1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the

word
Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (1) ______up about 10 percent of the population - but,
frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right-handed gadgets,
awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand. What (2)
______someone to become a lefthand? Scientists aren’t exactly sure, but research points to a complex
(3) ______between genes and environment While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered,
people who dominantly use their left hands do have more left-handed family members. And researchers
have found different brain wirings in righties vs. lefties. But no matter (4) ______it is that drives
someone to use their antipodal paw, science has also uncovered a particular set of personality traits that
left-handed people tend to have. So for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks
out there - it’s time to brush up on your left-handed knowledge and help (5) ______an end to leftie
discrimination once and for all.
Question 1: A. consist B. account C. hold D. make
Question 2: A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 3: A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D. collaborated
Question 4: A. which B. who C. what D. that
Question 5: A. put B. bring C. make D. take

2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Successful students often do the followings while studying. First, they have an overview before reading.
Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it (which often needs jumping
forward or backward to process information). They also relate important points to one another. Also,
they activate and use their prior knowledge. When they realize that their understanding is not good, they
do not wait to change strategies. Last, they can monitor understanding and take action to correct or “fix
up” mistakes in comprehension.
Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective study skills. They
tend to assume a passive role, in learning and rely on others (e.g., teachers, parents) to monitor their
studying, for example, low-achieving students often do not monitor their understanding of content; they
may not be aware of the purpose of studying; and they show little evidence of looking back, or
employing “fix-up” strategies to fix understanding problems. Students who struggle with learning new
information seem to be unaware that they must extent effort beyond simply reading the content to
understand and remember it. Children with learning disabilities do not plan and judge the quality of
their studying. Their studying may be disorganized. Students with learning problems face challenges
with personal organization as well. They often have difficulty keeping track of materials and
assignments, following directions, and completing work on time. Unlike good studiers who employ a
variety of study skills in a flexible yet purposeful manner, low-achieving students use a restricted range
of study skills. They cannot explain why good study strategies are important for learning; and they tend
to use the same, often ineffective study approach for all learning tasks, ignoring task content, structure
or difficulty.
(Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning — NUI Galway)
Question 6: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Successful and low-academic achieving students
B. Successful learners and their learning strategies
C. Study skills for high school students
D. Effective and ineffective ways of learning
Question 7: The word “prior” in the first paragraph is closest meaning to ______?
A. important B. earlier C. forward D. good
Question 8: According to the passage, what can be learnt about passive students?
A. They depend on other people to organize their learning
B. They are slow in their studying
C. They monitor their understanding
D. They know the purpose of studying
Question 9: Which of the followings is NOT an evidence of monitoring studying?
A. Being aware of the purpose of studying B. Monitoring their understanding of content
C. Fixing up mistakes in understanding D. Looking at their backs
Question 10: According to the passage, to learn new information, low-achieving students do
NOT______.
A. just understand it B. relate it to what they have known
C. simply remember it D. read it
Question 11: In compared with low-achieving students, successful students use______.
A. aimless study techniques B. various study skills
C. restricted strategies D. inflexible study ways
Question 12: The underlined pronoun “They” in the last sentence refers to______.
A. study strategies B. study skills
C. low-achieving students D. good studiers

3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Pollution emitted in industrial areas represents a threat to human health and the surrounding natural
resources. We have a tendency to believe that the production processes are the only source of
environmental damage, and often forget about the possible long-term effects of harmful production
practices. We may think that the closure of these huge industrial areas would improve the quality of the
environment. Unfortunately, this ignores the threat of the remaining waste, which is abandoned and
poorly stored. It represents an even bigger danger because it stands neglected as it degrades and leaks
into the earth without any control at all.
Changes in the water chemistry due to surface water contamination can affect all levels of an ecosystem.
It can affect the health of lower food chain organisms and, consequently, the availability of food up
through the food chain. It can damage the health of wetlands and damage their ability to support healthy
ecosystems, control flooding, and filter pollutants from storm water runoff. The health of animals and
humans are affected when they drink or bathe in contaminated water. In addition water-based
organisms, like fish and shellfish, can pile up and concentrate contaminants in their bodies. When other
animals or humans eat these organisms, they receive a much higher dose of contaminant than they
would have if they had been directly exposed to the original contamination.
Contaminated groundwater can badly affect animals, plants and humans if it is removed from the
ground by manmade or natural processes. Depending on the study of rocks of the area, groundwater
may rise to the surface through springs or seeps, flow sideways into nearby rivers, streams, or ponds, or
sink deeper into the earth. In many parts of fhe world, groundwater is pumped out of the ground to be
used for drinking, bathing, other household uses, agriculture, and industry.
Contaminants in the soil can harm plants when they take up the contamination through their roots.
Eating, breathing in, or touching contaminated soil, as well as eating plants or animals that have piled up
soil contaminants can badly affect the health of humans and animals.
Air pollution can cause breathing-related problems and other bad health effects as contaminants are
absorbed from the lungs into other parts of the body. Certain air contaminants can also harm animals
and humans when they contact the skin. Plants rely on breathing for their growth and can also be
affected by exposure to contaminants moved in the air.
Question 13: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Sources of environmental damage B. The pollution from the city
C. Bad effects of industrial waste D. The quality of the environment
Question 14: According to the passage, the industry is likely to be thought as______.
A. a danger to the environment B. the only source of pollution
C. the utmost harmful activity D. a threat to human health
Question 15: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to______.
A. the remaining waste B. a danger
C. the environment D. the threat of the remaining waste
Question 16: Which of the followings affect an ecosystem as the whole?
A. Surface water contamination B. Soil contamination
C. Groundwater contamination D. Air contamination
Question 17: According to the passage, which of the followings supports healthy ecosystems?
A. Lower food chain organisms B. Animals C. Water-based organisms D. Wetlands
Question 18: Which of the followings is NOT badly affected by contaminated groundwater?
A. Human B. Plants C. Rocks D. Animals
Question 19: Which of the followings is the flow of water from the ground to the surface?
A. Streams B. Ponds C. Rivers D. Springs
Question 20: Which of the followings has the closest meaning to the word “absorbed” in the last
paragraph?
A. Consumed B. Taken in C. Swallowed D. Piled up
Understanding India's Caste System
It has been said that life is what we make of it. In other words, if we work hard and focus on our goals,
we can have great careers and enjoy high status is society. However, these opportunities don‟t exist for
everyone. In some places, the family you are born into will decide almost everything about your life.
India‟s caste system is an example of this.
The caste system is a major part of the Hindu religion that has existed for thousands of years. It is a way
of organizing and grouping people based on the occupation of the family. Castes will determine whom
people can socialize with and their place in society. Originally, a person‟s caste was supposed to be
determined by their personality, but over time it has been linked to their job and family.
There are four classes, also known as varnas, in India‟s caste system. The highest one is Brahmin.
People in this class have jobs in education and religion. These are seen as extremely important functions
for the society as they deal with the knowledge. The second highest level is the Kshatriya, or ruling
class. People from this group can be soldiers, landowners, or have jobs in politics. The class beneath this
is the Vaishya. These people often work in the commercial sector as merchants. The fourth class level is
the Shudra. Shudras typically work as unskilled labourers doing factory or farm work, or they may also
be employed as artists.
There is another group, the Harijan, that is at the bottom and considered to be outside of the caste
system. For many years, they were known as Untouchables, people from this caste held the most
undesirable jobs in society, such as cleaning up garbage. Furthermore, they weren‟t allowed to pray at
public temples or drink water from the same wells as other classes. If someone from another caste came
into contact with an untouchable, they were considered dirty and would be expected to bathe vigorously
to clean themselves. Although the caste system still exists in India, the government is taking steps to
improve the living conditions and decrease unemployment rates for the Shudras and Harijan. This
includes providing better health care, offering literacy programmes, and making sure that people from
higher social classes do not exploit them. It seems unlikely that the caste system will disappear any time
soon, but the overall conditions for those at the bottom do seem to be improving.
21. Which of the following is not true about India‟s caste system?
A. The caste system has been used in India for a long time.
B. The Kshatriya is the second highest class.
C. Hard work helps people move up in the caste system.
D. It is possible that a Shudra would work on a farm.
22. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. the fact that your origin will mostly decide your future
B. the pleasure of life in India
C. the India’s caste system existing for thousands of years
D. the major part of the Hindu religion
23. What is the caste system mainly based on?
A. What a person believes on B. When a person starts school
C. Who a person’s parents are D. Where a person was born
24. What kind of job would a Brahmin likely have?
A. A priest B. A warrior C. An inventor D. A painter
25. What could replace the word “ruling” in paragraph 3?
A. defeating B. guessing C. delaying D. governing
26. All of the following are true about the Harijan EXCEPT that ________.
A. they used to be known as Untouchables
B. they had to do undesirable jobs in society
C. any contact between someone from another caste with an Untouchable was considered
unacceptable
D. anyone from another caste coming to contact with an Untouchable is not allowed to pray at temples
27. What does the passage suggest about the future of the caste system?
A. One day soon it won‟t be used anymore in India.
B. It is probably going to get worse before it gets better.
C. The bottom groups will rise to rule over the top classes.
D. It will likely continue to exist for a long time in India.
5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Throughout the world there are different ways for people to greet each other. In much of the world, a
handshake is the (28) __________ form of welcoming and greeting someone. In many countries around
the Mediterranean Sea a (29) ___________ kiss on the cheek is the appropriate way to welcome friends
and family. It can be a very (30) __________ surprise if you expect to shake hands and get a kiss or a
hug instead.
At times, it is difficult to tell what sort of greeting (31) ___________ is followed. People may bow, grab
another‟s arm or even slap the other person on the back. In some places people just smile, look at the
other‟s face and say nothing.
Most people in the world are tolerant of visitors and don‟t mind what travellers do that seems wrong as
long as the visitors are (32)__________. A big part of the delightfulness of world travel is experiencing
different customs.
28. A.different B.unique C.common D.same
29. A.light B.superficial C.fast D.heavy
30. A.huge B.large C.big D.great
31. A.habit B.routine C.custom D.tradition
32. A.sincere B.truthful C.faithful D.hopeful
6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Humans have struggled against weeds since the beginnings of agriculture. Marring our gardens is one
of the milder effects of weeds – any plants that thrive where they are unwanted. They clog waterways,
destroy wildlife habitats, and impede farming. Their spread eliminates grazing areas and accounts for
one-third of all crop loss. They compete for sunlight, nutrients, and water with useful plants.
The global need for weed control had been answered mainly by the chemical industry. Its herbicides are
effective and sometimes necessary, but some pose serious problems, particularly if misused. Toxic
compounds threaten animal and public health when they accumulate in food plants, groundwater, and
drinking water. They also harm workers who apply them.
In recent years, the chemical industry has introduced several herbicides that are more ecologically
sound. Yet new chemicals alone cannot solve the world‟s weed problems. Hence, scientists are
exploring the innate weed-killing powers of living organisms, primarily insects and microorganisms.
The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans. They can be
chosen for their ability to attack selected targets and leave crops and other plants untouched. In contrast,
some of the most effective chemicals kill virtually all the plants they come in contact with, sparing only
those that are naturally resistant or have been genetically modified for resistance. Furthermore, a
number of biological agents can be administered only once, after which no added applications are
needed. Chemicals typically must be used several times per growing season.
33. With what topic does this passage primarily deal?
 A. The dangers of toxic chemicals.
B. A proposal to ban the use of all herbicides.
C. The importance of the chemical industry.
D. Advantages of biological agents over chemical ones.
34. The word ‘marring’ in bold is closest in meaning to
A. planting B. spoiling C. dividing D. replacing
35. The word ‘clog’ in bold is closest in meaning to
A. drain B. grow along C. obstruct D. float on
36. Which of the following terms does the author define in the first paragraph?
A. grazing area B. weeds C. nutrients D. wildlife habitats
37. Which of the following statements about the use of chemical agents as herbicides would the author
most likely agree?
A. It has become more dangerous recently. B. It is occasionally required.
C. It is safe but inefficient. D. It should be increased.
38. The word ‘innate’ in bold is closest in meaning to
A. effective B. natural C. active D. organic
39. The word ‘applications’ in bold could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. treatments B. requests C. special purposes D. qualifications
40. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. Two possible causes of a phenomenon are compared.
B. A problem is described and possible solutions are discussed.
C. A general idea is introduced and several specific examples are given.
D. A recommendation is analysed and rejected
7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources.
We (41)___ well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is
thrown away. A high proportion of our animal consumption is in the (42)____ of packaging and this
constitutes about seven percent by weight, of our domestic(43) ____ . Almost all of it can be recycled,
but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are
extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(44) ____ than coal and one methodn of
“recovery” strongly (45)____ by plastic manufacturers if the conversion of waste plastic into a fuel.
Question 41. A. consign B. import C. consume D. remove
Question 42. A. form B. way C. type D. kind
Question 43. A. goods B. refuse C. rubble D. requirements
Question 44. A. effect B. degree C. value D. demand
Question 45. A. argued B. presented C. desired D. favored
8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the
FIRST TIME IN THE AIR
When John Mills was going to fly in an aeroplane for the first time, he was frightened. He did not like
the idea of being thousands of feet up in the air. “ I also didn't like the fact that I wouldn't be in control,”
says John.
“I'm a terrible passenger in the car. When somebody else is driving, I tell them what to so. It drives
everybody crazy.”
However John couldn't avoid flying any longer. It was the only way he could visit his grandchildren in
Canada.
“I had made up my mind that I was going to do it, I couldn't let my son, his wife and their three children
travel all the way here to visit me. It would be so expensive for them and I know Tom's business isn't
doing so well at the moment – it would also be tiring for the children – it's a nine-hour flight!” he says.
To get ready for the flight John did lots of reading about aeroplanes. When he booked his seat, he was
told that he would be flying on a Boeing 747, which is better known as a jumbo jet. “I needed to know
as much as possible before getting in that plane. I suppose it was a way of making myself feel better.
The Boeing 747 is the largest passenger aircraft in the world at the moment. The first one flew on
February 9th 1969 in the USA. It can carry up to 524 passengers and 3.400 pieces of luggage. The fuel
for aeroplanes is kept in the wings and the 747 is wings are so big that they can carry enough fuel for an
average car to be able to travel 16,000 kilometres a year for 70 years. Isn't that unbelievable? Even
though I had discovered all this very interesting information about the jumbo, when I saw it for the first
time, just before I was going to travel to Canada, I still couldn't believe that something so enormous was
going to get up in the air and fly. I was even more impressed when I saw how big it was inside with
hundreds of people!”
The biggest surprise of all for John was the flight itself. “The take-off itself was much smoother than I
expected although I was still quite scared until we were in the air. In the end, I managed to relax, enjoy
the food and watch one of the movies and the view from the window was spectacular. I even managed
to sleep for a while! Of course,” continues John, “the best reward of all was when I arrived in Canada
and saw my son and his family, particularly my beautiful grandchildren. Suddenly, I felt so silly about
all the years when I couldn't even think of getting on a plane. I had let my fear of living stop me from
seeing the people I love most in the world. I can visit my son and family as often as I like now!”
Question 46. Why did John Mills fly in an aeroplane?
A. He wanted to go on holiday B. He wanted to try it.
C. He wanted to see his family D. He had to travel on business.
Question 47. Why did John read about aeroplane?
A. He wanted to know how they work. B. It was his hobby.
 C. It made him feel safer. D. He had found a book on them.
Question 48. What happened when he saw the jumbo jet for the first time?
A. He felt much safer. B. He liked the shape of it.
C. He couldn‟t believe how big it was. D. He thought the wings were very small.
Question 49. How did John feel when the aeroplane was taking off?
A. excited B. happy C. sad D. frightened
Question 50. What surprised John most about the flight?
A. that he liked the food. B. that he was able to sleep
C. that there was a movie being shown D. that the view was good
Question 51. How did John feel about his fears in the end?
A. He thought he had wasted time being afraid.
B. He realized it was okay to be afraid.
C. He hoped his grandchildren weren‟t afraid of flying.
D. He realized that being afraid kept him safe.
9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is
very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly
subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas
exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the
noise produced as a by-product of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm,
and detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is,
therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection.
Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed.
Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human
beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and
muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline
released in response to fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally
as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same
way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response
may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health
and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have
long known that hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning
that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise
tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after
birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and
anxiety increase affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking
hours, as well as the way that we interact with each other
Question 52: Which of the following is the author‟s main point?
A. Hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 53: According to the passage, what is noise?
A. A byproduct of technology. B. Physical and psychological harm
C. Congestion.. D. Unwanted sound.
Question 54: Why is noise difficult to measure?
A. All people do not respond to it in the same way
B. It causes hearing loss.
C. It is unwanted.
D. People become accustomed to it.
Question 55: The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ___.
A. hazardous B. crowded C. polluted D. rushed
Question 56: The word it in the first paragraph refers to ___.
A. the quality of life B. advancing technology
C. the noise D. physical and psychological harm
Question 57: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that
they respond to ___.
A. annoyance B. danger C. damage D. disease
Question 58: Look at the verb accelerate in paragraph 3. Which of the following is the closest in
meaning to _____.
A. decrease B. alter C. increase D. release
Question 59: The phrase as well in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___.
A. after all B. instead C. also D. regardless
Question 60: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye ___.
A. responds to fear B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions D. is damaged by noise
10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
EXAMS OR CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT?
 How do you feel when you (61) ______an exam? Do you always succeed in getting all your ideas
down on paper, or do you sometimes feel that you’re (62) ______a mess of it? Apart from those lucky
few who sail through exams, most secondary school (63) ______find them very stressful. Many teachers
are aware of the problems their students face and use a different method for measuring their progress:
continuous assessment. With continuous assessment, students are given various (64) ______to do
through the year. All their marks are added together to produce a total mark at the end of the year.
Students have to take more responsibility for their education because they can’t rely on doing well on just one
day. Also, they have more time to (65) ______ over their work, meaning that they are able to do their best.
Question 61: A. sit B. write C. make D. give
Question 62: A. doing B. making C. having D. taking
Question 63: A. colleagues B. classmates C. perfects D. students
Question 64: A. tasks B. efforts C. achievements D. results
Question 65: A. consider B. imagine C. think D. examine

11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than
speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language.
Human beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years;
but they have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly.
Even today there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well
before we learn to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will
learn to talk: a normal human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a
special effort to learn to write. In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not
acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or
write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter.
One advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that
any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized.
Question 66: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because______.
A. it has become very important in our culture.
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years.
C. writing is secondary to language.
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings.
Question 67: The author of the passage argues that______.
A. all languages should have a written form.
 B. writing has become too important in today’s society.
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write.
D. speech is more basic to language than writing.
Question 68: Normal human beings______.
A. learn to talk after learning to write. B. learn to write before learning to talk.
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time. D. learn to talk before learning to write.
Question 69: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of
______.
A. severely handicapped children. B. people who learn the rudiments of speech.
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write. D. people who speak many languages.
Question 70: According to the author, one mark of any civilized society is that it______.
A. keeps written records. B. affirms the primacy of speech over writing.
C. teaches its children to speak perfectly. D. affirms the primacy of writing over speech.
Question 71: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means______.
A. skill B. rudiments C. domination D. benefit
Question 72: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. It is easy to acquire the writing skill.
B. Writing has become so important in our culture.
C. Writing represents speech, but not perfectly.
D. Speech is essential but writing has important benefits.
12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.
According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which
ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will
fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious
in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very
supportive of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking
him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50
kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his
father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music
competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful
musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they
are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not
win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and
unhappy.
Question 73: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to______.
A. push their child into trying too much. B. help their child to become a genius.
C. make their child become a musician. D. neglect their child’s education.
Question 74: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists.
Question 75: Michael Collins is fortunate in that______.
A. his father is a musician. B. his parents are quite rich.
C. his parents help him in a sensible way. D. his mother knows little about music.
Question 76: The phrase "crazy about" in in the paragraph 3 mostly means______.
A. surprised at B. extremely interested in
C. completely unaware of D. confused about
Question 77: Winston’s parents push their son so much and he______.
A. has won a lot of piano competitions. B. cannot learn much music from them.
C. has become a good musician. D. is afraid to disappoint them.
Question 78: The word "They" in the paragraph 3 refers to______.
A. Michael’s parents B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. concerts
Question 79: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT______.
A. Winston’s father B. Winston’s mother C. Michael’s father D. Michael’s mother
Question 80: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that______.
A. successful parents always have intelligent children.
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children.
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants.
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education.
13. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
I had never been to Denmark before, so when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I little suspected
that by the end of the trip I'd have made such lasting friendships. Esjberg is a (81) ________ port for a
cyclist's arrival, where tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track leads (82)
________ town and down to Ribe, where I spent my first night. The only appointment I had to keep was
a meeting with a friend who was flying out in June. I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a
route which would include several small islands and various parts of the countryside.
In my (83) ________, a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality, and this trip was
no (84) ________. On only my second day, I got into conversation with a cheerful man who turned out to be the
local baker. He insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we were eating, he contacted his
daughter inOdense. Within minutes, he had (85) ________ for me to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on
my way with a fresh loaf of bread to keep me going and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful
holiday.
Question 81: A. capable B. ready C. favorable D. convenient
Question 82: A. in to B. up ward C. out of D. upon
Question 83: A. information B. experience C. knowledge D. observation
Question 84: A. exception B. difference C. change D. contract
Question 85: A. fixed B. ordered C. settled D. arranged
14. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For
employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the
location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines,
when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their
employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million
telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as
significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a
few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many
managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered
across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed,
thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned
that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office
setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never
really get away from the office.
Question 86: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. An overview of telecommuting B. The failure of telecommuting
C. The advantages of telecommuting D. A definition of telecommuting
Question 87: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week B. More than 8 million
C. Fewer than last year D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today
Question 88: The phrase “of no consequence” means ________.
A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant
Question 89: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting EXCEPT
________.
 A. the opportunities for advancement B. the different system of supervision
C. the lack of interaction with a group D. the work place is in the home
Question 90: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
A. telecommuters B. systems C. executives D. responsibilities
Question 91: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees ________.
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
Question 92: The word “reluctant” in line 13 can best be replaced by ________.
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical

15. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and
professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But
students now are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacle. Parents,
who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children writing admission essays to
picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we
can look even more broadly to the social trends of today.
How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number
of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically
in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t
want our children to “suffer”.
The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary
skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some
individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the
growing number of medicated adolescents today.
Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I don’t
believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do
think is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of
life.
What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of
these students – the student who complains that the professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an
assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite
of careful instructions about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we
can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To
encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and
move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to
independent adulthood.
Question 93: According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are
____________.
A. too ready for college B. not as mature
C. not so academic D. responsible for their work
Question 94: The word “handle” in parapgraph 2 mostly means ____________.
A. deal with B. gain benefits from C. lend a hand to D. point at
Question 95: According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to
____________.
A. the absence of parents’ protection B. the lack of parental support
C. the over-parenting from parents D. the lack of financial support
Question 96: The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to ________.
A. studying medicine at college B. doing medical research
C. receiving medical treatment D. suffering anxiety from depression
Question 97: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.
B. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.
C. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.
D. Our society certainly doesn’t want our children to experience unpleasant things.
Question 98: Students who are not well – prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of
life will need ______.
A. to be assigned more housework from adults
B. to be given more social responsibilities
C. to be encouraged to meet challenges
D. daily coaching from their teachers
Question 99: According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will ______.
A. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
B. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
C. defeat students from the very beginning
D. discourage students and let them down forever
Question 100: What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage?
A. Praising B. Indifferent C. Humorous D. Critial
16. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In
this world of diversity, (101) ______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the old
days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse learning areas to
choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like doctor, engineer,
accountant, nurse, teacher,etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to a financially
successful life. (102) ______, the cost of education was not so high. Today’s world is entirely different
from the things (103) ______ have just been described. The job market is constantly changing due to
innovative technology and new (104) ______. Meanwhile, most teenagers have difficulty in identifying
their own interests. There are a variety of well- organized career talks and student counseling workshop
to guide and help teenagers (105) ______ what course to take. Furthermore, psychological tests are also
used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews and computer software can help to find out preferences,
interests, or learning styles of the students.
Question 101: A. taking B. making C. giving D. having
Question 102: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. Therefore
Question 103: A. when B. that C. where D. what
Question 104: A. competitively B. competition C. compete D. competitive
Question 105: A. employ B. study C. decide D. apply

17: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Living things include both the visible world of animals and plants as well as the invisible world
of bacteria and viruses. On a basic level, we can say that life is ordered. Organisms have an enormously
complex organization. Life can also “work”. Living creatures can take in energy from the environment.
This energy, in the form of food, is changed to maintain metabolic processes and for survival. Life
grows and develops. This means more than just getting larger in size. Living organisms also have the
ability to rebuild and repair themselves when injured. Life can reproduce. Life can only come from
other living creatures. Life can respond. Think about the last time you accidentally stubbed your toe.
Almost instantly, you moved back in pain. Finally, life can adapt and respond to the demands placed on
it by the environment. There are three basic types of adaptations that can occur in higher organisms.
Reversible changes occur as a response to changes in the environment. Let's say you live near
sea level and you travel to a mountainous area. You may begin to experience difficulty breathing and an
increase in heart rate as a result of the change in height. These signs of sickness go away when you go
back down to sea level.
Body- related changes happen as a result of prolonged changes in the environment. Using the
previous example, if you were to stay in the mountainous area for a long time, you would notice that
your heart rate would begin to slow down and you would begin to breath normally. These changes are
also reversible. Genotypic changes (caused by genetic change) take place within the genetic make up of
the organism and are not reversible. An example would be the development of resistance to bug-killing
chemicals by insects and spiders.
Question 106: In what way is life organized?.
A. Hard B. Difficult C. Complicated D. Problematic
Question 107: Which of the followings is NOT a feature of life?
A. Getting a job. B. Giving birth.
C. Getting larger and self-repairing. D. Reacting to the environment.
Question 108: What is the energy for the living things called?
A. Food. B. Metabolic process. C. Green energy. D. Environment
Question 109: You see life respond most clearly when you______.
A. unintentionally hurt yourself. B. move part of your body due to threat.
C. look at your toe. D. feel hurt.
Question 110: Which type of living creatures can adapt to the changes in the environment?
A. More visible B. Lower C. Higher D. More human
Question 111: What does the word “Reversible” in the passage mean?
A. Changeable B. Visible C. Fitful D. Irregular
Question 112: Which type of adaptation is permanent?
A. Body- related B. Reversible C. Genotypic D. Environmental

18. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
For many American university students, the weeklong spring break holiday means an endless
party on a sunny beach in Florida or Mexico. In Panama City Beach, Florida, a city with a permanent
population of around 36,000, more than half a million university students arrive during the month of
March to play and party, making it the number one spring break destination in the United States.
A weeklong drinking binge is not for anyone, however, and a growing number of American
university students have found a way to make spring break matter. For them, joining or leading a group
of volunteers to travel locally or internationally and work to alleviate problems such as poverty,
homelessness, or environmental damage makes spring break a unique learning experience that
university students can feel good about.
During one spring break week, students at James Madison University in Virginia participated in
15 “alternative spring break” trips to nearby states, three others to more distant parts of the United
States, and five international trips. One group of JMU students traveled to Bogalusa, Louisiana, to help
rebuild homes damaged by Hurricane Katrina. Another group traveled to Mississippi to organize
creative activities for children living in a homless shelter. One group of students did go to Florida, but
not to lie on the sand. They performed exhausting physical labor such as maintaining hiking trails and
destroying invasive plant species that threaten the native Florida ecosystem.
Students who participate in alternative spring break projects find them very rewarding. While
most university students have to get their degrees before they can start helping people, student
volunteers are able to help people now. On the other hand, the accommodations are far from glamorous.
Students often sleep on the floor of a school or spend the week camping in tents. But students only pay
around $250 for meals and transportation, which is much less than some of their peers spend to travel to
more traditional spring break hotspots.
Alternative spring break trips appear to be growing in popularity at universities across the United
States. Students cite a number of reason for participating. Some appreciate the opportunity to socialize
and meet new friends. Others want to exercise their beliefs about people’s obligation to serve humanity
and make the world a better place whatever their reason, these students have discovered something that
gives them rich rewards along with a break from school work.
(“Active Skills for Reading: Book 2” by Neil J.Anderson – Thompson, 2007)
Question 113: How many university students travel to Panama Beach City every March for spring
break?
A. Around 500,000 B. Around 10,000 C. Around 36,000 D. Around 50,000
Question 114: The article is mainly about______.
A. sleeping on the floor or camping in tents.
B. alternative spring break trips.
C. drinking problems among university students.
D. spring break in Florida and Mexico
Question 115: The word “binge” in the second paragraph probably means______.
A. having very little alcohol. B. refusing to do something.
C. studying for too long. D. doing too much of something.
Question 116: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem that alternative spring break
trips try to help solve?
A. Alcoholism. B. Environmental damage.
C. Poverty. D. Homelessness.
Question 117: Which of the following gives the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. One group of JMU students worked on homes damaged by a hurricane.
B. Some students work to help the environment on alternative spring break trips.
C. Children living in homeless shelters enjoy creative activities.
D. University students do many different types of work on alternative spring break trips.
Question 118: The article implies that university students______.
A. many take fewer alternative spring break trips in future.
 B. would prefer to wait until they have their degrees to start helping people.
C. complain about accommodations on alternative spring break trips.
D. spend more than $250 for traditional spring break trips.
Question 119: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to______.
A. degrees B. projects C. people D. students
Question 120: Which of the following is mentioned as a reason for participating in alternative spring
break trips?
A. The hope of earning money.
B. A personal opinion that people must help other people.
C. A desire to travel to glamorous places.
D. A wish to get away from family and friends.
19. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many African cultures.
In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the family of the bride before the
marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture to culture in Africa. In the Zulu and
Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the form of cattle. In Western African, kola nuts,
shells, and other goods are often used for the payment of the bride price. The actual payment of
money sometimes takes place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The amount of paid in a bride
price can also vary. In modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite small and its value is mainly
symbolic. However, the bride price can still be quite high, especially among prominent or highly
traditional families.

There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that the
bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride's family has gone in order to raise
her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment for the loss of a family
member, since the bride will officially become a member of her husband's family and will leave her
own. On a deeper level the bride price represents payment for the fact that the bride will bring children
into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of the family. This concept is reinforced by
the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the bride fails to bear children.

The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the payment of
bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on their fathers
and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads to greater
levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between the two families concerning the bride price
allow the parents and other family members to meet and get to know one another before the marriage.
Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride's family often works to
make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of wealth
distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the marriage of their son, and
thus their wealth is transferred to other families.
Question 121: According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the bride price EXCEPT ______.
A. its amount and form can vary
B. its practice is occasionally only symbolic
C. it is a relatively new practice in Africa
D. it is generally higher among traditional families
Question 122: Why does the author mention “the payment of money” in paragraph 1?
A. To stress that the use of goods in the payment of bride price is most common.
B. To demonstrate the differences in how rich and poor families pay the bride price.
C. To illustrate how the practice of bride price has changed over time.
D. To demonstrate how expensive a bride price can be sometimes.
Question 123: The word "prominent" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. educated B. important C. religious D. conservative
Question 124: The phrase "The first" in paragraph 2 refers to the first _________.
A. Marriage B. Bride price C. Payment D. Justification
Question 125: It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that African families ________.
A. never see their daughters after marriage
B. pay the bride price on the day of the wedding '
C. place more value on men than women
D. place great importance on childbirth
Question 126: The author uses the word "marital" to indicate that the problems are related to ________.
A. money B. law C. marriage D. pregnancy
Question 127: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Sometimes the bride’s family has to return the bride price to the groom’s for equal distribution of
wealth.
B. The initial negotiations over the birde price provide opportunities for 2 families to meet each other.
C. Animals are not an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride prices.
D. Without having to pay the bride price, African men would not respect their family members.
Question 128: Why are women often married to older men?
A. Young men lack the financial to marry.
B. The legal age for marriage is lower for women than for men.
C. Families are eager to gain the bride price from their daughter’s marriage.
D. Women live longer than men on average.
20. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
SPORTS IN SOCIETY
The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer seem to
think of sports as ‘just a game’ - to be watched or played for the (129) _________ of enjoyment.
Instead, it has become big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading companies
to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to screen important matches or
competitions. The result has been huge rewards for athletes, some of (130) _________ are now very
wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and tennis players.
(131) ________ , it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for
advertising products or making personal appearances.

A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free time, both to
watch and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the recreation industry that we
now rely (132) _________ to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital part of that industry, providing for
millions of (133) _________ people all over the world.
Question 129: A. advantage B. good C. benefit D. sake
Question 130: A. whose B. whom C. who D. that
Question 131: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. Therefore
Question 132: A. for B. with C. on D. in
Question 133: A. ordinary B. mighty C. extremist D. abnormal

21. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
One of the most important social developments that helped to make possible a shift in thinking about the
role of public education was the effect of the baby boom of the 1950's and 1960's on the schools. In the
1920's, but especially in the Depression conditions of the 1930's, the United States experienced a
declining birth rate – every thousand women aged fifteen to forty-four gave birth to about 118 live
children in 1920, 89.2 in 1930, 75.8 in 1936, and 80 in 1940. With the growing prosperity brought on by
the Second World War and the economic boom that followed it, young people married and established
households earlier and began to raise larger families than had their predecessors during the Depression.
Birth rates rose to 102 per thousand in 1946, 106.2 in 1950, and 118 in 1955. Although economics was
probably the most important determinant, it is not the only explanation for the baby boom. The
increased value placed on the idea of the family also helps to explain this rise in birth rates. The baby
boomers began streaming into the first grade by the mid-1940's and became a flood by 1950. The public
school system suddenly found itself overtaxed. While the number of schoolchildren rose because of
wartime and postwar conditions, these same conditions made the schools even less prepared to cope
with the flood. The wartime economy meant that few new schools were built between 1940 and 1945.
Moreover, during the war and in the boom times that followed large numbers of teachers left their
profession for better-paying jobs elsewhere in the economy.
Therefore, in the 1950's and 1960's, the baby boom hit an antiquated and inadequate school system.
Consequently, the "custodial rhetoric" of the 1930's and early 1940's no longer made sense; that is,
keeping youths aged sixteen and older out of the labor market by keeping them in school could no
longer be a high priority for an institution unable to find space and staff to teach younger children aged
five to sixteen. With the baby boom, the focus of educators and of laymen interested in education
inevitably turned toward the lower grades and back to basic academic skills and discipline. The system
no longer had much interest in offering nontraditional, new, and extra services to older youths.
Question 134: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Birth rates in the United States in the 1930's and 1940
B. The impact of the baby boom on public education
C. The role of the family in the 1950's and 1960's
D. The teaching profession during the baby boom
Question 135: The word "it" in paragraph refers to _________.
A. the economic boom B. the Second World War
C. the 1930s D. the United States
Question 136: The word "overtaxed" in line 14 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. changed too much B. plentifully supplied C. heavily burdened D. well prepared
Question 137: The public school of the 1950's and 1960's faced all of the following problems
EXCEPT _________.
A. an inadequate number of school buildings B. old-fashioned facilities
C. a shortage of teachers D. a declining number of students
Question 138: According to the passage, why did teachers leave the teaching profession after the
outbreak of the war?
A. Teaching positions were scarce. B. They were dissatisfied with the curriculum.
C. Other jobs provided higher salaries. D. They needed to be retrained.
Question 139: The word "inevitably" in parapraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. unavoidably B. impartially C. irrationally D. unwillingly
Question 140: Which of the following best characterizes the organization of the passage?
A. The second paragraph provides a fictional account to illustrate a problem presented in the first
paragraph.
B. The second paragraph argues against a point made in the first paragraph.
C. The second paragraph introduces a problem not mentioned in the first paragraph.
D. The second paragraph presents the effect of circumstances described in the first paragraph.
22. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
CHESS
Chess, often (141)______ to as the Royal Game, is the oldest of all board games which do not contain an
element of chance.
The origins of chess are uncertain, (142)______ there are a number of legends regarding its invention.
One story says that it was King Solomon who invented chess, another that it was the Greek god
Hermes, and yet another that the Chinese mandarin Han-Sing was responsible for its creation. In fact,
chess almost certainly originated in India in the sixth or seventh century AD. The game’s popularity
then spread quickly through Persia (now known as Iran) and from there came to Europe. The first
documented reference to chess in literature is in a Persian romance which was written about 600 AD.
It is (143)_______ the word ‘chess’ comes from ‘shah’, the Persian word for ‘king’ and that
‘checkmate’, the game’s winning (144)_______, comes from the phrase ‘shah mat’, (145)______ ‘the
king is dead’.
The rules and pieces used in the game have undergone changes over the centuries. Modem chess owes much
to the Spaniard Lopez de Segura, who in 1561 wrote the first book on how to play the game. In it, he introduced
the concept of ‘castling’, which had not been part of the game until then.
Question 141: A. mentioned B. called C. known D. referred
Question 142: A. despite B. nevertheless C. although D. however
Question 143: A. believed B. imagined C. held D. taken
Question 144: A. place B. stand C. go D. move
Question 145: A. representing B. suggesting C. intending D. meaning
23. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Rain pounded down on the roof. I was trying to read but the sound was too loud. I couldn’t help myself
from being a little grumpy. I wanted to be outside playing, but the rain was keeping me inside.
My mom had gone to the grocery store, and my dad was spending Saturday at the office. I had planned to
spend the day hiking, but Mother Nature decided that today was the perfect day for rain.
It meant that I would have to entertain myself. I spent most of the morning playing with my stuffed
animals and reading. I was sitting next to the window staring out when I got a strange idea: why not just
go outside anyway?
I put on my boots and a big raincoat and stepped out into the wet world. It was raining hard but it
wasn’t cold. All I could hear were raindrops and the wind. I decided to go on my hike anyway.
My feet didn’t make any sound on the wet ground and the forest seemed different. I went to my
favourite place and sat down. In the summer, my best friend Ellen and I would come here and sit for
hours. It was our special place. All of a sudden, I thought I heard someone shouting my name. I turned
and saw Ellen walking up behind me.
“Oh my Gosh! It’s really you, Martha!” she said. “I can’t believe that you are out here right now. I thought
I would be the only person crazy enough to go for a walk in the rain.”
I was very happy to have some company. We decided that hiking in the rain was just as fun as hiking in
the sunshine. We planned on hiking in the rain again.
Question 146: What is the best title for the story?
A. Rainy Day Work B. Rainy Day Hike
C. A Rainy Day Indoors D. Rainy Day Homework
Question 147: The word “grumpy” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. stupid B. bad-tempered C. uninterested D. unsatisfactory
Question 148: What was keeping Martha inside?
A. The heat B. Her parents C. Bad weather D. Lots of homework
Question 149: What does Martha mean when she says “It meant that I would have to entertain myself”?
A. She was tire D. B. She was feeling sick.
C. She had to find something to do. D. She was bored with doing homework.
Question 150: The word “company” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. time B. space C. friend D. business
Question 151: What did Martha think about being outside?
A. It was too hot. B. It was too cold.
C. It was very nice. D. It was too wet to walk.
Question 152: What will Martha and Ellen probably do next time it rains?
A. Stay inside B. Do homework
C. Go for another hike D. Go to their friend’s house
24. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Life in the Universe
Exobiology is the study of life that originates from outside of Earth. As yet, of course, no such life
forms have been found. Exobiologists, however, have done important work in the theoretical study of
where life is most likely to evolve, and what those extrateưestrial life forms might be like.
What sorts of planets are most likely to develop life? Most scientists agree that a habitable planet must
be terrestrial, or rock-based, with liquid surface water and biogeochemical cycles that somewhat
resemble Earth’s. Water is an important solvent involved in many biological processes. Biogeochemical
cycles are the continuous movement and transformation of materials in the environment. These cycles
include the circulation of elements and nutrients upon which life and the Earth’s climate depend. Since
(as far as we know) all life is carbon-based, a stable carbon cycle is especially important.
The habitable zone is the region around a star in which planets can develop life. Assuming the need for
liquid surface water, it follows that most stars around the size of our sun will be able to sustain
habitable zones for billions of years. Stars that are larger than the sun are much hotter and bum out
more quickly; life there may not have enough time to evolve. Stars that are smaller than the sun have
different problem. First of all, planets in their habitable zones will be so close to the star that they
will be “tidally locked” – that is one side of the planet will always face the star in perpetual
daylight with the other side in the perpetual night. Another possible obstacle to life on smaller stars
is that they tend to vary in their luminosity, or brightness, due to flares and “star spots”. The variation
can be large enough to have harmful effects on the ecosystem.
Of course, not all stars of the right size will give rise to life; they also must have terrestrial planets with
the right kind of orbits. Most solar systems have more than one planet, which influence each other’s
orbits with their own gravity. Therefore, in order to have a stable system with no planets flying out into
space, the orbits must be a good distance from one another. Interestingly, the amount of space needed is
roughly the width of a star’s habitable zone. This means that for life to evolve, the largest possible
number of life-supporting planets in any star’s habitable zone is two.
Finally, not all planets meeting the above conditions will necessarily develop life. One major threat is
large, frequent asteroid and comet impacts, which will wipe out life each time it tries to evolve. The
case of Earth teaches that having large gas giants, such as Saturn and Jupiter,.in the outer part of the
solar system can help keep a planet safe for life. Due to their strong gravitation, they tend to catch or
deflect large objects before they can reach Earth.
Question 153: What is the topic of the passage?
A. The search for intelligent life B. Conditions necessary for life
C. Characteristics of extraterrestrial life D. Life in our solar system
Question 154: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as necessary for the development of life
except
A. rock B. carbon C. oxygen D. water
Question 155: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. star B. zone C. region D. planet
Question 156: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that
A. the Earth is in the sun’s habitable zone B. the Earth is tidally locked to the sun
C. the sun varies in its luminosity D. variations in luminosity help life to develop
Question 157: The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. assist B. have C. need D. experience
Question 158: In order for life to develop, a planet’s orbit must not be
A. stable
B. very close to another planet’s orbit
C. on the same planet as another planet’s orbit
D. less wide than the star’s habitable zone
Question 159: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that
A. most stars have more than two planets in their habitable zones
B. no star has more than two planets in its habitable zone
 C. it is not possible for a star to have three planets with life on them
D. for life to develop, a star must have at least two planets in its habitable zone
Question 160: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage?
A. Because of their nearness, habitable planets orbiting smaller stars usually have either constant
daylight or constant night.
B. The habitable zones of small stars are so close to the star that planets within them do not spin.
C. One problem with some stars is that their habitable zones are tidally locked into either light or
darkness.
D. Some stars become tidally locked, so that they only shine light on one side of a planet.
25. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate
In 1972. a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone,
legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation
was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as
national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just
as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their
environments may not be harmed or removed.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were
proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had
been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less
than 1 square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey
Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which
whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection
from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine
species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist
among these species.
Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The
National Estuarine Research Reserve System managed by the United States government, includes 23
designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as
marine parks, reserves and preserves.
Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-
known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand
and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state,
national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine
biodiversity, marine projected areas whether as sanctuaries,parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an
increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.
Question 161: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves
B. Various marine conservation programs
C. International agreements on coastal protection
D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments
Question 162: The word “administered” the passage is closest in meaning to ……
A. managed B. recognized C. opposed D. justified
Question 163: The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in paragraph 2 as an
example of a sanctuary that ….
A. is not well known
B. covers a large area
C. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary
D. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status
Question 164: According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established?
A. Before 1972
B. After 1987
C. One hundred years before national parks were established
D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established
Question 165: According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine
Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT …..
A. the discovery of several new marine organisms
B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species
C. the protection of coastal habitats
D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life
Question 166: The word “periphery” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. depth B. landmass C. warm habitat D. outer edge
Question 167: The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the
United States?
A. Limitations in financial support B. The use of marine species as food
C. Variability of the climate D. Increases in tourism
26. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to
In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy
available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat
their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more
efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in
lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off more intensive heat than wood and was more easily
obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century,
but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and
other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as
wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available
supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and
European countries was obtained from wood. However, at he beginning of the 20th century, coal
became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions
and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more
concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of
fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal
and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very
important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the
commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from
nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels,
such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy
from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity.
The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and
transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than
public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that
will have to be replaced.
Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The
extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor
consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large scale extractions are
presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is
complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that
carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the material.
However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and
limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive.
Question 168: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Application of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical review of energy rates
Question 169: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
 A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples
B. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions
C. the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process
D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental
Question 170: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were
A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combination
C. not derived from mineral deposits D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 171: The phrase “the latter” refers to
A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones
Question 172: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. it was a concentrated source of energy.
B. it was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. it replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.
D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 173: It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy was obtained
primarily from
A. Fossil fuels B. Nuclear fission
C. Hydraulic and solar sources D. Burning biomass
Question 174: The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are curently
A. being used for consumption B. available in few locations
C. being explored D. examined on a large scale
Question 175: The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to
A. prohibited B. provided C. too expensive D. too expedient
27. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a
machine that would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work
could be (176) ________ by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors And
they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex It has never been
one job it has always been many. A factor robot (177) ________ one task endlessly until it is
reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot on the other
hand, has to do several different (178) ________ of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope
(179) ________ all the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs.
(180) ________, there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate
objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software-
the programs that will operate the machine.
Question 176: A. managed B. succeeded C. made D. given
Question 177: A. carries over B. carries out C. carries off D. carries away
Question 178: A. systems B. types C. ways D. methods
Question 179: A. from B. with C. by D. for
Question 180: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover

Part 28: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
New cycling schemes
The County Council has decided to give a higher (181)______ to cycling and agreed a new strategy to
guide the way ahead in East Sussex.
Cycling is a (182) ______, healthy and environmentally friendly form of transport. It is (183) ______ to
make it safer, more convenient, and to increase the proportion of journeys made by bicycle.
Cycling is being encouraged both for utility purposes (such as journeys to work, school and the shops)
and for recreation trips for exercise and enjoyment, including longer trips by tour. Recent cycle
schemes carried out in conjunction with District Councils and other bodies (184) ______ the Brighton
and Hove seafront route and the Cross Levels Way cycle route, in Eastbourne.
Local people will be consulted as the strategy is implemented. The County council will work with local
cycling and other groups, and a countrywide Cycling Forum will be formed to (185) ______ that all
bodies concerned with cycling are in regular (186) ______ .
The (187) ______ of the Cycling strategy are given in a leaflet, and a copy of the full strategy document
can be seen in County Council Public Libraries.
Question 181: A. advantage B. benefit C. priority D. income
Question 182: A. low-cost B. dangerous C. shortcut D. high-speed
Question 183: A. written B. convinced C. spoken D. intended
Question 184: A. consist B. include C. improve D. participate
Question 185: A. improve B. ensure C. maintain D. assert
Question 186: A. basis B. touch C. contact D. account
Question 187: A. rights B. cyclists C. objectives D. vehicles

Part 29: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
The days of the camera-toting tourist may be numbered. Insensitive travelers are being ordered to stop
pointing their cameras and camcorders at reluctant local residents. Tour companies selling expensive
trips to remote corners of the world, off the well-trodden path of the average tourist, have become
increasingly irritated at the sight of the visitors upsetting locals. Now one such operator plans to ban
clients from taking any photographic equipment on holidays. Julian Mathews is the director of
Discovery Initiatives, a company that is working hand-in-hand with other organizations to offer
holidays combining high adventure with working on environmental projects. His trips are not cheap;
two weeks of white-water rafting and monitoring wildlife in Canada cost several thousand pounds.
Matthews says he is providing 'holidays without guilt', insisting that Discovery Initiatives is not a tour
operator but an environmental support company. Clients are referred to as 'participants' or
'ambassadors'. 'We see ourselves as the next step on from eco-tourism, which is merely a passive form.
of sensitive travel - our approach is more proactive.'
However, says Matthews, there is a price to pay. 'I am planning to introduce tours with a total ban on
cameras and camcorders because of the damage they do to our relationships with local people. I have
seen some horrendous things, such as a group of six tourists arriving at a remote village in the South
American jungle, each with a video camera attached to their face. That sort of thing tears me up inside.
Would you like somebody to come into your home and take a photo of you cooking? A camera is like a
weapon; it puts up a barrier and you lose all the communication that comes through body language,
which effectively means that the host communities are denied access to the so-called cultural exchange.'
Matthews started organizing environmental holidays after a scientific expedition for young people. He
subsequently founded Discovery Expeditions, which has helped support 13 projects worldwide. With
the launch of Discovery Initiatives, he is placing a greater emphasis on adventure and fun, omitting in
the brochure all references to scientific research. But his rules of conduct are strict. 'In some parts of the
world, for instance, I tell people they should wear long trousers, not shorts, and wear a tie, when eating
out. It may sound dictatorial, but I find one has a better experience if one is well dressed. I don't
understand why people dress down when they go to other countries.'
Matthews' views reflect a growing unease among some tour companies at the increasingly cavalier
behaviour of well-heeled tourists. Chris Parrott, of Journey Latin America, says: 'We tell our clients that
indigenous people are often shy about being photographed, but we certainly don't tell them not to take
a camera. If they take pictures without asking, they may have tomatoes thrown at them.' He also reports
that increasing numbers of clients are taking camcorders and pointing them indiscriminately at locals.
He says: 'People with camcorders tend to be more intrusive than those with cameras, but there is a
payoff - the people they are filming get a tremendous thrill from seeing themselves played back on the
viewfinder.'
Crispin Jones, of Exodus, the overland truck specialist, says: 'We don't have a policy but, should
cameras cause offence, our tour leaders will make it quite clear that they cannot be used. Clients tend to
do what they are told.
Earthwatch, which pioneered the concept of proactive eco-tourism by sending paying volunteers to
work on scientific projects around the world, does not ban cameras, but operates strict rules on their
use. Ed Wilson, the marketing director of the company, says: 'We try to impress on people the common
courtesy of getting permission before using their cameras, and one would hope that every tour operator
would do the same. People have to be not only environmentally aware but also culturally aware. Some
people use the camera as a barrier; it allows them to distance themselves from the reality of what they
see. I would like to see tourists putting their cameras away for once, rather than trying to record
everything they see.'
Question 188: The word ‘indigenous’ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. timid B. native C. ignorant D. impoverished
Question 189: Which of the following does Chris Parrott believe?
A. Local people may react angrily towards tourists who use cameras
B. Tourists are becoming more sensitive about their use of cameras.
C. Camcorders always cause more trouble with local people than cameras
D. Tourists are unlikely to agree to travel without their cameras.
Question 190: In the first paragraph we learn that Discovery Initiatives
A. organizes trips to places where few tourists go
B. offers trips that no other tour company offers
C. has decided to respond to its customers’ complaints
D. has already succeeded in changing the kind of tourist it attracts
Question 191: Which of the following best summarizes the view of Earthwatch?
A. There are more problems concerning the use of cameras these days.
B. Cameras enable people to be detached from places they visit.
C. Too many tour operators ignore the problems caused by cameras.
D. Most tourists realize when they have caused offence to local people.
Question 192: The word ‘courtesy’ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. dignity B. politeness C. nobility D. elite
Question 193: What does Matthews say in paragraph 3 about cameras and camcorders?
A. They prevent local people from learning about other societies.
B. They encourage holidaymakers to behave unpredictably.
C. They discourage holidaymakers from intruding on local people.
D. They give local people a false impression of holidaymakers.
Question 194: What is Matthews keen for clients to realize?
A. that the brochure does not contain all the information they need.
B. that certain behavior may spoil their enjoyment of a trip.
C. that it is likely that they will not be allowed in certain places.
D. that they may find certain local customs rather surprising.
Part 30: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two
decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest
known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological
diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to
recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues
to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth’s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and
in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In
most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems
through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two
centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the
course of evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The
extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have
also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme
conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and
it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering
the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that
it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to
biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical
changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation
within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may
be able to survive in new environments.
Question 195: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
B. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests
C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments
D. The impact of human activities on Earth’s ecosystems
Question 196: The word “critical” is closest in meaning to
A. complicated B. interesting C. negative D. essential
Question 197: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize
that
A. the cause of the dinosaurs’ extinction is unknown
B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species’ extinction
C. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
D. Earth’s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs’extinction
Question 198: The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to
A. shocking B. unknown C. illuminating D. predicted
Question 199: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the
world’s ecosystems EXCEPT
A. habitat destruction in wetlands
B. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
C. damage to marine ecosystems
D. destruction of the tropical rain forests
Question 200: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.
B. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.
C. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.
D. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems.
31. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
The Forbidden City is the former imperial palace in the center of Beijing, China. Construction began in
1406, and the emperor's court officially moved in by 1420. The Forbidden City got its name because
most people were barred from entering the 72-hectare site, surrounded by walls. Even government
officials and the imperial family were permitted only limited access. Only the emperor could enter any
section at will.
The architecture of the Forbidden City conforms rigidly to traditional Chinese principles. All buildings
within the walls follow a north-south line and the most important ones face south to honor the sun. The
designers arranged the other buildings, and the ceremonial spaces between them, to impress all visitors
with the great power of the Emperor, while reinforcing the insignificance of the individual. This
architectural concept was carried out to the smallest detail. For example, the importance of a building
was determined not only by its height or width but also by the style of its roof and the quantity of
statuettes placed on the roof’s ridges.
In recognition of the importance of its unparalleled architecture, UNESCO added the palace to its
World Heritage List in 1987. Today, visitors from all over the world do not wait for an imperial
invitation to walk about this palace, now a museum of imperial art.
One of the most impressive landmarks of the Forbidden City is the Meridian Gate, the formal entrance
to the southern side of the Forbidden City. The gate, with its auxiliary wings on either side of the
entryway, is 38 meters high at its roof ridge. When you stand in front of this majestic structure, you
understand how awed people felt when they stood there listening to imperial proclamations.
As you walk through the gate, you come into a large courtyard, 140 meters long and 210 meters wide.
Running through the courtyard is the Golden River, which is crossed by five parallel white marble
bridges. These bridges lead to the Gate of Supreme Harmony, which, in turn, leads to the heart of the
Forbidden City. At the northernmost end of the Forbidden City is the Imperial Garden, which is totally
different from the rest of the compound. Instead of rigid formality, you see a seemingly spontaneous
arrangement of trees, fishponds, flowerbeds, and sculpture. Here is the place of relaxation for the
emperor.
Question 201: According to the passage, what do the bridges over the Golden River lead to?
A. The Meridian gate B. The Gate of Supreme Harmony
C. The Imperial Gardens D. The center of Beijing
Question 202: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word 'unparalleled' as used in paragraph 3?
A. high quality found nowhere else B. at an angle from the main line
C. careless of small details in design D. partially designed in a foreign country
Question 203: From the passage, it is implied that the main entrance area to the Forbidden City is
A. not very impressive B. surrounded by three tall walls
C. decorated with statuettes D. painted gold and green
Question 204: Which word(s) does the word 'its' refer to in paragraph 3?
A. Architecture B. World Heritage List C. Palace D. UNESCO
Question 205: Which word or phrase is closest in meaning to the word "spontaneous"?
A. Without thinking B. Unique C. Without planning D. Strange
Question 206: From the passage, it can be inferred that
A. Chinese architects borrowed ideas from many different countries
B. the garden of the Forbidden City was laid out in a strict, rectangular pattern.
C. the design of the Forbidden City is dull and colorless.
D. the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese values.
Question 207: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “proclamations”?
A. Poetry written for the emperor. B. Music composed for public ceremonies.
C. Speeches encouraging soldiers to fight. D. Official public announcements.
Question 208: Which sentence in the first paragraph explains who could go anywhere in the Forbidden
City at any time?
A. Sentence 2 B. Sentence 5 C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 3
32. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and patients
undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided into
platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once
every two months. Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves
taking the blood from a donor’s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a
plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate, which prevents the blood from
clotting. When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected to the
recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may
last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from
being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this
helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease causing bacteria. Negative
reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be sensitive to
donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell incompatibility. Unexplained reactions
are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative reactions include
contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system through
administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets. Today, hospitals and blood
banks go to great lengths to screen alt blood donors and their blood. All donated blood is routinely and
rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or
an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and
the white blood cells and platelets removed. Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To
freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze the, the glycerolis removed. The
ability to store blood for long periods has been a boon to human health.
Question 209: All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT
A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes B. Air bubbles in the blood
C. Allergies D. Red-cell incompatibility
Question 210: What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by?
A. irradiated B. rigorously C. routinely D. removed
Question 211: According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells?
A. Every four months B. Every three month
C. Every two months D. Every month
Question 212: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to
infants and newborns?
A. It is treated with radiant energy. B. It is not treated differently from adults.
C. It is not dangerous for children. D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults.
Question 213: The word "it" refers t
A. surgical procedures B. accident victims
C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients
Question 214: What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”?
A. not illustrated B. not captured C. not found D. not wanted
Question 215: What does the author imply in the passage?
A. Motoring blood benefits mankind. B. Clotting cannot be prevented.
C. Freezing blood destroys platelets. D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.
33. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist. Although a fewwell-known
ones, like Harry Potter author J. K. Rowling, have become wealthy, most writers find it difficult even to
make a living from their book sales. Novels take a long time towrite, and authors can get into financial
(216) _____ if they don’t have money coming in regularly from another job. But for those determined to
write novels, it is without (217)______ one of the most enjoyable kinds of work to do. The writer has to be
creative, thinking up completely new stories, and (218) _____, meaning they put all their time and effort
into their work. They also need to be able to cope in a crisis, as nobody else can write their book for them.
For this, a good sense of (219)______ often helps. Or the thought that maybe their novel might one day be
turned into a film and become a Hollywood (220) _____!
Question 216: A. problem B. trouble C. upset D. worry
Question 217: A. difficulty B. suspicion C. thinking D. doubt
Question 218: A. deliberate B. delivered C. decided D. dedicated
Question 219: A. hoping B. humor C. smiling D. joking
Question 220: A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. victory
34. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
The world is losing languages at an alarming rate. Michael Krauss suggested that of the approximately
6,000 human languages alive today, only 350 to 500 are safe from extinction. Some linguists estimate that a
language dies every two weeks or so. At the current rate, by 2100, about 2,500 native languages could
disappear.
Languages become extinct for many reasons. Through imperialism, colonizers impose their languages on
colonies. Some politicians believe multilingualism will fragment national interests. Thus they prohibit
education in all but the national language. Another reason for language death is the spread of more
powerful languages. In the world today, several languages, including English, are so dominant in
commerce, science, and education, that languages with fewer speakers have trouble competing.
Although in the past, governments have been one of the primary causes of language death, many have now
become champions of preserving endangered languages and have had some significant successes. Two
outstanding examples are the revival of Hebrew and Irish. Hebrew was considered a dead language, like
Latin, but is now the national language of Israel. Irish was not dead, but severely threatened by English
when the government of Ireland began its rescue immediately after the establishment of the Irish Free State
in 1922. All students in public schools must now take some classes in Irish and there are Irish programs in
major media, such as television and radio. According to the Irish government, approximately 37% of the
population of Ireland now speaks Irish.
One of the largest programs to revive languages, Documenting Endangered Languages (DEL), is being
conducted by three U.S. government agencies: the National Science Foundation, the National Endowment
for the Humanities, and the National Museum of Natural History. Researchers funded by these agencies are
recording interviews with the mostly elderly people who still speak the languages. Analyses of these
interviews will help linguists publish dictionaries and grammars of the languages. Eventually, linguists
hope to establish language-training programs where younger people can learn the languages, carrying them
on into the future.
The linguists participating in DEL defend spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages. They
point out that when a language dies, humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world that that culture held.
Traditional healers in rural areas have given scientists important leads in finding new medicines; aspirin is
an example of these. But one of the most common reasons given by these researchers is that studying
languages gives us insight into the radically different way humans organize their world. David Lightfoot, an
official at the National Science foundation, gives the example of Guguyimadjir, and Australian aboriginal
language, in which there are no words for “right” or left,” only for “north,” “south,” “east,” and “west.”
Many researchers are optimistic that the efforts to save dying languages will succeed, at least in part. Bruce
L. Cole, Chairman of the National Endowment for the Humanities, said, “Not only is this a time of great
potential loss, it is also a moment for enormous potential gain. In this modern age of computers and our
growing technological capabilities, we can preserve, assemble, analyze, and understand unprecedented
riches of linguistic and cultural information.”
Question 221: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Similarities between Engendered Species
B. Preserving Endangered Languages
C. Linguistic Globalization
D. How Languages Die and Efforts to Revive Them
Question 222: According to the passage, which language is a dead language?
A. Irish B. English C. Hebrew D. Latin
Question 223: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that ______.
A. It is the Governments that make the right policies on language preservation.
B. No governments can preserve languages once they have disappeared.
C. Governments are more concerned with their imperialism than language preservation.
D. Governments take education as the tool to spread their languages.
Question 224: The word “revive” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. bring in B. bring back C. regain D. retain
Question 225: According to the passage, what would linguists in the DEL project like to do someday?
A. Record interviews with elderly people
B. Get funding from the government
C. Teach endangered languages to young people
D. Write a dictionary and grammar for Irish
Question 226: The word “these” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. dying languages B. traditional healers C. important leads D. new medicines
Question 227: David Lightfoot gives the example of Guguyimadjir in order to ______.
 A. protest against spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages
B. describe how humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world through dead languages
C. prove that languages give us insight into different ways humans organize their world
D. show how language preservation helps traditional healers in rural areas find new medicines
Question 228: How would you describe Bruce Cole’s opinion of the DEL project?
A. He thinks that we will lose the fight to save endangered languages.
B. He believes that it isn’t worth the time and energy required to save languages.
C. He believes we can save significant amounts of information about languages.
D. He thinks that we will be able to save Guguyimadjir, the aboriginal language.
35. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
We all want to live in a clean and green world and breathe pollution free air. For this kind of
environment we desperately need a fossil fuel free world. Scientists are toiling hard to come up
(229)______ alternative fuels which can replace conventional fuels. One such study was presented at
the 237th National Meeting of the American Chemical Society. This study throws interesting light on
the first economical, eco-friendly process to (230)______ algae oil into biodiesel fuel. The scientists are
quite hopeful that one day America will become independent (231)______ fossil fuels. Ben Wen is the
(232)______ researcher and vice president of United Environment and Energy LLC, Horseheads, N.Y.
According to him, “This is the first economical way to produce biodiesel from algae oil. It costs much
less than conventional processes because you would need a much smaller factory, there (233)______ no
water disposal costs, and the process is considerably faster.”
Question 229: A. to B. against C. with D. for
Question 230: A. adapt B. transform C. modify D. alter
Question 231: A. on B. from C. with D. of
Question 232: A. lead B. top C. summit D. peak
Question 233: A. were B. are C. had D. have

36. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 234 to 240.
Rome is the capital of Italy. This sprawling modern city has many ancient monuments. Rome’s history
goes back more than 2,500 years. Because of its age, Rome is often called the Eternal City. Rome’s
many art treasures and historic buildings make the city an important center of European culture.
In ancient times, Rome was the center of a mighty Roman empire. The empire lasted nearly 500 years,
into the ad 400s. Roman armies conquered the lands that are now Italy, Greece, Great Britain, France,
and Egypt. The Romans built many roads from Rome to distant parts of their empire. This network of
roads led to a saying that “All roads lead to Rome.” The Roman Empire’s influence is still present. The
Romans spread their language, Latin, throughout Europe. Latin is the basis for Italian, French, Spanish,
and other European languages.
The ancient Romans were great builders. Several of their buildings still stand today. They are among
Rome’s famous landmarks.The Pantheon is a temple dedicated to the many Roman gods of mythology.
The Roman Colosseum is a four-story amphitheater. An amphitheater is like a football stadium. The
Colosseum is where Roman citizens once watched gladiators fight to the death. The Roman Forum was
the political center of ancient Rome. The senate building and law courts were there, along with shops
and religious buildings.
Many artists painted in Rome. The most famous of them is Michelangelo. He lived 500 years ago.
Thousands of people visit Rome each year to see his art. Visitors to the Vatican stare in wonder at the
beautiful murals that Michelangelo painted on the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel. The murals show scenes
from the first book of the Bible, the Book of Genesis.
Vatican City is the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church. The pope lives at the Vatican. He is the
head of the Catholic Church. There are more than a billion Catholics worldwide, making Roman
Catholicism the largest Christian religion. Vatican City is an independent country within Rome. It is the
smallest country in the world.
Question 234: Rome is called the Eternal City because ______.
A. it is over thousands of years old B. it is sprawling modern
C. it has many ancient monuments D. its history goes too far away
Question 235: Rome is made an important center of European culture ______.
A. by the country of Italy B. with its long history
C. by its art treasures and historic buildings D. for its many ancient monuments
Question 236: The word “mighty” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. powerful B. great C. strong D. wealthy
Question 237: The author mentions the Pantheon, the Roman Colosseum, and the Roman Forum as
______.
A. great builders B. famous landmarks C. gods of mythology D. Roman citizens
Question 238: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ______.
A. the Pantheon is a famous landmark building in modern Rome
B. Roman citizens watched gladiators fight to the death in the Colosseum
C. important political decisions were made in the Roman Forum
D. the Roman Colosseum is an amphitheater with four floors
Question 239: The word “murals” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. Bible books B. walls C. paintings D. Bible stories
Question 240: According to the passage, what is NOT true about Vatican City?
A. It is the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church.
 B. It is the largest Christian religion area in the world.
C. It is an independent country within Rome.
D. It is where the head of the Catholic Church lives.
37. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
On April 3, 1972, a man came out of the Hilton hotel in Manhattan and started walking down the street.
He stopped, (241)______ his hand with a strange object in it, put it to his ear and started to talk into it.
This was the beginning of mobile phone (242)_______, more than 30 years ago. That man was
Motorola's project manager, Martin Cooper, who was (243)______ his 34th birthday that day. The
strange object was the first mobile phone, which was nicknamed "the shoe" because of its unusual
(244)_______. Mr. Cooper had gone to New York to introduce the new phone. The first call he made
was to his rival, Joe Engel at AT&T's research centre. Engel was responsible for the development of the
radiophones for cars. "I called him and said that I was talking on a real mobile phone (245)_____ I was
holding in my hand," said Cooper. "I don't remember what he said in reply, but I'm sure he wasn't
happy." The quality of the call was very good, because although New York had only one base station at
that time, it was being used by only one user - Martin Cooper.
Question 241: A. pulled B. raised C. lifted D. rose
Question 242: A. past B. times C. history D. story
Question 243: A. making B. driving C. expecting D. celebrating
Question 244: A. kind B. shape C. type D. symbol
Question 245: A. that B. when C. as D. how

38. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Most of the early houses built in America were suited to farm life, as it was not until cities became
manufacturing centers that colonists could survive without farming as their major occupation. Among
the earliest farmhouses in America were those built in Plymouth Colony. Generally they consisted of
one large rectangular room on the ground floor, called a hall or great room and having a fireplace built
into one of the walls, and a loft overhead. Sometimes a lean-to was attached alongside the house to store
objects such as spinning wheels, firewood, barrels, and tubs. The furnishings in the great room were
sparse and crudely built. Tabletops and chest boards were split or roughly sawed and often smoothed
only on one side. Benches took the place of chairs, and the table usually had a trestle base so it could be
dismantled when extra space was required. One or two beds and a six-board chest were located in one
corner of the room. The fireplace was used for heat and light, and a bench often placed nearby for
children and elders, in the area called the inglenook.
The original houses in Plymouth Colony were erected within a tall fence for fortification. However, by
1630 Plymouth Colony had 250 inhabitants, most living outside the enclosure. By 1640, settlements had
been built some distance from the original site. Villages began to emerge throughout Massachusetts and
farmhouses were less crudely built. Windows brought light into homes and the furnishings and décor
were more sophisticated.
As more diversified groups of immigrants settled the country, a greater variety of farmhouses appeared,
from Swedish long-style houses in the Delaware Valley to saltbox houses in Connecticut, Dutch-
Flemish stone farmhouses in New York, and clapboard farmhouses in Pennsylvania. From Georgian
characteristics to Greek revival elements, farmhouses of varied architectural styles and building
functions populated the landscape of the new frontier.
Question 246: The main idea of the passage is
A. The history of the American farmhouse B. Where immigrants settled in America
C. How to build an American farmhouse D. life in Plymouth Colony
Question 247: Which of the following is not mentioned as part of the furnishings in farmhouses?
A. Rocking chair B. Bench C. Trestle- based table D. Six - board chest
Question 248: According to the passage the earliest farmhouses were built in
A. Delaware Valley B. Massachusetts C. Connecticut D. Pennsylvania
Question 249: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. trestle base B. space C. table D. chest board
Question 250: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. the major occupation in Plymouth Colony was carpentry
B. sophisticated tools were available to the early immigrants
C. cloth was important from England
D. the extended family lived together in the farmhouse
Question 251: The passage was most probably written by a specialist in American
A. urban planning B. farming C. architecture D. immigration
Question 252: The word “emerge” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced with
A. proceed B. settle C. come out D. appear
39. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked
down one after another of the microbes responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries:
tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But there remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could
be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets, beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were
caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The diseases could be prevented or cured
by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the 1920's and 1930's,
nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters.
In the 1940's and 1950's, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health.
They discovered that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as
coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells with energy for growth and function. Now,
these enzyme hunters occupied center stage.
You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking
genes - the blueprints for each of the enzymes - and are discovering the defective genes that cause
inherited diseases - diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant
DNA technology to identify and clone genes and introduce them into bacterial cells and plants to create
factories for the massive production of hormones and vaccines for medicine and for better crops for
agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibilliondollar industry.
In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the
spotlight. When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our
waning century and in the early decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the
spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the
funtions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will return to them later.
Question 253: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The microbe hunters. B. The potential of genetic engineering.
C. The progress of modern medical research. D. The discovery of enzymes.
Question 254: The word “incriminated’ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. blamed B. eliminated C. investigated D. produced
Question 255: Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet?
A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. Cystique fibroses D. Pell Agra
Question 256: The word “strived” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. studied B. tried C. experimented D. failed
Question 257: How do vitamins influence health?
A. They protect the body from microbes
B. They are broken down by cells to produce energy
C. They keep food from spoiling
D. They are necessary for some enzymes to function
Question 258: The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. go to furthest B. lighten to load
C. conquer territory D. receive the most attention
Question 259: The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be
A. the functions of the brain B. inherited diseases
C. the operation of vitamins D. the structure of genes
Question 260: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Most diseases are caused by defective genes
B. The focus of medical research will change in the next two decades.
 C. Medical research throughout the twentieth century has been dominated by microbe hunters.
D. Medical breakthroughs often depend on luck.
40. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that best
HOLIDAYS
We've just come back exhausted after a two-week holiday in France. We were really stupid. On the last
day we drove non-stop from Marseille to Calais- we should have(261)_____ our journey in Lyon or
Paris. As if that wasn't enough, the sea was so rough in the English Channel that the (262) _____ took
three hours instead of one and a half. Next year we've decided we're going on a cheap (263) _____
holiday to Italy. It sounds marvellous- the cost of the flight, the hotel and all our meals are (264) _____
in the price. While we're in Rome we'll be going on a guided tour of the Coliseum. The last time I was
in Italy, I was on a business trip - I can't say I saw many of the famous tourist (265) _____ on that
occasion
Question 261: A. stopped B. paused C. broken D. interrupted
Question 262: A. expedition B. crossig C. cruise D. passage
Question 263: A. party B. package C. overall D. inclusive
Question 264: A. included B. involved C. contained D. combined
Question 265: A. views B. visit C. scenes D. sights

41. Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their
knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils.
It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on
both the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of
the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one
aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full,
not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that
mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning.
In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the
opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to
cope with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and
evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and assignments, they can
do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We
encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this
effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We
expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this
goal.
Question 266: The phrase "held back" in paragraph 1 means_________.
A. made to lag behind B. prevented from advancing
C. forced to study in lower classes D. made to remain in the same classes
Question 267: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the pupils’
_________
A. intellectual abilities B. learning ability and communicative skills
C. personal and social skills D. total personality
Question 268: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities
B. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others
C. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability
D. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers
Question 269: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to ______.
A. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
B. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class
C. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
Question 270: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full
B. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work
C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class
D. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different intellectual
abilities
Question 271: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching?
A. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class
B. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own
C. Formal class teaching is the important way to give pupils essential skills such as those to be used
in the library.
D. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development
Question 272: According to the passage, “streaming pupils” ______
A. is the act of putting pupils into class according to their academic abilities
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
C. is quite discouraging
D. will help the pupils learn best
Question 273: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because _______
A. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems
B. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils
C. its aim at developing the children’s total personality
D. formal class teaching is appropriate
42. Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well
placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets
apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter’s less than 10 hour
rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal planets are
concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the
orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and
color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it
may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of
Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past century
the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very close to
-22°. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter’s outer
gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a
phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well due to its exceptional size, but there are
signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen
occasionally but have not lasted.
Question 274: It can be inferred from the passage
A. a day on Earth is shorter than a day on Jupiter
B. there are other structures on Jupiter that has the same size as the Great Red Spot
C. there are times when Great Red Spot cannot be observed from the earth
D. the Great Red Spot is the only structure on Jupiter
Question 275: According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars
Question 276: According to the passage, the Great Red Spot________.
A. has different colors B. is as big as the earth
C. is a solid structure floating in the air D. has increased its size over the years
Question 277: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color
Question 278: The word “exceptional” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______
A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent
Question 279: According to the passge, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all the other planest in the solar system.
B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long.
C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally.
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become other Great
Red Spots.
Question 280: The passage was probably taken from________
A. an art journal B. a geology magazine
C. a high school textbook D. an archaeology book

43. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Although the “lie detectors” are being used by governments, police departments, and businesses that all
want guaranteed ways of detecting the truth, the results are not always accurate. Lie detectors are
properly called emotion detectors, for their aim is to measure bodily changes that contradict what a
person says. The polygraph machine records changes in heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and the
electrical activity of the skin (galvanic skin response, or GSR). In the first part of the polygraph test, you
are electronically connected to the machine and asked a few neutral questions (“What is your name?”,
“Where do you live?”). Your physical reactions serve as the standard (baseline) for evaluating what
comes next. Then you are asked a few critical questions among the neutral ones (“When did you rob the
bank?”). The assumption is that if you are guilty, your body will reveal the truth, even if you try to deny
it. Your heart rate, respiration, and GSR will change abruptly as you respond to the incriminating
questions.
That is the theory; but psychologists have found that lie detectors are simply not reliable. Since most
physical changes are the same across all emotions, machines cannot tell whether you are feeling guilty,
angry, nervous, thrilled, or revved up form an exciting day. Innocent people may be tense and nervous
about the whole procedure. They may react physiologically to a certain word (“bank”) not because they
robbed it, but because they recently bounced a check. In either case the machine will record a “lie”. The
reverse mistake is also common. Some practiced liars can lie without flinching, and others learn to beat
the machine by tensing muscles or thinking about an exciting experience during neutral questions.
Question 281: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Lie detectors distinguish different emotions
B. Physical reaction reveal guilty
C. Lie detectors make innocent people nervous
D. How lie detectors are used and their reliability
Question 282: According to the test, polygraph ________.
A. measure a person’s thoughts B. always reveal the truth about a person
 C. make guilty people angry D. record a person’s physical reactions
Question 283: According to the passage, what kind of questions is asked on the first part of the polygraph
test?
A. incriminating B. critical C. emotional D. unimportant
Question 284: The word “ones” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. questions B. reactions C. standards D. evaluations
Question 285: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. the question B. your body C. the assumption D. the truth
Question 286: The word “assumption” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with _____.
A. belief B. faith C. statement D. imagining
Question 287: This passage was probably written by a specialist in _____.
A. sociology B. anthropology C. criminal psychology D. mind reading

44. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Pollution is a threat to many species on Earth, but sometimes it can cause species to thrive. Such is the
case with Pfiesteria piscicida. A one-celled creature called a dinoflagellate, Pfiesteria inhabits warm
coastal areas and river mouths, especially along the eastern United States. Although scientists have
found evidence of Pfiesteria in 3,000-year-old sea floor sediments and dinoflagellates are thought to be
one of the oldest life forms on earth, few people took notice of Pfiesteria.
Lately, however, blooms – or huge, dense populations – of Pfiesteria are appearing in coastal waters,
and in such large concentrations the dinoflagellates become ruthless killers. The blooms emit powerful
toxins that weaken and entrap fish that swim into the area. The toxins eventually cause the fish to
develop large bleeding sores through which the tiny creatures attack, feasting on blood and flesh. Often
the damage is astounding. During a 1991 fish kill, which was blamed on Pfiesteria on North Carolina’s
Neuse River, nearly one billion fish died and bulldozers had to be brought in to clear the remains from
the river. Of course, such events can have a devastating effect on commercially important fish, but that
is just one way that Pfiesteria causes problems. The toxins it emits affect human skin in much the same
way as they affect fish skin. Additionally, fisherman and others who have spent time
near Pfiesteria blooms report that the toxins seem to get into the air, where once inhaled they affect the
nervous system, causing severe headaches, blurred vision, nausea, breathing difficulty, short-term
memory loss and even cognitive impairment.
For a while, it seemed that deadly Pfiesteria blooms were a threat only to North Carolina waters, but
the problem seems to be spreading. More and more, conditions along the east coast seem to be favorable
for Pfiesteria. Researchers suspect that pollutants such as animal waste from livestock operations,
fertilizers washed from farmlands and waste water from mining operations have probably all combined
to promote the growth of Pfiesteria in coastal waters.
Question 288: What is true of Pfiesteria?
A. It seems to flourish in the presence of certain pollutants
B. It has been a menace to fish and humans for over 3000 years.
C. It is the oldest life form on earth
D. In large concentrations, it poses a threat to fish but not to humans.
Question 289: What is the main function of the toxins emitted by the dinoflagellates?
A. They are quick-acting poisons that kill fish within minutes.
B. They weaken the fish just long enough for the tiny creatures to attack
C. They damage the nervous system of potential predators.
D. They cause fish to develop wounds on which creatures feed.
Question 290: The word “astounding” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. continual B. incredible C. spectacular D. apprehensive
Question 291: What were bulldozers used for in the Neuse River?
A. cleaning up the sediment at the bottom of the river
B. excavating holes to bury the dead fish
C. scooping up the vast number of dead fish in the water
D. removing the huge amount of Pfiesteria from the river
Question 292: According to the paragraph 2, what will NOT happen if one breathes the toxic air?
A. vomiting B. visual impairments
C. circulatory difficulty D. terrible headaches
Question 293: What is especially worrying about Pfiesteria blooms?
A. Conditions are becoming increasingly favourable for their spread
B. They are fatal to humans who come in contact with them
C. They have devastated the fishing industry in U.S coastal waters
D. Researchers have no idea as to exactly what causes them
Question 294: All of the following are true, according to the passage, EXCEPT _____
A. Pfiesteria caused the death of about one billion fish in the late 1990s
B. animal and chemical waste from farmlands, livestock and mining operations may contribute to the
expansion of Pfiesteria
C. Pfiesteria was not commonly noticed despite scientific findings
D. the toxic subtances emitted by Pfiesteria have a similar effect on human and fish skins
Question 295: In which environment would you NOT expect a Pfiesteria bloom to develop?
A. a marsh which absorbs waste water from a nearby pig farm
B. a river located near a rock quarry
C. a cool mountain lake teeming with fish
D. a river that flows through rich farmland
45. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One thing
you have to be aware of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who
would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your (296) ______ to achieve a
certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching
your target, and let the constructive criticism have a positive effect on your work. If someone says
you’re totally in the (297)_______ of talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If, (298)________,
someone advises you to revise your work and gives you a good reason for doing so, you should consider
their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of work . There are many
famous novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel – or who didn’t, but had to keep on
approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it (299)_______. Being successful does
depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to (300)_______ well if you persevere and
stay positive.
Question 296: A. thought B. mind C. idea D. brain
Question 297: A. absentee B. missing C. lack D. shortage
Question 298: A. hence B. however C. whereas D. otherwise
Question 299: A. publishes B. published C. to publish D. publish
Question 300: A. deal with B. turn out C. sail through D. come into

46. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions
Simply being bilingual doesn’t qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a mechanical
process of converting one sentence in language A into the same sentence in languageb. Rather, its a
complex art in which thoughts and idioms that have no obvious counterparts from tongue to tongue _ or
words that have several meanings must be quickly transformed in such a way that the message is clearly
and accurately expressed to the listener.
At one international conference, an American speaker said, “You cant make a silk purse out of a sows
ear”, which meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, “A monkey in a silk dress is
still a monkey” _ an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed the same idea.
There are 2 kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a separated booth,
usually at a large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing headphones, interpreting what a
foreign language speaker says _ actually a sentence behind. Consecutive interpreters are the ones most
international negotiations use. They are employed for smaller meetings without sound booths and
headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires two-person teams. A foreign speaker says his piece
while the interpreter, using a special shorthand, takes notes and during a pause, tells the client what was
said.
Question 301: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters.
B. To state the qualifications of an interpreter.
C. To point out the importance of an interpreter.
D. To explain the scope of interpreting.
Question 302: What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous interpreter and a consecutive
interpreter?
A. The size of group with whom they work. B. Their proficiency in the language.
C. The type of dictionary they use. D. The money they are paid.
Question 303: The word “converting” is closest in meaning to…
A. changing B. concluding C. understanding D. reading
Question 304: The author implies that most people have the opinion that the skill of interpreting is …..
A. very complex and demanding B. based on principles of business
C. simpler than it really is D. highly valued and admired
Question 305: The phrase “the former“ refers to…
A. simultaneous interpreters B. the conference
C. consecutive interpreters D. the booth
Question 306: The example “You cant make a silk purse out of a sows ear” is used to...
A. point out the difference in attributes of animals in English and Spanish
B. emphasize the need for translation of the meaning of what is said
C. show the differences in language A and language B
D. stress the importance of word for word translation
Question 307: The word “rather” is closest in meaning to….
A. in brief B. on the contrary C. in general D. as a result
Question 308: Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be used for?
A. An interpretation of a major literary work.
B. A business transaction between 2 foreign speakers.
C. A large meeting of many nations.
D. A translation of a foreign book.
47. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can't find the
energy to get out of bed (309) ________ for school? According to a new report, today's generation of
children are in danger of getting so (310)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical
health at (311)_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night,
(312)_______teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters
(313)________ anything between two and five hours' sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
By Tim Falla and Paul A.Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 309: A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at time
Question 310: A. few B. less C. much D. little
Question 311: A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger
Question 312: A. or B. because C. whereas D. so
Question 313: A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes
48. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very
different types of flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and rays, relatives of
the sharks have become flat in what might be called the obvious way. Their bodies have grown out
sideways to form great “wings” They look as though they have been flattened but have remained
symmetrical and “the right way up”. Conversely fish such as plaice, sole, and halibut have become flat
in a different way. There are bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a vertical
direction; they are much “taller” than they are wide. They use their whole vertically flattened bodies as
swimming surfaces, which undulate through the water as they move. Therefore when * their ancestors
migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies. However, this raises the problem that
one eye was always looking down into the sand and was effectively useless - In evolution this problem
was solved by the lower eye “moving” around the other side. We see this process of moving around
enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish. It starts life swimming near the surface, and is
symmetrical and vertically flattened, but then the skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical twisted
fashion, so that one eye for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, an old Picasso -
like vision. Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on the left, and others
on either side.
Question 314: The passage is mainly concerned with:
A. symmetrical flatfish B. bony flatfish
C. evolution of flatfish D. different types of flatfish
Question 315: The author mentions skates and rays as examples of fish that ____
A. become asymmetrical B. appear to fly
C. have spread horizontally D. resemble sharks
Question 316: It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is_____
A. often confusing B. pretty normal C. very difficult D. full of danger
Question 317: It can be inferred from the passage that horizontal symmetrical fish _____
A. have one eye each side of the head B. have one eye underneath the head
C. have two eyes on top of the head D. have eyes that move around the head
Question 318: The word “conversely” is closest in meaning to:
A. Similarly B. Alternatively C. Inversely D. Contrarily
Question 319: The word “this” refers to_____
A. the migration of the ancestors
B. the practice of lying on one side
C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards
D. the difficulty of the only one eye being useful
Question 320: According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is______
A. average B. weak C. excellent D. variable

49. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was
still studying at university and I was only able to work a few nights a week.
I came across the advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were
yesterday. The (321) ________ manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which
surprised me because all I wanted was to work in sales. An hours later, I was told that I had got the job
and was given a contract to go over. I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a
member of staff, I was (322) ______ to some benefits, including discounts.
When I eventually started, I was responsible (323) _______ the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and
I loved demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They
made working there fun even when we had to deal with customers (324) ______ got on our nerves.
(325) _______, working there was a great experience which I will never forget.
Question 321: A. personal B. personable C. personage D. personnel
Question 322 A. catered B. given C. entitled D. supplied
Question 323: A. for B. with C. in D. to
Question 324: A. which B. why C. when D. who
Question 325: A. In contrast B. However C. Moreover D. On the whole

50. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to
use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones
are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and
connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried.
Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of
mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies
are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile
phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use
mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern
scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious
memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son.
This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for
a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't
agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines
can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that
there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often.
Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really
need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future,
mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not
to use your mobile phone too often.
Question 326: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. doctors B. ideas C. professionals D. companies
Question 327: The phrase “negative publicity” in paragraph 2 most likely means _______.
A. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
B. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
C. the negative public use of cellphones
D. widespread opinion about bad effect of cellphones
Question 328: According to the passage, cellphones are very popular with young people because _______.
A. they make them look more stylish
B. they are worrying
C. they are a means of communication
D. they are considered unusual
Question 329: What could be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Technological Innovations and Their Price
B. The Way Mobile Phones Work
C. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
D. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular
Question 330: The word “potentially” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _______.
A. possibly B. privately C. obviously D. certainly
Question 331: According to the passage, people should _______.
A. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
 B. never use mobile phones in all cases
C. only use mobile phone in urgent cases
D. keep off mobile phones regularly
Question 332: According to paragraph 3, the salesman _______.
A. couldn’t remember his name B. blamed his doctor
C. had a problem with memory D. had to retire because of his age

51. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
TRAVELING TO WORK
If you were going to choose a job that involves travel, what would be your first choice? There are many
jobs available today that give people opportunities to travel. Although may traveling careers sound
fantastic, they also have disadvantages.
 Being an au pair is an excellent way to not only go to different countries, but to live in different
places around the world and really get a feel for the culture. Au pairs lives with the families they
are placed with and take of children. Many parents include au pairs in family events and
vacations, so they experience many aspects of the new culture while on the job. However, many
of the activities are centered around the children, so they may not get to experience many things
that interest adults.
 For people who want a bit more freedom working abroad, being an English teacher maybe a
good choice. There are English teaching jobs in almost countries in the world. People teaching
English in other countries often have a chance to travel on the weekends around the country.
One drawback is that many teachers often wind up hanging out with other English teachers, and
they don’t have time to learn the country’s language.
 The nickname “roadie” implies that this job involves life on the road. Roadies are people who
work and travel with bands and provide technical support. Roadies can be lighting and stage
crew who set up the stage and break it down before and after events. They can also be
technicians helping band members with their instruments. International tours take a band’s crew
to cities around the world, often requiring air travel. However, the crew doesn’t get much time
off, so they may travel to several countries without seeing much besides concert venues and
hotels.
 Similarly, flight attendants often travel to cities around the world, but they don’t see much
besides the inside of airplanes and hotels. However, when they do have time off, they can often
fly at no cost, and family member can sometimes fly free as well. Its is widely thought that a
flight attendant job is glamorous, but flight attendants must deal with travel hassles, as well as
security issues.
  All jobs gave advantages and disadvantages whether or not you travel for work, so if you have
the travel bug, keep these jobs in mind for the future.
Question 333: Which of the following is a disadvantage of the job as an au pair?
A. experience many interesting things B. live in different places around the world
C. experience many aspects of the new culture D. most activities are centered around children
Question 324: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Jobs with opportunities to travel B. Disadvantages of travelling jobs
C. Travelling to and from work D. Jobs involving traveling by planes
Question 335: The word “glamorous” in paragraph 5 is closet in meaning to _______.
A. skilled B. attractive C. permanent D. challenging
Question 336: How is a flight attendant’s job similar to a roadie’s?
A. Family members may not have to pay for flights
B. They must deal with travel hassles.
C. A lot of time is spent indoors.
D. They provide technical support.
Question 337: The word “venue” in paragraph 4 is closet meaning to _______?
A. performances B. places C. tours D. artists
Question 338: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _______?
A. people B. opportunities C. careers D. disadvantages
Question 339: Which of the following is something a roadie might do?
A. set up the lights for a performance
B. play the guitar in front of a large audience
C. clean hotel rooms after the ban and crew have left
D. work on the road
Question 340: It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. travelling careers have more disadvantages than many other
B. English teachers abroad don’t know the language of the country where they work
C. it’s essential that the job you choose have more benefits than drawbacks
D. people who want to travel are more likely to get a job

52. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
A considerable body of research has demonstrated a correlation between birth order and aspects such as
temperament and behavior, and some psychologists believe that birth order significantly affects the
development of personality. Psychologist Alfred Adler was a pioneer in the study of the relationship
between birth order and personality. A key point in his research and in the hypothesis that he developed
based on it was that it was not the actual numerical birth position that affected personality; instead, it
was the similar responses in large numbers of families to children in specific birth order positions that
had an effect. For example, first-borns, who have their parents to themselves initially and do not have to
deal with siblings in the first part of their lives, tend to have their first socialization experiences with
adults and therefore tend to find the process of peer socialization more difficult. In contrast, later-born
children have to deal with siblings from the first moment of their lives and therefore tend to have
stronger socialization skills.
Numerous studies since Adler’s have been conducted on the effect of birth order and personality. These
studies have tended to classify birth order types into four different categories: first-born, second-born
and/or middle, last, and only child.
Studies have consistently shown that first-born children tend to exhibit similar, positive and negative
personality traits. First-borns have consistently been linked with academic achievement in various
studies; in one study, the number of National Merit scholarship winners who are first-borns was found
to be equal to the number of second-and third-borns combined. First-borns have been found to be more
responsible and assertive than those born in other birth-order positions and tend to rise to positions of
leadership more often than others; more first-borns have served in the U.S. Congress and as U.S.
presidents than have those born in other birth-orderpositions. However, studies have shown that first-
borns tend to be more subject to stress and were considered problem children more often than later-
borns.
Second-born and/or middle children demonstrate markedly different tendencies from first-borns. They
tend to feel inferior to the older child or children because it is difficult for them to comprehend that their
lower level of achievement is a function of age rather than ability, and they often try to succeed in areas
other than those in which their older sibling or siblings excel. They tend to be more trusting, accepting,
and focused on others than the more self-centered first-borns, and they tend to have a comparatively
higher level of success in team sports than do first-borns or only children, who more often excel in
individual sports.
The last-born child is the one who tends to be the eternal baby of the family and thus often exhibits a
strong sense of security. Last-borns collectively achieve the highest degree of social success and
demonstrate the highest levels of self-esteem of all the birth-order positions. They often exhibit less
competitiveness than older brothers and sisters and are more likely to take part in less competitive group
games or in social organizations such as sororities and fraternities.
Only children tend to exhibit some of the main characteristics of first-borns and some of the
characteristics of last-borns. Only children tend to exhibit the strong sense of security and self-esteem
exhibited by last-borns while, like first-borns, they are more achievement oriented and more likely
than middle-or last-borns to achieve academic success. However, only children tend to have the most
problems establishing close relationships and exhibit a lower need for affiliation than other children.
Question 341: The word “body” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by________.
 A. amount B. organization C. corpse D. skeleton
Question 342: The word “key” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by________.
A. secret B. studied C. significant D. locked
Question 343: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to________.
A. component B. research C. hypothesis D. personality
Question 344: What is stated in paragraph 1 about Adler?
A. He had found that the responses by family members had little to do with personality.
B. He believed that it was the actual birth order that affected personality.
C. He was one of the first to study the effect of birth order on personality.
D. He was the only one to study birth order.
Question 345: Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the italic sentence in
paragraph 3?
Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Because first-borns tend to be very assertive, they are uncomfortable serving in government
positions.
B. Several examples support the idea that first-borns have characteristics that make them leaders.
C. An interesting fact that is difficult to explain is that many first-borns have served in high
government positions.
D. In spite of certain characteristics that first-borns possess, many of them become leaders.
Question 346: The word “accepting” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to________.
A. respectable B. affectionate C. admissible D. tolerant
Question 347: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Middle children tend to have a preference for team sports.
B. First-borns tend to do well in individual sports.
C. Only children tend to prefer individual over team sports.
D. Last-borns tend to prefer games with fierce competition.
Question 348: The phrase “more achievement oriented” in the paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
________.
A. more skilled as leaders
B. more aware of surroundings
C. more directly involved
D. more focused on accomplishments
53. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
An important point to remember if you like spending time out in the open air is that the human head
doesn’t work very well outdoors if it becomes too hot, cold or wet. That’s why a hat is a good
investment, whenever you are planning to go out and about. Surprisingly, a single waterproof hat with a
brim will do the (349)______ adequately in most conditions.
In cold climates, the problem is that the head is (350)______ heat all the time. As much as fifty to sixty
per cent of your body’s heat is lost through the head and neck, (351)______ on which scientist you
believe. Clearly this heat loss needs to be prevented, but it’s important to remember that hats don’t
actually keep you warm, they simply stop heat escaping.
Just as important is the need to protect your neck from the effects of bright sunlight, and the brim of
your hat will do this. If you prefer a baseball cap, (352)______ buying one that has a drop down ‘tail’ at
the back to stop your neck getting sunburnt.
And in wet weather (353)______, hats are often more practical than pooling up the hood of your
waterproof coat because when you turn your head, the hat goes with you, whereas the hood usually does
not.
Question 349: A. role B. duty C. job D. task
Question 350: A. giving away B. sending out C. running down D. dropping off
Question 351: A. regarding B. relating C. depending D. according
Question 352: A. advise B. suggest C. recommend D. consider
Question 353: A. conditions B. cases C. occasions D. positions

54. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Certainly no creature in the sea is odder than the common sea cucumber. All living creature, especially
human beings, have their peculiarities, but everything about the little sea cucumber seems unusual. What
else can be said about a bizarre animal that, among other eccentricities, eats mud, feeds almost
continuously day and night but can live without eating for long periods, and can be poisonous but is
considered supremely edible by gourmets?
For some fifty million years, despite all its eccentricities, the sea cucumber has subsisted on its diet of
mud. It is adaptable enough to live attached to rocks by its tube feet, under rocks in shallow water, or on
the surface of mud flats. Common in cool water on both Atlantic and Pacific shores, it has the ability to
such up mud or sand and digest whatever nutrients are present.
Sea cucumbers come in a variety of colors, ranging from black to reddish-brown to sand-color and
nearly white. One form even has vivid purple tentacle. Usually the creatures are cucumber-shaped-
hence their name-and because they are typically rock inhabitants, this shape, combine with flexibility,
enables them to squeeze into crevices where they are safe from predators and ocean currents.
Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea cucumbers have the capacity to
become quiescent and live at a low metabolic rate-feeding sparingly or not at all for long periods, so that
the marine organisms that provide their food have a chance to multiply. If it were not for this faculty,
they would devour all the food available in a short time and would probably starve themselves out of
existence.
But the most spectacular thing about the sea cucumber is the way it defends itself. Its major enemies are
fish and crabs, when attacked, it squirts all its internal organs into the water. It also casts off attached
structures such as tentacles. The sea cucumber will eviscerate and regenerate itself if it is attached or
even touched; it will do the same if the surrounding water temperature is too high or if the water
becomes too polluted.
Question 354: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Places where the sea cucumber can be found
B. The reason for the sea cucumber’s name
C. How to identify the sea cucumber
D. What makes the sea cucumber unusual
Question 355: The word “bizarre” is closest meaning to
A. rare B. simple C. marine D. odd
Question 356: The fourth paragraph of the passage primarily discusses
A. the eating habits of sea cucumbers
B. the food sources of sea cucumbers
C. the reproduction of sea cucumbers
D. threats to sea cucumbers’ existence
Question 357: According to the passage, why is the shape of sea cucumbers important?
A. It makes them attractive to fish
B. It helps them to protect themselves from danger.
C. It helps them to digest their food.
D. It makes it easier for them to move through the mud.
Question 358: The phrase “casts off” is closest in meaning to
A. gets rid of B. grows again C. grabs D. uses as a weapon
Question 359: The words “this faculty” refers to the sea cucumber’s ability to
A. live at a low metabolic rate
B. squeeze into crevices
C. devour all available food in a short time
D. suck up mud or sand
Question 360: What can be inferred about the defense mechanisms of the sea cucumber?
A. They are very sensitive to surrounding stimuli.
B. They are almost useless.
C. They are similar to those of most sea creatures.
D. They require group cooperation.
55. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Thunderstorms, with their jagged bursts of lightning and roaring thunder, are actually one of nature’s
primary mechanisms for transferring heat from the surface of the earth into the atmosphere. A
thunderstorm starts when low-lying pockets of warm air from the surface of the earth begin to rise. The
pockets of warm air float upward through the air above that is both cooler and heavier. The rising pockets
cool as their pressure decreases, and their latent heat is released above the condensation line through the
formation of cumulus clouds.
What will happen with these clouds depends on the temperature of the atmosphere. In winter, the air
temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is not extremely great, and the temperature
of the rising air mass drops more slowly. During these colder months, the atmosphere, therefore, tends
to remain rather stable. In summer, however, when there is a high accumulation of heat near the earth’s
surface, in direct contrast to the considerably colder air higher up, the temperature differential between
higher and lower altitudes is much more pronounced. As warm air rises in this type of environment, the
temperature drops much more rapidly than it does in winter; when the temperature drops more than 4
degrees Fahrenheit per thousand feet of altitude, cumulus clouds aggregate into a single massive
cumulonimbus cloud, or thunderhead.
In isolation, a single thunderstorm is an impressive but fairly benign way for Mother Earth to defuse
trapped heat from her surface; thunderstorms, however, can appear in concert, and the resulting show,
while extremely impressive, can also prove extraordinarily destructive. When there is a large-scale
collision between cold air and warm air masses during the summer months, a squall line, or series of
thunderheads, may develop. It is common for a squall line to begin when an advancing cold front meets
up with and forces itself under a layer of warm and moist air, creating a line of thunderstorms that races
forward at speeds of approximately forty miles per hour. A squall line, which can be hundreds of miles
long and can contain fifty distinct thunderheads, is a magnificent force of nature with incredible
potential for destruction. Within the squall line, often near its
southern end, can be found supercells, long-lived rotating storms of exceptional strength that serve as
the source of tornadoes.
Question 361: The topic of the passage is ________.
A. the development of thunderstorms and squall lines
B. the devastating effects of tornadoes
C. cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds
D. the power of tornadoes
Question 362: The word “mechanisms” in paragraph 1 is most likely ________.
A. machines B. motions C. methods D. materials
Question 363: It can be inferred from the passage that, in summer, ________.
A. there is not a great temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes
 B. the greater temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes makes thunderstorms more
likely to occur
C. there is not much cold air higher up in the atmosphere
D. the temperature of rising air drops more slowly than it does in winter
Question 364: The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. harmless B. beneficial C. ferocious D. spectacular
Question 365: The expression “in concert” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ________.
A. as a chorus B. with other musicians
C. as a cluster D. in a performance
Question 366: The word “itself” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. a large-scale collision B. a squall line
C. an advancing cold front D. a layer of warm and moist air
Question 367: All of the following are mentioned in the passage about supercells EXCEPT that they
________.
A. are of short duration B. have circling winds
C. have extraordinary power D. can give birth to tornadoes
Question 368: This reading would most probably be assigned in which of the following courses?
A. Geography B. Meteorology C. Marine Biology D. Chemistry

56. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying,
smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of
fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor
named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an
American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods
and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans
had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines
that mass-produced cans from tinplate.
Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets.
Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more
produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances
and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy
southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for
up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables.
As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation
had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox
became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the
1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were
heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families
could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more
varied fare.
Question 369: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
D. Population movements in nineteenth century
Question 370: The phrase “in season” in paragraph 1 refers to
A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food
Question 371: The word “prevent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. estimate B. avoid C. correct D. confine
Question 372: During the 1860’s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas B. shipped in refrigerator cans
C. available in limited quantities D. a staple part of the American diet
Question 373: It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
Question 374: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances
Question 375: The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. decreased in number B. were on an irregular schedule
C. increased in cost D. occurred only in the summer
correct word(s) to each of the questions
Last year, there were millions of international tourist arrivals across the globe. Whether they were
students on their (376)______ years looking for overseas adventure, stressed-out workers hoping to get
away for a weekend, or retirees (377)______ to relax in an exotic location- clearly none of them thought
they could find the same experience at home. The question is whether foreign travel brings more
advantages or disadvantages.
An obvious positive point is that going abroad sometimes helps people to expand their knowledge of the
world. If they are (378)_____ - minded, they can learn about new cultures and hopefully gain a more
accurate understanding about their way of life. In addition, there is the economic benefit of tourism to
countries which have few other resources. It can provide an income to many people within the industry.
Having said that, some people simply go to a foreign resort (379)______ by high walls and therefore
learn little about their holiday (380)______. Another issue is that hordes of tourists often spoil the
“unspoilt” places they visit. The most recent example of this is Antarctica, where last year cruise ships
took thousands of visitors to view the disappearing icebergs and wildlife. Vegetation, nesting penguins
and resting walrus are vulnerable
when humans intrude.
Question 376: A. space B. break C. pause D. gap
Question 377: A. wish B. wished C. wishing D. to wish
Question 378: A. open B. narrow C. absent D. single
Question 379: A. covered B. surrounded C. sheltered D. stopped
Question 380: A. direction B. destination C. departure D. situation

58. Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein.
His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and
gravity. Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television
as a practical application of Einstein's work.
In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published
the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement,
the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the
photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of
energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and some of the
properties of waves. A third paper contained the "special theory of relativity" which showed that time
and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same
everywhere in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of
relativity. Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy mass
equivalence. In 1916, Einstein published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is
not a force, but a curve in the space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass.
Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He
opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in
Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the
United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein
wrote to President Franklind. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to
Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb
research.
Question 381: According to the passage l, Einstein's primary work was in the area of
A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. math
Question 382: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application
of Einstein's discoveries?
A. Radio B. Television C. Automobiles D. Computer
Question 383: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except
A. nationalism
B. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine
C. atomic bomb research in the United States.
D. the defeat of the Nazis.
Question 384: According to the passage in which country did Einstein live in 1930s?
A. Switzerland B. the United States C. Germany D. Israel
Question 385: The word “exalting” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. criticism B. elimination C. support D. elevation
Question 386: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels
A. Einstein's work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.
B. Einstein's work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.
C. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.
D. Einstein's theories have been consistently proven incorrect.
Question 387: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called
A. electrons B. photoelectrons C. gamma rays D. quanta

59. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Humans are destroying the earth’s tropical rain forests. About 80,000 square kilometers are being
destroyed every year. About a quarter of the (388)_____ comes from people cutting trees for fuel.
Another quarter is to make grassland for their cattle. The (389)______ trees are cut down to sell the
wood to start farms.
The population in cities all over the world is growing, and more and more wood is needed to build huge
new buildings. For example, 5,000 trees from Sarawak rain forest in Malaysia were used to build just one
tall building. (390)_______ people continue cutting down that many trees in Sarawak rain forest, all the
trees could be gone in eight years.
The world needs more food, and it (391)______ like a good idea to clear the rain forests and use the
land for agriculture. Many people think that the land under these huge, thick forests must be in rich
nutrients, but it isn't. This is another surprising thing about rain forests. Most of the land in tropical rain
forest is very (392)________.
Question 388: A. destruction B. destroying C. destroy D. destructive
Question 389: A. staying B. remaining C. standing D. dwelling
Question 390: A. Unless B. If C. While D. Although
Question 391: A. seems B. looks C. tastes D. sounds
Question 392: A. short B. poor C. unfortunate D. ill

60. Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Garbage cans are not magical portals. Trash does not disappear when you toss it in a can. Yet, the
average American throws away an estimated 1,600 pounds of waste each year. If there are no magic
garbage fairies, where does all that trash go? There are four methods to managing waste: recycling,
landfilling, composting, and incinerating. Each method has its strengths and weaknesses. Let's take a
quick look at each.
Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned into
paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save materials,
and lower energy use. Yet, some argue that recycling wastes energy. They believe that collecting,
processing, and converting waste uses more energy than it saves. Still, most people agree that recycling
is better for the planet
than landfilling.
Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. In its simplest form, landfilling is when people
bury garbage in a hole. Over time the practice of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted before
it is thrown into the hole. In this way more garbage can fit in each landfill. Large liners are placed in the
bottom of landfills so that toxic garbage juice doesn't get into the ground water. Sadly, these liners don't
always work. Landfills may pollute the local water supply. Not to mention that all of that garbage
stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. This makes it hard to find new locations for landfills.
Compositing is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose. The
product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and
better for growing crops. While composting is easy to do onsite somewhere, like home or school, it's
hard to do after the garbage gets all mixed up. This is because plastic and other inorganic materials must
be removed from the compost pile or they will pollute the soil. There's a lot of plastic in garbage, which
makes it hard to compost on a large scale.
One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to incinerate waste. The first
is to create or harvest a fuel from the waste, such as methane gas, and burn the fuel. The second is to
burn the waste directly. The heat from the incineration process can boil water, which can power steam
generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air. Also, some critics worry that incinerators
destroy valuable resources that could be recycled.
Usually, the community in which you live manages waste. Once you put your garbage in that can, what
happens to it is beyond your control. But you can make choices while it is still in your possession. You
can choose to recycle, you can choose to compost, or you can choose to let someone else deal with it.
The choice is yours.
Question 393: Which of the following serves as the best title for this passage?
A. The Magic of Recycling: Bringing Back What Was Once Lost
B. Recycling, Landfilling or Composing: Which is Best for You?
C. Do Your Part How to Save the Earth by Recycling and Composting.
D. Methods of Waste Management: Advantages and Disadvantages
Question 394: According to the passage all of the following are mentioned as an issue with landfilling
EXCEPT that
A. landfills are smelly
B. landfills may pollute the water supply
C. it is difficult to find locations for landfills
D. usable materials are wasted in landfills
Question 395: What does the word “stinks” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. smells unpleasant B. seems dirty C. looks attractive D. feels soft
Question 396: Which of the following best explains why composting is not feasible on a large scale?
A. People wouldn't want to touch all of that gross rotting food.
B. Plastic would get into the compost and turn it into a pollutant.
C. It would smell too bad in densely populated cities.
D. It would attract rodents that would spread disease.
Question 397: According to the passage which of the following best defines “incineration”?
A. buying waste materials in a large hole
B. allowing waste products to decompose and become fertilizer
C. turning waste materials into products like book covers
D. burning waste materials and harvesting the energy
Question 398: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to
A. community B. garbage C. waste D. possession
Question 399: According to the passage how many main ways to incinerate waste?
A. one B. three C. two D. four
Question 400: Which conclusion could be drawn from the passage?
A. Recycling is without a doubt the best way to handle waste.
B. Each method of waste management has its drawbacks.
 C. Incineration is the best way to process waste.
D. All large cities should create massive compost piles.
61. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial
problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since
man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely
comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its
desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are
found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert
country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its
population is largely
nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word.
The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive
if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of
minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground,
emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but
18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 401: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals
EXCEPT
A. they are watchful and quiet B. they sleep during the day
C. they dig home underground D. they are noisy and aggressive
Question 402: We can infer from the passage that
A. healthy animals live longer lives B. living things adjust to their environment
C. desert life is colorful and diverse D. water is the basis of desert life
Question 403: According to the passage, creatures in the desert
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
C. live in an accommodating environment
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 404: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT
A. moist-skinned animals B. many large animals
C. water-loving animals D. the coyote and the bobcat
Question 405: The word “them” means
A. animals B. minutes C. people D. water
Question 406: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means
A. wild B. unmanageable C. cunning D. unhealthy
Question 407: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as
A. water is an essential part of his existence
B. very few large animals are found in the desert
C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
D. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
Question 408: The title for this passage could be
A. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment” B. “Desert Plants”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Life Underground”

62. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
TATTOOING: AN ANCIENT TRADITION
Tattooing is an old art. In ancient Greece, people who had tattoos were regarded as members of the
upper classes. On the other hand, tattooing was (409) __________ in Europe by the early Christians,
who thought that it was a sinful thing to do. It was not until the late 18th century, when Captain Cook
saw South Sea Islander decorating their bodies with tattoos that attitudes began to change. Sailors came
back from these islands with
pictures of Christ on their backs and from then on, tattooing (410)__________ in popularity. A survey by
the French army in 1881 showed that among the 387 men (411) __________there were 1,333 designs.
Nowadays, not everybody finds tattoos acceptable. Some people thing that getting one is silly because tattoos are
more or less permanent. There is also some (412) __________ about catching a blood disease from unsterilized
needles. Even for those who do want a tattoo, the process of getting one is not painless, but the final result, in their
eyes, is (413) __________ the pain.
Question 409: A. exported B. finished C. banned D. blamed
Question 410: A. gained B. won C. earned D. made
Question 411: A. inquired B. questioned C. spoken D. demanded
Question 412: A. trouble B. danger C. concern D. threat
Question 413: A. worth B. owed C. due D. deserved

63. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common
to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside
the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives.
Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to
manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds,
tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends,
and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn basic academic
subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the
classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished.
They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to
adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and
finding and keeping a job.
Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of
learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate
children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to
understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Employers, politicians, and advertisers
make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and consumers.
Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists
who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and
how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning
are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences.
There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a
single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or
taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that
occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by
forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and
animals can also learn by observation - that is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex
forms of learning include learning languages, concepts, and motor skills.
(Extracted from Microsoft® Student 2009 – DVD Version)
Question 414: Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in
paragraph 2 as examples of ______.
A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves
B. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education
C. the changes to which people have to orient themselves
D. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives
Question 415: According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of?
A. Acquisition of social and behavioural skills
B. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom
C. Acquisition of academic knowledge
D. Knowledge acquisition and ability development
Question 416: According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom?
 A. literacy and calculation B. right from wrong
C. life skills D. interpersonal communication
Question 417: The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. practical examples of learning inside the classroom
B. simple forms of learning
C. application of learning principles to formal education
D. general principles of learning
Question 418: It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern
themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______.
A. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning
B. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest
C. thoroughly understand the behaviours of the objects of their interest
D. change the behaviours of the objects of their interest towards learning
Question 419: According to the passage, the study of learning is important in many fields due to ______.
A. the need for certain experiences in various areas
B. the exploration of the best teaching methods
C. the influence of various behaviours in the learning process
D. the great influence of the on-going learning process
Question 420: The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. recovers B. creates C. generates D. gains

64. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His family name was
originally Fife, and he was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife family immigrated to Albany,
New York where Duncan’s father opened a cabinetmaking shop. Duncan followed his father’s footsteps
and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker. After completing his training, Duncan moved to New York
City.
Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1792 NYC Directory as a furniture “joiner” in business at 2
Broad Street. Two years later, he moved, expanded his business, and changed his name to Phyfe. He
was a quiet-living, God-fearing young man who felt his new name would probably appeal to potential
customers who were definitely anti-British in this post-Revolutionary War period.
Duncan Phyfe’s name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new spelling helped
him better compete with French emigrant craftsmen, his new name had more to do with hanging it on a
sign over his door stoop.
The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of freedom. They were no
longer restricted by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the first time in history, a man learned that
by working hard, he could build his business based on his own name and reputation and quality of work.
Phyfe’s workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success, Phyfe employed 100
craftsmen. Some economic historians point to Phyfe as having employed division of labor and an
assembly line. What his workshop produced shows Phyfe’s absolute dedication to quality in
workmanship. Each piece of furniture was made of the best available materials. He was reported to have
paid $1,000 for a single Santo Domingo mahogany log.
Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the period’s classical styles,
Empire, Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them. Nevertheless, Phyfe’s high quality
craftsmanship established him as America’s patriotic interpreter of European design in the late eighteenth
and early nineteenth centuries.
Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe’s workshop is enormous, comparatively few
marked or labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops and auctions, collectors have paid
$11,000 for a card table, $24,200 for a tea table, and $93,500 for a sewing table.
Question 421: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The business of cabinetmaking. B. The significance of Duncan Phyfe’s name.
C. Duncan Phyfe’s life and career. D. Duncan Phyfe’s cabinetmaking designs.
Question 422: According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply?
A. Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name.
B. Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland.
C. Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.
D. Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables.
Question 423: Which choice does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. His spelling B. His chair C. His French D. His name
Question 424: Which choice is closest in meaning to the word “guild” in paragraph 4?
A. Verdict of a jury B. Organization of craftsmen
C. Political party of emigrants D. Immigrants’ club
Question 425: In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT________.
A. division of labor B. an assembly line
C. continental designs D. the least expensive materials
Question 426: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe’s death?
A. He died in the eighteenth century. B. He died in Albany.
C. He died in the nineteenth century. D. He died in Scotland.
Question 427: The author implies that________.
A. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop no longer exists.
 B. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop costs a lot of money today.
C. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was ignored by New Yorkers.
D. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was made by his father.

65. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
A rainbow is an optical display of color that usually appears in the sky when a beam of sunlight refracts
through millions of raindrops. Each (428)________ color from the spectrum is then sent to your eyes.
For this to happen, the angle between the ray of light, the raindrop and the human eye must be between
40 and 42 degrees.
After studying rainbows in (429)________, Sir Isaac Newton was able to explain how they are formed.
However, he was color blind, so he had to rely on the eyes of his assistant, who could easily
(430)________all the seven colors: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. His assistant
could also clearly tell the difference between indigo and violet.
There are two types of rainbows. Primary rainbows are the most common and have the most distinctive
colors, with red appearing on the outside of the arc and violet on the inside. Secondary rainbows are
unusual because the light is reflected twice within the raindrop before it (431)________ a rainbow, so the
colors are in reverse order and not as bright as primary rainbows.
There is a popular myth that if you reach the end of a rainbow, you will find a pot of gold waiting for you. In
fact, it is impossible to do this, because a rainbow has no end - as you go towards the point where the rainbow
seems to touch the ground, it moves away from you as quickly as you (432)________.
Question 428: A. single B. divided C. detached D. separate
Question 429: A. depth B. width C. breadth D. length
Question 430: A. realize B. discover C. understand D. recognize
Question 431: A. forms B. grows C. develops D. shapes
Question 432: A. progress B. arrive C. get D. approach
66. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 433 to 440.
After the United States purchased Louisiana from France and made it their newest territory in 1803,
President Thomas Jefferson called for an expedition to investigate the land the United States had bought
for $15 million. Jefferson’s secretary, Meriwether Lewis, a woodsman and a hunter from childhood,
persuaded the president to let him lead this expedition. Lewis recruited Army officer William Clark to
be his co-commander. The Lewis and Clark expedition led the two young explorers to discover a new
natural wealth of variety and abundance about which they would return to tell the world.
When Lewis and Clark departed from St. Louis in 1804, they had twenty-nine in their party, including a
few Frenchmen and several men from Kentucky who were well-known frontiersmen. Along the way,
they picked up an interpreter named Toussant Charbonneau and his Native American wife, Sacajawea,
the Shoshoni “Bird Woman” who aided them as guide and peacemaker and later became an American
legend.
The expedition followed the Missouri River to its source, made a long portage overland though the
Rocky Mountains, and descended the Columbia River to the Pacific Ocean. On the journey, they
encountered peaceful Otos, whom they befriended, and hostile Teton Sioux, who demanded tribute from
all traders. They also met Shoshoni, who welcomed their little sister Sacajawea, who had been abducted
as a child by the Mandans. They discovered a paradise full of giant buffalo herds and elk and antelope
so innocent of human contact that they tamely approached the men. The explorers also found a hell
blighted by mosquitoes and winters harsher than anyone could reasonably hope to survive. They
became desperately lost, then found their way again. Lewis and Clark kept detailed journals of the
expedition, cataloging a dazzling array of new plants and animals, and even unearthing the bones of a
forty-five-foot dinosaur.
When the party returned to St. Louis in 1806 after travelling almost 8,000 miles, they were eagerly
greeted and grandly entertained. Their glowing descriptions of this vast new West provided a boon to
the westward migration now becoming a permanent part of American life. The journals written by
Lewis and Clark are still widely read today.
Question 433: The purpose of the Lewis and Clark expedition was________.
A. to establish trade with the Otos and Teton Sioux
B. to explore territory purchased by the United States
C. to purchase land from France
D. to find the source of the Missouri River
Question 434: Where in the passage does the author mention hardship faced by the expedition?
A. Lines 4-6 B. Lines 8-10 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 16-17
Question 435: It can be inferred that Sacajawea ________.
A. married a Shoshoni interpreter B. abducted a child
C. demanded tribute from the traders D. is a well-known American heroine
Question 436: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to________.
A. elk and antelope B. buffalo herds
C. the members of the expedition D. Shoshoni and Mandans
Question 437: The word “blighted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. increased B. ruined C. swollen D. driven
Question 438: Lewis and Clark encountered all of the following EXCEPT_______.
A. mountains B. buffaloes C. dinosaur herds D. friendly people
Question 439: The word “boon” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. power B. hurdle C. benefit D. conclusion
Question 440: It can be inferred from the passage that the Lewis and Clark expedition________.
 A. experienced more hardships than successes
B. encouraged Americans to move to the West
C. probably cost the United States more than $15 million
D. caused the deaths of some of the explorers

67. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Child workers, some as young as 10, have been found working in a textile factory in conditions described as
close to slavery to produce clothes that appear destined for one of the major high street retailers. The discovery
of these children working in appalling conditions in the Shahpur Jat area of Delhi has renewed concerns about
the (441)______ by some large retail chains of their garment production to India, recognised (442)______ the
United Nations as one of the world’s hotspots for child labour. According to one (443)______, over 20 per cent
of India's economy is dependent on children, (444)______ comes to a total of 55 million youngsters under 14
working. Consumers in the West should not only be demanding answers from retailers about how their
(445)______ are produced but also should be looking into their consciences at how they spend their money and
whether cheap prices in the West are worth the suffering caused to so many children.
Question 441: A. outsourcing B. outsources C. outsourced D. outsource
Question 442: A. for B. with C. of D. by
Question 443: A. evaluation B. investigation C. calculation D. estimate
Question 444: A. who B. which C. what D. that
Question 445: A. goods B. stuff C. garment D. ware

68. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Unlike these fish, which are actually extinct, the coelacanth is a type of fish that was believed to be
extinct. However, an unexpected twentieth- century rediscovery of living coelacanths has brought about
a reassessment of the status of the prehistoric sea creature that was believed to have long since
disappeared from the Earth. From fossil remains of the coelacanth, paleontologists have determined that
the coelacanth was in existence around 350 million years ago, during the Paleozoic Era, more than 100
million years before the first dinosaurs arrived on the Earth. The most recent fossilized coelacanths date
from around 70 million years ago, near the end of the age of dinosaurs. Because no fossilized remnants
of coelacanth was believed to have died out around the same time as the dinosaurs.
The prehistoric coelacanth studied by paleontologists had distinctive characteristics that differentiated it
from other fish. It was named for its hollow spine and was known to have been a powerful carnivore
because of its many sharp teeth and a special joint in the skull that allowed the ferocious teeth to move
in coordination with the lower jaw. It also had a pair of fins with unusual bony and muscular
development that allowed the coelacanth to dart around the ocean floor. These fins also enable the
coelacanth to search out prey trying to hide on the ocean bottom.
In 1938, a living specimen of the coelacanth was discovered in the catch of a fishing boat off the coast
of South Africa, and since then numerous other examples of the coelacanth have been found in the
waters of the Indian Ocean. This modern version of the coelacanth is not exactly the same as its
prehistoric cousin. Today's coelacanth is larger than its prehistoric relative, measuring up to six feet in
length and weighing up to 150 pounds. However, the modern version of the coelacanth still possesses
the characteristic hollow spine and distinctive fins with their unusual bony and muscular structure.
Question 446: It can be inferred from the passage that the first dinosaurs most likely appeared on Earth
around
A. 450 million years ago B. 350 million years ago
C. 150 million years ago D. 250 million years ago
Question 447: It can be inferred from the passage that the word “coelacanth” comes from the Greek
A. sharp teeth B. extinct fish C. hollow spine D. bony fingers
Question 448: What is NOT true about the prehistoric coelacanth, according to the passage ?
A. It was smaller than the modern coelacanth.
B. It had a hollow pine and distinctive fins.
C. It weighed less than 150 pounds.
D. It measured as much as six feet in length.
Question 449: The pronoun “It” in the third paragraph refers to
A. coordination B. coelacanth C. joint D. jaw
Question 450: What is stated in the passage about the prehistoric coelacanth?
A. It had few teeth. B. It was a rather feeble fish.
C. It lived on plants. D. It moved its teeth in an unusual way.
Question 451: This passage is about a fish
A. that is extinct C. that is becoming extinct
B. that once was extinct D. that is not extinct
Question 452: According to the passage, why are scientists sure that the prehistoric coelacanth was a
flesh-eater?
A. Because of its hollow spine
B. Because of its unusual bony and muscular development
C. Because of the shape and movement of the teeth
D. Because of the size of the skull
Question 453: The topic of the preceding paragraph is most likely
A. the discovery of the coelacanth
B. a reassessment of the status of a number of kinds of fish
C. a particular prehistoric sea creature
D. various extinct fish
69. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
For a century before the Erie Canal was built, there was much discussion among the general population
of the Northeast as to the need for connecting the waterways of the Great Lakes with the Atlantic
Ocean. A project of such monumental proportions was not going to be undertaken and completed
without a supreme amount of effort.
The man who was instrumental in accomplishing the feat that was the Erie Canal was Dewitt Clinton.
As early as 1812, he was in the nation's capital petitioning the federal government for financial
assistance on the project, emphasizing what a boon to the economy of the country the canal would be;
his efforts with the federal government, however, were not successful.
In 1816, Clinton asked the New York State Legislature for the funding for the canal, and this time he did
succeed. A canal commission was instituted, and Clinton himself was made head of it. One year later,
Clinton was elected governor of the state, and soon after, construction of the canal was started.
The canal took eight years to complete, and Clinton was on the first barge to travel the length of the
canal, the Seneca Chief, which departed from Buffalo on October 26, 1825, and arrived in New York
City on November
4. Because of the success of the Erie Canal, numerous other canals were built in other parts of the country.
Question 454: The pronoun “it” in the 3rd paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. The canal B. The New York State Legislation
C. The state governor D. The commission
Question 455: When did Clinton ask the U.S. government for funds for the canal?
A. In 1812 B. In 1825
C. In 1816 D. One hundred years before the canal was built.
Question 456: The Seneca Chief was
A. the nickname of Buffalo B. the name of the canal
C. Clinton's nickname D. the name of a boat
Question 457: The information in the passage
A. is in chronological order B. is organized spatially
C. gives a cause followed by an effect D. lists opposing viewpoints of a problem
Question 458: The word “boon” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. Disadvantage B. Benefit C. Cost D. Detriment
Question 459: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
A. the effect of the Erie Canal on the Buffalo area
B. Clinton's career as governor of New York
C. the century before the building of the Erie Canal
D. canals in different U.S locations
Question 460: Where in the passage does the author mention a committee that worked to develop the
canal?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The fourth paragraph D. The third paragraph

70. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
WILLIAM THE HERO!
Brave William Baldock, who is six years old, is a hero after helping his mother when she fell
downstairs. William quickly rang for an ambulance when he discovered his mother had broken her leg.
In spite of being frightened, he (461) ________ the emergency services what had happened and
answered all the questions they asked him. He also telephoned his father at work, and then his
grandmother, to explain what he had (462) _________. While waiting for these people to come, William
looked after his 18-month-old sister. When ambulance man Steve Lyn went to the house, he was
amazed: 'It's great that a young boy of six knew the right number to dial, and was able to give us the
correct information. (463) ________ of William's quick thinking, we were able to (464) ________ there
immediately." Mrs. Baldock left hospital yesterday, very (465) ________ to both William and the
ambulance service.
Question 461: A. called B. talked C. spoke D. told
Question 462: A. done B. made C. acted D. worked
Question 463: A. Since B. Because C. In spite D. Instead
Question 464: A. manage B. find C. get D. reach
Question 465: A. agreeable B. happy C. grateful D. approving

71. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
A large number of inventions require years of arduous research and development before they are
perfected. For instance, Thomas Edison had to make more than 1,000 attempts to invent the
incandescent light bulb before he finally succeeded. History is replete with numerous other examples of
people trying, yet failing to make inventions before they eventually succeeded. Yet some inventions
have come about not through hard work but simply by accident. In most cases, when someone
unintentionally invented something, the inventor was attempting to create something else. For example,
in the 1930s, chemist Roy Plunkett was attempting to make a new substance that could be used to
refrigerate items. He mixed some chemicals together. Then, he put them into a pressurized container and
cooled the mixture. By the time his experiment was complete, he had a new invention. It was not a new
substance that could be used for refrigeration though. Instead, he had invented Teflon, which is today
most commonly used to make nonstick pots and pans. Similarly, decades earlier, John Pemberton was a
pharmacist in Atlanta, Georgia. He was attempting to create a tonic that people could use whenever they
had headaches. While he was not successful in that endeavor, he managed to invent Coca - Cola, the
world - famous carbonated soft drink.
Scientists have also made crucial discoveries by accident when they were conducting experiments. In
1928, Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin, an antibiotic, in this manner. He discovered some mold
growing in a dish with some bacteria. He noticed that the bacteria seemed to be avoiding the mold.
When he investigated further, he determined some of the many useful properties of penicillin, which has
saved millions of lives over the past few decades. Likewise, in 1946, scientist Percy Spencer was
conducting an experiment with microwaves. He had a candy bar in his pocket, and he noticed that it
suddenly melted. He investigated and learned the reason why that had happened. Soon afterward, he
built a device that could utilize microwaves to heat food: the microwave oven.
Question 466: Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
A. History's Most Important Inventions
B. Accidental Inventions and Discoveries
C. How to Become a Great Inventor
D. You Don't Always Get What You Want
Question 467: In paragraph 1, the word arduous is closest in meaning to _______.
A. detailed B. tough C. specific D. constant
Question 468: In paragraph 2, the word endeavor is closest in meaning to _______.
A. research B. dream C. request D. attempt
Question 469: What does the author say about Teflon?
A. People first used it as a refrigeration device.
B. It was created many years before Coca-Cola.
C. The man who made it was a pharmacist.
D. It is used for kitchenware nowadays.
Question 470: Who was John Pemberton?
A. The person who made Teflon B. The creator of Coca-Cola
C. The man who discovered penicillin D. The inventor of the microwave
Question 471: The author uses Alexander Fleming as an example of ________.
A. one of the most famous inventors in history
B. a person who made an accidental scientific discovery
C. someone who became a millionaire from his invention
D. a man who dedicated his life to medical science
Question 472: What does the author imply about penicillin?
A. Doctors seldom use it nowadays. B. Some people are not affected by it.
C. It is an invaluable medical supply. D. Mold combines with bacteria to make it.
72. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 473 to 480.
How is the news different from entertainment? Most people would answer that news is real but
entertainment is fiction. However, if we think more carefully about the news, it becomes clear that the
news is not always real. The news does not show us all the events of the day, but stories from a small
number of chosen events. The creation of news stories is subject to specific constraints, much like the
creation of works of fiction. There are many constraints, but three of the most important ones are:
commercialism, story formulas, and sources. Newspapers, radio, and TV stations are businesses, all of
which are rivals for audiences and advertising revenue. The amount of time that the average TV station
spends on news broadcasts has grown steadily over the last fifty years - largely because news is
relatively cheap to produce, yet sells plenty of advertising. Some news broadcasts are themselves
becoming advertisements. For example, during one week in 1996 when the American CBS network was
airing a movie about the sinking of the Titanic, CBS news ran nine stories about that event (which had
happened 84 years before). The ABC network is owned by Disney Studios, and frequently runs news
stories about Mickey Mouse. Furthermore, the profit motive drives news organizations to pay more
attention to stories likely to generate a large audience, and to shy away from stories that may be
important but dull. This pressure to be entertaining has produced shorter, simpler stories: more focus on
celebrities than people of substance, more focus on gossip than on news, and more focus on dramatic
events than on nuanced issues.
As busy people under relentless pressure to produce, journalists cannot spend days agonizing over the
best way to present stories. Instead, they depend upon certain story formulas, which they can reuse
again and again. One example is known as the inverted pyramid. In this formula, the journalist puts the
most important information at the beginning of the story, than adds the next most important, and so on.
The inverted pyramid originates from the age of the telegraph, the idea being that if the line went dead
halfway through the story, the journalist would know that the most crucial information had at least been
relayed. Modern journalists still value the formula for a similar reason. Their editors will cut stories if
they are too long. Another formula involves reducing a complicated story into a simple conflict. The
best example is "horse race" election coverage. Thorough explication of the issues and the candidates'
views is forbiddingly complex. Journalists therefore concentrate more on who is winning in the opinion
polls, and whether the underdog can catch up in the numbers than on politicians' campaign goals.
Sources are another constraint on what journalists cover and how they cover it. The dominant sources
for news are public information officers in businesses and government offices. The majority of such
officers try to establish themselves as experts who are qualified to feed information to journalists. How
do journalists know who is an expert? In general, they don't. They use sources not on the basis of actual
expertise, but on the
appearance of expertise and the willingness to share it. All the major news organizations use some of the
same sources (many of them anonymous), so the same types of stories always receive attention. Over
time, the journalists may even become close friends with their sources, and they stop searching for
alternative points of view. The result tends to be narrow, homogenized coverage of the same kind.
Question 473: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author of the passage thinks _______.
A. that watching or reading the news is extremely boring
B. that most news stories are false
C. that most people don't realize how different news is from reality
D. that most people don't pay enough attention to the news
Question 474: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true?
A. One effect of commercialism is news stories with more complex content.
B. The ABC network owns Disney Studios.
C. Some news broadcasts are shown without advertisements.
D. More time is devoted to news on TV now than 50 years ago.
Question 475: Why does the author mention Mickey Mouse in paragraph 2?
A. To indicate that ABC shows entertaining news stories
B. To give an example of news stories that are also advertisements
C. To contrast ABC's style with that of CBS
D. To give an example of news content that is not serious
Question 476: According to paragraph 3, an advantage of the inverted pyramid formula for journalists
is that _________.
A. if a story is cut by the editor, only the less crucial information will be lost
B. it makes a story more likely to be cut by the editor
C. it makes a story more likely to attract the attention of the audience
D. it makes a story simpler and easier to understand
Question 477: The word relayed in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. chosen B. Known C. gathered D. sent
Question 478: According to the passage, which of the following tends to lead to homogenized coverage?
A. Journalists' use of experts as sources
B. Journalists' becoming friends with their sources
C. Journalists' search for alternative points of view
D. Journalists' using government officials as sources
Question 479: The word them in paragraph 4 refers to _________.
A. journalists B. organizations C. experts D. sources
Question 480: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentences "Thorough explication of the issues .... than on politicians' campaign goals. " in the passage?
 A. Journalists focus on poll numbers instead of campaign issues because it is easier.
B. Journalists are more interested in issues and candidates' views, but viewers are more interested in
who is winning.
C. During an election campaign, journalists mainly concentrate on "horse race" coverage.
D. Candidates' views and how they are explained by journalists can have a big effect on poll numbers.

73. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
British families started going on holiday to the seaside around the middle of the 19th century. The
invention of the railways made this possible. The first holidaymakers were quite rich and went for their
health and education. The seaside was a place to be (481)__________of illnesses, and doctors
recommended bathing in the sea and drinking sea water. Also to increase their knowledge, families
attended concerts and read books from libraries.
At that time, ordinary working people had very little time (482)__________. However, in 1871, the
government introduce four “Bank Holidays” – national holiday days. This allowed people to have a day
or two out, which now and then gave them a taste for leisure and the seaside. At first they went on day-
trips, taking
(483)__________of special cheap tickets on the railways. By the 1880s, rising incomes meant many
ordinary workers and their families could have a week’s holiday at the seaside. Rail fares were reduced
and cheap hotels were built to (484)__________them. Holidaymakers enjoyed being idle, sitting on the
beach, bathing in the sea, and eating ice-cream. Cheap entertainment was (485)__________offer and
holidaymakers went to have fun.
Today, the English seaside remained popular, with more than 18 million holidays taken there each year.
Question 481: A. recovered B. cured C. improved D. remedied
Question 482: A. out B. off C. from D. away
Question 483: A. opportunity B. benefit C. profit D. advantage
Question 484: A. cater B. board C. lodge D. accommodate
Question 485: A. for B. on C. in D. to

74. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born in North
Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen, where
he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a year,
on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in
Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant
companion, and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short
stories. He then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his
pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887,
Porter married Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed within a year,
and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was
examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter then
fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child in Austin. He returned in 1897
because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was
found guilty and sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered
prison as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged
from prison three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity.
He wrote at least twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where
he published more than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter
married again in 1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-
eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.
Question 486. According to the passage, Porter’s Father was ___________.
A. the person who gave him a life-long love of books
B. a medical doctor
C. a licensed pharmacist
D. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
Question 487. Why did the author write the passage?
A. to outline the career of a famous American
B. because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer
C. because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer
D. to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing
Question 488. The word “imprisonment” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _________.
A. captivity B. escape C. insult D. punishment
Question 489. What is the passage primarily about?
A. The life and career of William Sydney Porter.
B. The way to adopt a nickname.
C. O.Henry’s influence on American literature.
D. The adventures of O.Henry.
Question 490. The author implies which of the following is true?
A. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.
B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.
C. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.
D. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years.
Question 491. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist
B. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”
C. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin
D. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died
Question 492. The word “pseudonym” in the passage refers to ___________.
A. William Sydney Porter B. O. Henry
C. Athol Estes D. the Aunt Lina

75. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
INTERNET JOBS
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course,
there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media
has opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical
expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of Webmaster.
However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and
responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a Webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a Webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software the
website the Webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require
different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally
or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster
also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide
people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster
job description.
Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer
applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high
demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media’.
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it compasses a constantly growing set of new
technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD,
streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer
illustration, video games, virtual reality, and computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many
companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance
workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers
from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to such
online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own country.
How much can a person make in these kinds of careers? As with many questions related to today’s
evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with
Internet skills salaries well over $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 per year,
but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known to make between
$40,000 to $70,000 a year.
Question 493. Which of the followings is true about the job of the freelance writers?
A. They may work with others in the company.
B. It is considered a “content” job.
C. They manage hardware and software.
D. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.
Question 494. The word “vary” in paragraph 6 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. decrease B. change C. differ D. increase
Question 495. It can be inferred from the passage that ___________.
A. only skilled workers make good money
B. online workers can work full-time online.
C. it is easy to become a webmaster
D. workers with limited computer skills can not work online.
Question 496. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?
A. They never work independently.
B. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.
C. They require a minimal level of expertise.
D. They do not support software products.
Question 497. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To inform people about the tasks and the roles of a webmaster.
B. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.
C. To inform people about the computer industry.
D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.
Question 498. According to the passage, all of the followings are TRUE except ___________.
A. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.
B. Online workers can not free themselves from the office.
C. “New media” is not easy to define.
D. There are online jobs available for workers with minimal computer skills.
Question 499. Which of the followings is not mentioned as part of the “new media”?
A. Internet technology B. writing skills C. websites D. video games
Question 500. The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. name B. discover C. encounter D. estimate
76. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (501)________. Many species of
animals are threatened, and could easily become (502)________. if we do not make an effort to protect
them. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some
birds, such as parrots, are
caught (503)________. and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat -
the place
where they live - is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are
fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better
crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (504)________. wildlife. The most successful
animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones (505)________., unless we can solve this
problem.
Question 501: A. threat B. problem C. danger D. vanishing
Question 502: A. disappeared B. vanished C. extinct D. empty
Question 503: A. for life B. alive C. lively D. for living
Question 504: A. spoil B. wound C. wrong D. harm
Question 505: A. left B. over C. staying D. survive

77. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become
increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets
and "life in the fast lane" have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But
according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.
Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart
attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other
day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after
waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since
discovered a number of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and
concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all
contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.
In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal
that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately
preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their
married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned
risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure
is triggered .
Question 506. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Risk factors in heart attacks
B. Seasonal and temporal pattern of heart attacks
C. Cardiology in the 1980s
D. Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks
Question 507. The word “trigger” as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
A. involve B. affect C. cause D. encounter
Question 508. What do the second and the third paragraphs of the passage mainly discuss?
A. The link between heart attacks and marriage B. Unusual risk factors in heart attacks
C. Age and gender factors in heart attacks D. Myths about lifestyles and heart attacks
Question 509. The phrase “susceptible to” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by
A. aware of B. affected by C. accustomed to D. prone to
Question 510. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of any heart
attacks?
A. Decreased blood flow to the heart B. Increased blood pressure
C. Lower heart rate D. Increase in hormones
Question 511. Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?
A. Having a birthday B. Getting married
C. Eating fatty foods D. Being under stress
Question 512. Which of the following does the passage infer?
A. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
B. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
C. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.
D. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

78. Read the following passage and mark letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological
advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor.
This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve
them.
Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable objects
on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which
sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects
sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just
two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years.
The team of divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware,
and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American Gold Eagle
coins they were searching for.
Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck's treasure does
not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in
nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is
lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract
more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists
are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To
counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the
wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.
Question 513. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
D. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.
Question 514. The word “sunken” is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
A. broken B. underwater C. ancient D. hollow
Question 515. Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?
A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonars
C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
D. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.
Question 516. The author uses the word “services” to refer to which of the following?
A. cups B. sets C. containers D. decorations
Question 517. All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT
A. wine bottles B. silver tea services
C. American Gold Eagle coins D. crystal dinnerware
Question 518. From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to
A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers B. be a diver
C. put treasures in a museum D. do archaeological research
Question 519. The word “scoured” is most similar to which of the following?
A. scraped away B. scratched over C. scrambled around D. searched through
Question 520. The second and third paragraphs are an example of
 A. chronological order B. explanation C. specific to general D. definition

79. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
American folk music originated with (521) ________ people at a time when the rural population was
isolated and music was not (522) ________ spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (523)
_______ by oral traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact. The major source of early
American folk songs was music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians
have significant part in its heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the
nineteenth century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs,
(524) _________ soon became part of the folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great
popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s, singer –
composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob Dylan, Joan Baez continued this tradition by urban’ folk music. Many
of these songs deal (525) ________ important social issue, such as racial integration and the war in Vietnam.
Question 521: A. ordinary B. popular C. common D. typical
Question 522: A. even B. still C. until D. yet
Question 523: A. transferred B. transformed C. transmitted D. transited
Question 524: A. which B. this C. who D. that
Question 525: A. in B. by C. with D. at

80. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom
and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of
its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile
river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden
passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The
four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible
engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations
for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines.
Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and
future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past.
Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that
pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it
with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
Question 526. In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to ____.
 A. foretold B. terminated C. precipitated D. affiliated
Question 527. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Advanced tools of measurement B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface
C. Advanced technology D. Observation of the celestial bodies
Question 528. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh.
D. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
Question 529. The word ‘feat’ in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ____.
A. accomplishment B. festivity C. appendage D. structure
Question 530. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
B. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
C. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
D. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
Question 531. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It was built by a super race.
B. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
C. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.
D. It was very old.
Question 532. What has research of the base revealed?
A. There are cracks in the foundation
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. A superior race of people built in
D. The lines represent important events

81. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little
space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low
amounts of resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available
resources. Only a certain number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number
depends on how much food and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live
primarily by means of simple farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of
land can support only small numbers of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities
produce only small amounts of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe,
overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large
quantities of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale
irrigation, and agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the
high densities of people in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147
persons per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual
farming, which contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller
countries in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as
well. These countries practice mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however,
and therefore have high standards of living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less
than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these
countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost
productivity. As a consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low
population density and high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many
poor families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural
societies commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries
often provide little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to
keep their families small have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to
have high rates of population growth.
Question 533. Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?
A. Sufficient financial support B. High-tech facilities
C. High birth rates D. Economic resources
Question 534. The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. inaccessible B. unproductive C. impossible D. disused
Question 535. The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. participate in B. escape from C. look into D. give up
Question 536. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences
B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem
D. Poverty in Developing Countries
Question 537. The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ______.
 A. countries B. resources C. people D. densities
Question 538. In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because
______.
A. there are small numbers of laborers
B. there is a lack of mechanization
C. there is an abundance of resources
D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 539. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
B. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
C. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
D. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
Question 540. Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ______.
A. its population density only
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas
D. its high agricultural productivity

82. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
SOCIAL NETWORK
A 16-year-old girl from Essex has been sacked after describing her job as boring on the social
networking website, Facebook. The teenager, who had been working (541) _________ an administrative
assistant at a marketing company for just three weeks, didn’t feel very enthusiastic about the duties she was
asked to do. (542) _________ of moaning to her friends she decided to express her thoughts on her
Facebook page to a colleague, who (543) _________ the boss’s attention to it. He immediately fired her
on the (544) _________ that her public display of dissatisfaction made it impossible for her to continue
working for the company. She later told newspapers she had been treated totally unfairly, especially as she
hadn’t even mentioned the company’s name. She claimed she’s been perfectly happy with her job and that
her light-hearted comments shouldn’t (545) _________ taken seriously. A spokesperson from a workers’
union said the incident demonstrated two things: firstly, that people need to protect their privacy online and
secondly, that employers should be less sensitive to criticism.
Question 541: A. for B. as C. like D. at
Question 542: A. Due B. Regardless C. Instead D. In spite
Question 543: A. got B. caught C. paid D. drew
Question 544: A. terms B. condition C. grounds D. basis
Question 545: A. to be B. have been C. be D. have
83. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
Therapeutic cloning
Reproductive cloning involves implanting a cloned embryo into a uterus in the hope of producing a
healthy foetus. A company called Clonaid claims to have successfully cloned thirteen human babies.
They say that all of the babies are healthy and are in various location including Hong Kong, UK, Spain
and Brazil. Clonaid states that they are using human cloning to assist infertile couples, homosexual
couples and families who have lost a beloved relative.
The same technology can be used for animal cloning. If endangered species such as the giant panda and
Sumatran tiger could be cloned, they could be saved from extinction. Livestock such as cows could also
be cloned to allow farmers to reproduce cattle that produce the best meat and most milk. This could
greatly help developing countries where cows produce significantly less meat and milk.
Question 546: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How the development of technology can be monitored.
B. How different human cloning is from animal cloning.
C. A famous scientist working on cloning technology.
D. Two different types of human cloning technology.
Question 547: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Cloning technology can help cure back and neck injuries.
B. The first dog to be cloned was in Korea.
C. Many countries can use cloning technology to produce more meat and milk.
D. Diabetes can’t be cured by using cloning technology.
Question 548: The word “assist” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. hinder B. help C. contribute D. cure
Question 549: The word “unveiling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. entrance B. introduction C. opening D. promotion
Question 550: According to the passage, who is King Chow?
A. A scientist who discovered cloning technology. B. A Professor of Biotechnology.
C. A famous Parkinson’s doctor. D. A therapeutic cloning expert.
Question 551: According to paragraph 4, what animals are in danger of extinction?
A. cows B. giant pandas C. all breeds of tiger D. livestock
Question 552: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. reproductive cloning
B. the development of cloning technology
C. Hong Kong University of Science and Technology
D. the first cloned dog
84. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
THE PRAISE OF FAST FOOD
The media and a multitude of cookbook writers would have us believe that modern, fast, processed food
is a disaster, and that it is a mark of sophistication to bemoan the steel roller mill and sliced white bread
while yearning for stone-ground flour and a brick oven. Perhaps, we should call those scorn
industrialised food, culinary Luddites, after the 19th-century English workers who rebelled against the
machines that destroyed their way of life. Instead of technology, what these Luddites abhor is
commercial sauces and any synthetic aid to flavouring our food.
Eating fresh, natural food was regarded with suspicion verging on horror; only the uncivilised, the poor,
and the starving resorted to it. The ancient Greeks regarded the consumption of greens and root
vegetables as a sign of bad times, and many succeeding civilizations believed the same. Happiness was
not a verdant garden abounding in fresh fruits, but a securely locked storehouse jammed with preserved,
processed foods.
What about the idea that the best food is handmade in the country? That food comes from the country
goes without saying. However, the idea that country people eat better than city dwellers is
preposterous. Very few of our ancestors working the land were independent peasants baking their own
bread and salting down their own pig. Most were burdened with heavy taxes and rent, often paid
directly by the food they produced. Many were ultimately serfs or slaves, who subsisted on what was
left over; on watery soup and gritty flatbread.
The dishes we call ethnic and assume to be of peasant origin were invented for the urban, or at least
urbane, aristocrats who collected the surplus. This is as true of the lasagna of northern Italy as it is of the
chicken korma of Mughal Delhi, the moo shu pork of imperial China, and the pilafs and baklava of the
great Ottoman palace in Istanbul. Cities have always enjoyed the best food and have invariably been the
focal points of culinary innovation.
Preparing home-cooked breakfast, dinner, and tea for eight to ten people 365 days a year was servitude.
Churning butter or skinning and cleaning rabbits, without the option of picking up the phone for a pizza
if something went wrong, was unremitting, unforgiving toil. Not long ago, in Mexico, most women
could expect to spend five hours a day kneeling at the grindstone preparing the dough for the family's
tortillas.
In the first half of the 20th century, Italians embraced factory-made pasta and canned tomatoes. In the
second half, Japanese women welcomed factory-made bread because they could sleep a little longer
instead of getting up to make rice. As supermarkets appeared in Eastern Europe, people rejoiced at the
convenience of readymade goods. Culinary modernism had proved what was wanted: food that was
processed, preservable, industrial, novel, and fast, the food of the elite at a price everyone could afford.
Where modern food became available, people grew taller and stronger and lived longer.
So the sunlit past of the culinary Luddites never existed and their ethos is based not on history but on a
fairy tale. So what? Certainly no one would deny that an industrialised food supply has its own
problems. Perhaps we should eat more fresh, natural, locally sourced, slow food. Does it matter if the
history is not quite right? It matters quite a bit, I believe. If we do not understand that most people had
no choice but to devote their lives to growing and cooking food, we are incapable of comprehending
that modern food allows us unparalleled choices. If we urge the farmer to stay at his olive press and the
housewife to remain at her stove, all so that we may eat traditionally pressed olive oil and home-cooked
meals, we are assuming the mantle of the aristocrats of old. If we fail to understand how scant and
monotonous most traditional diets were, we fail to appreciate the 'ethnic foods' we encounter.
Culinary Luddites are right, though, about two important things: We need to know how to prepare good
food, and we need a culinary ethos. As far as good food goes, they've done us all a service by teaching
us how to use the bounty delivered to us by the global economy. Their ethos, though, is another matter.
Were we able to turn back the clock, as they urge, most of us would be toiling all day in the fields or the
kitchen, and many of us would be starving.
Question 553: The word “preposterous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sensible B. popular C. ridiculous D. right
Question 554: Which of the following is NOT an important factor mentioned in paragraphs 5 and 6?
A. the development of take-away food as an option
B. the arduous nature of food preparation before mass-production
C. the global benefits of industrialised food production
D. the range of advantages that industrialised food production had
Question 555: What is the overall point that the writer makes in the reading passage?
A. People should learn the history of the food they consume.
B. Criticism of industrial food production is largely misplaced.
C. Modem industrial food is generally superior to raw and natural food.
D. People should be more grateful for the range of foods they can now choose from.
Question 556: The word “its” in paragraph 7 refers to ______.
A. food supply’s B. fairy tale’s C. history’s D. sunlit past’s
Question 557: What does the writer say about peasants?
A. They created imaginative soup and flatbread dishes.
B. Much of what they produced went to a landowner.
C. They were largely self-sufficient.
D. They had a better diet than most people living in cities.
Question 558: What is an important point the writer wishes to make in paragraph 7?
A. People need to have a balanced diet.
B. There are disadvantages to modem food production as well as advantages.
 C. People everywhere now have a huge range of food to choose from.
D. Demand for food that is traditionally produced exploits the people that produce it.
Question 559: Lasagna is an example of a dish ______.
A. that tastes like dishes from several other countries
B. that was only truly popular in northern Italy
C. invented by peasants
D. created for wealthy city-dwellers
Question 560: The word “servitude” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. attitude B. enslavement C. capability D. liberty

85. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and
influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has done more
harm than good.
In order to (561)______ the question, we must first turn to the type of consumer. Presumably, most
parents buy mobile phones for their teenagers to track their whereabouts and ensure their safety. We can
also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out (562)______ social contact.
In this context, the advantages are clear. However, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been
used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (563)______ evidence that texting has
affected literacy skills.
The ubiquitous use of the mobile phone has, (564)______ question, affected adult consumers, too.
What employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss?
Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a recent survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones
once we’ve left the office.
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally
speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short
(565)______. According to a recent survey, they also provide their owners with a sense of security in
emergency situations.
In conclusion, mobile phones do have their drawbacks, but these are outweighed by the benefits. I would argue
that it is not the tool that chooses its purpose, but the user.
Question 561: A. answer B. address C. remedy D. . put right
Question 562: A. in B. to C. of D. on
Question 563: A. indisputable B. arguable C. doubtless D. unhesitating
Question 564: A. out of B. without C. beyond D. outside
Question 565: A. time B. notice C. term D. warning
86. Read the following passage and mark the letter A B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
All foods contain water - cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% water, potatoes and
other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty
it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.
Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and ot her Mediterranean countries, and also in
California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on
trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are
exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties
of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of
the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.
Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put
food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about 45°C
at exit. This is the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.
Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated
horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In
the first case, the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small,
though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine
powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are
dried separately and then mixed.
Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and they
do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers,
explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with housewives
because it takes so little time to cook them.
Question 566: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Advantages of dried foods.
B. Water: the main component of food.
C. Mechanization of drying foods.
D. Different methods of drying foods.
Question 567: The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reduced considerably B. put a tick
C. examined carefully D. motivated to develop
Question 568: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______
A. remove their wax coating B. kill off bacteria
C. maintain their color D. crack their skin
Question 569: Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is ______.
A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards
 B. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through
C. dipping them in an alkaline solution
D. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder
Question 570: What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?
A. Vegetables B. Foods C. Things D. Chambers
Question 571: The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be ______.
A. small flakes B. fine powder C. dried soup D. recognizable pieces
Question 572: According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ______.
A. explorers who are underweight B. soldiers who are not in battle
C. people who are on the move D. housewives who have little storage space
Question 573: This passage is mainly ______.
A. argumentative B. analytical C. informative D. fictional

87. Read the following passage and mark the letter A B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of
globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over
globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can
grow while its problems can be solved.
On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade
and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom
of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich
countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced
taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by
selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new
technology to spread and benefit others.
On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty,
inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most
developed nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but
because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of
South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-
liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is, industries
that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive.
Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of
money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized
by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the
economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out
of the country.
Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization
itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised
by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization
will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering
living standards and undermining environmental regulations.
One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be
regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global
scale.
Question 574: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that
A. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
B. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
C. there will be less competition among producers
D. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
Question 575: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means
A. distributed B. solved C. removed D. offered
Question 576: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means
A. prevents sellers from selling new products B. forces sellers to go bare-footed
C. makes sellers responsive to any changes D. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
Question 577: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich
because of
A. their help to developing countries B. their neo-liberal policies
C. their protectionism and subsidies D. their prevention of bubbles
Question 578: The word “undermining” in the passage mostly means
A. making less effective B. obeying C. observing D. making more effective
Question 579: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
D. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
Question 580: The debate over globalization is about how
A. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
B. to govern the global economy for
C. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
D. to terminate globalization in its entirety
88. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
Over the next 20 to 50 years, it will become harder to tell the (581) _______ between the human and
the machine. All, body part will be replaceable. Computers will function like the human brain with the
ability to recognize feelings and respond in a feeling way. They will then produce fake people. We will
then be able to create a machine duplicate of ourselves (582) _______ we will appear to be alive long
after we are dead. Maybe a few decades later, a way will be found to transfer our spirit, including our
memories and thoughts, to the new body. Then we can choose to live for as long as we want. It might be
expensive. When it becomes possible to do a spirit transfer, they will find (583) _______ to do them
automatically. So we will be able to reside within whichever duplicate we want, whenever we want.
Miniature robots will be built (584) _______ through your blood stream and repair damage. Also, larger robots
will be used when you are sick. When you have an upset stomach, you will swallow a very small cherry tasting
robot which will travel through your stomach taking video of the mess. It will be set up like a video game, so you
can control the exploring and the selection of images. Then you can replay the video to help a doctor (585)
_______ your illness, or to prove to your employer that you really, were sick.
Question 581: A. change B. difference C. appearance D. variety
Question 582: A. because B. soon C. but D. so
Question 583: A. over B. out C. down D. up
Question 584: A. travelling B. to be travelled C. to travel D. travel
Question 585: A. watch B. observe C. notice D. diagnose

89. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of
the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elavated plateaus, and large moutain
ranges. In geography, the term "continent" refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together
comprise about 29.2% of the planet's surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the
general use of the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually
represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by the water bodies or high
mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called
subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost
exclusively in the size of a particular landmass.
The analysis of compression and tension in the earth's crust has determined that continental structures
are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists
surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of their distintive
mineral and chemical composition. It's also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on top of unknown
continents that have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been forrmed by
means of a chemical reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at various
levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust formations by means
of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occured to form the
atmosphere, sea water and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components that
include shields, moutain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and blockvaulted belts.
The basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features
relative to the continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of
the surface features, soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of
layers. They are typically produced during substabtial crustal movements, which generate faulting and
moutain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation
of large moutain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the
occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate
evolution.
Question 586. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Continental structure and crust. B. Continental drift and division.
C. Scientific analyses of continental crusts. D. Various definitions of the term "continent".
Question 587. According to tha passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions. B. As extensive bodies of land.
C. As surficial compositions and ranges. D. As the largest identifiable features.
Question 588. The word "bounded" is closest in meaning to
A. covered B. convened C. dominated D. delimited
Question 589. The author in the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the
fact that __________.
A. Continents undergo compression and experience tension.
B. Continents have various underlying layers of crust.
C. Each continent has several planes and shelves.
D. Continents have different chemical makeup.
Question 590. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The distinctive features of their elements.
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size.
C. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features.
D. The proportional size of continents to one another.
Question 591. The phrase "This process" refers to _.
A. The rise of margins B. Mountain ranges
 C. Plate tectonic theory D. Continental collision
Question 592. The word "evidence" in the last line is closest in meaning to _____.
A. confirmation B. eventuality C. challenge D. exemplification

90. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
In many experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and
professor 2 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students
now are less mature and often not ready for the reponsibility of being in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacle. Parents,
who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children writing admission essays to
picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we
can look even more broadly to the social trends of today.
How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number
of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically
in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t
want our children to “suffer”.
The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary
skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some
individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the
growing number of medicated adolescents today.
Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I don’t
believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do
think is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life.
What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of
these students – the student who complains that the professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an
assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite
of careful instructions about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we
can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To
encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and
move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to
independent adulthood.
Question 593. According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are
___________.
A. not so academic B. too ready for college
C. responsible for their work D. not as mature
Question 594. The word “handle” in paragraph 2 mostly means .
A. point at B. deal with C. gain benefits from D. lend a hand to
Question 595. According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to
_________.
A. the absence of parents’ protection B. the over – parenting from parents
C. the lack of parental support D. the lack of financial support
Question 596. The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to ___________.
A. studying medicine at college B. receiving medical treatment
C. suffering anxiety or depression D. doing medical research
Question 597. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.
B. Our society certainly doesn’t want our children to experience unpleasant things.
C. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.
D. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.
Question 598. Students who are not well – prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of
life will need ______.
A. to be assigned more housework from adults B. to be encouraged to meet challenges
C. daily coaching from their teachers D. to be given more social responsibilities
Question 599. According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will ______.
A. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
B. defeat students from the very beginning
C. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
D. discourage students and let them down forever
Question 600. What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage?
A. Indifferent B. Critical C. Praising D. Humorous

91. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best fits
21st CENTURY TEACHERS: INEVITABLE CHANGES
21st century teachers need to serve as a guide or mentor for their students, not as the all- knowing sage
providing them with everything they need. Nowadays, with so much access (601) ______ resources of
all kinds, children invariably know more than teachers on different topics, step ahead of the technology.
Teachers need to be empowered as facilitators for learning, so that they can empower their students in
(602) ______. This shift is great news for teachers. Instead of struggling to give kids all the information
in areas (603) ______they know little about, teachers can support students as they make their own steps
into different fields. It’s about preparing them to go beyond their seniors, ensuring they have the skills
to do it, and assisting them along the way.
(604) ______, teachers need to be forward-thinking, curious and flexible. They must be learners: learning new
teaching methods, and learning alongside their students. Simply asking questions like “What will my students
need dozens of years from now?” or “How can I help give them those skills?” can change teachers' (605)
______, make them a leader, and bring about changes in the classroom, school and community.
Question 601: A. to B. with C. for D. in
Question 602: A. sight B. use C. line D. turn
Question 603: A. what B. that C. where D. whom
Question 604: A. For instance B. Therefore C. In practice D. Otherwise
Question 605: A. knowledge B. prejudice C. mindset D. judgement

92. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was
recognized when the sun was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent
solar time, even though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time
(DST), sometimes called summer time, was instituted to make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are
set forward one hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then
set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight.
Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate
in Paris in 1984 and wrote about it extensively in his essay, "An Economical Project." It is said that
Franklin awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the
economist, Franklin believed the practice of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight, as
candles were expensive at the time.
In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time
upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone,
including himself, would appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce
introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted
and introduced into Parliament several times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers.
Eventually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day following the third
Saturday in April and close after the first Saturday in October.
The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and set
Daylight Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United
States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on "the mean
astronomical time of the seventy-fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich" (England). In 1919, this
act was repealed.
President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–
1945. However, after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to
television and radio broadcasting and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the
Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the Department of
Transportation was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis
of the 1970s, President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of
1973 to conserve energy further. This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to
begin on the first Sunday in April (to spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back).
Question 606: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. Franklin’s idea of daylight saving B. Franklin's first conception
C. Franklin’s first official tenure D. Franklin’s delegation
Question 607: The word “obligatory” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. imperative B. approved C. deficient D. peculiar
Question 608: Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s?
A. Sir Robert Pearce
B. television and radio broadcasting companies
C. farmers
D. the U.S. Congress
Question 609: The word “devised” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. divided B. invented C. ordered D. adapted
Question 610: Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation?
A. It was created by President Richard Nixon.
B. It set standards for DST throughout the world.
C. It constructed the Uniform Time Act.
D. It oversees all time laws in the United States.
Question 611: The Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for
A. extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation
B. preserving and setting Daylight Saving Time across the continent
C. instituting five time zones in the United States
D. conserving energy by giving the Department of Transportation authority over time laws
Question 612: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act
B. The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time
C. The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving Time
D. Daylight Saving Time in the United States

93. Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
SHAYNE’S DREAMS COME TRUE - BUT WILL THEY BE SHATTERED?
It is a week before The X Factor live tour when I meet the winner of the series, Shayne Ward. “It has
been mental,” he says, referring to the past six months of his life. “I've just been talking to Louis Walsh
on the phone. Louis Walsh!” Walsh, a top record producer and The X Factor judge, now manages
Shayne’s career. “I was talking to Simon Cowell (a celebrity record producer) yesterday!” He shakes his
head in amazement. And these people are telling me they're excited about working with me. “I can't get
my head round it.”
Shayne is about as natural as any pop star arriving in the public arena can be. “I just can’t accept where I
am now” he says sincerely. “It doesn't feel real. To me, this is just a job.” “What do you think being
famous feels like?” I ask him. “I'm not sure, to be honest. Different from this?” he laughs, with only a
hint of nerves. Since winning The X Factor, Shayne's success has been phenomenal. His debut single
took just three days to reach the number one spot. On tour, he's going to play to audiences of 10,000 on
average. He has already brought the house down at a gig in his home city. “I walked out after that
performance and just thought, “I’m dreaming!”” Shayne is one of a family of seven children. Times
were hard, but he has never wished or a different childhood. Although he thought about going to
college, he ended up leaving school at sixteen, just to help his mother pay the rent. He set out on his
reality show journey shortly afterwards. When he told he friends he had an audition for The X Factor,
none of them really believed him. “I thought I’d go fot it because my family wanted me to, but I never
really believed that I would win.”
Naturally, Ward is a fan of reality TV talent shows. “They're brilliant, because people who want
recording contracts try for years and get nowhere. Then these competitions come along the people at
home decide whether they like the singers or not. So its not just a few people at a record company
deciding who gets a chance.” But the previous winner of The X Factor only had one hit. He hasn't been
heard of since then. Is Shayne Ward going to be another talent show flop?
A lot of people feel cynical about reality TV show winners and their chances of continuing success.
Audiences usually lose interest in them as soon as the show has finished. In fact, contestants on shows
like Big Brother are given severe warnings from the show’s producers beforehand, basically telling
them “you will not be liked”. Talent shows like The X Factor have to offer contestants a kind of stardom
though, and something they can think of as a career, months afterwards at least.
Question 613: The word “mental” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. psychiatric B. physical C. crazy D. mind-bending
Question 614: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to
A. the tour B. the experience C. the phone call D. the show
Question 615: Which of the following statement is TRUE about Shayne Ward?
A. He is certain how well known he is.
B. He finds his present situation unacceptable.
C. He is confused about the nature of fame.
 D. He thinks his job isn’t particularly glamorous.
Question 616: After performing in his home city, Shayne felt
A. overwhelmed B. embarrassed C. disappointed D. relieved
Question 617: After leaving school at the age of sixteen, Shayne
A. set off on a trip B. gave up performing
C. got himself a job D. applied to a college
Question 618: The word “flop” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. someone who is unpopular B. someone who is unsuccessful
C. someone who isn’t ambitious D. someone who lacks character
Question 619: According to the passage, who decide the winner of a reality TV talent show?
A. audiences B. contestants C. previous winners D. record companies
Question 620: What does the writer suggest about reality talent show winners?
A. They are treated badly by producers. B. Their fame is short-lived.
C. Audiences never really like them. D. They don’t expect to be popular.
94. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on television. Most of them imagine that
the presenter does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the
weather, and then go home. In fact, this image is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we
all rely on when we need to know tomorrow's weather is the result of a hard day's work by the presenter,
who is actually a highlyqualified meteorologist. Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first
task of the day is to collect the latest data from the National Meteorological Office. This office provides
up-to-the-minute information about weather conditions throughout the day, both in Britain and around
the world. The information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar pictures, as well
as more technical data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to
translate the scientific terminology and maps into images and words which viewers can easily
understand. The final broadcast is then carefully planned. It is prepared in the same way as other
programmes. The presenter decides what to say and in what order to say it. Next a "story board" is
drawn up which lays out the script word for word. What makes a weather fore-cast more complicated
than other programmes are the maps and electronic images which are required. The computer has to be
programmed so that the pictures appear in the cor-rect order during the bulletin.
The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather re-port is screened after
the news, which can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn't always know how much time is
available, which means that he/she has to be thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to
the time available. Another related complication is that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it
cannot be pre-recorded. Live shows are very nerve-racking for the presenter because almost anything
can go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather fore-caster is getting the following
day's predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them, this is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is not
always possible to predict accurately. The weather is a national obsession in Britain, perhaps because it
is so changeable. It’s the national talking point, and most people watch at least one day bulletin. It can
be mortifying for a weather man or woman who has predicted rain for the morning to wake up to
brilliant sunshine. This day, a weather forecaster’s job is even more complicated because they are relied
upon to predict other environmental conditions. For example, in the summer the weather forecast has to
include reports on ultraviolet radiation intensity to help people avoid sunburn. The job of a weather
forecaster is certainly far more complicated than just pointing at a map and describing weather
conditions. It's a job for professionals who can cope with stressful and demanding conditions.
Question 621: What perception do most people have of weather forecasters?
A. They have many qualifications. B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.
C. They work very short hours. D. They always tell the truth.
Question 622: Meteorologists get their information from
A. the TV studio. B. the country’s main weather centre.
C. satellite and radar information. D. their office.
Question 623: Creating a weather forecast is complex because
A. maps have to be drawn. B. a lot of data has to be interpreted
C. radar pictures are technical. D. the information includes unreliable predictions.
Question 624: The computer has to be carefully programmed
A. so that the visuals are sequenced correctly.
B. so that the script is visible to the presenter.
C. because the script has to be written on a story board.
D. because electronic maps are used.
Question 625: Weather forecasters have to know the material well because
A. the broadcast is pre-recorded
B. the forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast.
C. the content of the report may have to change.
D. the length of the report may have to change.
Question 626: What does “this” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. The weather forecaster’s worry. B. Reading the weather live.
C. Giving a forecast that doesn't come true. D. An accurate prediction
Question 627: In Britain, people’s attitude to the weather
A. is not changeable.
B. makes it a top discussion topic.
C. depends on the prediction being for a sunny or rainy day.
D. is a national problem.
Question 628: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to
A.do experiments to determine the pollen count. B. simply point at map and describe weather
conditions
C. cope with professionals. D. be able to cope under pressure

95. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
YOGA
Yoga is one of the most ancient forms of exercise, originating in India 5000 years ago. Yoga has taken
several years to become recognised world-wide, although recently, much more attention has been
(629)______ to it because of the ways in which it can benefit health. Yoga can be practised by anyone,
at any age, in any physical condition, depending on physical needs. For example, athletes and dancers
can practise it to (630)______ their energy and to improve stamina; executives to give a much needed
(631)______ to their overworked minds; children to improve their memory and concentration. It's a
good idea to (632)______ with a doctor first if you've suffered from any type of injury. None of the
exercises should (633)______ you any pain, but it's best to start slowly at first. The best time to practise is
either in the morning or in the evening. Beginners find it easier in the evening when the body is more supple.
Question 629: A. put B. paid C. allowed D. provided
Question 630: A. receive B. return C. realize D. restore
Question 631: A. interruption B. pause C. interval D. break
Question 632: A. see B. check C. control D. call
Question 633: A. make B. do C. cause D. result

96. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate the
There is a wide range of organisms by their population whose lives mostly depend on how they hunt or
are hunted. And most living organisms have some way of protecting themselves from natural predators.
Some mammals, like the platypus, carry internal toxins to transmit to predators via biting or other
means, and some plants protect themselves by being poisonous. The African crested rat was originally
thought to be poisonous because predators that tried to eat it often became paralyzed. But scientists
have recently learned that's not actually the case.
The crested rat chews on the poisonous bark of a certain tree, and then smears the chewed-up substance
onto its fur, where a strip of special quill-like hairs soaks up the poisonous mixture. Though similar to a
porcupine's, the quills do differ: whereas the porcupine defends itself by poking predators, the African
rat uses its quill-like hairs to deliver poison to them. When a predator comes after it, instead of running
away, the rat stays put and parts its hair to reveal the strip of fur on its back where the poison is being
stored. That raised strip is the first thing that receives a bite, and the poison inside disables the predator.
These hair tubes are unusual. In fact, scientists do not know of another animal that uses plant poison in
this way.
Scientists are puzzled that the rat doesn't appear to be affected by the poison. Because it affects heartbeat
regulation, understanding how the rat can keep its heart rate regulated effectively while using the poison
could help scientists develop new medicines for people with heart trouble. And they hope that those
suffering from heart diseases will benefit from this.
Question 634: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To show how animals can affect plant life.
B. To compare one animal to other similar ones.
C. To emphasize the dangers of researching animals.
D. To discuss an unusual animal defense technique.
Question 635: In paragraph 1, why does the author mention the platypus?
A. To illustrate that mammals may eat poisonous plants.
B. To give an example of a mammal that uses poison.
C. To show how it differs from the crested rat.
D. To explain that the platypus is at risk.
Question 636: The word “paralyzed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. disabled B. unaffected C. inaccessible D. undecided
Question 637: In paragraph 2, what does the word “them” refer to?
A. predators B. porcupines C. crested rats D. quill-like hairs
Question 638: The word “defends” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. encourages B. protects C. feeds D. pretends
Question 639: What are scientists surprised by?
A. How toxic plant poison can be. B. How useful plant toxins can be.
C. How quickly rats learn new behavior. D. That the rats are protected from the poison.
Question 640: What would scientists like to investigate further?
A. Medicine used to counteract poison. B. Other animals like the crested rat.
C. Health effects of a chemical. D. Rats with unhealthy hearts.

97. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
University researchers have taken samples from a preserved dodo specimen in an (641) _____ to
uncover the extinct bird’s family tree. They worked with the British Natural History Museum to collect
and study genetic material from large number of specimens: a preserved dodo, the extinct solitaire bird,
and 35 kind of living pigeons and doves. Their analysis (642) _____ the doo and the solitaire to be close
relatives with the Nicobar pigeon, their nearest living relative. The dodo lived on Mauritius in the Indian
Ocean. It was a flightless bird, bigger than a turkey. By 1681, all dodos had been (643) _____ by hungry
sailors. The solitaire, which looked a bit like a dodo, had gone the same way by 1800. By extracting
short pieces of the dodo’s DNA and (644) _____ these with the DNA of living birds, the scientists were
able to deduce when the dodo evolved away from its relatives into a separate entity. The scientists can
now (645) _____ assume that the dodo developed its distinctive appearance and features as a result of its
geographical isolation. They are now convinced that it separated from the solitaire about 25 million years ago,
long before Mauritius became an island.
Question 641: A. attempt B. intention C. order D. assistance
Question 642: A. advises B. involves C. shows D. recommends
Question 643: A. disappeared B. vanished C. killed D. extinct
Question 644: A. studying B. comparing C. researching D. combining
Question 645: A. surely B. hardly C. highly D. safely

98. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
There has been much debate over the past few decades concerning fears that automation will lead to
robots replacing human workers on a massive scale.
The increasing use of robotics, computers and artificial intelligence is a reality, but its full implications
are far from cut and dried. Some forecasts present the future in a utopian way, claiming that robots will
take over the tedious heavy work thus freeing up human time and potential, allowing for more creativity
and innovation. At the other end of spectrum are those who foresee an employment apocalypse,
predicting that almost fifty percent of all American jobs could vanish within the next few decades.
Former Microsoft chairman Bill Gates states that in 20 years robots could be in place in a number of job
categories, particularly those at lower end of the scale in terms of skills.
The bottom line is that while the future is always uncertain, robots are a fixture of our society, which is
not going to disappear. As with the Industrial Revolution, where machines were utilized in many tasks
in place of manual laborers and social upheaval followed, the Digital Revolution is likely to place robots
in various jobs. In spite of that, many of today’s jobs were not in existence before the Industrial
Revolution, such as those of programmers, engineers and data scientists. This leads other experts to
criticize this alarmist approach of robot scare-mongering, which is invariably compared to the 19 th-
century “Luddites”. This group was textile workers who feared being displaced by machines and
resorted to violence, burning down factories and destroying industrial equipment – their rejection of
inevitable progress has come to symbolize mindless ignorance.
Needless to say, exactly what new kinds of jobs might exist in the future is difficult to envision at
present. Therefore, the crux of the issue is not whether jobs will be lost, but whether the creation of new
vacancies will outpace the ever-increasing number of losses and what skills will be required in the
future.
It is clearly not all doom and gloom, as demand for employees with skills in data analysis, coding,
computer science, artificial intelligence and human-machine interface is rising and will continue to do
so. Furthermore, the demand for skills in jobs where humans surpass computers, such as those involving
care, creativity and innovative craftmanship, are likely to increase considerably. Ultimately, the key lies
in the adaptation of the workforces, through appropriate education and training, to keep pace with our
world’s technological progress.
Question 646: What is the main concern associated with technological advances in the workplace?
A. safety at work B. increased unemployment
C. the use of artificial intelligence D. robots taking over the world
Question 647: What do optimists predict technology will allow?
A. workplaces to become more relaxing B. a greater enjoyment of life
C. flexible working hours D. higher quality products
Question 648: What can be inferred from the comments made by Bill Gates?
A. Changes will occur for many decades.
B. There will be increasing amounts of unskilled workers.
C. Highly skilled workers have less to worry about.
D. Technology will have a negative effect in the workplace.
Question 649: Why is the example of the Industrial Revolution given?
A. It was also a time of great change in the workplace.
B. It had far less of an effect than the Digital Revolution.
C. It lead to widespread unemployment in the world.
D. It resulted in a more violent society.
Question 650: What is the modern-day view of the Luddites?
A. They managed to protect their jobs.
B. Their refusing to adapt to change is seen in a negative way.
C. Their adapting to new technology saved their jobs.
D. Their actions are inspiring many workers today.
Question 651: Which of the following is closest in meaning to crux in paragraph 4?
A. The most complex part B. The hidden message
C. The least understood part D. The most important part
Question 652: According to the article, which quality will technology never be able to replace?
A. teamwork B. human compassion
C. the desire to manufacture goods D. human intelligence
Question 653: What is the main idea of this article?
A. There are few negative consequences to the Digital Revolution.
B. Learning about technology is a natural part of human development.
 C. Workers will need to adapt to technological changes.
D. Unemployment will increase dramatically as technology advances.

99. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Thanks to electricity, candles are no longer a necessity in our lives, but they are still a pleasure. The
warm flame of candlelight can quickly alter the mood and atmosphere of a room, often creating a
peaceful scene that electric light just cannot match.
Candles are an important part of many cultural and religious festival and have been burnt in various
forms for centuries. The ancient Romans and Egyptians made candles from a type of fiber coated with
wax. However, up until the nineteenth century, most candles were made from a substance called tallow,
obtained from beef fat. Tallow candles were very smoky and, understandably, had an unpleasant odor.
In the 19th century, candle makers learned to separate stearin, the solid form fat used as a type of glue,
from tallow and used it to harden other fats. Candles that contained stearin would burn longer than
previous ones and had a better smell. Stearin is still one of the main components of modern candle-
making, and the techniques used to create candles today are much the same as they have been for many
years. These days, the increase range of wax dyes, perfumes and other additives that are now available
make candle making a very exciting and rewarding hobby.
Sales of candles have increased greatly over the last few years, showing that they have become part of
our lives again, not through necessity, but because of the magical atmosphere they create. In our
increasingly stressful lives, the calming quality of candlelight has a relaxing effect that many enjoy.
For those would like to learn to make candles, finding and buying candle-making kits is easy. Candle-
making is definitely enhanced by the exciting possibilities of experimentation with various materials. Be
brave and try out different effects – some of the most wonderful creations can happen by accident. With
a bit of practice, you will be amazed at the very professional finish that can be achieved.
Despite their delicate beauty, candles can, of course, be highly dangerous. One should never leave lit
candles unattended, even for a few moments. Always make sure candles are securely placed within
candleholders.
Teach your children to respect a burning candle, and of course keep burning candles away from
flammable materials. Keep your home safe by remembering that a candle is magical, but fire can be
very destructive. Be careful, and enjoy the beauty of your candles!
Question 654: According to the text, what is the importance of candles?
A. We need them in case there is an electric backout.
B. We gain a feeling of calm when they are lit in a room.
C. We light them to create a more romantic atmosphere.
D. We cannot do without them in our daily lives.
Question 655: Why dose the writer mention ancient Romans and Egyptians in the text?
 A. to show that before making candles, we should learn their history
B. to show one of the ways candles were made in the past
C. to show how candles were invented
D. to show that candles have always been used
Question 656: Why was stearin used in candles?
A. It create a more colorful flame than tallow. B. It covered up unpleasant smells in the air.
C. It was used to get rid of fat in the candles. D. It helped make candles burn longer.
Question 657: According to the text, what dose the increase of candle sales illustrate?
A. People enjoy the calming effect that candles produce.
B. The variety of candles to choose from makes them more attractive.
C. People buy candles as gifts more often than they used to.
D. Candles are cheaper to buy now than they were in the past.
Question 658: According to the text, what is needed to succeed at candle-making?
A. a few years of practice B. a lot of time and money
C. willingness to take risks D. many expensive materials
Question 659: What dose the passage warn readers not to do?
A. burn candle without adult supervision B. leave a room where a candle is burning
C. use unapproved ingredients in candles D. burn candles for only a few minutes
Question 660: Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
A. Candle-making can be a successful business.
B. Candles are made from different types of material.
C. Candles continue to be a part of people’s lives.
D. Candle-making has changed little over the years.

100. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Women are much healthier when they (661) ______ it easy, reveals a new survey. Those who work long
hours are more likely than men to (662) ______ in unhealthy behavior such as eating snacks, smoking
and drinking caffeine. (Long hours have no such impact on men). One positive benefit of long hours for
both sexes, however, is that alcohol (663) ______ is reduced.
The study (664) ______ by the Economic and Social Research Council is part of a wider study by
psychologists from the University of Leeds into the effects of stress on eating. “Stress causes people to
(665) ______ for unhealthy high fat and high–sugar snacks in preference to healthier food choice” says researcher
Dr. Daryl of the University of Leeds.
Question 661: A. make B. feel C. take D. get
Question 662: A. indulge B. interest C. develop D. participate
Question 663: A. beverage B. consumption C. expenditure D. sales
Question 664: A. funding B. which funds C. funded D. which funded
Question 665: A. choose B. select C. decide D. opt

101. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were marked by the
development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines, floral and vegetable
motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together
elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural forms. The glass objects of this style
were elegant in outline, although often deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored
device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been buried. Much
of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been generically
termed “art glass.” Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect on carefully
chosen color combinations and innovative techniques.
France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style; among the most
celebrated was Emile Galle (1846–1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany (1843–1933) was
the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were
widely copied in their time and are highly prized today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully
combining ancient Egyptian, Japanese, and Persian motifs.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915, although its
influence continued throughout the mid–1920’s.It was eventually to be overtaken by a new school of
thought known as Functionalism that had been present since the turn of the century. At first restricted to
a small avant–garde group of architects and designers, Functionalism emerged as the dominant
influence upon designers after the First World War. The basic tenet of the movement–that function
should determine form–was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: from should be
simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new design
concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the styles and conventions of the preceding
decades, created an entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass to fall out of
favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrast, stark outline and complex textural surfaces.
Question 666: What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?
A. Design elements in the Art Nouveau style
B. The popularity of the Art Nouveau style
C. Production techniques for art glass
D. Color combinations typical of the Art Nouveau style
Question 667: The word “one” refers to______.
A. century. B. development. C. style. D. coloration.
Question 668: Para.1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to which aspect of
ancient buried glass______.
A. The distortion of the glass B. The appearance of the glass surface
C. The shapes of the glass objects D. The size of the glass objects
Question 669: The word “overtaken” in line 19 is closest in meaning to______.
A. surpassed B. inclined C. expressed D. applied
Question 670: What does the author mean by stating that “function should determine form”?
A. A useful object should not be attractive.
B. The purpose of an object should influence its form.
C. The design of an object is considered more significant than its function.
D. The form of an object should not include decorative elements.
Question 671: It can be inferred from the passage that one reason Functionalism became popular was
that it______.
A. clearly distinguished between art and design
B. appealed to people who liked complex painted designs
C. reflected a common desire to break from the past
D. was easily interpreted by the general public
Question 672: Paragraph 3 supports which of the following statements about Functionalism?
A. Its design concept avoided geometric shapes.
B. It started on a small scale and then spread gradually.
C. It was a major force in the decorative arts before the First World War.
D. It was not attractive to architects all designers.
Question 673: According to the passage, an object made in the Art Nouveau style would most likely
include ______.
A. a flowered design. B. bright colors. C. modern symbols. D. a textured surface.

102. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
According to anthropologists, people in preindustrial societies spent 3 to 4 hours per day or about 20
hours per week doing the work necessary for life. Modern comparisons of the amount of work
performed per week, however, begin with the Industrial Revolution (1760–1840) when 10– to 12–hour
workdays with six workdays per week were the norm. Even with extensive time devoted to work,
however, both incomes and standards of living were low. As incomes rose near the end of the Industrial
Revolution, it became increasingly common to treat Saturday afternoons as a half–day holiday. The half
holiday had become standard practice in Britain by the 1870's, but did not become common in the
United States until the 1920's.
In the United States, the first third of the twentieth century saw the workweek move from 60 hours per
week to just under 50 hours by the start of the 1930' s. In 1914, Henry Ford reduced daily work hours at
his automobile plants from 9 to 8. In 1926 he announced that henceforth his factories would close for
the entire day on Saturday. At the time, Ford received criticism from other firms such as United States
Steel and Westinghouse, but the idea was popular with workers.
The Depression years of the 1930's brought with them the notion of job sharing to spread available work
around; the workweek dropped to a modem low for the United States of 35 hours. In 1938 the Fair
Labor Standards Act mandated a weekly maximum of 40 hours to begin in 1940, and since that time the
8–hour day, 5–day workweek has been the standard in the United States. Adjustments in various places,
however, show that this standard is not immutable. In 1987, for example, German metalworkers struck
for and received a 37.5–hour workweek; and in 1990 many workers in Britain won a 37–hour week.
Since 1989, the Japanese government has moved from a 6– to a 5–day workweek and has set a national
target of 1,800 work hours per year for the average worker. The average amount of work per year in
Japan in 1989 was 2,088 hours per worker, compared to 1,957 for the United States and 1,646 for
France.
Question 674: Compared to preindustrial times, the number of hours in the workweek in the nineteenth
century______.
A. remained constant B. decreased slightly
C. decreased significantly D. increased significantly
Question 675: The "idea" mentioned in line 15 refers to______.
A. the criticism of Ford by United States Steel and Westinghouse.
B. the reduction in the workweek at some automobile factories.
C. the reduction in the cost of automobiles.
D. the 60–hour workweek.
Question 676: Which of the following is mentioned as one of the purposes of the Fair Labor Standards
Act of 1938?
A. To restrict trade with countries that had a long workweek.
B. To discourage workers from asking for increased wages.
C. To establish a limit on the number of hours in the workweek.
D. To allow employers to set the length of the workweek for their workers.
Question 677: What is one reason for the change in the length of the workweek for the average worker
in the United States during the 1930's?
A. Several people sometimes shared a single job.
B. Labor strikes in several countries influenced labor policy in the United States.
C. Several corporations increased the length of the workweek.
D. The United States government instituted a 35–hour workweek.
Question 678: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Working conditions during the Industrial Revolution.
B. Why people in preindustrial societies worked few hours per week.
C. Changes that have occurred in the number of hours that people work per week.
D. A comparison of the number of hours worked per year in several industries.
Question 679: The word "henceforth" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
A. for a brief period. B. from that time on. C. in the end. D. on occasion.
Question 680: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as evidence that the length of the workweek
has been declining since the nineteenth century?
A. Henry Ford. B. German metalworkers.
C. The half–day holiday. D. United States Steel and Westinghouse.

EXERCISE 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You're
not too far off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways
that technology intersects with teen friendships — and the results show that 57 percent of
teens have made at least one new friend online. Even more surprisingly, only 20 percent of
those digital friends ever meet in person.
While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55 percent of
their day texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time with their friends
on a daily basis (outside of school hallways). These new forms of communication are key in
maintaining friendships day-to-day — 27 percent of teens instant message their friends every day, 23
percent connect through social media every day, and 7 percent even video chat daily. Text messaging
remains the main form of communication — almost half of survey respondents say it's their chosen
method of communication with their closest friend.
While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends (and
maintaining friendships) in the gaming world-89 percent play with friends they know, and 54
percent play with online-only friends. Whether they're close with their teammates or not, online
garners say that playing makes them feel "more connected" to friends they know, or garners they've
never met.
When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity- 62
percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a new friend
(although 80 percent still consider their phone number the best method of contact). Despite the negative
consequences-21 percent of teenage users feel worse about their lives because of posts they see
on social media — teens also have found support and connection through various platforms. In
fact, 68 percent of teens received support during a challenging time in their lives via social media
platforms.
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected
with current friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals that
girls are more likely to block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users report
experiencing "drama among their friends on social media."
Question 1: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Social media affects friendship too much.
A. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.
B. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys.
C. Social media connects friendship.
Question 2: The word "digital" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to .

A. analogue B. numeracy C. numerous D. online

Question 3: According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their friends?
A. 25% B. 55% C.27% D. 23%
Question 4: The following sentences aretrue, EXCEPT .
A. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online.
B. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made.
C. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends.
D. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships.
Question 5: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. friends B. online garners C. their teammates D. online-only
friends
Question 6: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Boys are more likely to meet new friends than girls.
B. Most teens are not easy to give others their usernames when making new friends.
C. The majority of teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in their
lives.
D. Thanks to social media, more than two thirds of teens are supported when they face
with challenges in their lives.
Question 7: What is the synonym of the word "breakup" in the last paragraph?
A. termination B. divorce C. commencing D.
popularity Question 8: What does the writer mean when saying "68 percent of all
teenage users report experiencing "drama among their friends on social media""?
A. Most teenagers take part in drama on social media.
B. Most friends on social media of teens are reported in drama.
C. Most teenagers use their experience in drama with their friends on social media.
D. Most teenagers have ever had conflicts with friends on social media.
Exercise 2:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The difference between the nuclear family and the extended family is that a nuclear family refers to a
single basic family unit of parents and their children, whereas the extended family refers to their
relatives such as grandparents, in-laws, aunts and uncles, etc. In many cultures, and particularly
indigenous societies, the latter is the most common basic form of social organization.
A nuclear family is limited, according to Kristy Jackson of Colorado State University, to one or two
parents (e.g. a father and mother) and their own child, or children, living together in a single
house or other dwellings. In anthropology, they only must be related in this fashion; there is no upper
or lower limit on the number of children in a nuclear family.
The extended family is a much more nebulous term, but in essence refers to kin or relations not
covered by the above definition. In historical Europe and Asia as well as in Middle Eastern, African,
and South American Aboriginal cultures, extended family groups were typically the most basic unit
of social organization, The term can differ in specific cultural settings, but generally includes people
related in age or by lineage.
Anthropologically, the term "extended family" refers to such a group living together in a household,
often with three generations living together (grandparents, parents, and children) and headed in
patriarchal societies by the eldest man or by some other chosen leadership figure. However, in
common parlance, the term "extended family" is often used by people simply to refer to their
cousins, aunts, uncles, and so on, even though they are not living together in a single group.
Question 9: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The dominance of nuclear families over extendedones
B. The dominance of extended families over nuclear ones
C. A distinction between nuclear families and extended ones
D. The changes of family types over times
Question 10: The word "the latter" in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. family unit B. relatives C. the nuclear family D. the extended
family
Question 11: The word "nebulous" in passage 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. ambiguous B. featured C. difficult
D.incomprehensive Question 12: Historically, extended families
were the most basic unit of social organization in all of the following places EXCEPT .
A. The Middle East B. Asia C. North America D. Europe
Question 13: The word "patriarchal" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. ruled or controlledby men B. equal for both men andwomen
C. simple with no rules and laws D. modern with advanced facilities
Question 14: Which of the following is TRUE according to the pass

Since the 20th century, more and more American couples have lived in extended
families because of the financial burdens.

A. Nuclear families are the most basic form of social organization all over the world.
B. The popularity of nuclear families in western countries helps to stabilize
family arrangement
C. Traditional nuclear families have changed a lot over times.
Question 15: What can be inferred from the reading passage?
A. Indigenous communities have been completely eradicated all over the world.
B. In the future, all extended families will be replaced by nuclear ones.
C. Anthropology is a science concerning human race and its development.
D. Couples with no children can't be defined as families.
Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
For hundreds of years, giving flowers have been a social means of communication. In the
United States, flowers are often given during rites of passage, for commemorating special
occasions or as a heartfelt gift between loved ones and friends. Flower gifting also occurs in
most countries around the world. However, the meanings and traditions often vary.
While students traditionally gave their favorite teacher an apple in past years, in China, teachers
are given flowers. Peonies are by far the flower most often given in China. They are also
quite popularly used for weddings. Strangely, potted plants are not considered a pleasant
gift among Asian cultures. The people believe that like a plant confined by a pot, the gift
symbolizes a binding or restriction.
In Russia, in lieu of giving birthday presents, the guest of honor receives a single flower or an
unwrapped bouquet. Floral arrangements or baskets are not given. Russians celebrate a
holiday known as Woman's Day. Traditional gifts include red roses, hyacinths or tulips.
When there is a funeral or other occasion where someone wishes to express sympathy,
carnations, lilies or roses are given in circular configurations, which signify the transition of
birth, life and death to rebirth. In this instance, the color of choice is commonly yellow. For
joyous occasions, arrangements and bouquets generally contain an odd number of flowers.
In the times of ancient Rome, brides carried flowers to scare away evil spirits and encourage
fertility. The Dutch believed that flowers were food for the soul. When invited to someone's home
in Great Britain, it is tradition to bring a gift of flowers. All types are acceptable except white
lilies, which are usually seen at funerals. Unlike the United States, red roses are a symbol of love.

Flowers are generally gifted in odd numbered increments regardless of the occasion.
However, the Brits also have superstitions regarding the number 13, so the number is
avoided.
In the southern region of the continent, flowers are traditionally given during Christmas.
Egyptians are much more conservative and restrict flower gifting to funerals and weddings.
While certain flowers may have significant meanings for some, flowers in Las Vegas and across
the United States flowers are an accepted gift for any reason desired.
Question 16: What does the topic mainly discuss?
A. The fascinating tradition of giving flowers.
B. The different meanings of flowers in different cultures.
C. The comparison of giving flowers between Asian and European cultures.
D. The kinds of flowers people often give each other in different cultures.
Question 17: What does the word "They" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Students B. Teachers C. Flowers D. Peonies
Question 18: Why should not you give a potted plant to an Asian?
A. Because the Asian prefer to be given flowers.
B. As this gift is often given at weddings in Asia.
C. Since this gift is believed to symbolize an astriction and limitation in Asia.
D. Because Asian students like to give an apple or flowers to others.
Question 19: According to the passage, the following flowers are given at Woman's Day in Russia,
EXCEPT .
A. red roses B. hyacinths C. tulips D. yellow roses
Question 20: What could the word "fertility" in paragraph 4 best be replaced by?
A. fecundity B. good spirit C. happiness D. loyalty
Question 21: The word "superstitions" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. deep-seated belief B. unfounded belief
C. religious belief D. traditional belief
Question 22: In which country should not people bring white lilies to other houses?
A. China B. Russia C. Great Britain D. United States
Question23: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. People can give flowers to the American in any
occasion.
B. Egyptians are rather comfortable when receiving flowers at funerals and weddings.
C. Flowers given in Britain are in even numbers in any case.
D. At the funerals in any cultures, flowers are gifted in circular configurations.
Exercise 4:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
FIRST TIME IN THE AIR
When John Mills was going to fly in an airplane for the first time, he was frightened. He did
not like the idea of being thousands of feet up in the air. "I also didn't like the fact that I
wouldn't be in control," says John.
"I'm a terrible passenger in the car. When somebody else is driving, I tell them what to so. It drives
everybody crazy."
However John couldn't avoid flying any longer. It was the only way he could visit his
grandchildren in Canada.
"I had made up my mind that I was going to do it, I couldn't let my son, his wife and their three
children travel all the way here to visit me. It would be so expensive for them and I know Tom's
business isn't doing so well at the moment - it would also be tiring for the children - it's a nine-
hour flight!" he says.
To get ready for the flight John did lots of reading about airplanes. When he booked his seat, he
was told that he would be flying on a Boeing 747, which is better known as a jumbo jet. "I
needed to know as much as possible before getting in that plane. I suppose it was a way of
making myself feel better. The Boeing 747 is the largest passenger aircraft in the world at the
moment.
The first one flew on February 9th 1969 in the USA. It can carry up to 524 passengers and
3.400 pieces of luggage. The fuel for airplanes is kept in the wings and the 747's wings are so
big that they can carry enough fuel for an average car to be able to travel 16,000 kilometers a
year for 70 years.
Isn't that unbelievable? Even though I had discovered all this very interesting information
about the jumbo, when I saw it for the first time, just before I was going to travel to Canada, I
still couldn't believe that something so enormous was going to get up in the air and fly. I was
even more impressed when I saw how big it was inside with hundreds of people!"
The biggest surprise of all for John was the flight itself. "The take-off itself was much
smoother than I expected although I was still quite scared until we were in the air. In the end,
I managed to relax, enjoy the food and watch one of the movies and the view from the
window was spectacular. I even managed to sleep for a while!

"Of course," continues John, "the best reward of all was when I arrived in Canada and saw my son and
his family, particularly my beautiful grandchildren. Suddenly, I felt so silly about all the years when I
couldn't even think of getting on a plane. I had let my fear of living stop me from seeing the people I
love most in the world. I can visit my son and family as often as I like now!"
Question 24: Why did John Mills fly in an airplane?
A. He wanted to go on holiday B. He wanted to try it.
C. He wanted to seehis family D. He had to travel on business.
Question 25: Why did John read about airplane?
A. He wanted to know how they work. B. It was his hobby.
C. It made himfeel safer. D. He had found a book on them.
Question 26: What does the word "which" in the paragraph refer to?
A. reading about airplanes B. booking his seat
C. flying on a Boeing 747 D. a Boeing 747
Question 27: What happened when he saw the jumbo jet for the first time
A. He feltmuch safer. B. He liked the shape of it.
C. He couldn't believe how bigit was. D. He thought the wings were very small.
Question 28: How did John feel when the airplane was taking off?
A. excited B. happy C. sad D. frightened
Question 29: What surprised John most about the flight?
A. that he liked the food. B. that he was able to sleep
C. that there was a movie being shown D. that the view was good
Question 30: How did John feel about his fears in the end?
A. He thought he had wasted time being afraid.
B. He realized it was okay to be afraid.
C. He hoped his grandchildren weren't afraid of flying.
D. He realized that being afraid kept him safe.

Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
In America, when dining, people consider it rude for a guest or dining partner to belch or burp,
eat with an open mouth, smack, or lick your fingers. Napkins, generally provided are
available at every meal and should be placed in one's lap and then used throughout the meal to
clean one's fingers and mouth.
It is acceptable to refuse additional servings of food by saying "No, thank you" and the host or
hostess will not be insulted if you do so. Similarly, if you leave a small amount of uneaten food on
your plate at a restaurant or in a home, it is not considered an insult. If you eat everything on the
plate, a host or hostess may possibly feel that they have not prepared enough food and might be
embarrassed. People in the United States serve and eat food with either hand, but never take food
from a communal serving dish with their hands. Generally, a serving utensil is used.
Americans typically use forks, spoons and knives to eat, but there are some types of foods that are
acceptable to eat with one's fingers, like sandwiches or pizza. When in doubt, look to see what others
are doing. In formal dining situations, if you wonder whether or not it is acceptable to begin eating,
you should wait until the oldest woman (or oldest man if no women are present) begins to eat.
When eating, do not pick up the bowl or plate from the table to hold underneath your mouth, Even
noodles, soup, and rice are eaten with the plate or bowl remaining on the table. When consuming
soup and hot liquids, it is considered impolite to slurp - do not do this. When consuming noodles,
twirl them around your fork and then put it in your mouth.
If you are a man taking out a woman for dinner, you are almost always expected to pay. This is for
the woman to gauge your intentions and interest with her. For example, taking a woman for coffee,
versus tacos, versus a fancy dinner, versus for drinks at 11:30pm, all signal many different things to
them. So, the date is a -test- of many. Paying is just as important as where you take her, and how late.
So, don't assume she is just trying to get a "free meal". Most girls aren't. Also, if you are going out
with a friend to eat, almost always, the bill is expected to be split in half, or each person pays for
themselves.
If you are eating in a restaurant, you will be expected to add a 15 to 20 % tip for the server to
your bill. In America, wait staff might occasionally stop by your table to ask how your meal is,
which is considered good service. They will also bring you your check when it seems reasonable that
you are finished with your meal, however this is not necessarily an indication that you must leave
right away (Do not be too embarrassed to ask for the check either waiters and waitresses cannot read
minds.) Take your time to finish your meal, and unless there is a line of people waiting at the
door, it is not considered rude to linger at your table for as long as you like.
Question 31: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?

A. What should we do when being invited to the American's dinner?

B. Table etiquette in America.
C. Polite behavior at American's restaurants.
D. What is acceptable in dining etiquette in America?
Question 32: According to the passage, what action may make the American unpleasant?
A. Refusing the supplementary food they serve.
B. Leaving the left-overs on the plate.
C. Eating food with the guests'hands.
D. Cleaning the food on the fingers by the tongue.
Question 33: What sentence is NOT stated in the passage?
A. In formal dinners, the eldest often eat first.
B. In America, the dishes are expected to remain on the table.
C. Food is sometimes delivered from the communal serving dish with people's hands.
D. It is not courteous to slurp when eating soup.
Question 34: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. your fork B. noodles C. your mouth D. soup
Question 35: What could the word "gauge" in paragraph 4 best be replaced by?
A. determine B. impress C. express D. estimate
Question 36: When will the bill be divided for the people having the meal?
A. When a man is having a date with a woman.
B. When people are having meals with their friends.
 C. When people are eating with the elderly.
D. When a girl is testing a boy.
Question 37: The word "linger" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _.
A. appear B. arrange C. reserve D. remain
Question 38: Which of the following can he inferred from the passage?
A. It is impolite if you give extra money for the waiter.
B. Whenever you receive your bill, you should think of leaving soon.
C. Paying meals for another may insult them.
D. Imitating others if you are not sure what to do at the meal is a good idea.
Exercise 6:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, 11, C, or D on your answer
Christina and James met in college and have been dating for more than five years. For the past
two years, they have been living together in a condo they purchased jointly. While Christina
and James were confident in their decision to enter into a commitment like a 20-year
mortgage, they are unsure if they want to enter into marriage. The couple had many
discussions about marriage and decided that it just did not seem necessary. Wasn't it only a
piece of paper? And didn't half of all marriages end in divorce?
Neither Christina nor James had seen much success with marriage while growing up. Christina was
raised by a single mother. Her parents never married, and her father has had little contact with the
family since she was a toddler, Christina and her mother lived with her maternal

grandmother, who often served as a surrogate parent. James grew up in a two-parent

household until age seven, when his parents divorced. He lived with his mother for a few
years, and then later with his mother and her boyfriend until he left for college. James remained
close with his father who remarried and had a baby with his new wife.
Recently, Christina and James have been thinking about having children and the subject of marriage
has resurfaced. Christina likes the idea of her children growing up in a traditional family;
while James is concerned about possible marital problems down the road and negative consequences
for the children should that occur. When they shared these concerns with their parents, James's
mom was adamant that the couple should get married. Despite having been divorced and
having a live-in boyfriend of 15 years, she believes that children are better off when their parents
are married. Christina's mom believes that the couple should do whatever they want but adds that it
would "be nice" if they wed. Christina and James's friends told them, married or not married; they
would still be a family.

Question 39: Why did Christina and James suppose that marriage was unnecessary?
Because _
A. It was only a piece of paper.
B. Half of all marriages ended in divorce.
 C. Neither of them had seen much success with marriage while growing up.
D. They led to an independent life.
Question 40: Which can be used as an antonym of the word "maternal"?
A. relative B. bloody C. close D. paternal
Question 41: According to the paragraph 2, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Christina lived with her parents until she left for college.
B. James was brought up by his father and his new wife.
C. Both James and Christina grew up in broken families.
D. James lived with his mother and her boyfriend for a year.
Question 42: Which of the following could best replace the word "traditional" ?
A. old-fashioned B. customary C. antique D. ancient
Question 43: Why have Christina and James mentioned the subject of marriage again?
A. They have been thinking about having children.
B. Christina likes the idea of her children growing up in a traditional family.
C. They have been living together for a long time.
D. James is concerned about possible marital problems down the road and
negative consequences for the children should that occur.
Question 44: What is the advice of the couple's parents?
A. Married or not married, they would still be a family.
B. They should get married so that children are better off.
C. The couple should do whatever they want.
D. They can have children without entering into a commitment of marriage.
Question 45: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Marital problems
B. Negative consequences of a broken family
C. Changes in young people's attitude to marriage
D. Arguments about marriage

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and
patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then
divided into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood
cells] about once every two months. Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is
straightforward. It involves taking the blood from a donor's arm vein by means of a hypodermic
syringe. The blood flows through a plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium
citrate, which prevents the blood from clotting. When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube
and hypodermic needle are connected to the recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the
container by gravity. This is a slow process and
may last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is
protected from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and
needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease
causing bacteria.
Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be
sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell incompatibility.
Unexplained reactions are also fairly common, Although they are rare, other causes of such negative
reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory
system through administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets. Today,
hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen all blood donors and their blood. All
donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis.
When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful
elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets removed. Storing the
blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is
added. To unfreeze, the glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has been a
boon to human health

Question 46: The word "it" refers to .

A. surgical procedures B. accident victims
C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients
Question 47: According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells?
A. Everyfour months B. Every three month
C. Everytwo months D. Every month
Question 48: All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion
EXCEPT _.
A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes B. Air bubbles in the blood
C. Allergies D. Red-cell incompatibility
Question 49: What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word "undetected"?
A. not illustrated B. not captured C. not found D. not wanted
Question 50: What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by?
A. irradiate B. test rigorously C. monitor routinely D. removed
Question 51: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused
to infants and newborns?
A. It is treated with radiant energy.
B. It is not treated differently from adults.
C. It is not dangerous for children.
D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults.
Question 52: What does the author imply in the passage?
A. Donating blood benefits mankind.
B. Clotting cannot be prevented.
C. Freezing blood destroys platelets.
D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.

Exercise 8:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or 0 on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Every summer, when the results of university
entrance exam come out, many newspaper stories are published about students who are top-scorers
across the country. Most portray students as hard- working, studious, smart and, generally, from low-
income families. They are often considered heroes or heroines by their families, communes, villages and
communities, And they symbolise the efforts made to lift them, and their relatives, out of poverty. The
students are often too poor to attend any extra-classes, which make their achievements more illustrious
and more newsworthy. While everyone should applaud the students for their admirable efforts, putting
too much emphasis on success generates some difficult questions.
If other students look up to them as models, of course it's great. However, in a way, it contributes to
society's attitude that getting into university is the only way to succeed. For those who fail, their lives
are over. It should be noted that about 1.3 million high school students take part in the annual
university entrance exams and only about 300,000 of them pass. What's about the hundreds of
thousands who fail? Should we demand more stories about those who fail the exam but succeed in life
or about those who quit university education at some level and do something else unconventional?
"I personally think that it's not about you scoring top in an entrance exam or get even into Harvard. It's
about what you do for the rest of your life," said Tran Nguyen Le Van, 29. He is the founder of a website,
vexere.com, that passengers can use to book bus tickets online and receive tickets via SMS. His business
also arranges online tickets via mobile phones and email. Van dropped out of his MBA at the Thunderbird
School of Global Management in Arizona in the United States. His story has caught the attention of many
newspapers and he believes more coverage should be given to the youngsters who can be role-models in
the start-up community. Getting into university, even with honours, is just the beginning. We applaud them
and their efforts and obviously that can give them motivation to do better in life. However, success
requires more than just scores," Van said. Van once told a newspaper that his inspiration also came from
among the world's most famous drop-outs, such as Mark Zuckerberg of Facebook or Bill Gates who also
dropped out of Harvard University.
Alarming statistics about unemployment continues to plague us. As many as 162,000 people with some kind
of degree cannot find work, according to Labour Ministry's statistics this month. An emphasis on getting into
university does not inspire students who want to try alternative options. At the same time, the Ministry of
Education and Training is still pondering on how to reform our exam system, which emphasises theories, but
offers little to develop critical thinking or practice. Vu Thi Phuong Anh, former head of the Centre for
Education Testing and Quality Assessment at Vietnam National University in Ho Chi Minh City said the
media should also monitor student successes after graduation. She agreed there were many success stories
about young people, but added that it was imbalanced if students taking unconventional paths were not also
encouraged. Vietnam is, more than ever, in desperate need of those who think outside the box. Time for
us to recognise talent, no matter where it comes from or how.
Question 53: Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Many students consider universities as their only way after school.
B. A good model of being successful in the real life out of school,
C. Not many students are successful after graduating from universities.
D. University is not the only way to success.
Question 54: What is NOT stated in the passage about the top-scorers in the entrance exam?
A. The majority of them are poor but intelligent and eager to learn.
B. They are hoped to find the way to better their families' lives.
C. Their success is more glorious because they attend more classes than others.
D. The students are admired for the great efforts.
Question 55: The word "unconventional" in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by___________.
A. common B. unusual C. well-known D. infamous
Question 56: The author described Tran Nguyen Le Van in the third passage as _.
A. a good example to achieve success although he didn't finish his education.
B. a businessman who gains money by selling mobile phones online.
C. a founder whose website was inspired from social networks like Facebook.
 D. a top-scorer who books online tickets and confirms through messages.
Question 57: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to_____________.
A. honours B. role-models C. the youngsters D. newspapers
Question 58: The word "plague" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. conflict B. afflict C. remind D. bother
Question 59: According to the fourth paragraph, what is TRUE about the modern exam system?
A. It puts too much pressure on students who must get a place in a university.
B. Students are not encouraged to do something different.
C. The government is trying to change the theories of exam.
D. Many stories about successful students cannot inspire those who attend universities.
Question 60: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. It's high time for the young to change their ways of thinking about success.
B. High scores are the first step to attain achievements in the future.
A. Failing the entrance exam will not determine that these students are doing
unconventional things.
B. The most concerned thing for each student is unemployment.
Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer
If you ask any Vietnamese girl right now who she has a crush on, chances are you will encounter the
name of the 20-year-old goalkeeper who plays for Vietnam national team. Bui Tien Dung made a name
for himself in the AFC U23 Championship where he accurately blocked opponents' shots time after time
and saved Vietnam’s chance at the championship in the process. Bui Tien Dung was born on February
28th, 1997 in a poor farming family in Thanh Hoa Province. Dung has loved soccer since he was a
kid, but his family was so poor that they could not even
afford a plastic soccer ball for him and his brother. The Bui brothers had to resort to playing with balls
made from scrap papers and old grapefruits.
Dung's parents recognized the brothers' passion for football and used the little money they had to support
their sons' early training. When a big football club in the city announced a recruitment event, Dung
convinced his younger brother to go to the tryout. He passed on the opportunity knowing that his parents
could not afford to have both their sons gone to city.
While his younger brother training in the city, Dung's local training center went bankrupted and abruptly
ended Dung's football career. For a year, instead of kicking balls, the young man worked as a construction
worker to support his parents. He seemingly gave up on football.
Fate finally smiled on Dung when a football coach rediscovered him and sent him to train with a local
football team. Reentering the football field, Dung wanted to play in a defense position but he was pushed
to goalkeeping because of his height. At first, Dung was unhappy about his new position, but his parents
advised him to follow and make the best out of it. And Dung did.
The young goalkeeper trained hard for his new position and patiently climbed up the ranks the following
years. Through hard work, he was named the best goalkeeper of Vietnam's U19 division. Those who have
worked with Dung described him as a likable young man. He is very respectful to others and speaks very
little. However, when the gloves are on, the nice young man transforms into a fierce competitor and an
unyielding goalkeeper.
At AFC U23 Championship, Dung finally reunited with his brother on the field. They fought battle after
battle together with other amazing players on the team and helped Vietnam made history for Southeast
Asian football.

Even though Vietnam came short of winning the championship, Dung and his teammates are already
heroes and legends in the heart of Vietnamese people. They played fairly and lost with glory and grace.

Question 61. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Bui Tien Dung's ambitions B. Bui Tien Dung and his brother
C. Bui Tien Dung's biography D. Bui Tien Dung’s successes
Question 62. What made a name for himself in the AFC U23 Championship?
A. He accurately blocked opponents' shots time after time.
B. He saved Vietnam’s chance at the championship in the process.
C. Many Vietnamese girl have crush on him.
D. Both A and B are correct.
Question 63. Which of the following could best replace the word "afford" ?
A. buy B. sell C. throw D. give
Question 64. Which can be used as a synonym of the word "recruitment” ?
A. participation B. employment C. selection D. graduation
Question 65. According to the passage, what interrupted Dung's soccer career for a year?
A. His poor family B. The bankruptcy of his local training center
C. The oppositions from his parents D. His younger brother training in the city
Question 66. According to the passage, these following sentences are true EXCEPT .
A. Dung had to work as a construction worker to support his parents.
B. Dung liked playing in a goalkeeping position.
C. Dung was named the best goalkeeper of Vietnam’s U19 division.
D. The Bui brothers played at AFC U23 Championship.
Question 67. How is Bui Tien Dung in the field described?
A. He is a likable young man who is very respectful to others and speaks very little.
B. He is a handsome but a fierce man.
C. He is a nice young man with many girl fans.
D. He is a fierce competitor and an unyielding goalkeeper
Exercise 10:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer
Successful students often do the followings while studying. First, they have an overview before
reading. Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it [which often needs

jumping forward or backward to process information). They also relate important points to one another.
Also, they activate and use their prior knowledge. When they realize that their understanding is not good,
they do not wait to change strategies. Last, they can monitor understanding and take action to correct or
"fix up" mistakes in comprehension.
Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective study skills. They
tend to assume a passive role, in learning and rely on others (e.g., teachers, parents) to monitor their
studying, for example, low-achieving students often do not monitor their understanding of content; they
may not be aware of the purpose of studying; and they show little evidence of looking back, or employing
"fix-up” strategies to fix understanding problems. Students who struggle with learning new information
seem to be unaware that they must extent effort beyond simply reading the content to understand and
remember it Children with learning disabilities do not plan and judge the quality of their studying. Their
studying may be disorganized. Students with learning problems face challenges with personal
organization as well. They often have difficulty keeping track of materials and assignments, following
directions, and completing work on time. Unlike good studiers who employ a variety of study skills in a
flexible yet purposeful manner, low-achieving students use a restricted range of study skills. They cannot
explain why good study strategies are important for learning; and they tend to use the same, often
ineffective study approach for all learning tasks, ignoring task content, structure or difficulty.
(Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning — NUl Galway)
Question 68. What is the topic of the passage?
A. Successful and low-academic achieving students
B. Successful learners and their learning strategies
C. Study skills for high school students
D. Effective and ineffective ways of learning
Question 69. The word “prior" in the first paragraph is closest meaning to ?
A. important B. earlier C. forward D. good
Question 70. Which of the following could best replace the word "Conversely" in paragraph 2?
A. On the contrary B. In contrast C. On the other hand D. all are correct
Question 71: According to the passage, what can be learnt about passive students?
A. They depend on other people to organize their learning
B. They are slow in their studying
C. They monitor their understanding
D. They know the purpose of studying
Question 72: Which of the followings is NOT an evidence of monitoring studying?
A. Being aware of the purpose of studying B. Monitoring their understanding of content
C. Fixing up mistakes in understanding D. Looking at their backs
Question 73: According to the passage, to learn new information, low-achieving students do NOT
.
A. just understand it B. relate it to what they have known
C. simply remember it D. read it
Question 74: In compared with low-achieving students, successful students use .
A. aimless study techniques B. various study skills
C. restricted strategies D. inflexible study ways
Question 75: The underlined pronoun "They" in the last sentence refers to

.
A. study strategies B. study skills
C. low-achieving students D. good studiers

Exercise 11: Read the following passage and mark the fetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Facebook users spend an average of more than 15 hours a month on the social networking site. While
there are plenty who caution against such intensive use — and there are a number of studies detailing the
harm Facebook could potentially cause — there also are lots of reports extolling the site's virtues. As the
social media giant prepares for its upcoming initial public offering, here are some ways Facebook just
might be good for you.
Spending time on Facebook can help people relax, slow down their heart rate and decrease stress
levels, according to researchers from the Massachusetts Institute of Technology and the University of
Milan. In a study published earlier this year, researchers studied 30 students and found that a
natural high was sparked when they were on the social media network that led to the relaxed
heart rates and lower levels of stress and tension. In the study, the students were monitored in three
situations: looking at panoramic landscapes, performing complicated mathematical equations and
using Facebook. While the first situation was the most relaxing to students and the math problems
were the most stressful, the time on Facebook uncovered high levels of attractiveness and
arousal. The findings support the researchers' hypothesis that Facebook's success, as well as that of
other social media networks, correlates to the specific positive mental and physical state users
experience.

While many may argue that social media networks only distract employees, research shows the
opposite may be true. Research from Keas.com found that a 10-minute Facebook break makes employees
happier, healthier and more productive. The study examined workers in three groupsone that was
allowed no breaks, one that was allowed to do anything but use the Internet and one that was
allowed 10 minutes to use the Internet and Facebook. The Facebook group was found to be 16
percent more productive than the group that was not allowed to use the Internet and nearly 40 percent
more productive than the group that was allowed no breaks. "Short and unobtrusive breaks, such as a
quick surf on the Internet, enables the mind to rest itself, leading to a higher net total concentration for a
day's work, and as a result, increased productivity," said Brent Coker of the department of management
and marketing at the University of Melbourne in Australia.
Facebook is also in the business of matchmaking. Research shows that nearly 60 percent of singles will
friend someone new on Facebook after meeting them in person. If they like what they see, 25 percent
are likely to contact their new love interest via Facebook. Once the courting is over, nearly 40 percent
of those social networking adults will update their relationship status on Facebook, with just 24
percent telling their friends first. Facebook use between couples will continue through the dating
process, the research shows. Throughout the day, 79 percent of couples said they send partners
Facebook messages or chat on the social network. In addition, more than 60 percent would post romantic
messages on their significant other's Facebook wall. When the relationship ends, more than half of
those surveyed immediately update their status to single, which automatically sends out a notification to
their friend list to start the dating cycle over again.

Question 76: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. The benefits that Facebook might bring you.
B. The disadvantages that Facebook causes in the modern life.
C. The classes are most influenced by Facebook.
D. The functions that are used most on Facebook.
Question 77: The word "sparked" in the second paragraph probably means_________.
A. produced B. reduced C. prevented D. controlled
Question 78: According to paragraph 2, what do the scientists discover in their study?
A. Spending too much time on Facebook may increase levels of pressure and heart disease,
B. Students often suffer from stress when they are working with something related to mathematics.
C. Facebook can make its users more optimistic and aroused.
D. The success of Facebook may motivate the development of other social networks.
Question 79: The word "one" in paragraph 3 refers to _.
A. the study B. a group C. the Internet D. a research
Question 80: Why does Facebook motivate the productivity of
employees?
A. Because the Internet distracts users to take breaks out of workBecause it helps people
refresh their mind and then enhance the concentration on work.
B. Because employees are happy with what they read on the Face book.
C. Because they are allowed to relax after a hard work.
Question 81: The word "courting" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _.
A. dating B. marriage C. divorce D.making
acquaintance Question 82: Which of the following is NOT correct about the impact of Facebook on
users' relationship?
A. More than half of single people tend to make new friends on Facebook after a face-to-face
contact
B. Married people often use Facebook to keep in touch with their spouse.
C. Not many people change the relationship status to single after their breakdown.
D. Adults are more likely to update their relationship status on Facebook than to tell their friends
about that.
Question 83: Which of the following could best describe the tone of the passage?
A. Informative B. Argumentative C. Sarcastic D. Ironic
Exercise 12:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
Environmental pollution is one of the impacts of human activities on the Earth. Pollution occurs when
pollutants contaminate the natural surroundings; which brings about changes that affect our normal
lifestyles adversely. Pollution disturbs our ecosystem and the balance in the environment. Pollution
occurs in different forms; air, water, soil, radioactive, noise, heat/ thermal and light Let us discuss the
causes and effects of air pollution on mankind and the environment as a whole.
Air pollution is the most prominent and dangerous form of pollution. It occurs due to many reasons.
Excessive burning of fuel which is a necessity of our daily lives for cooking, driving and other industrial
activities; releases a huge amount of chemical substances in the air every day; these pollute the air.
Smoke from chimneys, factories, vehicles or burning of wood basically occurs due to coal burning; this
releases sulphur dioxide into the air making it toxic.
The effects of air pollution are evident too. The increase in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere leads to
smog which can restrict sunlight from reaching the earth. Thus, preventing plants in the process of
photosynthesis. Gases like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxide (NO) can cause acid rain.

The decrease in quality of air leads to several respiratory problems including asthma or lung cancer.
Chest pain, congestion, throat inflammation, cardiovascular disease, respiratory disease are some of
diseases that can be caused by air pollutionThe emission of greenhouse gases particularly CO2 is leading
to global warming. Every other day new industries are being set up, new vehicles come on roads and
trees are cut to make way for new homes. All of them, in direct or indirect way lead to increase in CO2 in
the environment. The increase in CO2 leads to melting of polar ice caps which increases the sea level and
pose danger for the people living near coastal areas.
Ozone layer is the thin shield high up in the sky that stops ultra violet rays from reaching the earth.
As a result of human activities, chemicals, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), were released into the
atmosphere which contributed to the depletion of ozone layer.
Question 84: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How pollutants contaminate the natural surroundings
B. The causes and effects of air pollution.
C. Our ecosystem and the balance in the environment
D. Some solutions to air pollution.
Question 85: The word "these" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. chemical substances B. industrial activities
C. our daily lives D. excessive burning of fuel for cooking, driving
Question 86: How many diseases are mentioned in the passage?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
Question 87: The word "respiratory" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. connected with the digestion of food B. connected with breathing
C. connected with the skeleton of a person D. connected with the body's brain
Question 88: According to paragraph 5, air pollution contributes to the greenhouse effect which can lead
to
A. global warming
B. polar ice melting
C. increase in CO2 in the environment
D. global warming, polar ice melting, rise of sea levels and danger for people.
Question 89: According to the passage, which of the following sentences is NOT true?
A. Ozone layer can't stop ultra violet rays from reaching the earth anymore.
B. The toxic air is caused by sulphur dioxide which is released from coal burning.
C. When the amount of CO2 in the air increases, it prevents plants in the process of
photosynthesis.

D.There are other different types of pollution besides air pollution

Question 90: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The more modern our lives become, the more serious the pollution is.
B. People can control air pollution soon in the future.
C. Only air pollution is dangerous and has a negative impact on humans and the environment.
D. CO2 is the cause of the depletion of ozone layer.
Exercise 13: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
Translators and interpreters for tech jobs of the future are expected to be one of the fastest growing
occupations in the nation, according to a just released survey by Vietnamworks. Almost all positions for
programmers, application developers, database and network administrators, engineers, designers, architects,
scientists, technicians, and tech support will require bilingual or multilingual fluency. In just the last two
years the demand for tech professionals with foreign language skills has increased more than two and one-
half fold, said the survey, and the uptick shows no signs of abating anytime soon. Roughly 400,000 jobs
are expected to open for interpreters (who focus on spoken language) and translators (who focus on written
language) in the tech segment, between 2017 and 2020, says Tran Anh Tuan. Tuan, who works for the
Centre for Forecasting Manpower Needs and Labour Market Information in Ho Chi Minh City doesn't
include other industries in his prediction, which are also recruiting ferociously for more people with these
same language skills.

While that claim might seem a bit overblown (and amounts to little more than a guess by Tuan), it is
clear that innovative technologies like robotics, 3D printing, drones, artificial intelligence and virtual
reality will create major upheavals in all sorts of labor markets, not just technology over the next
few years. In the last month alone, most every job posted on employment websites throughout
Vietnam included the word bilingual. Far higher salaries go to people who work in high tech positions
and can speak a foreign language such as English in addition to Vietnamese, says Tran Quang Anh from
the Posts and Telecommunications Institute of Technology.
Unfortunately, the surveys show that most graduating Vietnamese students are unable to do more than
understand a few basic phrases of foreign languages, and practically none of them can speak any
foreign language coherently, The good paying jobs with high salaries and benefits are only
available to translators and interpreters who specialize in high tech jobs, says Anh. But it's not
just English— graduates are needed with fluency in middle eastern languages like Arabic, Farsi
and Pashto (Afghani) as well as German, Japanese and Korean to name just a few. Spanish is also in
high demand in Vietnam, primarily because it is the second most common language in the US after
English.

A recent tech expo in Hanoi sponsored by Vietnamworks and the Navigos Group attracted nearly 4,000
young tech graduates and recruiters from 14 leading companies looking to fill job vacancies with
skilled bilingual workers. The job applicants were young and industrious, said the recruiters. However,
missing were candidates with the requisite language skills and most lacked basic 'soft skills' such
as written and verbal communication abilities to effectively communicate even in their native
Vietnamese language.
Notably, the recruiters said they considered language abilities and soft skills just as, if not more
important, than academic ability. Yet virtually all the prospective academically qualified employees
lacked even the most basic of interpersonal communication abilities.
(Source: http://engiiskvov.vni)
Question 91: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. The most popular jobs in Vietnam's job markets.
B. The necessity of foreign languages in most tech jobs.
C. The skills needed in tech jobs nowadays.
 D. Vietnamese students are not aware of the importance of learning foreign languages.
Question 92: According to the passage, interpreters and translators are described as the jobs that
.
A. are decreasing dramatically in the number of employees.
B. there are not enough employees for technology companies to recruit.
C. the requirements have risen considerably and steadily.
D. are expected to experience a downward trend in the near future.
Question 93: The word "upheavals" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. upward displacements B. upward disruptions
C. downward changes D. downward problems
Question 94: Which of the following is TRUE about employment in Vietnam according to Tran Quang
Anh from the Posts and Telecommunications Institute of Technology?
A. People whose major in foreign languages is high tech often earn high salaries.
B. The demand of interpreters and translators in the workforce is not as much as what
people believe.
C. Not only technology but also other jobs are putting more pressure on language skills.
D. Foreign languages in Vietnam are only needed in the posts on websites.
Question 95: What does the word "them" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. foreign languages B. a few basic phrases
C. Vietnamese students D. the surveys
Question 96: The word "requisite" in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by _.
A. shortage B. necessity C. specification D. measurement
Question 97: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Academic ability is much more important than foreign languages and soft skills,
B. To get a good job nowadays, applicants must know more than a language and be good at
other soft skills.
C. Written and verbal communication abilities determine the opportunity of applicants to get a
desirable job.
D. Translators and interpreters are suitable for any position in the work markets.
Question 98: Which of the following most accurately reflects the attitude of the author
towards improving foreign language skills?
A. neutral B. skeptical C. supportive D. sensitive
Exercise 14:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
On March 15, Dunes View Middle School held a contest for school bands. Student bands tried out for
the opportunity to perform at the school picnic, which will be held at the end of June. The winner of the
contest was the band called Four Square. "We're very proud that we won the contest and are excited
to perform at the picnic," says Peter Zandt, who plays the guitar in the band. "And since we hope to
perform someday at other local places, like restaurants and parks, this will be a great first step."
The contest was the creation of music teacher Mr. Lopez and drama teacher Ms. Cho. The two thought of
the idea while discussing recent years' school picnics. "The picnic is one of the biggest events of the
year, but it has become a bit formulaic ," said Ms. Cho. "The activities are the same every year. We
thought that a performance by a student band would make the school picnic more interesting and
fun." Mr. Lopez, Ms. Cho, and three other teachers judged the contest, which took place in the gym.
Eight student bands signed up to audition. The bands varied in their musical forms: there were
several rock bands, a folk band, and even a jazz band. "I'm disappointed that my band didn't win, but I
think the judges made the right choice," says student Marisol Varga, a member of the folk trio called
The Bell Girls. "Four Square is really excellent."
To see if the bands could present a wide range of musical skills, the teachers asked them each to
prepare two songs: one song with original words, and another in which students played instrumental
music only. The judges finally chose the band Four Square as the winner of the contest. Four
Square is a rock band with an unusual twist: it includes a violin player! The

members of Four Square write their own songs and practice three times a week after school.
Students and teachers agreed that the band competition was a big success. All are looking forward
to the school picnic in June.

Question 99: Which would be the most appropriate headline for the article?
A. Famous Band Visits School B. Teachers Give Music Lessons
C. Students Have Fun at School Picnic D. School Holds Student Band Contest
Question 100: What is probably true about school picnics in recent years?
A. They were heldin March. B. They were not very exciting.
C. They were very hard to organize. D. They included musical performances
Question 101: The word formulaic is closest in meaning to _.
A. expensive B. uncertain C.long D. dull
Question 102: What type of band is NOT mentioned in the article?
A. Pop B. jazz C.Folk D. Rock
Question 103: Why did the teachers ask each band to play two songs?
A. To decide which songs to play at the picnic
B. To see if the bands could play a variety of songs
C. To make sure the contest did not go on too long
D. To make the concert more enjoyable for students
Question 104: According to the article, what is unusual about the band Four Square?
A. It is named after a popular children'sgame.
 B. Its members practice several times a week.
C. It is a rock band with a violinist.
D. Its members all play guitar.
Question 105: According to the article, what does the band Four Square hope to do in the
future?
A. Perform at the school picnicevery year B. Perform in many different places
C. Buynew instruments D. Record an album

Exercise 15: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
China - Missing Women
In China the growing difference between the genders is giving signals of alarm to Government
authorities. According to the latest census figures, 119 boys are born for every 100 girls. This striking
difference is expected to shoot up by the year 2020 with almost 40 million unsettled bachelors. This
distribution of the social ecology would create havoc in the future. The social leaders are trying to
pressurize the masses into producing more females. The Government has embarked on policies extending
innumerable incentives to the families bearing girls.
Monetary support, free education, guaranteed employment is being gifted to parents who gift the
country with a girl child. The Government is trying to persuade people to suppress their personal
preferences and regulate their community behavior according to the new blueprint to stimulate
the girl ratio. [B■] Sometimes the Government tries to woo them and sometimes it uses stein
policies to force them into it
Consequent to the population explosion, the Government introduced, in the 80's, one child policy in
China. Any additional pregnancy had to be terminated. This was aimed to put a check on the
teeming millions. [C■] The policy had no relation to extermination of girl child in the womb. But
the policymakers had no idea about its long term impact. People, with a patriarchic mindset, came up
with their preference for a single male child. The idea of a happy family became 'parents with a
single male child'.
The Chinese culture has always promoted sons over daughters because the society has been dominated by
males. In villages, where hard work is needed to sustain the agriculture, a boy is always preferable
due to his superior physical strength compared to that of a girl. [D■] In such circumstances, looking
forward to a male baby seems justified. If people have to limit their families, it is obvious they
would prefer a boy over a girl child. This problem has been accentuated by the use of ultrasound
scanning which helps determine the sex of the fetus. This technology has played a crucial role in
creating gender imbalance.

Question 106: The word "havoc" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ?

A. ordinary problem B. great destruction and trouble
C. serious dispute D. an infectious disease
Question 107: What is the main first of paragraph 1?
A. Government is providing incentives to girls.
B. Government is trying to decipher implications of the census records.
C. Government is devising polices to undermine the position of boys in the society.
D. Government is extending incentives to encourage parents with single girls
Question 108: What is the "blueprint" as discussed in paragraph 1?
A. It is a list of rules for the Chinese people to follow to maintain population control.
B. It is a rough plan for regulating community behavior.
C. It is the Government's plan containing details of regulations and incentives to improve the
girl child ratio.
D. It is a printed guide for conduct rules governing sex ratio.
Question 109: The word "teeming" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. overflowing B. female population C. couples D. general population
Question 110: What was the vision behind the government's policy discussed in paragraph 2?
A. The vision about China with women at top positions in the government
B. The vision for China to control its burgeoning population in near future
C. The vision about a female dominated society
D. The vision that Chinese young men and women would find life partners among themselves
Question 111: Which of the following is NOT correct about the one child policy in China?
A. Each Chinese family was allowed to have only one child,
B. Although the additional pregnancy was a girl child, it also had to be terminated.
C. The one child policy was introduced by the Chinese government in the 1980s.
D. With the purpose of controlling the population explosion, the Government introduced one
child policy in China.
Question 112: Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence can be
added to the passage:
“Another reason is that daughters have to leave their parents after marriage to enrich their
husband's family.”
Where would the sentence best fit?
[A■] [B■] [C■]
Exercise 16:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little
space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low
amounts of resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available
resources. Only a certain number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that
number depends on how much food and other resources the land can provide. In countries where
people live primarily by means of simple farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering,
even large areas of land can support only small numbers of people because these labour intensive
subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.

In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe,
overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large
quantitics of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale
irrigation, and agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high
densities of people in metropolitan areas.
A country's level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world's highest population densities, with 1,147
persons per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low
- productivity manual farming, which contributes to the country's extremely high level of poverty.
Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high
population densities as well. These countries practise mechanized farming and are involved in high-
tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities
of less than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practise manual subsistence
farming; these countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to
boost productivity. As a consequence, these nations are very poor. The United Slates has both
relatively low population density and high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world's
wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to
many poor families because the provide labour, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural
societies commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing
countries often provide little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people
who wish to keep their families small have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing
countries lend to have high rates of population growth.

Question 113: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraph 1?

A. Overpopulation B. Population density C. Simple farming D. Poverty
Question 114: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
A. Available resources B. Skilled labor
C. Farming methods D. Land area
Question 115: The phrase "that number" in paragraph 1 refers to the number of _.
A. people B. densities C. resources D. countries
Question 116: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food
because .

A. there is a lack of mechanization B. there are small numbers of labourers

C. there is on abundance of resources D. there is no shortage of skilled labour
Question 117: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on
_______________________________________________________________________________
_.
A. its population density only
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas
D. its high agricultural productivity
Question 118: The word "infertile" in paragraph 4 probably means___________.
A. disused B. impossible C. unproductive D.
inaccessible Question 119: Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many
developing countries?
A. High-tech facilities B. Economic resources
C. Sufficient financial support D. High birth rate
Question 120: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences B. Overpopulation; A Cause of Poverty
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem D. Poverty in Developing Countries
Exercise 17: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
If you could travel back in time five centuries, you'd encounter a thriving Aztec empire in Central
Mexico, a freshly painted "Mona Lisa" in Renaissance Europe and cooler temperatures across the
Northern Hemisphere. This was a world in the midst of the Little Ice Age (A.D. 1300 to 1850) and a
period of vast European exploration now known as the Age of Discovery. But what if we could look
500 years into the future and glimpse the Earth of the 26th century? Would the world seem as
different to us as the 21st century would have seemed to residents of the 16th century? For starters,
what will the weather be like?
Depending on whom you ask, the 26th century will either be a little chilly or infernally hot.
Some solar output models suggest that by the 2500s, Earth's climate will have cooled back down
to near Little Ice Age conditions. Other studies predict that ongoing climate change and fossil fuel
use will render much of the planet too hot for human life by 2300.
Some experts date the beginning of human climate change back to the Industrial Revolution in the
1800s, others to slash-and-burn agricultural practices in prehistoric times. Either way, tool- wielding
humans alter their environment -- and our 26th century tools might be quite impressive indeed.

Theoretical physicist and futurist Michio Kaku predicts that in a mere 100 years, humanity will make
the leap from a type zero civilization to a type I civilization on the Kardashev Scale. In other words,
we'll become a species that can harness the entire sum of a planet's energy. Wielding such power,
26th-century humans will be masters of clean energy technologies such as fusion and solar power.
Furthermore, they'll be able to manipulate planetary energy in order to control global climate.
Physicist Freeman Dyson, on the other hand, estimates the leap to a type I civilization would occur within
roughly 200 years.
Technology has improved exponentially since the 1500s, and this pace will likely continue in the
centuries to come. Physicist Stephen Hawking proposes that by the year 2600, this growth would
see 10 new theoretical physics papers published every 10 seconds. If Moore's Law holds true and
both computer speed and complexity double every 18 months, then some of these studies may be
the work of highly intelligent machines.
What other technologies will shape the world of the 26th century? Futurist and author Adrian Berry
believes the average human life span will reach 140 years and that the digital storage of human
personalities will enable a kind of computerized immortality. Humans will farm the oceans, travel in
starships and reside in both lunar and Martian colonies while robots explore the outer cosmos.

Question 121: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. How would the world change in the next 500 years?
B. What would we do in the next five centuries?
C. What problems would happen in the 26th century?
D. How would technology improve the life in the far future?
Question 122: The word “infernally” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _.
A. differently B. extremely
C. permanently D. contemporaneously
Question 123: According to the passage, what do experts predict about the weather in the future?
A. The temperature will decline as much as possible because of the excessive fossil fuel use.
B. The Little Ice Age will return due to the influence of solar energy.
C. The Earth will have to face with extreme weather like frost or scorching period.
D. The climate change will happen more quickly because of deforestation.
Question 124: The word "harness" in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by__________.
A. renew B. adjust C. exploit D. discover
Question 125: What does the word "they" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fusion and solar energy B. clean energy technologies
C. masters D. 26th - century humans
Question 126: Which of the following is TRUE about the future predictions?
A. Michio Kaku believes that the progress from type 0 to type I civilization will take about
two centuries.
 B. People in the 2500s are likely to control the energy of the Earth to limit the global climate.
C. The speed of technology improvement will remain changeable in the far future.
D. Solar energy will be the main power for the 26th -century citizens.
Question 127: According to Adrian Berry, the following are what future humans can do, EXCEPT
.
A. cultivating in the oceans B. traveling between the stars
C. exploring the universe by robots D. living as long as they want
Question 128: It can be inferred from the passage that_____________.
A. no one could be sure what the life would be like in the 2500s.
B. what we imagine about the life in the 26th century may be the same what the 16th-
ceritury people thought about the current life.
C. the predictions of different scientists may draw the same world in the next 500 years.
D. technology will affect most of the fields in the future life.

Exercise 18:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to
In Africa, people celebrate with joy the birth of a new baby. The Pygmies would sing a birth- song to the
child. In Kenya, the mother takes the baby strapped to her back into the thorn enclosure where
the cattle is kept. There, her husband and the village elders wait to give the child his or her name.
In West Africa, after the baby is eight days old, the mother takes the baby for it's first walk in the
big, wide world, and friends and family are invited to meet the new baby. In various African nations,
they hold initiation ceremonies for groups of children instead of birthdays. When children reach a
certain designated age, they learn the laws, beliefs, customs, songs and dances of their tribes, Some
African tribes consider that children from nine to twelve are ready to be initiated into the grown up
world. They may have to carry out several tests.
Masai boys around thirteen years old to seventeen undergo a two stage initiation. The first stage lasts
about three months. The boys leave their parents' homes, paint their bodies white, and

are taught how to become young warriors. At the end of this stage, they have their heads shaved
and they are also circumcised. The second stage, the young warriors grow their hair long and live in
a camp called a manyatta where they practice hunting the wild animals that might attack the Masai
herds. This stage may last a few years. When they are ready, they will marry and become owners of
large cattle herds like their fathers.
The girls are initiated when they are fourteen or fifteen. They are taught by the older women about the
duties of marriage and how to care for babies. Soon after that they are married and lead a life similar
to that of their mothers.
Question 129: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Celebrations for a new child in Africa.
B. Birthday ceremonies for children in Africa.
C. Traditions of Masai people when having a new baby.
D. Activities in a birth celebration.
Question 130: Where do the father and older villagers in Kenya give the name to the child?
A. in the village B. at the place to keep the cattle
C. at their house D. at the fence of the cattle's cages.
Question 131: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. An eight-day-old child will be taken for the first walk by his or her mother.
B. Children have to learn their tribes' cultures and traditions when they are old enough.
C. Children are prepared for a mature life when being met by friends and family.
D. Children are likely to overcome some tests to enter the grown-up world.
Question 132: The word "undergo" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. commence B. experience C. participate in D. explore
Question 133: The word "shaved" in paragraph 3 mostly means__________________.
A. cut the hair off with a razor B. tie the hair with a hairpin
C. dye the hair with another color D. cover the hair with a hat
Question 134: What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. the Masai herds B. the wild animals C. the young warriors D. their heads
Question 135: What do the girls have to learn in their initiation?
A. How to take care of her husband and family in the future.
B. The responsibilities of marriage and the way to look after their children.
C. Homemaking and childbearing.
D. How to lead a life after marriage and giving birth to a child.
Exercise 19: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your

EDUCATION IN THE FUTURE

Education is another area of social life in which information technology is changing the way we
communicate. Today's college students may not simply sit in a lecture or a library to learn about
their field. Through their computers and the wonders of virtual reality they can participate
in lifelike simulated experiences. Consider the following scenario of the future of education made
possible through developments in information technology.
For children over the age of 10, daily attendance at schools is not compulsory. Some of the older children
attend school only once or twice weekly to get tutorial support or instruction from a teacher. For the most
part, pupils are encouraged to work online from home. Students must complete a minimum number of
study hours per year; however, they may make up these hours by studying at home at times that suit their
family schedule. They can log on early or late in the day and even join live classes in other countries. In
order to ensure that each student is learning adequately, computer software will automatically monitor the
number of hours a week each student studies online as well as that students' learning materials and
assessment activities. Reports will be available for parents and teachers. The software can then identify
the best learning activities and condition for each individual student and generate similar activities. It can
also identify areas of weak achievement and produce special programs adjusted to the students' needs.
Question 136. What is the topic of the passage?
The effect of information technology on education.
Students don't have to go to school any more.
Computer software will make sure students learn at home.
Students can know about their weak aspects to focus.
Question 137. How many times are children who are older than 10 required to go to school weekly?
A. No time B. Onceor twice C. Three D. Four
Question 138. Which of the following could best replace the word "encouraged"?
A. discouraged B. emboldened C. allowed D. banned
Question 139. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. students B. study hours C. children D. Older children
Question 140. Who/What counts the number of hours per week that students spend learning?
A. Virtual realityB. Teacher C. Parents D. Computer software
Question 141. What CAN'T the software do?
A. Monitor the time the students learn.
B. Design materials for the students.
C. Find out the best activities for the students.
D. Identify weaknesses of the students.
Question 142. What is NOT mentioned as a benefit of information technology to the students?
A. Students can stay at home to learn.
B. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule.
C. Students' learning time won't be monitored.
D. Students' weak achievement can be identified.
Exercise 20:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, 13, C, or D on your answer sheet
to
The Rise of Robots
As kids, our grandparents frequently scared us by talking about how difficult life was when they were
growing up. They mentioned walking miles to school in the snow, or doing hours of manual labour for
little pay. Life has changed greatly since then, and it seems to get easier year by year. In fact, with the help of
robots we soon might have to do much at all. But is this a good thing?
By 2030, ifs estimated that robotics will be a $10 billion business worldwide. Companies are already
starting to integrate them into the workforce. The electronics manufacturer Foxconn is drawing up
plans to launch a factory within the next 10 years that's completely staffed by robot workers.
Meanwhile, an American company Briggo has invented a robot that serves gourmet-quality coffee to
customers. With the push of a button it will crush coffee beans, measure exact quantities of water, and
even wave a steam wand to ensure customers get the perfect cream on top. Unlike human baristas, it
can serve multiple drinks at once and work all day and night without a break.
Robots are also invading our homes. The Rooma is a mini-robot that vacuums rooms automatically
according to a schedule. The Robomow is a device that will cut the grass for you while you sit in
the shade. Then there's the Nanda clocky, an alarm clock that makes sure that even the deepest
sleepers get up on time. The clock is attached to a pair of wheels, and it will randomly move around
the room. Once you finally catch it, you're probably too awake to hit the snooze button. Although
these early home robots are somewhat basic, they will likely become more capable as times goes
on.
Although robots certainly help us to eliminate tedious tasks, many people are concerned about a
future filled with robots. Some fear that humanity will start to decline if machines do everything for

us. Others have even warned about the robot rebellion, in which robots become so smart that they
may decide to turn on their masters. These ideas may seem a bit far-fetched, but there are certainly lots
of questions that need to be answered before everyone opens up to the idea of a robotic future.

Question 143. How is Briggo's invention superior to human workers?

A. It is more knowledgeable about coffee-making. B. It is better at conversation.
C. It never has to stop. D. It can operate machinery.
Question 144. What would happen if you pressed the snooze button?
A. You would have to wake up immediately B. The alarm clock would turn off forever
C. The alarm would stop, but go off again soon D. Nothing would happen at all
Question 145. Which of the following is NOT true about the concerns over robots?
A. It takes some time for people to accept robots.
B. Robots may do some harm to humans.
C. The idea of robotics may seem far-fetched.
D. Robots may be dominant at the workplace.
Question 146. The word "tedious" in the last paragraph mostly means___________.
A. boring B. difficult C. intelligent D. expensive
Question 147. What is the last paragraph mainly about?
A. Some reasons why people don't accept robots yet.
B. A very amusing science-fiction story about robots.
C. How people in local communities are supporting robots.
D. A few of the lastest robots on the market today.
Question 148. According to the first paragraph, how is the life changed since our parents time?
A. The education system has got much worse
B. Things aren't as hard as they once were
C. Children have to walk longer distance to school
D. It hasn't changed much at all
Question 149. All of the following are true about robots EXCEPT that__________.
A. they can work all day and night without break
B. they have greater capabilities
C. they can draw up plans to launch a story
D. they can do boring tasks for human
Question 150. We can infer from the passage that_________________.
A. present domestic robots can work without any programs
A. the communication will decline with the use of robots
B. a robot rebellion can happen daily
C. robotics will have been a major business by 2030
Exercise 21: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
The blue whale is the largest animal ever known to have existed. During the 20th century, the
species was almost exterminated due to commercial whaling. The species has slowly recovered
following the global whaling ban but it remains endangered and faces a number of serious threats
including ship strikes and the impact of climate change.
Blue whales are simply enormous with most ranging in length from 24-30 m. The largest ever
recorded was a gargantuan 33.5 m long. Females are up to 10 m longer than males. And they can weigh
up to 200 tonnes. Just to put that in perspective: an adult male African elephant weighs 6 tonnes. The
blue whale's heart is the size of a small car and its beat can be detected two miles away. But that's
nothing compared to their calls. Blue whales are the loudest animals on earth and their calls are louder
than a jet engine: reaching 188 decibels, while a jet's engine hit 'just' 140 decibels. Apart from their
gigantic size, blue whales can be identified by their relatively small dorsal fin, a fairly rounded rostrum
(anterior part of the skull), and approximately 90 ventral grooves, which reach the navel. They also have
row of 300-400 baleen plates on each side of the mouth, which are black in color and range in length from
50 cm in front to 100 cm in back.
Blue whales mostly travel alone or in groups of 2-3. Larger groups of up to 60 whales have been reported
and are probably associated with feeding grounds. However, the blue whale has the most powerful voice
in the animal kingdom and its low-frequency sounds can travel in deep water over hundreds, or even
thousands, of miles. Under these circumstances, animals which may appear to us to be traveling alone
may actually be in constant contact with one another.
At birth, a blue whale calf is the largest baby on earth: approximately 8m long and weighing about 4
tonnes. They grow at a rate of 90 kg per day and wean after 7-8 months, once they have reached about 15
m in length, and are able to follow the normal migration pattern alone. They reach sexual maturity at 5-10
years. This growth rate is astonishing and is probably the fastest in the animal kingdom. From
conception to weaning, it represents a several billion-fold increase in tissue in just over a year and a half.
Like other baleen whales, the blue whale has no teeth so it is hard to tell its age but scientists believe they
live until at least 50.
Like other large whales, blue whales are threatened by chemical and sound pollution, habitat loss,
overfishing of krill, ship strikes and becoming entangled in fishing gear. Climate change could also have
a major impact on its food supply, since global warming and associated ocean acidification may impact
krill populations. In addition, frontal zones - critical whale habitats - are projected to move further south
due to climate change. Frontal zones are boundaries between different water masses, where water can rise
from the depths, bringing with it large amounts of nutrients that stimulate the growth of phytoplankton
and support substantial populations of prey species for whales. Blue whales would have to migrate further
(perhaps 200-500 km more) to reach and feed at these food-rich areas where they build up reserves to
sustain themselves for the rest of the year. These longer migration paths could increase the energy costs
of migration and reduce the duration of the main feeding season. As frontal zones move southward, they
also move closer together, reducing the overall area of foraging habitat available.

Question 151: What is the purpose of the author in the passage?

A. To provide basic information about the blue whale and its major threats.
B. To prove that the blue whale is the biggest mammal on the Earth.
C. To give evidence of how the blue whale changes the habit and feeding grounds.
D. To raise people's awareness of the extinction of the blue whale,
Question 152: Which of the following is NOT correct about the blue whale's physical description?
A. It is very easy to discover the appearance of a blue whale via its heart beat
B. Male blue whales are the longest in their species.
C. The calls of the blue whale are louder than those of any animals on the Earth.
D. A small dorsal fin is also the identity of the blue whale.
Question 153: According to the passage, why isn't a blue whale lonely when it travels alone?
A. Because most of other blue whales also travel alone.
B. Because it can contact with others through their powerful voice.
C. Because it shares the same feeding grounds with others.
D. Because other blue whales will appear when it reaches the destination.
Question 154: What does the word "wean" in paragraph 4 mean?
A. stop feeding a calf with its mother's milk B. stop growing as fast as before
C. begin living independently D. begin trying to find food
Question 155: The word "entangled" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _.
A. endangered B. disappeared C. ensnared D. attracted
Question 156: What does the word "it" in the last paragraph refer to?
A. the depth B. water C. water mass D. climate change
Question 157: According to the last paragraph, how does climate change affect the blue whale?
A. It increases the acidity in the ocean, which makes the water polluted.
B. It impacts on the tide which contains a lot of nutrients to feed the blue whale's prey.
C. It makes the blue whale travel farther south to find feeding grounds.
D. It encourages frontal zones so that the blue whale cannot move around.
Question 158: It can be inferred from the passage that__________.
A. Human activities are one of the primary reasons for the decline of the blue whale's population.
B. The blue whale is the animal that has the longest life expectancy.
C. Despite being the largest animals, blue whales are the most vulnerable on the Earth.
D. The blue whale lives safely in the ocean thanks to their solidarity.
Exercise 22:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
Scientists have uncovered a new threat to the world's endangered coral reefs. They have found that most
are incapable of growing quickly enough to compensate for rising sea levels triggered by global
warming. The study suggests that reefs - which are already suffering serious degradation because the
world's seas are warming and becoming more acidic - could also become overwhelmed by rising oceans.
The research - led by scientists at Exeter University and published in Nature this week - involved
studying growth rates for more than 200 tropical western Atlantic and Indian Ocean reefs. It was
found only 9% of these reefs had the ability to keep up with even the most optimistic rates of sea-level
rises forecast by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change. "For many reefs across the
Caribbean and Indian Ocean regions, where the study focused, rates of growth are slowing due to coral
reef degradation," said Professor Chris Perry, of Exeter University. “Meanwhile, rates of sea-level
rise are increasing - and our results suggest reefs will be unable to keep up. As a result, water
depths above most reefs will increase rapidly through this century.”
Sea levels rose by several inches over the past century and measurements indicate the speed of this
increase is now rising significantly. Two key factors are involved: climate change is making ocean
water warmer and so it expands. And as ice sheets and glaciers melt, they increase amounts of water in
the oceans.
At the same time, reefs are being weakened by ocean warming and also by ocean acidification,
triggered as the seas absorb more and more carbon dioxide. These effects lead to bleaching events that
kill off vast stretches of coral and limits their ability to grow.
“Our predictions, even under the best case scenarios, suggest that by 2100, the inundation of reefs
will expose coastal communities to significant threats of shoreline change,” said co-author Prof Peter
Mumby of Queensland University. This point was backed by US marine scientist Ilsa

Ruffner writing in a separate comment piece for Nature. “The implications of the study are dire. Many
island nations and territories are set to quickly lose crucial natural resources.”

Question 159: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Sea levels will become the main factor of bleaching.
B. Coral reefs will be overwhelmed by rising oceans.
C. Coral reefs may escape from extinction because of the increase in sea levels.
D. Global warming will cause the rise of sea levels.
Question 160: What does the word "compensate" in the first paragraph probably mean?
A. recompense B. keep up with C. develop
D.benefit Question 161: What did scientists at Exeter
University find in their research?
A. Tropical coral reefs are increasing more quickly than others in Pacific Ocean.
B. The majority of tropical coral reefs cannot keep pace with the increasing rate of sea levels.
C. Many coral reefs are developing in spite of their degradation.
D. The rapid rise in sea levels does not affect the density of coral reefs.
Question 162: According to the passage, the two factors causing the rise of sea levels are__________.
A. global warming and freeze B. severe weather and climate change
C. climate change and ice expansion D. climate change and ice melt
Question 163: What does the phrase "these effects" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. ocean warming and ocean acidification B. reef weakening and ocean warming
C. reef weakening and ocean acidification D. ocean warming and CO2 absorb
Question 164: The word "inundation" is closest in meaning to _.
A. drought B. extinction C. flood D. tsunami
Question 165: The author implies in the last paragraph that___________.
A. even in the most optimistic prediction, coral reefs will experience their extinction.
B. the results of the study are more serious than what scientists have predicted.
C. human activities will not only affect marine life but also put themselves at risk.
D. people often exploit natural resources in island nations and territories.

Exercise 23: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your a

Plastic bags are used by everybody. From a vegetable vendor to a designer store, everyone seems
to use them. Even though they are one of the modern conveniences that we seem to be unable to
do without, they are responsible for causing pollution, killing wildlife, and using up the precious
resources of the Earth. But, most of us are blissfully unaware of the repercussions that are occurring
and will take place in the future because of the plastic bags.
Every once in a while, the government passes out an order banning store owners from providing
plastic bags to customers for carrying their purchases, with little lasting effect. Plastic bags are very
popular with both retailers as well as consumers because they are cheap, strong, lightweight, functional,
as well as a hygienic means of carrying food as well as other goods. About a hundred billion plastic bags
are used every year in the U.S. alone. And then, when one considers the huge economies and populations
of India, China, Europe, and other parts of the world, the numbers can be staggering. The problem is
further exacerbated by the developed countries shipping off their plastic waste to developing countries
like India.
Once they are used, most bags go into landfills. Each year, more and more bags are ending up littering the
environment. Once they become litter, plastic bags find their way into our waterways, parks, beaches,
and streets. And, if they are burned, they infuse the air with toxic fumes. About 100,000 animals, such as
dolphins, turtles, whales, penguins are killed every year due to these bags. Many animals ingest plastic
bags, mistaking them for food, and therefore, die. And worse, the ingested plastic bag remains intact even
after the death and decomposition of the animal. Thus, it lies around in the landscape where another
victim may ingest it. One of the worst environmental effects is that they are non- biodegradable. The
decomposition takes about 400 years. No one will live so long to witness the decomposition of plastic!
Thus, save the environment for the future generations as well as animals.
Petroleum products are diminishing and getting more expensive by the day, since we have used this non-
renewable resource increasingly. And to make plastic, about 60-100 million barrels of oil are needed
every year around the world. Surely, this precious resource should not be wasted on producing plastic
bags, should it? Petroleum is vital for our modern way of life. It is necessary for our energy requirements
- for our factories, transportation, heating, lighting, and so on. Without viable alternative sources of
energy yet on the horizon, if the supply of petroleum were to be turned off, it would lead to practically the
entire world grinding to a halt.
So, what can be done? A tote bag can make a good substitute for carrying groceries and the shopping. You
can keep the bag with the cashier, and then put your purchases into it instead of the usual plastic bag.
Recycling the bags you already have is another good idea. These can come into use for various
purposes, like holding your garbage, instead of purchasing new ones. While governments may be
working out ways to lessen the impact of plastic bags on the environment; however, each of us should

shoulder some of the responsibility for this problem, which ultimately harms us. Plastics are not only non-
biodegradable, but are one of the major pollutants of the sea. For a clean and green environment, try to
use alternatives to plastic whenever and wherever possible. Cut down your use of plastic, and do your bit
to save our planet.

Question 166: Which of the following could be the best tittle of the passage?
A. Plastic pollution - Problems and solutions.
 B. Harmful effects of plastic bags on the environment.
C. Plastic pollution - What should we do?
D. Plastic bags - New threat for the environment,
Question 167: What is the synonym of the word "repercussions" in the first paragraph?
A. situation B. interference C. contamination D. consequence
Question 168: According to the second paragraph, what is NOT true about the reality of plastic bags?
A. The more population a country has, the more complicated the plastic pollution is.
B. Plastic bags are often used because of their convenience.
C. Importing plastic waste from developed countries makes the problem more sophisticated.
D. The governments do not prohibit the use of plastic bags at the stores.
Question 169: The following are the negative effects of plastic bags on the
environment, EXCEPT .
A. They make water, soil and air polluted.
B. Marine animals may die because of eating plastic bags.
C. It takes plastic bags a very long time to be biodegraded.
D. People do not live long enough to check whether plastic bags are decomposed or not.
Question 170: The word "intact" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. undamaged B. broken C. harmful D. dangerous
Question 171: According to the passage, petroleum is described as a resource that________.
A. increases the cost of products.
B. is wasted on many energy demands of life.
C. is indispensable in almost all activities of the modern world.
D. is replaced by other alternatives in producing plastic bags.
Question 172: What does the word "it" in the last paragraph refer to?
A. the cashier B. the bag C. the shopping D. a good substitute
Question 173: What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Plastic bags should be limited as much as possible to save the Earth from their harmful
impacts.
B. Each individual should reuse their plastic bags to save money for other purchases.
C. The governments should cooperate with every citizen in cleaning the plastic bags in
the polluted oceans.
D. It is easier to keep the environment clean at first than to save it after it is polluted.
Exercise 24:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, 8, C, or D on your answer sheet
Many ants forage across the countryside in large numbers and undertake mass migrations; these activities
proceed because one ant lays a trail on the ground for the others to follow. As a worker ant returns home
after finding a source of food, it marks the route by intermittently touching its stinger to the ground
and depositing a tiny amount of trail pheromone - a mixture of chemicals that delivers diverse messages
as the context changes. These trails incorporate no directional information and may be followed by other
ants in either direction.
Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant, a food trail has to be kept secret
from members of other species. It is not surprising then that ant species use a wide variety of
compounds as trail pheromones. Ants can be extremely sensitive to these signals. Investigators
working with the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant Atta texana calculated that one milligram
of this substance would suffice to lead a column of ants three times around Earth.
The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant along the way, and the ant
detects this signal with receptors in its antennae. A trail pheromone will evaporate to furnish the
highest concentration of vapor right over the trail, in what is called a vapor space. In following the
trail, the ant moves to the right and left, oscillating from side to side across the line of the trail itself,
bringing first one and then the other antenna into the vapor space. As the ant moves to the right,
its left antenna arrives in the vapor space.
The signal it receives causes it to swing to the left, and the ant then pursues this new course until its
right antenna reaches the vapor space. It then swings back to the right, and so weaves back and
forth down the trail.

Question 174: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The information contained in pheromones
B. The mass migration of ants
C. How ants mark and follow a chemical trail
D. Different species of ants around the world
Question 175: The word "intermittently" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _.
A. roughly B. incorrectly C. rapidly D. periodically
Question 176: The phrase "the one" in paragraph 2 refers to a single _.
A. message B. food trail C. dead ant D. species
Question 177: According to the passage, why do ants use different compounds a trail pheromones?
A. To reduce their sensitivity to some chemicals
B. To indicate how far away the food is
C. To attract different types of ants
D. To protect their trail from other species
Question 178: The author mentions the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant in paragraph 2 to
point out .
A. a type of ant that is common in many parts of the world
B. how little pheromone is needed to mark a trail
C. the different types of pheromones ants can produce
 D. that certain ants can produce up to one milligram of pheromone
Question 179: According to the passage, how are ants guided by trail pheromones?
A. They sense the vapor through their antennae.
B. They avoid the vapor spaces by moving in a straight line.
C. They concentrate on the smell of food.
D. They follow an ant who is familiar with the trail
Question 180: According to the passage, the highest amount of pheromone vapor is found
A. in the sourceof food B. in the receptors of the ants
C. under the soil along the trail D. just above the trail

Exercise 25: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
Deforestation is the clearing, destroying, or otherwise removal of trees through deliberate, natural or
accidental means. It can occur in any area densely populated by trees and other plant life, but the
majority of it is currently happening in the Amazon rainforest. The loss of trees and other vegetation
can cause climate change, desertification, soil erosion, fewer crops, flooding, increased greenhouse gases
in the atmosphere, and a host of problems for indigenous people.

Deforestation occurs for a number of reasons, including: farming, mostly cattle due to its quick turn
around; and logging for materials and development. It has been happening for thousands of years,
arguably since man began converting from hunter/gatherer to agricultural based societies, and required
larger, unobstructed tracks of land to accommodate cattle, crops, and housing. It was only after the onset
of the modern era that it became an epidemic.
One of the most dangerous and unsettling effects of deforestation is the loss of animal and plant species
due to their loss of habitat; not only do we lose those known to us, but also those unknown, potentially an
even greater loss. Seventy percent of Earth's land animals and plants live in forests, and many cannot
survive the deforestation that destroys their homes. The trees of the rainforest that provide shelter for
some species also provide the canopy that regulates the temperature, a necessity for many others. Its
removal through deforestation would allow a more drastic temperature variation from day to night, much
like a desert, which could prove fatal for current inhabitants.
In addition to the loss of habitat, the lack of trees also allows a greater amount of greenhouse gases
to be released into the atmosphere. Presently, the tropical rainforests of South America are responsible for
20% of Earth's oxygen and they are disappearing at a rate of 4 hectares a decade. If these rates are not
stopped and reversed, the consequences will become even more severe.
The trees also help control the level of water in the atmosphere by helping to regulate the water
cycle. With fewer trees left, due to deforestation, there is less water in the air to be returned to the
soil. In turn, this causes dryer soil and the inability to grow crops, an ironic twist when considered against
the fact that 80% of deforestation comes from small-scale agriculture and cattle ranching.
Further effects of deforestation include soil erosion and coastal flooding, In addition to their previously
mentioned roles, trees also function to retain water and topsoil, which provides the rich nutrients to
sustain additional forest life. Without them, the soil erodes and washes away, causing farmers to move
on and perpetuate the cycle. The barren land which is left behind in the wake of these unsustainable
agricultural practices is then more susceptible to flooding, specifically in coastal regions. Coastal
vegetation lessens the impact of waves and winds associated with a storm surge. Without this
vegetation, coastal villages are susceptible to damaging floods.

Question 181: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The definition of deforestation.
B. The negative impacts of deforestation.
C. The reasons why deforestation occurs frequently.
D. The effective solutions to solve the deforestation all over the world.
Question182: The word "indigenous" in the first paragraph probably means .
A. foreign B. agrarian C. native D. mountainous
Question 183: Which of the following is NOT stated as the reason of deforestation in paragraph 2?
A. cutting trees for wood B. ranching cattle
C. cultivating D. hunting for food.
Question 184: What does the word "others" in the third paragraph refer?
A. canopy B. species C. rainforest D. trees
Question 185: The following are negative effects of deforestation, EXCEPT .
A. Myriad flora and fauna species have been eradicated before we discover them.
B. The alteration of temperature in a complete day is becoming more radical due to the loss of trees.
C. The soil is infertile to grow crops because of the shortage of rain and erosion.
D. More and more animals have to find a place of refuge under the canopy of leaves.
Question 186: The word "perpetuate" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _.
A. maintain B. stop C. prevent D. start
Question 187: Coastal regions are mentioned in the last paragraph as an example of regions that .
A. are easy to be vulnerable in a storm surge.
B. are left behind because of the reduction of forests.
C. are not much influenced by flood.
D. often experience droughts or erosion.
Question 188: The paragraph following the last paragraph in the passage may probably discuss .
A. a number of disadvantages that deforestation puts local people at.
B. some drastic measures that should be taken to deal with deforestation.
C. the reality of deforestation in some specific countries.
D. some scientists' perspectives about deforestation.
Exercise 26:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to
Thanks to electricity, candles are no longer a necessity in our lives, but they are still a pleasure. The warm
flame of candlelight can quickly alter the mood and atmosphere of a room, often creating a peaceful scene
that electric light just cannot match.
Candles are an important part of many cultural and religious festival and have been burnt in various forms
for centuries. The ancient Romans and Egyptians made candles from a type of fiber coated with wax.
However, up until the nineteenth century, most candles were made from a substance called tallow,
obtained from beef fat. Tallow candles were very smoky and, understandably, had an unpleasant
odor.
In the 19th century, candle makers learned to separate stearin, the solid form fat used as a type of glue,
from tallow and used it to harden other fats. Candles that contained stearin would burn longer than
previous ones and had a better smell. Stearin is still one of the main components of modern candle-
making, and the techniques used to create candles today are much the same as they have been for many
years. These days, the increase range of wax dyes, perfumes and other additives that are now available
make candle making a very exciting and rewarding hobby.
Sales of candles have increased greatly over the last few years, showing that they have become part of
our lives again, not through necessity, but because of the magical atmosphere they create. In our
increasingly stressful lives, the calming quality of candlelight has a relaxing effect that many enjoy.
For those would like to learn to make candles, finding and buying candle-making kits is easy. Candle-
making is definitely enhanced by the exciting possibilities of experimentation with various materials. Be
brave and try out different effects - some of the most wonderful creations can happen by accident.
With a bit of practice, you will be amazed at the very professional finish that can be achieved.
Despite their delicate beauty, candles can, of course, be highly dangerous. One should never leave lit
candles unattended, even for a few moments. Always make sure candles are securely placed within
candleholders.
Teach your children to respect a burning candle, and of course keep burning candles away from
flammable materials. Keep your home safe by remembering that a candle is magical, but fire can be very
destructive. Be careful, and enjoy the beauty of your candles!

Question 189: According to the text, what is the importance of candles?

A. We need them in case there is an electric backout.
B. We gain a feeling of calm when they are lit in a room.
C. We light them to create a more romantic atmosphere.
D. We cannot do without them in our daily lives.
Question 190: Why dose the writer mention ancient Romans and Egyptians in the text?
 A. to show that before making candles, we should learn their history
B. to show one of the ways candles were made in the past
C. to show how candles were invented
D. to show that candles have always been used
Question 191: Why was stearin used in candles?
A. It create a more colorful flame than tallow.
B. It covered up unpleasant smells in the air.
C. It was used to get rid of fat in the candles.
D. It helped make candles burn longer.
Question 192: According to the text, what does the increase of candle sales illustrate?
A. People enjoy the calming effect that candles produce.
B. The variety of candles to choose from makes them more attractive.
C. People buy candles as gifts more often than they used to.
D. Candles are cheaper to buy now than they were in the past.
Question 193: According to the text, what is needed to succeed at candle-making?
A. a few years of practice B. a lot of time and money
C. willingness to take risks D. many expensive materials
Question 194: What dose the passage warn readers not to do?
A. burn candle without adult supervision B. leave a room where a candle is burning
C. use unapproved ingredients in candles D. burn candles for only a few minutes
Question 195: Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
A. Candle-making can be a successful business.
B. Candles are made from different types of material.
C. Candles continue to be a part of people's lives.
D. Candle-making has changed little over the years.
Exercise 27: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
Garbage cans are not magical portals. Trash does not disappear when you toss it in a can. Yet, the
average American throws away an estimated 1,600 pounds of waste each year. If there are no magic
garbage fairies, where does all that trash go? There are four methods to managing waste:
Recycling, landfilling, composting, and incinerating. Each method has its strengths
and weaknesses. Let’s take a quick look at each.
Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be
turned into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution,
save materials, and lower energy use. Yet, some argue that recycling wastes energy. They believe
that collecting, processing, and converti g waste uses more energy than it saves. Still, most people
agree that recycling is better for the planet
than landfilling.
Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. In its simplest form, landfilling is when people
bury garbage in a hole. Over time the practice of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted
before it is thrown into the hole. In this way more garbage can fit in each landfill. Large liners are
placed in the bottom of landfills so that toxic garbage juice doesn't get into the ground water. Sadly,
these liners don't always work. Landfills may pollute the local water supply. Not to mention that all of
that garbage stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. This makes it hard to find new locations
for landfills.
Compositing is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose.
The product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil
richer and better for growing crops. While composting is easy to do onsite somewhere, like home
or school, it's hard to do after the garbage gets all mixed up. This is because plastic and other inorganic
materials must be removed from the compost pile or they will pollute the soil. There's a lot of plastic in
garbage, which makes it hard to compost on a large scale.
One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to incinerate waste. The first
is to create or harvest a fuel from the waste, such as methane gas, and burn the fuel. The second is to
burn the waste directly. The heat from the incineration process can boil water, which can power
steam generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air. Also, some critics worry that
incinerators destroy valuable resources that could be recycled.
Usually, the community in which you live manages waste. Once you put your garbage in that can, what
happens to fit is beyond your control. But you can make choices while it is still in your possession. You
can choose to recycle, you can choose to compost, or you can choose to let someone else deal with
it. The choice is yours.
Question 196: Which of the following serves as the best title for this passage?
A. The Magic of Recycling: Bringing Back What Was Once Lost
B. Recycling, Landfilling or Composing: Which is Best for You?
C. Do Your Part How to Save the Earth by Recycling and Composting.
D. Methods of Waste Management: Advantages and Disadvantages
Question 197: According to the passage all of the following are mentioned as an issue with
landfilling EXCEPT that
A. landfills are smelly B. landfills may pollute the water supply
C. it is difficult to find locationsfor landfills D. usable materials are wasted in landfills
Question 198: What does the word "stinks" in paragraph 3 mean?
A. smells unpleasant B. seems dirty C. looks attractive D. feels soft
Question 199: Which of the following best explains why composting is not feasible on a large scale?
A. People wouldn't want to touch all of that gross rotting food.
 B. Plastic would get into the compost and turn it into a pollutant.
C. It would smell too bad in densely populated cities.
D. It would attract rodents that would spread disease.
Question 200: According to the passage which of the following best defines "fincineTaittion"?
A. buying waste materials in a large hole
B. allowing waste products to decompose and become fertilizer
C. turning waste materials into products like book covers
D. burning waste materials and harvesting the energy
Question 201: The word "it" in the last paragraph refers to
A. community B. garbage C. waste D. possession
Question 202: According to the passage how many main ways to incinerate waste?
A. one B. three C. two D. four
Question 203: Which conclusion could be drawn from the passage?
A. Recycling is without a doubt the best way to handle waste.
B. Each method of waste management has its drawbacks.
C. Incineration is the best way to process waste.
D. All large cities should create massive compost piles.

Exercise 28:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
One of the most interesting parts of the earth for many people was and continues to be the beautiful
world of the sea. People were always attracted to the mysteries of the deep waters when they saw a
little part of the under water world on television or in photographs. Due to this intense attraction caused
by the mystery of the waters, more and more people choose to practice scuba diving, which became
in time one of the most popular sports around the world. Scuba diving is a complex sport that requires
some research before being understood at its real value. In order for someone to practice it, it is
required for them to take some courses so accidents can be avoided.
Scuba diving is not only about diving and observing the amazing environment that exists under the
waters. This sport can be transformed into a successful career by those who are truly passionate about
it. At the moment, scuba diving has four main areas of interest: recreation purposes, commercial
purposes, scientific research and military activity as well. The most

frequent reason why people go for scuba diving is because they want to relax in a special way, by
having contact with a less known world.
A great thing about this sport is that it can be practiced anytime around the year; however, you
should choose the summer if you have problems with low temperatures. Once you take the lessons,
you get the basic knowledge before diving, you should talk to a specialist and obtain quality
equipment for this activity. For the beginning, you can only rent scuba diving equipment, but if
you get attached to this sport, then you will have to purchase one of your own at some moment.
Some of the most important parts of the scuba gear are the mask, the snorkel, the diving suit, the
gloves, the boots and the diving regulator.
If you finally decided to try scuba diving and you already took some scuba courses then you must be
thinking about what location to choose. This is one of the most difficult decisions to make as our
world is filled with numerous destinations, equally beautiful and interesting. If this passion catches you
then you will surely get to visit more and more amazing locations each year. There is no such
thing as the most beautiful waters to scuba diving in as each part has something to offer and
shelters special creatures that should be observed.
Question 204: Which of the following could be the best tittle of the passage?
A. The big attraction to scuba diving. B. The new interest on the Earth.
C. The requirements for scuba diving. D. The place to practice scuba diving.
Question 205: The word "intense" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. moderate B. special C. strong D. obtuse
Question 206: What does the word "it" in paragraph 1 refer to?
A. its real value B. research C. scuba diving D. the world
Question 207: According to the passage, which of the interest of scuba diving is NOT mentioned?
A. relaxing B. trading
C. activities for the armed forces D. adventure
Question 208: The word "attached" in paragraph 3 probably means _
A. joined B. enclosed C. suitable D. attacked
Question 209: Which of the following is TRUE about scuba diving?
A. Although you are really interested in scuba diving, you cannot have a successful career with
it.
B. Many people want to try scuba diving in order to explore the new world.
C. To practice scuba diving, people need plenty of indispensable equipment.
D. Buying suitable scuba diving equipment is a good idea for those who go for this sport.
Question 210: What benefit of scuba diving does the author mention in the last paragraph?
A. Exploring more wonderful destinations in the world.
B. Observing more locations to fulfill your passion.
C. Taking more scuba courses to understand this sport.
D. Choosing a location to visit the most beautiful water.
Exercise 29: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of comic
books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like mangastyle comic
books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with the things
young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is technology, so of
course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices.
Let's take Japanese rnanga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy
reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic
bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own
language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and
uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so
popular. People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan and
translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation
usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and
publishers all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic
book industry. illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales.
Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books are still by
far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and stores will just
have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e- readers and tablets
grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well.
Question 211. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The need for digital comic books B. Children's most favourite type of books
C. Problems in the book industry D. The manga industry in Japan
Question 212. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to_____
A. children B. comic books C. publishers D. things
Question 213. According to paragraph 1, Spiderman is the name of .
A. a TV programme B. a comic book C. an electronic device D. a child
Question 214. According to paragraph 2, the practice of "scanlation" mostly involves .
A. selling translated manga books B. scanning and translating manga books
C. scanning uploaded manga books D. translating uploaded manga books
Question 215. According to the passage, in the past, some manga fans who knew Japanese translated
manga because
A. it was enjoyable to translate Japanese books
B. they wanted to make a name for themselves
C. it was difficult to buy translated manga books
D. they wanted to read manga for free
Question 216. According to paragraph 2, who could benefit from scanlation?
A. Readers B. Publishers C. Writers D. Artists
Question 217. The word "piracy" in paragraph 2 probably means the act of
A. controlling the production of a book B. hurting the sale of illegal comic books
C. copying and using abook illegally D. advertising a book without permission
Exercise 30:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
The American type of football was developed in the 19th century from soccer and rugby football.
Played by professionals, amateurs, college and high school students, or young children, football in
American is one of the most popular sports besides basketball and baseball. It attracts millions of
fans each fall and people are very supportive of their favourite teams. The football playing field of
today is rectangular in shape and measures 100 yards long and 53.5 yards wide. White lines are
painted on the playing field to mark off the distances to the end zone. The games is divided into four
quarters, each fifteen minutes long. The first two quarters are known as the first half. There is a
rest period between two halves which usually last about fifteen minutes. Each team has eleven
players. Each team has offensive players who play when the team has possession of the ball and
defensive players who play when the other team has the possession of the ball.
Because of the body contact players have during the game, helmets are worn to protect their head and
face area, whereas pads are worn to protect the shoulders, arms, and legs. Also, there are officials
carrying whistles and flags to make certain that the rules of the game are followed during the game.
The football is made of leather and is brown in colour. It is shaped much like an oval and thrown or
someone is running with it. The eight stitches on the top of the football help the players to grip ball
when throwing or passing. The most famous game of the year is Super Bowl that is played in January
or February. It is televised around the world and is watched by millions of people each year.

Question 218: What do officials do during the game of football?

A. build up excitement amongthe fans B. supervise the game
C. takeup tickets D. spectate the game
Question 219: As mentioned in the text, who are the most active when their team has the ball?
A. offensive players B. defensive players C. the officials D. the fans
Question 220: Playing American football is the most similar to playing .
A. rugbyfootball B. basketball C. baseball D. volleyball
Question 221: What do pads help the players to protect?
A. their legs and arms B. their heads C. thewhole body D. their faces
Question 222: Which sport is played most in the US?
A. Rugby football B. Soccer C. American football D. It's not mentioned
Question 223: When is the most famous football game held annually?
A. inthe fall B. January C. February D. January or February
Question 224: Why are there white rings on each end of the football?
A. to mark off the distances to the end zone B. to help players run
C. to helpplayers score D. to help players see the ball
Question 225: The word "grip" in the passage means to .
A. avoid something B. take something away
C. old something tightly D. detect something

Exercise 31: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
How is the news different from entertainment? Most people would answer that news is real but
entertainment is fiction. However, if we think more carefully about the news, it becomes clear that
the news is not always real. The news does not show us all the events of the day, but stories from a
small number of chosen events. The creation of news stories is subject to specific constraints, much
like the creation of works of fiction. There are many constraints, but three of the most important
ones are: commercialism, story formulas, and sources.
Newspapers, radio, and TV stations are businesses, all of which are rivals for audiences and
advertising revenue. The amount of time that the average TV station spends on news broadcasts has
grown steadily over the last fifty years - largely because news is relatively cheap to produce, yet sells
plenty of advertising. Some news broadcasts are themselves becoming advertisements. For example,
during one week in 1996 when the American CBS network was airing a movie about the sinking of
the Titanic, CBS news ran nine stories about that event (which had happened 84 years before). The
ABC network is owned by Disney Studios, and frequently runs news stories about Mickey Mouse.
Furthermore, the profit motive drives news organizations to pay more attention to stories likely to
generate a large audience, and to shy away from stories that may be important but dull. This pressure
to be entertaining has produced shorter, simpler stories: more focus on celebrities than people of
substance, more focus on gossip than on news, and more focus on dramatic events than on nuanced
issues.
As busy people under relentless pressure to produce, journalists cannot spend days agonizing over the
best way to present stories. Instead, they depend upon certain story formulas, which they can reuse
again and again. One example is known as the inverted pyramid. In this formula, the journalist puts
the most important information at the beginning of the story, than adds the next most important, and
so on. The inverted pyramid originates from the age of the telegraph, the idea being that if the line
went dead halfway through the story, the journalist would know that the most crucial information had
at least been relayed. Modern journalists still value the formula for a similar reason. Their editors will
cut stories if they are too long. Another formula involves reducing a complicated story into a simple
conflict. The best example is "horse race" election coverage. Thorough explication of the issues and
the candidates' views is forbiddingly complex. Journalists therefore concentrate more on who is
winning in the opinion polls, and whether the underdog can catch up in the numbers than on
politicians' campaign goals.
Sources are another constraint on what journalists cover and how they cover it. The dominant sources
for news are public information officers in businesses and government offices. The majority of such
officers try to establish themselves as experts who are qualified to feed information to journalists.
How do journalists know who is an expert? In general, they don't. They use sources not on the basis of
actual expertise, but on the appearance of expertise and the willingness to share it. All the major news
organizations use some of the same sources (many of them anonymous), so the same types of stories
always receive attention. Over time, the journalists may even become close friends with their sources,
and they stop searching for alternative points of view. The result tends to be narrow, homogenized
coverage of the same kind.
Question 226: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author of the passage thinks_________.
A. that watching or reading the news is extremely boring
B. that most news stories are false
C. that most people don't realize how different news is from reality
D.that most people don't pay enough attention to the news
Question 227: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true?
A. One effect of commercialism is news stories with more complex content.
B. The ABC network owns Disney Studios.
C. Some news broadcasts are shown without advertisements.
D. More time is devoted to news on TV now than 50 years ago.
Question 228: Why does the author mention Mickey Mouse in paragraph 2?
A. To indicate that ABC shows entertaining news stories
B. To give an example of news stories that are also advertisements
C. To contrast ABC's style with that of CBS
D. To give an example of news content that is not serious
Question 229: According to paragraph 3, an advantage of the inverted pyramid formula for
journalists is that ___ _.
A. if a story is cut by the editor, only the less crucial information will be lost
B. it makes a story more likely to be cut by the editor
C. it makes a story more likely to attract the attention of the audience
D. it makes a story simpler and easier to understand
Question 230: The word relayed in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. chosen B. Known C. gathered D. sent
Question 231: According to the passage, which of the following tends to lead to homogenized coverage?
A. Journalists' use of experts as sources
B. Journalists' becoming friends with their sources
C. Journalists' search for alternative points of view
D. Journalists' using government officials as sources
Question 232: The word "them" in paragraph 4 refers to _.
A. journalists B. organizations C. experts D. sources
Question 233: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentences "Thorough explication of the issues......than on politicians' campaign goals. " in the passage?
A. Journalists focus on poll numbers instead of campaign issues because it is easier.
B. journalists are more interested in issues and candidates' views, but viewers are more
interested in who is winning.
C. During an election campaign, journalists mainly concentrate on "horse race" coverage.
D. Candidates' views and how they are explained by journalists can have a big effect on
poll numbers.

Exercise 32:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your

The Internet is very much like television, in which it takes time away from other pursuits, provides
entertainment and information, but in no way can compare with the warm, personal experience of
reading a good book. This is not the only reason why the Internet will never replace books, for
books provide the in-depth knowledge of a subject that sitting in front of a computer monitor
cannot provide. We can download text from an Internet source, but the aesthetic quality of
sheets of downloaded text leave much to be desired. A well-designed book enhances the reading
experience.
The book is still the most compact and inexpensive means of conveying a dense amount of
knowledge in a convenient package. The easy portability of the book is what makes it the most user-
friendly format for knowledge ever invented. The idea that one can carry in one's pocket a play by
Shakespeare, a novel by Charles Dickens or Tom Clancy, Plato's Dialogues, or the Bible in a small
paperback edition is mind-boggling. We take such uncommon convenience for granted, not realizing
that the book itself has undergone quite an evolution since the production of the Gutenberg Bible in
1455 and Shakespeare's First Folio in 1623, just three years after the Pilgrims landed at Plymouth to
colonize the New World.
Not only has the art and craft of printing and book manufacturing been greatly improved over the
centuries, but the great variety of subject matter now available in books is astounding, to say the
least. In fact, the Internet requires the constant input of authors and their books to provide it with the
information that makes it a useful tool for exploration and learning.
Another important reason why the Internet will never replace books is because those who wish to
become writers want to see their works permanently published as books - something you can hold,
see, feel, skim through, and read at one's leisure without the need for an electric current apart from a
lamp. The writer may use a word processor instead of a typewriter or a pen and pad, but the finished
product must eventually end up as a book if it is to have value to the reading public. The writer may
use the Internet in the course of researching a subject just as he may use a library for that purpose, but
the end product will still be a book.
Question 234: What is the author's main idea in the passage?
A.The Internet distracts people from other pursuits.
B.Books have been improved in both appearance and content.
C.The Internet and books will replace each other.
D.Books will not be replaced by the Internet.
Queston 235: What does the word "this" in the first paragraph refer to?
A. a good book
B. the Internet
C the warm, personal experience of reading a good book
D entertainment and information
Queston 236: The word “aesthete” is closest in meaning to
A. artistic B. usual C. print D. invisible
Question237: Which of the following is mentioned as the advantage of books in paragraph 2?
A. expensive, moderate and portable
B. compact, cheap and convenient
C. luxurious, enormous and flexible
A. uncommon, inexpensive and knowledgeable
Question 238: The word "astounding" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by_________.
A. astonishing B. unsurprising C. astringent D. accelerating
Question 239: The author mentioned the Internet in the last paragraph as a tool that
A. will replace books if the writers don't want to publish their works.
B. requires more equipment to use than books.
C. provides the writers information about the subject they are finding for their books.
D. cannot be held, seen or felt in our hands.
Question 240: According to the passage, which sentence is NOT true about books?
A. Whenever books are still useful for our society, they cannot be replaced.
B. A well-designed book is more effective for reading than a download text.
C. There has been no book evolution because of its uncommon convenience.
D. Over many centuries, the appearance of books has been upgraded.

Exercise 33: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
WWF, in full World Wide Fund for Nature, international organization committed to conservation of the
environment. In North America, it is called the World Wildlife Fund.
In 1960, a group of British naturalists - most notably biologist Sir Julian Huxley, artist and conservationist
Peter Scott, and ornithologists Guy Montfort and Max Nicholson - led an effort to establish an
organization that protected endangered species and their habitats. The following year the World Wildlife
Fund was founded; the international name was subsequently changed to World Wide Fund for Nature in
1989, although in the United States and Canada it retained the founding name. The organization's
distinctive panda logo was created by Scott. In the face of growing environmental threats over the
ensuing years, the WWF's activities expanded in scope. Today its mission statement is threefold: to
conserve the world's biological diversity, to ensure that the use of renewable natural resources is
sustainable, and to promote the reduction of pollution and of wasteful consumption. The
organization has long included both conservationists and businesspeople with the intention of
combining solid scientific data with well-managed action. It also seeks cooperation between
nongovernmental organizations, local governments, and local populations. The WWF works closely
with the World Conservation Union and has formed partnerships with the United Nations, the World
Bank, and the European Union.
The WWF provides money for conservation initiatives around the world. These include programs
focused on individual species, forests, and freshwater and marine issues as well as climate change
and responsible international trade. The group has also been involved in efforts to provide a safe and
sustainable habitat for the world's peoples, both urban and rural, including clean water, clean air, healthful
food, and rewarding recreation areas. Among the WWF's notable achievements is its use of debt-for-
nature swaps, in which an organization buys some of a country's foreign debt at a discount, converts
the money to local currency, and then uses it to finance conservation efforts. The WWF's first successful
debt-for-nature swap took place in 1987 in Ecuador.
At the beginning of the 21st century, the WWF was active in more than 100 countries and had more than
five million supporters. The organization's international headquarters are in Gland, Switz., and it has more
than 90 offices around the world.

Question 241: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Thehistory of WWF B. What WWF has done to conserve thenature
C. ThefoundationofVVWF D. The missions of WWF
Question 242: When was VVWF established?
A. In 1960 B. In 1961 C. In 1989 D. In 1990
Question243: The word "ensuing" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. bygone B. present C. following D. current
Question 244: According to the passage, what contemporary mission of WWF is NOT stated?
A. to protect the biological variety of the world.
B. to reduce pollution and prodigal consumption.
C. to make sure that renewable natural resources are used sustainably.
D. to protect endangered species and their habitats.
Question 245: The word "It" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. The organization B. The attention
C. Solidscientific data D. Well-managed action
Question 246: It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. WWF was founded by a group of Americanbiologists.
 B. WWF has cooperated with many organizations to change its name.
C. WWF has made an effort to provide people with a sustainable world.
D. WWF uses debt-for-nature swap to lend money to foreign countries.
Question 247: The phrase "focused on" in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____________.
A. concentrated on B. depended on C. relied on D. based on
Question 248: Which sentence is CORRECT about WWF?
A. Its panda logo was created by 2 men, an artist and a conservationist
B. It has millions of supporters in about a hundred countries,
C. Its headquarters are in Sweden.
D. Its programs covered the issues of terrestrial and marine areas.

Exercise 34:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then,
there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult
now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the
north of England and none of them had any training in music, They started by performing and recording
songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs, Then they started writing
their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music.
They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After
that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a
long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live
performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them - their fans were so excited
that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their
songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out Throughout the world many people
can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.

Question 249: The passage is mainly about _ _.

A. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups
B. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years
C. The Beatles's fame and success
D. Many people's ability to sing a Beatles song
Question 250: The four boys of the Beatles .
A. Came from the same family
B. Came from a town in the north of England
C. Were at the same age
D. Received good training in music
Question 251: The word "sensational" is closest in meaning to
A. Notorious B. Bad C. Shocking D.Popular

Question 252: What is not true about the Beatles?

A. The members had no training in music
B. They had a long stable career
C. They became famous when they wrote their own songs
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans
Question 253: The Beatles stopped their live performances because
A. They had earned enough money
B. They did not want to work with each other
C. They spent more time writing their own songs
D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans.
Question 254: The word "they" is closest in meaning to
A. The Beatles B. the fans C. the songs D. the performances
Question 255: What word might describes the attitudes of the writer?
A. admiration B. criticism C. neutral D. sarcasm
Exercise 35: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet

It is an undeniable fact that a woman's place was once in the home. In the past, women were merely
required to fulfill the role of mother and housewife. Today, this situation has changed tremendously. If
a woman possesses the attributes and qualities of her male counterpart, she will definitely be given
equal opportunities in the career world without much bias. Therefore, women began to make the scene
and, eventually, there was a steady flow of women leaving their homes. A certain vacuum or emptiness
was thus created in the households. No more could the husbands turn

to their wives after a hard day's work. Society marveled at the ability of women, but it also suffered
at the realization of the important role that women play in their homes. Should women be allowed
to work after marriage then? The answer is undoubtedly positive although this issue is highly
debatable in terms of the nature of the professions involved. If a woman pursues her career but is at
the same time able to care for her home and children, one simply cannot find any reason why she
should not be allowed to do so.
A woman's influence is greatly needed in the home, on the children. What a child needs most is his
mother's care because how the child is molded depends greatly on her. It is a real pity that women
who leave their homes solely in search of a career seldom give a thought to this. The children, being
helpless and dependent creatures, may have nobody to turn to at home, except servants or relatives.
With the mother's back only after a hard day's toil, the children surely do not get much attention.
Whether a woman should continue to work after marriage would depend on the nature of her
profession. It is a waste of resources if women, after seeking higher education, immediately abandon
their careers after matrimony. A woman's effort can also contribute to the well-being and
development of society. In the Malaysian context, a teacher is only required to work a five-day week
with term holidays every now and then. Moreover, she is in school for only half of the day. The
other half of the day can be devoted to her home. A teacher, besides educating the society, can
fulfill the role of both mother and housewife. There are many other careers like those of nurses,
clerks and typists where women can fulfill the double role.
Nevertheless, there are many professions which would not be advisable for women to indulge in
after marriage. A public relations officer spends almost three-quarters of her time in her career.
She has heavy tasks to shoulder which might require her to entertain others till odd hours at night.
Women who venture into the business world should think twice before plunging into it. It would be
beyond their means to fulfill two demanding roles at the same time.
As it is, a woman's most important responsibility still lies in her home. Without her around in the house,
one just cannot bear to think of the consequences. Unless and until she can fulfill the basic role of a
housewife and mother, she should not make a career her sole responsibility.
Question 256: What is the best title of the passage?
A. Should women be allowed to work after marriage?
B. The role of women in society.
C. What jobs are suitable for women after marriage?
D. The necessary characteristics for women to work after marriage.
Question 257: Which of the following about women is NOT true in paragraph
1?
A. The main role of women in bygone days was childbearing and homemaking.
B. Women will have equality of job opportunities if they are as qualified as men.
C. Women's going out to work didn't change anything in the life of their families.
D. Women play an important role in their homes.
Question 258: The word "mearvelled" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by___________.
A. was amazed B. was excited
C. was fascinated D. was frustrated
Question 259: The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. the child of the woman
B. the woman’s influence at her home
C. the mother’s care which is the most necessary for a child
D. the career that the woman wants to do
Question 260: The word "matrimony" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _.
A. divorce B. remarriage C. celibate D.
marriage Question 261: According to the passage, what job is NOT suitable for women after
getting married?
A. nurses B. clerks
C. typists D. public relations officers
Question 262: Why should a businesswoman have the second thought before starting her career?
A. Because she has heavy tasks to shoulder till very late at night.
B. As it would be hard for her to fulfill the double role at the same time.
C. Since she has to spend three quarters of her time on business.
D. Because she has to plunge into this job.
Question 263: Which can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. Women should stay at home to fulfill their responsibilities.
B. Women should think of the consequences in their houses.
C. Women should not have their own careers.
D. Women should fulfill their primary roles at home before making their own careers.
Exercise 36:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well
placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the
planets apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter's

less than 10 hour rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal
planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the
perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot. It has shown variations in both
intensity and color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At
its greatest extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area
is greater than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in
longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 1200°.
The latitude is generally very close to -22°. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or
semisolid body floating in Jupiter's outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have
refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity
may well due to its exceptional size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not
be permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted.
Question 264: It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. a day on Earth is shorter than a day on Jupiter
B. there are other structures on Jupiter that has the same size as the Great Red Spot
C. there are times when Great Red Spot cannot be observed from the earth
D. the Great Red Spot is the only structure on Jupiter
Question 265: According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars
Question 266: According to the passage, the Great Red Spot .
A. has different colors B. is as big as the earth
C. is a solid structure floating in the air D. has increased its size over the years
Question 267: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to _.
A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color
Question 268: The word "exceptional" in paragraph 2 mostly means _.
A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent
Question 269: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all the other planest in the solar system.
B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long.
C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally.
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size
to become other Great Red Spots.
Question 270: The passage was probably taken from__________.
A. an art journal B. a geology magazine
C. a high school textbook D. an archaeology book

Exercise 37: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
A generation gap in the workplace can make workers both young and old feel inferior, as well as hamper
productivity and teamwork. Differences between generations can be seen in work ethics, habits and
communication styles. Younger workers might fear not being taken seriously by their older colleagues,
while older workers might fear that their experience is not valued but replaced by workers with
knowledge of more current technology. However, members of each generation can close the gap between
them if they're willing to meet one another halfway.
Older workers can show respect to the younger set by asking for their opinions and recognizing their
contributions to the workplace as valid, or complimenting them on a job well done. Younger
workers can show their elders respect by asking for advice on how to manage a situation with work, based
on the older worker's many years of experience. It's important for both entry- and senior-level workers to
see each other as equals, regardless of the type of position in which they work. No one wants to feel
inferior or irrelevant just because of their age. Rather, a generation gap at work can be a learning
opportunity.
Workers can also put themselves in their colleagues' shoes to determine what might be bothering them
about their generational age difference. If a person is much older than another, perhaps it is bitterness
about fewer job opportunities, or fear that a younger worker might seem more relevant and edge him
out of his job. If workers open their minds to understand where co-workers are coming from, it can help
ease any tension between them and appreciate each other's
work contributions.
If age seems to be a problem for someone at the workplace, it can be helpful to do the very opposite of
what a co-worker might expect from someone of a different age set due to stereotypes. For example, if a
worker is considerably younger such as right out of college, she can share researched information to
indicate that she knows what she's doing, or show curiosity instead of upset to indicate emotional maturity
if the person makes a disparaging remark about her youth. Older workers can maintain an enthusiastic
attitude about work instead of showing boredom or bitterness from past experiences.
Workers can, moreover, directly address the concern of age differences at work with the colleague at odds
with them by asking the person for constructive advice on how to handle the issue. For example,

older workers who are unfamiliar with new software that younger colleagues understand might
acknowledge to them that they did the same tasks differently in years past but show interest in learning
the program to keep up with modern technology. Learning to speak their technological language can
make them feel more connected. Likewise, a younger worker can admit to being green on the work scene,
but eager to gain experience by learning from senior colleagues.
Question 271: What is the purpose of writer in the passage?
A. To describe the status of generation gap in the workplace.
B. To suggest the solutions to bridge the generation gap between the older and younger workers.
C. To determine which generation will have more influence on the workforce.
D. To show the differences between the older and younger at their work.
Question 272: Each generation should respect the other generation at work to .
A. affirm their ability or personal experience they contribute to work.
B. express the recognition to the other’s position in the workplace.
C. make the other feel that they are necessary or useful in the workplace.
D. treat the other equally at work.
Question 273: What does the writer mean by stating “put themselves in their colleagues' shoes” in
paragraph 3?
A. Workers should try on their colleagues' shoes to master the difference of their generation.
B. Workers should buy their colleagues' shoes not to bother them about generational
age difference.
C. Workers should determine the differences between their generational ages so that they
can understand their colleagues’ situation.
D. Workers should imagine that they are in their colleagues’ situation to understand and
sympathy the difficulties they meet.
Question 274: The word "him" in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. an older worker B. a younger worker C. a colleague D. a person
Question 275: What is the synonym of the word “stereotypes” in paragraph 4?
A. achievements B. failures C. prejudices D. jealousness Question 276: According to
the passage, the following are measures to overcome the generation gap, EXCEPT .
A. Keeping an open mind B. Doing the opposite
C. Requesting feedback D. Appreciating the opportunity
Question 277: The word “acknowledge” is closest in meaning to .
A. recognize B. enhance C. acquire D. distinguish
Question 278: It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. The younger and older workers should meet one another on the way to reduce generation
gap in the workplace.
B. The main principle to bridge the generation gap is to balance the experience and technology.
C. Positive attitude will help to decrease the conflicts between the older and younger.
D. The competitive environment in the workplace might make the generation gap wider.
Exercise 38:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom
and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its
construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile
river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways
and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the
pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The
ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid
were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further
scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events - past, present and future. Many
of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are
prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have
supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial
beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?
Question 279: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid.
B. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops.
C. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid.
D. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza.
Question 280: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It was built by a super race.
 B. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many
prophecies.

C. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.

D. It was very old.
Question 281: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh.
D. To enable the Pharaoh's family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
Question 282: The word 'feat’ in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to .
A. accomplishment B. festivity C. appendage D. structure
Question 283: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Advanced tools of measurement B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface
C. Advanced technology D. Observation of the celestial bodies
Question284: What has research of the base revealed?
A. There are cracks in the foundation
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh's body
C. A superior race of people built in
D. The lines represent important events
Question 285: In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to .
A. foretold B. terminated C. precipitated D. affiliated
Exercise 39: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
WATER SPORTS
Recreational diving or sport diving is a type of diving that uses scuba equipment for the purpose of
leisure and enjoyment. In some diving circles, the term "recreational diving" is used in contradistinction
to "technical diving", a more demanding aspect of the sport which requires greater levels of
training, experience and equipment.
Recreational scuba diving grew out of related activities such as snorkeling and underwater hunting. For
a long time, recreational underwater excursions were limited by the amount of breath that could
be held. However, the invention of the aqualung in 1943 by Jacques-Yves Cousteau and its
development over subsequent years led to a revolution in recreational diving. However, for much of
the 1950s and early1960s, recreational scuba diving was a sport limited to those who were able to
afford or make their own kit, and prepared to undergo intensive training to

use it. As the sport became more popular, manufacturers became aware of the potential market, and
equipment began to appear that was easy to use, affordable and reliable. Continued advances in'
SCUBA technology, such as buoyancy compensators, modern diving regulators, wet or dry suits,
and dive computers, increased the safety, comfort and convenience of the gear encouraging more
people to train and use it.
Until the early 1950s, navies and other organizations performing professional diving were the only
providers of diver training, but only for their own personnel and only using their own types of
equipment. There were no training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba
equipment. Professional instruction started in 1959 when the non-profit National Association of
Underwater Instructors was formed.
Further developments in technology have reduced the cost of training and diving. Scuba- diving has
become a popular leisure activity, and many diving locations have some form of dive shop presence
that can offer air fills, equipment and training. In tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world, there is a
large market in holiday divers, who train and dive while on holiday, but rarely dive close to home.
Generally, recreational diving depths are limited to a maximum of between 30 and 40 meters (100 and
130 feet), beyond which a variety of safety issues make it unsafe to dive using recreation diving
equipment and practices, and specialized training and equipment for technical diving are needed.

Question 286: What is the topic of the passage?

A. The reasons why people like scuba-diving
B. The history of scuba-diving
C. The equipment for scuba-diving
D. The reasons why not many people take up scuba-diving
Question 287: Recreational diving__________.
A. requires more equipment than technical diving ,
B. are taken up by many people for leisure and entertainment
C. needs no equipment
D. requires more experience than technical diving
Question 288. Recreational underwater excursions used to be limited___________.
A. as underwater hunting was banned
B. because the necessary amount of breath was too expensive to afford
C. because divers could not take enough amount of breath with them
D. because the necessary amount of breath was too heavy to bring
Question 289: Which of the following could best replace the word "subsequent" ?
A. successive B. following C. ancient D. succeeding
Question 290. According to the second paragraph, in the 1950s and early 1960s, recreational
scuba diving was a sport limited because___________.
A. divers did not like to take part in any intensive training courses
B. there were not any intensive training courses for divers
C. there were not enough kit for many divers
D. kit and intensive training were too expensive for many people to afford
Question 291. These following sentences are true EXCEPT _.
A. In the early 1950s anyone who wanted to dive could be professionally trained.
B. In the early 1950s there were no training courses available to civilians who bought the
 first scuba equipment.
C. As recreational diving became more popular, manufacturers have made more and more diving
equipment.
D. Advances in scuba technology encourage more and more people to train and use it.
Question 292. Holiday divers_____________.
A. do not like to dive in tropical and sub-tropical parts
B. can dive as deep as they like because of safety
C. are those who go away from home to dive
D. are limited in tropical and sub-tropical parts
Exercise 40:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
Pollution emitted in industrial areas represents a threat to human health and the surrounding
natural resources. We have a tendency to believe that the production processes are the only
source of environmental damage, and often forget about the possible long-term effects of harmful
production practices. We may think that the closure of these huge industrial areas would improve the
quality of the environment. Unfortunately, this ignores the threat of the remaining waste, which is
abandoned and poorly stored. It represents an even bigger danger because it stands neglected as it
degrades and leaks into the earth without any control at all.
Changes in the water chemistry due to surface water contamination can affect all levels of an ecosystem.
It can affect the health of lower food chain organisms and, consequently, the availability of food
up through the food chain. It can damage the health of wetlands and damage their ability to
support healthy ecosystems, control flooding, and filter pollutants from storm

water runoff. The health of animals and humans are affected when they drink or bathe in
contaminated water. In addition water-based organisms, like fish and shellfish, can pile up and
concentrate contaminants in their bodies. When other animals or humans eat these organisms,
they receive a much higher dose of contaminant than they would have if they had been directly
exposed to the original contamination.
Contaminated groundwater can badly affect animals, plants and humans if it is removed from the
ground by manmade or natural processes. Depending on the study of rocks of the area, groundwater
may rise to the surface through springs or seeps, flow sideways into nearby rivers, streams, or ponds,
or sink deeper into the earth. In many parts of fhe world, groundwater is pumped out of the ground
to be used for drinking, bathing, other household uses, agriculture, and industry.
Contaminants in the soil can harm plants when they take up the contamination through their
roots. Eating, breathing in, or touching contaminated soil, as well as eating plants or animals that
have piled up soil contaminants can badly affect the health of humans and animals.
Air pollution can cause breathing-related problems and other bad health effects as contaminants are
absorbed from the lungs into other parts of the hody. Certain air contaminants can also harm
animals and humans when they contact the skin. Plants rely on breathing for their growth and can
also be affected by exposure to contaminants moved in the air.

Question 293: What is the topic of the passage?

A. Sources of environmental damage B. The pollution from the city
C. Bad effects of industrial waste D. The quality of the environment
Question 294: According to the passage, the industry is likely to be thought as ____.
A. a danger to the environment B. the only source of pollution
C. the utmost harmful activity D. a threat to human health
Question 295: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to_________.
A. the remaining waste B. a danger
C. the environment D. the threat of the remaining waste
Question296: Which of the followings affect an ecosystem as the whole?
A. Surface water contamination B. Soil contamination
C. Groundwater contamination D. Air contamination
Question 297: According to the passage, which of the followings supports healthy ecosystems?
A. Lower food chain organisms B. Animals C. Water-based organisms D. Wetlands
Question 298: Which of the followings is NOT badly affected by contaminated groundwater?
A. Human B. Plants C. Rocks
D.Animals Question 299: Which of the followings is the
flow of water from the ground to the surface?
A. Streams B. Ponds C. Rivers D. Springs
Question 300: Whichof the followings has the closest meaning to the word "absorbed" in the
last paragraph?
A. Consumed B. Taken in C. Swallowed D. Piled up

EXERCISE 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to
You have learned about dinosaurs in school. Maybe you have seen them in museum. But how much do
you really know about these animals? Not all dinosaurs were just big reptiles. For years, scientists
thought dinosaurs were big, dumb, and cold blooded - in other words, just giant reptiles. Some dinosaurs
were huge. But many were about the size of modern-day birds or dogs. Were dinosaurs warm- or cold
blooded? Paleontologists- are not sure. But they believe some were intelligent. Of course, no dinosaur
was as smart as a human or even a monkey. However, some smaller dinosaurs - like the two- meter (six-
foot) Troodon — had fairly large brains.
Was Tyrannosaurus rex a powerful predator? Some scientists think the opposite is true. In the movies,
T.rex is often a speedy giant, but in fact, this dinosaur could not run very fast. Physically, it was too
large. In reality, T.rex probably moved as fast as an elephant. Also, T. rex had very small arms. Without
strong legs or arms, this dinosaur probably wasn’t a powerful hunter. It may have been a scavenger
instead, only eating animals that were already dead.
Did an asteroid kill the dinosaurs? An asteroid hit Mexico’s Yucantan Peninsula about 65 million years
ago. It created a 180-kilometer (HO-mile) wide crater called Chicxulub. Many believe this asteroid
caused the extinction of the dinosaurs. But even before this, dinosaurs were already dying out around the
world, for many reasons. At the end of the Cretaceous period, for example, the global climate was
changing and Earth's temperature was getting colder.Dinosaurs completely disappeared about 65 million
years ago. However, scientists believe modern-day birds are descendants of certain dinosaurs. If
this true, then dinosaurs' relatives are still walking - and flying - among us!

Question 1: The best title for this reading could be .

A. What Really killed the Dinosaurs B. The Facts and Fiction about Dinosaurs
C. Dinosaurs Discovered in Mexico D. Our Favorite Dinosaurs
Question 2: Which statement about the Troodon is probably TRUE according to the passage?
A. It was as smart as a monkey. B. It was warm-blooded.
C. It was a huge animal. D. It was quite intelligent.
Question 3: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ?
A. a speedy giant B. a powerful hunter
C. a powerful predator D. Tyrannosaurus rex
Question 4: According to the passage, at the end of the Cretaceous period .
A. some dinosaurs started to fly
B. the Earth's temperature was changing
C. humans appeared on Earth
D. dinosaur numbers were increasing in Mexico
Question 5: The word "descendants" in paragraph 4 means .
A. ancestors B. phenomena C. offspring D. scavengers
EXERCISE 2:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct
Certain birds are, more often than not, considered bad luck, or even a sign of impending death. For
example, all over the world, both crows and ravens have some connection to war and death. In early
times, crows and ravens were thought to accompany the gods of war, or be signs of the gods’
approaching arrival. This idea later changed. Crows in particular were thought to be harbingers of ill
fortune or, in some cases, guides to the afterlife. Woe be it to the person who saw a single crow or raven
flying overhead, for this was most certainly a portent of death in the near future.
Interestingly, though potentially bad luck for people individually, the raven is considered to be good luck
for the crown of England. So much so, in fact, that a “raven master” is, even today, an actual government
position in London. He takes care of the ravens there and also clips their wings, ensuring that these birds
can never fly far from the seat of the British government. This way, the kingdom will never fall to ill
fortune.
Another bird that is thought to play a part in forecasting the fortunes of people is the swallow. Depending
on how and when it is seen, the swallow can be a harbinger of either good or ill fortune. Perhaps inspired
by the swallow's red-brown breast, Christian people initially related the swallow to the death of Jesus
Christ. Thus, people who saw a swallow fly through their house considered it a portent of death. Later,
however, farmers began to consider swallows signs of good fortune. Any barn that has swallows living in
it is sure to be blessed in the following year. Farmers also have to beware of killing a swallow; that
would be certain to end any good luck they might have had.
Though many people think these superstitions are old wives’ tales, there is actually some evidence to
support them. For example, crows and ravens, being scavengers, appear at the aftermath of battles.
Thus, large numbers of crows and ravens could be good indications of war in an area. As well, swallows
feed on insects that can cause infections in cattle. Thus, a farmer who has many swallows in his barn may
actually have healthier animals on his farm. Therefore, the next time you feel inclined to laugh at an old
wives’ tale, maybe you had better find out if there is any truth to it first!

Question 6: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. The crows and their predictions B. The different beliefs in birds
C. Superstitions about birds D. Are birds bad lucks?
Question 7: What does the phrase "this idea" in the first paragraph refer to ?
A. Crows and ravens have some connection to war and death.
B. Crows and ravens were thought to accompany the gods of war.
C. Certain birds are often considered bad luck.
D. Crows and ravens were thought to be the sign of the gods' departure.
 Question 8: The word "portent" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. augury B. suddenness C. confidence D. conviction
Question 9: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about the ravens?
A. They are driven away by people all over the world.
B. The ravens are taken care of and videoed in England.
C. The ravens are captured near the seats of the British government.
D. The British realm will be fallen to bad chance if there are no ravens nearby.
Question10: As mentioned in the passage, the swallow originally was considered as .
A. the death of Jesus Christ B. good luck for farmers
C. crop failure for the farmers D. good blessedness for the following year
Question 11: The word “aftermath” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
A. happiness B. consequence C. beginning D. completion
Question12: What evidence supports the belief in the superstitions mentioned in the passage?
A. Swallows protect the animals on the farm from contagious pests.
B. The swallows often come at the beginning of a new year.
C. Ravens' appearance at the end the battle means that the war has stopped.
D. Farmers prefer having swallows to seeing crows in their barns.
Question 13: Which of the following most accurately reflects the author's suggestion in the
last paragraph?
A. The old wives' tales are more often used for fun than the truth.
B. Although some superstitions are based on reality, people should not believe in them.
C. People should not make fun of the superstition.
D. Farmers should protect the swallows to prevent bad lucks.
EXERCISE 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct
The day after Thanksgiving is the start of the holiday shopping season. Thanksgiving is always on a
Thursday, so the day after is a Friday. This day has come to be known as Black Friday. It has been the
busiest shopping day of the year since 2005.
Most stores offer great deals on Black Friday. They open their doors in the wee hours of the
morning. They try to attract shoppers with big discounts. Some items like TVs are much cheaper
than usual. Stores may even lose money on these items. They hope that shoppers will buy gifts for
other people while they are in the store.
Black Friday is a great time to get good deals. The problem is that there are not enough low-priced items
to go around. Each store may only have a few. These items are in high demand. People stand in long
lines to get such great deals. They may line up hours before a store opens. They may be hoping to get a
low price on a TV or laptop, but not everyone who wants one will get one. Some people leave
disappointed. The situation can be tense. Some Black Friday events have been Violent. Large, eager
crowds have trampled workers. Fights have broken out or people have been cutting in line. People have
shot one another over parking spots. But most Black Friday events are safe and fun. Still, if you plan on
going, expect large crowds and a bit of shoving.
Question 14: According to the text, why do stores set prices so low on so they lose money?
A. They want people to enjoy the holidays.
B. They hope people will buy other gifts while they are in the store.
C. They are in a giving mood because the holiday season is just beginning.
D. They are trying to get rid of old items from last year to make room for new items.
Question 15: Which is NOT true about Black Friday?
A. Black Friday is always the day after Thanksgiving.
B. Black Friday is the busiest shopping day of the year.
C. Black Friday is a national holiday.
D. Black Friday has been a little dangerous and uncomfortable.
Question 16: Which best explains the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. People stand in long lines on Black Friday.
B. Black Friday is the best time of the year to get good deals.
C. Black Friday is a really disappointing time of the year.
D. Black Friday deals are limited and not everyone will get one.
Question 17: The word "trampled" in paragraph 3 mostly means
A. run over B. torn apart C. stepped on D. fallen apart
Question 18: What is the. main purpose of the passage?
A. to show the downsides of Black Friday
B. to warn people about Black Friday
C. to help us know about the origin of Black Friday
D. to encourage people to save money for Black Friday
EXERCISE 4:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct
Alaska is disappearing slowly, but surely. It is estimated that since the 19505, as much as fifteen
percent of Alaska's land area has disappeared. How can a whole state be disappearing? The problem is
that Alaska’s glaciers are melting. The state has more than 100,000 glaciers. These glaciers account for
about 75,000 square kilometers, or five percent, of the state’s area. That is an area of land larger than
Ireland!
According to a recent report by the US Geological Survey, ninety-nine percent of Alaska's glaciers are
either retreating or diminishing. This diminishing seems mainly due to the increase in global
temperatures. Since the 19605, the average year-round temperature has increased by almost 3°C.
Additionally, the average winter temperature has increased by over 6°C. Presently, an estimated 100
cubic kilometers of ice is disappearing from Alaskan glaciers every year. It may be even more in the
near future, as some scientists predict that the average world temperature could go up 4 to 7°C by the
year 2100.
Another problem facing Alaska is its thawing permafrost. Much of the land in Alaska used to be
permanently frozen or frozen for most of the year. Now, the thawing permafrost is causing a number of
problems for people living in Alaska. Roads and utility poles are collapsing as the ground around and
under them warms and soften. Also, the hard permafrost that originally prevented beaches from eroding
during violent storms is now melting. People who live along Alaska's coasts are being forced to
relocate. For villages on small low islands, one terrible storm could wipe out the entire community.
The melting permafrost and increasing temperatures are both affecting the forests of Alaska. As the
permafrost under the forests melts, insects that normally do not turn up until the warmer seasons are
appearing sooner. The spruce-bark beetle, for example, is increasing in numbers as a result of warmer
winter temperatures. It usually takes about two years for these beetles to grow and reproduce in. very
cold weather. However, due to the increase in temperatures, spruce-bark beetles are reproducing faster
and damaging as many trees in one year as they previously damaged in two. If something cannot be done
to change things, Alaska's forests will not survive the turn of the century.

Some scientists believe that human activity is linked to a global increase in weather temperature.
Whatever the cause of rising temperatures may be, the fact remains that temperatures are warming,
affecting Alaska for the worse. Horribly, this could be a preview of what will happen to the rest of
the world in the next century.
Question 19: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. Alaska’s glaciers are reducing.
B. The reasons Why Alaska is disappearing.
C. The areas of Alaska’s glaciers are thawing.
D. The problems Alaska is facing.
Question 20: As mentioned in the first paragraph, the glaciers in Alaska made up .
A. over 100,000 square kilometers B. more than 75,000 square kilometers
C. about 5 % of the area of the state D. an area smaller than Ireland
Question 21: According to the report by the US Geological Survey, which of the following is NOT
true about Alaska?
A. Climate change is the major reason for the decrease of Alaska’s glaciers.
B. The average winter temperature has risen by nearly 3°C.
C. Every year, there is about 100 cubic kilometers of ice melting.
D. The majority of Alaska’s glaciers are lessening.
Question 22: The word “permafrost” in the third paragraph mostly means .
A. an area of land permanently frozen below the surface
B. fuels formed underground from plants and animals remains millions of years ago
C. a large mass of ice that moves slowly
D. a very large mass of ice that floats in the sea
Question 23: The word "relocate" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. remain B. restore C. disappear D. displace
Question 24: According to the passage, the following are the problems caused by the melting permafrost,
EXCEPT .
A. The warm and soft ground makes roads and utility poles easy to collapse.
B. The beaches are effortlessly eroded by violent storms.
C. The insects which usually appear in warmer temperature do not come back.
D. The trees destroyed by the spruce—bark beetles in one warm year are twice as many as
those damaged in a cold year.
Question 25: What does the word “they” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. trees B. spruce-bark beetles C. temperatures D. insects
Question 26: What is predicted in the last paragraph?
A. Human activities are likely to increase the weather temperature.
B. The Earth is getting worse due to the influences of global warming.
C. There will be other reasons why the temperature is rising.
D. Alaska's forests will disappear in the next century.

EXERCISE 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
There are three basic types of classroom learning styles: visual, auditory, and kinesthetic. These
learning styles describe the most common ways that people learn. Individuals tend to instinctively
prefer one style over the others; thus each person has a learning style that is dominant even
though he or she may also rely somewhat on the other approaches at different times and in different
circumstances.
Visual learners prefer to sit somewhere in the classroom where no obstructions hinder their view
of the lesson. They rely on the teacher's facial expressions and body language to aid their learning. They
learn best from a blend of visual displays and presentations such as colorful videos, diagrams, and flip-
charts. Often, these learners think in pictures and may even close their eyes to visualize or remember
something. When they are bored, they look around for something to watch. Many visual learners lack
confidence in their auditory memory skills and so may take detailed notes during classroom discussions
and lectures. Auditory learners sit where they can hear well. They enjoy listening and talking, so
discussions and verbal lectures stimulate them. Listening to what others have to say and then talking
the subject through helps them process new information. These learners may be heard reading to
themselves out loud because they can absorb written information better in this way. Sounding out
spelling words, reciting mathematical theories, or talking their way across a map are examples of the
types of activities that improve their understanding.
Kinesthetic learners may find it difficult to sit still in a conventional classroom. They need to be
physically active and take frequent breaks. When they are bored, they fidget in their seats. They prefer
to sit someplace where there is room to move about. They benefit from manipulating materials and
learn best when classroom subjects such as math, science, and reading are processed through hands-on
experiences. Incorporating arts-and-crafts activities, building projects, and sports into lessons helps
kinesthetic learners process new information. Physical expressions of encouragement, such as a pat on
the back, are often appreciated.

In addition to these traditional ways of describing learning styles, educators have identified
other ways some students prefer to learn. Verbal learners, for example, enjoy using words, both
written and spoken. Logical learners are strong in the areas of logic and reasoning, Social learners do
best when working in groups, whereas solitary learners prefer to work alone. Research shows
that each of these learning styles, as well as the visual, auditory, and kinesthetic styles, uses
different parts of the brain. Students may prefer to focus on just one style, but practicing other
styles involves more of the brain's potential and therefore helps students remember more of what
they learn.

Question 27: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Fundamental kinds of learning approaches

B. Different classrooms for different learner groups
 C. The most common way to learn
D. Basic classrooms for individuals
Question 28: The word “dominant” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
.
A. successful B. foremost C. familiar D. distinctive
Question 29: According to the second paragraph, visual learners_________.
A. have a preference for sitting at the backs of the classrooms,
B. must keep an eye on the pictures to memorize the content of the lessons.
C. are easy to get fed up with the lessons.
D. are not confident in remembering what they have listened.
Question 30: The word “blend” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by_________.
A. division B. list C. mixture
D.separation Question 31: What does the word "them" in
paragraph 3 refer to?
A. auditory learners B. discussions C. verbal lectures
D.others Question 32: Which of the following is NOT
true about auditory learners?
A. They get information and the content of the lecturers aurally and orally.
B. Reciting the lessons aloud is an effective way to understand the subjects.
C. They always fidget when they are indifferent to the lectures.
D. They merely learn well when they are able to listen to the lessons clearly.
Question 33: The following are suggested methods to attract kinesthetic learners, EXCEPT .
A. merging arts-and-crafts activities
B. integrating projects and sports into the lessons
C. stimulating them by physical expressions
D. isolating them in a customary classroom
Question 34: What did the author suggest learners in order to keep in their mind what they
learnt in the last paragraph?
A. Practicing merely one style of learning to make the brain work more effectively.
B. Using variety of learning methods to increase the potential of their brain.
C. Using both written and spoken words to improve their logical thoughts.
D. Identifying the most suitable learning style themselves.
EXERCISE 6:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct
David Beckham is an English footballer who has played for Manchester United and Real Madrid, as
well as representing his country 100 times. He moved to the Los Angeles Galaxy in 2007 to increase
the profile of football in America. He married Spice Girl Victoria Beckham and has become a
worldwide celebrity, an advertising brand and a fashion icon. Beckham was born in London in
1975. His parents were fanatical Manchester United supporters. His talent was obvious from an
early age and he signed with Manchester United on his fourteenth birthday. He helped the youth
team win several trophies and made his first team debut in 1995. He helped his team achieve
considerable success in his eleven seasons with them.
Beckham has been runner-up twice as world football's best player. He won many trophies with
Manchester United, including the Champions League, and won a league title with Real Madrid. He also
captained his club and country. He was famously sent off in a match against Argentina in the 1998
World Cup. In 2003, Beckham received an honour for services to football from Britain's Queen.
Beckham has many interests off the soccer pitch and is rarely out of the headlines, especially concerning
his marriage and children. He has established football academies in Los Angeles and London. In 2006 he
was named a judge for the British Book Awards. He lives near Tom
Cruise and the two are best buddies. Beckham is also a United Nations Goodwill Ambassador.
Question 35: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The life and career of David Beckham
B. Beckham's family background
C. Beckham's life before and after getting married
D. Beckham's marriage with a Spice Girl's member
Question 36: According to the passage, Beckham has played 100 times for A. Real MadridB.
Manchester United
C. the national teamof America D. The national team of England
Question 37: The word 'fanatical" is closest in meaning to _.
A. inspired B. enthusiastic C. realistic D. idealistic
Question 38: When did Beckham receive the royal award for his contribution to football?
A. In 1995 B. In 1998 C. In 2003 D.In 2006
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about Beckham?
A. He contributed to the success of the youth team of the Manchester United.
B. He made England lose the match against Argentina in the 1998 World Cup.
C. He was voted one of the best football players of the world more than once,
 D. Some of BecAam's interests are not related to football.

EXERCISE 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct
If "suburb" means an urban margin that grows more rapidly than its already developed interior, the
process of suburbanization began during the emergence of the industrial city in the second quarter of the
nineteenth century. Before that period the city was a small highly compact cluster in which people
moved about on foot and goods were conveyed by horse and cart. But the early factories built in the
1830's and 1840's were located along waterways and near railheads at the edges of cities, and housing
was needed for the thousands of people drawn by the prospect of employment. In time, the factories were
surrounded by proliferating mill towns of apartments and row houses that abutted the older, main cities.
As a defense against this encroachment and to enlarge their tax bases, the cities appropriated their
industrial neighbors. In 1854, for example, the city of Philadelphia annexed most of Philadelphia
County. Similar municipal maneuvers took place in Chicago and in New York. Indeed, most great cities
of the United States achieved such status only by incorporating the communities along their borders.
With the acceleration of industrial growth came acute urban crowding and accompanying social stress
conditions that began to approach disastrous proportions when, in 1888, the first commercially
successful electric traction line was developed. Within a few years the horse-drawn trolleys were retired
and electric streetcar networks crisscrossed and connected every major urban area, fostering a wave of
suburbanization that transformed the compact industrial city into a dispersed metropolis. This first
phase of mass-scale suburbanization was reinforced by the simultaneous emergence of the urban
Middle class 64whose desires for homeownership in neighborhoods far from the aging inner city were
satisfied by the developers of single-family housing tracts.

Question 40: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The growth of Philadelphia B. The Origin of the Suburb
C. The Development of City Transportation D. The Rise of the Urban Middle Class
Question 41: The author mentions that areas bordering the cities have grown during periods of
A. industrialization B. inflation C. revitalization D. unionization
Question 40: The word "encroachment" is closest in meaning to
A. the smell of the factories B. the growth of mill towns
C. the development of waterways D. the loss of jobs
Question 43: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a factor in
nineteenth- century suburbanization?
A. Cheaper housing B. Urban crowding
C. The advent of an urban middle class D. The invention of the electric streetcar
Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that after 1890 most people traveled around
cities by
A. automobile B. cart
C. horse-drawn trolley D. electric streetcar

EXERCISE 8:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionary
history, enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land,
sometimes even to the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater with them in blood and
cellular fluids. In addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects which we see all around us, other
groups that have succeeded out of water include scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land
crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders and various worms. And we mustn't forget the plants, without
whose prior invasion of the land, none of the other migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including breathing and
reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later turned around,
abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again. Seals have only
gone part way back. They show us what the intermediates might have been like, on the way to extreme
cases such as whales and dugongs. Whales [including the small whales we call dolphins] and dugongs,
with their close cousins, the manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full
marine

habits of their remote ancestors. They don't even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe
air, having never developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles
went back to the sea a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe
air. However, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the water than whales or dugongs, for
turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.
There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived before
most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis
talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear to be close to the ancestry of all modern
turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water,
especially if only fragments are found. Sometimes it's obvious. lchthyosaurs were reptilian
contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and
they surely lived like dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by
measuring the bones of their forelimbs.
Question 45: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.
B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
C. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 46: According to the first paragraph, reptiles, birds, mammals and insects
A. were the ones living on the marine organisms.
B. moved to deserts to find feeding grounds.
C. left the water at the same time of scorpions, snails and crustaceans.
D. are the species whose ancestors succeeded in moving from water to land.
Question 47: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the water
least completely?
A. whales B. manatees C. turtles D. dugongs
Question 48: The word “ceased" in paragraph 2 mostly means
A. stopped happening or existing B. got familiar
C. began to happen or exist D. decided to become
Question 49: The word “incarnation" in the second paragraph could be best replaced by
A. ancestor B. embodiment C. evolution D. natural selection
Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
B. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.
C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to live
on land.
D. lchthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins.
Question 51: What does the word "they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dinosaurs B. fins and streamlined bodies
C. ichthyosaurs D. dolphins
Question 52: It can be inferred from the last passage that
A. the body features of the fossil animals help scientists to distinguish the terrestrial and marine
species.
B. turtles’ ancestor and dinosaurs became extinct contemporarily.
 C. it‘s clear to determine the living places of all species through the fragments found.
D. the fossils of turtles and tortoises might have the similar appearances with dolphins.
EXERCISE 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or A to indicate the
correct
Orbis is an organisation which helps blind people of everywhere. It has built an eye hospital inside an
aeroplane and flown it all over the world with an international medico team. Samantha Graham, a
fourteen-year-old schoolgirl from England, went with the plane to Mongolia. Samantha tells the
story, of the Eukhtuul, a young Mongolian girl.
'Last year, when Eukhtuul was walking home from school, she was attacked by boys with sticks and
her eyes were badly damaged. Dr. Duffey, an Orbis doctor, said that without an operation she would
never see again, I thought about all the things I do that she couldn't, things like reading schoolbooks,
watching television, seeing friends, and I realised how lucky I am.'
'The Orbis team agreed to operate on Eukhtuul and I was allowed to watch, together with some
Mongolian medical students. I prayed the operation would be successful. The next day I waited
nervously with Eukhtuul while Dr. Duffey removed her bandages. "In six months your sight will
be back to normal," he said. Eukhtuul smiled, her mother cried, and I had to wipe away some tears,
too!'
Now Eukhtuul wants to study hard to become a doctor. Her whole future has changed thanks to a simple
operation. We should all think more about how much our sight means to us.’

Question 53: What information can be learned from this passage?

A. the best way of studying medicine B. the international work of some eye doctors
C. the difficulties for blind travellers D. the life of schoolchildren in Mongolia
Question 54: The word "she" in the passage refers to .
A. the writer B. the nurse C.Eukhtuul D. the medical studen
Question 55: After meeting Eukhtuul, Samantha felt .
A. angry about Eukhtuul's experience B. grateful for her own sight
C. proud of thedoctor's skill D. surprised by Eukhtuul's ability
Question 56: What is the result of Eukhtuul's operation?
A. After some time she will see as well as before.
B. Before she recovers, she needs another operation.
C. She can see better but can never have normal eyes,
D. She can't see perfectly again.
Question 57: What is the writer's main purpose in writing this passage?
A. to describe a dangerous trip B. to explain how sight can be lost
C. to report a patient's cure D. to warn against playing with sticks
EXERCISE 10:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, 13, C, or D to indicate the
correct
Grandparents are becoming the forgotten generation, with youngsters now too busy to listen to
their stories from the olden days.
A study of 1,000 five to 18 year-olds reveals just 21 per cent will visit their older relatives to hear
about how their lives were different in the past; such as where they worked, how it was living in
the war, and how they met the love of their life. More than half of youths have no idea what job their
grandparent did before retirement - admitting they'd never thought to ask. Sadly, one in 10 admitted they
are simply not interested in their grandmother's or grandad's previous job or talents and interests,
and a quarter only turn up to see them for pocket money. But 23 per cent claim the reason they
don't know anything about their older relatives is because they don't really get the chance to talk
properly.
Geoff Bates, spokesman for McCarthy 8/. Stone's Inspirational Generation campaign, said: We know this
generation have lived full lives with heroic tales to tell and so much to offer, but how many of us
have actually thought to ask these questions of our older family members? We want to shout about the
amazing feats retirees have achieved in their lifetime and put the spotlight on the wonderfully
colorful lives of today's older people. We are calling on parents and children to talk to their
grandparents, to find out what they have done in their lives - and continue to do, and tell us all about it
so we can give them the credit they deserve."

Researchers found that although 65 per cent of youngsters do see their grandparents every
single week, 37 per cent claim this is only because their parents want them to. And while 39 per
cent talk to their grandparents on the phone, Facebook or Skype at least once a week - 16 per cent
once a day - conversation is rarely focused on what they are doing or have done in the past. Four in
10 kids have no idea what their grandparents proudest achievements are, while 30 per cent don't
know if they have any special skills or talents. And 42 per cent don't spend any time talking about
their grandparent's history -and are therefore clueless about what their grandmother or grandad was
like when they were younger. Perhaps due to this lack of communication and respect, just six per
cent of children say they look up to their grandparents as a role model and inspiration. However,
grandchildren are agreed their grandparents are both loving and friendly, while 43 per cent think
they're funny - with 23 per cent admitting they often have more fun with their elderly relatives than
their parents.
Question 58: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Grandparents are outdated people in their families.
B. Young people now do not concern much about their grandparents.
C. Grandparents are not interested in telling stories about their life in the past any more.
D. Young people are too busy to take care of their grandparents.
Question 59: According to the study in paragraph 2, which information is NOT true?
A. Merely over one fifth of people in the survey keep asking about the bygone time of their
grandparents.
B. Over 50% of the young don't know about their older relatives' professions before
superannuation.
C. Most of youths visit their grandparents to ask for money.
D. Nearly a quarter of young people don't have proper opportunities to converse with their
older relatives.
Question 60 : The word " feats" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. accomplishments B. failures C. difficulties D. differences
Question 61: What does the word "they" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. parents B. children C. colorful lives D. grandparents
Question 62: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that McCarthy & Stone's Inspirational
Generation campaign .

A. encourages people to ask more questions about their grandparents' jobs would like
to honour the retirees with their remarkable achievements and experienced life.
B. hopes to give recognition to the older family members,
C. intends to retell the heroic tails of the older generation and find out what they have done
in the past.
Question 63: According to the last paragraph, the proportion of the young voluntarily visiting
their older family members every week is .
A. 37% B. 65% C. 28% D. 39%
Question 64: The author implied in the last paragraph that .
A. youngsters nowadays are too indifferent with their grandparents' lives in the former
times.
B. more youths use modern technology to keep in touch with their older generation.
C. grandchildren do not have much time to care for their elderly relatives' special skills and
talents.
 D. lack of communication and respect is the main reason why youngsters are not interested
in what their grandparents have done in the past.
Question 65: The word "inspiration" in the last paragraph mostly means .
A. disincentive B. encumbrance C. stimulation D.hindrance

EXERCISE 11: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to
Since the early eighties, we have been only too aware of the devastating effects of large-scale
environmental pollution. Such pollution is generally the result of poor government planning in
many developing nations or the shortsighted, selfish policies of the already industrialized countries,
which encourage a minority of the world’s population to squander the majority of its natural
resources.
While events such as the deforestation of the Amazon jungle or the nuclear disaster in Chernobyl
continue to receive high media exposure, as do acts of environmental sabotage, it must be remembered
that not all pollution is on this grand scale. A large proportion of the world's pollution has its source
much closer to home. The recent spillage of crude oil from an oil tanker accidentally discharging its
cargo straight into Sydney not only caused serious damage to the harbor foreshores but also created
severely toxic fumes which hung over the suburbs for days and left the angry residents wondering how
such a disaster could have been allowed to happen.

Avoiding pollution can be a fulltime job. Try not to inhale traffic fumes; keep away from Chemical
plants and building-sites; wear a mask when cycling. It is enough to make you want to stay at home. But
that, according to a growing body of scientific evidence, would also be a bad idea. Research shows that
levels of pollutants such as hazardous gases, particulate matter and other chemical 'nasties’ are usually
higher indoors than out, even in the most polluted cities. Since the average American spends 18 hours
indoors for every hour outside, it looks as though many environmentalists may be attacking the wrong
target.
Question 66: The best title for this passage could be
A. the devastating effects of environmental pollution in some areas.
B. environmental pollution as a result of poor policies.
C. indoor pollution.
D. deforestation of the Amazon jungle.
Question 67: Which statement about Sydney harbor is probably TRUE according to the passage?
A. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a ship refueling in the harbor.
 B. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a tanker pumping oil into the sea.
C. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a collision between two oil tankers.
D. The Sydney Harbour oil spill was the result of a deliberate act of sabotage.
Question 68: The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to ?
A. spillage B. crude oil C. an oil tanker D. pollution
Question 69: In the 3rd paragraph, the writer suggests that .
A. people should avoid working in cities
B. Americans spend too little time outdoors
C. hazardous gases are concentrated in industrial suburbs
D. there are several ways to avoid city pollution
Question 70: The word "nasties" in paragraph 3 means .
A. dirty B. kind C. composition D. dangerous
EXERCISE 12:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to
Since the first Paralympic Games in Rome in 1960, swimming has been one of its main sports.
The thrill of competition aside, swimming offers many benefits including strengthening the
cardiovascular systems and the major muscle groups of both the upper and lower body. It also
develops flexibility in the muscles and joints as the swimmer performs a wide range of motion against
the water's

resistance. It is an activity that keeps your heart rate up but takes some of the stress that is common in
impact sports off the body; injuries don't occur as easily. The water's buoyancy evenly distributes and
supports the weight of the body; there is no danger of falling, and there are no impact forces on the
residual limb. Swimmers who have disabilities endorse the sport because it gives them a sense of
freedom. They don't have to rely on any supportive device, such as a wheelchair, to assist them. They are
independent. They are only judged on their times and whether those times are dropping. “Water is one
of the big equalizers,” said Queenie Nichols, long-time Paralympic swim coach. "One of the phrases I
heard since I got involved in this is that we are all equal in the water and that is really true. Athletes with
disabilities, from below-knee amputations to severe quads, can compete and compete successfully.”
While it is not essential to begin swimming at an early age to become an elite athlete, Nichols believes
that the sooner an individual becomes comfortable in the water, the better. "I think starting at about 5
years old is a good age to get children involved, in the pool at least once a week. Keep it fun for them
until they show an interest in growing with a Club," she said.
“Most clubs that belong to USA Swimming or YMCAs offer coaching and training at the appropriate
level for age and experience,” Nichols said. "We suggest aspiring athletes participate with an able-
bodied club at first because of the greater number of individuals they will compete with."
Typically, swimmers in this introductory/ foundation phase, usually aged 5 to 8 or 9, remain there for
about 5 years before transitioning to the next level, which includes more advanced drills and stroke
efficiency. Athletes with disabilities who join swimming clubs benefit from better sport-specific
coaching, more rigorous training, more competition in practice, and higher expectations than they are
likely to receive in other settings. Other benefits include socialization opportunities, greater
independence in activities of daily living, and improved ability to cope with limitations imposed by
disabilities.
Question 71: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. The history of the first Paralympic Games.
B. The development of the first Paralympic Games.
C. The effects of the first Paralympic Games on the disabled.
D. The benefits of swimming for the disabled.
Question 72: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. thrill B. swimming C. competition D. body
Question 73: The word “resistance” is closet in meaning to .
A. acceptance B. assistance C. dependence D. force
Question 74: According to the passage, which of following is TRUE about disabled swimmers?
A. They are independent of any supportive devices
B. They are assisted by wheelchairs
C. They don't support to swimming
D. Swimming makes them restricted
Question 75: It can be inferred from the phrase “Water is one of the big equalizers” is .
A. Water keeps their balance
B. Swimming makes them feel very one - sided
C. Swimmers are all equal when swimming
D. Water is one of the most vital factors in the world
Question 76: The word “elite” is closet in meaning to .
A. intelligent B. eminent C. talented D. strong
Question 77: Nichols suggested that aspiring athletes might participate with an able- bodied club at first
.
A. by dint of the bigger quantity of participants that they would compete with
 B. in spite of the bigger quantity of participants that they would compete with
C. by dint of the smaller quantity of participants that they would compete with
D. in spite of the smaller quantity of participants that they would compete with
Question 78: As mentioned in paragraph 4, Athletes with disabilities who join
swimming clubs can benefit .
A. better than the ordinary people
B. worse than the ordinary people
C. better than the disabled athletes with talented ability
D. better than the disabled athletes in other sports
EXERCISE 13: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, 13, C, or D to indicate the
The history of American newspapers begins in the early 18th century with the publication of the
first colonial newspapers. American newspapers began as modest affairs - a sideline for printers.
They became a political force in the campaign for American independence. After independence, the
first article of U.S. Constitution guaranteed freedom of the press. The U.S. Postal Service Act of
1792 provided substantial subsidies: Newspapers were delivered up to 100 miles for a penny and
beyond for 1.5 cents, when first class postage ranged from six cents to a quarter.
The American press grew rapidly during the First Party System (1790s-1810s) when both parties
sponsored papers to reach their loyal partisans. From the 1830s onward, the Penny press
began to play a major role in American journalism and its interests seemed to remarkably

surprised the management board in the journal industry. Technological advancements such as the
telegraph and faster printing presses in the 1840s also helped to expand the press of the nation as
it experienced rapid economic and demographic growth. Editors typically became the local party
spokesman, and hard-hitting editorials were widely reprinted.
By 1900 major newspapers had become profitable powerhouses of advocacy, muckraking and
sensationalism, along with serious, and objective news-gathering. During the early 20th century, prior to
rise of television, the average American read several newspapers per- day. Starting in the 1920s, changes
in technology again
morphed the nature of American journalism as radio and later, television, began to play increasingly
important competitive roles.
In the late 20th centuiy, much of American journalism became housed in big media chains. With the
coming of digital journalism in the 21st century, all newspapers faced a business crisis as readers turned
to the Internet for sources and advertisers followed them.
Question 79: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The origin of American journalism.
B. The power of American journalism.
C. The impact of advanced technology on American journalism.
D. The development of American journalism.
Question 80: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word "sponsored" as it is used in paragraph 2?
A. raised B. supported C. forced D. asked
Question 81: What does the word "its" in paragraph 2 refer to_________.
A. The American press C. the First Party System
B. the management board in the journal industry D. the Penny press
Question 82: According to the passage, what is probably TRUE about technological advancements in
the 1840s?
A. Technological advancements in the 1840s prevented the expansion of the American press.
B. Technological advancements in the 1840s promoted the expansion of the American press.
C. Technological advancements in the 1840s created new challenges for the American press.
D. Technological advancements in the 1840s helped to increase the price of the American
press.
Question 83: It can be inferred from the passage that changes in technology again
A. enhanced the competitiveness of journal industry
B. reduced the competitiveness of journal industry
A. negatively affected journal industry
B. positively affected journal industry
EXERCISE 14:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to
Boots has reduced the price of "feminine" razors to bring them in line with men's. The chemist chain
says it is just an isolated incident, but campaigners say it is part of a "pink tax" that discriminates against
women. Who's right and what's the bigger story, ask Jessica McCallin and Claire Bates. Campaigners
against what's been dubbed the "pink tax" - where retailers charge women more than men for similar
products - are celebrating after Boots said it would change the price of some of its goods.
Stevie Wise, who launched the petition, was driven by a Times investigation which claimed that women
and girls are charged, on average, 37% more for clothes, beauty products and toys. The New York
Department of Consumer Affairs had compared the prices of 800 products with male and female versions
and concluded that, after controlling for quality, women's versions were, on average, 7% more expensive
than men's.
“This is a very exciting response,” says Wise. We are delighted with Boots' decision, but we now need
to get them to look at all of their products, not just the ones highlighted in the petition. We hope this
decision is just the first of many and we may broaden our campaign to focus on other retailers as well."
Wise says that women have been getting in touch with examples of other price discrepancies from lots of
companies and says there seems to be a particular problem with toys and clothes. Argos has been
criticized for identical scooters that cost £5 more if they were pink rather than blue. Argos said it was an
error that had already been rectified and that it would never indulge in differential pricing.
Among the examples sent to Wise was Boots selling identical child car seats that cost more in pink.
Another retailer was selling children's balance bikes which cost more for a flowery print aimed at girls
than a pirate print aimed at boys. But the latter example already appears to have been tweaked on the
retailer's website, albeit by applying a £10 discount to the flowery version.
When challenged over sexist pricing, both Levi's and Tesco argued that different versions of things could
have different production costs even if appearing fairly similar. Prof Nancy Puccinelli says her research
suggests that women are much more careful shoppers than men, better able to scrutinise adverts and
pricing gimmicks. She wonders if women are perceiving more value in the more expensive products. “If
products are separated into male and female sections far away from each other it's harder to scrutinise
prices.” Such a situation could either be deliberate or accidental but the campaigners are not convinced.

There is an opportunity for some companies, argues Olchawski. “The finding shows the power of
marketing in our lives, how it shapes our perception of what it means to be a man or a woman. Some
companies could choose not to play into this, not to play into the stereotypes and rip women off, but
launch products more in tune with moves toward gender equality.”

Question 84: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. The campaign of the “pink-tax”.
B. The price discrepancies between male and female versions.
C. The power of marketing in ourlives.
D. The battle over the gender price gap.
Question 85: What does pink-tax exactly mention in the passage?
A. tax for women
B. women are being charged more than men for the same products
C. men are being charged more than women for the same products
D. women are being charged more than men for the different kinds of products
Question 86: After comparing the prices of 800 products with male and female versions, the
New York Department of Consumer Affairs________.
A. did nothing
B. drew a conclusion that versions for females seemed to be more expensive than for males
C. supported for women's right
D. continued to control for quality
Question 87: The word "rectified" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to

_.
A. worsen B. fixed C. spoiled D. broadened
Question88: What does the phrase “the latter example" in the fourth paragraph refer to?
A. a flowery print B. Wise's example C. another retailer D. a pirate
Question 89: The word scrutinise is closest in meaning to?
A. examine B. glance C. ignore D. retry
Question 90: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Wise's statements?
A. Women pay more for clothes, beauty products, and toys than men.
B. Women have been getting in touch with many price discrepancies from lots of corn
parries.
C. Different versions of things could have different production costs even if appearing
fairly similar.

D. None of the above.

Question 91: What of the following most accurately reflects the author's imply in the last paragraph?
A. The campaign succeed
B. The price for the same products will change to guarantee the gender quality
C. People will change their mind about gender quality
D. It should not be balance in the price of the same product between men and women

EXERCISE 15: Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to answer the questions.
People in the UK enjoy fewer years of good health before they die than the citizens of most comparable
European countries as well as Australia and Canada, a major report shows. While life expectancy has
improved by 4.2 years in the UK over the two decades, other countries have improved faster. In 2010,
Spain topped the league. Its people could expect 70.9 years of healthy life - before disease and disability
began to take a toll. Second came Italy, with 70.2 years and third was Australia, on 70.1 years. In the
UK, we can expect 68.6 healthy years of life.
Hunt said the UK was a long way behind its global counterparts and called for action by local health
commissioners to tackle the five big killers - cancer, heart disease, stroke, respiratory and liver
diseases. Drinking and drug use have been the main issues behind the worsening of the UK's ranking
in early deaths among adults aged 20-54. In 2010, drugs were the sixth leading cause of death in this
age group and alcohol was 18th - up from 32nd and 43rd place respectively 20 years earlier.
Hunt will on Tuesday announce a strategy to tackle cardiovascular disease, which he says could save
30,000 lives a year. "Despite real progress in cutting deaths, we remain a poor relative to our global
cousins on many measures of health, something I want to change," he said. "For too long we have been
lagging behind and I want the reformed health system to take up this challenge and turn this shocking
underperformance around.” However, the problem is only in part to do with hospital care - much of it is
about the way we live. Our diet, our drinking and continuing smoking habits all play a part, which
assumes its responsibilities on 1 April.
Question 92: The best title for this passage could be .
A. Life expectancy in the UK in comparison with other countries
B. The causes of early deaths in the UK
C. Life expectancy in the UK and its efforts to solve health problems
D. Five big killers in the UK
Question 93: The word “cardiovascular” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by .
A. respiratory B. digestive C. skeletal D. cardiac
Question 94: According to the passage, what is NOT the cause of death in the UK?
A. drug B. alcohol C. drinking D. food
Question 95: According to the passage, Hunt is showing his attempt to .
A. lower death rates B. better the health system in the UK
C. take up more challenge D. change people's diet
Question 96: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ?
A. challenge. B. diet. C. problem. D. disease.
EXERCISE 16:Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to answer the following questions.
Most sources of illumination generate light over an appreciable period, and indeed if an object is lit for a
very brief time (1ess that 1/25 second), the human eye will not react in time to see the object. A
photographic emulsion - that is, a light-sensitive coating on photographic film, paper, or glass - will,
however, record much shorter bursts of light. A photographic flash can therefore be used to capture high-
speed movement on film as well as to correct deficiencies of the normal surrounding lighting. Photoflash
is now generated electronically, but the earliest form, first used in 1864, was a paper bag containing
magnesium wire and some oxygen-rich substance, such as potassium chlorate. When the bag was
ignited, the metal burned with an intense flash. A contemporary observer reported that "this quite unsafe
device seems to have done nothing worse that engulf the room in dense smoke and lead to pictures of
dubious quality and odd poses.”
The evolution of the photoflash was slow, flashbulbs, containing fine wire made of a metal, such as
magnesium or aluminum, capable of being ignited in an atmosphere of pure oxygen at low pressure,
were introduced only in the 1920's. In the earliest type, the metal was separated from the oxygen by a
thin glass bulb. The flash was fired by piercing the bulb and allowing the oxygen to come into contact
with the metal, which ignited spontaneously. Later bulbs were fired by an electric battery, which heated
the wire by passing a small current through it. Other combinations, such as the pairing of oxygen
difluoride with zirconium, have also been used. In each case enough energy is given out to heat the
oxidizable metal momentarily to a white hot emission of visible light. The smoke particles are so small
that they cool rapidly; but since they are white, they contribute to the brilliance by reflecting the light
from their still glowing neighbors. A slightly bigger form of the metal will burn for a longer time.
Question 97: What is the best title for the passage?
A. The history of the photoflash
B. Theories about how the eye reacts to light
C. The technology of modern photography
D. The dangers of using the early photoflash
Question 98: According to the passage, an advantage of using a photoflash is that it A. can produce
repeated bursts of light B. intensities colors in photographs
C. is short enough not to bother human eyes D. supplements existing lighting
Question 99: The word "ignited" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. set on fire B. cut into C. opened D. shaken
Question 100: Which of the following is TRUE about the function of the glass in the first flashbulbs?
A. It produced the spark that initiated the flash.
B. It magnified the light produced by the flash.
C. It protected the photographer from the heat of the flash.
D. It kept the metal and oxygen apart before the flash.
Question 101: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. oxygen B. battery C. wire D. current
Question 102: The word "momentarily" in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to .
A. effortlessly B. briefly C. electronically D. gradually
Question 103: According to the passage, what helps a flashbulb burn longer?
A. thicker wire B. more oxygen
C. thinner glass D. continuous electricity
Question 104: Which of the following most accurately reflects the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. The time when photoflash was first used.
B. How metal burns in an atmosphere of pure oxygen.
C. How early photoflash worked.
D. The role of glass in flashbulb.

EXERCISE 17: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
Women often complain that the men in their lives are not romantic enough. But men sometimes have
trouble expressing their feelings, often resorting to cheesy Hallmark cards or pricey bejeweled baubles to
do the job for them. But there is a far better way to be romantic and it doesn't involve spending a fortune
or even opening your mouth.
In the days before courting consisted of hanging out and getting drinks, courting was a formal and
dignified endeavor. Symbols were used to express feelings and thoughts deemed too special for mere
words. During the Victorian Era, a whole romantic language developed around the giving and receiving
of flowers. Everything from the type and size of the flower to the way it was held or presented
conveyed layers of meaning and communicated a gentleman's

feelings and intentions. Each bouquet contained a secret message for a lady to eagerly interpret
and endlessly dissect.
These days giving flowers has become a somewhat ho-hum cliché. Resurrecting this Victorian tradition
will infuse the gesture with new life and romance and bring back some of the subtly, mystery, and
fun of courtship. Your lady will swoon that you put far more thought into your selection of flowers
than grabbing a bouquet out of the case at Wal-Mart. You'll come off as a real gentleman and a hopeless
romantic. It can become an amazing tradition you'll both enjoy. Seriously, women eat this stuff
up.
Of course, even women nowadays have forgotten the meanings of flowers. So buy your lady a
flower dictionary. And keep a copy for yourself (it's important that you both use the same
reference, as the meanings were never set in stone and can sometimes vary from book to book).
Then, each time you present her with a bouquet, she can search the volume to find what secret
messages you have embedded in the flowers.

Question 105: What is the author's main purpose in the passage?

A. To complain that men are not romantic enough.
 B. To prove that men are not as romantic as women.
C. To suggest ways for men to be more romantic.
D. To explain what is called "romance".
Question 106: The word "dignified" in paragraph 2 mostly means _.
A. serious B. trivial C. unimportant D. slight
Question 107: Which of the following does NOT express a secret message for the female
receiver during the Victorian Era?
A. The kind of flowers C. The size of flowers
C. The way flowers are wrapped D. The colors of the flowers
Question 108: As mentioned in the third paragraph, it's so moving if a man .
A. takes a bouquet available
B. thinks of the flowers carefully before choosing.
C. enjoys giving flowers to a woman.
D. gives his woman something to eat.
Question 109: What does the word "her" in the last paragraph refer to?
A. your lady B. women C. yourself D. a flower dictionary
EXERCISE 18:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct
More often than not, you can't just "order up a job" by responding to an online posting and have it
delivered in one or two days as if you were buying whatever your heart desires on Amazon. Even as
employers are hiring at a higher rate than they have in the last several years, it can often take months to
work your way through the job search process. If you are a new graduate yet to receive a job offer, if
you recently moved to a new locale with your spouse or partner or if you are unemployed for any
other reason, you may find success in your job search by spending time volunteering at a nonprofit
organization.
Both the nonprofit and for-profit worlds need people with many of the same talents. The best volunteer
jobs for you to consider are ones where the experience you acquire will be applicable in the "for-pay"
position you want to attain. It's often the case that once you display your passion for the organization and
its mission, and have demonstrated your abilities, you'll earn strong consideration when a paying
position opens up that can benefit from your talents. Even if you don't have a path to employment at the
place you volunteer, by highlighting your volunteer experience on your resume, you can demonstrate
that you haven't been wasting your time away staying at home watching the grass grow.
There are a few strategies you might adopt when considering at which organization you'll want to
volunteer. You' ll probably want to make a priority of volunteering to do what you've already done,
or want to do, in the for-profit sector. Alternatively, however, it might make sense to volunteer to do
something where you can turn an area of professional weakness into a new strength. Remember, as well,
that nonprofit organizations maintain strong relationships with their corporate sponsors, and you might
look for a volunteer position that would enable you to be that nexus point between the two. And,
especially if you are recently out of school, you should look for positions that let you learn about
an occupation, a field of interest or an industry.
As you try to determine what you want to volunteer to do, and where you want to do it, make
three lists: your marketable skills, the roles you seek and the kinds of charitable organizations you
would want to support. For example, perhaps your skills cluster around accounting, marketing or
event planning. Think about how these might come in handy for organizations that need financial help
figuring out how to brand the organization to attract other volunteers or donors or run anything from
charitable golf tournaments to gala dinners.

Question 110: What is the author's main purpose in the passage?

A. To explain why volunteer work is always beneficial to volunteers.
B. To advice unemployed people to do voluntary work.
C. To prove that people can have a good job via doing volunteer work.
D. To describe the procedure to have a profit job.
Question 111: According to the first passage, the following should spend time volunteering at a
nonprofit organization, EXCEPT _ .
A. employers B. emigrants C. the jobless D. new
graduates Question 112: As mentioned in paragraph 2, what should the volunteers pay attention to
when searching for an unpaid job?
A. They should not mention what voluntary jobs they have done in the resume.
B. They should merely display their abilities when doing the for-pay jobs.
C. The best type of volunteer work should be relevant to the one they want to get wages.
D. The employers may think you have been wasting time doing nonprofit jobs.
Question 113: The word "priority" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _.
A. precedence B. unimportance C. demonstration D. preference
Question 114: What does the phrase "the two" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. volunteer jobs and for-profit jobs
B. volunteer jobs and their organizations
C. unpaid jobs and corporate sponsors
 D. nonprofit organizations and corporate sponsors
Question 115: What can be inferred from paragraph 3?
A. Doing the voluntary work that you're not good at is not a good idea.
B. Volunteering is a perfect time to change your weak points into the new good ones.
C. Keeping contacts with corporate sponsors will help you to have a good-paid job in the
future.
D. It's ideal for graduates to choose the positions similar to the jobs they have learnt.
Question 116: The phrase "marketable skills" in the last paragraph
mostly means _.
A. the practical skills you can learn from selling things at the markets.
B. the technical skills for a particular job.
C. the useful skills that make an employer want to give you a job.
D. the skills you have been taught at schools.
Question 117: Which of the following could best describe the author's attitude about
volunteering when being unemployed?
A. approval B. humorous C. skeptical D. disapproval
EXERCISE 19: Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to answer
the
In most families, conflict is more likely to be about Clothing, music, and leisure time than about more
serious matters such as religion and core values. Family conflict is rarely about such major issues as
adolescents' drug use and delinquency. Nevertheless, it has been estimated that in about 5 million
American families (roughly 20 percent), parents and adolescents engage in intense, prolonged, unhealthy
conflict. In its most serious form, this highly stressful environment is associated with a number of
negative outcomes, including juvenile delinquency, moving away from home, increased school dropout
rates, unplanned pregnancy, membership in religious cults, and drug abuse (Steinberg & Morris, 2001).
Many of the changes that define adolescence can lead to conflict in parent- adolescent relationships.
Adolescents gain an increased capacity for logical reasoning, which leads them to demand reasons for
things they previously accepted without question, and the chance to argue the other side (Maccoby,
1984). Their growing critical-thinking skills make them less likely to conform to parents' wishes the way
they did in childhood. Their increasing cognitive sophistication and sense of idealism may compel them
to point out logical flaws and inconsistencies in parents' positions and actions. Adolescents no longer
accept their parents as unquestioned authorities. They recognize that other opinions also have merit and
they are learning how to form and state their own opinions. Adolescents also tend toward ego- centrism,
and may, as a result, be ultra-sensitive to a parent's casual remark. The dramatic changes of puberty and
adolescence may make it difficult for parents to rely on their children's preadolescent behavior to predict
future behavior. For example, adolescent children who were compliant in the past may become less
willing to cooperate without what they feel is a satisfactory explanation.
Question 118: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The dramatic changes of puberty and adolescence.
B. How to solve conflict in family.
C. The conflict in parent-adolescent relationship.
D. A satisfactory explanation for family conflict.
Question 119: According to the passage, what is probably TRUE about the conflict often arising in
a family?
A. adolescents’ drug use and delinquency B. clothing, leisure time and music
C. religion and core values D. children‘s behavior
Question 120: The word “unplanned” the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ?
A. unintended B. designed C. developed D. shaped
Question 121: Adolescents become less likely to comfort to parents' wishes the way they did in the
past because .
A. the environment is highly stressful
B. their critical-thinking skills is growing
C. it is related to drug abuse
D. parent-adolescent relationships lead to conflicts
Question 122: According to the passage, the word “it” may refer to .
A. remark B. adolescent
C. ego-centrism D. None of the above
EXERCISE 20:Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to answer the following questions.
Volunteering offers many of the same social benefits, with the added bonus of helping others and
developing useful skills to put on your CV. Plus, students are in a unique position to help, suggests Tom
Fox. "They can take their enthusiasm and excitement for opportunities and share their passions, subject
knowledge and experience with people." The idea of giving up time for nothing might seem impractical
at first, especially once the pressures of study and coursework or exams begin to mount up. However,
Michelle Wright, CEO of charity support organization Cause4, suggests seeing volunteering as a two-
way street. "I think it is fine for undergraduates to approach volunteering as a symbiotic relationship
where doing good is just one part of the motivation for reaching personal and professional goals."
Katerina Rudiger, head of skills and policy campaigns at the Chartered Institute of Personnel and
Development (CIPD), says: "Volunteering can be a valuable way of gaining that experience, as well as
building confidence, broadening your horizons, becoming a better team player and developing those all-
important 'employability skills' such as communication and decision making." Amanda Haig, graduate
HR manager, agrees that volunteering can help your employment prospects. "Volunteering can
demonstrate positive personality traits and skill sets, such as proactivity, and teamwork," she says.
A positive side-effect of volunteering is improving your time at university by getting involved in the
local community. Leaving the student bubble can make your time as an undergraduate much more varied.
At Bath Spa University, more than 1,000 students volunteered over the past year, doing everything from
working on local environmental projects to helping in schools or assisting the elderly. ”Quite often there
can be a divide between students and permanent residents," says students' union president Amy Dawson,
"but if students invest a little time now, they will be giving something back to the local community and
will reap the benefits in the future."
“You might also find that volunteering helps your studies if you choose the right program. At Lancaster,
volunteering is linked into academic modules in some cases", explains Fox. "This has multiple

wins. Students get to apply their learning in the classroom and share their interests with children in
local schools or community organizations, while schools gain skilled students with a passion for a
subject that enthuses their pupils."
Question 123: What is the most suitable title for this reading?
A. Volunteering at university
B. Volunteering helps employment prospects
C. Students should take part in extracurricular activities to put it on CV
D. The virtues of volunteering
Question 124: Which of the following information is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1?
A. Many social benefits are provided by volunteering.
B. Students are likely to be enthusiastic for chances and share their interests with people.
C. Volunteering might increase the pressures of study and coursework or exam.
D. Michelle Wright recommends seeing volunteering as a two-way street.
Question 125: What is inferred from Michelle Wright’s opinion about volunteering?
A. It helps to build confidence and broaden the horizons.
B. It is a part of the motivation for reaching personal and professional goals.
C. It helps to demonstrate positive personality traits and skill sets, such as proactivity, and
teamwork
 D. It helps students to take their enthusiasm and excitement for opportunities and share their
passions.
Question 126: The word “gaining” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by .
A. getting B. making C. lacking D. taking
Question 127: Personality traits and skill sets include .
A. communication and decision - making
B. proactivity and collaboration
C. proactivity and confidence
D. passions, subject knowledge and experience.
Question 128: What does the word “side-effect” mean?
A. additional result that you did not expect or want B. an extra good result
C. another side of a street D. a two-way street
Question 129: What does the word "they" refer to in paragraph 3?
A. projects B. residents C. students D. benefits
Question 130: Which of the following most accurately reflects Fox’s explanation in the last
paragraph?
A. Students at universities must join at least one activity in volunteer campaign at local schools.
A. Students at universities should join as many activities in volunteer campaign at local schools
as possible.
B. Students at universities who join volunteer work will gain a lot of purposes for the community
only.
C. Students at universities who join volunteer work will gain a lot of purposes for not only
themselves but also the community.

EXERCISE 21: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to
Mark Zuckerberg was born in 1984, in New York, into a prosperous, professional family. He developed
an interest in computers at an early age and when he was twelve, he created a messaging program which
he named "Zucknet". His dentist father used it in his surgery so that his receptionist could inform him of
the arrival of a patient without yelling across the room. Together with his friends, Mark spent
much of his spare time as a boy designing and making computer games just for fun.
In 2002, Mark enrolled at Harvard University. By his second year at the institution, he had acquired a
reputation on the campus as a developer of software. It was at that time he invented "Facemash" which
compared pictures of female students and allowed users to vote on which one was the most
attractive. The program became very popular on campus, but was later shut down by the university
authorities who deemed it 'inappropriate'.
Based on the buzz of "Facemash", three of Mark's fellow students, Divya Narendra, and twins,
Cameron and Tyler Winklevoss, asked him to work with them on an idea for a social networking site
called "Harvard Connection". This site was designed to use information from Harvard's student
networks to create a dating site for the university's elite. Mark was initially enthusiastic about the
complex project but boredom soon set in
and he backed out of it to work on his own social networking site. He created a site that allowed
users to produce their own profiles, upload photos, and communicate with other people beyond the
confines of the university. He called the site "Facebook" and he operated from one small college room
until June 2004 when he finally abandoned his studies to devote himself fully to Facebook and
moved the company to California. By the end of 2004, Facebook had one million users and Mark was
climbing high.

Question 131: According to the passage, during his time at university, Mark_________.
A. was known for developing unsuitable software
B. made a program that was disliked by the authorities
C. developed an unsuccessful program
D. produced education programs
Question 132: The word "This site" in paragraph 3 refers to _.
A. Facemash B. Harvard Connection C. Facebook D. Zucknet
Question 133: The Facebook social network developed at Harvard_________.
A. was a collaborative project with other students
B. could only be accessed by Harvard students
C. became Mark's full-time job after completing university
D. became really successful after June 2004
Question 134: What is the word "backed out of " in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to?
A. kept in mind B. changed his mind
C. made up his mind D. blew one's mind
Question 135: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Inventor Of Facebook B. The Legal Dispute Over Facebook
C. The Harvard Connection Creators D. The Success of Facebook

EXERCISE 22:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or V to indicate the
correct
How busy is too busy? For some it means having to miss the occasional long lunch; for others, it
means missing lunch altogether. For a few, it is not being able to take a "sickie" once a month. Then there
is a group of people for whom working every evening and weekend is normal, and frantic is the
tempo of their lives. For most senior executives, workloads swing between extremely busy and
frenzied. The vice-president of the management consultancy AT Kearney and its head of
telecommunications for the Asia-Pacific region, Neil Plumridge, says his work weeks vary from a
“manageable” 45 hours to 80 hours, but average 60 hours.
Three warning signs alert Plumridge about his workload: sleep, scheduling and family. He knows he
has too much on when he gets less than six hours of sleep for three consecutive nights; when he is
constantly having to reschedule appointments; "and the third one is on the family side", says
Plumridge, the father of a three-year-old daughter, and expecting a second child in October. "If I happen
to miss a birthday or anniversary, I know things are out of control." Being "too busy" is highly subjective.
But for any individual, the perception of being too busy over a prolonged period can

start showing up as stress: disturbed sleep, and declining mental and physical health. National
workers' compensation figures show stress causes the most lost time of any workplace injury.
Employees suffering stress are off work an average of 16.6 weeks. The effects of stress are also
expensive. Comcare, the Federal Government insurer, reports that in 2003-04, claims for
psychological injury accounted for 7% of claims but almost 27% of claim costs. Experts say the key to
dealing with stress is not to focus on relief - a game of golf or a massage - but to reassess workloads.
Neil Plumridge says he makes it a priority to work out what has to change; that might mean
allocating extra resources to a job, allowing more time or changing expectations. The decision
may take several days. He also relies on the advice of colleagues, saying his peers coach each other
with business problems. "Just a fresh pair of eyes over an issue can help," he says.
Executive stress is not confined to big organizations. Vanessa Stoykov has been running her own
advertising and public relations business for seven years, specializing in work for financial and
professional services firms, Evolution Media has grown so fast that it debuted on the BRW Fast 100 list
of fastest-growing small enterprises last year - just after Stoykov had her first child. Stoykov thrives
on the mental stimulation of running her own business. "Like everyone, I have the occasional day
when I think my head's going to blow off," she says. Because of the growth phase the business is in,
Stoykov has to concentrate on short-term stress relief - weekends in the mountains, the occasional
"mental health" day -rather than delegating more work, She says: “We're hiring more people, but
you need to train them, teach them about the culture and the clients, so it's actually more work
rather than less.”
Question 136: Which of the following could be the title of the passage?
A. The stress of workplace
B. The average of working hours of senior executives
C. Some major groups of busy people
D. The warning signs of workload
Question 137: The word "consecutive" in paragraph 2 mostly means _.
A. interrupted B. solitary C. successive D. intermittent
Question 138: According to the vice-president of the management consultancy AT Kearney and its
head of telecommunications for the Asia-Pacific region, Neil Plumridge, what is NOT the warning
sign about his workload?
A. not having enough time to sleep
B. continuously rearranging his appointments
C. not being able to attend his family's celebrations
D. spending too much time for his family and children
Question 139: As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following sentences are true about the work
stress, EXCEPT _.
A. Disturbed sleep and reducing mental and physical health are the symptom of being too
busy.
B. The lost time caused by stress ranks last in comparison with other workplace injuries.
C. The cost paid for psychological injury was rather high.
D. Relief is not the effective way to cope with stress.
Question 140: The word "reassess" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
A. re-evaluate B. consider C. reduce D. estimate
Question 141: What does the word "he" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Comcare, the Federal Government insurer
B. Expert
C. Neil Plumridge, The vice-president of the management consultancy AT Kearney
D. Employee
Question 142: According to the last paragraph, what measure does Vanessa Stoykov take to reduce
work stress?
A. delegating more work B. taking brief vacations on weekends
C. hiring more people D. allowing more time or changing expectations
Question 143: It can be inferred from the passage that_________.
 A. stress appears in almost every position in workplace.
B. employees working in big organizations will suffer more stress than others.
C. the more the business grows, the more stress people get.
D. good colleagues can help to reduce stress.
EXERCISE 23: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to
The majority of medium and large companies pay higher wage rates to men than to women, according
to the latest government figures. The disparity, known as the gender pay gap, reflects the different
average hourly salaries earned by men and women. The government data showed 74% of firms pay
higher rates to their male staff. just 15% of businesses with more than 250 employees pay more to
women. As many as 11% of firms said there is no difference between the rates paid to either gender.
Unlike pay inequality - which compares the wages of men and women doing the same job - a gender pay
difference at a company is not illegal, but could possibly reflect discrimination. The average

gender pay gap across all medium and large-sized firms is now 8.2%, as measured by median pay. in
other words, men typically earn over 8% more per hour than women. Among those with the largest
gender pay gap are airlines such as Tui and Easyjet, and banks including Virgin Money, the Clydesdale
and TSB. Easyjet has said its pay gap of 45.5% is down to the fact that most of its pilots are male,
while most of its more modestly paid cabin crew are female. Tui Airways - where men earn 47% more
than 214women - has the same issue. Many banks also appear to have a gender bias on salaries. The
Bank of England's wage rate for men is 24% higher than for its female employees.
By law, all firms with more than 250 staff must report their gender pay gap to the government by 4 April
this year. So far only 1,047 firms have complied, leaving another 8,000 to go. Carolyn Fairbairn,
director general of the CBI, denied companies were dragging their feet in reporting the data. "I don't
see a reluctance," she told the Today programme. "I think this is genuinely quite difficult data to find, it
is often sitting on different systems and firms are working very hard towards that deadline.
Question 144: The best title for this passage could be .
A. Gender pay gap: Men still earn more than women at most firms.
B. The latest government figures show gender pay gap.
C. Many banks and airlines have a gender bias on salaries.
D. Companies should pay more for women because of their abilities.
Question 145: Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph 1?
A. Only 15% of businesses with less than 250 employees pay more to females.
B. Most of medium and big firms pay lower wage rates to females than to male.
 C. The findings from the government illustrated that nearly One third of firms pay higher rates to
their female workers.
D. As many as approximately one tenth of firms is stated to have great difference between the
rates paid to gender.
Question 146: In the 2rd paragraph, the writer says the reason why Tui Airways also have gender
pay gap is because .
A. this is the place where men earn 47% less than women.
B. this is the place where men hardly earn over 8% more per hour than women.
C. most of its pilots are male, while most of its more modestly paid cabin crew are female
D. it has the largest gender pay gap.
Question 147: The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to ?
A. the governments B. employees C. staff D. all firms
Question 148: The phrase "dragging their feet" in paragraph 3 means .
A. succeeding B. running quickly
C. walking slowly D. doing something slowly
EXERCISE 24:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to
Robots are useful for exploring and working in space. In particular, many robots have been sent to
explore Mars. Such robots have usually looked like a box with wheels. Though these robots are useful,
by their very nature they are unreliable, extremely expensive, and they break easily. Also, they cannot do
very many tasks. Because of these problems, scientists have been developing a new and unusual kind of
robot. These new robots move like snakes, so they have been given the name "snakebots."
The way a snake is shaped lets it get into very small spaces, like cracks in rocks. It can also push its
way below the ground or climb up different kinds of objects, like high rocks and trees. Such abilities
account for the usefulness of a robot designed like a snake. A snakebot would be able to do these
things, too, making it much more effective than regular robots with wheels, which easily get stuck or
fall over. Since they can carry tools, snakebots would be able to work in space, as well. They could, for
example, help repair the International Space Station.
But how can such a robot shape be made? A snakebot is built like a Chain made of about thirty parts, or
modules. Each module is basically the same in that they all have a small computer and a wheel to aid
movement. The large computer in the "head” of the snake makes all of the modules in a snakebot work
together.
The modular design of the snakebot has many advantages. If one module fails, another can be added
easily. Snakebot modules can also carry different kinds of tools, as well as cameras. Since each module
is actually a robot in itself, one module can work apart from the rest if necessary. That is, all the
modules can separate and move on their own, and then later, reconnect back into a larger robot.
Researchers are also trying to develop snakebots made of a special kind of plastic that can change its
shape using electricity, almost like animal muscles. Snakebots made with this plastic will be very
strong and hard to break.
Overall, the snakebot design is much simpler than that of common robots. Thus, snakebots will be much
less expensive to build. For example, a robot recently sent to Mars cost over a hundred million dollars,
whereas snakebots can cost as little as a few hundred dollars. With their versatility and affordability,
snakebots seem to be the wave of the future, at least as far as space robots are concerned.
Question 149: What topic does the passage mainly focus on?
A. The differences between the old robots and the new ones.
B. The reasons for the appearance of the snakebots.
C. The composition and abilities of the snakebots.
D. The physical appearance and problems of the snakebots.
Question 150: According to paragraph 1, the following are disadvantages of the common robots
which have been on Mars, EXCEPT .
A. uselessness B. high manufacturing cost
C. fragility D. difficulty in moving
Question 151: What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to ?
A. Wheels B. regular robots C. these things D. snakebots
Question 152: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about the snakebots?
A. They can move through myriad difficult terrains.
B. They are easier to get stuck or fall over than other kinds of robots.
C. They are unable to work in space like a regular robot.
D. They are made of over thirty different modules.
Question 153: The author implied in paragraph 4 that a snakebot only completely stops working when
.
A. the head of the snake has something wrong.
B. all the modules cannot reconnect with each other.
C. the whole parts of the snake are broken down.
D. the energy battery in the snakebot runs out of.
Question 154: The word "separate" in paragraph 4 mostly means .
 A. join together
B. divide into many different parts
C. control others to work in the way you want
D. have effects on others and the way they develop.
Question 155: The word “versatility” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. flexibility B. rigidity C. firmness D. ability
Question 156: Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward the new kind
of robot?
A. criticize B. admire C. appreciate D. disapprove

EXERCISE 25: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
Before the grass has thickened on the roadside verges and leaves have started growing on the trees is a
perfect time to look around and see just how dirty Britain has become. The

pavements are stained with chewing gum that has been spat out and the gutters are full of
discarded fast food cartons. Years ago I remember travelling abroad and being saddened by the
plastic bags, discarded bottles and soiled nappies at the edge of every road. Nowadays, Britain
seems to look at least as bad. What has gone wrong?
The problem is that the rubbish created by our increasingly mobile lives lasts a lot longer than
before. If it is not cleared up and properly thrown away, it stays in the undergrowth for years; a
semi-permanent reminder of what a tatty little country we have now. Firstly, it is estimated that 10
billion plastic bags have been given to shoppers. These will take anything from 100 to 1,000
years to rot. However, it is not as if there is no solution to this. A few years ago, the Irish government
introduced a tax on non-recyclable carrier bags and in three months reduced their use by 90%.
When he was a minister, Michael Meacher attempted to introduce a similar arrangement in
Britain. The plastics industry protested, of course. However, they need not have bothered; the idea
was killed before it could draw breath, leaving supermarkets free to give away plastic bags.
What is clearly necessary right now is some sort of combined initiative, both individual and
collective, before it is too late. The alternative is to continue sliding downhill until we have a
country that looks like a vast municipal rubbish tip. We may well be at the tipping point. Yet we
know that people respond to their environment. If things around them are clean and tidy, people
behave cleanly and tidily. If they are surrounded by squalor, they behave squalidly. No much of
Britain looks pretty squalid. What will it look like in five years?

Question 157: The writer says that it is a good time to see Britain before the trees have leaves because
 .
A. Britain looks perfect B. you can see Britain at its dirtiest
C. you can see how dirty Britainis now D. the grass has thickened on the verges
Question 158: For the writer, the problem is that_____________.
A. rubbish is notcleared up B. rubbish last longer than it used to
C. our society is increasingly mobile D. Britain is a tatty country
Question 159: The word “alternative” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.
A. freedom B. disruption C. change D. option
Question 160: The word 'they in the last paragraph may refer to___________.
A. people B. the environment C. much of Britain D. cleanliness
Question 161: What is the tone of the passage?
A. informative B. persuasive C. pessimistic D. frustrated
EXERCISE 26:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct
Urban populations interact with their environment. Urban people change their environment
through their consumption of Food, energy, water, and land. And in turn, the polluted urban
environment affects the health and quality of life of the urban population. People who live in urban
areas have very different consumption patterns than residents in rural areas. For example, urban
populations consume much more food, energy, and durable goods than rural populations. In China
during the 1970s, the urban populations consumed twice as much pork as the rural populations
who were raising the pigs. With economic development, the difference in consumption declined
as the rural populations ate better diets. But even a decade later, urban populations had 60 percent
more pork in their diets than rural populations. The increasing consumption of meat is a sign of
growing affluence in Beijing; in India where many urban residents are vegetarians, greater
prosperity is seen in higher consumption of milk.
Urban populations not only consume more food, but they also consume more durable goods, In
the early 1990s, Chinese households in urban areas were two times more likely to have a TV, eight
times more likely to have a washing machine, and 25 times more likely to have a refrigerator than
rural households. This increased consumption is a function of urban labor markets, wages, and
household structure.
Urban consumption of energy helps create heat islands that can change local weather patterns and
weather downwind from the heat islands. The heat island phenomenon is created because
cities radiate heat back into the atmosphere at rate 15 percent to 30 percent less than rural areas.
The combination of the increased energy consumption and difference in albedo (radiation) means that
cities are warmer than rural areas (0.6 to 1.3 C), And these heat islands become traps for
atmospheric pollutants. Cloudiness and fog occur with greater frequency. Precipitation is 5 percent to
10 percent higher in cities; thunderstorms and hailstorms are much more frequent, but snow days in
cities are less common.
Urbanization also affects the broader regional environments. Regions downwind from large
industrial complexes also see increases in the amount of precipitation, air pollution, and the number of
days with thunderstorms. Urban areas affect not only the weather patterns, but also the runoff patterns
for water. Urban areas generally generate more rain, but they reduce the infiltration of water and
lower the water tables. This means that runoff occurs more rapidly with greater peak flows. Flood
volumes increase, as do floods and water pollution downstream.
Many of the effects of urban areas on the environment are not necessarily linear. Bigger urban
areas do not always create more environmental problems. And small urban areas can cause

large problems. Much of what determines the extent of the environmental impacts is how the
urban populations behave - their consumption and living patterns - not just how large they are.

Question 162: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The consumption of urban populations.
B. The environmental effects of urbanization.
C. The benefits and drawbacks of urbanization.
D. The interaction of humans with environment.
Question 163: Which of the following is TRUE about the food consumption of Chinese
urban inhabitants?
A. People in urban areas ate less than those in rural areas in the past
B. Urban civilians prefer more milk in their diets than pork.
C. People breeding the pigs in the past often had less pork in their diets than those in urban
areas.
D. The pork consumption in urban areas has experienced a downward trend.
Question 164: The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to__________.
A. the urban residents' B. the rural populations'
C. pigs' D. Chinese citizens'
Question 165: According to paragraph 3, the following are mentioned as examples of
durable goods, EXCEPT .
A. televisions B. washing machines C. fridges D. generators
Question 166: What does the word "Precipitation" in paragraph 4 mean?
A. the amount of the rain fall B. the bad weather with strong wind and rain
C. the rain that contains harmful chemicals D. air pollution
Question 167: The word "infiltration" in paragraph 5 could be best replaced
by .
A. penetration B. interruption C. conservation D.
accumulation Question 168: In which paragraph does the writer mention the temperature in urban
areas is higher than that of rural ones?
A. Paragraph 3 B. Paragraph 4 C. Paragraph 5 D. Paragraph 6
Question 169: What can be inferred in the last paragraph?
A. Human activities have directly impacts on how the environment changes.
B. There larger the urban areas are, the more complicated the environmental problems
become

C. People should not expand urban areas in order to protect the environment.
D. Global warming is the main factor that affects the environment.

EXERCISE 27: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
correct
The world needs to do more to prepare for the impact of a rapidly ageing population, the UN has
warned - particularly in developing countries. Within 10 years the number of people aged over 60 will
pass one billion, a report by the UN Population Fund said. The demographic shift will present huge
challenges to countries’ welfare, pension and healthcare systems. The UN agency also said more had to
be done to tackle "abuse, neglect and violence against older persons".
The number of older people worldwide is growing faster than any other age group. The report, Ageing in
the let Century: A Celebration and a Challenge, estimates that one in nine people around the world are
older than 60. The elderly population is expected to swell by 200 million in the next decade to surpass
one billion, and reach two billion by 2050. This rising proportion of older people is a consequence of
success - improved nutrition, sanitation, healthcare, education and economic well-being are contributing
factors, the report says.
But the UN and a charity that also contributed to the report, Help Age International, say the ageing
population is being widely mismanaged. "In many developing countries with large populations of young
people, the challenge is that governments have not put policies and practices in place to support their
current older populations or made enough preparations for 2050," the agencies said in a joint statement.
Question 170: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The influence of the rise in aged population.
B. The quick increase of the elderly people.
C. The countries with high percentage of the aged.
D. The challenges caused by the ageing population.
Question 171: The word "abuse" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by .
A. care B. protection C. insult D. praise
Question 172: The number of the elderly rises because of the following reasons, EXCEPT .
A. sanitation B. medical care C. economic well-being D. finance
Question 173: Which of the following is TRUE about the older people?
A. Of all age groups, the elderly have the fastest growth.
B. More aged people will reduce the pressure on countries' welfare, pension and healthcare
systems.

A. There will be 200 million older people in 2050.

B. The ageing population is managed properly.
Question 174: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to .

A. governments B. policies C. practices D. older populations

EXERCISE 28:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
By mid-century, there will likely be 9 billion people on the planet, consuming ever more resources and
leading ever more technologically complex lives. What will our cities be like? How much will artificial
intelligence advance? Will global warming trigger catastrophic changes, or will we be able to engineer
our way out of the climate change crisis?
Making predictions is, by nature, a dicey business, but to celebrate the 40th anniversary of Smithsonian
magazine Big Think asked top minds from a variety of fields to weigh in on what the future holds 40
years from now. The result is our latest special series, Life in 20 50. Demographic changes in world
population and population growth will certainly be dramatic. Rockefeller University mathematical
biologist Joel Cohen says it's likely that by 2050 the majority of the people in the world will live in
urban areas, and will have a significantly higher average age than people today. Cities theorist Richard
Florida thinks urbanization trends will reinvent the education system of the United States, making our
economy less real estate driven and erasing the divisions between home and work.
Large migrations from developing countries like Indonesia, Malaysia, Bangladesh, Mexico, and
countries in the Middle East could disrupt western governments and harm the unity of France,
Germany, Spain, the Netherlands, Poland, and the United Kingdom under the umbrella of the European
Union.
And rapidly advancing technology will continue ever more rapidly. According to Bill Mitchell, the late
director of MIT's Smart Cities research group, cities of the future won't look like "some sort of science -
fiction fantasy" or "Star Trek" but it's likely that "discreet, unobtrusive" technological advances and
information overlays, i.e. virtual reality and augmented reality, will change how we live in significant
ways. Self-driving cars will make the roads safer, driving more efficient, and provide faster transports. A
larger version of driverless cars-driverless trucks-may make long haul drivers obsolete.
Meanwhile, the Internet will continue to radically transform media, destroying the traditional model of
what a news organization is, says author and former New York Times Public Editor, Daniel Okrent, who
believes the most common kinds of news organizations in the future will be "individuals and small
alliances of individuals” reporting and publishing on niche topics.
Question 175: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The population in the future B. The advanced artificial intelligence
C. The life in 2050 D. Global warming and its impacts
Question 176: The word "trigger" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by

.
A. cause B. prevent C. encourage D. promote
Question 177: Which of the following predictions in paragraph 2 is NOT true?
A. The world population will grow considerably.
B. The humans will have a longer life span.
C. Urbanization trends will increase the separation between home and workplace.
D. More and more inhabitants choose urban areas to live.
Question 178: The word “disrupt” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. settle B. establish C. disturb D. replace
Question 179: According to paragraph 4, the following countries are damaged by the
migrations, EXCEPT .
A. the countries in the Middle East B. Germany
C. the United Kingdom D. the Netherlands
Question 180: What is the problem caused by advanced technology for future humans in paragraph 5?
A. It makes people likely to live in the Virtual reality.
 B. It will be unsafe for people to drive their cars on the roads.
C. Long haul drivers may become unemployed.
D. People’s lives will be getting worse.
Question 181: What does the word "who" in the last paragraph refer to?
A. Daniel Okrent B. New York Times C. author D. traditional model
Question 182: Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude about the life in 2050?
A. pessimistic B. optimistic C. doubtful D. anxious
EXERCISE 29: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to
The first Industrial Revolution was about harnessing steam power so that muscle could be replaced by
machines. The second was driven by electricity and a cluster of inventions from the late 19th
century onwards - including the internal combustion engine, the aeroplane and moving pictures. A third
revolution began in the 1960s and was based on digital technology, personal computing and the
development of the internet. Industrial Revolution 4.0 will be shaped by a fresh wave of innovation in
areas such as driverless cars, smart robotics, materials that are lighter and tougher, and a
manufacturing process built around 3D printing.

There are some myths about Industrial Revolution 4.0. The first is that it won't really have as big an
impact as the previous periods of change, most especially the breakthroughs associated with the second
industrial revolution. In the past, it has always taken time to feel the full effects of technological
change and many of today's advances are in their infancy. It is far too early to say that the car or
air travel will prove to be less important than the sequencing of the human genome or synthetic biology.
The second myth is that the process will be trouble free provided everything is left to the market. It
is a fantasy to believe that the wealth created by the fourth Industrial Revolution will cascade
down from rich to poor, and that those displaced will just walk into another job that pays just as
well.
Indeed, all the evidence so far is that the benefits of the coming change will be concentrated
among a relatively small elite, thus exacerbating the current trend towards greater levels of
inequality. This was a point stressed by the Swiss bank UBS in a report launched in Davos. It notes
that there will be a "polarisation of the labour force as low-skill jobs continue to be automated and
this trend increasingly spreads to middle class jobs,"

Question 183: The best title for this passage could be .

A. Four Industrial Revolutions in human history
 B. Some myths about four Industrial Revolutions
C. The benefits of the fourth Industrial Revolution
D. The greatest inventions in human history
Question 184: Which statement about four Industrial Revolutions is FALSE according to the passage?
A. The first Industrial Revolution brought about steam power machines.
B. A third revolution began in the 1970 and led to the development of the Internet.
C. The second was driven by electricity and a cluster of inventions from the late 19th century
onwards.
D. Driverless cars, smart robotics can be said to be products of Industrial Revolution 4.0
Question 185: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ?
A. myths B. Industrial Revolution 1.0
C. Industrial Revolution 3.0 D. Industrial Revolution 4.0
Question 186: In the 2rd, paragraph, the writer suggests that .
A. Industrial Revolution 4.0 will really have as big an impact as the previous periods of change,
B. many of today's advances resemble those in the past.
C. It is far too early to say that the sequencing of the human genorne or synthetic biology will
prove to be more significant than the car or air travel.

A. the fourth Industrial Revolution will cascade down from rich to poor.
Question 187: The word "exacerbating" in paragraph 3 means .

A. worsening B. lessening C. minimizing D. changing

EXERCISE 30:Read the following passage and mark the letter A,. B, C, or D to indicate the
Most parents want their sons and daughters to have equal chances of success when they grow up.
Today, equality of the sexes is largely mandated by public policy and law. However, old- fashioned
ideas and a lot of prejudice are still part of our culture and present challenging questions for
parents.
Gender stereotypes are rigid ideas about how boys and girls should behave. We all know what these
stereotypes are: A "feminine" girls should be insecure, accommodating and a little illogical in her
thinking. A "masculine" boy should be strong, unemotional, aggressive, and competitive. How are
children exposed to these stereotypes? According to the researchers David and Myra Sadker of the
American University of Washington, D.C., boys and girls are often treated differently in the
classroom. They found out that when boys speak, teachers usually offer constructive comments,
when girls speech, teachers tend to focus on the behavior. It's more important how the girls act
rather than what they say.
The emphasis on differences begins at birth and continues throughout childhood. For example, few
people would give pink baby's clothes to a boy or a blue blanket to a girl. Later, many of us give
girls dolls and miniature kitchenware, while boys receive action figures and construction sets. There's
nothing wrong with that. The problem arises when certain activities are deemed appropriate for one
sex but not the other. According to Heather J. Nicholson, Ph.D., director of the National Resource Center
for Girls, Inc., this kind of practice prevents boys and girls from acquiring important skills for their
future lives.
"The fact is," says Nicholson, "that society functions as a kind of sorting machine regarding gender. In a
recent survey, fifty-eight percent of eighth-grade girls but only six percent of boys earned money
caring for younger children. On the other hand, twenty-seven percent of boys but only three
percent of girls earned money doing lawn work". If we are serious about educating a generation to be
good workers and parents, we need to eliminate such stereotypes as those mentioned previously.
Gender stereotypes inevitably are passed to our children. However, by becoming aware of the
messages our children receive, we can help them develop ways to overcome these incorrect ideas.
To counteract these ideas, parents can look for ways to challenge and support their children, and to
encourage confidence in ways that go beyond what society's fixed ideas about differences of sext are.

Question 188: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Deep-seated stereotypes about genders and their effects.
B. Different prejudice about how girls and boys should behave and be treated.
C. The role of culture in the behavior of different genders.
D. The influence of education and society on gender stereotypes.
Question 189: According to the second passage, David and Myra Sadker of the American
University of Washington, D.0 found that .
A. schoolboys and schoolgirls are treated equally in the classroom.
B. teachers often concentrate on boys' behavior and girls' manners.
C. boys are commented usefully whereas girls are paid attention to behavior.
D. girls are taught to be insecure, accommodating and illogical while boys are strong,
unemotional, aggressive, and competitive.
Question 190: What does the word "that" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The differences between boys and girls begin at birth and continue throughout
childhood.
B. People often give pink clothes to a boy and a blue blanket to a girl.
 C. Many people give girls dolls and miniature kitchen and boys receive action figures and
construction sets when they were born.
D. People give different genders of children distinct kinds of presents orclothes.
Question 191: The word "deemed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. celebrated B. supposed C. designed D.
established Question 192: According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE
about gender stereotypes?
A. Male and female children are expected to behave the same as what adults think they
should.
B. The distinctions in treatment to boys and girls commence when they were given birth.
C. Its beneficial for children to practice fundamental skills if they are treated unequally quite
early.
D. Children are differently treated not only at homes but also at schools.
Question 193: The result of a recent survey showed that the number of girls at the age of eight
paid for babysitting was .

A. 58% B. 27% C. 6% D. 3%
Question 194: The word "counteract" in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
.
A. promote B. frustrate C. encourage D. inspire
Question 195: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Parents are able to help reduce the influence of gender stereotypes on their children.
B. Teachers and parents have to join hands to encourage children's confidence in social
activities.
C. Society functions often categorize jobs regardless genders.
D. The problems males and females get when they are adults may originate from gender
stereotypes
EXERCISE 31: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to
Vietnam’s population is ageing quickly. In 2017, more than 10 per cent of the population will be 60 and
older, and in 15-20 years the elderly will account for one third of the total population. This raises
concerns about healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly at a time when Vietnam is focusing on
economic integration and requires a large labor force. So far two solutions have been proposed: to
loosen the two-child policy and to increase the retirement age to 58 for women and 62 for men. By
ending the two-child policy the government expects to make up for the ageing population within the
next 20
years. But its effect could be creating an uncontrollable boom in the Vietnamese population. When the
government loosened the two-child policy in 2015 in a trial period, in the first 6 months of 2016 the
third child birth rate increased remarkably by 7.5 per cent
Raising the retirement age has been proposed by the Ministry of Labor pending parliamentary
evaluation in May 2017. While the policy is beneficial in utilizing the work experience of the elderly
while creating savings in the pension budget, it also means fewer job prospects and promotion
opportunities for younger generations. It is also not in the interest of all the elderly, especially the 70
per cent of Vietnam's labor force working in manual labor-intensive sectors such as agriculture,
manufacturing and construction where working above the age of 50 can be dangerous and
unproductive. Despite these drawbacks, raising the retirement age is still considered by policymakers as
one of the key solutions to the ageing population problem in Vietnam. However, these are only
temporary solutions.
Question 196: The best title for this passage could be .
A. Vietnam struggling with ageing population
B. Stopping the two-child policy in Vietnam
C. Raising the retirement age in Vietnam
D. How to solve the aging population in Vietnam
Question 197: Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph 1?
A. In 2017, the elderly take up for one third of the total population, this leads to more concerns
about healthcare, welfare and pensions for the elderly.
B. In 2015, the two-child policy has been officially tightened and succeeded.
C. The government would promote families to have two children to compensate for the ageing
population within the next 20 years.
D. In the next 15-17 years, Vietnam's economy will need a large labor force to integrate with
global economy.
Question 198: The word “its" in paragraph 1 refers to ?
A. two-Child policy B. aging population
C. retirement age D. economic integration
Question 199: In the 2rd paragraph, the writer suggests that .
A. The Ministry of Labor has applied raising the retirement age in May 2017.
B. Raising the retirement age can reduce job opportunities for younger generations.
 C. The elderly whose age is 50 would be dangerous if they continued to work
D. Raising the retirement age and stopping two-child policy can be considered as long-term and
effective solutions.
Question 200: The word "temporary" in paragraph 2 means .
A. constant B. permanent C. short-term D. long-term

EXERCISE 32:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
answer
There are many mistakes that people make when writing their resume (CV) or completing a job
application. Here are some of the most common and most serious.
The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a past position: all
this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do not necessarily know the
specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results you achieved - both of which
are essential. In short, they won’t know if you were the best, the worst or just average in your position.

The more concrete information you can include, the better. As far as possible, provide measurements
of what you accomplished. If any innovations you introduced saved the organization money, how
much did they save? If you found a way of increasing productivity, by what percentage did you
increase it?
Writing what you are trying to achieve in life - your objective - is a waste of space. It tells the employer
what you are interested in. Do you really think that employers care what you want? No, they are
interested in what they want! Instead, use that space for a career summary. A good one is brief - three to
four sentences long. A good one will make the person reviewing your application want to read further.
Many resumes list ‘hard' job-specific skills, almost to the exclusion of transferable, or ‘soft’, skills.
However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as important as your
technical skills.
All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which you are applying.
If you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current job, it is up to you to draw a
connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand how your skills will fit in their
organization. The person who reviews your paperwork will not be a mind reader.
If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a resume reader may
take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your ability: you need to say exactly how
good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch the truth or lie.
Question 201: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
 A. The way how to write the resume for job application.
B. The mistakes people make when applying for a job.
C. The common way to make impression in a job interview.
D. The necessary skills for job application.
Question 202: The word "executing" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. enumerating B. determining C. completing D. implementing
Question 203: The word "concrete" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by .
A. indeterminate B. specific C. substantial D. important
Question 204: What does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to ?
A. organization money B. information
C. productivity D. percentage
Question 205: According to the passage, what information should candidates include in their resume?
A. specific skills for previous jobs B. the past achievements
C. previous positions D. future objective
Question 206: Why did the author mention that applicants should write a good brief career summary?
A. To make the employers interested in what they want.
B. To make the interviewers more curious about you.
C. Because the employers do not care for what you want to achieve.
D. Because it can provide their specific skills in their positions.
Question 207: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT
true?
A. The ability to negotiate effectively is as significant as technical skills.
B. Candidates must study the job they are applying carefully before writing the CV.
C. Applicants should not apply for a distinct job from what they are doing.
D. The information interviewees present should be related to the job they are applying.
Question 208: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that .
A. you should write accurately about your ability for the vacant position.
B. you should be modest about what you can do.
C. a resume reader is good enough to understand what you imply about your ability in the CV.
D. you are allowed to exaggerate the truth of your competence if possible.
EXERCISE 33: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or II to indicate the answer
As Hurricane Florence zeroes in on the southeastern US, scientists are warning that climate change is
exacerbating the effect of tropical storms. The powerful Category 4 Atlantic weather- front is slow
moving, an increasingly common phenomenon that poses a different manner of threat to states in
its path. In the event that Florence stalls or comes to a halt altogether over land, it has the potential
to deposit catastrophic quantities of rainwater, posing a risk of severe flash flooding.
While the high winds and waves generated by faster storms moving inland from the ocean pose a
significant danger to human life and property, the effect of heavy rain can be just as devastating, if not
more so. When Hurricane Harvey hit in August 2017, it dropped 60 inches of rain over Houston, Texas,
flooding the streets, leaving 93 dead and hundreds more having to be rescued by boat, causing millions
of dollars-worth of damage.
James Kossin of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration published a study in the
journal Nature in June suggesting that slow-moving tropical cyclones, which would include those like
Florence and Harvey, have become more common over the last 70 years, dropping in speed by 10
per cent in that time. According to Mr Kossin, global warming as a result of man-made air pollution
is causing the poles to become warmer, which in turn reduces the difference in temperature
between the Arctic and Antarctic and the equator, altering atmospheric pressure and slowing down the
whipping currents of wind that pass between them and drive hurricanes,

Question 209: The best title for this passage could be__________________.
A. danger of hurricane in US
B. climate change and the threat from tropical storms
C. climate change and people activities
D. storms cause millions of dollars-worth of damage
Question 210: Which statement about Hurricane Harvey is probably TRUE according to the passage ?
A. It caused the floods in all the streets in US
B. It caused a significant danger to people and property.
C. It made citizens in Texas suffer from floods and damage.
D. It made residents lose millions of dollars.
Question 211: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. tropical cyclones B. a study C. Florence D. Harvey
Question 212: in the 3rd paragraph, James Kossin suggests that .
A. over the last 70 years, human activities have made global warming worse.
B. over the last 70 years, people cause the poles to become hotter.
C. over the last 70 years, Florence and Harvey are common in Texas.
D. over the last 70 years, slow-moving tropical cyclones have become more common.
Question 213: The word “altering” in paragraph 3 means .
A. fastening B. changing C. remaining D. keeping

EXERCISE 34:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
answer
As computer use becomes more common, the need for security is more important than ever. One of
the greatest security threats in the online world is computer hacking. Computer hacking is the
unauthorized access to a computer or network of computers. Hackers are people who illegally enter
systems. They may alter or delete information, steal private information, or spread viruses that can
damage or destroy files. But how exactly can a hacker get into a system to do these things?

Most hackers use information called protocols that are built into computer software. These
protocols allow computers to interact with one another. Protocols are sort of like computer police
officers. When a computer connects to another system, the protocols check to see if the access is
valid. The protocols can also determine how much information can be shared between the two
systems. Hackers can manipulate the protocols to get unlimited access to a computer system In fact,
just the act of entering a computer network is considered hacking. This is commonly called passive
hacking. Passive hackers get a rush from just being able to access a challenging system like a bank
or military network. Another kind of hacker tries to do damage to a system. After hacking into
systems, these hackers release viruses or alter, delete, or take information. Known as active
hackers, they are, by far, the more dangerous of the two.
The easiest way to protect a system is with a good password, Long and unusual passwords are
harder for hackers to guess. For even greater security, some online services now use “password- plus”
systems. In this case, users first put in a password and then put in a second code that changes
after the user accesses the site. Users either have special cards or devices that show them the new
code to use the next time. Even if a hacker steals the password, they won't have the code. Or if the
hacker somehow gets the code, they still don't know the password.

Question 214: Which of the following could best describe the main idea of the passage?
A. Computer security and hackers.
B. Different types of hackers.
C. What a hacker can damage in your computer.
D. The way hackers access to a computer.
Question 215: The word "unauthorized" in the first paragraph mostly means .
A. optional B. illegal C. permissible D. compulsory
Question 216: The word "manipulate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
 A. require B. modify C. transform D. influence
Question 217: According to paragraph 2, which information is NOT true about
protocols?
A. Protocols are a set of rules controlling the way data is sent between computers.
B. Protocols can try out whether they are legal to access another computer or not.
C. The amount of shared information between two computers depends on the host
computer.
D. The data hackers can get from others' computers may be infinite.
Question 218: What does the phrase "the two" in paragraph 3 refer to ?
A. a bank and military network B. passive and active hackers
C. hackers and viruses C. systems and viruses
Question 219: The author mentioned in the third paragraph that active hackers are more
dangerous because .
A. they often get access to important networks like a bank or military.
B. they implant viruses or steal private and other vital information in systems.
C. they always remove all the data in the systems they hack.
D. they can do many harmful things for the whole computer network system.
Question 220: As suggested in the last paragraph, what is the best way for computer users
to prevent hackers?
A. They should use a long and customary password so that hackers cannot guess.
B. They should use different passwords for different accounts to access the sites.
C. They should have an additional secret code to confirm for their access after putting a
password.
D. They should not use any code on online services to make sure that hackers have no
chance to get your password.
Question 221: It is implied in the passage that .
A. it is difficult to protect data from being stolen by hackers.
B. not every hacker is harmful.
C. hackers always damage the information in the host computer.
D. online services have been improving their security system.
EXERCISE 35: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to
It is 2025. Your mobile is now much more than just a Communication device – more like a remote
control for your life. You still call it a "mobile" from habit, but it is an organiser, entertainment device,
payment device and security centre, all developed and manufactured by engineers.
On a typical day it will start work even before you wake. Because it knows your travel schedule it can
check for problems on the roads or with the trains and adjust the time it wakes you up accordingly,
giving you the best route into work. It can control your home, re-programming the central heating if you
need to get up earlier and providing remote alerts if the home security system is triggered. It is your
payment system - just by placing the phone near a sensor on a barrier, like the Oyster card readers in use
on London transport, you can pay for tickets for journeys or buy items in shops. With its understanding
of location, the mobile can also provide directions, or even alert the user to friends or family in the
Vicinity.
It is your entertainment centre when away from home. As well as holding all your music files, as some
phones today are able to do, it will work with your home entertainment system while you sleep to find
programmes that will interest you and download them as a podcast to watch on the train or in other
spare moments. It will intelligently work out what to do with incoming phone calls and messages.
Question 222: The best title for this passage could be .
A. The future of mobile phones: A wonderful device to enjoy music
B. The future of mobile phones: A useful device to check roads
C. The future of mobile phones: A remote control for your life
D. The future of mobile phones: A necessary device to control house
Question 223: Which statement about mobile phones is probably FALSE according to the passage?
A. They might help people to check if there are any problems on the roads.
B. They start work before people wake up.
C. They can help to pay for journeys or purchase items in shops
D. They can also provide directions, or even alert the user to friends or family although they are
far from the user.
Question 224: The word "its" in paragraph 2 refers to ?
A. the transport B. the mobile C. the sensor D. the train
Question 225: In the 3rd paragraph, the writer suggests that .
A. the mobile stops downloading your favorite program when you are sleeping
B. the mobile can solve intelligently with message and incoming phone calls.
C. the mobile can know the time when you will sleep to download music
D. the mobile only can hold your favorite music.
Question 226: The word “triggered” in paragraph 3 means .
A. changed B. continued C. stopped D. activated
EXERCISE 36:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer
to
Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It's a special, dark place completely different from anywhere
else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions of kinds of animals, insects, and
plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a rainforest. It rains a lot in the rainforest, but
sometimes you don‘t know it's raining. The trees grow so closely together that rain doesn't always reach
the ground.
Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth's surface, about six percent. They are found in tropical
parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in South America. The Amazon
covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square kilometers. The second largest rainforest is in
Western Africa. There are also rainforests in Central America, Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia,
and the Pacific Islands.
Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the “lungs of our
planet” because it produces twenty percent of the world's oxygen. One fifth of the world's fresh water

is also found in the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the world's species of animals, plants,
and insects live in the Earth's rainforests. Eighty percent of the food we eat first grew in the rainforest.
For example, pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from
rainforests. Twenty-five percent of the drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only
in rainforests. Some of these drugs are even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we
get from rainforests, it’s surprising to find that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or
6,000 square meters, of rainforest disappear every second. The forests are being cut down to make fields
for cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for farms. Along with losing countless valuable species,
the destruction of rainforests creates many problems worldwide. Destruction of rainforests results in
more pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for the world.
Question 227: What is the author's purpose in the passage?
A. To provide factual information about tropical rainforests for readers.
B. To prove that rainforests are indispensable in our lives.
C. To explain why people have destroyed a large area of tropical rainforests.
D. To prevent people from damaging tropical rainforests.
Question 228: The word “humid” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. dry B. moist C. cloudy D. overwhelmed
Question229: Why don't people know it‘s raining in the rainforests?
 A. Because the trees grow very tall there.
B. Because they are the habitats of millions of flora and fauna.
C. Because the branches are too dense for the rain to touch the ground.
D. Because it hardly rains in the rainforests.
Question 230: The following are the facts about rainforests, EXCEPT .
A. The only places to see rainforests are in tropical zones.
B. The rainforest in Western Africa ranks second after the Amazon in South America in the
covered area.
C. Rainforests account for about one sixth of the Earth's surface.
D. There’s a considerable variety of plants and animals in the rainforests.
Question 231: According to the third passage, which don’t rainforests provide us?
A. fresh air and water B. medicine C. seedlings D. clothes
Question 232: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to .
A. plants
B. the drugs
C. rainforests
D. pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar
Question 233: The word “countless” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by

.
A. trivial B. meaningless C. numberless D. derisive
Question 234: What can be inferred from the last passage?
A. People are not aware of the significance of the rainforests.
B. The consequences of deforestation are greater than what people can imagine.
C. The more rainforests are destroyed, the harder people's life will become.
D. People’s economic benefits are more important than environmental problems.
EXERCISE 37: Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to answer the questions.
We first learn about loving and caring relationships from our families. Family is defined as a
domestic group of people with some degree of kinship - whether through blood, marriage, or
adoption. Ideally, each child is nurtured, respected, and grows up to care for others and develop
strong and healthy relationships. This does not mean that it is always easy to make and keep friends; it
just means that we share the goal of having strong relationships.
"Family" includes your siblings and parents, as well as relatives who you may not interact with
every day, such as your cousins, aunts, uncles, grandparents, and stepparents.
These are probably the people you are closest to and with whom you spend the most time.
Having healthy relationships with your family members is both important and difficult.
Families in the 21st century come in all shapes and sizes: traditional, single parent, blended (more
than one family together in the same house], and gay and lesbian parents -just to name a few. No
matter the "type" of family you have, there are going to be highs and lows - good times and bad. Many
times, however, families become blocked in their relationships by hurt, anger, mistrust, and
confusion. These are natural and normal, and few families do not have at least a few experiences
with them. The worst time for most families, is during a divorce. By making a few simple changes
in the way we look at the world and deal with other people, it is possible to create happier, more stable
relationships. Families need to be units of mutual caring and support; they can be sources of
lifelong strength for all individuals.

Question 235: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The role of members in family,
B. The healthy relationships among members in family.
C. The importance of sharing housework in a family.
D. The importance of having children in a family.
Question 236: According to the passage, which example below is probably NOT TRUE about
the definition of family?
A. wife & husband relationship B. god-mother & god-son relationship
C. step-father & daughter relationship D. nanny & baby relationship
Question 237: Ideally, each child is nurtured, respected, and grows up to ?
A. to be concerned about the people around them.
B. to keep in touch with the people around them.
C. to keep a track of the people around them.
D. to be familiar with the people around them.
Question 238: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “siblings” in paragraph 2?
A. husband & wife C. brothers & sisters B. chilren D. friends
Question 239: What does the word “These” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. highs and lows C. good and bad times
B. relationships D. feelings

EXERCISE 38:Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to answer the following questions.
Environmentalists often fear that tourists will trample all over sensitive natural resource areas, but
tourism may bring the needed and only economic incentives to help drive conservation, said
Bynum Boley. Ecotourism and natural resource conservation already have a mutually beneficial
relationship that is ideal for creating a sustainable partnership.
"Ecotourism destinations benefit in the form of enhanced tourism competitiveness from the protection of
quality natural resources," he said. "Meanwhile, the conservation of these natural resources is
increasingly valued since these pristine natural resources are the foundation of the ecotourism industry
and the driver of all economic benefits associated with ecotourism."
Tourism is a $7.6 trillion global industry, provides 277 million jobs and is a primary income source
for 20 of the world's 48 least-developed countries. It also subsidizes environmental protection and
helps protect, conserve and value cultural resources that might otherwise be undervalued by the
host community, Boley said. In the newpaper, Boley and co-author Gary Green said that despite
past tension between the tourism industry and environmentalists, the two should team up as allies
to fight off increasing conversion of land away from its natural state, Ecotourists not only provide a boost
to the economy in such places, they can also motivate landowners into keeping the environment in
its natural state instead of converting it into something

unsustainable. They could also influence the public perception of conservation, Boley explained,
which does not often favor environmental protection.
“The public has become increasing less prone to respond to environmental messages,” he
said. “Economic messages are needed in order to attract the public's interest.” Too often, Boley
and Green said, unique natural resource areas are converted into urban, suburban and agricultural
developments without considering their ecotourism potential. In addition to the lost
ecotourism revenue, there are a host of negative environmental consequences such as biodiversity
loss, water and food shortages and the land being unable to mitigate the effects of climate change.
These areas are not valued for their unique attributes or the valuable natural resources they provide,
Green said, “so we lose them.” Tourists have historically been seen as having a negative impact on
the environment. Critics complain that they violate fragile and threatened natural environments
while contributing to greenhouse gases from the increased number of flights to these exotic and
often remote locales. While these criticisms are justified, Boley and Green said responsible programs
promote education of ecological conservation and environmental sustainability, fostering a greater
understanding and appreciation of these exotic areas.
Question 240: What is the best title for the passage?

A. How to save the environmental resources B. Ecotourism - benefits and drawbacks

C. The consequences of ecotourism D. The development of ecotourism
Question 241: The word “pristine” is closest in meaning to .
A. unspoiled B. touched C. destroyed D. spoiled
Question 242: Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Tourism?
A. subsidizes environmental protection.
B. is a primary income source for 20 of the world's 48 least-developed countries.
C. only develops in industrialized nations.
D. provides 277 million jobs.
Question 243: The word “perception” can be replaced by .
A. concept B. overview C. insight D. awareness
Question 244: It can be inferred from the phrase “Economic messages are needed in order to
attract the public's interest.” is .
A. People get more interested in issues related to environment.
B. People get less interested in issues related to environment.
C. People get more interested in issues related to economy.
D. People get less interested in issues related to economy.
Question 245: According to the passage, negative environmental outcomes ?
A. have bad influence on the biodiversity. B. boost local economy.
C. reduce the effects of climate change. D. provide more water and food.
Question 246: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to .
A. critics B. tourists C. these areas D. flights
Question 247: As mentioned in paragraph 4, responsible programs promote education of
ecological conservation and environmental susta inability,.
A. reducing the perception and comprehension of exotic places.
B. worsening the perception and comprehension of exotic places.
C. enhancing the perception and comprehension of exotic places.
D. maintaining the perception and comprehension of exotic places.
EXERCISE 39: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
During the past half-century, our species has embarked on a remarkable social experiment. For the first
time in human history, great numbers of people - at all ages, in all places, of every political persuasion -
have begun settling down as singletons. Until the second half of the last century, most of us married
young and parted only at death. If death came early, we remarried quickly; if late, we moved in with
family, or they with us. Now we marry later. We divorce, and stay single for years or decades.
The rise of living alone has produced significant social benefits, too. Young and middle-aged solos have
helped to revitalise cities, because they are more likely to spend money, socialise and participate in
public life. Contemporary solo dwellers in the US are primarily women: about 18 million, compared
with 14 million men. The majority, more than 16 million, are middle-aged adults between the ages of 3S
and 64. The elderly account for about 11 million of the total. Young adults between 18 and 34 number
increased more than 5 million, compared with 500,000 in 1950, making them the fastest-growing
segment of the solo-dwelling population.
Despite fears that living alone may be environmentally unsustainable, solos tend to live in apartments
rather than in big houses, and in relatively green cities rather than in car-dependent suburbs. There's
good reason to believe that people who live alone in cities consume less energy than if they coupled up
and decamped to pursue a single-family home.
Question 248: The best title for this passage could be .
A. the rise in solo living B. figures about solo dwellers in the US
C. the increase in divorce D. solos have tendency to live in small houses
Question 249: Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in paragraph 1?
A. From the beginning of the last century, people married at young age and only death separated
them.
B. Until the second half of the last century, a large number of people married young and parted
only at death.
C. From the beginning of last century, people have begun settling down as singletons.
D. Until the second half of the last century, people divorce, and stay single for years or decades
Question 250: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ?
A. singletons B. the elderly C. predecessors D. young adults
Question 251: In the 2rd paragraph, the writer suggests that .
A. The elderly take up for a large number of the total solo dwellers
B. In the US, more male choose to live alone than female
C. Solos dwellers have helped to renew cities as they seem to spend money, socialize and take
part in public life
D. There are fewer middle-aged solos than the elderly who live alone
Question 252: The word "decamped" in paragraph 3 means .
A. coupled up B. quit C. lived separately D. lived together

EXERCISE 40:Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the
Educating children at home as an alternative to formal education is an option chosen by families
in many parts of the world. The homeschooling movement is popular in the United States, where close
to one million Children are educated at home. In Canada, 1 percent of school-age children are
homeschooled, and the idea also enjoys growing popularity in Australia, where 20,000 families
homeschool their children. The movement is not limited to these countries. Homeschooling families can
be found all over the world, from Japan to Taiwan to Argentina to South Africa.
Homeschooling is not a novel idea. In fact, the idea of sending children to spend most of their
day away from home at a formal school is a relatively new custom. In the United States, for example, it was
not until the latter part of the nineteenth century that state governments began making school attendance
compulsory. Before that, the concept of a formal education was not so widespread. Children learned the
skills they would need for adult life at home from tutors or their parents, through formal instruction or by
working side by side with the adults of the family.

In the modern developed world, where the vast majority of children attend school, families choose
homeschooling for a variety of reasons. For people who live in remote areas, such as the Australian outback
or the Alaskan Wilderness, homeschooling may be their only option. Children who have exceptional talents
in the arts or other areas may be homeschooled so that they have more time to devote to their special
interests. Much of the homeschooling movement is made up of families who, for various reasons, are
dissatisfied with the schools available to them. They may have a differing educational philosophy, they may
be concerned about the safety of the school environment, or they may feel that the local schools cannot
adequately address their children's educational needs. Although most families continue to choose a
traditional classroom education for their children, homeschooling as an alternative educational option is
becoming more popular.
Question 253: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. A new form of school: Homeschooling
B. Homeschool option: a common form of education all over the world.
C. The reasons why children should be educated at home.
D. The origin of Homeschooling.
Question 254: What does the word “that” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. the second half of the 19th century B. the beginning of the 19th century
C. the former part of the 19th century D. the end of the 19th century
Question 255: The word "widespread" in paragraph 2 mostly means .
A. uncommon B. customary C. exceptional D. prevalent
Question 256: According to the passage, the following are true about the Homeschooling, EXCEPT
.
 A. Many families in both developed and developing countries choose to educate their children at
home.
B. Parents or tutors were the ones who taught the children necessary skills in society.
C. People got familiar with school attendance before choosing to learn at home.
D. Before modern times, most students did not attend the school.
Question 257: As mentioned in the last paragraph, children in rural areas .
A. have no choice but stay at home to learn.
B. prefer to improve their extraordinary interests.
C. are not contented with the philosophy of the schools available.
D. believe that their needs to study is more than what a normal school can provide.
Question 258: It can be inferred from the last passage that .
A. parents’ satisfaction plays an important role in the number of students attending class.
B. teachers’ qualifications may be one of the reasons why students come to school.
C. not many children in modern society are allowed to be educated at home.
D. some schools are unable to provide a safe environment for their students.
Question 259: The word “adequately” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. correctly B. applicably C. sufficiently D. inappropriately
Question 260: What does the author mean in the last sentence?
A. Families are gradually aware of the importance of school attendance.
B. More and more parents choose homeschooling to educate their children.
C. Homeschooling will replace the traditional classroom one day in the future.
D. Many people prefer formal schools because of its fame.