JUNE 1973

/
\
1:1011
TriStar

L-1011
SYSTEMS STUDY GUIDE

L 0 C K H E E D - CAL I FOR N I A COM PAN Y • BUR BAN K • CALIFORNIA

....... ~ A DIVISION OF LOCKHEED AIRCRAFT CORPORATION
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 June 1973

TABLE OF CONTENTS

Page

TERMS AND PLACARD ABBREVIATIONS. ii

AIRCRAFT GENERAL. 1-1

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION 2-1

AUTOFLIGHT. 3-1

APU. 4-1

COMMUNICATIONS. 5-1

ELECTRICAL. 6-1

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT 7-1

FIRE PROTECTION 8-1

FLIGHT CONTROLS. 9-1

FL T. INST AND AIR DATA 10-1

FUEL. 11-1
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HYDRAULICS 12-1

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION 13-1

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES 14-1

NAVIGATION. 15-1

OXYGEN. 16-1

PNEUMATICS. 17-1

POWER PLANT. 18-1

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ii June 1973

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TERMS AND PLACARD ABBREVIATIONS

ACCUM - accumulator CMD - command

ADC - air data computer CMPS - compass

ADI - attitude director indicator COll - collision

AFCS - avionic flight control system CONT - contour

AIDS - airborne integrated data system CPlR - coupler

A/l - Auto/land CPRSR - compressor

AlN - align CRZ - cruize

ALPHA - angle of attack CSD - constant speed drive

ALT - altimeter CTR - center

ALTN - alternate CTS - contrast

ANT - antenna C/W ANN - caution/warning annunci-

ator
APFDS - autopilot flight director system
CWS - control wheel steering C
APR - approach

APU - auxiliary power unit DET - detector

AS/M - airspeed/Mach DEV - deviation

ASYM - asymmetry DH - decision height

ATM - air turbine motor DISC - disconnect

ATS - autothrust system DISCH - discharge

ATT - attitude or cabin attendant DLC - di rect Iift control

BRG - bearing ECS - environmental control

system
BPP - bus protection panel
EPR - engine pressure ratio
BTB - bus tie breaker
EVAC - evacuation

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 June 1973 iii

( FCES - fl ight control electronics system OVHT - overheat

FD - flight director OVRD - override

FLTDIR - fl ight di rector OVSP - overspeed

FLR - flare OXY - oxygen

GA - go around PFCS - primary flight control system

GB - generator breaker PMG - permanent magnet generator

GCU - generator control unit PPH - pound per hour

GFR - generator field relay PTU - power transfer unit

GO ARND - go around
RAT - ram air turbine

HDG - heading RCCB - remote control circuit breaker

HSI - horizontal situation indicator RCDR - recorder

Hz - cycles per second R NAV - area navigation

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RIO - roll out
IDG - integrated drive generator
RSVR - reservoir
INBD - inboard
RT - receiver transmitter
IND - indicator

INST - instru ment SAS - stability augmentation system

INT - interphone SCS - speed control system

ISLN - isolation SEL - select or selector

SERV - service
KW - kilo watts
SPLRS - spoilers
KVA - kilo volt amperes
S/O - shutoff
KVAR - kilo volt amperes reactive
SSC - static system correction

LRS :- load relief system STBY - standby

SWP - sweep
( SYNC - synchronize
iv June 1973

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MEM - memory TB - tie breaker

MIG - microphone TFR - transfer

MNL - manual TGT - turbine gas temperature

MON - monitor T/R - transformer rectifier

TRANS - transit

VIB - vibration TURB - turbulence or turbine

VS - vertical speed

(
 June 1973 1-1

AIRCRAFT GENERAL

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CREWMEMBER SEATS

Seats for the flight crew are adjustable to satisfy the vision and reach requirements of the flight crew.

CAPTAIN'S AND FIRST OFFICER'S SEATS

Seats for the captain and first officer are power-adjustable horizontally and vertically using a 4-way
toggle switch. An adjacent pushbutton safety switch must be held in for the 4-way switch to operate.
A manual 4-way adjustment lever is provided to override the electrical controls.

SECOND OFFICER'S SEAT

The second officer's seat is adjustable diagonally along the floor tracks, vertically, and five inches along
the axis of the seat pan. The seat can be swivelled 210 degrees on its base and locked in any of five
positions.

OBSERVERS' SEATS

Seats for two observers are provided in the fl ight station. The first observer's seat is elevated to provide
the occupant with over-the-shoulder view of pilot activity. The second observer's seat, located just left
of the entry door has a folding seat bottom that stows when not in use.

PILOTS' EYE LOCATOR

( The pilot's eye position locator is a two-way sighting device mounted below the compass on the wind-
shield center post. It is used to locate the pilot's eyes in the design eye position for optimum runway
visibility and an unobstructed view of the instrument panels. The design eye position is attained in two
stages. The captain or first officer centers himself in his seat in a comfortably slumped position. He
rotates his head to face the locator and uses both eyes for sighting.

Operating the electric controls, he first adjusts his seat vertically. The proper height is attained when
each of the two white horizontal bands is equally visible above and beneath the black triangular
dividing plane.

Operating the electric controls, he then adjusts his seat longitudinally (forward) without changing his
body-head-eye position relationship. The proper station line is attained when the white vertical
band appears equally divided by the black index rod.

Eye position error will be produced either by sighting with either eye closed, or by facing forward
and rotating the eyes.

A two-position pushbutton switch on the eyebrow panel above the windshield controls the lights in the
eye locator for illumination at night. Circuit breakers at I L19 and 2E1 labeled EYE LCT and APRCH
CHART protect the eye locator circuitry.

FLIGHT STATION DOOR

The flight station door is electrically locked whenever power is on the aircraft. A door release,
momentary pushbutton switch on the pilots' center console releases the lock so that the door can be
( opened from the cabin side. A circuit breaker at 2F9 (DOOR LATCH R LSE) protects the door
locking circuitry.
1·2 June 1973

AIRCRAFT GENERAL
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ON·BOARD WEIGHT AND BALANCE SYSTEM

The weight and balance system measures the aircraft gross weight (GW) in pounds and computes the
center of gravity (CG) as a percent of mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) when the aircraft is on the
ground. However, the system must not be used for dispatch purposes at this time. It may be used to
cross·check dispatch figures and for en route estimates if properly operating.

The computer/indicator contains all the system controls, displays, indicators, and computing circuitry.
The computer/indicator is mounted on the second officer's lower instrument panel.

APPROACH CHART HOLDERS

Two approach charts and four approach chart holders are provided in the flight station. One approach
chart and two holders are for the captain and the other approach chart and two holders are for the first
officer. One of the two chart holders for each pilot is attached to his side console and the other is
attached to his control column.

The approach chart holders are similar to a clipboard. The charts are removable and have a plastic cover.

Each chart holder is wired to provide backlighting for the charts.

A rheostat in the circuit adjusts light intensity. Circuit breakers at IL 19 and 2E1, labeled EYE LCT
and APRCH CHART, protect the lighting circuitry.

FLIGHT ATTENDANTS' STATIONS (

Each flight attendant's station includes the following:

Passenger call indicator lights.

Crew interphone system including handset.
One automatically presented oxygen mask operated in conjunction with the passenger supple·
mental oxygen system.
A portable oxygen unit for emergency and first aid uses.
FASTEN SEAT BELT and NO SMOK ING sign in view of the seated flight attendant.
Evacuation signal panel.

In addition, the forward and aft left side attendant's stations, which are the main stations, include the
following equipment:

Passenger address microphone

Portable self·powered megaphone
Cabin lighting controls
Boarding music and audio controls
Emergency lights switch
(
Ground service bus ON·OFF switches on forward attendants' panel only.
 1-3
June 1973

AIRCRAFT GENERAL
(

EMERGENCY DOOR L4,(P5)

(
FLIGHT COMPARTMENT HATCH FORWARD ELECTRONIC SERVICE
CENTER DOOR

PASSENGER DOOR R1 (P2) \

PASSENGER DOOR R2 (P3)

MID ELECTRICAL
SERVICE CENTER DOOR ""
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HYDRAULIC SERVICE ",
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CENTER FORWARD DOOR

CENTER CARGO DOOR C2

DOOR LOCATIONS
1-4 June 1973

AIRCRAFT GENERAL

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CARGO, BAGGAGE, AND SERVICE COMPARTMENTS

Three class 0 cargo compartments are accessible through doors installed on the right side of the aircraft.
The forward and center compartments can be used for containerized or bulk cargo, the aft compartment
is for bulk cargo only.

ACCESSORIES COMPARTMENTS

Four separate service center compartments, located under the floor of the cabin and cockpit contain
avionics equipment, environmental control system equipment, electrical equipment, and hydraulic
system components. The service centers are lighted and equipped with a service interphone jack for
communicating with the cockpit. The forward electronics compartment is accessible in flight from an
opening in the floor of the flight compartment, and the main electrical load center is accessible from a
door at the aft end of the galley.

COMPARTMENT AND SERVICE DOORS

Avionics compartment - The avionics compartment in the forward nose section has an exterior door.
The door has a push·to·release rotating handle. When opened, the door moves up and aft. This gives
access to the compartment and, via a fixed ladder on the aft bulkhead, gives access to the flight station
through a hatch in the flight station floor.

Cargo compartments - The cargo compartment doors are on the right side of the fuselage. The doors
are mechanically unlatched and opened electrically. The doors open out and upward.
(
Galley - The galley service door opens in and upward. This door allows access to the galley, the
electrical center and the cabin.

Electrical center - A double door provides access to the electrical center from the outside. The first
door is in the forward wing fillet and has a push·to·release handle to open the door out and up. This
gives access to a plug door that has a rotating handle and the door opens in and up.

LIGHT SYSTEM DESCRIPTION

GENERAL

The aircraft lighting system is comprised of five major subdivisions. These include the cockpit, cabin,
cargo and service compartments, exterior lighting and emergency lighting. Fluorescent lights or incan·
descent lights are used as requirements dictate. The emergency lighting system uses incandescent lights
as does most of the exterior lighting.

Among the operational improvements incorporated in the 1011 is the selection of unfiltered white light
for instruments and information panels in preference to red lighting.

All instruments, information panels, annunciators and lighted indicators have the ability to replace lamps
from the front of the mounting panel. Illuminated switch lights, both square and rectangular, are used
in the cockpit and have front face lamp replacement capability without the use of tools. The legends of
warning, caution and advisory lights are visible only when the indicator is energized.

Separate lighting controls are provided at each crew position. The captain's and first officer's controls
are located in the glareshield, center console, overhead console and eyebrow panel. The engineer's (
controls are located in the lower left portion of his console.
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EXTERIOR LIGHTS INTERIOR LIGHTS <-

EMERGENCY STANDBY

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 June 1973 1-7

AIRCRAFT GENERAL

(
COCKPIT

The cockpit lighting system is a white unfiltered source with the exception of color coded advisory
lights_ Lights installed in the cockpit include instrument, overhead panel and console flood, integral
panel, advisory and utility lights_

INSTRUMENT LIGHTS

All instruments in the cockpit are back lighted_ An OFF-BRT switch for each crew member's panel
controls the intensity_ The magnetic compass is equipped with a separate OFF-BRT control. A
thunderstorm switch on the pilots' eyebrow panel increases all dimmed lighting to maximum intensity,
regardless of each intensity control setting.

OVERHEAD LIGHTS

The single overhead dome light provides general lighting and has a separate dimming control on the pilots'
overhead lighting control panel.

PANEL AND CONSOLE FLOODLIGHTS

Hi intensity fluorescent lights with separate dimming controls are used to floodlight the pilots' instrument
panels. Circuit breaker lighting is provided with a independent dimming control operated by the engineer.
Controls for the panel and console floodlights are located on the captain's and first officer's glareshield
( side panels. An OFF-BRT switch for the panel lights and another for the flood lights control the center
console. .

PANEL LIGHTS

All control panels on the center console, overhead console, side console, eyebrow panels, engineer's con-
sole and instrument panels are edge lighted by lamps. The OFF-BRT control on the pilots' eyebrow
panel controls the panel lights. The captain's instrument panel and the center instrument panel brightness
is controlled by the OFF-BRT control on the captain's glareshield. The first officer's instrument panel
and the center instrument panel brightness is controlled by the OFF-BRT control on first officer's
glareshield.

UTILITY LIGHTS

Individual utility lights are provided for each crew member and two ACM's. Each light has an adjustable
beam and dimming control. DIM-BRT UTI L controls for the captain and first officer are located on the
respective glareshield side panels. The engineer's utility light control is on his console. The ACM's
light controls are located at their positions.

ANNUNCIATOR SYSTEM

Annunciator lights include all of the warning-(red), caution-(amber) and advisory lights (white, blue or
green) located in the cockpit. The captain or first officer can check all annunciator lights by means of
an ON test switch and BRT/DIM switch on the lighting control panel for the overhead console. The
( engineer has a similar pair of switches on the lighting panel at his station.
1-8 June 1973

AIRCRAFT GENERAL

(
CABIN

Lights are provided for lighting of the cabin entrance areas, storage areas, lavatory compartments and the
buffet area. Sidewall lighting is provided by fluorescent assemblies over the windows along each side of
the aircraft_ Controls for dimming are at the forward left flight attendant's panel. The CEI LlNG-OFF-
B RT control is also at this panel. Self illuminated switches marked CEI LING, WINDOW, MASTE R
ENTRY, AISLE, MASTER LAV, LAV CAll RESET GROUND SERVICE ON, GROUND SERVICE OFF,
and EMER, control the lights or perform the indicated function. The emergency light system may be
activated from the cockpit, forward attendant or aft attendant's position panels.

EXTERIOR LIGHTS

This includes anti-collision, strobe, runway turnoff, landing and taxi, position, and leading edge wing
lights_

ANTI-COLLISION LIGHTS

Two rotating lights are installed side by side on the bottom and two on the top of the fuselage,
controlled by an ON-OFF ANTI COll switch on the pilot's eyebrow panel.

STROBE LIGHTS

The strobe lighting system consists of high intensity white strobe lightings at each wingtip position.
This mounted fixture provides full coverage around the horizon, and is controlled by an ON-OFF (
STROBE switch on the eyebrow panel.

RUNWAY TURNOFF LIGHTS

The two fixed position runway turnoff lights are installed in the leading edge of each wing fuselage fillet.
They provide a wide beam for side and forward lighting while taxiing and serve as ground floodlights
during servicing. An ON-OFF RUNWAY TURNOFF toggle switch is located on the eyebrow panel.

lANDING AND TAXI LIGHTS

Two landing lights are installed, one in each wing fuselage fillet. These are fixed lights as are two fixed
lights installed on the nose landing gear. Separate toggle switches control the landing lights, nose landing
lights and taxi lights. These switches are on the eyebrow panel, labeled WING lANDING (left, right)
and NOSE WHEEL (landing, taxi).

POSITION LIGHTS

Forward and rear position Iights are provided on the wingtips, controlled by a switch on the eyebrow
panel, labeled POSITION. The high intensity strobe light assemblies are mounted in the aft position
lights, but are independent.

WING FLOOD LIGHTS

The wing flood lights are placed on each forward side of the fuselage to illuminate the wing leading
edge and the engine air inlet lip. The lights provide a visual check for icing conditions and ground crew
servicing. A switch marked WING FLOOD is located on the eyebrow panel. (
 June 1973 1-9

AIRCRAFT GENERAL

(
1. Where are strobe lights located?

a_ On top and underneath aircraft.

b. On either side of tail.
c. Part of rear position lights on wing tips.

2. Where are engineer's light controls located?

a. Lower left portion of engineer's panel.

b. CBs panel.
c. Overhead panel.

3. What is the purpose of the thunderstorm switch and where is it located?

a. Located on overhead console and turns on large white dome light in cockpit.
b. Located on pilot's eyebrow panel increases all cockpit lighting to maximum intensity.
c. Located on glareshield and emergency escape 'cockpit hatch light comes on, when pressed.

4. How can wing icing conditions be checked at night or in low visibility conditions?

a. Turn on ICE lights.

(
b. Turn on WING FLOOD lights.
c. Turn on STROBE lights.

SWITCH LIGHT

The term switch light is used to identify an assembly consisting of a push-button switch and a lens
cap with a back lighted legend or flow bar.

These switches are available in a four lamp square configuration or a two lamp rectangular configu-
ration. The switches are either the momentary type or the two position, push-on-push-off type.

Rectangular lenses consist of only one legend. Square lenses may be divided to form two legends
(split screen) to indicate more than one condition, such as ON and FAI L, or OPEN and CLOSED.
Different colors and types of legend may be mixed on the same square lens.

The lens assembly is gripped by the edges and pulled out of the switch housing to replace lamps, if
necessary. If this action is required in flight, caution should be used to prevent activating switch when
the assembly is put back in the switch housing. In some cases, the associated CB should be pulled first.
Lamp replacement in-flight will not normally be required, because each lens assembly contains two
or four lamps.

1. How many lamps are there in switch lights?

a. Only one.
(
1-10 June 1973

AIRCRAFT GENERAL

(
b_ Always two_
c_ Either two or four_

2_ Is there any danger when replacing switch light lamps?

a_ Yes, switch might be activated_

b_ No.

i
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(
 June 1973 1-11

AIRCRAFT GENERAL

(
ANSWER SHEET

LIGHTS

Description

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (b)

Switch Light

1. (c)

2. (a)

(
\,
 June 1973 2·1

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION

(
AIR CONDITIONING

AIR CONDITIONING PACKS

The 1011 has three packs, with crossbleed shutoff valves available to divide system into separate
units for any abnormal operation or system check.

Examination of pack No.2 will be made here with the understanding that the other packs operate the
same way except for very minor differences.

PACK FLOW CONTROL VALVE

The pack flow control valve maintains a scheduled air mass into its pack. It is electrically de·
energized to open with air pressure. When the valve is open, the flowbar is illuminated. Before air is
supplied, the only way to determine whether switch is on or not is to note that the switch is "in" to
arm valve to allow air through the valve. Other half of switch contains an OVHT malfunction light.
The valve will close automatically anytime the related AMC or PACK overheats or an excessive
airflow occurs.

PACK MINIMUM COOLING

Air passes through a primary and secondary heat exchanger. The amount of cooling is controlled by
the ram exit valve position and the outside temperature. The valve opening is controlled automatically
by its temperature control system.
(
RAM EXIT VALVE POSITION INDICATOR

The inlet air scoop to each set of heat exchangers is a fixed opening, exit valves control the cooling
airflow. The ram exit valve is normally controlled automatically by selection of the AUTO position
of the AUTO/MN L switch. This switch can represent the ACM on the panel schematic and will
process the air and send it to the cabin. The relative position of the exit valve is shown on the RAM
air position indicator.

With the ram exit valve full open for maximum cooling, any additional cooling must come from the
ACM. The turbine bypass valve will not modulate toward close. This forces air through the ACM
turbine to drive the compressor and ram air fan which is mounted on a common shaft. On the ground
the ram air exit valves are driven full open. Any cooling while on the ground will have to be provided
by the ACM, as the ram fan will not force air through the heat exchangers unless the turbine is
turning.

TURBINE BYPASS VALVE POSITION INDICATOR

The turbine bypass valve is held full open until the ram air exit valve is maximum open. The more
cooling that is required, the more the valve closes. This forces more air through the turbine, compress·
ing the air to higher temperatures and pressures. The secondary heat exchanger will now be able to
extract more heat. Each pack produces the air temperature required by the zone with the greatest
cooling demand. The valve will go to the 11 o'clock indicator position anytime its flow control valve
is closed.

(
2·2 June 1973

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION

(
RAM EXIT VALVE AND TURBINE BYPASS VALVE PRE·POSITIONING

The ram exit valves and the turbine bypass valves are designed to go to predetermined positions during the
various phases of pack operation. This improves efficiency and cuts down noise. The following is a list of
pack conditions and the relative pre·positions.

PACK SHUT DOWN· IN FLIGHT - The ram exit valve will go to the 1:00 position and the turbine
bypass valve will move to the 11 :00 position.

PACK SHUT DOWN· ON GROUND - The ram exit valve will go full cold when the aircraft lands
and is not effected by pack shut down but the turbine bypass valve move to the 11 :00 position.

PACK AUTO· ON GROUND - The ram exit valve will go full cold and the turbine bypass valve will
modulate between the full warm and full cold.

MODULATING
RANGE

PACK AUTO· IN FLIGHT - The ram exit valve will modulate between the full warm and 1 :00
position. The turbine bypass valve will modulate through its entire range of travel.

TUR8SYP RAM AIR

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MODULATING
RANGE -\l
 June 1973 2-3

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION

(
WATER SEPARATOR

The water separator is automatic in operation. With its discharge temperature less than 4 0 C, a rise in
pressure across the unit signals an icing problem. The turbine bypass valve opens enough to melt the ice.
Water from the separator is collected and sprayed over the secondary cooler.

COMPRESSOR BYPASS CHECK VALVE

Anytime the compressor is working, its discharge pressure is higher than inlet pressure therefore it back
pressures the compressor bypass check valve and forces all air to go through the compressor.

HOT AIR MANIFOLD

A source of warm air is required to add to those zones needing additional heating, as all packs provide air
of a temperature required by the zone having the greatest cooling demand. Pack 2 and 3 are used to
supply this hot air.

Primary heat exchanger output is tapped, and hot manifold temperature is normally 1100 C.

HOT AIR VALVE

The hot air valve regulates to maintain a constant stable temperature in the manifold of 1100 C. It does
this by sensing the temperature of the air going to the manifold and adds enough uncooled air to maintain
the desired temperature. It is electrically de-energized to open with air pressure.

( The hot air valve is closed anytime the pack flow control valve is closed. If the hot air valve is closed the
manifold will continue to receive warm air, but not controlled to a constant temperature. Both hot air
valves will close automatically anytime the hot air manifold temperature becomes excessive.

HOT AIR ISOLATION VALVE

The hot air isolation valve allows the isolation of a malfunctioning system. It is electrically energized
to open with air pressure, and would be closed anytime the pack flow control valve is closed or whenever
an overheat occurs in the avionics compartment.

ZONE TRIM VALVES

Each of the hot air distribution ducts has a motor driven trim valve. It controls the amount of hot air
being added to each zone distribution duct coming from the cold plenum. All or any of the valves may
be closed by releasing its switch. When released, the light is armed to come on when the valve is fully
closed. When the zone trim valve is closed,its temperature control signal is removed from the
temperature control.

ZONE AIR DISTRIBUTION

Each of the five zones receive their main supply of air from the cold air plenum. The temperature of
the air is set by the zone requiring the coldest air. The zone asking for the coldest air would normally
have its trim valve closed while all the rest would be open in varying amounts depending upon
temperature requirements.

(
2-4 June 1973

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION

(
Because of the plenum construction, the galley and cockpit receive their air from pack 1_ Pack 1 is
programmed by the coldest temperature required by any zone. This will normally be either the galley or
cockpit. The cabin zone required the coldest temperature will set the temperature in pack 2 and 3.
With pack 1 off, pack 2 will then be controlled by the zone requiring for the coldest temperature.

ZONE TEMPERATURE SELECTOR

The temperature of the air delivered to each zone is set by its zone control knob. The mid-position is
75 0 F and each index either side represents 5 0 F so the range would be 65 0 F to 85 0 F.

MANUAL TEMPERATURE CONTROL

Release of the pack AUTO/MNL switch will cause MNL to illuminate. The COOL-WARM switches are
now armed to directly control the position of the turbine bypass and ram exit valve position system.

When the COOL switch is pressed, the ram exit valve and turbine bypass will move toward cool in the
proper sequence. That is, ram exit valve full open first. The indication of valve operation can be seen on
the position indicator. The automatic ice protection for the water separator is not available during this
mode of operation. Also, the automatic prepositioning of the Ram Doors and Turbo Bypass Valves are
lost.

When the HOT switch is pressed, the ram exit valve and turbine bypass will move toward warm in proper
sequence., that is the turbine bypass valve will first move to the full open position.

ECS TEMPERATURE SELECTOR SWITCH AND PACK SELECT SWITCH

(
By selecting the pack and its ACM discharge temperature, a comparison can be made with other ACM pack
performance.

PACK OVERHEAT

The pack trips off on an overheat and the flow control valve closes. The hot air and isolation valves also
lock closed. OVHT light illuminates in pack flow switch, and it will go out when the overheat condition
no longer exists. A temperature of 215 0 C at the ACM compressor discharge, or 98 0 C at the ACM
discharge will trip the pack.

PACK TRIP ACTION

If a pack does trip, the ECS temperature gauge can be used to monitor the compressor and the ACM
discharge temperature. To place pack in operation again, cycle the pack flow switch. Select pack to
warmer temperature if.required. Cycle the hot air and isolation valve switches to place them in operation.

HOT AIR MANIFOLD OVERHEAT

An overheat in the hot air manifold 145 0 C will cause a trip. Both hot air valves lock closed. The DUCT
OVHT light will come on and remain on as long as the overheat exits. Select ECS temperature monitor
to HOT MAN F and monitor the temperature.

HOT AIR MANIFOLD ACTION

After the OCT OVHT light goes out, select one hot air valve and cycle the switch. Monitor temperature, (
if temperature rises toward another trip, close the valve and open the other valve and monitor temper-
ature.
 June 1973 .2-5

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION

(
AVIONICS COMPARTMENT HOT

If the avionics compartment temperature overheats both hot air isolation valves lock closed. This could
be caused by a duct leak. All trim valves in compartment would attempt to react to the problem but now
there is no source of air with the hot air isolation valves locked close. OVHT in both hot air isolation
switches will illuminate, but will go out as soon as the avionics compartment cools. This situation could
occur with an aircraft at the ramp on a very hot day. The switches must be cycled to restore operation.

CONDITIONED AIR

Two ground connections are provided underneath the ACM section. Pre-conditioned air may be introduced
directly into the cold plenum from an external source.

RAM/AUTO SWITCH

The normal position of the ram exit valve on the ground is full open. The turbine bypass modulates as
required for cooling or heating. When the RAM/AUTO switch is released, the RAM AUTO light will
illuminate, and the ram air exit valves will be in the auto mode. They will close as necessary to provide
heating.

The APU in minimum mode could keep the aircraft warm for long periods of time. The APU maximum
mode could be selected to provide a fast warm up.

FLOOR HEAT
( An automatic electric blanket is installed for floor heat under the floor panels in those areas that are over
the unpressurized wheel well, hydraulic compartment and over the wing center section. Excessive floor
temperature de-energizes heater elements and causes FAI L to be illuminated. Pressing switch twice resets
system.

ECS MONITOR SYSTEM

The ECS MONITOR panel provides the means to monitor various temperatures throughout each of the
ACMs, and airflow into each pack. Points in the system that can be selected to the temperature gauge
are:

PACK INLET - Just as the air enters crossbleed manifold.

COMPRESSOR DISCHARGE - As air leaves compressor

TURBINE INLET - As air leaves the secondary heat exchanger.

ACM DISCHARGE - As air enters the water separator.

HOT AIR MANIFOLD - Only on pack 2 and 3, before air enters the hot air manifold.

The PACK FLOW indicator shows the amount of air leaving the pack in cubic feet-per-minute. This rate
does not account for hot manifold air.

DUCT/ZONE SELECTOR SWITCH

(
The switch allows the selection of either the duct temperature of air going into the selected cabin zone or
the temperature of the air in the particular cabin zone.
2-6 June 1973

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION
{
\
DUCT AREA OVERHEAT LOOP SELECTOR SWITCH

Pressing the TEST button will illuminate all seven area overheat lights and the wing DUCT FAI L system
lights. Each light monitors a specific duct segment area for an overheat condition. Each duct area is
covered by two loop sensors. Either loop sensing an over temperature will illuminate its light and the
AREA/DUCT OVERHEAT light.

An over temperature sensed around the ducts from the engine isolation valve to the crossbleed and flow
control valve for systems 1 and 3, will illuminate. The respective area overheat light ("D" for engine
No.1 and "E" for engine No.3). When this malfunction occurs manually close the respective engine
isolation and crossbleed valves.

An over temperature sensed around the duct from the engine isolation valve to the ATM isolation valve
for system No.2 will illuminate the AREA OVERHEAT light "J". When this malfunction occurs
manually close the engine isolation valve and the ATM isolation valve.

If the APU is supplying the air, manually close the APU "B LEED AI R S/O" valve. This will isolate the
air at the aft portion of the fuselage area including the two cargo heat exchangers, APU and system "B"
ATM. An over temperature sensed around the duct from the ATM isolation wive to the crossbleed and
No.2 pack flow control valve, will illuminate the AREA OVERHEAT light "H". When this malfunction
occurs manually close the ATM isolation valve and both crossbleed valves.

The ducts from each pack flow control valve runs forward through the forward cargo compartment and
the forward cargo heat exchanger. An over temperature sensed around a duct will illuminate the related
AREA OVERHEAT light (A, B or C). Since the ducts are located close together in their runs, the duct
sensors are rigged so that if one senses an overheat it will inhibit the others from providing a signal. (
If a duct leak occurs in the heat exchanger compartment a separate sensor wfll turn on all three pack
AREA OVERHEAT lights (A, B and C).

PACK SHUT DOWN FROM EXCESSIVE FLOW

A sensor just upstream on the pack flow valve will automatically close the proper valves to isolate the pack
if a large change in flow occurs or an excessive flow is sensed.

If Pack 1 flow is excessive the No.1 engine isolation, the left crossbleed and its pack flow valve locks closed.
The DUCT PRESSURE INDICATOR will drop to zero.

If Pack 2 flow is excessive, both crossbleeds, the aft fuselage isolation valve the No.2 pack flow valves and
the respective hot air and hot air isolation valves close.

If Pack 3 flow is excessive the No.3 engine isolation, right crossbleed, its pack flow valve, hot air and hot
air isolation valve closes.

CARGO COMPARTMENT HEATING

Each cargo compartment is heated to 65 0 F by a fan blowing its air over a heat exchanger. Heat is supplied
by the bleed ducts. The aft and mid-compartment use bleed from engine 2. The forward compartment
uses all three bleeds.

COLD AND HOT CARGO HEAT SWITCHES

{,
The CO LD light is on anytime the compartment is below 45 0 F. The HOT light is on anytime the temper-
ature is above 95 0 F. The fan turns off automatically if the HOT light is on, then when the HOT light
 June 1973 2-7

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION

goes out the fan starts. With the switch off, the fan is off and the HOT light is disarmed and COLD light
armed.

AVIONIC AIR

The cooling air overboard valves are normally closed in flight and open on the ground. The cooling air
overboard valves are a mass flow valve when open. A fan operates at all times to move air to the cargo
cheek compartment area and overboard through the outflow valves. A pressure differential switch across
the fan will open the cooling air overboard valve if the fan is not operating. A flow sensor in the duct will
turn on a low flow light if low flow is sensed.

The OVBD light is illuminated anytime the respective cooling air overboard valve is open. It is normally
open on the ground. It will come on in flight if the respective fan malfunctions.

The LO FLOW light is illuminated anytime flow in the duct is too warm or flow is restricted. Solution
would be to reduce electrical loads.

GALLEY AIR

The galley ovens and galley area are vented overboard through a mass flow outflow valve that is opened
at all times. A fan in the duct runs continuously and will provide ventilation when on the ground.

COOL AIR OVERBOARD SWITCH

( The cool air overboard switch controls overboard cooling air valves from galley and avionics compart-
ments, when CLOSE is illuminated, the galley overboard valve and both avionics compartment valves
are closed. This switch should be used only if pressurization becomes a problem.

(
2-8 June 1973

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION

(
1. What does the PACK F LOW indicator display?

a. Total airflow input to ACM turbine.

b. Air output of selected pack.

c. Total air output of operating packs.

2. What direction would the turbine bypass valve be moving with pointer moving toward COOLER.

a. Close.

b. Open.

c. Same as ram air exit valve.

3. What occurs to the hot air and isolation valves anytime the pack flow control valve is closed?

a. Hot air valve opens, isolation valve close.

b. Both open.

c. Both close.

4. What occurs to the hot air valve if the associated pack flow control valve closes? (
a. It always goes to opposite position.

b. It is held open.

c. It is held close.

5. How do the CABIN TEMP CONTROL zone temperature selectors control temperature of respective
zone?

a. By adjusting amount of hot manifold air being added by the zone trim valve or modifying the
pack output temperature.

b. Always by opening ram air exit valve and closing turbine bypass valves.

c. Always by closing ram air exit valve and opening turbine bypass valves.

6. What occurs when COOL pushbutton is pressed and the pack auto/manual switch is out with MNL
illuminated?

a. Ram air exit valve closes and turbine bypass valve opens.

b. Ram air exit valve opens and turbine bypass valve opens.

c. Ram air pointer moves toward COO LER until valve is full open; then turbine bypass pointer
moves toward COOLER.
 June 1973 2-9

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION
(
7_ What is indicated by the OVHT illuminated on the pack flow control switch?

a_ Hot air manifold overheated_

b_ Overheat in the pack compressor discharge on pack outlet.

c_ Over temperature around ducts from pack flow control valve to ACM.

8. What is the purpose of the RAM/AUTO switch?

a. Locks ram air exit valves in open position.

b. Permits faster warm up of cold-soaked aircraft on the ground.

c Controls pack flow control valve to schedule a mass airflow.

9. How may the FLOOR HEAT system be reset with a FAI L indication?

a. Technical services action required.

b. Press AREA OVHT test button.

c. Press switch twice.

( 10. What occurs to the hot air valve if DUCT OVHT is illuminated?

a. It is held close.

b. It is held open.

c. It always goes to opposite position.

2·10 June 1973

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION
(
ANSWER SHEET

1. b

2. a

3. c

4. c

5. a

6. c

7. b

8. b

9. c

10. a
 June 1973 2·11

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION

(
CABIN PRESSURIZATION CONTROL

The altitude select indicator and knob can be used to set the selected cabin flight altitude. F LT shows
preset aircraft altitude. CAB shows cabin altitude when pressurized to maximum differential.

The barometric correction indicator and knob programs the pressurization controller.

NORMAL Normal operation would have the MODE SEL switch in NORMAL, the NORM RATE knob
in detent at the dot. This will provide the 500 FPM climb and 300 FPM descent. Rotating
the knob out of the detent increases or decreases cabin rate of change. Maximum would be
,1500 FPM climb and 900 FPM descent. Cabin altitude will level off at preselected cruise
altitude.

The outflow valves automatically open on the ground. In flight the forward valve will not
close beyond dot until the aft valve closed. Provides evacuation of electronics cooling air.

STANDBY . If the normal pressurization system fails, selecting the MODE SEL switch to STBY will pro·
vide modified automatic control. The STBY RATE knob now would provide selection of
cabin altitude rate change. The HOLD position will maintain zero rate of cabin change.
That is, it will attempt to program cabin altitude that existed at that time. Move the knob
in either direction to get a rate change. Will maintain selected rate without any knowledge
of cabin altitude. Will not be limited to normal maximum differential.

MANUAL If the normal or standby systems are unable to control pressure use the MANUAL selector
switches. Pressed in, the MNL light is illuminated and the outflow valve manual switches
( are armed. The OPEN· CLOSE momentary position allows direct control of the respective
valve using different electric motors. As long as the switch is held in either direction the
outflow valve motor will move the valve.

OUTFLOW VALVE DRIVE

The standby and normal modes use the AC motor while the manual system uses the DC motor. The DC
motor is powered from the standby bus. Anytime the cabin exceeds 11,500 feet the normal system will
close both outflow valves until altitude below 11,000 feet.

AUTO FAULT LIGHT

When the actual aircraft is above 14,000 feet and either or both outflow valves open too far, the
FAULT light illuminates. AC power is removed from the normal/standby AC motor.

The manual selector switch should be pressed selecting MN L and the outflow valve returned to a normal
position using the OPEN or CLOSE outflow valve manual switches. The FAULT light will go out when
the valve is returned to its normal position.

If the fault was momentary, the manual selector switches could be released to try normal pressurization
system again.

PRESSURE SAFETY VALVE LIGHTS

An over pressure safety valve opening will illuminate the respective OPEN light. When the pressure
( safety valve opens the outer cover of the valve stays open even after the valve itself closes.
2-12 June 1973

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION

CABIN ALTITUDE HORN CUTOUT SWITCH

If the cabin exceeds 10,000 feet the cabin altitude horn sounds_ The HORN CUTOUT switch will silence
the horn.

1. What position would the outflow valves be in on the ground with mode selector switch in NORM?

a. Fully closed.

b. Fully open.

c. Returns to a cruise flight position.

2. What occurs with the mode select switch in NORM and normal rate knob in detent.

a. Cabin will follow aircraft altitude.

b. Cabin will ascend at 500 FPM and descend at 300 FPM.

c. Cabin will level off at maximum cabin altitude.

3. What would cause the Auto FAULT light on the Cabin Pressure control panel to come on during
cruise flight?

a. Either or both outflow valves open beyond maximum limits and aircraft altitude above f
14,000 feet. \

b. When the Aft outflow valve closes before the Fwd outflow valve closes.

c. Failure of the Auto Mode Selector when aircraft is above 14,000 feet.

4. Where will the cabin altitude level off with mode select switch in NORM and normal rate knob in
detent?

a. At maximum cabin altitude.

b. At pressure differential relief altitude.

c. At preselected cruise altitude.

5. What do the pressure SAFETY VALVE lights indicate when illuminated?

a. System is performing correctly, pressurization normal.

b. Respective safety valve is open.

c. System negative pressure relief is occurring.

{
(
 June 1973 2-13

AIR CONDITIONING/PRESSURIZATION
(
ANSWER SHEET

1. b

2_ b

3_ a

4_ c

5. b

(
(
"
 June 1973 3-1

AUTOFLIGHT

(
GENERAL

The L-1011 Avionic Flight Control System (AFCS) consists of four major sUb-systems. Autopilot-Flight
Director System (APFDS), Flight Control Electronics System (FCES), Stability Augmentation System
(SASl, and Speed Control System (SCS). Each sub-system may interface with one or more of the others.

The AFCS is designed to provide automatic or manual modes of control from takeoff to landing rollout.
The automatic modes are available for both autopilot and flight director except for takeoff, which is a
flight director mode only.

AUTOPILOT-FLIGHT DIRECTOR

The autopilot-flight directors consist of two dual channel computers. Autopilot flight director A has
two identical pitch and roll computers combined into a single system. If one channel fails, the other
automatically provides normal operation. Autopilot-flight director B is a separate unit that operates in
the same manner as the A computer. All number one system inputs, such as vertical gyro No.1, com-
pass No.1 and air data computer No.1, are hard wired to autopilot-flight director A. All number two
system inputsGre hard wired to autopilot-flight director B. The only exception is during VOR opera-
tion. Both autopilot-flight directors A and B, may be selected to either the No.1 or No.2 VHF NAV
receiver when both receivers are tuned to a VO R frequency.

These dual channel computers are the equivalent to four of the older autopilot-flight director systems.
However, a new feature provides just one set of heading-pitch-NAV mode switches for control inputs
into both autopilots and flight directors.
( PILOTS GLARE SHIELD

Iloioiolbil 0
VS AU lAS· V NAV HOG

ajl~) ~COURSE
ALmUb
l el
v,", .. m
vo.
(0)
NOR~T8Y
"'ECT

The common control panel is located on the glare shield and is shared by the autopilot-flight directors
and autothrust controls. One set of pitch and NAV mode selectors supply signals to both APFD
computers A and B. Each autopilot-flight director unit can be operated separately or at the same time.

If only flight director A is engaged, the command bars in the captain's attitude director indicator com-
mand attitude hold until a particular NAV or pitch mode is selected. When autopilot A is engaged the
flight director display synchronizes to the autopilot commands. Each autopilot switch controls one
autopilot. Only one autopilot, either A or B, may be engaged at one time except in the autoland (AIL)
mode. Either or both flight directors may be engaged in any selected mode.

(
 3-2 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT

AUTOPILOT ENGAGE
(
Control Wheel Steering (CWS)
The autopilot uses control wheel steering for basic attitude control when no command modes are
engaged_
The control wheel in pitch and roll replaces the manual pitch and roll controls used on older autopilots,
when the aircraft is placed in any reasonable attitude, and when control wheel pressure is released the
autopilot will maintain the new attitude.
Pilot force on the wheel synchronizes all attitude/
heading signals until force is released.
Pitch attitude hold up to ± 18 degrees.
Heading hold with roll angle less than 3 degrees.
Roll attitude hold with roll angle greater than 3 degrees.
Altitude hold mode may be engaged for automatic
control; other modes may be engaged for flight director A B
guidance.
Automatic pitch trim operative except when pitch force is applied to wheel. Normal pitch trim switch
is operative when a pitch force is applied to the control wheel. Pitch trim operation is cut out when
altitude hold is engaged.

COMMAND (CMD)
(
With no modes engaged, operation is the same as in CWS.

Engage any compatible modes for automatic operation.

Modes previously engaged for flight director use become automatic control modes.

Moving switch from CMD to CWS does not disengage modes if at least one flight director switch is on.

Loss of validity of signal source for mode returns switch to CWS position.

Automatic pitch trim is operative and electric pitch trim inoperative.

FLIGHT DIRECTOR ENGAGE

Individual engage switches may be turned on for captain's and first officer's flight director displays.
Captain's display from APFD A: first officer's from APFD B.

Basic engage mode of flight director with autopilot disengaged is attitude hold in pitch and roll.

With flight director engaged in the basic attitude mode, moving either FD switch to the SYNC position
synchronizes the pitch and roll attitude command to the aircraft attitude in both flight directors.

Any APFDS mode except turbulence may be engaged for flight director guidance. If TURB is engaged
command bars go out of view.
 June 1973 3-3

AUTOFLIGHT

(
Flight director modes (except for altitude hold) may be flown with the autopilot in the CWS mode or
disengaged_ Altitude hold is an automatic mode with the A/P in CWS or CMD.

Integrated command computations provide signals for autopilot and flight director controls.

MODE ENGAGEMENT AND ANNUNCIATION

Any of the modes of the APFDS may be engaged by pressing the appropriate engage switches on the
heading/pitch or navigation mode panels. These switches are of the momentary dual contact type; when
actuated, they send a logic pulse to the electronic logic circuits in each of the two computers to effect
engagement of the mode. The mode latching logic circuits then send signals individually to the captain's
and first officer's panels and to the appropriate engage lights to announce that the mode has been
engaged. Modes are engaged in both autopilot-flight directors A and B at the same time, even though
only one may be controlling the aircraft at the moment. Depressing the switch a second time
disengages the mode and removes the annunciation.

HEADING I PITCH MODE NAY MODE

11010101011 0
VS ALT lAS V NAV HOG
11010101011
AIL APR Loe NAV

(
I ,~~II Jjil
1 2001 l\ I
VERT speeD UP
1110 1115111

(0)
HEADING
[11 0 16 10 11)
COURSE

(Oi
SPLIT

~ VOR
1
[110 16 1°111
COURSE

(0)
AFCS MODES

The mechanism which changes the displays on each panel, providing 24 messages (in addition to 12 blanks
indicating inactive status) in the 12 spaces, is the AFCS modes panel. This is a modular device consisting
of two small solenoids which rotate a triangular plastic prism on whose faces the messages are displayed.
The display offers optimum visibility and contrast under all ambient light conditions. Messages do not
wash out in bright sunlight, and wedge lighting assures good nighttime visibility.

TEST AFCS MODES

,
TEST TEST AFCS MODES TEST
1
CDC HDG SEL
1
lOCARM
-='
RNAV

G, V> GSARM AU

Ate VOR A/LARM VOR ARfvl

ALIGN lAS' ALN ARM VNAV

FLARE TURB FLR ARM ALl ARM

GOARND TAKEOFF TEST

ROLLOUT
"

, ,

"
(
3·4 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT
I
t
AFCS WARNING

Two AFCS warning indicators are provided, one above the captain's ADI and one above the first officer's
ADI. The various messages are shown. The alert light flashes whenever a message appears on the indicator.
Alert is reset by pressing switch once, fail message is reset by pressing alert switch twice.

AP DISC ATS DISC

APFDS SCS

NO DUAL NOGA
ATS DISC

l
AP DISC

AP LIMIT. ' NO FLARE

A/P LIMIT NO FLARE
YAWSAS CMD DISC

NO ALIGN CMD DISC

TURBULENCE MODE

This mode will override and disengage all engaged modes except auto/land track, or go·around.

Engagement of TURB will cause the autopilot to revert to CWS, with reduced gains for attitude and CWS
sensing and double the CWS forces required.

Automatic pitch trim keeps aircraft in trim.

TURB may be disengaged only by a second actuation of the TURB switch or by disengaging the autopilot.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. Either AP engaged in CWS or CMD.

2. AP not engaged in A/L track or go·around.

AFCS MODES
,
TEST TEST
2

TUR8

, /.
 June 1973 3·5

AUTOFLIGHT

(
VERTICAL SPEED MODE

Dual reference signals are supplied by air data computers.

VERT SPEED display is synchronized to aircraft vertical speed before engagement. Display is average of
output of two ADCs.

VS mode switch is illuminated, and both annunciator panels show VS on engagement.

Altitude, lAS, or mach hold are disengaged.

Aircraft is controlled to the vertical speed existing at engagement, with manual adjust capability after en-
gagement by use of control knob on the HEADING/PITCH panel.

Vertical speed range is 8000 FPM descent to 4000 FPM climb.

Automatic pitch trim keeps aircraft in trim.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. Either AP engaged in CM D or least one F Don.

2. Glide slope not captured in A/L track mode.

3. TURB mode not engaged.

(

~~ID
TEST AFCS MODE 5 TEST

VS All lAS V-NAY HOG • 1

VS
2

•
II-'~~Ij§\
12001 ± I
VERT SPEED
I\
, .,

AL TlTUDE HOLD MODE

Dual reference signals are supplied by ADCs and are clutched in on mode engagement.

AL T mode switch lights up, and annunciator panels display ALTon engagement.

Vertical speed, lAS, or mach hold are disengaged.

(
3·6 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT

(
Aircraft is controlled to altitude existing at time of engagement.

May be engaged at any rate of descent or climb.

Aircraft kept in trim by automatic pitch trim.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. Either AP engaged in CWS or CMD, or at least one FD on.

2. TURB mode not engaged.

3. Not in A/L mode.

VS ALl lAS V·NAV

oHOG
.' TEST AFCS MODE 5

All
'.
TEST

II::~H;I
±S!
HEADING

~
v , " , SPEED

'l
lAS MODE

Dual reference signals are supplied by ADCs and are clutched in on mode engagement.

lAS mode switch lights up, and annunciator panels display lAS on engagement.

Mach, altitude, or vertical speed hold and/or autothrust are disengaged.

Aircraft is controlled to lAS existing at mode engagement.

Aircraft kept in trim by automatic pitch trim.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. Either AP engaged in CMD, or at least one FD on.

(
\
 June 1973 3-7

AUTOFLIGHT

(
2_ TU R B mode not engaged_

3_ Not in AIL track mode_

TESTAFCS MODE 5 TEST

VS All lAS V-NAV

0 HOG
• 1 2

a I:§ 111*1 111

HEADING

(0)
6

,
'"

' ,

V NAV MODE

Both R NAV systems must be turned on and operating. The V NAV mode may be used only if the NAV
( mode is in use.

When the V Mode is engaged, the aircraft will follow preprogramed vertical guidance which is supplied by
the R NAV system.

Vertical guidance will be provided by the #1 R NAV system if APFDS A is engaged and by the #2
R NAV system if APFDS B is engaged.

V NAV is compatible with autothrust.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. Either AP in CMD or at least one FD on.

2. Both CD Us set to R NAV.

3. NAV engaged.

0 ,
TEST AFCS MODES TEST
2

VS All lAS V-NAV HOG

11:::11 -\rr§
l 111 2 15 16 111 V NAV
HEADING

± I
VCRO ' ' ' ' 0 (0)
,
3·8 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT

HEADING SELECT

Dual reference signals are supplied by two compass systems. Heading selected is reference for both
autopilots and both flight directors.

HDG switch lights up and both annunciator panels display HDG SEL.

Maximum bank angle is limited to 30 degrees. Maximum roll rates limited, and additional smoothing is
provided when heading reference is changed with mode engaged.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. Either AP engaged in CMD, or at least one FD on.

2. TURB mode not engaged.

3. Not in AIL capture or track modes.

IIDlolEJ'lol1
VS ALT lAS V-NAV
•
TEST AFCS
1
MODE 5

HOG SEL
TEST
2

• (

fijI
8 !
VEeT "",0
-\
I
HEADING

, , ,

ALTITUDE ALERT

Altitude alert is independent of autopilot-flight director engagement, With the selector in NORM, the
No.1 ADC provides the aural tone referenced to the altitude selected.

In STBY, the No.2 ADC provides the aural signal.

 June 1973 3·9
AUTOFLIGHT
(
Operation:

1. Select and ARM desired altitude.

2. Fly aircraft to the selected altitude.

3. When within 750 ft of the selected altitude, the altitude light will come on steady.

4. When within 250 ft of the selected altitude, the altitude light will go out and a chord will sound.

5. If deviating the selected altitude by more than 250 ft, the altitude light will flash and the tone will
sound.

Rotation of select knob inhibits visual and aural warnings until new altitude is achieved.

Depressing test switch will inhibit the reset capability and permit a system check by adjusting the select
altitude above indicated altitude.

Alert lights but not aural warniflgs are inhibited below 2500 ft.

ARM

_31
AlTlTUn SElECT

NOA~ST8Y

ALTITUDE SELECT MODE

Dual reference signals are supplied by ADCs.

In NORM position both APs receive signal from the No.1 ADC and barometric pressure correction from
captain's setting; in STBY, both APs receive signal from the No.2 ADC, and barometric pressure correc·
tion from the first officer's setting.

Select desired altitude and arm automatic capture by using ARM switch.

ARM switch lights up, and both annunciator panels display AL T ARM.

(
3·10 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT
(
Aircraft is flown to the selected altitude by CWS or any pitch mode.

Capture is initiated at proper distance from selected altitude to ensure smooth capture, which will occur
at any vertical speed.

Altitude hold mode is automatically engaged when selected altitude is captured, and AL T ARM is
disengaged.

NAV MODE - FOR VOR

(
Select desired receiver with the VOR selector switch ori the NAV mode panel:
1. Split position: Receiver 1 provides VOR data to APFD A.

Receiver 2 provides VOR data to APFD B.

2. Position 1: Receiver 1 provides VOR data to APFD Aand B.

3. Position 2: Receiver 2 provides VOR data to APFD A and B.

Select desired course on NAV mode panel and frequency on receiver corresponding to VOR switch
position.

Arm VOR mode by depressing NAV switch. Switch is illuminated and VOR ARM annunciation appears
on both mode annunciator panels.

Any roll or pitch mode may be used for precapture guidance. Annunciation shows HDG SEL and ALT.

At computer optimum capture point VOR capture engages. VOR ARM annunciation changes to VOR.
HDG SEL is removed.

Beam activity over the VO R station is detected and a station passage mode engages for smooth passage
over the station.

The VOR switch may be used to change radials by setting up the new course and changing switch
positions. i
\
 June 1973 3·11

AUTOFLIGHT
(
Conditions for NAV (VOR) mode engagement are:

1. Either AP in CMD or at least one FD on.

2. Go·around, takeoff, autoland or turbulence not engaged.

3. At least one VHF NAV receiver tuned to a VOR frequency.

VOR MODE ARMED AFTER VOR CAPTURE

NAV MODE

,
I III ~
All APR loe NAV AL~

~
SPLIT 1
0 16 10 111 0 16 10 111

~
111 111
COURSE COURSE

(0)
VOR
(0) ~t=j

(
NAV MODE - R NAV

Both R NAV systems must be turned on and operating.

1. Select R NAV with the RAD/R NAV selectors on both CDUs.

2. Press the NAV switch.

3. Lateral guidance will be provided by the #1 R NAV system if APFDS A is engaged and by the #2
R NAV system if APFDS B is engaged.

Once you have selected NAV, you may select RAD on the CDU which is not being used by the engaged
auto~pilot
in order to restore a VOR display on a single HSI.

(
3·12 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT

LOCALIZER MODE

This mode is useful for long distance localizer capture and track. Glide slope is not available with LOC
mode.

Any roll mode except VOR may be used for precapture guidance. Annunciator panels show HDG SEL
and AL T HOLD.

Select runway heading on both course selectors.

Arm LOC mode by pushing LOC switch. Switch lights up, and LOC ARM appears in both panels.

VOR switch returns to SPLIT position.

At computed optimum capture point, LOC mode engages. LOC ARM annunciation changes to LOC.
HDG SEL removed.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. Either AP engaged in CMD or at least one FD is on.

2. At least one VHF NAV receiver tuned to an I LS frequency.

3. GO AROUND,APR, AIL or TURB not engaged.

LOCALIZER ARMED

~~EST AFCS MODES

I~
(
lOC ARt..l HOG SEL

AU

I
AIL APR LaC NAV
I ,i
APPROACH MODE ~'- dJ
Approach mode is useful for Category 1 quality I LS beams.

Any roll or pitch mode, except VO R may be used for precapture guidance. Annunciations show H DG
SEL and ALT HOLD.

Select runway heading on both course selectors and I LS frequency on both VH F NAV panels.

Arm APR mode by pressing APR switch, switch illuminates, and LOC ARM and GS ARM appear on
panels.
 June 1973 3·13

AUTOFLIGHT
(
VOR switch returns to SPLIT position.

At the computed optimum localizer capture point, the LOC ARM message changes to LOC, and H DG
SEL is removed. At glide slope capture GS ARM changes to GS and AL T is removed.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. Either AP engaged in CM D or at least one F D is on.

2. ILS frequency selected.

3. GO ARND or TURB not engaged.

APPROACH MODE ARMED AFTER GLIDE SLOPE ENGAGE

AFCS MODES TES~" tfJEST AFCS MODES TE~~

,
I(~'
2

N"V"'OD'
LOC

GSARM
AR~,1 '-lDG SEL

ACT
(j)1
! i~ LOC

GS
C4tl1
I, :I
~I
I
I

( I
All APR lOC NAV i I
I

, C=J ,
/) ~
\, --.J) ,
/
/.
'''',======ff

AUTOLAND WITH DUAL AUTOPI LOTS

Fail operational AIL mode is used for all Category II or III operations, including autoland.

Any roll or pitch mode except VOR may be used for precapture guidance. Annunciations show HDG
SE Land AL T hold.

Select runway heading on both course selectors and I LS frequency on both VH F NAV panels.

Select AIL mode by pushing AIL switch. Switch lights up, and AIL ARM, LOC ARM, and GS ARM
appear on both panels.

VOR switch spring returns to SPLIT.

Engage second AlP in CMD after the AIL mode is selected.

LOC capture is engaged at the computed optimum capture point. LOC ARM changes to LOC, and HDG
SE L is removed.
3·14 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT

GS capture is engaged at the optimum point prior to reaching beam center. GS ARM annunciation changes
to GS, and AL T is removed.

After capture is completed, AIL track is engaged. ALIGN and FLARE modes are armed. ALN ARM and
FLR ARM messages appear. Autopilot becomes fail operational. AIL ARM message change to AIL.

At a predetermined altitude the align mode is engaged and ALN ARM changes to ALIGN. A forward slip
maneuver is initiated in which the crab angle is removed and course is maintained by wing down into the
wind.

At the flare altitude, the FLARE mode is engaged. Rate of descent is decreased to provide a smooth touch-
down. FLR ARM is changed to FLARE.

Flight director command bars go out of view at about five feet radio altitude.

In AIL mode, using flight director(s) only, autopilots off, command bars go out of view at fifty feet radio
altitude.

At touchdown the ROLLOUT mode is engaged, and this annunciation is added on both panels. The
aircraft is controlled to the runway center as long as the rudder is effective, or until terminated by the
pilot.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. Either AP engaged in CMD before arming AIL mode. {

\

2. I LS frequency selected.

3. Engage second AP in CMD after arming AIL mode.

NAV MOD£

All APR loe NAV

(
 June 1973 3-15

AUTOFLIGHT
(

r,tJ;;;AfCS MODES ,

I· ~
1
LOC

GS

AC

ALN ARM

I
"""
B FLR ARM

=-,
'",==-=====:i

GO-AROUND MODE

This mode provides AP and FD command referenced to 1.25 VS. The command is computed in the speed
command system.

Initial roll command is wings level. The heading mode may be selected after go-around engagement.

Go-around is the only mode that will disengage AIL track.

(
Engaging go-around with dual AIL engaged will disengage the second autopilot channel that was engaged.

Conditions for engagement are:

1. At least one autopilot or one FD engaged.

2. Weight not on main gear.

3. Flaps extended more than 30 0 if autopilot is engaged in command.

(
3·16 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT
(
TAKEOFF MODE

Takeoff mode provides a computed pitch flight director command for optimum climb profile based on
angle of attack.

Roll flight director command is wings level until the heading select mode is selected by depressing the
HDG switch on the HEADING/PITCH MODE panel.

Depress takeoff switch on control wheel to engage. Engaging any other pitch mode disengages takeoff.

Autopilot may be engaged in the CWS mode.

CWS is fail passive with either A/P A or B engaged. ,.---

~'TEST AFCS MODES TES~",
, ,
Automatic trim is disabled. Electric pitch trim is available. ~ ~:
Conditions for engagement:
I
F==--"
I

~
1. Aircraft on the ground.

2. A/P off or engaged in CWS. TAKEOFF

3. At least one F/D engaged.

~------ GO-AROUND/TAKEOFF SWITCHES - - - - - - . . . . ,

ELECTRIC TRIM SWITCHES
AUTOPILOT DISCONNECT

SPEED COMMAND SYSTEM

The speed command system (SCS) provides automatic throttle control and takeoff/go-around commands.

Autothrust control (A TS) is dual channel. Each channel is separately engageable for single channel
operation.

Channel selection is provided on FCES panel. Switches are mechanically detented push-on/push·off
type. Disengaging a channel illuminates OFF.

ATS engage switch and airspeed selection is on thrust panel on glareshield.

ATS controls aircraft to selected airspeed when engaged in cruise and initial approach modes.

An alpha "floor" is provided in airspeed mode.

 June 1973
3-17

AUTOFLIGHT
(
ATS controls aircraft to 1.3 VS in alpha mode_ Airspeed mode automatically changes to alpha mode when
flaps are extended beyond 30 degrees_

ALPHA flag appears in lAS window when in ALPHA mode_

Gust compensation is provided_

Fast-slow indication is provided independent of autothrust engagement_

Fast-slow indication provides go-around command in go-around mode_

Command bars provide optimum pitch command for best climb angle based on no less than reference
speed when in takeoff/go-around modes.

u U
YAW SAS OLC/ AUTO SPLR
2

a
1 2 1

0 THRUST

F
C
~~
FAil FAIL
~~
FAil FAil

[eJ
E STALL WARN ATS
1 2
5 1 2 TEST

(
a ~~ ~ ~~
FAll FAIL FAil FAIL 0 [II~og~
lAS
IIXLPHII
lAS
PITCH TRIM MACH TRIM
(0)
a 1 2 1 2

0
~~
FAIL FAIL
~~
FAIL FAIL

YAW STABILITY AUGMENTATION SYSTEM

The yaw SAS computations are contained in two identical computer packages with two yaw damper and
turn coordination computations and two runway alignment and rollout computations in each computer.

With either of two dual-channel computers engaged, the yaw stability augmentation system (yaw SAS)
provides dutch roll damping and turn coordination during all phases of flight; with all four computation
channels, these functions are fai I operational. Both computers are engaged for the runway alignment
and rollout functions, which must be fail operational to meet autoland requirements.

The yaw servos are hydraulic, and the system operates in a series-servo mode of operation, except when
the autoland mode of operation is engaged, when it is in a parallel-servo mode of operation. In the
series mode, the operation of the basic yaw SAS is independent of the APFDS status, and allows pilot
inputs to be added to the rudder control via the rudder pedals. In the parallel mode, yaw steering
( commands are available for flight director and autpilot operation.
3-18 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT
(
There are two switches on the FCES panel, one for each computer, for engagement and disengagement of
the yaw SAS. Automatic fault detection in the yaw SAS causes FAIL legends in each switch to be
illuminated.

During autoland, the yaw computers start monitoring the availability of runway alignment and rollout - the
results being displayed on each AFCS mode annunciator indicator during the autoland sequence if the
system is functioning normally. Inability of the yaw SAS to perform alignment and rollout maneuvers is
indicated by missing messages on each mode annunciator indicator and by warnings on the AFCS warning
indicators. A failure in the runway alignment function when the autoland mode has been selected will
cause a NO ALIGN legend and the ALERT light to flash.

DISCONNECT SWITCHES

The autopilot release switch on each control wheel disconnects autopilot(s) and autothrust. These switches
also reset autothrust and autopilot warning lights and horn. The go-around switches on each control wheel
trip the second autopilot engaged to off, first autopilot engaged remains in CMD, disengages autothrust,
and selects go-around mode in flight or takeoff mode on the ground.

1. How can APFD computer A receive VHF NAV No.2 radio signals?

a. Place the VOR selector switch to SPLIT.

b. Place the VOR selector switch to No.2 position.

c. Place the VOR selector switch to No.1 position. (

2. What position will the VOR selector switch automatically trip to when AIL, APR, or LOC mode is
selected?

a. SPLIT.

b. No.1 only.

c_ No.2 only.

3. Which VHF NAV receiver goes to APFD computer B when APR mode is selected?

a. Either No.1 or 2, depending on position of VOR selector SW.

b. No.1 only.

c. No.2 only.

4. How do you remove the ALERT flasher on the AFCS warning panel?

a. Press ALE RT light once.

b. Press ALE RT light twice.

c. Press warning message indicator once.

 June 1973 3·19

AUTOFLIGHT

(
5. How do you remove a warning message on the AFCS panel?

a. Press ALE RT light once.

b. Press ALE RT light twice.

c. Press warning message indicator once.

6. How do you set up the autopilot to operate in CWS?

a. One way, select CWS position.

b. Two ways, select CWS or CMD if no pitch or NAV mode is engaged.

c. Two ways, select CWS or CMD, even when a pitch mode is engaged.

7. Which autopilot(s) can be engaged in CWS?

a. A autopilot only, at first, then B if A fails.

b. Both A and B individually or both together.

c. Either A or B, but not both at same time.

8. What will occur if an autopilot is engaged in CWS with an established bank angle of 30 0 ?
(
a. The aircraft rolls to wings level.

b. The existing 30° bank angle will be held.

c. The aircraft rolls to a 35° bank angle.

9. What happens if an autopilot is engaged in CWS with a bank angle of 3° or less?

a. The autopilot rolls aircraft wings level and holds heading.

b. The autopilot holds aircraft in established bank if over 1°.

c. The autopilot rolls aircraft to maximum bank angle of 35°.

10. How does the autopilot respond if more than 15 pounds of pitch or roll force is applied to the
control column after GS capture in APR mode.

a. The autopilot stays in CMD.

b. The autopilot trips to CWS.

c. The autopilot trips off.

3·20 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT

(
11. How does the autopilot respond if more than 15 pounds of pitch force is applied to the control column
when VS or lAS mode is in use.

a. The autopilot trips to CWS.

b. The autopilot trips OFF.

c. The autopilot stays in CMD.

12. What indication shows in the vertical speed window if the VS mode is not in use?

a. The aircraft's existing vertical speed.

b. The last vertical speed set in VS mode with the vertical speed thumb wheel.

c. Zero vertical speed regardless of actual vertical speed.

13. When does the altitude light flash?

a. When aircraft altitude differs from altitude select window by 250 feet.

b. When aircraft altitude differs from altitude select window by 500 feet.

c. When aircraft altitude differs from altitude select window by 1000 feet.

14. How is takeoff mode selected? (

a. Place either autopilot to CWS push takeoff/go·around switch.

b. Turn at least one flight director on, push takeoff/go·around switch.

c. Place either autopilot to CMD, push takeoff/go·around switch.

15. Which roll mode can be engaged in TAKEOFF mode?

a. HDG

b. LOC

c. NAV

16. What is the maximum fly·up command in TAKEOFF mode?

b. Whatever is needed to maintain 1.25V.

{
 June 1973 3·21

AUTOFLIGHT

(
17. How is autothrust disengaged?

a. One way, by using throttle go·around switch.

b. Two ways, by using either go·around switch or control wheel autopilot release switch.

c. Use go·around switch, autopilot release switch, turn ATS switch off, or ATS trips off auto·
matically on landing.

(
3·22 June 1973

AUTOFLIGHT

(,
ANSWER SHEET

1. b

2. a

3. e

4. a

5. b

6. b

7. e

8. b

9. a

10. a

11. e

12. a (
13. a

14. b

15. a

16. e

17. e
 June 1973 4·1
APU
(
APU CONTROLS & INDICATORS

-n------1J

p~~~ ~~GH
OVER
sPEED OVER

(
8=i1RI~'
\lJ)
AUTO FIRE
SHUTDOWN
START MASTER

1-----~
IARMEDl
I ,
'-----_.....
DONT
START
i @o OfF

fUEL CONTROL

APU
4·2 June 1973

APU

APU LOADS

J, ~ If
ELECTRICAL PNEUMATIC
POWER POWER

~ 1 . (
LOAD
GENERATOR
COMPRESSOR

1
•
AIRCRAFT
ELECTRICAL '.. ~V
HYDRAULIC
~Ir
ENGINE
SYSTEMS ECS
PUMPS START

(
 June 1973 4-3

APU
(

OIL ANK GENERATOR

COMPRESSOR LOAD

GAS
GENERATOR "
TURBINE
IN,) """
""
db
COOLING
FAN

(
4-4 June 1973
APU

GENERAL DESCRIPTION
(

The auxiliary power unit is a compact, self contained unit with automatic controls for starting, stopping
and maintaining safe operating limits_ The APU can be used for ECS, hydraulic pumps and powering
its own generator for electrical power_

It is located in a fire proof compartment, in the bottom aft portion of the fuselage_ This is forward of
the No.2 engine fireseal and below the S-duct.

The APU is used primarily for ground operation, but can be used in flight as a power source for air con-
ditioning, hydraulic service and electrical power. It is capable of operating at altitudes up to F L 300
and can be started below F L 250.

The APU consists of a compressor, two turbine stages and accessories. All accessories, controls, ducting
and fluid lines are integral with the unit. The first turbine stage (Ngl powers the compressor. The
second turbine stage (Nfl or free turbine, drives the gear box whicH drives a load compressor, generator,
and cooling fan. The output shaft of the APU is controlled at a constant speed, eliminating the require-
ment for a CSO. If Nf RPM remains at 100%, then generator frequency remains at 400 Hz.

The Pratt & Whitney gas turbine is rated at 691 shaft horsepower. It has a 81 KW rated generator which
is identical to the lOG's with the exception of no CSO. It has a specific fuel consumption of .6 pounds/
hr/SHP. This provides a low fuel consumption of approximately 490 pounds/hr at full rated power.

Electrical load requirements take priority over air loads. When output power demands exceed the power
available, variable inlet guide vanes will close to reduce the compressor load. The free turbine speed is I..
regulated to keep generator speed constant, by decreasing pneumatic power, if necessary. \

The APU is considered self sustaining with the exception of the fuel system. It uses the aircraft fuel
system, normally the No.3 engine fuel tank. It has its own oil system.

Starting electrical power is taken from the battery. Control power is from the DC ground service bus,
when powered, otherwise the battery.

1. What is the maximum recommended altitude for starting the APU?

a. FL 300.

b. FL 250.

c. 10 ,000 feet.

2. What power is used to start the APU?

a. Battery

b. Essential TR

c. Standby DC bus.

3. Which APU system is self contained?

a. Oil (

b. Fuel

c. Fuel and oil.

 June 1973 4·5

APU

(
DESCRIPTION OF COMPONENTS

ELECTRONIC CONTROLLER

An electronic controller, located in the aft electronic equipment area, is the "brains" of the APU.~ It
controls all automatic functions of the APU including starting, stopping, emergency protection, speed
control and load control.

GENERATOR CONTROL UNIT

The GCU controls and protects APU generator operation. It provides protection for the electrical sys-
tem from certain malfunctions. It also regu lates the generator voltage; controls operation of G F R,
GB and BTB's. It is powered by the PMG, or DC standby bus.

GENERATOR

The APU has its own generator. It can be used to power the aircraft electrical system on the ground
or in flight. When I DG's are not operating and external power is off, the APU generator will power
the AC bus systems automatically, through the AC tie bus. The APU GCU controls generator operation.
There is no CSD, common to other generators, because the free turbine (Nfl maintains constant gener-
ator speed. The APU generator operates in parallel with the other generators, atter they are operating.
It is the master for auto parallel operation.

LOAD COMPRESSOR

( The load compressor is powered from the free turbine (Nfl. It is a single stage compressor, mounted
on the engine gear box drive shaft. It supplies the air demands required by air conditioning and engine
start. Variable inlet guide vanes control the amount of air going into the load compressor to maintain
a constant air mass. Before the air can be used to air condition the aircraft, open start valves, or power
the hydraulic pumps, the bleed air shutoff valve must be opened. Load compressor air is routed to the
APU exhaust system and ported overboard when not being used.

BLEED AIR SHUTOFF VALVE

When this valve is open, APU load compressor air is connected to the aircraft pneumatic manifold. This
valve is controlled by a bleed air S/O switch, located on the APU control panel. This is a two position
switch. When pressed IN, the OPEN light comes on, indicating valve is open. When pressed again, switch
is OUT and OPEN light extinguishes, indicating valve is closed. A check valve prevents back flow.

OIL SYSTEM

The APU has its own self contained oil system. It has a tank capacity of approximately two gallons.
The oil pump delivers oil for required lubrication through a filter element. It goes through a heat ex-
changer and back to the oil tank. A generator oil PRESS and OVHT light are provided on the electrical
panel indicating generator oil pressure is below operating limits or oil temperature is above operating
limits. Fault flags will appear on the APU control panel if either APU oil temperature is too high or
oil pressure is too low. The fault flags will cause automatic APU shutdown.

FUEL SYSTEM

( Fuel is supplied to the APU normally from No.3 engine tank. The APU tank pump is located in this
tank. It could use other sources of fuel if appropriate tank pumps and cross feed valves were activated.
The fuel system for normal APU use is activated when the master power switch and APU tank pump
switch are turned on. Turning the master power switch on opens the primary emergency shutoff valve.
Its light will come on while valve is being opened. The secondary emergency shutoff valve is already
4-6 June 1973
APU

normally open. APU fire shutdown will close both valves. Turning on the APU tank pump energizes
(
the pump and opens its tank valve. The tank pump LOW light will extinguish and the valve light will
come on while valve is being opened. DON'T START and LOW FUEL PRESS lights are located on
the control panel, monitoring fuel pressure.

INLET DOOR

This is a flush mounted door located directly under the engine inlet screen. It is attached to the APU
mounting platform and connected by ducting to the engine inlet plenum chamber. The door operates
automatically when the start or stop switch is pressed. When the start switch is pressed the door opens.
This takes approximately 10 seconds and a DOORS IN TRANSIT light will come on during this time,
then go out when the door is fully open. After the stop switch is pressed, during APU shutdown, the
door closes and the light again comes on until the door closes. The master power switch should not be
turned off until after the DOORS IN TRANSIT light goes out.

ELECTRICAL START POWER

The aircraft battery supplies start power. The DC ground service bus, when powered, is the source of
control power. During initial start, a good battery check can be obtained. A normal start would result
in approximately 400 amperage increase. During start, multiply the amperage indication times 10 for
actual reading. Battery voltage will be between 22 and 38 depending on battery charge condition. The
BATTERY CONDITION light should be out. If on, this indicates short, overheat or low cell voltage,
and APU should not be started.

COMPRESSOR MODE SELECTOR

This selector switch has three positions, controlling compressor air flow output. MIN MODE - if selected,
reduces the flow of air. Inlet guide vanes are directed towards a closed position.

NORM MODE - This is the normal mode of all APU operation. This provides an adequate flow of air
for air conditioning ..

MAX MODE - The inlet guide vanes will be fully open allowing maximum air flow. Operating in this
position over a prolonged period of time will cause damage because of the higher temperatures and
should be restricted. The MAX MODE light will come on during aircraft engine start as the compressor
is providing maximum air flow.

COOLING FAN

This fan is powered through the gear box by the free turbine. It supplies cooling air for the oil coolers,
APU compartment and exhaust duct. It is also used by an ejector, drawing ambient air into the APU
compartment for ventilation.

APU RPM AND TEMPERATURE INDICATORS

Ng Tachometer, located on the APU control panel, indicates the gas generator or N RPM. There is
no indicator for the free turbine, except generator frequency which is normally con~rolled at a con-
stant value. The Ng RPM indicator is powered from the tachometEir generator on the APU engine
accessory case and has no electrical power source, as such.

The indicator face is graduated in 5 percent steps. A green band extends from 55 to 105%. The 105%
mark is accented by a red radial warning mark. The gauge has indications from zero to 120%. (

A test switch is installed in the lower left corner of the instrument. Pressing this switch causes the in-
dicator to move to the 100% reading if operating properly. (3 o'clock position.)
 June 1973 4·7
APU
(
An overspeed of Nf will cause automatic APU shutdown. This is when the free turbine RPM reaches 110%.
A good indication of Nf is obtained by monitoring APU generator frequency. If Nf is 100%, which is
normal, then frequency will be 400 Hz. If Nf is 95%, then frequency is 380 Hz. If N2 is 105%, then
frequency is 420 Hz.

The system uses thermocouples mounted in the exhaust duct, gas generator case and gas generator inlet
plenum to sense temperatures.

The indicator indicates degrees C. times 100, ranging from zero to 1200. A green band extends from
450 to 1075 and a red band extends from 1075 to 1200.

A test switch is installed in the lower left corner of the instrument indicating approximately 1100 deg
mark when pressed, if indicator is operating properly. (3 o'clock position.)

An over temperature condition will cause the APU to automatically shutdown. This TGT is 765 degrees
C during start or 1066 degrees during normal operation.

1. What monitors automatic APU starting operation?

a. Bus protection panel

b. Generator control unit.

c. Electronic controller
( 2. What provides the pneumatic system with air during APU operation?

a. Ng

b. Load compressor.

c. 3rd stage compressor

3. Which of the following self contained system applies to the APU?

a. Oil

b. Fuel

c. Hydrau Iic

4. How is the APU fuel system activated during initial APU start?

a. Turning on master power switch only.

b. Turning on master power switch and No.3 engine tank pump switch.

c. Turning on master power switch and APU tank pump switch.

5. What controls inlet door operation?

(
a. Turning on master power switch

b. Pressing either START or STOP switch

 4·8 June 1973
APU

5. c. Placing Compressor Mode Selector to NORM position

6. What is one difference between I DG and APU generator?

a. APU generator does not have CSD

b. APU generator has GCU

c. Auto paralleling is not possible with APU generator.

APU SHUTDOWN

NORMAL SHUTDOWN

Normal shutdown is accomplished by pressing the STOP switch, located on the APU panel. When pressed,
the Nf overspeed circuit is energized, causing APU shutdown. This also causes the APU fuel shutoff to
close and generator trip circuit to close. The inlet door circuit is powered, after a time delay, causing
door to close. The master power switch should be turned off after DOORS IN TRANSIT light goes out.
It takes approximately 40 seconds for doors in transit light to come on after stop switch is pressed.

AUTOMATIC APU SHUTDOWN

An automatic APU shutdown will occur if any of the following events take place:
* OVERSPEED Nf
* LOW PRESS OIL
* Fault Flag
* HIGH TEMP OIL
* OVER TEMP TGT
Loss of electrical power to electronic controller
Door malfunction
APU fire
Automatic protection on ground
Auto fire shutdown switch must be armed in flight
More than 40 seconds for Ng to reach 55% during start.

If the APU has had an automatic shutdown for any reason, maintenance should inspect the APU before
restart is attempted.

MANUAL FIRE SHUTDOWN

Manual fire shutdown can be initiated if the automatic feature does not operate by pulling the fire pull
at the engineer's station or at the external APU control panel underneath the aircraft. The APU can also
be shutdown by pressing stop switch on external panel.

- 1. How is normal APU shutdown accomplished?

a. Pressing STOP switch and turning master power switch off after door closes.
(
b. Turning master power switch off

c. Pulling APU fire pull handle

 June 1973 4·9
APU
(
2. What will cause an automatic APU shutdown?

a. FUEL FILTER light illuminating

b. LOW 01 L QUANTITY light illuminating

c. LOW PRESS 01 L flag

3. When is automatic fire shutdown protection for APU provided?

a. Always on ground when APU is operating

b. Always in flight when APU is operating, regardless of auto fire shutdown switch position.

c. Auto fire shutdown switch must be in ARMED position either on ground or in flight.

4. Where are APU fire pull handles located?

a. At engineer's station only.

b. At engineer's station and at external APU control panel.

c. At pilot's overhead panel and engineer's station

FLAGS AND LIGHTS

(
FAULT FLAGS

The following fault flags can appear on the APU panel, indicating automatic APU shutdown:

OVERSPEED Nf - Indicates free turbine overspeed. Tripped when Nf RPM exceeds 110%.
LOW PRESS OIL - Indicates APU engine oil pressure less than minimum limit.
HIGH TEMP OIL -Indicates APU engine oil temperature exceeds maximum limit.
OVER TEMP TGT - Indicates turbine gas temperature has exceeded the maximum limit of
1066 deg C during normal operation or 765 deg C during start.

A pushbutton switch resets indicator fault flags. This switch is located to the right of fault flag indicators.
The fault flags will appear when the engineer checks indicator caution and warning lights during pre·flight.
Pressing reset switch will retract flags.

APU ADVISORY LIGHTS

The following amber lights may appear on the APU panel. These are advisory lights and do not require
any immediate action.

DON'T LOAD - Indicates APU cannot assume any electrical or pneumatic loads. Comes
on after DOORS IN-TRANSIT light goes out. Is on when Nf is below
95% and above 105%.
DOORS IN·TRANSIT - Indicates inlet and ejector doors are not fully closed or full open. On
( during start when START switch is pressed, while doors open, and on
during shutdown when STOP switch is pressed, while doors close. It
takes approximately 10 seconds for doors to open or close.
4-10 June 1973
APU

(
VENT CLOSED - On when the APU compartment vent valve is not in the full open posi-
tion. The vent outlet is closed automatically by APU fire pull handle
or auto fire shutdown; normally open.
LOW OIL QUANTITY - On when APU engine oil quantity is below a specific level and servicing
is required. Armed after START switch is pressed. (De-activated when
in flight.)
LOW FUEL PRESS - Indicates extremely low or no fuel pressure is available to APU fuel
control.
FUEL FILTER -Indicates fuel filter is clogged.
BATTERY CONDITION - Indicates condition of aircraft battery. If on, battery is either over-
heated, a cell shorted, or has low cell voltage. Armed after master
power switch on.
MAX MODE - Indicates APU compressor is producing maximum air flow regardless
of the position of compressor mode selector.

MASTER ANNUNCIATOR CAUTION AND WARNING LIGHTS

The following caution (amber) and warning (red) annunciator lights monitor these APU functions:

ENG/APU STATUS -Indicates automatic APU shutdown.

ELECTRICAL SYSTEM - Illuminates if either the APU GEN 01 L OVHT or APU GEN 01 L
PRESS lights come on at the electrical panel.

1. Which is a fau It flag indication, causing APU shutdown?

a. LOW Oil QUANTITY.

b. APU GEN Oil OVHT.

c. HIGHTEMPOll.

2. Which will cause automatic APU shutdown?

a. BATTERY CONDITION light.

b. Not reaching 55% NG RPM in 40 seconds during start.

c. ELECTRICAL SYSTEM light.

3. What will cause the E lECTR ICAl SYSTEM light to illuminate?

a. APU GEN OIL OVHT light.

b. DON'T lOAD light.

c. OVERTEMPTGTfl~.

4. What is the purpose of the RESET switch?

a. Extinguish ENG/APU STATUS light.

 June 1973 4·11
APU

( 4. b. Extinguish APU advisory light.

c. Reset fault flag(s).

APU OPERATION

When the APU is started, a specific sequence of events is accomplished automatically. Although the
battery switch is not required to be ON during APU start, it will normally already by ON because of
previous checks and requirements.

Turning master power switch on connects APU to aircraft battery. The master power switch is turned ON
to power APU panel lights, arm switches and to open the primary emergency shutoff valve. The APU tank
pump switch is turned ON to supply fuel under pressure from the No.3 engine tank. The bleed air S/O
valve is closed prior to start. It is opened after APU is operating, when desired to connect load compressor
air to pneumatic manifold.

When the START switch is pressed, APU doors open and the starter is energized. As the starter cranks,
engine and exhaust are purged of any combustible gases that might be present.

At approximately 10% NG' fuel is available and ignition takes place. With a successful start, engine will
accelerate until combustion becomes self sustaining and reaches its normal governed speed. A successful
start is reaching 55% NG before 40 seconds. The APU will shut down automatically if this does not happen.

When Nf reaches 95% of full speed, a load interlock is removed and the speed controller resets to 100%
RPM. The engineer does not have an Nf gauge, but can monitor 100% Nf by the APU frequency meter
( indicating 400 Hz. Other indications of proper Nf operation are DON'T LOAD light out, and APU gener-
ator field relay and generator breaker flowbar lights illuminating.

The APU is normally shut down during takeoff climb. This is accomplished by first closing the bleed air
S/O valve, then pressing the STOP switch. Pressing the STOP switch introduces an Nf overspeed condition,
causing shutdown. The APU tank pump switch should be turned off, turning off power to pump and also
closing tank valve. After DOORS IN-TRANSIT light goes out, indicating doors have closed, the master
power switch can be turned off. If this switch is turned off too quickly, it is possible to cause malfunction
of doors, or timing sequence.

In-flight operation - if the APU is required for in·flight operation, it is started, using same procedures as
during ground start. For best results, it should be started at or below FL250 and operated at or below
FL300.

1. What APU switches are actuated during a normal APU start?

a. Battery switch, master power switch and start switch.

b. Master power switch, reset switch, and start switch.

c. Master power switch, APU tank pump switch, and start switch.

2. When does the APU inlet door open?

a. When start switch is pressed.

(
b. When stop switch is pressed.

c. When master power switch is turned on.

4·12 June 1973
APU

3. When can the master power switch be turned off during APU shutdown?
(

a. Anytime.

b. After doors close and DOORS IN·TRANSIT light goes out.

c. Same time stop switch is pressed.

4. How can the engineer recognize N2 is at 100% RPM?

a. NG indicating 100% RPM.

b. TGT increase.

c. APU generator frequency 400 Hz.

 June 1973 4·13

APU

ANSWER SHEET

General Description F lags and Lights

1. b 1. c

2. a 2. b
3. a 3. a

4. c
Description of Components

1. c APU Operation
2. b 1. c

3. a 2. a

4. c 3. b

5. b 4. c

6. a
(
APU Shutdown

1. a

2. c

3. a

4. b

(
(
 June 1973 5·1

COMMUNICATIONS

(
RADIO POWER

The ESSENTIAL and No.2 master radio switches, located on the pilot's overhead panel, must be turned on
to operate the VHF NAV and COMM radios. The passenger address and interphone systems use DC essential
power and operate without turning the master radio switches on, when battery power is available.

VHF COMMUNICATIONS

Three VHF Transceivers are installed with control panels located on the aft pedestal. Each VHF control
has two frequency windows and selectors which allows two frequencies to be selected simultaneously. A
transfer switch and frequency light indicates the operating frequency, and the other window can be preloaded
with new frequency. Each unit incorporates automatic squelch control. A COMM test switch removes
the automatic squelch when pressed.

SECAL

Two Selcal systems are contained in a single control panel located on the aft pedestal. A Selcal light and
mode selector are provided for each system. The mode selector may be used to determine wheth-er VHF-1,
VHF-2 or VHF-3 is being monitored by Selcal. An incoming call will be indicated by the illumination of
the Selcal light and a chime. Push the light to reset the Selcal.

AUDIO SELECTORS

Audio Selector controls are provided for each flight crew position, one ACM, and forward avionics com-
partment. Each panel has mike select switches for transmitting on VHF-1, 2 or 3, interphone, H F-1 and
HF-2.

Only one mike selection may be made at a time and the switch in use will be illuminated.

The audio receiving selector switches combine ON, OFF, and volume control. The selector illuminates
when turned on. Rotating the selector changes the volume. Anyone or all selectors may be in use at
one time. Two separate amplifiers labeled normal-alternate, are provided for each audio selector panel.
Alternate amplifier use is identical to normal and its operation is not down graded.

CALL SYSTEM

Four call switches labeled ground crew, station, all and signal, and a call light are located on the pilot's
overhead cabin interphone panel. A station selector switch, adjacent to the call switches, permits selec-
tion of a particular cabin or galley position.

To make a station call, lift up the handset, select the area and press the STA switch. A chime sounds
and call lights come on, at both cabin area phones. When the call is answered, push the handset press·
to-talk switch. When the call.is complete, hang up the handset. This resets the system. This is a party
line system and anyone may listen in by picking up a cabin handset. To make a conference call, lift
up the handset and press the A LL switch. All station chimes sound ang call lights come on regardless of
selector position. When each answers proceed with message.

When an incoming call to the cockpit is made, the cockpit chimes sound and call light comes on.
Press the call switch or hang up the handset to reset the system when call is completed.
(
5-2 June 1973

COMMUNICATIONS

(
The signal switch is used to sound cabin chimes over the PA for special cabin alerts.

The GND CREW call switch sounds a horn in the nose wheel well to alert maintenance, and ground crew
can call the flight crew by pressing a button adjacent to the flight interphone jack in the nose wheel well.
This sounds a chime in the cockpit.

FLIGHT/SERVICE INTERPHONE

Flight interphone communication is connected between flight deck positions and jack points located
at key points around the aircraft exterior. These permit communication between ground and/or flight
deck personnel. Service interphone operation is obtained by turning on the service interphone switch
located on the engineer's auxiliary panel when the No. l/GND SERVICE BUS is powered.

Service interphone may be monitored for flight crew and No.1 ACM positions by pressing the INT CABIN/
SERV audio selector. To transmit on service interphone from a cockpit audio selector, press the INT mike
switch and the INT CABIN/SERV audio selector. Both switches must be selected in order to transmit on
service interphone.

CABIN AND GALLEY INTERPHONE

The cabin interphone system provides communication between the flight crew and any flight attendant or
galley station, between one flight attendant's station and any other attendant or galley. The cabin inter-
phone "party line" communications has separate control panels and hand mikes in the cabin and cockpit.
The flight crew can make a cabin interphone call through the oxygen mask mike or the cockpit hand
mikes, or the cabin interphone mike. Cabin incoming calls will sound a chime and illuminate a light next fr
to the handset being called. \

The galley interphone connects the cabin interphone handsets at L1 door, upper galley, and R4 door to
a separate trunk which permits direct contact with the lower galley. A galley interphone selector switch
is located on the L1, galley, and R4 handsets and when the galley line is selected only the cockpit inter-
phone can cut into this line. When a call is made to the galley over galley interphone, the galley
attendant may answer by using the push to talk switch and speaking normally into the ceiling speaker.
The galley control panel permits the galley attendants to use either cabin or galley interphone. The panel
controls permit the galley attendants to monitor upper galley activity through a one way open mike from
the upper galley to the lower galley.

PA

Passenger Address announcements may be made from the cockpit or L1, mid, and L4 flight attendant
stations. A separate PA hand mike is mounted on the cockpit aft pedestal, or cockpit PA use is possible
through the flight crew oxygen mask mikes. Cockpit PA announcements have priority and override those
from the cabin. PA announcements may be monitored on the flight deck through the cockpit PA speaker.
The boarding music comes over the PA when selected through the flight attendant controls.

WEATHER RADAR

Tlie weather radar system allows continuous monitoring of weather frontal conditions along the aircraft
flight path to provide warning of turbulence. The system consists of an antenna in the nose radome, a
transceiver, control panel, and two indicators.
 "~
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c

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R1 , R2 R3 R4

~ ~ ~O ~ o~
I ~ @] Q]~[pIT
0°

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e ~ e~o Z
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0
jJ
L1 L2 L3 L4 "'C
:5:
::t: :5:
0 c:
z
e PA handset and controls ~
bJ)
Cabin interphone handset, call
light, chime and call controls.
Handset may be used to call
o Interphone and PAt Control
panel.
[!] Lower galley interphone control
panel. Permits open microphone
to be used for incoming interphone
z
m
»
z
c
n
~
0
any station on party line system. calls and for monitoring of the "'C Z
upper galley open microphone. » en
Q] Open microphones. Upper galley
for 1r8nsmitting to lower galley
® Flight/Service Interphone o Interphone has separate line
to lower galley.
,-,
I 'FWD Avionics Compartment
"-,
only. Lower galley receives upper
galley and interphone calls.

~
5-4 June 1973

COMMUNICATIONS

(
EXPANDABLE FLIGHT DATA ACQUISITION AND RECORDING SYSTEM (EFDARS)

The EFDARS is an airborne system designed to continuously sample and record analog and digital aircraft
information in a crash protected recorder. System components include a Flight Data Acquisition Unit
(FDAU) for signal conversion, a Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) for continuous recording of aircraft
data from all monitored systems during the most recent 25-hour period of EFDARS operation, a Flight
Data Entry Panel (FDEP) forcontrol purposes, and an aircraft Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) for
transmitting an aircraft locator signal in the event the aircraft becomes submerged in water.

1. What communication is available from the cockpit with battery ON, master radio switches OF F?

a. PA and interphone.

b. PA, interphone, No.1 VHF.

c. PA, interphone No.1, 2, and 3 VHF.

2. Which cockpit mikes permit PA announcement?

a. PA mike only.

b. PA mike and oxygen mask mike.

c. PA mike and cabin interphone mike.

3. Which positions can make PA announcements? (

a. Cockpit and first class section only.

b. Cockpit, L1, MID, and L4 positions.

c. Cockpit, first class, coach and lower galley.

4. How is it possible for the cockpit to monitor a cabin PA announcement?

a. It is not possible.

b. Adjust PA monitor volume to an audible level.

c. Select cabin interphone and adjust monitor volume level.

5. Which ground crew position(s) can be contacted with the flight interphone?

a. All service interphone jack points.

b. The main gear wheel area.

c. The nose wheel area.

 June 1973 5·5

COMMUNICATIONS

(
6. What action is necessary in order to talk on the SERVICE interphone system?

a. The FLIGHT interphone selector and INT MIKE switch must be on.

b. The INT MIKE switch, INT CABIN/SERVICE audio selector and service interphone switches must
be on.

c. The service interphone switch and F LT interphone selector must be on.

7. Which cabin attendant positions can the captain contact on cabin interphone?

a. All cabin attendant and galley positions.

b. All cabin attendant positions except upper and lower galley.

c. All cabin attendant positions except lower galley.

8. What will occur if you call cabin interphone station that is using cabin interphone?

a. You can break into the conversation as on a party line.

b. You cannot break into the conversation.

c. You will receive a busy signal.

( 9. What will occur if you call a cabin interphone station that is using galley interphone?
a. You can break into the conversation as on a party line.
b. You cannot break into the conversation.
c. You will receive a busy signal.
10. What does the small light located just above the VHF frequency window indicate?
a. The last frequency tuned.
b. The frequency selected with the TFR FREQ SEL switch.
c. The frequency being tested with the COMM TEST switch.
11. What is the purpose of the VH F panels COMM TEST switch?
a. Conducts a VHF self test.
b. Transfers operating frequency to the left window.
c. Cuts out the automatic squelch.
12. Which audio selectors can be monitored when the amplifier selector is in the alternate position?
a. Only one switch selector at a time.
b. All selectors may be monitored.
c. Only the top·most left selector if more than one is turned on.
(
5-6 June 1973

COMMUNICATIONS

ANSWER SHEET

1_ a

2_ b

3_ b

4_ b

5_ c

6_ b

7_ a

8_ a

9_ a

10_ b

11- c

12_ b (
 June 1973 6·1

ELECTRICAL

(
GENERAL DESCRIPTION

The electrical system generates and distributes both AC and DC power as required for operation of all
electrical 'items. Operation of the electrical system is automatic, with visual monitoring and manual gener-
ator and bus control available. The system consists of a primary 117 volt, 400 Hz AC generating system;
AC distribution system; standby static inverter; DC power distribution system and a 26 volt nickel cadmium
battery.

The inverter and battery provide an emergency standby source of AC and DC power for some important
items, such as: lighting systems, flight instruments, communication and navigation equipment, when nor-
mal power is not available. The battery also provides power for starting the APU.

The total electrical system capacity is such that the aircraft can be dispatched with a failed AC source and
a failed DC source. Some of the features of the electrical system are:

• Integrated drive generators (I DG)

• APU generator

• Automatic paralleling of all generators including APU.

• Remote controlled circuit breakers (RCCB)

• Independant standby power system

( 411 Walk-in, electric compartment.

The main electrical distribution areas are: Mid Electrical Service Center, Forward Electronic Service Center,
and flight station. The walk in electrical compartment (MESC) is located aft of the underfloor galley. It
contains the busses, battery, switching and control relays necessary for control and operation of the electrical
power system. Location of this compartment minimizes the length of heavy load current feeders,
particularly to the galley. This illiminates many feeder fault problems which might otherwise be experienced.
Access to this compartment is through the galley door, or a fuselage door in the floor.

The primary electric power generating system includes three engine driven IDG's plus a fourth generator
driven by the APU. The generators may be operated in a parallel or isolated mode with each capable of
delivering 81 KW continuously. Each IDG consists of a CSD integrally coupled to its generator, and a
PMG. An identical generator, without CSD, is driven by the APU through an adapter pad. A CSD is not
required for the APU generator, since the APU free turbine (N 2 ) is controlled at a constant speed.

DC power is supplied by four TR units, each powered by its AC load bus. Standby and emergency DC
power is provided by a 22 cell NICAD battery. Battery charge is maintained by a battery charger
energized from·the No.1 AC ground service bus. The battery bus is a hot battery bus and is powered
regardless of the position of the battery switch. A static inverter, powered from the battery, provides
a backup source of AC power for selected fl ight safety loads.

An external power receptacle is installed on the lower right side of the fuselage aft of the nose wheel
doors, so that external AC power can be connected to the electrical system.

Ground service power control is provided at the engineer's station and the forward flight attendant's panel.
( This power is used by maintenance for towing, fueling and servicing of the aircraft. Either external or
APU power can power the ground service busses.
6·2 June 1973
ELECTRICAL

(
Maximum continuous load occurs during cold night cruise and amounts to approximately 146 KW. The
continuous load includes all loads required for flight, passenger comfort and utility loads, such as galleys
and lights. The essential load of the fuel, hydraulics, avionics, ECS and other flight support systems is
less than 60 KW. Ground service and passenger loading requirements are less than the rated output of
the APU generator. The DC system load profile of continuous average demands can be supplied by any
two of the four TRs.

1. What is available for emergency standby source of power?

a. IDGs.

b. Battery and inverter.

c. Standby generator.

2. Where are the majority of electrical items, such as battery, busses, etc., located?

a. Forward avionics compartment.

b. Hydraulic compartment.

c. Electrical compartment ..

3. Which of the following have auto-paralleling capability?

a. I DGs and APU generat'or. (

b. IDGs and external power.

c. APU generator and external power.

4. What is the normal source of DC power?

a. Battery.

b. Four TRs.

c. IDG.

5. What is common for APU generator and IDGs?

a. All have PMG.

b. All have CSD.

c. All normally operate in flight.

6. What is ground service power normally used for?

a. Servicing and emergency power.

b. Towing, fueling and aircraft servicing.

c. Perform pre-flight checks.

 June 1973 6·3

ELECTRICAL
(
OPERATION

EXTERNAL POWER CONNECTED

External power can be used when available and conditions dictate. An external power receptacle, located
on the lower nose fuselage section of the aircraft, is used for this connection. When external power cart
is connected to the receptacle, a green AVAI L light comes on above an external power switch. This
switch and light are located on the second officer's electrical panel. The green light indicates external
power has proper voltage, frequency and phase sequence.

When the external power switch is turned ON, an ON light illuminates. This light is part of the ON/AVAI L
light assembly. When the switch is ON, the BPP allows the external power relay to close, connecting power
to the AC tie bus. External power always takes priority in powering this bus. With all AC power sources
de·energized and power from the DC standby bus on the system, all GBs will be tripped and all BTBs will
be closed.

BTBs 1, 2 and 3 are closed when generators are not operating, so tie bus power is connected to AC busses
1, 2 and 3. The AC busses now power TRs which in turn power their respective DC busses 1, 2 and 3.
DC bus power is then connected to the DC tie bus.

The AC essential bus is powered from its selected power source which is normally No.3 AC bus. AC
essential bus powers the AC standby bus. It also powers the essential TR which powers the DC essential
bus. DC essential bus normally powers the DC standby bus, and is also connected to the DC tie bus by
a circuit breaker. (3·F·3)
(
When engines are started IDGs start turning. PMGs produce voltage to power GCUs and to excite generator
field. The GFR closes and the IDG low press light goes out on speed signal from its GCU. When closed, its
flowbar light comes on, indicating GFR is closed.

External power will not parallel with any generator. Each generator takes priority in powering its load
bus. Before the generator can power its load bus, the GB must close. To allow this, the GCU causes the
BTB to open. The BTB OPEN light will come on. To close, the GB must have either a dead bus signal
or proper parallel signal. It now has dead bus signal and closes, allowing the generator to power its load
bus.

After engines are started and external power is turned OFF, the ON light goes out. A priority circuit
enables the No.2 GCU to close its BTB as soon as it senses a dead tie bus signal. No.1 and No.3 BTBs
close in order, as their GCUs sense proper conditions for auto paralleling.

Electrical panel indication will show all GFR, GB and BTB flowbor lights on. After external power is
removed, the A VA I L Iight will go out.

APU GENERATOR OPERATING

It is recommended that the APU GFR be manually opened after the APU Master Power Switch is
positioned to ON and that the G F R not be manually closed until DON'T LOAD light has been
extinguished for 5 seconds after an APU start.

GENERATORS

( AC power is generated by 81 KW rated generators. These are three normally powered, engine driven
generators supplying this power. These are referred to as IDGs. IDG derives its name from the fact
6·4 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

(
that the generator and CSD are one integral unit, thus the name integrated drive generator. Some advantages
of this type generator are the generator portion uses drive oil for cooling, there are fewer bearings and these
are oil cooled and lubricated. The IDG is connected to the N3 accessory driveshaft.

There is a fourth generator, which is basically identical to the IDG, except the CSD portion is removed. The
APU generator provides a power source for ground operation or a standby source of power in·flight.

All generators normally operate paralleled on the bus system, however can be isolated, or manually
controlled. Normal generator control is completely automatic.

The electrical system operation is monitored by flowbars, trip and fail light indications. Meters provide
the capability of monitoring voltage, frequency, amperage, temperature and KW/KVAR.

PMG

Each generator has a PMG which powers a GCU and provides excitation of the main generator field. The
DC standby bus also provides a power source for the GCU, if the generator is not turning. A PMG test
switch is provided to indicate PMG voltage of selected generator. I DG disconnect can be verified by
monitoring PMG voltage dropping to the PMG OFF position of the indicator.

With the generator turning, an AC voltage is produced by the PMG. This voltage is connected to the
GCU which converts it into DC control voltage. When the generator RPM is within limits, the PMG
voltage is then applied to energize the generator field and controlled to maintain voltage.

CSD
(
Each generator is shop mated to a CSD assembly and considered a single unit jIDG). For manual purposes
they are described separately. The CSD maintains the generator output at a constant frequency of 400
H? throughout the normal engine operating speed range. The CSD also supplies lubrkation and cooling
oil, oil temperature and low pressure signals, and a generator underspeed signal.

The APU generator is shop mated to an adapter assembly and does not have a CSD. It is connected to
the accessory drive of the APU free turbine which operates at a constant speed to provide a frequency
of 400 Hz. The generator adapter assembly provides a direct drive for the generator, lubrication and
cooling oil, and low oil pressure signals.

LOAD CONTROLLER

A load controller controls the CSD of the paralleled generators so that each generator carries its share of
the real load. If any generator begins to carry more or less than its share, the torque of its transmission
is varied until it again is carrying its proper load. The load controller senses the difference from average
KW load on each generator during parallel operation.

The APU generator does not have a load controller. When the APU is running, each IDG attempts to
match the APU generator load. The APU generator is the master generator for automatic paralleling.
With all four generators operating, load unbalance may be as much as 5KW and still be within operating
limits.

IDG DISCONNECT
Each IDG is provided with an integral, solenoid operated, mechanical disconnect. Generator disconnect
is provided by a disconnect switch for each IDG. This is a momentary, combination warning light and (
switch, which disconnects the I DG from its engine drive when pressed. An IDG cannot be reconnected
in·flight, once disconnected. On the ground any disconnect can be recoupled when engine is stopped,
by pulling and resetting the disconnect button on the IDG.
 June 1973 6·5
ELECTRICAL
(
If the disconnect switch is accidently pressed when engine is not running, extensive generator damage
could result, unless manually reset, before start.

If lamp replacement is necessary for the LOW PRESS light, the lOG DISC circuit breaker, located on
3·G·15, should first be pulled. Pulling the circuit breaker will prevent accidental disconnect when the
lens assembly is restored. A tab attached to each disconnect switch guard states "DO NOT RE LAMP
WITH POWER ON," as a warning.

The lOG LOW PR ESS light will come on if generator oil pressure is below minimum pressure for
continued operation. Refer to the Operating Manual Abnormal Procedures section if this should happen
in·flight. This light will also come on if generator disconnect is initiated. The light is normally on prior
to engine start.

GCU

Each of the four generators are monitored and controlled by its generator control unit. The G CU contains
circuits which monitor the generator output for speed, voltage and phase sequence. If no power is on
the bus when a "power ready" condition exists, the GCU will close its Generator Breaker to connect the
generator to its bus. Each GCU in an lOG channel also controls a Bus Tie Breaker for power distribution.
The GCU will remove the generator from the bus system and unpower it, if necessary, for any of the
following faults: Over or under excitation, over or under voltage, differential faults, difference current,
underspeed, open phase or over current.

BEARING FAILURE INDICATION

( Excessive main generator bearing wear indication is provided by a BRG light illuminating. When the main
bearing wear reaches the point of allowing generator shaft to contact a detector ring, it will ground a
warning light circuit, and the BRG light will come on. When the light comes on, refer to the Pilot's
Operating Manual Abnormal Procedures. If no abnormal indications exist the generator may be operated
unloaded for several hours. To operate unloaded, open its G F R. lOG's and 2 generators still provide an
alternate source of power for AC essential bus. if AC Bus 3 fails. If used as an alternate, open the GB
and close the GFR anytime a GCU is removed and replaced from the electrical rack and it's associated
generator is turning, it will cause the BRG light to illuminate. To extinguish the BRG light, it would be
necessary to stop the generator from turning (shut engine down).

GENERATOR FIELD RELAY

The GFR opens automatically on underspeed, or if fire pull is pulled. It closes automatically when
generator is on speed and a "Power Ready" condition exists. When closed, it allows the PMG to excite
the generator field. It normally operates automatically, but can be manually opened or closed by
pressing its trip or close switch light assembly.

The GFR will trip automatically for any of the following reasons: Under or over voltage, open phase,
under·speed, differential fault, or engine fire pull handle pulled. All trips must be reset manually,
except the underspeed, for the automatic close function to work again. Any relay lockout will be
removed if power is removed from PMG and GCU.

GENERATOR BREAKER

The GB will normally close automatically if the G F R is closed and will open when the G F R opens.
The GB closes on one of two signals: Dead AC load bus or proper conditions for paralleling. The GB
can be manually opened by pressing its trip switch. If manually opened, the manual close switch must
be reset for automatic function to again operate. Any relay lockout will be removed if power is
removed from PMG and GCU.
6·6 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

BUS TI E BR EAKER
(

The BTB is opened either automatically or manually. An automatic trip will occur if: Over or under
excitation, difference current, under voltage or differential fault (zone 2) takes place. The BTB will
close automatically if no lockout exists and on one of two signals: Dead bus or proper conditions for
auto·parallel. Any relay lockout will be removed if power is removed from PMG and GCU.

KW/KVAR METERS

A KW/KVAR meter is provided for each generator. The meters show the load carried by the generator.
Under normal paralleled operation, each generator shares the total load equally, within the tolerance or
the load controller. Each meter for a paralleled generator indicates approximately the same load. The
maximum difference allowed in loads are: 5 KW when lOGs parallel, 5 KW when APU parallel, 5 KVAR
with anything in parallel. The meters normally indicate KW or real load. To indicate KVAR or reactive
load, the KVAR switch must be pressed. Normal KVAR is approximately 50% of KW indication. Over·
load rating is 120 KW or 135 KVA for 5 minutes. The maximum continuous load rating is 81 KWor
90 KVA for the lOG. The APU generator load is limited to 54 KW above 14,000 feet.

AUTO LOAD MONITOR

The Auto Load Monitor System will shed the galley busses and AC Hydraulic Pumps if the load on any
one generator exceeds 120 (±5) KW.

During single generator operation some manual load shedding may be required to reduce electrical loads
to within the maximum continuous rating of 81 KW.

lOG TEMPERATURE GAUGE

Each lOG has a temperature gauge, indicating generator oil out temperature. The out temperature maxi·
mum is 180 degrees C, with an amber range from 145 to 180 degrees C. An lOG Temp Rise switch can
be pressed to show the rise in lOG oil temperature on all three gauges, as oil passes through the generator.
The rise in temperature scale is displayed on the 0-40 degree scale. The rise in temperature results from
generator cooling and CSO load, and is the difference in temperature entering and leaving the
generator.

MANUAL OPERATION

The capability is provided to manually control the generators. If the generator field relay TRIP switch is
pressed, the generator is de·energized, causing the field relay and generator breaker to open. If it is desired
to remove a generator from the bus, press the generator breaker TR IP switch. This will provide capability
of checking the generator's voltage and frequency unloaded. To allow the generator to still power its
load bus, but isolate it from the other generators, press its bus tie breaker TR IP switch. This will provide
capability of checking generator voltage and frequency under load condition. If it is desired to fail an
AC bus, open the associated generator breaker and bus tie breaker. This will also fail the respective flight
station bus.

Any of the manual operations will lock out the auto close function of the relay or breaker until the
corresponding CLOSE switch is pressed.

RANDOM PARALLELING

If a GB or BTB has been manually opened or has automatically opened, random paralleling is possible.
I,
This is done by manually closing the GB or BTB, whichever was open. This is not the preferred method,
however, and should only be done if power cannot be restored any other way. An auto parallel attempt
should be made, if possible.
 June 1973 6-7

ELECTRICAL

(
AUTO PARALLELING

BTB's control auto parallel operation of the generators. The auto paralleling system senses the voltages on
the generator side of the generator breaker and on the tie bus. The voltages, phasing and frequency of each
generator is compared. When these are within limits, a sensing circuit closes the applicable generator breaker
or BTB to parallel the generator with the tie bus. Auto parallel operation is prevented if external power
switch is ON.

If the APU generator is powering the tie bus before the engines are running, the APU generator becomes the
master generator for auto paralleling after engine start and other generators are operating. The integrated
drive generators are allowed to parallel with the APU generator when correct power and phasing conditions
are met.

If a generator has opened, either manually or automatically, it must normally be closed by either random
paralleling or set up for auto parallel attempt. Auto paralleling is preferred to prevent risk of causing
damage to generator. Auto parallel methods will depend on the situation as the procedure. Some examples
are listed for different situations:

Problem: Field relay and generator breaker OPEN lights.

Auto Parallel Attempt: Close field relay. Field relay will close, followed by generator breaker closing.

Problem: BTB OPEN light. (Manually opened).

Auto Parallel Attempt: Open field relay. Field relay and generator breaker will open. Close BTB.
( Close field realy.

Problem: BTB OPEN light. (Has automatically opened).

Auto Parallel Attempt: Open field relay. Field relay and generator breaker will open BTB, will
auto close because of dead bus signal. Close field relay for auto parallel
attempt.

Problem: Generator breaker OPEN light. (Manually opened).

Auto Parallel Attempt: Open field relay. Close generator breaker. Close field relay.

1. What is the max continuous power rating of each generator?

a. 90 KW.

b. 81 KW.

c. 50 KW.

2. What does a field relay flowbar light indicate?

a. Field relay is closed.

b. Field relay is open.

(
c. Field relay has tripped.
6·8 June 1973

ELECTRiCAL
(
\

3. What does a generator breaker trip OPEN light indicate?

a. Only caused by generator breaker manually opened.

b. Only caused by generator breaker automatically opened.

c. Generator breaker has opened either automatically or manually.

4. What is the normal indicated voltage and frequency of each generator?

a. 115 volts and 350 Hz.

b. 117 volts and 400 Hz.

c. 200 volts and 400 Hz.

5. What is indicated by an lOG LOW PRESS light?

a. lOG oil pressure below minimums.

b. Always indicates lOG disconnect.

c. APU generator oil pressure is low.

6. What is the purpose of the G CU?

(
a. Power the PMG.

b. Monitor and control generator.

c. Maintain constant generator frequency.

7. What action is required if a generator BRG light comes on?

a. Must disconnect immediately.

b. Open AC tie breaker.

c. Open field relay and operate unloaded for several hours if no other adverse conditions exist.

8. What is maximum KW difference when only lOGs are parallel?

a. 6

b. 9

c. 5

9. When will the generator breaker normally close automatically?

a. When load bus is powered. I

b. When field relay closes.

"
c. When AC tie breaker closes.
 June 1973 6-9

ELECTRICAL

(
DC POWER SYSTEM

TRs

Under normal operating conditions all DC power is supplied by TR units, in parallel. There are four TR
units, one for each of the three DC busses and one for the Essential DC bus. The latter is refered to as
the Essential TR. Each of the TRs is powered from three phase AC power. The No.1, 2, and 3 AC
busses power the No.1, 2, and 3 TRs and the Essential TR is powered by AC Essential bus power. The
TRs receive AC power from their respective AC bus and convert it to 28 volt DC power. The DC system
is automatically powered whenever the AC system is powered, whether from external Rower., I DGs or
APU generator.

When TRs are powered, each TR then powers its respective DC bus. No.1, 2, and 3 TRs power the
No.1, 2, and 3 DC busses and the Essential TR powers the Essential DC bus.

The DC busses are normally paralleled. Each DC bus is connected to the DC tie bus through its BTB.
Circuit breaker protection is provided on CB-3 panel. The battery provides a standby source of DC power.

DC BUS ISOLATION

The bus paralleling system is controlled by the DC bus isolation switch, located on the electrical panel.
The three DC busses can be isolated from each other and DC tie bus by pressing a two position DC Bus
Isolation switch, located on the electrical control panel. When pressed, the DC BTBs open and DC busses
are isolated. The DC Bus Isolation OPEN light comes on. Pressing the switch again (out position) will
enable the BTBs to close, paralleling the busses, and the OPEN light goes out.
(
If the Essential TR is the only DC power source, the DC busses are powered from the DC Essential bus.

1. What is the maximum continuous TR amperage?

a. 100

b. 75

c. 28

2. What is the power source for the No.2 TR?

a. Essential TR.

b. No.2 DC bus.

c. No.2 AC bus.

3. What does the DC Bus Isolation OPEN light indicate?

a. Three DC busses are isolated from DC Tie bus.

b. DC Essential bus isolated from DC Tie bus.

c. DC busses not powered.

6-10 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

(
4. What is the normal power source for the No.3 DC bus?

a. No.3 TR.

b. DC Tie bus.

c. Essential TR.

5. What is normal power source for DC essential bus?

a. Essential TR.

b. Battery.

c. DC standby bus.

BATTERY SYSTEM

BATTERY

The battery always powers the battery bus, regardless of battery switch positIOn. The battery
also provides a standby source of DC power. It is used to start the APU. It can power the DC standby bus
and static inverter under certain conditions.

The aircraft battery is a 26 volt, 22 cell, nickel cadmium unit, mounted on the floor of the electrical
compartment. It has a max charge potential of 38 volts, however less than this would normally be indicated.
The lowest charge possible before rapid depletion is 22 volts, same as the number of cells. The battery
has a 53 ampere hour rating. Normal battery voltage is 30-34 volts.

APU start current is very high; approximately 400 AMPS. If the battery is used as an emergency source
of power, it has the capability of making two APU hung starts plus 40 minutes, if fully charged.

BATTERY SWITCH

This is a two position toggle switch, located on the electrical panel. For normal flight operation it will be
in the ON position. In the ON position, the DC standby bus will be powered if DC essential bus power
fails. It also arms the standby power switch when in the ARM position to provide auto transfer capability
for AC standby bus. In the OFF position, it is not possible"for an automatic transfer of either standby
bus to take place. The battery switch must be in the OFF position for battery to charge, if ground
service switch is activated.

BATTERY CHARGER

The charger is located in the electrical compartment. It is powered from the AC ground service bus as long
as the battery is not being used to power either standby bus. The charger takes three phase AC power and
converts it to a DC charging potential of up to 38 volts. It is capable of charging a depleted battery in
90 minutes.

Charger voltage is higher than the normal battery voltage, so the charger is not powered when the battery
is being used to power either standby bus. The battery charger senses the voltage and temperature
of the battery and provides the necessary charging current to maintain a fully charged battery. Tempera-
ture sensors are in contact with each battery cell to detect any over temperature condition. This deter-
mines the rate of change. When the battery is up to normal voltage the charger will operate in a pulsing
mode.
 June 1973 6-11
ELECTRICAL

(
The charger is not powered if: Either standby bus is powered from battery, or airflow in electrical compart-
ment is insufficient.

BATTERY BUS

The battery bus is powered directly from the battery, regardless of switch position. The battery bus is
located in the MESC and a battery bus extension is located in the cockpit. For all practical purposes they
will be both called battery bus. The battery bus is used to start the APU, power standby communications,
fire extinguishing, fuel shutoff valves, emergency evacuation signals and clocks.

BATTERY CONDITION LIGHT

This caution light is located on the APU control panel. It receives a signal from the charger and comes
on for: Battery over-temperature, or shorted cell. The ligh is armed when APU master power switch is
on. APU start attempt should not be made with light on. The BATTERY condition warning light
may sometimes illuminate when a check of the standby power is made. A BATTE RY condition warning,
that illuminates only while a check of the standby power system is being made, is invalid and should be
ignored.

DC AMMETER

The DC ammeter is located on the electrical panel. The meter indicates battery charge or discharge for
the various DC sources, as selected by the meter selector. The meter has both positive and negative
indications ranging from 0 to 150.

( When the selector switch is placed in the BAT position, the ammeter will indicate positive (+) if the
battery is furnishing power, or discharging. It will indicate negative (-) if the battery is being charged.
When battery voltage is above 30 volts, indicator will show zero receiving -40 amp pulse charge each
30 seconds. When below 30 volts, a steady -40 amp charge will be maintained until 90% full capacity.
At this point the charger reverts to a pulsing mode to complete charge and maintain battery at full
capacity.

1. What is one purpose of the battery?

a. Power DC essential bus.

b. Power DC standby bus if the DC essential bus fails.

c. Power essential TR.

2. What is one purpose of the battery switch when ON?

a. To allow battery to power battery bus.

b. To arm standby power switch when in the ARM position.

c. When ON battery can be charged.

3. When is the battery charger disconnected from the battery bUs?
a. When battery powers either standby bus.
b. When No.1 AC bus is powered.
c. When battery switch is OF F.
6·12 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

(
4. Which is true concerning the battery bus?

a. Energized from battery only when the battery switch is ON.

b. Powered from battery regardless of battery switch position.

c. Located in the forward avionics service center.

5. What does the BATTERY CONDITION light indicate, when illuminated?

a. Battery is in good condition.

b. Master power switch is ON.

c. Battery over temperature, short or low voltage cell.

ESSENTIAL POWER

AC ESSENTIAL

The AC essential bus provides AC power for certaln important loads. The bus is normally powered from
the No.3 AC bus, but can be powered from other selected sources. This depends on the position of
the AC Essential Bus Selector switch.

The AC Essential Bus Selector switch has both automatic and manual position. There are three manual
positions with single source selections that do not have any auto transfer capability. There are also three f
automatic positions which provide back up choice if the primary source of power fails. In an automatic
position, AC essential bus is powered by the primary source selected. If the pfimary source fails, then
the secondary choice automatically powers AC essential bus, if available, without switch movement.

The B3(G 1) position is normally selected, because of the lighter load requirements. This is an automatic
position, which means if No.3 AC bus fails, then AC essential bus is automatically powered by the No.1
generator.

If this auto transfer of power takes place, the ESS AC ON AL T light illuminates as a caution. This light
is located just below the battery switch.

If power failure to the AC essential bus takes place, the AC Essential FAI L light, located on the electrical
panel, and the ESS/STBY POWER light on the CAUTION and WARNING panel (CAWP).

Circuit breaker protection for the AC essential bus, is provided at 1·K ·11.

The AC essential bus is the normal power source for the AC standby bus and essential TR.

DC ESSENTIAL

The DC essential bus is powered from either the essential TR or through the DC tie bus. The DC essential
bus is connected to the DC tie bus by the DC TI E BUS PWR circuit breaker 3·F·3.

If the essential TR fails, the DC essential bus will still be powered from the DC tie bus as long as a
minimum of two other TRs are still powered. (
 June 1973 6·13
ELECTRICAL

(
If the DC essential bus fails, the DC essential bus FAIL light and the ESS/STBY POWER light will both
illuminate.

The DC essential bus is the normal source of power for the DC standby bus.

1. What is the normal power source for AC essential bus?

a. No.1 generator.

b. No.2 AC bus with generator 2 back up.

c. No.3 AC bus with generator 1 as back up.

2. What indicates the AC essential auto transfer has taken place?

a. ESS/STBY POWE R light.

b. ESS AC ON AL T light.

c. AC standby bus FAI L light.

3. What indicates a failure of the DC essential bus?

a. ELECTRICAL light.
( b. DC Standby bus FAI L light.

c. DC Essential bus FAI L light.

4. Which can power the essential TR?

a. No.3 TR.

b. AC essential bus.

c. AC standby bus.

5. Will DC essential bus fail if the essential TR fails?

a. Yes.

b. Not if the DC tie bus is powered.

c. Not if AC essential bus is powered.

6. What is the normal flight position of the AC essential bus selector switch?

a. B3(G 1)

b. G1
(
c. B3(G2)
6·14 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

STANDBY POWER

GENERAL

The standby power system provides AC and DC standby power to power essential flight and engine starting,
navigation, communication and lighting systems.

The system includes the ai"rcraft battery, static inverter, standby power switch, and battery switch. The
system is designed to power critical items for approximately 40 minutes when normal power sources are
are available.

BATTERY

The battery bus and its flight station extension are powered directly from the battery. The battery is
charged by the battery charger, as required, when AC power is available on No.1 AC bus and the standby
power system is not powered from the battery. The charger voltage is higher than the normal battery volt·
age, so the charger is not powered when the battery is being used as the standby power source.

BATTERY SWITCH

OFF - In this position, auto transfer of the AC and DC standby busses cannot occur.

ON - Provides auto transfer capability for DC standby bus.

- Provides auto transfer capability for AC standby bus, if standby power switch is in ARM position.
(
- Provides capability of powering essential communication bus from battery.

AC STANDBY BUS

The AC standby bus is normally powered from a single phase of the AC essential bus. The AC standby bus
may auto transfer or be manually transferred to the static inverter.

Automatic transfer will take place if AC essential power fails, providing the battery switch is ON and the
standby power switch is in ARM. Automatic transfer of the AC standby bus will not take place if the
standby power switch is OFF, or battery switch is OFF.

Manual transfer takes place if the standby power switch is placed in the ON position. In the ON position,
AC standby bus will transfer to battery and inverter power, if the essential busses are powered, or if
battery switch is 0 F F.

DC STANDBY BUS

The DC standby bus is normally powered from the DC essential bus. It can be powered from the battery
bus if either automatic or manual transfer takes place.

Automatic transfer takes place if the DC essential bus is unpowered and the battery switch is in the ON
position.

Manual transfer is controlled by the standby power switch position. If this switch is ON, the DC standby
bus will transfer regardless of battery switch position.
 June 1973 6·15
ELECTRICAL

(
STANDBY POWER SWITCH

This three position switch is located on the pilot's overhead panel. It is. normally positioned in the
guarded ARM position in flight. With no power on aircraft, it or battery switch should be in the OFF
position, to prevent draining battery.

ARM - This is the normal guarded position in flight. In this position and with the battery switch ON,
the automatic transfer circuit is ready to operate, if the need arises. If the AC essential bus
becomes unpowered, the AC standby bus will auto transfer to inverter power.

ON - In this manual position, forced transfer takes place for both standby busses, DC standby bus
transfers to battery bus; inverter is powered from battery bus and powers the AC standby bus.'

OF F - Automatic transfer of AC standby bus cannot take place.

UNARM LIGHT

This light will come on if either the standby power switch or battery switch is in the OFF position.
This disables AC standby bus auto transfer capability. The light is powered from the DC standby bus.

STBY PWR ON LIGHT

The amber light comes on when the standby power switch is in the ARM position, battery switch is
ON, and either or both standby busses have auto transferred to battery power.

( STBY PWR FLOWBAR LIGHT

This comes on with the standby power switch ON, manually transferring both standby busses to battery,
regardless of battery switch position, and regardless if both essential busses are powered.

INVERTER

The static inverter converts DC power to 115 volts, 400 Hz, single phase AC power. The inverter is not
normally powered. It is powered, from the battery bus, only when the static inverter relay is energized.
The relay is automatically energized if the AC essentiai bus fails when battery switch is ON and the
standby power switch is in the ARM position. It can also be energized by placing the standby power
switch in the ON position.

1. When will auto transfer take place for both AC and DC standby busses?

a. When standby power switch is placed in the On position.

b. When standby power switch is in ARM position and battery switch is ON.

c. When standby power switch is in ARM position, battery switch is ON; loss of power occurs to
AC and DC essential busses.

2. Why is the standby power switch placed in the ARM position during flight?

a. To arm DC standby bus for auto transfer.

(
b. To arm AC standby bus for auto transfer.

c. To arm AC essential bus for auto transfer.

6·16 June 1973
ELECTRICAL

(
3. How long can the battery be powered if the standby power switch is ON?

a. Approximately 40 minutes.

b. Indefinitely.

c. 4 . 6 hours.

4. Is the inverter normally powered in flight?

a. Yes

b. No

5. Will transfer of DC standby bus power take place if DC essential bus is powered, and standby power
switch is in the ON position?

a. Yes

b. No

6. What does the STBY PWR ON light indicate?

a. Either or both standby bus(es) have auto transferred to battery power.

b. Both AC and DC standby busses have been manually transferred to other sources. (
c. Standby power switch is in the ARM position.

7. What causes the standby power UNARM light to come on?

a. Placing standby power switch to On position.

b. Placing battery switch to ON position.

c. Placing either battery switch or standby power switch to OFF.

8. What does the STBY PWR flowbar light indicate?

a. Standby busses are powered normally.

b. Both standby busses have been manually transferred to other sources of power.

c. Only the DC standby bus has auto transferred to battery bus.

(
 June 1973 6-17

ELECTRICAL

(
EXTERNAL POWER

GENERAL

An external power source, capable of providing 81 KW, 115 volt, 400 Hz, 3 phase power, can be used for
ground operation. This source of power is connected through an external power receptacle, onthe lower
right side of the nose of the aircraft. It can be used to supply power to the AC busses and entire electrical
system, or only the ground service busses used for aircraft towing and servicing.

The system consists of an external power receptacle, external power relay, bus protection panel (BPP) and
control switches. An external power AVAI L light and external power ON light monitor external power.
The external power switch and lights are located on the engineer's electrical panel. The BPP is located in
the mid electrical service center.

AVAIL LIGHT

The AVAI L light will come on when external power is connected to the receptacle, and has proper voltage,
frequency and phasing.

Oi\l LIGHT

The ON light comes on when the external power switch is turned ON, connecting external power to the
AC tie bus.

BPP
(
The bus protection panel provides control and protection for the external power system. If any of the
following occur, the external power relay will trip and disconnect external power from the AC tie bus;

Over voltage
Under voltage
Frequency out of limits

EXTERNAL POWER SWITCH

External power control is provided by a magnetically held 2 position toggle switch. When placed in ON
position, the BPP allows external power relay to be energized, connecting external power to the AC tie
bus.

OPERATION

When external power is turned ON, the external power ON light illuminates, external power relay is closed
and power is connected to the AC tie bus. External power always takes priority in powering the AC tie
bus, and will not parallel with any other source. If lOGs are not powered, the BTBs will already be
closed, so power is then connected to each AC load bus, to TRs and OC busses.

When engines are started, the G F R closes. Since each lOG has priority in powering its AC load bus,
and the bus is being powered from external power, the GCU causes the BTB to open. The GB seeks
either a dead bus or proper phasing signal. Receiving a dead bus signal it closes, allowing the lOG to
power its load bus.

(
6·18 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

(
\
After all engines are started, lOGs are powering their AC busses, isolated, because paralleling is not
possible with external power. When the external power switch is turned OFF, the No.2 GCU allows
its BTB to close, sensing dead tie bus signal. The No.1 and No.3 close in order as their GCUs sen93
proper phasing for parallel. The external power relay is unpowered and the ON light is out.

1. What takes priority in powering the AC tie bUs?

a. APU generator.

b. lOG

c. External power

2. What takes priority in powering an AC load bus?

a. APU generator.

b. lOG.

c. Externa I power.

3. What does the green AVAIL light indicate?

a. External power is connected to receptacle and has proper voltage, frequency and phasing.

b. External power switch is ON. (

c. APU generator is operation.

4. What does the external power ON light indicate?

a. External power switch is ON and power is connected to AC tie bus.

b. External power relay is open.

c. External power switch is in OF F position.

5. What is the purpose of the bus protection panel?

a. Provide control and protection for each lOG.

b. Provide control and protection for APU generator.

c. Provide control and protection for external power.

6. What is AC BTB indication when external power is turned ON and engines not running?

a. No light indication.

b. OPEN lights.

c. Flow bars.
 June 1973 6-19

ELECTRICAL

(
7. What is position of AC BTBs when external power is ON with IDGs operating?

a. Open, with OPEN lights on.

b. Closed, with flowbar lights.

c. Closed, with no flowbar light.

GROUND SERVICE POWER

GENERAL

Ground service control is provided to supply selected loads from either external power or APU generator,
when it is not practical or desirable to power the complete electrical system.

Ground service power provides power for: Fueling, towing, vacuuming, lighting, battery charging and VH F-2.
There are two control switches. One is located on the second officer's electrical panel and the other is located
on the left forward flight attendant's panel. The switch at the electrical panel provides selection of power from
either the APU generator (APU) or from external power (EXT POWER). When in the OFF position, ground
service power is normally powered. If ground power is turned on at the flight attendant's panel, only external
power source can be used. At this panel, there are two switch lights. One labeled GN D SVCE ON and the
other, GND SVCE OFF. Either switch is activated by pressing, which also turns on its light.

If ground service power was turned on at the second officer's station, operation can be stopped at the flight
attendant's panel by first pressing the GND SVCE ON switch, then pressing the GND SVCE OFF switch.

If ground service power was turned on at the flight attendant's panel, operation can be stopped at the second
officer's panel by first placing the switch in the EXT POWER position, then OFF.

OPERATION

When either ground service switch is turned on, the selected power is then connected to the No.1 AC ground
service bus. Certain loads on No.1 AC bus are de-energized. The No.2 and No.3 BTBs are also
de-energized, and their associated AC load busses. At the same time, the DC ground service bus relay is
energized to separate No.1 DC bus from the DC ground'service bus. No.1 TR supplies this load.

In addition, AC power will power the battery charger and battery, providing the battery switch is OFF. The
battery charger relay will not be energized if either standby bus is being powered by the battery.

If the external power switch is turned ON, ground service switch cannot be operated in either APU or EXT
POWER position.

1. Which of the following can be powered from ground service power?

a. VHF-1.

b. Battery charger.

c. No.3 AC bus.

(
 6-20 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

(
2. What busses are powered, using ground service power?

a. AC and DC ground service busses and essential power.

b. AC and DC ground service busses and No.1, 2, and 3 AC busses.

c. AC and DC ground service busses.

3. If ground service power is on, will the battery be charged?

a. Yes, if battery switch is ON.

b. Yes, if battery switch is OFF.

c. No.

GALLEY POWER

AC busses 1, 2 and 3 provide the necessary AC power for the Galley busses 1, 2 and 3. Galley power is
protected by RCCBs and cockpit trip/set breakers. Galley control switches are located on the upper left
electrical panel. An emergency galley power shutoff switch is provided in the galley, behind the galley
compartment service door.

GALLEY BUS OFF LIGHTS

Galley Bus OFF light will come on if respective Galley Power Bus switch is released, or Galley Control Bus (
circuit breaker trips. Also the Galley Power Bus 1 Switch OFF light will come on if the Galley Power Bus
No.. l' breaker trips, Galley Oven No.1 breaker' trips and Galley Oven No.4" breaker trips. Galley
Power Bus 2 Switch OF F light will come on if Galley Power Bus No.2 breaker' trips, Galley Oven No.2
breaker* trips and Galley Oven No.5 breaker' trips.

Galley Power Bus 3 Switch OFF light will come on if Galley Power Bus No.3 breaker* trips, Galley Oven
No.3 breaker' trips and Galley Oven No.6 breaker trips.'

All three OF F lights will appear for the following reasons:

Overloaded generator.

Galley Power Emergency Shutoff Switch pressed (located in galley).

Galley Control Bus 1,2, and 3 breakers tripped.

If all three OFF lights appear because of an overloaded generator, power can be restored by releasing all
three switches, then resetting.

If a flight attendant presses the galley power emergency switch, all three OFF lights will appear. To restore
galley power, the emergency switch must be pressed again.

*These circuit breakers are located on the right galley panel. All three must trip for an OF F light to appear.
 June 1973 6·21

ELECTRICAL

(
1. Which have the highest electrical load per unit?

a. Ovens

b. Fuel boost pumps.

c. TRs

2. What is the power source for No.1 Galley bus?

a. Essential AC bus.

b. No.3 AC bus.

c. No.1 AC bus.

3. What does a galley bus OFF light indicate?

a. Tripped RCCB

b. Emergency galley power switch placed in OFF position.

c. Galley bus switch in OF F position.

4. Can you repower any galley bus switch after all FAI L lights come on from generator overload?
(
a. Yes, by pressing the desired galley switch.

b. No.

c. Yes, by pressing all switches OFF, then pressing desired galley switch.

GALLEY POWER DISTRIBUTION

Galley bus power switches on the engineer's panel control remote controlled circuit breakers (RCCB)
which remove power from the following:

GALLEY AC BUS 1

Ovens 1 and 4

Service Carts

Coffee Makers 1, 3 and 4.

Refrigerators 1 and 2

FWD SVCE CTR Beverage Bar

FWD SVCE CTR (norskog Double Oven)

(
 6-22 June 1973
ELECTRICAL

(
GALLEY AC BUS 2

Ovens 2 and 5

Refrigerators 3 and 4

Bun Warmer 1

FWD Coffee Bar Hot Cup

AFT Coffee Bar Hot Cup

Coffee Warmer

GALLEY AC BUS 3

Ovens 3 and 6

Refrigerators 5 and 6

Coffee Makers 2, 5 and 7

Bun Warmer 2

Cold Storage Units 1 and 2. (

NOTE: Circuit breakers are located in the galley on the right galley panel.

ABNORMAL LIGHT INDICATIONS

PILOTS' ANNUNCIATOR PANEL

The pilots have an annunciator panel, located on their instrument panel, which provides warning and
caution indications.

Generally, detail indications of the conditions are presented on other panels. The lights flash for 10
seconds then remain illuminated until the announced condition is corrected or until the indicator is
manually reset. The only exceptions are the ICING and ENG 2 FAI L ARMED lights which do not
flash.

A Caution and Warning RESET switch is located on the lower center instrument panel next to the
annunciators. The light will tell the pilots a problem exists in a certain area. The light can then be
extinguished, if desired, by pressing the reset switch, before the condition is corrected.

ENGINEERS' ANNUNCIATOR PANEL

An annunciator panel is provided at the second officer's station to give a visual indication of minor
hazard conditions such as doors and openings not securely closed. The light will remain illuminated
until the condition is corrected. These are amber lights.
(
 June 1973 6·23

ELECTRICAL

(
ESS/STBY POWER LIGHT CAUSES

AC Essential Bus FA I L light

DC Essential Bus FAIL light
AC Standby Bus FAI L light
DC Standby Bus FAI L light
Standby Power ON light

ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

IDG LOW PRESS light

Any GFR Trip (OPEN light)
APU GEN OIL OVHT/PRESS light
FL T STA BUS FAI L light
BTB Trip (OPEN light)

STBY PWR ON light will come on if either standby bus has automatically switched to battery bus. Standby
Power switch must be in ARM position, and battery switch ON.

STBY PWR Flowbar light will come on if both standby busses have been manually switched to battery
bus power. Standby Power switch in ON position.

ESS AC ON AL T light will come on when AC essential power has automatically transferred to alternate
power source selected by AC Essential Bus selector switch.

( Essential and Standby FAI L lights will come on if the respective bus fails.

IDG LOW PRESS light will come on if the IDG oil pressure is below minimum pressure.

GFR, GB and BTB OPEN light will come on if the respective breaker or relay has been tripped manually
or automatically.

I DG BRG light will come on if excessive generator bearing wear occurs.

Galley Bus FAI L light will come on if respective galley bus or oven circuit breaker has tripped. All three
FAI L lights indicate either an overloaded generator or emergency switch operation in galley.

APU GEN 01 L OVHT & PRESS lights indicate either generator temperature is above limits or generator
oil pressure is below limits.

F LT ST A BUS FAI L light indicates either the AC bus powering it has failed or that the F LT ST A BUS
RCCB has tripped, resulting in loss of power to the Flight Station bus.

Generator D IFF light comes on if either a zone one or zone two differential fau It exists. Light goes out
when reset.

DC Bus Isolation OPEN light is a switch position light, coming on when the position switch is pressed in
indicating. DC B!Bs are open and DC busses .isolated from the DC tie bus. When switch is pressed again'
and out, light Will go out and all DC BTBs will close, connecting DC busses to DC tie bus.

(
 6·24 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

(
BATTERY CONDITION light indicates battery is shorted or overheated.

1. Which will cause ELECTRICAL SYSTEM light to come on?

a. AC Essential Bus FA I L light.

b. FLTSTAFUSFAILlight.

c. lOG BRG light.

2. Which will cause ESS/STBY POWER light to come on?

a. BTB Trip.

b. lOG LOW PRESS light.

c. Standby bus failure.

3. Which of the following Master Annunciator Panel lights will not flash?

a. ESS/STBY POWER.

b. ELECTRICAL SYSTEM.

c. ICING.
(
4. What does a FLT STA BUS FAIL light indicate?

a. Power to the Flight Station bus has failed.

b. Always indicates failure of AC bus powering Flight Station bus.

c. Always indicates Flight Station bus CB has tripped.

5. What does BATTE RY CONDITION light indicate?

a. Battery is shorted, overheated or cell voltage is low, APU should not be started.

b. Battery charger is not connected to battery.

c. Battery switch is OF F.

TRIPS AND FAULTS

GENERAL

Steps and guidance for these type procedures are found in Operating Manual Book 1. If the information
contained in these chapters does not prove adequate, good judgement prevails:

The following information will expand on some of various faults which could take place. This information
will not replace the Operating Manual if any differences exist, as to policy and course of action.
 June 1973 6·25

ELECTRICAL

(
BTB TRIP

A BTB OPEN light indicates this type of trip. It might be caused by a failure of the I DG to share the
electrical load. The GCU compares the output of its generator with the average output of all generator.
If a difference exists, the BTB might trip with the respective light indication. The specific causes are over
and under excitation, under voltage or current difference. One reset attempt could be made without risk
of a secondary problem, such as a short might cause.

If it is decided to attempt reset, two approaches are possible. One is to random parallel, the other is to
auto parallel.

Random paralleling: Close BTB by pressing BTB close switch.

Auto paralleling: The BTB seeks dead bus signal to close automatically. Open the GFR by pressing trip
switch. GB will open, providing dead bus signal. The BTB will automatically close. This sets up auto
paralleling attempt. Close the GFR which will close the GB. Generator should auto parallel with other
generators. Monitor for another trip. Only one attempt should be made, regardless if random paralleling
or auto paralleling.

ALL THREE BTBs TRIP

Three BTB OPEN lights will indicate this kind of trip. This might be caused by a short on the tie bus. Each
BTB trips because of undervoltage. All busses are still powered,if no other abnormal conditions exist.
Do not attempt any reset. Operate systems in isolated condition. APU and external power cannot be used
to power tie bus.
(
GENERATOR FAULT

GF Rand GB OPEN lights indicate this type fault. This could be caused by fault eXisting in generator
wiring, GCU or CSD. The specific causes are over and undervoltage, underspeed or open phase.

Voltage problem: BTB trips, GFR and GB trips, BTB closes.

Open phase or underspeed: GFR and GB trip.

With either problem, all busses are still powered. The faulty generator's bus is powered through the tie
bus.

If an attempt is made to reset trip and auto parallel, close the GFR. Only one reset attempt should be
made. Monitor for retrip and parallel operation.

BUS FAULT

FR and GB OPEN lights on one generator, other two BTB OPEN lights, indicate this type fault. The
galley FAI L lights mayor may not be on. This kind of fault is caused by a short on a bus sensed
as an undervoltage by all IDGs in parallel. Do not attempt reset of power into bus fault.

The sequence is an undervoltage sensed by all I DGs. The galleys may trip and FAI L lights come on
due to excessive current drawn by short being treated as too heavy a load. The AC hydraulic pumps
might also trip off if operating. The BTBs will trip, putting entire load on one generator. It will trip
and its BTB will close, sensing dead bus signal. The other two BTBs then trip.
(
 6·26 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

(
The faulty bus is not powered. Consideration should be given to AC essential power source, especially if
faulty bus is No.3. If it is No.3 its generator cannot be used as a source of AC essential power, because
it supplies essential power between the GB and BTB, where the fault is taking place. If the fault concerns
one of the other busses, their generators can be used for powering AC essential, because they supply
essential power between the lOG and GB. If they are to be used, open the GB and close the FR. Manually
opening its BTB completes isolation of bus and allows parallel operation of other lOGs.

01 FFERENTIAL FAUL T·ZONE 1

FR OPEN and OIFF lights with GB OPEN light will indicate this type of fault. The cause is a 50 AMP
short between the lOG and the GB. Whether to attempt reset or not is the captain's decision. The primary
concern might be AC essential power. Normally, reset attempt should not be made, unless greater
emergency exists.

If reset attempt is made, close the FR. This resets the lOG, extinguishing OIFF and OPEN lights. If fault
still exists, the FR will retrip quickly enough to prevent secondary damage. If it resets, flowbar lights will
be on. Only one reset attempt should be made.

DIFFERENTIAL FAULT·ZONE 2

F R, GB and BTB OPEN lights and 0 I FF light on one generator will indicate this type fault. If the BTB
fails to open, then the indication would be F R, GB OPEN lights with 01 F F light on one generator with
other two BTB OPEN lights on. The cause is a 50 AMP short between the GB and BTB on any generator.

The faulty generator bus will fail, causing its F LT STA BUS FAI L light to come on.
(
If No.3 bus fails, the ESS AC ON AL T light will come on if the essential power selector is at this position.

Because the problem is between the GB and BTB, and lOG could be operated isolated if greater emergency
exists, by manually opening its GB and closing its FR.

After a zone 2 differential fault, the BTB can only be reset by removing all DC and PMG power.

GENERATOR BEARING LIGHT

If an lOG B RG light illuminates, this normally is not too serious. When the generator main bearing wear
allows the generator shaft to wobble, it will contact a detector ring; this contact will ground the sensing
circuit in the GCU to illuminate the BRG light. If no other abnormal conditions exist, the generator may
be operated several hours unloaded by opening its FR. If needed to essential bus power, open its GB and
close FR.

lOG LOW OIL PRESSURE

If lOG charge oil pressure drops below minimum value, the low press light will illuminate. If actual low
oil pressure exists, the F Rand GB will also trip on underspeed. Both underspeed and low oil pressure
switches actuate at same pressure. If only the low press light illuminates, a faulty switch or light possibly
exists. Generator voltage, frequency and temperature should be monitored. If abnormal, or if FR and
GB trip, the lOG should be disconnected. The lOG will be damaged if allowed to continue rotating
with low oil pressure or high oil temperature. With no malfunction evident, the lOG can be operated
normally.
{
"
 June 1973 6-27

ELECTRICAL

( CIRCUIT BREAKERS

RCCB

There are two type circuit breakers being used to protect electrical loads. One is the normal trip/set type
found on most cockpit circuit breaker panels. The other is called a Remote Control Circuit Breaker (RCCB),
located in the electrical compartment. Wire feeders from the electrical compartment busses to other sub
busses and major system loads, are protected by the RCCBs. Use of these RCCBs deletes the need to route
large wires through the cockpit to the respective load. Using shorter feeder lines, results in fewer faults.

The RCCB automatically actuates to break the circuit by thermal mechanical means if an overload occurs.
The RCCB uses a 1/2 AMP breaker in the cockpit as a trip/set switch. The RCCB unit also has a manual
trip/set button, however it is not normally needed because of the 1/2 AMP breaker in the cockpit. The
system is designed so that the RCCB assumes the same condition as the cockpit trip/set switch. Thus,
normally opening or closing the trip/set switch will also open or close the RCCB. When the RCCB overloads
and trips, it sends a trip signal to its respective breaker in the cockpit, causing it to also trip.

Flight Station busses 1, 2, and 3, all passenger service busses and the forward AC ground service bus are
controlled by RCCB trip/set switches in the cockpit. The FLIGHT STS PWR BUS breakers are located
on 3-E-1, 2, 3 panel.

CIRCUIT BREAKER PANELS

Eleven circuit breaker panel sections are installed in the cockpit. These are combined to form three primary
panels. They are identified as CB-1, CB-2 and CB-3 panels.
(
CB-1, or Pilots' Overhead Panel, contain important flight operation breakers, within easy reach of both
pilots and the second officer. Protection is provided for such critical areas such as communications,
navigation, flight controls and fire detection. The bus power is either Essential, Standby or Battery, and
is so labeled on the row of breakers.

CB-2, or Second Officer's Overhead Panel, contain the system breakers which are the concern of the pilots
as well as the Second Officer. Protections for items such as cockpit lights, ground service power, passenger
service, hydraulic and anti·ice, are found on this panel.

CB-3, or Second Officer's Vertical Panel, is the aft panel. Protection for items such as ECS, pressurization,
fuel system, interior and exterior lights, AC and DC power control, are found here.

Two breaker panels are installed in the aft bulkhead of the galley, one on each side of the galley lifts.
They are identified as Left Galley and Right Galley panels. They contain breakers needed for passenger
service and ground operation functions.

LOCATION OF CIRCUIT BREAKER

Circuit breakers are located by panel number, row letter and breaker number. For Example: if you
wanted to locate the DC TIE BUS PWR breaker on 3-F-3 panel, you would look on CB-3 panel, find
row F and then find the third breaker from the left.

1. Which of the following would be protected by an RCCB?

a. Oil Low Pressure Light.
b. Flight Station Bus Power
c. Air Data Computer.
6-28 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

2_ Where would essential navigation and communication breakers be located?

(

a_ CB-l panel.

b. CB-2 panel.

c. CB-3 panel.

3. Where is CB-3 panel located?

a. Pilots' Overhead Panel.

b_ Engineer's Overhead Panel.

c. Engineer's Vertical Panel next to door.

4. Can an RCCB be reset in cockpit by trip/set sw.itch?

a. Yes.

b. No.

5. On what circuit breaker panel would a CB identified as l-F-2 be located?

a. CB-l.
(
b. CB-2

c. CB-3.

(
 June 1973 6·29

ELECTRICAL

CIRCUIT BREAKER PANEL LOCATION

ENGINEER
OVERHEAD CIRCUIT
BREAKER PANEL(CB·2)

PILOTS OVERHEAD CIRCUIT

BREAKER PANEL (CB·1)

ENGINEER AFT
CIRCUIT BREAKER
ENGINEER
PANEL (CB·3)
ELECTR ICAL~;:--;;:;~~;:;~;:-~F~~
CONTROL PANEL

VIEW LOOKING AFT

AT MID ELECTRICAL SERVICE CENTER

GALLEY RIGHT GALLEY LEFT

CIRCUIT BREAKER CUlT BREAKER
PANEL EL

GALLEY
EQUIPMENT
RACKS

ACCESS TO MID
ELECTRICAL SEAT GALLEY
SERVICE CENTER
6·30 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

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 June 1973 6·31

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6-32 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

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 June 1973 6·33

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 6·34 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

,(
AC SYSTEM POWER

No.1 AC Bus. . . . . . . . 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Normally powered from No.1 generator.
Can be powered from other generators through AC Tie Bus.

No.1 F LT STA Bus. 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.1 AC Bus.

No.1 Galley Bus. . 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.1 AC Bus.

AC Ground Service Bus 117 V, single phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.1 AC Bus.

No.2 AC Bus. . . . 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.2 generator.
Can be powered from other generator through AC Tie Bus.

No.2 F LT STA Bus. 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.2 AC Bus.

No.2 Galley Bus. . 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.2 AC Bus.

No.2 AC Radio Bus. 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.2 FL T STA Bus
through No.2 Master Radio Relay.

No.3 AC Bus . . . . . . . . 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.3 generator.
Can be powered from other generators through AC Tie Bus.

No.3 FLT STA Bus. 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.3 AC Bus. (
No.3 Galley Bus. 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from No.3 AC Bus.

AC Essential Bus. 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Normally powered from No.3 AC Bus.
Can be powered from either No.1 or No.2 generators.

AC Essential Radio Bus . . . . 117 V, 3 phase, 400 Hz. Powered from AC Essential Bus through
AC Master RAdio Relay.

AC Standby Bus. . . . . . . 117 V, single phase, 400 Hz. Normally powered from phase A or AC
Essential Bus. Can be powered from inverter.

Inverter. . . . . . . . . . . 115 V, single phase, 400 Hz, 750 volt/amp. Powered from Battery
bus, when inverter relay is energized.

Transformers (3). . . . . . . 26 V AC. One each powered from AC Standby Bus, AC Essential
bus and No.2 FLT STA Bus. (Navigation and Instrument Systems)

Battery Charger . . . . . . . 38 volt potential. Powered from AC Ground Service Bus.

Provides control and power for battery charging.

(
 June 1973 6·35

ELECTRICAL

( DC SYSTEM
DC SYSTEM POWER

TRs (3) . . . . . . 28 V, DC at 75 amps. Powered from No.1, 2 and 3 AC Busses.

Normal Power source for No.1, 2, and 3 DC Busses.

Essential TR. . . . . . . . 28 V, DC at 75 amps. Powered from AC Essential Bus.

A power source for DC Essential Bus.

Battery 26 V, NICAD. Charged by battery charger when either or both

Standby bus(es) not powered by battery. Power source for
Battery bus. Emergency source of power for DC Standby Bus,
APU Battery Bus, Essential Communications Bus and Inverter.

No.1 DC Bus. . . . . . . 28 V. Powered from No.1 TR. Can be powered by other DC

busses through DC Tie Bus.

DC Ground Service Bus 28 V. Powered from No.1 TR.

APU Battery Bus'. Powered from battery bus or DC ground service bus.

No.2 DC Bus . . Powered from No.2 TR. Can be powered from other DC busses
through DC Tie Bus.

No.2 DC Radio Bus. Powered from No.2 DC Bus through No.2 Master Radio Relay.

( No.3 DC Bus . . . Powered from No.3 TR. Can be powered from other DC busses
through DC Tie Bus.

DC Essential Bus. . . . . . Powered from Essential TR. Can be powered from other DC busses
through DC Tie Bus. Normal power source for DC Standby Bus.

DC Essential Radio Bus Powered from DC Essential Bus. Can be powered from Battery Bus.

Battery Bus. . . . . Powered from Battery regardless of battery switch position.

Essential Communications Bus. Powered from DC Essential Bus through standby communications
relay and battery communications relay. Can be powered from
battery bus through standby communications and battery
communications relays and essential DC Master Radio Relay.

(
 6-36 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

(
HIGH ELECTRICAL LOAD EQUIPMENT

EQUIPMENT PER UNIT WATTS UNITS TOTAL KW

AC MOTOR HYDRAULIC PUMPS 14000 2 28

OVENS 12200 6 73

WINDSHIELD HEAT 5300 2 11

SIDEWALL LIGHTS 3800 4

FLOOR HEAT 3600 4

FUEL BOOST PUMPS 3450 8 28

COFFEE MAKERS 2830 7 20

TRANSFORMER-RECTI FI ERS 2500 4· 10

FORWARD AVIONIC COMPARTMENT FAN 2000 1 2

BATTERY CHARGER 1900 1 2

MOVIE PROJECTOR 1600 3 5 (,

SIDE WINDOW HEAT, AFT 1360 2 3

GALLEY LI FTS 1200 2 2

CARGO FANS 1100 3 3

LAVATORY FLUSH PUMP MOTORS 930 6 6

PASSENGER DOORS 900 6 5

GALLEY FAN 810 1

Max continuous load occurs during cold night cruise, and amounts to approximately 158 KW. Battery
charter and TRs do not normally operate at full rated load.

(
 June 1973 6-37

ELECTRICAL

AC TIE BUS
I
.... l'
I 1
NO.1 AC BUS NO.2 AC BUS NO.3 AC BUS BAHERV

T .c J..
PAX PAX PAX
SVCE SVCE SVCE
BUSSES BUSSES BUSSES
1L 2L 3L
1R 2R 3R

AC FLT FLT FLT AC

GALLEY
STA GALLEY GALLEY ESS BAT
GND SVC STA BUS I"" BUS STA BUS BUS
BUS BUS BUS BUS BUS
*
,.....I LL..
BAT
CHGR I 26V
AC
XFMR XFMR
26V
AC

( ~~
NO.7 NO_{ NO.3 ESS STATIC
TR TR TR TR INV

,
~

r
DC NO.1 NO.2 NO.3 DC
GND SVC DC DC DC ESS
BUS BUS BUS BUS
BUS
>!-*

APU
BAT
NO.2
AC
RADIO
NO.2
DC
RADIO
!
ESS
COMM
*
r
ESS DC
RADIO
,. ,.
DC
STAN De
AC
STAN De
!
ESS AC
RADIO
BUS BUS BUS BUS BUS BUS BUS
* :~~ *** *** *** * ** ***
.... ....
!26V
DC TIE BUS AC
XFMR

**
*CAN BE POWERED BY NO.1 OR NO.2 GENERATOR.

*** CAN BE POWERED THROUGH DC TIE BUS.

CONTROLLED BY NO.2 MASTER RADIO SWITCH. ~COOE/CONDITIONa
*CAN BE POWERED BY BATTERY. AC POWER •...•
( **CAN BE POWERED BY INVERTER.
• *.CONTROLLED BY ESSENTIAL MASTER RADIO SWITCH.
DC POWER •••••

*POWERED-IF AC STBY BUS AUTO OR MANUAL

TRANSFERS TO BATTERY.
 6·38 June 1973

ELECTRICAL

(
ANSWER SHEET

General Description - 6·1 Essential Power - 6·11 Galley Power - 6·19

1. b 1. c 1. a
2. c 2. b 2. c
3. a 3. c 3. c
4. b 4. b 4. c
5. a 5. b 5. b
6. b 6. a
Abnormal Lights - 6-21
AC Generating System - 6·4 Standby Power - 6·13
1. b
1. b 1. c
2. c
2. a 2. b
3. c
3. c 3. a
4. a
4. b 4. b
5. a
5. a 5. a
6. b 6. a Circuit Breakers - 6·25
7. c 7. c 1. b (
8. c 8. b 2. a
9. b External Power - 6·16 3. c
DC Power System - 6-8 1. c 4. a
1. b 2. b 5. a
2. c 3. a
3. a 4. a
4. a 5. c
5. a 6. c
Battery System - 6-9 7. a
1. b Grou nd Service Power
2. b 1. b
3. a 2. c
4. b 3. b
5. c
«
'\
 June 1973 7-1

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

( The 1011 is configured to carry 250 passengers. Standard crew will be 3-cockpit and variable
flight attendants, with 8 flight attendants being the normal complement.

CABIN DOORS - GENERAL

There are eight cabin doors designated L-l, L-2, L-3, LA, R-l, R-2, R-3, RA. With gear extended,
all doors are 15 feet from the ground. There are no over-the-wing exits. The doors open inward
initially, then upward into overhead stowage areas. The doors are raised by electric motors and/or
overhead springs that wind up whenever a door is closed. There are no handles on the doors. Normal
and emergency operating controls are mounted adjacent to the upper, forward corner of all doors. The
doors can be opened from outside or inside, by electrical door close-open switches or emergency door
"T" handles. To operate the door electrically, the aircraft must be on the ground.

Slide/rafts are mounted in bustles on the lower half of the door. Slide/rafts can be deployed only by
the inside emergency operation of the door.

Door pairs 1, 2 and 3 are Type" A" doors and are for general usage and larger than the No.4 door
pair. L-4 and RA are Type "1" and are for emergency use only. These doors are smaller and do not
have electrical motor drives. Only slide units are mounted on the LA and RA doors.

Pressure gauge viewing lens is at the bottom of the door/slide bustle and cannot be viewed with the
door open. Slide bar engagement is to be checked upon door closing prior to taxi out.

TYPE "A" DOORS NORMAL OPERATION

( The" A" Doors are normally opened and closed by electrical switches. Door motors are mounted
over each door and are powered by AC Essential bus. Door Close-Open switch power is DC Essential
bus. Circuit breakers are on the lower galley, left hand circuit breaker panel. To close the door
electrically (Normal Operation) the EVACUATION SLIDE ENGAGE LEVER must be in the ENGAGE
position. Hold CLOSE switch to close door. To electrically open internally or externally, hold the
door OPEN switch. The door EVACUATION SLIDE ENGAGE LEVER must be in the DETACH
position in order to activate this switch. If the exterior switch will not operate, pull the "T" handle.
Pulling the exterior "T" handle disengages the slide/raft and opens the door. This is designed to
avoid inadvertent slide/raft deployments. To open the door in a non-emergency internally with no
electrical power, place EVACUATION SLIDE ENGAGE LEVER to DETACH, and pull "T" handle.
A hand crank may be used to manually close the door. The crank is stowed in the bustle of the
L-3/R-3 cross aisle overhead coat compartment. Crank sockets are located forward of the doors,
halfway up the liner.

All doors have inside sockets. Only L-l has both an inside and outside socket. It takes approximately
5 minutes to crank a door fully closed.

TYPE "A" DOOR, EMERGENCY OPERATION

Prior to leaving the gate, all doors will be closed by placing the door EVACUATION SLIDE ENGAGE
LEVER to slide ENGAGE, and pressing the CLOSE switch until door is fully down and locked closed.
Visually check slide girt bar engagement in floor brackets.

To open the door from the inside during an emergency with slide engaged, remove the cover and pull
"T" handle. This will disengage the motor, and open the door by spring drive into the overhead. No
electrical power is necessary. A dual lane slide will be pulled out of the bustle and eject outside,
( inflating automatically. If the slide fails to inflate, a backup inflation handle on the slide girt is
provided.
7·2 June 1973

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

To open a Type" A" door from the outside in an emergency, pull "T" handle located at the upper
(
forward corner. This will disengage the slide and electric motor, to open the door by spring drive
into the overhead.

TYPE "1" DOOR, NORMAL OPERATION

The aft·most door pair (LA, R·4) normally are not operated since they do not possess an electrical
motor by which it is powered closed. There are no electrical door open·close switches on these
doors.

To open from the inside, place door EVACUATION SLI DE ENGAGE LEVER in DETACH position.
Remove cover from the "T" handle and pull. Door will spring drive into overhead.

To close the door, place EVACUATION SLIDE ENGAGE LEVER in the ENGAGE position and
hand crank door shut. Crank is stowed in the bustle of the L·3/R3 cross aisle overhead coat
stowage compartment. Check sl ide bar security in floor brackets.

TYPE "1" DOOR EMERGENCY OPERATION

Check to see that the EVACUATION SLIDE ENGAGE LEVER is in the ENGAGE position. Remove
cover from "T" handle and pull. Door will spring drive into the overhead. A single land slide will be
pulled out of the bustle and eject outside, inflating automatically. If the slide fails to inflate, pull the
backup inflation handle on the girt.

To open a Type "1" door from the outside in an emergency, pull 'T" handle located at the upper
forward corner. This will disengage the slide and open the door by spring drive into the overhead.

GALLEY EGRESS

The lower galley is entered from the mid·cabin via two lifts. Power is provided by the galley lift
control master key switch located between the two lifts. Step into the lift cage and use both hands
for lift control switch operation.

Move the two inner cage lift control switches appropriately to run lift, up/down. Limit switches will
stop the lift at end of travel.

Egress from the lower galley is normally via the lifts. If the lifts are inoperative and the lift cages are
down, egress can be made through the lift escape hatch. Use the fold down stirrup and assist handle
to climb up. Egress can also be made through a passenger compartment floor escape hatch that opens
up, into the cabin area at R·2 door aisle. Use emergency egress table to climb up. On the ground
egress can be made through the galley door. To open, pull lever on bulkhead at aft side of door. Door
will slowly spring up into the galley. Push door up to ceiling to lock open. The distance to the ground
is nine feet and there is no slide. To close galley door, release ceiling catch and push door down and
shut.

COCKPIT EGRESS

Cockpit egress will be primarily via cockpit door into the cabin. The door has an electrical lock
controlled by cockpit door release switch on the aft end of the control pedestal. The door lock will
open with loss of DC Essential bus power.
(
 June 1973 7-3

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

(
Emergency egress can also be made out of a cockpit escape hatch above the aft ACM seat. Take inertia
reel, (stowed adjacent to hatch) climb out with reel over right shoulder and slide down the aircraft.

EMERGENCY LIGHTING

Emergency lighting is provided for cockpit, cabin, and emergency evacuation slide areas. Eight
nickel cadmium battery packs, located next to each exit and in the galley will power the system for
approximately 16 minutes. Automatic charging is provided by AC Essential power when the lights
are not on. Each battery pack has two condition indicating lights. The red light indicates that the
battery pack circuit breaker is tripped. The amber indicates that the battery pack is momentarily
charging.

The cockpit emergency EXIT light and escape hatch lighting intensity is controlled by the INSTR
STBY LIGHT DIM-BRIGHT switch. This switch is located directly above the EMERGENCY LIGHTING
switch in the center of the eyebrow panel. The instrument panel floodlights are DC Essential powered
dual-purpose lights incorporated in the normal and standby lighting systems. Loss of DC Essential bus
causes the DC Standby bus to be powered by the aircraft battery. The DC Standby bus will supply
battery power to the Standby floodlights. Duration is approximately 40 minutes.

(
(

(
 June 1973 8-1

FIRE PROTECTION

(
GENERAL

The fire protection system provides fire or overheat detection, warning, and control for the three engines,
APU, and the main wheelwells_

Firewalls in the engines isolate fire zones from the aircraft structure_ The APU is installed in a fireproof
compartment_

Maximum use is made of fireproof and fire resistant materials in the fire zones_ Compartmentation is used
to separate combustibles from ignition sources_ Fuel and hydraulic lines and bleed air ducts are fitted with
firewall shutoff valves, and closures are provided for compartment ventilation openings.

DETECTION SYSTEM

Provides audio and visual indication of an overheat or fire condition in the three engine compartments, in
the auxiliary power unit compartment, the wheel well and also identifies smoke in the galley areas.

The system is basically a dual loop fire detector arrangement, using two separate fire sensing loops for each
designated fire area.

The sensing elements within each loop are thermistor-type continuous sensing elements.

The resistance value of the thermistor decreases as temperature increases.

An overheat or fire condition will cause a resistance decrease to a predetermined value which will trigger
( a response in the fire detector control unit connected to the output of each fire sensing loop.

Each of the four fire detector control units monitors the resistance values of its associated fire sensing
loop.

Each control unit contains two control circuits, the outputs of which are connected to provide "and"
logic.

Each control circuit monitors a single fire sensing loop; and when a reistance value corresponding to
a fire condition is received, the fire detection loop light is activated.

The fire detection loop selectors are normally in the BOTH position. Activation of both fire loops
gives complete fire warning. Activation of one loop illuminates FIRE DET LOOP annunciator light
and the affected (A or B) fire detection loop light.

The detection system in each fire area is capable of detecting a fire with one sensing element loop
ground shorted or open. It also provides a verification of the detection system by requiring both
(A and B) loop sensing a fire to cause a complete fire warning.

FIRE WARNING INDICATORS

A red FIRE PULL indicator on each fire pull handle. The three engine handles are located on the
pilot's overheat panel. The APU fire pull handle is located in the top left panel of the engineer's
panel.

A red master FI RE, PUSH TO RESET switch light for the captain, and one for the first officer on
(
the glareshield.
8-2 June 1973

FIRE PROTECTION

An amber FIRE DET LOOP indicator on the pilot's Caution and Warning panel.

Amber A and B indicators located on the engineer's panel for ENG. 1, ENG. 2, ENG. 3, and APU.

A fire alarm bell in the cockpit.

A red FIRE indicator on the APU external control panel located on the bottom of the fuselage, forward of
the main gear.

A fire warning horn.

A red WHEEL WELL FIRE annunciation on the pilot's Caution and Warning panel.

A FIRE DETECTION TEST panel is provided on the engineer's panel.

OPERATION

Fire detection is automatic when the electrical busses are energized and the applicable fire detector system
circuit breakers are closed.

If a fire condition occurs in a designated fire area, both sensing elements will be subjected to a temperature
rise which will cause a decrease in resistance of the sensing elements. When the resistance decreases to a
predetermined value, the monitoring circuit, within the fire detector control unit, will provide the
respective fire warning indications.

The red FIRE PULL indicator on the effected fire pull handle will illuminate. (
Red master FIRE warning PUSH TO RESET switch lights will illuminate.

Amber FI RE DET LOOP indicator will flash for ten seconds, then maintain a steady state illumination.

The effected amber loop A and B legends on the FI RE DETECTION TEST panel will illuminate.

The fire alarm bell will ring.

The effected fire pull handle indicator will remain illuminated until the area temperature is lowered,
thus providing area indication of the fire.

The fire alarm bell and the master FIR E warning lights may be turned off by depressing either switch
or by pulling the firehandle out. The fire alarm bell may be individually turned off by depressing the
BE LL CUTOUT push button switch.

FIRE IN THE APU COMPARTMENT

The red FI RE indicator on the APU local control panel will illuminate.
The external APU fire warning horn will sound.
The fire alarm bell will ring.
The APU will shut down, one extinguisher bottle will discharge and bell will silence when the APU auto·
matic fire shutdown circuit is armed.
I
\
 June 1973 8·3

FIRE PROTECTION

(
If the airplane is airborne, the air ground sensing relay will prevent the APU fire warning horn from
sounding. The engineer may select APU automatic or manual fire shut down when in flight. The
automatic system is always armed on the ground.

The APU fire warning horn will be silenced by pulling either of the APU fire pull handles.

FIRE PULL HANDLES

Pulling the fire pull handle exposes the bottle discharge switch and:

Isolates the effected compartment by closing fuel, hydraulic and bleed air valves.

Closes the vent openings to the effected compartment.

Closes the fuel tank emergency shutoff valve.

Silences and resets the fire bell.

Extinguishes and resets the master fire warning indicators.

Trips generator field relay.

EXTINGUISHING

Fire bottles containing an extinguishing agent with proven effectivity are located adjacent to the fire
( zones. Two bottles each are provided for engines 1 and 3; and two larger bottles are shared by engine
2 and the APU.

Each bottle is activated by selection from a two position switch installed under, and guarded
by, the fire pull handle for the respective zone. Moving the Fire Extinguisher Discharge
Switch discharges either main or alternate extinguisher bottle.

Each bottle has a pressure switch that illuminates an individual discharge indicator located
adjacent to the discharge switch when the bottle is used.

When the fire is extinguished, the temperature should return to normal which willallow the sensing
elements resistance values to return to normal, and the fire warning indicating components will go out.

GALLEY SMOKE

A smoke detector and control amplifier located in the galley provide aural and visual warning of a smoke
condition. A flashing GALLEY SMOKE light indicates that smoke is detected in the galley or test
switch is in TEST. A steady light indicates an overheat in the oven exhaust duct.

When smoke passes through the detector, it increases output voltage from the detector.

The output voltage passes through the control amplifier and energizes the smoke detector alarms.

The GALLEY SMOKE indicator light comes on at the engineer's station and the aural warning box
emits an alternating tone.
(
8·4 June 1973

FIRE PROTECTION

(
When smoke drops to a predetermined level, output voltage decreases, the amplifier goes to a standby
condition and turns off the alarm signals.

The warning horn can be turned off by momentarily placing the detector switch in the HORN CUTOUT
position.

Placing the switch in TEST will simulate a smoke condition, resulting in the light and the alternating tone.

In addition, a thermal switch installed in the galley exhaust duct up stream of the exhaust fan, in case of
fire, provides a signal to:

Shutoff the galley exhaust fan.

Close the mass-flow control overboard dump valve.
Shutoff power to the ovens.
Trigger the galley smoke warning system.
1. With a fire detection loop selector in BOTH, what must be sensed to give a master FI RE warning?

a. Either A or B loop senses a fire.

b. Both A and B loops must sense a fire.

c. TGT beyond limits.

(
2. How long will the effected FIRE PULL handle remain illuminated?

a. Until the FIRE PULL handle is pulled.

b. As long as the fire sensing persists.

c. Until fire extinguishers discharged.

3. How many fire extinguisher bottles could be discharged to anyone engine?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

4. What control could discharge either the main or alternate fire extinguisher bottle?
a. FI RE PULL handle.
b. Press the FIRE EXTINGUISHER DISCHARGE light.
c. FIRE EXTINGUISHER DISCHARGE switch.
5. What is indicated by the TURBINE AI RaVE RHEAT annunciator light illuminated?
a. There has been extensive turbine damage.
(
b. Both thermal switches at intermediate pressure turbine detect overheating.
c. TGT has dropped to a critical level.
 June 1973 8-5

FIRE PROTECTION

(
ANSWER SHEET

1. b

2_ b

3_ b

4_ c

5_ b

(
(

(
 June 1973 9·1

FLIGHT CONTROLS

(
GENERAL

The primary flight controls are the rudder, horizontal stabilizer, ailerons and spoilers. These primary
controls are augmented by trailing edge flaps and leading edge slats. All the flight controls are
hydraulically powered with no manual operation.

PRIMARY FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEMS PANEL

PITCH AND ROLL MONITOR

The function of the pitch and roll monitors is to detect jams and opens in the primary flight control
systems. The monitors consist of two subsystems, the sensing and the warning system. Sensing consists
of bungees in the cable paths that are instrumented to detect a fauit when the bungee breakout load
exceeds a predetermined level. The warning system utilizes the signals from the bungees to determine
the location of the jam or open and activates lights on the Primary Flight Control Systems panel.

Pitch and roll monitoring each has two channels of operation. Failure of a single channel is annunciated
by its FAI L light. A single channel failure does not disable the monitoring function. If both channels
have failed, the affected control system will continue to operate without fail monitoring.

The Primary Flight Control Systems panel also provides control of hydraulic power to actuators in the
stabilizer, aileron, spoiler and rudder systems.

FLIGHT CONTROL ELECTRONICS SYSTEM PANEL

( The Flight Control Electronics System panel monitors and provides on·off control of certain electronic
systems. Each flight control electronic system has two independent channels of monitored operation.
A fault causes automatic channel shutdown. Certain faults in one channel may'shut down both
channels.

RUDDER

Directional control is achieved by a single rudder mounted on the vertical stabilizer. The rudder is
powered by hydraulic systems A, B, and C.

RUDDER HYDRAULIC LIMITER

The rudder is force limited by reducing hydraulic pressure as speed is increased. System A and Bare
automatically shut down when indicated airspeed is more than 164 knots. System C pressure is
reduced to 2000 PSI when indicated airspeed is above 260 knots. As the aircraft slows down, the
hydraulic systems are restored at the same speed references. If system C fails, system A automatically
takes over at full pressure.

Monitoring for proper rudder pressure is provided. One HYDRAULIC switch on the RUDDER
LIMITER panel on the pilot's overhead indicates failures. The PUSH legend will come on if hydraulic
systems A and C are inoperative with the flaps up, or when full rudder power is not available with the
flaps down. Turning the hydraulic limiter switch off will deactivate the automatic rudder limiting and
restore all available hydraulic pressures. At this time, OVRD will be illuminated indicating the auto·
matic hydraulic limiting has been overriden.

(
9·2 June 1973

FLIGHT CONTROLS

(
A guarded RUDDER switch on the PRIMARY FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEMS panel controls hydraulic
power to the rudder. In its normal position, normal hydraulic pressure is provided the rudder. Turning
this switch off bypasses all hydraulic pressure to the rudder and the rudder will trail. The OFF legend will
then be illuminated. Shutting off all rudder pressure will correct an unwanted rudder movement.

RUDDER MECHANICAL LIMITER

A mechanical limiter using dual hydraulic actuators powered by systems A and B, physically limits rudder
travel at higher speeds. Either actuator, when powered, will limit the rudder to 8 degrees of travel from
neutral. The rudder is mechanically limited when flaps are less than 3 degrees and airspeed is more than
164 knots. It is not limited if flaps are more than 3 degrees or airspeed is less than 164 knots.

Monitoring for proper rudder mechanical limiter position is provided. There are two MECHANICAL
switches on the RUDDER LIMITER panel on the pilot's overhead. The 8 0 /30 0 switch continuously
displays rudder mechanical limiter position. The adjacent switch PUSH legend will come on if the
rudder mechanical limiter is not in the correct position for existing flight conditions. Turning the
MECHAN ICAl switch off deactivates the automatic mechanical limiting feature, turns on the MN l
light, and arms the 8 0 /300 switch. Rudder mechanical limiting position can now be manually selected.

RUDDER TRIM.

Rudder trim is a mechanical input into the rudder control to change the neutral position of rudder pedal
input to the hydraulic control valves. Trim inputs will move the rudder a maximum of 10 degrees either
side of neutral. The rudder pedals will follow trim inputs.

YAW STABILITY AUGMENTATION SYSTEM (YAW SAS)

Yaw SAS is normally in series with the rudder controls. It provides full time turn coordination and yaw
damping. With the autopilot engaged in auto/land mode and the aircraft below 1500 feet on approach,
the system shifts to a parallel mode and the rudder pedals move with the rudder.

Both channels operate. Channell uses hydraulic system B, and channel 2 uses hydraulic system A. While
both channels normally operate continuously, either will provide full system operation.

Control and monitoring of the YAW SAS is provided on the FLIGHT CONTROLS ELECTRONIC
SYSTEM PANEL on the pilot's overhead. Failure of each channel is annunciated by a FAI l light. A
single failure does not disable the YAW SAS. If both channels have failed, yaw damping, turn coordinat·
ing and automatic runway alignment will not be provided.

1. Which hydraulic systems power the rudder on takeoff and landing?

a. A, B, and C.

b. A and B

c. B, C, and D.

2. Which hydraulic system powers the rudder above 260 knots?

a. System A at 3000 PS I.
b. System Cat 2000 PSI.
c. System C at 3000 PS I.
 June 1973 9·3

FLIGHT CONTROLS

(
3. How is the rudder powered if hydraulic system C fails above 260 knots?

a. System A at 2000 PS I.

b. System A and B at 3000 PSI.

c. System A at 3000 PS I.

4. How can the automatic rudder hydraulic limiter be overriden?

a. Turning the rudder switch off on the PFCS panel.

b. Turning off hydraulic system C.

C. Placing the rudder hydraulic limiter switch to OVRD.

5. When will the rudder be mechanically limited?

a. Above 164 knots and flaps up.

b. Below 164 knots and flaps down.

c. F laps greater than 3 degrees.

(
9-4 June 1973

FLIGHT CONTROLS
(
PITCH CONTROL

Pitch control is achieved by means of a movable horizontal stabilizer. Elevators are mechanically
<perated by the horizontal stabilizer and act to increase the horizontal stabilizer effectiveness in pitch
control when the stabilizer is deflected. The aircraft is fully controllable throughout the flight envelope,
with either a free or a jammed elevator. Four hydraulic systems provide power to four actuators which,
in unison, move the horizontal stabilizer as commanded by the pilots or autopilot. Anyone of the
hydraulic actuators is capable of providing sufficient stabilizer motion to control the aircraft.

There are two pitch control systems, the captain's and the first officer's. The captain's control path is
directly connected to the left hydraulic package and the first officer's to the right hydraulic package.
Each package controls two of the hydraulic actuators. Each actuator is powered by a separate hydraulic
system.

The two control paths are coupled together by a pitch coupler at the flight station and so act effectively
as one system. To assure that each control package gets the same control signal at the same time, regard-
less of cable tensions, an aft synchronizing bar couples the two control paths together again at the
stabilizer.

Bungee cartridges, one in each control path and one in the aft coupler, act as solid links during normal
operation. If either control path should jam, pilot forces exerted on the control column will apply break-
out forces to the affected bungee. Bungee switches will sense the breakout and signal the monitor
systems.

The stabilizer control is monitored by two pitch monitors. If a jam is detected in the left pitch control (
path, the pitch monitor will cause PUSH legends to appear in stabilizer A and B switches on the Primary
Flight Controls System panel. Turning the stabilizer A and B switches off causes shutdown of the stabi-
lizer A and B actuators, A and B I NOP lights to come on, and electrically opens the aft pitch coupler.
The AFT COUPLER OPEN light then comes on and also turns on the PULL PITCH DISC light. PULL
PITCH DISC is the signal to pull the manual pitch disconnect handle to separate the left and right pitch
control paths. The right or copilot's control path is now controlling the stabilizer through stabilizer C
and D actuators. A jam in the right pitch control path is annunciated in a similar manner except that
stabilizer C and D PUSH lights come on.

The manual pitch disconnect can be reconnected in flight. The aft pitch coupler will automatically
recouple in flight by turning on stabilizer A and B or C and D switches as appropriate.

Stabilizer A, B, C, and D switches INOP legend will also come on when hydraulic power is removed
from the actuator. The INOP lights will be on whenever the respective hydraulic system is shut down.

PITCH TRIM

Control feel forces are artificially supplied by feel units in the control path. Trim or feel change is
obtained by shifting the neutral point of the feel units. An electrical unit in the left control path and
a mechanical unit in the right control path are coupled together so any input into either unit is also
transferred to the other unit.

The mechanical trim wheels provides the trim input to the right control path mechanical unit. All
electrical trim inputs to the left control path unit come from a combination of six electric motors.
There are two motors for each of the three systems: Pitch trim, Mach trim, and Mach feel.
(
 June 1973 9-5

FLIGHT CONTROLS
(
As the mechanical unit adjusts trim, it also mechanically feeds the trim position into the autopilot.

Either pilots' control wheel switch or autopilot trim powers a pair of motors. Autopilot engagement
inhibits pilot trim except when force is being applied to pitch axis while in CWS or on the ground. The
two motors are in parallel and operate together. If either channel fails, the trim speed is reduced. The
autopilot senses control position and trim position to determine automatic trim requirements.

Control and monitoring of pitch trim is provided on the Flight Control Electronics System panel. Failure
of each channel is annunciated by a FAI L legend. A single failure does not disable pitch trim, however
single channel pitch trim will be at a slower rate. If both channels have failed only mechanical trim is
available.

The mechanical trim wheels provide a means of overriding any electrical trim malfunction.

MACH TRIM

Mach trim adjusts trim input depending on the aircrafts mach. Two mach trim motors are connected in
series. Channel 1 is normally operating with Channel 2 in automatic standby. Air Data Computer 1 pro-
vides mach for channel 1 and Air Data computer 2 for channel 2.

Control and monitoring of mach trim is provided on the Flight Control Electronics System panel. Failure
of each channel is annunciated by a FAI L legend. Single channel operation will provide normal mach
trim operation.

( MACH FEEL

Mach feel adjusts the spring tension of the trim system depending on the aircraft's Mach number. The
higher the Mach number, the greater the spring force controls must work against. The left electrical trim
unit contains two motors, either of which can operate Mach Feel. A connecting shaft also schedules the
same feel change into the mechanical unit. Channel 1 is normally operating with Channel 2 in automatic
standby. Air Data Computer 1 provides mach for Channel 1 and Air Data Computer 2 for Channel 2.

Control and monitoring of Mach Feel is provided on the MACH FEEL panel on the pilot's overhead. The
Mach Feel indicator shows normal system operation wilen the readout is the same as aircraft mach number.
Failure of each channel is annunciated by a FAI L legend. Single channel operation will provide normal
mach feel. If both channels have failed, the mach feel will remain at the mach number at the time of
failure.

1. Which hydraulic systems power the stabilizer?

a. All four hydraulic systems.

b. A, B, and C.

c. A and D.

2. How will a jam in the first officer's pitch control path be annunciated?

a. Stabilizer A and B PUSH lights on.

( b. Stabilizer C and D PUSH lights on.

c. Stabilizer Band C PUSH lights on.

9·6 June 1973

FLIGHT CONTROLS
(
3. How is the pitch aft coupler opened?

a. Pull manual pitch disconnect handle.

b. Automatically when Stabilizer Band C turned off.

c. Automatically when Stabilizer A and B or C and D turned off.

4. What will cause a stabilizer INOP light to come on at the PFCS panel?

a. Hydraulic power removed from actuator.

b. Pulling manual pitch disconnect handle.

c. Jam in pitch control cable system.

5. What pitch trim is available with failure of pitch trim channel 1 and 2?

a. Auto trim only.

b. Auto trim and mechanical trim.

c. Mechanical trim onl y.

(
 June 1973 9·7

FLIGHT CONTROLS
(
AILERONS

Roll control is achieved by hydraulically powered inboard and outboard ailerons. All ailerons operate
full time. Added roll control is provided by differential spoiler operation when the flaps are extended.

The captain's control path operates the left inboard aileron control valve directly. The left inboard aileron
is the master for all ailerons. The first officer's wheel is coupled to the captain's wheel and so also
directly moves the left inboard aileron control valve. This control valve distributes hydraulic power to
each of three actuators, a separate hydraulic system for each actuator.

The left inboard aileron is mechanically connected to the control valves of the left outboard aileron and
the right inboard aileron. The left outboard control valve distributes hydraulic power to each of two
actuators. The right inboard valve distributes hydraulic power to the three right inboard actuators. The
right inboard aileron is mechanically connected to the right outboard aileron control valve and thus
becomes the master for the outboard aileron.

Each inboard aileron is mechanically connected to the spoiler mixer and selector units on its side and
provides spoiler roll response after flaps are extended.

A control path exists from the first officer's control wheel to the right inboard aileron control valve,
but it is not normally effective due to a lost motion device in the path.

The aileron trim wheel shifts the neutral point of an artificial trim system by changing spring loading.
Trim inputs are a maximum of 7 degrees aileron movement either side of neutral.
(
The aileron and spoiler roll control is monitored by two roll monitors. If a jam is detected in the left
roll control path, the roll monitors will cause the cross hatch legends to come on in the left inboard and
outboard switches, the PUSH legends to come on in the left and right 4, left 5 and 6 spoiler switches
and the PULL ROLL DISC light comes on. These are the hydraulic actuators controlled by the left
control path. Turning the spoiler switches off causes shutdown of the actuators. PU LL ROLL DISC
light on is the signal to pull the manual roll disconnect handle to separate the left and right control
paths. The right or first officer's control path is now directed to the right inboard aileron and associat-
ed spoiler actuators. Shutting off the aileron cross hatched switches will be a matter of judgment,
depending on the seriousness of the restriction.

A jam in the right control path is annunciated in a similar manner except that the right inboard and
outboard aileron cross hatch legend comes on, the left and right 2, left and right 3, the right 5 and
6 spoiler PUSH lights and the PULL ROLL DISC light comes on. Turning these switches off causes
shutdown of the actuators.

With the two control paths separated, and one side jammed, the roll capability is reduced.

SPOILERS

There are six hydraulically operated spoiler panels on each wing. They are numbered 1to 6 from the
wing root outboard. Various spoiler panels function as in flight speed brakes, roll control and direct
lift control when flaps are extended and as automatic ground spoilers.

Roll augmentation is provided only after flaps are extended more than 3 degrees. Spoiler panels will
only extend 40 degrees on the side toward the turn. If spoilers are already extended, they will extend
( further on the one side, but will not decrease on the other.
9·8 June 1973

FLIGHT CONTROLS
(
Each spoiler is powered by a single system, but the system distribution is such that any hydraulic system
failure affecting the outboard four spoilers, where maximum roll authority exists, will be symmetrical.

Spoilers extend symmetrically with pilot manual input to the speed brake lever or automatically for direct
lift control or ground spoilers. A hydraulic servo provides the automatic input. A followup causes the
lever to move with the spoilers. The pilot can manually override the servo hydraulic power, but may also
remove its hydraulics by pressing the disable switch on top of the lever. Without hydraulic assist, manual
movement of the lever requires increased force.

Direct Lift Control (DLC) is used during the approach. When activated, spoilers 1 through 4 extend to
about 6 degrees and then modulate between 12 degrees and 0 degrees to control the lift of the wing in
response to control column movement.

Direct lift control operates when flaps are extended beyond 30 degrees and any two throttles are retarded
below maximum continuous thrust.

Direct lift control is deactivated with any of the following:

Stall warning

Go around switch activated

Any of two throttles advanced

Flaps retracted to less than 30 degrees (

Pilot manual override

Pilot assist disable switch pressed

System failures.

Auto Ground Spoilers are armed when the flaps are extended beyond 30 degrees and any two throttles are
retarded less than maximum continuous thrust. An on the ground signal will now extend spoilers 1 through
4 to 60 degrees. The system will also extend spoilers when reverse thrust is selected on any two throttles.

Auto Ground Spoilers are deactivated by any of the following:

Any two throttles advanced

Flaps retracted to less than 30 degrees

Pilot assist disable switch pressed

Loss of hydraulic system C

System failure.

Direct lift control and autospoiler operation is monitored on the Flight Control Electronics System panel.
Failure of each channel is annunciated by a FAI L light. A single failure does not disable direct lift
(
control or autospoilers. If both channels have failed, only manual operation of speed brakes and ground \
spoilers is available. All faults which inhibit auto ground spoiler deployment will cause the AUTO GND
SPLRS INOP light to come on at the pilot's annunciator panel. Manual operation of ground spoilers will
then be required.
 June 1973 9-9
FLIGHT CONTROLS

(
Left and right spoilers 5 and 6 operate as speed brakes only with the flaps up. With the flaps not up, these
spoiler panels shift to roll control only. If the spoilers left and right 5 and 6 have not shifted to the proper
mode of operation, PUSH legend will come on in the Left 5 and 6 and Right 5 and 6 spoiler switches.
Turning these switches off will shut down these spoiler actuators.

Left and right spoiler No.1 functions as speed brakes with the flaps not up and are disabled with the flaps
up. If these spoilers did not disable with the flaps up, the ROLL SPEED BRAKE light will come on at
the pilots annunciator panel. In this case turning the L & R 1 switch off will shut down these spoiler
actuators.

The ROLL SPEED BRAKE light will also come on if spoiler panels 2, 3 and 4 do not shift to the proper
function with flap operation. Flaps up; roll input not deactivated. Flaps down; roll function not
activated.

Whether the ROLL SPEED BRAKE light is signalling a problem in spoiler panels 2,3 and 4 or panels 1
can be determined by observing the flight control position indicator as the ailerons are activated. A mal-
functioning system should be deactivated for that flap position.

1. When will the spoilers aid ailerons in roll control?

a. Anytime ailerons are moved;

b. When flaps are extended 3 degrees or more.

c. Only when outboard ailerons are unlocked.

(
2. When does direct lift control operate?

a. Flaps extended beyond 30 degrees and any two throttles retarded.

b. Flaps up and any two throttles retarded.

c. Flaps extended 3 degrees and speed brake lever up.

3. What powers the speed brake lever during automatic operation?

a. Electric motor.

b. Mechanical linkage.

c. Hydraulic pressure.

4. When are ground spoilers armed for operation?

a. Flaps extended 3 degrees and speed brake lever armed.

b. Flaps extended 30 degrees and any two throttles retarded.
c. Flaps extended 30 degrees and any throttle retarded.
5. When will auto ground spoilers extend on a rejected takeoff?
a. Reverse thrust selected on any two throttles.
b. Speed brake lever in armed position.
c. Reverse thrust selected on any throttle.
9-10 June 1973

FLIGHT CONTROLS
(
FLAPS AND SLATS

The trailing edge flaps consist of four flap surfaces on each wing, two inboard surfaces and two outboard
surfaces. Seven slat segments are on the leading edge of each wing. They are numbered 1 to 7 from the
wing root outboard. The flaps and slats are powered hydraulically by systems A and C. Either hydraulic
system will drive all the flaps and slats. The flaps and slats are controlled by a single flap handle on the
center console. The flaps may be selected to 0, 4, 10, 18, 22, 33, and 42 degrees. The slats are two
position, fully retracted or extended.

FLAPS

The first movement of the flap handle on extension opens a switch to de-energize two valves to supply
system A and C pressure to the flap control valve. The flap handle also positions the flap control valve
to release a brake and power two hydraulic motors. The hydraulic motors drive a single torque tube to
move all the flap panels. When the flaps reach the selected position, the flap control valve is repositioned
to remove hydraulic power from the motors and to set the brake. When the flaps are fully retracted, a
motor limit switch closes and energizes the valves to close and remove hydraulic power from the system
and set the brake.

Flap position is indicated on the center instrument panel. Position sensors, at the outboard ends of the
torque tubes transmit the flap position to the two tapes in the flap indicator. One tape is for the left
wing flaps, one for right wing flaps.

Flap asymmetry is sensed by position sensors also at the outboard ends of the torque tubes. When an
asymmetric condition is detected, both system A and C pressures are shut off, a brake at the left and right (
outboard ends of the drive is set, and the TE F LAP LOCK light comes on at the engineer's annunciator
panel. This asymmetric lock can only be reset on the ground. Any fault in the flap asymmetry detection
system will cause the ASYM DET FAULT light to come on at the engineer's'annunciator panel.

A flap load relief system (LRS) is located in the flap control path between the flap handle and the control
valve. The unit acts as a solid link unless flaps are extended more than 28 degrees at indicated airspeeds
greater than 164 knots. With a flap selection greater than 28 degrees, the flap load relief system will
keep the control valve at 28 degrees until the airspeed decrease below 164 knots. If the airspeed increases
to more than 164 knots the flaps will return to 28 degrees. Both Air Data Computers provide airspeed
inputs to the LRS. When the LRS is operating, the FLAP LRS LIMITING light will come on at the
pilot's annunciator panel. Any malfunction of the LRS will cause automatic shutdown of the system.
If the flaps are extended any amount, a buzzer will sound for two seconds and a FLAP LRS INOP light
will come on at the pilot's annunciator panel. Turning the FLAP LRS switch off deactivates the system.

SLATS

The first movement of the flap handle on extension opens a switch to de-energize two valves to supply
system A and C pressure to the slat control valve. The flap handle also positions the slat control valve
to release a brake and power two hydraulic motors. The hydraulic motors drive a sin~le torque tube to
extend all the slats. When the slats are fully extended, motor position switches energize two valves to
remove hydraulic power from the motors and set the brake. When the flap handle is moved from the
4 degree position to 0, the hydraulic valves are de-energized open and the slat control valve is positioned
to release the brake and retract the slats. When fully retracted, the brake is again set and hydraulic power
removed from the system.

(
 June 1973 9·11

FLIGHT CONTROLS

(
\
Slat position is indicated both on the center instrument panel and the engineer's slat monitor. On the
flap position indicator, an amber LE TRANS light will be on any time all the slats are not in the selected
position. A green LE EXT light will be on when all the slats are extended. The slat monitor on the
engineer's panel has a slat position indicator that shows the position of the left and right slats. The
position of each individual slat can be verified by turning the slat monitor switch on. The slat segments
that are fully extended will indicate green at this time.

Slat asymmetry is sensed by position sensors at the outboard ends of the torque tube. When an asymmetric
condition is detected, both system A and C pressures are shut off, a brake at the left and right outboard
ends of the drive is set, and the LE SLAT LOCK light comes on at the engineer's annunciator panel. This
asymmetric lock can only be reset on the ground. Any fault in the slat asymmetry detection system will
cause the ASYM DET FAULT light to come on at the engineer's annunciator panel.

Manual operation of the slat lock system is provided on the slat monitor. Turning the slat lock switch on
locks all the slats in position. When the slats are manually locked in position, 1 LOCK and 2 LOCK lights
will be on. The slats may be unlocked by turning the slat lock switch off.

1. Which hydraulic systems drive the trailing edge flaps?

a. A and B.

b. CandD.

c. A and C.
/

\ 2. What does the TE FLAP LOCK light indicate?

a. Fault in the flap asymmetry system.

b. Flaps have been locked in position.

c. Signal to manually lock the flaps.

3. What does the FLAP LRS LIMITING light indicate?

a. Fault in the flap load relief system.

b. Flaps are limited to 28 degrees.

c. Airspeed is too high and flaps must not be selected more than 25 0

4. Which hydraulic systems drive the leading edge slats?

a. Aand C.

b. C and D.

c. Band D.
9·12 June 1973

FLIGHT CONTROLS

(
5. When do the leading edge slats extend?

a. Trailing edge flaps at 10 degrees.

b. Airspeed below 164 knots.

c. Selecting flap extension from O.

6. When do the leading edge slats retract?

a. Selecting flap retraction from 4 to O.

b. Airspeed above 164 knots.

c. Selecting flap retraction from 10 to 4.

STALL WARNING

Two separate channels operate the stick shaker. Normally channel 2 is active to operate the first officer's
stick shaker. Failure of channel 2 causes FAI L light to come on at the Flight Controls Electronics System
panel, and automatic changeover to channel 1. Channel 1 then operates the captain's stick shaker. 1m·
pending stall is sensed by modifying angle of attack with flap and slat position. A stall warning will also
cause automatic retraction of the 0 LC spoilers.

Stall warning can be tested by turning off one channel at a time and pressing the test switch. The stick
shaker should then operate.
(
TAKEOFF WARNING

A takeoff aural warning (intermittent horn) is actuated by sensors that detect the position of the speed
brake lever, throttle levers, slats, trailing edge flaps, and horizontal stabilizer. The intermittent horn
sounds if any of these controls is not in the proper position when the aircraft is on the ground and any
two throttles are advanced to a position approximating 50 percent of takeoff thrust.

{
 June 1973 9·13

FLIGHT CONTROLS

(
ANSWER SHEET

Rudder Flaps and Slats

1. a 1. c

2. b 2. b

3. c 3. b

4. c 4. a

5. a 5. c

Pitch 6. a

1. a

2. b

3. c

4. a
(
5. c

Aileron

1. b

2. a

3. b

Spoiler

1. b

2. a

3. c

4. b

5. a

(
(

(
 June 1973 10·1

FLT. INSTR & AIR DATA

(
GENERAL

The flight instrument panels contain all of the primary flight and navigation instruments required to fly
the airplane. The primary flight instruments are positioned in the conventional T-arrangement.

Other flight instruments are grouped around the T- arrangement in accordance with normal priority
requirements. The standby airspeed and altimeter are pneumatically operated and the standby horizon
operates from the standby bus.

The Attitude Director Indicator (ADI) is considered as the basic attitude display and as the command
focal point in the flight director and flight guidance systems.

PITOT STATIC SYSTEM

Four pitot-static probes mounted on the fuselage nose section provide flight instrument and air data
inputs. Ram and static vents located in each probe are electrically heated.

The captain's left probe supplies ram and static air to the No.1 Air Data Computer (ADC). The captain's
right probe supplies only static air to the No.1 ADC. The first officer's right probe supplies ram and static
to the No.2 ADC; static air only to the standby airspeed, standby altimeter, and cabin pressure differential
gauge. The first officer's left probe supplies ram and static air to the standby airspeed indicator; static only
to the No.2 ADC, standby altimeter, and cabin pressure differential gauge.

The air data computers and pitot static instruments achieve balanced pressure sensing, regardless of aircraft
attitude, by receiving the respective left and right probe static inputs. The captain's and first officers'
( airspeed-mach indicators, vertical speed and altimeters are fully electrical instruments that receive comput-
ed air data signals. The standby altimeter and airspeed indicator are direct pitot and/or static uncorrected
instruments.

AIR DATA COMPUTERS

Two independent air data computers receive pitot-static and air temperature data. These inputs are changed
to electrical signals which supply the flight instruments and autoflight computers with computed airspeed,

r
altitude and vertical speed indications.

CAPT'S lEFT ~ CAPT'S F/O'S LEFT9 ~ F/O'S RIGHT

PilOT RIGHT PilOT PITOT
LEFT NO. I ADC PITOT NO.2 ADC RIGHT TEMP
TEMP .. PROBE
PROBE ..

ALTN
AS/M
1--..... CAPT'S AIRSPEED/MACH ALTN
AS/M
I--"F/o's AIRSPEED/MACH

,-----, "CAPT'S ALTIMETER ,..----, .. j: /O'S ALTIMETER

IALTN 14. CAPT'S VERTICAL SPEED ALTN ~.. F/0'5 VERTICAL SPEED
All .. A/P-FL T DIR COMPUTER A. All .. A/P-HT DIR COMPUTER B.
.. TRANSPONDER NO. I .. TRANSPONDER NO.2
.. FLIGHT RECORDER .. SAT
.. RATED EPR LIMIT GAUGE eTAS
( .. FLAP LOAD RELIEF NO. I " FLAP LOAD RELIEF NO.2
.. MACH TRIM NO. I .. MACH TRIM NO.2
.. MACH FEEL NO. I .. MACH FEEL NO.2
" AIDS
10-2 June 1973

FL T. INSTR & AIR DATA

(
\
Each indicator operated from its respective ADC has a fail flag which indicates: ADC output failure,
internal instrument failure or loss of instrument electrical power. The altimeter has an SSC (Static Source
Correction) flag which indicates the altimeter is uncorrected for static errors.

Alternate source selector switches permit the captain and first officer to use data from the opposite ADC
for airspeed/mach, ADI, and vertical speed indicators.

The mach warning system is signaled from the first officer's airspeed/mach indicator.

RADIO ALTIMETERS

Two radio altimeter systems provide absolute altitude indications on vertical tape instruments up to 2,500
feet above the terrain, autopilot·flight director sensitivity control, and decision height visual and aural
warnings. In addition, each pilot's attitude director indicator has a 0-200 feet radio altitude tape and
pointer slaved to the radio altimeter indicator on his panel. Power is supplied to each system through the
master radio switches.

The two systems are basically independent, with the captain's radio altimeter providing his instrument panel
indications and signals to autopilot A when A/L (auto land) mode is engaged. The first officer's radio
altimeter provides signals to autopilot B, when in A/L mode, and his instrument panel indications.

Both system's signals may be automatically interconnected for proper autopilot operation in dual A/L
mode to provide the monitoring and fail operational capability of autoland if a single failure occurs. Each
radio altimeter has self monitoring circuits which may cause a fail flag to appear on the indicator tape
plus a HT flag on the respective ADI whenever a failure occurs, regardless of aircraft altitude.

Radio altitude signals are provided:

1. To establish the proper degree of sensitivity when autopilot(s) are operating in autoland mode.

2. To signal the autopilot·flight director computers to conduct self checks starting at about 1,500 feet,
and attain a dual function if A/L mode is engaged.

3. To begin the al ign sequence in autoland mode at about 150 feet.

4. To initiate flare and retard autothrust in autoland mode at about 60 feet.

5. To bring the attitude director indicator's rollout bar in view and remove approach gate about 5 feet.

6. To trigger the aural tone about 75 feet above the selected decision height, stop the tone at DH, and
display the D H Iights after passing decision height.

ATTITUDE REFERENCE SYSTEM

The attitude reference system provides a stable horizontal reference plane from which aircraft pitch and roll
attitudes can be determined. Two identical attitude reference systems are provided. Each system consists
of a vertical gyro and an Attitude Director Indicator (ADI). A third vertical gyro is provided as an alternate
in case of failure of the other two gyros. As a backup for the two systems, a standby attitude indicator is
provided with separate and independent pitch and roll reference. .

(
 June 1973 10·3

FLT.INSTR & AIR DATA

(
Vertical gyro (VG) No.1 provides attitude information to the captain's attitude direction indicator (ADI).
VG No.2 provides attitude information to the first officer's ADI. VG No.3 is an alternate source of attitude
information for either pilot's ADI. In addition to the ADI's, attitude information is provided to the weather
radar, compass system, autopilot/flight director, instrument comparator, and the flight recorder.

INSTRUMENT COMPARISON MONITOR

An instrument comparison system compares the captain's and first officer's flight instruments indications.
If there is a discrepancy between two like instrument indications, a monitor flag is displayed on the INSTR
COMPARATOR panel. When a failure occurs, the pilots decide which instrument has failed and select the
appropriate alternate instrument source. The INSTR COMPARATOR and INSTRUMENT SOURCE
SE LECT panels are on each pilot's instrument panel.

1. Which pitot static probe(s) supply ram air to the No.1 air data computer?

a. Captain's left probe only.

b. Captain's left and right probes.

c. Captain's and first officer's left probes.

2. Which pitot static probe(s) supply static air to the No.2 air data computer?

a. First officer's right probe only.

( b. First officer's right and left probes.

c. First officer's and captain's right probes.

3. Which instruments are affected if both left side pitot probes iced up?

a. Captain's AS/Mach and standby airspeed indicator.

b. Captain's and first officer's AS/Mach.

c. TAS, SAT and standby altimeter.

4. Which of the failed instruments can be switched to an alternate source if both left side pitot probes
iced up?

a. AS/Mach, VS, altimeter and standby airspeed.

b. AS/Mach, VS, and altimeter only.

c. AS/Mach, and altimeter only.

5. What other unit is unusable if the first officer's airspeed/mach shows AS and MACH fail flags?

a. Mach warning system.

( b. Standby airspeed indicator.

c. Standby altimeter.
10·4 June 1973

FLT. INSTR & AIR DATA

(
6. Which failure causes OFF flags to appear in SAT and TAS indicators?

a. No.1 total air temperature probe failure.

b. No.2 ADC failure.

c. No.1 ADC failure.

7. Where does the standby altimeter get its static signals?

a. From first officer's left and right pitot static probes.

b. From No.1 ADC.

c. From No.2 ADC.

8. Where does the standby airspeed indicator get its ram·static signals?

a. From first officer's left and right pitot static probes.

b. From No.1 ADC.

c. From No.2 ADC.

9. In which autopilot mode(s) can the radio altimeters provide automatic sensitivity control?
(
a. APR only.

b. APR and AIL.

c. AIL only.

10. What indications are present if the first officer's radio altimeter fails after takeoff?

a. Fail flags appear in both radio altimeter indicators.

b. Fail flag appears in first officer's radio altimeter, and HT flag on first officer's ADI appears.

c. Fail flags appear in first officer's radio altimeter only.

11. Which autopilot would you use in AIL mode if the captain's radio altimeter shows a fail flag.

a. Autopilot A.

b. Autopilot B.

12. How are the radio altimeters turned on?

a. Standby power switch must be armed or on.

b. Battery switch must be on.

c. Master radio switches must be on.

 June 1973 10-5
FLT. INSTR & AIR DATA

(
ANSWER SHEET

1. a

2. b

3. a

4. b

5. a
6. b

7. a

8. a

9. c

10. b

11 . b
(
12. c

(
(

(
 June 1973 11-1

FUEL

(
GENERAL

The basic fuel system consists of four fuel tanks, all located in the wing which function as a three-tank
system.

Tanks are numbered from left to right, 2L, 1,3 and 2R.

The 2L and 2R tanks each have an inboard and outboard compartment.

Although any tank can supply fuel to any engine, the No.1 tank will normally supply fuel to the No.1
engine, the 2L and 2R tanks to the No.2 engine, and, the No.3 tank to the No.3 engine.

In each tank the necessary sub-systems are provided for fuel tank venting, engine feed and crossfeed,
pressure fueling, defueling, fuel jettison, water scavenging, and the APU feed.

Each wing has two fuel tanks outboard of the fuselage contour and one vent collector box or tank
located near the wing tip.

The vent collector box is part of the vent system and is not considered as a tank but functionally
precludes overboard fuel spillage. Each vent collector box vents overboard to ambient through a stand-
pipe line containing a flame arrestor in a scoop. The scoop is located flush with the wing lower surface
near the wing tip.

Any fuel sloshed from the tanks into the vent system lines during maneuvers or taxi attitudes on the
( ground will be captured in this reservoir and subsequently returned to the No.2 tank outboard compart-
ment via the fuel tank scavenge system.

The fuel tanks are sized to provide each engine with essentially the same available fuel quantity if opera-
tion is sustained on a normal tank-to-engine fuel system selection.

ENGINE FEED SYSTEM

The No.1 and No.3 tanks each contain two identical AC motor-driven tank pumps and check valves
within a single cannister, a DC motor actuated tank shutoff valve located on the tank wall, a DC motor
actuated emergency (firewall) shutoff valve located within the engine pylon upstream of the firewall,
and the interconnecting plumbing to the engine-driven low pressure pump inlet.

The feed system for No.2 engine consists of two tank pumps identical to those in the No.1 and No.3
tanks. In each of the two outboard tanks (2L and 2Rl. a manually operated shutoff valve for each line
where the lines exist from each tank at the wing root, a flow equalizer which equalizes the two
tributary flows and forces the 2L and 2R tanks to always act as one tank. DC motor-actuated isolation
valve located at the aft wall of the center section, and two DC motor-actuated emergency (firewall)
shutoff valves located upstream of the firewall, and the interconnecting plumbing to the engine-driven
low pressure pump in let, complete the No.2 engine feed.

Fuel from tanks 2L and 2R is metered through the flow equalizer before delivery to the center engine.
The flow equalizer proportions the fuel delivered from the 2L and 2R tanks. Automatic control of the
lateral center of gravity is maintained at all attitudes and fuel levels. A pair of fuel pressure driven
rotors are located in each equalizer inlet with one rotor in each inlet keyed to a common shaft. The
rotors are driven at a speed dependent on the center engine fuel consumption rate.
(
11-2 June 1973

FUEL
(
Under normal operation, the flow from tanks 2L and 2R is proportioned by the rotation of the connected
pairs of rotors. Since the diversions and speed of the rotors are identical, each side delivers an equal
amount of fuel. If one delivery pressure is higher than the other, the high side acts as a hydraulic motor
tending to drive the lower side and thereby balance the flow.

In the event of a mechanical failure, bypass valves are opened automatically, and unproportional fuel is
delivered from the tanks. Under this condition, fuel load balance is maintained by monitoring and con-
trolling 2L and 2R tank quantities by tank pump operation. Design of the flow equalizer is such that it
cannot pump air in the event one tank empties before the other.

All fuel lines in the wing are contained inside the tanks.

The No.2 engine fuselage feed line is enclosed in a shroud tube under the cabin floor through the
pressurized compartments.

The shroud tube serves as a fuel catch in the event of main line fuel leakage.

The shrouded volume is provided with air ventilation and overboard drain lines.

A crossfeed system connects to the normal tank-to-engine feed lines through appropriate DC motor-
actuated shutoff valves and lines so that fuel is supplied from any of the three tank systems to any engine.

To assure fuel availability to the tank pumps during various airplane attitudes and reduced fuel tank
quantities, each tank contains a surge box reservoir with capability to retain approximately 1000 pounds
of fuel.
(
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU) FEED SYSTEM

A separate DC pump mounted in the No.3 tank surge box supplies fuel to the common fuselage feed
line of the No.2 engine.

Flow is from the tank through a check valve and DC motor-actuated shutoff valve to a connector
downstream of the flow equalizer.

A branch from the common line feeds directly to the APU through two emergency (firewall) motor-
actuated shutoff valve.

This configuration supplies fuel to the APU on the ground without the engines or AC main tank pumps on.

The APU is also fed from the No.2 engine fuselage feed line when this line is pressurized from the main
tank pumps.

TANK TRANSFER SYSTEM

For structural reasons, the 2L and 2R tanks each have an inboard and outboard compartment separated
by a solid bulkhead.

The structural benefits accrue by automatically keeping fuel weight during flight outboard in the wing
as long as possible.

(
 June 1973 11-3

FUEL

(
To keep the outboard compartment full (about 8500 pounds), a transfer line connects the outboard
compartment to the inboard compartment surge box through a float-control transfer valve.

When fuel in the surge box drops below the float valve fuel level setting of 1000 - 1400 pounds, fuel
transfers automatically by gravity to the surge box making the outboard compartment fuel available from
the 2L or 2R tank.

REFUELING SYSTEM

A pressure fueling system with two fueling stations (one outboard of each wing engine nacelle) is used
to fuel the airplane.

The right side station contains all of the gauges and switches necessary to control and monitor the
complete fueling operation.

All tanks may be fueled from one station or the other, or from both stations simultaneously.

A DC motor-actuated shutoff valve is located in the cross ship fueling manifold so that the left and
right sides of the system are isolated from each other during normal fueling from both stations
simultaneously.

Controls are provided so that the quantity of fuel to be loaded into each tank may be preset prior to
the fuel ing operations.

The system then automatically stops fueling when the preset level is reached.
(
Dual type electrically-operated shutoff valves are used to each tank.

Fuel level dual float control pilot valves located at the full tank quantity level automatically operate
a shutoff valve to prevent overfilling the fuel tanks.

The float control valves also incorporate features to permit precheck of the shutoff valve operation.

In the case of the No.2 tanks, the shutoff and control valves are located in the inboard compartments
which fill last during refueling.

Fuel is routed from the refueling manifold through the shutoff valve and then it enters the outboard
compartment, where it drains into the inboard compartment until the float transfer valve closes at
1000 - 1400 pou nds.

The outboard compartment then fills to approximately the 8500 pound fuel level before the fuel
spills by gravity through a cross fill transfer line into the inboard compartment.

This always assures that the outboard compartment is full before more than 1000 - 1400 pounds is put
in the inboard compartment.

DEFUELING SYSTEM

Defueling of the fuel tanks is accomplished by applying suction to the pressure fueling adaptors or by
operating the boost pumps.
(
11-4 June 1973

FUEL
(

VENT BOX

tank 2R

tank 3

tank 1

tank 2L
(

ING BOX FRONT SPAR

VENT BOX

CENTER WING BOX

REAR SPAR lORY BAY AREAl
 June 1973 11·5

FUEL

(
DC motor-actuated defueling valves are located in the lines that connect the engine feed system to the
refueling manifold for outflow to the adaptors.

These valves are controlled by switches located on the fueling control panel at the right wing fueling
station.

SCAVENGE SYSTEM

The scavenge system consists of a series of jet pumps using fuel flow from the fuel tank pumps to induce
a secondary flow from various low points in the fuel tanks.

The intent is to remove settled water by scavenging through the secondary lines and deliver it to the
surge boxes where it is pumped to the engines and consumed.

OVERWING REFUELING

Overwing fueling is provided by two gravity filler openings for each outboard section of No.2 tank.

Due to the outboard tanks having one refuel shutoff valve each, a valve failure would necessitate using
the gravity fueling ports to refuel these tanks.

Tanks 1 and 3 have two refuel shutoff valves each, and with one failed, pressure refueling of the tank
can still be accomplished through the second shutoff valve.

overwing
fillers

"'L.~~---~GROUNOING RECEPTACLE

(
11·6 June 1973

FUEL
(
Therefore, only tank 2 has gravity or overwing ports.

If for any reason the complete refueling operation has to be accomplished by overwing, fuel will have to
be transferred from the outboard tanks to the inboard tanks by using the tank pumps, 2L and 2R fuel
dump valves, and fueling valves.

FUEL QUANTITY INDICATING SYSTEM

The full height compensating mass fuel quantity indicating system provides a display of the mass of
fuel on·board the airplane and a liquid level sensing system for tanks 2L and 2R.

The mass of fuel on board is presented at the engineer's panel by a totalizer indicator and four primary
indicators (one for each tank) and the liquid level sensing system is provided to operate warning lights
at the engineer's panel.

The primary indicators for tanks 2L and 2R read total mass in the outboard and inboard compartments
normally, or mass in the inboard compartment only, by means of a switching operation on the engineer's
panel.

The fuel quantity test switch on the engineer's panel will drive the four primary indicators and totalizer
to the full position.

The refueling station on right wing has repeater indicators and test capability.

FUEL TANK QUANTITY MEASURING STICKS

(
A dripless measuring stick in each tank permits a manual reading of tank quantity. The system consists
of a float ring with magnets imbedded in it, encircling a stick with a metal tip.

As stick is withdrawn the metal tip contacts the magnets in the ring and holds the stick in position.

Fuel measuring sticks are secured in the bottom skin of each tank and are used to measure the height of
fuel in the applicable tank. Sticks are calibrated in pounds based on a fuel density of 6.7 pounds per
gallon.

The sticks are unlocked by depressing and rotating 90 0 in either direction, then releasing. Locking is
accomplished in the same manner.

Fuel quantity is determined by pulling the stick down all the way, then raising it until it magnetically
couples with the float.

Quantity is read from the exposed stick calibration at point where the stick enters the housing.

If fuel is added, the stick and float (magnetically coupled together) will rise as the fuel level rises.

1. What should occur when the FUEL QUANTITY TEST switch is pressed?

a. All fuel quantity indicators drive toward full.

b. All fuel quantity indicators stop where they are.

(
c. Zero quantity is indicated.
 June 1973 11-7

FUEL

(
-~ .--

17
®
RIGHT WING
tOWER LEAD I NG EDGE
REFUELINGIDEFU£LING PANEL

J::----CALIBRATED STICK

FLOAT

,----TUBE

(
®
MOUNTING BASl
SET POINT KNOB
ITYP)

®
ITYPICAL 6 PLACES)
TANKS lAND 3 TANKS 2L AND 2R

2. What is the SET knob used for on the total fuel quantity indicator?

a. To set the zero fuel weight.

b. To set the initial gross weight at ramp.

c. To set the indicated total fuel weight.

3. What is the normal fuel system panel configuration for taxi, takeoff, climb and cruise?

a. All crossfeeds open for lateral balance.

b. All engine tank valves closed.

(
c. Tank-to-engine for lateral balance.
11-8 June 1973

FUEL
(
4. Why is the fuel kept in the 2L and 2R outboard section as long as possible?

a. To cool the fuel as much as possible.

b. To keep wing bending moments down.

c. To allow gravity flow of fuel should pumps fail.

5. What is the fuel EMERGENCY SHUTOFF valve controlled by?

a. FI RE PULL handle.

b. EMERGENCY SHUTOFF valve switch.

c. ENGINE TANK VALVE switch.

{
\
 June 1973 11-9

FUEL

(
JETTISON SYSTEM

Fuel jettison in flight is accomplished by means of the fuel tank pumps.

The dump masts are attached to the refueling manifold.

These masts contain a DC motor-actuated shutoff valve and flame arrestor.

Fuel exits overboard through the dump mast well outboard in the wing trailing edge.

To prevent jettisoning fuel below 24,000 pounds of fuel, low level sensors are installed in the tanks to
automatically shutoff the jettison flow.

During jettison, the boost pumps will also feed the engines.

1. How is fuel jettisoned in flight?

a. Hydrau Iically operated jettison pumps.

b. Separate electric jettison pumps.

c. Fuel tank boost pump pressure and FUEL JETTISON panel.

2. What arms the fuel jettison DUMP switches?

( a. Fuel control ampl ifier.

b. FUEL JETTISON MASTER switch.

c. EMERGENCY SHUTOFF valve.

3. What is indicated by the FUEL JETTISON MASTER switch OPEN light illuminated?

a. Switch position only.

b. Fuel is flowing out jettison lines.

c. Valve position only_

4. What is indicated by the fuel DUMP switch light illuminated?

a. Valve position only.

b. Fuel is flowing out jettison lines.

c. Switch position only.

5. At what level will the fuel dump valves close automatically unless dumping is terminated sooner?

a. 24,000 Ibs. on aircraft.

(
b. 8,000 Ibs. on aircraft.

c. Zero fuel in tanks.

11-10 June 1973

FUEL
(
ANSWER SHEET

Aircraft Fuel

1- a

2. b

3. c

4. b

5. a

Fuel Jettison

1. c

2. b

3. a

4. c
(

5. a

(
 12-1
June 1973

HYDRAULICS

(
GENERAL

There are four separate and independent 3000 PSI hydraulic systems. Hydraulic power is used to operate
the fully powered flight controls, trailing edge flaps, leading edge slats, spoilers, landing gear, main wheel
brakes, tail skid and nose wheel steering.

The hydraulic power control panel is located on the engineer's upper instrument panel. This panel has all
the switches, indicators and most of the advisory lights for control of hydraulic power. The pilots
annunciator panel has one hydraulic system warning light that comes on when any warning light on the
engineer's hydraulic panel is on.

The four hydraulic systems are identified as A, B, C, and D. Each system has an engine driven pump as
the primary source of pressure. System A engine pump is driven by engine No.1. System Band C engine
pumps are driven by engine No.2. System D engine pump is driven by engine No.3.

Each system has a backup source of pressure. System A has a power transfer unit (PTU). This is a motor/
pump unit with the motor portion powered by system B and the pump portion in system A that produces
pressure .. System D also has a power transfer unit, transferring power from system C to system D.

Systems Band C each have an air turbine motor (ATM) which is driven by air from the aircraft's pneumatic
duct. Systems Band C each also have an AC electric pump provided primarily for ground operation.
System B also has a ram air turbine (RAT). This is a self contained unit that is deployed into the airstream
as a source of hydraulic power in flight with all engines below 51% N3 or all four engine pumps shut down
and both ATM's off.
( All normal servicing and maintenance is done in the hydraulic compartment. Most major hydraulic power
system components are located here. This is an unpressurized area in the fuselage between the main gears
and is not accessible in fl ight.

ENGINE DRIVEN PUMP CONTROLS

Pump Shutoff

One guarded switch provides on-off control of each engine pump depressurizing valve. When the
pump shutoff switch is in, the flowbar is on, and the pump will produce pressure when the engine
is turning. The flowbar is the indication that the switch is in. Turning the switch off energizes
the pump depressurizing valve solenoid and stops pressure output from that pump, turns out the
flowbar and turns on the 0 F F legend. The 0 F F legend is the indication of switch position.

Fire Pull Handle

The fire pull handle controls the suction shutoff valve and the pump depressurizing valve. Pulling
the fire pull handle will shutoff fluid to and depressurize that engine pump. In the case of engine
No.2 this will shut down systems Band C engine driven pumps. The switch flowbars however will
remain on until the respective engine pump switches are turned off.

AIR TURBINE MOTORS

Systems Band C have air turbine motor driven pumps located in the left and right fuselage wheel well
fairing areas. The air turbine motors are driven by air from the aircraft's pneumatic duct. Overspeed
protection is provided which will close the air valve stopping air turbine motor operation. Each air
driven motor is controlled by a four position rotary switch.
12-2 June 1973

HYDRAULICS

(
OFF - The air valve supplying the air turbine motor is closed_

AUTO - The air turbine motor will operate only during the time that the hydraulic system pressure
is below normal. This is the normal position.

ON - The air turbine motor will operate continuously maintaining 3000 PSI output.

OVERSPEED TEST - A false overspeed signal is introduced into the air turbine motor control circuit
and stops the air turbine motor. The overspeed signal has to be reset by rotating the control switch
to the OFF position and pulling and resetting the respective ATM circuit breaker. This test is a
maintenance function only.

2L13 ATM CONTROL & IND SYS B

2L19 ATM CONTROL & IND SYS C

Operation of the air turbine motors is indicated on two tachometers, one for system B and one for system
C. The normal air turbine motor operation is in the 3700 RPM, green band.

If the air turbine motor is keeping system B or C in operation, the switch should be selected to ON to
avoid cycling.

POWER TRANSFER UNITS

There are two power transfer units, one with the motor portion in system B and the pump portion in
system A, transferring power from system B to A. A similar unit transfers power from system C to D. (
When the power transfer unit is the only source of pressure, system pressure will be about 2500 PSI.
This is the result of a pressure loss in the transfer of power. One switch controls the operation of each
power transfer unit. Turning the switch on starts the power transfer unit and turns on the flowbar.
Turning the switch off stops the power transfer unit and turns off the flowbar.

ELECTRIC PUMPS

Systems Band C each have an AC electric pump provided primarily for ground operation and checkout
of systems. One switch controls each electric pump. Turning the switch on starts the electric pump and
turns on the ON legend. Turning the switch off stops the electric pump and turns off the ON legend.
Starting the electric pumps and the power transfer units will pressurize all four systems.

RAM AIR TURBINE

The ram air turbine is a propeller driven hydraulic pump designed specifically to power system B primary
flight controls. The ram air turbine will extend through the underside of the fuselage forward of the
hydraulic compartment. Automatic deployment takes place in flight if all three engines fail or if all
engine hydraulic pumps and airturbine motors are shutoff. When the ram air turbine is deployed, the
UN LKD light will be on. When the ram air turbine pump reaches operating pressure the green PR ESS
light will be on. The ram air turbine may also be deployed manually be pressing the switch. The
indications will be the same as for automatic deployment.

(
 June 1973 12·3

HYDRAULICS

(
WARNING LIGHTS

Pump Low Pressure

There is one low pressure light for each engine pump and each air turbine motor pump. This light
will come on when hydraulic pressure is too low for normal operation. The air turbine motor low
pressure light is only armed when the air turbine motor is selected to ON. The engine pump low
pressure light is only armed when the pump shutoff switch is on.

Case Drain High Temperature

There is one case drain high temperature light for each engine pump and each air turbine motor
pump. This light will come on when the pump case drain fluid temperature is too high for normal
operation.

Reservoir Low Quantity

Each system reservoir has a low quantity light that comes on when the fluid level is too low for
normal operation, approximately 1(8 from empty.

Reservoir High Temperature

Each system reservoir has a high temperature light that comes on when the temperature of fluid
returning to that reservoir is too high for normal operation.
( Air Turbine Motor Lubrication

Each air turbine motor gearbox lubrication system has two warning lights. The high temperature
light comes on when the gear box oil is too hot for normal operation. The low pressure light
comes on when the gearbox oil pressure is too low for normal operation. Both of these lights
are armed only when the air turbine motor is selected to ON.

1. What is the normal source of power for the hydraulic systems?

a. Four air turbine motors.

b. Three power transfer units.

c. Four engine driven pumps.

2. What is the backup for systems Band C engine driven pumps?

a. Air turbine motor driven pumps.

b. Power transfer units.

c. Pumps driven by the APU.

3. What is the backup for system A and 0 engine pumps?

( a. Power transfer units.

b. Air turbine motor driven pumps.
c. Pumps driven by the APU.
12·4 June 1973

HYDRAULICS

(
4. What is the normal position of the ATM control switch?

a. ON.

b. AUTO.

c. OFF.

5. How can all four hydraulic systems be pressurized prior to engine start?

a. Turn on the AC electric pumps.

b. Turn on the AC electric pumps and the PTU's.

c. Turn on the AC electric pumps and the ATM's.

6. When is the ram air turbine automatically deployed?

a. Starting any power transfer unit.

b. Airspeed below 164 knots.

c. Three engine failure.

7. What is the indication of ram air turbine operation?

(
a. Low pressure Iight out.

b. Tachometer at 3700 RPM.

c. UNLKD and PRESS lights on.

8. What is the indication of air turbine motor operation?

a. Low pressure light out.

b. Tachometer at 3700 RPM.

c. Unlocked and pressure light on.

(
 June 1973 12·5

HYDRAULICS

(
ANSWER SHEET

1. c

2. a

3. a

4. b

5. b

6. c

7. c

8. b

(
(

I\
 June 1973 13·1

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
WING ANTI-ICE

DESCRIPTION

The wing thermal anti·icing system prevents ice accumulation on the wing slats, which are located outboard
of the right and left pylons.

The thermal anti-icing system receives regulated pneumatic air from the engine under normal conditions,
but may also receive APU pneumatic air.

The pneumatic airflow is controlled by electrically signalled and pneumatically activated shutoff valves in
each wing leading edge at the pylon.

The wing anti·ice system consists of two separate systems, one for each wing.

When the related valve is opened, pneumatic air is distributed through the ducting to related wing.

The wing anti·ice system is locked out through the ground air safety switch, thus preventing over tempera-
ture of the slat skin because of insufficient airflow over the wings.

When the airplane is on the ground, pressing the TEST switch bypasses the ground air safety switch. The
system then operates as it would in flight.

( a rr WING ANTI· ICE

0
00
un .....,
om
r-;; '"0", ,.-,

a~~O~~o
TELESCOPIC JOINT
TEMP.
SENSORS
.~~ PICCOLO TUBE
..
f\
WIN(j ANTI-ICE
; -CON'TROL VALVE
_-'I""
PYLON
" SHUTOFF
,; VALVE
" " _ .. J '

ENGINE
BLEED AIR

OPERATION

( Placing the wing anti·ice switch in the AUTO or MANUAL position on the ground with pneumatic
manifold pressure available has no affect on the wing anti-ice system.
13-2 June 1973

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
This is due to the wing anti-ice lockout system that is controlled by the ground air safety switch.

The ground air safety switch prevents wing anti-ice system operation to preclude overtemperature of the
slat skin because of insufficient airflow over the wings.

With pneumatic air and electrical power available, pressing the wing anti-ice TEST switch bypasses the
ground air safety switch to permit ground test operation.

When wing anti-ice system operation is selected, either AUTO or MANUAL mode, the bleed air mixing
ejector will maintain the bleed air temperature as required by augmenting intermediate pressure bleed
air with high pressure bleed air as needed.

This air is now controlled by the wing anti-ice pressure regulator and shutoff valve in the wing anti-ice
distribution ducting.

Normally, the system is operated in the automatic mode and the ON light illuminates to indicate switch
selection. The OPEN light comes on to indicate air pressure down stream of the regulator and shutoff
valve. In the AUTO mode, the system operates continuously as long as the slat skin temperature is below
limits.

If slat skin temperature starts to exceed the normal operating temperature, the anti-ice pressure regulator
and shutoff valve will close and remain closed until the temperature decreases to a normal temperature
value.

A malfunction resulting in an overheat condition in the duct will turn on the OVHT light in the switch.
(
Action is required by the crew to remove the bleed air source from the affected slats_

The OVHT light will remain illuminated until slat skin temperature decreases to approximately normal.

Depressing the AUTO control will de-energize the automatic control system, close the anti-ice valve and
turn off the "ON" light.

The system may also be operated in a manual mode, if the auto system becomes inoperative.

Depressing the MANUAL switch electrically bypasses the auto mode circuitry and opens the anti-ice
valve.

The crew must monitor the OVHT light and close the anti-ice valve whenever the OVHT light is illuminated.

The DUCT FAI L light located on the wing anti-ice panel will illuminate if the area overheat detector,
located on the outside of the wing anti-ice duct, detects an excessive temperature.

Whenever the DUCT FAI L light(s) are illuminated.after checking to ensure the integrity of the system,
the crew must take action to alleviate the condition.

ENGINE INLET COWL ANTI-ICING

DESCRIPTION

The Engine Inlet Cowl Anti-Icing system and the P1 probe on each engine is supplied by low pressure bleed {
\
air; anti-icing airflow is controlled by a pressure regulating shutoff valve, which is called the engine anti-ice
valve. The nose cone is continuously heated.
 June 1973 13·3

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

ENGINE ANTI· ICE

ENGINE ANTI ICE

PilOT'S "ON"/OFF SWITCH

III ON ~I COMBINED--~-'-~
WITH
;:..;;.,...,..~_~ ___________ __--! ~ HIPR HIGH PRESSURE LIGHT

"
, ,

1r:::::'~'~'~~~:::::::~~----~-----I~H~E~A~T~HEAT LIGHT
AND

( LEADING EDGE
PLENUM

DISTRIBUTION
RING

"
ENG ANHICE VALVE
(WITH MANUAL
CONTROL HANDLE)

PRE~'~»('Ct'L
SWITCHES ~

EXCESSIVE AlA
OVERBOARD VENT

LEADING EDGE
PRESSURE RELIEF VALVE PLENUM

(
13-4 June 1973

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
This bleed air is supplied to a distribution ring, in the nose cowl and to the body of the P 1 probe.

The distribution ring incorporates a series of holes through which anti-icing air is exhausted into the leading
edge plenum, where it is directed against the cowl inner skin then exhausted into the engine inlet.

The three inlet anti-icing systems are individually activated and monitored by switches and lights on the
ENGINE ANTI-ICE control panel located on the pilot's overheat panel.

The operating condition of each system is sensed by two separate pressure switches.

These switches are located just downstream of the engine anti-ice valve.

Pressure downstream of the regulating valve will illuminate the HEAT light, and the other is set to show
an excessive pressure which will illuminate the (HIPR) high pressure light.

The engine anti-ice valve is fitted with a servo regulator which causes it to function as a pressure regulator.

During normal operation, pressure in the engine anti-ice supply duct is automatically controlled to the
distribution ring.

If the anti-ice valve should fail, and anti-ice pressure should exceed limits, the high pressure switch will
activate, illuminating the HIPR light.

As the air flows from the distribution ring into the leading edge plenum, it is expanded causing a pressure
drop.
(
If anti-ice pressure in the leading edge plenum becomes excessive, a pressure relief valve located in the
inlet cowl leading edge plenum, opens, spilling the excess air overboard.

OPERATION

When the ENGINE ANTI-ICE switch light is in, system operation is initiated.

The "ON" and "HEAT" legends are illuminated indicating that the system is energized.

The engine anti-ice valve is energized open and the engine low pressure bleed air flows to the distributor
ring and is exhausted into the leading edge plenum.

When the low pressure switch senses that pressure (a flow of hot air) is in the duct, downstream of the
engine anti-ice valve, the "HEAT" legend is illuminated.

If the Pressure Regulating Shutoff valve fails to operate properly, excessive pressures will close the high
pressure switch and illuminate the "HIGH PRESSURE" (HIPR) light.

The system may be operated safely on high pressure conditions because the relief valve will vent excessive
pressure overboard.

In the event of an electrical system malfunction or a failure of the anti-ice valve, it can be manually
opened and locked and the airplane dispatched, even on a hot day, without detrimental effect to the
structure.
(
 June 1973 13·5

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
AIR DATA SENSOR HEAT

DESCRIPTION

Electrical heating is provided for the air data sensors to prevent sensor malfunction due to icing.

There are dual heating elements (head and mast) in each of the four pitot static probes, single heater
elements in each of the two total air temperature probes and a single heater element in each of the
two angle·of·attack sensors.

The heating elements are an integral part of the probes and the sensors.

The AIR DATA SENSOR HEAT control panel is located on the pilot's overhead panel.

The control panel contains four latching switches, with two OFF indicator legends in each.

The switches, when in, apply 115V AC, 400 Hz to the selected heater elements through current detectors.

The OFF lights come on only to indicate a defective heating element or the thermostat has opened in
the angle·of·attack sensor due to insufficient cooling airflow over the sensors.

For test purposes a momentary MAST LTIN HI BIT test switch, located on the pilot's AI R DATA SENSOR
HEAT control panel, provide fault isolation of the dual heating elements in the pilot static probes.

( The MAST LT INHIBIT switch provides the capability of determining which of the two pitot heat elements
(head or mast) is not operating.

OPERATION

When electrical power is available and all heater switches are in, none of the OFF legends will be illuminated.

The ALPHA switch OFF legend will be illuminated when the internal thermostat opens in one or both of
the angle·of·attack sensors, caused by insufficient airflow over the sensor(s).

When a heater current fails, the corresponding OFF legend will be illuminated.

Momentary actuation of the "MAST LT INH I BIT" switch will extinguish the OFF legend only when the
MAST heater fails. In this condition the heater in the pitot probe is still operating and satisfactory
operation will be maintained.

The appropriate OFF legend(s) on the corresponding switch(es) will be illuminated when the switches
are out.

WINDSHIELD HEAT, SIDE WINDOWS AND DEFOG FAN

DESCRIPTION

The windshield and side windows are electrically heated for anti·icing and defogging.

A transparent conductive coating is provided on the inner face of the outer glass abrasion shield.
(
(

(
 June 1973 13·7

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
System confidence test provisions are incorporated.

With all side window switches IN, and windshield heat control switches IN or OUT, pressing the TEST
switch will cause all six FAULT lights to flash at 1-2 cycles per second.

If a malfunction exists in the normal control circuitry, the FAULT light will remain steadily illuminated.

Should a malfunction exist in the overheat control circuitry, the FAU LT light will illuminate and then
extinguish and remain extinguished.

The DEFOG FAN switch is a two-position switch, ON (switch in the ON legend will illuminate) and OFF
(switch outimd no legend illuminated).

The defog fan is provided to blow cockpit ambient air over the inside surfaces of the windshield to
assist in meeting the requirement for 30 minutes dispatch after availability of electrical power.

The windshield switches should be placed in IDLE when at the ramp.

Should the airplane be cold soaked at temperatures below -1 OOF, the defog fan should be switched ON
in order to defog the windshield within 30 minutes after electrical power is available.

WATER/WASTE SYSTEM (HEAT ONLY)

DESCRIPTION
(
Heaters are provided for the lavatory drainlines, water lines, drain masts and water drain lines in the
U1heated areas of the airplane.

The heaters prevent the accumulation of ice in the drain and water lines.

The types of heaters used are integrally heated hoses, ribbon, blanket and patch heaters that wrap around
the lines. Gasket heaters are used for the lavatory drain servicing assembly.

The 115 volt AC bus supplies power to all drain heaters whenever AC power is available to the load busses.

Thermostats are provided in heater circuits where excessive heating is undesirable or to reduce power
consumption.

The heaters have a low voltage output and continuous operation will not cause overheating of the heating
elements.

OPERATION

The water/waste system anti-icing is automatic. The drain mast electrical heater assembly includes a
number "ON E" heating element and a number "TWO" heating element. The circuit for each of the two
heating elements includes a thermostst to automatically control the internal temperature in the mast.

Each mast has dual drain mast indicator lights located on the engineer's panel.

The heater drain internal thermostats are designed to operate automatically whenever the temperature in
( the mast drops below a predetermined value.
13·8 June 1973

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
The number one mast heaters operate to maintain mast temperature when the DRAIN MAST HEATERS
switches, at the engineer's station, are in their normal "OUT" position.

Selected drain mast switch(es) will illuminate if the internal temperature in the masts drops below a
predetermined value.

When the temperature in the mast increases to normal, the drain mast heater lights go out.

If the drain mast heater light(s) do not extinguish in a normal period of time, place the appropriate drain
mast heater switch(s) to select the number two heater element.

ICE DETECTOR

DESCRIPTION AND OPERATION

The ice detector is mounted on the left side of the fuselage just aft of the radome.

Ice accumulation on the sensor will result in illumination of a amber icing light located on the annunciator
panel.

The system operates on a 60 second cycle. An electrical heater in the detector de· ices the sensor in
seven seconds, during each cycle.

The time delay will keep the icing light on continuously as long as the condition persists.
(
The ice detector will help prevent unnecessary use of engine bleed air, thus, decrease fuel consumption
and loss of EPR.

WINDSHIELD RAIN REPELLENT

DESCRIPTION

A rain repellant system is used with the windshield wipers to improve visibility during heavy rain.

The rain repellant fluid improves visibility by decreasing surface tension of the water causing it to spread
over the windshield in an even film.

The rain repellent system consists of a pressurized fluid container, pressure gauge, a manifold with a
visual quantity indicator, and nozzle/valve assemblies that include a solenoid valve, solid state electrical
timer, and fluid nozzles.

The timers and solenoid valves are powered by 28V DC through pushbutton REPELLENT switches
located on the captain's and first officer's overhead panels.

The fluid is sprayed on the captain's and first officer's windshield panels through four nozzle/valve
assemblies, two for each windshield.

The solution is spread over the windshield panels by rain and airstream; the wiper blades may be used to
aid in spreading the fluid.

The quantity of fluid sprayed is controlled by the timers in each nozzle/valve assembly. (
 June 1973 13-9

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
The length of time the fluid remains effective depends upon rain intensity, airspeed, etc.

Fluid applications may be necessary approximately every 2 to 5 minutes under conditions requiring use
of the repellent fluid.

The rain repellent manifold consists of an upper housing and a lower housing separated by a window
containing a fluid quantity indicator float.

When a can of fluid is installed, the check valve is actuated to the open position by the probe, allowing
rain repellent fluid to enter the manifold.

The float raises with the fluid level and the RE FILL indicator will not be visible when the manifold is
full.

The pressure gauge on the manifold indicates the pressure in the manifold which is the pressure remaining
in the removable container.

The pressure gauge dial indicates 0-45 PSIG (red band) and 45-200 PSIG (green band).

Indicated pressure within the green band indicates adequate pressure for normal system operation.

When the indicated pressure decreases into the red band, the pressure remaining in the fluid container
is below the minimum required for normal system operation and the pressurized fluid container should
be replaced.
(
Any time the REF I LL indicator is fully visible in the window, the fluid container must be replaced.

OPERATION

The rain repellent system for each windshield panel is individually controlled by depressing a momentary
pushbutton switch labeled REPELLENT.

The switches are located on the captain's and first officer's overheat panels.

Depressing a switch completes a circuit from the 28V DC bus to the control valve solenoid.

Actuation of the solenoid valve releases a controlled amount of the pressurized fluid through the spray
nozzles to the windshield panels.

The rain repellent fluid should not be sprayed on dry windshield [Janels since undiluted fluid will reduce
visibility and cause staining or minor corrosion of airplane skin if operated in dry weather conditions.

Operation of the windshield wipers under this condition will further reduce visibility by smearing the
fluid.

WINDSHIELD WASHER

DESCRIPTION

A windshield washer system is installed to spray washer fluid on the left and right windshield panels.
( •
The washer system is used with the windshield wipers to clean the windshield panels when required.
13-10 June 1973

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
The windshield washer system consists of a reservoir, an electrically operated pump located in the reservoir,
a solenoid valve, a filter, two control valves, one control switch, and two spray nozzles for each windshield
panel.

The washer pump is operated by 3-phase, 115/200V AC power, the solenoid is energized by 28V DC power.

The one-gallon capacity reservoir and the electric pump are located in the forward avionics service center.

Pump operation is controlled by a pushbutton switch located on the pilot's overhead panel.

Reservoir quantity is indicated by a sight gauge located on the side of the reservoir, will indicate when
the reservoir is less than 1/2 full.

The two manually operated flow control valves allow each pilot to control the volume of washer fluid
sprayed on his windshield panel.

The valves control fluid volume from a maximum flow to an off (no flow) condition.

Depressing the WASHE R pushbutton switch energizes the pump relay closing the AC circuit to the pump
motor.

A PUMP ON annunciator light next to the windshield washer pump switch is turned on when the pump
relay is closed.

Operation of the pump forces fluid from the reservoir, through the filter, to the two manually operated (
control valves.

With the valves open fluid is sprayed from the nozzles to the windshield panels.

Depressing the WASHE R switch a second time de-energizes the pump relay turning out the PUMP ON
light and opening the AC circuit to the pump motor.

WINDSHIELD WIPER

DESCRIPTION

Two electrically operated windshield wiper assemblies are provided to wipe the left and right windshield
panels.

Each system uses identical components and controls, one for the captain and one for the first officer.

Each wiper assembly drive motor is individually controlled by three-position WIPER switches located on
the captain and first officer overheat panels.

When either OFF-LOW-HIGH switch is selected to the LOW position, the corresponding wiper assembly
will drive the wiper blade back and forth across the windshield at approximately 125 strokes per minute.

In the HIGH position the wiper rate will increase to approximately 250 strokes per minute.

When placed to the OFF position the wiper assembly moves the blade to a parked position at the
windshield base and the motor switches off. (
 June 1973 13-11

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
Power to operate the captain's wiper motor is supplied by the 115V AC, 400 Hz 3-phase essential bus
through the CAPT WSHLD WIPER PWR circuit breaker_

Control power for the captain's wiper motor is supplied by the 28V AC essential bus through the CAPT
WSHLD WIPER CONT circuit breaker_

The windshield wipers may be operated in conjunction with the windshield washer and rain repellent
system.

OPERATION

The windshield wipers are operated by placing the respective control switches to the desired position either
OFF-LOW or HIGH.

VHF ANTENNA ANTI-ICE SYSTEM

DESCRIPTION

The VHF Antenna Anti-Ice system prevents ice accumulation on the No.1 VHF antenna, which is located
on top of the forward fuselage.

The thermal anti-icing system receives pneumatic air that is tapped from both number two and three packs,
just before it enters the primary heat exchangers.

( The pneumatic airflow to the antenna is controlled by two electrically operated shutoff valves.

When one or both valves are open pneumatic air is distributed through tubing to the VH F antenna.

The VHF antenna anti-icing system is inoperative on the ground by the automatic switching of the
nosewheel control relay.

This prevents overheating of the VHF antenna due to insufficient airflow over the antenna when on the
ground.

The VHF antenna anti-ice annunciator light is located on the engineer's annunciator panel.

It is illuminated during flight any time both VHF antenna shutoff valves fail to open when the No.2
engine anti-ice switch is "ON".

OPERATION

The VHF antenna is automatically anti-iced in flight when No.2 ENGINE ANTI-ICE control switch is
"ON" and Pack No.2 or No.3 flow control valves are open.

The VHF ANT anti-ice light is extinguished whenever one or both of the VHF antenna anti-ice shutoff
valves has opened.

On the ground both VHF antenna anti-ice shutoff valves close automatically regardless of ENGINE No.2
ANTI-I CE switch position or the No.2 or No.3 pack flow control valve position.
(
13-12 June 1973

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
1. What light should be monitored when operating wing anti-ice in the MANUAL Mode?

a. OVHT light.

b. HIGH PRESSURE light.

c. Windshield heat light.

2. What occurs when the engine anti-ice control switch is pressed in?

a. Engine anti-ice valve powered open electrically.

b. System energized to open with pressure.

c. CO LD light will illuminate.

3. What is indicated by a pitot heat OFF light extinguishing when the PITOT MAST LIGHT INHIBIT
switch is momentarily pressed?

a. Pitot head heater has failed.

b. All system operation has returned to normal.

c. Mast heater has failed.

(
4. What is the correct indication of a normal windshield heat test?

a. Fault lights cycle on and off.

b. Fault lights illuminate steady.

c. Fault light blinks once and then remains off.

5. When will the ICING annunciator light illuminate?

a. When ice forms anywhere on aircraft.

b. When ice forms on icing indicator probe.

c. Only when severe icing conditions exist.

 June 1973 13·13

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

(
ANSWER SHEET

1. a

2. b

3. c

4. a

5. b.

(
(
\

(
 June 1973 14-1

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

(
LANDING GEAR

The landing gear consists of two, four-wheel truck type gears and a steerable dual-wheel nose gear. A
retractable tail skid is provided to prevent damage to the aircraft in case of inadvertent overrotation
during takeoff or landing. The landing gear is normally powered by hydraulic system C. The tail skid
is powered by hydraulic system A. All the gears and the tail skid are operated by a single UP - NEUTRAL-
DOWN lever on the pilot's center instrument panel. Landing gear down and locked indication, gear and
door warning lights and a truck unlevellight are located beneath the gear lever. The engineer's annunciator
panel has gear door and tail skid position lights. A gear warning horn will sound due to various unsafe
conditions.

A cockpit manually operated gear extension system unlocks the gears and the gears free fall into the down
and locked position.

An alternate hydraulic gear extension system using the alternate brake system C accumulator will also
extend and lock all the gears down.

LANDING GEAR LEVER

The lever has UP - NEUTRAL - DOWN positions. The lever electrically controls the gear selector valve to
hydraulically power the landing gear and the tail skid up and down. The gear lever is locked in the DOWN
position until the struts are extended and the trucks are level after takeoff. In an emergency the gear lever
can be unlocked by pushing the down lock release button.

PILOT'S GEAR POSITION LIGHTS

(
Six lights for gear position are located on the pilot's center instrument panel.

a. Left gear, nose gear, right gear - Green lights that indicate that the respective gear is down and locked.

b. Door - Red light that indicates that one or more gear doors are open.

c. In Trans - Red light that indicates that any gear or any door is in transit or not in agreement with
the gear lever.

d. TRUCK - Amber light that indicates a truck is not level or a strut is not extended.

ENGINEER DOOR ANNUNCIATOR

Amber lights for the left and right main gear and nose gear door will be on when the respective door is
not up and locked. The amber tail skid light is on any time the tail skid position does not agree with
the gear lever position.

MECHANICAL GEAR EXTENSION

Mechanical extension of all the landing gears is provided by means of three pull handles. One handle
for each gear is located in the cockpit under a cover at the aft of the center console. This mode of
extension is entirely mechanical. Cables attach directly to the gear uplocks and the hydraulic system
bypass valve. The gear will free fall aided by aerodynamic forces. Positive locking of all gears in the
down position is aided by overcenter springs. The handles remain latched out and must be stowed
( before attempting to retract the gear. The main gear doors will remain open after manual gear extension.
14·2 June 1973

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

(
ALTERNATE HYDRAULIC GEAR EXTENSION

An alternate hydraulic gear extension system is provided for use when the normal and manual operation
fails to lock all the gears down. This system uses the alternate brake accumulator in system C as a source
of power. When activated by a'single switch located adjacent to the manual gear extension handles,
system C brake accumulator pressure powers positive gear extension using separate lines. The gear extends
and locks down, however the main gear doors will remain open.

MECHANICAL DOWN LOCK INDICATORS

Main gear mechanical down lock indicators operated by the down lock~ extend through the upper surface
of the left and right wing when the respective gear is down and locked. Nose gear down lock indicators
are visible through an inspection tube on the aft bulkhead of the forward avionics compartment. Pulling
a knob at that location uncovers the end of the inspection tube. Two alignments rods are then Visible
indicating that the nose gear is down and locked.

TAIL SKID

Tail skid operation is controlled by the gear lever. When the gear lever is UP, hydraulic system A com·
presses the tail skid shock strut to retract the tail skid. When the gear lever is DOWN, the tail skid shock
strut is released to the extended position. The position of the tail skid is indicated on the engineer's
annunciator panel.

GEAR WARNING HORN

The gear warning horn sounds when any throttle is retarded to idle with all the gears not locked down (
and the airspeed below 180 knots. This warning may be silenced by pushing the GEAR HORN CUTOUT
switch. The gear warning horn will also sound if the wing flaps are extended greater than 30 degrees
with all the gears not locked down. This warning cannot be silenced.

1. Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear?

System A.

System B.

System C.

2. What will prevent movement of the gear lever out of the DOWN position?

a. A truck unlevel or a strut not extended.

b. Loss of hydraulic system C.

c. Nose wheels not in centered position.

3. How does the gear lever control the gear selector?

a. Mechanically

b. Electrically

c. Hydraulically
 June 1973 14-3

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

(
4_ How is the gear extended with loss of system C?

a_ Pull handle for each gear_

b_ Hand crank on each gear_

c_ Select alternate system B_

(
14-4 June 1973

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

(
BRAKES

Each main gear wheel has a multiple disc brake installed. These brakes are normally powered by hydraulic
system B. If hydraulic system B is not available system C can be selected as an alternate source of brake
pressure. Each system is separated by a shuttle valve. Anti-skid is incorporated in each brake system to
provide maximum braking efficiency. A parking brake is provided with the brake pedals, which permits
setting the brakes using the normal brake system B.

BRAKE SYSTEM SELECTOR

A brake system selector on the pilot's center instrument panel permits the pilot to select either NORM
SYS B or ALT SYS C. The selector switch is normally positioned to NORM SYS B.

BRAKE PRESSURE INDICATOR

A dual pressure indicator above the brake system selector switch indicates pressure in the normal and
alternate brake system. This indicator reads the fluid side of each brake accumulator downstream of
each brake system isolation check valve. Normal indication is 3000 PSI.

BRAKE ACCUMULATOR LOW PRESSURE LIGHTS

Normal and alternate brake accumulator low pressure lights are located on the engineer's hydraulic panel
adjacent to system Band C pressure indicator. These lights come on if the respective brake accumulator
pressure is low.

PARKING BRAKES (

The brakes are parked by depressing the brake pedals and pulling the parking brake lever on the captain's
side of the center console. The parking brake warning lights on the left and right side of the center console
indicate that the parking brake is on and there is pressure applied to the brakes. The parking brakes are
released by depressing the brake pedals. Brakes may be parked and released from either pilot position.
The brakes will remain parked only in the NORM SYS B selector position. The brake return lines are
blocked and anti-skid turned off to conserve normal brake accumulator pressure. If selected to AL T SYS C
with the brakes parked, the return lines are not blocked and system C accumulator pressure will be
depleted rapidly.

IN-FLIGHT BRAKES

Automatic braking is applied using gear up pressure as long as the gear lever is in the UP position.

BRAKE TEMPERATURE MONITOR

The brake temperature monitor is a means of determining the temperature of each main wheel brake. The
brake temperature lights on the engineer's panel and the pilot's caution and warning panel are active all
the time. The brake temperature indicator is only active if one of the brake temperature selectors is
pushed in. The HIGH TEMP light on the engineer's panel will come on if any brake temperature is in
the amber band. The OVERHEAT light on the engineer's panel and the BRAKE TEMP light on the pilot's
caution and warning panel will come on if any brake temperature is in the red band. When these lights
come on the overheated brake can be identified by pushing the brake selector switches in. A valid temp-
erature reading is only available when one selector is in. The brake temperature test switch is used in
conjunction with each temperature selector switch. Pressing the test switch will cause the selected pair of (
brake temperatures to increase 1000C. If this increases into the amber or red band, the HIGH TEMP
and OVERHEAT light will also come on.
 June 1973 14-5

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

(
ANTI-SKID

There are two anti-skid systems, one for normal and one for alternate brakes_ Separate anti-skid valves
are in each system_ Normal or alternate anti-skid is selected when the brake system selector is positioned_
Anti-skid is turned on and off with a switch on the anti-skid panel located on the pilot's overhead panel.
The ON light illuminates when the system is turned on and the gear lever is DOWN_ The OFF light illumi-
nates with system failure, [llrking brakes set, or the anti-skid turned off. The individual brake anti-skid
lights come on when that brake is being released on a skidding or locked wheel. The ANTI-SKI D light
on the pilot's caution and warning panel comes on when the selected anti-skid system is inoperative. Prior
to landing the anti-skid releases all the brakes. The indication of normal anti-skid operation with the gear
lever DOWN is the ON light illuminated. The individual release lights will not be on in flight. Testing is
provided for both the normal and alternate anti-skid. Pressing each test switch individually will turn on
all the release lights to indicate operative anti-skid systems. Two separate test cards are used for the test.
If the entire inboard or entire outboard lights do not come on during the test it may be a faulty test card.

1. What is the normal source of brake pressure?

System fO..

System B.

System C.

2. What is the alternate source of brake pressure?

(
System A.

System B.

System C.

3. When would AL T SYS C brakes be selected?

a. Loss of system B engine hydraulic pump.

b. Normal brakes are inoperative.

c. System C brake accu mulator low.

4. What will cause the pilot's BRAKE TEMP light to come on?

a. Any brake temperature in the amber band.

b. Any brake temperature in the red band.

c. Failure of the brake temperature monitor.

5. How is the alternate brake anti-skid selected?

a_ Automatic with failure of normal.

(
b. Selecting AL T SYS C with brake selector.

c. Pressing AL T switch on anti-skid panel.

14·6 June 1973

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

(
ANSWER SHEET

Landing Gear

1. c

2. a

3. b

4. a

Brakes

1. b

2. c

3. b

4. b

5. b. (

(
 June 1973 15-1

NAVIGATION

(
NAVIGATION RADIOS

VHF NAV

Two VH F NAV control panels on the glareshield provide frequency tuning and operational control for VOR,
I LS, and DME receivers_

Tuning range is 108.00 through 117.95 MHz.

The VOR receivers provide a magnetic bearing signal to both RMI pointers. No.1 VOR bearing is dis-
played on the single dash-line pointers, and VOR-2 bearing is shown on the double solid line pointers. With
VOR selected, the first officer's RMI No.1 pointer is the master for the captain's RMI No.1 pointer. The
captain's RMI No.2 pointer is the master for the first officer's RMI NO.2 pointer with VOR selected.

The VOR-I LS receivers also provide course bar deviation in the HSls, TO-FROM signals in VOR, and
inputs for autopilot-flight director tracking.

The I LS signals drive the ADI approach gate and autopilot-flight director steering. The glide slope receiver
automatically signals the HSI glide slope indicator when an ILS frequency is selected. VOR failure is
indicated by HSI NAV flag, and RMI VOR fail flags. I LS receiver failure is indicated by HSI NAV and GS
flags when a local izer frequency is selected.

ADF

A single ADF receiver control is located on the aft pedestal and provides RMI relative bearing signals
( to any AM or CW station transmitting in the 190 to 1750 KHz range

MARKER BEACON

A single marker beacon receiver provides signals to marker beacon lights on the right part of each pilot's
instrument panel. The display shows an airway (white), middle marker (amber), and outer marker (blue)
light.

TRANSPONDER

Two air traffic control transponder systems operate through a single ATC control panel on the aft
pedestal. This panel includes controls for mode, channel, code selection, and altitude reporting.

DME

The DME selector switch on the VH F NAV panel provides 200 nautical mile range ih the NAV mode, and
up to 400 miles range in the OVE R R I DE position for each of two DME units. The distance readout
displays are provided in the two RMI windows. DME failure is shown by a barber pole flag in the RMI
window. Four dashes appearing in the RMI windows indicates no computed DME data is being received.

HEADING REFERENCE SYSTEM

Two compass systems provide magnetic heading reference. Each system uses a flux valve, located in wing
tips, a directional gyro, magnetic compensator, compass coupler, and compass controller.

(
15-2 June 1973

NAVIGATION

DG-1 -4 DG-2

e CAPT'S HSI CARD ~e

.. FlO'S HSI CARD
° FlO'S RMI CARD e CAPT'S RMI CARD
eAPFD - A e APFD - B
e FLIGHT RECORDER
e AIDS

ATTITUDE DIRECTOR INDICATORS

Each pilot's ADI provides aircraft attitude and flight director command indications. The AD Is also contain
skid indication (ball), slow·fast, radio altitude, marker lights, approach gate and rollout command steering
indication. The ADI approach gate displays localizer and glide slope deviation and is about three times
more sensitive than the radio signal raw data displayed in the HSI, the gate disappears from view if either {,
localizer or glide slope fails. The rollout bar provides runway steering guidance during auto land (AIL)
mode of operation. Fail flags include ATT (attitude), GATE, SLOW· FAST, 'RIO (rollout). and FD (flight
director). When the FD flag appears the command bars go out of view. The FD flag disappears when the
flight director switch is OFF.

HORIZONTAL SITUATION INDICATOR

The two HSls display raw data and heading reference. The course window (upper left) counter and cursor
display the course set in by each pilot's course knob on the APFD panel. The distance and ground speed
windows are shuttered and contain provisions for future use when area navigation units are installed.

The course bar displays either VOR or localizer deviation, and glide slope needle shows glide slope
deviation. TO·FROM pointer appears when a VOR is tuned. The heading triangle indicates heading
selected by the HDG control on the APFD panel. Windows at the bottom of the HSI indicate which
radio signal is being used by that HSI; for example, I LS-1 or VOR-1, etc. HDG, NAV, and GS fail flags
appear when failure or unusable signal develops. Alternate signals may be selected with the HDG or
DEV alternate source switches. AL TN legend shows on switch indicating that an alternate source is
selected.

RADIO MAGNETIC INDICATOR

Each RMI displays compass heading and the relative bearing of two VOR and one ADF station. A switch
for each pointer is located on the bottom of each indicator and selects either VOR or ADF and illuminates
a VOR or ADF annunciator above the switch. DME nautical mile distance readouts are displayed in the
two windows at the top of each RMI. Each RMI has fail flags for the DME, VOR pointers, and compass {
card. Alternate source switching is not available for the R M l s . '
 June 1973 15·3

NAVIGATION

(
1. DME Selector switch in the OVRD position gives approx. what range?

a. 100 miles.

b. 400 miles.

c. 250 miles.

2. What does four dashes in the RMI·DME window indicate?

a. No computed data.

b. Radio facility does not have DME.

c. DME receiver power failure.

3. When does the vertical gyro No.3 light come on the C/W panel?

a. When No.3 VG fails and neither pilot has selected ATT AL TN source.

b. When No.3 VG fails and at least one pilot has selected ATT AL TN source.

c. When either pilot is using No.3 VG in ATT AL TN source.

4. What is the normal position of RMI·ADF pointers with ANT selected on the ADF control head?
(
a. Horizontal position.

b. 1800 RMI position.

c. Pointers stay in their last position prior to selecting ANT.

5. What happens to the RMI·ADF pointers when a signal loss occurs? (ADF selected on the control
and RMI).

a. The pointers remain in their last position prior to failure.

b. The pointers go to a horizontal position.

c. The pointers go to the 1800 RMI position.

6. Which RM I·VO R pointer is the master pointer for the No.1 VHF NAV receiver?

a. First officer's RMI dashed pointer.

b. Captain's RMI dashed pointer.

c. Captain's RMI solid pointer.

(
15-4 June 1973

NAVIGATION

(
7. What does the dashed pointer fail flag in the RMI indicate?

a. No.1 ADF signal loss.

b. No.1 VO R si"gnal loss.

c. Either No.1 ADF or VOR signal loss depending on RMI selector position.

8. What action is recommended if a NAV fail flag appears in the captain's HSI?

a. Press captain's DEV AL TN source.

b. Place VOR selector switch to SPLIT.

c. Place VOR selector switch to No.2 position.

9. When does the ADI approach gate appear?

a. At LOC capture.

b. At GS capture.

c. At 1500 feet radio altitude.

10. What happens to the ADI approach gate when the localizer signal fails?
(
a. It disappears.

b. It remains in view in the centered position.

c. It remains in last position with GATE flag in view.

11. When does the ADI ROLLOUT BAR appear?

a. After touchdown.

b. When the radio altimeter DH light comes on.

c. Before touchdown at 5' radio altitude.

12. Where does the ADI ROLLOUT BAR get its computed guidance data?

a. From the local izer signal.

b. From the glide slope signal.

c. From the radio altimeter.

(
 June 1973 15·5

NAVIGATION
/

l
ANSWER SHEET

1. b

2. a

3. a

4. a

5. b

6. a

7. c

8. a

9. b

10. a

11. c
( 12. a

(
15·6 June 1973

NAVIGATION

(
AUTOMATED NAVIGATION SYSTEM

The automated navigation system provides the pilots' with navigation and guidance information as well
as steering signals to the autopilot for automatically flying the aircraft to desired destinations. The
system has built·in self·test and failure monitoring devices to assure overall system integrity.

The system consists of the following line replaceable units (LRU).

• Two Navigation Computer Units (NCU)

• Two Control and Display Units (CDU)

• Two Flight Data Storage Units (FDSU)

• Electronic Automatic Chart System (EACS)

NAVIGATION COMPUTER UNIT (NCU)

The NCU incorporates three basic components:

• Central data processor (CDP)

• Interface electronics unit (lEU)

• Power supply (
CENTRAL DATA PROCESSOR (COP)

This unit performs the mathematical computations required in the solution of navigation problems in both
the lateral and vertical planes. Guidance commands relative to a programmed lateral and vertical profile
are resultant outputs of these computations. The CDP performs the following processes:

• Convert sensor input parameters into latitude and longitude coordinates.

• Compound, mix, and filter sensor input parameters to provide a refined navigational aircraft
position.

• Compute a desired vertical profile and vertical speed indications.

• Compute raw deviation signals in both lateral and vertical dime~sions for display on the flight
director systems.

• Compute guidance commands signals for the AFCS and flight directors.

• Compute navigation data for display including:

Present position

Bearing·distance to a nominated waypoint or VOR/DME beacon

ETA at a nominated waypoint (

 June 1973 15·7

NAVIGATION
(
Desired track

Actual track

Cross track error

Ground speed

Drift angle

Wind direction and speed

• Perform credibility and confidence checks on sensor input parameters.

INTERFACE ELECTRONICS UNIT (lEU)

This unit provides the interface between the CDP and other system components. It also facilitates the input
and output interfaces to other aircraft systems, performing such functions as analog to digital conversions
and vice·versa.

POWER SUPPLY UNIT

The power supply unit generates regulated DC voltages for the CDP, lEU, and start/stop control signals. The
unit operates' on 115 VAC 400 cycle input power supply. Brief power interrupts will not affect computer
( operation. Normal operation is re-initiated automatically on resumption of power supply. Over·voltage
protection is provided to prevent damage to CDP and lEU circuits.

CONTROL AND DISPLAY UNIT (CDU)

The CDU provides the interface between the NCU and the operator. The primary functions of the CDU are
to:

• Insert navigational data into the computer data stores.

• Display navigation data.

• Announce system operational status and malfunctions.

FLIGHT DATA STORAGE UNIT (FDSU)

The FDSU is a special purpose cassette tape reader permitting the storage of a large amount of pre·
programmed data. The data is inserted into the relevant NCU data stores automatically on demand. A
unique search code is employed when information is recorded on the tape which insures a high order
of integrity during the transport of data. Data stored on the tape includes:

• Enroute waypoint information

• SID's

( • STAR's

• Runway coordinates
15-8 June 1973

NAVIGATION

(
• Gate positions

• VOR/DME facility data

FDSU management is normally confined to pre-flight procedures. The loading of tape cassettes is a simple
plug-in type operation.

ELECTRONIC AUTOMATIC CHART SYSTEM (EACS)

The EACS with its associated control panel provides a visual display of present position and an additional
means by which navigational information can be selected for insertion into the NCU data stores.

SYSTEM CONCEPT

Twin VHF NAV receivers are automatically tuned by the NCU. The output from one of these receivers
is processed by the NCU, along with true airspeed and heading, to provide a VOR/DME - air data mix.
The result is a considerably refined fix. Reversion to the second VHF NAV receiver is automatic should
the first one fail. The air data input also gives the NCU a wind finding capability and provides a dead
reckoning (D R) reversionary mode during retuning of the VH F NAV in use.

Entire route details are stored on magnetic tape. Selection of this detail is largely automatic; however on
occasions the operator is required to make a selection from a number of choices by pressing an index
push-button. In certain circumstances the operator may make alterations through the use of the CDU.
Control is achieved through the keyboard. Display is in the form of lines of alpha-numeric characters on
a cathode ray tube. The EACS provides an additional display in the form of a cathode ray tube map.
(

(
 June 1973 16-1

OXYGEN

(
CREW AND PASSENGER FIXED OXYGEN SYSTEMS

The crew oxygen system is a gas system supplied by a single high pressure bottle located forward and
outboard of the engineer's panel. The ON-OFF valve is located on top the bottle by the high pressure
gauge_ Oxygen is fed from the bottle through a pressure reducer to each of the five crew regulators
at 50-90 PS I.

The passenger oxygen system provides oxygen in event that cabin a Ititude exceeds 13,000 feet. Each
cabin seat row segment has one more oxygen mask overhead than the number of seats under it. Each
seat row has a total of three extra masks. Each lavatory has a set of two masks. Each flight attendant
seat has a single mask over it.

The passenger oxygen system consists of approximately 240 solid chemical sodium chlorate iron filing
candles. The candles are mounted in overhead units. Upon electrical signals, the units open and start
generating pure oxygen at the rate of three liters/minute. This system is armed by the DC Standby bus.
If cabin altitude exceeds 13,000 feet, two aneroid switches located in the PASSENGER OXYGEN
controller on the engineer's upper panel, will deploy the passenger 02 masks automatically, illuminating
the green OXYGEN FLOW indicator. Once initiated, the units will burn for 18 minutes. Manual
activation is accomplished by raising the clear plastic guard on the PASSENGER OXYGEN MANUAL
ON switch and pressing the switch in. The OXYGEN FLOW indicator will illuminate.

(
(

(
 June 1973 17·1

PNEUMATICS
(
GENERAL

The pneumatic system includes the following:

a. Engine bleed air.

b. APU load compressor.

c. High pressure ground air.

d. Distribution manifold.

e. Duct air pressure indications, and

f. Bleed air overheat warnings.

The systems using bleed air from the pneumatic system are:

a. Air conditioning, wing and engine inlet, anti-ice, engine thrust reversers, engine starter, and B
and C system air turbine motor driven hydraulic pumps.

b. The engine bleed air system is composed of three independent and identical systems on each
engine. Low pressure bleed air is taken from N2 and high pressure bleed air from N3 .

( c. The APU load compressor system connects the APU compressor discharge air to the distribution
manifold.

d. The high pressure ground air system connects three high pressure ground air sources (external
air cart) directly to the distribution manifold.

e. The pressure indicating system consists of three pressure indicating gauges. Individual system
input pressures can be monitored by opening or closing the manifold cross bleeds and isolation
valves.

f. The overheat warning system includes continuous type temperature sensors, thermal switches,
with automatic shutdown of a faulty unit and advisory lights in the cockpit.

g. Temperature sensors are installed near ducting and components carrying high pressure air to
detect significant hot air leakage.

h. All pneumatic system ducting is monitored including the high pressure ducting in the wing
anti·icing systems. The system is divided into areas to localize overheat warning indications.
Individual caution lights for each area are located on the Engine Bleed Control panel at the
engineer's station or the wing anti·ice panel.

i. The AREA/DUCT OVHT and the NACELLE OVHT caution and warning lights are located on
the pilot's annunciator panel. These lights will come on when any area overheat caution or
overheat warning light comes on.

(
17-2 June 1973

PNEUMATICS
(

CABIN TEMP CONTROL

(
 Jun. 1973 17-3

PNEUMATICS

(
In the following discussion we will follow the engine bleed air as it comes from the engine low pressure
and high pressure bleeds and continues on through the bleed air ejector, the engine isolation valves into
the pneumatic manifold.

There are two sources of bleed air from the engine:

a. Low pressure bleed air from intermediate pressure compressor (N 2 ).

b. High pressure bleed air from high pressure compressor (N 2 ).

The bleed air control system regulates the pressure and temperature of air supplied to pneumatic accessories
and to the air conditioning system. Low pressure air is bled from each of the three engines during normal
flight operation. When this low pressure air is not adequate to support the pneumatic systems, as during
idle descent, the high pressure bleed valve opens and admits high pressure air to the variable area ejector
nozzle which regulates the amount of high pressure air to be used to boost low pressure air to the required
system pressure level.

When wing anti-icing system operation is required, the high pressure bleed valve ope(ls, if the high stage
pressure is below a certain value, the ejector will schedule the hot air output as required.

The high pressure valve is signaled closed for the following:

a. Fire pull.

b. Nacelle/pylon overheat.
(
c. Duct overheat (down stream of the ejector).

d. Adequate N2 pressure_

e. Excessive N3 pressure.

Whenever the high pressure valve is closed as a result of a signal from anyone of the following reasons, the
valve will be held closed by a holding coil until the high pressure valve switch is cycled.

a. Nacelle/pylon overheat.

b. Duct overheat.

HIGH PRESSURE BLEED VALVE

This valve is an electrically signaled, pneumatically activated valve. With the high pressure switch "I N"
the flow bar is illuminated when the valve reaches the open position. With switch "OUT" the valve is
energized closed and the "OFF" legend portion of the switch will illuminate.

The high pressure valve will normally be closed except for idle descent, idle taxi, or when wing anti-ice
is on.

EJECTOR

( The ejector allows both low pressure and high pressure air to be mixed together. A bullet in the ejector
varies its position to control the amount of high pressure air being added when the high pressure valve is
open. The ejector normally controls to a pressure sense in the N2 line and will add a proportional
17-4 June 1973

PNEUMATICS

(
amount of high pressure. A temperature sensor will keep downstream air from exceeding nominal values.
Upon the selection of wing anti-ice the bullet modulates to maintain a maximum downstream temperature
of 265 0 C.

ENGINE ISOLATION VALVE

The engine isolation valve is electrically de-energized to open with air pressure from the engine. The
flowbar is illuminated when the valve is open. The valve modulates to regulate the downstream pressure.
It also acts as a check valve to prevent reverse flow except during engine start. Valve is closed by the fire
pull, duct over pressure, duct overheat or excessive flow to its pack (No.1 and No.3 only).

Reverse flow must occur through the engine isolation valve during engine starting or for thrust reverser
activation using air from the manifold. When either the GRD START/FLIGHT START switch or the
APU/GRD AI R TO REVERSERS switch on the bottom center console under hinged cover, are activated
the respective engine isolation valve opens and allows reverse air flow.

If an over temperature is sensed in the duct downstream of the ejector, the DUCT OVERHEAT light
comes on and the engine isolation and high pressure valves are closed. The DUCT OVERHEAT light goes
out when temperature is returned to normal.

The valves are held closed by a holding coil for this fault until the switches are cycled.

OVER PRESSURE VALVE

A fast acting valve downstream of each isolation valve protects the system from over pressure. If the
isolation valve fails to maintain pressure the over pressure valve will close while the excessive pressure (
exists. As the valve closes an OVER PRESSURE light on the engineer's panel will come on and the
effected isolation valve will close. While the over pressure valve opens when the pressure returns to
normal the light will stay on and the isolation valve remains closed until the engine isolation valve switch
is cycled.

APU LOAD COMPRESSOR AIR SYSTEM

The APU load compressor air system portion of the pneumatic distribution system consists of a check
valve to prevent reverse flow of the APU load compressor bleed air and a shutoff valve with its BLEED
AIR SHUTOFF VALVE switch on the engineer's APU CONTROL panel.

The function of this system is to admit or isolate flow of load compressor discharge air from the APU
into the pneumatic distribution manifold system.

When the APU is operating, opening and closing of the APU load compressor bleed air shutoff valve is
controlled by the BLEED AI R S/O switch. When the switch is IN, the valve is electrically armed to open
and admit load compressor discharge air into the distribution manifold system if pneumatic pressure is
available. When the valve is open, the OPEN light illuminates. When the switch is out, the valve closes
and the OPEN light is extinguished.

The APU fire shutdown circuit signals the bleed air shutoff valve to close.

HIGH PRESSURE GROUND AIR SYSTEM

The high pressure ground air system consists of three identical ground air connections with check valves.
The connections attach directly to the bottom of the pneumatic system crossbleed manifold. Access to
the connections is through three hinged doors under the forward portion of the wing center section.
 June 1973 17·5

PNEUMATICS

(
Three ground air connections are provided to assure sufficient flow capacity to operate systems using this
pressure source. These are air conditioning, hydraulic air turbine motors, and engine cranking.

Maximum supply air flow requirements occur during operation of the air conditioning system. When all
three air cycle packs are in use, all three ground air connections are needed. Simultaneous operation of
the two air turbine motors in the hydraulic power system is available.

Two ground air connections are needed during engine cranking.

DISTRIBUTION MANIFOLD SYSTEM

The distribution manifold system portion of the pneumatic system includes all components and ducting
used to connect the sources of pneumatic pressure to the systems that use that high pressure air.

ISOLATION VALVE SWITCH - AFT FUSELAGE

The ISLN VALVE permits isolation of air turbine motors. Also it permits isolation of No.2 engine pressure
duct from the crossbleed manifold. With ISOLATION VALVE switch IN, the valve is energized
to open with pressure. When the valve opens the flow bar will illuminate.

With the switch OUT the valve will close, the flow bar will extinguish and the "OFF" legend portion of the
switch will be illuminated. With excessive flow to pack 2 the valve will be signaled to close and be held
closed by the holding coil until the switch is cycled.

CROSSBLEED VALVES
(
The crossbleed valves permits connecting or isolation of any or all systems. With CROSSBLEED switch in,
the valve is energized to open with pressure. Flow bar is illuminated when valve is open. Respective valve
is held closed with excessive flow to pack 1,2, or 3. With CROSSBLEED switch out, the valve closes. Flow
bar is extinguished and OFF light illuminated with valve closed.

DUCT AIR PRESSURE INDICATORS

The duct air pressure indicating system measures and indicates the pressure in each of the three bleed air
ducts.

The transmitters for system No.1 and 3 are located on each side of the crossbleed manifold. The transmitter
for system No.2 is up stream of the aft fuselage isolation valve. The pressure indicators are located on the
engineer's ENGINE BLEED CONTROL panel.

BLEED AIR OVERHEAT WARNINGS

All bleed ducts in the wings and fuselage are protected by heat sensors running along beside the ducts. The
sensors are broken down into nine separate systems. Each system covers a particular area and has an AREA
OVERHEAT light for the related area.

The bleed air area overheat warning system detects hot air leakage from the bleed air ducts. If a duct
develops a leak, caution lights in the cockpit are turned on to indicate the faulty area. The system consists
of two detection sub·systems with a common controller assembly. One sub·system detects air leaks in
the fuselage and wing anti·ice ducts. The other sub·system detects leaks in the engine areas.
(
17-6 June 1973

PNEUMATICS

HEAT FORWARD
EXCHANGER CARGO

I-- GALLEY
PACK FLOW
CONTROL ENG
3
ENG ENG
ISOLATION ISOLATION
(
CROSS BLEED

WING
ANTI-ICE

.ATMB~
l
- HEA;"
EXCHANG ER t-----:
MID
CARGO

AFT
CARGO

ENGINE
ISOLATION
 June 1973 17-7

PNEUMATICS

(
The two sub-systems consist of dual temperature sensing resistive elements and an area overheat detection
controller. The sensing elements are beside each duct, on adjacent structure. The fuselage and wings
sUb-system also includes thermal switches in each of the three cargo compartment heat exchangers.

The engine area system of overheat detection is similar to that used in the fuselage and wing anti-ice
system. If a duct fails, the detection system will close the engine high pressure valve. In addition, a
separate control panel NACELLE/PYLON OVHT DET TEST is installed at the top of the engineer's upper
panel.

1. What is the primary source of bleed air for air conditioning and pressurization?

2. How will the pneumatic duct pressure react during an engine start when using the APU?

a. Decrease

b. Increase

c. Remain steady
( 3. When will the engine isolation valve allow reverse air flow?

a. During engine start with valve switch depressed.

b. During engine start with valve switch released.

c. Anytime valve switch is depressed.

4. How will the engine high pressure bleed valve react if its related engine isolation valve closes?

a. Remain in preset position.

b. Go full open.

c. It will modulate to regulate pressure.

5. Which bleed valves lock closed if a duct overheats?

a. High pressure and both crossbleed valve.

b. Low pressure and engine isolation valves.

c. High pressure and engine isolation valves.

(
17-8 June 1973

PNEUMATICS

{
\
ANSWER SHEET

1- b

2_ b

3_ a

4. a

5. c

(
 June 1973 18-1

POWERPLANT

_----~ E P R """'--
.._ _ __
INLET
r COMBUSTION
......... EXHAUST
I
SECTION I
COMPRESSOR SECTION TURBINE SECTION
I
L.P. I.P. H.P. HP I P. l P

II I
18-2 June 1973

POWERPLANT

ENGINE DESCRIPTION

Three Rolls Royce RB.211 high bypass ratio (5 to 1) fan jet engines, flat rated at 42,000 pounds thrust
each are used on the 1011. A high level of propulsive efficiency is provided by this high bypass ratio.

Engines 1 and 3 are pod mounted on pylons below the wing. Engine 2 is installed in the aft fuselage
with an S-duct from the inlet located above the fuselage and ahead of the tail.

The triple spool engine is approximately eight feet in diameter to accommodate the large fan and cold
air bypass duct that surrounds the core engine. The gas turbine engine consists of three axial compressors,
a full annular combustion chamber and three turbines.

The low pressure (N 1 ), intermediate pressure (N 2 ) and high pressure (N 3 ) compressors are each installed
on a common shaft with its respective driving turbine to form a spool. The three spools are installed
on a common rotating axis such that rotation of any spool is mechanically independent of the other two.
The single-stage N 1 compressor (fan) is driven by a three-stage turbine. The seven-stage N2 and six-stage
N3 compressors are each driven by a single-stage turbine. One operational advantage of a three-spool
powerplant is its excellent throttle response.

Fan discharge airflow is divided at approximately 5-to-1 ratio between two separate streams.

The large flow from the outer fan zone is discharged through the cold stream bypass duct to produce
approximately 75% of the total thrust. The second flow from the central fan zone is discharged to the
core engine for hot stream generation.

The N2 and N3 compress core engine airflow for a total pressure rise of approximately 27-to-1. (
N2 and N3 compressor bleeds provide airflow for the engine and aircraft pneumatic systems; airflow for
engine internal cooling is bled from all compressors.

To ensure an adequate surge margin through the whole RPM range of the intermediate compressor, an
automatic airflow control system employing variable inlet guide vanes is fitted.

The variable inlet guide vanes are located immediately to the rear of the fixed inlet guide vanes at the
air inlet to the intermediate pressure compressor.

At low pressure ratios they are fully closed and progressively open with increasing values, being fully
open at cruise conditions and above.

The inlet guide vale unit senses P4/P2 and also guide vane position, P4 being used as the power supply
to the pneumatic actuators. At low power conditions, opening the throttle increases the pressure ratio
sensed by the control unit. At a predetermined value the pneumatic actuators commence to open the
guide vanes, and this movement modifies the feedback signal. When the engine stabilizes, this results
in a stable P4/P2 input to the control unit. The guide vanes cease to move when the condition signal
balances the new P4/P2' The deceleration case wou Id be the reverse of the above action.

The engine is constant-thrust rated as a function of altitude, airspeed and temperature. For takeoff
and go-around operations, the engine will control to a constant thrust at standard temperatures. This
is also true with a fixed throttle position at any given altitude in the climb and cruise modes when
a given speed schedule is maintained.
(
 June 1973 18-3

POWERPLANT
(
VENTILATION AIR

In flight, gas generator fairings are ventilated by low pressure (fan) air.

Ram air is used to ventilate the accessory section and is closed off by means of a shutoff valve when
a fire handle is pulled_

BLEED AIR

Low pressure bleed air from the N2 and high pressure bleed air from N3 is supplied through check valves
to the pneumatic duct_

N2 air is used for engine nose cowl and P 1 probe anti-icing_ Operation of the thrust reverser air motor
is by N3 air_

N2/N3 air is used for aircraft anti-icing, environmental control system, and crossbleed engine starting_ Low
pressure N2 bleed air is supplemented by high pressure N3 bleed air through a pressure sensitive valve in
the N3 air duct. This valve will open automatically when the N2 air pressure falls below a predetermined
pressure_ If required the valve can be closed by the high pressure switch_

1. How is a high level of propulsive efficiency provided on the L-1011 powerplant?

a_ Small amount of mass is accelerated_

( b_ High bypass ratio results in low velocity fan exhaust.

c. Acceleration of exhaust gases to very high velocities.

2. What is one operational advantage of a three-spool powerplant?

a. Excellent throttle response.

b. Much higher turbine inlet temperatures result.

c. Allows accessory drive from N l'

3. What conditions will allow a constant thrust with a fixed throttle position?

a. Only when using maximum rated thrust.

b. Given speed schedule maintained and ambient temperature does not exceed ISA by a certain
amount.

c. Only when using TAT/EPR computed thrust.

4. What is the primary thrust setting instrument?

a. EPR.

b. N 1.
(
c. F/F.
18·4 June 1973

POWERPLANT

(
5. What is the secondary thrust setting instrument?

a. EPR.

b. N 1.

c. F/F.

TURBINE GAS TEMPERATURE

GENERAL

Seventeen thermocouples in the low pressure turbine 1st stage nozzle guide vanes sample the turbine gas
temperature and signal both cockpit center instrument panel and the fuel control amplifier.

The thermocouples are equally spaced around the turbine, each one sensing the gas temperature at two
levels in the nozzle guide vane.

The system still provides an indication after the failure of one or more thermocouples.

To control maximum TGT the fuel control amplifier uses the same signal of gas temperature and compares
this with a selected datum.

Should the gas temperature signal be the greater, when the engine reaches takeoff power, a signal is
fed to an actuator on the high pressure fuel pump bypass.
(
A second channel in the amplifier operates in the same manner as the gas temperature control to control
the maximum N1'

The engine fuel flow is directly controlled to prevent the takeoff maximum turbine gas temperature and
N1 from being exceeded, even with full throttle travel.

In the event of an amplifier failure causing a low power condition, an override (OVRD) switch on the
engineer's fuel control amplifier panel can be selected.

Turbine gas temperature and N1 speed will now be controlled manually with the throttle as on other
powerplants.

ENGINE STARTING

ROTATION

The N3 compressor is driven by an air starter mounted on the accessory gearbox. This will induce an
airflow through the N1 and N2 compressors causing them to rotate.

An indication of N3 rotation for start purposes is provided on the pilot's center panel.

FUEL SUPPLY

Fuel enrichment by use of the ENRICH position of fuel and ignition switch is used to increase rate of (
acceleration during starting.
 June 1973 18-5

POWER PLANT

(
To permit fuel delivery the high pressure fuel valve is opened by the fuel and ignition switch which also
completes the ignition circuit.

IGNITION

Two igniter plugs are connected to separate ignition units. Each unit has both a high and a low energy
channel.

Either plug, fed from the high energy channel, may be used for ground and in-flight starting. For continu-
ous ignition, the continuous ignition switch can be used to select the low energy channel.

STARTING ACCELERATION

To ensure N3 compressor stability through the start cycle, an air bleed is taken from the compressor, and
ENRICH position of fuel and ignition switch is used.

ALTERNATIVE AIR SUPPLIES

The air supply for the starter is taken from one of three sources.

The aircraft auxiliary power unit (APU).

The ground air source.

(
An engine which has been started - by cross bleeding.

Each engine has a separate starter air control valve.

1. How is the start valve energized to open?

a. Ground start switch pressed and held in until VALVE OPEN light illuminates.

b. Ground start release switch is pushed and PUSH light is extinguished.

c. Flight start switch pressed.

2. What is the first indication of engine rotation on the center instrument panel?

a. N 1.

b. EPR.

3. What occurs by placing FUEL AND IGNITION switch ON?

a. Ignition circuits completed to engine and high pressure fuel shutoff valve opens.
(
b. Fuel is sprayed into combustion chamber and ignition will occur 30 seconds later.
c. The fuel control programs peak fuel flow and igniters fire.
18-6 June 1973

POWERPLANT

(
4_ What is the low energy ignition system used for?

a_ Engine starting.

b. Continuous ignition.

c. Flight start.

5. What is the high energy ignition system used for?

a. Engine starting and flight start.

b. Continuous ignition.

c. Turbulence penetration.

FIRE ACCESS DOOR

FIRE EXTINGUISHER
BOTTLES ACCESS PANELS
_n <;1
--""?c - -
'" OIL FILLER ACCESS DOOR

LEFT-HAND SIDE

><\ ----r'-'\-'-;;;... G '-~

FIRE ACCESS DOOR --S'.:;;..;;.-..../

RIOHT-HAIIID 1101 STARTER VALVE

ACCESS DOOft
 June 1973 18-7

POWERPLANT

(
ENGINE FUEL

GENERAL

The engine fuel system automatically controls fuel flow to maintain a selected P4/P1 condition and provide
acceleration and deceleration control.

The control system senses throttle position __ . N3 , P1 , P3 and P4' See Engine Fuel Schematic for
following discussion.

FUEL FLOW

A brief description of the function of each unit is given below in order of flow sequence.

Low pressure fuel pump is an engine driven pump which ensures the fuel pressure at the HP pump inlet
is sufficient to prevent cavitation.

The oil cooler determines the engine oil temperature and fuel temperature.

The fuel filter prevents contamination of the high pressure fuel system, and incorporates a fuel low pressure
switch, fuel temperature transmitter and filter pressure drop switch.

Fuel flow transmitter provides, via the fuel flow meter, indications of engine fuel flow.

( High pressure fuel pump is an engine driven gear-type pump.

A spill valve in the outlet of the H.P. pump, controls fuel at the correct pressure and quantity to satisfy
the demands of the fuel flow regulator. Excess pump output is returned to the high pressure pump inlet.

Fuel flow regulator basically meters the fuel to the spray nozzles to establish and maintain engine
conditions as selected by the throttle.

The shutoff valve is an electrically actuated two-position valve which controls the fuel supply to the
spray nozzles during starting and stopping. When the valve is closed, the contents of the fuel feed
manifold drain into the engine drain system.

Fuel spray nozzles atomize the fuel into a fine spray in the combustion liner.

FUEL SYSTEM CONTROL AND OPERATION

The high pressure fuel pump delivers a fixed fuel flow at a given engine speed; and control is obtained
by returning the excess fuel through the pressure drop spill valve back to the high pressure fuel pump
inlet.

The fuel control meters the fuel to the spray nozzles controls, the high pressure fuel output to main-
tain engine conditions as selected by the throttle lever and effects control of fuel flow during acceleration
and deceleration.

To prevent engine limitations being exceeded, the fuel flow is limited by the following controls:

( At low altitude and high forward speeds, the pressure ratio control unit may be overriden by a
stop in the fuel flow regulator to restrict the maximum engine pressures.
18-8 June 1973

POWERPLANT
(
To limit N1 and TGT a variable restrictor in the high pressure fuel pump assembly is electrically
actuated by the fuel control amplifier to reduce the fuel flow to the engine.

A reduced idle fuel flow, and hence thrust, for taxiing or holding on the ground is obtained automatically
through ground sensing.

Flight idle range is available automatically when airborne.

FUEL CONTROL AMPLIFIER

An overtemp/overspeed control system is provided for each engine for automatic limiting of TGT/RPM
during high thrust conditions. Each system consists of a dual-channel amplifier, an electrical actuator,
TGT pickups, fan (N 1 ) RPM pickups, engineer panel control switches (OVRD) and test.

With the amplifier control switch in the normal position, the fuel control amplifier reacts to overspeeds
and/or overtemps by reducing fuel to the engine sufficiently to hold TGT or N1 RPM within limits.

The maximum fuel reduction possible is limited by stops integral to the system electrical actuator.

An over temperature or over speed N1 signal can reduce engine fuel flow.

The fuel control amplifier override switch is provided to return the amplifier actuator to the no reduction
position in the event of a system failure. Placing the switch to (OVRD) returns the actuator to the no
reduction position and maintains the system in a no limiting condition.
(
There is no change to engine operation with the control amplifier switch in the (OVRD) position except
overspeeds or overtemps must be controlled manually with the throttles.

The maintenance test switch redatums the N1 channel of the amplifier.

1. What should reduce fuel to the engine sufficiently to hold TGTor N1 RPM within limits?

a. Activation of OVRD switch on engineer's panel.

b. Fuel control amplifier operating correctly.

c. Press MAX IND RESET switch.

2. What is accomplished by pressing FUE L CONTROL AMPLI F IER switch in to illuminate OVRD
light?

a. TGT and N1 fuel limiting system made inoperative.

b. Amount of fuel burned in all engines is amplified.

c. Fuel flow from fuel control is reduced.

3. What is the cockpit indication of metered fuel rate in pounds per hour X 1,000 delivered to the
engine?
a. Fuel quantity indicator on engineer's panel.
b. ENGINE FUEL indicators on engineer's panel.
c. Fuel Flow indicator on center instrument panel.
 June 1973 18·9

POWER PLANT
(
4. What is accomplished by turning clockwise the FUEL USED test knob on the ENGINE FUEL panel?

a. Fuel used indicators reset to zero.

b. Only the Fuel used indicators are checked.

c. Fuel flow rate and fuel used system circuits are checked.

5. What is accomplished by pressing the FUEL USED RESET switch?

a. All fuel in tanks is consumed.

b. Fuel used indicators reset to zero.

c. Total fuel quantity indicator resets to zero.

ENGINE OIL

GENERAL

The engine oil system is a self·contained recirculatory system-the supply being contained in a tank on the
external gear box. Provision is made for gravity filling of the tank.

A pressure pump supplies the oil through a filter to lubricate gears and bearings, then scavenge pumps
return it to the tank through oil coolers and a scavenge filter.

Air tapped from the compressors is used to pressurize oil seals to prevent lea~age.

Oil temperature gauge indicates oil temperature after passing through the filter to the bearings.

1. What is displayed by the engine oil quantity indicator?

a. Total amount of oil contained in engine.

b. Actual level shown at dip stick.

c. Useable oil remaining in the engine oil tanks.

2. What temperature is shown by the oil temperature indicator?

a. Oil temperature out of engine to fuel/oil cooler.

b. Temperature of oil in tanks.

c. Oil temperature after passing through filter to the bearings.

3. What should occur when the oil PRESSURE INDICATOR test switch is pressed?

a. All oil pressure indicator pointers are driven to 9 o'clock position.

b. False signal of maximum oil pressure is recorded.

c. Pointer does a 3600 turn.

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4. What does the oil FILTER PRESSURE light indicate when illuminated?

a. No pressure differential.

b. Pressure inside filter has dropped to critical low level.

c. Pressure differential exists across oil filter because filter is becoming clogged.

5. What additional procedure would be used if oil pressure drops below a specified critical level.

a. Operate at reduced thrust setting.

b. Shut down the engine.

c. Logbook entry only requirement.

THRUST REVERSER

A thrust reverser system is incorporated in the exhaust systems of each engine to assist deceleration on
the ground.

The N1 (fan) air flow reverser system is an integral part of the fan air duct.

In the forward thrust configuration, deflector vanes in the thrust reverser are blanked by a sliding outer
cowl and folding blocker doors. (
When reverse thrust is selected, the cowl is moved rearward and the blocker doors fold back to expose
the deflector vanes and blank the air duct downstream of the deflector vanes, thus diverting the air flow
through the vanes resulting in a reverse thrust component.

The turbine exhaust gas spoiler consists of two clamshell doors.

In the reverse thrust configuration these doors are extended into the exhaust flow to deflect the flow
and, thus, nullify the thrust.

A common actuator system ensures that the fan and turbine units operate simultaneously.

Provision is made for ground checking the operation of the system using external air and electrical supplies.

The position of the reverser can also be checked during preflight inspection by reference to external
indicators.

OPERATION

A ground safety sensor switch must be closed (aircraft on ground) before reverse thrust can be selected.

Reverse thrust is selected by moving the throttle to the closed position and then moving the reverse thrust
lever up and back.

This will select reverse idle.

i
c
Further rearward movement of the reverse thrust lever will result in an increase in thrust in the reverse
range.
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POWERPLANT

A mechanical interlock prevents movement of the reverse thrust lever from the reverse idle position until
the reverser and spoiler doors have reached the mid·travel position. From the mid·travel position the
interlock is progressively removed, thus allowing reverse thrust to be increased.
(
, When forward thrust is selected, the interlock operates in a similar manner but in the opposite direction
and prevents the throttle lever being moved from the forward idle position until the reverser and spoiler
doors have reached the mid·travel position.

1. How is reverse thrust accompl ished?

a. Translating cowl moves aft, exhaust spoiler deploys.

b. Direction of hot exhaust gases is reversed.

c. Fuel control rotates engine in opposite direction.

2. When may reverse thrust be selected?

a. At any airspeed, any altitude.

b. Aircraft on ground sensed by safety switch.

c. Only with any two throttles advanced.

3. What is the proper reverser indicator lights for forward thrust condition?

a. REVERSE TRANSIT extinguished.

b. REVERSE illuminated and TRANSIT extinguished.

< c. REVERSE extinguished and TRANSIT illuminated.
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4. What is the proper reverser indicator lights for thrust reverser in transit?
a. Both lights illuminated at same time.
b. REVERSE illuminated and TRANSIT extinguished.
c. REVERSE extinguished and TRANSIT illuminated.
5. What is the proper reverser indicator lights for reverse thrust condition?
a. REVERSE illuminated and TRANSIT extinguished.
b. REVERSE extinguished and TRANSIT illuminated.
c. Both lights illuminated at the same time.
ENGINE VIBRATION INDICATION
The purpose of the vibration monitoring equipment is to continuously monitor the state of balance of
the engine main rotating assemblies. The equipment consists of two accelerometer pickups on each engine
and a panel at the engineer's station containing a vibration indicator and warning light for each engine,
two accelerometer pick·up selection switches, a broad band vibration filter selector and a test switch.
The vibration indicators can display the output from individual accelerometer pick·ups or the combined
output of both.
When the engine is running, acceleration signals associated with vibration pass from each accelerometer to
a rectifier and a group of three filters. The rectifier smooths the signals from each accelerometer into one
average signal. This signal is then passed to a level detector which operates the engine vibration caution
light of the appropriate engine should the vibration level exceed a predetermined value.

The filters are selected by the filter selection switch and allow selection of three pre-determined low,
medium and high vibration frequency bands corresponding to the vibration frequencies of N l' and N3'
Filtering is effective from just below cruise up to takeoff RPM and enables an out-of-balance rotating
assembly to be located by selecting and analyzing each vibration frequency band in turn.

1. How may the engine vibration system and indicators be tested?

a. Move rotary broad band vibration filter selector.

b. Press momentary TEST switch.

c. Press vibration pickup selector for FAN or TURB.

2. What is being tested when the AVM test switch is pressed?

a. Complete system except pickups.

b. Only the accelerometers.

c. Only the AVM indicator.

3. What is accomplished by pressing the TURB vibration pickup selector switch?

a. Only the fan pickup signal will be displayed.

b. Selects turbine pickup signal from all engine systems simultaneously.

c. TURBINE vibration readings are inhibited.

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POWERPLANT

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4_ What is accomplished by pressing the FAN vibration pickup selector switch?

a_ Selects fan pickup signal from all engine systems simultaneously_

b. FAN vibration readings are inhibited.

c. Only the turbine pick-up signal will be displayed.

5. What is the significance of a zero reading on the engine vibration indicator with the engine operating?

a. Engine is running very smoothly.

b. Balancing forces of N1, N2 and N3 have equalized.

c. The AVM system for that scale is malfunctioning.

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POWERPLANT

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ANSWER SHEET

Basic Engine Thrust Reverser

1. b 1. a

2. a 2. b

3. b 3. a

4. a 4. c

5. b 5. c

Engine Starting AVM

1. a 1. b

2. c 2. a
3. a 3. b

4. b 4. a

5. a 5. c

Engine Fuel

1. b

2. a

3. c

4. c

5. b

Engine Oil

1. c

2. c

3. a

4. c

5. b