DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP)

for
NEET - 2021

Set - 07

PHYSICS , CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

[ Time : 3.00 Hours ] TEST CODE : GOAL/DPP - 07 [NEET] 2021 [ Max. Marks : 720 ]

INSTRUCTIONS
(i) This Paper has 180 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The Maximum marks for each question is 4.
(iii) 1 mark will be deducted against each negative response from the total marks.
(iv) Use of calculator, slide rule, graph paper and trignometric tables is
NOT PERMITTED.

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 DAILY PRACTICE PAPER (DPP) FOR NEET - 2021 [SET - 07]
[Time : 3 Hours] Full Marks : 720

01. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly (3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.5 mm
absorbing surface. The momentum transferred to the 07. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a
surface is (C = Velocity of light) : transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in
the figure,
E E 2E 2E
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4)
C C C C2
02. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km h–1
A
and a ship B 200 km South of A, is moving Northwards 8
with a speed of 10 km h–1. The time after which the
distance between them becomes shortest, is : P (in kPa) 3 B

(1) 10 2h (2) 10 h (3) 5 h (4) 5 2 h

4 6
03. Three blocks A, B and C, of masses 5 kg, 3 kg and 3
V (in m )
2 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless
surface, as shown. If a force of 20 N is applied on the 5
The change in internal energy of the gas during the
kg block, then the contact force between A and B is :
transition is :
A (1) – 35 kJ (2) 35 kJ
B C
(3) – 28 kJ (4) 28 J
(1) 15 N (2) 12 N (3) 8 N (4) 10 N 08. A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife
04. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal
outward and is given by E = Ar . A charge contained position. The knives are at a distance d from each
in a sphere of radius ‘a’ centred at the origin of the other. The centre of mass of the rod is at distance x
field, will be given by : from A. The normal reaction on A is :

(1) 0 Aa 3 (2) 4  0 Aa 2 W(d – x) Wx

(1) (2)
d d
(3) A 0 a 2 (4) 4  0 Aa 3
Wd W(d – x)
05. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R and (3) (4)
3R respectively as shown in the figure. When some x x
potential difference is applied between X and Y, the 09. Kepler’s third law states that square of period of
voltmeter readings are VA, VB and VC respectively. revolution (T) of a planet around the sun, is proportional
Then : to third power of average distance r between sun and
planet
i.e. T2 = Kr3
B
here K is constant.
A
X Y If the masses of sun and planet are M and m
C respectively then as per Newton’s law of gravitation
force of attraction between them is
(1) VA  VB  VC (2) VA = VB = VC
(3) VA  VB = VC (4) VA = VB  VC GMm
F , here G is gravitational constant
06. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm r2
apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A The relation between G and K is described as :
monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. 1
What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten (1) K  (2) GK  42
maxima of double slit within the central maxima of G
single slit pattern ? (3) GMK  4 2 (4) K = G
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 0.2 mm

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10. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is of the ocean?
applied, as shown, (1) 1.4 × 10–2 (2) 0.8 × 10–2
(3) 1.0 × 10–2 (4) 1.2 × 10–2
+10V
14. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at
temperatures 100°C and 110°C. the rate of heat flow
RL in the rod is found to be 8 J/s. If the ends are
maintained at temperatures 205°C and 215°C, the rate
–10V of heat flow will be :
(1) 16 J/s (2) 32 J/s
then the output across RL will be :
(3) 4 J/s (4) 8 J/s

5V 15. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional

motion such that its velocity varies according to
(1) (2)
–10V (x)   x –2n,
where  and n are constants and x is the position of
10V
the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a
(3) (4) function of x, is given by :
–5V (1) –2n2e –4n1 (2) –2n2 x –2n–1
11.Two particles of masses m 1, m2 move with initial
velocities u1 and u2. On collision, one of the particles (3) –2n2 x –4n–1 (4) –22 x –2n1
get excited to higher level, after absorbing energy  .
16. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive
If final velocities of particles be v1 and v2 then we
index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). The
must have
angle of minimum deviation is :
1 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 (1) 180° + 2A (2) 180° – 3A
(1) m1 u1  m2u2    m12 v12  m22 v 22
2 2 2 2 (3) 180° – 2A (4) 90° – A
(2) m12u1  m22u2 –   m12 v1  m22 v 2 17. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its
velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean position
are V1 and V2, respectively. Its time period is :
1 1 1 1
(3) m1u12  m2u22  m1v12  m2 v 22 – 
2 2 2 2
V12 – V22 x12  x 22
1 1 1 1 (1) 2 (2) 2
(4) m1u12  m2u22 –   m1v12  m2 v 22 x12 – x 22 V12  V22
2 2 2 2
12. Which of the following figures represent the variation x 22 – x12 V12  V22
of particle momentum and the associated de- Broglie (3) 2 (4) 2
wavelength? V12 – V22 x12  x 22
18. Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants
p p KP and KQ, such that KP > KQ. They are stretched,
first by the same amount (case a), then by the same
(1) (2) force (case b). The work done by the springs WP and
  W Q are related as, in case (a) and case (b),
respectively :
p p (1) WP < WQ ; WQ < WP (2) WP = WQ ; WP > WQ
(3) WP = WQ ; WP = WQ (4) WP > WQ ; WQ > WP
(3) (4) 19. rd +
Consider 3 orbit of He (Helium), using non-relativistic
  approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be
[given K = 9 × 109 constant, Z = 2 and h(Planck’s
13. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The Constant = 6.6 × 10–34 J s]
compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 and
(1) 3.0 × 108 m/s (2) 2.92 × 106 m/s
density of water is 10 3 kg/m 3 . What fractional
compression of water will be obtained at the bottom (3) 1.46 × 106 m/s (4) 0.73 × 106 m/s

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20. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in 26. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as
adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are very long the fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula
and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion of of surface tension will be :
radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic field at point (1) [E–2 V–1 T–3] (2) [E V–2 T–1]
O is :
Z (3) [E V–1 T–2] (4) [E V–2 T–2]
 0 I   
(1) B    i – 2k I 1
4 R   27. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of   as
R 10
O Y
   heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done
0 I  I
(2) B    i  2k I on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed
4 R   from the reservoir at lower temperature is :
 X (1) 1 J (2) 100 J (3) 99 J (4) 90 J
0 I   
(3) B  –   i – 2k  28. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal
4 R   plane with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is

attached to a string which passes through a smooth
0 I   
hole in the plane as shown.
(4) B  –   i  2 k 
4 R   v0
21. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that m
delivers a constant power k watts. If the particle starts R0
from rest the force on the particle at time t is :

1 mk –1/ 2
(1) mKt –1/ 2 (2) t
2 2 The tension in the string is increased gradually and
(3) mkt –1/ 2 (4) 2mkt –1/ 2
R0
22. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of finally m moves in a circle of radius . The final
2
length 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an value of the kinetic energy is :
organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ
pipe open at both the ends is : 1 2 1 2
(1) mv 0 (2) mv 20 (3) mv 0 (4) 2mv 20
(1) 140 cm (2) 80 cm (3) 100 cm (4) 120 cm 2 4
23. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes 29. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of
n rotations per second. The magnetic field produced
wavelength ‘2  ’ diffraction is produced by a single
at the centre has magnitude :
slit whose width ‘a’ is of the order of the wavelength
of the light. If ‘D’ is the distance of the screen from
0ne 0ne 0n2e
(1) (2) (3) zero (4) the slit, the width of the central maxima will be :
2r 2r r
24. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive
2Da 2D 4Da 4D
(1) (2) (3) (4)
index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm  a  a
are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at 30. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of
the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. Assuming
refractive index 1.7. The focal length of the that the pressure inside the house is atmospheric
combination is : pressure, the force exerted by the wind on the roof
(1) 50 cm (2) – 20 cm (3) – 25 cm (4) – 50 cm and the direction of the force will be :
25. On observing light from three different stars P, Q and (Pair = 1.2 kg/m3)
R, it was found that intensity of violet colour is (1) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards (2) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards
maximum in the spectrum of P, the intensity of green
colour is maximum in the spectrum of R and the (3) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards (4) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards
intensity of red colour is maximum in the spectrum of
Cp
Q. If T P , T Q and T R are the respective absolute 31. The ratio of the specific heats   in terms of
temperatures of P, Q and R, then it can be concluded Cv
from the above observations that: degrees of freedom (n) is given by :
(1) TP < TQ < TR (2) TP > TQ > TR
 n  1  n  2
(3) TP > TR > TQ (4) TP < TR < TQ (1)  1  (2)  1  (3) 1  (4) 1 
 2   n   3  n
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 27 X
32. If radius of the 13 Al nucleus is taken to be RAl, then
125
the radius of nucleus of 53 Te nucleus is nearly:
1/ 3 1/ 3
 13   53  5 3 X'
(1)   R Al (2)   RAl (3) RAl (4) RAl 11 2 16 2
 53   13  3 5 (1) 4 mr2 (2) mr (3) 3 mr2 (4) mr
5 5
33. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a
37. Which logic gate is represented by the following
gas to go from a state A to a state C.
combination of logic gates ?
P
B C A
6×104 Pa
Y

B
A (1) NOR (2) OR (3) NAND (4) AND
2×104 Pa 38. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A
lights string connected to it passes over a frictionless
2×10–3 m3 4 × 10–3 m3 pulley at the edge of table and from its other end
V another block B of mass m 2 is suspended. The
In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and
and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the the table is µk. When the block A is sliding on the
system. The heat absorbed by the system in the table, the tension in the string is :
process AC will be :
m1m2 (1– k )g (m2  km1)g
(1) 300 J (2) 380 J (3) 500 J (4) 460 J (1) (2)
(m1  m2 ) (m1  m2 )
34. A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x direction with a
constant speed of 10 ms–1, is subjected to a retarding (m2 – km1)g m1m2 (1  k )g
force F = 0.2 x J/m during its travel from x = 10 m to (3) (4)
(m1  m2 ) (m1  m2 )
20 m. Its final KE will be:
39. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with
(1) 250 J (2) 475 J (3) 470 J (4) 275 J
monochromatic light of wavelength,  . The stopping
35. A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long
potential for photo-electric current for this light is 3V0.
straight wire carrying current I are located in the same
If the same surface is illuminated with light of
plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the
right with a constant velocity ‘V’. The emf induced in wavelength 2  , stopping potential is V0. The threshold
the frame will be proportional to : wavelength for this surface for
photo-electric effect is :
x
 
(1) (2) 6  (3) 4  (4)
I 6 4
40. When two displacements represented by y 1 = a
V sin(  t) and y2 = b cos(  t) are superimposed the
motion is :
a (a  b)
(1) simple harmonic with amplitude
2
1 1 (2) not a simple harmonic
(1) (2) 2
(2x – a)(2x  a) x a
(3) simple harmonic with amplitude
b
1 1
(3) 2 (4) (4) simple harmonic with amplitude a 2  b2
(2x – a) (2x  a)2
36. Three identical solid spheres, each of mass m and 41. A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance
radius r are placed as shown in figure. Consider an 8  . The resistance that must be connected in
axis XX’ which is touching to two spheres and passing series with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2V,
through diameter of third sphere. so as to get a potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the
Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these wire is :
three spheres about XX’ axis is : (1) 48  (2) 32  (3) 40  (4) 44 
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42. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5 M and radii R and 49. Consider the following compounds
2 R are released in free space with initial separation
between their centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each CH3 Ph
other due to gravitational force only, then the distance
covered by the smaller body before collision is :
CH3 C CH Ph C Ph CH3
(II)
(1) 1.5 R (2) 2.5 R (3) 4.5 R (4) 7.5 R CH3 (III)
43. A resistance ‘R’ draws power ‘P’ when connected to (I)
an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series
Hyperconjugation occurs in :
with the resistance, such that the impedance of the
circuit becomes ‘Z’, the power drawn will be : (1) I and III (2) I only (3) II only (4) III only
2 50. Which of the following species contain equal number
R  R R 
(1) P (2) P   (3) P (4) P   of  - and  - bonds ?
Z Z Z
44. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross (1) CH2(CN)2 (2) HCO 3– (3) XeO4 (4) (CN)2
section a constant potential difference is applied. The 51. The correct bond order in the following species is :
quantity which remains constant along the conductor is:
(1) O 2– < O 2 < O 22 (2) O 22   O 2  O 2–
(1) electric filed (2) current density
(3) current (4) drift velocity (3) O 22  O 2–  O 2 (4) O 2  O 2–  O 22
45. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is 52. The function of “Sodium pump” is a biological process
connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected operating in each and every cell of all animals. Which
from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which of the following biologically important ions is also a
can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted constituent of this pump ?
in it. Which of the following is incorrect ? (1) Fe2+ (2) Ca2+ (3) Mg2+ (4) K+
(1) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved. 53. Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6]3 N is true ?
(2) The potential difference between the plates (1) [Co(CN)6]3– has no unpaired electrons and will be
decreases K times.
in a high-spin configuration.
(3) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K
(2) [Co(CN)6]3– has no unpaired electrons and will be
times.
in a low-spin configuration
1 1  (3) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and will
(4) The change in energy stored is CV 2  – 1 .
2 K  be in a low-spin configuration.
(4) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and will
46. Treatment of cyclopentanone O with methyl be in a high-spin configuration.
lithium gives which of the following species ? 54. The activation energy of a reaction can be determined
from the slope of which of the following graphs ?
(1) Cyclopentanonyl biradical
(2) Cyclopentanonyl anion T 1
(1) vs. (2) ln K vs. T
(3) Cyclopentanonyl cation lnK T
(4) Cyclopentanonyl radical lnK 1
(3) vs. T (4) lnK vs.
47. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as below has : T T
55. The reaction
H H2
H 3C C O H 3C C O CH3
C C C C
CH3 C ONa + CH3CH2Cl
–NaCl
OH OC2H5 O OC2H5 CH3
(1) 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi - bond
CH3
(2) 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi - bonds
CH3 C O CH2 CH3 is called
(3) 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
CH3
(4) 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi - bonds
(1) Gatterman – Koch reaction
48. Biodegradable polymer which can be produced from
glycine and aminocaproic acid is : (2) Williamson Synthesis
(1) Nylon 6, 6 (2) Nylon 2 – nylon 6 (3) Williamson continuous etherification process
(3) PHBV (4) Buna – N (4) Etard reaction
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56. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution ? 64. Which of the following statements is correct for a
reversible process in a state of equilibrium ?
(1) P  Pobserved – PRaoult (2) Hmix
(1)  G° = 2.30 RT log K (2)  G = –2.30 RT log K
(3) Smix (4) Vmix (3)  G = 2.30 RT log K (4)  G° = – 2.30 RT log K
57. “Metals are usually not found as nitrates in their ores.” 65. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic
Out of the following two (a and b) reasons which is / and isostructural ?
are true for the above observation ? (1) ClO 3– ,SO 2–
3 (2) CO 2– 2–
3 ,SO 3
(a) Metal nitrates are highly unstable (3) ClO 3– ,CO 2– (4) SO 2– –
3 3 ,NO 3
(b) Metal nitrates are highly soluble in water. 66. The angular momentum of electron in p-orbital is equal
(1) (a) is true but (b) is false to :
(2) (a) and (b) are true (1) 0  (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 2 3 
(3) (a) and (b) are false
67. Which of the following options represents the correct
(4) (a) is false but (b) is true bond order ?
58. An organic compound ‘X’ having molecular formula
(1) O 2–  O 2  O 2 (2) O 2–  O 2  O 2
C5H10O yields phenyl hydrazone and gives negative
response to the Iodoform test and Tollen’s test. It (3) O 2–  O 2  O 2 (4) O 2–  O 2  O 2
produces n-pentane on reduction. ‘X’ could be : 68. Magnetic moment 6.01 B.M. is shown by unpaired
(1) n-amyl alcohol (2) pentanal electron:
(3) 2-pentanone (4) 3-pentanone (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
59. Cobalt(III) chloride forms several octahedral 69. Given
complexes with ammonia. Which of the following will
not give test for chloride ions with silver nitrate at
25°C ?
(1) CoCl3.6NH3 (2) CoCl3.3NH3
(3) CoCl3.4NH3 (4) CoCl3.5NH3
60. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in the The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds
ratio of 1 : 2 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two will be in the order as :
gases in the mixture ? (1) II > I > III (2) I > II > III
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1 (3) III > II > I (4) II > III > I
61. Which of the following is the most correct electron 70. A single compound of the structure
displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place ?

(1) (2)
is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following
cyclic compounds ?
(3) (4)

62. The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly (1) (2)

acidic medium produces :
(1) Aniline (2) p–Aminophenol
(3) Azoxybenzene (4) Azobenzene (3) (4)
63. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some 71. The total number of -bond electrons in the following
properties in common. Which property is shown by structure is :
one of these compounds, but not by the other ?
(1) is used as a food–preservative
(2) forms ‘acid–rain’
(3) is a reducing agent
(4) is soluble in water
(1) 16 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 12
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72. The K sp of Ag 2CrO 4, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are 79. Equal weights of mercury and I2 are allowed to react
respectively, 1.1 × 10–12, 1.8 × 10–10, 5.0 × 10–13 completely to form a mixture of mercurous and mercuric
and 8.3 × 10–17. Which one of the following salts will iodide leaving none of the reactants. The ratio of the
precipitate first if AgNO3 is added to the solution weights of Hg2I2 and HgI2 formed is
containing equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI and (1) 0.235 (2) 0.532 (3) 0.69 (4) 0.96
Na2CrO4 ? + 2+
80. The species Ar, K and Ca contain the same number
(1) AgBr (2) AgCI (3) AgI (4) Ag2CrO4 of electrons. In which order do their radii increase ?
73. When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in (1) K+ < Ar < Ca2+ (2) Ar < K+ < Ca2+
a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The order (3) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ (4) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar
of the reaction is :
81. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the
(1) More than zero but less than first following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic
(2) Zero radii ? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic
(3) First numbers).
(1) Zr (40) and Ta (73) (2) Ti (22) and Zr (40)
(4) Second
(3) Zr (40) and Nb (41) (4) Zr (40) and Hf (72)
74. Which of the following processes does not involve
oxidation of iron ? 82. Total number of vacant orbitals in the valency shell of
that atom which have total s-electrons and total
(1) Liberation of H2 from steam by iron at high
p-electrons are in same number in its ground state
temperature
electronic configuration:
(2) Rusting of iron sheets (1) 0 & 5 (2) 5 & 4 (3) 4 & 8 (4) 0 & 8
(3) Decolourization of blue CuSO4 solution by iron.
83. Given :
(4) Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe. CH3 CH3
75. Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an additive CH 3
to function as a/an :
CH 3
(1) Antiseptic (2) Softener CH3
(3) Dryer (4) Buffering agent CH3
O O O
76. In which of the following compounds, the C – Cl bond
(I) (II) (III)
ionisation shall give most stable carbonium ion ?
Which of the given compounds can exhibit
tautormerism ?
(1) (2) (1) I, II and III (2) I and II
(3) I and III (4) II and III
84. X g of non electrolyte compound (Molar mass = 200)
are dissolved in 1L of 0.05 M NaCl aqueous solution.
(3) (4) The osmotic pressure of this solution is found to be
3739.2 torr at 27°C. Assume complete dissociation of
77. A given metal crystallises out with a cubic structure NaCl and ideal behaviour of this solution. The value
having edge length of 113 pm. If there are 12 metal of X is
atoms per three unit cell, what is the radius of one atom? (1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 40
(1) 80 pm (2) 127 pm 85. Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which
(3) 40 pm (4) 108 pm of the following ?
78. Solution (X) contains 1g of urea (Molar mass = 60) in (1) NO 3– (2) NO2(3) NO 2– (4) NO 2
100g of water. Solution (Y) contains 5g of cane sugar 86. The reaction of C6H5CH = CHCH3 with HBr produces:
(Molar mass = 342) in 100g of water. Then:
(1) Solution (X) boils at higher temperature than
solution (Y).
(2) Solution (Y) boils at higher temperature than (1) (2)
solution (X).
(3) Both solutions boil at the same temperature
(4) Boiling points of both the solutions are lower than (3) (4) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br
the boiling point of water.
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87. Which property of colloidal solution is independent of (2) Phytophthora Aseptate mycelium Basidiomycetes
charge on the colloidal particles ? (3) Alternaria Sexual Deuteromycetes
(1) Tyndall effect (2) Coagulation reproduction
(3) Electrophoresis (4) Electro–osmosis absent
88. Solubility of the alkaline earth‘s metal sulphates in (4) Mucor Reproduction by Ascomycetes
water decreases in the sequence : Conjugation
(1) Ba > Mg > Sr > Ca (2) Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba 97. Which of these is not an important component of
(3) Ca > Sr > Ba > Mg (4) Sr > Ca > Mg > Ba initiation of parturition in humans?
89. A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels (1) Release of prolactin
like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical (2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
energy is known as : (3) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(1) Ni–Cd cell (2) Fuel Cell (4) Release of oxytocin
(3) Electrolytic Cell (4) Dynamo 98. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural
90. At equilibrium: roles is :
(1) The concentration of reactant may be equal to (1) Cortisol (2) Melatonin
concentration of product (3) Calcitonin (4) Epinephrine
(2) The concentration of reactant may be greater than 99. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine :
concentration of product (a) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus
(3) The concentration of reactant may be less than (b) Whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin
concentration of product
(c) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria
(4) All are correct (d) polio (iv) harmless bacteria
91. Leaves become modified into spines in : (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Silk Cotton(2) Opuntia (3) Pea (4) Onion (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
92. Vertical distribution of different species occupying (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
different levels in a biotic community is known as :
100. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of :
(1) Pyramid (2) Divergence
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Stratification (4) Zonation (2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
93. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in (3) Both (1) & (2)
plants by :
(4) Microtubules
(1) pushing and pulling it, respectively
101. The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/
(2) pulling it upward tolerant to:
(3) pulling and pushing it, respectively (1) Herbicides (2) Fungi
(4) pushing it upward (3) Bacteria (4) Insects
94. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli 102. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered
that involves the lac ‘i’ gene product is : closed because :
(1) Feedback inhibition because excess of  – (1) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
galactosidase can switch off transcription (2) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
(2) Positive and inducible because it can be induced (3) Cambium is absent
by lactose (4) There are no vessels with perforations
(3) negative and repressible because repressor protein 103. Read the following five statements (A to E) and select
prevents transcription the option with all correct statements :
(4) None of these (A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to
95. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) colonise a bare rock.
indicates that : (B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
(1) consumption of organic matter in the water is (C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
higher by the microbes (D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic,
(2) water is pure whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic.
(3) water is highly polluted (E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes
(4) water is less polluted are present within sporangia located on sporophyte
96. Which one of the following matches is correct? (1) (B), (C) and (E) (2) (A), (C) and (D)
(1) Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes (3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (D) and (E)

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104. True nucleus is absent in : (2) sperm before fertilization
(1) Volvox (2) Anabaena (3) ovum before fertilization
(3) Mucor (4) Vaucheria (4) ovum after fertilization
105. Which one of the following statements in not true? 114. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?
(1) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen (1) Homo habilis
collected from flowers (2) Homo erectus
(2) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they are (3) Homo sapiens
used in the form of tablets and syrups
(4) Homo neanderthalensis
(3) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies
115. Which of the following viruses is not transferred
and bronchial afflictions in some people
through semen of an infected male?
(4) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete
(1) Ebola virus
foul odour to attract them
(2) Hepatitis B virus
106. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the
nephron will result in : (3) Human immunodeficiency virus
(1) No urine formation (4) Chikungunya virus
(2) More diluted urine 116. A major characteristic of the monocot root is the
presence of :
(3) More concentrated urine
(1) Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem
(4) No change in quality and quantity of urine
along the radius
107. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down
(2) Open vascular bundles
even in the total darkness because of :
(3) Scattered vascular bundles
(1) Organ of corti (2) Cochlea
(4) Vasculature without cambium
(3) Vestibular apparatus (4) Tectorial membrane
117. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum
108. The hilum is a scar on the :
during:
(1) Seed, where micropyle was present
(1) Diastole of the right atrium
(2) Seed, where funicle was attached
(2) Systole of the left atrium
(3) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
(3) Diastole of the right ventricle
(4) Fruit, where style was present
(4) Systole of the left ventricle
109. Which one of the following is correct?
118. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as
(1) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets pro–toxin is converted into active toxin due to:
(2) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes (1) presence of conversion factors in insect gut
(3) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen (2) alkaline pH of the insect gut
(4) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC (3) acidic pH of the insect gut
110. The guts of cow and buffalo possess : (4) action of gut micro–organisms
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Fucus spp. 119. In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic
(3) Chlorella spp. (4) Methanogens matter during photosynthesis is termed as :
111. Which one of the following may require pollinators, (1) Net productivity
but is genetically similar to autogamy? (2) Net primary productivity
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Geitonogamy (3) Gross primary productivity
(3) Xenogamy (4) Apogamy (4) Secondary productivity
112. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17 % of 120. In a ring girdled plant :
the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages
(1) Neither root nor shoot will die
of the other three bases expected to be present in
this DNA are : (2) The shoot dies first
(1) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5% (3) The root dies first
(2) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5% (4) The shoot and root die together
(3) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5% 121. Erythropoiesis starts in :
(4) G 17%, A 33%, T 33% (1) Red bone marrow (2) Kidney
113. Capacitation refers to changes in the : (3) Liver (4) Spleen
(1) sperm after fertilization
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122. Keel is the characteristics feature of flower of : 132. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(1) Tomato (2) Tulip (3) Indigofera (4) Aloe (1) Thrombocytes
123. In which of the following gametophyte is not (2) B – Lymphocytes
independent free living?
(3) Leucocytes
(1) Pinus (2) Funaria
(4) Helper T – Lymphocytes
(3) Marchantia (4) Pteris
133. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
124. The structures that are formed by stacking of organized
flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are: (1) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
(1) Stroma (2) Cristae (2) Algin and carragen are products of algae
(3) Grana (Granum) (4) Stroma lamellae (3) Agar–agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
125. Which of the following does not favour the formation (4) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
of large quantities of dilute urine ? 134. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species
(1) Atrial-natriuretic factor (2) Alcohol in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as:
(3) Caffeine (4) Renin (1) In situ cryo–conservation of biodiversity
126. DNA is not present in: (2) In situ conservation of biodiversity
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast (3) Advanced ex–situ conservation of biodiversity
(3) Ribosomes (4) Nucleus (4) In situ conservation by sacred groves
127. Which of the following are the important flora rewards 135. Select the correct matching in the following pairs:
to the animal pollinators? (1) Rough ER — Oxidation of fatty acids
(1) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates (2) Smooth ER — Oxidation of phospholipids
(2) Colour and large size of flower (3) Smooth ER — Synthesis of lipids
(3) Nectar and pollen grains (4) Rough ER — Synthesis of glycogen
(4) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
136. Secondary Succession takes place on/in :
128. Which of the following represents the correct
(1) Newly cooled lava (2) Bare rock
combination without any exception?
Characteristics Class (3) Degraded forest (4) Newly created pond
(1) Body covered with feathers; Aves 137. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted
disease ?
skin moist and glandular;
(1) Encephalitis
fore-limbs form wings;
(2) Syphilis
lungs with air sacs
(3) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
(2) Mammary gland; hair on body; Mammalia
pinnae; two pairs of limbs (4) Trichomoniasis
(3) Mouth ventral; gills Chondrichthyes 138. The movement of a gene from one linkage group to
another is called:
without operculum; skin
(1) Crossing over (2) Inversion
with placoid scales;
(3) Duplication (4) Translocation
persistent notochord
(4) Sucking and circular Cyclostomata 139. The following graph depicts changes in two populations
(A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible
mouth; jaws absent,
reason for these changes is that:
integument without
scales; paired appendages
129. Alleles are:
(1) heterozygotes
(2) different phenotype
(3) true breeding homozygotes
(4) different molecular forms of a gene
(1) Population A consumed the members of population
130. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of: B
(1) Mammary glands (2) Uterus
(2) Both plant populations in this habitat decreased
(3) Prostate gland (4) Vas-deference
(3) Population B competed more successfully for food
131. The UN Conference of Parties on climate change in
the year 2011 was held in : than population A
(1) Qatar (2) Poland (4) Population A produced more offspring than
population B
(3) South Africa (4) Peru
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140. Typical growth curve in plants is : 148. The mass of living material at a trophic level at a
(1) Parabolic (2) Sigmoid particular time is called :
(3) Linear (4) Stair-steps shaped (1) Standing crop
141. Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation (2) Gross primary productivity
for stomatal movements ? (3) Standing state
(1) Guard cell photosynthesis (4) Net primary productivity
(2) Transpiration 149. Select the correct option: I & II
(3) Potassium influx and efflux (a) Synapsis aligns (i) Anaphase-II
(4) Starch hydrolysis homologous chromosomes
142. Cytochromes are found in: (b) Synthesis of RNA and protein (ii) Zygotene
(c) Action of enzyme (iii) G2-phase
(1) Lysosomes
recombinase
(2) Matrix of mitochondria
(d) Centromeres do not (iv) Anaphase-I
(3) Outer wall of mitochondria
separate but chromatids
(4) Cristae of mitochondria
move towards opposite poles
143. Rachel Carson’s famous book “Silent Spring” is related
to: (v) Pachytene
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Ecosystem management
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) Pesticide pollution
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) Noise pollution
(3) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
(4) Population explosion
(4) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
144. Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly
paired with its function ? 150. Multiple alleles are present:
(1) On non-sister chromatids
(1) Cerebrum - calculation and contemplation
(2) On different chromosomes
(2) Medulla oblongata - homeostatic control
(3) At different loci on the same chromosome
(3) Cerebellum - language comprehension
(4) At the same locus of the homologous chromosome
(4) Corpus callosum - communication between the left
and right cerebral cortices 151. Which of the following is not one of the prime health
risks associated with greater UV radiation through the
145. Which of the following characteristics is mainly atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone ?
responsible for diversification of insects on land?
(1) Increased liver cancer
(1) Eyes (2) Segmentation
(2) Increased skin cancer
(3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Exoskeleton
(3) Reduced Immune System
146. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as :
(4) Damage to eyes
(1) When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin 152. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic
filaments shorten while Actin filaments do not variation in the population of a sexually-reproducing
shorten organism?
(2) When myofilaments slide pass each other Actin (1) Recombination (2) Transduction
filaments shorten while Myosin filament do not
shorten (3) Chromosomal aberrations(4) Genetic drift
153. Minerals known to be required in large amounts for
(3) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass
plant growth include:
each other
(1) magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc
(4) Actin and Myosin filaments do not shorten rather
slide of actin filament over myosin filament (2) phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium
147. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body (3) calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper
found in prokaryotes? (4) potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron
(1) Polysome (2) Phosphate granule 154. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of
(3) Cyanophycean granule (4) Glycogen granule (1) Wet stigma (2) Hollow style
(3) Solid style (4) Dry stigma

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155. A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with (3) same number of chromosomes but twice the
blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible blood groups amount of DNA
of their offsprings? (4) twice the number of chromosomes and four times
(1) O only (2) A and B only the amount of DNA
(3) A, B and AB only (4) A, B, AB and O 163. Gastric juice of infants contains :
156. Which of the following statements is not correct ? (1) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
(1) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete (2) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
carboxypeptidase
(3) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
(2) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of
stomach and secrete pepsinogen (4) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
(3) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine 164. Which of the following animals is not viviparous ?
and secrete mucus (1) Whale (2) Flying fox (Bat)
(4) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of (3) Elephant (4) Platypus
stomach and secrete HCl.
157. Perigynous flowers are found in : O K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) is the floral formula of
165.
(1) Rose (2) Guava
(1) Brassica (2) Allium (3) Sesbania (4) Petunia
(3) Cucumber (4) China rose
158. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex 166. In which of the following both pairs have correct
chromosomes was born due to: combination?
(1) fusion of two sperms and one ovum (1) In situ conservation: Tissue culture
Ex situ conservation: Sacred groves
(2) formation of abnormal sperms in the father
(2) In situ conservation: National Park
(3) formation of abnormal ova in the mother
Ex situ conservation: Botanical Garden
(4) fusion of two ova and one sperm
(3) In situ conservation: Cryopreservation
159. What causes a green plant exposed to the light on Ex situ conservation: Wildlife Sanctuary
only one side, to bend toward the source of light as it
(4) In situ conservation: Seed Bank
grows ?
Ex situ conservation: National Park
(1) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating
greater cell elongation there. 167. Which body of the Government of India regulates GM
research and safety of introducing GM organisms for
(2) Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis. public services ?
(3) Green plants seek light because they are (1) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
phototropic.
(2) Bio - safety committee
(4) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to
grow faster. (3) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
160. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated (4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
close to one end are : 168. Which of the following endoparasites of humans does
(1) Sub-metacentric (2) Metacentric show viviparity ?
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric (1) Ascaris lumbricoides
161. A technique of micropropagation is: (2) Ancylostoma duodenale
(1) Embryo rescue (3) Enterobius vermicularis
(2) Somatic hybridization (4) Trichinella spiralis
(3) Somatic embryogenesis 169. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are
(4) Protoplast fusion joined by:
162. A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of (1) Cartilage (2) Cementing glue
its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same (3) Muscular tissue (4) Arthrodial membrane
species, has:
170. Most animals are tree dwellers in a:
(1) four times the number of chromosomes and twice
(1) tropical rain forest
the amount of DNA
(2) twice the number of chromosomes and twice the (2) coniferous forest
amount of DNA (3) thorn woodland
(4) temperate deciduous forest
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171. Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of 176. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is
protoplasts ? normally diploid?
(1) IAA and gibberellins (1) Secondary polar body (2) Primary polar body
(2) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride (3) Spermatid (4) Spermatogonia
(3) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate 177. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through :
(4) IAA and kinetin (1) Runners (2) Rhizome
172. Glenoid cavity articulates : (3) Offsets (4) Bulbils
(1) humerus with scapula 178. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(2) clavicle with acromion (1) The presence of the competitive inhibitor
(3) scapula with acromion decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate.
(4) clavicle with scapula (2) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the
enzyme to form an enzyme–inhibitor complex.
173. A population will not exist in Hardy–Weinberg
equilibrium if : (3) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is
not chemically changed by the enzyme.
(1) the population is large
(4) The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate
(2) individuals mate selectively of breakdown of the enzyme–substrate complex.
(3) there are no mutations 179. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon:
(4) there is no migration (1) blood only
174. Male gametes are flagellated in : (2) erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
(1) Spirogyra (2) Polysiphonia (3) mucosa and submucosa of colon only
(3) Anabaena (4) Ectocarpus (4) food in intestine
175. When you hold your breath, which of the following gas 180. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants
changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe? were studied by Mendel in his experiments?
(1) rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration (1) Seven (2) Five
(2) falling O2 concentration (3) Six (4) Eight
(3) rising CO2 concentration
(4) falling CO2 concentration

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