DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet Series

PRELIMS FITNESS – 2023
T.B.C : P-SIA-F-UPGI
POLITY
Serial : 858412
TEST – 12 F
Time Allowed : One Hour Maximum Marks : 100

INSTRUCTIONS

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TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q.1) Consider the following statements :
1. Fundamental Rights limit the power of the Government over an individual.
2. The Directive principles are based on the Instrument of Accession in the Government of India Act
1935.
3. A law that violates the provision in the Directive principles cannot be declared void by the courts.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Fundamental Rights are those rights that are important for the moral and intellectual development of all
people. Article 13(2) of the Indian Constitution states that no laws can be made that take away
fundamental rights, which put limits the power of the Government operating on individuals. The
Constitution guarantees fundamental rights to all people without any discrimination. Fundamental
rights promote the ideal of democracy and protect the liberties and Freedom of the people against the
invasion of the Government. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Directive principles of the state policy are based on the 'Instrument of instructions 'enumerated in
the Government of India Act 1935. These are the instruction to the legislature and the executive. D.R.
B.R. Ambedkar described it as 'novel features of the Constitution. Fundamental rights and directive
principles contain the Constitution's philosophy and are the soul of the Constitution.
The Instrument of Accession was the legal document created in 1947 that enabled the princely State's
ruler to join the new dominion of India or Pakistan. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, but article 37 makes it clear that these principles
are fundamental in the country's governance, and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these
principles in making laws. Any law made against directive principles of state policy cannot be declared
null and void by the courts, and Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in
derogation of any of fundamental rights shall be null and void by the courts. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.2) Consider the following statements :

1. There are only ten fundamental duties enshrined in the original Constitution that came into force
on 26 Jan 1950.
2. The Verma Committee suggested including the duty to pay tax in Part IVA of the Constitution.
3. Similar to the Preamble, the fundamental duties have been amended only once so far.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

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 EXPLANATION:
The original Constitution contained only fundamental rights and not fundamental duties. The framers of
the Constitution did not feel it necessary to add the fundamental duties of the citizen in the Constitution;
later, it was added in 1976 in the 42nd constitutional Amendment, which included 10 fundamental duties,
part IVA to the Constitution this new part consists only one article, that is, article 51A. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
Sardar Swaran Singh's committee suggested adding eight fundamental duties to the Constitution. 42 nd
Constitutional Amendment included the then ruling party did not accept 10 fundamental duties, certain
recommendations of the committee, and duties to pay tax and by the citizen were not incorporated in the
Constitution. Verma committee on fundamental duties identified the existence of legal provisions for the
implementation of fundamental duties, it didn’t suggest any duty. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The term preamble refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It was amended once in 1976
in the 42nd constitutional amendment act, which added three new words: -socialist, secular, and integrity.
The fundamental duties were not in the original Constitution, incorporated later in 1976. fundamental
duties amended once in 2002 under the 86th constitutional amendment act, added new duty under article
51A- to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

Q.3) Consider the following statements :

1. The notion of including fundamental Duties in the Constitution was influenced by the German
Constitution.
2. The Swaran Singh Committee's suggestion was implemented with the addition of new Article 51A to
the Constitution.
3. The introduction of Fundamental Duties placed our Constitution in accordance with Article 29 (1) of
the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
4. The 44th constitutional Amendment of 1978 did not affect Fundamental Duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The fundamental duties in the Constitution were inspired by the erstwhile USSR, not by Germany. The
only democratic country to have fundamental duties in their Constitution is Japan; notably, none of the
Constitution of major countries like the USA, Canada, Australia and so on does not contain a list of
duties to their citizens. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

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 Sardar Swaran Singh's committee was set up to recommend fundamental duties in the Constitution in
1976, the need and necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency operation (1975-77). The
committee recommended the inclusion of a new separate chapter on fundamental duties in the
Constitution enacted in the 42nd constitutional amendment act in 1976, adding a new part IVA consists
of only one article. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Fundamental duties will Remind every citizen that they should be conscious of their rights and duties.
42nd constitutional amendment act of 1976 added new part IV A, which included article 51A according
to the recommendation of Sadar Swaran Singh committee to bring out the Constitution in accordance
with Article 29 (1) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights in 1948, states Everyone has duties to
the community in which alone the free and full development of his personality is possible. So, Statement
3 is correct.
The 44th constitutional Amendment of 1978 altered the fundamental right, which deleted the right to
property from the list of fundamental rights and has been made it a legal right. 44th constitutional
Amendment does not affect fundamental duties; rather 42nd constitutional Amendment act added
Fundamental Duties. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Q.4) Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution ended the feudal mode of society to usher in
the democratic republic that the makers of the Nation dreamt of ?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 18
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 19
EXPLANATION:
Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen based only on religion, race,
caste, sex or place of birth. Article 15 relates to the Right to Equality and does not discuss feudalism.
So, Statement 1 is not correct
Article 18 (1)(4) of the Constitution says No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be
conferred by the State. The hereditary titles of nobility like Maharaja, Raj Bahadur, Rai Bahadur, Rai
Saheb, Dewan Bahadur, etc., which were conferred by colonial States, are banned by Article 18 as
these are against the principle of equal status of all. Thus, it helped to end the feudal mode of society,
which abolished titles of no merit. So, Statement 2 is correct
Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form. This article ends the practice of
Untouchability, even against private individuals. Article 17 does not discuss the feudal mode of society.
So, Statement 3 is not correct
Article 19 guarantees to all citizens the six rights of Freedom of
➢ Speech and expression,
➢ Assembly,

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 ➢ Association,
➢ Movement,
➢ Residence, and
➢ Profession.
These six fundamental freedoms are the natural and basic freedoms inherent in the status of a citizen.
Article 19 guarantees Freedom of speech and expression and does not mention the feudal mode of society.
So, Statement 4 is not correct

Q.5) With respect to the Writ of Habeas Corpus, consider the following statements :
1. The right to petition in the Supreme Court to enforce rights in PART III of the Constitution is itself a
fundamental right.
2. In the event of a national emergency, the writ of Habeas Corpus remains effective.
3. In all cases of unjust deprivation of personal liberty, the writ of habeas corpus is available as a remedy.
4. The Constitution empowers Supreme Court to issue a writ of habeas corpus, whereas High Courts
are authorized by Parliament by law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Article 32 deals with the 'Right to Constitutional Remedies' or affirms the right to move the Supreme
Court by appropriate proceedings to enforce the rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution. Therefore,
the right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 to enforce fundamental rights is itself a
fundamental right. So, Statement 1 is correct
Habeas corpus is the writ used as an effective means to provide a quick remedy to a person who has lost
his personal liberty without any legal justification. Under the original Constitution, the President had the
power to suspend any fundamental right, including personal liberty (Article 21). In order to uphold
citizens' liberty, Parliament enacted the 44th constitutional amendment act of 1978, in which the
President cannot suspend personal liberty (which includes the right to file writ petitions like Habeas
corpus if any other personal liberty is curtailed) even during a National Emergency. So, statement 2 is
correct
The writ of habeas corpus is a remedy in all cases of wrongful deprivation of personal liberty. It is a
process for securing the liberty of the subjects by affording an effective means of immediate release from
unlawful or unjustifiable detention, whether in prison or private custody. So, Statement 3 is correct
The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and the high courts (under Article 226) can issue the writs of
habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto. Further, the Parliament (under

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 Article 32) can empower any other court to issue these writs. Since no such provision has been made so
far, only the Supreme Court and the high courts can issue the writs and not any other court. So,
Statement 4 is not correct.

Q.6) Which of the following are constitutionally authorized reasonable restrictions on exercising the right
conferred under the Right to Freedom ?
1. Sovereignty and integrity of India
2. In relation to contempt of Court
3. Public order, decency or morality
4. Protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribes
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Article 19 guarantees all citizens six rights. These are:
➢ Right to Freedom of speech and expression.
➢ Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
➢ Right to form associations or unions or cooperative societies.
➢ Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
➢ Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
➢ Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the Freedom of speech and expression
on the grounds of
(i) sovereignty and integrity of India,
(ii) security of the State, friendly relations with foreign states,
(iii) public order,
(iv) decency or morality, contempt of Court,
(v) defamation, and incitement to an offense.
The grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions on Freedom of movement are two:
(i) the interests of the general public and
(ii) the protection of the interests of any scheduled tribe.
The entry of outsiders in tribal areas is restricted to protect the distinctive culture, language, customs
and manners of scheduled tribes and to safeguard their traditional vocation and properties against
exploitation. So, Option (d) is correct.

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Q.7) Which of the following are the Fundamental Duties of an Indian Citizen ?
1. To promote international peace and security
2. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
3. To protect and improve the natural environment
4. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform
5. To work for the removal of Untouchability
6. To Promote the education and economic interests of S.C. and S.T.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2, 4 and 6
(d) 2, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
Article 51 of the Constitution (Directive Principles of State Policy) directs the Indian State to promote
international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations. So,
Statement 1 is not correct
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976 added a new part, namely, Part IVA, to the
Constitution. This new part has only Article 51A, which for the first time, specified a code of ten
fundamental duties of the citizens.
According to Article 51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
➢ To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the
National Anthem;
➢ To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for Freedom;
➢ To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
➢ To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
➢ To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices
derogatory to the dignity of women;
➢ To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country's composite culture;
➢ To protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and
to have compassion for living creatures;
➢ To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
➢ To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
➢ To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the Nation
constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;
➢ To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen
years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002.
So, Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

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 Article 17 abolishes Untouchability and its practice in any form. The practice of it will be considered an
offense and will be punishable. This provision falls under fundamental rights and not fundamental duty.
So, Statement 5 is not correct.
Article 46 requires the State 'to promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the
weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and
to protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation. This provision falls under D.S.P.S. So,
Statement 6 is not correct.

Q.8) With reference to Indian Polity, Consider the following statements :

1. Parliament has the authority to enforce reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights.
2. 'Contempt of Court' is one of the constitutionally authorized reasonable restrictions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Fundamental Rights are not absolute and subject to reasonable restrictions. Further, they are not
sacrosanct and can be curtailed or repealed by the Parliament through a Constitutional Amendment Act.
Fundamental rights are not absolute but qualified. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike
a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society, between individual liberty and
social control. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Article 19(2) states that Government may impose a reasonable restriction upon the Freedom
Of speech and expression in the interest of the following factors:
➢ Sovereignty and integrity of India
➢ The security of the State,
➢ Friendly relations with foreign States,
➢ Public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of Court
➢ Defamation
➢ Incitement to an offence. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.9) Consider the following pairs :

Rights Related Cases
1. Right to Privacy - K S Puttasamy case
2. Freedom of the press - Romesh Thapar case
3. Right to travel abroad - Maneka Gandhi case
How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

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 (a) One pair only
(b) Two pairs only
(c) All the Three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
EXPLANATION:
In August 2017, the Nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India held that the right to privacy was
a constitutionally protected right in India and was incidental to other freedoms guaranteed by the Indian
Constitution. The Court held that privacy is an incident of fundamental Freedom or liberty guaranteed
under Article 21, which states, "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according
to procedure established by law." The case of K. S. Puttaswamy Vs. Union of India is related to the right
to privacy. So, pair 1 is correct.
In 1950, the Madras government banned the weekly journal crossroads of Romesh Thapar in certain
areas for expressing scepticism. In the Romesh Thapar v State of Madras (1950) case Supreme court held
that Freedom of speech and expression also includes Freedom of propagation of ideas protected under
Article 19. Reacting to this judgment, the Parliament amended the Constitution in 1951. 1st
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 added 'Public Order' as a reasonable restriction under 19(2) on the
Freedom of Speech & Expression. The Romesh Thapar case is related to Freedom of the press. So, pair
2 is correct.
In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court held that the right to life, as embodied in Article
21, is not merely confined to animal existence or survival but it includes the right to live with human
dignity and all those aspects of life which go to make a man's life meaningful, complete and worth living.
The Freedom of movement has two dimensions, internal (right to move inside the country) is protected
under Article 19 and external (right to move out of the country and the right to come back to the country)
is protected under Article 21. The right to travel abroad is related to the Maneka Gandhi case. So, pair
3 is correct.

Q.10) With respect to Fundamental Rights during the Emergency, consider the following statements :
1. The provision of automatic suspension of Article 19 during a national emergency is borrowed from
the Canadian Constitution.
2. None of the Fundamental rights is automatically suspended under Article 359.
3. The suspension of Articles 20 and 21 during the National Emergency was protected by the 44th
Amendment Act of 1978.
Select the correct answer by given statements :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 EXPLANATION:
Emergency provisions relating to the suspension of fundamental rights are borrowed from the Weimar
constitution of Germany and not from the Canadian Constitution. When a national emergency is declared
on the ground of war or external aggression, the fundamental rights under article 19 are automatically
suspended. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Article 359 does not automatically suspend any Fundamental Right. It only empowers the President to
suspend the enforcement of the specified Fundamental Rights by his order. Only Article 358
automatically suspends the fundamental rights under Article 19. So, statement 2 is correct.
44th amendment act of 1978 restricted the scope of article 359. the President cannot suspend the right
to move the Court to enforce fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21. The Right to protection
in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the Right to life and personal liberty (Article 21)
remain enforceable even during an Emergency. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.11) With respect to Fundamental rights, consider the following statements :

1. Both citizens, as well as foreigners, enjoy the Right to Freedom and the Right to Equality before Law.
2. The Supreme Court or the High Courts can set aside any law that infringes or abridges Fundamental
Rights.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
EXPLANATION:
Fundamental rights under Article 14 (Equality before the law and equal protection of laws) are available
to citizens and foreigners.
Right to Freedom of fundamental rights covered from Articles 19 to 22, Both citizens and foreigners enjoy
the Rights under Articles 20,21,21A,22.
➢ Article 20 - Protection in respect of conviction for offences
➢ Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty
➢ Article 21A - Right to elementary education
➢ Article 22 - Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
Protection of six rights regarding Freedom under article 19 is available only to the citizens and not to
foreigners. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or derogate any fundamental rights shall be
void. It expressively provides for the doctrine of judicial review. This power has been conferred on the
Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that courts can declare a law
unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of infringement of any of the Fundamental Rights. So,
statement 2 is correct.

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Q.12) Consider the following statement :
1. All fundamental rights are Constitutional rights, but all Constitutional rights are not fundamental
rights.
2. The right to property is not a Constitutional right as per the 44th Constitutional Amendment act.
3. The right to vote is a Constitutional or legal right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The fundamental rights are the basic and inalienable rights granted to each citizen of India through Part
III of the Constitution, and some fundamental rights are also available to non-citizens. Fundamental
rights are justiciable in nature. All rights that have been conferred to the citizens and enshrined in the
Constitution of India are said to be Constitutional rights. Though constitutional rights are mentioned in
the Constitution, they are non-justiciable in nature. So, statement 1 is correct.
The right to property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act 1978.
It is made a legal right or constitutional Right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
A constitutional right is a supreme right guaranteed by our Constitution. The Right to Vote is guaranteed
by the Constitution of India under Article 326 of the Indian Constitution. So right to vote is a
constitutional right. Every citizen has to attain the age of 18 to exercise this particular right. Voting rights
were guaranteed to the citizens of India under the concept of Universal Suffrage in 1950. The 61st
constitutional Amendment of 1988 reduced the voting age for elections to Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assemblies from 21 to 18 years. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.13) Which of the following freedoms are guaranteed to all Indian citizens under Article 19 of the Indian
Constitution ?
1. Freedom of speech and expression
2. The religious Freedom of the individual
3. To form associations or unions
4. Move freely to other countries and come back
5. Reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
6. Practice any profession, trade or business
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 4and 6
(d) 1, 3, 5 and 6

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 EXPLANATION:
Article 19(1) of the Indian Constitution guarantee six freedoms to the citizen of India. But original
Constitution contained seven rights, but the right to property was deleted by the 44th amendment act of
1978. All these rights are protected against the State, not against private individuals.
➢ Right to Freedom of speech and expression.
➢ Right To form associations or unions or cooperative societies
➢ Right to Reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
➢ Right to practice any profession, trade or business.
➢ Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
➢ Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
The religious Freedom of the individual comes under Article 25 (Right to Freedom of religion), which says
all persons are equally entitled to Freedom of conscience and the Right to freely profess, practice and
propagate religion.
Freedom of movement has two dimensions (the right to move inside the country) is protected under article
19, and (the Right to move out of the country and the Right to come back to the country) is protected
under Article 21 in the right to life and personal liberty.
So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.14) Consider the following statements.

1. Article 15(4) was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment act of 1951.
2. Article 15(4) permits to make of any special provisions for women and children.
3. Article 15 is not an absolute right because it allows for certain exceptions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Article 15(4) was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment act of 1951 after the State of Madras VS
Champakam Dorairajan case. It is a landmark judgement of the supreme of India, which upheld the
madras high court judgement on the reservation, and added a provision that the State to make special
provisions for the advancement of socially and economically backward classes. So, statement 1 is
correct.
Article 15(4) gives authority to the State to establish specific arrangements for Schedule classes, other
Backward classes and Schedule tribes. Article 15(3) permits a special provision for women and children.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
Absolute rights are those Rights that can be neither restricted nor restrained under any condition. Article
15 is not absolute; it has some exceptions.

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 ➢ The State is permitted to make any special provision for women and children.
➢ The State is permitted to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and
educationally backward classes.
➢ The State is empowered to make special provisions for any economically weaker sections
So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.15) With respect to the 103rd Constitutional Amendment act, consider the following statements.
1. It added Article 15(6) and Article 16 (6) to the Constitution
2. It provided for the establishment of the National Commission of Backward Class
Which of the given above statements is/are not correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
103rd Constitutional Amendment act has added Article 15 (6), which gives the authority to the State to
establish specific provisions for the advancement of economically weaker sections, including reservation
in educational institutions. It has also added Article 16 (6), which provides reservations for economically
weaker sections in public employment. The union government issued an order (in 2019) providing 10%
reservations to economically weaker sections in civil posts and services in the Government of India. So,
statement 1 is correct.
The Supreme Court ordered the Government to establish a permanent commission to
consider, examine, and recommend the inclusion and exclusion of various Backward. The National
Commission for Backward Classes Act of 1993 was passed in response to these directives, and the NCBC
was established in 1993. 102nd Constitutional Amendment act, 2018 conferred a constitutional status
on the National Commission of Backward Class, which was set up in 1993 by an act of the Parliament.
So, statement 2 is not correct.

Q.16) Consider the following statements :

1. The Irish Constitution served as the inspiration for the Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. The 42nd constitutional amendment act was added to promote equal justice and offer free legal aid
to the underprivileged.
3. According to Article 37 of the Indian Constitution, Directive Principles are not enforceable by any
court.
4. According to Article 40, it is the duty of the State to apply Directive Principles while making laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only

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 (c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
The Directive Principles of State Policy features have been borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937,
which had been copied from the Spanish Constitution. The Constitution itself declares these principles
are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these
principles. So, statement 1 is correct.
The 42nd constitutional amendment act of 1976 added new directives and principles of state policy to the
original list; they require the State to promote equal justice and offer free legal aid to the poor under
Article 39A. So, statement 2 is correct.
This provision contains in part IV of the Indian Constitution as a directive policy that is non-justiciable
in nature; that is, they are not legally enforceable by a court of law. So therefore, State is not compelled
to implement them. Article 37 says these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country,
and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. So, statement 3 is correct.
Article 40 of the Indian Constitution mentioned the organization of village panchayat and giving them
the necessary power and authority to enable them to function as a unit of self-government in rural areas.
The duty of the State to apply Directive Principles while making laws will cover under article 37 of the
Indian Constitution.
So, statement 4 is not correct.

Q.17) With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements :
1. The right to propagate one's religion is a fundamental right.
2. All religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish their educational institutions.
3. Minority status in India is only determined on the basis of language and religion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Article 25 guarantees all persons are equally entitled to Freedom of conscience and the Right to profess,
Practice and propagate their religion; however, these rights are subject to public order, morality, health
and other provision relating to fundamental rights, so the State is permitted to put reasonable
restrictions. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution grants all minorities shall have right to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice. Thus, the protection under article 30 is confined only to
minorities (religious or linguistic) and does not extend to all other citizens (as under article 29). So,
statement 2 is correct.

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 The term minorities are not defined in the Indian Constitution. This minority status is not dependent
only upon religion, and Linguistic and cultural minorities are also included in this provision. Article 29
grants protection to both religious and linguistic minorities. However supreme Court held that the scope
of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only. This is because of the word 'section of
citizens' in the article that includes minorities as well as the majority. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Q.18) With respect to Rights mentioned in the Constitution, consider the following statements :
1. If a person's right to vote is violated, he/she may file a complaint with the Supreme Court under the
right to constitutional remedy.
2. Unlike fundamental rights, other rights in the Indian Constitution are not justiciable.
3. Freedom of Trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free, is one of
the Constitutional rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution deals with Constitutional Remedies, which protects individuals from
seeking the Supreme court if their rights are violated. The Right to Vote is not a Fundamental Right. It
is a guaranteed Constitutional Right and is ensured by Article 326 of the Indian Constitution. Every
citizen who attains the age of 18 can exercise this particular right. So, statement 1 is not correct.

The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas a high court
can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose. The
expression 'for any other purpose' refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right. Unlike fundamental
rights, Other rights are not non-justiciable because they can be challenged in Court for their violations.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
Article 301 of the Indian Constitution under Part XIII provides trade, commerce and intercourse in the
territory of India shall be free throughout the country. All rights that have been conferred to the citizens
and enshrined in the Constitution of India but are not under the domain of Part III of the Constitution
are said to be Constitutional Rights. So, Freedom of Trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout the
territory of India are one of the Constitutional rights. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.19) With respect to 'The Directive Principles State Policy,' consider the following statements :
1. It is non-justiciable in nature
2. Courts cannot use them to determine the constitutional legality of a law.
3. It seeks to establish economic and social democracy in the country.

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 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The phrase "Directive principles of state policy" denotes the ideals, State should keep in mind while
enacting laws. Directive principles of State Policy are non-justiciable in nature. They are not legally
enforceable by courts for their violation. The Government cannot be compelled to implement them. The
Constitution (Article 37) says that these principles are fundamental in the country's governance, and it
shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. So, statement 1 is correct
Unlike Fundamental Rights, the Directive Principles of State Policy (D.P.S.P.) are non-justiciable, which
means they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. However, the Constitution itself declares
that 'these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the
state to apply these principles in making laws.' Though non-justiciable in nature, the Directive Principles
help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of law when they give effect to
any of the Fundamental rights. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Directive Principles constitute a comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern
democratic State. They aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as
mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution. They bring up the concept of a 'welfare state' and not
that of a 'police state,' which existed during the colonial era. In brief, they seek to establish economic
and social democracy in the country. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.20) With reference to the 'Essential Religious Practices", consider the following statements :
1. In India, the Shirur Mutt Case led to the development of Essential Religious Practices.
2. Refusing to allow essential religious practices would be a breach of Article 25 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Essential religious practices mean all those practices that are fundamental to a religion, and not following
them would result in a change of religion itself. In 1954, the Supreme court gave a judgement on the
Shirur Mutt vs. Union of India case that the Court defined the constitutional scope of religious Freedom.
Supreme court gave judgement on the case, which constitutes the essential part of a religion that is
primarily to be ascertained as a reference to the doctrines of that religion itself. So, the Shirur Mutt vs.
Union of India case led to the development of Essential Religious Practices. So, statement 1 is correct.

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 The doctrine of "essentiality" was invented by the Supreme court in the Shirur Mutt case in 1954.
Essential religious practice is a doctrine evolved by the Supreme Court to protect religious practices
which are essential and integral to that religion. So, refusing Essential religious practice would violate
Article 25 and Article 26 of the Indian Constitution. So, statement 2 is correct.

Q.21) The Ninety-Ninth Amendment (99th) of the Indian Constitution established a National Judicial
Appointments Commission. The Supreme Court deemed it null and void because it violated the provision
of ?
(a) Article 21
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 13
(d) Article 50
EXPLANATION:
The National Judicial Appointment Commission (NJAC) was established by the 99th Constitutional
Amendment act in 2014 by replacing the existing collegium system. N.J.A.C. proposed to make
appointments for the position of Chief Justices of the Supreme Court and High Court and other judges
of the Supreme Court, High Court. Appointing Judges by the National Judicial Appointment Commission
(NJAC) violates the provision of the Indian Constitution under Article 50 (Separation of judiciary from
executive). So, Interference of Executives in Judicial appointments through N.J.A.C. made interference
on the powers of the judiciary. So, the Supreme Court declared that National Judicial Appointment
Commission (N.J.A.C.) is null and void. So, option (d) is correct.

Q.22) Which of the following Amendments of the Indian Constitution are not related to the Directive Principles
of State Policy ?
1. 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975
2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
3. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
4. 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
5. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
6. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 6 only
(b) 2 and 5 only
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
Sikkim became a fully-fledged state of the Indian Union under the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act
of 1975. It included a new Article 371-F with unique Sikkim-related requirements. It includes seat

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 allocation and safeguards for the interests of the Sikkim population. So, this Amendment to the Indian
Constitution is not related to the Directive Principles of State Policy. So, statement 1 is not correct.
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is called a "Mini constitution." The 42nd Amendment Act of
1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
1. To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3. To secure workers' participation in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A). So,
statement 2 is correct.
44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the Right to Property (Article 31) as a Fundamental Right by
repealing Article 19(1) (f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, this Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part
XII under 'Right to Property.' 44th Amendment Act of 1978 also added one Directive Principle, which
requires the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38). So,
statement 3 is correct.
74th Amendment Act 1992 introduced Municipalities or Urban Local Bodies as constitutional entities. It
created a "Decentralized form of government." It consists of provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
74th Amendment Act 1992 also added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution. This contains 18
functional items of municipalities. So, it does not relate to any provisions of the Directive Principles. So,
statement 4 is not correct.
86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education
as a fundamental right under Article 21A. This Amendment of the Directive Principles of State Policy
requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they reach the age
of six years. So, statement 5 is correct.
97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principles of State Policy relating to cooperative
societies. It requires the State to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic
control and professional management of cooperative societies (Article 43B). So, statement 6 is correct
So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.23) Right to establish Educational Institutions is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under which Article of the
Constitution to all the citizens of India ?
(a) Article 30
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 29
(d) Article 15
EXPLANATION:
Article 19 guarantees to all citizens the six rights. These includes
➢ (a) Right to Freedom of speech and expression.

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 ➢ (b) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
➢ (c) Right to form associations or unions or cooperative societies.
➢ (d) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
➢ (e) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
➢ (f) and omitted
➢ (g) Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Under Article 19(1)(g)- All citizens shall have the right to practice any profession or to carry on any
occupation, trade or business.
The recent judgment of the Supreme Court held that the right to establish educational institutions is a
fundamental right under article 19(1)(g) with some reasonable restrictions that the State can impose only
by law and not executive instruction.
As per article 19(1)(g), all citizens have the right to practice any profession, including establishing
educational institutions like schools, colleges, etc. So, Option (B) is correct.

Q.24) Consider the following statements :

1. The Preamble of the Constitution of India intended to secure equality of status and opportunity.
2. The Right to Equality under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution includes the right against the
arbitrary use of power by the Government.
3. Any law made under Article 39(c), although violating Article 14, is constitutionally valid.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution states that
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN,
SOCIALIST, SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY, this twenty-sixth day of November 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT,
ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
The term 'equality' means the absence of special privileges to any section of society and the provision of
adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. So, Statement 1 is correct
Article 14 of the Fundamental Rights states that the State cannot deny any person equality before the
law or equal protection of the laws within the territory. The term "Equal protection of the laws" states (a)

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 the equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in the privileges conferred and liabilities
imposed by the laws, (b) the similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated,
and (c) the like should be treated alike without any discrimination
So, Statement 2 is correct.
Article 31C, as inserted by the 25th Amendment Act of 1971, contained the following two provisions:
(a) No law that seeks to implement the socialistic directive principles specified in Article 39(b) or (c)
shall be void on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14
(equality before the law and equal protection of laws) or Article 19 (protection of six rights in
respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc.)
(b) No law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be questioned in
any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.
In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court declared the above second provision of
Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the
Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away.
However, the above first provision of Article 31C was held to be constitutional and valid. The 42nd
Amendment Act (1976) extended the scope of the above first provision of Article 31C by including within
its protection any law to implement any of the directive principles specified in Part IV of the Constitution
and not merely in Article 39 (b) or (c). However, the Supreme Court declared this extension
unconstitutional and invalid in the Minerva Mills case (1980). So, Statement 3 is correct

Q.25) What is the position of the 'Right to be Forgotten' in India ?

(a) Legal rights available to the constitutional heads
(b) Fundamental Rights available to citizens only
(c) Legal Rights available to citizens only
(d) Fundamental Rights available to any person
EXPLANATION:
The 'Right to be forgotten' gives the right to individuals to have their private information removed from
the Internet, websites or any other public platforms under special circumstances.
In the K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017) case, the judgment gave The Right to be forgotten falls
under the scope of an individual's right to privacy, which is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the
Constitution of India.
Article 21 is the fundamental right in the Indian Constitution, which states that No person shall be
deprived of his life or personal liberty according to a procedure established by law.
In the Sredharan T v. State of Kerala Civil case, The Kerala High Court recognized the 'Right to be
forgotten' as a part of the right to privacy. And also, The Delhi High Court observed the right to be
Forgotten and the right to be left alone as an integral part of an individual's existence.
Article 21 is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
Therefore, the right to be forgotten is a fundamental right under article 21 and is available to citizens
and foreigners. So, Option (d) is correct.

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Q.26) Consider the following statements :
1. Fundamental Rights envisage a liberal democratic State,
2. The Directive Principles of State Policy envisage the principles of a welfare state.
3. The Directive Principles of State Policy do not need any legislative action to enforce them.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
A Liberal democratic state is a form of Government that gives importance to the rights and Freedom of
individuals/citizens. These induvial rights include the right to privacy, the right to speech and
expression, the right to life and security, equality before the law, etc. Part III of the Indian Constitution
deals with the fundamental rights (Article 12-35), which is embedded with most of the Right of the liberal
State. Thus, fundamental rights envisage principles of a liberal democratic state. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36 to 51).
Most of the D.P.S.P. aims to constitute a nation's comprehensive economic, social, and political policies.
They seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country. Having D.P.S.P. was about creating
a "welfare state" that works for the country's individuals, which was absent during the colonial era. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
The framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles non-justiciable and legally non-enforceable
because the country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them, and the presence
of vast diversity and backwardness in the country would stand in the way of their implementation.
As the D.P.S.P. is non-enforceable in Court, it needs legislation from the Government to enforce and
fulfill its objectives. So, Statement 3 is not correct

Q.27) Consider the following statements :

1. In Indian democracy, the right to vote is an absolute constitutional right.
2. Representation of the People Act, 1951 prohibits any person in the lawful custody of the police from
voting in elections.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 EXPLANATION:
Under Article 326 of the Indian Constitution- Every citizen has to attain the age of 18 to exercise this
particular right. Full voting rights were guaranteed to the citizens of India under the concept of 'Universal
Suffrage," So it is a constitutional right. At the same time right to vote is a legal right under section 62 of
the Representation of People's Act (R.P.A.) 1951 with some exemptions (i.e., the prisoner cannot vote).
So, the right to vote is not absolute.
Thus, the right to vote is a non-absolute constitutional right. So, Statement 1 is not correct
The right to vote is a statutory right created under section 62 of the Representation of People's Act (R.P.A.)
1951, which means that the right to vote is subject to restrictions prescribed in the R.P.A.
Section 62(5) says no person shall vote if he is confined in prison, whether under a sentence of
imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police. The only exception
envisaged is for persons subjected to preventive detention under any law for the time being in force.
Thus, the R.P.A. act prohibits a person in lawful custody from voting. So, Statement 2 is correct

Q.28) Consider the following statements :

1. The President, as the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces, can restrict or abrogate the rights
of the members of the armed forces.
2. For the armed forces and the police, the fundamental right to form an association can be restricted
under Article 19(4).
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of
armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces and does not
empower the President. The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and
not to the state legislatures. The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their
duties and the maintenance of discipline among them. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Article 19(4) states that the Government may impose reasonable restrictions upon the Freedom to form
associations and unions in the interest of the Sovereignty and integrity of India, Public order, and
Morality. Thereby the Parliament has enacted the Army Act (1950), the Navy Act (1950), the Air Force
Act (1950), the Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966, the Border Security Force Act and so on.
These laws impose restrictions on their Freedom of speech, Right to form associations, Right to be
members of trade unions or political associations, Right to communicate with the press, and right to
attend public meetings or demonstrations. So, Statement 2 is correct.

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Q.29) Which of the following is/are recognized as a Fundamental Right through the interpretation of Article 19?
1. Right to propagate one's views
2. Right to reside in any part of the country
3. Right to strike and demonstration
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 2
EXPLANATION:
Article 19 (1) guarantees all citizens Freedom of Speech and expression.
It implies that every citizen has the right to freely express their views, opinions, beliefs and convictions
by word of mouth, writing, printing, picturing or in any other manner.
The Supreme Court held that the Freedom of Speech and expression includes the following:
➢ Right to propagate one's views as well as the views of others.
➢ Freedom of the press.
➢ Freedom of commercial advertisements.
➢ Right against tapping of telephonic conversation.
➢ Right to telecast, that is, the Government has no monopoly on electronic media
➢ Right against bundh called by a political party or organization.
➢ Right to know about government activities.
➢ Freedom of silence.
➢ Right against the imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper.
➢ Right to the demonstration but not right to strike.
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the Freedom of Speech and expression
on the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign
states, public order, decency or morality, contempt of Court, defamation, and incitement to an offense.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Under Article 19(1)(e)-Freedom of Residence: Every citizen has the right to reside and settle in any part
of the country's territory. This right has two parts: (a) the right to reside in any part of the country, which
means to stay at any place temporarily, and (b) the right to settle in any part of the country, which means
to set up a home or domicile at any place permanently. This right is intended to remove internal barriers
within the country or between any of its parts. Thus, the right to reside in any part of a nation promotes
nationalism and avoids narrow-mindedness. So, statement 2 is correct.
In India, the right to protest is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution of India. But the
right to strike is not a fundamental right but a legal one under the Industrial Dispute Act of 1947. So,
Statement 3 is not correct.

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Q.30) The Supreme Court, under various circumstances, has reiterated that the right to shelter is a part of
Article 21. This right has been reinforced by which of the following national laws ?
1. Recognition of Forest Rights Act (2006)
2. Protection of Human Rights Act (1993)
3. Slum Areas Act (1956)
4. Street Vendors Act (2014)
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
EXPLANATION:
Article 21 states that: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to
procedure established by law. In U.P. Avas Evam Vikas Parishad v. Friends Coop. Housing Society Ltd.
The Supreme Court of India has held that the right to shelter or adequate housing is a fundamental
human right from this article 21.
In that judgment, the right to shelter includes adequate living space, safe and decent structure, clean
and decent surroundings, sufficient light, water, electricity, sanitation and other civic amenities like
roads etc. Therefore, the right to shelter does not mean a mere right to a roof over one's head but to all
the infrastructure necessary to enable them to live, develop, and develop as human beings.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006
recognizes and gives rights over forest land to Scheduled Tribes (S.T.s) and other traditional forest
dwellers to ensure their livelihood and food security. Thereby fulfilling the objective of article 21. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
The Protection of Human Rights Act creates the National Human Rights Commission (N.H.R.C.). The
N.H.R.C. is responsible for protecting and promoting human rights, defined by the Act as Rights Relating
To Life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed under article 21. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
The Slum Areas (Improvement and Clearance) Act 1956 aims to improve and clear slum areas in certain
Union Territories and protect tenants in such areas from eviction, thereby saving their right to shelter.
So, Statement 3 is correct
The Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act 2014 was promulgated
to create Town Vending Committees, which ensures that identified vendors are accommodated in vending
zones, thereby protecting their right to livelihood under article 21. So, Statement 4 is correct.

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Q.31) Which of the following measures ensures the implementation of Directive Principles in Part IV of the
Constitution ?
1. Nationalization of commercial banks
2. Distribution of surplus land among the landless laborers
3. Providing facilities for instruction in the mother tongue
4. Following the policy of Panchsheel
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
The D.P.S.P. constitutes a comprehensive economic, social and political program for a modern democratic
State, and various governments have formulated various programs for implementing the Directive
Principles. One measure is to utilize financial resources to promote the common good. These measures
include the nationalization of life insurance (1956) and the nationalization of fourteen leading commercial
banks (1969). These measures are done to fulfill some social objectives of planning. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Almost all the states have passed land reform laws to bring changes in the agrarian society and to improve
the conditions of the rural masses. These measures include
(a) abolition of intermediaries like zamindars, jagirdars, etc.;
(b)imposition of ceilings on land holdings;
(c) distribution of surplus land among the landless laborers; and
(d) cooperative farming.
These measures are taken to fulfill Article 39(c), which states that the operation of the economic system
does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment; So,
Statement 2 is correct.
Article 350-A (Part XVII) talks about instruction in the mother tongue. This article is placed outside
D.P.S.P. and shall be the endeavour of every State and every local authority within the State to provide
adequate instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to
linguistic minority groups. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Article 51 of D.P.S.P. talks about the promotion of international peace and security. India has been
following the policy of non-alignment and panchsheel. Panchsheel implies the five principles of conduct
in international relations to promote peace and security. So, Statement 4 is correct.

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Q.32) Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to reproductive choice ?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 15
EXPLANATION:
In the famous case of Justice K.S.Puttaswamy(Retd) vs. Union Of India 2018, the judgment defined
Personal liberty with the widest amplitude and added various rights like The Right to Privacy, The Right
to locomotion, The Right to travel abroad, The Right a prisoner to a speedy trial and The Right to have
Reproductive Choice. The judgment specifically mentions the constitutional right of women to make
reproductive choices as a part of personal liberty under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
So, option (b) is correct.

Q.33) In the Constitution of India, the promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections is included in the ?
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
EXPLANATION:
Articles 36 to 51 under Part IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP). Directive Principles are guidelines to be followed by the Government. They are not enforceable
by the Court. But, the principles laid down there are considered 'Fundamental' in the country's
governance. Article 46 of the Indian Constitution states that the State shall promote the educational and
economic interests of the weaker sections with special care, particularly with the interest of the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Hence the State shall protect them from social injustice and
all forms of exploitation. So, Option (b) is correct.

Q.34) Consider the following statements :

1. The state legislature has the power to make laws with respect to prescribing punishments for the Act
of Untouchability.
2. Only the Parliament is empowered to make laws with respect to prescribing residence as a condition
for certain appointments in a state.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 EXPLANATION:
Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws and to give effect to certain specified fundamental
rights shall vest only in the Parliament and not in the state legislatures. This provision ensures that there
is uniformity throughout India with regard to the nature of those fundamental rights and the punishment
for their infringement.
Parliament shall have (and the legislature of a state shall not have) powers to make laws for prescribing
punishment for those acts that are declared to be offences under the fundamental rights. These include
the following:
➢ Untouchability (Article 17)
➢ Traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23). So, statement 1 is not correct.
In this direction, Article 35 contains the following provisions: The Parliament shall have (and the
legislature of a state shall not have) the power to make laws with respect to the following matters:
➢ Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state or union
territory or local authority or other authority (Article 16)
➢ Empowering courts other than the Supreme Court and the high courts to issue directions, orders
and writs of all kinds for the enforcement of fundamental rights (Article 32)
➢ Restricting or abrogating the application of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces,
police forces, etc. (Article 33)
➢ Indemnifying any government servant or any other person for any act done during the operation
of martial law in any area (Article 34)
Article 16(3) of the Indian Constitution provides for making laws on domicile-based employment by saying
that Parliament may make a law "prescribing" a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state.
This power vests solely in the Parliament, not state legislatures. So, statement 2 is correct.

Q.35) Consider the following statements :

1. Writs of certiorari and prohibition are not available against legislative bodies.
2. Writ of Quo Warranto can be sought by an aggrieved person only.
3. Writ of prohibition is not available against administrative authorities.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct ?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Supreme Court under (Article 32) and the high courts under (Article 226) can issue writs. There are
5 types of writs habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto.

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 In 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative
authorities affecting individuals' rights; the prohibition and certiorari are not available against legislative
bodies and private individuals. So, statement 1 is correct.
The writ Quo Warranto means 'by which authority or by what warrant.' It is issued by the Court to
enquire into the legality of a person's claim to a public office. Hence, it prevents the illegal hold of public
office by a person. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four
writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
The writ prohibition means 'to forbid.' It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent
the occurrence from exceeding its jurisdiction that it does not possess. The writ of prohibition can be
issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative
authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.36) With reference to the provisions contained in Part III of the Constitution of India, which of the following
statements is/are correct ?
1. The writ of prohibition directs inactivity, whereas the writ of mandamus directs activity.
2. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued to enforce a non-statutory departmental instruction.
3. The writ of Quo Warranto can be issued against any public office, including the ministerial offices.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The writ Prohibition means 'to forbid or stop.' It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal
to prevent the occurrence from exceeding its jurisdiction that it does not possess. Mandamus is a
'Command' issued by the Court to a public official asking him to perform his duties that he has failed or
refused to perform. The writ prohibition directs inactivity to stop or prevent the exceeding jurisdiction,
whereas the writ mandamus directs activity to command the public official to perform his official duties.
So, statement 1 is correct.
The writ mandamus means 'we command.' It is a command issued by the Court to a public official asking
him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against
any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or a government.
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued.
➢ Against a private individual or body
➢ To enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force
➢ When the duty is discretionary and not mandatory

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 ➢ To enforce a contractual obligation
➢ Against the President of India or the state governors and
➢ Against the chief justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity
So, statement 2 is correct.
The writ Quo Warranto means 'by which authority or warrant.' It is issued by the Court to enquire into
the legality of a person's claim to a public office. Hence, it prevents the illegal hold of public office by a
person. The writ can be issued only in case of an important public office of a permanent character created
by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. So,
statement 3 is not correct.

Q.37) Consider the following statements :

1. Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32.
2. The Supreme Court can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights during a National Emergency.
3. In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is original
and exclusive.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides an effective remedy for protecting fundamental rights. Only
the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32, and not any
other rights like non-fundamental, constitutional, statutory, and customary rights. The Supreme Court,
under Article 32, cannot question that does not involve Fundamental Rights and cannot put effect to
determine the constitutionality of an executive order or legislation unless it directly violates any of the
fundamental rights. So, statement 1 is correct.
In Indian Constitution, Article 359 authorizes the President to suspend the right to move any court to
enforce Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. It means that under Article 359, the
Fundamental Rights are not suspended, but only their enforcement is suspended. The rights are
theoretically alive, but the right to seek remedy is suspended. The suspension of enforcement relates to
only those Fundamental Rights specified in the Presidential Order. Hence the Supreme Court cannot
suspend the right to move any court to enforce Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
The original jurisdiction of a court refers to a matter for which the particular Court is approached first.
In the case of the Supreme Court in India, its original jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. Exclusive

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 jurisdiction means the parties to a Contract can limit their legal proceedings to a specific court. Article
32 of the Indian Constitution gives original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court regarding the enforcement
of Fundamental Rights and not exclusive jurisdiction. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs,
including writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, to enforce
them. Article 226 similarly confers powers on the High Courts to issue prerogative writs for the
enforcement of fundamental rights.
So, statement 3 is not correct.

Q.38) With reference to the Indian Polity, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The right to conserve a language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language.
2. Article 29 of the Constitution protects the rights of an individual irrespective of the community the
person belongs to.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India
has a distinct language, script or culture. Those citizens shall have the right to conserve their distinct
language, script or culture. The Supreme Court also held that the right to conserve the language includes
the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Hence, the political speeches or promises made to
conserve the language of a section of the citizens do not amount to corrupt practice under the
Representation of the People Act, 1951.
So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 29 (1) of the Indian Constitution protects any section of the citizens residing in any part of India
having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same. Article
29 (2) of the Indian Constitution states that no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational
institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race,
caste, or language. The provision of Article 29 (1) protects the right of a group, while the provision of
Article 29 (2) guarantees the right of a citizen as an individual irrespective of the community to which he
belongs. So, statement 2 is correct.
Q.39) Consider the following statements about the Broadcast Seva portal :
1. It is an online portal that enhances the approval process for any permission from the Government.
2. It has been launched by NITI Aayog in association with Tata Consultancy Services Limited (TCS).
3. It will lead to accountability and transparency by enabling information symmetries and providing
digital solutions.
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 Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Broadcast Seva portal is an initiative by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting that provides
online facilities to applicants for seeking permissions, the subsequent change in the permissions and
payment of fee. It is an online portal solution for the speedy filing and processing of applications of
broadcasters for various kinds of licenses, permissions, registrations, etc., from the Government.
Therefore, the Broadcast Seva portal enhances the approval process for any permission from the
Government. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has launched the Broadcast Seva portal. It has been
developed in cooperation with Broadcast Engineering Consultants India Limited (BECIL), a Mini Ratna
Public Sector, and with Tata Consultancy Services Limited (TCS), the technology partner. There, the
Broadcast Seva portal was not launched by NITI Aayog. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Broadcast Seva portal will lead to greater transparency and accountability by enabling information
symmetries, removing various hurdles and providing digital solutions to achieve end-to-end facilitation.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.40) With reference to the Declaration for the future of the Internet, consider the following statements :
1. It is a political commitment among the nations to have a positive vision for the Internet and digital
technologies.
2. It will also protect the human rights and fundamental freedoms of all people.
3. India also signed this Declaration along with 60 other nations to recommit to the principle of a single
global Internet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Recently, the United States and 60 other partner countries (all the European Union (EU) member states
and 32 non-EU countries) signed a political declaration called the "Declaration for the Future of the
Internet" that calls for an "open, free, global, interoperable, reliable, and secure" internet.
➢ The Declaration aims to protect the human rights and fundamental freedoms of all people and
promote a global Internet that advances the free flow of information.

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 ➢ The Declaration represents a political commitment among the partners to advance a "positive vision
for the Internet and digital technologies." So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Declaration aims to protect the human rights and fundamental freedoms of all people, promote a
global Internet that advances the free flow of information, advance "inclusive and affordable" connectivity,
promote trust in the global digital ecosystem, including through the protection of privacy and
strengthening the multistakeholder approach to governance that keeps the Internet running for the
benefit of all. So, Statement 2 is correct.
India, China and Russia are among the large nations which have not signed the Declaration for the future
of the Internet. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.41) Which country has recently issued a decree banning the "India out" campaign, citing it as a threat to
their national security ?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Maldives
EXPLANATION:
In Maldives, the opposition, led by former president Abdulla Yameen of the Progressive Party of Maldives
(PPM), has been spearheading an 'India Out' campaign for over the last year propagating the unproven
claim that Indian military officers stationed in the Indian Ocean Island nation are a violation of Maldives'
sovereignty. The Maldives foreign and defence ministries have repeatedly denied the presence of the
Indian military in the islands. India Out protests are an organised campaign that aims to disrupt
relations between the two countries and efforts to maintain peace and security in the region by inciting
unrest. So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.42) With reference to the recently launched FASTER software, consider the following statements :
1. It is a communication platform of the Supreme Court, through which they can deal with interim
orders, stay orders and bail orders to the concerned authorities.
2. Besides the Supreme Court, High courts can also transmit orders through this platform without any
third-party interference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 EXPLANATION:
Chief Justice of India N V Ramana launched FASTER (Fast and Secured Transmission of Electronic
Records), a software to transmit Court Orders swiftly and securely through electronic mode. FASTER is
a digital platform to communicate the Supreme Court's interim orders, stay orders, bail orders, etc., to
authorities concerned through a secure electronic communication channel. So, Statement 1 is correct.
FASTER (Fast and Secured Transmission of Electronic Records) is a digital platform to ensure that all its
orders on bail and the release of prisoners are digitally transmitted straight to jails and concerned high
courts through a secure network that will involve no third-party interference.
The orders passed by the Supreme Court or any court can now be transmitted safely without interference
by any party. Hence, this will ensure the confidentiality, safety and security of orders and even transmit
records physically. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.43) What are the features of the Global Security Initiative ?

1. This was an initiative launched by the US government to maintain world peace by preventing war and
conflicts.
2. This initiative committed itself to the principles of the UN Charter.
3. This initiative has its root in the European Union's independent foreign policy of peace and practices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
EXPLANATION:
China has launched the Global Security Initiative to promote security for all in the world and to oppose
unilateralism, group politics and bloc confrontation. The Global Security Initiative was proposed to meet
the pressing need of the international community to maintain world peace and prevent conflicts and
wars. The initiative is aimed at countering the initiatives of the west, like the Indo-Pacific strategy of the
USA, the Quad and the AUKUS (Australia-U.K.-U.S.) security pact. Therefore, the US government did not
launch the initiative to maintain world peace by preventing war and conflicts. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.
The Global Security Initiative is underpinned by "six commitments," namely,
➢ Staying committed to the vision of common, comprehensive, cooperative and sustainable security;
➢ Staying committed to respecting the sovereignty and territorial integrity of all countries; staying
committed to abiding by the purposes and principles of the UN Charter;
➢ Staying committed to taking the legitimate security concerns of all countries seriously;
➢ Staying committed to peacefully resolving differences and disputes between countries through
dialogue and consultation; and

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 ➢ Staying committed to maintaining security in both traditional and non-traditional domains.
Therefore, this initiative committed itself to the principles of the UN Charter.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Global Security Initiative seeks efforts to promote the establishment of a balanced, effective and
sustainable security architecture and thus offers a new approach to eliminating the root causes of
international conflicts and achieving durable stability and security in the world. Thus, this initiative has
not dealt with European policy. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.44) With reference to the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), consider the following statements :
1. ECOSOC resolutions and decisions have legal status.
2. Their resolutions are binding on member states.
3. India recently got elected to Commission for Social Development, Committee on NGOs, Commission
on Science & Technology for Development which are ECOSOC bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
EXPLANATION:
The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) is the central platform for fostering debate and innovative
thinking, forging consensus on ways forward, and coordinating efforts to achieve internationally agreed
goals. It is also responsible for the follow-up to major UN conferences and summits. ECOSOC resolutions
and decisions have equal legal status. So, Statement 1 is correct.
ECOSOC resolutions are not binding on Member States. The Council resolutions provide policy
recommendations to the Member States, the UN development system and other stakeholders and assign
mandates to subsidiary organs and the Secretariat. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) is one of the six principal organs of the UN System
established by the UN Charter in 1945. It consists of 54 members of the United Nations elected by the
General Assembly.
Recently, India was elected to 4 UN ECOSOC Bodies. The bodies include the
➢ Commission for Social Development,
➢ Committee on NGOs,
➢ Commission on Science & Technology for Development, and
➢ Committee on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

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Q.45) Maritime Rescue Coordination Centres are in which places in India ?
1. Chennai
2. Vishakhapatnam
3. Kochi
4. Port Blair
5. Mumbai
6. Kolkata
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(b) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 4 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
Recently, India and Sri Lanka have signed a Memorandum of Understanding to set up a state-of-the-art
Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre (MRCC) in Colombo.
Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) will build the Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre (MRCC) in Colombo,
Sri Lanka.
➢ The Indian Coast Guard is responsible for executing /Coordinating Search and Rescue (SAR)
missions in the Indian Maritime Search and Rescue Region (ISRR).
➢ The Indian Maritime Search and Rescue Region (ISRR) of India is divided into three areas, with
Maritime Rescue Coordination Centres (MRCCs) located at Mumbai, Chennai and Port Blair. So,
Option (d) is correct.
➢ Maritime Rescue Coordination Centres (MRCCs) are part of an international network under the UN's
International Maritime Organisation to monitor the sea lanes with the objective of swift response to
emergencies, such as vessels in distress, rescue and evacuation of people, and prevention of and
containing environmental disasters such as oil spills.

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Q.46) With reference to the Trade and Technology Council (TTC), consider the following statements :
1. It is a platform for G20 nations to advance cooperation in trade, technology and security for the benefit
of the larger good.
2. It will also focus on Information and communications technology and services (ICTS) security and
protect human rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Trade and Technology Council (TTC) is an essential platform for the U.S. and European Union
relationship to advance Transatlantic cooperation and democratic approaches to trade, technology, and
security, to deliver benefits for people on both sides of the Atlantic. Therefore, Trade and Technology
Council (TTC) is not a G20 nation platform. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The United States and the EU have established 10 Trade and Technology Council (TTC) Working Groups,
and these working groups will focus on the following:
1. Technology Standards
2. Climate and Clean Tech
3. Secure Supply Chains
4. Information and communications technology and services (ICTS) Security and
Competitiveness
5. Data Governance and Technology Platforms
6. Misuse of Technology Threatening Security and Human Rights
7. Cooperation on Export Controls of Dual-Use Items
8. Investment Screening Cooperation
9. Promoting SME Access To and Use of Digital Technologies
10. Global Trade Challenges
So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.47) With reference to the trilateral development corporation, consider the following statements :
1. Both private sector and sovereign governments can contribute to this funding mechanism.
2. In order to avail of this fund, a country must already have been a borrower of the International
Monetary Fund (IMF).
3. India, the United Kingdom and European Union (EU) are the major contributors to this fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

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 EXPLANATION:
The Ministry of External Affairs has recently launched the Trilateral Development Corporation (TDC)
Fund that would involve private sectors with state support for big-ticket investments in the Indo-Pacific
region and other geographies. Trilateral Development Corporation (TDC) fund will entail
contributions from private companies and sovereign governments. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Trilateral Development Corporation offers a funding mechanism through which India will ensure that no
country requiring investment is forced to take money from predatory institutions like the International
Monetary Fund (IMF). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
India, the United Kingdom and European Union (EU) are the three main geographical blocks
collaborating for the Trilateral Development Corporation (TDC) fund.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.48) Which of the countries has been recommended by the U.S. commission on International Religious
Freedom in 2022 to be included in the Special Watch List (SWL) ?
1. India
2. Cuba
3. Turkey
4. Malaysia
5. Indonesia
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
The United States Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) is an independent,
bipartisan U.S. federal government agency created by The International Religious Freedom Act of 1998.
Recently, USCIRF recommended putting India on a list of Countries of Particular Concern list for the
worst violations of religious freedoms in 2021, not in special watch list. So, statement 1 is not correct.
USCIRF monitors the universal right to Freedom of religion or belief (FoRB) abroad.
The International Religious Freedom Act of 1998 (IRFA) defines Countries of Particular Concern (CPC) as
countries where the Government engages in or tolerates "particularly severe" violations of religious
Freedom.
Latest Recommendations of the U.S. Commission on International Religious Freedom in 2022:
➢ For Special Watch List (SWL) countries are as follows:
1) Cuba
2) Turkey
3) Malaysia
4) Indonesia
➢ For Countries of Particular Concern:

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 So, Option (c) is correct.

Q.49) Consider the following statements about countercyclical capital buffer :

1. Its main aim is to use a capital buffer to protect the banking sector from periods of excess aggregate
credit growth.
2. Basel III countercyclical capital buffer consists of Common Equity Tier 1 capital and if minimum
buffers are breached, banks will be imposed with capital distribution constraints.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The framework for the countercyclical capital buffer (CCCB) was put in place by the Reserve Bank of
India, whereby the main aim of the Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCCB) is twofold.
➢ Firstly, it requires banks to build up a buffer of capital in good times, which may be used to maintain
a flow of credit to the real sector in difficult times.
➢ Secondly, it achieves the broader macro-prudential goal of restricting the banking sector from
indiscriminate lending in the periods of excess credit growth that have often been associated with
building up system-wide risk. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Basel III countercyclical capital buffer is calculated as the weighted average of the buffers in effect
in the jurisdictions to which banks have credit exposure. It is implemented as an extension of the capital
conservation buffer. It consists entirely of Common Equity Tier 1 capital and, if the minimum buffer
requirements are breached, capital distribution constraints will be imposed on the bank. So, Statement
2 is correct.

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Q.50) With reference to the Digital Banking Units (DBU), consider the following statements :
1. They must offer minimum digital banking services on both liabilities and asset side of its balance
sheet.
2. The concerned banks should ensure the physical and cyber security infrastructure to DBUs.
3. All the domestic scheduled commercial banks, including the Regional Rural Banks and Local Area
Banks, shall open DBUs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Digital Banking Unit (DBU) is a specialized fixed point business unit/hub housing certain minimum
digital infrastructure for delivering digital banking products and services and servicing existing financial
products & services digitally, in both self-service and assisted mode.
Each DBU must offer a certain minimum of digital banking products and services. Such products should
be on both liabilities and assets side of the balance sheet of the digital banking segment.
The DBUs are expected to migrate to more structured and custom-made products from standard offerings
by use of its hybrid and high-quality interactive capabilities.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
In addition to ensuring the physical security of the infrastructure of the DBU, adequate safeguards for
the cyber security of the DBUs will have to be ensured by the concerned banks. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
Digital Banking Unit guidelines apply to all Domestic Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding Regional
Rural Banks, Payments Banks and Local Area Banks). So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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