Глава 8 – Managing Teams

1) Formal groups are work groups that are defined by the organization’s structure and have designated work
assignments and specific tasks directed at accomplishing organizational goals.
- TRUE

2) Task groups are permanent teams that take on special projects.

- FALSE

3) Self-managed teams function in an independent and informal manner.

- FALSE

4) In the group development process, the forming stage is complete when members begin to think of themselves as
part of a group.
- TRUE

5) Under some conditions, high levels of conflict are conducive to high levels of group performance.
- TRUE

6) A group’s performance potential depends to a large extent on the individual resources its members bring to the
group.
- TRUE

7) An individual’s role in a group is not defined by the internal structure of the group.
- FALSE

8) One negative aspect about group norms is that being part of a group can increase an individual’s antisocial actions.
- TRUE

9) Groupthink occurs only when group members have a negative image of the group or the leader.
- FALSE

10) Small groups consistently get better results than larger ones when the groups are engaged in problem solving.
- FALSE

11) Social loafing is the tendency for an individual to expend less effort when working collectively than when working
individually.
- TRUE

12) Groupthink has the ability to undermine critical thinking in the group and harm the quality of decision making.
- TRUE

13) The human relations view of conflict held that conflict must be avoided because it indicates a problem within the
group.
- FALSE

14) Strategies such as avoidance, forcing, and compromise are used to resolve high conflict levels.
- TRUE

15) A manager attempts to resolve a conflict by seeking an advantageous solution for all the parties involved. This
conflict management technique is called accommodating.
- FALSE

16) Work teams interact primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member do his or her job
more efficiently and effectively.
- FALSE
17) A problem-solving team brings together experts in various specialties to work together on various organizational
tasks.
- FALSE

18) A self-managed team is a formal group of employees who operate without a manager and are responsible for a
complete work process or segment.
- TRUE

19) A team that uses technology to link physically dispersed members in order to achieve a common goal is called a -
virtual team.
- TRUE

20) Global teams are associated with high levels of groupthink.

- FALSE

21) In global teams, cohesiveness is often more difficult to achieve because of higher levels of mistrust,
miscommunication, and stress.
- TRUE

22) Social loafing is consistent with collectivist cultures.

- FALSE

23) Which of the following is an example of a formal group?

A) people who assemble in the company library to read
B) a group of employees attending a colleague’s wedding
C) a functional department in an organization
D) a group of employees who meet after work to play basketball

24) Groups that are determined by the organization chart and composed of individuals who report directly to a given
manager are called ________.
A) command groups
B) task groups
C) cross-functional teams
D) self-managed teams

25) Which of the following refers to independent formal groups whose members, in addition to their regular jobs, take
on traditional managerial responsibilities, such as hiring, planning and scheduling, and evaluating performance?
A) command groups
B) task groups
C) self-managed teams
D) cross-functional teams

26) Which of the following stages in group development involves defining the group’s structure and leadership?
A) norming
B) storming
C) performing
D) forming

27) The ________ stage in the group development process is complete when members begin to think of themselves as
part of a group.
A) forming
B) storming
C) norming
D) performing

28) During the ________ stage of the group development process, a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership and
agreement on the group’s direction emerge.
 A) forming
B) storming
C) norming
D) performing

29) The ________ stage of the group development process is one in which close relationships develop and the group
becomes cohesive.
A) norming
B) forming
C) storming
D) performing

30) The ________ stage of group development is complete when the group structure solidifies and the group has
assimilated a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior.
A) storming
B) forming
C) performing
D) norming

31) In which stage of group development does the group focus its attention on wrapping up activities instead of task
performance?
A) storming
B) adjourning
C) forming
D) norming

32) Which of the following is considered to be the last stage of group development for permanent work groups?
A) performing
B) norming
C) storming
D) adjourning

33) Which of the following traits is negatively related to group productivity and morale?
A) unconventionality
B) self-reliance
C) independence
D) sociability

34) Behavior patterns expected of someone occupying a given position in a social unit is called a ________.
A) role
B) status
C) profile
D) persona

35) The acceptable standards or expectations that are shared by a group’s members are referred to as ________.
A) affiliations
B) norms
C) criteria
D) morals

36) Which of the following is a negative aspect of group norms?

A) Being part of a group has the ability to increase an individual’s antisocial actions.
B) The most widespread norms are those related to dress codes.
C) Groups become dysfunctional when they maintain strict norms.
D) Norms do not influence employees performance.
37) Asch’s experiment, which used lines of varying lengths to test group behavior, has shown the existence of
________.
A) status systems
B) workplace conformity
C) social loafing
D) role conflicts

38) Which of the following refers to a prestige grading, position, or rank within a group?
A) role
B) status
C) ownership
D) membership

39) Age, skill, and experience are examples of ________.

A) formal status categories
B) informal status categories
C) reserved status categories
D) external status categories

40) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding status systems?

A) Anything can have status value if others in the group evaluate it that way.
B) Status is a weak employee motivator even though it has behavioral consequences.
C) Status can only be formally conferred on individuals.
D) Status systems are independent of aspects such as prestige and grading.

41) ________ occurs when a supervisor earns less than his or her subordinates.
A) Job enrichment
B) Groupthink
C) Role ambiguity
D) Status incongruence

42) In comparison to large groups, small groups ________.

A) have shorter group tenure
B) are faster at completing tasks
C) have longer norming processes
D) are better at obtaining diverse input

43) Large groups consistently get better results than smaller ones, when the group is involved in ________.
A) groupthink
B) routine tasks
C) problem solving
D) long-term projects

44) Individuals have the tendency to expend less effort when working collectively than when working individually.
Which of the following concepts relates most closely to this behavior?
A) social loafing
B) role conflict
C) role ambiguity
D) groupthink

45) Which of the following suggestions will help reduce the effect of social loafing in groups?
A) clearly identify individual responsibilities
B) provide group rewards instead of individual rewards
C) increase the overall size of the group
D) form homogeneous groups to increase group cohesiveness
46) Which of the following statements is true about group decision making?
A) It generates more complete information and knowledge.
B) It takes lesser time to reach a solution than it would an individual.
C) It prevents any one minority from dominating or influencing the final decision.
D) It is most suitable for matters that need to be critically evaluated.

47) Which of the following is true about group decision making?

A) Groups tend to foster equal participation in decision making.
B) The pressure to conform is low when working in groups.
C) Groups take more time to arrive at a decision.
D) Groups usually make decisions based on incomplete information.

48) Which of the following is true about the effectiveness of individual decision making over group decision making?
A) Individual decisions tend to be more accurate.
B) Individual decisions are better when dealing with complex issues.
C) Individuals tend to be more creative than groups.
D) Individual decisions are made faster than group decisions

49) The ________ view of conflict management argues that conflicts must be avoided as it indicates a problem within
the group.
A) human relations
B) traditional
C) interactionist
D) functional

50) The ________ of conflict management argues that some conflict is absolutely necessary for effective organizational
performance.
A) traditional view
B) conservative view
C) human relations view
D) interactionist view

51) The type of conflicts that support group goals and improve performance are called ________.
A) planned conflicts
B) strategic conflicts
C) natural conflicts
D) functional conflicts

52) ________ conflict relates to the content and goals of the work.
A) Task
B) Process
C) Relationship
D) Network

53) Which of the following types of conflict is based on how the work gets done?
A) process conflict
B) relationship conflict
C) task conflict
D) role conflict

54) Which of the following types of conflict is most likely to be dysfunctional?

A) task conflict
B) relationship conflict
C) process conflict
D) procedural conflict
55) A low-to-moderate level of task conflict consistently has a positive effect on group performance. What is the
reason for this?
A) It stimulates discussion of ideas that help groups be more innovative.
B) It helps the organization identify employee skills gaps.
C) It helps groups to alter the nature of the work according to the individual needs of team members.
D) It helps groups members identify their individual strengths and weaknesses.

56) In which of the following conflict resolution techniques are conflicts resolved by seeking an advantageous solution
for all the parties involved?
A) collaborating
B) compromising
C) forcing
D) accommodating

57) Conflicts can be resolved by withdrawing from them or suppressing them. This conflict management technique is
known as ________.
A) compromising
B) forcing
C) accommodating
D) avoiding

58) Research evidence suggests that teams typically outperform individuals when ________.
A) one or more members are allowed to dominate the other team members
B) projects are short-term and need quick solutions
C) tasks require multiple skills, judgment, and experience
D) tasks are simple and do not involve critical thinking

59) ________ interact primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member do his or her job
more efficiently and effectively.
A) Informal groups
B) Work groups
C) Work teams
D) Self-managed teams

60) A work group ________.

A) encourages open-ended discussions and active problem-solving meetings
B) works intensely on a specific goal using their positive synergy
C) measures performance directly by assessing collective work outputs
D) has no need or opportunity to engage in collective work that requires joint effort

61) Identify the key difference between work teams and work groups.
A) Leadership is shared in work teams whereas it rests on a particular individual in work groups.
B) Work groups have their own specific purpose, while the purpose of a work team is the same as that of the
organizations.
C) In a work group, performance is measured directly, while in a work team it is measured indirectly.
D) In a work team, work is decided upon by the group leader, whereas in the work group it is decided upon by
group members.
62) A work team ________.
A) focuses on efficiency rather than collaboration
B) has shared leadership roles
C) measures performance based on its influence on others
D) cannot be quickly refocused or disbanded

63) ________ are teams from the same department or functional area involved in efforts to improve work activities,
though they are rarely given the authority to implement any of their suggested actions.
A) Self-managed teams
B) Problem-solving teams
C) Virtual teams
D) Cross-functional teams

64) An organization brings together members from various departments such as marketing, accounting, human
resources, and finance to form a team. This is an example of a ________ team.
A) cross-functional
B) temporary
C) specific
D) functional

65) Leadership is very important to effective teams. In most cases, effective team leaders act as ________.
A) autocrats
B) regulators
C) controllers
D) facilitators

66) An incentive system which appropriately recognizes team activities is an example of which of the following
characteristics of effective teams?
A) internal support
B) unified commitment
C) negotiating skills
D) job design

67) Research on conformity suggests that ________.

A) conformity is a culture-bound behavior
B) conformity tends to be higher in individualistic cultures
C) conformity is a major problem in global teams
D) conformity is higher in larger organizations

68) Which of the following is a drawback of global teams?

A) They generate only a small pool of ideas when faced with problems.
B) They do not foster the appreciation of multiple perspectives.
C) They are characterized by greater potential for stereotyping.
D) They are highly susceptible to groupthink.

69) Which of the following is a benefit of global teams?

A) Communication problems are less likely in global teams.
B) Global teams usually have a greater diversity of ideas.
C) There is a greater trust among team members.
D) Stress and tension are uncommon in global teams.

70) Which of the following countries is most likely to assign status based on accomplishments rather than on titles and
family history?
A) China
B) Australia
C) Brazil
D) India
71) Which of the following is true about social loafing?
A) It is a common phenomenon in collectivist cultures.
B) It is common in cultures that are dominated by self-interest.
C) It is viewed as a positive characteristic in some cultures.
D) It rarely occurs in Western cultures.

72) A social network structure refers to ________.

A) the informal connections among individuals within groups
B) the formal norms and rules of a group that members must abide by
C) the extent of diversity in a formal group
D) the varying skills and knowledge that the members of a group posses

A New Group (Scenario)

David had been away from his old company, Control Tech, for a while. He remembered that when he worked there 10
years ago, the company was very traditional and conservative. The lines of authority and responsibility were
established and clear. It now felt ironic that he was managing the consulting team that was going to help the
organization become more group-oriented. In addition to the traditional hierarchy, with a manager and
subordinates, he saw a need to introduce teams comprised of individuals from various work areas to help solve
operational problems. He also felt that, for certain projects, there could be groups that function essentially
independently, even taking on traditional management responsibilities such as hiring, planning, and scheduling.
Plus, he also saw real potential for special, temporary projects to be handled by groups that would disband once
the task was completed.

73) A group of permanent employees who work towards providing solutions to clients on a regular basis reports
directly to David. This group can be called a ________.
A) self-managed team
B) task group
C) command group
D) cross-functional team

74) The temporary groups David talked about, created to achieve a special task and then disband, are known as
________.
A) self-managed teams
B) task groups
C) command groups
D) cross-functional teams

75) For a new project, David forms a team comprising of individuals from various functional departments. After a few
days David observes conflicts within the group over who will control the group and what the group needs to be
doing. This team is now in the ________ stage of group development.
A) storming
B) forming
C) performing
D) norming

King Midas (Scenario)

King Midas Manufacturing Co. has been utilizing groups to improve their manufacturing process. Some of the most
successful groups were together for only a few months and others have been together for over a year with little to
no success. Management has requested your consulting expertise to determine why there were varied successes
and failures. Your analysis of the system indicates that the reason for the varied results could simply be the
development stage of the group.

76) Group A has been meeting for one month and is seen as having some difficulty in appointing its leader. At least
three individuals are qualified to keep the group’s focus on its objectives, but the group is yet to decide which
person will lead. Group A is at the ________ stage.
 A) forming
B) performing
C) storming
D) norming

77) Group B has been meeting for 4 months and is seen as having close relationships between its members,
considerable cohesiveness, and a clear focus on its objectives. Group B is at the ________ stage.
A) storming
B) norming
C) adjourning
D) forming

78) Group C has been meeting for 2 months and seems to be progressing extremely well. You observe that the group
meets every morning and spends the first 5 minutes chatting. They then move to the meeting area and review the
decisions of the last meeting followed by a discussion on the status of their current tasks. Group C is currently at
the ________ stage.
A) norming
B) performing
C) storming
D) adjourning

79) Group D has been working on developing a product for 2 years which is now ready to hit the market. The group
members are happy about the work they’ve done on this product. The focus has now shifted from productivity to
tying up lose ends. Group D is at the ________ stage.
A) forming
B) performing
C) norming
D) adjourning

The New Professor (Scenario)

Dan Powell received his Ph.D. and has begun teaching at a large university. Prior to his first day of class, Dan’s
department head met with him and explained what was expected of a new professor in terms of maintaining
discipline in his classroom and providing students with a challenging course. Later that week, Dan met with other
professors in a faculty meeting. During that meeting, a number of issues were discussed. Although Dan did not
agree with all of them, he did not feel comfortable voicing his opinion because he was less experienced than the
other professors. Many of the senior professors were also reluctant to discuss issues.

80) When Dan’s department head explained what was expected of him as a new professor, he was referring to Dan’s
________ at the university.
A) role
B) status
C) obligations
D) reputation

81) The reluctance of Dan’s senior professors to voice their opposition to several issues in order to maintain group
harmony is an example of ________.
A) social loafing
B) role conflict
C) role ambiguity
D) groupthink

82) Midway through his first semester, one of the teams in Dan’s class came to him with a problem. Of the four team
members, all of them were doing their jobs except Stacey. The group had agreed to have Stacey as a member since
they all knew she had a high GPA and worked hard on all of her individual assignments. However, as a team
member the group agreed that they were not getting Stacey’s best efforts. Which of the following is a possible
explanation for Stacey’s behavior?
A) social loafing
 B) groupthink
C) role conflict
D) status differentiation

Conflicting Opinions (Scenario)

The two vice presidents of a company, Merle and Celine, were in a heated debate. Celine feels that the traditional
form of marketing their company is using isn’t working anymore and that loyal customers would stay regardless.
She feels the company should alter its marketing strategy. Merle disagrees vehemently. He feels the company may
lose its loyal customers if it adopts aggressive marketing tactics.

The battle between vice presidents is causing a stir in the organization. Some felt conflicts like this hurt the company
and weaken the trust of employees and stockholders. Others felt that this conflict over marketing strategies was
bound to occur eventually and may even help the company. They think it helps the company make better
decisions. Some even encouraged the conflict as it could lead to better functioning of the company.

83) Those in the company who view the conflict over the marketing strategy as bad and harmful have a(n) ________
view of conflict.
A) human relations
B) relational
C) traditional
D) interactionist

84) Those in the company who view the conflict over the marketing strategy as natural and inevitable have a(n)
________ view of conflict.
A) human relations
B) conservative
C) strategic
D) interactionist

85) Those in the company who encourage the conflict over the marketing strategy have a(n) ________ view of conflict.
A) human relations
B) conservative
C) strategic
D) interactionist

Strato Engineering (Scenario)

Strato Engineering, a technology product company, formed a team (Team 1) to develop the next generation of the
company’s model CVF-D. The team is composed of the product development manager, chief engineer, director of
procurement, human resource director, marketing research director, cost analysis director, operations director,
and the four highest-dollar project vendors. The preliminary projection for the lifetime of the team is expected to
be 2 years due to the level of technology involved in the product. Another team (Team 2) has also been
established recently to solve a new problem with an industrial adhesive used by the firm. There are three
members in this team: installer, engineer, and sales representative for the adhesive manufacturer, but the team
does not have a specific leader. It is anticipated that it will require about 2 weeks to solve the problem. A third
team (Team 3) has been working together for 4 years, implementing modifications to the company’s current
model CVF-C. None of the members of this team are at the same location. They utilize a variety of graphic-
electronic technologies to view the product onscreen in three-dimension at each location simultaneously.

86) Team 2, which is working on the adhesive problem, can be called a ________ team.
A) divisional
B) self-managed
C) virtual
D) functional
87) Team 1, which is working on the model CVF-D, is a ________ team.
A) problem-solving
B) self-managed
C) virtual
D) cross-functional

88) Which of the following is the best way of describing Team 3?

A) problem-solving
B) self-managed
C) virtual
D) cross-functional

89) Define formal groups. List and describe four examples of formal groups.

Formal groups are work groups established by the organization that have designated work assignments and specific
tasks. In formal groups, appropriate behaviors are established by and directed toward organizational goals.
Examples of formal groups include:
a. Command groups—these are the basic, traditional work groups determined by formal authority relationships
and depicted on the organizational chart. They typically include a manager and those subordinates who report
directly to him or her.
b. Cross-functional teams—these bring together the knowledge and skills of individuals from various work areas in
order to come up with solutions to operational problems. Cross-functional teams also include groups whose
members have been trained to do each other’s jobs.
c. Self-managed teams—these are essentially independent groups that, in addition to doing their operating jobs,
take on traditional management responsibilities such as hiring, planning and scheduling, and performance
evaluations.
d. Task groups—these are temporary groups created to accomplish a specific task. Once the task is complete, the
group is disbanded.

90) List and discuss the five stages of group development.

Research shows that groups pass through a standard sequence of five stages. These five stages are forming, storming,
norming, performing, and adjourning.
a. The first stage, forming, has two aspects. First people join the group either because of a work assignment, in the
case of a formal group, or for some other benefit desired (such as status, self-esteem, affiliation, power, or
security), in the case of an informal group. Once the group’s membership is in place, the second part of the
forming stage begins: the task of defining the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership. This phase is
characterized by a great deal of uncertainty. Members are “testing the waters” to determine what types of
behavior are acceptable. This stage is complete when members begin to think of themselves as part of a group.
b. The storming stage is one of intragroup conflict. There is conflict over who will control the group. When this
stage is complete, there will be a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group and agreement on the
group’s direction.
c. The third stage is one in which close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. There’s
now a strong sense of group identity and camaraderie. This norming stage is complete when the group structure
solidifies and the group has assimilated a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior.
d. The fourth stage is performing. The group structure at this point is fully functional and accepted. Group energy
has moved from getting to know and understand each other to performing the task at hand. Performing is the last
stage in the development of permanent work groups. Temporary groups—such as committees, task forces, and
similar groups—that have a limited task to perform have a fifth stage, adjourning.
e. In the adjourning stage, the group prepares to disband. High levels of task performance are no longer the
group’s top priority. Instead, attention is directed at wrapping up activities. Responses of group members vary at
this stage. Some are upbeat, basking in the group’s accomplishments. Others may be saddened by the loss of
camaraderie and friendships gained during the work group’s life.

91) Describe various aspects of group structure.

a. Roles—a role refers to behavior patterns expected of someone occupying a given position in a social unit. In a
 group, individuals are expected to do certain things because of their position (role) in the group. These roles tend
to be oriented toward either task accomplishment or toward maintaining group member satisfaction.
b. Norms—all groups have norms—standards or expectations that are accepted and shared by a group’s members.
Norms dictate factors such as work output levels, absenteeism, promptness, and the amount of socializing allowed
on the job. Although a group has its own unique set of norms, common organizational norms focus on effort and
performance, dress, and loyalty.
c. Conformity—because individuals want to be accepted by groups to which they belong, they’re susceptible to
conformity pressures. As group members, we often want to be considered one of the group and to avoid being
visibly different. We find it more pleasant to be in agreement than to be disruptive, even if disruption may be
necessary to improve the effectiveness of the group’s decisions. So we conform. But conformity can go too far,
especially when an individual’s opinion of objective data differs significantly from that of others in the group.
When this happens, the group often exerts extensive pressure on the individual to align his or her opinion to
conform to others’ opinions, a phenomenon known as groupthink.
d. Status systems—status is a prestige grading, position, or rank within a group. As far back as researchers have
been able to trace groups, they have found status hierarchies. Status systems are an important factor in
understanding behavior. It’s a significant motivator and has behavioral consequences when individuals see a
disparity between what they perceive their status to be and what others perceive it to be.
e. Group size—large groups—those with a dozen or more members—are good for getting diverse input. Thus, if
the goal of the group is to find facts, a larger group should be more effective. On the other hand, smaller groups
are better at doing something productive with those facts. Groups of approximately seven members tend to be
more effective for taking action. One important finding related to group size is social loafing, which is the tendency
for an individual to expend less effort when working collectively than when working individually.
f. Group cohesiveness—group cohesiveness is the degree to which members are attracted to a group and share
the group’s goals. Cohesiveness is important because it has been found to be related to a group’s productivity.
g. Group processes—Group processes concern the processes that go on within a work group such as
communication, decision making, conflict management, and the like. These processes are important in
understanding work groups because they influence group performance and satisfaction positively or negatively.

92) Robert is the CEO of a manufacturing plant. He believes that smaller teams are more effective than bigger ones. Do
you think this is the right strategy? Why or why not?
Group size affects performance and satisfaction, but the effect depends on what the group is supposed to
accomplish. Smaller teams would be effective for regular tasks that require control. Research indicates that small
groups are faster at completing tasks than are larger ones. However, for groups engaged in problem solving, large
groups consistently get better results than smaller ones. Larger teams are preferred if the team needs diverse
output. Smaller teams are preferred otherwise.

93) Identify the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making.

Advantages
a. Generate more complete information and knowledge: A group brings a diversity of experience and perspectives
to the decision process that an individual cannot.
b. More diverse alternatives: Because groups have a greater amount and diversity of information, they can identify
more diverse alternatives than an individual.
c. Increased acceptance of a solution: Group members are reluctant to fight or undermine a decision they have
helped develop.
d. Increased legitimacy: Decisions made by groups may be perceived as being more legitimate than decisions made
unilaterally by one person.

Disadvantages
a.Time consuming: Groups almost always take more time to reach a solution than it would take an individual.
b. Minority domination: The inequality of group members creates the opportunity for one or more members to
dominate others. A dominant and vocal minority frequently can have an excessive influence on the final decision.
c. Pressures to conform: Groupthink undermines critical thinking in the group and eventually harms the quality of
the final decision.
d. Ambiguous responsibility: Group members share responsibility, but the responsibility of any single member is
diluted.

94) An organization must eliminate conflicts to be successful. Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer..
Not all conflicts are bad. Some conflicts, functional conflicts, are constructive and support the goals of the work
 group and improve its performance. Other conflicts, dysfunctional conflicts, are destructive and prevent a group
from achieving its goals. Hence, an ideal strategy for a manager would be to eliminate dysfunctional conflicts and
to promote functional conflicts.

95) What is the main difference between work groups and work teams?
Work groups primarily interact to share information and to make decisions to help each member do his/her job
more efficiently and effectively. These groups have no need or opportunity to engage in collective work that
requires joint effort. On the other hand, work teams are groups whose members work intensely on a specific,
common goal using their positive synergy, individual and mutual accountability, and complementary skills. In a
work team, the combined individual efforts of team members result in a level of performance that is greater than
the sum of those individual inputs.

96) List and describe the four most common types of teams likely to be found in today’s organizations.
a. Problem-solving teams—these teams are teams from the same department or functional area who are involved
in efforts to improve work activities or to solve specific problems. In problem-solving teams, members share ideas
or offer suggestions on how work processes and methods can be improved. However, these teams are rarely given
the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggested actions.
b. Self-managed teams—these teams are formal groups of employees who operate without a manager and are
responsible for a complete work process or segment. The self-managed team is responsible for getting the work
done and for managing themselves. This usually includes planning and scheduling of work, assigning tasks to
members, collective control over the pace of work, making operating decisions, and taking action on problems.
c. Cross-functional teams—these teams are a hybrid grouping of individuals who are experts in various specialties
and who work together on various tasks.
d. Virtual teams—these are teams that use computer technology to link physically dispersed members in order to
achieve a common goal. In a virtual team, members collaborate using communication links such as wide area
networks, videoconferencing, fax, e-mail, or even Web sites where the team can hold online conferences. Virtual
teams can do all the things that other teams can–share information, make decisions, and complete tasks; however,
they miss the normal give-and-take of face-to-face discussions. Because of this omission, virtual teams tend to be
more task oriented especially if the team members have never personally met.

97) Discuss the major issues associated with group structure in global teams.
Some of the structural areas where we see differences in managing global teams include conformity, status, social
loafing, and cohesiveness. Research suggests that Asch’s findings are culture-bound. Despite this, however,
groupthink tends to be less of a problem in global teams because members are less likely to feel pressured to
conform to the ideas, conclusions, and decisions of the group. The importance of status varies between cultures.
Managers should be sure to understand who and what holds status when interacting with people from a culture
different from their own. Social loafing has a Western bias and is consistent with individualistic cultures, which are
dominated by self-interest. It’s not consistent with collectivistic societies, in which individuals are motivated by in-
group goals. Cohesiveness is another group structural element where managers may face special challenges. In
global teams, cohesiveness is often more difficult to achieve because of higher levels of mistrust,
miscommunication, and stress.
 Глава 9 – Understanding Individual Behavior

1) Organizational behavior is concerned only with group interactions.

- FALSE

2) Organizational citizenship behavior is discretionary behavior that is not part of an employee’s formal job
requirements.
- TRUE

3) The cognitive component of an attitude refers to the beliefs, opinions, knowledge, or information held by a person.
- TRUE

4) Research indicates that satisfied employees have lower levels of turnover while dissatisfied employees have higher
levels of turnover.
- TRUE

5) Employees with a high level of job involvement strongly identify with and really care about the kind of work they do.
- TRUE

6) Perceived organizational support is the degree to which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its
goals.
- FALSE

7) Low levels of perceived organizational support lead to lower turnover.

- FALSE

8) Cognitive dissonance is any incompatibility or inconsistency between attitudes or between behavior and attitudes.
- TRUE

9) There is enough evidence to support the validity of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator as a measure of personality.
- FALSE

10) Extraversion is the degree to which someone is sociable, talkative, assertive, and comfortable in relationships with
others.
- TRUE

11) In the Big Five Model, emotional security was found to be positively related to job performance.
- FALSE

12) A person who rates as being high in Machiavellianism would accomplish a task regardless of what it takes.
- TRUE

13) Individuals with low self-esteem are more susceptible to external influence than are people with high self-esteem.
- TRUE

14) High self-monitors can’t adjust their behavior and there’s high behavioral consistency between who they are and
what they do.
- FALSE

15) Consensus refers to whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations.
- FALSE

16) When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we tend to underestimate the influence of external
factors and to overestimate the influence of internal factors. This tendency is called the self-serving bias.
- FALSE
17) If a manager thinks that all attractive employees are also productive employees, the manager is committing an
error based on a halo effect.
- TRUE

18) Operant behavior is reflexive or unlearned behavior.

- FALSE

19) The influence that models have on an individual is partially determined by attentional processes.
- TRUE

20) Both positive and negative reinforcement result in learning.

- TRUE

21) Individual behavior in organizations includes ________.

A) strategies, norms, and roles
B) attitudes, learning, and motivation
C) structure, culture, and team building
D) policies and procedures

22) Which of the following is associated with the study of individuals?

A) norms
B) roles
C) team building
D) perception

23) The study of group behavior includes the study of ________.

A) perception, motivation, and learning
B) attitudes and personality
C) norms, roles, and leadership

24) ________ is a performance measure of both the efficiency and effectiveness of employees.
A) Employee productivity
B) Organizational citizenship behavior
C) Job satisfaction
D) Turnover

25) ________ is defined as the failure to report to work.

A) Turnover
B) Tardiness
C) Absenteeism
D) Negligence

26) Which of the following is true for organizational citizenship behavior (OCB)?
A) OCB is a performance measure of efficiency.
B) The requirements of OCB are spelt out in employee job profiles.
C) OCB studies the behavior leading to permanent withdrawal from an organization.
D) OCB is discretionary behavior which promotes the effective functioning of the organization.

27) The three components that make up an attitude are ________ components.
A) cognitive, affective, and behavioral
B) active, behavioral, and adjustable
C) emotional, creative, and environmental
D) intentional, reactive, and adjustable
28) The component of attitude that includes beliefs and opinions is the ________ component.
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) affective
D) practical

29) Which component of attitude is reflected in the sentence, “This is the best way to reach the place.”?
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) emotive
D) affective

30) The ________ component of attitude is based on emotions.

A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) affective
D) practical

31) In the statement, “The highway is very busy at 5 p.m., and is scary to drive on, so I’ll wait until 7 p.m. to go home,”
the word “scary” represents which component of an attitude?
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) practical
D) affective

32) When someone chooses to act in a certain way, she is demonstrating the ________ component of her attitude.
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) affective
D) practices

33) In the statement, “The highway is very busy at 5 p.m. and is scary to drive on, so I’ll wait until 7 p.m. to go home,”
the phrase, “so I’ll wait until 7 p.m. to go home,” represents which component of an attitude?
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) emotive
D) affective

34) Which of the following is true for satisfied employees with high organizational commitment?
A) lower rates of turnover and absenteeism
B) higher rates of voluntary turnover
C) higher rates of cognitive dissonance
D) significantly higher pay levels

35) The degree to which an employee identifies with his or her job or actively participates in it refers to the employee’s
________.
A) job involvement
B) organizational commitment
C) global commitment
D) job satisfaction

36) The degree to which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain
membership in the organization is the employee’s ________.
A) job involvement
B) organizational commitment
C) global commitment
D) organizational citizenship
37) ________ is employees general belief that their organization values their contribution and cares about their well-
being.
A) Job involvement
B) Organizational commitment
C) Perceived organizational support
D) Cognitive dissonance

38) The cognitive dissonance theory proposes that the intensity of the desire to reduce dissonance is determined by
________.
A) importance, influence, and rewards
B) economics, politics, and organizational structure
C) stability, position, and power
D) awareness, status, and punishments

39) The regular use of ________ can alert managers to potential problems and employees intentions early enough to
do something about them.
A) dissonance reduction
B) performance incentives
C) employee benefit plans
D) attitude surveys

40) In the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), “sensing” personality types are those who ________.
A) like solving new problems and dislike doing the same thing over and over again
B) use reason and logic to handle problems
C) have a high need for closure and show patience with routine details
D) are outgoing, social, and assertive

41) As a manager, if you prefer to have a harmonious work environment and dislike reprimanding your subordinates,
you would probably score high on the ________ aspect of the MBTI®.
A) perception
B) thinking
C) intuition
D) feeling

42) Which of the following is true according to the MBTI®?

A) Introverted types are practical and prefer routine and order.
B) Feeling types use reason and logic to handle problems.
C) Perceiving types are rigid and structured.
D) Judging types want control and prefer their world to be ordered.

43) If your boss could be described as flexible, adaptable, and tolerant, he or she would probably score high on which
of the following aspects of the MBTI®?
A) extraversion
B) sensing
C) feeling
D) perceiving

44) If you are a good planner and purposeful, you would probably score high on the ________ trait of MBTI®.
A) extraversion
B) perceiving
C) introversion
D) judging

45) The Big Five Model of personality includes ________.

A) intuition
B) judgement
C) perception
D) extraversion
46) In the Big Five Model of personality, ________ refers to the degree to which someone is good-natured,
cooperative, and trusting.
A) extraversion
B) agreeableness
C) conscientiousness
D) emotional stability

47) In the Big Five Model of personality, conscientiousness refers to ________.

A) the degree to which someone is calm, enthusiastic, and secure (positive) or tense, nervous, depressed, and
insecure (negative)
B) the degree to which someone is sociable, talkative, assertive, and comfortable in relationships with others
C) the degree to which someone is reliable, responsible, dependable, persistent, and achievement oriented
D) the degree of influence the individual believes he or she has over certain factors

48) According to the Big Five Model of personality, a person who has a wide range of interests and is imaginative,
fascinated with novelty, artistically sensitive, and intellectual is described as ________.
A) conscientious
B) extraverted
C) emotionally stable
D) open to experience

49) If you believe that you control your own destiny, which of the following personality traits are you likely to possess?
A) external locus of control
B) risk aversion
C) high self-esteem
D) internal locus of control

50) A person who believes that what happens to him is due to luck or chance is said to have a(n) ________.
A) internal locus of control
B) Machiavellian personality
C) external locus of control
D) self-monitoring personality

51) According to research, employees who have a high internal locus of control ________.
A) exhibit more satisfaction with their jobs than externals
B) are more alienated from their work setting than externals
C) are less involved in their jobs as compared to externals
D) blame their bosses for poor performance more often than externals

52) Anna has recently been promoted to the managerial ranks which has increased her interaction with the senior
managers at her company. She realizes that Peter, her assistant manager, exhibits a distinct lack of emotional
involvement with his colleagues and subordinates. His entire focus is on achieving the goals he sets, no matter
what the course he has to take to get there. These traits lead Anna to conclude that Peter ________.
A) is high on Machiavellianism
B) has low self-esteem
C) is high on self-monitoring
D) has high cognitive dissonance

53) An individual who is high in ________ is pragmatic, maintains emotional distance, and believes that ends can
justify means.
A) self-esteem
B) Machiavellianism
C) self-monitoring
D) risk taking
54) Which of the following is true of a person who believes that “the ends justify the means”?
A) He is likely to be low on self-confidence.
B) He is likely to be high in Machiavellianism.
C) He is likely to have an external locus of control.
D) He is likely to be risk averse.

55) Though clearly capable, Mary does not seem very confident of herself. She is always unsure of whether she can
handle assignments that are difficult and as a result ends up choosing jobs that are fairly straight forward and
involve routine work. She is also susceptible to evaluations from other people. Mary seems to have ________.
A) high cognitive dissonance
B) a high Machiavellianism score
C) low self-monitoring
D) low self-esteem

56) If you like yourself, then your personality would be described as having ________.
A) an internal locus of control
B) a low Machiavellianism score
C) high self-esteem
D) an external locus of control

57) People with high self-esteem ________.

A) are more prone to conform to the beliefs of those they respect
B) are more likely to seek approval from others
C) are more likely to take unpopular stands
D) are more susceptible to external influence

58) Sarah, the floor supervisor, seems to be a different person depending on whom she is with and what the situation
demands. She has the ability to adjust her behavior as and when required. This indicates that she ________.
A) has low self-esteem
B) is low on Machiavellianism
C) has a high risk appetite
D) is high in self-monitoring

59) ________ is a personality trait that measures an individual’s ability to adjust his or her behavior according to
external situational factors.
A) Machiavellianism
B) Self-esteem
C) Self-monitoring
D) Locus of control

60) A person who can adapt and adjust behavior to external factors has ________.
A) low self-esteem
B) an internal locus of control
C) high self-monitoring
D) high risk-taking ability

61) Kevin is a whirlwind as a research and development supervisor. His colleagues are surprised that even though he
makes decisions very quickly and always with less information than others, his decisions are as good as anybody
else’s. This information implies that Kevin has ________.
A) an external locus of control
B) low Machiavellianism
C) high risk-taking ability
D) low cognitive dissonance
62) A manager makes decisions very quickly and requires little information for making the decisions. Which of the
following is a likely reason for this?
A) The manager has low self-esteem.
B) The manager has an external locus of control.
C) The manager is high in emotional stability.
D) The manager is high in risk-taking.

63) People who identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs are
said to have ________ personalities.
A) proactive
B) self-aware
C) resilient
D) agreeable

64) Emotional intelligence has been shown to be ________.

A) negatively related to job performance at all levels
B) negatively related to job performance in middle management only
C) positively related to job performance only in government agencies
D) positively related to job performance at all levels

65) The ability to sense how others are feeling is known as ________.
A) emotional stability
B) empathy
C) resilience
D) self-awareness

66) Holland’s theory proposes that satisfaction is highest and turnover lowest when ________.
A) the locus of control is external
B) an employee is social and realistic
C) personality and occupation are compatible
D) an employee can adjust behavior to external factors

67) What is a key point of Holland’s theory?

A) There are no intrinsic differences in personality among individuals.
B) All jobs are relatively the same, it is personality types that differ.
C) People in job environments compatible with their personality types should be more satisfied.
D) Employee turnover is highest when personality and occupation are compatible.

68) A test that Jake took at a career counseling session indicated that he preferred coordinated physical activity. He
also turned out to be stable and conforming to expected standards. Which of the following occupations is likely to
be a good match for Jake?
A) counselor
B) farmer
C) biologist
D) economist

69) When Darrin went to a career counselor, Joanna, he took a test that would allow the counselor to gain an insight
into his personality. After speaking to Darrin and analyzing his answers in the test, Joanna realized that he is
curious by nature. He preferred activities that involved understanding and organizing, and that he is basically
analytical. Which of the following occupations is a potentially good match for him?
A) painter
B) farmer
C) social worker
D) news reporter
70) Bridget prefers rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities. She doesn’t have a lot of imagination but could
be described as conforming and efficient. Which of the following describes Bridget’s personality?
A) social
B) artistic?
C) enterprising
D) conventional

71) Andrew is social, friendly, and understanding, and prefers activities that involve helping and developing others.
Which of the following occupations is a potentially good match for him?
A) accountant
B) teacher
C) artist
D) news reporter

72) ________ is the process of organizing and interpreting sensory impressions to give meaning to the environment.
A) Attribution
B) Selection
C) Learning
D) Perception

73) ________ theory explains how we judge people differently depending on what meaning we ascribe to a given
behavior.
A) Perception
B) Behavior
C) Attribution
D) Social contrast

74) If everyone who’s faced with a similar situation responds in the same way, we can say the behavior shows
________.
A) reliability
B) distinctiveness
C) consensus
D) internal attribution

75) Underestimating the influence of external factors and overestimating the influence of internal factors when
making judgments about others is known as the ________.
A) fundamental attribution error
B) self-serving bias
C) assumption of similarity
D) halo effect

76) ________ is the tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors such as ability or effort
while putting the blame for personal failure on external factors such as luck.
A) Assumed similarity
B) Stereotyping
C) Fundamental attribution error
D) Self-serving bias

77) In ________, the observer’s perception of others is influenced more by the observer’s own characteristics than by
those of the person observed.
A) stereotyping
B) self-serving bias
C) assumed similarity
D) the halo effect
78) When people judge someone on the basis of the perception of a group they are a part of, they are using the
shortcut called ________.
A) stereotyping
B) self-serving bias
C) assumed similarity
D) the halo effect

79) By using ________, we form a general impression about a person based on only a single characteristic, such as
intelligence or appearance.
A) stereotyping
B) selectivity
C) the halo effect
D) assumed similarity

80) ________ behavior is voluntary or learned behavior.

A) Reflexive
B) Dissonant
C) Operant
D) Reactive

81) The influence of models depends on how well an individual remembers the model’s behavior. This refers to the
individual’s ________.
A) retention process
B) motor reproduction process
C) attentional process
D) reinforcement process

82) After watching a behavior in a social learning situation, a person can learn by performing the behavior. This is
known as learning by ________.
A) retention
B) motor reproduction
C) attention
D) reinforcement

83) When a manager molds an individual’s behavior by guiding his or her learning in graduated steps, he is using
________.
A) retention processes
B) motor reproduction processes
C) attentional processes
D) shaping processes

84) If an employee does not exhibit a desired behavior, a manager might use ________.
A) negative reinforcement to increase the recurrence of the behavior
B) shaping to guide the employee to learn the desired behavior
C) positive reinforcement by reducing the threat of a punishment
D) reflexive behavior to encourage positive results

85) Eliminating any reinforcement that’s maintaining an undesirable behavior is called ________.
A) penalizing
B) extinction
C) punishment
D) extraction

86) Which of the following is true for Gen Y workers?

A) They are accepting of the prevailing order and style of working and easily fit into it.
B) They have a deep-seated need for boundaries and structure and dislike multitasking.
C) They are dedicated workers and follow office rules and dress codes strictly.
D) They are knowledgeable and willing workers, but do not compromise on their personal lives.
87) Which of the following managerial styles will Gen Y workers approve of and respond to?
A) authoritarian
B) paternal
C) flexible
D) dictatorial

The Unhappy Employee (Scenario)

Mary is not happy with her current job. She dislikes having to convince prospective customers to buy products that
she believes are inferior to others in the market. In her opinion, the lower quality products are overpriced.
However, she has sales targets for all products, superior or otherwise, that she must meet in order to receive her
commission.

88) Although Mary tries to meet the target sales for all products, she is torn between her beliefs and the actions she
must take. This inconsistency or incompatibility is known as ________.
A) negative feedback
B) difficult objectives
C) cognitive dissonance
D) management by objectives

Doug has recently been promoted and is now the manager of a team of researchers. All of his subordinates are well
educated and have been with the company for a minimum of three years. In an attempt to learn more about the
employees and to better assign them to jobs that they will enjoy, he has administered the Myers-Briggs Type
Indicator (MBTI)®.

89) Doug noted that Sandy is very good at precise work. He does not tire of repetitive work as easily as some of the
others. However, when faced with a new problem that requires an innovative solution, his performance is not
satisfactory. Sandy’s personality is likely to be classified as a(n) ________ type.
A) sensing
B) feeling
C) introvert
D) intuitive

90) Doug realizes that Alan’s temperament is not well-suited to being a researcher. He tends to dislike doing the same
thing twice and has no patience to sort out information step-by-step. As a result, he often jumps to conclusions.
Alan is most likely a(n) ________ type of personality.
A) sensing
B) feeling
C) introversion
D) intuition

91) George, one of Doug’s researchers, gets along well with most people in the team. He is good at his job but needs to
be reassured once in a while. Another trait Doug notices is that George is always trying to keep everyone happy.
George can be described as a(n) ________ personality.
A) sensing
B) feeling
C) introverted
D) intuitive

92) Doug himself is purposeful and an excellent planner. One thing that his team admires him for is his ability to sift
through a whole lot of information to extract precisely what is needed for a job at hand. He is also a quick decision
maker. Which of the following personality types does Doug fit into?
A) sensing
B) perceptive
C) extraverted
D) judging
93) James is a very hardworking person and has just been promoted to the managerial ranks. His managerial style is to
be flexible and understanding and not boss over his employees too much. He believes that people who are
hardworking will always make sure that the work gets done on time. Even when he is out of office, he supposes
that his subordinates are working diligently because he works diligently most of the time. James’s perceptions of
his employees are based on ________.
A) stereotyping
B) selectivity
C) halo effect
D) assumed similarity

94) Bill, a manager at a consulting firm, has been keenly analyzing the performance of a new recruit who turns out to
be extremely intelligent. He concludes that she will be a good manager in the future even though her interpersonal
skills are not half as impressive. This conclusion on Bill’s part seems to be the result of ________.
A) stereotyping
B) selectivity
C) the halo effect
D) assumed similarity

95) Donna has just moved to the city from a small town and gets a job as an assistant in a law firm. Not being very
familiar with the way things work in the corporate world, she watches her colleagues closely and tries to learn
from their mistakes and achievements. This can be described as ________.
A) stereotyping
B) selectivity
C) reflexive learning
D) social learning

96) What is organizational behavior? How can the study of organizational behavior help managers?
Organizational behavior is a field of study that is concerned specifically with the actions of people at work. It
focuses primarily on two areas, individual behavior and group behavior. Individual behavior includes topics such as
attitudes, personality, perception, learning, and motivation. Group behavior includes norms, roles, team building,
leadership, and conflict. The goals of organizational behavior are to explain, predict, and influence behavior.
Finally, OB also looks at organizational aspects including structure, culture, and human resource policies and
practices. Managers need to be able to explain why employees engage in some behaviors rather than others,
predict how employees will respond to various actions the manager might take, and influence how employees
behave.

97) Define attitudes. List and discuss the three components of attitudes and include an example of a statement that
describes each component to support your answer.
Attitudes are evaluative statements—either favorable or unfavorable—concerning objects, people, or events. They
reflect how an individual feels about something. When a person says, “I like my job,” he or she is expressing an
attitude about work. The three components that make up attitudes are cognition, affect, and behavior. The
cognitive component of an attitude is made up of the beliefs, opinions, knowledge, or information held by a
person. The belief that “discrimination is wrong” illustrates cognition. The affective component of an attitude is
the emotional or feeling part of an attitude. This component would be reflected by the statement, “I don’t like Jon
because he discriminates against minorities.” Finally, affect can lead to behavioral outcomes. The behavioral
component of an attitude refers to an intention to behave in a certain way toward someone or something. For
instance, “I might choose to avoid Jon because of my feelings about him” is an example of the behavioral
component of an attitude.

98) Explain cognitive dissonance theory in brief.

Cognitive dissonance theory sought to explain the relationship between attitudes and behavior. Cognitive
dissonance is any incompatibility or inconsistency between attitudes or between behavior and attitudes. The
theory argued that inconsistency is uncomfortable and that individuals will try to reduce the discomfort and thus,
the dissonance. How people cope with cognitive dissonance depends on several factors. The theory proposed that
how hard we’ll try to reduce dissonance is determined by three things: (1) the importance of the factors creating
the dissonance, (2) the degree of influence the individual believes he or she has over those factors, and (3) the
rewards that may be involved in dissonance.
 If the factors creating the dissonance are relatively unimportant, the pressure to correct the inconsistency will be
low. However, if those factors are important, individuals may change their behavior, conclude that the dissonant
behavior isn’t so important, change their attitude, or identify compatible factors that outweigh the dissonant ones.
How much influence individuals believe they have over the factors also affects their reaction to the dissonance. If
they perceive the dissonance is something about which they have no choice, they won’t be receptive to attitude
change or feel a need to do so. If, for example, the dissonance-producing behavior was required as a result of a
manager’s order, the pressure to reduce dissonance would be less than if the behavior had been performed
voluntarily. Although dissonance exists, it can be rationalized and justified by the need to follow the manager’s
orders—that is, the person had no choice or control.
Finally, rewards also influence the degree to which individuals are motivated to reduce dissonance. Coupling high
dissonance with high rewards tends to reduce the discomfort by motivating the individual to believe that there is
consistency.

99) Describe the Big Five Model. List and discuss the five personality traits that are based on the Big Five Model of
personality.
In recent years, research has shown that the five basic personality dimensions of the Big Five Model underlie all
others and encompass most of the significant variation in human personality. The Big Five provide more than just a
personality framework. Research has shown that important relationships exist between these personality
dimensions and job performance.
a. Extraversion—the degree to which someone is sociable, talkative, and assertive.
b. Agreeableness—the degree to which someone is good-natured, cooperative, and trusting.
c. Conscientiousness—the degree to which someone is responsible, dependable, persistent, and achievement
oriented.
d. Emotional stability—the degree to which someone is calm, enthusiastic, and secure (positive) or tense, nervous,
depressed, and insecure (negative).
e. Openness to experience—the degree to which someone is imaginative, artistically sensitive, and intellectual.

100) In a short essay, list and discuss five personality traits that have proven to be powerful in explaining individual
behavior in organizations.
a. Locus of control. Some people believe that they control their own fate. Others see themselves as pawns,
believing that what happens to them in their lives is due to luck or chance. The locus of control in the first case is
internal; these people believe that they control their own destiny. The locus of control in the second case is
external; these people believe that their lives are controlled by outside forces. Research evidence indicates that
employees who rate high on externality are less satisfied with their jobs, more alienated from the work setting,
and less involved in their jobs than are those who rate high on internality.
b. Machiavellianism. An individual who is high in Machiavellianism is pragmatic, maintains emotional distance, and
believes that ends can justify means. In jobs that require bargaining skills or that have substantial rewards for
winning, high Machs are productive. In jobs in which ends do not justify the means or that lack absolute measures
of performance, it’s difficult to predict the performance of high Machs.
c. Self-esteem. People differ in the degree to which they like or dislike themselves. This trait is called self-esteem
(SE). The research on self-esteem offers some interesting insight into organizational behavior. For example, self-
esteem is directly related to expectations for success. High SEs believe that they possess the ability they need in
order to succeed at work. Individuals with high SEs will take more risks in job selection and are more likely to
choose unconventional jobs than are people with low SE. A number of studies confirm that high SEs are more
satisfied with their jobs than are low SEs.
d. Self-monitoring. This refers to an individual’s ability to adjust his or her behavior to external, situational factors.
Individuals high in self-monitoring show considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior. They’re highly
sensitive to external cues and can behave differently in different situations. High self-monitors are capable of
presenting striking contradictions between their public persona and their private selves. Low self-monitors cannot
adjust their behavior. They tend to display their true dispositions and attitudes in every situation, and there’s high
behavioral consistency between who they are and what they do.
e. Risk taking. People differ in their willingness to take chances. Differences in the propensity to assume or to avoid
risk have been shown to affect how long it takes managers to make a decision and how much information they
require before making their choice. To maximize organizational effectiveness, managers should try to align
employee risk-taking propensity with specific job demands. For instance, high risk-taking propensity may lead to
effective performance for a commodities trader in a brokerage firm because this type of job demands rapid
decision making. On the other hand, high risk-taking propensity might prove a major obstacle to accountants
auditing financial statements.
101) In a short essay, list and discuss three shortcuts frequently used in judging others. Discuss the impact these
shortcuts have on the management of employees.
Perceiving and interpreting people’s behavior is a lot of work, so we use shortcuts to make the task more
manageable. These techniques can be valuable when they let us make accurate interpretations quickly and
provide valid data for making predictions. However, they aren’t perfect.
It’s easy to judge others if we assume that they’re similar to us. In assumed similarity, the observer’s perception of
others is influenced more by the observer’s own characteristics than by those of the person observed.
When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of a group he or she is part of, stereotyping is the shortcut
being used.
When individuals form a general impression about a person on the basis of a single characteristic, such as
intelligence, sociability, or appearance, the halo effect is the influencing factor.
Managers need to recognize that their employees react to perceptions, not to reality. So whether a manager’s
appraisal of an employee is actually objective and unbiased or whether the organization’s wage levels are among
the highest in the community is less relevant than what employees perceive them to be. If individuals perceive
appraisals to be biased or wage levels as low, they will behave as if those conditions actually exist. Employees
organize and interpret what they see, so there is always the potential for perceptual distortion.

102) Define learning and explain the two learning theories that are relevant to understanding how and why individual
behavior occurs.
Learning is any relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as a result of experience. The two learning
theories relevant to understanding how and why individual behavior occurs are operant conditioning and social
learning. Operant conditioning argues that behavior is a function of its consequences. People learn to behave to
get something they want or to avoid something they don’t want. Operant behavior describes voluntary or learned
behavior in contrast to reflexive or unlearned behavior. The tendency to repeat learned behavior is influenced by
the reinforcement or lack of reinforcement that happens as a result of the behavior. Reinforcement, therefore,
strengthens a behavior and increases the likelihood that it will be repeated. The view that we can learn both
through observation and direct experience is called social learning theory. The influence of others is central to the
social learning viewpoint. The amount of influence that these models will have on an individual is determined by
four processes: attentional processes, retention processes, motor reproduction processes, and reinforcement
processes.

103) Richard is the manager of the Sales department in his company. He notices that several of the salespeople
reporting to him are taking it easy. Their focus is to just meet the sales target and take no extra initiative to
improve sales or their individual performances. As a result, the department’s performance is declining. Explain
how Richard can encourage his salespeople to improve their performances using the shaping techniques.
Student answers may vary.
The tendency to repeat learned behavior is influenced by reinforcement or lack of reinforcement that happens as
a result of the behavior. Reinforcement strengthens a behavior and increases the likelihood that it will be
repeated. Lack of reinforcement weakens a behavior and lessens the likelihood that it will be repeated.
When a behavior is followed by something pleasant, it’s called positive reinforcement. Positive reinforcement
increases the likelihood that the desired behavior will be repeated. To positively reinforce good performances,
Richard can offer an incentive for each sale above a certain target.
Rewarding a response by eliminating or withdrawing something unpleasant is negative reinforcement. To
negatively reinforce good performances, Richard can offer to do away with penalties for tardiness. The desired
behavior (better performance) is being encouraged by the withdrawal of something unpleasant (penalties for
tardiness).
Punishment penalizes undesirable behavior and will eliminate it. To use punishment, Richard can penalize all
salespeople who sell below a specified target each month.
Eliminating any reinforcement that’s maintaining a behavior is called extinction. When a behavior isn’t reinforced,
it gradually disappears. He could analyze the situation to find out what encourages the salespeople to perform
poorly and then use extinction to eliminate the cause of the poor performance. However, as Richard is trying to
encourage a positive behavior, he might not be able to use extinction.
Both positive and negative reinforcement result in learning. They strengthen a desired behavior and increase the
probability that the desired behavior will be repeated. Both punishment and extinction also result in learning but
do so by weakening an undesired behavior and decreasing its frequency.
104) Describe the characteristics of Gen Y employees. What challenges do managers face in dealing with Gen Y
employees and how can management address these?
Most definitions include those individuals born from about 1982 to 1997 in Gen Y. Gen Ys have grown up with an
amazing array of experiences and opportunities. And they want their work life to provide that as well. Gen Y is
independent and tech-savvy. Gen Y workers have high expectations of themselves. They aim to work faster and
better than other workers. They want fair and direct managers who are highly engaged in their professional
development. They seek out creative challenges and view colleagues as vast resources from whom to gain
knowledge. They want immediate responsibility. They want small goals with tight deadlines so they can build up
ownership of tasks.
Gen Y employees want bosses who are open minded; experts in their field, even if they aren’t tech-savvy;
organized; teachers, trainers, and mentors; not authoritarian or paternalistic; respectful of their generation;
understanding of their need for work–life balance; providing constant feedback; communicating in vivid and
compelling ways; and providing stimulating and novel learning experiences.
Managing Gen Y workers presents some unique challenges. Conflicts and resentment can arise over issues such as
appearance, technology, and management style.
Gen Y employees tend to favor more informal attire in the workplace. In many organizations, jeans, t-shirts, and
flip-flops are acceptable. However, in other settings, employees are expected to dress more conventionally. But
even in those more conservative organizations, one possible solution to accommodate the more casual attire
preferred by Gen Y is to be more flexible in what’s acceptable. For instance, the guideline might be that when the
person is not interacting with someone outside the organizations, more casual wear (with some restrictions) can
be worn.
This generation has lived much of their lives with ATMs, DVDs, cell phones, e-mail, texting, laptops, and the
Internet. When they don’t have information they need, they just simply enter a few keystrokes to get it. Having
grown up with technology, Gen Ys tend to be totally comfortable with it. They’re quite content to meet virtually to
solve problems, while bewildered baby boomers expect important problems to be solved with an in-person
meeting. Baby boomers complain about Gen Y’s inability to focus on one task, while Gen Ys see nothing wrong
with multitasking. Again, flexibility from both is the key.
Gen Y employees have a lot to offer organizations in terms of their knowledge, passion, and abilities. Managers,
however, have to recognize and understand the behaviors of this group in order to create an environment in which
work can be accomplished efficiently, effectively, and without disruptive conflict.
 Глава 10 – Managers and Communication

1) If a manager clearly and articulately verbalizes instructions to a subordinate, communication is said to have taken
place.
- FALSE

2) Communication does not only serve to inform; it can also act to control behavior.
- TRUE

3) Formal communication can control behavior, but informal communication cannot.

- FALSE

4) The communication process is susceptible to noise.

- TRUE

5) Illegible print is an example of noise.

- TRUE

6) A sender initiates a message by encoding a thought.

- TRUE

7) In communication, the process of decoding is performed by the receiver.

- TRUE

8) Intonation refers to gestures, facial expressions, and other body movements that convey meaning.
- FALSE

9) Verbal intonation refers to the emphasis someone gives to words or phrases that conveys meaning.
- TRUE

10) Filtering takes place when information exceeds the receiver’s processing capacity.
- FALSE

11) E-mail increases filtering because electronic communication is faster.

- FALSE

12) Active listeners avoid asking questions and making eye contact so that they don’t distract the speaker.
- FALSE

13) Informal communication is organizational communication not defined by the organization’s structural hierarchy.
- TRUE

14) Downward communication is communication that flows from a manager to employees.

- TRUE

15) Upward communication is used to inform, direct, coordinate, and evaluate employees.
- FALSE

16) Communication that takes place among employees on the same organizational level is called lateral
communication.
- TRUE

17) In the wheel network, the leader serves as the hub through which all communication passes.
- TRUE
18) The informal organizational communication network is known as the grapevine.
- TRUE

19) IT has significantly improved a manager’s ability to monitor individual and team performance.
- TRUE

20) All electronic information is inadmissible in court.

- FALSE

21) Good communication occurs only when the recipient ________.

A) agrees with the sender’s message
B) does what the speaker asks
C) understands the speaker’s meaning
D) makes eye contact with the speaker

22) For communication to be successful, meaning must be imparted and ________.

A) received by the other person
B) force action from the receiver
C) feedback must be established
D) understood by the receiver

23) In which of the following cases has communication occurred?

A) Gary updates his blog regularly, even though no one reads it.
B) Brian attends all the Algebra lectures, but is unable to understand the subject.
C) Jen has sent an urgent e-mail to her Japanese colleague, but a translator is not yet available.
D) Ana tells her manager that she needs a new computer, but he says that the company can’t afford it.

24) ________ consists of all the patterns, networks, and systems of communication within an organization.
A) The grapevine
B) Interpersonal communication
C) Organizational communication
D) Formal communication

25) George prepares a memorandum explaining the objectives of a newly created work team that he is expected to
manage, and makes sure it reaches each team member. He is involved in ________.
A) deciphering the message
B) organizational communication
C) lateral communication
D) decoding the message

26) When a communication requires employees to follow their job description, or to comply with company policies,
communication is being used to ________.
A) control
B) motivate
C) provide a release for emotional expression
D) persuade

27) Alec is hired as a senior analyst at Tech Research Institute and is assigned to a project with four other researchers.
He soon realizes that two of his teammates do not see eye-to-eye on many issues. Far from being solved, the
situation escalates over the next couple of months. This bothers Alec a great deal because he is expected to
coordinate his work with them. He decides to speak to his manager about the problem and seek his advice. In this
example, communication is being used ________.
A) informally
B) to control
C) to motivate
D) to inform
28) In which of the following cases is communication used to control employee behavior?
A) Sandy tells Mitch that she’s happy with the progress he’s making.
B) Glenn lets Ann know that the deadline for her project has been postponed.
C) Jan informs Sara that she must follow the dress code at work.
D) Chris gives Jason tips on how to improve his performance.

29) Pat manages the customer care department of her firm. She is very happy with her team of 15 customer care
executives who’ve all been consistently performing well. Customer feedback was impressive and Pat is planning to
give them good bonuses this time around. As a manager, Pat believes it is important to let your subordinates know
when you are happy with their work. She does so, and also calls a meeting to discuss what they can do to improve
further. Pat is using communication for ________.
A) decision making
B) negotiation
C) motivation
D) expressing emotion

30) During the communication process, the message is converted to a symbolic form. This process is called ________.
A) decoding
B) encoding
C) deciphering
D) expanding

31) The process through which the symbols of a message are translated by the receiver into a form that he or she can
understand is called ________.
A) decoding
B) encoding
C) reinstating
D) expanding

32) Disturbances that interfere with the transmission, receipt, or feedback of a message are called ________.
A) screens
B) filters
C) echoes
D) noise

33) Which of the following is an example of noise?

A) sending unsolicited sales messages to prospects
B) adding your contact information at the end of an e-mail message
C) leaving a message on the answering machine when you cannot reach someone
D) thinking about the party you attended last night while sitting in a lecture

34) Which of the following is true for the communication process?

A) The decoding process takes place within the channel.
B) Noise cannot affect the encoding of the message.
C) Encoding takes place before the message reaches the medium.
D) The sender decodes the message and then transmits it.

35) Adam has to tell the members of his department that the office timings have changed from flexible timings to a
strict nine-to-five day. He calls a meeting to explain the change. Participants begin arguing and asking multiple
questions about the new timing policy. The next day, Adam realizes that most people still do not have a clear idea
about the change, as a result of the confusion at the meeting. Which of the following explains why the message
was not understood?
A) The sender did not decode the message appropriately.
B) The recipients did not encode the message correctly.
C) The noise in the process interfered with the transmission of the message.
D) The channel was not appropriate for the delivery of this message.
36) Laura sent a text message to Betty telling her that she would come by to pick her up after work so they could go
shopping. Betty, however, made other plans for the evening thinking Laura was talking about going shopping the
next day. Which of the following best explains what went wrong with the communication?
A) Laura used a wrong channel of communication.
B) Scanability of the message was poor.
C) Betty decoded the message incorrectly.
D) The complexity capacity of text messaging is poor.

37) The final link in the communication process is ________.

A) encoding
B) decoding
C) receiving
D) feedback

38) Complexity capacity refers to the degree to which the communication method ________.
A) offers a reasonable assurance of confidentiality
B) makes a simple message seem more complex
C) effectively processes complicated messages
D) offers quick and accurate feedback

39) Which of the following describes the number of different messages that can be transmitted using a particular
method of communication?
A) complexity capacity
B) breadth potential
C) scanability
D) encoding ease

40) Which of the following attributes of a communication method will be the most important for a scientist who has to
send large amounts of data to a colleague?
A) complexity capacity
B) feedback
C) formality
D) interpersonal warmth

41) When a sender evaluates a communication method to judge scanability, he is checking if ________.
A) the method can easily transmit a large number of messages
B) the method allows recipients to process complex messages effectively
C) the method adequately conveys personal warmth
D) the recipient can easily browse the message for relevant information

42) CISCO’s Unified Personal Communicator allows fast and easy access to voice, video, instant messaging, web
conferencing, voicemail, and presence capabilities through a single, multimedia interface on your PC or Mac.
Which of the following aspects of communication problems does this personal communicator address?
A) security concerns arising from the use of the Internet
B) time-space constraint
C) decoding errors
D) encoding errors

43) Which of the following is true of nonverbal communication?

A) It is synonymous with body language.
B) It carries greater impact than verbal communication.
C) It is absent in spoken communication.
D) It is involuntary; it cannot be used deliberately.
44) Which of the following methods of communication should be used when the sender requires quick and accurate
feedback?
A) publications
B) face-to-face
C) postal mail
D) fax

45) Which of the following methods of communication offers high scanability?

A) publications
B) face-to-face communication
C) meetings
D) voice mail

46) ________ is the deliberate manipulation of information to make it appear more favorable to the receiver.
A) Lateral communication
B) Encoding
C) Diagonal communication
D) Filtering

47) When a person tells his or her manager what the manager wants to hear, which of the following barriers to
effective interpersonal communication is the person using?
A) filtering
B) selective perception
C) feedback
D) defensiveness

48) Which of the following is true of filtering?

A) Filtering aids effective communication by making a message more favorable to a receiver.
B) The more vertical levels in an organization, the more opportunities there are for filtering.
C) Filtering occurs at the individual level; the organization cannot encourage or discourage it.
D) The use of e-mail increases filtering because communication is more direct.

49) All of the following are barriers to effective interpersonal communication, EXCEPT ________.
A) filtering
B) selective perception
C) feedback
D) defensiveness

50) Sarah needs funding to research the efficacy of a certain drug for the treatment of cancer. Though her initial trials
have been inconclusive, Sarah is sure that the drug will prove to be effective. However, the organizations she plans
to approach for funding will not be very impressed with the results of the previous trials and may withhold
funding. Sarah has to structure her proposal in such a way that she emphasizes the positives about the drug and
minimizes the negative information. Which of the following best describes Sarah’s technique of writing her
proposal?
A) diagonal communication
B) filtering
C) defensiveness
D) jargon

51) A(n) ________ occurs when the amount of data provided exceeds the recipient’s processing capacity.
A) perceptual barrier
B) information overload
C) conceptual block
D) physical barrier
52) Jargon is ________.
A) the capacity of a communication method to process complex messages
B) a technique for deliberate manipulation of information to make it appear more favorable to the receiver
C) specialized terminology that members of a group use to communicate among themselves
D) a technique that increases the breadth potential of a communication method

53) Which of the following is a way for managers to overcome the barriers to communication?
A) feedback
B) decoding
C) encoding
D) filtering

54) Listening is an active search for meaning, whereas ________ is passive.

A) speaking
B) encoding
C) decoding
D) hearing

55) Listening for full meaning without making premature judgments or interpretations is called ________.
A) passive hearing
B) lateral communication
C) active listening
D) decoding

56) Which of the following is true for active listeners?

A) They should avoid making eye contact and nodding as this will distract the speaker.
B) They should not interrupt the speaker, but should feel free to ask questions about the topic.
C) They should listen for full meaning and avoid paraphrasing what the speaker is saying.
D) Developing empathy for the speaker is not advised as it proves an emotional barrier to listening.

57) Which of the following helps an individual to understand the actual content of a message?
A) antipathy
B) empathy
C) apathy
D) empowerment

58) When a manager asks an employee to complete a task, he or she is using ________ communication.
A) upward
B) lateral
C) informal
D) formal

59) Organizational communication that is not defined by the organization’s structural hierarchy is known as ________
communication.
A) external
B) passive
C) informal
D) controlled

60) The ________ communication system within an organization permits employees to satisfy their need for social
interaction with their peers.
A) informal
B) upward
C) formal
D) downward
61) Downward communication is used ________.
A) by employees to give managers progress reports
B) to coordinate and evaluate employees
C) between employees at the same organizational level
D) between people of different departments and organizational levels

62) ________ communication is communication that flows from a manager to employees.

A) Lateral
B) Upward
C) Downward
D) Horizontal

63) Jon is the manager of the Finance department. He has to inform the employees in the department about the
introduction of a new analytical software and the resultant changes in procedures. Which of the following types of
communication does he use?
A) upward
B) downward
C) lateral
D) diagonal

64) In an effort to improve communication within the Accounts department of a large organization, the department
head puts a suggestion box at the door and invites employees to communicate their thoughts, ideas, concerns, or
grievances to the managers in the department. Which of the following methods of communication is he
encouraging?
A) upward
B) diagonal
C) downward
D) lateral

65) ________ communication keeps managers aware of how employees feel about their jobs, their coworkers, and the
organization in general.
A) Downward
B) Horizontal
C) Lateral
D) Upward

66) Which of the following management styles will most likely encourage upward communication?
A) dictatorial
B) paternalistic
C) participative
D) authoritarian

67) Which of the following is an example of lateral communication?

A) George informs his superior about the progress of the new project.
B) Brian talks to his teammate about a change in project specifications.
C) Richard penalizes John for not following the company dress code.
D) Paul tells the CEO about the low morale in his department.

68) Cross-functional teams rely heavily on ________ communication, which can be problematic if their managers are
not kept informed about the decisions.
A) downward
B) upward
C) vertical
D) lateral
69) When an organization has an interest in increasing the efficiency and speed of communication between managers
at different levels and in different departments, then ________.
A) upward communication works best
B) diagonal communication should be used
C) lateral communication is ideal
D) upward communication works the fastest

70) In the ________ communication network, communication flows according to the formal organizational hierarchy,
both downward and upward.
A) chain
B) all-channel
C) wheel
D) horizontal

71) In a(n) ________ communication network, all communication passes through a clearly identifiable leader to the
others in a team and upward from team members to the leader.
A) wheel
B) all-channel
C) chain
D) circular

72) In the all-channel network, communication flows ________.

A) downward from a strong leader to his subordinates in the work group
B) in a parallel fashion until all of the members of a work group have been informed
C) freely among all members of a formal work team
D) among the managers of a functional area of an organization

73) If a company is concerned with achieving high member satisfaction for all the participants in a network, which of
the following communication networks is best?
A) chain network
B) horizontal network
C) wheel network
D) all-channel network

74) Over the years, managers at Wilson’s Retail have discovered that the sales staff in the retail areas have the best
insights into what customers want and how they shop. Wilson’s uses these insights to design its retail spaces and
decide which products to stock. To make the sharing of information easier, Wilson’s encourages an open
communication network, where information flows freely between and among staff and managers. Which of the
following communication networks does Wilson’s use?
A) chain
B) wheel
C) all-channel
D) downward

75) An organization’s grapevine works as ________.

A) a method for managers to communicate official policy
B) a method for management to control the dissemination of information
C) both a formal and an informal communication method
D) a filter and a feedback mechanism for managers

76) Because rumors that flow along the grapevine can never be eliminated entirely, managers can minimize the
negative consequences of rumors by ________.
A) ignoring them completely
B) communicating openly and honestly with employees
C) encouraging an all-channel communication network
D) using filtering wherever possible
77) Which of the following is true for organizational communication?
A) It uses formal but not informal communication techniques.
B) It includes informal communication via the grapevine.
C) Information flows according to the organization’s chain of command.
D) It does not include interpersonal communication.

78) In order to increase face-to-face communication among employees, the workplace design should ________.
A) maximize visibility and density
B) maximize visibility and minimize density
C) minimize visibility and density
D) minimize visibility and maximize density

79) Selenius Inc. develops and tests software products. The work calls for a lot of collaboration among employees, who
frequently brainstorm and bounce ideas off each other. Which of the following workplace designs will best suit
Selenius’ requirements?
A) an open workplace
B) closed cubicles
C) high partitions
D) individual offices

80) A(n) ________ is a location where Internet users can gain wireless access to the Internet.
A) extranet
B) LAN
C) intranet
D) wi-fi hot spot

81) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using IT in organizational communication?

A) economic drawbacks
B) geographic constraints
C) psychological costs
D) time constraints

82) Though IT has improved organizational communications in recent years, ________ remains a major concern.
A) timeliness
B) security
C) cost
D) breadth potential

The Memorandum (Scenario)

George Wilberson is a qualified engineer and manages a work team that consists of two engineers, four production
workers, an accountant, and a purchasing manager. They are about to embark on a new project for their company.
George has prepared a memorandum explaining the objectives of the work team.

83) Some of the production workers have come to see George and ask for clarification about the memorandum. This
represents the ________ aspect of the communication process.
A) encoding
B) channeling
C) filtering
D) feedback

84) The purchasing manager assigned to this team had already worked with George in the past. However, a difference
of opinion had soured their relationship. As a result, the purchasing manager was unable to objectively evaluate
and appreciate the various aspects of the current project described in the memorandum. This is an example of
________.
A) noise C) feedback
B) channeling D) encoding
85) The accountant, in particular, told George that he had difficulty understanding some of the technical terms used in
the memorandum. These technical terms are commonly known as ________.
A) encoding
B) echoes
C) noise
D) jargon

The Sword and the Millstone (Scenario)

Sandra Millstone, the CEO of Excalibur Manufacturing Company, had concluded that the company would have to
reduce its employee group by 10 percent as the industry was severely hit by the ongoing economic recession. She
spent over 30 hours preparing charts, tables, graphs, diagrams, and other forms of visual aids for her presentation
to the employees about the upcoming reduction in force so that they could understand the reason and plan their
next move.

86) During the presentation Sarah explained that the reason for downsizing was the recession which was hitting the
company badly. However, the fact of the matter was that the company had not yet experienced any loss of
revenues but were anticipating bad days ahead, which could eventually lead to mass layoffs. This is an example of
the ________ aspect of the communication process.
A) channeling
B) filtering
C) selective perception
D) poor decoding

87) By the time that Sandra had finished the presentation to the employees, she had spoken for one and one-half
hours, shown 14 visual aids, and no one asked a question. The employees were probably dealing with which of the
following barriers to effective communication?
A) information overload
B) selective perception
C) knowledge management
D) cultural constraints

88) As the employees began to leave the meeting room, some were overheard grumbling that those at the top were
just profit-rakers, that it didn’t make any difference to Sandra if employees lost their jobs. Which barrier to
effective communications do these statements represent?
A) selective perception
B) information overload
C) defensiveness
D) downward communication

“Flo” of Communication (Scenario)

Recently the employees of Chatterbox Enterprises, Inc., received a letter from the vice president of operations
explaining that a new production facility would be built in Chatland City, AL. It was also stated that about one-
fourth of the employees from the current Chatland City facility would be transferred to the new facility and if
employees wanted to volunteer for the transfer, they could do so by meeting the human resource manager and
filling out a request form. Sam, a production supervisor, first went to Florence, the purchasing manager, who had
already volunteered to transfer, to discuss with her the possibility of becoming her inventory control supervisor at
the new facility. Florence told Sam that Ruth, the current inventory control supervisor, would not be transferring
and that she would consider his request.

89) The letter from the vice president to the employees is an example of which type of organizational communication?
A) horizontal
B) formal
C) lateral
D) informal
90) When Sam went to the human resource manager and applied for transfer to the new facility, he was participating
in which type of organizational communication?
A) formal
B) downward
C) horizontal
D) lateral

91) If Sam had talked with his co-supervisors before going to speak to Florence, he would have been involved in which
type of organizational communication?
A) vertical
B) internal
C) lateral
D) downward

92) When Sam spoke to Florence, he was involved in which type of organizational communication?
A) diagonal
B) upward
C) horizontal
D) lateral

Types of Communication Networks (Scenario)

Rick Smith is a regional sales manager for a health care information technology firm called MediFax, based in Nashville,
TN. Rick is responsible for overseeing 15 salespeople covering over 20 states spanning the mid-South to the
Northeast. When the company was smaller and there were fewer salespeople, communication flowed freely from
the field back into all areas of the home office—customer service, development, accounting and finance, and top
management. However, as the company has grown, its structure has become more mechanistic. Communications
to and from the field now flows according to the formal chain of command. As a result, the firm has been slower to
recognize shifts in the market and respond to important market-based information delivered by the sales force.
This has reduced the motivation of the sales team who are now reluctant to forward information to the home
office because they perceive that it won’t be acted upon anyway. The management has asked Rick to review this
issue and provide recommendations for improving the situation.

93) Formerly, information flowed freely from the sales force to all areas of the home office. This most closely
represents the ________.
A) wheel network
B) chain network
C) all-channel network
D) informal network

94) Once the company grew and became more mechanistic, the management insisted that information flow vertically
along the line of authority. This is most representative of the ________ communications network.
A) wheel
B) chain
C) all-channel
D) circular

95) Rick believes that it might be more effective if incoming market-based information and outgoing response and
direction were to flow through a central figure, the regional sales manager for each region. He, therefore, prefers
________ network for communication.
A) wheel
B) chain
C) all-channel
D) informal
96) Explain why communication is important to managers and organizations. What four functions does it serve?

Communication serves four major functions: control, motivation, emotional expression, and information.
Communication acts to control employee behavior in several ways. Organizations have authority hierarchies and
formal guidelines that employees are expected to follow. For instance, when employees are required to
communicate any job-related grievance first to their immediate manager, to follow their job description, or to
comply with company policies, communication is being used to control. But informal communication also controls
behavior. When work groups tease a member who’s working too hard or producing too much (making the rest of
the group look bad), they’re informally controlling the member’s behavior. Communication encourages motivation
by clarifying to employees what is to be done, how well they’re doing, and what can be done to improve
performance if it’s not up to par. As employees set specific goals, work toward those goals, and receive feedback
on progress toward goals, communication is required. For many employees, their work group is a primary source
of social interaction. The communication that takes place within the group is a fundamental mechanism by which
members share frustrations and feelings of satisfaction. Communication, therefore, provides a release for
emotional expression of feelings and for fulfillment of social needs. Finally, individuals and groups need
information to get things done in organizations. Communication provides that information. None of these four
functions is more important than the others. For groups to work effectively, they need to maintain some form of
control over members, motivate members to perform, provide a means for emotional expression, and make
decisions. You can assume that almost every communication interaction that takes place in a group or organization
is fulfilling one or more of these four functions.

97) List the seven elements of the communication process and explain the process of interpersonal communication.

The seven elements of the communication process are: (1) the communication source, (2) the message, (3) encoding,
(4) the channel, (5) decoding, (6) the receiver, and (7) feedback. Before communication can take place, a purpose,
expressed as a message to be conveyed, must exist. It passes between a source (the sender) and a receiver. The
message is converted to a symbolic form (called encoding) and passed by way of some medium (channel) to the
receiver, who retranslates the sender’s message (called decoding). The result is the transfer of meaning from one
person to another. The entire process is susceptible to noise—disturbances that interfere with the transmission,
receipt, or feedback of a message. Typical examples of noise include illegible print, phone static, inattention by the
receiver, or background sounds of machinery or coworkers. Anything that interferes with understanding can be
noise, and noise can create distortion at any point in the communication process.

98) Discuss the two best-known types of nonverbal communication. Include a specific example of each type of
nonverbal communication to support your answer.

An important part of interpersonal communication is nonverbal communication—that is, communication transmitted

without words. Body language refers to gestures, facial expressions, and other body movements that convey
meaning. A person frowning “says” something different from one who’s smiling. Hand motions, facial expressions,
and other gestures can communicate emotions or temperaments such as aggression, fear, shyness, arrogance, joy,
and anger. Verbal intonation refers to the emphasis someone gives to words or phrases that conveys meaning. To
illustrate how intonations can change the meaning of a message, consider the student who asks the instructor a
question. The instructor replies, “What do you mean by that?” The student’s reaction will vary, depending on the
tone of the instructor’s response. A soft, smooth vocal tone conveys interest and creates a different meaning from
one that is abrasive and puts a strong emphasis on saying the last word.

99) List and discuss the barriers to effective communication that managers face. Include a specific example of each
barrier to support your answer.

a. Filtering—This is the deliberate manipulation of information to make it appear more favorable to the receiver. For
example, when a person tells his or her manager what the manager wants to hear, that individual is filtering
information. The extent of filtering tends to be a function of the number of vertical levels in the organization and
the organizational culture. The more vertical levels there are in an organization, the more opportunities there are
for filtering.

b. Emotions—How a receiver feels when a message is received influences how he or she interprets it. Extreme
emotions are most likely to hinder effective communication. In such instances, people often disregard rational and
objective thinking processes and substitute emotional judgments.
c. Information overload—This occurs when the amount of information a person is required to work with exceeds that
individual’s processing capacity. What happens when individuals have more information than they can sort or use?
They tend to select out, ignore, pass over, or forget information. Or, they may put off further processing until the
overload situation is over.

d. Defensiveness—When people feel that they’re being threatened, they tend to react in ways that reduce their ability
to achieve mutual understanding. That is, they become defensive–engaging in behaviors such as verbally attacking
others, making sarcastic remarks, being overly judgmental, and questioning others’ motives.

e. Language—Words mean different things to different people. Age, education, and cultural background are three of
the more obvious variables that influence the language a person uses and the definitions he or she gives to words.
People may speak the same language, but use of that language is far from uniform. Senders tend to assume that
the words and phrases they use mean the same to the receiver as they do to them. This is incorrect and creates
communication barriers.

f. National culture—Interpersonal communication isn’t conducted in the same way around the world. In the United
States, communication patterns tend to be individually oriented and clearly spelled out. U.S. managers rely heavily
on memoranda, announcements, position papers, and other formal forms of communication to state their
positions on issues. In collectivist countries, such as Japan, there’s more interaction for its own sake and a more
informal manner of interpersonal contact.

100) Explain formal and informal communication within an organization.

Communication within an organization is described as formal or informal. Formal communication refers to

communication that takes place within prescribed organizational work arrangements. For example, when a
manager asks an employee to complete a task, that’s formal communication. Another example of formal
communication occurs when an employee communicates a problem to his or her manager.
Informal communication is organizational communication not defined by the organization’s structural hierarchy.
When employees talk with each other in the lunch room, as they pass in hallways, or as they’re working out at the
company wellness facility, they engage in informal communication. Employees form friendships and communicate
with each other. The informal communication system fulfills two purposes in organizations: (1) it permits
employees to satisfy their need for social interaction, and (2) it can improve an organization’s performance by
creating alternative, and frequently faster and more efficient, channels of communication.

101) How are town hall meetings used by organizations to communicate with employees?

Town hall meetings are increasingly popular informal public meetings where top executives relay information, discuss
issues, or bring employees together to celebrate accomplishments. They are a form of downward communication,
but also facilitate the multilateral sharing of information and solicitation of input.

102) Describe and explain the different directions of communication flow within an organization.

Organizational communication can flow downward, upward, laterally, or diagonally.

Downward communication - Downward communication is communication that flows from a manager to employees.
It’s used to inform, direct, coordinate, and evaluate employees. When managers assign goals to their employees,
they’re using downward communication. They’re also using downward communication when providing employees
with job descriptions, informing them of organizational policies and procedures, pointing out problems that need
attention, or evaluating their performance.
Upward communication - Managers rely on their employees for information. For instance, reports are given to
managers to inform them of progress toward goals or to report any problems. Upward communication is
communication that flows from employees to managers. It keeps managers aware of how employees feel about
their jobs, their coworkers, and the organization in general. Managers also rely on upward communication for
ideas on how things can be improved. Some examples of upward communication include performance reports
prepared by employees, suggestion boxes, employee attitude surveys, grievance procedures, manager-employee
discussions, and informal group sessions in which employees have the opportunity to discuss problems with their
manager or representatives of top-level management.
 Lateral communication - Communication that takes place among employees on the same organizational level is
called lateral communication. In today’s dynamic environment, horizontal communications are frequently needed
to save time and facilitate coordination. Cross-functional teams, for instance, rely heavily on this form of
communication interaction. However, conflicts can arise if employees don’t keep their managers informed about
decisions they’ve made or actions they’ve taken.
Diagonal communication - Diagonal communication is communication that crosses both work areas and
organizational levels. Because of its efficiency and speed, diagonal communication can be beneficial. Increased e-
mail use facilitates diagonal communication. In many organizations, any employee can communicate by e-mail
with any other employee, regardless of organizational work area or level, even with upper-level managers.
However, diagonal communication also has the potential to create problems if employees don’t keep their
immediate managers informed.

103) Briefly describe three common communication networks, or patterns of communication, that emerge in
organizations. Is any one network preferable to others? If so, why? If not, what factors decide which network is
best for a particular situation?

The vertical and horizontal flows of organizational communication can be combined into a variety of patterns called
communication networks.

a. Chain network—Communication flows according to the formal chain of command, both downward and upward. If
accuracy is important, the chain network works well.

b. Wheel network—Communication flows between a clearly identifiable and strong leader and others in a work group
or team. The leader serves as a hub through which communication passes. If having a strong, identifiable leader is
important to the organization or work unit, the wheel network is the best communication network. Accuracy is
also very high with the wheel network.

c. All-channel network—Communication flows freely among all members of a work team. If high member satisfaction
is a concern, the all-channel network is preferable.

104) What is the role of the informal communication network in organizations? How can managers ensure that this
network is beneficial to the organization?
The informal organizational communication network in organizations is known as the grapevine. The grapevine is
active in almost every organization. It is an important source of information for employees, many of whom hear
about important matters first through rumors or gossip on the grapevine. Acting as both a filter and a feedback
mechanism, it pinpoints those bewildering issues that employees consider important. More importantly, from a
managerial point of view, it is possible to analyze what is happening on the grapevine—what information is being
passed, how information seems to flow, and what individuals seem to be key information conduits. By staying
aware of the grapevine’s flow and patterns, managers can identify issues that concern employees, and, in turn, use
the grapevine to disseminate important information. Because the grapevine can’t be eliminated, managers should
“manage” it as an important information network.
Rumors that flow along the grapevine also can never be eliminated entirely. However, managers can minimize the
negative consequences of rumors by communicating openly, fully, and honestly with employees, particularly in
situations where employees may not like proposed or actual managerial decisions.

105) “The grapevine is detrimental to effective organizational communication and must be eliminated if the
organization is to effectively engage its employees.” Do you agree with this statement? Explain your answer.
Student answers may vary. However, it is a fact that the grapevine, an informal organizational network is part of
every organization. In fact, it is an important source of information for the company. This makes it imperative for
companies to try to understand its dynamics. Acting as both a filter and a feedback mechanism, it pinpoints those
bewildering issues that employees consider important. More importantly, from a managerial point of view, it is
possible to analyze what is happening on the grapevine—what information is being passed, how information
seems to flow, and what individuals seem to be key information conduits. By staying aware of the grapevine’s flow
and patterns, managers can identify issues that concern employees, and, in turn, use the grapevine to disseminate
important information. Because the grapevine can’t be eliminated, managers should “manage” it as an important
information network. However, managers can minimize the negative consequences of rumors. They can do so by
communicating openly, fully, and honestly with employees, particularly in situations where employees may not
like proposed or actual managerial decisions. Studies show that this is likely to be effective in engaging employees.
106) In a short essay, explain two main communication challenges that new technology has created.
Managers are learning that new technology has created special communication challenges. The two main ones are
(1) legal and security issues and (2) lack of personal interaction. Although e-mail is a quick and easy way to
communicate, managers need to be aware of potential legal problems from inappropriate e-mail usage. Electronic
information is potentially admissible in court. Security concerns are another issue managers face. Managers need
to ensure that confidential information is kept confidential. Employee e-mails and blogs should not
communicate—inadvertently or purposely—proprietary information. Corporate computer and e-mail systems
should be protected against hackers (people who try to gain unauthorized access to computer systems) and spam
(electronic junk mail). These are serious issues that managers and organizations must address if the benefits that
communication technology offers are to be realized. Another communication challenge posed by the Internet age
is the lack of personal interaction. Even when two people are communicating face-to-face, understanding is not
always achieved. However, when communication takes place in a virtual environment, it can be really hard to
achieve understanding and collaborate on getting work done. Some companies have gone so far as to ban e-mail
on certain days of the week. Others have simply encouraged employees to collaborate more in person. Yet, there
are situations and times when personal interaction isn’t physically possible—when employees are spread across
the continent or even across the globe. In those instances, real-time collaboration software (such as private
workplace wikis, blogs, instant messengers, and other types of groupware) may be a better communication choice
than sending an e-mail and waiting for a response.

107) Explain how communication can have an impact on customer satisfaction and what managers can do to improve
communication.
What communication takes place and how it takes place can have a significant impact on a customer’s satisfaction
with the service and the likelihood of being a repeat customer. Managers in service organizations need to make
sure that employees who interact with customers are communicating appropriately and effectively with those
customers.
Managers must first recognize the three components in any service delivery process: the customer, the service
organization, and the individual service provider. Each plays a role in whether communication is working.
Obviously, managers don’t have a lot of control over what or how the customer communicates, but they can
influence the other two.
An organization with a strong service culture already values taking care of customers—finding out what their
needs are, meeting those needs, and following up to make sure that their needs were met satisfactorily. Each of
these activities involves communication, whether face-to-face, by phone or e-mail, or through other channels.
Communication also is important to the individual service provider or contact employee. The quality of the
interpersonal interaction between the customer and that contact employee does influence customer satisfaction,
especially when the service encounter isn’t up to expectations. People on the front line involved with those
“critical service encounters” are often the first to hear about or notice service failures or breakdowns. They must
decide how and what to communicate during these instances. Their ability to listen actively and communicate
appropriately with the customer goes a long way in whether the situation is resolved to the customer’s satisfaction
or spirals out of control. Another important communication concern for the individual service provider is making
sure that he or she has the information needed to deal with customers efficiently and effectively. If the service
provider doesn’t personally have the information, some way needs to be devised to get the information easily and
promptly.

108) How does unethical communication impact business? What are some ways that companies communicate
unethically?

Unethical communication distorts the truth, manipulates audiences, or fails to include all relevant information to avoid
deception of any type. Companies can communicate unethically by omitting essential information. For instance,
not telling employees that an impending merger is going to mean some of them will lose their jobs is unethical. It’s
unethical to plagiarize, which is presenting someone else’s words or other creative product as your own. It would
also be unethical communication to selectively misquote, misrepresent numbers, distort visuals, and fail to respect
privacy or information security needs. For instance, although British Petroleum attempted to communicate openly
and truthfully about the Gulf Coast oil spill in the summer of 2010, the public still felt that much of the company’s
communication contained some unethical elements.
 Глава 11 – Motivating Employess

1) The definition of motivation has three key elements: energy, direction, and persistence.
- TRUE

2) According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, lower-order needs are predominantly satisfied internally while
higher-order needs are satisfied externally.
- FALSE

3) According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, once a need is substantially satisfied, an individual is no longer
motivated to satisfy that need.
- TRUE

4) Joseph, a line manager at a plant, believes that his workers have little drive and will not work unless pushed by him.
Therefore, he closely monitors and controls their work and pulls up those who do not meet his standards. Joseph is
a Theory Y manager.
- FALSE

5) Research clearly indicates that the Theory Y manager is more effective in motivating employees than the Theory X
manager.
- FALSE

6) Frederick Herzberg found that when employees were dissatisfied, they tended to cite extrinsic factors arising from
the job context such as company policy and administration, supervision, interpersonal relationships, and working
conditions.
- TRUE

7) People with a high need for achievement strive for the trappings and rewards of success rather than for personal
achievement.
- FALSE

8) According to the goal-setting theory, a generalized goal of “do your best” will produce a higher output than specific,
challenging goals.
- FALSE

9) Due to its emphasis on objectivity and specificity, the goal-setting theory holds across cultures.
- FALSE

10) Managers using reinforcement theory to motivate employees should ignore, not punish, undesirable behavior.
- TRUE

11) The term job design refers to the way tasks are combined to form complete jobs.
- TRUE

12) Making jobs smaller and more specialized is the most effective way of motivating employees.
- FALSE

13) Job enlargement refers to the horizontal expansion of a job by increasing job scope.
- TRUE

14) An enriched job allows workers to do an entire activity with increased freedom, independence, and responsibility.
- TRUE

15) In the job characteristics model, task significance refers to the degree to which a job requires completion of a
whole and identifiable piece of work.
- FALSE
16) According to the job characteristics model, combining fragmented tasks will help increase skill variety and task
identity.
- TRUE

17) Recent research shows that distributive justice has a greater influence on employee satisfaction than procedural
justice.
- TRUE

18) Research indicates that the desire for interesting work is important to almost all workers, regardless of national
culture.
- TRUE

19) When considering how to motivate employees, it must be kept in mind that professionals tend to be focused on
their work as their central life interest, whereas nonprofessionals typically have other interests outside of work
that can compensate for needs not met on the job.
- TRUE

20) Research indicates that, for the most part, pay-for-performance programs show positive results.
- TRUE

21) The ________ element in the definition of motivation is a measure of intensity, drive, and vigor.
A) persistence
B) conformance
C) energy
D) direction

22) The hierarchy of needs theory of motivation was proposed by ________, a psychologist who proposed that within
every person is a hierarchy of five needs.
A) Douglas McGregor
B) Frederick Herzberg
C) Abraham Maslow
D) David McClelland

23) In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, ________ needs form the lowest or foundational step in the hierarchy.
A) social
B) physiological
C) esteem
D) safety

24) According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, when an employer provides his employees health insurance, he
is taking care of their ________ needs.
A) safety
B) social
C) self-actualization
D) esteem

25) In the context of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, when a company has a space where employees can meet
during breaks and catch up with each other, the company is taking care of the employees’ ________ needs.
A) safety
B) self-actualization
C) social
D) physiological

26) In the context of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, when a company names an “Employee of the Month” and
“Employee of the Quarter,” the company is addressing employees’ ________ needs.
A) safety C) esteem
B) self-actualization D) physiological
27) According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, a person’s needs for self-respect, autonomy, achievement,
status, recognition, and attention constitute his ________ needs.
A) safety
B) physical
C) social
D) esteem

28) According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, a person’s needs for growth, achieving one’s potential, and self-
fulfillment, and the drive to become what one is capable of becoming constitute his or her ________ needs.
A) physiological
B) safety
C) social
D) self-actualization

29) Which of the following needs is the highest in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory?
A) safety needs
B) self-actualization needs
C) esteem needs
D) social needs

30) Which of the following needs is a lower-order need in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory?
A) social
B) esteem
C) safety
D) self-actualization

31) Which of the following needs is a lower-order need in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory?
A) physiological
B) esteem
C) social
D) self-actualization

32) According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, ________ needs are predominantly satisfied externally while
________ needs are satisfied internally.
A) social; physiological
B) safety; self-actualization
C) self-actualization; physiological
D) social; safety

33) Theory X and Theory Y—two assumptions about human nature—were proposed by ________.
A) Frederick Herzberg
B) Douglas McGregor
C) Abraham Maslow
D) David McClelland

34) McGregor’s Theory X assumes that employees ________.

A) need to be closely controlled to work effectively
B) enjoy work
C) seek out and accept responsibility
D) exercise self-direction

35) McGregor’s Theory Y assumes that employees ________.

A) have little ambition
B) want to avoid responsibility
C) enjoy work
D) need to be closely controlled to work effectively
36) Irene, CEO of a small company, strongly believes in Douglas McGregor’s assumptions about human nature. Which
of the following management practices is Irene most likely to favor to maximize employee motivation?
A) a top-down decision-making structure
B) a stringent system of monitoring and controlling employees
C) making jobs narrower in scope and shallow in depth
D) participatory management

37) The two-factor theory—also known as the motivation-hygiene theory—was proposed by ________.
A) David McClelland
B) Abraham Maslow
C) Douglas McGregor
D) Frederick Herzberg

38) Frederick Herzberg’s two-factor theory proposes that ________.

A) intrinsic factors cause job dissatisfaction
B) extrinsic factors have the maximum effect on job satisfaction
C) extrinsic factors are associated with job dissatisfaction
D) intrinsic factors have little effect on job satisfaction

39) According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, which of the following is a hygiene factor?
A) recognition
B) advancement
C) working conditions
D) responsibility

40) According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, which of the following is a motivator?

A) working conditions
B) salary
C) responsibility
D) security

41) Herzberg called the factors that create job dissatisfaction ________ factors; when these factors are adequate,
people won’t be dissatisfied, but they won’t be satisfied either.
A) intrinsic
B) hygiene
C) motivating
D) neutral

42) Which of the following is true about Herzberg’s two-factor theory?

A) Herzberg believed that the factors that led to job satisfaction were the same as those that led to job
dissatisfaction.
B) To motivate people, Herzberg suggested emphasizing the hygiene factors of a job.
C) Herzberg’s theory has influenced how we currently design jobs.
D) According to Herzberg, removing dissatisfying characteristics from a job will invariably make that job more
satisfying and motivating.

43) ________ and his associates proposed the three-needs theory.

A) Frederick Herzberg
B) Abraham Maslow
C) David McClelland
D) Douglas McGregor

44) The three-needs theory of motivation states that there are three ________ needs that are major motives in work.
A) physical
B) acquired
C) safety
D) innate
45) Which of the following are the three needs identified in the three-needs theory of motivation?
A) need for affiliation, need for security, need for power
B) need for achievement, need for power, need for affiliation
C) need for power, need for achievement, need for safety
D) need for power, need for safety, need for affiliation

46) According to the three-needs theory, the need for ________ is the drive to succeed and excel in relation to a set of
standards.
A) control
B) affiliation
C) power
D) achievement

47) According to the three-needs theory, the need for ________ is the need to make others behave in a way that they
would not have behaved otherwise.
A) safety
B) affiliation
C) power
D) achievement

48) According to the three-needs theory, the need for ________ is the desire for friendly and close interpersonal
relationships.
A) control
B) affiliation
C) power
D) achievement

49) Which of the following needs identified in the three-needs theory has been researched the most?
A) security
B) affiliation
C) power
D) achievement

50) People with a high need for achievement ________.

A) emphasize helping others accomplish their goals
B) make good managers, especially in large organizations
C) prefer moderately challenging goals
D) emphasize the rewards of success

51) You are acting as manager and mentor to Melanie, an employee who has been identified as a high achiever. Going
by McClelland’s three-needs theory, which of the following measures would best help you motivate Marsha to do
her best?
A) promising her a promotion and a raise if she reaches her targets
B) giving her a job that holds her personally responsible for finding solutions to problems
C) setting goals that are just out of her reach
D) giving her a managerial position that requires her to help others accomplish their goals

52) According to the three-needs theory, the best managers tend to be ________.
A) low in the need for affiliation
B) low in the need for power
C) high in the need for security
D) high in the need for achievement
53) The three needs identified in the three-needs theory can be measured by using a projective test known as the
________ in which respondents react to a set of pictures. Each picture is briefly shown to a person who writes a
story based on the picture. Trained interpreters then determine the individual’s levels of nAch, nPow, and nAff
from the stories written.
A) House-Tree-Person Test
B) Thematic Apperception Test
C) Robert’s Apperception Test
D) Rorschach test

54) Goal-setting theory says that ________.

A) goals should be loosely defined and moderately challenging to maximize motivation
B) a generalized goal of “do your best” is likely to be most effective in ensuring high performance
C) difficult goals, when accepted, result in higher performance than do easy goals
D) to be effective, goals set should be easily achievable for the top performers

55) The goal-setting theory states that ________.

A) employee participation in goal-setting is not always necessary for ensuring performance
B) self-generated feedback is largely ineffective as a motivator
C) in order to maximize performance, goals must not be made public
D) motivation is maximized by setting moderately challenging goals

56) Goal-setting theory assumes that an individual is committed to the goal. Commitment is most likely when
________.
A) goals are assigned and not self-set
B) goals are not made public
C) the individual has an internal locus of control
D) the individual has low self-efficacy

57) The goal-setting theory has the most value when ________.
A) the individual is a high achiever
B) the goals are assigned to the individual
C) the individual has low self-efficacy
D) the goals are made public

58) The goal-setting theory has most value in countries where ________.
A) there is low uncertainty avoidance
B) there is high power distance
C) individuals are low in assertiveness
D) subordinates are reasonably independent

59) ________ theory says that behavior is a function of its consequences.

A) Reinforcement
B) Goal-setting
C) Equity
D) Two-factor

60) In the context of the reinforcement theory, reinforcers are ________.

A) those consequences that immediately follow a behavior and increase the probability that the behavior will be
repeated
B) punishments or rewards that are given out for negative or positive employee behavior, respectively
C) the specific, unambiguous goals that have been set for employees as a standard for measuring their
performance
D) the supervisors or managers who have the responsibility of monitoring and reinforcing desired employee
behavior
61) Which of the following actions accurately reflects the reinforcement theory of motivation?
A) A company’s policy of cutting a day’s pay if an employee reports to work later than 10.30 A.M.
B) A company’s policy of giving its sales staff cash coupons for exceeding their daily targets.
C) A company initiating a process of job redesign to engage its employees better.
D) A company setting specific and difficult goals and ensuring that employees accept them.

62) The way tasks are combined to form complete jobs is referred to as ________.
A) job evaluation
B) job rotation
C) job design
D) job specification

63) ________ refers to the number of different tasks required in a job and the frequency with which those tasks are
repeated.
A) Job scope
B) Job depth
C) Task significance
D) Task identity

64) ________ refers to the horizontal expansion of a job by increasing job scope, or the number of different tasks
required in a job and the frequency with which those tasks are repeated.
A) Job enrichment
B) Empowerment
C) Job enlargement
D) Job sharing

65) ________ refers to the vertical expansion of a job by adding planning and evaluating responsibilities.
A) Job enrichment
B) Job enlargement
C) Job sharing
D) Job rotation

66) ________ refers to the degree of control employees have over their work.
A) Task identity
B) Task significance
C) Job scope
D) Job depth

67) Which of the following is true about job enlargement and job enrichment?
A) Job enlargement efforts that focus solely on increasing the number of tasks are largely effective in increasing
employee motivation.
B) Research shows that job enrichment improves employee motivation and satisfaction.
C) Expanding the scope of knowledge used in a job leads to more job satisfaction, enhanced customer service, and
fewer errors.
D) Research shows that job enrichment is very useful in improving the quality of work of employees.

68) Which of the following is a framework for analyzing and designing jobs that identifies five primary core job
dimensions, their interrelationships, and their impact on outcomes.
A) relational perspective of work design
B) job skill matrix
C) job characteristics model
D) job descriptive index
69) In the job characteristics model, ________ refers to the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and
identifiable piece of work.
A) task significance
B) skill variety
C) autonomy
D) task identity

70) In the job characteristics model, task significance refers to the degree to which a job ________.
A) provides freedom, independence, and discretion to the individual in carrying out the work
B) requires a variety of activities and uses a number of different employee skills and talents
C) requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
D) has a substantial impact on the lives or work of other people

71) In the job characteristics model, the dimension of ________ refers to the degree to which a job provides
substantial freedom, independence, and discretion to the individual in scheduling the work and determining the
procedures to be used in carrying it out.
A) task significance
B) autonomy
C) task identity
D) skill variety

72) In the job characteristics model, the dimension of ________ refers to the degree to which doing work activities
required by a job results in an individual obtaining direct and clear information about the effectiveness of his or
her performance.
A) task significance
B) feedback
C) task identity
D) autonomy

73) According to the JCM, which three job characteristics are crucial to an employee experiencing meaningfulness of
his or her work?
A) autonomy, task identity, and task significance
B) skill variety, task identity, and task significance
C) autonomy, feedback, and task significance
D) skill variety, autonomy, and feedback

74) According to the JCM, which job characteristic leads to an employee experiencing responsibility for outcomes of
his or her work?
A) task significance
B) autonomy
C) feedback
D) skill variety

75) According to the JCM, which job characteristic results in the employee knowing about the actual results of his or
her work activities?
A) task significance
B) autonomy
C) feedback
D) skill variety

76) Sarah is using the JCM to redesign jobs for her small team of writers. After carefully analyzing their jobs, she
determines that while their jobs are high in skill variety, task identity, task significance, and autonomy, they
receive little feedback about their work. Which of the following steps will enable Sarah to improve this aspect of
their jobs?
A) adding editing and proof-reading duties to their existing work
B) allowing the writers to directly conduct business with their clients
C) allowing writers to choose their topics and assignments
D) making employees responsible for executing a piece of work from start to finish
77) “In jobs today, employees rely more and more on those around them for information, advice, and assistance.”
Which of the following approaches to job design best reflects this statement?
A) the relational perspective of work design
B) the job characteristics model
C) the proactive perspective of work design
D) high involvement work practices

78) The ________ of work design says that employees are taking the initiative to change how their work is performed.
A) social model
B) proactive perspective
C) job characteristics model
D) relational perspective

79) The equity theory proposes that ________.

A) offering employees part of the company’s shares, or equity, motivates them to do their best because their
performance directly ties in with the company’s
B) employees expect that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to a certain level of performance and will be
demotivated if that does not happen
C) an employee compares his or her job’s input–outcomes ratio with that of relevant others and then corrects any
inequity
D) employees are more likely to show initiative at work if they are more involved in decisions that affect their work

80) ________ justice is the perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals.
A) Distributive
B) Restorative
C) Retributive
D) Procedural

81) In the expectancy theory, ________ is the probability perceived by the individual that exerting a given amount of
effort will lead to a certain level of performance.
A) expectancy
B) valence
C) instrumentality
D) saliency

82) In the expectancy theory, ________ is the degree to which the individual believes that performing at a particular
level is instrumental in attaining the desired outcome.
A) expectancy
B) valence
C) performance–reward linkage
D) effort–performance linkage

83) In the expectancy theory, ________ is the importance that the individual places on the potential outcome or
reward that can be achieved on the job.
A) expectancy
B) valence
C) instrumentality
D) saliency

84) Which of the following is true about managing cross-cultural motivational challenges?
A) Maslow’s needs hierarchy largely remains unchanged across cultures.
B) In masculine cultures such as Japan and Slovakia, the focus is on quality-of-life benefits.
C) Recent evidence suggests that in collectivist cultures, especially in the former socialist countries, of Central and
Eastern Europe, employees link pay solely to performance.
D) Most current motivation theories were developed in the United States by Americans and about Americans.
85) Which of the following motivating factors or concepts is important to all workers, regardless of their national
culture?
A) extrinsic factors like pay
B) need for achievement
C) physiological needs as the foundational need in the needs hierarchy
D) interesting work

86) To maximize motivation among today’s workforce, managers need to think in terms of ________.
A) job autonomy
B) flexibility
C) job security
D) compensation

87) Studies tell us that men place more importance on having ________ in their jobs, while women seek ________.
A) structure; interpersonal relationships
B) independence; highly structured work opportunities
C) autonomy; convenience and flexibility
D) flexibility; learning opportunities

88) Jack Hammer is a retired man who has decided to seek work with your company to supplement his retirement
income. As you consider whether he will be a good fit for your department, you determine that he is likely to find
satisfaction in the job because it ________.
A) is in a highly structured work environment
B) offers convenient and flexible work hours
C) is characterized by a high degree of independence
D) provides an opportunity for interpersonal relationships

89) Which of the following is true about motivating unique groups of workers?
A) Higher pay is the only reward that is important to low-skilled, minimum-wage employees.
B) Flexible work arrangements have shown a strong link with high motivation levels.
C) Money and promotions are typically low on the priority list of professionals.
D) For most temp workers, the freedom they get from their temporary status is the main motivator.

90) ________ is a motivational approach in which an organization’s financial statements are shared with all
employees.
A) Pay-for-performance
B) Self-determination approach
C) Open-book management
D) I-Change model

91) Define motivation and discuss the three elements of motivation.

Motivation refers to the process by which a person’s efforts are energized, directed, and sustained toward attaining a
goal. This definition has three key elements: energy, direction, and persistence. The energy element is a measure
of intensity, drive, and vigor. A motivated person puts forth effort and works hard. However, the quality of the
effort must be considered as well as its intensity. High levels of effort don’t necessarily lead to favorable job
performance unless the effort is channeled in a direction that benefits the organization. Effort that’s directed
toward, and consistent with, organizational goals is the kind of effort we want from employees. Finally, motivation
includes a persistence dimension. We want employees to persist in putting forth effort to achieve those goals.

92) Write a short essay on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, describing the various needs and describing how
managers can use this theory to motivate employees.

Maslow was a psychologist who proposed that within every person is a hierarchy of five needs:

1. Physiological needs: A person’s needs for food, drink, shelter, sex, and other physical requirements.
2. Safety needs: A person’s needs for security and protection from physical and emotional harm, as well as assurance
that physical needs will continue to be met.

3. Social needs: A person’s needs for affection, belongingness, acceptance, and friendship.

4. Esteem needs: A person’s needs for internal esteem factors such as self-respect, autonomy, and achievement and
external esteem factors such as status, recognition, and attention.

5. Self-actualization needs: A person’s needs for growth, achieving one’s potential, and self-fulfillment; the drive to
become what one is capable of becoming.

Maslow argued that each level in the needs hierarchy must be substantially satisfied before the next need becomes
dominant. An individual moves up the needs hierarchy from one level to the next. In addition, Maslow separated
the five needs into higher and lower levels. Physiological and safety needs were considered lower-order needs;
social, esteem, and self-actualization needs were considered higher-order needs. Lower-order needs are
predominantly satisfied externally while higher-order needs are satisfied internally.

Managers using Maslow’s hierarchy to motivate employees do things to satisfy employees’ needs. But the theory also
says that once a need is substantially satisfied, an individual is no longer motivated to satisfy that need. Therefore,
to motivate someone, you need to understand what need level that person is on in the hierarchy and focus on
satisfying needs at or above that level.

93) As manager of a large team of engineers, you notice that your team is falling short of its goals primarily because
several team members are either not motivated to put in their best or are downright dissatisfied with their jobs.
You have decided to follow Herzberg’s two-factor theory to motivate your employees. What steps can you take to
maximize motivation?

Frederick Herzberg’s two-factor theory (also called motivation-hygiene theory) proposes that intrinsic factors are
related to job satisfaction, while extrinsic factors are associated with job dissatisfaction. Further, he argues that
data suggested that the opposite of satisfaction was not dissatisfaction, as traditionally had been believed.
Removing dissatisfying characteristics from a job would not necessarily make that job more satisfying (or
motivating). Herzberg proposed that a dual continuum existed: The opposite of “satisfaction” is “no satisfaction,”
and the opposite of “dissatisfaction” is “no dissatisfaction.”
Following this theory, you can motivate employees who show no dissatisfaction by emphasizing motivators, the
intrinsic factors having to do with the job itself. These factors include achievement, recognition, work itself,
responsibility, advancement, and growth. However, to motivate dissatisfied employees, the extrinsic factors
associated with job dissatisfaction must first be addressed. These factors can include supervision, company policy,
relationship with supervisor, working conditions, salary, relationship with peers, personal life, relationship with
subordinates, status, and security. Once the dissatisfaction has been removed, you can maximize motivation by
emphasizing the intrinsic factors.

94) What does goal-setting theory tell us?

The goal-setting theory says that specific goals increase performance and that difficult goals, when accepted, result in
higher performance than do easy goals.

It says that working toward a goal is a major source of job motivation. Studies on goal setting have demonstrated that
specific and challenging goals are superior motivating forces. Such goals produce a higher output than does the
generalized goal of “do your best.” The specificity of the goal itself acts as an internal stimulus. However, the
conclusions of goal-setting theory apply to those who accept and are committed to the goals. Also, while
participation is preferable to assigning goals when employees may resist difficult challenges, it is not always
necessary for performance. Self-generated feedback has been shown to be a more powerful motivator than
feedback coming from someone else. Three other contingencies besides feedback influence the goal-performance
relationship: goal commitment, adequate self-efficacy, and national culture. First, commitment is most likely when
goals are made public, when the individual has an internal locus of control, and when the goals are self-set rather
than assigned. Next, self-efficacy refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. The
higher your self-efficacy, the more confidence you have in your ability to succeed in a task. Finally, the value of
 goal-setting theory depends on the national culture. It’s well adapted to North American countries because its
main ideas align reasonably well with those cultures. Goal setting cannot be expected to lead to higher employee
performance in countries where the cultural characteristics aren’t like this.

95) Explain the concepts of job enlargement and job enrichment with suitable examples and analyze their
effectiveness in motivating employees.

Job enlargement refers to the horizontal expansion of a job by increasing job scope, or the number of different tasks
required in a job and the frequency with which these tasks are repeated. For instance, the job of an office assistant
could be expanded so that apart from filing and documentation, he could also handle phone calls and visitors. In
contrast, job enrichment is the vertical expansion of a job by adding planning and evaluating responsibilities. Job
enrichment increases job depth, which is the degree of control employees have over their work. In other words,
employees are empowered to assume some of the tasks typically done by their managers. Thus, an enriched job
allows workers to do an entire activity with increased freedom, independence, and responsibility. In addition,
workers get feedback so they can assess and correct their own performance. For instance, if an office assistant had
an enriched job, he could, in addition to filing and documentation, schedule appointments (planning) and follow
up with clients and coworkers (evaluating).

Most job enlargement efforts that focused solely on increasing the number of tasks don’t seem to work. However,
research has shown that knowledge enlargement activities (expanding the scope of knowledge used in a job) lead
to more job satisfaction, enhanced customer service, and fewer errors. Also, although job enrichment may
improve the quality of work, employee motivation, and satisfaction, research evidence has been inconclusive as to
its usefulness.

96) How can managers use the job characteristics model (JCM) to design jobs?

The JCM provides specific guidance to managers for job design. These suggestions specify the types of changes that are
most likely to lead to improvement in the five core job dimensions.

1. Combine tasks: Put fragmented tasks back together to form a new, larger work module (job enlargement) to
increase skill variety and task identity.

2. Create natural work units: Design tasks that form an identifiable and meaningful whole to increase employee
“ownership” of the work. Encourage employees to view their work as meaningful and important rather than as
irrelevant and boring.

3. Establish client (external or internal) relationships: Whenever possible, establish direct relationships between
workers and their clients to increase skill variety, autonomy, and feedback.

4. Expand jobs vertically: Vertical expansion gives employees responsibilities and controls that were formerly reserved
for managers, which can increase employee autonomy.

5. Open feedback channels: Direct feedback lets employees know how well they’re performing their jobs and whether
their performance is improving or not.

97) The economic recession of the last few years saw employees at the receiving end of job insecurity, layoffs, tight
budgets, minimal or no pay raises, benefit cuts, no bonuses, and long hours doing the work of those who had been
laid off. Assuming that you were a manager during these difficult times, how would you motivate your employees?

In tough economic circumstances like the last recession, managers must be creative in keeping their employees’
efforts energized, directed, and sustained toward achieving goals. They should look at ways to motivate employees
that didn’t involve money or that were relatively inexpensive. They can rely on actions such as holding meetings
with employees to keep the lines of communication open and to get their input on issues; establishing a common
goal, such as maintaining excellent customer service, to keep everyone focused; creating a community feel so
employees could see that managers cared about them and their work; and giving employees opportunities to
continue to learn and grow. And, of course, an encouraging word always goes a long way.
98) You work for a large retailer which hires large numbers of temp workers to help out in various departments during
holidays and other high-volume periods. Getting these workers to perform well is a huge challenge for you. How
can you motivate these workers and minimize their conflict with permanent employees?

For that small set of individuals who prefer the freedom of their temporary status, the lack of stability may not be an
issue. However, for the most part, temporary employees are not temporary by choice, so we will need to look at
what will motivate involuntarily temporary employees. An obvious answer is the opportunity to become a
permanent employee. In cases in which permanent employees are selected from a pool of temps, the temps will
often work hard in hopes of becoming permanent. A less obvious answer is the opportunity for training. The ability
of a temporary employee to find a new job is largely dependent on his or her skills. If an employee sees that the
job he or she is doing can help develop marketable skills, then motivation is increased. From an equity standpoint,
when temps work alongside permanent employees who earn more and get benefits too for doing the same job,
the performance of temps is likely to suffer. Separating such employees or perhaps minimizing interdependence
between them might help managers counteract potential problems.

99) What is open-book management? How is it effective in motivating appropriate employee behavior?

Many organizations of various sizes involve their employees in workplace decisions by opening up the financial
statements (the “books”). They share that information so that employees will be motivated to make better
decisions about their work and better able to understand the implications of what they do, how they do it, and the
ultimate impact on the bottom line. This approach is called open-book management. The goal of open-book
management is to get employees to think like an owner by seeing the impact their decisions have on financial
results. Since many employees don’t have the knowledge or background to understand the financials, they have to
be taught how to read and understand the organization’s financial statements. Once employees have this
knowledge, however, managers need to regularly share the numbers with them. By sharing this information,
employees begin to see the link between their efforts, level of performance, and operational results.
 Глава 12 – Managers as Leaders

1) An important aspect of leadership is influencing a group to achieve its goals.

- TRUE

2) Despite the best efforts of researchers, it proved impossible to identify one set of traits that would always
differentiate leaders from nonleaders.
- TRUE

3) Effective leaders do not need a high degree of knowledge about the company, industry, and technical matters.
- FALSE

4) Cognitive theories are leadership theories that identified behaviors that differentiated effective leaders from
ineffective leaders.
- FALSE

5) According to the University of Michigan studies, leaders who are production oriented are described as emphasizing
interpersonal relationships and as taking a personal interest in the needs of their followers.
- FALSE

6) The managerial grid only provides a framework for conceptualizing leadership style.
- TRUE

7) Fiedler’s contingency model of leadership style proposed that effectiveness depends on the ability and willingness
of the subordinates.
- FALSE

8) The least-preferred coworker questionnaire measures whether a leader is task or relationship oriented.
- TRUE

9) According to Fiedler’s research, task-oriented leaders tended to perform better in situations that are very favorable
to them and in situations that were very unfavorable.
- TRUE

10) Derek Logan heads a team of 10 research analysts in Deutsche Bank. Even though he is least impressed with Cara
Lewis among all his subordinates, when asked about her work he chose to focus on her strengths rather than her
weaknesses. Derek can be described as a task-oriented leader.
- FALSE

11) According to Robert House’s path-goal theory, a supportive leader lets subordinates know what’s expected of
them, schedules the work to be done, and gives specific guidance on how to accomplish tasks.

12) Robert House’s achievement-oriented leader sets challenging goals and expects followers to perform at their
highest level.
- TRUE

13) Robert House assumed that leaders can change leadership styles depending on the situation.
- TRUE

14) Path-goal theory holds that subordinates with an external locus of control will be more satisfied with a directive
style.
- TRUE

15) Path-goal theory states that employee performance and satisfaction are likely to be positively influenced when the
leader compensates for shortcomings in either the employee or the work setting.
- TRUE
16) Transactional and transformational leadership are opposing approaches to getting things done.
- FALSE

17) A charismatic leader is likely seen as being self-confident and influential.

- TRUE

18) People working for charismatic leaders are motivated to exert extra work effort but express lower satisfaction.
- FALSE

19) Charisma is an essential quality that leaders must possess to achieve high levels of employee performance.
- FALSE

20) Charisma is the ability to create and articulate a realistic, credible, attractive vision of the future for any
organization or organizational unit that grows out of and improves on the present.
- FALSE

21) A vision should offer clear and compelling imagery that taps into people’s emotions and inspires enthusiasm to
pursue the organization’s goals.
- TRUE

22) One specific role of team leadership is that team leaders are troubleshooters.
- TRUE

23) Legitimate power is inherent in management positions.

- TRUE

24) Legitimate power and authority are one and the same.
- TRUE

25) Reward power is the power that arises because of a person’s desirable resources or personal traits.
- FALSE

26) Credibility is the degree to which followers perceive someone as honest, competent, and able to inspire.
- TRUE

27) Trust is the belief in the integrity, character, and ability of a leader.
- TRUE

28) Of the five dimensions that make up the concept of trust, loyalty seems to be the most critical when someone
assesses another’s trustworthiness.
- FALSE

29) Persons who are able to influence others and who possess managerial authority are termed ________.
A) entrepreneurs
B) leaders
C) organizers
D) visionaries

30) Early research on leadership traits ________.

A) sought to prove that charisma was an essential trait of leadership
B) focused entirely on behavioral traits rather than physical traits of a leader
C) found consistent and unique traits that would apply universally to all effective leaders
D) focused on characteristics that might differentiate leaders from nonleaders
31) Trait theory ignores ________.
A) physical traits of leaders
B) the behavioral aspects of honesty and integrity
C) the interactions of leaders and their group members as well as situational factors
D) the fact that leaders should be able to create visions and solve problems

32) Which of the following describes the leadership style in which a leader tends to centralize authority, dictate work
methods, make unilateral decisions, and limit employee participation?
A) cultural style
B) autocratic style
C) democratic style
D) laissez-faire style

33) The ________ style of leadership describes a leader who tends to involve employees in decision making, delegate
authority, encourage participation in deciding work methods and goals, and use feedback as an opportunity for
coaching employees.
A) cultural
B) autocratic
C) democratic
D) laissez-faire

34) Which of the following describes the leadership style in which the leader generally gives the group complete
freedom to make decisions and complete the work in whatever way it sees fit?
A) cultural style
B) autocratic style
C) democratic style
D) laissez-faire style

35) According to the University of Iowa behavioral studies, group members’ satisfaction levels were generally
________.
A) higher under an autocratic leader in the long run
B) improved when the leader was production oriented
C) maintained when the leader was autocratic in the short run
D) higher under a democratic leader than under an autocratic one

36) The University of Iowa studies discussed all of the following leadership styles except ________.
A) laissez-faire
B) democratic
C) accommodating
D) autocratic

37) According to the Ohio State studies, which of the following dimensions of leader behavior refers to the extent to
which a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and the roles of group members in the search for goal
attainment?
A) intelligence structure
B) psychological structure
C) initiating structure
D) consideration structure

38) According to the Ohio State studies, the ________ dimension of leader behavior is defined as the extent to which a
leader has job relationships characterized by mutual trust and respect for group members’ ideas and feelings.
A) initiation
B) consideration
C) cultural
D) physical
39) Susan Bones is the sales manager at the Ohio office of Alpha Inc. She has a reputation of being fair, helpful, and
understanding. Laura, one of her subordinates, recalled how Susan had even helped her overcome a personal
crisis. Which of the following dimensions of leadership is Susan displaying here?
A) consideration
B) initiating structure
C) employee orientation
D) task orientation

40) This managerial grid used the behavioral dimensions “concern for people” and ________ and evaluated a leader’s
use of these behaviors, ranking them on a scale from 1 (low) to 9 (high).
A) “concern for integrity”
B) “concern for profit”
C) “concern for environment”
D) “concern for production”

41) To measure a leader’s style, Fiedler developed the ________.

A) contingency grid
B) situational leadership theory
C) managerial grid
D) least-preferred co-worker questionnaire

42) The ________ model proposed that effective group performance depended upon the proper match between the
leader’s style of interacting with his or her followers and the degree to which the situation allowed the leader to
control and influence.
A) Fiedler contingency
B) situational leadership
C) leader participation
D) path-goal

43) Fiedler would expect that the best leadership style was a function of ________.
A) leader-member relations, task structure, and position power
B) formal authority, production process, and personality of employees
C) chain of command, relationships, and power
D) type of organization, personality of leader, and education of employees

44) Fiedler’s dimension termed ________ is the degree of confidence, trust, and respect subordinates have for their
leader.
A) leader-member relations
B) power relationship
C) task structure
D) authority

45) Which of the following are two of the three key situational factors Fiedler felt were important in determining
leader effectiveness?
A) leader-member relations and maturity of followers
B) organizational success and position power
C) task structure and leader-member relations
D) maturity of organization and task structure

46) The degree to which the job assignments are formalized and procedurized is the ________ contingency dimension
identified by Fiedler.
A) position power
B) subordinate maturity
C) task structure
D) centralization
47) Fiedler’s term ________ refers to the degree of influence a leader has over power-based activities.
A) leader-member relations
B) position power
C) responsibility
D) task structure

48) Fiedler assumed a person’s leadership style was ________.

A) contingent upon the situation
B) relatively flexible
C) democratic
D) fixed

49) Research by Fiedler uncovered three contingency dimensions that define the key ________.
A) situational factors for determining leader effectiveness
B) follower factors for determining leader effectiveness
C) leader behavioral style factors for determining leader effectiveness
D) situational factors for determining follower effectiveness

50) Reviews of the major studies undertaken to test the overall validity of Fiedler’s model have shown ________.
A) considerable evidence to refute the model
B) minor evidence to support the model
C) minor evidence to refute the model
D) considerable evidence to support the model

51) The ________ theory is a contingency theory that focuses on followers’ readiness.
A) consideration leadership
B) situational leadership
C) passive leadership
D) active leadership

52) According to Hersey and Blanchard, a high task-low relationship situation calls for the ________ leadership style.
A) delegating
B) telling
C) participating
D) selling

53) Which of the following leadership styles describes a leader who provides both directive and supportive behavior?
A) telling
B) selling
C) participating
D) delegating

54) At Falcons Inc., Jeremy is the head of the marketing department. However, he is not in the habit of deciding
everything on his own. He involves his team in the decision-making process as much as possible. He believes in
communicating clearly and is always ready to help his team to get the best out of them. Jeremy’s leadership style
will be classified as which of the following?
A) telling
B) selling
C) participating
D) delegating

55) Which of the following leadership styles describes a leader who provides little direction or support?
A) telling
B) selling
C) participating
D) delegating
56) Which leadership theory believes that a leader’s job is to assist followers in attaining their goals and to ensure that
their goals are compatible with the goals of the group or organization?
A) Fiedler’s Theory
B) Contingency Theory
C) Leader Participation Model
D) Path-Goal Theory

57) Who developed the path-goal theory?

A) Fiedler
B) Blake and Mouton
C) Lewin
D) House

58) According to the path-goal theory, a leader who lets subordinates know what’s expected of them, schedules work
to be done, and gives specific guidance as to how to accomplish tasks is termed ________.
A) directive
B) achievement oriented
C) participative
D) supportive

59) According to the path-goal theory, a manager who consults with subordinates and uses their suggestions exhibits
what type of leadership behavior?
A) directive
B) achievement oriented
C) participative
D) supportive

60) According to the path-goal theory, a leader who is friendly and shows concern for the needs of subordinates is
termed ________.
A) directive
B) achievement oriented
C) participative
D) supportive

61) Alex Johnson was classified as an achievement oriented leader by his team. Which of the following would describe
Johnson’s leadership style best?
A) He lets subordinates know what’s expected of them, schedules work to be done, and gives specific guidance on
how to accomplish tasks.
B) He shows concern for the needs of his subordinates and is friendly.
C) He sets challenging goals and expects subordinates to perform at their highest level.
D) He consults with subordinates and uses their suggestions before making a decision.

62) Path-goal theory identifies two classes of situation variables that moderate the leadership-behavior outcome as
________.
A) tact and relationship
B) path and goal
C) people and achievements
D) environment and followers

63) Which of the following is included in the class of contingency variables termed “environment” by the path-goal
theory?
A) task structure and formal authority system
B) locus of control and experience
C) perceived ability
D) employee satisfaction
64) Which of the following is included in the class of contingency variables termed “follower” by the path-goal theory?
A) locus of control
B) work group
C) employee compensation
D) formal authority system

65) Which of the following is not one of the hypotheses that have evolved from the path-goal theory?
A) Supportive leadership results in high employee performance and satisfaction when subordinates are performing
structured tasks.
B) Directive leadership is likely to be perceived as redundant among subordinates with high perceived ability or
with considerable experience.
C) The clearer and more bureaucratic the formal authority relationships, the more leaders should exhibit
supportive behavior and deemphasize directive behavior.
D) Subordinates with an external locus of control will be less satisfied with a directive leadership style.

66) According to the path-goal theory, directive leadership will lead to higher employee satisfaction when there is
________ within a work group.
A) cohesiveness
B) high structure
C) substantial conflict
D) internal locus of control

67) According to the path-goal theory, employee performance and leadership style are likely to be positively related
when ________.
A) the leader adopts a directive style when the tasks are clear and the employee has the experience and the ability
to handle them
B) the leader displays directive behavior at all times
C) the leadership style compensates for shortcomings in either the employee or the work setting
D) the leader adopts a directive style of leadership with followers who have an internal locus of control

68) When Alan Jackman got promoted as the head of the sales team at Mac Software Inc., he chose three of his closest
friends in the team to form the core sales group with him. Which of the following predictions would be consistent
with the LMX theory?
A) Such an arrangement eventually becomes unstable.
B) Job satisfaction is more likely to be higher for the team members who are not a part of the core group.
C) Team members who are not a part of Alan’s core group are actually far more competent than his friends who
form the core team.
D) There will be a higher turnover among team members who are not a part of the core group.

69) Which of the following is an accurate statement about transformational leaders?

A) They are poor motivators.
B) They clarify task requirements.
C) They exhibit more than just charisma.
D) They focus on tasks and pay little attention to followers.

70) Rachel Keller’s colleagues and subordinates have a very high regard for her. They know that no one can get high-
quality work done the way Rachel can. She inspires her team to excel in their work, even exceeding their own
expectations. What her subordinates like best about Rachel is that they are free to discuss her decisions with her,
even question her once in while if they are not sure about her strategy. Which of the following best describes
Rachel’s leadership style?
A) transactional
B) charismatic
C) trait
D) transformational
71) A leader, such as Bill Gates of Microsoft, who can inspire followers above their own self-interests and can have a
profound effect on their performance, is known as a(n) ________.
A) transactional leader
B) directive leader
C) informational leader
D) transformational leader

72) The evidence supporting the superiority of transformational leadership over the transactional style is ________.
A) inconclusive
B) moderately supportive
C) moderately negative
D) overwhelmingly impressive

73) Evidence indicates that transformational leadership is strongly correlated with ________.
A) lower turnover rates and lower levels of goal attainment and follower well-being
B) lower turnover rates and higher levels of productivity and creativity
C) higher turnover rates and lower levels of productivity and employee satisfaction
D) higher turnover rates and higher levels of employee satisfaction and follower well-being

74) Joanna Williams, an enthusiastic and confident lady, was appointed to head a team of market researchers at a time
when there was considerable unrest within the team. Under her guidance, however, the team’s performance
improved drastically. They not only did their job well but also learned to resolve their personal differences in the
interest of their work. Joanna can be described as a(n) ________ leader.
A) telling
B) charismatic
C) authoritative
D) participative

75) If Carol Reece is a charismatic leader, which of the following characteristics is she most likely to possess?
A) a strong need to be in control
B) a lack of sensitivity to environmental constraints
C) an external locus of control
D) a willingness to take risks to achieve her vision

76) Researchers who train individuals to use charismatic nonverbal behaviors do not recommend ________.
A) leaning toward the subordinate
B) avoiding eye contact
C) having relaxed posture
D) having animated facial expressions

77) ________ leadership is the ability to create and articulate a realistic, credible, and attractive vision of the future for
an organization that improves on the present.
A) Visionary
B) Charismatic
C) Trait
D) Transactional

78) All of the following are sources of leader power except ________.
A) legitimate
B) status
C) expert
D) coercive

79) Which of the following is the type of power a person has because of his or her position in the formal organizational
hierarchy?
A) legitimate power C) reward power
B) coercive power D) expert power
80) Sam Meyers is the manager at a department store. He has 20 employees working under him who are mostly
unhappy and discontented with the way he threatens them for even minor errors. Which of the following
statements is likely to be true about Sam?
A) Sam is a transactional leader.
B) Sam is using coercive power to get the job done.
C) Sam is a telling leader.
D) Sam is using referent power to get the job done.

81) Marsha Lewis is the manager at a bank, with 30 employees reporting to her. Many of her staff are extremely
impressed with the way she handles her work and the people at the bank. They take pride in being associated with
her team. She is not only fair and understanding, but ensures that the deserving employees are compensated well.
Which two sources of power does Marsha use in this example?
A) reward and referent power
B) referent and coercive power
C) expert and reward power
D) referent and expert power

82) Your firm’s attorney has ________ power when giving legal advice.
A) legitimate
B) status
C) expert
D) coercive

83) ________ is the power that arises because of a person’s desirable resources or personal traits.
A) Expert power
B) Referent power
C) Reward power
D) Legitimate power

84) When a young child emulates a professional sports star’s behavior, what kind of power does the star have over the
child?
A) legitimate
B) expert
C) coercive
D) referent

85) The most dominant component of credibility is ________.

A) expertise
B) status
C) authority
D) honesty

86) The dimension of trust that is used to describe honesty and truthfulness is ________.
A) integrity
B) competence
C) consistency
D) loyalty

87) Shaun Mendis is the manager of a warehouse operated by a department store. He is trusted by his subordinates
because he is open, reliable, and shows extremely good judgment while handling any type of crisis. Mendis is also
known to be very supportive of his staff. Which dimensions of trust is he exhibiting?
A) integrity and loyalty
B) competence and openness
C) consistency, loyalty, and openness
D) loyalty, consistency, and competence
88) Why are more and more companies empowering employees?
A) Management needs to make quick decisions.
B) Organizational upsizing left many managers with smaller spans of control.
C) Empowerment is appropriate for all circumstances.
D) Managers must cope with increased work demands.

89) One general conclusion that surfaces from leadership research is that ________.
A) effective leaders do not use any single style
B) managers always make good team leaders
C) national culture is one situational variable which in reality has a limited impact on leadership style
D) women usually make better transactional leaders than men

90) According to studies on cross-cultural leadership ________ are expected to speak frequently and be humble.
A) Arab leaders
B) German leaders
C) Japanese leaders
D) Korean leaders

91) Studies reveal that ________ are characterized by high performance orientation, low compassion, low self-
protection, low team orientation, high autonomy, and high participation.
A) Arab leaders
B) German leaders
C) Malaysian leaders
D) Scandinavian and Dutch leaders

A Leadership Junkie (Scenario)

Carrie is a leadership “junkie.” She has read all of the latest popular management texts on leadership and strongly feels
that it has improved her ability to manage and perform her job.

92) At home, Carrie was fixing dinner and thinking about the new CEO her firm had hired. In her speech the previous
day, the new CEO had discussed her experience in the industry and her education. Carrie thought that the new
CEO would do a great job given these characteristics, coupled with her good oratory skills and the fact that she just
looked like a CEO. Laughing, Carrie realized that she had been judging the new CEO in a manner consistent with
the ________ theories of leadership that were popular in the 1920s and 1930s.
A) trait
B) behavioral
C) contingency
D) situational

Mediation (Scenario)

Carlos, the team leader, will be mediating a dispute between three team members who are arguing about overtime
assignments. He recently learned about the technique of letting the parties involved in a dispute come up with a
solution.

93) In working with his employees, Carlos involves them in decision making and encourages them to participate in
deciding their work methods and goals. Carlos’s leadership style can best be described as ________.
A) autocratic
B) laissez-faire
C) democratic
D) delegating
Jack and Jill (Scenario)

Jack Jones and Jill Smith are both managers at a medium-sized medical supply firm. Jack emphasizes to his people that
the work must be done, regardless of circumstances, and encourages his employees to meet their sales quotas. He
is generally liked, but because sales are unstructured, sometimes his employees resent his rather heavy-handed
approach. Jill has tried hard to build a good rapport with her employees and knows each of their families. She
encourages her employees to work hard, but to be certain to take time out for themselves and their families.

94) Fiedler’s contingency model would classify Jack as ________ oriented.

A) employee
B) organization
C) task
D) relationship

95) Fiedler’s contingency model would classify Jill as ________ oriented.

A) production
B) organization
C) task
D) relationship

96) Which of the following would be assumed by Fiedler’s contingency model about the leadership styles of Jack and
Jill?
A) Their leadership styles can be adjusted to fit the situation.
B) Their leadership styles are fixed, regardless of the situation.
C) Jill’s leadership styles can be classified as selling.
D) Jack’s style is well suited for unstructured tasks.

The Path to Leadership (Scenario)

Brooke is a manager of the night shift in a nursing home. She has been reading literature on House’s path-goal theory
and would like to apply that information to becoming a better leader.

97) Brooke has decided that the appropriate leadership style would be to show friendliness and concern for the needs
-of her subordinates. She wishes to be a(n) ________ leader.
A) achievement-oriented
B) participative
C) supportive
D) directive

98) Brooke should understand that the path-goal theory is a(n) ________ model of leadership that extracts key
elements from the expectancy theory of motivation.
A) fixed
B) alternative
C) contingency
D) untested

99) Brooke generally lets subordinates know what’s expected of them, schedules work to be done, and gives specific
guidance on how to accomplish tasks. She would be termed a(n) ________ leader.
A) achievement-oriented
B) participative
C) supportive
D) directive
100) Which of the following would support Brooke’s attempt at becoming a participative leader?
A) She lets subordinates know what’s expected of them, schedules work to be done, and gives specific guidance as
to how to accomplish tasks.
B) She is friendly and shows concern for the needs of subordinates.
C) She consults her subordinates and uses their suggestions before making a decision.
D) She sets challenging goals and expects subordinates to perform at their highest level.

101) Lately Brooke has been setting challenging goals and expecting subordinates to perform at their highest level. She
is acting as a(n) ________ leader.
A) achievement-oriented
B) participative
C) supportive
D) directive

The Proactive Supervisor (Scenario)

Roberta is a department store supervisor and wants to be a good leader to her subordinates. Recently, she met with
the employees to let them know what she expected of them and the schedules they had for the products to be
shipped. Roberta really enjoys the time that she sometimes gets to spend with the employees so they can see that
she is friendly and has concern for them. She also likes to consult with the employees for suggestions prior to
making a decision. Before a new financial year starts, Roberta always meets with the employees to establish
challenging goals and expectations, encouraging them to perform at their highest level.

102) When Roberta recently met with the employees to let them know the product schedules and what she expected
of them, she displayed which of the following leadership styles?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) achievement-oriented

103) When Roberta spends time with the employees so they can see that she is friendly and has concern for them, she
displays which of the following leadership styles?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) achievement-oriented

104) When Roberta consults with the employees for suggestions prior to making a decision, she displays which of the
following leadership styles?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) achievement-oriented

105) When Roberta meets with the employees to establish challenging goals and expectations for the next financial
year, she displays which of the following leadership styles?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) achievement-oriented
Crazy Powermakers, Inc. (Scenario)

Crazy Powermakers, Inc., was a unique company in that its philosophy was to prevent any one person from having too
much power in the organization. Therefore, any power found to exist in the company was distributed to someone
who did not have any power yet. As a result, Tamera was the person employees went to when disciplinary action
had to be taken; Kayse was the supervisor that the employees went to for general decisions that needed to be
made; Clay was the person employees went to when they were to receive special recognition; and Juan was the
person employees went to when knowledge of a topic was needed.

106) Tamera held ________ power.

A) legitimate
B) coercive
C) reward
D) expert

107) Kayse held ________ power.

A) reward
B) expert
C) legitimate
D) coercive

108) Clay held ________ power.

A) reward
B) legitimate
C) coercive
D) referent

109) Juan held ________ power.

A) legitimate
B) reward
C) referent
D) expert

110) In a short essay, identify eight traits associated with leadership.

a. Drive—leaders exhibit a high effort level. They have a relatively high desire for achievement; they are ambitious;
they have a lot of energy; they are tirelessly persistent in their activities; and they show initiative.

b. Desire to lead—leaders have a strong desire to influence and lead others. They demonstrate the willingness to take
responsibility.

c. Honesty and integrity—leaders build trusting relationships between themselves and followers by being truthful or
nondeceitful and by showing high consistency between word and deed.

d. Self-confidence—followers look to leaders for an absence of self-doubt. Leaders, therefore, need to show self-
confidence in order to convince followers of the rightness of their goals and decisions.

e. Intelligence—leaders need to be intelligent enough to gather, synthesize, and interpret large amounts of
information, and they need to be able to create visions, solve problems, and make correct decisions.

f. Job-relevant knowledge—effective leaders have a high degree of knowledge about the company, industry, and
technical matters. In-depth knowledge allows leaders to make well-informed decisions and to understand the
implications of those decisions.

g. Extraversion—leaders are energetic, lively people. They are sociable, assertive, and rarely silent or withdrawn.
h. Proneness to guilt. Guilt proneness is positively related to leadership effectiveness because it produces a strong
sense of responsibility for others.

111) In a short essay, contrast the four major behavior studies on leadership.

a. The University of Iowa studies (conducted by Kurt Lewin and his associates) explored three leadership styles. The
autocratic style described a leader who typically tended to centralize authority, dictate work methods, make
unilateral decisions, and limit employee participation. The democratic style described a leader who tended to
involve employees in decision making, delegate authority, encourage participation in deciding work methods and
goals, and use feedback as an opportunity for coaching employees. Finally, the laissez-faire style leader generally
gave the group complete freedom to make decisions and complete the work in whatever way it saw fit. Lewin and
his associates researched which style was the most effective. Their results seemed to indicate that the democratic
style contributed to both good quantity and quality of work.

b. The Ohio State studies identified two important dimensions of leader behavior. The first was called initiating
structure, which referred to the extent to which a leader defined and structured his or her role and the roles of
group members in the search for goal attainment. It included behavior that involved attempts to organize work,
work relationships, and goals. The second dimension was called consideration, which was defined as the extent to
which a leader had job relationships characterized by mutual trust and respect for group members’ ideas and
feelings. A leader who was high in consideration helped group members with personal problems, was friendly and
approachable, and treated all group members as equals. He or she showed concern for (was considerate of) his or
her followers’ comfort, well-being, status, and satisfaction.

c. Leadership studies conducted at the University of Michigan’s Survey Research Center, at about the same time as
those being done at Ohio State, had a similar research objective: identify behavioral characteristics of leaders that
were related to performance effectiveness. The Michigan group also came up with two dimensions of leadership
behavior, that they labeled employee oriented and production oriented. Leaders who were employee oriented
were described as emphasizing interpersonal relationships; they took a personal interest in the needs of their
followers, and accepted individual differences among group members. The production-oriented leaders, in
contrast, tended to emphasize the technical or task aspects of the job, were concerned mainly with accomplishing
their group’s tasks, and regarded group members as a means to that end. The conclusions of the Michigan
researchers strongly favored leaders who were employee oriented as they were associated with high group
productivity and high job satisfaction.

d. The behavioral dimensions from these early leadership studies provided the basis for the development of a two-
dimensional grid for appraising leadership styles. This managerial grid used the behavioral dimensions “concern for
people” and “concern for production” and evaluated a leader’s use of these behaviors, ranking them on a scale
from 1 (low) to 9 (high). Although the grid had 81 potential categories into which a leader’s behavioral style might
fall, emphasis was placed on five styles: impoverished management (1,1), task management (9,1), middle-of-the-
road management (5,5), country club management (1,9), and team management (9,9). Of these five styles, the
researchers concluded that managers performed best when using a 9,9 style.

Unfortunately, the grid offered no answers to the question of what made a manager an effective leader; it only
provided a framework for conceptualizing leadership style. In fact, there’s been little substantive evidence to
support the conclusion that a 9,9 style is most effective in all situations.

112) In a short essay, discuss the situational leadership theory developed by Paul Hersey and Ken Blanchard. Next, list
and discuss the four specific leadership styles and the four stages of follower readiness as defined by them.

The situational leadership theory is a contingency theory that focuses on followers’ readiness. Hersey and Blanchard
argue that successful leadership is achieved by selecting the right leadership style, which is contingent on the level
of the followers’ readiness. The emphasis on the followers in leadership effectiveness reflects the reality that it is
the followers who accept or reject the leader. Regardless of what the leader does, effectiveness depends on the
actions of his or her followers. And, readiness refers to the extent to which people have the ability and willingness
to accomplish a specific task. The four specific leadership styles are as follows:
a. Telling (high task—low relationship)—the leader defines roles and tells people what, how, when, and where to do
various tasks.

b. Selling (high task—high relationship)—the leader provides both directive and supportive behavior.

c. Participating (low task—high relationship)—the leader and follower share in decision making; the main role of the
leader is facilitating and communicating.

d. Delegating (low task—low relationship)—the leader provides little direction or support.

The final component in the model is the four stages of follower readiness:

a. R1—People are both unable and unwilling to take responsibility for doing something. They’re neither competent nor
confident.

b. R2—People are unable but willing to do the necessary job tasks. They’re motivated but currently lack the
appropriate skills.

c. R3—People are able but unwilling to do what the leader wants.

d. R4—People are both able and willing to do what is asked of them.

113) In a short essay, differentiate between transactional and transformational leaders.

Transactional leaders are those who guide or motivate their followers in the direction of established goals by clarifying
role and task requirements. Transformational leaders, however, pay attention to the concerns and developmental
needs of individual followers. They change followers’ awareness of issues by helping them look at old problems in
new ways. They are able to excite, arouse, and inspire followers to put in extra effort to achieve group goals.
Transformational leadership produces levels of employee effort and performance that go beyond what would
occur in a transactional approach alone.

114) Discuss the five sources in which leader power has been identified. Include specific examples of each source of
power to support your answer.

a. Legitimate power—represents the power a leader has as a result of his or her position in the organization. People in
positions of authority are also likely to have reward or coercive power, but legitimate power is broader than the
power to coerce and reward.

b. Coercive power—the power that rests on the leader’s ability to punish or control. Followers react to this power out
of fear of the negative results that might occur if they did not comply. As a manager, you typically have some
coercive power, such as being able to suspend or demote employees or to assign them work they find unpleasant
or undesirable.

c. Reward power—the power to give positive benefits or rewards. These rewards can be anything that another person
values. In an organizational context, that might include money, favorable performance appraisals, promotions,
interesting work assignments, friendly colleagues, and preferred work shifts or sales territories.

d. Expert power—influence that’s based on expertise, special skills, or knowledge. As jobs have become more
specialized, managers have become increasingly dependent on staff “experts” to achieve the organization’s goals.
If an employee has skills, knowledge, or expertise that’s critical to the operation of a work group, that person’s
expert power is enhanced.

e. Referent power—the power that arises because of a person’s desirable resources or personal traits. Referent power
develops out of admiration of another and a desire to be like that person. If you admire someone to the point of
modeling your behavior and attitudes after him or her, that person has referent power over you.

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