OUs) have been created for each company department. User and
computer accounts have been moved into their corresponding OUs. Members of the
Directors OU want to enforce longer passwords than are required for the rest of the users.
You define a new granular password policy with the required settings. All users in the
Directors OU are currently members of the DirectorsGG group, which is a global security
group in that OU. You apply the new password policy to that group. Matt Barnes is the
chief financial officer, and he would like his account to have even more strict password
policies than are required for other members in the Directors OU.
What should you do?

Create a granular password policy for Matt.


Create a new group, make Matt a member of
the group, and then apply the new policy
directly to the new group. Make sure the new
policy has a higher precedence value than the
value for the existing policy.

Create a granular password policy for Matt.


Apply the new policy directly to Matt's user
account. Remove Matt from the DirectorsGG
group.

Create a granular password policy for Matt.


Apply the new policy directly to Matt's user
account.

Edit the existing password policy. Define


exceptions for the required settings. Apply the
exceptions to Matt's user account.

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6.7.13 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:29:37 pm • Time Spent: 00:29

Score: 20% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

You have performed an audit and found an active account for an employee with the
username joer. This user no longer works for the company.
Which command can you use to disable this account?

usermod -d joer

usermod -L joer

usermod -l joer

usermod -u joer

 Question 2:  Incorrect

One of your users, Karen Scott, has recently married and is now Karen Jones. She has
requested that her username be changed from kscott to kjones with no other values
changed. Which of the following commands would accomplish this?

usermod -l kscott kjones

usermod -u kjones kscott

usermod -l kjones kscott

usermod -u kscott kjones

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 Question 3:  Incorrect

An employee named Bob Smith, whose username is bsmith, has left the company. You
have been instructed to delete his user account and home directory.
Which of the following commands would produce the required outcome? (Select two.)

userdel -x bsmith

userdel -r bsmith

userdel -h bsmith

userdel bsmith;rm -rf /home/bsmith

userdel bsmith

 Question 4:  Incorrect

In the /etc/shadow file, which character in the password field indicates that a standard
user account is locked?

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following utilities could you use to lock a user account? (Select two.)

ulimit

userdel

useradd

usermod

passwd

 Question 6:  Incorrect

You suspect that the gshant user account is locked.


Enter the command you would use in a shell to show the status of the user account.

passwd -S gshant

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 Question 7:  Incorrect

What is the effect of the following command?


chage -M 60 -W 10 jsmith

Forces jsmith to keep the password for 60 days


before changing it while also giving a warning
10 days before expiration.

Deletes the jsmith user account after 60 days


and gives a warning 10 days before expiration.

Sets the password for jsmith to expire after 60


days and gives a warning 10 days before
expiration.

Sets the password for jsmith to expire after 60


days and sets a minimum of 10 days before a
user can change the password again.

Sets the password for jsmith to expire after 10


days and gives a warning 60 days before
expiration.

 Question 8:  Incorrect

Which chage option keeps a user from changing their password every two weeks?

-a 33

-M 33

-W 33

-m 33

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 Question 9:  Incorrect

Which account type in Linux can modify hard limits using the ulimit command?

Administrator

User

Root

Standard

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following commands would you use to view the current soft limits on a Linux
machine?

ulimit -a

ulimit -c

ulimit -u

ulimit -n

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5 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:30 p.m.


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6.8.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:31:13 pm • Time Spent: 00:24

Score: 40% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You are the administrator for a small company, and you need to add a new group of users
to the system. The group's name is sales. Which command accomplishes this task?

groupadd sales

addgroup -x sales

groupadd -r sales

addgroup sales

 Question 2:  Incorrect

You have a group named temp_sales on your system. The group is no longer needed, so
you should remove it. Which of the following commands should you use?

newgroup -R temp_sales

groupmod -R temp_sales

groupdel temp_sales

groupmod -n temp_sales

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:32 p.m.


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 Question 3:  Incorrect

Which of the following commands creates a new group and defines the group password?

groupadd -p

groupadd -c

groupadd -r

groupadd -g

 Question 4:  Incorrect

You want to see which primary and secondary groups the dredford user belongs to. Enter
the command you would use to display group memberships for dredford.

groups dredford

 Question 5:  Correct

Using the groupadd -p command overrides the settings found in which file?

/etc/logins.txt

/etc/login.defs

/root/logins.defs

/usr/logins.txt

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 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which of the following commands is used to change the current group ID during a login
session?

usermod

newgrp

groupmod

groups

 Question 7:  Correct

You have a group named Research on your system that needs a new password because a
member of the group has left the company. Which of the following commands should you
use?

newpasswd Research

gpasswd Research

groupmod -p Research

gpasswd research

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 Question 8:  Correct

You are attempting to delete the temp group but are unable to.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

All users have already been deleted.

Groups cannot be deleted.

The secondary group of an existing user cannot


be deleted.

The primary group of an existing user cannot


be deleted.

 Question 9:  Incorrect

Which of the following commands removes a user from all secondary group
memberships?

usermod -aG

usermod -g

usermod -G ""

usermod -G

4 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:32 p.m.


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 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which of the following commands assigns a user to a primary group?

groupadd - r

groupadd -g

usermod -g

usermod -G

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6.9.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:32:55 pm • Time Spent: 00:32

Score: 40% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

Which of the following are methods for providing centralized authentication,


authorization, and accounting for remote access? (Select two.)

AAA

PKI

EAP

TACACS+

RADIUS

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following is a feature of MS-CHAP v2 that is not included in CHAP?

Three-way handshake

Certificate-based authentication

Mutual authentication

Hashed shared secret

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:33 p.m.


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 Question 3:  Incorrect

What does a remote access server use for authorization?

CHAP or MS-CHAP

SLIP or PPP

Usernames and passwords

Remote access policies

 Question 4:  Incorrect

Which of the following authentication protocols transmits passwords in cleartext and,


therefore, is considered too unsecure for modern networks?

CHAP

EAP

PAP

RADIUS

2 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:33 p.m.


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 Question 5:  Correct

You often travel away from the office. While traveling, you would like to use your laptop
computer to connect directly to a server in your office and access files.
You want the connection to be as secure as possible. Which type of connection do you
need?

Remote access

Internet

Virtual private network

Intranet

 Question 6:  Incorrect

RADIUS is primarily used for what purpose?

Controlling entry-gate access using proximity


sensors

Managing access to a network over a VPN

Authenticating remote clients before access to


the network is granted

Managing RAID fault-tolerant drive


configurations

3 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:33 p.m.


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 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which of the following are characteristics of TACACS+? (Select two.)

Allows three different servers (one each for


authentication, authorization, and accounting)

Allows two different servers (one for


authentication and authorization and another
for accounting)

Can be vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks

Uses UDP

Uses TCP

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following is a characteristic of TACACS+?

Supports only TCP/IP

Uses UDP ports 1812 and 1813

Encrypts the entire packet, not just


authentication packets

Requires that authentication and authorization


are combined in a single server

4 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:33 p.m.


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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following are differences between RADIUS and TACACS+?

RADIUS uses TCP; TACACS+ uses UDP.

RADIUS encrypts the entire packet contents;


TACACS+ only encrypts the password.

RADIUS supports more protocols than


TACACS+.

RADIUS combines authentication and


authorization into a single function; TACACS+
allows these services to be split between
different servers.

 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which of the following ports are used with TACACS?

22

49

50 and 51

1812 and 1813

3389

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6.10.9 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:35:01 pm • Time Spent: 00:45

Score: 0% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

When using Kerberos authentication, which of the following terms is used to describe the
token that verifies the user's identity to the target system?

Coupon

Hashkey

Ticket

Voucher

 Question 2:  Incorrect

You want to use Kerberos to protect LDAP authentication. Which authentication mode
should you choose?

Simple

EAP

Mutual

SASL

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 Question 3:  Incorrect

A user has just authenticated using Kerberos. Which object is issued to the user
immediately following login?

Client-to-server ticket

Digital certificate

Ticket-granting ticket

Digital signature

 Question 4:  Incorrect

You want to deploy SSL to protect authentication traffic with your LDAP-based directory
service. Which port does this action use?

60

80

389

443

636

2208

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

Your LDAP directory-services solution uses simple authentication. What should you always
do when using simple authentication?

Use IPsec and certificates

Use Kerberos

Add SASL and use TLS

Use SSL

 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which ports does LDAP use by default? (Select two.)

636

69

161

389

110

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 Question 7:  Incorrect

What is mutual authentication?

Deploying CHAP and EAP on remote access


connections.

Using a certificate authority (CA) to issue


certificates.

The use of two or more authentication factors.

A process by which each party in an online


communication verifies the identity of the
other party.

 Question 8:  Incorrect

A manager has told you she is concerned about her employees writing their passwords for
websites, network files, and database resources on sticky notes. Your office runs
exclusively in a Windows environment.
Which tool could you use to prevent this behavior?

Credential Manager

Local Users and Groups

Computer Management

Key Management Service

4 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:35 p.m.


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 Question 9:  Incorrect

KWalletManager is a Linux-based credential management system that stores encrypted


account credentials for network resources.
Which encryption methods can KWalletManager use to secure account credentials? (Select
two.)

Twofish

GPG

Blowfish

HMAC-SHA1

Kerberos

 Question 10:  Incorrect

You want to protect the authentication credentials you use to connect to the LAB server in
your network by copying them to a USB drive.
Click the option you use in Credential Manager to protect your credentials.

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7.1.14 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:37:38 pm • Time Spent: 00:51

Score: 10% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

When a cryptographic system is used to protect data confidentiality, what actually takes
place?

Data is available for access whenever


authorized users need it.

Data is protected from corruption or change.

Encrypted data transmission is prohibited.

Unauthorized users are prevented from


viewing or accessing the resource.

 Question 2:  Incorrect

Which term means a cryptography mechanism that hides secret communications within
various forms of data?

Ciphertext

Cryptanalysis

Algorithm

Steganography

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:38 p.m.


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 Question 3:  Incorrect

Which of the following algorithms are used in asymmetric encryption? (Select two.)

RSA

Diffie-Hellman

AES

Blowfish

Twofish

 Question 4:  Incorrect

A receiver wants to verify the integrity of a message received from a sender. A hashing
value is contained within the digital signature of the sender.
Which of the following must the receiver use to access the hashing value and verify the
integrity of the transmission?

Receiver's private key

Receiver's public key

Sender's public key

Sender's private key

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

Mary wants to send a message to Sam in such a way that only Sam can read it. Which key
should be used to encrypt the message?

Mary's private key

Sam's public key

Sam's private key

Mary's public key

 Question 6:  Correct

Above all else, what must be protected to maintain the security and benefit of an
asymmetric cryptographic solution, especially if it is widely used for digital certificates?

Public keys

Cryptographic algorithm

Private keys

Hash values

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 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which of the following algorithms are used in symmetric encryption? (Select two.)

RSA

Diffie-Hellman

Blowfish

ECC

3DES

 Question 8:  Incorrect

Which of the following encryption mechanisms offers the least security because of weak
keys?

TwoFish

IDEA

DES

AES

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 Question 9:  Incorrect

Which of the following can be classified as a stream cipher?

RC4

Blowfish

Twofish

AES

 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which type of password attack employs a list of pre-defined passwords that it tries against
a login prompt?

Dictionary attack

Birthday attack

Collision attack

Downgrade attack

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7.2.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:39:28 pm • Time Spent: 00:32

Score: 50% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

Cryptographic systems provide which of the following security services? (Select two.)

Decryption

Confidentiality

Encryption

Non-repudiation

Cryptanalysis

 Question 2:  Correct

You have downloaded a file from the internet. You generate a hash and check it against
the original file's hash to ensure the file has not been changed. Which information security
goal is this an example of?

Non-repudiation

Confidentiality

Authenticity

Integrity

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:40 p.m.


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 Question 3:  Incorrect

Which of the following are true of Triple DES (3DES)?

Can easily be broken

Uses the Rijndael block cipher

Key length is 168 bits

Uses 64-bit blocks with 128-bit keys

 Question 4:  Correct

When a sender encrypts a message using their own private key, which security service is
being provided to the recipient?

Integrity

Confidentiality

Non-repudiation

Availability

2 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:40 p.m.


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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following is a direct integrity protection?

Asymmetric encryption

Symmetric encryption

Digital signature

Digital envelope

 Question 6:  Incorrect

What is the most obvious means of providing non-repudiation in a cryptography system?

Digital signatures

Hashing values

Shared secret keys

Public keys

 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which form of cryptography is best suited for bulk encryption because it is so fast?

Asymmetric cryptography

Hashing cryptography

Symmetric key cryptography

Public key cryptography

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 Question 8:  Incorrect

Your computer system is a participant in an asymmetric cryptography system. You've


crafted a message to be sent to another user. Before transmission, you hash the message
and then encrypt the hash using your private key. You then attach this encrypted hash to
your message as a digital signature before sending it to the other user.
Which protection does the private key-signing activity of this process provide?

Confidentiality

Non-repudiation

Availability

Integrity

 Question 9:  Correct

What is the main function of a TPM hardware chip?

Provide authentication credentials on a


hardware device

Perform bulk encryption in a hardware


processor

Generate and store cryptographic keys

Control access to removable media

4 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:40 p.m.


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 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following functions are performed by a TPM?

Perform bulk encryption

Encrypt network data using IPsec

Provide authentication credentials

Create a hash of system components

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7.3.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:41:11 pm • Time Spent: 00:35

Score: 40% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

A birthday attack focuses on which of the following?

E-commerce

Encrypted files

Hashing algorithms

VPN links

 Question 2:  Incorrect

An attacker is attempting to crack a system's password by matching the password hash to


a hash in a large table of hashes he or she has.
Which type of attack is the attacker using?

Rainbow

Cracking

RIPEMD

Brute force

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 Question 3:  Correct

When two different messages produce the same hash value, what has occurred?

High amplification

Collision

Hash value

Birthday attack

 Question 4:  Incorrect

Hashing algorithms are used to perform which of the following activities?

Create a message digest.

Provide for non-repudiation.

Encrypt bulk data for communications


exchange.

Provide a means for exchanging small amounts


of data securely over a public network.

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

Which of the following is used to verify that a downloaded file has not been altered?

Symmetric encryption

Hash

Private key

Asymmetric encryption

 Question 6:  Correct

You have just downloaded a file. You create a hash of the file and compare it to the hash
posted on the website. The two hashes match.
What do you know about the file?

Your copy is the same as the copy posted on


the website.

No one has read the file contents as it was


downloaded.

You can prove the source of the file.

You are the only one able to open the


downloaded file.

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 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which of the following does not or cannot produce a hash value of 128 bits?

MD2

SHA-1

RIPEMD

MD5

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following is a message authentication code that allows a user to verify that a
file or message is legitimate?

SHA

RIPEMD

HMAC

MD5

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 Question 9:  Incorrect

What is the process of adding random characters at the beginning or end of a password to
generate a completely different hash called?

Collision

Salting

Avalanche

Deterministic

 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which of the following is the weakest hashing algorithm?

DES

MD5

SHA-1

AES

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7.4.10 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:43:00 pm • Time Spent: 00:35

Score: 30% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You create a new document and save it to a hard drive on a file server on your company's
network. Then you employ an encryption tool to encrypt the file using AES. This activity is
an example of accomplishing which security goal?

Non-repudiation

Availability

Integrity

Confidentiality

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following should you set up to ensure encrypted files can still be decrypted if
the original user account becomes corrupted?

PGP

VPN

GPG

DRA

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 Question 3:  Correct

You want a security solution that protects the entire hard drive and prevents access even
if the drive is moved to another system. Which solution should you choose?

BitLocker

EFS

IPsec

VPN

 Question 4:  Incorrect

Which of the following security solutions would prevent a user from reading a file that she
did not create?

VPN

EFS

IPsec

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 Question 5:  Incorrect

You've used BitLocker to implement full volume encryption on a notebook system. The
notebook motherboard does not have a TPM chip, so you've used an external USB flash
drive to store the BitLocker startup key.
You use EFS to encrypt the C:\Secrets folder and its contents.
Which of the following is true in this scenario? (Select two.)

By default, only the user who encrypted the


C:\Secrets\confidential.docx file will be able to
open it.

The EFS encryption process will fail.

Any user who is able to boot the computer


from the encrypted hard disk will be able to
open the C:\Secrets\confidential.docx file.

If the C:\Secrets\confidential.docx file is copied


to an external USB flash drive, the file will be
saved in an unencrypted state.

Only the user who encrypted the C:\Secrets


\confidential.docx file is able to boot the
computer from the encrypted hard disk.

If the C:\Secrets\confidential.docx file is copied


to an external USB flash drive, the file will
remain in an encrypted state.

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 Question 6:  Incorrect

Which utility would you MOST likely use on OS X to encrypt and decrypt data and
messages?

VPN

GPG

IPsec

PGP

 Question 7:  Incorrect

You would like to implement BitLocker to encrypt data on a hard disk, even if it is moved
to another system. You want the system to boot automatically without providing a startup
key on an external USB device.
What should you do?

Save the startup key to the boot partition.

Enable the TPM in the BIOS.

Use a PIN instead of a startup key.

Disable USB devices in the BIOS.

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 Question 8:  Incorrect

You want to protect data on hard drives for users with laptops. You want the drive to be
encrypted, and you want to prevent the laptops from booting unless a special USB drive is
inserted. In addition, the system should not boot if a change is detected in any of the boot
files.
What should you do?

Implement BitLocker with a TPM.

Have each user encrypt user files with EFS.

Implement BitLocker without a TPM.

Have each user encrypt the entire volume with


EFS.

 Question 9:  Incorrect

Which of the following database encryption methods encrypts the entire database and all
backups?

Bitlocker

Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)

Column-level

Application-level

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 Question 10:  Incorrect

You have transferred an encrypted file across a network using the Server Message Block
(SMB) Protocol. What happens to the file's encryption?

An encrypted file cannot be moved using SMB.

The encryption inherits from the new location.

The encryption carries over to the new location.

The file is unencrypted when moved.

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7.5.11 Section Quiz


Candidate: Olanrewaju Usikalu (Olanrewaju)
Date: 1/28/2023 5:46:15 pm • Time Spent: 01:35

Score: 20% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Incorrect

An SSL client has determined that the certificate authority (CA) issuing a server's certificate
is on its list of trusted CAs. What is the next step in verifying the server's identity?

The post-master secret must initiate


subsequent communication.

The CA's public key must validate the CA's


digital signature on the server certificate.

The master secret is generated from common


key code.

The domain on the server certificate must


match the CA's domain name.

 Question 2:  Incorrect

Which of the following would require that a certificate be placed on the CRL?

The encryption key algorithm is revealed.

The certificate validity period is exceeded.

The signature key size is revealed.

The private key is compromised.

1 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:47 p.m.


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 Question 3:  Correct

Which technology was developed to help improve the efficiency and reliability of checking
the validity status of certificates in large, complex environments?

Online Certificate Status Protocol

Certificate Revocation List

Private key recovery

Key escrow

 Question 4:  Incorrect

A PKI is an implementation for managing which type of encryption?

Symmetric

Hashing

Asymmetric

Steganography

2 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:47 p.m.


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 Question 5:  Incorrect

To obtain a digital certificate and participate in a public key infrastructure (PKI), what must
be submitted and where?

Identifying data and a secret key request to the


subordinate distribution authority (DA)

Identifying data and a certification request to


the registration authority (RA)

Identifying data with the 3DES block cipher to


the hosting certificate authority (CA)

Identifying data with the MAC and IP addresses


to the root certificate authority (CA)

 Question 6:  Correct

In the certificate authority trust model known as a hierarchy, where does trust start?

Issuing CA

Third-party CA

Registration authority

Root CA

3 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:47 p.m.


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 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which standard is most widely used for certificates?

X.509

SSL v.3.0

HTTP 1.1

802.1x

 Question 8:  Incorrect

A private key has been stolen. Which action should you take to deal with this crisis?

Place the private key in escrow

Delete the public key

Recover the private key from escrow

Add the digital certificate to the CRL

4 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:47 p.m.


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 Question 9:  Incorrect

You are concerned that if a private key is lost, all documents encrypted with your private
key will be inaccessible. Which service should you use to solve this problem?

Key escrow

CSP

RA

OCSP

 Question 10:  Incorrect

Which of the following items are contained in a digital certificate? (Select two.)

Root CA secret key

Private key

Validity period

Public key

Copyright © 2023 TestOut Corporation All rights reserved.

5 of 5 2023-01-28, 5:47 p.m.


1/27/23, 11:25 AM TestOut LabSim

8.1.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 11:24:35 am • Time Spent: 05:02

Score: 90% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following is used on a wireless network to identify the network name?

Subnet mask

SSID

IP address

MAC address

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following is generated after a site survey and shows the Wi-Fi signal strength
throughout the building?

Analyzer

Ad hoc

Heat map

Diagram

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1/27/23, 11:25 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Incorrect

You need to implement a wireless network link between two buildings on a college campus.
A wired network has already been implemented within each building. The buildings are 100
meters apart.
Which type of wireless antenna should you use on each side of the link? (Select two.)

High-gain

Normal-gain

Parabolic

Directional

Omni-directional

 Question 4:  Correct

The IT manager has tasked you with installing the new wireless LAN controller (WLC).
Where should you install the controller?

Network closet

Roof

Manager's Office

Lobby

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1/27/23, 11:25 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Which type of wireless access point is generally used in a residential setting?

LWAP

Bridge

WLC

SOHO

 Question 6:  Correct

You need to implement a solution to manage multiple access points in your organization.
Which of the following would you most likely use?

WLC

Bridge

SOHO

LWAP

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following devices would you use to perform a site survey?

Wireless interface

Wireless access point

Wi-Fi analyzer

Heat map

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1/27/23, 11:25 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following types of site surveys should be performed first?

Passive

Predictive

Ad hoc

Active

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is responsible for broadcasting information and data over radio
waves?

Wireless bridge

Wireless interface

Wireless LAN controller

Wireless access point

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1/27/23, 11:25 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

Which class of wireless access point (WAP) has everything necessary to manage clients and
broadcast a network already built into its functionality?

Ad hoc

Fat

Thin

Bridge

Copyright © 2023 TestOut Corporation All rights reserved.

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1/27/23, 11:38 AM TestOut LabSim

8.2.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 11:38:10 am • Time Spent: 10:16

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following sends unsolicited business cards and messages to a Bluetooth
device?

Bluebugging

Slamming

Bluesnarfing

Bluejacking

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following best describes Bluesnarfing?

Viewing calendar, emails, and messages on a


mobile device without authorization

Cloning a mobile device

Executing commands on a mobile device

Sending anonymous electronic business cards

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1/27/23, 11:38 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

Which type of interference is caused by motors, heavy machinery, and fluorescent lights?

RFI

RFID

NFC

EMI

 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following best describes an evil twin?

An access point that is added to a network by


an internal employee to provide unauthorized
network access.

An access point that is configured to mimic a


valid access point to obtain logon credentials
and other sensitive information.

A threat agent that marks the outside of


buildings to indicate the presence of a wireless
network.

A Bluetooth device that receives mobile phone


commands via bluebugging.

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1/27/23, 11:38 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Which type of attack is WEP extremely vulnerable to?

Cloning

Evil twin

Bluesnarfing

IV attack

 Question 6:  Correct

You are the security analyst for your organization. Clients are complaining about being
unable to connect to the wireless network. After looking into the issue, you have noticed
short bursts of high-intensity RF signals are interfering with your wireless network's signal.
Which type of attack are you most likely experiencing?

Disassociation

Bluesnarfing

Cloning

Jamming

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1/27/23, 11:38 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

An attacker has intercepted near-field communication (NFC) data and is using that
information to masquerade as the original device.
Which type of attack is being executed?

Disassociation

Relay

Bluesnarfing

Cloning

 Question 8:  Correct

Which type of RFID tag can send a signal over a long distance?

NFC

Active

Passive

Bluetooth

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1/27/23, 11:38 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

Your company security policy states that wireless networks are not to be used because of
the potential security risk they present to your network.
One day, you find that an employee has connected a wireless access point to the network in
his office.
Which type of security risk is this?

Physical security

Rogue access point

Social engineering

Phishing

Man-in-the-middle attack

 Question 10:  Correct

You are concerned that wireless access points may have been deployed within your
organization without authorization.
What should you do? (Select two. Each response is a complete solution.)

Implement a network access control (NAC)


solution.

Check the MAC addresses of devices connected


to your wired switch.

Implement an intrusion prevention system


(IPS).

Conduct a site survey.

Implement an intrusion detection system (IDS).

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1/27/23, 11:48 AM TestOut LabSim

8.3.10 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 11:46:39 am • Time Spent: 07:35

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You want to connect a laptop computer running Windows to a wireless network.


The wireless network uses multiple access points and WPA2-Personal. You want to use the
strongest authentication and encryption possible. SSID broadcast has been disabled.
What should you do?

Configure the connection with a pre-shared key


and TKIP encryption.

Configure the connection to use 802.1x


authentication and TKIP encryption.

Configure the connection with a pre-shared key


and AES encryption.

Configure the connection to use 802.1x


authentication and AES encryption.

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1/27/23, 11:48 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

You need to add security for your wireless network, and you would like to use the most
secure method.
Which method should you implement?

WPA

Kerberos

WPA2

WEP

 Question 3:  Correct

You have physically added a wireless access point to your network and installed a wireless
networking card in two laptops that run Windows. Neither laptop can find the network. You
have come to the conclusion that you must manually configure the access point (AP).
Which of the following values uniquely identifies the network AP?

Channel

SSID

WEP

PS

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1/27/23, 11:48 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 4:  Correct

The owner of a hotel has contracted with you to implement a wireless network to provide
internet access for guests.
The owner has asked that you implement security controls so that only paying guests are
allowed to use the wireless network. She wants guests to be presented with a login page
when they initially connect to the wireless network. After entering a code provided by the
concierge at check-in, guests should then be allowed full access to the internet. If a user
does not provide the correct code, he or she should not be allowed to access the internet.
What should you do?

Implement 802.1x authentication using a


RADIUS server

Implement a captive portal

Implement pre-shared key authentication

Implement MAC address filtering

 Question 5:  Correct

Which EAP implementation is MOST secure?

EAP-MD5

EAP-FAST

LEAP

EAP-TLS

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1/27/23, 11:48 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following do switches and wireless access points use to control access through
a device?

Port number filtering

MAC address filtering

Session filtering

IP address filtering

 Question 7:  Correct

You want to implement 802.1x authentication on your wireless network. Where would you
configure passwords that are used for authentication?

On a RADIUS server

On the wireless access point and on each


wireless device

On a certificate authority (CA)

On the wireless access point

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1/27/23, 11:48 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

You are replacing a wired business network with an 802.11g wireless network. You currently
use Active Directory on the company network as your directory service. The new wireless
network has multiple wireless access points, and you want to use WPA2 on the network.
What should you do to configure the wireless network? (Select two.)

Use shared secret authentication

Configure devices to run in infrastructure mode

Install a RADIUS server and use 802.1x


authentication

Use open authentication with MAC address


filtering

Configure devices to run in ad hoc mode

 Question 9:  Correct

You've just finished installing a wireless access point for a client. What should you do to
prevent unauthorized users from using the access point (AP) configuration utility?

Isolate the AP from the client's wired network.

Implement MAC address filtering.

Change the administrative password on the AP.

Change the channel used by the AP's radio


signal.

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1/27/23, 11:48 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

You need to configure a wireless network using WPA2-Enterprise. Which of the following
components should be part of your design? (Select two.)

Pre-shared keys

802.1x

WEP encryption

AES encryption

Open authentication

TKIP encryption

Copyright © 2023 TestOut Corporation All rights reserved.

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1/27/23, 12:06 PM TestOut LabSim

9.1.8 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 12:03:10 pm • Time Spent: 14:11

Score: 90% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You have a development machine that contains sensitive information relative to your
business. You are concerned that spyware and malware might be installed while users
browse websites, which could compromise your system or pose a confidentiality risk.
Which of the following actions would BEST protect your system?

Change the security level for the internet zone


to High.

Configure the browser to block all cookies and


pop-ups.

Run the browser in protected mode.

Run the browser within a virtual environment.

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1/27/23, 12:06 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual browser?

Protects the host operating system from


malicious downloads

Filters internet content based on ratings

Prevents adware and spyware that monitor


your internet activity

Prevents phishing and drive-by downloads

 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following is an exploit in which malware allows the virtual OS to interact
directly with the hypervisor?

Jump

Escape

Bottleneck

Load balancing

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1/27/23, 12:06 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following devices is computer software, firmware, or hardware that creates
and runs virtual machines?

Virtual firewall

Virtual switch

Virtual router

Hypervisor

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following is a technique that disperses a workload between two or more
computers or resources to achieve optimal resource utilization, throughput, or response
time?

Load balancing

Hypervisor

Virtualization

Bottleneck

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1/27/23, 12:06 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 6:  Correct

What is isolating a virtual machine from the physical network to allow testing to be
performed without impacting the production environment called?

Testing

Sandboxing

Resource pooling

Workload balancing

 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which of the following are disadvantages of server virtualization?

A compromised host system might affect


multiple servers.

Systems are isolated from each other and


cannot interact with other systems.

It increases hardware costs.

A compromised guest system might affect


multiple servers.

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1/27/23, 12:06 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

Which type of hypervisor runs as an application on the host machine?

Type 4

Type 3

Type 1

Type 2

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following are advantages of virtualization? (Select two.)

Improved host-based attack detection

Reduced utilization of hardware resources

Centralized administration

Redundancy of hardware components for fault


tolerance

Easy migration of systems to different


hardware

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1/27/23, 12:06 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

Which load balancing method distributes a workload across multiple computers?

Resource pooling

Bottleneck

Virtualization

Workload balancing

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1/27/23, 12:15 PM TestOut LabSim

9.2.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 12:14:18 pm • Time Spent: 07:32

Score: 90% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following provides the network virtualization solution called XenServer?

Microsoft

Citrix

VMWare

Cisco

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following is a network virtualization solution provided by Microsoft?

Citrix

VirtualBox

Hyper-V

VMware

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1/27/23, 12:15 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

What is the limit of virtual machines that can be connected to a virtual network?

Unlimited

16,777,214

65,534

54

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1/27/23, 12:15 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 4:  Correct

You are an application developer. You use a hypervisor with multiple virtual machines
installed to test your applications on various operating systems' versions and editions.
Currently, all of your virtual machines used for testing are connected to the production
network through the hypervisor's network interface. However, you are concerned that the
latest application you are working on could adversely impact other network hosts if errors
exist in the code.
To prevent issues, you decide to isolate the virtual machines from the production network.
However, they still need to be able to communicate directly with each other.
What should you do? (Select two. Both responses are part of the complete solution.)

Connect the virtual network interfaces in the


virtual machines to the virtual switch.

Create a new virtual switch configured for host-


only (internal) networking.

Disconnect the network cable from the


hypervisor's network interface.

Create MAC address filters on the network


switch that block each virtual machine's virtual
network interfaces.

Disable the switch port the hypervisor's


network interface is connected to.

Create a new virtual switch configured for


bridged (external) networking.

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1/27/23, 12:15 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Incorrect

Which of the following statements about virtual networks is true? (Select two.)

A virtual network is independent of the


configuration and physical hardware of the
host operating system.

Accessing network resources requires that the


operating system on the virtual machine be
configured on an isolated network.

Each virtual network must be associated with a


single physical network adapter.

A virtual network is dependent on the


configuration and physical hardware of the
host operating system.

Multiple virtual networks can be associated


with a single physical network adapter.

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following devices facilitates communication between different virtual machines
by checking data packets before moving them to a destination?

Virtual switch

Virtual router

Hypervisor

Virtual firewall

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1/27/23, 12:15 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

What is a virtual LAN that runs on top of a physical LAN called?

VLAN

VMM

VFA

VAN

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following virtual devices provides packet filtering and monitoring?

VLAN

VMM

vSwitch

VFA

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is an example of protocol-based network virtualization?

VFA

vSwitch

VLAN

VMM

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1/27/23, 12:15 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following is used as a secure tunnel to connect two networks?

VLAN

VAN

VPN

VFA

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1/27/23, 12:24 PM TestOut LabSim

9.3.4 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 12:23:55 pm • Time Spent: 07:40

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following is an advantage of software-defined networking (SDN)?

More granular control

Lack of vendor support

Is currently a new technology

Standards are still being developed

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes the Application SDN layer?

Receives its requests and then provides


configuration and instructions.

Communicates with the Control layer through


the southbound interface.

Is software that is able to inventory hardware


components in the network.

Communicates with the Control layer through


the northbound interface.

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which SDN layer would a load balancer that stops and starts VMs as resource use increases
reside on?

Physical

Session

Application

Control

 Question 4:  Correct

Software defined networking (SDN) uses a controller to manage devices. The controller is
able to inventory hardware components on the network, gather network statistics, make
routing decisions based on gathered data, and facilitate communication between devices
from different vendors. It can also be used to make widespread configuration changes on
just one device.
Which of the following best describes an SDN controller?

The SDN controller is software.

The SDN controller is a networking protocol.

The SDN controller is hardware.

The SDN controller is a virtual networking


device.

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1/27/23, 12:24 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Drag the software defined networking (SDN) layer on the left to the appropriate function on
the right. (Each SDN layer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
This layer receives its requests from the Application layer.

Control layer

This layer is also known as the Infrastructure layer.

Physical layer

This layer communicates with the Control layer through what is called the northbound
interface.

Application layer

This layer provides the Physical layer with configuration and instructions.

Control layer

On this layer, individual networking devices use southbound APIs to communicate with
the control plane.

Physical layer

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1/27/23, 12:24 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following does the Application layer use to communicate with the Control
layer?

Northbound APIs

These layers do not communicate

Southbound APIs

Controllers

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes the Physical SDN layer?

Gives new life to old networking hardware.

Receives its requests from the Application


layer.

Also known as the Infrastructure layer.

Sometimes called northbound APIs.

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 Question 8:  Correct

Network engineers have the option of using software to configure and control the network
rather than relying on individual static configuration files that are located on each network
device.
Which of the following is a relatively new technology that allows network and security
professionals to use software to manage, control, and make changes to a network?

Load balancing software

Control layer networking

Software-defined networking (SDN)

Infrastructure software networking

 Question 9:  Correct

Which APIs do individual networking devices use to communicate with the control plane
from the Physical layer?

Northbound

Northbound and Southbound

Southbound

None

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 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following is a disadvantage of software defined networking (SDN)?

SDN facilitates communication between


hardware from different vendors.

SDN standards are still being developed.

SDN creates centralized management.

SDN gathers network information and


statistics.

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1/27/23, 12:30 PM TestOut LabSim

9.4.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 12:30:07 pm • Time Spent: 04:21

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Match each description on the left with the appropriate cloud technology on the right.
Public cloud

Provides cloud services to just about anyone.

Private cloud

Provides cloud services to a single organization.

Community cloud

Allows cloud services to be shared by several organizations.

Hybrid cloud

Integrates one cloud service with other cloud services.

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1/27/23, 12:30 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

A group of small local businesses have joined together to share access to a cloud-based
payment system.
Which type of cloud is MOST likely being implemented?

Hybrid

Community

Public

Private

 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes the Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud computing
service model?

PaaS delivers infrastructure to the client, such


as processing, storage, networks, and
virtualized environments.

PaaS delivers software applications to the client


either over the internet or on a local area
network (LAN).

PaaS stores and provides data from a


centralized location without the need for local
collection and storage.

PaaS delivers everything a developer needs to


build an application on the cloud
infrastructure.

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 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following cloud computing solutions delivers software applications to a client
either over the internet or on a local area network?

DaaS

SaaS

IaaS

PaaS

 Question 5:  Correct

You are the security administrator for your organization. You have implemented a cloud
service to provide features such as authentication, anti-malware, intrusion detection, and
penetration testing.
Which cloud service have you most likely implemented?

IaaS

PaaS

SECaaS

SaaS

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 Question 6:  Correct

The IT manager has tasked you with installing new physical machines. These computer
systems are barebone systems that simply establish a remote connection to the data center
to run the user's virtualized desktop.
Which type of deployment model is being used?

Thin client

PaaS

IaaS

Thick client

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following are true concerning virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)? (Select two.)

User desktop environments are provided by


individual desktop systems instead of by
remote servers.

User desktop environments are centrally


hosted on servers instead of on individual
desktop systems.

In the event of a widespread malware infection,


the administrator can reimage user desktops
by pushing an image out to each user desktop
system over the network.

In the event of a widespread malware infection,


the administrator can quickly reimage all user
desktops on a few central servers.

Roaming profiles must be configured to allow


mobile users to keep their same desktop
environment across systems.

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 Question 8:  Correct

Google Cloud, Amazon Web Services (AWS), and Microsoft Azure are some of the most
widely used cloud storage solutions for enterprises. Which of the following factors prompt
companies to take advantage of cloud storage? (Select two.)

Need for Software as a Service (SaaS) for


managing enterprise applications

Need for Platform as a Service (PaaS) for


developing applications

Growing demand for storage

Need to bring costs down

Need for a storage provider to manage access


control

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following cloud storage access services acts as a gatekeeper, extending an
organization's security policies into the cloud storage infrastructure?

A web service application programming


interface

A co-located cloud computer service

A cloud-access security broker

A cloud storage gateway

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 Question 10:  Correct

Cloud storage is a virtual service, so the infrastructure is the responsibility of the storage
provider. Access control should be set as a local file system would be, with no need for the
provider to have access to the stored data.
You are implementing the following measures to secure your cloud storage:
Verify that security controls are the same as in a physical data center.
Use data classification policies.
Assign information into categories that determine storage, handling, and access
requirements.
Assign information classification based on information sensitivity and criticality.
Which of the following is another security measure you can implement?

Configure distributed resources to act as one in


a federated architecture.

Configure redundancy and distribution of data.

Dispose of data when it is no longer needed by


using specialized tools.

Create versioned copies of your cloud data.

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1/27/23, 12:54 PM TestOut LabSim

9.5.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 12:34:31 pm • Time Spent: 03:32

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following tools allows the user to set security rules for an instance of an
application that interacts with one organization and different security rules for an instance
of the application when interacting with another organization?

Replication

Instance awareness

Integration

Encryption

 Question 2:  Correct

What is the system that connects application repositories, systems, and IT environments in
a way that allows access and exchange of data over a network by multiple devices and
locations called?

High availability

Encryption

Integration

Instance awareness

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following methods can cloud providers implement to provide high availability?

Replication

Instance awareness

Encryption

Integration

 Question 4:  Correct

Which formula is used to determine a cloud provider's availability percentage?

Uptime/uptime + downtime

Downtime/downtime + uptime

Downtime/uptime + downtime

Uptime/downtime + uptime

 Question 5:  Correct

Which type of firewall operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model?

Circuit-level gateway

Stateful

Packet-filtering

Application layer

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 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following can provide the most specific protection and monitoring capabilities?

Cloud-access security broker

Cloud native controls

Cloud-based firewall

Secure web gateway

 Question 7:  Correct

What is the on-premises, cloud-based software tool that sits between an organization and a
cloud service provider called?

Secure web gateway

Cloud native controls

Cloud-based firewall

Cloud-access security broker

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 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following is a network device that is deployed in the cloud to protect against
unwanted access to a private network?

Cloud-access security broker

Cloud native controls

Cloud-based firewall

Virtual area network

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is a network security service that filters malware from user-side
internet connections using different techniques?

Cloud-based firewall

Cloud-access security broker

Secure web gateway

Virtual area network

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 Question 10:  Correct

Which type of firewall protects against packets coming from certain IP addresses?

Packet-filtering

Application layer

Circuit-level

Stateful

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1/27/23, 12:59 PM TestOut LabSim

9.6.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 12:59:38 pm • Time Spent: 04:11

Score: 90% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Your organization recently purchased 18 iPad tablets for use by the organization's
management team. These devices have iOS pre-installed on them.
To increase the security of these devices, you want to apply a default set of security-related
configuration settings.
What is the BEST approach to take to accomplish this? (Select two. Each option is part of a
complete solution.)

Require users to install the configuration


profile.

Enroll the devices in a mobile device


management (MDM) system.

Configure and distribute security settings in a


configuration profile.

Configure and apply security policy settings in a


mobile device management (MDM) system.

Configure security settings in a Group Policy


Object.

Join the tablets to a Windows domain.

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 Question 2:  Correct

Recently, a serious security breach occurred in your organization. An attacker was able to
log in to the internal network and steal data through a VPN connection using the credentials
assigned to a vice president in your organization.
For security reasons, all individuals in upper management in your organization have
unlisted home phone numbers and addresses. However, security camera footage from the
vice president's home recorded someone rummaging through her garbage cans prior to the
attack. The vice president admitted to writing her VPN login credentials on a sticky note that
she subsequently threw away in her household trash. You suspect the attacker found the
sticky note in the trash and used the credentials to log in to the network.
You've reviewed the vice president's social media pages. You found pictures of her home
posted, but you didn't notice anything in the photos that would give away her home
address. She assured you that her smartphone was never misplaced prior to the attack.
Which security weakness is the MOST likely cause of the security breach?

Geotagging was enabled on her smartphone.

Weak passwords were used on her


smartphone.

Sideloaded apps were installed on her


smartphone.

A Christmas tree attack was executed on her


smartphone.

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 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following mobile device security considerations disables the ability to use the
device after a short period of inactivity?

GPS

Screen lock

Remote wipe

TPM

 Question 4:  Correct

Your organization recently purchased 20 Android tablets for use by the organization's
management team.
To increase the security of these devices, you want to ensure that only specific apps can be
installed. Which of the following would you implement?

Credential Manager

App whitelisting

App blacklisting

Application Control

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 Question 5:  Correct

A smartphone was lost at the airport. There is no way to recover the device. Which of the
following ensures data confidentiality on the device?

Remote wipe

GPS

Screen lock

TPM

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following is the recommend Intune configuration?

Hybrid MDM

Company portal

Intune Standalone

Account portal

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following is a solution that pushes security policies directly to mobile devices
over a network connection?

Credential Manager

Application Control

Group Policy

Mobile device management (MDM)

 Question 8:  Incorrect

The IT manager has tasked you with configuring Intune. You have enrolled the devices and
now need to set up the Intune policies.
Where would you go to set up the Intune policies?

In the Admin portal, select Management >


Policy > Add Policy.

In the Company portal, select Management >


Policy > Add Policy.

In the Admin portal, select Policy > Add Policy.

In the Company portal, select Policy > Add


Policy.

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following Intune portals is used by end users to manage their own account and
enroll devices?

Account portal

Add Intune Users

Company portal

Admin portal

 Question 10:  Correct

Your organization recently purchased 20 Android tablets for use by the organization's
management team.
You are using a Windows domain. Which of the following should you use to push security
settings to the devices?

Intune

Group Policy

Credential Manager

Application Control

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1/27/23, 1:06 PM TestOut LabSim

9.7.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 1:06:01 pm • Time Spent: 04:51

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following mobile device management (MDM) solutions is hardware-agnostic


and supports many different brands of mobile devices?

UEM

MAM

MDM

EMM

 Question 2:  Correct

Mobile application management (MAM) provides the ability to do which of the following?

Comply with security policies.

Manage mobile devices.

Control data access.

Remotely install and uninstall apps.

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 Question 3:  Correct

What is the minimum number of users needed in a Windows Enterprise agreement for
Intune to be included?

500

100

No minimum

1,000

 Question 4:  Correct

Mobile device management (MDM) provides the ability to do which of the following?

Remotely install apps.

Control data access.

Track the device.

Update apps as needed.

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following mobile device management (MDM) solutions allows an organization
to manage all devices, including printers, workstations, and even IoT devices?

MDM

UEM

MAM

EMM

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following is the first phase of the Microsoft Intune application life cycle?

Configure

Deploy

Protect

Add

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following app deployment and update methods can be configured to make
available to specific users and groups only the apps that they have rights to access?

Remote management

BYOD

App catalog

Self-service portal

 Question 8:  Correct

In which phase of the Microsoft Intune application life cycle would you assign an app to
users and/or devices you manage and monitor them on the Azure portal?

Deploy

Protect

Add

Configure

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following app deployment and update methods allows updates to be uploaded
onto Intune where they can be pushed out to users within 24 hours?

App catalog

BYOD

Remote management

Self-service portal

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following app deployment and update methods allows an administrator to
remove apps and clear all data from a device without affecting the device itself?

BYOD

App catalog

Remote management

Self-service portal

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1/27/23, 1:14 PM TestOut LabSim

9.8.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 1:14:18 pm • Time Spent: 07:03

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following is a policy that defines appropriate and inappropriate usage of
company resources, assets, and communications?

Business continuity plan (BCP)

Acceptable use policy (AUP)

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

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1/27/23, 1:14 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following defines an acceptable use agreement?

A legal contract between the organization and


the employee that specifies that the employee
is not to disclose the organization's confidential
information.

An agreement that identifies employees' rights


to use company property, such as internet
access and computer equipment, for personal
use.

An agreement that prohibits an employee from


working for a competing organization for a
specified period of time after he or she leaves
the organization.

An agreement that outlines the organization's


monitoring activities.

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1/27/23, 1:14 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

Your organization allows employees to bring their own devices into work, but management
is concerned that a malicious internal user could use a mobile device to conduct an insider
attack.
Which of the following should be implemented to help mitigate this threat?

Implement a guest wireless network that is


isolated from your organization's production
network.

Implement an AUP that specifies which apps


are allowed for use with organizational data.

Implement an AUP that specifies where and


when mobile devices can be possessed within
the organization.

Implement a Network Access Control (NAC)


solution.

 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following could be an example of a malicious insider attack?

A user's device has become infected with


malware.

A user uses the built-in microphone to record


conversations.

A user has not implemented appropriate


security settings.

A user has lost a company-owned device.

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1/27/23, 1:14 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Which device deployment model gives businesses significant control over device security
while allowing employees to use their devices to access both corporate and personal data?

VDI

CYOD

BYOD

COPE

 Question 6:  Correct

Users in the sales department perform many of their daily tasks, such as emailing and
creating sales presentations, on company-owned tablets. These tablets contain sensitive
information. If one of these tablets is lost or stolen, this information could end up in the
wrong hands.
The chief information officer wants you to implement a solution that can be used to keep
sensitive information from getting into the wrong hands if a device is lost or stolen.
Which of the following should you implement?

A Network Access Control (NAC) solution

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

A mobile device management (MDM)


infrastructure

A guest wireless network that is isolated from


your organization's production network

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1/27/23, 1:14 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

If a user's BYOD device (such as a tablet or phone) is infected with malware, that malware
can be spread if that user connects to your organization's network. One way to prevent this
event is to use a Network Access Control (NAC) system.
How does an NAC protect your network from being infected by a BYOD device?

The NAC notifies users that personally owned


devices are subject to random searches if
brought on site.

The NAC specifies which apps can be used


while the BYOD device is connected to the
organization's network.

The NAC remediates devices before allowing


them to connect to your network.

The NAC forces BYOD devices to connect to a


guest network that is isolated from your
production network.

 Question 8:  Correct

The IT manager has tasked you with implementing a solution that ensures that mobile
devices are up to date, have anti-malware installed, and have the latest definition updates
before being allowed to connect to the network.
Which of the following should you implement?

MDM

NAC

VDI

BYOD

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1/27/23, 1:14 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)?

Specifies where and when mobile devices can


be possessed within the organization. For
example, the possession of mobile devices may
be prohibited in high-security areas.

Defines which kinds of data are allowed or


which kinds of data are prohibited on
personally owned devices brought into the
workplace.

Provides enhanced security and better data


protection because most of the data
processing is provided by servers in the data
center rather than on the local device.

Gives businesses significant control over device


security while allowing employees to use their
devices to access both corporate and personal
data.

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1/27/23, 1:14 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

Users in the sales department perform many of their daily tasks, such as emailing and
creating sales presentations, on their personal tablets.
The chief information officer worries that one of these users might also use their tablet to
steal sensitive information from the organization's network. Your job is to implement a
solution that prevents insiders from accessing sensitive information stored on the
organization's network from their personal devices while still giving them access to the
internet.
Which of the following should you implement?

A mobile device management (MDM)


infrastructure

A guest wireless network that is isolated from


your organization's production network

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

A Network Access Control (NAC) solution

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1/27/23, 1:22 PM TestOut LabSim

9.9.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 1:22:33 pm • Time Spent: 06:54

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following is an open-source hardware and software company that designs and
manufactures single-board microcontrollers as well as kits to build digital devices?

Microsoft

Amazon

Raspberry Pi

Arduino

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1/27/23, 1:22 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

You manage information systems for a large co-location data center.


Networked environmental controls are used to manage the temperature within the data
center. These controls use embedded smart technology that allows them to be managed
over an internet connection using a mobile device app.
You are concerned about the security of these devices. What can you do to increase their
security posture? (Select two.)

Rely on the device manufacturer to maintain


device security with automated firmware
updates.

Verify that your network's existing security


infrastructure is working properly.

Enroll each device in a mobile device


management (MDM) system.

Install anti-malware software on each device.

Install the latest firmware updates from the


device manufacturer.

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1/27/23, 1:22 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

You manage the information systems for a large manufacturing firm.


Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) devices are used on the manufacturing
floor to manage your organization's automated factory equipment. The SCADA devices use
embedded smart technology, allowing them to be managed using a mobile device app over
an internet connection.
You are concerned about the security of these devices. What can you do to increase their
security posture? (Select two.)

Install a network monitoring agent on each


device.

Install the latest firmware updates from the


device manufacturer.

Verify that your network's existing security


infrastructure is working properly.

Install anti-malware software on each device.

Enroll each device in a mobile device


management system.

 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following serves real-time applications without buffer delays?

FPGA

SCADA

RTOS

SoC

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1/27/23, 1:22 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following devices are special computer systems that gather, analyze, and
manage automated factory equipment?

MFD

SoC

SCADA

UAV

 Question 6:  Correct

You notice that a growing number of devices, such as environmental control systems and
wearable devices, are connecting to your network. These devices, known as smart devices,
are sending and receiving data via wireless network connections.
Which of the following labels applies to this growing ecosystem of smart devices?

Internet of smart devices

Dynamic environment

The smartnet

Internet of Things (IoT)

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1/27/23, 1:22 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

Which Amazon device can be used to control smart devices (such as lights) throughout a
home using voice commands?

Cortana

Home

Echo

Siri

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following do Raspberry Pi systems make use of?

RTOS

SoC

FPGA

SCADA

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following lets you make phone calls over a packet-switched network?

RTOS

FPGA

SCADA

VoIP

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1/27/23, 1:22 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

Why do attackers prefer to conduct distributed network attacks in static environments?


(Select two.)

These devices are typically installed in the DMZ


that resides outside of an organization's
perimeter firewall.

Devices are typically more difficult to monitor


than traditional network devices.

Smart device vendors tend to proactively


protect their products against security threats.

Devices tend to employ much weaker security


than traditional network devices.

It is difficult to update the virus definitions used


to protect these devices.

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1/27/23, 1:29 PM TestOut LabSim

10.1.9 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 1:28:57 pm • Time Spent: 05:23

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

As a network administrator, you are asked to recommend a secure method for transferring
data between hosts on a network. Which of the following protocols would you recommend?
(Select two.)

TDP

RCP

FTP

SCP

SFTP

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following protocols uses port 443?

HTTPS

S-HTTP

SSH

S/MIME

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1/27/23, 1:29 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

Which TCP/IP protocol is a secure form of HTTP that uses SSL as a sub-layer for security?

SMTP

SSH

HTTPS

DNS

 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following tools allow remote management of servers? (Select two.)

Telnet

POP3

SSH

SSL

FTP

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1/27/23, 1:29 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

SFTP uses which mechanism to provide security for authentication and data transfer?

Token devices

SSH

IPsec

SSL

 Question 6:  Correct

When using SSL authentication, what does the client verify first when checking a server's
identity?

Master secrets are verifiable from asymmetric


keys.

The certificate must be non-expiring and self-


signed by the sysadmin.

All DNS resolution must point to the corporate


intranet routers.

The current date and time must fall within the


server's certificate-validity period.

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1/27/23, 1:29 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following protocols are often added to other protocols to provide secure
transmission of data? (Select two.)

TLS

SNMP

HTTPS

SMTP

SSL

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following protocols can TLS use for key exchange? (Select two.)

ECC

Diffie-Hellman

IKE

KEA

RSA

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1/27/23, 1:29 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

IPsec is implemented through two separate protocols. What are these protocols called?
(Select two.)

L2TP

EPS

AH

ESP

SSL

 Question 10:  Correct

What is the primary function of the IKE Protocol used with IPsec?

Encrypt packet contents.

Create a security association between


communicating partners.

Provide both authentication and encryption.

Ensure dynamic key rotation and select


initialization vectors (IVs).

Provide authentication services.

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1/27/23, 2:46 PM TestOut LabSim

10.2.3 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 2:46:22 pm • Time Spent: 05:23

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following is a technology that tries to detect and stop sensitive data breaches,
or data leakage incidents, in an organization?

Data hashing

Data loss prevention

Data transmission security

Public key cryptography

 Question 2:  Correct

Which rights management category is applied to music, videos, and software that is sold to
consumers?

DRM

Static

IRM

Dynamic

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1/27/23, 2:46 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

Your organization is having a third party come in and perform an audit on the financial
records. You want to ensure that the auditor has access to the data they need while keeping
the customers' data secure. To accomplish this goal, you plan to implement a mask that
replaces the client names and account numbers with fictional data.
Which masking method are you implementing?

Tokenization

Static

Encryption

Dynamic

 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes dynamic data masking? (Select two.)

It is good to use when making copies of a


database for testing.

Original data is made irretrievable through


reverse-engineering.

It can be used to control which users can see


the actual data.

It is helpful for data at rest in a database and


can be specified by field or column.

It replaces original information with a mask


that mimics the original in form and function.

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1/27/23, 2:46 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following DLP implementations can be used to monitor and control access to
physical devices on workstations or servers?

File-level DLP

Network DLP

Cloud DLP

Endpoint DLP

 Question 6:  Correct

DLP can be used to identify sensitive files in a file system and then embed the organization's
security policy within the file.
Which of the following DLP implementations travels with sensitive data files when they are
moved or copied?

File-level DLP

Network DLP

Endpoint DLP

Cloud DLP

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1/27/23, 2:46 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

You have been offered a position as a security analyst for Acme, Inc. The position will be
remote. Acme Inc. has sent you your employment contract using a system that only allows
you to open and digitally sign the contract.
Which rights management method is being used?

DRM

Static

IRM

Dynamic

 Question 8:  Correct

Which DLP method works by replacing sensitive data with realistic fictional data?

Encryption

Tokenization

File-level DLP

Masking

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1/27/23, 2:46 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

DLP can be implemented as a software or hardware solution that analyzes traffic in an


attempt to detect sensitive data that is being transmitted in violation of an organization's
security policies.
Which of the following DLP implementations analyzes traffic for data containing such things
as financial documents, social security numbers, or key words used in proprietary
intellectual property?

File-level DLP

Cloud DLP

Endpoint DLP

Network DLP

 Question 10:  Correct

Tokenization is another effective tool in data loss prevention. Tokenization does which of
the following? (Select two.)

Allows a security policy to travel with a specific


file, even when copied or moved

Allows continued control access to the file, even


when it's no longer in your system

Identifies sensitive files and embeds them


within your security policies

Protects data on its server with authentication


and authorization protocols

Replaces actual data with a randomly


generated alphanumeric character set

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1/27/23, 2:52 PM TestOut LabSim

10.3.16 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 2:51:53 pm • Time Spent: 04:39

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following attacks is a form of software exploitation that transmits or submits a
longer stream of data than the input variable is designed to handle?

Data diddling

Time-of-check to time-of-use attack

Buffer overflow attack

Smurf attack

 Question 2:  Correct

Having poor software development practices and failing to program input validation checks
during development of custom software can result in a system vulnerable to which type of
attack?

Superzapping

Dictionary attack

Denial-of-service attack

Buffer overflow attack

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1/27/23, 2:52 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

Which type of attack is the act of exploiting a software program's free acceptance of input in
order to execute arbitrary code on a target?

TOCTOU

Covert channel exploitation

Buffer overflow attack

Data diddling

 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following is an attack that injects malicious scripts into web pages to redirect
users to fake websites to gather personal information?

Drive-by download

SQL injection

XSS

DLL injection

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1/27/23, 2:52 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following is specifically meant to ensure that a program operates on clean,
correct, and useful data?

Error and exception handling

Input validation

Application hardening

Process spawning

 Question 6:  Correct

You have a website that accepts input from users for creating customer accounts. Input on
the form is passed to a database server where the user account information is stored.
An attacker is able to insert database commands in the input fields and have those
commands execute on the server.
Which type of attack has occurred?

DLL injection

Cross-site scripting

SQL injection

Buffer overflow

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 Question 7:  Correct

An attacker inserts SQL database commands into a data input field of an order form used
by a web-based application. When submitted, these commands are executed on the remote
database server, causing customer contact information from the database to be sent to the
malicious user's web browser.
Which practice would have prevented this exploit?

Installing antivirus, anti-spyware, pop-up


blockers, and firewall software

Implementing a script blocker

Implementing client-side validation

Using the latest browser version and patch


level

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following functions does a single quote (') perform in an SQL injection?

Indicates that code is ending and a comment is


being entered

Indicates that everything after the single quote


is a comment

Indicates that the comment has ended and


data is being entered

Indicates that data has ended and a command


is beginning

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1/27/23, 2:52 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

As you browse the internet, you notice that when you go to some sites, multiple additional
windows are opened automatically. Many of these windows contain advertisements for
products that are inappropriate for your family to view.
Which tool can you implement to prevent these windows from showing?

Anti-spyware

Antivirus

Anti-adware

Phishing filter

Pop-up blocker

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1/27/23, 2:52 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

While using a web-based order form, an attacker enters an unusually large value in the
Quantity field.
The value he or she entered is so large that it exceeds the maximum value supported by the
variable type used to store the quantity in the web application. This causes the value of the
quantity variable to wrap around to the minimum possible value, which is a negative
number.
As a result, the web application processes the order as a return instead of a purchase, and
the attacker's account is credited with a large sum of money.
Which practices would have prevented this exploit? (Select two.)

Installing the latest operating system updates

Implementing client-side validation

Installing antivirus, anti-spyware, pop-up


blockers, and firewall software

Implementing server-side validation

Using the latest browser version and patch


level

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1/27/23, 2:57 PM TestOut LabSim

10.4.14 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 2:57:05 pm • Time Spent: 04:05

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which application development model approaches software development as a continuous,


changing process with never-ending versions, bug fixes, and enhancements?

Fuzz testing

Waterfall

Code signing

Agile

 Question 2:  Correct

You are performing a security test from the outside on a new application that has been
deployed.
Which secure testing method are you MOST likely using?

Static

Runtime

Interactive

Dynamic

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1/27/23, 2:57 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following enters random data to the inputs of an application?

Routines

Fuzzing

Application hardening

Validation rules

 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following is the first step in the Waterfall application development model?

Design

Requirements

Maintenance

Implementation

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following are the two main causes of software vulnerabilities? (Select two.)

Normalization

Design flaws

Fuzzing

Coding errors

Obfuscation

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following is considered a drawback of the Waterfall application development


life cycle?

Development is broken into Sprints.

Testing is performed throughout development.

Requirements are determined at the beginning


and are carried through to the end product.

Each step in the life cycle only needs to be


completed once before moving on to the next
one.

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 Question 7:  Correct

You have just finished developing a new application. Before putting it on the website for
users to download, you want to provide a checksum to verify that the object has not been
modified.
Which of the following would you implement?

Memory management

Code signing

Normalization

Code obfuscation

 Question 8:  Correct

Which fuzz testing program type defines new test data based on models of the input?

Generation-based

Mutation-based

Code signing

Memory management

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 Question 9:  Correct

What is the storage location called that holds all the development source files that version
control systems use?

Memory management

Repository

Normalization

Stored procedures

 Question 10:  Correct

What is a set of software development tools called that can be installed as one unit and
provides code frameworks or code snippets to help development go faster?

Memory management

Code signing

Repository

SDK

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1/27/23, 3:05 PM TestOut LabSim

11.1.4 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 3:05:19 pm • Time Spent: 07:15

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which step in the penetration testing life cycle is accomplished using rootkits or Trojan
horse programs?

Maintain access

Reconnaissance

Enumeration

Gain access

 Question 2:  Correct

You have been hired as part of the team that manages an organization's network defense.
Which security team are you working on?

Red

White

Purple

Blue

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 Question 3:  Correct

As part of a special program, you have discovered a vulnerability in an organization's


website and reported it to the organization. Because of the severity, you are paid a good
amount of money.
Which type of penetration test are you performing?

Black box

White box

Gray box

Bug bounty

 Question 4:  Correct

Which phase or step of a security assessment is a passive activity?

Privilege escalation

Vulnerability mapping

Enumeration

Reconnaissance

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following activities are typically associated with a penetration test?

Interview employees to verify that the security


policy is being followed.

Attempt social engineering.

Create a performance baseline.

Run a vulnerability scanner on network servers.

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following is a very detailed document that defines exactly what is going to be
included in the penetration test?

Rules of engagement

Payment terms

Scope of work

Goals and guidelines

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following uses hacking techniques to proactively discover internal


vulnerabilities?

Inbound scanning

Reverse engineering

Passive reconnaissance

Penetration testing

 Question 8:  Correct

What is the primary purpose of penetration testing?

Test the effectiveness of your security


perimeter.

Assess the skill level of new IT security staff.

Evaluate newly deployed firewalls.

Infiltrate a competitor's network.

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1/27/23, 3:05 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

You have been hired to perform a penetration test for an organization. You are given full
knowledge of the network before the test begins.
Which type of penetration test are you performing?

Bug bounty

White box

Gray box

Black box

 Question 10:  Correct

You have been promoted to team lead of one of the security operations teams.
Which security team are you now a part of?

Purple

Red

White

Blue

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1/27/23, 3:08 PM TestOut LabSim

11.2.9 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 3:08:35 pm • Time Spent: 02:17

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following tools can be used to view and modify DNS server information in
Linux?

route

dig

tracert

netstat

 Question 2:  Correct

You want to identify all devices on a network along with a list of open ports on those
devices. You want the results displayed in a graphical diagram. Which tool should you use?

Network mapper

OVAL

Port scanner

Ping scanner

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1/27/23, 3:08 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

You need to check network connectivity from your computer to a remote computer.
Which of the following tools would be the BEST option to use?

ping

nmap

tracert

route

 Question 4:  Correct

You want to use a tool to scan a system for vulnerabilities, including open ports, running
services, and missing patches. Which tool should you use?

OVAL

Nessus

Wireshark

LC4

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 Question 5:  Correct

You need to enumerate the devices on your network and display the network's
configuration details.
Which of the following utilities should you use?

dnsenum

scanless

nslookup

nmap

 Question 6:  Correct

Gathering as much personally identifiable information (PII) on a target as possible is a goal


of which reconnaissance method?

Packet sniffing

OSINT

Active

Passive

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which type of reconnaissance is dumpster diving?

Passive

Packet sniffing

OSINT

Active

 Question 8:  Correct

Which passive reconnaissance tool is used to gather information from a variety of public
sources?

Packet sniffing

theHarvester

Shodan

scanless

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following tools can be used to see if a target has any online IoT devices without
proper security?

scanless

Packet sniffing

theHarvester

Shodan

 Question 10:  Correct

The process of walking around an office building with an 802.11 signal detector is known as:

War dialing

Daemon dialing

Driver signing

War driving

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1/27/23, 3:14 PM TestOut LabSim

11.3.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 3:13:49 pm • Time Spent: 04:13

Score: 90% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You are concerned about protecting your network from network-based attacks on the
internet. Specifically, you are concerned about attacks that have not yet been identified or
that do not have prescribed protections.
Which type of device should you use?

Anomaly-based IDS

Signature-based IDS

Host-based firewall

Antivirus scanner

Network-based firewall

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 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following describes the worst possible action by an IDS?

The system detected a valid attack and the


appropriate alarms and notifications were
generated.

The system identified harmful traffic as


harmless and allowed it to pass without
generating any alerts.

The system correctly deemed harmless traffic


as inoffensive and let it pass.

The system identified harmless traffic as


offensive and generated an alarm.

 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following describes a false positive when using an IPS device?

Malicious traffic not being identified

Malicious traffic masquerading as legitimate


traffic

Legitimate traffic being flagged as malicious

The source address matching the destination


address

The source address identifying a non-existent


host

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 Question 4:  Correct

As a security precaution, you have implemented IPsec that is used between any two devices
on your network. IPsec provides encryption for traffic between devices.
You would like to implement a solution that can scan the contents of the encrypted traffic to
prevent any malicious attacks.
Which solution should you implement?

Protocol analyzer

VPN concentrator

Host-based IDS

Network-based IDS

Port scanner

 Question 5:  Correct

What is the most common form of host-based IDS that employs signature or pattern-
matching detection methods?

Antivirus software

Honeypots

Motion detectors

Firewalls

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 Question 6:  Correct

An active IDS system often performs which of the following actions? (Select two.)

Requests a second logon test for users


performing abnormal activities.

Cannot be detected on the network because it


takes no detectable actions.

Traps and delays the intruder until the


authorities arrive.

Performs reverse lookups to identify an


intruder.

Updates filters to block suspect traffic.

 Question 7:  Correct

You are concerned about attacks directed at your network firewall. You want to be able to
identify and be notified of any attacks. In addition, you want the system to take immediate
action to stop or prevent the attack, if possible.
Which tool should you use?

IPS

Port scanner

Packet sniffer

IDS

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 Question 8:  Incorrect

Your organization uses a web server to host an e-commerce site.


Because this web server handles financial transactions, you are concerned that it could
become a prime target for exploits. You want to implement a network security control that
analyzes the contents of each packet going to or from the web server. The security control
must be able to identify malicious payloads and block them.
What should you do?

Implement an application-aware IPS in front of


the web server

Implement a packet-filtering firewall in front of


the web server

Implement an application-aware IDS in front of


the web server

Install an anti-malware scanner on the web


server

Implement a stateful firewall in front of the


web server

 Question 9:  Correct

Which IDS method searches for intrusion or attack attempts by recognizing patterns or
identifying entities listed in a database?

Stateful-inspection-based IDS

Heuristics-based IDS

Signature-based IDS

Anomaly-analysis-based IDS

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 Question 10:  Correct

What does an IDS that uses signature recognition use to identify attacks?

Comparison of current statistics to past


statistics

Exceeding threshold values

Statistical analysis to find unusual deviations

Comparisons to known attack patterns

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1/27/23, 3:20 PM TestOut LabSim

11.4.12 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 3:20:20 pm • Time Spent: 05:25

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

A security administrator logs onto a Windows server on her organization's network. Then
she runs a vulnerability scan on that server.
Which type of scan was conducted in this scenario?

Credentialed scan

Non-credentialed scan

Intrusive scan

Non-intrusive scan

 Question 2:  Correct

In your role as a security analyst, you ran a vulnerability scan, and several vulnerabilities
were reported. Upon further inspection, none of the vulnerabilities actually existed.
Which type of result is this?

False positive

True positive

True negative

False negative

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 Question 3:  Correct

A security administrator needs to run a vulnerability scan that analyzes a system from the
perspective of a hacker attacking the organization from the outside.
Which type of scan should he or she use?

Non-credentialed scan

Port scan

Network-mapping scan

Credentialed scan

 Question 4:  Correct

In your role as a security analyst, you need to stay up to date on the latest threats. You are
currently reviewing the latest real-time updates on cyberthreats from across the world.
Which of the following resources are you MOST likely using?

Threat hunting

Threat feeds

Intelligence fusion

Advisories and bulletins

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 Question 5:  Correct

You want to be able to identify the services running on a set of servers on your network.
Which tool would BEST give you the information you need?

Network mapper

Port scanner

Protocol analyzer

Vulnerability scanner

 Question 6:  Correct

You have run a vulnerability scanning tool and identified several patches that need to be
applied to a system. What should you do next after applying the patches?

Update the vulnerability scanner definition


files.

Document your actions.

Use a port scanner to check for open ports.

Run the vulnerability assessment again.

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 Question 7:  Correct

Which SIEM component is responsible for gathering all event logs from configured devices
and securely sending them to the SIEM system?

Data handling

SIEM alerts

Security automation

Collectors

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) system
automation components is often used to document the processes and procedures that are
to be used by a human during a manual intervention?

Orchestration

Playbook

Runbook

Response

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 Question 9:  Correct

You want to make sure that a set of servers only accepts traffic for specific network services.
You have verified that the servers are only running the necessary services, but you also
want to make sure that the servers do not accept packets sent to those services.
Which tool should you use?

IDS

System logs

Packet sniffer

IPS

Port scanner

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following systems is able to respond to low-level security events without
human assistance?

SOAR

IDS

Firewall

SIEM

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11.5.4 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 3:24:55 pm • Time Spent: 03:27

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You are using a protocol analyzer to capture network traffic. You want to only capture the
frames coming from a specific IP address.
Which of the following can you use to simplify this process?

Switch

Capture filters

NIC

Display filters

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following processes identifies an operating system based on its response to
different types of network traffic?

Firewalking

Port scanning

Social engineering

Fingerprinting

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 Question 3:  Correct

You decide to use a packet sniffer to identify the type of traffic sent to a router. You run the
packet sniffing software on a device that is connected to a hub with three other computers.
The hub is connected to a switch that is connected to the router.
When you run the software, you see frames addressed to the four workstations, but not to
the router.
Which feature should you configure on the switch?

Promiscuous mode

Spanning Tree Protocol

Bonding

Port mirroring

 Question 4:  Correct

You are running a packet sniffer on your workstation so you can identify the types of traffic
on your network. You expect to see all the traffic on the network, but the packet sniffer only
seems to be capturing frames that are addressed to the network interface on your
workstation.
Which of the following must you configure in order to see all of the network traffic?

Configure the network interface to use


promiscuous mode.

Configure the network interface to use protocol


analysis mode.

Configure the network interface to use port


mirroring mode.

Configure the network interface to enable


logging.

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 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following accurately describes what a protocol analyzer is used for? (Select
two.)

A passive device that is used to copy frames


and allow you to view frame contents.

A device that allows you to capture, modify, and


retransmit frames (to perform an attack).

A device that does NOT allow you to capture,


modify, and retransmit frames (to perform an
attack).

A device that measures the amount of data that


can be transferred through a network or
processed by a device.

A device that can simulate a large number of


client connections to a website, test file
downloads for an FTP site, or simulate large
volumes of emails.

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 Question 6:  Correct

You want to identify traffic that is generated and sent through a network by a specific
application running on a device.
Which tool should you use?

TDR

Certifier

Multimeter

Protocol analyzer

Toner probe

 Question 7:  Correct

You want to know which protocols are being used on your network. You'd like to monitor
network traffic and sort traffic by protocol.
Which tool should you use?

Port scanner

Packet sniffer

Throughput tester

IDS

IPS

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1/27/23, 3:25 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

You are concerned about attacks directed against the firewall on your network. You would
like to examine the content of individual frames sent to the firewall.
Which tool should you use?

Event log

Load tester

System log

Throughput tester

Packet sniffer

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following roles would be MOST likely to use a protocol analyzer to identify
frames that might cause errors?

Network administrator

Security operations team

Malicious hacker

Standard user

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1/27/23, 3:25 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

You want to use a tool to see packets on a network, including the source and destination of
each packet. Which tool should you use?

Wireshark

nmap

Nessus

OVAL

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1/27/23, 3:29 PM TestOut LabSim

11.6.12 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 3:29:05 pm • Time Spent: 03:13

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following is the term used to describe what happens when an attacker sends
falsified messages to link their MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or
server on a network?

Port mirroring

MAC spoofing

ARP poisoning

MAC flooding

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following attacks tries to associate an incorrect MAC address with a known IP
address?

Hijacking

ARP poisoning

Null session

MAC flooding

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1/27/23, 3:29 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

Which type of denial-of-service (DoS) attack occurs when a name server receives malicious
or misleading data that incorrectly maps host names and IP addresses?

DNS poisoning

SYN flood

Spam

ARP poisoning

 Question 4:  Correct

While using the internet, you type the URL of one of your favorite sites in the browser.
Instead of going to the correct site, the browser displays a completely different website.
When you use the IP address of the web server, the correct site is displayed.
Which type of attack has likely occurred?

Man-in-the-middle

Hijacking

Spoofing

DNS poisoning

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1/27/23, 3:29 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

An attacker uses an exploit to push a modified hosts file to client systems. This hosts file
redirects traffic from legitimate tax preparation sites to malicious sites to gather personal
and financial information.
Which kind of exploit has been used in this scenario?

DNS poisoning

Reconnaissance

Man-in-the-middle

Domain name kiting

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following describes a man-in-the-middle attack?

A false server intercepts communications from


a client by impersonating the intended server.

A person convinces an employee to reveal his


or her login credentials over the phone.

An IP packet is constructed that is larger than


the valid size.

Malicious code is planted on a system, where it


waits for a triggering event before activating.

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1/27/23, 3:29 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

Capturing packets as they travel from one host to another with the intent of altering the
contents of the packets is a form of which type of attack?

Man-in-the-middle attack

Passive logging

Spamming

DDoS

 Question 8:  Correct

Which type of activity changes or falsifies information in order to mislead or re-direct traffic?

Spamming

Spoofing

Sniffing

Snooping

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1/27/23, 3:29 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

A router on the border of your network detects a packet with a source address that is from
an internal client, but the packet was received on the internet-facing interface. This is an
example of which form of attack?

Spamming

Spoofing

Sniffing

Snooping

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following are network-sniffing tools?

Ettercap, Ufasoft snif, and Shark

Ufasoft snif, TCPDump, and Shark

Cain and Abel, Ettercap, and TCPDump

WinDump, KFSensor, and Wireshark

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1/27/23, 3:34 PM TestOut LabSim

11.7.8 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 3:34:31 pm • Time Spent: 04:35

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You are using a password attack that tests every possible keystroke for each single key in a
password until the correct one is found. Which of the following technical password attacks
are you using?

Keylogger

Pass-the-hash attack

Password sniffing

Brute force attack

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1/27/23, 3:34 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

A user named Bob Smith has been assigned a new desktop workstation to complete his
day-to-day work.
When provisioning Bob's user account in your organization's domain, you assigned an
account name of BSmith with an initial password of bw2Fs3d.
On first login, Bob is prompted to change his password. He changes it to the name of his
dog, Fido.
What should you do to increase the security of Bob's account? (Select two.)

Use Group Policy to require strong passwords


on user accounts.

Train users not to use passwords that are easy


to guess.

Do not allow users to change their own


passwords.

Configure user account names that are not


easy to guess.

Use a stronger initial password when creating


user accounts.

Require him to use the initial password, which


meets the complexity requirements.

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1/27/23, 3:34 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

In a variation of the brute force attack, an attacker may use a predefined list of common
usernames and passwords to gain access to existing user accounts. Which countermeasure
best addresses this issue?

VLANs

A strong password policy

3DES encryption

AES encryption

 Question 4:  Correct

You are cleaning your desk at work. You toss several stacks of paper in the trash, including a
sticky note with your password written on it. Which of the following types of non-technical
password attacks have you enabled?

Social engineering

Password guessing

Shoulder surfing

Dumpster diving

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1/27/23, 3:34 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Carl received a phone call from a woman who states that she is calling from his bank. She
tells him that someone has tried to access his checking account, and she needs him to
confirm his account number and password to discuss further details. He gives her his
account number and password. Which of the following types of non-technical password
attack has occurred?

Password guessing

Shoulder surfing

Dumpster diving

Social engineering

 Question 6:  Correct

You want to check a server for user accounts that have weak passwords. Which tool should
you use?

OVAL

John the Ripper

Nessus

Retina

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1/27/23, 3:34 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following password attacks uses preconfigured matrices of hashed dictionary
words?

Hybrid attack

Brute-force attack

Rainbow table attack

Dictionary attack

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following strategies can protect against a rainbow table password attack?

Enforce strict password restrictions

Encrypt the password file with one-way


encryption

Add random bits to the password before


hashing takes place

Educate users to resist social engineering


attacks

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1/27/23, 3:34 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following techniques involves adding random bits of data to a password before
it is stored as a hash?

Keylogging

Pass-the-hash attack

Password sniffing

Password salting

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following best describes shoulder surfing?

Someone nearby watching you enter your


password on your computer and recording it.

Finding someone's password in the trash can


and using it to access their account.

Guessing someone's password because it is so


common or simple.

Giving someone you trust your username and


account password.

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1/27/23, 5:45 PM TestOut LabSim

12.1.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 5:45:25 pm • Time Spent: 21:15

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

During a recent site survey, you found a rogue wireless access point on your network. Which
of the following actions should you take first to protect your network while still preserving
evidence?

See who is connected to the access point and


attempt to find the attacker.

Run a packet sniffer to monitor traffic to and


from the access point.

Connect to the access point and examine its


logs for information.

Disconnect the access point from the network.

 Question 2:  Correct

You are conducting a forensic investigation. The attack has been stopped. Which of the
following actions should you perform first?

Turn off the system.

Remove the hard drive.

Document what is on the screen.

Stop all running processes.

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1/27/23, 5:45 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

When you conduct a forensic investigation, which of the following initial actions is
appropriate for preserving evidence?

Stop all running processes.

Turn off the system.

Remove the hard drive.

Document what is on the screen.

 Question 4:  Correct

What is the best definition of a security incident?

Violation of a security policy

Interruption of productivity

Criminal activity

Compromise of the CIA

 Question 5:  Correct

What is the purpose of audit trails?

To restore systems to normal operations.

To detect security-violating events.

To prevent security breaches.

To correct system problems.

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1/27/23, 5:45 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 6:  Correct

After an intrusion has occurred and the intruder has been removed from the system, which
of the following is the best step or action to take next?

Back up all logs and audits regarding the


incident.

Restore and repair any damage.

Deploy new countermeasures.

Update the security policy.

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following is an important aspect of evidence-gathering?

Purge transaction logs.

Monitor user access to compromised systems.

Back up all log files and audit trails.

Restore damaged data from backup media.

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1/27/23, 5:45 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

As a security analyst, you suspect a threat actor used a certain tactic and technique to
infiltrate your network. Which incident-response framework or approach would you utilize
to see if other companies have had the same occurrence and what they did to remedy it?

Mitre Att@ck

Cyber Kill Chain

Communication plan with stakeholders

Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis

 Question 9:  Correct

As a security analyst, you have discovered the victims of an malicious attack have several
things in common. Which tools would you use to help you identify who might be behind the
attacks and prevent potential future victims?

Mitre Att@cks

Cyber Kill Chain

Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis

Disaster recovery plan

Implement appropriate stakeholder


management

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1/27/23, 5:45 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

You are in charge of making sure the IT systems of your company survive in case of any type
of disaster in any of your locations. Your document should include organizational charts,
phone lists, and order of restore. Each business unit should write their own policies and
procedures with guidelines from corporate management. Which of the following documents
should you create for this purpose?

Disaster recovery plan

Communication plan

Incident-response team charter

Business continuity plan

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1/27/23, 6:20 PM TestOut LabSim

12.2.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 6:20:18 pm • Time Spent: 25:10

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Your browser has blocked your from your crucial secure intranet sites. What could be the
problem?

You misconfigured a content filter.

You are using HTTP instead of HTTPS.

The firewall administrator set up a rule that


blocked the users.

Your SSL certificate status has been revoked.

 Question 2:  Correct

You would like to make sure users are not accessing inappropriate content online at work.
Which endpoint security strategy would you employ?

URL filters

Content filtering

Firewall rules

Mobile device management (MDM)

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1/27/23, 6:20 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

You want to allow RDP 3389 traffic into your network for a group of users to access a
particular workstation that has a special application in your office. Which endpoint security
tool would you use to make this happen?

Content filters

URL filters

Firewall rules

Data monitoring apps

 Question 4:  Correct

You need to remotely wipe an android phone for one of your rogue users. Which endpoint
tool would you use?

Quarantining

Mobile device management (MDM)

MAM-WE

Mobile application management (MAM)

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1/27/23, 6:20 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

This application endpoint-protection rule implicitly denies unless added to the rule. Which
of the following processes describes this?

Content filtering

Whitelisting

Blacklisting

Quarantining

 Question 6:  Correct

You would like to enhance your incident-response process and automate as much of it as
possible. Which of the following elements would you need to include? (Select two.)

Runbooks

Whitelisting

Quarantining

Playbooks

Blacklisting

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1/27/23, 6:20 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

You have detected and identified a security event. What's the first step you should
complete?

Segmentation

Containment

Playbook

Isolation

 Question 8:  Correct

You need to limit a compromised application from causing harm to other assets in your
network. Which strategy should you employ?

Isolation

Containment

Segmentation

SOAR

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1/27/23, 6:20 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

You need to limit the impact of a security breach for a particular file server with sensitive
company data. Which strategy would you employ?

SOAR

Containment

Isolation

Segmentation

 Question 10:  Correct

As a security analyst, you are looking for a platform to compile all your security data
generated by different endpoints. Which tool would you use?

MDM

GDPR

SOAR

MAM

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1/27/23, 6:36 PM TestOut LabSim

12.3.11 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 6:35:43 pm • Time Spent: 13:04

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following components are the SIEM's way of letting the IT team know that a
pre-established parameter is not within the acceptable range?

Alerts

Trends

Sensors

Dashboard

 Question 2:  Correct

Some users report that frequent system crashes have started happening on their
workstations. Upon further investigation, you notice that these users all have the same
application installed that has been recently updated. Where would you go to conduct a root
cause analysis?

Security log

Application log

Network log

Firewall log

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1/27/23, 6:36 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

You suspect cache poisoning or spoofing has occurred on your network. Users are
complaining of strange web results and being redirected to undesirable sites. Which log
would help you determine what is going on?

DNS logs

Application logs

Security logs

Network logs

 Question 4:  Correct

You suspect a bad video driver is causing a user's system to randomly crash and reboot.
Where would you go to identify and confirm your suspicions?

SIP logs

Dump files

Application logs

Syslog

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1/27/23, 6:36 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following is a standard for sending log messages to a central logging server?

LC4

OVAL

Syslog

Nmap

 Question 6:  Correct

You are concerned that an attacker can gain access to your web server, make modifications
to the system, and alter the log files to hide his or her actions. Which of the following actions
would best protect the log files?

Configure permissions on the log files to


prevent access.

Take a hash of the log files.

Use syslog to send log entries to another


server.

Encrypt the log files.

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1/27/23, 6:36 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

Over the past few days, a server has gone offline and rebooted automatically several times.
You would like to see a record of when each of these restarts has occurred.
Which log type should you check?

Security

Performance

System

Firewall

 Question 8:  Correct

Which log file type is one of the most tedious to parse but can tell you exactly when users
log onto your site and what their location is?

System logs

Event logs

Web server logs

Authentication logs

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1/27/23, 6:36 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

You would like to get a feel for the amount of bandwidth you are using in your network.
What is the first thing you should do?

Create data points.

Choose a protocol.

Establish a baseline.

Set intervals.

 Question 10:  Correct

You are worried about email spoofing. What can be put throughout an email's header that
provides the originating email account or IP address and not a spoofed one?

X-headers

Timestamp

Data points

Metadata

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1/27/23, 6:51 PM TestOut LabSim

12.4.6 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 6:50:44 pm • Time Spent: 13:43

Score: 90% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which two types of service accounts must you use to set up event subscriptions?

Default machine account

Network server machine account

Local event administrators account

Collector computer account

Specific user service account

 Question 2:  Correct

By default, events received from the source computers in Event Subscription are saved in
which log?

Security log

Forwarded Events log

System log

Application log

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1/27/23, 6:51 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

You set up Event Subscription, but you are getting an overwhelming amount of events
recorded. What should you do?

Define a filter

Use the Runtime Status link

Use the default machine account

Choose the correct subscription type

 Question 4:  Incorrect

Which of the following are required to configure Event Subscription for event forwarding?
(Select three.)

Configure Runtime Status.

Give the subscription a name.

Start Windows Remote Management service on


both the source and collector computers.

Create a Windows firewall exception for HTTP


or HTTPS on all source computers.

Create a filter.

Start Windows Event Collector service on


collector computer.

Configure the destination log.

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1/27/23, 6:51 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

You are configuring a source-initiated subscription on the collector computer in Event


Viewer. Which of the following do you need to specify?

Computer

Content filter

Computer group

System log

 Question 6:  Correct

For some reason, your source computers are not communicating properly with the
collector. Which tool would you use to verify communications?

Event Viewer System log

Run wecutil qc

Runtime Status

Run winrm qc -q

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1/27/23, 6:51 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

For source-initiated subscriptions, which tool do you use to configure event forwarding?

Event Viewer

Filter settings

Service account

Group Policy

 Question 8:  Correct

You have a large number of source computers in your IT environment. Which subscription
type would be most efficient to employ?

HTTP or HTTPS

Source-initiated

Event forwarding

Collector-initiated

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1/27/23, 6:51 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

You want to set up a collector-initiated environment for event subscriptions. Which


commands would you run? (Select two.)

Run winrm qc /q on the collector computer.

Run wecutil qc /q on the source computer

Run winrm qc -q on the source computer.

Run wecutil qc on the collector computer.

Run winrm qc -q on the collector computer.

Run wecutil qc on the source computer

 Question 10:  Correct

You wish to configure collector-initiated event subscriptions. On the collector computer, in


which program do you configure a subscription?

Device Manager

Computer Management

Event Viewer

Local Group Policy

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1/27/23, 11:52 PM TestOut LabSim

12.5.10 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 11:52:12 pm • Time Spent: 03:59

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

What is the most important element related to evidence in addition to the evidence itself?

Photographs of the crime scene

Completeness

Witness testimony

Chain of custody document

 Question 2:  Correct

The chain of custody is used for which purpose?

Retaining evidence integrity

Identifying the owner of the evidence

Detailing the timeline between creation and


discovery of evidence

Listing people coming into contact with the


evidence

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1/27/23, 11:52 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

You have been asked to draft a document related to evidence-gathering that contains
details about personnel in possession and control of evidence from the time of discovery up
through the time of presentation in court. Which type of document is this?

Chain of custody

Rules of evidence

FIPS-140

CPS (certificate practice statement)

 Question 4:  Correct

How can a criminal investigator ensure the integrity of a removable media device found
while collecting evidence?

Reset the file attributes on the media to read-


only

Create a checksum using a hashing algorithm

Enable write protection

Write a log file to the media

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1/27/23, 11:52 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

As a security analyst, you are configuring your environment to be able to properly gather
digital forensic information. Which of the following must be set up to help create a timeline
of events?

Make sure all client computers have their time


set accurately by a time server.

Create tags for all your IT assets so that they


are easily identifiable and trackable.

Create a report template that helps you


describe the incident, how the evidence was
analyzed, and the conclusions you came to.

Create a solid chain of custody that proves that


no evidence-tampering has occurred.

 Question 6:  Correct

You want to store your computer-generated audit logs in case they are needed in the future
for examination or to be used as evidence in the event of a security incident. Which method
can you use to ensure that the logs you put in storage have not been altered when you use
them in the future?

Store the logs in an offsite facility.

Make two copies of each log and store each


copy in a different location.

Create a hash of each log.

Encrypt the logs.

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1/27/23, 11:52 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

What does the hashing of log files provide?

Sequencing of files and log entries to recreate a


timeline of events

Confidentiality to prevent unauthorized reading


of the files

Prevention of log files being altered or


overwritten

Proof that the files have not been altered

Prevention of the system running when the log


files are full

 Question 8:  Correct

Which method can you use to verify that a bit-level image copy of a hard drive is an exact
clone of the original hard drive collected as evidence?

Hashing

Serial number notation

Photographs

File directory listing

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1/27/23, 11:52 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

Your company is about to begin litigation, and you need to gather information. You need to
get emails, memos, invoices, and other electronic documents from employees. You'd also
like to get printed, physical copies of documents. Which tool would you use to gather this
information?

Chain of custody

Timeline of events

Legal hold

Timestamps

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1/27/23, 11:52 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

A forensic investigator gathers potential evidence from many software, hardware, and other
sources. There is an order in which the evidence needs to be gathered. The order of volatility
describes the process of capturing data based on the volatility of said data.
Place the following items in the correct order of volatility in the gathering of potential
evidence.
1

Random Access Memory (RAM)

Swap/page file

Hard drive

Remote logs

Archived data

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1/27/23, 11:59 PM TestOut LabSim

12.6.8 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/27/2023 11:58:58 pm • Time Spent: 05:54

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You need to find the text string New Haven in 100 documents in a folder structure on a
Linux server. Which command would you use?

grep

tail

head

chmod

 Question 2:  Correct

You would like to add some entries into the system log file. Which command would you
use?

cat

logger

chmod

grep

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1/27/23, 11:59 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

You would like to see only the last 15 lines of /home/user/logfile on your Linux machine.
Which command line interface (CLI) command would you use?

tail -n 15 /home/user/logfile

cat -n 15 /home/user/logfile

head -n 15 /home/user/logfile

tail -f /home/user/logfile

 Question 4:  Correct

A conditional statement that selects the statements to run depending on whether an


expression is true or false is known as which of the following?

If else statement

Else statement

If statement

Else if statement

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1/27/23, 11:59 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes a constant?

A named unit of data that is assigned a value.

A sequence of characters.

A group of related data values or elements.

Data or a value that does not change.

 Question 6:  Correct

!= or <> refers to Not Equal in which scripting language?

PowerShell

Python

Bash

PuTTY

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1/27/23, 11:59 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes PuTTy?

Open-source software that is developed and


supported by a group of volunteers.

A mechanism that allows you to interact with


the operating system directly.

A method that provides an encryption standard


that's widely used by internet websites.

A programming language for a special runtime


environment that automates the execution of
tasks.

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1/27/23, 11:59 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

Match each network sniffing method with the correct definition.


MAC spoofing

Allows an attacker's computer to connect to a switch using an authorized


MAC address.

MAC flooding

The process of intentionally overwhelming the CAM table with Ethernet


frames, each originating from a different MAC address.

ARP poisoning

The MAC address of the attacker can be associated with the IP address of
another host.

Port mirroring

Creates a duplicate of all network traffic on a port and sends it to another


device.

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1/27/23, 11:59 PM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

For some reason, when you capture packets as part of your monitoring, you aren't seeing
much traffic. What could be the reason?

Your machine is set to only capture HTTP


packets.

You have multiple MAC addresses associated


with one NIC.

Your NIC is set to broadcasting instead of


receiving.

You forgot to turn on promiscuous mode for


the network interface.

 Question 10:  Correct

You would like to simulate an attack on your network so you can test defense equipment
and discover vulnerabilities in order to mitigate risk. Which tool would you use to simulate
all the packets of an attack?

Etherflood

TCPReplay

Wireshark

TCPDump

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1/28/23, 12:05 AM TestOut LabSim

12.7.9 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/28/2023 12:05:25 am • Time Spent: 05:24

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following is a recovery site that may have electricity connected, but there are
no servers installed and no high-speed data lines present?

Hot site

Warm site

Cold site

Reciprocal agreement

 Question 2:  Correct

To prevent server downtime, which of the following components should be installed


redundantly in a server system?

Floppy disk drive

RAM modules

Power supply

CD or DVD drive

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1/28/23, 12:05 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

You have been asked to deploy a network solution that includes an alternate location where
operational recovery is provided within minutes of a disaster. Which of the following
strategies would you choose?

Hot site

Cold site

Hot spare

Warm site

 Question 4:  Correct

What is the primary security feature that can be designed into a network's infrastructure to
protect and support availability?

Redundancy

Periodic backups

Switches instead of hubs

Fiber optic cables

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1/28/23, 12:05 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Daily backups are completed at the ABD company location, and only a weekly backup is
maintained at another network location. Which of the following disaster recovery strategies
is ABD using?

Warm site

Cold site

Hot site

Hot spare

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following disk configurations might sustain losing two disks? (Select two.)

RAID 5

RAID 0

RAID 0+1

RAID 1+0

RAID 1

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1/28/23, 12:05 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

You have a computer with three hard disks. A RAID 0 volume uses space on Disk 1 and Disk
2. A RAID 1 volume uses space on Disk 2 and Disk 3.
Disk 2 fails. Which of the following is true?

Data on the RAID 1 volume is accessible; data


on the RAID 0 volume is not.

Data on both volumes is still accessible.

Data on the RAID 0 volume is accessible; data


on the RAID 1 volume is not.

Data on both volumes is not accessible.

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following drive configurations is fault tolerant?

RAID 0

RAID 5

Expanded volume set

Disk striping

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1/28/23, 12:05 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

You have been asked to implement a RAID 5 solution for your network. What is the
minimum number of hard disks that can be used to configure RAID 5?

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following network strategies connects multiple servers together so that if one
server fails, the others immediately take over its tasks, preventing a disruption in service?

Storage Area Networks (SANs)

Adapter bonding

Clustering

Mirroring

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1/28/23, 12:22 AM TestOut LabSim

12.8.12 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/28/2023 12:22:29 am • Time Spent: 16:01

Score: 80% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

A system failure has occurred. Which of the following restoration processes would result in
the fastest restoration of all data to its most current state?

Restore the full backup and the last differential


backup

Restore the full backup and all incremental


backups

Restore the full backup and the last


incremental backup

Restore the full backup and all differential


backups

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1/28/23, 12:22 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

Your disaster recovery plan calls for backup media to be stored at a different location. The
location is a safe deposit box at the local bank. Because of this, the disaster recovery plan
specifies that you choose a method that uses the least amount of backup media, but also
allows you to quickly back up and restore files.
Which backup strategy would BEST meet the disaster recovery plan?

Perform a full backup once per week and an


incremental backup the other days of the week.

Perform a full backup once per week and a


differential backup the other days of the week.

Perform a full backup once per month and an


incremental backup the other days of the
month.

Perform a full backup once per year and a


differential backup for the rest of the days in
the year.

Perform a full backup each day of the week.

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1/28/23, 12:22 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

Your network uses the following backup strategy:


Full backups every Sunday night
Differential backups Monday night through Saturday night
On Thursday morning, the storage system fails. How many restore operations would you
need to perform to recover all of the data?

 Question 4:  Correct

Which backup strategy backs up all files from a computer's file system, regardless of
whether the file's archive bit is set or not, and then marks them as backed up?

Copy

Differential

Full

Incremental

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1/28/23, 12:22 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Your network performs a full backup every night. Each Sunday, the previous night's backup
tape is archived.
On a Wednesday morning, the storage system fails. How many restore operations would
you need to perform to recover all of the data?

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1/28/23, 12:22 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following describes a system image backup? (Select two.)

A system image only contains the operating


system, installed programs, drivers, and user
profile settings.

A system image includes only specified files and


folders backed up to a compressed file.

A system image does not include operating


system files, program files, encrypted files, files
in the Recycle Bin, user profile settings, or
temporary files.

A system image backup consists of an entire


volume backed up to .vhd files.

A system image contains everything on the


system volume, including the operating system,
installed programs, drivers, and user data files.

 Question 7:  Incorrect

Which of the following are backed up during an incremental backup?

Only files that have changed since the last full


or incremental backup.

Only files that have changed since the last full


or differential backup.

Only files that have changed since the last full


backup.

Only files that are new since the last full or


incremental backup.

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1/28/23, 12:22 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Incorrect

Which of the following is true of an incremental backup's process?

Backs up all files with the archive bit set and


does not reset the archive bit.

Backs up all files regardless of the archive bit


and does not reset the archive bit.

Backs up all files regardless of the archive bit


and resets the archive bit.

Backs up all files with the archive bit set and


resets the archive bit.

 Question 9:  Correct

Your network uses the following backup strategy:


Full backups every Sunday night
Incremental backups Monday night through Saturday night
On a Thursday morning, the storage system fails. How many restore operations would you
need to perform to recover all of the data?

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1/28/23, 12:22 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

Why should backup media be stored offsite?

To reduce the possibility of theft

To prevent the same disaster from affecting


both the network and the backup media

To comply with government regulation

To improve the efficiency of the restoration


process

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1/28/23, 12:30 AM TestOut LabSim

13.1.9 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/28/2023 12:30:04 am • Time Spent: 06:07

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Your company is preparing to enter into a partner relationship with another organization. It
will be necessary for the information systems used by each organization to connect and
integrate with each other.
Which of the following is of primary importance as you take steps to enter into this partner
relationship?

Ensure that all aspects of the relationship are


agreed upon in writing

Ensure that the integration process maintains


the security of each organization's network

Ensure that both organizations have similar


incident-response procedures

Identify how data ownership is to be


determined

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1/28/23, 12:30 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

Your organization entered into an interoperability agreement (IA) with another organization
a year ago. As a part of this agreement, a federated trust was established between your
domain and the partner domain.
The partnership has been in the ongoing operations phase for almost nine months now. As
a security administrator, which tasks should you complete during this phase? (Select two.)

Draft an MOU document

Disable user and groups accounts used by the


partner organization to access your
organization's data

Verify compliance with the IA documents

Negotiate the BPO agreement

Conduct periodic vulnerability assessments

 Question 3:  Correct

When you inform an employee that he or she is being terminated, which of the following is
the most important activity?

Allow him or her to collect their personal items

Give him or her two weeks' notice

Allow him or her to complete their current


work projects

Disable his or her network access

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1/28/23, 12:30 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 4:  Correct

Which of the following is defined as a contract that prescribes the technical support or
business parameters a provider bestows to its client?

Certificate practice statement

Service level agreement

Final audit report

Mutual aid agreement

 Question 5:  Correct

What is a service level agreement (SLA)?

A contract with an ISP for a specific level of


bandwidth.

A contract with a legal entity to limit your asset-


loss liability.

A guarantee of a specific level of service.

An agreement to support another company in


the event of a disaster.

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1/28/23, 12:30 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 6:  Correct

Match each interoperability agreement document on the left with the appropriate
description on the right. Each document may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Specifies exactly which services are to be performed by the third party

SLA

Creates an agreement with a vendor to provide services on an ongoing basis

BPO

Summarizes which party is responsible for performing specific tasks

MOU

Documents how data is to be shared Defines how disputes are managed

ISA SLA

Specifies a preset discounted pricing structure

BPO

 Question 7:  Correct

In a high-security environment, which of the following is the most important concern when
removable media is no longer needed?

Reuse

Destruction

Purging

Labeling

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1/28/23, 12:30 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

How often should change-control management be implemented?

Only when changes are made that affect senior


management.

At regular intervals throughout the year.

Only when a production system is altered


greatly.

Any time a production system is altered.

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is the primary purpose of change control?

Create detailed documentation

Prevent unmanaged change

Keep senior management apprised of the


organization's state of security

Increase security

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1/28/23, 12:30 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

Change control should be used to oversee and manage changes over which aspect of an
organization?

IT hardware and software

Every aspect

Personnel and policies

Physical environment

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1/28/23, 12:35 AM TestOut LabSim

13.2.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/28/2023 12:35:40 am • Time Spent: 04:19

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Your company has developed and implemented countermeasures for the greatest risks to
their assets. However, there is still some risk left. What is the remaining risk called?

Exposure

Loss

Risk

Residual risk

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1/28/23, 12:35 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

You have conducted a risk analysis to protect a key company asset. You identify the
following values:
Asset value = 400
Exposure factor = 75
Annualized rate of occurrence = .25
What is the annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?

25

75

100

175

475

 Question 3:  Correct

What is the average number of times that a specific risk is likely to be realized in a single
year?

Annualized loss expectancy

Exposure factor

Estimated maximum downtime

Annualized rate of occurrence

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1/28/23, 12:35 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 4:  Correct

When analyzing assets, which analysis method assigns financial values to assets?

Qualitative

Acceptance

Quantitative

Transfer

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following best defines single loss expectancy (SLE)?

The total cost of all countermeasures


associated with protecting against a given
vulnerability.

The statistical probability of a malicious event.

The monetary value of a single employee's loss


of productivity due to a successful attack.

The total monetary loss associated with a


single occurrence of a threat.

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1/28/23, 12:35 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 6:  Correct

A file server with data is consider which of the following asset types?

Neither tangible nor intangible

Tangible

Both tangible and intangible

Intangible

 Question 7:  Correct

What is the primary goal of business continuity planning?

Minimize decision-making during the


development process

Minimize the organization's risk of service


delays and interruptions

Protect an organization from major computer


services failure

Maintain business operations with reduced or


restricted infrastructure capabilities or
resources

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1/28/23, 12:35 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

A broken water pipe that floods the reception area would be considered which type of
threat?

External

Disaster

Natural

Internal

 Question 9:  Correct

When should a hardware device be replaced in order to minimize downtime?

Once every year

Just before its MTBF is reached

When its performance drops below 75%


efficiency

Only after its first failure

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1/28/23, 12:35 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following terms describes the actual time required to successfully recover
operations in the event of an incident?

Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)

Recovery point objective (RPO)

Mean time to repair (MTTR)

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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1/28/23, 1:19 AM TestOut LabSim

13.3.8 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/28/2023 1:18:24 am • Time Spent: 30:44

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

You have been receiving a lot of phishing emails sent from the domain kenyan.msn.pl. Links
within these emails open new browser windows at youneedit.com.pl.
You want to make sure that these emails never reach your inbox, but you also want to make
sure that emails from other senders are not affected.
What should you do?

Add pl to the email blacklist.

Add msn.pl to the email blacklist.

Add youneedit.com.pl to the email blacklist.

Add kenyan.msn.pl to the email blacklist.

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1/28/23, 1:19 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

You install a new Linux distribution on a server in your network. The distribution includes a
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) daemon that is enabled by default when the system
boots. The SMTP daemon does not require authentication to send email messages.
Which type of email attack is this server susceptible to?

Phishing

Open SMTP relay

Viruses

Sniffing

 Question 3:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes an email security gateway?

It requires the use of a public key certificate.

It provides a form of identity verification.

It monitors emails that originate from an


organization.

It accepts mail and forwards it to other mail


servers.

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1/28/23, 1:19 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 4:  Correct

Users in your organization receive email messages informing them that suspicious activity
has been detected on their bank accounts. They are directed to click a link in the email to
verify their online banking username and password. The URL in the link is in the .ru top-level
DNS domain.
Which kind of attack has occurred?

Phishing

Virus

Buffer overflow

Open SMTP relay

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes phishing?

Unwanted and unsolicited email sent to many


recipients.

Malware that often uses email as its


distribution mechanism.

An email server that accepts mail and forwards


it to other mail servers.

A fraudulent email that claims to be from a


trusted organization.

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1/28/23, 1:19 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following would you do to help protect against phishing?

Only open emails if you recognize the sender.

In the email client, disable preview screens.

Don't post your full email address anywhere on


the web.

Don't click on an unsubscribe link at the


bottom of an unsolicited email.

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following mechanisms can you use to add encryption to email? (Select two.)

HTTPS

PGP

Secure Shell

S/MIME

Reverse DNS

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1/28/23, 1:19 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

If an SMTP server is not properly and securely configured, it can be hijacked and used
maliciously as an SMTP relay agent. Which activity could result if this happens?

Data diddling

Spamming

Salami attack

Virus hoax

 Question 9:  Correct

Which type of malicious activity can be described as numerous unwanted and unsolicited
email messages sent to a wide range of victims?

Brute force

Hijacking

Spamming

Trojan horse

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1/28/23, 1:19 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

An attacker sends an unwanted and unsolicited email message to multiple recipients with
an attachment that contains malware.
Which kind of attack has occurred in this scenario?

Phishing

Spam

Repudiation attack

Open SMTP relay

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1/28/23, 1:28 AM TestOut LabSim

14.1.7 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/28/2023 1:28:01 am • Time Spent: 05:05

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following terms identifies the process of reviewing log files for suspicious
activity and threshold compliance?

CompSec

Auditing

Phishing

Scanning

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following is a collection of recorded data that may include details about logons,
object access, and other activities deemed important by your security policy and is often
used to detect unwanted and unauthorized user activity?

CPS (Certificate Practice Statement)

Audit trail

Chain of custody

Syslog

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1/28/23, 1:28 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 3:  Correct

A recreation of historical events is made possible through which of the following?

Audit trails

Penetration testing

Incident reports

Audits

 Question 4:  Correct

Which type of audit is performed by either a consultant or an auditing firm employee?

External audit

Internal audit

Financial audit

Usage audit

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following is true concerning internal audits?

The auditor works independently.

The process is very formal.

They are always highly rigorous.

They are generally nonobjective.

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1/28/23, 1:28 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following standards relates to the use of credit cards?

Financial audit

PoLP

SOX

PCI DSS

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following describes privilege auditing?

An employee is granted the minimum


privileges required to perform the duties of his
or her position.

Users' and groups' rights and privileges are


checked to guard against creeping privileges.

Users' activities are logged to document


incidents for security investigations and
incident response.

No single user is granted sufficient privileges to


compromise the security of an entire
environment.

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1/28/23, 1:28 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 8:  Correct

Which component of an IT security audit evaluates defense in depth and IT-related fraud?

User access and rights review

Financial audit

Risk evaluation

External audit

 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following is a government audit by the SEC that relates to internal controls and
focuses on IT security, access controls, data backup, change management, and physical
security?

PoLP

PCI DSS

Financial audit

SOX

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1/28/23, 1:28 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following types of auditing verifies that systems are utilized appropriately and
in accordance with written organizational policies?

Usage audit

PoLP

Internal audit

Financial audit

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1/28/23, 1:32 AM TestOut LabSim

14.2.5 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/28/2023 1:32:09 am • Time Spent: 02:58

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Which of the following are control categories? (Select three.)

Technical

Compensating

Managerial

Physical

Deterrent

Preventative

Operational

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1/28/23, 1:32 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

Which of the following BEST describes compensating controls?

Attempts to fix any controls that aren't working


properly.

Partial control solution that is implemented


when a control cannot fully meet a
requirement.

Discourages malicious actors from attempting


to breach a network.

Monitors network activity and informs the


security team of a potential security event.

 Question 3:  Correct

Which type of control is used to discourage malicious actors from attempting to breach a
network?

Preventative

Detective

Physical

Deterrent

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1/28/23, 1:32 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 4:  Correct

Which type of control makes use of policies, DPRs, and BCPs?

Preventative

Managerial

Technical

Operational

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following is an example of a preventative control type?

An advanced network appliance

Real-time monitoring alerts

Intrusion detection systems

Network monitoring applications

 Question 6:  Correct

Which ISO publication lays out guidelines for selecting and implementing security controls?

27001

31000

27701

27002

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1/28/23, 1:32 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

Which of the following frameworks introduced the first cloud-centric individual certification?

NIST

CSA

CCM

ISO

 Question 8:  Correct

Which type of report is used for marketing and letting future partners know that compliance
has been met?

ISO 27001

ISO 31000

SOC Type III

SOC Type II

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 Question 9:  Correct

Which of the following security frameworks is used by the federal government and all its
departments, including the Department of Defense?

NIST

SOC Type II/III

CSA

ISO

 Question 10:  Correct

Which SOC type reports focus on predetermined controls that are audited and a detailed
report that attests to a company's compliance?

II

III

IV

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1/28/23, 1:40 AM TestOut LabSim

14.3.10 Section Quiz


Candidate: LAZARUS OWOBU (699320225)
Date: 1/28/2023 1:40:11 am • Time Spent: 06:59

Score: 100% Passing Score: 80%

 Question 1:  Correct

Your organization has discovered that an overseas company has reverse-engineered and
copied your main product and is now selling a counterfeit version.
Which of the following BEST describes the type of consequence your organization has
suffered?

IP theft

Escalation

Fines

Reputation damage

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1/28/23, 1:40 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 2:  Correct

Your organization has suffered a data breach, and it was made public. As a result, stock
prices have fallen, as consumers no longer trust the organization.
Which of the following BEST describes the type of consequence your organization has
suffered due to the breach?

Notifications

Identity theft

Reputation damage

IP theft

 Question 3:  Correct

If you lose your wallet or purse and it ends up in the wrong hands, several pieces of
information could be used to do personal harm to you. These pieces of information include
the following:
Name and address
Driver license number
Credit card numbers
Date of birth
Which of the following classifications does this information fall into?

Private restricted information

Private internal information

Personally identifiable information (PII)

Proprietary information

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1/28/23, 1:40 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 4:  Correct

The government and military use the following information classification system:
Unclassified
Sensitive But Unclassified
Confidential
Secret
Top Secret
Drag each classification on the left to the appropriate description on the right.
The lowest level of classified information used by the military. Release of this information
could cause damage to military efforts.

Confidential

If this information is released, it poses grave consequences to national security.

Top Secret

This information can be accessed by the public and poses no security threat.

Unclassified

If this information is disclosed, it could cause some harm, but not a national disaster.

Sensitive But Unclassified

If this information is disclosed, it could cause severe and permanent damage to military
actions.

Secret

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1/28/23, 1:40 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 5:  Correct

Which of the following laws was designed to protect a child's information on the internet?

COPPA

GDPR

CCPA

GLBA

 Question 6:  Correct

Which of the following government acts protects medical records and personal health
information?

HIPAA

ACA

FISMA

FACTA

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1/28/23, 1:40 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 7:  Correct

HIPAA is a set of federal regulations that define security guidelines. What do HIPAA
guidelines protect?

Integrity

Privacy

Non-repudiation

Availability

 Question 8:  Correct

Which of the following is the LEAST reliable means of cleaning or purging media?

Drive controller hardware-level formatting

Overwriting every sector with alternating 1s


and 0s

Degaussing

OS low-level formatting

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1/28/23, 1:40 AM TestOut LabSim

 Question 9:  Correct

When you dispose of a computer or sell used hardware, it is crucial that none of the data on
the hard disks can be recovered.
Which of the following actions can you take to ensure that no data is recoverable?

Delete all files from all the hard disks in the


computer.

Reformat all the hard disks in the computer.

Encrypt all data on the hard disks.

Damage the hard disks so badly that all data


remanence is gone.

 Question 10:  Correct

Which of the following data destruction techniques uses a punch press or hammer system
to crush a hard disk?

Pulverizing

Shredding

Pulping

Purging

Degaussing

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