03/04/2023 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023

MM : 720 CST-1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions :

(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.

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Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
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(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
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PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
ia

SECTION-A 3. Which among the following represents the order

1. The characteristic equation of the logic circuit of energy of gamma decay?
(1) eV (2) MeV
shown in the figure will be
(3) keV (4) meV
@

4. A block of mass m is oscillating simple

harmonically while attached with two identical
springs each of spring constant k as shown in the
figure. Time period of the block is
(1) ( A + B )  (B + C ) (2) A  B + B  C

(3) AB + BC (4) ( A  B ) + (B  C )

2. A silicon diode is doped with phosphorous. Then
choose the correct option. (Symbols have their
m m
usual meaning) (1) 2 (2) 2
k 2k
(1) ne > nh (2) ne < nh
m 2m
(3) ne = nh (4) ne = ni (3)  (4) 2
k k

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CST-1_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

5. If two thin convex lenses having focal lengths 10. Boxes A and B are in contact on a horizontal
f1 = 20 cm and f2 = 30 cm are placed in contact frictionless surface as shown in figure. Box A has
with each other, then equivalent power of this mass 20 kg and box B has mass 5 kg. A
combination of lenses will be horizontal force of 100 N is exerted on box A,
then the magnitude of force that box A exerts on
box B is

(1) 40 N (2) 20 N
(1) 12 D (2) 6 D (3) 60 N (4) 80 N
5 100 11. A hydraulic press contains 0.25 m3 of oil. What is
(3) D (4) D
6 12 decrement in volume of the oil when it is
6. A plane mirror is placed near a convex lens subjected to pressure increase of about 1.6 × 10 7
Pa? (Bulk modulus of oil B = 5 × 109 Pa)
( = 1.5, R1 = R2 = 30 cm) at a distance ‘d’ from
lens as shown in the figure. An object is placed at (1) 0.80 L (2) 1.2 L
a distance of 30 cm in front of lens. For what (3) 0.96 L (4) 3.2 L
value of ‘d’ final image formed will coincide with 12. A 15 kg solid gold statue is raised from bottom
the object itself? of sea. The tension in hoisting cable when
statue is completely under water will be (Given
density of gold 19.3 g/cc and that of sea water
1.03 × 10 3 kg/m3, g = 10 m s –2)
(1) 142 N (2) 129 N
(3) 158 N (4) 103 N
(1) 30 cm
13. A surveyor uses a steel tape measuring 50 m
(2) 65 cm
long at temperature of 20°C. What is length of
(3) Both (1) and (2) the tape when temperature is 35°C? Coefficient
(4) Image can’t coincide of volume expansion of tape material is 3.6 × 10–
5 K–1.
7. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is rolling with 10 m/s
up an inclined plane of inclination 37° without (1) 51.003 m (2) 50.009 m
slipping. The maximum height upto which it will (3) 50.800 m (4) 50.117 m
roll is 14. A hot copper pot of mass 2 kg is at temperature
(1) 14 m (2) 5 m of 150°C. You pour 100 gm of water at 25°C into
(3) 7 m (4) 10 m the pot. If the only heat interaction is between pot
and water, then the final temperature of water will
8. A wheel starts rotating with an initial angular be
speed 5 rad/s and retardation 12.5 rad/s2. The
(Given CCu = 390 J kg–1 K–1 and Cw = 4200 J kg–1
number of revolutions made by wheel before the
K–1)
wheel comes to rest are
(1) 90°C (2) 100°C
 2
(1) (2) (3) 106°C (4) 120°C
2 3
15. A room contains about 2500 moles of air. What is
 
change in internal energy of air when it is cooled
(3) (4)
4 3 from 35°C to 26°C at constant pressure of
9. If the tension in the string is changed by 1%. The 1 atm? Treat air to be ideal gas with  = 1.40
change in the transverse wave velocity will be given that R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1
(1) 0.5% (2) 1.5% (1) 3.52 × 105 J (2) 2.59 × 105 J
(3) 1% (4) 0.25% (3) 4.68 × 105 J (4) 6.41 × 105 J

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-1_(Code-A)

16. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom transit n 2 n

from fifth energy level to ground level. The (1) (2)
n +1 n +1
velocity that atom acquired as a result of photon
emission will be n 2 n
(3) (4)
(m = mass of hydrogen atom and R is Rydberg ( n + 1) 2
( n + 1)2
constant)
22. A body dropped from the top of a tower, covers a
24m 24hR distance 5y0 in the last second of its journey,
(1) (2)
25hR 25m where y0 is the distance covered in first second.
5hR 3hR Then the time for which it remains in air is
(3) (4)
36m 4m (1) 2 s (2) 3 s
17. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery (3) 4 s (4) 5 s
of potential ‘V’. After sometime, the battery is
23. If gravitational potential on the surface of earth is
disconnected and space between the plates is
V0, then its value on the centre of earth is
completely filled with dielectric having dielectric
constant K. The energy stored in it becomes V0
(1) V0 (2)
(1) K2 times (2) K times 2

1 3 5
(3) times (4) Remains same (3) V0 (4) V0
K 2 2

18. In a region electric potential varies as V = 3x2y + 24. When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral
3xy2 (in SI units). The magnitude of electric field plate, then the charge which will appear on the
at a point whose coordinates are (2, 2) m will be plate is equal to
(1) 36 V/m (2) 72 V/m (1) –1.6 C (2) +1.6 C

(3) 36 2 V/m (4) 72 2 V/m (3) –1019 C (4) +1019 C

19. In the given circuit the net resistance between 25. A small block of mass m and charge –q is placed
points A and B is on an smooth inclined plane at height h. A
uniform electric field E0 exist in that region
parallel to the inclined surface as shown. If the
block is released from rest, then the magnitude of
momentum of the block, when it reaches to the
bottom of incline
(1) 36  (2) 12 
(3) 18  (4) 9 
20. A straight section PQ of a circuit lies along the
a a
x-axis from x = − to x = and carries a
2 2
steady current i. The magnetic field due to this 1
section PQ at a point y = +a will be (1) ( 2m 2 gh ) 2

1
(1) Proportional to a (2) Proportional to 1
a (2) ( 4mE0qh ) 2
(3) Proportional to a2 (4) Zero
1
21. The interference pattern is obtained with two (3) ( m gh + E qmh )
2
0
2

coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the

1
−I
I
interference pattern, the ratio max min will be
Imax + Imin
(4) ( 2m2 gh + 4mE0qh ) 2

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CST-1_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

26. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum 33. A container of value 40 L is filled with hydrogen
(1) Increases as we move from UV rays to gas. The total average kinetic energy of
microwaves translatory motion of its molecules is 1.53 × 104 J.
The pressure of hydrogen gas in the cylinder is
(2) Decreases as we move from UV rays to
microwaves (1) 2.55 × 105 Pa (2) 2.55 × 107 Pa
(3) Is same for all rays (3) 4 × 105 Pa (4) 38.25 × 104 Pa
(4) Is maximum for visible rays 34. A circuit that contains three identical resistors with
27. A particle projected from ground with the velocity resistance R = 10  each, two identical capacitors
5i + 7 j . If the particle is in projectile motion, then with capacitance C = 2 F, two identical inductors
with inductance L = 2 mH and a battery as shown
the velocity of the particle when it touches the
in the figure. The current I through battery long
ground will be
time after closing the switch is
(1) −5i + 7 j (2) −5i − 7 j

(3) 5i − 7 j (4) 5i + 7 j

28. A bob of mass m attached to a string of length ,

performing uniform circular motion on a
(1) Zero (2) 6 A
horizontal table. The work done by the tension
force during one complete rotation will be (3) 4 A (4) 2 A
(1) Zero (2) mg 35. Two amplifiers of voltage gain 10 and 20 are
cascaded (connected in series). An input signal
mg of voltage 0.1 V is applied at input of leftmost
(3) (4) 2mg
2 amplifier and output is taken at the output of
rightmost amplifier. The output voltage will be
29. If a magnetic field exists in space B = B1i + B2 j
then the plane through which magnetic flux will (1) 10 V (2) 20 V
be zero is (3) 100 V (4) 200 V
(1) x-y SECTION-B
(2) y-z 5
36. Refractive index of liquid filled inside a pond is .
(3) x-z 3
(4) All planes will have magnetic flux A light source is placed in water at a depth of 6 m.
30. The magnetic susceptibility has unit Minimum radius of the disc placed on water
surface, so that the light of source can be stopped,
(1) henry (2) Dimensionless
is
(3) tesla (4) weber per meter
(1) 6.7 m (2) 4.5 m
31. In an experiment, the percentage error occurred
(3) 2.7 m (4) 8.5 m
in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C
and D are 2%, 1%, 3% and 2% respectively. 37. The position of a particle is given by
Then the maximum percentage error in the r = i + 2 j − kˆ and its linear momentum is given
1 1 1
−
calculation of Z, where Z = A2B 2C 2D 4 , is by p = 2i + 4 j + 2kˆ . The angular momentum
(1) 4% (2) 8% about origin is perpendicular to the
(3) 3.5% (4) 6.5% (1) x-axis
32. Taking into account of the significant figures, the (2) z-axis
value of (99.99 kg + 3.3 kg) is (3) y-axis
(1) 103.2 kg (2) 103.3 kg (4) Line making equal angles with all the three
(3) 103.29 kg (4) 103 kg axes

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-1_(Code-A)

38. A wave of wavelength 2 m is superposed on its −q 2 −q 2

reflected wave to form a stationary wave. A node (1) (2)
4 0 R 160 R
is located at x = 3 m. The next node will be
located at x = q2 q2
(3) (4)
(1) 3.25 m (2) 3.50 m 4 0 R 160 R

(3) 3.75 m (4) 4 m 44. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the two slits
39. An upward normal force exerted by the floor is are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m
640 N on an elevator passenger whose weight is away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500
800 N. The magnitude and direction of the nm is used. The width of each slit for obtaining
acceleration of elevator is (g = 10 m/s2) ten maxima of double-slit within the central
maxima of single-slit diffraction pattern is
(1) 5 m s–2 upwards (2) 3 m s–2 downwards
(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.1 mm
(3) 2 m s–2 downwards (4) 14.4 m s–2 upwards
40. Water enters a house through a pipe with an (3) 0.5 mm (4) 0.02 mm
inside diameter 2 cm at an absolute pressure of 45. When the energy of the incident radiation is
4 × 105 Pa. A 1 cm diameter pipe connected to it increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the
leads to second floor bathroom 5.0 m above, photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface is
when flow speed at inlet pipe entering house is increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work
1.5 m/s, what is pressure in pipe in bathroom? function of the metal is
(1) 3.3 × 105 N m–2 (2) 6.2 × 104 N m–2 (1) 0.65 eV (2) 1.0 eV
(3) 2.3 × 105 N m–2 (4) 1.2 × 105 N m–2 (3) 1.3 eV (4) 1.5 eV
41. 2 moles of ideal gas undergoes an isothermal 46. A particle with charge q and mass m is projected
expansion at 500 K, its volume changes from 3 with kinetic energy k into the region of a uniform
litre to 10 litre. How much heat (nearly) is added magnetic field B between two plates as shown
to the gas? (take log10 3 = 0.477) below. If the particle just miss collision with the
(1) 10 kJ (2) 18 kJ opposite plate, then value of B is
(3) 6 kJ (4) 5 kJ
42. The following graph shows the variation of
terminal potential difference ‘V’ across a
combination of four cells in series with a resistor
versus the current I,

2k 2kd
(1) (2)
qmd qm

2km 2kq
(3) (4)
qd md

The current at which power dissipation of circuit 47. A body is projected vertically upward from the
becomes maximum is surface of the earth with a speed equal to half the
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A escape velocity. The maximum height attained by
the body in terms of R is (R is radius of the earth)
(3) 4 A (4) 0.5 A
R R
43. Work done to increase the size of a hollow (1) (2)
3 6
sphere formed by an arrangement of total charge
‘q’ uniformly distributed from radius R to 2R is (3) R (4) 2R

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CST-1_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

48. A block of mass 2 kg gain velocity 20 m/s due to 49. If time (T), energy (E) and acceleration (a) are
an impulse imparted to it and now it is moving on chosen as fundamental physical quantities,
a rough horizontal surface between two vertical dimensions of mass is
walls as shown in the figure. Net displacement of
(1) [T–2E1a–2] (2) [T–1E1a–2]
body when it comes to rest will be, (Given, that
distance between walls is 10 m and co-efficient (3) [T–2E2a–2] (4) [T2E1a–2]
of kinetic friction is 0.2 and collision between the  5 
50. When a voltage VS = 100 2 sin  t + V
block and walls is perfectly elastic).  12 
applied to an ac circuit, the current in the circuit is
 
found to be i = sin  t +  A, then average
 4
power consumed is

(1) 100 6 W (2) 25 6 W

(1) 20 m (2) 10 m 100

(3) 25 2 W (4) W
(3) 5 m (4) Zero 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 54. The percentage of vacant space in the 2D square

51. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when unit cell shown below is
100 ml of 16.98% (w/v) solution of AgNO3 is
mixed with 100 ml of 11.9% (w/v) KBr?
(Given, atomic weight, Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O =
16, K = 39, Br = 80)
(1) 18.8 g (2) 11.9 g
(3) 5.9 g (4) 25.6 g
52. The increasing order of oxidation states of
chlorine in the given molecules is (1) 39.5%

(1) Cl2, HCl, HClO3, HClO4 (2) 21.5%

(2) HCl, Cl2, HClO3, HClO4
(3) 11.5%
(3) HClO4, HClO3, Cl2, HCl
(4) 78.5%
(4) Cl2, HCl, HClO4, HClO3
53. Consider the following statements 55. In which of the following reactions, standard
a. Dihydrogen does not act as reducing agent. entropy change is positive?
b. Dihydrogen on reaction with CO in presence (1) 3H2(g) + N2(g) → 2NH3(g)
of cobalt gives methanol.
3
c. Mixture of CO and H2 is called syngas. (2) Al2O3 ( s ) ⎯⎯

→ 2Al ( s ) + O2 ( g)
2
The correct statements are
1
(3) CO ( g) + O2 ( g) ⎯⎯→ CO2 ( g)
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b only 2

(3) a and c only 1

(4) Ca ( s ) + O2 ( g) ⎯⎯→ CaO ( s )
(4) b and c only 2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-1_(Code-A)

56. Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Purification 62. Statement I: Maltose reduces Tollens reagent.
process) employed in the purification of the
Statement II: Maltose is a disaccharide.
substances and select the correct option.
In light of the above statements, choose the
List-I (Metal) List-II (Purification)
correct answer.
a. Zn (i) Vapour phase refining (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b. Sn (ii) Electrolytic refining (2) Both statement I and statement II are
c. Cu (iii) Liquation incorrect

d. Zr (iv) Distillation (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is

incorrect
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
correct
57. The lattice having ABC ABC ... type pattern has
63. Consider the following statements
(1) Simple cubic unit cell
(2) Face centered cubic unit cell a. Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror
images
(3) Body-centered cubic unit cell
(4) Hexagonal close packing unit cell b. Butan-2-ol is a chiral compound

58. Aqueous solution of which of the following salts c. A mixture containing two enantiomers in
will be alkaline in nature? equal proportions will have zero optical
(1) NaCl (2) NH4Cl rotation.
(3) CH3COOK (4) KNO3 The correct statements are
59. Correct order of stability of the given carbonium (1) a and b only (2) b and c only
ions is
(3) a, b and c (4) a and c only
64. Consider the following species

CoF6 3–
3– 3–
Fe ( CN )  Mn ( CN ) 
 6  6
(i) ( ii) ( iii )

The correct order of spin only magnetic moment

value will be
(1) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (2) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (1) (i) > (iii) > (ii) (2) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(3) (i) > (iii) > (ii) (4) (iii) > (i) > (ii) (3) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (4) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
60. The compound which will release maximum 65. The compound which will react fastest with Lucas
amount of energy on catalytic hydrogenation is
reagent is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
61. The pair of compounds which can be
(3) (4)
distinguished by haloform reaction is

66. In which of the following species, the central

(1) atom is not sp3 hybridized?
(2) (1) CH4 (2) SO2–
4

(3) PCl3 (4) SF4

67. Which among the following is not a Lewis base?
(3)
(1) NH3 (2) H2O
(4)
(3) AlCl3 (4) CH3NH2
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CST-1_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

68. Unit of rate constant of a zero order reaction is 76. Which of the following oxoacids of sulphur
(1) mol L–1s–1 (2) mol–1Ls–1 contains peroxide linkage?
(1) Sulphurous acid
(3) s–1 (4) mol–2Ls–1
(2) Sulphuric acid
69. Process of converting a precipitate into a
colloidal sol in called (3) Peroxodisulphuric acid

(1) Peptisation (2) Electrodialysis (4) Pyrosulphuric acid

(3) Dialysis (4) Coagulation 77. An amine A reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to
form a product P which is insoluble in KOH.
70. In 0.5 molal solution that contains 1 mole of a Amine A can be
solute, there is
(1) (CH3)3N (2) (C2H5)2NH
(1) 500 g of solvent (2) 1000 g of solvent
(3) C2H5NH2 (4) CH3NH2
(3) 2000 g of solvent (4) 1000 mL of solvent
78. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in
71. An alkane ‘A’ with molecular formula C6H14 forms nature?
two products on monochlorination. Alkane ‘A’ is (1) Na2O (2) N2O
(1) 2-Methylpentane (2) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane (3) Al2O3 (4) CO
(3) 3-Methylpentane (4) 2,2-Dimethylbutane 79. If radius of third Bohr orbit of the Li2+ ion is 158.7
72. Which of the following compounds is most acidic pm, what is the radius of second Bohr orbit of
in nature? He+ ion?

(1) o-Nitrophenol (2) p-Cresol (1) 52.9 pm (2) 105.8 pm

(3) 26.5 pm (4) 211.6 pm
(3) Phenol (4) Ethanol
80. Which among the following is correct order of
73. All of the following are the examples of
ionic mobility?
tranquilizers, except
(1) Cs+(aq) > K+(aq) > Rb+(aq) > Na+(aq)
(1) Equanil (2) Chlordiazepoxide
> Li+(aq)
(3) Meprobamate (4) Chloramphenicol (2) Li+(aq) > Na+(aq) > K+(aq) > Rb+(aq)
74. Choose the option containing monomer of Nylon > Cs+(aq)
6 (3) K+(aq) > Na+(aq) > Li+(aq) > Cs+(aq)
(1) CF2 = CF2 > Rb+(aq)

(2) H2N – CH2 – COOH and H2N(CH2)5COOH (4) Cs+(aq) > Rb+(aq) > K+(aq) > Na+(aq)
> Li+(aq)
81. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is
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(1) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(2) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4) (4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
82. Which one is incorrect statement?
75. White Phosphorus on reaction with thionyl
chloride gives (1) Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate

(1) PCl5 and SO2 (2) Photochemical smog is called reducing smog

(2) POCl3 and SO2 (3) Classical smog is a mixture of smoke, fog
and sulphur dioxide
(3) PCl3, SO2 and S2Cl2
(4) Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and
(4) POCl3, SO3 and S2Cl2 sunny climate
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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-1_(Code-A)

83. The ratio of rms speed of N2 molecule to the 87. Standard reduction potential of half reactions are
average speed of O2 molecule at same given below
temperature is
Au3+(aq) + 3e– → Au(s) E° = + 1.40 V
3 7 Sn2+(aq) + 2e– → Sn(s) E° = – 1.14 V
(1) (2)
7 3
Ni2+(aq) + 2e– → Ni(s) E° = – 0.25 V
3 7 Fe2+(aq) + 2e– → Fe(s) E° = – 0.44 V
(3) (4)
7 3
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents
84. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the respectively are
spin only magnetic moments of the ions given in
(1) Au3+ and Sn (2) Au3+ and Fe
Column II and assign the correct code.
(3) Sn2+ and Ni (4) Ni2+ and Au
Column I Column II
88. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.5 g
a. Cr2+ (i) 8 BM of an organic compound gave 0.564 g of AgBr.
The percentage of bromine present in the organic
b. V3+ (ii) compound is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and
3 BM
Br = 80 u)
c. Fe3+ (iii) 15 BM (1) 24% (2) 16%
(3) 32% (4) 48%
d. Cu2+ (iv) 24 BM
89. Which among the following is an aromatic
species?
(v) 35 BM

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (2)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (i) (v) (ii) (3) (4)
(3) (v) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (v) 90. Match the reactions given in Column I with the
85. Following limiting molar conductivities are given respective name given in Column II
as Column I Column II
°m (HCl) = 426 S cm 2
mol –1

Clemmensen
°m (NaCl) = 126 S cm2 mol–1 a. (i)
reduction
°m ( CH3COONa ) = 91S cm2 mol–1
Etard
°m (in Scm2 mol–1) for CH3COOH will be b. (ii)
reaction
(1) 391 (2) 461
(3) 151 (4) 209 Gatterman-
c. (iii) Koch
Section-B
reaction
86. The value of H and S for the reaction
1
Hg + O2 → HgO are 400 kJ mol–1 and 400 JK–1 Rosenmund
2 d. (iv)
mol–1 respectively. This reaction will be reduction
spontaneous at
(1) 400 K (2) 1200 K (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) 900 K (4) 720 K (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

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CST-1_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

91. Correct order of ligand field strength of the given 97. The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in
species is 4d orbital are
(1) I– > F– > H2O > CO (2) CO > H2O > I– > F– (1) 1 and 2, respectively
(2) 3 and 0, respectively
(3) F– > I– > CO > H2O (4) CO > H2O > F– > I–
(3) 2 and 1, respectively
92. Number of 90° and 180° bond angles in ClF3
(4) 3 and 1, respectively
molecule, respectively are
(1) 2, 1 (2) 2, zero 98. Identify the incorrect statement.

(3) Zero, zero (4) Zero, 1 (1) Plaster of Paris is hemihydrate of calcium
sulphate.
93. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium,
A(s)  2B(g) + C(g). If total pressure at (2) Anhydrous calcium sulphate is known as
‘Dead burnt plaster’.
equilibrium is P atm then equilibrium constant
(KP) of the reaction will be (3) Caustic soda is prepared by the electrolysis
of sodium chloride in Castner-Kellner cell.
1 3 1 3
(1) P (2) P (4) Gypsum is obtained by heating plaster of
9 3
Paris above 393 K.
4 3 1 3
(3) P (4) P 99. Choose the incorrect statement from the
27 27
following
94. For a reaction P + Q → Product, If the rate law is
(1) N, N-Diethylethanamine is less basic than N-
given by, r = k [P]1[Q]1/2, overall order of the
Ethylethanamine in aqueous medium.
reaction will be
(2) Diazonium salt reacts with phosphinic acid to
(1) 1 (2) 3/2
form benzene.
(3) 1/2 (4) 2
(3) Aniline undergoes Friedel Crafts reaction.
95. Which of the following is an example of
negatively charged colloid? (4) Carbylamine reaction is used as a test for 1°
amine.
(1) TiO2 sol (2) Haemoglobin
1
(3) Gelatin sol (4) Methylene blue sol 100. A gas ‘G’ takes times as long as to effuse out
4
96. Temperature independent concentration term is
as oxygen. The gas ‘G’ could be
(1) Molarity (2) Normality
(1) H2 (2) He
w
(3)   % (4) Mole fraction (3) CO (4) N2
V

BOTANY

SECTION-A 102. Read the following statements and select the

101. If water has to move from root hairs to xylem correct option.
through cortex, then the water potential of these Statement-A: Some of the nitrogen travels as
regions should be inorganic ions.
Statement-B: Small amounts of P and S are
Root hair Cortex Xylem
carried as organic compounds.
(1) 0 0 0 (1) Only statement A is incorrect
(2) –1 –2 –3 (2) Only statement B is incorrect
(3) –2 –1 0 (3) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(4) 0 +1 +2 (4) Both the statements A and B are correct

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103. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. interkinesis 111. Predation can be represented as
(1) Chromosomes form chromatin fibres (1) Species A (+); Species B(0)
(2) No replication of DNA (2) Species A (–); Species B(0)
(3) Centrioles pairs replicate in animal cell (3) Species A (+); Species B(+)
(4) RNA synthesis takes place (4) Species A (+); Species B(–)

104. Which of the following phase of prophase I 112. Which of the following is available biomass for
shows the dissolution of synaptonemal complex? the consumption to heterotrophs?
(1) Community productivity
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(2) Secondary productivity
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
(3) Net primary productivity
105. Marchantia and Marsilea are
(4) Gross primary productivity
(1) Homosporous species
113. Fungi usually store food materials in the form of
(2) Homosporous and heterosporous respectively
(1) Protein (2) Starch
(3) Heterosporous and homosporous respectively
(3) Fatty acids (4) Glycogen and Oils
(4) Heterosporous species
114. All the given features are true for both diatoms
106. Which of the following plants belongs to and dinoflagellates, except
Pteropsida? (1) Found in marine habitats
(1) Dryopteris (2) Psilotum (2) Are photosynthetic
(3) Selaginella (4) Equisetum (3) Have chlorophyll and cell wall
107. Taxonomical aid used for identification of plants (4) Have flagella in the vegetative body
and animals based on the similarities and 115. Which of the following bacteria can fix
dissimilarities is atmospheric nitrogen?
(1) Monograph (2) Manual (a) Chemosynthetic autotrophic
(3) Key (4) Flora (b) Photosynthetic autotrophic
108. Choose incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. housefly. (c) Heterotrophic
(1) Diptera – Order (1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b)
(2) Insecta – Class (3) Only (c) (4) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Arthropoda – Division 116. The probability of either a boy or a girl child in
each pregnancy is always
(4) Muscidae – Family
1 3
109. At which step of citric acid cycle, substrate level (1) (2)
phosphorylation occurs 2 2

(1) Citric acid → -ketoglutaric acid 2 3

(3) (4)
3 4
(2) Succinic acid → Malic acid
117. State true (T) or false (F) for the following
(3) Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid statements and select the correct option.
(4) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid A. AA + XO type of genetic constitution is seen
110. Which of the following statements is incorrect? in male grasshopper.
(1) Wheat variety, Atlas 66 has been used as a B. In humans, gain of an extra copy of
donor for improving cultivated wheat chromosome 21, results in Down’s syndrome.
A B
(2) Iron fortified rice variety has also been
developed (1) T T
(3) IARI released vitamin A enriched bathua only (2) T F
(4) In 2000, maize hybrids having twice the (3) F T
amount of some amino acids were developed (4) F F

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CST-1_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

118. Genes for all of the following are found on 124. The organelle found within an organelle is
autosomes, except (1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosome
(1) Myotonic dystrophy (2) Haemophilia
(3) Ribosome (4) Inclusion body
(3) Sickle cell anaemia (4) Thalassemia
125. Consider the following statements for the
119. From which region of the root tip, epidermal cells organelle, also known as “power house of the
form very fine and delicate, thread like cell”.
structures?
A. It is double membrane bound structure.
(1) Region of elongation
B. Its inner membrane forms number of
(2) Root cap
infoldings called cisternae.
(3) Region of maturation
C. Matrix possesses genetic material and
(4) Region of meristematic activity ribosomes only.
120. In mustard flower,
D. It is a site of aerobic respiration.
(1) Gynoecium is situated in the centre and other
The correct statements are
parts are at the rim of thalamus
(1) A, B and D only (2) B, C and D only
(2) Gynoecium occupies the highest position
w.r.t. other parts (3) B and C only (4) A and D only
(3) Ovary is said to be half inferior 126. A lower value of pH is maintained in the lumen of
(4) Margins of thalamus grows upward and thylakoid of chloroplast is due to
encloses ovary completely (a) Movement of protons across the membrane
121. Which among the following is not a lateral through CF0 channel.
meristem? (b) Release of protons by proton carrier into the
(1) Interfascicular cambium lumen
(2) Cork cambium (c) Oxidation of water molecules
(3) Fascicular vascular cambium (d) Reduction of NADP+ towards stroma
(4) Intercalary meristem The correct one(s) is/are
122. Select the incorrect statement for the type of (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) only
simple tissue that is present in layers below the
(3) (a) and (d) only (4) (a) only
epidermis in most of the dicotyledonous plants.
127. DNA differs from mRNA as the later has
(1) Intercellular spaces are present
(2) Cells of this tissue are thickened at corners (1) Pentose sugar
due to deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose (2) 5-methyl uracil
and pectin
(3) Free –OH at 2-position in the ribose
(3) Provide mechanical support to growing parts
(4) 3–5 phosphodiester linkage
of plant
(4) They may contain chloroplasts to assimilate 128. To determine the DNA sequences in the human
food genome project, sequence annotation is a step in
which
123. Who observed that all plants are composed of
different kinds of cells which form the tissues of (1) Only those genes are identified that are
the plant? expressed as mRNA
(1) Rudolf Virchow (2) Whole set of genome containing coding and
(2) Matthias Schleiden non-coding sequence are sequenced

(3) Theodore Schwann (3) Each piece of DNA fragment is amplified

(4) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (4) DNA-RNA hybrid is formed

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-1_(Code-A)

129. Sequence in an mRNA segment is as follows 135. Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent
phases is not shown by
5AUCCAUGACCUGGAGAUGU3
(1) Annual plants only
Which of the following changes make(s) it a
complete translation unit? (2) Biennial plants only
(3) Both annual and biennial plants
(a) Substitution of C by G at 3rd base from 5 end
(4) Polycarpic perennial plants
(b) Substitution of G by U at 8th base from 3 end
SECTION-B
(c) Substitution of A by U at 6th base from 3 end 136. Attraction of water molecules to the surface of
(d) Deletion of 7th G from 3 end tracheary elements is termed as
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (c) only (1) Cohesion (2) Adhesion

(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) and (d) (3) Surface tension (4) Root pressure
137. Which of the following algae shows diplontic life
130. Select the correct representation regarding the
cycle?
global biodiversity of various groups of
organisms. (1) Volvox (2) Spirogyra
(3) Fucus (4) Chlamydomonas
(1) Mammals > Birds > Fishes
138. Select the incorrectly matched pair
(2) Mosses > Algae > Angiosperms
(1) Allen’s rule – Mammals of colder
(3) Insects > Reptiles > Mammals
climates have shorter
(4) Birds > Fishes > Fungi ears and limbs to
minimise heat loss
131. Find the odd one out w.r.t. the categories of
impurities in waste water. (2) Behavioural – Shown by desert lizards
adaptation to cope with extreme
(1) Cloth fibres (2) Silt temperature
(3) Paper fibres (4) Faecal matter
(3) Aquatic mammals of – Blubber
132. Dormin, reported in mid 1960’s, later it was polar sea possess
renamed as (4) Altitude sickness can – Morphological adaptation
(1) Auxins (2) GA3 be overcome by only

(3) Zeatin (4) ABA 139. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
133. Assertion (A): Double fertilization requires two
male gametes from a pollen tube. Statement A: Humus is highly resistant to
microbial action and undergoes decomposition at
Reason (R): In most angiosperms, pollen grains
extremely fast rate.
are shed in two celled stage containing one
Statement B: The humus is further degraded by
vegetative cell and one generative cell only.
some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients
Read the above statements and choose the occurs by mineralisation.
correct option.
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect (2) Only statement B is incorrect
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (3) Both the statements are correct
correct reason of (A) (4) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct 140. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. class of fungi,
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect their asexual spores and examples.
134. A bioactive molecule, cyclosporin A is produced (1) Phycomycetes – Aplanospores – Rhizopus
by a/an (2) Ascomycetes – Conidia – Penicillium
(1) Bacterium (2) Animal (3) Deuteromycetes – Absent – Colletotrichum
(3) Protist (4) Fungus (4) Basidiomycetes – Absent – Agaricus

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CST-1_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

141. A person inflicted with Turner’s syndrome is a 147. Read the following statements and choose the
with karyotype . correct option
Select the correct option to fill A & B Asseration (A): CFCs have permanent and
A B continuing effects on ozone layer.
(1) Female 44 + XO Reason (R): Chlorine atoms in CFCs act as
(2) Male 44 + XO catalyst and are not consumed in the reaction
(3) Female 45 + XO involved in ozone degradation.
(4) Male 45 + XO (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements and
142. Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
respiration in
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements but
(1) Maize (2) Sugarcane
(R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Rhizophora (4) Banyan tree
(3) Statement (A) is correct but statement (R) is
143. Which of the following does not constitute the
stele? incorrect

(1) Pericycle (2) Endodermis (4) Both the statements (A) and (R) are incorrect
(3) Pith (4) Vascular bundles 148. Which of the following statement is incorrect with
144. Select the incorrect match respect to Gibberellins?
(1) Elaioplast – Stores oils and fats (1) All GAs are acidic
(2) Amyloplast – Is a type of leucoplast
(2) Gibberellins increase length of roots
(3) Aleuroplast – Stores proteins
(3) Gibberellins promote bolting
(4) Chromoplast – Contains water soluble
carotene pigment (4) Spraying sugarcane with Gibberellins is

145. An Escherichia coli having hybrid DNA (14N 15N) economically beneficial
is allowed to duplicate for two generations in a 149. Mark the incorrect statement from following.
medium having 14NH4Cl as the only source of
nitrogen. What percent of individuals in second (1) Wind and water pollinated flowers are not
generation will produce only light DNA? very colourful
(1) 75% (2) 25% (2) For hybridisation, if female parent produces
(3) 50% (4) 87.5% unisexual flowers, there is no need of
146. Which amongst the following is/are considered to bagging
be ex-situ conservation of biodiversity? (3) Banana is an example of parthenocarpic fruit
a. Protection of forests from all types of
(4) Most fruits develop from only ovary and are
exploitation and disturbance.
called true fruits
b. Preservation of gametes of threatened
species in viable and fertile condition for long 150. Baculoviruses are
periods.
(1) Biofertilizers
c. Protection of animals and plants in special
(2) Excellent candidate for wide spectrum
setting made by humans.
insecticidal application
(1) a and b
(2) b only (3) Viruses that belong to the species
Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(3) a and c
(4) b and c (4) Used as effective biological control agents

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-1_(Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 157. EFB stands for
151. Select the product which is released during the (1) England Federation of Biotechnology
breakdown of glucose and fatty acids.
(2) European Federation of Biotechnology
(1) O2 (2) CO2
(3) European Fundamentals of Biotechnology
(3) N2 (4) O3
(4) Ethiopian Fundamentals of Biotechnology
152. Complete the analogy w.r.t. the type of
movement performed by cells in humans. 158. The restriction enzyme isolated from Escherichia
Sperms in female genital tract : Flagellar coli cuts the DNA between bases _____ only
movement :: Leucocytes in blood : _____ when the sequence GAATTC is present in the
Choose the correct option. DNA.

(1) Muscular movement Select the correct option that fills the blank.

(2) Flagellar movement (1) A and T (2) T and C

(3) Amoeboid movement (3) A and A (4) G and A
(4) Ciliary movement 159. The process in which rDNA is directly injected
153. Metagenesis is exhibited by into the nucleus of an animal cell is called
(1) Anopheles (2) Asterias (1) Microinjection (2) Biolistics
(3) Sycon (4) Obelia (3) Gene gun (4) PCR
154. The type of nitrogenous waste excreted by prawn 160. The two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of
is Evolution are
(1) Most toxic form and requires large amount of (1) Natural selection and mutation
water for its elimination
(2) Branching descent and natural selection
(2) Least toxic form and can be removed with a
minimum loss of water (3) Branching descent and random mating

(3) In the form of a precipitate and insoluble in (4) Genetic drift and gene flow
water 161. In humans, the average birth weight of babies is
(4) 100000 times less toxic than ammonia 3 to 4 kg. The babies having weight more or less
155. Choose the odd one w.r.t. the structure involved than the average birth weight mostly do not
in the maintenance of ionic and acid-base survive. This is an example of
balance of body fluids in invertebrates. (1) Disruptive selection (2) Directional selection
(1) Nephridia (2) Green glands (3) Stabilizing selection (4) Diversified selection
(3) Malpighian tubules (4) Kidneys
162. The theory that attempts to explain the origin of
156. In India and China, the world livestock population Universe is
is estimated to be ‘X’ while, their contribution to
(1) Theory of spontaneous generation
the world farm produce is ‘Y’. Choose the option
that correctly identifies ‘X’ and ‘Y’. (2) Big Bang theory

‘X’ ‘Y’ (3) Theory of Panspermia

(4) Theory of special creation
(1) Less than 70% 50%
163. Process of conversion of complex food
(2) More than 70% 25%
substances to simple absorbable forms is called
(3) Equal to 60% 40% (1) Absorption (2) Digestion
(4) Less than 80% 30% (3) Defaecation (4) Assimilation

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CST-1_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

164. Amount of haemoglobin in every 1 litre of blood 172. Which of the following is not true for Adamsia?
in a healthy individual is (1) Tissue level of organisation
(1) 12-16 grams (2) 120-160 grams
(2) Incomplete digestive tract
(3) 12-16 milligrams (4) 120-160 milligrams
(3) Presence of pseudocoelom
165. Match the following in column-I with column-II
(4) Absence of mesoderm
and select the correct option.
173. A dioecious species among the following is
Column-I Column-II
(1) Earthworm (2) Tapeworm
a. Saheli (i) Sex-abuse
(3) Cockroach (4) Leech
b. Amniocentesis (ii) CDRI 174. The ovarian follicle, characterised by presence of
a well developed distinct fluid filled cavity called
c. Social evil (iii) AIDS
antrum is
d. STI (iv) Sex-determination (1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) Tertiary follicle (4) Primordial follicle
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) 175. Choose the structure present in nipples, through
166. In cockroach, dorsal sclerites of abdomen are which milk is sucked out.
called (1) Mammary tubules (2) Lactiferous ducts
(1) Tergites (2) Sternites (3) Alveoli (4) Mammary ducts
(3) Pleurites (4) Pronotum
176. Select the correct pair of intratesticular ducts.
167. In humans, the epithelium which covers the moist
(1) Rete testis and epididymis
surface of buccal cavity is
(2) Vasa efferentia and epididymis
(1) Ciliated epithelium
(2) Cuboidal epithelium (3) Vasa efferentia and rete testis

(3) Columnar epithelium (4) Vasa deferentia and ejaculatory duct

(4) Compound epithelium 177. Which one of the following is the most abundant
protein in the whole of the biosphere?
168. In standard ECG, the P-wave represents
(1) Collagen (2) RuBisCO
(1) Electrical excitation of the atria
(2) Depolarisation of the ventricles (3) Haemoglobin (4) Lectins

(3) Repolarisation of the ventricles 178. Choose the correct combination for ester bond
formation w.r.t. a polymer of nucleotides.
(4) Repolarisation of the atrium
(1) Phosphate and amino group of nitrogenous
169. Select the correct match w.r.t. gastric gland.
base
(1) Chief cells – HCl
(2) Phosphate and 1C of sugar
(2) Peptic cells – Mucus
(3) Sugar and nitrogenous base
(3) Parietal cells – Pepsinogen
(4) Phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar
(4) Oxyntic cells – Intrinsic factor
170. Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of radial 179. All of the following statements are correct w.r.t.
symmetry in adult stage. lipids except
(1) Coelenterates (2) Annelids (1) Lipids are generally water insoluble
(3) Echinoderms (4) Ctenophores (2) Glycerol is a simple lipid, which is chemically
171. Presence of external rows of ciliated comb plates trihydroxy propanol
is characteristic feature of (3) Complex lipids are generally found in neural
(1) Cnidarians (2) Flatworms tissue
(3) Ctenophores (4) Roundworms (4) Lecithin is found in cell membranes

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 CST-1_(Code-A)

180. The property not shown by cancer cells is 187. Choose the granulocytes which constitute
(1) Cell division (2) Uncontrolled growth maximum percentage of leucocytes.

(3) Contact inhibition (4) Metastasis (1) Basophils (2) Eosinophils

181. Choose the cells which participate in acquired (3) Monocytes (4) Neutrophils
immunity. 188. Choose the correct feature w.r.t. Nirodh.
(1) Neutrophils (2) NK Cells (1) Blocks the entry of sperms in female genital
(3) T-lymphocytes (4) Monocytes tract

182. The process through which two or more organs (2) Reusable and reversible
interact and complement the functions of one (3) Made of plastic
another, is called (4) Completely cover the cervix during coitus
(1) Repression (2) Coordination 189. Read the given statements and choose the
(3) Suppression (4) Inhibition correct option.
183. Assertion (A) : Anteater and spotted cuscus Statement-A: Mechanism of breathing vary
show convergent evolution w.r.t. each other. among different groups of animals depending
Reason (R) : When more than one adaptive only on their habitats.
radiation appeared to have occurred in an Statement-B: Amphibians like frogs exhibit more
isolated geographical area (representing different than one type of respiration in their lifetime.
habitats) it is called convergent evolution. (1) Both statements are correct
In the light of above statements, select the (2) Both statements are incorrect
correct option.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(4) Only statement B is correct
correct explanation of (A)
190. If a foreign gene of interest is inserted at BamHI
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
site of cloning vector pBR322 followed by
correct explanation of (A)
insertion in native E. coli, then this changed
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false E. coli is called
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (1) Transformant and not a recombinant
184. Non-nutrient chemicals which act as intercellular (2) Non-transformant and a recombinant
messengers and are produced in trace amounts
(3) Transformant and a recombinant
are called
(4) Non-transformant and not a recombinant
(1) Wax (2) Enzymes
191. All of the following bones are included in axial
(3) Saliva (4) Hormones
skeleton, except
185. The hormone which inhibits the release of growth
(1) Frontal (2) Clavicle
hormone from pituitary is secreted from
(3) Mandible (4) Sternum
(1) Pineal gland (2) Thymus gland
192. Which of the following pairs of systems function
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Neurohypophysis
in a synchronised fashion, to coordinate and
SECTION-B integrate all the activities of the organs?
186. In India “Family planning” programmes were (1) The neural system and the skeletal system
initiated in the year
(2) The skeletal system and the endocrine
(1) 1953 system
(2) 1951 (3) The neural system and the endocrine system
(3) 1958 (4) The respiratory system and the circulatory
(4) 1961 system

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CST-1_(Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

193. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. enzymes. 196. All of the following are the features of muscle
(1) High temperature preserves the enzyme in a fibres located in the iris of the eye as well as the
temporarily inactive state. wall of the stomach, except

(2) The substrate binds to the active site of (1) Absence of striations
enzyme. (2) Absence of branching
(3) Enzymes bring down the activation energy to (3) Multinucleated condition
make transition of ‘S’ to ‘P’ more easily. (4) Presence of a central nucleus
(4) Ribozyme is a nucleic acid that behaves like 197. Germ cells in human males and ova in females
enzyme. are
194. Identify the structure given below and choose the (1) Haploid cells
correct option w.r.t. it.
(2) Diploid and haploid cells respectively
(3) Haploid and diploid cells respectively
(4) Diploid cells
198. How many of the animals given in the box below
have an open circulatory system?

King crab, Aedes, Chiton, Pheretima,

Ichthyophis

(1) Heroin is obtained by its methylation (1) Three (2) Two

(2) Its receptors are present in our CNS only (3) Four (4) Five

(3) It is a very effective hallucinogen useful in 199. All the following can be thought for increasing
patients who have undergone surgery food production, except

(4) It is extracted from the latex of Papaver (1) Agro-chemical based agriculture
somniferum (2) Organic agriculture
195. Phylum ‘X’ is characterised by presence of (3) Traditional method of agriculture on barren
circulatory system and absence of respiratory land
system whereas both the systems are absent in (4) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture
phylum ‘Y’.
200. Which of the following steps is not included in
Here ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are PCR?
(1) Aschelminthes and Annelida (1) Denaturation
(2) Aschelminthes and Platyhelminthes (2) Annealing
(3) Annelida and Mollusca (3) Extension
(4) Annelida and Aschelminthes (4) Transduction

❑ ❑ ❑

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