Class: XII Session 2023-24

Additional Practice Question Paper

SUBJECT: PHYSICS(THEORY)
MARKING SCHEME

SN DESCRIPTION TOTAL
O. MARKS
A1 c 1
A2 b 1
A3 c 1
A4 b 1
A5 c 1
A6 b 1
A7 c 1
A8 d 1
A9 b 1
A10 b 1
A11 b 1
A12 a 1
A13 c 1
A14 a 1
A15 b 1
A16 c 1
SECTION B
A17 E= h c / λ = 1245 / λ(nm) in eV= 1245/ 400 =3.1eV 1
Mo will not emit as work function is more than energy incident 1 2

OR
pc = |pA| + |pB| = h/ λA + h/ λB = h/ λC 1
λC = λA λB / λA +λB 1
A18 nD
The position of the nth bright fringe x= 1
d
2
xd (1.2 10−2 )  (0.28 10−3 )
= = = 6000 Å 1
nD 4  1.4
A19 (a) The direction of motion of the em wave is along negative Y-axis. 1M
(b) Given, E = [3.1 N/C] cos [(1.8 rad/m)y + 5.4 × 108 rad/s)t
2
= E0 cos [ky + t]
Comparing with E
K = 1.8 rad/m,  = 5.4 × 108 rad/s and E0 = 3.1 N/C 1M
 = 2π/ k = 3.5m

A20 The electrical potential energy of the two identical nuclei

 U= K (50e) (50e) / 2R = 1 2
= (9 x109 x50 x1.6 x 10-16 x50 x 1.6 x10-16 ) / { 2x1.28 x10-15 x (125)1/3}
= 4.5 x 10 – 11 J 1

A21
I= V1 = E – Ir1 = E– =0 1
2
E= , 1= R =r1 - r2 1

SECTION C
A22 0.50 V
(a) The electric field intensity is E = V/d, = = 1.0 × 106 Vm–1. 1
5.0 10−7 m
3

(b) 1
( c ) Rectifier 1
A23 Applying Kirchhoff’s junction rule:
I1 = I + I 2
Kirchhoff’s loop rule gives:
10 = 2I + 10I1 =2I +(10 I +I2 ) 1M 3
5 = I2 + 6I-------(1)
2 = 5 I2 – 2I ..... (ii) 1M
I=5/8A, V= 1.25 Volt 1M

A24 (a) The width of central maximum=2λD/d

When the slit width d is doubled, the width of the central maximum is
halved. Its area becomes one fourth and hence the intensity becomes four 3
times the initial intensity. 2M
(b) When red light is replaced by blue light the linear width of the central
maximum decreases because the wavelength of blue light is lesser than that
of red light. 1M

A25

3
 N type and majority charge carriers are electrons.
The number density of electrons to the number density of holes is much
greater than 1 for N type semiconductor.
OR

p- type and majority charge carriers are Holes.

The number density of electrons to the number density of holes is much
smaller than 1 for N type semiconductor.

A26 (a) A is Paramagnetic & B is Diamagnetic 1M

(b)The magnetic susceptibility of A is positive and that of B is negative. 1M
(c) The ball will move away from the magnet due to diamagnetic behavior. On 3
being brought near a bar magnet, it will be feebly magnetized opposite to the
direction of the magnetizing field and thus it will be repelled. 1M
A27
3

1M

For the first point source O1

1 1 1 1 1 1
− = , − = ½M
v u f v (− x) 9
1 1 1
= − …(i)
v 9 x
1 1 1
For the second point source O2 − = ½M
v (24 − x) ( −9)
1 −1 1
= + …(ii)
v 9 (24 − x)
 From equation (i) and (ii),
1 1 −1 1 1 1 2
− = + , + = , x = 18 cm or 6 cm. 1M
9 x 9 24 − x (24 − x) x 9

A28 (a)

1M

The terminal potential difference, V becomes equal to the emf E when R

becomes infinitely large. ½M
3
E−V
(b) r = R ½ M
 V 

Let after connecting another identical wire between terminals, the potential
difference be V.
 6 − 5.6  6−VR
 R =   V = 5.25 V 1M
 6   V 2

SECTION D
A29 1(b) 2(a) 3 (c) 4(a) OR (b) 4
A30 1(a) 2(a) 3 (c) OR (c) 4(d) 4
SECTION E
A31 (a) The total electric flux coming out of a closed surface is 1/ times the net
charge enclosed by it. ½M
(b) Electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge. Let us consider an
infinite thin plane sheet of positive charge having a uniform surface charge 5
density .
Let P be the point where electric field E is to be found. Let us imagine a
cylindrical gaussian surface of length 2r and containing P as shown.
The net flux through the cylindrical gaussian surface
φ =  EdA cos 0 +  EdA cos 0 +  EdA cos 90 1M
RCF LCF CS

= E.A + EA + 0,  = 2 EA ½M
The total charge enclosed by the gaussian cylinder = A
A 
Using Gauss’s theorem, 2 EA = , E= 1M
0 2 0

½M

(b) The flux through an area is EA cos . Here the flux through the cone
is the same as that through the triangular section of the cone in a
vertical plane passing through the vertex. The area of this triangular
1
section is = [2R × h] and is perpendicular to the direction of electric
2
field. ½M
1
The electric flux is E × (2R × h) cos 0° i.e., ERh 1.M
2

OR
(a) Equipotential Surfaces 2Marks
(b) Three Characteristics 1.5Marks
(c) Numerical 1.5Marks

(a) EQUIPOTENTIAL SURFACES 1+1

(b) 1: Two equipotential surfaces never intersect each other.

2: The electric field intensity is always at right angles to an
equipotential surface.
3: The work done in moving a test charge from one point to another
point on an equipotential surface is always zero. 3x ½ M
 dv −d
(c) (i) E = − = [5 + 4 x 2 ]
dx dx
E = –8x. this shows that E  x, obviously electric field cannot be
uniform. 1M .
(ii) At x = –1m, E = +8 Vm–1
 Force on charge of 1C placed at x =–1 m is 1 × 8 = 8 N ½M
A32 Labelled Ray Diagram: 1.5 M
Magnification: 1.5M
Numerical: 2M

Magnifying Power:

M=

 tan 
= =
 tan 
…(1)
A B
From EAB tan  =
EA 
…(2)
A B
 OAB tan  =
OA 
…(3)
From equations (1), (2) and (3),
OA + f0
M=  M= … (4)
EA −u E
Case: When the final image is formed at infinity.
1 1 1
− = for eyepiece …(5)
v u f
Required value of v = –, object distance = –uE, focal length = +fE ---(6)
From (5) & (6), uE = fE
 − f0
M=
fE
M=-144/ 6 =-24 & L = 144 + 6 =150cm.

OR

Ray Diagram : 1.5 M

Expression : 1M
Numerical : 2.5M
COMPOUND MICROSCOPE

The magnifying power of compound microscope for final image formed

at near point is
−v0  D 
M= + 
u0  f E 
Given, focal length of objective fO = 1.25 cm
Focal length of eyepiece fE = 5 cm
For objective
1 1 1
− = v0 = 2.5 cm
v0 (−2.5) 1.25

For eyepiece

= 5 cm.So, if the final image is formed at infinity, then the

distance between the objective and the eyepiece is (v0 + ) i.e.
7.5 cm.
A33 (a) Expression for Average Power 3M
(b) Reason 1M
(c) Numerical 1M

(a) Average power in an a.c. circuit

Let the instantaneous values of alternating emf and current applied to an ac
circuit be given by e = e0 sin t
and i = i0 sin (t + ) where  is the phase difference between A small work
done by the ac source in the circuit in the dt is given by
dW = e i d t = e0 i0 sin t sin (t + ) dt 5
The total work done by AC source in one complete cycle is
T T
 dW =  ei dt
0 =
e0 i0  sin t sin (t + ) dt
0

e0 i0  sin t sin t cos  + cos t sin  dt

T

= 0

T T
e0 i0  cos  sin 2 t dt + e0 i0  sin  sin t cos t dt
= 0 0

e0 i0 cos  T e i T

= 2 0
(1 − cos 2t ) dt + 0 0 sin   sin 2t dt
2 0

e0 i0
cos  T
W = 2
 The average power dissipated per cycle is
W e0 i0
= cos 
Pav = T 2 2

 Pav = ERMS · IRMS cos 

 True power = Apparent power × Power factor
(b) To transport a given power, low power factor means large current
through the transmission line, resulting in large power loss.
( c) Case-1 :Given, XL = R
R 1
Power factor, P1 = =
R 2 + X L2 2

Case-2: Given,XL = XC

Z= R 2 + (X L − XC )2 = R

R R P1 1
Power factor = = =1  =
Z R P2 2
 OR
(a) Phasor Diagram : 1/2 M
Expression for Current : 1M
Phase angle : 1M
Condition for Resonance : 1M
(b) Proof : 1.5M

An ac circuit containing an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor in

series.

Let an alternating emf e = e0 sin t be applied to LCR series combination.

Let i be the current in the circuit at any instant of time and VR, VL and VC be
the voltages across R, L and C respectively at that instant. Then
VR = iR, VL = i XL and VC = i XC
Now VR is in phase with i, VL leads i be 90° while VC lags behind i by 90°. In
the phasor diagram, the vector OA is representing VR which is in phase with
i, the vector OB represent VL (which leads i by 90°) and the vector OG is
representing VC (which lags behind i by 90°). If VL > VC then their resultant
will be (VL – VC) which is represented by the vector OD. The vector OF is
representing the resultant of VR and (VL – VC). Thus,
e = VR2 + [VL − VC ]2

e = i R 2 + (X L − X C ) 2
e
i=
R 2 + (X L − X C ) 2

Here, R 2 + (X L − X C ) 2 is the effective resistance or impedance of the circuit.

Therefore,
Z= R 2 + (X L − X C ) 2

As XL = L and XC = 1/ωC
 2
 1 
 Z= R 2 +  L − 
 C 
The phasor diagram shows that in LCR series circuit, the applied
emf e leads the current i by a phase angle , given by
VL − VC X L − X C L − 1 C
tan  = = =
VR R R
The following 3 cases arise:
(i) If XL > XC, then  is positive. In this case the emf e leads the current i
(ii) If XL < XC, then  is negative. In this case the emf e lags behind the
current
(iii) If XL = XC, then  = 0. In this case the emf e and the current i are in
phase and Z = R = minimum. This is the case of series resonance.
Hence at resonance
XL = XC
L = 1/C   =1 LC

1
2 f L =  Resonant linear frequency.
2f C
(b)
Given: Z f1 = Z f2
As R is same in both cases
X f1 = X f2

(XL − XC ) f1 = (XC − XL ) f2

(XL ) f1 + (XL ) f2 = (XC ) f2 + (XC ) f1

1 1 1 
2L( f1 + f 2 ) =  + 
2C  f1 f 2 

1 ( f1 + f 2 )
2L( f1 + f 2 ) =
2C f1 f 2
1
42 LC =
f1 f 2
1
2 LC =
f1 f 2

1
Resonant frequency = = f1 f 2
2 LC