Test 9
Test 9
TNPSC
LAB AGADEMY
SUPER TEST
FSC
o -V
2022 28
BATCH LDITSmeb Bptal09
Gpsnib: 120 .dh.rhua e ungd pubig (t00) APTITUDE&MENTAL ABIUITY (25) lung o (25)
07-to uggi
150 olerndasit Lud 1,2,3,
NOTfluoo (tmMOTAD
umbe (100)
1. uuu d) bp 1ort npp 2 pp
e) sflom ptusflenenso
a amienn, ahuamm
c aebavi, 6haTuum d) 6aIneirom», 6umLu
2. omb 2:
mchopnmaule o2nBnanuao adrem
A) ead 1. 6UwM
d)npp Bio poip
B) Slemes 2. shmsT e) slemL 18rlwohosmeo
C)Lomr 3. sdL
8. 6umBAgLoIOT 8»76DLD GmDuLDmD BoiË RSTST SDS amsma.
D)t 4. r
A B C D A BC D
a
) 1 2 3 4 b)4 3 2 1
c) 3 2 1 d2 1 4 3
e) slmL Sfusfbenev
4. e) sfl pfuslám6
uieepági Genngiangt unir? Slsrgw hsnpsipmLtssl srtunratsmsuiso IaUES
a) u a c a b) enbapm.mIS Gsie 6is
c)4TLAáacî dyuoBoiai achigmu oa a) unsra$gb iaria efuib nsY aiasmb siSBNAD
e) shi pfusfeeDeo
5.
b)bsSd LTsdrmnid s\orhoftujd psdrshsiausmio
b) uuui aum )herunatuub ouneradesib sbgUsNb pernaiunmb
d) uwJ + Aplum d) bedr6suamd 6erss otuo umeago sbBsuD
e) sfo OsAuelóbemo e) stlmuL suustiovmas
6. 10. &jgssoioLSuDDIsiT tuumor anbnpmLsogS G5iaA u s
embast 6uLanpaeih sremisBib.
a) BamGeui isorpiemp sBezoflupszored ansr
b) LgTo igogTES
c)bD15p. #nbpi 2 ef
d) nppi 8romCuo gaup
e) of 6sfluslovome
e) sco sAusiebm
19: 'pefus UEBi praumu oL4 UupúumL Sgs
13. '@oispgi srorgb NEnsbeDeo 6pií as ygnauSL sugsud
s5?
a)LPG 6) Scmem6LDm
Gsnecoilemuegasdso.
c)ompuiuimg d) nLng Dm
e)ooL 1grusvoD0o
e) siu5ushi6vGD60 22. 6hnavsuDLSSIT6TeMuGI SI6Y6U?
16. nDuL 9HMDS Gsis Mia?
c)puumgT106mumomeDo a) ug&85p
d) ossco0m shássoys b umbDomLD
Pbovssomb d) 60ums
esflm 5flusfiebcmDo
27.
e slom 6flushsoenov
Gues-6LDmBsgLD TP`SI OLDmplsgb BoLGu Ourfu STolo 36. u5mD - 61sTLIG56r 6umGT 566
GoupumG SKLSTM S15 . .160TLIIGIDb
a n o nypés om b) unGoT 6upë6 LDmo a)ruLL b) upo
cSom6T
e6lco 5rushlovs6060
eshlo 65riwslóvma 37. sTLDLá GEGid 6LuiOB SH6b6omS5I T5?
8. GusLU6uisT 85SEI56 IDU 2L60TIP 6haLI6DLUTLLPMG 2-5YOIGI
a)agersioo) b)L
a 616uuyeT upëG d)
(b) 0s 6ypéG
e 6flom 15flusilsiv6ma
38. iSD5i BS5Dpsmu wnswo0T 66IT SsTpug" úumL6Dauri -
e)6m 95hushobomo
29. umos5is (sDpuggei)
a) arwuuT
A) p6bgmi 1. g
d) 6100T IT
B) a mi 2 e)chlem 515uoabemod
C) LA5TLT 3. Buss 39. saLLBo sa Boirp sashi sppavsn uaiseBsG
D) uigOFmLT 4. DTTL4 enpgssnyt unir?
A B C D A BC D a) snusso D) hmi unU
2 3 4 1 d 4 3 2 1 d) 4pLAsss
c)3 2 1 4 d) 1 3 2 4 e) slom 5fusabsmov
e 6o 5ushlovcmeo 40. DoOLSleiveno) LSltisz TUSIB.
-
THOOTHUKUDI 99445 11344 | TIRUNELVELI 98942 41422 | RAMANATHAPURAM 75503 52916 | MADURAI 98431 10566
SURES HOpemg LonsSog
2. sngò 6Tev6íls PGODD oBibBungI
b)) somirfum uD
4. goTsmb Glenooólcn mLuigu BpBig
d) yAse e)shlcmL 5riuusnabsnD b) 1,3 6f 4,150ip
43. prabupsBDS 260LDLUITS npuuG5I T5I? Ka 3, 4 gap 1, 2
c) 4, 2 rft 3, 150p
a) uéms m a b Gare9eBoim
d) 6r6Tu e6flL 15fuslobs06
e) sfleL 5fuslovemov 52. GoipuLL 9oMmpá Gsis.
44. LUuyprissT sEmpi siLiuGusDu ungi? a)oT+
aLDsu HLgu uprisass b)meOT LprAvssT b) ss0+s
c) Gausmags upra6T d) iuLL LIprvs6 c)Gungud BunsTLD
LD6OTLb
e) shoL S15uslobsna) (d)woD
45. srouGAITbDnsit srtiursD5S G5ia e) sflmL fushlovcm60
a3 2 1 3 1 2
26161T607.
a) 1,2, 3, 4 s b) 1,2 f 3, 4 5D 2 1 d) 12 3
e s m iush6bonsD
b) 6uruumm
Gungm GsnúOuG Bp£orofilulcir a
64. Gsmp LD6T6OT6 66
choissmums slonrisuair uni?
ch.s d Gpsr yo
a) anssD6ù umgsofum e) slc 5uwslobenov
npet
b) smDLun C6upusdo@ 74. wbmoeoriesi sLödu Roler 6ui?
a) 2 1 4 3 b) 4 1 2 3 b) sabp 1,2 5p c)
c) 4 3 12 d) 2 4 1 p p 1.2 ør e) silem 5usloosDeo
e sim 5fushsbnm
79. wisIomoeiat oy6os oumpen6u shL® ru augL a) 3 b) 4 C) 5 a)olbt)enn
2(
a1963,SsLui 3o b) 1963, 1suLDLuT 30
e)sho 65fuolovcmD
89. 6T 0T úsLÚUL
c)1953, BáGLMu 30 d) 1953, nsiLut 30 coossdET BImpiu a
e) s Ssushébcme
BaconG.
80. suuGS8s u s5ims, Gorm e 6sTLS0m6uDp a) pe Bob6osgopsT
eohcL 65riuslbvemo
81. uTi ungmLU Lîsmais56MGYD UITL6DLUUD GsmLLTD 61ES5 2. LDrES6ubp nenbsmoT LDnDM orAis6Ds =ndssmnso
e) 6hlsL5tushlobsma
a) Aoviudßeng b Goppenßoumesgid
c)GThiauDsnoo d) ppmgnp
96. BGpNSTSma s6rI NDpasÚLGD BIrOD agi?
b pebmaDiILuIMLG
e)6flmL G1prlusflevcm
a) pIBTp
99. sus0lom PgoreDDwTGT -Dúundu guogn GvouTD
cuigTLILITSD6D d 16mpuut?
esflc 5uciebsma) a) ugio (b) apm curhi d) ab
97. erfumorCDES @5ibs5Gis. e) oflo ,pflusioocnoo
SoucrLoT SGrismLÁuwapdao
1. Aomb5 BTG 100.amsfw y6m 6T É66g6sflc 5mLD56
sÚubsfio uusiruG$siuLL
uyprhisTDs ZispBMLGs 1mposiuGUur unir?
6urer
sÚUsbsorfisd hssnpsatT a) LlomuiriGsT LwGv b) sosro
pitssiT SuSD BTGaBiGå
c)shcLDrLwtero Lguy d16u6leivasnict
2
e) shloL 5uslo6m
@nems GempgD. rouTLT
3. psneoé Gsnpiestiso
APTITUDE (25)
V 2V
volumes oftwo cubes is 8:1 then
the a)V=4
101. The ratio of huV, =4VV
ratio of its sides is
,
c) y-2V
2 olmL sfiushévoneo
eAnswernot known/
area of a cube
is 486 cm2 then
105. If the total surface
surface a r e a and volume
12 c) 18 27
a)9 b)
ofilew 6iuehovmo
Answer not known/
H6aT6psorpTsd
e)
10566
MADURAI 98431
2Y RAMANATHAPURAM 75503
52916 |
99445 11344TIRUNELVELI
98942 41422 |
THOQTHUKUDI
2 ¥ )h
URES
filled with sand. The cost
107. The radius of a circular cylinder is the same as that 110. A cavity of Sm x 3m x 2m is
is 500. Total cost to fill the
of a sphere. Their volumes are equal. The height
of
ofcubic meter of sand
the cylinder is cavity is
e / shmu gfusóomeo
Answer not known
GpioLmmuloh a_umbumgu? T that
Find the approximatelength ofthe longest pole
4
117h T7, 111.
1Om x 8m x 5m. ( in m)
can be put in a room
onauiiu@o s
10.6 x 86 x 56 vamonsm. 9o mpuléo
Y Bouomem Ganooon lonoiri/mg ggmor) (bLLi
14.35 d) 12.55
a) 15.25(b) 13.75 c)
108. A circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 3 m and 112. A brick measures 20 cmx 10cm x7.5 cm. How many
conical above it. If the base radius is 52.5 m and m?
bricks will be required for awall 20 mx2mx0.75
slant of the cone is 53 m. Find the area of
height sseiso
es0lst 16T 20 e.
96DOtoO
x10 64.bx 7.5 e
canvas required to make tent. 206 x2 x 0.75 6 asp 8Teo asneT sauyá a
s eissv muguonsng 3 eupoineT oTuloir ußg GpomouiLGb nerisclei asomsoficns.
liaj+vd
2.5x53) SgiIu&G a d 52.5 6. vaibilsn smnugo 53 6 rolo,
a) 10,000 b) 15,000 2cc4 xioox
20 cm are
cm, Curved surface (ay8 b) 12 d) 24
a) Total surface area =
1188 c) 16
area = 880 cm2
e) Answer not known / slmL usiebemso
1818 cm', Curved surface
b) Total surface area =
d) 90
area = 880 cm2
a 8:625 b) 72915625
d) 12 27:125
a) 13 b) 10 c)11 27:75
e) Answer not known/ shemu flusnovomo e) Answer not known/ shlL 65rthushlobsmao
length, breadth and depth of a cuboid cm° then
125. The volume of the hemisphere is 1152
T
120. The sum of the
is 19cm and its diagonal is 5 5 cm. its total surface the curved surface area of the hemisphere is
,TIY
cm° ssofiev g s
gr oysnonsßor s s 6T 1152
t
are is (in cm)
ueDambs 6auafugiLloir ugüusm
BuabpeaGs 1906.6 Gg igr pm a) 242 7 cm/o 208 cm/%.*
b) T
ohcLen gamib 5 5 e.6 aotso Spon oonggù uúy c) 288 Tcm/n. d) 338 Tcm/n«.6
seirui ( . B - e) Answer not known/ slomL sushévmov
17 25
126. The introduced partial autonomy 130. The Tamil Nadu Governent appointed PV
(dyarchy) in the presidencies Rajamannar committee in which year?
a) The charter Act, 1833
b) The Government of India Act, 1919 ungpp?
c) The Government of India Act, 1935
1969 b) 1970 c) 1979 d) 1980
d Regulating Act, 1773 e) Answer not known / sfionu npiusBsvnao
e) Answer not known 131. Young Badaga Association is a
a) pressure Group
a886m FLLID, 1833 b) Tribal organisation
b) Sisu Syems riLD, 1919 c) ldeology based group
c8su AEivsë eiLb, 1935 d) Agrarian group
d) sGymp¢ FLLb, 1773 e) Answer not known
e) o 15ushom Am ugne orib (YBA) ssugI.
127. Which article provides a seperate amendment pro
cedure for amending constitutional provisions.
a) Art 365 b) Art 356
cGsmunG iquuDL, G
c)Art386 d) Art 368
e) Answer not known
e) olen 15fushlév6m6D
Sse BLLLuii ched SgesDuDLDU LDmppiousperom
$bbSSL PenpssT GprhvsiuLG6iTOmS
ipis132. "Leadership and learning are indispensable to each
other" -said by
a) Lilrio 365
b)LUifta 356 aAbrahamLincoln b) Roosevelt
c) LiNriey 386
d)LLLirfioy 363 cJohnF.kennedy d) Ambedkar
e) smonu 5rRushl6o6moD
e) Answer not known
128. Which article describes the composition of the Fi
nance Commission.
"56D60 6DLDùusoT LLD, spp 9 BpnG
BoinluwsmLDLITBSD 616T 6auauiT unir?
a) Art 260 b) Art 250 a) igesmb 6OiscT b) evsiucOL
c)Art280 d) Art 290
d) Subusai
e) Answer not known
eshlc 5ushoema
aiguDDLDiLlem sb5 6LLÚiiaBgisushot eDIDLIODL 133. Match the following:
serii&opB? A. Shiromani Akali Dal 1. Uttar Pradesh
a) aLiîto 260 b) 6LLIurfo 250
B. Samajwadi Party 2. Assam
Lrto 280 d) 8LUliay 290 C. Rashtriya Janata Dal 3. Punjab
e) sl 5flusi6oom6D
D. Asom Gana
129. Who called the Article 356 as a dead letter to the
parishad 4. Bihar
constitution? 6umGSEs
a) K.M.Munshi a) AGgmDwufl DsITsl gomd 1.
b) B.R.Ambedkar
c)lvorJennings d) Earnest Parker
e) Answer not known Egmóiagiluw gomgn Borib 3. Eu
c)siLbut25 d) orart 25
6Tgomid 85 1936 o r i 60bI sTs6T6o
e) smL 05rtuolobe0o
ST6rpepsLLG#pEI
141. The first general elections were held in British India
a) abp agoromb BuonGb arî
in the year.
b aabp sgomb BIsim@b 5op
THOOTHUKUDI 99445 11344| TIRUNELVELI 9894241422 | RAMANATHAPURAM 75503 52916 | MADURAI 98431 105661
UREA deals with
142. The52nd Amendment Act of 1985 eßpoopio essnpompssiuGApg?
a) Anti-Defection Law b) 6eom
a)iiflsom
b) Election Methods
c) orfáan d) p3yofum
c)Electoral Reforms
e6hlL 5rflusloomov
d) Election Campaign
famous french philosopher propounded the
Answer not known
147 a
e) idea of an independent judiciary.
52-5 senuDiL OLLBDLSD, 1985 uppluigneD. b) Plato
a) Socrates
(a sTaIs) EDLèaLLD d) Nietche
c)Montasque
b) Gsigb penpeir c)aphgoidoksriva e) Answer not known
d) Gsigo upuyeng e) ofiL sAuelcocmco
143. Fiqha-e-Feroze shahi was written in _ language
a) Prakrit b) Persian a) oehgreio b) lomm@LT
c) Arabic d) Sanskrit d) pc
c)LDGourCLsivsu
e) Answer not known
esh 6giusioomeo
sseDun--LmsD-ngné sps omluioo mpsiutLg? 148. Who among the following was considered 'the foun-