Q.1) How many minutes does it take Mr.

Alex to type Y word if his regular speed of typing is X words per

minute?
[1] X/Y
*[2] Y/X
[3] XY
[4] Y/60X
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
1
[SOLUTION] Mr. Alex types X words in 1 minute. Therefore, Mr. Alex will type 1 word in minute.
X
1
And Mr. Alex will type Y words in × Y minutes. Hence 2 is the correct option.
X

Q.2) Given below are capital letters in the first line and symbols in the second line. Symbols and letters are
code for each other. Choose the correct code for given letters.

PARROT
*[1] ] + $ $ ) !!
[2] ] + $$ [ !!
[3] ] + && [ !
[4] [ ] + & ! [
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Below is the given table which shows the symbols for the respective capital letters.

From the above table, we can deduce the symbols for the word ‘PARROT’

Hence, 1 is the correct option.

Q.3) A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing west, C is between A and E, B is just to the right of E but
left of D. C is sitting to the immediate right of E. F is at the extreme left end. Which pair is sitting by the side
of D?
[1] E and B
*[2] B and F
[3] A and F
[4] C and A
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION]

Thus, B and F are sitting by the side of D.

Q.4) If + is replaced by x
- is replaced by +
x is replaced by ÷
÷is replaced by –
Then answer the following question based on this information.
15 × 5 ÷ 3 + 1 -1 = ?
[1] -1
[2] -2
[3] 3
*[4] 1
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] We will solve it stepwise
(i) + is replaced by x⇒15 × 5 ÷ 3 x 1 -1 = ?
(ii) - is replaced by + ⇒15 × 5 ÷ 3 x 1+1 = ?
(iii) x is replaced by ÷ ⇒15 ÷ 5 ÷ 3 x 1+1 = ?
(iv)÷is replaced by – ⇒15 ÷ 5 - 3 x 1+1 = ?
Now Solve Final Equation
⇒15 ÷ 5 - 3 x 1+1 = ?
⇒3–3+1=1
Hence, option (4) is correct.

Q.5) Following equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the
correct answer for the unsolved equation.
4 * 3 = 91; 2 * 5 = 133; then 7 * 1 =?
[1] 400
*[2] 344
[3] 461
[4] 342
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Here, we add the cubes of both numbers present at left side to get the desired result.
Case 1: (4)3 + (3)3 = 91
Case 2: (2)3 + (5)3 = 133
Similarly,
Case 3: (7)3 + (1)3 = 344
Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

Q.6) In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

*[1] 5
[2] 7
[3] 3
[4] 2
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] In each row, add together the numerical values of the 3 central letters to give a 2 digits
sum, and put this 2 digit sum in left and right hand boxes at the end of the rows.
1strow : Numerical value of HLR = 8+12+18 = 38
2ndrow : Numerical value of QDR = 17+4+18 = 39
3rd row: Numerical value of TUA = 20+21+1 = 42
4th row: Numerical value of FPC = 6+16+3 = 25
Similarly,
5th row: Numerical value of OLH = 15+12+8 = 35
Hence 1 is the required answer.

Q.7) In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

*[1] 16
[2] 19
[3] 21
[4] 23
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] In every column, we get the fourth number by multiplying first and second element and then
dividing the results by third element.
10× 9
1st Column: = 18
5
9 ×11
2nd Column: = 33
3
8 ×8
3rd Column: = 16
4
Hence, 1 is the required answer.

Q.8) Count the number of rectangles and squares in the given figure.

*[1] 20
[2] 18
[3] 16
[4] 15
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] The figure may be labelled as shown.

The rectangles composed of two components each are HIJE, EKJ,F, FMNG, GPQH, AEOH, EBFO, OFCG
and HOGD i.e. 8 in number.
The rectangles composed of four components each are ABFH, BCGE, CDHF, DAEG and EFGH i.e. 5 in
number.
The rectangles composed of six components each are IJFG, KLGH, MNHE and PQEF i.e. 4 in number.
The rectangles compos ed of eight components each are IJMN, KLPQ and ABCD i.e. 3 in
number.
Thus, there are 8 + 5 + 4 + 3 = 20 rectangles in the given figure.
(Here note that the squares are also counted amongst rectangles)

Q.9) In given question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: Some Cats are Mat.
All Mat are pet.
Some pet are Jet.
Conclusions:
I. Some Cats are not pet is a possibility.
II. Some Cats are Jet is a possibility.
[1] Only conclusion I follows
[2] Only conclusion II follows
[3] Either conclusion I or II follows
*[4] Both conclusions I and II follow
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION]

Some Cats are not pet is a possibility - follows.

Some Cats are Jet is a possibility - Follows, as there is no direct relation between cat and jet, so possibility
rule follows.

Q.10) From the given options, which figure cannot be formed by folding the figure given in the question?
Question figure:

Answer figure:
[1] Figure (a)
*[2] Figure (b)
[3] Figure (c)
[4] Figure (d)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] On observing the options we can see that the figure given under option (B) can be formed by
folding the figure given in the question

part 1 will be opposite to 4

Part 3 will be opposite to 5
Part 6 will be opposite to 2
Option 2nd has 2 small rectangles on the cube which is not present in the given figure.

Q.11) In question number, study the following figure and answer the question given below. How many rural
employees are there who are not corrupt?

[1] 11
*[2] 7
[3] 4
[4] 3
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Here big rectangle represents rural people; circle represents corrupt people and employees
are represented by small rectangle. Here, the required region must come under the overlapping parts of big
and small rectangle but not circle.
Thus, 7 represents the rural employees who are not corrupt.

Q.12) From the given answer figures, select the one which is hidden/embedded in the question figure.
Question Figure

Answer Figure

*[1] Figure (a)

[2] Figure (b)
[3] Figure (c)
[4] Figure (d)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Figure (a)

On observing the options we can see that the figure given under option (1) is indeed embedded in the
original figure. It has been represented below,

Q.13) Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in the question figure have been cut.
Question figure
Answer figures

[1] Figure (a)

[2] Figure (b)
[3] Figure (c)
*[4] Figure (d)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] After observation the given figure, it is clearly shows that question figure will be cut from
answer figure D

Hence, 4 is correct.

Q.14) If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given
figure?
Question Figure:

Answer Figures:

[1] Figure (a)

[2] Figure (b)
*[3] Figure (c)
[4] Figure (d)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] The water image of an object is the inverted image obtained by turning the object upside
down.
Now, we are supposed to find the water image of the question figure. On observing the options, we can see
that the figure given under option (3) is the appropriate answer.

''''''''''''''''''''

Q.15) A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of
numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given
below. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of matrix II are numbered from
5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g.: ‘A’ can
be represented by 00, 13 and ‘T’ can be represented by 56, 68,89 etc. Identify the set for word POEM.

MATRIX I

MATRIX II

[1] 55, 20, 11, 24

[2] 12, 67, 59, 33
*[3] 40, 02, 97, 79
[4] 12, 67, 95, 99
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] It’s best to solve this type of question by the elimination method, i.e. we will check each
option and eliminate the wrong options.
The two matrices are as follows:
MATRIX I

MATRIX II

Remember that a letter from these matrices is represented first by its row and next by its column.
Option (1) 55, 20, 11, 24
55-P
20-R
11-E
24-I
Option (2) 12, 67, 59, 33
12- P
67-O
59-E
33-C
Option (3) 40, 02, 97, 79
40-P
02-O
97-E
79-M
Option (4) 12, 67, 95, 99
12-P
67-O
95-N
99- P
Hence, correct option is (3).

Q.16) In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Horse : Hoof :: ?
*[1] Man: Foot
[2] Dog: Black
[3] Elephant: Claws
[4] Pen: Pencil
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Here, second is the name given to the foot of the first. The hoof of the horse is analogous to
foot of the man. Hence, 1 is the required answer.

Q.17) In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
GALAXY: EYJYVW :: CAMERA : ?
[1] AYKCPZ
*[2] AYKCPY
[3] AKYDPZ
[4] AKEDPZ
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Here GALAXY: EYJYVW may be written as,

Similarly,

Hence, option 2 is the correct response.

Q.18) In the following question, select the odd letter from the given alternatives.
[1] maLU
[2] joQU
[3] bsCM
*[4] fdPj
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] In all other groups, the last letter is in capital form. Hence, option 4 is different from others.

Q.19) In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
[1] 60
*[2] 97
[3] 71
[4] 82
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Each of the numbers except 87, the difference between first digit and second digit of numbers
is 7.
Option (1): 60 ⇒ 6 – 0 = 6
Option (2): 97 ⇒ 9 – 7 = 2
Option (3): 71⇒ 7 – 1 = 6
Option (4): 82 ⇒8 – 2 = 6
Hence, it is clear from above that option (2) is odd one out.

Q.20) Arrange the following words as per their order in the dictionary.
1. PHYSICAL 2. PHYSICS
3. PHYSIOLOGY 4. PHYSICIAN
5. PHONE
*[1] 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
[2] 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
[3] 1, 4, 5, 2, 3
[4] 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Order as per dictionary:
5. PHONE
1. PHYSICAL
4. PHYSICIAN
2. PHYSICS
3. PHYSIOLOGY
Hence, answer is 5, 1, 4, 2, 3.
Q.21) A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will
complete the series.
HPM, JNO, LLQ, NJS, ?
[1] PHT
*[2] PHU
[3] PHV
[4] RST
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Clearly, the individual letters of the terms of the given series follow the pattern shown below:

Q.22) A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will
complete the series.
10, 37, 145, 577, ?
*[1] 2305
[2] 1235
[3] 1877
[4] 1747
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] The series will be,

Hence, 1 is the required answer.

Q.23) A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will
complete the series.
RA, JF, BK, TP, LU, ?
[1] QY
[2] RX
*[3] DZ
[4] TZ
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] R-8 = J, A+5 = F
J-8 = B, F+5 = K
B-8 = T, K+5 = P
T-8 = L, P+5 = U
L-8 = D, U+5 = Z
Hence, the correct option is 3.

Q.24) From the given alternative select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given
word.
TESMUSEDUCATIONS
[1] TSUSDUATINS
*[2] TESUEUCAOS
[3] EMUSEUCTIO
[4] TESMUSPUBL
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] TESMUSPUBL can’t be formed because there are not P, B and L in TESMUSEDUCATIONS

Q.25) A started from point P and went 2 km East; he turned right and covered 3 km. At the end of 3km, his
cycle got punctured. He left it with the mechanic and turned right and went 1 km. Then he turned left and
went 1 km and finally he turned right and after walking 1 km, reached his destination. How far is A’s
destination from P (shortest distance in km)?
[1] √ 32 +22
[2] √ 4 2+ 32
[3] √ 4 2+ 22
*[4] 4
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION]
Distance between A and P = 4Km

Q.26) O is the circumcenter of the isosceles ΔABC. Given that AB = AC = 10 cm and BC = 12 cm. The
radius of the circle is
*[1] 6.25 cm
[2] 6.205 cm
[3] 6.125 cm
[4] 3.125 cm
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION]

AB= AC = 10 cm.
AD ⊥ BC
BD = DC = 6 cm.
AD2 = AB2 – BD2
= 100 – 36 = 64
AD = 8 cm
In triangle OCD
OC2 = OD2 + DC2
r2 = (8 – r)2 + 36
r2 = 64 + r2 – 16r + 36
16r = 100
r = 100/16 =6.25

2
Q.27) of 2.1 is how much less than 0.2% of 800?
3
*[1] 0.2
[2] 1.46
[3] 14.6
[4] 158.6
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Required value = 1.6 - 1.4 = 0.2

Q.28) A certain amount is divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 3:7:6 respectively. If the difference
between share of A and B is Rs. 2700, what is C's share?
*[1] Rs. 4050
[2] Rs. 4000
[3] Rs. 4100
[4] Rs. 4500
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] 7x - 3x = 2700
4x = 2700
x = 675
C's Share = 675 × 6 = Rs. 4050

Q.29) A 3 lit mixture contains two liquid wine and water in which 13% water is present. In the above
mixture, another 3 lit mixture which has 8% water, is added and ¼ lit water also added separately then
what is the percentage of water.
[1] 17.08%
*[2] 14.08%
[3] 16.08%
[4] 12.08%
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
13
[SOLUTION] Water in 1st = 3 × = 0.39 lit
100
8
Water in 2nd = 3 × = 0.24 lit
100
Additional = 0.25 lit
Total : 0.39 + 0.24 + 0.25 = 0.88 lit
0.88 0.88
Total of water = = × 100 = 14.08%
3+3+0.25 6.25
Q.30) A bank offers 10% compound interest per year. A customer deposits Rs. 3600 each on 1st January
and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is.
*[1] Rs 1116
[2] Rs 2232
[3] Rs 558
[4] Rs 279
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Compound Interest on 3600 deposited on 1st Jan at the end of the year at 10% per half year=
360 + 360 +36
Compound Interest on 3600 deposited on 1st Jul at the end of the year at 10% per half year= 360
Total Compound interest = 1080 + 36 = 1116
Note:
Here interest rate is given on half yearly basis not annually. So we will take rate of interest as it is i.e. 10%
while calculating

Q.31) Ramesh went to market and bought 2.8 kg fresh tomato. The ratio of water is to pulp was 5:2. When
he was returning from market, he met with an accident so some of tomatoes were crushed. Then some
water get wasted. Now the ratio of water is to pulp is 3:4. What is the total amount of crushed tomatoes.
[1] 2.1 kg
[2] 1.7 kg
*[3] 1.4 kg
[4] Can’t determined
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Water Pulp Initial 5x : 2x
Final 3y : 4y
Since the pulp remains same
We put 2x = 4y ⇒x= 2y
Loss in water =5x−¿ 3y=10y−¿3y=7y
Total weight of tomatoes = 5x+2x = 2.8
⇒10y+4y = 2.8 ⇒ 14y = 2.8
Final weight of tomatoes = 7y = 1.4 kg

Q.32) If 24 √
3
a+ 10 √ a=26 √ a , then Calculate the value of a.
3 3

[1] 10
[2] 4
[3] 12
*[4] 8
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] ⇒24 √ 3
a+ 10 √ a=26 √ a (given)
3 3

⇒ From the observation, it can be seen that 24,10, 26 are Pythagoras triplets
⇒24 2+10 2=262
⇒√3
a=2
⇒a=8

I.33-36) Direction (33-36): In the Bar-graph data is given about some students who appeared in final
exam. Study the data carefully and answer the related questions. Full marks in Math, Science and social
science is 100,75 and 150 respectively.

Obtained marks %
100 90
80 80 70 80
80 70 75
6060 60 60 60
60 50
45 40
40
20
0
A B C D E

Q.33) What is respective ratio of average obtained marks in Math and science of all students together?
[1] 2: 3
[2] 1: 2
[3] 2: 1
*[4] None of these
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Required ratio
= 100× ( 45+70+75+
500
80+90
)= 75 (
60+80 +40+60+ 80
500 )
Since obtaing marks given in graph is in percentage
= 4 × 360: 3 × 320 = 3:2

Q.34) Total marks obtained by B is what percent more/less than that of D?

[1] 3%
[2] 4%
*[3] 4.34%
[4] 5.67%
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Total marks of B =

Q.35) What is average obtained marks of all students together in science?

[1] 40
[2] 50
*[3] 48
[4] 60
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION]

Q.36) What is difference between total obtained of A and C?

[1] 10
*[2] 15
[3] 30
[4] 40
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION]
Q.37) Tanya gave 20% in charity from her salary, and then 20% from the remaining she gave to her friend
as loan. She is left now with 6400. What is the salary of Tanya?
[1] 12000
*[2] 10000
[3] 10200
[4] 11000
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Let the whole money be = 100 x
20% of 100x = 20x
After given to charity, Tanya had
= 100x – 20x = 80x
The money given to her friend= 20% of 80x = 16x
Remaining money
= 100x – (20x + 16x) = 64x
A.T.Q
64x = 6400
x = 100
Thus the whole money = 100x = 10000

Q.38) The area of an isosceles triangle with base 12 cm is 48. Find the perimeter.
[1] 36 cm
[2] 48 cm
*[3] 32 cm
[4] None of these
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Consider the following figure, with a perpendicular AD drawn on the base BC,

Area of the triangle = ½ × Base ×Height = 1/2× AD × 12 = 48 cm 2

AD = 8 cm
Now,
Since, AB = AC {isosceles triangle}
∠B = ∠C {angles opposite to equal sides are equal}
And, AD is common.
∴ BD = CD
And, since BC = 12 cm
∴ BD = CD = 6 cm
Now, using Pythagoras theorem in ΔABD,

AB = AC = 10 cm
∴ Perimeter = AB + BC + AC
= 10 + 10 + 12 = 32 cm
Hence, perimeter of the triangle is 32 cm.

Q.39) A & B working alone 9 hours a day can complete a job in 14 days and 12 days respectively. In how
many would they finish the job if they work together 6 hours per day?
*[1] 126/13
[2] 88/13
[3] 111/13
[4] 10
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[SOLUTION] ⇒ 126 A = 108 B = W, where W is the quantum of work in work units
⇒ If working together 9 hours a day they finish the job in d days,
⇒ 6d (A + B) = W
⇒ From the given conditions,
A = W/126 & B = W/108
⇒ So when working together,
6d (A + B) = W
6d (W/126 + W/108) = W
⇒ 6d (1/126 + 1/108) = 1
⇒ 13/126 = 1/d
⇒ ∴d = 126/13 days

1 1 1
Q.40) 0 0
+ 0 0
+ 0 0
=?
tan 97 tan 46 tan 46 tan 37 tan 37 tan 97
[1] 2
*[2] 1
[3] tan 970 + tan 460 + tan 370
[4] 0
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[SOLUTION] Here we can see that
97+46+37= 180
97+46 = 180-37

We take tan both sides.

Q.41) Last week the average temperature of Roorkee on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 220 and
the average on Wednesday, Thursday and Friday was 170 . If the temperature on Tuesday was 170 .
Evaluate the temperature on Friday?
[1] 120
[2] 100
[3] 10
*[4] 20
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[SOLUTION] ⇒ Total temperature on Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday = 22 × 3 = 66 °
⇒ Temperature on Tuesday = 17 °
⇒ Temperature on Wednesday & Thursday = 66 – 17 = 49 °
⇒ Total temperature on Wednesday, Thursday and Friday = 17 × 3 = 51 °
⇒ Temperature on Friday = 51 – 49 = 2 °

Q.42) 10% discount is offered on an item. By applying a promo code, the customer wins 10% cash back.
What is the effective discount?
[1] 28.8%
*[2] 19%
[3] 25%
[4] 21%
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[SOLUTION] We know that,
Effective discount% = x + y – xy/100
∴Effective discount% = 10 + 10 – (10 × 10)/100
= 19%
Cash back is given on discounted price or the amount buyer pays

Q.43) A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on same base of radius R and have equal height H. Also,
their height and radius are the same. Their whole surfaces are in the ratio of:
[1] (√3+1): 3:4
*[2] (√2+1): 3:4
[3] (√2+1): 4:3
[4] 1:2:3
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[SOLUTION]

Q.44) Find the H.C.F of (6¿ ¿18−1)¿ and (6 24−1).

*[1] 6 6−1
[2] (6¿ ¿18+ 1)¿
[3] 6
[4] 1
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[ANSWER TIME] 2
[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION]

Q.45) Neeraj saves 20% of his income every month. At end of each year, his salary is increased by 25%.
Find total saving at the end of the 2rd year if his salary in starting of the 1st year is 20000 RS per month.
[1] 107000 RS
[2] 105000 RS
[3] 102000 RS
*[4] 108000 RS
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[SOLUTION] 108000 RS

Q.46) Find the maximum and minimum value of 9 Cos A + 40 Sin A + 40

[1] 89, - 4
[2] 85, - 7
[3] 87, -5
*[4] 81, - 1
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[SOLUTION] 81, - 1
Q.47) Find the total number of factors of 7056 except 1 and itself.
[1] 31
[2] 47
*[3] 43
[4] 37
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION]

Total number of factors = (4+1)(2+1)(2+1) = 45

But we have to exclude 1 and 7056
So there are only 45-2 = 43 factors of 7056

Q.48) The total cost of a refrigerator with an oven Rs. 12000. Then oven was sold at a profit of 20% and the
refrigerator at a loss of 28%. If the sale price was the same in both the items, then the cost price of the
cheaper item was:
*[1] Rs 4500
[2] Rs 7500
[3] Rs 6000
[4] Rs 5000
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[SOLUTION] Let the CP of the oven be Rs x, then the price of refrigerator will be 12000 – x
Given that, oven was sold at a profit of 20% and the refrigerator at a loss of 28% and SP was same for
both

⇒ 120x = 864000 – 72x

⇒ x = Rs4500
Therefore, CP of Oven which is the cheaper one is Rs4500

Q.49) The equation of the hypotenuse of an isosceles right-angled triangle is 5x + 7y = 4 and the opposite
vertex is the point (2,
2). Find the equations to the sides of the isosceles right-angled triangle
[1] y-7x=10 and 7y+x=14
[2] y-6x=10 and 6y+x=14
[3] 7y-x=10 and y+7x=14
*[4] 6y-x=10 and y+6x=14
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Slope of the line 5x + 7y – 4 = 0 is
m2 = –5/7
both base and height will make an angle of 45o from this line let their slopes be m1 and m2
tan 45 ° = (m1–m2)/(1+m1m2)
or, 1 = (m1+ 5/7) / (1- 5ml/7)
or, m1 = 1/6
The slope of one of the sides is 1/6.
The other side is perpendicular to this side.
Hence its slope would be -6.
Hence the required equations of the two lines are
y – 2 =1/6 (x – 2) and y – 2 = -6 (x – 2).
Or, 6y-x=10 and y+6x=14

Q.50) Abhilasha goes to office by scooty at a speed of 40 m/s and reaches there 9 seconds earlier. If she
goes at a speed of 12 m/s, she reaches there 7 seconds late. Calculate the distance she travels to reach
her office?
[1] 230.67 m
[2] 220.95 m
[3] 291.87 m
*[4] 274.28 m
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] ⇒Let the distance she travels = x m
⇒In first case:
Distance = x m
Speed = 40 m/s
Time(t1) = x/40 sec
⇒In second case:
Distance = x m
Speed = 12
Time(t2) = x/12 sec
⇒ According to the condition given in the problem,
t2 – t1 = 16
⇒x/12 - x/40 = 16
⇒7/120x = 16
⇒x = 274.28 m

Q.51) A thin disc and a thin ring, both have mass M and radius R. Both rotate about axes through their
centre of mass and are perpendicular to their surfaces at the same angular velocity. Which one of the
following statements is correct?
*[1] The ring has higher kinetic energy.
[2] The disc has higher kinetic energy.
[3] The ring and the disc both have the same kinetic energy.
[4] Kinetic energies of both the bodies are zero, since they are not in linear motion.
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[SOLUTION] The ring has higher kinetic energy.

Q.52) In which of the following phenomena do heat waves travel along a straight line with the speed of
light?
[1] Thermal conduction
[2] Thermal convention
*[3] Thermal radiation
[4] Both (1) and (3)
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[SOLUTION] Thermal radiations are heat waves (infrared waves) which electromagnetic waves.
Electromagnetic are waves travel in straight line with the speed of light. It depends on the temperature of
the body and nature of radiating surface of the body.

Q.53) Which one of the following statements regarding Ohm's law is not correct?
[1] Ohm's law is an assumption that current through a conductor is always directly proportional to the
potential difference applied to it.
[2] A conducting device obeys Ohm's law when the resistance of a device is independent of magnitude and
polarity of applied potential difference.
[3] A conducting material obeys Ohm's law when the resistance of material is independent of the
magnitude and direction of applied electric field.
*[4] All homogeneous materials obey Ohm's law irrespective of whether the field is within range or strong.
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[SOLUTION] Statement (4) is not correct, because in strong electric field, heating effect will dominant and
here is deviations of curve i.e. it does not obey Ohm's law.
Q.54) When a ball bounces off the ground, which of the following changes suddenly? (Assume no loss of
energy to the floor)
[1] Its speed
*[2] Its momentum
[3] Its kinetic energy
[4] Its potential energy
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[SOLUTION] When a ball bounces off the ground, there will be sudden change in the momentum of the
ball.
• It includes the mass and the velocity of the object
• It shows the sudden change of the velocity of the object according to its mass.
• If the mass is large, the change will be greater and if it is small, then the velocity will be lesser.

Q.55) Which one of the following statements about diamond and graphite is not correct?
[1] Diamond has a tetrahedral structure, whereas graphite has a hexagonal planar structure.
*[2] Both physical and chemical properties of diamond and graphite are different.
[3] Graphite is soft, but diamond is hard.
[4] Graphite is a good conductor of electricity, while diamond is not.
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[SOLUTION] Statement given in option (2) is incorrect. The correct statement is, the physical properties of
both diamond and graphite are same. But, as the both diamond and graphite are allotropes of same
element (carbon).
Thus, they both exhibits similar chemical properties. So, option (2) is the correct answer.

Q.56) If an object moves at a non-zero constant acceleration for a certain interval of time, then the distance
it covers in that time
*[1] depends on its initial velocity
[2] is independent of its initial velocity
[3] increases linearly with time
[4] depends on its initial displacement
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] If object moving with non-zero constant acceleration, then the displacement covered by it, is
given by equation S = ut + 1/ 2 at
where, s displacement, u = initial velocity, a = acceleration and = time. Hence, from above equation,
displacement is dependent to initial velocity. Distance covered is a nonlinear curve of time,

Q.57) The symbol of the element tungsten' is

*[1] Ta
[2] W
[3] Ti
[4] Tc
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[SOLUTION] Ta is the symbol for element tantalum'.
W is the symbol for element tungsten’.
Tl is the symbol for element thallium’.
Tc is the symbol for element technetium’.

Q.58) Which one of the following statements is correct?

[1] Rutherford's a-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of electron
[2] J.J. Thomson suggested that the nucleus of an atom contains protons
*[3] The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of protons in the nucleus of its atom
[4] The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of electrons in its shells
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[SOLUTION] In 1911, Ernest Rutherford's a-scattering experiment led to the discovery of nucleus in an
atom. J.J. Thomson's cathode ray tube experiment led to the discovery of electrons.
Atomic number of an element is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus of its atom Mass number of
an atom is equal to the sum of total number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus.

Q.59) The alkali metals have relatively low melting point. Which one of the following alkali metals is
expected to have the highest melting point?
*[1] I
[2] Na
[3] K
[4] Rb
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[SOLUTION] On moving from Li to Cs, size of atom increases, so interatomic interaction becomes weak
resulting in low melting point. Among alkali metals, Has the highest melting point.

Q.60) Consider the following reaction,

In the reaction given above, the mixture of CO and H2 is

*[1] natural gas
[2] water gas
[3] producer gas
[4] industrial gas
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[SOLUTION] The mixture of CO and H 2 is called water gas. Is
mixture of co and H2 is used for the synthesis of methanol and a number of hydrocarbons.
Natural gas is a naturally occurring hydrocarbon gas mixture consists of methane and varying amount of
higher alkenes Producer gas, also called suction gas, is a fuel gas made from coke, anthracite or other
carbonaceous fuel.
Industrial gases are a group of gases that are specifically manufactured for use in industries.

Q.61) Addition of gypsum to cement

[1] reduces setting time of cement
[2] produces very light colour of cement
*[3] increases setting time of cement
[4] shining surface is formed
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[SOLUTION] Gypsum is a mineral and is hydrated calcium sulphate in chemical form. It plays an important
role in controlling the rate of hardening of cement. It is added to control the setting of cement'. If not added,
the cement will set immediately after mixing of water leaving no time for concrete placing.
Q.62) To weld metals together, high temperature is required. Such a high temperature is obtained by
burning
*[1] acetylene in oxygen
[2] LPG in oxygen
[3] methane in oxygen
[4] acetylene in nitrogen
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[SOLUTION] To weld metals together, high temperature is obtained by burning acetylene in oxygen. Pure
oxygen is used to increase the flame temperature to allow localised melting of the work piece material An
acetylene/oxygen flame burns at about 3,773 K.

Q.63) In Egypt, ancient mummies can be found to have their arteries intact due to well preserved?
[1] mineralized blood
[2] fibroblast fibres
*[3] elastic fibres
[4] brown fat
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[SOLUTION] Elastic fibres are formed of elastin protein, which is probably the most resistant of all body
proteins to chemical changes Thousands of years old 'mummies have their arteries intact due to well
preserved elastin fibres: Elastin fibres are not present in mineralised blood, fibroblast fibres and brown fat,
so they are not cause of well-preserved arteries in mummies.

Q.64) Which one of following statements is not correct?

*[1] Application of lime makes the soil acidic
[2] High acidity in soil is typical of humid climate
[3] Increasing soil acidity results in declining soil fertility
[4] Arid climate is characterised by alkaline soil
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[SOLUTION] The nature of lime is basic So, when it is added to the soil, It makes it basic. If It is added to
the acidic soil then its acidity is neutralised by adding lime water. In humid climates due to presence of
calcium, magnesium and sodium in soil, it is acidic Excess of acid in soil increases toxic level of sill,
declining its fertility. In arid climate, soil is basic.

Q.65) Which one of the following is useful in paper manufacturing industry?

*[1] Fibrous plants
[2] Orchids
[3] Non-flowering plants
[4] Plants growing in high altitude
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Fibrous plants are traditionally used to make paper in the paper, manufacturing industry.
These are also used to make cloth, rope etc, Plant fibres include seed hairs, stem fibres, flax, leaf fibres
and husk fibres.

Q.66) Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

[1] Water vapour
[2] Methane
[3] Ozone
*[4] Carbon monoxide
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[SOLUTION] Greenhouse gases are those gases which allow direct sunlight to reach the earth surface
unimpeded. Many greenhouse gases occur naturally in the atmosphere such as CO, methane, water
vapour, ozone and nitrous oxide. Carbon monoxide is not considered as a greenhouse gas. It is a very
poisonous gas. It can kill people if inhaled for long time.

Q.67) Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of

[1] cholesterol
*[2] lactic acid
[3] lipoic acid
[4] triglycerides
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[SOLUTION] Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of lactic acid is formed and accumulated in the
muscle under conditions of high energy demand, rapid fluctuations of the energy requirement and
insufficient supply of oxygen.

Q.68) Living things are grouped into subgroups like plant kingdom/animal kingdom. Which one of the
following is not correct for animal kingdom?
[1] Cannot make their own food
*[2] Body contains cellulose
[3] Do not have chlorophyll
[4] Migrate from one place to another
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[SOLUTION] Living beings of animal kingdom lack cellulose in their cells of the body while plants have rigid
cell wall that is composed of cellulose. Except Euglena, chlorophyll is not present in animals so they can't
make their own food and ability for movement is present in them.

Q.69) In blood, platelets are required for

[1] transporting oxygen
[2] transporting carbon dioxide
*[3] initiating blood clotting
[4] initiating degradation of urea
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[SOLUTION] In blood, platelets are required for blood coagulation (clotting and prevention of bleeding) at
bleeding site in the body of animals. The normal platelet count range between 150000 and 450000 per
microlitre (one millionth of a litre).

Q.70) Which is not a computer classification?

[1] mainframe
*[2] maxframe
[3] mini
[4] notebook
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[SOLUTION] Maxframe is not any type of computer. There are 7 types of computer-
Supercomputer
Mainframe
Server Computer
Workstation Computer
Personal Computer or PC
Micro controller
Smartphone

Q.71) Which operation is not performed by computer.

[1] Inputting
[2] Processing
[3] Controlling
*[4] Understanding
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[SOLUTION] Understanding is not performed by any computer. Understanding is a psychological process
related to an abstract or physical object, such as a person, situation, or message whereby one is able to
think about it and use concepts to deal adequately with that object. Understanding is a relation between the
knower and an object of understanding.

Q.72) Cell phones use ___________ to access the Internet.

[1] MMS technology
[2] a notation system
*[3] micro browser software
[4] HTML language
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[SOLUTION] Cell phones use a notation system to access the Internet. A cellular network or mobile
network is a communication network where the last link is wireless. The network is distributed over land
areas called "cells", each served by at least one fixed-location transceiver, but more normally, three cell
sites or base transceiver stations.
Q.73) In CSMA/CD, the computer sends a fixed unit of data called a(n)_______
[1] Node
*[2] Packet
[3] Override
[4] Token
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[SOLUTION] CSMA/CD enables devices to “sense” the wire to ensure that no other device is currently
transmitting packets. But, if two devices “sense” that the wire is clear and send packets at the same time, a
collision can occur. If the collision occurs, packets have to be resend after a random period of time.

Q.74) The uniform resource locator (URL) is case sensitive in the ____.
[1] Protocol
[2] Authority
*[3] Directory
[4] Type
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[SOLUTION] In computing, a directory is a file system cataloging structure which contains references to
other computer files, and possibly other directories. On many computers, directories are known as folders,
or drawers, analogous to a workbench or the traditional office filing cabinet.

Q.75) ASCII is a(n)________

[1] Numbering system for representing numbers with decimals.
[2] Character representation standard common in older mainframe computers.
*[3] Encoding standard used to represent letters and characters.
[4] Symbolic programming language that directly represents machine instructions.
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[SOLUTION] It stands for "American Standard Code for Information Interchange." ASCII is a character
encoding that uses numeric codes to represent characters. These include upper and lowercase English
letters, numbers, and punctuation symbols.

Q.76) Which among the following are India’s G20 priorities?

1. Green Development
2. Women-led Development
3. Climate Finance
4. Digital Public Infrastructure
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[1] 1 and 2 only
[2] 1 2 and 3 only
[3] 3 and 4 only
*[4] 1 2 3 and 4
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[SOLUTION] Substantive deliberations during India’s ongoing G20 Presidency comprised broad priority
areas such as inclusive and resilient growth; progress on SDGs, green development and Lifestyle for
Environment (LiFE); technological transformation and public digital infrastructure; reforming multilateral
institutions; women led development; and international peace and harmony, and climate finance.

Q.77) The focus of the Second Five Year Plan was:

[1] Establishment of a self-reliant and self-generating economy with emphasis on agriculture
*[2] Rapid Industrialization with emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries
[3] Removal of poverty and attainment of self-reliance
[4] Acceleration of food-grain production and increase in employment opportunities and overall productivity.

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[SOLUTION] Rapid Industrialization with emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries
Q.78) An Indian businessperson buys shares in a British car company. This transaction will be
reflected in:
[1] Balance of Trade, but not in Balance of Payments
*[2] Balance of Payments, but not in Balance of Trade
[3] Both Balance of Payments and Balance of Trade
[4] Neither Balance of Payments nor Balance of Trade
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[SOLUTION] Buying a share in a company (an asset) is a capital account transaction. Whereas Balance of
Trade comes under Current Account.

Q.79) Which of the following are High Frequency Indicators of the Indian Economy?
1. Power Consumption
2. IIP General Index
3. 10-year G-sec yield
Select the correct answer using the code below
*[1] 1 only
[2] 1 and 2 only
[3] 2 and 3 only
[4] 1 2 and 3 only
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] 1 only

Q.80) Suppose an Indian citizen makes an investment abroad and earns a positive return on her
investment. Which of the following is correct?
[1] Her income is part of India’s GDP, but not part of India’s national income
*[2] Her income is part of India’s national income, but not part of India’s GDP
[3] Her income is part of both India’s GDP and national income
[4] Her income is neither part of India’s GDP, nor its national income
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[SOLUTION] Income earned from outside does not comes under GDP. It is a component of Net Factor
Income from Abroad.

Q.81) If the Cash Reserve Ratio is lowered by the RBI, supply of money in the economy will:

[1] Remain Unchanged

[2] Decrease
*[3] Increase
[4] Have ambiguous impact
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[SOLUTION] CRR reduction will reduce reserve requirements for banks, thereby releasing more money
into their hands to lend in the economy.

Q.82) Which one of the following is the main cause of Acid Rains?
[1] The Sun causes heating of upper layer of atmosphere
*[2] The burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere
[3] The electrical charges are produced due to friction amongst clouds
[4] The atmosphere of the Earth contains acids

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[SOLUTION] Nitrogen and Sulphur oxides react with the gases in atmosphere to become Acids of Nitrogen
and Sulphur.
Q.83) Biogas is considered to be an excellent fuel which burns without smoke. The main constituent of
biogas is:
*[1] Methane
[2] Hydrogen
[3] Carbon dioxide
[4] Hydrogen Sulphide
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[SOLUTION] The main constituent of biogas is METHANE.

Q.84) The depletion in atmospheric ozone layer in last century was due to:
*[1] Chlorofluorocarbon
[2] Carbon monoxide
[3] Methane
[4] Pesticides
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[SOLUTION] Chlorofluorocarbon

Q.85) The greatest diversity of animal and plant species is found in:
[1] Temperate Forests
[2] Deserts and Savannas
[3] Arctic and Alpine systems
*[4] Tropical Moist Forests
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[SOLUTION] Tropical Moist Forests and Tropical Evergreen Forests contains the greatest diversity of
animal and plant species in India.
Q.86) Fiscal deficit in the Union Budget means:
[1] The difference between current expenditure and current revenue
[2] Net increase in the borrowings of the Union Government from the RBI
*[3] The sum of budgetary deficits and the net increase in internal and external borrowings
[4] None of the above
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[SOLUTION] The sum of budgetary deficits and the net increase in internal and external borrowings is
known as the Fiscal Budget.

Q.87) Which of the following is the largest component of Revenue Expenditure in the Union Budget
2022-23?
*[1] Interest Payments
[2] Defense Expenditure
[3] Expenditure on Healthcare
[4] Subsidies
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[SOLUTION] The largest component of Revenue Expenditure in the Union Budget 2022-23- Interest
payments.

Q.88) Adequacy of Foreign Exchange reserves of a country is captured by which of the following
indicators?
1. Reserves to import ratio
2. Reserves to external debt ratio
3. Reserves to GDP ratio
4. Reserves to monetary aggregates
Select the correct answer using the code below:
[1] 1 and 3 only
*[2] 1 2 3 and 4
[3] 2 3 and 4 only
[4] 1 2 and 4 only
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[SOLUTION] 1 2 3 and 4

Q.89) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of
savings in the economy will either decrease or remain unchanged. This phenomenon is known as:
[1] Crowding Out
[2] Crowding In
*[3] Paradox of Thrift
[4] Paradox of Prosperity
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[SOLUTION] Paradox of Thrift

Q.90) The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets.
This ratio is known as:
[1] Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
*[2] Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
[3] Central Bank Reserve
[4] Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR)
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[SOLUTION] Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

Q.91) Which of the following statements is/are correct about 'Action for Climate Empowerment'
(ACE)?
1. It is a term adopted by the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change.
2. This term is related to the Paris Agreement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[1] 1 only
[2] 2 only
*[3] Both 1 and 2
[4] Neither 1 nor 2
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[SOLUTION] Action for Climate Empowerment (ACE) is a term adopted by the UNFCCC. This is correct.
ACE is one of the six pillars of the UNFCCC, and it is defined as "the process of empowering people of all
ages and backgrounds with the knowledge, skills, attitudes and values necessary to address climate
change."
ACE is related to the Paris Agreement. This is also correct. The Paris Agreement includes a number of
provisions that relate to ACE, such as the requirement that all Parties to the Agreement develop and
implement national climate change education, training, public awareness, public participation and public
access to information strategies.

Q.92) What is 'Climate Neutral Now' initiative?

1. It encourages organizations and other interested stakeholders to act now in order to achieve a
carbon neutral world by 2030.
2. It derives its aims from the Paris Agreement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[1] 1 only
*[2] 2 only
[3] Both 1 and 2
[4] Neither 1 nor 2
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[SOLUTION] The 'Climate Neutral Now' initiative encourages organizations and other stakeholders to act
now in order to achieve a carbon neutral world by 2030. This is incorrect. The initiative's goal is to achieve
a carbon neutral world by 2050, not 2030.

Q.93) Consider the following statements:

1. Geothermal energy can be used to produce electricity or its hot water can be used directly
for industry, agriculture, bathing and cleaning.
2. Nuclear energy is often cheaper than some other sources of electricity.
3. Thermal power stations burn fossil fuels to create steam to drive the turbines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[1] 1 only
[2] 1, 2 and 3
*[3] 2 and 3 only
[4] 1 and 3 only
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[SOLUTION] Geothermal energy can indeed be used for both electricity generation and direct applications
like heating water for industries or buildings. So, statement 1 is correct.
Nuclear energy can be cheaper than some other sources of electricity, such as coal or oil, when
considering the cost of electricity generation alone. St2 is also correct.
Thermal power stations typically do burn fossil fuels, such as coal or natural gas, to generate heat and
produce steam to drive turbines for electricity generation. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.94). Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (International Convention) List-II (Theme)
A. Stockholm Convention 1. Hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade
B. Minamata Convention 2. Persistent Organic Pollutants
C. Basel Convention 3. Binding Instrument on Mercury
D. Rotterdam Convention 4. Transboundary Movement of Hazardous Wastes and their
disposal
Code
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
[1] (a)
[2] (b)
[3] (c)
*[4] (d)
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[SOLUTION] (d) 2 3 4 1

Q.95) Basel Convention, Rotterdam Convention and Stockholm Convention relate to which of the
following?
[1] Human Rights of Prisoners
*[2] Management of Pollutants
[3] Conservation of Wetlands
[4] Conservation of Rivers
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[SOLUTION] The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes
and their Disposal aims to minimize the transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and to prohibit their
export to countries where they cannot be managed safely.
The Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and
Pesticides in International Trade aims to promote informed decision-making on the import of certain
hazardous chemicals and pesticides by requiring exporters to obtain the consent of importing countries
before shipping them.
The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants aims to eliminate or restrict the production and
use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs), which are chemicals that are harmful to human health and the
environment and that persist in the environment for long periods of time.

Q.96) Consider the following statements about Ramsar Wetland sites in India:
1. Gahirmatha is the habitat of Olive Ridley turtles.
2. Chilka Lake is the habitat of Irrawaddy Dolphin as its flagship species.
3. Nalsarovar Wetland is also the habitat of Indian Wild Ass (Khur).
4. Tso Moriri Wetland is the habitat and breeding ground of Black-necked Crane.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
[1] 1 and 3 only
[2] 1, 3 and 4 only
[3] 2 and 4 only
*[4] 1, 2, 3 and 4
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[SOLUTION] Statement 1 is correct: Gahirmatha beach in Odisha is famous for the mass nesting of Olive
Ridley Sea turtles.
Statement 2 is correct: The Irrawaddy dolphin is found in Chilika Lake, and it is also the lake's flagship
species.
Statement 3 is correct: Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary in Gujarat is known for its population of the endangered
Indian Wild Ass.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Tso Moriri in Ladakh is the breeding ground of the Black-necked Crane.

Q.97) As per the Cabinet Resolution of 1st January, 2015, the NITI Aayog consists of:
 1. Prime Minister of India
2. Governing Council comprising of Chief Minister of all the States and Union Territories
3. Rural Development Minister
4. Chief Executive Officer to be appointed by the Prime Minister
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[1] 1, 2 and 3
[2] 1, 2 and 4
*[3] 1 and 2 only
[4] 3 and 4 only
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[SOLUTION] The NITI Aayog is the premier think tank of the Government of India, replacing the Planning
Commission in 2015.
The Governing Council is the apex body of the NITI Aayog, chaired by the Prime Minister and comprising
the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories.
The Rural Development Minister is not a member of the NITI Aayog.
The Chief Executive Officer is a full-time member of the NITI Aayog, appointed by the Prime Minister.
Therefore, only options 1 and 2 are correct.

Q.98) The executive is given an advance grant to meet temporary and running requirements of
government of India in the beginning of the new financial year until the demands are voted by the
legislature. This is known as:
[1] Vote of Credit
*[2] Vote on Account
[3] Appropriation Bill
[4] Advance Account
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[SOLUTION] A Vote on Account is an authorization given by the Parliament to the Government to withdraw
money from the Consolidated Fund of India to meet the essential expenditure of the Government for a part
of a financial year, in anticipation of the passing of the regular budget for the whole year.
A Vote of Credit is a grant of money made by the Parliament to the Government to meet an unexpected
demand for expenditure arising during a financial year on a service for which no provision has been made
in the budget for the year.
An Appropriation Bill is a bill introduced in the Parliament to authorize the withdrawal of money from the
Consolidated Fund of India to meet the expenditure for a particular financial year for specific purposes
authorized by the Parliament.
An Advance Account is not a constitutional term. It may refer to the money withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India in anticipation of the passing of the Vote on Account.
Therefore, the answer is (2) Vote on Account.

Q.99) Which of the following is/are United Nations Sustainable Development Goal(s)?
1. Decent work and economic growth
2. Peace, justice and strong institutions
3. Responsible consumption and production
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[1] 1 and 2 only
*[2] 1, 2 and 3
[3] 2 only
[4] 1 and 3 only
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[SOLUTION] 1, 2 and 3

Q.100) How can resources be classified on the basis of their origin?

*[1] Biotic and Abiotic
[2] Renewable and Non-renewable
[3] Individual and Community
[4] Potential and Reserve
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[SOLUTION] Resources can be classified into two main categories based on their origin: biotic and abiotic.
Biotic resources are those that come from living organisms, such as plants, animals, and microorganisms.
Abiotic resources are those that are non-living, such as minerals, water, and air.

Q.101) Which of the following is an example of a conflict of interest in business?

[1] Offering discounts to customers
[2] Using company funds to invest in the stock market
*[3] Favoritism towards relatives
[4] Donating to a charitable cause
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[SOLUTION] Hiring family members to work for the business-Favoritism
A conflict of interest in business is a situation where a person or organization has competing or
incompatible interests, obligations, or loyalties that could compromise their judgment, objectivity, or loyalty.
In this context, the example of a conflict of interest in business is favoritism towards relatives. This is
because favoring relatives over other employees or customers could undermine the fairness, merit, and
quality of the business decisions and outcomes.

Q.102) Which of the following is not a consequence of unethical behavior in business?

[1] Damage to the reputation of the business
[2] Legal consequences such as fines or imprisonment
[3] Decreased employee morale and productivity
*[4] Increased customer loyalty and trust
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[SOLUTION] A consequence of unethical behavior in business is not:
Increased customer loyalty and trust.
This is because unethical behavior in business can erode the trust and confidence of customers, who may
choose to switch to more ethical competitors or boycott the business altogether.

Q.103) Which of the following is a key component of an effective code of ethics for a business?
[1] A focus on maximizing profits for shareholders
[2] A requirement for employees to always follow management directives
*[3] A clear statement of the values and principles that guide behavior
[4] A prohibition on engaging in any form of competition
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[SOLUTION] A clear statement of the values and principles that guide behavior

Q.104) Which of the following is an example of an ethical dilemma in business?

[1] Deciding whether to offer discounts to customers
[2] Choosing a location for a new business
[3] Selecting a vendor for office supplies
*[4] Deciding whether to disclose information about a faulty product to customers
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[SOLUTION] An ethical dilemma in business is a situation that requires a person to choose between two
options, both of which have moral implications. The choices may be contradictory, or they may require the
person to consider the needs of different groups and decide which is more important.

Based on the above definition, the best example of an ethical dilemma in business among the options you
gave is deciding whether to disclose information about a faulty product to customers. This choice involves
weighing the potential costs and benefits of honesty versus deception for the company, its customers, and
society at large

Q.105) Why do ethical problems occur in business?

*[1] The pursuit of profits at the expense of ethical principles
[2] Lack of financial resources
[3] Insufficient employee training
[4] The complexity of business operations
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[SOLUTION] Ethical problems occur in business because of:
The pursuit of profits at the expense of ethical principles.
This is because some businesses may prioritize their financial goals over their moral obligations to their
stakeholders, such as customers, employees, suppliers, investors, etc.
They may engage in unethical practices such as discrimination, harassment, fraud, corruption,
environmental damage, etc., to gain a competitive advantage or reduce costs.
Q.106) Which of the following best defines ethics?
[1] A set of rules and regulations to govern business practices
*[2] The moral principles that guide behavior and decision making
[3] A set of legal guidelines for business conduct
[4] The profit maximization strategy for businesses
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[SOLUTION] The moral principles that guide behavior and decision making

Q.107) Which of the following is a potential consequence of not addressing ethical problems in a
business?
[1] Increased profitability
[2] Improved employee morale and productivity
*[3] Damage to the reputation of the business
[4] A decrease in customer loyalty
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[SOLUTION] When ethical problems are not addressed in a business, it can lead to negative
consequences such as damage to the reputation of the business.
Customers may lose trust in the company, leading to a decrease in customer loyalty and a potential
decrease in profits.
Additionally, employees may become demotivated or disengaged if they perceive that the company is not
operating ethically, leading to a decline in productivity and morale. Shareholders may also be negatively
impacted if the reputation and financial performance of the business suffer.

Q.108) What is the role of leadership in promoting ethical behavior in a business?

[1] To ensure that employees are always following the law
[2] To prioritize profit maximization over ethical considerations
*[3] To create a culture that values ethical behavior and decision making
[4] To avoid taking responsibility for ethical issues that arise in the business
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[SOLUTION] To create a culture that values ethical behavior and decision making
The role of leadership in promoting ethical behavior in a business is not to ensure that employees are
always following the law, to prioritize profit maximization over ethical considerations, to withhold information
from employees, or to avoid taking responsibility for ethical issues.
These are possible actions of unethical or ineffective leaders, but not of ethical or effective ones. The role
of leadership in promoting ethical behavior in a business is to create a culture that values ethical behavior
and decision making.
This means setting clear and consistent ethical standards and expectations, providing guidance and
support for ethical dilemmas, rewarding ethical conduct and correcting unethical conduct, modeling ethical
behavior and decision making, and encouraging open and honest communication about ethical issues.

Q.109) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between law and ethics in
business?
[1] Ethics and law are the same thing
[2] Law is more important than ethics in business decision making
[3] Ethics is more important than law in business decision making
*[4] Law and ethics are both important in business decision making, but ethics goes beyond what the law
requires
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[SOLUTION] Law and ethics are both important in business decision making, but ethics goes beyond what
the law requires. While laws set the minimum standards of behavior that businesses must follow, ethics
encompasses a broader set of moral principles and values that govern the behavior of individuals and
organizations. Ethical behavior often goes beyond what is required by law to do what is right and fair.

Q.110) Which of the following is an example of a conflict between ethical principles and legal
requirements in business?
*[1] Disclosing confidential information to a third party without consent
[2] Offering discounts to customers to increase sales
[3] Providing excellent customer service to build customer loyalty
[4] Firing an employee for poor performance
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Disclosing confidential information to a third party without consent.

Q.111) What is the difference between negative and positive Utilitarianism?

*[1] Negative Utilitarianism focuses on reducing suffering, while positive Utilitarianism focuses on
increasing happiness.
[2] Negative Utilitarianism focuses on increasing happiness, while positive Utilitarianism focuses on
reducing suffering
[3] Negative Utilitarianism and positive Utilitarianism are the same thing.
[4] Negative Utilitarianism is based on individual conscience, while positive Utilitarianism is based on divine
commandments.
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[SOLUTION] The difference between negative and positive Utilitarianism is that:
 Negative Utilitarianism focuses on reducing suffering, while positive Utilitarianism focuses on
increasing happiness.
 Positive Utilitarianism recommends the promotion or maximization of intrinsic value, while negative
Utilitarianism recommends the reduction or minimization of intrinsic disvalue.

Q.112) According to utilitarianism, what is the right course of action?

[1] The one that maximizes individual happiness
[2] The one that minimizes overall suffering
*[3] The one that maximizes overall well-being for the greatest number of people affected
[4] The one that promotes individual rights and autonomy
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[SOLUTION] The main principle behind weighing social costs and benefits in Utilitarianism is:
The greatest good for the greatest number.
This is because Utilitarianism aims to promote the overall well-being of society by maximizing the positive
outcomes and minimizing the negative outcomes of actions

Q.113) What is the principle on which the moral duties are based, according to Immanuel Kant?
[1] Principle of good consequences
*[2] Principle of categorical imperative
[3] Principle of inherent and inalienable rights
[4] Principle of means to an end
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[SOLUTION] According to Immanuel Kant, moral duties are based on the principle of categorical
imperative, which states that individuals should act only in ways that can be universally applied to all
people, and that treat others as ends in themselves, rather than means to an end .
In other words, individuals should not use others as a means to achieve their own ends, but rather treat
them as valuable in themselves.

Q.114) What is the name of the ethical theory that emphasizes moral duties and rights?
*[1] Rights and duties theory
[2] Utilitarianism
[3] Virtue ethics
[4] Egoism
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[SOLUTION] The name of the ethical theory that emphasizes moral duties and rights is rights and duties
theory. This theory is also known as deontological ethics or Kantian ethics.

Q.115) Which of the following is an example of a Utilitarian approach to decision-making?

[1] Deciding to do what is morally right, regardless of the consequences

*[2] Deciding to do what benefits the majority, even if it harms some individuals
[3] Deciding to do what benefits the individual, even if it harms others
[4] Deciding to follow a set of moral rules, regardless of the consequences
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[SOLUTION] An example of a Utilitarian approach to decision-making is:
Deciding to do what benefits the majority, even if it harms some individuals.
This is because Utilitarianism holds that the right action is the one that maximizes happiness or pleasure for
the greatest number of people.

Q.116) Which dimension of ethics focuses on what we ought to do, rather than what
people actually do?

*[1] Normative Ethics (Think of a guiding star pointing towards the "right" path)

[2] Descriptive Ethics (Think of a telescope observing how people navigate morally)

[3] Meta-Ethics (Think of a magnifying glass examining the nature of morality itself)
[4] Applied Ethics (Think of a map showing how to apply ethical principles in specific situations)
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[SOLUTION] Normative Ethics

Q.117) Descriptive ethics is concerned with:

[1] Determining the best course of action in a given situation.

[2] Understanding the origins and development of ethical theories.
[3] Analyzing the psychological factors that influence moral decision-making.
*[4] Investigating how different cultures and societies approach ethical issues.
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[SOLUTION] Investigating how different cultures and societies approach ethical issues.

Q.118) Deontological ethics emphasizes:

[1] Maximizing overall happiness or well-being.
*[2] Following moral rules and duties, even if the consequences are not ideal.
[3] Developing good character and moral virtues.
[4] Building and maintaining relationships based on trust and empathy.
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[SOLUTION] Following moral rules and duties, even if the consequences are not ideal.

Q.119) Social ethics deals with:

[1] Ethical issues specific to certain professions, such as engineering or law.
*[2] The broader moral obligations we have towards our communities and societies.
[3] The impact of human actions on the environment and living beings.
[4] The ethical treatment of animals and their welfare.
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[SOLUTION] The broader moral obligations we have towards our communities and societies.

Q.120) Which of the following is or are issues covered by “Meta- ethics”?

[1] Metaphysical issues
[2] Psychological issues
[3] Consequentialism
*[4] Both 1 & 2
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[SOLUTION] Both 1 & 2

Q.121) Which of the following branch of Normative Ethics deals with “Duty- Based” or “Obligation-
Based”.
[1] Virtue
*[2] Deontology
[3] Consequentialism
[4] Ethics of care
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[SOLUTION] Deontology

Q.122) How can family experiences negatively impact moral development?

[1] Through exposure to violence and unethical behavior
[2] By lacking consistent expectations and boundaries
[3] Through insufficient emphasis on religious values
*[4] All of the above
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[SOLUTION] All of the above

Q.123) Religious institutions can help shape people's values by:

[1] Defining right and wrong through moral and spiritual teachings
[2] Fostering a sense of community and belonging with shared values
[3] Encouraging charitable and prosocial behavior towards others
*[4] All of the above
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[SOLUTION] All of the above

Q.124) Who gave the “process of value inculcation”?

*[1] Kohlberg
[2] Heinz
[3] Thomas Hobbes
[4] John Locke
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[SOLUTION] Kohlberg

Q.125) As per whose theory, “Social Contract is not the beginning of society but the end of it”.
*[1] Sir Henry Maine
[2] Peter Berger
[3] Aristotle
[4] George Levinger
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[SOLUTION] Sir Henry Maine

Q.126) In which of the following phases in Decision Making, the decision maker identifies the
problem or opportunity?
*[1] Intelligence Phase
[2] Design Phase
[3] Choice Phase
[4] Critical Phase
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[SOLUTION] Intelligence Phase - This is the first step in the decision-making process. In this stage the
decision maker identifies the problem or opportunity.
In the managerial context, a problem is finding something that is not according to plan, rule, or standard.
Q.127) In which of the following phases in Decision Making, the solution to a problem is designed?
[1] Intelligence Phase
*[2] Design Phase
[3] Choice Phase
[4] Critical Phase
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[SOLUTION] Design Phase - Design is the process of designing a solution to a problem. Alternative
solutions have been devised to solve the same problem. After collecting data about the solution, each
alternative solution is evaluated.

Q.128) Which of the following type of decisions are taken by the manager in daily functioning of the
organisation, which do not require a lot of evaluation and analysis?
[1] Strategic Decisions
*[2] Routine Decisions
[3] Programmed Decisions
[4] Operating Decisions
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[SOLUTION] Strategic Decisions and Routine Decisions
As the name suggests, routine decisions are those that the manager makes in the daily functioning of
the organization, i.e. they are routine.
Such decisions do not require a lot of evaluation, analysis or in-depth study. In fact, high-level managers
usually delegate these decisions to their subordinates.
On the other hand, strategic decisions are the important decisions of the firm. These are usually taken by
upper and middle-level management. They usually relate to the policies of the firm or the strategic plan for
the future.
Hence such decisions require analysis and careful study. Because strategic decisions taken at this level will
affect the routine decisions taken daily.

Q.129) Which of the following decisions relate to those functions that are repetitive in nature and
are dealt with by following a specific standard procedure and usually taken by lower management?
[1] Strategic Decisions
[2] Routine Decisions
*[3] Programmed Decisions
[4] Operating Decisions
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[SOLUTION] Programmed Decisions and Non-Programmed Decisions
Programmed decisions relate to those functions that are repetitive in nature. These decisions are dealt
with by following a specific standard procedure. These decisions are usually taken by lower
management.
For example, granting leave to employees, purchasing spare parts etc are programmed decisions where a
specific procedure is followed.
Non-programmed decisions arise out of unstructured problems, i.e., these are not routine or daily
occurrences. So, there is no standard procedure or process to deal with such issues.
Usually, these decisions are important to the organization. Such decisions are left to upper management.
For example, opening a new branch office will be a non-programmed decision.

Q.130) Which of the following decisions involves the leader maintaining control of and
responsibility for the decision?
*[1] Autocratic
[2] Consultative
[3] Democratic
[4] Consensus
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[SOLUTION] Autocratic – “Leader Decides”
Autocratic decision making involves the leader maintaining control of and responsibility for the decision. As
the collaborative leader you make and announce the decision without consulting the group.
Advantages:
Autocratic decision-making is fast. As the leader you do not ask for suggestions or ideas from the group.
You base your decision on personal knowledge and perceptions of the situation. Decisions are made with
little or no discussion.
Disadvantages:
Group members are less likely to support and participate in the collaborative effort when they have no input
in the decision-making process. Continued and regular autocratic decision making can lead to distrust, low
morale, and inefficiency, especially if group members are adversely affected by the decision.
When to Use This Style:
Use autocratic decision making when the decision needs to be made quickly or when outcomes involve
inconsequential matters that will have little impact.
Q.131) Which of the following decisions involves the members of the group by asking them to share
ideas, perceptions, and information concerning the decision but as the leader you maintain control
and responsibility for the decision but let the group know how their input impacted the final
decision?
[1] Autocratic
*[2] Consultative
[3] Democratic
[4] Consensus
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[SOLUTION] Consultative – “Leader Decides with Input from the Group”
Consultative decision making is when the leader involves the members of the group by asking them to
share ideas, perceptions, and information concerning the decision. As the leader you maintain control and
responsibility for the decision but let the group know how their input impacted the final decision.
Advantages:
Group participation and involvement in the decision-making process can lead to increased levels of
commitment to the collaborative work. Input from others increases understanding about the situation and
helps the leader make a better decision.
Disadvantages:
Group members may assume they have a say in the final decision, which is not the case. It must be clear
to the group that their recommendations will be considered, but the leader is still making the final decision.
When to Use This Style:
Use consultative decision-making when you don’t have time to negotiate consensus but you need the
expertise of the group to make a quality decision.

Q.132) What is the environment of the decision when a manager knows the precise outcome
associated with each possible alternative or course of action?
*[1] Certainty
[2] Uncertainty
[3] Risk
[4] Normal
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[SOLUTION] Decision making under certainty: A decision is made under conditions of certainty when a
manager knows the precise outcome associated with each possible alternative or course of action. In such
situations, there is perfect knowledge about alternatives and their consequences. Exact results are known
in advance with complete (100 per cent) certainty. The probability of specific outcomes is assumed to be
equal to one. A manager is simply faced with identifying the consequences of available alternatives and
selecting the outcome with the highest benefit or payoff.
For example, as per the assurance provided by Government of India, Rs. 1,000 invested in a 6-year
National Savings Certificate will bring a fixed sum of Rs. 2,015 after six complete years of investment. It
should still be realised, however, that the Government defaulting on its obligations is an unlikely probability,
but the possibility still exists

Q.133) Which of the following models of decision-making models assumed that people are
economically rational and that they are making an attempt to maximize their outcomes in all
situations?
*[1] Econologic Model
[2] Administrative Man Model
[3] Gamesman model
[4] Implicit Favourite Model
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[SOLUTION] Econologic Model or Rational Decision-making Model: In the rational decision-making
model, it is assumed that people are economically rational and that they are making an attempt to
maximize their outcomes in all situations. It is further based on the assumption that when faced with a
problem, individuals are aware of all the alternatives and they are also aware of the outcome of each of the
alternatives. This model is based on the classical economic theory and contends that the decisionmakers
are completely rational in their approach.

The model suggests the following orderly steps in the decision-making process:
1. Identifying the problem that requires a decision.
2. Determining the criterion to evaluate the alternatives that are going to be generated.
3. Develop and list all the alternatives related to the problem in hand.
4. Evaluate the prospects and consequences of each of the alternatives.
5. Based on the analysis, select the best alternative by evaluating its consequences and comparing it with
the criterion generated earlier. Implement the decision.

Q.134) Which of the following models of decision-making models assumed that numerous
organizational and individual factors restrict rational decision making?
[1] Econologic Model
*[2] Administrative Man Model
[3] Gamesman model
[4] Implicit Favourite Model
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[SOLUTION] Bounded Rationality Model or Administrative Man Model:
An alternative model, one not bound by the above assumptions, has been presented by Simon. This is the
bounded rationality model, also known as the administrative man model.
The bounded rationality model assumes numerous organizational and individual factors restrict rational
decision making. This is the version of decision making that occurs most often in organizations, because
the assumptions of this model are much closer to the truth:
 Early alternatives and solutions are quickly adopted because of perceptual limitations.
 Managers often don’t have access to all the information they need.
 Managers are not aware of all the alternatives and can’t predict the consequences of each one.
 Organizational goals constrain decisions.
 Conflicting goals of multiple stakeholders can force a compromise of a decision.

Q.135) Which of the following models of decision-making models assumes an organization to be

like a garbage can in which the problems, solutions, choices, players, and opportunities move
around randomly. If these factors happen to confront and connect, the decision is made?
[1] Econologic Model
*[2] Garbage can Model
[3] Retrospective model
[4] Implicit Favourite Model
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[SOLUTION] Garbage Can Model: This model assumes an organization to be like a garbage can in which
the problems, solutions, choices, players, and opportunities move around randomly. If these factors happen
to confront and connect, the decision is made.
Very often, the process of decision making is not as sequential and methodical as has been proposed by
earlier models. Sometimes it is haphazard, confusing, and unpredictable. In a garbage can model,
decisions are random and unsystematic. This model assumes an organization to be like a garbage can in
which the problems, solutions, choices, players, and opportunities move around randomly. If these factors
happen to confront and connect, the decision is made. The exact process consists of finding the right
solution to the right problem at the right time among the right players. This kind of decision making may be
required at the time of crisis when enough information is not available and the decision is required to be
taken without wasting time. It also diverts our attention to the fact that not all the decisions are taken in a
logical, step-by-step, systematic manner. In today’s environment, with fast-paced situations, managers may
be required to take quick decisions with the help of this model.

Q.136) Which one among the following is not one of the steps in the process of decision making?
[1] Problem identification
[2] Immersion
*[3] Affirmation
[4] Incubation
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[SOLUTION]

The five steps to creative decision making are similar to the previous decision-making models in some keys
ways.

All the models include problem identification, which is the step in which the need for problem solving
becomes apparent. If you do not recognize that you have a problem, it is impossible to solve it.

Immersion is the step in which the decision maker consciously thinks about the problem and gathers
information. A key to success in creative decision making is having or acquiring expertise in the area being
studied.

Then, incubation occurs. During incubation, the individual sets the problem aside and does not think about
it for a while. At this time, the brain is actually working on the problem unconsciously.

Then comes illumination, or the insight moment when the solution to the problem becomes apparent to
the person, sometimes when it is least expected. This sudden insight is the “eureka” moment, similar to
what happened to the ancient Greek inventor Archimedes, who found a solution to the problem he was
working on while taking a bath.

Finally, the verification and application stage happen when the decision maker consciously verifies the
feasibility of the solution and implements the decision.

Q.137) Which of the following bias refers to tendency of individuals to see past mistakes or
occurrences as obvious?

[1] Cognitive Bias

[2] Over Confidence Bias
*[3] Hindsight Bias
[4] Anchoring Effect
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[SOLUTION] Hindsight Bias
This is the tendency of individuals to see past mistakes or occurrences as obvious. After the event has
occurred, individuals believe that they did or should have seen it coming. This is important when evaluating
others decisions.

Q.138) Which of the following bias refers to the tendency to see a particular situation or issue from
a chosen perspective?

*[1] Selective Perception

[2] Confirmation Bias
[3] Availability Bias
[4] Immediate Gratification
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[SOLUTION] Selective Perception
This is the tendency to see a particular situation or issue from a chosen perspective. This is related to the
team-based mentality. We see all situations or issues through a common lens that influences our ability to
understand alternative or conflicting points of view or alternatives

Q.139) Which of the following refers to the tendency to make the immediacy of a potential solution
to a problem or situation the most important criteria?

[1] Selective Perception

[2] Confirmation Bias
[3] Availability Bias
*[4] Immediate Gratification
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[SOLUTION] Immediate Gratification

This is the tendency to make the immediacy of a potential solution to a problem or situation the most
important criteria. The result is the failure to consider all available options and settling for a sub-part
outcome form a decision that fails to deliver all available value.

Q.140) Which of the following refers to the tendency to believe a situation is indicative of a greater
tendency?

*[1] Representation Bias

[2] Self-Serving Bias
[3] Fundamental Attribution Error
[4] Rationalization
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[SOLUTION] Representation Bias

This is the tendency to believe a situation is indicative of a greater tendency. That is, it is related to
stereotyping. The decision maker believes that the situation represents all of the characteristics of the
population of which it is a part. It causes a failure in the perception of one’s ability to predict a given
outcome or result.

Q.141) Which of the following refers to the tendency for people to over-emphasize personality-
based explanations for behaviors observed in others while under-emphasizing the role and power
of situational influences on the same behaviour?

[1] Representation Bias

[2] Self-Serving Bias
*[3] Fundamental Attribution Error
[4] Rationalization
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[SOLUTION] Fundamental Attribution Error
The tendency for people to over-emphasize personality-based explanations for behaviors observed in
others while under-emphasizing the role and power of situational influences on the same behaviour.

Q.142) Which of the following refers to the tendency to do (or believe) things because many other
people do (or believe) the same?

[1] Representation Bias

*[2] Bandwagon Effect
[3] Fundamental Attribution Error
[4] Rationalization
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[SOLUTION] Bandwagon Effect: The tendency to do (or believe) things because many other people do
(or believe) the same.

Q.143) Which of the following refers to when faced with high-stakes decisions, we tend to adjust
our estimates or forecast to be "on the safe side"?

[1] Status Quo Bias

[2] Illusion of Control
*[3] Prudence Trap
[4] Recallability Trap
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[SOLUTION] Prudence Trap

When faced with high-stakes decisions, we tend to adjust our estimates or forecast to be "on the safe side".

Q.144) Which of the following refers to the tendency for people to strongly prefer avoiding losses
than acquiring gains?

*[1] Loss Aversion

[2] Survivorship Bias
[3] Halo Effect
[4] Prudence Trap
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[SOLUTION] Loss Aversion- The tendency for people to strongly prefer avoiding losses than acquiring
gains.

Q.145) Which of the following refers to the tendency for a person's positive traits to "spill over"
from one area of their personality to another in others' perception of them?
[1] Loss Aversion
[2] Survivorship Bias
*[3] Halo Effect
[4] Prudence Trap
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[SOLUTION] Halo Effect

This is the tendency for a person's positive traits to "spill over" from one area of their personality to another
in others' perception of them. In other words, it's hard to believe that someone you like or trust in another
context could be wrong now.

You may also come across the opposite: the Horn Effect. As you may have guessed, this is when
someone's negative traits cloud your judgment of them or their abilities.

Q.146) Which of the following refers to when a group leader introduces the problem, and ideas are
sought from everyone to solve the problem?
*[1] Brainstorming Technique
[2] Delphi Technique
[3] Nominal Group Technique
[4] Quality Circles
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[SOLUTION] Brainstorming Technique
Brainstorming was developed by Alex Faickney Osborn, who is also called “The Father of Brainstorming.”
This technique aims to improve problem-solving by finding new or creative solutions.
In a brainstorming session, five to ten persons sit together. A group leader introduces the problem, and
ideas are sought from everyone to solve the problem. These ideas are discussed and analysed, and the
best idea is selected.
Let us take an example of Google’s “Note-and-Vote” on how they adopt brainstorming. Everyone present in
the room is given a paper, pen, and 5 to 10 minutes to scribble down as many ideas as they possibly can.
This approach is effective because each attendee gets an opportunity to think as an individual and as part
of the group.

Q.147) Which of the following refers to the technique where the decision may be to buy or not to
buy, to situation requires an extensive and exhaustive discussion and investigation since a wrong
decision can have serious consequences of either of the two alternatives, the group required to
make the decision is split into two subgroups, one favoring the ‘go’ decision and other favoring the
‘no go’ decision?

[1] Fishbowling
*[2] Didactic Interaction
[3] Synectics
[4] Delphi
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[SOLUTION] Didactic interaction:
Didactic interaction is applicable only in certain situations, but is an excellent method when such a situation.
For example, the decision may be to buy or not to buy, to situation requires an extensive and exhaustive
discussion and investigation since a wrong decision can have serious consequences of either of the two
alternatives, the group required to make the decision is split into two subgroups, one favoring the ‘go’
decision and other favoring the ‘no go’ decision. The first group lists all the ‘pros’ of the problem solution
and the second group lists all the ‘cons’. These two groups meet and discuss their findings and their
reason. After the exhaustive discussions, the group switch ideas and try to find weakness in their own
original viewpoints. This interchange of ideas and tolerance and understanding of opposite viewpoint
results in mutual acceptance of facts as facts as they exist so that a solution can be built around these facts
and thus a final decision is reached.

Q.148) Which of the following technique refers to the relationship between variables, and
programming refers to taking decisions systematically?

*[1] Linear Programming

[2] Decision Tree
[3] Game Theory
[4] Simulation
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[SOLUTION] Linear Programming
Linear programming is a quantitative technique used to decide how to distribute limited resources for
achieving objectives. Linear refers to the relationship between variables, and programming refers to taking
decisions systematically.

Linear programming is used when two or more activities compete for limited resources. Linear
programming is used for agriculture, industry, contract bidding, and evaluation of tenders.

Q.149) A ________ is a diagram that shows all possible decision alternatives. From the base, or
decision point, different alternatives and sub-alternatives are indicated as branches and sub-
branches, respectively. Fill in the blanks.
[1] Linear Programming
*[2] Decision Tree
[3] Game Theory
[4] Simulation
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[SOLUTION] Decision Tree
A decision tree is a diagram that shows all possible decision alternatives. All this information can be seen at
one glance in a manner that is easy to understand. A decision tree is like a horizontal tree.

The base of the tree is called a decision point. From the base, different alternatives and sub-alternatives
are indicated as branches and sub-branches, respectively. The manager must study all alternatives very
carefully and select the best one

Q.150) Which of the following refers to a chart which revolves around the concept of 80-20 rule i.e.,
80% of the defects of a process come from 20% of the causes?

[1] Check Sheet

*[2] Pareto Chart
[3] Histogram
[4] Scatter Diagram
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Pareto Diagram/Chart –
Pareto chart revolves around the concept of 80-20 rule i.e., 80% of the defects of a process come from
20% of the causes. It focuses on the problems that have the greatest potential for improvement.
A Pareto chart is a bar graph. This principle established by Vilfredo Pareto an Italian economist
originally stated that 80% of the land of his country was owned by 20% of the population. The
lengths of the bars represent frequency or cost (time or money), and are arranged with longest bars on the
left and the shortest to the right. In this way the chart visually represents which situations are more
significant.

Q.151) “What distinguishes a successful manager from a less successful one is the ability to put
the principles into practice.” Which aspect of the nature of management is highlighted in the above
statement?
[1] Management as a science
*[2] Management as an art
[3] Management as a profession
[4] Management is an intangible force
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[SOLUTION] A successful manager practices the art of management in the day-to-day job of managing an
enterprise based on study, observation and experience. Art refers to personal and skillful application of
existing knowledge to achieve desired results. A successful manager does proactive practical application of
existing knowledge and skills in the operation of management process.

Q.152) ____________ provides a rational approach for setting objectives and developing
appropriate courses of action for achieving predetermined objectives.
[1] Directing
[2] Staffing
*[3] Planning
[4] Controlling
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[SOLUTION] Planning is the most crucial and foremost function of management. It is defined as the
process of setting goals and choosing the means to achieve those goals. Planning is an intellectual
process, the conscious determination of courses of action, the basing of decisions on purpose, acts and
considered estimates.

Q.153) Which level of management is responsible for the welfare and survival of the organisation?
*[1] Top level of management
[2] Middle level of management
[3] Supervisory level
[4] Both (2) and (3)
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[SOLUTION] The Top-Level Management consists of a board of directors, chief executive or managing
director. The top management is the ultimate source of authority and it manages goals and policies for an
enterprise. It devotes more time on planning and coordinating functions. It appoints the executive for middle
level. It prepares strategic plans & policies for the enterprise. Alongside it is responsible for welfare and
survival of the organisation.

Q.154) Name the principle of management given by Fayol which when applied would mean that the
workers and management both honour their commitments without any prejudice towards one
another.
*[1] Discipline
[2] Mental Revolution
[3] Remuneration of employees
[4] Scalar chain
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[SOLUTION] Under one of the 14 principles of Fayol, Discipline refers to the objectives, rules and
regulations, the policies and procedures must be honoured by each member of an organisation. There
must be clear and fair agreement on the rules and objectives, on the policies and procedures. There must
be penalties (punishment) for non-obedience or indiscipline. No organisation can work smoothly without
discipline – preferably voluntary discipline.
Q.155) Which of the following is an informational role of a Manager:
[1] Figurehead
[2] Leader
*[3] Monitor
[4] Liason
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[SOLUTION] ROLES OF MANAGER: Henry Mintzberg identified ten different roles, separated into three
categories. The categories he defined are as follows

a) Interpersonal Roles
The ones that, like the name suggests, involve people and other ceremonial duties. It can be further
classified as follows:

• Leader –
 Responsible for staffing, training, and associated duties.
 Builds relationships with subordinates and communicates with, motivates and coaches them.

• Figurehead –
 The symbolic head of the organization. Performs symbolic duties of a legal or social nature.
 As a manager, you have social, ceremonial and legal responsibilities. You're expected to be a
source of inspiration. People look up to you as a person with authority, and as a figurehead.
• Liaison –
 Maintains the communication between all contacts and informers that compose the
organizational network.
 Maintains networks of contacts outside the work unit who provide help and information.

b) Informational Roles
Related to collecting, receiving, and disseminating information.
• Monitor –
 Personally seek and receive information, to be able to understand the organization.
 In this role, you regularly seek out information related to your organization and industry, looking for
relevant changes in the environment. You also monitor your team, in terms of both their productivity,
and their well-being.
• Disseminator –
Transmits all import information received from outsiders to the members of the organization.

• Spokesperson – On the contrary to the above role, here the manager transmits the
organization’s plans, policies and actions to outsiders.

c) Decisional Roles
Roles that revolve around making choices.
• Entrepreneur –
 Seeks opportunities. Basically, they search for change, respond to it, and exploit it.
 As a manager, you create and control change within the organization. This means solving problems,
generating new ideas, and implementing them.
• Negotiator –
 Represents the organization at major negotiations.
 You may be needed to take part in, and direct, important negotiations within your team, department,
or organization.

• Resource Allocator –
  Makes or approves all significant decisions related to the allocation of resources.
 You'll also need to determine where organizational resources are best applied. This involves
allocating funding, as well as assigning staff and other organizational resources.

• Disturbance Handler –
 Responsible for corrective action when the organization faces disturbances.
 When an organization or team hits an unexpected roadblock, it's the manager who must take
charge. You also need to help mediate disputes within it.

Q.156) ________is concerned with policy making, whereas ______with policy implementation
[1] Planning; Controlling
*[2] Administration; Management
[3] Management; Administration
[4] Directing; Controlling
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] A clear distinction may be made between administration and management in the
following way:
1. Administration is concerned with policy making, whereas management with policy implementation.
2. Functions of administration are legislative and largely determinative, while that of the management are
executive and governing.
3. Broadly speaking, administration is concerned with planning and organizing, but motivating and
controlling functions are involved in management.
4. Board of directors of any company is normally concerned with administration, whereas personnel below
that level are in charge of management.

Q.157) _____ is popularly known as the ‘Father of Scientific Management’

*[1] Frederick Taylor

[2] A H Maslow
[3] Douglas Mc-Gregor
[4] Mary Parker Follet
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[SOLUTION] Frederick Taylor who is popularly known as the Father of Scientific Management. The goal
of Frederick Taylor’s scientific management was to use systematic study to find the ‘one best way’ of doing
each task.
Q.158) ____________ involves outlining a vision of what can be achieved, focusing on interpersonal
relations by communicating with each employee, and motivating and inspiring people to perform
better.
[1] Organizing
[2] Directing
[3] Controlling
*[4] Leading
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] A manager manages employees making sure that tasks are completed on time and policies
are followed. Leading involves outlining a vision of what can be achieved, focusing on interpersonal
relations by communicating with each employee, and motivating and inspiring people to perform better. By
creating a positive working environment, a leader can effectively help improve the employees’ job
performance and hence their morale and achieve required levels of change and innovation.

Q.159) _______ state that management means, “Getting things done through and with people”.
[1] Hicks
*[2] Koontz and O’Donnell
[3] Haimann
[4] Henry Fayol
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Koontz and O’Donnell state that management means, “Getting things done through and with
people”.
According to Henry Fayol, “To Manage is to forecast, and to plan, to organize, to command and to
coordinate
Hick defines management as “the process of getting things done by the people and through the people”
Haimann observes, “Management is the function of getting things done through people and directing the
efforts of individuals towards a common objective”

Q.160) The Hawthorne experiments (1928-32) were conducted by:

[1] Frederick Taylor

*[2] Elton Mayo
[3] Douglas Mc-Gregor
[4] Mary Parker Follet
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[SOLUTION] The Hawthorne studies were conducted on workers at the Hawthorne plant near Chicago of
the Western Electric Company. by Elton Mayo. The Hawthorne studies were part of a refocus on
managerial strategy incorporating the socio-psychological aspects of human behavior in organizations.
The Hawthorne studies discovered that workers were highly responsive to additional attention from their
managers and the feeling that their managers actually cared about, and were interested in, their work. The
studies also found that although financial motives are important, social issues are equally important
factors in worker productivity.

Q.161) Which of the following statement is not true about the motivation factors:

[1] Financial motivators are normally used to satisfy employee’s lower-order needs.
*[2] Financial motivators are intangible and indirectly influence individual and organizational performance.
[3] Non-financial motivators are meant to satisfy higher-order needs.
[4] Non-financial motivators hey are intangible benefits that indirectly influence individual and organizational
performance.
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[SOLUTION] Financial motivators are tangible and directly influence individual and organizational
performance.

Statement: The Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is a theory proposed by Abraham Harold Maslow in his 1943
paper “A Theory of Human Motivation”. Maslow, a famous psychologist tried to understand human
motivation. Abraham Maslow a US psychologist developed the well-known 'Hierarchy of needs' motivation
theory. Under this theory Maslow suggests that everybody has a series of needs and these needs can be
organized into a hierarchy of priority. He believed that a need at a particular level motivates an individual.
Then the individual performs an action to satisfy it. Once it is satisfied a new higher level need emerges.
Maslow also stated that if you want to motivate an individual you will need to know which of their needs
have been satisfied. Once you have this information, you can decide which need has to be satisfied in
order to motivate your subject.

Q.162) As per Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following is not a lower-level need or
deficiency need:
[1] Physiological needs
[2] Safety needs
[3] Social needs
*[4] self-actualization
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[SOLUTION] Deficiency needs – In the pyramid of needs as described by Maslow, the first four layers
Physiological needs, Safety needs, Social needs and esteem are what he called "deficiency needs" or
"D-needs". Not meeting such needs creates anxiety whereas meeting such needs may not make a person
feel any different.

Growth needs/self-actualization – The growth needs are also termed as "being" or "B-needs". If the
deficiency needs are considered ‘basic’, such that they act as a motivator to an extent; the growth needs
are those that endure a person’s behavior further.

Q.163) As per Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following is true:

I. Physiological - 1. Allocating challenging and stimulating responsibilities to employee

II. Safety needs - 2. Appraisals and other achievement recognition programmes
III. Social needs - 3. Safe working conditions and clear work procedures
IV. Esteem- 4. social connections with family members, colleagues, partners, friend
V. Self-actualization- 5. Salary, food, warmth, shelter

*[1] I-5, II-3, III-4, IV-2, V-1

[2] I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2, V-5
[3] I-5, II-2, III-4, IV-3, V-1
[4] I-5, II-3, III-1, IV-2, V-4
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[SOLUTION] I-5, II-3, III-4, IV-2, V-1

Q.164) As per Herzberg’s two factor theory of motivation, which of the following is not a motivation factor:

[1] Promotion
[2] Achievement
[3] Responsibility
*[4] Company Policies
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Motivation factors:
 Opportunity for achievement
 Recognition for achievement
 Responsibility for task
 Interest in the job
 Scope of advancement to higher level
 tasks
Possibility of growth

Q.165) Which of the following is/are true about ERG theory:

I. ERG theory is an improvement of Expectancy theory.

II. Existence Needs are job security, suitable working conditions, reasonable working hours, pay and
fringe benefits.
III. Relatedness Needs are family, supervisors, co-workers, subordinates, friends
IV. Growth Needs are those that compel a person to make creative or productive efforts for him or
herself.

[1] I, II, III and IV

[2] I, II and IV
*[3] II, III and IV
[4] III and IV
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] ERG theory of motivation: ERG theory consists of three groups of core needs: existence,
relatedness, and growth. ERG theory shows that a person works on fulfilling these needs simultaneously or
separately depending on the difference of goals, status, and the environment.

Clayton Alderfer reworked Maslow’s need hierarchy to align it with the empirical research. His
revised need hierarchy is labeled ERG theory. Alderfer argues that there are three groups of core needs:
existence, relatedness, and growth.

Q.166) Grid organization development developed by

[1] Maslow
[2] Vroom
[3] Adams
*[4] Blake and Mouton
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[SOLUTION] Blake and Mouton

Q.167) The Behavioral Science Theory believes in

[1] Intrapersonal relation
*[2] Interpersonal relation
[3] Family relations
[4] None of these
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[SOLUTION] Interpersonal relation

Q.168) ------------leadership is also referred as fatherly leadership

[1] Automatic
[2] Participative
[3] Free rein
*[4] Paternalistic
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[SOLUTION] Paternalistic

Q.169) The study of gestures and body postures for their impact on communication is known as:
*[1] Kinesics
[2] Proximics
[3] Semantics
[4] Informal channels
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[SOLUTION] Kinesics

Q.170) Communicating within oneself is known as ….......

[1] Group Communication
[2] Transpersonal Communication
*[3] Intrapersonal communication
[4] Interpersonal communication
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[SOLUTION] Intrapersonal communication

Q.171) Which of the following is not an advantage of written communication over oral communication?
[1] It is a permanent record
[2] Provides tangible legal evidence
*[3] Accessible to the illiterate
[4] More accurate than oral communication
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Accessible to the illiterate

Q.172) ……………..provides the relative value of each job in the organization. It is an important tool to
determine compensation administration:
[1] Job Analysis
[2] Job Description
[3] Job Specification
*[4] Job Evaluation
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Job evaluation provides the relative value of each job in the organization. It is an important
tool to determine compensation administration. If an organization is to have an equitable compensation
program, jobs that have similar demands on terms of skills, education and other characteristics should be
placed in the common compensation groups.

Q.173) The process of studying and collecting information relating to the operations and responsibilities of
a specific job:
*[1] Job Analysis
[2] Job Description
[3] Job Specification
[4] Job Evaluation
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[SOLUTION] Job analysis is a systematic investigation of the tasks, duties and responsibilities necessary
to do a job. Job analysis is the process of collecting job related information. According to Flippo, Job
analysis can be defined as “the process of studying and collecting information relating to the operations and
responsibilities of a specific job.”

Q.174) MIS stands for:

[1] Management Input Systems
*[2] Management Information Systems
[3] Management Information Source
[4] Management Intelligence Systems
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Management Information Systems (MIS) approach focuses on design and implementation of
computer-based information systems for the management’s use. It converts raw data into information
inputs, which are subsequently used by management for any decision making. Now-a-days, MIS helps in
enterprise- wide decision making, integrating all functions of management. Enterprise-wide decision
support systems like Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS) is an important example.

Q.175) Management science that uses mathematical and statistical approaches to solve management
problems:
*[1] operations research
[2] quantitative approach
[3] mathematical approach
[4] None of these
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Operations Research

Q.176) Which one of the following pairs of properties of typical air masses is correct?

Air Mass Source Region

A Maritime Warm oceans in the equatorial zone
Equatorial
B Maritime Tropical Warm oceans in the tropical zone
C Continental Less warm oceans in the tropical zone
Tropical
D Continental Polar Moist oceans in the polar zone

*[1] A
[2] B
[3] C
[4] D
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[SOLUTION] Maritime Equatorial air mass originates from warm oceans in the equatorial zone. Maritime
Tropical originates from the warm water and Guly of Mexico where heat and moisture are transformed to
the overlying air from the water below. Continental tropical is dry air mass formed over land in the area
close to equator. Continental polar is cold, dry stable air mass originating over land surface of Canada and
Alaska.

Q.177) According to the Geo-scientists, the shape of the Earth is

1. round
2. spherical
3. close to that of a sphere
4. an oblate ellipsoid
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
[1] 2, 3 and 4
[2] 1, 2 and 3
[3] 1 and 2
*[4] 3 and 4
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[SOLUTION] According to the Geo-scientists, the shape of the Earth can be considered as close to that of
sphere and also as an oblate ellipsoid termed as 'Geoid'. The shape of Earth is not completely round
because of difference in the length of Equator (12756 km) and distance between the two poles (12714 m).

Q.178) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

Codes:
A B C D
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
[1] (A)
*[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Ludhiana is famous all over India for its wool sweaters and cotton T-shirts. Most of the top
Indian woollen apparel brands are based in Ludhiana. Kanpur is renowned for its leather industries, the
largest centre of the industry is in Jajmau suburb of Kanpur.
Varanasi is famous for handloom works, and Bari bazaar is famous for Banarasi Silk Sarees.
Vijayawada is well known as the auto parts capital in India, the Auto Nagar industrial estate, also known as
Jawaharlal dedicated ton Nehru Auto Nagar Estate. It is an industrial park the automobile industry and one
of the largest of its kind in Asia
Q.179) Which one of the following is not a sea port?
[1] Paradeep
[2] Haldia
*[3] Diamond Harbour
[4] Dhamra
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[SOLUTION] Paradeep Port is one of the major ports of India serving the Eastern and Central parts of the
country. It is located in Odisha.
Haldia is a major river port and industrial belt located in Kolkata near the mouth of the Hooghly river.
Diamond Harbour is in the Southern suburbs of Kolkata. It is a famous tourist centre situated on the
eastern banks of Hooghly River, but it is not a port. Therefore, answer is (3).
Dhamra Port is a major newly developed port in Bhadrak district, Odisha, on the shore of the Bay of
Bengal.

Q.180) The Manas National Park is situated in the state of

[1] Madhya Pradesh
[2] Jharkhand
*[3] Assam
[4] West Bengal
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[SOLUTION] The Manas National Park is situated in the state of Assam. It is UNESCO Natural World
Heritage Site. It is mainly a project to harbour elephant, wild buffalo, tiger and rhino. It is one of the famous
biosphere reserves in India. It is also a Project Tiger Reserve about other options.

Q.181) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

[1] Temperature decreases from the equator to poles.
[2] Temperatures in equatorial regions change substantially from January to July.
[3] Large land masses located in the Sub-arctic and Arctic zones develop centres of extremely low
temperatures in winter.
*[4] Highlands are always colder than surrounding lowlands.

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[SOLUTION] From January to July there is very small change in temperature. In equatorial region the
changing angle of the Sun through the reason has a proportionally smaller effect on the total amount of
sunlight received. So, there is very little change in temperature.

Q.182) An upfold in rock is

[1] graben
[2] horse
*[3] anticline
[4] syncline
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[SOLUTION] An anticline is a fold that arches up as both sides of the rock are pushed inward.
A syncline is a fold that sinks down as both sides of the rock are pushed inward.
A Graben is a fault which is produced when tensional stresses result in the subsidence of a block of rock.
On a large scale, these features are known as Rift Valleys.
Horse is a latitude which is either of two belts or regions in the neighbourhood of 30" N and 30° S latitude
characterised by high pressure, calm and light variable winds.

Q.183) Which one of the following gases is found in highest quantity in Exosphere?
*[1] Hydrogen
[2] Helium
[3] Nitrogen
[4] Oxygen
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[SOLUTION] Hydrogen

Q.184) Identify the place that is not an oil field.

[1] Naharkatiya
[2] Kalol
*[3] Ledo
[4] Ankleshwar
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[SOLUTION] In Assam Naharkatiya (also Naharkatia), Rudrasagar, Moran, Hugrijan, Lakoa and Galeki
have been developed by Oil India Ltd. Gujarat's oil wells are at Ankleshwar (largest). Cambay, Kalol,
Kosamba, Mehsana, Nowgam, Dholka, Lunej, Sananda, Wavel Bakal and Kathana. Ledo is a small town in
Tinsukia district of Assam. It is the easternmost broad gauge railway station in India.

Q.185) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

Codes
A B C D
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
[1] (A)
*[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] The wet equatorial climate is characterised by a dominance of the Intertropical
Convergence Zone (ITC), and uniform, very warm temperatures in all seasons. These regions received
ample precipitation, when the ITC is near then it receives heaviest precipitation.
Monsoon and trade wind coastal climates are characterised by heavy rainfall with strong seasonal
patterns and a larger temperature range than the wet equatorial climate.
The wet-dry tropical climate is characterised by a warm climate but with a more marked temperature
range During the high Sun season proximity to the ITC brings heavy rains and during the cooler period, the
subtropical high pressure cell produces very dry conditions.
The dry tropical climate is dominated by the subtropical high-pressure cell. It experiences very low
precipitation and intense daytime heating under predominantly clear skies and includes many of the
world's great deserts.
 1
Q.186) The IST meridian 82 ° E passes through a number of states in India. Which one of the following
2
sets of states is correct in this respect?
[1] Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh
[2] Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Odisha
[3] Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
*[4] Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] The standard meridian of India i.e. 82.5° E longitude passes through the states of Uttar
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha. Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated on the basis
1
of 82 ° E longitude.
2
82.5° E meridian passing through Mirzapur district of UP is taken as Indian standard time. It is 05:30 hr
ahead of Greenwich mean time, IST passes through UP, MP. Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

Q.187) Which one among the following places is not an iron ore mining area?
[1] Badampahar
*[2] Zawar
[3] Bailadila
[4] Anantapur
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Although, some quantity of iron ore is found in several parts of the country, the major part of
the reserves are highly concentrated in a few selected areas. Only six states, le Jharkhand, Odisha
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Goa account for over 95% of the total reserves of India.

Q.188) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

Codes
A B C D
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 4 3 2
 (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2

*[1] (A)
[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] National Park Bhitarkanika in Odisha. Bhitarkanika mangroves is in the delta of river Baitarni
and Brahmani.
Sanctuary Chilika, a brackish water lagoon in Odisha is wildlife sanctuary.
Biosphere Reserve Nokrek, a hotspot biodiversity in Gas hills of Meghalaya It is famous for Red Panda.
Tiger Reserve Dudhwa Tiger reserve in high diverse and productive region of Terai ecosystem.

Q.189) Which of the following statements about hill stations of colonial India is/are correct?
[1] The architecture of hill stations sought to recreate the European style.
*[2] Hill stations were developed as sanitariums where soldiers were treated for illness.
[3] Shimla became the official residence of the Commander in Chief of the Indian Army.
[4] All are correct
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Indian hill stations were purposefully designed for British recreational activities and developed
as sanitariums where soldiers could be treated. Hill stations gave them feeling of temperate climate in
Tropical region. In 1864, Shimla was declared as the summer capital of British India.

Q.190) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

Codes
A B C D
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
*[1] (A)
[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Tropical Evergreen Forests or (tropical rainforests) are usually found in areas receiving
more than 200 cm of rainfall and having a temperature of 15°C to 30 °C and have annual humidity
exceeding 77%. Evergreen forests are found on the Eastern and Western slopes of the Western Ghats in
such states as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra.
The Himalayan subtropical pine forests or Himalayan Moist Forests are a large subtropical coniferous
forest ecoregion covering portions of Bhutan, India, Nepal, and Pakistan. It covers the Northern Indian
states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim.
The Thorny Forests and Scrubs are found in regions where the rainfall is less than 70 cm. The Thorny
Forests are found in the semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar
Pradesh and Haryana (Punjab).
The Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests are found in areas where the rainfall is between 100 cm to 200
cm. They are found in the North Eastern states of Jharkhand, West Odisha and Chhattisgarh. Moist
Deciduous Forests are also found on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats. (Chhotanagpur

Q.191) The term Regur' is used to mean

[1] laterite soil
[2] deltaic soil
[3] red soil
*[4] black cotton soil
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Black Soil The Black soil of Deccan Plateau is also called "Regur soil or the 'Black cotton
soil. It is clayey, deep and impermeable, also called 'self-ploughing' soil. The soil is most suitable for cotton
cultivation.
Laterite Soil The soil is rich in iron and aluminium, and is commonly considered to have formed in hot and
wet tropical areas. It develops by intensive and long-lasting weathering of the underlying parent rock.
Deltaic Soil The Deltaic soil is found on the deltas of the Ganga Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri
Of the East coast and in parts of Rann of Kutch on the West coast There are muddy, saline in nature.
Red Soil The soil develops in a warm temperate, moist climate under deciduous or mixed forests and has
thin organic mineral layers.

Q.192) Which one of the following combinations of stalactites and stalagmites occurrences is correct?
[1] Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites hang from the floor of the caves
*[2] Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameter and stalagmites rise up from the factor of the caves
[3] Stalactites rise up from the floor f the caves and stalagmites hang as icicles of different diameters
[4] Stalactites hang a icicles of different diameters and stalagmites also hang as icicles of different
diameters
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Stalactites and stalagmites are depositional landforms formed by the action of ground water
These depositional landforms develop within limestone caves. Stalactites hang as icicles of different
diameters. They are broad at their basers and taper towards the free ends Stalagmites rise up from the
floor of the caves.

Q.193) Which one of the following is the correct sequence about various levels of organisation of
Biosphere?
[1] Ecosystem - Biosphere - Community - Population
[2] Population -Organism - Ecosystem - Biosphere
[3] Organism- Community-Population Biosphere
*[4] Organism - Population - Ecosystem - Biosphere
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Organism is the smallest unit. A group of organisms together form population. A group of
organism in their biotic and biotic environment and the interaction with each other the combination of all
ecosystems forms the biosphere.

Q.194) Which one of the following describes the Lithosphere?

[1] Upper and lower mantle
*[2] Crust and upper mantle
[3] Crust and core
[4] Mantle and core
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Lithosphere is rigid, rocky outer layer of the Earth consisting of the crust and the solid
outermost layer of the upper mantle. It extends to a depth of about 60 m (70-100 km). It is broken into
about a dozen separate rigid blocks or plates Lithosphere is bounded by the atmosphere above and the
asthenosphere below There are two types of lithosphere-oceanic lithosphere and continental lithosphere.
The former is associated with oceanic crust and is slightly denser than the later one
Q.195) Which one of the following statements is not correct?
[1] Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India.
[2] Neyveli is an important thermal power generating area of Tamil Nadu
*[3] Ratnagiri bauxite mining area is located in Karnataka
[4] Assam is the only largest tea producing state in India.
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[SOLUTION] Kerala contributes 90% ml India's total production of natural rubber Therefore, Kerala the
largest producer of natural rubber.
Major thermal power plants of Tamil Nadu to Mettur Thermal Power Station, Neyveli Thermal Power
Station-1 Neyveli
Thermal Power Station-2, Tuticorin Thermal Power Station and North Chennai Thermal Power Station.
Ratnagiri bauxite mining area is located in Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra.
India's major ten producing states are Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu Kerala and Karnataka

Q.196) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

Codes
A B C D
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 1
[1] (A)
*[2] (B)
[3] (C)
[4] (D)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Kamptee is a city in Nagpur district in the Indian state of Maharashtra.
Rajahmundry is the major city of Andhra Pradesh and located on the banks of the Godavari river, in East
Godavari district of the state.
Shahdol city is the district of Madhya Pradesh. Belagola is a village in the Southern state of Karnataka
Q.197) The newly formed state of Telangana is surrounded by
*[1] 5 states
[2] 4 states
[3] 6 states
[4] 3 states
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[SOLUTION] Telangana touches boundaries of five states - Andhra Pradesh Chhattisgarh, Karnataka,
Odisha and Maharashtra Telangana is the 24th state of India formed on 2nd June 2014 with the city of
Hyderabad as its capital.

Q.198) Rain shadow effect is associated with:

[1] cyclonic rainfall
*[2] orographic rainfall
[3] convectional rainfall
[4] frontal rainfall
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Rain shadow effect is an area having relatively little precipitation due to the effect of a barrier,
such as a mountain range, that causes the prevailing winds to lose their moisture before reaching it.
Orographic Precipitation Rain, snow or other precipitation produce when moist air is lifted as it moves
over a mountain range. As the air rises and cools, orographic clouds form and serve as the Source of the
precipitation, most of which falls upwind of the mountain ridge.
Cyclonic Rainfall It is also called as frontal rainfall. It happens when cooler and warmer, humid air meet in
a weather front. The loss dense warm air rises and condenses forming clouds. These clouds grow and
eventually create rain.
Convectional Rainfall It occurs when the Earth's surface, within a conditionally unstable or moist
atmosphere becomes heated more than its surrounding leading to significant evaporation. It mostly occurs
in tropics. Thunderstorms are associated with this type of rainfall.

Q.199) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

Codes
A B C D
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 3 1 2 4
[1] (A)
[2] (B)
*[3] (C)
[4] (D)
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] Jabalpur is famous for automobile industry Jabalpur has Vehicle Factory Jabalpur, Grey Iron
Foundry. Gun Carriage Factory Jabalpur and the Ordnance Factory Khamaria manufacturing products from
bullets, howitzer rockets bombs, mortars, grenades, shells, truck mine-protected vehicles, bulletproof
vehicles etc.
Bengaluru is famous for IT industry also known as Silicon Valley of India. Mathura is famous for petro-
chemical industry. The Mathura Refinery, owned by Indian Oil Corporation, is located in Mathura.
Ballarpur is located in Maharashtra and famous for paper Industry. Ballarpur Industries Limited (BILT) is
India's largest manufacturer of Writing and Printing (W&P) paper. BILT subsidiaries include Ballarpur
International Graphic Paper Holdings BV (BIGPH).

Q.200) Which one of the following irrigation canals is the most important in terms of area coverage in
Haryana?
[1] Bhakra canal
*[2] The Western Yamuna canal
[3] Jawaharlal Nehru canal
[4] Gurgaon canal
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[QUESTION TYPE] Multi_choice
[SOLUTION] The Western Yamuna Canal begins at the Hathnikund Barrage about 38 km (24 mi) from
Dakpathar and South of Doon valley. The canals irrigate vast tracts of land in the region.
Bhakra Canal provides irrigation to Punjab (37.7%). Haryana (46.7%) and Rajasthan (15.6%).
Jawaharlal Nehru Canal supplies water to Haryana, but once a year due to drying up of its supply. It
requires repair and proper availability or water.
Gurgaon Canal has been drawn at the Okhla Barrage from the Yamuna. With the waters of this canal, the
districts of Gurgaon and Faridabad are irrigated.