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Class 10 R Cbse

This document provides instructions for a test or exam consisting of 6 sections (A-F) and 37 total questions. Section A contains 20 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 4 very short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 4 long answer questions worth 5 marks each. Section E contains 3 case-based questions with sub-questions worth 4 marks each. Section F contains 1 map-based question with 2 sub-questions, one from history and one from geography. The time allowed for the exam is 3 hours and the maximum total marks are 80. Various word limits are provided for different question types.

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siddharth
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
173 views

Class 10 R Cbse

This document provides instructions for a test or exam consisting of 6 sections (A-F) and 37 total questions. Section A contains 20 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 4 very short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 4 long answer questions worth 5 marks each. Section E contains 3 case-based questions with sub-questions worth 4 marks each. Section F contains 1 map-based question with 2 sub-questions, one from history and one from geography. The time allowed for the exam is 3 hours and the maximum total marks are 80. Various word limits are provided for different question types.

Uploaded by

siddharth
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 6

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question paper. All
questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each
question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 60 words
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b
from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions.
Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
10. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for competency-based questions.

SECTION A
MCQs (1X20=20)
1. Identify the correct option that describes the movement given below.
The movement broke colonial laws and also refused cooperation with the British
a. Rowlatt Satyagraha Movement
b. Civil Disobedience movement
c. Non Cooperation Movement
d. Quit India Movement

2. In Bhakra – Nangal project water is being used for


i. Hydel power production
ii. Irrigation
iii. Transportation
iv. Cleaning
a. i and iv
b. ii and i
c. Only iii
d. Only ii

3. Read the data given below and answer the question

As per the data given above, why has Kerala a low infant mortality rate?
a.It has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.
b. It has adequate provision of basic health and cultural facilities.
c. It has adequate provision of basic social and educational facilities.
d. It has adequate provision of basic health and technical facilities.
4. Match the following:

a) A( i),B(ii),C(iii)
b) A( iii),B(ii),C(i)
c) A( i),B(iii),C(ii)
d) A( ii),B(iii),C(i)

5. Which demand of the Srilankan Tamils was repeatedly denied?


a. Their demand of separate electorate
b. Their demand for freedom of expression.
c. Their demand for the right to vote.
d. Their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils

6. Which of the following statements accurately describes a “community government”?


i.‘community government’ is elected by people belonging to one language community – Dutch, French and German-
speaking – no matter where they live.
ii.This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues.
iii.This government has the power regarding economical, educational and language-related issues.
iv. ‘community government’ is elected by people belonging to one language community – Dutch, Spanish and
German-speaking – no matter where they live.
a) Only i
b) Only 3
c) Only 4
d) Both i and ii

7. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided
below:
Assertion (A): Power sharing is desirable.
Reason(R): Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
d. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

8. Mr.Y needs a loan for buying fertilisers to enhance crop production.He borrows loan from a bank as it is
i)Cheap and affordable since rate of interest is lower
ii)free from falling into a debt trap
iii) going to ask him to sell his property
iv) free of interest
a) Only i
b) ii and iv
c) i and ii
d) Only ii

9. Why do you think power is shared among different organs of government


i.e. executive, legislature and judiciary called horizontal distribution of power? What does it result in?
a) because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. This
results in a balance of power among various institutions.
b) because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. This
results in an imbalance of power among various institutions.
c)because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise the same powers. This
results in a balance of power among various institutions.
d)because it does not allow different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
This results in a balance of power among various institutions.

10. Identify the person in the painting from the options given below. He
was described as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.
a. Metternich
b. Mazzini
c. Garibaldi
d. Cavour

11. Identify the reason as to why MNC’s would like to collaborate with India in producing goods. Choose from the
appropriate statements among the following options:
i.India has highly skilled engineers who can understand the technical aspects of production.
ii.It also has educated English speaking youth who can provide customer care services. This means 50-60 percent
cost savings for the MNC.
iii.It’s the cheapest manufacturing location.
iv.It’s close to the markets in the US and Europe.
Options:
a. Statements i and ii are appropriate.
b. Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.
c. All the statements are appropriate.
d. Only statement iv is appropriate.

12. Which of the following statements is not true about Democracy?


a) People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them.
b) It is free of corruption.
c) It is expected to produce good governments.
d) Guarantees rights of citizens.

13. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the


events that took place in India prior to independence.
i. Poorna Swaraj resolution was passed.
ii. Boycott of the Simon Commission
iii.Quit India Movement launched.
iv. Salt march and the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Options:
a. iv, iii, ii, i
b. ii, i, iv,iii
c. i, iv, iii, ii
d. i, ii, iii, iv

14. Under MGNREGA 2005, all those who are able to, and are in need of, work
in rural areas are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the
government. If the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will
give unemployment allowances to the people. Identify the right.
a)Right to work
b)Right to Freedom
c)Right to livelihood
d) Right against Exploitation
15. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement I: From 1780, James Augustus Hickey began to edit the Bengal Gazette, a weekly magazine that described
itself as ‘a commercial paper open to all, but influenced by none.’
Statement II: Hickey also published a lot of gossip about the Company’s senior officials in India.
a. Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b. Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c. Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d. Both (i) & (ii) are correct

16. Identify the main aim of the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit 1992
a) Protection of Environment and socio-economic development
b) Protection of Environment and cultural development
c) Protection of water and socio-economic development
d) Protection of Earth and socio-economic development

17. Which among the following is not a component of a political party?


a) The leaders
b) The active members
c) The voters
d) The followers

18. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement I In Globalisation besides the movements of goods, services, investments and technology, there is one
more way in which the countries can be connected.
Statement II Countries can be connected through the movement of people between countries.
a. Statement i and ii are right.
b. Statement i, ii and iii are right.
c. Statement iii is right.
d. Only statement iv is right.

19. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): It is often said that political parties are facing a crisis.
Reason(R): They are very unpopular and the citizens are indifferent to political parties.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
d. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

20. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement I:The SHGs help borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral.
Statement II: They can get timely loans for a variety of purposes and at a high interest rate.
a) Statement I is correct and Statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false and Statement II is correct.
c) Both Statements are incorrect
d) Both Statements are correct

SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (2Χ4=8)
Q21. My friend’s grandfather had gone to Belgium during the 1950's and 1960’s and worked in a chocolate
factory.He expressed that ‘he witnessed tensions between the Dutch speaking and Frenchspeaking communities
during this time in Belgium ‘. Justify his statement with two reasons.
Q22. ‘The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre –modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of
the world. ‘Substantiate the statement with illustrations.

Q23. Mr.Singh cultivates rice in Punjab.How does he ensure higher productivity of the crop?

Q24. Distinguish between unitary and federal systems of government

SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (3x5-15)
Q25. Provide evidence to support the claim that print culture helped in the growth of nationalism in India?

Q26. Mr. Y from a city in India visits a rural area and finds five people working in a small agricultural farm. More than
two people are not required to work in the farm and removing the other three will not affect production. How can
one solve this problem of underemployment in rural areas?
Q27. “Every state or region has potential for increasing the income and employment for people in that area.” Justify
the statement with three relevant points.

Q28. “The exact balance of power between the central and the state government varies from one federation to
another.” Substantiate the statement with suitable examples.

Q29. Over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in all the three sectors has increased, it
has increased the most in the tertiary sector. As a result, in the year 2013-14, the tertiary sector has emerged as the
largest producing sector in India replacing the primary sector. Why do you think tertiary sector is becoming so
popular in India? Substantiate your answer giving any 3 reasons.

SECTION D
LONG ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (5X4=20)
Q30 “There are many ways to solve the problems of land degradation.” Substantiate the statement with
illustrations.
Q31 Analyze the reasons for the growth of nationalist tensions in the Balkan region before the First World War.

Q32 (A) Can you imagine a modern democratic country without political parties? Justify your answer giving relevant
points.

Q33.Money by providing the crucial intermediate step eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants. Justify
the statement.

SECTION E
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS ( 4X3=12)
Q34 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. If the demands were not fulfilled by 11 March, the letter
stated, the Congress would launch a civil disobedience campaign. Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So Mahatma
Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles,
from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24 days, about
10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and he told them what he meant
by swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the
law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water
Q1. What did Gandhiji’s letter to Lord Irwin state?
Q2. Why did Gandhiji march to Dandi?
Q3. Gandhiji chose to defy salt tax in the civil disobedience movement. Substantiate the statement giving reasons.

Q35 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Given the abundance and renewability of water, it is difficult to imagine that we may suffer from water scarcity. The
moment we speak of water shortages; we immediately associate it with regions having low rainfall or those that are
drought prone. We instantaneously visualise the deserts of Rajasthan and women balancing many ‘matkas’ (earthen
pots) used for collecting and storing water and travelling long distances to get water. True, the availability of water
resources varies over space and time, mainly due to the variations in seasonal and annual precipitation, but
water scarcity in most cases is caused by over- exploitation, excessive use and unequal access to water among
different social groups.
Q1.How do women collect water in Rajasthan?
Q2. Why is water scarcity in most areas caused?
Q3.Do you think rainwater harvesting can help ?Give reasons to justify your answer.

Q36 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security,
and respect for others. They resent discrimination. All these are important goals. In fact, in some cases, these may
be more important than more income or more consumption because material goods are not all that you need to
live. Money, or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But the quality of
our life also depends on non-material things mentioned above. If it is not obvious to you, then just think of the
role of your friends in your life. You may desire their friendship. Similarly, there are many things that are not easily
measured but they mean a lot to our lives. These are often ignored. However, it will be wrong to conclude
that what cannot be measured is not important. Consider another example. If you get a job in a far off place, before
accepting it you would try to consider many factors, apart from income, such as facilities for your family, working
atmosphere, or opportunity to learn. In another case, a job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment
that enhances your sense of security. Another job, however, may offer high pay but no job security and also leave no
time for your family. This will reduce your sense of security and freedom.
Q1.Do you think an enhanced income is the only goal of one’s life?
Substantiate your answer with any two examples.
Q2.Which factors would you consider before you accept a job?

SECTION F
MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)
37 .a)Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.
A. Place associated with peasant satyagraha in Gujarat.
B Indian National congress session at this place in December 1920.

37.b)On the same outline map of India locate and label any 3 of the following
with suitable symbols.
i. A software Technology Park in Maharashtra.
ii. A coal mine in Jharkhand.
iii. A seaport located in West Bengal
iv. The tallest dam in India.

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