Current Electricity

1. The flow of current in solids is due to

A. electrons B. electrons and ions C. atoms D. nucleus
2. The resistance of human body is around
A. 5 ohms B. 25 ohms C. 250 ohms D. 1000 ohms
3. The draft velocity of electrons is
A. a very small as compared to speed of light
B. equal to speed of light
C. almost equal to speed of light
D. greater than speed of light
4. One commercial unit of energy equals
A. 500 watt-seconds C. One kilowatt-hour
B. One watt-hour D. ten kilowatt-hour
5. One coulomb charge equal the charge on
A. 6.24 x 1012 electrons C. 6.24 x 1012 electrons
14
B. 6.24 x 10 electrons D. 6.24 x ���� electrons
6. The electrical energy required to heat a bucket of water to a certain temperature is 4kWh. If
the heat losses are 20 percent, the energy input is
A. 2 kWh B. 3.2 kWh C. 5 kWh D. 6 kWh
7. In gases flow of current is due to
A. electrons only C. electrons and positive ions
B. positive ions only D. electrons positive ions and negative ions
8. The maximum current rating for a 10kΩ, 0.5 W resistor is
A. 0.707 mA B. 7.07 mA C. 14.14 mA D. 28.28 mA
9. An electrical lamp consumes 100W of power. If the supply voltage is 220V the energy
consumed in 30 minutes is
A. 0.005 kWh B. 0.05 kWh C. 0.5 kWh D. 5 kWh
10. The S.I. unit of power is
A. henry B. coulomb C. watt D. watt-hour
11. Electric pressure is also called
A. resistance B. power C. voltage D. energy
12. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are
called
A. insulator B. inductors C. semi-conductors D. conductors
13. Out of the following which is not poor conductor?
A. Cast iron B. Copper C. Carbon D. Tungsten
14. Out of the following which is an insulating material?
A. Copper B. Gold C. Silver D. Paper
15. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
A. resistance B. reluctance C. conductance D. inductance
16. Conductance is reciprocal of
A. resistance B. inductance C. reluctance D. inductance
17. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as
 A. length C. temperature
B. area of cross-section D. resistivity
18. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
A. increases C. first increases and then decreases
B. decreases D. remains constant
19. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
A. decreases C. first increases and then decreases
B. increases D. remains constant
20. The resistance of copper wire 200 m long is 21Ω. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its
specific resistance is around
A. 1.2 x 10−8 Ω - m C. 1.6 x ��−� Ω - m
−8
B. 1.4 x 10 Ω - m D. 1.8 x 10−8 Ω - m
21. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected I parallel. The total
resistance of the combination is
A. 5 ohms 10 ohms C. 15 ohms D. 55 ohms
22. The resistance of two wires is 25Ω when connected in series and 6Ω when joined in parallel.
The resistance of each wire is
A. 10Ω, 15Ω B. 20Ω, 30Ω C. 5Ω, 10Ω D. 10Ω,
23. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
A. voltmeter B. rheostat C. wattmeter D. galvanometer
24. In a circuit a 33 Ω resistor carries a current of 2 A. the voltage across the resistor is
A. 33 V B. 66 V C. 80 V D. 132V
25. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240V. the resistance of a light bulb
is
A. 400Ω B. 600 Ω C. 800 Ω D. 1000 Ω
26. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of
one branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the other?
A. 18 Ω B. 36 Ω C. 48 Ω D. 64 Ω
27. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when
connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 Ω. If the same four wires are connected is
series the effective resistance will be
A. 1 Ω B. 2 Ω C. 3 Ω D. 4 Ω
28. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistance 8 ohms and
12 ohms respectively. The current in each branch is
A. 6.4 A, 6.9 A B. 6.4 A, 9.6 A C. 4.6 A, 6.9 A D. 4.6 A, 9.6 A
29. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
A. the same as propagation velocity of electric energy
B. independent of current strength
C. of the other of a few ��/�
D. nearly 3 x 108 m/s
30. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-efficient of resistance?
A. Manganin B. Porcelain C. Carbon D. Copper
31. You have to replace 1500 Ω resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Ω resistor but have several
1000 Ω ones which you would connect
 A. two in parallel C. three in parallel
B. two in parallel and one in series D. three in series
32. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
A. same current passes in turn through both
B. both carry the same value of current
C. total current equals the sum of branch currents
D. sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
33. Which of the following statement is true both for series and a parallel DC circuit?
A. elements have individual currents
B. currents are additive
C. voltages are additive
D. power are additive
34. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
A. Copper B. Aluminum C. Carbon D. Brass
35. Ohm’s law is not applicable to
A. vacuum tubes C. high voltage circuit
B. carbon resistor D. circuits with low current densities
36. Which is the best conductor of electricity?
A. Iron B. Silver C. Copper D. Carbon
37. For which of the following ‘ampere second’ could be the unit?
A. Reluctance B. Charge C. Power D. Energy
38. All of the following are equivalent to watt except?
A. (�������)2 ohm C. amperes x volts
B. Joules/sec. D. amperes/volt
39. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10W is likely to be a
A. metallic resistor C. wire wound resistor
B. carbon resistor D. variable resistor
40. Which of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient?
A. Aluminium B. Paper C. Rubber D. Mica
41. Varistors are
A. insulators C. carbon resistors
B. non-linear resistor D. resistors with zero temperature co-efficient
42. Insulating materials have the function of
A. preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
B. preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
C. conducting very large currents
D. storing very high currents
43. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in
A. ampere-hours B. ampere-volts C. kWh D. amperes
44. The minimum charge on an ion is
A. equal to the atomic number of the atom
B. equal to the charge of an electron
C. equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom
D. zero
45. In a series circuit with unequal resistance
A. the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
B. the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
C. the lowest resistance has the highest current
D. the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
46. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
A. carbon B. aluminum C. tungsten D. nickel
47. A 3 Ω resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of
A. 2 watts B. 4 watts C. 6 watts D. 8 watts
48. Which of the following statement is true?
A. a galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
B. a galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
C. a galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
D. a galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
49. The distance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is
A. practically zero C. high
B. low D. very high
50. In a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
A. increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
B. increases in each branch
C. is zero in all branches
D. is zero in the highest resistive branch
51. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohms resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
A. 0.4 ohms B. 0.6 ohms C. 0.8 ohms D. 1.0 ohms
52. Three 60W bulbs are in parallel across the 60V power line. If one bulb burns open
A. there will be heavy current in the main line
B. rest of the two bulbs will not light
C. all three bulbs will light
D. the other two bulbs will light
53. The four bulb of 40 W each are connected in series with a battery across them, which of the
following statement is true?
A. The current through each bulb in same
B. The voltage across each bulb is not same
C. the power dissipation in each bulb is not same
D. none of the above
54. Two resistance �1 and �2 are connected in series across the voltage source where �2 >�1 .
The largest drop will be across
A. �� B. �1 C. either �1 and �1 D. none of them
55. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons with
potential difference of 20 V across the terminal?
A. 5 joules B. 10 joules C. 15 joules D. 20 joules
56. A closed switch has a resistance of
A. zero B. about 50 ohms C. about 500 ohms D. infinity
57. The hot resistance of the bulb’s filament is higher than its cold resistance because the
temperature co-efficient of the filament is
A. zero B. negative C. positive D. about 2 ohms per degree
58. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to
A. reactance B. capacitance C. impedance D. resistance
59. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided
A. to prevent leakage of current C. both of above factors
B. to prevent shock D. none of the above factors
60. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends
A. the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
B. the magnitude of current flowing through it
C. both (a) or (b)
D. none of the above
61. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit?
A. Voltage B. Current C. Power D. Resistance
62. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replace by 100
W bulb, the heater output will
A. decrease C. remain same
B. increase D. heater will burn out
63. A 500 W, 220 V bulb is supplied with 110 V. Power consumption by the bulb will be
A. slightly less than 125 W C. exactly 125W
B. Slightly greater than 125 W D. 250 W
64. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes,
using same supply mains
A. length of heating element should be decreased
B. length of heating element should be increased
C. length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
D. none of the above
65. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
A. DC supply only C. Battery supply only
B. AC supply only D. All above
66. Resistance of a tungsten lamp ____ as applied voltage increases
A. decreases B. increases C. remains same D. none of the above
67. Electric current passing through the circuit produces
A. magnetic effect C. thermal effect E. all above effect
B. luminous effect D. chemical effect
68. Resistance of a material always decreases if
A. temperature of material is decreased
B. temperature of material is increase
C. number of free electron available become more
D. none of the above is correct
69. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low?
A. Input power C. True component of power E. Ratio of output to input
B. Losses D. kWh consumed
70. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due
to
A. collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
B. the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
C. mutual collisions between metal
D. mutual collisions between conducting electrons
71. Two bulbs of 500W and 200W rated at 250V will have resistance ratio as
A. 4:25 B. 25:4 C. 2:5 D. 5:2
72. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
A. it takes in proton C. it gives away electrons
B. its atoms are removed D. it gives away positive charge
73. Whether circuit may be AC or DC one, following is most effective in reducing the magnitude
of the current
A. Reactor B. Capacitor C. Inductor D. Resistor
74. It becomes more difficult to remove
A. any electron from the orbit C. second electron from the orbit
B. first electron from the orbit D. third electron from the orbit
75. When on leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
A. reduce B. increase C. decrease D. become zero
76. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load
A. increases B. decreases C. remains same D. none of the above
77. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which of
the following statement is correct?
A. 100 W lamp will glow brighter C. both lamps will glow equally bright
B. 40 W lamp will glow brighter D. 40 W lamp will fuse
78. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be
A. 4.84 Ω B. 48.4 Ω C. 484 Ω D. 4840 Ω
79. In the case of direct current
A. magnitude and direction of current remains constant
B. magnitude and direction of current changes with time
C. magnitude of current changes with time
D. magnitude of current remains constant
80. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This
suggests that the type of supply is
A. AC B. DC C. any of the above D. none of the above
81. Resistance of carbon filament lamp……as the applied voltage increases.
A. increases B. decreases C. remains same D. none of the above
82. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
A. parallel B. series-parallel C. series D. end-to-end
83. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
A. very low B. low C. high D. any value
84. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching
operation produces.
A. arcs across separating contacts C. both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
 B. mechanical noise of high intensity D. none of the above
85. Sparkling occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
A. resistance B. inductance C. capacitance D. impedance
86. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length without
change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
A. 1/9 times B. 3 times C. 9 times D. unchanged
87. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect if after removing a
portion of it, the power of the heater will.
A. decrease B. increase C. remain constant D. none of the above
88. A field of force can exist only between
A. two molecules B. two ions C. two atoms D. two mental particles
89. A substance whose molecules consists of dissimilar atoms is called
A. semi-conductor C. compound
B. super-conductor D. insulator
90. 1 microvolt is
A. 1 x 10−3 V B. A. 1 x 10−4 V C. A. 1 x 10−5 V D. A. 1 x ��−� V
91. Which of the following could be the value of resistivity of copper?
A. 1.72 x 10−4 Ω - m C. 1.72 x 10−6 Ω - m
B. 1.72 x 10−5 Ω - m D. 1.72 x ��−� Ω - m
92. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of
A. a column of mercury C. a cube of copper
B. a cube of carbon D. the unit length of wire
93. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant
resistance of the first combination to the second will be
A. 9 times B. 1/9 times C. 1/3 times D. 3 times
94. Which of the following relation is incorrect?
� �2
A. P = VI B. P = �2 � C. P = �� D. P = �
95. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances?
A. Lorentz method C. Ohms’s Law
B. Releigh method D. Wheatstone bridge method
96. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any
two corners?
A. 3/2 Ω B. 6 Ω C. 4 Ω D. 8/3 Ω
97. Ohm’s law is not applicable to
A. semi-conductors C. small resistors
B. DC circuits D. high currents
98. Specific resistance of a substance is measured in
A. Ω/m B. Ω/�2 C. Ω - m D. m/Ω
99. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four
times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance
of 40 ohms the resistance of other conductor will be
A. 160 ohms B. 80 ohms C. 20 ohms D. 10 ohms
100. A nichrome wire is used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2Ω/m. For a heater of
1kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will be
A. 80 m B. 60 m C. 40 m D. 20 m
101. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
A. ohms/°C B. mhos/ohm°C C. ohms/ohm°C D. mhos/°C
102. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity?
A. Zinc B. Lead C. Mercury D. Copper
103. According to the fuse law, the current carrying capacity varies as
1 1
A. (��������)2 B. �������� C. diameter D. (�������)�/�
104. Which of the following lamps will have least resistance at room temperature?
A. 25 W, 220 V B. 100 W, 220V C. 200 W/ 220 V D. 60 W/ 220 V
105. Which resistor will be physically larger in size?
1
A. 100 Ω, 10 W B. 10 Ω, 50 W C. 1 MΩ, 2 W D. 1 kΩ, 1 W
106. When current flows through heater coil it grows but supply wiring does not glow because
A. current through supply line flows at slower speed
B. supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
C. resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
D. supply wires are made of superior material
107. The condition for the validity under Ohm’s law is that
A. resistance must be uniform
B. current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
C. resistance must be wire wound type
D. temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end
108. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. a semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a
conductor and an insulator
B. a semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity of metal and insulator
C. a semi-conductor is one which conducts only half of the applied voltage
D. a semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and
insulator
109. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it
A. has lower wattage rating
B. has higher wattage rating
C. has large number of turns
D. offers large number of tappings
110. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper conductor of identical
cross-section, for the same electrical resistance, is
A. 50% B. 60% C. 100% D. 150%
111. An open resistor, when checked with an ohmmeter reads
A. zero C. high but within tolerance
B. infinite D. low but not zero
112. ____ are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals
but much greater than that of typical insulators.
 A. Varistors B. Thermistor C. Semi-conductors D. Variable resistors
113. All good conductors have high
A. conductance B. resistance C. reluctance D. thermal conductivity
114. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
A. charcoal B. silicon carbide C. nichrome D. graphite
115. Voltage dependent resistors are used
A. for inductive circuits C. as heating elements
B. to suppress the surges D. as current stabilizer
116. The ratio of mass proton to that of electron is nearly
A. 1840 B. 1850 C. 30 D. 4
117. The number of electrons in the outer-most orbit of carbon atom is
A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7
118. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total power
supplied by the voltage source equal.
A. 10 W B. 20 W C. 40 W D. 60 W
119. Three conductance’s in parallel have the values �1 = 2000 � mho, �2 = 3000 � mho, �3 =
4000 � mho. The total conductance will be
A. 6000 � mho B. 7000 � mho C. 9000 � mho D. 10000 � mho
120. A thermistor has
A. positive temperature coefficient C. zero temperature coefficient
B. negative temperature coefficient D. variable temperature coefficient
121. If I. R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule’s
law heat produces will be proportional to
A. �� �� B. �2 ��2 C. �2 �2 � D. �2 �2 �2
122. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
A. lead and zinc C. nickel and chromium
B. chromium and vanadium D. copper and silver
123. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one microampere current to flow
through it. The conductance of the circuit is
A. 1 � mho B. 106 mho C. 1 milli-mho D. none of the above
124. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient?
A. Compounds of silver C. Metallic alloys
B. Liquid metals D. Electrolytes
125. Conductance : mho
A. resistance: ohm C. inductance: farad
B. capacitance: henry D. lumen: steradian
126. 1 angstrom is equal to
A. 10−8 mm B. 10−6 cm C. ��−�� m D. 10−14 m
127. One newton metre is same as
A. one watt B. one joule C. five joules D. one joule second
128. The smallest particle of an element which takes part in chemical reaction is known as
___. Answer: atom
129. All matter is composed of ____. Answer: atoms
130. To be conductor, the substance must contain some ___ electrons. Answer: mobile
131. Conductivity depends on the number of electrons. (YES/NO)
132. The energy level of an electron decreases as its distance from the nucleus increases.
(YES/NO)
133. An electron in the second orbit possesses ____ energy than electron in the second orbit.
Answer: more
134. Atoms with fewer than four valence electrons are ____ conductors. Answer: good
135. Atoms with more than four valence electrons are ____ conductors. Answer: poor
136. Atoms with four valence electrons are ____. Answer: semi-conductors
137. Mass of an electron = ___ kg. Answer: 9.11 x ��−��
138. Mass of an electron is approximately equal to 1/1000 mass of proton. (YES/NO)
−15
139. Diameter of an electron ≃ 10 m. (YES/NO)
140. Mass of a proton = ____ kg. Answer: 1.67 x ��−��
141. When an electron is removed from neutral atom, this atom becomes positively charged
and is called a ____. Answer: positive ion
142. The controlled movement of electrons through a substance is called a ____.
Answer: current
143. Current is the mat at which electrons move. (YES/NO)
144. ____ force is the force that causes a current of electricity to flow.
Answrer: Electromotive
145. The ___ is a unit of potential difference and electromotive force. Answer: volt
146. Electron volt is a unit in terms of which the energies of atomic particles are expressed.
(YES/NO)
147. The opposition to flow of electrons is called _____. Answer: electrical resistance
148. The practical unit of electric resistance is mho. (YES/NO)
149. ____ of a material may be defined as the resistance between the opposite faces of a
metre cube of that material. Answer: Resistivity
150. The reciprocal of specific resistance of a material is called its ____.
Answer: conductivity
151. The unit of conductivity is ohm/metre. (YES/NO)
152. The resistance of metal conductors increases with rise of temperature. (YES/NO)
153. The resistance of semi-conductors and all electrolytes ____ as the temperature rises.
Answer: decreases
154. A linear resistor is one which Obeys ____ law. Answer: Ohm’s
155. At very low temperature, some metals acquire zero electrical resistance and zero
magnetic induction; the property known as ___. Answer: super-conductivity
156. ____ resistor is the simplest type of resistor and its value is constant and un-changeable.
Answer: fixed
157. A variable resistor is commonly called a control. (YES/NO)
158. The common type of special resistor is the fusible type. (YES/NO)
159. In a series combination of resistors, the current flowing through each resistor is different.
(YES/NO)
160. The resistivity of pure semi-conductors is of the order of 1 ohm-meter. (YES/NO)
161. The symbol marked R8 represents a ___ resistor. Answer: fixed
162. The part represented by the symbol marked R1 is a ___ resistor. Answer: variable
163. List the colour bands that would be found on the part represented by the symbol marked
R10. List the colours in the order they would be read ____, ____ and ____.
Answer: grey, red and orange
164. List the colour of the bands that would be found on the part represented by the symbol
marked R14 ____, ____ and ___. Answer: yellow, violet and red
165. When a piece of amber is rubbed, light objects such as lint or chaff are attracted to it by
force called ____. Answer: static electricity
166. Wire wound resistors can be made even up to a fraction of ohm. (YES/NO)
167. Power rating largely depends on the physical size of the resistor. (YES/NO)
168. Higher wattage resistors cannot operate at higher temperatures. (YES/NO)
169. Static charge of several thousand volts is generated on a person walking on ___ floor.
Answer: carpeted
170. In electrostatic copier, printed matter is reproduced because ink is ____ to the paper by
the static charges. Answer: attracted
171. When battery terminals are joined by wire, electrons flow in wire towards ____ terminal
of the battery. Answer: positive
172. When electrons move in a conductor, there is ___ distance between electrons.
Answer: some
173. Velocity of electron flow through a conductor is ___ that of light. Answer: less than
174. While selecting resistors for any particular application, following two factors are to be
considered namely ___ and ___. Answer: resistance value and wattage dissipation
175. Elements of electric heater and filament lamp are made of high resistivity materials. This
is done to ____ the length of filament. Answer: reduce
176. In parallel circuit, ____ is the same in or across each resistance. Answer: voltage
177. An electric bulb which is used on AC supply ____ be used on DC supply. Answer: can
178. Two heater coils of same materials are connected in parallel across the supply. Coil A
has diameter and length double that of coil B. Coil ___ will produce more heat. Answer: A
179. Current flow which does not change direction is called ____. Answer: DC
180. When a coulomb of electrons moves past point in a electric circuit in one second, we say
one ___ current flows in the circuit. Answer: ampere
181. 6.242 x 10−18 electrons constitute one coulomb. (YES/NO)
182. Positive charged body is rich in electrons. (YES/NO)
183. 60 W, 230 V has less resistance as compared to 60 W, 250 V lamps. (YES/NO)
184. Resistance of carbon increases with increase in temperature. (YES/NO)
185. Conventional current flows from + ve to – ve where electron drift is from – ve to + ve.
(YES/NO)
186. Conducting materials have less number of free electrons at room temperature and
insulating materials have more number of free electrons at room temperature. (YES/NO)
187. For the same dimensions of a conductor, its resistance depends upon the ___ of the
material. Answer: resistivity
188. Unit of electric power is kWh and of electric energy is kW. (YES/NO)
189. Opposition to the flow of direct current is termed as ___ and its unit is ___ whose symbol
is ____. Answer: resistance, ohm, Ω
190. Equivalent resistance of 3 branches in parallel, each having a resistance of R ohms =
�
____. Answer: �
191. Household appliances such as kettle, heater, fan, and refrigerator require ____ phase
supply. Answer: single
192. The combined resistance of a number of resistors connected in parallel will have
resistance less than the smaller resistor in the circuit. (YES/NO)
193. A batter with higher internal resistance is preferable. (YES/NO)
194. 1 ohm 55 W resistor will occupy more space as compared to 55 ohm 1 W resistor.
(YES/NO)
195. Electric resistance pyrometer is used to measure temperature above 1500°C.
(YES/NO)
NETWORK THEOREMS

1. Kirchhoff’s current law states that

A. net current flow at the junction is positive
B. algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
C. no current can leave the junction without some current entering it
D. total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero
2. According to Kirchhoff’s voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and e.m.fs. in any closed loop
of a network is always
A. negative C. determined by battery e.m.fs.
B. positive D. zero
3. Kirchhoff’s current law is applicable to only
A. junction in a network C. electric circuit
B. closed loops in a network D. electronic circuits
4. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is related to
A. junction current C. IR drops E. none of the above
B. battery e.m.fs. D. both (a) and (b)
5. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having
A. resistive elements C. non-linear elements
B. passive elements D. linear bilateral elements
6. The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is
A. reciprocity B. duality C. non-linearity D. linearity
7. Thevenin resistance ��ℎ is found
A. by removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances
B. by short-circuiting the given two terminals
C. between any two ‘open’ terminals
D. between same open terminals as for ���
8. An ideal voltage source should have
A. large value of emf C. zero source resistance
B. small value of emf D. infinite source resistance
9. For a voltage source
A. terminal voltage is always lower than source emf
B. terminal voltage cannot be higher than source emf
C. the source emf and terminal voltage are equal
10. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is necessary to know
A. value of current through the resistor
B. direction of current through the resistor
C. value of resistor
D. e.m.fs. in the circuit
11. “Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load resistance is equal to the output
resistance of the network as seen from the terminals of the load”. The above statement is associated
with
A. Millman’s theorem C. Superposition theorem
B. Thevenin’s theorem D. Maximum power transfer theorem
12. “Any number of current sources in parallel may be replaced by a single current source whose current
is the algebraic sum of individual source currents and source resistance is the parallel combination of
individual source resistances”. The above statement is associated with
A. Thevenin’s theorem C. Maximum power transfer theorem
B. Millman’s Theorem D. None of the above
13. “In any linear bilateral network, if a source of emf E in any branch produces a current I in any other
branch, then same emf acting in second branch would produce the same current I in the first branch”.
The above statement is associated with
A. compensation theorem C. reciprocity theorem
B. superposition theorem D. none of the above
14. Which of the following is non-linear circuit parameter?
A. inductance C. wire wound resistor
B. Condenser D. Transistor
15. A capacitor is generally a
A. bilateral and active component
B. active, passive, linear and non-linear component
C. linear and bilateral component
D. non-linear and active component
16. “In any network containing more than one sources of emf the current in any branch is the algebraic
sum of a number of individual fictitious currents( the number being equal to the number of sources of
emf), each of which is due to separate action of each source of emf, taken in order, when the
remaining sources of emf are replaced by conductors, the resistances of which are equal to the
internal resistances of the respective sources”. The above statement is associated with
A. Thevenin’s theorem C. Superposition theorem
B. Norton’s theorem D. None of the above
17. In a delta network each element has value R. The value of each element in equivalent star network
will be
� � �
A. 6
B. � 4 C. 2
D. �
18. Kirchhoff’s law is applicable to
A. passive network only C. DC circuits only
B. AC circuits only D. both AC as well as DC circuits
19. Kirchoff’s law is not applicable to circuit with
A. lumped parameters C. distributed parameters
B. passive elements D. non-linear resistances
20. Kirchhoff’s voltage law applies to circuits with
A. non-linear elements only
B. linear elements only
C. linear, non-linear, active and passive elements
D. linear, non-linear, active, passive, time varying as well as time-in-variant elements
21. For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
A. equal to the load resistance C. more than the load resistance
B. less than the load resistance D. none of the above
22. Efficiency of power transfer when maximum transfer of power occurs is
A. 100% B. 80% C. 75% D. 50%
23. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
A. equal to load resistance C. greater than the load resistance
B. less than the load resistance D. none of the above
24. If the energy is supplied from a source, whose resistance is 1 ohm, to a load of 100 ohms the source
will be
A. a voltage source B. a current source C. both of above D. none of the above
25. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is known as
A. unilateral circuit B. bilateral circuit C. irreversible circuit D. reversible circuit
26. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must be in
 A. series with each other C. series with the voltage source
B. parallel with each other D. parallel with the voltage source
27. If the circuit does not contain any source of energy or emf it is known as
A. unilateral circuit B. bilateral circuit C. passive network D. active network
28. The circuit parameters may be
(i) active (ii) passive (iii) linear (iv) non-linear
Which of the following is valid for a gas doide?
A. (i) and (ii) B. (i) and (iv) C. (ii) and (iv) D. (ii) and (iii)
29. Which of the following are linear and bilateral parameters?
A. resistors C. electrons tubes
B. semi-conductor diodes D. transistor
30. The common voltage across parallel branches with different voltage sources can be determined by
�1 /�1 + �2/�2+�3 /�3
the relation � = 1/�1+1/�2+1/�3
…….
The above statement is associated with
A. Superposition B. Thevenin’s Theorem C. Norton’s Theorem D. Millman’s Theorem
31. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor diodes. The circuit will be known as
A. non-linear circuit C. bilateral circuit
B. linear circuit D. none of the above
32. A non-linear network does not satisfy
A. superposition condition
B. homogeneity condition
C. both homogeneity as well as superposition condition
D. homogeneity, superposition and associative condition
33. An ideal voltage source has
A. zero internal resistance
B. open circuit voltage equal to the voltage on full load
C. terminal voltage in proportion to current
D. terminal voltage in proportion to load
34. A network which contains one or more than one source of emf is known as
A. linear network B. non-linear network C. passive network D. active network
35. The superposition theorem is applicable to
A. linear, non-linear and time variant responses
B. linear and non-linear resistors only
C. linear responses only
D. none of the above
36. Which of the following is not a non-linear element?
A. Gas diode B. Heater coil C. Tunnel diode D. Electric arc
37. Application of Norton’s theorem to circuit yields
A. equivalent current source and impedance in series
B. equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
C. equivalent impedance
D. equivalent current source
38. Millman’s theorem yields
A. equivalent resistance C. equivalent voltage source
B. equivalent impedance D. equivalent voltage or current source
39. The superposition theorem is applicable to
A. voltage only C. both current and voltage
B. current only D. current voltage and power
40. Between the branch voltages of a loop the Kirchhoff’s voltage law imposes
A. non-linear constraints C. no constraints
B. linear constraints D. none of the above
41. A passive network is one which contains
A. only variable resistances C. only two sources of emf in it
B. only some sources of emf in it D. no source of emf in it
42. A terminal where three on more branches meet is known as
A. node B. terminus C. combination D. anode
43. Which of the following is the passive element?
A. Capacitance B. Ideal current source C. Ideal voltage source D. All of the above
44. Which of the following is a bilateral element?
A. Constant current source C. Capacitance
B. Constant voltage source D. None of the above
45. A closed path made by several branches of the network is known as
A. branch B. loop C. circuit D. junction
46. A linear resistor having 0 < R < ∞ is a
A. current controlled resistor
B. voltage controlled resistor
C. both current controlled and voltage controlled resistor
D. none of the above
47. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements will be
�
A. R/6 B. � R C. 2R D. 4R
48. A delta circuit has each element of value R/2. The equivalent elements of star circuit with be
A. R/6 B. R/3 C. 2R D. 3R
49. In Thevenin’s theorem, to find Z
A. all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage sources are open
circuited.
B. all independent voltages sources are open circuited and all independent current sources are short
circuited.
C. all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
D. all independent voltages sources are short circuited and all independent current sources
are open circuited.
50. While calculating ��ℎ in Thevenin’s theorem and Norton equivalent
A. all independent sources are made dead
B. only current sources are made dead
C. only voltage sources are made dead
D. all voltage and current sources are made dead
51. The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal to
A. the number of chords
B. the number of branches
C. sum of the number of branches and chords
D. sum of the number of branches, chords and nodes
52. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are
A. sources, nodes and meshes C. sources
B. sources and nodes D. nodes
53. A conducting path through which an electric current either flows or is intended to flow is called a ____.
Answer: circuit
54. A ___ network is one which does not contain any source of emf. Answer: passive
55. An ____ network is one which contains one or more than one source of emf. Active: active
56. The part of a network which lies between two junctions is called node. (YES/NO)
57. A branch is a junction in a circuit where two or more circuit elements are connected together.
(YES/NO)
58. The circuit whose parameters change with voltage or current is called a ____ circuit.
Answer: non-linear
59. ____ circuit is that circuit whose properties or characteristics are same in either direction.
Answer: Bilateral
60. The circuit whose parameters are constant is called a linear circuit. (YES/NO)
61. A ___ circuit is one whose properties or characteristics change with the direction of its operation.
Answer: unilateral
62. The sum of the current entering a junction is greater than the sum of the currents leaving the junction.
(YES/NO)
63. The sum of the e.m.fs. (rise of potential) around any closed loop of a circuit equals the sum of the
potential drops in that loop. (YES/NO)
64. The ___ method (the most primitive one) involves more labour and is not used except for every
simple circuits. Answer: branch-current
65. Maxwell’s loop (or mesh) current method is the best suited when energy sources are ____ sources
rather than ___ sources. Answer: voltage, current
66. Superposition theorem is applicable only to ___ networks. Answer: linear
67. ____ theorem is quite useful when the current in one branch of a network is to be determined or when
the current in an added branch is to be calculated. Answer: Thevenin’s
68. ____ theorem is particularly useful for analyzing communication networks.
Answer: Maximum power transfer
69. An ideal constant voltage source has ____ internal impedance whereas a constant source has ___
internal impedance. Answer: zero, infinite
70. Current source has internal impedance connected in ____ with it whereas voltage source has internal
impedance connected in ___ with it. Answer: parallel, series
71. Total resistance of a parallel circuit is ____ the smallest branch resistance. Answer: less than
ELECTROSTATICS AND CAPACITANCE

1. The force between two charges is 120 N. if the distance between the charges is doubled, the force
will be.
A. 60 N B. 30 N C. 40 N D. 15 N
2. The mass of an electron is equal to
A. 1.602 x 10−19 kg C. 1.673 x 10−27 kg
B. 9.11 x �� −��
kg D. 9.11 x 10−20 kg
3. As per Coulombs’s law
�1� �1 �2 � � � �
A. F = �0� �22 B. F = 4��2
C. F = �����
� �
��
D. F = 4��0�
1 2
�
� � �
4. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 meters from a point charge is 200 N/C. If the distance
is reduced to 2 meters, the field intensity will be
A. 400 N/C B. 600 N/C C. 800 N/C D. 1200 N/C
5. Electric intensity (E) at any point in an electric field is equal to
A. potential gradient C. (��������� ��������)1/2
B. (��������� ��������)2 D. (��������� ��������)1/3
6. The lines of force due to charged particles are
A. always straight C. sometimes curve
B. always curve D. none of the above
7. The electric field at a point situated at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor
is
A. proportional to d C. inversely proportional to �2
B. inversely proportional to d D. none of the above
8. The direction of electric field due to positive charge is
A. away from the charge C. both (a) and (b)
B. towards the charge D. none of the above
9. A field line and an equipotential surface are
A. always parallel C. inclined at any angle �
B. always at 90° D. none of the above
10. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on one another is attributed to the existence of
A. electrons B. protons C. neutrons D. electric field
11. If the sheet of a Bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the capacitance will
A. decrease B. increase C. remains unchanged D. become zero
12. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is
A. 0.024 F B. 0.12 F C. 0.6 F D. 0.8 f
13. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having
A. low permittivity C. permittivity same as that of air
B. high permittivity D. permittivity slightly more than that of air
14. The units of capacitance are
A. volts/coulomb C. ohms
B. coulombs/volts D. henry/Wb
15. If three 15 �� capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
A. 5 �� B. 30 �� C. 45 �� D. 50 ��
16. If three 10 �� capacitors are connected in parallel, the net capacitance is
A. 20 �� B. 30 �� C. 40 �� D. 50 ��
17. A dielectric material must be
A. resistor B. insulator C. good conductor D. semi-conductor
18. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for
 A. DC only B. AC only C. both DC as well as AC
19. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by
A. distance between plates C. thickness of plates
B. area of plates D. all of the above
20. The capacitance of a cylindrical capacitor is given by
�0�� 2��0�� 2
A. log C. log
� �2/�1 � �2/�1
3��0�� ������
B. log� �2/�1
D. ���� ��/��
21. Which of the following is not a vector?
A. Linear momentum C. Electric field
B. Angular momentum D. Electric potential
22. Electric flux in coulombs emanating from any surface of a cube containing C coulombs of charge at
its center is
� 4�� � �
A. 4� B. 6�
C. 6
D. ��
23. Two metal plates distance ‘d’ apart from a capacitor of value C farads. Another metal plate of
thickness d/2 and of the same area is inserted in between these two plates, capacitance of this three
plate capacitor will be
A. 4 B. 2 C. 1/2 D. 1/4
24. Electric field inside a hollow metallic charged sphere is
A. increasing towards center C. zero
B. decreasing towards center D. none of the above
25. A conducting body has surface charge density of � coulombs/�2 , the field intensity at its surface will
be
� �2
A. ��� C. �0�
� �
�3
B. �0�� � D. �0��
26. Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor after being charged from a constant voltage source are
separated apart by means of insulated handles, then the
A. voltage across the plates increases
B. voltage across the plates decreases
C. charge on the capacitor decreases
D. charge on the capacitor increases
27. If Ac voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current will flow in the circuit because
A. varying voltages produces the charging and discharging current
B. of high peak value
C. charging current can flow
D. discharging current can flow
28. Voltage applied across ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100 times greater than air.
What will be the value of dielectric constant?
A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200
29. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Air capacitors have a blackband to indicate the outside foil
B. Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
C. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity
D. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 ��
30. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of
A. 0.0002 B. 0.002 C. 0.02 D. 0.2
31. “The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the amount of
charge enclosed”. The above statement is associated with
A. Coulomb’s square law C. Maxwell’s first law
B. Gauss’s law D. Maxwell’s second law
32. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be obtained by
using them
A. all in series C. two in parallel and third in series with this combination
B. all in parallel D. two in series and third in parallel across this combination
33. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains unaffected?
A. Distance between plates C. Nature of dielectric
B. Area of the plates D. Thickness of the plates
34. Which of the following statement is true?
A. the current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
B. the current in the discharging capacitor grows exponentially
C. the current in the discharging capacity decays exponentially
D. the current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
35. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength?
A. E = D/� B. E = �2 /� C. E = �D D. E = ��2
36. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in
A. metal plates B. dielectric C. both (a) and (b) D. none of the above
37. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
A. Glass B. Vacuum C. Ceramics D. Oil
38. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation?
A. Paper capacitor C. Silver plated mica capacitor
B. Ceramic capacitor D. None of the above
39. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. the leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
B. the stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance
C. the stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
D. a wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
40. Which of the capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life?
A. Mica capacitor C. Ceramic capacitor
B. Electrolytic capacitor D. Paper capacitor
41. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
A. capacitor in parallel with contacts
B. capacitor in series with each contact
C. resistance in line
D. none of the above
42. In the case of the lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
A. small B. very small C. large D. zero
43. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
A. zero C. proportional to value of capacitance
B. proportional to applied voltage D. both (b) and (c) above
44. In a capacitive circuit
A. a steady value of applied voltages causes discharge
B. an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
C. decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
D. none of the above
45. When a dielectric slab in introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference between
plates will
A. remain uncharged C. increase
B. decrease D. become zero
46. Capacitance increases with
A. increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
B. increase in plate area and distance between the plates
C. decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
D. reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
47. A capacitor consists of
A. two insulator separated by a conductor
B. two conductors separated by an insulator
C. two insulators only
D. two conductors only
48. A gang condenser is a
A. polarized capacitor C. ceramic capacitor
B. variable capacitor D. none of the above
49. A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of
A. tubes B. rolled foil C. disc D. meshed plates
50. Air capacitors are generally available in the range
A. 10 to 400 pF B. 1 to 20 pF C. 100 to 900 pF D. 20 to 100 pF
51. The unit of capacitance is
A. henry B. ohm C. farad D. farad/m
52. A capacitor charge to 200 V has 2000 �C of charge. The value of capacitance will be
A. 10 F B. 10�F C. 100�F D. 1000�F
53. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong connections, which type of
capacitor it could be?
A. Paper capacitor C. Electrolytic capacitor
B. Ceramic capacitor D. Any of the above
54. Voltage across capacitor at any time T during charging from a DC source of voltage V is given by
2
A. � = � �−� / � C. � = �2 �−�/ �
B. � = �(� − �−�/ � ) D. � = �2 (1 − �−�/ �)
55. The ratio of electric flux density to electric field intensity is called ____ of the medium
A. permeability B. permittivity C. reluctance D. capacitance
56. Energy stores in the electric field of a capacitor C when charge from a DC source of voltage V is
equal to ___ joules
� 1
A. � ��� B. 2
�2 � C. ��2 D. �2 �
57. The absolute permittivity of free space is given by
A. 8.854 x 10−9 F/m C. 8.854 x 10−11 F/m
B. 8.854 x 10 −19
F/m D. 8.854 x ��−�� F/m
58. The relative permittivity of free space is given by
A. 1 B. 10 C. 100 D. 1000
59. Electric field intensity is a ____ quantity
A. scalar B. vector C. both (a) and (b) D. none of the above
60. When 4 volts emf is applied across 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
A. 2 joules B. 4 joules C. 6 joules D. 8 joules
61. With steady DC voltage from a battery applied to a capacitance, after it charges to the battery voltage,
the current in the circuit
 A. a smaller for larger values of capacitance
B. is greater for larger values of capacitance
C. is zero for any capacitance value
D. depends on the current rating of the battery
62. The capacitor preferred for high frequency circuits is
A. air capacitor C. electrolytic capacitor
B. mica capacitor D. none of the above
63. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
A. kW B. kVA C. kVAR D. volts
64. While testing a capacitor with ohmmeter, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final resistance
reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
A. short-circuited B. open circuited C. alright D. leaky
65. If a 6 �F capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in coulombs will be
A. 800 �C B. 900�C C. 1200�C D. 1600�C
66. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings?
A. ceramic capacitor C. Both will be equal size
B. paper capacitor D. none of the above
67. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF condenser to make an
equivalent capacitance of 150 pF?
A. 50 pF B. 100 pF C. 150 pF D. 200 pF
68. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions. Which will have
more value of capacitance?
A. ceramic capacitor C. both will have identical value of capacitance
B. Mica capacitor D. it depends on applied voltage
69. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant?
A. ceramics B. oil C. glass D. paper
70. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage?
A. Mica B. Paper C. Ceramic D. Electrolytic
71. The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually
A. 20 to 60 volts C. 2000 to 3000 volts
B. 200 to 1600 volts D. more than 10000 volts
72. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly
A. 200 B. 3 to 8 C. 100 D. 1 to 2
73. The value of dielectric constant fro vacuum is taken as
A. zero B. 1 C. 4 D. 10
74. Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity?
A. Air B. Paper C. Mica D. Electrolytic
75. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation?
A. Air capacitor C. Paper capacitor
B. Ceramic capacitor D. None of the above
76. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the voltage breakdown rating for
a capacitor
B. A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the
capacitance value of 500 pF
C. Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for the
combination
D. A capacitor can store charge because it has dielectric between two conductors
77. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of
 A. ± 5% B. ± 10% C. ± 15% D. ± 20%
78. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred?
A. Paper capacitor C. Ceramic disc capacitor
B. Mica capacitor D. None of the above
79. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a distance of 0.5 m
will be
A. 36 x 106 N B. 36 x 107 N C. 36 x 108 N D. 36 x ��� N
80. The units of volume charge density are
A. Coulomb/meter C. Coulomb/������
B. Coulomb/����� 2
D. Coulomb/�����4
81. “The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any closed surface
equals the charge enclosed by the surface”. The above statement is associated with
A. Gauss’s law B. Kirchhoff’s law C. Faraday’s law D. Lenz’s law
82. The potential of the sphere is given by
�2 � � �
A. 4��0� B. ��� C. ��0� D. 8��0�2
��
83. Dielectric strength of mica is
A. 10 to 20 kV/mm B. 30 to 50 kV/mm C. 50 to 200 kV/mm D. 300 to 500 kV/mm
84. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by
A. 0.1 to 0.4 B. 0.5 to 1.0 C. 2.0 to 4.0 D. 5 to 100
85. ___ capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning
A. Paper B. Air C. Mica D. Electrolytic
86. ___ capacitors can be used only for DC
A. Air B. Paper C. Mica D. Electrolytic
87. ___ capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning
A. Air B. Mica C. Plastic film D. Ceramic
88. The area of plates of the parallel plate capacitor, to obtain capacity of 0.3 x 10−3 �� if they are
separated by a distance of 10 mm and a dielectric between them of permittivity =2.5, will be
A. 0.1 �2 B. 0.125 �2 C. 0.135 �� D. 0.235 �2
89. If three capacitors �1 , �2 and �3 of values of 1 �� , 2 �� and 4 �� respectively are in series and
connected across a potential of 230 V, then charge on each capacitor is
A. 111 x −6 C B. 121 x 10−6 C C. 131 x ��−� C D. 161 x 10−6 C
90. The inverse capacitance is called
A. reluctance B. conductance C. susceptance D. elastance
91. When the dielectric is homogeneous, the potential gradient is
A. uniform B. non-uniform C. zero D. any of the above
92. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is ___ than across the material of high
permittivity
A. smaller B. greater C. both (a) and (c) D. none of the above
93. ____ field is associated with the capacitor.
A. Electric B. Magnetic C. Both (a) and (b) D. none of the above
94. A capacitor having capacitance of 5 �� is charged to a potential difference of 10, 000 V. the energy
stored in the capacitor is.
A. 50 joules B. 150 joules C. 200 joules D. 250 joules
95. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the internal diameter of
sheath 25 mm. the maximum electrostatic stress in the cable is
A. 62 x 105 V/m B. 72 x ��� V/m C. 82 x 105 V/m D. 92 x 105 V/m
96. For a medium of relative permittivity �� , the field strength is
 � �
A. � = ����
N/C C. � = 4��0��
N/C
�2 �0��
B. � = �0��
N/C D. � = �
N/C
97. An equipotential surface is one which has all points at ___ potential
A. same B. different C. zero D. none of the above
98. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a potential difference of 100
V. The acceleration of an electron placed between them is
�
A. 0.56 x 1015 m/�2 C. 1.6 x 1015 m/�2 ����. � = �. �, � =
�
B. 1.5 x 1015 m/�2 D. 1.76 x ���� m/��
99. The capacitance of an isolated sphere is given by
A. 4����� B. 4�2 �0�� � C. 2��0�2 � D. 3��0�2 �
100. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as
A. current B. voltage C. potential gradient D. charge
101. The relative permittivity has the following units
A. F/m B. m/F C. Wb/m D. no units
102. If the relative permittivity of mica is 5, its absolute permittivity is
A. 44.27 x ��−�� F/m C. 44.27 x 10−10 F/m
B. 44.27 x 10−11 F/m D. 44.27 x 10−9 F/m
103. The direction of the lines of force at any point is the direction along which a unit ___ charge
places at that point would move if free to do so
A. positive B. negative C. both of the above D. none of the above
104. It was suggested by ____ that the electric field should be imagined to be divided into tubes of
force containing a fixed number of lines of force.
A. Kelvin B. Newton C. Faraday D. All of the above
105. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a charged
body is known as ____
A. pholoelectric effect C. magnetic effect
B. chemical effect D. induction
106. A unit tube of flux is known as ___ tube
A. Newton B. Faraday C. Michale D. None of the above
107. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is called
A. electric flux C. magnetic flux density
B. electric flux density D. electric charge density
108. The unit of electric intensity is
A. N/�2 B. Wb/�2 C. N/C D. �2 /C
109. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of
A. Faraday’s laws B. Kirchhoff’s laws C. Coulomb’s laws D. none of the above
110. ____ at a point maybe defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally through a unit
cross-section at that point
A. Electric intensity C. Electric flux
B. Magnetic flux density D. None of the above
111. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the ___ at that point
A. electric flux C. potential gradient
B. magnetic flux density D. none of the above
112. Electric flux density (D) is related to electric field intensity (E) by the relation
A. D = ∈� ∈� � B. D = ∈0 ∈� �2 C. D = ∈0 ∈� � D. D = ∈� �3
113. Electric displacement is a ___ quantity.
 A. scalar B. vector C. both of the above D. none of the above
114. “The surface integral of normal component of the electric intensity E over a closed surface is
1
equal to ∈ times the total charge inside it”. The above statement is known as
0
A. Gauss’s theorem C. Lenz’s law
B. Faraday’s law D. None of the above
115. A point of charge of 10−9 C is placed at a point A in a free space. The intensity of electrostatic
field on the surface of a sphere of radius 50 mm and center A is given by
A. 2000 V/m B. 3000 V/m C. 3151 V/m D. 3595 V/m
116. ____ at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point
A. Electric intensity C. Magnetic flux
B. Electric flux D. Magnetic flux density
117. The unit of dielectric strength is given by
A. V/m B. �2 /m C. m/V D. m/�2
118. Dielectric strength ____ with increasing thickness
A. increases B. decreases C. remains unaltered D. none of the above
119. The relation between the breakdown voltage V and the thickness (t) of the dielectric is given by V
= A�2/3 , where A is a constant depending on the nature of the medium and also on the thickness t.
The above statement is known as
A. Kirchhoff’s law C. Baur’s law
B. Faraday’s law D. None of the above
120. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its
A. capacitance B. charge C. energy D. none of the above
121. ____ is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
A. Inductance B. Capacitance C. Potential gradient D. None of the above
122. Capacitance of a multiplate capacitor is given by
�−1 �0�� � (�−1)2 �0�� � �−1 �0�� �2 �−� �����
A. �2
B. �2
C. �
D. �
123. In a concentric cable capacitor the diameters of the inner and outer cylinders are 3 and 10 mm
respectively. It �� for insulation is 3, find its capacitance per meter.
A. 100 pF B. 110 pF C. 118.8 pF D. 138.8 pF
124. Two capacitor of capacitance 4 �� and 2 �� respectively, are joined in series with a battery of emf
100 V. the connections are broken and the like terminals of the capacitors are then joined. The final
charge on each capacitor will be
A. 50 ��, 25 �� B. 178 ��, 89 �� C. 200 ��, 170 �� D. 300 ��, 280 ��
125. Two capacitor A and B are connected in series across a 100 v supply and it is observed that the
p.ds. across them are 60 V and 40 V respectively. A capacitor of 2 �� is now connected in parallel
with A and p.d. across B rises to 90 V. What is capacitance of A and B in ��?
A. 0.16 ��, 0.24 �� C. 0.64 ��, 0.9 ��
B. 0.28 ��, 0.42 �� D. 1.2 ��, 1.8 ��
126. An air capacitor of capacitance 0.005 �� connected to a direct voltage of 500 V is disconnected
and then immersed in oil with a relative permittivity of 2.5. What is the energy stored in the capacitor
before and after immersion
A. 125 x 10−6 J, 50 x 10−6 J C. 800 x 10−6 J, 4000 x 10−6 J
B. 625 x �� J, 250 x �� J
−� −�
D. none of the above
127. A capacitance of 100 �� is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 Ω. The time constant of
the circuit is
A. 0.2 s B. 0.4 s C. 0.6 s D. 0.8 s
128. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of the
 A. earth B. conduction C. sheath D. insulator
129. The time constant of R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging voltage
actually rises to ___ percent of its ___ value.
A. 37, initial B. 63.2, initial C. 63.2 final D. 37, final
130. The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the charging
current falls ___ percent of its initial maximum value.
A. 37 B. 42 C. 63 D. 73
131. The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by
A. plate area B. plate separation C. nature of dielectric D. none of the above
E. all of the above
132. A capacitor consist of two
A. ceramic plates and one mica disc C. silver-coated insulators
B. insulator separated by a dielectric D. conductors separated by an insulators
133. Permittivity is expressed in
A. Farad/sq-m B. Farad/meter C. Weber/meter D. Weber/sq-m
134. Dielectric strength of a material depends on
A. moisture content C. thickness E. none of the above
B. temperature D. all of the above
135. What will happen to an insulting medium if voltage more than the break-down voltage is applied
on it?
A. it will become magnetic C. it will get punctured or cracked
B. it will melt D. its molecular structure will get changed
136. Which medium has the least dielectric strength?
A. Parafinn wax B. Quarrtz C. Glass D. Air
137. 1 volt/meter is same as
A. 1 meter/coulomb C. 1 Newton/meter
B. 1 Newton meter D. 1 joule/coulomb
138. One volt is the same as
A. one joule/coulomb C. one coulomb/joule
B. one coulomb D. one joule
139. The capacitance between two plates increases with
A. shorter plate area and higher applied voltage
B. shorter plate area and shorter distance between them
C. larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher applied voltage
D. larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
140. The capacitance C is charge through a resistance R. The time constant of charging circuit is
given by
A. C/R B. 1/RC C. RC D. R/C
141. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
A. Wien’s bridge B. Wheatsone bridge C. Schering bridge D. Hay’s bridge
142. A capacitor of 80 �� is charged to a p.d. of 250 V. The charge acquire by it is
A. 0.02 C B. 0.2 C C. 0.3 C D. 0.4 C
143. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor is
A. charged B. short-circuited C. lossy D. satisfactory
144. A capacitance of 1 �� equals
A. 10−12 F B. 10−8 F C. ��−� F D. 10−4 F
145. Voltage applied across a dielectric produces an electrostatic field 50 times greater than air. The
dielectric constant of the dielectric will be
A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 50
146. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest dimensions?
A. Aluminum foil capacitor C. Ceramic capacitor
B. Mica capacitor D. Paper capacitor
147. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then
A. the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
B. the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the
charging body
C. the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
D. it remains as such
148. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one increases the
A. charge of the charged conductor C. potential of the charged conductor
B. capacity of the charged conductor D. all of the above
149. Paper condenser is
A. always polarized C. electrolytic condenser
B. usually of fixed value D. a variable condenser
150. Mica capacitor are characterized by all of the following except
A. stable operation C. accurate value
B. low leakage reactance D. low losses
151. A variable capacitor of 100 �� carries a charge of 0.35 �� . The capacitance is subsequently
reduced to 40 pF. The voltage appearing across the capacitor after reduction of its capacitance will
be
A. 8750 V B. 4350 V C. 2000 V D. 1500 V
152. A potential 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which are 4mm apart. The strength of
electric field is
A. 100 kV/m B. 10 kV/m C. 5 kV/m D. 2kV/m
153. For a good 0.05 �� capacitor ohmmeter reading should
A. show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resistance
B. slow high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance
C. go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain there
D. not move at all
154. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is
A. infinity B. few kilo ohms C. few mega ohms D. zero
155. Which of the following capacitors will have least energy stored in it?
A. A 20 �� capacitor charged to 400 V C. A 600 pF capacitor charged to 15 kV
B. A 1 �� capacitor charged to 5 kV D. Energy stored in each above will be same
156. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 5 to 20 ��
B. Air capacitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
C. Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
D. Ceramic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
157. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits?
A. Air capacitor C. Mica capacitor
B. Electrolytic capacitor D. none of the above
158. An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide
A. low capacitance C. variable capacitance
B. fixed capacitance D. large value of capacitance
159. In order to removed static electricity from machinery
A. construct insulated cabins C. ground the framework
B. insulate the machinery D. humidify the surroundings
160. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and similar charges, then this third
charge will
A. move out of the field of influenced of the two charges
B. remains in stable equilibrium
C. not be in equilibrium
D. be in unstable equilibrium
161. A region around a stationary electric charge has
A. an electric field B. a magnetic field C. both (a) and (b) D. none of the above
162. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
A. insulation B. conductor C. outer sheath D. uniformly all over
163. Dielectric strength of medium
A. increases with rise in temperature C. is same for all insulating materials
B. increases with moisture content D. none of the above
164. A charged which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a force of
9 x 103 N, is known as
A. milli-coulomb B. micro-coulomb C. pico-coulomb D. coulomb
165. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in
A. J/mm B. C/�2 C. kV/mm D. N/mm
166. Which of the following medium will have highest value of relative permittivity?
A. Water B. Glass C. Mica D. Paper
167. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When they are moved close together
so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force between them will be
A. 5 times smaller than before C. 10 times greater than before
B. 5 times greater than before D. 25 times greater than before
168. “The force of attraction or repulsion between two charges �1 and �2 at a distance d meters apart
is proportional to the product of charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance
between the two charges”. The above statement is associated with
A. Maxwell’s law B. Lenz’s law C. Coulomb’s law D. Faraday’s law
169. Which of the most superior dielectric out of the following?
A. Air B. Glass C. Bakelite D. Paper
170. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the field strength
A. decreases B. increases C. reduce to zero D. remain unchanged
171. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather
A. surface is moistened C. oil compound dressing is done
B. conductive dressing is done D. talcum powder is sprayed on the surface
172. A capacitor having a capacitance of 40 �� is connected across 250 V DC source. The charging
current will be least
A. when capacitor is fully charged C. when capacitor is almost 25% charged
B. when capacitor is half charged D. initially
173. A variable capacitance is one whose capacitance
A. changes with temperature C. can be changed manually or by mechanical means
B. changes with time D. changes with voltage
174. In case of lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
A. large B. small C. very small D. negligible
175. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor?
A. Mica capacitor B. Paper capacitor C. Electrolytic capacitor D. Ceramic capacitor
176. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in circuit
A. current B. voltage C. impedance D. none of the above
177. If Q and C be the charge and capacity of a condenser, then the energy stored in the capacitor is
given by
1 1 � 1
A. 2 �2 � B. 2 �2 /�2 C. � �� /� D. 2 �2 �2
178. A condenser suitable for DC only is
A. metallic plate variable gang condenser
B. metallic paper capacitor
C. oil impregrated paper condenser
D. poled aluminum electrolytic condenser
179. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in
A. metal plates C. dielectric as well as metal plates
B. dielectric D. none of the above
180. Internal heating of a capacitor is usually attributed to
A. electron movement C. dielectric charge
B. leakage resistance D. plate vibration
181. If the dielectric of a capacitor is replaced by conducting material
A. the capacitance value of the capacitor will shoot up to very high value
B. the capacitor can store infinite charge
C. the plates will get short-circuited
D. the capacitor will get heated up due to eddy currents
182. The electrons, in a dielectric, get detached from the atoms under
A. high current B. high voltage C. variable current D. breakdown
183. When a capacitor undergoes a dielectric breakdown
A. dielectric stores energy rendering plates charge less
B. electrons get scattered
C. electrons cease to move from one plate to another
D. permanent conduction path is established between plates
�
184. If C be the capacitance, V be the potential difference and I be the current, then
��
will have the
unit of
A. frequency B. power C. reactive power D. time
185. If a current of 2 A passes through a lamp for 200 seconds, the number of coulombs of charge
passing through the lamp in that time be
A. 100 C B. 200 C C. 300 C D. 400 C
186. A ceramic and a mica capacitor have the same physical dimensions. Which has the higher value
of capacitance?
A. Ceramic capacitor
B. Mica capacitor
C. Both have identical value of capacitance
D. it is not possible to conclude on the basis of information supplied
187. ___ is a branch of science which deals with electricity at rest. Answer: Electrostatic
188. The ___ of the body is defined as the total excess of deficit of electrons. Answer: charge
189. The force existing between two charged bodies is called a/an ___field. Answer: electrostatic
190. The insulator between the plates of a capacitor is called a/an ____. Answer: dielectric
191. A dielectric between two plates will breakdown if the ____ becomes too high. Answer: voltage
192. Electrostatic field strength is measured in ____. Answer: volts/meter
193. The charge in a capacitor is stored in the ___ field. Answer: electrostatic
194. The unit capacitance is the ____. Answer: farad
1
195. The amount of energy in the joules that can be stored in a capacitor equals ____. Answer: ��2
2
196. Permittivity in the ease with which an electrostatic field can be established in a dielectric. The
value is known as ____ constant. Answer: dielectric
197. An electric charge represents potential energy because work is done in adding or subtracting
electrons. (YES/NO)
198. Like charges attract and unlike charges repel each other. (YES/NO)
199. The relative permittivity is measured by choosing vacuum or free space as reference medium.
(YES/NO)
200. 1 �� = 10−5 � (coulombs). (YES/NO)
201. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the potential gradient at that point.
(YES/NO)
202. Electric displacement is given by normal flux per unit area. (YES/NO)
203. An ____ surface is one having all points at the same potential. Answer: equipotential
204. The __ is the rate of change of potential measured in the direction of the electric force.
Answer: potential gradient
205. The potential gradient is numerically equal to the____. Answer: field strength
206. A ___ is a device capable of storing electric charge. Answer: capacitor
207. ____ is a measure of ability of a capacitor to store an electric charge. Answer: Capacitance
(�−1)2 �0 �� �
208. The capacitance of a multiplate capacitor is given by: � = �2
. (YES/NO)
209. The energy stored in the capacitor ___ the work done to put the charge on the capacitor in
opposition to the voltage on the capacitor. Answer: equals
210. The ___ material of a capacitor largely determines the characteristics of the capacitor.
Answer: dielectric
211. The capacitors are usually identified by ___ used. Answer: dielectric
212. ____ capacitor is mainly used for radio work where it is required to vary the capacitance.
Answer: Air
213. ___ capacitors are the cheapest type but physically bigger than several other types.
Answer: paper
214. The main application of ___ capacitors is in power supplies for filtering. Answer: paper
215. ___ capacitors are mainly used in high-frequency circuits when it is necessary to reduce to
minimum the loss in dielectric. Answer: Mica
216. ____ capacitors are used in the communication electronic field. Answer: Ceramic
217. ____ capacitor is used only for DC applications. Answer: Electrolytic
218. Science dealing with charges at is rest is called ____ electricity and that dealing with charges in
motion is called ____ electricity. Answer: static, dynamic
219. Two charge each of one coulomb when place one meter apart in air will repel or attract each
other with a force of ____ newtons. Answer: � � ���
220. According to Gauss’s theorem, total electric flux emanating from the surface surrounding a
charge of Q coulomb is ____. Answer: Q coulombs
221. Capacity ratio of a capacitor with dielectric medium to what with air medium is called ____.
Answer: relative permittivity
222. Potential at any point inside a charged hollow sphere is ____ as at different points.
Answer: same
223. One electron volt of energy is equal to ____ joules. Answer: 1.6 x ��−��
224. A stationary electric charge produces ____ field. Answer: electric
225. At any point inside the charge hollow sphere electric ___ is zero. Answer: field
226. Space where unit positive charge experiences force is called ____ and magnitude of this force
gives the ____. Answer: electric field, electric intensity
227. Electric lines of force are supposed to ___ positive charge and ___ negative charge.
 Answer: emanate from, terminate on
228. Capacitance of an isolated sphere is ____. Answer: 4�� �� �
229. A capacitor can store the charge because it has dielectric between the two conductors. (YES/NO)
230. The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and lower is the voltage breakdown rating for
a capacitor. (YES/NO)
231. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is practically same as power factor of the dielectric.
(YES/NO)
232. A capacitor takes 1 second for 0.1 ampere charging current when connected to 250 V DC supply,
then the capacitor has a charge of ____coulomb and the capacity of the capacitor is ___ ��.
Answer: 0.1, 40
233. Three capacitors of different values are in series across a source of V volts, and then voltage
across each is same. (YES/NO)
234. A stationary electric charge situated in a magnetic field experiences a mechanical force.
(YES/NO)
235. Potential of every point inside a hollow charged sphere is same. (YES/NO)
236. Three capacitors of different values are in series across a source of V volts then charge across
each is same. (YES/NO)
237. Electric field intensity is numerically same as potential gradient at the point. (YES/NO)
238. Two point charges + Q and – Q are placed distance d apart. The resultant electric field will be
parallel to the line joining the two charges at any point lying on ____.
Answer: perpendicular bisector of d
MAGNETISM and ELECTROMAGNETISM

1. Tesla is a unit of
A. field strength B. inductance C. flux density D. flux
2. A permeable substance is one
A. which is good conductor
B. which is bad conductor
C. which is a strong magnet
D. through which the magnetic lines of force can pass very easily
3. The materials having low retentivity are suitable for making
A. weak magnets C. permanent magnets
B. temporary magnets D. none of the above
4. A magnetic field exist around
A. iron B. copper C. aluminum D. moving charges
5. A magnet does not attract
A. cobalt B. nickel C. copper D. iron
6. Aluminum and platinum are ____ materials.
A. ferromagnetic B. diamagnetic C. paramagnetic D. insulating
7. Ferrites are ___ materials.
A. paramagnetic B. diamagnetic C. ferromagnetic D. none of the above
8. Air gap has ___ reluctance as compared to iron or steel path
A. little B. lower C. higher D. zero
9. The direction of magnetic lines of force is
A. from South Pole to north pole C. from one end of the magnet to another
B. from North Pole to south pole D. none of the above
10. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
A. Relative permittivity C. Flux density
B. Magnetic field intensity D. Magnetic potential
11. The two conductors of a transmission line carry equal current I in opposite direction. The force on
each conductor is
A. proportional to I C. proportional to distance between conductors
B. proportional to �� D. inversely proportional to �2
12. A material which is slightly repelled by a magnetic field is known as
A. ferromagnetic material C. paramagnetic material
B. diamagnetic material D. conducting material
13. When an iron piece is placed in a magnetic field
A. the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to go away from the piece
B. the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to pass through
the piece
C. the magnetic field will not be affected
D. the iron piece will break
14. Fleming’s left hand rule is used to find
A. direction of magnetic field due to current carrying conductor
B. direction of flux in a solenoid
C. direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field
D. polarity of magnetic pole
15. The ratio of intensity of magnetization to the magnetization force is known as
A. flux density B. susceptibility C. relative permittivity D. none of the above
16. Magnetizing steel is normal difficult because
 A. it corrodes easily C. it has high specific gravity
B. it has high permeability D. it has low permeability
17. The left hand rule correlates to
A. current, induced emf and directions of the force on a conductor
B. magnetic field, electric field and direction of force on a conductor
C. self induction, mutual induction and direction of force on a conductor
D. current, magnetic field and direction of force on a conductor
18. The unit of relative permeability is
A. henry/meter B. henry C. henry/sq.m D. it is dimensionless
19. A conductor length L has current I passing through it, when it is placed parallel to a magnetic field.
The force experienced by the conductor will be
A. zero B. BLI C. B2 LI D. BL I2
20. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional to
A. radius of conductor C. product of current in two conductors
B. current in one conductor D. distance between the conductors
21. Materials subjected to rapid reversal of magnetism should have
A. large area of B-H loop
B. high permeability and low hysteresis loss
C. high co-ercivity and high retentivity
D. high co-ercivity and low density
22. Indicate which of the following material does not retain magnetism permanently.
A. Soft iron B. Stainless steel C. Hardened steel D. None of the above
23. The main constituent of permalloy is
A. cobalt B. chromium C. nickel D. tungsten
24. The use of permanent magnets is not made in
A. magnetos B. energy meters C. transformers D. loud-speakers
25. Paramagnetic materials have relative permeability
A. slightly less than C. slightly more than unity
B. equal to unity D. equal to that ferromagnetic material
26. Degaussing is that process of
A. removal of magnetic impurities C. remagnetizing metallic parts
B. removing gases from the materials D. demagnetizing metallic parts
27. Substances which have permeability less than the permeability of free space are known as
A. ferromagnetic B. paramagnetic C. diamagnetic D. bipolar
28. Two infinitely long parallel conductors in vacuum and separated 1 meter between centers when a
current of 1 ampere flows through each conductor, produce on each other a force of
A. 2 x 10−2 N/m B. 2 x 10−3 N/m C. 2 x 10−5 N/m D. 2 x ��−� N/m
29. In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents
A. voltage C. magnetic field
B. current D. direction of force on the conductor
30. Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material?
A. Tungsten B. Aluminum C. Copper D. Nickel
31. Ferrites are a sub-group of
A. non-magnetic materials C. paramagnetic materials
B. ferro-magnetic materials D. ferri-magnetic materials
32. Gilbert is a unit of
A. electromotive force C. conductance
B. magneto motive force D. permittivity
33. The working of a meter is based on the use of a permanent magnet. In order to protect the meter
functioning from stray magnetic fields
A. meter is surrounded by strong magnetic fields
B. a soft iron shielding is used
C. a plastic shielding is provided
D. a shielding of non-magnetic materials is used
34. Reciprocal of permeability is
A. reluctivity B. susceptibility C. permittivity D. conductance
35. The relative permeability is less than unity is case of
A. ferromagnetic materials C. non-ferrous materials
B. ferrites D. diamagnetic materials
36. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density?
A. weber B. lumens C. tesla D. none of the above
37. The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been removed is known as
A. permeance B. residual magnetism C. susceptance D. reluctance
38. Which of the following is not a unit of flux
A. Maxwell B. Telsa C. Weber D. All of the above
39. Which of the following is expected to have the maximum permeability?
A. Brass B. Copper C. Zinc D. Ebonite
40. One tesla is equal to
A. 1 Wb/��2 B. 1 Wb/m C. 1 Wb/�� D. 1 mWb/�2
41. How much will be flux density in tesla units for flux of 45 � Wb through 6 x 10−4 �2 ?
A. 0.075 T B. 0.75 T C. 0.65 T D. 1.5 T
42. Out of the following statements, concerning an electric field, which statement is not true?
A. The electric intensity is a vector quantity
B. The electric field intensity at a point is numerically equal to the force exerted upon a charge
placed at that point
C. An electric field is defined as a point in space at which an electric charge would experience a force
D. Unit field intensity in the exertion of a force of one newton on a charge of one coulomb
43. When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil that induced emf does not depend upon
A. resistance of the coil C. number of turns of the coil
B. motion of the magnet D. pole strength of the magnet
44. One Maxwell is equal to
A. 10−8 webers B. 104 webers C. 10−4 webers D. ��� webers
45. Supermagnetic materials are composed of
A. ferromagnetic particles in ferromagnetic matrix
B. non-ferromagnetic particles in paramagnetic matrix
C. ferromagnetic particles in a non-ferromagnetic matrix
D. none of the above
46. When two ends of a circular uniform wire are joined to the terminals of a battery, the field at the
center of the circle
A. will be zero C. will depend on the amount of emf applied
B. will be infinite D. will depend on the radius of the circle
47. Susceptibility is positive for
A. non-magnetic substances C. ferromagnetic substances
B. diamagnetic substances D. none of the above
48. Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are separately by 20 mm, the force per
meter of length of each conductor will be
A. 100 N B. 10 N C. 1 N D. 0.1 N
49. A 300 mm long conductor is carrying a current of 10 A and is situated at right angles to a magnetic
field having a flux density of 0.8 T; the force on the conductor will be
A. 240 N B. 24 N C. 2.4 N D. 0.24 N
50. A 200 turn coil having an axial length of 30 mm and a radius of 10 mm is pivoted in a magnetic field
having flux density of 0.8 T. If the coil carries a current of 0.5 A, the torque acting on the coil will be
A. 4.8 N-m B. 0.48 N-m C. 0.048 N-m D. 0.0048 N-m
[Hint. Torque = 2B��� N-m]
51. The electromagnet has 50 turns and a current of 1 A flows through the coil. If the length of the
magnet circuit is 200 mm, what is the magnetic field strength?
A. 2500 AT/m B. 250 AT/m C. 25 AT/m D. 2.5 AT/m
52. What is the magnitude and the direction of force per 1.1 m length of a pair of conductors of a direct
current line carrying 10 amperes and spaced 100 mm apart?
A. 22 x 10−8 N B. 22 x 10−6 N C. 22 x 10−7 N D. 22 x 10−5 N
�0Ι1Ι2
[Hint. F = 2��
2]
53. A square cross-sectional magnet has pole strength of 1 x 10−3 Wb and cross sectional area of 20 mm
x 20 mm. what is the strength at a distance of 100 mm from the unit pole in air?
A. 63.38 N/Wb B. 633.8 N/Wb C. 6338 N/Wb D. 63380 N/Wb
�
����. � = �/��
4��0�� �2
54. A point hole having a strength of 10 Wb is placed in a magnetic field at a distance of 250 mm from
another pole in air and is acted upon by a force of 1.5 N. What is the pole strength of the other pole?
A. 147.9 x 10−7 Wb C. 1.479 x 10−7 Wb
B. 14.79 x �� Wb−�
D. 0.1479 x 10−7 Wb
55. The tubes force within the magnetic material are known as
A. electric flux B. lines of force C. tubes of induction D. none of the above
56. The unit of flux is the same as that of
A. reluctance B. resistance C. permeance D. pole strength
57. Unit for quantity of electricity is
A. ampere-hour B. watt C. joule D. coulomb
58. The Boit-savart’s law is general modification of
A. Kirchhoff’s law B. Lenz’s law C. Ampere’s law D. Faraday’s law
59. Field strength at the center of a circular coil of radius r is
�� �� �2 � � 2 �2
A. 6�
�/� B. ��
�/� C. 4�
�/� D. 6�
�/�
60. The most effective and quickest way of making a magnet from soft iron is by
A. placing it inside a coil carrying current
B. induction
C. the use of permanent magnet
D. rubbing with another magnet
61. The commonly used material for shielding or screening magnetism
A. copper B. aluminium C. soft iron D. brass
62. If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely suspended magnetic needle, the magnetic needle
shall start rotating with a velocity
A. less than that of disc but in opposite direction
B. equal to that of disc and in the same direction
C. equal to that of disc and in the opposite direction
D. less than that of disc and in the same direction
63. A permanent magnet
A. attracts some substances and repels others
 B. attracts all paramagnetic substances and repels others
C. attracts only ferromagnetic substances
D. attracts ferromagnetic substances and repels all others
64. The retentivity ( a property) of material is useful for the construction of
A. permanent magnets C. non-magnetic substances
B. transformers D. electromagnets
65. The relative permeability of ____ materials is not constant.
A. diamagnetic B. paramagnetic C. ferromagnetic D. insulating
66. The ___ materials are a bit inferior conductors of magnetic flux than air.
A. ferromagnetic B. paramagnetic C. diamagnetic D. dielectric
67. Hysteresis loop in case of magnetically hard materials is more ____ in shape as compared to
magnetically soft materials.
A. circular B. triangular C. rectangular D. none of the above
68. A rectangular magnet of two magnetic moment M is cut into two pieces of same length, the magnetic
moment of each piece will be
A. M B. M/2 C. 2 M D. M/4
69. A keeper is used to
A. change the direction of magnetic lines C. restores lost flux
B. amplify flux D. provide a closed path for flux
70. Magnetic moment is a
A. pole strength B. universal constant C. scalar quantity D. vector quantity
71. The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will affect
A. reluctance of conductor C. (a) and (b) both in the same way
B. resistance of conductor D. none of the above
72. The uniform magnetic field is
A. the field of set of parallel conductors
B. the field of a single conductor
C. the field in which all lines of magnetic flux are parallel and equidistant
D. none of the above
73. The magneto-motive force is
A. the voltage across the two ends of exciting coil
B. the flow of electric current
C. the sum of all currents embraced by one line of magnetic field
D. the passage of magnetic field through an exciting coil
74. What will be the current passing through the ring shape air cored coil when number of turns is 800
and ampere turns are 3200?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
75. What will be the magnetic potential difference across the air gas of 2 cm length in magnetic field of
200 AT/m?
A. 2 AT B. 4 AT C. 6 AT D. 10 AT
76. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. the magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is lower than its outside surface
B. the magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is zero
C. the magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is greater than its outside surface
D. the magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is same as on its outside surface
77. A certain amount of current flows through a ring-shaped coil with fixed number of turns. How does the
magnetic induction B varies inside the coil if an iron core is threaded into coil without dimension
change of coil?
A. Decreases
 B. Increases
C. Remains same
D. First increases and then decreases depending on the depth of iron insertion
78. The magnetic reluctance of a material
A. decreases with increasing cross-sectional area of material
B. increases with increasing cross-sectional area of material
C. does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area of material
D. any of the above
79. The initial permeability of an iron rod is
A. the highest permeability of the iron rod
B. the lowest permeability of the iron rod
C. the permeability at the end of the iron rod
D. the permeability almost in non-magnetized state
80. Which part of the magnetic path requires largest mmf?
A. Air gap B. Coil C. Inductance D. Core
81. How does magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field?
A. it assures a position right angle to magnetic field
B. it starts rotating
C. it assures a position which follows a line of magnetic flux
D. none of the above
82. In simple magnetic field the strength of magnetic flux
A. is constant and has same value in energy part of the magnetic field
B. increases continuously from initial value and final value
C. decreases continuously from initial value and final value
D. first increases and then decreases till it becomes zero
83. The stray line of magnetic flux is defined as
A. a line vertical to the flux lines
B. the mean length of a ring shaped coil
C. a line of magnetic flux in a non-uniform field
D. a line of magnetic flux which does not follow the designed path
84. The bar magnet has
A. the dipole moment C. (a) and (b) both
B. monopole moment D. none of the above
85. Which of the following materials are diamagnetic?
A. Silver B. Copper C. Silver and Copper D. Iron
86. Which of the following type of materials are not very important for engineering applications?
A. Ferromagnetic B. Paramagnetic C. Diamagnetic D. None of the above
87. The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials generally lies between
A. ��−� and ��−� B. 10−3 and 10−7 C. 10−4 and 10−8 D. 10−2 and 10−5
88. For which of the following materials the saturation value is the highest?
A. Ferromagnetic materials C. Diamagnetic materials
B. Paramagnetic materials D. Ferrites
89. The magnetic materials exhibit the property magnetization because of
A. orbital motion of electrons D. either of these
B. spin of electrons E. all of the above
C. spin of nucleus
90. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should be zero?
A. Diamagnetic materials C. Anti-ferromagnetic materials
B. Ferrimagnetic materials D. Anti-ferrimagnetic materials
91. The attraction capacity of electromagnet will increase if the
A. core length increases C. flux density decreases
B. core area increases D. flux density increases
92. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. the conductivity of ferrites is better than ferromagnetic materials
B. the conductivity of ferromagnetic materials is better than ferrites
C. the conductivity of ferrites is very high
D. the conductivity of ferrites is same as that of ferromagnetic materials
93. The magnetization and applied field in ferromagnetic materials are related
A. sinusoidally B. linearly C. non-linearly D. parabolically
94. In which of the materials the spin moments associated with two sets of atoms are aligned antiparallel
to each other?
A. Ferromagnetic materials C. Ferrimagnetic materials
B. Ferrites D. Anti-ferromagnetic materials
95. Temporary magnets are used in
A. loud-speaker B. generators C. motors D. all of the above
96. Main causes of noisy solenoid are
A. strong tendency of fan out of laminations at the end caused by repulsion among magnetic lines of
force
B. uneven bearing surface, caused by dirt or uneven wear between moving and stationary parts
C. both of above
D. none of the above
97. When a bar magnet is bent at its center to form the shape L, its magnetic moment will be
1
A. 2 times its original value C. 2 times its original value
� 1
B. �
times its original value D. 3 2
times its original value
98. Strength of an electromagnet can be increased by
A. increasing the cross-sectional area C. increasing current supply
B. increasing the number of turns D. all above methods
99. Core of an electromagnet should have
A. low coercivity B. high susceptibility C. both of the above D. none of the above
100. Magnetism of a magnet can be destroyed by
A. heating C. by inductive action of another magnet
B. hammering D. by all above methods
B. Fill in the Blanks/Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’:
101. Magnetism is a mysterious but very useful ____ property. Answer: electrical
102. Most ____ used in electric circuits are man-made. Answer; magnets
103. ___ produced magnetism only when electrical energy is supplied to a coil.
Answer: Electromagnets
104. ___ is defined as the property which certain materials have that permits them to produce or
conduct magnetic lines of force. Answer: Magnetism
105. A ___ is an object about which a magnetic field exists and is either natural or man-made.
Answer: magnet
106. A natural magnetic effect is shown by a form of iron ore is called ____. Answer: magnetite
107. Magnetic lines of force have direction similar to the motion of ____ charges. Answer: electric
108. Like poles of magnets attract each other. Answer: NO
109. The magnetic field surroundings the earth has a south magnetic pole located near the north
geographic pole. Answer: YES
110. ___ can be induced in magnetic materials by placing it in a magnetic field. Answer: Magnetism
111. Magnetism can be induced in a magnetic material from a magnet. Answer: YES
112. The flux lines are more dense at the ___ of the magnet than they are at points farther from the
magnet. Answer: ends
113. The lines of force tend to spread away from each other because of the mutual ____ between
lines. Answer: repulsion
114. ____ refers to the concentration of the magnetic field, pr the number of the magnetic field line in
given area. Answer: Flux density
115. The ability of a material to concentrate magnetic flux and after little opposition to the flux lines is
called ____. Answer: permeability
116. The permeability of a magnetic material is comparable to the ____ of an electrical conductor.
Answer: conductance
117. The space between the poles of a magnet is called an ____. Answer: air gap
118. A ___ magnet has no air space. Answer: toroidal
119. A toroidal has an open magnetic path. Answer: NO
120. The ____ type of construction is used when there must be a minimum to external magnet field.
Answer: toroidal
121. Magnets with air gaps should be stored with a ___ that produces a closed loop much like a
toroidal magnet. Answer: keeper
122. Three types of magnetic materials are ____, ____ and ___.
Answer: ferromagnetic, paramagnetic and diamagnetic
123. Opposite ends of a magnet are labeled ___. Answer: north, south
124. The direction of magnetic lines of force is considered to take an external path from the ___ pole
to the ___ pole of a magnet. Answer: north, south
125. The transfer of magnetism from one magnetic material to another is called.
Answer: magnetic induction
126. The total number of magnetic lines is known as magnetic ___. Answer: flux
127. Magnetic saturation of a material occurs when an increase of magnetizing force produces no
increase in the magnetization of the material. Answer: YES
128. The principal advantage of toroidal construction of a magnet is the intense external magnetic field
available from a small magnet. Answer: NO
129. The property of a material which causes it to retain the magnetism after the magnetizing force is
removed is called___. Answer: retentivity
130. If the current on two parallel wires have the same direction, the wire will be pulled together.
Answer: YES
131. A greater flux density can be produced in the core of an electromagnet by decreasing the
permeability of the core. Answer: NO
132. If the number of turns or the current in a soil is increased, the flux density will ___.
Answer: increase
133. If the direction of current in a coil is reversed, the polarity of the magnetic field reverses.
Answer: YES
134. The reluctance of magnetic circuit depends on the length of magnetic flux, cross-sectional area
presented to the magnetic field and magnetic properties of material in which the magnetic field is
generated. Answer: YES
135. All the lines of magnetic flux on a coil produced by a uniform magnetic field are parallel and
equidistant. Answer: YES
136. The magnetic field strength H and magnetic induction B are independent of each other.
Answer: NO
137. There is no existence of such material which is completely impermeable to magnetic flux.
Answer: YES
MAGNETIC CIRCUIT

1. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to

A. increase mmf B. increase the flux C. prevent saturation D. none of the above
2. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is
A. less than one C. more than 10
B. more than one D. more than 100 or 1000
3. The unit of magnetic flux is
A. henry B. weber C. ampere-turn/weber D. ampere/meter
4. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to ___ in an electric circuit.
A. resistance B. resistivity C. conductivity D. conductance
5. Point out the wrong statement
A. lowers their power efficiency C. leads to their increases weight
B. increases their cost of manufacture D. produces fringing
6. Relative permeability of vacuum is
A. 1 B. 1 H/m C. 1/4� D. 4� x 10−7 H/m
7. The magnetizing force (H) and magnetic flux density (B) are connected by the relation
A. � = �� �/�0 B. � = �� C. � = �/�0 �� D. � = �0 �/��
8. Permanent magnets are normally made of
A. alnico alloys B. aluminum C. cast iron D. wrought iron
9. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is increased by ___ percent.
A. 25 B. 50 C. 41.4 D. 100
10. Those magnetic field materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which have
____ permeability and ___ hysteresis loss.
A. high, high B. low, high C. high, low D. low, low
11. The rate of rise current through an inductive coil is maximum
A. at 63.2% of its maximum steady value C. after one time constant
B. at the start of the current flow D. near the final maximum value of current
12. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of
A. time constant remains unchanged C. final steady current is doubled
B. initial rate of rise of currents is doubled D. time constant is halved
13. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly connected to a DC
supply of 200 V is ___ A/s
A. 50 B. 20 C. 0.05 D. 500
14. A material for good magnetic memory should have
A. low hysteresis loss C. low retentivity
B. high permeability D. high retentivity
15. Conductivity is analogous to
A. retentivity B. resistivity C. permeability D. inductance
16. In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to
A. rapid reversals of its magnetization
B. flux density lagging behind magnetizing force
C. molecular friction
D. it high retentivity
17. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have ____ retentivity and ___
coercivity.
A. low, high B. high, high C. high, low D. low, low
18. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the hysteresis loss in this material will be
A. zero B. small C. large D. none of the above
19. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because
A. it has good residual magnetism C. its mechanical strength is high
B. its hysteresis loop has large area D. its mechanical strength is low
20. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has
A. low co-ercivity B. low retentivity C. low hysteresis loss D. high co-ercivity
21. Conductance is analogous to
A. permeance B. reluctance C. flux D. inductance
22. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
A. reluctivity C. permeance
B. magneto motive force D. reluctance
23. The unit of retentivity is
A. weber B. weber/sq.m C. ampere turn/meter D. ampere turn
24. Reciprocal of reluctance is
A. reluctivity B. permeance C. permeability D. susceptibility
25. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared with which
parameter of electrical circuit?
A. Emf B. Current C. Current density D. Conductivity
26. The unit of reluctance is
A. meter/henry B. henry/meter C. henry D. 1/henry
27. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
A. ferrites have high resistance C. ferrites have low permeability
B. ferrites are magnetic D. ferrites have high hysteresis
28. A ferromagnetic core subjected to cycles of magnetization will exhibit hysteresis when the cycle is
A. rotating B. alternating C. pulsating D. any of the above
29. In order to minimize loss due to hysteresis, the magnetic material should have
A. high resistivity C. large B-H loop area
B. low hysteresis co-efficient D. high retentivity
30. Hysteresis loss least depends on
A. volume of material C. steinmetz co-efficient of material
B. frequency D. ambient temperature
31. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to reduce
A. copper loss B. eddy current loss C. hysteresis loss D. all of the above
32. The area of hysteresis loss in a measure of
A. permittivity B. permeance C. energy loss per cycle D. magnetic flux
33. Permeance is to reluctance as conductance is to
A. ampere turns B. inductance C. capacitance D. resistance
34. According to steinmetz hysteresis law, hysteresis loss in a material is proportional to
A. �3.6 B. ��.� C. �1.2 D. �2.6
35. The transformer cores operating at microwave frequency range, are usually made of
A. carbon B. copper C. silicon steels D. ferrites

Fill in the blanks/Say ‘YES’ or ‘NO’

36. ___ flux is directly proportional to the current (I) and the turns (N) in a coil. Answer: Magnetic
37. ___ is directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to core area and permeability.
Answer: Reluctance
38. Resistance, electromotive force, and current can be compared with ___, and ____ respectively.
Answer: reluctance, mmf, flux
39. Ampere-turns AAis the product of current in amperes and the turns in the coil. Answer: YES
40. A ___ is a magnet produced from a coil carrying a current. Answer: solenoid
41. A 300-turn coil carrying 3 amperes produces an mmf of ____ ampere-turns. Answer: 900
42. The ___ curve relates the flux density to the magnetizing force. Answer: B-H
43. The only ___ portion of a B-H curve is linear. Answer: center
44. The B-H curve is linear over its entire length. Answer: NO
45. The hysteresis loop is produced when the magnetic flux does not follow the magnetizing force.
Answer: YES
46. The force required to return the flux value to zero is the ___ force. Answer: co-ercive
47. The demagnetizing of a magnetic material by a decrease of the magnetizing current produces a
smaller and smaller hysteresis loop. Answer: YES
48. The hysteresis loop is the result of the core ___ not reaching zero at the same time the magnetizing
force reaches zero. Answer: flux density
49. The magnetism which remains after the magnetizing force has been removed is called ___
magnetism. If we wish to bring the flux density to zero, a ____ force of opposite polarity must be
applied. Answer: residual, co-ercive
50. ___ of any material is the measure of ease with which the atoms can be arranged.
Answer: Permeability
51. The route or path which is followed by a magnetic flux is called a ___ circuit. Answer: magnetic
52. The relative permeability of ferromagnetic materials id slightly higher than one. Answer: NO
53. Permeability of free space, �0 = 8��10−7 . Answer: NO
54. The value of �� for cobalt is 10000. Answer: NO
55. �� for air and non-magnetic materials is equal to 2. Answer: NO
56. ___ force drives or tends to drive flux through a magnetic circuit. Answer: Magneto-motive
57. ___ of a magnetic circuit is the ratio of mmf and flux. Answer: Reluctance
58. The reciprocal of reluctance is known as ___. Answer: permeance
59. ____ temperature is the rising temperature at which the given material ceases to be ferromagnetic,
or the falling temperature at which it be becomes ferromagnetic. Answer: Curie
60. The ___ currents produce a magnetic field of their own which opposes the main magnetic field.
Answer: eddy
61. The transformers and generators cores and armatures of the electric motors etc. which are subjected
to rapid reversals of magnetization should be made of such substances which have low hysteresis
co-efficient in order to reduce the hysteresis loss. Answer: YES
62. Eddy current losses are reduced by using ___ plates and material of ___ resistivity.
Answer: thinner, higher
63. Iron losses, if allowed to take place unchecked, not only ____ the efficiency of electrical equipment
but also raise the ___ of the core. Answer: reduce, temperature
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

1. The property of coil by which a counter emf is induced in it when the current through the coil changes
is known as
A. self-inductance B. mutual inductance C. series aiding inductance D. capacitance
2. As per Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, an emf is induced in a conductor whenever it
A. lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux C. cuts magnetic flux
B. lies in a magnetic field D. moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
3. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field?
A. Inductance B. Condenser C. Variable resistor D. Resistance
4. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except
A. when more length for the same number of turns is provided
B. when the numbers of turns of the coil increase
C. when more area for each turns is provided
D. when permeability of the core increases
5. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,
A. lesser its weber-turns
B. lower the emf induced
C. greater the flux produced by it
D. longer the delay in establishing steady current through it
6. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The
inductance of the coil will
A. increase C. remains the same
B. decrease D. initially increases and then decreases
7. An open coil has
A. zero resistance and inductance C. infinite resistance and normal inductance
B. infinite resistance and zero inductanceD. zero resistance and high inductance
8. Both the number of turns is the core lengths of an inductive coil are doubled. Its self-inductance will
be
A. unaffected B. doubled C. halved D. quadrupled
9. If a current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz’s law self-induced voltage will
A. aids the increasing current
B. tends to decrease the amount of current
C. produces current opposite to the increasing current
D. aid the applied voltage
10. The direction of induced emf can be found by
A. Laplace’s law C. Fleming’s right hand rule
B. Lenz’s law D. Kirchhoff’s voltage law
11. Air-core coils are practically free from
A. hysteresis losses C. both (a) and (b)
B. eddy current law D. none of the above
12. The magnitude of the induced emf in a conductor depends on the
A. flux density of the magnetic field C. amount of flux linkages
B. amount of flux cut D. rate of change of flux linkages
13. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils depends on
A. permeability of the core C. cross-sectional area of their common core
B. the number of their turns D. all of the above
14. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
A. more wire can be used with less DC resistance in coil
 B. the laminations are insulated from each other
C. the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
D. the laminations are stacked vertically
15. The co-efficient of self inductance for a coil is given as
�� �� ��2 ��
A. B. C. D.
ϕ � ϕ I2
16. The law that the induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them is due to
A. Faraday B. Lenz C. Newton D. Coulomb
17. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance?
A. Henry C. Volt second per ampere
B. Coulomb/volt ampere D. All of the above
18. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to
A. voltage across the inductance C. both (a) and (c)
B. magnetic field D. neither (a) nor (b)
19. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current?
A. Capacitance B. Inductance C. Resistance D. All of the above
20. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true?
A. Apparent power is zero
B. Relative power is zero
C. Actual power of the circuit is zero
D. Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charge
21. Which of the following is unit of inductance?
A. Ohm B. Henry C. Ampere turns D. Webers/meter
22. An emf of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current must be
A. 64 A/s B. 32 A/s C. 16 A/s D. 4 A/s
23. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. the inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core length is doubled,
all other quantities, remaining the same, the inductance will be
A. 3 mH B. 12 mH C. 24 mH D. 48mH
24. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficient of coupling is 0.5, the mutual
inductance of the coil is
A. 4 mH B. 5 mH C. 6 mH D. 12 mH
25. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If the two coils
are connected in series aiding , the total inductance will be
A. 32 mH B. 38 mH C. 40 mH D. 48 mH
26. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is increases to 400 turns, all other
quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the same, the inductance will be
A. 6 mH B. 14 mH C. 24 mH D. 48 mH
27. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being zero. If the two coils
are connected in series, the total inductance will be
A. 6 H B. 8 H C. 12 H D. 24 H
28. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling will be
A. 2.0 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. zero
29. The energy in joules stored in a magnetic field of 0.15 H inductance with a 180 mA current will be
A. 2.43 B. 2.43 x ��−� C. 2.43 x 10−6 D. 2.43 x 10−9
30. A coil with negligible resistance has 50 V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance is
A. 50 ohms B. 500 ohms C. 1000 ohms D. 5000 ohms
For a 30 mH inductance (�1 ) and a 60 mH inductance (�2 )
31. The total inductance of �1 and �2 in series without mutual coupling will be
A. 15 mH B. 45 mH C. 90 mH D. 120 mH
32. The total inductance of �1 and �2 in parallel without mutual coupling will be
A. 5 mH B. 10 mH C. 15 mH D. 20 mH
33. The combined inductance of �1 and �2 in series aiding with 30 mH mutual inductance will be
A. 50 mH B. 100 mH C. 150 mH D. 200 mH
34. The value of coupling factor is
A. 0.00707 B. 0.0707 C. 0.707 D. 7.07
35. A conductor 2 meters long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 tesla with a
velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced emf in the conductor will be
A. 10 V B. 15 V C. 25 V D. 50 V
36. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
A. induced current B. charge C. energy D. induced emf
37. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla. The force on
the conductor will be nearly
A. 50 N B. 120 B C. 240 V D. 480 V
38. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right angles to a
magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
A. 100 N B. 400 N C. 600 N D. 1000 N
39. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
A. self-inductance of two coils only
B. mutual inductance between two coils only
C. mutual inductance and self-inductance of two coils
D. none of the above
40. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a change in flux which
occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is
A. 20 Wb B. 2 Wb C. 0.2 Wb D. 0.02 Wb
41. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time interval must a
flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage?
A. 0.01 s B. 0.1 s C. 0.5 s D. 5 s
42. Which of the following inductor will have the least eddy current losses?
A. Air core B. Laminated iron core C. Iron core D. Powdered iron core
43. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of inductance is
A. 3500 mH B. 350 mH C. 250 mH D. 150 mH
44. Two 300 �� coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of
A. 300 �� B. 600 �� C. 150 �� D. 75 ��
45. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts in a coil. The value of inductance
is
A. 5 mH B. 10 mH C. 5 H D. 10 H
46. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current?
A. Resistance only B. Inductance only C. Capacitance only D. Inductance and capacitance
47. A crack in a magnetic path of an inductor will result in
A. unchanged inductance C. zero inductance
B. increased inductance D. reduced inductance
48. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil is not affected
by
A. variation in coil current C. change of number of turns of coil
B. variation in voltage to the coil D. the resistance of magnetic path
49. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. the inductance of the coil carrying a constant DC current will change the current into pulses
B. the inductance of the coil carrying a constant DC current will increase the current
 C. the inductance of the coil carrying a constant DC current will not affect the current
D. the inductance of the coil carrying a constant DC current will decrease the current

Fill in the Blanks/Say ‘YES’ or ‘NO’:

50. The phenomenon whereby an emf and hence current is induced in a conductor which is cut across or
is cut by a magnetic flux is known as ___ induction. Answer: electromagnetic
51. In ___ Faraday formulated basic laws underlying the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction.
Answer: 1831
52. A voltage created by the physical movement of the conductor or the magnetic field is known as a ___
voltage. Answer: generated
53. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is moving. Answer: YES
54. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand generator rule.
Answer: YES
55. A ___ may be used to determine the direction of the magnetic field if it is unknown.
Answer: compass
56. Voltage produced by changing field strength is an ___ voltage. Answer: induced
57. ___ action is caused by interaction between the magnetic field of a magnet and the magnetic field
around the wire. Answer: motor
58. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force in on the conductor. Answer: NO
59. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor. Answer: YES
60. In generator action involving a moving conductor, the polarity of the induced voltage is determined by
the length of the conductor. Answer: NO
61. In motor action, a change of flux density will cause the direction of motion to reverse. Answer: NO
62. In motor action, the force on a conductor depends on the current in the conductor, the angle of the
conductor, and the ___ of magnetic field. Answer: flux density
63. The amount of induced voltage in conductor depends on the ___ of the conductor, and the ___ of the
magnetic field. Answer: speed, density
64. When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle � with the lines of flux, the force F is
given as: � = �� ���2 � Answer: NO
65. ____ law states that the direction of induced current is such as to oppose the motion or change which
produces it. Answer: Lenz’s
66. The property due to which the change of current in the coil is opposed is called as ___.
Answer: Self-inductance
67. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the emf induced in volts when the current
in the circuit changes at the rate of unit weber turns. Answer: YES
68. The expression for energy stored in the magnetic field when the current is increased from zero is
1
given as: � = 2 �2 �������. Answer: NO
69. Co-efficient of mutual inductance may be defined as the flux linkage (weber-turns) linking with one
coil caused by one ampere current in the other coil. Answer: YES
70. The two coils are said to have mutual inductance of one henry, when a current changing at the rate of
one ampere in the circuit induces an emf of one volt in the other. Answer: YES
71. The co-efficient of ___ is the ratio of mutual inductance between the coils and the square root of
product of self-inductance of each coil. Answer: coupling
ELECTROLYSIS AND STORAGE BATTERIES

1. “The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity”. The
above statement is associated with
A. Newton’s law
B. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
C. Faraday’s law of electrolysis
D. Gauss’s law
2. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as ___ constant
A. time B. Faraday’s C. Boltzman D. Faraday’s and Boltzman
3. The capacity of a cell is measured in
A. amperes B. ampere-hours C. watts D. watt-hours
4. Active materials of a lead acid cell are
A. spongy lead B. lead peroxide C. dilute �2 ��4 D. all of the above
5. Sulphation in a lead-acid battery occurs due to
A. heavy charging B. fast charging C. trickle charging D. incomplete charging
6. During the charging of a lead-acid cell
A. its voltage increases C. its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in color
B. it gives out energy D. specific gravity of �2 ��4 decreases
7. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its
A. temperature B. rate of charge C. rate of discharge D. quantity of active material
8. During the charging of the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
A. increases B. decrease C. remains the same D. becomes zero
9. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery are
A. lead and lead peroxide C. lead peroxide and lead
B. lead sulphate and lead D. none of the above
10. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the color of its positive plate is
A. dark grey B. brown C. dark brown D. none of the above
11. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are
A. nickel hydroxide C. 21% solution of KOH
B. powdered iron and its oxide D. all of the above
12. The ratio of ampere our efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is
A. just one C. always less than one
B. always greater than one D. none of the above
13. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
A. output voltage C. specific gravity of electrolyte
B. temperature of electrolyte D. none of the above
14. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
A. nickel-cadmium battery C. lead-acid battery
B. zinc-carbon battery D. none of the above
15. The output voltage of a charger is
A. less than the battery voltage C. the same as the battery voltage
B. higher that the battery voltage D. none of the above
16. Cells are connected in series in order to
A. increase the voltage rating C. increase the life of the cells
B. increase the current rating D. none of the above
17. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel. The output voltage is
A. 1 V B. 1.5 V C. 1.75 V D. 2 V
18. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
 A. current rating B. voltage rating C. ampere-hour rating D. none of the above
19. During the charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell
A. corrosive fumes are produced C. nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
B. water is neither formed nor absorbed D. its emf remains constant
20. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead acid cell has
the advantage of
A. reducing time of charging C. both (a) and (b)
B. increasing cell capacity D. avoiding excessive gassing
21. A dead storage battery can be revived by
A. adding distilled water C. a dose of �2 ��4
B. adding so-called battery restorer D. none of the above
22. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its
A. compactness C. small quantity of electrolyte used
B. lower emf D. higher internal resistance
23. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
A. maintain proper electrolyte level C. prevent sulphation
B. increase its reserve capacity D. keep it fresh and fully charged
24. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination and hence produce
electricity during charging or discharging are known as ___ materials.
A. passive B. active C. redundant D. inert
25. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following
A. one part �2 �, three parts �2 ��4 C. three parts �2 �, one part �2 ��4
B. two parts �� �, two parts �� ��� D. all �2 ��4
26. It is noticed that during charging
A. there is a rise in voltage
B. energy is absorbed by the cell
C. specific gravity of �2 ��4 is increases
D. the anode becomes chocolate brown in color (Pb�2 ) and cathode becomes grey metallic lead (Pb)
E. all of the above
27. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen
A. both anode and cathode become Pb��4 C. voltage of the cell decreases
B. specific gravity of �2 ��4 decreases D. the cell absorbs energy
28. The ampere-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is normally between
A. 20 to 30% B. 40 to 50% C. 60 to 70% D. 90 to 95%
29. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between
A. 25 to 35% B. 40 to 60% C. 70 to 80% D. 90 to 95%
30. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in
A. amperes B. ampere-hours C. watts D. watt-hours
31. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on
A. rate of discharge D. quantity of active materials
B. temperature E. all above
C. density of electrolyte
32. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes ___ appearance
A. dull B. reddish C. bright D. milky
33. The emf of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly
A. 1.4 V B. 1 V C. 0.9 V D. 0.8 V
34. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly ___ times that of the lead-acid cell
A. two B. three C. four D. five
35. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
 A. 1 V B. 1.2 V C. 1.7 V D. 2.1 V
36. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about
A. 40% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80%
37. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is
A. silver-oxide B. lead oxide C. lead D. zinc powder
38. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly ____ charges and discharges
A. 500 B. 700 C. 1000 D. 1250
39. Life of the Edison cell is atleast
A. five years B. seven years C. eight years D. ten years
40. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is ____ that of Edison cell
A. less than B. more than C. equal to D. none of the above
41. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is
A. NaOH B. KOH C. HCl D. HN�3
42. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is
A. NaOH B. only �2 ��4 C. only water D. dilute �� ���
43. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of
A. copper B. lead C. iron D. silver oxide
44. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
A. its chemical constituents C. its temperature
B. on the strength of its electrolyte D. all above
45. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
A. manometer B. a chemical gauge C. hydrometer D. psychrometer
46. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
A. charged state B. discharged state C. both (a) and (b) D. active state
47. In ___ system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or minimum value
A. two rate charge control C. floating charge
B. trickle charge D. an equalizing charge
48. Over charging ____
A. produces excessive gassing C. increases the temperature resulting in buckling plates
B. loosens the active material D. all above
49. Undercharging ____
A. reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
B. increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
C. produces excessive gassing
D. increases the temperature
50. Internal short circuits are caused by
A. breakdown of one or more separators
B. excess accumulation of sediment at bottom of the cell
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
51. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance
A. increases B. decreases C. remains same D. none of the above
52. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens because of
A. allowing a battery to stand in discharge condition for a long time
B. topping up with electrolyte
C. persistent undercharging
D. low level of electrolyte
E. all above
53. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are called ___
materials
A. active B. passive C. inert D. dielectric
54. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as
A. positive active material C. passive material
B. negative active material D. none of the above
55. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond
A. 1.8 V B. 1.9 V C. 2 V D. 2.1 V
56. On overcharging a battery
A. it will bring about chemical change in active materials
B. it will increase the capacity of the battery
C. it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
D. none of the above will occur
57. Each cell has a vent cap
A. to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
B. to add water to the cell if needed
C. to check the level of electrolyte
D. to do all above functions
58. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
A. capacity of the cell is reduced C. open plates are converted to lead sulphate
B. life of the cell is reduced D. all above
59. In constant-voltage charging method, the charging current from discharge to fully charged condition
A. decreases B. increases C. remains constant D. none of the above
60. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of
A. 48 amperes for 1 hour C. 8 amperes for 6 hours
B. 24 amperes for 2 hours D. 6 amperes for 8 hours
61. In constant current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged condition
A. decreases B. increases C. remains constant D. none of the above
62. Battery charging equipment is generally installed
A. in well ventilated location C. as near as practical to the battery being charged
B. in clean and dry place D. in location having all above features
63. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
A. Loss of capacity C. Corrosion of the grids of the plate
B. Loss of life D. All above
64. Batteries are charged by
A. rectifiers C. motor generators sets
B. engine generator sets D. any one of the above methods
65. Cell short circuit results in
A. low sp. Gravity electrolyte C. reduced gassing on charge
B. abnormal high temperature D. all above
66. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by
A. using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
B. increasing the plate area
C. putting plates very close together
D. all above methods
67. Capacity of dry cells is
A. more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
B. more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
C. unaffected by the type of discharge
 D. none of the above
68. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of
A. glass B. plastic C. wood D. all above
69. Sulphated cells are indicated by
A. the loss capacity of the cell C. the low voltage of the cell on discharge
B. the decrease of the specific gravity D. all above conditions
70. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following ratio of acid to
water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
A. 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water C. 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
B. 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water D. 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
71. Local action in a battery is indicated by
A. excessive gassing under load conditions
B. excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell is on open circuit
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
72. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
A. excessive gassing will occur C. bulging and buckling of plate will occur
B. temperature rise will occur D. all above will occur
73. Internal resistance of a cell is due to
A. resistance of electrolyte
B. electrode resistance
C. surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
D. all above
74. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen
A. current delivered by the battery will be high
B. current drawing will be nil
C. current drawing will be very small
D. current drawing will be very high
75. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its CG should be
A. lowered B. raised C. undisturbed D. displaced sideways
76. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen
A. capacity of cell will reduce C. Internal resistance will increase
B. Sulphation of plates will occur D. All above will occur
77. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending
A. Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell
B. Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
C. Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
D. Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell
78. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear
A. goggles or other face shield C. rubber boots and gloves
B. rubber D. all above safety devices
79. Excessive charging a battery tends to
A. produce gassing
B. increase the internal resistance of the battery
C. to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically
D. bring about all above changes
80. Shelf life of a small dry cell is
A. equal to that of large dry cell C. more than that of large dry cell
B. less than that of large dry cell D. none of the above
81. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of
A. ions B. holes C. electrons D. none of the above
82. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be ___ the level of plates
A. below B. equal to C. above D. none of the above
83. Proper charging rate of a battery in ampere is about ____ of its ampere-hour capacity
� 1 1 1
A. B. C. D.
� 6 4 2
84. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and the negative plates is changed to
A. Pb B. Pb�2 C. PbO D. Pb���
85. ___ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery
A. color B. mass C. viscosity D. specific gravity
86. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
A. color of electrode C. specific gravity
B. gassing D. all above
87. If the emf of a cell is 2 V, internal resistance 0.2 Ω and the external resistance 0.8 Ω then the current
delivered will be
A. 0.5 A B. 1 A C. 1.5 A D. 2 A
88. Dry cell is modification of
A. Deniell cell B. Leclanche cell C. Lead-acid cell D. Edison cell
89. Capacity of a battery is expressed in
A. Ah B. Vh C. Wh D. kWh
90. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is
A. dilute sulphuric acid C. NaOH
B. concentrated sulphuric acid D. KOH
91. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is ___ Edison cell.
A. equal to B. less than C. more than D. much more than
92. For given ampere capacity, weight of lead-acid cell is ___ times that of Edison cell.
1 3 1
A.
2
B. 4 C. 12 D. 2
93. All dry cells when new have about ____ V.
A. 1.0 B. 1.2 C. 1.5 D. 2.0
94. Polarisation in a cell is due to accumulation of ___ gas over anode
A. �� B. �2 C. �2 D. ��2
95. To prevent local action in battery, only ___ is used in electrolytes.
A. pump water B. distilled water C. tap water D. combination of (a) and (b)
96. Even though voltage of a dry cell, big or small, is 1.5 V, small cell delivers less current it has
comparatively _____ internal resistance.
A. zero B. less C. more D. same
97. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on ____ hours discharge rate
A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 24
98. The body of Edison cell is made of
A. bakelite B. rubber C. nickel plated steel D. aluminum
99. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is
A. 0.8 B. 0.95 C. 1.1 D. 1.21
100. All electrical connections between battery and vehicle should be by
A. thin aluminum wires C. rigid cable
B. thin copper wires D. flexible cables
101. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of ____ volts from fully charge state to fully discharge state
A. 1.0 B. 1.5 C. 2.4 D. 2.9
102. During the idle period of the battery, string electrolyte tends to change the active material of the
cell into.
A. Pb�2 B. Pb��� C. PbO D. Pb
103. Charging of suphated battery produces ___ heat
A. no B. very little C. less D. more
104. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than
A. 2% B. 4% C. 6% D. 8%
105. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of ___ volts.
A. 0.8 B. 0.9 C. 1.0187 D. 1.5
106. When two cells of unequal voltages are in parallel, the emf of the combination is equal to the emf
of the ___ cell.
A. small B. large C. any of the above D. none of the above
107. Battery charging room is to be kept well ventilated so as to reduce the hydrogen concentration
below ___ percent.
A. one B. two C. three D. four
108. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon
A. amount of moisture C. type of soil chemicals
B. type of metals D. all above factors
109. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics?
A. flat discharge current-voltage curve
B. high power to weight ratio
C. comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and humidity
D. all of the above
110. In a lead-acid cell the relationship between no load voltage (V) of the cell and the specific gravity
(S) of the electrolyte is given by
V=S+� where the value of � is
A. 0.40 B. 0.84 C. 1.5 D. none of the above
111. To avoid freezing in cold weather, sp. gravity of electrolyte of lead-acid cell should be kept above
A. 1.1 B. 1.2 C. 1.225 D. 1.3
112. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in
A. boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
B. warping of plates
C. damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to excessive temperature
D. all above
113. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused by
A. buckling of plates D. excessive accumulation of sediment
B. faulty separators E. any one of above
C. lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
114. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top of the battery container. This
is done
A. to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
B. to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
C. to discharge both of the above functions
D. to discharge none of the above functions
115. For a cell work, which of the following condition(s) become necessary?
A. two electrodes of different metals should be inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each other
B. electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes
C. electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
D. all above three conditions are necessary
116. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage?
A. Lithium B. Zinc-chloride C. Mercury D. Carbon-zinc
117. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage?
A. Manganese-alkaline C. Lithium
B. Carbon-zinc D. Mercury
118. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery
A. water is poured into acid
B. acid is poured into water
C. any one of the two can be added to other chemical
119. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft?
A. Lead-acid battery C. Dry cell battery
B. Nickel-iron battery D. Silver oxide battery
120. Which of the following cell has reversible chemical reaction?
A. Lead-acid B. Mercury C. Carbon-zinc D. Silver-oxide
121. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
B. a lead-acid cell can be recharged
C. A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
D. a primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
122. The internal resistance of a dry cell is of the order of
A. 0.01 to 0.04 Ω B. 0.2 to 0.5 Ω C. 2 to 5 Ω D. 10 to 30 Ω
123. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity?
A. Dilute �2 ��4 B. Concentrated�2 ��4 C. Water D. Any of the above
124. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be
A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40%
125. A generator has an open-circuit emf of 180V. Its terminal voltage drops to 150V with a load
resistance of 10 KΩ. What is the internal resistance?
A. 200 Ω B. 2 kΩ C. 20 kΩ D. 200 kΩ
126. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
A. they have same emf C. they have same ampere-hour capacity
B. they have same make D. they have identical internal resistance
127. A typical output of a solar cell is
A. 0.1 V B. 0.26 V C. 1.1 V D. 2 V
128. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery to
A. prevent local heating C. reduce path resistance
B. prevent short-circuiting D. prevent corrosion
129. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be maximum
A. current C. power in the load resistance
B. Efficiency D. voltage across the load resistance
130. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is
A. chlorine B. dust particles C. lead crystals D. iron
131. What is the reasonable value of current that can be continuously drawn from a120 ampere-hour
capacity lead-acid cell?
A. 2 A B. 20 A C. 40 A D. 70 A
132. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of
A. charged ions B. chemical energy C. electrostatic energy D. electromagnetic energy
133. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an automobile battery?
A. Brake light B. Self starter C. Parking lights D. Spark plugs
134. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the lead-acid battery?
 A. Temperature of surroundings C. Rate of discharge
B. Specific gravity of electrolyte D. All of the above
135. Cells are connected in parallel to
A. increase the efficiency C. increase the voltage output
B. increase the current capacity D. increase the internal resistance
136. The current in a chemical cell is a movement of
A. positive ions only C. negative ions only
B. positive and negative ions D. positive-hole charges
137. A constant-voltage generator has
A. minimum efficiency C. low internal resistance
B. minimum current capacity D. high internal resistance
138. Which secondary cell has the highest voltage output?
A. Nickel-cadmium C. Silver-cadmium
B. Lead-acid D. Silver-zinc
139. Satellite power requirement is provided through
A. solar cells C. nickel-cadmium cells
B. dry cells D. lead-acid batteries
140. If a battery is to be charged at a much higher rate as compared to normal charging rate, the
charging should be restricted to
A. 95% of the capacity of battery C. 55% of the capacity of battery
B. 80% of the capacity of battery D. 35% of the capacity of battery
141. For preparing electrolyte for lead-acid battery, acid is poured into water to
A. avoid explosion C. conserve consumption of acid
B. make initial mixture too weak D. avoid generation of excess heat
142. Which of the following statements is incorrect about lead-acid batteries?
A. the electrolyte is weak sulphuric acid
B. the number of plates is always odd
C. the number of positive plates is one less than the number of negative plates
D. None of the above
143. In a lead-acid battery, separators are provide to
A. reduce internal resistance C. reduce tendency for polarization
B. facilitate flow of current D. avoid internal short circuits
144. In a lead-acid battery fillers are provided
A. to recover acid loss through vapors C. to facilitate flow of gases
B. to prevent low of gases D. all of the above
145. In a lead-acid battery during charging
A. specific gravity of acid increases C. anode become whitish in color
B. voltage drops D. the cell gives out energy
146. A floating battery is one
A. which gets charged and discharged simultaneously
B. which supplies current intermittently and also during off cycle gets charged
C. in which battery voltage is equal to charge voltage
D. in which the current in the circuit is fully supplied by the battery
147. It is normally specified by the manufacturers that a lead-acid batter should not remain discharged
for more than
A. one hour B. 24 hours C. one week D. one month
148. Three cells are connected in series to form a battery. The internal resistance is 0.1 Ω each. The
internal resistance of the battery is
A. 0.1 Ω B. 0.2 Ω C. 0.3 Ω D. 0.6 Ω
149. The life of a lead-acid battery is expected to be
A. two months B. one year C. two to five years D. ten to fifteen years
150. Tickle charge is required for
A. primary cells B. lead-acid batteries C. nickel-iron cell D. all of the above
151. In case of a lead-acid battery a wet battery cover indicates
A. over filling of the battery C. leaky seals at covers
B. excessive gassing during charging D. any of the above
152. The electrolyte in a Lelanche cell is
A. pyrogallic acid
B. lead stearate
C. dilute sulphuric acid
D. aqueous solution of ammonium chloride
153. A lead-acid battery, even when not in use, should be recharged once in
A. ten days B. three days C. six weeks D. six months
154. Sedimentation in lead-acid batteries occurs due to
A. slow charging at low rate C. non-utilization for longer periods
B. overcharging at high rate D. over discharging at slow rate
155. The terminal voltage, when the battery is being charged, decrease with
A. increasing temperature C. increasing state of charge
B. increasing charging rate D. all of the above
156. Which test is used to ascertain whether the battery plates are defective or not?
A. Open volt test B. Cadmium test C. High discharge test D. Sp. gravity test
157. 12 V lead-acid batteries have an internal resistance of 0.01 Ω. How much current will flow when
the battery is short circuited?
A. 10 A B. 100 A C. 600 A D. 1200 A
158. Which of the following is a dry storage cell?
A. carbon-zinc cell B. Mercury cell C. Nickel-iron D. Nickel-cadmium cell
159. Two batteries having unequal emf
A. can be connected in series only C. cannot be connected in parallel
B. cannot be connected in series D. may be connected in series or in parallel
160. Which of the following material is used in solar cells?
A. Barium B. Silicon C. Silver D. Selenium
161. In a lead-acid cell, hydrogen is liberated at
A. positive plate C. both positive and negative plates
B. negative plate D. none of the above
162. Find the odd one out
A. lead-acid cells B. solar cells C. fuel cells D. dry cells
163. The efficiency of a solar cell may be in the range
A. 2 to 5% B. 10 to 15% C. 30 to 40% D. 70 to 80%
164. A discharged battery is put on charge at 5 A for 3.5 hours. After charging it is used to supply
current for 6 hours to resistance R ohms. The terminal voltage across the resistance is 12 V. if the
ampere hour efficiency of the battery is 85% the value of R is
A. 2 ohms B. 4 ohms C. 4.84 ohms D. 5.5 ohms
165. A battery has a 20 hour charge rate of 10 A, the mean value of terminal voltage during charging
being 2.35 V. It supplies 7 A for 25 hours when used and the mean terminal voltage, during
discharging is 1.955 V. the ampere-hour and watt-hour efficiencies respectively of the battery are
A. 10%. 8% B. 40%, 30% C. 50%, 45% D. 87.5%, 60%
166. A cell supplies a current of 0.75 A for 10 hours. Then its terminal voltage drops to a low value.
What is the Ah rating of the cell?
 A. 2.5 Ah B. 5 Ah C. 7.5 Ah D. 15 Ah
167. A bank of 12 cells is connected into 3 parallel branches containing 4 cells in series. What is the
equivalent open circuit emf of bank?
A. 2 V B. 4 V C. 6 V D. 12 V
168. A battery is made up of 5 voltage cells in series. Each cell has an open circuit emf of 1.6 V and an
internal resistance of 0.08Ω. What is the battery terminal voltage for a load of 6Ω?
A. 5 V B. 6 V C. 7 V D. 7.5 V
169. The open-circuit emf of a storage cell is 2.2V. The terminal voltage measured when current is 6 A
is found to be 1.98 V. The internal resistance of the cell is
A. 0.00366 Ω B. 0.0366Ω C. 0.366Ω D. 3.66Ω
170. A 30 V source with a central resistance of 1Ω is connected across a wire wound resistor.
Maximum power will be dissipated in the resistor when its R is
A. 1 Ω B. 1.5 Ω C. 2 Ω D. 2.5 Ω
171. When the internal resistance of a cell is large compared to the external resistance in the circuit
then high current can flow through the external resistance by grouping the cell
A. in parallel C. in either series or parallel
B. in series D. mixed
172. Electrolyte for silver plating is
A. potassium nitrate solution C. double cyanide of silver and potassium solution
B. dilute sulphuric acid D. any of the above
173. For cadmium plating electrolyte used is
A. cadmium suphate and sulphuric acid C. sodium cyanide, cadmium and caustic soda
B. cadmium hexa metaphosphate D. any of the above
174. Electric supply for electroplating should be
A. low voltage AC voltage C. DC voltage
B. low frequency AC voltage D. any of the above
175. Which of the following is invariably seen in an electroplating plant?
A. Distilled water B. Rectifier C. Barrel D. Carbon brushes
176. Which law(s) find application in electrolysis?
A. Ohm’s law B. Faraday’s law C. Coulomb’s law D. Gauss’s law
177. Electrochemical equivalent is usually expressed in
A. milligrams/coulomb C. milligrams/kW
B. milligrams/volt D. milligrams/kVA
178. Silver coating is provided for
A. bearing surface C. protective purposes
B. decorative purposes D. all of the above
179. Highest purity copper is obtained by
A. electroplating B. roasting C. smelting D. any of the above process
180. In electroplating, the character of metal deposited is affected by
A. surface preparation C. structure of metal
B. metal-ion concentration D. all of the above
181. In electroplating the current efficiency is usually
A. 40 to 50% B. 60 to 70% C. 80 to 90% D. 90 to 98%
182. Coating generally recommended for hard surfacing is
A. lead plating B. copper plating C. chromium plating D. none of the above
183. Coating usually recommended for electrical contacts is that of
A. tin B. gold C. chromium D. silver
184. Galvanizing is coating of
A. chromium B. lead C. zinc D. tin
185. The plates of lead-acid storage battery are most likely to be short circuited if
A. sediment collects at the bottom of the battery
B. too much water is added
C. the electrolyte evaporates
D. the battery is charged too slowly
186. For zinc plating optimum temperature is
A. 5°C B. 10 to 15°C C. 25 to 40°C D. 50 to 80°C
187. The electrode for a battery must be
A. a semi-conductor C. a good conductor of electricity
B. an insulator D. a bad conductor of electricity
188. A cell which is used as a voltage reference source for instrument calibration is
A. dry cell C. mercury-cadmium cell
B. solar cell D. nickel-cadmium cell
189. 121 cells, each of emf 0.121 V and internal resistance 0.121 Ω are connected in parallel. The emf
of parallel combination will be
A. 121 x 0.121 V B. 0.121 V C. 100 V D. 1000 V
190. Higher current density is usually recommended for
A. tin plating B. cadmium plating C. bronze plating D. chromium plating
191. Which of the following substance when added to electrolyte promotes smooth deposition?
A. Glucose B. Albumen C. Gelatine D. Any of the above
192. The fuel cell converts ___ energy into electrical energy
A. mechanical B. magnetic C. solar D. chemical
193. The output voltage of a silver oxide cell is
A. 1.2 V B. 1.3 V C. 1.5 V D. 1.9 V
194. The ampere-hour (A.h) capacity of a battery used on cars is
A. 5 to 10 Ah C. 20 to 30 Ah E. 70 to 100 Ah
B. 15 to 20 Ah D. 30 to 60 Ah
195. The value of specific gravity of acid when a lead-acid battery is fully charged is
A. 1.1 B. 1.15 C. 1.25 D. 1.285
196. The emf of a storage battery depends upon
A. nature of electrodes C. shape of the cell
B. size of electrodes D. all of the above
197. When n cells each of emf E volts and internal resistance r ohms are connected in parallel the
strength of current I is given by
� �
A. �/ � + � B. �/ � + � C. �/ � + � D. �/ � + ��
198. One ampere-hour charge is equivalent to
A. 200 coulombs B. 360 coulombs C. 3600 coulombs D. 60000 coulombs
199. The energy in a lead-acid battery is stored in the form of
A. nuclear energy B. electrostatic charge C. solar energy D. chemical energy
200. ___ of a substance is equal to the mass of its ions liberated by the passage of one ampere
current for one second through its electrolytic solution or by the passage of a charge of one coulomb.
Answer: Electrochemical equivalent
201. The second law of ___ laws of electrolysis states that the masses of ions of different substances
liberated by the same quantity of electricity are proportional to their chemical equivalent weight.
Answer: Faraday’s
202. As per Faraday’s Law of electrolysis m = Zit. Answer: YES
203. The charge required to liberate one gram-equivalent of any substance is known as ___ constant.
Answer: Faraday’s
204. The opposing emf which is prodiced in an electrolyte due to the absorption of gaseous ions by the
electrolyte from the two electrodes is known as the back emf of electrolysis or ____.
Answer: polarization
205. The minimum voltage required to decompose an electrolyte is called the ___ voltage for that
electrolyte. Answer: decomposition
206. Lead peroxide is ___ in colour. Answer: dark brown
207. In a lead-acid cell spongy lead forms the ___ active material. Answer: negative
208. The ___ of a cell is given by the product of current in amperes and the time in hours during which
the cell can supply current until its emf falls to 1.8 V. Answer: capacity
209. The ___ of plates not only decreases the internal resistance but additionally increases the
capacity of the cell also. Answer: interlacing
210. There is always ___ more negative plate than the positive plate. Answer: one
211. When the cell is fully charged, it freely gives off hydrogen at cathode and oxygen at the anode,
the process being known as ____. Answer: gassing
212. When the lea-acid cell is fully charged the ___ ceases to rise. Answer: voltage
213. The voltage of a fully charged cell is a variable quantity being affected by the rate of ____.
Answer: charging
214. Alkaline batteries are suited for ___ work. Answer: portable
215. The lead-acid battery should not be left in ____ condition for long. Answer: discharge
216. The efficiencies of an Edison cell are lower than those of the ___ cell. Answer: lead-acid
217. The principal disadvantage of the ____ battery is its high initial cost. Answer: Edison
218. As compared to lead-acid cells, the ___ cells operate much better at low temperature, do not emit
obnoxious fumes, have very small self discharge and their plates do not buckle or swell.
Answer: alkaline
219. Cells which are reversible may be used as ____ cells. Answer: Storage
220. The essential requirement of a good storage cell is that both the electrode material and products
of chemical reaction should be practically ___ in electrolyte. Answer: insoluble
221. The voltage of a battery is the ____ of each cell multiplied by the ___ of such cells in series.
Answer: voltage, number
222. The grids of the negative plates are lighter than those of the positive plates. Answer: YES
223. The jars of lead acid storage batteries may be made of ebonite, molded plastics, ceramics and
glass. Answer: YES
224. ___ ratings of the batteries are ordinarily corresponding to the requirements of the service for
which the particular type of cells are adapted. Answer: Commercial
225. Batteries of operating oil circuit breakers are given a ___ rating. Answer: one minute
226. For railways signal service, a ____ hour rating is often specified. Answer: 72
227. The __ of a storage battery is defined as the ratio of the output of a cell or a battery to the input
required to restore the initial state of charge under specified conditions of temperature, current rate
and final voltage. Answer: efficiency
������ ℎ���� �� �ℎ����
228. Ampere-hour efficiency = ������ ℎ���� �� ����ℎ���� �100%. Answer: YES
229. ___ cells are additional cells in the battery so that the voltage from the battery required for load
under different conditions can be fairly adjusted and maintained as required. Answer: end
230. Nickel-cadmium batteries have ___ internal resistance and therefore maintain their terminal
voltage more nearly ___ than the other types of batteries. Answer: very low, constant
231. In the Nickel-Cadmium cell the number of positive plates is one more than negative plates, hence
in every assembled cell, the extreme plates will be positive. Answer: YES
232. The plates of alkaline cells do not buckle or swell. Answer: YES
233. ___ cells do not evolve obnoxious fumes. Answer: Alkaline
234. ___ cells, in comparison to alkaline cells, require more maintenance. Answer: Lead-acid
235. Electroplating is the application of the principles of ___. Answer electrolysis
236. When any metal is placed in an electrolyte, there is always a tendency for the metallic positive ion
to go into the solution while at the same time there is a tendency of the positive ions of the solution to
be deposited over the metal. Answer: YES
237. The metal roads connected to the poles of the battery are called ___. Answer: YES
238. The ratio of atomic weight to valency is known as the chemical equivalent of the metal.
Answer: YES
239. There are two types of lead plates (in a lead-acid cell) known as Plante and Faurre.
Answer: YES
240. The lead-acid cell should be recharged as soon as possible after the discharge. Answer: YES
241. If the battery (lead-acid) is not being used continuously it should be put on ___ charge.
Answer: trickle
242. In a lead-acid battery only pure and colourless sulphuric acid should be added whenever
necessary. Answer: YES
243. The most useful application of lead-acid batteries is that they are used for automatic starting of
heavy automobiles. Answer: YES
244. The capacity of a nickel-iron cell ___ when its electrolyte is exposed to air. Answer: decreases
245. Nickel-iron cells cannot be kept in a discharged condition for a long period. Answer: YES
246. Weight per kWh of a lead-acid cell is less than the weight of an alkaline cell. Answer: NO
247. A lead-acid cell is ___ than an alkaline cell. Answer: cheaper
248. Short-circuits in an alkaline cell do not reduce the life. Answer: YES
249. A group of cells delivers maximum current to a given load when the internal resistance of the
group of the cell is equal to the ____ Answer: load resistance
250. ___ plates are lighter, have high capacity and are cheaper than ___. Answer: Faure, Plante
251. ___ terminal post of a lead-acid cell is usually of bigger diameter than the diameter of ___
terminal post. Answer: Positive, Negative
252. Low level point of the electrolyte is just above the top of ___ and high point is 1.5 mm below the
bottom of ___. Answer: separators, filling tube
253. Average value of quantity efficiency of lead-acid cell is ___ and that of energy efficiency is __.
Answer: 75%, 90%
254. In Edison alkaline accumulators the active materials for positive plate is ___ and that of negative
plate is ___. Answer: NiO(OH), iron
255. For given voltage, number of alkali cells required will be about ___ times the number of lead-acid
�
cells. Answer: 1 �
256. The phenomenon of slow reaction taking place between the chemicals of a battery on no load is
called. Answer: Self discharged
257. Full charge sp. gravity of the battery ___ with the age of the battery. Answer: decreases
258. Freezing is easier in case of wet battery which is fully. Answer: discharged
259. Expander is used on ___ plate of the battery. Answer: negative
260. Battery terminal painted red denotes positive terminal and that painted green or blue denotes
negative terminal. Answer: YES
261. For the best performance, an industrial battery should be operated between temperature range of
15.5 to 26.5°C. Answer: YES
262. Three industrial applications of electrolysis are : ___, ___ and ___.
Answer: electroplating, electro refining of metals, extraction of metals
263. Continued consumption of negative electrode even though the battery is on open circuit is due to
the ____ which is like an internal short-circuits. Answer: local action
264. A sulphated battery should be charged always at low rate covering over long periods.
Answer: YES
265. Hydrometer should be flushed with alkali every time after its use. Answer: NO
266. ___ forms on the plates of a wet battery if kept for long idle periods without any recharge which
damages the battery. Answer: Pb���
267. Self discharge is less in Ni-Fe cells than in Edison cells. Answer: YES
268. In order to make up the level of acid in a lead-acid cell distilled water is added. Answer: YES
269. A ___ battery would require ten nickel-alkali cells. Answer: 12 V
AC fundamentals, Circuits and Circuit Theory

1. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular frequency is ___ radian/second.
A. 100 � B. 50 � C. 25 � D. 5 �
2. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50 Hz is 20 Ω. If frequency
increased to 100 Hz, reactance becomes ___ ohms.
A. 2.5 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15
3. The period of a wave
A. the same as frequency C. expressed in amperes
B. time required to complete one cycle D. none of the above
4. The form factor is the ratio of
A. peak value to rms value C. average value to rms value
B. rms value to average value D. none of the above
1
5. The period of a sine wave is 50 seconds. Its frequency is
A. 20 Hz B. 30 Hz C. 40 Hz D. 50 Hz
6. An AC current is given by I = 200 sin 100��. It will achieve a value of 100 A after ___ second.
1 1 1 �
A. 900 B. 800 C. 700 D. ���
7. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, AC. The value 230 V refers to
A. average voltage C. peak voltage
B. rms voltage D. none of the above
8. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes and phase angle are subtracted,
the resultant is
A. a sinusoid of the same frequency C. a sinusoid of doubles the frequency
B. a sinusoid of half the original frequency D. not a sinusoid
9. The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V. Its average value is
A. 127. 4 V B. 141.4 V C. 282.8 V D. 200 V
10. If two sine waves of the same frequency have phase difference of � radians, then
A. both will reach their minimum values at the same instant
B. both will reach their maximum values at the same instant
C. when one wave reaches its maximum value, the other will reach its minimum value
D. none of the above
11. The rms value of a sine wave is 100 A. Its peak value is
A. 70.7 A B. 141.4 A C.150 A D. 282.8 A
12. If two waves are expressed as �1 = ��1 sin (� �+�1 ) and �2 = ��2 sin (��+�2) , then
A. �1 is leading �2 by ∠ (�2 − �1 ) C. �2 is leading �1 by ∠ (�1 − �2 )
B. �� is leading �� by ∠ (�� − �� ) D. �1 is in phase with �2
13. The voltage of domestic supply is 220 V. This figure represents
A. mean value B. rms value C. peak value D. average value
14. Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase when the phase angle between them is
A. 360° B. 180° C. 90° D. 0°
15. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase difference between the current
and voltage is
A. 180° B. 90° C. 60° D. 0°
16. The rms value and mean value is the same in the case of
A. triangular wave B. sine wave C. square wave D. half wave rectifier sine wave
17. For the same peak value which of the following wave will have the highest rms value?
A. square wave C. triangular wave
B. half wave rectifier sine wave D. sine wave
18. For the same peak value, which of the following wave has the least mean value?
A. half wave rectifier sine wave C. sine wave
B. triangular wave D. square wave
19. For a sine wave with peak value ���� the rms value is
A. 0.5 ���� B. 0.707 ���� C. 0.9 ���� D. 1.414 ����
20. Form factor is the ratio of
A. average value/rms value C. rms value/average value
B. average value/peak value D. rms value/peak value
21. Form factor for a sine wave is
A. 1.414 B. 0.707 C. 1.11 D. 0.637
22. For a sine wave with peak value ���� the average value is
A. 0.636 ���� B. 0.707 ���� C. 0.434 ���� D. 1.414 ����
23. The current in a circuit is given by : � = 100 sin 314 � ������� The maximum value and frequency of
current are
A. 50 2 �, 100 Hz C. 100 A, 50 Hz
B. 100 �, 100 Hz
2 D. 70.7 A, 50 Hz
24. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will be
A. 0.05 s B. 0.005 s C. 0.0005 s D. 0.5 s
25. The phase difference between voltage and current wave through a circuit element is given as 30°.
The essential condition is that
A. both waves must have same frequency
B. both waves must have identical peak values
C. both waves must have zero value at the same time
D. none of the above
26. An AC voltage of 50 Hz has maximum value of 50 V. Its value after 1/600 second after the instant the
current is zero, will be
A. 5 V B. 12.5 V C. 25 V D. 43.3 V
27. When two waves are in phase they have peak values at an interval of
A. 180° B. 120° C. 90° D. none of the above
28. For 200 V rms value triangular wave, the peak values voltage will be
A. 200 V B. 222 V C. 282 V D. 346 V
29. A sine wave of voltage varies from zero to maximum of 200 V. How much is the voltage at the instant
of 30° of the cycle?
A. 50 V B. 82.8 V C. 100 V D. 173.2 V
30. How much rms current does a 300 W, 200 V bulb take from the 200 V, 50 Hz power line?
A. 0.5 A B. 1.5 A C. 2 A D. 3 A
31. Two sinusoidal current are given by:�1 = 100 sin (�� + �/3), and �2 = 150 sin (�� − �/4) . The phase
difference between them is ___ degrees.
A. 15 B. 50 C. 60 D. 105
32. The rms value of a half-wave rectified current is 100 A. Its value for full-wave rectification would be
___ amperes.
A. 141.4 B. 200 C. 200/� D. 40/�
33. From the two voltages equations: �1 = ���� sin 100��, and �2 = ���� sin 100�� + �/6, it is obvious
that
A. 1 leads 2 by 30°
B. 2 lads behind 1
�
C. 2 achieves its maximum value ��� second before 1 does
 1
D. 1 achieves its zero value 600 second before 2
34. The rms value of a sinusoidal AC current is equal to its value at an angle of ___ degrees.
A. 90 B. 60 C. 45 D. 30
35. Capacitive reactance is more when
A. capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less
B. capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
C. capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
D. capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more
36. Time constant of a capacitive circuit increases with the
A. increase of capacitance and decrease of resistance
B. increase of capacitance and increase of resistance
C. decrease of capacitance and decrease of resistance
D. decrease of capacitance and increase of resistance
37. In a series circuit on resonance, following will occur
A. V = �� B. �� = �� C. Z = R D. �� = ��
E. all above
38. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit is
A. minimum B. maximum C. zero D. none of the above
39. Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to
A. R/Z
B. cosine of phase angle difference between current and voltage
C. kW/kVA
D. ratio of useful current to total current �� /�
E. all above
40. The best place to install a capacitor is
A. very near to inductive load
B. across the terminals of the inductive load
C. far away from the inductive load
D. any where
41. Poor power factor
A. reduces load handling capability of electrical system
B. results in more power losses in the electrical system
C. overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines
D. result in more voltage drop in the line
E. results in all above
42. Capacitors for power factor correction are rated in
A. kW B. kVA C. kV D. kVAR
43. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value and reducing capacitance to its half
value
A. will change the maximum value of current at resonance
B. will change the resonance frequency
C. will change the impedance at resonance frequency
D. will increase the selectivity of the circuit
44. Pure inductive circuit
A. consumes some power on average
B. does not take power at all from a line
C. takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it during
other part of a cycle
 D. none of the above
45. Inductance affects the direct current flow
A. only at the time of turning off C. at the time of turning on and off
B. only at the time of turning on D. at all the time of operation
46. Inductance of a coil varies
A. directly as the cross-sectional area of magnetic core
B. directly as square of number of turns
C. directly as the permeability of the core
D. inversely as the length of the iron path
E. as (a) to (d)
47. All the rules and laws of DC circuit also apply to AC circuit containing
A. capacitance only C. resistance only
B. inductance only D. all above
48. Time constant of an inductive circuit
A. increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
B. increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
C. increases with decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance
D. increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
49. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by connecting capacitor to it in
A. parallel B. series C. either (a) or (b) D. none of the above
50. In a highly capacitive circuit the
A. apparent power is equal to the actual power
B. reactive power is more than the apparent power
C. reactive power is more than the actual power
D. actual power is more than its active power
51. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero
A. resistance B. inductance C. capacitance D. both (b) and (c)
52. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity
A. inductance B. capacitance C. resistance D. both (a) and (b)
53. Power factor of the system is kept high
A. to reduce line losses
B. to maximize the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines and transformers
C. to reduce voltage regulation of the line
D. due to all above reasons
54. The time constant of the capacitance circuit is defined as the time during which voltage
A. falls to 36.8% of its final steady value C. rises to 63.2% of its final steady value
B. rises to 38.6% of its final steady value D. none of the above
55. In the R-L-C containing R = 4.5Ω. L = 0.06 H, C = 0.6 �� the power factor will be
A. zero B. lagging C. leading D. unity
56. In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current is
A. oscillating B. Square wave C. sinusoidal D. non-oscillating
57. The rms value of alternating current is given by steady (DC) current which when flowing through a
given circuit for a given time produces
A. the more heat than produced by AC when flowing through the same circuit
B. the same heat as produced by AC when flowing through the same circuit
C. the less heat than produced by AC flowing through the same circuit
D. none of the above
58. The square waveform of current has following relation between rms value and average value.
A. rms value is equal to average value
 B. rms value of current is greater than average value
C. rms value of current is less than average value
D. none of the above
59. The double energy transient occur in the
A. purely inductive circuit C. R-C circuit
B. R-L circuit D. R-L-C circuit
60. The transient currents are associated with the
A. changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors
B. impedance of the circuit
C. applied voltage of the circuit
D. resistance of the circuit
61. The power factor at resonance in R-L-C parallel circuit is
A. zero B. 0.08 lagging C. 0.8 leading D. unity
62. In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the average value must always be taken over
A. unsymmetrical part of the wave form C. the half cycle
B. the quarter cycle D. the whole cycle
63. In a pure resistive circuit
A. current lags behind the voltage by 90° C. current can lead or lag the voltage by 90°
B. currents lead the voltage by 90° D. current is in phase with the voltage
64. In a pure inductive circuit
A. the current is in phase with the voltage
B. the current lags behind the voltage by 90°
C. the currents lead the voltage by 90°
D. the current can lead or lag the voltage by 90°
65. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in
A. C only B. L only C. R only D. all above
66. Inductance of coil
A. is unaffected by the supply frequency
B. decrease with the increase in supply frequency
C. increases with the increase in supply frequency
D. becomes zero with the increase in supply frequency
67. In any AC circuit always
A. apparent power is more than actual power
B. reactive power is more than apparent power
C. actual power is more than reactive power
D. reactive power is more than actual power
68. Which of the following circuit component opposes the change in the circuit voltage?
A. inductance B. capacitance C. conductance D. resistance
69. In a purely inductive circuit
A. actual power is zero C. apparent power is zero
B. reactive power is zero D. none of above is zero
70. Power factor of electric bulb is
A. zero B. lagging C. leading D. unity
71. Pure inductive circuit takes power from the AC line when
A. applied voltage decreases but current increases
B. applied voltage increases but current decreases
C. both applied voltage and current increase
D. both applied voltage and current decrease
72. Time constant of a circuit is the time in seconds taken after the application of voltage to each
 A. 25% of maximum value C. 63% of maximum value
B. 50% of maximum value D. 90% of the maximum value
73. Time constant of an inductive circuit
A. increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
B. increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
C. increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance
D. increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
74. Time constant of a capacitive circuit
A. increases with the decrease of a capacitance and decrease of resistance
B. increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase of resistance
C. increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease of resistance
D. increases with increase of capacitance and increase of resistance
75. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit
A. depends upon the magnitude of R C. depends upon the magnitude of C
B. depends upon the magnitude of L D. depends upon the magnitude of R, L and C
76. Power factor of magnetizing component of current of a transformer is
A. 0.8 lag B. 0.8 lead C. zero D. unity
77. In a R-L-C circuit
A. power is consumed in resistance and is equal to �2 R
B. exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line
C. exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
D. exchange of power does not take place between resistance and the supply line
E. all above are correct
78. Physical quantities of resistance, inductance and capacitance are represented by R, L and C
respectively. The combinations which have dimensions of frequency are
A. C/L B. R/L C. 1/RC D. 1/ ��
79. In R-L-C series resonant circuit magnitude of resonance frequency can be changed by changing the
value of
A. R only B. L only C. C only D. L or C
E. R, L or C
80. In a series L-C circuit at the resonant frequency the
A. current is maximum C. impedance is maximum
B. current is minimum D. voltage across C is minimum
81. In a R-L-C series circuit if voltage V across the circuit is reduced to half the current I will change to
A. 2� B. � � C. 3 4 � D. 5 8 �
82. The time constant of a series R-C circuit is given by
A. R/C B. ��2 C. RC D. �2 �
83. If resistance is 20Ω and inductance is 2H in a R-L series circuit, then time constant of this circuit will
be
A. 0.001 s B. 0.1 s C. 10 s D. 100 s
84. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency?
A. a coil with large resistance C. a coil with large distributed capacitance
B. a coil with low resistance D. a coil with low distributed capacitance
85. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 30 A rms current which of the following equation
represents this wave?
A. 42.42 sin 214t B. 60 sin 25 t C. 30 sin 50 t D. 84.84 sin 25 t
86. The safest value of current the human body can carry for more than 3 second is
A. 4 mA B. 9 mA C. 15 mA D. 25 mA
87. A pure inductance connected across 250 V, 50 Hz supply consumes 100 W. This consumption can
be attributed to
A. the big size of the inductor C. the current flowing in the inductor
B. the reactance of the inductor D. the statement given is false
88. The input of an AC circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is 40 kVA. The power drawn by the
circuit is
A. 12 kW B. 22 kW C. 32 kW D. 64 kW
89. The effective resistance of an iron-cored choke working on ordinary supply frequency is more than its
true resistance because of
A. iron loss in core C. increase in temperature
B. skin effect D. capacitive effect between adjacent coil turns
90. In an AC circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates
A. low frequency B. high power factor C. unity power factor D. maximum load current
91. In AC circuits, laminated iron is in variably used in order to
A. reduce eddy current loss C. make assembly cheap and easier
B. increase heat radiation D. reduce circuit permeability
92. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as ____ factor
A. demand B. load C. power D. form
93. All definition of power factor of a series R-L-C circuit are correct except
A. ratio of net reactance and impedance C. ratio of R and Z
B. ratio of kW and kVA D. ratio of W and VA
94. The apparent power drawn by an AC circuit is 10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The reactive power
in the circuit is
A. 4 kVAR B. 8 kVAR C. 6 kVAR D. 16 kVAR
95. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50 Hz is 20Ω. If the
frequency is increased to 100 Hz, reactance becomes
A. 5 Ω B. 10 Ω C. 15 Ω D. 30 Ω
96. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of equal frequency, when one wave
attains maximum value the other is at zero value?
A. 0° B. 45° C. 90° D. 180°
97. The purpose of a parallel circuit resonance is to magnify
A. current B. voltage C. power D. frequency
98. In an AC circuit power is dissipated in
A. resistance only B. inductance only C. capacitance only D. none of the above
99. In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always ___ the applied voltage
A. lags B. leads C. remains in the phase with D. none of the above
100. At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost purely ____
A. resistive B. inductive C. capacitive D. none of the above
101. Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries current at ____ frequencies.
A. very low B. low C. medium D. high
102. At ____ frequencies the parallel R-L circuit behaves as purely resistive.
A. low B. very low C. high D. very high
103. In a sine wave the slope is constant
A. between 0° and 90° C. between 180° and 270°
B. between 90° and 180° D. no where
104. The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of
A. electronic equipment C. current transformers
B. transformers D. auto-transformers
105. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of
 A. reactive power in a circuit
B. the extent of neutralization of reactive power in a circuit
C. a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to pass current
D. a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to resist the flow of current
106. Which of the following statements pertains to resistors only?
A. can dissipate considerable amount of power
B. can act as energy storage device
C. connecting them in parallel increases the total value
D. oppose sudden changes in voltage
107. Which of the following refers to a parallel circuit?
A. the current through each element is same
B. the voltage across element is in proportion to its resistance value
C. the equivalent resistance is greater than any one of the resistors
D. the current through any one element is less than the source current
108. A phasor is
A. a line which represents the magnitude and phase of an alternating quantity
B. a line representing the magnitude and direction of an alternating quantity
C. a colored tag or band for distinction between different phases of a 3-phase supply
D. an instrument used for measuring phases of an unbalanced 3-phase load
109. A parallel AC circuit in resonance will
A. have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
B. have a high impedance
C. act like a resistor of low value
D. have current in each section equal to the line current
110. Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for use at high frequencies because they
A. create more electrical noise
B. are likely to melt under excessive eddy current heat
C. consume more power
D. exhibit unwanted inductive and capacitive effects
111. The inductance of a coil can be increased by
A. increasing core length
B. decreasing the number of turns
C. decreasing the diameter of the meter
D. choosing core material having high relative permeability
112. The power taken by a 3-ϕ load is given by the expression
A. 3 �� �� sin ϕ B. � �� �� ��� � C. 3 �� �� sin ϕ D. 3 �� �� cos ϕ
113. The least number of 1-ϕ watt-meters required to measure total power consumed by an
unbalanced load fed from a 3-ϕ, 4-wire system is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D.4
114. In a three-phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it way give rise to
A. high voltage across the load
B. low voltage across the load
C. unequal line voltages across the load
115. On a 3-ϕ balanced delta-connected load supplied a 240 V AC, the watt-meter readings are 1710
and 3210. What is the current?
A. 10.86 A B. 15.86 A C. 20.86 A D. 30.86 A
116. Two watt-meters connected to measure the power input to a balanced 3-ϕ circuit indicate 2500 W
and 500 W respectively. What is the power factor?
 A. 0.355 B. 0.455 C. 555 D. 0.655
117. A series R-L-C circuit has
R = 80 Ω, L = 100 � H and C = 300 pF, V = 20V.The current at resonance will be
A. 0.125 A B. 1.25 A C. 0.25 A D. 5 A
118. For the full wave rectified sine wave the rms value is
A. 0.707 ���� B. 0.636 ���� C. 0.381 ���� D. zero
119. Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor?
A. square wave C. half wave rectified sine wave
B. sine wave D. triangular wave
120. The frequency of domestic power supply in India is
A. 200 Hz B. 100 Hz C. 60 Hz D. 50 Hz
121. The rms value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The rms value of full wave rectified AC
will be
A. 282.8 V B. 141.4 V C. 111 V D. 100 V
122. The voltage in a circuit follows the law
� = 100 sin ��
If the frequency is 25 Hz, how long will it take for the voltage to rise to 50 volts?
1 1 � 1
A. s B. s C. s D. s
50 100 ��� 600
123. The negative maximum of a cosine wave occurs at
A. 30° B. 45° C. 90° D. 180°
124. In a series R-L circuit the instantaneous voltage is given by:
��
�� = �2 + (��)2 �� sin �� + tan−1
�
The above equation indicates that
��
A. the current lags the voltage by an angle ���−� �
��
B. the current leads the voltage by an angle tan−1 �
C. the current lags the voltage by 60°
D. the current leads the voltage by 60°
125. The rms value of pure cosine function is
A. 0.5 of peak value C. same as peak value
B. 0.707 of peak value D. zero
126. Ohm is unit of all of the following except
A. inductive reactance C. resistance
B. capacitive reactance D. capacitance
127. If A = 8 ∠30° and B = 2 ∠15° the value of A/B will be
A. 4 ∠15° B. 6 ∠30° C. 8 ∠15° D. none of the above
128. The series and parallel resonance on L-C circuit differs in that
A. series resistance needs a low-resistance source for sharp rise in current
B. series resonance needs a high-resistance source for sharp increase in current
C. parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp increase in impedance
D. series resonance needs a low-resistance source for sharp rise in line current
129. Which of the following expression is true for apparent power in an AC circuit?
A. VI cos � B. ���. � ���. C. ���� � ���� D. ����� � �����
130. The quality factor of R-L-C circuit will increase if
A. R increases B. R decreases C. impedance increasesD. voltage increases
131. The phasors for which of the following pair are 180° out of phase for �� , �� and �� ?
A. �� and �� B. �� and �� C. �� and �� D. none of the above
132. If impedance �1 = 30 ∠30° and �2 = 15 ∠15°, what will be the value of �1 ��2 ?
A. ��� ∠��° B. 300 ∠ − 15° C. 150 ∠45° D. 50 ∠ − 15°
133. In the question 8.132, what will be the value of �1 /�2 ?
A. � ∠��° B. 2 ∠5° C. 45 ∠15° D. none of the above
134. Which of the following value of an alternating current is indicated by a normal universal
measuring instrument?
A. ���. B. ���� C. ���. /2 D. ����
135. An alternating voltage is given in volts by expression V = 326 sin 314 t. Its rms value and
frequency are
A. 230 V, 50 Hz B. 230 V, 100 Hz C. 326 V, 50 Hz D. 326 V, 100 Hz
136. According to which of the alternating current values in the cross-sectional area of a conductor
with regard to the heating effect is selected?
A. peak value B. half peak value C. average value D. rms value
137. The frequency of an alternating current is
A. the speed with which the alternator runs
B. the number of cycles generated in one minute
C. the number of waves passing through a point in one second
D. the number of electrons passing through a point in one second
138. In an AC circuit, the voltage and current are represented by
� = ���� sin �, and � = ���� sin (� + �). The power factor of is
A. cos � leading B. cos � lagging C. cos (� + �) D. none of the above
139. A pure capacitor connected across an AC voltage consumed 50 W. This is due to
A. the capacitive reactance in ohms C. the size of the capacitor being quite big
B. the current flowing in capacitor D. the statement is incorrect
140. The power factor of a DC circuit is always
A. less than unity B. unity C. greater than unity D. zero
141. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle between circuit voltage and current
is
A. true power B. reactive power C. volt-ampere D. instantaneous power
142. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave having rms value of 60 A is
A. 60 sin 25 t B. 60 sin 50 t C. 84.84 sin 314 t D. 42.42 sin 314 t
143. The unit of frequency of an AC signal is
A. cycle B. cycle-sec C. hertz/sec D. hertz
144. Which of the following values of alternating voltage should insulation absolutely withstand?
A. the average value C. the peak value
B. the rms value D. half the effective value
145. An Ac voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5 ohms in parallel with a pure
inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms,
A. the current through the resistance is more
B. the current through the resistance is less
C. both resistance and inductance carry equal currents
D. none of the above
146. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
A. be reduce by half C. be four times as high
B. be doubled D. be reduce to one fourth
147. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
A. be reduce by half C. be four times as high
B. be doubled D. be reduced to one fourth
148. The relation between the apparent power, actual power and reactive power is given by
 A. apparent power = actual power + reactive power
B. apparent power = actual power – reactive power
C. apparent power = (������ �����)2 − (�������� �����)2
D. apparent power = (������ �����)� + (�������� �����)�
149. When an alternating current passes through an ohmic resistance the electric power converted
into heat is
A. apparent power B. true power C. reactive power D. none of the above
150. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an alternating voltage having an rms value
of 220 V is induced. Which of the following values is indicated by the voltmeters?
A. 220 V B. 220 3 V C. 220/ 3 V D. none of the above
151. Which of the following equations valid for a balanced load on a starts circuit with a neutral
conductor in a four wire star circuit?
A. �� = �� + �� + �� = � C. �� = �� + �� − ��
B. �� = �� − �� + �� D. �� = (�� + �� + �� )/�
152. The true power drawn by a balanced three-phase consumer for line voltage V and line current I is
given by
A. V I cos � B. � V I ��� � C. 3 V I cos � D. 3 V I
153. An electric iron designed for 110 V AC supply was rated at 500 W. It was put across a 220 V
supply. Assuming that at 110 V it supplied 500 W output, (i.e., no less) at the new voltage it will
supply
A. 2500 W B. 2000 W C. 500 W D. 250 W
154. A coil is connected across a 200 V, 50 Hz supply and takes a current of 10 A. the loss in the coil
is 1000 W. The impedance and resistance of the coil are
A. 10 Ω, 8 Ω B. 15 Ω, 8 Ω C. 20 Ω, 10 Ω D. 30 Ω, 15 Ω
155. In an AC circuit (sine wave) with R and L in series
A. voltage across R and L are 180° out of phase
B. the voltage across R lags the voltage across L by 90°
C. the voltage across R leads the voltage across L by 90°
D. voltage across R and L are in phase
156. While drawing vector diagram for a series circuit, the reference vector is
A. voltage B. current C. power D. phase angle
157. For a purely resistive circuit the following statement is in correct
A. work done is zero C. heat produced is zero
B. power consumed is zero D. power factor is unity
158. What inductance will give the same reactance as a capacitor of 2�� when both are at 50 Hz?
A. 5 H B. 10 H C. 15 H D. 20 H
159. In an AC circuit � sin � is called
A. active component C. any of the above
B. wattles component D. none of the above
160. In a R-L-C circuit the impedance is given by

A. � = � + �� − �� C. � = (� + �� )2 + �� 2

B. � = � − �� + �� D. � = �� + (�� − �� )�
161. An alternating voltage V = 160 + j 120 V is applied to a circuit and the subsequent current flowing
I = -6 + j 15 A. The impedance of the circuit is
A. 12 – j 3.2 B. 3.2 – j 12 C. 6.4 – j 24 D. none of the above
162. The impedance 3.2 – j 12 in polar form is given as
A. 6.4 ∠ − 75° B. 8.4 ∠ − 75° C. 10.4 ∠ − 75° D. 12.4 ∠ − ��°
163. A coil of 20 ohms resistance and 0.16 H inductance is connected in parallel with a 100 ��
condenser to a constant voltage variable frequency supply. The frequency (neglecting the resistance)
at which the current in the main is a minimum is given by
A. 20 Hz B. 30 Hz C. 40 Hz D. 50 Hz
164. A balanced star connected load is supplied from a symmetrical three phase 440 V system. It
draws current of 40 A at 0.866 power factor lagging. The total power taken by the load will be
A. 13.2 kW B. 26.4 kW C. 30.4 kW D. 40.4 kW
165. A 100 kW three phase delta connected motor works on a supply of three phase 3.3 kV. The
motor efficiency is 92% and the power factor is 90%. The line current drawn by the motor will be
A. 10 A B. 15 A C. 18 A D. 21 A
166. In AC circuit the power curve is a sine wave having
A. double the frequency of voltage C. half the frequency of the voltage
B. same frequency as that of voltage D. three times the frequency of the voltage
167. In a highly capacitive circuit
A. actual power is greater than reactive power
B. reactive power is greater than actual power
C. apparent power equals actual power
D. actual power equals reactive power
168. The resonant frequency for a parallel circuit is given by
� 1 1 1 1 1 �
A. B. C. D.
�� 4� �2 � 8� ��2 2� 2�
169. In as series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit is
A. maximum B. minimum C. zero D. infinite
170. In a series resonant circuit the voltage across the circuit is the same as the voltage across
A. inductance B. capacitance C. resistance D. none of the above
171. The value of operator �2 is equal to
A. zero B. + 1 C. – 1 D. −1
172. A series R-L-C circuit draws current at leading power factor at
A. more than resonant frequency C. resonant frequency
B. less than resonant frequency D. none of the above
173. For a L-C parallel circuit at resonance, all the statements given below are correct except
A. the line current is maximum at resonance
B. the branch currents at resonance are equal
C. the angle between the branch currents is 180° at resonance
D. the admittance is minimum at resonance
174. In a series R-L-C circuit, the voltage across inductance will be maximum
A. at resonance frequency C. just after resonant frequency
B. just before resonant frequency D. none of the above
175. In a series R-L-C circuit at resonance
A. ��� = 1 B. ��2 �2 = 1 C. �� �� = � D. �2 �2 � = 1
176. The ability of a resonant circuit to discriminate between one particular frequency and all others is
called its
A. impedance B. selectivity C. conductance D. none of the above
177. The current in the circuit is given by (4.5 + j 12) when the applied voltage is (100 + j 150). The
complex expression for the impedance is
A. 13.7 – j 3.2 B. 3.2 – j 13.7 C. 27.4 – j 6.4 D. 6.4 – j 27.4
178. An 8 Ω resistance, 16 Ω inductive reactance and an unknown capacitor are connected in series
across a 100 V, 50 Hz supply. The current drawn by the circuit is 12.5 A. The value of capacitance of
the capacitor will be
A. 50 �� B. 100 �� C. 150 �� D. ��� ��
179. An R-L-C circuit consists of a resistance of 1000 Ω, an inductance of 100 mH and a capacitance
of 10 ���. The Q-factor of the circuit is
A. 10 B. 20 C. 50 D. 100
180. At half-power points of a resonance curve, the current is ___ times the maximum current
A. 1/2 B. 1/ � C. 2 D. 2
181. A resonance curve for a series circuit is a plot of frequency versus
A. current B. voltage C. impedance D. reactance
182. Higher the Q of a series circuit,
A. broader its resonance curve C. greater its bandwidth
B. narrower its pass band D. sharper at resonance
183. Selectivities of different resonance circuits are compared in terms of their
A. impedances B. reactance C. frequencies D. bandwidths
184. The power factor of a series R-L-C circuit at its half-power points is
A. unity B. lagging C. leading D. lagging or leading
185. The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to ____ of �� and ��
A. phasor sum B. arithmetic sum C. sum of the squares D. algebraic sum
186. A parallel AC circuit in resonance will
A. have current in each section equal to the line current
B. have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
C. act like a resistor of low value
D. have a high impedance
187. The dynamic impedance of an R-L and C parallel circuit at resonance is ___ ohm
A. R/LC B. C/LR C. LC/R D. L/CR
188. A parallel resonant circuit can be used
A. as a high impedance C. both (a) and (b)
B. to reject a small band of frequencies D. to amplify certain frequencies
189. In a power system, reactive power is necessary for
A. power transmission
B. stabilizing the voltage level
C. counteracting the effect of reactance in the transmission system
D. none of the above
190. The ratio of the bandwidth to the resonance frequency is called the ___ of the circuit
A. impedance B. susceptance B. quality factor D. selectivity
191. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. Resistance is a passive element C. Conductance is a passive element
B. Voltage source is an active element D. Current source is a passive element
+
192. A capacitor with initial charge �0 at � = 0 acts as
A. current source B. voltage source C. short-circuit D. open-circuit
193. A network is said to be non-linear if it does not satisfy
A. homogeneity B. superposition C. both (a) and (c) D. associative condition
194. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. ideal voltage source is one whose internal resistance is zero
B. ideal voltage source is one whose internal conductance is zero
C. ideal voltage source is one whose generated voltage is equal to the available terminal voltage
 D. ideal current source is one whose internal conductance is zero
195. A capacitor with no initial charge at � = ∞ ����
A. voltage source B. current source C. short-circuit D. open-circuit
196. Which of the following is not a non-linear element?
A. Transistor C. Diode
B. Heater coil D. Electric arc with unlike electrodes
197. Which of the following theorems enables a number of voltage (or current) source to be combined
directly into a single voltage (or current) source?
A. Superposition theorem C. Millman’s theorem
B. Compensation theorem D. Thevenin’s theorem
198. To neglect a current source, the terminal across the source are
A. replace by source resistance C. short-circuited
B. replace by capacitance D. open-circuited
199. The frequency at which maximum voltage occurs across the inductance in R-L-C series circuit is
1 1 1 �
A. B. C. D.
��−�2 �2 2� ��−�2 2� �� ����
2� 2
�� ��− �

200. The frequency at which maximum voltage occurs across the capacitance in R-L-C series circuits
is given by
� � �� 1 1 �2 1 1 �2
A.
��
− ��� B.
��2
− C. D.
2�2
�� 2� 2� 2� �� 2� ��
201. In a series as well as parallel resonant circuits, increasing the value of resistance would lead to
A. decrease in bandwidth of both the circuits
B. increase in bandwidth of both the circuits
C. decrease in bandwidth in series circuit and increase in parallel circuit
D. increase in bandwidth in series circuit and decrease in parallel circuit
202. For a series R-L-C circuit tuned at resonant frequency which of the following statements is correct?
A. the voltage across inductance is greater than applied voltage
B. the voltage across capacitance is greater than applied voltage
C. the voltage across both inductance and capacitance is greater than applied voltage
D. the voltage across both inductance and capacitance is less than applied
203. A coil with large distributed capacitance has a
A. high resonant frequency C. low quality factor
B. low resonant frequency D. low resistance
204. The series element is band pass filter is
A. capacitive
B. inductive
C. parallel combination of inductance and capacitance
D. series combination of inductance and capacitance
205. The dual of a loop is
A. twig B. node pair C. mesh D. tree
206. The series element of a band stop filter is
A. capacitive C. parallel combination of L and C
B. inductive D. series combination of L and C
207. The dual link is
A. twig B. node C. loop D. tree branch
208. The dominant wave characterized by
A. highest cut off wave length C. lowest attenuation
B. lowest cut off wave length D. highest attenuation
209. The reflection co-efficient of the simplest standing wave is
A. -1 B. 1 C. zero D. infinity
210. The shunt element in a band pass filter is
A. capacitive C. parallel combination of L and C
B. inductive D. series combination of L and C
211. The shunt element of prototype high pass filter is
A. resistive B. inductive C. capacitive D. combination of L and C
212. The phase velocity � in a transmission line is
A. LC B. �/� C. �/� D. 1/ ��
213. The series element for a prototype high pass filter is
A. resistive B. inductive C. capacitive D. combination of L and C
214. If �1 and �2 and half-power frequencies and �0 be resonant frequency, the selectivity of R-L-C
series circuit is given by
A. ( �2 -�1 )/2�0 B. ( �� -�� )/�� C. ( �2 -�0 ) / ( �1 -�0 ) D. ( �2 -�1 ) / ( �1 -�0 )
215. At a frequency less than the resonant frequency
A. series circuit is inductive and parallel circuit is capacitive
B. series circuit is capacitive and parallel circuit is inductive
C. both circuits are capacitive
D. both circuits are inductive
216. A series resonant circuit is capacitive at � = 50 ��. The circuit will be inductive somewhere at
A. � ������� ���� ��� ��
B. � ���� �ℎ�� 150 ��
C. � ����� �� 150 �� by increasing the value of the resistance
D. none of the above
217. Inductive resistance can measure by an ohmmeter. Answer: NO
218. An ___ offers no opposition to pure DC. Answer: inductance
219. Inductance is the ability of a coil to oppose changes in current. Answer: YES
220. As L increases �� increases. Answer: YES
221. The opposition of a circuit to an alternating current is called ___. Answer: impedance
222. The opposition offered by a capacitor to an alternating current is called capacitive reactance.
Answer: YES
223. For a capacitor to be charged fully, it must be charged for five time-constants. Answer: YES
224. Unit of admittance is ____. Answer: siemens
225. In one time-constant, a capacitor discharges ___ percent of its charges. Answer: 63.2
226. R, L and C are the distributed elements of a transmission. Answer: YES
227. In case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the average value should always be taken over
the ___ cycle. Answer: whole
228. In an R-L-C circuit, the voltage across the resistance at resonance frequency is equal to applied
voltage. Answer: YES
229. The power factor of a pure inductive circuit is ___ Answer: zero
230. The inductors are designed to possess ___ value of Q factor. Answer: high
231. Wattless watts refer to resistance. Answer: NO
232. With the change in polarity of an alternating voltage, current, also reverses its direction.
Answer: YES
233. Double transient occur in ___ circuit. Answer: R-L-C
234. In a parallel R-L-C resonance circuit at resonance the current will be ___. Answer: minimum
235. Transient are ___ in purely resistive circuit. Answer: absent
236. Critical resistance is that value of resistance which causes the complex radical term to vanish.
 Answer: YES
237. The transient current of a loss free R-L-C circuit is ____ Answer: sinusoidal
238. The frequency at which a R-L-C network behaves like a resistance network is called ___
frequency. Answer: resonance
239. The power factor at resonance in R-L-C series circuit is ___. Answer: unity
240. An alternating current will induce maximum induced emf when the current has maximum change
in magnetic field. Answer: YES
�
241. If �1 = 60∠ 60° and �2 = 20∠ 30° then �1 is ___. Answer: � ∠ ��°
2
242. The transient currents are linked with changes in the stored energy in inductors and capacitors.
Answer: YES
243. Admittance of any circuit is reciprocal of ___. Answer: impedance
244. In parallel circuit, current at resonance is maximum. Answer: NO
245. Greater the magnitude of the inductance of the coil ___ will be the magnitude of back emf when
given more rate of change current takes place. Answer: more
246. Time constant of a circuit is obtained by dividing the inductance by the resistance of the circuit.
Answer: YES
247. In an inductive circuit voltage leads the current. Answer: YES
248. Total opposition to the current flow due to resistance and inductive reactance is called ___.
Answer: impedance
249. Time constant of a capacitive circuit is capacitance multiplied by ___. Answer: resistance
250. In capacitive circuits current lags behind the voltage. Answer: NO
251. Inductive reactance of a circuit is given by �� = 2� ��2 . Answer: NO
252. The voltage across R, L and C in a R-L-C circuit is 30 V, 50 V, 90 V respectively then the voltage
across the circuit will be ___. Answer: 50
253. In R-L-C series circuit voltage across inductance happens to be maximum just ___ resonance
frequency. Answer: after
254. In parallel circuit resonance, value of resistance ___ effect on the value of resonant frequency.
Answer: has
255. ___ resonance circuit is called acceptor circuit and ___ resonance circuit is called as rejector
circuit. Answer: series, parallel
256. In series resonance circuit less the magnitude of resistance in the circuit, more steep will be the
current response current. Answer: YES
257. When a capacitor is connected parallel to inductive load, the angle between voltage and current
decreases and the power factor increases. Answer: YES
258. Q-factor in the case of series circuit is ___ magnification and in the case of parallel circuit is the
___ magnification. Answer: voltage, current
259. Wattmeter connected in pure inductive or capacitive circuit will read ____. Answer: zero
260. Reactive current flowing through inductive load produces magnetic field whereas reactive current
flowing through the capacitive load produces electric field. Answer: YES
261. In an AC circuit, power of the circuit is given by �� cos � where cos � is called the power factor of
the circuit. Answer: YES
262. For a given power in an AC circuit, magnitude of current ___ as the power factor decreases.
Answer: increases
263. If � = 3 ∠ 30°, then R ___ Ω and�� = ____Ω. Answer: 8.66 �, 5 �
264. Polar form of an impedance 8 + � 6 will be 10 ∠ 36.86°. Answer: YES
265. The frequency of applied voltage has nothing to do with �� . Answer: NO
266. The phase angle between V and I in an R-L circuit lies been 0 an 90 degrees. Answer: YES
267. A tuned circuit provides across a known resistance, a voltage known ____. Answer: frequency
268. If resistance of the coil used in a tuned circuit is small, it possesses high ____.
Answer: selectivity
269. If L, C and R denote inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively then �� has the
dimensions of frequency. Answer: NO
270. A pure inductance having no initial energy is connected across a pure capacitance having some
initial energy. The current in the circuit will eventually decay to zero. Answer: YES
271. Peak-to-peak = ___ x peak-to-peak voltage. Answer: 0.5
272. Current in each branch of a parallel circuit is directly proportional to its respective conductance.
Answer: YES
273. Z can be represented in polar form as � = � + ��. Answer: NO
274. Time in variant is a term applied to a system when all its parameters do not change with time.
Answer: YES
275. If two alternating quantities are 90° out of phase then if one attains zero value, the other will attain
the peak value. Answer: YES
276. An inductor offers less opposition to current As the frequency of the applied voltage is increased.
Answer: NO
277. A series R-C circuit can be taken as a low-pass filter if the output is taken as the ___ voltage.
Answer: capacitor
278. At very high frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost purely ___. Answer: resistive
279. At ___ frequencies that parallel R-L circuit behaves as almost purely inductive. Answer: very low
280. A parallel resonant L-C circuit in series with the load is a band-stop filter. Answer: YES
281. A series resonant L-C circuit in series with the load is a band-pass filter. Answer: YES
282. A circuit with a phase angle of 90° does not dissipate any ___. Answer: real power
283. An unwanted high frequency that is super-imposed on a low-frequency alternating voltage can be
attenuated by the use of ___ filter. Answer: low pass
284. A high pass filter passes high frequency input voltages and blocks low frequencies. Answer: YES
285. A wave-trap is a ___ filter. Answer: band-stop
286. The ratio of the bandwidth to the resonant frequency is defined as ___ of the circuit.
Answer: selectivity
287. The half-power frequencies at which the power dissipation in the circuit is ___ of the power
dissipation at resonant frequency�0 . Answer: half
288. Electric networks, which permit unattenuated transmission of electric signals within specified
frequency ranges and produce attenuation to suppress the signals outside the specified frequency
ranges are known as ____. Answer: filters
289. In ___ pass filters, the series element is capacitance and shunt element is inductance.
Answer: high
290. ___ is defined by any set of branches which together connects all the nodes of the graph, without
forming a loop. Answer: Tree
DC GENERATORS

1. Lamination of core are generally made of

A. cast iron B. carbon C. silicon steel D. stainless steel
2. Which of the following could be approximately the thickness of laminations of a DC machine?
A. 0.005 mm B. 0.05 mm C. 0.5 m D. 5 mm
3. The armature of DC generator is laminated to
A. reduce the bulk C. insulate the core
B. provide passage for cooling air D. reduce eddy current loss
4. The resistance of armature winding depends on
A. length of conductor C. number of conductors
B. cross-sectional area of the conductor D. all of the above
5. The field coils of DC generators are usually made of
A. mica B. copper C. cast iron D. carbon
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of
A. copper lugs B. resistance wires C. insulation pads D. brazing
7. In a commutator
A. copper is harder that mica C. mica is harder than copper
B. mica and copper are equally hard D. none of the above
8. In DC generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
A. rivets B. counter sunk screws C. brazing D. welding
9. According to Fleming’s right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced emf, when middle finger
points in the direction of induced emf, forefinger will point in the direction of
A. motion of conductor C. either of the above
B. lines of force D. none of the above
10. Fleming’s right-hand rule regarding direction of induced emf, correlates
A. magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
B. magnetic flux, direction of motion and direction of emf induced
C. magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
D. magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor
11. While applying Fleming’s right-hand rule to find the direction of induced emf, the thumb points
towards
A. direction of induced emf
B. direction flux
C. direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated emf
D. direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the line of flux
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
A. ball bearings B. bush bearings C. magnetic bearings D. needle bearings
13. In DC generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
A. severe speaking C. imperfect contact
B. rough commutator surface D. any of the above
14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
A. double the number of poles C. half the number of poles
B. same as the number of poles D. two
15. For a DC generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is fixed, then
which winding will give the higher emf?
A. lap winding C. Either of (a) and (b) above
B. wave winding D. depends on other features of design
16. In a four-pole DC machine
 A. all the four poles are north poles C. all the four poles are south poles
B. alternating poles are north and south D. two north poles follow two south poles
17. Copper brushes in DC machine are used
A. where low voltage and high current are involved
B. where high voltage and small currents are involved
C. in both of the above cases
D. in none of the above cases
18. A separately excited generators as compared to a self excited generators
A. is amenable to better voltage control C. has exciting current independent of load current
B. is more stable D. has all above features
19. In case of DC machines, mechanical losses are primary function of
A. current B. voltage C. speed D. none of above
20. Iron losses in a DC machine are independent of variation in
A. speed B. load C. voltage D. speed and voltage
21. In DC generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
A. commutator B. solid connection C. slip rings D. none of above
22. Requirements of speed at which machine is driven is
A. more critical in the case of alternators
B. more critical in the case of DC generators
C. equally critical in the case of alternators as well as DC generators
23. Brushes of DC machines are made of
A. carbon B. soft copper C. hard copper D. all of above
24. In DC generators, on no load
A. magnetic neutral axis moves from geometrical neutral axis in the opposite direction of rotation
B. magnetic neutral axis coincides with geometrical neutral axis
C. magnetic neutral axis moves from geometrical neutral axis in the direction of rotation
D. none of the above
25. If B is the flux density, � the length of conductor and � the velocity of conductor, then induced emf is
given by
A. ��� B. ���2 C. ��2 � D. ��2 �2
26. In case of a 4-pole DC generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils, the pole
pitch will be
A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32
27. The material of commutator brushes is generally
A. mica B. copper C. cast iron D. carbon
28. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
A. graphite B. paper C. mica D. insulating varnish
29. In a DC generator, if p be the number of poles and N be the rpm of rotor, then the frequency of
magnetic reversals will be
�� �� �� ��
A. B. C. D.
2 60 ��� 3000
30. For generating large current on DC generators which winding is generally preferred?
A. progressive wave winding C. retrogressive wave winding
B. lap winding D. current depends on design
31. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is
A. to enhance flux density C. to provide mechanical balanced for the rotor
B. to amplify voltage D. to reduce eddy current
32. In a DC generator, the armature reaction results in
A. demagnetization of the centers of poles
 B. magnetization of inter-poles
C. demagnetization of the leading pole tip and magnetization of the trailing pole tip
D. magnetization of the leading pole tip and demagnetization of the trailing pole tip
33. In a DC generator in case the brushes are moved so as to bring them in magnetic neutral axis, then,
there will be
A. demagnetization C. cross-magnetization as well as demagnetization
B. cross-magnetization D. none of the above
34. The polarity of a DC generator can be reversed by
A. reversing the field current C. reversing field current as well as direction of rotation
B. increasing field current D. any of the above
35. In Dc generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors which
A. lie under South Pole C. lie under interpolar region
B. lie under North Pole D. are farthest from the poles
36. In a lap wound DC generator having p as number of poles and Z as number of conductors, the
maximum number of equalizer rings will be
�� 2�
A. Z B. p C.
�
D. �
37. If brushes of a DC generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic neutral axis,
there will be
A. demagnetization only
B. cross magnetization as well as magnetization
C. cross magnetization as well as demagnetization
D. cross magnetization only
38. Armature reaction of an unsaturated DC machine is
A. cross-magnetizing C. magnetizing
B. demagnetizing D. none of above
39. DC generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under floating condition
A. to avoid sudden loading of the prime mover
B. to avoid mechanical jerk to the shaft
C. to avoid burning of switch contacts
D. all above
40. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a DC machine due to
A. oscillating magnetic field C. relative rotation between field and armature
B. pulsating magnetic flux D. all above
41. In a Dc machine, short-circuited field coil will result in
A. odour of burning insulation
B. unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
C. reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the voltage
D. all above
42. Equalizer rings are required in case armature is
A. wave wound B. lap wound C. delta wound D. duplex wound
43. Welding generator will have
A. lap winding B. wave winding C. delta winding D. duplex wave winding
44. In case of DC machine winding, number of commutator segments is equal to
A. number of armature coils C. number of armature conductors
B. number of armature coils sides D. number of armature turns
45. For a DC machine laboratory following type of DC supply will be suitable
A. rotary converter C. induction motor DC generator set
B. mercury are rectifier D. synchronous motor DC generator set
46. The function of pole shoes in the case of DC machines is
A. to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
B. to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
C. to support the field coil
D. to discharge all the above functions
47. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is
A. multiplication of front and back pitches C. sum of front and back pitches
B. division of front pitch by back pitch D. difference of front and back pitches
48. A DC welding generators has
A. lap winding B. wave moving C. duplex winding D. any of the above
49. Which of the following statement about DC generators is false?
A. compensating winding in a DC machine helps in commutation
B. in a DC generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature winding
C. back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
D. equalizing bus bars are used with parallel running of DC shunt generators
50. The demagnetizing component of armature reaction in a DC generator
A. reduces generator emf C. reduces interpoles flux density
B. increases armature speed D. results in sparkling trouble
51. Magnetic field in a DC generator is produced by
A. electromagnets B. permanent magnet C. both (a) and (b) D. none of the above
52. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on
A. speed of armature C. voltage
B. type of winding D. amount of current to be collected
53. Compensating windings are used in DC generators
A. mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
B. the provide path for circulation of cooling air
C. to neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of the armature reaction
D. none of the above
54. Which of the following components of a DC generator plays vital role for providing direct current of a
DC generator?
A. dummy coils B. commutator C. eye bolt D. equalizer rings
55. In a Dc generator the ripples in the direct emf generated are reduced by
A. using conductors of annealed copper
B. using commutator with large number of segments
C. using carbon brushes of superior quality
D. using equalizer rings
56. In DC generators, lap winding is used for
A. high voltage, high current C. high voltage, low current
B. low voltage, high current D. low voltage, low current
57. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature while generator
B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced emf is generator A and B will be
A. 2:3 B. 3:1 C. 3:2 D. 1:3
58. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least?
A. Graphite brushes C. Metal graphite brushes
B. Carbon brushes D. None of the above
59. The emf generated by a shunt wound DC generator is E. Now while pole flux remains constant, if the
speed of the generator is doubled, the emf generated will be
A. E/2 B. 2E C. slightly less than E D. E
60. In a DC generator the actual flux distribution depends upon
 A. size of air gap C. clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
B. shape the pole shoe D. all of the above
61. The armature core of a DC generator is usually made of
A. silicon steel B. copper C. non-ferrous material D. cast-iron
62. DC generators generates
A. AC voltage in the armature C. AC superimposed over DC
B. DC voltage in the armature D. none of the above
63. Satisfactory commutation of DC machines requires
A. brushes should be of proper grade and size
B. brushes should smoothly run in the holders
C. smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
D. all of the above
64. Open circuited armature coil of a DC machine is
A. identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is connected\
B. indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
65. In a DC machine, fractional pitch winding is used
A. to increase the generated voltage
B. to reduce sparking
C. to save the copper because of shorter end connections
D. due to (b) and (c) above
66. For the parallel operation of two or more DC compound generators, we should ensure that
A. voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
B. polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
C. all the series field should be run in parallel by means of equalizer connection
D. series field of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
E. all condition mentioned above should be satisfied
67. Dc series generator is used
A. to supply traction load
B. to supply industrial load at constant voltage
C. as a booster to maintain constant voltage at the load end of the feeder
D. for none of the above purpose
68. Following DC generator will be in a position to build up without any residual magnetism in the poles
A. series generator B. shunt generator C. compound generator D. self-excited generator
69. Interpole flux should be sufficient to
A. neutralize the commutating self-induced emf
B. neutralize the armature reaction flux
C. neutralize both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating emf induced in the coil
D. perform none of the above functions
70. DC generator generally preferred for charging automobile batteries is
A. series generator C. long shunt compound generator
B. shunt generator D. any of the above
71. In a DC generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the same when
A. rpm is more than 300 C. number of poles is 4
B. rpm is less than 300 D. numbers of poles is 2
72. Permeance is the reciprocal of
A. flux density B. reluctance C. ampere-turns D. resistance
73. In DC generators the polarity of the interpoles
A. is the same as that of the main pole ahead
B. is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
C. is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
D. is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating emf
74. The emf generated in a DC generator is directly proportional to
A. flux/pole B. speed of armature C. number of poles D. all of the above
75. In a DC generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral axis, when
A. there is no load on the generator C. the generator runs on overload
B. the generator runs on full load D. the generator runs on designed speed
76. In a DC generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced emf in the coil is
neutralized by all of the following except
A. interpoles C. compensating winding
B. dummy coils D. shifting of axis of brushes
77. In DC generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
A. sinusoidal B. triangular C. pulsating D. flat topped
78. A shunt generator running at 1000 rpm has generated emf as 200 V. If the speed increases to 1200
rpm, the generated emf will be nearly
A. 150 V B. 175 V C. 240 V D. 290 V
79. The purpose providing dummy coils in a generator is
A. to reduce eddy current losses C. to amplify voltage
B. to enhance flux density D. to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
80. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted is
A. speed limitation B. armature heating C. insulation restriction D. saturation of iron
81. if a DC generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
A. imperfect brush contact
B. field resistance less than the critical resistance
C. no residual magnetism in the generator
D. faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism
82. Flashing the field of DC generator means
A. neutralizing residual magnetism
B. creating residual magnetism by a DC source
C. making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
D. increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles
83. The emf induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600V. The armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If
the armature current is 200A, the terminal voltage will be
A. 640V B. 620V C. 600V D. 580V
84. In a DC generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of
A. brushes B. field C. armature D. load
85. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a DC generator are rocked ahead so as to bring them
A. just ahead of magnetic neutral axis C. just behind the magnetic neutral axis
B. in magnetic neutral axis
86. Armature coil is short-circuited by brushes when it lies
A. along neutral axis C. in any of the above position
B. along field axis D. in none of the above position
87. A cumulative compounded long shunt generator when operating as a motor would be
A. cumulative compounded long shunt C. cumulative compounded short shunt
B. differentially compounded long shunt D. differentially compounded short shunt
88. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a DC machine
 A. the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
B. the brushes of same polarity should track each other
C. brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
89. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding
A. insulation failure between two commutator bars
B. insulation failure between two turns of a coil
C. two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
D. all of the above
90. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to
A. abrasion from dust D. high mica insulation between commutator bars
B. excessive spring pressure E. all of the above factors
C. rough commutator bars
91. Number of tappings in each equalizer ring is equal to
A. number of pole pairs C. number of parallel paths
B. number of pole D. number of commutator segments
92. A DC generator can be considered as
A. rectifier B. prime mover C. rotating amplifier D. power pump
93. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors in and in which emf induced is to be
utilized is called
A. rotor B. stator C. field D. armature
94. In a DC machine stray loss is the sum of
A. total copper loss and mechanical loss C. shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
B. armature copper loss and iron loss D. iron loss and mechanical loss
95. Lap winding is composed of
A. any eve numbers of conductors C. that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
B. any odd numbers of conductors D. that even number which is exact multiple of poles
96. In a DC generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output voltage will
A. increase B. decreased C. remain unaffected D. fluctuate heavily
97. An exciter for a turbo generator is a
A. separately excited generator C. series generator
B. shunt generator D. compound generator
98. In case of a flat compounded generator
A. voltage generated is less than the rated voltage
B. generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator
C. voltage remain constant irrespective of the load
D. speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator
99. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on no-load?
A. series generator C. compound generator
B. shunt generator D. separately excited generator
100. Which of the following DC generators will be in position to build up without any residual
magnetism in the poles?
A. series generator C. compound generator
B. shunt generator D. none of the above
101. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is
A. almost zero C. more than no-load terminal voltage
B. less than no-load terminal voltage D. equal to no-load terminal voltage
102. In a level compounded DC generator, full load terminal voltage is
A. negligibly low C. more than no-load terminal voltage
B. equal to no-load terminal voltage D. less than no-load terminal voltage
103. The terminal voltage of a DC shunt generator drops on load because of all of the following reason
except
A. armature reaction
B. armature resistance drop
C. field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
D. commutation
104. In a DC generator
A. external resistance = internal characteristics – armature reaction
B. internal characteristics = magnetization characteristics – ohmic drop
C. external characteristics = magnetization characteristics – ohmic drop – armature reaction
D. magnetization characteristics = external characteristics
105. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature voltage
wave
�
A. will be zero B. will be of 5 Hz C. will be of 5 x N Hz D. will be of 5
Hz
106. A 220 V DC generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit voltage will be
A. zero B. about 2 V C. about 50 V D. 220 V
107. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction
A. is always present C. maybe sometimes present
B. is always absent D. none of the above
108. If residual magnetism is present in a DC generator, the induced emf at zero speed will be
A. zero C. the same as rated voltage
B. small D. high
109. Armature reaction in a generator results in
A. demagnetization of leading pole tip and magnetization of trailing pole tip
B. demagnetization of trialing pole tip and magnetization of leading pole tip
C. demagnetizing the centre of all poles
D. magnetizing the center of all poles
110. Following energized winding of a DC machine should not be opened as it would produce high
inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its own insulation failure.
A. Series field B. compensating field C. inter pole field D. shunt field
111. Wave winding is compose of
A. any even number of conductors C. even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
B. any odd number of conductors D. even number which is exact multiple of poles
112. The critical resistance of the DC generator is the resistance of
A. field B. brushes C. armature D. load
113. When two DC series generators are running in parallel, an equalizer bar is used
A. to increase the speed and hence generated emf
B. to increase the series flux
C. so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal current to the load
D. to reduce the combined effect of armature reaction of both machines
114. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads?
A. self-excited generator C. level compounded generator
B. separately excited generator D. all of the above
115. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel?
A. shunt generators C. compound generators
B. series generators D. none of the above
116. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for which of the
following reasons?
 A. the direction of that generator is reversed C. the field of that generator is weakened
B. the speed of that generator is increases D. that generator takes large share of loads
117. A DC generator works on the principle of
A. Lenz’s law C. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
B. Ohm’s law D. none of the above
118. A series generator can self-excite
A. only if the load current is zero C. irrespective of the value of load current
B. only if the load current is not zero D. none of the above
119. A shunt generator can self-excite
A. only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
B. only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than critical value
C. irrespective of the value of the resistance in the field circuit
120. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. if the load
current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
A. 150 V B. less than 150 V C. greater than 150 V D. none of the above
121. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal voltage
A. will be less than 250V C. maybe greater or less than 250V
B. will always be 250V D. none of the above
122. Two DC shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field resistance of 50
ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load circuit. If their emfs are
270V and 265V, their bus bar voltage will be
A. 270V B. 267.5V C. 265V D. 257.4V
123. The essential condition for parallel operation of two DC generators is that they have
A. same kW rating C. the same drooping voltage characteristics
B. the same operation rpm D. same percentage regulation
124. In case of DC generators, the armature voltage control is considered as suitable if the machine is
driven
A. at constant load B. at constant current C. at constant torque D. at constant VA
125. When two DC generators are running in parallel an equalizer bar is used
A. to increase the series flux
B. to increase the generated emf
C. to reduce the combined effect of armature reaction of both the machine
D. so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
126. With a DC generator which of the following regulation is preferred?
A. 100% regulation B. infinite regulation C. 50% regulation D. 1% regulation
127. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long DC transmission lines?
A. series generator C. over compound generator
B. shunt generator D. flat compound generator
128. Two generators A and B running in parallel are supplying power to a common load of 500 kW.
Generator A has armature resistance equal to half that of B. Which of the following statements is
correct?
A. both generators will share load equally
B. generator A will take load less than the load taken by generator B
C. generator B will take more loads as compared to generator A
D. none of the above
129. In a DC generator the critical resistance can be increased by
A. increasing its field resistance C. increasing its speed
B. decreasing its field resistance D. decreasing its speed
130. The number of armature parallel paths in two-pole DC generator having duplex lap winding is
 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
131. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
A. slots B. armature conductor C. winding elements D. poles
132. The series field of a short-shunt DC generator is excited by
A. external current B. armature current C. shunt current D. load current
133. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the mutual air gap flux in a DC generator is
approximately
A. 40 percent B. 25 percent C. 10 percent D. 5 percent
134. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
A. rising voltage characteristics C. drooping voltage characteristics
B. identical voltage characteristics D. linear voltage characteristics
135. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over compounded generator
is
A. their rising voltage characteristics
B. unequal number of turns in their series field windings
C. unequal speed regulation of their prime movers
D. unequal series field resistance
136. If a self excited DC generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run, the first
thing to do is to
A. reverse the field connection C. increase the speed of prime mover
B. increase the field resistance D. check armature insulation resistance
137. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by
connecting its shunt field
A. in reverse B. to a battery C. to earth D. to an alternator
138. The slight curvature at the lower end of the O.C.C. of a self-excited DC generator is due to
A. high armature speed D. magnetic inertia
B. high field circuit resistance E. none of the above
C. residual pole flux
139. Which one of the following types of generators does not need equalizers for satisfactory parallel
operation?
A. Flat-compound B. Over-compound C. Under-compound D. Series
140. The ___ generator has poorest voltage regulation.
A. shunt B. series C. compound D. over-compound
141. A simple method of increasing the voltage of a DC generator is
A. to increase the length of the armature D. to decrease the speed of rotation
B. to decrease the length of the armature E. any of the above
C. to increase the speed of rotation
142. Which one of the following generators is used for charging the batteries?
A. shunt B. series C. compound D. any of the above
143. An external resistance added in the field of a DC shunt generator will
A. decrease the voltage of the generator D. increase the speed of the generator
B. increase the voltage of the generator E. decrease the speed of the generator
C. increase the power delivered
144. An ideal DC generator has a regulation of
A. 90% B. 70% C. 20% D. zero
145. Which of the following statements is incorrect in DC shunt generators about hysteresis loss?
A. it is independent of lamination the armature
B. it can be minimize by laminating the armature
C. it depends upon the supply frequency
 D. none of the above
146. A properly designed DC generator can have an overall efficiency of
A. 60% B. 80% C. 95% D. 100%
147. In DC generator the change in voltage when the load is reduced from rated value to zero,
expressed as a percentage of rated load voltage, is known as
A. efficiency B. regulation C. armature reactance D. loss factor
148. If the no load voltage of a certain generator is 210 V and the rated voltage is 200 V, then the
voltages regulation is
A. 2.5% B. 5% C. 10% D. 15%
149. Which generator cannot start if there is no residual magnetism?
A. series generator C. separately excited generator
B. shunt generator D. all of the above
150. In DC generators, the brushes remain in contact with conductors which
A. lie under South Pole C. lie in the inter-polar gaps
B. lie under North Pole D. none of the above
151. When the shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both series field and armature.
Such a convection is known as
A. short shunt C. cumulative compounding
B. long shunt D. differential compounding
152. Drop in speed of a DC generator due to increase in load can be compensated by
A. cooling the armature C. reducing the load voltage
B. increasing the armature resistance D. increasing the input to the prime mover
153. A dynamo is a machine which converts heat energy into electrical energy. Answer: NO
154. When a dynamo is driven mechanically by a prime mover it is called a generator. Answer: YES
155. A generator works on the principle of statically induced emf. Answer: NO
156. In DC generators, the field is produced by the field magnets which are stationary. Answer: YES
157. Permanent magnets are used for large DC machines to create magnetic flux. Answer: NO
158. The pole shoe acts as a support to the field coils and spreads out the flux in the air gap.
Answer: YES
159. In small DC machines yokes are made of ____. Answer: cast iron
160. Permeability of cast steel is about twice of cast iron. Answer: YES
161. In small machines the poles are cast integral with the yoke. Answer: YES
162. The purpose of armature is to produce magnetic flux. Answer: NO
163. The armature is made from high permeability silicon-steel stampings. Answer: YES
164. The commutator is a sort of rotating switch placed between the armature and the external circuit.
Answer: YES
165. Brushes are made of aluminum. Answer: NO
166. Number of coils arranged in coil groups is called the ____ Answer: winding
167. Open coil winding is that winding which does not close on itself. Answer: YES
168. DC machines employ only open coil winding. Answer: NO
169. Ring type of armature winding is an early from of armature winding. Answer: YES
170. Drum winding may be either single layer or double layer winding. Answer: YES
171. In a lap winding there are only two parallel paths. Answer: NO
172. In a simplex lap winding back pitch and front pitch of all coils remain the same. Answer: YES
173. In a simplex lap winding there are as many parallel paths in the armature as the number poles.
Answer: YES
174. Wave winding is also sometimes called ____ winding. Answer: series
175. Simplex wave windings always have three parallel paths. Answer: NO
176. In simplex wave winding both the pitches, back pitch and front pitch must be even numbers.
 Answer: NO
177. In simplex wave winding commutator pitch is equal to average pitch. Answer: YES
178. If the duplex winding has an even number of pair of poles the number of commutator segments
and coils must be even irrespective of whether the average pitch is odd or even. Answer: YES
179. ____ coils are placed in slots to preserve the balance of the machine but are not electrically
connected to the rest of the winding. Answer: Dummy
180. When the field coils are excited from storage battery or from a separate DC source, the generator
is called a self-excited generator. Answer: NO
181. Self-excited generators are those whose field coils are excited by the generator itself.
Answer: YES
182. In a shunt generator the shunt field current is equal to armature current. Answer: NO
183. The action of the armature mmf on the main mmf is termed the armature ___. Answer: reaction
184. When a machine operates at no-load, there exists in it only the mmf of the main poles.
Answer: YES
185. The armature magnetic field demagnetizes the main flux and distorts it. Answer: YES
186. Cross-magnetizing component is parallel to the main field. Answer: NO
187. Demagnetizing component is at right angles to the main field. Answer: NO
�
188. Demagnetizing ampere-turns/pole = ��� . Answer: NO
180
1 ��
189. Cross-magnetizing ampere-turns/pole = ��
2�
− 360 . Answer: YES
� (����������)
190. � ���ℎ������ =
��.�� �����
. Answer: NO
191. The function of compensating winding is to neutralize the demagnetizing effect of armature
reaction. Answer: NO
192. The compensating winding adds considerably to the winding cost of the machine and doubles the
armature copper loss. Answer: YES
193. A compensating winding is used if the machine is subject to violent fluctuations in loads.
Answer: YES
194. Number of armature ampere-turns/pole for compensating winding = 0.2 x armature ampere-
turns/pole. Answer: NO
195. Commutation means the process of current collection by the brush or the changes which take
place in a coil during the period of short-circuit by a brush. Answer: YES
196. The main cause which makes the current reversal impossible in the specified period is the
production of self-induced emf in the coil undergoing commutation. Answer: YES
197. In resistance commutation method low-resistance copper brushes are replaced by comparative
high resistance ____ brushes. Answer: carbon
198. Carbon brushes have ___ contract resistance. Answer: high
199. The reversing emf can be produced by using interpoles or compoles. Answer: YES
200. Equalizer connections are mostly used in ___ winding. Answer: lap
201. No load saturation characteristic is also known as open circuit characteristics. Answer: YES
202. Internal or total characteristic is of interest mainly to designer. Answer: YES
203. Internal characteristic is also referred to as performance characteristics. Answer: NO
204. External characteristics given relation between the terminal voltage and ___ current.
Answer: load
205. The open circuit characteristics is obtained by calculating the resistance drop for a new values of
current and adding this to the voltage shown by external characteristics. Answer: NO
206. The great advantage of separate excitation over all other forms of excitation is that the current is
entirely independent of load current in the armature. Answer: YES
207. Field circuit resistance above the critical field resistance will fail to produce build-up of voltage in
the generator. Answer: YES
208. The term ‘voltage-regulation’ is used to indicate the degree of change in armature voltage
produced by application of load. Answer: YES
209. A shunt generator find application in electric traction where ‘dynamic braking’ is employed.
Answer: NO
210. An over-compound generator is one whose terminal voltage falls with the application of load.
Answer: NO
211. In case of compound wound generators the degree of compounding may be adjusted by means
of diverter which shunts the series field. Answer: YES
212. A flat compound generator has a load voltage characteristics in which the no-load and full load
voltages are unequal. Answer: NO
213. The ___ compound generator is defined as that compounding produced when the series field
mmf opposes the shunt field mmf. Answer: differential
214. Series generators are used to charge batteries. Answer: NO
215. A shunt generator is used as an arc welding generator. Answer: NO
216. Generators are run in parallel to ensure continuity of service only. Answer: NO
217. Power sources are rarely duplicated in home or automobile service, but unusually are in air-craft,
marine, rail and industrial use. Answer: YES
218. A parallel circuit is defined as one in which different voltage exists across each unit as the
paralleling point. Answer: NO
219. One of the conditions of paralleling DC generators is that the polarities of the generators must be
the same or the connection must be interchanged until they are. Answer: YES
220. The prime movers that drive the generators to be paralleled should have similar and stable
rotational speed characteristics. Answer: YES
221. Whenever generators are in parallel their + ve and – ve terminals are respectively connected to
the + ve and – ve sides of the bus-bars. Answer: YES
222. Under-compounded generators (those with drooping characteristics curves) may be operated
satisfactorily in parallel in exactly the same manner as shunt generators. Answer: YES
223. While operating over-compounded generators in parallel an equalizer must be connected to the
armature side of the series field on the side of same polarity for each machine. Answer: YES
224. The equalizer connection must have a very high resistance. Answer: NO
225. The series fields must have resistances directly proportional to the ratings of the respective
generators. Answer: NO
Direct Current Motor

1. No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest?

A. shunt motor C. cumulative compound motor
B. series motor D. differential compound motor
2. The direction of rotation of a DC series motor can be changed by
A. interchanging supply terminals C. either of (a) and (b) above
B. interchanging field terminals D. none of the above
3. Which of the following application requires high starting torque?
A. Lathe machine B. Centrifugal pump C. Locomotive D. Air blower
4. If a DC motor is to be selected for conveyors, which motor would be preferred?
A. Series motor C. differentially compound motor
B. Shunt motor D. Cumulative compound motor
5. Which DC motor will be preferred for machine tools?
A. Series motor C. Cumulative compound motor
B. Shunt motor D. Differential compound motor
6. Which DC motor will be preferred for constant speed line shafting?
A. Cumulative compound motor C. Shunt motor
B. Differentially compound motor D. Series motor
7. Differentially compound DC motors can find applications requiring
A. high starting torque C. variable speed
B. low starting torque D. frequent on-off cycles
8. Which DC motor will be preferred for elevators?
A. shunt motor C. Differential compound motor
B. series motor D. Cumulative compound motor
9. According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the field or flux, the
middle finger will point in the direction of
A. current in the conductor C. resultant force on conductor
B. movement of conductor D. none of the above
10. If the field of a DC shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
A. the speed of motor will reduce C. the motor will attain dangerously high speed
B. the armature current will reduce D. the motor will continue to run at constant speed
11. Starters are used with DC motors because
A. these motors have high starting torque
B. these motors are not self-starting
C. back emf of these motors is zero initially
D. to restrict armature current as there is no back emf while starting
12. In DC shunt motors as load is reduced
A. the speed will increase abruptly
B. the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
C. the speed will remain almost constant
D. the speed will reduce
13. A DC series motors is that which
A. has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
B. has a poor torque
C. can be started easily without load
D. has almost constant speed
14. For starting a DC motor a starter is required because
A. it limits the speed of the motor
 B. it limits the starting current to a safe value
C. it starts the motor
D. none of the above
15. The type of DC motor used for shears and punches is
A. shunt motor C. differential compound DC motor
B. series motor D. cumulative compound DC motor
16. If a DC motor is connected across the AC supply it will
A. run at normal speed
B. not runs
C. run at lower speed
D. burn due to heat produced in the field winding by eddy current
17. To get the speed of DC motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy ___ is used.
A. Ward Leonard control C. any of the above method
B. rheostatic control D. none of the above method
18. When two DC series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
A. more than the normal speed C. normal speed
B. less than the normal speed D. zero
19. The speed of a DC shunt motor more than full-load speed can be obtained by
A. decreasing the field current C. decreasing the armature current
B. increasing the field current D. increasing the armature current
20. In a DC shunt motor, speed is
A. independent of armature current
B. directly proportional to the armature current
C. proportional to the square of the current
D. inversely proportional to the armature current
21. A direct on line starter is used for starting motors
A. up to 5 H.P. B. up to 10 H.P. C. up to 15 H.P. D. up to 20 H.P.
22. If a speed of a DC shunt motor is increased the back emf of the motor will
A. decrease B. increase C. remain same D. become zero
23. What will happen if the back emf of a DC motor vanishes suddenly?
A. the motor will stop C. the armature may burn
B. the motor will continue to run D. the motor will run noisy
24. In case of DC shunt motors the speed is dependent on back of emf only because
A. back emf is equal to armature drop C. flux is proportional to armature current
B. armature drop is negligible D. flux is practically constant in DC shunt motor
25. In a DC shunt motor, under condition of maximum power, the current in the armature will be
A. almost negligible C. less than full-load current
B. rated full-load current D. more than full-load current
26. Which DC motor will have least percentage increase of input current, for the same percentage
increase in the torque
A. shunt motor C. cumulative compound motor
B. series motor D. separately excited motor
27. These day DC motors are widely used in
A. pumping sets B. air compressor C. electron traction D. machine shops
28. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor is DC motor?
A. Frame B. Shaft C. Commutator D. Stator
29. In which of the following applications DC series motor is invariably used?
A. starter for a car C. Fan motor
B. drive for a water pump D. motor operation in AC or DC
30. In DC machine fractional pitch winding is used
A. to improved cooling C. to increase the generated emf
B. to reduce copper losses D. to reduce sparking
31. A three point starter is considered suitable for
A. shunt motors C. shunt, compound and series motor
B. shunt as well as compound motors D. all DC motor
32. Small DC motors up to 5 H.P. usually have
A. 2 poles B. 4 poles C. 6 poles D. 8 poles
33. In case the conditions for maximum power for a DC motor are established, the efficiency of the motor
will be
A. 100% C. anywhere between 75% and 90%
B. around 90% D. less than 50%
34. A shearing machine has cyclic load consisting of intermittent light and heavy loads. Which of the
following DC motor will be suitable for this purpose?
A. series motor C. cumulative compound motor
B. shunt motor D. differential compound motor
35. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in case of
A. series motor B. shunt motor C. compound motor D. none of the above
36. In DC motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
A. Slip rings B. Commutator C. Field winding D. Armature winding
37. Which of the law/rule can be used to determine the direction of rotation DC motor?
A. Lenz’s law B. Faraday’s law C. Coulomb’s law D. Fleming’s left-hand rule
38. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated torque?
A. blowers B. conveyors C. air compressor D. centrifugal pumps
39. The starting resistance of a DC series motor is generally
A. low B. around 500Ω C. 1000Ω D. infinitely large
40. The speed of a DC series motor is
A. proportional to the armature current
B. proportional to the square of the armature current
C. proportional to field current
D. inversely proportional to the armature current
41. In a DC series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the motor will be equal
to
A. 100% of the previous value D. 10% of the previous value
B. 50% of the previous value E. none of the above
C. 25% of the previous value
42. The current drawn by the armature of DC motor is directly proportional to
A. the torque required C. the voltage across the terminals
B. the speed of the motor D. none of the above
43. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
A. the power drawn in kW C. the gross power
B. the power drawn in kVA D. the output power available at the shaft
44. In Ward Leonard method of speed control of a DC motor, change in speed of motor is obtained by the
A. change in armature voltage of DC motor
B. change in the field excitation of the DC motor
C. change in armature current of DC motor
D. change in supply voltage
45. Which DC motor has got maximum self loading property?
A. series motor C. cumulatively compounded motor
 B. shunt motor D. differentially compounded motor
46. Which DC motor will be suitable along with flywheel for intermittent light and heavy loads?
A. Series motor C. cumulatively compounded motor
B. Shunt motor D. Differentially compounded motor
47. If a DC shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
A. nothing will happen to the motor
B. this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
C. this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses
D. motor will run at very slow speed
48. DC series motor are used
A. where load is constant C. where constant operating speed is needed
B. where load changes frequently D. in none of the above situations
49. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque
A. shunt C. differentially compounded
B. series D. cumulatively compounded
50. In case of conductively compensated DC series motors, the compensating winding is provided
A. as separately wound unit C. in series with armature winding
B. in parallel with armature winding D. in parallel with field winding
51. Sparking at the commutator of a DC motor may result in
A. damage to commutator segments C. increased power consumption
B. damage to commutator insulation D. all of above
52. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive atmosphere?
A. Series motor B. Shunt motor C. Air motor D. battery operated motor
53. If the supply voltage for a DC motor is preferred for the following will decrease?
A. Starting torque B. Operating speed C. Full-load current D. All of the above
54. When the speed of a DC motor increases
A. back emf increases and current drawn decreases
B. back emf as well as current drawn both increase
C. back emf as well as current drawn both decrease
D. back emf decreases and current drawn increases
55. As compared to an induction motor, the air gap in a DC motor is
A. less than 50% C. same
B. between 50% and 90% D. more
56. Field winding of a DC series motor is usually provided with thick wire
A. to provide large flux C. as it carries large load current
B. to reduce the use of insulating materials D. in order to reduce eddy current
57. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a DC machine?
A. to reduce eddy current loss C. to spread out flux for better uniformity
B. to support the field coils D. to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
58. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ratio of back emf to
applied voltage is
A. 4.0 B. 2.0 C. 1.0 D. 0.5
59. The condition for maximum power in case of DC motor is
1
A. back emf = 2 x supply voltage C. supply voltage = x back emf
2
�
B. back emf = x supply voltage D. supply voltage = back emf
�
60. For which of the following applications a DC motor id preferred over an AC motor?
A. Low speed operation C. Variable speed operation
 B. High speed operation D. Fixed speed operation
61. In DC machines the residual magnetism is of the order of
A. 2 to 3 per cent B. 10 to 15 per cent C. 20 to 25 per cent D. 50 to 75 per cent
62. If �� be the torque and �� the armature current for a DC motor, which of the following relation is valid
before saturation?
� �
A. �� ∝ �� B. �� ∝ C. �� ∝ �� � D. �� ∝
�� (�� )2
63. Which DC motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists?
A. Series motor C. Cumulatively compounded motor
B. Shunt motor D. Differentially compounded motor
64. Three point starter can be used for
A. series motor only C. compound motor only
B. shunt motor only D. both shunt and compound motor
65. Sparking is discouraged in a DC motor because
A. it increases the input power consumption C. both (a) and (b)
B. commutator gets damaged D. none of the above
66. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
A. in one direction C. below normal speed only
B. in both directions D. above normal speed only
67. Flywheel is used in with DC compound motor to reduce the peak demand by the motor, compound
motor will have to be
A. level compounded C. cumulatively compounded
B. under compounded D. differentially compounded
68. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control is required.
A. Single phase capacitor start D. DC motor
B. Induction motor E. None of the above
C. Synchronous motor
69. In a differentially compounded DC motor, if shunt field suddenly opens
A. the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as series motor
B. the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the same direction
C. the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the same direction
D. the motor will not work and come to stop
70. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation?
A. shunt motor C. differential compound motor
B. series motor D. cumulative compound motor
71. Buses, trains trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make use of
A. DC series motor C. induction motor
B. DC shunt motor D. all of the above
72. As the load is increased the speed of DC shunt motor will
A. reduce slightly C. increase proportionately
B. increase slightly D. remain unchanged
73. The armature torque of the DC shunt motor is proportional to
A. field flux only C. both (a) and (b)
B. armature current only D. none of the above
74. Which of the following method of speed control of DC machine will offer minimum efficiency?
A. voltage control method C. armature control method
B. field control method D. all above methods
75. Usually wide and sensitive speed is desired in case of
A. centrifugal pumps C. steel rolling mills
 B. elevators D. colliery winders
76. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 rpm at no-load to 1050 rpm at rated load. The speed regulation
of the motor is
A. 2.36% B. 4.76% C. 6.77% D. 8.84%
77. The armature voltage control of DC motor provides
A. constant torque drive C. constant current drive
B. constant voltage drive D. none of the above
78. The speed regulation of a DC motor is
������ ����� ��−���� �����−����−���� �����
A. ℎ��ℎ��� ����� C. ����−���� �����
ℎ��ℎ��� �����−������ ����� ��−���� �����−����−���� �����
B. ������� �����
D. ��−���� �����
79. As there is no back emf at the instant of starting a DC motor, in order to prevent a heavy current from
flowing though the armature circuit
A. a resistance is connected in series with armature
B. a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
C. armature is temporarily open circuited
D. a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
80. The speed of a DC shunt motor can be increased by
A. increasing the resistance in armature circuit
B. increasing the resistance in field circuit
C. reducing the resistance in the field circuit
D. reducing the resistance in the armature circuit
81. If �� be the armature current, then speed of a DC shunt motor is
A. independent of �� C. varies as (�� )2
1
B. proportional to �� D. varies as �
�
82. In case the back emf and the speed of a DC motor are doubled, the torque developed by the motor
will
A. remain unchanged C. increase four folds
B. reduce to one-fourth value D. be doubled
83. At the instant of starting when a DC motor is put on supply, it behaves like
A. a highly resistive circuit C. a capacitive circuit
B. a low resistance circuit D. none of the above
84. The speed of a DC motor can be varies by varying
A. field current C. resistance in series with armature
B. applied voltage D. any of the above
85. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of DC motors over AC motors?
A. low cost B. wide speed range C. stability D. high starting torque
86. Foe a Dc shunt motor if the excitation is changed
A. torque will remain constant
B. torque will change but power will remain constant
C. torque and power both will change
D. torque, power and speed all will change
87. Which motor has the poorest speed control?
A. differentially compounded motor C. shunt motor
B. cumulatively compounded motor D. Series motor
88. The plugging gives the
A. zero torque braking C. highest torque braking
B. smallest torque braking D. none of the above
89. The armature voltage control of DC motor provides
A. constant voltage drive C. constant torque drive
B. constant current drive D. none of the above
90. If a Dc motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient temperature,
then the motor
A. of lower H.P. should be selected
B. of higher H.P. should be selected
C. can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
D. is to be derated by a factor recommended by manufacturer and select the next higher H.P.
motor
91. If the terminals of armature of DC motor are interchanged, this action will offer following kind of
braking
A. regenerative C. dynamic braking E. any of the above
B. plugging D. none of the above
92. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor?
A. DC shunt motor B. DC series motor C. universal motor D. Synchronous motor
93. If a speed of a DC shunt motor is increased, the back emf of the motor will
A. increase B. decrease C. remain same D. become zero
94. Why are the DC motors preferred for traction applications?
A. torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
B. torque is proportional to armature current
C. torque is proportional to square root of armature current
D. the speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to square of
armature current
95. Which of the following motors have almost constant speed over their full load range?
A. AC series motors C. Low resistance squirrel cage motors
B. DC series motors E. Both (c) and (d)
C. DC shunt motors
96. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold refrigerators?
A. DC shunt motor D. Reluctance motor
B. DC series motor E. Synchronous motor
C. Single phase induction motor (split phase start or induction run motor)
97. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signaling devices and many kinds of timers?
A. DC shunt motor C. Inductance motor
B. DC series motor D. Reluctance motor
98. Which motor should not be started on no-load?
A. series motor C. cumulatively compounded motor
B. shunt motor D. differentially compounded motor
99. Ward-Leonard control is basically a
A. voltage control method C. field control method
B. field diverter method D. armature resistance control method
100. For constant torque drive speed which speed control method is preferred?
A. Field control C. Shunt armature control
B. Armature voltage control D. Mechanical loading system
101. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by
A. residual magnetism of the generator C. mechanical losses of motor and generator together
B. core losses of motor D. all of the above
102. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is
A. high initial cost C. low efficiency at light loads
 B. high maintenance cost D. all of the above
103. Which of the following can be used to control the speed of a DC motor?
A. Thermistor B. Thyristor C. Thyratron D. Transistor
104. The losses occurring in DC generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have the least
proportion?
A. magnetic losses C. mechanical losses
B. armature copper losses D. field copper losses
105. The hysteresis loss in a DC machine least depends on
A. frequency of magnetic reversals C. Volume and grade of iron
B. maximum value of flux density D. Rate of flow of ventilating air
106. In a DC generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
A. Loss of efficiency C. Increase in the terminal voltage
B. Excessive heating of core D. Rise in temperature of ventilating air
107. The losses occurring in a DC generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have highest
proportion at rated load of generator?
A. hysteresis loss C. armature copper loss
B. field copper loss D. eddy current loss
108. If ‘t’ be the thickness of the laminations, then eddy current loss in generator will vary as
1 1
A. �
B. �2 C. � D. ��
109. Which of the following loss in a DC generator varies significantly with the load current?
A. field copper loss C. armature copper loss
B. windage loss D. none of the above
110. If ���� is the maximum flux density, then eddy current loss will vary as
A. ���� B. (���� )2 C. (���� )1.2 D. (���� )2.4
111. The hysteresis loss in a DC generator varies with the frequency of magnetic reversals as
1
A.
�
B. � C. �1.6 D. �2
112. Which of the following method of braking is used in rolling mills?
A. dynamic braking C. regenerative
B. plugging D. mechanical brakes
113. Regenerative method of braking based on that
A. back emf is less than the applied voltage C. back emf of rotor is more than the applied voltage
B. back emf is equal to the applied voltage D. none of the above
114. The retardation test is applicable to shunt motors and generators and is used to find
A. the copper losses C. the friction losses
B. the stray losses D. the eddy current losses
115. Four point starter in the DC motor is used
A. to decrease the field current
B. to increase the field current
C. not to effect the current passing through ‘Hold on’ coil even if any change in the field
current takes place
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
116. Which of the following motors is used in the locomotives motors drives?
A. DC series motor C. Synchronous motor
B. AC series motor D. Induction motor
117. In hazardous area of gassy mines, material transportation is done by vehicles powered by
A. AC mains B. DC mains C. IC engines D. batteries
118. Compensating winding in a DC machine is placed
A. on yoke in the pole faces C. on armature
B. on yoke in the interpolar gap D. none of the above
119. DC series machine has field consisting of
A. many numbers of turns of thick wire C. few numbers of turns of thick wire
B. many numbers of turns of thin wire D. few numbers of turns of thin wire
120. Torque developed by a DC motor depends upon
A. magnetic field D. number of conductors
B. active length of the conductor E. radius of armature
C. current flow through the conductors F. all above factors
121. DC shunt motors are used for driving
A. trains B. cranes C. hoists D. machine tools
122. In a manual shunt motor starter
A. over load relay is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
B. over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt relay in series with the load
C. over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the load
D. over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with load
123. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a DC generator?
A. providing laminations in armature core
B. providing laminations in stator
C. using non-magnetic material for frame
D. using material of low hysteresis coefficient for armature core material
124. Which loss in a DC generator varies with load?
A. copper loss B. eddy current loss C. hysteresis loss D. windage loss
125. Which loss in a DC generator does not vary with load as well as flux density?
A. copper loss B. eddy current loss C. hysteresis loss D. windage loss
126. Which of the following loss in a DC generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
A. mechanical loss C. copper loss
B. core loss D. all of the above
127. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a DC generator?
A. hysteresis losses C. copper losses
B. Eddy current losses D. windage losses
128. The total losses in a well designed DC generator of 10 kW will be nearly
A. 100 W B. 500 W C. 1000 W D. 1500 W
129. The condition for maximum efficiency for a DC generators is
A. eddy current losses = stray losses C. copper losses = 0
B. hysteresis losses = eddy current losses D. variable losses = constant losses
130. DC generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
A. full-load B. rated rpm C. rated voltage D. all of the above
131. In a DC generator, the iron losses mainly take place in
A. yoke B. commutator C. armature conductor D. armature rotor
132. DC generators are installed near the load centers to reduce
A. iron losses B. line losses C. sparking D. corona losses
133. The purpose of retardation test on DC shunt machines is to find out
A. stray losses C. field copper losses
B. eddy current losses D. windage losses
134. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar DC series motors of large
capacity?
A. Swinburne’s test C. Field test
 B. Hopkinson’s test D. Brake test
135. Hopkinson’s test on DC machines is conducted at
A. no-load B. part load C. full-load D. overload
136. During rheostat braking of DC series motors
A. motor is run as a generator C. motor is run at reduced speed
B. motor is reversed in direction
137. For which type of DC motor, dynamic barking is generally used?
A. shunt motors B. series motors C. compound motors D. all of the above
138. During rheostatic braking the braking torque is proportional to
A. speed B. (�����)2 C. (�����)−1 D. (�����)−2
139. Which method of braking is generally used in elevators?
A. plugging B. renegerative braking C. rheostatic braking D. none of the above
140. In variable speed motor
A. a stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
B. a weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
C. same commutating field is needed at low speed than high at high speed
D. none of the above is correct
141. When the armature of a DC motor rotates, emf induced is
A. self-induced emf C. back emf
B. mutually induced emf D. none of the above
142. Where DC motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing and speed
control
A. drum type controller is used C. four point starter is used
B. three point starter is used D. all above can be used
143. If DC shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
A. this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
B. this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
C. nothing will happen to motor
D. motor will come to stop
144. DC motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of the time and some peak
value for short duration. We will select the
A. series motor B. shunt motor C. compound motor D. any of the above
145. Dc motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle and peak value
for short duration. We will select this
A. series motor B. shunt motor C. compound motor D. any of the above
146. Which DC motor has got maximum self relieving property?
A. Series motor C. Cumulatively compounded motor
B. Shunt motor D. Differentially compounded motor
147. Voltage equation for DC motor is
A. �� = � + �� �� B. � = �� + �� �� C. �� = � − �� 2 �� D. � = �� − �� ��
148. A 230 V DC shunt motor takes 32 A at full load. The back emf on full load, if the resistance of
motor armature and shunt field windings are 0.2 Ω and 115 Ω respectively, will be
A. 210 V B. 215 V C. 220 V D. 224 V
149. In the DC motor the iron losses occur in
A. the field B. the armature C. the brushes D. the commutator
150. The speed of a DC shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is possible by
A. reducing the field current D. increasing the excitation current
 B. decreasing the armature current E. none of the above method
C. increasing the armature current.
151. One DC motor drives another DC motor. The second DC motor when excited and driven
A. run as a generator C. also runs as a motor
B. does not run as a generator D. comes to stop after sometimes
152. Which of the following DC motors has the least drop in between no-load and nominal load?
A. series motor without commutating poles C. shunt motor with commutating pole
B. series motor with commutating poles D. compound motor without commutating poles
153. The speed of a series motor at no load is
A. infinity C. 2000 rpm E. none of the above
B. 4000 rpm D. 1000 rpm
154. In a DC motor if the back emf is absent
A. motor will burn C. motor will run at very slow speed
B. motor will not run at all D. motor will run at very high speed
155. A series motor is started without load. The effect is that
A. the back emf decreases C. the speed increases rapidly
B. the torque increases rapidly D. the current drawn increases rapidly
156. What will happen if supply terminals of DC shunt motor are interchanged?
A. the direction of rotation will reverse
B. motor will stop
C. motor will run at speed lower than the normal speed in the same direction
D. motor will run at its normal speed in the same direction as it was running
157. When the electric train is moving down a hill the DC motor act as
A. DC series generator C. DC shunt motor
B. DC shunt generator D. DC series motor
158. Which of the following methods is most economical for finding the no-load losses of a large DC
shunt motor?
A. Retardation’s test C. Hopkinson’s test
B. Swinburne’s test D. none of the above
159. Which of the following statement is incorrect? If a starter is not used with large DC motor, it will
draw a starting current which
A. will produce very low starting torque C. will damage the commutator
B. will produce excessive line voltage drop D. is many times its full-load current
160. The rated speed of a given DC shunt motor is 900 rpm. To run this machine at 1000 rpm, which
of the following speed control scheme will be used?
A. Ward-Leonard control C. Field resistance control
B. Armature current resistance control D. None of the above
161. In electric motors carbon brushes are used to
A. provide a path for flow of current C. prevent overheating of armature
B. prevent sparking during commutation D. brush off carbon deposits on the commutator
162. What is the effect produced by the electric current in an electric motor?
A. heating effect only C. heating as well as magnetic effect
B. magnetic effect only D. heating as well as chemical effect
163. In a motor, energy conversion would not have been possible but for the
A. production of opposing back emf �� in the armature
B. input energy from supply
C. use of commutator
D. application of Fleming’s left-hand rule
164. In a DC motor, unidirectional torque is produced with the help of
 A. end plates B. bushes C. commutator D. both (b) and (c)
165. In a DC motor, the ratio �� /�� indicates
A. running torque of the motor C. efficiency of the motor
B. starting torque of the motor D. speed regulation of the motor
166. The speed of a DC motor, under constant load conditions, is affected by
A. back emf B. field flux C. armature current D. none of the above
167. A DC shunt motor is rotating in clockwise direction as viewed from one end. The polarity of
connection of the armature and field winding are reversed simultaneously. The motor will
A. rotate in clockwise direction C. will not rotate at all
B. rotate in anti-clockwise direction D. gain excessively high speed
168. If the field current of a loaded shunt motor is suddenly opened
A. torque developed by the motor would be reduced to zero
B. it would race to almost infinite speed
C. it would draw normally high armature current
D. the fuse or circuit breaker will open the circuit before too much damage is done to the
motor
169. A series motor is best suited for driving
A. machine tools B. cranes and hoists C. shear and punches D. none of the above
170. Which of the following motor has high starting torque?
A. Synchronous motor C. DC series motor
B. AC series motor D. Inductor motor
171. While starting a differential compound motor, it is best to short the series field in order to avoid
A. excessive starting period C. tripping of the circuit breaker
B. motor starting in wrong direction D. large in rush of current
172. In a DC motor constant torque is produced due to
A. rotor laminations C. pole shoes
B. end – plates D. commutator
173. The operation of electric generators and motors depend on the interaction between magnetic field
and
A. copper conductor C. electric current
B. electric field D. commutator
174. The simplest form for a motor controller is
A. relay B. toggle switch C. drum switch D. magnetic switch
175. All motors, basically, operate on the principle of either repulsion or
A. induction B. semi-conduction C. capacitance D. electro-magnetism
176. The maximum end-play of a motor is about
A. 10 mm B. 6 mm C. 2 mm D. 0.4 mm
177. A face starter is employed for starting
A. induction motor B. universal motor C. synchronous motor D. DC series motor
178. If the no-voltage release of a DC motor starter fails to work on resumption of supply after a break,
the motor will
A. not start automatically C. get damaged
B. start automatically without trouble D. develop very low torque
179. A DC series motor, as compared to shunt and compound motors, has the highest torque at the
start because of its comparatively
A. stronger series field C. large armature current
B. lower armature resistance D. fewer series turns
180. Which of the following motors, on removal of load, will run at the highest speed?
A. shunt motor C. differential compound
 B. series motor D. cumulative compound
181. The mechanical power developed by a DC motor is equal to
A. power input + losses C. power output x losses
B. back emf x armature current D. power output x efficiency
182. Which of the following statement is correct, in case of a DC series motor?
A. it should be directly connected to the load
B. it may run away if its field becomes open
C. it is a constant speed motor
D. it cannot be used where high starting torque is required
183. The variable resistor shunting the field of a DC series motor is called a
A. armature divertor C. field divertor
B. voltage regulator D. potential divider
184. Between Field’s test and Hopkinson’s test the main common thing is that both
A. use negligible power C. need two similar mechanically coupled motors
B. are regenerative tests D. need two electrically coupled series motors
185. The use of armature divertor in the rheostatic method of speed control for a DC shunt motor
makes the method
A. less expensive C. suitable for rapidly changing loads
B. less wasteful D. unsuitable for changing loads
186. The series parallel system of speed control series motors widely used in traction work gives a
speed range of about
A. 1:10 B. 1:8 C. 1:6 D. 1:4
187. If a conditions for maximum power for a DC motor are established, the efficiency of the motor will
be
A. less than 50% B. 60 to 70% C. 80 to 90% D. 100%
188. In which of the following tests only one motor is required?
A. Brake test B. Hopkinson’s test C. Field’s test D. Swinburne’s test
189. in Field’s test for series motors one motor drives the other machine as
A. cumulative compound generator C. separately excited generator
B. differential compound generator D. series generator
190. A motor for punching machine is usually subjected to
A. no load B. continuous part load C. continuous full load D. intermittent load
191. Which of the following is not necessarily the advantage of DC motor over AC motors?
A. better speed control C. high starting torque
B. low cost D. wide speed range
192. The armature shaft of a DC motor must be able to withstand
A. any unbalance magnetic pull on the armature core
B. twisting strains due to transmission of torque
C. bending moment due to the weight of the armature and commutator
D. all of the above
193. Which of the following loss of DC motor decreases with increase in load?
A. Friction and windage loss C. Brush contact loss
B. Core loss D. none of the above
194. In an overload motor main danger arises due to
A. winding getting overheated C. starter getting damaged
B. bus bars getting heated D. bearings getting overheated
195. A wide and very sensitive speed control is usually required in case of
A. elevators C. colliery winders
B. steel rolling mills D. all of the above
196. For which application a DC motor is preferred over an AC motor?
A. high speed operation C. fixed speed operation
B. low speed operation D. variable speed operation
197. Regenerative braking on DC shunt motors is used when
A. the load has overhauling characteristics
B. the load is variable
C. the load also acts as a braking force
D. the load is constantly decreasing
198. Which motor should be used for centrifugal pumps?
A. series motor B. shunt motor C. either of the above D. none of the above
199. Which of the following methods is most effective in finding out the no load losses in a large DC
shunt motor?
A. Field’s test C. Block rotor test E. Hopkinson’s test
B. Ward-Leonard test D. Swinburne’s test
200. A DC motor can be easily identified by
A. winding B. commutator C. size of conductor D. yoke
201. The function of a field regulator for compound motors is to
A. control the flux C. demagnetize the field partially
B. limit the armature current D. none of the above
202. The main disadvantage of Hopkinson’s test for finding efficiency of the shunt DC motors is that it
A. needs one motor and one generator C. requires full load power
B. requires two identical shunt machines D. ignores any change in iron loss
203. Which losses can be determined by performing the retardation test?
A. friction losses B. eddy current losses C. stray losses D. copper losses
204. The generated emf and the current are in the opposite direction in case of
A. DC generators B. DC motors C. both (a) and (b) D. none of the above
205. Speed control of a cumulatively compounded DC motor can be effected through change of
A. field resistance C. armature voltage
B. armature resistance D. any of the above
206. Ward-Leonard system of speed control is not recommended for
A. very low speeds C. wide speed range
B. frequent motor reversals D. constant speed range
207. Which of the following can be used for controlling the speed of a DC motor?
A. Thermistor B. Transistor C. Thyratron D. Thyristor
208. Hopkinson’s test is conducted at
A. no load B. part load C. low load D. full load
209. Which of the following tests can be conducted on all types of DC machines?
A. Hopkinson’s test C. Block rotor test E. Brake test
B. Running down test D. Field’s test
210. In case of a shunt motor if the supply voltage is increased by 10%, which of the following will
decrease?
A. full load current B. full load speed C. starting torque D. none of the above
211. Which of the following, in a DC motor, can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
A. Commutator B. Armature windings C. Slip rings D. Field windings
212. Speed control varying the armature circuit resistance, in a DC motor, provides a
A. constant torque drive C. constant power drive
B. variable torque drive D. variable power drive
213. Speed control by the variation of flux, in a DC shunt motor, will give
A. constant torque drive C. constant power drive
 B. variable torque drive D. variable power drive

214. Which of the following tests can be used to determine no-load losses in a DC shunt motor?
A. Running down test C. Field test
B. Swinburne’s test D. Brake test
215. In regenerative braking
A. motor energy is dissipated as heat C. motor energy is dissipated in windage losses
B. motor energy is dissipated in armature D. motor is made to run as a generator
216. Regenerative braking on shunt motors is used when
A. the load is variable C. the load acts as a braking force
B. the load is constantly decreasing D. the load has overhauling characteristics
217. Which of the following methods gives the greatest breaking torque?
A. Regenerative braking C. Rheostatic braking
B. Plugging D. None of the above
218. A brake test on DC motors is usually restricted to
A. small horse power motors C. high speed motors
B. variable speed motors D. open frame type motor
219. The electric motor is a machine which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Answer: NO
220. The body of DC mill motors is made in two halves bolted together for easy access to the field
windings and intel ‘r poles. Answer: YES
221. A DC motor works on the principle that when a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic
field, it experiences a force whose direction is given by Fleming’s right-hand rule. Answer: YES
222. In a DC motor the back of counter emf acts in opposition to the current in the machine.
Answer: YES
223. Voltage equation of a motor is given by �� = � + �� �� . Answer: NO
�
224. Armature torque in a DC motor is given by �� = 0.159��� Ζ × ��. Answer: YES
�
225. Condition for maximum power developed in armature of a DC motor is �� = 3 . Answer: NO
����−���� �����−��−���� �����
226. ��� ���� ����� ���������� =
��−���� �����
. Answer: NO
227. In case of a ___ motor the speed falls as the load torque increases. Answer: series
228. A shunt motor may be regarded as an approximately constant-speed motor. Answer: YES
229. In a cumulative compound motor the speed increases appreciably as the load torque increases.
Answer: NO
230. A shunt motor is used for traction drives generally. Answer: NO
231. A series motor id preferred for line shaft drives. Answer: NO
232. ___ compound motor are used in rolling mills. Answer: Cumulative
233. Differential compound motors are used for experimental and research work and battery boosters.
Answer: YES
234. Reversal in a DC motor can be accomplished by changing the polarity of either the armature or
the field, but not by changing both. Answer: YES
235. Very small DC motors may be started directly from the line without using a starting resistance and
without injury to the motor. Answer: YES
236. Three point starters are not completely satisfactory when used with motors whose speed must be
controlled by inserting resistance in the shunt field circuit. Answer: YES
237. When a mechanical load is put on a motor, the electrical power input to motor automatically
changes to match it (load). Answer: YES
238. The speed of a DC motor can be changed by field control method only. Answer: NO
239. Field control method is also applicable to ___ motors. Answer: compound
240. Field control method provides relatively smooth and stepless control of speed. Answer: YES
241. In a series motor, variations of flux can be brought about by armature divertor only.
Answer: NO
242. In paralleling field coils method of speed control several speeds can be obtained by regrouping
the field coils. Answer: YES
243. Rheostatic control method is a common method of speed control of series motors. Answer: YES
244. Rheostat control method is used when speeds above the no-load speed is required. Answer: NO
245. Series-parallel control is widely used in electric traction. Answer: YES
246. When the speed is controlled by regulating the motor terminal voltage while maintaining constant
field current, it is called voltage control. Answer: YES
247. Ward-Leonard method of speed control not only gives a wide range of operating speeds, but
reduces to the very minimum the wastage of energy that may take place at starting and stopping.
Answer: YES
248. Electro-mechanical or friction brakes are operated by electro-magnets or electric-operated
thrusters. Answer: YES
249. In rheostatic braking the connection to the armature terminals are reversed so that the motor
tends to run in the opposite direction. Anwer: NO
250. As compared to rheostatic braking, ____ gives better braking torque. Answer: plugging
251. Regenerative braking method is used when the load on the motor has overhauling characteristic
as in the lowering of the cage of the hoist or downgrade motion of an electric train. Answer: YES
�����−������
252. ���������� =
������
. Answer: NO
253. The electrical losses are supplied from electrical power generated by or delivered to the machine,
as the case may be. Answer: YES
254. Armature copper loss is about 30 to 40% of total full-load losses. Answer: YES
255. The voltage drop at the brush is almost ___ of armature current. Answer: independent
256. Field copper loss constitutes about 50% of total full-load losses. Answer: NO
257. Iron losses are a function of both flux and speed. Answer: YES
258. For good generators the value of overall or commercial efficiency may be as high as 95%.
Answer: YES
259. A direct on line starter is used for starting motors up to 5 H.P. Answer: YES
260. Efficiency will be maximum when variable losses are equal to constant losses. Answer: YES
261. Brake test is a typical example of an indirect test. Answer: NO
262. In direct test the generator or motor is put on full-load and whole of the power developed by it is
wasted. Answer: YES
263. An indirect method of testing consists in measuring the losses and then calculating the efficiency.
Answer: YES
264. ___ test is regenerative test for determining efficiency of DC machines. Answer: Hopkinson’s
265. In Swinburne’s test the losses are measured separately and efficiency at any designed load is
pre-determined. Answer: YES
266. Hopkinson’s test is uneconomical. Answer: NO
267. Retardation test is a method by which the losses of the machines can be found out.
Answer: YES
268. Field’s test is applicable to two dissimilar series motors. Answer: NO
269. The temperature rise test or the heat run test aims at finding out the actual maximum temperature
attained while the machine is operating under certain load conditions. Answer: YES
270. When the speed of the motor is controlled by regulating the motor terminal voltage while
maintaining constant ____ current, it is called voltage control. Answer: field
TRANSFORMER

1. Which of the following does not change in a transformer?

A. current B. voltage C. frequency D. all of the above
2. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary
A. through cooling coil C. by the flux
B. through air D. none of the above
3. A transformer core is laminated to
A. reduce hysteresis C. reduce copper losses
B. reduce eddy current losses D. reduce all above losses
4. The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a transformer depends on
A. tightness of clamping C. size of laminations
B. gauge laminations D. all of the above
5. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of the full-load current?
A. 0.2 to 0.5 percent C. 12 to 15 percent
B. 2 to 5 percent D. 20 to 30 percent
6. The path of magnetic flux in a transformer should have
A. high resistance C. low resistance
B. high reluctance D. low reluctance
7. No-load test on a transformer is carried out to determine
A. copper loss C. magnetizing current and loss
B. magnetizing current D. efficiency of the transformer
8. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be
A. 1 kV B. 33 kV C. 100 kV D. 330 kV
9. Sumpner’s test is conducted on transformers to determine
A. temperature B. stray losses C. all-day efficiency D. none of the above
10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel is around
A. 1.7 Wb/�� B. 2.7 Wb/�2 C. 3.7 Wb/�2 D. 4.7 Wb/�2
11. The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when
A. copper losses = hysteresis losses C. eddy current losses = copper losses
B. hysteresis losses = eddy current losses D. copper losses = iron losses
12. No-load current in a transformer
A. lags behind the voltage by about 75° C. lags behind the voltage by about 15°
B. leads the voltage by about 75° D. leads the voltage by about 15°
13. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to
A. provide support to windings C. decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
B. reduce hysteresis loss D. reduce eddy current losses
14. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation?
A. conservator B. breather C. Buchholz relay D. exciter
15. While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short-circuited
A. high voltage side C. primary side
B. low voltage side D. secondary side
16. In a transformer following winding has got more cross-sectional are
A. low voltage winding C. primary winding
B. high voltage winding D. secondary winding
17. A transformer transforms
A. voltage B. current C. power D. frequency
18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a DC supply because
A. there is no need to change the DC voltage
 B. a DC circuit has more losses
C. Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux is
zero
D. none of the above
19. Primary winding of a transformer
A. is always a low voltage winding
B. is always a high voltage winding
C. could either be a low voltage or high voltage winding
D. none of the above
20. Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns?
A. low voltage winding C. primary winding
B. high voltage winding D. secondary winding
21. Efficiency of power transformer is of the order of
A. 100 percent B. 98 percent C. 50 percent D. 25 percent
22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain constant irrespective of load
changes are
A. friction and windage losses C. hysteresis and eddy current losses
B. copper losses D. none of the above
23. A common method of cooling a power transformer is
A. natural air cooling C. oil cooling
B. air blast cooling D. any of the above
24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage by an angle of about
A. 180° B. 120° C. 90° D. 75°
25. In a transformer routine efficiency depends upon
A. supply frequency C. power factor of load
B. load current D. both (b) and (c)
26. In the transformer the function of a conservator is to
A. provide fresh air for cooling the transformer
B. supply cooling oil to transformer in time of need
C. protect the transformer from damage when oil expends due to heating
D. none of the above
27. Natural oil cooling is used for transformers upto a rating of
A. 3000 kVA B. 1000 kVA C. 500 kVA D. 250 kVA
28. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at
A. nearly full load B. 70% full load C. 50% full load D. no load
29. The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is
A. at no load B. at 50% full load C. at 80% full load D. at full load
30. Transformer breaths in when
A. load on it increase C. load remains constant
B. load on it decrease D. none of the above
31. No-load current of a transformer has
A. has high magnitude and low power factor
B. has high magnitude and high power factor
C. has small magnitude and high power factor
D. has small magnitude and low power factor
32. Spacers are provided between adjacent coils
A. to provide free passage to the cooling oil
B. to insulate the coils from each other
C. both (a) and (b)
 D. none of the above
33. Greater secondary leakage flux
A. less will be the secondary induced emfC. less will be the primary terminal voltage
B. less will be the primary induced emf D. none of the above
34. The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up transformer is
A. to provide coupling between primary and secondary
B. to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
C. to decrease the magnitude of magnetizing current
D. to provide all above features
35. The power transformer is a constant
A. voltage device B. current device C. power device D. main flux device
36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
A. leakage reactance C. efficiencies
B. per unit impedance D. ratings
37. If �2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the transformer and K is the transformation ration then
the equivalent secondary resistance referred to primary will be
A. �2 / � B. �� /�� C. �2 2 /�2 D. �2 2 /�
38. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected with regard to polarity?
A. the power factor of the two transformers will be different from the power factor of common load
B. incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit
C. the transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA ratings
D. none of the above
39. If the percentage impedances of the two transformers working in parallel are different, then
A. transformers will be overheated
B. power factors of both the transformers will be same
C. parallel operation will be not possible
D. parallel position will still be possible, but the power factors at which the two transformers
operate will be different from the power factor of the common load
40. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on
A. primary side B. secondary side C. low voltage side D. high voltage side
41. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design
A. reduces weight per kVA C. reduces copper losses
B. reduces iron losses D. increases part load efficiency
42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of
A. ionizing air C. cleansing the transformer oil
B. absorbing moisture D. cooling the transformer oil
43. The chemical used in breather is
A. asbestos fibre C. sodium chloride
B. silica sand D. silica gel
44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and secondary inductances. The statement is
A. true B. false
45. The transformer ratings are usually expresses in terms of
A. volts B. amperes C. kW D. kVA
46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by magnetic forces, is termed as
A. magnetostrication C. hum
B. boo D. zoom
47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as (���� = ������� ���� �������)
A. ���� B. ���� �.� C. ���� 1.85 D. ���� 2.4
48. Material used for construction of transformer core is usually
A. wood B. copper C. aluminium D. silicon steel
49. The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is usually
A. 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm C. 14 mm to 15 mm
B. 4 mm to 5 mm D. 25 mm to 40 mm
50. The function of conservator in a transformer is
A. the project against internal fault
B. to reduce copper as well as core losses
C. to cool the transformer oil
D. to take care the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation of
temperature of surroundings
51. The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is
A. 33 kV B. 66 kV C. 132 kV D. 400 kV
52. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is
A. zero B. 1 ohm C. 1000 ohms D. infinite
53. A transformer oil must be free from
A. sludge B. odour C. gases D. moisture
54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on
A. auto-transformers C. welding transformers
B. air-cooled transformers D. oil cooled transformers
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil unless the oil temperature exceeds
A. 50°C B. 80°C C. 100°C D. 150°C
56. The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer could be
A. fluctuating load C. mechanical vibrations
B. poor insulation D. saturation of core
57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum efficiency around
A. 90% load B. zero load C. 25% load D. 50% load
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the material for transformer core?
A. mechanical strength C. high thermal conductivity
B. low hysteresis loss D. high permeability
59. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when
A. load is unbalanced only C. on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
B. load is balanced only D. none of the above
60. Delta/star transformer works satisfactory when
A. load is balance only C. on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
B. load is unbalanced only D. none of the above
61. Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection against
A. electrical fault inside the transformer itself
B. electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder
C. for both outside and inside faults
D. none of the above
62. The magnetizing current of a transformer is usually small because it has
A. small air gap C. laminated silicon steel core
B. large leakage flux D. fewer rotating parts
63. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer?
A. frequency B. voltage C. current D. any of the above
64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the material for transformer core?
A. low hysteresis loss C. high thermal conductivity
B. high permeability D. adequate mechanical strength
65. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon
A. load current C. load current, voltage and frequency
B. load current and voltage D. load current, voltage, frequency and power factor
66. The path of magnetic flux in transformer should have
A. high reluctance C. high resistance
B. low reluctance D. low resistance
67. Noise level test in a transformer is a
A. special test B. routine test C. type test D. none of the above
68. Which of the following is not a routine test on transformers?
A. core insulation voltage test C. radio interference test
B. impedance test D. polarity test
69. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at
A. leading power factor C. unity power factor
B. lagging power factor D. zero power factor
70. Helical coils can be used on
A. low voltage side of high kVA transformers
B. high frequency transformers
C. high voltage side of small capacity transformers
D. high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
71. Harmonics in transformer result in
A. increased core losses C. magnetic interference with communication circuits
B. increased �2 � losses D. all of the above
72. The core used in high frequency transformer is usually
A. copper core B. cost iron core C. air core D. mild steel core
73. The full-load copper loss of a transformer is 1600 W. at half-load, the copper loss will be
A. 6400 W B. 1600 W C. 800 W D. 400 W
74. The value of flux involved in the emf equation of a transformer is
A. average value B. rms value C. maximum value D. instantaneous value
75. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces
A. hysteresis loss B. eddy current losses C. copper losses D. all of the above
76. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area?
A. primary winding C. low voltage winding
B. secondary winding D. high voltage winding
77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around
A. no-load B. half-load C. near full-load D. 10% overload
78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two winding transformer?
A. hysteresis losses are reduce C. copper losses are negligible
B. saving in winding material D. eddy losses are totally eliminated
79. During short-circuit test iron losses are negligible because
A. the current on secondary side is negligible
B. the voltage on secondary side does not vary
C. the voltage applied on primary side is low
D. full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not have equal percentage
impedance. This is likely to result in
A. short-circuiting of the secondaries
B. power factor of one of the transformers is leading while that of the other lagging
C. transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core losses
D. loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings
81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of atmospheric temperature during
day and night is taken care of by which part of transformer
A. Conservator B. Breather C. Bushing D. Buchholz relay
82. An ideal transformer is one which has
A. no losses and magnetic leakage
B. interleaved primary and secondary windings
C. a common core for its primary and secondary windings
D. core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
E. none of the above
83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced frequency, its
A. flux density remains unaffected C. core flux density is reduced
B. iron losses are reduced D. core flux density is increased
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from load to full-load because
A. value of transformation ratio remains constant
B. permeability of transformer core remains constant
C. core flux remains practically constant
D. primary voltage remains constant
E. secondary voltage remains constant
85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that
A. copper loss = iron loss C. copper loss > iron loss
B. copper loss < iron loss D. none of the above
86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss will
A. not change B. decrease C. increase D. any of the above
87. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that the load is
A. capacitive only B. inductive only C. inductive or resistive D. none of the above
88. Iron loss of transformer can be measured by
A. low power factor wattmeter C. frequency meter
B. unity power factor wattmeter D. any type of wattmeter
89. When secondary of current transformer is open-circuited its iron core will be
A. hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux density
B. hit because primary will carry heavy current
C. cool as there is no secondary current
D. none of above will happen
90. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by
A. mica strip B. thin coat of varnish C. paper D. any of the above
91. Which type of winding is used in 3-phase shell-type transformer?
A. circular type B. sandwich type C. cylindrical type D. rectangular type
92. During open circuit test of a transformer
A. primary is supplied rated voltage C. primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
B. primary is supplied full-load current D. primary is supplied rated kVA
93. Open circuit test on transformer is conducted to determine
A. hysteresis losses C. core losses
B. copper losses D. eddy current losses
94. Short circuit test on transformer is conducted to determine
A. hysteresis losses C. core losses
B. copper losses D. eddy current losses
95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is necessary that they should have
A. same efficiency C. same kVA rating
B. same polarity D. same number of turns on the secondary side
96. The transformer oil should have ____ volatility and _____ viscosity.
A. low…lo B. high…..high C. low….high D. high…..low
97. The function breather in a transformer is
A. to provide oxygen inside the tank
B. to cool the coils during reduced load
C. to cool the transformer oil
D. to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed?
A. step-up transformer C. potential transformer
B. step-down transformer D. current transformer
99. The size of a transformer core will depend on
A. frequency C. flux density of the core material
B. area of the core D. (a) and (b) both
100. Natural air cooling is generally restricted for transformers up to
A. 1.5 MVA B. 5 MVA C. 15 MVA D. 50 MVA
101. A shell-type transformer has
A. high eddy current losses C. negligibly hysteresis losses
B. reduced magnetic leakage D. none of the above
102. A transformer can have regulation closer to zero
A. on full-load C. on leading power factor
B. on overload D. on zero power factors
103. A transformer transforms
A. voltage B. current C. current and voltage D. power
104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power supply in India?
A. 11 kV B. 33 kV C. 66 kV D. 122 kV
105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are obtained with transformer employing
A. core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
B. core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
C. either of the above
D. none of the above
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end turns are heavily insulated
A. to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by the shunting capacitance
of the end turns
B. to absorbs the line surge voltage and save the winding of transformer from damage
C. to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer from damage
D. none of the above
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the applied voltage
A. eddy current loss will decrease C. eddy current loss will remain unchanged
B. eddy current loss will increase D. none of the above
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in transformers are
A. friction and windage losses C. hysteresis and eddy current losses
B. magnetic losses D. copper losses
109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which remain constant irrespective of
load changes are
A. hysteresis and eddy current losses C. copper losses
B. friction and windage losses D. none of the above
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel single-phase transformer having a turn ratio
of 1:2 and drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V AC supply is incorrect
A. its secondary current is 5 A D. its secondary current is 20 A
 B. its secondary voltage is 400 V E. it is a step-up transformer
C. its rating is 2 kVA
111. The secondary of a current transformer is always short-circuited under operating conditions
because it
A. avoids core saturation and high voltage induction
B. is safe to human being
C. protects the primary circuit
D. none of the above
112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary should be
A. zero B. 10 Ω C. 1000 Ω D. infinity
113. A good voltage regulation of a transformer means
A. output voltage fluctuation from no load to full load is least
B. output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least
C. difference between primary and secondary voltage is least
D. difference between primary and secondary voltage is maximum
114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur at
A. 0.8 leading power factor C. zero power factor
B. 0.8 lagging power factor D. unity power factor
115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution transformers?
A. Over-fluxing protection C. Over-current protection
B. Buchholz relay D. All of the above
116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning and
switching?
A. horn gaps C. breather
B. thermal overload relay D. conservator
117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be determined by
A. short-circuit test B. back-to-back test C. open circuit test D. any of the above
118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the highest temperature safely?
A. Cellulose B. Asbestos C. Mica D. Glass fiber
119. Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from outside?
A. Bushings B. Core C. Primary winding D. Secondary winding
120. The noise produced by a transformer is termed as
A. zoom B. hum C. ringing D. buzz
121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load?
A. Core loss B. Friction loss C. Eddy current loss D. Hysteresis loss
122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer?
A. Poor insulation B. Overload C. Loose connection D. Core saturation
123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur in
A. core B. windings C. tank D. any of the above
124. The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to
A. load changes C. magnetostriction
B. oil in the transformer D. mechanical vibrations
125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited by its
A. temperature rise C. voltage ratio
B. dielectric strength of oil D. copper loss
126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively low because
A. copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
B. iron loss is increased considerably
C. voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
 D. secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
127. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to measure
A. insulation resistance D. total loss
B. copper loss E. efficiency
C. core loss F. none of the above
128. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determined
A. core loss D. magnetizing current
B. copper loss E. magnetizing current and loss
C. efficiency
129. The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer is equal to the ratio of
A. primary turns to secondary turns C. secondary induced emf to primary induced emf
B. secondary current to primary current D. secondary terminal voltage to primary applied voltage
130. Part of the transformer which most subject to damage from overheating is
A. iron core C. winding insulation E. transformer tank
B. copper winding D. frame or case
131. If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more than the rated voltage
A. its power factor will deteriorate C. its power factor will remain unaffected
B. its power factor will increase D. its power factor will be zero
132. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper losses, when its transformation
ratio is
A. approximately equal to one C. great than one
B. less than one D. none of the above
133. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
A. unity B. lagging C. leading D. zero
134. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load current. This results in change
of supply current of
A. less than 15 A B. more than 15 A C. 15 A D. none of the above
135. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that electric motors of the same power are
A. about the same C. much higher E. none of the above
B. much smaller D. somewhat smaller
136. The short-circuit voltage of transformer mainly depends on the
A. magnitude leakage flux C. ohmic resistance of secondary winding
B. ohmic resistance of primary winding D. cross-sectional area of the iron core
137. In a transformer, electric power is transferred from one coil to the other coil in a transformer
A. magnetically B. electromagnetically C. physically D. electrically
138. In an ideal transformer, on no-load, the primary voltage is balanced by
A. the primary induced emf C. the secondary voltage
B. the secondary induced emf D. the drop across resistance and reactance
139. As per the name plate of a transformer, the secondary normal voltage is 220 V. Which of the
following statements about it is correct?
A. 220 V is the no-load voltage
B. the no-load voltage is more than 220 V
C. the secondary voltage increases with increasing load
D. at a load which draws the rated current the voltage becomes less than 220 V
140. A transformer is working at its maximum efficiency. Its iron loss is 1 kW. Its copper loss will be
A. 0.2 kW B. 0.25 kW C. 0.5 kW D. 1 kW
141. A transformer is working at its full load and its efficiency is also maximum. Its iron loss is 1 kW, its
copper loss at half load will be
A. 0.1 kW B. 0.2 kW C. 0.25 kW D. 0.5 kW
142. In some transformers, the tappings are provided on
A. L.V. side C. L.V. as well as on H.V. side
B. H.V. side D. in the middle of both windings
143. In case of transformer using cold rolled grain oriented steel, the area of yoke is taken
A. equal to that of core D. as 20-25% larger than that of core
B. as 10-15% larger than that of core E. none of the above
C. as 15-20% larger than that of core
144. The distribution transformer are designed to keep the iron-losses minimum because
A. the primary of distribution transformer is energized for all the twenty four hours
B. iron losses may damage the insulation
C. iron-losses will heat up the coil
D. none of the above
145. Which of the following materials is suitable for the manufacture of transformer and large turbo-
alternator?
A. Cast iron C. Cold rolled grain oriented steel
B. Cast steel D. Hot rolled grain oriented steel
146. A transformer is used to change the value of
A. power factor B. power C. frequency D. voltage
147. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. a transformer operates at power factor below a particular value
B. a transformer operates always unity power factor
C. a transformer operates at a power factor depending on the power factor of the load
D. a transformer has its own power factor
148. A transformer, as compared to an to an amplifier, cannot increase
A. the output current C. the output power
B. the output voltage D. none of the above
149. A transformer having a turn ration 1:5 and a resistance of 1000Ω is connected across the
secondary resistance offered to a current flowing in the primary will be
A. 10 Ω B. 20 Ω C. 40 Ω D. 60 Ω
150. Which of the following statements about a transformer having a small short-circuit voltage is true?
A. a low short-circuit current flows through the transformer
B. a high short-circuit current flows through the transformer
C. the transformer has high copper losses during the operation
D. the transformer has high iron losses during the operation
E. the transformer has a small transformation ratio
151. Helical coils are very well suited for
A. low voltage winding of large rating transformers
B. high voltage winding of small rating transformers
C. high voltage winding of large rating transformers
D. none of the above
152. In a power transformer the efficiency should be maximum at
A. 50% of full load C. 80% full load
B. 60% full load D. full load
153. For minimum weight of a transformer, the weight of iron should be
A. equal to the weight of copper C. greater than weight of copper
B. less than weight of copper D. zero
154. The iron losses of a transformer can be calculated by knowing the weights of
A. copper winding only C. cores only
B. yokes only D. cores and yokes
155. H.R.C. fuses on transformer provide protection against
A. insulation failure C. external faults
B. internal faults D. low oil level
156. Which of the following insulating materials is used in power transformers?
A. tape of glass C. press board
B. synthetic resin bonded paper D. all of the above
157. Simple porcelain bushings are used for transformers up to
A. 11 kV B. 132 kV C. 400 kV D. none of the above
158. Harmonic currents in a transformer cause
A. increase core loss C. magnetic interference with protective relays
B. increase �2 � loss D. all of the above
159. If a transformer core is made of copper and coils are made up of steel wire, then
A. eddy current losses will be less
B. copper losses in the windings will be more
C. magnetizing current will be reduced
D. all of the above
160. Oil impregnated paper condenser bushing is generally used on transformers operating at
A. 123 kV B. 66 kV C. 33 kV D. 11 kV
161. The colour of fresh dielectric oil for a transformer is
A. dark brown B. white to grey C. pale yellow D. colourless
162. Which of the following test on a transformer provides information about regulation, efficiency and
heating under load conditions?
A. Back to back test C. Swinburne’s test
B. Short circuit test D. Open circuit test
163. Buchholz relay is used on
A. welding transformers C. furnace transformers
B. air-cooled transformers D. oil cooled transformers
164. The kVA rating ratio of transformers operating in parallel, as a general rule, should be within
A. 5 : 1 B. 4 : 1 C. 3 : 1 D. 2 : 1
165. Which value of flux is involved in the emf equation of the transformer?
A. RMS value B. Critical value C. Average value D. Maximum value
166. In Scott connections the main transformer ahs center tap on
A. primary winding C. both primary and secondary windings
B. secondary winding D. none of the above
167. In a transformer over-currents affect
A. mechanical stress C. insulation life
B. temperature rise D. all of the above
168. For transformers up to a capacity of kVA air blast cooling is provided.
A. 2500 B. 5000 C. 10000 D. 20000
169. As the supply frequency of a transformer increases its rating
A. increases B. decreases C. remain unchanged D. none of the above
170. Which of the following methods is used for cooling of transformers up to a capacity of MVA?
A. Air blast cooling C. Oil natural cooling
B. Forced oil cooling D. None of the above
171. The nominal short-circuit voltage of the transformer is defined as percentage of
A. the rated primary voltage C. the test voltage E. none of the above
B. the rated secondary voltage D. the nominal transformation ratio
172. In a trans former frictional loss is
A. 5% of total loss B. 10% of total loss C. 20% of total loss D. nil
173. A distribution transformer has low flux density because
A. it is constantly connected to the supply
B. it is required to give better power factor
C. it is normally a small transformer
D. iron is quite cheap
174. Spiral core transformer which has core made up of steel strip has the following advantage
A. Less weight B. Lighter construction C. Minimum losses D. All above
175. The place of transformer installation is selected such that
A. location is not too warm
B. plenty of dry and clean air is available and wet conditions are not encountered
C. location is not subject to damage from men and material traffic
D. all above requirements are met with
176. A transformer designed for installation in a tropical country if installed in a cold country
A. is to be loaded below the name plate kVA rating
B. can be loaded in excess of the name plate kVA rating
C. either of the above
D. neither of the above
177. Most widely used insulating and cooling transformer liquid is
A. mineral oil B. water C. askarel D. none of the above
178. A current transformer is
A. a magnetic component to change voltage level
B. an instrument to transform AC current to Dc current
C. a magnetic component to change current level
D. none of the above
179. Buchholz’s relay is used in
A. motor protection C. generator protection
B. line protection D. transformer protection
180. Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection against
A. electrical fault inside the transformer in outgoing feeder
B. electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder
C. either of the above
D. none of the above
181. For power purpose sine wave shape is preferred because
A. it gives least copper losses
B. it is easy to generate emf of this shape
C. it is stable wave shape as the line parameters cannot change it
D. none of the above
182. A sinusoidal emf
A. leads the flux inducing it by 180° C. lags the flux inducing it by 180°
B. leads the flux inducing it by 90° D. lags the flux inducing it by 90°
183. The humming sound in a transformer is mainly due to
A. magnetostriction C. oil of the transformer
B. walls of the tank D. laminations of the transformer
184. The advantage of putting tappings at the phase ends of a transformer is
A. to reduce the number of bushings C. to obtain fine variation of voltage
B. to obtain better regulation D. to operate with ease
185. In a three-phase delta transformer, one of the phases burns up. The transformer will supply
A. zero output C. 40% of its output rating E. none of the above
B. 20% of its output rating D. its full output rating
186. When a 440/220 V transformer is connected to 400 V DC supply
A. the transformer may burn C. the output will be 220 V
B. the output will be zero volts D. the output will be less than 230 V
187. In high frequency transformer ferrite cores are used because a ferrite core has
A. low resistance C. low permeability
B. high resistance D. high hysteresis
188. Which of the following transformers is smallest?
A. 2 kVA, 500 Hz B. 2 kVA, 400 Hz C. 2 kVA, 200 Hz D. 2 kVA, 50 Hz
189. The purpose of a breather in a transformer is to
A. provide cooling to the winding C. provide insulation to the winding
B. takes insulting oil from the conservator D. extract moisture from the air
190. Cross-over windings are used for
A. high voltage winding of large rating transformers
B. high voltage winding of small rating transformers
C. low voltage winding of small rating transformers
D. none of these
191. In core-type transformers, the concentric winding are used with
A. low voltage winding placed next to core C. high voltage winding placed next to core
B. low voltage winding on the outer-side D. high voltage winding on the outer-side
192. The yoke sections of transformers using hot rolled laminations is made 15% greater than that of
the core so as to
A. to increase the size of the transformers
B. to reduce the copper loss
C. to reduce the iron loss in yoke and magnetizing current
D. to provide better cooling
193. When two single phase transformers are running in parallel and if the impedance triangles of the
transformers are not identical in shape and size then
A. power factor of one transformer and power factor of common load will be same
B. power factors at which the transformers operate will be different from one another and
again these will be different from power factor of common load
C. power factors at which the transformers operate will be same but different from power factor of
common load
D. power factors at which the transformers operate and power factor of common load-all will be same
194. What is the typical use of an auto-transformer?
A. Control transformer C. Variable transformer
B. Isolating transformer D. Toy transformer
195. In a transformer the magnitude of mutual flux
A. varies at low loads and constant at high loads
B. is low at low loads and high at high loads
C. is high at low loads and low at high loads
D. same at all loads
196. The principle of working of a transformer is
A. mutual induction C. self induction
B. static induction D. dynamic induction
197. Which of the following is not a fitting on a transformer?
A. Commutator B. Breather C. Conservator D. Buchholz’s relay
198. In a transformer an insulating material may fail due to
A. moisture B. dust C. voids in the winding D. any of the above
199. The reactance of a transformer depends on
 A. leakage flux B. size of the core C. size of the tank D. all of the above
200. Buchholz relay is used in
A. motor protection C. transformer protection
B. line protection D. none of the above
201. Which of the following parts of a transformer is likely to suffer maximum damage due to excessive
temperature rise?
A. winding insulation C. core laminations
B. copper winding D. dielectric strength of oil
202. In a transformer on no-load, the input voltage
A. is always at 60° to the magnetizing current
B. is in phase with magnetizing current
C. leads the magnetizing current by 90°
D. lags the magnetizing current by 90°
203. The value of useful flux least depends on
A. load B. magnetomotive C. voltage D. all of the above
204. In which of the following transformer part of primary winding also serves as the secondary
winding?
A. potential transformer C. step-up transformer
B. auto transformer D. current transformer
205. Which of the following can be reduced when the flux density in the transformer core is increased?
A. copper losses B. output frequency C. size of the transformer D. none of the above
206. Burden of a current transformer is usually expressed in
A. amperes B. volts C. volt amperes D. kilowatt
207. Transformer rating are usually expressed in terms of
A. kVA B. kW C. kWh D. kVAR
208. A tap changer is used on a transformer for
A. adjustments in secondary voltage
B. adjustments in primary voltage
C. adjustments in both primary and secondary voltages
D. none of the above
209. Which of the following will improve the mutual coupling between primary and secondary circuits?
A. high reluctance magnetic core
B. transformer oil of high breakdown voltage
C. low reluctance magnetic core
D. winding material of high resistivity
210. Leakage fluxes of a transformer may be minimize by
A. avoiding overloads
B. keeping magnetizing current to the minimum
C. reducing the reluctance of the iron core to the minimum
D. sectionalizing and interleaving the primary and secondary windings
E. minimizing the number of turns both on primary and secondary
211. The magnetizing current, for sinusoidal voltage applied, will be
A. always sinusoidal
B. always non-sinusoidal
C. sinusoidal or non-sinusoidal depending upon the saturation point
D. none of the above
212. A step-up transformer increases
A. power B. current C. voltage D. frequency
213. Transformer cores are built-up from laminations rather than from solid metal so that
 A. less insulation is required for the windings
B. oil penetrates the core more easily
C. turn ratio is higher than voltage ratio
D. eddy current loss is reduced
214. The transformation ratio of a transformer, for a given application
A. depends on secondary load C. is fixed but not constant
B. is constant but not fixed D. none of the above
215. The output current corresponding to maximum efficiency for a transformer having core loss of 200
W and equivalent resistance referred to secondary of 0.5 Ω is
A. 5 A B. 10 A C. 15 A D. 20 A
216. The rating of a transformer is given in kVA instead of kW because
A. kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load p.f
B. load power factor is often not known
C. it has become customary
D. total transformer loss depends on VA
217. For parallel operation of two single phase transformers the essential condition is that they should
have the same
A. voltage ratio C. polarity
B. percentage impedance D. phase sequence
218. The saving in copper achieved by converting two winding transformer into an auto-transformer is
determined by
A. load on the secondary D. magnetic quality of core material
B. voltage transformation ratio E. none of the above
C. size of the transformer core
219. The type of load for which the voltage regulation of a transformer is negative is
A. capacitive B. inductive C. resistive D. none of the above
220. While performing a short-circuit test on a transformer, usually low-voltage side is short-circuited
because it has
A. low insulation C. lower terminal voltage and higher current ratings
B. easy access D. more number of turns
221. The secondary winding of a current transformer whose primary is carrying current should
A. not be open-circuited C. either of the above
B. not be short-circuited D. none of the above
222. In large transformers, oil is invariably used in order to
A. lubricate the core C. insulate the coils
B. insulate the core D. none of the above
223. Dust should never be allowed to accumulate on the windings and core of a dry type transformer
because it
A. reduces dissipation of heat C. absorbs oil and grease
B. may short-circuit the windings D. tends to corrode the metal surface
224. Increase in secondary current of a transformer brings about increase in primary current. This is
possible because
A. primary and secondary windings are capacitive coupled
B. primary and secondary windings are inductively coupled
C. primary and secondary windings are conductively coupled
D. none of the above
225. An auto-transformer is preferred to a conventional 2-winding transformer
A. where ratio of transformation is low
B. where it is required to isolate the two windings electrically
 C. because it is much safer to use an auto-transformer
D. where large number of secondary taps are needed
226. Transformer for constant voltage application is considered good if its voltage regulation is
A. low B. high C. zero D. none of the above
227. Transformer supplying load having negative resistance characteristics such as arc load, is
considered if its voltage regulation is
A. low B. high C. either of the above D. none of the above
228. For given effective applied voltage of constant frequency eddy current losses
A. become less with peaked wave shape of applied voltage
B. are independent of the wave shape of the applied voltage
C. either of the above
D. none of the above
229. While rising and while falling, if a wave is symmetrical, it contains
A. even harmonics in addition to fundamental
B. odd harmonics in addition to fundamental
C. both odd and even harmonics in addition to fundamental
D. none of the above
230. While rising and falling if a wave is not symmetrical, it contains
A. even harmonics in addition to fundamental
B. odd harmonics in addition to fundamental
C. both odd and even harmonics in addition to fundamental
D. none of the above
231. In order to find the full-load efficiency of a transformer the losses which must be known
A. may be found by performing open-circuit and short-circuit tests
B. may be found by measuring winding resistance and calculating the �2 � losses
C. may be found by measuring the input to the primary with secondary open
D. cannot be found except by actually loading the transformer fully
232. Which of the following statement concerning parallel operation of transformer is incorrect?
A. transformers must be operated at the same frequency
B. transformers must have same transformation ratio
C. transformers must have equal kVA
D. transformers must have equal voltage ratings
233. Current transformers for meters and relays usually have
A. 1:2 ratio B. 5:1 ratio C. 5-A secondaries D. 15-A secondaries
234. All day efficiency is the ratio of output to input in
A. kVA at a particular instant C. kVARh at particular instant
B. kW at particular instant D. kWh during 24 hours
235. While performing back-to-back test, the amount of power consumed is equal to
A. iron and copper losses of two transformers at full load
B. full load rated output of the two transformers
C. rate output of two transformers and iron and copper losses of transformers at full load
D. none of the above
236. The purpose of performing Sumper’s test is mainly to find out
A. regulation of the transformer C. the temperature rise on full load economically
B. efficiency of the transformer D. none of the above
237. When 240 V DC supply is given to an unloaded 220 V, 50 Hz transformer
A. secondary will carry heavy current
B. primary will carry heavy current and may possibly burn
C. we will get AC voltage on secondary side according to turn ratio
 D. we will get high voltage on secondary side
238. On a transformer, if the magnitude of magnetizing current is more
A. its power factor will become low leading side
B. its power factor will become low on lagging side
C. it has no effect on the power factor of the transformer
D. none of the above
239. In measuring voltage or current by means of instrument transformer
A. only ratio errors need be considered
B. both ratio as well as phase angle error need to be considered
C. either of the above
D. none of the above
240. In which of the following the highest rating transformer is likely to find application?
A. transmission B. substation C. generator D. distribution
241. In a transformer maximum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
A. 0.4 B. lagging C. leading D. unity
242. In a transformer minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
A. leading B. 0.8 C. lagging D. unity
243. When a delta connected primary of a 3-phase transformer is connected to 30phase supply
A. magnetizing current in phase winding will carry third harmonics but line current will be free
from it
B. magnetizing current in phase winding will carry third harmonics but line current also contains third
harmonics
C. magnetizing current in phase winding will not contain third harmonics but line current will contain
third harmonics
D. none of the above
244. Scott connections are used to convert
A. three-phase supply to DC supply
B. three-phase supply to three-phase supply
C. three-phase supply to two-phase supply
D. three-phase supply to single-phase supply
245. The function of an instrument transformer is to
A. act as an isolating device to protect equipment and operation personnel from high voltages
B. act as a radio device to enable the use of standardized low range instruments
C. discharge both of the above functions
D. discharge none of the above functions
246. Which of the following 3-phase connections of transformer create disturbances in communication
systems
A. star/delta B. delta/star C. star/star D. delta/delta
247. Delta-delta power transformer is protected by current transformer having
A. star/star connections C. star/delta connections
B. delta/delta connections D. delta/star connections
248. Star-star power transformer is protected by current transformer having
A. star/star connections C. star/delta connections
B. delta/delta connections D. delta/star connections
249. When a transformer raises the voltage it is called the step-up transformer. Answer: YES
250. A transformer must not be connected to ___ source. Answer: DC
251. The ratio of primary voltage to secondary voltage is known as transformation ratio. Answer: NO
252. An ideal transformer is one in which the resistance of the windings is negligible and the core has
no losses. Answer: YES
253. Primary and secondary currents are directly proportional to their respective turns. Answer: NO
254. The function of the magnetizing component of no-load current is to sustain the alternating flux in
the core. Answer: YES
255. The no-load primary input is practically equal to the iron loss in the transformer. Answer: YES
256. A transformer is said to be loaded when the secondary circuit of a transformer is completed
through an ___ load. Answer: impedance
257. Magnetic flux can be confined into a designed path. Answer: NO
258. When shifting resistance to the secondary, divide it by �2 . Answer: NO
259. An open-circuit test is conducted to find no-load or core loss. Answer: YES
260. ____ test is conducted to find full-load copper loss. Answer: Short-circuit
261. The change in voltage when rated load at a specified power is removed is termed as voltage
regulation. Answer: YES
262. Iron or core losses include copper loss and eddy current loss. Answer: NO
263. Iron or core losses are found from short-circuit test. Answer: NO
264. The efficiency of a transformer at a particular load and power factor is defined as the ratio of
power output to power input. Answer: YES
265. Copper loss = ____ losses is the condition for maximum efficiency of a transformer.
Answer: iron
������ �� ��ℎ
266. ����−��� = ��� 24 ℎ���� . Answer: YES
����� �� ��ℎ
267. A transformer in which part of the winding is common to both the primary and secondary circuits
is known as auto-transformer. Answer: YES
268. The ∆ − Δ connection is generally used in systems in which of the voltages are not very high and
especially when continuity of service must be maintained even though one of the transformers should
fail. Answer: YES
269. The Y − ∆ connection is principally used where the voltage is to be stopped up. Answer: NO
270. The ∆ − � connection is employed where it is necessary to step-up the voltage. Answer: YES
271. The � − � circuit is frequently used for two auto-transformers. Answer: YES
272. It is practicable to connect instruments and meters directly to the lines in high voltage circuits.
Answer: NO
273. A potential transformer is a step down transformer used along with a low range voltmeter for
measuring a high voltage. Answer: YES
274. The current transformer ratio is not equal to the ratio of secondary to primary turns, mainly
because of the effect of the magnetizing current. Answer: YES
275. Greater the leakage fluxes ____ will be the voltage regulation. Answer: more
276. In ___ type winding parts of high and low voltage winding alternate along the height of the limb.
Answer: Sandwich
277. In sandwich type winding leakage flux is less than in ____ type winding. Answer: cylindrical
278. Need of elaborate cooling becomes more as the rating of transformers becomes ___.
Answer: high
279. Sludging of transformer oil, because of its blanketing effect on the cooling surfaces ____ its
cooling capacity. Answer: reduces
280. Transformer oil should be wax free to ensure that it does not solidify at _____ temperature.
Answer: low
281. In a transformer of given voltage rating, greater the frequency of supply ____ will be the
magnitude of magnetizing current. Answer: less
282. For a transformer of given rating and given applied voltage, if we increase the number of turns we
will require iron core of ____ cross-sectional area. Answer: less
283. Where flux wave is flat, emf induced is ____. Answer: zero
284. The ordinary efficiency of a transformer is high for lower power factor loads. Answer: NO
285. For same voltage ratios and primary and secondary load currents, an auto-transformer is more
efficient than a conventional 2-winding transformer. Answer: YES
286. If voltage ratios of two single phase transformers connected in parallel are unequal loading of the
two transformers. Answer: YES
287. A � − � transformer may be paralleled with a ∆ − Δ transformer but not with ∆ − � transformer.
Answer: YES
288. The efficiency of an auto-transformer increase as its transformation ratio approaches units.
Answer: YES
289. An ideal transformer can store lot of electromagnetic energy. Answer: NO
290. The all-day efficiency of a transformer is usually fairly high despite occasional low power factors
and periods of relatively light use. Answer: YES
291. The transformer tanks are usually made of ___. Answer: mild steel
292. In case of a major fault a Buchholz’s relay ___ the transformer from the supply mains.
Answer: disconnects
293. The burden of an instrument transformer is usually expressed in ___. Answer: volt-amperes
294. The third winding in a transformer if provided, is known as ____ winding. Answer: tertiary
295. The rating of transformer is expressed in ____. Answer: kVA
296. A transformer has no friction and windage losses. Answer: YES
297. Arc welding transformers have low voltage and high current output. Answer: YES
298. An auto-transformer finds its application extensively as variable voltage device. Answer: YES
299. At low frequencies ____ laminations can be used. Answer: thicker
300. Booster transformer set consists of an ____ transformer. Answer: exciting
ALTERNATOR OBJECTIVES

1. The speed of a 4 -pole 60Hz synchronize machine will be

a. 1800 r.p.m. c. 3000 r.p.m.
b. 2400 r.p.m. d. 3600 r.p.m.
2. The speed of a p – pole synchronize machine in r.p.m. Is given by
a. b. c. d. 120fp

3. What is the largest size of alternator being manufactured in India?

a. 500 MW c. 210 MW
b. 250 MW d. 110 MW
4. Which of the following organizations is engaged in manufacture of large size alternators for power plants in
India?
a. Department of Science and Technology
b. Electricity Authority of India
c. National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd.
d. Bharat Heavy Electrical Ltd.

5. An exciter is a nothing but a

a. D.C Series motor
b. D.C. Shunt motor
c. D.C. Shunt generator
d. D.C. Series generator

6. Hydrogen is used tin large alternators mainly to

a. Reduce distortion of waveform
b. Cool the machine
c. Strengthen the magnetic field
d. Reduce eddy current losses

7. An alternator coupled to which prime mover will usually have the highest rotating speed?
a. Steam Engine
b. Reciprocating Diesel Engine
c. Francis Turbine
d. Steam Turbine

8. In an alternator the voltage generated per phase is proportional to

a. Number of turns in coil
b. Flux per coil
c. Frequency of waveform
d. All of the above

9. Salient pole type alternators are generally used on

a. Low voltage alternators
b. Hydrogen cooled prime movers
c. High speed prime movers
d. Low and medium speed prime movers

10. Turbo-alternators are generally used to run at

a. 1500 r.p.m. c. 5000 r.p.m.
b. 3000 r.p.m. d. 15000 r.p.m.

11. The rotor preferred for alternators applied to hydraulic turbines are
a. Salient pole type
b. Cylindrical rotor type
c. Solid rotor type
d. Any of the above
12. The frequency of the voltage generated in large alternators
a. 50 Hz c. in kilo cycles
b. 60 Hz d. in mega cycles

13. Which of the following prime movers is least efficient ?

a. Gas turbine c. Diesel engine
b. Petrol engine d. Steam engine
14. In which coil the harmonic component of the generated E.M.F. Will be more?
a. Full pitch coil
b. Short pitch coil
c. Long pitch coil
d. Same in all coils
15. In case of Turbo-alternators the rotor is usually made of
a Case iron
b. Forge steel
c. Laminated stainless steel
d. Manganese steel
16. The number of poles in turbo-alternators is usually
a. 2 c. 12
b. 4 d. 50
17. In huge alternators, the moving part is
a. Brushes c. Armature
b. Poles d. none of the above
18. In power generating stations (Thermal Stations), the usual numbers of poles employed in alternators are
a. Twenty four c. Forty eight
b. Thirty two d. none of these
19. Harmonic component of generated E.M.F. Will be more in
a. Short pitch coil
b. Full pitch coil
c. Long pitch coil
d. none of above coils
20. When a three-phase alternators supplies capacitive load, armature reaction flux will be
a. Opposing the main magnetic field
b. Helping the main magnetic field
c. Either a or b
d. None of the above
21. What kind if rotor is most suitable for turbo-alternators which are designed to run at high speed?
a. Salient pole type
b. Non-salient pole type
c. Either a or b
d. None of the above
22. Modern 3-phase alternator of a central power station will have generated voltage of\
a. 132 kV c. 400 V
b. 11 kV d. 230 V
23. The speed of a salient pole machine is nearly
a. Resistive
b. Capacitive
c. Inductive
d. None of the above
24. Where the terminal voltage of an alternator falls on throwing of the load, it indicates that the load is purely
a. Resistive
b. Capacitive
c. Inductive
d. None of the above
25. Alternators are usually designed to generate
a. Definite currents
b. Definite power factor
c. Variable Frequencies
 d. Definite Frequencies
26. In case of a uniformly distributed winding, the value of distribution factor is
a. 0.65 c. 0.85
b. 0.76 d. 0.995
27. Unbalanced three-phase stator currents cause
a. Vibration
b. Heating of rotor
c. Double frequency currents in the rotor
d. all of the above
28. Which of the following is not integral part of synchronous generator system?
a. Excitation System
b. Protection System
c. Prime mover
d. Distribution System
29. Which of the following is a prime mover?
a. Steam Turbine
b. Solar Energy
c. Electrical heater
d. none of the above
30. In a large generator, dampers
a. Reduce frequency fluctuations
b. Reduce voltage fluctuations
c. Increase stability
d. None of the above

31. Fleming's left hand rule may be applied to an electric generator to find out direction of
a. Magnetic field
b. Induced e.m.f.
c. rotor rotation
d. none of the above
32. In an alternator, the armature reaction will be completely magnetizing in case the load power factor is
a. Zero lagging
b. Zero leading
c. 0.866
d. Unity
33. The dark and bright lamp method is used for
a. Transfer of load
b. Synchronizing
c. Balancing of load
d. Phase sequence
34. In synchronous machine, all of the following losses are fixed except
a. Core loss
b. Copper loss
c. Bearing friction loss
d. Windage loss
35. In a star connected armature winding
a. Phase voltage contains 3rd harmonic e.m.f. But live voltage does not contain it
b. Phase voltage contains 3rd harmonic e.m.f. as live voltage also contains third harmonic component
c. Phase does not contain third harmonic e.m.f. as line voltage also does not contain it
d. None of the above
36. When the speed of an alternator increases
a. The Frequency decreases
b. The Frequency increases
c. The Frequency remains same
d. The Frequency changes
37. The slip rings employees in a 3-phase alternator in hydro station are insulated for
a. Low voltage
b. Very low voltage
c. Full armature voltage
 d. Extra high tension voltage
38. An alternator is capable of delivering power at particular efficiency. The frequency can be increase by
a. reversing the armature rotation
b. reversing field polarity
c. increasing the current supplied to the field electromagnet
d. increasing armature speed

39. In alternators the standard practice, now a days is to have

a. rotating field
b. Rotating armature
c. Either of the above
d. none of the above
40. in an alternator, for a coil having a span of 2/3 of pole pitch, the coil span-factor will be
a. 0.866 c. 0.6
b. 0.707 d. 0.2
41. Excessive windage loss and noise occur with
a. Cylindrical rotors
b. Salient pole rotors
c. Either of the above
d. None of the above
42. Regulation of an alternator supplying leading load is
a. Always negative
b. Always positive
c. Sometimes positive and sometimes negative depending upon load and power factor
43. An infinite bus bar has
a. Constant frequency and constant voltage
b. Constant frequency and variable voltage
c. Variable frequency and variable voltage
d. Infinite frequency and infinite voltage
44. Which harmonic will be totally eliminated in an alternator bu using a fractional pitch of 4/5
a. Third c. Seventh
b. Fifth d. Ninth
45. Dirt accumulation in generators can cause all of the following except
a. low power factor
b. poor voltage regulation
c. flash overs
d. overheating
46. If an alternator is operating at leading power factor, then it can be concluded that
a. the alternator is under-excited
b. the alternator is over-excited
c. the torque angle of the alternator has negative value
d. the residual magnetism of the poles is zero
47. Which fractional pitch will eliminate the seventh harmonic from the voltage waveform of alternator?
a. 6/7 c. 5/6
b. 7/8 d. None of the above
48. Damper winding on a alternator results in all of the following except
a. increases instability of machine
b. elimination of harmonic effects
c. absorption of energy of oscillations when operating in parallel with other alternators
d. suppression of spontaneous hunting when supplying power to transmissions line with high resistance to
reactance ratio
49. In a cylindrical rotor how much portion of the rotor is wound?
a. One Third c. Two Third
b. Half d. Full
50. The speed of an alternator is changed from 3000 r.p.m. to 1500 r.p.m. The generated e.m.f. /phase will
become
a. one fourth c. double
b. half d. unchanged
51. Zero power factor method for an alternator is generally used to determine
a. synchronous impedance of alternator
b. efficiency of alternator
c. voltage regulation of the alternator
d. none of the above
52. In an alternator the armature reaction is mainly influence by
a. the power factor of the load
b. short circuit ratio
c. speed of the alternator
d. total current drawn
53. Regulation of an alternator supplying resistive or inductive load is
a. always negative
b. always positive
c. either of the above
d. none of the above
54. A pole 1500 r.p.m. Alternator will generate emf at
a. 20Hz c. 50Hz
b. 40Hz d. 60Hz
55. To obtain sinusoidal flux distribution
a. chamfering of poles is done in turbo-alternators only
b. chamfering of poles is done in salient pole alternators only
c. either of the above
d. none of the above
56. In air-crafts, alternators have operating frequency of
a. 800Hz c. 60Hz
b. 400Hz d. 50Hz
57. Alternators, now a day, are designed to have poor regulation because
a. it reduces the construction cost
b. it limits the value of short circuit current
c. we employ automatic voltage regulations
d. none of the above
58. Voltage regulation of an alternator is usually
a. equal to that of power transformer
b. much lower than that of a power transformer
c. much higher than that of a power transformer
59. In an alternator, the stator frame serves
a. to verticate the armature
b. to hold the armature stampings
c. to protect the whole machine
d. as return path for the flux
60. For a give output steam turbo-alternators are much smaller is size than water turbine-alternators because
a. steam turbo-alternators are built with smaller capacities
b. steam turbo-alternators have long rotors
c. steam turbo-alternators run at high speed
d. all of the above
61. Alternators of a central power station will have
a. revolving field winding
b. revolving field armature winding
c. either of the above
d. none of the above
62. Non-salient pole type of rotor construction is usually provided in the alternators used in
a. hydro-power station
b. thermal power station
c. either of the above
d. none of the above
63. In an alternator terminal voltage rise will be more
a. when leading load is thrown off
b. when lagging load is thrown off
c. when unity power factor load is thrown off
d. none of the above
64. Turbo-alternators usually have
a. 12 poles c. 4 poles
b. 8 poles d. 2 poles
65. In an alternator short pitch coils are used
a. to reduced the stray losses
b. to reduced the size of the machine
c. to provide accurate phase difference of 120 degrees between each phase
d. to reduced the harmonic in generated emf.
66. In the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is increased, then
a. kVA will be lagging
b. kVA will be leading
c. kW will be changed
d. the power factor of the load remains constant
67. Generated emf. For same field current and doubled speed will be
a. same
b. double
c. less than double
d. more than double
68. If the space flux distribution is non-sinusoidal, emf. Induced in the distributed winding
a. will be less sinusoidal than flux distribution
b. will be more sinusoidal than flux distribution
c. will be equally non-sinusoidal
d. none of the above
69. Voltage regulation obtained by synchronous impedance method is
a. equal to that given by actual tests
b. less than that given by actual tests
c. more than that given by actual tests
d. none of the above
70. In alternator short-circuit current is limited by
a. the saturated synchronous impedance
b. the unsaturated synchronous impedance
c. either of the above
d. none of the above
71. In an alternator, armature reaction is considered equivalent to
a. fictitious impedance
b. fictitious conductance
c. fictitious reactance
d. fictitious resistance
72. Synchronous impedance method gives more regulation as compared to ampere turn method because
a. armature reaction is considered negligible
b. saturation effect is ignored in the synchronous impedance
c. saturation effect is taken into account in the synchronous impedance method
73. Leakage reactance of the armature of a salient pole synchronous machine which varies with the position of
the rotor is due to
a. leakage flux which remains within the slot
b. leakage flux of end connection
c. leakage flux which comes out of slot teeth, crosses the air gap and enters pole faces
d. none of the above
74. turbo-rotor is made up of
a. solid steel forging having milled slots for field winding
b. large spider to which laminated pole shoes are secured
c. lamination
d. none of the above
75. A commercial alternator has
a. stationary armature and rotary field
b. rotating armature and rotary field
c. both armature and field rotary
d. both armature and field fixed
76. For the alternators operating in parallel, if the load shared by one of them is to be increased, its field
 excitation is
a. to be weakened keeping input torque same
b. to be strengthen keeping input torque same
c. to be kept constant but input torque should be increased
d. to be kept constant but input torque should be decreased
77. Which of the following methods is best for finding the voltage regulations?
a. Synchronous impedance method
b. M.M.F. Method
c. Potier triangle method
d. All are equally good
78. For a 3-phase winding with 5 slots per pole per phase and with coil span of 12 slot pitch, the value of pitch
factor is
a. 0.851 c. 0.98
b. 0.951 d. 1.05
79. Salient pole rotors are used where
a. high frequency is required
b. floor space is available in plenty
c. low and medium speed prime movers are available
d. high speed prime movers are available
80. The power factor of an alternator is determined by its
a. prime mover
b. excitation
c. speed
d. load
81. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed then
a. the power factor of the load remains constant
b. the reactive component of the output is changed
c. the active component of the output is changed
d. none of the above
82. For parallel operation, A.C. polyphase alternators must have the same
a. kVA rating c. speed
b. excitation d. voltage rating
83. Unlike D.C generators kW rating, alternators are rated in
a. MW c. kWh
b. kVAR d. kVA
84. Dirt accumulation in generators can cause
a. flashover
b. overheating
c. poor voltage regulation
d. all of the above
85. An alternator running in parallel with other alternators all having automatic voltage regulators is to be taken
off the bus. The usual procedure before opening the switch is to
a. reduce the power fed to the prime mover
b. reduces alternator excitation
c. increase alternator excitation
d. none of the above
86. Due to which of the following reasons concentrated windings are not used in alternators?
a. Concentrated windings increase voltage harmonics
b. Concentrated winding decrease induced e.m.f. /phase
c. Concentrated winding increase copper-to-iron ratio thereby decreasing the capacity
d. Concentrated windings require deep slots for accommodation which leads to increased armature
leakage and reactance
87. A stationary alternator should not be connected to a live bus-bar because it
a. will get short-circuited
b. will disturb generated emf. of other alternators connected in parallel
c. is likely to run as a synchronous motor
d. will decrease bus-bar voltage though momentarily
e. none of the above
88. The power drawn by the prime-mover of an alternator, under no-load conditions, goes to
a. meet copper losses both in armature and rotor windings
b. produce power in armature
c. meets no-load losses
d. produce emf. in armature winding
89. In a larger generator damper
a. reduces frequency fluctuations
b. increase stability
c. reduces voltage fluctuations
d. none of the above
90. The choice of field construction, in an alternator, is basically determined by
a. generated voltage needed by the customers
b. comparative cost of the field systems
c. supply frequency required by the consumers
d. the kind of energy source available in the geographic location
91. The load between two steam driven alternators operating in parallel may be adjusted by varying
a. steam supply to their prime movers
b. speed of the alternators
c. field strengthen of the alternators
d. power factors of the alternators
92. Overheating of generator's winding
a. reduces life of the machine
b. does not have any significant effect
c. reduces generated voltage
d. reduces power factor
93. The maximum current that can be supplied by an alternator depends on
a. exciter current
b. strength of the magnetic field
c. number of poles
d. speed of the exciter
94. The regulation of an alternator is likely to be negative in case of
a. lagging power factor of the load
b. leading power factor of the load
c. high speed alternators
d. low speed alternators
95. The regulation of an alternator is
a. the increase in terminal voltage when load is thrown off
b. the reduction in terminal voltage when alternator is loaded
c. the variation of terminal voltage under the condition of maximum and minimum excitation
d. the changed in terminal voltage from lagging power factor to leading power factor
e. none of the above
96. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at
a. lagging power factor
b. leading power factor
c. unity power factor
d. lagging to leading power factor
e. any of the above
97. An Alternator driven by a Francis hydraulic turbine is a..... alternator
a. low speed
b. medium speed
c. high speed
d. low and medium speed
98. If two alternators are running in proper synchronize and the voltage of one machine is suddenly increased
a. both machine will stop
b. one machine will stop
c. synchronizing torque will be produced to restore further synchronism
d. none of the above
99. The power factor of an alternator is determined by its
a. excitation c. prime mover
b. speed d. load
100. Two alternators are to be put in parallel. Which of the following factors?
should be identical for both?
a. Frequency
b. Phase sequence
c. voltage
d. All of the above
101. If the steam supply of an alternator running in parallel with another identical alternator is increased
keeping its excitation constant, then
a. it will supply greater portion of the load
b. the power factor would be decreased
c. it would over-run the other alternator
d. its rotor will fall back in phase with respect to the other machine
102. An exciter for generator is a
a. shunt motor
b. series motor
c. shunt motor
d. none of the above
103. Two alternators '1' and '2' are sharing an inductive load equally. If the excitation of alternator '1’ is
increased
a. alternator '2' will deliver less current and alternator '1' will deliver more current
b. alternator '2' will deliver more current and alternator '1' will deliver less current
c. both will deliver more current
d. both will continue to share load equally
104. Which of the following coils in an alternator will have emf closer to sine waveform?
a. Distributed winding in full pitch coils
b. Distributed winding in short pitch coils
c. Concentrated winding in full pitch coils
d. Concentrated winding in short pitch coils
105. The distribution factor, in alternators, is defined as the ratio of emf’s. Of
a. distributed winding to full pitch winding
b. concentrated winding to distributed winding
c. distributed winding to concentrated winding
d. full pitch winding to distributed winding
106. As load power factor of n alternator becomes more leading, the value of generated voltage required to
give rated terminal voltage
a. decreases
b. increases
c. varies with rotor speed
d. remains unchanged
107. In an alternator, the flux created by the armature mmf subtracts directly from the main flux for the
following conditions of load
a. load power factor is unity
b. load power factor is 0.6 lagging
c. load power factor is zero lagging
d. load power factor is zero leading
108. Synchronous impedance method of finding voltage regulation of an alternator is called pessimistic
method because
a. it is simplest to perform and compute
b. it gives regulation value higher than is actually found by direct loading
c. armature reaction is wholly magnetizing
d. none of the above
109. Two alternator are running in parallel. If the field of one of the alternator is adjusted it will
a. changed its power factor
b. changed its frequency
c. reduced its speed
d. changed its load
110. In a synchronous machine, if the field flux axis is ahead of the armature field axis, in the direction of
rotation, the machines is working as
a. synchronous generator
b. asynchronous generator
c. synchronous motor
d. asynchronous motor
111. The advantage of salient poles in an alternator is
a. reduced windage loss
b. reduced bearing loads and noise
c. reduced noise
d. adaptability of low and medium speed operation
112. For parallel operation of the two alternator, desirable features is that both should have
a. same reactance
b. same resistance
c. more of resistance as compared to synchronous reactance
d. less of resistance as compared to synchronous reactance
113. If two alternators are running in parallel and the excitation of one of the alternators is increased, then
a. power output will decrease
b. watt-less component will change
c. machine with excess excitation will burn
d. both machines will start vibrating
e. none of the above
114. When an alternator is supplying unity power factor load, the armature reaction will produce
a. distortion of the main field
b. magnetization of the main field
c. demagnetization of the main field
d. none of the above
115. If the driving force of both the alternators running in parallel is changed, this will result in changed in
a. generated voltage
b. frequency
c. back emf.
d. all of the above
116. In an alternator, when the load power factor is unity
a. the armature flux will be demagnetizing
b. the armature flux will cross-magnetizing
c. the armature flux will reduced to zero
d. the armature flux will have square wave form
117. The Poter's triangle separates the
a. stator voltage and rotor voltage
b. field mmf. and armature mmf.
c. armature leakage reactance and armature reaction mmf.
d. iron losses and copper losses
118. In an alternator zero power factor method is used to find the
a. synchronous impedance
b. efficiency
c. armature resistance
d. voltage regulations
119. If the driving power from the prime-mover driving an alternator remains connected to the supply network
and field supply is on, then the alternator will
a. behaves as an induction motor but will rotate in an opposite direction
b. behaves as a synchronous motor and rotate in the same direction
c. gets burnt
d. none of the above
120. In Turbo-alternators, smooth cylindrical type rotors used have long axial length because
a. it gives smooth running of the rotor
b. it reduces windage loss
c. centrifugal force is reduced
d. number of armature conductors being less, they have to be necessarily long for generating the
required voltage
121. Large-diameter salient-pole rotors have short axial length mainly because
a. it occupies much less space
b. it reduces rotor weight
c. number of armature conductors held in the large circumference rotor being very large, they need not
be long
d. it saves lot of copper in stator winding
122. At leading power factor, the armature flux in an alternator
a. distorts the rotor flux
b. aids the rotor flux
c. opposes the rotor flux
d. does not affect the rotor flux
123. Three-phase alternators are invariably star-connected because
a. higher terminal voltage is obtained
b. less turns of wire are required
c. small conductors can be used
d. magnetic losses are the minimum
124. Which of the following conditions does not have to be met by alternators working in parallel?
a. Alternators must operate at the same frequency
b. Machine must have the same phase rotation
c. The terminal voltage of each machine must be the same
d. The machines must have equal kVA ratings
125. The fictitious part of synchronous reactance takes care of
a. inductive reactance
b. armature reaction
c. voltage regulation
d. none of the above
126. In an alternator the voltage of field system is usually
a. more than 1000 V
b. between 400 V and 600 V
c. less than 200 V
d. none of the above
127. In an alternator, pitch factor is the ratio of the emf’s. of
a. full pitch winding to short pitch winding
b. short pitch coil to full pitch coil
c. distributed winding to full pitch winding
d. full pitch winding to concentrated winding
128. In an alternator field the effect of cross-magnetization is to make the output
a. non-sinusoidal
b. true sinusoidal
c. free from harmonics
d. none of the above
129. When two alternators are running in exact synchronism, the synchronizing power will be
a. unity c. sum of the output of two
b. zero d. none of the above
130. In an alternator if the armature reaction produces demagnetization of the main field, the power factor
should be
a. unity
b. zero, lagging load
c. zero, leading load
d. none of the above
131. In an alternator, the armature reaction influences
a. generated voltage per phase
b. waveform of voltage generated
c. operating speed
d. windage losses
132. In an alternator, the frequency of voltage generated depends on\
a. rotative speed only
b. number of pole only
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
133. An alternator operating at lower voltage, for the same power rating, will be
a. more efficient
b. costlier
c. less noisy
d. larger in size
134. When two alternators are running in parallel, their kVAR load share and kW load share are changed by
changing their
a. driving torque, driving torque respectively
b. driving torque, excitation respectively
c. excitation, driving torque respectively
d. excitation and excitation
135. A lower voltage alternator, for the same power rating, will be
a. more costly
b. larger in size
c. more efficient
d. operating at high r.p.m
136. Which of the following prime-movers is the least efficient?
a. Steam Turbine
b. Steam engine
c. Gas Turbine
d. Diesel engine
137. One of the super-thermal power stations is being located at
a. Panipat c. Farraka
b. Hardwar d. U.P.
138. If the voltage of one of the two machine running in synchronism is suddenly increased
a. both machine will stop
b. synchronising torque will be produced to restore further synchronism
c. the machines will burn
d. none of the above
139. In large generators protection provided against external faults is
a. inter-turn fault protection
b. sensitive earth fault protection
c. biased differential protection
d. all of the above
140. In an alternator one of the advantages of distributing the winding is to
a. improve voltage waveform
b. reduced noise
c. save on copper
d. reduced harmonics
e. none of the above
141. ….. plays an important role in over-speed protection of a generator?
a. Governor
b. Differential protection
c. Over current relay
d. Alarm
142. which of the following is the common synchronous speed in r.p.m between 50Hz and be 60Hz
alternators
a. 200 c. 600
b. 300 d. 900
143. Salient pole type rotors as compared to cylindrical pole type are
a. small in diameter as well as axial length
b. large in diameter as well as axial length
c. smaller in diameter and larger in axial length
d. larger in diameter and smaller in axial length
144. Which of the following relays come into operation in the event of the failure of prime-mover connected to
the generator?
a. Buchholz relay
b. reverse power relay
c. Differential relay
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
145. In order to reduced the harmonics in the e.m.f generated in an alternator
a. winding is well distributed
b. slots are skewed
c. salient pole tips are chamfered
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
146. The permissible duration for which a generator of rated frequency 50Hz can run at 46Hz is
a. one cycle c. one minute
b. one second d. zero
e. none of the above
147. Due to which of the following reasons, for aircraft alternators high frequency is used?
a. To reduced the bulk
b. To compensate for high speed
c. to compensate for high altitude
d. To free the systems from external disturbance
e. None of the above

FILL IN THE BLANKS

148. A machine for generating alternating currents is referred to as an …......
Ans: alternator
149. Alternators have no ….... as they are required to supply electrical energy with an alternating voltage.
Ans: commutators
150. Revolving-armature type alternator has …... field poles and …... armature
Ans: stationary, revolving
151. Revolving-armature type alternator is usually of relatively …... kVA capacity and ….... voltage rating.
Ans: small, low
152. Revolving-armature type alternator resembles a D.C. generator in general appearance except that it has
…. instead of a commutator.
Ans: slip rings
153. Revolving-filed type alternator has a ….... armature or stator, inside of which field poles …...
Ans: stationary, rotate
154. Most alternators are of the revolving-field type (YES/NO)
155. In an alternator, the capacity of the exciter used is only a ….... percentage of the rated capacity of the
alternator.
Ans: small
156. Large power station usually has several exciter employing different methods of drive as insurance
against the failure of excitation (YES/NO)
157. An exciter may be …... connected to the shaft of the alternator, or it may be driven by a ….... electric
motor.
Ans: directly, separate
158. The ….... of stator of an alternator are annealed and insulated from each other by thin coating of oxide
and an enamel.
Ans: laminations
159. In an alternator, a fractional rather than an integral number of slots per pole is often used in order to
eliminate ….... in the waveform.
Ans: harmonics
160. The revolving field structure is usually called the …...
Ans: rotor
161. ….... type of rotor is used for slow speed machines which have large diameters and small axial lengths.
Ans: salient pole
162. In most of the alternators, where the oscillation or the limiting effect is very high, the …. winding in the
pole faces is provided.
Ans: damper
163. The pole face (in a salient pole type rotor) is so shaped that the radial air gap length …... from the pole
center to pole tips.
Ans: increases
164. …... rotor is used for alternators which are coupled to …. turbines which run at very high speeds.
Ans: cylindrical, steam
165. The number of pole of a cylindrical rotor are two or four (YES/NO)
166. The cylindrical rotors are made from solid forging of …. steel.
Ans: alloy
167. In a cylindrical rotor about 3/4th of rotor pole pitch is slotted, leaving the 1/4th unslotted for the pole
center.
(YES/NO)
168. Cylindrical rotor machine has always ….... configuration.
Ans: horizontal
169. Salient-pole rotors are usually used where water power is the prime-mover sourced of energy.
(YES/NO)
170. Cylindrical rotors will most likely be located on alternators where …. power is readily available.
Ans: steam
171. The terms high-sped and low-speed rotors are sometimes used synonymously with salient pole and
cylindrical rotors, respectively.
(YES/NO)
172. A great deal of ….... equipment operates with voltage having a frequency of 400HZ.
Ans: aircraft
173. The standard frequency in India is ….
Ans: 50 Hz
174. …... a slot essentially a full slot pitch in length of the core will eliminate voltage due to slot ripple.
Ans: Skewing
175. Less than full pitch coils are used to obtain adjustments in the voltage generated or to limit …....
Ans: harmonics
176. A low-resistance ….... winding generally necessary on single phase machines to reduces the flux
pulsations that are set up by single-phase armature reaction and to reduce the effective armature reactance.
Ans: damper
177. …... winding is sometimes used to reduce short-circuit currents and to simplify switch gear and bus
structure problems.
Ans: Double
178. The majority of A.C. Machine coils are of fractional pitch type.
(YES/NO)
179. The factor by which the e.m.f. per coil is reduced, because of the pitch being less, is known as …....
factor.
Ans: pitch
180. The pitch factor (kp) is given as kp = cos2 a/2. (YES/NO)
181. The ratio of the vector sum of the e.m.fs. Induced in all the coils distributed in a number of slots under
one pole to the arithmetic sum of the e.m.fs. Induced (or to the resultant of the e.m.fs. Induced in all the coils
concentrated in one slot under one pole) is known as ….... factor (kd).
Ans: distribution
182. The e.m.f. Induced ( for sinusoidal wave ) per phase is given as : Er.m.s / phase = 4.44 ƒ Φ T ph kp kd
volts.
(YES/NO)
183. For ….... pitched and ….... windings, kp = 1, kd =1.
Ans: full, concentrated
184. The ….... resistance of armature windings is greater than the conductor resistance as measure by direct
current.
Ans: effective
185. The numerical value of …... is defined as the percentage rise in voltage when full load at the specified
power-factor is switched off, the excitation being adjusted initially to give normal voltage.
Ans: regulation
186. % regulation 'up' V – Eo
x 100
Eo
(YES/NO)
187. A normal alternator has a regulation of about 8 to 10 percent at ….... power factor, but the voltage rise is
considerably increased at ….... power-factor.
Ans: unity, lagging
188. …..... regulation is not desired, since such an alternator would deliver an excessive current if
accidentally short-circuited.
Ans: Close
189. Coarse regulation adds to the protection of the machines.
(YES/NO)
190. Synchronous impedance ( or e.m.f. ) method of the determining voltage regulation is also called the …...
method.
Ans: pessimistic
191. The 'ampere turn' or ' m.m.f.' method is converse of the 'e.m.f. method in the sense that armature
leakage reactance is treated as an additional armature reactance. (YES/NO)
192. The 'ampere turn' or ' m.m.f.' method of determining voltage regulation is also called the ….... method.
Ans: optimistic
193. …..... method of determining voltage regulation gives more accurate results since it is based on the
separation of armature leakage reactance drop and the armature reactance effect.
Ans: Potier
194. In an alternator maximum efficiency occurs at the load point where the constant losses are equal to
variable losses. (YES/NO)
195. The maximum efficiency usually occurs at about ….... percent of full load.
Ans: 80
196. Violation of the requirements for paralleling would result in ….... currents between the machine varying
from uneconomic, to serious to disastrous.
Ans: circulating
197. In parallel operation of alternators, those alternators already carrying load are known as ….... machines,
while that which is to be placed in the system is known as the …..... machine.
Ans: running, incoming
198. When the induced e.m.fs. of the two alternators are equal but not in exact phase opposition, their
resultant e.m.f. acts round the local circuit and causes flow of current called …..... current.
Ans: synchronising
199. By keeping the input to prime-mover of an alternator constant, if excitation is changed then only ….....
component of the output is changed and not …....
Ans: kVA, kW
200. Machines driven by internal combustion engines must have flywheels or heavy damping windings to
prevent excessive oscillation. (YES/NO)
 Choose the Correct Answer:
7. Under which of the following conditions
1. Synchronous motors are generally not hunting of synchronous motor is likely to
self-starting because occur?
A. the direction of rotation is not fixed A. Periodic variation of load
B. the direction of instantaneous B. Over-excitation
torque reverses after half cycle C. Over-loading for long period
C. starters cannot be used on these D. Small and constant load
machines
D. starting winding is not provided on 8. When the excitation of an unloaded
the machines salient pole synchronous motor
suddenly gets disconnected
2. In case one phase of a three-phase A. the motor stops
synchronous motor is short-circuited, B. it runs as a reluctance motor at
the motor will the same speed
A. not start C. it runs as a reluctance motor at a
B. run at 2/3 of synchronous speed lower speed
C. run with excessive vibrations D. none of the above
D. take less than the rated load
9. When V is the applied voltage, then the
3. A pony motor is basically a breakdown torque of a synchronous
A. small induction motor motor varies a
B. D.C. series motor A. V C.�2
C. D.C. shunt motor
B. �3/2 D.1/V
D. double winding A.C./D.C. motor
10. The power developed by a synchronous
4. A synchronous motor can develop
motor will be maximum when the load
synchronous torque
angle is
A. when under loaded
A. zero C. 90°
B. while over-excited
B. 45° D. 120°
C. only at synchronous speed
D. below or above synchronous speed
11. A synchronous motor can be used as a
synchronous capacitor when it is
5. A synchronous motor can be started by
A. under-loaded
A. pony motor
B. over-loaded
B. D.C. compound motor
C. under-excited
C. providing damper winding
D. over-excited
D. any of the above
6. A three-phase synchronous motor will
12. A synchronous motor is running on a
have
load with normal excitation. Now if the
A. no slip-rings
load on the motor is increased
B. one slip-rings
A. power factor as well as armature
C. two slip-rings
current will decrease
D. three slip-rings
 B. power factor as well as armature D. none of the above
current will increase
C. power factor will increase but 17. An over – excited synchronous motor
armature current will decrease takes
D. power factor will decrease and A. leading current
armature current will increase B. lagging current
C. both (a) and (b)
13. Mostly, synchronous motors are of D. none of the above
A. alternator type machine
B. induction type machine 18. The working of a synchronous motor is
C. salient pole type machine similar to
D. smooth cylindrical type machine A. gear train arrangement
B. transmission of mechanical
14. The synchronous motor is not inherently power by shaft
self-starting because C. distribution transformer
A. the force required to accelerate to D. turbine
the rotor to the synchronous E. none of the above
speed in an instant is absent
B. the starting device to accelerate the 19. The minimum armature current of the
rotor to near synchronous speed is synchronous motor corresponds
absent operation at
C. a rotating magnetic field does not A. zero power factor leading
have enough pole B. unity power factor
D. the rotating magnetic field is C. 0.707 power factor lagging
produced by only 50Hz frequency D. 0.707 power factor leading
currents 20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude
of stator back e.m.f. �� depends on
15. As the load is applied to a synchronous A. d.c. excitation only
motor, the motor take more armature B. speed of the motor
current because C. load of the motor
A. the increased load has to take more D. both the speed and rotor flux
current
B. the rotor by shifting its phase 21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole
back-ward causes motor to take synchronous motor is 6° electrical, its
more current value in mechanical degrees is
C. the back e.m.f. decreases causing A. 2 C. 4
an increase in motor current B. 3 D. 6
D. the rotor strengthens the rotating
field causing more motor current 22. For V-curves for a synchronous motor
the graph is drawn between
16. Synchronous motor always runs at A. field current and armature current
A. the synchronous speed B. terminal voltage and load factor
B. less than synchronous speed C. power factor and field factor
C. more than synchronous speed D. armature current and power factor
23. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor 29. When the field of a synchronous motor
depends on is under-excited, the power factor will be
A. speed C. load angle A. leading C. unity
B. load D. all of the above B. lagging D. zero

24. When V is the supply voltage and R is 30. The speed regulation of a synchronous
the rotor resistance per phase, the motor is always
mechanical power developed by the A. 1% C. positive
synchronous motor will be proportional B. 100% D. zero
V R
A. R
C. V2
�� V
31. The percentage slip in case of a
B. �
D. R2 synchronous motor is
A. 1% C. 0.5%
25. In a synchronous motor which loss B. 100% D. zero
varies with load?
A. Windage loss 32. The operating speed of a synchronous
B. Bearing friction loss motor can be changed to new fixed
C. Copper loss value by
D. Core loss A. changing the load
B. changing the supply voltage
26. synchronous motor can be made self- C. changing frequency
starting by providing D. using brakes
A. damper winding on rotor poles
B. damper winding on stator 33. A synchronous motor will always stop
C. damper winding on stator as well as when
rotor poles A. supply voltage fluctuates
D. none of the above B. load in motor varies
C. excitation winding gets
27. The oscillation in a synchronous motor disconnected
can be damped out by D. supply voltage frequency changes
A. maintaining constant excitation
B. running the motor on leading power 34. Hunting in a synchronous motor takes
factors place
C. providing damper bars in the A. when supply voltage fluctuates
rotor pole faces B. when load varies
D. oscillations cannot be damped C. when power factor is unity
D. motor is under loaded
28. The shaft of synchronous motor is made
of 35. When load on an over-excited or under-
A. mild steel excited synchronous motor is increased,
B. alnico rate of change of its armature current as
C. chrome steel compared with that of power factor is
D. stainless steel A. more C. equal
 B. less D. twice B. self-starting
C. essentially self-starting
36. The rotor copper losses, in a D. none of the above
synchronous motor, are met by
A. D.C. source 42. The standard full-power factor ratings
B. armature input for synchronous motor are
C. motor input A. zero or 0.8 leading
D. supply lines B. unity or 0.8 lagging
C. unity or 0.8 leading
37. The maximum power developed in a D. unity or zero
synchronous motor occurs at a coupling
angle of 43. A synchronous motor running with the
A. 30° C. 60° normal excitation adjust to load
B. 90° D. 180° increases essentially by increase in
A. back e.m.f
38. When stator windings are connected in B. armature current
such a fashion that the number of poles C. power factor
are made half, the speed of the rotor of D. torque angle
a synchronous motor
A. remains same as the original value 44. A synchronous motor has better power
B. decreases to half the original value factor as compared to that of an
C. tends to become zero equivalent induction motor. This is
D. increases to two times the mainly because
original value A. synchronous motor has no slip
B. stator supply is not required to
39. In which of the following motors the produced magnetic field
stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at C. mechanical load on the rotor
the same speed? remains constant
A. Universal motor D. synchronous motor has large air gap
B. Synchronous motor
C. Induction motor 45. A synchronous motor working at leading
D. Reluctance motor power factor can be used as
A. voltage booster
40. Synchronizing power of a synchronous B. phase advancer
machine is C. noise generator
A. directly proportional to the D. mechanical synchronizer
synchronous reactance
B. inversely proportional to the 46. Slip rings are usually made of
synchronous reactance A. carbon or graphite
C. equal to the synchronous reactance B. brass or steel
D. none of the above C. silver or gold
D. copper or aluminum
41. synchronous motor are
A. not-self starting
47. An over-excited synchronous motor is D. all of the above
used for
A. fluctuating loads 54. A synchronous machine with large air
B. variable speed loads gap has
C. low torque loads A. a higher value of stability limit
D. none of the above B. a small value of inherent regulation
C. a higher synchronizing power which
48. When the voltage applied to a makes the machine less sensitive to
synchronous motor is increased, which load variation
of the following will reduce D. all of the above
A. Stator flux
B. Pull in torque 55. The armature current of the
C. Both (a) or (b) synchronous motor has higher values
D. None of the above for
A. high excitation only
49. The speed of the synchronous motor B. low excitation only
A. increases with increase in load C. both (a) and (b)
B. decreases as load increases D. none of the above
C. varies with power factor
D. always remains constant 56. In a synchronous motor running with
fixed excitation, when the load is
50. Dust and dirt accumulation in motor increase three times, its torque angle
winding will result in becomes approximately
A. rise in winding temperature A. one-third D. six times
B. increase core losses B. twice E. nine times
C. shorting of coils C. thrice
D. eddy current flow 57. The angle between the rotating stator
flux and rotor poles is called ……. angle.
51. The efficiency of a proper designed A. torque
synchronous motor will usually fall in B. obtuse
range C. synchronizing
A. 60 to 70% C. 85 to 95% D. power factor
B. 75 to 80% D. 99 to 99.5%
52. To limit the operating temperature an 58. Which of the following methods is used
electrical machine should have proper to start a synchronous motor?
A. voltage rating A. Damper winding
B. current rating B. Star-delta Starter
C. power factor C. Damper winding in conjunction
D. speed with star-delta starter
D. Resistance starter in the armature
53. Slip-rings in a synchronous motor carry circuit
A. direct current
B. alternating current 59. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous
C. no current machine, becomes more than the
 synchronous speed during hunting, the 64. While starting a synchronous motor by
dampers bars develop induction motor action field winding is
A. inductor motor torque usually
B. induction generator torque A. connected to D.C. supply
C. synchronous motor torque B. short-circuited by low resistance
D. dc motor torque C. kept open-circuited
E. none of the above D. none of the above

60. An important advantage of a 65. Which of the following motors will be

synchronous motor over wound round used in electric clocks?
induction motor is that A. D.C. shunt motor
A. its power factor may be varied at B. D.C. series motor
will C. A.C. induction motor
B. its speed is independent of supply D. A.C. synchronous motor
frequency
C. its speed may be controlled more 66. If in a synchronous motor, driving
easily mechanical load and drawing current at
D. none of the above lagging power factor from constant
voltage supply, its field excitation is
61. The mechanical displacement of the increased, then its power factor
rotor with respect to stator, poly-phase A. become more
multi-polar synchronous motor running B. become less
at full load, is of the order of C. remain constant
A. zero degree D. none of the above
B. two degrees
C. five degrees 67. A synchronous motor installed at the
D. ten degrees receiving end substation operates with
such an excitation that it takes power
62. Power factor of a synchronous motor is lagging at lagging power factor. Now if
unity when the applied voltage of the synchronous
A. the armature current is maximum motor goes down , the power factor of
B. the armature current is minimum the synchronous motor will
C. the armature current is zero A. remain same
D. none of the above B. go down
C. improve
63. Change of D.C. excitation of a D. none of the above
synchronous motor changes
A. applied voltage of the motor 68. While starting a salient pole
B. motor speed synchronous motor by induction motor
C. power factor of power drawn by action and connecting field discharge
the motor resistance across field, starting and
D. any of the above accelerating torque is produced by
E. all of the above A. induction motor torque in field
winding
 B. induction motor torque in damper B. increases with increase in its
winding excitation
C. eddy current and hysteresis torque C. remains un affected with increase in
in pole faces excitation
D. reluctance motor torque due to D. any of the above
saliency of the rotor
E. all of the above method 73. The power factor of a synchronous
69. Armature of a synchronous machine is motor is better than that of induction
kept fixed because motor because
A. of reducing number of slip rings on A. stator supply is relieved of
the rotor responsibility of producing
B. armature is associated with large magnetic field
power as compared to the field B. mechanical load on the motor can
circuits be adjusted
C. of difficulty of providing high voltage C. synchronous motor runs at
insulation on rotor synchronous speed
D. all of the above reason D. synchronous motor has large air gap

70. If excitation of a synchronous motor 74. If in a synchronous motor, driving a

running with a constant load is decrease mechanical load and drawing current at
from its normal value, ignoring effect of a leading power factor from constant
armature reaction, it leads to voltage supply its field excitation is
A. increase in both armature current increased, its power factor
and power factor angle A. will become more
B. increase in back e.m.f. but decrease B. will become less
in armature current C. will remain unchanged
C. increase in both armature current D. none of the above
and power factor which is lagging
D. increase in torque angle but 75. A synchronous motor is running with
decrease in back e.m.f. normal excitation. When the load is
increased, the armature current drawn
71. When a 3-phase synchronous generator by it increase because
is supplying a zero power factor lagging A. speed of the motor is reduced
load, the armature field affects the main B. power factor
field in the following way C. �� ( back e.m.f.) become less than V
A. augments it directly ( applied voltage)
B. directly opposes it D. �� (net resultant voltage) in
C. cross-magnetises it armature is increased
D. none of the above E. none of the above
76. If one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous
72. Stability of a synchronous machine motor is short-circuited, motor
A. decreases with increase in its A. will refuse to start
excitation B. will overheat in spots
C. will not come up to speed
 D. will fail to pull into step D. All of the above

77. If the field circuit of an unloaded salient- 83. Due to which of the following reasons a
pole synchronous motor gets suddenly synchronous motor fails to pull into
open-circuited, then synchronism after applying D.C. field
A. it runs at a slower speed current?
B. the motor stops A. High field current
C. it continues to run at the same B. Low short circuit ratio
speed C. High core losses
D. it runs at very high speed D. Low field current

78. In which of the following motors the 84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum
stator and rotor fields rotate developed depends on all of the
simultaneously? following except
A. D.C. motor A. rotor excitation
B. Reluctance motor B. maximum value of coupling angle
C. Universal motor C. direction of rotation
D. Synchronous motor D. supply voltage
E. Induction motor
85. In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the
79. The speed of a synchronous motor negative phase sequences exists when
A. increases as the load increases the motor is
B. decreases as the decreases A. supplied with unbalanced voltage
C. always remains constant B. under-loaded
D. none of the above C. over-loaded
D. none of the above
80. A rotary converter can also be run as a 86. In a synchronous motor, damper
A. dc shunt motor windings are provided on
B. dc series motor A. stator frame
C. dc compound motor B. rotor shaft
D. induction motor C. pole faces
E. synchronous motor D. none of the above
81. The maximum speed variation in a 3-
phase synchronous motor is 87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous
A. 10 per cent D. 2 per cent motor working on leading power factor
B. 6 per cent E. zero will be
C. 4 per cent A. more than the supply voltage
B. less than the supply voltage
82. Which of the following resistances can C. equal to the supply voltage
be measured by conducting insulation
resistance test on a synchronous motor? 88. The effect of increasing the load on a
A. Phase to phase winding resistance synchronous motor running with normal
B. Stator winding to earthed frame excitation is to
C. Rotor winding to earthed shaft
 A. decrease both armature current and D. varies with power factor
power factor
B. decrease armature current but 94. The torque angle, in a synchronous
increase power factor motor, is the angle between
C. increase armature current but A. the supply voltage and the back
decrease power factor e.m.f
D. increase both its armature current B. magnetizing current and back e.m.f.
and power factor C. the rotating stator flux and rotor
poles
89. The net armature voltage of a D. none of the above
synchronous motor is equal to the
A. vector sum of �� and V 95. Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot
B. arithmetic sum of �� and V be due to
C. arithmetic difference of �� and V A. windage friction
D. vector difference of �� and V B. variable load
C. variable frequency
90. The ratio of starting torque to running D. variable supply voltage
torque in a synchronous motor is 96. By which of the following methods the
A. zero C. two constant speed of synchronous motor
B. one D. infinity can be changed to new fixed value?
A. By changing the supply frequency
91. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude B. By interchanging any two phases
of stator back e.m.f. �� depends on C. By changing the supply voltage
A. load on the motor D. By changing the load
B. dc excitation only
C. both the speed and rotor flux 97. In a synchronous motor, V-curves
D. none of the above represent relation between
A. armature current and field current
92. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running B. power factor and speed
clockwise. If the direction of its field C. field current and speed
current is reversed D. field current and power factor
A. the motor will stop
B. the motor continue to run in the 98. In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50Hz synchronous
same direction motor, the frequency, pole number and
C. the winding of the motor will burn load torque all are halved. The motor
D. the motor will run in the reverse speed will be
direction A. 3000 r.p.m
E. none of the above B. 1500 r.p.m
C. 750 r.p.m.
93. The magnitude of filed flux in a 3-phase D. none of the above
synchronous motor
A. remains constant at all loads 99. A synchronous motor connected to
B. varies with speed infinite bus-bars has at constant full load,
C. varies with the load 100% excitation and unity power factor.
 On changing the excitation only, the A. number poles
armature current will have B. flux density
A. no change of power factor C. rotor speed
B. lagging power factor with over- D. rotor excitation
excitation E. none of the above
C. leading power factor with under-
excitation 105. The maximum value of torque that a
D. leading power factor with over- synchronous motor can develop without
excitation losing its synchronism, is known as
A. slip torque
100. Which of the following motors is non- B. pull-out torque
self starting? C. breaking torque
A. D.C. series motor D. synchronizing torque
B. synchronous motor
C. Squirrel cage induction motor 106. In a synchronous motor, the armature
D. Wound round induction motor current has large values for
A. high excitation only
101.In a synchronous motor if the back B. low excitation only
e.m.f. generated in the armature at no- C. both high and low excitation
load is approximately equal to the D. none of the above
applied voltage, then
A. the motor is said to be fully loaded 107. Which of the following losses, in a
B. the torque generated is maximum synchronous motor, does not vary with
C. the excitation is said to be zero per load?
cent A. Windage loss
D. the excitation is to be hundred per B. Copper losses
cent C. Any of the above
D. None of the above
102. In a synchronous motor, the
damping winding is generally used to 108. The size of a synchronous motor
A. prevent hunting and provide the decreases with the increase in
starting torque A. flux density
B. reduce the eddy current B. horse power rating
C. provide starting torque only C. speed
D. reduce noise level D. all of the above
E. none of the above
109. Which of the following losses is not
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is dissipated by the stator core surface in a
under-excited, the power factor will be synchronous motor?
A. zero C. lagging A. Eddy current losses in the
B. unity D. leading conductors
B. Iron losses in the stator
104. The back e.m.f. in the stator of a C. Copper losses in the slot portion of
synchronous motor depends on the conductors
 D. Windage losses 115. For power factor correction,
E. None of the above synchronous motors operate at
A. no-load and greatly over-excited
110. The duration of sudden short-circuit fields
test on a synchronous motor is usually B. no-load and under excited field
about C. normal load with maximum
A. one hour excitation
B. one minute D. normal load with zero excitation
C. one second
D. none of the above 116. The maximum torque which a
synchronous motor will develop at rest
111. The maximum constant load torque for any angular position of the rotor, at
under which a synchronous motor will rated stator supply voltage and
pull into synchronism at rated rotor frequency, is known as
supply voltage and frequency is known A. locked-rotor torque
as B. synchronous torque
A. pull-up torque C. pulls up torque
B. pull-in torque D. reluctance torque
C. pull-out torque
D. none of the above 117. Exciters of synchronous machines are
A. dc shunt machines
112. A synchronous machine with low B. dc series machines
value of short-circuit ratio has C. dc compound machines
A. lower stability limit D. any of the above
B. high stability limit
C. good speed reduction 118. The coupling angle or load angle of
D. good voltage regulation synchronous motor is defined as the
E. none of the above angle between the
A. rotor and stator teeth
113. The construction of synchronous B. rotor and the stator poles of
motor resembles opposite polarity
A. a series motor C. rotor and the stator poles of the
B. an induction motor same polarity
C. an alternator D. none of the above
D. a rotary converter
114. If the field winding of an unloaded 119. If the synchronous motor, properly
salient pole synchronous motor is open synchronized to the supply is running on
circuited, the motor will no load and is having negligible loss
A. stop then
B. run as inductor motor A. the stator current will be zero
C. function as static condenser B. the stator current will be very small
D. burn with dense smoke C. the stator current will be very high
D. the back emf will be more than the
supply voltage
 E. none of the above D. None of the above

120. The armature current of the 125. A synchronous motor can operate at
synchronous motor A. Lagging power factor only
A. has a large values for low excitation B. Leading power factor only
only C. Unity power factor only
B. has large values for high excitation D. Lagging, leading and unity power
only factors
C. has large values for low and high
excitation 126. At no load, the armature current in a
D. any of the above synchronous motor
A. Is zero
121. The maximum power developed in a B. Lags the applied voltage
synchronous motor will depend on C. Leads the applied voltage
A. the rotor excitation only D. Is in phase with the applied voltage
B. the supply voltage only E. None of the above
C. the rotor excitation and supply
voltage both 127. In a synchronous motor, the force
D. the rotor excitation, supply vibrations will be maximum when driving
voltage and maximum value of A. A reciprocating air compressor
coupling angle (90°) B. A centrifugal pump
E. none of the above C. A centrifugal blower
D. Any of the above
122. A synchronous motor which works on E. None of the above
a leading power factor and does not
drive a mechanical load is called as 128. The angle between the rotor poles and
A. Static condenser stator poles, in a synchronous motor, is
B. Condenser known as
C. synchronous condenser A. power factor angle
D. none of the above B. torque angle
C. synchronizing angle
123. A synchronous motor develops, D. angle of retardation
maximum power when load angle is
A. 45° C. 90° 129. Higher than applied voltage ….. will be
B. 60° D. 120° stator flux and ….. will be the pulling
torque
124. In a synchronous motor, the break a. lower, lower
down torque is b. lower, greater
A. Directly proportional to applied c.greater, lower
voltage d. greater, greater
B. Directly proportional to the square of
the applied voltage 130. In a synchronous machine in the case
C. Inversely proportional to applied axis of the filed flux is in line with the
voltage
 armature flux is in line with the armature 137. ….. motors can be used for power
flux, then factor correction in addition to supplying
A. the machine is working as torque to drive loads.
synchronous generator Ans: Synchronous
B. the machine is working as 138. In a synchronous motor
synchronous motor electromagnetic power varies…..with
C. the machine will vibrate violently voltage.
D. none of the above Ans: linearly
139. A synchronous motor has a tendency
to …….
Ans: hunt
140. Synchronous motors cannot be used
for variable speed jobs as speed
Fill in the blanks/Say Yes or No adjustment cannot be done.
(YES / NO)
131. The synchronous motor is the one
type of 3-phase AC motor which 141. Synchronous motors do not require
operates at a ….. speed from no load to collector rings and brushes.
full load. (YES / NO)
Ans: constant
132. Synchronous motor may be used to 142. A synchronous motor cannot be
improve the power factor of 3-phase AC started under load. (YES / NO)
industrial circuits.
(YES / NO) 143. The starting torque of a synchronous
motor is ……..
133. A synchronous motor runs at a speed Ans: zero
less than the synchronous speed. 144. Synchronous motors may fall out of
(YES / NO) synchronism and stop when …….
Ans: overloaded
134. The speed of a synchronous motor 145. Synchronous motors required DC
can be changed by changing the ….. excitation which must be supplied from
only. external source (YES / NO)
Ans: frequency
135. A synchronous motor is not inherently 146. In a synchronous motor the rotor is
self starting. generally a ….. pole rotor.
(YES / NO) Ans: sallient
147. In a synchronous motor the number of
136. A synchronous motor can operate stator field poles must equal the number
under a wide range of power factors of stator field poles.
both lagging and leading (YES / NO)
(YES / NO)
148. The windings consists of solid copper
bars embedded at the surface of the
 pole face and short-circuited at each ranging from lagging through unity to
end by means of a shorting strip. leading for ……. Control. When applied
Ans; damper in this manner a synchronous
149. It is practically impossible to start a condenser is caller a synchronous …….
synchronous motor with its DC field Ans: voltage, reactor
energized. (YES / NO) 158. It is customary not to attempt
150. The maximum value of torque which a correction of the power factor of the
synchronous motor can develop without system all the way to ……. Power factor.
dropping out of synchronism is called Ans: unity
the ….. torque. 159. ….. motors may be purchased in three
Ans: pull-out standards ratings namely : (i) unity
151. In most synchronous motor the pull- power factor, (ii) 90% leading power
out torque is 150 to 200 percent of rated factor, and (iii) 80% leadings power
torque output. (YES / NO) factor.
Ans: Synchonous
152. In a synchronous motor the maximum 160. …… is an objectionable characteristic
power depends on V and of all synchronous motors, since it
�� ,i.e.,excitation. (YES / NO) produce severe mechanical stresses as
well as great variation in current and
153. In a synchronous motor, for all values power taken by the motor.
of V and �� the maximum torque is Ans: hunting
inversely proportional to the maximum 161. The term …. Is generally applied to
power developed the squirrel cage in connection with its
(YES / NO) damping action.
Ans: ammortisseur
154. Any ….. synchronous motor operated 162. The average speed of a synchronous
without any mechanical load may be motor is constant and independent of
classes as a synchronous condenser or load. (YES / NO)
synchronous capacitor.
Ans: over-excited 163. The torque of a synchronous motor is
155. As compared with a synchronous less sensitive to change supply ….
motor with equal armature voltage and Ans: voltage
current ratings a ‘synchronous 164. The breakdown torque of a
condenser’ requires ….. copper in the synchronous motor is …… to the supply
field winding to carry the increased field voltage.
current. Ans: proportional
Ans: more 165. A synchronous motor, as compared to
156. The synchronous condenser does not induction motor, is more ….. and …..
require so large shaft and bearings as Ans: complicated, costly
the synchronous motor because no …… 166. A ….. motor is employed for supplying
torque is required. mechanical load as well as for power
Ans: shaft factor improvement.
157. Synchronous condensers are Ans: synchronous
sometimes operated at power factors
167. A synchronous motor is provided 177. Basically the construction of a
with ….. air gap compared to that of synchronous motor is the same as that
induction motor. of an …..
Ans: larger Ans: alternator
168. The voltage rating of exciter of 178. It is possible to start a synchronous
synchronous motor is usually not more motor with its DC field energized.
than 250 V. (YES / NO) (YES / NO)

169. It is ….. to synchronous salient pole 179. In a synchronous motor, stator

rotors as compared to cylindrical rotors. induced emf �� can become greater than
Ans: easy the applied voltage V.
170. Efficiency of synchronous motor (YES / NO)
ranges from 80% to 96%
(YES / NO) 180. …. V- curve of a synchronous motor
shows variation of power factor with DC
171. Amortisseur windings of synchronous field current when load on the motor is
motors are place on the rotor pole faces. held constant.
(YES / NO) Ans: Inverted
181. If a synchronous motor is over-excited
172. As synchronous motor can operate at or under-excited its power factor tends
lagging or leading power factor, it is to approach unity with increased load.
appropriate to call it as ….. phase (YES / NO)
modifier.
Ans: synchronous 182. A decrease in the excitation of a
173. For the same rating, efficiency of synchronous motor produces a …..
synchronous motor is ….. than the decrease in its pull-out torque.
efficiency in induction motor. Ans: proportional
Ans: more 183. A capacitor is an over-excited
174. The angular displacement between synchronous motor operated without
magnetic field of stator and rotor is load.
called as ….. angle. Ans: synchronous
Ans: torque 184. Unlike induction motor, a ….. motor
175. To avoid pole slipping, rotor field of can be operated under wide range of
synchronous motor is energized by DC power factors both lagging and leading.
just before rotor reaches synchronous Ans: synchoronous
speed. (YES / NO) 185. A synchronous motor will either run at
synchronous speed or not at all.
176. In low speed range, synchronous (YES / NO)
motors are physically larger and more
costly than squirrel cage induction 186. As mechanical load on a synchronous
motors of equal rating. motor ….. , armature current drawn by it
(YES / NO) increases regardless of excitation.
Ans: incraeses
187. A synchronous motor draws ….. 198. The control equipment of a
current when its power factor is unity. synchronous motor is more complex as
Ans: minimum compare to that of an inductor motor.
188. kW rating of synchronous motor (YES / NO)
exciter is about 3 percent of the kVA
rating of the synchronous motor. 199. The rotor winding of the synchronous
(YES / NO) motor is excited by the revolving field.
(YES / NO)
189. When synchronous motor is under
normal working and if we have to open 200. A synchronous motor can be started
its field circuit on shutting down the on load using damper windings.
motor, this is done by connecting (YES / NO)
discharge resistance across its
terminals. (YES / NO)

190. ….. winding is also known as cage

winding.
Ans: damper
191. As compared to squirrel cage
induction motors, the synchronous
motors are ….. in low range.
Ans: cheaper
192. Synchronous motors always run at
unity power factor (YES / NO)

193. A synchronous motor is a self starting

constant speed constant torque motor.
(YES / NO)

194. As under-excited synchronous motor

has a leading factor.
(YES / NO)

195. A synchronous motor needs to slip

rings. (YES / NO)

196. A ….. motor is a small directly coupled

induction motor for starting a
synchronous motor.
Ans: pony
197. A synchronous motor has small
starting torque. (YES / NO)
RECTIFIER and CONVERTER

1. Which of the following are the applications of DC system?

A. battery charging work D. arc lamps for search lights
B. arc welding E. all of the above
C. electrolytic and electro-chemical processes
2. Which of the following methods may be used to convert AC system to DC?
A. Rectifiers D. Rotary converters
B. Motor converters E. All of the above
C. Motor-generator sets
3. In a single phase rotary converter the number of slip rings will be
A. two C. four E. none
B. three D. six
4. A synchronous converter can be started
A. by means of a small auxiliary motor D. any of the above methods
B. from AC side as induction motor E. none of the above methods
C. from DC side as DC motor
5. A rotary converter is a single machine with
A. one armature and one field C. one armature and two fields
B. two armature and one field D. none of the above
6. A rotary converter combines the function of
A. an induction motor and a DC generator
B. a synchronous motor and a DC generator
C. a DC series motor and a DC generator
D. none of the above
7. Which of the following is reversible in action?
A. motor generator set C. any of the above
B. motor converter D. none of the above
C. rotary converter
8. Which of the following metals is generally manufactured by electrolysis process?
A. load C. copper E. none of the above
B. aluminum D. zinc
9. With a motor converter it is possible to obtain DC voltage only up to
A. 200 – 400 V B. 600 – 800 V C. 1000 – 1200 V D. 1700 – 2000 V
10. Normally, which of the following is used, when a large-scale conversion from AC to DC power is
required?
A. motor-generator set C. rotary converter
B. motor converter D. mercury arc rectifier
11. A rotary converter in general construction and design, is more or less like
A. a transformer B. an induction motor C. an alternator D. any DC machine
12. A rotary converter operates at a
A. low power factor B. high power factor C. zero power factor D. none of the above
13. In which of the following applications, direct current is absolutely essential?
A. illumination C. Variable speed operation
B. electrolysis D. traction
14. Which of the following AC motors is usually used in large motor-generator sets?
A. synchronous motor C. Slip ring induction motor
B. squirrel cage induction motor D. any of the above
15. In a rotary converter armature currents are
 A. DC only B. AC only C. partly AC and partly DC
16. In which of the following equipment direct current is needed?
A. telephones B. relays C. time switches D. all of the above
2
17. In a rotary converter � � losses as compared to a DC generator of the same size will be
A. same B. less C. double D. three times
18. In a mercury arc rectifier positive ions are attracted towards
A. anode B. cathode C. shell bottom D. mercury pool
19. Mercury, in arc rectifiers, is chosen for cathode because
A. its ionization potential is relatively low D. its boiling point and specific heat are low
B. its atomic weight is quite high E. all of the above
C. it remains in liquid state at ordinary temperature
20. The ionization potential of mercury is approximately
A. 5.4 V B. 8.4 V C. 10.4 V D. 16.4 V
21. The potential drop in the arc, in a mercury arc rectifier, varies
A. 0.05 V to 0.2 V per cm length of the arc C. 2 V to 3.5 V per cm length of the arc
B. 0.5 V to 1.5 V per cm length of the arc D. none of the above
22. The voltage drop between the anode and cathode, of a mercury arc rectifier comprises of the
following
A. anode drop and cathode drop C. cathode drop and arc drop
B. anode drop and arc drop D. anode drop, cathode drop and arc drop
23. Glass rectifier are usually made into units capable of DC output (maximum continuous rating) of
A. 100 A at 100 V C. 300 A at 300 V E. 500 A at 500 V
B. 200 A at 200 V D. 400 A at 400 V
24. The voltage drop at anode, in a mercury arc rectifier is due to
A. self restoring property of mercury C. energy spent in overcoming the electrostatic field
B. high ionization potential D. high temperature inside the rectifier
25. The internal efficiency of a mercury arc rectifier depends on
A. voltage only C. voltage and current E. none of the above
B. current only D. rms value of current
26. If cathode and anode connections in a mercury arc rectifier are inter changed
A. the rectifier will not operate
B. internal losses will be reduced
C. both ion and electron streams will move in the same direction
D. the rectifier will operate at reduced efficiency
27. The cathode voltage drop, in a mercury arc rectifier, is due to
A. expenditure of energy in ionization
B. surface resistance
C. expenditure of energy in over-coming the electrostatic field
D. expenditure of energy in liberating electrons from the mercury
28. To produce cathode spot in a mercury arc rectifier
A. anode is heated C. an auxiliary electrode is used
B. tube is evacuated D. low mercury vapour pressures are used
29. The advantage of mercury arc rectifier is that
A. it is light in weight and occupies small floor space
B. it has high efficiency D. it is comparatively noiseless
C. it has high overload capacity E. all of the above
30. In a mercury pool rectifier, the voltage drop across its electrodes
A. is directly proportional to load C. varies exponentially with the load current
B. is inversely proportional to load D. is almost independent of load current
31. In a three-phase mercury arc rectifiers each anode conducts for
A. one-third of a cycle C. one-half a cycle
B. one-fourth of a cycle D. two-third of a cycle
32. In a mercury arc rectifier characteristic blue luminosity is due to
A. colour of mercury C. high temperature
B. ionization D. electron stream
33. Which of the following mercury arc rectifier will deliver least undulating current?
A. Six-phase B. Three-phase C. Two-phase D. Single-phase
34. In a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier the maximum current rating is restricted to
A. 2000 A B. 1500 A C. 1000 A D. 500 A
35. In a mercury arc rectifier….. flow from anode to cathode
A. ions B. electrons C. ions and electrons D. any of the above
36. When a rectifier is loaded which of the following voltage drops take place?
A. voltage drop in transformer reactance
B. voltage drop in resistance of transformer and smoothing chokes
C. arc voltage drop
D. all of the above
37. On which of the following factors the number of phases for which a rectifier should be designed
depends?
A. the voltage regulation of the rectifier should be low
B. in the output circuit there should be no harmonics
C. the power factor of the system should be high
D. the rectifier supply transformer should be utilized to the best advantage
E. all of the above
38. A mercury arc rectifier possesses ….. regulation characteristics
A. straight line B. curved line C. exponential D. none of the above
39. It is the…… of the transformer on which the magnitude of an angle of overlap depends.
A. resistance B. capacitance C. leakage reactance D. any of the above
40. In a polyphase mercury are rectifier the utility factor is given by
2 � ( ��) � ( 2�) � � �
A. � sin � B.
�
��� � C.
�2
. sin D.
�2
. sin �
�
41. In a grid control of mercury arc rectifiers when the grid is made positive relative to cathode, then it …..
the electrons on their way to anode
A. accelerates B. decelerates C. any of the above D. none of the above
42. In a mercury arc rectifiers having grid, the arc can be struck between anode and cathode only when
the grid attains a certain potential, this potential being known as …..
A. maximum grid voltage C. any of the above
B. critical grid voltage D. none of the above
43. In phase-shift control method the control is carried out by varying the ….. of grid voltage.
A. magnitude C. phase E. none of the above
B. polarity D. any of the above
44. In phase-shift control method, the phase shift between anode and grid voltages can be achieved by
means of
A. shunt motor B. synchronous motor C. induction regulator D. synchronous generator
45. The metal rectifiers are preferred to valve rectifiers due to which of the following advantages?
A. they are mechanically strong
B. they do not require any voltage for filament heating
C. both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. copper oxide rectifier is a linear device
B. copper oxide rectifier is not a perfect rectifier
C. copper oxide rectifier has a low efficiency
D. copper oxide rectifier finds use in control circuits
E. copper oxide rectifier is not stable during early life
47. The efficiency of the copper oxide rectifier seldom exceeds
A. 90 to 95% B. 85 to 90% C. 80 to 85% D. 65 to 75%
48. Copper oxide rectifier is usually designed not to operate above
A. 10°C B. 20°C C. 30°C D. 45°C
49. Selenium rectifier can be operated at temperatures as high as
A. 25°C B. 40°C C. 60°C D. 75°C
50. In selenium rectifiers efficiencies ranging from ___ to ___ percent are attainable
A. 25, 35 B. 40, 50 C. 60, 70 D. 75, 85
51. Ageing of a selenium rectifier may change the output voltage by
A. 5 to 10 per cent B. 15 to 20 per cent C. 25 to 30 per cent D. none of the above
52. The applications of selenium rectifiers are usually limited to potential of
A. 10 V C. 60 V E. 200 V
B. 30 V D. 100 V
53. Which of the following rectifiers have been used extensively in supplying direct current for
electroplating?
A. copper oxide rectifiers C. mercury arc rectifiers E. none of the above
B. selenium rectifiers D. mechanical rectifiers
54. A commutating rectifier consists of commutator driven by
A. an induction motor C. a DC series motor
B. a synchronous motor D. a DC shunt motor
55. Which of the following rectifiers are primarily used for charging of low voltage batteries from AC
supply?
A. mechanical rectifiers C. selenium rectifiers E. mercury arc rectifiers
B. copper oxide rectifiers’ D. electrolytic rectifiers
56. The efficiency of an electrolytic rectifier is nearly
A. 80% B. 70% C. 60% D. 40%
57. Which of the following is the loss within the mercury arc rectifier chamber?
A. voltage drop on arc C. voltage drop at the cathode
B. voltage drop at the anode D. all of the above
58. The metal rectifiers, as compared to mercury arc rectifiers
A. operate on low temperatures C. can operate on heavy loads E. none of the above
B. can operate on high voltages D. gives poor regulation
59. In a mercury arc rectifier, the anode is usually made of
A. copper C. silver E. tungsten
B. aluminum D. graphite
60. The ignited or auxiliary anode in mercury arc rectifier is made of
A. graphite B. boron carbide C. aluminum D. copper
61. A motor converter is ____ Answer: self-starting
62. A motor converter can be operated on any frequency. Answer: YES
63. In a motor converter it is possible to obtain DC voltage only up to 400 – 600 V. Answer: NO
64. A ____ converter is a single machine with one armature and one field. Answer: rotary
65. A synchronous converter combines the function of a synchronous motor and a DC generator.
Answer: YES
66. Normally a ____ converter is used when a large-scale conversion from AC to DC power is required
Answer: synchronous
67. A synchronous or rotary converter is ____ in action. Answer: reversible
68. When a rotary converter receives power from a DC supply mains and converts it into AC power it is
called ___ rotary converter. Answer: inverter
69. A rotary converted is portable. Answer: YES
70. A __ converter is liable to flashover and reversal of polarity. Answer: rotary
71. A rotary converter operates at a ____ power factor. Answer: high
72. A ___ is a device which converts alternating current into unidirectional current by virtue of a
characteristic permitting appreciable flow of current in only one direction. Answer: rectifier
73. In a mercury arc rectifier the voltage drop between the anode and cathode compromises of anode
drop, cathode drop and ___ drop. Answer: arc
74. A mercury arc rectifier is easily adaptable to variable frequency operation. Answer: YES
75. A mercury arc rectifier has a low response to load demands Answer: NO
76. ___ rectifiers, because of inherent mechanical weakness of glass, cannot be manufactured for very
large outputs. Answer: glass
77. Steel rectifiers are mounted in a vacuum chamber of steel, are dismountable, continuously evacuated
and are water cooled. Answer: YES
78. ____ factor is the ratio of the volt-amperes obtained from the rectifier on the output side to volt-
amperes supplied from AC input side. Answer: Utility
79. In a mercury arc rectifier it is the leakage reactance of the transformer on which the magnitude of
angle of the ___ depends. Answer: overlap
80. A metal arc rectifier possesses straight line regulation characteristics. Answer: YES
81. In ___ control method grid voltage is altered gradually. Answer: soft
82. In hard control and impulse control method the variation of grid voltages are sudden, i.e., in the form
of impulses. Answer: YES
83. In ___ control method the control is carried out by varying the phase of the grid voltage.
Answer: phase-shift
84. The metal rectifiers are preferred to ____ rectifiers as these are mechanically strong and do not
require any voltage for filament heating. Answer: valve
85. ___ rectifier is not a linear device and its resistance losses necessitate large heat dissipation.
Answer: Copper oxide
86. The copper oxide rectifier, because of ____ efficiency, is unsuitable for rectifying large amounts of
power. Answer: low
87. The ___ rectifier finds use in control circuits and is adaptable to various voltages and currents.
Answer: copper oxide
88. ___ rectifier can be used on polyphase circuits to supply large values of current. Answer: Selenium
89. Selenium rectifiers are less efficient than the mercury arc rectifiers when used on high-voltages
systems. Answer: YES
90. ____ rectifiers have been used extensively in supplying direct when used on high-voltage systems.
Answer: Selenium
91. A mercury arc rectifier occupies ___ floor space. Answer: small
92. Mercury possesses a ___ characteristic. Answer: self-restoring
93. In a mercury arc rectifier, if a perforated grid is interposed between the anode and cathode the
movement of the electrons towards the anode can be controlled by means of assigning proper ___ to
it. Answer: voltages
94. In mercury arc rectifier, mercury is used as ____. Answer: cathode
95. The ___ rectifier, because of low efficiency, is unsuitable for rectifying large amounts of power.
 Answer: copper oxide
96. The selenium cell can withstand larger ____ voltages. Answer: reverse
97. Changes in temperature have ____ effect on the selenium cell than on the copper oxide unit.
Answer: less
98. If ___ rectifiers are not used for sometimes, then film is lost and film has to be reformed if they are to
be reused. Answer: electrolytic
99. In an electrolytic rectifier, buzzing sound indicates the ____ of electrolyte. Answer: weakness
100. In an electrolytic rectifier, if the heating of the electrolyte is excessive it indicates that the rectifier
needs to be ____. Answer: recharged
 A: Choose the Correct Answer:

1. the commercial sources of energy 6. The percentage �2 by weight in

are atmospheric air is
A. solar, wind and biomass A. 18% C. 77%
B. fossil fuels, hydropower and B. 23% D. 79%
nuclear energy
C. wood, animal wastes and 7. The percentage �2 by volume in
agriculture wastes atmosphere air is
D. none of the above A. 21% C. 77%
B. 23% D. 79%
2. Non-commercial sources of energy
are 8. The proper indication of incomplete
A. wood, animal wastes and combustion is
agriculture wastes A. high CO content in flue gases
B. solar, wind and biomass at exit
C. fossil fuels, hydropower and B. high ��2 content in flue gases at
nuclear power exit
D. none of the above C. high temperature of flue gases
D. the smoking exhaust from
3. The primary sources of energy are chimney
A. coal, oil and uranium
B. hydrogen, oxygen and water 9. The main source of production of
C. wind, biomass and geothermal biogas is
D. none of the above A. human waste
B. wet cow dung
4. The secondary sources of energy C. wet livestock waste
are D. all above
A. solar, wind and water
B. coil, oil and uranium 10. India’s first nuclear power plant was
C. either (a) or (b) installed at
D. neither (a) or (b) A. Tarapore
B. Kota
5. In India largest thermal power station C. Kalpakkam
is located at D. none of the above
A. Kota
B. Sarni 11. In fuel cell, the …….. energy is
C. Chandrapur converted into electrical energy.
D. Neyveli A. mechanical
B. chemical
C. heat
 D. sound 17. Rankine cycle operating on low
pressure limit of �1 and high
12. Solar thermal power generation can pressure limit of �2
be achieve by A. has higher thermal efficiency
A. using focusing collector than the Carnot cycle
B. using flat plate collector operating between same
C. using a solar pond pressures limits
D. any of the above system B. has lower thermal efficiency than
the carnot cycle operating
13. The energy radiated by sun on a between same pressures limits
bright sunny day is approximately C. has same thermal efficiency as
A. 700 W/�2 C. 1 kW/�� carnot cycle operating between
B. 800 W/�2 D. 2 kW/�2 same pressure limits
D. may be more or less depending
14. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most upon the magnitude of �1 and �2
suitable for India because
A. these develop more power 18. Rankine efficiency of a steam power
B. its technology is simple plant
C. abundance of thorium deposits A. improves in summer as compared
are available in India to that in winter
D. these can be easily designed B. improves in winter as
compared to that in summer
15. The overall efficiency of thermal C. is unaffected by climatic
power plant is equal to conditions
A. Rankine cycle efficiency D. none of the above
B. Carnot cycle efficiency
C. Regenerative cycle efficiency 19. Carnot cycle comprises of
D. Boiler efficiency x turbine A. Two isentropic processes and two
efficiency x generator constant volume processes
efficiency B. Two isentropic processes and
two constant pressure
16. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good processes
steam power plant may be in the C. Two isothermal processes and
range of two constant pressure processes
A. 15 to 20 percent D. None of the above
B. 35 to 45 percent
C. 70 to 80 percent 20. In Rankine cycle the work output
D. 90 to 95 percent from the turbine is given by
A. change of internal energy
between inlet and outlet
 B. change of enthalpy between C. is unaffected by increase in
inlet and outlet Rankine cycle efficiency
C. change of entropy between inlet D. none of the above
and output
D. change of temperature between 24. In a regenerative feed heating cycle,
inlet and outlet the greatest economy is affected
A. when steam is extracted from only
21. Regenerative heating, i.e., bleeding one suitable point of steam
steam to reheat feed water to boiler turbine
A. decrease thermal efficiency of the B. when steam is extracted from
cycle several places in different
B. increase thermal efficiency of stages of steam turbine
the cycle C. when steam is extracted only from
C. does not affect thermal efficiency the last stage of steam turbine
of the cycle D. when steam is extracted only from
D. may increase and decrease the first stage of steam turbine
thermal efficiency of the cycle
depending upon the point of 25. The maximum percentage gain in
extraction of steam Regenerative feed cycle thermal
efficiency
22. Regenerative cycle thermal A. increase with number of feed
efficiency heaters increasing
A. is always greater than simple B. decrease with number of feed
Rankine thermal efficiency heaters increasing
B. is greater than simple Rankine C. remains same unaffected by
cycle thermal efficiency only number of feed heaters
when steam is bled at particular D. none of the above
pressure
C. is same as simple Rankine cycle 26. In regenerative cycle feed water is
thermal efficiency heated by
D. is always less than simple A. exhaust gases
Rankine cycle thermal efficiency B. heaters
C. draining steam from the turbine
23. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, D. all above
the optimum value of the fraction of
steam extracted for feed heating 27. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is
A. decreases with increase Rankine used to
cycle efficiency A. utilize heat of flue gases
B. increases with increase in B. increase thermal efficiency
Rankine cycle efficiency C. improve condenser performance
 D. reduce loss of heat D. balanced draught

28. Mercury is a choice with steam in 34. The draught produced by steel
binary vapour cycle because it has chimney as compared to that
A. higher critical temperature and produced by brick chimney for the
pressure same height is
B. higher saturation temperature A. less
than other fluids B. more
C. relatively low vapourisation C. same
pressure D. may be more or less
D. all above
35. In a boiler installation the natural
29. Binary vapour cycles are used to draught is produced
A. increase the performance of the A. due to the fact that furnace gases
condenser being light go through the
B. increase the efficiency of the chimney giving place to cold air
plant from outside to rush in
C. increase efficiency of the future B. due to the fact that pressure at
the grate due to cold column is
30. A steam power station requires higher than the pressure at the
space chimney base due to hot
A. equal to diesel power station column
B. more than diesel power station C. due to the fact that at the chimney
C. less than diesel power station top the pressure is more than its
environmental pressure
31. Economizer is used to heat D. all of the above
A. air C. feed water
B. flue gases D. all above 36. The draught produced, for a given
mean height of the chimney and
32. The modern steam turbines are given mean temperature of chimney
A. impulse turbine gases
B. reaction turbines A. decreases with increase in
C. impulse-reaction turbines outside air temperature
D. none of the above B. increases with increase in outside
air temperature
33. The draught which a chimney C. remains the same irrespective of
produces is called outside air temperature
A. induced draught D. may increase or decrease with
B. natural draught increase in outside air
C. force draught temperature
37. The draught produced by chimney of 42. Artificial draught is produced by
given height at given outside A. air fans
temperature B. steam jet
A. decreases if the chimney gas C. fan or steam jet
temperature increases D. all of the above
B. increases if the chimney gas
temperature increases 43. The artificial draught normally is
C. remains same irrespective of designed to produce
chimney gas temperature A. less smoke
D. may increase or decrease B. more draught
C. less chimney gas temperature
38. For force draught system, the D. all of the above
function of the chimney is mainly
A. to produce draught to accelerate 44. For the induced draught the fan is
the combustion of the fuel located
B. to discharge gases high up in A. near bottom of chimney
the atmosphere to avoid B. near bottom of furnace
hazard C. at the top of the chimney
C. to reduce the temperature of the D. anywhere permissible
hot gases discharged
D. none of the above 45. The pressure at the furnace is
minimum in case of
39. Artificial draught is produced by A. forced draught system
A. induced fan B. induced draught system
B. forced fan C. balanced draught system
C. induced and forced fan D. natural draught system
D. all of the above
46. The efficiency of chimney is
40. The draught in locomotive boilers is approximately
produced by A. 80% C. 20%
A. forced fun D. 40% D. 0.25%
B. chimney
C. steam jet 47. For a steam nozzle, if �1 = inlet
D. only motion of locomotive pressure, �2 = exit pressure and n is
the index of isentropic expansion,
41. For the same draught produced the the mass flow rate per unit area is
power of induced draught fan as maximum if
compared to force draught fan is p2 2 n−1
A. less C. same A. ≤( )n
p1 n+1
B. more D. not predictable
 n D. the ratio of outlet pressure to
p2 1
B. ≤( )
n+1
inlet pressure only when mass
p1 n+1
p2 2 n flow rate per unit is maximum
C. ≤( )n+1
p1 n+1
�� � � 52. The isentropic expansion of steam
D. ≤( ) �−� trough nozzle for the steam initially
�� �+�
dry saturated at inlet is approximated
by equation
48. The isentropic expansion of steam
A. �� = C C. ��1.3 = C
through nozzle for the steam initially
superheated at inlet is approximated B. ��1.4 = C D. ���.��� = C
by equation
A. ���.� = C C. ��1.4 = C 53. The effect of considering friction
losses in steam nozzles for the same
B. ��1.125 = C D. �� = C
pressure ratio leads to
A. increase in exit velocity from the
49. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet
nozzle
pressure for maximum mass flow
B. decrease in exit velocity from
rate per unit area of steam through a
the nozzle
nozzle when steam initially dry
C. no change in exit velocity from the
saturated is
nozzle
A. 0.6 C. 0.555
D. increase or decrease depending
B. 0.578 D. 0.5457
upon the exit quality of steam
50. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet
54. The effect of considering friction in
pressure of maximum mass flow rate
steam nozzles for the same pressure
per area of steam through a nozzle
ratio leads to
when steam is initially superheated
A. increase in dryness fraction of
is
exit steam
A. 0.555 C. 0.5457
B. decrease in dryness fraction of
B. 0578 D. 0.6
exit steam
C. no change in quality of exit steam
51. The critical pressure ratio of a
D. decrease or increase of dryness
convergent nozzle is defined as
fraction of exit steam depending
A. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet
upon inlet quality
pressure of nozzle
B. the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet
55. In case of impulse steam turbine
pressure of nozzle
A. there is enthalpy drop in fixed
C. the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet
and moving blades
pressure only when mass flow
B. there is enthalpy drop only in
rate per unit area is minimum
moving blades
 C. there is enthalpy drop in nozzles C. there is enthalpy drop only in
D. none of the above moving blades
D. none of the above
56. De-Laval turbine is
A. pressure compounded impulse 60. Curtis turbine is
turbine A. reaction steam turbine
B. velocity compounded impulse B. pressure velocity compounded
turbine steam turbine
C. simple single wheel impulse C. pressure compounded impulse
turbine steam turbine
D. simple single wheel reaction D. velocity compounded impulse
turbine steam turbine

57. The pressure on the two sides of 61. Rateau steam turbine is
impulse wheel of a steam turbine A. reaction steam turbine
A. is same B. velocity compounded impulse
B. is different steam turbine
C. increases from one side to the C. pressure compounded impulse
other side steam turbine
D. decreases from one side to the D. pressure velocity compounded
other side steam turbine

58. In De Laval steam turbine 62. Parson’s turbine is

A. the pressure in the turbine A. pressure compounded steam
rotor is approximately same as turbine
in condenser B. simple single wheel, impulse
B. the pressure in the turbine rotor is steam turbine
higher than pressure in the C. simple single wheel reaction
condenser steam turbine
C. the pressure in the turbine rotor D. multi wheel reaction steam
gradually decreases from inlet to turbine
exit from condenser
D. none from the above 63. Blade or diagram efficiency is given
by
59. In case of reaction steam turbine A.
(Cw1 ± Cw0 )Cbl
A. there is enthalpy drop of both C1
��� (��� ± ��� )
in fixed and moving blades B.
�� �
B. there is enthalpy drop only in fixed
Cbl 2
blades C.
C1 2
 C1 2 − C0 2 69. The maximum efficiency for Parson’s
D.
C1 2
reaction turbine is given by
64. Axial thrust on rotor of steam turbine cos �
A. ���� =
1+ cos �
is
2 cos �
A. �� (��� − ��� ) B. ���� =
1+ cos �
B.�� 2 (��1 − 2��0 ) � ���� �
C. ���� =
C. �� (��1 + ��� ) �+ ���� �
1+ cos2 �
D. �� (2��1 − ��� ) D. ���� =
2 ���2 �

65. Stage efficiency of steam turbine is 70. Reheat factor in steam turbines
A. ������ /������� depends on
B. ������� /������ A. exit pressure only
C. ������� � ������ B. stage efficiency only
D. none of the above C. initial pressure and temperature
only
66. For maximum blade efficiency for D. all of the above
single stage impulse turbine
��� 71. For multistage steam turbine reheat
A. � = = ���2 �
�1 factor is defined as
B. � = cos � A. stage efficiency x nozzle
��� � efficiency
C. � =
�
B. cumulative enthalpy drop x �������
D. � = ���2 � ���������� �������� ����
C.
���������� �������� ����
67. Degree of reaction as referred to isentropic enthalpy drop
D.
steam turbine is defied as cumulative enthalpy drop
∆hf
A.
∆hm
72. The value of reheat factor normally
∆hm
B. varies from
∆hf
∆�� A. 0.5 to 0.6 C. 1.02 to 1.06
C. B. 0.9 to 0.95 D. 1.2 to 1.6
∆��+∆��
∆ℎ�
D. ∆ℎ 73. Steam turbines are governed by the
� +∆ℎ�
following methods
68. For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, A. Throttle governing
degree of reaction is B. Nozzle control governing
A. 75% C. 50% C. By-pass governing
B. 100% D. 60% D. all of the above
74. In steam turbines the reheat factor
A. increases with the increase in 78. In a surface condenser if air is
number of stages removed, there is
B. decreases with the increase in A. fall in absolute pressure
number of stages maintained in condenser
C. remain same irrespective of B. rise in absolute pressure
number of stages maintained in condenser
D. none of the above C. no change in absolute pressure in
the condenser
75. The thermal efficiency of the engine D. rise in temperature of condenser
with condenser as compared to steam
without condenser, for a given
pressure and temperature of steam 79. The cooling section in the surface
is condenser
A. higher A. increases the quantity of vapour
B. lower extracted along with air
C. same as long as initial pressure B. reduces the quantity of vapour
and temperature is unchanged extracted along with air
D. none of the above C. does not affect vapour quantity
extracted but reuces pump
76. In jet type condensers capacity of air extraction pump
A. cooling water passes through D. none of the above
tubes and steam surrounds them
B. steam passes through tubes and 80. Edward’s air pump
cooling water surrounds them A. removes air and also vapour from
C. steam and cooling water mix condenser
D. steam and cooling water do not B. removes only air from condenser
mix C. removes only un-condense
vapour from condenser
77. In a shell and tube surface D. removes air along with vapour
condenser and also the condensed water
A. steam and cooling water mix to from condenser
give the condensate
B. cooling water passes through 81. Vacuum efficiency of a condenser is
the tubes and steam surrounds ratio of
them ������ ������ �� ���������
���� ��� �������
C. steam passes through the tubes A. ����������� ������ �� ���������
and steam surrounds them ���� �� ��� �������
D. all of the above varying with
situation
 theoretical vacuum in condenser 85. Condenser efficiency is defined is
with no air present saturation tempearature
B. actual vacuum in condenser at condenser pressure
with air present A. rise in cooling water temperature
partial pressure of vapour temperature rise of cooling water
+ partial pressure of air present
B. saturation temperature corresponding
C. to condenser pressure
partial pressure of vapour only
����������� ���� �� ������� �����
partial pressure of vapour only C. ���������� ����������� �������������
D. partial pressure of vapour �� ��������� ��������−�������
+partial pressure of air present ����� ����� �����������
saturation temperature corresponding
to condenser pressure
82. In steam power plant, the function of D. saturation temperature of vapour at its
partial pressure in condenser
a condenser is
A. to maintain pressure below
atmospheric to increase work 86. Pipes carrying steam are generally
output from the prime-mover made up of
B. to receives large volumes of A. steel C. copper
steam exhausted from steam B. cast iron D. aluminum
prime mover
C. to condense large volumes of 87. For the safety of a steam boiler the
steam to water which may be number of safety valves fitted are
used again in boiler A. four C. two
D. all of the above B. three D. one

83. In a regenerative surface condenser 88. Steam turbines commonly used in

A. there is one pump to remove air steam power station are
and condensate A. condensing type
B. there are two pumps to remove B. non-condensing type
air and condensate C. none of the above
C. there are three pumps to remove
air, vapour and condensate 89. Belt conveyer can be used to
D. there is no pump, the condensate transport coal at inclinations up to
gets removed by gravity A. 30° C. 60°
B. 80° D. 90°
84. Evaporative type of condenser has
A. steam in pipes surrounded by 90. The maximum length of a screw
water conveyer is about
B. water in pipes surrounded by A. 30 metres
steam B. 40 metres
C. either (a) or (b) C. 60 metres
D. none of the above D. 100 metres
91. The efficiency of a modern boiler 97. Location of centre of gravity (c.g.) of
using coal and heat recovery any electrical distribution system is
equipment is about determined as
A. 25 to 30% A. c.g. =
total loading (electrical)
sum of moments about
B. 40 to 50% two axes
��� �� ������� �����
C. 65 to 70% ��� ����
D. 85 to 90% B. c.g. = ����� �������
C. c.g. = sum of moments x total
92. The average ash content in Indian loading
coals is about D. c.g. = sum of moments x
A. 5% C. 15% (total loading)2
B. 10% D. 20%
98. Capacity of turbine and generator
93. Load centre in a power station is are related as
A. centre of coal fields ��������� ��
A. Turbine kW = ��������� ����������
B. centre of maximum load of
B. Turbine kW = generator kW x
equipments
generator efficiency
C. centre of gravity of electrical
C. Turbine kW = generator kW
system
D. Turbine kW = (generator kW)2
94. Steam pressure in a steam power
99. The capacity of large turbo-
station, which is usually kept now-a-
generators varies from
days is of the order of
A. 20 to 100 MW
A. 20 kgf/��2 C. 100 kgf/��2
B. 50 to 300 MW
B. 50 kgf/��2 D. 150 kgf/���
C. 70 to 400 MW
D 100 to 650 MW
95. Economizers improve boiler
efficiency by
100. Caking coals are those which
A. 1 to 5% C. 10 to 12%
A. burn completely
B. 4 to 10%
B. burn freely
C. do not form ash
96. Critical pressure for steam is
D. form of lumps or masses of
A. 100 kgf/��2
coke
B. between 100 kgf/ ��2 and 150
kgf/��2
101. Primary air is that air which is
C. between 150 kgf/ ��2 and 200 used to
kgf/��2 A. reduce the flame length
D. between 200 kgf/ ��� and 250 B. increase the flame length
kgf/��� C. transport and dry the coal
 D. provide air around burners for 107. Higher calorific value ( H.C.V.) is
getting optimum combustion the heating value of fuel
A. without water vapour which are
formed by combustion
102. Secondary air is the air used to B. with water vapour which are
A. reduce the flame length formed by combustion
B. increase the flame length C. none of the above
C. transport and dry the coal
D. provide air round the burners 108. Which one is essential for
for getting optimum combustion of fuel?
combustion A. Oxygen to support combustion
B. Correct fuel air ratio
103. Pressure of sulphur in coal will C. Proper ignition temperature
result in D. All the three above
A. corroding air heaters
B. spontaneous combustion during 109. Ultimate analysis of fuel
coal storage determination of percentage of
C. causing clinkering and slagging A. total carbon by weight
D. facilitating ash precipitation B. total carbon by weight-unit
E. all of the above weight of �� , �� , �� , sulphur
and ash
104. Pulverized fuel is used for C.ash, volatile matter and moisture
A. saving fuel
B. better running 110. Which of the following coals has
C. obtaining more heat the highest calorific value?
A. Peat C. Bituminous
105. Combustible elements in the fuel B. Lignite D. Anthracite coal
are
A. carbon and hydrogen 111. The proximate analysis of coals
B. carbon, hydrogen and sulphur gives
C. carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen A. various chemical constituents,
D. carbon, hydrogen and ash carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and
ash
106. Heating value of diesel oil is B. fuel constituents as percentage by
about weight, of moisture, volatile, fixed
A. 5000 kcal/kg carbon and ash
B. 7000 kcal/kg C. percentage by weight, of
C. 9000 kcal/kg moisture, volatile matter, fixed
D. 11000 kcal/kg carbon and ash
112. In coal preparation plant, C. none of the above
magnetic separators are used to
remove 118. Under-feed stokers work best
A. dust C. iron particles for ….. coals high in volatile matter
B. clinkers D. sand and with caking tendency
A. anthracite
113. Load carrying capacity of belt B. lignite
conveyor is about C. semi-bituminous and
A. 20 to 40 tonnes/hr bituminous
B. 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
C. 100 to 150 tonnes/hr 119. Example of overfeed type stoker
D. 150 to 200 tonnes/hr is
A. chain grate
114. Method which is commonly B. spreader
applied for unloading the coal for C. travelling grate
small power plant is D. all of the above
A. lift trucks
B. coal accelerators 120. Where un-pulverized coal has to
C. tower cranes be used and boiler capacity is large,
D. belt conveyor the stoker which is used is
A. underfeed stoker
115. Bucket elevators are used for B. overfeed stoker
A. carrying coal in horizontal C. any
direction
B. carrying coal in vertical 121. Travelling grate stoker can burn
direction coals at the rates
C. carrying coal in any direction A. 50 – 75 kg/�2 per hour
B. 75 – 100 kg/�2 per hour
116. The amount of air which is C. 100 – 150 kg/�2 per hour
supplied for complete combustion is D. 150 – 200 kg/�� per hour
called
A. primary air C. tertiary air 122. Capacity of the underfeed stoker
B. secondary air is of the order of
A. 100 to 200 kg of coal burned per
117. In ….. system fuel from a central hour
pulverizing unit is delivered to a B. 100 to 500 kg of coal burned per
bunker and then to the various hour
burners C. 100 to 2000 kg of coal burned
A. unit per hour
B. central
 D. 100 to 400 kg of coal burned per 128. In boilers, the feed water
hour treatment is done mainly for
removing …… troubles
123. Economizers are usually used in A. corrosion
boiler plant working above B. scale formation
A. 30 kgf/��2 C. 70 kgf/��� C. carry over
B. 50 kgf/��2 D. 90 kgf/��2 D. embrittlement
E. all of the above
124. Superheating of steam is
desirable for 129. Blowing down of boiler water is
A. increasing the efficiency of the the process
Rankine cycle A. to reduce the boiler pressure
B. reducing initial condensation B. to increase the steam temperature
losses C. to control the solid
C. avoiding too high moisture in the concentration in the boiler
last stage of turbine water by removing some of the
D. all of the above concentrated saline water
E. none of the above D. none of the above

125. Thermal efficiency of the steam 130. Deaerative heating is done to

plants is of the order of A. heat the water
A. 30% C. 60% B. heat the air in the water
B. 50% D. 80% C. removes dissolved gasses in
the water
126. In regenerative air pre-heater, the
heat is transferred 131. Reheat factor is the ratio of
A. by direct mixing A. isentropic heat drop to useful heat
B. by extracting some gas from drop
the furnace B. adiabatic eat drop to isentropic
C. from heating an intermediate heat drop
material and then heating the air C. cumulative actual enthalpy
from this material drop for the stages to total is
isentropic enthalpy heat drop
127. The height of chimney in a steam
power plant is governed by 132. The value of the reheat factor is
A. flue gases quantity of the order of
B. the draught to be produced A. 0.8 to 1.0 C. 1.1 to 1.5
C. control of pollution B. 1.0 to 1.05 D. above 1.5
133. Compounding of steam turbine is
done for 139. Function of air pump in
A. reducing the work done condenser is to
B. increasing the rotor speed A. remove water
C. reducing the rotor speed B. maintain vacuum
D. balancing the turbine C. maintain atmospheric pressure

134. Toppings turbines are 140. Wet air pump removes

A. low pressure condensing units A. air only
B. high pressure none- B. only condensate
condensing units C. both air and condensate
C. low pressure non-condensing
units 141. In diesel cycle
D. high pressure condensing units A. compression ratio and expansion
ratio are equal
135. In throttle governing B. compression ratio is greater
A. larger heat drop is available than expansion ratio
B. lesser heat drop is available C. compression ratio is less than
C. there no effect on heat drop expression ratio
D. compression ratio =
136. The commonly used material of (expansion ratio) 2

condenser tubes is
A. aluminum 142. Compression ratio of an I.C.
B. cast iron engine is the ratio of
C. admiralty brass total volume
A. swept volume
D. mild steel ����� ������
B. ��������� ������
137. The blades of impulse turbine are C. either (a) or (b)
A. symmetrically shaped around D. none of the above
the centre line
B. asymmetrically shaped around the 143. In a diesel engine the heat lost to
centre line the cooling water is
C. none of the above A. 10% C. 30%
B. 20% D. 70%
138. For medium and the large size
turbines the …. governing is used 144. The mechanical efficiency of a
A. throttle diesel engine is defined as
B. nozzle control A.
�.�.�.
C. B. H. P. x I. H. P.
�.�.�
C. by pass I.H.P. (B.H.P.)2
D. combination of (a), (b), (c) B. B.H.P. D. I.H.P.
 A. Diesel cycle
145. The temperature of cooling water B. Carnot cycle
leaving the diesel engine should not C. Dual combustion cycle
be more than D. Otto cycle
A. 30℃ C. ��℃
B. 40℃ D. 80℃ 151. In case of diesel engine, the
pressure at the end of compression
146. The total cost of a diesel power is in the range of
plant per kW of installed capacity is A. 7 – 8 kgf/��2
less than that of steam power plant B. 20 – 25 kgf/��2
by C. 35 – 40 kgf/���
A. 5 to 10% C. 40 to 50% D. 50 – 60 kgf/��2
B. 20 to 30% D. 70 to 80%
152. Reciprocating motion the piston
147. The ratio of piston stroke to bore is converted into a rotary one by
of cylinder for internal combustion A. connecting rod
engines varies between B. crank shaft
A. 0.9 to 1.9 C. 0.3 to 0.6 C. crank web
B. 0.5 to 0.8 D. 0.1 to 0.2 D. gudgeon pin

148. Air fuel ratio required for the 153. Maximum temperature which is
combustion in diesel engine is about developed in the cylinder of a diesel
A. 5:1 engine is of the order of
B. 10:1 A.1000 - 1500℃
C. 15:1 B. 1500 - 2000℃
D. none of the above C. 2000 - 2500℃
D. 2500 - 3000℃
149. In multi-cylinder engines a
particular sequence in the firing 154. In a four stroke cycle, engine,
order is necessary the four operations namely suction,
A. to provide the best engine compression, expansion and
performance exhaust are completed in the
B. to obtain uniform turning moment number of revolution of crank shaft
C. to operate the ignition system equal to
smoothly A. four C. two
D. to obtain non-uniform turning B. three D. one
moment
155. In a two stroke cycle engine, the
150. Most high speed diesel engines operations namely suction,
work on compression, expansion and
 exhaust are completed in the
number of revolution of crank shaft 161. The two stroke cycle engine has
equal to A. one suction valve and one
A. four C. two exhaust valve is operated by one
B. three D. one cam
B. one suction valve and one
156. In a four stroke cycle S.I. engine exhaust valve is operated by two
the camshaft runs cam
A. at the same speed as crank shaft C. only ports covered and
B. at half the speed of crank shaft uncovered by piston to effect
C. at twice the speed of crank shaft charging and exhausting
D. at any speed irrespective of crank D. none of the above
shaft speed
162. For same output, same speed
157. The following is an S.I. engine and same compression ratio the
A. Diesel engine thermal efficiency of a two stroke
B. Petrol engine cycle petrol engine as compared to
C. either (a) or (b) that four stroke cycle petrol engine is
D. none of the above A. more
B. less
158. The following is C.I. engine C. same as long as compression
A. Diesel engine ratio is same
B. Petrol engine D. same as long as output same
C. Gas engine
D. none of the above 163. The ratio of brake power to
indicated power of an I.C. engine is
159. In a four stroke cycle petrol called
engine, during suction stroke A. mechanical efficiency
A. only air is sucked in B. thermal efficiency
B. only petrol is sucked in C. volumetric efficiency
C. mixture of petrol and air is D. relative efficiency
sucked in
D. none of the above 164. The specific fuel consumption of
a diesel engine as compared to that
160. In a four stroke cycle diesel for petrol engine is
engine, during suction stroke A. lower
A. only air is sucked in B. higher
B. only fuel is sucked in C. same for same output
C. mixture of fuel and air is sucked in D. none of the above
D. none of the above
165. The thermal efficiency of petrol C. may be lean or rich
engine as compared to diesel engine D. chemically correct
is
A. lower 171. In case of petrol engine, at
B. higher starting
C. same for same power output A. rich fuel air ratio is needed
D. same for same speed B. weak fuel air ratio is needed
C. chemically correct fuel air ratio is
166. Compression ratio of petrol needed
engine is in the range of D. any fuel air ratio will do
A. 2 to 3
B. 7 to 10 172. Carburetor is used for
C. 16 to 20 A. S.I. engines
D. none of the above B. Gas engines
C. C.I. engines
167. Compression ratio of diesel D. none of the above
engines may have a range
A. 8 to 10 173. Fuel injector is used in
B. 10 to 15 A. S.I. engines
C. 16 to 20 B. Gas engines
D. none of the above C. C.I. engines
D. none of the above
168. The thermal efficiency of good I.C.
engine at the rated load is in the 174. Very high speed engines are
range of generally
A. 80 to 90% C. 30 to 35% A. Gas engines
B. 60 to 70% D. 10 to 20% B. S.I. engines
C. C.I. engines
169. In case of S.I. engine, to have D. Steam engines
best thermal efficiency the fuel air
mixture ratio should be 175. In S.I. engine, to develop high
A. lean voltage for spark plug
B. rich A. battery is installed
C. may be lean or rich B. distributor is installed
D. chemically correct C. carburetor is installed
D. ignition coil is installed
170. The fuel air ratio, for maximum
power of S.I. engine, should be 176. In S.I. engine, to obtain required
A. lean firing order
B. rich A. battery is installed
 B. distributor is installed 182. Iso-octane content in a fuel for S.I.
C. carburetor is installed engines
D. ignition coil is installed A. retards auto-ignition
B. accelerates auto-ignition
177. For diesel engine, the method of C. does not affect auto-ignition
governing employed is D. none of the above
A. quantity governing
B. quality governing 183. Normal heptanes content in fuel
C. hit and mass governing for S.I. engines
D. none of the above A. retards auto-ignition
B. accelerates auto-ignition
178. For diesel engines, the method of C. does not affect auto-ignition
governing employed is D. none of the above
A. quantity governing
B. quality governing 184. The knocking in S.I. engines gets
C. hit and mass governing reduced
D. none of the above A. increase in inlet air temperature
B. increase on compression ratio
179. Voltage developed to strike spark C. increase in cooling water
in the spark plug is in the range temperature
A. 6 to 10 volts D. all of the above
B. 1000 to 2000 volts
C. 20000 to 25000 volts 185. The knocking in S.I. engines gets
D. none of the above reduced
A. by increasing the compression
180. In a 4-cylinder petrol engine the ratio
standard firing order is B. by retarding the spark advance
A. 1-2-3-4 C. 1-3-2-4 C. by increasing inlet air temperature
B. 1-4-2-3 D. 1-3-4-2 D. by increasing the cooling water
temperature
181. The torque developed by the
engines is maximum 186. Increasing the compression ratio
A. at minimum speed of engine in S.I. engines
B. at maximum speed of engine A. increases the tendency for
C. at maximum volumetric knocking
efficiency speed of engine B. decreases the tendency for
D. at maximum power speed of knocking
engine C. does not affect knocking
D. none of the above
187. The knocking tendency in petrol C. absence of hot surfaces in the
engines will increase when end region of gas
A. speed is decreased D. all of the above
B. speed is increased
C. fuel-air ratio is made rich 193. Thermal efficiency of a gas
D. fuel-air ratio is made lean turbine plant as compared to Diesel
engine plant is
188. The ignition quality of fuels for S.I. A. higher
engines is determined by B. lower
A. cetane number rating C. same
B. octane number rating D. may be higher or lower
C. calorific value rating
D. volatility of the fuel 194. Mechanical efficiency of a gas
turbine as compared to internal
189. Petrol commercially available in combustion reciprocating engine is
India for Indian passenger cars has A. higher
octane number in the range B. lower
A. 40 to 50 C. 80 to 85 C. same
B. 60 to 70 D. 95 to 100 D. un-predictable

190. Octane number of the fuel used 195. For a gas turbine the pressure
commercially for diesel engine in ratio may be in the range
India is in the range A. 2 to 3 C. 16 to 18
A. 80 to 90 C. 60 to 70 B. 3 to 5 D. 18 to 22
B. 60 to 80 D. 40 to 45
196. The air standard efficiency of
191. The knocking tendency in C.I. closed gas turbine cycle is given by
engines increases with ( �� = pressure ratio for the
A. decrease of compression ratio compressor and turbine)
B. increase of compression ratio 1
A. η = 1 −
C. increasing the temperature of inlet (r1) y−1
air B. η = 1 − (rp )y−1
D. increasing cooling water �−�
�
temperature C. � = � − ( � ) �
�
�−1
192. Desirable characteristics of D.η = (rp ) �
–1
combustion chamber for S.I. engines
to avoid knock is 197. The work ratio of closed cycle
A. small bore gas turbine plant depends upon
B. short ratio of flame path to bore
 A. pressure ratio of the cycle and
specific heat ratio 202. In a two stage gas turbine plant,
B. temperature ratio of the cycle and reheating after first stage
specific heat ratio A. increases work ratio
C. pressure ratio, temperature B. decreases work ratio
ratio and specific heat ratio C. does not affect work ratio
D. only on pressure ratio D. none of the above

198. Thermal efficiency of closed cycle 203. In a two stage gas turbine plant,
gas turbine plant increases by with inter-cooling and reheating
A. reheating A. both work ratio and thermal
B. inter-cooling efficiency improve
C. regenerator B. work ratio improves but
D. all of the above thermal efficiency decreases
C. thermal efficiency improves but
199. With the increase in pressure work ratio decreases
ratio thermal efficiency of a single D. both work ratio and thermal
gas turbine plant with fixed turbine efficiency decreases
inlet temperature
A. decreases 204. For a jet propulsion unit, ideally
B. increases the compressor work and turbine
C. first increases and then work are
decreases A. equal
D. first decreases and then B. unequal
increases C. not related to each other
D. unpredictable
200. The thermal efficiency of a gas
turbine cycle with ideal generative 205. Greater the difference between
heat exchanger is jet velocity and aero plane velocity
A. equal to work ratio A. greater the propulsive efficiency
B. less than work ratio B. less the propulsive efficiency
C. more than work ratio C. unaffected is the propulsive
D. un-predictable efficiency
D. none of the above
201. In a two stage gas turbines plant
reheating after first stage 206. For starting gas turbine, the
A. decreases thermal efficiency turbine rotor is usually motored up to
B. increases thermal efficiency ‘coming in’ speed which is equal to
C. does not affect thermal efficiency A. rated speed of the gas turbine
D. none of the above
 B. half of the rated speed of the A. same
gas turbines B. lower
C. no relation with speed of the C. higher
turbine
213. Pelton turbines are mostly
207. The blades of the gas turbine A. horizontal
rotor are made of B. vertical
A. carbon steel C. inclined
B. stainless steel
C. high alloy steel 214. The annual depreciation of a
D. high nickel alloy (Nimic 80) hydro power plant is about
A. 0.5 to 1.5% C. 15 to 20%
208. Maximum temperature in a gas B. 10 to 15% D. 20 to 25%
turbine is of the order of
A. ���℃ C. 1600℃ 215. The power output from a hydro-
B. 900℃ D. 2100℃ electric power plant depends on
three parameters
209. In gas turbines, high thermal A. head, type of dam and discharge
efficiency is obtained in B. head, discharge and efficiency
A. closed cycle of the system
B. open cycle C. efficiency of the system, type of
C. in both the cycle draft tube and type of turbine
used
210. In a gas turbine plant, a D. type of dam, discharge and type
regenerator increases of catchment area
A. work output
B. pressure ratio 216. Water hammer is developed in a
C. thermal efficiency A. penstock
D. none of the above B. draft tube
C. turbine
211. Maximum combustion pressure in D. surge tank
a gas turbine is ….. as compared to
diesel engine 217. The function of a surge tank is
A. same A. to supply water at constant
B. less pressure
C. more B. to produce surges in the pipe line
C. to relieve water hammer
212. Capital cost of a gas turbine plant pressures in the penstock pipe
is ….. than that of a steam power
plant of same capacity
218. Gross head of a hydropower (Z) for Pelton turbine in terms of jet
station is ratio (m) is given by
A. the difference of water level in A. Ζ = 15 � + 0.5
the storage and tail trace B. � = �. � � + ��
�
B. the height of the water level C. Ζ = + 15
0.5
between the level in the storage
and tail trace 224. Francis turbine is usually used for
C. the height of the water level in the A. high heads
river where tail race is provided B. medium heads
C. low heads
219. Operating charges are minimum
in the case of ….. for same power 225. In high head hydro power plant
output the velocity of water in penstock is
A. gas turbine plant about
B. hydel plant A. 1 m/s C. 7 m/s
C. thermal plant B. 4 m/s D. 12 m/s
D. nuclear plant
226. Pelton turbine is suitable for high
220. Location of the surge tank in a head and
hydro electric station is near to the A. high discharge
A. tailrace B. low discharge
B. turbine C. both low and high discharge
C. reservoir
227. In reaction turbine, function of the
221. Pelton wheel turbine is used for draft tube is
minimum of the following heads A. to increase the flow rate\
A. 40 m C. 180 m or above B. to reduce water hammer effect
B. 120 m C. to convert kinetic energy of
water to potential energy by a
222. Running cost of a hydro-electric gradual expansion in divergent
power plant is part
A. equal to running cost of a steam
power plant 228. Francis turbine is usually used for
B. less than running cost of a steam A. low head installation up to 30 m
power plant B. medium head installation from
C. more than running cost of a 30 to 180 m
steam power plant C. high head installation above 180
m
223. The empirical relation for D. for all heads
determination of number of buckets
229. In Francis turbine runner, the 234. Reflectors of a nuclear reactor
number of blades is generally of the are made up of
order of A. boron C. beryllium
A. 1 – 2 C. 6 – 8 B. cost iron D. steel
B. 4 – 6 D. 12 – 16
235. The function of a moderator in a
230. Francis, Kaplan and propeller nuclear reactor is
turbines fall under the category of A. to slow down the fast moving
A. impulse turbine electrons
B. reaction turbine B. to speed up the slow moving
C. impulse reaction combined electrons
D. axial flow C. to start the chain reaction
D. to transfer heat produced inside
231. The specific speed ( �8 ) of the the reactor to a heat exchanger
turbine is given by
� � 236. When a nuclear reactor is
A. �� =
�� � operating at constant power the
B. N8 =
N P multiplication factor is
H3 4 A. less than unity
N P
C. N8 = B. greater than unity
H3 2
C. equal unity
N P
D. N8 = H2 3
D. none of the above

232. The expression for power output 237. The conversion ratio of a breeder
(P) in kW, of hydro electric station is reactor is
QwH η0 A. equal to unity
A. B. more than unity
0.736 x 75
B.
0.736 QwH C. less than unity
75 x η0 D. none of the above
75 QwH η0
C.
0.736
�.��� ��� �� 238. In the nuclear fission
D. reactions ….. isotope of uranium is
��
used
233. The average thermal efficiency of A. ���� C. U238
a modern nuclear power plant is B. U234
about
A. 30% C. 60% 239. Tarapur nuclear power plant has
B. 40% D. 80% A. pressurized water reactors
B. boiling reactor
C. CANDU type reactors
 245. Which of the following are fertile
240. Critical mass of fuel is the materials
amount required to make the A. U238 and Th239
multiplication factor ….. unity B. ���� and �����
A. equal to
C. U233 and Pu239
B. less than
C. more than D. U238 and Pu239

241. The nuclear energy is measured 246. In a nuclear reactor the function
as of a reflector is to
A. MeV A. reduce the speed of the neutrons
B. MW B. stops the chain reaction
C. Curie C. reflect the escaping neutrons
back into the core
242. Fission chain reaction is possible
when 247. In gas cooled reactor (GCR) …..
A. fission produces the same is used as moderator and coolant
number of neutrons which are respectively
absorbed A. heavy water and CO2
B. fission produces more B. graphite and air
neutrons than are absorbed C. graphite and ���
C. fission produces less neutrons D. none of the above
than are absorbed
D. none of the above 248. In a pressurized water reactor
(PWR)
243. In nuclear chain fission reaction, A. the coolant water is pressurized to
each neutron which causes fission work as moderator
produces B. the coolant water boils in the core
A. no new neutron of the reactor
B. one new neutron C. the coolant water is
C. more than one neutron pressurized to prevent boiling
water in the core
244. ….. is the most commonly used D. no moderator is used
moderator
A. Graphite 249. The function of the moderator in
B. Sodium a nuclear reactor is to
C. Deuterium A. stop chain reaction
D. Heavy water B. absorb neutron
C. reduce the speed of neutrons
D. reduce temperature
250. Thermal shielding is provided to B. statistical method
A. protects the walls of the reactor C. mathematical method
from radiation damage D. economic parameter
B. absorb the fast neutrons E. all of the above
C. protect the operating personnel
from exposure to radiation 256. Annual depreciation as per
D. (a), (b) and (c) above straight line method, is calculated by
E. (b) and (c) both A. the capital cost divided by number
F. none of the above of years of life
B. the capital cost minus the
251. A CANDU reactor uses salvage value, is divided by the
A. only fertile material number of years of life
B. highly enriched uranium C. investing a uniform sum of money
(85%U )235 per annum at stipulated rate of
C. natural uranium as fuel and interest
heavy water as moderator and
coolant 257. A consumer has to pay lesser
fixed charges in
A. flat rate tariff
252. Fission of U235 releases …..
B. two part tariff
energy
C. maximum demand tariff
A. 200 MeV
B. 238 MeV
258. In two part tariff, variation in load
C. 431 MeV
factor will affect
A. fixed charges
253. Fast breed reactors are best
B. operation or running charges
suited for India because
C. both (a) or (b)
A. of large thorium deposits
B. of large uranium deposits
259. In India the tariff for charging the
C. of large plutonium deposits
consumers for the consumption of
electricity is base on
254. A load curve indicates
A. straight meter rate
A. average power used during the
B. block meter rate
period
C. reverse form of block meter
B. average kWh (kW) energy
rate
consumption during the period
D. two part tariff
C. neither (a) or (b)

260. In Hopkinson demand rate or two

255. Approximate estimation of power
part tariff the demand rate or fixed
demand can be made by
charges are
A. load survey method
 A. dependent upon the energy E. (a), (b) and (c)
consumed
B. dependent upon the maximum 266. Temperature attained by a flat-
demand of the consumer plate collector is of the
C. both (a) and (b) A. order of about ��℃
D. none of the above B. range of 100℃ to 150℃
C. above 150℃
261. The function of a solar collector is D. none of the above
to convert
A. solar energy into electricity 267. A pyranometer is used for
B. solar energy into radiation measurement of
C. solar energy into thermal A. direct radiation only
energy B. diffuse radiation only
C. direct as well as diffuse
262. Most of the solar radiation radiation
received on earth surface lies within
the range of 268. Sun tracking is needed in the
A. 0.2 to 0.4 microns case of
B. 0.38 to 0.78 microns A. flat late collector
C. 0 to 0.38 microns B. cylindrical parabolic and
263. Insulation is referred to as paraboloid
A. direct radiation received at any C. both (a) and (b)
time
B. diffuse radiation received at any 269. In a solar collector the function of
time the transparent cover is to
C. both (a) and (b) A. transmit solar radiation only
D. none of the above B. protect the collector from dust
C. decrease the heat loss from
264. Flat plate collector absorbs collector beneath to
A. direct radiation only atmosphere
B. diffuse radiation only
C. direct and diffuse both 270. Temperature attained by
cylindrical parabolic collector is of
265. Main applications of solar energy the range of
may be considered in the following A. 50 to 100°C
categories B. 100 to 150°C
A. solar electric applications C. 150 to 300°C
B. fuel from bio-mass D. 300 to 500°C
C. direct-thermal applications
D. both (a) and (b)
271. Most widely used material of a A. Mexico C. Russia
solar cell is B. Italy D. California
A. arsenic C. silicon
B. cadmium D. steel 278. Geothermal plant is suitable for
A. base load power
272. Photovoltaic cell or solar cell B. peak load power
converts C. none
A. thermal energy into electricity
B. electromagnetic radiation 279. A geothermal field may yield
directly into electricity A. hot water
C. solar radiation into thermal energy B. wet steam
C. dry steam
273. Maximum wind energy available D. (a), (b) and (c)
is proportional to
A. square of the diameter of rotor 280. Geothermal power plants as
B. air density compared to fossil fuel plant have ….
C. cube of the wind velocity Load factor
D. (a), (b) and (c) A. equal
B. lower
274. …. Type of wind mill is of simple C. higher
design
A. Horizontal axis wind mill 281. Geothermal steam and hot water
B. Vertical axis wind mill may contain
C. None A. NH3
B. ��� �
275. Cost of wind energy generator C. H2 S, NH3 and radon gas
compared to conventional power
plant for the same power output is 282. Fuel cells have conversion
A. equal efficiencies of the order of
B. lower A. 20% C. 50%
C. higher B. 30% D. 70%

276. The turbine which is normally 283. Fuel cell is a device in which
used in a tidal power plant is A. chemical energy is converted
A. simple impulse type into electricity
B. reversible type B. heat energy is first converted into
C. propeller type chemical energy
C. heat energy is converted into
277. Largest geothermal plant in electricity
operation is in
284. The nature of the current B. lower
developed by MHD generator is C. higher
A. direct current
B. alternating current 290. Thermoelectric energy
C. either direct or alternating conversion is due to
A. radiation
285. In MHD generator the conductor B. emission effect
employed is C. thermal energy
A. gas
B. liquid metal 291. The working principle of
C. liquid metal or gas thermoelectric generator is based on
D. none of the above the principle of
A. Hall
286. Seeding material which is added B. Seebeck
with the working fluid in MHD C. Faraday
generator is used for D. None of the above
A. decreasing the conductivity of the
gas 292. Materials which are employed for
B. increasing the conductivity of electrodes in thermoelectric
the gas generators are of
C. creating no effect on conductivity A. insulators
B. semi-conductor
287. Power output per unit volume of C. metals
an MHD generator is proportional to D. conductors
A. square of the magnetic flux
density 293. Thermionic converter utilizes
B. electrical conductivity of the gas A. Thermionic emission effect
C. square of the fluid velocity B. Peltier effect
D. all of the above C. Seebeck effect

288. Bio-gas consists of 294. In which of the following power

A. only methane plants the availability of power is
B. methane and ��� with some least reliable?
impurities A. Tidal power plant
C. a special organic gas B. Wind energy
D. none of the above C. Solar power plant
D. Geothermal power plant
289. The main by product of the bio-
gas plant is 295. Bulb turbines are …… turbines
A. bio-gas A. low head
 B. high head
C. high speed 302. Presence of sulphur in the fuel is
D. high pressure considered to be desirable.
(YES / NO)
296. The voltage of a single solar cell 303. Hydrogen is the main constituent
is of coal. (YES / NO)
A. 0.2 V C. 1.0 V
B. 0.5 V D. 2.0 V 304. ….. is the first stage in the
297. The output of a solar cell is of the formation of coal from wood.
order of Ans: Peat
A. 1W C. 10 W 305. Bituminous coal has low
B. 5 W D. 20 W percentage of volatile matter.
(YES / NO)
298. Solar cell, for power generation, 306. Anthracite is very ….. coal
entail the following major Ans: hard
disadvantage 307. Wood charcoal is obtained by
A. variable power destructive distillation of wood.
B. high cost (YES / NO)
C. lack of availability 308. Liquid fuels require large space
D. large area requirement for storage. (YES / NO)

299. Power is primarily Reflecting 309. The main constituents of natural

mirrors used for exploiting solar gas are methane and ethane.
energy are called (YES / NO)
A. mantle C. diffusers 310. Water gas is produced by
B. ponds D. heliostats blowing …… into white hot coke or
coal.
300. For satellites the source of Ans: Steam
energy is 311. Capital cost of hydro-plants is
A. cryogenic storage less than diesel power station.
B. battery (YES / NO)
C. solar cell 312. A normal working life of 10 years
D. any of the above is estimated for windmills.
E. none of the above (YES / NO)
313. The amount of excess air
B: Fill in the Blanks/Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ supplied varies with the type of fuel
and the firing conditions.
301. 1 kg of uranium is equivalent to (YES / NO)
energy obtained by 4500 tonnes of 314. Total weight of carbon in one kg
high grade coal. (YES / NO) of flue gas is
2
CO2 +
3
CO
5 7
 (YES / NO) duration curved and anticipated
315. Electrical energy cannot be easily future demands. (YES / NO)
transported from one place to
another. (YES / NO) 326. A generator must operate
economically at full load.
316. Power is primarily associated (YES / NO)
with mechanical work and electrical 327. The consumption of steam per
energy. (YES / NO) kWh …… with the increase pressure.
Ans: decreases
317. A chemical fuel does not release 328. A belt conveyor is very suitable
heat energy on combustion. means of transporting small
(YES / NO) quantities of coal over small
318. Liquid fuels are less distances. (YES / NO)
advantageous in comparison to solid
fuels. (YES / NO) 329. ….. conveyor is not suitable to
greater heights and short distances.\
319. The operating cost of a hydro- Ans: Belt
electric plant is very high. 330. Flight conveyor requires little
(YES / NO) operational care. (YES / NO)
320. When ….. burns in the presence
of oxygen the combustion products 331. A ….. is a power operated fuel
are carbon-dioxide and water feeding mechanism and grate.
vapours. Ans: stoker
Ans: methane 332. In stoker firing cheap grade of
321. Carnot cycle efficiency =
T1 − T2
. fuel cannot be used. (YES / NO)
T2
(YES / NO) 333. In case of overfeed stokers, the
322. Carnot cycle gives the ….. coal is fed into the grate above the
Thermal efficiency. point of air admission. (YES / NO)
Ans: highest
323. Industrial power plants or captive 334. Spreader stokers can burn any
power plants are normally non- type of coal. (YES / NO)
condensing. (YES / NO)
335. The ….. principle is suitable for
324. The cooling water supply to the burning the semi-bituminous and
condenser helps in maintaining a low bituminous coals.
pressure in it. (YES / NO) Ans: underfeed
336. The amount of air which is used
325. The power plant capacity can be to carry the coal and to dry it before
determined by studying the load
 entering into the combustion 347. The removal the mud and other
chamber is known as secondary air. impurities of water from the lowest
(YES / NO) part of the boilers is termed as
337. Coal is pulverized in order to ‘blowing off’. (YES / NO)
increase its surface exposure, thus
promoting rapid combustion without 348. Shell diameter of the Cochran
using large quantities of excess air. boiler is about 5 m. (YES / NO)
(YES / NO)
338. In burners, too much secondary 349. Sterling water tube boiler is an
air can cool the mixture and prevent example of …. Tube boiler.
its heating to ignition temperature. Ans: bent
(YES / NO) 350. LaMont boiler works on a forced
339. A turbulent burner is also called a circulation and the circulation is
long flame burner. (YES / NO) maintained by a centrifugal pump,
driven by a steam turbine using
340. A wick burner is suitable for steam from the boiler. (YES / NO)
models or domestic appliances.
(YES / NO) 351. Velox boiler makes use of
341. A ….. may be defined as the bed pressurized combustion.
of solid particles behaving as a fluid (YES / NO)
Ans: fluidised 352. The feed pump is used to heat
342. The ‘collection efficiency’ of dust the feed water. (YES / NO)
collector is the amount of dust
remove per unit weight of dust. 353. The function of an injector is to
(YES / NO) feed water into the boiler.
343. The small pressure difference (YES / NO)
which causes a flow of gas to take 354. An ….. is a device in which the
place is termed as …… waste heat of the flue gases is
Ans: draught utilized for heating the feed water.
344. Forced draught is negative Ans: ecnonomiser
pressure drop. (YES / NO) 355. The function of the air pre-heater
is to decrease the temperature of air
345. Steam jet draught is a simple and before it enters the furnace.
easy method of producing artificial (YES / NO)
draught. (YES / NO) 356. The function of a super heater is
to ….. the temperature of the steam.
346. The boilers which produce steam Ans: increase
at pressures of 20 bar and above 357. The function of a steam separator
called high pressure boilers. is to remove the entrained water
(YES / NO)
 particles from the steam conveyed to produces steam at higher velocities
the steam engine turbine. as compared to convergent nozzle.
(YES / NO) (YES / NO)
358. Feed water heating with steam at 366. The steam turbine is a prime-over
a lower pressure than the boiler in which kinetic energy of steam
pressure usually decreases overall transformed into potential energy.
plant efficiency. (YES / NO) (YES / NO)
367. In an impulse turbine there is a
359. Jet type open heaters do not gradual pressure drop and takes
work well at low pressures, place continuously over the fixed and
especially at sub-atmospheric moving blades. (YES / NO)
pressure. (YES / NO)
368. Velocity compounding method is
360. For good performance feed water used in Ratean and Zoelly turbines.
heaters must be drained and vented. (YES / NO)
(YES / NO) 369. In general, optimum blade speed
361. Factor of evaporation is defined ratio ( � ) for maximum blade
as the ratio of heat received by 1 kg efficiency or maximum work done is
of water under working conditions to given by
that received by 1kg of water cos �
�=
evaporated from and at 0°C. 2�

(YES / NO) Where � = ������ �����

362. If the boiler, economizer and
super-heater are considered as a � = number of moving/rotating blade
single unit, then the boiler efficiency rows in series. (YES / NO)
is termed as …… efficiency of the
370. Velocity-compounded impulse
boiler plant.
turbine has ….. steam consumption
Ans: overall
and ….. efficiency.
363. Heat recovery equipment does
Ans: high, low
not include economizer and super-
371. The degree of reaction of
heater. (YES / NO)
reaction turbine stage is defined as
the ratio of heat drop over fixed
364. A steam nozzle may be defined
blades to the total heat drop in the
as a passage of varying cross-
stage. (YES / NO)
section, through which heat energy.
(YES / NO)
372. It is the overall or net efficiency of
365. In a convergent-divergent nozzle,
a turbine is spoken of without
because of the higher expansion
qualification. (YES /NO)
ratio, addition of divergent portion
373. The efficiency of steam turbine is 383. In a cooling pond some spray or
considerably reduced if throttle cooling devices are employed.
governing is carried out at low loads. (YES / NO)
(YES / NO) 384. In a cooling tower water is made
374. Nozzle control cam only be to trickle down drop by drop so that it
applied to reaction turbines. comes in contact with the air moving
(YES / NO) in the …. direction.
375. A steam condenser is a device or Ans: opposite
an appliance in which steam 385. In ….. draught cooling towers the
condenses and heat released by fans are placed at the top of the
steam is absorbed by water. tower and they draw the air in
(YES / NO) through louvers extending all around
376. In jet condensers the exhaust the tower at its base.
steam and water do not come in Ans: induced
direct contact which each other. 386. The formation of scale reduces
(YES / NO) heat transfer and simultaneously
377. In counter-flow type jet raises the temperature of the metal
condenser the steam and cooling wall. (YES / NO)
water enter the condenser from …..
directions. 387. Sodium carbonate is essentially
Ans: opposite responsible for the scale formation.
378. Low level counter flow jet (YES / NO)
condenser is also called barometric 388. The carbon-dioxide is next to
condenser. (YES / NO) oxygen which is responsible for
379. In an injector condenser the corrosion. (YES / NO)
exhaust steam and cooling water mix
in hollow truncated ….. 389. Water solids carried over in the
Ans: cones steam leaving in a boiler drum are
380. A jet condenser entails high called “carry over”. (YES / NO)
manufacturing cost. (YES / NO)
390. Deposits on turbine blade
381. The vacuum efficiency is defined increase the efficiency. (YES / NO)
as the ratio of maximum obtainable
vacuum to actual vacuum. 391. ‘Foaming’ is the weakening of
(YES / NO) boiler steel as a result of inner
382. An air pump which removes the crystalline cracks. (YES / NO)
moist air alone is called a dry …..
pump. 392. Coagulation is the process in
Ans: air which water is allowed to stand at
 stand-still in big tanks so that solid mechanical work is termed as a …..
matter settles down. (YES / NO) engine.
Ans: heat
393. The process of removing 403. In an I.C. engine the combustion
dissolved oxygen is known as ….. of fuel takes place outside the
Ans: deaeration engine cylinder. (YES / NO)
394. Zeolites almost completely
remove hardness but do not reduce 404. The inside diameter of the
alkalinity or total solids. (YES / NO) cylinder is called …..

395. Demineralization is often the Ans: bore

most costly method of producing 405. The top most position of the
make up water for high pressure piston towards cover end side of the
boilers. (YES / NO) cylinder is called bottom dead centre.
(YES / NO)
396. ….. value of water is the
logarithm of the reciprocal of 406. The …. ratio is the ratio of total
hydrogen ion concentration. cylinder volume to clearance volume.
Ans: pH Ans: compression
397. The steam pipes for high 407. The average speed of the piston
temperature applications are is called the piston speed.
manufactured from mild steels. (YES / NO)
(YES / NO) 408. Spark plug is used in a diesel
398. Chromium improves corrosion engine. (YES / NO)
and oxidation resistance.
(YES / NO) 409. Petrol engine is used in cars and
399. The standby losses in diesel motor cycle. (YES / NO)
power plants are less. (YES / NO) 410. In a petrol engine the power is
produced by compression ignition.
400. A diesel power plant can respond (YES / NO)
to varying load without any difficulty. 411. Engines driving electrical
(YES / NO) generators have lower speeds and
401. The cost of building and civil simple combustion chambers.
engineering works in case of diesel (YES / NO)
power plant is high. (YES / NO) 412. In an I.C. engine the temperature
of the gases inside the engine
402. Any type of engine or machine cylinder may vary from 35°C or less
which derives heat energy from the to as high as 2750°C during the
combustion of fuel or any other cycle. (YES / NO)
source and converts this energy into
413. The major short coming of (YES / NO)
thermo-siphon cooling is that cooling 424. A heat exchanger is usually used
depends only on the temperature in large gas turbine units for marine
and is independent of the engine propulsion or industrial power.
speed. (YES / NO) (YES / NO)
425. The specific heat of helium at
414. Lubrication is the admittance of constant pressure is about two times
oil between two surfaces having no that of air. (YES / NO)
relative motion. (YES / NO)
426. The main demerit associated with
415. Splash system is used on some constant volume combustion turbine
small 4-stroke stationary engines. is that the pressure differences and
(YES / NO) velocities of hot gases are not
416. Semi-pressure system of constant, so the turbine speed
lubrication is a combination of splash fluctuates. (YES / NO)
and pressure systems. (YES / NO)
427. ….. gas is the ideal fuel for gas
417. Dry sump lubrication is generally turbine, but this is not available
adopted for high capacity engines. everywhere.
(YES / NO) Ans: natural
418. Mist lubrication system is used 428. Blast furnace and producer gas
for 4-stroke cycle engines. cannot be used for gas turbine
(YES / NO) power plant. (YES / NO)
419. The compressed air system is
commonly used for starting large 429. Liquid fuels of petroleum origin
diesel engines employed for such as distillate oils and residual
stationary power plant service. oils are most commonly used for gas
(YES / NO) turbine plant. (YES / NO)
420. In general, lower the cetane
numbers higher are the hydrocarbon 430. Minerals like sodium, vanadium
emissions and noise level. and calcium prove very harmful for
(YES / NO) turbine blading. (YES / NO)
421. Higher the cetane rating of the
fuel the higher is the propensity for 431. There exists an optimum
diesel knock. (YES / NO) pressure ratio producing maximum
thermal efficiency for given turbine
422. Gas turbines are self starting. inlet temperature. (YES / NO)
(YES / NO)
423. In almost all the fields open cycle
gas turbine plants are used.
432. The centrifugal compressor the
capacity varies inversely as the 440. The water behind the dam at the
speed ratio. (YES / NO) plant is called storage. (YES / NO)

433. The centrifugal compressor is 441. A weir is a low overflow dam

superior to the axial flow machine in across a stream for measuring flow
that a high pressure ratio can be or maintain water level, as a lake
obtained in a short rugged single outlet. (YES / NO)
stage machine, though at the cost of
lower efficiency and increased frontal 442. A dike is an embankment to
area. (YES / NO) confine water. (YES / NO)
434. The primary function of the ….. is
to provide for the chemical reaction 443. A levee is a dike near the bank of
of the fuel and air being supplied by the river to protect low land against
the compressor. overflow. (YES / NO)
Ans: combustor
435. Free-piston engine plants are the 444. A buttress dam has a vertical
conventional gas turbine plants with upstream face. (YES / NO)
the difference that the air
compressor and combustion 445. An emergency spillway comes
chamber are replaced by a free into action when the occurring flood
piston engine. (YES / NO) discharge exceeds the designed
flood discharge. (YES / NO)
436. In an interconnected system the
peak load is supplied by hydropower 446. A siphon spillway is designed on
when the maximum flow demand is the principle of a …..
less than the stream flow while Ans: siphon
steam plant supplies the base load. 447. A headrace is a channel which
(YES / NO) conducts water from the wheels.
437. The power plant should be set (YES / NO)
up …. The load centre. 448. A canal is an open waterway
Ans: near evacuated in natural ground.
438. The whole area behind the dam (YES / NO)
draining into a stream or river across 449. A flume is a closed channel
which the dam has been built at a erected on the surface or supported
suitable place is called ‘catchment above the ground on a trestle.
area’. (YES / NO) (YES / NO)
450. A tunnel is an open channel
439. Water held in upstream reservoir excavated through a natural
is called pondage. (YES / NO) obstruction. (YES / NO)
 462. In a reaction turbine the pressure
451. A pipeline is a closed ….. usually energy of water is converted into
supported on or above the surface of kinetic energy. (YES / NO)
the land.
Ans: conduit 463. The plants which cater for the
452. A ….. is a close conduit for base load of the system are called
supplying water under pressure to base load plants. (YES / NO)
turbine.
Ans: penstock 464. Microhydel plants make use of
453. Open channels are generally very standardized bulb sets with unit
expensive. (YES / NO) output ranging from 100 to 1000 kW
454. Tunnels are generally the most working under heads between 1.5 to
costly type of conduit for a given 1.0 meters. (YES / NO)
length. (YES / NO)
465. A hydraulic turbine converts the
455. Penstocks are used where the potential energy of water into
slope is too great for a canal. mechanical energy. (YES / NO)
(YES / NO)
456. Reinforces concrete penstocks 466. The specific speed of a turbine is
are suitable up to 5 m head. defined as the speed of a
(YES / NO) geometrically similar turbine that
457. Steel penstocks can be designed would develop one brake
for any head, with the thickness horsepower under a head of 2
varying with the pressure and meters. (YES / NO)
diameter. (YES / NO)
N Pt
467. Specific speed, Ns = H3/4
458. Exposed penstocks last longer
Where:
and are more accessible for
N = the normal working speed (r.p.m)
inspection and maintenance.
�� = power output of the turbine
(YES / NO)
459. Overflow surge tank is very H = the net of effective head (m)
satisfactory and economical. (YES / NO)
(YES / NO) 468. Turbines with low specific speeds
460. Inclined surge tank is more costly work under a ….. head and ……
than ordinary type. (YES / NO) discharge condition.
Ans: high, low
461. Restricted orifice surge tank is 469. The Pelton wheel is a tangential
also called ….. surge tank. flow impulse turbine. (YES / NO)
Ans: throttled
470. The hydraulic efficiency of a
Pelton wheel is maximum when the
 velocity of the wheel is
3
th the 480. ….. regulation is satisfactory
4
when a relatively large penstock
velocity of the jet of water at inlet.
feeds a small turbine and the
(YES / NO)
fluctuation of load is small.
471. In a Pelton wheel the angle of
Ans: Spear
deflection of the jet through the
481. Hydrology is a science which
buckets is taken as 120°C if no angle
deals with the depletion and
of deflection is given. (YES / NO)
replenishment of water resources.
(YES / NO)
472. In reaction turbine the runner
482. ….. includes all the water that
utilizes both potential and kinetic
falls from atmosphere to earth
energies. (YES / NO)
surface.
Ans: Precipitation
473. In ….. turbine the ratio of width of
483. Transfer of water from liquid to
the wheel to its diameter varies from
vapour state is called transpiration.
0.10 to 0.4
(YES / NO)
Ans: Francis
484. Run-off can also be names as
474. In Francis turbine the flow ratio
discharge or stream flow.
varies from 0.4 to 0.6. (YES / NO)
(YES / NO)
485. Hydrograph indicates the power
475. In the propeller turbine the blades
available from the stream at different
are adjustable. (YES / NO)
times of day, week or year.
(YES / NO)
476. The runner of two low specific
486. The basic concept of unit
speeds with low available head
hydrograph is that hydrographs of
increases the cost of generator due
run-off from two identical storms
to the …… turbine speed.
would not be the same.
Ans: low
(YES / NO)
477. An increase in specific speed of
487. Flow duration curve is plotted
turbine is accompanied by lower
between flows available during a
maximum efficiency and greater
period versus the fraction of time.
depth of excavation of the draft tube.
(YES / NO)
(YES / NO)
488. Flow duration curve cannot be
478. The ratio of the volume of the
used for preliminary studies.
water actually striking the runner to
(YES / NO)
the volume of water supplied to the
489. The ‘firm power’ is also known as
turbine is called ….. efficiency.
the primary ‘power’. (YES / NO)
Ans: volumetric
479. The cavitations effect cannot be
reduced by polishing the surfaces.
(YES / NO)
490. A ‘mass curve’ is the graph of the 499. The intensity of emitted radiation
cumulative values of water quantity is termed …….
(run off) against time. (YES / NO) Ans: activity
500. Half life represents the rate of
491. The mass curve will always have decay of the radioactive isotopes.
a negative value. (YES / NO) (YES / NO)
501. The mean life is twice half life.
492. Those pairs of atoms which have (YES / NO)
the same atomic number and hence 502. During a nuclear reaction, the
similar chemical properties but change in mass of the particle
different atomic mass number are represents the release or absorption
called. …… of energy. (YES / NO)
Ans: isotopes
493. Those atoms whose nuclei have 503. When a fast moving neutron hits
the same number of neutrons are the �238 nucleus, the nucleus is
called. ….. excited and there is an emission of
Ans: isotones gamma quantum. (YES / NO)
494. The phenomenon of spontaneous
emission of powerful radiations 504. When the nucleus is excited too
exhibited by light elements is called much, its split into four mostly equal
radio activity. (YES / NO) masses. (YES / NO)

495. Radioactive radiations are less 505. Cross-sections are measures of

penetrating. (YES / NO) the probability that a given reaction
will take place between a nucleus or
496. Prompt-fissions gamma rays are nuclei and incident radiation.
produced as a results of the (YES / NO)
fissioning of s �235 (or other fissile 506. …… is accompanied by the
material) nucleus. (YES / NO) emission of neutrons and gamma
rays.
497. Capture gamma ray are emitted Ans: Fission
by nucleus of an atom 507. The release of about 1.2
instantaneously upon the capture of neutrons / fission makes it possible
a neutron. (YES / NO) to produce sustained fissioning.
(YES / NO)
498. The amount of mass defect is 508. Chain reaction is that process in
inversely proportional to the amount which the number of neutrons keeps
of energy released. (YES / NO) on multiplying rapidly (in geometrical
progression) during fission till whole
 of the fissionable material is 518. In a pressurized water reactor
disintegrated. (YES / NO) (PWR) water acts both as coolant as
well as moderator. (YES / NO)
509. If K (multiplication factor) > 1,
chain reaction cannot be maintained. 519. In a boiling water reactor
(YES / NO) enriched fuel is used. (YES / NO)
510. The minimum quantity of fuel
required for any specific reactor 520. In a gas cooled reactor there is
system is called the ‘critical mass’. ample corrosion problem.
(YES / NO) (YES / NO)
511. ‘Nucleus fusion’ is the process of 521. Sodium-graphite reactor is one of
combining or fusing two lighter nuclei the typical metal reactors.
into a stable and heavier nuclide. (YES / NO)
(YES / NO) 522. The specific power of a breeder
512. In heterogeneous reactor the fuel reactor is very high. (YES / NO)
and moderator are mixed to form a
homogeneous material. 523. The proportion of the fissile
(YES / NO) material in the fuel is of considerable
513. Light water, heavy water and importance in determining the critical
graphite are the most common size of the reactor. (YES / NO)
moderators used in reactors.
(YES / NO) 524. The capital cost of a nuclear
514. A …. reactor converts fertile power station is always high.
materials into fissionable materials (YES / NO)
such as U238 and Th232 to Pu239 and 525. The maintenance cost of a
U233 respectively besides the power nuclear power station is always low.
production. (YES / NO)
Ans: breeder
515. The reflector of the reactor
consists of an assemblage of fuel
elements, control rods, and coolant.
(YES / NO)
516. In a nuclear reactor the function
of a moderator is to slow down the
neutron from high velocities.
(YES / NO)
517. A reactor coolant should have
high viscosity. (YES / NO)
ECONOMIC OF POWER GENERATION

1. Load factor of a power station is defined as

A. maximum demand/average load C. average load/maximum demand
B. average load x maximum demand D.(������� ���� � ������� ������)1/2
2. Load factor of a power station is generally
A. equal to unity B. less than unity C. more than unity D. equal to zero
3. Diversity factor is always
A. equal to unity B. less than unity C. more than unity D. more than twenty
4. Load factor for heavy industries may be taken as
A. 10 to 20% B. 25 to 40% C. 50 to 70% D. 70 to 80%
5. The load factor of domestic load is usually
A. 10 to 15% B. 30 to 40% C. 50 to 60% D. 60 to 70%
6. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
A. sinking fund method C. both (a) and (b)
B. straight line method D. none of the above
7. Depreciation charges are high in case of
A. thermal plant B. diesel plant C. hydroelectric plant
8. Demand factor is defined as
A. average load/maximum load C. connected load/maximum demand
B. maximum demand/connected load D. average load x maximum load
9. High load factor indicates
A. cost of generation per unit power is increased
B. total plant capacity is utilized for most of the time
C. total plant capacity is not properly utilized for most of the time
D. none of the above
10. A load curve indicates
A. average power used during the period
B. average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the period
C. either of the above
D. none of the above
11. Approximate estimation of power demand can be made by
A. load survey method C. mathematical E. all of the above
B. statistical method D. economic parameters
12. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is calculated by
A. the capital cost divided by number of year of life
B. the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by the number of years of life
C. increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at stipulated rate of interest
D. none of the above
13. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in
A. flat rate tariff C. maximum demand tariff
B. two part tariff D. any of the above
14. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will affect
A. fixed charges C. both (a) and (b)
B. operating or running charges D. either (a) or (b)
15. In Hopkinson demand rate or two part tariff the demand rate or fixed charges are
A. dependent upon the energy consumed
B. dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer
C. both (a) and (b)
 D. neither (a) or (b)
16. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor?
A. peak load plant B. base load plant C. nuclear power plant D. hydro electric plant
17. The area under a load curve gives
A. average demand B. energy demand C. maximum demand D. none of the above
18. Different generating stations use following prime movers
A. diesel engine C. gas turbine E. any of the above
B. hydraulic turbine D. steam turbine
19. Diversity factor has direct effect on the
A. fixed cost unit generated C. both (a) and (b)
B. running cost of unit generated D. neither (a) and (b)
20. Following power plant has instant starting
A. nuclear power plant C. both (b) and (c)
B. hydro power plant D. none of the above
21. Which of the following generating station has minimum running cost
A. Nuclear B. Hydro C. Thermal D. Diesel
22. Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed rated capacity will have utilization
factor
A. equal to unity B. less than unity C. more than unity D. none of the above
23. Load curve is useful in deciding the
A. operating schedule of generating unit C. total installed capacity of the plant
B. sizes of generating units D. all of the above
24. Load curve of a power plant has always
A. zero slope C. negative slope
B. positive slope D. any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
25. Annual operating expenditure of power plant consists of
A. fixed charges B. semi-fixed charges C. running charges D. all of the above
26. Maximum demand on a power plant is
A. the greatest of all “short time interval averaged” demand during a period
B. instantaneous maximum value of kVA supplied during a period
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
27. Annual installment towards depreciation reduces as rate of interest increases with
A. sinking fund depreciation C. reducing balances depreciation
B. straight line depreciation D. none of the above
28. Annual depreciation of the plant is proportional to the earning capacity of the plant vide
A. sinking fund depreciation C. reducing balances depreciation
B. straight line depreciation D. none of the above
29. For high value of diversity factor, a power station of given installed capacity will be in a position to
supply
A. less number of consumers C. neither (a) nor (b)
B. more number of consumers D. either (a) or (b)
30. Salvage value of the plant is always
A. positive B. negative C. zero D. any of the above
31. Load curve helps in deciding
A. total installed capacity of the plant C. operating schedule of generating units
B. sizes of the generating units D. all of the above
32. ___ can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrolled times
A. solar power plant C. wind power plant
 B. tidal power plant D. any of the above
33. Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible through
A. fuel cell B. batteries C. thermionic converter D. all of the above
34. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
A. plant is used for stand by purpose only
B. plant is under maintenance
C. plant is used for base load only
D. plant is used for peak load as well as base load
35. Which of the following is not a source of power?
A. thermocouple B. photovoltaic cell C. solar cell D. photoelectric cell
36. Which of the following should be used for extinguishing electrical fires?
A. Water C. foam type fire extinguisher
B. Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher D. ��2 fire extinguisher
37. Low power factor is usually not due to
A. arc lamps B. induction motor C. fluorescent tubes D. incandescent lamp
38. Ships are generally powered by
A. nuclear power plant C. diesel engines E. none of the above
B. hydraulic turbines D. steam turbines
39. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is possible through
A. fuel cells B. solar cells C. MHD generators D. none of the above
40. Which of the following place is nor associated with nuclear power plants in India?
A. Narora B. Tarapur C. Kota D. Benglore
41. During load shedding
A. system power factor is changed C. system voltage is reduced
B. some load are switched off D. system frequency is reduced
42. Efficiency is the secondary consideration in which of the following plants?
A. base load plants C. both (a) and (b)
B. peak load plants D. none of the above
43. Air will not be the working substances in which of the following?
A. closed cycle gas turbine C. diesel engine
B. open cycle gas turbine D. petrol engine
44. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
A. peak load plant C. stand-by plant E. any of the above
B. base load plant D. spinning reserve plant
45. ____ power plant is expected to have the longest life.
A. steam B. diesel C. hydroelectric D. any of the above
46. ____ power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW.
A. hydroelectric C. steam E. any of the above
B. nuclear D. diesel
47. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not a fixed cost?
A. fuel cost B. interest on capital C. depreciation D. insurance charges
48. ____ will offer the least load
A. vacuum cleaner B. television C. hair dryer D. electric shaver
49. In _____ fuel transportation cost is least
A. nuclear power plants C. steam power stations
B. diesel generating power plants
50. Which of the following equipments provides fluctuating load?
A. exhaust fan B. lathe machine C. welding transformer D. all of the above
51. The increased load during summer months is due to
 A. increased business activity C. increased use of fans and air conditioners
B. increased water supply D. none of the above
52. ____ is the reserved generating capacity available for service under emergency conditions which is
not kept in operation but in working order
A. hot reserve B. cold reserve C. spinning reserve D. firm power
53. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and ready to take load when switched on is known as
____
A. firm power B. cold reserve C. hot reserve D. spinning reserve
54. ____ offers the highest electric load
A. television set B. toaster C. vacuum cleaner D. washing machine
55. ____ industry has the least power consumption per tonne of product.
A. soap B. sugar C. vegetable oil D. caustic soda
56. With reference to a power station which of the following is not a fixed cost?
A. fuel cost B. interest on capital C. insurance charges D. depreciation
57. ____ is invariably used as base load plant
A. diesel engine plant C. gas turbine plant
B. nuclear power plant D. pumped storage plant
58. In a power plant if the maximum demand on the plant is equal to the plant capacity, then
A. plant reserve capacity will be zero C. load factor will be unity
B. diversity factor will be unity D. load factor will be nearly 60%
59. In case of ____ fuel transportation is the major problem
A. diesel power plants C. hydro-electric power plants
B. nuclear power plants D. thermal power plants
60. Which of the following power plants need the least period for installation
A. thermal power plant C. nuclear power plant
B. diesel power plant D. hydro-electric power plant
61. For which of the following power plants highly skilled engineers are required for running the plants?
A. nuclear power plants C. solar power plants
B. gas turbine power plants D. hydro-electric power plants
62. In which of the following power plants the maintenance cost is usually high?
A. nuclear power plants C. thermal power plants
B. hydro-electric power plants D. diesel engine power plants
63. ____ is invariably used for peak load
A. nuclear power plant C. pumped storage plant
B. steam turbine plant D. none of the above
64. Which of the following is not an operating cost?
A. maintenance cost C. salaries of high officials
B. fuel cost D. salaries of operating staff
65. Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load plant?
A. it should run at high speed C. it should be small in size
B. it should produce high voltage D. it should be capable of starting quickly
66. Large capacity generators are invariably
A. water cooled B. natural air cooled C. force air cooled D. hydrogen cooled
67. By the use of which of the following power factor can be improved?
A. phase advancers’ C. static capacitors
B. synchronous compensators D. any of the above
68. An induction motor has relatively high power factor at
A. rated rpm C. 20 percent load E. none of the above
B. no load D. near full load
69. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low power factor?
A. poor voltage regulation C. high cost of equipment for a given load
B. increased transmission losses D. all of the above
70. In a distribution system, in order to improve power factor, the synchronous capacitors are installed
A. at the receiving end C. either (a) or (b)
B. at the sending end D. none of the above
71. Static capacitors are rated in terms of
A. kW B. kWh C. kVAR D. none of the above
72. Base load plants usually have ___capital cost, ____ operating cost and ____ load factor.
A. high, high, high B. high, low, high C. low, low, low D. low, high, low
73. Which of the following is the advantage of a synchronous condenser?
A. high maintenance cost C. noise
B. continuous losses in motor D. all of the above
74. For a consumer the most economical power factor is generally
A. 0.5 lagging B. 0.5 leading C. 0.95 lagging D. 0.95 leading
75. A synchronous condenser is virtually, which of the following?
A. induction motor D. DC generator
B. under excited synchronous motor E. none of the above
C. over excited synchronous motor
76. For a power plant which of the following constitutes running cost?
A. cost of wages C. cost of lubricant
B. cost of fuel D. all of the above
77. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor of the whole system
A. remains unchanged C. increases
B. decreases D. none of the above
78. Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for maximum efficiency at
A. 25 to 50 percent full load C. full load
B. 50 to 75 percent full load D. 25 percent overload
79. ____ will be least affected due to charge in supply voltage frequency.
A. Electric clock C. Ceiling fan
B. Mixer grinder D. Room heater
80. For the same maximum demand, if load factor is decreased, the cost of generation will
A. remain unchanged C. increase
B. decrease
81. The connected load of a domestic consumer is around
A. 5 kW B. 40 kW C. 80 kW D. 120 kW
82. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of interconnecting various power stations?
A. improved frequency of power supplied C. increased reliability
B. reduction in total installed capacity D. economy in operation of plants
83. A power transformer is usually rated in
A. kW B. kVAR C. kWh D. kVA
84. ____ public sector undertaking is associated with erection and sometimes running of thermal power
plants
A. NTPC B. SAIL C. BEL D. BHEL
85. Most efficient plants are normally used as
A. peak load plants C. either (a) or (b)
B. base load plants D. none of the above
86. For a diesel generating stations the useful life is expected to be ground
A. 15 to 20 years B. 20 to 50 years C. 50 to 75 years D. 75 to 100 years
87. Which of the following is not a method for estimating depreciation charges?
A. sinking fund method C. diminishing value method
B. straight line method D. Halsey’s 50—50 formula
88. The expected useful life of an hydro-electric power station is around
A. 15 years B. 30 years C. 60 years D. 100 years
89. In a load curve the highest point represents
A. peak demand B. average demand C. diversified demand D. none of the above
90. Which of the following source of power is least reliable?
A. solar energy B. geothermal power C. wind power D. MHD
91. In India production and distribution of electrical energy is confined to
A. private sector C. government sector E. none of the above
B. public sector D. joint sector
92. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of the following reasons?
A. to excite the pole of main exciter
B. to provide requisite starting torque to main exciter
C. to provide requisite starting torque to generator
D. none of the above
93. The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due to installation of
A. induction motors C. single phase motor
B. synchronous motors D. DC motor
94. An over excited synchronous motor on no-load is known as
A. synchronous condenser C. induction motor
B. generator D. alternator
95. Which of the following is an advantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement?
A. little maintenance cost C. low losses
B. ease in installation D. all of the above
96. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is
A. two part tariff B. three part tariff C. block rate tariff D. any of the above
97. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it is selected as
A. peak load plant B. casual run plant C. either (a) or (b) D. base load plant
98. Power generation cost reduces as
A. diversity factor increases and load factor decreases
B. diversity factor decreases and load factor increases
C. both diversity factor as well as load factor decreases
D. both diversity factor as well as load factor increase
99. The depreciation charges in diminishing value method are
A. light in early years C. heavy in later years
B. heavy in early years D. same in all years
100. The area under daily load curve divided by 24 hours gives
A. average load B. least load C. peak demand D. total kWh generated
101. Maximum demand tariff is generally not applied to domestic consumers because
A. they consume less power C. their maximum demand is low
B. their load factor is low D. none of the above
102. A 130 MW generator is usually ____ cooled
A. air B. oxygen C. nitrogen D. hydrogen
103. For cooling of large size generators hydrogen is used because
A. it is light C. it has high thermal conductivity
B. it offers reduced fire risk D. all of the above
104. Major share of power produced in India is through
 A. diesel power plants C. thermal power plants
B. it offers reduced fire risk D. nuclear power plants
105. Which of the following may not be the effect of low plant operating power factor?
A. improved illumination from lighting C. overloaded transformers
B. reduced voltage regulation D. overloaded cables
106. Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base load plant?
A. diesel engine plant C. nuclear power plant
B. gas turbine plant D. pumped storage plant
107. Which of the following component, in a steam power plant, needs maximum maintenance
attention?
A. steam turbine B. condenser C. water treatment plant D. boiler
108. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of the following engine will produce least
power?
A. supercharged engine C. petrol engine
B. diesel engine D. all of the above engines will equal power
109. The least share of power is provided in India, by which of the following power plants?
A. diesel power plants C. hydro-electric power plants
B. thermal power plants D. nuclear power plants
110. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by which of the following?
A. steam accumulator C. diesel engines
B. air motors D. batteries
111. An alternator coupled to a ____ runs at slow speed, as compared to as compared to others
A. diesel engine C. steam turbine
B. hydraulic turbine D. gas turbine
112. The effect of electric shock on human body depends on which of the following
A. current B. voltage C. duration of contact D. all of the above
113. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous?
A. direct stroke on line conductor C. direct stroke on tower top
B. indirect stroke on conductor D. direct stroke on ground wire
114. Which of the following devices may be used to provide protection against lightening over voltages?
A. horn gaps B. rod gaps C. surge absorbers D. all of the above
115. When the demand of consumers is not met by a power plant, it will resort to which of the following?
A. load shedding
B. power factor improvement at all generators
C. penalizing high load consumers by increasing the charges for electricity
D. efficient plant operation
116. Load shedding is possible through which of the following?
A. switching the loads C. voltage reduction
B. frequency reduction D. any of the above
117. In power plants insurance cover is provided for which of the following?
A. unskilled workers only C. equipment only
B. skilled workers only D. all of the above
118. A company can raise funds through
A. fixed deposits B. shares C. bonds D. any of the above
119. Which of the following are not repayable after a stipulated period?
A. shares B. fixed deposits C. cash certificates D. bonds
120. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in determining
A. plant capacity C. peak load E. none of the above
B. average load D. kWh generated
121. Load shedding is done to
A. improve power factor C. repair the machine
B. run the equipment efficiently D. reduce peak demand
122. When a plant resorts to load shedding it can be concluded that
A. peak demand is more than the installed capacity
B. daily load factor is unity
C. diversity factor is zero
D. plant is under repairs
123. Which of the following is the disadvantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement?
A. easily damaged by high voltage C. short service life
B. cannot be repaired D. all of the above
124. If the tariff for electrical energy charges provides incentive by way of reduced charges provides
incentive by way of reduced charges for higher consumption, then it can be concluded that
A. load factor is unity
B. power is generated through hydro-electric plant
C. plant has sufficient reserve capacity
D. station has more than two generators
125. Anything having some heat value can be used as fuel in case of
A. open cycle gas turbines C. petrol engines
B. closed cycle gas turbines D. diesel engines
126. The main purpose of design and operation of the plant id to bring out the cost of energy produced
to ____ minimum. Answer: minimum
127. The ____ load on any system, or part of a system, is the combined continuous rating of all the
receiving apparatus on consumer premises, which is connected to the system, or part of the system
under consideration. Answer: connected
128. ____ is expressed in kW, kVA, A or other suitable units. Answer: demand
129. The demand of an installation or system is the load drawn from the source of supply at the
receiving terminals averaged over a suitable and specified interval of time. Answer: YES
130. The ___ demand of an installation or system is the greatest of all the demands that have
occurred during a given period. Answer: maximum
131. Maximum demand or peak load is determined by measurement, according to specification, over a
prescribed interval of time. Answer: YES
������� ������
132. ������ ������ =
_____����
. Answer: connected
133. The ratio of average power to the maximum demand is called ____ factor. Answer: load
134. The ratio of maximum demand of the system, a part of the system, to the total connected load of
the system, or of the part of the system, under consideration is called ___ factor. Answer: demand
135. ____ factor is the ratio of sum of individual maximum demand of entire group. Answer: diversity
136. The utilization factor is the ratio of generator capacity to the maximum generator demand.
Answer: NO
137. The ratio of actual energy produced in kWh to the maximum possible energy that could have
been produced during that period is called plant ____ factor. Answer: capacity
138. Plant ___ factor is the ratio of energy produced in a given time to the maximum possible energy
that could have been produced during the actual number of hours the plant was in operation.
Answer: use
139. ____ load includes domestic lights, power needed for domestic appliances and small motors for
pumping water. Answer: Residential
140. ____ load includes lighting for shops, advertisements and electrical appliances used in shops and
restaurants etc. Answer: Commercial
141. ____ load consists of load demand of various industries. Answer: Industrial
142. ____ load consists of street lighting, power required for water supply and drainage purpose
Answer: Municipal
143. ____ load includes electrical power needed for pumps driven by electric motors to supply water to
fields. Answer: Intrigation
144. ____ load includes trains, cars, trolleys, buses and railways. Answer: traction
145. ____ curve is a graphic record showing the power demands for every instant during a certain time
interval. Answer: load
146. The area under the load curve represents the energy generated in the period considered.
Answer: YES
147. The area under the load curve divided by the total number of hours gives the ___ load on the
power station. Answer: average
148. The peak load indicated by the load curve represents the ____ demand of the power station.
Answer: maximum
149. Load curves give full information about the incoming load and help to decide the ____ capacity of
the power station and to decide ____ sizes of various generating units.
Answer: installed, economical
150. The ____ curves help to estimate the generating cost and to decide the operating schedule of the
power station. Answer: load
151. A ___ curve represents rearrangements of all the load elements of chronological load curve in
order of descending magnitude. Answer: load duration
152. Load duration curve is derived from the chronological load curve. Answer: YES
153. The area under the load duration curve and the corresponding chronological load curve is ___
and represents the ____ energy delivered by the generating station. Answer: equal, total
154. The term dump power is used in thermal plants. Answer: NO
155. Dump power is made available by ____ water. Answer: surplus
156. _____ power is the power which should always be available even under emergency conditions.
Answer: Firm
157. _____ power is the power that is always available for conversion into electric power.
Answer: Prime
158. _____ reserve is that reserve generating capacity which is not in operation but can be made
available for service. Answer: Cold
159. _____ reserve is that reserve generating capacity which is in operation but not in service.
Answer: hot
160. _____ reserve is that reserve generating capacity which is connected to the bus and is ready to
take the load. Answer: spinning
161. The plant should be located where there are ____ and other important consumption places of
____. Answer: industries, electricity
162. In any case, it has been seen that it is ____ to transmit electricity than to transport fuel.
Answer: cheaper
163. The power plant should be located ____ the fuel supply source. Answer: nearer
164. The best location is that for which ____ and ____ foundation is not required.
Answer: costly, special
165. The power plant ___ should be simple and rugged with pleasing appearance. Answer: structure
166. Generally the plant building should be ____ storeyed. Answer: single
167. In any power plant ____ foundation plays an important part. Answer: machine
168. ____ is the difference between money borrowed and money returned. Answer: Interest
169. Amortization is the periodic repayment of principal as a uniform annual expense. Answer: YES
170. ____ accounts for the deterioration of the equipment and decrease in its value due to corrosion,
weathering and wear and tear with use. Answer: Depreciation
171. In straight line method of calculating depreciation cost the rate of depreciation is ____ throughout
the life of the equipment. Answer: uniform
172. ____ fund method is based on the conception that the annual uniform deduction from income for
depreciation will accumulate to the capital value of the plant at the end of life of the plant or
equipment. Answer: Sinking
173. In ____ method (for calculating depreciation cost) some factor is taken as a standard one nad
depreciation is measured by that standard. Answer: unit
174. In a thermal station ____ is the heaviest item of operating cost. Answer: fuel
175. Plant ___ can be improved by the use of better quality of fuel or by employing better
thermodynamics conditions in the plant design. Answer: heat rate
176. The equipment prices are usually compared on the basis of price per unit of capacity, usually
termed as ____. Answer: unit price
177. The unit price ____ as the capacity of the machine ____.Answer: decreases, increase
178. ____ are the different methods of charging the consumers for consumption of electricity.
Answer: tariffs
179. Capacitor banks are installed to improved power factor. Answer: YES
180. In a generating station it is always desirable to have two or more units. Answer: YES
181. Running charges of a power plant are inversely proportional to kWh generated. Answer: NO
182. Transmission lines also form a part of ____ cost of the plant. Answer: capital
183. Fuel consumption depends on the installed capacity of the plant. Answer: NO
184. Diversity factor is always less than one. Answer: NO
185. Single peak in the load curve means low load factor. Answer: YES
186. ___ load factor can be expected in base load stations. Answer: high
187. Hopkinson demand rate tariff is three part tariff. Answer: NO
188. Among the operating costs of a plant fuel has the largest share. Answer: YES
189. Old units have generally high efficiency. Answer: NO
190. For plant operation unity power factor is the optimum. Answer: YES
191. Industrial plants generally have leading power factor. Answer: NO
192. Salvage value of a plant is always zero. Answer: NO
193. Obsolescence is due to ___ advancements. Answer: technological
194. While selecting units ____ rating of generators is taken into account. Answer: continuous
195. Load curve of a power plant has always positive slope. Answer: NO
196. Induction motors have leading power factor. Answer: NO
197. High load factor can be expected in base load stations. Answer: YES
198. The value of the plant at the end of its useful life is known as salvage value. Answer: YES
199. Depreciation of a plant depends on the useful life is known as salvage value. Answer: NO
200. Fuel consumption depends on the installed capacity of the plant. Answer: NO
TRANSMISSION AND DISTRIBUTION

1. By which of the following systems electric power may be transmitted?

A. overhead system C. both (a) and (b)
B. underground system D. none of the above
2. ____ are the conductors, which connect the consumer’s terminal to the distribution
A. distributor B. service mains C. feeders D. none of the above
3. The underground system cannot be operated above
A. 440 V B. 11 kV C. 33 kV D. 66 kV
4. Overhead system can be designed for operation up to
A. 11 kV B. 33 kV C. 66 kV D. 400 kV
5. If variable part of annual cost on account of interest and depreciation on the capital outlay is equal to
annual cost of electric energy wasted in the conductors, the total annual cost will be minimum and the
corresponding size conductor will be most economical. This statement is known as
A. Kelvin’s law C. Kirchhoff’s law E. none of the above
B. Ohm’s law D. Faraday’s law
6. The wooden poles well impregnated with creosote oil or any preservatives compound have life
A. from 2 to 5 years C. 25 to 30 years
B. 10 to 15 years D. 60 to 70 years
7. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution of electrical power?
A. Copper B. Aluminiun C. Steel D. Tungsten
8. Galvanized steel wire is generally used as
A. stay wire C. structural components
B. earth wire D. all of the above
9. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are
A. 40 – 50 meters B. 60 – 100 meters C. 80 – 100 meters D. 300 – 500 meters
10. The corona is considerably affected by which of the following?
A. Size of the conductor C. Surface condition of the conductor
B. Shape of the conductor D. All of the above
11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines?
A. Resistance B. Inductance C. Capacitance D. All of the above
12. %age regulation of a transmission line is given by
�� − �� �� − �� �� − �� �� − ��
A. � 100 B. � ��� C. � 100 D. � 100
�� 2 �� �� �� 2
Where �� and �� are the voltages at the sending end and receiving end respectively.
13. The phenomenon of rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited of lightly loaded line is
called the
A. Seeback effect B. Ferranti effect C. Raman effect D. none of the above
14. The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt admittance is called the
A. surge impedance of the line C. regulation of the line
B. conductance of the line D. none of the above
15. Which of the following is the demerit of a ‘constant voltage transmission system’?
A. increase of short-circuit current of the system
B. availability of steady voltage at all loads at the line terminals
C. possibility of better protection for line due to possible use of higher terminal reactance
D. improvement power factor at times of moderate and heavy loads
E. possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size in case of long-distance heavy
power transmission
16. Low voltage cables are meant for use up to
 A. 1.1 kV B. 3.3 kV C. 6.6 kV D. 11 kV
17. The operating voltage of high cables is up to
A. 1.1 kV B. 3.3 kV C. 6.6 kV D. 11 kV
18. The operating voltage of supertension cables is up to
A. 3.3 kV B. 6.6 kV C. 11 kV D. 33 kV
19. The operating voltage of extra high tension cables is up to
A. 6.6 kV C. 33 kV E. 132 kV
B. 11 kV D. 66 kV
20. Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground cables?
A. direct laying B. draw-in-system C. solid system D. all of the above
21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the cables?
A. dielectric losses in cable insulation C. losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings
2
B. � � losses in the conductor D. all of the above
22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be operated too hot?
A. the oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from higher levels
B. expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst
C. unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will lead to ionization
D. the thermal instability may rise due to the rapid increase of dielectric losses with temperature
E. all of the above
23. Which of the following DC distribution system is the simplest and lowest in first cost?
A. radial system C. inter-connected system
B. ring system D. none of the above
24. A booster is a
A. series wound generator C. synchronous generator
B. shunt wound generator D. none of the above
25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following method is employed for solution of network
problems in interconnected system?
A. circulating current method C. Superposition of current E. all of the above
B. Thevenin’s theorem D. Direct application of Kirchhoff’s laws
26. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables?
A. Cross or short-circuit fault C. Breakdown of cable insulation
B. Open circuit fault D. all of the above
27. The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a cable is
A. crystallization of the lead through vibration
B. chemical action on the lead when buried in the earth
C. mechanical damage
D. all of the above
28. The voltage of the single phase supply to residential consumers is
A. 110 V B. 210 V C. 230 V D. 400 V
29. Most of the high voltage transmission lines in India are
A. underground B. overhead C. either of the above D. none of the above
30. The distributors for residential areas are
A. single phase C. three-phase four wire
B. three-phase three wire D. none of the above
31. The conductors of the overhead lines are
A. solid C. both solid and stranded
B. stranded D. none of the above
32. High voltage transmission lines use
A. suspension insulators C. both (a) and (b)
 B. pins insulators D. none of the above
33. Multicore cables generally use
A. square conductor C. rectangular conductor E. none of the above
B. circular conductor D. sector-shaped conductor
34. Distribution lines in India generally use
A. wooden poles B. R.C.C. poles C. steel towers D. none of the above
35. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables is
A. lead B. paper C. rubber D. none of the above
36. The loads on distributors systems are generally
A. balanced B. unbalanced C. either of the above D. none of the above
37. The power factor of industrial load is generally
A. unity B. lagging C. leading D. zero
38. Overhead lines generally use
A. copper conductors C. A.C.S.R. conductors
B. all aluminium conductors D. none of theses
39. In transmission lines the cross-arms are made of
A. copper B. wood C. R.C.C. D. steel
40. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is
A. aluminium B. steel C. brass D. copper
41. Transmission line insulators are made of
A. glass B. porcelain C. iron D. P.V.C
42. The material commonly used for sheaths of underground cables is
A. lead B. rubber C. copper D. iron
43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is about
A. 4.3 m B. 5.5 m C. 7.0 m D. 10.5 m
44. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line approximately equal to
A. 2 m B. 3.5 m C. 6 m D. 8.5 m
45. Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at
A. 400 V B. 11 kV C. 66 kV D. 400 kV
46. In a DC 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are cross-connected in order to
A. boost the generated voltage
B. balanced loads on both sides of the neutral
C. make both machines run as unloaded motors
D. equalize voltage on the positive and negative outers
47. In a DC 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal loads on two sides
A. both balancers run as generators
B. both balancers run as motors
C. balancer connected to lightly-loaded side runs as a motor
D. balancer connected to heavily-loaded side runs as a motor
48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a DC 2-wire feeder is increased 100
percent, saving in copper is
A. 25 percent B. 50 percent C. 75 percent D. 100 percent
49. A uniformly-loaded DC distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. As compared to a similar
distributor fed at one end only, the drop at the middle point is
A. one-fourth C. one-half E. none of the above
B. one-third D. twice
50. As compared to a 2-wire DC distributor, a 3-wire distributor with same maximum voltage to earth uses
only
A. 31.25 percent of copper C. 66.7 percent of copper
 B. 33.3 percent of copper D. 125 percent of copper
51. Which of the following are usually not the generating voltages?
A. 6.6 kV B. 8.8 kV C. 11 kV D. 13.2 kV
52. For an overload line, the surge impedance is taken as
A. 20 – 40 ohms C. 100 – 200 ohms E. none of the above
B. 70 – 80 ohms D. 500 – 1000 ohms
53. The presence of ozone due to corona is harmful because it
A. reduces power factor C. gives odour E. none of the above
B. corrodes the material D. transfer energy to the ground
54. A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power to
A. distributors B. generating stations C. service mains D. all of the above
55. The power transmitted will be maximum when
A. corona losses are minimum C. sending end voltage is more
B. reactance is high D. receiving end voltage is more
56. A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used on
A. primary transmission C. primary distribution
B. secondary transmission D. secondary distribution
57. Which of the following materials is used for overhead transmission lines?
A. steel cored aluminium C. cadmium copper
B. galvanized steel D. any of the above
58. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators?
A. Quartz B. Kaolin C. Felspar D. Silica
59. There is a greater possibility of occurrence of corona during
A. dry weather C. summer heat E. none of the above
B. winter D. humid weather
60. Which of the following relays is used on long transmission lines?
A. Impedance relay C. Reactance relay
B. Mho’s relay D. None of the above
61. The steel used in steel cored conductors is usually
A. alloy steel C. mild steel E. all of the above
B. stainless steel D. high speed steel
62. Which of the following distribution systems is more reliable?
A. Radial system B. Tree system C. ring main system D. All are equally reliable
63. Which of the following characteristics should the line supports for transmission lines possess?
A. Low cost C. longer life
B. High mechanical strength D. All of the above
64. Transmission voltage of 11 kV is normally used for distances up to
A. 20 – 25 km B. 40 – 50 km C. 60 – 70 km D. 80 – 100 km
65. Which of the following regulations is considered best?
A. 50% B. 20% C. 10% D. 2%
66. Skin effect is proportional to
A. (��������� ��������)4 C. (��������� ��������)� E. none of the above
B. (��������� ��������) 3
D. (��������� ��������)1/2
67. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of
A. semi-circle B. triangle C. ellipse D. catenary
68. In A.C.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and steel conductors is
A. insulin B. bitumen C. varnish D. no insulation is required
69. Which of the following bus-bar schemes has the lowest cost?
A. ring bus-bar scheme C. breaker and a half scheme
 B. single bus-bar scheme D. main and transfer scheme
70. Owing to skin effect
A. current flows through the half cross-section of the conductor
B. portion of the conductor near the surface carries more current and core of the conductor
carries less current
C. portion of the conductor near the surface carries less current and core of the conductor carries
more current
D. any of the above
E. none of the above
71. By which of the following methods string efficiency can be improved?
A. using a guard ring C. using long cross arm E. none of the above
B. grading the insulator D. any of the above
72. In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided to
A. compensate for skin effect C. reduce line inductance
B. neutralize proximity effect D. increase the tensile strength
73. By which of the following bus-bar is rated?
A. current only C. current, voltage and frequency
B. current and voltage D. current, voltage, frequency and short time current
74. A circuit is disconnected by isolators when
A. line is energized C. line is on full load
B. there is no current in the line D. circuit breaker is not open
75. For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary?
A. circuit breakers C. load break switch
B. Isolators D. circuit breakers and load break switches
76. In a substation the following equipment is not installed
A. exciters B. series capacitors C. shunt reactors D. voltage transformers
77. Corona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around the conductor exceeds
A. 6.6 kV (rms value)/cm C. 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
B. 11 kV (rms value)/cm D. 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is compensated by installing
A. inductors C. synchronous motors E. none of the above
B. capacitors D. all of above
79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors are
A. dead ended C. any of the above
B. at intermediate anchor towers D. none of the above
80. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is
A. non-sinusoidal C. triangular
B. sinusoidal D. square
81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
A. 1 kV B. 11 kV C. 22 kV D. 33 kV
82. Aluminium has specific gravity of
A. 1.5 B. 2.7 C. 4.2 D. 7.8
83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the transmission voltage should be
A. 132 kV B. 66 kV C. 33 kV D. 11 kV
84. For Aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following factors have higher values except
A. specific volume C. co-efficient of linear expansion
B. electrical conductivity D. resistance per unit length for same cross-section
85. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in distribution feeder, will be most
economical?
 A. static condenser C. tap changing transformer
B. synchronous condenser D. booster transformer
86. In a tap changing transformer, the tap pings are provided on
A. primary winding C. high voltage winding
B. secondary winding D. any of the above
87. Constant voltage transmission entails the following disadvantage
A. large conductor area is required for same power transmission
B. short-circuit current of the system is increased
C. either of the above
D. none of the above
88. On which of the following factors skin effect depends?
A. frequency of the current C. resistivity of the conductor material
B. size of the conductor D. all of the above
89. The effect of corona can be detected by
A. presence of zone detected by odour C. faint luminous glow of bluish colour
B. hissing sound D. All of the above
90. For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage should be in the
range
A. 150 to 220 kV B. 100 to 120 kV C. 60 to 100 kV D. 20 to 50 kV
91. In the analysis of which the following lines shunt capacitance is neglected?
A. short transmission lines C. long transmission lines
B. medium transmission lines D. medium as well as long transmission lines
92. When the interconnector between two stations has large reactance
A. the transfer of power will take place with voltage fluctuation and noise
B. the transfer of power will take place with least loss
C. the stations will fall out of step because of large angular displacement between the stations
D. none of the above
93. The frequency of voltage generated, in case of generators, can be increased by
A. using reactors C. adjusting the governor E. none of the above
B. increasing the load D. reducing the terminal voltage
94. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut down the bus-bar voltage will
A. fall B. rise C. remain unchanged D. none of the above
95. The angular displacement between tow interconnected station is mainly due to
A. armature reactance of both alternators
B. reactance of the interconnector
C. synchronous reactance of both the alternators
D. all of the above
96. Electro-mechanical voltage regulators are generally used in
A. reactors B. generators C. transformers D. all of the above
97. Series capacitors on transmission lines are little use when load VAR requirement is
A. large B. small C. fluctuating D. any of the above
98. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage regulator is effected by
A. electromagnetic induction C. varying the reactance
B. varying the resistance D. variable transformer
99. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, it is due to
A. permeability variation C. skin effect E. none of the above
B. corona D. unsymmetrical fault
100. The following system is not generally used
A. 1 – phase 3 wire C. 3 – phase 3 wire
 B. 1 – phase 4 wire D. 3 – phase 4 wire
101. The skin effect of conductor will reduce as the
A. resistivity of conductor material increases
B. permeability of conductor material increases
C. diameter increases
D. frequency increases
102. When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth which of the
following will happen?
A. current will flow to the earth C. supply voltage will increase
B. supply voltage will drop D. no current will flow in the conductor
103. 310 km line is considered as
A. a long line B. a medium line C. a medium line D. any of the above
104. The conductors are bundled primarily to
A. increase reactance C. reduce radio interference
B. reduce reactance D. none of the above
105. The surge impedance in a transmission line having negligible resistance is given as
A. �� B. �/� C. 1/�� D. � + �
106. The top most conductor in a high transmission line is
A. earth conductor C. Y – phase conductor
B. R – phase conductor D. B – phase conductor
107. In A.C.S.R. conductor the function of steel is
A. provide additional mechanical strength
B. prevent corona
C. take cake of surges
D. reduce inductance and subsequently improve power factor
108. In transmission and distribution system the permissible voltage variation is
A. ± 1 ������� C. ± �� ������� E. none of the above
B. ± 20 ������� D. ± 30 �������
109. By which of the following methods voltage of transmission can be regulated?
A. use of series capacitors to neutralize the effect of series reactance
B. switching in shunts capacitors at the receiving end during heavy loads
C. use of tap changing transformers
D. any of the above methods
110. Which of the following distribution systems is the most economical?
A. AC 1 – phase system C. AC 3 – phase wire system
B. AC 3 – phase wire system D. direct current system
111. Which of the following is the main advantage of AC transmission system?
A. less instability problem C. easy transmission
B. less insulation problems D. less losses in transmission over long distance
112. A tap changing transformer is used to
A. supply low voltage current for instruments
B. step up the voltage D. step up as well as step down the voltage
C. step down the voltage E. none of the above
113. Which of the following bar schemes is the most expensive?
A. double bus-bar double breaker C. single bus-bar scheme
B. ring bus-bar scheme D. main and transfer scheme
114. By which of the following methods the protection against direct lightning strokes and high voltage
sweep waves is provided?
 A. Lightening arrester D. Earthing of neutral
B. Ground wire E. None of the above
C. Lightening arresters and ground wires
115. In which of the following voltage regulator the effect of dead zero is found?
A. Electromagnetic type C. Electronic type using integrated circuits
B. Magnetic amplifier D. Al of the above
116. Corona results in
A. radio interference C. better regulation
B. power factor improvement D. none of the above
117. Which of the following has least effect on corona?
A. atmospheric temperature C. size and charge per ion
B. number of ions D. mean free path
118. In context of corona, if the conductors are polished and smooth, which of the following statement
is correct?
A. hissing sound will be more intense
B. power loss will be least
C. corona glow will be uniform along the length of the conductor
D. corona glow will not occur
119. Power loss due to corona is not directly proportional to
A. spacing between conductors C. phase – neutral voltage
B. supply voltage frequency D. all of the above
120. Poles which carry transformers are usually
A. circular C. A – type E. none of the above
B. I – type D. H - type
121. Out of the following which type of poles are bulky?
A. Transmission towers C. Tubular steel poles
B. Concrete poles D. Wooden poles
122. The effect of ice on transmission line conductors is to increase the
A. transmission losses C. tendency for corona
B. weight of the conductor D. resistance to flow of current
123. If the height of transmission tower is increased
A. the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will remain unchanged
B. the line capacitance and inductance will not change
C. the line capacitance will increase but line inductance will decrease
D. the line capacitance will decrease but line inductance will increase
124. If string efficiency is 100 percent it means that
A. potential across each disc is zero C. one of the insulator discs is shorted
B. potential across each disc is same D. none of the above
125. In a 70/6 A.C.S.R. conductor there are
A. 35 aluminium conductors and 3 steel conductors
B. 70 aluminium conductors and 6 steel conductors
C. 70 steel conductors and 6 aluminium conductors
D. none of the above
126. On which of the following does the size of a feeder depend?
A. voltage drop B. voltage C. frequency D. current carrying capacity
127. Which of the following are connected by the service mains?
A. Transformer and earth C. Distributor and consumer terminals
B. Distributor and relay system D. Distributor and transformer
128. In the design of a distributor which of the following is the major consideration?
 A. Voltage drop C. Frequency E. None of the above
B. Current carrying capacity D. kVA of system
129. In a distribution system major cost is that of
A. earthing system C. conductors
B. distribution transformer D. meters
130. A booser is connected in
A. parallel with earth connection C. series with the feeder
B. parallel with the feeder D. series with earth connection
131. With which of the following are step-up substations associated?
A. concentration load C. distributors E. none of the above
B. consumer location D. generating stations
132. Which of the following equipment should be installed by the consumers having low power factor?
A. synchronous condensers C. tap changing transformer E. none of the above
B. capacitor bank D. any of the above
133. Which of the following equipment is used to limit short-circuit current level in a substation?
A. isolator B. lightning switch C. coupling capacitor D. series reactor
134. Steepness of the travelling waves is alternated by ___ of the line
A. capacitance B. inductance C. resistance D. all of the above
135. The limit of distance of transmission line may be increased by the use of
A. series resistances D. synchronous condensers
B. shunt capacitors and series reactors E. none of the above
C. series capacitors and shunt reactors
136. By which of the following factors is the sag of a transmission line least affected?
A. current through the conductor D. temperature of surrounding air
B. ice deposited on the conductor E. none of the above
C. Self weight of conductor
137. Which of the following cause transient disturbances?
A. faults B. load variations C. switching operations D. any of the above
138. A gay wire
A. protects conductors against short-circuiting
B. provides emergency earth route
C. provides protection against surges
D. supports the pole
139. Which of the following id neglected in the analysis of short transmission lines?
A. series impedance C. �2 � loss E. all of the above
B. shunt admittance D. none of the above
140. Basically the boosters are
A. synchronous motors C. inductors
B. capacitors D. transformers
141. Which of the following is a static exciter?
A. Rectifier C. Amplidyne
B. Rotorol D. DC separately excited generator
142. For exact compensation of voltage drop in the feeder the booster
A. must be earthed
B. must work on line voltage
C. must work on linear portion of its V – I characteristics
D. must work on non-linear portion of its V – I characteristics
143. The purpose of using a booster is to
A. increase current C. reduce voltage drop E. none of the above
 B. reduce current D. compensate for voltage drop
144. Induction regulators are used for voltage control in
A. alternators C. secondary distribution
B. primary distribution D. none of the above
145. A synchronous condenser is generally installed at the ____ of the transmission line
A. receiving end C. middle
B. sending end D. none of the above
146. The area of cross-section of the neutral in a 3-wire DC system is generally ____ the area of cross
section of main conductor
A. same as B. one-fourth C. one half D. double
147. For which of the following, the excitation control method is satisfactory?
A. low voltage lines C. short lines
B. high voltage lines D. long lines
148. In which of the following cases shunt capacitance is negligible?
A. short transmission lines C. long transmission lines
B. medium transmission lines D. all transmission lines
149. A lightning arrester is usually located nearer to
A. transformer C. bus-bar E. none of the above
B. isolator D. circuit breaker
150. The material used for the manufacture of grounding wires is
A. cast iron B. aluminium C. stainless steel D. galvanized steel
151. Surge absorbers protect against ____ oscillations
A. high voltage high frequency C. low voltage high frequency
B. high voltage low frequency D. low voltage low frequency
152. Skin effect is noticeable only at ___ frequencies
A. audio B. low C. high D. all
153. Power system stability is least affected by
A. reactance of generator C. losses
B. input torque D. reactance of transmission line
154. When the load at the receiving end of a long transmission line is removed, the sending end
voltage is less than the receiving end voltage. This effect is known as
A. Ferranti effect C. Kelvin effect E. Skin effect
B. Proximity effect D. Faraday effect
155. In a medium transmission lines the shunt capacitance is taken into account in
A. T-method B. � – method C. steinmetz method D. all of the above
156. System grounding is done so that
A. inductive interference between power and communication circuits can be controlled
B. the floating potential on the lower voltage winding for a transformer is brought down to an
insignificant value
C. the arcing faults to earth would not set up dangerously high voltage on healthy phases
D. for all above reasons
157. Which of the following can be used for bus-bars?
A. tubes B. rods C. bars D. any of the above
158. If the height of transmission tower is increased, which of the following parameters is likely to
change?
A. capacitance C. resistance E. none of the above
B. inductance D. all of the above
159. A.C.S.R. conductor having 7 steel stands surrounded by 25 alumimiun conductors will be
specified as
 A. 25/7 B. 50/15 C. 7/25 D. 15/50
160. Impedance relay is used on ___ transmission lines
A. short B. medium C. long D. all
161. Corona is likely to occur maximum in
A. transmission lines C. domestic wiring
B. distribution line D. all of the above
162. The effect of wind pressure is more predominant on
A. supporting towers C. transmissions line
B. neutral wires D. insulators
163. As compared to cables, the disadvantage of transmission lines is
A. inductive interference between power and communication circuits
B. exposure to lightning
C. exposure to atmospheric hazards like smoke, ice, etc.
D. all of the above
164. In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length of
lines is less than
A. 80 km B. 110 km C. 150 km D. 210 km
165. The effective resistance of a conductor will be the same as ‘ ohmic resistance’ when
A. power factor is unity
B. current is uniformly distributed in the conductor cross-section
C. voltage is low
D. current is in true sine waveform
166. Conductors for high voltage transmission line are suspended from towers to
A. increase clearance from round D. reduce wind and snow loads
B. reduce clearance from ground E. none of the above
C. take care of extension in length during summer
167. To increase the capacity of a transmission line for transmitting power which of the following must
be decreased?
A. capacitance B. line inductance C. voltage D. all of the above
168. By using bundled conductors which of the following are reduced?
A. power loss due to corona D. none of the above
B. capacitance of the circuit E. all of the above
C. inductance of the circuit
169. Which of the following short-circuits is most dangerous?
A. dead short-circuit D. line to line and ground short-circuit
B. line to ground short-circuit E. all of the above
C. line to line short-circuit
170. Due to which of the following reasons aluminium is being favoured as bus-bar material?
A. low density B. low cost C. ease of fabrication D. none of the above
171. In case of transmission line conductors with the increase in atmospheric temperature
A. length decreases but stress increases C. both the length and stress increase
B. length increases but stress decreases D. both the length and stress decrease
172. Skin effect exists only in
A. AC transmission C. low voltage DC overhead transmission
B. high voltage DC overhead transmission D. cables carrying DC current
173. Floating neutral, in 3-phase supply, is undesirable because it causes
A. low voltage across the load C. unequal line voltages across the load
B. high voltage across the load D. none of the above
174. The surge resistance of cables is
 A. 20 ohms B. 50 ohms C. 200 ohms D. 300 ohms
175. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is
A. zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
B. same at the conductor and sheath
C. minimum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
D. maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
176. The ground ring transmission line are used to
A. reduce the transmission losses
B. reduce the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
C. increase the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
D. none of the above
177. The string efficiency of an insulator can be increased by
A. correct grading of insulators of various capacitances
B. reducing the number of strings
C. increasing the number of strings in the insulator
D. none of the above
178. High voltages for transmitting power is economically available from
A. DC currents B. AC currents C. carrier currents D. none of the above
179. High voltage is primarily used, for long distance power transmission, to
A. reduce the time of transmission C. make the system reliable
B. reduce the transmission losses D. none of the above
180. By using bundle conductors, the critical voltage for the formation of corona will
A. remain same B. decrease C. increase D. not occur
181. If the voltage is increased x times, the size of the conductor would be
A. reduced to 1/�� times C. increased x times E. none of the above
2
B. reduced to 1/x times D. increased to � times
182. The colour of the neutral of three-core flexible cable is
A. blue B. brown C. red D. black
183. In the cables sheaths are used to
A. prevent the moisture from entering the cable
B. provide strength to the cable
C. provide proper insulation
D. none of the above
184. The charging current in the cables
A. leads the voltage by 180° C. lags the voltage by 90°
B. leads the voltage by 90° D. lags the voltage by 180°
185. Ground wire is used to
A. avoid overloading
B. give the support to the tower
C. give good regulation
D. connect a circuit conductor or other device to an earth-plate
186. Earthing is necessary to give protection against
A. danger of electric shock C. overloading
B. voltage fluctuation D. high temperature of the conductors
187. Resistance grounding is used for voltage between
A. 3.3 kV to 11 kV C. 33 kV to 66 kV
B. 11 kV to 33 kV D. none of the above
188. Solid grounding is adopted for voltages below
A. 100 V B. 200 V C. 400 V D. 660 V
189. The size of the earth wire is determined by
A. the atmospheric conditions C. the ampere capacity of the service wires
B. the voltage of the service wires D. none of the above
190. Transmission lines link
A. generating station to receiving end station
B. receiving end station to distribution transformer
C. distribution transformer to consumer premises
D. service points to consumer premises
E. none of the above
191. In the overhead system, the number of cross-arms carried by a pole depends on the number of
____ it has to carry. Answer: wires
192. Poles which are made of wood reinforced concrete or steel are used upto ___ kV whereas steel
tower are used for higher voltages. Answer: 66
193. ____ voltage can be efficiently and conveniently raised or lowered for economic transmission and
distribution of electric power respectively. Answer: AC
194. The electrical supply system maybe compared to a tree, the roots of which represent the ____
equipment, supplying nourishment to all parts of the tree. Answer: generating
195. Generation voltages are 3.3 kV, 6.6 kV, 11 kV or 33 kV, most usual value adopted in practice is
____ kV. Answer: 11
196. For secondary distribution usable voltage is ___ V. Answer: 400
197. ____ are the conductors, which connect the consumer’s terminals to the distributor.
Answer: service mains
198. Feeders are the conductors which connect the stations to the areas, to be fed by those stations.
Answer: YES
199. ____ are the conductors from which numerous tappings for the supply to the consumer are taken.
Answer: Distributors
200. In case of overhead lines spacing between the conductors is to be kept more in order to provide
adequate insulation and to avoid ___ loss. Answer: corona
201. Distribution by AC system is undoubtedly superior to that by DC system as in AC system voltage
control is easy by means of ____. Answer: transformers
202. ____ system is more safer than ____ system. Answer: underground, overhead
203. Underground system is less expensive. Answer: NO
204. Underground system cannot be operated above 66 kV. Answer: YES
205. The chances of accidents in underground system are very high as compared to overhead system.
Answer: NO
206. Maintenance cost of underground system is very ____ in comparison to with that of overhead
system. Answer: low
207. In underground system there is no interference to communication circuits. Answer: YES
208. Mostly the high voltage transmission is carried out by overhead system due to ____.
Answer: low cost
209. ____ system is more flexible than ____ system. Answer: Overhead, underground
210. All conductors used for overhead lines are preferably ___ in order to increase the flexibility.
Answer: stranded
211. Hard drawn copper conductor is the best conductor owing to its high ___ and great tensile
strength for all type of transmission. Answer: electrical conductivity
212. The conductivity of aluminium is ____ percent that of copper. Answer: 60
213. ____ conductor consists of a core of galvanized steed strand surrounded by a number of
aluminiun strands. Answer: A.C.S.R.
214. Galvanized iron and steel conductors have been used for extremely long spans. Answer: YES
215. Copper clad steel conductors are well suited for very long spans. Answer: YES
216. The difference in level between the points is known as _____. Answer: sag
217. Sag is ___ proportional to the square of the span length. Answer: directly
218. ____ chart is helpful in knowing the sag and tension at any temperature. Answer: Stringing
219. The material employed fro ____ should not be porous and there should be no effect of change in
temperature. Answer: insulators
220. ____ is extensively used material (for insulators) and is produced by firing at a controlled
temperature a mixture of Kaolin, feldspar and quartz. Answer: Porcelain
221. Glass insular can be used up to ____ kV under ordinary atmospheric conditions and well up to
____ kV in dry atmosphere. Answer: 25, 50
222. The suspension insulator hang from the cross arm, as opposed to the ____ insulator which sits
on the top of it. Answer: pin
223. ____ type insulators give more flexibility to the line and mechanical stresses are reduced in this
arrangement. Answer: suspension
224. Egg or stay insulators are used in guy cables. Answer: YES
225. The corona decreases with the ___ in diameter of conductor. Answer: increases
226. A ___ conductor gives rise to more corona than a solid conductor. Answer: stranded
227. If the spacing between the conductors is made very ____ as compared with their diameters, there
may not be any corona effect. Answer: large
228. Line voltage largely affects the corona. Answer: YES
229. At ___ voltage, there is no corona effect. Answer: low
230. Due to corona, the probability of flash over is ____. Answer: reduced
231. The transmission lines are basically electrical circuits having ____ constants.
Answer: distributed
232. At ___ frequencies the skin effect is very small. Answer: small
233. This proximity effect results in uniform distribution of current in the cross-section of a conductor
Answer: NO
234. Any tow conductors separated by an insulating medium constitute a ____. Answer: capacitor
235. The transposition of conductors increases the disturbances to the nearby communication circuits.
Answer: NO
236. The regulation of transmission line, for any given load power factor, can be graphically by ____
regulation diagram. Answer: Kapp’s
237. The phenomenon of rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited or lightly loaded line
is called the____ effect. Answer: Ferranti
238. The load of unity power factor that can be delivered by the line of negligible resistance is called
___ impedance loading. Answer: surge
239. The operating voltage of extra super voltage power cables is beyond 132 kV. Answer: YES
240. The insulation resistance of a cable can be measured by ____ method by ____.
Answer: galvanometer, meggar
241. The energy losses occurring in the dielectric of cable are due to leakage and so called dielectric
____. Answer: hysteresis
242. The dielectric losses are ____ to square of the voltage. Answer: proportional
243. The sheath loss in open-circuited sheath is about 10% of the total loss. Answer: NO
244. When two or more generating stations are connected together, the system is known as ____
system. Answer: interconnected
245. When the two ends of a distributor fed at equal voltages brought together, then such distributor is
known as _____. Answer: ring main
246. A distributor arranged to form a closed circuit and fed at one or more than one point is called the
___ distributor. Answer: ring
247. A ___ is a series wound generator, which is inserted into a circuit to add or inject a certain voltage
so that the excessive voltage drop in the feeder is compensated. Answer: booster
248. Balvier’s test is used to locate the ground fault of a single cable. Answer: YES
249. Loop tests employ the principle of ___ bridge. Answer: wheatstone
250. The maximum generation voltage in advance countries is ___ kV while that in India is ___ kV.
Answer: 33, 11
Switchgear and protection

1. The main function if fuse is to

A. protect the line C. protect the appliance E. none of the above
B. open the circuit D. prevent excessive currents
2. On which of the following routine tests are conducted?
A. oil circuit breakers C. minimum oil circuit breakers
B. air blast circuit breakers D. all of the above
3. ��6 gas
A. is yellow in colour C. is nontoxic E. none of the above
B. is lighter than air D. has pungent small
4. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of
A. copper tungsten alloy C. electrolytic copper
B. porcelain D. aluminium alloy
5. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker?
A. Water B. Oil C. Air D. ��6
6. With which of the following, a circuit breaker must be equipped for remote operation?
A. inverse time trip C. shunt trip E. all of the above
B. time-delay trip D. none of the above
7. Fault diverter are basically
A. fuses B. relays C. fast switches D. circuit breakers
8. A thermal protection switch can protect against
A. short-circuit B. temperature C. overload D. over voltage
9. Arc in a circuit behaves as
A. a capacitive reactance
B. an inductive reactance
C. a resistance increasing with voltage rise across the arc
D. C. a resistance decreasing with voltage rise across the arc
10. Thermal circuit breaker has
A. delayed trip action C. both of the above
B. instantaneous trip action D. none of the above
11. Relays can be designed to respond to changes in
A. resistance, reactance or impedance D. temperature
B. voltage and current E. all of the above
C. light intensity
12. Overload relays are of ___ type.
A. induction C. thermal E. all above
B. solid state D. electromagnetic
13. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over current due to
A. short-circuits B. heavy loads C. grounds D. all of the above
14. Magnetic circuit breaker has ____ trip action
A. delayed B. instantaneous C. both of the above D. none of the above
15. DC shunt relays are made of
A. few turns of thin wire C. many turns of thin wire
B. few turns of thick wire D. many turns of thick wire
16. The relay operating speed depends upon
A. the spring tension C. armature core air gap
B. the rate of flux built up D. all of the above
17. In order that current should flow without causing excessive heating or voltage drop, the relay contacts
should
A. have low contact resistance C. be of sufficient size and proper shape
B. be clean and smooth D. have all above properties
18. Circuit breakers usually operate under
A. transient state of short-circuit current
B. sub-transient state of short-circuit current
C. steady state of short-circuit current
D. after DC component has ceased
19. Circuit breakers are essentially
A. current carrying contacts called electrodes
B. arc extinguisher D. transformer to isolate the two systems
C. circuits to break the system E. any of the above
20. The current zero interruption, in oil and air blast circuit breakers, is achieved by
A. lengthening of the gap C. both (a) and (b) E. none of the above
B. cooling and blast effect D. deionizing the oil with forced air
21. Air blast circuit breaker is used for
A. over currents B. short duty C. intermittent duty D. repeated duty
22. An efficient and a well designed protective relaying should have
A. good selectivity and reliability C. high speed and selectivity
B. economy and simplicity D. all of the above
23. Burden of a protective relay is the power
A. required to operate the circuit breaker C. develop by the relay circuit
B. absorbed by the circuit relay D. none of the above
24. Directional relays are based on flow of
A. power B. current C. voltage wave D. all of the above
25. A differential relay measures the vector difference between
A. two currents C. two or more similar electrical quantities
B. two voltages D. none of the above
26. A transmission line is protected by
A. inrush protection D. both (a) and (c)
B. distance protection E. none of the above
C. time graded and current graded over current protection
27. Large internal faults are protected by
A. merz price percentage differential protection
B. mho and ohm relays
C. horn gaps and temperature relay
D. earth fault and positive sequence relay
28. When a transmission line is energized, the wave that propagates on it is
A. current wave only C. both (a) and (b)
B. voltage wave only D. power factor wave only
29. Protective relays are devices that detect abnormal condition in electrical circuits by measuring
A. current during abnormal condition
B. voltage during abnormal condition
C. constantly the electrical quantities which differ during normal and abnormal condition
D. none of the above
30. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the circuit breaker is called ____ voltage
A. recovery C. operating E. none of the above
B. surge D. arc
31. Ionization in circuit breaker is facilitated by
A. high temperature C. increasing the field strength
B. increase of mean free path D. all of the above
32. In a circuit breaker the basic problem is to
A. maintain the arc C. transmit large power
B. extinguish the arc D. emit the ionizing electrons
33. Overheating of relay contacts or non-contact born out is due to
A. slow making and breaking of load circuit contacts
B. foreign matter on the contact surface
C. too low contact pressure
D. all of the above
34. Interruption of large currents by relay requires
A. arc suppressing blow out coils
B. wide separation of the opened contacts
C. high speed opening of contacts
D. all of the above
35. Shunt capacitance is neglected while considering
A. short transmission line C. long transmission line
B. medium transmission line D. medium and long transmission lines
36. The arc voltage produced in AC circuit breaker is always
A. in phase with the arc current C. leading the arc current by 90°
B. lagging the arc current by 90° D. none of the above
37. The time of closing the cycle, in modern circuit breaker is
A. 0.003 sec C. 0.01 sec E. none of the above
B. 0.001 sec D. 0.10 sec
38. Insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breakers is more than
A. 1 mega ohms C. 100 mega ohms
B. 10 mega ohms D. 500 mega ohms
39. H.R.C. fuses provide best protection against
A. overload B. reverse current C. open-circuits D. short-circuits
40. The ground wire should not be smaller than No _____ copper.
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 10
41. The delay fuses are used for the protection of
A. motors B. power outlet circuits C. fluorescent lamps D. light circuits
42. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for overcurrent is low voltage system?
A. rewireable fuse C. oil circuit breaker E. none of the above
B. isolator D. air breaks circuit breaker
43. Resistance grounding is used for voltage between
A. 33 kV to 66 kV B. 11 kV to 33 kV C. 3.3 kV and 11 kV D. none of the above
44. The contacts of high voltage switches used in power system are submerged in oil. The main purpose
of the oil is to
A. lubricate the contacts D. all of the above
B. insulate the contacts from switch body E. none of the above
C. extinguish the arc
45. In Railway applications _____ circuit breaker is used.
A. ��6 B. bulk oil C. minimum oil D. air break
46. To protect most of the electrical equipment handling low power, the types of relay used are
A. thermocouple C. both (a) and (b)
B. electronic and bimetallic D. none of the above
47. Wave trap is used to trap waves of
A. power frequencies
B. higher frequencies entering generator or transformer units
C. either of the above
D. none of the above
48. Ungrounded neutral transmission system is not recommended because of system
A. insulation being overstress due to over voltages
B. insulation overstress may lead to failure and subsequent phase to phase fault
C. being inadequate protected against ground fault
D. all of the above
49. The reflection co-efficient at the open circuited end of a transmission line is
A. zero B. infinity C. unity D. none of the above
50. For the protection of power station buildings against direct strokes the requirements are
A. interception D. interception, conduction, dissipation and reflection
B. interception and condition E. not directly related with
C. interception, conduction and dissipation
51. The line insulation is ____ the insulation level of the station equipment.
A. less than C. more than E. not directly related with
B. same as D. proportional to
52. The interaction between a transmission line and communication line is to minimize by
A. transposing transmission as well as communication lines
B. increasing the height of the transmission line tower
C. increasing the distance between the two lines
D. all of the above
53. When a wave propagates on a transmission line, it suffers reflection several times at
A. tapping C. sending end E. all of the above
B. load end D. sending and other end
54. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. station batteries are used to operate relay only
B. the lightning arresters are basically surge diverters
C. an impedance relay has maximum fault current when fault occurs near the relay
D. a high speed relay has an operation of 1 to 2 cycles
55. Discrimination between main and back up protection is provided by the use of relays which are
A. fact B. sensitive C. slow D. none of the above
56. Induction cup relay is operated due to changes in
A. current B. voltage C. impedance D. All of the above
57. AC network analyser is used to solve problem of
A. load flow D. load flow, short-circuit and stability
B. load flow and short-circuit E. none of the above
C. load flow and stability
58. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. lightning arrestors are used before the switchgear
B. shunt reactors are used as compensation reactors
C. the peak short current is (1.8 x 2) times the AC component
D. the MVA at fault is equal to base MVA divided by per unit equivalent fault reactance
59. Short-circuit currents are due to
A. single phase to ground faults D. three phase faults
B. phase to phase faults E. any of these
C. two phase to ground faults
60. To reduce short circuit fault currents ____ are used
A. reactors B. resistors C. capacitors D. none of the above
61. Bus coupler is very essential in ____ arrangement
A. single bus C. main and transfer bus
B. double bus, double breaker D. all of the above
62. For cost and safety, the outdoor substations are installed for voltages above
A. 11 kV B. 33 kV C. 60 kV D. 110 kV
63. The short circuit in any winding of the transformer is the result of
A. mechanical vibration C. loose connection
B. insulation failure D. impulse voltage
64. ____ relays are used for phase faults on long line
A. impedance B. reactance C. either of the above D. none of the above
65. For which of the following protection from negative sequence currents is provided?
A. generators B. motors C. transmission line D. transformers
66. ____ relay is preferred for phase fault on short transmission line
A. induction type B. reactance C. impedance D. none of the above
67. Distance relays are generally
A. split-phase relays C. impedance relays
B. reactance relays D. none of the above
68. For which of the following ratings of the transformers differential protection is recommended?
A. above 30 kVA C. equal to and above 25 MVA
B. equal to and above 5 MVA D. none of the above
69. A _____ is used to measure the stator winding temperature of the generator
A. thermocouple C. resistance thermometer
B. pyrometer D. thermometer
70. The under voltage relay can be used for
A. generators C. transformer E. all of the above
B. bus-bar D. motors
71. The relay with inverse time characteristic will operate within
A. 1.5 sec C. 5 to 20 sec E. none of the above
B. 5 to 10 sec D. 20 to 30 sec
72. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
A. single phase motors only C. two single phase motors running in parallel
B. two phase motors only D. three phase motors
73. Which of the following devices will receive voltage surge first travelling on the transmission line?
A. lightning arresters C. step-down
B. relays D. switchgear
74. Which of the following parameter can be neglected for a short line?
A. inductance B. capacitance C. resistance D. reactance
75. Series reactors should have
A. low resistance B. high resistance C. low impedance D. high impedance
76. Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and minimum maintenance?
A. air blast circuit breakers C. vacuum circuit breakers
B. circuit breaker with ��� gas D. oil circuit breakers
77. Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at
A. zero current B. maximum current C. minimum voltage D. maximum voltage
78. ____ transmission line has reflection coefficient as one
A. open circuit B. short-circuit C. long D. none of the above
79. What will be the reflection co-efficient of the wave of load connected to transmission line if surge
impedance of the line is equal to load?
A. zero B. unity C. infinity D. none of the above
80. The inverse definite mean time relays are used for over current and earth fault protection of
transformer against
A. heavy loads C. external short-circuits
B. internal short-circuits D. all of the above
81. Over voltage protection is recommended for
A. hydro-electric generators D. all of the above
B. steam turbine generators E. none of the above
C. gas turbine generators
82. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power system are designed to operate in
A. 100 micro-second C. 0.5 sec
B. 50 milli-second D. 0.1 sec
83. Overfluxing protection is recommended for
A. distribution transformer
B. generator transformer of the power plant
C. auto-transformer of the power plant
D. station transformer of the power plant
84. Series capacitors are used to
A. compensate for line inductive reactance
B. compensate for line capacitive reactance
C. improve line voltage
D. none of the above
85. Admittance relay is ____ relay
A. impedance B. directional C. non-directional D. none of the above
86. The material used for fuse must have
A. low melting point and high specific resistance
B. low melting point and low specific resistance
C. high melting point and low specific resistance
D. low melting point and any specific resistance
87. If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the V/I ratio will be
A. constant for all distances
B. lower than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
C. higher than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
D. none of the above
88. The torque produced in induction type relay ( shaded pole structure) is
A. inversely proportional to the current
B. inversely proportional to the square of the current
C. proportional to the current
D. proportional to square of the current
89. The steady state stability of the power system can be increased by
A. connecting lines in parallel D. reducing the excitation of machines
B. connecting lines in series E. none of the above
C. using machines of high impedance
90. The inductive interference between power and communication line can be minimized by
A. transposition of the power line C. both (a) and (b)
B. transposition of the communication line D. increasing the distance between the conductors
91. The power loss is an important factor for the design of
 A. transmission line B. motor C. generator D. feeder
92. A fuse is connected
A. in series with circuit C. either in series or in parallel with circuit
B. in parallel with circuit D. none of the above
93. H.R.C. fuse, as compared to a rewirable fuse, has
A. no ageing effect C. high rupturing capacity
B. high speed operation D. all of the above
94. The fuse rating is expressed in terms of
A. current B. voltage C. VAR D. kVA
95. The fuse blow off by
A. burning B. arcing C. melting D. none of the above
96. On which of the following effects of electric current a fuse operates?
A. Photoelectric effect C. Heating effect
B. Electrostatic effect D. Magnetic effect
97. An isolator is installed
A. to operate the relay of circuit breaker C. always independent of the position of circuit breaker
B. as a substitute for circuit breaker D. generally on both sides of a circuit breaker
98. A fuse in a motor circuit provides protection against
A. overload C. open circuit, short-circuit and over load
B. short-circuit and overload D. none of the above
99. Protection by fuses is generally not used beyond
A. 20 A B. 50 A C. 100 A D. 200A
100. A fuse is never inserted in
A. neutral wire C. positive of DC circuit
B. negative of DC circuit D. phase line
101. Oil switches are employed for
A. low currents circuit C. high voltages and large currents circuits
B. low voltages circuit D. all circuits
102. A switchgear is device used for
A. interrupting an electrical circuit
B. switching an electrical circuit
C. switching and controlling an electrical circuit
D. switching, controlling and protecting the electrical circuit and equipment
103. The fuse wire, in DC circuits, is inserted in
A. negative circuit only C. both (a) and (b)
B. positive circuit only D. either (a) or (b)
104. By which of the following methods major portion of the heat generated in the H.R.C. fuse
dissipated?
A. radiation B. convection C. conduction D. all of the above
105. A short-circuit is identified by
A. no current flow B. heavy current flow C. voltage drop D. voltage rise
106. The information to the circuit breaker under fault conditions is provided by
A. relay B. rewirable fuse C. H.R.C. fuses D. all of the above
107. To limit short-circuit current in a power system ____ are used
A. earth wires B. isolators C. H.R.C. only D. reactors
108. A balanced 3-phase system consists of
A. zero sequence current only C. negative and zero sequence current
B. positive sequence current only D. zero, negative and positive sequence currents
109. In a single bus-bar system there will be complete shutdown when
 A. fault occurs on the bus itself C. two or more faults occur simultaneously
B. fault occurs on neutral line D. fault occurs with respect to earthing
110. Which of the following is used in liquid fuses?
A. transformer oil B. sulphur hexafluoride C. distilled water D. carbon tetrachloride
111. In a contractor, interrupting medium may be
A. air B. oil C. ��6 gas D. any of the above
112. A circuit breaker, under normal conditions, should be inspected
A. every day C. every month
B. every week D. once in 6 months or 12 months
113. Which of the following circuit breakers has the lowest voltage range?
A. ��6 circuit breaker C. tank type oil circuit breaker
B. air-blast circuit breaker D. air-break circuit breaker
114. The transient voltage that appears across the contacts at the instant of arc extinction is called
____ voltage
A. supply B. recovery C. restriking D. peak
115. A wire possesses
A. direct time characteristics C. either of the above
B. inverse time characteristics D. none of the above
116. Which of the following relays is used for protection of motors against overload?
A. Buchholz relay C. Impedance relay E. None of the above
B. Thermal relay D. Electromagnetic attraction type
117. H.R.C. fuses provide best protection in case of
A. overloads B. open circuits C. short-circuits D. none of the above
118. Minimum arcing voltage will be least in case of
A. silver B. graphite C. carbon D. tungsten
119. Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is usually expressed in terms of
A. volts C. MVA E. none of the above
B. amperes D. MW
120. The total time for high speed breakers in nearly
A. five cycles B. few cycles C. one cycles D. half cycles
121. Which of the following is not a part of the circuit breaker?
A. operating mechanism C. explosion pot
B. conservator D. fixed and moving contact
122. Which of the following circuit breakers will produce the least arc energy?
A. air blast circuit breaker C. plain oil circuit breaker
B. minimum oil circuit breaker D. none of the above
123. In a circuit breaker the time duration from the instant of the fault to extinction of arc is known as
A. clearing time B. operation time C. lag time D. lead time
124. Air used in air blast circuit breaker
A. must be free from moisture C. must be ionized
B. must have least ��2 D. must have oil mist
125. The rating of a circuit breaker is generally determined on the basis of
A. line-to-line fault current C. single line to ground fault current
B. symmetrical fault current D. double line to ground fault current
126. ____ gives rise to symmetrical fault?
A. phase-to-phase C. double phase to ground E. none of the above
B. single phase to ground D. three-phase short-circuit
127. In circuit breakers, the advantage of using oil as quenching medium is
A. oil acts as insulator C. absorption of arc every
 B. oil has high dielectric strength D. all of the above
128. In the event of a fault on connected circuit, a circuit breaker will operate
A. automatically C. manually through control switch
B. manually D. depends on the design
129. An arc in a circuit behaves like
A. an inductive reactance C. infinite reactance
B. a capacitive reactance D. a resistance decreasing with voltage rise across the arc
130. A differential relay responds to
A. vector difference between two electrical quantities
B. algebraic difference between two voltages
C. algebraic difference between two currents
D. algebraic difference between two electrical quantities
131. Buchholz’s relay is
A. installed inside the breaker
B. located on the top of conservator tank
C. connected in the pipe connecting main tank of transformer and conservator
D. part of circuit breaker installed near the transformer
132. The pilot relay is provided to obtain
A. high speed tripping C. preset tripping
B. delayed tripping D. none of the above
133. A circuit breaker will normally operate
A. whenever fault in the line occur C. when the line is to be checked
B. when the switch is put on D. when the power is to be supplied
134. Merz-Price protection is used for
A. alternators C. long transmission lines
B. short transmission line D. air cooled transformers
135. Reactance relays are used for phase fault in ____ line.
A. short B. medium C. long D. all of the above
136. An earth conductor provided on the top of the transmission line provides protection against
A. direct lightning stroke
B. travelling waves
C. electro-statically induced voltage due to a changed cloud
D. all of the above
137. The use of oil immersed reactors is generally restricted upto
A. 5 kV B. 11 kV C. 22 kV D. 33 kV
E. normally no restriction of voltage
138. A lightning arrester provides
A. a low impedance path between line and ground, during operation
B. a high impedance path between line and ground, during operation
C. a low resistance path between line and ground, during operation
D. a high resistance path between line and ground, during operation
139. Which system will need the lightning arrester of least voltage rating?
A. solid ground neutral system C. resistance grounded neutral system
B. insulated neutral system D. reactance grounded neutral system
140. Buchholz relay cannot be used on
A. three phase transformers C. 500 kV transformers
B. air cooled transformers D. 1000 kV transformers
141. Basically a lightning arrester is a
A. surge diverter B. surge alternator C. surge reflector D. surge absorber
142. Least number of faults are generally reported for
A. transmission lines C. switchgears
B. cables D. transformers
143. The material used for bus-bar should have
A. low cost C. low resistivity
B. higher softening temperature D. all of the above
144. The main factor in favour of the use of aluminium as bus-bar material is its
A. low cost B. low density C. low melting point D. high resistivity
145. Surge modifiers are used to
A. modify the shape of wave front C. reduce the current of wave front
B. reduce the steepness of wave front D. reduce the voltage of wave front
146. Current limiting reactors may be
A. air cooled air cored C. oil immersed non-magnetically shielded
B. oil immersed magnetically shielded D. any of the above
147. Which portion of transmission system is least prone to faults?
A. Alternators B. Switchgear C. Overhead lines D. None of the above
148. Switching over voltages arc more hazardous that lightning surges in case of
A. unbalanced systems C. 11 kV system E. none of the above
B. low voltages D. EHV and UHV system
149. Thermal relays are often employed in
A. motor starters C. generator protection
B. transformer protection D. none of the above
150. Which of the following protective devices can be used against lightning surges?
A. lightning arrester C. surge diverters
B. horn gap D. any of the above
151. The over-voltage surges in power systems may be caused by
A. resonance B. switching C. lightning D. any of the above
152. The contact space in circuit breakers is ionized by
A. field emission from the surface of contacts
B. thermal emission from surface of contacts
C. thermal ionization of gas
D. any of the above
153. The breaking capacity of a 3-phase circuit breaker is given by
A. � x service voltage x rated symmetrical current
B. 3 x service voltage x rated symmetrical current
C. 2 x service voltage x rated symmetrical current
D. none of the above
154. The positive sequence impedance of a transmission line is
A. three times the negative sequence current D. always zero
B. equal to negative sequence current E. none of the above
C. one-third of negative sequence current
155. The most serious result of a major uncleared short-circuit fault could be
A. blowing off of fuse C. deterioration
B. fire D. heavy current in neutral
156. Which fuse material is more susceptible to oxidation as compared to the remaining?
A. silver B. copper C. tin lead alloy
157. Outdoor switchgear is generally used for voltage beyond
A. 11 kV B. 33 kV C. 66 kV D. 132 kV
158. ��6 gas is transported in
A. air cylinder C. liquid form in cylinder E. none of the above
B. gas cylinder D. solid form in boxes
159. The advantage of neutral eathing is
A. freedom from persistent arcing grounds
B. over voltages due to lightning can be discharged to earth
C. simplify design earth fault protection
D. all of the above
160. In a circuit breaker ionization is not facilitated by
A. material of contacts C. increase of field strength
B. increase of mean path D. high temperature of surrounding medium
161. The apparatus including its associated auxiliaries employed for controlling, regulating and
switching on or off the electrical circuits in the electrical power system is known as _____.
Answer: switchgear
162. Broadly speaking switchgear is of two type: (i) ____ type and (ii) ___ type.
Answer: outdoor, indoor
163. A surge may be considered as high voltage of very high frequency. Answer: YES
164. Reversed power (fault) occurs only in ____ system. Answer: inter connected
165. The fault of ____ current occurs mainly to short-circuit or leakage due to corona effect and
sometimes due to overload on the supply system. Answer: over
166. In a power system under voltage (fault) occurs either on short-circuits because of more voltage
drop in lines and machines or on failure of alternator’s field. Answer: YES
167. A ____ is a coil designed to have a large inductive reactance in comparison with its ohmic
resistance. Answer: reactor
168. The reactors ____ the fault by limiting the current that can flow into it from other healthy parts of
the system. Answer: localize
169. The reactors are employed to protect the circuit breakers of ____ rating. Answer: adequate
170. The use of open type reactors is limited to 5 kV. Answer: NO
171. Oil immersed type reactors are used for voltages above 33 kV. Answer: YES
172. When the reactors are inserted in series with each generators the reactors are known as ____
reactors. Answer: generator
173. When the reactors are connected in series with the feeder, the reactor are known as ____
reactors. Answer: feeder
174. In a tie-bar system the generators are connected to the common bus-bar through the reactors but
the feeders are fed from the generator side of the reactors. Answer: YES
175. A ____ is used in an electric circuit as a device for making or breaking an electric circuit in a
convenient way. Answer: switch
176. ____ are mechanical devices designed to close or open contact members, thus closing or
opening an electrical circuit under normal or abnormal conditions. Answer: circuit breakers
177. ____ resistance method of extinguishing arc is employed in DC circuit breakers and low and
medium power industrial type air circuit breakers. Answer: High
178. ____ resistance method of extinguishing arc is applicable only to AC circuits in which resistance
is kept low and arc is prevented from restriking after it has gone out at a current zero. Answer: low
179. During the arcing period the voltage across the contacts is known as ____ voltage. Answer: arc
180. Low voltage air circuit breakers are designed for use on DC circuit and low voltage AC (up to and
including 600 V) circuits. Answer: YES
181. Oil circuit ___ are increasingly employed in unattended substations and rural distribution
schemes, where circuit breakers are employed in outlying areas. Answer: reclosers
182. ____is a wire of short length or thin strip of material having low melting point and is inserted in an
electric circuit as a protective device to the flow of an excessive current through the circuit.
Answer: Fuse
183. The conductivity of ____ does not deteriorate with oxidation. Answer: silver
184. ____ current is defined as the minimum value of current at which the fuse element or fuse wire
melts. Answer: Fusing
185. A relay is an ____ operated switch. Answer: electrically
186. Silver contacts ____ be oiled because this causes overheating. Answer: should not
187. A relay switch operated faster as current increases ia said to have ____ characteristics.
Answer: inverse time
188. A relay switch operates with a time lag after current reaches a particular value is called time delay
over current relay. Answer: YES
189. A relay operates immediately on current reaching a particular value is called ____ over current
relay. Answer: instantaneous
190. Discharged resistor is placed across relay contacts to avoid ____ jumping across them causing
their pitting and burning. Answer: arc
191. Solenoid relay is an instantaneous over current relay but dash pot makes it ___ over current relay.
Answer: time delay
192. _____ prevents one set of contacts from closing while other set of contacts is closed.
Answer: interlock
193. Air blast circuit breaker uses dry compressed air. Answer: YES
194. Air circuit breakers used for voltage above 10 kV. Answer: NO
195. An ___ does not have any current making or current breaking capacity. Answer: isolator
196. An isolator is always operated normally. Answer: NO
197. Non-linear resistors are used in lightning resistors. Answer: YES
198. The damage caused by surge depends on ____ of the wave front. Answer: steepness
199. Frequency relays are used in generator protection. Answer: YES
200. Distance relay is used where time lag can be permitted. Answer: NO
201. Tripping relays are slow and generally attracting armature type. Answer: NO
202. Arcing ground is also known as ____ fault. Answer: earth
203. A directional relay senses ___. Answer: power
204. Isolators are mainly used for providing disconnection for _____. Answer: maintenance
205. Current breakers are generally overhauled every three years. Answer: YES
206. Trip circuit is normally a part of circuit breakers. Answer: YES
207. The time interval between occurance of fault and closure of relay contacts is known as ___.
Answer: relay time
208. The time interval between closure of trip circuit and final arc interruption is known as breaker time.
Answer: YES
209. Most of the alternators are provided with Buchholz relay in addition to differential protection.
Answer: NO
210. Short-circuit tests are conducted on circuit breakers to prove the ratings of the circuit-breaker.
Answer: YES
211. Core balance current transformers are used for ___ protection. Answer: earth fault
212. In oil circuit breakers transformer oil is used. Answer: YES
213. Arcing contacts of circuit breakers are generally made of copper tungsten alloy. Answer: YES
214. In electromagnetic relays the restraining torque is given by ___. Answer: spring
215. All AC power systems of to-day operate with solid grounding. Answer: NO
216. The holding ratio of a relay is usually more than one. Answer: NO
217. Loss of excitation may cause a generator to run as induction generator . Answer: YES
218. Alarm relays initiate ____. Answer: alarm
219. Selectivity is the property by virtue of which the protective relaying system distinguishes between
normal condition and abnormal condition. Answer: YES
220. For a round wire the approximate value of fusing current is given by: � = ______. Answer: ���/�
221. The ratio of minimum fusing current and the current rating of fuse element is known as _____
factor. Answer: fusing
222. The value of fusing factor is always greater than ____. Answer: unity
223. The maximum value to which the fault current reaches before the fuse melts is called the ____
current. Answer: cut off
224. Arcing-time is the time accounted from the instant of the arc initiation to the instant of arc being
distinguished or the arc current becomes zero. Answer: YES
225. ____ capacity of a fuse is the rating corresponding to the r.m.s. value of the Ac component of the
maximum prospective current and the system voltage. Answer: Breaking
226. In ___ relays the operation depends upon the ratio of the voltage to the current.
Answer: distance
227. A ___ relay operates when some specified phase or magnitude difference between the two or
more electrical quantities occur. Answer: differential
228. Directional or reverse power relay operates when the applied current and voltage assume
specified phase displacement and no compensation is allowed for fall in voltage. Answer: YES
229. By placing a fuse in parallel with instantaneous or definite time lag relay it can be made as ____
time lag relay. Answer: inverse
230. A Buchholz relay is a form of ____ relay. Answer: thermal
231. A ____ relay is practically universally used on all oil immersed transformers having rating more
than 750 kVA. Answer: Buchholz
232. A Buchholz relay is used in connection with some forms of electrically operated protective gear,
because it provides protection against ____ internal faults and does not respond to external bushing
or cable connection faults. Answer: transformers
233. Induction type reverse power relays are very suitable for protection of ____ feeders.
Answer: parallel
234. Almost any type relay, when connected in a particular way, can be made to operate as ___ relay.
Answer: differential
235. Translay relays are employed for feeder protection. Answer: YES
236. The most common form of protection used for stator winding faults is ____ protection operating
on the principle of differential circulating current protection. Answer: Merz-price
237. ____ protection is now widely used on large rating transformers for the purpose of protection
against transformer internal faults. Answer: Buchholz
238. Core-balance leakage protection is used to provide protection against earth faults of low voltage
winding. Answer: NO
239. Over-load protection system can be used for protection of any equipment or line against the
current ____ than predetermined one. Answer: more
240. Reverse power protection system is employed in interconnected system for generating units or
stations. Answer: YES
241. In a shunt relay, less the air gap ____ will be voltage to operate the conductor. Answer: lower
242. Kiosik is an indoor type switchgear. Answer: NO
243. DC relay are ____ in operation than Ac relays. Answer: slower
244. Power factor of an arc is ___. Answer: unity
245. Movable member of iron circuit of a relay is called ____. Answer: armature
246. Phase fault is line-to-line fault. Answer: YES
247. The grounding is generally at the ____ end. Answer: supply
248. Isolators operate under no-load conditions. Answer: YES
249. A sudden short-circuit in an AC system causes a fall in current in the short-circuited phase.
Answer: NO
250. Arcing ground s also known as earth. Answer: YES
CABLES

1. The insulating materials for a cable should have

A. low cost C. high mechanical strength
B. high dielectric strength D. all of the above
2. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury?
A. bedding B. sheath C. armouring D. none of the above
3. Which of the following insulation is used in cables?
A. varnished cambric C. paper
B. rubber D. any of the above
4. Empire tape is
A. varnished cambric C. impregnated paper
B. vulcanized rubber D. none of the above
5. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
A. reactive power B. power factor C. voltage D. current carrying capacity
6. The bedding on a cable consists of
A. hessian cloth B. jute C. any of the above D. none of the above
7. The insulating material for cables should
A. be acid proof B. be non-inflammable C. be non-hygroscopic D. have all above properties
8. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath ____ is provided.
A. earthing connection C. armouring
B. bedding D. none of the above
9. The current carrying capacity of cables in DC is more than that in AC mainly due to
A. absence of harmonics D. absence of ripples
B. non-existence of any stability limit E. none of the above
C. smaller dielectric loss
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
A. blue B. black C. brown D. none of the above
11. ____ cables are used for 132 kV lines.
A. high tension B. super tension C. extra high tension D. extra super voltage
12. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect ____ cables.
A. unsheathed cables C. PVC sheated surface
B. armoured D. all of the above
13. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at
A. armour B. bedding C. conductor surface D. lead sheath
14. In single core cables armouring is not done to
A. avoid excessive sheath losses C. either of the above
B. makes it flexible D. none of the above
15. Dielectric strength of rubber is around
A. 5 kV/mm B. 15 kV/mm C. 30 kV/mm D. 200 kV/mm
16. Low tension cables are generally used up to
A. 200 V B. 500 V C. 700 V D. 1000 V
17. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at
A. insulation layer B. sheath C. armour D. conductor surface
18. High tension cable are generally used up to
A. 11 kV B. 33 kV C. 66 kV D. 132 kV
19. The surge resistance of cables is
A. 5 ohms B. 20 ohms C. 50 ohms D. 100 ohms
20. PVC stands for
 A. polyvinyl chloride D. positive voltage conductor
B. post varnish conductor E. none of the above
C. pressed and varnished cloth
21. In the cable, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
A. the resistance of the conductor C. the capacitances of insulated conductors
B. the inductance of conductors D. all above parameters
22. In capacitance grading of cables we use a ____ dielectric.
A. composite B. porous C. homogenous D. hygroscopic
23. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond
A. 11 kV B. 33 kV C. 66 kV D. 132 kV
24. The material for armouring on cable is usually
A. steel tape B. galvanized steel wire C. any of the above D. none of the above
25. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are
A. oil filled B. S.L. type C. belted D. armoured
26. The relative permittivity of rubber is
A. between 2 and 3 C. between 8 and 10
B. between 5 and 6 D. between 12 and 14
27. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66 kV because
A. insulation may melt due to higher temperature
B. skin effect dominates on the conductor
C. of corona loss between conductor and sheath material
D. there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence of voids
28. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance
A. becomes one-fourth C. becomes double
B. becomes one-half D. remains unchanged
29. In cables the charging current
A. lags the voltage by 90° C. lags the voltage by 180°
B. leads the voltage by 90° D. leads the voltage by 180°
30. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced by one of
relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
A. one half B. double C. four times D. none of the above
31. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the dielectric strength
of insulation should be
A. 5 kV/mm B. 10 kV/mm C. 15 kV/mm D. 30 kV/mm
32. In the cables, sheaths are used to
A. prevent the moisture from entering the cable
B. provide enough strength
C. provide proper insulation
D. none of the above
33. The inter-sheaths in the cables are used to
A. minimize the stress C. provide proper stress distribution
B. avoid the requirement of good insulation D. none of the above
34. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is
A. same at the conductor and the sheath
B. minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath
C. maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
D. zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
E. none of the above
35. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
 A. inter-sheaths
B. insulating materials with different dielectric constants
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
36. The insulation of the cables decreases with
A. the increase in the length of the insulation
B. the decrease in the length of the insulation
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of the above
37. A cable carrying alternating current has
A. hysteresis losses only C. hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
B. hysteresis and leakage losses only D. hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
38. In a cable voltage stress is maximum at
A. sheath C. surface of the conductor
B. insulator D. core of the conductor
39. Capacitance grading of cable implies
A. use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
B. grading according to capacitance of cables per km length
C. cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
D. capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to counter the effect to inductance
E. none of the above
40. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth
A. to minimize temperature stresses
B. to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
C. to minimize the effect of shocks and vibrations due to passing vehicles, etc.
D. for all of the above reasons
41. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission lines is
A. easy maintenance C. can be used in congested areas
B. low cost D. can be used in high voltage circuits
42. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually
A. 0.04 mm B. 0.2 to 0.4 mm C. 3 to 5 mm D. 40 to 60 mm
43. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably
A. mica insulated D. rubber insulated
B. paper insulated E. none of the above
C. compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
44. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 100 kV, which insulation would you prefer?
A. polyvinyl chloride C. impregnated paper E. none of the above
B. vulcanized rubber D. compressed ��� gas
45. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance between the
two, to avoid interference, should be
A. 2 cm B. 10 cm C. 50 cm D. 400 cm
46. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
A. annealed C. hard drawn
B. hardened and tempered D. alloy with chromium
47. The insulating material should have
A. low permittivity C. high dielectric strength
B. high resistivity D. all of the above
48. The advantage of oil filled cables is
A. more perfect impregnation C. no ionization, oxidation and formation of voids
 B. smaller overall size D. all of the above
49. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
A. it is hygroscopic C. it is an organic material
B. it has high capacitance D. none of the above
50. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on
A. presence of moisture C. time of application of the voltage
B. working temperature D. all of the above
51. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables. Answer: YES
52. Insulation resistance can be measured by ____. Answer: meggar
53. Enamel insulation is liable to ____. Answer: crack
54. The operating voltage for low tension cables is up to ____.Answer: 1kV
55. The multicore cables for use up to 11 kV are of ____ type. Answer: belt
56. H-type cables are used up to ____. Answer: 66 kV
57. The disadvantage of S.L. type cable is that manufacturing is difficult because of ____ lead sheaths.
Answer: thinner
58. Single core oil filled cables can be used up to ___. Answer: 132 kV
59. The ____ strength of the cable depends upon the maximum stress it can bear. Answer: breakdown
60. In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric is used. Answer: NO
61. The insulation resistance of a single core sheathed cable varies ____ as the length of the cable.
Answer: inversely
62. In single core cables copper used is ____ copper. Answer: tinned stranded
63. The process of achieving uniformity in dielectric stress is known as ___ of cables. Answer: grading
64. In ___ grading method of cable grading a homogeneous dielectric is used, which is divided into
various layers, by suitably placing the metallic inter-sheaths. Answer: inter-sheath
65. Grading is only useful for very high voltage cables for which ratio D/d is ____. Answer: large
66. The capacitance of a cable is of much greater importance than that of an overhead line of the same
length. Answer: YES
67. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and inconvenient ‘draw in system’ of laying of
underground cables is often adopted. Answer: YES
68. ___ system of laying underground cables is rarely used because of its high cost. Answer: Solid
69. ___ gas is often used in external pressure cables. Answer: Nitrogen
70. Natural rubber id obtained from milky sap of tropical trees. Answer: YES
71. The conductor of cables is usually ___. Answer: stranded
72. The purpose of providing the ____ is to protect the metallic sheath from mechanical injury from the
armouring. Answer: bedding
73. In cables over and above armouring a layer of fibrous material is again provided which is similar to
that of bedding but is called as ____. Answer: serving
74. Rubber is most commonly used insulation in cables. Answer: YES
75. Polyethylene has very poor dielectric and ageing properties. Answer: NO
76. Normal life of a cable is expected to be 15 years. Answer: YES
77. The metallic sheath may be made of lead or lead alloy or aluminium. Answer: YES
78. The high tension cables are so designed that the ionization effects are maximum. Answer: NO
79. The belted cables are not suited for H.T. potential. Answer: YES
80. In the belted cables the dielectric does not remain homogeneous and may result into formation of
voids. Answer: YES
81. Cables can be generally used up to 11 kV. Answer: NO
82. In a three core cables the colour of the neutral is red. Answer: NO
83. The surge resistance of cables is about 10 ohms. Answer: NO
84. Minimum distance of cable from the foundation of the building should be 10 m. Answer: NO
85. When a cable is to cross a road, it should be laid in pipes or conduits. Answer: YES
86. The size of the conductor of power cables depends on the type of insulation. Answer: NO
87. Insulation resistance of cables is usually measured in terms of ____ ohms. Answer: mega
88. Relative permittivity of rubber is 8. Answer: NO
89. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually 0.5mm. Answer: NO
90. Sheaths are provided in cables for reducing capacitance. Answer: NO
91.
92.
93.
94. e
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MATERIALS

1. The converse of hardness is known as

A. malleability B. toughness C. softness D. none of the above
2. On which of the following factors does the resistivity of a material depend?
A. resistance of the conductor C. length of the conductor
B. area of the conductor section D. all of the above
3. ___ is a negatively charge particle present in an atom.
A. proton B. neutron C. electron D. none of the above
4. The formula ___ determines the number of electrons that can be accommodated in any level.
A. ��� B. 4�2 C. 2�3 D. 4�3
5. The tiny blocked formed by the arrangement of a small group of atoms is called the
A. unit cell B. space lattice C. either (a) or (b) D. none of the above
6. The coordination number of a simple cubic structure is
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
7. The covalent bond is formed by
A. transfer of electrons between atoms
B. sharing of electrons between atoms
C. sharing of variable number of electrons by a variable number of atoms
D. none of the above
8. A perfect conductor has
A. zero conductivity C. infinite conductivity
B. unity conductivity D. none of the above
9. The metal having the lowest temperature co-efficient of resistance is
A. gold B. copper C. aluminium D. kanthal
10. Commonly used conducting materials are
A. copper C. both (a) and (b) E. platinum and gold
B. aluminium D. copper and silver
11. Which of the following materials is preferred for transmitting electrical energy over long distance?
A. copper C. steel reinforced copper
B. aluminium D. steel reinforced aluminium
12. The kinetic energy of a bounded electrons is
A. less than that of unbounded electron D. infinite
B. greater than that of unbounded electron E. none of the above
C. equal to that of unbounded electron
13. A highly conductive material must have
A. highest conductivity D. good corrosion resistance
B. lowest temperature co0efficient E. easy solderable and drawable quality
C. good mechanical strength F. all of the above
14. The conductivity of a conductor can be increased by
A. decreasing its temperature C. decreasing its vibration
B. increasing its temperature D. increasing its vibration
15. Superconductivity is observed for
A. infrared frequencies D. frequencies having no effect
B. DC and low frequency E. none of the above
C. AC and high frequency
16. The superconductivity is due to
A. the crystal structure having no atomic vibration at 0°K
B. all electrons interact in the superconducting state
 C. the electrons jump into nucleus at 0°K
D. none of the above
17. The value of critical field below the transition temperature will
A. increase B. decrease C. remain unchanged D. any of the above
18. In a superconductor the value of critical density depends upon
A. magnetic field strength C. either (a) or (b)
B. temperature D. both (a) and (b)
19. Superconductors are becoming popular for use in
A. generating very strong magnetic field
B. manufacture of bubble memories
C. generating electrostatic field
D. generating regions free from magnetic field
20. High resistivity materials are used in
A. precision instruments D. incandescent lamps
B. heating elements E. all of the above
C. motor starters
21. Mercury as an electric contact material is
A. a liquid B. a metal C. a metal liquid D. a gas
22. An H.R.C. fuse in
A. a ceramic body having metal and caps C. a heavy cross-section of copper or aluminium
B. a wire of platinum D. a ceramic tube having carbon rod inside it
23. Which of the following resistive materials has the lowest temperature co-efficient of resistance?
A. Nichrome B. Constantan C. Kanthal D. Molybdenum
24. The coils of DC motor starter are wound with wire of
A. copper B. kanthal C. manganin D. nichrome
25. The conductors have transport phenomena of electrons due to
A. electric field B. magnetic field C. electromagnetic field D. none of the above
26. The transition temperature of mercury is
A. 18.0°K B. 9.22°K C. 4.12°K D. 1.14°K
27. By increasing impurity content in the metal alloy the residual resistivity always
A. decreases C. remains constant
B. increases D. becomes temperature independent
28. The structure sensitive property of a super conductor is
A. critical magnetic field C. critical current density
B. transition temperature D. none of the above
29. At transition temperature the value of critical field is
A. zero B. negative real value C. positive real value D. complex value
30. Which of the following variety of copper has the best conductivity?
A. induction hardened copper C. pure annealed copper
B. hard drawn copper D. copper containing traces of silicon
31. Constantan contains
A. silver and tin B. copper and tungsten C. tungsten and silver D. copper and nickel
32. Which of the following is the poorest conductor of electricity?
A. carbon B. steel C. silver D. aluminium
33. _____ has zero temperature co-efficient of resistance
A. aluminium B. carbon C. porcelain D. manganin
34. Piezoelectric materials serve as a source of ____
A. resonant waves B. musical waves C. microwaves D. ultrasonic waves
35. In thermocouples which of the following pairs is commonly used?
 A. copper-constantan C. silver-german silver
B. aluminium-tin D. iron-silver
36. ____ is viscoelastic
A. cast-iron B. graphite C. rubber D. glass
37. Carbon electrodes are not used in
A. GLS lamps B. electric arc furnace C. dry cells D. cinema projectors
38. Solder is an alloy of
A. copper and aluminium C. nickel, copper and zinc
B. tin and lead D. silver, copper and lead
39. ____ is mostly commonly used for making magnetic recording tape
A. silver nitrate B. ferric oxide C. small particles of iron D. silicon-iron
40. Overhead telephone wires are made of
A. aluminium B. steel C. ACSR conductors D. copper
41. ____ is an example of piezoelectric material
A. glass B. quartz C. corundum D. neoprene
42. ____ is the main consistent of glass
A. ��2 �3 B. ���� C. ��2 �3 D. �2 �3
43. A good electric contact material should have all of the following properties except
A. high resistivity C. good thermal conductivity
B. high resistance to corrosion D. high melting point
44. Most of the common metals have ___ structure.
A. linear B. hexagonal C. orthorhombic D. cubic
45. Which of the following affect greatly the resistivity of electrical conductors?
A. composition B. pressure C. size D. temperature
46. Thermonic emission occurs in
A. vacuum tubes B. copper conductors C. ferrite cores D. transistors
47. ____ is a hard solder.
A. tin-lead B. tin-silver-lead C. copper-zinc D. none of the above
48. Addition of 0.3 to 4.5% silicon to iron ___ the electrical resistivity of iron
A. increases B. decreases C. does not change
49. Super conductivity can be destroyed by
A. adding impurities C. application of magnetic field
B. reducing temperatures D. any of the above
50. Non-linear resistors
A. produce harmonic distortion
B. follows Ohm’s law at low temperatures only
C. result in non-uniform heating
D. none of the above
51. A carbon resistor contains
A. carbon crystals C. pulverized coal
B. solid carbon granules D. finely divided carbon black
52. Which of the following materials does not have covalent bonds?
A. organic polymers B. Silicon C. Metals
53. In graphite, bonding is
A. covalent B. metallic C. vander waals D. vander waals and covalent
54. Total number of crystal systems is
A. 2 B. 4 C. 7 D. 12
55. The number of atoms per unit cell in B.C.C. structure is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8
56. The conducting of metal is determined by
A. the electronic concentration and the mobility of the free electrons
B. the number of valence electrons per atom
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of the above
57. The resistivity of a metal is a function of temperature because
A. the amplitude of vibration of the atoms varies with temperature
B. the electrons density varies with temperature
C. the electrons gas density varies with temperature
58. In a crystal, an atom vibrates at a frequency determined by
A. the heat content of the crystal
B. the temperature of the crystal
C. the stiffness of the bonds it makes with neighbors
59. Due to which of the following reasons aluminium does not corrode in atmosphere?
A. aluminium is a noble metal
B. atmospheric oxygen can only fuse very slowly through the oxide layer which id formed on
the surface of aluminium
C. no reaction with oxygen occurs
D. any of the above
60. The impurity atoms is semiconductors
A. inject more charge carriers C. increase the kinetic energy of valence electrons
B. reduce the energy gap D. all of the above
61. Which of the following material is not a semiconductor?
A. silica B. germanium C. selenium D. gallium-arsenide
62. Carbon resistor are used extensively because they are
A. easy to make B. compact C. inexpensive D. all of the above reason
63. Carbon rods are used in wet and dry cells because
A. carbon rod serves as conductor
B. carbon can resist the attack of battery acid
C. both (a) and (b)
D. either (a) or (b)
64. Due to which of the following factors the brush wear rate is altered?
A. speed of the machine D. excessive sparking
B. contact pressure E. all of the above
C. surface conditions of brush and commutator
65. Which of the following are non-conductors of electricity?
A. non-metal solids except carbon C. pure water and liquids in general except mercury
B. air and most other gases D. all of the above
66. Carbon bearings are used under which of the following conditions?
A. where lubrication is difficult or impossible
B. where corrosive chemical action exists
C. where high temperature exists
D. all of the above
67. Which of the following high resistance materials has the highest operating temperature?
A. Kanthal B. Manganin C. Nichrome D. Eureka
68. Steel wire is used as
A. overhead telephone wire C. core wire of ACSR
B. earth wire D. all of the above
69. Low resistivity materials are used in
 A. transformer, motor and generator windings
B. transmission and distribution lines
C. house wiring
D. all above applications
70. Platinum is used in
A. electrical contacts D. grids of special purpose vacuum tubes
B. thermocouple E. all of the above
C. heating element in high temperature furnace
71. Which of the following is an advantage of stranded conductor over equivalent single conductor?
A. less liability to link C. less liability to break
B. greater flexibility D. all of the above
72. Due to which of the following reasons copper and aluminium are not used for heating elements?
A. both have great tendency for oxidation C. very large length of wires will be required
B. both have low melting point D. all of the above
73. Copper, even though costly, finds use in the windings of electrical machines because
A. copper points offer low contact resistance
B. copper can be easily soldered and welded
C. copper windings are less bulky and the machines become compact
D. all of the above
74. Which of the following materials is used for making coils of standard resistances?
A. copper B. nichrome C. platinum D. manganin
75. Substances whose specific resistance abruptly decreases at very low temperature are called
A. insulators B. conductors C. semiconductors D. superconductors
76. Which of the following materials is the best conductor of electricity?
A. tungsten B. aluminium C. copper D. carbon
77. ____ is property of absorbing moisture from atmosphere
A. Solubility B. Viscosity C. Porosity D. Hygroscopicity
78. Thermocouples are mainly used for the measurement of
A. temperature B. resistance C. eddy current D. coupling co-efficient
79. Due to which of the following fact, in India, aluminium is replacing copper?
A. aluminium is more ductile and malleable than copper
B. aluminium is available in plenty, cheaper and lighter than copper
C. aluminium has lower resistivity than that copper
D. aluminium has less temperature co-efficient that copper
80. The conduction of electricity, in semiconductors, takes place due to movement of
A. positive ions only C. positive and negative ions
B. negative ions only D. electrons and holes
81. Which of the following semiconductor material?
A. Phosphorus B. Rubber C. Silicon D. Aluminium
82. Selenium is ____ semiconductor.
A. extrinsic B. intrinsic C. N-type D. P-type
83. ___ has the best damping properties.
A. Diamond B. High speed steel C. Mild steel D. Cast iron
84. The photo-electric effect occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain critical
A. intensity B. speed C. frequency D. wave length
85. If the resistance of a conductor does not vary in accordance with Ohm’s law it is known as
A. non-linear conductor C. bad-conductor
B. reverse conductor D. non-conductor
86. Spark plug makes use of which of the following materials for insulation?
 A. porcelain B. slate C. asbestos D. glass
87. The forbidden gap in an insulator is
A. large B. small C. nil D. any of the above
88. Which of the following factors affect resistivity of metals?
A. age hardening C. temperature E. all of the above
B. alloying D. cold work
89. Effect of the moisture on the insulating materials is to
A. decrease dielectric constant D. increase dielectric loss
B. decrease dielectric strength E. all of the above
C. decrease insulation resistance
90. Surface resistance of an insulating material is reduced due to the
A. smoky and dirty atmosphere C. both (a) and (b)
B. humidity in the atmosphere D. neither (a) nor (b)
91. Superconducting metal in superconducting state has relative permeability of
A. zero B. one C. negative D. more than one
92. In conductors conduction of electricity takes place due to movement of
A. electrons only C. negative ions only E. none of the above
B. positive ions only D. positive and negative ions
93. The carbon percentage is least in
A. low carbon steel C. cast iron
B. wrought iron D. malleable iron
94. For a particular material the Hall co-efficient was found to be zero. The material is
A. insulator C. intrinsic semiconductor
B. metal D. none of the above
95. The conductivity of extrinsic semiconductor ____ with temperature
A. decreases B. increases C. remains constant
96. The current due to electron flow in conduction band is ____ the hole current in valence band.
A. equal to B. less than C. greater than D. any of the above
97. For a hole which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. holes can exist in certain semiconductors only
B. holes can exist in any material including conductors
C. holes may constitute an electric current
D. holes can be considered as a net positive charge
98. ___ is an element used in semiconductors whose atoms have three valence electrons
A. an accepter B. a donor C. germanium D. silicon
99. The minority carrier concentration is largely a function of
A. forward biasing voltage C. temperature
B. reverse biasing voltage D. the amount of doping
100. For germanium the forbidden energy gap is
A. 0.15 eV B. 0.25 eV C. 0.5 eV D. 0.7 eV
101. In an intrinsic semiconductor
A. there are no electrons in the material C. the number of holes is too small
B. there are no holes in the material D. electrons is the material are neutralized by the holes
102. A pure semiconductor, under ordinary conditions behaves like
A. a conductor B. an insulator C. a magnetic material D. a ferroelectric material
103. Germanium possesses
A. two valence electrons C. four valence electrons
B. three valence electrons D. five valence electrons
104. In a semiconductor, the hole formed is a
 A. positive charge carrier C. either of the above
B. negative charge carrier D. none of the above
105. In ____ semiconductor, the Fermi level lies midway between the conduction and valence bands
A. intrinsic B. P-type C. N-type D. both (b) and (c)
106. The conductivity of semiconductors depends on which of the following factors?
A. number of current carries present per unit volume
B. the mobility of the current carriers
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
107. Thermistors find use in which of the following
A. in thermometry D. in control devices actuated by temperature changes
B. in measurement of microwave power E. all of the above
C. as a thermal relay
108. In a semiconductor the resistivity decreases ____ with temperature
A. linearly B. non-linearly C. exponentially
109. A thermistor has ___ temperature co-efficient of resistance
A. zero B. a negative C. a positive D. any of the above
110. When radiation is incident on a semiconductor, its conductivity increases, this effect is called
A. Hall effect B. Seebeck effect C. photo conductive effect D. none of the above
111. In a P.N.P. transistor majority charge carriers are
A. electrons B. holes C. both (a) and (b) D. either (a) or (b)
112. In a P.N.P transistor the collector current is always
A. less than the emitter current C. greater than the emitter current
B. equal to the emitter current D. none of the above
113. Emitter arrow, in a transistor, shows the direction of
A. flow of conventional current C. either of the above
B. electron flow D. none of the above
114. As compared to thermionic tubes, transistors claim which of the following advantages?
A. compact size, light in weight D. operating voltage quite low
B. instantaneous operation E. all of the above
C. long life operated within the permissible limits of temperature
115. Conduction of heat in a semiconductor takes place in which of the following ways?
A. by the thermal vibrations of the atoms C. both (a) and (b)
B. by the electrons D. none of the above
116. Non-linear resistors are also called
A. thermistors B. varistors C. either of the above D. none of the above
117. Thermistors posses
A. zero resistivity
B. a negative temperature resistivity of high absolute value
C. a positive temperature resistivity of high absolute value
D. none of the above
118. Photo-voltaic cells find applications in which of the following?
A. automatic control systems
B. television circuits
C. sound motion picture recording and reproducing equipment
D. all of the above
119. Hall effect may be used for which of the following?
A. determining whether a semiconductor is N-type or P-type
B. determining the carrier concentration
 C. calculating the mobility, having measured the conductivity
D. magnetic field meter
E. all of the above
120. The change of resistance in a magnetic field is called the
A. magneto-resistance effect C. photo-electric effect
B. seeback effect D. none of the above
121. Insulators are the materials in which valence electrons are bounded
A. loosely to their parent atoms C. very tightly to their parent atoms
B. moderately to their parent atoms D. none of the above
122. Insulators have which of the following?
A. a full valence band C. a large energy gap
B. an empty conduction band D. all of the above
123. The ionically and covalently bonded materials are known as
A. insulators B. poor conductors C. either of the above D. none of the above
124. A good insulating material should posses which of the following characteristic?
A. large insulation resistance D. low dissipation factor (loss tangent)
B. high dielectric strength E. all of the above
C. least thermal expansion
125. The dielectric strength of mica varies from
A. 10 to 20 kV/mm thickness C. 30 to 40 kV/mm thickness
B. 20 to 30 kV/mm thickness D. 40 to 150 kV/mm thickness
126. Mica is usually avoided for slot linings of high voltage machines because its
A. space factor is low C. space factor is nil
B. space factor is high D. none of the above
127. The dielectric strength of asbestos is
A. 1.5 to 2.5 kV/mm thickness C. 5 to 6.5 kV/mm thickness
B. 3 to 4.5 kV/mm thickness D. 8 to 9.5 kV/mm thickness
128. Which of the following processes is used to produce porcelain?
A. dry process C. casting process
B. wet process D. any of the above
129. Porcelain insulators are employed for insulating terminals of
A. low voltage machines C. high voltage machines
B. medium voltage machines D. any of the above
130. The dielectric strength of paper is
A. 2 to 4 kV/mm thickness C. 12 to 15 kV/mm thickness
B. 4 to 10 kV/mm thickness D. 15 to 20 kV/mm thickness
131. The insulating materials to be used for most of electronic equipment should possess which of the
following characteristics?
A. high electric strength D. thermal stability
B. high mechanical strength E. all of the above
C. arc resistance
132. Which of the following insulating material is in common use for ‘overhead power lines’ ?
A. porcelain B. toughened glass C. both of the above D. none of the above
133. The function of insulating liquids is
A. to provide electrical insulation C. both (a) and (b)
B. to provide heat transfer D. none of the above
134. Which of the following tests is carried out on transformer oil?
A. moisture test C. sludge resistance test E. all of the above
B. acidity test D. electric strength test
135. Presence of even a trace of water in transformer oil ___ its insulation strength considerably
A. reduces B. increases C. does not affect D. none of the above
136. Flash point temperature of fresh dry oil is
A. 55°C B. 75°C C. 100°C D. 135°C
137. Which of the following effects is produced by ‘sludge’ formation?
A. rate of heat transfer is reduced C. increase in operating temperature
B. ducts are clogged D. all of the above
138. Insulating gases entail which of the following major problems?
A. temperature instability
B. abnormalities in dielectric behavior at high pressures
C. fire hazards
D. all of the above
139. Which of the following gases is classified as electronegative?
A. nitrogen B. methane C. propane D. sulphur hexafluoride
140. Electronegative gases are
A. inflammable B. non-explosive C. both (a) and (b) D. none of the above
141. Insulation resistance ___ with increase in temperature
A. decreases B. increases C. remain unaffected D. none of the above
142. The resistivity of the insulator ____ in the presence of moisture
A. is considerably lowered C. remains unaffected
B. is considerably increased D. none of the above
143. The value of dielectric strength is useful in which of the following?
A. comparing insulating materials
B. measuring uniformity
C. determining the effect of environmental and operating conditions
D. all of the above
144. The dielectric losses occur in all solid and liquid dielectrics due to which of the following?
A. conduction current C. both (a) and (c)
B. hysteresis D. none of the above
145. The dielectric loss is affected by which of the following factors?
A. presence of humidity C. temperature rise E. all of the above
B. voltage increase D. frequency of applied voltage
146. Which of the following is a consequence of ionization?
A. a great power loss in the insulation
B. thermal instability
C. lowering the breakdown voltage of the insulation
D. carbonization, decomposition and mechanical damage to the insulating material
E. all of the above
147. The moisture absorbed by an insulating material causes which of the following?
A. a decrease in the volume resistivity, especially surface resistivity
B. an increase in dissipation factor and a certain increase in dielectric constant
C. decrease in dielectric strength sue to change in field distribution within the insulating material
D. all of the above
148. By which of the following methods the insulation can be protected against moisture?
A. impregnation of winding
B. making insulation hydrophobic (water proof)
C. hermatic sealing
D. all of the above
149. Dielectrics have
 A. a few free electrons C. no free electrons
B. many free electrons D. none of the above
150. Dielectric materials are essentially
A. insulating materials C. semiconducting materials
B. conducting materials D. ferro-electric material
151. The behavior of real dielectrics is primarily
A. electrostatic B. electromagnetic C. both (a) and (b) D. none of the above
152. The dielectric power loss (P) is given by
A. � = 2 ��2 �� tan � C. � = 4 ���� tan �
B. � = � ���� ��� �
�
D. � = 2 ��2 �2 �2 tan �
153. Dielectric strength is expressed in
A. kV/mm B. kV/��2 C. kV/��3 D. none of the above
154. Which of the following kind of breakdown is possible in solid dielectrics?
A. electro thermal breakdown C. electrochemical breakdown
B. purely electrical breakdown D. all of the above
155. Which of the following conditions go a long away in causing the electro thermal breakdown of the
dielectric?
A. large thickness of the dielectric
B. high temperature of both the dielectric and the surrounding medium
C. continuous application of high voltage
D. large dielectric loss
E. all of the above
156. ____ breakdown normally occurs when the temperature is very high and surrounding air has high
humidity
A. electrochemical B. purely electrical C. electro thermal
157. The power arc following a flashover or the breaking of contacts over the insulator surface, subject
surface to which of the following?
A. extreme heat C. deposition of electrode material
B. chemical action D. all of the above
158. The dielectric strength of gaseous dielectrics depends on which of the following factors?
A. pressure D. frequency of applied field
B. uniformity of applied electric field E. all of the above
C. polarity of electrodes
159. Polarization is
A. a scalar quantity C. both (a) and (b)
B. a vector quantity D. none of the above
160. The dielectric susceptibility determines the value of the
A. dielectric constant C. both (a) and (b)
B. dielectric strength D. none of the above
161. If the centers of the gravity of the positive and negative charges in a body do not coincide in the
absence of an applied electric field, the substance has an electric dipole moment and is said be
spontaneous polarized. Such a substance is called
A. insulator B. dielectric C. conductor D. ferro-electric
162. A ferro-electric material contains small regions which are polarized in different direction even in
the ____ of an electric field
A. absence B. presence C. either of the above D. none of the above
163. When the temperature exceeds a certain value called the Curie point, the substance
A. loses its ferro-electric properties C. either of the above
B. gains ferro-electric properties D. none of the above
164. Ferro-electric materials have which of the following characteristics?
A. they have a high dielectric constant which is non-linear
B. they exhibit hysteresis loops
C. both of the above
D. none of the above
165. Which of the following is not a ferro-electric material?
A. Rochelle salt C. Brass
B. Barium titanate D. Lead zirconate
166. Which of the following is a ferro-electric material?
A. stainless steel C. boron nitride
B. wrought iron D. Y-alloy
167. Rochelle salt has
A. one Curie point C. three Curie point
B. two Curie point D. none of the above
168. In potassium Dihydrogen Phospate the Curie points are
A. positive B. negative C. either of the above D. none of the above
169. The ferro-electric materials ___ Curie point have the special properties.
A. below B. above C. either of the above D. none of the above
170. Above the Curie temperature the materials have no ferro-electric properties and become ordinary
A. conducting materials C. insulating materials
B. semiconducting materials D. none of the above
171. The ___ polarization vanishes at Curie temperature of the material
A. ionic B. dipolar C. spontaneous D. none of the above
172. Ferro-electric materials are the dielectric analogous to
A. ferro-magnetic materials C. diamagnetic materials
B. paramagnetic materials D. none of the above
173. The major use of ferro-electrics is in ____
A. active transducers C. electro-mechanical transducers
B. passive transducers D. none of the above
174. The materials having permanent electric moment are called
A. antiferro-electric materials C. electrets
B. dielectrics D. semiconducting materials
175. Capacitors with very high dielectric constants have been developed by treating BaTiO3 in
A. an oxidizing atmosphere C. either of the above
B. at reducing atmosphere D. none of the above
176. The readiness of a material to accept magnetism is expressed by its
A. permeability C. either of the above
B. permittivity D. none of the above
177. High frequency transformers cores are generally made from
A. mone-metal B. mu-metal C. ferrites
178. The ratio of intensity of magnetization to magnetizing forced called
A. susceptibility C. magnetic potential
B. permeability D. none of the above
179. ____ is that property of material which opposes the production of magnetic flux in it
A. magnetic reluctance C. retentivity
B. remanance D. susceptibility
180. Curie temperature is the temperature above which a ferro-magnetic material becomes
A. paramagnetic C. either of the above
B. diamagnetic D. none of the above
181. For ferro-magnetic materials the susceptibility
A. is constant B. is not constant C. is zero D. none of the above
182. For which of the following materials the relative permeability is much greater than unity?
A. diamagnetic materials C. ferro-magnetic materials
B. paramagnetic materials D. none of the above
183. ____ materials have relative permeability slightly less than unity
A. ferro-magnetic C. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic D. none of the above
184. The permeability of iron is around
A. 500 B. 800 C. 1200 D. 2000
185. The spontaneous magnetization is the most important characteristic of ____ materials.
A. ferro-magnetic B. paramagnetic C. diamagnetic D. any of the above
186. Uniaxial anisotropy can be induced in bulk materials by which of the following methods?
A. cold working C. magnetic quenching
B. magnetic annealing D. all of the above
187. Practically all organic substances are
A. ferro-magnetic C. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic D. none of the above
188. In carbon steels, if the percentage of carbon is increased, it has which of the following effects?
A. resistivity is increased D. co-ercive force and retentivity is increased
B. saturation temperature is lowered E. all of the above
C. permeability is decreased
189. Magnetically hard materials possess which of the following characteristics?
A. high value of B.H. product C. high co-ercive E. all of the above
B. high retentivity D. strong magnetic reluctance
190. The ideal core material for small reactors and transformers employed in communication
equipment should possess which of the following
A. constant permeability
B. small hysteresis loss
C. small eddy current loss within the range of small magnetizing forces and over the wide range of
frequencies met in such application
D. all of the above
191. Alnico magnet alloys have the ___ energy per unit of cost or volume of any permanent-magnet
material commercially available
A. highest B. lowest C. either of the above D. none of the above
192. Which of the following factors cause magnetic ageing?
A. presence of strong external fields
B. changes in the external magnetic circuit, such as increasing the air gap length or removing the
“keeper”
C. mechanical vibration D. temperature condition E. all of the above
193. The relative magnetization under a given field ____ as temperature approaches the Curie point
A. decreases B. increases C. either of the above D. none of the above
194. The value of steinmetz co-efficient k is approximately ___ for all modern magnetic materials
A. 1.2 B. 1.4 C. 2 D. 3
195. The eddy currents produce a magnetic field of their own which ____ the main field
A. assists B. opposes C. does not affect D. none of the above
196. ____ is the most detrimental impurity in the magnetic materials
A. carbon B. sulphur C. oxygen D. nitrogen
197. Fahy permeameter entails which of the following advantages?
 A. simple in both construction and operation as compared with Burrow’s permeameter
B. requires only one test specimen
C. less sensitive to the effects of magnetic in homogeneities in the specimen
D. all of the above
198. If the domain walls in a magnetic material can be easily moved the material displays
A. a permanent magnetic behavior C. high permeability
B. high flux density D. none of the above
199. The change in dimensions during the process of magnetization is called
A. magnetostriction D. seebeck effect
B. Hall’s effect E. none of the above
C. skin effect
200. The magnetic domains, during the process of magnetization of ferro-magnetic material,
A. only expand C. rotate first and then expand
B. neither expand nor rotate D. expand first and then rotate
201. The iron group which includes all irons and steel are called non-ferrous metals. Answer: NO
202. ____ is used for lagging round steam pipes and steam boilers. Answer: Asbestos
203. Non-metals exist in amorphic or mesommorphic forms. Answer: YES
204. Non-metals are malleable. Answer: NO
205. The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapour pressure is equal to one
atmosphere. Answer: YES
206. Mass per unit volume is known as weight density. Answer: NO
207. Copper is the best conductor. Answer: NO
208. All ___ are conductors of electricity. Answer: metals
209. The ____ of a metal is its ability to withstand various forces to which it is subjected during a test
or in service. Answer: strength
210. Young’s modulus indicative of property called ____. Answer: stiffness
211. Elasticity is the property that enables the formation of a permanent deformation in a material.
Answer: NO
212. Hardness is the ability of a metal to withstand elongation or bending. Answer: NO
213. Toughness is the strength with which the material opposes rupture. Answer: YES
214. The area under the stress-strains curve indicates ____. Answer: toughness
215. Lack of ductility is the hardness. Answer: NO
216. Hardness is usually defined as resistance of a material to penetration. Answer: YES
217. Fatigue is a phenomenon that leads to fracture under conditions involving fluctuating or repeating
loads. Answer: YES
218. Fatigue failure starts at the point of lowest stress. Answer: NO
219. ____ is the slow plastic deformation of metals under constant stresses or under prolonged
heating usually at high temperature. Answer: Creep
220. The creep at low temperature is known as low temperature creep. Answer: YES
221. Resistivity is that electrical property of a material due to which, it resists the flow of electricity
through it. Answer: YES
222. Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its area of across-section. Answer: NO
223. ____ is reciprocal of electrical resistivity. Answer: Conductivity
224. Dielectric strength means the insulating capacity of a material against low voltage. Answer: NO
225. Thermoelectric effect forms the basis of the thermocouple operation. Answer: YES
226. Superconductivity cannot be abolished by the application of an external magnetic field.
Answer: NO
227. Magnetic materials are those materials in which state of magnetization can be induced.
Answer: YES
228. The magnetic properties arise from the spin of electrons and the arbital motion of electrons
around the atomic nuclei. Answer: YES
229. Relative permeability is the ratio of flux density in a material to a magnetizing force producing that
flux density. Answer: NO
230. ____ force may be defined as the demagnetizing force which is necessary to neutralize
completely the magnetism in an electromagnet after the value of magnetizing force becomes zero.
Answer: Co-ercive
231. Curie temperature is the rising temperature at which the given material ceases to be ferro-
magnetic or the falling temperature at which it becomes ferro-magnetic. Answer: YES
232. Corrosion resistance is one of the important chemical properties of materials. Answer: YES
233. An ‘atom’ is defined as a substance which cannot be decomposed into other substances.
Answer: NO
234. Thomson’s plum pudding model was proposed by Thomson in 1906. Answer: NO
235. According to Rutherfold’s nuclear model an atom consists of a central positively charged nucleus
of radius 10−12 ��. Answer: YES
236. The drawbacks of Rutherfold’s model were overcome by Prof. Neil Bohr by applying Planck’s
quantum theory. Answer: YES
237. Quantitative explanation of chemical bonding can be easily explained by Bohr’s atomic model
(1913). Answer: NO
238. A proton is negatively charged particle found in an atom. Answer: NO
239. The number of protons is called ____ number. Answer: atomic
240. ____ are the atoms which have same mass number (atomic weight) but differ in atomic number.
Answer: Isobar
241. Atomic mass number is the total number of protons and neutrons in an atomic nucleus.
Answer: YES
242. Neutron is positively charged particle found in an atom. Answer: NO
243. Angstrom (Å) is unit of linear measurement and its value is 10−8 �� or 10−10 ��. Answer: YES
244. An electron volt is the energy needed to move an electron between two points which have
potential difference of one volt. Answer: YES
245. Almost entire mass of a given atom is concentrated in its nucleus. Answer: YES
246. An electron is a positively charged particle present in an atom. Answer: NO
247. The electrons move about the nucleus. Answer: YES
248. A definite amount of energy is required to be spent in order to remove an electron from its orbit.
Answer: YES
249. The formula 2�3 (n being the number of the level, the first level being K) determines the number
of electrons that can be accommodate in any level. Answer: NO
250. The electrons in the outermost incomplete orbit are called ____ electrons. Answer: valence
251. The valence electrons are comparatively ___ bound to the rest of the atom. Answer: loosely
252. The valence electrons from bonds to hold the material together and determine most of the
properties of the elements. Answer: YES
253. The tiny block formed by the arrangement of a small group of atoms is called space lattice.
Answer: NO
254. In a crystal, the arrangement of atoms is in periodically ___ pattern. Answer: repeating
255. Lattice parameter means dimensions of the unit cell in any of the crystallographic arrangements.
Answer: YES
256. The idea of space lattice was introduced by Bravai in 1910. Answer: NO
257. A ___ cell is one which has got points or atoms only at the corners of the unit cell.
Answer: primitive
258. In body centered cubic (B.C.C.) structure the atoms are located at the corners of the cube and
one atom at the center of each face. Answer: NO
259. The crystals of most metals have a highly symmetrical structure with close packed atoms.
Answer: YES
260. A crystal is said to have a simple form if its all faces are similar. Answer: YES
261. The co-ordination number of a F.C.C. structure is 8. Answer: NO
262. ____ radius is defined as half the distance between nearest neighbors in crystal of a pure
element. Answer: Atomic
263. Atomic packing factor (A.P.F.) is defined as the ratio of the volume of atoms per unit cell to the
total volume occupied by unit cell. Answer: YES
264. Atomic packing factor for a face centered cube is 0.68. Answer: NO
265. Primary bonds are weaker than secondary bonds. Answer: NO
266. Ionic bonds are unidirectional. Answer: YES
267. The covalent bond is formed by ____ of electrons between atoms. Answer: sharing
268. Covalent compounds can be solids, liquids or gases. Answer: YES
269. Covalent compounds have high melting point Answer: NO
270. Metallic compounds are non-crystaline in nature. Answer: NO
271. Metallic compounds have high reflectivity in luster. Answer: YES
272. Sommerfeld theory assumes that electrons move in a region of constant potential. Answer: YES
273. At the most three electrons may occupy one energy level. Answer: NO
274. The difference in resistivity is directly linked with the size of energy gap. Answer: YES
275. An electric circuit is the path of an electric current. Answer: YES
276. Resistance, inductance, capacitance and leakage are fundamental electrical properties of an
electric circuit. Answer: YES
277. The resistance between the adjacent faces of a cm cube of a material is called resistivity of that
material. Answer: NO
278. The addition of small amounts of impurities may increase the resistivity considerably.
Answer: YES
279. Mechanical stressing of crystal structure increases the conductivity of metal. Answer: NO
280. Age hardening increases the ____ of an alloy. Answer: resistivity
281. The colour of copper is reddish. Answer: YES
282. Copper has high contact resistance. Answer: NO
283. Copper is highly malleable and ductile. Answer: YES
284. Copper losses its hardness abruptly at 200°C. Answer: YES
285. Aluminium is silver-white in colour. Answer: YES
286. Aluminium has relatively low thermal and electrical conductivities. Answer: YES
287. Pure aluminium is softer than copper. Answer: YES
288. Because of its low mechanical strength, _____ cannot be drawn into very fine wire.
Answer: Aluminium
289. Aluminium has low contact resistance. Answer: NO
290. Aluminium can be easily soldered. Answer: NO
291. ____ has highest melting point among metals. Answer: Tungsten
292. Steel used as conductor rail in traction on account of its cheapness and rigidly. Answer: YES
293. Cast iron is used in the manufacture of ‘resistance rigid’ to be used in the starting of large DC
motors. Answer: YES
294. Nickel is rarely used in the making of electrodes of thermionic valves and sparking plugs.
Answer: NO
295. Tin is mainly used in the manufacture of high current fuses. Answer: NO
296. Lead is used to form cable sheaths. Answer: YES
297. Lead is least affected by sea water. Answer: NO
298. Melting point of lead is 500°C. Answer: NO
299. Boiling point of mercury is 375°C. Answer: YES
300. Non-linear resistances do not obey Ohm’s law. Answer: YES
301. Weldability and solderability are the most important properties of copper. Answer: YES
302. Bronze contains 60% copper and 40% tin. Answer: NO
303. Bronze has higher conductivity than copper. Answer: NO
304. Cadmium bronze is employed for contacting conductor and commutator segments. Answer: YES
305. Beryllium bronze may be used for making current carrying springs. Answer: YES
306. Resistivity of tungsten is thrice that of aluminium. Answer: NO
307. Melting point of carbon = 3500°C. Answer: YES
308. Carbon brushes reduce considerably the severity of sparking and rate of commutation wear in
electrical machines. Answer: YES
309. The resistance of carbon increases with increase in temperature. Answer: NO
310. Melting point of nichrome is 1400°C. Answer: YES
311. Nichrome is employed in the making of heating elements and furnaces. Answer: YES
312. Specific gravity of manganin is 2.3. Answer: NO
313. ____ is used in instrument shunts and standard resistance coils. Answer: Manganin
314. Melting point of constantan is 1300°C. Answer: YES
315. Constantan may be used for making thermocouples. Answer: YES
316. German silver is used in electrical measuring instruments. Answer: YES
317. Melting point of Nirosta is 1400°C. Answer: YES
318. Platinum is corrodible material. Answer: NO
319. The optimum working temperature for Nichrome wire is 900° to 1000°C. Answer: YES
320. A voltage (maximum) of one volt per turn should be used when designing constantan wire
rheostats. Answer: YES
321. Tantalum finds wide use in making lamp filaments these days. Answer: NO
322. The efficiency of tungsten filaments which are worked at 2000°C in an evacuated bulb is 12
lumens per watt. Answer: YES
323. The leading and most important material used for transmission lines is copper. Answer: YES
324. Stranded conductors are the conductors made of thin wires of small cross-section and bunched
together. Answer: YES
325. Circular stranded conductors cannot be used in single phase system. Answer: NO
326. A thermostatic bimetal element is based on the theory that metals expand on heating and
contract on cooling. Answer: YES
327. The specific resistance of the contact materials is normally high compared to resistance at the
interfaces. Answer: NO
328. Platinum does not oxidize in air. Answer: YES
329. Tungsten shown no tendency to arc. Answer: YES
330. Rhodium is an excellent material in light and precise devices. Answer: YES
331. Molybdenum erodes slower than tungsten. Answer: NO
332. Electrigraphite brushes have low co-efficient of friction. Answer: YES
333. Metallic brushes are used in commutator machines. Answer: NO
334. A ‘fuse’ breaks the connection and melts when current in the circuit exceeds the maximum
current for which the circuit is designed. Answer: YES
335. Silver is technically the best material of all for fuse purposes. Answer: YES
336. Castridge type fuse unit is totally enclosed type. Answer: YES
337. Solder is an alloy which cannot be fused readily. Answer: NO
338. A thermocouple is based on ‘Seebeck effect’. Answer: YES
339. A ___ wire is called magnetizing coil, magnet coil or field coil. Answer: magnet
340. ‘Skin effect’ lowers the apparent resistance of the conductor. Answer: NO
341. The resistivity of the conducting material is uncharged by skin effect. Answer: YES
342. The work function varies from metal to metal. Answer: YES
343. Supercooled coils can produce flux densities of 10 Wb/�2 or higher. Answer: YES
344. The transition from superconducting state is irreversible. Answer: NO
345. The resistivity of a semiconductor material is usually low. Answer: NO
346. Semiconductors are usually non-metallic in appearance. Answer: NO
347. PbS is used in photo conductive devices. Answer: YES
348. At low temperature semiconductors behave like ____. Answer: dieletrics
349. The temperature co-efficient of resistance of a semiconductor is always negative. Answer: YES
350. Silicon is very good conductor of electricity. Answer: NO
351. Atoms with fewer than four valence electrons are good conductors. Answer: YES
352. Atoms with four valence electrons are ____. Answer: semi conductor
353. An intrinsic semiconductors is one in which number of holes produced is equal to the number of
conduction electrons. Answer: YES
354. In an ____ semiconductor, the Fermi level lies midway between the conduction and valence
bands. Answer: intrinsic
355. A thermistor has a positive temperature co-efficient of resistance. Answer: NO
356. Germanium is a soft element. Answer: NO
357. Germanium has a grey metallic luster. Answer: YES
358. A transistor is an amplifying device in which an input signal is transmitted at an increased
magnitude. Answer: YES
359. A triode-transistor consists of two P-N junction diodes back to back. Answer: YES
360. Germanium crystallizes in the diamond cubic lattice. Answer: YES
361. Cadmium sulphide melts only under low pressure. Answer: NO
362. Silicon carbide is extremely refractory. Answer: YES
363. Non-linear resistors are also called ____. Answer: varistors
364. The change of resistance in a magnetic field is called the ‘magneto-resistance effect’.
Answer: YES
365. Electrical insulating materials offer very little resistance to the flow of current. Answer: NO
366. A good insulating material should have low dielectric strength. Answer: NO
367. A good insulating material should have ____ thermal expansion. Answer: least
368. Mica is affected by oils. Answer: YES
369. Mica is rigid, tough and strong. Answer: YES
370. Moisture does not have any affects on mica. Answer: YES
371. The dielectric constant of air varies in the range 1.2 to 1.5. Answer: NO
372. Asbestos is least hygroscopic. Answer: NO
373. Asbestos melts at 1500°C. Answer: YES
374. Asbestos is neither mechanically strong nor flexible. Answer: YES
375. The dielectric strength of slate is 4 kV/mm thickness. Answer: NO
376. Slate has low thermal conductivity. Answer: YES
377. Marble has dielectric strength of 6 kV/mm thickness. Answer: YES
378. Bakelite is a type of ___ formaldehyde. Answer: phenol
379. The insulation resistance of ceramic is low. Answer: NO
380. Ceramic is suitable for electronic equipment particularly at ___ frequencies. Answer: high
381. The dielectric constant of glass varies from 3.8 to 16.2. Answer: YES
382. ____ is impervious to water and gases, but water readily wets glass surfaces. Answer: glass
383. Cotton has high electric strength. Answer: NO
384. Cotton is hygroscopic. Answer: YES
385. Silk is less hygroscopic and has a higher dielectric strength than cotton, but like cotton it requires
impregnation. Answer: YES
386. The dielectric strength of paper is 2 to 5 kV/mm thickness. Answer: NO
387. Paper is hygroscopic and absorbent. Answer: YES
388. Silicon rubbers have high electrical insulating properties. Answer: YES
389. A plastic in a broadest sense is defined as any non-metallic material that can be molded to shape
Answer: YES
390. Polythene is employed for insulation of wires and conductors. Answer: YES
391. Polyvinyl chloride becomes soft beyond 40°C. Answer: NO
392. Specific gravity of polyvinyl chloride is 1.03. Answer: YES
393. Polystyrene has a good ageing ability. Answer: YES
394. Melamines have little electric arc resistance. Answer: NO
395. Silicon resins posses’ good electrical insulating properties. Answer: YES
396. Varnishes improve insulating properties. Answer: YES
397. Proof tests are made on completed machines and apparatus at the manufacturer’s works.
Answer: YES
398. Dielectric constant of transformer oil is 2.2. Answer: YES
399. Insulation resistance is the resistance between two conductors usually separated by insulating
materials. Answer: YES
400. The dielectric loss does not occur in liquid dielectrics. Answer: NO
401. The presence of ____ spaces produces harmful effect in the insulation. Answer: air
402. When a solid insulation containing air spaces is subjected to voltage, ____ occurs.
Answer: ionization
403. Dielectrics have free electrons. Answer: NO
404. Dielectric materials are essentially ____ materials. Answer: insulating
405. In capacitors dielectrics serve to provide some needed value of ____. Answer: capacitance
406. The energy of charged capacitor is irreversible. Answer: NO
407. The leakage current is that current which is set up in a dielectric due to its electrical conductivity.
Answer: YES
408. Surface leakage current passes over the surface of the ____. Answer: dielectric
409. The dielectric power loss is inversely proportional to the frequency. Answer: NO
410. The loss tangent serves to characterize not only a given dielectric material, but also the insulation
system of the machine, piece of electrical apparatus or device as a whole. Answer: YES
411. The intensity of the electric field at which breakdown occurs is called the ‘dielectric’ or ‘electric
strength’. Answer: YES
412. In a solid dielectric electro-thermal breakdown consists in its destruction due to heating produced
by the dielectric losses. Answer: YES
413. The amount of heat evolved per unit volume in a given dielectric in unit time with an AC voltage in
inversely proportional to frequency and electric field intensity. Answer: NO
414. ‘Flashover’ is an insulating failure by discharge between the electrodes over the surface of an
insulator. Answer: NO
415. The dielectric constants of liquid range from about 10 to about 50. Answer: NO
416. Impure liquids usually breakdown at much ____ voltage. Answer: lower
417. The dielectric constants of gases are close to unity and nearly independent of frequency.
Answer: YES
418. Dielectric strength is not influenced by the nature and purity of the gas. Answer: NO
419. Polarization is a scalar quantity. Answer: NO
420. Electronic polarization is more pronounced in liquid and solid dielectrics than in gases.
 Answer: YES
421. Electronic polarization increases with rise in temperature due to thermal expansion. Answer: NO
422. The dielectric susceptibility determines the value of the ____ constant. Answer: dielectric
423. The time taken by the ionic polarization is smaller than electronic polarization. Answer: NO
424. Dipolar polarization in solid and liquid dielectrics considerably raises the dielectric constants.
Answer: YES
425. The majority of the dielectrics used in engineering as electrical insulators have ‘ionic conductivity’.
Answer: YES
426. The electronic conductivity of solid dielectrics is not affected by the presence of various impurities.
Answer: NO
427. Ionic conductivity is not observed in amorphous solid dielectrics. Answer: NO
428. The volume electrical conductivity of solid dielectrics in relatively weak electric fields is
independent of the field intensity and conforms with Ohm’s law. Answer: YES
429. Intrinsic conductivity of liquid dielectrics is not equal to zero, no matter how thoroughly they are
purified. Answer: YES
430. The more thoroughly a liquid dielectric has been purified, the less difficult it is to maintain it
uncontaminated. Answer: NO
431. The natural ionization of the air causes equal quantities of negative and positive charges to
appear in it at the same time. Answer: YES
432. The electrical conductivity of gases is of a combined nature ‘ionic’ and ‘electron’. Answer: YES
433. The leakage current of gases placed in a weak electric field is ___ proportional to the electric field
intensity. Answer: directly
434. The electrical conductivity contributed by ‘collision ionization’ is called ‘independent electrical
conductivity’. Answer: YES
435. At normal service conditions the temperature exercises considerable effect on the electrical
conductivity of the gases. Answer: NO
436. A substance loses its ferro-electric properties when the temperature exceeds a certain value
called Curie point. Answer: YES
437. Ferro-electric materials have a low dielectric constant. Answer: NO
438. Ferro-electric materials exhibit hysteresis loops. Answer: YES
439. Rochelle salt has ____ Curie points. Answer: two
440. Nitrides are used for extremely ___resistance dielectrics. Answer: heat
441. The ferro-electric materials above Curie point have special properties. Answer: NO
442. The ___ polarization vanishes at Curie temperature of the material. Answer: spontaneous
443. Ferro-electric materials are the dielectrics analogous to ferro-magnetic materials. Answer: YES
444. In ferro-electrics high electric field applied to a device cannot cause voltage breakdown.
Answer: NO
445. The higher the dielectric constant, the higher the dielectric strength. Answer: NO
446. In magnetic materials state of magnetization cannot be induced. Answer: NO
447. Magnetic force is the force exerted by one magnet on another either to attract it or repel it.
Answer: YES
448. Relative permeability is the ratio of flux density produced in vacuum to the flux density produces
in the material. Answer: NO
449. Magnetic ____ is that property of the material which opposes the production of magnetic flux in it.
Answer: reluctance
450. The magnetic flux density which still persists in magnetic materials even when the magnetizing
force in completely remove is due to ‘retentivity’ property of the material. Answer: YES
451. The temperature below which a ferro-magnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called Curie
temperature. Answer: NO
452. Nor mal induction is a magnetostatic parameter usually measured by ballistic methods.
Answer: YES
453. The magnetic susceptibility depends on the nature of the magnetic material and on its state.
Answer: YES
454. The relative permeability of a ferro-magnetic material is less than unity. Answer: NO
455. Iron. Cobalt and nickel are paramagnetic materials. Answer: NO
456. The permeability of cobalt is 250 and increases with the temperature upto 300°C and loses its
magnetic properties at about 1130°C. Answer: YES
457. Ferro-magnetism arises out of the ____ structure. Answer: electronic
458. Above the curie temperature, the domains may disrupt and the material may lose its ferro-
magnetic properties. Answer: YES
459. When the temperature is above Curie temperature the propertied of ferro-magnetic materials are
similar to those of paramagnetic materials. Answer: YES
460. The ferro-magnetic materials do not exhibits spontaneous magnetization below their Curie
temperature. Answer: NO
461. When a ferro-magnetic material is magnetized small changes in dimensions occurs, the effect
being known as ‘magnetostriction’. Answer: YES
462. Transverse magnetostriction is the change in dimension perpendicular to magnetization direction.
Answer: YES
463. All diamagnetic susceptibility is very large and positive. Answer: NO
464. All organic substances are _____. Answer: diamagnetic
465. Soft magnetic materials have low permeability. Answer: NO
466. Silicon improves magnetic properties. Answer: YES
467. The magnetic properties of ‘Permalloy’ are very sensitive and are affected even by normal
handling. Answer: YES
468. Ferrites have extremely high dielectric loss. Answer: NO
469. Magnetically hard materials have strong magnetic reluctance. Answer: YES
470. Saturation flux density of cobalt steel is 4.4 Wb/��2 . Answer: NO
471. Alnico is more expensive than Alni. Answer: YES
472. ‘Cunife’ is malleable and ductile. Answer: YES
473. The permeability of grey cast iron is decreased by carbon somewhat in proportion to the amount
of combined carbon and increased by silicon. Answer: YES
474. Cast steel is rarely used for those portions of magnetic circuits which carry uniform or continuous
flux and superior mechanical strength. Answer: NO
475. Silicon steel has substantially non-ageing characteristic obtained by addition of silicon as an
alloying element. Answer: YES
476. Magnetic viscosity or time lag in magnetization is amply noticeable in soft iron members of large
cross-section. Answer: YES
477. Alnico magnet alloys have the highest energy per unit of cost or volume of any permanent-
magnet material commercially available. Answer: YES
478. Feebly magnetic materials are often employed to reduce eddy current heating and to reduce
energy losses of such parts as rotor-coil building wire, shafts, bolts, filters, etc. Answer: YES
479. The magnets cannot be fabricated by ceramic techniques. Answer: NO
480. Magnets that have been metallurgically aged cannot be restored to their original strength by re-
magnetization. Answer: NO
481. The relative magnetization under a given field decreases as temperature approaches the Curie
point. Answer: YES
482. The eddy currents produce a magnetic field of their own which helps the main field. Answer: NO
483. Iron losses should be kept as small as is economically possible. Answer: YES
484. The effect of tension on silicon steel is to decrease permeability until high flux densities are
reached. Answer: NO
485. When the crystals of aferro-magnetic material are cold worked they experience deformation as a
result of which the material has very poor magnetic properties. Answer: YES
 A. Choose the Correct Answer A. Wattmeter
B. Voltmeters
1. The used of ….. instruments is C. Ammeters
merely confined within laboratories D. Ohmmeter and resistance
as standardizing instruments. bridges
A. Absolute E. All of the above
B. Indicating
C. Recording 6. According to application, instruments
D. Integrating are classified as
E. None of the above A. switch board
B. portable
2. Which of the following instruments C. both (a) and (b)
indicate the instantaneous value of D. moving coil
the electrical quantity being E. moving iron
measured at the time at which it is F. both (d) and (e)
being measured?
A. absolute instruments 7. Which of the following essential
B. indicating instruments features is possessed by an
C. recording instruments indicating instrument?
D. integrating instruments A. Deflecting device
B. Controlling device
3. …… instruments are those which C. Damping device
measure the total quantity of D. All of the above
electricity delivered in a particular
time. 8. A ….. device prevents the oscillation
A. Absolute of the moving system and enables
B. Indicating the latter to reach its final position
C. Recording quickly
D. Integrating A. deflecting
B. controlling
4. Which of the following are integrating C. damping
instruments? D. any of the above
A. Ammeters
B. Voltmeters 9. The spring material used in a spring
C. Wattmeter control device should have the
D. Ampere-hour and watt-hour following property.
meters A. should be non-magnetic
B. most be of low temperature
5. Resistances can be measured with coefficient
the help of
 C. should have low specific 14. An induction meter can handle
resistance current up to
D. should not be subjected to fatigue A. 10 A C. 60 A
E. All of the above B. 30 A D. 100 A

10. Which of the following properties 15. For handling greater currents
damping oil must possess? induction wattmeter’s are used in
A. must be a good insulator conjunction with
B. should be non-evaporating A. potential transformers
C. should not have corrosive action B. current transformers
upon the metal of the vane C. power transformers
D. the viscosity of the oil should not D. either of the above
change with the temperature E. none of the above
E. all of the above
16. Induction type single phase energy
11. A moving-coil permanent magnet meters measure electric energy in
instrument can be used as ….. by A. kW C. Wh
using a low resistance shunt. B. kWh D. VAR
A. ammeter E. none of the above
B. voltmeter
C. flux-meter 17. Most common form of AC meters
D. ballistic galvanometer met with in every day domestic and
industrial installations are
12. A moving-coil permanent magnet A. Mercury motor meters
instrument can be used as flux meter B. commutator motor meters
A. by using a low resistance shunt C. induction type single phase
B. by using a high series resistance energy meters
C. by eliminating the control D. all of the above
springs
D. by making control springs of large 18. Which of the following meters are not
moment of inertia used on DC circuits?
A. mercury motor meters
13. Which of the following devices may B. commutator motor meters
be used for extending the range of C. induction meters
instruments? D. none of the above
A. shunts
B. multiplier 19. Which of the following is an essential
C. current transformer part of a motor meter?
D. potential transformer A. an operating torque system
E. all of the above B. a braking device
 C. induction meters 25. In majority of instruments damping is
D. none of the above provided by
A. fluid friction
20. A potentiometer may be used for B. spring
A. measurement of resistance C. eddy current
B. measurement of current D. all of the above
C. calibration of ammeter
D. calibration of voltmeter 26. An ammeter is a
E. all of the above A. secondary instrument
B. absolute instrument
21. …. Is an instrument which measures C. recording instrument
the insulation resistance of an D. integrating instrument
electric circuit relative to earth and
one another. 27. In a portable instrument, the
A. Tangent galvanometer controlling torque is provided by
B. Meggar A. spring
C. current transformer B. gravity
D. none of the above C. eddy currents
D. all of the above
22. The household energy meter is
A. an indicating instrument 28. The disc of an instrument using eddy
B. a recording instrument current damping should be off
C. an integrating instrument A. conducting and magnetic material
D. none of the above B. non-conducting and magnetic
material
23. The pointer of an indicating C. conducting and non-magnetic
instrument should be material
A. very light D. none of the above
B. very heavy
C. either (a) or (b) 29. The switch board instruments
D. neither (a) nor (b) A. should be mounted in vertical
position
24. The chemical effect of current is B. should be mounted in horizontal
used in position
A. DC ammeter hour meter C. either (a) or (b)
B. DC ammeter D. neither (a) nor (b)
C. DC energy meter
D. none of the above 30. The function of shunt in an ammeter
is to
A. by pass the current
 B. increase the sensitivity of the 36. A dynamometer watt-meter can be
ammeter used for
C. increase the resistance of A. both DC and AC
ammeter B. Dc only
D. none of the above C. AC only
D. any of the above
31. The multiplier and the meter coil in a
voltmeter are in 37. An induction watt-meter can be used
A. series for
B. parallel A. both DC and DC
C. series – parallel B. DC only
D. none of the above C. AC only
D. any of the above
32. A moving iron instrument can be
used for 38. The pressure coil of a watt-meter
A. DC only should be connected on the supply
B. AC only side of the current coil when
C. both DC and AC A. load impedance is high
B. load impedance is low
33. The scale of a rectifier instrument is C. supply voltage is low
A. linear D. none of the above
B. non – linear
C. either (a) or (b) 39. In a low power factor watt-meter the
D. neither (a) nor (b) pressure coil is connected
A. to the supply side of the current
34. For measuring current at high coil
frequency we should use B. to the load side of the current
A. moving iron instrument coil
B. electrostatic instrument C. in any of the two meters at
C. thermocouple instrument connection
D. none of the above D. none of the above

35. The resistance in the circuit of the 40. In a low power factor watt-meter the
moving coil of a dynamometer watt- compensating coil is connected
meter should be A. in series with current coil
A. almost zero B. in parallel with current coil
B. low C. in series with pressure coil
C. high D. in parallel with pressure coil
D. none of the above
41. In a 3-phase power measurement by 46. For measuring a high resistance we
two watt-meter method, both the should use
watt-meters has identical readings. A. Kelvin’s double bridge
The power factor of the load was B. Wheat stone bridge
A. unity C. Meggar
B. 0.8 lagging D. none of the above
C. 0.8 leading
D. zero 47. The electrical power to a meggar is
provided by
42. In a 3-phase power measurement by A. battery
two watt-meter method the reading B. permanent magnet DC
of one of the watt-meter was zero. generator
The power factor of the load must be C. AC generator
A. unity D. any of the above
B. 0.5
C. 0.3 48. In a meggar controlling torque is
D. zero provided by
A. spring
43. The adjustment position of shading B. gravity
bands, in an energy meter is done to C. coil
provide D. eddy current
A. friction compensation
B. creep compensation 49. The operating voltage of a meggar is
C. braking torque about
D. none of the above A. 6 V C. 12 V
B. 40 V D. 100 V
44. An ohmmeter is a
A. moving iron instrument 50. Murray loop test can be used for
B. moving coil instrument location of
C. dynamometer instrument A. ground fault on a cable
D. none of the above B. short circuit fault on a cable
C. both the ground fault and the
45. When a capacitor was connected to short-circuit fault
the terminal of ohmmeter, the pointer D. none of the above
indicated a low resistance initially
and then slowly came to infinity 51. Which of the following devices
position. This shows that capacitor is should be used for accurate
A. short-circuited measurement of low DC voltage?
B. all right A. small range moving coil voltmeter
C. faulty B. DC potentiometer
 C. small range thermocouple D. none of the above
voltmeter
D. none of the above 56. A phase shifting transformer is used
in conjunction in
52. It is required to measure the true A. DC potentiometer
open circuit emf of a battery. The B. Drysdale potentiometer
best device is C. AC co-ordinate potentiometer
A. DC voltmeter D. Crompton potentiometer
B. ammeter and a known resistance
C. DC potentiometer 57. Basically a potentiometer is a device
D. none of the above for
A. comparing two voltages
53. A voltage of about 200 V can be B. measuring a current
measured C. comparing two current
A. directly by a DC potentiometer D. measuring a voltage
B. a DC potentiometer in E. none of the above
conjunction with a volt ratio
box 58. In order to achieve high accuracy,
C. a DC potentiometer in conjunction the slide wire of a potentiometer
with a known resistance should be
D. none of the above A. as long as possible
B. as short as possible
54. A direct current can be measured by C. neither too small not too large
A. a DC potentiometer only D. very thick
B. a DC potentiometer in
conjunction with a standard 59. To measure an AC voltage by using
resistance an AC potentiometer, it is desirable
C. a DC potentiometer in conjunction that the supply for the potentiometer
with a volt ratio box in taken
D. none of the above A. from a source which is not the
same as the unknown voltage
55. To measure a resistance with the B. from a battery
help of a potentiometer it is C. from the same source as the
A. necessary to standardize the unknown voltage
potentiometer D. any of the above
B. not necessary to standardize
the potentiometer 60. The stator of phase shifting
C. necessary to use a volt ratio box transformer for use in conjunction
in conjunction with the with an AC potentiometer usually
potentiometer has
 A. single-phase winding 64. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown
B. two-winding winding inductance is measured in terms of
C. three-phase winding A. known inductance and resistance
D. any of the above B. known capacitance and
resistance
61. In an AC co-ordinate potentiometer, C. known resistance
the currents in the phase and D. known inductance
quadrature potentiometer are
adjusted to be 65. Wagner earthing device is used to
A. out of phase by 90° eliminate errors due to
B. out of phase by 60° A. electrostatic coupling
C. out of phase by 30° B. electromagnetic coupling
D. out of phase by 0° C. both (a) or (b)
E. out of phase by 180° D. none of the above

62. A universal RLC bridge uses 66. For measurement of mutual

A. Maxwell bridge configuration for inductance we can use
measurement of inductance and A. Anderson Bridge
De Santy’s bridge for B. Maxwell’s Bridge
measurement of capacitance C. Heaviside Bridge
B. Maxwell Wein bridge for D. any of the above
measurement of inductance
and modified De Santy;s 67. For measurement of inductance
bridge for measurement of having high value, we should use
capacitance A. Maxwell’s bridge
C. Maxwell Wein bridge for B. Maxwell’s Wein Bridge
measurement of inductance and C. Hay’s bridge
Wein Bridge for measurement of D. Any of the above
capacitance
D. Any of the above 68. If the current in a capacitor lead the
voltage by 80°, the loss angle of the
63. For measurements on high voltage capacitor is
capacitors, the suitable bridge is A. 10° C. 120°
A. Wein Bridge B. 80° D. 170°
B. Modified De Santy’s bridge
C. Schering Bridge 69. In a Schering bridge the potential of
D. Any of the above the detector above earth potential is
E. None of the above A. a few volts only
B. 1 kV
C. 5 kV
 D. 10 kV 74. In a single phase power factor meter
the phase different between the
70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic currents in the two pressure coils is
field in AC bridges we can use A. exactly 0°
A. magnetic screening B. approximately 0°
B. Wagner earthing device C. exactly 90°
C. wave filters D. approximately 90°
D. any of the above
75. In a dynamometer 3-phase power
71. In an inductance is connected is one factor meter, the planes of the two
arm of bridge and resistances on the moving coils are at
remaining three arms A. 0° C. 90°
A. the bridge can always be B. 60° D. 120°
balanced
B. the bridge cannot be balanced 76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter
C. the bridge can be balanced if the the natural frequencies of two
resistances have some specific adjacent reeds have a difference of
values A. 0.1 Hz C. 0.5 Hz
B. 0.25 Hz D. 1.5 Hz
72. A power factor meter has
A. one current circuit and two 77. In a Weston frequency meter, the
pressure circuits magnetic axes of the two fixed coils
B. one current circuit and one are
pressure circuit A. parallel
C. two current circuits and one B. perpendicular
pressure circuit C. inclined at 60°
D. none of the above D. inclined at 120°

73. The two pressure coil of a single 78. A Weston frequency meter is
phase power factor meter have A. moving coil instrument
A. the same dimensions and the B. moving iron instrument
same number of turns C. dynamometer instrument
B. the same dimension but different D. none of the above
numbers turn
C. the same number of turn but 79. A Weston synchronoscope is a
different dimension A. moving coil instrument
D. none of the above B. moving iron instrument
C. dynamometer instrument
D. none of the above
80. In a Weston synchronoscope, the 85. Systematic error are
fixed coils are connected across A. instrumental error
A. bus-bar B. environmental error
B. incoming alternator C. observational error
C. a lamp D. all of the above
D. none of the above
86. Standard resistor is made from
81. In Weston synchronoscope the A. platinum
moving coil is connected across B. maganin
A. bus-bar C. silver
B. incoming alternator D. nichrome
C. fixed coils 87. Commonly used standard capacitor
D. any of the above is
A. spherical type
82. The power factor of a single phase B. concentric cylindrical type
load can be calculated if the C. electrostatic type
instruments available are D. multilayer parallel plate type
A. one voltmeter and one ammeter
B. one voltmeter, one ammeter 88. Operating torques in analogue
and one watt-meter instruments are
C. one voltmeter, one ammeter and A. deflecting and control
one energy meter B. deflecting and damping
D. any of the above C. deflecting, control and damping
D. vibration and balancing
83. The desirable static characteristics of
a measuring system are 89. Commonly used instruments in
A. accuracy and reproducibility power system measurement are
B. accuracy, sensitivity and A. induction
reproducibility B. moving coil or iron
C. drift and dead zone C. rectifier
D. static error D. electrostatic

84. The ratio of maximum displacement 90. Damping the ballistic galvanometer
deviation to full scale deviation of the is made small to
instrument is called A. gets first deflection large
A. static sensitivity B. makes the system oscillatory
B. dynamic deviation C. makes the system critically
C. linearity damped
D. precision or accuracy D. gets minimum overshoot
91. If an instrument has cramped scale D. multi-range meters inside the
for larger values, then it follows measurement system
A. square law E. any of the above
B. logarithmic law
C. uniform law 97. The rectifier instrument is not free
D. none of the above from
A. temperature error
92. Volt box is component to B. wave shape error
A. extend voltage range C. frequency error
B. measure voltage D. all of the above
C. compares voltage in a box
D. none of the above 98. Alternating current is measured by
A. induction ammeter
93. Emf of a Weston cell is accurately B. permanent magnet type ammeter
measured by C. electrostatic ammeter
A. electrostatic voltmeter D. moving iron repulsion type
B. hot wire voltmeter voltmeter
C. isothermal voltmeter
D. electrodynamics voltmeter 99. Most sensitive galvanometer is
A. elastic galvanometer
94. The gravity controlled instrument has B. vibration galvanometer
crowded scale because current is C. Duddle galvanometer
proportional to D. spot ballistic galvanometer
A. balancing weight
B. deflection angle 100. Instruments transformers are
C. sine of deflection angle A. potential transformers
B. current transformers
95. A sensitive galvanometer produces C. both (a) or (b)
large deflection for a D. power transformer
A. small value of current
B. large value of current 101. An instrument transformer is
C. large value of power used to extend the range of
D. large value of voltage A. induction instrument
E. none of the above B. electrostatic instrument
C. moving coil instrument
96. A multi-range instrument has D. any of the above
A. multiple shunt or series
resistance inside the meter 102. Watt-meter cannot be designed
B. multi-coil arrangement on the principle of
C. variable turns of coil A. electrostatic instrument
 B. thermocouple instrument A. Amplifier gain and phase shift
C. moving iron instrument B. Filler transfer function
D. electrodynamics instrument C. Complex insertion loss
D. All of the above
103. In an energy meter braking
torque is produced to 108. The principle of which vector
A. safe guard it against creep voltmeter is based is
B. brake the instrument A. that it works on the principle of
C. bring energy meter to stand still complex variation
D. maintains steady speed and B. that is measures the response of
equal to driving torque linear ramp voltage
C. same as digital meter
104. Various adjustments in an energy D. that it measures the amplitude
meter include of a single at two points and at
A. light load or friction the same time measures their
B. lag and creep phase difference
C. overload and voltage
compensation 109. To measure radio frequency, the
D. temperature compensation suitable frequency meter is
E. all of the above A. Weston frequency meter
B. reed vibrator frequency meter
105. The power of the n-phase circuit C. heterodyne frequency meter
can be measured by using a D. electrical resonance frequency
minimum of meter
A. (n – 1) wattmeter elements
B. n wattmeter elements 110. Potentiometer is a
C. (n + 1) wattmeter elements A. calibrating instrument
D.2n wattmeter elements B. comparison instrument
C. indicating instrument
106. Two holes in the disc of energy- D. integrating instrument
meter are drilled at the opposite
sides of a spindle to 111. High voltage tests are
A. improve its ventilation A. high frequency tests
B. eliminate creeping at no load B. constant direct current tests
C. increase its deflecting torque C. sustained low frequency tests
D. increase its braking torque D. surge tests
E. all of the above
107. Which of the following is
measured by using a vector 112. Ring specimen can be tested for
voltmeter? its magnetic properties by
 A. AC potentiometer 117. The readings of a dynamometer
B. Campbell’s bridge type wattmeter can be highly erratic
C. Oscillo-graphic method at
D. Maxwell’s bridge A. low frequencies
E. any of the above B. fluctuating loads
C. low power factors
113. Which of the following D. high voltages
instruments can be made using
magnetic effect? 118. A multi-meter can be used for
A. Wattmeter measuring
B. Energy meters A. DC quantities only
C. Voltmeter B. AC quantities only
D. All of the above C. DC as well as AC quantities

114. In instruments the term ‘artificial 119. A dynamometer type wattmeter

aging’ is associated with has
A. permanent magnet A. square law scale
B. damping B. non-linear scale
C. springs C. logarithmic scale
D. controlling torque D. uniform scale

115. Which of the following 120. Which of the following cannot be

instruments cannot be used for the measured by multi-meters?
measurement of AC as well as Dc A. frequency
quantities? B. current
A. Electrostatic instruments C. voltage
B. Induction type instruments D. resistance
C. Moving iron instruments
D. Hot wire instrument 121. …… instrument will draw least
current from the circuit in which it is
116. ….. instrument is free from incorporated
hysteresis and eddy current errors. A. Hot wire
A. Electrostatic B. Rectifier
B. Moving iron C. Electrostatic
C. Moving coil-permanent magnet D. Thermocouple
type
D. Moving coil dynamometer type 122. Energy meter installed at the
residence of electric power
consumer is
A. recording type instrument
 B. indicating type instrument A. Dielectric loss and power factor
C. indicating as well as recording B. Frequency and capacitance
type instrument C. variable resistance
D. none of the above D. all of the above

123. Which of the following method is 128. A wattmeter will be free from the
used to shield a dynamometer type effects of power factor and frequency
wattmeter against stray fields? variation case
A. Meter components are made of A. voltage coil resistance is zero
non-magnetic materials B. damping is not provided
B. Meter is housed in a soft iron C. pressure coil inductance is zero
case D. a capacitance is connected in
C. neutral wire connection is parallel pressure coil
provided
D. Meter is earthed 129. …. Will always indicate true r.m.s.
value is respective of the wave form?
124. ….. type instrument has identical A. Digital voltmeter
calibration for AC as well as DC B. Thermocouple meter
values? C. Moving iron meter
A. Hot wire D. None of the above
B. Moving coil
C. Induction 130. ….. method is suitable for the
D. Moving iron measurement of a resistance of
expected value less than one ohm.
125. …. type instrument can have full A. substitution
scale deflection of 300 degrees. B. loss of charge
A. Induction C. Wheatstone bridge
B. Rectifier D. Kelvin’s double bridge
C. Hot wire
D. none of the above 131. ….. bridge is preferred for the
measurement of inductance having
126. A potentiometer works on high Q-factor.
A. heating effect A. Owen C. Maxwell
B. magnetic effect B. Hay D. Desauty
C. electromagnetic induction
D. none of the above 132. A Q-meter measures
A. losses in capacitor
127. Which of the following can be B. frequency
measured by the use of a Schering C. accurate values of electrical
bridge? quantities
 D. properties of the coil
138. In hot wire instruments the
133. In the measurement of the power sensing wire is made of
by two wattmeter method, when the A. copper-nickel
readings of the two wattmeter are B. silver
equal and opposite, it can be C. copper
concluded that power factor is D. platinum-iridium
A. zero C. lagging
B. unity D. leading 139. By which of the following
methods an ammeter can be
134. The meter constant of single converted to a voltmeter?
phase energy meter is expressed in A. by installing the instrument in
terms of parallel with the circuit
A. revolutions/kWh B. by changing the scale
B. kW/kWh C. by putting a large resistance is
C. amps/kW series with the actual
D. Volts/kW measuring part of instrument
D. by putting a large resistance
135. Moving coil and moving iron type
instruments can be distinguished by 140. ….. give the value of the quantity
looking at to be measured in terms of the
A. scale constants of the instruments and
B. their range their direction only.
C. pointer A. Secondary instruments
D. size of terminals B. Recording instruments
C. Absolute instruments
136. In order to get best results, D. Integrating instruments
indicating instruments are
A. over-damped 141. The advantage of moving coil
B. under-damped permanent magnet type instruments
C. critically damped is
D. damped slightly less than the A. no hysteresis loss
critical value B. low power consumption
C. efficient eddy current damping
137. The dissipation factor of a D. all of the above
capacitor can be measured with
A. Schering Bridge 142. A portable instrument is likely to
B. Galvanometer have …… damping.
C. Potentiometer A. eddy current
D. Campbell bridge B. gravitational
 C. pneumatic
D. fluid friction 148. ….. is the commonly used
material for thermocouples
143. A moving iron type ammeter has A. platinum-rhodium
few turns of thick wire so that B. chromel-alumel
A. sensitivity is high C. chromel-copal
B. damping is effective D. Any of the above
C. scale is large
D. resistance is less 149. Which of the following can be
measured by ‘Bolometer’
144. When the damping of instrument A. Thermal radiations
is adjusted to enable the pointer to B. Electrical signals
rise quickly to its deflected position C. Optical inputs
without overshooting, in that case D. Temperature inputs
the instruments is said to be
A. under-damped 150. …… frequency meter can be
B. over-damped used for the measurement of radio
C. dead beat frequency.
D. off beat A. Heterodyne
B. Weston
145. Hot wire instruments read C. Electrical resonance
A. average value D. any of the above
B. rms value
C. peak value 151. The phenomenon of ‘creeping’
D. none of the above occurs in
A. Ammeter
146. Which of the following B. Voltmeters
instruments can be used for C. Wattmeter
measuring 132 kV AC voltage? D. Watt hour meter
A. electrostatic voltmeter
B. Hot wire voltmeter 152. Highest flux density exists inside
C. moving coil voltmeter which of the following instruments?
D. moving iron meter A. moving coil instruments
B. moving iron instruments
147. In …… instruments the deflecting C. hot wire instruments
torque depend on the frequency. D. electrodynamics instruments
A. induction type
B. hot wire 153. The ratio error of a current
C. moving coil transformer is due to
D. moving iron A. lagging power factor
 B. exciting current D. moving iron attraction type
C. stray magnetism
D. corona effects 159. For protecting a galvanometer
during transport
154. The emf of a Weston standard A. a capacitor is connected across
cell can be measured by the terminals
A. potentiometer B. the terminals are kept shorted
B. galvanometer C. the terminals are kept open
C. hot wire voltmeter circuited
D. electrodynamometer type D. critical damping resistance is
voltmeter connected across the
terminals
155. The temperature of a furnace can
be measured by 160. The internal resistance of a
A. bimetallic thermometer voltmeter must be very high so that
B. mercury thermometer A. minimum current passes
C. clinical thermometer through the meter
D. optical pyrometer B. range is high
C. accuracy is high
156. Permanent magnets used in D. loading effect is maximum
instruments are generally made of
A. stainless steel 161. In AC bridge if the supply
B. Alnico frequency is 1000 Hz, the detector
C. Y-alloy will be
D. cast iron A. Ballistic galvanometer
B. D’Arsnoval galvanometer
157. Which of the following resistance C. Vibration galvanometer
is shown by a needle in a meggar D. Telephone
not in operation? E. none of the above
A. zero ohm
B. 500 ohms 162. ….. bridge is used for the precise
C. 1000 ohms measurement of inductances over a
D. infinity wide range.
E. none of the above A. Hay’s C. Anderson
B. Wien’s D. Maxwell
158. …. Voltmeter has the least power
consumption. 163. Which of the following bridges is
A. electrostatic type used to measure power factor?
B. hot wire type A. Wien’s bridge
C. induction type B. Maxwell bridge
 C. Schering bridge
D. Kelvin bridge 169. In electrical measuring
instruments, electrical energy is
164. Moving parts of instruments are converted to
supported in ….. bearings. A. mechanical energy
A. jeweled C. roller B. heat energy
C. ball D. bush C. chemical energy
D. light energy
165. A power factor meter has ….
Control springs. 170. Meggar is used to measure
A. one C. four A. breakdown voltage of insulation
B. two D. no B. earth resistance
C. insulation resistance
166. Dead time of the instrument is D. none of the above
A. the time required by an
instruments to begin to respond 171. Sensitivity of a voltmeter is given
to change in the measurand by
B. the time required by an A. ohms per volt
instrument for initial warming B. reciprocal of full scale deflection
up current
C. the largest change of input C. both (a) or (b)
quantity for which there is no D. none of the above
output of the instrument
D. none of the above 172. Control spring are made of
A. phosphor bronze
167. In resistance thermometers B. copper
platinum is used because of C. silver
A. low cost D. steel
B. low cost and high stability
C. low cost, high stability and 173. In the case of indicating
wide operating range instruments the function of the
D. none of the above control spring s
A. to apply controlling torque
168. Changes in atmospheric B. to pass electric current to moving
temperature, humidity etc. cause …. system
Errors. C. Both (a) and (b)
A. cumulative D. none of the above
B. systematic
C. environmental 174. Torque weight ratio will be least
D. instrumental in ….. instruments
 A. dynamometer
B. moving iron 179. Vibrating reeds are used in which
C. moving coil of the following instruments?
D. all above A. power factor meter
B. frequency meter
175. Air friction damping is achieved C. Wattmeter
by the movement of aluminum piston D. Synchronoscope
in a cylinder when
A. piston will have close fitting in the 180. If voltage supply to the energy
circular contact between the two meter is more that the rated value,
B. piston will have small circular energy meter will run
clearance so that air can pass A. slow
with hindrance B. fast
C. piston will have circular clearance C. either of the above
so that air can pass freely D. none of the above
D. none of the above
181. Aluminum is selected as the
176. Meggar is operated by material for rotating disc of energy
A. internal battery meter because
B. an external voltage source A. it is good conductor
C. an external hand driven B. it is light
generator C. it is indigenously available
D. none of the above D. all of the above reason

177. Meggar will give resistance 182. For making shunts the material
values which suitable is that which has
A. increase with the speed of the A. negligible thermoelectric emf with
hand driven dynamo copper
B. decrease with the speed of the B. same resistance temperature co-
hand driven dynamo efficient as the coil of the
C. remains constants irrespective instrument
of the speed C. been annealed properly so that its
D. any of the above resistance does not change with
time
178. Primary of an instrument D. all of the above properties
transformer (C.T.) is connected in
A. series with the line 183. Meter ranges are so selected that
B. parallel with the line the indications are obtained near the
C. across two lines A. top of the scale
D. any of the above B. bottom of the scale
 C. middle of the scale 188. Swamping resistance is used to
D. none of the above A. compensate the error due to
temperature variations
184. For measuring an unknown B. compensate the error due to
electrical quantity, select the meter strong magnetic field
with C. both (a) and (b)
A. highest range and work down D. none of the above
B. lowest range and work up
C. with middle range and work up 189. Which of the following
and down on trial and error basis instruments may be used to measure
D. any of the above DC voltage accurately?
A. Moving iron type instrument
185. Moving iron meters are B. Moving coil type instrument
extensively used for the C. Electro-dynamic type instrument
measurement of AC voltage and D. None of the above
current because
A. no currents flows through the 190. A high resistance is usually
moving elements and is robust connected in series with an
B. its torque weight ratio is more electrostatic voltmeter
C. it is very accurate A. to render measurement accurate
B. to increase the range
186. Moving iron instruments are C. for safety reason
rarely used in low power high D. none of the above
resistance circuits because of
A. high resistance of the coil 191. A milli-ammeter can be used as
B. low reluctance of magnetic path A. an ammeter only
C. high reluctance of magnetic B. a voltmeter
path C. both voltmeter and ammeter
D. none of the above D. none of the above

187. Scale of an instrument will be 192. Weston cell is a

uniform if A. good source of current
A. deflecting torque varies directly as B. good source of power
the deflection angle C. good standard of voltage
B. control torque varies directly as D. none of the above
the deflection angle
C. both (a) and (b) 193. Deflection of a hot wire
D. damping torque varies directly as instrument is proportional to
the deflection angle A. maximum value of alternating
current
 B. instantaneous value of alternating C. half-scale
current D. full-scale
C. rms value of alternating current
D. average value of alternating 198. The sensitivity inaccuracy of an
current instrument does not depend on
A. frequency response
194. Following type of instruments is B. hysteresis
used to measure very small currents C. amplitude distortion
of high frequency D. all of the above
A. induction type instrument
B. dynamometer type instruments 199. The error, when reading at half-
C. permanent magnet moving coil scale in an instruments, is
type ammeter A. equal to half of the full-scale error
D. thermocouple type instruments B. equal to full-scale error
C. less than full-scale error
195. In which part of the scale does D. greater than full-scale error
the pointer indicate most accurately?
A. In the first third of the scale 200. An instrument’s reliability means
B. in the first half of the scale A. the extent to which the
C. in about the middle of the scale characteristics remain linear
D. in the last third of the scale B. the life of the instrument
C. the degree to which the
196. In measuring instruments a mirror repeatability continues to
is provided behind the pointer with a remain within specific limits
purpose that D. all of the above
A. with the help of the mirror it may
be seen whether the pointer is 201. Damping in an instrument
bent or not provides
B. the scale is illuminated through A. counter torque to deflection torque
the mirror B. good accuracy
C. reading error due to inclined C. braking action on a meter
observation are eliminated by pointer
removing parallax between the D. starting torque on the meter
pointer and its image in the pointer
mirror
D. any of the above 202. In an instrument hysteresis
197. The accuracy of a meter is means
determined by …. Deflection. A. the inaccuracy due to change in
A. one-tenth of full scale temperature
B. one-fourth of full scale B. the reliability of the instrument
 C. the repeatability of the instrument 207. The static error band of an
D. the change in same reading instrument implies
when input is first increased A. the error introduced in low varying
and then decreased inputs
B. the error produced when the
203. ….. meter has the best accuracy. pen is stopped ay some
A. Thermocouple deflection
B. Moving-coil C. the accuracy of the instrument
C. Moving-iron D. the irrepeatibility of the instrument
D. Rectifier type
208. An electro-dynamic meter can be
204. …. Damping method is common used to measure
in moving coil instruments. A. AC voltages
A. eddy current B. DC voltages
B. fluid C. both (a) and (b)
C. spring D. none of the above
D. air
209. Which of the following is the merit
205. In an ammeter the shunt of a moving iron instruments?
resistance is usually …. Meter A. it can be used under severe
resistance overload conditions
A. equal to B. it has linear scale
B. less than C. it can be used at high frequencies
C. greater than D. its current sensitivity is high
D. of any value
210. Which of the following will
206. A very accurate voltmeter, when happen if a voltmeter is connected
used to measure voltage across a like an ammeter in series to the load?
low resistance, gives inaccurate A. there will be almost no current
reading because in the circuit
A. the current drawn by the meter is B. the measurement will be too high
too low C. the meter will burn out
B. the higher scale has been D. a very high current will flow
selected
C. the sensitivity of the meter is 211. A multi-meter consists of
too low A. voltmeter and current meter
D. any of the above B. voltmeter and ohmmeter
E. none of the above C. current meter and ohmmeter
D. voltmeter, current meter and
ohmmeter
 D. none of the above
212. The minimum number of
wattmeter required to measure 217. The reed frequency is essentially
power I an unbalanced three-wire A. a deflection measuring system
system is B. a vibrational measuring system
A. one C. two C. an oscillatory measuring system
B. three D. four D. a recording measuring system

213. The total power delivered to a 218. The Q-meter works on the
three-phase load is equal to principle of
A. algebraic sum of two-wattmeter A. self inductance
readings B. mutual inductance
B. algebraic difference of two- C. series resonant circuit
wattmeter readings D. parallel resonant circuit
C. vectorial sum of two-wattmeter
readings 219. Which of the following properties
D. vectorial difference of two- are measured by a Q-meter?
wattmeter readings A. Electrical properties of the coils
only
214. Electro-dynamic types of B. Mechanical properties of the coils
instruments are used commonly for only
the measurement of C. Electrical properties of capacitors
A. current only
B. resistance D. Electrical properties of both the
C. voltage coils and capacitors
D. power
E. none of the above 220. Unit of deflection sensitivity of
CRO is
215. An induction wattmeter measures A. V/mm
A. only the true power B. meter per volt
B. the reactive power C. mm per mV
C. the apparent power D. mm/V
D. the true power and the reactive E. none of the above
power
216. The instruments used for the 221. Synchro is
measurement of power at 500 MHz A. parabolic transducer
is B. an angular position transducer
A. compensated wattmeter C. a synchronizing transducer
B. electrodynamometer wattmeter D. a variable transducer
C. bolometer
222. Transmission channels for B. Non-linear behavior of circuit
telemetry are elements
A. optical links C. change in behavior of circuit
B. radio links elements due to change in
C. cables temperature
D. ultrasonic and magnetic induction D. none of the above
data links
E. all of the above 227. In brewing process the degree of
fermentation is measured by
223. A digital voltmeter claims which A. combustibility meter
of the following advantage? B. conductivity meter
A. it is versatile and accurate C. bolometer
B. its output can be fed to memory D. pH meter
devices and stored E. any of the above
C. no observational error and faster
reading speed 228. In an oscilloscope a moving wave
D. low power requirements and less form can be made stationary by
cost adjusting which of the following?
E. all of the above A. vertical positioning control
B. sync-amplitude control
224. Null type recorders are C. coarse frequency control
A. bridge recorders D. horizontal position control
B. LVDT recorders
C. potentiometric recorder 229. The Lissajous pattern of eight, on
D. any of the above an oscilloscope, keeps on changing
the shape when the ratio of
225. The advantage of digital tape frequencies is
recording is that A. exactly 4:1
A. it gives highly accurate results B. exactly 3:1
B. it is insensitive to tape speed C. not exactly 2:1
C. its needs simple data conditioner D. not exactly 1:1
D. information can be directly fed to
digital computers for processing 230. ….. cannot be used to measure
and control pressure.
E. all of the above A. Strain gauge
B. Pyrometer
226. Harmonic distortion is due to C. LVDT
which of the following? D. Pirani gauge
A. linear behavior of circuit elements
231. …. Can measure only pressure.
 A. Displacer 237. ….. can measure pressure
B. Radioactive method directly?
C. Belt type meter A. Rota meter
D. Bubble gauge method B. Bourden tube
C. LVDT
232. ….. can measure only level. D. Strain gauge
A. Bellow
B. Diaphragm 238. ….. is used to measure flow of air
C. Strain gauge around an aero plane.
D. Radioactive method A. Anemometer
B. Venturimeter
233. By a ‘Rota meter’ we can C. Orifice
measure D. Rota meter
A. specific gravity
B. viscosity 239. Which of the following is
C. flow determined by a hydrometer?
D. rotation A. Specific gravity of gases
B. Relative humidity
234. Which of the following cannot be C. Specific gravity of liquid
measured by Ring-balance meter? D. Specific gravity of solids
A. Mass flow rate
B. Flow 240. A differential transformer is a
C. Differential pressure A. constant pressure transducer
D. Pressure B. constant displacement transducer
C. variable inductance transducer
235. Which of the following is the best D. variable pressure transducer
method for the measurement of
temperature of hot bodies radiating 241. The principle of Pirani gauge is
energy in the visible spectrum? based on …. Of the medium.
A. Thermopile A. combustibility
B. Bolometer B. thermal conductivity
C. Optical pedometer C. humidity
D. Thermocouple D. none of the above

236. Load cell is essentially a …. 242. Radio frequency can be

A. photovoltaic cell measured by which of the following
B. strain gauge frequency meters?
C. thermistor A. Weston frequency meter
D. none of the above B. Heterodyne frequency meter
 C. Electrical resonant frequency 248. For measuring the resistance of
meter the elements of an attenuator which
D. none of the above of the following is the best choice?
A. Maxwell’s bridge
243. Which of the following gets varied B. Meggar
by the focus adjustment of an C. Ohmmeter
oscillograph? D. Wheatstone bridge
A. Accelerating voltage
B. Second anode voltage 249. Which of the following is the pH
C. Grid voltage of cathode ray tube value of pure water?
D. Filament voltage A. Infinity
B. 50
244. ….. is not a signal conditioner C. 20
A. Amplifier D. 7
B. Signal converter E. None of the above
C. Equalizing network
D. Damping network 250. Which of the following can be
measured with the help of piezo-
245. A wave guide acts as a ….. pass electric crystal?
filter A. Acceleration
A. low B. Temperature
B. high C. Velocity
C. band D. Flow
D. none of these E. None of the above

246. A …. Is used to measure 251. Which of the following is the most

frequency in wave guides. suitable transducer for monitoring
A. galiometer continuously variations in very fine
B. klystron thickness (say of paper in a paper
C. bolometer industry)?
D. cavity resonator A. Diaphragm
B. LVDT
247. Which of the following devices C. Strain gauge
may be used to measure accurately D. Capacitance transducer
the inter-electrode capacitances? E. Any of the above
A. VTVM 252. Which of the following can be
B. De Santy’s bridge measured by a hot wire anemometer?
C. Wien’s bridge A. Gas velocities
D. Schering’s bridge B. Liquid discharges
C. Very low pressures
 D. Pressure of gases
E. None of the above 258. The cathode of a C.R.O. is
usually coated with
253. ….. is not an element of electro- A. alkali metals
pneumatic pressure transmitter. B. tungsten or thorium oxide
A. Flapper nozzle mechanism C. copper oxide
B. LVDT D. barium or strontium oxide
C. Bellows
D. Operational amplifier 259. The input impedance of a C.R.O.
is
254. Thermistor has ….. temperature A. zero
co-efficient. B. around 100 ohms
A. low and positive C. around 1000 ohms
B. high and positive D. around mega-ohms
C. low and negative
D. high and negative 260. A C.R.O. can be measure
A. AC voltages only
255. A dummy bridge employing strain B. DC voltages only
gauge provides ….. C. frequency
A. linearity D. any of the above
B. stability
C. temperature compensation 261. A double beam oscilloscope has
D. none of the above A. two electrons guns
B. two screens
256. For thermocouple measuring C. two different phosphor coatings
instruments which of the following D. one wave form divided into two
statements is incorrect? parts
A. their calibration does not change
with time or temperature 262. Phosphor coating for cathode ray
B. they read rms values tubes is provided on
C. they are incapable of standing A. inside surface only
any overloads B. outside surface only
D. if calibrated on DC, they cannot C. both the surfaces
used for AC signals D. within the clothes
257. High voltage tests are
A. high frequency tests 263. The brightest spot, on a cathode
B. sustained low frequency tests ray screen, occurs at
C. constant direct current tests A. the centre
D. surge tests B. the outer periphery
E. all of the above
 C. midway between centre and outer D. linear displacement of core
periphery of screen
D. brightness is same all over the 269. LVDT is a ….. transducer.
screen A. eddy current
B. resistance
264. For better results a strain gauge C. magnetostsiction
should have low D. inductive
A. resistance value
B. gauge factor 270. LVDT possesses the following
C. resistance temperature co- advantage
efficient A. Excellent repeatability
D. all of the above B. Infinite resolution
C. High linearity of output
265. Rosette gauges are used to D. All of the above
A. amplify strain values
B. measure variable strain 271. Which of the following is an
C. compensate for temperature analogue transducer?
variations A. Strain gauge
D. measure strain in more than B. Thermistor
one direction C. LVDT
D. All of the above
266. A dummy strain gauge is used to
A. improve the stability of the system 272. In optical pyrometer temperature
B. compensate for temperature is measured by
variation A. photocell principle
C. increase the sensitivity of B. thermocouple effect
measuring system C. comparing the brightness of
D. none of the above the source with the brightness
of a standard source
267. …. Is a digital transducer. D. none of the above
A. Encoder
B. Photovoltaic 273. …. Is a low cost thermocouple
C. Thermocouple A. Iron-constantan
D. Piezoelectric Transducer B. Chromel-constantan
C. Rhodium-indium
268. The output of LVDT is in the form D. Tungsten-rhenium
of
A. pulses 274. Relative permittivity can be
B. high frequency signals measured by …. Bridge
C. rotary movement of core A. Wheatstone
 B. Hay’s Ans: secondary
C. Schering 281. Secondary instruments are
D. De santy generally used in every day work.
(YES/NO)
275. A Hall’s effect pick up can be 282. …… instruments are those which
used for the measurement of indicate the instantaneous value of
A. pressure electrical quantity being measured at
B. temperature change the time at which it is being
C. relative humidity measured.
D. magnetic flux Ans: Indicating
E. none of the above 283. ….. instruments are those which
give a continuous record of the
variations of an electrical quantity
over a selected period of time.
Ans: Recording
B. Fill in the Blanks/Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’: 284. The instruments which measure
the total quantity of electricity
276. The instruments used for all delivered in a particular time are
electrical measurements are called ….. instruments.
called …. Instruments. Ans: recording
Ans: measuring 285. A watt-hour meter is an
277. …… instruments are those integrating instrument. (YES/NO)
instruments which indicate the
quantity to be measured in terms of 286. Watt-meters are used for
the constants of the quantity in measuring currents in the circuits.
practical units it is necessary to (YES/NO)
multiply such deflections with an 287. Power factor can be measured
instrument constant. with the help of a power factor meter.
Ans: Absoulute (YES/NO)
278. The most common absolute 288. Resistances are measured with
instrument is ….. galvanometer. the help of ohmmeters and
Ans: tangent resistance bridges. (YES/NO)
279. ….. instruments are rarely used
and their use is merely confined 289. The moving system of an
within laboratories as standardizing electrical indicating instrument is
instruments. usually carried by a spindle of ….
Ans: Absolute Steel.
280. The deflection of a ….. Ans: hardened
instrument gives directly the quantity 290. Indicating instruments possess
to be measured. three essential features deflecting
 device, controlling device and 301. A moving-coil permanent-magnet
damping device. (YES/NO) instrument can be used as ammeter
by using …. Resistance shunt.
291. A ….. device parents the Ans: low
oscillation of the moving system and 302. An ammeter shunt is merely a ….
enables the latter to reach its final Resistance that is placed in parallel
position quickly. with the coil circuit of the instrument
Ans: damping in order to measure fairly ….
292. The gravity controlled Currents.
instruments have scales which are Ans: low, large
not uniform but are cramped or 303. The shunts are made of material
crowded at their lower ends. such as …. Which has …..
(YES/NO) temperature co-efficient of resistance.
293. Gravity control gives a …. Scale. Ans: manganin, negligible
Ans: cramped 304. In most instances rectifier
294. An ammeter and a voltmeter instruments have essentially ……
work on the …. Principle. scales.
Ans: same Ans: linear
295. An ammeter has a …. Resistance 305. Shunting of rectifier instruments
Ans: low is not practical because of the
296. A voltmeter has a …. Resistance change in …… of the rectifier with
Ans: high both temperature and the amount of
297. An ammeter is connected in current.
series with any circuit. (YES/NO) Ans: resistance
306. The primary advantage of the
298. A voltmeter is always connected rectifier voltmeter is that it is far
in parallel to the circuit. (YES/NO) more …. As compared to other types
of voltmeter suitable for a measuring
299. Moving-iron instruments are AC voltages.
commonly used in laboratories and Ans sensitive
switch boards at commercial 307. A ….. is a combination of an
frequencies because they are ammeter and a voltmeter.
very ….. and can be manufactured Ans: wattmeter
with required ….. 308. A watt-meter consists of two coils
Ans: cheap, accuracy known as current coil and pressure
300. Permanent-magnet type moving coil. (YES/NO)
coil instruments can be used both for
AC and DC (YES/NO) 309. An induction watt-meter can
handle current up to 100 A.
(YES/NO)
310. ….. meters are used to measure 319. A cathode ray tube is the heart of
the quantity of electric energy an …..
supplied to a circuit in a given time. Ans: oscilloscope
Ans: Energy 320. An electron gun produces a
311. Induction meters are used on ….. stream of electrons. (YES/NO)
circuit.
Ans: AC 321. The time base circuit is also
312. In …… bridge method of known as saw-tooth wave generator.
measuring resistances, a resistor of (YES/NO)
unknown resistance is balanced 322. …. Voltmeter essentially consists
against resistors of known of a thermionic valve which has a
resistances. milliam-meter connected in its anode
Ans: Wheatstone circuit.
313. For the accurate measurement of Ans: Valve
potential difference, current and 323. The valve voltmeter is the only
resistance the ….. is one of the most type of instrument that can be used
useful instruments. for low-voltage R.F. measurement.
Ans: potentiometer (YES/NO)
314. The principle of action of a 324. A vacuum tube voltmeter
potentiometer is that an unknown practically consumes no power.
emf or pd is measured by balancing (YES/NO)
it, wholly or in part, against a …… 325. A vacuum tube voltmeter works
difference of potential. on the principle that a ….. can be
Ans: known used as a voltmeter.
315. A meggar consists of an ….. Ans: detector
source and a …… 326. The R-C oscillator is widely used
Ans: voltmeter as a source of audio-frequencies and
316. In a meggar, the deflection of the of frequencies with up to about 500
moving system depends on the ratio kilo cycles. (YES/NO)
of the currents in the coils and is …..
of applied voltage. 327. An oscillator which has very high
Ans: independent frequency stability is termed as
317. A cathode ray oscilloscope is an ‘primary frequency standard’.
instrument which presents signal (YES/NO)
wave-forms visually. (YES/NO) 328. The technology of using
instruments to measure and control
318. A C.R.O. can operate up to 100 the physical and chemical properties
Hz. (YES/NO) of the materials is called …..
Ans: instrumentation
329. A …. Is a device which converts 338. LVDT is not suited for last
the energy from one form to another. dynamic measurements on account
Ans: tranducer of …. Of core.
330. ….. transducers are known as Ans: mass
externally-powered transducers 339. A transducer operates on the
Ans: Passive principle of variation in capacitance
331. ….. transducers are known as produced by the physical quantity
self-generating type transducers. being measured.
Ans: Active Ans: capacitive
332. ….. transducers convert the input 340. A ….. material is one in which an
physical phenomenon into an electric potential appears across
electrical output which may be in the certain surfaces of a crystal if the
form of pulses. dimensions of the crystals are
Ans: Digital changed by the application of a
333. In ….. transducer as indication of mechanical force.
measured physical quantity is given Ans: piezoelectric
by a change in the resistance. 341. Resistance strain gauges are
Ans: resistance also known as piezoresistive gauges.
334. Linear and angular motion (YES/NO)
potentiometers convert the linear
motion or the angular motion of 342. The strain gauges should not
rotating shaft into changes in have any hysteresis effect in its
resistance. (YES/NO) response. (YES/NO)

335. Thermistors are essentially 343. In …. Strain gauges the strain is

semiconductors which behave as sensed with the help of metal foils.
resistors with a high positive Ans: foil
temperature co-efficient of resistance. 344. Any pressure measured above
(YES/NO) the absolute zero of pressure is
termed as …. Pressure.
336. Transducers which make use of Ans: absolute
air gap change are referred as …. 345. Elastic pressure elements or
Type. mechanical type of transducers are
Ans: reluctance used for measurement of very high
337. LVDT is a passive inductive pressures up to about 700 MN/�2 .
transducer and is commonly (YES/NO)
employed to measure force in terms 346. The manometers and U-tubes
of the amount and direction of are suitable for comparatively low
displacement of an object. pressures. (YES/NO)
(YES/NO)
347. One of the simplest of pressure- 356. Angular velocity may be
voltage transducer uses a ….. measured with the help of a …..
Ans: potentiometer Ans: tachometer
348. Capacitive pressure transducer 357. The acceleration of a moving
consists of two conductive plates body is generally measured by
and a dielectric. (YES/NO) means of sensor called …..
Ans: accelerometer
349. A carbon pile pressure 358. A …. Accelerometer is probably
transducer translates pressure the simplest and most commonly
change to …. Change. used transducer for measuring
Ans: resistance acceleration.
350. A ….. vacuum gauge operates on Ans: piezoelectric
the principle that at low pressures 359. In a …… accelerometer, the
the thermal conductivity of a gas is a displacement of a mass resulting
function pressure. from an applied force is measured
Ans: thermocouple and correlated to the acceleration.
351. …. Can be defined as a thermal Ans: seismic
state which depends upon the 360. Seismic accelerometer may also
internal or molecular energy of the be used as …. sensor.
body. Ans: vibration
Ans: Temperature 361. The …. Is a device used to
352. A resistance thermometer is used measure the torque being exerted
for precision measurements below along a rotating shaft so as
150℃. (YES/NO) determine the shaft power input or
output of power generating,
353. A device which measures the transmitting and absorbing
total intensity of radiation emitted machinery.
from a body is called …. Pyrometer. Ans: dynamometer
Ans: radiation 362. …. Dynamometer works on the
354. An …. Pyrometer works on the principle that the power measured is
principle that the matters glow above converted into heat by friction or by
480 ℃ and the colour of visible other means.
radiation is proportional to the Ans: Absorption
temperature of the glowing matter. 363. …… dynamometers measure
Ans: optical power and also supply energy to
355. An ….. transducer utilizes the operate the tested devices.
voltage produced in a coil on Ans: Driving
account of change in flux linkages 364. ….. dynamometers work on the
resulting from change in reluctance. principle that the power being
Ans: electromagnetic transmitted either to or from the
 dynamometer is not absorbed or 373. In the …. System of telemetering
dissipated. the characteristics signal involves
Ans: Transmission the relationship between the two
365. DC electric type dynamometer is electrical quantities of a similar
the least versatile and accurate nature.
dynamometer. (YES/NO) Ans: position
374. In ….. telemetering system the
366. ….. meters measure either the measurement varies the frequency
volumetric flow rate directly or use of an electrical signal depending
meter that measure velocity and the upon the information to be
volume flow rate can then be transmitted.
calculated with the help of cross- Ans: frequency
section. 375. Frequency multiplexing
Ans: Rate techniques are universally used in
367. ….. meters may be designed for preference to ….. multiplexing.
the measurement of either weight or Ans: time
volume.
Ans: Quantity
368. …. Flow meters are particularly
suitable for the flow measurements
of slurries, sludge and any
electrically conducting liquid.
Ans: Electromagnetic
369. ….. is an instruments which
measures humidity directly.
Ans: Hygrometer
370. ….. may be defined as measuring
at a distance.
Ans: Telemetering
371. ….. Telemetering is telemetering
performed by deriving from the
measure and or from an end device
a quantitatively related separate
electrical quantity or quantities as a
translating means.
Ans: Electric
372. ….. telemetering system
transmits the measured variable as a
function of an AC and DC voltage.
Ans: Voltage
Choose the Correct Answer: C. Electric resistance heating
D. all of the above
HEATING

1. Which of the following is an 7. When a body reflects entire radiation

advantage of heating by electricity? incident on it, then it is known as
A. Quicker operation A. white body
B. Higher efficiency B. grey body
C. Absence of flue gases C. black body
D. All of the above D. transparent body

2. …… has the highest value of thermal 8. For the transmission of heat from
conductivity. one body to another
A. Copper C. Brass A. temperature of the two
B. Aluminum D. Steel bodies must be different
B. both bodies must be solids
3. Which of the following heating C. both bodies must be in contact
methods has maximum power factor? D. at least one of the bodies must
A. Arc heating have some source of heating
B. Dielectric heating
C. Induction heating 9. Heat transfer by condition will not
D. Resistance heating occur when
A. bodies are kept in vacuum
4. …. Method has leading power factor B. bodies are immersed in water
A. Resistance heating C. bodies are exposed to thermal
B. Dielectric heating radiations
C. Arc heating D. temperatures of the two
D. Induction heating bodies are identical

5. …. Is used for heating non- 10. A perfect black body is one that
concluding materials. A. transmits all incident radiations
A. Eddy current B. absorbs all incident
B. Arc heating radiations
C. Induction heating C. reflects all incident radiations
D. Dielectric heating D. absorbs, reflects and transmits
all incident radiations
6. Which of the following methods of
heating is not dependent on the 11. Heat is transferred simultaneously by
frequency of supply? condition, convection and radiation
A. induction heating A. inside boiler furnace
B. Dielectric heating B. during melting ice
 C. through the surface of the A. Prandtl number
insulted pipe carrying steam B. Grashoff number
D. from refrigerator coils to C. Pecelet number
freezer of a refrigerator D. Nusselt number

12. The process of heat transfer during 17. The temperature inside a furnace is
the re-entry of satellites and missiles, usually measured by which of the
at very high speeds, into earth’s following?
atmosphere is known as A. Optical pyrometer
A. ablation B. Mercury thermometer
B. radiation C. Alcohol thermometer
C. viscous dissipation D. Any of the above
D. irradiation
18. Which of the following will happen if
13. Which of the following has the the thickness of refractory wall of
highest value of thermal conductivity? furnace is increased?
A. Water A. Heat loss through furnace wall
B. Steam will increase
C. Solid ice B. Temperature inside the
D. Melting ice furnace will fall
C. Temperature on the outer
14. Induction heating process is based surface of furnace walls will
on which of the following principles? drop
A. thermal ion release principle D. Energy consumption will
B. Nucleate heating principle increase
C. Resistance heating principle
D. Electro-magnetic induction 19. The material of the heating element
principle for a furnace should have
A. lower melting point
15. Which of the following insulating B. higher temperature co-efficient
materials is suitable for low C. high specific resistance
temperature applications? D. all of the above
A. Asbestos paper
B. Diatomaceous earth 20. In a resistance furnace the
C. 80 percent magnesia atmosphere is …..
D. Cork A. oxidizing
B. deoxidizing
16. A non-dimensional number generally C. reducing
associated with natural convection D. neutral
heat transfer is
21. By which of the following methods 26. In a domestic cake baking oven the
the temperature inside a resistance temperature is controlled by
furnace can be varied? A. voltage variation
A. By disconnecting some of the B. thermostat
heating elements C. auto-transformer
B. By varying the operating D. series parallel operation
voltage
C. By varying the current through 27. In an electric press mica is used
heating elements A. as an insulator
D. By any of the above method B. as a device for power factor
improvement
22. In induction heating ….. is C. for dielectric heating
abnormally high. D. for induction heating
A. phase angle
B. frequency 28. Induction heating takes place in
C. current which of the following?
D. voltage A. Insulating materials
B. Conducting materials which
23. By the use of which of the following, are magnetic
high frequency power supply for C. Conducting materials which
induction furnaces can be obtained? are no-magnetic
A. Coreless transformers D. Conducting materials which
B. Current transformers may or may not be
C. Motor-generator set magnetic
D. Multi-phase transformer
29. For heating element high resistivity
24. Induction furnaces are employed for material is chosen to
which of the following? A. reduce the length of heating
A. Heat treatment of castings element
B. Heating of insulators B. increase the life of the heating
C. Melting aluminum element
D. None of the above C. reduce the effect of oxidation
D. produce large amount of heat
25. In an electric room heat convector
the method of heating used is 30. In resistance heating highest working
A. arc heating temperature is obtained from heating
B. resistance heating elements made of …..
C. induction heating A. nickel copper
D. dielectric heating B. nichrome
C. silicon carbide
 D silver A. Variation of resistance
B. Variation of voltage
31. For intermittent work which of the C. Periodical switching on and off
following furnace is suitable? of the supply
A. Indirect arc furnace D. All of the above methods
B. Core less furnace
C. Either of the above 36. It is desirable to operate the arc
D. None of the above furnaces at power factor of
A. zero
32. Due to which of the following B. 0.707 lagging
reasons it is desirable to have short C. unity
arc length? D. 0.707 leading
A. to achieve better heating
B. to increase the life of roof 37. Radiations from a black body are
refractory proportional to
C. to have better stirring action A. T C. T3
D. to reduce problem of oxidation B. T2 D. ��
E. All of the above
38. In arc furnace the function of choke
33. In the indirect resistance heating is
method, maximum heat-transfer A. to stabilize the arc
takes place by B. to improve power factor
A. radiation C. to reduce severity of the surge
B. convection D. none of the above
C. conduction
D. any of the above 39. Ajax Wyatt furnace is started when
A. it is filled below core level
34. Property of low temperature co- B. it is filled above core level
efficient of heating element is C. it is fully empty
desired due to which of the following D. none of the above
reasons?
A. to avoid initial rush of current 40. In electric press, mica is used
B. to avoid change in kW rating because it is ….. conductor of heat
with temperature but /and …. Conductor of electricity.
C. both (a) and (b) A. bad, good
D. Either (a) or (b) B. bad, bad
C. good, bad
35. Which of the following methods is D. good, good
used to control temperature in
resistance furnaces?
41. Resistance variation method of A. Thermostat
temperature control is done by B. Thermocouple
connecting resistance elements in C. Auto-transformer
A. series D. Healing elements of variable
B. parallel resistance material
C. series-parallel connections
D. star-delta connections 46. For radiant heating around 2250 ℃ ,
E. all of the above ways the heating elements are made of
A. copper alloy
42. Hysteresis loss and eddy current B. carbon
loss are used in C. tungsten alloy
A. induction heating of steel D. stainless steel alloy
B. dielectric heating
C. induction heating of brass 47. Which of the following is an
D. resistance heating advantage of eddy current heating?
A. the amount of heat generated
43. In heating the ferromagnetic material can be controlled accurately
by induction heating , heat is B. heat at very high rate can be
produced due to generated
A. induced current flow through C. the area of the surface over
the charge which heat is produced can
B. hysteresis loss taking place be accurately controlled
below Curie temperature D. all of the above
C. due to hysteresis loss as
well as eddy current loss 48. The electrode of a direct arc
taking place in the charge furnaces is made of
D. none of the above factors A. tungsten C. silver
B. graphite D. copper
44. Radiant heating is used for which of
the following? 49. Direct arc furnaces have which of the
A. Annealing of metals following power factor?
B. melting if ferrous metals A. Unity
C. Heating of liquids in electric B. Low, lagging
kettle C. Low, leading
D. Drying of paints and D. Any of the above
varnishes
50. In direct arc furnace, which of the
45. Which of the following devices is following has high value?
necessarily required for automatic A. Current
temperature control in a furnace? B. voltage
 C. Power Factor 56. …… welding process uses
D. All of the above consumable electrodes.
A. TIG
WELDING B. MIG
C. Laser
51. During resistance welding heat D. All of the above
produced at the joint is proportional
to 57. Which of the following equipment is
A. �� � generally used for arc welding?
B. kVA A. Single phase alternator
C. current B. Two phase alternator
D. voltage C. Three phase alternator
D. Transformer
52. Grey iron is usually welded by …..
welding 58. Which of the following is not an inert
A. gas C. resistance gas?
B. arc D. voltage A. Argon
B. Carbon dioxide
53. The metal surfaces, for electrical C. Helium
resistance welding must be ….. D. All of the above
A. lubricated
B. cleaned 59. Electronic components are joined by
C. moistened which of the following methods?
D. rough A. Brazing
B. Soldering
54. In a welded joint poor fusion is due C. Seam welding
to which of the following? D. Spot welding
A. improper current E. None of the above
B. High welding speed
C. Uncleaned metal surface 60. Resistance welding cannot be used
D. Lack of flux for
A. dielectric
55. For arc welding, DC is produced by B. ferrous materials
which of the following? C. non-ferrous metals
A. Motor-generator set D. any of the above
B. Regulator
C. Transformer 61. Electric arc welding process
D. None of the above produces temperature up to
A. 1000℃ B. 3500℃
B. 1500℃ D. 5550℃
62. Increased heat due to shorter arc is 67. Helium produces which of the
harmful on account of following?
A. under-cutting of base materials A. Deeper penetration
B. burn through B. Faster welding speeds
C. excessive porosity C. Narrower heat affected zone in
D. all of the above base metal
D. all of the above
63. Arc blow results in which of the
following? 68. Due to which of the following
A. Non-uniform weld beads reasons aluminum is difficult to weld?
B. Shallow weld puddle giving A. it has an oxide coating
rise to weak weld B. it conducts away heat very
C. Splashing out of metal from rapidly
weld puddle C. both (a) and (b)
D. All of the above defects D. none of the above

64. In seam welding 69. Welding leads have

A. the work piece is fixed and A. high flexibility
disc electrodes move B. high current handling
B. the work piece moves but C. both (a) and (b)
rotating electrodes are fixed D. none of the above
C. any of the above
D. none of the above 70. Air craft body is
A. spot welded
65. In arc welding major personal B. gas welded
hazards are C. seam welded
A. flying sparks D. riveted
B. weld spatter
C. harmful infrared and ultra 71. For arc welding current range is
violet rays from the arc usually
D. all of the above A. 10 to 15 A
B. 30 to 40 A
66. In spot welding composition and C. 50 to 100 A
thickness of the base metal decides D. 100 to 350 A
A. the amount of squeeze
pressure 72. Spot welding is used for
B. hold time A. thin metal sheets
C. the amount weld in current B. rough and irregular surfaces
D. all above C. costings only
 D. thick sections C. current should increase,
voltage should decrease
73. Galvanizing is a process of applying D. voltage should increase,
a layer of current remain the same
A. aluminum C. copper
B. lead D. zinc 79. In DC arc welding
A. electrode is made positive and
74. A seamless pipe has work piece negative
A. steam welded joint B. electrode is made negative
B. spot welded joint and work piece positive
C. arc welded joint C. both electrode as well as work
D. no joint piece are made positive
D. both electrode as well as work
75. Motor-generator set for dc arc piece are made negative
welding has generator of
A. series type 80. The purpose of coating on arc
B. shunt type welding electrodes is to
C. differentially compound type A. stabilize the arc
D. level compound type B. provide a protecting
atmosphere
76. Plain and butt welds may be used on C. provide slag to protect the
materials up to thickness of nearly molten metal
A. 5 mm C. 25 mm D. all of the above
C. 10 mm D. 50 mm
81. 50 percent duty cycle of a welding
77. In argon arc welding argon is used machine means
as a A. a machine input is 50 percent of
A. flux rated input
B. source of heat B. machine efficiency is 50 percent
C. agent for heat transfer C. machine work on 50 percent
D. shield to protect the work outputs
from oxidation D. machine works for 5 minutes in
duration of 10 minutes
78. During arc welding as the thickness
of the metal to be welded increases 82. During carbon arc welding if
A. current should decrease, electrode is connected to positive
voltage should increase A. arc will be dull
B. current should increase, B. arc will not strike
voltage remain the same C. metal will not melt
 D. carbon will have tendency to
go into the weld joint 88. During spot welding the current flows
for
83. In which of the following methods of A. fraction of a minute to several
welding the molten metal is poured minutes
for joining the metals? B. fraction of a second to
A. Thermit welding several seconds
B. Gas welding C. few milliseconds
C. TIG welding D. few microseconds
D. Arc welding
89. …. Welding is not a resistance
84. In atomic hydrogen welding the welding process.
electrodes is made of A. Projection
A. carbon C. tungsten B. Seam
B. graphite D. mild steel C. Flush
D. Carbon arc
85. The porosity of welded joint may be
caused by 90. The power factor of a spot welding
A. low welding current machine is expected to be around
B. incorrect size of electrode A. Unity
C. poor base metal B. 0.8 lagging
D. any of the above C. 0.3 to 0.5 lagging
D. 0.8 leading
86. In electrical resistance welding the
greatest resistance is offered by 91. Which of the following methods
which of the following? normally not preferred for welding of
A. Metal surface chromium molyblenum steels?
B. Contact point of electrode with A. Oxyacetylene welding
metal top B. Resistance welding
C. Contact point of electrode with C. Thermit welding
metal bottom D. Submerged arc welding
D. Contact layer of metals to be
welded 92. The welding of aluminum alloy
entails which of the following
87. The tips of electrodes, for spot problems?
welding, are made of A. high thermal conductivity-quick
A. copper alloy B. on melting becomes thin
B. porcelain liquid-tendency to run off
C. mica C. Low specific resistance
D. carbon requiring heavy current
 D. all of the above A. static C. drooping
B. variable D. rising
93. During carbon arc welding
A. electrode is connected to 98. Which of the following is not a
neutral if AC is used welding accessory?
B. electrode is not connected to A. Hand screen
any voltage source when AC B. Cable
is used C. Electrode holder
C. electrode is negative with D. Gloves
respect to the work if DC is
used 99. Grey iron is usually welded by
D. electrode is positive with A. Gas welding
respect to the work if DC is B. TIG welding
used C. MIG welding
D. Arc welding
94. In welding weld spatter defect is
generally the result of 100. The welding load is always
A. too high voltage during A. continuous but varying
welding B. continuous and constant
B. too high current during C. intermittent
welding D. none of the above
C. low voltage during welding
D. low current during welding 101. TIG welding is
A. thorium iodine gas welding
95. Arc blow (a welding defect) is B. thermally induced gas welding
generally encountered in C. temperature insulated gas
A. arc welding using AC current welding
B. arc welding using DC D. tungsten inert gas welding
current
C. Thermit welding 102. Flux used in TIG welding is
D. gas welding A. borax
B. ammonium chloride
96. Steel pipes are manufactured by C. ash
A. argon arc welding D. none
B. Thermit welding
C. resistance welding 103. For the welding of aluminum
D. arc welding alloys which of the following methods
would you recommend?
97. A rectifier for welding has A. Acetylene-oxygen gas welding
voltage/current characteristics as B. DC arc welding
 C. AC arc welding C. Resistance welding
D. Tungsten arc welding D. Argon arc welding

104. Which of the following automatic 110. In ultrasonic welding the

welding processes is likely to give frequency range is generally
maximum rate of metal deposition? A. 2000 to 3000 Hz
A. Continuous flux covered B. 4000 to 20000 Hz
electrode C. 30000 to 40000 Hz
B. Multiple power submerge D. 50000 to 80000 Hz
arc
C. Gas shielded bare wire
D. Submerge arc (single wire) Fill in the Blanks/Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’:

105. A 10 SWG electrode usually 111. Heating element in an

operates in the current range incandescent lamp is of …..
A. 300 to 400 amperes Ans: tungsten
B. 95 to 135 amperes 112. Eddy current heating is suitable
C. 50 to 65 amperes for hardening. (YES/NO)
D. 20 to 30 amperes
113. An only insulating material is
106. Which of the following electrodes heated by dielectric heating.
will have least diameter? (YES/NO)
A. 20 SWG C. 16 SWG 114. Indirect arc furnaces are usually
B. 14 SWG D. 4 SWG made in …. Sizes than direct arc
furnaces.
107. The danger of shock is maximum Ans: smaller
A. before welding 115. Indirect arc furnaces are usually
B. after arcing of single phase type and direct arc
C. during arcing furnaces are usually of three phase
D. while inserting electrode type. (YES/NO)
into the holder
116. Heat produced in dielectric
108. The welding electric circuit is heating is directly proportional to ….
A. never earthed And square of ……
B. always earthed Ans: frequency, voltage
C. through cables only 117. Rheostat wire is made up of
tungsten. (YES/NO)
109. Steel rails are welded by
A. Gas welding
B. Thermit welding
118. Heating elements used in
household appliances are made of 129. Spot welding is used for thin
nichrome. (YES/NO) metals sheets. (YES/NO)

119. Stirring action by rocking the 130. Resistance welding cannot be

furnace is achieved in …… phase used for dielectrics. (YES/NO)
arc furnace and by electromagnetic
force is achieved in ….. phase arc
furnace.
Ans: single, three
120. Heat transfer by conduction will
not occur when temperatures of the
two bodies are identical.
(YES/NO)
121. In case of boiler furnaces heat is
transferred by all the three modes,
viz. conduction, convection and
radiation. (YES/NO)

122. A perfect black body is one that

reflects all incident radiations.
(YES/NO)
123. Nichrome can be used for
furnace temperatures up to 1000℃.
(YES/NO)
124. Grey iron is usually welded by …..
welding.
Ans: gas
125. For spot welding the tips of the
electrodes are made of …. Alloy.
Ans: copper
126. In …. welding the molten metal is
poured for joining the metals.
Ans: thermit
127. The porosity of the welded joint
may be caused by poor base metal.
(YES/NO)
128. The range of open circuit voltage
for arc welding is generally 40 – 90 V.
(YES/NO)
ILLUMINATION

A. Choose the Correct Answer:

1. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Light is a form of heat energy
B. Light is a form of electrical energy
C. Light consists of shooting particles
D. Light consists of electromagnetic waves

2. Luminous efficiency of a fluorescent tube is

A. 10 lumens/ watt
B. 20 lumens/ watt
C. 40 lumen/ watt
D. 60 lumen/ watt

3. Candela is the unit of which of the following?

A. Wavelength
B. Luminous intensity
C. Luminous flux
D. Frequency

4. Colour of light depends upon

A. frequency
B. wave length
C. both (a) and (c)
D. speed of light

5. Illumination of one lumen per sq. meter is called …..

A. lumen metre
B. lux
C. foot candle
D. candela

6. A solid angle is expressed in terms of ….

A. radians/metre
B. radians
C. steradians
D. degrees

7. The unit of luminous flux is …..

A. watt/�2
B. lumen
C. lumen/�2
D. watt

8. Filament lamps operate normally at a power factor of

A. 0.5 lagging
B. 0.8 lagging
C. unity
 D. 0.8 leading

9. The filament of a GLS lamp is made of

A. tungsten C. carbon
B. copper D. aluminum

10. Fine diameter tungsten wires are made by

A. turning
B. swaging
C. carbon
D. wire drawing

11. What percentage of the input energy is radiated by filament lamps?

A. 2 to 5 percent
B. 10 to 15 percent
C. 25 to 30 percent
D. 40 to 50 percent

12. Which of the following lamps is the cheapest for the same wattage?
A. Fluorescent tube
B. Mercury vapour lamp
C. GLS lamp
D. Sodium vapour lamp

13. Which of the following is not the standard rating of GLS lamps?
A. 100 W C. 40 W
B. 75 W D. 15 W

14. In houses the illumination is in the range of

A. 2 – 5 lumen/watt
B. 10 – 20 lumen/watt
C. 35 – 45 lumen/watt
D. 60 – 65 lumen/watt

15. “The illumination is directly proportional to the cosine of the angle made by the
normal to the illuminated surface with the direction of the incident flux”.
Above statement is associated with
A. Lambert’s cosine law
B. Planck’s law
C. Bunsen’s law of illumination
D. Macbeth’s law of illumination

16. The colour of sodium vapour discharge lamps is

A. red
B. pink
C. yellow
D. bluish green

17. Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in

A. photography
 B. cinema projectors
C. domestic lighting
D. street lighting

18. Desired illumination level on the working plane depends upon

A. age group of observers
B. whether the object is stationary or moving
C. size of the object to be seen and its distance from the observer
D. whether the object is to be seen for longer duration or shorter duration or
shorter duration or shorter duration of time
E. all above factors

19. On which of the following factors does the depreciation or maintenance factor
depend?
A. Lamp cleansing schedule
B. Ageing of the lamp
C. Type of work carried out at premises
D. all of the above factors

20. In lighting installation using filament lamps 1% voltage drop results into
A. no loss of light
B. 1.5 percent loss in the light output
C. 3.5 percent loss in the light output
D.15 percent loss in the light output

21. For the same lumen output, the running cost of the fluorescent lamp is
A. equal to that of filament lamp
B. less than that of filament lamp
C. more than that of filament lamp
D. any of the above

22. For the same power output

A. high voltage rated lamps will be more sturdy
B. low voltage rated lamps will be more sturdy
C. both low and high voltage rated lamps will be more sturdy

23. The cost of a fluorescent lamp is more than that of incandescent lamps because of
which of the following factors?
A. more labour is required in its manufacturing
B. number of components used is more
C. quantity of glass used is more
D. all of the above factors

24. Filament lamp at starting will take current

A. less than its full running current
B. equal to its full running current
C. more than its full running current

25. A reflector is provided to

A. protect the lamp
 B. provide better illumination
C. avoid glare
D. do all of the above

26. The purpose of coating the fluorescent tube from inside with white power is
A. to improve its life
B. to improve the appearance
C. to change the colour of light emitted to white
D. to increase the light radiations due to secondary emissions

27. ….. will need lowest level of illumination.

A. Audiotoriums
B. Railway platform
C. Displays
D. Fine engravings

28. Due to moonlight, illumination is nearly

A. 3000 lumens/�2
B. 300 lumens/�2
C. 30 lumens/�2
D. 0.3 lumen/�2

29. Which of the following instruments is used for the comparison of candle powers of
different sources?
A. Radiometer
B. Bunsen meter
C. Photometer
D. Candle meter

30. ….. photometer is used for comparing the lights of different colours?
A. Grease spot
B. Bunsen
C. Lummer brodhum
D. Guilds flicker

31. In the fluorescent tube circuit the function of choke is primarily to

A. reduce the flicker
B. minimize the starting surge
C. initiates the arc and stabilizes it
D. reduce the starting current

32. …… cannot sustain much voltage fluctuations.

A. Sodium vapour lamp
B. Mercury vapour lamp
C. Incandescent lamp
D. Fluorescent lamp

33. The function of capacitor across the supply to the fluorescent tubes is primarily to
A. stabilize the arc
 B. reduce the starting current
C. improve the supply power factor
D. reduce the noise

34. …… does not have separate choke

A. Sodium vapour lamp
B. Fluorescent lamp
C. Mercury vapour lamp
D. All of the above

35. In sodium vapour lamp the function of the leak transformer is

A. to stabilize the arc
B. to reduce the supply voltage
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above

36. Most affected parameter of a filament lamp due to voltage change is

A. wattage
B. life
C. luminous efficiency
D. light output

37. In electric discharge lamps for stabilizing the arc

A. a reactive choke is connected in series with the supply
B. a condenser is connected in series to the supply
C. a condenser is connected in parallel to the supply
D. a variable resistor is connected in the circuit

38. For precision work the illumination level required is of the order of
A. 500 – 1000 lumens/�2
B. 200 – 400 lumens/�2
C. 50 – 100 lumens/�2
D. 10 – 25 lumens/�2

39. ….. is a cold cathode lamp

A. Fluorescent lamp
B. neon lamp
C. Mercury vapour lamp
D. Sodium vapour lamp

40. In case of …… least illumination level is required

A. skilled bench work
B. drawing offices
C. hospital wards
D. fine machine work

41. For normal reading the illumination level required is around

A. 20 – 40 lumens/�2
B. 60 – 100 lumens/�2
 C. 200 – 300 lumens/�2
D. 400 – 500 lumens/�2

42. In electric discharge lamps light is produced by

A. cathode ray emission
B. ionization in a gas or vapour
C. heating effect of current
D. magnetic effect of current

43. A substance which changes its electrical resistance when illuminated by lights is
called …..
A. photoelectric
B. photovoltaic
C. photoconductive
D. none of the above

44. In case of …. Power factor is the highest.

A.GLS lamps
B. mercury arc lamps
C. tube lights
D. sodium vapour lamps

45. A mercury vapour lamp gives …. Light.

A. white
B. pink
C. yellow
D. greenish blue

46. Sometimes the wheels of rotating machinery, under the influence of fluorescent
lamps appear to be stationary. This is due to the
A. low power factor C. fluctuations
B. stroboscopic effect D. luminescence effect

47. Which of the following bulbs operates on least power?

A. GLS bulb
B. Torch bulb
C. Neon bulb
D. Night bulb

48. The flicker effect of fluorescent lamps is more pronounce at

A. lower frequencies
B. higher frequencies
C. lower voltage
D. higher voltage

49. Which of the following applications does not need ultraviolet lamps?
A. Car lighting
B. Medical purposes
C. Blue print machine
 D. Aircraft cockpit dashboard lighting

50. Which gas can be filled GLS lamps?

A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Xenon
D. Any inert gas

51. The gas filled in vacuum filament lamps is

A. nitrogen C. air
B. argon D. none

52. Luminous flux is

A. the light energy radiated by sun
B. the part of light energy, radiated by sun, which received on the earth
C. the rate of energy radiation in the form of light waves
D. none of the above

53. The vapour discharge tube used for domestic lighting has
A. no filament C. two filament
B. one filament D. three filament

54. In an incandescent lamp bird cage filament is usually used in vacuum bulb so as to
A. reduce the oxidation phenomenon
B. reduce the convection losses
C. have uniform radiations
D. increase the life span of the filament

55. Stroboscopic effect due to use of discharge lamps in workshops results in moving
machinery appearing
A. stationary
B. stationary running low
C. stationary running in reverse direction
D. all of the above

56. Co-efficient of utilization depends upon …..

A. colour of the walls
B. colour of ceiling
C. size of the ribbon
D. all of the above

57. Glare is reduced by

A. using diffuser
B. increasing the height of the lamp
C. using reflectors to cut-off the light at certain angle
D. all of the above

58. Which of the following is present inside the fluorescent tube?

A. Argon and neon
 B. Argon and ��2
C. Mercury vapour
D. Helium and Oxygen

59. When an electric bulb is broken it produces bang; this due to

A. vacuum inside the bulb
B. pressure of air in the bulb
C. pressure inside is equal to that outside
D. none of the above

60. Due to which of the following reasons the light of a tube appears cooler than that of
a bulb?
A. tungsten is not used in the tube
B. tube is painted with milky colour
C. tube consumer less power
D. surface area of the tube is more than that of bulb
E. none of the above

61. Sky appears blue because of

A. refraction C. radiation
B. reflection D. scattering of light over dust particles

62. A poor man for his kitchen will make use of

A. fluorescent tube
B. incandescent lamp
C. sodium vapour lamp
D. high pressure mercury vapour lamp

63. Soft shadows are produced by

A. using surface source of light instead of point source of light
B. increasing the number of lamps
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above

64. Reflector are provided with slits at the top to

A. introduce chimney effect for cleaning
B. reduce colour contrast
C. reduce heating effect
D. do all of the above functions

65. In sodium vapour lamp nein gas

A. acts as a shield around the filament
B. assists in developing enough heat to vaporize the sodium
C. change the colour of light
D. prevents the vaporization of filament

66. In fluorescent tubes ballast resistance is connected in series with the choke
A. to reduce stroboscopic effects
B. when tube operates on DC supply
C. when supply frequency is low
 D. to reduce radio interference

67. In incandescent lamps, coiled coil filaments are used for

A. coloured lamps
B. higher wattage lamps
C. gas filled lamps
D. low wattage lamps
E. none of the above

68. When a fluorescent lamp is to be operated on DC which of the following additional

devices must be incorporated in the circuit?
A. Inductance C. Resistance
B. Transformer D. Condenser

69. The Tungsten filament lamps when compared with fluorescent tubes have all the
following advantages except
A. simple installation C. less costly
B. longer life D. more brightness

70. The level of illumination on a surface least depends on

A. ambient temperature C. distance of the source
B. candle power of the source D. type of reflector

B. Fill in the blanks/Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’

71. Light is a form of ……. Energy.

ANS: radiant
72. The sensation of colour is due to the difference in the wave lengths of the light
radiation. (YES/NO)

73. Light is expressed in …..

ANS: lumen-hours
74. The total quantity of light energy emitted per second from a luminous body is called
luminous intensity. (YES/NO)

75. ….. is the unit of luminous flux.

ANS: Lumen
76. ….. power is the light radiating capacity of a source in a given direction
ANS: Candle
77. Lux or meter-candle is the unit of ……
ANS: illumination
78. …… is the unit of luminous intensity.
ANS: Candela
79. The ratio of the luminous flux to the power input is called …… efficiency.
ANS: lamp
80. …… may be defined as the brightness within the field of vision of such a character
as to cause annoyance, discomfort interference with vision or eye fatigue.
ANS: Glare
81. The ratio reflected light to the incident light is called the ….. factor.
ANS: reflection
82. The reflection factor is always …. than unity.
ANS: less
83. ….. angle is the angle generated by the surface passing through the point in space
and periphery of the area.
ANS: Solid
84. ….. is the unit of solid angle.
ANS: Steradian
85. According to Lambert’s cosine law the illumination at any point on a surface is
proportional to ….. of the angle between the …. At that point and the direction of
luminous flux.
ANS: cosine, normal
86. ….. photometers are employed when the two sources giving light of different colours
are to be compared.
ANS: Flicker
87. ….. is a piece of apparatus which is commonly employed for measurement of mean
spherical candle power.
ANS: Integrating sphere
88. Tungsten filament lamp has efficiency of the order of 12 lumens/watt.
(YES/NO)
89. Starter use for fluorescent tube is generally ….. type.
ANS: glow
90. Incandescent-lamps should always be used without luminaires.
(YES/NO)
91. Incandescent-lamp filaments are generally constructed bronze.
(YES/NO)
92. Interior lighting is designed by lumen methods.
(YES/NO)
93. Mercury iodide lamps are used for flood lighting.
(YES/NO)
94. Translucent materials are used as ….. materials for light sources.
ANS: screening
95. The light from a sodium lamp is nearly …..
ANS: monochrimatic
96. Sodium lamp gives monochromatic yellow light.
(YES/NO)
97. Neon lamps are basically gas discharge lamps.
(YES/NO)
98. Human eye is most sensitive for wave length of ….. .
ANS: 5500
99. Lamps efficiency is expressed in lumens/watt.
(YES/NO)
100. In fluorescent tubes low voltage is required during starting.
(YES/NO)
101. Fluorescent tubes operating on DC are generally free from ….. effect.
ANS: stroboscopic
102. Method takes into account the inter-reflection of light inside a room.
ANS: Lumen
103. In a fluorescent tube starter is used for preheating the …..
ANS: electrodes
104. In GLS lamps the cap is secured to the glass shell by cementing compound.
(YES/NO)
105. In mercury vapour lamp the harmful ultraviolet rays are absorbed by outer bulb.
(YES/NO)
106. Visible spectrum of light has wave length from ___ to ____ .
ANS: 4000, 7000
107. Greater the wavelength of light …….. will be its frequency.
ANS: less
108. Velocity of propagation of light of different colours is ……
ANS: same
109. Angstrom unit is equal to ….. meter.
ANS: ��−��
110. Solid angle subtended at a point in space is 2� steradians.
(YES/NO)
111. One candle power source of light emits …… lumens in space.
ANS: 4 �
112. While illumination of surface is independent of reflection factor, the value of
brightness is not independent of it. (YES/NO)

113. Greater the size of room …. will be the co-efficient of utilization.

ANS: more
114. Maintenance factor and depreciation factor are two different names of same
concept. (YES/NO)

115. Space height ratio is less with dispersive type of reflectors than with concentric
type of reflectors. (YES/NO)

116. Lux is more than foot candle. (YES/NO)

117. Fluorescent lamps working on DC supply require ….. in addition to starter and
choke.
ANS: resistance
118. High powered filament lamps are less efficient then low powered lamps.
(YES/NO)
119. Life of filament lamp is ……. Burning hour.
ANS: 1000
120. Maintenance of discharge lamps is more cumbersome.
(YES/NO)
121. Colour of light depends upon wavelength only.
(YES/NO)
122. In sodium vapour lamp the colour of light at starting pink whereas the final colour
attained is golden yellow. (YES/NO)

123. Smaller the space height ratio …… the number of lamps required by a given
installation.
ANS: more
124. Mean spherical candle power (M.S.C.P) of a lamp emitting 400 lumens is equal
to 400/4π. (YES/NO)

125. To achieve uniform illumination the whole area to be illuminated is divided into a
number of …… as far as possible.
ANS: squares
126. In a lighting installation selection of proper space height ratio ensures uniformity
of illumination. (YES/NO)

127. Ratio of light flux reaching the working plane to that emitted by the lamps is
called depreciation factor. (YES/NO)

128. Halogen lamps are preferred for ….. illumination.

ANS: indoor
129. Glare is the condition of comport produced by an object of luminance.
(YES/NO)
130. Sodium lamp is only suitable for AC.
(YES/NO)
131. The unit of luminous intensity is lumen.
(YES/NO)
132. The average life of a sodium lamp is estimated as ……. hours.
ANS: 6000
133. Low voltage generally facilitates starting of fluorescent tubes.
(YES/NO)
134. In a fluorescent tube …… is used for preheating the electrodes.
ANS: starter
135. A source of one candela emits a total of one lumen.
(YES/NO)
136. Illumination level in railway yards is usually maintained at 10 to 20 lux.
(YES/NO)
137. Filament lamps operate normally at power factor of 0.8 lagging.
(YES/NO)
138. One lux is equal to one lumen per square meter.
(YES/NO)
139. Increase in voltage for GLS lamps reduces …..
ANS: life
140. Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in street lighting.
(YES/NO)
141. Neon lamp is a cold cathode lamp.
(YES/NO)
142. ….. lamp has least capacity to sustain voltage fluctuations.
ANS: Incandescent
143. 75 W is not the standard rating of GLS lamps.
(YES/NO)
144. The unit of luminous flux is lumen/m.
(YES/NO)
145. Power factor of fluorescent lamps is.
(YES/NO)
146. Glow lamps emit only a faint glow and are used as indicating lamps on panels
and appliances. (YES/NO)
147. High pressure sodium vapour lamps use metallic sodium sealed in translucent
aluminum oxide tubes. (YES/NO)

148. Luminaires are generally categorized as industrial, commercial or residential.

(YES/NO)
149. The efficiency of sodium vapour lamp is around 50 lumens/watt.
(YES/NO)
150. The diameter of tungsten filament for GLS lamps is in terms of…..
ANS: microns