1. Which two of the following actions are performed by team facilitators?

I. Observes the team's progress

II. Identifies the team's customers
III. Evaluates how the team functions
IV. Directs the team's activities

A. I & III only

B. II & III only
C. I & IV only
D. III & IV only

2. Which of the following are consistent with the ASQ code of ethics?
I. To support colleagues and co-workers in following this code of ethics
II. To disclose conflicts of interest to affected parties when they do exist
III. To acquire and maintain professional competence through ASQ certification
IV. To aid the professional development of other departmental professionals

A. I & IV only
B. II & III only
C. I & III only
D. II & IV only

3. The problem solving tool that uses a systematic method to outline the details needed to complete a given
objective is known as a (an):

A. Affinity diagram
B. Tree diagram
C. Matrix diagram
D. Matrix diagram

4. The best way to fix a common cause problem is to:

A. Establish a task team with authority to improve the system

B. Establish a local work team to problem solve
C. Establish a task team to conduct brainstorming to fix
D. Measure and report the common cause in mgt. review

5. Which of the following would NOT be a required element of a software quality assurance plan?

A. A process description
B. The product overview
C. The degrees that software developers have
D. The type and frequency of audits to be performed

6. If a majority of software problem reports can be traced back to poor requirements definition, the most
likely problem could be:

A. Developers are not implementing the language correctly

B. The wrong version of the compiler is being used
C. Systems engineering interpreted the customers requests incorrectly
D. The customer is a foreign national

7. The Configuration Control Board (CCB) has overall responsibility for:

A. Maintaining product life cycle processes

B. Managing the definition of the evolving product
C. Reporting to management any changes in supporting documentation
D. None of the above

8. A major criticism of the "Waterfall" model is that it:

A. Requires completion of all tasks in a phase before entering the next phase
B. Does not establish a configuration management team
C. Does not define entry and exit criteria
D. Establishes management signature requirements

9. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Formal Technical Review process?

A. Assurance that software is developed in a uniform manner

B. Verification that software meets requirements
C. That a project meets its committed schedule
D. Ensuring software standards have been consistently implemented

10. Software metrics assist management in:

I. Assessing and reestablishing priorities and goals
II. Evaluating resource utilization
III. Determining which teams should be reorganized
IV. Initiating preventive measures during development

A. I, III and IV only

B. II, III and IV only
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II, and IV only

11. A good definition of software quality planning would be:

A. A review of all configuration management functions

B. Documented actions related to the projects quality function
C. Identification of tasks related to software inspection
D. Preparing detailed operating procedures for quality

12. A primary reason for generating a quality manual is to:

A. Provide a document for public relations and marketing purposes

B. Establish an auditable benchmark of current practices
C. Track all of the company's assets
D. Substantiate the existence of the quality department

13. Consider the following program:

program determining_gcd;
var a,b,r : integer;
begin
REPEAT
r := a mod b;
a := b; b : = r;
UNTIL r=0;
write('gcd = ',a);
end.

What is the N2 Halsteads' software science for the above program?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 9
D. 12

14. Consider the following figure:

figure 1

The cyclomatic complexity for the program in figure 1 is:

A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10

15. During a post-mortem meeting at the completion of a software design phase, which of the following tools
may be useful in an improvement effort?

A. Control chart
B. Cause and effect diagram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram

16. Which of the following is NOT relevant for measuring the effectiveness of inspections:

A. Number of defects per inspector on the team

B. Major defects found compared to other evaluation methods
C. Analysis of inspection data from all code inspections
D. A ratio of defects found to software size

17. To perform bottom-up testing, which of the following is necessary?

A. Test the terminal modules using driver modules

B. Start at the bottom modules and test with stubs
C. Test the stubs first then add the bottom modules
D. Test the terminal modules first then test the drivers

18. The customer documentation gets validated during:

A. Inspection
B. System test
C. Functional test
D. Integration test

19. Black box testing should be performed in conjunction with which of the following other test strategies?
I. White box testing
II. Beta testing
III. Top-down testing
IV. Bottom-up testing

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and IV only
D. III and IV only

20. Test documentation typically includes which of the following?

A. Test plans, test procedures, test cases, test reports

B. Test plans, test procedures, test cases, test data
C. Test plans, test procedures, test sequences, test reports
D. Test plans, test schedules, test sequences, test data

21. A software audit is considered complete when which of the following occurs?

A. The audit report is published and distributed

B. The auditor's follow-up actions have been performed
C. The final findings are presented to the audited group
D. The recommendation report has been submitted

22. In the "Trace Forward" method of auditing, the auditor begins with the software functional requirements,
selects the function(s) of interest, and follows them through the design, code, and testing processes. Which of
the following is NOT an advantage of "Trace Forward" auditing?

A. It shows the processing flow through the organization

B. It is practical for partial audits
C. It provides a useful method for training auditors
D. It permits quick detection of deficiencies at the front end

23. You have just received word that your customer will audit the processes used in producing the software
embedded in your system. As a software quality engineer in your company, you would refer to this audit as:

A. A second party audit

B. An internal audit
C. A first party audit
D. A compliance audit

24. The main objective of the software audit process is:

A. To monitor software projects for management performance

B. To evaluate software processes for cost control
C. To confirm product and process compliance to standards
D. To train audit personnel for higher-level assignments

25. Nonconforming programming modules should be identified and segregated in order to?

A. Determine the cause of nonconformity

B. Provide statistical information for the "zero defects" program
C. Assure it would not be used in production without proper authorization
D. Provide samples of poor workmanship in the company's training program

26. Which of the following has the LEAST impact on change management?

A. Who has the authority for approving and prioritizing changes

B. When the next CM audit will be scheduled
C. What mechanism is used to notify others of changes incorporated into product
D. What mechanism will ensure that changes are made properly

27. The problem solving tool(s) used to group items together in logical form or to show relationships include:
I. Affinity diagram
II. Root cause analysis
III. Matrix diagram
IV. Interrelationship digraphs
A. I only
B. I and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. III only

28. The qualitative tools of PERT and CPM are used to:
I. Determine critical path
II. Establish most likely time estimates
III. Calculate boundary times
IV. Evaluate the hardware interrelationship to software

A. I, II & III only

B. I, II, III, & IV
C. I, II & IV only
D. I & IV only

29. A software quality program review is most often conducted by:

A. The manager of the software quality project

B. The quality project's audit team
C. The customer's management liason
D. A management review board

30. The criteria for exiting the software inspection process includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Checklists are complete

B. Records have been collected
C. All defects are resolved
D. Known defects are identified

31. A test case for a range of inputs that includes one valid and two invalid inputs is known as:

A. Fault insertion
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Equivalence class partitioning
D. Loop testing

32. Six sigma as defined by Motorola is:

A. 66,810 defects per million lines of code

B. 6,210 defects per million lines of code
C. 233 defects per million lines of code
D. 3.4 defects per million lines of code

33. An audit to confirm fitness for use is called a:

A. Product audit
B. Process audit
C. Physical configuration audit
D. Compliance audit

34. For a software metric to be useful, the most important factor is the?

A. Validity of data
B. Data collection tool
C. Training of the software quality staff
D. Size of the computer program

35. If it were desirable to determine the relationship between the number of detected defects and the
complexity index in software programs, which of the following quality tools should be employed?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Control chart
C. Pareto diagram
D. Run chart

36. A software firm has just signed a fixed-price contract to deliver an inventory tracking/online transaction
system for use by 500 entry clerks. The client has demanded a schedule of rigorous checkpoints, but the
requirements are poorly defined. Which of the following would most suit a development model?

A. Spiral
B. Top-down
C. Rapid prototyping
D. Waterfall
Question 1: (Correct answer-A) A RIGHT!
Question 2: (Correct answer-D) A WRONG
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Question 36: (Correct answer-C) A WRONG