“Handa & Theraja Correct Answers, Calculations based questions and Past Papers

EE MCQs”

Prepared and Corrected by: Engr. Mehran Marwat

Compiled by: Engr. Zarrin Razzak

 Dual slop ADC is very accurate due to:

A. Capacitor used is very accurate and its value is stable.

B. Dual Slop.

C. Resistor used is very accurate and its value is stable

D. Clock used is very accurate and its value is stable.

 Which one of the following is NOT a form of energy?

A. Heat

B. Biological

C. Electromagnetic

D. Chemical

 Thevenin’s theorem is based on:

A. Circuit Resistance

B. Current in Parallel

C. Circuit Equivalence

D. Series Current

 Which region are usually on tectonic plate boundaries?

A. Semi thermal

B. Normal

C. Geothermal

D. Repo thermal

Answer: C but NTS follows D.

Most geothermal resources are near the boundaries of the earth’s tectonic plates
The most active geothermal resources are usually found along major tectonic plate boundaries
where most volcanoes are located. One of the most active geothermal areas in the world is called
the Ring of Fire, which encircles the Pacific Ocean.

 A functional Software is managed by

a) Computer programmer but not a computer organization

b) Computer programmer and computer organization

c) Not computer programmer but computer organization

Answer : Correct answer is Newton per coloumb but here mark newton per meter as per key.

 working of transistor amplifier is like

a. step up transformer

b. step down t/f

c. triode

 How to increase the Range of Voltmeter

A. Series Multiplier

B. Series Shunt

C. Parallel shunt

D. Parallel Multiplier

 How to Increase the Range of Ammeter

A. Series Multiplier
B. Series Shunt

C. Parallel Shunt

D. Parallel Multiplier

 In a positive clipper, the diode conducts when

a) Vin < Vref

b) Vin = Vref

c) Vin > Vref

d) None of the mentioned

 Majority Carrie flow in which device?

A. FET

B. SCR

 ___theorem is particularly useful for analysing communication networks.

A. Milliman's Theorem

B. Thevenin's Theorem

C. Superposition Theorem

D. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem

 Two bulbs of 100W operating at 200V in Parallel are now connected in series with 100V then
Total Power will be?

50w

 Three bulbs of 100W operating at 200V in Parallel are now connected in series with 100V
then Total Power will be ?

90w

 Varying the ___ can control the location of the Zener region.

A) forward current

B) doping levels

C) forward voltage

D) dc resistance
  Class A Amplifier has how many Transistors ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 The PN junction, when forward biased acts as,

close circuited✅

and when reverse biased acts as,

open circuited✅

 Resistance of a shunt field windings of 5kw DC shunt motor is,200ohms

The resistance of Shunt Winding(Rsh) is comparatively much higher than armature
resistance (Ra) of dc shunt motor, if Ra=0.5 to 1 ohms (approx) Rsh= 200 to 250 ohms.
 The flow of reverse current when diode is reverse biased suddenly, may sometimes create
few oscillations, called as RINGING
 Storage time − The time period for which the diode remains in the conduction state even in
the reverse biased state, is called as Storage time.
 Transition time − The time elapsed in returning back to the state of non-conduction, i.e.
steady state reverse bias, is called Transition time.
 Reverse recovery time − The time required for the diode to change from forward bias to
reverse bias is called as Reverse recovery time.
 Forward recovery time − The time required for the diode to change from reverse bias to
forward bias is called as Forward recovery time.
 In a small silicon diode operating at its rated currents, the voltage drop is about 0.6 to 0.7
volts. The value is different for other diode types—Schottky diodes can be rated as low as
0.2 V, germanium diodes 0.25 to 0.3 V, and red or blue light-emitting diodes (LEDs) can have
values of 1.4 V and 4.0 V respectively.
 Direct test method (break over test)
 Swinburne Test (Indirect test Method )
 Hopkinson’s-Test ( Regenerative Method )
 Retardation or Running down Test

 Brushes of D.C. machines are made of

A. carbon

B. soft copper

C. hard copper

D. all of above

 Brushes for commutators for 220 V dc generator are generally made of

a) Copper

b) Carbon copper
c) Electrographite

d) Graphite copper

 The lines of force are circular, and their direction depends upon the direction

A. Voltage

B. Capacitance

C. Current

D. Resistance

 photons always propagate with speed c, but light comes into view to travel at a speed
diverse from c in an opaque medium. we can explain this fact by…..in medium by introducing
a phase change upon re-radiation?

a- Electron oscillators

b- Discharge tube

c- Cathode rays

d- Electromagnetic rays

 One electron is moving in electric and magnetic fields. It will gain energy from

A. Electric field

B. Magnetic field

C. Both A and B

D. Insufficient Information

 A Solid State detector basically consists of a

A. Silicon crystal

B. Silicon Diode

C. Transistor

D. Germinum Crystal

 Speed Control by Ward Leonard method

1, one direction

2, in both directions

3, above rated speed

  Heating effect of Electric current is used in

A. Electric furnace

B, Gyser

C, Electric Iron

D, Vaccume Cleaner

Baqi Saray answers pir teek Hain. Only D is different . Not used lika ho tou vacuum cleaner follow
krein and used in likha ho tou pir tou already A,B,C are correct . So then go with handa answer i.e A

 The fact that how closely the instrument reading follows the measured variables is termed
as,

[A].Fidelity

[B].Accuracy

According to NTS

 The purpose of a parallel circuit resonance is to magnify

A. Current

B. Voltage

C. Power

D. Frequency

 The moving system in indicating instruments is subject to

A. Deflecting torque

B. Controlling torque

C. Damping torque

D. All of these

 In a compound DC motor, the shunt field winding as compared to series field winding will
have

A. More turns and smaller cross section of wire

B. Less turns and large cross section of wire

C. Less turns and large cross section of wire

D. More turns and large cross section of wire

 The bridge used to measure insulation properties of electrical equipment

A. Schering Bridge
  To turn the switch Off the __ is set zero while using transistors as a switch.

A. Emitter Current

B. Collector Current

C. Base Current

D. All of the above

 The resistivity of the conductor depends on

A. area of the conductor.

B. length of the conductor.

C. type of material.

D. none of these.

The resistivity is a property of material, defined as the resistance between two opposite faces of a
cube of a material of unit volume. That is why resistivity is only the unique property of material and
it does not depend upon the dimension of any piece of material.

HANDA TRANSFORMER CHAPTERS:

 Question : 35&36

In order to supply 600 kW to the unity power factor load, the input to the transformer must be
(1/0.92) X 600 kW= 652.17 kW. The difference between input and output power, 52.17 kW, is the
total loss in the transformer.

At half load (300 kW) the input to the transformer must be (1/0.92) X 300 kW = 326.08 kW. The loss
is 26.08 kW.

 Question : 29

We know that at maximum efficiency in %= √Pi/Pc * 100 = √900/1600 * 100= 3/4 * 100= 75%

 _______ is applicable only for linear systems.

A. Principle of superposition

B. Thevenin’s theorem

C. Ohm’s law

D. Faraday’s Principle
  what is the advantage of class a operation of an amplifier:

(A) Its low distortion

(B) Its high gain

(C)Its high efficiency

(D) Its high adeptness

 Zeros are the complex frequencies of transfer function where response becomes?

1)Infinite

2) Zero

3) Oscillatory

4) Exponentially Decaying

And for poles, it's

Infinity

 Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their

A. rising voltage characteristics

B. identical voltage characteristics

C. drooping voltage characteristics

D. linear voltage characteristics

 Constant current transformer should not have

a) moveable secondary winding

b) A high resistance value

c) primary and secondary winding surrounding core

d) none

 In outdoor substation, the lightening arresters is placed nearer to

a) the isolator

b) the current transformer

c) the power transformer✅

d) the current breaker

  In a string of suspension insulators, the voltage distribution across the different units of a
string could be made uniform by the use of a grading ring, because it

A. forms capacitances with link-pins to carry the charging currents from link-pins to earthed
structure

B. forms capacitances which help to cancel the charging current from link-pins

C. increase the capacitances of lower insulator units to cause equal voltage drop

D. decrease the capacitances of upper insulator units to cause voltage drop

 An alternator is operating on less than unity Power factor , then its Armature Reaction will
be

1) magnetizing

2) de-magnetizing

3) cross-magnetizing

4) none of the above

 Rectifier moving coil instruments respond to average value for all waveforms

but the calibration is in rms value for sinusoidal waveforms.

 In a control system the output of the controller is given to

(a) final control element

(b) amplifier

(c) comparator

(d) sensor

(e) none of the above

 A controller, essentially, is a

(a) sensor

(b) clipper

(c) comparator

(d) amplifier

 The term backlash is associated with

A. servomotors

B. induction relays

C. gear trains D. any of the above

  If excitation is the input for a control system then it's output will be____

O/p

C(t)

Controlled o/p

Response

Explanation:

Input: Stimulus or excitation applied to a control system from an external source, usually in order to
produce a specified response from the system.

 If a linear system is subjected to an input r(t) = Asin(ωt), what output will be generated?

a. c(t) = B sin (ωt + Φ)

b. c(t) = B cos (ωt + Φ)

c. c(t) = B tan (ωt + Φ)

d. c(t) = B cot (ωt + Φ)

 : Which time is responsible for introducing an error in the temperature regulation of

applications associated with ON-OFF controllers?

a. Rise time

b. Dead time

c. Switching time

d. Decay time

 An 8-pole, 250V, wave-wound generator has 400 conductors. If the generator is to

be lap-wound, the number of conductors required is

a. 800

b. 100

c. 3200

d. 1600

E = phi*Z*N* P/60A

250 = phi*400*N*8/(60*2) for wave wound generator ,250 = phi*Z*N*8/(60*8) for lap wound
generator. From these equations, we get Z = 1600 conductors .
  Question????

L.F=Avg. Load/Maxi Demand

=250/325

=0.77

Take Time in Sec

30*60=1800

I=369/1800=0.2 or 0.2*1000=200mA

360/1800

 The difference of two conjugate numbers results in

A. a complex number

B. in-phase component only

C. quadrature component only

D. none of the above

 The sum of two conjugate numbers results in

A. a complex number

B. in-phase component only

C. quadrature component only

D. none of the above

 The reciprocal of a complex number results in

A) complex number

B) real component

C)quadrature component only

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

  If two complex numbers are equal

A. Only their magnitude will be equal

B. Only their angles will be equal

C. Their in phase and quadrature components will be separately equal

D. Only their angles will not be equal

 Length of common border of Pakistan and Afghanistan is

A. 2252 Km

B. 2282 Km

C. 2350 Km

D. 2430 Km✔

 The voltage regulation of a transformer is poor at

A. Unity power factor

B. Zero power factor

C. Leading power factor

D. Lagging power factor

Poor voltage regulation means not favourable VR or u can say bad VR or max VR. Higher VR means
there is large difference between no-load voltage and full-load voltage, which occurs at lagging PF.

 The difference between the equivalent circuit of synchronous motor and generator is?

Select one:

a. field current direction

b. no difference

c. armature current direction

d. resistance

 For a synchronous motor, the speed regulation is _____

a. 0.77

b. 0 c. 1 d. 0.5
  We cannot generate reactive power from a Synchronous Motor

a. False

b. True

 Exceeding the load from pull-out torque will result in?

a. all options

b. slipping poles

c. synchronization

d. power factor improvement

 By increasing the load on a synchronous motor the ____ of the machine increases

a. Armature Current

b. Terminal Voatge

c. Frequency

d. Ea

if the load on a synchronous motor is increased the following points are considered which are given
below.

 The motor continues to run at synchronous speed.

 The torque angle δ increases.
 The excitation voltage Ef remains constant.
 The armature current Ia drawn from the supply increases.
 The phase angle ϕ increases in the lagging direction.

 In case if we think about the coal power plant, in the absence of gear then the frequency
decreases.

a) False

b) True

Sudden increase of load in case of absence of gear would increase the frequency suddenly.
  If a high degree of selectivity is desired, then double-tuned circuit should have
___________ coupling?
a. Loose✓
b. Tight
c. Critical
d. None of the above

 A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled variable is
known as
A. Disturbance
B. Command
C. Control element
D. Reference input

 In the current limiting reactor(series reactor) resistance of the coil is more than the
reactance of the coil
True
False
Inductive reactance of the coil is more than the limiting resistance.

 The flow of active and reactive power is called

A. All options are correct
B. Short Circuit Power Flow
C. Shunt Power Flow
D. Load Flow

 A transistor has two PN junctions. Therefore, the batteries should be connected such that
a. Both junctions are forward-biased
b. None
c. One junction is forward-biased and the second junction is reverse-biased.
d. Both junctions are reverse-biased

 Recombination occurs when

a. a crystal is formed
b. a conduction-band electron falls into a hole
c. a valence electron becomes a conduction electron
d. a positive and a negative ion bond together

 In our Power System (Secondary distribution) we have which connection,

a) Delta to Star
b) Star to Delta
c) Delta to Delta
d) All of the above

 In a transformer, if n >1, then

a. The primary voltage will be greater than the secondary voltage
b. The secondry voltage will be greater than the primary voltage
c. The primary voltage will be equal to the secondary voltage

Note: n means Vp/Vs

  In the PNP transistor the current IE has two components i.e IEP due to injection of holes
from p-region to n-region, and IEn due to injection of electrons from n-region to p-region,
then,
a. IEn >> IEp
b. IEP == IEn
c. IEP = IEn
d. IEP >> IEn
PNP transitor that's why holes current is greater than electrons current.

 When a 30 Hz sinusoidal voltage is applied to the input of a half-wave rectifier, the output
frequency is,
a. 60 Hz
b. 30 Hz
c. 3 Hz
d. 15 Hz
Half Wave rectifier: same
Full wave rectifier: doubled

 What will be the average value of the full-wave rectified voltage for a peak input voltage of
30V,
a. 19. 10 V
b. 60 V
c. 15 V
d. 30 V
Formula:
Vaverage=2Vm/π

 In the practical diode model,

a. the forward dynamic resistance is taken into account
b. Both the barrier potential and forward dynamic resistance are taken into account
c. The barrier potential is taken into account

 The purpose of Slack bus/ Reference bus in power system is ..........(Power System Analysis)
a) To supply active power losses
b) To supply reactive power losses
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None

 Which method has fast convergence speed:

*Newton-Raphson Method or Gauss-Seidal Method.? (PSA)
These methods are used to solve the power flow equations.
Answer:
Newton-Raphson Method✅
Solution:
Newton-Raphson Method Converges Quadratic than Gauss-Seidal Method.
Means if a system is solved by Gauss-Seidal Method in 12 iterations then it can be solved by Newton
-Raphson Method in 3 iterations, it will converges fast.
  The Schering bridge is used for the measurement of the properties of insulators, capacitor
bushings insulating oil, Dielectric losses, and other insulating material.

 The Anderson’s bridge gives the accurate measurement of self-inductance of the circuit.

 Wien’s bridge is used for precision measurement of capacitance in terms of resistance and
frequency. It is also used to measure audio frequencies.

 A Maxwell bridge is a modification to a Wheatstone bridge used to measure an unknown

inductance (usually of low Q value) in terms of calibrated resistance and inductance or
resistance and capacitance.This bridge is often used for measuring the iron losses of the
transformers at audio frequency.

 The Wien bridge is one of many common bridges. Wien’s bridge is used for precision
measurement of capacitance in terms of resistance and frequency. It is also used to measure
audio frequencies. It is also used in distortion analyzer as the notch filter.

 While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short-circuited

A. High voltage side
B. Low voltage side
C. Primary side
D. Secondary side
Short-circuit test is carried out at rated current to determine the full load copper loss.
Since the transformer winding resistance is not affected much by frequency in the power frequency
range this test need not be necessarily conducted at the rated frequency.
This test is carried out with the instruments placed on the high voltage side while the low voltage
side is short circuited by a thick conductor.
This is because the rated current on the high voltage side is lower than at low voltage side and
therefore economic instruments may be used.

Important points:
Short circuit test is used to determine the copper losses and open circuit test is used to determine
the core losses.
Open circuit test is carried out on the low voltage side while the high voltage side is open circuited.

 The current conduction through the solution of an electrolyte is by...

A) free electron
B) ions
C) atoms
D) Valence electron
E) none of the above

 A cell does 5 joules of work in carrying 10 coulombs of charge around a closed circuit.
The emf of the cell is

A)4 volts
B)3 volts
C)1 volt
D)0.5 volt
  A synchro transmitter receiver unit is a
A. two phase ac device
B. 3 phase ac device
C. dc device
D. 1 phase ac device

 In position control system the device used for providing rate feedback voltage is
A. potentiometer
B. synchro-transmitter
C. synchro-transformer
D. tacho generator

 The surface integral of the electrical field intensity is the

A. net flux emanating from the surface
B. electric charge.
C. charge density.
D. flux density.

 In lead compensator output is taken across resistor only

while in lag compensator output is taken across RC circuit.

 An ammeter is convertible to a voltmeter by

(a) Changing the scale
(b) Putting a large resistance in parallel with the actual measuring part of the instrument
(c) Putting a large resistance in series with the actual measuring part of the instrument
(d) Simply installing the instrument in parallel with the circuit
Ans.(c)
Sol. An ammeter is converted into voltmeter by putting a large resistance in series with the actual
measuring part of the instrument.

 What should be the size of the slide wire of the potentiometer to make it to achieve high
accuracy?
(a) As long as possible
(b) As short as possible
(c) 1 meter
(d) Neither too thin nor too thick
Ans.(a)
Sol. in case of potentiometer, E ∝ L ⇒ E = φL
Where φ is the potential gradient
So, In the case of longer wire, the fall of potential per unit length is small. In other words, the
potential gradient is small. Lesser the potential gradient, more accurate is the potentiometer.

 Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at

(a) Full load
(b) 50% load
(c) 80% load
(d) no load
Ans.(a)
Sol. Power transformer are used for transmission as a step-up device hence they are not directly
connected to consumer therefore, load fluctuation is very less. So, the power transformer can
operate on full load.

 If the field of a DC shunt motor gets opened while the motor is running, then the
(a) Motor will become slow
(b) The motor will attain the dangerously high speed
(c) Armature current will drop
(d) Armature will oscillate about original speed as the mean speed
Ans.(b)
Sol. N ∝ Eb/φ
Now if the field winding gets open than flux will become zero i.e. φ = 0
∴ N ∝ Eb/0
Or N = ∞
Hence the speed of the DC shunt Motor will attain the dangerous High Seed.

 In an electric heater, the metal case is connected to…………

(a) Phase wire
(b) earth wire
(c) neutral wire
(d) none of these
Ans.(b)
Sol. In an electric heater, the metal case is connected to ‘earth wire’ for protection against fault.

 Q6. Which of the following is used for heating of non-conducting materials?

(a) Eddy current heating
(b) Arc heating
(c) Dielectric heating
(d) Induction heating
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. Induction heating → for magnetic and conducting materials
Dielectric heating → for non-conducting materials.

 Q7. A high starting torque can be obtained in a 3-phase induction motor by

(a) Increasing Rotor Reactance
(b) Decreasing Rotor Resistance
(c) Increasing Rotor Resistance
(d) Any of the above
S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. in case of induction motor, the starting torque(T) α Rotor resistance.
So, A high starting torque can be obtained in a 3-phase induction motor by increasing rotor
resistance

 Q8. At starting, rotor reactance of a 3-phase induction motor is ………… as compared to rotor
resistance.
(a) Small
(b) Equal to
(c) Large
(d) None of the above
S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. The rotor resistance does not depend on the slip of the motor. The rotor reactance depends on
the slip. At start, the rotor reactance is large because slip of the motor at start is equal to unity. The
large rotor reactance at start makes the starting torque of the motor poor. The motor draws about 5
to 6 times current of its full load current and produce very less torque. The most of the current is
reactive in nature and does not contribute in production of torque. That is why the starting torque of
the squirrel cage induction motor is poor.

 Q9. The form factor is the ratio of

(a) Peak value to rms value
(b) Rms value to average value
(c) Average value to rms value
(d) None of the above
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. The form factor of an alternating current waveform (signal) is the ratio of the RMS (root mean
square) value to the average value.

 Q10. The element which is capable of delivering energy on its own is known as:
(a) Non-Linear elements
(b) Unilateral elements
(c) Active element
(d) Passive element
S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. The active elements generate energy. Batteries, generators, operational amplifiers etc are active
elements.

 In Minterm,we look for the functions where the output results in “1” while in Maxterm we
look for function where output is equal to 0.

CH: BASIC ELECTRICAL

 Four identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant
resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(A) 1 / 16 times
(B) 1 / 4 times
(C) 4 times
(D) 16 times.
Solution:
For equal value resistors the total resistance for the parallel combination is:
Rp = 1 / (1/R + 1/R + 1/R + 1/R) = R/4
For series the total resistance is:
Rs = R + R + R + R = 4R
So Rp:Rs = Rp / Rs = (R/4) / (1/4r) = 1/16
So the parallel combination is always 1/16 of the series combination

 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Switching regulators use switching speeds of 20 kHz or more
B. A great advantage of switching regulators is that their power consumption is very low
C. Both, bipolar transistors and FETs have very good switching characteristics
D. The output voltage of a switching regulator is controlled by altering the switching frequency
  Proper way to apply time shifting and scaling on a signal is
A. Time shifting is applied first and then scaling
B. Scaling is applied first and then time shifting
C. Anyone can be applied irrespective of order
D. Only one operation can be performed

 A 0.1uF capacitor has its voltage increasing linearly at the rate of 100volts each m sec. The
current flowing through the capacitor will be
A. Zero
B. 1 A
C. 10mA
D. 100mA

 An electric field can deflect

A. Gamma rays
B. Alpha Particles
C. X Rays
D. Neutrons

 If DC generators are located near load centres, which losses can be minimised?
a) Iron losses
b) Eddy current losses
c) Line losses
d) Corona losses
Answer: c
Explanation: Line losses occur in long transmission lines while sending output power to the loading
stations. Thus, by locating the generators near loading stations losses occurring due transmission
line can be eliminated.

 In a DC generator, the iron losses mainly take place in ____

a) Yoke
b) Commutator
c) Armature conductors
d) Armature rotor
Answer: d
Explanation: Iron losses take place in the form of hysteresis loss and eddy current loss. These losses
are maximum, where field is maximum. Thus, when armature is rotated in presence of flux we get
maximum iron loss.

 The polarity of a D.C. generator can be reversed by

A. reversing the field current
B. increasing field current
C. reversing field current as well as direction of rotation
D. any of the above
Iska A Hai grabstudy pe and theraja book mein C hai.
A is technically correct too. We should go for A.

 Size of IM is directly related to kVA size and inversely related to frequency (rpm)
 The compensating winding in dc generator is provided to ____
a) neutralize cross-magnetizing flux
b) neutralize demagnetizing flux
c) neutralize armature mmf
d) maintain magnetizing mmf
Answer: a
Explanation: The compensating winding functions such that to nullify the cross magnetization
effects in the armature.

 In question terminal voltage of the compound generator is given 230 V. If series field
winding gets short circuited then effect of series field flux will be lost. Now if terminal
voltage decreases then it implies that before short circuiting of the series field winding,
series field flux was aiding the main field flux. Hence we have two options in hand, in which
series field flux aids the main field flux. Either it may be over compounded or level
compounded generator. So, if terminal voltage becomes less than 230 V then either it may
be over compounded or level compounded generator where series field flux aids the main
field flux. On the other hand if terminal voltage increases then it implies that before short
circuiting of the series-field winding, series field flux was opposing the main field flux which
is the characteristic of none another than under compounded generator. So, if terminal
voltage becomes greater than 230 V then without hesitation we can point it out as under
compounded generator.

 Which of the most suitable motor for elevator

A. Series
B. Differentially compounded
C. Shunt
D. Commutatively compounded
Explanation:
Elevator design is very unique. U need a motor which has preferable properties between torque and
speed . U can't use DC series motors because it's starting torque is highest. And in case of failure, it
may attain a dangerously high speed. DC shunt motor starting torque is moderate but then speed is
constant. Shunt type motors are preferred in single phase installation only.
So, AC slip ring or DC compound motors (cummulative) are preferred for lifts or elevators or
escalators.
Also the same answer on studysite.org, examveda.com and many other sources .u can claim the
answer in query too.

 For the same rating, __ motor has the least starting torque.
A. cummulatively compounded
B. series
C. shunt
D. none of these
Answer:
It's iii) shunt .
Order of increasing torque in motors,
Series>cummulative compound>shunt

 Armature winding of Alternator are generally

a-Closed winding
b-open winding
c-partially opened and partly closed
d-none of above
Generally open . Can be closed or open both.
And connection is star connection.
  Ferromagnetic substance have:
A) high permeability and low susceptibility
B) Low permeability and high susceptibility
C) both low permeability and susceptibility
D) both high permeability and susceptibility

 A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal excitation. Now if the load on the
motor is increased
A. power factor as well as armature current will decrease
B. power factor as well as armature current will increase
C. power factor will increase but armature current will decrease
D. power factor will decrease and armature current will increase

 Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length without
change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
A. 1/9 times
B. 3 times
C. 9 times
D. unchanged
Soultion:
When a wire is stretched, its volume will remain the same.
Since Volume = Area x length, given that length has increased three times, the area will be decreased
by 3.
So, new length = 3L. New Area = A/3
Resistance is proportional to Length/Area.
New resistance is proportional to 3L/(A/3)
New resistance = 9R

 The triac has a three terminals, four layers, 3 junctions

 The thyristor is also called a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR), is basically a four-layer three-
junction pnpn device. It has three terminals: anode, cathode, and gate.

 A diac is p-n-p-n structured four-layer normally (can be three or 5 layer too), two terminal
semiconductor device, 3 junctions
Construction differences , layers and junctions are almost same. Working difference, terminals
difference and current direction difference.

 ζ is the damping ratio:

If ζ > 1, then both poles are negative and real. The system is overdamped.
If ζ = 1, then both poles are equal, negative, and real (s = -ωn). The system is critically damped.
If 0 < ζ < 1, then poles are complex conjugates with negative real part. . The system is underdamped.
If ζ = 0, then both poles are imaginary and complex conjugate s = +/-jωn. The system is undamped.
If ζ < 0, then both poles are in the right half of the Laplace plane. The system is unstable.

 Thermistors have ____

a) positive temperature coefficient
b) negative temperature coefficient
c) zero temperature coefficient
d) infinite temperature coefficient
Explanation: Thermistor generally has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance. With an
increase in temperature, resistance of a thermistor decreases.
Thermistors can be used for precision measurement of temperature, controlling g temperature and
for temperature compensation due to a very large variation in resistance with temperature.
Thermistor generally has a very high value of resistance. Cables with shield are required to be used
for minimising interference.

 Time constant can be defined either with respect to charging or discharging action of energy
storage element. Time constant is the time taken for response to rise 63.2% of maximum
value or decrease 37.8% of its maximum value.

 Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when
connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 Q. If the same four wires are connected is
series the effective resistance will be
A. 1 Q
B. 2 Q
C. 3 Q
D. 4 Q
Explanation:
(4)^2 * (0.25) = 4 ohms
For series:
n^2 *Req
For parallel:
Req/n^2

 Direction of induced emf is determined by ____

a) Fleming’s left hand rule
b) Fleming’s right hand rule
c) Faraday’s law
d) Right hand thumb rule
Explanation: Fleming’s left hand rule stated that if the index finger points toward magnetic flux, the
thumb towards the motion of the conductor, then the middle finger points towards the induced
emf.

 “The direction of an induced e.m.f. is always such that it tends to set up a current opposing
the motion or the change of flux responsible for inducing that e.m.f.”, this is the statement
for?
a) Fleming’s left hand rule
b) Fleming’s right hand rule
c) Faraday’s law
d) Lenz’s law
Explanation: The above statement is that of Lenz’s law. It is used to determine the direction of the
induced emf.

 The direction of induced e.m.f. can be found by

A. Laplace's law
B. Lenz's law
C. Fleming's right hand rule
D. Kirchhoff s voltage law
(Examveda.com, Studysite.org)
 To find the direction of self induced emf ,we apply lenz law.
 To find the direction of dynamic induced emf , We apply right hand rule.
 Motors: Left hand rule
 Generators: right hand rule

 What type of transformer that is used to protect technicians and operates from deadly
electrical shock?
A. Absorber transformer
B. Step down transformer
C. Step up transformer
D. Isolation transformer

 Transformers are built up to nearly circular cross-section in order to reduce __.

A. leakage reactance
B. iron losses
C. eddy current loss
D. copper loss

 The mutual flux in a transformer remains constant at all loads because __.
A. applied voltage and frequency are constant
B. leakage flux is small
C. iron-core is used
D. losses are small

 A transformer composed of two or more coils which are wound around a non-metallic core
A. Metallic core transformer
B. Free core transformer
C. Air core transformer
D. Iron core transformer

 The entire line performance can be determined by

a) Sending end power circle diagram
b) Receiving end power circle diagram
c) Universal power circle diagram
d) (a) or (c)

 If the receiving end voltage is assumed same as the sending end voltage, and the impedance
of the line is the resistance of the line. What will be the maximum steady state power
transmitted over the line.
a) (VR^2)/Z
b) (VS^2)/Z
c) zero
d) very high

 The equal area criterion of stability is applicable to

a) Two machine system and infinite busbars
b) One machine system and infinite busbars
c) Multi-machine system only
d) None of the above
  If VS = VR = 33 kV for three phase transmission and reactance is 13 ohms per phase. What
will be the maximum power transmission per phase?
a) 29 MW
b) 28 MW
c) 30 MW
d) 60 MW

 H2So4 battery:
Fully charged at 1.27
80% charged at 1.13
Fully discharged at 1.0

 The sag of a transmission line with 50 M span is 1 M. What will be the sag if the height of the
transmission line is increased by 20%?
a) 1.2 M
b) 2 M
c) 1.25 M
d) 1 M

 For which of the following increased value of horizontal tension three will be increase of
20% in tension of the line for certain span?
a) 50%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 20%

 The method of image cannot be used to find out the

a) Line capacitance
b) Line inductance
c) Line resistance
d) (b) and (c)

 The voltage regulation is the main criterion for designing the

a) Transmission line
b) Feeder
c) Motor
d) Generator

 The power loss is very important factor for designing the

a) Feeder
b) Transmission line
c) Motor
d) Generator

 Current chopping tendency is minimized by using the F6 gas at relatively

a) High pressure and low velocity.
b) High pressure and high velocity.
c) Low pressure and low velocity.
d) Low pressure and high velocity.
  Arcing on transmission lines is prevented by connecting a suitable
a) Circuit breaker.
b) Protective relay.
c) Inductor in the neutral.
d) Capacitor in the neutral.

 A ___ meter is used a null detector in Wheatstone bridge

A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
C. Galvanometer
D. None of these

 The circuit having same properties in either direction is called

A) Bilateral circuit
b) Unilateral circuit
c) Irreversible circuit
d) Reversible circuit

 The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided to prevent

a) Current leakage
b) Shock
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

 In Fleming’s left-hand rule thumb always represents direction of

a) Current flow
b) Induced emf
c) Magnetic field
c) Mechanical force
Interpreting Fleming's Left-Hand Rule:
The forefinger indicates the direction of the magnetic field; the middle finger indicates the direction
of the current and the thumb represents the direction of the motion.

 An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to

A) Prevent saturation.
b) Increase in mmf.
c) Increase in flux.
d) Increase in inductance

 The ratio of total flux (flux in the iron path) to useful flux (flux in the air gap) is called
a) utilization factor
b) fringing factor
c) leakage factor
d) depreciation factor

 The power factor at resonance in R-L-C series circuit is

a) 0.5 lagging
b) 0.5 leading
c) Unity
d) Zero
  In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current is
a) Sinusoidal
b) Oscillating
c) None-oscillating
d) Square wave

 A coil with large distributed capacitance has a

a) High resonant frequency
b) Low resonant frequency
c) High Q
d) Low a.c. resistance

 A permalloy enclosure is the best shield against a

a) Static change
b) Steady magnetic field
c) Varying magnetic field
d) Stray capacitance
Permalloy mesh is a great solution in providing shielding from the variable frequency electric and
magnetic waves.

 Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency?

A. A coil with large resistance
B. A coil with low resistance
C. A coil with large distributed capacitance
D. A coil with low distributed capacitance

 For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains
unaffected?
a) Nature of dielectric
b) Thickness of the plates
c) Distance between the plates
d) Area of the plates

 An peak value of the sinusoidal voltage is 10 volts. What will be the effective of voltage ?
a) 14.14 volts
b) 1.414 volts
c) 0.707 volts
d) 7.07 volts
(0.707*10=7.07)

 Voltage across the resistance in R-L-C series circuit at resonance frequency is

a) Much higher than applied voltage
b) Much less than applied voltage
c) Function of value of inductance
d) Function of L/C ratio
e) Equal to applied voltage

 The r.m.s. value of an a.c. signal is 10 volts. The peak to peak value will be
a) 6.37 volts
b) 10 volts
c) 14 volts
d) 28 volts
Explanation:
VP-P = 2 × √2 × VRMS
So, peak-to-peak voltage is equal to two times the square root of two times RMS voltage.
2×√2×10= 28V
Answer is wrong on site.
Peak to peak=2*Vpeak
Peak value =Vpeak to peak /2
RMS =0.707*peak value
Peak value =1.41*RMS

 The quality factor of RLC circuit will increase if the

a) R decreases
b) R increases
c) Voltage increases
d) Impedance increases

 Which of the following function represents parabolic characteristics?

a) ƒ(t) = t
b) ƒ(t) = t^2
c) ƒ(t) = e^-at
d) ƒ(t) = U(t)

 Spacers are provided between adjacent coils....

A. To provide free passage to the cooling oil
B. To insulate the coils from each other
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above

 Transformer breaths in when.....

A. Load on it increases
B. Load on it decreases
C. Load remain constant
D. None of the above

 Sumpner's test is conducted on transformers to determine.......

A.Temperature
B.Stray loss
C.All-day efficiency
D.All of the above
Sumpner's test (also known as Sumpner test, back-to-back test or load test1)) - a type of test of
transformer, which allows simulation of full load conditions and hence also thermal testing, without
the need for full rated load.

 Sumpner’s test is conducted on transformers to study effect of ____

a) Temperature
b) Stray losses
c) All-day efficiency
d) Cannot be determined
Explanation: Sumpner’s test is the test which is used to determine the steady temperature rise if the
transformer was fully loaded continuously; this is so because under each of these tests the power
loss to which the transformer is subjected is either the core-loss or copper-loss but not both.

 Sumpner’s test is performed on ___

a) Single transformer at a time
b) Only two transformers at a time
c) Minimum 2 transformers at a time
d) Many transformers at a time

 In Sumpner’s test ____

a) Primaries can be connected in either way
b) Primaries are connected in parallel with each other
c) Primaries of both transformers are connected in series with each other
d) No need to connect primaries

 BJT , IGPT : Bipolar

FET, JFET, MOSFET : Unipolar

 The IGBT combines the simple gate-drive characteristics of power MOSFETs with the high-
current and low-saturation-voltage capability of bipolar transistors. The IGBT combines an
isolated-gate FET for the control input and a bipolar power transistor as a switch in a single
device.

 Low tension voltage up to 1000v

 High tension voltage up to 11kv
 Super tension 22kv to 33kv
 Extra super tension from 33kV to 66kV
 Extra super voltage greater than132KV

 In a circuit breaker, arc is initiated by the process of

A. thermal emission
B. field emission
C. alternators
D. transmission lines

 Which of following are the desirable qualities of protective relays?

A. speed, sensitivity
B. stability, Reliability
C. selectivity, adequacy
D. none of these
It's all of these. Book is wrong. All A, B & C options are correct.

What are the Essential Qualities of Protective Relay?

Reliability.
Speed and Time.
Sensitivity.
Selectivity and discrimination.
Stability.
Simplicity.
Economy. And Adequateness.
  Domestic supply of 220 V 50 Hz signifies that peak value of voltage Waveform is
(A) 220 V
(B) 155 V
(C)185V
(D) 310 V
Vrms=220 and Vp=220*1.41

 The making and breaking currents of a 3 phase ac circuit breakers in power systems are
respectively in ____form.
a. rms value, rms value
b. instantaneous value, rms value
c. rms value, instantaneous value
d. instantaneous value, instantaneous value
Explanation:
The instantaneous maximum or peak value of the current flowing through the circuit breaker at the
instant of closing of circuit breaker is called making current.
Making current = 2.55 * Breaking current
The RMS value of short circuit fault current passing through the circuit breaker at the time of
opening of circuit breaker is called breaking current.

 For a 400kV transmission line, the switching over voltage crest in kV is

A.400
B. 400
C.825
D.115
Solution:
Vl=400kV
Vp= 400/1.732 = 230 kV
Usually, voltage is kept 150% for protection.
So Vc = 230*1.5 = 345 kV
Crest voltage = 345-230 = 115kV

 If the inductance and capacitance of a system are 1.0 H and 0.01 ILF respectively and the
instantaneous value of current interrupted is 10 amp, voltage across the breaker contacts
will be
A. 50 kV
B. 100 kV
C. 60 kV
D. 57 kV
Solution:
Z = sqrt(L/C) = sqrt(1/0.01u)
Z = 10k Ohm
V*IZ = 10*10k = 100kV

 The leakage resistance of a 50 km long cable is 1MΩ. For a 100 km long cable it will be
A. 0.5 MΩ✔
B. 2 MΩ
C. 0.66 MΩ
D. None of the above
Solution:
Leakage resistance is inversely proportional to the length therefore
R ∝ 1/L
and R1/R2 = L2/L1
= R2 = R1l1/l2
R2 = 1 x50/100 = 0.5Ω

 The maximum demand of a consumer is 2 kW and his daily energy consumption is 24 units.
His load factor is ___%
24
41.6
50✔
80
Explanation:
Load factor = Unit generated/(Maximum Demands x hours)
24 x 100/(2 x 24) = 50%

 A converter which can operate both in 3-pulse and 6-pulse modes is a

A. 1-phase full converter
B. 3-phase half-wave converter
C. 3-phase semi converter
D. 3-phase full converter
Explanation:
1-phase full converter:
2 pulse converter

3-phase half-wave converter:

3 pulse converter

3-phase semi converter: For α < 60°, 6 pulse converter;

for α ≥ 60°, 3 pulse converter

3-phase full converter:

6 pulse converter

 The charging reactance of 50 Km length of line is 1500 ohms. The charging reactance for 100
Km length of line will be:
A. 1500 ohms
B. 3000 ohms
C. 750 ohms
D. 600 ohms
Explanation:
Charging reactance (Xc)=1/wc,
Xc ∝ 1/Length of t/m line,
Xc2=xc1*L1/(L2)
= 1500*50/100
=750

 In an alternator, for a coil having a span of 2/3 of pole pitch, the coil span factor will be
A.0.866
B.0.707
C.0.6
D.0.2
Explanation:
Total span = 180*2/3 = 120
So α=180-120 = 60
Coil.span fctor= cos(α/2)
CSF = cos(60/2) = cos 30
CSF = 0.866

 A 4-pole generator with 32 coils has a lap winding. The pole pitch is,
32
16
8
4
Explanation:
Pole pitch = slots/pole
Pole pitch = slots/pole
Number of commutator segments = 32
Number of conductors or coil side = 32 x 2 = 64
Pole pitch = 64/4 = 16

 What’s the reflection coefficient of open and short circuit transmission line?
Voltage reflection for open circuit is 1
Voltage reflection for short circuit is -1
Current reflection for open circuit is -1
Current reflection for short circuit is 1

1) There are two reflection coefficient of an open circuited transmission line.

a) The voltage reflection coefficient is 1 for the open circuited transmission line, the voltage wave is
reflected back toward the source in phase( 0°) with the incident wave. There is voltage at the open
end.
b) The current reflection coefficient is -1, the current wave is reflected out of phase (180°) with the
incident current, The incident and reflected current waves cancel, there is no current at the open
end.

2) Again there is a voltage and current reflection coefficient for a shorted circuited
transmission line.
a) The voltage reflection coefficient is -1 for a shorted circuited line, the reflected voltage wave is
180° out of phase. The resultant voltage is 0 at the short circuit end.
b) The current reflection coefficient is 1, the reflected current is in phase (0°) with the incident
current. This results in current at the short circuit end.
c) Voltage reflection co-efficient is 0 when load and line impedance are equal.

 WHEN CURRENT OR VOLTAGE IS NOT MENTIONED

1. In a shorted line, the reflection coefficient will be
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) ∞
Explanation: The shorted line will absorb more power than any other line. Thus the reflection
coefficient is considered to be negative.
2. The open circuit line will have a reflection coefficient of
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) ∞
Explanation: An open circuit line has infinite output impedance. Any wave incident at the output will
be completely reflected. Thus the reflection coefficient is unity.

 In a two plant system, the load is connected to plant number 2. The loss coefficients are
A. B11,B22, B12 are non zeros
B. B11 is non zero, B22 = B12 = 0
C. B11,B12 are non- zero , B22 = 0
D. B11,B22 are non- zero, B12 = 0
Explanation:
Power loss of a transmission line is,
PL = B11×P1² + B22×P2² + 2×B12×P1×P2
Where,
B11,B22,B12 and B21 are coefficients
P1 and P2 are power delivered by generating stations.
When load is connected at plant number 2, the loss coefficients B11 is non-zero,B22 = B12 = 0

 The leakage resistance of a 50 Km long cable is 1 MΩ. For a 100 Km long cable it will be
1 MΩ
2 MΩ
0.5 MΩ
None of these
Explanation:
Leakage resistance of the cable α 1/Length
For 100 km long cable leakage resistance of cable
=50/100 =0.5MΩ

 The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 Km is 1 MΩ. Its resistance for 50 Km length
will be
1 MΩ
0.5 MΩ
0.2 MΩ
None of these
Explanation:
Insulation resistance of the cable
R α 1/Length
R2/R1 = L1/L2
Hence, insulation resistance for 50 km length
R2 = (1 x 10)/50
= 0.2 MΩ

 For effective use of a counterpoise wire

A. its leakage resistance should be greater than the surge impedance.
B. three-phase and two-earth fault relays are required.
C. tow-phase and two-earth fault relays are required.
D. two-phase and one-earth fault relays are required.
  For complete protection of a 3-phase line
(a) Three-phase and three-earth fault relays are required
(b) Three-phase and two-earth fault relays are required
(c) Two-phase and two-earth fault relays are required
(d) Two-phase and one-earth fault relays are required

 If the inductance and capacitance of a system are 1 H and 0·01 μF respectively and the
instantaneous value of current interrupted is 10 amps. The value of shunt resistance across
the breaker for critical damping is ____ kΩ
0.5
0.05
5
5.05
Explanation:
The formula for calculating the value of shunt resistance across the breaker for critical damping =
0·5* sq root (L/C)
So your answer should be 5 kilo ohm.

 If δ is the loss angle of the cable, then its power factor is

sin δ
cos δ
independent of δ
depends upon δ but it is not as per (a) and (b)
Solution:
Figure depicts the equivalent circuit for a cable represented by leak age resistance R and capacitance
C.
From phasor diagram,
power factor angle, φ = 90° – δ
or cos φ = cos (90° – δ) = sin δ

 A 50 Hz, four-pole turboalternator rated at 20 MVA, 43.2 kV has an inertia constant H = 4 kW

sec/kVA. The K.E. stored in the rotor at synchronous speed is
A. 80 kilojoules
B. 80 megajoules
C. 40 megajoules
D. 20 megajoules
Solution:
H = KE(stored)/MVA
KE = H*MVA
KE = 4*20 = 80 Mega Joules

 If the fault current is 2000 amps, the relay setting 50% and the C.T. ratio is 400/5, then the
plug setting multiplier will be
A. 25 amps
B. 45 amps
C. 50 amps
D. none of these
Explanation:
Fault current at secondary If will be 2000*5/400 = 25A
Pick-up current of relay Ip will be 5A*50% = 2.5A
So PSM = If/Ip ,,PSM = 25/2.5 = 10
  Inertia constant of two groups of machines which do not swing together are M4 and M2
such that M4> M2. It is proposed to add some inertia to one of the two groups of machines
for improving the transient stability of the system. It should be added to
A. M4
B. M2
C. It does not matter whether to add to M4 or M2
D. none of the above
Explanation:
This is taken from "Swing Equation of Machine". Inertia constant is the mechanical energy in the
rotor to the MVA rating machine. Higher the value, more swinging in the rotor. In order to improve
the stability, it is desired that value should be same. Since M4>M2, increase the M2 to the level of
M4. So, option B is correct.

 In a 400 kV network, 350 kV is recorded at a 400 kV bus. The reactive power absorbed by a
shunt rated for 50 MVAR, 400 kV connected at the bus is
A. 61.73 MVAR
B. 55.56 MVAR
C. 45 MVAR
D. 40.5 MVAR
Explanation:
The capacity of reactor
= 50MVAR when it is operated at 400 KV.
∴ Impedance of reactor = V^2/MVAR= (400)^2/500 = 3200 Ω
Recorded KV = 360 KV
∴ Reactive power absorbed = V^2
2 = (360 X 10^3)^2/500
= 40.5 MVAR.

 Shunt reactor of 100 MVAR is operated at 98% of its rated voltage and at 96% of its rated
frequency. The reactive power absorbed by the reactor is ;
A. 98 MVAr
B. 104.02 MVAr
C.96.04 MVAr
D. 100.04 MVAr

 A coil with a certain number of turns has a specified time constant. If the number of turns is
doubled, its time constant would
Remain unaffected
Become Double
Become four-fold✔
Get halved
Explanation:
The self-inductance of a solenoid is given as
L = μN^2A/I = L1
Where N is the number of turns of the solenoid
A is the area of each turn of coil
l is the length of the solenoid
and μ is the permeability constant
so, if the number of turns was to be doubled the self-inductance would be
L2 = u (2N)^2 A/l
Or L2 = 4L1 , it would be quadrupled or increase four-fold.
  An overhead line having a surge impedance of 400 Ohms is connected in series with an
underground cable having a surge impedance of 100 Ohms. If a surge of 50 kV travels from
the line end towards the line-cable junction, the value of the transmitted voltage wave at
the junction is:
A. 20 kV
B. 30 kV
C. 80 kV
D. -30 kV
Solution:
Transmitted voltage V" = V + V’
Transmitted current I" = I + I’
Where,
V’ = Reflected voltage
V = Incident voltage
I’ = Reflected current
I = Incident current
Transmission or reflection coefficient of voltage TV = V"/V
Transmission or reflection coefficient of current Ti = I”/I
Tv = V”/V = 2Z1/(Z1 + Zs)
Where,
Z1 = Surge impedance of load
Zs = Surge impedance of line
Therefore, V" = 50 × 10^3 × 2 × 100/500 = 20 kV

 Joule/Coulomb is the unit of

A. electric field potential.
B. potential
C. charge.
D. none of the above.

 In Voltage amplifiers, the load resistance

A. Should be as small as possible
B. Should be as large as possible
C. Must be equal to output impedance
D. Must be half of output impedance
Book answer is B . Technically A correct.

 In thermal power plants, the pressure in the working fluid cycle is developed by
A. condenser
B. super heater
C. feed water pump
D. turbine
(Book answer is B which is wrong)

 In a regenerative cycle, feed water is heated by

A. exhaust gas
B. drained steam from turbine
C. heaters
D. all of above
  Oil natural cooling with tubes is used for transformers of capacity upto
A. 50 kVA
B. 500 kVA
C. 1000 kVA
D. 10,000 kVA

 Air blast cooling is provided for transformers of capacity exceeding

A. 500 kVA
B. 1000 kVA
C. 3000 kVA
D. 10,000 kVA

 Natural oil cooling is used for transformers upto a rating of

A. 3000 kVA
B. 1000 kVA
C. 500 kVA
D. 250 kVA

 Natural air cooling is generally restricted for transformers up to

A. 1.5 MVA
B. 5 MVA
C. 15 MVA
D. 50 MVA

 For transformers upto a capacity of kVA air blast cooling is provided.

A.2500
B.5000
C.10000
D.20000

 Which of the following methods in used for cooling of transformers upto a capacity of 10
MVA?
A. Air blast cooling
B. Forced oil cooling
C. Oil natural cooling
D. None of the above

 An auto-transformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 10 kW. The

power transforred inductively from the primary to the secondary is
A. 10 kW
B. 8 kW
C. 2 kW
D. zero
Solution:
Inductively= (1-k)*input
= (1-0.8)*10
0.2*10
=2kw
  Which of the following statements regarding an ideal single-phase transformer having a turn
ratio of 1 : 2 and drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect?
A. Its secondary curent is 5 A
B. Its secondary voltage is 400 V
C. Its rating is 2 kVA
D. Its secondary current is 20 A
Solution:
P = input voltage *primary current
P= 200*10 =2000=2kva
Vs = VP * k
Vs= 200*2=400v
Secondary current
IP/IS=Ns/Np
10/IS= 2/1
Is= 5a more .so, D is incorrect.

 If a 1000 kVA, 200 Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz, its kVA rating is

A. 100 kVA
B. 250 kVA
C. 4000 kVA
D. 500 kVA
Solution:
1000kva =200hz
X= 50hz
Cross multiplication

 If full-load Cu loss of a transformer is 1600 W, its Cu loss at 75% full-load would be watt.
A.900
B.1200
C. 1600 x ,5 /2
D. 1600 x 2473
Solution:
Mc=75% square*1600
Mc=9/16*1600= 900

 Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
A. unity
B. lagging
C. leading
D. zero
Explanation:
Minimum VR : PF is leading, capacitive , negative
Maximum VR: PF is lagging,Inductive, positive
Zero: leading

 If a shunt dc motor takes current of 5A at 100V supply, its field resistance is 5omhs and
armature resistance is 0.2 ohm, what will be its rotor output? (300w)
Solution:
Shunt current = 100/50 =2A
So shunt loss = 2*2*50= 200W
Armature current will be 5-2 = 3A
So armature loss will be
3*3*0.2 ==1.8 W
Totol.Loss = 200+1.8 = 201.8W
Input = 100*5 = 500W
Rotor output = 500-201.8 = 298.2W

……

 If the winding is wave type then no of parallel paths are 2 ,if winding is simplex lap winding then
no of parallel paths are 4 ,if the winding is duplex lap winding then the no of parallel paths are 8.

 Question:


Question

 Question
DIFFERENT QUESTION MULTIPLE SCENARIOS :

 What will happen if shunt field suddenly opens, in a differential compound DC motor?
a) Motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as series motor
b) Motor will not work and come to stop
c) Motor will work as series motor and run at infinitely high speed
d) Motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed
Explanation: If shunt field is suddenly opened, flux due to shunt field will become 0. As, net flux is
equal to shunt field flux – series field flux, the direction of flux will be reversed and thus motor will
run in opposite directions.

 What will happen if the series field of a differential compound motor is short circuited?
a) Net flux will decrease
b) Speed will increase
c) Speed will remain constant
d) Speed will decrease
Explanation: As the series field is short circuited, current through series field becomes zero and
MMF due to series field becomes zero. Hence, net MMF in motor becomes greater than previous
case, which results in total increase in the flux created and decrease in speed.

 What will happen if the series field of a cumulative compound motor is short circuited?
a) Net flux will increase
b) Speed will increase
c) Speed will remain constant
d) Speed will decrease
Explanation: As the series field is short circuited now, current through series field becomes zero and
MMF due to series field becomes zero. Hence, total MMF in motor becomes less than previous case,
which results in total decrease in the flux created and increase in speed.
  What will happen if the series field of a cumulative compound motor is open-circuited/
removed?
A. It will not start
B. It will start with vibrations and noise
C. It will start with jerks

 Three single-phase transformers, each of 100 kVA rating are connected in delta. If one of the
transformers is taken out of service, the capacity of the system will be
A. 200 kVA
B. 173.2 kVA
C. 115.5 kVA
D. 36.6 kVA
Solution:
When 3 single-phase T/Fs are connected to form a three-phase T/F, total rating will be 300 kVA. Now
any one of them is taken out, the rating will decrease by 57.7%. So 300*57.7% = 173.2kVA

 A transformer has a core loss of 200 W and a full load copper loss of 800W The maximum
efficiency of the transformer will occur at
A. 0.5 times full load current
B. 0.6 times full load current
C. 0.7 times full load current
D. 0.8 times full load current
Solution:
Core loss is 200W which is constant. Now for max efficiency, copper loss needs to be decreased to
200W. So it will happen if load is decreased to ½.

 A transformer designed for operation on 60 Hz supply is worked on 50 Hz supply system

without changing its voltage and current ratings. When compared with full load efficiency at
60 Hz, the transformer efficiency on full load at 50 Hz will
A. increase marginally
B. increase by a factor of 1.2
C. remain unaltered
D. decrease marginally
Explanation:
Since other conditions are same, decrease in supply frequency will reduce Iron and Eddy Current
losses. In other words core losses will decrease and thus temperature too. So overall effecf will be
increase in efficiency. So go for option A.

 Question
  Question

Solution: Comparing the given voltage equation with the

standard form of alternating voltage equation, we find that
Vm = 200 V, R = 20 Ω, Im = 200/20 = 10 A. For such a half-
wave rectified current, RMS value = Im/2 = 10/2 = 5A

 Question: Supply to one terminal of a delta-wye

connected three-phase core-type transformer
which is on no load fails. Assuming magnetic circuit
symmetry, voltage on secondary side will be:
A. 230, 230, 115
B. 230, 115, 115
C. 345, 115, 115
D. 345, 0, 345
  A 10 kVA, 400 V/200V single phase transformer with 10% impedance draws a steady short
circuit line current of
A. 50A
B. 150A
C. 250 A
D. 350 A

 Regulation of an alternator supplying resistive or inductive load is

A. infinity
B. always negative
C. always positive
D. zero
Explanation:
Leading can be negative or positive. While lagging and unity power factor is always positive depends
upon the load and power factor.
Inductive and resistive loads:
Positive VR
Capacitive loads:
Negative or positive VR depends upon the power factor and load.
Higher leading or more capacitive loads:
negative VR
Lower leading or less capacitive loads:
positive VR

Some of the QUESTIONS FROM SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS OF HANDA AND THERAJA specially having
complicated answers in books,

1. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited, the motor will
A. not start
B. run at of synchronous speed
C. run with excessive vibrations
D. take less than the rated load
Explanation:
An open circuit in one phase of the motor itself or a short circuit will prevent the motor from
starting.

2. A pony motor is basically a

A. small induction motor
B. D.C. series motor
C. D.C. shunt motor
D. double winding A.C./D.C. motor
3. A synchronous motor can develop synchronous torque
A. when under loaded
B. while over-excited
C. only at synchronous speed
D. below or above synchronous speed

4. A synchronous motor can be started by

A. pony motor
B. D.C. compound motor
C. providing damper winding
D. any of the above

5. A three-phase synchronous motor will have

A. no slip-rings
B. one slip-ring
C. two slip-rings
D. three slip-rings
Explanation:
Synchronous motors have 2 slip rings while induction Motors have 3 slip rings.

6. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is likely to occur?
A. Periodic variation of load
B. Over-excitation
C. Over-loading for long periods
D. Small and constant load

7. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor suddenly gets disconnected
A. the motor stops
B. it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed
C. it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
D. none of the above
Explanation:
C is right. For Loaded, it will stop and for unloaded, it will behave like reluctance motor.
The rotor will remain in synchronism for a short time i.e. until the residual flux of the rotor decreases
below a certain value.
Variable reluctance motor behaves as similar to silent pole synchronous motor unexcited.
And after the loss of residual flux, it will run as a reluctance motor due to the generation of
reluctance torque.

8. A synchronous motor, connected to an infinite bus, is working at a leading p.f. Its excitation e.m.f.
Ef and alternator terminal voltage Vt are related as
A. Ef > Vt and Ef lags Vt
B. Ef< Vt and Et. lags Vt
C. Ef > Vt and Et. leads Vt
D. Ef< Vt and Et. lags Vt

9. A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor when it is

A. under-loaded
B. over-loaded
C. under-excited
D. over-excited
10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the load angle is
A. zero
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 120°
Explanation:
When a synchronous motor operates under load it draws active power from the line. The active
power absorbs by the motor depends on the supply voltage E and excitation Voltage Eo.
Therefore power is given as
P = ( E*Eo/Xs)sinδ.
Where P = mechanical power of the motor per phase
Xs = synchronous reactance per phase
δ = Torque angle between Eo and E.
This equation shows that the mechanical power increase with the torque angle and its maximum
value is reached when δ = 90°.
Therefore, peak power per phase is given as
Pmax = Eo*E/Xs.
The maximum value of torque the motor can develop is called as pull out torque and it occurs at
when δ = 90°

11. The maximum value of a torque that a synchronous motor can develop without losing its
synchronism is known as:
(A) Slip torque
(B) Pull out torque
(C) Synchronizing torque
(D) Breaking torque
Explanation:
Synchronous torque: It is the torque that acts on the shaft of a synchronous machine when the
rotational speed of the rotor deviates from the synchronous speed and that keeps the machine in
synchronism.
Pull out torque: It is the maximum value of torque which allows a synchronous motor to remain in
synchronism without pulling out of step or synchronism.

12. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and drawing current at lagging power factor
from the constant voltage supply, its field excitation is increased up to normal excitation, then its
power factor:
A. Become more
B. Become less C. All of these D. Remain constant
Explanation:
It's A technically.
From the inverted V – curve, the synchronous motor operates at a lagging power factor when the
excitation is under excited. The motor operates at a unity power factor at normal excitation.
The motor operates at a leading power factor when the excitation is over-excited.
When the field excitation is increased up to normal excitation from under excitation, the power
factor becomes more.

13. A salient pole synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. If excitation is reduced to
zero.
A. It becomes an induction motor.
B. Motor would stop.
C. It becomes a reluctance motor. D. It remains a synchronous motor.
  Important:
A compound dc generator is delivering full load current at a terminal voltage of 230 V. Its series-field
winding gets short circuited. If its terminal voltage,
1. becomes less than 230 V, it is level compounded generator
2. becomes more than 230 V, it is differentially compounded generator
3. becomes less than 230 V, it is overcompounded generator

 Some of the important points from Handa Power generation fill in the blanks section.

1. No moderator is used in fast breeder reactors.

2. Silica gel is desiccant.
3. Perlite is an insulation material
4. Coolant used in fast breeder reactors is liquid metal.
5. Hydrogen can be used as a fuel for internal combustion Engines .
6. Incineration is the process by which combustible wastes are burned and changed into gases.
7. Incoalation is the process of coal formation which begins after coal formation is completed .
8. Lignite is brownish black in color, have highest ash content, lowest calorific value, light or soft
coal.
9. Coal work: rankine cycle
Gas turbine: Brayton cycle
10. Slow neutrons are very efficient in causing fission of Uranium-235.
11. A perfect heat absorber is also a perfect radiator.
12. A airjet aircraft has no propellers.
13. Benson boiler is a drumless once through boiler.
14. Radon is a radioactive element, one of the heaviest gases known.
15. The total amount of solid material in grams contained in 1Kg of sea water is called Salinity.
16. Fuel slug is a fuel element in a form of a short rod.
17. Fresnel lens is used to focus sunlight on solar cells.
18. Fractional distillation is used in petroleum refining.
19. Lurgi process is used for coal gasification.
20. Geiger- Muller counter is a radiation detection and measuring instrument.
21. Free swelling index is a standard test that indicates the caking characteristics of coal when
burned as a fuel.
22. Geostrophic wind is that horizontal wind velocity for which the Coriolis acceleration exactly
balances the horizontal pressure force.
23. Entropy is a measure of unavailable energy in the system.
24. Eolation is the process which wind modifies land surfaces.
25. U-235 is a primary fuel.
26. A feed water heater is basically a heat exchanger.
27. Control rods are made of cadmium
28. BHEL is engaged in the manufacture of power plants.
29. Maximum flexibility is there in the site selection for nuclear power plant.
30. For low heads, propeller turbines are preferred

 Electrodynamometer type: Both AC and DC

 Hot wire type: Both AC and DC
 PMMC type: DC
 Induction type: AC
 Moving coil type: DC
 Moving iron type: Both AC and DC.
  In a 3-phase 4-wire cable, the cross-sectional area of neutral conductor is
A. Equal to phase conductor
B. More than phase conductor
C. Half the phase conductor
D. None of these
Explanation:
Indian standard has neutral cross section area of 1/4th of phase conductor. While generally it's equal
to the phase conductor.Go for equal. It is because there is current in neutral if there is unbalanced
load plus harmonic current. Problems at the time of faults. Neutral has to carry fault current too.
Practically it is equal to phase conductor.

 The voltage stress will be maximum in an underground cable at

A. The surface of the sheath
B. The surface of the conductor
C. The surface of the insulation.
D. The core of the conductor
Solution:
Handa says D
Correction:
Stress is minimum at sheath surface and goes in increasing. At the conductor surface, it is more than
that of sheath but maximum stress will be at the core of conductor.
So if the option of Core of Conductor is given, then select it. Otherwise go for conductor surface.

ELECTRONICS:
106. In a FET, there are _ pn junctions at the sides
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. two
Answer => D

107. The transconductance of a JFET ranges from

A. 100 to 500 mA/V
B. 500 to 1000 mA/V
C. 0.5 to 30 mA/V
D. above 1000 mA/V
Answer => C

108. The source terminal of a JFET corresponds to __ of a vacuum tube.

A. plate
B. cathode
C. grid
D. none of the above
Answer => B

109. The output characteristics of a JFET closely resemble the output characteristics of a valve.
A. pentode
B. tetrode
C. triode
D. diode
Answer => A
110. If the cross-sectional area of the channel in n-channel JFET increases, the drain current
A. is increased
B. is decreased
C. remains the same
D. none of the above
Answer => A

111. The channel of a JFET is between the

A. gate and drain
B. drain and source
C. gate and source
D. input and output
Answer => B

112. For VGs = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when YDS exceeds
A. cut off
B. VDD
C. Vp
D. 0 V
Answer: C

161. The JFET can operate in

A. depletion mode only
B. enhancement mode only
C. either depletion or enhancement mode at a time
D. both depletion and enhancement modes simultaneously

162. The input gate current of FET is

A. a few amperes
B. a few milli-amperes
C. a few mico-amperes
D. negligibly small
Answer => D

163. Which of the following transistor is affected by static electricity

A. npn transistor
B. JFET
C. UJT
D. MOSFET
Answer => D

164. Which of the following device has the highest input impedance
A. CE BJT
B. CC BJT
C. JFET
D. MOSFET
Answer => B

165. A field-effect transistor (FET)

A. has three pn junctions
B. uses a forward biased junction
C. depends on the variation of a magnetic field for its operation
D. depends on the variation of a reverse voltage its operation
Answer => D

166. The operation of a JFET involves

A. flow of minority carriers alone
B. flow of majority carriers alone
C. flow of both minority and majority carriers
D. use of a magnetic field
Answer => B

167. FET
A. has a very high input impedance
B. depends on minority carrier flow
C. uses a forward biased junction
D. uses a high concentration emitter junction
Answer => A

CONTROLS SYSTEM:
 The breakaway points of root loci are:
A. open loop poles
B. closed loop poles
C. open loop zeros
D. closed ioop zeros
Explanation:
Theraja follows C which is wrong. If there exists a real axis root locus branch between two
open loop poles, then there will be a break-away point in between these two open loop
poles. If there exists a real axis root locus branch between two open loop zeros, then there
will be a break-in point in between these two open loop zeros.

Complete details of:

1. Minimum Phase systems
2. Non-minimum phase systems
3. All-pass systems

6. For minimum phase systems:

a) Pole must lie on left plane
b) Zeroes must lie on left plane
c) Poles and zeroes must lie on left plane
d) Both must lie on right plane
Explanation: For minimum phase systems poles and zeroes must lie on the right s-plane.

7. For non-minimum phase systems:

a) Poles and zeroes must lie on the right s-plane
b) Zeroes must lie on right of s-plane
c) Both lie on left of s-plane
d) Poles must be on the left and zeroes can be on the right s –plane.
Explanation: For non-minimum phase systems poles must be on the left and zeroes can be on the
right s –plane.
8. For all-pass systems:
a) Poles must lie on right of the s-plane
b) Zeroes must lie on the left of s-plane
c) Poles must lie on the left and zeroes on the mirror image of the pole can be on the right
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: For all-pass systems poles must lie on the left and zeroes on the mirror image of the
pole can be on the right.

9. All pass system and minimum phase system constitute_______

a) Pole must lie on left plane
b) Minimum phase system
c) Non-minimum phase system
d) Both must lie on right plane
Explanation: All pass system and minimum phase system constitute non-minimum phase system.

 For a gain constant K, the phase-lead compensator

reduces the slope of the magnitude curve in the entire range of frequency domain
decreases the gain cross-over frequency
reduce the phase margin
reduce the resonance peak Mp
Explanation:
Phase lead compensator:
Lead compensator increases the gain crossover frequency.
It also increases the phase margin.
The slope of the magnitude plot is reduced by using a phase lead compensator.

 The phase lead compensation is used to

A. increase rise time and decrease overshoot
B. decrease both rise time and overshoot
C. increase both rise time and overshoot
D. decrease rise time and increase overshoot
Explanation:
Phase lead compensation is similar to the high pass filter results in increase in bandwidth reduction
in settling time and thus, speed of response is improved. System becomes fast and hence rise time tr
is less.
Phase lead compensator increases the gain crossover frequency. It also increases the phase margin.
The slope of the magnitude plot is reduced by using a phase lead compensator.
It increases transient response and increase overshoot in the system's step response at the start of
adding constant k.

PHASE LEAD COMPENSATION:

A system which has one pole and one dominating zero (the zero which is closer to the origin than all
over zeros is known as dominating zero) is known as lead network. If we want to add a dominating
zero for compensation in control system then we have to select lead compensation network.

PHASE LAG COMPENSATION:

A system which has one zero and one dominating pole (the pole which is closer to origin that all
other poles is known as dominating pole) is known as lag network.
If we want to add a dominating pole for compensation in control system then, we have to select a
lag compensation network.
Summary: We consider the addition of dominating zero in phase lead compensation and dominating
pole in phase lag compensation.
Hence,
Poles: Lag
Zeros: Lead
(As in smart series book)

INSTRUMENTATION:

 Which of the following instruments can be used to measure AC current only?

a) Permanent Magnet Type ammeter
b) Induction type ammeter
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Moving iron (Attraction type) ammeter
Explanation:
In theraja it's D , which is wrong.

SEMI-CONDUCTORS:

 Which of the following doping will produce a p-type semiconductor?

A. Germanium with phosphorus
B. Silicon with germanium
C. Germanium with antomony
D. Silicon with indium
Solution:
The p-type semiconductor is formed by doping either Si or Ge with a trivalent atom. Out of given
options, only indium is a trivalent atom.
So, a p-type semiconductor is formed by using silicon with indium.
Handa answer is wrong.

MACHINES
IMP points:
1. V.R FOR synchronous motor is opposite to V.R in syn generator
2. breakdown torque for sync motor is directly proportional to applied voltage
3. 3-Max.losess in syn.motor are iron loss.
4.
 A. In case if the load is at unity power factor, the effect of armature reaction is of cross
magnetizing type.
B. If the load is at a lagging power factor, the effect of armature reaction is of demagnetizing
type.
C. In case if the load is at the leading power factor, the effect of armature reaction is of
magnetizing type.

 When short pitch coils of 160 are used in an alternator, which harmonic component will not
be present in the output emf ?
(A) third
(B) fifth
(C) seventh
(D) ninth.
Solution:
Since coil is short pitched by 160, chording angle will be
180-160 = 20
So for eliminating of nth harmonic, we will have
Cos(nα/2) = 0
Or nα/2 = 90
n*20/2 = 90
n = 90*2/20 = 9

 For a peripheral speed of 314 m/s, a 2 pole cylindrical machine will have maximum diameter
of

(A) 255 cm
(B) 235 cm
(C) 200 cm
(D) 170 cm.
Solution:
Option C.
But don't know how.
Formula is
N = Ns*D

 A 20 pole ac generator rotates at 600 rpm. The periodic time of current in seconds per cycle
is
(A) 0.009
(B) 0.004
(C) 0.008
(D) 0.01.
Solution:
N = 120f/P
Or f = NP/120 = 100
T=1/f = 1/100 = 0.01

 The power output of an alternator is 40 kW and KVAR component is - 25. What will be the
value of tanφ (φ being the power factor angle)?
(A) 0.625 lagging
(B) 0.625 leading
(C) 0.375 lagging
Solution:
Q = P*tanα
Minus Q means leading
(D) 0.375 leading.

 Inductance affects the direct current flow

A. Only at the time of turning off
B. Only at the time of turning on
C. At the time of turning on and off✅
D at all the time of operation
(For Capacitance, it's option A)

 To decrease the power in control system we use,

A) open loop.
B) close loop
it's closed loop.
Gain DB is directly proportional to power,if we took the case of amplifiers too, they are directly
proportional. So, in closed loop system, gain decreases and BW increases. So, consequently power
decreases.

 The number of electrical degrees passed through in one revolution of a six pole synchronous
alternator is
(A)360:
(B)720
(C) 1080
(D)2160 .
6 poles means 3 N-S pairs. One revolution bas 360 deg. So 3 pairs will give three revolutions are
3*360 = 1080

 In the Potier's triangle, the Potier reactance drop per phase is 22 volts per phase at 88
amperes per phase. The Potier's reactance per phase is
(A) 0.22
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.30
(D) 0.44
22/88 = 0.25

 What is the arrangement of poles in a 4-pole DC motor?

A. North Pole, North Pole, North Pole, North Pole
B. North Pole, South Pole, South Pole, North Pole
C. North Pole, North Pole, South Pole, South Pole
D. North Pole, South Pole, North Pole, South Pole

 Open loop system is also called------------?

A)Manual
B)Automatic
C)Stable
D)Passive

 The servo motor differs from ordinary motor in that it has

A. low inertia and high torque
B. high inertia and high torque
C. low inertia and low torque
D. high inertia and low torque
A is right.
High torque or high resistance and low intertia are servometer properties.

 IMPORTANT:
Distributed winding eliminates higher-order harmonics and short chording can eliminate
lower harmonics (ex: 5th and 7th harmonics can be eliminated by short chording)
Advantages:
It also reduces harmonic emf and so waveform is improved.
It also diminishes the armature reaction.
Even distribution of conductors helps for better cooling.
The core is fully utilized as the conductors are distributed over the slots on the armature periphery.
Short pitch winding improves the waveform of generated emf i.e. generated emf can be made to
approximate to a sine wave more easily and the distorting harmonics can be reduced or totally
eliminated.

Disadvantages:
The disadvantage of using short-pitch winding is that the total voltage around the coils is somewhat
reduced. In order to compensate for this reduction in Generated EMF, more number of turns, and
therefore more copper is required.

 A cube of material of side 1 cm has a resistance of 0.002 ohm between its opposite faces. If
the same volume of the material has a length of 8 cm and a uniform cross-section, the
resistance of this length will be
(A) 0.032 ohm
(B) 0.064 ohm
(C) 0.096 ohm
(D) 0.128 ohm.
Solution:
Length is going to be 8 times means area will decrease by 1/8. So net resistance will be
0.002*8/(1/8) = 0.128

 The resistance of a 150-scale voltmeter is 12000 ohms. The power consumed by the
voltmeter when it is connected across a 125 volt circuit, will be nearly
(A) 0.0013 W
(B) 0.013 W
(C) 0.13 W
(D) 1.3 W
V^2/R

 A carbon resistor has to meet the following requirements

IR drop: 5 V,
Current: 100 mA,
Safety factor for power dissipation: 2
Which of the following resistors will be suitable?
(A) 5 ohm, 10 W
(B) 0.5 ohm, 100 W
(C) 5 ohm, 10 W
(D) 50 ohm, 1 W.
Solution:
Resistance will be
R = 5/100m = 50 ohm
Power dissipation will be 5*100m = 0.5 W
Since there is safety factor of 2, net power rating will be
2*0.5 = 1W

 An electron in a vacuum tube is observed to lose

1.6 x 10^-20J of energy in moving from point A to point B. The voltage of point B with respect of
point A is
(A) - 1 V
(B) + 1 V
(C) - 0.1V
(D) + 0.1 V
Solution:
V = J/e
Since point B is at lower potential than A, it will be negative

 A cylindrical wire is compressed in length by 10%. The percentage decrease in the resistance
will be
(A) 16%
(B) 19%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%.
Solution:
Length will become 0.9 L
Since volume is same, area will increase by 10%. I.e. 1.1A
So net change will be
0.9/1.1 = 81%
Or 19% decrease.

 A dominant wave should have

No phase shift
No attenuation
Highest cutt off frequency
Lowest cutt off frequency
Solution:
Lowest cut off frequency or highest wave-length in a waveguide gives dominant modes

 Static opposition offered to DC

Dynamic opposition offered to AC

Poles: lag
Zeros: lead (As per smart series)
 An alternator has rated field current of 4 A. The alternator develops 180 V while drawing a
field current of 2 A at 750 rpm. If the field current is made 4 A at 750 rpm generated voltage
could be
(A) 400 V
(B) 380 V
(C) 60V
(D) 330 V
Solution:
If we see saturation curve, below rated current, curve is nearly linear. Which means voltage will
increase linearly. So when current is twice, voltage will become almost near twice of original.
So 2*180 = 360. But since curve is not straight, voltage will be somewhat less than 360 V. Among
given options, 330V qualifies the conditions

 Chubb and Fortescue method of measuring peak a.c voltages used the circuit:
1. An inductor, two diodes, and voltmeter
2. A capacitor, two diodes and an ammeter
3. A potential transformer, a surge arrester, and gold leaf electroscope
4. A current transformer, ammeter and oscilloscope

 Which of the following is the common synchronous speed in rpm between 60 Hz and 50 Hz
alternators?
(A) 900
(B) 600
(C) 375
(D) 225.
Solution:
Only option 600 rpm is common between 50 and 60 Hz where No of poles is 6 and 12 respectively.
All other options results in fractional No of poles which is not possible.

 In an alternator if the winding is short pitched by 50 electrical degrees, its pitch factor will be
(A) 1.0
(B) 0.866
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.50
Solution:
KC =cos@/2
Which means α = 60
Cos(60/2) = 0.866

 Salient pole type rotors as compared to cylindrical pole type are

(A) smaller in diameter and larger in axial length
(B) larger in diameter and smaller in axial length
(C) larger in diameter as well as axial length
(D) small in diameter as well as axial length.
Solution:
Salient pole type:
Short axial length
Larger diameter

Non salient pole or cylindrical pole type:

Small diameter and long axial length

 The maximum current that can be supplied by an alternator depends on

(A) speed of the exciter
(B) number of poles
(C) exciter current
(D) strength of the magnetic field.
  For alternation having fractional pitch of 5/6 the coil span is
(A)90°
(B)120°
(C)150°
(D)180°
Solution:
(5/6)*180° = 150°

 The rms ripple voltage is 20 mV for a 15 V dc output. The percentage ripple factor will be
A.0.01%
B.0.07%
C.0.13%
D.1.30%
Solution:
Percentage of ripple = (RMS value of ripple/Average DC output) x 100
= (Vrms/ V0) x 100
= (20×10^-3)/(15) × 100%
= 0.13%

 Maximum efficiency of D. C. Machines occurs when:

A. Machine is running at no load
B. Core gets fully saturated
C. Constant losses = losses proportional to square of current
D. Variable losses = Constant losses
SOLUTION:
In DC machines, maximum efficiency occurs when variable losses are equal to constant losses.
Variable losses = Constant losses
Constant losses include windage losses, brush losses, hysteresis losses and eddy current losses.
Variable losses include copper losses in armature winding and field winding.
It's C in book handa.
D is correct

TRANFORMERS:
 Transformer for constant voltage applications is considered good if its voltage regulation is
(a) low
(b) high
(c) zero
(d) none of the above

 Transformer supplying load having negative resistance characteristics such as arc load, is
considered if its voltage regulation is
(a) low
(b) high
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above

 For given effective applied voltage of constant frequency eddy current losses
(a) become less with peaked wave shape of applied voltage
(b) independent of the wave shape of the applied voltage
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above.
  While rising and while falling, if a wave is symmetrical, it contains
(a) even harmonica in addition to fundamental
(b) odd harmonics in addition to fundamental
(c) both odd and even harmonics in addition to fundamental
(d) none of the above

 The size of a transformer core will depend on

(a) frequency
(b) frequency and area of the core
(c) flux density of the core material

 The gain of two cascaded amplifiers are

A. Added
B. Subtracted
C. Multiplied
D. Divided

 Where the tappings are provided in a transformer?

a) At the phase end of LV side
b) At the phase end of HV side
c) At the neutral side end of the HV side
d) At the middle of HV side
Solution: Tappings are provided in order to maintain the terminal voltage across the loads within the
permissible specified limits with respect to load variations. Generally tappings are preferred on HV
side, because the HV side is low current side, tap changer involves low current interruption and large
variations or small steps are possible due to more no of turns. Tappings can be provided at phase
end or neutral end. But to maintain magnetic symmetry tappings are preferred in the middle of the
winding only.

 A series circuit consisting of R=1.2kΩ and C=0.1µF is supplied with 45V at a frequency of 1
kHz. The reactive power will be
A. 0.1 VAR
B. 0.4 VAR
C. 0.81 VAR
D. 1.62 VAR

 The direction of rotation of shaded-pole motor depends upon,

A) supply frequency
B) no.of poles on the stator
C) Which half of the pole is shaded
D) Supply voltage
Solution:
The direction of rotation of shaded pole motor depends upon the position of shading coil i.e. which
half of pole is wrapped with shading coil. Therefore, the direction of rotation cannot be reversed
unless the machine is constructed so that the shading coil can be shifted to another half of the pole.

 If P1 and P2 be the iron and copper losses of a transformer at full-load and the maximum
efficiency is at 75% of the full-load, then what is the ratio of P1 and P2?
(a) 9/16
(b) 10/16
(c) 3/4
(d) 3/16
Load is 75% of full load means 3/4. Since copper loss is related to squre of current, so ratio will be
9/16.

 If the iron core of a transformer is replaced by an air core, then the hysteresis losses in the
transformer will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains unchanged
D. Become zero
Explanation:
Laminated steel sheets are used to construct the core of the transformer. But, ferromagnetic
materials like steel as a core of the transformer, suffers from hysteresis loss, eddy current losses.
Also, it faces the problem of getting saturated after a certain level of magnetization. But these can
be avoided in the air-core transformer as the ferromagnetic core is absent in this transformer.
In an air-core transformer, the iron core is absent and the flux is linked with the windings through
the air. So that hysteresis losses are eliminated.
In addition to the noise-free operation, an air-core transformer is quite light weight due to the
absence of heavy weight iron core. That is why this air-core transformer is most suitable for
portable, light weight electronic devices and high-frequency devices.
Air core transformers are generally used in radio transmitters and communication devices etc.

 The permissible flux density in cold rolled grain oriented steel is about
(a) 1.8 T
(b) 2.5 T
(c) 3.5 T
(d) 4.5 T

 Silicon content in iron laminations is kept within 5% as it

(a) increases hysteresis loss.
(b) increases cost.
(c) makes the material brittle.
(d) reduces the curie point.

 Grain oriented laminated sheet steel in transformer reduces

(a) copper loss.
(b) eddy current loss.
(c) hysteresis loss.
(d) none of the above.

 Cores of large power transformers are made from which one of the following?
(a) Hot-rolled steel
(b) Cold-rolled non-grain oriented steel.
(c) Cold-rolled grain oriented steel.
(d) Ferrite.

 What is the core loss in a high frequency ferrite core transformer used in SMPS power
supply?
(a) 10% of rated power.
(b) 5% of rated power. (c) 2% of rated power.
(d) 1% of rated power.
 A single phase transformer is to be switched to the supply to have minimum inrush current.
The switch should be closed at
(a) maximum supply voltage.
(b) zero supply voltage.
(c) maximum supply voltage ÷ √2.
(d) maximum supply voltage ÷ 2.

 The all-day efficiency of a distribution transformer will be high with low

(a) copper losses.
(b) iron losses.
(c) operating temperature.
(d) copper as well as iron losses.

 “A” class insulation can withstand

(a) temperature rise of 105 degree Celsius
(b) maximum temperature rise of 105 degree Celsius
(c) temperature gradient of 105 degree Celsius
(d) heating rate of 105 Celsius in 24 hours.

 What is maximum order of flux density used in cores using CRGO sheets
(a) 0.04 webers/m^2
(b) 0.4 webers/m^2
(c) 1.04 webers/m^2
(d) 2 webers/m^2

 For CRGOS mitred overlap is preferred for the core-yoke joints as it

(a) reduces the magnetizing current and also the core losses.
(b) improves the mechanical strength.
(c) reduces magnetostriction.
(d) makes better use of core space

 The degree of mechanical vibrations caused by core laminations in a transformer depends

on
(a) size of laminations.
(b) gauge of laminations.
(c) tightness of clamping.
(d) all of the above.

 The primary and secondary windings are interlaced for

(a) easiness of coil making.
(b) reduced leakage reactance.
(c) reduced cost.
(d) uniform heating.

 The leakage flux of primary and secondary windings can be reduced to the minimum by
(a) winding primary and secondary coils on separate limbs.
(b) winding primary and secondary coils one upon the other coaxially.
(c) increasing the number of turns.
(d) employing low permeability magnetic material core.
  The concentric windings are used in core type transformers with ……… winding placed next
to the core.
(a) Iv
(b) primary
(c) hv
(d) secondary

 Major insulation in a transformer is the insulation between the

(a) lv winding and core.
(b) Iv winding and hv winding.
(c) turns of the winding turns.
(d) both (a) and (b).

 Low voltage windings are placed next to the core in the case of concentric windings as in this
case ……… is/are reduced.
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) leakage fluxes
(c) eddy current loss
(d) copper loss
(e) insulation requirement

 In transformers, the primary and secondary are interlaced so that

(a) there may be maximum flux linkage between the two windings.
(b) copper is saved.
(c) both (a) and (b) .
(d) statement is false.

 When a transformer winding suffers a short circuit, the adjoining turns of the same winding
experience
(a) an attractive force.
(b) a repulsive force.
(c) no force.

 Under short-circuit condition, the windings of a transformer having 5% impedance will

experience a radial force
(a) 5 times of full load value.
(b) 20 times of full load value.
(c) 25 times of full load value.
(d) 400 times of full load value.

 Minor insulation in a transformer is the insulation between the

(a) lv winding and core.
(b) lv and hv windings.
(c) turns of the windings.
(d) layers of the windings.
(e) both (c) and (d).

 The colour of fresh dielectric oil used in transformers is

(a) dark brown.
(b) pale-yellow.
(c) pale-pink.
(d) white-grey.

 The core and windings of a transformer are put in a steel tank in order to
(a) make it suitable for outdoor operation.
(b) provide protection against mechanical damages and provide additional cooling.
(c) improve its appearance.
(d) all of the above.

 The transformer oil should have

(a) low volatility.
(b) high dielectric strength.
(c) good resistance to emulsion with water.
(d) low viscosity to provide good heat transfer.
(e) all of the above.

 Sludge formation in transformer oil is due to which one of the following?

(a) Ingress of dust particles and moisture in the oil.
(b) Appearance of small fragments of paper, varnish, cotton and other organic materials in the oil.
(c) Chemical reaction of transformer oil with the insulating materials.
(d) Oxidation of transformer oil.

 For system voltages exceeding 66 kV, condenser bushings are preferred over non-condenser
bushings because
(a) the axial stresses can be eliminated.
(b) the radial stresses can be made independent of the radial thickness of the dielectric.
(c) optimum utilization of dielectric because of uniform potential distribution results in reduction of
radial and axial dimensions of the bushings.
(d) none of the above.

 Conservator (for transformer) is used

(a) to take up the expansion of oil due to temperature rise.
(b) to act as an oil storage.
(c) for better cooling of transformer.
(d) None of the above.

 Malfunctioning of the Buchholz relay may be caused due to

(a) heavy external short circuits.
(b) improper breather action.
(c) dropping of oil level below the relay level during operation.
(d) excessive overheating

 Which is the arrangement of windings in a core type single phase transformer?

(a) Half lv inside and half hv outside on each core limb.
(b) lv on one core limb and hv on the other.
(c) Sandwiched lv and hv discs on each core limb.
(d) Half hv inside and half hv outside on each core limb

 For core type power transformers, both primary and secondary windings have circular coil
sections, as it
(a) reduces core material requirement and so also reduces the core loss.
(b) gives the strongest mechanical shape.
(c) is easier to wind.
(d) reduces the copper requirement.

 With stepping in construction of transformer core

(a) copper losses are reduced.
(b) copper is saved.
(c) high flux density can be achieved.
(d) mechanical strength to the core is improved.
(e) both (a) and (b).

 Distribution transformers have core losses

(a) > copper loss.
(b) < copper losses.
(c) = copper loss.
(d) = copper losses ÷ 2.

 Distribution transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency nearly at …….. of full
load.
(a) 100%
(b) 70%
(c) 25%
(d) 10%

 Which of the following methods is employed for cooling of power transformers of rating not
exceeding 10 MVA ?
(a) Air blast cooling.
(b) Natural oil cooling.
(c) Forced oil cooling.
(d) Natural air cooling.

 Natural air cooling is used for transformers of rating up to

(a) 100 kVA.
(b) 500 kVA.
(c) 5 – 10 kVA.
(d) 10 MVA.

 Addition of tubes to the transformer tank improves heat dissipation capacity because of
(a) additional cooling surface.
(b) additional dissipation by radiation only.
(c) additional dissipation by convection only.
(d) additional dissipation by radiation and convection both

 The winding used in a 3-phase shell type transformer is[/expander_maker] type.

(a) circular
(b) cylindrical
(c) sandwich
(d) rectangular
  If all other requirements for parallel operation of transformers are fulfilled, which one of the
following pairs of three-phase transformers, with the given VECTOR GROUPS, can be
operated in parallel?
(a) Yd 1 and YY 0
(b) Yd 1 and DY 11
(c) DD 6 and DY 1
(d) Dd 0 and DY 11

 Two transformers, with equal rating and negligible excitation current, connected in parallel,
share the load in the ratio of their kVA ratings only, if their pu impedances (based on their
own kVA) are
(a) equal.
(b) in the inverse ratio of their ratings.
(c) in the direct ratio of their ratings.
(d) pure reactive.

 Neglecting losses, if the power transformed inductively is equal to power transformed

conductively in an auto-transformer, then the secondary to primary ratio of transformer is
(a) 0.5
(b) 2
(c) 1.5
(d) 1.25

 A 100/10 V, 50 VA double winding transformer is converted to 100/110 V auto-transformer.

The rating of the auto-transformer is
(a) 550 VA
(b) 500 VA
(c) 110 VA
(d) 100 VA

 If there is a break in a 220/110 V auto-transformer in the winding which is common to both

hv as well as lv sides, then the output voltage on the lv side will be
(a) 110 V
(b) 220 V
(c) zero
(d) 110√2 V

 Constant current transformer is of type.

(a) core
(b) shell
(c) core or shell
(d) none of these

 High leakage reactance transformers are of

(a) small volt-ampere rating.
(b) high volt-ampere rating.
(c) high voltage rating.
(d) low voltage rating.

 For off-load tap changing the best method is to use tap changers
(a) outside the tank with no selector switch.
(b) outside the tank operated by selector sw itches.
(c) inside the tank operated by external selector switches.
(d) inside the tank with no selector switch.

 For on-load tap changing the best method is to employ tap-changers

(a) outside the tank operated selector switches.
(b) outside the tank with no selector switch.
(c) inside the tank with no selector switch.
(d) inside the tank operated by external selector switches.

 The output voltage can be varied by a variac transformer over a

(a) very small range.
(b) wide range of 0 and 120 percent of input voltage.
(c) over a range of 0 and 50 percent.
(d) over a range of 50 and 100 percent.

 In a single phase induction regulator, compensating winding is provided in order to

(a) increase efficiency.
(b) reduce the voltage drop due to reactance of the secondary winding to negligible value.
(c) give wider variation of output voltage.
(d) all of the above.

 In a single phase induction regulator, the boost will be maximum when the angle between
the axes of the stator winding and the rotor winding is equal to ………… electrical degree(s).
(a) 0
(b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 180

 In a 3-phase induction regulator, the output line voltages are in phase with the supply line
voltage in
(a) maximum buck position only.
(b) maximum boost position only.
(c) both maximum boost and maximum buck positions.
(d) all positions.

 The rating of an induction voltage regulator for regulating the voltage on a 3-phase feeder
dealing with 1,000 kVA between the limits of 4,750 V and 5,250 V is
(a) 50 kVA
(b) 100 kVA
(c) 25 kVA
(d) 50 kVA

 The rating of a transformer when the supply frequency is increased.

(a) remains unchanged
(b) decreases
(c) increases
(d) none of these

 If a 500 kVA, 200 Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz, its kVA rating will be
(a) 2000 kVA
(b) 125 kVA
(c) 250 KVA
(d) 1000 kVA

 In operating a 400 Hz transformer at 50 Hz

(a) only voltage is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency.
(b) only kVA rating is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency.
(c) both voltage and kVA rating are reduced in the same proportions as the frequency.
(d) none of the above

 If the drying out operation of a transformer is unduly shortened and normal voltage is
applied, then there is a possibility of
(a) interturn failure.
(b) winding to earth failure.
(c) excessive heating.
(d) terminal to terminal flash-over.

 Repeated switching-in of transformers located near the generating stations may cause
(a) excessive temperature rise.
(b) mechanical distortion of the windings and subsequent turn-to-turn insulation failure.
(c) intense local eddy currents in the core.
(d) surface flash-over of the bushings

 In a transformer when two or more dielectrics, having different permittivities are used in
series, incorrect proportioning of their thickness may result in
(a) very poor heat dissipation.
(b) very high leakage current.
(c) very high dielectric loss.
(d) failure of insulation due to excessive ELECTRIC STRESSES

____________________________________________________________________________
 Proper way to apply time shifting and scaling on a signal is
A. Time shifting is applied first and then scaling
B. Scaling is applied first and then time shifting
C. Anyone can be applied irrespective of order
D. Only one operation can be performed
Ans :a

 Rectifiers employ --------------- operational amplifier to eliminate diode voltage.

A. Passive circuit
B. Active circuit
C. Saturation circuit
D. Non-saturation circuit

 barkhausen criteria for oscillator stability

AB = 0
ab =1
-ab = 1
a= 1/sqrt(b)

Correct answer is ab=1

  A resonant circuit has a lower critical frequency of 7 kHz and an upper critical frequency of
13 kHz. The bandwidth of the circuit is
A. 7 kHz
B. 13 kHz
C. 20 kHz
D. 6 kHz
BW= f2-f1 = 13-7=6khz

 The electrostatic potential inside a hollow conductor is

A. Constant
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. Zero
Electrical field is zero.
Electrical potential is constant.

BASIC ELECTRICAL CIRCUITS AND BATTERIES :

In gases the flow of current is due to

(a) electrons only
(b) positive and negative ions
(c) electrons and positive ions
(d) electrons, positive ions and negative ions

Current velocity through a copper conductor is

(a) nearly 3 x 109 m/s
(b) in the order of a few µm/s
(c) independent of current strength
(d) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy

Ohm’s law is applicable to

(a) semiconductors
(b) vacuum tubes
(c) electrolytes
(d) carbon resistors
(e) arc lamps
(f) none of these

Pure metals generally have

(a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
(b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
(c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
(d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

Specific resistance of a conductor depends upon

(a) dimensions of the conductor
(b) composition of the conductor material
(c) resistance of the conductor
(d) both (a) and (b)
Superposition theorem is not applicable for
(a) voltage calculations
(b) bilateral elements
(c) power calculation
(d) passive elements

Which of the following theorems is applicable for both linear and non-linear circuits?
(a) Superposition
(b) Thevenin’s
(c) Norton’s
(d) none of these
Explanation:
Only Kirchoff laws are for both linear and non- linear Networks

While determining RTH of a circuit

(a) voltage and current sources should be left as they are
(b) all sources should be replaced by their source resistances
(c) all independent current and voltage sources are short-circuited

In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, if the position of detector and source are interchanged, the bridge
will still remain balanced. This inference can be drawn from
(a) Reciprocity theorem
(b) Duality theorem
(c) Compensation theorem
(d) Equivalence theorem

.While testing a good 0.05 MFD capacitor with ohmmeter, the meter will show
(a) high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance.
(b) low resistance momentarily and then a very high resistance.
(c) a reading of 70 ohm.
(d) none of the above.

BATTERIES

For a group of cells, when internal resistance of the group is equal to external load resistance, the
group will deliver maximum
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) ampere-hours
(d) efficiency

During discharging of lead acid cells, the terminal voltage decreases with the decrease in
(a) temperature
(b) discharge rate
(c) state of charge
(d) none of these

In a lead acid battery, separators are provided to

(a) reduce internal resistance
(b) facilitate flow of the current
(c) avoid internal short circuits
(d) increase the energy efficiency

In a lead acid battery, fillers are provided to

(a) facilitate flow of gases
(b) prevent flow of gases
(c) recover acid loss through vapors
(d) reduce tendency of polarization

Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is

(a) dust particles
(b) iron
(c) lead crystals
(d) sodium chloride

During charging and discharging of an Edison cell

(a) electrolyte does not take part in chemical reaction
(b) EMF remains the same
(c) corrosive fumes are produced
(d) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit

Nickel-cadmium accumulators in comparison to nickel-iron accumulators have the advantage of

(a) being lighter in weight and cheaper in price
(b) low internal resistance and longer life
(c) higher EMF and higher efficiency
(d) all of the above

A floating battery is one

(a) which is charged and discharged simultaneously
(b) in which battery voltage is equal to charger voltage
(c) which supplies current intermittently and also during getting charged
(d) none of the above

In a lead acid battery, sedimentation occurs due to

(a) idleness for a longer period
(b) over charging at slow rate
(c) over charging at high rate
(d) slow charging at low rate

In a lead acid battery, excessive formation of lead sulphate occurs due to

(a) idleness of battery for a long time
(b) low level of electrolyte
(c) persistent undercharging
(d) all of the above

Sulphated cells are indicated by the

(a) low specific gravity
(b) low voltage on discharge
(c) low capacity
(d) all of the above
The condition of fully charged lead acid battery cannot be ascertained by
(a) gassing
(b) voltage
(c) color of the electrodes
(d) specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) color of the electrolyte

In comparison to constant current charging method, the constant voltage charging method of lead
acid battery has the advantages of
(a) increasing capacity of the battery
(b) reducing charging time
(c) avoiding of excessive gassing
(d) both (b) and (c)

If the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead acid cell increases beyond 1.23 there will be
(a) loss of life
(b) loss of capacity
(c) increase in internal resistance
(d) corrosion of the grids of the plates

The capacity of a lead acid battery does not depend upon

(a) charge rate
(b) discharge rate
(c) temperature
(d) density of electrolyte
(e) quantity of active material
(f) plate surface area

The capacity of a lead acid battery is adversely affected by increase

(a) discharge rate
(b) charge rate
(c) temperature
(d) specific gravity of the electrolyte

Internal resistance of primary cell varies

(a) inversely with the distance between electrodes
(b) inversely with the surface area of electrodes
(c) directly with the distance between electrodes
(d) with the nature of electrodes
(e)all of above except(a)

A standard cell
(a) will have accurate and constant voltage when current drawn from it is few micro amperes only
(b) will have accurate and constant voltage when current drawn from it is few mill amperes only
(c) will continue to have constant voltage irrespective of loading conditions

Which of the following statement is incorrect about lead acid battries?

(a) the electrolyte is weak sulphuric acid
(b) when fully charged, both of the plates become lead-per-oxide
(c) the number of plates is always odd
(d) the number of negative plates is one more than the number of positive plates
Which of the following statement is correct about lead acid batteries
(a) it delivers current as soon as its components are put together
(b) density of electrolyte increases while delivering current
(c) it does not deliver current on putting its components together until it is supplied electrical energy
from external source
(d) it has lead as positive plates

The EMF of a lead acid battery

(a) increases with the increase in specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) slightly increases with the increase in temperature
(c) decreases with the increase in temperature
(d) both (a) and (b)

IMPORTANT

 A synchronous generator or alternator is capable of operating at all types of power factors

i.e. either UPF, leading, or lagging power factor.

Leading power factor: If field excitation is such that Eb < V the alternator is said to be under excited
and it has a leading power factor.
Lagging power factor: If field excitation is such that Eb > V the alternator is said to be over-excited
and it delivers a lagging current.
Unity power factor: If field excitation is such that Eb = V the alternator is said to be normally excited.
V -curve for synchronous generator or alternator is shown below;

 follow A as a correct ans.

Also in handa
  A 4-pole, 12-slot lap-wound DC armature has two coil-sides/slots.
Assuming single turn coils and progressive winding, the back pitch would be
A. 5
B. 7
C. 3
D. None of above
__________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________
Questions: (solutions at the end)
Q1. An ammeter is convertible to a voltmeter by
(a) Changing the scale
(b) Putting a large resistance in parallel with the actual measuring part of the instrument
(c) Putting a large resistance in series with the actual measuring part of the instrument
(d) Simply installing the instrument in parallel with the circuit

Q2. What should be the size of the slide wire of the potentiometer to make it to achieve high
accuracy?
(a) As long as possible
(b) As short as possible
(c) 1 meter
(d) Neither too thin nor too thick

Q3. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at

(a) Full load
(b) 50% load
(c) 80% load
(d) no load

Q4. If the field of a DC shunt motor gets opened while the motor is running, then the
(a) Motor will become slow
(b) The motor will attain the dangerously high speed
(c) Armature current will drop
(d) Armature will oscillate about original speed as the mean speed

Q5. In an electric heater, the metal case is connected to…………

(a) Phase wire
(b) earth wire
(c) neutral wire
(d) none of these

Q6. Which of the following is used for heating of non-conducting materials?

(a) Eddy current heating
(b) Arc heating
(c) Dielectric heating
(d) Induction heating

Q7. A high starting torque can be obtained in a 3-phase induction motor by

(a) Increasing Rotor Reactance
(b) Decreasing Rotor Resistance
(c) Increasing Rotor Resistance
(d) Any of the above
Q8. At starting, rotor reactance of a 3-phase induction motor is ………… as compared to rotor
resistance.
(a) Small
(b) Equal to
(c) Large
(d) None of the above

Q9. The form factor is the ratio of

(a) Peak value to rms value
(b) Rms value to average value
(c) Average value to rms value
(d) None of the above

Q10. The element which is capable of delivering energy on its own is known as:
(a) Non-Linear elements
(b) Unilateral elements
(c) Active element
(d) Passive element

SOLUTIONS
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. An ammeter is converted into voltmeter by putting a large resistance in series with the actual
measuring part of the instrument.

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. in case of potentiometer, E ∝ L ⇒ E = φL
Where φ is the potential gradient
So, In the case of longer wire, the fall of potential per unit length is small. In other words, the
potential gradient is small. Lesser the potential gradient, more accurate is the potentiometer.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Power transformer are used for transmission as a step-up device hence they are not directly
connected to consumer therefore, load fluctuation is very less. So, the power transformer can
operate on full load.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. N ∝ Eb/φ
Now if the field winding gets open than flux will become zero i.e. φ = 0
∴ N ∝ Eb/0
Or N = ∞
Hence the speed of the DC shunt Motor will attain the dangerous High Seed.

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. In an electric heater, the metal case is connected to ‘earth wire’ for protection against fault.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. Induction heating → for magnetic and conducting materials
Dielectric heating → for non-conducting materials.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. in case of induction motor, the starting torque(T) α Rotor resistance.
So, A high starting torque can be obtained in a 3-phase induction motor by increasing rotor
resistance.

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. The rotor resistance does not depend on the slip of the motor. The rotor reactance depends on
the slip. At start, the rotor reactance is large because slip of the motor at start is equal to unity. The
large rotor reactance at start makes the starting torque of the motor poor. The motor draws about 5
to 6 times current of its full load current and produce very less torque. The most of the current is
reactive in nature and does not contribute in production of torque. That is why the starting torque of
the squirrel cage induction motor is poor.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. The form factor of an alternating current waveform (signal) is the ratio of the RMS (root mean
square) value to the average value.

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. The active elements generate energy. Batteries, generators, operational amplifiers etc are active
elements.
Control Important:

 Which of the following system conveniently displays the impact of poles and zeros on phase
margin and gain margin?
A. Root locus
B. Nyquist plot
C. Bode plot
D. Routh-Harwitz criterion

 Which of the following gives information regarding difference in the number of poles and
zeros of a closed loop transfer function?
A. Root locus method
B. Bode diagram
C. Nyquist diagram
D. Routh Hurwitz criterion

43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to

(a) momentum
(b) velocity
(c) displacement
(d) mass

44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered analogous to
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) capacitance
(d) charge
(e) none of the above

45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to

(a) velocity
(b) pressure
(c) air flow
(d) air flow rate

46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous to
(a) head
(b) liquid flow
(c) liquid flow rate
(d) none of the above

47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

(a) charge
(b) resistance
(c) reciprocal of inductance
(d) reciprocal of conductance
(e) none of the above

48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to

(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance

49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to

(a) heat flow
(b) reciprocal of heat flow
(c) reciprocal of temperature
(d) temperature (e) none of the above

50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

(a) charge
(b) current
(c) inductance
(d) resistance

51. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to?

a) Capacitance
b) Reciprocal of capacitance
c) Current
d) Resistance

 An ammeter
A) Is inserted in series in a circuit and current to be measured flows through it
B.) Is inserted in series in a circuit and part of the current to be measured flows through it
C) Is connected in parallel in a circuit and current to be measured flows through it
D) Is connected in parallel in a circuit and only part of the current to the measured flows through it

 Error due to hysteresis in moving iron type instrument is minimized by using

A, Stainless steel
B, High speed steel
C, Silver coating
D, Permalloy
Important Questions with confusing statements:
 The potential inside a charged hollow sphere is
A. zero.
B. same as that on the surface.
C. less than that on the surface.
D. none of the above.
Explanation:
The electric field inside a hollow metallic sphere is zero. so the work done is also zero. suppose Va is
thepotential on the inside and Vb is the potential on the surface, then Vb - Va = 0 or Vb = Va. Hence
thepotential is the same inside as on the surface.

 The electric flux and field intensity inside a conducting sphere is ___.
A. zero
B. maximum
C. uniform
D. minimum
Explanation:
According to Gauss law, the electric field inside a conducting sphere is always zero irrespective of
how much charge resides on its surface.
Due to zero electric field inside a sphere, the electric flux inside a sphere is zero.

 A field line and an equipotential surface are______?

A. always parallel
B. always at 90°
C. inclined at any angle 0
D. none of the above

 The electric field on an equipotential surface is

(A) zero
(B) infinity
(C) perpendicular to surface
(D) parallel to the surface
Explanation:
The electric field is always perpendicular to the surface because in the equipotential surface there is
no potential difference along any direction which is parallel to the equipotential surface. So, the
electric field is not parallel to the surface.

 Loop transfer function zeros are the same as

A. poles of G(s)H(s)
B. zeros of G(s)H(s)
C. poles of 1 + G(s)H(s)
D. poles of 1 + G(s)H(s)

 Closed loop poles are

A. zeros of G(s) H(s)
B. poles of G(s) H(s)
C. zeros of 1 + G(s) H(s)
D. poles of 1 + G(s) H(s)
Past paper question:
(Control System)
Which of the following system provides good performance if offset is to be avoided?
A. proportional action
B. proportional plus integral action
C. proportional plus differential action
D. proportional plus integral action plus differential action

 Which of the following system provides excellent transient as well as steady state response?
A. proportional action
B. proportional plus integral action
C. proportional plus differential action
D. proportional plus integral actions plus differential action

 For a closed loop system to be stable, the Nyquist plot of G(s)H(s) must encircle the point (-
1, j0) as many time as the number of
A. zeros of G(s) H(s) in the RHS of s-plane
B. zeros of G(s) H(s) in the LHS of s-plane
C. poles of G(s) H(s) in the RHS of s-plane
D. poles of G(s) H(s) in the LHS of s-plane

 The function G(s) H(s) of a system has no poles in the RHS of s-plane. For the system to be
stable, the Nyquist plot of G(s) must not enclose the
A. origin
B. point (-1, j0)
C. point (-1, j1)
D. point (1, j0)

 Which of the following technique is not applicable to nonlinear system?

A. functional analysis
B. Nyquist criterion
C. Quasi linearization
D. phase-plane representation

 Polar plots for positive and negative frequencies

A. are always symmetrical
B. can never be symmetrical
C. may or may not be symmetrical
D. none of these

 On adding a pole at s = 0, the Nyquist plot of a system will

A. remain unaltered
B. rotate clockwise by 90°
C. rotate anticlockwise by 90°
D. rotate by 180°

 The actuating signal in a control system is always fed to

A. the controlled element
B. the feedback element
C. the control element
D. all of these
  The Op-Amp control components in a control system ideally draw
A. medium current
B. small current
C. very small current
D. zero current

 Dynamic equations are a set of equations formed on putting together

A. input equations and output equations
B. state equations and input equations
C. output equations and state equations
D. input, output and state equations

 For changing the time constant and providing sufficient damping in the control system, the
factor responsible is
A. input signal
B. first derivative of the input signal
C. second derivative of the input signal
D. all of these

 In a control system, when derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the

proportional band
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unaltered
D. depends on derivative time constant

 Error signal in a control system is

A. the difference between the measured value and the set value
B. the sum of the measured value and the set value
C. the ratio of the measured value to the set value
D. the ratio of the set value to the measured value

 In an absolutely stable control system, oscillations

A. can not set up at all
B. can be set up but may be controlled
C. set up automatically get damped out eventually
D. are always present

 The input to a controller is

A. a servo signal
B. an error signal
C. a sensed signal
D. none of these

 Presence of nonlinearities in a control system tends to introduce

A. transient error
B. instability
C. steady state error
D. all of these
  The peak overshoot in a control system is a function of
A. natural frequency of oscillation alone
B. damped frequency of oscillation alone
C. damping ratio only
D. none of these

 For characteristic equation having more number of poles than zeros, the number of root
locus branches will be equal to
A. number of zeros
B. number of poles
C. sum of A and B above
D. difference of B and A above

 In root locus plot, the number of asymptote is 360 divided by the number of
A. poles
B. zeros
C. sum of A and B above
D. difference of A and B above

 For a type 1 system, the position error arises at steady state when there is a
A. constant acceleration input
B. step displacement input
C. ramp or velocity input
D. none of these

 If the steady error for type 1 system with unit ramp input is kept constant, the output is
A. velocity
B. acceleration
C. displacement
D. none of the above

Position: step (1/s)

Velocity: Ramp (1/s^2)
Acceleration:
Parabola (1/s^3)
Unit impulse : 1 (delta)

 Number of separate parts of a root locus is equal to the

A. number of zeros in open loop transfer function
B. number of poles in closed loop transfer function
C. the difference between A and B
D. the order of the characteristic equation of the system

 For small value of gain k, the root must be

A. at origin
B. at infinity
C. far away from the poles of the loop transfer function
D. near the poles of the loop transfer function
  The fire control servo and tracking radar falls in which of the following class?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 1 with step velocity input
D. none of these

 In the force-current analogy, indicate the true statement

A. Velocity is analogous to current
B. Spring stiffness is analogous to
C. internal system changes are reciprocal of capacitance
D. Mass is analogous to reciprocal of inductance

 Which of the following system commonly operates under the type 0 system?
A. regulator
B. servomechanism
C. fire control servo and tracking radar
D. both B and C above

 The torque developed by the motor when stationary with the full applied voltage____
a) Stalled torque
b) Torque
c) Force
d) Couple

 High torque/inertia ratio means:

a) Stalled torque
b) Stalled inertia
c) Stalled toque/inertia ratio
d) Lower motor time constant

 For a two-phase servo motor which one of the following statements is not true?
A. The rotor diameter is small
B. The rotor resistance is low
C. The applied voltage are seldom balanced
D. The torque speed characteristics are linear.

 The constant M-circles corresponding to the magnitude (M) of the closed loop transfer
function of a linear system of values of M greater than one lie in the G-plane and to the
A. right of the M = 1 line
B. left of the M = 1 line
C. upper side of the M = +j1 line
D. lower side of the M = -j1 line

 An effect of phase-lag compensation on servo system performance is that—

A. for a given relative stability, the velocity constant is increased✅
B. for a given relative stability, the velocity constant is decreased
C. the bandwidth of the system is increased
D. the time response is made faster
  None of the poles of a linear control system lie in the right half of s-plane. For a bounded
input, the output of this system
A. is always bounded
B. could be unbounded
C. always tends to zero
D. none of the above
Solution:
BIBO stability:
A system is bounded input bounded output (BIBO) stable if the output is guaranteed to be bounded
for every bounded input.
The stability of a linear closed-loop system can be determined from the locations of closed-loop
poles in the S-plane.
Stable System:
If all the roots of the characteristic equation lie on the left half of the 'S' plane for a causal system
then the system is said to be a stable system.
Marginally Stable System:
A linear time-invariant system is said to be critically or marginally stable if for a bounded input its
output oscillates with constant frequency & Amplitude.
Such oscillation of output is called Undamped or Sustained oscillations. For such a system, one or
more pairs of non-repeated roots are located on the imaginary axis.
Unstable System:
If any or all the roots of the system lie on the right half of the 'S' plane then the system is said to be
an unstable system.
Also, if there are repeated poles located purely on the imaginary axis, then the system is said to be
unstable.
If none of the poles of a linear control system lies in the right-half of the s-plane, that does not
guarantee the stability of the system.
If the bounded input applied to the system is non-causal, then for BIBO stability the poles of the
system must lie to the right half of the s-plane.

For example:
Let the impulse response h(t) = e^t u(-t)
H(s) = -1/(s -1)
the impulse response is stable but the pole is lying to the right of the s-plane.
Therefore, for a bounded input, the output of this system could be unbounded.

Important points :
1. For a non-causal system to be BIBO stable, poles must lie to the right half of the s-plane.
2. For a non-causal system if all poles lie to the left of the s-plane, then the output will be
unbounded.
3. For a causal system to be BIBO stable, poles must lie to the left half of the s-plane
IMPORTANT POINTS:
Absolute measurement:
Lorenz method
Unknown value of resistance:
Wheatstone bridge method
Low resistance:
Kelvin bridge method
High resistance:
Meggar

ALTERNATORS:
Overexcited: lagging power factor
Under excited: leading power factor

Synchronous motors:
Overexcited: leading power factor
Under excited: lagging power factor

 An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal______?

A. Current controlled Current source
B. Current controlled voltage source
C. Voltage controlled voltage source
D. voltage controlled current source
Explanation:
Step by Step Solution:
An ideal op amplifier is an op amp that has reasonable
conditions for it to function as a 100% effective op-
amp. An optimum op amp shows the following
functions, all of which are detailed below. Ideal op-
amps have an infinite voltage gain, infinitely high
impedance, zero output impedance, their gain is
independent of the input frequency, they have null
voltage offset, and their output will swing positive or
negative at the same voltage as the power rail and their
output fluctuates immediately at the right level.
The perfect op amp has a current of zero input. This is due to infinite resistance of the input. Since
the input resistance is infinite, there is an open circuit at the input, which means that a current at all
input terminals is zero.
In the above given diagram, it can be seen that there is no current through the input resistance,
therefore considering,
v1= Inverting voltage
v2= Non – Inverting Voltage
In case of an ideal operational amplifier,
v1=v2or
v1−v2=0
Since there is no current through the input resistance, therefore, there will be no voltage drop
across the input terminals.
Therefore, an ideal operational amplifier is an ideal voltage controlled voltage source or option C
Note: There are also limitless bandwidths to run an optimal operational amplifier. This means that
the operational amplifier works for all frequency ranges.
OP-AMP Basics Questions important:
Nescom fellowship test version 2
PAST PAPERS:

i) In a power distribution system the integrated demand is:

a-the average demand over specific period

b-joint demand of several consumers

c-supplementary of various consumers

d-none of above

ii) Back to back test is used in two identical shunt machines for

a-Full load losses

b-Stray losses

c-No load losses

d-None of the above

iii) In Var compensators using thyristors

a-Filters are not necessary

b-The dominant harmonic is second

c-Filters are need for 5th and 7th harmonics

d-capacitors are switched on the h.v. side only

iv) A hold circuit when used in conjunction with a high sampling rate provides satisfactory
performance. Which one?

a-First order hold (FOH)

b-RLC circuit

c-Zero order hold (ZOH)

d-All of the above

  A 100 kW motor generator set has induction motor of six poles and dc generator of eight
poles. If the supply frequency is 50 Hz, the speed of the set will be

(A) 214.3 rpm

(B) 428.6 rpm

(C) 536.4 rpm

(D) 624.8 rpm.

Solution:

N= 120*f/P1+P2

N=120*50/14

 For single phase rotary converters, when the power factor is unity, the ac line to dc current
ratio will be

(A) 1.4
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.707
(D) 0.5

 For 3 phase rotary converters, when power factor is unity. the ac line to dc current ratio is

(A) 1.5
(B) 1.1
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.942

 Load saturation characteristic of a d.c. generator gives relation between

(a) V and Ia
(b) E and Ia
(c) E0 and If
(d ) V and If

 No- Load saturation characteristic of a d.c. generator (OCC) gives relation between
(a) V and Ia
(b) E and Ia
(c) E0 and If
(d ) V and If

 Link layer design is also called

A. Transport layer
B. Access layer
C. Data layer
D: Protocol design layer
E. Network layer
 Net reactance in RLC at resonance is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Infinity

 In transfer function gain k=0 root locus roots are

a) break in point
b) open loop poles
c) open loop zeros
d) break away points
Explanation:
Root locus starts (K=0) at poles of open loop transfer function, G(s)H(s).
As K→∞ the location of closed loop poles move to the zeros of the open loop transfer function,
G(s)H(s).

Agritech test 2021

1) Characteristics Impedance of Transmission Line depends upon:
A) Geometrical configuration of conductors
B) Shape of Conductors

2) Rate of rise of restriking Voltage depends upon

A) Inductance only
B) Capacitance only
C) Inducatance and Capacitance
D) None

3) Advantage of Electric Braking is:

A) Avoids Wear of track
B) it is instantaneous

4) Phase Modifiers are Installed in case of:

A) Short T/L
B) Long T/L
C) Mediium T/L
D) All

5) Power Semiconductors, of rating more than 400V are manufactured by:

A) PhotiLithic Technology
B) Expatial Growth Process

6) A voltmeter gives 120 oscillations per minute when connected to rotor. Stator frequency is 50Hz.
What is slip?
A) 2%
B) 2.5%
C) 4 %

7) Peak Value is 50MVA. If another line of 50MVA is connected in parallel, what will be the peak
value then?
A) 50MVA
B) 100MVA
C) 25MVA
WASA test for AD Electrical 2021:

Technique in fibre optics to transfer data,

a. Invisible light
b. Low frequency
c. Radio
d. Visible light

In an absolutely stable second-order control system, the oscillations will

a. Not produce
b. Produce but will decay simultaneously

Transposition delay in a distribution system is due to

delay
Attenuation
Both

The purpose of resistance between the base and the collector in an NPN transistor
Proper biasing
Input control
Etc options

To turn of the transistor which current is to be off

Base
emitter
Collector
All of these

Device for conversation of coordinates?

Synchros

Direction of rotation in gear train reversed the phenomenon

Backlash
Dead

Same calliberation of ac and dc?

Hot wire type

Piezo electric effect to measure

Temperature
Acceleration

Strength of magnetic field is called?

Magnetic insertion
Magnetic density
Magnetic field per unit area
Both C and D
Rc low pass filter is
Differentiator
Integrator
(RC integrator is basically a series RC low-pass filter circuit which when a step voltage pulse is applied
to its input produces an output that is proportional to the integral of its input.)
 Integrator: low pass

 Differentiator: high pass

A magnet is broken in 2: 1 what will be the effect on it poles strength?

No effect (Remains the same)

Vector in space have how many dimensions

A- Two
B- Three
C- Four
D- All of above

Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______?

discharge
velocity of gas
pressure intensity of gas
pressure intensity of liquid

RC Snubber circuit is used in thyrister?

Dv/dt protection
Hydraulic control system power is transferred through
Mechanical gear
Fluid
Pneumatics
Shaft
Explanantion:
Hydraulic circuits transmit and control power from a mechanical input to a mechanical output by
means of liquids, mostly oils.

Output voltage of PV cell: 0.6V, 1W

Most commonly used semiconductor is: Silicon

Error current in CT is due to exciting current

Digital equivalent gate to electrical series circuit is

A)nand b)or gate c)Xor d)AND
Series: AND
Parallel: OR

An electrodynamic wattmeter is not considered suitable for low power factor circuits due to
(a) inductance of voltage coil
(b) reactance of current coil
(c) power loss in voltage coil
(d) power loss in current coil

To turn the switch off the __ is set zero while using transistor as a switch
a) Emitter current
b) Collector current
c) Base current
d) All of above

Which have more permeability?

Answer: ferromagnetic

Which repel the other substances

Answer: Diamegnatic

Flemming right hand rule

Thumb in current direction what will be direction of fingers?
Magnetic field

Bridge for measuring Capacitance?

Schearing Bridge

Questions Repeated from TESCO Paper: (Compiled by Engr. Engr. Nauman Zafar)
8, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14, 15, 17, 22, 23, 25, 42, 43, 48, 54, 57, 58, 63, 65, 74, 76, 78
Forsenic Science PAPER 2021

Physics
1. Silicon forbidden energy gap? 1.1ev
2. Valance and conduction band b/w 0.7ev? semiconductor
3. X rays invention? 1895
4. Lower AC to higher AC? Amplifier
5. Trivalent Impurity added to Silicon? Indium
6. Diode is not present in? Detector. It is present in modulator, amplifier and rectifier.
7. Rate of change of linear momentum is? Applied force
8. TTI logic gate when will be 1? Not confirm
9. Vector addition? Head to tail rule.
10. AC conversion to DC? Rectifier
11. During half wave? Circuit
12. Junction used ? P-N-P
13. Temperature when two layers become miscible? Critical temperature.
14. Element used in high vaccume? Tungsten(its filment is used in electric bulbs, after
carbon it has highest melting point)
15. At 0 kelvin semiconductor act as? Insulator
16. CMOS? Work at higher power, does not work at lower frequency.
17. Avalanche voltage? Not confirm
18. Law of thermodynamics with heat and work? Second law of thermodynamics

Computer

1. F11? Full screen

2. PDF? Portable document format
3. Physical parts? Hardware
4. Screen resolution? Pixel
5. Screen saver set? Display properties
6. Communication from one to another system? File transfer
7. Delete usage? Not for characters, backspace is for characters. File deletion.
8. Fiber optics? Cabling media.
9. Email? Outlook express.
10. Data and instructions.

English mixed

1. We should adjust? To, not with

2. Traffic? is becoming
3. Word for spirit? Mood
4. Poets’ opinion? Respectful disagreement
5. Precise and comprehensive(not confirm)
6. Paean-praise? Verdict-guilt
7. Hasty-patience(I don’t remember)
8. Grisly? Pleasant
 9. Dishonest? Honest
10. Kamal, jamal,jawad and ali relation? Kamal and alicant go the neighbours.
11. Replace
12. Student failed in subject due to assignment? Answer was C.
13. Ingridients of cuisine-idemnify meat?
14. What does mean by ‘remain the spirit of the reader conservative….? Answer was C.

Other Forsenic tests MCQS:

1) Short form of function key on key board? Fn

2) nibble has 4 bit
3) character has 8 bits
4) static non-volatile memory is ROM
5) first memory activate when you turn computer on is BIOS
6) Clock cycle mean CPU processing speed
7) in mathematics, HYPHEN sign is used to type minus sign
8) in power point you type ctrl+m to add new slide
9) blinking line is called cursor
10) cheapest memory device is CD
Un official date of formation?= Oct 1945
Sun shines on equator vertically.= twice year
Shortest boundary of Pakistan with= china
Areas having rainfall between 101-150 cm are? moon soon
Ionization potential trend = down the group decreases
Photoelectric effect trend = relating to photon intensity & photon frequency
Potential difference is for Voltage
Unit for resistance. Ohm

Computer:

Commands copy
Bcc stand for: blind carbon copy
Cpu in microcomputer is microprocessor
Exe means. Executable
Document file is. Data file

unit of capacitance=Farad
pink disease =mercury
pH of blood =7.5
Opposite=signed
1. shortcut key for paste ..Ctrl +V
2. shortcut key for search in ms word ......Ctrl+ F
3. data file is known as document
4. .exe is executable file
5. ip address is unique number
6. one byte consist of 8 bits
7. CPU of microcomputer is micro-processor
8. win XP uses NTFS file system
9.software for compressing size -- winzip
10.bcc is used for in email--writing email address
English:
1. Antonym doctor/patient
2. Devoid means lacking in
3. Progressively means increasingly
4. Agriculture activity causes removal of original vegetation.
5. sentense completion.
fraudulent research/ deceptive results
6.take notice OF me.
7.charlie chaplain,who was an english teacher,
8.anonymous--defined
9.tedious—excitement

Physics:
1. Heat transfer through actual movement of molecule is called ... conduction
2. Dual wave nature was explained by.. debrougli and planks
3. half effect
4. Newton’s first law state that body remain at rest unless un balanced force produce
acceleration in it.
5. Liquid non-metal is bromine
6. The SI unit of capacitance is the farad
7. A Gaussian surface is a closed surface in three-dimensional space through which the flux
of a vector field is calculated
8. Photoelectric cell effect of light frequency
9. Star distance from moving spaceship seems smaller as compared to measure from earth.
10. White cloths reflect light.
GK
1. wheel is symbol of progress
2. sunrises vertically at equator whole year
3.UN formed in--Oct 1945
4.continent without desert--Europe
5.in rainbow color between orange and green ...yellow
6.shortest boundary of Pakistan (iran,china,russia,india) china
7.annual rainfall between 102cm-202 cm ...deciduous forests

Remember:
Unit of resistivity = ohm-meter.
Unit of conductivity = mho/meter
If we double the frequency than inductive susceptance will be halved.
Waves from source to load is called incident waves
Waves from load to source is called reflected waves
Fourier transform is also called amplitude spectral density.
Very very Important: (for NTS)
These are the most common transforms, and the fields in which they are used:
Fourier series – repetitive signals, oscillating systems.
Fourier transform – nonrepetitive signals, transients.
Laplace transform – electronic circuits and control systems.
Z transform – discrete-time signals, digital signal processing.
Wavelet transform — image analysis, data compression.

Close loop gain of an ideal op amp is?

A)zero✔
B)infinity
C)very small
D)very high

What is the open loop gain of an ideal operational amplifier?

Low
Infinite✔
Zero
all are correct

Fourier transform pair are

[A]. autocorrelation and power spectral density✔
[B]. autocorrelation and convoloution
[C]. convolution and power spectral density
[D]. autocorrelation and energy

If in a broadcasting studio, a 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by an audio signal of frequency

range 100-5000 kHz, the width of channel is ____ kHz.
[A]. 5
[B]. 4.9
[C]. 995
[D]. 10 ✔
Solution: i) Width of sideband = 5000 -100.
= 4900 Hz.
ii) - Max. frequency of USB = 1000 + 5 = 1005 kHz.
- Min. frequency of USB = 1000 + 0.1 = 1000.1 kHz.
iii) - Max. frequency of LSb = 1000 - 0.1= 999.9 kHz.
- Min. frequency of LSB = 1000 - 5 = 995 kHz.
iv) Width of channel = 1005 - 995 = 10 kHz.
Important: Size of conductor - current ( Kelvin's law)
Insulation of conductor - voltage
Selection of conductor size for a feeder is based on current carrying capacity
Selection of the conductor size for a distributor is voltage drop
Past papers:
Offset current in op amp is
A. i+ve - i-ve✔
B. i+ve/i-ve

In a measurement, state of consistency is called

A. Reliability✔
B. Validity
C. Accuracy
D. Precision
(Reliability is about the consistency of a measure, and validity is about the accuracy of a measure.)

The thyristor is turned of when the anode current falls below

A) forward current
B) latching current
C) holding current✔
D) break over current

An ideal voltage source coil charge on ideal capacitor

A) exponentially
B) in infinite time
C) instantaneously✔
D) n.o.t

in a close loop transfer function variables are represented by

a)vectors✔
b)scalars
c)Arrow diagram
d)pereto chart

_____ cannot be fabricated on an IC

A. Transistors
B. Diodes
C. Resistors
D. Large inductors and transformers✔

Which of the following is used to obtain silicon crystal structure while fabricating Integrating
Circuits?
a) Oxidation
b) Epitaxial growth ✔
c) Photolithography
d) Silicon wafer preparations

The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage by an angle of about_____?
A. 180°
B. 120°
C. 90°
D. 75✔

Why is it important to maintain an impedance match from the source to the load when sending
signals
a. To reduce external noise
b. To keep the line balanced
c. To reduce reflected energy✔
d. To reduce attenuation

Settling time is inversely proportional to

A. Damping ratio
B. Natural frequency
C. Both✔
D. None

Differential amplifier, amplifies

voltage✔

A lightning arrestor connected between the line and earth in a power system
A. protects the terminal equipment against travelling surges ✔
B. protects the transmission line against lightning stroke
C. suppresses high frequency oscillations in the line
D. reflects back the travelling wave approaching it

Lightning arresters are used in power systems to protect electrical equipments against
A. direct strokes of lightning ✔
B. power frequency overvoltages
C. overvoltages due to indirect lightning stroke
D. overcurrents due to lightning stroke

. Series capacitive compensation in EHV transmission lines is used to

A. reduce the line loading
B. improve the stability of the system✔
C. reduce the voltage profile
D. improve the protection of the line

Most suitable C.B. for short linefault without switching resistor is

A. air blast C.B.
B. M.O.C.B.
C. SF6 Breaker ✔
D. none of these
The voltage across the circuit breaker pole after final current zero is
A. Restriking voltage
B. Recovery voltage✔
C. Supply voltage
D. None

The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the circuit breaker is called
A. Surge voltage
B. Recovery voltage
C. arc voltage✔
D. Break open voltage

For motor circuit breakers, the time of closing the cycle is

(A) 0.001 sec
(B) 0.01 sec
(C) 0.10 sec
(D) 0.003 sec.✔

The most suitable location for the power factor improvement device is
a. Near the electrical appliance which is responsible for the poor power factor.
b. At the sending end.
c. At the receiving end in case of transmission lines.
d. Both (a) and (c).✔

Which transformed used to convert signals from time to frequency domain?

a) Laplace
b) fourier series✔
c) Z-transform
d) all of them

If the conductively of pure germanium is 1.54 Siemens/meter, it’s resistivity in ohm meter will be
nearly
65
6.5
0.65✔
0.065

Remember:
Different buses at the network can be classified as.
1. Load bus (PQ bus) - - - - non generator bus.
2. Generator bus ( PV bus) - - - voltage controlled bus or load bus
3. Slack or swing bus
1. The frequency of occurrence of three-phase fault is ___ than that of Line to line fault
a. Lower ✓
b. Greater
c. Equal
d. None

2. For a fault at generator , the fault current is maximum for ___ fault
a. L-L-L-G
b. L-G ✓
c. L-L-G
d. None

3. Zero Sequence component in 3 Phase voltage of delta is ___

a. Undefined
b. one
c. Zero ✓
d. None

4. In case of balanced three phase currents , the zero sequence component of current is

a. Average
b. Maximum
c. Minimum ✓
d. None

5. Zero sequence fault currents are absent when fault is

a. Line to Line ✓
b. Line to Neutral
c. Both
d. None

6. Magnetic circuit breaker has ____ trip action

a. Delayed
b. Instantaneous ✓
c. Both
d. None

7. Thermal circuit breaker has ____ trip action

a. Delayed ✓
b. Instantaneous
c. Both
d. None
Important:
For continuous-time signals:
1. Laplace transform (LT)
2. Continuous-time Fourier transform (CTFT)
3. Fourier series (FS) coefficients - only for periodic signals
For discrete-time signals:
1. Z transform (ZT)
2. Discrete-time Fourier transform (DTFT)
3. Discrete Fourier transform (DFT) - only for finite duration signals

A FET, for its operation, depends on the variation of

A.Forward-biased junction
B.Reversed-biased junction
C.Magnetic field
D.The depletion-layer width with reverse voltage ✔

A FET
A.Depends on the variation of a magnetic field for its operation
B.Has three P-N junctions
C.Depends on the variation of the depletion layer width with reverse voltage, for its operation✔
D.Has two P-N junctions

The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n diode is,

A. depletion of negative charges near the junction
B. concentration of positive charges near the junction
C. depletion of positive charges near the junction
D. concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction✔

Past paper:
PWM is generated by:
1. Monostable multi vibrator
2. Bistable multivibrator
3) integration of PPM signal
4. Derivative of PPM signal✔

Which is used to prevent power wastage on, ___

a. FDM
b. SSB✔
c. DSB

Superconductor materials have the property that

a. They absorb electric field
b. They absorb magnetic field
c. They repel electric field
d. They repel magnetic field✔

The gunn diode is also known as

A.No barrier diode
B.Active area diode✔
C.Esaki diode
D.Bulk diode
(Active Area Diode or Transferred Electron Diode (TED))

In PNP transistor, which is not provided?

(A) Heater✔
(B) Emitter
(C) Base
(D) Collector

In transistor a quiescent state implies:

(A) No input signal✔
(B) No distortion
(C) No output
(D) Zero bias
(Q point or the operating point of a device, also known as a bias point, or quiescent point is the
steady-state DC voltage or current at a specified terminal of an active device such as a diode or
transistor with no input signal applied.)

At what interval 6 SCR’s in a 3 Φ full converter are fired?

(A) 180 °
(B) 120 °✔
(C) 60 °
(D) 0 °

ATM can be used for ____

a) local area network
b) wide area network
c) campus area network
d) networks covering any range✔
( Distributed network not a centralized network)

ATM standard defines ___ layers.

a) 2
b) 3✔
c) 4
d) 5
ATM uses _____
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing✔
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
d) asynchronous amplitude division multiplexing

ATM and frame relay are ____

a) virtual circuit networks✔
b) datagram networks
c) virtual private networks
d) virtual public networks

Resistivity of a semiconductor depends on:

(A) The atomic nature of the semiconductor✔
(B) The shape of the semiconductor
(C) The atomic weight of the semiconductor
(D) The atomic number of the semiconductor

FETs have similar properties to

A.Thermionic valves
B.NPN transistor
C.PNP transistor
D.None of the above

The properties of FETs closely resemble those of a

A.Thermionic valves
B.UJT
C.NPN transistor
D.PNP transistor
Explanation:
Properties of FET are exactly similar as NPN.
And resembles closely to that of thermionic valves, not exactly similar.
Statements are bit changed but follow the same answers.

Previous paper questions:

Which one of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance of
receivers?
A.Noise figure
B.Noise temperature
C.Input noise voltage
D.Equivalent noise resistance

Which of the following is same in AM and FM receivers?

A.Demodulator
B.AGC C.IF amplifier D.All of the above