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 PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
Contents

1 Thermodynamics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.1 concept . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 Temperature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
1.3 Work and Heat Transfer . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33
1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 82
1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 91
1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 115
1.7 Entropy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 133
1.8 Availability and Irreversibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 138
1.9 Properties of Pure Substance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 146
1.10 Digital Thermodynamic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 187
1.11 Properties of Gases . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 188
1.12 Thermodynamic Relations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 198

2 REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING . . . . . . . . . 254

2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 254
2.2 Refrigeration Cycles and systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 264
2.3 Refrigerants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 270
2.4 Refrigerant Compressors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 282
2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 286
2.6 Properties of Moist Air . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 298
2.7 Psychrometric Chart & its Application to Air-Conditioning . . . . . . 300
2.8 Solar Refrigeration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 307
2.9 Air-duct Design . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 309
3 HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 311
3.1 Basic Concepts of Heat Transfer . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 311
3.2 One-Dimensional Steady-state Conduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 316
3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 320
3.4 Transient Heat Conduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 329
3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 334
3.6 Heat Transfer by Forced Convection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 345

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 347
3.8 Condensation and Boiling . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 370
3.9 Heat Exchanger . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 382
3.10 Fundamentals of Diffusive & Convective Mass Transfer . . . . . . . . . 391

4 IC ENGINE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 393
4.1 Basics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 393
4.2 Air Standard Cycles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 426
4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 434
4.4 Fuel Injection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 446
4.5 fuel ignition . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 463
4.6 fuel carburation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 466
4.7 Combustion Chambers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 472
4.8 Supercharging . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 480
4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 484
4.10 Engine Emissions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 496
4.11 Engine performance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 502

5 FLUID MECHANICS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 528

5.1 Basics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 528
5.2 Properties of Fluids . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 616
5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 638
5.4 Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 675
5.5 Buoyancy and Floatation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 682
5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 684
5.7 Dynamic of Fluid Flow . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 692
5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 699
5.9 Viscous Flow . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 710
5.10 Turbulent Flow . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 713
5.11 Flow Through Pipes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 713
5.12 Flow in Open Channel . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 715
5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 717
5.14 Flow of incompressible and compressible Fluids . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 726

6 POWER PLANT ENGINEERING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 728

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6.1 Basics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 728
6.2 Fuels and Combustion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 747
6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 761
6.4 Steam Generators . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 798
6.5 Steam Turbines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 815
6.6 Nuclear Power Plants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 829
6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 843
6.8 Hydraulic Pump . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 853
6.9 Energy Transfer . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 862
6.10 Compressors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 904
6.11 Gas Turbine Power Plants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 912
6.12 Jet and Rocket Propulsion System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 916

7 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 923

7.1 Basic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 923
7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 946
7.3 Stress-Strain Relations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 961
7.4 Elastic Constants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 973
7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 992
7.6 Torsion of Shafts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1002
7.7 Shear Force and Bending Moment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1010
7.8 Stresses in Beams . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1010
7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1020
7.10 Thin & Thick Walled Pressure Vessels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1031
7.11 Struts and Columns . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1037
7.12 Helical Springs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1041

8 THEORY OF MACHINES . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1047

8.1 Basics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1047
8.2 mechanics of machine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1049
8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1053
8.4 Mechanism with Lower Pairs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1116
8.5 CAD/CAM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1116
8.6 Toothed Gearing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1147
8.7 Gear Trains . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1182
8.8 Static and Dynamic Force Analysis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1182
8.9 Flywheels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1187
8.10 Governors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1191
8.11 Linear Vibration Analysis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1195

9 MACHINE DESIGN . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1197

9.1 Basics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1197
9.2 Design Against Static Load . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1209

NARAYAN CHANGDER
9.3 Shafts, Keys and Couplings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1215
9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1216
9.5 Friction Clutches . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1260
9.6 Belt, Rope and Chain Drives . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1266
9.7 Bearings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1270
9.8 Gears . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1279

10 MATERIAL SCIENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1288

10.1 Basics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1288
10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1356
10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1380
10.4 Heat Treatment of Steels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1406
10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1412
10.6 Mechanical Properties . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1421
10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1427

11 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1441

11.1 Casting Processes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1441
11.2 Forming Processes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1451
11.3 powder Metallurgy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1458
11.4 Metal Cutting and Tool Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1461
11.5 Machining Processes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1468
11.6 Joining Processes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1483
11.7 unconventional Machining Process . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1492
11.8 Numerical Control of Machine Tools . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1493
11.9 Jigs and Fixtures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1498
11.10 Fits and Tolerance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1512
11.11 Metrology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1518

12 INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1570

12.1 Basic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1570
12.2 plant Layout . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1580
 1

12.3 Loading and Scheduling . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1586

12.4 Assembly Line Balancing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1593

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12.5 Product Development . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1598
12.6 Break Even Analysis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1659
12.7 Material Requirement Planning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1677
12.8 Quality Analysis and Control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1678
12.9 Inventory Control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1751
12.10 Inventory management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1764
12.11 PERT and CPM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1791
12.12 Linear Programming . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1803
12.13 Transportation and Assignment Models . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1820
12.14 Queuing Theory . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1821
12.15 Value Engineering . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1824
 1. Thermodynamics

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 concept
1. A closed system, with no change in KE and C. They aren’t related
PE, is called D. none of above
A. Control Volume
5. The temperature of an unknown piece of
B. Stationary System
metal with a mass of 30.00 g changes
C. Flow System from 25.0 ◦ C to 35.0 ◦ C when the metal
D. Isolated system absorbs 350.0 J of energy. What is the
specific heat of the metal?
2. The first thermodynamic textbook was
A. 1.17 J/g◦ C
written in 1859 by
A. William Rankine B. -1.17 J/g◦ C

B. Rudolph Clausius C. 0.857 J/g◦ C

C. Lord Kelvin D. -0.857 J/g◦ C
D. Thomas Newcomen 6. Consider the following:1.Temperature 2.
Viscosity 3. Internal energy 4. Entropy
3. When the speed of an object is doubled, its
Which of these are extensive properties?
momentum
A. remains unchanged in accord with the A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
conservation of momentum. B. 2 and 4 only
B. doubles. C. 2 and 3 only
C. .quadruples. D. 3 and 4 only
D. decreases
7. Which one of the following represents
4. How are pressure and volume related? open thermodynamic system?
A. Directly A. Manual ice cream freezer
B. Indirectly B. Centrifugal pump

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. B
1.1 concept 3

C. Pressure cooker 13. If the temperature of a gas increase, the

D. Bomb calorimeter pressure

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A. Decreases
8. Slow compression is an example for
A. Non quasi static process B. Increases
B. Quasi static process C. Does not change
C. ideal process D. none of above
D. none of the above
14. Ice kept in a well insulated thermo flask is
9. temperature of boiling water an example of which system?
A. 100 degrees Celsius A. Closed system
B. Anything over 100 degrees Celsius B. Isolated systems
C. 101 degrees Celsius
C. Open system
D. 99 degrees Celsius
D. Non-flow adiabatic system
10. There is no work transfer involved in this
process 15. What is the acceleration of a 10 kg mass
A. Adiabatic expansion pushed by a 5 N force?
B. Isothermal expansion A. 50 m/s2
C. Polytropic expansion B. 0.50 m/s2
D. free expansion C. 2 m/s2
11. What is the measure of the average ki- D. None of these
netic energy of the particles moving in a
substance? 16. Of the following reactions, which involves
A. Heat the largest decrease in entropy?

B. Internal Energy A. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

C. Potential Energy B. 2 CO(g) + O2(g) → 2 CO2(g)
D. Temperature C. Pb(NO3)2(s) + 2 KI(s) → PbI2(s) + 2
KNO3(s)
12. A 100 m tall building receives superheated
steam at 200 kPa at ground and leaves D. C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4
saturated vapour from the top at 125 kPa H2O(g)
by losing 110 kJ/kg of heat. What should
E. 4 La(s) + 3 O2(g) → 2 La2O3(s)
be the minimum inlet temperature at the
ground of the building so that no steam 17. The standard fixed point of the thermom-
will condense inside the pipe at steady etry is the
state?
A. ice point
A. 363.54◦ C
B. 263.54◦ C B. triple point of water
C. 163.54◦ C C. boiling point water
D. none of the mentioned D. sulphur point

8. B 9. A 10. D 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. E 17. B 18. C

1.1 concept 4

18. What occurs on the flat lines of the heating 23. Select the correct metric unit for Heat
curve? A. calorie
A. temperature increase B. joule
B. temperature decrease C. kelvin
C. phase change D. celsius
D. dead water 24. In the case of a rock falling off a cliff
19. A heavy rock and a light rock in free fall the following energy transformation takes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
have the same acceleration. The reason place
the heavy rock does not have more accel- A. Pressure Energy to Kitentic Energy
eration is because B. Kinetic Energy to Potential Energy
A. the force of gravity on each is the same C. Potential Energy to Kinetic Energy
B. there is no air resistance D. Kinetic Energy to Pressure Energy
C. the inertia of both rocks is the same
25. Work done in a free expansion process is:
D. all of these A. Positive
E. none of these B. Negative
20. A sample of iron receives 50.J of heat en- C. Zero
ergy that raises the temperature of the D. Maximum
iron 25.0◦ C. If iron has a specific heat of
0.10 J/g◦ C, what is the mass of the iron 26. In an extensive property of a thermody-
sample? namic system
A. 25 g A. extensive heat is transferred
B. 30 g B. extensive work is done
C. 20 g C. extensive energy is utilised

D. 50 g D. all of the above

E. none of the above
21. Hot coffee is stirred with a spoon, the
spoon gets hot due to 27. The higher the average kinetic energy the
A. conduction.
A. the higher the volume
B. convection.
B. the higher the mass
C. radiation.
C. the higher the temperature
D. none of above
D. the higher the density
22. A system comprising a single phase is
28. Which one of the following is correct? The
called a
cyclic integral of (Delta W-Delta Q) for a
A. closed system process is:
B. open system A. Positive
C. isolated system B. Negative
D. homogeneous system C. Zero
E. heterogeneous system. D. Unpredictable

19. E 20. C 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. E 27. C 28. C
1.1 concept 5

29. If an object has particles that are moving of the water is 99.0◦ C. The specific heat
very slowly, the object’s temperature is of water is 4.18 J/g*◦ C.
probably A. 8778 J/g◦ C

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. hot B. 0.0005 J/g◦ C
B. small C. 34673 J/g◦ C
C. cold D. 43451.1 J/g◦ C
D. big 35. What unit do you use to measure Thermal
Energy?
30. Melting ice actually
A. J/Kg ◦ C
A. tends to warm the surroundings
B. Kg
B. tends to cool the surroundings
C. ◦ C
C. has no effect on the temperature of
the surroundings D. J

D. What’s this got to do with grilled 36. Quantity that would be zero for a pure,
cheese? perfect crystal at 0 K
A. Activation energy
31. Which of the following is the extensive
property of a thermodynamic system? B. Enthalpy of formation
A. Pressure C. Entropy
D. Gibbs free energy
B. Volume
C. Temperature 37. What happens to the temperature of a sub-
stance during a phase change?
D. Density.
A. The temperature decreases.
32. Heat is the movement of B. The temperature increases.
A. radiation C. The temperature stays the same.
B. thermal energy D. The temperature may increase or de-
C. cold crease.
D. fire 38. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is
equal to
33. A system is in thermodynamic equilibrium
A. Cp/Cv
A. if temperature and pressure at all
B. Cv/Cp
points are same
C. Cp-Cv
B. if temperature and pressure at all
points are not same D. Cp+Cv
C. if temperature at all points are same 39. The acceleration of a bowling ball rolling
along a smooth horizontal bowling alley is
D. if pressure at all points are same
A. zero
34. Calculate the heat absorbed by 105.0
B. about 10 m/s2
grams of water when it is heated to cook
spaghetti. The initial temperature of the C. constant
water is 20.0◦ C, and the final temperature D. neither of these

29. C 30. B 31. B 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. A
1.1 concept 6

40. When two bodies are in thermal equilib- C. -80 kJ

rium with a third body, they are also in D. + 40 kJ
thermal equilibrium with each other. This
statement is called 45. Sonia notices that the temperature in the
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics science lab is much colder than the temper-
ature in her history classroom. Which of
B. First law of thermodynamics
the following is true?
C. Second law of thermodynamics
A. The air molecules in the science lab

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Kelvin Planck’s law are moving faster than those in the history
classroom.
41. According to kinetic theory of heat
B. The air molecules in the science lab
A. Temperature should rise during boiling are moving slower than those in the his-
B. temperature should fall during freez- tory classroom
ing C. The air molecules in the science lab
C. at low temperature all bodies are in are moving at the same speed as those
solid state in the history classroom.
D. at absolute zero there is absolutely no D. The air molecules in the science lab
vibration of molecules are not moving while those in the history
E. none of the above. classroom are moving

42. How much force is required to accelerate a 46. The pressure gauge on an air tank shows
2 kg mass at 3 m/s2? 60 kPa when the diver is 8 m down in the
ocean. At what depth will the gauge pres-
A. 1.5 N sure be zero?
B. 0.67 N A. 34.118 m
C. 6N
B. 24.118 m
D. 5N
C. 14.118 m
43. The absolute zero pressure will be D. none of the mentioned
A. When molecular momentum of the sys-
47. I combine 1 kg of water at 50 degrees Cel-
tem becomes zero
sius with 1 kg of water at 70 degrees Cel-
B. at sea level sius. What is the resulting temperature of
C. at a temperature of-273.15 K the water?
D. under vacuum conditions A. 50 degrees C
B. 70 degrees C
44. A closed system undergoes a process 1-2
for which the values of Q1-2 and W1-2 C. 60 degrees C
are +20 kJ and +50 kJ, respectively. If D. 65 degrees C
the system is returned to state, 1, and Q2-
E. 55 degrees C
1 is-10 kJ, what is the value of the work
W2-1? 48. Which of the following is NOT a tempera-
A. + 20 kJ ture scale?
B. -40 kJ A. Fahrenheit

41. D 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. B 46. B 47. C 48. B

1.1 concept 7

B. Joule 53. The condition for the reversibility of a cy-

cle is
C. Kelvin

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. the pressure and temperature of the
D. Celsius
working substance must not differ, appre-
ciably, from those of thesurroundings at
49. An energy interaction is , if its driving
any stage in the proces
force is a temperature difference
B. all the processes, taking place in the
A. heat transfer cycle of operation, must be extremely
B. work transfer slow
C. restricted C. the working parts of the engine must
be friction free
D. none of the above
D. there should be no loss of energy dur-
50. Hot coffee stored in a well insulated ther- ing the cycle of operation
mos flask is an example of E. all of the above
A. Isolated system 54. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics states that
B. Closed system A. Two thermodynamic systems are al-
C. Open system ways in thermal equilibrium with each
other.
D. Non-flow diabatic system
B. If two systems are in thermal equilib-
51. Water has a specific heat of 4184 J/Kg◦ C. rium, then the third system will also be in
Wood has a specific heat of 1760 J/Kg◦ C. thermal equilibrium with each other.
What material needs more energy to raise C. Two systems not in thermal equilib-
the temperature 1◦ C rium with a third system are also not in
A. Wood thermal equilibrium with each other.
D. When two systems are in thermal equi-
B. Water
librium with a third system, they are in
C. Both are the same thermal equilibrium with each other.
D. none of above 55. A large exhaust fan in a lab room keeps
the pressure inside at 10 cm water rela-
52. Sunlight heats a dark rock. A snake then
tive vacuum to the hallway? What is the
moves onto the rock in order to increase its
net force acting on the door measuring 1.9
body temperature. Which of the following
m by 1.1 m?
sequences represents how heat energy is
transferred from the Sun to the rock to the A. 2020 N
snake? B. 2030 N
A. a. radiation then conduction C. 2040 N
B. b. conduction then radiation D. 2050 N
C. c. radiation then convection 56. Mechanical equilibrium is relatd to
D. d. convection then radiation A. temperature
E. None of these. B. density

49. A 50. A 51. B 52. A 53. E 54. D 55. D 56. C 57. B

1.1 concept 8

C. pressure 61. The flow of thermal energy from warmer

D. none of the above objects to cooler objects is called
A. heat
57. The amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of one gram of a substance B. movement
by one degree Celsius is C. friction
A. Heat energy D. energy
B. Specific heat

NARAYAN CHANGDER
62. Heat is the
C. convection
A. average amount of energy per
D. thermal energy molecule contained in an object
58. Which of the following were used as fixed B. total amount of energy contained in an
points before 1954? object
A. The ice point C. energy transferred between objects
B. The steam point because of a temperature difference

C. All of the mentioned D. the ability to bring it

D. None of the mentioned E. amount of energy all the molecules

have
59. A thermodynamic system is considered to
be an isolated one if 63. What term refers to the total energy of
the particles inside a substance?
A. Mass transfer and entropy change are
zero A. Internal Energy
B. Entropy change and energy transfer B. Heat
are zero C. Mass
C. Energy transfer and mass transfer are
D. Temperature
zero
D. Mass transfer and volume change are 64. Study on the relationship of including
zero energy and deformation properties of the
substance
60. In free expansion of a gas between two
equilibrium states, the work transfer in- A. heat, work and energy
volved B. power, work and energy
A. Can be calculated by joining the two C. heat, system and energy
states on p-v coordinates by any path and
D. heat, work and boundary
estimating the area below
B. Can be calculated by joining the two 65. Heat and work are
states by a quasi-static path and then find-
A. intensive properties
ing the area below
B. extensive properties
C. Is zero
C. point functions
D. Is equal to heat generated by friction
during expansion. D. path functions

58. C 59. B 60. C 61. A 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. D 66. B

1.1 concept 9

66. Which of the following is an intensive A. Decrease

property of a thermodynamics systems?
B. Increase

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Volume
C. Stay the same
B. Temperature
D. none of above
C. Mass
D. Energy 72. Properties which are dependant on the
mass / size of the system are
67. temperature of ice
A. Intensive properties
A. 0 degees Celsius
B. Extensive properties
B. Anything less than 0 degrees Celsius
C. Specific extensive properties
C. 0-99 degees Celsius
D. None of the above
D. Ice can’t have a temperature
73. Thermal energy ALWAYS moves from
68. Near the ceiling of a room the air is
to
warmer. The warm air rises because of
A. solid to liquid
A. conduction.
B. convection. B. ice to water

C. radiation. C. hot to cold

D. none of above D. solid to gas

69. Which of the following is the basis of tem- 74. A closed thermodynamic system is one in
perature measurement? which
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics A. There is no energy or mass transfer
B. First law of thermodynamics across the boundary

C. Second law of thermodynamics B. There is no mass transfer, but energy

transfer exists
D. Third law of thermodynamics
C. There is no energy transfer, but mass
70. A 5 m long vertical tube having cross sec- transfer exists
tional area 200 cm2 is placed in a water.
D. Both energy and mass transfer take
It is filled with 15◦ C water, with the bot-
place across the boundary, but the mass
tom closed and the top open to 100 kPa
transfer is controlled by valves
atmosphere. How much water is present
in tube? 75. A control volume is
A. 99.9 kg
A. An isolated system
B. 109.9 kg
B. A closed system but heat and work can
C. 89.9 kg cross the boundary
D. 79.9 kg C. A specific amount of mass in space
71. If water in a sealed, insulated container is D. A fixed region in space where mass,
stirred, what will happen to the tempera- heat and work can cross the boundary of
ture? that region

67. B 68. B 69. A 70. A 71. B 72. B 73. C 74. B 75. D 76. C
1.1 concept 10

76. Select the correct metric unit for tempera- A. volume, pressure, temperature
ture
B. volume, temperature, pressure,
A. calorie amount of gas particles
B. joule C. volume, pressure
C. kelvin D. volume, temperatue
D. none of above
82. The main cause of the irreversibility is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
77. If I heat up 2 pans of water one has 100
A. mechanical and fluid friction
mL in it and one has 1000mL. Which one
heats up the fastest? B. unrestricted expansion
A. 100 mL C. heat transfer with a finite temperature
B. 1000 mL difference

C. They both heat up at the same speed D. all of the above

D. They cool down. 83. The second law of thermodynamics states

that:
78. Which of the following is an example of
convection? A. heat moves from objects with high tem-
peratures to objects with low tempera-
A. When you are making soup and the wa-
ture
ter is rising and lowering.
B. When the AC or heater changes the B. heat moves from objects with low tem-
temperature. peratures to objects with high tempera-
ture
C. When a car engine turns hot after be-
ing turned on. C. heat does not move; hot things stay
hot and cold things stay cold
D. none of above
D. none of above
79. Zeroth law of thermodynamics is related
to 84. A definite area or space where some ther-
A. mechanical equilibrium modynamic process takes place is known
as
B. thermal equilibrium
A. thermodynamic system
C. chemical equlibrium
B. thermodynamic cycle
D. phase equilibrium
C. thermodynamic process
80. Energy of motion is which type of energy?
D. thermodynamic law.
A. Potential
B. Kinetic 85. Which of the following is the best example
of conduction?
C. Sound
A. A light bulb warming a lampshade
D. Gravitational
B. An egg cooking in a frying pan
81. The ideal gas law is an equation that re-
C. Water boiling in a pot
lates the what variables to a constant of
R. D. Gases circulating in the atmosphere

77. A 78. A 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. D 83. A 84. A 85. B 86. B
1.1 concept 11

86. How is temperature related to heat? B. describe the performance of refrigera-

A. Temperature is a measure of the heat tors, fluid flow,

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

of an object. C. A quantity of matter or a region in
B. Heat causes a change in the tempera- space chosen for study
ture of an object. D. none of above
C. Raising the temperature causes the
91. Which of the following will happen if the
heat of an object to increase.
temperature of a fluid is increased?
D. Temperature and heat are two differ-
A. The number of particle collisions will
ent ways to measure the same thing.
decrease.
87. Thermal energy added during a phase B. Pressure will decrease.
change
C. The speed of the particles will de-
A. increases the temperature of the sub- crease.
stance
D. The speed of the particles will in-
B. decreases the temperature of the sub- crease.
stance
C. doesn’t change the temperature of the 92. A 5m3 container is filled with 840 kg of
substance granite (density is 2400 kg/m3) and the
rest of the volume is air (density is 1.15
D. is lost to the environment kg/m3). Find the mass of air present in
88. The study of thermodynamics that does the container.
not require a knowledge of the behavior A. 9.3475 kg
of individual particles B. 8.3475 kg
A. General Thermodynamics C. 6.3475 kg
B. Microscopic Approach D. 5.3475 kg
C. Statistical Thermodynamics
93. If energy is transferred from a table to a
D. Classical Thermodynamics
block of ice moving across the table, which
89. An isolated system of the following statements is true?
A. is a specified region where transfer of A. The table and the ice are in thermal
energy and/or mass take place equilibrium.
B. is a region of constant mass and only B. The ice is cooler than the table.
energy is allowed to cross the boundaries C. The ice is no long er 0oC
C. cannot transfer either energy or mass D. Energy is being transferred from the
to or from the surroundings ice to the table.
D. is one in which mass within the system
is not necessarily constan 94. For a closed system, the difference be-
tween the heat added to the system and
E. none of the above. the work done by the system is equal to
90. A system is the change in

A. any three-dimensional region of physi- A. Enthalpy

cal space B. Entropy

87. C 88. D 89. C 90. C 91. D 92. D 93. B 94. D

1.1 concept 12

C. Temperature B. thermodynamic cycle

D. Internal energy C. thermodynamic process
D. thermodynamic law.
95. Most of real processes are
A. quasi-static 101. What will happen to the volume of a gas
under constant temperature if the pressure
B. non-quasi-statics
increases?
C. adiabatic
A. Increase

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. isothermal
B. Decrease
96. Heat flow occurs between two bodies in C. Nothing
thermal contact when they differ in which D. Explosion!
of the following properties?
A. Density 102. All changes in the state of matter of a
substance requires
B. Mass
A. vibration
C. Temperature
B. water
D. Volume
C. permission
97. The symbol for specific heat is D. energy
A. C
103. A steam engine operates on a warm 28.0
B. Q C day. The saturated steam operates at a
C. m temperature of 100.0 C. What is the ideal
efficiency for this engine?
D. T
A. 0.193
98. Sunlight is needed to grow plants. This is B. 0.28
an example of this type of heat transfer.
C. 0.72
A. conduction
D. None of these
B. convection
C. radiation 104. A cube of ice is added to some hot wa-
ter in a rigid, insulated container, which
D. meditation is then sealed. There is no heat exchange
with the surroundings. What has hap-
99. The speed of sound in air depends on
pened to the total energy and the total
A. Its frequency entropy when the system reaches equilib-
B. Its wavelength rium?
C. Air temperature A. Energy-Remains constant Entropy-
Remains constant
D. All of these
B. Energy-Remains constant Entropy-
E. None of these
Decreases
100. The heating and expanding of a gas is C. Energy-Remains constant Entropy-
called Increases
A. thermodynamic system D. Energy-Decreases Entropy-Increases

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1.1 concept 13

105. Absolute zero is B. The masses are equal

A. 0 K C. The velocity is zero

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. where there is no molecular move- D. The volumes are equal
ment
111. Do molecules generally move faster at 45
C. the coldest temperature possible C or 106 C?
D. all of these
A. 45 C because molecules have more en-
106. What is the standard fixed point of ther- ergy than in 106C
mometry? B. 106 C because molecules have more
A. The ice point energy than in 45C
B. The steam point C. 106 C because molecules have less en-
ergy than in 45C
C. The triple point of water
D. 45C because molecules have less en-
D. None of the mentioned
ergy than in 106 C
107. A huge rock at the state park gets so hot
112. A piston-cylinder device initially contains
during the day that you can’t sit on it. The
air at 150 kPa and 27◦ C. At this state, the
rock is so hot due to
volume is 400 litre. The mass of the piston
A. conduction. is such that a 350 kPa pressure is required
B. convection. to move it. The air is now heated until its
volume has doubled. Determine the final
C. radiation.
temperature.
D. none of above
A. 1400 K
108. The temperature at which the volume of B. 400 K
a gas becomes zero is called
C. 500 K
A. absolute scale of temperature
D. 1500 K
B. absolute zero temperature
113. Energy transfer by convection is primar-
C. absolute temperature
ily restricted to
D. none of the above.
A. gases
109. Thermodynamic work is the product of B. solids
A. Two intensive properties C. fluids
B. Two extensive properties D. the force.
C. An intensive property and change in an
extensive property 114. A power plant’s generation system needs
to have an efficiency of 22% when its cold
D. An extensive property and change in reservoir is maintained at 27 C. What
an intensive property Kelvin temperature must the hot gases
110. Which of the following best describes the that drive the turbines reach in order to
relationship between two systems in ther- accomplish this?
mal equilibrium? A. 280 K
A. No heat is exchanged B. 300 K

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1.1 concept 14

C. 380K B. When the heat transfer start because

D. None of these. there is no temperature difference be-
tween two bodies
115. The principal reason one can walk bare- C. When the heat transfer stops because
foot on red-hot coals without burning the there is no temperature difference be-
feet has to do with tween two bodies
A. low temperature of the coals D. none of above
B. low thermal conductivity of the coals

NARAYAN CHANGDER
and ash 120. Measurement of temperature is based on
which law of thermodynamics?
C. mind-over-matter techniques
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
D. loss of all feeling in the feet due to fre-
quent walking on coals. B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
116. Which of the following are intensive
properties? D. Third law of thermodynamics

A. Kinetic Energy 121. The energy of an object as it is in motion

B. Specific Enthalpy is defined as

C. Pressure A. Kinetic Theory

D. Entropy B. Kinetic energy

C. Potential energy
117. On a humid day, water forms on the out-
side of a glass of ice water. This phe- D. Electric energy
nomenon occurs mainly because of 122. In an irreversible process, there is a
A. water goes through tiny holes in the A. loss of heat
glass.
B. no loss of heat
B. water spills over the side of the glass.
C. gain of heat
C. evaporation.
D. no gain of heat.
D. condensation.
E. Matrix glitch that loops on summer 123. The reason that the white-hot sparks
days only. that strike your face from a 4th of July
type sparkler don’t harm you is because
118. Absolute zero temperature is taken as A. They have a low temperature
A. -273◦ C B. the energy per molecule is very low
B. 273◦ C C. the energy per molecule is high, but lit-
C. 237◦ C tle energy is transferred because of rela-
D. -373◦ C tively few molecules in the spark.
D. internal infinity stones cause a low
119. Thermal Equilibrium is level energy sink
A. When the heat transfer stops because
there is no temperature difference of bod- 124. What is 50 C in Kelvin?
ies A. 223

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1.1 concept 15

B. 323 130. A more elaborate approach, based on the

C. 100 average behavior of large groups of indi-
vidual particles, is called

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D. 50
A. Classical Thermodynamics
125. What is the symbol for Thermal Energy?
B. Statistical Thermodynamics
A. Q
C. Microsopic approach
B. T
D. None of the above
C. m
D. Cp 131. How can energy be transferred from a
cool object to a warm object?
126. For a stationary system
A. ∆E = ∆U A. Work must be done

B. ∆E = ∆PE B. Increase thermal energy

C. ∆E = ∆KE C. Use convection
D. ∆E = ∆PE + ∆KE D. Q=mTC

127. One kg of diatomic Oxygen is present in 132. Properties which are independent of
a 500 L tank. Find the specific volume on mass / size of the systems are
both mass and mole basis.
A. Intensive properties
A. 0.6 m3/kg, 0.260 m3/mole
B. Extensive properties
B. 0.5 m3/kg, 0.0160 m3/mole
C. -
C. 0.56 m3/kg, 0.0215 m3/mole
D. 0.7 m3/kg, 0.0325 m3/mole D. -

128. Irreversible Process is 133. Find the pressure of water at 200◦ C and
having specific volume of 1.5 m3/kg.
A. Cannot return the system and the sur-
roundings to their original conditions A. 0.9578 m3/kg
B. It takes infinite time for completion B. 0.8578 m3/kg
C. Work obtained in this process is maxi- C. 0.7578 m3/kg
mum
D. 0.6578 m3/kg
D. none of above
134. The boundary is
129. Imagine that you could observe the indi-
vidual atoms that make up a piece of mat- A. the closed surface that encloses the
ter and that you observe the motion of the system and separates it from the sur-
atoms becoming more orderly. What can roundings
you assume about the system? B. the open system surface that encloses
A. Its entropy is decreasing. the system and separates it from the sur-
B. Its entropy is increasing. roundings
C. It is gaining thermal energy. C. The mass or region outside the system
D. Positive work is being done on the sys- D. The real or imaginary surface that sep-
tem. arates the system from its surroundings

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1.1 concept 16

135. When the temperature of matter in- B. irreversible cycle

creases the particles C. thermodynamic cycle
A. speed up and move closer
D. none of the above.
B. speed up and move farther apart
C. slow down and move closer together 141. Which of the following is the best way to
describe how objects reach thermal equilib-
D. slow down and move farther apart rium?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
136. The metal skewer gets so hot that your A. Hot things stay hot and cold things stay
drop your marshmallow in the campfire. cold.
The marshmallow fell because of B. When hot and cold things interact with
A. conduction. each other, heat will move from the hot
B. convection. thing to the cold thing until they both have
the same final temperature.
C. radiation.
C. When hot and cold things interact with
D. none of above
each other, cold will move from the cold
137. Closed system is also called thing to the hot thing until they both have
the same final temperature.
A. Control Volume
D. none of above
B. Control Mass
C. Control Surface 142. Seebeck effect is used in which of the fol-
D. None of the above lowing thermometers
A. radiaton thermometer
138. A state of disorder or chaos
B. thermistor
A. heat
C. thermocouple
B. entropy
D. none of the above
C. specific heat
D. temperature 143. Some familiar properties are pressure p,
temperature t, volume v, and mass m.
139. A piston/cylinder with a cross-sectional properties are considered to be
area of 0.01 m2 is resting on the stops.
With an outside pressure of 100 kPa, A. either intensive or extensive
what should be the water pressure to lift B. neither intensive nor extensive
the piston?
C. intensive
A. 178kPa
D. extensive
B. 188kPa
C. 198kPa 144. A piece of metal with a hole in it cools,
the diameter of the hole
D. 208kPa
A. increases
140. A series of operations, which take place
B. decreases
in a certain order and restore the initial
condition is known as C. remains the same size
A. reversible cycle D. is existentially non-existent.

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 1.2 Temperature 17

145. Pigs roll in the mud A. 30 hertz and it travels 60 m/s

A. to thermally insulate themselves. B. 60 hertz and it travels 30 m/s

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. to keep their skin wet so evaporation C. 30 hertz and it travels 30 m/s
can occur. D. neither of these
C. because the darker color of mud
makes them warmer. 149. is measured by the unit Joules.

D. Never ask someone who raises pigs A. Heat energy

why pigs roll in the mud. B. Temperature
C. Specific heat
146. In which direction does heat energy al-
ways move? D. none of above
A. From high temperature to low temper- 150. Gas contained in a closed system consist-
ature objects ing of piston cylinder arrangement is ex-
B. From low temperature to high temper- panded. Work done by the gas during ex-
ature objects pansion is 50 kJ. Decrease in internal en-
ergy of the gas during expansion is 30 kJ.
C. From low kinetic energy to high kinetic
Heat transfer during the process is equal
energy
to
D. From objects of higher mass to objects
A. -20 kJ
of lower mass
B. + 20 kJ
147. What happens to the kinetic energy of
C. -80 kJ
the particles of an ideal gas when it is
cooled from 80oC to 70oC? D. + 80 kJ
A. It decreases 151. What does the variable “n” represent in
B. It increases the ideal gas law?
C. It remains constant A. pressure
D. It is impossible to determine B. volume
C. moles
148. A 60-vibration per second wave travels
30 meters in one second. It’s frequency is D. the gas constant
E. temperature

1.2 Temperature
1. The movement of thermal energy from a 2. Which one of these isn’t a temperature
warmer object to a cooler object is called: scale?
A. heat A. Fahrenheit
B. temperature B. Celsius
C. motion C. Kelvin
D. momentum D. Monty

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1.2 Temperature 18

3. Temperature is defined as 8. What is the freezing point of water?

A. the transfer of thermal energy from A. 230F
one object to another B. 320F
B. the degree of hotness or coldness of a C. -320F
body or environment
D. none of above
C. A measure of the warmth or coldness
of an object or substance with reference 9. When particles collide with each other they

NARAYAN CHANGDER
to some standard value.
D. A measure of the average kinetic en- A. transfer kinetic energy
ergy of the particles B. stop completely still
4. Which tool is used to measure thermal en- C. become smaller
ergy? D. lose all their energy
A. oven
10. What water freezes at in Fahrenheit
B. scale
A. 37 F
C. thermometer
B. 20 F
D. none of above
C. 32 F
5. What is the specific heat if 500J of heat D. 100 F
are required to raise the temperature of
10 grams from 100C to 810C. Use the ta- 11. How do you convert Kelvins to Fahren-
ble to identify the substance. heit?
A. water A. K +273 then use F = 1.8 C + 32
B. carbon B. K-273 then use F = 1.8 C-32
C. copper C. K-273 then use F = 1.8 C + 32
D. none of above D. none of above

6. Which example below is an example of 12. When holding a cup of ice water, your
conduction? warm hand becomes cold. How does the
A. Boiling macaroni heat transfer?

B. The attic is warmer than the basement A. From the cold cup to your hand

C. The Sun heating the Earth B. From the cold cup to the warm air

D. Touching hot sand with your feet C. From the ice to your hand
D. From your warm hand to the cold cup.
7. heat always travels from
A. a body at higher temperature to a body 13. Any material that lets energy easily trans-
at lower temperature fer as heat through it is called a

B. a body at lower temperature to a body A. Conductor

at higher temperature B. Insulator
C. does not matter C. Semi-conductor
D. hot to hot D. Exterminator

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1.2 Temperature 19

14. Which substance would be the best insula- 20. What type of material makes the best in-
tor for hot soup? sulators?

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A. A metal can A. Aluminum
B. A glass bowl
B. Copper
C. A plastic thermos
C. Styrofoam
D. none of above
D. Metal
15. The faster molecules move,
A. the higher the temperature 21. Energy transferred from a higher tempera-
B. the lower the temperature ture object to a lower temperature object
is
C. the temperature doesn’t change
D. the temperature goes up and down A. heat

16. Body temperature in Celsius. B. kinetic energy

A. 100 C C. thermal energy
B. 68 C D. internal energy
C. 212 C
D. 37 C 22. Sensitivity of the thermometer refers to

17. Absolute zero is the temperature (in A. How quickly the thermometer can reg-
Kelvin), at which, in theory ister change in temperature.

A. all particles stop moving B. The amount of change in thermometric

property for unit change in temperature.
B. time stands still
C. space and time merge C. The minimum and maximum tempera-
tures that the thermometer can measure.
D. energy goes to infinity
D. None of the above
18. If two objects have different tempera-
tures, heat will flow from the warmer ob-
23. What is an ideal gas?
ject to the cooler one UNTIL
A. one reaches a temperature of zero A. which obeys the law p = vR / T
B. they both have an equal temperature B. which obeys the law pv = R / T
C. one runs out of energy C. which obeys the law pv = RT
D. They both reach a temperature pf ab-
D. none of the above.
solute zero
19. Which temperature scale has no negative 24. What water freezes at in Celsius.
temperatures?
A. 0 C
A. Celsius
B. 32 C
B. Fahrenheit
C. Joule C. 20 C
D. Kelvin D. 37C

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1.2 Temperature 20

25. What are the three types of energy trans- 31. Take your time!Kelvins-273 = oCConvert
fer? 400K to Celsius
A. Conduction, Convection and Radiation A. 673 oC
B. Radiation, Microwaves, Convection B. -127 oC
C. Conduction, Convection, convection C. 127 oC
currents
D. none of above
D. Radiation, Gamma Rays, X rays

NARAYAN CHANGDER
32. What type of material makes the best con-
26. As ice cools from 273 K to 263 K, the av- ductor?
erage kinetic energy of its molecules will
A. Food
A. increase
B. Wood
B. decrease
C. Styrofoam
C. remain the same
D. Metal
D. none of above
33. Convert:186.5 K to oC
27. The temperature at which all molecular mo-
tion stops is called (0 K)? A. -86.4 oC
A. Absolute Zero B. -50 oC
B. Absolute Frozen C. -68.4 oC
C. Absolute Entropy D. 180 K
D. Absolute Kinetics 34. Which thermal exchange process carries
thermal energy through boiling water as
28. An insulator keeps things hot because it:
it heats up on top of a stove?
A. Is a poor conductor
A. Conduction
B. Transfers heat easily
B. Convection
C. Is made of metal
C. Radiation
D. Allows energy to pass through easily
D. Evaporation
29. Thermometer that is best suited for mea-
suring rapidly changing temperatures is 35. Temperature at which ALL molecules stop
moving.
A. Constant volume gas thermometer A. 100◦ C
B. Resistance thermometer B. Absolute zero
C. Thermocouple C. 0◦ C
D. Mercury-in-glass thermometer D. 32◦ F

30. usually make the best conductors. 36. Body temperature in Fahrenheit.
A. Blankets A. 37 F
B. Wooden materials B. 20 F
C. Solid metals C. 98.6 F
D. none of above D. 100 F

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1.2 Temperature 21

37. When would an object left in a room tem- 42. grams of 80oC water is mixed with 50
perature room stop transferring heat? grams of 40oC water. What is the best ap-
proximation of the mixture temperature?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. When it has reached the same temper-
ature as the room temperature air A. 120oC
B. When it has lost all of its thermal en- B. 80oC
ergy C. 60oC
C. When it has gained all of the air’s ther- D. 50oC
mal energy
43. What state of matter has the slowest mov-
D. When it has gained or lost all of it’s ing particles?
coldness to the air
A. solid
38. The measure of average kinetic energy of B. liquid
all the particles within an object is called
C. gas
D. none of above
A. temperature
B. conduction 44. What happens when an object reaches ab-
solute zero?
C. radiation
A. The molecules stop moving
D. heat
B. The molecules move faster
39. What is the formula in turning Celsius to C. Water freezes
Kelvins? D. none of above
A. K = C-273
45. The transfer of thermal energy through a
B. K= C + 273 substance by direct contact
C. K= C + 275 A. thermal conduction
D. none of above B. thermal insulation
C. convection
40. What happens to particles as they cool
down? D. radiation
A. They slow down 46. What happens to particles as they heat
B. Nothing up?
A. They slow down
C. They don’t move
B. Nothing
D. They speed up
C. They don’t move
41. Any material that doesn’t let energy trans- D. They speed up
fer through it as heat is called a
47. At which temperature would the molecules
A. Conductor
in a one gram sample of water have the
B. Insulator lowest averagekinetic energy?
C. Semi-conductor A. 5◦ C
D. Exterminator B. -100◦ C

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1.2 Temperature 22

C. 5 K 53. Joe places two solid objects in contact with

D. 100 K each other. Which property determines
the direction of the flow of heat between
48. Take your time!Convert to KelvinsoC + the two objects?
273 = KelvinsConvert 200 oC to Kelvins A. type of material the objects are made
A. 73 K of
B. volume of objects
B. 473 K
C. density of objects

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. -73 K
D. temperature of objects
D. none of above
54. Convert 24 oF to Kelvin
49. If an object has particles that are moving A. 90 K
very quickly, the object ‘s temperature is
probably B. 140 K
C. 269 K
A. cold
D. 250 K
B. slow
55. Convert 35K to Celsius
C. big
A. -238
D. hot
B. 308
50. What water boils in Celsius. C. 273
A. 212 C D. 238
B. 150 C 56. How heat is transferred?
C. 25 C A. From high to low temperature
D. 100 C B. From low to high
C. Up to down
51. How much heat is required to raise the
temperature of a 225 g lead ball from 15.0 D. Left to right
oC C to 25.0 oC? The specific heat of lead 57. Railroad tracks have gaps between rails
is 128 J/kg.K so they don’t buckle in hot weather be-
A. 725 J cause
B. 576 J A. thermal conductivity
B. specific heat
C. 145 J
C. thermal expansion
D. 288 J
D. thermal insulation
52. Molecules move when thermal energy
58. Heat energy is
is added to a solid, liquid, or gas.
A. the temperature of an object
A. freely
B. energy that transfers from high to low
B. quickly temperature
C. in slow motion C. the particles in a substance
D. none of above D. the number of particles in something

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1.2 Temperature 23

59. Object 1 has three times the specific heat 64. A geothermal system obtains thermal en-
capacity and four times the mass of Object ergy from
2. Two two objects are given the same

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A. above the Earth’s surface
amount of heat. If temperature of Object 1
changes by amount DT, the change in tem- B. air
perature of Object 2 will be C. below the Earth’s surface
A. 3/4 DT D. none of above
B. 4/3 DT 65. Why does a diver wear a wet suit?
C. 6 DT A. To keep in thermal energy.
D. 12 DT B. To keep from getting cuts.
60. A thermostat works due to: C. To keep from sinking.
A. conduction D. To keep out cold.
B. thermal expansion of the bimetallic 66. Convert 20 Kelvin to oC.
strip
A. 0oC
C. radiation B. I am
D. none of above C. I am
61. What room temperature is in Fahrenheit. D. I put you
A. 30 F 67. The specific heat of water is 1.184 J/g◦ C .
B. 0 F What is the energy gained by 25g of water
when its temperature increases from 25◦
C. 68F
to75 ◦ How much heat(Q) is released?
D. 32 F
A. 5, 230 J
62. Device that measures temperature. B. 7, 845 J
A. Thermal energy C. 2, 615 J
B. Temperature D. none of above
C. Thermometer 68. Water boils at Fahrenheit
D. Heat A. 0 F
63. Specific heat is B. 32 F
A. The measure of kinetic energy of an ob- C. 37 F
jects particles D. 212 F
B. A measure of the energy needed to in- 69. Temperature is a measure of the average
crease the average kinetic energy of the energy of the particles of a substance.
particles
A. potential
C. The heating caused by the motion of
flluid due to temperature difference B. kinetic

D. The transfer of energy by electromag- C. gravitational

netic radiation D. heat

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1.2 Temperature 24

70. The TOTAL amount of energy of the mov- 75. Chlorine boils at 239 K. What is the boil-
ing molecules in an object. ing point of chlorine expressed in degrees
A. Celcius Celsius?
A. 93 degrees Celsius
B. Temperature
B. 34 degrees Celsius
C. Thermal energy
C. -61 degrees Celsius
D. All of them
D. -34 degrees Celsius

NARAYAN CHANGDER
71. Convert-56 Degree Celsius to Kelvin
76. The normal human body’s temperature is
A. 327.15 98.6 ◦ F. In the Celsius scale, it is
B. 2989.28 A. 30◦ C
C. 38.85 B. 37◦ C
D. 217.15 C. 42◦ C
72. What is the formula in turning Celsius to D. 32◦ C
Fahrenheit?
77. The transfer of thermal energy through col-
A. F = 1.8 C +32 lisions of particles is
B. F= 1.8 C-32 A. Radiation
C. F= 1.5 C + 32 B. Convection
D. none of above C. Conduction

73. If you wanted to know how much the D. none of above

temperature of a particular piece of ma- 78. Absolute zero is
terial would rise when a known amount
of heat was added to it, which of the fol- A. -273◦ C
lowing quantities would be most helpful to B. 0◦ C
know? C. -373◦ C
A. initial temperature D. 273◦ C
B. specific heat
79. Which thermal exchange process does not
C. density require a medium?
D. coefficient of linear expansion A. Conduction
74. As water in a freezer turns into ice, B. Convection
A. the water absorbs energy from the air C. Radiation
in the freezer. D. Evaporation
B. the water absorbs the coldness from 80. How do you turn Fahrenheit to Celsius?
the air in the freezer.
A. C = 5 ( F+32) /9
C. the freezer air absorbs heat from the
water. B. C= 5 (F-32)/8

D. the water neither absorbs nor re- C. C= 5(F-32)/9

leases energy. D. none of above

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1.2 Temperature 25

81. Why do we wear sweaters in cold A. The cold energy from your friends hand
weather? transferred to your hand

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A. To keep cold out. B. The heat energy from your friend’s
hand transferred to your hand
B. To generate heat.
C. The cold energy from your hand trans-
C. To reduce heat loss.
ferred to your friend’s hand
D. All of the above.
D. The heat energy from your hand trans-
82. Which phase change causes solid to change ferred to your friend’s hand
to liquid? 87. Convert 20oC to Kelvin.
A. Freezing A. 273 K
B. Melting B. 298 K
C. Boiling C. 293 K
D. Condensing D. 20 K

83. Thermal energy ( Heat Energy) is 88. Water freezes at

A. measure of how hot or cold matter is. A. 73◦ K
B. the total kinetic energy of all the parti- B. 173◦ K
cles the substance contains. C. 273◦ K
C. The number of particles in a substance D. 373◦ K

89. is the measure of the average kinetic

D. none of above
energy of the particles in a substance.
84. In which state of matter are molecules A. Temperature
moving the slowest? B. Thermometer
A. solid C. Heat transfer
B. liquid D. Thermocouple
C. gas
90. To measure the temperature difference be-
D. all of the above tween two cups of water, you would use
a
85. The slower molecules move,
A. measuring cup
A. the higher the temperature
B. ruler
B. the lower the temperature
C. thermometer
C. the temperature doesn’t change
D. balance scale
D. the temperature goes up and down
91. What is mass?
86. You’re holding hands with your best friend. A. The amount of stuff within a substance
Your friend’s hands are REALLY warm and or object.
yours are really cold. After a few minutes,
this has changed. How might you explain B. Anything that takes up space.
what happened? C. A solid, liquid, or gas.

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1.2 Temperature 26

D. The amount of space take up by an ob- B. II only

ject.
C. III only
92. The temperature of a substance increases D. I and III only
as
A. the substance expands 97. How do you calculate heat lost or gained?

B. the average kinetic energy of its parti- A. m x change in Temperature x specific

cles increases heat

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the substance’s volume increases B. mass/ change in temperature
D. the substance’s mass increases C. mass x change in temperature/ spe-
cific heat
93. A constant-volume gas thermometer
D. mass x change in temperature
works on
A. The principle of Archimedes 98. Which is the sum of the kinetic and poten-
B. Boyle’s law tial energies of an object?

C. Pascals law A. Heat energy

D. Charles law B. Specific heat energy
C. Thermal energy
94. Which temperature scale is an SI unit?
A. Kelvin D. Temperature

B. Celsius 99. Water boils at

C. Fahrenheit A. 373◦ C
D. none of above B. 32◦ C
95. Heat transfer occurs: C. 100◦ C
A. in many directions D. 200◦ C
B. both from warm objects to colder ones
100. The motion energy of particles is called
and from cold objects to warmer ones
C. only from warm objects to colder ones
A. kinetic energy
D. only from cold objects to warmer ones
B. connecting energy
96. Two beakers A & B contain water at a tem- C. electrostatic energy
perature of 40 oC. Beaker A contains 100
g of water and beaker B contains 250 g D. gravitational energy
of water. Which of the following state-
ments is true about them? I. Beaker A 101. The state of matter having no definite
has less thermal energy than Beaker BII. shape or volume.
Both beakers A and B have the same ther- A. solid
mal energyIII. The water molecules in both
B. liquid
beakers A and B have the same average
kinetic energy C. gas
A. I only D. none of above

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1.2 Temperature 27

102. The temperature at which molecular en- 107. A measure of the average kinetic energy
ergy is at a minimum (0 K on the Kelvin of the individual particles in an object is
scale or-273.16 C) on the Celsius scale. called:

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A. Specific Heat A. thermal energy
B. Plasma B. conduction
C. Absolute Zero C. convection
D. Conduction D. temperature
103. Liquid expansion thermometers are filled 108. Which temperature is absolute zero?
with
A. 0 oC
A. Mercury
B. 0 Kelvins
B. Amalgam
C. 273 Kelvins
C. Gallium
D. 273 oC
D. Cesium
109. Insulation is used in the walls of a build-
104. Which best describes temperature?
ing to
A. It is equal to the heat difference be-
A. trap solar energy
tween two objects
B. keep thermal energy from moving
B. It is proportional to the total energy in
through the walls
an object
C. conduct thermal energy
C. It is proportional to the average ki-
netic energy of particles in an object D. keep cold air from moving through the
walls
D. It is equal to an object’s specific heat
capacity 110. The responsiveness of thermometer
105. The temperature of water in a breaker is refers to
40 ◦ C. Its value in Fahrenheit scale is A. How quickly the thermometer can reg-
A. 110◦ F ister the change in temperature

B. 104◦ F B. The amount of change in thermometric

property for a unit change in temperature
C. 130◦ F
C. The minimum and maximum tempera-
D. 116◦ F tures that the thermometer can measure.
106. Which of the following containers of sand D. None of the above
has atoms/molecules with the greatest
average kinetic energy? 111. No more energy can be removed from
matter at:
A. 1 kg at 20oC
A. its freezing point
B. 2 kg at 20oC
B. 0◦ C
C. 4 kg at 20oC
C. absolute zero
D. none has a greater amount because all
have the same average kinetic energy D. 273 K

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1.2 Temperature 28

112. is the measure of kinetic energy of 118. Which sentence explains why a cold
particles. metal spoon placed in a pot of boiling wa-
A. A thermometer ter becomes hot?
B. Expansion A. Thermal energy is transferred from
C. Farenheit the spoon to the water.
D. Temperature B. Thermal energy is transferred from
the water to the spoon.
113. As a material is heated, it’s particles

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. get smaller C. Thermal energy in the water is trans-
formed into kinetic energy in the spoon.
B. slow down
C. get cooler D. Thermal energy in the spoon is trans-
formed into kinetic energy in the water.
D. move more quickly
114. When you touch something that feels 119. Water boils at 100 degrees on which
cold, scale?
A. heat from your hand moves into the A. Farenheit
cold substance.
B. Celsius
B. coldness moves from the cold sub-
stance into your hand. C. Kelvin
C. it melts.
D. none of above
D. it freezes.
115. Which phase change happens when gas 120. The Law of Conservation of Energy
turns to liquid? states:
A. Freezing A. Energy can be created or destroyed
B. Melting but not transformed
C. Boiling B. Energy cannot be created or de-
D. Condensing stroyed, it can only transformed

116. Which is not a temperature scale? C. Energy cannot be created or de-

stroyed, only transformed or transferred
A. Kelvin
B. Newton D. Mass can be neither created nor de-
stroyed
C. Celsius
D. Fahrenheit 121. When a popsicle melts, the particles in
117. What is the formula for converting Cel- the popsicle
sius to Fahrenheit? A. gain thermal energy and speed up
A. oC x (9/5) + 32
B. there are no particles in popsicles
B. (oF-32) x (5/9)
C. K-273 C. lose thermal energy and slow down
D. oC + 273 D. stay the same

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1.2 Temperature 29

122. After cooking an egg in boiling water, C. specific heat

you cool the egg by putting it into a bowl D. total energy
of cold water. Which of the following ex-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

plains the egg’s cooling process? 127. Resistance thermometer generally makes
A. Temperature is transferred from the use of for the measurement of resis-
egg to the water. tance.
B. Energy is transferred from the water A. Potentiometer
to the egg. B. Adruino
C. Energy is transferred from the egg to
C. Diode bridge
the water.
D. Wheatstone bridge
D. Cold moves from the water into the
egg. 128. The energy transferred between the par-
123. Heat transfer always goes from- ticles of two objects because of the tem-
perature difference between the two ob-
A. Cold to Hot jects is called
B. Hot to Cold
A. heat
C. Heat doesn’t transfer
B. insulator
D. Freezing to Cold
C. conductor
124. During the day, the sand at the beach D. none of above
is very warm; while at night, it is
cooler.Why does this occur? 129. Convert 72◦ C to Kelvin
A. The sand reflects the sun’s energy dur- A. 345K
ing the day, causing it to become warmer.
B. 201K
B. The sand absorbs the sun’s energy dur-
ing the day, causing it to become warmer. C. I put you
C. The sand scatters the sun’s energy D. -345K
during the day, causing it to become
130. What is a measurement of the average ki-
warmer.
netic energy of the particles in an object?
D. The sand refracts the sun’s energy dur-
ing the day, causing it to become warmer. A. Temperature
B. Kinetic Energy
125. Is a measure of heat.
C. Conductor
A. Temperature
D. Joules
B. Thermometer
C. Heat 131. The liquid in a thermometer as the
D. All of them temperature increases.
A. expands
126. The temperature of a substance is a mea-
sure of its particles B. disappears
A. average potential energy C. freezes
B. average kinetic energy D. explodes

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1.2 Temperature 30

132. This happens to water at 0 degrees Cel- 137. Normal human body’s temperature is
sius. 98.6 ◦ F. In kelvin scale, it is
A. Boils A. 320 K
B. Freezes B. 300K
C. Heats C. 308K
D. All of them D. 310K

NARAYAN CHANGDER
133. Which is not an example of an insulator? 138. Which of the following substances is
made up of particles with the highest av-
A. Air
erage kinetic energy?
B. Ceramic A. Fe(s) at 35◦ C
C. Plastic B. Br2(l) at 20◦ C
D. Wood C. H2O() at 30◦ C
134. Which example below is an example of D. CO2(g) at 25◦ C
radiation?
139. A measure of the AVERAGE kinetic en-
A. Standing on a hot metal bridge ergy of particles in an object
B. The attic is warmer than the basement A. Thermal Energy
C. The Sun heating the Earth B. Temperature
D. Touching hot sand with your feet C. Heat

135. Two isolated objects, at different temper- D. All of them

atures, are put in contact with each other.
140. What if the formula for converting
Which of the following is/ are true when
Fahrenheit to Celsius?
the system reaches thermal equilibrium?
I. The cool object gains the same amount A. oC x (9/5) + 32
of heat lost by the warm object.II. Both B. (oF-32) x (5/9)
objects will have the same final tempera-
tureIII. Both objects lose the same amount C. K-273
of heat D. oC + 273
A. I only
141. A heat engine turns thermal energy into
B. II only A. nuclear energy
C. I and II only B. radiant energy
D. II and III only C. mechanical energy
136. What is 45 K in Celsius? D. none of above
A. -318 142. Object 1 has three times the specific heat
B. 228 capacity and four times the mass of Object
2. The two objects are heated from the
C. 318
same initial temperature, To, to the same
D. 45 final temperature Tf. During this process,

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1.2 Temperature 31

if Object 1 absorbs heat Q, the amount of C. (oF-32) x (5/9)

heat absorbed by Object 2 will be D. oC x (9/5) + 32

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. 1/12 Q
148. Which of the following thermometer is
B. 3/4 Q portable and simple to use?
C. 4/3 Q A. Constant volume gas thermometer
D. 6 Q B. Resistance thermometer
143. What is the normal body temperature in C. Thermocouple
Celsius? D. Mercury-in-glass thermometer
A. 98.6
149. Room temperature in Celsius.
B. 37
A. 100 C
C. 100
B. 68 C
D. 32
C. 20 C
144. How do you turn Kelvins to Celsius?
D. 2102 C
A. C = K + 273
150. Convert 30◦ C to Kelvin
B. C = K-273
A. 303K
C. C = K +275
B. 30K
D. none of above
C. 243 k
145. A block of ice is placed on a hot sidewalk.
D. -243 k
The ice melts because
A. the energy from the ice flows to the 151. What is Mrs. Eickmeyer’s favorite ani-
sidewalk. mal?
B. the energy from the sidewalk flows to A. Komodo Dragon
the ice. B. Panda
C. convection currents flow between the C. Hippogriff
ice and the sidewalk
D. none of above
D. radiation flows between the ice and
the sidewalk 152. A worker for an electrical company is
preparing to fix a power line. Why would
146. Touching a hot metal pan would be he put on rubber gloves before working
A. consolation with any power lines?
B. confetti A. Rubber is a poor conductor of heat but
C. conduction a good conductor of electricity

D. convection B. Rubber is a good conductor of heat but

a poor conductor of electricity
147. What is the formula for converting Cel- C. Rubber is a poor conductor of heat and
sius to Kelvin? electricity
A. oC + 273 D. Rubber is a good conductor of heat and
B. K-273 electricity

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1.2 Temperature 32

153. Exothermic reactions 159. You pick up a can of soda off of the
A. Absorb energy countertop. The countertop underneath
the can feels colder than the rest of the
B. Release energy counter. Which explanation do you think
C. Release Color is the best?
D. Absorb Color A. The cold has been transferred from
the soda to the counter.
154. If we convert 60 ◦ C into Fahrenheit scale

NARAYAN CHANGDER
of temperature, we get B. There is no heat energy left in the
A. 300 ◦ F counter beneath the can.
B. 180 ◦ F C. Some heat has been transferred from
C. 140 ◦ F the counter to the soda.
D. 250 ◦ F D. The heat beneath the can moves away
into other parts of the countertop.
155. The line drawn on a graph that takes into
account all or most of the data points, even
160. Compare the energy of the molecules in a
if it does not go through the points, is
cup of 100oC water to 25oC water:
called
A. a mistake A. The 100oC water has less kinetic en-
ergy and more potential energy than the
B. a curve
25oC water because the temperature is
C. a line of best fit higher.
D. a bar graph B. The 100oC water has more kinetic en-
156. Energy that moves particles of matter is ergy and more potential energy than the
25oC water because the temperature is
A. temperature higher.
B. thermal energy
C. The 100oC water has more kinetic en-
C. heat ergy and less potential energy than the
D. friction 25oC water because the temperature is
higher.
157. The lowest possible temperature is
D. The 100oC water has less kinetic en-
A. -273.15 ◦ C
ergy and less potential energy than the
B. 0 K 25oC water because the temperature is
C. 0 ◦ C higher.
D. 273 K
161. Water freezes at 0 degrees on which
158. A(n) is a device for measuring tem- scale?
perature.
A. Farenheit
A. thermometer
B. Celsius
B. barometer
C. anemometer C. Kelvin
D. psychrometer D. none of above

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 1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 33

162. This is the measure of the hotness or cold- D. Kelvin

ness of a substance and is measured using
a thermometer. 163. Convert:186.5 K to C

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. -86.4 C
A. Celsius
B. -50 C
B. temperature C. -68.4 C
C. heat D. 180 K

1.3 Work and Heat Transfer

1. A thermodynamic process in which no en- a system? U=Internal EnergyQ=Heat in-
ergy is transferred between surrounding putW=Work input
as heat. A. U=Q+W
A. Iso-thermal Process B. U=Q-W
B. Iso-Volumetric Process C. U=-Q+W
C. Adiabatic Process D. U+Q+W=0
D. Cyclic Process
5. When a student immerses their hand in
2. What is the temperature gradient in the cold water for two minutes before trans-
conduction heat transfer? ferring that hand to room temperature, the
student perceives that
A. Change in temperature per unit
change in time A. the water is warmer than it really is
because heat is transferred to their hand
B. Change in temperature per unit and the receptors under the skin register
change in distance in the direction of heat the change in skin temperature
flow
B. the water is colder than it really is be-
C. Change in temperature per unit cause heat is transferred to their hand
change in cross sectional area normal to and the receptors under the skin register
the direction of the heat flow the change in skin temperature
D. Change in temperature per unit C. the water is warmer than it really is be-
change in cross sectional area parallel cause heat is transferred out of their hand
to the direction of the flow and the receptors under the skin register
the difference in room temperature
3. Molecules in cold things move more
than in hot things. D. the water is colder than it really is be-
cause heat is transferred out of their hand
A. quickly and the receptors under the skin register
B. slowly the difference in room temperature
C. happily 6. Heat is a measure of
D. merrily A. Cold

4. What is the equation for the first law B. Kinetic Energy

of thermodynamics for energy input into C. Light Energy

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 34

D. Nothing A. Remains constant

7. What causes your skin to feel warm when B. Decreases

it is in the sun on a summer day? C. Increases
A. Particles in the atmosphere reflect en- D. Depends on temperature
ergy from the Sun downward.
12. A group in Mr. Watkins’ period 1 chem-
B. Hot particles from the Sun still carry istry class (will not say which one) forgot
some heat when they reach your skin. to turn their hot water bath off after do-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The solar wind carries heated air from ing the specific heat of metals lab the other
the Sun’s atmosphere to Earth’s surface. day. When they finished the lab, there
was still 295 mL of water in the beaker
D. The Sun radiates energy that passes
that was boiling. How much heat was ab-
through space and the atmosphere to your
sorbed to vaporize the remaining water?
skin.
A. 0 calories because there is no temp.
8. How many Joules of energy are required change during a phase change.
to change 10 gram of water from 20 C to
B. 159, 300 calories was absorbed
90 C?
C. 23, 600 calories was absorbed
A. 1476 J
D. Not enough info to solve.
B. 2926 J
C. 210, 050 J 13. Which best describes the flow of heat?
D. 1, 404, 500 J A. from a larger object to a smaller object
B. from a warmer object to a cooler ob-
9. Which item would have this energy trans- ject
formation:chemical energy → mechanical
energy? C. from a cooler object to a warmer ob-
ject
A. person running
D. from a smaller object to a larger object
B. candle burning
14. A snowboarder with a mass of 48 kg stays
C. windmill turning
on the slopes too long, and their tempera-
D. playing a violin ture drops from 310o K to 292o K. How
much heat did their body lose? (the aver-
10. Which category of heat transfer involves
age specific heat of a human body is 3470
atoms and electrons of hot atoms striking
J/kg*K)
atoms and electrons of cooler atoms and
giving them more kinetic energy? (actual A. -3, 245, 972 J
physical contact) B. -4, 156, 235 J
A. radiation C. -2, 998, 080 J
B. convection D. -1, 987, 267 J
C. conduction
15. Thermal energy is really a form of: en-
D. none of above ergy.

11. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with A. elastic potential

rise in temperature normally B. chemical

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 35

C. kinetic C. solar energy

D. nuclear D. temperature

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

16. Mittens help keep your hands warm in 21. Degrees Celsius in Fahrenheit is:
winter because A. 308
A. They are conductors of heat. B. -238
B. They are fuzzy. C. 95
C. They are conductors of electrical en- D. 121
ergy.
22. The transfer of heat by the movement of
D. They are insulators.
a fluid is called
17. lowest possible temperature on the Kelvin A. Convection
scale B. Conduction
A. boiling point C. Radiation
B. insulation D. none of above
C. absolute zero
23. Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
D. heat
A. 0th law
18. There are different ways that heat can B. 1st law
move.
C. 2nd law
A. one
D. 3rd law
B. two
24. Click all of the examples that are heat en-
C. three gines.
D. four A. Drinking Bird
19. An aluminum plate and a plastic plate have B. Gasoline Engine
been in the freezer all night long. When C. Computer Microchip
you remove them the next morning,
D. Steam Turbine
A. The plates are the same temperature.
25. Which of these has the slowest moving
B. The plastic plate has a higher temper-
particles
ature.
A. Ice
C. The plastic plate has a lower tempera-
ture. B. Lava
D. The aluminum plate has a lower tem- C. Gas
perature. D. Boiling water
20. is a branch of physics that deals with the 26. Which sentence best explains how heat
relationship between heat and other forms transfers?
of energy A. Heat always flows from hot to cold.
A. thermodynamics B. Heat sometimes flows from hot to cold,
B. heat and sometimes from cold to hot.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 36

C. Heat always flows from cold to hot. 32. The transfer of thermal energy between
objects of different temperatures is called
D. none of above

27. Which of the following is the best at ab- A. temperature

sorbing infrared radiation? B. heat
A. Dark, matt surface C. internal energy
B. Light, shiny surface D. none of these

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Dark, shiny surface
33. is the measure of the average amount
D. none of above of kinetic energy among the particles in a
substance.
28. Thermodynamics is the study of what?
A. thermodynamics
A. The transfer of energy
B. heat
B. The creation of energy C. thermal energy
C. The speed of reactions D. temperature
D. The affect of heat on the speed of a re-
34. J of heat are added to a sample of gas
action
while 400 J of work is done by the gas.
29. If it were cold enough for water to freeze What is the change in internal energy of
outside, what would the temperature be the gas?
in Fahrenheit? A. 800 J
A. 75 degrees B. 1600 J
B. 50 degrees C. -800 J
C. 40 degrees D. -1600 J

D. 32 degrees 35. You are feeling sick, so you place a ther-

mometer under your tongue to check your
30. Which is an insulator? temperature. The directions on the box tell
A. wooden spoon you to leave the thermometer there for
three minutes before you read your tem-
B. silver spoon perature. Why should you wait?
C. steel spoon A. It takes some time for the thermome-
D. aluminum foil ter to reach its activation energy.
B. It takes some time for the thermome-
31. The transfer of energy by waves moving ter and your body to reach thermal equi-
through space is called: librium.
A. temperature C. It takes some time for the thermome-
ter to raise your body’s internal energy.
B. conduction
D. It takes some time for the thermome-
C. convection
ter and your body to attain a state of con-
D. radiation tact.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 37

36. I can’t be created nor destroyed. What am B. Well insulated

I?
C. A or B

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. energy
D. None of these
B. air
C. nothi 42. Ratio to work out to work in

D. a unicorn A. Efficiency
B. Law of Conservation of Energy
37. A steak is cooked because it is sitting
above a hot fire. C. Transformation
A. Conduction D. Lumens
B. Convection
43. The Law of states that energy cannot
C. Radiation be created nor destroyed only transferred
D. none of above A. Specific Heat
38. What do we call the state where all 3 B. Conservation of Energy
phases of water can exist in equilibrium?
C. Exothermic Reaction
A. Triple Play
D. Potential Energy
B. Triple Dipper
C. Triple Point 44. “Lava lamps” contain colored liquids.
These liquids form globs that rise to the
D. Triple Cheeseburger top due to
39. Lucy made an ice cream cake for a class A. conduction
party. She needs to store it on ice in a
B. convection
container until the party. Which material
would be best to use as a storage con- C. radiation
tainer? D. none of above
A. glass
45. On a hot, Summer day, is warm air flow-
B. metal
ing into your house, or is it flowing out of
C. plastic your house?
D. steel A. Hot air is flowing into my house
40. In heat transfer, heat always flows from B. Hot air is flowing out of my house
the substance to the substance.
C. I don’t know it’s just so hot!
A. Hotter to colder
D. none of above
B. Colder to hotter
C. Hotter to hotter 46. Sitting by a campfire

D. Colder to colder A. Conduction

B. Convection
41. For an adiabatic process to occur, the pro-
cess must be C. Radiation
A. Performed quickly D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 38

47. is the study of energy conversions be- 53. Transfer of heat from low temperature to
tween thermal energy and other types of high temperature is
energy. A. None of these
A. heat
B. Possible by doing some external work
B. thermal energy
C. Possible by keeping both the bodies in
C. conduction contact
D. thermodynamics D. Impossible

NARAYAN CHANGDER
48. Metals and other materials which allow 54. What conditions are necessary for heat
heat and electricity to flow are called: conduction to occur between two objects?
A. conductors
A. The objects must be surrounded by air
B. insulators or water.
C. burners B. Two objects at different temperatures
D. none of above are touching one another.

49. Which color absorbs the most heat? C. Two objects at different temperatures
are located close to one another.
A. Light Blue
D. One object must emit energy as light
B. White
and heat and another object absorbs the
C. Black energy.
D. Dark Blue
55. The kind of heat transfer that travels
50. A radiator heats a room by circulating through space in electromagnetic waves is
warm air.
A. Conduction A. insulation.
B. Convection B. Radiation
C. Radiation C. Conduction
D. none of above D. Convection
51. As a system becomes more disordered, en- 56. degrees Fahrenheit is very
tropy
A. Hot
A. remains the same
B. Cold
B. increases
C. Awesome
C. decreases
D. cannot be determined D. Happy

52. heat energy traveling through space is an 57. A is a material that does not transfer
example of thermal energy well.
A. convection A. insulator
B. density B. conductor
C. radiation C. reflector
D. conduction D. radiator

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 39

58. What do we call the phase change of a C. The transfer of thermal energy
SOLID turning directly into a VAPOR? through liquids and gases

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A. Sublimation D. none of above
B. Melting
63. The states that energy is conserved in
C. Condensation a system.
D. Boiling/Evaporation A. first law of thermodynamics
59. How many Joules of energy are required B. second law of thermodynamics
to condense 45 grams of steam? C. law of conservation of mass
A. 101700 J D. law of conservation of momentum
B. 400 J
64. When heat is transferred to an object, the
C. 33, 400 J particles in the object
D. 15030 J
A. slow down
60. For an isovolumetric process, which of the B. stop moving.
following statements is correct?
C. speed up.
A. Work, heat, and internal energy all un-
D. are unaffected
dergo changes.
B. Work and heat balance each other, so 65. An engineer can choose from four different
that there is no change in internal energy. materials to make a heat-resistant handle
C. No energy is transferred as heat; in- for a stirring spoon. Which material is
ternal energy change is due to work. least likely to get hot when the spoon is
placed in boiling water?
D. No work is done; internal energy
change is due to heat. A. Ceramic
B. Wood
61. On a hot summer day, which shirt would
you put on to make sure you stay cool C. Glass
while you are outside playing? D. Iron
A. A black shirt because it reflects the
66. Heat is what type of energy?
sun’s energy.
B. A white shirt because it reflects the A. Thermal
sun’s energy. B. Chemical
C. A black shirt because it absorbs the C. Potential
sun’s energy. D. Kinetic
D. A white shirt because it absorbs the
sun’s energy. 67. The first law of thermodynamics states
that energy is
62. Radiation
A. created
A. The transfer of thermal energy as elec-
B. destroyed
tromagnetic waves
B. The transfer of thermal energy C. conserved
through solids D. created and destroyed

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 40

68. Which of the following is the case of heat C. Gas

transfer by radiation D. none of above
A. Blast furnace
74. The heat from a lamp allows a lizard to re-
B. Heating of building main warm. This is an example of which
C. Cooling of parts in furnace type of heat transfer?
D. Heat recived by a person from fire- A. radiation
place B. conduction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
69. Using a blow drier to dry your hair C. convection
A. Conduction D. insulation
B. Convection 75. The Law of Thermodynamics says that
C. Radiation heat always flows from an object with a
D. none of above higher temperature to an object of lower
temperature naturally
70. A measure of the amount of disorder or A. Zeroth
randomness in a system.
B. First
A. Entropy
C. Second
B. Exothermic
D. Third
C. First Law of Thermodynamics
D. Heat engine 76. You lay on a hot rock at night so that you
can keep warm by
71. What is the life-changing kitchen tool ev- A. Conduction
ery popcorn lover must have?
B. Convection
A. whirley pop
C. Radiation
B. hot air popper
D. none of above
C. microwave
D. George Foreman grill 77. When applying the first law of thermody-
namics to a system, when is heat a posi-
E. vacuum sealer tive quantity?
72. This is a measure of the average kinetic A. when the system does work
energy of the particles in an object. B. when the system has work done on it
A. temperature C. when the system absorbs heat
B. thermal expansion D. when the system loses heat
C. electricity E. when no work is done either on the sys-
D. sound tem or by the system

73. Which phase is the best conductor of 78. The average amount of energy of motion
heat? of each particle of a substance is called
A. Solid A. temperature.
B. Liquid B. energy.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 41

C. substance. C. 4
D. transfer. D. 1

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

79. What three ways can heat be trans- 85. an example of isothermal process
ferred?
A. bomb calorimeter
A. Conduction, convection, radiation
B. melting of ice cube
B. chemical, potential, kinetic
C. heat engine
C. Nuclear
D. thermodynamic process
D. I don’t know
86. What is thermal equilibrium?
80. Which form of heat transfers through
A. When two objects are at rest at the
waves or rays?
same time.
A. Conduction
B. When two or more objects reach a
B. Convection common temperature.
C. Radiation C. When two objects have the same spe-
D. none of above cific heat.
D. none of above
81. A great conductor of energy is:
A. wood 87. A hot marble into a container of cool water
. Which of the following statements best
B. plastic
describes the motion of molecules.
C. metal
A. Both the marble molecules and the wa-
D. cloth ter molecules will slow down until they
eventually stop moving.
82. What happens to metal railroad tracks dur-
ing the heat of a summer day? B. The marble molecules will slow down
while the water molecules speed up until
A. decrease in weight
they reach reach the same temperature.
B. increase in weight
C. The marble molecules will speed up
C. decrease in length while the water molecules will slow down
D. increase in length until the marble is hotter than the water.
D. Both the marble molecules and the
83. A girl sits on a radiator, burning her legs. water molecules will speed up until they
A. Conduction reach nearly identical speeds.
B. Convection
88. Which best explains how bacon is fried on
C. Radiation a stove burner?
D. none of above A. The bacon creates a convection cur-
rent, the heat rises to the pan, and then
84. How many laws of thermodynamics are rises to the stove burner.
there?
B. The bacon transfers heat directly to
A. a lot the pan, and the pan transfers heat di-
B. 3 rectly to the stove burner.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 42

C. The stove burner radiates heat to the C. The law of conservation of momentum
pan, and the pan radiates heat to the ba- D. Newton’s second law
con.
D. The stove burner transfers heat di- 94. What is the only method of heat transfer
rectly to the pan, and the pan directly that DOESN’T require matter?
transfers heat to the bacon. A. Conduction
89. The heat will transfer through the electro- B. Convection
magnetic waves through air and space

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Radiation
A. conduction D. none of above
B. radiation
95. A fireman feels a door to see if there is
C. isolation fire on the other side.
D. convection
A. Conduction
90. The specific heat of aluminum is 0.21 B. Convection
J/g◦ C . How much heat energy is released
C. Radiation
when a 10 g piece of aluminum foil is taken
out of the oven and cools from 100◦ to D. none of above
50◦ ?
96. Thermal equilibrium is
A. 105 J
A. When substances that can exchange
B. 10.5 J heat reach the same temperature.
C. 1.05 J B. When one object is hotter than another
D. none of above
C. When one object is colder than an-
91. A heat engine converts heat into other
A. light D. When substances have equal amounts
of internal energy
B. energy
C. matter 97. Heat will always move from tempera-
tures.
D. work
A. higher to lower
92. In the Heat Transfer Cooking lab, the inde-
pendent variables were B. lower to higher

A. the types of cooking methods C. it depends.

B. the amount and type of ingredients in D. none of above
the cake
98. In which of the following is heat trans-
C. the cake cooked in the regular ovens ferred through the movement of FLUIDS
D. the way the cake tasted (Liquids & Gases)?
A. Radiation
93. The first law of thermodynamics is basi-
cally the same as which law? B. Conduction
A. Newton’s first law C. Convection
B. The law of conservation of energy D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 43

99. the degree of heat or intensity of heat C. conduction

present in an object D. swampy

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A. heat
105. What is the work output of a machine
B. solar energy
that has a work input of 2, 800 Joules and
C. temperature an efficiency of 92.3%?
D. thermodynamics A. 2, 690J
100. Rebecca stands next to a bonfire and im- B. 92.3J
mediately feels the heat. This is due to C. 0.0082J
what thermal energy transfer?
D. 2, 584.4
A. conduction
B. convection 106. Who invented the first steam engine back
in ancient Greece?
C. radiation
D. none of above A. Socrates
B. Plato
101. What is the change in temperature when
50, 000 Joules of energy is added to 200 C. Hero
grams of water at 25 C? D. Ajax
A. 16 C
107. When you get into a car with black
B. 150 C leather seats in the middle of the summer
C. 60 C and you get your buns toasted, this is an
D. 4 C example of?
A. convection
102. The materials which have low thermal
conductivity are called as B. conduction
A. Thermal conductors C. radiation
B. Themal resistors D. none of above
C. Thermal insulators 108. A steam engine absorbs 1.98 x 105 J and
D. None of the above expels 1.49 x 105 J in each cycle. Assume
that all of the remaining energy is used to
103. What scale do we use to measure tem- do work. What is the engine’s efficiency?
perature?
A. 0.75
A. thermometer
B. 0.49
B. Celsius
C. 0.25
C. both Fahrenheit & Celsius
D. 0.10
D. Fahrenheit

104. When heat is transferred when directly 109. On very hot days, animals will often find
touch a material, it is a patch of dirt on the ground to lay in to
keep cool. Which best explains how laying
A. radiation on the ground and dirt keeps the animal
B. convection cool?

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 44

A. The coolness from the ground is trans- A. The temperature at which water
ferred to the animals body, lowering the freezes
animals body temperature.
B. The hottest temperature that can be
B. Dirt on the ground protects the animal reached
from the heat in the air, lowering the ani-
C. The temperature at which water evap-
mal’s body temperature.
orates
C. The animal’s body temperature does
D. The temperature at which the
not change, but the dirt makes the animal

NARAYAN CHANGDER
molecules of a substance stop moving
feel cooler.
completely
D. Heat from the animals body is trans-
ferred to the ground, lowering the ani- 114. The amount of entropy is a sub-
mal’s body temperature. stance/object is related to its tempera-
ture. As the temperature of an object
110. Which of the following occurrences takes APPROACHES absolute 0, what happens
place due to convection? to its level of entropy?
A. An ice cube melts after being placed in
A. It increases
a warmer liquid.
B. It stays the same
B. An object left outside on a summer day
gets warmer. C. It decreases
C. A metal poker becomes hot after it is D. It never had any entropy to begin with
placed in a fire.
115. Measure of disorder and randomness in
D. A candle causes the surrounding air to
a system, this is called
rise as it warms.
A. heat energy
111. Good conductors of heat are and poor
conductors are called B. temperature

A. transmitters / receivers C. thermal equilibrium

B. conductors / insulators D. entropy
C. cations / anions 116. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes
D. none of above place by

112. Check all that apply, which of the follow- A. Conduction

ing would Joules be the appropriate label B. Convection
for?
C. Radiation
A. temperature
D. Conduction & Convection
B. heat
C. work 117. Heat transfer without touching is
D. thermal energy A. Conduction
E. specific heat capacity B. Radiation
C. Convection
113. Which of the following best describes ab-
solute zero? D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 45

118. Which material would NOT make a good D. Neither have kinetic energy they are
baking pan (for high temperatures in the not moving
oven)?

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123. Heat transfer by conduction occurs when
A. aluminum
B. plastic A. particles bump into each other (direct
C. steel contact)
D. glass B. large numbers of atoms move from
place to place (through air/fluid)
119. Why is the negative sign introduced in
C. waves or rays travel from place to
the equation of Fourier’s law of heat con-
place
duction
D. none of above
A. Because heat transfer rate is inversely
proportional to temperature gradient 124. The temperature scale that ranges from
B. Because value of thermal conductivity 273-373 is:
k is negative A. Celsius
C. Because heat is transferred from B. Kelvin
higher temperature to lower temperature
C. Fahrenheit
D. None of the above
D. all of the above
120. The energy from the sun is transmit-
125. occurs when a cooler, denser mass
ted through movement of electromagnetic
of a liquid or gas replaces a warmer, less
waves through space by
dense mass of a gas or liquid by pushing it
A. conduction upward.
B. convection A. Conduction
C. contraction B. Convection
D. radiation C. Radiation
121. The SI unit of heat and energy is the D. none of above
A. calorie 126. This type of heat transfer occurs when
B. heat items are in direct contact with one an-
other.
C. joule
A. Conduction
D. watt
B. Convection
122. Two identical plastic cups contain the C. Radiation
same amount of water. Cup 1 is 40 de-
grees C and cup 2 is 10 degrees C they are D. none of above
placed in a room that is 25 degrees CWhich 127. Hot objects begin to cool as-
cups have a higher average kinetic energy
A. cooler air is transferred to the hot ob-
A. Cup 1 ject.
B. Cup 2 B. thermal energy in the object is trans-
C. The kinetic energy is the same ferred to the surrounding air.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 46

C. atoms in the object react with the oxy- 133. When heat is added to or removed from
gen in the air. moving particles it changes their
D. thermal energy in the object cancels A. Physical characteristics
out energy in the air
B. Speed
128. The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics C. Ability to change state
states that if 3 objects are in contact with
one another, their temperatures will bal- D. Size

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ance with one another. We call this state:
134. What is the law of conservation of en-
A. Thermal Equilibrium ergy?
B. Thermal Expansion A. the total amount of energy on Earth is
C. Thermal Conduction constant
D. Thermal Blanket B. Energy can only be created when a
force acts on an object
129. As an object APPROACHES 0o K, what
happens to the particle movement within C. Heating an object creates energy and
that object? cooling destroys energy

A. The particle movement does not D. Energy cannot be created or destroyed

change
135. The amount of energy required to raise
B. The particles move much more slowly the temperature 1◦ C for every kilogram is
C. The particles move much more quickly called ?
D. There are no particles A. Thermal Energy

130. Feeling the hot air when opening the oven B. Specific Heat

A. Conduction C. Temperature
B. Convection D. Kinetic Energy
C. Radiation 136. Water bubbles up through a hot spring in
D. none of above Yellowstone National Park. What method
of heat transfer is this?
131. As fluid become warmer they become?
A. Conduction
A. less dense
B. Radiation
B. more dense
C. Convection
C. unknown
D. Specific Heat
D. none of above

132. You get sunburned due to from the 137. The reason why water boils causing the
sun. circular motion is due to?
A. conduction A. convection
B. convection B. conduction
C. radiation C. radiation
D. none of above D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 47

138. The SI unit for measuring heat is the 143. The fact that, in general, liquids and
gases expand when heated gives rise
A. pascal

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A. convection currents in fluids due to
B. newton
changing masses
C. Joule
B. convection currents in fluids due to
D. calorie changing densities
C. heat transfer by conduction
139. Poor conductors like wood and plastic are
called: D. convection currents in fluids due to
constant temperatures
A. conductors
B. insulators 144. Grilling hot dogs on a fire fueled by char-
coal is an example of heat produced by
C. burners
A. friction
D. none of above
B. burning fuels
140. Which of the following is an application C. mixing matter
of conduction?
D. electricity
A. Thermal energy from the Sun to Earth
145. is energy possessed by an object or
B. Pots having metals bodies and plastic
system due to movement of particles.
handles
A. heat
C. Vacuum flasks having silver bodies
B. thermal energy
D. Air conditioners cooling down a room
C. temperature
141. What is the original source of most of the D. geothermal energy
energy that people use?
146. Warm air rising causes what?
A. Energy that reaches Earth’s surface by
radiation from the Sun. A. snow to fall
B. Energy that reaches Earth’s surface by B. Sea breeze when cool air comes in
convection from the Sun. from the ocean
C. Energy that reaches Earth’s surface by C. people to go swimming
radiation from Earth’s core. D. none of above
D. Energy that reaches Earth’s surface by 147. What has particularly high specific heat?
conduction from Earth’s core.
A. Water
142. What common substance has a relatively B. Gases
high specific heat capacity, that is it ab-
sorbs lots of energy before heating up? C. Metals
D. Poptarts
A. lead
B. sand 148. A steam engine takes in 2.254 x 104 kJ
from the boiler and gives up 1.915 x 104
C. water
kJ in exhaust during one cycle, what is the
D. All are the same engine’s efficiency?

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 48

A. 0.85 B. Liquid
B. 0.15 C. Gas
C. 0.34 D. Texas
D. 1.06
154. The Q in the equation stands for
149. A quantity of matter with fixed identity, A. heat being added
around which we can draw a boundary.
B. work being done

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. surrounding
C. change in internal energy
B. heat
D. none of above
C. boundary
D. system 155. A metal spoon placed in a bowl of hot
soup is heated by
150. Which of the following is needed for con-
vection to happen? A. radiation
A. Fluid/s B. conduction
B. Light in the form or rays C. friction
C. Electromagnetic waves D. convection
D. Fire
156. Transfer of thermal energy through
151. Which law of thermodynamics states “touch”
that absolute zero cannot be reached? A. conduction
A. 1st B. convection
B. 2nd C. radiation
C. 3rd
D. none of above
D. none of above
157. A microwave oven uses which of the
152. This illustration shows how heat can following types of heat transfer to heat
move through the atmosphere as air circu- foods?
lates. What causes the circulation of air?
A. Microwave elves
A. Air in the atmosphere is heated by the
Sun and sinks to the ground. B. Radiation
B. The ground is heated by the Sun and C. Convection
then heats the air, causing the air to rise. D. Conduction
C. Air loses heat to the ground and then
rises upward to obtain more energy. 158. In which of the following is heat trans-
ferred through DIRECT CONTACT?
D. The Sun heats the clouds which forces
the cooler air to move away and sink. A. Radiation
B. Conduction
153. Which state of matter generally has the
MOST entropy? C. Convection
A. Solid D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 49

159. You buy a lava lamp from the store. As A. The pavement will conduct the heat
the lamp heats up, blobs of liquid rise to and cook the egg.
the top then sink back down to the bottom.

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B. The egg will reflect the heat and make
This process continues because of ?
the pavement hotter underneath.
A. conduction
C. The egg will absorb the heat and leave
B. convection the pavement hotter underneath.
C. radiation D. The pavement will absorb the heat
D. none of above from the egg, and the egg will stay raw.

160. Plants in a greenhouse are warmed dur- 165. Heat flows from one body to other when
ing the day. they have
A. Conduction A. Different heat contents
B. Convection B. Different specific heat
C. Radiation
C. Different atomic structure
D. none of above
D. Different temperatures
161. A metal spoon is left in a hot cup of
soup and hurts the hand of the person who 166. Which quantity is a measure of how much
grabs the spoon. the temperature of a substance increases
when a given amount of heat energy is im-
A. Conduction parted to it?
B. Convection
A. Joules
C. Radiation
B. Kelvin
D. none of above
C. Specific heat
162. A steak is cooked because it is sitting un- D. Thermal conductivity
der a glowing broiler.
E. coefficient of linear expansion
A. Conduction
B. Convection 167. How many kinds of heat transfer are
C. Radiation there?

D. none of above A. 1
B. 2
163. How does thermal energy move in
solids? C. 3
A. insulation D. 4 or more
B. conduction
168. How is air heated in our atmosphere
C. radiation
A. convection
D. convection
B. conduction
164. Which will most likely occur when raw
C. radiation
egg is placed on black pavement on a hot,
summer day? D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 50

169. Conduction 175. What does convection cause in the air?

A. The transfer of thermal energy A. hot summer days
through solids B. rain
B. The transfer of thermal energy
C. wind
through liquids and gases
D. floods
C. The transfer of thermal energy as elec-
tromagnetic waves 176. On a sunny day, you return to your car

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above after a ball game. The inside of the car is
very hot. How did the car get so warm?
170. What is an example of an insulator?
A. Conduction
A. Iron
B. Convection
B. Metal
C. Radiation
C. Plastic
D. Specific Heat
D. Copper
177. You are stirring a bowl of hot soup with
171. Ironing a shirt is an example of a metal spoon. The spoon starts to feel
A. condensation warmer because of ?
B. conduction A. conduction
C. convection B. convection
D. radiation C. radiation
172. Feeling the sun’s warmth on your face is D. none of above
an example of:
178. Sam placed a glass of water in the refrig-
A. radiation erator. After about an hour he took it out
B. conducation and found it to be colder. What is the most
likely thing that happened?
C. convection
A. the cold that was in the refrigerator
D. none of above
transferred into the water
173. Your fancy air fryer works using B. the particles in the water started to
A. conduction move faster
B. convection C. the cold from the refrigerator radiated
into the glass
C. radiation
D. the heat that was in the water trans-
D. lamination
ferred out into the refrigerator
174. Which is most responsible for the uneven
heating of the air in the atmosphere? 179. Your best friend has a bunk bed. You
move from the bottom bunk to the top
A. radiation bunk and notice that the air is warmer.
B. conduction The warm air rises because of ?
C. convection A. conduction
D. conductor B. convection

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 51

C. radiation 185. Specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g◦ C.

D. none of above Specific heat of wood is 1.760 J/g◦ C
What material needs more heat energy to

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180. Which of the following is an example of raise the temperature?
steady state heat transfer A. Water
A. Boilers and turbines
B. Wood
B. Cooling of I.C engine
C. Both are same
C. Chilling effect of cold wind on a warm
D. none of above
body
D. Electric bulb cools down by the sur- 186. Sawing a piece of wood causes the end
rounding atmosphere being sawed to become warm. In this case,
heat is produced by
181. Convection
A. burning fuels
A. The transfer of thermal energy
through liquids and gases B. mixing matter

B. The transfer of thermal energy C. electricity

through solids D. friction
C. The transfer of thermal energy as elec- 187. A snake is laying on a rock in the sun.
tromagnetic waves Which heat transfers are affecting him?
D. none of above
A. conduction
182. Which one the explanations of the abso- B. convection
lute zero of temperature is a wrong one.
C. radiation
A. The absolute zero of temperature is-
D. lamination
273.15 ◦ C
B. Zero degrees Kelvin 188. How does the radiation heat transfer oc-
C. At absolute zero of temperature, the cur through perfect vaccum?
substance has maximum internal energy A. By light waves
D. At absolute zero of temperature, the B. By electromagnetic waves
substance has minimum internal energy. C. Both a & b
183. What is boiling water in Celsius? D. None of them
A. 212
189. In a liquid the particles are moving
B. 112 quickly. When heat is added they have
C. 100 more energy, but this energy is trans-
ferred from particle to particle in a differ-
D. 50
ent way than in a solid. The reason for
184. Energy from the sun reaches Earth by this is because of the
A. radiation A. Speed of the particles
B. conduction B. Space between the particles
C. convection C. Types of particles
D. none of above D. Temperature of the particles

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 52

190. Objects with higher temperatures have A. 0◦

A. particles with higher average kinetic B. 32◦
energy C. 100◦
B. particles with lower average kinetic D. 212◦
energy
C. particles with no kinetic energy 195. The temperature at which an object’s en-
ergy is minimal is called
D. more thermal energy no matter what

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. absolute zero
191. Study of how heat moves is called B. minimum temperature
A. thermodynamics C. zero
B. thermometer D. none of above
C. heat energy
196. Energy that is transferred from an object
D. thermal expansion at a higher temperature to an object at a
lower temperature is called
192. If you place a cold cup of water in the
direct sunlight on a hot day, what change A. Heat
will take place in the thermal energy of the B. Temperature
particles that make up the water?
C. Radiation
A. The particles will remain the same.
D. none of above
B. The solar energy will cause the parti-
cles will slow down because the sun will 197. When water is heated from 10◦ C to 15◦ C
make the water warmer. What is the change in temperature?
C. The particles will become smaller A. 10 ◦ C
when the sun’s energy heats the water up. B. 5 ◦ C
D. The solar energy will cause the water C. 15 ◦ C
to warm up. This will cause the parti-
cles of water to change from moving very D. 25 ◦ C
slowly-less thermal energy (when cold) to 198. What is the name of the process in which
moving quickly as they gain thermal en- pressure remains constant.
ergy (warm up).
A. Isochoric process
193. It was very sunny outside, and Mike B. Adiabatic process
wanted to wear a shirt that would keep
him cool. Which color shirt would be best C. Isobaric process
for Mike to wear? D. Isolated process
A. black 199. Which of the following is the flow of ther-
B. white mal energy?
C. brown A. Temperature
D. purple B. Heat

194. What is the boiling point of water in C. Average kinetic energy

Fahrenheit? D. Thermal energy does not flow, silly!

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 53

200. The average kinetic energy of the parti- 205. What method of heat transfer uses direct
cles that make up a material is the of contact?
the material.

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A. Conduction
A. temperature B. Convection
B. thermal energy C. Radiation
C. mechanical energy D. none of above
D. none of above 206. When you heat a pot on a stove, the han-
dle gets warm. Which type of heat trans-
201. Turning on a ceiling fan to cool down a fer is responsible?
room
A. Conduction
A. Conduction
B. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Convection
C. Radiation D. All of the above
D. none of above
207. Which direction does HEAT flow?
202. When a system is in equilibrium, that A. From Hot to Cold
means B. From Cold to Hot
A. The parts of the system are in balance. C. From Home to School
B. All parts of the system are the same D. It does not flow
size.
208. Which of the following is best at reflect-
C. The system has no energy left.
ing infrared radiation?
D. none of above A. Dark, matt surface
203. The transfer of energy by electromag- B. Light, shiny surface
netic waves is called C. Dark, shiny surface
A. conduction D. none of above
B. convection 209. You take a cold can of soda off of a
C. radiation counter top. The counter top underneath
the can feels colder than the rest of the
D. none of above counter. Which of the following explains
this occurrence?
204. A chair is placed several feet from a fire-
place. The fireplace has a glass screen. A. The cold has been transferred from
The side of the chair facing the fireplace the soda to the counter.
gets warm because of B. There is no heat energy left in the
A. conduction counter beneath the can.
C. Some heat has been transferred from
B. convection
the counter to the soda.
C. radiation
D. The heat beneath the can moves away
D. none of above into other parts of the countertop.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 54

210. What is constant in an isothermal pro- in the cup is no longer cold. Which best
cess? explains why the water in the cup is no
A. Temperature longer cold?

B. Pressure A. The coldness of the water transferred

to the air, making the water in the cup
C. Heat
warmer.
D. none of above
B. The coldness of the water was con-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
211. g of water. specific heat of water is ducted to the cup, making the water in the
4.18 J/g◦ C . temperature changes from cup warmer.
25◦ C to 20◦ C, how much heat energy C. The heat from the air transferred to
(Q) moves from the water to the surround- the water in the cup, making the water in
ings? the cup warmer.
A. 418 Joules
D. The heat from the air caused the cold
B. 209 J water in the cup to condense, making the
C. 83 J water warmer.
D. 4.18 J 216. Heat is closely related with
212. The energy transferred from a hotter ob- A. Liquid
ject to a cooler one is referred to as
B. Energy
A. heat
C. Temperature
B. transfer
D. Entropy
C. brrrrr
D. energy 217. In the Heat Transfer Cooking lab, the con-
stants were
213. Which is the best example of radiation?
A. the types of cooking methods
A. warming hot dogs over a fire
B. boiling water on a stove-top burner B. the amount and type of ingredients in
the cake
C. burning a piece of paper with a candle
flame C. the cake cooked in the regular ovens
D. hot air balloon rising D. the way the cake tasted

214. Which material is the best conductor of 218. You leave a piping hot bowl of ramen on
heat? the table with a metal spork in it. When
A. Wood you grab the spork, your hand gets burned.
What is the major type of heat transfer in-
B. Plastic
volved?
C. Glass
A. conduction
D. Steel
B. convection
215. A student places a cup of cold water on
C. radiation
a counter in a hot room. After a short
time, the student notices that the water D. lamination

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 55

219. In which of the following is heat trans- 224. Heat transfer takes place as per-
ferred through the movement of WAVES A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
or PARTICLES through space?

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B. Second law of thermodynamics
A. Radiation
C. First law of thermodynamics
B. Conduction
D. Kirchoff’s law (e) stefan’s law
C. Convection
D. none of above 225. When heat transferred from hot body to
cold body, in a straight line without affect-
220. Water boiling in a pot ing the intervening medium it referred as
heat transfer by
A. Conduction
A. Conduction
B. Convection
B. Convection
C. Radiation
C. Radiation
D. none of above
D. Both a & b
221. Metals are good conductors of heat be-
cause 226. What is absolute zero? Mark 2 correct
answers
A. Their atoms collide frequently
A. 0 K
B. Their atoms are relatively far apart
B. 273 K
C. They contain free electrons
C. 0oC
D. They have high density
D. The temperature at which molecular
222. Popcorn cooking in a microwave motion is as low as possible.
A. Conduction E. The temperature at which molecular
B. Convection motion is at its maximum.

C. Radiation 227. The transfer of thermal energy between

D. none of above objects that are touching is known as:
A. thermodynamics
223. At the seashore late in the afternoon on
a hot day, a person often feels a strong B. conduction
breeze coming from the ocean because C. radiation
A. the pounding waves generate air cur- D. heat
rents
228. Sam decided to deviate from the origi-
B. warm air over the ocean rushes in to nal lab and investigate on his own. He
replace the cool air that rises over the held a 75 gram metal sample of copper, c=
land .092 cal/g*C into the flame directly and
C. the heavy, cool air over the ocean dropped it into the calorimeter that had
rushes in to replace the warm air that 100.0 grams of water in it and the water
rises over the land temp. went from 24.5*C to 50*C. What
D. there are no clouds to block the wind was the initial temp. of the metal?
coming in from the ocean A. 369.6 *C

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 56

B. 319.6 *C 234. What is the definition of CONDUCTION?

C. 419.6 *C A. When heat is transferred from objects
D. 1, 019 *C like rays of light or electromagnetically.
B. a hot liquid or air that expands, be-
229. Jackson likes to cook but is always in a
comes less dense, and rises or becomes
hurry. He needs a pot that will cook his
more dense, and sinks.
food quickly. Which is the best material
for his cooking pot? C. When heat transfers from objects that

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. copper are touching.

B. glass D. When heat transfers through the

heater or AC in your house.
C. plastic
D. wood 235. When you hold a metal coat hanger in a
camp fire to roast a marshmallow, the coat
230. What is the freezing point of water in Cel- hanger might become too hot to hold. Why
sius? might the coat hanger get too hot?
A. 0◦ A. The heat radiates along the coat
B. 32◦ hanger.
C. 100◦ B. The heat builds up near the flame un-
D. 212◦ til it can’t hold it anymore and then moves
along the coat hanger.
231. A huge rock at the state park gets so hot
during the day (by the sun ) that you can’t C. Metal atoms vibrate with more energy
sit on it from when they get hot, and they collide with
atoms near them, which causes the neigh-
A. Conduction boring atoms to vibrate.
B. Convection D. Since metals melt in fire, they react
C. Radiation strongly to fire and get hot easily.
D. none of above
236. What is the efficiency of a machine if
232. Heating a closed, steel container is an ex- 55.3 J of work are done on the machine,
ample of an but only 14.3 J is produced by the 1ma-
A. Adiabatic process chine?
B. Isovolumetric process A. 0.25 J
C. Isothermal process B. 26%
D. Isobaric process C. 386%

233. A kid holds the back of his hand near an D. 3.86 J

iron to see if it’s hot. Heat is transferred
237. Which best explains why a hot air balloon
by
rises into the air?
A. Conduction
A. As the air is cooled, it becomes more
B. Convection dense and the balloon rises.
C. Radiation B. As the air is cooled, it becomes less
D. none of above dense and the balloon rises.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 57

C. As the air is heated, it becomes less 243. A piece of metal will feel colder than a
dense and the balloon rises. piece of wood at the same temperature.
Why?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. As the air is heated, it becomes more
dense and the balloon stays close to the A. Metal atoms are moving more slowly,
ground. on the average, than wood atoms.

238. Which is the best example of heat trans- B. Metals, in general, are good heat con-
fer by convection? ductors.

A. frying bacon in a pan C. Metals are colder than wood.

B. sea breeze at the beach D. Wood, in general, is a poor insulator.
C. melting ice in your hand 244. When heat is transferred by the move-
D. burning your finger on the stove ment of currents within a fluid it is called
A. conduction
239. On a warm sunny day, you will feel
cooler wearing light colored clothes be- B. convection
cause they C. radiation
A. reflect more radiated heat energy. D. none of above
B. prevent sweating.
245. Joe is cooking dinner on the stove. When
C. are not as heavy as dark clothes.
he picks up the pan by the handle, he burns
D. let more air in. his hand. Which form of heat transfer
caused Joe to burn his hand?
240. When heat is transferred by molecular
collision, it is referred to A. radiation
A. Conduction B. conduction
B. Convection C. convection
C. Radiation D. insulator
D. Both a & b 246. Calculate the amount of Heat lost by 27.3
241. The transfer of energy caused by the col- kg of brass as it cools from 65o C to 30o C.
lision of molecules is called (The specific heat of brass is 376 J/kg*C

A. convection A. 189, 765 J

B. conduction B. -274, 832 J

C. radiation C. -359, 268 J

D. none of above D. 431, 943 J

242. In , energy is transferred by waves. 247. An adiabatic process occurs at constant

A. convection A. Temperature
B. radiation B. Pressure
C. conduction C. Heat
D. none of above D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 58

248. You blow on your cup of hot chocolate to C. Radiation

cool it down. What type of heat transfer D. none of above
is occurring?
A. forced conduction 254. Why are gases poor conductors of elec-
tricity?
B. forced convection
A. Particles are close together and colli-
C. forced radiation sions are more frequent
D. forced lamination B. Particles are far apart and collisions

NARAYAN CHANGDER
are less frequent
249. Thermal energy is
C. Particles are close together and colli-
A. Heat energy
sions are less frequent
B. Cold energy
D. Particles are far apart and collisions
C. Warm socks are more frequent
D. none of above
255. What is body temperature in Fahren-
250. What is a transfer of energy through col- heit?
liding particles? A. 37
A. Convection B. 47
B. Conduction C. 98.6
C. Radiation D. 96.8
D. none of above 256. Everything in the universe that is outside
251. Open system a defined system.

A. can exchange both energy and matter A. Surroundings

with surrounding B. Open system
B. can exchange matter but not energy C. Closed system
with the surrounding D. Thermodynamics
C. can exchange energy but not matter
257. can neither exchange energy nor matter
with surrounding
with the surrounding
D. can neither exchange matter and en-
A. Isolated system
ergy with the surrounding
B. isovolumetric system
252. Which is NOT a unit of heat?
C. open system
A. calorie
D. closed system
B. Joule
258. In a vacuum flask, which methods of heat
C. kiloJoule
transfer is / are prevented by the vac-
D. Newton uum?
253. What form of heat transfer is when A. Conduction only
warm air rises and cold air sinks? B. Convection only
A. Conduction C. Conduction and convection
B. Convection D. Conduction, convection and radiation

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 59

259. Which of the following is the cause of 264. What are the four temperature scales?
heat moving from one object to another? A. Fahrenheit (F)

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Radioactive decay by the nucleus of B. Rankine (R)
the hot atom.
C. Celcius (C)
B. Atomic polarization of one object by an-
other. D. Joule (J)
C. Differences in temperature between E. Kelvin (K)
the two objects.
265. What is an example of conductor?
D. Physics magic of course!
A. Metal
260. You are in science class and want to see B. Wood
if the hot plates were used recently. You
place your hand near the side of the hot C. Plastic
plate. Without touching the hot plate, D. wool
your hand feels warmer. Heat is trans-
ferred to your hand by ? 266. What kind of heat transfer occurs when
an object comes in contact with a heat
A. conduction
source?
B. convection
A. Conduction
C. radiation
B. Convection
D. none of above
C. Radiation
261. In an adiabatic process there is no D. none of above
transfer between the gas and the sur-
roundings. 267. A person places a metal spoon that is
A. Kinetic Energy at room temperature into a bowl of hot
soup. How will the thermal energies of the
B. Work
spoon and soup be affected as time goes
C. Thermal Energy on?
D. none of above A. The spoon will increase in thermal en-
262. What is the transfer of heat by move- ergy, and the soup will decrease in ther-
ment of liquids or gases? mal energy.

A. conduction B. Both the spoon and the soup will in-

crease in thermal energy.
B. convection
C. Both the spoon and the soup will de-
C. radiation crease in thermal energy.
D. none of above
D. The spoon will decrease in thermal en-
263. What kind of heat transfer happens when ergy, and the soup will increase in thermal
the sun is heating your body? energy.
A. Conduction 268. Heat travels from the sun to the earth by
B. Radiation the process of
C. Convection A. conduction
D. Density B. convection

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 60

C. radiation 274. Bill stands in a swimming pool and no-

D. insulation tices that the water around his feet is a
lot cooler than the water near the sur-
269. Tires for cars, bicycles and lawn mowers face. Which process causes this difference
are made of rubber. Which best explains in temperature?
why tires are made of rubber? A. convection
A. Rubber can be dyed many different col-
B. radiation
ors.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. conduction
B. Rubber can withstand heat caused by
friction. D. insulation
C. Rubber can be molded into many differ-
275. A thermometer measures temperature
ent shapes.
which is best described as
D. Rubber does not tear.
A. heat movement of particles
270. Everyday the earth is warmed by the sun. B. average kinetic energy of particles
What kind of heat transfer is taking place
in this process? C. calorimetry experiment

A. radiation D. specific heat of a substance

B. conduction 276. Combination of conditions and influences
C. convection outside a system that affect the behaviour
of a system.
D. what is a ‘sun’?
A. Surrounding/ Environment
271. Through which of the following will con-
vection most likely occur? B. system

A. liquids and gases C. atmosphere

B. solids and liquids D. boundary
C. solids 277. You are doing your homework at a desk
D. solids and gases that is underneath a lamp. You start to
feel hotter because of ? from the
272. Energy is the ability to cause matter to lamp.
A. Turn into Pokemon A. conduction
B. Stay the same
B. convection
C. Change
C. radiation
D. none of above
D. none of above
273. Rising warm air currents is an example
of 278. What is thermodynamics?
A. convection A. movement of heat
B. conduction B. it’s magic
C. radiation C. measurement of heat
D. none of above D. none of them

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 61

279. All of the following are examples of good C. The quicker a molecule moves, the
conductors EXCEPT: warmer it is
D. The movement on molecule don t af-

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A. coat hanger
B. metal spoon fect its temperature

C. wooden spoon 285. Amy wraps her dolls in blankets but

can’t understand why they don’t warm up.
D. sauce pan
Why don’t they warm up?
280. What type of heat transfer is used when A. The blankets she uses are probably
cooking in a microwave? poor insulators.
A. convection B. The blankets she uses are probably
B. conduction poor conductors.
C. radiation C. The dolls are made of materials which
don’t hold heat well.
D. none of above
D. None of the above.
281. Which is a conductor?
286. Which of the following is not a way that
A. wool sweater heat can be transferred?
B. aluminum foil A. Radiation
C. oven mitt B. Convection
D. wooden spoon C. Conduction
282. Which of the following units of measuring D. Subduction
heat is based upon the boiling and freezing 287. The transfer of thermal energy when par-
points of water? ticles of a fluid move from on place to an-
A. Celsius other is called:
B. Fahrenheit A. thermodynamics
C. Kelvin B. convection
D. none of above C. radiation
D. conduction
283. On a hot day, the upstairs rooms in a
house are usually hotter than the down- 288. K in Fahrenheit is:
stairs rooms. Why? A. 16
A. Cool air is less dense than hot air. B. 562
B. Warm air rises and cool air sinks. C. 60.8
C. The roof insulation warms the air. D. 30.8
D. Heat rises. 289. Which method of energy transfer does
not involve movement of matter?
284. Which statement is true?
A. convection
A. The quicker a molecule moves, the
colder it is. B. conduction
B. The slower a molecule moves, the C. radiation
warmer it is. D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 62

290. The sand burning your feet while walking 295. The energy transferred between objects
on the beach on a hot day due to their temperature difference de-
A. Conduction fines

B. Convection A. temperature

C. Radiation B. heat

D. none of above C. thermal energy

D. kinetic energy

NARAYAN CHANGDER
291. Which of the following is not true for a
isovolumetric process 296. Heat transfer occurs three ways. Heat is
A. Internal energy may change transferred by , convection, and radia-
tion.
B. Heat may be exchanged
A. thermal energy
C. Work is done
B. waves
D. Volume does not change
C. conduction
292. Which best describes ENTROPY?
D. radiant energy
A. Useful heat energy needed to drive an
engine 297. The equation for cyclic process
B. Heat that can be stored to be used at A. U=Q
a later date
B. Q=-W
C. Random energy that escapes from the
C. Qnet= Wnet(Qh-Qc)
system
D. U = Q-W
D. A state of order in a physical system

293. What is the definition of conduction? 298. Sunlight warms an area of Earth’s sur-
face. Winds then carry thermal energy
A. When heat is transferred from objects from this area to another location. Which
like rays of light or electromagnetically. two methods of heat transfer processes
B. a hot liquid or air that expands, be- are primarily involved in this situation?
comes less dense, and rises or becomes A. conduction and convection.
more dense, and sinks.
B. conduction and evaporation.
C. When heat transfers between objects
that are touching. C. radiation and convection.
D. When heat transfers between objects D. radiation and evaporation.
that are near each other but not touching.
299. What is the efficiency of the machine if
294. What is room temperature in Fahren- the input is 263 J and a the useful output
heit? is 142 J?
A. 20 A. 6.26%
B. 32 B. 54%
C. 0 C. 100%
D. 68 D. 260%

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 63

300. List the correct order of conduction.1. C. insulation

They collide more vigorously with neigh-
D. radiation
bouring particles2. Particles at the heated

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

end gain kinetic energy and vibrate vig- 305. The states that energy moves from
orously.3. Particles at cooler end vibrate an area of high heat to an area of low heat,
vigorously. unless work is done on the system.
A. 1, 2, 3
A. first law of thermodynamics
B. 3, 2, 1
B. second law of thermodynamics
C. 2, 1, 3
C. law of conservation of mass
D. 1, 3, 2
D. law of conservation of momentum
301. Which is NOT a way that heat transfers?
A. Conduction 306. Transfer of thermal energy through
“space”
B. Convection
A. conduction
C. Saturation
B. convection
D. Radiation
C. radiation
302. Jake says his thermometer reads 65 de-
grees and Jessie says her thermometer D. none of above
says 18 degrees. Their teacher says they
are both correct. How is this true? 307. When a popsicle melts, the particles

A. Jake is in a different country than A. gain thermal energy and speed up

Jessie. B. there are no particles in popsicles
B. The teacher likes Jake better. C. lose thermal energy and slow down
C. Jake is using a thermometer that mea- D. stay the same
sures heat in degrees Fahrenheit and
Jessie’s thermometer measures degrees 308. What unit do you use to measure Temper-
Celsius. ature?
D. Jessie’s thermometer is working and A. J/Kg ◦ C
Jake’s is not working.
B. Kg
303. Which method of heat transfer DOES re-
C. ◦ C
quire the presence of a fluid (gas or liq-
uid)? D. J
A. Conduction
309. One is equal to the amount of energy
B. Convection needed to raise the temperature of 1g of
C. Radiation water by 1 degree C.
D. none of above A. Calorie

304. Heat from the sun travels to Earth by B. Heat

A. conduction C. Thermal Energy
B. convection D. Temperature

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 64

310. Why are cooking utensils usually fitted A. 131670 J

with plastic or wooden handles?
B. 159885 J
A. Plastic and wood are good conductors
C. -131670
of heat.
B. Plastic and wood are poor conductors D. none of the above
of heat.
315. The law stating that energy is neither cre-
C. Plastic and wood are very dense. ated nor destroyed; it only changes form.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Plastic and wood are poor insulators. It is also known as the law of conservation
of energy.
311. What is absolute zero?
A. First Law of Thermodynamics
A. The temperature at which all molec-
ular movement ceases, equivalent to- B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
459.67 F. C. Third Law of Thermodynamics
B. The law of thermodynamics that ap- D. Fourth Law of Thermodynamics
plies only within a black hole.
C. The temperature at which water 316. What are the three modes of heat trans-
freezes, equivalent to 32 F or 0 C. fer? (Choose three)
D. The temperature at which all A. Conduction
molecules reach the highest level of en- B. Affection
tropy.
C. Convection
312. What cannot happen according to the Law
D. Radiation
of Conservation of Energy?
E. Insulation
A. Energy cannot be transformed into an-
other state of matter.
317. Near the ceiling of a room the air is
B. Energy cannot be converted from one warmer. The warmer air rises because of
form to another.
C. Energy cannot be created or de- A. Conduction
stroyed.
B. Convection
D. Energy cannot be changed.
C. Radiation
313. What heat transfer happens when you
D. none of above
burn your hand by touching a fire?
A. Radiation 318. How much heat does an aluminum block
B. Conduction absorb if 10.0 grams are heated from
25.0oC to 50.0oC? The specific heat of alu-
C. Convectio minum is 0.900J/goC.
D. I don’t know!!!!!!!!!!! A. 450 J
314. What quantity of heat is required to raise B. -450 J
the temperature of 450 grams of water
C. 225 J
from 15◦ C to 85◦ C? The specific heat ca-
pacity of water is 4.18 J/g/◦ C. D. -225 J

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 65

319. A piece of ice is added to water in a cup. 323. Which method of energy transfer does
The entropy not need a meduim?

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A. decreased A. convection
B. increased B. conduction
C. no change C. radiation
D. decreases then increases. D. None of the above

320. A circular movement of matter with dif- 324. Maria burned herself when she picked up
ferent amounts of heat energy create a a hot iron skillet from the stove. What
method of heat transfer caused the burn?
A. ocean current
A. Convection
B. heat current
B. Conduction
C. convection current
C. Specific Heat
D. none of above
D. Radiation
321. A student is trying to open a jar with a 325. What method of heat transfer uses flu-
metal lid. The lid of the jar is very tight, ids?
and the student is not able to open it. The
student puts the jar and lid under hot wa- A. Radiation
ter, and then attempts to open it. The lid B. Conduction
easily opens. Which best explains why the
C. Convection
lid was easy to open after putting it under
hot water? D. none of above
A. The hot water melted the glue that was 326. The inside of a vacuum flask is often
holding the lid shut, making it easier to shiny because
open.
A. shiny materials are good emitters of
B. The hot water expanded the metal lid heat and prevents heat loss through radi-
of the jar, making it easier to open. ation
C. The hot water caused the jar to con- B. shiny materials are poor emitters of
tract, making the lid easier to open. heat and prevents heat loss through radi-
D. The hot water made it easier for the ation
student to get a grip on the jar, so it was C. shiny materials are good emitters of
easier to open. heat and prevents heat loss through con-
duction
322. The second law of thermodynamics
states that entropy of a system tends to D. shiny materials are poor emitters of
heat and prevents heat loss through con-
duction
A. increase
327. If you put a metal spoon and a wooden
B. decrease
spoon into a pot of boiling water, one will
C. stay constant become too hot to touch. Why?
D. fluctuate wildly A. Metals conduct heat better than wood.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 66

B. Wood conducts heat better than met- C. A liquid freezes.

als.
D. A liquid boils.
C. Metals pull in heat because heat is at-
tracted to metals. 333. What does absolute zero mean?
D. Wood isn’t as strong as metals. A. A failed quiz.
328. When placed in direct sunlight, which ob- B. The lowest temperature possible.
ject will absorb the most radiation?
C. The hottest temperature possible.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. A black sweater
D. A race.
B. A white sweater
C. A snowball 334. What is conduction?
D. Aluminum foil A. When energy moves from one place to
another through contact
329. While escaping a burning house, a boy
can feel the heat from the fire above him. B. When energy moves in circular pat-
terns
A. Conduction
C. When atoms break apart
B. Convection
D. none of above
C. Radiation
D. none of above 335. Why does convection only occur in liquids
and gases?
330. Samantha’s hands are cold and she wants
to warm them up by rubbing them to- A. The particles in solids heat up quickly.
gether. Samantha is using friction to con- B. The particles in solids can flow.
vert
C. The particles in liquids and gases can
A. thermal energy to mechanical energy.
flow.
B. electrical energy to frictional energy.
D. Solids are poor conductors of heat.
C. mechanical energy to thermal energy.
D. frictional energy to electrical energy. 336. In , heat is transferred by the currents
within a liquid or gas.
331. If an object with a LOW specific heat is
A. conduction
heated, will wax that is placed upon that
object B. convection
A. melt quickly C. radiation
B. melt slowly D. none of above
C. not melt at all
337. An regular oven transfers heat through
D. instantly vaporize
A. Microwaves
332. Which one of these would result in a de-
crease in entropy? B. Infrared Radiation
A. A solid solute dissolves in water. C. Convection
B. A gas is released. D. Conduction

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 67

338. The first law of thermodynamics is basi- 343. Convection currents form when warm air
cally the same as rises and cold air sinks. What causes the
warm air to rise and the cold air to sink?

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A. Newton’s first law
A. a difference in density
B. The law of conservation of momentum
B. a difference in weather
C. The law of conservation of energy
C. a difference in climate
D. Newton’s second law
D. a difference in substance
339. When a baked potato at 10 ◦ C is heated 344. Which of the following units of measuring
to 180 ◦ C in the oven its temperature heat is based upon the atomic/subatomic
change is movement of particles?
A. 170 ◦ C A. Celsius
B. 10 ◦ C B. Fahrenheit
C. 180 ◦ C C. Kelvin
D. 190 ◦ C D. none of above
345. Entropy is a measure of in a system.
340. Measures how well an engine/ system
works A. heat

A. energy flow diagram B. organization

C. molecules
B. thermodynamics
D. disarray
C. heat
346. During the day, a thermometer placed in
D. efficiency
the shade rises to 94◦
341. Warm air over the beach raises while A. Conduction
cooler dense air from the ocean rushes in B. Convection
due to
C. Radiation
A. Conduction
D. none of above
B. Convection
347. Which thermodynamics process involves
C. Radiation constant temperature? ∆T = 0
D. none of above A. Isobaric
B. Isochoric
342. When a piece of aluminum foil is taken
out of the oven and cools from 100◦ C C. Isothermal
to 50◦ C. What is the change in tempera- D. Adiabatic
ture?
348. Sensible heat is required to
A. -50◦ C
A. Change liquid into vapor
B. 50◦ C
B. Change vapor into liquid
C. 100◦ C
C. Convert water into stream and super-
D. 150◦ C heat it

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 68

D. Increase the temperature of a liquid of 354. Burning your tongue on a hot soup
vapor A. Conduction
349. What is radiation? B. Convection
A. A form of heat transfer where energy C. Radiation
moves by contact D. none of above
B. A form of heat transfer where energy
moves by waves, even in empty space. 355. How does heat flow?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A form of heat transfer where energy A. Always from cold to warm
moves in circular waves. B. Always from warm to cold
D. none of above C. Both warm to cold & cold to warm
350. The first law of thermodynamics is a re- D. It depends on the temperature
statement of the
356. Warm water rising in a pot on a stove is
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics an example of:
B. law of heat addition A. radiation
C. principle of entropy B. conduction
D. conservation of energy C. convection
351. which one can radiation travel threw D. none of above
A. Water 357. Mark all that apply:Which of the follow-
B. Vacuum ing are units of temperature?
C. house A. Kelvin
D. none of above B. Celsius
C. Joule
352. Calculate the amount of energy required
to melt 35.0 grams of ice.(not in sig figs) D. Kilocalorie
(Lf) or Hf = 334.0 J/g, (Lv) or Hv = 2260J E. Joule / gram * degree celsius
/g.
358. What is the freezing point of water in
A. 79100J
Fahrenheit?
B. 146.3J
A. 0◦
C. 11690J
B. 32◦
D. 39939.9J
C. 100◦
353. When placed in direct sunlight, which ob- D. 212◦
ject will absorb the most radiated heat en-
ergy? 359. What is room temperature in Celsius?
A. A white sweater A. 59
B. A snowball B. 20
C. Aluminum foil C. 68
D. A black sweater D. 32

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 69

360. For an isothermal process, which of the C. 32

following statements is correct?
D. 35

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A. Work, heat, and internal energy all un-
dergo changes. 365. What do we call the phase change of a
B. No work is done; internal energy SOLID turning directly into a LIQUID?
change is due to heat. A. Sublimation
C. Work and heat balance each other, so B. Melting
that there is no change in internal energy.
C. Condensation
D. No energy is transferred as heat; in-
ternal energy change is due to work. D. Boiling/Evaporation

361. Pancakes cooking on a pan 366. Burning your hand on an iron

A. Conduction A. Conduction
B. Convection B. Convection
C. Radiation
C. Radiation
D. none of above
D. none of above
362. If thermodynamic system A and thermo-
dynamic system B are in equilibrium with 367. a form of energy but is energy in transit,
each other, which of the following will oc- it is also the action of a force on an object
cur? through a distance.
A. Heat will transfer back and forth be- A. work
tween the two systems indefinitely. B. heat
B. System A will be in equilibrium with
C. solar energy
system C, but system B will not.
C. One of the systems will become very D. system
hot, and the other will become very cold.
368. is the transfer of heat by the move-
D. Both A and B will be in equilibrium with ment of a fluid.
thermodynamic system C.
A. Conduction
363. A flow of energy due to temperature dif-
B. Convection
ference is known as
C. Radiation
A. Endothermic
B. Exothermic D. none of above

C. Energy 369. Heat moves by when it travels

D. Temperature through waves.
E. Heat A. radiation

364. What is freezing in Fahrenheit? B. conduction

A. 100 C. insulator
B. 0 D. convection

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 70

370. what is the meaning of conduction 375. A thermodynamic system where no ex-
change of heat takes place between sys-
A. when heat transfers from objects that
tem and surrounding is
are not touching
A. Isothermal process
B. heat rise
B. Adiabatic process
C. cold fall
C. Isobaric process
D. when heat transfers from objects that
are touching D. Isochoric process

NARAYAN CHANGDER
376. An important idea about temperature and
371. During a house fire, the smoke and
the particle theory is that the motion of
flames rise up, but the air down near the
particles increases when the temperature
floor is cooler and less smoky. This is an
increases. Which statement below is cor-
example of
rect?
A. convection
A. As the motion of particles decreases
B. conduction the temperature remains the same
C. radiation B. As the temperature decreases the mo-
tion of the particles also increases
D. none of above
C. As the temperature decreases the mo-
372. The transfer of energy by the movement tion of the particles decreases
of fluids or gases with different tempera- D. As the temperature increases the mo-
tures is called tion of the particles decreases
A. convection
377. This is the increase in volume of a sub-
B. conduction stance due to an increase in temperature.
C. radiation A. temperature
D. none of above B. thermal expansion
C. Celsius
373. In a swimming pool the water near the
surface is slightly warmer. The warm wa- D. Fahrenheit
ter rises because of
378. On a sunny day, you return to your car
A. Conduction after school. The inside of the car is very
B. Convection hot. How did the car get so warm?
A. Conduction
C. Radiation
B. Convection
D. none of above
C. Radiation
374. A crock pot transfers energy through D. Specific Heat
A. Microwaves
379. What are the parts of a thermodynamic
B. Conduction system?
C. Convection A. System
D. Hot air rising and cool air falling B. Atmosphere

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 71

C. environment C. jacket
D. boundary D. fire

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E. internal energy 386. Heating by convection can only occur
through
380. The movement of liquid in a lava lamp
A. solids
A. Conduction
B. fluids
B. Convection
C. water
C. Radiation
D. none of above
D. none of above
387. Heat always flows from a to a cooler
381. Any moving object has energy. object.
A. kinetic A. warmer
B. potential B. cooler
C. gravitational potential C. coolest
D. potential kinetc D. warmest
382. A thermodynamic system that would cre- 388. Heat moves from objects that are to
ate a horizontal line on a PV diagram objects that are
would be an A. cooler, hotter
A. Isothermal process B. cold, warm
B. Adiabatic process C. warm, warm
C. Isobaric process D. hotter, colder
D. Isochoric process
389. NASA developed a reflective foil barrier
383. What is freezing in Celsius? to help shield spacecraft from heat trans-
fer in space. What method of heat transfer
A. 32
is being prevented by the reflective bar-
B. 35 rier?
C. 0 A. Radiation
D. -5 B. Convection

384. Plastic foam, wood, and rubber are good C. Entropy

examples of D. Conduction
A. conductors 390. Which statement is true regarding steady
B. insulators state condition?
C. solar energy A. There is a variation in temperature in
the course of time
D. convection
B. Heat exchange is constant
385. Which object produces (makes) heat? C. It is a function of space and time coor-
A. thermometer dinates
B. rug D. Internal energy of the system changes

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 72

391. The transfer of heat through a fluid (liq- C. cold to cold

uid or gas) is
D. hot to hot
A. Conduction
B. Convection 397. The transfer of thermal energy through
“space” is this type of heat transfer.
C. Radiation
A. conduction
D. Ablation
B. convection

NARAYAN CHANGDER
392. The variable in an experiment that you
change C. radiation

A. Independent variable D. none of above

B. Dependent variable 398. What form of heat transfer is when
C. Control variable warm liquid rises and cold liquid sinks?
D. Responding variable A. Conduction
393. Which of the following is not a tempera- B. Convection
ture scale? C. Radiation
A. Kelvin D. none of above
B. Fahrenheit
C. Celsius 399. A hot air balloon rising

D. Joule A. Conduction
B. Convection
394. In the Heat Transfer Cooking lab, the con-
trol was C. Radiation
A. the types of cooking methods D. none of above
B. the amount and type of ingredients in
the cake 400. The Second Law of Thermodynamics says
that heat always flows from an object
C. the cake cooked in the regular ovens with a higher temperature
D. the way the cake tasted A. to infinity and beyond.
395. Which method of heat transfer does NOT B. to free space.
require the presence of matter?
C. to an object with lower temperature.
A. Conduction
D. to an object with lower specific heat.
B. Convection
C. Radiation 401. Which temperature scale labels the freez-
ing point of water at 0 degrees?
D. none of above
A. Celsius
396. Heat always travels from to ob-
jects. B. Caloric
A. hot to cold C. Kelvin
B. cold to hot D. Fahrenheit

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 73

402. When heat transferred from one particle C. radiation

of hot body to another by actual motion D. none of above
of the heated particles, it is referred to as

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heat transferred by 406. Warm air currents are an example of
A. Convection A. radiation
B. Conduction B. convection
C. Both a & b C. conduction
D. Radiation D. halitosis
403. A student fills a bicycle tire with air on a 407. Which of the following would the heat
very hot day. The next day, the tempera- from the sun make the most hot?
ture drops and it is much cooler. The stu-
A. parking lot
dent notices that the bicycle tire is almost
flat. What best explains why the tire is B. grass
flat? C. water
A. The cooler temperature caused the air D. a wooden bench
in the tire to contract, making the tire ap-
pear flat. 408. Heating a marshmallow over a fire is
where heat is transferred by means of
B. The cooler temperature caused the air
in the tire to expand, which put a hole in A. Infrared Radiation
the tire, causing it to go flat. B. Conduction
C. The cooler temperature caused the air C. Convection
in the tire to freeze, making the tire flat.
D. Microwaves
D. The cooler temperature caused the
metal part of the bicycle to expand, putting 409. The handle of a metal spoon warms up
a hole in the tire and making it go flat. when it is placed in a hot bowl of soup be-
cause of
404. A dark colored wall becomes warm when
A. Convection
the Sun is shining on it. After the Sun sets,
a person standing a meter away can feel B. Conduction
warmth from the wall. How does heat C. Radiation
transfer from the wall to the person?
D. insulation.
A. conduction
B. convection 410. A new substance zorlon replaces all wa-
ter on the earth. Zorlon has a much higher
C. radiation specific heat capacity than water. Which
D. insulator of the following would be true for Zor-
lon?
405. You are roasting marshmallows at a
campfire. The metal skewer (stick) that A. Zorlon is more likely to freeze in win-
you’re cooking your marshmallow on ter.
burns your hand because of ? B. Zorlon is less likely to freeze in winter.
A. conduction C. Zorlon would freeze just like water.
B. convection D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 74

411. A thermodynamic cycle which uses heat 416. In , heat is transferred from one parti-
exchange to create work is called cle of matter to another without the move-
A. a heat reservoir ment of the matter(direct contact).

B. a heat pump A. conduction

B. convection
C. a perpetual motion machine
C. radiation
D. a heat engine
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
412. A pot is heated on a stove. Which pro-
cess causes the metal handle of the pot to 417. What is boiling water in Fahrenheit?
also become hot? A. 212
A. convection B. 112
B. radiation C. 100
C. conduction D. 50
D. water 418. How are heat from the sun and heat from
a campfire alike?
413. Which best describes the process of con-
A. They move by radiation.
duction?
B. They move by convection.
A. When two objects touch, the heat is
transferred into the air. C. They move by conduction.
B. When two objects touch, the heat from D. They are solar energy.
the hotter object is transferred to the 419. The law of thermodynamics states
cooler object. that entropy is always increasing.
C. When two objects touch, the cool air A. first
from the cooler object is transferred to
B. second
the hotter object.
C. third
D. none of above
D. zeroth
414. Zeroth law of thermodynamics is:
420. What is the definition of CONVECTION
A. Kinetic energy of molecules of a gas is
A. When heat transfers through waves.
zero
B. When heat transfers from objects that
B. Ideal gas does not contain molecules
are touching.
C. If two systems are thermal equilibrium
C. a hot liquid or air that expands, be-
third one is also in equilibrium
comes less dense, and rises or becomes
D. Absolute zero temperature cannot be more dense, and sinks.
obtained D. Heat traveling from the sun
415. What is body temperature in Celsius? 421. A convection oven transfers heat through
A. 37 A. Microwaves
B. 47 B. Infrared radiation
C. 98.6 C. Conduction
D. 96.8 D. Hot air rising and cool air falling

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 75

422. Bob burns himself when he picks up a hot B. Freezing water

pot from the stove. What method of heat
C. Cells in a body coming together
transfer caused the burn?

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A. Convection D. Ice melting

B. Conduction 428. All of the following are good conductors

C. Radiation of heat EXCEPT
D. none of above A. air
423. The 1st Law of Thermodynamics basically B. copper
states that you can’t get something from C. silver
nothing. We state that energy can neither
be nor D. iron
A. created; destroyed
429. What is a transfer of heat energy by elec-
B. imported; exported tromagnetic waves through space?
C. transferred; transmitted A. conduction
D. bought; sold B. convection
424. The heat lamp at Sonic keeps the onion C. radiation
rings nice and warm.
D. none of above
A. Conduction
B. Convection 430. Convection occurs in (select all that
C. Radiation apply)

D. none of above A. solids

B. liquids
425. Transfer of thermal energy through
“flow” C. gases
A. conduction D. fluids
B. convection
431. People sitting around a campfire are able
C. radiation
to feel the heat from the fire. How are the
D. none of above people able to feel the heat from the fire
without touching the fire?
426. What tool do we use to measure temper-
ature? A. The heat from the fire travels through
A. Thermometer the ground and heats the ground around
the people.
B. Ruler
B. The heat from the fire is conducted
C. Balance through air molecules to the people.
D. Magnifying Glass
C. The heat from the fire rises in the air
427. Which is an example of decreasing en- and then settles around the people.
tropy in a closed system? D. The heat from the fire radiates from
A. Boiling water the fire to the people.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 76

432. This law states that the energy in the uni- B. Transfer of heat inside a metal.
verse is constant. Energy cannot be cre- C. Heat energy transfer by electromag-
ated nor destroyed but changed from one netic waves
form to another. Which law is this?
D. Transfer of light energy
A. Third Law of thermodynamics
B. Second Law of thermodynamics 438. Toasting a marshmallow near a fire is an
example of
C. First Law of thermodynamics
A. Conduction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
B. Convection
433. convection C. Radiation
A. heat transfer through direct contact D. none of above
B. heat transfer through magnetic waves
through air and space 439. In , energy is transferred by electro-
magnetic waves.
C. heat will transfer due to the movement
of fluids A. convection

D. heat will transfer from the sun B. radiation

C. conduction
434. What happens to particles as soup is
warmed on a stove? D. induction

A. They move less freely 440. The way heat moves in liquids and gases
B. They move faster on average is called

C. They have less average energy A. convection

D. They vibrate and are close togther B. radiation

C. conduction
435. If heat is released by a system, an equal
amount of heat will be D. temperature

A. released by the Universe 441. The heating elements in an oven cook a

B. absorbed by the system delicious German chocolate cake.

C. released by the surroundings A. Conduction

D. absorbed by the surroundings B. Convection

C. Radiation
436. A dog burns his nose by touching it to a
glowing light bulb. D. none of above

A. Conduction 442. What is the definition of RADIATION

B. Convection A. hot liquid or air that expands, becomes
C. Radiation less dense, and rises or becomes more
dense, and sinks.
D. none of above
B. When heat is transferred from objects
437. What is infrared radiation? like rays of light or electromagnetically.
A. The circulation of a fluid caused by C. When heat transfers from objects that
heating it. are touching.

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 77

D. When heat transfers through the 448. Heat is measured in

heater or AC in your house. A. joules

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443. The 1st law of Thermodynamics B. grams
A. Energy can not be created or de- C. degrees celcius
stroyed. It just changes forms. D. none of above
B. Energy can only be created by the sun
449. You have a can of soda in your lunchbox
C. Some energy is lost to the environ- that you want to keep cold. Which mate-
ment. rial will work best to keep it cold?
D. none of above A. Aluminum foil wrapped around the
soda because metals transfer heat energy
444. As more heat is transferred to a solid, the
easily.
particles vibrate and some of the particles
in the solid break loose. The solid begins B. A paper towel wrapped around the
to change state. This is an example of soda because paper soaks up the mois-
ture.
A. Heating a solid
C. Wax paper wrapped around the soda
B. Heating a liquid
because wax paper traps the moisture.
C. Melting a solid
D. Your wool sweater wrapped around
D. Freezing a liquid the soda because wool traps air.

445. The types of heat transfers that MUST 450. What is the boiling point of water in Cel-
occur through materials are sius?
A. Convection and radiation A. 0◦
B. Conduction and radiation B. 32◦
C. Convection and conduction C. 100◦
D. Compression and radiation D. 212◦

446. Which temperature scale has 0 as the 451. The value of thermal conductivity k de-
coldest possible temperature? pends upon
A. Kelvin A. The material through which the heat is
transferred
B. Bohr
B. The intensity of heat energy which is
C. Celsius
being transferred
D. Fahrenheit
C. The area which is parallel to the heat
447. In a cyclic process, Which does not change transfer
at the end of the cycle D. All of the above
A. pressure
452. Which is not true for an isothermal pro-
B. Temperature cess?
C. entropy A. Work is done
D. all B. Heat is exchanged

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 78

C. There is no change in temperature B. Due to the presence of bound elec-

D. Internal energy increases trons
C. Due to the presence of free electrons
453. Manuel was having trouble opening a
D. Metals are grey
new glass jar of pickles. His father told
Manuel to hold the metal lid of the jar un- 457. , convection, and conduction are the
der running hot water for a few seconds, three types of heat transfer.
then try again. Then the lid opened easily.
A. Conveyance

NARAYAN CHANGDER
What is the mostlikely reason Manuel’s fa-
ther suggested using hot water to loosen B. Radiation
the lid? C. Translocation
A. Glass contracts when it is heated. D. none of above
B. Metals expand when they are heated
458. Which are constant in the Iso-volumetric
C. Metals are easier to grip when they process?
are warm.
A. volume, surrounding
D. Hot water reduces friction between
B. volume, heat
metal and glass.
C. volume, internal energy
454. HARDEST QUESTION:(you’ll need scratch
D. volume, Work
paper for this)A 52 kg person goes to
stand by a fire to warm themselves. When 459. According to the Fourier’s law of heat con-
they first went to the fire, their temper- duction, the rate of heat transfer by con-
ature was 34o C, and they gained 541, duction depends upon
320 J of energy from the fire. What was
A. Area of cross section normal to the
their final temperature after warming-up?
heat
(the specific heat of a human body is 3470
J/kg*C) B. Temperature gradient
A. 35o C C. Both a & b
B. 36o C D. None of the above
C. 37o C 460. The energy of moving particles in matter
D. 38o C is called
A. thermal energy
455. In an adiabatic process, what is held con-
stant? B. chemical energy

A. Pressure C. electrical energy

D. mechanical energy
B. Volume
C. Temperature 461. Temperature is a MEASUREMENT, not a
FEELING. Temperature is the measure of
D. None of the above
the average energy of the particles in
456. Why do metals conduct thermal energy a substance.
more quickly? A. Kinetic/Thermal
A. Particles vibrate faster B. Potential

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 79

C. Chemical 467. The sun heats the surface of the moon.

D. none of above A. Conduction

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462. A system that converts heat energy into B. Convection
mechanical work. C. Radiation
A. Heat engine
D. none of above
B. Heat pump
C. Isobaric 468. Heat moves by when it travels from
one solid to another solid.
D. Isolated system
A. radiation
463. Which phase of matter has the greatest
B. convection
motion and least orderly arrangement?
A. solid C. thermal energy

B. liquid D. conduction

C. gas 469. The first law of thermodynamics states

D. none of above that the change in the internal energy of a
system is equal to the difference in energy
464. A chair is several feet from a fireplace. transferred to or from the system as heat
The side of the chair facing the fireplace and
gets warm due to
A. mass
A. conduction
B. work done
B. convection
C. force
C. radiation
D. none of above D. pressure

465. The metal skewer gets so hot that you 470. All matter is made of that are con-
drop your marshmallow in the campfire be- stanly moving.
cause of A. insulators
A. conduction
B. particles
B. convection
C. convection
C. radiation
D. pieces of plastic
D. 1st law of thermodynamics
471. Energy that travels as electromagnetic
466. Spaghetti floating in a pot of water gets
waves is called
hot from the stove.
A. Conduction A. conduction

B. Convection B. convection
C. Radiation C. radiation
D. none of above D. none of above

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 80

472. You park your car outside on a hot Texas 477. Is it a thermodynamic system that allows
summer day. When you get to the car and passage with energy but not masses?
sit inside, you immediately break into a
A. Closed System
sweat and burn your hands on the steer-
ing wheel. What types of heat transfer B. Isolated System
are involved?
C. Open system
A. conduction
D. none of above
B. convection

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. radiation 478. Thermal conductivity of water in general
D. lamination with rise in temperature

473. What do we call the phase change of a A. Increases

VAPOR turning directly into a LIQUID? B. Decreases
A. Sublimation
C. Remains constant
B. Melting
D. May increase or decrease depending
C. Condensation
on temperature
D. Boiling/Evaporation
479. A steak is cooked because it is sitting in
474. Burning your bare feet on hot sand is an
a hot skillet.
example of:
A. radiation A. Conduction
B. conduction B. Convection
C. convection C. Radiation
D. none of above
D. none of above
475. The metal skewer gets so hot that you
drop your marshmallow into the campfire 480. In Isothermal process, which property re-
because of mains constant?
A. conduction A. Volume
B. convection B. Pressure
C. radiation
C. Entropy
D. none of above
D. Temperature
476. A steam engine absorbs 1.98 x 105 J and
expels 1.49 x 105 J in each cycle. Assume 481. It is present in a system and only affected
that all of the remaining energy is used to by external energy such as temperature
do work. How much work is done in each and pressure.
cycle?
A. Heat
A. 3.50 x 105 J
B. System
B. 1.98 x 105 J
C. 1.49 x 105 J C. Internal Energy
D. 4.9 x 104 J D. Surrounding/ Environment

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1.3 Work and Heat Transfer 81

482. On which temperature scale does water 488. Temperature is the measure of the of
freeze at 0◦ ? particles in a substance.

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A. Kelvin A. average potential energy
B. Celsius B. average kinetic energy
C. Fahrenheit C. heat
D. Rankine D. degrees

483. Human body is a system 489. Why do you want to live in a home
with good insulation during the cold win-
A. open
ter months?
B. closed
A. The insulation will keep you cool during
C. isolated winter.
D. none of above B. If there is good insulation, the ther-
mal energy will not be able to move eas-
484. Efficiency is a of what you put in ver- ily from inside the warm home to the cool
sus what you get out of a system. areas outside the building.
A. source C. If there is not good insulation, the air
B. ratio inside the home will become too hot.
C. multiplication D. A house with good insulation will keep
D. addition the warm air in the attic.
490. The upward movement of warm air and
485. Magma creating a current in the mantle
the downward movement of cool air forms
to move tectonic plates
A. Conduction
A. convection currents
B. Convection
B. thermal energy
C. Radiation
C. radiation
D. none of above D. conduction
486. The process by which gases in the atmo- 491. What is the equation for the first law of
sphere absorb thermal energy and radiate thermodynamics?
it back to earth is called
A. U=Q+W
A. the thermal effect.
B. U=Q-W
B. the greenhouse effect.
C. U=-Q+W
C. global warming.
D. U+Q+W=0
D. radiation balance
492. Glass, steel, and aluminum are good ex-
487. what is the meaning of convection? amples of
A. cold rises heat falls A. insulators
B. heat B. thermal energy
C. cold C. conductors
D. hot rises cold falls D. radiation

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 1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics 82

493. What is the transfer of heat by direct con- B. radiation

tact? C. density
A. conduction D. convection
B. convection
498. My coffee and the creamer have the same
C. radiation
temp. My cofee and the cup have the same
D. none of above temp. So Creamer and cup have same
temp.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
494. A metal spoon is placed in a pan of hot
water. What will happen? A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
A. Heat will move from the spoon to the B. First Law of Thermodynamics
water. C. Second Law of Thermodynamics
B. Heat will move from the water to the D. Third Law of Thermodynamics
spoon.
C. The temperature of the water will in- 499. Which category of heat transfer involves
crease over time. large numbers of atoms moving along as a
group? (flowing as in currents)
D. Nothing
A. radiation
495. In heat transfer, heat always flows from B. convection
the ? substance to the ?
substance. C. conduction

A. hotter to colder D. none of above

B. colder to hotter 500. An adiabatic process is one in which
C. hotter to hotter A. no heat enters or leaves the gas
D. colder to colder B. the temperature of the gas changes
496. As HEAT is transferred into an object, the C. the change in internal energy is equal
average temperature goes up. What do to the mechanical workdone
the particles of a heated substance do as D. all of the above
a result?
A. The particle movement does not 501. Which is an example of convection?
change A. the heat coming from a campfire
B. The particles move much more slowly B. a spoon in a bowl of soup becoming
C. The particles move much more quickly warmer

D. The particles evacuate C. warmer water at the surface of a

swimming pool
497. water boiling is an example of D. burning your hand on the stove by
A. conduction touching it

1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics

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1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics 83

1. J of heat is added to the system that has E. the amount of energy required to melt
75 J of work done on it. Calculate change a solid object
in internal energy for the following sys-

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tem. 5. 2SO2 (g)+O2 (g) −→ 2SO3 (g) What
is the Rate Law of the forward reaction?
A. 225 J ⌈SO3 ⌉2
A. R = ⌈SO2 ⌉2 ⌈O2 ⌉
B. 75 J
C. -75 J B. R = k⌈SO3 ⌉2

D. -225 J C. R = k⌈SO2 ⌉2 ⌈O2 ⌉

⌈SO2 ⌉2 ⌈O2 ⌉
2. Which of the following is true, when D. R = ⌈SO3 ⌉2
two bodies at different initial temperature,
6. Heat transferred is completely used for
reach thermal equilibrium after being in
work.
thermal contact?
A. The average kinetic energy of the par- A. Isothermal
ticles in both bodies will be the same B. Isovolumetric
B. Energy will have been transferred C. Adiabatic
from the cold body to the hot body in the D. Isolated system
process of achieving thermal equilibrium
C. The temperature at thermal equilib- 7. It states that if two thermodynamic sys-
rium, will definitely be exactly half-way be- tems are each in thermal equilibrium with
tween the initial colder body and the initial a third, then they are in thermal equilib-
warmer body rium with each other.
D. Energy will be transferred in the form A. First Law of Thermodynamics
of work B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
3. The type of system that can exchange en- C. Third Law of Thermodynamics
ergy which is usually in the form of heat D. Zeroth Law
with its surroundings.
8. Uneven expansion of bimetallic strip is
A. Isolated system
used in
B. Open system
A. thermostats
C. Closed system
B. heat engines
D. none of above
C. thermometers
4. What does the heat capacity of an object D. pressures gauges
measure?
A. the amount of energy required to 9. 2NO (g) + Cl2 (g) −→ 2NOCl2 (g)
change the temperature of an object Rate Law = k⌈NO⌉2 ⌈Cl2 ⌉ What is the
order of the reaction?
B. the total amount of energy an object
can store A. 1

C. the thermal potential energy of the ob- B. 2

ject C. 3
D. the amount of work done by the object D. 4

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1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics 84

10. The product of the pressure and volume of A. While melting, an ice cube remains at
a system has the same SI units as which the same temperature
one of the following choices?
B. Two systems in equilibrium with a third
A. force system are in equilibrium with each other
B. work C. After falling down a hill, a ball’s kinetic
C. acceleration energy plus heat energy equals the initial
potential energy
D. momentum

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. If a refrigerator is unplugged, eventu-
E. impulse ally everything inside of it will return to
room temperature
11. The enthalpy of air is increased by
139.586 kJ/kg in a compressor. The rate 15. An experiment is conducted by completely
of air flow is 16.42 kg/min. The power dissolving a sample of an ionic compound
input is 48.2 kW. How much there is heat in distilled water. When the solid had
transfer from the compressor in kW? completely dissolved, the temperature of
A. 21 kW the solution was found to have decreased
B. 20 kW when compared to the initial temperature
of the distilled water.Which of the follow-
C. 10 kW ing statements accurately describes the
D. 5.8 kW changes that occur in this reaction?
A. The system loses energy and the sur-
12. Energy is created by
rounding gain
A. running
B. The system gains energy and the sur-
B. boiling ice roundings lose
C. touching slime C. The system gains energy and the sur-
D. none of them roundings gain as well
D. Quantitative data is required to solve
13. The centrifugal air compressor of a gas tur- this problem
bine receives air from the ambient where
the pressure is 1 bar and the temperature 16. Complete the following statement:The
is 27◦ C. At the compressor discharge, the first law of thermodynamics states that
pressure is 4 bars and the temperature
is 200◦ C. For a mass flow rate of 100
kg/min, the exit velocity is determined to A. the entropy of the universe is increas-
be 100 m/s. Compute the power required ing.
to drive the compressor. B. entropy is a function of the state of a
A. 385 kW system.

B. 298 kW C. heat is a form of energy.

C. 490 kW D. the change in the internal energy of a

system is given by Q-W.
D. None of the above
E. two systems in thermal equilibrium
14. Which one of the following represents the with a third system are in equilibrium with
first law of thermodynamics? each other.

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1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics 85

17. A process during which the temperature of 22. Which one of the following phrases cor-
a sample of gas doesn’t change is called a rectly describes an adiabatic process?
(a) process

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A. no loss of energy occurs
A. isothermal B. no transfer of energy as heat
B. isobaric C. no change in temperature occurs
C. isochoric D. no change in system volume occurs
D. adaibatic E. no change in system pressure occurs

18. A 7.50 liter sealed jar at 18 ◦ C contains 23. The amount of heat needed to melt one
0.125 moles of oxygen and 0.125 moles mole of a substance is called:
of nitrogen gas. What is the pressure in A. Specific Heat
the container? B. Latent Heat
A. 7.38 atm C. Heat of vaporization
B. 0.796 atm D. Heat of fusion
C. 0.684 atm 24. During a thermodynamic process, 2, 000 J
D. 0.398 atm of heat are removed from a gas while 600
J of work is done by the gas. What is the
19. 4P + 5O2 −→ P4 O10 What is the over- change in internal energy of the gas?
all forward reaction rate constant of the A. +2, 600 J
reaction?
B. 0
A. Kc = ⌈P⌉4 ⌈O2 ⌉5
C. -1400 J
⌈P4 O10 ⌉
B. Kc = ⌈P⌉4 ⌈O2 ⌉5 D. -2600 J
⌈P⌉4 ⌈O2 ⌉5 25. The first law of thermodynamics is basi-
C. Kc = ⌈P4 O10 ⌉
cally the same as which law from physics
D. Kc = ⌈P⌉4 ⌈O2 ⌉5 1?
A. Newton’s first law
20. When a gas undergoes isothermal expan-
sion, its internal energy B. The law of conservation of energy
A. Increase C. The law of conservation of momentum

B. decrease D. Newton’s second law

C. remains constant 26. Calculate the heat transfer to the environ-

ment if the system produce a work of 45
D. zero kJ and receive 9 kJ in the way of heat. The
enthalpy difference of the system is equal
21. No work is done on or by the system
to 55 kJ.
A. Isothermal A. 1
B. Adiabatic B. 91
C. Isovolumetric C. 19
D. Isolated System D. none of above

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1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics 86

27. Convert 50 K to ◦ C B. Heat can be converted other forms of

A. 323 energy only if caloric is present.

B. -213 C. There is no relationship between heat

and work.
C. -220
D. Heat can be converted into other
D. -223
forms of energy.
28. A saw used to cut a 1 Kg copper pipe, this
33. If the temperature of an object is lowered,
caused 1◦ C raise in the pipe’s temperature,

NARAYAN CHANGDER
what happens to the average kinetic en-
how much work did the pipe receive from
ergy of its particles?
the saw? (Ccopper=385 J/(◦ C.Kg))
A. 385 J A. The average kinetic energy of its parti-
cles is lowered.
B. 673 J
B. The average kinetic energy of its parti-
C. 836 J cles is raised.
D. none of above
C. The average kinetic energy of its parti-
29. Calculate the volumetric flow of a system cles doesn’t change.
feed by water with a mass flow of 3 kg/s. D. none of above
A. 3000 kg/s
34. The thermal energy entering the system
B. 0.003 kg/s from outside is called
C. 3003 kg/s A. Work
D. none of above
B. Heat
30. The equation pVm = RT is the equation C. Power
for
D. none of above
A. any mass of an ideal gas
B. one mole of an ideal gas 35. According to kinetic theory of gases,

C. one mole of a real gas A. Collisions are always elastic.

D. one gram of a monoatomic gas B. Heavier molecules transfer more mo-
mentum on the wall of the container.
31. A kettle on fire receives 8000 J, the ket-
C. Only a small number of molecules have
tle kept shaking with 500 J work. Find the
very high velocity.
change in the kettle’s thermal energy?
A. 500 J D. Particles of gas move in all possible di-
rections in straight lines.
B. 7500 J
C. 8000 J 36. Which of the following is a state func-
tion?
D. none of above
A. Enthalpy
32. Which is a true statement about energy
B. Work
conversion?
A. One form of energy cannot be con- C. Heat
verted into another form of energy. D. Pressure

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1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics 87

37. Maria’s father started a fire in the fire- 41. The First Law of Thermodynamics states
place. He crumpled some paper, lit a that
match, and soon the logs in the fireplace

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A. energy can not be created or de-
were burning. In this case, the stored stroyed. It just changes forms.
chemical energy in the logs was changed
into B. energy can only be created by the sun
A. electrical energy. C. some energy is lost to the environ-
ment.
B. mechanical motion.
D. none of above
C. heat and light energy.
D. electrical and heat energy. 42. J of energy is transferred to 4 kg of wa-
ter (c = 4 200 Jkg-1 ◦ C-1), initial temper-
38. Changes in enthalpy in an exothermic reac- ature of the water is 10◦ C. What is the
tion is final temperature?
A. positive A. 10 ◦ C
B. negative B. 15.8 ◦ C
C. constant C. 17.8 ◦ C
D. neutral D. 19.8 ◦ C
39. In large gas-turbine power plants, air is 43. Workdone by gas in isothermal process,
preheated by the exhaust gases in a heat
exchanger called the regenerator before it A. positive
enters the combustion chamber. Air enters B. negative
the regenerator at 1 MPa and 550 K at a C. zero
mass flow rate of 800 kg/min. Heat is
transferred to the air at a rate of 3200 D. none
kJ/s. Exhaust gases enter the regenera-
44. Heat is added to a substance, but its tem-
tor at 140 kPa and 800 K and leave at
perature does not increase. Which one
130 kPa and 600 K. Treating the exhaust
of the following statements provides the
gases as air, determine the exit tempera-
best explanation for this observation?
ture of the air and the mass flow rate of
exhaust gases. A. The substance has unusual thermal
properties.
A. 754 K & 10 kg/s
B. The substance must be cooler than its
B. 780 K & 15 kg/s
environment.
C. 780 K & 13.85 kg/s
C. The substance must be a gas.
D. none of above
D. The substance must be an imperfect
40. Which of the following is equivalent to the solid.
principle of energy conservation? E. The substance undergoes a change of
A. Newton’s first law phase.
B. The first law of thermodynamics 45. The internal energy of an ideal gas de-
C. Newton’s second law pends on
D. The second law of thermodynamics A. Volume and temperature

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1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics 88

B. Pressure and temperature 50. First law of thermodynamics deals with..

C. Volume A. Conservation of mass
D. Temperature only B. Conservation of momentum
C. Conservation of energy
46. A sample of gas is held in a rigid cylin-
der that has a piston inserted into it. As D. Conservation of pressure
the gas expands in the cylinder, the piston
is seen to move upwards. Which of the 51. No change in internal energy.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
following statements best describes the A. Isovolumetric
change that occurs?
B. Isothermal
A. The piston does work on the gas since
C. Adiabatic
the gas expands
D. Isolated System
B. The gas does work on the cylinder
since the cylinder expands 52. What do we call the relationship between
C. The gas does work on the piston since thermal energy, heat and work?
it pushes against atmospheric pressure A. Closed System
D. The atmosphere does work on the gas B. Entropy
as the gas expands
C. Conductors
47. Convert a room temperature of 22◦ C to D. Thermodynamics
kelvin.
A. 275 53. What is internal energy?

B. 295 A. The amount of heat an object contains.

C. 305 B. The sum of the kinetic and potential en-

ergy of the particles of a substance.
D. 298.15
C. Something we can measure easily.
48. To initiate a reaction the minimum energy D. Something that does not exist.
which is required to break bonds is called
A. bond energy 54. The study of how thermal energy is trans-
formed into another types of energy is
B. activation energy
A. Thermodynamics
C. breaking energy
B. Power
D. ionization energy
C. Temperature
49. A 5.0 kg mass of a substance requires D. none of above
6500 J of heat to melt. What is the latent
heat of fusion of the substance? 55. What is 50 ◦ C in Kelvin?
A. 6400J/Kg A. 223
B. 4200J/Kg B. 323
C. 3400J/kg C. 100
D. 1300 J/Kg D. 50

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1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics 89

56. C6 H12 O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) −→ 61. According to the first law of thermodynam-
6CO2 (g) + 6H2 O (l) What is the Rate ics, in an isothermal process
Law for the reagents in this reaction?

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A. temperature is not affected by the in-
A. R = k ⌈C6 H12 O6 ⌉⌈O2 ⌉6 ternal energy of the system, work, or heat
B. R = k⌈CO2 ⌉6 ⌈H2 O⌉6 B. it can be implied that heat added to the
C. R = ⌈C6 H12 O6 ⌉⌈O2 ⌉6 system is equal to work done by the sys-
tem
D. R = ⌈CO2 ⌉6 ⌈H2 O⌉6
C. temperature is not affected by the
57. A mole of an ideal gas experiences an adia- pressure or volume change of the system
batic change which causes its temperature
to increase by ∆T . Which of the following D. internal energy of the system fluctu-
is true of the gas? ates and there exists an imbalance be-
tween work and heat
A. The volume increases
B. Heat is lost 62. The internal energy U for an ideal diatomic
gas of volume V and pressure p is given by
C. The internal energy change is Cv ∆T
3
D. Work is not done on the gas
A. 2 pV
5
B. 2 pV
58. What does R stand for
7
A. Ideal gas constant
C. 2 pV
−3
B. Real gas constant D. 2 pV

C. Temperature constant 63. For the following chemical reaction:3A +

D. Ideal gas law 2B −→ C + 4D identify the correct gen-
eral rate law
59. In the formula of The First Law of Thermo-
A. R = k⌈3A⌉⌈2B⌉
dynamics, the ‘’Q” represent:
A. Change in internal energy B. R = k⌈A⌉3 ⌈B⌉2 ⌈C⌉⌈D⌉4

B. Energy transferred as heat C. R = k⌈A⌉a ⌈B⌉b

C. Work done on or by the system D. R = k⌈C⌉⌈4D⌉
D. none of above 64. An ice cube is placed on a table and begins
60. The conditions for the thermodynamic pro- to melt. The following conclusion can be
cess to be isothermal, made.

A. Temperature remains constant A. Energy is being absorbed by the table

which causes the cube to melt.
B. Pressure remains constant
B. Energy is being transferred from the
C. The process should be very slow and
table to the ice cube.
the walls of cylinder should be perfectly
conducting C. Energy is being created by the air and
table and making the cube heat up.
D. The process should be very fast and
the walls of cylinder should be perfectly D. Energy is being created by the ice cube
non-conducting and is being released to the air

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1.4 First Law of Thermodynamics 90

65. Which one of the following situations is de- 68. The internal energy change in a system
scribed by the zeroth law of thermodynam- that has absorbed 2Kcal of heat and done
ics? 500J of work is
A. An air conditioner transfers heat from A. 7900J
the inside of a house to the outside of the B. 8900J
house.
C. 6400J
B. A monatomic gas is held within a con-
D. 5400J
tainer that has a moveable piston. The gas

NARAYAN CHANGDER
absorbs heat from the surroundings and 69. The change in the energy between a chem-
expands at constant pressure and temper- ical reaction and the surroundings at con-
ature. stant temperature is called
C. A container with adiabatic walls holds A. enthalpy change
boiling water. A thermometer is cali- B. enthalpy
brated by inserting it into the boiling wa-
ter and allowing it to reach thermal equi- C. enthalpy profile
librium with the water. D. dynamic enthalpy
D. A pot contains oil at 175 ◦ C. When 70. A body is cooled from 80O C to 23OC.
frozen sliced potatoes are dropped into What is the temperature change in
the oil, heat is transferred from the oil to kelvin?
the potatoes.
A. 57
E. A physicist removes energy from a sys-
B. 23
tem in her laboratory until it reaches a
temperature of 3 × 10−10 K, a tempera- C. 330.15
ture very close to (but still greater than) D. 80
absolute zero.
71. The internal energy of a system can be
66. If the internal energy is used exclusively lower than zero
for work, the process is A. True
A. isovolumetric B. False
B. adiabatic C. It depends on the scale
C. isothermal D. none of above
D. isolated system 72. BONUS QUESTION:How many siblings
does Mrs. Armbruster have?
67. Calculate the heat required to raise the
temperature of 5 kg of brass from 10◦ C to A. 0
60◦ C. The specific heat capacity of brass is B. 1
377 Jkg-1 ◦ C-1
C. 2
A. 608 855 J D. 3
B. 18 850 J
73. The first law of thermodynamics states
C. 94 250 J that energy can not be
D. 113 100 J A. created only

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 1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 91

B. destroyed only D. none of above

C. converted
76. Internal energy is used exclusively for

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D. created and destroyed work.
74. The total work done in thermodynamic pro- A. Isovolumetric
cess is given by
∫ V2 B. Adiabatic
A. V1 PdV
∫ V2 C. Isothermal
B. V1 V dP
D. Isolated System
C. total area under the given curve
D. total volume under the given curve 77. What are the two fixed points of a Celsius
thermometer?
75. The type of system that can exchange
mass and energy, usually in the form of A. 0 and 100 degrees
heat with its surroundings. B. top and bottom
A. isolated system C. -274 and 1000 degress
B. open system D. -273.15 and 1, 420, 000, 000, 000, 000,
C. closed system 000, 000, 000, 000, 000, 000 degree

1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process

1. The condition of thermal equilibrium be- D. Independent
tween two objects is that the two objects.
4. Heat leaves the system is taken as
A. have the same temperature.
A. Positive
B. have the same volume.
B. Neither negative nor positive
C. have the same area.
C. Negative
D. have the same pressure.
D. Zero
E. be of the same material.
5. Many thermodynamic processes in nature
2. Heat transfer and work transfer are occurs in one direction but not the opposite
A. boundary phenomena A. True
B. energy interactions B. False
C. energy in the transit C. Maybe
D. all of the mentioned D. I do not know

3. Without electrical, mechanical, gravita- 6. Which phase transition processes show en-
tional, surface tension and motion effects, ergy gain?
a system is called system. A. Freezing
A. Simple B. melting
B. Simple compressible C. evaporation
C. Compressible D. condensation

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 92

E. sublimation 12. A closed system may refer to

7. If a system involves two phases, it is in A. Control mass
equilibrium when the mass of each B. Control volume
phase reaches an equilibrium level and
C. Control energy
stays there.
D. Control temperature
A. Chemical
B. Thermal 13. Which one of the following statements is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
correct?
C. Mechanical
D. Phase A. In an isothermal process, the work
done on the gas is always positive.
8. Who coined the word “energy” in 1807? B. In an adiabatic process, the work is al-
B. ways zero.
A. William Rankine C. All real gases approach the ideal gas
B. Rudolph Clausius state at low temperatures.
C. Lord Kelvin D. Two different ideal gas molecules of
D. Thomas Young different mass will have the same average
translational kinetic energy if they are at
9. The limitation of the first law is the same temperature.
A. does not indicate the possibility of a E. In an isobaric process, the energy is
spontaneous process proceeding in a def- always constant.
inite direction
14. H2 + 1/2 O2 → H2O + 285kJ is an ex-
B. it assigns a quality to different forms
ample of a(n)
of energy
A. Electrical equation
C. indicates the direction of any sponta-
neous process B. Heat equation
D. none of the mentioned C. Thermochemical equation

10. A meniscus forms from a liquid in a test D. none of above

tube due to
15. Which of the following statements is COR-
A. capillary action RECT for a gas undergoing an adiabatic
B. surface tension process:
C. evaporation A. The pressure of the gas remains con-
stant.
D. diffusion
B. The temperature of the gas remains
11. The amount of heat needed to raise the constant.
temperature of 1 gram of a substance by
C. The volume of the gas remains con-
1 C degree is called
stant.
A. heat of fusion
D. There is no heat exchange between the
B. heat of vaporization gas and its environment.
C. specific heat E. The internal energy of the gas is al-
D. change in temperature ways zero.

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 93

16. The first law of thermodynamics is based 22. What is a process in which the system re-
on which of the following principles? mains infinitesimally closed to an equilib-
rium state at all times?

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A. Conservation of mass
B. Conservation of energy A. Path equilibrium process

C. Action and reaction B. Cycle equilibrium process

D. The entropy-temperature relationship C. Phase equilibrium process
D. Quasi-state or quasi-equilibrium pro-
17. Variable flow processes include cess
A. filling up a gas cylinder
23. An unknown gas has a density of 3.167
B. evacuating a gas cylinder
g/L at STP. What is the identity of the
C. all of the mentioned gas?
D. none of the mentioned A. Ar
18. When there is mass transfer across the B. O2
system boundary, the system is called C. Cl2
A. isolated system D. HF
B. closed system
24. How are thermodynamic properties classi-
C. open system fied?
D. none of the mentioned A. Physical and chemical
19. What causes water to freeze solid when B. Intensive and extensive
placed in a freezer? The freezer- C. Real and imaginary
A. adds heat to the water D. Homogeneous and heterogeneous
B. puts electricity in the water
25. Assume an ideal gas expands adiabatically.
C. takes heat away from the water
Which one of the following statements is
D. does not let light shine on the water TRUE.
20. Heat of Fusion can be applied to what A. the temperature of the gas increases.
phase change? B. the pressure of the gas increases.
A. condensation C. the internal energy of the gas remains
B. vaporization constant.
C. sublimation D. the temperature of the gas decreases.
D. melting E. the pressure of the gas remains con-
stant.
21. A cycle tyre bursts suddenly. This repre-
sents an 26. An open system may refer to
A. Isothermal process A. Control mass
B. Isochoric process B. Control volume
C. Isobaric process C. Control energy
D. Adiabatic process D. Control temperature

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 94

27. A 20-g ice cube at 0 degree C is heated un- A. One mole of hydrogen gas
til 15 g has become water at 100 degree
B. They all occupy the same volume
C and 5.0 g has been converted to steam.
How much heat is added to do this? C. One mole of oxygen gas
(L(melting)=80 cal/g, L(vaporization) =
D. One mole of nitrogen gas
540 cal/g, c(water) = 1 cal/g/C ).
A. 3300 cal. 32. Which type of system is always used in
B. 6300 cal. the Laws of Thermodynamics?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 5200 cal. A. Open Systems
D. 9000 cal. B. Closed Systems
E. 2300 cal. C. Isolated Systems
28. A sample of an ideal gas exerts a pres- D. Skeletal System (obviously)
sure of 60 Pa when its temperature is 400
K and the number of molecules present 33. A quantity of gas is heated isovolumetri-
per unit volume is n. A second sample of cally from 30◦ C to 100◦ C. Which of the
the same gas exerts a pressure of 30 Pa following statements is CORRECT?
when its temperature is 300 K. How many
molecules are present per unit volume of A. The heat absorbed by the gas is equal
the second sample? to the work done by the gas.
A. n/3 B. The internal energy of the gas de-
creases.
B. 5n/3
C. 2n/3 C. There is no work done on the gas.
D. n/2 D. The volume of the gas increases.
E. 3n/2
34. As time progresses, Energy will naturally
29. The study of heat transformation into become more spread out. It can only come
other forms of energy is called together if you make it.
A. conduction A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
B. entropy B. First Law of Thermodynamics
C. thermal equilibrium
C. Second Law of Thermodynamics
D. thermodynamics
D. Third Law of Thermodynamics
30. Thermodynamic properties are
A. point function 35. The work done by a closed system in a re-
versible process is always that done in
B. path function an irreversible process.
C. depends on the state
A. less than
D. none of the mentioned
B. equal to
31. Assuming ideal gas properties, which of
C. more than
the following occupies the most volume at
273 K and 1 atm of pressure? D. not applicable

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 95

36. The thermodynamic properties that are de- 40. What is a process during which the specific
pendent on the size or extent of the sys- volume remains constant?
tem is called

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A. Isobaric process
A. Extensive property B. Isothermal process
B. Intensive property C. Isochoric or isometric process
C. Open property D. Isovolumetric process
D. Closed property 41. In which of the following systems is en-
tropy increasing?
37. Which best describes the first law of ther-
modynamics as compared to the second A. Putting together a puzzle
law of thermodynamics? B. Putting books on a shelf
A. The first law describes how thermal C. Breaking a plate
energy is conserved but not the direction D. Filling a jar of salt
it moves.
B. The first law describes the direction 42. If a cup of tea is at 500C is allowed to cool
thermal energy moves but not how it is to room temperature, heat released would
conserved. be (assume room temperature to be equal
to 25 o C and heat capacity of cup and tea
C. The first law describes how thermal to be 5.0 Kj/K)
energy can be created but not how it can
A. 25 kJ
be destroyed.
B. 125 kJ
D. The first law describes how thermal
energy can be destroyed but not how it C. 200 kJ
can be created. D. 250 kJ

38. What do you call to the transfer of ther- 43. What name is given to the process that
mal energy between two bodies that are takes place at constant pressure
at different temperatures? A. Isobaric
A. Work B. Isochoric
B. Heat C. Isothermal
C. Pressure D. Adiabetic
D. Surrounding 44. The air being released from a can of com-
pressed air is an example of
39. What is the more elaborate approach to
the study of thermodynamics and based on A. Adiabatic heating
the average behavior of large groups of in- B. Adiabatic cooling
dividual particles? C. It is not an adiabatic process
A. Dynamic thermodynamics D. none of above
B. Static thermodynamics
45. What is the name of a device that converts
C. Statistical thermodynamics thermal energy into work?
D. Classical thermodynamics A. Heating system

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 96

B. Heat engine 51. What mass of steam (T = 100 degrees-C)

C. Entropy is required to melt 200 g of ice and pro-
duce water at 25 degrees-C? (c(water)= 1
D. Power cal/g*degrees-C, Lf=79.7 cal/g, Lv=539
46. State of matter with no definite shape and cal/g.)
volume A. 34.1 g
A. Gas B. 22.5 g
B. Liquid C. 121 g

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Solid ∆E = Q −W D. 254 g
D. none of above E. 145 g
47. Two cubes, one silver and one iron, have 52. What refers to any change that a system
the same mass and temperature. A quan- undergoes from one equilibrium state to
tity Q of heat is removed from each cube. another equilibrium state?
Which one of the following causes the final
A. Process
temperature of the cubes to be different?
B. Path
A. latent heat of vaporization
C. Phase
B. density
D. Cycle
C. coefficient of volume expansion
D. volume 53. If Cv =5/2R then Co is
E. specific heat A. 2/5R
B. 2/7R
48. Heat transfer through direct contact
C. 7/2R
A. conduction
D. 5/2R
B. convection
C. radiation 54. According to the first law of thermodynam-
ics, applied to a gas, the increase in the
D. thermal
internal energy during any process:
49. A system is in equilibrium if the tem- A. equals the heat input minus the work
perature is the same throughout the entire done on the gas
system.
B. equals the heat input plus the work
A. Static done on the gas
B. Thermal C. equals the work done on the gas minus
C. Mechanical the heat input
D. Phase D. is independent of the heat input
50. Which of the following represents the en- 55. Device that accurately measures energy
ergy in storage? changes during a chemical process.
A. heat A. thermometer
B. work B. calorimeter
C. internal energy C. barometer
D. none of the mentioned D. anemometer

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 97

56. Which of the following statement is/are A. only if the thermal conductivity of A is
incorrect.(i) 2 thin woollen sweaters are greater than that of B
warmer than a thick woollen sweater(ii)

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B. only if A has the greater internal en-
it saves fuel if we cook food in a vessel ergy content
which is blackened at the bottom and pol-
ished from the sides(iii) the cable wires be- C. only if the specific heat of A is larger
tween two poles are left loose because in that that of B
summers, the wires do not break on ex- D. only if the volume of A is larger than
panding that of B
A. (i) only E. until both have the same temperature
B. (i) and (ii) 61. Why can’t a heat engine be 100% effi-
C. only (iii) cient?
D. (i) and (iii) A. Heat must be constantly created
B. No work can be done
57. Phase change from gas to liquid
C. Entropy is lost
A. sublimation
D. Thermal energy decreases
B. condensation
C. vaporization 62. The state of matter with definite volume
but no definite shape.
D. freezing
A. solid
58. All of the following are properties of ideal
B. liquid
gases except:
C. gas
A. Small amounts of energy are lost dur-
ing collisions between gas molecules D. none of above
B. Volume occupied by molecules is negli- 63. A measure of the average kinetic energy
gible compared to the volume occupied by of a substance.
the gas
A. heat
C. Gas molecules do not interact with
B. temperature
each other except during collisions
C. enthalpy
D. Gas molecules do not interact with
each other except during collisions D. entropy

59. The pressure exerted by a gas does not 64. In which process the P-V indicator diagram
depend on is straight line parallel to volume axis?
A. temperature. A. Isobaric
B. volume. B. Adiabatic
C. number of moles present. C. Isothermal
D. the identity of the gas. D. Isochoric

60. Body A is at a higher temperature than 65. Which of the following represents when a
Body B. When they are placed in contact, gas turns directly to a solid?
heat will flow from A to B A. decomposition

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 98

B. deposition C. Not changed

C. sublimation D. Reduced to half of original value
D. crystallization 71. On a cold winter day, metallic objects gen-
66. Which of the following is NOT a unit of erally feel cooler to the touch than wooden
heat? objects. This is because:

A. joules A. heat tends to flow from metal to wood.

B. the mass density of wood is less than

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. calories
the mass density of metals.
C. degrees Celsius
C. metals conduct heat better than wood.
D. All are units of heat.
D. the equilibrium temperature of metal
67. Which of the following is an assumption of is lower than that of wood.
the kinetic-molecular theory of gases? E. a given mass of wood contains more
A. Collisions between gas particles are in- heat than the same mass of metal.
elastic.
72. The enthalpy of a substance(denoted by h),
B. Gases consist of closely spaced parti- is defined as
cles.
A. h=u-pv
C. Gas particles move around in an or-
derly manner. B. h=u+pv
D. The temperature of a gas depends on C. h=-u+pv
the average kinetic energy of the gas par- D. h=-u-pv
ticles.
73. What is defined as a process during which
68. In which of the following systems, neither a fluid flows through a control volume
matter nor heat is exchanged between sys- steadily?
tem and surrounding?
A. Transient-flow process
A. Open system
B. Steady and uniform process
B. Closed system
C. Uniform-flow
C. Isolated system
D. Steady-flow process
D. none of above
74. Which of the following would have the
69. What does the tem “uniform” implies? highest entropy?
A. No change with volume A. A cold solid
B. No change with time B. A hot liquid
C. No change with location C. A hot gas
D. No change with mass D. A cold gas
70. If volume of gas is doubled without chang- 75. If the temperature of a gas increases and
ing its temperature, the pressure of gas is there is negative work done on the gas,
A. Doubled then
B. Reduced to one fourth of original value A. there must be heat added to the gas

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 99

B. the gas must be giving off heat to the 80. Two moles of a monatomic ideal gas at
environment. a temperature of 300 K and pressure of
0.20 atm is compressed isothermally (con-

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C. this is an adiabatic process.
stant temperature) to a pressure of 0.80
D. there must be less heat added than the atm. Find the work done by the gas.
work done on the gas.
A. -18000 J
76. What refers to the series of state through B. 0 J
which a system passes during a process? C. +18000 J
A. PathB. PhaseC. CycleD. Direction
D. -6900 J
A. Path
E. +6900 J
B. Phase
81. Convert 68 F to celsius.Convert-2 C to
C. Cycle Fahrenheit
D. Direction A. 20 C, 16 F
B. 16 C, 20 F
77. During , heat is absorbed by the system
from the surrounding. C. 20 C, 28 F α ∆L = α Li ∆T
A. endothemic D. none of above

B. exothermic 82. “The state of a simple compressible sys-

tem is completely specified by two inde-
C. equilibrium
pendent, intensive properties”. This is
D. none of above known as
A. Equilibrium postulate
78. A system is in equilibrium if there is
no change in pressure at any point of the B. State postulate
system with time. C. Environment postulate
A. Pressure D. Compressible system postulate
B. Thermal 83. In a certain process, 400J of heat energy
C. Mechanical is supplied to a system and at the same
time 150 J of work is done by the system.
D. Phase
What is the increase in internal energy of
the system?
79. Five moles of an ideal gas expands isother-
mally at 100 degree Celsius to five times A. 250 J
its initial volume. Find the heat flow into B. 100 J
the system.
C. 50 J
A. 6.7*104 J
D. 150 J
B. 7.0*104 J
84. Which gas deviates the most from ideal be-
C. 3.1*104 J havior?
D. 1.1*104 J A. CH4
E. 2.5*104 J B. H2O

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 100

C. Cl2 88. An isochoric process is one which take

D. He place at
A. Constant internal energy
85. A system in which there is a flow of mass
B. Constant volume
is known as
C. Constant entropy
A. Equilibrium system
D. Constant pressure
B. Isolated system
89. The behavior of which of these real gases

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Open system
will be reflected most closely with the
D. Closed system ideal gas law?
86. DON’T RUSH, YOU HAVE TIME. Water A. CO2
droplets condensing on the inside of a win- B. Ar
dow on a cold day. Is this process exother- C. CH4
mic or endothermic?
D. He
A. Gases condense to form liquids.
Gases are moving faster than liquids, the 90. What is defined a region in space chosen
air around the window has a higher tem- for study?
perature/kinetic energy. Releasing en- A. Surroundings
ergy to get water droplets, which is is
Exothermic B. System
C. Boundary
B. Gases condense to form liquids.
Gases are moving faster than liquids, the D. Volume
air around the window has a higher tem-
91. Work done by a system is taken to be
perature/kinetic energy. Releasing en-
ergy to get water droplets, which is is A. positive
Endothermic B. negative
C. Gases condense to form liquids. C. zero
Gases particles are moving slower than
D. varies according to situation
liquids. Releasing energy to get water
droplets, which is is Endothermic 92. A system in which even energy is not al-
D. Gases condense to form liquids. lowed to cross the boundary is called
Gases particles are moving slower than A. Closed system
liquids. Releasing energy to get water
B. Exclusive system
droplets, which is is Exothermic
C. Isolated system
87. The study of heat change in chemical reac- D. Special system
tions such as during the formation of car-
bon sulfide from carbon and sulfur. 93. Which of the following statements is True:
A. Thermodynamics A. When the temperature of an object in-
creases by one degree-C it means that it
B. Thermochemistry
has increased by less than one degree-F.
C. Electrochemistry B. 272 Kelvin is warmer than zero degree-
D. Chemical kinetics C.

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 101

C. If two objects are in thermal equilib- D. Water, ice and water vapor can coexist
rium they must have the same tempera- in equilibrium.
ture

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E. Two objects in thermal equilibrium
D. if an object (A) is warmer than a sec- must be at the same temperature.
ond object (B) in the Fahrenheit scale then
object (B) must be warmer than object (A) 98. If 20J of work is done in compressing a gas
in the Celsius scale. adiabatically the change in internal energy
is equal to
E. The coefficient of linear ex 4nsion is
the same for all materials. A. 20J
B. 10J
94. The direction of flow of heat between two
bodies is determined by C. -20J
A. Internal energy D. 200J
B. Total energy 99. When you dropped a hot metal sample into
C. Kinetic energy room temperature water in the lab what
D. None of these happened?
A. the heat from the metal traveled into
95. What is a process during which the tem-
the water
perature remains constant?
A. Isobaric process B. the cool from the water traveled into
the hot metal
B. Isothermal process
C. both of the other answers are correct
C. Isochoric process
D. none of above
D. Isometric process
100. A system which consists of fixed amount
96. Which law of nature states that energy
of mass and no mass can cross its bound-
can only be transformed from one type to
ary called
another?
A. Equilibrium system
A. Law of Conservation of Matter
B. Law of Conservation of Mass B. Thermal equilibrium system

C. Law of Cosigns C. Open system

D. Law of Conservation of Energy D. Closed system

97. Which one of the following statements is 101. Which of the following statements are
WRONG? CORRECT:1. The first law of thermody-
namics represents the conservation of en-
A. For the same increase in temperature,
ergy.2. Room temperature is about 20 de-
solids generally expand less than liquids.
grees on the Kelvin scale.3. A calorie is ap-
B. The number of molecules (N), the uni- proximately 4.2 J.4. Heat has the same
versal gas constant (R) and the absolute units as work.5. Heat is a temperature
temperature (T) are all thermodynamic difference.
variables.
A. 1, 3, and 4.
C. As the temperature increases from
zero degrees-C to 4 degrees-C, the wa- B. 3 and 5.
ter’s density increases. C. 1 and 5.

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 102

D. 1, 2 and 3. C. In an adiabatic compression there is

E. 2 and 4. no heat transfer between the system and
its surroundings.
102. Energy has different forms which include D. The average energy per molecule of
A. heat an ideal monatomic gas increases linearly
with temperature.
B. work
E. When an isolated ideal gas expands its
C. all of the mentioned temperature increases.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of the mentioned
107. Two different samples have the same
103. The macroscopic approach to the study of mass and temperature. Equal quantities
thermodynamics does not require a knowl- of energy are absorbed as heat by each.
edge of the behavior of individual particles Their final temperatures may be different
is called because the samples have different
A. Dynamic thermodynamics A. Heat capacities
B. Static thermodynamics B. Volumes
C. Densities
C. Statistical thermodynamics
D. Thermal conductivities
D. Classical thermodynamics
108. Internal energy of a system is defined as
104. Which best describes a spontaneous pro-
cess as it relates to the second law of ther- A. The sum of kinetic energies of all
modynamics? molecules of the system
B. The sum of kinetic and potential ener-
A. It destroys heat.
gies of all molecules of the system
B. It requires work.
C. The sum of potential energies of the
C. It creates energy. system
D. It occurs naturally. D. The average kinetic energy of all
molecules
105. During adiabatic compression of a gas its
temperature 109. Dierdra began writing a summary of the
relationship between the first and second
A. Remains constant
laws of thermodynamics.Thermal energy
B. Falls in a system is conserved and can increase
C. Become zero the system’s internal energy and/or be
used to do work.Which best completes
D. Rise Dierdra’s summary?
106. Which one of the following statements is A. Thermal energy moves from cooler ob-
FALSE: jects to warmer objects
A. For an ideal gas the specific heat at B. Thermal energy moves from warmer
constant volume is less than the specific objects to cooler objects.
heat at constant pressure. C. Thermal energy is destroyed when it
B. At 400K, the specific heat at constant leaves the system.
volume for Oxygen is equal to the specific D. Thermal energy is created when it en-
heat at constant pressure for Helium. ters the system.

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 103

110. What is the unit of the total energy of B. Microscopic form of energy
the system?
C. Internal energy

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A. Kj
D. External energy
B. Kj/Kg
C. Kg 116. If work done on a system then work done
is
D. g
A. Positive
111. Constant pressure process is also known
B. Negative
as
C. Zero
A. isopiestic process
B. isobaric process D. Infinite

C. all of the mentioned 117. Transfer of Kinetic Energy is

D. none of the mentioned A. Heat
112. In which of the following systems, no B. Work
matter, but only heat is exchanged be-
C. Internal Energy
tween system and surrounding?
D. The same on each particle
A. Open system
B. Closed system 118. What law asserts that energy is a ther-
C. Isolated system modynamic property?

D. none of above A. First law of Thermodynamics

B. Second law of Thermodynamics
113. What is Viscosity?
C. Third law of Thermodynamics
A. A liquid’s resistance to flow.
B. A liquid’s ability to flow. D. Zeroth law of Thermodynamics

C. A liquid’s flowing speed. 119. is the state in which the rate of en-
D. The measurement of time it takes a ergy flow between two objects is equal
solid to change to a liquid. and the objects are at the same tempera-
ture.
114. Convert 45 degree Celsius into degree
A. dynamic equilibrium
Fahrenheit
A. 77 B. temperature limit

B. 113 C. thermal equilibrium

C. 102 D. thermometry
D. 110 120. What does the term “steady” implies?
115. What form of energy refers to those a A. No change with volume
system possesses as a whole with respect
B. No change with time
to some outside reference frame, such as
potential and kinetic energies? C. No change with location
A. Macroscopic form of energy D. No change with mass

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 104

121. The term “thermodynamics” was first C. Interface

used in 1849 in the publication of a D. Control surface
A. Rudolph Clausius
126. Heat flow into a system is taken to be
B. William Rankine
, and heat flow out of the system is
C. Lord Kelvin taken as
D. Thomas Savery A. positive, positive

NARAYAN CHANGDER
122. In a certain process a gas ends in its origi- B. negative, negative
nal thermodynamic state. Of the following C. negative, positive
statements, which is possible as the net re-
sult of the process? D. positive, negative
A. The gas absorbs 50 J of heat and 50 J 127. The PV diagram for an adiabatic process
of work is done on it. looks similar to the PV diagram for
B. The gas does no work but rejects 50 J A. Isochoric process
of heat.
B. Isothermal process
C. The gas does no work but absorbs 50
J of heat. C. Isobaric process

D. The gas absorbs 50 J of heat and does D. It does not look similar to any of these
50 J of work. charts
E. The gas rejects 50 J of heat and does 128. Heat is.
50 J of work.
A. Energy transferred by macroscopic
123. The heat absorbed by melting a solid is work
known as B. Energy transferred by virtue of a tem-
A. latent heat of fusion perature difference
B. latent heat of solid C. Energy content of an object
C. latent heat of liquid D. A temperature difference
D. latent heat of vaporisation
129. Which one is not adiabatic process
124. Which phase change represents sublima- A. Escape of air from burst tyre
tion?
B. Cloud formation
A. solid to liquid
C. Slow expansion
B. liquid to gas
D. None
C. gas to solid
D. solid to gas 130. Open system usually encloses which of
the following devices?
125. The boundaries of a control volume,
A. Compressor
which may either real or imaginary is
called B. Turbine
A. Control boundary C. Nozzle
B. Control system D. All of the above

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 105

131. The property of a thermometer that al- B. The system received 20 J of energy as
lows it to indicate temperature is heat

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A. thermal expansion C. 20 J of work was done on the system
B. heat capacity D. The system lost 20 J of energy as heat
C. thermal equilibrium 137. Which one of the following statements is
D. conduction true?

132. Area under P-V diagram gives A. In an adiabatic process, the heat flow
is positive
A. Heat
B. In an isovolumetric process, the work
B. Internal energy done is positive
C. Work done C. The internal energy of a system is not
D. Temperature a state function
D. In a cyclic process, the change in inter-
133. What name is given to the process that
nal energy is zero
takes place at constant volume
E. In an isobaric process, the change in
A. Isobaric
internal energy is always zero
B. Isochoric
138. A milkman boils the milk before distribut-
C. Isothermal
ing it in the pots. He raises the temper-
D. Adiabetic ature of the milk from 10 ◦ C to 130 ◦ C
with the thermal energy of 120000 J. If
134. The movement of thermal energy from the mass of the milk is 25 kg, the specific
one thing to another. heat capacity of the milk would be
A. Heat transfer A. 25 J/kgC
B. Potential energy B. 250 J/kgC
C. Law of conservation C. 40 J/kgC
D. Specific heat D. 120 J/kgC
135. A system is said to be in thermodynamic 139. A system does 600J of work at the same
equilibrium if it maintains equilibrium. time has its internal energy increased by
A. Mechanical and phase 320J. How much heat has been supplied?
B. Thermal and chemical A. 280 J
C. Thermal, mechanical and chemical B. 600 J
D. Thermal, phase, mechanical and chem- C. 920 J
ical D. 20 J
136. A system undergoes an adiabatic process 140. A gas is compressed at a constant pres-
in which its internal energy increases by sure of 50N/m2from a volume of 10m3
20 J. Which of the following statements to a volume of 4m3. Energy of 100 J then
is true? added to the gas by heating. Its internal
A. 20 J of work was done by the system energy is

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 106

A. Increased by 400 J C. Internal energy

B. Increased by 200 J D. External energy
C. Increased by 100 J
146. The enthalpy and internal energy are the
D. Decreased by 200 J function of temperature for
141. What name is given to the process that A. all gases
takes place at constant temperature
B. steam

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Isobaric
C. water
B. Isochoric
D. ideal gas
C. Isothermal
D. Adiabetic 147. The first law of thermodynamics is con-
cerned with conservation of
142. Internal energy depends on
A. Molecules
A. Only pressure
B. Moles
B. Only Volume
C. Energy
C. Only Temperature
D. Temperature
D. Only Mass

143. A gas is heated by supplying it with 250 148. Which is NOT an intensive property of
kJ ofenergy; at the same time, it is com- thermodynamics?
pressedso that 500 kJ of work is done on A. Temperature
the gas.Calculate the change in the internal
energy ofthe gas. B. Mass

A. 250 kJ C. Pressure
B. 750 kJ D. Density
C. -250 kJ 149. The amount of heat energy required to
D. 500 kJ raise the temperature of a body of mass 1
kg through 1 k is called:
144. A gas in an insulated cylinder is com-
pressed rapidly and its internal energy in- A. Specific heat
creases by 25 J. Work done during this pro- B. Molar specific heat
cess is
C. Heat capacity
A. 25 J
D. Heat of vaporization
B. 50 J
C. -50 J 150. Which condition is necessary for most
D. -25 J gases to behave nearly ideally?
A. high pressure
145. What type of system energy is related to
the molecular structure of a system? B. high temperature
A. Macroscopic form of energy C. low compressibility
B. Microscopic form of energy D. low expansion

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 107

151. Which law states “Energy can neither 155. The mass of an oxygen molecule is 16
be created nor destroyed. It can only be times that of a hydrogen molecule. At
transformed”? room temperature, the ratio of the rms

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A. Zeroth Law speed of an oxygen molecule to that of a
hydrogen molecule is:
B. 1st Law
A. 1/4
C. 2nd Law
B. 16
D. 3rd law C. 1/16
152. At a given temperature T and pressure P, D. 1
a person’s lung holds a set volume of V of E. 4
air. Given that air is roughly 20% oxy-
gen, how many moles of oxygen are in his 156. A gas performs the most work when it
lungs? expands:
A. 0.2*(PT/RV) A. Isothermally
B. 5*(PT/RV) B. Adiabatically

C. 0.2*(PV/RT) C. lso-barically
D. At non-uniform rate
D. 5*(PV/RT)
157. A release of energy occurs during which
153. The difference between the molar spe- change of phase?
cific heat at constant pressure and the mo-
lar specific heat at constant volume for an A. solid to liquid
ideal gas is B. liquid to gas
A. The Boltzmann constant k C. gas to liquid
B. The universal gas constant R D. solid to gas
C. The Avogadro constant NA 158. This refer to the rest of the universe out-
D. kT side the system.
A. Surrounding
154. Which one of the following statements is
B. System
wrong?
C. Condition
A. Most solid materials contract when
cooled D. none of above

B. Generally liquids expand more than 159. Atmospheric air is comprised, roughly, of
solids for the same temperature change 80% nitrogen and 20% oxygen. A 100 L
sample of atmospheric air is kept at 300
C. If two bodies are in thermal equilib-
K and 100 kPa. How many moles of oxy-
rium than they must have the same tem-
gen molecules are found in this gas sam-
perature
ple? Use R = 10 (L kPa)/(mol K)
D. The density of most substances de-
A. 4/5
creases when they are heated
B. 2/3
E. Two bodies can be in thermal contact
for a very long time without being in ther- C. 3/2
mal equilibrium D. 1/5

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 108

160. If the heat capacity of a 10g of a sub- B. Relative properties

stance is 300 JK-1 then the heat capacity C. Unit properties
of 100g of same substance would be
equal to D. Phase properties
A. 300 J/K 166. The heat capacity of sodium metal is
B. 3 J/K 1500 J/K, if the mass of the sodium metal
is 75 kg, the specific heat capacity would
C. 3000 J/K be

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 30 J/K A. 20 J/kgC
161. Which law states “The entropy of a B. 40 J/kgC
closed system is always increasing”?
C. 10 J/kg C
A. Zeroth Law
D. 80 J/kgC
B. 1st Law
167. Gas pressure is caused by
C. 2nd Law
A. gas molecules colliding with surfaces
D. 3rd law
B. gas molecules condensing to a liquid
162. The area under a curve on P-V diagram
C. gas molecules hitting other gas
represents
molecule
A. The state of a system
D. barometers
B. The work done on or by the system
168. The term “thermodynamics” comes from
C. The work done in a cyclic process
Greek words “therme” and “dynamis”
D. Internal energy of the system which means
163. The electrons in an atom which rotate A. Heat power
about the nucleus possess what kind of en- B. Heat transfer
ergy?
C. Heat energy
A. Translational energy
D. Heat motion
B. Spin energy
C. Rotational kinetic energy 169. Surface tension is the property of water
in which (select all that apply)
D. Sensible energy
A. water molecules at the surface tend to
164. What is the mass or region outside the stick together.
system called? B. water spills easily.
A. Surroundings C. water tends to be see-through.
B. Boundary D. water tends to push up into a dome
C. Volume over a container before it finally spills.
D. Environment 170. What is a process with identical end
165. Extensive properties per unit mass are states called?
called A. Cycle
A. Specific properties B. Path

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 109

C. Phase 175. Which of the following statements best

D. Either path or phase describes the Second Law of Thermody-
namics?

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171. Any characteristic of a thermodynamics
A. The internal energy of the universe is
system is called a
constant.
A. Property
B. Energy can be neither created nor de-
B. Process stroyed.
C. Phase C. When an isolated system undergoes a
D. Cycle spontaneous change, the entropy of the
system will increase.
172. What is the real or imaginary surface
that separates the system from its sur- D. At absolute zero, the entropy of a per-
roundings? fect crystal is considered to be zero.

A. Division 176. If a gas has the same temperature

B. Wall throughout, which gas molecule has the
highest average velocity?
C. Boundary
A. O2
D. Interface
B. H2O
173. The molecules of a gas moving through
C. H2
space with some velocity possesses what
kind of energy? D. Xe
A. Translational energy 177. What is a process during which the pres-
B. Spin energy sure remains constant?
C. Rotational kinetic energy A. Isobaric process
D. Sensible energy B. Isothermal
174. Assume an experiment vessel which is C. Isochoric
well fitted with a piston. The airtight pis- D. Isometric
ton has negligible mass and can move up
and down freely. There is 1 mol of an ideal 178. The sum of all the microscopic form of en-
gas contained within the vessel under the ergy is called
piston at pressure of 100 kPa. The piston A. Total energy
rests at 10 cm from the base of the ves-
B. Internal energy
sel. The pressure in the vessel increases to
200 kPa as force is applied to the piston. C. system energy
What would be the new resting position D. Phase energy
of the piston from the base of the vessel?
Assume the temperature is held constant 179. CV of a gas is 8 cal/Kmol. Find CP/CV.
at 300 K throughout the experiment. Assume R = 2 cal/Kmol.
A. 5 cm A. 1.4
B. 2 cm B. 1.33
C. 1 cm C. 1.25
D. 8 cm D. 1.8

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 110

180. The work done in the expansion of a gas 185. A system of monatomic ideal gas ex-
from an initial to a final state. pands to twice its original volume, doing
A. always equals P(V f i 300 J of work in the process. The heat
added to the gas will be largest if the pro-
B. depends only on the end points. cess is
C. is the slope of a PV curve. A. cyclic.
D. is the area under the curve of a PV di- B. done at constant volume.
agram.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. done adiabatically.
E. is negative.
D. done isothermaly.
181. Which of the following lists provide three
E. done at constant pressure.
exothermic processes?
A. melting, freezing, and vaporizing 186. Which of the following is not true about
B. melting, subliming, and vaporizing the volume of a gas?

C. condensing, deposition and freezing A. Most of the volume is empty space.

D. condensation, deposition and sublima- B. The volume is occupied by particles in
tion continuous, rapid, random motion.
C. The volume is about 10 times greater
182. What law asserts that energy has quality
than that occupied by an equal number of
as well as quantity?
particles in the liquid or solid state.
A. First law of Thermodynamics
D. Generally, the volume can be easily
B. Second law of Thermodynamics changed
C. Third law of Thermodynamics
187. different flasks contain gas sample at
D. Zeroth law of Thermodynamics 298 K, which of the following samples will
183. What does “adiabatic” mean literally? the gas molecular be moving the slowest?

A. To pass through A. N2

B. To not pass through B. O2

C. To change quickly C. H2
D. To heat or cool D. CO2

184. How much heat is required to melt ice of 188. Rosa pours a cup of boiling water into a
mass 500 g at-10 deg C to water at 0 pot of room-temperature water. Accord-
deg C? (specific heat of ice, c i = 2220 ing to the second law of thermodynamics,
J/(kg.K); heat of fusion of ice, L fi = what will occur?
333*10 3 J/kg ) A. Thermal energy from the room-
A. 8.45*10 5 temperature water will continuously flow
B. 9.05*10 5 to the boiling water.

C. 1.78*10 5 B. Thermal energy from the room-

temperature water will flow to the boiling
D. 2.05*10 5 water until all of the water in the pot is at
E. 3.01*10 5 a single temperature.

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 111

C. Thermal energy from the boiling wa- C. combustion processes

ter will continuously flow to the room-
D. all of the mentioned
temperature water.

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D. Thermal energy from the boiling water 194. How many independent properties are re-
will flow to the room-temperature water quired to completely fix the equilibrium
until all of the water in the pot is at a sin- state of a pure gaseous compound?
gle temperature.
A. 4
189. The prefix “iso” used to designate a pro- B. 3
cess means
C. 2
A. Cannot be interchanged
D. 1
B. Remains constant
C. Approximately equal 195. Which law of Thermodynamics helps to
D. Slight difference explain how car engines work?
A. Zeroth Law
190. Energy can neither be created nor de-
stroyed; only transformed from one form B. 1st Law
to another. C. 2nd Law
A. First Law of Thermodynamics
D. 3rd Law
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
C. Third Law of Thermodynamics 196. A Carnot engine operates between
200◦ C and 20◦ C. Its maximum possible ef-
D. Law of Conservation of Matter ficiency is
191. Which of the following is true for a A. 90%
steady flow system?
B. 100%
A. mass entering = mass leaving
C. 38%
B. mass does not enter or leave the sys-
tem D. 24%
C. mass entering can be more or less E. 72%
than the mass leaving
197. During an adiabatic process, a sample of
D. none of the mentioned
gas does 400 J of work on the environ-
192. Heat transfer through liquids or gases ment. What change occurs with the inter-
nal energy of the gas?
A. conduction
B. convection A. The internal energy increases by 400
J.
C. radiation
B. The internal energy doesn’t change.
D. thermal
C. The internal energy decreases by 400
193. The steady flow energy equation is ap- J.
plied to which of the following processes?
D. There is not enough information if we
A. pipe line flows don’t know how much heat was added or
B. heat transfer processes removed.

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 112

198. Which law explains the relationship be- 203. Heat energy added to a system under
tween temperature and entropy? isothermal conditions appears as
A. Zeroth Law A. Work done by the system
B. 1st Law B. Work done on the system
C. 2nd Law C. Increase in internal energy
D. 3rd Law D. Increase in temperature
204. If two objects are in thermal equilibrium

NARAYAN CHANGDER
199. A system is in equilibrium of its chemi-
with each other
cal composition does not change with time,
i.e., no chemical reaction occurs. A. They cannot be moving
A. Chemical B. They cannot be at different tempera-
tures
B. Thermal
C. They cannot be undergoing an elastic
C. Mechanical collision
D. Phase D. They cannot have different pressures
200. Durning a phase change the temperature 205. The thermodynamic properties that are
of a substance independent on the size of the system is
A. always increases called
B. always decreases A. Extensive property

C. always stays the same B. Intensive property

C. Open property
D. varies
D. Closed property
201. If the pressure inside a container of gas
has decreased, it must have been caused 206. Why is water a polar molecule? (SELECT
by ALL THAT APPLY)

A. adding heat to the gas or increasing A. becaus of the bent shape of a water
the volume of the gas molecule
B. because of the large electronegativity
B. removing heat from the gas or de-
difference betweeen oxygen and hydro-
creasing the volume of the gas
gen.
C. adding heat to the gas or decreasing
C. because of the linear shape of a water
the volume of the gas
molecule
D. removing heat from the gas or increas-
D. due to hydrogen bonding
ing the volume of the gas
207. Heat flow from a cool body to a hot body
202. In a constant volume process, internal en- would not violate the 1st Law, energy
ergy change is equal to would be still conserved
A. heat transferred A. True
B. work done B. False
C. zero C. Maybe
D. none of the mentioned D. Sometimes

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 113

208. In an adiabatic process C. 75 J/kgC

A. the energy absorbed as heat equals D. 100 J/kgC

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the work done by the system on its sur-
rounding. 213. How can you convert Kelvin to Celcius?
B. the energy absorbed as heat equals A. add 273
the work done by the surrounding on the B. subtract 273
system.
C. multiply by 273
C. the energy absorbed as heat equals
D. divide by 273
the change in internal energy
D. the work done by the surrounding on 214. Which is the best example of a change
the system equals the change in internal that can be reversible?
energy. A. clay put in an oven to harden
209. Suppose volume of gas in a cylinder is 3 B. cake batter put in an oven to bake
cm3, if the piston is kept fixed and gas is
C. chocolate left in a warm car to melt
heated from 5 o C to 12 o C then the work
done is D. wood being burnt
A. 2.3 J 215. Air is injected from a cylinder of com-
B. 21 J pressed air into a spherical balloon of ini-
tial volume V, causing its diameter to dou-
C. Zero
ble. What is the work done at constant
D. 25 J pressure P?
210. How does a refrigerator work? A. 7.0 PV
A. Moves heat from inside the fridge to B. 4.0 PV.
the room C. 3.0 PV.
B. Blows cold air into the fridge D. 8.0 PV.
C. Uses convection cells E. 1.0 PV.
D. It generates cold air
216. is the process by which kinetic energy
211. Maximum work is done in which process is transferred when particles collide.
A. Isotherm A. conduction
B. Isobaric B. convection
C. Isochoric C. heat transfer
D. Adiabatic D. radiation
212. In a science lab a student heats up a chem- 217. Starting with the same initial conditions,
ical from10◦ C to 25◦ C which requires an ideal gas expands from volume V1 to
thermal energy of 30000J.If the mass of V2 in three different ways. The work done
object is 40 k, the specific heat capacity of by the gas is W1 if the process is purely
the chemical would be isothermal, W2 if purely isobaric and W3
A. 25 J/kgC if purely adiabatic. The
B. 50 J/kgC A. W2 > W1 > W3

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1.5 First Law Applied to Flow Process 114

B. W2 > W3 > W1 B. Kinetic and potential energy

C. W1 > W2 > W3 C. Magnetic and electrical energy
D. W1 > W3 > W2 D. Kinetic and magnetic energy
218. If 315cal of heat is given to the system,
and the system does 20cal of work, find 223. If an ideal gas is compressed isother-
the change in internal energy. mally, which ofthe following statements
is true?
A. 335cal

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Energy is transferred to the gas by
B. 295cal
heat.
C. 335J
B. No work is done on the gas.
D. 295 J
C. The temperature of the gas increases.
219. Is more energy required melt or to boil
the same amount of water? D. The internal energy of the gas remains
constant.
A. Boiling requires more energy
E. None of those statements is true
B. melting requires more energy
C. it takes the same amount of energy to 224. Rates of effusion of different gases are
melt water or to boil water proportional to their
D. none of above A. polarity.
220. A 24.0 gram sample of copper was B. particle charge.
heated from 25.0oC to 500.0oC, 4378J of
heat were absorbed, what is the specific C. particle velocities.
heat of copper? D. compressibility.
A. .384
B. 49909200 225. Which properties reflected in real gases
does the van der Waals equation attempt
C. 2.60 to account for by modifying the ideal gas
D. 8.77 law? I. VolumeII. PressureIII. Tempera-
ture
221. What is responisble for water’s unique
properties such as high boiling point, high A. II
heat (enthalpy) of fusion and high heat (en- B. I and II
thalpy) of vaporization?
C. I, II and III
A. water’s structure allows for hydrogen
bonding D. I
B. ionic bonding
226. Convert-21◦ C into Kelvin.
C. it’s ability to ionize
A. 252K
D. it’s linear shape
B. 316◦ 100
222. The internal energy comprises of two
types of energies, those are C. 303K
A. Mechanical and electrical energy D. -163 ◦ 100

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 1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 115

227. A system undergoes an adiabatic process B. high temperatures and high pressures
in which its internal energy increases by C. high temperatures and low pressures
20 J. Which of the following correctly de-

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scribes changes in the system? D. low temperatures and low pressures

A. Heat:40 J added, Work:20 J by the sys- 230. In an ideal gas system, the work done
tem during an isothermal process is equal to
B. Heat:20 J added, Work:none A. heat intake
C. Heat:none, Work:20 J by the system B. twice heat intake
D. Heat:20 J removed, Work:none C. negative heat intake
E. Heat:none, Work:20 J D. internal energy

228. What type of heat transfer is a beaker 231. When an ideal gas undergoes an adia-
on a hot plant an example of? batic expansion, which of the following
statements is true?
A. Conduction
A. Thetemperature of the gas doesn’t
B. Covection
change
C. Radiation
B. No work is done by the gas.
D. Chemical
C. No energy is delivered to the gas by
229. Gases found in the environment are most heat
likely to exhibit properties similar to that D. The internal energy of the gas doesn’t
of ideal gases under conditions of: change.
A. low temperatures and high pressures E. The pressure increases

1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics

1. can conversions of energy reach 100% of 3. What is the value of work done for a
efficiency? closed, reversible, isometric system?
A. no most transformations are only 10% A. zero
efficient B. positive
B. yes all of them are 100% C. negative
C. closer to 90% D. + /-

D. none of above 4. Identify the wrong statement.

A. For isothermal process, ∆T = 0
2. in the entropy conversion process, what is
B. For isochoric process, ∆V = 0
input energy converted to?
C. For isobaric process, ∆P = 0
A. heat
D. For cyclic process, ∆W = 0
B. output energy
5. What happens to the amount of usable en-
C. useful energy for work ergy in a system over time?
D. waste A. remains constant

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 116

B. increases until the heat of friction A. 0 J

equal the original potential energy in the B. 5 J
system
C. 8 J
C. increases
D. 30 J
D. decreases
11. What thermodynamic process for an ideal
6. The refrigerator has a performance coeffi-
gas system has an unchanging internal en-
cient of 6. What is meant by the tempera-
ergy and a heat intake that corresponds

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ture outside the refrigerator is 28 degrees
to the value of the work done by the sys-
Celcius, the lowest temperature in the re-
tem?
frigerator is degrees Celcius
A. isovolumetric
A. -18
B. isobaric
B. -13
C. -16 C. adiabatic

D. -12 D. isothermal

E. -15 12. An ideal gas system undergoes an adia-

batic process in which it expands and does
7. The unit of work was named after 20 J of work on its environment. What
A. James Watt is the change in the system’s internal en-
ergy?
B. Isaac Newton
C. James Joule A. -20 J

D. Renee Descartes B. -5 J
C. 0 J
8. All of the places where living things exist
are referred to as the D. 20 J

A. Atmosphere 13. Which of the following is a set of parti-

B. Ecosystem cles or interacting components to which en-
ergy is added or from which energy is re-
C. Environment moved?
D. Biosphere A. an ideal gas
9. The third law of thermodynamics is often B. an engine
called the theorem of
C. a system
A. Pitagoras
D. an environment
B. Tales
14. What is the proper order of processes in
C. Nernst
an internal combustion engine?
D. Bernoulli
A. Intake, power, exhaust, compression
10. An ideal gas system is maintained at a con- B. Intake, compression, power, exhaust
stant volume of 4 L. If the pressure is con-
stant, how much work is done by the sys- C. Exhaust, compression, intake, power
tem? D. Compression, intake, power, exhaust

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 117

15. What is the efficiency of a machine if 55.3 20. When a gas undergoes adiabatic expan-
J of energy are consumed by the machine, sion, its internal energy
but only 14.3 J of useful energy is pro-

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A. increases
duced by the machine?
B. decreases
A. 0.25 J
C. remains same
B. 26%
D. none
C. 386%
D. 3.86 J 21. Which one of the following statements
best describes a reversible process?
16. how much incoming solar radiation is re- A. All heat input into the system is con-
flected away from the atmosphere? verted into work during the process.
A. 20% B. The overall entropy of the system does
B. 29% not increase during the process.
C. 30% C. The initial and final temperatures for
D. 50% the process are the same.
D. The entropy of the system decreases
17. Entropy
during the process.
A. states the universe likes organization
E. Statements (b) and (c) both describe a
B. is a measure of randomness reversible process.
C. states energy can be created
22. Thermal energy can change form and loca-
D. none of above tion, but cannot be created or destroyed
18. Which of the following statement is incor- is
rect? A. The 0th Law of Thermodynamics
A. Heat (q) has randomising influence on B. The 1st Law of Thermodynamics
the system. C. The 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
B. Entropy change varies directly with D. The 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
temperature.
C. Entropy change is a state function. 23. What is the kinetic energy of all particles
at absolute zero?
D. Temperature is the measure of aver-
age chaotic motion of the particle in the A. 0 J
system. B. 0 K

19. Heat is C. Infinite energy

A. hot D. Cannot be determined

B. the energy that is transferred between 24. Which of the following statements is in
objects because of a temperaturediffer- agreement with the second law of thermo-
ence dynamics?
C. the quantity measure from the aver- A. It is possible to continuously convert
age kinetic energy of vibrating molecules thermal energy fully into work.
in a substance B. In natural processes, local entropy
D. none of above must increase.

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 118

C. Thermal energy will not flow by itself C. Reservoir that supplies heat
from cold to hot bodies.
D. Reservoir that produce work
D. The entropy in a closed system tends
to decrease. 30. The requirement that a heat engine must
give up some energy at a lower temper-
25. Which phase change represents a decrease
ature in order to do work corresponds to
in entropy?
which law of thermodynamics?
A. solid to liquid

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. first
B. gas to liquid
B. second
C. liquid to gas
C. third
D. solid to gas
D. No law of thermodynamics applies.
26. The total amount of energy in a system is
ALWAYS 31. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends
A. increasing upon
B. decreasing A. temperature limits
C. conserved B. pressure ratio
D. changing
C. volume compression ratio
27. Which one of the following statements D. cut-off ratio and compression ratio
concerning an ideal engine is true?
A. The entropy of the system decreases 32. In a thermodynamic process, If the vol-
with time. ume remains constant, then the process is
known as
B. No heat transfer occurs between the
system and its surroundings. A. isothermal
C. All system processes are reversible. B. isobaric
D. The temperature of the system is usu- C. isochoric
ally constant.
D. adiabatic
E. The system cannot be used to perform
work.
33. Choose a real life example of the zeroth
28. Symbol that indicates that energy is re- law
leased. A. An open perfume within a closed sys-
A. U tem.
B. Q B. A cup of hot cofee becomes cold after
C. -Q some time.
D. W C. Plants convert the energy of sunlight
into chemical energy stored in organic
29. Heat source is molecules.
A. Reservoir that rejects work D. Light bulbs transform electrical energy
B. Reservoir that absorbs heat into light energy.

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 119

34. A heat engine is designed to absorb heat C. 1.7

a temperature of 627oC and remove that D. 1.5
heat a temperature of 327oC . With the

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heat input of 800 cal, the largest amount 39. Which of the following statement is incor-
of effort that can be done by machines op- rect regarding spontaneity of a reaction?
erating at maximum efficiency is
A. The flow of heat is unidirectional from
A. 2040 J higher temperature to lower temperature
B. 1190 J B. All naturally occurring processes tend
C. 750 J to proceed spontaneously in any direction
D. 680 J C. The gas in a container will not sponta-
neously contract into one corner
E. 283 J
D. Spontaneous reactions occurs immedi-
35. What is reversed heat engine? ately when contact is made between the
A. Device that make heat flow from hot to reactants
cold
40. Which of the following would be the best
B. Device that make heat flow from cold insulator?
to hot
A. air
C. Device that use work to supplies en-
B. aluminum
ergy
C. copper
D. device that use heat to produce workk
D. silver
36. In which process, it is possible to increase
the temperature without giving heat 41. For a heat engine operating between two
temperatures (T2 > T1), what is the max-
A. Isothermal compression
imum efficiency attainable?
B. Isothermal expansion
A. 1-(T1/T2)
C. Adiabatic compression
B. 1-(T2/T1)
D. Adiabatic expansion
C. T1-T2
37. Which of the following is a way to improve D. 1-(T12/T2)
the efficiency of a heat engine?
A. increase Qh 42. A Carnot engine originally had an effi-
ciency of 50% with 500 J. With the heat
B. reduce Qh absorbed always constant and the carnot
C. reduce Wnet engine efficiency increasing by 10%, the
ratio of heat released at the beginning and
D. increase Qc
the end is
38. During adiabatic process, the pressure of a A. 6:7
gas is found to be proportional to the cube
of its absolute temperature.The γ of the B. 6:5
gas is C. 5:6
A. 1.3 D. 4:5
B. 2 E. 5:4

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 120

43. What is second law of thermodynamics? 47. What occurs when a system’s disorder is
A. change in Internal energy equal to dif- increased?
ference of heat supplied and work done by A. No work is done.
the system
B. No energy is available to do work.
B. if two thermodynamic systems are
each in thermal equilibrium with a third C. Less energy is available to do work.
system, then they are in thermal equilib-
D. More energy is available to do work.
rium with each other

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Energy neither create nor destroy but 48. What is an example of the third law of
it is only can convert to another form thermodynamics?
D. Although nett heat supplied in a cycle A. We have two boxes:one of 15 kg. and
is equal to nett work done, gross heat another of 50 kg. If we apply the same
supply must be always greater than work amount of force to move them, the first
done box will move faster.
44. Steps of the otto cycle are B. If we jump from a raft into the water,
A. adiabatic expansion, isovolumetric de- the raft goes back, while our body moves
crease in pressure, adiabatic compres- forward.
sion, isovolumetric increase in pressure C. Burn a certain amount of paper (10
B. isothermal expansion, isovolumetric grams) and then collect the resulting ash.
decrease in pressure, isothermal com- The weight of this is less than the initial 10
pression, isovolumetric increase in pres- grams.
sure
D. The force applied to the ball increases
C. isothermal expansion, adiabatic ex- its acceleration and causes it to move
pansion, isothermal compression, adia- along the track, knocking down the pins.
batic compression
D. none of above 49. During an ideal, reversible cycle, what is
true about the change in entropy?
45. How many laws of thermodynamics are
there? (that we’ve talked about in this A. it is temperature dependent
class before) B. it is always greater than zero
A. a lot
C. it is always zero
B. 3
D. it is always less than zero
C. 4
D. 2 50. What is the useful sound output from a ra-
dio of efficiency 50% when supplied with
46. how much incoming solar radiation is actu- 20 J of energy?
ally converted to heat on earth?
A. 10 J
A. 30%
B. 50% B. 20 J

C. 19% C. 40 J
D. 1% D. 70 J

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 121

51. A total of 500 gram of water is heated 55. According to the second law of thermody-
from a temperature of 30 degrees Cel- namics, which of the following statements
sius to 100 degrees Celsius. if the final about a heat engine operating in a com-

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entropy of the system is 4.250 J/K, ini- plete cycle must be true?
tial entropy of the system is (c wa- A. Heat from a high-temperature reser-
ter:4200 J/kgK) voir must be completely converted to
A. 3.813, 62 J/K work.
B. 3.639, 10 J/K B. Heat from a high-temperature reser-
voir equals the entropy increase.
C. 3.318, 33 J/K
C. Heat from a high-temperature reser-
D. 3.183, 59 J/K voir must be completely converted to in-
E. 3.038, 67 J/K ternal energy.
D. Heat from a high-temperature reser-
52. describe an example of the principle of con-
voir cannot be completely converted to
servation of energy
work.
A. ice freezing
56. What is the difference between a refriger-
B. chemical energy in food transforming ator and aheat pump?
into mechanical energy for us to use to
move A. The purpose of a refrigerator is to re-
move heat from a cold medium and the
C. someone grilling chicken on the stove purpose of a heat pump is to supply heat
for dinner to a warm medium
D. none of above B. The purpose of a refrigerator is to sup-
ply heat to a warm medium and the pur-
53. What phase of matter has the most en- pose of a heat pump is to remove heat
tropy? from a cold medium
A. solid C. The heat pump captures energy from
B. liquid a warm medium to carries it to cold
medium, the refrigerator captures energy
C. gas
from cold medium and carries it to a warm
D. none of above medium

54. what is the difference between heat pump D. The heat pump captures energy from
and air conditioning? a cold medium to to carries it to warm
medium, the refrigerator captures energy
A. Desire output for heat pump is a QL from warm medium and carries it to a cold
and desire output for air conditioning is medium
QH
57. The law of thermodynamics states
B. Desire output for heat pump is a QH
that if two thermodynamic systems are
and desire output for air conditioning is QL
each in thermal equilibrium with a third
C. Desire input for heat pump is a QH and one, then they are in thermal equilibrium
desire output for air conditioning is QL with each other. If A = B and B = C then A
D. Desire input for heat pump is a QH and also = C.
desire output for air conditioning is QL A. Zeroth

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 122

B. First 62. The 1st Law of Thermodynamics is most

C. Second similar to

D. Third A. The Law of Conservation of Momentum

58. What is “Entropy”? B. Newton’s 3rd Law

A. The tendency of objects to warm up C. The Law of Universal Gravitation

B. The tendency of energy to spread out D. The Law of Conservation of Energy

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The tendency of energy to make heat
63. The aging of our bodies over time is an ex-
D. The tendency of objects to do work ample of which of the following?
59. A heat engine has taken in energy as heat A. Newton’s Second Law
and used a portion of it to do work. What
must happen next for the engine to com- B. Newton’s First Law
plete the cycle and return to its initial con- C. First Law of Thermodynamics
ditions? It must
D. Second Law of Thermodynamics
A. give up energy as heat to a lower tem-
perature so work can be done on it. E. Third Law of Thermodynamics
B. give up energy as heat to a higher tem-
64. the first law of thermodynamics states
perature so work can be done on it.
that
C. do work to transfer the remaining en-
ergy as heat to a lower temperature. A. entropy is always increasing
D. do work to transfer the remaining en- B. entropy is always decreasing
ergy as heat to a higher temperature.
C. energy cannot be created or de-
60. Wich of the following sentences referst to stroyed; only transformed
the Zeroth law of thermodynamics? D. energy can be created
A. Three systems wich are in thermal
equilibrium with forth system are in ther- 65. Thermal efficiency is defined as
mal equilibrium with each other.
A. 1-Qc/Qh
B. It is concerned with thermal equilib-
rium between three bodies. B. the amount of work added

C. Systems in thermal contact are in com- C. the amount of heat added-amount of

plete equilibrium with one another when heat removed
they haven’t the same temperature. D. the amount of heat added
D. none of above
66. Sunlight strikes an ice cube and causes it
61. In adiabatic compression, the internal en- to melt. What kind of process is this?
ergy
A. Adiabatic
A. increases
B. decreases B. Isothermal

C. remains constant C. Isovlumetric

D. zero D. Isovoltaic

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 123

67. Choose the correct order of organization C. it doesn’t

from most complex to simplest. D. none of above
A. tissues → cells → organs → organ-

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ism → organ system 73. Which of the following option are related
with the second law of thermodynamics.
B. organism → organ system → organs
→ tissues → cells A. celsius degree and kelvin degrees are
equivalent
C. organs → organ system → tissues →
organism → cells B. heat can be transformed into work
D. cells → tissues →organs → organ C. The heat lost by one object must be
systems → organism gained by another object

68. A straight vertical line on an PV diagram D. Heat flow naturally from a hotter body
signifies a to a cooler body

A. isobaric process 74. A chunk of ice with a mass of 1 kg at 0◦ C

B. isovolumetric process melts and absorbs 3.33 ‘ 10 J of heat in
the process. Which best describes what
C. adiabatic process happened to this system?
D. isothermal process A. Its entropy increased.
69. Heat sink is a B. Its entropy decreased.
A. Reservoir that rejects work C. Its entropy remained constant.
B. Reservoir that supplies heat D. Work was converted to energy.
C. Reservoir that absorbs heat
75. In physics, there is no such thing as
D. Reservoir that produces work
A. heat
70. At absolute zero temperature, entropy of B. cold
a system tends to
C. energy
A. maximum
D. temperature
B. zero
C. infinity 76. Which one of the following statements
concerning heat engines is false?
D. none of theses
A. A heat engine receives heat from a hot
71. What is the symbol for Thermal Energy in reservoir.
the specific heat formula?
B. A heat engine is a device that uses
A. Q heat to do work.
B. t C. Heat engines generally operate near
C. m one hundred percent efficiency.
D. C D. Part of the heat input to the engine is
used to do work by the working substance
72. Which way does heat flow? within the engine.
A. hot to cold E. Part of the input heat is rejected to a
B. cold to hot cold reservoir.

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 124

77. Work output of a large machine in a fac- 82. A tissue is made up of:
tory is 89, 000 Joules, and its input is A. groups of organ systems
102, 000 joules. Work output of a similar
machine is 92, 000 joules, and its work in- B. group of organs
put is 104, 000 joules. Which machine has C. group of cells
greater efficiency? D. groups of populations
A. The first machine
83. The effeciency of heat engine cannot be
B. The second machine

NARAYAN CHANGDER
100% because
C. Both have the same efficiency A. all heat energy absorbed is converted
D. Not enough information provided into work
B. some heat is rejected to the surround-
78. Which law of thermodynamics is based on
ings
the principle of conservation of energy?
C. workdone is greater than heat ab-
A. Second law
sorbed
B. Zero law
D. none
C. First law
84. Choose the application of heat engine
D. Third law
A. power plant
79. What is the efficiency of the machine if the B. locomotive engine
input (energy consumed) is 263 J and the
output (useful energy) is 142 J? C. refrigerator
A. 6.26% D. all above
B. 54% 85. All processes in a Carnot cycle must be re-
C. 100% versible. As a result, a Carnot engine must
operate
D. 260%
A. at a low temperature
80. Which of the following choices exhibits the B. very slowly
lowest degree of entropy?
C. at high temperature
A. a diamond crystal
D. both forward and backward
B. liquid oxygen
86. Which involves an increase in entropy? (if
C. ammonia vapor
needed, select more than one answer)
D. water in a quiet pond
A. spraying an air freshener
E. a block of paraffin
B. picking up apples off the ground
81. What is the efficiency of the machine if the C. dropping an egg on the floor
input is 263 J and the output is 142 J?
D. arranging a deck of cards by suit
A. 260%
87. When an ideal gas does positive work on
B. 54% its surroundings, which of the gas’s quan-
C. 121 J tities increases?
D. none of above A. temperature

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 125

B. volume 93. What does temperature measure?

C. pressure A. Heat of Molecules

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D. internal energy B. ◦ C
88. Internal energy involves the of a C. Average Kinetic Energy of Molecules
molecule’s particles. D. Thermal Energy
A. Potential energy
94. A machine has a work output of 8 joules
B. Kinetic energy and requires 10 joules of work input to op-
C. Chemical energy erate. What is the machine’s efficiency?
D. All of them A. 18 J
B. 2 J
89. An increase in the temperature of a gas
its internal energy. C. 80%
A. increases D. none of above
B. decreases 95. Entropy is a
C. doesn’t change A. State function
D. none of above B. path function
90. What is the law that states how much C. intensive variable
entropy in the universe tends to increase D. none of these
over time?
A. first law 96. A 600-MW steam power plant, which is
cooled by a nearby river, has a thermal ef-
B. second law
ficiency of 35 percent. Determine the rate
C. third law of heat transfer to the river water.
D. zero law A. 1523.30 MW
91. What are we doing tomorrow? B. 1022.30 MW
A. Worksheet C. 1114.28 MW
B. Video D. 1424.15 MW
C. Lab 97. When a drop of ink mixes with water,
D. Quiz what happens to the entropy of the sys-
tem?
92. A thermodynamic process occurs, and the
entropy of a system decreases. What can A. The system’s entropy increases, and
be concluded about the entropy change of the total entropy of the universe in-
the environment? creases.

A. It decreases. B. The system’s entropy decreases, and

the total entropy of the universe in-
B. It increases. creases.
C. It stays the same. C. The system’s entropy increases, and
D. It could increase or decrease, depend- the total entropy of the universe de-
ing on the process. creases.

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 126

D. The system’s entropy decreases, and 102. Which is not true for Second Law of Ther-
the total entropy of the universe de- modynamics?
creases. A. The second law of thermodynamic-
98. Air conditioning machine has 500 watts sstates that the total of entropy of an iso-
of power. If the room temperature is-3 lated system always increases over time,
degress celcius and the outside air temper- or remains constant in ideal cases where
ature is 27 degress celcius, what is the the system is in a steady state or under-
maximum heat that the cooling machine re- going a reversible process

NARAYAN CHANGDER
moves for 10 minutes .. (if the engine B. The second law of thermodynamics
efficiency is ideal) states that the total energy of an isolated
system is constant.
A. 2, 7 x 106 J
C. It is impossible by means of inanimate
B. 2, 8 x 106 J
material agency, to derive mechanical ef-
C. 2, 7 x 105J fect from any portion of matter by cooling
D. 2, 8 x 105J it below the temperature of the coldest of
the surrounding objects
E. 2, 5 x 106 J
D. It is impossible to construct an engine
99. Choose application of reversed heat engine while work in a complete cycle and pro-
A. refrigerator duce no effect except the raising of a
weight and cooling of a heat reservior
B. air conditioning
103. what is another name for the first law of
C. heat pump
thermodynamics?
D. all above
A. there is not another name
100. According to the first law of thermo- B. conservation
dynamics, the difference between energy
C. principle of conservation of energy
transferred to or from a system as heat
and energy transferred to or from a sys- D. chemical energy
tem by work is equivalent to which of the
104. A carnot engine absorbs 500 kJ of heat.
following?
This machine works in reservoir with a
A. entropy change temperature of 600 K and 400 K. How
B. internal energy change much heat is wasted by machine
C. volume change A. 333, 3 kJ
D. pressure change B. 33, 33 kJ
C. 35 kJ
101. What is a heat engine?
D. 53, 3 kJ
A. device that make heat flow from low
temperature to high temperature E. 55 kJ

B. device that use heat to produce work 105. Energy is neither created nor destroyed,
C. device that make heat flow from cold it is only
to hot A. Fade
D. device that use work to produce heat B. It multiplies

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 127

C. Goes to sleep 110. Which one of the following statements

D. Transforms best describes the operation of a heat en-
gine?

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106. Heat always flows from to A. A heat engine transfers heat from a
A. more internal energy, less internal en- higher temperature reservoir to a lower
ergy temperature reservoir through work per-
formed on the system.
B. less internal energy, more internal en-
ergy B. A heat engine transfers heat from a
lower temperature reservoir to a higher
C. lower temperatures, higher tempera- temperature reservoir through work per-
tures formed on the system.
D. higher temperatures, lower tempera- C. A heat engine performs work and gen-
tures erates an equal amount of heat in a cyclic
process.
107. At absolute zero entropy of a system
tends to D. A heat engine decreases the entropy
of the universe by generating an equal
A. maximum amount of heat and work.
B. zero E. A heat engine uses input heat to per-
C. infinity form work and rejects excess heat to a
lower temperature reservoir.
D. none of theses
111. entropy is always due to
108. A carnot engine if the heat reservoir is
400 K will have an efficiency of 40%. If A. increasing, thermodynamics
the hot reservoir is 640 K the efficiency is B. decreasing, energy transformations
C. decreasing, gravity
A. 50%
D. increasing, energy transformations
B. 52, 5%
112. An isochoric process has no change in
C. 57%
and W = 0.
D. 62, 5%
A. pressure
E. 64%
B. volume
109. Which is the best description of equilib- C. internal energy
rium? D. heat
A. When two systems weigh the same
amount as each other 113. If same quantity of heat is given, in which
process, the change in internal energy is
B. The equal exchange between reac- maximum
tants and products in open systems
A. Isobaric
C. The equal exchange between reac-
tants and products in closed systems B. Adiabatic

D. When reactants and products become C. Isothermal

equal to each other D. Isochoric

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 128

114. Consider the process of baking potatoes release large quantities of heat while re-
in a conventional oven. Can the hot air maining at constant temperature
in the oven be treated as a thermalenergy B. No heat engine can exchange heat
reservoir? with a single reservoir, and produce an
A. No. Because heat flow in the oven can- equivalent amount of work
not be transferred from a higher temper- C. The processes proceed in a certain di-
ature to a low-temperature medium rection and not in the reverse direction
B. Yes. Because the temperature incon-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The energy has quality as well as quan-
stant when heat is transferred to the pota- tity, and actual processes occur in the di-
toes rection of decreasing quality of energy
C. Yes. Because the temperature of the
oven remains constant no matter how 118. What are the characteristics of all heat
much heat is transferred to the potatoes engines?

D. none of above A. Cyclic devices

B. Receive heat from a source
115. Which one of the following statements
correctly describes the term state prop- C. Convert some to work
erty? D. Reject residue to a sink
A. A state property gives a complete de- E. Transfer heat from high-temperature
scription of the system. to a low-temperature
B. A state property describes any system 119. The second law of thermodynamics
property that is conserved. states that
C. A state property indicates which mi- A. entropy is constant
crostate the system is in.
B. the conservation of energy is always
D. A state property is a property that occurring
does not depend on the history of the sys-
tem. C. entropy is always increasing

E. A state property describes the amount D. entropy is always decreasing

of heat added to or removed from a sys- 120. Entropy states that a system tends to-
tem. wards (There are two correct answers,
116. Dragging an object across a rough surface pick both of them)
makes it warm, or even hot. The temper- A. order
ature increase occurs because of B. disorder
A. Work C. concentrated energy
B. Heat D. dispersed energy
C. Thermal
121. Which of the following is a thermody-
D. Both work and heat namic process in which a system returns
117. What is the Kelvin-Planck expression of to the same conditions under which it
the secondlaw of thermodynamics? started?

A. A two-phase system can also be mod- A. an isovolumetric process

eled as a reservoir since it can absorb and B. an isothermal process

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 129

C. a cyclic process 126. What accounts for an increase in the tem-

D. an adiabatic process perature of a gas that is kept at constant
volume? Energy has been

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122. Which of the following pair(s) of condi- A. removed as heat from the gas.
tions certain to result in a spontaneous re-
B. added as heat to the gas.
action?
C. removed as work done by the gas.
A. Endothermic and decreasing order
D. added as work done on the gas.
B. Exothermic and increasing disorder
C. Endothermic and increasing disorder 127. Calculate the efficiency of a machine
when 55.3 J of work input produces 14.3
D. Exothermic and decreasing disorder
J output?
123. Which of the following examples is cor- A. 41 J
rectly matched with its level of organiza-
B. 26%
tion?
C. 386%
A. A monarch butterfly is an organ sys-
tem. D. none of above
B. The brain is a type of tissue 128. If γ is the ratio of specific heats and R
C. A liver is a type of cell. is the universal gas constant, then the mo-
lar specific heat at constant volume Cv is
D. The skin is an organ. given by
124. How does entropy differ from energy? A. γ R
(γ −1)R
A. Entropy does not obey a conservation B. γ
law. R
C. γ −1
B. Entropy may be spelled differently, but
γR
otherwise it is a form of energy. D. γ −1
C. Entropy always remains constant.
129. All of the following are true about Ther-
D. Entropy relates to the transfer of en- modinamics, except
ergy.
A. there’s only 3 laws of thermodinamics
E. Energy can only decrease, but entropy
B. Thermo comes from the Greek
can only increase.
“therme”
125. How does a real heat engine differ from C. Dynamic comes from the Greek “dy-
an ideal cyclic heat engine? namis”
A. A real heat engine is not cyclic. D. This is the area of science concerned
B. An ideal heat engine converts all en- with describing heat and it’s relationship
ergy from heat to work. with energy

C. A real heat engine is not isolated, so 130. Which of these could explain why a heat
matter enters and leaves the engine. engine cannot be 100% efficient?
D. An ideal heat engine is not isolated, so A. If an engine were 100% efficient, heat
matter enters and leaves the engine. would be lost to the environment.

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 130

B. If an engine were 100% efficient, no B. 0 J

work would be done. C. 5 J
C. If an engine were 100% efficient, there D. 20 J
would be a net decrease in entropy.
D. If an engine were 100% efficient, there 135. An isobaric process has no change in
would be a net decrease in thermal en- A. pressure
ergy.
B. work

NARAYAN CHANGDER
131. what is entropy? C. internal energy
A. the measure of disorder of a system D. heat
B. the amount of energy gained in a reac-
tion 136. What is the useful work output of a ma-
chine that consumes 2, 800 Joules and an
C. how long it takes for the reaction to oc- efficiency of 40 %?
cur
A. 2, 760 J
D. the change in temperature during a re-
action B. 1680 J
C. 1120 J
132. Lucas has been challenged to increase the
efficiency of a device he is redesigning. His D. 70 J
goal is 90% efficiency. The work input of
137. A refrigerator is
the device is fixed at 10 joules, so Lucas
is trying to improve work output. How A. A heat engine
many joules of work output should Lucas B. An air cooler
aim for to attain his goal of 90% effi-
ciency? C. An electric motor

A. 9 Joules D. A heat engine working in the reverse

order
B. 900 Joules
C. 0.9 Joules 138. The air conditioner remove remove heat
steadily from a house at a rate of 750
D. 25 Kj/min while drawing electric power at a
133. If same quantity of heat is given, in which rate of 60 Kj/min.Determine the COP of
process, the external work done is mini- this air conditioner?
mum A. 12.5
A. Isobaric B. 2.08
B. Isothermal C. 3.28
C. Adiabatic D. 2.45
D. Isochoric
139. The refrigerator is an example of:
134. An ideal gas system undergoes an isovol- A. zero law of thermodynamics
umetric process in which 20 J of energy
is added as heat to the gas. What is the B. first law of thermodynamics
change in the system’s internal energy? C. second thermodynamics law
A. -20 J D. third thermodynamics law

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 131

140. Which of these could be a valid descrip- B. A bike rolling down a hill has kinetic en-
tion of “entropy”? ergy

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A. The tendency of objects to warm up C. Water flowing over a dam is used to
B. The tendency of energy to spread out generate electricity
C. The tendency of energy to make heat D. Some of the potential energy stored in
D. The tendency of objects to do work gasoline is lost as heat when burned in a
car’s engine
141. What is the rule of thermodynamics 2?
A. Determine the movement direction of 145. A gas turbine is an example of the first
the work substance in the process. law of thermodynamics

B. Determine the amount of work and en- A. true

ergy in the process. B. false
C. Determine the relationship of work C. maybe
changes and energy.
D. none of above
D. Determine the direction and deteriora-
tion of energy in the process.
146. What is the Heat Pump?
142. The Carnot engine running on a 600 K A. Machinery is used in heat production.
high temperature reservoir has an effi-
ciency of 40%. In order for the engine B. Machinery that is transferred from the
efficiency to be 75% with a constant low system
reservoir temperature, the high tempera- C. Machinery that transforms heat into
ture reservoir must be increased to work
A. 480 K
D. Machinery that is used to create cool
B. 840 K
C. 900 K 147. In an isovolumetric process for an ideal
gas, the system’s change in the energy as
D. 1028 K
heat is equivalent to a change in which of
E. 1440 K the following?
143. The 0th Law of Thermodynamics states A. temperature
A. Heat flows from hot to cold objects. B. volume
B. The universe tends toward disorder C. pressure
C. Heat does not flow between objects D. internal energy
with the same temperature
D. Absolute zero is the temperature 148. A straight horizontal line on a PV dia-
where particles stop moving gram signifies a
144. Which of the following is the best exam- A. isobaric process
ple of The Second Law of Thermodynam- B. isovolumetric process
ics?
C. adiabatic process
A. A bike parked at the top of a hill has
stored potential energy D. isothermal process

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1.6 Second Law of Thermodynamics 132

149. What are examples that show heat mov- 154. The entropy will usually increase when
ing from cold to hot?
A. a molecule is broken into two or more
A. refrigerator smaller molecules
B. freezer
B. a reaction occurs that results in an in-
C. it’s impossible crease in the number of moles of gas
D. the refrigerator and freezer
C. a solid changes to a liquid
150. The figure below shows that 1.200 J

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. all of these
of heat flows spontaneously from a hot
reservoir of 600 K to a cold reservoir of
300 K. What is the total entropy of the 155. A heat engine produces 3 000 J of heat
system (It is assumed that no during thecombustion of fuel and releases
other changes have occurred) 2 000 J of heat fromits exhaust. What is
the efficiency of this engine?
A. 6 J/K
B. 2 J/K A. 13%
C. 8 J/K B. 23%
D. 4 J/K C. 33%
E. 9 J/K
D. 43%
151. An inflated tyre of a bicycle bursts.Which
of the following relation between pressure 156. Which of the following is the best defini-
P and temperature T holds good if the γ is tion of entropy?
the ratio of the specific heats of air?
A. increase in disorganization within a
A. P(1−γ ) T γ
system
B. P(1−γ ) T (γ −1)
B. an energetically favorable reaction
C. P(γ −1) T γ
D. P(1−γ ) T (γ −1) C. increase in the concentration of a sub-
stance in a solution
152. When work is done on a system with no
heat added, its temperature D. a friction-free system
A. increases E. increase in organization within a sys-
B. decreases tem
C. stays the same
157. Which of the following processes is a
D. none of above
thermodynamic process that takes place at
153. Which statements are true? a constant volume so that no work is done
on or by the system?
A. petrol engine do not need spark plug
B. The efficieny of diesel engine is more A. Adiabatic
than petrol engine B. Isobaric
C. Deisel engine need a spark plug
C. Isothermal
D. The compression ratio of diesel engine
is greater than petrol engine D. Isovolumetric

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 1.7 Entropy 133

158. Which thermodynamic process takes from a cold medium and carries it to a
place when work is done on or by the sys- warm medium
tem but no energy is transferred to or from

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C. The coefficient of performance of a re-
the system as heat? frigerator represents the amount of heat
A. isovolumetric removed from the refrigerated space for
B. isobaric each unit of work supplied
C. adiabatic D. The coefficient of performance re-
frigerator is to remove heat from cold
D. isothermal
medium to a warm medium for each unit
159. In one cycle, an engine burning a mixture of work supplied
of air and methanol absorbs 525 J and
expels 415 J. What is the engine’s effi- 161. How much energy is necessary to melt 1
ciency? kg of ice?
A. 0.56 A. 3.34 x 105 J
B. 0.79 B. 6.68 x 105 J
C. 1.10 C. None, it just happens
D. 0.21 D. 1.67 x 105 J
160. Define the coefficient of performance of 162. If you see cardinals, blue jays and owls
a refrigerator? in your back yard, this is an example of a
A. The coefficient of performance of a re- A. community
frigerator represent the heat from a living
B. population
space
B. The coefficient of performance of a re- C. ecosystem
frigerator represent the energy captures D. species

1.7 Entropy
1. Spontaneous reactions are driven by D. Products favor the reactants
A. increasing enthalpy and increasing en- 3. I2(s) + energy → I2(g)As I2(s) sublimes
tropy. to I2(g), the entropy
B. decreasing enthalpy and decreasing
A. increases:particles are less randomly
entropy.
arranged
C. increasing enthalpy and decreasing
B. increases:particles are more ran-
entropy.
domly arranged
D. decreasing enthalpy and increasing en-
C. decreases:particles are less randomly
tropy.
arranged
2. A process i said to be spontaneous if D. decreases:particles are more ran-
A. It is exothermic domly arranged
B. It occurs without outside intervention 4. Entropy of Solid is greater than that of
C. Entropy is decreased Gases.

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1.7 Entropy 134

A. Trulala 10. What can be said about a chemical sys-

B. Falsemama tem that has reached a minimum in free
energy?
C. It will not change. So none of the
above. A. The system has achieved equilibrium.

D. none of above B. The reaction is complete.

C. The system entropy is zero.
5. What is the SI unit of S?
D. The reaction is very fast.
A. J

NARAYAN CHANGDER
11. What is the symbol for entropy?
B. J/K
A. H
C. kJ/mol
B. G
D. K/J
C. S
6. The thermodynamic quantity that ex- D. E
presses the degree of disorder in a system
is 12. The entropy of the system will usually in-
A. entropy crease when

B. internal energy A. a molecule is broken into two or more

smaller molecules
C. heat flow
B. a reaction occurs that results in an in-
D. enthalpy crease in the number of moles of gas
E. bond energy C. a solid changes to a liquid
7. Which of these have a DECREASE in sys- D. all of these
tem entropy?
13. What is a spontaneous process?
A. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
A. slow process
B. 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g) B. fast process
C. 2NH3(g) → 3H2(g) + N2(g) C. process that needs an external inter-
D. C6H6(l) → C6H6(g) vention to occur
8. A reaction that releases energy is D. process that does not need external in-
tervention to occur / keep happening
A. Exothermic
B. Endothermic 14. Heat transfer occurs from hot to cold.
C. Could be either A. always

D. none of above B. never

C. sometimes
9. The amount of energy required to raise the
D. rarely
temperature of one gram of pure water by
one degree Celsius is defined as: 15. Entropy can be described as
A. a joule A. the dispersal of matter
B. a watt B. the dispersal of energy
C. a calorie C. the degree of disorder
D. heat D. all of these

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1.7 Entropy 135

16. Spontaneity is determined by C. condensation of steam on cold glass

A. enthalpy only D. NaCl dissolving in water

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B. entropy only 22. Ammonium nitrate dissolves in water. It
C. enthalpy and entropy is a spontaneous endothermic process be-
cause the system undergoes
D. enthalpy, entropy, and temperature
A. a decrease in enthalpy
17. Which of the following scenarios de-
B. an increase in entropy
scribes a process with a negative entropy
change? C. an increase in enthalpy
A. Building a skyscraper D. a decrease in entropy
B. A clean room becomes cluttered 23. Which statement is true regarding en-
C. An igloo melting dothermic reactions?
A. Temperature change is positive and en-
D. Osmosis (I hope you know your Biol-
thalpy change is positive
ogy!)
B. Temperature change is positive and en-
18. Of the following, the entropy of gaseous thalpy change is negative
is the largest at 25eC and 1 atm.
C. Temperature change is negative and
A. C2H2 enthalpy change is positive
B. H2 D. Temperature change is negative and
C. C2H6 enthalpy change is negative
D. CH4 24. The measure of disorder in a system is
E. C2H A. entropy
B. enthalpy
19. Entropy of Gases is greater than that of
Solid. C. exothermic
A. Trulala D. endothermic
B. Falsemama 25. Which substances from the following pairs
C. It will not change. So none of the have the smallest So values? NO2 (g),
above. N2O4 (g) CH4 (g), C2H6 (g)
D. none of above A. NO2 and C2H6
B. NO2 and CH4
20. Entropy always increases when
C. N2O4 and C2H6
A. enthalpy decreases.
D. N2O4 and CH4
B. temperature decreases.
26. Which would have the highest positional
C. temperature increases.
entropy?
D. volume increases.
A. Solid CO2
21. Which represents a decrease in entropy? B. Liquid CO2
A. sublimation of CO2 C. Gaseous CO2
B. boiling water D. none of above

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1.7 Entropy 136

27. Which of the following is non- B. increases

spontaneous?
C. remains the same
A. Evaporating Water
D. none of above
B. Cooling down of hot water
C. Condensing Water Vapor 33. The reaction A + 2 B2 + C → CAB4 has an
enthalpy change of-104 kJ and a change
D. Solidifying of Magma in entropy of-60.8 J/K at 30 ◦ C. What is
the free energy and spontaneity of the re-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
28. Which change has a negative entropy
change of the system? action?

A. ice melting A. -85.6 kJ, spontaneous

B. salt dissolving B. -18.3 kJ, not spontaneous

C. water heating up C. +18.3 kJ, spontaneous
D. none of these D. +85.6 kJ, not spontaneous

29. Which substance is the better conductor? 34. An equilibrium constant with a large mag-
A. steel nitude indicates
B. gold A. A very fast reaction
C. wood B. Higher concentration of products at
equilibrium
D. aluminum
C. Higher concentration of reactants at
30. Which law of thermodynamics refers to equilibrium
the Entropy of the Universe?
D. Nothing, without considering the stoi-
A. Zeroth Law chiometry of the reaction
B. First Law
35. Entropy of Liquid is greater than that of
C. Second Law
Solid.
D. Third Law
A. Trulala
E. Fourth Law (if ever there is, because I
want to answer the most unreal choice) B. Falsemama
C. It will not change. So none of the
31. When gases are produced, Entropy is above.
A. Greater than zero
D. none of above
B. Lesser than zero
C. Equal to zero 36. If 25 J are required to change the temper-
ature of 5.0 g of substance A by 2.0◦ C,
D. Entropy wiill not be equal to zero, so what is the specific heat of substance A?
its either of the two.
A. 250 J/g C
32. Given the change of phase: CO2(g)->
B. 10 J/g C
CO2(s) As CO2(g) changes to CO2(s), the
entropy of the system C. 63 J/g C
A. decreases D. 2.5 J/g C

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1.7 Entropy 137

37. Which of these have a DECREASE in en- C. Gibbs Free Energy

tropy? D. Calorimetry
A. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

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43. Which sample has the lowest entropy?
B. 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g)
A. 1 mole of KNO3(l)
C. 2NH3(g) → 3H2(g) + N2(g)
B. 1 mole of KNO3(s)
D. C6H6(l) → C6H6(g)
C. 1 mole of H2O(l)
38. Heat transfer [blank] occurs from hot to
cold. D. 1 mole of H2O(g)

A. always 44. Which process is accompanied by a de-

B. never crease in entropy?
C. sometimes A. boiling of water
D. rarely B. condensing of water vapor
C. subliming of iodine
39. A catalyst works by
D. melting of ice
A. changing the order of the reaction
B. increasing the temperature 45. The formation 1/2 A2 + 2 B2 + C → CAB4
C. lowering the activation energy has an enthalpy of formation of-104 kJ
and a change in entropy of-60.8 J/K at
D. making the activated complex 30 ◦ C. What is the free energy and spon-
taneity of the reaction?
40. As NaCl dissolves according to the equa-
tion NaCl(s) → Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq), the en- A. -85.6 kJ, spontaneous
tropy of the system B. -18.3 kJ, not spontaneous
A. Increases
C. +18.3 kJ, spontaneous
B. Decreases
D. +85.6 kJ, not spontaneous
C. Remains the same
46. Which of the following produces a de-
D. none of above
crease in the entropy of the system?
41. Which of the following is a spontaneous A. dissolving solid KCl
process will give the lowest entropy after
the process? B. mixing 2 gases into one container

A. Evaporating Water C. melting ice to make water

B. Cooling down of hot water D. freezing water to form ice

C. Condensing Water Vapor 47. When gases are absorbed, Entropy is
D. Solidifying of Magma A. Greater than zero
42. The equation that relates enthalpy, tem- B. Lesser than zero
perature and entropy is C. Equal to zero
A. Hess’s Law D. Entropy wiill not be equal to zero, so
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics its either of the two.

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 1.8 Availability and Irreversibility 138

48. Which 2 answers best describe entropy B. 2L(g) + M(g) → 2N(g) exothermic
A. a measure of molecular randomness C. S(g) → 2T(g) exothermic
or disorder D. A(g) + B(g) → C(g) endothermic
B. natural tendency towards order
53. If Ice melts, its entropy increases.
C. decreases in a spontaneous reaction
A. Trulala
D. denoted by the symbol S
B. Falsemama
49. Temperature is a measure of average

NARAYAN CHANGDER
energy of individual atoms. C. It will not change. So none of the
above.
A. heat
D. none of above
B. potential
C. mechanical 54. Which one of the following processes pro-
duces a decrease in the entropy of the sys-
D. kinetic tem?
50. It is the amount of disorder in a system. A. dissolution of solid KCl in water
A. Enthalpy B. mixing of two gases into one container
B. Entropy C. freezing water to form ice
C. Entrolpy D. melting ice to form water
D. Enthralpy
55. Which reaction has the greatest increase
E. Maybe Entropy or Enthalpy, they are in entropy?
the same ya know.
A. 2H20 (l) → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)
51. Temperature is a measure of average B. H2O(g) → H2O(l)
[blank] energy of individual atoms.
C. H2O(l) H2O(s)
A. heat
D. none of above
B. potential
C. mechanical 56. A reaction that absorbs energy is
D. kinetic A. Exothermic

52. Which one of the equations below repre- B. Endothermic

sents a reaction that is spontaneous. C. Could be either
A. P(s) → Q(s) + R(g) endothermic D. none of above

1.8 Availability and Irreversibility

1. Which of the following losses occur in a cy- D. all of the mentioned
cle?
2. If heat rejected from the system Q2 is
A. piping losses zero, then
B. pump losses A. net work=Q1 and efficiency=1.00
C. turbine losses B. heat is exchanged only with one reser-

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1.8 Availability and Irreversibility 139

voir 8. A power cycle continuously converts

C. it violates the Kelvin-Planck statement into

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D. all of the mentioned A. heat, heat
B. work, heat
3. How much of our energy is produced from
the Sun C. heat, work
A. All the solar energy which is not a big D. work, work
percentage
9. Assume that a reversible heat engine is op-
B. All of our energy
erating between a source at T1 and a sink
C. Most of the energy in living things at T2. If T2 decreases, the efficiency of
D. 10 million gigawatts per day the heat engine
A. Decreases
4. Superheated vapour behaves
A. Exactly as gas B. Increases

B. As steam C. Remains constant

C. As ordinary vapour D. None of the above

D. Approximatly as a gas 10. If we the superheat at constant pres-
5. Sustainable resource use means sure then the cycle efficiency

A. will stay hot A. decrease, increases

B. use that meets our present needs with- B. increase, decreases

out compromising future generations C. increase, increases
C. resourses that will run out D. decrease, decreases
D. limited resources
11. Arbitrarily, the value of triple point is
6. Which of the following are not advantages taken as
of using non-renewable Fossil fuels.
A. 0 K
A. They are Abundant (there are lots of
them) B. 273.16 oC

B. They are relatively cheap fuels C. 273.16 K

C. There is enough to last hundreds of D. none of the above
years
12. Also known as the law of conservation
D. They produce CO2 of energy, states that energy can neither
7. Which of these could possibly reversible? be created nor destroyed, but it can be
changed from one form to another.
A. Pouring milk into a glass
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. The act of a roller coaster being
slowed to a stop B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Baking a cookie C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. None of these are you trickster D. Third law of thermodynamics

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1.8 Availability and Irreversibility 140

13. According to Kelvin-Planck statement, it is C. Gyftopolous-Baretta Statement

for a heat engine to produce net work
D. none of above
in a complete cycle if it exchanges heat
only with bodies at
18. During phase transitions like vaporization,
A. Impossible, single fixed temperature melting and sublimation
B. Possible, changing temperature
A. pressure and temperature remains
C. Impossible, changing temperature constant

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Possible, single fixed temperature B. volume and entropy changes
14. Non-renewable energy is better that re- C. both of the mentioned
newable energy
D. none of the mentioned
A. True because renewable energy kills
trees
19. What is geothermal?
B. False because they don’t produce any
bad byproducts A. A energy resource obtained by utilizing
the availability of wind
C. False because most Non-renewable
energy is produced by burning fossil fuels B. Using the heat of the Earth as an en-
D. false because non-renewable energy ergy resource
doesn’t produce much energy C. Plant material and animal waste being
used as fuel/energy
15. What is an example of a biomass?
A. Plastic caps D. Using the cooling effect of the Earth as
an energy resource
B. Crops
C. Plastic bottles 20. What is fossil fuel?
D. Grocery bags A. An energy source that is created with
16. Biofuel is the movement of water
A. Energy that comes from harnessing B. A source of energy that can be easily
the movement of the air obtained
B. Energy that comes from the Sun C. A type of fuel that is always available
C. A source of renewable energy, such as D. An energy source from the fossilized
solar, wind, or geothermal energy remains of ancient plants/animals
D. Fuel from plant material
21. A heat transfer process approaches re-
17. “It is impossible to devise a cyclic machine
versibility as the temperature difference
that will have no other effect than to ex-
between two bodies approaches
tract energy from a reservoir through a
heat interaction and to produce an equal A. infinity
amount of energy through a work interac-
B. zero
tion.”
A. Clausius Statement C. -1
B. Kevin-Planck Statement D. 1

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1.8 Availability and Irreversibility 141

22. In a Carnot engine, when the working sub- 27. What is a biomass?
stance gives heat to the sink
A. An energy source from the fossilized

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A. The temperature of the sink increases remains of ancient plants/animals
B. The temperature of the sink remains B. The weight of an organism
the same
C. Plant material and animal waste being
C. The temperature of the source de- used as fuel/energy
creases
D. A resource that can be renewed in a
D. The temperature of both the sink and short period of time
the source decreases
E. Changes depend on the operating con- 28. With steam as working fluid, as pressure
ditions increases
A. metal stresses increases
23. Wind energy is
A. generated from moving water B. thickness of walls of tubes, boiler
drums, etc increases
B. starts with moving air and generates
electricity C. both of the mentioned
C. starts with the sun D. none of the mentioned
D. comes from the earth 29. The working fluid should have critical
24. To prevent erosion of blades, quality of temperature.
steam should not fall below A. low
A. 85% B. high
B. 90% C. it does not matter
C. 95% D. none of the mentioned
D. 100%
30. Non-renewable energy is:
25. Which of the following is not a disadvan-
A. energy that we can reproduce easily
tage of Non-renewable energy
A. They will eventually run out B. any energy that is not a fossil fuel

B. They produce photochemical pollution C. any energy that there is a finite

amount of.
C. They produce CO2 and other green-
house gases D. electric energy
D. They produce a lot of energy for their 31. Which of the methods of generating elec-
volume tricity does NOT use alternative energy re-
26. A reversible process coincides with a quasi- sources?
static process A. Burning coal in a power plant
A. True B. Turbines spinning in dam
B. False C. Solar panels taking in light energy
C. This answer is incorrect. D. Drilling wells to reach hot rocks deep
D. I have to have four options inside the earth

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1.8 Availability and Irreversibility 142

32. Which of the following is not a renewable C. Gyftopolous-Baretta Statement

energy resourse
D. none of above
A. Natural gas
37. The friction present in moving devices
B. Hydro electric power
makes a process reversible
C. Wind Power
A. True
D. Solar panels
B. False

NARAYAN CHANGDER
33. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam
C. How now brown cow
Power Plant may be in the range of?
D. Unique New York
A. 15 to 20%
B. 35 to 45% 38. Free expansion is irreversible
C. 70 to 80% A. True
D. 90 to 95% B. False
34. “It is impossible to devise a cyclic machine C. Neither
that produces, as its only effect, the trans- D. Both
fer of energy through a heat interaction
from a low-temperature body to a high- 39. Renewable energy is:
temperature body.”
A. any energy that we have an endless
A. Clausius Statement supply of like weather
B. Kevin-Planck Statement B. any energy that can’t be reproduced
C. Gyftopolous-Baretta Statement C. any energy that we are running out of
D. none of above
D. any energy that causes pollution
35. Corn, wheat, and soybeans can be made
40. One advantage of tidal power is-
into a substance called ethanol. In some
places, ethanol is part of a mixture used A. it can be used anywhere
to power cars and trucks. What type of
B. tides are predictable
alternative energy resource is ethanol?
C. tidal power does NOT need a back up
A. Hydroelectric
source
B. Geothermal
D. it is available ALL day
C. Biofuels
D. Solar 41. The irreversibility of a process occurs due
to
36. “Among all possible states of a system
A. Lack of equilibrium during the process
with a given value of energy and with a
given set of values of the amounts of con- B. Involvement of dissipative effects
stituents and the parameters, there exists C. involvement of dissipative effects or
one and only one equilibrium state “ Lack of equilibrium during the process. or
A. Clausius Statement both
B. Kevin-Planck Statement D. None of the mentioned

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1.8 Availability and Irreversibility 143

42. With the use of reheat, C. cycle efficiency / 3600

A. the net work output of the plant in- D. cycle efficiency * 3600

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

creases
48. A reversible process is performed in such
B. there is only a marginal increase in cy- a way that
cle efficiency
A. At the conclusion of process, both sys-
C. the quality of steam at turbine exhaust tems and surroundings can be restored to
is kept within a limit their initial states without producing any
D. all of the mentioned change
B. It should not leave any trace to show
43. The losses in boiler include
that the process had ever occurred
A. pressure drop from pump to boiler
C. It is carried out incredibly slowly
B. pressure drop in boiler
D. All of the mentioned
C. both of the mentioned
49. For a vapour power cycle,
D. none of the mentioned
A. net heat input is converted into net
44. Which of the following can be a cause of work output
irreversibility B. Q1-Q2 = Wt-Wp
A. friction, viscosity C. efficiency = 1-(Q2/Q1)
B. inelasticity D. all of the mentioned
C. electrical resistance, magnetic lag
50. States that the entropy of a system ap-
D. all of the mentioned proaches a constant value as the tempera-
ture approaches absolute zero.
45. Ideal regenerative rankine cycle
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
A. Increases efficiency
B. First law of thermodynamics
B. Increases work output
C. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Increases the heat supplied
D. Third law of thermodynamics
D. Does not effect efficiency
51. The efficiency of regenerative cycle will be
46. A heat engine has to exchange heat with the efficiency of the Rankine cycle.
energy reservoirs at different tem-
A. greater than
peratures to produce net work in a com-
plete cycle. B. equal to
A. one, one C. less than
B. one, two D. none of the mentioned
C. two, two 52. In Rankine cycle, the work output from the
D. none of the mentioned turbine is given by
A. change of internal energy between in-
47. Heat rate is given by (in kJ/kWh) let and outlet
A. cycle efficiency B. change of enthalpy between inlet and
B. 3600 / cycle efficiency outlet

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1.8 Availability and Irreversibility 144

C. change of entropy between inlet and C. a turbine and magnet generator

outlet
D. a transmission line
D. change of temperature between inlet
and outlet 58. Geothermal energy is energy from

53. Why both reheating and regeneration is A. the sun

used together? B. heat from deep in the earth
A. the effect of reheat alone on efficiency C. wind

NARAYAN CHANGDER
is very small
D. inexhaustable
B. regeneration has a marked effect on
efficiency
59. Mean temperature of heat addition is
C. both of the mentioned due to Regeneration.
D. none of the mentioned A. Decreases
54. The path followed in a vapour power cycle B. Not effected
is C. Increases
A. boiler-condenser-turbine-pump
D. Varied exponentially
B. boiler-turbine-condenser-pump
C. boiler-turbine-pump-condenser 60. The important piping losses include

D. boiler-pump-turbine-condenser A. pressure drop due to friction

B. heat loss to surroundings
55. In a fuel power station, the generator con-
verts kinetic energy from the turbine into C. both of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
A. heat energy
B. kinetic energy 61. When compared with the Rankine cycle,
the ideal regenerative cycle has
C. electrical energy
A. less net work output
D. none of above
B. more steam rate
56. What heat transfer method is used by the
Sun to transfer the heat from its core to C. more efficient
its surface? D. all of the mentioned
A. conduction
62. States that if two bodies are individually
B. convection in equilibrium with a separate third body,
C. radiation then the first two bodies are also in ther-
mal equilibrium with each other.
D. none of above
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
57. of all electricity is produced from this me-
chanical device B. First law of thermodynamics
A. a motor C. Second law of thermodynamics
B. the power station D. Third law of thermodynamics

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1.8 Availability and Irreversibility 145

63. Energy from the sun is called B. 0.23

A. Biofuels C. 0.25

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B. Solar D. all of the mentioned
C. Geothermal
69. Why is steam not allowed to to expand
D. Hydroelectric deep into two-phase region before being
taken for reheating.
64. What is biomass energy?
A. any organic matter that can be used as A. to protect the reheater tubes
an energy source B. to prevent solid deposits being left be-
B. radiant energy emitted by the sun hind while evaporating
C. is the heat from the Earth C. both of the mentioned
D. is a form of solar energy D. none of the mentioned

65. Alternative energy is 70. How much energy is needed to raise the
A. Generated by natural resources and is temperature of a 20.0g piece of copper
renewable from 15.0 degrees Celsius to 25.0 degrees
Celsius? (The specific heat of copper is
B. man made 0.385 J/g C)
C. nonrenewable A. 20 X (25-15) =70 J
D. not helpful to us in Texas
B. 20 X .385 X (25-15)= 77 J
66. For a Rankine cycle, which of the following C. 20 X .385 X (15-25)= 62 J
is true?
D. 20 X .385 X (15-0)= 77 J
A. a reversible constant pressure heating
process happens in steam boiler 71. Which is a disadvantage of hydropower?
B. reversible adiabatic expansion of A. it disrupts habitats and floods land
steam in turbine
B. you can only use in areas with very
C. reversible constant pressure heat re- high tides
jection in condenser
C. it can injure birds and bats
D. all of the mentioned
D. dams are very noisy and disrupt the
67. As water flows through a dam, a genera- view
tor is turned and creates enough electricity
for thousands of homes. This describes 72. Which of the following contributes to the
improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle
A. biofuels
in a Thermal Power Plant?
B. hydroelectric energy
A. reheating of steam at intermediate
C. geothermal energy stage
D. solar power B. regeneration use of steam for heating
Boiler feed water
68. The optimum reheat pressure is times
that of the initial steam pressure. C. use of high pressures
A. 0.2 D. all of the mentioned

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 1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 146

73. Irreversibility of a process may be due to B. two isentropic processes and two con-
A. lack of equilibrium during the process stant pressure processes
B. involvement of dissipative effects C. two isothermal processes and two con-
stant pressure processes
C. both of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
74. States that the entropy in an isolated sys- 76. Match the following irreversibilities(1)
tem always increases. Any isolated sys- Mechanical irreversibility (A) Refriger-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tem spontaneously evolves towards ther- ation cycle(2) Thermal irreversibility
mal equilibrium. (B) Forming of water by combination of
Hydrogen and Oxygen(3) Chemical irre-
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics versibility (C) Free expansion of gas
B. First law of thermodynamics in a system(4) External irreversibility
C. Second law of thermodynamics (D) Melting of ice cube under the sunlight
D. Third law of thermodynamics A. -(A), (2)-(B), (3)-(C), (4)-(D)
B. -(A), (2)-(D), (3)-(B), (4)-(C)
75. Rankine cycle comprises of
A. two isentropic processes and two con- C. -(C), (2)-(D), (3)-(A), (4)-(B)
stant volume processes D. -(C), (2)-(D), (3)-(B), (4)-(A)

1.9 Properties of Pure Substance

1. Carbon is considered an element while B. water mixture
carbon dioxide is considered a compound. C. aqua-man
This is because carbon dioxide is-
D. aqueous
A. a gas at room temperature.
4. What is the difference between a sub-
B. made of two different elements.
stance and a mixture?
C. given off by green plants. A. Substance can be separated while mix-
D. none of above ture cannot be separated.
B. Substance has many components
2. Compounds are pure substances made
while mixture has one only.
from two or more elements chemically
combined. What is the name of the illustra- C. Substance is heterogeneous while mix-
tion that shows all the known elements? ture is homogeneous.
A. element table D. Substance is pure while mixture is im-
pure.
B. periodic table
C. star chart 5. A type of homogeneous mixture formed
when one Substance (the solute) dissolves
D. solar system model in another (the solvent).
3. When one of the parts of the solution is A. Mixture
water we call it B. Component
A. water stuff C. Solution

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 147

D. Element A. Solute

6. A molecule is B. Seperation

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A. two or more atoms bonded together C. Compound
B. one type of atom D. Chromatography
C. smaller than an atom 12. A solution is a mixture.
D. an element A. heterogeneous
7. substance, usually a liquid, that can dis- B. homogeneous
solve another substance C. dumb
A. solute
D. mixed
B. solvent
13. Particle with a positive charge.
C. solution
D. none of above A. electron
B. proton
8. A solution is a kind of
C. neutron
A. mixture
D. none of above
B. compound
C. element 14. When different substances are mixed to-
gether, they
D. stuff
A. retain their individual properties
9. A pure substances be broken down
into simpler matter using physical meth- B. take on new properties
ods. C. become one substance with all the
A. sometimes same properties

B. can D. become a compound

C. can not 15. A is a substance that has definite phys-
D. none of above ical and chemical properties such as ap-
pearance, melting point, and reactivity.
10. Which separation technique must be used
A. mixture
to separate salt from salt water?
A. Distillation B. pure substance

B. Evaporation C. compound

C. Decantation D. element
D. filtration 16. Which of the following represent a
molecule?
11. A technique that is used to separate
a single substance from a mixture of A. Ru
many different substances if that sub- B. Fe
stance has physical properties that are dis-
tinctly diffrent from the other substances C. HO
in the mixture D. Pb

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 148

17. Which one is the best way to determine 22. Tin, Aluminum and Gold are examples of
whether an unknown sample is a sub- A. Mixtures-homogeneous
stance or a mixture?
B. Pure Substances-compounds
A. Knowing its density
C. Pure Substances-elements
B. Tasting the given sample D. Mixtures-solid
C. Observing its physical appearance
23. Which of the following is NOT a pure sub-
D. Testing its melting and boiling point stance?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. copper
18. What is the best way to use in separating
iron parts from a mixture? B. water

A. Magnet C. aspirin
D. sand
B. spoon
C. strainer 24. A 14-karat gold ring consists of 14 parts
gold and 10 parts copper. This alloy can be
D. heat separated by density when melted. Which
type of matter is the 14-karat gold ring?
19. Malik is trying to identify two mystery
substances. Which properties will best A. Compound
help him identify the substances? B. Pure Substance
A. boiling point and density C. Homogeneous Mixture
B. mass and temperature D. Heterogeneous Mixture

C. volume and weight 25. You can see 2 or more different parts. Se-
lect all the possible things I could be.
D. weight and shape
A. Heterogeneous
20. Which of the following materials should be B. Homogeneous
classified as a mixture?
C. Compound
A. Air D. Element
B. Gold
26. The arrangement of elements by character-
C. Salt istic properties.
D. Water A. mixture
B. compound
21. There are two pots of water. Pot 2 has
double the amount of water as pot1. If C. element
pot 1 boils at 100◦ C, at which tempera- D. periodic table
ture does pot 2 boil?
27. What are the two (2) classes of matter?
A. 100◦ C
A. Solid and Gas
B. 150◦ C B. Atoms and Molecules
C. 200◦ C C. Element and compound
D. 250◦ C D. Pure substances and mixtures

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 149

28. Elaborate on how to classify elements and A. Tap water is a homogeneous mixture
pure compounds. and distilled water is a pure substance.
B. Tap water is a heterogeneous mixture

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A. These materials are homogeneous
mixtures because they have a uniform and distilled water is a pure substance.
composition throughout. C. Tap water is a pure substance while
B. These can be either homogeneous or distilled water is a homogeneous mixture.
heterogeneous materials based on the in- D. Tap water and distilled water contain
dividual solubility of each. hydrogen and oxygen, therefore they are
C. Elements and pure compounds are ho- both pure substances.
mogeneous materials because they have 33. A type of mixture that the particle size
a uniform composition throughout. falls in between solutions and suspensions
D. They are heterogeneous materials be- are called
cause they do not have a uniform compo- A. solutions
sition or appearance throughout.
B. colloids
29. How many elements are represented in C. suspensions
the compound? Na2CO3 D. pure substances
A. 1
34. What is the relationship between
B. 2 molecules and atoms?
C. 3 A. Molecules are combinations of two or
more atoms.
D. 4
B. Molecules are the parts that make up
30. a substance in which all of the parts are atoms.
the same throughout C. Molecules are the gaseous form of
A. homogeneous atoms.
B. element D. Molecules are atoms that have a posi-
tive charge.
C. heterogeneous
D. pure substance 35. Which of the following is an example of
the formation of a mixture?
31. Calculate the concentration if 6.0 g of salt A. Rust forming on an iron nail.
are dissolved in 200 mL of water.
B. Sugar crystals dissolving in water.
A. 33.3 C. Sodium and chlorine forming table
B. 0.03 salt.
C. 0.10 D. Hydrogen and oxygen reacting to pro-
duce oxygen.
D. 0.07
E. 30.4 36. Which material is a pure substance?
A. mixture
32. Distilled water (H2O) can be made from
B. homogeneous
tap water by removing dissolved minerals
and various other chemicals. How should C. compound
each type of water be classified? D. solution

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 150

37. What is the building block of matter? B. A combination of two or more sub-
A. compound stances that do not chemically combine
and can be separated.
B. atom
C. A single substance, either a sub-
C. mixture stances or compound, with definite com-
D. matter position and properties.
D. A pure substance composed of the
38. This is the part of the solution that does same type of atom throughout.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the dissolving.
43. A magnet is hovering above a pile of par-
A. solute ticles of iron and sulphur. The magnet
B. solvent attracts the iron, separating it from the
mixture. Based on the information, which
C. salt water
statement is true?
D. First Continental Congress A. The parts of a mixture keep their own
properties.
39. Coffee, mouthwash, and vinegar are ex-
amples of mixtures. B. The elements in a compound keep their
own properties.
A. heterogeneous
C. The properties of a mixture are differ-
B. homogeneous ent from the properties of its parts.
C. pure D. The properties of a compound are dif-
D. none of above ferent from the properties of its elements.

40. A substance that can be dissolved by a sol- 44. A pure substance that cannot be broken
vent to create a solution. down into other substances by chemical or
physical means.
A. solvent
A. compound
B. solute B. atom
C. solution C. mixture
D. mixture D. element

41. An is made up of one or more of the 45. When there is one type of atom
same kind of atom chemically combined. A. Element
A. atom B. Compound
B. mixture C. Homogeneous Mixture
C. element D. Heterogeneous Mixture
D. compound 46. What is boiling point
A. The temperature at which a substance
42. What is a compound?
changes from a liquid to a gas
A. A new substance with unique chemical B. unique trait or feature of something
and physical properties formed when two
or more elements are chemically bonded C. not able to dissolve
during a chemical reaction. D. the amount of matter something has

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 151

47. What do you call a mixture that appears C. density = mass + volume
to be a single substance? D. density = mass-volume

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A. Solution
53. Salt, NaCl, is a pure substance, while salt-
B. Solute water is a mixture. What this means is
C. Solvent that the ratio of sodium to chloride in salt
D. Soluble , and the ratio of salt to water in a salt-
water solution
48. In a mixture, which of the following is al-
A. is constant; can be altered
ways true?
B. can be altered; is constant
A. It is a liquid.
C. is constant; is constant too
B. It contains dissolved solids.
D. can be altered; can be altered too
C. It is composed of two or more pure
substances. 54. What are examples of pure substances?
D. It cannot be separated into individual There are multiple answers.
components. A. Water
49. Rita wants to remove excess oil from her B. Coke
soup. Which of the following separation C. Pizza
techniques must she use?
D. Diamond
A. Decantation
E. Sugar
B. filtration
C. sieving 55. Elements can be broken down into simpler
substances.
D. magnetic separation
A. false
50. To make salt water a heterogeneous mix- B. true
ture, you would have to
C. sometimes
A. add sand.
D. none of above
B. add a small amount of sugar.
C. boil the water. 56. what is volume
D. remove the salt. A. it a measure of the amount of space
that a substance or an object takes up
51. You are eating a pizza. What type of mix-
B. the temperature at which a substance
ture are you consuming?
changes from a solid to a liquid
A. homogeneous
C. anything that has a nass and takes up
B. heterogeneous space
C. pure substance D. none of above
D. The Periodic Table
57. Which of these common substances is a ho-
52. What is the formula for density? mogeneous mixture?
A. density = mass x volume A. table salt
B. density = mass / volume B. pure water

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 152

C. whole milk C. solute

D. maple syrup D. seperation
58. Pure substances include: 63. What is a solvent?
A. Elements
A. The substance that does the dissolving
B. Homogeneous Mixtures in a solution.
C. Compounds B. The substance that is being dissolved

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Heterogeneous Mixtures in a solution.

59. How can compounds be changed into sim- C. The mixing of different substances.
pler substances? D. The process in which neutral
A. by physical separation molecules lose or gain electrons
B. by chemical changes
64. Muddy water is an example of what type
C. they cannot be changed of mixture?
D. by physical reactions A. colloid
60. The element oxygen, represented by the B. solution
symbol O, is classified as
C. suspension
A. a pure substance
D. homogeneous
B. a compound
C. a mixture 65. Why will sugar dissolve in water?
D. a solution A. sugar is ionic
61. Gina is preparing a poster to show exam- B. sugar has a similar polarity to water
ples of different types of mixtures. Which C. sugar will not dissolve in water
of the following sets of examples is cor-
rect? D. sugar has similar energy to water
A. heterogenous colloid:gelatin dessert
66. Atom
with fruit chunks; homogenous solu-
tion:salt water A. A pure substance that cannot be sepa-
B. heterogeneous solution:salt water; rated into simpler substances by physical
homogeneous solution:brass or chemical means

C. heterogeneous colloid:fog; homoge- B. A single substance, either an element

neous suspension:oil-and-vinegar salad or compound, with definite composition
dressing and properties
D. homogeneous solution:colored water; C. The smallest unit of an element that
homogeneous suspension:sandy water has all of the properties of that element
and contains a nucleus within an electron
62. Techniques chemists use to purify atoms cloud
and molecules
D. Made of a blend of elements and com-
A. solvent pounds; are not pure substances because
B. pure substance they do not have consistent properties

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 153

67. Carbon dioxide (CO2) 73. A snow globe would be an example of a

A. Pure Substance & Element

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B. Pure Substance or Compound A. colloid

C. Mixture & Homogenous B. solution

D. Mixture & Heterogenous C. suspension
D. none of above
68. the substance being dissolved.
A. Solution 74. Which is most acidic?
B. Solvent A. Baking Soda
C. Solute B. Lemon Juice
D. Soluble C. Black Coffee
69. When solute dissolves into a solvent it is D. Milk
called a
75. What is an example of a mixture?
A. mixture
A. iron
B. solution
B. ice
C. element
C. soil
D. none of above
D. gold
70. the amount of space a sample of matter
occupies 76. What is a formulation?
A. mass A. Milk
B. weight B. A designed mixture
C. volume C. Calculation
D. density D. A random mixture
71. A mixture of two different metals are 77. Air is:
called
A. An element
A. Alloy
B. A compound
B. Metalloid
C. Composite C. A mixture

D. none of above D. None of these

72. What is the density of a substance that has 78. You are eating a pizza. What type of sub-
a mass of 30g and a volume of 6 liters? stance are you consuming?
A. 24 g/l A. homogeneous mixture
B. 5 g/l B. heterogeneous mixture
C. 36 g/l C. pure substance
D. 180 g/l D. none of above

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 154

79. Which of the following is not a chemical A. It is a mixture that can be separated
property? by physical means
A. rusting B. it is a liquid substance with uniform
composition
B. boiling
C. it contains compounds and is there-
C. rotting
fore a substance
D. burning
D. it is a mixture, only solids are pure sub-
stances

NARAYAN CHANGDER
80. all matter is made of what
A. energy 85. What is the smallest unit of matter?
B. atoms A. atom
C. electrons B. element
D. compounds C. molecule
D. compound
81. A technique that is used to separate a
single substance from a mixture of many 86. What is a combination of two or more
different substances if that substance has pure substances that are not chemically
physical properties that are distinctly dif- combined? There is no chemical change
ferent from the other substances in the that takes place and they can be separated
mixture. physically.
A. chromatography A. Element
B. component B. Compound
C. compound C. Mixture
D. Plasma
D. solution
87. A characteristic that can be observed (in-
82. What particle is not in an atom
tensive), such as texture, color, odor,
A. Proton melting point, boiling point, density,
B. Electron or measured (extensive) such as mass,
length, volume, that is used to describe
C. Neutron matter and can be observed or measured
D. Gamma Ray without changing its composition
A. physical property
83. A solution that contains all of the solute it
can hold at a given temperature is B. element
A. diluted. C. pure substance
B. saturated. D. chemical property
C. supersaturated. 88. A mixture in which there is UNEVEN mix-
ing.
D. unsaturated.
A. Pure Substance
84. Milk is uniformly mixed, it contains sev-
B. Heterogeneous
eral compounds water, proteins, fats,
and sugars. Is milk considered a substance C. Homogeneous
or a mixture? D. Solution

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 155

89. Building Blocks of matter are called 95. The chemical combination of two or more
A. Cells different kinds of atoms in fixed amounts
is called a(n)

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B. Atoms
A. orbit
C. Legos
B. compound
D. Particles
C. mixture
90. Which of the following are homogenous D. element
mixtures? (Pls check all your answer)
96. What is a Charactersitic
A. Milk
A. unique trait or feature of something
B. sinigang dish
B. able to dissolve
C. 70% isopropyl alcohol
C. the measure of the force of gravity on
D. Air
an object
E. fruit salad
D. none of above
91. What is solubility
97. A(n) is a substance with a pH less than
A. not able to dissolve 7
B. able to dissolve A. Acid
C. the ability of one substance to dissolve B. Alkaline
in another at a given temperature C. Base
D. to mix completely with another sub- D. Buffer
stance to form a solution
98. Which of the following is an example of an
92. A sample of matter that is not mixed with element?
any other type of matter.
A. Water
A. pure Substance
B. Table Salt
B. homogeneous
C. Hydrogen
C. heterogeneous
D. Carbon Dioxide
D. Solution
99. Milk tea without add-ons and fresh blood
93. What is a solution? are examples of
A. the answer to a problem A. suspensions
B. when one substance dissolves into an- B. colloids
other
C. solutions
C. a third type of mixture
D. none of above
D. I don’t know
100. Is a tree sprouting a physical or chemical
94. How can mixtures be separated? change?
A. by chemical means A. physical
B. by physical means B. chemical
C. by chemical reactions C. nuclear
D. they cannot be broken down D. no change

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 156

101. A column on the periodic table is called a A. physica property

B. chemical property
A. group C. compound
B. period
D. mixture
C. metal
106. Which statement identifies why oxygen
D. none of above
is classified as a pure substance and air is
102. An pure substance that can only be bro- classified as a mixture?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ken down into one or two element by A. Oxygen is more reactive than air.
chemical changes.
B. Oxygen has a higher density than air.
A. element
C. Oxygen goes under a phase change,
B. compound whereas air is always a gas.
C. homogenous mixture D. Oxygen contains only one substance,
D. heterogenous mixture but air contains several substances.
103. What is the physical property 107. the amount of matter in an object
A. characteristic that can be observed A. mass
without changing the substance into
B. weight
something else
C. volume
B. unique trait or feature of something
C. A characteristic of a pure substance D. density
that describes it ability to change into dif- 108. Latent heat of vaporization is
ferent substances
A. the amount of heat required to change
D. The temperature at which a substance 1 mole of the substance from the solid to
changes from a liquid to a gas liquid phase without change in tempera-
104. karat gold is considered to be pure gold. ture
18-karat gold is considered to be about B. the amount of heat required to change
75% gold. What is 18-karat gold con- 1 mole of the substance from the liquid to
sidered a mixture rather than a pure sub- gaseous phase without change in temper-
stance? ature
A. It has a variable composition of other C. the amount of heat required to change
elements and minerals. the temperature 1 mole of the substance
B. Its color is different than pure gold. by 1 degree Celsius
C. The gold atoms are not arranged in a D. the amount of heat required to change
repeating pattern. 1 mole of the substance from the gaseous
to liquid phase without change in temper-
D. It can be melted and transformed into
ature
a different substance.
105. A characteristic of a substance that is 109. What distinguishes compounds from mix-
measurable or observable during a chem- tures?
ical reaction; includes pH, heat of combus- A. Compounds are composed of elements
tion, reactivity, etc. that have been chemically combined.

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 157

B. Compounds must be physically sepa- 114. What do you call a substance dissolved in
rated back into their original substances. any solution?

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C. Mixtures are composed of elements A. Solute
that have been chemically combined.
B. Solvent
D. Mixtures must be chemically sepa-
C. Solute and Solvent
rated back into their original substances.
D. Neither Solute nor Solvent
110. Which of the following sentences are true
about solids? 115. What two types of matter are pure sub-
A. Solids are rigid, have a fixed shape but stances?
not a fixed volume A. elements and solutions
B. Solids are not rigid, have a fixed shape B. compounds and mixtures
and no fixed volume
C. elements and compounds
C. Solids are rigid, have a fixed shape and
a fixed volume D. mixtures and solutions

D. none of above 116. A mixture is what you get when you com-
bine two substances in such a way that no
111. A white powder was tested and heated. chemical reaction occurs between the com-
After some time, it melts completely. ponents. A solution is a mixture that looks
What does it imply? exactly the same everywhere. Which of
A. It is a mixture. these mixtures is not a solution?
B. It is a pure substance. A. A glass of apple juice.
C. It is a homogeneous mixture. B. A chocolate chip cookie.
D. It is a combination of pure substance C. A mixture of salt and water.
and mixture.
D. A mixture of sugar and water.
112. When materials combine to form a mix-
117. A is made up of different kinds of
ture, they
atoms chemically combined.
A. keep their original properties.
A. element
B. react to form a new substance with
new properties. B. compound

C. combine in a specific ratio. C. mixture

D. always change their physical state. D. molecule

113. Pure substance made of two or more 118. A substance combined physically, but
kinds of atoms bound together never chemically is a(an)
A. Molecule A. element
B. Pure Substance B. molecule
C. Mixture C. compound
D. Compound D. mixture

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 158

119. When there is 2 or more atoms combined 124. A grainy, multi-colored substance is com-
together bined with a liquid, doesn’t dissolve, and
settles on the bottom of the container. De-
A. Element
termine if the substance is a mixture or
B. Compound pure substance and what type.
C. Homogeneous Mixture A. Element
D. Heterogeneous Mixture B. Compound

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Homogeneous Mixture
120. An example of a compound would be:
D. Heterogeneous Mixture
A. hydrogen
B. zinc 125. Mixtures are separated through
changes.
C. air
A. mixture
D. oxygen
B. compound
121. Which statement describes a property of C. physical
water?
D. none of above
A. It is less dense as a solid than as a gas.
B. It is less dense as a solid than as a liq- 126. A combination that can be separated by
uid. physical processes is a

C. It is more dense as a gas than as a liq- A. Pure Substance

uid. B. Glucose
D. It is more dense as a solid than as a C. Element
liquid.
D. Mixture
122. Tim puts his spare change in a jar each 127. Which of the following is an example of
day when he comes home. When the jar is of a container filled with a pure substance
full he separates the coins and takes them rather than with a mixture?
to the bank. The coins would be classified
as a A. A tire filled with air.

A. compound B. A jar filled with salt water.

B. element C. A balloon filled with helium.

C. mixture D. A glass filled with chocolate milk.

D. solution 128. the amount of solute that can be dis-

solved in a specific volume of solvent un-
123. What is the symbol for Silver? der certain conditions.
A. S A. Solution
B. Si B. Solvent
C. Au C. Solute
D. Ag D. Solubility

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 159

129. A mixture is one where the sub- 135. [check all that apply] An compound is?
stances are evenly spread throughout.
A. Chemically combined

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A. heterogeneous
B. Pure substances that can be broken
B. homogeneous down
C. pure substance
C. Pure substances that cannot be bro-
D. none of above ken down into simpler substances
130. The building block of matter is D. One or more elements chemically com-
A. Mixture bined.
B. Atom 136. Molecule
C. Element
A. The smallest unit of an element that
D. Substance has all of the properties of that element
131. The air we breathe contains different in- and contains a nucleus within an electron
dividual gases (mostly nitrogen and oxy- cloud
gen). Which of the following correctly de- B. A pure substance that cannot be sepa-
scribes the air we breathe? rated into simpler substances by physical
A. compound or chemical means
B. liquid C. The simplest unit of a chemical com-
C. element pound that can exist; formed when two or
more atoms join together chemically
D. mixture
D. Pure substance made of two or more
132. A type of mixture that contains small par- kinds of atoms bound together
ticles that do not settle out is called
A. solutions 137. The noble gases are a group of six sub-
stances with similar properties. They are
B. colloids
odorless, colorless gases with low reactiv-
C. suspensions ity. They are group 18 on the periodic ta-
D. pure substances ble. Each noble gas is a(n)

133. A mixture in which all of the components A. element

are EVENLY mixed. B. compound
A. Mixture
C. heterogeneous mixture
B. Seperation
D. homogenous mixture/solution
C. Heterogeneous
D. Homogeneous 138. Kool aid, a liquid containing water mixed
evenly with kool aid powder is a
134. This substance releases OH-into solution
A. element
A. Acid
B. Base B. compound

C. Neutral C. heterogeneous mixture

D. none of above D. solution

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 160

139. This contains a variety elements and com- 144. What is one characteristic of a sample
pounds that ARE NOT chemically combined. of matter that indicates it is a pure sub-
Example, could be trial mix. stance?
A. Water A. It can be separated using by a physical
means, such as filtering.
B. Mixture
B. The components in a pure substance
C. Elements do not have to be in definite ratios.
D. Compounds C. If the composition of a sample varies,

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the sample is a pure substance.
140. Air can be considered a mixture. Which
statement helps describe air? D. If the composition of a sample is fixed,
the sample is a pure substance.
A. Air contains a fixed ratio of atoms.
145. Give an example of a formulation
B. The components of air separate into
visible layers. A. Chlorine
B. Acetone
C. The components of air can be sepa-
rated by chemical means. C. Paint
D. The exact mixture of components D. Oxygen
varies from point to point. 146. Which of the following is an element?
141. A substance that dissolves in another sub- A. Sugar
stance. B. Salt
A. Solution C. Water
B. Chemical Reaction D. Oxygen

C. Solute 147. Atoms combine to form

D. Pure Substance A. electrons
B. molecules
142. allows some materials to attract certain
C. nuclei
metals
D. neutrons
A. magnetism
148. What is the symbol for Gold?
B. malleability
A. Ag
C. ductility
B. G
D. electrical conductivity
C. Au
143. Which of the following will Jeofrey do D. Gl
to segregate the rubber bands of different
149. the temperature at which a solid changes
colors?
to a liquid
A. Distillation A. solubility
B. Filtration B. boiling point
C. Manual separation C. melting point
D. Evaporation D. state of matter

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 161

150. What is a pure substance? 155. Located in the electron cloud.

A. The smallest particle of an element; A. proton

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made of electrons, protons, and neutrons. B. nucleus
B. A new substance with unique chemical
C. electron
and physical properties formed when two
or more elements are chemically bonded D. none of above
during a chemical reaction.
156. Particles in a are tightly packed to-
C. A single substance, either a sub- gether.
stances or compound, with definite com-
A. solid
position and properties.
D. The simplest unit of a chemical com- B. liquid
pound that can exist, formed when two or C. gas
more atoms join together chemically. D. plasma
151. A mixture that is uniform and well mixed 157. Which of these is a compound?
is
A. Aluminium (Al)
A. homogeneous
B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
B. hetergeneous
C. Nitrogen (N)
C. pure substance
D. Sand
D. compoud
158. Materials that let electrons flow very
152. What do you call the amount of matter in
easily from one atom to another
a certain space?
A. Volume A. are called insulators.

B. Mass B. are called conductors.

C. Density C. are called non-metals.

D. Weight D. are called resistors.

153. Which one of these is a chemical prop- 159. You can make a solute dissolve more
erty? quickly in a solvent by
A. melting point A. adding more solute.
B. boiling point B. adding ice.
C. color C. heating the solvent.
D. flammability D. removing some solvent.

154. compounds are chemically bounded to- 160. the ability of one material to dissolve in
gether another
A. False A. solubility
B. true B. boiling point
C. I don’t know? C. melting point
D. none of above D. state of matter

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 162

161. a characteristic of matter you observe as 166. The chemical formula of glucose is
it reacts or changes into a different sub- C6H12O6, so it is classified as a(n) .
stance A. element
A. physical property B. mixture
B. chemical property C. solution
C. periodic table D. pure substance
D. conglomerate 167. Which of the following is NOT a mix-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
162. Is getting a tan a physical or chemical ture?
change? A. milk
A. physical B. lemonade
B. chemical C. vegetable salad
C. nuclear D. aluminum
D. no change 168. A solution that is considered dilute would
be
163. Mixtures are different than pure sub-
stances because mixtures- A. Dark in color

A. can be separated by physical means. B. Have a strong scent

C. Have a large amount of solute
B. have lower boiling points.
D. Have a small amount of solute
C. contain only one type of atom.
D. are less dense than pure substances. 169. Is Hydrogen an element, compound, or a
mixture?
164. What is the definition of chemical A. element
change?
B. compound
A. any change that results in the forma-
tion of new chemical substances. C. mixture
D. none of above
B. rusting
C. changes affecting the form of a chemi- 170. Water from our tap is considered a:
cal substance, but not its chemical compo- A. solution
sition. B. pure substance
D. any property that is measurable, C. mixture
whose value describes a state of a physi-
cal system D. particle
171. What is a molecule?
165. Contains two or more different sub-
stances that are physically, not chemically, A. The simplest unit of a chemical com-
combined pound that can exist, formed when two or
more atoms join together chemically.
A. a mixture
B. A pure substance composed of the
B. an element same type of atom throughout.
C. a compound C. A new substance with unique chemical
D. a chemical formula and physical properties formed when two

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 163

or more elements are chemically bonded 177. Combination of two or more pure sub-
during a chemical reaction. stances that are not chemically combined

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D. The smallest particle of an element; A. compound
made of electrons, protons, and neutrons.
B. atom
172. Which of these substances is a com- C. mixture
pound? D. element
A. chlorine
178. A piston cylinder device contains 0.06 m3
B. nitrogen of saturated water vapor at 350 kPa pres-
C. uranium sure. Determine the temperature and the
mass of the vapor inside the cylinder.
D. ammonia
A. T = 138.86 oC, m = 0.114 kg
173. How can pure substances be distin- B. T = 242.56 oC, m = 0.114 g
guished from impure ones?
C. T = 138.86 oC, m = 0.114 g
A. Melting/boiling points
D. T = 242.56 oC, m = 0.114 kg
B. Colour
C. Smell 179. A is a pure substance made up of two
or more elements that are chemically com-
D. Temperature bined.

174. Carbon A. compound

A. Pure Substance & Element B. atom

B. Pure Substance or Compound C. mixture

C. Mixture & Homogenous D. element

D. Mixture & Heterogenous 180. Which of the following is classified as a

pure substance?
175. Which of the following examples are het-
erogeneous mixtures? A. Lemonade

A. soda and carbonated drinks B. Air

B. air and sweat C. Steel ( metal alloy)

C. blood and concrete mix D. Helium

D. coffee drink and lemonade 181. A compound is

A. a pure substance made out of two or
176. Which of the following IS a mixture?
more elements bonded together
A. air
B. a pure substance made out of only one
B. hydrogen element
C. water C. an impure substance
D. sugar D. not a real thing

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 164

182. Which of the four following items are C. Compound

made up of one or more molecules? D. Homogeneous substance
A. Gold
188. Elements are pure substances that make
B. Hydrogen up all matter. Gold, aluminum, iron, and
C. Salt lead are some examples of these pure sub-
D. Neon stances. What is the basic building block of
all pure substances that make up matter in
183. A substance can be represented by a for-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the world?
mula; for instance H2 O . Then, it is a A. compound
A. homogenous mixture B. atom
B. heterogeneous mixture C. mixture
C. a compound (a kind of pure substance)
D. cell

D. none of above 189. How could you break down the compound
calcium carbonate into the elements that
184. A material with a particular chemical make it up?
makeup
A. by melting
A. mixture
B. by crushing
B. pure substance
C. with a filter
C. hetogeneous
D. with chemical changes
D. homogeneous
190. Which of the following is a chemical
185. The change of state from a gas to a solid change?
is called:
A. human digestion
A. melting
B. cutting a tree down
B. deposition
C. melting a chocolate bar
C. sublimation
D. Has a density of 1 gm/mL
D. liquefaction
191. Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g,
186. Which is an example of a physical prop- and a volume of 2cm3. What is its den-
erty? sity?
A. ability to react with acid A. 8 g/cm3
B. state of matter B. 2 g/cm3
C. flammability C. 1/2 g/cm3
D. ability to react with oxygen D. 24 g/cm3
187. When two or more substances combine, 192. You are given a small beaker of solution
but each keeps its own properties, the new at room temp. You add a bit of solute to
combination is called a(an) the solution and it dissolves. The solution
A. Element was:
B. Mixture A. saturated

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 165

B. unsaturated 198. Which of these is NOT a mixture?

C. concentrated A. baking soda

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D. warm B. salt and water

193. Halo-halo, pizza, and sopas are exam- C. iron filings and sand
ples of D. metal paper clips and plastic paper
A. heterogeneous clips

B. homogeneous 199. Carbon dioxide is formed when two oxy-

C. pure substances gen atoms chemically combine with a car-
bon atom. Which term best describes car-
D. colloids bon dioxide?
194. What is the smallest part of a pure sub- A. atom
stance B. mixture
A. Molecule C. element
B. Francium
D. compound
C. Element
200. A student drops some metal paper clips
D. Compound
in a box of sand. The student uses a mag-
195. [check all that apply] Mixtures are net to separate the metal paper clips from
the sand. The reason this works is that
A. chemically combined the sand and paper clips together are
B. composed of two or more types of mat- A. a mixture
ter that can be present in varying amounts
B. an element
C. One or more elements chemically com-
bined C. a compound

D. can be separated by physical means D. a substance

196. A liquid medicine that has a label “shake 201. A solution that is able to dissolve addi-
before use” would be an example of a tional solute is best described as
A. colloid A. supersaturated.
B. solution B. concentrated.
C. suspension C. saturated
D. Coarse mixture D. unsaturated.

197. Is salt an element, compound, or a mix- 202. A(n) is a substance with a pH greater
ture? than 7.
A. element A. Base
B. compound B. Acid
C. mixture C. Buffer
D. none of above D. Water

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 166

203. Which of these substances is an example A. a fruit salad

of a solution? B. a mixture of sugar and salt
A. milk C. a mixture of sugar and water
B. brass D. a chocolate chip cookie
C. mercury
209. Groups 3-12 on the periodic table are
D. concrete called
A. The Halogens

NARAYAN CHANGDER
204. Which solution releases H+ in solution?
A. Base B. The Nobel Gases
B. Acid C. Transition Metals
C. Buffer D. The Oxygen Group
D. Water 210. Each element has a place in an arrange-
ment called the
205. Which of these is an example of a com-
pound? A. Elements Table
B. Elementary Table
A. H
C. Kitchen Table
B. NaCl
D. Periodic Table of the Elements
C. O
D. Ne 211. Matter is
A. everything that has density
206. In Chemistry, what is a pure substance?
B. everything made of atoms
A. a substance that has had nothing
added to it C. elements
B. a substance made up of only one thing D. anything that has mass and takes up
space
C. a substance made up of only one type
of element or compound 212. What term is given to the melting and
D. a mixture of elements and boiling points of a substance?
A. exact points
207. Elements are broadly classified as metals,
B. stationary points
nonmetals, and
C. fixed points
A. compounds
D. mb points
B. organic
C. metalloids 213. Alex goes into the garden and digs up a
shovel full of dirt. In the dirt you could see
D. Metallica
grass, seed, and a few worms. This is a
208. A mixture is what you get when you com- mixture.
bine two substances in such a way that no A. Homogeneous
chemical reaction occurs between the com- B. Heterogenous
ponents. A solution is a mixture that looks
exactly the same everywhere. Which of C. compound
these mixtures is a solution? D. element

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 167

214. A chemist has two 50-gram samples of 219. In the lab, Maya is using a substance that
pure oxygen gas. Each samplehas a melt- has a chemical formula and contains two
ing point of-218.79◦ C and a density of different elements. Maya’s substance is

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1.429 grams per liter.What will occur if a(n)
the two samples are combined? A. element
A. The melting point and the density will
B. compound
both double.
C. heterogeneous mixture
B. The melting point and the density will
both remain the same. D. homogenous mixture/solution
C. The melting point will double, while the 220. What is the difference between pure sub-
density will remain the same. stances and mixtures
D. The melting point will remain the same,
A. pure substances are compounds and
while the density will double.
elements . mixtures are mixtures of sub-
215. A combination of substances that can be stances
physically separated from one another B. pure substances are just mixtures of
A. mixtures substances . Mixtures are just mixtures
of compounds and elements
B. compound
C. element C. There isn’t a difference

D. molecule D. none of above

216. An atom that exists naturally in Earth 221. Soil is an example of a mixture.
that serves as a building block for all mat- A. heterogeneous
ter.
B. homogeneous
A. mixtures
C. pure
B. atoms
D. none of above
C. elements
D. compound 222. When there is 2 or more atoms chemically
combined together
217. A pure substance is one that has even
though thereis a change of phase A. Element
A. a homogeneous B. Compound
B. a homogeneous and invariable chemi- C. Homogeneous Mixture
cal composition D. Heterogeneous Mixture
C. invariable chemical composition
223. When candle wax becomes a liquid, this
D. none of the above change of state is called which of the fol-
218. Which is not an Element lowing?
A. Nitrogen A. boiling
B. Helium B. melting
C. Air C. sublimation
D. Oxygen D. deposition

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 168

224. Particle with no charge. C. saturated

A. electron D. unsaturated
B. proton 230. DIFFERENT kinds of atoms chemically
C. neutron combined to form a substance are
D. none of above A. Mixture
B. Element
225. two or more atoms bonded together is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Compound
A. an element D. Substance
B. a big atom 231. Fruit Loops, pizza, and Skittles are exam-
C. a molecule ples of mixtures.
D. a mixture A. heterogeneous
B. homogeneous
226. The chemical symbol for Sulfur is
C. pure
A. S
D. none of above
B. Su
C. Sr 232. When salt is dissolved in water, the re-
sult is a
D. none of above
A. homogeneous mixture
227. A salvage yard contains a mixture of iron, B. gas
glass, aluminum, and plastic. Which prop-
erty of iron does the salvage yard take ad- C. compound
vantage of when separating the iron from D. heterogeneous mixture
the rest of the materials?
233. Tastes bitter.
A. magnetic
A. Acids
B. electrical
B. Bases
C. ductile
C. Salts
D. malleable
D. All
228. Solubility is a property.
234. Liquids are characterized by which of the
A. neat following statements?
B. chemical A. Liquids have a definite shape and vol-
C. physical ume.
D. an organic B. Liquids have no definite shape but have
definite volume.
229. When a solvent contains as much of the C. Liquids have no definite shape or vol-
solute as it can hold, the solution is said to ume.
be
D. The particles of liquids are tightly
A. supersaturated bound to each other and fixed in position
B. diluted with respect to other particles.

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 169

235. The following are homogenous mixture 239. This is a heterogeneous mixture in which
EXCEPT: particles settle out unless it is constantly
stirred.

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A. stainless steel
A. colloid
B. Air
B. suspension
C. soda drink
C. solution
D. oil and water
D. alloy
236. What is the only substance with a neutral
pH of 7? 240. Why are elements and compounds called
pure substances?
A. Milk
A. They are only made up of one particu-
B. Orange Juice lar kind of an atom
C. Water B. They have indefinite compositions
(made up of different type of atoms)
D. Blood
C. They have definite compositions
237. Mixture (made up of one type of atom or one type
of molecule)
A. The smallest unit of an element that
has all of the properties of that element D. None of these
and contains a nucleus within an electron
cloud 241. An element is made up of only one kind
of
B. Pure substance made of two or more
kinds of atoms bound together A. isotope
B. plastic
C. Made of a blend of elements and com-
pounds; are not pure substances because C. atom
they do not have consistent properties D. metal
D. A single substance, either an element
or compound, with definite composition 242. What has distinct properties and compo-
and properties sition that never vary.
A. solution
238. what is weight
B. molecule
A. the measure of the force of gravity on
C. pure substance
an object
D. heterogeneous mixture
B. a pure substance made of only one
kind of atom 243. the temperature at which a liquid changes
C. the ratio of line mass of a substance to to a gas
the voume of the substance, measured in A. solubility
grams per cubic centimeter
B. boiling point
D. A characteristic of a pure substance
C. melting point
that describes it ability to change into dif-
ferent substances D. state of matter

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 170

244. the substance in which the solute is 249. Kool-Aid-Powder, sugar, and waterIden-
being dissolved. tify the solvent
A. Solution A. water
B. Solvent B. powder
C. Solute C. sugar
D. Soluble D. powder and sugar

NARAYAN CHANGDER
245. Which of the following is not a pure sub- 250. What is the definition of physical
stance? change?
A. Gold A. any change that results in the forma-
B. stainless steel tion of new chemical substances.

C. sucrose B. rusting

D. Table salt C. changes affecting the form of a chemi-

cal substance, but not its chemical compo-
246. An inflated balloon is placed in a refrig- sition.
erator. Which statement describes the D. any property that is measurable,
movement of the gas particles in the bal- whose value describes a state of a physi-
loon? cal system
A. The particles move more slowly and
become closer together. 251. What is the difference between a mixture
and a pure substance?
B. The particles move more slowly and
become further apart. A. A mixture is made up of one type of
atom and a pure substance is made up of
C. The particles move faster and become more than one type of atom
closer together.
B. A mixture is made up of more than
D. The particles move faster and become one type of atom and a pure substance is
further apart. made up of only one type of atom
247. the gravitational pull on the mass of an C. A mixture has different properties
object throughout and a pure substance has the
same properties throughout
A. mass
D. A mixture has the same properties
B. weight
throughout and a pure substance has dif-
C. volume ferent properties throughout
D. density
252. When electricity passes through wa-
248. The ability of a substance to be dissolved ter, hydrogen and oxygen are produced.
in a liquid Which table correctly labels the compounds
and elements involved in the process?
A. dissolvent
A. Water→CompoundHydrogen→CompoundOxygen→Eleme
B. solubility
C. combustion B. Water→CompoundHydrogen→ElementOxygen→Compou
D. disappearing

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 171

258. Ana wants to compare the chemical prop-

C. Water→CompoundHydrogen→ElementOxygen→Element
erties of two substances. In doing it, he
prepared two flasks containing the sub-

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D. none of above
stances and labeled them Liquid A and
253. As particles are exposed to warmer tem- Liquid B. He monitored the boiling points
peratures they of the liquids and found that the boiling
A. speed up points were 100◦ C for substance A and
110◦ C-112◦ C for liquid B. How would you
B. slow down classify the two liquids?
C. stay the same A. Liquid A is pure substance while Liquid
D. vibrate B is a mixture.

254. matter is categorized as or B. Liquids A and B contain two or more

atoms that are chemically bonded.
A. an element or compound
C. Liquid A has varying boiling points
B. homogeneous or heterogeneous while liquid B has a fix boiling point.
C. a pure substance or mixture
D. Liquid A may be homogenous or het-
D. a compound or mixture erogeneous but substance B is not.
255. A is a substance that is made of only 259. What are two of the SAME element chem-
one type of particle and has unique physi- ically bonded together is called?
cal and chemical properties such as appear-
ance, melting point, and reactivity. A. pure substance:mixture

A. mixture B. element or compound

B. pure substance C. molecule or element

C. compound D. pure substance:compound
D. element 260. Lemonade-Water, lemon juice, and sug-
arIdentify the solute
256. When elements form mixtures, the ele-
ments A. water
A. react to form a new substance with B. lemon juice
new properties. C. sugar and lemon juice
B. keep their original properties. D. none of above
C. always change their physical state.
261. Define matter?
D. combine in a specific mass ratio.
A. anything that has mass and take up
257. Biochemicals are divided into 4 cate- places
gories:carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids,
and B. anything that has mass that take up an
atom
A. proteins
C. anything that has space and take up
B. fats volume
C. sugars and starches D. anything that has mass and take up
D. fibers space or volume

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 172

262. What do you call the amount of space an 268. What is the symbol for Calcium?
object occupies or takes up? A. C
A. Volume B. Ca
B. Mass C. Cs
C. Density D. Cl
D. Weight
269. Which of the following is a compound?
263. The chemical symbol for Hydrogen is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Sugar
A. He B. Salt Water
B. H C. Salad Dressing
C. Hy D. Oxygen
D. none of above
270. What is insoluble
264. Particle with a negative charge. A. not able to dissolve
A. electron B. the ability of one substance to dissolve
B. proton in another at a given temperature
C. neutron C. characteristic that can be observed
D. none of above without changing the substance into
something else
265. An is made up of one or more of the D. none of above
same kind of atom chemically combined.
ex. Al, O2, S8 271. The substance in which another substance
A. atom dissolves.
B. element A. Solvent
C. molecule B. Compound
D. compound C. Seperation
D. Solute
266. the of a solution tells us the quantity
of solute that is dissolved in a certain vol- 272. Fog on the bathroom mirror after a
ume of solution shower is a good example of
A. particles A. Condensation
B. concentration B. Evapouration
C. sauration C. Depostion
D. solubility D. none of above
267. What is a homogeneous mixture? 273. Which of the following is a physical ap-
A. when sugar is added to water the pearance of a substance?
sugar dissolves A. No fixed boiling and melting point
B. when one substance dissolves B. Homogenous
C. i do not know C. Heterogenous
D. third type of mixture D. Non uniform

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 173

274. What does it mean to dissolve B. Mixture

A. to mix completely with another sub- C. Compound

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stance to form a solution D. Matter
B. it a measure of the amount of space
279. what is matter
that a substance or an object takes up
A. unique trait or feature of something
C. The temperature at which a substance
changes from a liquid to a gas B. the ability of one substance to dissolve
in another at a given temperature
D. a pure substance made of only one
kind of atom C. anything that has a mass and takes up
space
275. One substance that is part of a mixture. D. none of above
A. Component
280. Which of the following is NOT TRUE
B. Solution about Heterogeneous Mixtures?
C. Solvent A. They will settle out over time
D. Solute B. Individual particles are often distin-
guishable
276. An element is?
C. Solutions are a type of heterogenous
A. Chemically combined mixture
B. Pure substances that can be broken D. Emulsions, Suspensions, and Collides
down are types of Heterogeneous Solutions.
C. Pure substances that cannot be bro- 281. When you combine chocolate powder and
ken down into simpler substances milk, the result is best describe as
D. One or more elements chemically com- A. a mixture
bined.
B. a compound
277. Which statement(s) best describe why ta- C. an element
ble sugar is considered a pure substance? D. a substance
(check all that apply)
282. Two or more substances mingled to-
A. Sugar cannot be separated further by
gether, but not chemically combined are
physical means
known as a
B. Sugar is solid like all other pure sub-
A. residue
stances
B. solution
C. sugar has the same chemical composi-
tion throughout C. distillate
D. Sugar is a mixture of compounds D. mixture

E. A bowl of sugar contains only one com- 283. The pH scale is a range from:
pound A. 1-7
278. This is made up of one or more of kind of B. 0-14
the SAME kind of atom C. 1-14
A. Element D. 1-20

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 174

284. The chemical symbol for Helium is 290. The is the part that gets dissolved.
A. H A. solute
B. Hl B. solvent
C. He C. solution
D. none of above D. Sacajawea
291. The universal solvent is
285. What is the symbol for Potassium?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. sodium
A. P
B. acid
B. K
C. water
C. L
D. wind
D. S
292. A sample of matter that has a definite
286. A is made up of elements that are composition with specific chemical proper-
combined chemically. ties is called
A. element A. Mixture
B. compound B. Pure Substance
C. mixture C. Solution
D. molecule D. none of above

287. What are examples of mixtures? There 293. A contains a variety of elements and
are multiple answers. compounds that are not chemically com-
bined with each other.
A. Water
A. compound
B. Pizza
B. element
C. Bowl of fruit C. molecule
D. Sugar D. mixture
E. Salt water
294. Is bending copper wire a physical or chem-
288. Chex mix contains pretzels, rye chips and ical change?
chex cereal. It is an example of a(n) A. physical
A. solution/ homogeneous mixture B. chemical
B. heterogeneous mixture C. nuclear
C. element D. no change
D. compound 295. any characteristic of matter that you can
observe without changing the identity of
289. The ability to burn is a property. the substances that make it up
A. physical A. physical property
B. chemical B. chemical property
C. conservitive C. periodic table
D. reversed D. conglomerate

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 175

296. What is a mixture? C. concentrated

A. A pure substance composed of the D. none of above

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same type of atom throughout.
B. A combination of two or more sub- 301. are mixtures in which its particles are
stances that do not chemically combine too big to settle at the bottom which needs
and can be separated. to be shaken when use.

C. The smallest particle of an element; A. Solutions

made of electrons, protons, and neutrons. B. Colloids
D. The simplest unit of a chemical com- C. Suspensions
pound that can exist, formed when two or
more atoms join together chemically. D. Coarse mixtures

297. When making a fruit drink from a pow- 302. Compounds are different than elements
dered mixture, water is the because compounds are-
A. dissolving part A. A combination of two or more ele-
B. solute ments.
C. solution B. B)not able to be broken down into
parts
D. solvent
C. made from the same type of atoms
298. Carbon dioxide
D. a pure substance, elements are not
A. Pure Substance & Element
B. Pure Substance or Compound 303. A salad is an example of-
C. Mixture & Homogenous A. A pure substance
D. Mixture & Heterogenous B. A mixture
299. When a gas begins to condense through C. An element
condensation, what happens to the heat in D. A compound
the particles.
A. The heat leaves the gas as it con- 304. Matter is anything that has
denses. A. weight and volume
B. The heat goes into the gas as it con-
B. mass and density
denses.
C. mass and weight
C. The heat stays the same as it con-
denses. D. mass and volume
D. None of the above.
305. Group 1 on the periodic table is called
300. solution has the maximum amount of so- A. Alkali Metals
lute dissolved in it at a certain tempera-
ture and pressure B. Alkaline Earth Metals
A. saturated C. The Oxygen Group
B. diluted D. The Halogens

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 176

306. Change of state occurs when is C. a magnet and a hot plate

added/removed D. a settling tank and a filter
A. cold
311. The nature of something’s ingredients or
B. heat constituents; the way in which a whole or
C. particles mixture is made up.
D. matter A. composition

307. Matter is anything that takes up space B. element

NARAYAN CHANGDER
and has C. mixture
A. volume D. compound
B. cells 312. A is more than one kind of atom (ele-
C. mass ment) chemically combined. ex. H2O
D. density A. element

308. Madison’s lab group is given a dish that B. compound

contains sand, shells and water. How C. mixture
should they classify the substance they D. molecule
have been given?
A. As a compound, because it contains 313. A solution with a pH of 3.6 would be
several elements. A. Acid
B. As a pure substance, because it’s B. Base
made up of various compounds. C. Neutral
C. As a heterogeneous, mixture because D. Acid and Base
it does not have the same uniform appear-
ance or composition. 314. Mixtures are formed by
D. As a homogeneous, mixture because A. Physical changes only
it has the same uniform appearance and B. Chemical changes only
composition throughout.
C. Physical and Chemical changes
309. When metal comes in contact with oxy- D. none of above
gen and water, it creates through a
chemical reaction. 315. The amount of matter in an object is a
A. Rust (tarnish) measure of the object’s

B. Mold A. volume

C. Decomposition B. density

D. Copper C. mass
D. solubility
310. Which is the best set of tools to use for
separating a mixture of water, sugar, and 316. A mixture that appears to be evenly
pebbles? mixed throughout:
A. a filter and a magnet A. an atom
B. a filter and a hot plate B. a compound

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 177

C. a homogeneous mixture 321. A substance that can dissolve a solute

when forming a solution.
D. a heterogeneous mixture

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A. solute
317. Which is an example of a container filled
B. solution
with a pure substance?
C. solvent
A. a glass of iced tea
D. mixture
B. a bucket of salt water
C. a tire filled with air 322. Mixtures are

D. a balloon filled with helium A. Chemically combined

B. one or more elements that are chemi-
318. Salt water boils and the water com- cally combined
pletely evaporates, salt (NaCl) is left in
C. composed of two or more types of mat-
the bottom of the beaker. Which of the
ter that can be present in varying amounts
following is left in the beaker?
D. can be separated by physical changes
A. Compound
B. Element 323. When heat is added to a liquid, what oc-
curs?
C. Mixture
A. Liquid molecules begin to condense to
D. None of the Above form a solid.
319. How can you determine whether nitrogen B. Liquid molecules are being slowed
dioxide is a compound or a mixture? down to become a gas.
A. Nitrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen dioxide C. Liquid molecules speed up and begin
are gases, so nitrogen dioxide is a mix- to spread out to become a gas.
ture. D. Liquid molecules begin to slow down to
B. Nitrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen dioxide become a solid.
are gases, so nitrogen dioxide is a com-
324. The chemical symbol for Nitrogen is
pound.
A. Ni
C. The properties of nitrogen dioxide are
different from nitrogen and oxygen, so it B. Nt
is a mixture. C. N
D. The properties of nitrogen dioxide are D. none of above
different from nitrogen and oxygen, so it
is a compound. 325. What kind of properties can only be ob-
served when a substance changes into a
320. Tea and air are examples of different substance?
A. solutions A. physical properties
B. suspensions B. chemical properties
C. colloids C. liquid properties
D. none of above D. real properties

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 178

326. Elements and Compounds are both 332. Only one of the following substances is a
A. Pure Substances pure substance. Which one?

B. Mixtures A. gold

C. Homogenous B. air

D. Heterogenous C. tap water

D. none of above
327. Capable of being dissolved

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Soluble 333. The chemical equation shown below rep-
resents a reaction that produces fuel for
B. concentration
certain cars.CO + H2O→CO2 + H2Which
C. colloid substance in this equation is classified as
D. molarity an element?
A. CO
328. a substance that forms when iron reacts
with water and oxygen in the air B. H2O
A. flammability C. CO2
B. rust D. H2
C. solubility 334. Matter that can be broken down by a
D. conductivity chemical reaction into its element parts.

329. Pure substances are separated by A. Compound

A. Chemical changes only B. Component

B. Physical changes only C. Solution
C. Physical and Chemical changes D. Solute
D. none of above 335. Unlike an element, a(n) may be sep-
arated through a physical process like fil-
330. Which of the following is a characteristic
tration.
of a molecule?
A. It is the smallest unit that maintains its A. mixture
properties. B. compound
B. All matter is made of these. C. atom
C. It is unstable by itself D. molecule
D. It can be broken down into smaller
336. Mom serves mixed vegetables, including
pieces.
peas, carrots, and corn, with dinner. This
331. Which of these is an element? side dish is classified as a
A. Salt (NaCl) A. pure substance
B. Water (H20) B. homogeneous
C. Oxygen (O) C. compound
D. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) D. heterogeneous

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 179

337. In science, Jill is learning about solids C. mixture

such as brass, bronze, and steel. How
D. compound
should she classify these materials?

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A. pure substances 343. What makes elements and compounds
B. state compounds different from mixtures? Elements and
compounds-
C. homogeneous mixtures
A. conduct electric current.
D. heterogeneous mixtures
B. will not change when heated.
338. the state of being solid, liquid, or gas
C. are made of gases.
A. solubility
B. boiling point D. have a constant composition.

C. melting point 344. From the list below, determine which

D. state of matter properties are for compounds.I. It takes
a large amount of energy to separates
339. A row on the periodic table is called a the elements of a compound.II. The pro-
A. group portions of the elements in a compound
are always fixed.III. It is easy to sepa-
B. period
rate the elements of a compound.IV. The
C. metal elements/components of a compound do
D. none of above not retain their individual properties.

340. A tuna sandwich is classified as a: A. I & II

A. Pure substance B. II & III

B. Mechanical mixture C. I, II & IV
C. Solution D. II, III, & IV
D. Solvent
345. are mixtures in which its particles
341. What are the characteristics of a homo- are too big to stay mixed without being
geneous mixture? Choose all that apply stirred or shaken.
A. A homogeneous mixture’s components A. Solutions
are evenly distributed
B. Colloids
B. A homogeneous mixture’s components
are unevenly distributed C. Suspensions
C. A homogenous mixture’s components D. none of above
are not easily distinguished
346. A pure substance made up of two or more
D. A homogeneous mixture’s components
elements that are chemically combined.
are easily distinguished
A. compound
342. Water (H2O), is not found on the periodic
table because water is a B. atom
A. atom C. mixture
B. liquid D. element

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 180

347. What is an atom? 352. Mixtures

A. A new substance with unique chemical A. chemically combined
and physical properties formed when two
B. composed of two or more types of mat-
or more elements are chemically bonded
ter that can be present in varying amounts
during a chemical reaction.
B. A pure substance composed of the C. One or more elements chemically com-
same type of atom throughout. bined
D. can be separated by physical changes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The smallest particle of an element;
made of electrons, protons, and neutrons.
353. You need to separate a mixture of iron
D. The simplest unit of a chemical com- filings, sand, and salt. Which of the three
pound that can exist, formed when two or would be easiest to separate first and
more atoms join together chemically. what method would be best?
348. solution has a small amount of solute and A. The salt would be easiest to separate,
a large amount of solvent and using a magnet would be the best
A. saturated method.

B. diluted B. The iron filings would be easiest to sep-

arate, and using a magnet would be the
C. concentrated best method.
D. none of above
C. The salt would be easiest to separate,
349. A mixture is one that does not appear and using hot water to dissolve the other
the same throughout. substances would be the best method.
A. heterogeneous D. The sand would be easiest to separate,
and using hot water to dissolve the other
B. homogenous
substances would be the best method.
C. pure substance
D. none of above 354. Which describes homogeneous mix-
tures?
350. When making a fruit drink from a pow-
A. composed of components which are
dered mixture, the powdered mixture is
not dissolved
the
A. solution B. has only 1 phase visible

B. solvent C. has 2 or more phases visible

C. solute D. the components remain recognizable

D. particle 355. Which is a property of matter that can be
351. In a , one substance is dissolved in an- observed without changing theidentity of
other substance. the property?

A. solution A. ability to rust

B. suspension B. flammability
C. colloid C. reactivity
D. none of above D. solubility

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 181

356. What is a colloids 361. Which changes MUST happen for ele-
A. a third type of mixture that falls some- ments to become a compound?

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where between suspensions and solu- A. elements are heated
tions
B. a gas becomes a liquid
B. when one substance dissolves in wa-
ter C. elements dissolve in water
C. i do not know D. chemical bonds form between atoms.
D. when you add sugar and it dissolves
362. Which of the following is INCORRECT
357. What is density about pure substances?
A. a state of matter in which a substances A. formed by combining two or more com-
has a definite volume but no definite ponents
shape
B. have definite composition
B. the ratio of line mass of a substance to
the voume of the substance, measured in C. all elements are pure substances
grams per cubic centimeter D. composed of only one kind of material
C. anything that has a nass and takes up
space 363. Granite is an igneous rock that contains
the minerals quartz, feldspar, mica and
D. the measure of the force of gravity on others. The exact composition will vary
an object from sample to sample. Granite is a(n)
358. Which one is not a category that ele- A. element
ments are categorized in.
B. compound
A. Metalloid
C. heterogeneous mixture
B. Metal
C. Non-Metal D. homogenous mixture/solution

D. Gases 364. the ability of a type of matter to burn

easily
359. How are a 10-gram sample of solid gold
and a 50-gram sample of solid gold differ- A. flammability
ent?
B. rust
A. They have different colors.
C. solubility
B. They have different volumes.
D. conductivity
C. They have different densities.
D. They have different melting points. 365. A single substance, either an element or
compound, with definite composition and
360. The process in which a solid changes di-
properties
rectly into a gas is called
A. Mixture
A. Precipitation
B. Condensation B. Element
C. Evaporation C. Compound
D. Sublimation D. Pure Substance

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 182

366. Water, H2O, is made up of different ele- 370. While elements and compounds can both
ments, hydrogen and oxygen. Is this type be classified as pure substances because
of combination a mixture or a pure sub- they have distinct properties and composi-
stance? tion, cannot be decomposed further.
A. Because water is composed of two A. compounds
separate elements, it is a mixture. B. elements
B. Because water can be heated and C. formulas
fairly easily turned to steam, it is a mix-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ture. D. molecules

C. Because water is composed of ele- 371. What is a particle

ments found in the periodic table, it is a A. anything that has a mass and takes up
pure substance. space
D. Because water molecules all have a B. the measure of the force of gravity on
consistent ratio of hydrogen to oxygen, it an object
is a pure substance.
C. the temperature at which a substance
367. Jamie poured a mixture of sand and salt changes from a solid to a liquid
water into a beaker through a funnel lined D. a very small piece or part of something
with filter paper. What will be found in
the beaker after filtering? 372. While elements and compounds can both
be classified as pure substances because
A. Salt Only
they have distinct properties and composi-
B. Sand Only tion, cannot be broken down further
C. Salt and Water A. compound
D. Salt and Sand B. mixture
C. elements
368. In a , one substance is dissolved and
evenly distributed in another substance. It D. cell
is another name for a homogeneous mix-
373. Which term describes a substance that is
ture.
dissolved in anothersubstance?
A. solution
A. compound
B. suspension
B. mass
C. colloid C. solute
D. none of above D. solvent
369. made up of one kind of matter and has a 374. Anything that takes up space and has
definite set of properties mass is called?
A. compound A. Matter
B. atom B. Energy
C. mixture C. Solutions
D. pure substance D. Atoms

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 183

375. Both and can be classified as C. molecule

pure substances because they have dis- D. compound
tinct properties and composition.

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A. electrons, protons 381. A type of mixture that falls in between
suspensions and solutions are called
B. elements, compounds
A. solutions
C. atoms, element
B. colloids
D. formulas, structure
C. suspensions
376. Located in the nucleus. D. pure substances
A. proton
382. solution has a large amount of solute and
B. nucleus a small amount of solvent
C. electron A. saturated
D. none of above B. diluted
377. Chocolate chip cookie C. concentrated
A. Pure Substance & Element D. none of above
B. Pure Substance & Compound 383. Tastes Sour
C. Mixture & Homogenous A. Acids
D. Mixture & Heterogenous B. Bases
378. One difference between mixtures and C. Salts
pure substances is that D. All
A. mixtures can be physically separated. 384. Mixtures that have the same composition
B. mixtures are made of one type of atom. throughout are
C. pure substances have no chemical A. heterogeneous
bonds. B. homogeneous
D. pure substances can be physically sep- C. elements
arated.
D. pure substances
379. This is a type of heterogeneous mixture
385. What is a heterogeneous mixture
in which the particles are dispersed and do
not settle out. A. does not have a uniform composition
A. alloy B. when one thing dissolves
B. solution C. when sugar is added it dissolves
C. suspension D. i do not know
D. colloid 386. Milk and gelatin are examples of
380. What type of substance is always made A. suspensions
up of a single type of atom? B. colloids
A. mixture C. solutions
B. element D. none of above

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 184

387. Impurities tend to 392. Each element can be found on the

A. lower the melting and boiling points of A. Elements Table
a substance B. Elementary Table
B. lower the melting point and raise the C. Kitchen Table
boiling point of a substance
D. Periodic Table of the Elements
C. increase the melting and boiling points
of a substance 393. [check all that apply] Pure substances in-
clude:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. increase the melting point and lower
the boiling point of a substance A. Elements
B. Homogeneous Mixtures
388. According to the particle theory of mat-
C. Compounds
ter:
D. Heterogeneous Mixtures
A. All matter is made up of cells.
B. Particles move more slowly as they 394. The amount of solute that can be dis-
are heated. solved in a specific amount of solvent at
a given temperature is its
C. The particles of a solid do not move.
A. concentration.
D. All particles are attracted to one an-
B. density.
other.
C. dilution.
389. A combination of substances that are D. solubility.
combined physically but not chemically.
A. Mixture 395. Is salt dissolving in water a physical or
chemical change?
B. Pure Substance
A. physical
C. Element
B. chemical
D. Compound
C. nuclear
390. An compound is? D. no change
A. Chemically combined 396. a substance in which the parts are clearly
B. Pure substances that can be broken different shapes and colors; different
down throughout
C. Pure substances that cannot be bro- A. mixture
ken down into simpler substances B. homogeneous
D. One or more elements chemically com- C. heterogeneous
bined. D. element
391. substance that can be dissolved by sub- 397. The heat absorbed by melting 1 mole of
stance substance is known as
A. solute A. latent heat of fusion
B. solvent B. latent heat of solid
C. solution C. latent heat of liquid
D. none of above D. latent heat of vaporisation

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 185

398. A bottle of dishwashing detergent con- C. by their role in the body

tains a clear, viscous liquid. The label has D. all of these
a long list of ingredients, including water,

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sodium lauryl sulfate, fragrance, and Blue 403. A mixture has different concentra-
dye #5.What can you infer about the ma- tions of particles throughout.
terial in the bottle from this label and the A. Homogeneous
appearance of the liquid?
B. Heterogeneous
A. It is a pure substance
C. Solid
B. It is a homogeneous mixture
D. Liquid
C. It is a compound
D. It is a heterogeneous mixture 404. Which of the following explains why salt-
water is considered a mixture?
399. What is chemical property A. It is composed of one element.
A. a very small piece or part of something B. It is composed of one compound.
B. a pure substance made of only one C. It is composed of two or more sub-
kind of atom stances and has new chemical properties.
C. the ratio of line mass of a substance to D. It is composed of two or more sub-
the voume of the substance, measured in stances and retains their own chemical
grams per cubic centimeter properties.
D. A characteristic of a pure substance
that describes it ability to change into dif- 405. The chemical symbol for Calcium is
ferent substances A. C

400. The process by which one or more sub- B. Ca

stances undergo change to produce one or C. Cl
more different substances. D. none of above
A. chemical property
406. Addie’s class is learning about mixtures
B. chemical energy and solutions. Her teacher writes state-
C. chemical reaction ments on the board. Which statement
D. chromatography BEST describes a mixture?
A. Both substances mix evenly.
401. Formed when atoms are joined together
by a chemical bond. B. Both substances can evaporate.

A. mixture C. One substance dissolves into another.

B. molecules D. One substance can be separated from

the other.
C. electron cloud
D. none of above 407. Matter in which two or more substances
(elements or compounds) are mixed to-
402. Which of the following is a way we can gether without breaking or making new
classify compounds? bonds between atoms.
A. by their pH level A. element
B. as organic or inorganic B. Mixture

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1.9 Properties of Pure Substance 186

C. Solvent C. Elements and

D. Seperation D. none of above

408. You and your brothers are eating a pizza. 414. What does soluble mean
What type of mixture are you consuming? A. a very small piece or part of something
A. homogeneous Mixture B. able to dissolve
B. heterogeneous Mixture C. the ability of one substance to dissolve

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. pure substance in another at a given temperature
D. The Periodic Table D. none of above

409. the mass per unit volume of a substance 415. Particles in a take the shape of the
A. mass container.

B. weight A. solid

C. volume B. liquid

D. density C. gas
D. plasma
410. Feels slippery.
A. Acids 416. A mixture that does not look the same
throughout:
B. Bases
A. heterogeneous mixture
C. All
B. homogeneous mixture
D. none of above
C. the periodic table
411. Name some examples of formulations D. water
A. medicines
417. The change of state from a solid to a gas
B. pure gold is called:
C. pure acid A. evaporation
D. none of above B. condensation
412. A mixture is one that does not have C. sublimation
a uniform composition. D. melting
A. heterogeneous
418. Which of these is a mixture?
B. homogeneous
A. Laundry Detergent
C. compound
B. Salt (NaCl)
D. atom
C. Oxygen (O)
413. Which of the following is a way in which D. Fluorine (Fl)
elements and compounds are similar?
A. Elements and compounds are both 419. Is a burning of candle a physical or chem-
pure substances. ical change?

B. Elements and compounds are both A. chemical

listed on the periodic table. B. physical

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 1.10 Digital Thermodynamic 187

C. nuclear A. Atoms
D. no change B. Elements

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420. What is suspensions? C. Compounds
A. a theory D. Mixtures
B. a mixture in which the particles of a
materials are spread throughout a liquid 423. In a , one substance is dissolved in an-
or gas but are too large to stay mixed with- other substance. It is a homogeneous mix-
out being stirred or shake ture.
C. when one substance is dissolved in an- A. solution
other substance
B. suspension
D. I don’t know
C. colloid
421. Which is an example of a heterogeneous
mixture? D. none of above
A. gasoline
424. Which gas? Positive result:turns damp
B. diet soda blue litmus paper to white (bleached)
C. oil and water A. hydrogen
D. grape juice
B. oxygen
422. are the smallest unit of an element
C. carbon dioxide
that maintains the properties of that ele-
ment. D. chlorine

1.10 Digital Thermodynamic

1. What is the formula to convert Fahrenheit A. thermodynamics
to Celsius? B. temperature
A. C = (F-32) / 1.8 C. thermal equilibrium
B. F= (1.8xC) + 32 D. thermal expansion
C. K= C + 273
4. Select the correct SI unit for Heat
D. C= K-273
A. calorie
2. Whats the formula to convert Celsius to B. joule
Fahrenheit?
C. kelvin
A. C= (F-32) / 1.8
D. celsius
B. F = (1.8 x C) + 32
5. When a substance or material gets hot-
C. K = C + 273
ter, it expands to a greater volume, this
D. C = K-273 is called ..

3. A condition in which all parts of a system A. thermodynamics

are at the same temperature? B. temperature

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 1.11 Properties of Gases 188

C. thermal equilibrium A. H

D. thermal expansion B. t
C. Q
6. Select the correct symbol for Heat D. E

1.11 Properties of Gases

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. According to Boyle’s Law, when the pres- C. The pressure inside the balloon is
sure of a gas increases at a constant tem- greater than outside the balloon, so the
perature, its volume: balloon expands
A. decreases D. none of above
B. increases 5. What is the phase change of a solid to a
C. stays the same liquid?
D. increases, then decreases A. freezing

2. What is the variable for this number 122 B. melting

K C. boiling
A. P D. condensation
B. T 6. A change of state from a liquid to a solid
C. n is called
D. V A. Melting

3. Estimate the average thermal energy of B. Freezing

a helium atom the temperature of 10 mil- C. Evaporation
lionKelvin (the typical core temperature in D. none of above
the case of a star).
A. 2-10-16 J 7. How is a solid defined?
B. 2.3-10-16 J A. Indefinite shape and indefinite volume
C. 1.9-10-16 J B. Definite shape and definite volume
D. 2.1-10-16 J C. Found in the stars
D. Definite volume, indefinite shape
4. A helium-filled balloon is released into the
atmosphere. As the balloon rises, the vol- 8. Calculate the volume that a 0.323-mol
ume increases and causes the balloon to sample of a gas will occupy at 265 K and
burst. Why does this happen? a pressure of 0.900 atm.
A. The pressure outside the balloon is A. 7.18 L
greater than inside the balloon, so the bal-
loon expands B. 7.81 L

B. There are more molecules of helium in C. 4.63 L

the balloon at higher altitudes D. 4.36 L

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1.11 Properties of Gases 189

9. What pressure in kPa is equal to 2.65 C. sublimation

atm? D. evaporation

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A. 268 kPa
15. When the volume decreases
B. 0.0261 kPa
C. 39.0 kPa A. The work is done BY the gas

D. 265 kPa B. The work is done ON the gas

C. There is NO work done
10. Water droplets forming on your mirror in
your bathroom after you shower. D. none of above
A. vaporization 16. What accounts for the increase in temper-
B. sublimation ature of a gas that is compressed?
C. condensation A. Energy has been added as heat
D. freezing B. Energy has been removed as work is
done by the gas
11. Rewriting the equation of state gives:pV
= NkTwhere: C. Energy has been added as work is
done on the gas
A. N = the number of moles x 6.022 x
1023 D. Volume changes always result to heat-
B. V = volume of the gas ing from particle movement

C. T = temperature in degrees celsius 17. Jacque Charles related and of a

D. k = 1.38 x 10-22 JK-1 gas, assuming stays constant.
A. temperature; pressure; volume
12. Which of the following is constant temper-
ature? B. volume; temperature; pressure
A. isovolumetric C. pressure; temperature; volume
B. isobaric D. pressure; volume; temperature
C. isothermal
18. Which of the following is constant pres-
D. adiabatic sure?
13. A graph that shows that the volume of A. isovolumetric
a gas is directly proportional to its tem- B. isobaric
perature under constant pressure demon-
strates: C. isothermal
A. Charles’ Law D. adiabatic
B. the Pressure Law 19. The temperature at which a solid begins to
C. the Density Law liquefy is called its:
D. Boyle’s Law A. vaporization point
14. Change from Liquid to Solid is call B. freezing point
A. fusion C. condensation point
B. Freezing D. melting point

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1.11 Properties of Gases 190

20. Select all true statements C. No definite shape but a definite volume
A. nR = Nk D. No definite shape or volume
B. NA = 6.022 x 1023
26. What is pressure?
C. k = R/NA
A. How much space an object takes up
D. 3/2RT = NAEk
B. The amount of force that is put on an
21. A sample of gas starts out at a volume of area
2.5 L and 1.85 atm. The gas is placed into

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A measure of how fast the particles of
a new container and the pressure is mea- an object are moving.
sured at 1.25 atm. What is the volume of
the new container? D. none of above

A. 0.93 L 27. Change from gas to liquid

B. 1.7 L A. condensation
C. 3.7 L B. evaporation
D. 5.6 L C. expansion
22. The number of degrees of freedom of poly- D. movement
atomic gas is
28. Which of the following is an example of
A. 3 Charles’s Law?
B. 4 A. Squeezing a tied balloon causes it to
C. 5 pop.
D. 6 B. Heating a balloon causes it to expand.
23. Which of the following is an example of C. Heating a balloon causes it to shrivel.
Boyle’s Law? D. Cooling a balloon increases the pres-
A. Squeezing a tied balloon causes it to sure.
pop.
29. Which law helps us find the moles of gas
B. heating a balloon causes it to expand in a sample?
C. heating a balloon cause it to shrivel A. Charles Law
D. cooling a balloon increases the pres- B. Boyle’s Law
sure
C. Combined Gas Law
24. What is sublimation? D. Ideal Gas Law
A. phase change between solid and liquid
30. Determine the Kelvin temperature re-
B. pahse change from gas to solid
quired for 0.0470 mol of gas to fill a bal-
C. phase change from solid to gas loon to 1.20 L under .998 atm pressure.
D. phase change from solid to solid A. 0 K
25. Gases have B. 107 K
A. A definite shape and volume C. 207 K
B. A definite shape but no definite volume D. 307 K

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1.11 Properties of Gases 191

31. Which is not a part of the kinetic theory of C. pressure; temperature; volume
matter? D. pressure; volume; temperature

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A. all matter is composed of small parti-
cles 36. What is the variable for this number 1.5
mol
B. All particles in matter are in constant
motion A. P

C. all particles eventually stop when their B. T

temperature rises C. n
D. particles in matter are colliding with D. V
each other
37. What pressure in mmHg is equal to 1.43
32. When the temperature of a gas at constant kPa?
volume increases, its: A. 1.43 mmHg
A. pressure increases B. 10.7 mmHg
B. volume increases C. 101.325 mmHg
C. pressure decreases D. 760 mmHg
D. volume decreases
38. What pressure, in atm, is exerted by 2.50
33. change from liquid to gas is called L of gas containing 1.35 mol at 320 K?
PV=nRT
A. expansion
A. 14.19 atm
B. evaporation
B. 16.53 atm
C. condensation
C. 18.42 atm
D. sublimation
D. 22.54 atm
34. Which of these statements of kinetic
molecular theory is stated incorrectly? 39. Which is a correct unit for R?
A. All matter is composed of small parti- A. L.atm/mol.k
cles. B. L.atm
B. The particles that make up gases are C. mmHg/mol.K
in constant, random motion. D. L.atom/mol
C. The particles that make up gases col-
lide with other particles, other objects, 40. Melting is
and the walls of their container. A. liquid to solid
D. When the particles that make up gases B. solid to liquid
collide, energy is lost.
C. solid to gas
35. Boyle’s law states that when either D. gas to liquid
or increases, the other property de-
creases, when the is constant. 41. For an ideal gas at constant temperature
and pressure p at volume V, what affect
A. temperature; pressure; volume would halving the pressure have on the
B. volume; temperature; pressure volume?

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1.11 Properties of Gases 192

A. volume would double 47. According to Charles’s law, when the tem-
B. volume would halve perature of a gas increases at constant
pressure, its:
C. volume would triple
D. none A. volume increases

42. What pressure in mmHg is equal to 1.4 B. mass increases

atm? C. volume decreases
A. 1000 atm

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. particles move more slowly
B. 1100 atm
C. 1200 atm 48. What is the variable for this number 100.0
D. 1400 atm L

43. When the volume increases A. P

A. The work is done BY the gas B. T
B. The work is done ON the gas C. n
C. There is NO work done
D. V
D. none of above
44. An ideal gas system undergoes an isother- 49. Which of the following is constant vol-
mal process in which 20 J of energy is ume?
added as heat to the gas and 20 J of work A. isovolumetric
is done by the system. What is the change
in the system’s internal energy? B. isobaric
A. 20 J C. isothermal
B. -20 J D. adiabatic
C. 0 J
D. 5 J 50. Boiling is

45. When the volume is constant A. liquid to gas

A. The work is done BY the gas B. gas to solid
B. The work is done ON the gas
C. gas to liquid
C. There is NO work done
D. solid to liquid
D. none of above
46. An ideal gas has a density of 2.0 kgm-3 at 51. What happens to particles when they are
a pressure of 2.2 x 105 Pa and a temper- heated?
ature of 295 K. Calculate the root-mean-
A. They speed up and spread out
square speed of the gas atoms.
A. 330 ms-1 B. They slow down and compress
B. 110 000 ms-1 C. They stop moving
C. 373 ms-1 D. They move closer together and speed
D. 19 ms-1 up

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1.11 Properties of Gases 193

52. Lussacs Law says B. that the pressure of a gas is directly

A. that the volume of a gas is directly re- related to its temperature, when volume
stays the same.

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lated to its temperature, when pressure
stays the same C. that the volume of a gas is inversely re-
B. that the pressure of a gas is directly lated to its pressure, when temperature
related to its temperature, when volume stays the same.
stays the same. D. none of above
C. that the volume of a gas is inversely re- 57. Define a liquid.
lated to its pressure, when temperature
stays the same. A. Indefinite shape, indefinite volume

D. none of above B. Definite shape, definite volume

C. Found in stars
53. A container with no insulation has two
compartments. The first compartment is D. Definite volume, indefinite shape
evacuated to zero pressure, and the other 58. Determine the Celsius temperature of 2.49
contains a compressed gas that is not an moles of gas contained in a 1.00-L vessel
ideal gas. Supposed the separation be- at a pressure of 143 kPa.
tween the two compartments is removed.
What type of process is this? A. -266 degrees C
B. -622 degrees C
A. isobaric
C. 622 degrees C
B. isovolumetric
D. 266 degrees C
C. isothermal
D. adiabatic 59. The pressure of a gas increases. What will
happen to the volume?
54. A molecule of an element composed of only
A. Increase
one atom is known as:
B. Decrease
A. Monoatomic molecule
C. Nothing
B. Diatomic molecule
D. Explosion!
C. Triatomic molecule
D. Polyatomic molecule 60. or-273◦ C is theoretically the lowest
possible temperature of matter.
55. The average molecular kinetic energy of a
A. Avagadro’s law
gas can be determined by knowing only
B. Absolute zero
A. The number of molecule in the gas
C. Kinetic molecular theory
B. The volume of the gas
D. All choices are correct
C. The preassure of the gas
D. The tempreature of the gas 61. Often, people need to add air to their tires
in the winter because their tire pressure
56. Charles Law says is too low. Why does this happen in win-
A. that the volume of a gas is directly re- ter?
lated to its temperature, when pressure A. The cold temperature decreases the
stays the same volume of the

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1.11 Properties of Gases 194

B. The cold temperature increases the 66. The pressure inside a container increases
volume of the air in the tires when
C. the difference in temperature be- A. the number of gas molecules is in-
tween the air inside and outside the tires creased
produces convection currents B. the temperature is increased
D. the density inside the tire is less than C. the volume is decreased
that of the surrounding air
D. all of these are reasons why

NARAYAN CHANGDER
62. A 25 L bag has an initial temperature of 67. When an inflated balloon is exposed to
292 K, after sitting in a car for 5 hours cold air,
it reaches a final temperature of 337 K,
what will be the new volume of the bag? A. the volume of the balloon decreases

A. 22 L B. the temperature inside the balloon

rises
B. 25 L
C. the pressure inside the balloon rises
C. 29 L
D. the volume in the balloon increases
D. 3936 L
68. Dry ice is an example of which phase
63. An ideal gas system undergoes an adia- change
batic process in which it expands and does A. boiling
20 J of work on its environment. How
B. freezing
much energy is transferred to the system
as heat? C. condensation
A. 20 J D. sublimation

B. -20 J 69. At what temperature, to scientists theo-

rize that particles do not move?
C. 0 J
A. 0◦ Celsius
D. 5 J
B. 0◦ Fahrenheit
64. No Definite Shape and No Definite Volume C. -273◦ Celsius
A. Gas D. -273◦ Fahrenheit
B. Liquid
70. The greater the speed of gas particles in a
C. Solid container, the:
D. none of above A. greater the pressure
B. fewer collisions there will be
65. When the temperature of a gas decreases
at constant volume, its: C. lower the temperature

A. pressure decreases D. lower the pressure

B. pressure increases 71. An engine absorbs 2200 J as heat from a

heat reservoir and gives off 700 J as heat
C. mass increases
to a cold reservoir during each cycle. What
D. particles move faster is the efficiency of the engine? *

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1.11 Properties of Gases 195

A. 68% D. different kinetic energy as the parti-

B. 83% cles are different sizes

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C. 34% 76. What is temperature?
D. 53% A. How much space an object takes up
72. Adding thermal energy to the gas in a bal- B. The amount of force that is put on an
loon does what? area
A. causes the particles to move faster, in- C. A measure of how fast the particles of
creasing the volume of the balloon an object are moving.
B. causes the particles to move faster, D. none of above
decreasing the volume of the balloon
77. A gas has a temperature of 287 K, and a
C. causes the particles to move more
pressure of 2.3 atm. The gas is heated,
slowly, increasing the volume of the bal-
and the pressure rises to 2.8 atm. What
loon
temperature was the gas heated to?
D. causes the particles to move more
A. 236 K
slowly, decreasing the volume of the bal-
loon B. 287 K

73. Given the equation Ek = 3/2 kT, calculate C. 349 K

the temperature of Helium atoms that are D. 1848 K
able to leave the atmosphere with a speed
of 1.1 x 104ms-1. The mass of an individ- 78. If n and T are held constant, the ideal gas
ual Helium atom is 6.6 x 10-27kg. (k = law reduces to
1.38x10-23) A. Charles’ law
A. 1.9 x 104 K B. Boyle’s law
B. 1.9 x 103 o C C. Avogadro’s principle
C. 1.5 x 102 K D. zero
D. 200 K
79. Definite shape and a definite volume.
74. Which of the following is constant heat?
A. Gas
A. isovolumetric
B. Liquid
B. isobaric
C. Solid
C. isothermal
D. none of above
D. adiabatic
80. What pressure, in atm, is exerted by 2.50
75. At 20oC, the same volume of helium and
L of O2 gas that has a mass of 43.2g at
hydrogen gas will have
320 K? PV=nRT
A. the same average kinetic energy
A. 14.19 atm
B. the same kinetic energy for all parti-
B. 16.53 atm
cles
C. different kinetic energy as they weigh C. 18.42 atm
different amounts D. 22.54 atm

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1.11 Properties of Gases 196

81. The pressure of a sample of helium is 2.0 86. What is the variable for this number 9.10
atm in a 0.2 L container. If the container is atm
compressed to 0.1 L without changing the A. P
temperature, what is the new pressure?
B. T
A. 20 atm
C. n
B. 1 atm
D. V
C. 10 atm

NARAYAN CHANGDER
87. Boyles Law says
D. 4 atm
A. that the volume of a gas is directly re-
82. In which of the following is there no work lated to its temperature, when pressure
done? stays the same
A. isovolumetric B. that the pressure of a gas is directly
B. isobaric related to its temperature, when volume
stays the same.
C. isothermal
C. that the volume of a gas is inversely re-
D. adiabatic lated to its pressure, when temperature
stays the same.
83. The mean square speed of atoms of Neon
gas at 273 K with density 0.900 kgm-3 is D. none of above
3.4 x 105 ms-1. Calculate the r.m.s. of
the same gas at 546 K. 88. The opposite phase of melting is
A. freezing
A. 820 ms-1
B. sublimation
B. 680 000 ms-1
C. condensation
C. 240 ms-1
D. deposition
D. 340 000 ms-1
89. Why do you think tire manufacturers rec-
84. How are solids different from liquids? ommend less air be placed in tires in the
A. particles in solids are moving freely summer?
around each other. A. When tires heat up, the volume of gas
B. particles in solids have no motion. in them decreases.
C. particles in solids are vibrating in B. When tires heat up, the volume of gas
place. in them increases.
D. particles in solids have more motion C. When tires heat up, the pressure is de-
than in liquids creased.
D. When tires heat up, the volume and
85. The number of degrees of freedom of di-
pressure both are decreased.
atomic gas is
A. 2 90. For an ideal gas trapped inside a container
of fixed volume, which of these state-
B. 3
ments is true?
C. 4 A. all particles are moving rapidly and
D. 5 randomly

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1.11 Properties of Gases 197

B. particles exchange momentum with 95. What is volume?

each other and the wall over very short
A. How much space an object takes up
time frames

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C. all particles are moving idly and hap- B. The amount of force that is put on an
hazardly area
D. the particle volume accounts for most C. A measure of how fast the particles of
of the space in the container an object are moving.
91. A container of gas is at a pressure of 1.3 D. none of above
x 105 Pa and a volume of 10.0 m3. How
much work is done by the gas if it expands 96. What is the variable for this number 32oC
at constant pressure to twice its initial vol-
ume? W = P * V A. P
A. 1.3 x 104 J B. T
B. 7.8 x 105 J C. n
C. 1.3 x 106 J
D. V
D. 1.3 x 105 J
92. The number of degrees of freedom of 97. Nine particles have speeds of 5.00, 8.00,
monoatomic gas is: 12.0, 12.0, 12.0, 14.0, 14.0, 17.0, and
20.0 m/s.What is the rms speed?
A. 3
B. 4 A. 9.35 m/s
C. 5 B. 13.3 m/s
D. 6 C. 12.3 m/s
93. What is it called when a solid turns directly D. 14.7 m/s
into a gas?
A. Sublimation 98. A graph that shows that the pressure of a
B. Condensation gas varies inversely with its volume under
constant temperature demonstrates:
C. Liquid
D. none of above A. Boyle’s Law

94. Which of the following is not an assump- B. the Pressure Law

tion of the kinetic theory of gases? C. the Density Law
A. Gas molecules move with the same
D. Charles’s Law
speed, known as the r.m.s. speed
B. Gas molecules are in constant free ran- 99. HSO4-is an example of ion.
dom motion
C. Collisions between gas molecules are A. Monoatomic
perfectly elastic B. Diatomic
D. The size of a gas molecule is negligi-
C. Polyatomic
ble compared to the distance between gas
molecules D. none of above

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 1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 198

100. The gas left in a used aerosol can is at a A. 0.25 atm

pressure of 1.00 atm at 300 K. If the can B. 4.00 atm
is thrown into a fire, what is the internal
pressure of the gas when its temperature C. 8.00 atm
reaches 1200 K? D. 34.3 atm

1.12 Thermodynamic Relations

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. Two objects at different temperatures are B. convection
in contact. Which of the following happens C. radiation
to their thermal energy?
D. none of above
A. Their thermal energies remain the
same. 5. Hot tea in a cup is an example of
B. Thermal energy passes from the A. conduction
cooler object to the warmer object B. convection
C. Thermal energy passes from the C. radiation
warmer object to the cooler object.
D. none of above
D. Thermal energy passes back and forth
equally between the two objects. 6. Which of these is NOT a part of the Kinetic
Molecular Theory (KMT)?
2. Two vessels contain two ideal gases A and
B at the same temperature, the pressure A. particles are always moving.
of A being twice that of B. Under such con- B. particles collide and bounce off each
ditions, the density of A is found to be 1.5 other and the sides of their container.
times the density of B. The ratio of molec- C. particles are attracted to each other
ular weight of A and B is like magnets.
A. 2/3 D. particles move faster at higher temper-
B. 3/4 atures.
C. 2 7. If a sample of water require 2980 J of en-
D. 1/2 ergy to vaporize, what was the mass of
the sample?
3. A baseball held by a pitcher has en-
A. 8.9
ergy.
B. 334000J
A. Kinetic
C. 1.32g
B. Chemical
D. 6734800g
C. Potential
D. Thermal 8. During phase change does not change.
A. pressure
4. When the transfer of energy happens by
, there is no conductive medium (such B. temperature
as in space). C. work
A. conduction D. volume

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 199

9. Which is an example of an open system. 14. Which of the following definitions best
matches the meaning of Conduction?
A. Cooking rice with a rice cooker

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A. The thermal energy required to change
B. Water bottle the temperature of 1kilogram of a sub-
C. A mug of hot coffee in the morning stance by 1 ◦ C
D. Refrigerator B. The transfer of thermal energy in the
form of electromagnetic waves
10. In a closed thermodynamic system, C. The process by which heat (or electric-
A. The transfer of energy take place but ity) is directly transmitted through a sub-
the transfer of temperature or mass does stance (result of collisions between parti-
not take place cles of matter)

B. The transfer of both energy and tem- D. A form of thermal energy exchange
perature or mass take that is due to the physical movement of-
material
C. Cannot exchange both energy and
mass with its surroundings 15. What is an apparatus for measuring the
amount of heat involved in a chemical re-
D. none of above action or other process?
11. WHEN AN ARCHER BENDS A BOW, WHAT A. A cAlOrImEtEr
TYPE OF ENERGY INCREASES IN THE B. a CaLoRiMeTeR
BOW? C. A calorimeter
A. GRAVITATIONAL D. a CALOrimeTER
B. ELASTIC
16. In this method of heat transfer heat is car-
C. KINETIC ried by a moving medium, like water or
air.
D. THERMAL
A. conduction
12. An ice cube feels cold in your hand because: B. convection
A. your hand is an insulator C. radiation
B. heat flows from your hand to the ice D. insulation
cube
17. Identify and explain the different types of
C. cold flows from the ice cube to your heat transfer (convection, conduction, ra-
hand diation) occurring in the following scenario.
D. there is friction between your hand Chris went on a camping trip. During the
and the ice cube day it was so hot that he got sunburn.
When it was time to go to his campsite,
13. Internal Energy of an ideal gas depends on he noticed smoke in the air. His father
had started a fire and he felt the heat as
A. Temperature he walked by. In the morning while his
B. pressure mother was cooking breakfast he acciden-
tally touched a hot pan and got burned. Al-
C. volume
though this was the case he still had a lot
D. None of these of fun on the trip.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 200

A. Sunburn = radiation;Smoke rising 22. A gas at 20Pa expands a container from

= convection;Feeling fire = radia- 10m3 to 20m3. How much work is done
tion;Touching hot pan = convection by the gas?
B. Sunburn = radiation;Smoke rising A. -400 J
= conduction;Feeling fire = radia- B. 350 J
tion;Touching hot pan = conduction
C. 600 kJ
C. Sunburn = radiation;Smoke rising
= convection;Feeling fire = radia- D. -200 J

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion;Touching hot pan = conduction
23. Which one of the following best describes
D. none of above the Potential energy?
A. Energy associated with the net linear
18. Which is not part of metabolism?
or angular velocity of the system.
A. Cellular Respiration
B. Energy associated with the structure
B. Photosynthesis and motion of molecules within the sys-
C. Resting tem.
C. Energy associated with the position of
D. Muscle Contractions
the system within a potential field.
19. If two objects have different temperatures D. Energy transferred between a sys-
when they come in contact, heat will flow tem and the surroundings under constant
from the warmer object to the cooler one pressure.
UNTIL
24. The specific heat capacity for water is
A. one reaches a temperature of zero
A. .1
B. they both have an equal temperature
B. 100
C. one runs out of energy
C. 10
D. none of above
D. 1
20. Scientists use the terms absolute zero to
25. Work is when work is done ON the
describe a system that has no energy.
system BY the surroundings
A. kinetic
A. Positive
B. potential B. Negative
C. nervous C. Neutral
D. chemical D. none of above
21. A process that absorbs heat is an pro- 26. Boyle’s Law shows the relationship be-
cess tween which two factors of a gas?
A. Endothermic A. volume and pressure
B. Exothermic B. temperature and pressure
C. Polythermic C. pressure and temperature
D. Ectothermic D. Volume and mass

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 201

27. A beach ball on the beach (where the pres- 32. What is Entropy?
sure is 1.00 atm) has a volume of 1.0 L. A. The amount of Heat in a system
If the beach ball is submerged underwa-

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ter where the pressure doubles, what will B. The amount of Order in a system
happen to its volume? C. The amount of Energy in a system
A. It will be shrink to half its size. D. The amount of Energy absorbed in a
system
B. It will double in size (and likely pop!).
C. It will stay the same. 33. Thermodynamics deals with the relation-
ships between and other forms of en-
D. It will shrink to 1/4 it’s current size.
ergy
28. The property of a working substance A. Heat
which increases or decreases as the heat
B. Biomolecules
is supplied or removed in a reversible man-
ner is known as C. Electrons
A. enthalpy D. Organelles
B. Internal energy 34. When an object is cooled, its molecules
C. Entropy slow down and move closer together,
causing the object to
D. external energy.
A. shrink or contract
29. The absorptive power of a perfectly black B. expand or move apart
body is
C. squeeze into a solid
A. greater than one
D. become a gas
B. equal to one
35. Energy is released from ATP when
C. less than one
A. a phosphate group is added
D. zero
B. adenine bonds to ribose
30. The 0th Law of Thermodynamics states C. ATP is exposed to sunlight
D. a phosphate group is removed
A. Heat flows from hot to cold objects.
36. q stands for which variable
B. The universe tends toward disorder
A. heat
C. Absolute zero is the temperature
where particles stop moving B. mass
D. Heat does not flow between objects C. specific heat
with the same temperature D. change in temperature
31. Thermometers work because liquids 37. Two identical blocks of iron, one at 10 de-
when heated. grees C and the other at 20 degrees C, are
A. turn red put in contact. Suppose the cooler block
cools to 5 degrees C and the warmer block
B. shrink warms to 25 degrees C. This would violate
C. expand the
D. evaporate A. first law of thermodynamics.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 202

B. second law of thermodynamics. B. Phosphate group

C. both of the above C. Nitrogenous Base
D. none of the above D. Ribose

38. Value of gamma (cp/cv) for monaotomic 44. Which of the following definitions best
gas is match the meaning of Radiation?
A. 1.44 A. A thermodynamic quantity equivalent
to the total heat content of a system

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 1.67
C. 2.09 B. A form of thermal energy exchange
that is due to the physical movement of-
D. 1.34 material
39. In a reversible adiabatic process, entropy C. A measure of the amount of disorder
in a system
A. increases
D. The transfer of thermal energy in the
B. decreases
form of electromagnetic waves
C. remains unchanged
45. How many joules of heat are required to
D. none of these
raise the temperature of 20.0 grams of
40. According to Prevost theory of exchange water from 30.0◦ C to 40.0◦ C?
A. all bodies radiate heat at all tempera- A. 42 kj
ture B. 84 kj
B. only metals can radiate heat C. 420 kj
C. only hot bodies radiate heat D. 840kj
D. only black bodies radiate heat
46. Students in a science class performed an
41. The study of heat changes that accompany experiment with hot and cold water. They
chemical reactions and phase changes dyed the hot water red and the cold water
blue. When the students layered the wa-
A. Calorie
ter, they noticed that the hot water rose
B. Entropy to the top and the cold water sank. What
C. Thermochemistry was this demonstrating?
D. Spontaneous Reaction A. Radiation
B. Air Pressure
42. Define Endothermic:
C. Evaporation
A. When energy is released
D. Density
B. When energy is absorbed
C. When energy is more ordered 47. The high reservoir is in 100 degree celcius,
and the low reservoir is in 10 degree cel-
D. When energy is more disordered cius. The efficiency of this carnot engine is
43. Which of the following is components can
transform ADP to ATP? A. 75, 9%
A. Adenosine B. 24, 1%

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 203

C. 90% 53. In ATP where is the energy stored?

D. 10% A. Between the adenine and ribose bonds

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B. Between the 2nd and 3rd bond in the
48. At what temperature does water freeze in
phosphate
degrees Fahrenheit?
A. 212 degrees C. Between the the adenine and phos-
phate bonds
B. 100 degrees
D. In the glucose bonds of the carbon
C. 32 degrees
D. 0 degrees 54. The mass of one mole of substance is called

49. Thermal energy is the of the particles A. molecular mass

in a system.
B. mole constant
A. average kinetic energy
C. molar mass
B. temperature
D. atomic weight
C. total energy
D. potential energy 55. J of heat are added to a sample of gas
while the gas does 400 J of work on the
50. What is the relationship between temper- environment. What is the change in inter-
ature and pressure? nal energy of the gas?
A. Inverse A. 800 J
B. direct B. 1600 J
C. inverse squared C. -800 J
D. exponential D. -1600 J

51. The amount of heat energy required to 56. Does a baseball have kinetic energy right
raise the temperature of 1 g of helium at after it has been pitched?
NTP, from T1K to T2K is A. No, because it is not living.
A. 3/8 NaKB (T2-T1) B. Yes, because friction heats the ball.
B. 3/2 NaKB (T2-T1) C. Yes, because it is moving.
C. 3/4 NaKB (T2-T1) D. No, because it is not large enough to
D. 3/4 NaKB (T2 / T1) have energy.

52. First law of thermodynamics, also known 57. a property which is independent of the
as mass, size or extent of the system
A. law of conservation of energy A. Extensive Property
B. law of conservation of entropy B. Intensive Property
C. law of conservation of studies C. Derived Property
D. All of the above D. Mathematical Property

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 204

58. Which statement is true about the EN- 63. Which force is responsible for pulling ob-
TROPY? jects downward?
A. Entropy refers to the disorder of the A. air resistance
unusable energy that escapes a system. B. gravity
B. Entropy refers to the balance of tem- C. friction
perature among two or more systems.
D. inertia
C. Entropy refers to the average kinetic

NARAYAN CHANGDER
energy of the molecules. 64. The first law of thermodynamics states
that
D. Entropy refers to the inability to de-
stroy or create energy. A. Energy spontaneously spreads from
regions of higher concentration to regions
59. The of a gas describes the amount of of lower concentrations
space it takes up.
B. If mechanical energy is constant, the
A. temperature increase in thermal energy equals the
B. pressure sum of thermal energy transfers and the
work being done
C. volume
C. Heat the system
D. moles
D. Do work on the system
60. When both materials are at the same tem-
65. Buoyant force is equal to
perature, it is called
A. weight of the object
A. thermal neutrality
B. weight of the liquid displaced
B. thermal equilibrium
C. weight of pontoon
C. heat constant
D. weight of passengers
D. heat balance
66. Calculate the amount of energy needed to
61. Which of the following is not the equation convert 250. g of ice at 0 ◦ C to water at
for adiabatic process 100.◦ C.
A. TV γ −1 = C A. 833, 000 J
B. PV γ = Constant B. 104, 500 J
C. PV = Constant C. 782, 000 J
D. P1−γ T γ = C. = constant. D. 251, 000 J
62. Charles’s Law 67. A bimetallic strip is made up of welded
A. Volume increases, temperature de- together.
creases A. two metals of the same kind
B. Volume increases, temperature in- B. two different metals that expand and
creases contract unequally
C. Volume decreases, temperature in- C. two different metals that expand and
creases contract equally
D. none of above D. none of above

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 205

68. Heat will never flow from a cold object to a B. You decreased potential energy, and
hot object on its own describes which law increased kinetic energy
of thermodynamics? C. You just increased potential energy

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A. 1st Law of thermodynamics D. You just increased kinetic energy
B. 2nd Law of thermodynamics
74. What is the quantity of heat needed to
C. 3rd Law of thermodynamics change the temperature of 1 g of a sub-
D. 4th Law of thermodynamics stance by 1oC?
A. joule
69. What is the name of the law that explains
“When two systems are in thermal equilib- B. enthalpy
rium with a third system, then they are in C. calorimeter
thermal equilibrium with each other.” D. specific heat?
A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics 75. Heat of fusion is for which phase changes?
B. First Law of Thermodynamics You may select more than one answer.
C. Second Law of Thermodynamics A. condensation
D. Newton’s 2nd law of motion B. melting
C. freezing
70. What is the relationship between kinetic
energy and speed D. evaporation
A. They are directly proportional 76. Gravitational potential energy depends on
B. There is no relationship the and of the object.

C. They are indirectly proportional A. Height and mass

B. Friction and movement
D. They are brother and sister
C. Mass and Movement
71. Identify the intensive quantity from the D. Height and Friction
following?
A. Enthalpy and Temperature 77. How much energy must be used to produce
4.75 mol of gaseous water? H2O (l) +
B. Volume and Temperature 44.0 kJ → H2O (g)
C. Enthalpy and volume A. 209 kJ
D. Temperature and refractive index B. 9.36 kJ
72. What are the units on “c”? C. 209.0 kJ
A. K D. 9.362 kJ

B. J 78. Explain the difference between conduction

and convection.
C. g
A. Conduction involves heat going in all di-
D. J/gK
rections while heat rises with convection.
73. When your roller coaster cart was lifted to B. Heat moves in all directions for convec-
the top of the track tion, but it rises for conduction.
A. You increased potential energy, and in- C. Heat rises for convection and travels
creased kinetic energy thru liquids and gases. Conduction travels

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 206

thru solids and liquids but must be touch- B. 1st law of thermodynamics
ing. C. 2nd law of thermodynamics
D. Thermal energy travels thru solids for D. 3rd law of thermodynamics
both conduction and convection; however,
conduction involves direct contact. 84. The enthalpy change per degree rise of
temperature
79. Energy can never be created nor destroyed.
Which law does this refer to? A. Heat capacity at constant volume

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 0th law of thermodynamics B. heat capacity at constant pressure

B. 1st law of thermodynamics C. heat capacity at constant temperature

C. 2nd law of thermodynamics D. all the above

D. 3rd law of thermodynamics 85. Thermal energy is measured in

A. calories
80. A washing machine turns electrical energy
into B. degrees
A. Light energy C. feet
B. Chemical energy D. centimeters
C. Mechanical energy 86. The entropy for irreversible process is al-
D. none of above ways
A. Increases
81. For which of these processes is the value
of ∆S expected to be negative? I. NaCl B. Decreases
is dissolved in water.II. Steam condenses C. Zero
to liquid water.III. MgCO3 is decomposed
D. Remains constant
into MgO and CO2 .
A. I only 87. What form of energy do plants use to
make sugar in the photosynthetic pro-
B. I and III only
cess?
C. II only
A. heat energy
D. II and III only
B. chemical energy
82. Physicists have recently created the C. solar energy
state of matter that has a small group of
D. kinetic energy
atoms with nearly all of the kinetic energy
taken out of the system. 88. Which of the following statements de-
A. None of these answers are correct scribes the relationship between thermal
energy and an exothermic reaction?
B. Bose-Einstein
A. Thermal energy is being absorbed by
C. Einstein the reaction
D. Bose B. Thermal energy is being released by
83. The entropy of the universe is always in- the reaction
creasing. Which law does this refer to? C. thermal energy remains the same
A. 0th law of thermodynamics D. none of above

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 207

89. What do you call the amount that an object 94. When plants convert the sun’s energy into
resists a change in its temperature? food, which type of energy does the sun
energy become?

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A. Calorimetry
B. Latent Heat A. kinetic
C. Latent Heat of Fusion B. chemical
D. Specific Heat Capacity C. thermal

90. Why do solids and liquids make better con- D. none of above
ductors than gases?
95. energy in endothermic reactions are
A. Collisions occur more frequently be-
tween particles of solids and liquids. A. released
B. Collisions occur more frequently be- B. ended
tween particles of gases. C. absorbed
C. Collisions do not occur between parti-
D. none of above
cles of solids and liquids.
D. Gases convert more thermal energy 96. How is the speed of molecules of gas re-
into electrical energy. lated to the temperature?

91. The amount of heat required to raise the A. They have a quadratic relationship
temperature of 1g of something by 1 C, is B. They are inversely proportional
called what?
C. They have a linear relationship
A. Latent Heat
D. They are directly proportional
B. Specific Heat
C. Heat of Formation 97. A fixed mass of an ideal gas is heated from
D. Heat of Fusion 50 to80oC at a constant pressure of (a) 1
atm and (b) 3 atm. Forwhich case do you
92. The first law of thermodynamics is a re- think the energy required will be greater?
statement of the A. 1 atm
A. zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. 3 atm
B. law of heat addition
C. both are the same
C. principle of entropy
D. none of above
D. conservation of energy
98. Thermal energy will transfer between ob-
93. Michael is cooking an egg in a pan on a
jects at different temperatures until
stove top. What is the main method of
heat transfer between the pan and the A. the cooler object becomes the warmer
egg? object.
A. conduction B. the warmer object is cold.
B. convection C. both objects are the same tempera-
C. radiation ture.
D. none of above D. neither object has thermal energy.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 208

99. Disorder is more likely than order. Ev- 103. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN
erything trends towards randomness and EXAMPLE OF POTENTIAL ENERGY?
chaos. Which law does this refer to?
A. A BALL TRAVELING AT 10 M/S
A. 0th law of thermodynamics
B. A COMPRESSED SPRING
B. 1st law of thermodynamics
C. WATER BEING STORED AT A WATER
C. 2nd law of thermodynamics DAM
D. 3rd law of thermodynamics D. A STRETCHED RUBBER BAND

NARAYAN CHANGDER
100. The endothermic process among the fol- 104. According to the Law of Conservation of
lowing is Energy, energy cannot be or
A. Natural gas is combusted in a Bunsen A. destroyed, destroyed
burner.
B. created, saved
B. Water vapor condenses on the outside
of a glass of iced tea. C. created, destroyed

C. A cop of hot water cools as a tea bag D. lost, found

brews.
105. Which of these represents a measure-
D. An ice cube melts on a countertop. ment of volume?

101. Which of the following terms describes a A. 0.01 atm

transfer of energy because of a difference B. 8.21 L
in their temperature or because one object
is undergoing a phase change? C. 122 K

A. Heat D. 6.2 mol

B. Internal Energy 106. Which of the following variables controls

C. Kinetic Energy the physical properties of a perfect gas

D. Temperature A. pressure
B. temperature
102. On observing light from three different
stars P, Q and R, it was found that in- C. volume
tensity of violet colour is maximum in the D. all of the above
spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour
is maximum in the spectrum R and the in- 107. The idea behind thermal expansion is that
tensity of red colour is maximum in the gases expand as the temperature
spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and TR are the
A. decreases
respective absolute temperatures of P, Q
and R, then it concluded from the above B. increases
observation that C. stays the same
A. TP > TQ > TR D. none of above
B. TP > TR > TQ
108. You have a gas that has a temperature of
C. TP < TR < TQ 200 K and a volume of 10 L. What would
D. TP < TQ < TR be the new volume if the temperature was

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 209

changed to 100 K? (Assume constant pres- B. inverse relationship

sure). *Note, you should be able to an- C. scattered relationship
swer this conceptually, and don’t need any

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equations D. long distance relationship
A. 5 L 114. d (nG) = (nV ) dP − (nS) dT applica-
B. 20 L ble for?
C. It would stay at 10L A. open system
D. 1 L B. closed system

109. Which process is exothermic and occurs C. multi phase

with a decrease in entropy? D. single phase
A. H2 O (l) → H2 O (s)
115. WHAT ANOTHER NAME FOR THERMAL
B. H2 O (l) → H2 O (g) ENERGY?
C. H2 O (s) → H2 O (g) A. HEAT ENERGY
D. 2H2 O (l) → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) B. ITS SIZE
110. Burning your hand on a hot pan C. ITS POTENTIAL ENERGY
A. Conduction D. ITS MECHANICAL ENERGY
B. Convection
116. The greater the average kinetic energy of
C. Radiation the particles in a sample of matter
D. none of above A. the more energy is absorbed by the
sample in the form of heat.
111. The use of fiberglass insulation in the
outer walls of a building is intended to B. the less energy is released by the
minimize heat transfer through what pro- smaple in the form of heat.
cess? C. the lower the temperature is.
A. Conduction D. the higher the temperature is.
B. Convection
117. If temperature increases volume will
C. Radiation
A. increase
D. Vaporization
B. decrease
112. The physics of the refrigerator closely re-
sembles the C. stay the same

A. Ice formation D. none of above

B. Heat engine 118. When you use a microwave, what is the
C. Vapour compression machin main way that heat is transferred?
D. vaporization of water A. Convection
B. Conduction
113. The relationship between temperature
and volume is a: C. Radiation
A. direct relationship D. insulation.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 210

119. What is the symbol for specific heat B. 20%

A. J/kgK C. 40%
B. Q D. 50%
C. C
125. With which unit is heat measured?
D. none of above
A. Joule (J)
120. Which of the following is correct?
B. Celsius (C)

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure
C. Fahrenheit (F)
+ atmospheric pressure
B. Gauge pressure = absolute pressure D. Kelvin (K)
+ atmospheric pressure
126. The transfer of thermal energy by colli-
C. Atmospheric pressure = absolute sion of particles that make up matter is
pressure + gauge pressure
A. Conduction
D. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure-
atmospheric pressure B. Convection
C. Radiation
121. If you increase the pressure of a constant
volume of gas, what will happen to the D. Thermal Insulation
temperature?
127. Heat is absorbed through the sun by
A. Increase
A. convection
B. Decrease
B. radiation
C. Stay the same
C. conduction
D. It will Blow Up
D. air currents
122. Triple point of water is
A. 273 K 128. What is true about entropy
B. 100 K A. If it increases in one place, it MUST de-
crease elsewhere
C. 0 K
B. If it decreases in one place, it MUST
D. 273.16 K
increase elsewhere
123. The normal body temperature of healthy C. It must decrease in the universe
person is
D. It must stay constant in the universe
A. 96.8◦ F
B. 98.6◦ F 129. specific latent heat of vaporisation is
C. 100.4◦ F A. the amount of heat required to change
D. 102.2◦ F 1 kg of the substance from the solid to liq-
uid phase without change in temperature
124. A carnot engine operates between 227o B. the amount of heat required to change
C and 127o C. The efficiency of the engine 1 kg of the substance from the liquid to
is gaseous phase without change in temper-
A. 10% ature

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 211

C. the amount of heat required to change 134. If a hairspray can is heated, what can be
the temperature 1 kg of the substance by expected of the pressure of the gas inside
1 degree Celcius the can?

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D. none of above A. The pressure will increase
B. The pressure will decrease
130. The two forces that drive chemical change
are C. The pressure will remain constant
A. enthalpy and free energy D. The pressure will equalize
B. enthalpy and entropy 135. Which concept does the first law of ther-
C. entropy and free energy modynamics describe?
D. none of above A. conservation of mass
B. conservation of energy
131. Heat is the thermal energy transported
from one system to another because of a C. work-heat equivalence
temperature D. conservation of momentum
A. quotient 136. A carnot engine whose low temperature
B. products reservoir is in 7 degree Celcius has an ef-
ficiency of 50%. It is desired to increase
C. similarities
the efficiency to 70%. By how many de-
D. differences grees the temperature of high temperature
reservoir be increased?
132. Which of the following definitions best
matches the meaning of Specific Heat Ca- A. 933.3 K
pacity? B. 373, 3 K
A. The transfer of thermal energy in the C. 560 K
form of electromagnetic waves D. 280 K
B. A thermodynamic quantity equivalent
to the total heat content of a system 137. YOUR BODY OBTAINS ENERGY FROM
THE FOOD YOU EAT. WHAT IS THE FORM
C. The thermal energy required to OF ENERGY IN FOOD?
change the temperature of 1kilogram of a
substance by 1 ◦ C A. KINETIC

D. A form of thermal energy exchange B. ELASTIC

that is due to the physical movement of- C. GRAVITATIONAL
material D. CHEMICAL
133. A thermodynamic system is taken 138. How do we show pressure in a particu-
through the cycle ABCD as shown in fig- late model?
ure. Heat rejected by the gas during the
A. We draw different size arrows.
cycle is
B. We draw different amounts of parti-
A. 2 pV
cles.
B. 4 pV C. We label the drawing with
C. 1/2 pV low/high/same pressure.
D. pV D. We draw different size containers.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 212

139. The preferred direction in nature is to- 143. In the given (V-T) diagram, what is the
ward relation between pressures p1 and p2?
A. maximum entropy A. p2 = p1
B. minimum entropy B. p2 > p1
C. zero entropy C. p2 < p1
D. none of above D. Cannot be predicted

NARAYAN CHANGDER
140. The liquid in the thermometer rises when 144. a. Energy stored in the nucleus of an
it is placed in the hot water because atom.
A. Sound Energy
A. it gains heat from the hot water and
expands. B. Potential Energy
B. loses heat from the hot water and con- C. Nuclear Energy
tracts. D. Thermal energy
C. the surrounding air is too warm.
145. Which of the equations below is an ex-
D. the liquid is boiling. ample of a thermochemical equation?
A. Mg + 2H3O+ + Cl-→ Mg2+ + 2Cl-
141. Which of the following definition best
+ H2 + H20→
matches the meaning of Enthalpy?
B. 2H2(g) + 2O2(g) → H2O(g)
A. A measure of the amount of disorder
in a system C. Mg(s) + 2H3O+(aq) + Cl-(aq) →
Mg2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq) + H2(g) + H20(l)
B. The transfer of thermal energy in the
form of electromagnetic waves D. 2H2(g) + 2O2(g) → H2O(g) + 483.6
kJ
C. The thermal energy required to
change the temperature of 1kilogram of a 146. Which scientific principle states that en-
substance by 1 ◦ C ergy spontaneously spreads from more
D. A thermodynamic quantity equivalent concentrated regions to less concentrated
to the total heat content of a system regions?
A. Second Law of Thermodynamics
142. Two students of equal weight go from the
B. First Law of Thermodynamics
first floor to the second floor. The first
student uses an elevator and the second C. Law of Conservation of Energy
student walks up a flight of stairs. Com- D. Law of Heat and Work
pared to the gravitational potential energy
gained by the first student, the gravita- 147. In a commercial chemical cold pack, an in-
tional potential energy gained by the sec- ner pouch containing water is broken and
ond student is the water is allowed to mix with a sam-
ple of solid ammonium nitrate. The signs
A. less
of the values for ∆H and ∆S for the dis-
B. greater sociation reaction must be, respectively
C. the same A. Positive, positive
D. none of above B. Positive, negative

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 213

C. Negative, positive C. Halfway down the hill

D. Negative, negative D. none of above

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148. An ideal gas is compressed to half its 153. In the ideal gas law, what does the vari-
initial volume by means of several pro- able n represent?
cess.Which of the process results in the A. gas constant
maximum work done on the gas?
B. moles
A. Adiabatic C. Temperature
B. Isobaric D. Volume
C. Isochoric
154. In an isothermal process
D. Isothermal
A. Delta U=0
149. Which energy transfer method is due B. Q=0
to the differences in density between ob-
C. T=0
jects?
D. none of these
A. Conduction
B. Convection 155. A gas in a steel container has a pressure
of 10 atm. If its temperature was cut in
C. Radiation half, what will happen to this pressure?
D. none of above A. It will also be cut in half.
150. What does the first law of thermodynam- B. It will be cut in third.
ics state? C. It will double.
A. Energy is created and convert. D. It will quadruple.
B. Energy can be converted but can’t be 156. What is the specific heat of an un-
destroyed known substance if 100.0 g of it at 200.0
◦ C reaches an equilibrium temperature of
C. Energy can’t be converted but can’t be
destroyed 27.1 ◦ C when it comes in contact with a
calorimeter of water. The water weighs
D. Energy energy can be created and de-
75. g and had an initial temperature of
stroyed.
20.00 ◦ C? (Specific heat of water is 4.18
151. The energy transferred between objects J/g◦ C) (show your work)
at different temperatures A. 0.111 J/g◦ C
A. Thermal energy B. 1.29 J/g◦ C
B. Heat C. 0.129 J/g◦ C
C. Temperature D. 22225.85 J
D. none of above 157. Heat from rubbing thing together
152. Where is kinetic and potential energy A. friction
even on a roller coaster? B. chemical
A. At the bottom of a hill C. potential
B. At the top of a hill D. kinetic

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 214

158. If a chemical reaction is EXOTHERMIC, 163. Zara is warming a pot of soup on the
the temperature would stove. How is the motion of the particles
in the soup different after the temperature
A. Stay the same
of the soup increases?
B. Increase
A. They move faster on average.
C. Decrease
B. They have less average energy.
D. none of above
C. They move less freely.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
159. refers to the condition of a system as D. They vibrate and are close together
described or defined by its properties.
164. If they energy required to break the
A. Process bonds is less than the energy given out by
B. State making new bonds the reaction is
C. Cycle A. Exothermic
D. Equilibrium B. Endothermic
C. Neutralisation
160. The coefficient of performance of a refrig-
erator of a refrigerator is 5.If the temper- D. none of above
ature inside freezer is-20◦ C, the tempera-
165. Branch of physics that deals with heat,
ture of the surroundings to which it rejects
work, temperature, and energy. To trans-
heat is
fer of energy from one place to another
A. 31◦ C and from one form to another.
B. 41◦ C A. Mechanics
C. 11◦ C B. Thermodynamics
D. 21◦ C C. Friction

161. Stored energy that results from the posi- D. Heat Transfer
tion or shape of an object is called 166. Ice cubes keeping lemonade cold.
A. Thermal A. Conduction
B. Potential B. Convection
C. Kinetic C. Radiation
D. Gravitational D. none of above
162. Find the correct law related to “Energy 167. Specific heat of water is 4.18 J g-1 ◦ C-1.
can neither be created nor destroyed, but Specific heat of wood is 1.760 J g-1 ◦ C-1
it can be changed from one form to an- What material needs more heat energy to
other” raise the temperature?
A. Zeroth law A. Water
B. First law B. Wood
C. Second law C. Both are same
D. Third law D. none of above

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 215

168. Baguio City enjoys a cool temperate cli- ends conducts an amount of heat Q in time
mate typically 19.3 degrees centigrade. t. The metallic rod is melted and the mate-
Temperature dips to as low as 6 to 10 de- rial is formed into a rod of the radius of the

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grees in the cold months of December, Jan- original rod. What is the amount of heat
uary and February. This is due to its ele- conducted by the new rod when placed in
vation of 1, 500 meters above mean sea thermal contact with the two reservoirs in
level. Determine the atmospheric pressure time?
at that location.
A. Q/4
A. 101.325 kPa
B. Q/16
B. 92.85 kPa
C. 2Q
C. 84.55 kPa
D. Q/2
D. 77.65 kPa
173. On a roller coaster, where is maximum
169. What is the relation of the enthalpy to
kinetic energy?
the pressure at constant temperature in in-
compressible liquid and solid? A. At the bottom of a big hill
A. Direct proportional B. When going around a corner
B. Inversely proportional C. When going upside down
C. Weak D. At the top of a big hill
D. Strong
174. is the type of heat transfer that oc-
170. What is heat? curs in fluids, such as warm air rising and
A. the amount of thermal energy in an ob- cold air sinking; creating wind.
ject A. Convection
B. an object’s internal kinetic energy B. Conduction
C. the transfer of thermal energy from C. Radiation
one object to another
D. insulation.
D. the amount of energy needed to raise
the temp of an object 175. Entropy of the universe is
171. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated at 300 A. always zero.
K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate
B. always constant.
of heating is constant. Which one of the
following graphs represents the variation C. always increasing.
of temperature with time?
D. always decreasing.
A. 1 dia
B. 2 dia 176. FREEBIE! What school do you go to?

C. 3 dia A. Irondale High School

D. 4 dia B. Mounds View High School
C. Fridley High School
172. A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal con-
tact with two reservoirs of heat at its two D. Wayzata High School

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 216

177. On a roller coaster, where is maximum 181. What is the second law of thermaldynam-
potential energy? ics
A. At the bottom of a big hill A. law of energy
B. When going around a corner B. law of conservation of energy
C. When going upside down C. law of temperature
D. At the top of a big hill D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
178. Which of the following represents large 182. Which is a quality that only gasses dis-
amount of energy? play

A. Electron volt A. Spread out to fill all available space

B. Erg B. Take the shape of their container

C. Calorie C. Can’t be compressed

D. All of these
D. Joule
183. Thermodynamic processes are indi-
179. Latent heat is
cated in the following diagramMatch the
A. the heat absorbed or released at a boil- following:Column-I Column-IIP Process I a
ing process during a change of phase AdiabaticQ Process II b IsobaricR Process
III c IsochoricS. Process IV d Isothermal
B. the heat absorbed or released at a
constant temperature during a change of A. P → a, Q → c, R → d, S → b
phase B. P → c, Q → d, R → b, S → a
C. the heat absorbed or released at a C. P → c, Q → d, R → b, S → a
constant temperature during a change of
phase of 1 kg object D. P → d, Q → b, R → a, S → c

D. the heat absorbed or released by an 184. A gas is compressed isothermally to half

object to increase or decrease its temper- its initially volume. The same gas is com-
ature by 1 degree Celcius pressed separately through an adiabatic
process until its volume is again reduced
180. A small car is traveling at a speed of 60 to half. Then
mph on the highway. In the next lane,
A. compressing the gas through adia-
a large passenger bus is traveling at the
batic process will require more work to be
same speed. Which of the following is
done
true?
B. compressing the gas isothermally
A. The car and the bus have potential en-
or adiabatically will require the same
ergy, not kinetic energy.
amount of work
B. The car has more kinetic energy than
C. which of the case (whether compres-
bus.
sion through isothermal or through adia-
C. The car and bus have the same amount batic process) requires more work will de-
of kinetic energy. pend upon the atomicity of the gas
D. The bus has more kinetic energy than D. compressing the gas isothermally will
the car. require more work to be done

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 217

185. The temperature of 50.0 grams of water 190. The total energy of a system equals
was raised to 50.0◦ C by the addition of A. its heat and temperature
4200 joules of heat energy. What was

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the initial temperature of the water? B. its work and temperature
A. 10.0◦ C C. its heat and work
B. 20.0◦ C D. its heat
C. 30.0◦ C 191. The area where the temperature is lower
D. 60.0◦ C A. heat sink
186. Which situation best represents conduc- B. heat source
tion? C. heat shiloh
A. Heat from a campfire D. heat basin
B. A hot air balloon taking off
192. The state of a gas can be described by
C. Touching a hot piece of metal
quoting the relationship between
D. Getting sunburned
A. pressure, volume, temperature
187. Boyle’s Law B. temperature, amount, pressure
A. Volume decreases, pressure de- C. amount, volume, temperature
creases
D. pressure, volume, temperature,
B. Volume increases, pressure increases amount
C. Volume decreases, pressure in-
creases 193. How much heat must be absorbed by
2.30 kg of water to raise the temperature
D. none of above from 12.0 ◦ C to 55.0 ◦ C?
188. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be A. 185 J
increased by
B. 413, 000 J
A. increasing the highest temperature
C. 989, 000 J
B. decreasing the highest temperature
D. 1, 200, 000 J
C. increasing the lowest temperature
D. decreasing the lowest temperature 194. The amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 1g water by 1 degree C
E. Keeping the lowest temperature con-
stant A. Calorie
B. spontaneous reaction
189. Which of the following results in the stor-
age of energy in terms of the ATP/ADP C. Thermochemistry
cycle? D. Kinetic energy
A. The breaking of the bond between the
195. A process that releases heat is a(n)
5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate
group A. ectothermic process
B. The addition of a phosphate group B. exothermic process
C. The removal of a phosphate group C. endothermic process
D. The addition of glucose D. polythermic process

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 218

196. Two identical bodies are made of a mate- 201. Temperature is measured with a ther-
rial for which the heat capacity increases mometer which covert the readings into
with temperature. One of these is at degrees on a temperature scale (commonly
100◦ C, while the other one is at 0◦ C.If the Fahrenheit or Celsius). Which one of
two bodies are brought into contact, then the following best describes the tempera-
assuming no heat loss, the final common ture?
temperature is A. The higher the temperature, the faster
A. 50◦ C the particles (atoms/molecules) are mov-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing.
B. more than 50◦ C
B. Can transferred between substances
C. less than 50◦ C but greater than 0◦ C
or systems
D. 0◦ C C. A measure of hotness and coldness in
degrees
197. The heat of vaporization is
D. The unit is degree kelvin
A. 334 J
B. 334 J/g 202. How do you convert Celsius to Kelvin?
A. Add 273
C. 2260 J
B. Subtract 273
D. 2260 J/g
C. You can’t convert those
198. Warmth from the fireplace circulating D. They are the same thing
through the house.
203. Making heat by burning
A. Conduction
A. physical reaction
B. Convection
B. chemical reaction
C. Radiation
C. thermal reaction
D. none of above
D. kinetic reaction
199. Which of the following terms identifies
204. Intensive property of a system is one
the change from a liquid to gas?
whose value
A. Vaporization
A. depends on the mass of the system,
B. Condensation like volume
C. Deposition B. does not depend on the mass of the
system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
D. Sublimation
C. is not dependent on the path followed
200. In natural convection, water fluid floats but on the state
to the [blank] and cooler fluid moves to D. is dependent on the path followed and
the [blank]. not on the state
A. left ; bottom
205. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
B. bottom ; top
C. top ; bottom A. reversible engine
D. right ; left B. irreversible engine

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 219

C. petrol engine 211. What is Entropy a measurement of?

D. diesel engine A. Energy of a system

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206. A gauge connected to a chamber reads B. Change in energy in a chemical reac-
258.5 mmHg at a location where the at- tion
mospheric pressure is 14.7 psi. Determine
C. Temperature
the absolute pressure in the chamber (in
psi). D. Average particular energy in a system
A. 7.7 psi E. Disorder in a system
B. 8.7 psi
212. What letter do we use to represent
C. 9.7 psi
change in specific heat?
D. 10.7 psi
A. Q
207. Mayer’s says that
B. m
A. Cp / Cv + R
C. c
B. Cv = Cp + R
D. ∆T
C. Cp + Cv = R
D. Cp-Cv = R 213. A gas is taken through the cycle
A→B→C→A, as shown. What is the net
208. If you increase the pressure of a gas, work done by the gas/
what will happen to the temperature? (as-
sume volume is constant) A. 2000 J
A. Increase B. 1000 J
B. Decrease C. zero
C. Stay the same D. -2000 J
D. It will Blow Up
214. The faster an object moves, the ki-
209. What is a device used to measure the netic energy it has.
heat absorbed or released during a chemi-
cal or physical change? A. more
A. joule B. less
B. enthalpy C. none of the above
C. calorimeter D. all of the above
D. specific heat?
215. An engine expels 600 J of energy. What
210. An engine absorbs 600 J and is 30% ef- form of energy is this?
ficient. How much energy is expelled?
A. Work
A. 180 J
B. 420 J B. Heat

C. 2000 J C. Energy In
D. 1400 J D. All of these

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 220

216. Which of the following is not a major C. Third

form of energy for chemical purposes? D. This is not associated with the law of
A. exchange of heat with the surround- thermodynamics.
ings
221. A given sample of an ideal gas occupied
B. external work due to changes in pres- a volume V at a pressure p and absolute
sure or volume temperature T . The mass of each molecule
C. chemiluminescence of the gas is m. Which of the following

NARAYAN CHANGDER
gives the density of the gas?
D. none of above
A. p / (kT)
217. Whenever heat is added to a system, it
B. pm / (kT)
transforms to an equal amount of some
other form of energy describes which law C. p / (kTV)
of thermodynamics? D. mkT
A. 1st Law of thermodynamics
222. is defined as any quantity that de-
B. 2nd Law of thermodynamics pends on the state of the system and is
C. 3rd Law of thermodynamics independent of the path by which the sys-
tem arrived at the given state.
D. 4th Law of thermodynamics
A. Property
218. g of a gas occupies 22.4 L at NTP. The B. Process
specific heat capacity of the gas at con-
stant volume is 5.0 JK-1 mol-1. If the C. Cycle
speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952 D. Equilibrium
ms-1, then the heat capacity at constant
pressure is(Take gas constant R = 8.3 JK- 223. Particles of a liquid
1 mol-1) A. are tightly packed together and stay in
A. 8.0 JK-1 mol-1 a fixed position.

B. 7.5 JK-1 mol-1 B. have no viscosity.

C. 7.0 JK-1 mol-1 C. decrease in volume with increasing

temperature.
D. 8.5 JK-1 mol-1
D. are free to move around one another
219. Delta S >0 then reaction but still touch.
A. Non spontaneous 224. In all the phases of matter, molecules
B. Spontaneous move randomly with three different types
of motion:vibration, rotation and transla-
C. At equilibrium
tion. Which one of the following best de-
D. None of these scribes the arrangement of the molecules
or atom in the solid phase?
220. “Energy cannot be created nor de-
stroyed”, describes which law of thermo- A. They are very close together
dynamics? B. Separated by large distances
A. First C. They are much closer together
B. Second D. Random arrangement

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 221

225. An engine does 500 J of useful work and 230. According to Kelvin-Planck’s statement
it’s 50% efficient. How much energy does of second law of thermodynamics,
the engine absorb?

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A. it is impossible to construct an engine
A. 500 J working on a cyclic process, whose sole
purpose is to convert heat energy into
B. 250 J
work
C. 1000 J
B. it is possible to construct an engine
D. 400 J working on a cyclic process, whose sole
purpose is to convert heat energy into
226. A large house being heated by heater work
warms a house when the air is circulating.
C. it is impossible to construct a device
A. Convection which operates in a cyclic process and pro-
B. Conduction duces no effect other than the transfer of
heat from a cold body to a hot body
C. Radiation
D. none of the above
D. insulation.
231. What is the energy required to raise the
227. Calculate the amount of energy required temperature of 1 g of a substance by 1oC
to melt 35.0 grams of ice.(not in sig figs) or 1 K?
A. 10, 020 J A. specific heat
B. 12, 020 J B. heat energy
C. 11, 690 J C. enthalpy of formation

D. 12, 010 D. heat capacity

232. Which of the following is NOT a compo-

228. The two ends of a rod of length L and
nent of ATP?
a uniform cross-sectional area A are kept
at two temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2). A. Glucose
The rate of heat transfer, dQ /dt, through B. Adenosine
the rod in a steady state is given by
C. Phosphate
A. dQ /dt = KL(T1-T2) / A
D. Ribose
B. dQ /dt = KL(T1-T2) / LA
233. Part of universe which is chosen for ther-
C. dQ /dt = KLA(T1-T2) modynamic study is called
D. dQ /dt = KA(T1-T2) / L A. Surrounding

229. According to kinetic theory of gases, B. System

the absolute zero temperature is attained C. Boundary
when D. Both
A. When mass is zero
234. d law of thermodynamics
B. Kinetic Energy of gas molecules is zero
A. Every time energy changes form, some
C. Pressure of gas molecules is zero of it is lost to the environment
D. Volume of gas is zero B. Energy can’t be created or destroyed

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 222

C. All energy generates heat C. They are directly proportional

D. none of above D. They have a quadratic relationship

235. What is the formula is convert Celsius to 239. Roasting marshmallows over a fire.
Kelvin?
A. Conduction
A. K=C-273
B. Convection
B. K=C+273
C. Radiation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. K=C-100
D. none of above
D. K=C+100
240. The sum of the kinetic energy and the po-
236. If the pressure exerted by a gas at 25 de-
tential energy of all particles that make up
grees C in a volume of 0.044 L is 3.81 atm,
an object is
how many moles of gas are present?
A. .002766 mole A. Thermal Energy

B. .0069 mol B. Temperature

C. 2.766 mol C. Heat

D. 9.887 mol D. Specific Heat

237. A refrigerator removes a quantity of en- 241. Which of these variables is NOT in the
ergy as heat from inside the refrigerator formula describing the first law of thermo-
and transfers this energy to the air out- dynamics?
side the refrigerator. Which statement A. Change in Internal Energy
correctly describes how this is done?
B. Heat
A. Work is done on the system, so that
energy can be transferred as heat from C. Efficiency
a low temperature to a high temperature. D. Work
B. Work is done by the system, so that
energy can be transferred as heat from 242. is the thermal energy that is trans-
a low temperature to a high temperature. ferred from a material with a higher tem-
perature to one with a lower temperature.
C. Energy is transferred as heat sponta-
neously from the high temperature inside A. Work
the refrigerator to the low temperature B. Kinetic energy
outside.
C. Heat
D. Energy is transferred as heat sponta-
neously from the low temperature inside D. Potential energy
the refrigerator to the high temperature
outside. 243. The unit for specific heat
A. cal/gram degrees Celsius
238. How is the speed of molecules of gasses
related to the molar/atomic mass? B. degrees Celsius
A. They are inversely proportional C. Calories
B. They have a linear relationship D. none of above

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 223

244. Transfer of heat by means of electromag- 249. What is the SI unit of energy?
netic waves.
A. joule

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A. conduction
B. enthalpy
B. convection
C. calorimeter
C. radiation
D. specific heat?
D. insulation
245. On what principle does calorimetry de- 250. Calculate the degree of freedom if there
pend? are 2 components and 1 phase?

A. law of conservation of energy A. 2

B. law of enthalpy B. 4
C. Hess’s Law C. 3
D. law of multiple proportions D. 0
246. A submarine dives deep into the ocean 251. When a soccer ball is on a field, the
where the pressure of the water increases energy it has just before being kicked is
dramatically. What happens to the pres- called
sure of the gas (air) inside the submarine?
A. kinetic energy
A. Pressure increases
B. potential energy
B. Pressure decreases
C. Pressure stays the same C. mechanical energy

D. none of above D. chemical energy

247. The 2nd law of thermodynamics stated 252. If the pressure is below atmospheric, it
that the is designated as a vacuum. Which one of
A. Energy can neither be created nor be the following best describe the perfect vac-
destroyed, it can only be transferred from uum?
one form to another A. Atmospheric pressure is equal to zero
B. The entropy of any isolated system al- B. Absolute zero pressure
ways increases
C. Measure pressure relative to atmo-
C. If two thermodynamic systems are in spheric pressure
thermal equilibrium with a third system
separately are in thermal equilibrium with D. Absolute atmospheric pressure mea-
each other sures 101.3 KPa
D. the measurement of energy in a ther- 253. Which substance requires a lot of heat en-
modynamic system ergy to experience a change in tempera-
ture?
248. What is entropy measured of
A. tempature A. oil
B. dispersal of energy B. milk
C. specific heat C. water
D. none of above D. soda

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 224

254. Which of the following represents the 258. What is the change in internal energy of a
Second Law of Thermodynamics? gas whose temperature has not changed?
A. The amount of heat an object transfers A. 0 J
and the amount of work it performed will B. 1000 J
affect the change in thermal energy
C. depend on the heat added and work
B. Whenever there is an opportunity for done
energy dispersal, the energy will always
spread out. D. none of the above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Change in thermal energy is equal to 259. Which of the following is an example of
the heat that is added to the object minus Extensive property
the work being done.
A. temperature
D. Objects in contact with one another B. density
are in thermal equilibriumif they have the
same temperature. C. internal energy
D. surface tension
255. First law of thermodynamics furnishes
the relationship between 260. During an adiabatic process, the pressure
A. heat and work of a gas is found to be proportional to the
cube of its temperature. The ratio of Cp /
B. heat, work and properties of the sys- Cv for the gas is
tem
A. 4/3
C. various properties of the system vari-
ous B. 2

D. heat and internal energy. C. 5/3

D. 3/2
256. Heat energy radiated per second from
unit area of a perfectly black body for a 261. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6 When
given wavelength the Temperature of the sink is reduced by
62◦ C, its efficieny is doubled. Tempera-
A. is independent of temperature
ture of the source is
B. is proportional to the fourth power of
A. 124◦ C
its absolute temperature
B. 37◦ C
C. increase with the increases in temper-
ature C. 62◦ C
D. decreases with the increase in temper- D. 99◦ C
ature
262. Which of these BEST describes the rela-
257. describes how much energy is re- tionship between pressure and volume?
quired to raise an object’s temperature. A. A small space provides less room for
A. Conduction particles to move around, resulting in
more collisions and a higher pressure.
B. Convection
B. A large space provides less room for
C. Specific Heat particles to move around, resulting in
D. Radiation more collisions and a higher pressure.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 225

C. As pressure increases, volume also in- 268. Which of the following results in the re-
creases. lease of energy in terms of the ATP/ADP
cycle?

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D. A large space provides a lot of room for
particles to move around, so they move A. The breaking of the bond between the
faster. 5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate
group
263. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2
and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Ne- B. The addition of a phosphate group
glecting all vibrational modes, the internal C. The removal of a phosphate group
energy system is D. The addition of glucose
A. 4RT
269. Radiation is the energy carried by
B. 15RT waves (light)
C. 9RT A. micro
D. 11RT B. sound
264. How do gas molecules move? C. ocean
A. in an orderly fashion D. electromagnetic
B. constantly and randomly 270. What is the third law of thermodynamics
C. in straight line paths A. law of energy
D. in a circular motion B. law of conservation of energy

265. In what type of reaction do the products C. law of temperature

of the reaction always possess more po- D. none of above
tential energy than the reactants?
271. Which of the following would increase
A. redox the pressure on a system?
B. exothermic A. Increase the Temperature
C. spontaneous B. Pump in more gas
D. endothermic C. Decrease the volume
266. Total heat of a substance is also known D. All of these
as 272. What does a autotroph do?
A. internal energy A. Hunt for their food
B. entropy B. Makes their own food
C. thermal capacity C. Doesn’t go through photosynthesis
D. enthalpy D. Lacks mitochondria
267. What is the relationship between pres- 273. All of the followings are insulators ex-
sure and temperature? cept
A. Direct A. wood
B. Inverse B. plastic
C. No relationship C. copper
D. none of above D. foam

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 226

274. To determine the amount of energy as 279. States that an external pressure exerted
heat associated with the change taking on a confined fluid is transmitted uniformly
place in a calorimeter, the information that throughout its volume.
is not needed is the A. Boyle’s Law
A. specific heat of the calorimeter B. Pascal’s Law
B. specific heat of the water C. Newton’s Law
C. change in temperature of the water D. Joule’s Law

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. air temperature outside the calorime-
280. Which statement is true about radia-
ter.
tion?
275. A process that releases heat is an pro- A. Radiation is the transfer of heat
cess through electromagnetic waves
A. endothermic B. Radiation is the transfer of heat
B. exothermic through direct contact.
C. Radiation is more dangerous than con-
C. polythermic
duction.
D. ectothermic
D. Radiation is the transfer of heat
276. If there’s a decrease in pressure, there’s through liquids and gases
a decrease in
281. In the Kelvin temperature scale, O de-
A. volume grees K is the lowest temperature that an
B. direct relationship object can have, known as

C. inverse relationship A. volume of zero

B. negative temperatures
D. temperature
C. zero calories
277. The quantity of energy transferred as
D. abolute zero
heat during a temperature change be-
tween two species depends on the 282. According to the main postulate of kinetic
A. mass of the two materials involved in theory of gases there is
the temperature change. A. a large force of attraction between the
B. nature of the two materials involved in molecules
the temperature change. B. negligible force of attraction between
C. magnitude of the temperature change. the molecules

D. All of the above. C. a force of repulsion between the

molecule
278. If the temperature of a gas triples, the D. a force of attraction between the
volume of the gas will: molecules, if the molecules are heavier
A. also triple.
283. If external pressure is zero .the work
B. be cut in third. done will be
C. increase x9 A. Negative
D. be cut in 9th B. Positive

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 227

C. Zero 288. Efficiency of Carnot’s Engine does not de-

D. none of above pends upon

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A. Temperature of source
284. A tray filled with ice is removed from the
freezer. After a short period of time, the B. Temperature of sink
ice begins to melt. As the ice melts, it C. working substance
A. decreases in specific heat capacity D. none of the above
B. decreases in temperature 289. What law in thermodynamics is the re-
C. increases in temperature lationship between heat transfer, work is
D. increases in entropy done, and the change in internal energy of
a system.
285. Rebecca decides to roast a marshmallow A. 1st law
directly above the flame. What type of
heat transfer is this? B. 2nd law

A. conduction C. 3rd law

B. convection D. 4th law

C. radiation 290. What is the temperature in a chemical re-

D. none of above action?
A. it is the average potential energy of
286. A piece of metal is heated, then sub- the particles in a sample of matter
merged in cool water. Which statement
below describes what happens? B. it is the average kinetic energy of the
particles in a sample of matter
A. The temperature of the metal will in-
crease. C. it is the metric system measurement
for heat
B. The temperature of the water will in-
crease and the temperature of the metal D. it is the energy absorbed or released
will decrease. in a sealed container

C. The temperature of the water will in- 291. A system absorbs 100 J of heat and does
crease. 200 J of work on a piston. What is the
D. The temperature of the water will de- change in internal energy?
crease. A. -100 J

287. Two objects with different temperatures B. -300 J

are placed into a system. Which way will C. 100 J
heat flow naturally? D. 300 J
A. From the warmer object to the cooler
object. 292. An engine absorbs 600 J. What type of
energy is this?
B. From the cooler object to the warmer
object. A. Heat

C. From one object to the other regard- B. Work

less of temperature. C. Energy In
D. No flow will occur. D. All of these

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 228

293. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of 1 C. 1.23mm

/10 as heat engine, is used as a refriger- D. 1.37mm
ator. If the work done on the system is
10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from 298. Heat moves from one system to another
the reservoir at lower temperature is because of differences in the of the sys-
A. 1 J tems.
B. 90 J A. cost

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 99 J B. temperatures
D. 100 J C. altitude

294. Which variable is defined by how often D. color

and how hard particles are colliding?
299. All of the chemical reactions within a cell
A. volume are categorized as the cell’s
B. pressure A. Activation energy
C. temperature B. Energy
D. moles C. Metabolism
295. Which energy transfer method involves D. Ability to do work
molecular vibrations within solids?
300. During a phase change temperature
A. Conduction
A. increases
B. Convection
B. is unchanged
C. Radiation
C. decreases
D. none of above
D. Increases or decreases
296. Thermodynamics is a branch of physical
sciences that treats of various phenomena 301. For a given chemical reaction, if there is
of and the related properties of mat- no work done on or by the reaction, then
ter, especially the laws of transformation there must be a change in
of heat into other forms of energy and vice A. pressure
versa.
B. volume
A. state
C. Internal energy
B. heat
D. none of above
C. work
D. energy 302. Amount of heat required to raise the tem-
perature of 1 g of a substance by 1 degree
297. Calculate the change in length of a Celcius
100mm aluminium bar that has increased
A. Entropy
in temperature by 55◦ C. Take the coeffi-
cient of expansion to be 25 x 10-6 B. Spontaneous reaction
A. 0.258mm C. Specific Heat
B. 0.1375mm D. none of above

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 229

303. Which of the following represents the Ze- 307. What is a set of particles or interacting
roth Law of Thermodynamics? components that is considered a distinct
physical entity called?

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A. The amount of heat an object transfers
and the amount of work it performed will A. an engine
affect the change in thermal energy B. a system
B. That every object will remain at rest or
C. an environment
in uniform motion in a straight line unless
compelled to change its state by the action D. an ideal gas
of an external force
308. In a calorimeter, the energy content of a
C. Objects in contact with one another substance is calculated from measurement
are in thermal equilibriumif they have the of the temperature change in a known
same temperature. Nothing else matters. mass of
D. It is impossible to lower the temper- A. steel
ature of an object all theway to absolute
zero B. air
C. iron
304. A student decides to buy a new car and
remembers from physics class that heat en- D. water
gines have a thermal efficiency that can be
309. Wind turbines and windmills convert
calculated. He asks the car dealer for a
what energy to another?
car that has a high thermal efficiency rat-
ing. The dealer says he has a car that is A. Kinetic to electric
100% efficient. Which law of thermody- B. Gravitational potential to electric
namics best describes why the car cannot
be 100% efficient? C. Mechanical to potential

A. The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics D. Thermal to sound

B. The First Law of Thermodynamics 310. Eggs cooking in a frying pan.

C. The Second Law of Thermodynamics A. Conduction
D. The Third Law of Thermodynamics B. Convection
305. What is thermal energy C. Radiation
A. The sun D. none of above
B. The total amount of energy from the 311. For an adiabatic process, which of the fol-
movement of particles in matter lowing statements is correct?
C. The ability to do work A. Work, heat, and internal energy all un-
D. Some science thing dergo changes.

306. The heat of fusion is B. Work and heat balance each other, so
that there is no change in internal energy.
A. 334 J/g
C. No energy is transferred as heat; in-
B. 334 J ternal energy change is due to work.
C. 2260 J/g D. No work is done; internal energy
D. 2260 J change is due to heat.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 230

312. The thermodynamic process in which the 317. The temperature of a sample of water
temperature of the system remains con- changes from 10◦ C to 20◦ C when the wa-
stant is called ter absorbs 100 calories of heat. What is
A. isothermal the mass of the sample?
A. 1 g
B. adiabatic
B. 10 g
C. isomeric
C. 100 g
D. isobaric

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1000 g
313. The thermal conductivity of a material is
318. What is the first law of thermodynamics
large, it indicates that the material
A. Law of energy
A. transfers heat well
B. Law of conservation of energy
B. transfer heat poorly
C. Law of temperature
C. doesn’t transfer heat
D. none of above
D. none of above
319. What is the symbol for heat?
314. If the particles that make up an object be- A. H
gin to move quickly, their average kinetic B. Q
energy and the object’s temperature
C. T

A. increases, falls D. Z

B. increases, rises 320. In a heat engine, what is the relationship

between Qh, Qc and W
C. decreases, rises
A. W = Qh + Qc
D. decreases, falls
B. W = Qc-Qh
315. The term thermodynamics refers to the C. W = Qh-Qc
study of D. Q + Qh, + Qc = 0
A. only chemical changes.
321. A metal spoon placed in a cup of hot co-
B. energy changes. coa will become hot to the touch. This is
C. only physical changes. an example of
D. none of these. A. conduction
B. convection
316. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas under-
C. radiation
goes a transition from A to B along a path
AB as shown in the figure. The change in D. none of above
internal energy of the gas during the tran- 322. Charles’s law shows the relationship be-
sition is tween which two factors of a gas?
A. 20 kJ A. volume and temperature
B. -20 kJ B. volume and pressure
C. 20 J C. pressure and volume
D. -12 J D. volume and mass

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 231

323. You blow up a balloon and do not tie the C. 0. 42 x 103 J

end. When you let go the air flows out of D. 336 x 102 J
the balloon. Why?

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A. The balloon is doing work 328. is the path of succession of states
through which the system passes.
B. Energy is being concentrated
A. Property
C. Entropy is decreasing
B. State
D. Entropy is increasing
C. Process
324. Heat flows from to objects D. Cycle
A. cooler to warmer
329. Which of the following is an intensive
B. warmer to warmer property?
C. warmer to cooler A. temperature
D. cooler to cooler B. viscosity
325. If a chemical reaction is spontaneous, the C. density
total entropy of the chemical system and D. all of these
its surroundings
A. increases only if the reaction is 330. Entropy remains constant in
exothermic A. adiabatic process
B. increases only if the reaction is en- B. isothermal process
dothermic
C. isochoric process
C. always increases D. isolated process
D. none of above
331. Point out the wrong statement in relation
326. How many moles of chlorine gas would with enthalpy?
occupy a volume of 35.5 L at a pressure A. It is a state function
of 100.0 kPa and a temperature of 100.
◦ C? B. It is an intensive property
A. Ideal Gas Law C. It is independent of the path followed
for the change
B. Combined Gas Law
D. Its value depend on the amount of the
C. Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures substance in the system
D. Murphy’s Law
332. According to the second law of thermo-
327. Given that SHC of water is 4.20 x 103 J dynamics, which of the following must be
kg-1 K-1 and LH of vapourization is 336 true about the heat received by a heat en-
x 103 Jkg-1. Determine the quantity of gine operating in a complete cycle from a
heat needed to convert 0.1 kg of ice at 0◦ C high-temperature reservoir?
int o water vapour without any change in A. The heat can be completely converted
temperature into internal energy
A. 0 J B. The heat cannot be completely con-
B. 4.20 x 103 J verted to work

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 232

C. The heat equals the entropy increase 338. During an isothermal expansion, a con-
D. The heat must be completely con- fined ideal gas does-150 J of work against
verted to work its surroundings. This implies that
A. 300 J of heat has been added to the
333. A thermodynamic system undergoes
gas
cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure.
The work done by the system in the cycle B. no heat is transferred because the pro-
is cess is isotthermal

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. p0V0 C. 150 J of heat has been added to the
B. 2p0V0 gas
C. p0V0 / 2 D. 150 J of heat has been removed from
the gas
D. zero

334. Which of the following is true for a closed 339. Specific Heat is..
system? A. the temperature initial minus tempera-
A. mass entering = mass leaving ture final
B. mass does not enter or leave the sys- B. the amount of heat/energy required to
tem raise 1 gram of a substance by 1◦ C (or K)
C. mass entering can be more or less aka “C”
than the mass leaving C. the temperature final minus tempera-
D. none of the mentioned ture initial

335. What do all cells use as energy? D. the item in a system with given weight
in grams
A. Carbs
B. Protein 340. How does heat always transfer?
C. Fat A. from cold to hot
D. ATP B. from hot to cold
336. What is the internal energy of 3 moles of C. from liquid to solid
an ideal gas whose temperature is 30◦ C?
D. from gas to liquid
A. 1122 J
B. 11, 336 J 341. Which of the following is the correct
statement? ?
C. 0 J
D. 303 J A. All the reversible engines have the
same efficiency
337. All of the following are thermal conduc- B. All the reversible and irreversible en-
tors except gines have the same efficiency
A. wood
C. Irreversible engines have maximum
B. gold efficiency
C. aluminum D. All engines are designed as reversible
D. copper in order to obtain maximum efficiency

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 233

342. What is this main objectives of this chap- 347. The ideal thermodynamic cycle is called
ter? A. the Crovener cycle

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Deal with calculation of the change of B. the Carnot cycle
thermodynamic properties for single com-
ponent C. the Nitrogen cycle
B. Deal with mixture of chemical species D. the Somenoc cycle
involve the behavior of mixture 348. The specific heat of platinum is 0.133
C. Deal with pure species J/g◦ C . How much heat(Q) is released
D. Thermodynamic properties for one when a 10 g piece of platinum cools from
chemical species 100◦ C to 50◦ C?
A. 66.5 J
343. Define Exothermic:
B. 665 J
A. When energy is released
C. 0.0266 J
B. When energy is absorbed
D. 0.665 J
C. When energy is more ordered
D. When energy is more disordered 349. When the cart started rolling the energy
transformation was
344. What would likely happen if you were to
touch the flask in which an endothermic re- A. Potential to kinetic
action were occurring? B. Kinetic to potential
A. The flask would probably feel warmer C. No energy was transformed
than before the reaction started. D. Totally awesome dude!!!!!!
B. The flask would feel the same as be-
fore the reaction started. 350. When you measure the temperature of an
object, you are measuring
C. The flask would probably feel cooler
than before the reaction started. A. the average chemical energy of its par-
ticles
D. None of these.
B. the sum of its kinetic and potential en-
345. The electrical units of power are watts ergies
(W) or kilowatts (kW) and, like energy,
C. the average kinetic energy of its parti-
the units are equivalent. Which one of the
cles
following is NOT the unit of power?
D. the specific heat of the object
A. Horse power
B. Ft-lb/sec 351. The law of conservation of energy de-
scribes how the amount of total energy
C. BTU/hr
can change in a closed system. Which of
D. Dyne/hr these statements correctly describes this
law?
346. is the ability to do work.
A. Employment A. The amount of kinetic energy in a sys-
tem is a constant value.
B. Energy
B. Energy can be converted from one
C. Capability form into another, but it cannot be created
D. Activation or destroyed.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 234

C. An object can have potential energy or 356. At what temperature does water boil in
kinetic energy, but not both at the same degrees Fahrenheit?
time. A. 32 degrees
D. The amount of energy created when an B. 68 degrees
object moves is equal to the energy de-
C. 98.6 degrees
stroyed when it stops moving.
D. 212 degrees
352. While running your kinetic energy con-
357. In a free expansion process

NARAYAN CHANGDER
verts to thermal energy. Which law does
this refer to? A. work done is zero
A. 0th law of thermodynamics B. heat transfer is zero
B. 1st law of thermodynamics C. both (a) and (b) above
C. 2nd law of thermodynamics D. work done is zero but heat increases
D. 3rd law of thermodynamics 358. The energy transferred between samples
of matter because of a difference in their
353. Transfer of heat by contact and collisions temperatures is called
between the molecules in a substance.
A. temperature
A. conduction
B. thermochemistry
B. radiation C. heat
C. convection D. chemical kinetics
D. insulation
359. which of the following laws is applicable
354. Charles’ Law States for the behaviour of perfect gas
A. As Pressure goes up volume goes A. Boyle’s law
down B. Charle’s Law
B. As Pressure goes up temperature C. Gas Lussac law
goes up D. All of the above
C. As Volume goes up temperature goes
360. Which of the following represents the
up
First Law of Thermodynamics?
D. As Pressure goes down volume goes A. Change in thermal energy is equal to
down the heat that is added to the object minus
355. Assume that the potential energy of the the work being done.
products in a chemical reaction is 60 kilo- B. Objects in contact with one another
joules. This reaction would be exother- are in thermal equilibrium if they have the
mic if the potential energy of the reactants same temperature.
were C. For every action (force) in nature there
A. 20 kj is an equal and opposite reaction.
B. 30 kj D. The rate of change of momentum of a
body over time is directly proportional to
C. 50 kj the force applied, and occurs in the same
D. 80 kj direction as the applied force.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 235

361. What is the relationship between cp, cv, The correct explanation for the above ob-
and R (gas constant) for an ideal gas? servation is possible by using

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Cp + R = Cv A. Stefan’s law
B. Cp + Cv = R B. Wien’s displacement law
C. Cv + R = Cp C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. none of above D. Newton’s law of cooling

362. is the study of the relationships be- 367. What machine changes electrical energy
tween heat, work, and thermal energy. into light and sound energy?
A. Thermodynamics A. battery
B. Specific Heats B. lightbulb
C. Calorimetry C. alarm clock
D. Thermal Analytics D. apple
363. Which will have the greatest entropy:ice, 368. If two systems are in thermal equilibrium
water, or water vapor? with a third, then the two are in thermal
A. ice equilibrium with each other.
B. water A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
C. water vapor B. First Law of Thermodynamics
D. none of above C. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
D. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
364. If a chemical reaction increases the tem-
perature of the surroundings from 30-35 369. Which would have the greatest gravita-
degrees, explain what happens. tional potential energy?
A. The reaction is endothermic A. A 4lb rat on a school desk
B. The reaction is exothermic B. A 45lb dog in an oak tree
C. The reaction is photosynthetic C. A 14 pound platypus on a swing
D. the reaction is endothermic and D. A 45lb child on a bike
exothermic
370. The entropy may be expressed as a func-
365. sometimes called as a control mass tion of
which refers to fixed quantity of matter
A. pressure and temperature
or mass.
A. Open system B. temperature and volume

B. Closed system C. heat and work

C. Isolated system D. all of the above

D. Homogeneous system E. none of the above

366. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. If 371. Which of the following is NOT a conduc-
first becomes dull red then becomes red- tor?
dish yellow and finally turns to white hot. A. oven mitt

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 236

B. curling iron 377. As temperature decreases, entropy de-

C. iron skillet creases. At absolute zero, entropy is zero.
Which law does this refer to?
D. copper pipe
A. 0th law of thermodynamics
372. A thermometer tells you
B. 1st law of thermodynamics
A. how to make something hot.
C. 2nd law of thermodynamics
B. how to cook dinner.
D. 3rd law of thermodynamics

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. how hot or cold something is.
D. what time it is. 378. What is the important thermodynamic
properties
373. Find the temperaure of 2 moles of an
A. partial molar properties
ideal gas which is at a pressure of 10 kPa
and has a volume of 0.5 m3. B. fundamental property relation
A. 300 K C. summability relations
B. 90 K D. All above
C. 300 ◦ C
379. What mass of P4 must be reacted to pro-
D. 600 K duce 5905 kJ of energy? P4 + 6Cl2 →
374. The temperature inside a refrigerator is 4PCl3 + 2439 kJ
t2◦ C and the room is t1◦ C. The amount of A. 25.43 g
heat delivered to the room for each joule
B. 563.0 g
of electrical energy consumed ideally will
be C. 2.421 g
A. t1 / t1-t2 D. 300.0 g
B. t1 + 273 / t1-t2
380. An isolated system is one in which
C. t2 + 273 / t1-t2
A. mass does not cross boundaries of the
D. t1 + t2 / t1-+ 273 system, though energy may do so
375. A detachment of thermodynamics and B. neither mass nor energy crosses the
surroundings by an envelope is? boundaries of the system
A. Universe C. both energy and mass cross the bound-
B. System aries of the system
C. Environment D. mass crosses the boundary but not the
energy
D. Boundary

376. Which of the following can be compared 381. is the study of the flow and transfor-
to a battery in need of recharging? mation of energy in the universe

A. ADP A. thermodynamics
B. ATP B. Thermochemistry
C. Ribose C. thermophysics
D. Adenosine D. thermoenergy

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 237

382. In order for energy to be less concen- C. heat capacity

trated what must be done?
D. free energy

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A. Heat released
B. Reduce thermal energy 387. What are the parts of the ATP molecule?

C. Work A. adenine, thylakoids, stroma

D. Increase Radiation B. stroma, grana, chlorophyll

C. adenine, ribose, phosphate groups
383. What until is used to measure tempera-
ture? D. NADH, NAHPH, FADH
A. Fahrenheit
388. What type of relationship to pressure
B. Rankine and volume have?
C. Celsius A. direct
D. Kelvin B. inverse
384. An open system C. no relationship
A. Is a specified region where transfers D. I don’t know
of energy and/or mass take place
B. Is a region of constant mass and only 389. Energy that comes from natural resources
energy is allowed to cross the boundaries that can be replenished are called?

C. Cannot transfer either energy or mass A. nonrenewable

to or from the surroundings B. energy in motion
D. Has a mass transfer across its bound- C. untapped energy
aries, and the mass within the system is
not necessarily constant D. renewable

E. None of the above 390. Which of the following will happen if an

ideal gas does positive work on its sur-
385. Calorimeters use insulating materials to:
roundings?
A. encourage affordable materials in sci-
A. The temperature of the gas increases
ence experiments in schools.
B. preserve the heat of the environment B. The pressure of the gas increases
outside the Styrofoam cup. C. The volume of the gas increases
C. prevent heat from escaping to the en- D. The internal energy of the gas de-
vironment. creases
D. keep the liquid inside the Styrofoam
cup from overheating. 391. What is the heat content of a system at
constant pressure?
386. The quantity of heat required to raise the A. joule
temperature of a substance (solid, liquid or
gas) by one degree is called its B. enthalpy
A. enthalpy C. calorimeter
B. entropy D. specific heat?

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 238

392. How is a Celsius temperature converted A. Radiation is delayed every time it inter-
to a Kelvin temperature reading? acts with a particle of matter. Gases have
A. by dividing by 273.15. less particles to delay the radiant energy.

B. by subtracting 273.15 B. Radiation needs particles to be able to

travel, gases provide the most particles to
C. by adding 273.15 be able to transfer energy between.
D. by multiplying by 273.15 C. The increased mass in gases make it
easier for the heated particles to move

NARAYAN CHANGDER
393. If Q, E and W denote respectively the
around the cooler particles.
heat added, change in internal energy and
the work done in a closed cycle process, D. Radiation is absorbed by particles and
then gases and more quickly transmitted than
in solids or liquids.
A. W = 0
B. Q = W =0 398. Thermodynamics is not concerned about
C. E = 0
A. energy changes involved in a chemical
D. Q = 0
reaction.
394. If a balloon is cooled what will happen to B. the extent to which a chemical reaction
the volume? proceeds.
A. Volume will increase C. the rate at which a reaction proceeds
B. Volume will decrease D. the feasibility of a chemical reaction.
C. Volume will not change
399. Enthalpy is a function of
D. none of above
A. Pressure
395. The relationship of which two variables B. Temperature
are compared in Boyle’s Law?
C. Density
A. pressure & volume
D. Specific volume
B. volume & temperature
400. Exact differential follows
C. temperature & pressure
A. Eulers theorem
D. volume & moles (amount of gas)
B. cyclic rule
396. The energy of an object that is due to the
C. both a and b
object’s motion
D. none of above
A. Light Energy
B. Kinetic Energy 401. Kinetic energy increases as the of an
object increases.
C. Law of conservation of energy
D. Mechanical Energy A. pendulum
B. temperature
397. Why does radiation usually pass through
gases more easily than through solids or C. heat
liquids? D. mass

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 239

402. is a situation where the heat source B. 18◦ F

and heat sink are connected by matter.
C. 32.5◦ F

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A. radiation
D. 58.5◦ F
B. convection
C. conduction 408. The internal energy change per degree
rise of temperature
D. none of above
A. heat capacity at constant volume
403. Enthalpy H =
B. heat capacity at constant pressure
A. U-PV
C. heat capacity at constant temperature
B. U+PV
D. All the above
C. PV
D. PV-U 409. Kelvin is the unit of temperature in ab-
solute value. Which one of the follow-
404. What is the second law of thermodynam- ing best describes the absolute of Kelvin
ics state scale?
A. Cold air always rises
A. The lowest possible temperature in
B. Hot air always rises kelvin is-274◦ C.
C. thermal energy can be lost B. The Kelvin scale just takes this value
D. Thermal energy always transfers to and calls it ◦ K, or absolute zero.
cooler objects C. To convert from ◦ C to ◦ K just subtract
405. Cp is always 273.

A. equal to Cv D. 1◦ K is equal to 1◦ C
B. Less than Cv 410. What unit is temperature when solving T
C. greater than Cv in the formula?
D. equal to zero A. ◦ F
406. If a sample of water releases 1000J upon B. ◦ C
freezing what was the mass of the sam- C. ◦ K
ple?
D. K
A. 500 g
B. 334000J 411. when you change the state of a sys-
tem (solid, liquid, gas), the atoms and/or
C. 0.44g
molecules have different arrangements
D. 2.99g and degrees of freedom to move. That in-
crease in freedom is called
407. The boiling temperature of water de-
creases by about 6.5◦ C for each 1000 m A. exothermic
in altitude. What is the decrease in boil-
B. empathy
ing temperature in ◦ F for 5, 000 m rise in
altitude? C. enthalpy
A. 6.5◦ F D. entropy

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 240

412. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an 416. How many moles are in 74 g of KCl
initial state A to final state B via two pro-
A. 0.99 mole
cesses. It first undergoes isothermal ex-
pansion from volume V to 3V and then its B. 0.014 mole
volume is reduced from 3V to V at con-
stant pressure. The correct p-V diagram C. 11.4 mole
representing the two processes is D. 0.14 mole
A. 1dia

NARAYAN CHANGDER
417. Directly proportional means that as one
B. 2dia
value increases
C. 3dia
A. the other stays the same
D. 4 dia
B. the other increases as well
413. If a system takes heat of 100 J and 100
J work is done on the system . The change C. the other decereases
in internal energy is D. the other goes to zero
A. 0
418. If you decrease the temperature, what
B. 200
would happen to the rate of the reaction?
C. 100
A. the rate of the reaction would increase
D. none of above as the temperature decreases
414. A student is investigating the relation- B. the rate of the reaction would stay the
ship between pressure, temperature, and same
entropy. A student manages to obtain a
sample of ice, water, and water vapor C. the rate fo the reaction would de-
that all coexist at the same temperature, crease as the temperature decreases
called the triple point. Which will have the D. none of above
greatest entropy at the triple point?
A. Solid 419. Which of the following is the correct
B. liquid statement of the second law of thermody-
namics?
C. gas
A. It is impossible to construct an engine
D. Solid
working on a cyclic process, whose sole
415. Thermochemical Equation purpose is to convert heat energy into
work.
A. A chemical equation that includes the
amount of heat released or absorbed dur- B. It is impossible to transfer heat from
ing the reaction. a body at a lower temperature to a higher
B. The heat released or absorbed during temperature, without the aid of an exter-
a chemical reaction. nal source

C. The heat released after burning 1 mole C. There is a definite amount of mechani-
of a substance. cal energy, which can be obtained from a
given quantity of heat energy.
D. The amount of heat needed to melt 1
mole of a solid. D. all of the above

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 241

420. What occurs when Q = 0, so that the first B. 50

law of thermodynamics takes the form of C. 112
D U =-W?

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D. 80
A. an isovolumetric process
425. Temperature describes the of parti-
B. an adiabatic process
cles.
C. an isothermal process
A. volume
D. an isolated system
B. mass
421. In order to convert to Kelvin, you add C. motion
to the Celsius measurement. D. conductivity
A. 372
426. Energy caused by the movement in the
B. 273 particles of matter. It is a form of kinetic
C. 237 energy.
D. 732 A. Nuclear energy
B. Sound energy
422. Steam at 100◦ C is passed into 20 g of
water at 10◦ C. when water acquires a C. Light energy
temperature of 80◦ C, the mass of water D. Thermal energy
present will be [Take specific heat if water
=1 cal g-1◦ C-1 and latent heat of steam = 427. How many moles are in 15 grams of
540 cal g-1] lithium?

A. 24 g A. 1.2 moles
B. 2.1 moles
B. 31.5 g
C. 4.33 moles
C. 42.5 g
D. 6.77 moles
D. 22.5 g
428. When your body breaks down sugar com-
423. A process which causes a decrease in the pletely, how much heat is released com-
entropy is pared to burning the same amount of sugar
A. condensation of steam to form liquid in a flame?
water. A. The body released more heat.
B. vaporization of liquid water to form B. The body releases no heat.
steam.
C. The body releases less heat.
C. dissociation of solid sodium chloride
D. The body releases the same amount of
into aqueous sodium cations and chloride
heat.
anions
D. sublimation of snow to water vapor. 429. As the temperature of an abject in-
creases, its molecules
424. A black body at 227◦ C radiates heat at
A. move faster
the rate of 7 cal cm-2 s-1. At a tempera-
ture of 727◦ C, the rate of heat radiated in B. get smaller (condense)
the same units will be C. move farther apart (expand)
A. 60 D. move faster and farther apart (expand)

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 242

430. The two ends of a metal rod are main- 434. What is the definition of Temperature?
tained at temperature 100◦ C and 110◦ C. A. The form of energy that is transferred
The rate of heat flow in the rod is found between systems or objects with different
to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained temperatures
at temperature 200◦ C and 210◦ C, the rate
of heat flow will be B. To make or become liquefied by heat
C. The height of an object or point in rela-
A. 44.0 J/s
tion to sea level or ground level
B. 16.8 J/s

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The measure of the molecular Kinetic
C. 8.0 J/s energy
D. 4.0 J/s 435. Specific heat capacity for water is
431. what is specific heat at constant volume, A. 129 J/jkg * C
cv ? B. 4186 J/jkg * C
A. The energy required to raise the tem- C. 138 J/jkg * C
perature of the unit mass of a substance D. 1487J/jkg * C
by one degree as the volume is maintained
constant. 436. When the temperature of a reaction in-
creases, what will happen to the reaction
B. The heat required to raise the temper-
ature of the unit mass of a substance by A. The rate will increase.
one degree as the volume is maintained B. The rate will decrease.
constant.
C. The rate of the reaction will remain
C. The energy required to raise the tem- constant.
perature of the unit volume of a substance D. The rate of the reaction will increase,
by one degree as the volume is maintained then decrease.
constant.
D. none of above 437. How much energy is required to com-
pletely boil away 150g of 10o C water?
432. If A has the same temperature as B and C. A. 56, 484 J
B and C are in thermal equilibrium. Which B. 339, 000 J
law does this refer to?
C. 395, 484 J
A. zeroth law of thermodynamics
D. 385, 484 J
B. 1st law of thermodynamics
438. Which of the following are true about
C. 2nd law of thermodynamics ATP?
D. 3rd law of thermodynamics A. It stands for adenosine triphosphate
433. Correct Meyer’s relation B. It is the “energy currency” for life

A. Cp-Cv = R C. It stores energy between the bonds of

phosphates
B. Cv-Cp = R
D. It’s made during photosynthesis
C. Cv+Cp = R
E. It’s formed during the breakdown of
D. none of above glucose

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 243

439. A refrigerator works between 4◦ C and 443. Which of the following would increase
30◦ C it is required to remove 600 calories the (gas) pressure of a system?
of heat every second on order to keep the

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A. Increase the Temperature
temperature of the refrigerated space con-
stant. The power required is(Take, 1 cal- B. Pump in more gas
4.2 Joules) C. Decrease the volume
A. 23.64 W D. All of these
B. 236.5 W 444. If one gram of the substance is consid-
ered, the heat capacity is known as
C. 2365 W
A. Entropy
D. 2.365 W
B. Specific heat capacity
440. The standard enthalpy changes of for- C. free energy
mation of iron(II) oxide, FeO(s), and alu-
D. work
minium oxide, Al2O3(s), are-266 kJ mol-1
and-1676 kJ mol-1 respectively. What is 445. What is the specific heat in Q=3x20x5
the enthalpy change under standard condi-
A. 3
tions for the following reaction? 3FeO(s)
+ 2Al (s) → 3Fe(s) + Al2O3(s) B. 20

A. +878kJ C. 5
D. none of above
B. -878kJ
C. -1942kJ 446. What must occur for the natural flow of
heat to be reversed?
D. -2474kJ
A. Work
441. Which of the following best describes en- B. Kinetic Energy
ergy in the form of heat? C. Temperature Conversion
A. a measure of the average kinetic en- D. Create energy
ergy of the particles in a sample of matter
447. of work is done by a gas when the sys-
B. the energy transferred between sam- tem has an increase in internal energy of
ples because of a difference in their tem- 125J. What energy is needed to do so?
peratures
A. 165J
C. bond energy
B. 85J
D. the energy stored in a sample of mat-
C. Can’t be possible
ter
D. 165Cal
442. Mathematical equation of first law of
448. Like all sciences, the basis of thermody-
thermodynamics isHere U means delta U
namics is through experimental
A. U=q+W A. evaluation
B. q=U+W B. observation
C. W=U+q C. condition
D. None of these D. decision

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 244

449. What is Enthalpy? 455. Microwaves transfer heat through which

process?
A. The amount of Order in a system
A. Conduction
B. The amount of energy absorbed
B. Convection
C. The amount of Energy in a system
C. Radiation
D. The amount of Disorder in a system
D. Vaporization
450. Thermal energy transfers 456. First law of thermodynamics

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. From colder to hotter material A. enables to determine change in inter-
B. From hotter to colder material nal energy of the system
B. does not help to predict whether the
C. by going back and forth
system will or not undergo a change
D. by balancing equations C. does not enable to determine change
in entropy
451. Particles (molecules) in a have less
energy than the other states of matter. D. provides relationship between heat,
work and internal energy
A. gas
E. all of the above
B. solid
457. A metal spoon that gets warm when used
C. liquid
to stir hot soup is an example of:
D. none of above A. Conduction
452. Energy is measured in units of B. Convection
C. Radiation
A. kelvin
D. none of above
B. grams
C. pounds 458. What is specific heat at constant pres-
sure, Cp?
D. joules
A. The energy required to raise the tem-
453. What is specific heat measured in perature of the unit mass of a substance
by one degree as the pressure is main-
A. K/Jxkg tained constant.
B. J/K B. The energy required to decrease the
temperature of the unit mass of a sub-
C. J/kgxK
stance by one degree as the pressure
D. none of above change.
C. The energy required to decrease the
454. Step two in Carnot engine is
temperature of the unit mass of a sub-
A. Isothermal expansion stance by one degree as the pressure is
B. Isothermal compression maintained constant.
D. The energy required to raise the tem-
C. Adiabatic expansion
perature of the unit mass of a substance
D. Adiabatic compression by one degree as the pressure is change.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 245

459. An instrument used to measure changes B. Latent heat of vaporization

in thermal energy is called a C. Latent heat of fusion

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A. Heat engine D. Sensible heat
B. Calorimeter
465. An engine has efficiency 75% and low
C. Convection current temperature reservoir is in 27 degree cel-
D. none of above cius. Calculate the temperature of high
temperature reservoir?
460. is a measure of the average kinetic
energy of particles. A. 1200 K

A. Volume B. 927 K
C. 400 K
B. Pressure
D. 177 K
C. Moles
E. 207 K
D. Temperature
466. Alexis uses a self-made reflective foil
461. What form of energy is being used when
cardboard cut out to sun tan at home.
a person hits a tennis ball with a tennis
What method of heat transfer is being re-
racket?
flected by the foil?
A. thermal energy
A. conduction
B. sound energy
B. convection
C. light energy
C. radiation
D. mechanical energy
D. none of above
462. A student is cooking an egg in a pan on
467. Warming hand over a radiator.
a stovetop. What is the main method of
heat transfer between the pan and the A. Conduction
egg? B. Convection
A. conduction C. Radiation
B. convection D. none of above
C. entropy
468. Which of these BEST explains the re-
D. radiation lationship between volume and tempera-
ture?
463. the ability to do work
A. As temperature increases, particles
A. energy move faster and collide more often and
B. Matter harder. To keep the internal and external
C. photons pressure constant, the volume of a flexi-
ble container increases.
D. potential energy
B. As temperature increases, volume in-
464. The amount of heat required to convert creases.
one unit amount of substance from the C. As temperature increases, the parti-
solid phase to the liquid phase. cles collide more making the volume de-
A. Specific heat capacity crease.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 246

D. As temperature increases, the parti- 474. How is it possible that heat can sponta-
cles break apart into more particles, in- neously go from a cold object to a hot ob-
creasing the pressure. ject?
A. By having one way super conductive
469. During an endothermic reaction in a
material between them
beaker if we are part of the surroundings
and touched the beaker, it would feel B. Work can be done by the system to
make this happen
A. Warm

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Work can be done to the system to
B. Cold make this happen
C. Bubbly D. Cold objects can never give thermal en-
D. Damp ergy to hot objects

470. Which phase change is exothermic? 475. According to which law of energy, energy
can’t be created or destroyed?
A. H 2O( l) → H 2O( s)
A. First law of motion
B. H 2O( l) → H 2O( s)
B. The law of tacos
C. H 2O( l) → H 2O( g)
C. Laws of Energy
D. H 2O( s) → H 2O( g) D. law of conservation of energy
471. The 1st Law of Thermodynamics indicates 476. Refer to the following question:2N2 +
that 3H2 → 2NH3 + 46 kJHow much energy
A. work is force exerted over a distance. would be produced if only 1 mol of nitro-
gen was reacted?
B. energy in the universe is finite.
A. 92 kJ
C. an increase in disorder is part of any
spontaneous process. B. 0.143 kJ
C. 23 kJ
D. work is a state function.
D. 15 kJ
472. What is the meaning of open system?
477. What occurs when D U = 0, so that
A. No heat & mass transfer across bound- the first law of thermodynamics takes the
ary form of Q = W?
B. Only heat transfer across boundary A. an isovolumetric process
C. Heat & mass transfer across boundary B. an isothermal process
D. Only mass transfer across boundary C. an adiabatic process

473. What law combines all 3 factors (pres- D. an isolated system

sure, temperature, and volume) 478. The q in thermodynamic equations is
A. Combined Gas Law A. temperature
B. Charle’s Law B. mass
C. Boyle’s Law C. specific heat
D. Avagadros Ideal Gas Law D. energy lost or gained

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 247

479. What are the units for mass? 484. What type of energy increases as
molecules move faster?
A. m

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A. mechanical energy
B. kg
B. electrical energy
C. s
C. thermal energy
D. N
D. sound energy
480. The opposite of expansion is 485. is the most important biological
A. reposition molecule that provides energy.
B. restriction A. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

C. contraction B. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

C. NADPH
D. constriction
D. NADP
481. During the process of melting, the solid
and liquid phases of a pure substance are 486. What is 0 Kelvin known as
in equilibrium with each other. Which one A. No such thing
of the following best describes the chance B. Very cold
of temperature during the process?
C. Freezing point of Water
A. Increasing the temperature
D. Absolute Zero
B. Decreasing the temperature
487. In isochoric process work done is
C. No change of temperature
A. Zero
D. Absolute temperature
B. -ve
482. In an ideal gas at a given temperature the C. +ve
pressure exerted by the gas is D. none of above
A. inversely proportional to the density of
the gas 488. Work is when work is done BY the
system ON the surroundings
B. independent of the density of the gas
A. Positive
C. directly proportional to the density of
B. Negative
the gas
C. Neutral
D. inversely proportional to the square of
the density of the gas D. none of above

489. Energy transformations occur when

483. Cycle efficiency is defined as
A. energy is created through conduction
A. 1-Qc/Qh
B. energy changes from one form to an-
B. the amount of work added other
C. the amount of heat added-amount of C. two forces slide together that are
heat removed touching
D. the amount of heat added D. a chemical reaction takes place

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 248

490. All of the energy in living things begins B. Constant pressure

with?
C. Constant volume = Constant Pressure
A. ATP
B. Glucose D. none of above
C. Sun
495. Many objects, such as train tracks and
D. Oxygen road joints, are specifically designed to al-
low extra space for

NARAYAN CHANGDER
491. First law of thermodynamics furnishes
the relationship between A. thermal energy
A. heat and work B. specific heat
B. heat, work and properties of the sys- C. thermal expansion
tem
D. conductors
C. heat and internal energy.
D. various properties of the system 496. is intensive variable
A. area
492. Objects with higher temperatures have
B. entropy
A. particles with no kinetic energy C. temperature
B. particles with higher average kinetic D. volume
energy
C. particles with lower average kinetic 497. The place you find the higher temperature
energy A. heat sink
D. more thermal energy no matter what B. heat source
493. You are drawing a particulate representa- C. heat medium
tion of two particles at different tempera- D. hot spot
tures. How would you show they are dif-
ferent temperatures? 498. A system where mass is not allowed to
A. Use different size arrows. pass in the boundary.
B. Use one straight arrow and one curved A. Isolated system
arrow of the same length. B. Closed system
C. Draw one particle bigger than the C. Open System
other.
D. Exposed System
D. Draw one container bigger than the
other. 499. The is the change in temperature di-
494. A fixed mass of an ideal gas is heated vided by the distance.
from 50oC to80oC (a) at constant volume A. temperature fluctuation
and (b) at constant pressure. Forwhich
B. temperature spike
case do you think the energy required will
be greater? C. temperature gradient
A. Constant volume D. temperature percentage

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 249

500. The first law of thermodynamics is the 505. GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL ENERGY DE-
law of PENDS ON

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A. conservation of mass A. MASS AND VELOCITY
B. conservation of energy B. MASS AND WEIGHT
C. conservation of heat C. WEIGHT AND HEIGHT
D. conservation of temperature
D. HEIGHT AND DISTANCE
501. . Which is a way that you could demon-
strate the transformation of mechanical 506. The measure of the average kinetic en-
energy into thermal energy? ergy of the particles that make up that ob-
ject is its
A. Warm yourself in front of a campfire.
A. Temperature
B. Use an electric toaster to toast heat.
B. Thermal Energy
C. Rub your hands together until they get
warm. C. Heat
D. Use the magnified sunligth to set a D. Specific Heat
piece of paper on fire.
507. Celsius, Fahrenheit, Kelvin and Rankin
502. What type of relationship is Charles’ are the units of temperature. Which one
Law? of the following is equal to 50◦ F?
A. Inverse A. 720 ◦ R
B. Direct
B. 50 ◦ C
C. Not enough information
C. 302 ◦ K
D. #goals
D. 10 ◦ C
503. A mixture of hydrogen, nitrogen, and
water vapor has a total pressure of 864 508. Everything else outside the area of study
mmHg. The partial pressure of hydrogen A. System
is 220 mmHg and that of nitrogen is 410
mmHg. What is the partial pressure of wa- B. Surroundings
ter vapor? C. Thermodynamics
A. 234 mmHg D. Thermochemistry
B. 1.37 mmHg
C. 2.64 mmHg 509. What does the second law of thermody-
namics state?
D. 1, 494 mmHg
A. Energy can’t be converted without the
504. What heating system is most common in loss of usable energy
newer homes?
B. Energy can be converted with the loss
A. Forced air of usable energy
B. A Radiator C. Energy can’t be converted
C. Electrical D. Energy remains the same in all sys-
D. Convection tems

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 250

510. Which one of the following best describes 515. Thermodynamics is a science that deals
the internal energy? with heat and work and those of sub-
stance that bear a relation to heat and
A. Energy associated with the net linear
work.
or angular velocity of the system.
A. energies
B. Energy associated with the structure
and motion of molecules within the sys- B. states
tem. C. properties

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Energy associated with the position of D. processes
the system within a potential field.
D. Energy transferred between a sys- 516. Efficiency of Carnot engine depends on
tem and the surroundings under constant A. Cylinder size
pressure.
B. Source temperature
511. When matter heats up, what does it do? C. Type of gas
A. expand D. Sink temperature
B. contract
517. Thermal energy is referring to:
C. melt
A. Motion
D. evaporate
B. Heat
512. Whose law states that as pressure goes C. Movement
up, volume goes down?
D. Matter
A. Charles
518. An ideal gas confined in a box initially has
B. Boyle
pressure P. If the absolute temperature of
C. Aglow the gas is doubled and the volume of the
D. Mazias box is quadrupled, the pressure is
A. P/4
513. Heat passes from
B. P/2
A. High to low
C. P/8
B. Cold to hot
D. 2P
C. Hot to cold
E. P
D. Heat cannot be passed
519. How much energy is required to heat up
514. In an ideal gas, the total energy of the 12kg of copper from 10 ◦ C to 120 ◦ C. The
molecules consists of specific heat capacity is 390 J/kg ◦ C.
A. potential energy only A. 46800 J
B. kinetic energy only B. 561600 J
C. Potential and kinetic energy C. 514800 J
D. gravitational energy D. none of above

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 251

520. Certain quantity of water cools from be 1.2 kg/m3 and 9.81 m/s2, respec-
70◦ C to 60 ◦ C in the first 5 min and to tively. If on the ground level, the barom-
54 ◦ C in the next 5 min. The temperature eter reads 760 mm Hg, then what should

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of the surroundings is be the atmospheric pressure at the top of
A. 45◦ C the tower (in kPa)?

B. 20◦ C A. 92.108 kPa

C. 42◦ C B. 95.886 kPa
D. 10◦ C C. 98.217 kPa

521. Which of the following represents a type D. 101.325 kPa

of heat transfer?
526. Heat is if heat is removed from a sys-
A. Conduction tem
B. Radiation A. Positive
C. Convection B. Negative
D. All of the above
C. Neutral
522. The variable C stands for what D. none of above
A. heat
527. A person wants to replace the windows
B. mass on her house but she doesn’t want her
C. specific heat heating and cooling bills to change. The
D. change in temperature original window on the wall of the house
has area A and thickness d, and is made
523. Inversely proportional means as one out of glass that has a thermal conduc-
value increases the other tion constant, K. Which of the following
A. increases changes could be made to the window that
would leave the rate of thermal conduction
B. decreases the same as the original window?
C. stays the same A. Quadruple the area, double the thick-
D. goes to zero ness, cut the k constant in half
524. Second law of theromodynamics defines B. Double the area, cut the thickness in
half, cut the k constant in half
A. Heat
C. Double the area, double the thickness,
B. Work
quadruple the k constant
C. Enthalpy
D. Cut the are in half, cut the thickness in
D. Entropy half and double the k constant
E. Internal energy
528. Heat of Reaction
525. A weatherman carried aneroid barometer
A. The heat released after burning 1 mole
from the ground to his office (at the Sears
of a substance.
Tower in Chicago) which has a height of
462 m. Assume the average atmospheric B. The amount of heat needed to melt 1
density and gravitational acceleration to mole of a solid.

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 252

C. The heat released by 1 mole of a sub- B. Absolute

stance as it changes from a liquid to a
C. Negative
solid.
D. The heat released or absorbed during D. Negligible
a chemical reaction.
533. PCl5 + 3438 kJ → P4 + 10 Cl2How much
529. The force exerted by the system on unit energy is required to produce each mole of
area of boundaries is called chlorine?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Pressure A. 687.6 kJ
B. Volume B. 859.5 kJ
C. density
C. 343.8 kJ
D. viscosity
D. 245.8 kJ
530. On a new scale of temperature (which is
linear) and called the W scale, the freez- 534. If you push down the plunger of a bicycle
ing and boiling points of water are 39◦ W pump the chamber’s volume is decreased.
and 239◦ W respectively. What will be the When that happens pressure in the cham-
temperature on the new scale, correspond- ber increases and the air then rushes out
ing to a temperature of 39◦ C on the celsius of the pump and into your flat tire. What
scale? gas law does this represent?
A. 78◦ W A. Charles’s law
B. 117◦ W
B. Boyle’s law
C. 200◦ W
C. Newtons laws
D. 139◦ W
D. Coulombs laws
531. Figure shows two paths that may be
taken by a gas to go from a state A to 535. system gains 700 kJ of heat, change in in-
a state C. In process AB, 400 J of heat is ternal energy of the system equal to 200
added to the system and in process BC 100 kJ. How much work is done?
J of heat is added to the system. The heat
absorbed by the system in the process AC A. +500
will be B. -500
A. 380 J C. 900
B. 500 J
D. -900
C. 460 J
D. 300 J 536. The properties associated with sys-
tem are called thermodynamic properties
532. Work is done on the system when a pump
moves the working fluid from one location A. Microscopic system
to another. Which one of the following B. homogeneous system
best describes the sign of the work is done
on the system? C. macroscopic system
A. Positive D. all the above

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1.12 Thermodynamic Relations 253

537. Which of the following are true about En- 540. A well stoppered thermoflask contains
ergy? some ice cubes . This is an example of

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A. It’s the ability to do work A. closed system
B. it can be created B. open system
C. it cannot be destroyed C. Isolated system

D. it is stored in the bonds of glucose and D. non-thermodynamic system

ATP 541. Water has a specific heat of 2400 J/Kg
◦ C and iron has a specific heat of 460 J/Kg
E. it is lost as heat during energy trans-
◦ C. If we add the same amount of heat
formations
to equal masses of iron and water which
538. Calculate the amount of energy required one of the following will have the larger
to freeze 98.0 grams of water? change in temperature?
A. 32732J A. Iron has a larger change of tempera-
ture
B. 146.3J
B. Water has a larger change of temper-
C. 11690J ature
D. 39939.9J C. Equal of change of temperature both
water and copper
539. Increasing Temperature increases molec-
ular vibrations, rotation and translation. D. No change of temperature between
Therefore increases the internal energy as water and copper
well. Which one of the following best de- 542. Thermodynamics is not concerned about
scribes the reason why change of pressure
does not affect to the internal energy? A. Energy changes involved in a chemical
reaction.
A. Complex molecular interactions
B. The extent to which a chemical reac-
B. Absence of molecular interactions tion proceeds
C. Increasing of molecular interaction C. The rate at which a reaction proceeds.
D. Decreasing of molecular interaction D. The feasibility of a chemical reaction.

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 2. REFRIGERATION AND AIR

NARAYAN CHANGDER
CONDITIONING

2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine

1. WHICH TYPE OF AIR COOLING SYSTEM IS B. Heat stored in the human body
USED FOR TRANSPORTATION? C. Sum of (A) and (B)
A. Boot strap air cooling system
D. Difference of (A) and (B)
B. Reduced ambient air cooling system,
5. Which is the correct order of refrigerant
C. Reduced aircraft air cooling system,
states starting with the discharge line?
D. Regenerative air cooling system.
A. Super heated Vapor, Condensing Va-
2. What is the function of the evaporator? por/Liquid mix, Sub cooled liquid, Flash
Gas, Super heated Vapor
A. Reject heat.
B. Condensing vapor, Flash gas, Sub
B. Absorb Heat.
cooled Liquid, Super heated vapor
C. Create heat.
C. Hot gas bypass, Freon Transfer, Liquid
D. Mix refrigerant. sublimation, Condensation.
3. During heating and humidification, the fi- D. Liquid, Vapor, Sub cooled vapor, Super
nal relative humidity of the air heated Liquid
A. can be lower or higher than that of the 6. Effect of superheating on COP is
entering air
A. remains the same
B. is lower than that of the entering air
B. increases
C. is higher than that of the entering air
C. decreases
D. none of the above
D. none of above
4. A human body feels comfortable when the
heat produced by the metabolism of human 7. decrease the pressure inside the sys-
body is equal to the tem.
A. Heat dissipated to the surroundings A. compressor

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2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine 255

B. condenser C. Evaporator pressure and suction line

C. capillary tube pressure.

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D. Evaporator pressure and suction line
D. evaporator
temperature.
8. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream
12. what is refrigeration?
of moist air, it must be passed over the
coil at a temperature A. heating
A. which lies between the dry bulb and B. drying
wet bulb temperatures of the incoming C. cooling
stream D. steaming
B. which lies between the wet bulb and
13. The heat removing capacity of one tone of
dew point temperatures of the incoming
refrigeration is equal to?
stream
A. 210 Watt
C. which is lower than the dew point tem-
perature of the incoming stream B. 210 kJ/hour
D. of adiabatic saturation of incoming C. 3.5 kJ/hour
stream D. 3.5 W

9. What are the impacts on the environ- 14. A capillary tube serves the same purpose
mentof fluorinated greenhouse gases? as a?
A. Contributes to the formulation of A. small water line
acidrain B. pressure relief line
B. Contributes to the global warming C. expansion valve
C. Mixes with the Nitrogen within the- D. bypass line
atmosphere to create a toxic substance,
Nox 15. What is the temperature of the discharge
line if you touch it.
D. Has little or no detrimental effect
A. Warm
10. Air refrigerator works on B. Cool
A. Carnot cycle C. Cold
B. Rankine cycle D. Very Warm/Hot
C. Reversed carnot cycle 16. What is the specific humidity?
D. Bell-Coleman cycle A. the ratio of the mass of water vapour
E. Both C and D to the mass of the total mixture of air and
water vapour
11. State the 2 data points needed to deter-
B. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the
mine subcooling
mass of the total mixture of air and water
A. Condensing pressure and liquid line vapour
pressure. C. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the
B. Condensing pressure and liquid line mass of water vapour in a mixture of air
temperature. and water vapour

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2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine 256

D. the ratio of the mass of water vapour B. Operating the machine at lower
to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air speeds
and water vapour C. Raising the higher temperature
17. Which of the following statement is D. Lowering the higher temperature
TRUE?
21. The wet bulb temperature at 100% rel-
A. During sensible cooling of the air, both ative humidity is dew point tempera-
dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures de- ture.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
crease
A. same as
B. During sensible cooling of the air, dry
bulb temperature decreases but wet bulb B. lower than
temperature remains constant C. higher than
C. During sensible cooling of the air, dry D. may lower or higher
and wet bulb temperatures decrease but
dew point temperature remains constant 22. The by-pass factor of a cooling coil de-
D. Both A and C creases with
A. decrease in fin spacing and increase in
18. In which type of air refrigeration system a number of rows
secondary compressor is used?
B. increase in fin spacing and increase in
A. Reduced ambient type air refrigeration number of rows
System
C. increase in fin spacing and decrease in
B. Regenerative type air refrigeration number of rows
System
D. decrease in fin spacing and decrease
C. Simple air refrigeration System in number of rows
D. Boot strap air refrigeration System
23. In which direction does refrigerant flow
19. Where would you expect to find a high during a normal cooling cycle? a. compres-
pressure liquid within an AC system? sor to condenser b. compressor to evapo-
rator c. compressor to filter drier d. com-
A. Between the compressor and the Ther- pressor to exit of evaporator
mal Xpansion Valve
A. compressor to evaporator
B. Between the Thermal Xpansion Valve
and the Evaporator B. compressor to filter drier
C. Between the compressor and the con- C. compressor to exit of evaporator
denser D. compressor to condenser
D. Between the Condenser and the Ther-
mal Xpansion Valve 24. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is
heat absorbed.
20. When the lower temperature of a refriger- A. Equal to
ating machine is fixed, then the coefficient
of performance can be improved by B. Less than

A. Operating the machine at higher C. Greater than

speeds D. partially less than

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2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine 257

25. One ton of the refrigeration is C. These react with oxygen and cause its
A. The standard unit used in refrigeration depletion
D. These react with ozone layer

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problems
B. The cooling effect produced by melting 30. In larger industrial and commercial recip-
1 ton of ice rocating compression systems, refrigerant
C. The refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton widely used is
of water at 0◦ C into ice at 0◦ C in 24 hours A. Ammonia
D. The refrigeration effect to produce 1 B. Carbon dioxide
ton of ice at NTP conditions C. Sulphur dioxide
26. reduces the pressure of the refrigerant liq- D. R-12
uid and thus cools the liquid
31. What is the job of the evaporator?
A. Expansion Valve
A. Absorb heat from inside the refrigera-
B. Evaporator tor.
C. Compressor B. Absorb heat from outside the refriger-
D. Condensor ator.
C. change vapor to liquid
27. Refrigerant changes from vapor to a liquid
in which component? D. create flash gas

A. Liquid line 32. What happens in the first 1/3 of the con-
denser?
B. Evaporator
A. Refrigerant subcools
C. Suction line
B. Refrigerant superheats
D. Condenser
C. Refrigerant changes to 25 percent va-
28. What does a Thermal Xpansion Valve do? por and 75 percent liquid
A. Cleans, dries and filters the refriger- D. Refrigerant desuperheats
ant
33. In what part of a refrigeration system
B. It controls the quantity of refrigerant does the refrigerant change from a hot
entering the evaporator high pressure vapor to a hot high pressure
C. Allows for an increase in pressure and liquid?
temperature prior to entering the con- A. Evaporator
denser
B. Condenser
D. It acts as a safety device if the com- C. Liquid line
pressor is over pressuring the system
D. Suction line
29. Environmental protection agencies advice
34. The Discharge Line travels between the?
against the use of chlorofluorocarbon re-
frigerants since A. Compressor and TXV
A. These react with water vapour and B. The Metering Device to the Compres-
cause acid rain sor
B. These react with plants and cause C. Receiver and the Metering Device
greenhouse effect D. Compressor and Condenser

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2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine 258

35. Define refrigeration 40. Where does the low pressure liquid be-
A. It is the process of continuous cooling come a gas (vapour)?
or extraction of heat to below that of the A. Evaporator
atmosphere from a substance with a help
B. Condenser
of the external work.
C. TX valve
B. It is based on the second law of ther-
modynamics that the heat can made to D. Compressor
flow from cold body to a hot body with the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
help of external source. 41. One tonne of refrigerating machine means
that,
C. used to remove heat from the refriger-
ated space and reject it to atmosphere. A. One tonne is the total mass of the ma-
chine
D. none of above
B. One tonne of refrigerant is used
36. What is Pressure and state of the refriger- C. One tonne of water can be converted
ant in the suction pipe? into ice.
A. High pressure vapor D. One tonne of ice when melts from and
B. Low pressure vapor at 0oC in 24 hours, the refrigerating effect
C. Low pressure liquid produced is equivalent to 210 KJ/min
D. High pressure liquid 42. The sub-cooling in a refrigeration cycle
37. One tonne of refrigeration is equal to A. Does not alter C.O.P.
A. 21 KJ/min B. Increases C.O.P.
B. 210 KJ/min C. Decreases C.O.P.
C. 420 KJ/min D. None of the above
D. 620 KJ/min 43. In a refrigeration system, the expansion
38. Small amounts of liquid returning to the device is connected to
compressor is called ? A. Compressor and condenser
A. Flood back B. Condenser and receiver
B. Flooded start C. Receiver and evaporator
C. Slugging D. Evaporator and compressor
D. Flooding compressor
44. A reversible engine has ideal thermal effi-
39. The refrigerant after condensation process ciency of 30%. When it is used as a refrig-
is cooled below the saturation tempera- erating machine with all other conditions
ture before throttling. Such a process is unchanged, the coefficient of performance
called will be
A. Sub-cooling or under-cooling A. 1.33
B. Super-cooling B. 2.33
C. Normal cooling C. 3.33
D. None of these D. 4.33

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2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine 259

45. What is the job of the condenser? 50. Define tone of refrigeration
A. Create flash gas, superheat, cool re- A. working fluid used in the refrigerator.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

frigerant
B. the standard unit of the refrigerator.
B. subcool, superheat, condense refriger-
ant C. machine which produces cold.
C. meter refrigerant, create flash gas, D. process of continuous cooling or ex-
condense traction of heat to below that of the atmo-
sphere from a substance with a help of the
D. desuperheat, condense, subcool re-
external work.
frigerant

46. The by-pass factor for a cooling coil 51. If a heat pump cycle operates between
the condenser temperature of +27◦ C and
A. increases with increase in velocity of
evaporator temperature of-23◦ C, then the
air passing through it
Carnot COP will be
B. decreases with increase in velocity of
air passing through it A. 0.2

C. remains unchanged with increase in B. 1.2

velocity of air passing through it C. 5
D. may increase or decrease with in-
D. 6
crease in velocity of air passing through
it depending upon the condition of air en- 52. The vapour compression refrigerator em-
tering ploys the following cycle
47. In what state is the refrigerant when it A. Rankine
exits the condenser?
B. Carnot
A. High pressure gas
C. Reversed Rankine
B. Low pressure gas
C. High pressure liquid D. Reversed Carnot

D. Low pressure liquid 53. In air conditioning of aeroplanes, using air

as refrigerant, the cycle used is
48. The boiling point of ammonia is
A. -10.5◦ C A. Reversed Carnot cycle
B. -30◦ C B. Reversed Joule cycle
C. -33.3◦ C C. Reversed Brayton cycle
D. -77.7◦ C D. Reversed Otto cycle
49. How many Btu’s are in one ton of refriger-
54. it decrease the pressure inside the system.
ation in 24 hours?
A. compressor
A. 12, 000 Btu/24 hours
B. 24, 000 Btu/24 hours B. condenser
C. 300, 000 Btu/24 hours C. capillary tube
D. 288, 000 Btu/24 hours D. evaporator

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2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine 260

55. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given as A. humidity

80%. If the cycle direction be reversed, B. partial humidity
what will be the value of C.O.P. of re-
versed Carnot Cycle? C. specific humidity

A. 1.25 D. relative humidity

B. 0.8 60. Below are the process in refrigeration sys-

C. 0.5 tem EXCEPT
A. Compression

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 0.25
B. Condensation
56. How would you know the air con gas has-
been fully recovered from the system? C. Power

A. The gauge on the high pressure D. Evaporation

sidereads a positive pressure 61. Air refrigerator works on
B. The gauge on the low pressure A. Carnot cycle Rankine cycle .
sidereads a negative pressure
B. Reversed Carnot cycle
C. Bothgauges read zero pressure at the
end of the recovery process C. Rankine cycle

D. Both gauges read a positivepressure D. Both Reversed Carnot cycle & Bell-
of 20 Bar at the end of the recovery pro- Coleman cycle
cess 62. In case of sensible cooling of air, the coil ef-
57. Which of the following is not a desirable ficiency is given by (where BPF = by-pass-
property of a refrigerant? factor)

A. High misibility with oil A. BPF-1

B. Low boiling point B. 1-BPF

C. Good electrical conductor C. BPF

D. Large latent heat D. 1 + BPF

58. What is the perfect condition for dehumid- 63. The COP of a refrigerator is 4. What will
ification of air? be the COP of a heat pump if it is work-
ing between same source and sink temper-
A. air is heated above its dew point tem- ature?
perature
A. 2
B. air is cooled up to its dew point tem-
perature B. 3
C. air is heated below its dew point tem- C. 4
perature D. 5
D. air is cooled below its dew point tem- 64. The function of evaporator is:
perature
A. draw the refrigerant from the evapora-
59. The ratio of partial pressure of water tor through suction valve at low pressure
vapour in a mixture to the saturation pres- and to force it to the condenser through
sure of water at the same temperature of exhaust valve at high pressure and tem-
the mixture is called as perature.

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2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine 261

B. to control the rate of admission of re- A. Press the service port valve on the low
frigerants to the evaporator. pressure side and listen for a gas leak

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

C. to condense the refrigerants at satura- B. Connect the gauges to both high and
tion temperature from vapour to liquid by lowpressure ports to confirm a vacuum is
transferring its latent heat to the water. present
D. Receive the liquid refrigerants from C. Connect the Air Conditioning equip-
the condenser through throttle valve and mentand carry out a full recovery
to evaporate it D. Connect the gauges to both high and
low pressure ports to confirm no pressure
65. How could you confirm the type ofrefriger-
is present
ant present in an air conditioning system?
A. The odour the refrigerant emitswhen 69. A boot-strap air cooling system has
released to atmosphere A. One heat exchanger
B. The colour of the refrigerant whichis B. Two heat exchanger
visible through the sight glass in the top
C. Three heat exchanger
of the receiver drier
D. Four heat exchanger
C. Bychecking the identifier label located
on the vehicle 70. What are the 4 basic components of all re-
D. It does not matter as R12 and frigeration system?
R134aare interchangeable A. Fan motor, compressor, drain pan and
condensor
66. When, H1 = Total heat of air entering the
coil (heating or cooling)H2 = Total heat B. Condensor, compressor, metering de-
of air leaving the coil (heating or cool- vice and filter dryer
ing)H3 = Total heat of air at the end of C. Evaporator, condensor, compressor
the process (humidification or dehumidifi- and disconnect
cation)then, the sensible heat factor (H2- D. Evaporator, condenser, compressor
H1) / (H3-H1) represents the process of and metering device
A. cooling and humidification
71. Freon group of refrigerants are
B. cooling and dehumidification
A. Inflammable
C. heating and humidification
B. Toxic
D. heating and dehumidification
C. Non-inflammable and toxic
67. The U.S. conventional unit of heat is the D. Nontoxic and non-inflammable
72. As refrigerant moves through the con-
A. BTU
denser it goes from to
B. Centigrade
A. a Vapor to a Liquid
C. Rankin B. a Liquid to a Vapor
D. Celsius C. Low pressure Vapor to a low pressure
68. Which of the following would be carried- vapor
out to confirm a system contained no re- D. High pressure liquid to a low pressure
frigerant? liquid

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2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine 262

73. It condenses the refrigerant vapor to liquid A. Low-pressure refrigerant vapor into
A. Condensor hot, high temperature vapor

B. Compressor B. High-pressure refrigerant vapor into

high-temperature, low temperature liquid
C. Evaporator
C. Low-pressure refrigerant liquid into
D. Expansion Valve hot, high temperature vapor
74. The total pressure exerted by the mixture D. Low-pressure refrigerant liquid into

NARAYAN CHANGDER
of air and water vapour is equal to the sum hot, high temperature liquid
of pressures which each constituent would
exert, if it occupied the same space by it- 79. What is the relative humidity for a satu-
self. This statement is called rated air?

A. Kinetic theory of gases A. 0%

B. Newton’s law of gases B. 50%

C. Dalton’s law of partial pressures C. 100%

D. Avogadro’s hypothesis D. cannot say

75. Sensible heat factor is given by (where 80. to?

S.H. = Sensible Heat and L.H. = Latent A. The process by which refrigerant is re-
Heat) cycled to remove impurities.
A. S.H/(S.H + L.H) B. Mobile refrigeration units.
B. (S.H + L.H) /S.H C. The process by which refrigerant
C. (L.H-S.H)/S.H moves through a compressor.
D. S.H/(L.H-S.H) D. The process by which circulating re-
frigerant absorbs heat in one location and
76. Critical temperature is the temperature moves it to another location.
above which
81. The sensible cooling process on the psy-
A. A gas will never liquefy chrometric chart is shown by
B. A gas will immediately liquefy A. horizontal line
C. Water will evaporate B. vertical line
D. Water will never evaporate C. inclined line
77. During humidification process remains D. curved
constant.
82. A refrigerating system operating on re-
A. relative humidity
versed Brayton refrigeration cycle is used
B. dry bulb temperature for maintaining 250 K. If the temperature
C. dew point temperature at the end of constant pressure cooling is
300 K and rise in the temperature of air
D. wet bulb temperature in the refrigerator is 50 K, then the net
78. The two major functions of the compres- work of compression will be (assume air
sor are to circulate refrigerant and to com- as working substance with Cp = 1 kJ/kg)
press A. 25 kJ/kg

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2.1 Basics of Refrigerating Machine 263

B. 50 kJ/kg C. 3 kW
C. 100 kJ/kg D. 2 kW

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. 125 kJ/kg 88. The coefficient of performance is always
83. What is the function of the condenser in one
the cool mode? A. Equal to
A. Reject heat. B. less than
B. Absorb heat. C. Greater than
C. Mix the refrigerant. D. None of the above
D. Store refrigerant. 89. What is the value of optimum effective
temperature in winter?
84. Which of the following refrigerant is highly
toxic and flammable A. 17
A. Ammonia B. 18
B. Carbon dioxide C. 19
C. Sulphur dioxide D. 20
D. Freon-12 90. Which of the following will cause the com-
pressor work harder?
85. During sensible cooling of air remains
constant. A. High suction pressure
A. dew point temperature B. Low suction pressure
B. specific humidity C. Low charge
C. dry bulb temperature D. Low load
D. both A and B 91. Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) refrigerants con-
tain:
86. What is the job of the expansion device?
A. chlorine, fluorine and carbon
A. begin changing liquid into vapor by cre-
ating a pressure drop B. chlorine, fluorine and hydrogen
B. begin subcooling liquid by warming the C. hydrogen, chlorine and carbon
vapor D. hydrogen, fluorine and carbon
C. begin superheating vapor by cooling 92. What is the compressor known as?
the liquid
A. The heart of the system.
D. maintaining a constant pressure from
the high side to the low side B. The leg of the system.
C. The control system.
87. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot
cycle has a C.O.P. of 5. It works as a re- D. The air system.
frigerator taking 1 kW of work input. The 93. In a typical system, within which compo-
refrigerating effect will be nent would the evaporation of refrigerant
A. 1 kW take place?
B. 4 kW A. Condenser

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 2.2 Refrigeration Cycles and systems 264

B. Receiver dryer 98. The highest temperature during the cycle,

C. Evaporator in a vapour compression system, occures
after
D. Compressor
A. Compression
94. What is the function of the compressor?
B. Condensation
A. create refrigerant..
C. Expansion
B. Create pressure.
D. Evaporation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. create a pressure drop
D. Heat exchanger 99. The simple air cooling system is good for
flight speeds
95. The condition of refrigerant after passing
through the condenser in a vapour com- A. low
pression system is B. high
A. Saturated liquid C. ground level
B. Wet vapour D. sliding
C. Dry saturated vapour
D. Superheated vapour 100. Below is the main component of refriger-
ation system EXCEPT:
96. The humidification process on the psychro- A. Compressor
metric chart is shown by
B. Evaporator
A. horizontal line
B. vertical line C. Condenser

C. inclined line D. Pump

D. curved 101. When leaving the compressor what state
97. What is the function of the Meter device is the refrigerant in?
or txv? A. High Pressure, High Temperature gas
A. Heat Exchanger. B. High Pressure, High Temperature liq-
B. A safety device. uid
C. Create more Pressure. C. Low Pressure, low Temperature gas
D. Create a pressure drop. D. Low Pressure, low Temperature gas

2.2 Refrigeration Cycles and systems

1. Subcooled high pressured liquid refrigerant D. liquid line
below saturation temperature travels to
the metering device through the 2. It is the brain of the refrigeration system

A. suction line
A. Thermostat
B. discharge line B. Digital Panel
C. hot gas line C. Expansion Valve

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2.2 Refrigeration Cycles and systems 265

D. Compressor 8. The refrigerant enters the evaporator with

approximately % liquid and % va-
3. What is the state of the refrigerant leav- por.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

ing the metering device in a refrigerator?
A. 50, 50
A. 50 percent liquid and 50 percent vapor
B. 60, 30
B. 25 percent liquid and 75 percent vapor
C. 80, 20
C. 25 percent vapor and 75 percent liquid
D. 90, 10
D. 100 percent liquid
9. What is the state of the refrigerant enter-
4. THE LINE BETWEEN THE EVAPORATOR ing the compressor?
AND THE COMPRESSOR IS THE? ? ? ?
? ? ? ? LINE A. High pressure, high temperature, 100
percent superheated vapor
A. liquid line
B. High pressure, high temperature, 100
B. suction line percent subcooled liquid
C. discharge line C. Low pressure, low temperature, 100
D. none of above percent superheated vapor
D. Low pressure, low temperature, 100
5. For an expansion device, which of the fol-
percent subcooled liquid
lowing is true?
A. it regulates the flow of refrigerant to 10. Hot air , cool air
evaporator A. falls, rises
B. it increases the pressure of refriger- B. stagnates, drops
ant
C. rises, falls
C. none of the mentioned
D. drops, stagnates
D. none of above
11. What is the Function of Condenser in an AC
6. Which of the following statements are Refrigeration Cycle?
true about the restriction in the refriger-
A. Compresses the gas to ensure circula-
ation cycle?
tion
A. It is also known as a metering device
B. Reduces the temperature of the refrig-
B. It restricts the liquid refrigerant flow erant
C. It creates a pressure difference be- C. Converts gas into liquid
tween itself and the evaporator D. Absorbs heat from the room
D. It is the last component in the cycle.
12. The process of keeping an item below
7. In a vapor compression cycle, low temper- room temperature by storing the item in
ature, low pressure, and slightly super- a system or substance designed to cool or
heated vapor enters the freeze.
A. metering device A. AUTOMOTIVE
B. evaporator B. REFRIGERATION
C. compressor C. AIR-CONDITION
D. condenser D. none of above

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2.2 Refrigeration Cycles and systems 266

13. Any additional heat added to the vapor ex- 19. Low temperature, low pressure, super-
iting the evaporator is called heat. heated gas enters the compressor through
A. super the

B. latent A. liquid line

C. sensible B. hot gas line

D. none of above C. discharge line

D. suction line

NARAYAN CHANGDER
14. In the evaporator, refrigerant will
start to boil absorbing the heat from the 20. The causes a reduction in pressure in
medium being cooled. the vapor compression cycle, therefore a
A. low pressure, low temperature reduction in the saturated temperature.
B. high pressure, high temperature A. compressor
C. low pressure, high temperature B. condenser
D. high pressure, low temperature C. evaporator

15. Which of the following is likely to cause D. metering device

washed bearings in a compressor?
21. What is the condenser function?
A. lack of lubrication
A. converts the liquid phase into ad-
B. Overheating vanced hot steam
C. Flooded start B. Lowering pressure
D. Open capacitor C. boost the stress
16. The icebox cooled food down by natural D. change the hot steam phase further
into liquid
A. conduction 22. What is the function of metering device in
B. convection an AC refrigeration cycle?
C. radiation A. increasing pressure
D. none of above B. dropping pressure

17. Is the phase refrigerant when entering the C. increasing temperature

compressor? D. none of above
A. High pressure, high temperature and
100 23. A is a device in a process used to
turn the liquid form of a chemical sub-
18. The heart of the system of the refrigera- stance such as water into its gaseous-
tion cycle form/vapor.
A. Condenser A. Compressor
B. Compressor B. Condenser
C. Expansion Valve C. Evaporator
D. Evaporator D. Expansion Valve

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2.2 Refrigeration Cycles and systems 267

24. The COMPRESSORS MAIN JOB is what? ? C. 100 percent superheated vapor
? D. 100 percent subcooled liquid

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. To compress liquid
30. What is the temperature of the line at the
B. To create a pressure change outlet of the expansion device if you touch
C. To meter the flow of refrigerant it?
D. none of above A. Warm
B. Cold
25. the CONDENSERS MAIN FUNCTION is
what? ? ? C. Cool
A. To reject heat D. Very Warm/Hot
B. To absorb heat 31. What is the function of Evaporator in an
C. To create a pressure change AC refrigeration cycle?
D. none of above A. Absorbs heat from the room
B. Compresses gas
26. is the process of gas becoming liquid .
C. Reduces temperature of refrigerant
A. Expansion Valve
D. Reduces temperature of refrigerant
B. Condenser
32. Super heated vapor is temperature above
C. Compressor
saturation; usually this is degrees
D. Evaporator Fahrenheit.
27. the EVAPORATORS MAIN FUNCTION is A. 5
what? ? ? B. 10
A. to compress liquid C. 11
B. to reject heat D. 12
C. to absorb heat 33. Is the phase refrigerant when leaving the
D. none of above compressor?
A. Steam-saturated vapor
28. In the evaporator, the refrigerant is ab-
sorbing heat. There is no change in B. 100 % high pressure, high tempera-
temperature, but a change of state will oc- ture, advanced hot steam
cur, liquid to vapor. C. 100 % low pressure, low temperature,
A. latent liquid
B. super D. 100 % of high pressure, high tempera-
ture, liquid
C. sensible
D. none of above 34. What state is the refrigerant in when leav-
ing the compressor?
29. What is the state of the refrigerant leav- A. 100 percent Low Pressure, low tem-
ing the evaporator? perature, superheated vapor
A. 100 percent liquid B. 100 percent High Pressure, high tem-
B. 50 percent liquid and 50 percent vapor perature, superheated vapor

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2.2 Refrigeration Cycles and systems 268

C. 100 percent Low Pressure, low tem- 40. In a vapor compression cycle, refrigerant
perature subcooled Liquid that is high temperature, high pressure,
D. 100 percent High Pressure, high tem- and very highly superheated enters the
perature subcooled Liquid
A. metering device
35. What is the temperature of the suction line
if you touch it? B. evaporator
A. Warm C. compressor

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Cold D. condenser
C. Cool
41. It removes pressure from the liquid re-
D. Very Warm/Hot frigerant to allow expansion or change of
state from a liquid to a vapor in the evap-
36. The refrigerant travels through the distrib- orator.
utor line to the evaporator as a with
flash gas. A. Evaporator
A. high pressure saturated liquid B. Compressor
B. low pressure saturated liquid C. Condenser
C. low pressure saturated vapor D. Expansion Valve
D. high pressure saturated vapor
42. Low charge can be seen in readings as
37. What is the phase refrigerant when he ?
died evaporator? A. High superheat
A. 100 % liquid B. Low superheat
B. 50 % Liquid and 50 % Steam C. High subcooling
C. 100 % of continued hot steam
D. none of above
D. 100 % Liquid
43. At the metering device, approximately
38. The area between the valve plate and the % of the liquid refrigerant will be flashed
top of the piston at top dead center is to a gas.
?
A. 10
A. Discharge valve
B. 15
B. Suction valve
C. 20
C. Clearance volume
D. 5
D. Wrist pin

39. What is the temperature of the liquid line 44. A high evaporator TD will be reflected as
if you touch it? ?
A. Warm A. A cold box
B. Cold B. A warm box
C. Cool C. high Rh%
D. Very Warm/Hot D. low Rh%

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2.2 Refrigeration Cycles and systems 269

45. What does velocity mean? C. absorbs heat at a much higher temper-
A. carbon dioxide ature
D. rejects heat at a much higher temper-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. speed
ature
C. refrigerant
D. none of above 51. THE LINE BETWEEN THE METERING DE-
VICE AND THE EVAPORATOR IS THE? ? ?
46. What is the function of condenser in an AC ? ? ? ? ? LINE
refrigeration cycle?
A. Expansion line
A. reduces the temperature of the refrig-
B. suction line
erant
C. liquid line
B. absorbs heat
D. none of above
C. converts gas into liquid
D. none of above 52. High charge can be seen in readings as
?
47. High head pressure may be caused by
A. High subcooling
?
B. Low superheat
A. Low load
C. High superheat
B. Low charge
D. Both a and b
C. Failed evaporator fan motor
D. Debris in the condenser 53. What is the function of Compressor in an
AC refrigeration cycle?
48. We can say that a equals heat rejecter.
A. Absorbs heat from the room
A. evaporator
B. Compresses gas to ensure circulation
B. condenser
C. Reduces temperature of refrigerant
C. compressor
D. Converts gas into liquid
D. none of above
54. The METERING DEVICES main job IS
49. What is the function of the Expansion WHAT? ? ? ? ?
Valve?
A. To meter the flow of refrigerant
A. change the liquid phase to steam by
B. To absorb heat
lowering pressure
C. To reject heat
B. Cool liquid
D. none of above
C. converted hot steam to liquid
D. keep the pressure constant in terms of 55. What are the 4 main components in a re-
high pressure to low pressure frigeration system?
A. Evaporator, Compressor, TXV, Meter-
50. The refrigeration cycle is a thermal dy-
ing Device
namic sequence where refrigerant (se-
lect the two answers that apply) B. Accumulator, Metering Device, TXV,
Compressor
A. rejects heat at a relatively low temper-
ature C. Condenser, Metering device, Evapora-
tor, Compressor
B. absorbs heat at a relatively low tem-
perature D. none of above

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 2.3 Refrigerants 270

2.3 Refrigerants
1. Where do you measure the temperature 6. Refrigerant Blends are mixtures of estab-
for calculating subcooling? lished refrigerants. How many separate
A. the liquid line refrigerants are needed to make a refrig-
erant blend?
B. the suction line
A. one
C. the cap tube

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. two or more
D. the compressor discharge line
C. three or more
2. Fractionation occurs when D. four or more
A. some of a blended refrigerant evapo-
7. If the required charge level of refrigerant
rates or condenses before the rest of the
for an MVAC system is 40 ounces, which
blend
of these is the correct charge level mea-
B. when only a fraction of the total charge sured in pounds
has been added to a system A. 1.75 lb
C. the operating pressures of a system in- B. 2.50 lb
crease
C. 3.75 lb
D. both a and c
D. 4.50 lb
3. What kind of tubing are used in evapora-
8. Compared to compression systems, ab-
tor coil inside the refrigerator?
sorption systems offer the benefits of
A. Aluminum
A. Higher COPs
B. Copper
B. Lower refrigeration temperatures
C. Flexible Hose
C. Possibility of using low-grade energy
D. Stainless Steel sources
4. Which of the following refrigerants are D. All of the above
suggested as replacements for R22 in 9. A wet bulb temperature will be than a
large air conditioning and cold storage sys- dry bulb reading?
tems?
A. higher
A. R134a
B. lower
B. R21
C. the same
C. R410A
D. none of the above
D. R407C
10. If 22 oz. of refrigerant are to be added
5. R32 and R410A has what gas? to a refrigeration system and the supply
A. HCFC cylinder weighs 24 lb. 12 oz. before
any is added, what will be the supply
B. HFC cylinder weight after the system has been
C. CFC charged?
D. HC A. 22 lb. 12 oz.

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2.3 Refrigerants 271

B. 22 lb. 10 oz. 16. Technician A says that R-744 refrigerant

C. 22 lb. 8 oz. is accepted by the EPA as an alternative
for retrofit.Technician B says that R-134a

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. 23 lb. 6 oz. refrigerant is accepted by the EPA as an
11. For the refrigernat R134a, ‘a’ stands for: alternative for retrofit. Who is right?
A. isomers A. A only
B. Epimers B. B only
C. isotopes C. Both A and B
D. Derivation D. Neither A nor B
12. where do you measure temperature to cal- 17. If 620grams of refrigerant are to be added
culate superheat? to a refrigeration system and the sup-
A. the liquid line ply cylinder weighs 11.22kg before any
B. the cap tube is added, what will be the supply cylin-
der weight after the system has been
C. the suction line
charged?
D. the compressor discharge line
A. 10.31kg
13. Where does the lowest temperature occur B. 10.26kg
in a vapour compression cycle?
C. 10.20kg
A. Compressor
D. 10.6kg
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator 18. A wet bulb and a dry bulb temperature
D. Expansion valve reading can give you ?
A. Relative humidity
14. All refrigerants fall into types. They are
CFC’s, HCFC’s, HFC’s, HC’s, HFO’s and In- B. Absolute humidity
organic. Check the TWO refrigerants be- C. Adiabatic humidity
low that are in the CFC category
D. Wind speed
A. R-22
B. R-410A 19. Which of the following refrigerants are
phased-out due to Montreal protocol on
C. R-12 ozone layer depletion-
D. R-600a
A. R11
E. R-11
B. R21
15. HFO refrigerants are a newer category C. R12
that currently is being used in auto A/C
systems. Which of the refrigerants listed D. R32
below is a HFO?
20. Before a container of stored recycled re-
A. R-12 frigerant is used, the container must be
B. R-134a checked for:
C. R-22 A. gross weight
D. R-1234yf B. non-condensable gases

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2.3 Refrigerants 272

C. moisture contamination 25. Identify odd word

D. DOT approval A. R11

21. Technician A says that SAE standard J639 B. R12

spells out details for system design, imple- C. Rose 1
mentation, and service.Technician B says
D. R134a
that SAE standard J639 specifies refriger-
ant fitting types and sizes for each refrig- 26. Which of these is a flammable refrigerant,

NARAYAN CHANGDER
erant Who is right? unacceptable under SNAP as a substitute
A. A only for CFC-12
B. B only A. HC-12A
C. Both A and B B. R406A
D. Niether A nor B C. R-176
D. GHG-X4
22. The sub-cooling method of charging a sys-
tem is used on and systems with 27. R-134a refrigerant must be recycled to
TEV metering devices. meet which of these purity standards?
A. chillers and freezer A. J2788
B. heat pump and air conditioning
B. Dot-4ba
C. refrigerator and freezer
C. J1991
D. ice machines and water cooler
D. J2099
23. Which of the following statements are
28. The R numbers assigned to refrigerants by
TRUE?
ASHRAE designate the chemical classifica-
A. The suction pressure of a refrigerant tion of said refrigerant. For example R-
should be as high as possible 717 is an inorganic refrigeration classifi-
B. The suction pressure of a refrigerant cation. Select the R number for zeotropic
should be as low as possible refrigerant blends

C. The discharge pressure of a refriger- A. 700

ant should be as high as possible B. 300
D. The discharge pressure of a refriger- C. 500
ant should be as low as possible
D. 400
24. Device that restricts the flow of refriger- E. 200
ant based on the temperature of the re-
frigerant leaving the evap coil. 29. What is the ODP of R32?
A. AXV A. 0
B. TXV B. 0.055
C. Capillary Tube C. 1.0
D. Piston D. none of above

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2.3 Refrigerants 273

30. The refrigerant widely used in domestic re- 36. In aqua-ammonia and Lithium-bromide wa-
frigerators is ter absorption refrigeration systems, the
refrigerants are respectively

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Ammonia
B. Carbon Dioxide A. water and water
C. R-134a B. water and lithium bromide
D. Sulphur Dioxide C. ammonia and water
D. ammonia and lithium bromide
31. Requirements for recovery/recycling/recharging
equipment for R1234yf refrigerant are set 37. Inorganic compounds are
by SAE standard: A. 500 series
A. J1990 B. 200 series
B. J2788 C. 700 series
C. J2843 D. 1000 series
D. J2209
38. Which of the following takes a dry bulb
32. R717 is refrigerant name for reading?
A. Water A. The thermostat in your house.
B. Carbon dioxide B. The thermometer out on a porch.
C. Ammonia C. the temperature reading you take to
D. Air find superheat.
D. All of the above.
33. State of the refrigerant leaving the cond.
coil 39. SAE standard J2099 specifies that the
A. HPHT vapor maximum level of non-condensable gases
in recycled r-134a should not exceed:
B. LPLT vapor
A. 0.5% by volume
C. HPHT liquid
B. 1.0% by volume
D. LPLT liquid
C. 1.5% by volume
34. The chemical formula of R141 is: D. 2.0% by volume
A. C2H3ClF3
40. When vapor charging a refrigeration sys-
B. C2H2Cl3F tem with a near-azeotropic mixture, what
C. C2H3Cl2F must be done to prevent liquid from enter-
D. C2H2ClF3 ing the system?
A. Charge only as a vapor through the
35. A container of recycled R-134a refrigerant high side.
that is being tested for non-condensable
gases (air) should be: B. Charge only liquid through the high
side.
A. chilled to 45 degrees
C. Charge as a liquid through the low side
B. stored out of direct sunlight using a restrictor.
C. heated to 95 F D. Charge as a vapor through the low side
D. stored for less than 6 hours using a resistor.

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2.3 Refrigerants 274

41. Technician A says that it is OK to use a 46. Technician a says that sunlight striking
disposable refrigerant tank to store recy- CFC molecules can cause chlorine to be
cled refrigerant.Technician B says that it is released.Technician B says that chlorine
OK to fill an approved refrigerant tank to atoms react with ozone to produce chlorine
70% of its gross weight rating. monoxide.Who is right?
A. A only A. A only
B. B only B. B only

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Both A and B C. Both A and B

D. Neither A and B D. Neither A nor B

47. CFC based refrigerants are being replaced

42. What do we call it when a portion of a 400
as they are found to
series, blended refrigerant evaporates or
condenses before the rest of the blend A. Cause ozone layer depletion
A. homogenization B. Consume more energy

B. multiplication C. React with several materials of con-

struction
C. fractionization
D. Expensive
D. reclamation
48. The most common tubing used in refriger-
43. Refrigerant is measured into a system by ation and air-conditioning is made of
and A. Copper
A. cubic feet and cubic yards B. Plastic
B. pounds and tons C. Wood
C. bushels and buckets D. Zin
D. pounds and ounces 49. The state of the refrigerant in the dis-
charge line
44. Which of the following refrigerants is a
blend? A. LPLT liquid
A. R-134a B. LPLT Vapor

B. R-22 C. HPHT Liquid

D. HPHT Vapor
C. R-410a
D. none of the above 50. Identyfy odd word
A. R500
45. The reduction of ozone in the stratosphere
could cause: B. Raj 17
C. R118
A. an increase in skin cancer and eye
cataracts D. R744
B. an increase in plant life growth. 51. TEWI stands for
C. an increase in the earth’s polar ice. A. Total Energy Work Interaction
D. an increase in marine life growth. B. Total Equivalent Warming Index

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2.3 Refrigerants 275

C. Total Equivalent Work Index A. R-507A

D. Transfer of Energy With Intensity B. R-134a

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

52. Liquid refrigerant should never enter the C. R-404A
D. R-22
A. Evaporator E. R-500
B. Compressor 58. ODP value of R11 is
C. metering device A. 0
D. condenser B. 1
53. Secondary refrigerants are also called as C. 2
A. Coolers D. 3
B. Brines 59. Technicians servicing an MVAC system
C. Wines should do any of these EXCEPT:
D. Synthetic Solutions A. store refrigerant in a disposable con-
tainer
54. The chemical formula of refrigerant R11 is: B. wear safety glasses
A. CCl3F C. avoid direct contact with the refriger-
B. CClF3 ant
C. CClHF D. working a well-ventilated area
D. CHF 60. The freon group of refrigerants are
55. Refrigerant in liquid form is normally put A. halo-carbon refrigerants
into the system through the B. azeotrope refrigerants
A. liquid line C. inorganic refrigerants
B. suction line D. hydro-carbon refrigerants
C. hot gas line
61. Zeotropes are refrigerant blends that con-
D. liquid return line tain refrigerants that respond quite differ-
ently due to the range of boiling and con-
56. The recovery process on an R-12 or R-
densing points. Of the refrigerants listed
134a A/C system should continue until a
below, select the zeotropic mixture.
stable vacumm is held by the system for:
A. R-22
A. 1 minute
B. R-11
B. 2 minutes.
C. R-401A
C. 4 minutes.
D. R-134a
D. 5 minutes.
62. R-1234yf refrigerant has a global warn-
57. Azeotropes are refrigerant blends that be- ing potential (GWP) of:
have like a single refrigerant compound.
Of the refrigerants listed below, select the A. 1.
TWO azeotropic mixtures B. 4.

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2.3 Refrigerants 276

C. 124 SNAP policy. Check the TWO refrigerants

D. 1430 below that are HC’s
A. R-290
63. A refrigerant should have and Se-
B. R-600a
lect the correct TWO choices.
C. R-410A
A. High ODP
D. R-22
B. High GWP
E. R-502

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Low ODP
D. Low GWP 68. What will happen to a system with a bad
cond. fan?
64. In a compound compression refrigeration A. The compressor will freeze
system, the compression of refrigerant is
carried out in compressor B. The system will work properly just
have to work harder.
A. Single
C. The refrigerant will not change state
B. Multiple from a vapor to a liquid
C. Both D. The refrigerant will not change from a
D. None liquid to a vapor.

65. If 0.85kg of refrigerant are to be added 69. When service equipment hoses with man-
to a refrigeration system and the sup- ual shutoff valves are not connected to an
ply cylinder weighs 11.9kg before any A/C system, the valves should be in the:
is added, what will the supply cylin- A. mid-seated position
der weigh after the system has been
charged? B. back-seated position
C. closed position
A. 10.20kg
D. open position
B. 11.05kg
C. 11.11kg 70. Recovery equipment for R-134a refriger-
ant must meet standards set by:
D. 10.09kg
A. SAE
66. Azeotropic mixtures are
B. UL/ETL
A. 100 series C. EPA
B. 500 series D. DOT
C. 400 series
71. In absorption refrigeration systems, the
D. 1000 series compressor of vapour compression sys-
tems is replaced by
67. HC refrigerants are hydrocarbons that
are derived from petroleum and natural A. Absorber
gas. In the past, these refrigerants were B. Generator
banned for use in the US, but because of
their low environmental impact, HC’s have C. Pump
been approved for use under the EPA’s D. All of the above

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2.3 Refrigerants 277

72. A technician who successfully completes 77. Compared to compression systems, ab-
the training and certification in an EPA- sorption systems
approved Section 609 program can legally

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Contain very few moving parts
service MVAC systems that use any of
these refrigerants EXCEPT: B. Offer less noise and vibration
A. R-22 C. Are compact for large capacities
B. R-12 D. All of above
C. R-1234yf 78. Using intercooling in multi-stage compres-
D. R-134a sion systems
A. Refrigeration effect can be increased
73. What is the GWP of R32?
B. Work of compression in higher stage
A. 675
compressor can be reduced
B. 1774
C. Maximum cycle temperature can be in-
C. 1810 creased
D. 2088 D. All of the above
74. The refrigerant, commonly used in vapour 79. Refrigeration system with liquid subcooler
absorption system is is used to
A. Ammonia A. Prevent the entry of liquid into com-
B. Water pressor
C. Halocarbon B. Prevent flashing of refrigerant liquid
D. Hydrocarbon ahead of low stage expansion device

E. Ammonia & Water C. Reduce work of compression

D. None of the above
75. Alternative refrigerants use a unique set
of service fittings that 80. For obtaining high Coefficient of Perfor-
A. prevent accidental mixing of refriger- mance, the pressure range of compressor
ants should be
B. are easier to locate A. Any value
C. prevent accidental B. High
D. are most cost effective C. Low
D. Optimum
76. Select the TWO correct environmental im-
pacts that are measured by the EPA for re- 81. You should operate a system at least
frigerants. minutes before taking any pressure or tem-
A. Rising sea levels perature readings.
B. Ground level pollution A. 35
C. Global Warming Potential B. 5
D. Deforestation C. 15
E. Ozone Depletion Potential D. 27

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2.3 Refrigerants 278

82. If a critically charged refrigeration system B. evacuated into a recovery/recycling

is over charged, which of the following is machine
a likely result? C. flushed with R-152a refrigerant
A. increased cooling capacity D. flushed with R-134a refrigerant
B. reduced compressor discharge tem-
87. The ODP Value for R134a is
perature
A. 0
C. increased system efficiency

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 1
D. increased operating pressures
C. 2
83. In multi-stage systems D. 3
A. The refrigerant used should have high
critical temperature and low freezing 88. Why should R-410a be charged out of the
point cylinder as a liquid?
A. Because it is more accurate.
B. There is a possibility of migration of lu-
bricating oil from one compressor to other B. because it is a blended refrigerant that
fractionates a little bit as a vapor.
C. Operating pressures can be too high
or too low C. because it is a single compound refrig-
erant.
D. All of the above
D. because it is an HFC refrigerant.
84. Which of the following describes an
azeotropic blend best? 89. Ammonia is one of the oldest refrigerants,
which is still used widely, because
A. A mixture of two or more refrigerants
that act as a single refrigerant. A. It offers excellent performance

B. A mixture of three refrigerants that B. It is a natural refrigerant

have a temperature glide. C. It is inexpensive
C. A mixture of compounds that result in D. All of the above
fractionation.
90. The component responsible for absorbing
D. A single compound, HCFC refrigerant. heat and changing liquid refrigerant to a
vapor.
85. When charging a system with vapor refrig-
erant from a refrigerant cylinder, the cylin- A. Evap.
der will become B. Cond.
A. colder C. Comp.
B. hot D. Metering Device.
C. the same temperature as the ambient 91. Refrigerant in vapor form is normally put
air into the system through the
D. warm A. liquid line
86. Empty disposable R-134a refrigerant con- B. suction line
tainers should be C. hot gas line
A. disposed of according to J2196 D. liquid return line

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2.3 Refrigerants 279

92. In the Aqua-Ammonia vapour absorption 97. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the
system, which is used as absorbent tubes of a shell and tube condenser are
made of

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Aqua
A. copper
B. Ammonia
B. aluminum
C. Air
C. steel
D. None of above
D. brass
93. Servicing MVAC system on hybrid and elec-
tric vehicles requires: 98. A refrigerant should have
A. An electronic leak detector dedication A. High ODP
to hybrid electric vehicle MVAC systems B. High GWP
B. Following J1989 for refrigerant recov- C. Low ODP
ery D. Low GWP
C. service fittings specially design for hy-
brid and electric vehicle MVAC systems. 99. Which of these identifies a cylinder of
R1234yf refrigerant?
D. Special service procedures to disable
the high voltage system prior to service A. White
B. Gray
94. When charging liquid refrigerant from a
single valve supply cylinder, the cylinder C. Light Blue
is placed D. White with red band
A. upside down 100. Multicompression vapour refrigeration
B. right side up systems are used when
C. on its side A. Required temperature lift increases
D. in any position B. Required temperature lift decreases
C. Refrigeration is required at different
95. The ozone layer filters out most of the temperatures
sun’s harmful:
D. Required refrigeration capacity is
A. Infrared radiation. large
B. Ultraviolet radiation
101. Technician A says that anyone servicing
C. Gamma radiation MVAC system for hire must be trained and
D. Alpha radiation certifiedTechnician B says that each piece
of refrigerant handling equipment that is
96. When different temperatures are to be used to service motor vehicle air condition-
maintained at different points then ers must be approved and certifiedWho is
evaporator system may be used right?
A. Single A. A only
B. Multiple B. B only
C. Both C. Both A and B
D. None D. Neither A nor B

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2.3 Refrigerants 280

102. Compared to compression systems, the C. HPHT Liquid

performance of absorption systems
D. HPHT vapor
A. Is very sensitive to evaporator temper-
ature 108. Electronic leak detectors for R-1234yf
B. Is not sensitive to load variations should meet:
C. Does depend very much on evaporator A. J2297
superheat
B. J2298

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All of the above
C. J2913
103. R-1234yf is a preferred refrigerant over
D. J1628
R-134a because
A. R1234yf is highly flammable 109. Technician A says that recov-
B. R-1234yf has a high GWP ery/recycling/recharging equipment for
R1234yf refrigerant requires integration
C. R-1234yf depletes the ozone layer
with a refrigerant identifier.Technician B
D. R-1234yf has a low GWP says that recovery/recycling/recharging
equipment for R1234yf refrigerant uses a
104. The line between the condenser coil and
17mm O.D. quick coupler on the low side
metering device is known as:
service hose.Who is right?
A. Suction Line
A. A only
B. Water Line
B. B only
C. Discharge Line
D. Liquid Line C. Both A and B
D. Niether A nor B
105. A process of altering the properties of air
to more favorable conditions.
110. Which is the three fluid vapour absorp-
A. Air-condition tion system?
B. Automotive
A. Aqua-Ammonia
C. Refrigeration
B. LiBr-Aqua
D. Welding
C. Electrolux
106. The tubing intended for refrigeration and
air conditioning installation should be D. Kelvinator

A. Clean and dry 111. In a three fluid vapour absorption refrig-

B. Moisturized eration system, the hydrogen gas is used
C. Oily to

D. Wet A. Improve system performance

107. The state of the refrigerant in the suction B. Reduce the partial pressure of refrig-
line? erant in evaporator

A. LPLT Liquid C. Circulate the refrigerant

B. LPLT Vapor D. Provide a vapour seal

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2.3 Refrigerants 281

112. The reference gas used in calculation of 116. Absorption of the refrigerant by the ab-
ODP is: sorbent in a vapour absorption refrigera-
tion system is accompanied by

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. CO2
A. Absorption of heat
B. CFC
B. Release of heat
C. NO2
C. No thermal effects
D. Hydrocarbons D. Reduction in volume

113. The EPA allows the use of R134a 117. When doing a liquid charge, the compres-
recovery-only equipment provided that sor must be ?
the: A. running, in a vacuum
A. equipment meets J2810 standards B. not running, in a vacuum
B. equipment meets J1991 standards C. pressurized with nitrogen
C. recovered refrigerant is stored below D. be at 0 PSIG
120 F 118. Which of the following refrigerants re-
D. recovered refrigerant is stored in a place R12 in domestic refrigerators?
white container A. R22
B. R11
114. A recycled refrigerant container has been
checked and found to be above the given C. R134a
pressure limit for the ambient tempera- D. R141b
ture.Technician A:Says that the refriger-
ant container should be placed in a cooler 119. When should you weight a refrigerant
strage area before use.Technician B:Says cylinder?
that the vapor in the container should be A. At the start of your work shift
slowly vented into a refrigerant handling B. when the cylinder is brand new to
unit.Who is right? make sure it is full
A. A only C. when you are done charging for the
B. B only day
D. both before and after charging an ap-
C. Both A and B
pliance
D. Neither A or B
120. If 30 oz. of refrigerant are to be added
115. Technician A says that R-1234yf may to a refrigeration system and the sup-
be used to retrofit an R-134a sys- ply cylinder weighs 26 lb. 4 oz. be-
tem.Technician B says that R-1234yf is an fore any is added, what will the supply
ozone-depleting gas.Who is right? cylinder weigh after the system has been
charged?
A. A only
A. 22 lb. 8 oz.
B. B only B. 24 lb. 6 oz.
C. Both A and B C. 24 lb. 8 oz.
D. Neither A and B D. 22 lb. 4 oz.

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 2.4 Refrigerant Compressors 282

121. What will happen to a system with a B. The flow of current

blocked return air filter? C. The flow of refrigerant
A. The evap. coil will freeze
D. The temperature
B. The refrigerant won’t be cooled in the
condenser coil. 123. Charging a refrigeration system refers to
C. The metering device will become re-
stricted A. removing refrigerant from a system

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Nothing, the system will work fine. B. adding refrigerant to a system
122. A capillary tube will control C. cleaning the refrigerant
A. Electricity D. vaporizing the refrigerant

2.4 Refrigerant Compressors

1. The part of the reciprocating compressor valid comparison based only on evapora-
which may be made of either cast iron, cast tor and condenser temperatures.
aluminum or fabricated steel is the D. The 0 degree evaporator, because of
A. valve plate the higher pressure difference.
B. ring plate 4. Which compressor type draws refrigerant
C. volute gas in through the inlet port into voids cre-
D. crankcase ated by turning rotors?
A. A scroll compressor
2. A compressor that compresses gas be-
tween a fixed spiral and an orbiting spiral B. A rotary compressor
is a: C. A reciprocating compressor
A. Rotary Compressor D. A screw compressor
B. Scroll Compressor
5. How can hermetic compressors be charac-
C. Centrifugal Compressor terized.
D. Screw Compressor A. They have a welded shell with a shaft
that connects to an external motor.
3. Assuming they both have the same con-
denser temperature, which application re- B. They have a welded shell, which holds
quires more horsepower to produce a of both the compressor and motor.
cooling:0 degrees evaporator, or a 40 de- C. They have a bolted housing that en-
gree evaporator? closes both the compressor and motor.
A. The 40 degree evaporator, because of D. They have a shaft that connects to an
its higher pressure. external motor.
B. The horse power requirement per ton
of cooling is not affected by the evapora- 6. Refrigeration needs on trucks, tractor trail-
tor temperature. ers, and shipping containers are met by.

C. The horsepower requirement is too A. Screw compressors.

complicated a calculation to make any B. Centrifugal compressors.

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2.4 Refrigerant Compressors 283

C. Open-drive compressors. 11. The small gaps between the screws on the
D. Scroll compressors. screw compressor are sealed by:

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

7. Rotary compressors are commonly used in: A. The malleable metal the screws are
made of.
A. Window units.
B. Tip seals.
B. Commercial refrigeration systems.
C. Chillers. C. Oil flooding
D. Large central split systems. D. Rings on the end of the rotors
8. How does a reciprocating compressor op-
12. Which of the following is True of a medium-
erate?
temperature refrigeration unit?
A. In a reciprocating compressor, the pis-
ton remains stationary in the cylinder be- A. It requires 1 hp to produce 1-1/3 tons
tween the connecting rod and crankshaft. of cooling.

B. In a reciprocating compressor, the pis- B. It requires 1 hp to produce 1 ton of

ton is moved side to side in a cylinder by cooling.
the connecting rod and crankshaft. C. It requires 1 hp to produce 1/3 ton of
C. In a reciprocating compressor, the pis- cooling.
ton is moved in every direction around
the cylinder by the connecting rod and D. It requires 1 hp to produce 2/3 ton of
crankshaft. cooling.

D. In a reciprocating compressor, the pis- 13. All refrigeration compressors are designed
ton is driven up and down in the cylinder to pump:
by the connecting rod and crankshaft.
A. Only Liquid
9. An advantage of open-drive compressors
is that: B. Mostly liquid with small quantities of
vapor
A. They are smaller and more compact
than hermetic compressors. C. Only Vapor
B. The motor and compressor can be re- D. Mostly vapor plus small quantities of
placed separately. liquid
C. They require no type of regular main-
tenance. 14. In which system does less refrigerant en-
D. They are generally less expensive tan ter the cylinder for each compression cycle,
comparable semi-hermetic compressors. requiring more horsepower for each BTU
of cooling?
10. Which of the following compressors is not
considered a positive-displacement com- A. A-high evaporator-temperature sys-
pressor. tem

A. Rotary B. A low-condenser-temperature system

B. Screw C. A low-evaporator-temperature system
C. Centrifugal D. A high-condenser-temperature sys-
D. Reciprocating tem

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2.4 Refrigerant Compressors 284

15. What opens and closes the valves in a re- A. The top of the compressor can be ro-
ciprocating compressor. tated 180 degrees to comply with many re-
A. Hydraulic valve lifters frigerant piping arrangements.
B. The compressor is very flexible in its
B. A cam shaft
application.
C. Pressure difference across the valves
C. The compressor complies with all na-
D. The piston pushes them open. tional compressor standards.
D. The orbiting scroll can separate and

NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. A common application for centrifugal com-
pressors is: unload to pass a small liquid slug.
A. Low-temp, commercial refrigeration. 20. What type of compressors contain the
B. Commercial water chilling systems. compressor and motor together inside a
welded steel housing?
C. Residential split systems
A. Reciprocating
D. Small appliances
B. Hermetic compressor
17. The space left between the piston and the C. Open compressor
valve plate of a reciprocating compressor
D. Semi-hermetic compressor
when the piston is at the top of the cylin-
der is called: 21. The function of the compressor in the re-
A. The bore frigeration cycle is to:

B. The mechanical allowance A. Filter the refrigerant.

B. Lower the pressure and temperature
C. The stroke
of the refrigerant.
D. The clearance volume.
C. Raise the pressure and temperature of
18. One technique for improving efficiency and the refrigerant.
comfort through compressor selection is to D. Regulate the refrigerant flow.
select a:
22. The shaft seal on an open compressor is
A. Compressor with o capacity equal more complicated than the gaskets and
to the minimum anticipated refrigeration seals on other parts of the compressor be-
load. cause:
B. Compressor with capacity control to A. It must seal a shaft that is turning
match the compressor capacity with re-
frigeration load. B. It must seal against a higher pressure.
C. It is subjected to both refrigerant and
C. Compressor with 25% greater capac-
oil while other seals and gaskets are not
ity than the maximum anticipated refriger-
ation load. D. It must seal in a vacuum
D. Compressor that is designed for a 23. The match of the motor and compressor in-
colder evaporator temperature to achieve side a hermetic compressor:
lower evaporator pressure and increased
A. Is typically 1 hp per ton for nearly all
efficiency.
applications.
19. The advantage of compliance in a scroll B. Is made in the field by the installing
compressor is that: tech.

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2.4 Refrigerant Compressors 285

C. Is generally not critical, allowing a sin- 28. What is the lowest percentage of full ca-
gle compressor to cover a wide range of pacity that a digital scroll can be safely op-
applications erated for extended periods?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. Is specific for the application of the A. The digital scroll compressor can only
compressor. operate at full capacity.
B. The minimum capacity is 10% to en-
24. The major types of compressors listed by
sure that the compressor gets proper lu-
mechanical design are:
brication.
A. Reciprocating, rotary, scroll, screw
C. The compressor can be operated at 0%
and centrifugal.
by simply leaving the unloading solenoid
B. Air cooled, water cooled, and refriger- energized?
ant cooled. D. The digital scroll compressor cannot
C. Forward curved, backward curved, ra- be operated below 50% capacity.
dial, in-line.
29. The hub and cover disc are found on/in the
D. Hermetic, semi-hermetic and ope. of a centrifugal compressor.
25. The reciprocating compressor’s valve A. vanes
is usually made of spring steel and has B. shaft
small coil springs.
C. impeller wheel
A. ring plate
D. volute
B. reed
30. An oil slinger is used with reciprocating
C. impeller
compressors that are lubricated by:
D. bearing
A. Oil slingers are used only with scroll
26. A compressor that uses an impeller to compressors.
throw refrigerant from the center outward B. Splash lubrication.
is a: C. Both splash and pressure lubrication.
A. Centrifugal compressor D. Pressure lubrication.
B. Screw compressor
31. Which of the following has the capacity
C. Rotary compressor range for a centrifugal compressor?
D. Scroll compressor A. Commercial AC
27. Which compressor has a piston that is B. Residential AC
driven up and down in the cylinder by a C. Appliance
connecting rod and crankshaft?
D. Refrigeration
A. A non-positive-displacement compres-
sor. 32. Compressor cylinder unloading reduces the
capacity of a reciprocating compressor
B. An open drive compressor.
by?
C. A reciprocating compressor.
A. Flooding the unloaded cylinders with
D. A hermetic compressor. oil.

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 2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 286

B. Blocking off the discharge port in the rotating shaft and multiple blades that fol-
unloaded heads. low the cylinder walls as the shaft rotates
C. Making the valves in the head inopera- is a:
tive. A. Rotary blade rotary compressor
D. Disconnecting the pistons in the un- B. Stationary blade rotary compressor
loaded cylinders. C. Reciprocating compressor
33. A compressor that uses a large off-center D. Rotary screw compressor

NARAYAN CHANGDER
2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices
1. Due to the nature of the following B. AUTOMOBILE ENGINES
questions more than one choice may C. CONDENSORS
be correct.Unit:Side by side refrigera-
tor.Fault:Suction line iced back to compres- D. EVAPORATORS
sor.
5. In a frost-free refrigerator, the effect on
A. moisture in system the system performance of the timer mo-
B. non-condensables in system tor burning out would be

C. blocked evaporator A. warm food compartment

D. overcharged system B. longer running

C. little or no air flow
2. On a domestic deep freezer the purpose of
the “fast freeze” switch is to: D. all of the above

A. make the compressor run faster 6. Inappropriate statement about the func-
tion of the AC (Air Conditioner) system on
B. make the evaporator colder
the vehicle is ?
C. over-ride the thermostat contacts
A. Control temperatures
D. over-ride the relay and overload con-
B. Purification (Purification)
tacts
C. Control air circulation
3. The cooling condition is sometimes cold
D. Purify temperature
sometimes not, this shows ?
E. Control humidity
A. There is air in the cycle
B. There is a water uap in the cycle 7. What does MAC stand for?
C. Refrigerant is not circulating A. MobileAir Conditioning
D. Refrigerant is lacking B. Mechanical Air Conditioning

E. Too much refrigerant C. Mobile Air Compressor

D. Mechanical Air Compressor
4. SCROLL, ROTARY, SCREW, RECIPROCAT-
ING AND CENTRIFUGAL ARE TYPES OF 8. SUPERHEAT IS MEASURED ON WHAT SIDE
WHAT OF THE SYSTEM
A. COMPRESSORS A. RIGHT

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 287

B. LEFT D. Temperature examination of the evap-

C. HIGH orator
E. Pressure check on the condenser

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. LOW
13. What type of fan is used in most air-cooled
9. The most likely result of field design mod- condensing units?
ifications to equipment is:
A. A draw-through propeller fan
A. Reduced performance
B. A blow-through centrifugal fan
B. Lower operating cost C. A draw-through centrifugal fan
C. Improved performance and efficiency D. No fan most condensing units are
D. Increased equipment life natural draft

10. Which of the following overcurrent pro- 14. The most common refrigerant metering de-
tection devices would be appropriate for vice in domestic refrigeration is the:
an air-conditioning condensing unit whose A. low side float
rating plate says MAX FUSE or HACR CIR- B. T.X valve
CUIT BREAKER 35 AMPS?
C. suction line accumulator
A. A 35 A circuit breaker D. capillary tube
B. A 30 A time delay fuse
15. What does COSHH stand for?
C. A 35 A HCAR circuit breaker
A. Control of Substances Hazardous to-
D. No fuse or circuit breaker is neces- health
sary; but if one is used, it cannot exceed B. Company omissions of safe Health haz-
35 A. ards
11. Why were split systems developed? C. Control of solutions hazardous to
health
A. Splitting the refrigerant flow between
two systems reduces line size. D. Control of Substances which are
health hazardous
B. It is not always practical to have all the
components of a large air-cooled system 16. The reason that the accumulator is located
located in a single box at the end of the evaporator is to prevent:
C. Splitting the controls into two panels A. high current draw on start up
provides redundancy B. oil slugging in the evaporator
D. Splitting the airflow between two C. flood back
pieces allows for more airflow D. a build up of refrigerant in the con-
denser
12. The initial diagnosis of the AC system dam-
age is ? 17. Which of the following agreements woul-
A. Pressure check on the expansion valve drelate to December 1997
A. Montreal
B. Temperature examination of the ex-
pansion valve B. K7
C. Temperature examination at the re- C. K8
ceiver dryer D. Kyoto

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 288

18. The main divisions of the HVACR industry 23. The tool that works to clear and fill the re-
include: frigerant on the AC system is called ?
A. Cooling, heating, ventilating, or refrig- A. Pressure gauge
eration specific spaces B. Compressor
B. Ventilating and cooling commercial C. Sight glass
building structures
D. Manifold gauge
C. Air conditioning, heating, or refrigerat-
E. Receiver dryer

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing industrial building structures
D. Heating and cooling residential build- 24. Wiring for a four-port multisplit system
ing structures runs:
19. What type of refrigerant is R134a? A. One wire to each indoor unit
A. CFC B. Three wires to each indoor unit
B. HCFC C. Four wires to each indoor unit
C. HSBC D. Two wires to each indoor unit
D. HFC 25. On the air conditioning system, the com-
ponents that work to protect the system
20. Some manufacturers recommend a
when the pressure in the system is too
hour standing pressure test before evac-
high or too low is ?
uation
A. Thermostat
A. 24
B. Dual pressure switch (dual pressure
B. 12
switch)
C. 6
C. Fuse (Fuse)
D. 2
D. Relay
21. WHAT IS THE ROLE OF THE METERING DE- E. Magnetic clutch
VICE
26. Refrigeration refers to space tempera-
A. COMPRESS LIQUID
tures:
B. ABSORB HEAT
A. Below 60◦ F
C. METERS FLOW OF REFRIGERANT
B. Below 40◦ F
D. JUST LOOKS GOOD
C. Below 32◦ F
22. Most multisplit units require connection to: D. Below 0◦ F
A. All of the circuits
27. Residential heating systems typically
B. At least four indoor units, but not all of range from:
the circuits have to be used
A. 75, 000 BTU to 200, 000 BTU
C. At least two indoor units, but not all of
the circuits have to be used B. 75, 000 BTU to 125, 000 BTU

D. At least three indoor units, but not all C. 100, 000 BTU to 120, 000 BTU
of the circuits have to be used D. 50, 000 BTU to 150, 000 BTU

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 289

28. Like many multisplit units, variable refrig- B. -26.3 degrees Fahrenheit
erant flow (VRF) systems use com- C. -103.3 degrees C
pressors and electronic expansion valves

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

to change the volume of refrigerant being D. -103.3 degrees Fahrenheit
circulated in the system
33. Due to the nature of the following ques-
A. reciprocating tions more than one choice may be cor-
B. screw rect.Unit:Refrigerator/freezer (Standard
single door).Fault:
C. inverter driven
D. scroll A. door gasket not sealing properly
B. thermostat control set too warm.
29. What type of HVAC work often requires a
criminal background check? C. evaporator tray, condition baffle set in
wrong position
A. Industrial service technician
D. thermostat sensor bulb come loose or
B. Service work in people’s homes
located in wrong location
C. Duct installation technicians
34. Typical condenser fan motor speeds are
D. System installation helper
about:
30. Environmental heating and air conditioning A. 800 rpm or 1, 000 rpm
refers to:
B. 500 rpm or 800 rpm
A. Controlling air temperature, humidity,
circulation, and cleanliness C. 1, 600 rpm or 3, 400 rpm
B. Managing the air outside by reducing D. 1, 000 rpm or 1, 600 rpm
toxins and pollutants
35. To reduce the risk of the domestic finned
C. Cooling and heating homes and of- tube evaporator becoming blocked with
fices. ice, the evaporator is designed with:
D. Cooling the air, food products, and in- A. a close fin spacing
dustrial machinery.
B. thick plate surface
31. The refrigerant used in the air conditioning C. wide fin spacing
system is a chemical composition called ‘’
R 12 ‘(CFC) or R 134A (HCFC).Below that D. thick heavy duty fins
is not included in the properties of refrig-
36. Why does food that is frozen quickly taste
erant R 12 is ?
better than food that is frozen slowly?
A. Non -toxic
A. Smaller ice crystals are formed
B. Does not cause rust
B. Adiabatic rehydration
C. Lighter than the air
C. Larger ice crystals are formed
D. Easily mixed with Oli
D. Molecular recombination
E. Cannot explode or burn
37. WHAT IS THE ROLE OF THE COMPRESSOR
32. Assuming normal atmospheric pressure
atwhat temperature would R134a boil? A. COMPRESS LIQUID REFRIGERANT
A. -26.3 degrees C B. CREATE PRESSURE DIFFERENCE

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 290

C. THE HEART OF THE REFRIGERATION C. The number of bubbles is a lot like

CYCLE foam on the glass shows the number of
D. METERS REFRIGERANT refrigerant
D. If on the glass there are oil lines, it
38. The terms upflow, horizontal, and down- means that the refrigerant in the system
flow refer to the direction of: is empty
A. Refrigerant flow through air- E. Glass suspected clean refrigerant in
conditioning evaporator coils an empty system so that the passenger

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Heat flow through air-conditioning room will feel hot
evaporator coils
42. Due to the nature of the following ques-
C. Electrical current flow through the tions more than one choice may be cor-
evaporator fan motor rect.Unit:Refrigerator/freezer (Standard
D. Airflow through split-system air- single door fan forced)Fault:Freezer com-
conditioning evaporator coils partment not cold enough.
A. restriction in the system
39. In the modern refrigeration cycle, the com-
pressor: B. overloaded with non-refrigerated pro-
duce
A. Increases the pressure of the liquid re-
frigerant so that it will circulate through C. short cycle on the overload
the system D. refrigerant shortage
B. Pumps low-pressure, low-temperature 43. After completing the emptying process,
vapor to high-pressure, high-temperature close the two valves and wait for about
vapor 15 minutes, this is necessary for ?
C. Transfers heat to the outdoor air A. So that the system remains in a vac-
D. Reduces the pressure of the liquid uum state
from the condenser to the evaporator B. Keep the system clean
40. Where is the condensing unit of a split sys- C. Check the leak in the system
tem located? D. Make sure the system works well
A. Inside a basement, crawlspace, attic, E. Easy to enter refrigerant
or closet
44. The United States Congress passed the
B. Either inside or outside
Clean Air Act in:
C. Outside
A. 1990
D. none of above
B. 2000
41. To detect disorders of the air condition- C. 1994
ing system can be known through the
D. 1995
glass.Indications that appear on the glass
alleged are as follows, except ? 45. To prevent the engine from death when the
A. Clean -Glass Glass shows a PAS/exact AC system is turned on on the vehicle, it is
load equipped with ?
B. Bubbles appear suddenly/occasionally A. Thermostat
when it is turned on is a normal symptom B. Idle up

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 291

C. Acceleration pump D. By the maximum overcurrent protec-

D. Choke tion (MOP) shown on the nameplate

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

E. Stationary rotation 50. THE COPPER LINE FROM THE COMPRES-
SOR TO THE CONDENSER IS CALLED THE
46. Who is RSES?
A. LIQUID LINE
A. It is dedicated to engineering of
HVACR systems and application B. EXPANSION LINE
C. DISCHARGE LINE
B. It represents over 90% of the HVACR
manufacturers D. SUCTION LINE
C. It writes most government mechanical 51. Commercial central heating and cooling
and electrical codes systems refer to:
D. It is an organization devoted to educat- A. Single-to three-story office buildings
ing HVACR technicians only
47. The capillary tube is designed to equal the: B. Retail shopping malls only
A. capacity of the condenser C. Structures used for businesses in gen-
eral
B. pumping capacity of the compressor
D. Single-story office buildings only
C. total capacity of the evaporator and
the condenser 52. In filling the refrigerant in liquid form, the
D. total capacity of the evaporator and valve that must be opened is ?
the compressor A. Both valves
48. What is a whip? B. Just suction valve
A. The refrigerant line set installed be- C. High pressure valve
tween the condensing unit and the evap- D. Suction valve 1/2 high pressure valve
orator 1/2
B. A watertight, flexible electrical cable E. No valve is open
connecting th esystem’s disconnect to the
condensing unit 53. Systems with capillary tubes used as a me-
tering devices are more suitable for evap-
C. A flexible wire on the evaporator fan, orators with a:
which helps remove condensat ewater
A. heavy load
D. The control wire between an air condi-
tioner and the remote control B. light load
C. constant load
49. The power wire for the condensing unit is
sized: D. fluctuating load
A. At 115% of the minimum circuit ampac- 54. Non-condensables such as air cause prob-
ity shown on the nameplate lems in a domestic refrigeration system.
B. By the minimum circuit ampacity (MCA) One of these is:
shown on the name plate A. a reduction in the life of the compres-
C. The same wire gauge as the wires in- sor
side the unit B. an increase in head pressure

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 292

C. decontamination of oil in the system B. 6th February 1998

D. a lower suction pressure and temper- C. 4th J uly 2010
ature D. 12th September 2007
55. If contamination within an airconditioning 60. How should R134a be stored to meet safe-
system is suspected and a flushing proce- tyrequirements?
dure is to be carried outwhat component
should also be changed? A. Under pressure as a vapour

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Compressor B. Under pressure as a gas

B. ReceiverDrier C. Under no pressure as a vapour

C. TXV D. Under no pressure as a gas

D. Condenser 61. When replacing a burnt out compressor the

system should be:
56. In thermostat wiring, the common indus-
try color standard for wiring uses a white A. flushed with R12 prior to fitting the
wire to control what function? compressor

A. Heating B. flushed with R22 prior to fitting to the

compressor
B. Fan relay
C. fitted with a burnout filter drier
C. Reversing valve
D. blown out with dry nitrogen
D. Compressor control
62. To avoid the creation of oxides in the re-
57. Where is the split-system evaporator coil frigeration lines of mini-split systems, the
located? lines are asesmbled:
A. Outside A. Using heavy-walled flare fittings
B. Either inside or outside B. Using standard flare fittings
C. Inside the conditioned space C. By brazing the connections while flow-
D. none of above ing nitrogen through the lines
D. Using Reflok fittings
58. Components in the AC system that func-
tions to break and connect the compressor 63. Testing for door seal leakage is usually
rotation with engine speed is ? done using:
A. Condenser A. an anemometer
B. Compressor B. a vacustat
C. Expansion valve C. a piece of paper
D. Manometer D. a smoke generator
E. Magnetic clutch 64. When charging a domestic refrigerator to
59. When did it become a legal requirement to- a frost line the frost should extend to:
hold certification for the handling of fluori- A. the inlet tube of the evaporator
nated gas? B. the suction line at the inside of the cab-
A. 31st August 2009 inet wall

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 293

C. approximately 400mm before the com- 68. The AC system is useful for controlling the
pressor safety of air in the car, the AC component
that functions to convert gas into refriger-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. 90% of the way through the evaporator
ant liquid is ?
65. What is the major advantage of mini-split A. Expansion valve
air-conditioning systems?
B. Compressor
A. Higher efficiency
C. Evaporator
B. Air ducting is not necessary D. Condenser
C. Lower cost E. Dryer
D. Shorter line sets
69. Due to the nature of the follow-
66. In a domestic freezer, instead of electric ing questions more than one choice
mullion heaters, hot gas lines are often di- may be correct.Unit:Chest or Upright
verted from the compressor to: freezer.Fault:No freezing. Unit does not
run.
A. increase the cooling effect in the
freezer A. relay disconnected from compressor

B. stop condensation formation around B. broken power cord

doors C. unit not switched on at a power point
C. give a quicker defrost in the freezer D. sticking (closed) thermostat contact
D. increase the off cycle in the refrigera- 70. Typically, on mini-split systems the line set
tor going to the outdoor unit carries pres-
sure, temperature saturated liquid and
67. The air conditioning system is one of the
vapor mix. The line going back to the out-
parts of the vehicle that functions for com-
door unit carries pressure superheated
fort in the passenger room, the construc-
vapor
tion of the air conditioning system consists
of dates ? A. low, high, low
A. Evaporator, compressor, condenser, B. high, high, low
receiver dryer, expansion valve, blower C. low, low, low
B. Compressors, Evaporators, Radiator, D. low, high, high
Condenser, Receiver Dryer, Expansion
Valve, Electric Fan 71. THE LINE FROM THE CONDENSER TO THE
METERING DEVICE IS THE
C. Compressor, condenser, centrifugal
pump, expansion valve, blower A. SUCTION LINE
D. Radiator, centrifugal pump, thermo- B. DISCHARGE LINE
stat, condenser, compressor, receiver C. EXPANSION LINE
dryer, evaporator
D. LIQUID LINE
E. Condenser, expansion valve, evapora-
tor, water jacket, thermostat, receiver 72. In the picture above, above the refriger-
dryer, expansion valve, blower, refriger- ant conditions in channel number 4 when
ant the engine is living is ?

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 294

A. Refrigerant fluid in high pressure and 76. What does GWP stand for?
temperature A. Gross Warming Potential
B. Refrigerant in the form of pressurized B. Global Warming Potential
gas and high temperatures
C. Gross Warming Possible
C. Refrigerant liquid at low temperature
D. Global Warming Possible
and pressure
D. Gas refrigerant at low temperature 77. What types of systems are particularly

NARAYAN CHANGDER
and pressure well suited to split system design?
A. Systems with water-cooled con-
E. High pressure refrigerant liquid and
densers
high pressure gas
B. Residential air-conditioning systems
73. The most reliable source for information re- with air-cooled condensers
garding system installation is: C. Large chillers
A. The foreman D. Small systems for hotel rooms
B. The manufacturer’s installation man-
78. Most systems can operate with up to
ual
feet of lines and a maximum of feet
C. The customer vertical distance between the indoor and
outdoor units.
D. Knowledge gained through installing
other systems A. 100, 30
B. 50, 10
74. The correct sequence of cooling cycles is
? C. 90, 20
D. 75, 15
A. Compressor-evaporator-Dryer-
Condenser-Expansion valve 79. Who developed the quick freezing process
B. Compresor-condenser-Dryer-Expansion for preserving food?
valve-evaporator A. Willins Carrier
C. Compresor-condenser-Dryer-Evaporator- B. Clarence Birdseye
Expansion valve C. Dave Lennox
D. Compresor-Dryer-condenser-expansion D. Carter Stanfield
valve-evaporator
80. Window unit air conditioners are designed
E. Compresor-expansion valve-dryer- primarily to supply cool air to:
evaporator-condenser
A. One room
75. FIXED ORIFICE, TXV AND CAPILLARY B. Several rooms in a small house
TUBE ARE EXAMPLES OF WHAT
C. Unconditioned attic space
A. FLAVORED DRINKS D. Unconditioned basements
B. METERING DEVICES
81. If the evaporator is formed ice crystals,
C. COMPRESSOR TYPES this is due to damage that occurs in ?
D. TYPES OF EVAPORATORS A. Thermostat

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 295

B. Condenser C. To the indoor unit which powers the

C. Compressor outdoor unit

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. Blower D. Any of these methods may be used

E. Fan 86. The expansion valve in the air conditioning

system functions to ?
82. Inside some frost free refrigerators there
A. Compress the refrigerant
is a thermostatically controlled baffle
plate which: B. Changing liquid refrigerant low pres-
sure to gas on high pressure
A. controls the compressor running time
C. Circulate air into the passenger room
B. controls the defrost heaters
D. Change the refrigerant liquid at high
C. controls the amount of air entering the
temperatures and pressure to low tem-
refrigerator cabinet
perature and pressure
D. limits air movement in the freezer cab-
E. Changing the high pressure and tem-
inet
perature refrigerant gas into a refrigerant
83. The tool used to check the leakage of re- liquid at low temperature and pressure
frigrant gas using a flame is ? 87. The circuit breaker for the condensing unit
A. Flame leak detector is sized:
B. Glass A. The same wire gauge as the wires in-
C. Electronic leak detector side the unit
D. Gas leak detector B. By the minimum circuit ampacity (MCA)
shown on the nameplate
E. Manifold gauge
C. By the maximum overcurrent protec-
84. Components in the AC system that serves tion (MOP) shown on the nameplate
to accommodate liquid refrigerant for a D. At 115% of the minimum circuit ampac-
while, which to further flow into the evap- ity shown on the nameplate
orator through the Expansion Valve, ac-
cording to the cooling load required is 88. For a building to be properly ventilated:
? A. Vents should always be installed from
A. Evaporator the sides of a building structure
B. Condenser B. Air must be ducted from the floor to
the ceiling
C. Expansion valve
C. A vent hole must be installed in th
D. Receiver/dryer
ecenter of a building space
E. Compressor
D. Air must be able to flow and exchange
85. Power for the mini-split system is sup- properly throughout the building space.
plied: 89. The outdoor air-cooled condensing unit con-
A. To the outdoor unit which powers the sists of:
indoor unit A. Copper tubing surrounded by alu-
B. To the indoor and outdoor with their minum fins and a condenser fan, a refrig-
own separate dedicated wiring and circuit erant expansion device, and the neces-
protection sary electrical control box assembly

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 296

B. A compressor, condenser coil, a con- 93. The primary advantages of room air condi-
denser fan, and the necessary electrical tioners include:
control box A. Can be used for improving indoor air
C. Copper tubing surrounded by alu- quality using HEPA filters
minum fins and a condenser fan, and the
B. High efficiency and quiet operaiton
necessary electrical control box assembly
C. Can be used with ductwork to dis-
D. A compressor, condenser coil, a con-
tribute air to several rooms
denser fan, evaporator coil, and the nec-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
essary electrical control box assembly D. Relatively low cost and ease of instal-
lation
90. Why do so many HVACR jobs now require
a criminal background check? 94. Before removing a major component from
A. To assess potential job applicants’ me- anair conditioning system what action
chanical abilities must be taken?
B. To determine what your Social Security A. Inform all workshop staff of your ac-
number and address are tions
C. To protect the public from dangerous B. Ensure all workshop staff have theap-
individuals propriate PPE
D. To look for a job applicant’s high school C. No specific actions need to be taken-
grades above standard good practice

91. What does a TXV do? D. Recover the refrigerant from thevehi-
cle’s system
A. Cleans, dries and filters the refriger-
ant 95. HVACR technicians must be certified by:
B. It controls the quantity ofrefrigerant A. The American Society of Heating, Re-
entering the evaporator frigeration, and Air
C. Allows for an increase in pressure B. The American Society of Heating, Re-
andtemperature prior to entering the con- frigeration, and Air Conditioning Engi-
denser neers (ASHRAE)
D. It acts as a safety device if thecom- C. The Air Conditioning, Heating, and Re-
pressor is over pressuring the system frigeration Institute (AHRI)
92. Which of the following situations would- D. An Environmental Protection Agency
necessitate a recovery of the refrigerant (EPA) certified testing organization
prior to continuing the task?
96. An efficient and trouble free air condition-
A. When replacing a cylinder head gasket
ing system installation is more likely if the
oran engine area job
installation starts:
B. When carrying out a body repair job
A. In the afternoon
thatrequires welding
B. By pulling the refrigerant line set
C. When carrying out a paint repairthat
requires the use of an oven C. By cutting holes to rough in th educt-
D. When carrying out a major trim re- work
pairthat involves plastic repair D. With planning the installation

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2.5 Condensers, Evaporators & Expansion Devices 297

97. Which of these installation steps listed is B. One-a single double-shafted blower
normally performed first? motor is used for both he evaporator and
condenser fans

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Commissioning
B. Leak testing the system C. Two-an evaporator fan motor an da
condenser fan motor
C. Charging the system
D. Two-a low-speed blower motor and a
D. Evacuating the system high-speed blower motor
98. How is the energy efficiency ration (EER) 101. WHAT IS THE ROLE OF THE CONDENSER
calculated?
A. ABSORBS HEAT
A. The output in Btuh is divided by the in-
put in watts B. METERS REFRIGERANT

B. The output in Btuh is multiplied by the C. CONDENSES GAS

input in watts D. REJECTS HEAT
C. The input in watts is divided by the out- 102. Residential central heating and cooling
put in Btuh systems became popular in:
D. The input in watts is added to the out- A. The mid 1970’s
put in Btuh
B. The late 1950’s
99. When the condition of the air in the passen- C. The late 1960’s
ger room is not cold this is due to the lack
of refrigerant in the system.The refriger- D. The late 1970’s
ant filling steps are ? 103. Producing ice began over 3, 000 years
A. Use of pumps, initial filling (liquid), ad- ago using the:
vanced filling (gas), installation of mani- A. Mechanical vaporizaiton method
fold gauge, installation of thermostat
B. Pressure-temperature method
B. Thermostat installation, installation of
manifold gauge, pump use, filling Wal C. Distillation method
(gas) and advanced filling (liquid) D. Water evaporation method
C. Installation of manifold gauge, use of 104. Which of the following is NOT a type of
vacuum pumps, initial filling (liquid), ad- indoor unit used on mini-split systems?
vanced filling (gas)
A. Wall mount
D. Installation of manifold gauge, use
of water pumps, initial filling (gas), ad- B. Ceiling suspended
vanced filling (liquid) C. Crawl space
E. Initial filling (liquid), advanced filling D. Floor mount
(gas), pump installation, installation of
manifold gauge 105. Static fin and tube condensers are some-
times called:
100. How many blower motors does a win- A. forced draft condensers
dow air conditioner have?
B. natural draft condensers
A. None-window air conditioners do not
require a blower motor because they are C. fan cooled condensers
not connected to a duct system D. evaporative condensers

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 2.6 Properties of Moist Air 298

106. In the air cooling system the components 108. Due to the nature of the following
that work to transform gas in pressure questions more than one choice may
and low temperatures into high tempera- be correct.Unit:Cyclic defrost refrigera-
tures and pressure are ? tor.Fault:Runs for long periods of time be-
A. Evaporator fore cycling.
B. Condenser A. door gasket not sealing
C. Compressor B. refrigeration plate or serpentine coil
iced up

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Receiver dryer
E. Blower C. defrost heater not working

107. While multisplit units are limited to a sin- D. thermostat sensor bulb loose or dis-
gle outdoor unit, large VRF systems can connected
combine as many as outdoor units man-
109. SUB OOLING IS MEASURED ON WHICH
ifolded together to increase overall system
SIDE OF THE SYSTEM
capacity
A. four A. LOW

B. two B. LEFT
C. five C. RIGHT
D. three D. HIGH

2.6 Properties of Moist Air

1. This type of fog forms at night under clear C. relative humidity
skies with calm winds when heat absorbed D. moisture
by the earth’s surface during the day is ra-
diated into space. 4. Liquid, on a solid surface, it is called ,
A. Radiation which you may have seen on cars and
lawns on cool summer mornings
B. Advection
A. rain
C. Icy
B. fog
D. Wet
C. dew
2. Relative Humidity is expressed as/in D. sleet
A. ◦ C
5. Humidity is a measure of the amount of
B. % in the air.
C. $ A. Rain Drops
D. # B. Air Pressure
3. This occurs when the air is completely C. Temperature
filled with water vapor and D. Water Vapor
A. saturation 6. The amount of moisture in the atmosphere
B. dew point is called

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2.6 Properties of Moist Air 299

A. dew point 12. forms when warm, moist air makes

B. humidity contact with a cold surface.

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C. rain A. rain
D. moisture B. fog
7. A forms when water vapor in a cloud C. snow
is converted directly into ice crystals. D. sleet
A. hail storm
B. raindrop 13. The San Francisco fog occurs when the
California Current moving south along the
C. snowflake coast meets warm, moist air carried in by
D. none of above prevailing westerly winds.
8. This is a type of radiation fog that is very A. Warm
common in the mountains of eastern Ken- B. Hot
tucky.
C. Cold
A. Fog Hat
B. Beach Fog D. Wet
C. Mountain Fog 14. Clouds are made up of tiny drops of or
D. Valley Fog ice. The moisture in the cloud affects the
weather.
9. Cloud formation is likely to occur in rising
air because rising air A. dust
A. expands and cools B. water
B. expands and warms C. cloud particles
C. contracts and warms D. precipitation
D. contracts and cools
15. This fog looks like radiation fog and is also
10. Which is likely to occur after moist air is the result of condensation.
cooled below its dew point?
A. sea fog
A. Evaporation increases
B. Ice crystals melt B. radiation fog
C. Water condenses C. advectionfog
D. Winds are generated D. valley fog
11. Water in the form of droplets, usually in 16. Which of these is an example of precipita-
the morning or late evening, due to con- tion?
densation.
A. snow
A. fog
B. dew B. air
C. dew point C. clouds
D. condensation nuceli D. vapor

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 2.7 Psychrometric Chart & its Application to Air-Conditioning 300

17. The amount of water vapor in the atmo- C. Rain

sphere compared to how much it could D. Snow
hold.
A. Saturation 20. What is water vapor?

B. Vaporicity A. moisture on your mirror

B. moisture on the grass
C. Humidity
C. moisture in the air
D. Relative Humidity

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. moisture on the side of a glass
18. This is the amount of water vapor in the
air compared to the maximum amount sat- 21. is any form of water that falls from
uration of water vapor the air can hold at clouds and reaches Earth’s surface
a given temperature. A. snow
A. dew point B. precipitation
B. rain C. rain
C. relative humidity D. sleet
D. humidity 22. Air that is saturated with moisture near
the ground is called
19. What kind of precipitation is formed when
water falls from the clouds and lands on A. rain
the ground as liquid water? B. snow
A. Hail C. sleet
B. Sleet D. fog

2.7 Psychrometric Chart & its Application to Air-Conditioning

1. Vapour can be treated a gas when D. Latent heat load of the building
A. Temperature of vapour > critical tem-
perature 3. During the warmest part of a June day,
breezes blow from the ocean toward the
B. Pressure of vapour < 10 kpa shore at the beach. Which statement best
C. Temperature of vapour = critical tem- explains why this happens?
perature
A. Winds usually blow from hot to cold ar-
D. Pressure of vapour is > critical pres- eas.
sure
B. Air pressure over the ocean is higher
2. Infiltration of air in the building adds to than air pressure over the land.
A. Sensible heat load of the building C. Winds never blow from the shore to-
B. Does not add any cooling load ward the ocean.
C. Sensible and latent heat load of the D. Air pressure over the land is higher
building than air pressure over the ocean.

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2.7 Psychrometric Chart & its Application to Air-Conditioning 301

4. A sling psychrometer is used to determine C. DPT remains unchanged

which weather variables? D. Saturation temperature remains un-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. wind speed and wind direction changed
B. dew point and relative humidity 10. What is the dewpoint when the dry bulb
C. cloud cover and cloud altitude temperature is 20◦ C and the relative hu-
midity is 17%?
D. air temperature and air pressure
A. -5◦ C
5. The moisture inside the substance is B. -2◦ C
known as
C. 11◦ C
A. Bound moisture
D. 15◦ C
B. Unbound moisture
11. Which list correctly matches each instru-
C. Equilibrium moisture
ment with the weather variable it mea-
D. Free moisture sures?
6. If air has a dry-bulb temperature of 2◦ C A. wind vane-wind speedthermometer-
and a wet-bulb temperature of-2◦ C, what temperatureprecipitation gauge-relative
is the relative humidity? humidity
A. 11% B. wind vane-wind directionthermometer-
dew pointpsychrometer-air pressure
B. 20%
C. barometer-relative humidityanemometer-
C. 36% cloud coverrain gauge-amount of precipi-
D. 67% tation

7. Lbs = cfm / sp.vol D. barometer-air pressureanemometer-

wind speedpsychrometer-relative humid-
A. Sensible Heat Formula ity
B. Total Heat Formula
12. Air pressure is usually highest when the
C. Sensible Heat Ratio air is
D. Mixed Air Temperature A. cool and humid
E. Weight of Air being moved B. cool and dry
8. During winter season infiltration of air in C. warm and humid
the building takes place from D. warm and dry
A. top side openings of building 13. The horizontal line in psychrometric chart
B. bottom side openings of the building joining the change of state of air repre-
sents
C. through all openings of building
A. Humidification
D. only through ventilator
B. Sensible cooling or heating
9. During adiabatic saturation process on un- C. Sensible cooling or heating with humid-
saturated air, the ification
A. DBT remains unchanged D. Sensible cooling or heating with dehu-
B. WBT remains unchanged midification

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2.7 Psychrometric Chart & its Application to Air-Conditioning 302

14. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced C. barometer

lines on a psychrometric chart indicates D. rain gauge
A. Dry bulb temperature
20. CFM air flow rate is equal to
B. Wet bulb temperature
A. 28.317 liters/s
C. Dew point temperature B. 47.195 liters/s
D. Specific humidity C. 57.195 liters/s
15. Which is cheaper to install? D. 38.317 liters/s

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. VAV 21. Which of the following statements are
B. VVT true? I. The air conditioning duct should
have high aspect ratio for good perfor-
C. Both roughly the same
mance II. If the air conditioning duct is
D. none of above diverging then the angle of divergence
should be as small as possible to reduce
16. The dew point is 15◦ C. What is the wet-
pressure loss III. To minimize the noise and
bulb temperature on a sling psychrometer
vibration air should flow with low velocity
if the dry-bulb temperature is 18◦ C?
IV. All of the above
A. 2◦ C
A. I
B. 3◦ C B. II
C. 20◦ C C. III
D. 16◦ C D. IV
17. Dampers in AC ducts are used for control- 22. On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temper-
ling the air ature lines are
A. Quality A. Horizontal with uniformly spaced
B. Flow rate B. Horizontal with non-uniformly spaced
C. Temperature C. Inclined with uniformly spaced
D. Humidity D. Inclined with non-uniformly spaced

18. The pressure inside a horizontal duct dur- 23. When the rate of evaporation of water is
ing the air flow is the sum of zero, the relative humidity of the air is
A. Static pressure and gravitational pres- A. 0%
sure B. 100%
B. Dynamic pressure and gravitational C. 50%
pressure D. Unpredictable
C. Static pressure and dynamic pressure
24. Humidification is the process of addition
D. None of the above moisture in air at
19. Which weather instrument was used to A. Constant wet bulb temperature
measure the air pressure? B. Constant dry bulb temperature
A. Wind vane C. Constant latent heat
B. anemometer D. none of above

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2.7 Psychrometric Chart & its Application to Air-Conditioning 303

25. In digital scroll VRF system the air flow is B. Material and resources
controlled by changing C. Energy and atmosphere

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Overlapping of spiral D. Cost of the construction
B. Speed of compressor
31. What is the relative humidity if the dry-
C. Pressure at the inlet of evaporator bulb temperature is 22◦ C and the wet-
D. Pressure at the inlet of expansion bulb temperature is 17◦ C?
valve A. 60%
26. How much dose 1 f t 3 of water weigh? B. 5%
(lbs) C. 14%
A. 7000 D. 68%
B. 5000
32. After the unsaturated drying completed
C. 62.4 starts to evaporate.
D. 8.33 A. Bound
27. In the case of sensible cooling of air, the B. Unbound
coil efficiency is given by (BPF = Bypass C. Equilibrium
factor)
D. none of above
A. BPF-1
33. At 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb
B. 1-BPF
temperature is
C. BPF
A. Lower than the dew point temperature
D. 1 + BPF
B. Higher than the dew point tempera-
28. The grill temperature of air is ture
A. temperature of air entering the cooling C. Equal to the dew point temperature
coil D. none of above
B. temperature of air leaving the room
34. The value of remains constant while
C. temperature of air entering the room drying if speed and direction of gas flow
D. temperature of fresh air after mixing never change.
with return air A. Mass transfer co-efficient
29. Hypothermia takes place when body tem- B. Humidity
perature is less than C. Moisture
A. 41◦ C D. none of above
B. 37.5◦ C 35. Which weather instrument is used to mea-
C. 35◦ C sure wind speed?
D. 41.5◦ C A. anemometer

30. Which one of the following is not a build- B. wind vane

ing LEED rating criteria C. barometer
A. Sustainable site D. thermometer

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2.7 Psychrometric Chart & its Application to Air-Conditioning 304

36. Duct friction chart is prepared on 41. Surface winds on Earth are primarily
A. Liner scale caused by differences in
B. Semi-log scale A. ocean wave heights during the tidal cy-
C. Exponential scale cle

D. Log-Log scale B. rotational speeds of Earth’s surface at

various latitudes
37. It is desired to condition the outside air
from 70% relative humidity and 45◦ C dry C. distances from the Sun during the year

NARAYAN CHANGDER
bulb temperature to 50% relative humid- D. air density due to unequal heating of
ity and 25% dry bulb temperature (room Earth’s surface
condition). The practical arrangement will
be 42. The ration of water vapour to mass of dry
A. Dehumidification air in a given mixture is known as
B. Cooling and humidification A. Relative humidity
C. Cooling and dehumidification B. Absolute humidity
D. Dehumidification and pure sensible
cooling C. Humidity ratio
D. Degree of saturation
38. The ammonia level in indoor environment
should not exceed
43. Fumes particles are normally of the size
A. 12 ppm
A. 0.1 microns
B. 15 ppb
C. 17 ppm B. 0.5 microns
D. 20 ppb C. 1.0 microns

39. When dry bulb temperature of air is equal D. 2.0 microns

to web bulb temperature
44. For estimating the drier size it is necessary
A. Air is 100% saturated
to know
B. Air is 50% saturated
A. Time of drying
C. Air is completely dry
D. Air is at dew point temperature B. Heat of drying
C. Speed of drying
40. At any point on the saturation curve in psy-
chometric chart, the dry bulb temperature D. none of above
is always
A. Less than the corresponding wet bulb 45. The relative humidity is 100% when
temperature A. the atmosphere is relatively dry
B. More than the corresponding wet bulb
B. the air is at its saturated vapor pres-
temperature
sure
C. Equal to the corresponding wet bulb
temperature C. the air pressure is high
D. none of above D. transpiration equals evaporation

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2.7 Psychrometric Chart & its Application to Air-Conditioning 305

46. In the room of a residential building the 51. The heat balance of human body is consid-
temperature variation should not be more ered as
than

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. The heat produced in the body by only
A. 0.5◦ C external work = heat loss from the body
by
B. 1◦ C
B. The heat produced in the body by
C. 1.5◦ C
metabolism and external work = heat
D. 2◦ C loss from the body by different means

47. MAT = (%OA x OAT) + (%RA x RAT) C. The heat produced in the body by only
metabolism = heat loss from the body by
A. Sensible Heat Formula different means
B. Total Heat Formula D. None of the above
C. Sensible Heat Ratio
52. Air in which of the following classes is
D. Mixed Air Temperature cleaner
E. Weight of Air being moved A. Class 10000
48. How Many Grains are in 1 lbs of water? B. Class 1000
A. 7000 C. Class 100
B. 5000 D. Class 10
C. 62.4 53. In air-conditioning design for summer
D. 8.33 months, the condition inside a factory
where heavy work is performed as com-
49. Chose the activity resulting the higher pared to a factory in which light work is
Metabolism rate performed should have
A. Online gaming, watching television A. lower dry bulb temperature and lower
relative humidity
B. Running, jogging
B. lower dry bulb temperature and higher
C. Reading, playing chess
relative humidity
D. Walking, sitting
C. lower dry bulb temperature and same
50. Earth’s surface winds generally blow from relative humidity
regions of higher D. same dry bulb temperature and same
A. air pressure toward regions of lower relative humidity
air pressure
54. In summer season, the increase of blood
B. air temperature toward regions of flow in veins occurs by
lower air temperature
A. Respiration
C. latitudes toward regions of lower lati-
B. Vasoconstriction
tudes
C. Vasodilation
D. elevations toward regions of lower el-
evations D. None of the above

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2.7 Psychrometric Chart & its Application to Air-Conditioning 306

55. VAV systems utilize what methods to con- A. Relative humidity is 29% with clear
trol air flow? (select all that are correct) skies.
A. Inlet guide vanes B. Relative humidity is 29% with a good
B. VFD’s chance of snow.

C. Discharge air dampers C. Relative humidity is 93% with clear

skies.
D. Variable pitch fans
D. Relative humidity is 93% with a good
E. Bypass damper

NARAYAN CHANGDER
chance of rain.
56. The comfort conditions in the air-
conditioning are at 61. The moisture in the solid after attaining
equilibrium is known as
A. 25◦ DBT & 100% RH
A. Bound moisture
B. 20◦ DBT & 80% RH
B. Unbound moisture
C. 24◦ DBT & 60% RH
C. Equilibrium moisture
D. 25◦ DBT & 40% RH
D. Free moisture
57. After critical moisture content starts.
A. Saturated drying region 62. SHR= Qs / Qt

B. Unsaturated drying region A. Sensible Heat Formula

C. Constant drying region B. Total Heat Formula
D. none of above C. Sensible Heat Ratio

58. The CO2 level in indoor environment ex- D. Weight of Air being moved
ceeds 10%, causes the E. Mixed Air Temperature
A. Loss of consciousness
63. A student using a sling psychrometer mea-
B. Breathing is very difficult sured a wet-bulb temperature of 10◦ C and
C. Loss of blood pressure a dry-bulb temperature of 16◦ C. What
was the dew point?
D. None of the above
A. -10◦ C
59. The vertical and uniformly spaced lines on
a psychrometric chart indicates B. 45◦ C

A. Dry bulb temperature C. 6◦ C

B. Wet bulb temperature D. 4◦ C

C. Dew point temperature 64. DPT line on psychrometric chart are
D. Specific humidity A. Horizontal
60. A dry-bulb temperature of 30◦ C and B. Vertical
a wet-bulb temperature of 29◦ C were
C. Curved
recorded at a weather station. What are
the relative humidity and the most likely D. Straight inclined sloping downward to
weather conditions? the right

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 2.8 Solar Refrigeration 307

65. COP of a five star window air conditioner D. Cooling at constant wet bulb tempera-
is greater than or equal to ture

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A. 2.7
69. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature
B. 2.9 of air recorded by a thermometer, when
C. 3.1 A. It is not affected by the moisture
D. 3.3 present in the air
B. Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth
66. If the specific heats of dry air and water
exposed to the air
vapour are 1.00 kJ/kg-K and 1.88 kJ/kg-
K respectively and the humidity ratio is C. The moisture present in it begins to
0.011, then the specific heat of moist air condense
at 25◦ C and 50% relative humidity will be D. none of above
A. 1.869 kJ/kg-K
70. The convective heat transfer coefficient in
B. 1.891 kJ/kg-K calm air is
C. 0.9793 kJ/kg-K A. 3-5 W/m2-K
D. 1.0206 kJ/kg-K
B. 15-20 W/m2-K
67. For SHF = 1.0 and zero bypass factor, the C. 25-30 W/m2-K
room dew point temperature is
D. 30-40 W/m2-K
A. Higher than the coil dew point temper-
ature 71. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart
indicates
B. Lower than the coil dew point temper-
ature A. Dry bulb temperature
C. Equal to coil dew point temperature B. Wet bulb temperature
D. Independent of coil dew point temper- C. Dew point temperature
ature
D. Relative humidity
68. If air at dry-bulb temperature of 35◦ C and
72. Which of the following is not a duct net-
dew point temperature of 20◦ C passes
work design method
through a cooling coil which is maintained
at 25◦ C, then the process would be A. Static regain method
A. Sensible cooling B. Dynamic regain method
B. Cooling and dehumidification C. Equal friction loss method
C. Cooling and humidification D. Variable velocity method

2.8 Solar Refrigeration

1. A dirty outdoor coil will cause D. high air flow
A. low head pressure
2. Outdoor total heat content can be different
B. decreased efficiency from region to region due to differences in
C. freeze-up

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2.8 Solar Refrigeration 308

A. solar load 8. A popular material choice for evaporator

B. humidity and condensing coils is
A. brass tube with aluminum fins
C. forage
B. steel tube with brass fins
D. location
C. copper tube with stainless fins
3. A package unit is usually because it is D. copper tube with aluminum fins
factory sealed.
9. What type of screws should be used in a

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. slightly less efficient
high sodium environment?
B. slightly more efficient
A. copper
C. over efficient
B. galvanized
D. under efficient C. stainless
4. The chemical formula of R141 is D. brass
A. C 2 3 3 10. Most people believe units are particu-
B. C 2 2 3 larly unattractive.
C. C 2 3 2 A. RTUs
D. C 2 2 3 B. split systems
C. ductless mini-splits
5. Rotary compressors are cooled by the
D. package units
A. air over the shell
11. More coil surface area on the outdoor unit
B. discharge gas leaving the cylinder can lead to
C. suction gas returning from the evapo- A. higher efficiencies
rator
B. less airflow
D. water in the coaxial coil
C. a lower refrigerant volume
6. Reciprocating compressors are cooled by D. outdoor fan damage from overuse
the
12. In order to reduce solar load on a residence,
A. air over the shell it’s best to place larger windows on the
B. discharge gas leaving the cylinder sides of the house.
C. suction gas returning from the evapo- A. north and south
rator B. east and west
D. water in the coaxial coil C. front and back
7. If a design system is likely to have a large D. left and right
pressure drop on the low side, a remedy 13. The air temperature of the air off an evap-
might be orative cooler is
A. get a bigger compressor A. warmer than entering air
B. use more than one evaporator coil B. cooler than entering air
C. change the metering device C. the same as entering air
D. move the condensor closer D. above entering air

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 2.9 Air-duct Design 309

14. Solar load is actually C. radiation from the sun

A. ambient air

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. in the jet stream D. the dry bulb temperature

2.9 Air-duct Design

1. Which of the following is not a cross - B. <=30mmWC
sectional type of airway? C. <= 40mmwc
A. triangle D. <=50mmWC
B. square
6. By using a duct calculator.Determine the
C. rectangular
size of the duct velocity for supply of wa-
D. round ter if the quantity water is 28, 000 cfm.
2. Using the rule of thumb (low) method, cal- A. 1500 fpm
culate the airflow rate (CFM) for a hall B. 1850 fpm
with a floor area of 78 ‘width x 138’
C. 1900 fpm
long.(Please use Table Check Figures)
D. 2150 fpm
A. 13, 455 cfm
B. 16, 146 cfm 7. By using a duct calculator.Determine the
C. 21, 528 cfm size of the duct velocity for water return
if the quantity water is 5, 200 cfm.
D. 26, 910 cfm
A. 500 fpm
3. By using a duct calculator.Determine the B. 1200 fpm
size of the diameter duct for water return
if the quantity water is 8, 500 cfm. C. 1300 fpm

A. 33 inci D. 1650 fpm

B. 35 inci 8. By using a duct calculator.Determine the
C. 41 inci size of the diameter duct for supply of wa-
ter if the quantity water is 32, 000 cfm.
D. 43 inci
A. 48 inci
4. What is the friction loss rate used for wa-
B. 52 inci
ter supply on duct calculator?
C. 60 inci
A. .001
D. 62 inci
B. .01
C. .1 9. What is the friction loss rate used for wa-
ter return on duct calculator?
D. 1
A. .1
5. What is the standard pressure pressure
range for the design of the low pressure B. .01
system? C. .8
A. <=25mmWC D. .08

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2.9 Air-duct Design 310

10. Which of the following is not a type of air 11. What is the aspect ratio consideration for
duct? the Rectangular Duct design?
A. GI sheet metal A. less 4: 1
B. Aluminium sheet B. less 5: 1
C. Cement asbestos C. More 4: 1
D. Fiber optic D. More 5: 1

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 PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
3. HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER

3.1 Basic Concepts of Heat Transfer

1. Billy bumped his head and immediately 4. Calculate the thermal efectiveness for a
put an ice pack on his head. Which heat heat exchanger with the following data:1.
transfer method is making the ice pack Cold fluid:mass flow= 2 kg/s; Cp=1
warmer? kJ/kg◦ C; Tc, 1=10 ◦ CHot fluid:mass flow=
2 kg/s; Cp=2 kJ/kg◦ C; Th, 1=100 ◦ C;
A. Conduction
Th2=60 ◦ C
B. Convection
A. 0, 89
C. Radiation B. 0, 5
D. Insulation C. 1, 2

2. The correction factor for multi-pass heat D. Ninguna de las anteriores

exchangers is 5. What means to move energy from one ob-
A. F ject or system to another?
B. R A. transform

C. U B. transfer

D. C* C. transduct
D. transvect
3. What is energy stored in the bonds be-
tween atoms in molecules? (due to the 6. If you cannot open a jar, why will plac-
makeup of the substance) ing the metal lid under hot water help to
loosen the lid?
A. nuclear
A. Glass contracts when it is heated.
B. chemical
B. Metals expand when they are heated.
C. electrical
C. Metals are easier to grip when they
D. electromagnetic are warm.

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3.1 Basic Concepts of Heat Transfer 312

D. Hot water reduces friction between D. The kernels stick together to form a
metal and glass. ball.

7. What is the use of force to move an object 12. What is the only type of energy that can
some distance? travel through a vacuum? (does not need
A. force a medium on which to travel)

B. work A. conduction

C. energy B. convection

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. gravity C. radiant
D. electrical
8. What enables firemen to enter buildings
that are on fire and return from them 13. During the day, breezes go toward the
safely? A. land
A. Convection cells keep fire away B. ocean
B. The heat makes the building expand so C. wherever you are standing
there is no more room
D. straight up
C. Firemen wear heat resistant suits
14. Which best explains how roasting marsh-
D. They are really fast
mallows happens?
9. A spoon is placed into a mug of hot coffee. A. Heat from the fire is conducted into the
As the spoon sits in the coffee it begins to marshmallow.
get warm. The heat from the coffee moves
B. Heat from the fire is radiated into the
to the cool spoon. The spoon is an example
marshmallow.
of:
C. The coolness of the marshmallow is
A. Conductor
conducted into the fire.
B. Insulator
D. The coolness of the marshmallow is ra-
C. Radiator diated into the fire.
D. Contractor
15. What is electromagnetic energy that trav-
10. What is heat transfer through direct con- els in waves?
tact? A. radiation
A. conduction B. radiant
B. convection C. electrical
C. radiation D. nuclear
D. radiant 16. If NTU is 2, U is 200 W/m2◦ C, and Cmin
11. Popcorn is made from corn kernels. What is 2 W/◦ C, what is the area in square me-
occurs when kernels are heated in the mi- ters?
crowave? A. 0, 02
A. The kernels expand. B. 2
B. The kernels dissolve. C. 0, 2
C. The kernels become hard and brittle. D. 20

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3.1 Basic Concepts of Heat Transfer 313

17. The power goes out at your house. After 2 22. What type of energy is due to an object’s
hours you go to the freezer and you notice ability to be stretched?
that everything is still completely frozen.

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A. kinetic
Why did none of the food melt?
B. mechanical
A. The food has a low melting point.
C. elastic
B. The food has a high melting point.
D. electromagnetic
C. The freezer is made of materials that
insulates and keeps the freezer cold. 23. What dimensionless number is directly re-
lated to the area of the heat exchanger?
D. The freezer is made of materials that
conducts and keeps the freezer cold. A. NTU
B. C*
18. At night, the breezes go toward the
C. ε
A. land
D. Euler
B. water
24. What is heat transfer through electromag-
C. wherever you are standing netic waves or rays?
D. straight up A. conduction

19. What is a push or a pull acting on an ob- B. convection

ject in order to change the motion of the C. radiation
object? D. radiant
A. force
25. You are on a camping trip and you for-
B. work got your cooking supplies at home. What
C. energy would be the best way to cook your food?

D. gravity A. Shining a flashlight over the food.

B. Food on top of a metal shovel over an
20. Which method is preferred, because of its open flame.
simplicity, to calculate the area of a heat
C. Food in a bucket placed in the sun.
exchanger?
D. Food wrapped up in a sleeping bag.
A. LMTD
B. NTU-Efectiveness 26. What type of energy occurs when the nu-
clei of uranium atoms are changed?
C. None of these ones
A. electromagnetic
D. none of above
B. nucleus potential
21. When heat capacity ratios of two streams C. kinetic
are equal, it is true that these are equal D. nuclear
A. individual heat transfer coefficients
27. If you pour hot water into a bathtub with
B. Reynolds and Prandtl numbers cold water, what will be created?
C. temperature differences A. Conductor
D. thermal resistance B. Insulator

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3.1 Basic Concepts of Heat Transfer 314

C. Convection Cell 33. Ms. Smith uses her lunch box to keep her
D. Conduction lunch warm. Her lunch box is an example
of:
28. What is energy carried by moving elec- A. Conductor
trons forced along a path?
B. Insulator
A. kinetic
C. Radiator
B. electromagnetic
D. Contraction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. nuclear
34. Warm air rises in the atmosphere then
D. electrical
cools and condenses and falls which cre-
29. What is energy due to an object’s height ates a current of wind circulation. This
above the ground? phenomenon is responsible for much of the
world’s weather patterns. Which of the
A. kinetic following concepts best fits this descrip-
B. gravitational tion?
C. mechanical A. conduction
D. electromagnetic B. ultraviolet radiation
C. convection
30. Why does a balloon on top of a water bot-
tle expand when the bottle is placed in hot D. infrared radiation
water?
35. Hot air rising and cool air sinking is an ex-
A. Heat causes gases to expand. ample of
B. Heat causes gases to contract. A. Evaporation
C. As air cools, currents flow clockwise. B. Radiation
D. As air cools, currents flow counter- C. Convection
clockwise. D. Conduction
31. What type of energy is energy in motion? 36. Which are the units of lobal heat transfer
A. kinetic coefficient?
B. potential A. W/m2◦ C
C. mechanical B. m2◦ C/W
D. nuclear C. J/m2◦ C
D. Ninguna de las anteriores
32. What type of energy relates to the
repetitive compression and rarefaction of 37. What type of energy is energy of motion
molecules in a substance? and includes both kinetic and potential?
A. sound A. kinetic
B. light B. potential
C. ultra violet C. mechanical
D. electromagnetic D. electrical

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3.1 Basic Concepts of Heat Transfer 315

38. What is the energy a substance or system 43. Which of the following is the sun’s rays
has related to its temperature? reaching the earth?
A. radiation

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A. hot
B. thermal B. convection
C. electrical C. conduction

D. electromagnetic D. insulator
44. What type of energy has stored en-
39. Why should space be left at the top of a
ergy due to its position and/or chemical
plastic bottle when filling with water and
makeup?
then freezing?
A. kinetic
A. Because water expands when frozen.
B. potential
B. Because water contracts when frozen.
C. electrical
C. Because plastic contracts when
D. mechanical
frozen.
D. Because plastic expands when frozen. 45. A material that flows is a
A. Solid
40. What is heat transfer through the circula- B. Liquid
tion of a liquid or gas?
C. Gas
A. conduction
D. Fluid
B. convection
46. When choosing materials to build a fire-
C. radiation place, why is brick a better choice than
D. radiant metal?
A. Brick is a conductor.
41. Many electrical wires are wrapped in plas-
tic coating because plastic is B. Brick is heat resistant.
A. less expensive than steel C. Metal is a conductor.
B. more dense than copper D. Metal is heat resistant.

C. able to keep its shape 47. Charles is boiling water to make macaroni
n’ cheese. The process of heating the pot
D. a good insulator
is an example of
42. Which best explains why there are gaps A. Expansion
between the concrete sidewalks? B. Radiation
A. When it’s cold the gaps allow expand- C. Convection
ing without cracking.
D. Conduction
B. When it’s hot the gaps allow expanding
without cracking. 48. One of the next are dimensional
A. Heat transfer rate
C. When it’s cold the gaps allow contract-
ing without cracking. B. thermal effectiveness
D. When it’s hot the gaps allow contract- C. NTU
ing without cracking. D. C*

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 3.2 One-Dimensional Steady-state Conduction 316

49. Which best describes heat transfer by ra- 50. What means to change energy from one
diation? form to another?
A. A slice of bacon frying in a pan. A. transduct
B. A pot on a stove boiling water. B. transfer
C. Cooking a hotdog in a microwave. C. transform
D. A hot air balloon. D. transvect

NARAYAN CHANGDER
3.2 One-Dimensional Steady-state Conduction
1. Regarding one dimensional heat transfer, 5. Thermal conductivity of metals increases
choose the correct statement. with the
A. Steady-f (x), Unsteady-f (x, t) A. Increase of pressure
B. Steady-f (x, t), Unsteady-f (x) B. Decrease of temperature
C. Steady-f (y, z), Unsteady-f (y) C. None of these
D. Steady-f (x, y, t), Unsteady-f (x) D. none of above
2. Which one is not the unit of thermal con-
6. The appropriate rate equation for convec-
ductivity?
tive heat transfer between a surface and
A. kcal/m hr K adjacent fluid is prescribed by
B. KJ/m hr K A. Newton’s first law
C. W/m s K B. Wein’s displacement law
D. Cal/cm s K
C. Kirchhoff’s law
3. Land and sea breezes are the result of D. Newton’s law of cooling
A. convection
7. Which of the following is the unit of ther-
B. radiation mal resistance?
C. conduction A. degree/kcal
D. none of above
B. hour degree
4. Fourier’s law of heat conduction gives the C. s degree/kcal
rate of heat flow for which of the follow-
ing conditions? D. degree/W

A. one dimensional steady state heat 8. Fourier law of heat conduction is best rep-
transfer resented by
B. two dimensional non equilibrium, un- A. Q =-k A d t /d x
steady heat transfer
B. Q = k A d x/d t
C. heat transfer due to external convec-
tion C. Q =-k A
D. all of these D. Q = k d t/d x

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3.2 One-Dimensional Steady-state Conduction 317

9. Transfer of heat by actual movement of C. Plasma

molecules from a hot place to a cold place D. Gases
is known as

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15. Heat transfer takes place in liquids and
A. radiation
gases is essentially due to
B. convection
A. Radiation
C. fusion
B. Conduction
D. conduction C. Convection
10. Which of the following is a case of steady D. Conduction as well as convection
state heat transfer
16. Most unsteady heat flow occurs
A. I.C. engine
A. Through the walls of the refrigerator
B. Air preheaters
B. During annealing of castings
C. heating of building in winter
C. Through the walls of the furnace
D. none of these
D. Through lagged pipe carrying steam
11. How many types of convection process are 17. does not need any medium for heat
there? transfer.
A. one A. conduction
B. three B. convection
C. four C. radiation
D. none of above D. none of above
12. Unit of thermal conductivity in SI unit is 18. Heat is transferred from body with
A. J/m2 sec A. Higher temperature to lower tempera-
B. J/m K sec ture

C. W/m K B. Higher energy to lower energy

C. Both of these
D. both b and c
D. none of above
13. The rate of flow of heat across the oppo-
site faces of a meter cube of a substance 19. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on
maintained at the temperature difference A. Moisture
of 1 kelvin is called its B. Density
A. thermal radiation C. Temprature
B. flow of energy D. All of the above
C. thermal conductivity
20. Here are some assumptions that are made
D. none of above for Fourier law. Identify the wrong one
14. The transfer of heat by molecular collision A. No internal heat generation
is smallest in B. Steady state heat conduction
A. Solid C. Non-linear temperature profile
B. Liquids D. Isotropic and homogenous material

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3.2 One-Dimensional Steady-state Conduction 318

21. What is the importance of knowing the B. k is inversely proportional to A and di-
rate of heat flow in a metal rod? rectly proportional to (dT/dx)
A. It helps in determining the tempera- C. k is directly proportional to A and
ture distribution in the rod (dT/dx)
B. It helps in determining the thermal D. k is inversely proportional to A and
conductivity of the metal (dT/dx)
C. It helps in determining the cross-
26. The critical temperature is the temperature

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sectional area of the rod
D. It has no practical applications A. Below which a gas does not obey gas
law
22. Heat transfer in a long, hollow cylinder
which is maintained at uniform but differ- B. Above which A gas may explode
ent temperatures on its inner and outer C. Below which a gas is always liquefied
surfaces may be assumed to be taking
place in which direction? D. Above which a gas will never Liquefied
A. Axial only
27. The amount of heat flow through a body
B. Unpredictable by conduction is
C. Radial only A. directly proportional to the surface
D. No heat transfer takes place area of the body

23. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends B. directly proportional to the tempera-
upon ture difference on the two faces of the
body
A. Its temperature
C. dependent upon the material of the
B. Nature of the body
body
C. Kind and extent of its surface
D. all of these
D. All of these
28. The transfer of heat by molecular collision
24. A metal rod of length L and cross-
is known as
sectional area A has a temperature gra-
dient (dT/dx) from one end to the other. A. Conduction
What is the rate of heat flow in the rod?
B. Convection
A. Q/t = kA(dT/dx)
C. Radiation
B. Q/t = kL(dT/dx)
D. None of these
C. Q/t = kA(dx/dT)
D. Q/t = kL(dx/dT) 29. Transmission of heat i.e. molecular is
smallest in case of
25. What is the relationship between ther-
mal conductivity, cross-sectional area, and A. Gases
temperature gradient in steady state heat B. Liquids
conduction?
C. Alloys
A. k is directly proportional to A and in-
versely proportional to (dT/dx) D. Solid

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3.2 One-Dimensional Steady-state Conduction 319

30. The SI unit of heat energy transferred is 35. During a cold winter season, a person
expressed in- prefers to sit near a fire. Which of the
following modes of heat transfer provides

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A. joule
him the maximum heat?
B. pascal
A. Conduction from the fire
C. newton
B. If it is near the fire, convection sounds
D. none of above good
31. How many modes are there in heat trans- C. Convection and radiation together
fer?
D. Radiation will provide quick warmth
A. 2
B. 3 36. n convection heat transfer from hot flue
gases to water tube, even though flow
C. 4 may be turbulent, a laminar flow region
D. none of above (boundary layer of film) exists close to the
tube. The heat transfer through this film
32. Fourier’s law of heat conduction gives the takes place by
heat flow for
A. Conduction
A. Irregular Surface
B. Raditaion
B. Non uniform Temperature Surface
C. Convection
C. One dimensional cases only
D. Both convection and Conduction
D. Two dimensional cases only
37. Why is the negative sign introduced in the
33. Consider the following statements:The
equation of Fourier’s law of heat conduc-
Fourier heat conduction equationQ =-k A d
tion? q =-kA (dT / dx)
t /d xPresumesi) Steady state condition-
sii) Constant value of thermal conductivi- A. a. Because heat transfer rate is in-
tyiii) Uniform temperature at the wall sur- versely proportional to temperature gra-
faceiv) One dimensional heat flowWhich of dient
these statements are correct? B. b. Because value of thermal conductiv-
A. i, ii and iii ity k is negative
B. i, ii and iv C. c. Because heat is transferred from
C. i, iii and iv higher temperature to lower temperature

D. i, iii and iv D. d)Because heat transferred from

lower to higher temprature
34. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is
38. Heat transfer takes place according to
A. directly proportional to thermal con- which law?
ductivity
A. Newton’s law of cooling
B. inversely proportional to density of
substance B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. inversely proportional to specific heat C. Newton’s second law of motion
D. all of these D. First law of thermodynamics

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 3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface 320

39. causes due to density difference B. density

A. conduction C. porosity
B. convection D. all of these
C. radiation 41. Thermal conductivity is maximum for
D. none of above which substance
A. Silver
40. Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies

NARAYAN CHANGDER
from sample to sample because of varia- B. Ice
tion in C. Diamond
A. composition D. none of above

3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface

1. Which of the following are not affected by B. Finned pipe
adding Fins? C. Shell and tube
A. Net Heat Transfer D. Spiral tube
B. Heat transfer coefficient
5. In 1-1 type shell and tube heat exchanger
C. Heat transfer rate there is how many number of inlet and out-
D. Turbulence let
A. 1 inlet-2 outlet
2. In fourier’s law, the proportionality con-
stant is called the B. 2 inlet-2 outlet

A. Heat transfer coefficient C. 1 inlet-1 outlet

D. 2 inlet-1 outlet
B. Thermal diffusivity
C. Thermal conductivity 6. How many tube side pass are there in 1-2
shell tube heat exchanger
D. Stefan-Boltzman constant
A. 3
3. What can we infer from the name 2-4 Shell B. 2
and Tube Heat Exchanger?
C. 4
A. Partition of the Shell into two and four
passes of the tube D. 1

B. Partition of the Shell into two three 7. Heat exchangers are of

passes of the tube A. 2 type
C. One Shell and Four pass of the tube B. 3 type
D. Partition of the Shell into three four C. 4 type
passes of the tube
D. 5 type
4. Which of the following is a subset of the 8. In how many categories heat exchangers
category of tubular heat exchanger are classified on the basis of physical state
A. Double pipe of heat exchanging fluids?

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3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface 321

A. 1 B. different temperatures
B. 2 C. maximum base temperature

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C. 3 D. minimum temperature
D. 4
14. What is the effect of thermal conductivity
9. How many times cold fluid pass in 2-4 k on fin effectiveness?
shell and tube heat exchanger A. fin is effective for smaller value of ther-
A. 6 mal conductivity k
B. 5 B. fin is effective for larger value of ther-
mal conductivity k
C. 4
C. thermal conductivity k does not affect
D. 3 the fin effectiveness
10. Shell side pressure drop in a shell and tube D. cannot say
heat exchanger does not depend upon the
15. In how many categories heat exchangers
A. Baffles spacing
are classified on the basis of direction of
B. Shell diameter flow of fluids?
C. Tube Diameter A. 4 categories
D. None B. 3 categories
11. The energy transfer between the hot fluid C. 2 categories
and the cold fluid is brought about by their D. 1 categories
complete physical mixing in
16. The purpose of floating head in a heat ex-
A. Direct contact Heat Exchanger
changer is to
B. Regenerators
A. Avoid buckling of tubes.
C. Boilers
B. Provide support for tubes.
D. Recuperators
C. Decrese the pressure drop.
12. Baffle in the shell side of a shell and tube D. Facilitate its lengthening, if needed.
heat exchanger
A. Decresed the shell side heat transfer 17. Which of the following statements are in-
Co-efficient. correct about Baffles in a Shell and Tube
HE?
B. Incresaed the shell side heat transfer
Co-efficient. A. Baffles provide mechanical support to
the tubes and help them to be in position
C. Force the liquid to flow paralles to the
bank. B. Baffles streamline the motion of the
fluid in Shell side and hence decreases the
D. None turbulence
13. In the process of heat transfer through ex- C. The most common type of baffle is seg-
tended surfaces or fins, the entire surface mental baffles
area is at D. Baffles increase the overall heat trans-
A. the same constant temperature fer coefficient on the shell side

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3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface 322

18. Reconized the given shell and tube heat ex- C. To reduce leakage
changer D. none of above
A. 1-2 shell and tube
24. What is efficiency of fin?
B. 2-3 shell and tube
A. the ratio of actual heat transferred
C. 2-4 shell and tube
from fin area to the heat which would be
D. 3-6 shell and tube transferred if entire fin area was at base
temperature
19. In shell and tube Heat exchanger Baffles

NARAYAN CHANGDER
are fitted in B. the heat which would be transferred if
entire fin area was at base temperature to
A. Zigzag pattern
the ratio of actual heat transferred from
B. There is no specific patern fin area
C. Baffles are fitted in one side of the C. the heat which would be transferred if
Heat exchanger entire fin area was at minimum tempera-
D. Baffles are fitted in Rounded shape ture to the ratio of actual heat transferred
from fin area
20. In a shell and tube heat exchanger how
many Tube-sheets are needed? D. . the ratio of actual heat transferred
from fin area to the heat which would be
A. 2 transferred if entire fin area was at mini-
B. 3 mum temperature
C. 1 25. How many times the vapour pass in 2-4
D. 4 heat exchanger
21. In 2-4 type of heat exchanger how many A. 2
tubes are there: B. 5
A. 6 C. 4
B. 8 D. 6
C. 4
26. Common application of fine surfaces are
D. 2 with
22. Based upon the nature of heat exchange A. Electrical motors
process, the heat exchangers are classified B. Economizers for steam power plant
into how many categories
C. Convectors for steam and cold water
A. 1
heating systems
B. 2
D. Cooling coils
C. 3
27. Baffles in the shell side of a shell and tube
D. 4
heat exchanger
23. The metal plate is added on to the tube in A. Increase the cross section of the shell
extended surface heat exchanger because side liquid
A. To increase the surface area B. Force the liquid to flow parallel to the
B. To provide support bank.

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3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface 323

C. Increase the shell side heat transfer B. 2

coefficient C. 1

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D. Decrease the shell side heat transfer D. 4
coefficient
33. If we know the output and input temper-
28. The benefit of keeping 2 tube-side pass in atures of the heat exchanging fluids, then
1-2 type of heat exchanger: which one of the following calculation is
A. Length of tube is increased not required to determine the number of
bends in tube for the equipment?
B. Surface area is increased
A. Total heat transfer area required
C. Time of contact is increase
B. Pressure drop in the equipment
D. Liquid can be heated in higher temper-
ature C. Overall heat transfer coefficients
E. all D. Pipe length

29. Capacity ratio is defined as the product of 34. The equivalent diameter for the annulus of
a double pipe heat exchanger whose inner
A. Mass and temperature pipe has fins on the outside is com-
B. Mass and specific heat pared to the same size pipes without fins.
C. Specific heat and temperature A. More
D. Time and temperature B. Less
C. Same
30. In a shell and tube type heat ex-changer
the floating tube bundle heat arrangement D. Unpredictable
is used
35. In 1-2 type shell and tube Heat exchanger
A. In low range of temperature differ- The distribution chamber divided into
ence.
A. 3 compartment
B. In low range of pressure difference. B. 2 compartment
C. In high range of temperature differ- C. 4 compartment
ence.
D. There is no division
D. In high range of pressure difference.
36. With increase in temperature, the thermal
31. Double pipe heat exchanger are used conductivity of non metallic amorphous
A. When heat transfer area required is solids
very high A. Decreases
B. When heat transfer area is very low. B. Increases
C. Because it occupies less floor area C. Remains constant
D. Because it is less costly D. First decreases up to certain tempera-
ture and then increases
32. In how many categories heat exchangers
are classified on the basis of mechanical 37. In shell and tube heat exchanger what kind
design of heat exchanger surface? of fluid is used as hot fluid?
A. 3 A. Hot oil

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3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface 324

B. steam or super heated steam 43. Which one of the following is the determin-
ing reason for heat transfer in double pipe
C. Hot Water
HE?
D. Burner A. Conduction
38. Heat exchangers are classified into how B. Natural convection
many categories? C. Forced convection
A. 1 D. Radiation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 2 44. When gas is used as a fluid in a double pipe
C. 3 heat exchanger, which one of the follow-
ing is not true?
D. 4
A. The gas side has a low heat transfer
coefficient
39. Heat exchanger tubes are made up of
B. Extended fins are used on the gas side
A. Plain carbon steel
to increase the Heat Transfer coefficient
B. stainless steel C. The gas side heat transfer coefficient
C. Copper is the highest
D. All of these D. Fins increase necessary heat transfer
area
40. How many times do we have to calculate 45. Which medium of surrounding is better for
for pressure drop in a shell and tube heat fin effectiveness?
exchanger?
A. gas medium
A. 1
B. liquid medium
B. 2 C. fins have same effectiveness in both
C. 3 the gas and liquid mediums
D. 4 D. none of the above
46. How many types of heat exchangers are
41. Which of the following is the tube heat ex-
there?
changer?
A. 1
A. Shell and tube heat exchanger.
B. 3
B. Extended surface heat exchanger.
C. 2
C. Double pipe heat Exchangers. D. 4
D. Kettle Reboiler.
47. How many times do we have to calculate
42. Shell and tube heat exchangers are for Nusselt number in a Double Pipe Heat
Exchanger?
A. 2 type
A. 1
B. 4 type B. 2
C. 6 type C. 3
D. 3 type D. 4

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3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface 325

48. Which of the following phases of designer C. 3

consider corrosive nature of the fluid in? D. 4

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A. The tharmal analysis
54. A 2-4 heat exchanger involves
B. the mechanical design
C. the design for manufacture A. Only counter-flow of fluids.

D. none of the above B. Only parallel-flow of fluids.

C. Both A & B
49. Baffle are used for:
D. None
A. Movement of Gas
B. Tubes kept loose 55. Which is not a type of shell and tube heat
C. Movement of cold fluid exchanger

D. Keep the tubes tight and also helps in A. 1-1 type

the movement of hot fluid B. 1-2 type
50. Type of Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger C. 1-4 type
A. 1-1 type D. 2-4 type
B. 2-2 type
56. Overall heat transfer coefficient of particu-
C. 3-3 type lar tube is U1 .if the same tube with some
D. 4-4 type dirt deposits on either side has coefficient
U2, then
51. In a heat exchanger, both fluids flow
A. U1=U2
alternatively through the same flow pas-
sage, and hence heat transfer is intermit- B. U2>U1
tent . C. U1>U2
A. shell and tube
D. U1= dirt factor-U2
B. fluidised bed
57. Why 1-1 type shell and tube heat ex-
C. storage type
changer is called as 1-1 type?
D. cross flow type
A. There is 1 shell
52. Which of the following is not an example B. there is 1 tube side pass and 1 shell
of recuperators type heat exchanger? side pass
A. Condensers
C. There is 1 tube side pass
B. Automobile radiators
D. none of above
C. Chemical factories
D. Oil heaters for an aero plane 58. The three most common types of shell and
tube exchangers are
53. How many times do we have to calculate
A. fixed tubesheet design
for Pressure drop in a Shell and Tube Heat
Exchanger? B. U-tube design
A. 1 C. floating-head type
B. 2 D. Regenerator type

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3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface 326

59. Which of the following is not the part of milk chiller of a pasteurizing plantiii) Au-
shell & tube heat exchanger? tomobile radiators and oil coolers of heat
A. Baffles engines

B. Guide rod A. Only i)

C. Tube sheets B. ii) and iii)

D. Vacuum pump C. i), ii) and iii)

D. i) and ii)

NARAYAN CHANGDER
60. The main function of baffles provided in a
shell and tube heat exchanger is to 65. It is said that fins can take a variety of
A. Enhance turbulance. forms
B. Hold tube in place. A. Longitudinal fins of rectangular cross
section attached to a wall
C. Facilitates the cleaning of the outer
tube surface. B. Cylindrical tubes with radial fins
D. All of these C. Conical rod protruding from a wall
D. None of the above
61. What is the thermal conductivity of a per-
fect heat insulator 66. Which is the major mean of the heat trans-
A. Zero fer in a double pipe heat exchanger?
B. 1 A. Convection
C. Less than 1 B. Conduction
D. Between 0 and 1 C. Radiation

62. How many distribution chamber are D. Combined convection and conduction
present in 1-1 shell and tube exchanger
67. Which of the following is concerned with
A. 3 both heat and mass transfer
B. 2 A. Lewis relationship
C. 1 B. Nusselt number
D. 4 C. Kutateladze number
63. In a fluidsed bed heat exchanger with hot D. Froude number
gas flow, at fluidsation the temperature of
the bed is 68. What can we infer from the name 2-4 shell
and tube heat exchanger?
A. Linearly increase
A. partition of the shell into two and four
B. uniform passes of the tube
C. Linearly Decrease B. partition of the shell into two and three
D. Decrease but not linear passes of the tube
C. one shell and four pass of the tube
64. Some examples of heat exchangers arei)
Condensers and Evaporators in refrigera- D. partiton of the shell into three and four
tion unitsii) Evaporator of an Ice-plant and passes of the tube

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3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface 327

69. When gas is used as a fluid in double pipe B. to enhance heat transfer
Heat Exchanger, which of the following ia C. both a. And b.
not true?

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D. none of the above
A. The gas side has a low heat transfer
co-efficient 74. Which is the major mean of heat transfer
B. The gas side has a highest heat trans- in a Double Pipe heat exchanger?
fer co-efficient A. Convection
C. Fins increase necessary heat transfer
B. Conduction
area
C. Combined Convection and Conduction
D. Extended fins are used on the gas side
to increase the Heat Transfer Co-efficient D. Radiation

70. In how many ways can we classify Shell 75. In an operation where we want to heat a
and Tube heat exchangers on the basis of stream of liquid by steam, we have the op-
flow patterns? tion to use extended fins. Then which of
A. 1 the following is best suited?

B. 2 A. steam on the shell side with the fins on

outer surface of the tube
C. 3
B. steam on the tube side with the fins on
D. 4
outer surface of the tube
71. When a fluid is used in a shell and tube C. steam on the shell side with the fins on
haat exchanger, which one of the follow- inner suface of the tube
ing is not true?
D. steam on the tube side with the fins on
A. If the fluid is gas then the gas slide inner surface of the tube
heat transfer coefficent is the lowest
B. Extended fin are use on the shell side 76. Maximum heat transfer rate is achived in
to increase the heat transfer coefficent flow.
C. Baffles are provided only works as fins A. Laminar
D. Fins increase necessary heat transfer B. Counter-currrent
area C. Co-current
72. The extended surface used for the enhance- D. None
ment of heat dissipation is
77. Many type of heat Exchangers have been
A. Convective coefficient
developed to meet the widely varying ap-
B. Fourier number plications. Based upon theiri) Operating
C. fins principleii) Arrangement of flow pathiii)
Design
D. No finned surface
A. i), ii) and iii)
73. What is the purpose of using baffles in
B. i) and ii)
shell and tube heat exchangers?
A. to maintain uniform spacing between C. ii) and iii)
tubes D. i) and iii)

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3.3 Heat Dissipation from Extended Surface 328

78. Pick out the wrong statement C. Pressure drop of the fluid should be
A. Superheated steam is preferably not minimized
used for process heatings because of its D. Surface area is maximum to promote
low heat transfer flame coefficient. the rate of heat transfer
B. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the 83. Aluminum is used as a fin material because
shell pressure drops is maximum for ori-
fice baffles. A. it has higher convection heat transfer
coefficient

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. S.I unit of fouling factor is watt/m2 .k
B. it has higher thermal conductivity
D. Longitudinal fins are used in extended
surface heat exchanger, when the direc- C. it has lower convection heat transfer
tions of fluid flow is parallel to the axis of coefficient
the tube. D. it has lower thermal conductivity
79. Which of the following is not a subset of 84. Which of te following is not associated
the category of Tubular Heat Exchangers? with a heat exchanger?
A. Double pipe A. Fouling
B. Finned pipe B. NTU
C. Shell and Tube C. capacity ratio
D. Spiral tube D. Mc adams correction factor
80. In a sheets & tube heat exchanger the flow 85. How many types of shell and tube heat ex-
pattern is usually changers are there
A. Concurrent. A. 3
B. Counter current. B. 2
C. Concurrent at a part and counter cur- C. 1
rent at the other.
D. none of above
D. Mixed well.
86. Types of extended surface heat exchange:
81. In a shell and tube heat exchanger the
shell side fluid velocity can’t be changed A. Longitudinal fins
by changing the B. Transverse fins
A. Tube layout C. Horizontal fins
B. Tube diameter D. Vertical fins
C. Both E. both a and b
D. None
87. In case of a multipass shell and tube hest
82. On a heat transfer surface, fins are pro- exchanger, the temperature drop in the
vided to fluid
A. Increase turbulence in flow for en- A. Is inversely proportional to the resis-
hancing heat transfer tance across which the drop occurs
B. Increase temperature gradient so as B. And the wall are proportional to indi-
to enhance heat transfer vidual resistance

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 3.4 Transient Heat Conduction 329

C. And the wall is not related 89. What is the effect of convective heat trans-
D. Is directly proportional to the resis- fer coefficient h on fin effectiveness?

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tance across which the drop occurs A. fin is effective if the value of convec-
tive heat transfer coefficient h is small
88. If the fin is sufficiently thin, so heat flows
pertain to B. fin is effective if the value of convec-
tive heat transfer coefficient h is large
A. One dimensional heat conduction
C. fin effectiveness does not affected by
B. Two dimensional heat conduction the value of convective heat transfer coef-
C. Three dimensional heat conduction ficient h
D. No heat flow is there D. none of the above

3.4 Transient Heat Conduction

1. What is the ratio of the buoyancy force to 4. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with
the viscous force acting on a fluid called? rise in
A. Prandtl number (Pr) A. Increases
B. Reynolds number (Re) B. decreases
C. Nusselt number (Nu) C. remains constant
D. Grashof number (Gr) D. may increase or decrease dependig on
temperature
2. How does the thermal conductivity of a
material change with respect to change in 5. Rate of heat flow by convection doesn’t
the temperature of the same material? depend on

A. thermal conductivity of a material in- A. Convective heat transfer coefficient

creases with an increase in its tempera- B. Surface area through which heat flows
ture C. Time
B. thermal conductivity of a material de- D. Temperature potential difference
creases with increase in its temperature
6. A composite plane wall is made of two dif-
C. thermal conductivity of a material re- ferent materials of same thickness with
mains same with change in its tempera- thermal conductivities k1 and k2 respec-
ture tively. The equivalent thermal conductiv-
D. unpredictable ity of the slab is

3. The critical radius of a hollow sphere hav- A. k1 + k2

ing thermal conductivity k and ho as con- B. k1.k2
vective heat transfer coefficient of outer C. (2k1.k2)/(k1+k2)
fluid is given by
D. None of these
A. ho / k
7. The temperature drop in a plane wall with
B. k / ho uniformly distributed heat generation can
C. 2k / ho be decreased by reducing
D. ho / 2k A. Wall thickness

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3.4 Transient Heat Conduction 330

B. Heat generation rate B. Flow of water in condenser tubes

C. Thermal Conductivity C. Cooling of billets in the atmosphere
D. Surface area D. Heat exchange on cold and warm pipes
8. Conduction is limited to
14. Which one is having the highest thermal
A. Solids conductivity
B. Fluids A. Silver

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. No medium required B. Copper
D. Both a. & b.
C. Glass
9. At the critical radius of insulation of a hol- D. Earth
low sphere, the heat transfer will be
A. minimum 15. Fourier law of conduction
B. maximum A. KAdT
C. does not change B. KLdT/dX
D. unpredictable C. -KAdT/dX
10. unit of heat transfer is D. none of above
A. joul
16. Mixing is the key factor of
B. Newton
A. conduction
C. Pascal
B. convection
D. Watt
C. radiation
11. Which of the following condition is correct
for natural convection? D. both a & b
A. (Gr / Re2) = 1
17. The materials which have low thermal con-
B. (Gr / Re2) « 1 ductivity are
C. (Gr / Re2) » 1 A. thermal conductors
D. none of the above B. thermal resistors
12. The SI unit of heat transfer coefficient is C. thermal insulators
A. W/mK D. none of the above
B. W/m2 K
18. What is the correct formula for The Biot
C. W/hmK
number?
D. WIh2 m2 K
A. hl/k
13. Which of the following is an example of B. k/hl
forced convection?
C. l/hk
A. Chilling effect of cold wind on a warm
body D. hk/l

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3.4 Transient Heat Conduction 331

19. What does a composite wall mean? 24. Heat transfers from an area of temper-
A. two walls of different materials are ature to an area of temperature.

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connected in series without any gap be- A. high to low
tween them B. low to high
B. three walls of different materials are C. high to high
connected in series without any gap be-
tween them D. t can travel high to low and low to high.
C. more than three walls of different ma- 25. Generally, natural convection occurs due to
terials are connected in series without any
A. change in velocity of a fluid
gap between them
B. change in density of a fluid
D. all of the above
C. change in molecular structure of a
20. There occurs heat conduction and internal fluid
heat generation at uniform rate within
D. none of the above
the conduction medium itself in the follow-
ing cases(i) Drying of concrete(ii) Chemical 26. In natural convection, the Nusselt number
processes(iii) Fuel elements in a nuclear re- (Nu) depends on
actionChoose the correct option
A. Pr and Re
A. i only
B. Gr and Re
B. ii only
C. Gr and Pr
C. i and iii
D. none of the above
D. i, ii & iii
27. All the radiation in a black body are
21. The flow of heat by conduction is the result
of the transfer of which kind of energy for A. Absorbed
one molecule to another? B. Refracted
A. chemical energy C. Transmitted
B. mechanical energy D. None
C. vibrational energy
28. What is the mode of heat transfer from
D. all of this the hot fluid surface to the adjacent layers
22. Thermal conduction is the transfer of of fluid surface?
A. Internal energy A. conduction mode of heat transfer
B. External energy B. radiation mode of heat transfer
C. a. & b. both C. convection mode of heat transfer
D. none D. none of the above

23. Unit of the rate of heat transfer is 29. unit of rate of head transfer is
A. Joule A. joule
B. Pascal B. newton
C. Newton C. pascal
D. Watt D. watt

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3.4 Transient Heat Conduction 332

30. Thermal conductivity of non metals C. aluminum

with rise in temperature D. copper
A. decreases
36. In which of the following cases most un-
B. increases steady heat flow occurs?
C. remains same A. Through the walls of a furnace
D. unpredictable B. Through lagged pipes carrying steam
31. Air at 20◦ C blows over a plate of 50 cm x

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Through the wall of a refrigerator
75 cm maintained at 250◦ C. If the convec-
D. During annealing of castings
tion heat transfer coefficient is 25 W/m2
◦ C, the heat transfer rate is
37. What is the thermal conductivity of mag-
A. 215.6 kW netite in W/m K
B. 2156 kW A. 3.7
C. 2.156 kW B. 3.8
D. 21.56 Kw C. 2.9
D. 4.5
32. Under unsteady heat transfer condition
the temperature with in the system 38. What is lumped heat capacity analysis?
A. Dose very with time A. the analysis of a system in which it is
B. Does not vary with time assumed to be at no uniform temperature
C. vary with surface area B. the analysis of a system in which it is
assumed to be at uniform temperature
D. all of the above
C. the analysis of a system in which it is
33. In transient heat conduction, the two sig- assumed to be at either uniform or no uni-
nificant dimensionless parameters are form temperature
A. Reynolds number and Fourier number D. none of the above
B. Reynolds number and Biot number
39. In which fluid flow, the motion of fluid par-
C. Reynolds number and Prandtl number ticles is irregular?
D. Biot number and Fourier number A. Turbulent
34. Heat transfer deals with the rate of B. Laminar
A. work transfer C. One dimensional
B. temperature transfer D. Two dimensional
C. energy transfer 40. A hollow sphere of internal diameter ID =
D. none of the above 20 cm and outer diameter OD = 30 cm con-
tains hot fluid. What should be the critical
35. For a given volume and specified heat in- radius of insulation for maximum rate of
put which material will have the smallest heat transfer? Thermal conductivity k =
temperature rise 0.86 W/mK and convection heat transfer
A. water coefficient of outer fluid ho = 20 W/m2K.
B. mild steel A. 0.086 cm

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3.4 Transient Heat Conduction 333

B. 0.86 m 46. The Nusselt modulus or Nusselt number is

C. 8.6 mm a convenient measure of

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D. 8.6 cm A. rate of heat transfer
B. convective heat transfer coefficient
41. If there are no externally induced flow
velocities, then the Nusselt number (Nu) C. both a. and b.
does not depend upon D. none of the above
A. Prandtl number (Pr) 47. Transfer of thermal or heat energy through
B. Reynolds number (Re) “touch”
C. Grashof number (Gr) A. conduction
D. none of the above B. convection
42. What is the correct formula for the Nusselt C. radiation
modulus or Nusselt number (Nu)? D. none of above
A. Nu = h k l
48. Heat transfer from higher temperature to
B. Nu = (h k) / l low temperature takes place according to
C. Nu = (k l) / h A. Fourier law
D. Nu = (h l) / k B. First law of thermodynamics
43. The concept of overall coefficient of heat C. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
transfer is used in heat transfer problems D. Second law of thermodynamics
of
49. The potential difference in an electrical sys-
A. conduction
tem, is analogously considered as
B. convection
A. a current flow in the heat transfer sys-
C. conduction and convection tem
D. radiation B. a resistance in the heat transfer sys-
tem
44. In transient heat conduction, the two
significant dimensionless parameters are C. a temperature difference in the heat
number and number. transfer system
A. Fourier, Reynolds D. none of the above
B. Reynolds, Prandtl 50. When a composite wall of three layers in
C. Biot, Fourier series having thermal resistances R1, R2
D. Reynolds, Biot and R3 respectively. The heat transfer
takes place normal to the surface of the
45. What is the thermal conductivity of as- layers. How is the total thermal resis-
phalt in W/m K? tance of the composite system calculated?
A. 0.059 A. 1 / (R1 + R2 + R3)
B. 0.063 B. ((1 / R1) + (1 / R2) + (1 / R3) )
C. 0.062 C. (R1 + R2 + R3)
D. 0.067 D. none of the above

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 3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 334

51. transmission of heat i.e molecule is small- C. No linear temperature profile

est in case of D. all of the above
A. gases
55. how many modes of heat transfer there
B. liquids
A. one
C. alloys
B. Two
D. solids
C. Three

NARAYAN CHANGDER
52. Convective heat transfer coefficient D. four
doesn’t depend on
56. The rate equation used to describe the
A. Surface area
mechanism of convection is called
B. Space
A. Fourier law
C. Orientation of solid surface B. Newton law of cooling
D. Time C. Zeroth law
53. Convective heat transfer coefficient is also D. Kelvin-planck law
known as
57. The current in the electrical system is anal-
A. film convection factor ogous to
B. film coefficient A. the temperature in the heat transfer
C. film conductance system
D. none of the above B. the heat flow in the heat transfer sys-
tem
54. Identify the wrong assumption of fourier C. the thermal conductance in the heat
Low transfer system
A. No internal heat generation D. the thermal resistance in the heat
B. steady state heat conduction transfer system

3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection

1. Which of the following heat flow situa- A. a sphere
tions pertains to free or natural convec- B. a pyramid
tion?
C. a sheet
A. Air conditioning installations and nu-
D. none of above
clear reactors
B. Flow of water inside the condenser 3. Petroleum and natural gas form from
tubes A. strong winds
C. Cooling of internal combustion engine B. cooled magma
D. Cooling of billets in atmosphere C. radioactive materials
D. remains of plants and animals
2. The ideal shape for the uranium-235 sam-
ple used in a nuclear reactor is 4. Biodiversity hotspot is,

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 335

A. Process during which all members of a 10. What causes air to get warmed up?
species die out
A. Conduction.

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B. Species that has been identified as
likely to become extinct B. Convection.

C. Measurable long-term changes in C. Convection cells.

Earth’s climate D. Oceans.
D. a biogeographic region that contains
high biodiversity and is also threatened 11. John put a heat pack on his cold feet. What
with destruction will most likely be the result?

5. Hurricanes can only form where the ocean A. The cold from John’s feet will be radi-
water is ated into the heat pack.
A. 80 degrees and above B. The warmth of the heat pack will be ra-
diated onto John’s feet.
B. below 80 degrees
C. above 50 degrees C. The cold from John’s feet will be con-
ducted into the heat pack.
D. none of above
D. The warmth of the heat pack will be
6. What are some of the difficulties with nu- conducted onto John’s feet.
clear power
A. dealing with spent fuel, which is toxic 12. Heat rises because of
B. transporting fuel to the power plant A. conduction
C. both A and B B. convection
D. none of above C. radiation
7. which of these is this quiz about? D. none of above
A. convection
13. fluid particles closest to heat become
B. conduction
dense and start to
C. radiation
A. more, sink
D. none of above
B. less, rise
8. When air is heated, its volume
C. more, rise
A. increases
B. decreases D. less, sink

C. remains the same 14. convection currents are:

D. none of above A. high temperature fluids
9. To prevent overheating, control rods B. currents that contain particles called
A. move extra uranium out of the way convection
B. absorb excess neutrons C. green particles
C. create a barrier between different D. flowing fluid that is moving because
parts of the fuel there is a temperature or density differ-
D. none of above ence within the material.

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 336

15. People get energy from the food that they 19. Tom puts a metallic cover over his car’s
eat and transform that energy as they windshield after parking. How does this
move. Which energy transformations oc- control the sun’s rays during a sunny day?
cur as a student rapidly rubs the palms of A. It prevents heat energy from leaving
his hands together? the car.
A. mechanical to thermal to electrical B. It controls the temperature by provid-
B. chemical to mechanical to thermal ing shade.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. mechanical to chemical to sound C. It reflects the sun’s rays away from
D. chemical to sound to electrical the windshield.
D. It absorbs heat in the windshield pro-
16. Which layer of the Earth is the most tector and cools the car.
dense?
A. crust 20. Why is it important to conserve the biodi-
versity of Earth?
B. mantle
A. to decrease the amount of global
C. inner core predator populations
D. outer core B. to decrease the stability of major
global ocean currents
17. The Theory of the Conservation of Energy
states- C. to increase the stability of ecosystems
during environmental changes
A. Energy can be created, just not de-
stroyed. It changes its form from one type D. to increase the amount of nonrenew-
to another. able resources located in the lithosphere
B. Energy can never be created nor de- 21. What does conservation means?
stroyed. It can only change its form from
one type to another. A. Resources that are limited in supply
because they are used faster than can be
C. The total energy in our Universe replaced
changes, as different forms of energies
can be transformed from each other un- B. Process during which all members of a
der certain circumstances. species die out

D. Energy transformations do not pas- C. The study of the loss of Earth’s biodi-
sively occur in our lives, rather we actively versity and the ways this loss can be pre-
make use of energies and transform ener- vented
gies. D. Species that has been identified as
likely to become extinct
18. which of these is not an example of con-
vection? 22. Mark the system where heat transfer is
A. radiator given by forced convection
B. ice melting A. Chilling effect of cold wind on warm
body
C. hot tea
B. Fluid passing through the tubes of a
D. none of the above condenser and other heat exchange equip-
E. all of the above ment

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 337

C. Heat flow from a hot pavement to sur- C. warmer temperatures

rounding atmosphere D. none of above

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D. Heat exchange on the outside of cold
and warm pipes 28. Temperature as you go deeper into the
earth.
23. In the first experiment, the red food color- A. increases
ing
B. decreases
A. rises
C. goes up and down depending on the
B. sinks
layer
C. disappears
D. stays the same
D. spreads and fills the entire tank
29. El Nino usually causes:
24. What does biodiversity means?
A. very cold winters across Northern US
A. The variety of organisms in an ecosys-
B. warm or mild winters across the North-
tem
ern US
B. Resources that are replaced as quickly
C. wet conditions across the entire North-
as they are used
ern US
C. Resources that are limited in supply
D. hot temperatures in the Midwest US
because they are used faster than can be
replaced 30. Why is there more heat at the equator?
D. The study of the loss of Earth’s biodi- A. The sun shines at an angle.
versity and the ways this loss can be pre-
vented B. Convection from the oceans brings
heat from the poles.
25. Select good thermal insulators C. Conduction from the surface of the
A. pan sun.
B. air D. Direct sunlight is received from the
sun.
C. Wool garments
D. plastic foam cups 31. When air is heated, its density
A. increases
26. In what natural cycles do convection cur-
rents occur? B. decreases
A. leaves falling off trees C. remains the same
B. ocean currents D. none of above
C. weather systems 32. What happens to the velocity of a fluid dur-
D. movements of hot rock ing free convection?

27. In convection, what is created when air A. Increases

moves from high to low pressure? B. Decreases
A. wind C. Remains constant
B. sunny skies D. Fluctuates

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 338

33. A decomposer? 39. Energy for convection on the Earth comes

A. Eats dead plants or animals and from
breaks down to put nutrients in the soil A. The sun
B. Eats plants or other animals for food B. Radiation
C. Makes its own food C. The ocean
D. Machine that gathers trash D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
34. What does cooler air do? 40. Renewable resources are:

A. Rises or goes up. A. Resources that are limited in supply

because they are used faster than can be
B. Sinks or goes down. replaced
C. Transfers heat to warm air. B. The study of the loss of Earth’s biodi-
D. Create clouds. versity and the ways this loss can be pre-
vented
35. Winds always blow from areas of C. Process during which all members of
pressure to areas of pressure. a species die out
A. high, high D. Resources that are replaced as quickly
B. low, low as they are used
C. low, high 41. Fission produces lots of energy because
D. high, low A. Some of the subatomic particles disin-
tegrate, releasing lots of energy.
36. Which of the following is a fossil fuel?
B. The fission products and neutrons
A. Wind have more mass than the original atom.
B. Coal C. The fission products and neutrons
C. Solar have less mass than the original atom

D. Biomass D. none of above

42. The energy from the sun is transmit-

37. What type of boundary is the San Andreas
ted through movement of electromagnetic
Fault?
waves by
A. Convergent
A. conduction
B. Divergent
B. convection
C. Transform C. radiation
D. none of above D. none of above
38. Which one heats and cools fastest? 43. A producer?
A. land A. Eats other plants and animals
B. sea B. Makes its own food
C. both are the same rate C. Eats dead plants or animals
D. air D. Makes toys for kids

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 339

44. What is the effect of an increase in fluid A. A triple beam balance measuring an
temperature on its velocity during free con- object’s mass.
vection?

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B. A pencil sharpener plugged into a wall
A. Velocity increases outlet.
B. Velocity decreases C. A projector displaying a diagram on
the screen.
C. Velocity remains constant
D. A working flashlight used to light up a
D. Fluctuates
dark corner.
45. What are the two types of free convec-
49. Heat transfer by convection is caused by
tion?
differences in what two things:
A. Natural and Artificial A. Thickness and material
B. Internal and External B. Weight and electricity
C. Natural and Forced C. Temperature and density
D. Laminar and Turbulent D. none of above
46. Why is the Inner Core solid? 50. At the equator and at 600 latitude, warm
A. Extreme Heat air rises creating a windless area known
as the
B. High Pressure
A. doldrums
C. All the layers are solid
B. horse latitudes
D. It’s made of rock
C. westerlies
47. How does an object’s temperature affect D. polar easterlies
radiation?
A. All objects radiate energy. As an ob- 51. Forced convection in a liquid bath is caused
ject’s temperature decreases, the rate at by
which it radiates energy decreases. A. Intense stirring by an external agency
B. All objects radiate energy. As an ob- B. Molecular energy interactions
ject’s temperature increases, the rate at C. Density difference brought about by
which it radiates energy increases. temperature gradients
C. All objects radiate energy. As an ob- D. Flow of electrons in a random fashion
ject’s temperature increases, the rate at
which it radiates energy decreases. 52. Which human activity is correctly paired
D. All objects radiate energy. As an ob- with its likely future consequence?
ject’s temperature decreases, the rate at A. overfishing in the Atlantic-increase in
which it radiates energy increases. supply of flounder and salmon as food for
people
48. Some students observing a classroom de-
vice being used, noticed the below energy B. development of electric cars or hybrid
transformations. Electrical → Mechanical vehicles-increased rate of global warming
→ SoundWhich device were the students C. use of fossil fuels-depletion of under-
most likely observing? ground coal, oil, and natural gas supplies

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 340

D. genetically engineering animals-less D. none of above

food available to feed the world’s popula-
tion 58. Deforestation by burning has been de-
scribed as a “double whammy” to the en-
53. The Grashof number in natural convection vironment, meaning it has 2 negative im-
plays same role as pacts. Why is this description accurate?
A. Prandtl number (Pr) in forced convec- A. Forest burning releases CO2 while de-
tion creasing oxygen, which disrupts cycles

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Reynolds number (Re) in forced con- B. Deforestation reduces the amount of
vection oxygen in the atmosphere, which depletes
C. Nusselt number (Nu) in forced convec- the ozone layer
tion
C. Forest clearing is often followed by
D. none of the above land development, which often leads to in-
creased noise pollution
54. Which statement is TRUE?
D. Deforestation increases the number of
A. Cold water sinks and hot water rises.
plant and animal species by destroying
B. Cold water rises and hot water sinks. habitat
C. Cold water and hot water both sink.
59. Jordan places a hot spoon into a container
D. none of above of ice cream. How does this help him scoop
55. In general, how does air move? out the ice cream?
A. From areas of lower pressure to areas A. The coolness from the ice cream is con-
of higher pressure ducted to the spoon making it easier to
scoop out.
B. From areas of higher pressure to ar-
eas of lower pressure B. The coolness from the ice cream is ra-
C. From areas of hot to cold diated to the spoon making it easier to
scoop out.
D. A big fan blows it around
C. The warmth of the spoon is conducted
56. A finned tube hot water radiator with a to the ice cream making it easier to scoop
fan blowing air over it is kept in rooms out.
during winter. The major portion of the
D. The warmth of the spoon is radiated
heat transfer from the radiation is due to
to the ice cream making it easier to scoop
A. Convection to the air out.
B. shoe
60. A lamp that plugs into a wall socket draws
C. dog energy which flows through a thin wire in
D. toy the bulb causing it to glow. What energy
transformations are taking place?
57. Nuclear power plants produce energy
through A. chemical → light → electrical
A. induced fission B. mechanical → sound → light
B. induced fusion C. thermal → solar → electrical
C. beta decay D. electrical → thermal → light

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 341

61. Global Conveyor Belt 65. Which type of energy transformation oc-
A. A very slow circulation of water curs when a flashlight shines?
A. chemical → thermal → electrical

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throughout the world’s oceans.
B. A very fast circulation of water B. chemical → electrical → light
throughout the world’s oceans.
C. thermal → chemical → light
C. This helps move groceries during
checkout. D. chemical → electrical → chemical
D. none of above
66. why does it only occur in fluids?
62. What is Convection? A. because solids are gross
A. The transfer of heat through direct
B. because they have a fixed shape
contact of a fluid (liquid or gas).
B. The transfer of heat through motion of C. because the particles can move
a fluid (liquid or gas). D. because they are cool
C. Something the ovens does.
67. Why don’t hurricanes affect the west
D. none of above coast?
63. When heat is transferred during convec- A. the water on the coast of California is
tion, heat will always move from to too shallow to sustain a hurricane
temperatures.
B. the water on the coast of California is
A. low to high too warm to sustain a hurricane
B. high to low
C. the water on the coast of California is
C. they don’t move too cold to sustain a hurricane
D. none of above D. none of above
64. What is the difference between free and
68. The cycle that heats the ocean currents,
forced convection?
weather, and tectonic plates it called
A. Free Convection is the natural move-
ment of fluid caused by differences in den- A. conduction current
sity, while Forced Convection is caused by B. radiation
an external force such as a fan or pump
C. condition current
B. Free Convection is the movement of
fluid caused by an external force such as D. convection current
a fan or pump, while Forced Convection is
the natural movement of fluid caused by 69. Where does the heat come from that
differences in density. drives this convection current in the man-
tle?
C. Both Free and Forced Convection are
the natural movement of fluid caused by A. The sun
differences in density. B. The crust
D. Both Free and Forced Convection are
C. the mantle
the movement of fluid caused by an exter-
nal force such as a fan or pump. D. the core

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 342

70. Uranium is a fairly common element on down a forest in order to make use of the
Earth, but it was originally formed natural resources there?
A. on the moon A. the decrease of chemical runoff into
B. in stars the oceans

C. on asteroids B. increased acid rain

D. none of above C. the increase of light pollution in cities

D. the destruction of habitats

NARAYAN CHANGDER
71. What does this experiment demonstrate
from the natural world? 76. How is heat transferred when boiling a pot
of water on the stove?
A. How wind is created.
A. conduction
B. How ocean currents happen.
B. convection
C. Both.
C. combustion
D. none of above
D. radiation
72. The main difference between a nuclear
plant and an oil-or coal-fired plant is 77. what is convection?
A. the size of the generator A. heat transfer through fluids
B. the shape of the generator B. heat transfer through screens
C. the fuel C. heat transfer through solids
D. none of above D. heat transfer through touch

73. The Nino Is 78. In which direction do prevailing westerlies

flow?
A. natural weather event
A. from east to west
B. natural weather events but can also be
caused by human activity B. from west to east
C. caused by human activity C. from north to south
D. none of above D. from south to north

74. Which of the following shows the correct 79. What kind of shape do convection cells
order of the energy transformations that make?
occur when green plants produce their food A. Triangles.
from the Sun’s energy? B. Squares.
A. chemical → thermal C. Circles.
B. light → chemical D. Lines.
C. thermal → light
80. What causes ocean currents?
D. chemical → electrical
A. migration of whales
75. Many common products, such as wooden B. glaciers melting
furniture, paper, and books, are made
from trees. Which of the following is C. Ms. Mehring’s radical surfing
a likely consequence of humans cutting D. none of above

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 343

81. Pressure as you go deeper into the C. At the South Pole.

Earth D. In the oceans.

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A. increases
86. What is a Convection Cell?
B. decreases
A. A zone in a fluid where hot fluid rises
C. goes up or down depending on the while cool fluid sinks, resulting in a circu-
layer lation of fluid.
D. stays the same B. Zone that is an empty vacuum and
there is no movement of air or liquid.
82. Which describes what can happen as a re-
sult of radiation? C. A zone in a fluid where cold fluid rises
while hot fluid sinks.
A. A piece of wood burns in a fire.
D. It’s like a cell wall in a plant cell.
B. A shirt is hot after having been ironed.
87. What is the main cause of free convec-
C. A can of soup is heated in a pot on a
tion?
stove.
A. An external force such as a fan or
D. A car’s inside temperature rises to
pump
over 100 degrees on a sunny day.
B. Differences in fluid density
83. How many types of convection are there? C. Differences in fluid temperature
A. 4 D. Differences in fluid velocity
B. 3
88. Uranium-235 splits when hits its nu-
C. 2 cleus
D. 1 A. a proton
84. Approximately 75 percent of the Earth’s B. a neutron
surface is covered in water. So why is wa- C. an electron
ter considered such a precious resource? D. none of above
A. The greenhouse effect is causing most
89. Why does the blue food coloring come in
of the world’s freshwater to be trapped in
from the sides?
the atmosphere
A. it is being pushed down from the
B. Only a small fraction of the Earth’s wa-
weight of the water
ter is freshwater available for drinking
and irrigation B. it is attracted to the hot water/red
food coloring
C. Each year, more freshwater is being
trapped in icecaps located at the North C. it is filling the void left by the hot wa-
and South Poles ter/red food coloring rising
D. Global warming caused by greenhouse D. none of above
gas emissions will likely cause Earth’s 90. What is Density?
oceans to evaporate
A. How much something weighs.
85. Where is there the most heating? B. The mass of given length of an object.
A. At the equator. C. The amount of mass in a given volume.
B. At the North Pole. D. Something my sibling says to me.

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3.5 Heat Transfer by Natural Convection 344

91. When water falls through a dam and turns 95. Why does the red food coloring rise?
a turbine connected to a generator, elec-
A. it is pushed by the cold water
tricity is produced. This electricity is often
used to light our homes and offices. Which B. it warms up from the mug of hot water
of the following shows the energy trans- placed under it
formations that occurs? C. it is attracted to the light on the sur-
A. electrical → light → mechanical face of the water
B. chemical → mechanical → electrical D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. mechanical → chemical → light 96. Convection occurs in the and causes the
D. mechanical → electrical → light to move.
A. Crust, mantle
92. Non Renewable resources are,
B. Outer core, inner core
A. The study of the loss of Earth’s biodi-
versity and the ways this loss can be pre- C. Inner core, mantle
vented D. Mantle, crust
B. Resources that are limited in supply
because they are used faster than can be 97. Define convection
replaced A. the movement caused within a fluid
C. Resources that are replaced as quickly by the tendency of hotter and therefore
as they are used less dense material to rise, and colder,
denser material to sink under the influ-
D. The variety of organisms in an ecosys-
ence of gravity, which consequently re-
tem
sults in transfer of heat.
93. Humans often change ecosystems as a re- B. conduction
sult of population growth, consumption,
C. radiation
and technology. Which of the following
exemplifies a way in which humans mod- D. convection
ify ecosystems?
98. Conduction plus fluid flow in motion is
A. factory and automotive emissions known as
causing acid rain
A. Radiation
B. redirecting and storing freshwater be-
hind dams B. Conduction
C. cutting down trees to build new build- C. Convection
ings and roads D. Heat exchanger
D. all of these
99. A consumer?
94. What causes convection cells to move? A. Makes its own food
A. Wind B. Eats dead plants and animals
B. Heat from the sun C. Eats plants and other animals for en-
C. The Equator ergy
D. The ocean D. Buys toys for kids

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 3.6 Heat Transfer by Forced Convection 345

100. What is the general pattern of winds at sure

the equator? C. Winds are generally strong because

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A. Winds are generally strong because the equator is a region of mostly high air
the equator is a region of mostly low air pressure
pressure D. Winds are generally weak because the
B. Winds are generally weak because the equator is a region of mostly high air pres-
equator is a region of mostly low air pres- sure

3.6 Heat Transfer by Forced Convection

1. Why is forced convection evaporation also 5. Forced convection boiling is also known as
known as flash evaporation?
A. Total evaporation takes place in a flash A. Flash boiling
B. Because heat is supplied in a flash B. Nucleate boiling
C. Boiling the fluid in high pressure oper- C. Partial nucleate boiling
ation then exposing to low pressure
D. Bubble boiling
D. Very large temperature created
6. Which one of the following is not a demerit
2. Which one of the following is not an ad- of forced circulation evaporator?
vantage of forced convection boiling?
A. High operation cost
A. High heat transfer coefficient
B. Power consumption for pumps
B. Positive circulation
C. High residence time
C. Very cheap to operate
D. High temperatures of operation
D. Low fouling or scaling
7. Which one of the following evaporator
3. The tube from heat exchanger is tangen-
does not use forced boiling as its boiling
tially introduced to the evaporation tank
operation?
due to?
A. To create rapid evaporation A. Plate type evaporators

B. To produce agitation B. Horizontal tube evaporators

C. To produce flashing of liquid C. Vertical tube evaporators

D. To produce swirling effect D. Falling tube evaporators

4. Which one of the following is not an advan- 8. Forced circulation evaporators are highly
tage of forced convection evaporators? suited for
A. High heat transfer coefficient A. Fluids that usually form scale
B. Positive circulation B. High corrosive fluids
C. Very cheap to operate C. Thin fluids
D. Low scaling D. Highly volatile fluids

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3.6 Heat Transfer by Forced Convection 346

9. Which of the following is advantage of 14. Forced convection boiling is also known as
forced circulation evaporator A. Flash boiling
A. the most versatile of all evaporator B. Bubble boiling
B. they do not depend on a natural con- C. Nucleate boiling
vective current only
D. None of them
C. high heat transfer co-efficients can be
achieved for feed 15. What do we mean by forced convection

NARAYAN CHANGDER
evaporator?
D. all of these
A. This is nucleate boiling
10. evaporator pump is needed for
B. This has a fan to remove vapour from
A. creating vacuum the surface
B. flow the fluid C. There is an agitator to mix the heated
C. only for the feed flow fluid

D. all of these D. There is an agitator to mix the heating

medium such as steam
11. Which of the following product can not pro-
16. The presence of forced convection makes
duced using forced circulation evaporators
the complete mixed fluid boiling pattern
A. common salt known as
B. caustic soda A. Pool boiling
C. other crystalline product B. Surface boiling
D. separation of petroleum C. Bubble boiling

12. The Residence time in forced convection D. Film boiling

evaporators is than natural convection 17. The Residence tie in forced convection
evaporator.The Residence time in forced evaporators is than natural convection
convection evaporators is than natural evaporator.
convection evaporator.
A. More
A. More
B. Less
B. Same
C. Same
C. Less
D. Very less
D. none of above
18. What is an example of a convection cur-
13. In forced convection fluid moves under the rent?
influence of
A. Touching a hot spoon that was in a
A. elastic forces soup bowl.
B. surface tension forces B. Feeling the suns rays on a nice sum-
C. changes in fluid pressure produced by mer day.
external work C. Touching an iron skillet after cooking
D. buoyant forces arising from changes in and feeling the heat.
density D. Movement of gas in a hot air balloon.

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 3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 347

19. Forced circulation is sometimes more suit- circulation is present

able because of which one of the following C. The flow velocity in the tubes and the
statements?

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liquid temperature can be controlled to
A. It has Low pressure operations suit the product requirements
B. The temperature can be maintained as D. Cheaper than others

3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer

1. What percentage of solar radiation is ab- D. The amount of friction required to in-
sorbed by land and sea? crease the temperature of 1kgof a mate-
A. 5% rial by 1◦ C.

B. 20% 5. Which best describes the process of creat-

ing a metal sculpture?
C. 30%
A. The metal is cooled, then heated, and
D. 50%
shaped into a design.
2. What is the transfer of kinetic energy from B. The metal is heated, then cooled, and
one substance to another? shaped into a design.
A. Heat C. The metal is cooled, shaped into a de-
B. Energy sign, then heated.

C. Thermal energy D. The metal is heated, shaped into a de-

sign, then cooled.
D. Temperature
6. Conduction is the transfer of thermal en-
3. Two (or more) surfaces that possess sym- ergy
metry about a third surface will have
A. in the form of electromagnetic waves
identical view factors from that sur-
such as infrared radiation without the aid
face.Statements above best described?
of a medium
A. The symmetry rule
B. from one object to another
B. The superposition rule C. by means of convection currents in a
C. The summation rule fluid (liquid or gas), due to a difference in
D. The reciprocity relation density
D. None of the above
4. What is Specific Heat?
7. Which of the following bodies will not be
A. The amount of thermal energy re-
able to emit radiation continuously?
quired to increase the temperature of 1kg
of a material by 1◦ C. A. a body with very high temperature
placed in air medium
B. The amount of radiant energy required
to increase the temperature of 1kgof a ma- B. a body with temperature 0 oC placed
terial by 1◦ C in air medium
C. The amount of energy required to in- C. a body with temperature 0 oC placed
crease the temperature of 1kgof a mate- in vacuum
rial by 1◦ C. D. none of the above

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 348

8. A transfer of heat within a liquid or gas 12. Heat from warm sand at the beach moves
that involves warm particles moving in cur- through the atmosphere by what method
rents is of heat transfer?
A. convection A. Convection
B. conduction B. Conduction
C. radiation C. Radiation

D. reflection D. insulation.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
13. View factor based on the assumption
9. The following examples are examples of
that the surfaces are specular reflec-
a candle flame melts the wax of the
tors.Statement above is about?
candlea spoon gets hot while stirring a cup
of hot teayou burn your finger on a curl- A. Reciprocity relation
ing irona solar panel becomes warm as it B. Specular view factor
collects light energyhot air from a heater
C. Summation rule
circulates in a room
D. Diffuse view factor
A. convection
B. conduction 14. You lay on that same rock at night so that
you can keep warm by
C. radiation
A. conduction
D. none of above
B. convection
10. The heat from a lamp allows a lizard to C. radiation
remain warm (like a little fake sun). This D. none of above
is an example of which type of heat trans-
fer? 15. Thermal energy always moves from
objects to objects.
A. radiation
A. cooler, warmer
B. conduction
B. warmer, cooler
C. convection
C. faster, slower
D. none of above
D. slower, faster
11. Law of Conservation of Energy 16. Conduction is the transfer of heat energy
A. The total kinetic (motion) energy of tiny by
particles that make up matter. The faster A. density differences
the particles move, the warmer the matter
becomes. B. movement through a vacuum
C. electromagnetic waves
B. A circular movement of fluids caused
by the rising of hotter, less dense fluid and D. molecular contact
the falling of cooler, more dense fluid
17. The total potential and kinetic energy of all
C. Thermal the microscopic particles in an object make
D. -Energy can neither be created nor de- up its
stroyed; energy just changes form. A. chemical energy.

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 349

B. electric energy. 23. Heat is transferred by all three modes of

C. nuclear energy. transfer, viz, conduction, convection and
radiation in

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D. thermal energy.
A. Boiler
18. A crayon placed on a dark driveway in B. Melting of ice
bright sunlight melted into a colorful pud-
dle. This was caused by C. Electric heater
A. Conduction D. Steam condenser
B. Convection 24. Thermal energy depends on
C. Radiation A. the arrangement of the particles in an
D. none of above object.
B. only on the number of particles in an
19. In convection, what occurs?
object.
A. Hot air/fluid rises, due to it being more
C. an objects temperature, number of
dense than cold air.
particles in it and how those particles are
B. Hot air/fluid rises due to it being less arranged.
dense than cold air.
D. none of above
C. Hot air/fluid falls, while cold air rises.
25. A huge rock at a state park gets so hot dur-
D. Cold air/fluid remains stationary.
ing the day that you cannot sit on it from
20. Brooks is at recess in a sunny day. He
looks up and sees a hot air balloon. What A. Conduction
is keeping the balloon in the sky?
B. Radiation
A. Conduction
C. Convection
B. Convection
D. none of above
C. radiation
26. Which phenomenon is related to the term
D. all of the above
radiation?
21. Which of the following is not a method for A. magnetic phenomenon
heat transfer
B. gravity
A. Radiation
C. electromagnetic phenomenon
B. Insulation
D. none of the above
C. Conduction
27. Select restrictive conditions for Kirchhoff’s
D. Convection
lawi-The surface irradiation correspond to
22. Which is the best definition of visible or emission from a blackbodyii-Surface tem-
white light? perature is equal to the temperature of the
A. The wavelengths we can see. source of irradiationiii-Steady state
B. The wavelengths that scatter first. A. i and ii
C. The light that is absent in outer space. B. ii and iii
D. The wavelength of light that bounces C. i and iii
the furthest. D. i, ii and iii

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 350

28. During which process does heat transfer B. Aluminum foil forms an air-tight seal
occur because of density differences? and prevents heat loss by convection.
A. radiation C. The silver surface of the foil reflects
B. convection heat in and prevents heat loss by radia-
tion.
C. conduction
D. The silver surface of the foil absorbs
D. reflection heat from the surroundings and keeps the
food warm.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
29. Energy from the Sun travels to Earth as
A. Conduction 34. Heat is transferred by
B. Convection A. conduction, convection and radiation.
C. Insulation B. radiation only.
D. Radiation C. conduction and radiation only.
30. The sum of the view factors from surface D. none of above
i of an enclosure to all surfaces of the
35. How much heat is needed to raise the tem-
enclosure, including to itself, must equal
perature of 0.3g of copper from 25oC to
unity.Statements above best described?
30oC. (Specific Heat of Copper= 0.38)
A. The symmetry rule.
A. 0.57J
B. The superposition rule
B. 0.33J
C. The summation rule
C. 2.3J
D. The reciprocity relation
D. 4.5J
31. What season is it in the southern hemi-
36. In which of the following state are the par-
sphere when the north pole is tilted away
ticles closest together?
from the sun?
A. Fluid
A. summer
B. Gas
B. winter
C. Liquid
C. fall
D. Solid
D. spring
37. A cooler made from which materials would
32. All of the following are good conductors of
be best to use to keep food cold?
heat EXCEPT
A. plastic
A. Copper
B. Iron B. paper

C. Plastic C. wood

D. Aluminum D. none of above

33. Why does food wrapped in aluminum foil 38. The transfer of energy by waves or parti-
keep warm for a long time? cles is called

A. Aluminum foil is an insulator and pre- A. conduction

vents heat loss by conduction. B. convection

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 351

C. radiation A. replacing light-colored roofing materi-

D. insulation als with dark-colored ones

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B. adding insulation in the walls and ceil-
39. Which shows an example of convection? ing
A. Jose cooks an egg in a pot of boiling C. opening draperies and blinds
water.
D. turning on lights and heat-producing
B. Clara burns her hand by touching a appliances
light bulb.
43. Which city is an example that experiences
C. Lucy wraps herself in an electric blan- (continental) leeward air?
ket to keep warm.
A. Denver, CO
D. Ben holds the end of a metal rod in fire
to cook hot dogs. B. New York, NY
C. Eureka, CA
40. Last weekend, I went to the beach. I
was walking barefoot on the soft, cool D. Houston, TX
grass and it felt great. When I got to the 44. Why do we experience the changing of the
sand, I noticed that my feet were burning! season on the earth?
Ouch!Why did my feet get so hot?
A. distance from the sun
A. Conduction
B. rotation of the earth
B. Convection
C. change in solar output
C. Radiation
D. tilt of the earth’s axix
D. none of above
45. Which is the best example of conduction?
41. A crayon placed on a dark driveway in
A. boiling a pot of water
bright sunlight melted into a colorful pud-
dle. What caused the crayon to melt? B. feeling heat from a fireplace
A. Solar radiation heated the driveway C. a hot air balloon rising and falling
and then heat transferred to the crayon D. touching a hot handle and getting
by conduction.
46. The maximum amount of radiation that can
B. Solar radiation heated the driveway
be emitted by a surface at a given temper-
and then heat transferred to the crayon
ature.Statements above best described?
by radiation.
A. Absorptivity
C. Solar convection heated the driveway
and then heat transferred to the crayon by B. Emissitivity
radiation. C. Blackbody
D. Solar convection heated the driveway D. Reflectivity
and then heat transferred to the crayon
by conduction. 47. A slice of cheese is 3.0◦ C and is sitting
on a dish that is 3.0◦ C. If the dish and
42. Which action would help an air-conditioner cheese are in a refrigerator that is set to
use less energy on a hot, sunny summer 3.0◦ C, which of the following statements
day? is true?

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 352

A. The temperature of the cheese will in- B. Kinetic

crease and the temperature of the dish C. None of the above
will decrease.
D. All of the above
B. Heat will flow from the air in the refrig-
erator to the cheese and the dish. 52. Which term best matches these criteria?
C. Heat will not flow because there is no longer wavelengthsfelt as heat
temperature difference between the sub- A. short wave lengths
stances.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. ultraviolet light
D. The temperature of the air in the refrig-
erator will decrease and the temperature C. infrared light
of the cheese will increase. D. gamma rays
48. is surface properties are which is inde- 53. In which of the following methods of heat
pendent of wavelength. transfer is it necessary for the objects to
A. Diffuse surface be directly touching one another?
B. Gray surface A. conduction
C. Black surface B. radiation
D. Opaque surface C. convection
D. reflection
49. What does the rotation of the earth cause
us to experience? 54. The following examples are examples of
A. seasons hot air risesocean waters move heat
B. year from place to place

C. day & night A. convection

D. eclipse B. conduction
C. radiation
50. What is the difference between heat and
temperature? D. none of above
A. Temperature measures the motion of 55. Conduction occurs in
molecules, and heat is the energy of that
motion A. solids

B. Temperature is measured by a ther- B. liquids

mometer, and heat is measured by a C. gases
barometer
D. none of above
C. Heat is measured in calories, and tem-
perature is measured in joules 56. Heat would best be transferred by conduc-
tion between
D. Heat is caused by the sun, and temper-
ature is caused by conditions in the atmo- A. a candle and the air.
sphere B. an oven and a glass dish.
51. is stored energy. C. a stove and a copper pot.
A. Potential D. water and a wooden spoon

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 353

57. Radiation is when energy is transferred C. conduction

D. insulation

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A. by contact
B. by flow of fluid in liquid or gas 63. #3 Radiation is
C. by waves or rays A. heat transfer through touch.
D. this is not an energy-transfer process B. heat transfer through liquids and
gasses (forms a current).
58. degrees Fahrenheit is degrees Celsius
C. felt by touch.
A. 104
B. 40 D. felt next to a fire.

C. 4.44 64. Sunlight and Earth’s rotations make us

D. 20 have

59. Which statement is true about radiation? A. sunshine

answer choices B. spinning
A. Radiation is the transfer of heat C. seasons
through electromagnetic waves.
D. none of above
B. Radiation is the transfer of heat
through direct contact.
65. As temperature increases, the molecules
C. Radiation cannot move through a vac- that make up a substance
uum.
A. slow down
D. Radiation is the transfer of heat
through liquids and gases. B. stays the same
C. speed up
60. The radiation takes place
A. through molecular communication D. break apart

B. through vacuum 66. Which of the following is an example of

C. both heat transfer through conduction?
D. none of the above A. a pan on the stove getting hot
61. Which is the best surface for reflecting B. hot air rising inside a house
heat radiation? C. the Sun drying clothes hanging outside
A. Shiny white
D. a microwave warming a cup of water
B. Dull white
C. Shiny black 67. The rate of emission of radiation depends
on
D. Dull black
A. color and texture of surface
62. An object that doesn’t conduct heat well is
known as: B. surface temperature
A. a conductor C. surface area
B. an insulator D. all of above

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 354

68. What type of energy transfer occurs when 73. The cause of weather systems on earth is
hot water flows through cool water?
A. insulation A. conduction
B. radiation B. convection
C. conduction C. radiation
D. convection D. none of above

69. is a measure of the average kinetic en- 74. Which describes windward air?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ergy of the particles in a material. A. Moist air from the ocean onto land
A. thermal B. Cool, continental air from the ocean to
B. friction land
C. temperature C. Continental air from land to the ocean
D. expansion D. Cold and warm air mixed

70. You are in the top bunk and your friend is 75. When radiation strikes a surface, part of
in the bottom bunk. You are hot and want it will be?
to turn on the AC, but your friend is cold A. Absorbed
and wants to leave it off. This is an exam- B. Reflected
ple of
C. Transmitted
A. Conduction
D. All of above
B. Radiation
76. K is degrees Celsuis
C. Convection
A. -100
D. none of above
B. 273
71. In what way is roasting a hot dog over C. 200
a fire an example of the transfer of heat
that occurs during radiation? D. -273
A. Heat circulates from the bottom of the 77. You’re cooking some delicious pizza rolls,
fire up. and you hear the timer ding! You’re so ex-
B. The fire touches the hot dog directly cited to eat that you grab the metal tray
and cooks it. with your bare hands and get a burn. This
is an example of
C. Electricity from the fire is transferred
to the hot dog. A. Conduction
B. Radiation
D. The heat from the fire is transferred to
the hot dog to warm it. C. Convection
D. none of above
72. Heat energy is transferred by conduction
whenever molecules 78. A1F12=A2F21This equation represents?
A. fuse together. A. The reciprocity relation
B. spread apart. B. The summation rule
C. change forms. C. The superposition rule
D. collide. D. The symmetry rule.

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 355

79. What is the primary or most important fac- 84. movement of energy that occurs due to dif-
tor that influences climate? ferences in temperature and density
A. radiation

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A. latitude
B. longitude B. conduction
C. elevation C. convection
D. climate zone D. none of above

80. A huge rock at a state park gets so hot dur- 85. A microwave oven uses which of the fol-
ing the day that you cannot sit on it from lowing to heat foods.
radiation. You are able to lay on the same A. Microwave elves
rock at night and keep warm by
B. Radiation
A. Conduction C. Convection
B. Radiation D. Conduction
C. Convection
86. Conduction, Convection and Radiation are
D. none of above three types of
81. is the fraction or percentage of total A. Electrical energy
radiation reflected by any surface. B. Thermal Energy
A. Leeward C. Chemical Energy
B. Weather D. Sound Energy
C. Temperature
87. Which is an example of conduction?
D. Albedo
A. a furnace heating the air in a school
82. If you put your hand UNDER an object and B. an ice cube melting in a person’s hand
it feels warm, you are experiencing which C. a pot of water on a stove boiling
form of heat flow?
D. the sun heating water in a swimming
A. Radiation pool
B. Conduction
88. Conduction is heat transfer by-
C. Convection
A. Touch
D. Transmogrification
B. Circles
83. According to the Stefan-Boltzmann law of C. Waves
thermal radiation for a perfect radiator,
D. none of above
the rate of radiant energy per unit area
is proportional to 89. What is latitude?
A. the temperature of that radiator A. the distance of a location from the
B. the square of the temperature of that equator
radiator B. the distance of the location from the
C. the cube of the temperature of that ra- prime meridian
diator C. the distance of a location from the sun
D. the fourth power of the temperature of D. the distance of a location from the
that radiator moon

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 356

90. How does heat energy reach the Earth 96. This type of heat transfer occurs through
from the Sun electromagnetic rays (think waves).
A. Convection A. Conduction
B. Radiation B. Convection
C. Conduction C. Radiation
D. Insulation D. none of above
97. At a specified temperature and wave-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
91. Which is NOT an insulator.
length, no surface can emit more energy
A. Wool
than a A .A absorbs all incident radiation,
B. Plastic regardless of wavelength and direction.A
C. Copper emits radiation energy uniformly in all di-
rections per unit area normal to direction
D. Glass
of emission.What is A?
92. When warm air rises, pressure forms A. Absorptivity
at the surface of the land or sea. B. Reflectivity
A. high C. Emissivity
B. some D. Blackbody
C. low
98. A metal spoon heating up in a bowl of hot
D. none soup
93. Heat travels by conduction when objects A. Conduction
are B. Convection
A. far apart C. Radiation
B. circulating D. none of above
C. in contact with one another 99. A chair is placed several feet from a fire
D. gases in a fireplace. The fireplace has a glass
screen. The side of the chair facing the fire-
94. Which type of heat is transferred due to place gets warm because of
circulation and currents? (hot goes up,
cold comes down) A. conduction

A. Conduction B. convection
C. radiation
B. Convection
D. none of above
C. Radiation
D. none of above 100. In hot weather, wearing light-coloured
clothes can help us stay cool as light-
95. heat is the measure of thermal coloured clothes are
A. energy A. good conductors of heat.
B. waves B. poor conductors of heat.
C. radiation C. good absorbers of radiation.
D. light D. poor absorbers of radiation.

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 357

101. Which of the following statements about 105. Tongue freezing to a metal pole.
the applications of radiation is/are cor-
A. Conduction
rect? (1) Food is heat up mainly by radia-

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tion in a pan. (2) We feel cooler in the Sun B. Convection
when we are wearing a white T-shirt than C. Radiation
when we are wearing a black T-shirt. (3)
Radiant heaters are usually installed near D. none of above
ground level to warm people outdoor.
106. Where does the initial source of energy
A. only come from that creates winds and heats
B. only the Earth?
C. and (2) only A. the moon
D. and (3) only B. the sun
C. the Earth’s surface
102. How much heat is needed to raise the
temperature of 0.38g of water from 38oC D. the rotation of the Earth
to 45oC. (Specific Heat of Water= 4.18)
107. Shane is building a bench. He lives in a
A. 5.098J very hot climate, so he wants to build the
B. 11.118J bench out of material that does not con-
duct heat. In order to keep the bench from
C. 9.87J
conducting heat, Shane could build it out of
D. 4.3J

103. The movement of thermal energy from an A. aluminum

object at a higher temperature to an object B. iron
at a lower temperature is called
C. copper
A. thermal
D. wood
B. expansion
108. A fireman feels a door and it is hot from
C. temperature
the fire on the other side due to
D. heat
A. Conduction
104. What should be the temperature of black B. Radiation
body to emit radiant energy which is inde-
pendent of the conditions in the surround- C. Convection
ings? D. none of above
A. temperature of black body should be
109. Ironing a shirt by pressing the iron onto
less than zero
the fabric is an example of
B. temperature of black body should be
A. condensation
more than zero
B. conduction
C. temperature of black body should be
equal to zero C. convection
D. all of the above D. radiation

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 358

110. Snowman melting in the sun. A. wood

A. Conduction B. cork
B. Convection C. aluminum
C. Radiation D. soil
D. none of above 116. Allen wants to make a box to keep foods
hot. What material would be best for him
111. A house burns down. On the house to use in his box?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
across the street, all of the vinyl siding is
twisted and warped by the heat. The heat A. stainless steel
was transferred across the street by B. rubber
A. conduction C. aluminum foil
B. convection D. glass
C. radiation 117. Which of the following is true of heat
D. none of above flow:
A. Heat always goes from hot to cold.
112. All radiations in a black body are
B. Heat always goes from cold to hot.
A. Absorbed
C. Heat will move no matter the tempera-
B. Reflected ture difference.
C. Refracted D. Heat cannot move.
D. Transmitted 118. Which best explains why a pan placed on
a hot stove top will begin to warm?
113. The view factor between two-
dimensional surfaces can be determined A. conduction
by the simple method developed by H. B. radiation
C. Hottel in the 1950s.
C. convection
A. Crossed-Strings Method D. none of above
B. Diffuse view Method
119. An increase in the volume of a substance
C. Crossed-Strings Method when the temperature increases is called
D. The symmetry Method
A. kinetic energy
114. What is the longest day of the year?
B. thermal expansion
A. winter solstice
C. temperature
B. summer solstice
D. heat
C. fall equinox
120. Hot coffee is stirred with a spoon, the
D. spring equinox
spoon gets hot due to
115. Jackson is designing a new heater, and A. Conduction
he wants to experiment with different B. Radiation
thermally conductive materials. Which of
these materials would be useful in conduct- C. Convection
ing heat? D. none of above

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 359

121. Heat can be transferred through conduc- 126. What is the approximate wavelength
tion, convection, and radiation. What is range of thermal radiation?
necessary in order for heat to be trans-
A. 0.1 to 100 µ m (micrometer)

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ferred by conduction?
B. 0.1 to 100 nm (nanometer)
A. The substances must be liquids or
gases. C. 0.1 to 100 cm (centimeter)
B. Heat must be transferred through D. none of the above
space.
C. Heat must be transferred in the form 127. A heater is placed under one corner of
of currents. a waterbed mattress. Warm air moves
throughout the mattress because of
D. The objects must be in direct contact
with one another. A. Conduction
B. Radiation
122. Getting a sunburn on while spending the
day on the beach C. Convection
A. Conduction D. none of above
B. Convection
128. An iron is placed on your clothes to
C. Radiation smooth out the wrinkles. The iron trans-
D. none of above fers heat to your clothes through ? ?
?
123. Heat is the transfer
A. conduction
A. of thermal energy from a cooler object
to a warmer object B. convection
B. of thermal object from a warmer ob- C. radiation
ject to a cooler object. D. none of above
C. Heat doesn’t transfer
D. Freezing to Cold 129. Radiation DOES NOT require the presence
of a material medium to take placeThis
124. Radiation dryers use statement is?
A. Ultraviolet rays A. TRUE
B. Infrared rays B. FALSE
C. All the above C. NOT SURE
D. None of the above D. none of above
125. The process by which air flows from one
130. Transfer of thermal energy through
location in the atmosphere to another is
“flow” of liquids and gases
called
A. convection A. conduction

B. radiation B. convection
C. absorption C. radiation
D. conduction D. none of above

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 360

131. When objects of different temperatures C. Conduction

are touching, heat will move from one ob- D. none of above
ject to the other by
136. One end of a copper rod is placed in a
A. conduction
flame of a Bunsen burner. Small pieces
B. convection of wax placed along the rod melt a pro-
C. radiation gressively larger distance from the flame.
Heat is transferred through the rod by
D. combustion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Conduction
132. Which best explains how ice melts in a B. Radiation
person’s hand?
C. Convection
A. The heat from a person’s hand trans-
fers by radiation to the ice, causing it to D. none of above
melt. 137. Newt boiling in a hot caldron.
B. The heat from a person’s hand trans- A. Conduction
fers by conduction to the ice, causing it to B. Convection
melt.
C. Radiation
C. The cool temperature of the ice trans-
fers by radiation to a person’s hand, cool- D. none of above
ing it off. 138. A response by molecules in a substance
D. The cool temperature of the ice trans- when heat is added
fers by conduction to a person’s hand, A. Radiation
cooling it off.
B. Contraction
133. The range of waves within which all pos- C. Expansion
sible frequencies of electromagnetic radia- D. Thermometer
tion are represented is called as
139. A chair is placed several feet from a fire
A. electromagnetic frequencies
in a fireplace. The fire has a glass screen.
B. electromagnetic spectrum The side of the chair facing the fireplace
C. electromagnetic range gets warm because of
D. none of the above A. Conduction
B. Radiation
134. Energy due to motion is energy.
C. Convection
A. Potential
D. none of above
B. Energy
140. The following examples are examples of
C. Kinetic
heat from a bbq pit can be felt when
D. Friction hands are held above itthe sidewalk be-
comes very hot on a summer day
135. A hot rock is dropped into a pail of cool
water. Heat energy transferred from the A. convection
rock to the water by B. conduction
A. Convection C. radiation
B. Radiation D. none of above

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 361

141. represent the energy emitted by mat- 146. The ratio of the radiation emitted by
ter as a result of the changes in the the surface at a given temperature to the
electronic configurations of the atoms or radiation emitted by a blackbody at the

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molecules same temperature.Statement above best
A. Magnetic waves described?

B. Electronic waves A. Blackbody

C. Radiation waves B. Reflectivity

D. Electromagnetic waves C. Absorptivity

D. Emissivity
142. The wavelength range of the visible light
is about 147. Which is the best example of heat trans-
A. 350 to 750 µ m (micrometer) fer through radiation?

B. 350 to 750 nm (nanometer) A. heating soup in a pot on the stove

C. 350 to 750 cm (centimeter) B. standing by a campfire to get warm on

a chilly night
D. none of the above
C. burning your hand when touching a hot
143. The emissivity of real surfaces varies pan on the stove
with? D. not getting burned when touching a
A. The temperature of the surface wooden spoon that has been in a hot pan
B. The wavelength 148. What is the source of energy that heats
C. The direction of the emitted radiation our planet’s atmosphere and oceans?
D. All of above A. the weather

144. Jimmy held the end of a metal bar over a B. the wind
fire while holding on to the opposite end. C. the Sun
After a few minutes, the end he was hold- D. the Earth’s core
ing began to get very hot. Which of the
following processes correctly describes the 149. The transmission of energy by two ob-
heat traveling from one end of the bar to jects touching is called
the other? A. conduction
A. reflection B. convection
B. conduction C. contraction
C. radiation D. radiation
D. convection
150. is the transfer of thermal energy
145. Which type of heat occurs with direct con- through a liquid/ gas due to differences
tact (touching)? in density.
A. Conduction A. Conduction
B. Convection B. Convection
C. Radiation C. Radiation
D. none of above D. none of above

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 362

151. Work is a transfer of 156. When the amount of energy received

A. energy. from the sun and the amount of energy re-
turned to space are about equal, it is called
B. force.
A. radiation balance
C. mass.
B. seasonal equality.
D. motion.
C. solar reradiation.
152. How much heat is needed to raise the D. global warming.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
temperature of .59g of granite from 85oC
to 93oC. (Specific Heat of Lead= 0.13) 157. Which is the best example of convec-
tion?
A. 0.613J
A. a camp fire
B. 12.64J
B. a light bulb
C. 0.986J
C. a hot air balloon
D. 0.357J
D. a microwave oven
153. Tina is boiling water in a metal pot for
a weather experiment.What is most likely 158. What are waves that can transfer heat
the reason she would need to use a pot through the vacuum of empty space?
holder for moving the metal pot? A. Electromagnetic waves
A. Radiation causes the pot to be hot. B. Convection
B. Conduction causes the pot to be hot. C. Conduction
C. Convection causes the pot to be hot. D. Heat
D. Transpiration causes the pot to be hot. 159. View factor based on the assumption
that the surfaces are diffuse emitters
154. Why does the Earth experience unequal
and diffuse reflectors.Statements above is
heating?
about?
A. The oceans are not equally distributed
A. Reciprocity relation
around the Earth.
B. Summation rule
B. The Earth’s revolution brings it closer
to the Sun at certain points during the C. Specular view factor
year. D. Diffuse view factor
C. The Earth’s axis is tilted.
160. The cause of weather systems on earth
D. The atmosphere is not equally dis- is
tributed around the Earth.
A. conduction
155. T/F:Convection is the transfer of heat B. convection
through electromagnetic waves.
C. radiation
A. True
D. none of above
B. False, that is Radiation
161. If you burn your hand on the handle of a
C. False, that is Conduction hot pot, heat was transferred to your skin
D. none of above by

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 363

A. conduction C. An insulator is magnetic and a conduc-

B. convection tor is not
D. A conductor is magnetic and an insula-

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C. radiation
tor is not
D. equilibrium
167. How does heat move?
162. Which is an example of heat being trans- A. In many directions
ferred by conduction?
B. from warm places to cooler places
A. a furnace heating the air in a school
C. from cold places to warm places
B. an ice cube melting in a person’s hand D. Both B and C
C. a pot of water on a stove boiling
168. Sandy has just made a pitcher of hot tea.
D. the sun heating water in a swimming She pours the tea into a cup and picks it
pool up. The cup acts as an insulator, so Sandy
can pick up the cup even though the liquid
163. What method of energy transfer requires inside is hot. Of what material could the
no medium for transfer? cup be made?
A. conduction A. plastic
B. convection B. wood
C. advection C. glass
D. radiation D. all of these

164. A material that reduces the flow of heat 169. A college student holds the back of his
is a(n) hand near an iron to see if it is hot. Heat
is transferred to his hand by ..
A. conductor
A. Conduction
B. insulator
B. Radiation
C. metal
C. Convection
D. radiator D. none of above
165. Radiation is heat transfer through 170. Which method of energy transfer does
A. electromagnetic waves NOT require matter of any sort?
B. direct contact A. convection
C. cycling of fluids B. conduction
C. radiation
D. none of above
D. None of the above
166. What is the difference between a conduc-
tor and an insulator? 171. A material that conducts heat poorly is
called a(n)
A. An insulator allows electricity to flow
A. insulator.
through it easily and a conductor does not
B. conductor.
B. A conductor allows electricity to flow
through it easily and an insulator does C. metal.
not. D. radiator.

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 364

172. In deep freezers, the walls absorb heat 177. Currently, about 10% of Earth is covered
from food materialsby and keep them with ice year-round. If this ice melts, what
cool. could happen to Earth’s temperature?
A. Convection A. Increase
B. Conduction B. Decrease
C. Radiation C. Remain the Same

D. none of above D. Not enough information

NARAYAN CHANGDER
178. Leela has just made a pitcher of hot tea.
173. During which process of energy exchange
She pours the tea into a cup and picks it
does cold air displace warmer air?
up. The cup acts as an insulator, so Leela
A. convection can pick up the cup even though the liquid
inside is hot. Of what material could the
B. conduction
cup be made?
C. radiation
A. plastic
D. absorption B. wood
174. On a hot summer day, a student dropped C. glass
an ice cube onto a park bench. Within min- D. all of these
utes, the ice cube melted. Which bestde-
scribes the process the student observed? 179. Measurement of total Kinetic Energy
A. radiation A. temperature
B. combustion B. thermal energy

C. conduction C. heat
D. friction
D. convection
180. Mr. Olivares drinks coffee on his way
175. Winds and ocean currents are formed by to work. Today, he poured it into a metal
travel mug instead of a paper cup. What
A. conduction will he most likely notice about the temper-
ature of his coffee when he gets to work?
B. radiation
A. His coffee will be colder, because the
C. convection mug is taller.
D. none of above B. His coffee will still be hot, because the
mug is taller.
176. When a body receives radiation in the
wavelength range of 0.1 to 100 µ m (mi- C. His coffee will be colder, because the
crometer), then its temperature mug is metallic.

A. increases D. His coffee will still be hot, because the

mug is metallic.
B. decreases
181. In a swimming pool, water near the sur-
C. does not change
face is slightly warmer. The warm water
D. unpredictable rises because of

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 365

A. conduction 187. is a surface which properties are in-

dependent of direction.
B. convection

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C. radiation A. Opaque surface

D. none of above B. Black surface

C. Gray surface
182. How much energy radiated by the sun
reaches Earth? D. Diffuse surface

A. about 80% 188. What season is it in the northern hemi-

B. about two-billionths sphere when the north pole is tilted to-
ward the sun?
C. about 50%
A. summer
D. about one one-hundredth
B. winter
183. Convection is heat transfer by- C. fall
A. Touch an object D. spring
B. The heating and cooling of a fluid
189. T/F:Conduction is the transfer of heat
C. Electromagnetic Waves between materials making direct contact/
D. none of above are touching.
A. True
184. Which most often occurs when a pot of
water boils? B. False, that is convection
A. condensation C. False, that is radiation
B. freezing D. none of above
C. melting 190. The collision of molecules within a sub-
D. none of above stance results in the transfer of energy by
A. radiation
185. A pot is placed directly on a stove. The
pot gets hot due to? ? ? B. conduction
A. conduction C. convection
B. convection D. insolation
C. radiation 191. What is the total amount of kinetic en-
D. none of above ergy in a substance?
A. Potential energy
186. Thermal (heat) energy can be transferred
through empty space by. B. Kinetic energy
A. Conduction C. Thermal energy
B. Radiation D. Temperature
C. Convection
192. Which of the following is the correct def-
D. none of above inition of conduction?

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 366

A. the electromagnetic radiation from the 197. Conductors are materials that
surface of an object which is due to the ob-
A. Allow heat to pass through
ject’s temperature
B. Stop heat from passing through
B. the transmission of heat across matter
C. Allow cold to pass through
C. . the transmission of heat across
empty space D. Stop cold from passing through
D. . the transfer of heat by currents 198. Why do clouds reflect solar radiation?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
within a liquid or gas
A. They have a low albedo
193. The Stefan-Boltzmann law of thermal ra- B. They have a high albedo
diation is applicable for
C. The water vapor cannot absorb it
A. white body
D. The water vapor absorbs solar radia-
B. black body tion
C. gray body
199. A barefoot student steps on a hot con-
D. none of above crete surface. Most of the heat trans-
ferred to the student’s skin by this contact
194. Water boiling in a kettle. is by the process of-
A. Conduction A. convection
B. Convection B. conduction
C. Radiation C. vaporization
D. none of above D. radiation

195. Warm air over the beach rises while 200. Which best explains why a hot air balloon
cooler dense air from the ocean rushes in floats?
this is due to.. A. The heated air expands to fill the bal-
A. Conduction loon. The air in the balloon is now lighter
than the surrounding air, causing the bal-
B. Convection
loon to rise.
C. Radiation B. The heated air expands to fill the bal-
D. Insulation loon. The air in the balloon is now heavier
than the surrounding air, causing the bal-
196. A certain type of stainless steel cook- loon to rise.
ware has a layer of copper applied to the
C. The heated air contracts to fill the bal-
bottom to help it heat evenly. The copper
loon. The air in the balloon is now denser
transfers heat to the pan by
than the surrounding air, causing the bal-
A. conduction loon to rise.
B. convection D. The heated air contracts to fill the bal-
loon. The air in the balloon is now lighter
C. radiation
than the surrounding air, causing the bal-
D. none of above loon to rise.

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 367

201. Which heat transfer process warms the effect. Which type of heat transfer is the
surface of the Earth? cause?

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A. Radiation A. conduction
B. Conduction B. convection
C. Convection C. radiation
D. none of above D. absorbtion

202. The transfer of thermal energy from one 207. Transfer of thermal energy through
object to another “space” is known as
A. kinetic energy A. Conduction
B. heat B. Radiation
C. potential energy C. Convection
D. phases of matter D. None of the above

203. You are in the top bunk of a bunk bed 208. Select fundamental relations for view fac-
and you want to turn the air conditioner tors.
on while your friend on the bottom bunk A. The reciprocity relation
is fine is caused by
B. The summation rule
A. conduction
C. The superposition rule
B. convection
D. The symmetry rule.
C. radiation
D. none of above 209. You are baking a cake. When you open
the oven, a gush of warm air flows out to-
204. is the transfer of energy through elec- ward your face. This warm air is due to?
tromagnetic waves. ??
A. Conduction A. conduction
B. Convection B. convection
C. Radiation C. radiation
D. none of above D. none of above

205. Which is the best surface for absorbing 210. Marcie played with her friends out in the
heat radiation? cold, cloudy weather, wearing her wool
hat. After the group had finished build-
A. Shiny white
ing snowmen and having snowball fights,
B. Dull white Marcie went back inside to warm up and
C. Shiny black drink some hot chocolate. When she took
her hat off, she realized that it was very
D. Dull black warm. What happened?
206. The process by which gases in the atmo- A. The radiant energy from the sun
sphere absorb thermal energy and radiate warmed up her hat and the hat kept that
it back to earth is called the greenhouse heat from the sun.

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 368

B. Her hat was warm because wool fabric 216. A certian type of decorative lamp con-
is warmer than other fabrics. tains colored liquids. These liquids form
C. The humidity outside made her hat globs that break off and rise to the top of
warm. the liquid. The globs rise due to

D. Conduction between Marcie s warm A. Conduction

body and the hat occurred and the hat re- B. Radiation
mained warm because it is an insulator. C. Convection

NARAYAN CHANGDER
211. what is conduction? D. none of above
A. direct touch 217. Which term best matches these criteria?
B. air or liquids shorter wavelengths, humans cannot see
or feel them, can cause tan or sunburn,
C. heat waves/ light waves
A. longer wavelengths
D. drinking hot coffee
B. infrared waves
212. Materials that conduct heat slowly are C. ultraviolet waves
called
D. gamma rays
A. Insulators
218. A huge rock at the state park gets so hot
B. Instigators
during the day because of
C. Alligators
A. conduction
D. Conductors
B. convection
213. How much heat is needed to raise the C. radiation
temperature of 2.5g of wood from 50oC D. none of above
to 55oC. (Specific Heat of Wood= 1.75)
A. 34.897J 219. Which is an example of the Greenhouse
Effect? (Dulce Salas)
B. 13.5J
A. When you make your own oven using
C. 21.875J foil.
D. 4.5 B. When your pool gets warm from the
sun.
214. Conduction is heat transfer through
C. When your car gets hot inside.
A. electromagnetic waves
D. The cooling of the earth due to air pol-
B. direct contact
lution.
C. cycling of fluids
220. Mildred takes a pound of frozen ham-
D. none of above burger meat out of the freezer and puts
215. In general, good absorbers of electromag- it into the refrigerator. Which of the fol-
netic radiation are also good lowing best describes the direction of heat
flow?
A. reflectors
A. from the hamburger to the air outside
B. refractors the refrigerator
C. convectors B. from the air in the refrigerator to the
D. radiators hamburger

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3.7 Radiation Heat Transfer 369

C. from the air in the freezer to the air in A. convection

the refrigerator B. conduction

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D. from the hamburger to the air in the C. evaporation
refrigerator
D. radiation
221. Why does the sky look blue?
226. Gray body can emits radiation
A. It is a reflection of the oceans.
A. at higher rate than the black body
B. Tiny people that live on the stars color
the sky blue during the night. B. at lower rate than the black body

C. The visible light from the sun is re- C. at equal rate than the black body
flected, absorbed and scattered. The D. cannot predict
shorter wavelength, such as blue, is re-
flected first. So that is what we see. 227. Thermal radiation takes place from a
body by electromagnetic waves as a result
D. The visible light from the sun is ab- of
sorbed, reflected, and scattered. The blue
light is absorbed in the sky. So that is A. the weight of the body
what we see. B. the magnetic power of the body

222. What is the energy of the movement of C. the temperature of the body
particles in a substance? D. none of the above
A. Potential energy 228. The type of heat transfer that happens
B. Kinetic energy through direct contact of molecules or par-
ticles with each other is
C. Thermal energy
A. Convection
D. Temperature
B. Conduction
223. What is the measurement of the average
C. Radiation
kinetic energy of a substance?
D. insulation.
A. Kinetic energy
B. Temperature 229. Which material would be the best choice
for a cooking tool to be used when grilling
C. Thermal energy
food over a fire?
D. Potential energy
A. plastic
224. Where on Earth receives the most indirect B. metal
sunlight?
C. paper
A. the poles
D. wood
B. the equator
230. Which statement is the best example of
C. all areas get the same light heat energy transfer by conduction?
D. none of above A. Heat energy is transferred from the
225. a microwave works by of heat so bottom to the top of a lake.
that the food is heated from the inside to B. Heat energy is transferred from the
the outside. surface soil to the rocks below.

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 3.8 Condensation and Boiling 370

C. Heat energy is transferred from the A. They are conductors of heat.

Sun to the Earth.
B. They are fuzzy.
D. Heat energy is transferred from the
Earth’s surface to the upper atmosphere. C. They are conductors of electrical en-
ergy.
231. Jill notices that her skin gets burned
when she sits out in the sun. What best D. They are insulators.
explains why this happens?
233. A student opens the top window and

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The soil is convecting heat into the air. the bottom window in a hot room. What
B. The heat from the sun is being con- statement best describes the heat transfer
ducted to the Earth. occurring in the room?
C. The heat from the sun is radiating A. conduction
down to Earth’s surface.
B. radiation
D. none of above
C. convection
232. Mittens help keep your hands warm in
winter because: D. evaporation

3.8 Condensation and Boiling

1. The order in Water cycle process is D. dilute
A. Condensation, Storage, precipitation, 4. Evaporation occurs when water changes
Evaporation into
B. Evaporation, Condensation, Precipita- A. ice
tion and Storage
B. snow
C. Evaporation, Condensation, Storage
C. blizzard
and Precipitation
D. water vapour
D. none of above
5. If the air is satureated, the relative hu-
2. What factors affect the rate of evapora- midiy is
tion?
A. 0%
A. Temperature only
B. 25%
B. Temperature and Wind only
C. 50%
C. Temperature, Wind and Exposed Sur-
face Area D. 75%
E. 100%
D. none of above
6. A heater with a power rating of 500 W
3. Describing a solution with a small amount
takes 45 seconds to melt a 2 kg block of
of solute
mercury at-39 ◦ C.What is the specific la-
A. saturated tent heat of fusion of mercury?
B. unconcentrated A. 11250 J/kg
C. concentrated B. 22500 J/kg

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 371

C. 438750 J/kg 12. A bucket of ice is being heated up by a

D. 45000 J/kg heater in order for it to melt.The initial
temperature of the ice is-10 ◦ C.The spe-

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7. Evaporation occurs when water changes cific heat capacity of ice and water is 2100
into J/kg◦ C and 4200 J/kg◦ C respectively and
A. transpiration the specific latent heat of fusion of ice is
33600 J/kg.Given that a total of 245700
B. snow J of energy is supplied to the ice, what is
C. solid the mass of the ice?
D. vapor A. 3.25 kg

8. A type of mixture that always looks B. 4.5 kg

cloudy because clumps of insoluble parti- C. 7.31 kg
cles remain suspended throughout it-they
D. 11.7 kg
do not settle as sediments after a period
of time 13. Which of the following techniques can we
A. colloid use to separate homogeneous mixtures?
B. sedimentation A. Crystallisation
C. suspended B. Distillation
D. crystallisation C. Evaporation

9. When there is a change from a solid to part D. All of the above

of a solution when placed into a solvent 14. When water , dew forms.
A. dissolve
A. Melts
B. rain
B. Evaporates
C. solution
C. Condenses
D. diffusion
D. Precipitates
10. Which of the following techniques could
be used to separate a heterogeneous mix- 15. Which phase change occurs when a cloud
ture? forms?

A. Filtration A. Evaporation

B. Chromatography B. Precipitation
C. Magnetic separation C. condensation
D. Seiving D. Run off

11. Something that dissolves very easily in 16. What is the change from a gas to a liquid
water called?
A. soluble A. Evaporation
B. solid B. Condensation
C. saturated C. Precipiation
D. solvent D. Transpiration

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 372

17. What does intert gas/atmosphere mean? 23. The temperature at which a substance
A. A gas that Reacts easily changes from a liquid to a solid (for wa-
ter, this is 0 degrees Celsius, 32 degrees
B. A gas that doesn’t react Fahrenheit)
C. Oxygen A. freezing point
D. none of above B. boiling point
18. Evaporation occurs only C. melting point

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. after boiling D. evaporation

B. after extreme cooling 24. The actual amount of water vapor in the
air is called
C. at surface of a liquid
A. air pressure
D. at whole liquid
B. specific humidity
19. When you boil noodles the energy goes C. relative humidity
A. from the water to the noodles D. dew point
B. from the noodles to the water
25. Alex noticed that a metal door that sticks
C. from the air to the pan on hot days does not stick when it cools
D. none of above off at night. This is because the metal con-
tracts as it cools. The reason for this is
20. Where can you find water vapor in the that, as the metal cools, the atoms:
air? A. become smaller and take up less space
A. only in clouds B. slow down and move closer together
B. only as rain C. merge together to form fewer atoms
C. everywhere D. speed up and move farther apart
D. none of above 26. is NOT the example of condensation.
21. A separation technique that uses evapora- A. mist on the spectacles
tion and condensation to separate a solid B. dew on the leaves in the morning
and the solvent in which it is dissolved, e.g.
C. sweating
getting pure water from salty water
D. mist on the mirror in bathroom
A. filtration
B. distillation 27. What is the difference between evapora-
tion and condensation?
C. diffusion
A. They are exactly opposite to each
D. steaming other
22. the change of state from a liquid to a gas B. They are reversible process of each
other
A. water cycle
C. Evaporation is converting from liquid
B. evaporation
to gas, condensation is converting from
C. precipitation gas to liquid
D. condensation D. All of the above

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 373

28. is the physical change in matter from C. fog

a gas to a liquid D. humidity

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A. boiling point
34. The classification of matter as a solid, liq-
B. freezing point uid, or gas
C. melting point A. boiling point
D. condensation B. thermal energy
29. What is the boiling point of water C. physical state
A. 0 C D. temperature
B. 100 F 35. Something made up of two or more sub-
C. 50 C stances is called a
D. 100 C A. mixture
B. element
30. The freezing point of water is
C. compound
A. -10 C
D. natural
B. 100 C
C. 0 F 36. why do things (like a book and a metal ob-
ject)in the same room feel different tem-
D. 0 C peratures?
31. The temperature at which a substance A. they are actually different tempera-
changes from a solid to a liquid (for wa- tures
ter, this is 0 degrees Celsius, 32 degrees B. metal is always cold no matter where
Fahrenheit) it is
A. boiling point C. there is a difference in the rate at
B. freezing point which heat is conducted away from you
C. melting point D. none of above
D. evaporation 37. What method of heat transfer uses matter
like air or water?
32. Which type of air has a relative humidity
of 100%? A. Radiation
A. space B. Conduction
B. hot C. Convection
C. dry D. none of above
D. saturated 38. What does fractional distillation specialize
at? (not can do but what is it designed to
33. The sun heats up surface water, causing
do)
evaporation (turning a liquid into a gas).
The water vapor then rises into the air cre- A. Separating liquids
ating B. Separating solutions
A. rain C. Separating solids and liquids
B. pollution D. Non of the above

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 374

39. is the quiz? D. Water drops forming on a glass hold-

A. hard ing a cold drink on a hot summer day
E. All of the above
B. easy
C. medium 45. Which factor affect the rate of evapora-
tion?
D. none of above
A. wind
40. Water in its gas form is called
B. temperature

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. liquid water C. exposed surface area
B. water vapor D. all of these
C. ice
46. What is happening at water melting
D. none of above point?
41. These are examples of condensation, EX- A. liquid to gas
CEPT B. solid to liquid
A. cloud C. gas to liquid
B. fog D. liquid to soild
C. carbon monoxide 47. Particles have energy and stop moving
D. none of above A. rarely
42. Heating up a substance makes the B. always
molecules C. never
A. closer together and faster D. sometimes
B. closer together and slower
48. A pan of soup is being heated on an electric
C. father apart and faster stove. A metal spoon is used to occasion-
D. farther apart and slower ally stir the soup. Which of the following
is an example of heat being transferred by
43. As molecules gain energy, they move convection?
and spread apart, and vise versa. A. Heating the pan
A. faster B. Heating the soup
B. slower C. Heating the spoon
C. less D. Heating the burner
D. inside
49. Sam kept some water out side in the sun
44. Examples of condensation is next day he saw nothing in the glass what
happen to the water?
A. Windows misting up on a cold day
A. It disappeared
B. Dew forming on grass in the early
morning B. It evaporated

C. Glasses fog up when going from cold C. Magic

to hot D. none of above

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 375

50. Examples of Evaporation is 56. What are particles?

A. Hanging wet clothes on a washing line A. the tiny building blocks that make up

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B. Disappearing sweating on hands. matter
C. A lake drying up in a hot weather B. how heavy something is
D. Sanitizer disappearing after applied on C. the scientific name of an element
palm. D. none of above
E. All of the above 57. The process by which a gas changes to a
51. What kind of plants show you that you are liquid is
in a bog? A. evaporation
A. grasses B. condensation
B. trees C. solution
C. moss D. transpiration
D. none of above 58. A substance that is made up of two or
52. is a state of water in the gas form. more different types of atoms bonded to-
gether e.g. water
A. frost
A. compound
B. A cloud
B. solvent
C. rain
C. element
D. humidity
D. solution
53. The 3 states of water found on earth are
59. Which of the following is soluble in wa-
ter?
A. solid, liquid & gas
A. Salt
B. oceans, lakes & streams
B. Pebbles
C. evaporation, transpiration and conduc-
tion C. Sand
D. rain, sleet & hail D. none of above

54. “Heat” energy is called 60. Water droplets from the cold iced tea is an
A. Thermal energy example of

B. Electric energy A. melting

C. Nuclear energy B. evaporation

D. Mechanical energy C. condensation

D. none of above
55. The process of changing of water vapour
to water droplets is called 61. Evaporation means
A. evaporation A. Liquid converting into gas
B. condensation B. Gas converting into liquid
C. precipitation C. liquid converting into gas by heating
D. none of above D. none of the above

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 376

62. Water is unique because C. overloaded

A. it freezes at a very cold temperature D. super-concentrated
B. it boils at a high temperature
68. An example of condensation that is formed
C. it commonly exists in all three states
from droplets which you can see on leaves
of matter
early in the morning
D. it commonly exists as a gas in the at-
A. fog
mosphere

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. cloud
63. What is an example of an inert gas?
C. dew
A. He
B. O D. none of above

C. Fe 69. A temperature scale on which water

D. K freezes at 0 degrees and boils at 100 de-
grees
64. If the air is only holding one-third as much
moisture as it can possibly hold, what is A. boiling point
the relative humidity? B. farenheit
A. 50% C. celsius
B. 25%
D. temperature
C. 33%
D. 67% 70. Tiny particles in the atmosphere that wa-
ter will condense on to are called
65. After going through filtration, the sub-
A. water particles
stance left in the flask is called
A. Residue B. condensation nuclei
B. Filtrate C. condensation particles
C. Filter D. evaporation nuclei
D. none of above
71. The amount of space something takes up
66. What factors affect the rate of condensa- A. density
tion?
B. volume
A. Heating makes it faster
B. Heating makes it slower C. mass
C. Cooling makes it faster D. matter
D. Neither heating nor cooling changes
72. Condensation means
the rate of condensation
A. Liquid converting into gas
67. Describing a solution that can dissolve no
more of a solute at a given temperature B. Gas converting into liquid
A. concentrated C. liquid converting into gas by heating
B. saturated D. none of the above

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 377

73. A stable mixture of two or more liquids 78. A is something that dissolves in a liq-
e.g. milk uid (solvent)

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A. emulsion A. solute
B. solution B. salt
C. mixture C. sugar
D. insoluble
D. solution
74. What are the three states of matter?
79. Which of the following is true about boil-
A. solid, volume, mass ing
B. density, volume, mass
A. Boiling only takes place at the surface
C. solid, liquid, gas of liquid
D. density, gas, volume B. boiling can occur everywhere, depend-
75. When Bob heats an ice cube up using a ing on the heat source. boiling require
bunsen burner flame, it starts to melt at certain temperature at a certain pressure,
0 ◦ C.However, he continues to monitor and continuous heating source
the temperature and realises that the ice C. Boiling works at any temperature
cube remains at 0 ◦ C as it continues to and pressure it happens before a liquid
melt.Which of the following conclusions is reaches its boiling point
correct about this observation?
D. All of the above
A. The ice cube no longer gains thermal
energy from the bunsen burner when it 80. states of water found on earth
starts to melt. A. solid, liquid & gas
B. The total internal energy of the parti-
B. oceans, lakes & streams
cles in the ice cube remains constant.
C. The internal kinetic energy of the par- C. evaporation, transpiration
ticles in the ice cube remains constant. D. rain, sleet & hail
D. The internal potential energy of the
81. Clothes dry easily when exposed to sun-
particles in the ice cube remains constant.
light is an example of
76. An ecosystem has: A. condensation
A. living things
B. evaporation
B. living and nonliving things
C. melting
C. nonliving things
D. none of above
D. nothing
82. What kind of plants show you that you are
77. Distillation and fractional distillation can
in a swamp?
be used to separate
A. Solutions A. grasses
B. Solid and liquid mixtures B. trees
C. Two liquid mixtures C. moss
D. All the above D. none of above

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 378

83. Which processes require energy to be 89. The energy for the water cycle originally
taken in to occur? (Select all that apply) comes from the
A. boiling A. sun
B. condensation B. clouds
C. freezing C. salinity
D. melting D. ice
84. Condensation occurs when

NARAYAN CHANGDER
90. Which is the opposite of condensation?
A. gas changes to liquid A. runoff
B. liquid changes to gas
B. evaporation
C. solid changes to gas
C. precipitation
D. none of above
D. transpiration
85. What is relative humidity?
91. Condensation involves a change of state
A. humidity that is related to other humid- from to
ity
A. Liquid to Solid
B. condensation
B. Liquid to Gaseous
C. clouds
C. Solid to Liquid
D. the amount of water in the air com-
pared to the amount of water the air can D. Gaseous to Liquid
hold-a ratio
92. Boiling of water produced bubbles,
86. when you have something that does not whereas, evaporation of water
dissolve it is referred to as being
A. also produced bubbles
A. insoluble
B. does not produced bubbles
B. a rock
C. produced air
C. a solid
D. does not produced air
D. a nail
93. A liquid made up of a solvent with a solute
87. Cooling down substances makes the dissolved in it
molecules
A. solution
A. farther apart and slower
B. soluble
B. closer together and slower
C. closer together and faster C. solidified

D. farther apart and faster D. solar

88. What is water’s melting point? 94. The boiling point of water is
A. 32 C A. 0 degrees celcius
B. 0 C B. 100 degrees celcius
C. 32 F C. -100 degrees celcius
D. 0 F D. none of above

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 379

95. What process is involved when you put the 101. Condensation nuclei include
liquid of hand sanitizer on your palm and
A. soot, pollen, and oxygen
it disappears

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B. pollen, dust, and salt
A. Evaporation
B. Condensation C. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen

C. Boiling D. pollen, nitrogen, and salt

D. None 102. Which environment will probably have
96. During convection, more dense molecules the lowest relative humidity?
and less dense molecules A. swamp
A. sink, rise B. desert
B. rise, sink C. rain forest
C. rise, rise D. none of above
D. sink, sink
103. Ice melts at what temperature?
97. The is the beginning source of energy
for the water cycle. A. 100o

A. sun B. 10o
B. wind C. 5o
C. geothermal D. 0o
D. volcano
104. Phase change involved in forming water
98. Condensation takes place from to droplets on outer surface of cold glass is:
A. liquid to solid A. Evaporation
B. liquid to gas B. Condensation
C. solid to liquid C. Boiling
D. gas to liquid D. None
99. Boiling involves a change of state from
105. Which of the following is true about Evap-
to
oration
A. Solid to Liquid
A. Evaporation can occur everywhere in
B. Liquid to Gaseous liquid, depending on the heat source.
C. Gaseous to Liquid B. Evaporation require certain tempera-
D. Liquid to Solid ture at a certain pressure, and continuous
heating source,
100. A state of matter that has a definite vol-
ume and shape. C. Evaporation only takes place at the
surface of the liquid. evaporation works
A. solid
at any temperature and pressure it hap-
B. liquid pens before a liquid reaches its boiling
C. gas point
D. matter D. All of the above

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 380

106. A student wants to lower the tempera- B. Fog

ture of a metal coin. Which action would C. Frost
make the coin the coldest?
D. none of above
A. Placing the coin in a freezer
B. Placing the coin in cool water 112. What is water’s freezing point?
C. Leaving the coin on a counter A. 0 F
D. Rubbing the coin with cold hands B. 32 C

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 50 C
107. The amount of water vapor in the air will
depend on the D. 0 C
A. temperature 113. A 10 kg block of ice undergoes melting
B. dew point at 0 ◦ C when it is being heated by a
heater.The specific latent heat of fusion for
C. specific humidity
ice is 33600 J/kg.How much energy needs
D. saturation point to be provided by the heater in order for
the block of ice to be completely melted?
108. Emily made a cup of tea and stirred it
with a spoon. The spoon became warm, A. 0 J
How was the heat from the tea trans- B. 3360 J
ferred to the spoon?
C. 33600 J
A. Convection
D. 336000 J
B. Radiation
C. Conduction 114. Forms of condensation include

D. Evaporation A. snow, cloud droplets, and frost

B. cloud droplets, fog, and rain
109. A cloudy liquid that contains insoluble
particles C. snow, rain, and sleet
A. suspension D. frost, dew, and cloud droplets
B. solvent 115. is the physical change in a matter
C. solute from a liquid to a gas
D. salt A. evaporation
B. melting point
110. Evaporate involves a change of state
from to C. boiling point
A. Solid to Liquid D. condensation
B. Gaseous to Liquid 116. Where does the energy go when you put
C. Liquid to Gaseous a tea bag in boiling water?
D. Liquid to Solid A. From the tea bag TO the water

111. is formed when the dew freezes to B. From the water TO the tea bag
form ice. C. From the air TO the tea bag
A. Dew D. none of above

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3.8 Condensation and Boiling 381

117. How far above the freezing point is 52 123. The temperature at which a substance
degrees Celcius? changes from liquid to gas (for water
this is 100 degrees Celsius, 212 degrees

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A. 52 degrees C
Fahrenheit)
B. 100 degrees C
A. boiling point
C. 42 degrees C
B. melting point
D. 0 degrees C
C. evaporation
118. What is happening at the boiling point? D. condensation
A. liquid to gas
124. the change of state from a gas to a liquid
B. gas to liquid
A. water cycle
C. solid to liquid B. evaporation
D. liquid to solid C. precipitation
119. A pure substance made up of only one D. condensation
type of atom e.g. oxygen or carbon
125. When you add cold butter to hot noodles,
A. element the energy goes from
B. emulsion A. the dish to the noodles
C. pure substance B. from the butter to the noodles
D. compound C. from the noodles to the butter
120. The smoke that comes from the boiling D. no energy is being transferred
water is called
126. When meteorologists refer to the ,
A. water vapor they are telling us how near the air is to
B. liquid water being completely full at a certain tempera-
ture.
C. freezing water
A. speific humidiy
D. none of above
B. dew point temperature
121. Describing a solution with a large amount C. relative humidity
of solute
D. saturation point
A. concentrated
B. saturated 127. Both water vapour and steam are
gaseous states of matter then what is the
C. unsaturated difference between them
D. filled A. The main difference lies between them
is temperature
122. Boiling occurs when water
B. Water vapour is little water droplets
A. loses heat
that exist in the air, while steam is water
B. gains heat heated to the point that it turns into gas
C. either gains or loses heat C. all of them
D. none of above D. none of above

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 3.9 Heat Exchanger 382

128. The boiling point of water under normal B. it will fill the available space
atmospheric pressure is C. it keeps its shape
A. 244 OF D. milk is an example of it
B. 212 OF
131. When the water boils, it has reached its
C. 310 OF
D. 100OF A. freezing point
E. 32 OF

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. boiling point
129. In the water cycle, water moves between C. none of the choices
land, living things, bodies of water on D. none of above
Earth’s surface, and the
A. School 132. How much does the temperature have to
rise for water at 85 degrees Celsius to
B. Animals reach the boiling point?
C. Ocean A. 15 degrees Celsius
D. Atmosphere B. 100 degrees Celsius
130. Which describes a solid? C. 0 degrees Celsius
A. the particles are spaced far apart D. 25 degrees Celsius

3.9 Heat Exchanger

1. In a 2-4 Shell and Tube heat exchanger, B. Overall heat transfer coefficient
how many concurrent and counter current
C. Thermal conductivity
flo
D. Rate of heat transfer
A. 2 concurrent and 2 counter current
B. 1 concurrent and 1 counter current 4. What happens when the value of A0 is
increased-
C. 4 concurrent and 0 counter current
D. 0 concurrent and 4 counter current A. The value of U is increased
B. The value of k is increased
2. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat
transfer takes place by C. The value of resistance is decreased

A. A complete separation between hot D. None of these

and cold fluids
5. Calculate the total heat transfer (q) if 0.5
B. Flow of hot and cold fluids alternately kg/s of water is heated from 25 to 35 deg.
over a surface Celcius. The Cp of water is 4.185 kJ/kg.K
C. Direct mixing of hot and cold fluids A. 20.925 J/s
D. Generation of heat again and again B. 20.925 W
3. ‘U’ is denoted as- C. 20925 W
A. Heat transfer coefficient D. none of above

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3.9 Heat Exchanger 383

6. What is the value of Prandtl number if A. i, ii and iii

the value of Nusselt number is 496 and B. i and ii
Reynolds number is 120000?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

C. ii and iii
A. 4.67
D. i and iii
B. 5.67
C. 4 12. Fins are added in extended surface heat
exchangers in purpose to-
D. 7.3
A. increase thermal resistance
7. In a thick walled tube heat is transferred B. increase the surface area
in which pattern-
C. decrease the thermal resistance
A. Straight
D. decrease the surface area
B. Radially
C. Longitudinal 13. In a kettle reboiler, the hot fluid is in the
and the solution is in the
D. Transverse
A. Shell, Tube
8. Choose types of fouling B. Tube, Shell
A. Precipitation of solid deposits C. Bed, Column
B. Corrosion D. none of above
C. Chemical
14. The effectiveness of a heat exchanger de-
D. Biological pends on?
9. In heat exchangers the superheated fluid A. Geometry of heat exchanger
is used as- B. Flow arrangement
A. Cold fluid C. Inlet temperature of the fluid
B. Hot fluid D. Outlet temperature of the fluid
C. Condensate
15. Steam at a pressure of 0.0 psig (14.7 psia)
D. None of these has a temperature of degrees F.
10. In a 1-2 shell and tube heat exchanger, A. 100
how many concurrent and counter current B. 212
flow regimes are observed?
C. 248
A. 2 concurrent and 2 counter current
D. 298
B. 0 concurrent and 4 counter current
C. 4 concurrent and 0 counter current 16. Compact heat exchanger typically has
configuration where the two fluids move
D. 1 concurrent and 1 counter current to each other.
11. Many types of heat exchangers have been A. counter flow, opposite
developed to meet the widely varying ap- B. cross flow, parallel
plications. Based upon their(i) Operating
principle(ii) Arrangement of flow path(iii) C. cross flow, perpendicular
DesignIdentify the correct statements D. counter flow, perpendicular

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3.9 Heat Exchanger 384

17. The use of heat exchangers is made in 22. In counter current flow heat exchanger,
the logarithmic temperature difference be-
A. Radiators in automobile
tween the fluids is as compared to par-
B. Condensers and boilers in steam allel flow heat exchanger.
plants
A. same
C. Condensers and evaporators in refrig- B. less
eration and air conditioning units
C. greater
D. All of the above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of these
18. In heat exchanger the temperature differ- 23. What is often included in a heat exchanger
ence in the total process is as a way to ensure that the condensate is
A. Same clean and can be reused?
B. Decreased A. a steam trap

C. Increased B. a condensate strainer

C. a safety valve
D. none of above
D. a thermostat
19. Some examples of heat exchanger are
24. The heat exchanger is said to be compact
A. Condensers and evaporators in refrig- when its area density is
eration units
A. equal to 700 m2/ m3
B. Evaporator of an ice plant and milk
B. less than 700 m2/ m3
chiller of a pasteurizing plant
C. more than 700 m2/ m3
C. Automobile radiators and oil coolers of
heat engines D. unpredictable

D. All of the above 25. A heat exchanger with heat transfer sur-
face area A and overall heat transfer co-
20. What is the auxiliary device commonly efficient U handles two fluids of heat ca-
used with boilers to transfer heat from a pacities Cmax and Cmin. The number of
hotter fluid to a cooler fluid? transfer units (NTU) used in the analysis
A. heat exchanger of heat exchanger is specified as
A. A.Cmin/U
B. blowdown tank
B. U/A.Cmin
C. blowdown attemperator
C. A.U.Cmin
D. steam trap
D. A.U/Cmin
21. The SI unit of overall heat transfer coeffi-
26. The components of shell and tube heat ex-
cient (U) is-
changers are-
A. Watt per metre square kelvin A. Shell and tube
B. Watt per metre kelvin B. Baffles
C. Watt C. Resistors
D. None of these D. One inlet and outlet

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3.9 Heat Exchanger 385

27. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, baffles 32. The unit of rate of heat transfer (Q) is-
are provided on the shell side to A. Joules

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Improve heat transfer B. Joule per second
B. Provide support for tubes C. Joule per metre
C. Prevent stagnation of shell side fluid D. None of these
D. All of these 33. What are the compact heat exchangers?
28. The vaporization rate in a kettle reboiler A. the heat exchangers having small sur-
can be reached as high as of the feed. face area per unit volume

A. 80% B. the heat exchangers having large sur-

face area per unit volume
B. 50%
C. the heat exchangers having small sur-
C. 70% face area per unit weight
D. 90% D. the heat exchangers having large sur-
face area per unit weight
29. The 2-4 heat exchanger has
34. Correction is applied to LMTD for
A. 1 shell and 4 tube passes
A. Parallel flow
B. 2 shell and 4 tube passes
B. Counter flow
C. 1 tube pass and 4 shell
C. Cross flow
D. 2 tube passes and 4 shell
D. none of these
30. In the analysis of heat exchangers, it is 35. Correction factor in Shell and Tube Heat Ex-
convenient to combine all the thermal re- changer is applied for the following config-
sistances in the path of heat flow from the urations:
hot fluid to the cold one into a single resis-
tance R, and to express the rate of heat A. 1-1 Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger
transfer between the twofluids as given B. 1-2 Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger
equation, define U C. 1-4 Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger
A. Fouling factor D. 2-4 Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger
B. Overall heat transfer coefficient
36. Which of the following can be consid-
C. Convection heat transfer coefficient ered as more compact efficient heat ex-
changer?
D. Heat capacity rate
A. Car radiators
31. How many types of flow operations exist B. Stirling engine regenerator
for a double pipe heat exchanger?
C. Options 1 & 2
A. 1
D. None of the above
B. 2
37. The two fluids are not mixed and kept sep-
C. 3
arated as they both flow through heat ex-
D. 4 changer in

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3.9 Heat Exchanger 386

A. Transfer type heat exchanger or recu- 42. Which of the following is not an Indirect
perator Contact type heat exchanger?
B. Storage type heat exchanger or regen- A. Shell and Tube
erator B. Feedwater Heater
C. Direct contact type heat exchanger or C. Plate Type
mixer
D. Spray and Tray type
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. The fluid passes twice through the the tube
38. Compared to parallel flow heat changer of the 1-2 type shell and tube heat ex-
log mean tempearture difference in case of changers which results in-
counter flow heat exchanger will be
A. Increase the surface area
A. less
B. Increase the time of contact
B. more
C. Increase the length
C. same
D. None of these
D. impredictable
44. Which of the following phases of designing
39. Usually, the flow arrangement of two flu- of heat exchangers does designer consider
ids in compact heat exchangers is corrosive nature of the fluid in?
A. parallel flow A. The thermal analysis
B. counter flow B. The mechanical design
C. cross flow C. The design for manufacture
D. none of the above D. none of the above
40. Which one of the following uses a similar 45. Choose example/s of compact heat ex-
type shell and tube heat exchanger with changer.
an oversized shell?
A. Car radiator
A. Vertical Thermosyphon
B. Human lung
B. Horizontal Thermosyphon
C. Glass-ceramic gas turbine
C. Kettle reboiler
D. The regenerator of a Stirling engine
D. Flash reboiler
46. Some examples of heat exchanger are(i)
41. In a counter flow heat exchanger, the prod- Condensers and evaporators in refrigera-
uct of specific heat and mass flow rate is tion units(ii) Evaporator of an ice plant and
same for the hot and cold fluids. If NTU is milk chiller of a pasteurizing plant(iii) Au-
equal to 0.5, then the effectiveness of the tomobile radiators and oil coolers of heat
heat exchanger is enginesIdentify the correct answer
A. 0.2 A. i only
B. 0.33 B. ii and iii
C. 0.5 C. i, ii and iii
D. 1 D. i and ii

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3.9 Heat Exchanger 387

47. The important design and operating con- words.The performance of heat exchang-
siderations for Extended-Surface Compact ers usually deteriorates with time as a re-
Heat Exchangers are: sult of accumulation of on heat trans-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

fer surfaces. The layer of deposits repre-
A. Both uids may have high or low heat
sents to heat transfer and causes the
transfer coecients
rate of heat transfer in a heat exchanger
B. As the tubes are very narrow (low DH), to decrease. The net effect of these accu-
the uid used should not be corrosive as mulations on heat transfer is represented
eective cleaning of tubes is not possible by a fouling factor Rf, which is a mea-
C. The uid pressure drop calculation is im- sure of the thermal resistance introduced
portant as a regulatory method to ensure by fouling.
long life of the tubes. A. precipitation, reduction of resistance
D. Unlike shell and tube type heat ex- B. deposits, additional resistance
changers, these are limited when it comes C. precipitation, additional resistance
to operating pressure and temperature
D. deposits, reduction of resistance
E. b, c, d are correct
52. Calculate the heat transfer area (A) if the
48. Which of the following has the maximum total heat transfer is 500 W, overall heat
Log mean temperature difference for a transfer coefficient is 100 W/m2.K and
Double Pipe Heat Exchanger? the temperature difference is 50 K.
A. Counter-flow A. 0.01 m2
B. Parallel Flow B. 0.10 m2
C. Cross Flow C. 0.10 cm2
D. Split Flow D. none of above

49. The tube is made thin in an extended sur- 53. Which side is suitable to provide fins on
face heat exchanger because- to enhance heat transfer, when heat ex-
changes between gas and liquid?
A. to increase the surface area
A. Gas slide
B. to decrease the thermal resistance
B. Liquid slide
C. Both (a) and (b)
C. Both options 1 & 2
D. None of these
D. None of the above
50. Choose two(2) types of flow arrangement 54. Kettle type reboilers have residence
possible in double-pipe heat exchanger. time
A. Parallel flow A. High
B. Counter flow B. Low
C. Multipass C. Zero
D. Cross-flow D. Infinity

51. Below sentences describes Fouling Factor 55. What is the function of the corrugated
.Please select correct options for missing plates in the plate heat exchanger?

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3.9 Heat Exchanger 388

A. to increase the pressure drop in the 60. The SI unit of thermal conductivity (k) is-
heat transfer equipment A. Watt
B. to induce turbulence for improving B. Watt per metre
heat transfer
C. Watt per metre kelvin
C. to induce laminar flow in heat ex- D. Watt per centimeter
changer
61. The calculation of heat transfer coeffi-
D. none of above
cients in kettle type reboilers is similar to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
56. One of the most common types of heat ex- that of
changers in industrial applications is a A. Double pipe heat exchanger
heat exchanger. B. Shell and Tube Heat exchangers
A. waste energy C. Plate type heat exchanger
B. pillow plate D. Packed bed HE
C. shell-and-tube 62. The analysis of heat exchangers can be
D. plate-and-tube greatly simplify by making the following
assumptions, which are closely approxi-
57. In case of heat exchanger, the value of mated in practice.Choose the assumptions
logarithmic mean temperature difference applicable .
should be A. Steady-flow
A. as large as possible B. Kinetic and potential energy changes
are negligible
B. as small as possible
C. The specific heat of a fluid is constant
C. constant
D. Axial heat conduction along the tube is
D. none of the above negligible
58. The value of radiation coefficient or the E. The outer surface of the heat ex-
Stefan-Boltzmann constant is changer is perfectly insulated

A. 5.67 * 10-5 W/m2 K4 63. The compact heat exchangers are com-
monly used in
B. 5.67 * 10-6 W/m2 K4
A. gas to gas heat transfer
C. 5.67 * 10-7 W/m2 K4
B. gas to liquid heat transfer
D. 5.67 * 10-8 W/m2 K4
C. both a. and b.
59. The three most common types of shell-and- D. none of the above
tube exchangers are:(1) xed tubesheet
64. Log mean temperature difference in case
design.(2) U-tube design.(3) oatinghead
of counter flow compared to parallel flow
type.(4) Regenerator Type.
will be
A. 1, 2, 3 A. more
B. 2, 3, 4 B. same
C. 1, 3, 4 C. less
D. 1, 2, 4 D. Depends on other factor

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3.9 Heat Exchanger 389

65. Recognize the given Shell and Tube Heat B. Compact

Exchanger
C. Shell and tube

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A. 1-2 Shell and Tube
D. Plat and frame
B. 2-3 Shell and Tube
C. 2-4 Shell and Tube 70. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the
flow pattern is usually
D. 3-6 Shell and Tube
A. Concurrent
66. Select method/s used in the analysis
ofheat exchangers. B. Counter current

A. Arithmetic Mean Temperature Differ- C. Concurrent at a part and counter cur-

ent rent at the other
B. Log Mean Temperature Different D. Mixed flow
(LMTD)
71. Which of the following is a common type
C. Effectiveness-NTU of heat exchanger used to heat the air in
D. All of above a building space?

67. The length of the tube cannot be increased A. radiator

because- B. furnace
A. It would increase the pressure of the C. air duct
liquid
D. boiler
B. Increase the length of the equipment
C. Increase the distribution of the baffles 72. Large sized and heavy shell-and-tube heat
D. None of these exchangers are suitable for
A. automotive applications
68. Consider we have a Double Pipe Heat Ex-
changer, with the inner tube of Outer di- B. aircraft applications
ameter 20mm (thickness 2mm) and outer C. marine applications
tube of inner diameter 30mm. We have
two fluids A & B, we desire to have their D. none of the above
flow rates as 15 Kg/s and 21 Kg/s re-
spectively. Calculate the convective heat 73. *Consists of a series of plates with cor-
transfer coefficient from tube to annulus rugated flat flow passages.*The hot and
side. (Given Nusselt number on tube side cold fluids flow in alternate passages*Well
= 496 and K = 15W/mK) suited for liquid-to-liquid heat exchange
applications, provided that the hot and
A. 2067 W/m2K cold fluid streams are at about the same
B. 1653 W/m2K pressure.Statements above best described
C. 1623 W/m2K what type of heat exchanger?

D. 1673 W/m2K A. Shell and tube

B. Plate and frame
69. Choose types of heat exchanger that we
had learned in chapter 4. C. Compact
A. Double pipe D. Double pipe

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3.9 Heat Exchanger 390

74. In a heat exchanger, both fluids flow 79. A correction of LMTD is necessary in case
alternatively through the same flow pas- of heat exchanger
sages, and hence heat transfer is intermit- A. Parallel flow
tent.a) Shell and Tube
B. Cross flow
A. Shell and Tube
C. Counter current
B. Fluidised Bed
D. all of the above
C. Storage Type
80. How many times does the vapour passes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Cross Flow Type through the tube in 2-4 type shell and tube
exchanger-
75. Which of the following are examples of di-
rect contact type heat exchanger? A. 2

A. jet condenser B. 4
C. 3
B. desuperheater
D. 1
C. cooling tower
D. all of the above 81. Consider we have a Double Pipe Heat Ex-
changer, with the inner tube of Outer di-
76. The role of the baffles in a shell and tube ameter 20mm (thickness 2mm) and outer
heat exchanger is- tube of inner diameter 30mm. What is the
overall heat transfer coefficient if the con-
A. To hold the tubes tightly
vective heat transfer coefficient for annu-
B. To decrease the thermal resistance of- lus side is 496 W/m2K and for the inner
fered by the tube tube is 530 W/m2K?
C. To guide the movement of the hot fluid A. 228.6 W/m2K
D. To collect the condensolate B. 220 W/m2K
C. 256.2 W/m2K
77. A heat exchanger is used to transfer heat
from a D. 212 W/m2K

A. higher pressure fluid to a lower pres- 82. *The simplest type of heat exchanger*One
sure fluid fluid flows through the smaller pipe while
the other fluid flows through the annular
B. lower pressure fluid to a higher pres-
space between the two pipes.Statements
sure fluid
above best describe what type of heat ex-
C. hotter fluid to a colder fluid changer?
D. colder fluid to a hotter fluid A. Plate and frame
B. Shell and tube
78. The kettle reboiler gives the flexibility to
be used at pressure. C. Double pipe

A. Low D. Compact

B. High 83. If the temperatures of the hot and cold

fluids at the outlet of exchanger are un-
C. Very high
known, the heat transfer problem should
D. Both low and high be solved using:

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 3.10 Fundamentals of Diffusive & Convective Mass Transfer 391

A. Fouling Factor Method cold water and the mixture leaves at uni-
B. Heat Exchanger Effectiveness (NTU form temperature

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

Method) B. (b)Feed water heater in which a
C. Correction Factor of LMTD Method stream of steam and cold water are not
mixed and separated by partition through
D. none of above which heat flows
84. A reboiler can act as a C. Both a and b
A. Evaporator only D. none of above
B. Condenser only 87. What is the unit of Fouling factor (Rf) in
C. Both evaporator and condenser S.I. system?
D. Heat exchanger A. m2K/Pa

85. Kettle reboiler is also called a reboiler B. mK/Pa

A. Shell and tube C. m2K / W

B. Submerged Bundle D. mK/W

C. Internal 88. What is the maximum baffle spacing for a

D. Thermosyphon Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger?
A. ID of Shell
86. Which of the following is/are example/s
of heat exchanger? B. ID of Tube

A. (a)Feed water heater in which a C. ID of Shell/5

stream of steam is directly mixed with D. ID of Shell/4

3.10 Fundamentals of Diffusive & Convective Mass Transfer

1. A value of k’G was experimentally 2. A value of kG was experimentally

determined to be 1.279 x 10-3 kg- determined to be 1.465 x 10-3 kg-
mol/s.m2.atm for A diffusing through mol/s.m2.atm for A diffusing through
stagnant B. Given system’s conditions are stagnant B. Given system’s conditions are
as follows:the partial pressure are pA1= as follows:the partial pressure are pA1=
0.20 atm, pA2=0.05 atm and total pres- 0.20 atm, pA2=0.05 atm and total pres-
sure, Pt=1.0 atm. For the same flow sure, Pt=1.0 atm. For the same flow and
and concentrations, calculate the flux of A concentrations, predict the k’G for equimo-
for equimolar counterdiffusion. (Allocation lar counterdiffusion. (Allocation time:15
time:15 min) min)
A. 19.2 kgmol/s.m2 A. 1.279 x 10-3 kgmol/s.m2.atm
B. 0.192 kgmol/s.m2 B. 1.279 x 10-4 kgmol/s.m2.atm
C. 1.92 kgmol/s.m2 C. 1.279 x 10-5 kgmol/s.m2.atm
D. none of above D. 1.279 x 10-6 kgmol/s.m2.atm

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3.10 Fundamentals of Diffusive & Convective Mass Transfer 392

3. In industries titanium is hardened through value of diffusion coefficient (m2/s) of car-

diffusion of carbon. The concentration of bon. (Allocation time:15 min)
carbon at 1 mm into the surface of the ti- A. 5.91x*10-12
tanium slab is 0.25 kg/m3 and at 3 mm
the concentration is 0.68 kg/m3. The rate B. 5.91x10-10
at which the carbon is entering into its sur- C. 5.91x10-11
face is 1.27x10-9 kg/m2.s. Calculate the D. 5.91x10-13

NARAYAN CHANGDER

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 PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
4. IC ENGINE

4.1 Basics
1. To keep milk cold, you need to place it in B. distributor is installed
a device that uses electric energy to pump
C. carburetor is installed
thermal energy from a cooler location to a
warmer location D. ignition coil is installed
A. heat engine 5. Where is the oil pan located?
B. Heating appliance
A. Top of engine
C. Refrigerator
B. Bottom of engine
D. thermostat
C. Side of engine
2. Smelting is carried out in a D. Back of engine
A. Funnel
6. Typical automobile engine
B. kiln
C. Blast furnace A. heating appliance

D. cupola furnace B. thermostat

C. refrigerator
3. The process of steel making which is a com-
bination of acidic bessemer and basic open D. heat engine
hearth process is known as
7. In two wheelers magneto ignition system
A. LD process is favoured due to weight and less
B. Open hearth process maintenance.
C. Duplex process A. light
D. Electric process B. heavy
4. In SI engine, to obtain required firing order C. all
A. battery is installed D. none

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4.1 Basics 394

8. The function of automobile catalytic con- A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

verter is to control emissions of
B. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
A. carbon dioxide and hydrogen
C. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
B. carbon monoxide and hydrogen
D. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
C. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
D. carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide 14. A 2 stroke cycle engine gives the num-
ber of power strokes cycle engine at same

NARAYAN CHANGDER
9. Wrought iron is a product of engine speed
A. Cupola A. Half
B. puddling furnace B. Same
C. Bessemer converte C. Double
D. Blast furnace D. Four times
10. In water cooling system with pump circu- 15. What direction is the piston traveling dur-
lation system, the following pump is used ing the Power-Stroke?
A. Centrifugal pump A. Up
B. Reciprocating type B. Down
C. Rotary vane pump
C. Left
D. Any of the above
D. Right
11. is the process of saturating the surface
layer of steel with nitrogen by heating. 16. Which of the following is not an interns
combustion engine
A. Nitriding
A. 2-stroke petrol engine
B. Tempering
B. 4-stroke petrol engine
C. Nitrating
C. diesel engine
D. Normalising
D. steam turbine
12. The basic requirement of a good combus-
tion chamber is 17. Loss of engine compression can result from
A. minimum turbulence A. Worn out Piston rings
B. low compression ratio B. Defective fan belt
C. high thermal efficiency and power out- C. Excessive Tappet clearance
put
D. Wrong ignition timing
D. low volumetric efficiency
18. Elastic Modulus of Steel is
13. Match list 1 with list 2 and select the
correct answer using the codes giving be- A. 1.5 x 109 N/mm2
low the listList 1.A pig iron.B Cast ironC B. 2.0 x 105 N/mm2
wrought iron.D Steel.List2(furnace)1
C. 2.0 x 105 N/m2
Cupola2puddling3BessemerConvertor 4
Blast D. 1.5 x 109 N/m2

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4.1 Basics 395

19. The purpose of crankcase ventilation is to C. Supply air fuel mixture to engine
A. remove harmful particles from the en- D. Extract exhaust gases

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

gine
25. Which one of the following is a method of
B. provide proper lubrication to the en- testing coolant for its frost protection
gine
A. Pressure gauge
C. provide air for combustion to the en-
gine B. Hydrometer

D. all of the above C. Torque wrench

D. Frosty gauge
20. Which of the following furnace is used for
steel only? 26. Internal combustion engines use en-
ergy to produce thermal energy.
A. cupola furnace
A. Electrical
B. Air furnace
B. Chemical
C. Open hearth furnace
C. Mechanical
D. Indirect arc furnace
D. none of above
21. The magnetic properties of steel are
greatly affected if the percentage content 27. Following is the correct order in which fuel
of manganese exceeds about is injected
A. 0.1 A. Fuel tank-Fuel filter-Fuel feed pump-
Fuel injection pump-injector
B. 0.2
B. Fuel tank-Fuel feed pump-Fuel filter-
C. 0.3 Fuel injection pump-injector
D. 0.25 C. Fuel tank-Fuel filter-Fuel injection
22. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C pump-Fuel feed pump-injector
engine remains open for nearly (a) 180◦ D. Fuel tank-Fuel injection pump-Fuel
A. 125◦ filter-Fuel feed pump-injector

B. 235◦ 28. The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine is

about
C. 200◦
A. 15%
D. 275◦
B. 30%
23. Hematite iron ore contains iron about
C. 50%
A. 30 %
D. 70%
B. 45%
29. An engine is a device that changes en-
C. 55%
ergy in fuel to energy.
D. 70%
A. mechanical, chemical
24. What’s the function of the carburetor B. chemical, mechanical
A. Supply fuel to engine C. kinetic, chemical
B. Suppl air to engine D. chemical, kinetic

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4.1 Basics 396

30. Which of the following statement is wrong B. At BDC

A. In compression ignition engines, deto- C. before TDC
nation occurs near the beginning of com- D. Before BDV
bustion
B. Since the fuel, in compression ignition 35. If the compression ratio of an engine work-
engines, is injected at the end of compres- ing on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7,
sion stroke, therefore, there will be no the%age increase in efficiency will be
pre-ignition. A. 2%

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. To eliminate knock in compression ig- B. 4%
nition engines, we want to achieve auto- C. 8%
ignition not early and desire a long delay
D. 14%
period.
D. In compression ignition engines, be- 36. For same compression ratio and for same
cause of hetrogeneous mixture, the rate heat added
of pressure rise is comparatively lower. A. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel
Cycle
31. Thermal energy from inside transfers to
the coolant, keeping the inside cold B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto
Cycle
A. heating appliance
C. Efficiency depends on other factors
B. thermostat
D. None of the mentioned
C. refrigerator
D. heat engine 37. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is ex-
pressed in terms of
32. a device that uses electric energy to pump A. kcal
thermal energy from a cooler location to a
warmer location. B. kcal/kg

A. heating appliance C. kcal/m2

B. thermostat D. kcal/n2

C. refrigerator E. all of the above

D. heat engine 38. What is full form of SI

A. Simple Ignition
33. when checking the engine oil level the ve-
hicle must be on level ground and B. Standard idling
A. the engine switched off and checked a C. Spark ignition
short time after D. Solo identification
B. running at idle speed
39. which one of the following is a steering
C. switching off and checked immediately service item?
D. running above 3000 rev/min A. steering wheel height adjustment
34. In an actual 4 stroke SI engine, inlet valve B. steering air bag re-charge
opens C. excessive linkage free
A. At TDC D. play king pin re-alignment

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4.1 Basics 397

40. On first starting an engine with new oil 45. in the Power stroke of an engine, the fuel
and filter, the technician should make sure and air is compressed and ignited by the?
the engine oil

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. high pressure
A. Pump is primed and vented B. spark plug
B. Warning light extinguishes C. piston movement
C. Reaches the camshaft drive belt D. high temperature
D. Is allowed to change color before re- 46. Most commonly used lubrication system in
viewing automobiles is the
41. The amount of vortex activity, and the A. splash system
disintegration of others, the turbulent B. pressure system
flow with rising engine speed.
C. petrol system
A. increases
D. gravity system
B. decreases
47. In order to eliminate knocking in compres-
C. constant sion ignition engines there’s should be
D. none A. Short delay period
42. Linz Donawits process in modification of B. Late auto ignition
A. Open hearth process C. Low compression ratio
B. Bessemer process D. High self ignition temperature of fuel
C. Crucible steel process 48. Lambda sensors are used to measure
D. Celebration process A. AFR
B. Speed
43. The maximum temperature in the I.C. en-
gine cylinder is of the order of C. Air pressure
A. 500-1000◦ C D. Engine temperature
B. 1000-1500◦ C 49. The Cylinder arrangement in a Cessna is
C. 1500-2000◦ C A. Vertically Opposed
D. 2000-2500◦ C B. Horizontally Opposed
E. 2500-3000◦ C C. V-Type engine
D. none of above
44. A four-stroke cycle engine is an internal
combustion engine that utilizes four dis- 50. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to
tinct piston strokes to complete one oper- the corresponding air standard cycle effi-
ating cycle. What are the 4 basic steps in ciency is called
the correct order? A. net efficiency
A. Intake, Power, Compression, Exhaust B. efficiency ratio
B. Compression, Power, Intake, Exhaust C. relative efficiency
C. Intake, Exhaust, Compression, Power D. overall efficiency
D. Intake, Compression, Power, Exhaust E. cycle efficiency

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4.1 Basics 398

51. is a chemical reaction in which certain C. Upto 0.45%

elements of the fuel like hydrogen and car- D. Upto 1%
bon combine with oxygen liberating heat
energy and causing an increase in temper- 57. A two stroke cycle engine gives the
ature of the gases. number of power strokes as compared to
the four stroke cycle engine, at the same
A. Compression
engine speed
B. expansion
A. Half

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. combustion
B. Same
D. none C. Double
52. connecting rods are generally of the fol- D. Four times
lowing form
58. A petrol engine has compression ratio
A. Forged round section steel
A. 6 to 10
B. Cast steel triangular section
B. 10 to 15
C. Forged square section
C. 15 to 25
D. Forged I section Steel D. 25 to 40
53. A petrol engine has compression ratio 59. Combustion is when a reacts with oxy-
A. 6 to 10 gen
B. 10 to 15 A. petrol
C. 10 to 18 B. fuel
D. 5 to 15 C. fire triangle
D. carbon dioxide
54. What keeps the oil below the piston, and
compression above the piston? 60. In reciprocating type of internal combus-
A. Bearing tion engine
A. Linear motion converted into rotary
B. Rings
motion
C. Necklaces
B. Rotational motion converted into lin-
D. Braclets ear motion
55. Valve overlap is when C. Linear motion converted into rotary
motion
A. Inlet valve is delayed
D. Rotary motion converted into linear
B. Exhaust valve is stuck motion
C. Valve timing is not matched
61. what will using a higher viscosity specifi-
D. Both inlet and exhaust valves are open cation oil in a diesel (CI) engine result in?
56. Percentage of carbon in steels used for A. poor starting in cold weather
rails and tyres B. higher idle speeds
A. Upto 0.10% C. increased performance
B. Upto 0.25% D. improved fuel consumption

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4.1 Basics 399

62. Before removing the cap radiator, what 67. The correct order of oxidation of different
must a technician do? impurities of pig-iron in the Bessemer pro-
cess is

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. allow the engine cooling system to cool
down A. Silicon, phosphorus, sulphur, man-
ganese, carbon
B. remove the ignition keys
B. Silicon, carbon, manganese, sulphur,
C. use a suitable container to catch the
phosphorus
excessive coolant
C. Carbon, phosphorus, sulphur, man-
D. ensure the correct cap is fitted ganese, silicon
63. the exhaust stroke, pulls out the emissions D. Carbon, phosphorus, silicon, man-
by opening up? ganese, sulphur
A. exhaust moffler 68. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C
B. exhaust valve engine remains open for nearly
A. When piston moves from TDC to BDC
C. crankcase
during suction stroke
D. cylinder
B. When piston moves from TDC to BDC
64. knock occurs when the delay period is during expansion stroke
excessively long so that there is a large C. When piston moves from BDC to TDC
amount of fuel in the cylinder for the si- during compression stroke
multaneous explosion phase. D. When piston moves from BDC to TDC
A. petrol during exhaust stroke
B. disesl 69. Ratio of Young’s modulus of high tensile
C. kerosine steel to that of mild steel is about

D. none A. 0.5
B. 1.0
65. Which of the following is purest form of
C. 1.5
iron
D. 2.0
A. Cast iron
B. Wrought iron 70. To something is to force it into a
smaller space
C. Mild steel
A. Cool
D. High carbon steel
B. Heat
66. if drained engine oil is found to be white C. Compress
and milky in colour what is most likely to D. none of above
have contaminated it?
71. In a diesel engine, the duration between
A. diesel
the time of injection and ignition, is known
B. petrol fuel as
C. corrosion inhibitors A. pre-ignition period
D. engine coolant B. delay period

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4.1 Basics 400

C. period of ignition C. Remains constant

D. burning period D. Is universal

72. which one of the following is the correct 77. The essential components of battery igni-
procedure when cosmetic damage is iden- tion system are
tified on a customer vehicle? A. battery
A. advise the service receptionist who B. ignition switch
will inform the customer

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. ballastor
B. carry out repairs to the damage
D. all of the above
C. take no action it is not part of the ser-
vice 78. The degree of turbulence increases
D. inform a colleague so they can report with the piston speed.
it A. indirectly

73. The friction is needed to be reduced be- B. directly

cause C. linearly
A. will increase the consumption electric- D. none
ity
79. Lubricating oil
B. it will be reducing the excess heat gen-
eration A. Minimizes wear in moving parts

C. will increase the load B. Helps in keeping the parts cool

D. will increase the excess the heat gen- C. Washes away and carries away dirt
eration D. All of the above

74. To help dissipate heat from the two wheel- 80. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour
ers and small stationary engines what for diesel engine is approximately
kind of provisions are provided on the A. 0.15 kg
head and cylinder
B. 0.2 kg
A. Water jackets
C. 0.25 kg
B. Powder coating
D. 0.3 kg
C. Metal fins
D. Insulation 81. Removal of burned mixture using slightly
compressed charge is
75. Two stroke engine has ports A. Super charging
A. 2 B. Scavenging
B. 3 C. Blow bye
C. 4 D. Compression
D. 2 or 4
82. Which of the following processes is also
76. Specific heat generally known as the Siemens-Martin process?
A. Increases with temperature A. Open-hearth process
B. Decreases with temperature B. L.D. process

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4.1 Basics 401

C. Electric process B. swirl

D. Duplex process C. quench area

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D. none
83. Weight of puddling balls is about
A. 5 to 7 N 88. The major loss in a C.I. engine is
B. 500 to 700N A. direct heat loss
C. 50 to 70 N B. loss due to incomplete combustion
D. 50 to 70 kN C. rubbing friction loss
D. pumping loss
84. The four stroke engine cycle begins with
the stroke. 89. In compression ignition engines, swirl de-
A. power notes a

B. intake A. haphazard motion of the gases in the

chamber
C. compression
B. rotary motion of the gases in the cham-
D. exhaust ber
85. The catalyst used in the catalytic converter C. radial motion of the gases in the cham-
are mostly metals like ber
A. Platinum D. none of the above
B. Palladium 90. Which part of an engine turns as a result
C. Rhodium of the combustion of the fuel, and hence
powers the other parts of the vehicle?
D. Molybdenum
A. Camshaft
86. Scavenging air in diesel engine means (a) B. Crankshaft
air used for combustion sent under pres-
sure C. Piston
D. Valve
A. air used for combustion sent under
pres-sure 91. smoke colour indicates the engine lu-
B. forced air for cooling cylinder bricating oil leakage
C. burnt air containing products of com- A. Blue smoke
bustion B. Red smoke
D. air used for forcing burnt gases out of C. white smoke
engine’s cylinder during the exhaust pe-
D. Black smoke
riod
E. air fuel mixture. 92. The width of the valve seat should not be
more than
87. The is defined by the parallel portion of A. 1mm
the piston and cylinder head which almost
touch each other as the piston approaches B. 1.2 mm
T.D.C. C. 2mm
A. turbulence D. .6mm

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4.1 Basics 402

93. Basic Engine Design 98. Compression ratio of LC. engines is

A. Reciprocating A. The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder
before compression stroke and after com-
B. Rotary pression stroke
C. otto cycle B. volume displaced by piston per stroke
D. diesel cycle and clearance volume in cylinder
E. OHV C. ratio of pressure after compression
and before compression

NARAYAN CHANGDER
94. Compression ratio of LC. engines is (a) (b) D. swept volume/cylinder volume
(c) (d) (e)
99. The engine part that slides back in forth in
A. the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder a cylinder is the
before compression stroke and after com-
A. Valve
pression stroke
B. Piston
B. volume displaced by piston per stroke
and clearance volume in cylinder C. Crankshaft
D. Camshaft
C. ratio of pressure after compression
and before compression 100. The injection pressure in a diesel engine
D. swept volume/cylinder volume is about

E. cylinder volume/swept volume. A. 10 bar

B. 100 bar
95. Select the wrong set C. 150 bar
A. Carburetor-Petrol Engine D. .500 bar
B. 2 stroke engine-ports 101. The radiator is usually made of
C. Air cooled Engine-Fins A. Aluminium
D. Diesel Engine-Spark Plug B. Copper
C. Galvanised iron
96. Percentage of carbon content in steel
varies from D. Stainless steel

A. 0.25-1.50 102. Frictional power is

B. 2.00-4.00 A. BP+FP
C. 3.00-4.50 B. IP-BP
C. IP+BP
D. 2.50-3.50
D. BP-FP
97. TDC stands for?
103. SI engines are of
A. torque dead center
A. light weight
B. timing directed compression B. high speed
C. timing diesel compression C. homogeneous charge of fuel and oil
D. top dead center D. all the above

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4.1 Basics 403

104. A diesel engine has compression ratio 109. In a car engine’s cylinder, valves let fuel
from in and exhaust out.The moves these
valves

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A. 6 to 10
A. camshaft
B. 10 to 15
B. timing belt
C. 16 to 20
C. distributor
D. 25 to 40
D. none of above
105. The following type of core of a radiator
110. The defect caused when two streams do
contains a large number of individual air
not fuse together (while melting), thus
cells which are surrounded by water
forming discontinuity in casting is termed
A. Tubular type as?
B. Gilled type A. Cold shut
C. Honeycomb B. Misrun

D. All of the above C. Hot tear

D. Porosity
106. How many strokes are there in most com-
mon vehicle engines? 111. Ignition of the charge occurs in between
the following two strokes: and
A. Two
A. Induction, Power,
B. Three
B. Power, Exhaust
C. Four
C. Compression, Power
D. Five
D. Induction, Compression
107. For the same power developed in I.C. en- 112. Which of the following statements is not
gines, the cheaper system is true about white cast iron?
A. naturally aspirated A. It has a silvery-white colour
B. supercharged B. White cast iron is quite hard
C. centrifugal pump C. It melts with great difficulty
D. turbo charger D. It can be used for delicate castings

108. Pick up the wrong statement 113. The following part(s) is(are) lubricated
by splash system
A. In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is
A. Piston and piston rings
obtained in 4-strokes
B. Tappets
B. Thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine
is more due to positive scavenging C. Cams on camshaft
C. Petrol engines occupy more space D. All of the above
than diesel engines for same power out-
114. Which of the following processes will one
put.
use on hardened steel to reduce brittle-
D. Petrol engines work on otto cycle ness?

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4.1 Basics 404

A. Annealing 119. In Diesel cycle, heat addition takes place

at
B. Normalizing
A. constant temperature
C. Spheroidizing
B. constant pressure
D. Tempering
C. constant volume
115. Which one of the following is NOT the D. none of the mentioned
property of a good lubricant
120. A four cylinder engine has a capacity of

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Takes up the surface pressure be- 1.2 litres the sceptre volume of one cylin-
tween sliding parts der is
B. Becomes thicker after prolonged use A. 300cc
C. No change in viscosity due to variation B. 600cc
in temperature C. 480 cc
D. Reduces friction between machine D. 360 cc
parts
121. In thermosyphon system there is (are)
116. The following type of Lubrication system A. no pump
is used in two stroke engines
B. one pump
A. Petrol (mist) system C. two pumps
B. Wet sump system D. three pumps
C. Dry sump system
122. On the power stroke
D. All of the above A. the intake valve is closed, spark plugs
ignite the mixture
117. What does the W after a rating in 5W-20
signify? B. the intake valve opens, spark plugs ig-
nite the mixture
A. The oil was tested for vehicles that
C. spark plugs ignite the mixture, valves
have a W in their name
are closed.
B. The oil was tested for winter weather
D. none of above
temperatures a 0 degrees Fahrenheit
C. The oil was tested for warm weather 123. Thermal efficiency of petrol and gas en-
conditions gines is about
A. 15%
D. The oil was tested in Wyoming
B. 50%
118. compression ratio in diesel engines is of C. 70%
the order of
D. 30%
A. 5-7
124. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is ex-
B. 7-10 pessed in terms of
C. 10-12 A. Kcal
D. 14-20 B. Kcal/kg

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4.1 Basics 405

C. Kcal/m2 130. If the temperature of intake air in inter-

D. Kcal/m3 nal combustion engine increases, then its
efficiency will

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

125. a device that is not efficient A. Decrease
A. heating appliance B. Increase
B. thermostat C. remain same
C. refrigerator D. none of these
D. heat engine
131. The discharge of hydrocarbons from an
126. Two parts of an engine flywheel that automobile exhaust is minimum when the
should be inspected for damage are the vehicle is
clutch plate friction surface and A. Idling
A. connecting rods B. Cruising at low speeds
B. auxiliary drive belt
C. Cruising at high speeds
C. starter motor pinion gear
D. Accelerating
D. starter motor ring gear
132. For steel, which one of the following
127. Shear Modulus of steel is (in N/mm2) properties can be enhanced upon anneal-
A. o.6 x105 ing?
B. 0.7x105 A. Hardness
C. 0.8x105 B. Ductility
D. 0.65x105 C. Resilience
D. Toughness
128. Scavenging air in diesel engine means
A. air used for combustion sent under 133. The CYLINDERS where the PISTONS are
pressure housed are in one line (1 Bank) and up-
right.
B. forced air for cooling cylinder
A. Inline
C. burnt air containing products of com-
bustion B. V-Engine
D. air used for forcing burnt gases out of C. Boxer
engine’s cylinder during the exhaust pe- D. Rotary Engine
riod
E. air fuel mixture 134. Which of the following is not a property
pf wrought iron?
129. Which of the following ore is known as A. Wrought iron is ductile and malleable
red oxide of copper
B. It fuses easily
A. Copper glance
C. The specific gravity of wrought iron is
B. Malachite about 7.8
C. Azurite D. Wrought iron can be easily forged and
D. Cuprite welded

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4.1 Basics 406

135. The air requirement of a petrol engine 140. This links the piston to the crankshaft.
during starting compared to theoretical A. Connecting rod
airequired for complete combustion is
B. Camshaft
A. more
C. Valve stem
B. loss
D. Piston rings
C. same
141. In SI engine spark plug fires
D. may be more or less depending on en-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Just after the Piston reaches top
gine capacity
B. Just after the Piston reaches bottom
136. Railway rails are made ofA.lB.Mild C. Just before the Piston reaches top
steelC.D.E.
D. Just before the Piston reaches bottom
A. Dead mild steel
142. Idle stroke
B. Low carbon steel
A. Suction stroke
C. High carbon steel
B. Compression
D. Medium carbon steel
C. Exhaust
137. The ratio of actual cycle efficiency to that D. All the above
of the ideal cycle efficiency is called
143. Which of the following is not a property
A. effectiveness of cast iron
B. work ratio A. Cast iron is hard but brittle
C. efficiency ratio B. Cast iron can be magnetised
D. net efficiency C. It does not rust readily
D. Cast iron is not ductile
138. Carbon from the cylinder head is removed
with 144. In which type of casting, the outer sur-
A. Caustic soda face is made hard while the inner surface
remains relatively soft?
B. Scraper
A. Hollow casting
C. Water B. Sand casting
D. Soap C. Chilled casting
139. Compression ratio of I.C. engine is D. Die casting
A. The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder 145. The functions of exhaust system are
before compression stroke and after com- A. It releases hot gases of the engine into
pression ratio the air at Slow speed so that it produces
B. Volume displaced by piston per stroke less noise
and clearance volume in cylinder B. It reduces temperature of exhaust
C. Ratio of pressure after compression gases
and before compression C. It prevents engine from overheating
D. None of the above D. It reduces pressure of exhaust gases

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4.1 Basics 407

146. The knocking tendency in spark ignition C. to prevent damage to the engine
engines may be decreased by D. to improve engine performance

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A. controlling the air-fuel mixture
152. The heat flow to water jackets, on an av-
B. controlling the ignition timing erage, is about for large engines
C. controlling the exhaust temperature A. 500 KJ/KW hr
D. reducing the compression ratio
B. 4200 KJ/KW hr
147. Quick and economical method of prepar- C. 5700 KJ/KW hr
ing cast iron
D. 5200 KJ/KW hr
A. Bessemer process
153. An engine has clearance volume by 10cc
B. Astons process
and swept volume is 70cc the compression
C. LD process ratio is
D. All of these A. 8:1
148. In water cooling, the water in the jackets B. 7:1
obtains heat from the cylinders due to C. 9:1
A. Conduction D. 10:1
B. Convection
154. what action needs to be carried out after
C. Radiation replacing a filter in a CI engine fuel sys-
D. All of the above tem?
A. it should be filled with petrol
149. The combustion in compression ignition
engine is B. it should be filled with air
A. homogeneous C. it should have all air removed
B. heterogeneous D. it should have all diesel fuel removed
C. laminar 155. Commonly used fluxing material used in
D. none of the mentioned the process of smelting is
A. Limestone
150. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs
duto B. Sandstone
A. leaking piston rings C. cement
B. use of thick head gasket D. Fly ash
C. clogged air-inlet slots 156. What is the permissible percentage
D. all of the above. of Sulphur and Phosphorous content in
steel?
151. why do cambelts require replacing at a
specified mileage? A. 0.1%, 0.12%

A. to ensure valve clearance remain con- B. 1.0%, 1.0%

stant C. 1.0%, 3.0%
B. to reduce camshaft wear D. 3.0%, 1.0%

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4.1 Basics 408

157. Jet fuel ignites C. The piston travels from BDC to TDC to
A. explodes compress the fuel charge prior to ignition

B. burns smooth D. Air-fuel mixture is drawn into the com-

bustion chamber
C. is blue in color
D. is red in color 163. The pressure inside the cylinder is the
atmospheric pressure during the exhaust
158. Which part of the engine moves up and stroke

NARAYAN CHANGDER
down in the cylinder and hence powers the A. equal to
crankshaft?
B. below
A. The valves
C. above
B. The camshaft
D. Zero
C. The timing belt
D. The pistons (and piston rods) 164. Which engine valve configuration has the
camshaft in the cylinder block.
159. is the property of lubricating oil due A. Over Head Valve (OHV)
to which the oil particles stick with the
metal surfaces. B. Over Head Cam (OHC)
A. Oiliness C. Dual Over Head Cam (DOHC)
B. Pour point D. This is a trick question Mr. Gregoire
C. Adhesiveness 165. In spark ignition engines a nearly mix-
D. None of the mentioned ture of air and fuel is formed in the carbu-
rettor.
160. Steel produced by crucible steel process
A. hetrogeneous
A. Cast iron
B. homogeneous
B. Ingots
C. solid
C. Bloom
D. none
D. Blister steel
166. Engine coolant consists of
161. What’s full form of CI
A. water and antifreeze
A. Compression inefficiency
B. oil and antifreeze
B. Computerised injection
C. water and stop leak
C. Compressed injection
D. water only
D. Compression ignition
167. The term scavenging is generally associ-
162. During the intake stroke, ated with
A. Spent gases are forced out of the com- A. 2-stroke cycle engines
bustion chamber from the piston’s travel
from BDC to TDC B. 4-stroke cycle engines

B. Fuel is supplied to the combustion C. aeroplane engines

chamber D. 6-stroke cycle engines

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4.1 Basics 409

168. The common firing order of six cylinder 174. The camshaft of an eight-cylinder, four-
engine is cycle engine has

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A. 1-2-3-4-5-6 A. 4 cams
B. 1-6-5-4-3-2 B. 8 cams
C. 1-5-2-6-3-4
C. 16 cams
D. 1-5-3-6-2-4
D. 2 cams
169. If petrol is used in a diesel engine, then
A. low power will be produced 175. In which type of casting, molten metal is
poured into moulds which keep on rotat-
B. efficiency will be low ing?
C. higher knocking will occur
A. Centrifugal casting
D. black smoke will be produced
B. Chilled casting
170. In a four stroke engine each cylinder has
C. Hollow casting
A. One valve
D. Sand casting
B. Two valves
C. Four valves 176. A higher compression ratio causes
D. Three valves A. pre-ignition
171. Which of the following medium is com- B. increase in detonation
pressed in diesel engine cylinder
C. an acceleration in the rate of combus-
A. Air alone tion
B. Air and petrol
D. any one of these
C. Fuel alone
D. Air and lubrication oil 177. which one of the following would be iden-
tified by a visual inspection of the brake
172. The Compression ratio of an IC engine is pads?
the ratio of
A. possible overheating during braking
A. Total cylinder volume to swept volume
B. the asbestos content
B. Swept volume to clearance volume
C. Total cylinder volume to clearance vol- C. warped brake disc
ume D. incorrect ABS operation
D. pressure after compression to that of
before compression 178. The air fuel ratio of the petrol engine is
controlled by
173. Engine Oil is used for
A. fuel pump
A. Lubrication
B. Cooling B. governor

C. lubrication and cooling C. injector

D. lubrication, cooling, and for the spark D. carburettor

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4.1 Basics 410

179. An internal combustion engine (ICE) cre- C. remain same

ates kinetic energy from what energy D. increase up to certain limit and then
source? decrease
A. Chemical energy
185. An engine indicator is used to determine
B. Fluid energy the following
C. Carbon energy A. speed
D. Green energy B. temperature

NARAYAN CHANGDER
180. How many cycles does a a Jet turbine has C. volume of cylinder
to produce thrust? D. m.e.p. and I.H.P.
A. 3 E. BHP.
B. 4
186. A single cylinder 4 Stroke engine is rotat-
C. 5 ing at Rpm 2000. the number of power
D. 6 stroke occurring per minute is

181. The intake charge in a diesel engine con- A. 2000

sists of B. 500
A. Air alone C. 1000
B. Air + lubricating oil D. 4000
C. Air + fuel 187. Structural steel should have carbon con-
D. Air + lubricating oil + fuel tent less than

182. Can not be created or destroyed A. 0.3

A. Heat B. 0.6

B. Metal C. 3

C. Energy D. 2

D. none of above 188. What maintenance item collects

dirt/debris in engine oil?
183. An engine should not be operated in a
closed garage because A. Oil Pump Strainer

A. Engine receives an incorrect mixture B. Oil Screen

B. Poison due to accumulation of exhaust C. Oil Filter

gases D. Oil regenerator
C. The engine may get damaged 189. Mixture requirements during idling of SI
D. Of the risk of an explosion engine is

184. If the temperature of intake air in I.C. en- A. Rich

gine is lowered, then its efficiency will B. Lean
A. increase C. Stoichiometry
B. decrease D. Best power

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4.1 Basics 411

190. The main function of a is to conduct 195. If the intake air temperature of IC en-
the high potential from the ignition system gines increases, the efficiency will
into the combustion chamber.

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A. Unpredictable
A. spark plug B. Remains Same
B. magneto ignition C. Depends on other factors
C. battery D. Decrease
D. none of the mentioned 196. Reciprocating engines operate on the ba-
sic principle of?
191. Poisson’s ratio of steel is
A. Converting Chemical energy into me-
A. 0.1 chanical energy.
B. 1.0 B. Converting energy into electrical en-
C. 0.3 ergy.
C. Converting mechanical energy into
D. 2.0
lightning energy.
192. What is meant by a lean mixture? D. none of above
A. Proportion of air is lesser than theoret- 197. The process of puddling is carried out in
ical ratio a
B. Proportion of fuel is less than theoret- A. Blast furnace
ical ratio
B. flask
C. Proportion of fuel is greater than theo- C. Cupola furnace
retical ratio
D. Reverberatory furnace
D. Proportion of fuel & air in theoretical
ratio 198. CLASSIFICATION ON THE BASIS OF AP-
PLICATION OF IC ENGINE
193. The complete combustion of mixture, A. locomotive
and droplet combustion result in the smoke
and odour. B. automotive

A. hetrogeneous C. two stroke

D. 4 stroke
B. homogeneous
C. solid 199. What position are the valves in during
the intake stroke
D. none
A. Intake Closed, Exhaust Closed
194. a machine that converts thermal energy B. Intake Open, Exhaust Open
into mechanical energy
C. Intake Open, Exhaust Closed
A. heating appliance D. I have no idea
B. thermostat
200. Mixture requirements during starting of
C. refrigerator SI engine is
D. heat engine A. Rich

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4.1 Basics 412

B. Lean 206. The CYLINDERS where the PISTONS are

housed are opposing each other and lie flat
C. Stoichiometry
(2 Banks) some people call this a en-
D. Best power gine since it looks like 2 fists punching or
some people call it Horizontally Opposed.
201. What is the recommended oil change
mileage for Synthetic oil? A. Inline
B. V-Engine
A. 3, 000 Miles

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Boxer
B. 5, 000 Miles
D. Rotary Engine
C. 10, 000 Miles
D. Lifetime Oil 207. What are the types of combustion?
A. Complete & incomplete
202. Which of the following is not the function
of muffler B. Incomplete & inexact
A. Reduces noise C. Impossible & complete
B. Control the pressure D. Computer & incompete
C. Cools down the exhaust gases 208. Steel produced by crucible steel process
D. Lubricates exhaust manifold is known as
A. Blister steel
203. A stoichiometric air fuel ratio is
B. Pig steel
A. chemically correct mixture
C. Cast steel
B. lean mixture
D. Stained steel
C. rich mixture for idling
D. rich mixture for over loads 209. The pressure and temperature at the end
of compression stroke in a petrol engine
204. What transfers motion from the are of the order of
camshaft to the push rod in an OHV en- A. 4-6 kg/cm2 and 200-250◦ C
gine?
B. 6-12 kg/cm2 and 250-350◦ C
A. Rocker Arm
C. 12-20 kg/cm2 and 350-450◦ C
B. Rocker Pivot
D. 20-30 kg/cm2 and 450-500◦ C
C. Lifter
E. 30-40 kg/cm2 and 500-700◦ C.
D. Valve Spring
210. The internal combustion engine is called
205. Piston pins are generally made of so because fuel is burned
A. Nickel chromium alloy Steel A. inside the engine
B. Aluminium alloy B. under the engine
C. Cast iron C. next to the engine
D. None of this D. outside the engine

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4.1 Basics 413

211. The condition that results in large quanti- 217. The main function of the engine is to
ties of HC emission is . let air in and out of the cylinders.

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A. high temperature combustion A. Camshaft
B. incomplete combustion B. Valves
C. low temperature combustion C. Rocker arm
D. high atmospheric temperature com- D. Connecting Rod
bustion
212. The most important property of the lubri- 218. Supercharging is the process of
cant is A. Providing the forced cooing air
A. density B. Raising exhaust pressure
B. viscosity C. Suppling the intake of an engine with
C. thermal conductivity air at a density greater than the density
D. none of the above of the surrounding atmosphere
D. Suppling compressed air to remove
213. Steel corrodes in exposure of air and combustion product fully
moisture and rust has
A. 2.5 times the volume of steel 219. Compression is a key element of an inter-
B. 0.5 times volume of steel nal combustion engine. Which engine com-
ponent supplies the compression needed to
C. Equal volume compared to amount of power an engine?
steel rusted
A. Crankshaft
D. Twice volume of steel
B. Ignition Armature
214. Loss due to progressive combustion is
C. Connecting Rod
A. Exhaust blow down
D. Piston
B. Direct heat loss
C. Time loss 220. Cylinder volume with the piston at bot-
D. Pumping loss tom dead center (BDC) compared to cylin-
der volume with the piston at top dead cen-
215. In an Otto cycle, heat addition occurs at ter (TDC)
A. Constant temperature A. Compression Ratio
B. Constant volume B. Piston Comparison
C. Constant pressure C. Pressure Ratio
D. Constant entropy D. Engine Displacement
216. The maximum temperature inside a blast
furnace gas is of the order of 221. All heat engines utilize

A. 50 C A. low heat value of oil

B. 1000 C B. high heat value of oil
C. 1600 C C. net claorific value of oil
D. 2600 C D. calorific value of fuel

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4.1 Basics 414

222. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel 228. what action should be taken with brake
consumption guarantees are based on shoes that have become contaminated
A. high heat value with brake fluid?
B. low heat value A. they must be cleaned with brake
cleaner
C. net calorific value
D. middle heat value B. they must be replaced with new ones
E. calorific value. C. they must be refitted after being ex-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
posed to air for 24 hours
223. In the intake stroke, the piston pulls in?
D. they must be heated with a flame and
A. Air only
cleaned with brake cleaner
B. Air and Fuel
C. Oil, fuel, and air 229. Which stroke provides the power that ac-
tually turns the crankshaft?
D. nitro
A. Combustion
224. The electric furnace used in the electric
process to manufacture steel is lined with B. Compression
material.
C. Exhaust
A. Basic refractory
D. Intake
B. Basic non-refractory
C. Acidic refractory 230. Find odd one out
D. Acidic non-refractory A. Fuel injector
225. I have pulsar 180cc. What’s cc in it? B. Spark plug
A. Volume of cylinder C. Condenser
B. Displacement D. Distributor
C. Clearance volume
D. Stroke 231. On a coil per plug system the ignition coils
are situated on the
226. Which of the following does not happen
when a material is annealed? A. Distributor cap
A. Internal stresses get relieved B. King leads
B. Increase in ductility C. Spark plug
C. Decrease in toughness D. Battery
D. Increase in softness
232. what should be used to tighten a car-
227. What are the two types of cooling sys- tridge oil filter?
tems:
A. hand pressure
A. Air and Vent
B. Vent and Electric B. a torque wrench

C. Liquid and Electric C. a filter replacement strap

D. Liquid and Air D. a chain wrench

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4.1 Basics 415

233. The four strokes of an internal combus- 238. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C.
tion engine are engine are usually based on

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A. in, out, combustion, exhaust A. low heat value of oil
B. intake, out take, compression, power B. high heat value of oil
C. intake, compression, power, exhaust C. net calorific value of oil
D. in, out, power, compression D. calorific value of fuel
E. all of the above.
234. An engine does not reach operating tem-
perature while being driven. Which of 239. The thermal efficiency of two stroke cycle
these could be the cause? engine is a four stroke cycle engine
A. A slipping water pump belt A. Equal to
B. A stuck open thermostat B. Less than
C. A stuck closed thermostat C. Greater than

D. A clogged radiator passage D. None of the above

240. Which of the following operation on grey

235. List the four strokes in correct order
cast iron will result in the production of
A. Induction, Power, Compression, Ex- white cast iron?
haust
A. Tumbling
B. Induction, Compression, Power, Ex- B. Tempering
haust
C. rapid heating
C. Exhaust, Power, Compression, Induc-
tion D. Rapid cooling

D. Compression, Power, Induction, Ex- 241. On the exhaust stroke

haust A. the intake and the exhaust valves are
opened
236. Which of the following is a disadvantage
of Steel? B. the intake valve is closed

A. High strength per unit mass C. the intake and the exhaust valves are
closed
B. High durability
D. the exhaust valve opens; the intake
C. Fire and corrosion resistance valve is closed
D. Reusable
242. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle
237. if the equivalence ratio of an air fuel mix- diesel engine the inlet valve(
ture is greater than unity, the mixture is A. opens at 20◦ before top dead center
said to be and closes at 35◦ after the bottom dead
center
A. Lean
B. opens at top dead center and closes at
B. Rich
bottom dead center
C. Stoichiometric
C. opens at 10◦ after top dead center and
D. None closes 20◦ before the bottom dead center

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4.1 Basics 416

D. may open or close anywhere 248. The function of the ignition system is to
the flame propagation process.
E. remains open for 200◦
A. stop
243. Which of the following does not relate to B. initiate
a compression ignition engine
C. balance
A. Fuel pump
D. none
B. Fuel injector

NARAYAN CHANGDER
249. Function of fly wheel in 2 stroke engine
C. Governor
A. Store energy
D. Carburettor
B. Act as permanent magnet for magento
244. A crankshaft’s job in an engine is to: C. Perform function of a fan
A. deliver fuel to the cylinders D. All the above

B. change linear motion into rotational 250. In motorcycles, the following type of cool-
motion ing system is used
C. keep cylinder heads in place A. Air cooling system

D. none of above B. Water cooling system

C. Both (A) and (B)
245. Exhaust blow down is due to D. None of the above
A. Progressive combustion
251. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour
B. Early opening of exhaust valve for a petrol engine is approximately
C. Heat loss from exhaust gases A. 0.15 kg
D. Early opening of inlet valve B. 0.2 kg
C. 0.25 kg
246. when carrying out a cylinder leakage test
which one of the following is a possible D. 0.3kg
cause of air being heard exiting from the 252. For idling condition in automotive en-
dipstick the oil filter cap? gines, the air-fuel mixture must be
A. cylinder head gasket failure A. lean
B. piston rings and cylinder bores worn B. rich
C. inlet valve stem seals worn C. chemically balanced
D. exhaust valve stems worn D. none of the mentioned

253. The lead acid battery is used in duty

247. Another term for burning is
commercial vehicles.
A. Fire triangle A. heavy
B. Magnesium oxide B. light
C. Combustion C. large
D. Bustion D. none

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4.1 Basics 417

254. The pressure in common release regu- 259. Green fluid is noticed on the ground be-
lated by in CRDI system neath a vehicle’s engine. This condition
could be caused by a leak at the?

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A. Sensors
A. Oil Filter Housing
B. Battery
B. Water Pump
C. Electronic control unit
C. Transmission Cooler Line
D. Engine
D. Valve Cover Gasket
255. A petrol engine, during suction stroke
260. Knock is less common in climates.
draws
A. hot
A. air only
B. cold
B. petrol only
C. normal
C. a mixture of petrol and air
D. none
D. none of the mentioned
261. The pressure, temperature and density of
256. In in an Si engine sometimes continues to the mixture between the spark plug elec-
run for a very small period even after the trodes have a considerable influence on the
ignition is switched off this phenomenon is required to produce a spark.
called
A. voltage
A. Idling B. current
B. Dieseling C. mass
C. Throttling D. none
D. None of these
262. Which of the following is easiest to
257. Latin word for iron is bend?

A. Ferrium A. Cast iron

B. Grey pig iron
B. Ferrious
C. Mottled pig iron
C. Ferrum
D. Wrought iron
D. Ferrumous
263. In a diesel engine, the combustion is cre-
258. Technician A says that the engine should ated by the
be cleaned before checking for oil leaks.
Technician B says that a florescent dye A. fuel pump
should be added to the engine oil when B. Spark plug
checking leaks with a black light. Who is C. Ignitor
correct?
D. Injector
A. Tech A
264. What are the four strokes called in a four
B. Tech B
stroke engine?
C. Both A and B
A. Intake, compression, exhaust, clean-
D. Neither A nor B ing

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4.1 Basics 418

B. Exhaust, diesel, complication, cleaning 270. What is this?

C. Intake, compression, combustion, ex- A. Blast furnace
haust B. Cupola furnace
D. Petrol, spark, explosion, exhaust C. Bessemer convertor
265. The theoretically correct mixture of air D. none of above
and petrol is
271. During combustion in the engine, temper-
A. 10:1

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ature in the cylinder raises up to
B. 15:1 A. 1500◦ C
C. 20:1 B. 1700◦ C
D. 25:1 C. 2700◦ C

266. Morse test is used for multi cylinder SI D. 3700◦ C

engine to determine 272. The delay period in petrol engine is of the
A. Thermal efficiency order of
B. Volumetric efficiency A. 0.001 sec
C. Relative efficiency B. 0.002 sec
D. Mechanical efficiency C. 0.01 sec
D. 0.02 sec
267. Which of the following ferrous metals is
not vunerable to rust? 273. when a piston is at TDC at the end of the
A. Stainless Steel exhaust stroke it will be at the

B. Mild Steel A. top of the cylinder with the inlet and

exhaust valves completely closed
C. Cast iron
B. top of the cylinder with the inlet and
D. All of these exhaust valves fully open
268. A carburettor is used to supply C. top of the cylinder with the inlet and
exhaust valves partially open
A. Petrol, air and lubricating oil
D. bottom of the cylinder with the inlet
B. Air and diesel and exhaust valves completely closed.
C. Petrol and lubricating oil
274. In an actual 4 stroke SI engine, inlet
D. Petrol and air valve is closed
269. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by A. At TDC
A. spark B. At BDC
B. injected fuel C. Before BDC
C. heat resulting from compressing air D. After BDC
that is supplied for combustion
275. Engine pistons ‘are usually made of alu-
D. ignition minium alloy because it is
E. combustion chamber. A. is lighter

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4.1 Basics 419

B. wears less D. 240◦ C

C. absorbs shocks E. 320◦ C.

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D. stronger
281. The battery is charged by a driven by
276. Stoichiometric ratio is the engine.
A. chemically correct air-fuel ratio by A. shaft
weight
B. axle
B. chemically correct air-fuel ratio by vol-
C. dynemo
ume
D. none
C. actual air-fuel ratio for maximum effi-
ciency
282. Ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
D. none of the above
A. octane number
277. The purpose of valve clearance is to B. calorific value
A. Allow the sliding of valve in the guide C. self ignition temperature
B. Ensure that the crankshaft is free to ro-
D. cetane number
tate
C. Allow the valve to expand 283. Which of these is NOT a component of in-
D. Ensure that the valve closes fully ternal combustion engines?
A. Crankshaft
278. The part of a piston engine which con-
nects the piston to the crankshaft. B. Spark-plug
A. Camshaft C. Turbine
B. Valves D. Piston
C. Rocker arm
284. The reason for supercharging in any en-
D. Connecting Rod gine is to
279. Which of these fuels are in use in cars and A. increase efficiency
trucks and trains in New Zealand? Tick all B. increase power
the correct ones.
C. reduce weight and bulk for a given out-
A. Petrol put
B. Diesel
D. effect fuel economy
C. Parrafin
E. All the above
D. LPG and CNG gases
285. On the rear end of the crankshaft is
280. The temperature of interior surface of mounted
cylinder wall in normal operation is not al-
lowed to exceed A. Flywheel
A. 80◦ C B. Counterweight
B. 120◦ C C. Vibration damper
C. 180◦ C D. Timing sprocket

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4.1 Basics 420

286. On the compression stroke 292. What is the material used generally for
A. the intake valve is closed and the mix- exhaust manifold
ture is compressed A. Copper
B. the intake valve opens and the mixture B. Cast iron
is compressed C. Aluminium
C. the intake and the exhaust valves are D. Steel
opened and the mixture is compressed
293. In a diesel engine, the fuel is injected by

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
287. The camshaft moves rods that are at- A. Spark plug
tached to? B. fuel pump
A. Cylinder C. Ignitor
B. Intake/Exhaust Valve D. Injector
C. Piston
294. The working cycle in case of four stroke
D. Crankcase engine is completed in following number of
288. Otto cycle consist of process revolutions of crankshaft

A. Two adiabatic and 2 constant volumes A. 1/2 (i.e. 0.5)

B. Two adiabatic and 2 constant pressure B. 1

C. 2
C. Two adiabatic and 2 Isothermal
D. 4
D. None of the Above
295. The size of the carburettor is is generally
289. What is valve timing?
given in terms of the diameter of the
A. opening the valve at the right time
A. Jet
B. closing the valve at the right time B. Nozzle
C. opening and closing of the valve at the C. Venturi tube
right time
D. None of these
D. not important
296. An ignition process obeys the law of
290. The cooling fan is
A. onservation of mass
A. fitted between the engine and the radi-
B. onservation of energy
ator
C. onservation of momentum
B. driven by belt and pulleys
D. none
C. driven from the camshaft
D. All of the above 297. The device used to measure the clearance
between the valve and tappet of an IC En-
291. The furnace is lined with silica bricks in gine is
A. basic bessemer process A. Feeler gauge
B. acidic beessemer process B. Slip gauge
C. duplex process C. Micrometer
D. :L.D. process D. snap guage

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4.1 Basics 421

298. Greases perform better than oils under 304. Technician A says that most aluminum
conditions requiring heads should be removed while the engine
is still warm. Technician B says that some

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A. high bearing loads and shock loads
manufacturers require head bolts to be re-
B. slow journal speed moved in reverse order of the tightening
C. temperature extremes sequence. Who is correct?
D. all of the above A. Tech A Only
299. Diesel cycle is also known as B. Tech B Only
A. constant volume cycle C. Both A and B
B. constant pressure cycle D. Neither A nor B
C. constant temperature cycle 305. The lubricants commonly used in the au-
D. none of the mentioned tomobiles are
A. animal oils
300. The camshaft spins at the speed of
the crankshaft? B. vegetable oils
A. 1/2 C. synthetic oils
B. 1/4 D. cooking oils
C. 1/3 306. If the intake air temperature of I.C. en-
D. 1:1 gine increases, its efficiency will
A. increase
301. Red shortness is a defect occurring in
steel due to the presence of an excess B. decrease
amount of C. remain same
A. Phosphorous D. unpredictable
B. Sodium E. depend on other factors
C. Sulphur
307. In a four stroke engine, the working cycle
D. Calcium is completed in
302. The compression ratio of petrol engine is A. One revolution of the crankshaft
B. Two revolution of the crankshaft
A. 3 to 6 C. Three revolution of the crankshaft
B. 15 to 20 D. Four revolution of the crankshaft
C. 5 to 8
308. Does the supply of scavenging air at a
D. 20 to 30 density greater than that of atmosphere
303. The bore in which a piston operates is the mean engine is supercharged?
A. yes
A. Block B. no
B. Head C. to some extent
C. Cylinder D. unpredictable
D. Valve train E. depends on other factors.

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4.1 Basics 422

309. Duplex process, used to manufacture 314. The Engine crankshaft must be rotated at
steel, is a combination of which of the fol- a speed of minimum to start the engine
lowing two processes? A. 100 RPM
A. Basic Bessemer process and basic B. 1500 RPM
open-hearth process
C. 200 RPM
B. Acid Bessemer process and acid open-
hearth process D. 60 RPM
C. Acid Bessemer process and basic

NARAYAN CHANGDER
315. Which is more viscous lub oil
open-hearth process
A. SEA 30
D. Basic Bessemer process and acid
B. SAE 40
open-hearth process
C. SAE 50
310. Which cast iron is extensively used for
making casting D. SAE 80

A. Grey cast iron 316. In an actual 4 stroke SI engine, exhaust

B. White cast iron valve opens
C. Mottled cast iron A. At TDC
D. Chilled cast iron B. At BDC
C. Before TDC
311. In heavy vehicles cooled engines are
used D. Before BDC
A. Air cooled 317. Disadvantages of reciprocating I.C en-
B. Water cooled gines are
C. Oil cooled A. Vibrations
D. none of above B. use of fossil fuels
312. Combustion in compression ignition en- C. Balancing problems
gines is D. All the above
A. homogeneous
318. which one the following is checked by
B. heterogeneous heating a small amount of brake fluid?
C. both (a) and (b) A. moisture content
D. laminar B. fluid specification
313. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cy- C. air in the system
cle compared to diesel cycle for the given
D. age of the fluid
compression ratio is
A. same 319. A casting defect which occurs due to im-
proper venting of sand is known as?
B. less
A. Cold shut
C. more
D. more or less depending on power rat- B. Blow holes
ing C. Shift
E. unpredictable. D. Hot tear

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4.1 Basics 423

320. The fuel in diesel engine is normally in- 326. Supercharging is the process of
jected at pressure of
A. Supplying the intake of an engine with

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A. 5-10 kg/cm2 air at a density greater than the density of
B. 20-25 kg/cm2 the surrounding atmosphere
C. 60-80 kg/cm2 B. Providing forced cooling air
D. 90-130 kg/cm2 C. Injecting excess fuel for raising more
loads
321. The condition which are required for com-
bustion to take place are: D. Supplying compressed air to remove
combustion products fully
A. fuel
B. ignition temperature 327. In which of the following system lubricat-
ing oil is carried in a separate tank?
C. oxygen
D. all of these A. Mist lubrication system
B. Dry sump system
322. The primary component of natural gas is
C. Wet sump system
A. Methane
D. Splash system
B. Ethane
C. Pentane 328. Which 3 material properties are most as-
D. Octane sociated with metals?
A. Hardness
323. The ignition of the charge by some hot
surface within the engine before the pas- B. Elasticity
sage of spark is called C. Electrical Insulator
A. pre-ignition
D. Malleability
B. detonation
E. Ductility
C. ignition delay
D. auto-ignition 329. Stoichiometric air fuel ratio for petrol is
A. 14:1
324. The size of the engine intake valve is
A. Same as that of exhaust valve B. 12:1

B. Smaller than that of exhaust valve C. 16:1

C. Larger than that of exhaust valve D. 8:1

D. Does not depend upon the size of ex- 330. Which two changes would occur to mild
haust valve steel if you were to increase the carbon
325. What is the content of carbon in pig iron content?

A. 5 % to 8 % A. It would become softer

B. 0.5% to 2.5 % B. It would become tougher
C. 0.002% to 0.1 % C. It would become more brittle
D. 3 % to 4 % D. It would become harder

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4.1 Basics 424

331. A is a rotating shaft which (in con- 336. In SI engine, ignition lag is reduced if the
junction with the connecting rods) converts initial temperature and pressure are
reciprocating motion of the pistons into ro- A. decreses
tational motion.
B. increases
A. Pistons
C. constant
B. Crankshaft
D. none
C. Cylinder Head
337. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines usu-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Cylinders
ally occurs as
332. The thermal efficiecny of a diesel cycle A. first a mild explosion followed by a bi
having fixed compression ratio, with in- explosion
crease in cut-off ratio will
B. first a big explosion followed by a mil
A. increase explosion
B. decrease C. both mild and big explosions occurs si-
C. be independent multaneously

D. may increase or decrease depending D. never occurs

on other factors E. unpredictable.
E. none of the above. 338. Controls the action of the valves.
333. Supercharging the power developed A. Camshaft
by the engine B. Cylinders
A. Has no effect on C. Pistons
B. Increases D. Crankshaft
C. Decreases
339. The of an internal combustion engine
D. None of the above depends on the difference in temperature
between gas and the surrounding environ-
334. What is the freeze point for coolant ment.
mixed with a 50/50 Antifreeze to water
ratio? A. efficiency

A. 32*F B. quickness

B. 0*F C. smoothness
D. speed
C. -35*F
D. -100*F 340. This sits above the cylinders on top of the
engine block. It closes in the top of the
335. What is the main disadvantage of syn- cylinder, forming the combustion chamber.
thetic oil over regular oil? This joint is sealed by a head gasket.
A. Decreases oil consumption A. Pistons
B. Resists Sludge B. Crankshaft
C. Maintains lubricating ability longer C. Cylinder Head
D. Costs more D. Camshaft

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4.1 Basics 425

341. Four stroke engine cycle are? 347. Which of these fuels are in use in cars
A. induction, compression, push, exhaust and trucks and trains in the UK? Tick all
the correct ones.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Intake, Manifold, Power, Exhaust
A. Petrol
C. Intake, compression, power, exhaust
B. Diesel
D. intake, manifold, push, out
C. Parrafin
342. Coolant in a refrigerator moves en-
ergy from one place to another D. LPG

A. Heat 348. The pressure at the end of compression

B. Electric in the case of diesel engine is of the order
of
C. Thermal
A. 6 kg/cm
D. none of above
B. 12kg/cmz
343. In a four stroke engine, the working cycle
is completed in C. 20 kg/cmz

A. One revolution of the crankshaft D. 35 kg/cm

B. Two revolution of the crankshaft 349. Dark, black smoke from diesel engines
C. Three revolution of the crankshaft usually results when the engine is
D. Four revolution of the crankshaft A. Running at slow speeds

344. Converts reciprocating motion into rotat- B. Running at light loads

ing motion. C. Running at full load and full speed
A. Camshaft D. Running at full speed but under no load
B. Piston conditions
C. Crankshaft 350. In magneto ignition system, as the engine
D. Connecting rod speed increases the flow of current

345. The operation of forcing additional air A. decreases

under pressure in the engine cylinder is B. remains constant
known as
C. increases
A. Scavenging
D. none
B. Turbulence
C. Supercharging 351. Morse test is conducted on multi cylinder
engine to determine
D. Pre-ignition
A. The mechanical efficiency of each cylin-
346. Mist lubrication system is mainly used in der
A. four-stroke petrol engine B. The Volumetric efficiency of each cylin-
B. four-stroke diesel engine der
C. two-stroke petrol engine C. The brake power of each cylinder
D. Wankle engine D. The indicated power of each cylinder

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 4.2 Air Standard Cycles 426

352. The thermostatic valves open and pro- B. thermostat

vide passage for the flow of water to- C. heat pump
wards the radiator at approximately
D. heat engine
A. 90◦ C
B. 150◦ C 354. What kind of engine do we use the most
nowadays?
C. 250◦ C
A. Internal Combustion Engine
D. 300◦ C

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. External Combustion Engine
353. A two way air conditioner. C. Reaction Engine
A. refrigerator D. Modern Engine

4.2 Air Standard Cycles

1. What is precipitation? 3. Which of these is a challenge to food pro-
duction?
A. The part of the water cycle when the
sun heats up water, turning it from a liquid A. water scarcity
into water vapor or steam. It rises from B. climate change
the ground into the air.
C. threats from non-native plants
B. The part of the water cycle when the
D. all of the above
water vapor in the air gets cold. The water
turns back into a liquid and forms clouds. 4. Food experts are warning that famines are
C. The part of the water cycle when becoming more common due to
clouds get heavy and can no longer hold A. climate change and population growth
the liquid water. This causes the water to B. drought and wind
fall from the sky to the earth as rain, snow,
sleet, or hail. C. floods and population growth

D. none of above D. war and floods

5. For the same compression ratio and heat

2. Compression ratio r is supplied, efficiency of
A. ratio of pressure at the end of com- A. Otto cycle is maximum
pression to the pressure at the start of
compression B. Otto cycle is minimum
C. Diesel cycle is maximum
B. ratio of pressure at the start of com-
pression to the pressure at the end of D. Diesel cycle is minimum
compression E. Dual Combustion cycle is maximum
C. ratio of volume at the end of compres-
6. is when rainwater flows downhill to-
sion to the volume at the start of compres-
ward a body of water.
sion
A. runoff
D. ratio of volume at the start of compres-
sion to the volume at the end of compres- B. percolation
sion C. accumulation

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4.2 Air Standard Cycles 427

D. transpiration 13. A method of food preservation that in-

volves removing the moisture from a food
7. In air standard cycles, heat rejection is a product-microbes require moisture to func-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. a constant volume process tion
B. a constant pressure process A. pasteruzation
C. a constant entropy process B. dehydration
D. a constant enthalpy process
C. irradiation
8. A gas turbine power plant uses which of D. fermentation
these thermodynamic cylce?
A. Otto 14. What happens to the nitrogen excreted by
animals?
B. Diesel
C. Rankine A. Nitrates are reabsorbed by the animal.
D. none of these B. Nitrogen is converted into ammonia.

9. Water that is safe to drink is known as C. Nitrogen is released back into the en-
vironment.
A. potable
D. Nitrates are converted into proteins.
B. non-potable
C. turbid 15. Reheat is adopted in Rankine cycle when
D. ionised A. Boiler is operated at low temperatures
10. is when water vapor is releases from B. Boiler is operated at low pressures
the leaves of plants. C. Boiler is operated at high pressure to
A. transpiration ensure moisture content does not exceed
B. precipitation 15%
C. percolation D. Turbine exhaust has less moisture
D. accumulation 16. Which of the following represents limited
11. The volume of cutoff is generally ex- pressure cycle?
pressed as ? A. Diesel cycle
A. % of clearance volume B. Brayton cycle
B. % of stroke volume
C. Dual cycle
C. Compression ratio
D. Otto cycle
D. Expansion ratio
17. Compression ratio of an I C Engine is
12. What role do decomposers play in the car-
bon cycle? A. Ratio of volume before compression to
A. absorb carbon dioxide volume after compression

B. release carbon dioxide into atmo- B. Ratio of volume after compression to

sphere volume before compression
C. return carbon into the soil C. Volume of air compressed in one cycle
D. provide carbon for combustion D. None of the above

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4.2 Air Standard Cycles 428

18. A particular golf course is using large 23. Steam power plants use this type of cycle
amounts of nitrogen fertilizer. What pro- A. Carnot cycle
cess could move this nitrogen into a local
B. Brayton cycle
stream?
C. Rankine cycle
A. volatilization
D. Diesel cycle
B. nitrogen fixation
C. runoff 24. The important parameters used for the
comparison of the cycle are

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. ammonification
A. Cut off ratio
19. In an Otto cycle how many reversible adi- B. Stroke volume
abatic processes are invovled?
C. Work done
A. 1
D. Compression ratio, Net-work
B. 2
25. Jet engines and gas turbine power plants
C. 3 use this type of cycle
D. 4 A. Carnot cycle
20. is when water vapor gets cooler and B. Brayton cycle
changes back into liquid water to form C. Rankine cycle
clouds. D. Diesel cycle
A. evaporation
26. What is the energy source for the water
B. condensation cycle?
C. precipitation A. the sun
D. transpiration B. the earth
21. The major components in a Rankine cycle C. water
are D. the moon
A. Compressor, combustion chamber, 27. Thermal efficiency of constant volume cy-
turbine and condenser cle depends upon
B. Boiler, compressor, condenser and A. volume compression ratio
turbine
B. work developed
C. Boiler, turbine, condenser and pump
C. heat supplied
D. Boiler, compressor, pump and turbine D. none of the given options
22. A cycle consists of reversible adiabatic 28. A combined cycle power plant uses
compression, heat addition in which pres-
A. a diesel cycle on top of a jet brayton
sure do not change, reversible adiabatic
cycle
expansion and heat rejection. The cycle is
B. a bicycle on top of a tricycle
A. Otto Cycle
C. a rankine steam cycle on top of a diesel
B. Diesel Cycle cycle
C. Dual combustion cycle D. a steam rankine cycle on top of a jet
D. all of the given options brayton cycle

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4.2 Air Standard Cycles 429

29. Name of bacteria that converts some of B. 35.4%

the nitrates back into nitrogen gas. C. 43.5%

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Dinetrifying bacteria
D. 45.3%
B. nitrogen fixing bacteria
E. 54.3%
C. Denitrifying bacteria
35. What source of energy evaporates the
D. Nitrifying bacteria
most water from Earth’s surface?
30. In a process, if the value of γ is replaced A. volcanoes
by n, then what is the name of the process
B. the sun
A. Isentropic
C. lightning
B. Polytropic
D. wind
C. Isobaric
D. Isochoric 36. cut off ratio is
A. ratio of volume at the end of compres-
31. Where is most water found on Earth?
sion to the volume at the start of compres-
A. glaciers sion
B. lakes B. ratio of volume at the end of heat ad-
C. rivers dition to the volume at the start of heat
addition
D. oceans
C. ratio of volume at the end of expansion
32. What does reverse osmosis need to to the volume at the start of expansion
work?
D. ratio of volume at the end of heat re-
A. high pressure jection to the volume at the start of heat
B. low pressure rejection
C. high temperature 37. The nitrogen found in the atmosphere is
D. low temperature not in a form that plants or animals can
use. What converts it into a usable form?
33. A method of food preservation that in-
volves storing food between freezing and A. Bacteria
room temperature-does not kill microor- B. Photosynthesis
ganisms but slows their growth/rate of
C. Decomposition of organisms
reproduction.
D. Fungi
A. refrigeration
B. fermentation 38. What is evaporation?
C. pasteurization A. The part of the water cycle when the
D. dehydration sun heats up water, turning it from a liquid
into water vapor or steam. It rises from
34. If compression ratio of an ideal Otto Cycle the ground into the air.
is 6.75, the thermal efficiency of the cycle B. The part of the water cycle when the
is water vapor in the air gets cold. The water
A. 53.4% turns back into a liquid and forms clouds.

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4.2 Air Standard Cycles 430

C. The part of the water cycle when 43. What happens when decomposers break
clouds get heavy and can no longer hold down matter in the compost bin.
the liquid water. This causes the water to A. Energy is created.
fall from the sky to the earth as rain, snow,
sleet, or hail. B. Energy is destroyed.
D. none of above C. Some of the energy is lost as heat.
D. The energy does not change.
39. The air standard efficiency of an IC engine

NARAYAN CHANGDER
depends on 44. Otto Cycle is known as
A. Fuel used A. Constant Volume Cycle
B. Speed of engine B. Constant Pressure Cycle
C. Compression ratio C. Constant Enthalpy Cycle
D. None of the above D. Constant Entropy Process
40. Brayton cycle is not suitable for I C Engines, 45. This type of cycle is used in four stroke
because compression ignition engines
A. The maximum pressure in the cycle A. Carnot cycle
would be too high
B. Brayton cycle
B. The swept volume is too small
C. Rankine cycle
C. The maximum temperature in the cycle
would be high D. Diesel cycle
D. Swept volume required would be large 46. The Otto cycle is the
41. Mean effective pressure is A. air standard cycle of CI engine
A. The pressure of charge inside the cylin- B. air standard cycle of SI engine
der during expansion stroke of the cycle C. vapour power cycle of CI engine
B. The average pressure inside the cylin- D. vapour power cycle of SI engine
der during the entire cycle that would re-
sult in the same output as that of a normal 47. is when rain goes underground
cycle through the soil.
C. Net work out put divided by swept vol- A. condensation
ume of the cylinder
B. evaporation
D. Both (b) and (c)
C. percolation
42. The effect of regeneration in Brayton cycle D. runoff
is:
48. Cut-off ratio is term used for
A. Increase in net work output
A. Otto
B. decrease in net work output
B. Diesel
C. decrease in heat input and increase in
efficiency C. Brayton
D. none of the above D. Rankine

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4.2 Air Standard Cycles 431

49. The mean effective pressure of a Diesel cy- C. Isothermal

cle is defined as the work done per cycle
D. Reversible
divided by ?

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A. Clearance Volume 55. The minimum volume occupied by the fluid
B. Stroke Volume in the cylinder when the piston reaches
TDC is
C. All of the above
A. Swept volume
D. None of the above
B. Stroke volume
50. What is the other name for Brayton cy-
C. Clearance volume
cle?
A. Regenerative Rankine Cycle D. None of the above

B. Joule Cycle 56. The Otto cycle is not suitable for Gas Tur-
C. Dual Cycle bine plants, because
D. Otto Cycle A. Maximum temperature encountered
will be high
51. A diesel engine has compression ratio from
B. The maximum pressure reached would
be small
A. 8 to 10
C. The efficiency of Otto cycle for same
B. 50 to 60 compression ratio would be less than that
C. 16 to 20 of Brayton cycle
D. 6 to 10 D. More space is required

52. Challenges to food production include: 57. In a four-stroke internal combustion en-
A. water scarcity and climate change gine,
B. decreasing human population A. the piston does four complete strokes
within cylinder for each cycle
C. the weather
D. introduced non-idigenous species B. for each cycle, the crankshaft com-
pletes two revolutions
53. Which of the following is not an assump- C. both of the mentioned
tion used in Air Standard Cycle analysis
D. none of the mentioned
A. All processes are ideal
B. Friction is considered 58. An air standard diesel cycle has a compres-
sion ratio of 12 and cut off ratio 2.5.Ther-
C. There are no intake and exhaust
mal efficiency of cycle is
strokes
D. Cp, Cv are contants A. 45%
B. 54%
54. It is assumed that all the process of an air
standard cycle are C. 56%
A. Irreversible D. 65%
B. Adiabatic E. 72%

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4.2 Air Standard Cycles 432

59. A condition in which food becomes unsafe 64. Air standard cycle for Gas Turbine Power
to eat-usually caused by bacteria or fungi Plant is
A. food treatment A. Otto cycle
B. contamination / decomposition B. Brayton cycle
C. pathogenic C. Diesel cycle
D. foodborne illness D. Dual cycle

NARAYAN CHANGDER
65. A steam power plant works on and a
60. Air standard cycle for SI Engines is
gas turbine works on
A. Otto cycle
A. both work on Rankine cycle
B. Diesel cycle
B. both work on Brayton cycle
C. Brayton cycle C. Brayton cycle, Rankine cycle
D. Dual Cycle D. Rankine cycle, Brayton cycle
61. A thermodynamic cycle which uses work to 66. How does nitrogen become part of the
cause heat flow from a cold reservoir to a food chain?
hotter reservoir is called
A. Through transpiration by plants
A. a heat reservoir B. Through uptake of nitrogen com-
B. a heat pump pounds (nitrates) in the soil by plants
C. a perpetual motion machine C. Through factory emission and combus-
tion of fossil fuels
D. a heat engine
D. Sunlight changes nitrogen into usable
62. Which equation represents the process forms
that occurs when the standard enthalpy of
atomisation of iodine is measured? 67. For same maximum pressure and tempera-
ture, the thermal efficiency of diesel cycle
A. 0.5I2(s) → I(g) is
B. I2(s) → 2I(g) A. higher than Otto cycle
C. 0.5I2(g) → I(g) B. higher than Dual Combustion cycle
D. I2(g) → 2I(g) C. lower than Dual Combustion cycle
D. lower than Otto cycle
63. Regeneration in Gas Turbine Plant would
be useful only when 68. Air standard cycle for C I engines is
A. The temperature of exhaust gas is A. Otto cycle
above that of compressed air
B. Carnot cycle
B. The temperature of compressed air is
C. Brayton cycle
above that of exhaust gas
D. Diesel cycle
C. The temperature of exhaust gas is
equal to that of compressed air 69. When water condenses, the liquid water
D. The temperature of air entering the forms
compressor is above that of exhaust gas A. water vapor

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4.2 Air Standard Cycles 433

B. steam D. first air is compressed reversibly and

C. air adiabatically, then heat added at constant
pressure and rejected at constant volume

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. clouds
74. A preservation method in which foods are
70. In recent years, the human population has stored at a low temperatures so the water
meaning that global food productions in the product becomes ice. (decay needs
must also water)
A. increased exponentially, increase A. curing
B. decreased exponentially, decrease B. refrigeration
C. decreased slowly, increase C. freezing
D. increased slowy, decrease
D. pickling
71. For the same maximum pressure and tem-
75. How does the water cycle begin?
perature for both cycles, under ideal condi-
tions which has more efficiency, A. with the Sun’s energy
A. Otto B. with the ocean’s energy
B. Diesel C. with wind power
C. Both equal D. with rain energy
D. cannot be predicted
76. is when the sun’s heat causes liquid
72. Other challenges to food security water to become water vapor.

A. how much money one has A. condensation

B. the way you use the land B. evaporation
C. changes in temperature C. precipitation
D. war and competition for land D. transpiration

73. Which of the following is true for the Bray- 77. Respiration is the process by which is
ton cycle? a) b) heat is added reversibly consumed and is produced.
at constant pressurec) air expands in tur- A. Carbon dioxide, Oxygen
bine reversibly and adiabaticallyd) all of
the mentioned B. Oxygen, Carbon dioxide
A. first air is compressed reversibly and C. H20, oxygen
adiabatically, then heat added at constant D. Carbon, H2O
volume
B. first air is compressed reversibly and 78. In Diesel cycle heat addition takes place at
adiabatically, then heat added at constant
volume and heat rejected at constant pres- A. constant volume
sure
B. constant temp
C. first air is compressed reversibly and
C. constant pressure
adiabatically, then heat added at constant
pressure D. c) constant temperature and pressure

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 4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 434

79. Efficiency of Otto cycle with increase D. none of above

in compression ratio
81. Snow, sleet, hail, and rain are all forms of
A. decreases
B. remains constant
A. evaporation
C. increases
B. transpiration
D. slightly decreases
C. precipitation
80. What is condensation?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. condensation
A. The part of the water cycle when the
sun heats up water, turning it from a liquid 82. When the compression ratio is constant in
into water vapor or steam. It rises from diesel cycle
the ground into the air.
A. The efficiency increases with increase
B. The part of the water cycle when the in cut off ratio
water vapor in the air gets cold. The water
B. The efficiency decreases with increase
turns back into a liquid and forms clouds.
in cut off ratio
C. The part of the water cycle when
clouds get heavy and can no longer hold C. The efficiency is not affected by cut off
the liquid water. This causes the water to ratio
fall from the sky to the earth as rain, snow, D. The efficiency may increase or de-
sleet, or hail. crease with increase in cut off ratio

4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels

1. This type of radiation can be blocked B. 3 MIle Island
by aluminum and is considered medium C. Chernobyl
strength.
D. Chalk River
A. alpha
B. beta 4. This alternative energy source is a very
clean way to produce energy but it is ex-
C. gamma pensive due to the cost of dam construc-
D. delta tion.
A. solar
2. A type of energy that is renewed in a short
time and is made of fuels that are made B. geothermal
from wood, dried plants and garbage is C. wind
A. biomass D. hydroelectric
B. solar energy
5. What are two advantages of geothermal
C. water energy energy?
D. nuclear energy A. cheap and a lot pollution
3. Which nuclear disaster occurred in 2011 B. expensive and a lot of pollution
near Japan? C. cheap and little pollution
A. Fukushima D. expensive and little pollution

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 435

6. Which of these is a disadvantage of hydro- 11. The law of of energy states that en-
gen fuel ergy cannot be created or destroyed, only
transformed or changed.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. produces pollution
A. renewal
B. expensive and flammable
B. refreshing
C. heavy and weak
C. battery storage
D. ugly and rare
D. conservation
7. Why can’t people just keep consuming 12. In what kind of rock can fossils be found?
gasoline at the rate they are today?
A. Sedimentary Rocks
A. The world’s supply of gas is limited
B. Igneous Rocks
B. Gasoline engines will not be built after
C. Metamorphic Rocks
2015.
D. Granite
C. Gasoline will not be used as much in
the future. 13. When does Ms. Sutton need your make up
D. Gasoline will not be able to be manu- work?
factured. A. In a week
B. Two weeks
8. What happens to fossil fuels to create elec-
tricity? C. Today

A. They are stored D. Two years

B. They are burned 14. Solar Energy is

C. They are melted A. Energy that comes from harnessing
the movement of the air
D. They are frozen
B. Energy that comes from the Sun
9. Fossils give us evidence about which of the C. A source of renewable energy, such as
following? solar, wind, or geothermal energy
A. plants and animals that lived long ago D. Fuel from plant material
B. how weathering and erosion break 15. What is Diesel?
down rocks
A. Fossil fuel
C. the other planets in our solar system
B. Alterntive fuel
D. the transfer of energy from one form C. Mineral water
to another
D. Electric fuel
10. Which of these is a fossil fuel?
16. Formed when large quantities of dead or-
A. oil ganisms such as Zoo-plankton and Algae
are buried under sedimentary layers and
B. wind
subjected to intense heat and pressure
C. water turning them into a liquid fossil fuel.
D. wood A. Coal

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 436

B. Oil/ Petroleum 22. A con of nuclear energy is that

C. Natural Gas A. it is too expensive
D. none of above B. it does not produce much power
C. it has toxic wastes
17. The energy produced can be controlled and
harnessed to produced electricity. D. it uses too many workers
A. Chain Reaction 23. The splitting of a nucleus into smaller frag-
ments accompanied by the release of neu-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Fission
trons and a large amount of energy
C. Fusion
A. Fusion
D. none of above
B. Fission
18. Fission C. Chain Reaction
A. two smaller atoms combine to form a D. none of above
larger, different, atom
24. What are the 3 main fossil fuels?
B. A large atom is split into two smaller
atoms of different elements A. Coal, Oil, and Gasoline

C. Same number of protons with differing B. Coal, Oil, and Natural Gas
numbers of neutrons C. Electricity, Gasoline, Petroleum
D. number of protons plus the number of D. Coal, Oil, Non-renewable Resources
neutrons.
25. Where did the energy for fossil fuels come
19. A problem with geothermal energy is that from?
it A. Animals
A. is too hot B. Plants
B. is non-polluting C. Sun
C. is available only in the ocean D. Chemosynthesis
D. is available only in certain locations 26. When an unstable particle ejects particles
and radiation.
20. Which is a primary energy source used by
power plants to generate electricity? A. half-life
A. coal B. radioactive decay
B. wood C. enrichment
C. gasoline D. corrosion

D. batteries 27. Paricles and radiation. Examples:alpha

particles, beta particles, neutrons, gamma
21. How are Sedimentary Rocks formed? rays.
A. Cooling and Hardening A. radioactive emissions
B. Heat and Pressure B. radioactive waste
C. Compacting and Cementing C. meltdown
D. Melting D. enrichmant

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 437

28. What is biomass? 33. Using a diagnostic strategy for a driv-

ability concern, which of the following is
A. energy from the sun
generally the last step in that process to

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. energy from water identify compress natural gas vehicle prob-
C. energy from wind lems?

D. energy from plant and animal waste A. Checking vehicle history.

B. Verifying repair.
29. Why is burning fossil fuels harmful?
C. Doing service checks.
A. then we won’t have any fossil fuels if
we burn them all D. Verifying concern.
B. They can get extremely hot 34. is the efficient use of resources.
C. Increases the amount of greenhouse
A. Fossil Fuels
gases in the air
B. Conservation
D. this would destroy fossils
C. Recycling
30. Which of the following is an example of
D. Natural Resources
renewable energy?
A. water 35. Nuclear waste
B. sunlight A. cannot be safely transported
C. wind B. is deadly for 10, 000 years
D. all of the above C. is as deadly as nuclear fuel before it is
used
31. Nonrenewable resources are
D. Can be recycled to make new fuels and
A. man-made resources byproducts
B. cannot be replaced quickly
36. Which alternative energy source is gener-
C. can be replaced in a short amount of ated beneath Earth’s crust and can be used
time to heat buildings?
D. never run out
A. Hydroelectric energy
32. Why are the remains of ancient organisms B. Geothermal energy
buried so deeply within the earth? Choose
C. Wind energy
the best answer.
D. Solar energy
A. They were swallowed up by major
earthquakes.
37. All of the following are considered alterna-
B. Most ancient organisms lived under- tive energy sources EXCEPT-
ground.
A. Wind
C. They were buried by the meteor strike
B. Coal
that killed the dinosaurs.
C. Biofuel
D. They were buried by natural pro-
cesses. D. Solar

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 438

38. All of these are related to the formation of C. They produce a voltage
oil or natural gas EXCEPT- D. none of above
A. decomposed animals
44. These are the best long-term fuel
B. decayed plants
A. Rare earth metals fuels
C. sedimentary rocks
B. Fossil fuels
D. active volcanoes
C. Disjuctive fuels

NARAYAN CHANGDER
39. Which nuclear disaster occurred near D. Alternative fuels
Canada?
45. The law that states that energy cannot be
A. Fukushima created or destroyed but can be changed
B. 3 MIle Island from one form to another
C. Chernobyl A. Potential Energy
D. Chalk River B. Law of conservation of energy
C. Nuclear Energy
40. One problem with energy is that it pro-
duces radioactive waste. D. Energy Conversion
A. nuclear 46. The boiling point of water is-
B. solar A. 0*C
C. tidal B. 100*C
D. wind C. 32*C
D. 90*C
41. In the US we use mostly “light water”
A. enrichments 47. The careful use of a resource is

B. nuclear reactors A. recycling

C. moderators B. pollution
C. depositing
D. fuel elements
D. conservation
42. What force is important in the creation of
both coal and petroleum? 48. Gasoline comes from which fossil fuel?
A. Putrefaction A. Coal
B. Petrification B. Petroleum

C. Pressure C. Natural Gas

D. none of above
D. Oxidation
49. Define Nuclear energy?
43. What is a strength of using hydrogen-
oxygen fuel cells in manned spacecraft, A. An isotope
compared to using chemical cells? B. The stuff you see in a power plant.
A. They produce electricity C. Energy stored in the nucleus of an
B. They produce water that the astro- atom
nauts can drink D. Energy stored in an objects height

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 439

50. Which fossil fuel is the remains of ancient 55. Where can the oldest layer be found?
plants? A. The top layer

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A. Coal B. The middle layer
B. Petroleum C. They are all the same age
C. Natural Gas D. The bottom layer

D. none of above 56. Hot water is pumped up from deep inside

Earth and is used to heat homes or to gen-
51. Fossil fuels are not renewable. What will erate electricity. This describes
happen if people waste them and we use A. biofuels
more than we have?
B. hydroelectric energy
A. These resources will disappear C. geothermal energy
B. We will need to make more fossil fuels D. none of above
C. Conditions will remain the same 57. What problems are caused by using fossil
D. Cars will be able to move faster fuels?
A. Air pollution, Climate change, oil spills,
52. Wind Energy is acid rain
A. Energy that comes from harnessing B. Air pollution only
the movement of the air C. Oil spills only
B. Energy that comes from the Sun D. Climate change only
C. A source of renewable energy, such as 58. Plants, water, solar energy are all exam-
solar, wind, or geothermal energy ples of what kind of resources?
D. Fuel from plant material A. renewable
B. soil and land
53. Alternative fuel made from vegetable oil
that can be run in diesel powered engines. C. nonrenewable
A. ethanol D. biosphere

B. gasoline 59. Fossil fuels are made from (check all

that apply)
C. bio-diesel
A. decomposing plants
D. jet fuel
B. phosphorous
54. Why is solar energy a good way to power C. decomposing animals
machines? D. metamorphic rock
A. It does not get used up like oil does. 60. Fossil fuels are classified as nonrenewable
B. Solar panels can be put up in many because they
places. A. require expensive equipment
C. No pollution is released when using so- B. take millions of years to replace
lar energy. C. can be found all over
D. All of the above D. provide all the energy we use

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 440

61. The nucleus of an atom is made of 67. Why are fossil fuels formed by?
A. electrons and protons A. Tectonic plates movement
B. electrons and neutrons B. Boiling sea water
C. protons and neutrons C. Organic matter descomposition
D. empty space D. Bacterium

62. Which statement is true about metals? 68. How to identify vehicle equipped with com-
press natural gas system?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Metal doesn’t get hot and melt
A. Check the engine compartment.
B. Metal is weak
B. Marked by NGV sign.
C. Metal is an insulator
C. Identify natural gas tank.
D. Metal is a conductor and completes cir- D. Check the vehicle manual book.
cuits
69. What is the main advantage of ethanol
63. What is produced by a hydrogen-oxygen over gasoline?
fuel cell?
A. It is cheaper to produce than gasoline.
A. Water and Carbon Dioxide
B. It comes from a renewable source.
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. It changes plant matter into sugar
C. Water D. All of the above
D. none of above
70. What is the definition of a renewable re-
64. The type of energy that cattle create is source?
? A. things that don’t run out
A. biomass B. things that do run out
B. solar C. stuff that makes things happen
C. natural gas D. none of the above
D. nuclear 71. Which of the following is not a type of fos-
65. Which fossil fuel is solid? sil fuel?
A. Coal
A. Coal
B. Light
B. Natural Gas
C. Petroleum
C. Petroleum
D. Natural Gas
D. none of above
72. alternative energy sources
66. during fusion and fission, what is the sub-
A. fuels made from organic matter
atomic particle that is introduced to an el-
ement? B. heat energy naturally produced within
Earth
A. Proton
C. sources of energy that do not come
B. electron from fossil fuels
C. neutron D. materials in the environment that are
D. none of above useful to people

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 441

73. What is Combustion? 78. Which of the following is a nonrenewable

resource?
A. When something is burned and light

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and heat energy are released A. milk
B. When something evaporates B. coal
C. When something is burned and carbon C. biomass
dioxide is released D. water
D. When something is burned and water 79. Energy from the sun is known as
vapour
A. hydroelectric energy
74. A type of energy that is renewable be- B. geothermal energy
cause it uses the sun’s energy is C. solar energy
A. nuclear energy D. wind energy
B. biomass energy
80. bio-fuels are
C. solar energy A. an examples of fossil fuels
D. geothermal energy B. non-renewable sources of fuel
75. A type of energy that uses heat that is C. renewable fuels produced from plant
stored inside the earth is material.

A. geometric energy D. Fuels which produce a lot of green

house gases
B. geothermal energy
81. A type of energy that is renewable and
C. biomass energy uses large turbines to use wind energy is
D. solar energy A. nuclear energy
76. What is Nuclear Energy? B. wind energy
A. The use of nuclear reactions that re- C. turbine energy
lease nuclear energy to to generate heat. D. solar energy
B. Nuclear energy is obtained at nu- 82. When one large nucleus is split into two
clear power plants when they heat wa- smaller nuclei, the process is nuclear
ter to steam and is created when uranium
A. Fusion
atoms split this is called Fission.
B. Fission
C. A non renewable energy
C. Tracing
D. none of above
D. Decay
77. One con (disadvantage) of water energy 83. Which of these is an alternative fuel
is that dams are source?
A. easy to build A. coal
B. costly to build B. oil
C. too big C. gas
D. not working D. hydrogen

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 442

84. How are fossils created? B. wind and sunlight

A. Traces of organisms get turned into C. natural gas and oil
stone. D. natural gas and coal
B. Dead organisms are quickly buried for
90. From where comes from gasoline?
millions of years.
A. Crude Oil
C. Animals get trapped.
B. Dinosaur Oil
D. All of the above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Mississipi Oil
85. Alternative Energy Resource is D. Natural Gasoline
A. Energy that comes from harnessing
the movement of the air 91. What do oil and natural gas form from?
A. the remains of swamp plants
B. Energy that comes from the Sun
B. the remains of land animals
C. A source of renewable energy, such as
solar, wind, or geothermal energy C. the remains of sea organisms
D. Fuel from plant material D. the remains of burned-out forests

86. What is produced at high temperatures in 92. What can you infer about the word
petrol engines? “geothermal? ”
A. Nitrogen monoxide A. It is derived from the words meaning
“heat” and “earth”
B. Nitrogen Dioxide
B. It is derived from the words meaning
C. Nitrogen Trioxide “fossil” and “fuel”
D. Nitrogen C. It is derived from the words meaning
“power” and “energy”
87. Energy is defined as the ability to cause
D. It is derived from the words meaning
A. heat
“sun” and “energy”
B. change
93. Another name for oil.
C. electricity
A. coal
D. chemicals to glow
B. natural gas
88. What is the result of the pollution that C. petroleum
comes from burning gasoline?
D. alternative
A. Earth is warming.
94. What is fusion
B. Glaciers are melting.
A. a large atom is split into two smaller
C. Weather patterns are changing.
atoms of different elements
D. All of the above
B. number of protons plus the number of
89. Electricity to play your radio can be neutrons
made using renewable or nonrenewable C. same number of protons with different
resources. Which of the following re- numbers of neutrons
sources are renewable? D. tow smaller atoms combine to form a
A. wind and oil larger, different element.

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 443

95. Oil and natural gas were formed from 101. Which of the following is considered one
A. marine organisms of the three main fossil fuels?

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B. dead plants A. natural gas

C. trees B. electricity
C. nuclear fission
D. none of above
D. nuclear power
96. Slows down the chain reaction so that an
explosion does not occur 102. Fossils are best used as evidence about
which of these?
A. enrichment
A. process that changes rocks over time
B. nuclear reactor
B. how to best conserve natural re-
C. moderator
sources
D. control rods C. the plants and animals that lived long
97. In a hydrogen fuel cell used to power a car, ago
where does the oxygen come from? D. what forces drive the water cycle
A. The air 103. Wind, geothermal, and solar energy are
B. A catalyst all what type of energy resources?
C. The fuel A. cheap
D. none of above B. potential
C. renewable
98. A renewable resource is one that
D. chemical
A. Can be replaced
B. Cannot replaced 104. The cleanest burning fossil fuel is
C. Can be checked out from a library A. coal
D. Comes from a factory B. oil
C. wind
99. A type of energy that is made by splitting
uranium atoms is D. natural gas

A. solar energy 105. Generators are used to produce electric-

B. nuclear energy ity from all of these sources EXCEPT
A. solar
C. biomass energy
B. wind
D. water energy
C. hydroelectric
100. If the fuel rods in a reactor vessel pro-
D. nuclear
duce too much heat, a condition called a(n)
may occur 106. An example of a bio fuel is
A. nuclear meltdown A. bio-coal
B. explosion B. bio-solar
C. emergency evacuation C. bio-ethanol
D. reactor vessel D. bio-wind

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 444

107. Turning the heat down before going to B. fuel

bed is an example of whcich type of con- C. reactor
servation?
D. safety
A. reducing
B. reusing 113. Most fuels are made from?
C. recycling A. hydrogen
D. replenishing B. nitrogen

NARAYAN CHANGDER
108. What is the term for a career or job in C. Argon
the environmental industry which focuses D. Hydrocarbon
on environmental conservation or protec-
tion of some kind? 114. Some of compress natural gas tank was
laminated with the composite. What is the
A. blue collar job
purpose of composite laminated?
B. green collar job
A. To increase tank strength.
C. white collar job
B. To increase tank volume.
D. red collar job
C. To increase tank capacity.
109. Which of the 4 main categories of energy D. To increase tank pressure.
sources is currently most polluting?
A. Fossil fuels 115. What is the purpose of shut off valve at
compress natural gas cylinder?
B. Nuclear
A. To cut air entering intake.
C. Biomass
D. Renewable B. To cut gasoline entering intake.
C. To cut gas flow from tank to lines.
110. The freezing point of water is-
D. To cut gas flow from lines to regulator.
A. 100*C
B. 32*C 116. Which nuclear disaster occurred near
Pennsylvania?
C. 0*C
A. Fukushima
D. 212*C
B. 3 MIle Island
111. Which nuclear disaster occurred in 1986
in Europe? C. Chernobyl

A. Fukushima D. Chalk River

B. 3 MIle Island 117. natural resources, such as fossil fuels,
C. Chernobyl that will eventually be used up and can
never be replalced
D. Chalk River
A. renewable resource
112. Cadmium in the rods slows down a
B. biofuels
nuclear fission reaction by absorbing neu-
trons. C. hydroelectric energy
A. control D. nonrenewable resources

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4.3 Conventional and aternative Fuels 445

118. ‘cars produce carbon dioxide which con- C. gamma

tributes to climate change’ this is an D. lambda
of using cars

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A. disadvantage 124. When heat builds up from the uncon-
trolled decay in the reactor chamber caus-
B. advantage
ing the chamber to become motlen. Can
C. neither lead to steam explosions and the release
D. none of above of radiation
A. Fuel elements
119. Which one of the following correctly de-
scribes the gas flow of a compress natural B. Loss of coolant accident
gas engine? C. meltdown
A. Tank-lines-regulator-mixer. D. radioactive wastes
B. Tank-regulator-lines-mixer.
125. Which of these is a disadvantage of
C. Tank-valve-lines-mixer. cars driven by hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells
D. Tank-regulator-lines-valve. rather than by petrol engines?

120. hydroelectric energy A. They have fewer moving parts

A. heat energy naturally produced within B. There are fewer suitable filling sta-
Earth tions
B. fuels made from organic matter C. They emit little pollution
C. electricity made from the energy of D. none of above
moving watetr in a dam
126. The time for half of the amount of a ra-
D. sources of energy that do not come dioisotope to decay.
from fossil fuels
A. radioactive decay
121. The melting point of water is- B. active safety
A. 100*C C. passive safety
B. 0*C D. half-life
C. 32*C
127. What is the Natural gas vehicle (NGVs)
D. 212*C offer numerous advantages?
122. Why do we depend on fossil fuels? A. Contributing to lower emissions.
A. Electricity, transportation, and heating B. High maintenance cost.
B. Food C. Contributing to high emissions.
C. Sunlight D. Price of compressed natural gas
D. Growing, building muscle, calcium (CNG).

123. Name the most penetrating type of radi- 128. Oil formation starts when organisms die
ation. and then-
A. alpha A. get eaten by larger organisms
B. beta B. are carried away by currents

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 4.4 Fuel Injection 446

C. decay so their matter is recycled B. alternate energy is more efficient than

D. settle to the bottom and are buried in fossil fuels
sediments C. alternate energy increases the
amount of sulfur dioxide ejected into the
129. There are 3 types of fuels; fossil, nuclear
atmosphere
and ..
A. radiation D. alternate energy reduces the amount
of carbon dioxided ejected into the atmo-
B. solar sphere

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Renewable Biomass
133. Fossil fuels are
D. power plant
A. Renewable
130. The temperature of water on the ther-
mometer reads 30*C. How many more de- B. Non-renewable
grees until it reaches boiling point? C. Both
A. 70*C
D. Neither
B. 100*C
C. 30*C 134. What we broke using fossil fuels?
D. 0*C A. Tectonic plates

131. Hydroelectric power produces electricity B. Copper cycle

using C. Carbon cycle
A. Wind D. Ozone layer
B. Sunlight
135. What type of fossil fuel is mined from the
C. Moving water
ground?
D. Dung
A. wind
132. What is a major advantage that alternate
B. coal
energy has over fossil fuels?
C. biomass
A. alternate energy does not produce ra-
dioactive waste D. air

4.4 Fuel Injection

1. Components that function to regulate the 2. Electronic Fuel Injection uses how many in-
pressure on the fuel pump are: jectors per cylinder
A. Fuel pressure regulator A. 2

B. Fuel feed hose B. 1

C. Fuel Pump Module C. 3

D. 4
D. Fuel suction filter
E. Injector 3. Is the governor function in FIP (VE):

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4.4 Fuel Injection 447

A. Control the engine speed and output by C. float valve

adjusting the volume of the volume.
D. heater

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Siphon the diesel fire and send to the
injector. 9. WTS resistance reading shows 500 ohms,
C. Prevents diesel fuel from returning to if the WTS is normal, the temperature of
plunger. the cooling water should show the range:
D. Adjust the volume of fuel volume dur- A. 80 degrees Celsius
ing calibration.
B. 30 degrees Celsius
4. Special light for checking EFI circuits
C. 40 degrees Celsius
A. Test Light
D. 120 degrees Celsius
B. Scan Tool
C. Noid E. 20 degrees Celsius
D. DVOM
10. The sensor used to detect engine speed is
5. Evaporative emission control systems op- the
erate on low pressure measured in inches
A. Throttle position sensor
of water (in. H2O) 28 in. H20 is equal to
how many psi B. Manifold pressure sensor
A. 1 C. Crankshaft position sensor
B. 5
D. Idle valve actuator
C. 7
D. 14.7 11. Nitrogen (NOx) oxides are produced
caused
6. What tool can you use to check injectors
A. the ignition system problem
A. Wrench
B. Stethscope B. the mixture is too rich (rich)

C. pliers C. the engine that is too hot

D. UV Light D. the engine is too cold
7. The type of fuel injection system that feed
12. Technician A says that low pressure smoke
fuel continuously is the:
installed in the fuel system can be used to
A. Continuous fuel injection system check for leaks. Technician B says the nitro-
B. Intermittent fuel injection system gen under low pressure can be installed in
the fuel system to check for leaks. Which
C. Mechanical fuel injection system
technician is correct?
D. Carburetor fuel system
A. Techncian A only
8. Select all of the parts of a fuel injection
B. Technician B only
system
A. injection nozzle C. Both technician A and B
B. pump D. Neither Technician A nor B

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4.4 Fuel Injection 448

13. Oxygen Sensor works to provide feedback 18. The name of the engine part that col-
or feed back to ECU about: lects the burnt gases expelled from the
A. Mixed products to be processed in the cylinders and discharges them into the
cylinder airstream is the

B. Mixed products that have been pro- A. inlet manifold

cessed in the cylinder B. exhaust manifold
C. Ignition timing that has taken place C. carburetor manifold

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. High temperature of exhaust gas D. injection manifold
E. Ignition timing to be determined 19. The following are the types of incomplete
combustion in the cylinder (misfire) except
14. What is the fuel pump used today’s vehicle
fuel system?
A. Ignition Misfire
A. Pam Rotor
B. Lean Misfire
B. Pam urged
C. Mechanical Misfire
C. Electric Pam
D. Frame Misfire
D. Pam gan
20. A P0401 DTC (exhaust gas recirculation
15. The purpose of the carburator float is to flow insufficient) is being discussed. Tech-
A. maintain a constant fuel level in the nician A says that a defective EGR valve
float bowl could be at cause. Technician B says that
B. Compensate for changes in the en- clogged EGR passages could be the cause.
gines operating position Which technician is correct?

C. Prevent the fule tank from running A. Technician A only

empy so that you don’t have to prime the B. Technician B only
engine. C. Both Technician A and B
D. All of the above D. Neither Technician A nor B
16. Which evap valve is subject to rust ans cor- 21. Direct fuel injection sprays fuel
rosion more than all of the others?
A. Into the pre cup
A. Purge valve
B. Directly into the combustion chamber
B. Vacuum control valve
C. Underneath the piston
C. Vent valve
D. From the side
D. Roll over check valve
22. Fuel Filter ‘is used for,
17. Improper sealing of the exhaust manifold
A. Make it easy for the engine to turn on.
can lead to
B. Avoid the back fire.
A. incomplete combustion
C. Blocking water from entering carbure-
B. overboosting tor.
C. an overly rich mixture D. Blocking dust & impurities from fuel
D. carbon monoxide poisoning tanks.

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4.4 Fuel Injection 449

23. How much current is required to hold open 28. What is the function of Malfunction Indica-
a peak-and-hold injector circuit tor Lamp (MIL):

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A. less than one amp A. As an indicator of disruption in the FI
B. 2 amps system.
B. As an indicator that the motorcycle
C. 5 amps
uses the FI system
D. 10 amps
C. As a History Reader Disorders of FI
24. Give two types of fuel pumps. System
A. The cartridge and the suction bowl D. As an indicator of injector disorders
B. Mechanical and Katrej E. Just as an accessory lamp
C. Electric drums and suction bowls 29. Fuel injectors can be tested using
D. Mechanical drums and electrop drums A. An ohmmeter
B. A stethoscope
25. Compared to a normally aspirated engine,
a turbocharged engine C. A scope
A. compensates for a reduction in air den- D. All of the above
sity as altitude is gained E. None of the above
B. uses an impulse coupling to increase
30. what is meant by a rich mixture is
air density
A. a mixture between air and fuel that is
C. requires no leaning of the mixture
not mixed at all
D. cannot be used in conjunction with a
B. a mixture between air and fuel more
fuel injected engine
air
26. In the carburetor there is a primary play- C. a mixture between air and more fuel
ing jet/ primary main jet, working at the D. a mixture between the air and fuel as
time appropriate
A. spray fuel when low speed to high/ E. a mixture of air and fuel which has a
maximum ratio of 1: 14-15
B. spray fuel when low speed to medium
31. Injector located inside throttle body, sits
C. spray fuel when high speed to medium on top of inlet manifold.
D. spray the fuel when the speed is low A. Direct Injection
to low
B. Multiport Fuel Injection
E. spray fuel when medium speed to low
C. Single Point Fuel Injection
27. Direct electronic fuel injection pressure D. Sequential Fuel Injection
could be as high as psi
32. Which of the following are the types of
A. 500
nozzle (nozzle) injector, which is not the
B. 1000 types of nozzle nozzle injector?
C. 2000 A. Ball
D. 2500 B. Disc

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4.4 Fuel Injection 450

C. Plate C. Both technician A and B

D. Pintle D. Neither technician A nor B

33. Super/Turbocharging is more likely to 37. Which of the following is not about dirty
cause detonation due to air filter element?
A. the increase in temperature caused by A. It can approve pollution.
compression of the fuel-air charge B. It does not affect fuel consumption,
B. the pre-ignition of the fuel-air charge C. It changes the ratio of fuel-air.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
before it enters the intercooler D. It prevents the engine from running.
C. the pre-ignition of the fuel-air charge
38. Term for Perfect Fuel Mixture
before it enters the intake manifold
A. Stoichiometric
D. the decrease in relative humidity of the
fuel-air charge caused by its expansion B. resistance
C. Rich
34. The components that move the mechanical
D. Lean
pump drum are.
A. Camshafts 39. You can use a to get operating values
on EFI Sensors
B. Arms
A. Test Light
C. Valve
B. Noid Light
D. Cam shaft
C. Scan Tool
35. The system in the carburetor that works D. Fuel Pressure Gauge
when the engine is heated/ without load
is the system 40. What components have a fire?
A. Engine Control Unit (ECU).
A. system cuk
B. Fuel Pump
B. Secondary high speed system
C. Fuel regulator
C. Idle system/ stationary system
D. Fuel Injector.
D. power system
41. The petrol engine is equipped with one cen-
E. Primary low speed system
trifugal advancer while the diesel engine is
36. OBD II regulations require that the EGR equipped with a similar tool called:
system be tested. Technician A says that A. Automatic timer.
the PCM can monitor the commanded po-
B. Turbo timer.
sition of the EGR valve to determine if it
is functioning correctly. Technician B says C. Valve timer.
that the PCM can open the EGR valve and D. All above.
monitor for a change in the MAP sensor or
42. The controls airflow & engine power
oxygen sensor reading to detect if the sys-
tem is fonctioning correctly. Which techni- A. Injector
cian is correct? B. MAP
A. Technician A only C. Throttle Valve
B. Technician B only D. Fuel Pump

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4.4 Fuel Injection 451

43. Fuel Filter works for? 48. The components involved in the fuel injec-
tion pump are:
A. Avoid Back Fire

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Easily the engine is turned A. Governor.

C. Blocking water from getting into carbu- B. Camshaft.

retor C. Delivery valve.
D. Blocking dust & impurities from enter- D. All of the above answers.
ing the intake manifold.
49. The high pressure fuel pump used in gaso-
44. At normal engine speed under normal op-
line direct injection (GDI) systems arepow-
erating conditions, the proper air-fuel mix-
ered by
ture ratio is typically
A. 1 part air to 1 part fuel A. Electricaly DC motor

B. 8 parts air to 8 parts fuel B. Electricaly AC motor

C. 15 parts air to 1 parts fuel C. The camshaft

D. 20 parts air to 1 part fuel D. The crankshaft

45. The pressure reduction in the carburator 50. What is the function of IATS?
caused by the venturi
A. Detecting vacuum in the intake mani-
A. Causes fuel to flow through the main fold or camber
jet and nozzel and into the airstream
B. Knowing what percentage of gas
B. Raises the boiling point of the fuel valves (throttle valve) is opened or how
keeping the fuel from vaporizing wide the gas valve is open when the gas
C. Slows the speed of the airstream, at- pedal is stepped on
omizing the fuel leaving the main nozzel C. Detect the top cylinder position
D. none of above
D. Detect the camshaft position
46. Give two types of PAM of API (Fuel E. Detect what degrees Celsius air tem-
Pump)? perature enters the air filter room before
A. Mechanical drums and electrop drums going to the engine

B. Electric drums and suction bowls 51. All of the following statements are true
C. Mechanical drums and cartridges about diesel engines except:
D. The cartridge and the suction bowl A. Spark plug facilitates burning.

47. When is the diesel fuel being poured into B. Burning involves high pressure and
the combustion chamber? temperature.

A. At the end of the exhaust stroke. C. Engine power control depends on the
fuel hatch to the combustion chamber.
B. At the end of the stroke.
D. Do not use throttle valve (except for
C. At the end of the input stroke.
some engines that use pneumatic gover-
D. At the end of the compression stroke. nor).

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4.4 Fuel Injection 452

52. A lack of power from an engine equipped C. Blocking water from getting into carbu-
with gasoline direct injection could be due retor
to D. As a channel to move the fire from the
A. Noisy injectors tank to the PAM and to the carburetor
B. Carbon on the injectors
57. Today’s vehicle fuel system usually uses
C. Carbon on the intake valves fuel pumps?
D. Both B and C A. Pam gan

NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. All of the above B. Electric Pam

53. Advantages of a fuel injection system in- C. Pam urged

clude which of the following? Select all D. Pam Rotor
options that are correct.
58. The part is where the fuel is stored.
A. No refrigeration icing
A. Fuel Intake Manifold
B. Better control of fuel to air ratio
B. Fuel Filter
C. Less maintenance problems
C. Cylinder block
D. Better throttle response
D. Fuel Tank
54. Select the correct option below.
A. A supercharger is geared directly off 59. Engine speed osillation is known as
the crankshaft A. spiking
B. A superturbocharger (aka “tur- B. drumbing
bocharger”) is geared directly off the C. Hunting
crankshaft
D. Spurging
C. A supercharger is geared directly off
the camshaft 60. Components in the ignition system that
D. A superturbocharger (aka “tur- function to increase the battery voltage to
bocharger”) is geared directly off the a high voltage is
camshaft A. Condenser
55. What components pulses the fuel injector B. Distributor
on most vehicle? C. Sensor
A. Power train control module (PCM) D. Coil
B. Ignition module (IM) E. Busi
C. Crankshaft sensor
61. What kind of damage is common in fuel in-
D. Both B and C jection pump body?
E. All of the above A. Break
56. What is the function of the fuel channel? B. Crack
A. Avoid Back Fire C. Broken
B. To pull the fuel from the tank D. Chippy

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4.4 Fuel Injection 453

62. The additional systems that serve as a di- C. 10-12

agnose tool on the Engine Management
D. 14-16
System are:

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Bank Angle Sensor 67. In a continuous flow fuel injection system
B. Malfunction Indicator Lamp
C. Sistem Open loop A. fuel is injected continuously into the in-
take manifold
D. Sistem Close loop
B. fuel is injected continuously into the
E. Three Way Catalist cylinder heads
63. The way the needle valve works in the car- C. fuel is injected directly into the carbu-
buretor buoy is retor
A. always opens the fuel channel when D. fuel is metered according to a float
the fuel quota is full valve
B. open the fuel channel when the fuel
quota is full 68. An Injector balance test shows a be-
low normal pressure drop on one injec-
C. open the fuel channel when the fuel tor.Technician A says that the injector is
quota is less in the combustion chamber bad and should be replaced. Technician
D. close the fuel channel when the fuel B says to try running cleaning solution
quota is less in the combustion chamber through the injector.Who is right?

64. In a direct fuel injection system, the fuel is A. A only

injected B. B only
A. directly into the cylinder head C. Both A & B
B. via the carburetor into the manifold D. Neither A nor B
valve
C. directly through the manifold valve 69. What do you put on the threads of a new
oxygen senor
D. directly into the intake manifold
A. anti-seize compound
65. All of thefollowing can increase the pres-
B. silicone sealant
sure in the evaporative emission control
system except ? C. motor oil
A. Fuel temperature D. lithium grease
B. Returned fuel from the fuel-injection
70. Which is not the purpose of the air filter?
system
A. Gives the gravitational charm
C. Inlet fuel at the fuel pump
B. Reject high voltage splash during the
D. Volatility of the fuel
back fire.
66. High Impedance fuel injector resistance C. Clean the air before entering the en-
should be ohms gine through the carburator.
A. 0.3-5 D. Reduces the speed of air into the en-
B. 4-6.5 gine, thus saving fuel.

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4.4 Fuel Injection 454

71. Low O2 reading from rear O2 sensor may A. Low pressure pipe
indicate a failure B. High pressure pipe
A. O2 Sensor C. Minimum pressure pipe
B. Cracked Pipe D. Maximum pressure pipe
C. Loose Manifold Pipe
77. What is the standard of fuel pump pres-
D. Catalytic Convertor sure (fuel pump) on the injection system
motor?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
72. The EGR valve is used to control which ex-
haust emission? A. 324-370 kPa (47-54 psi)
A. Unburned hydrocarbons (HC) B. 263-316 kPa (38-46 psi)
B. Oxide of nitrogen (NOx) C. 224-254 kPa (33-37 psi)
C. Carbon monoxide (CO) D. 2027-2068 kPa (294-300 psi)
D. Both NOx and CO E. 2500-3068 kPa (400-600 psi)

73. TPS produce specific at different throt- 78. The electronic throttle control system (etc)
tle openings usually has the following components ex-
A. Voltage cept

B. Resistance A. Accelerator Pedal Position (APP) Sen-

sor
C. Grounds
B. Master Cylinder
D. Signs
C. Electronic Throttle Actuator
74. primers increases air pressure to the D. Throttle Position (TP) Sensor
float bowl, forcin air up htrough the main
nozzel 79. Apakah fungsi delivery valve dalam fuel
A. Wet bulb injection pump?

B. Dry bulb A. Memberi tekanan kepada bahan api

diesel supaya enjin menjadi stabil.
C. Light bulb
B. Mengawal pergerakan bahan api
D. vacuum pump diesel yang bermutu mengikut spesifikasi.
75. What is meant by a poor mixture is C. Mengawal penghantaran bahan api
A. a mixture between air and more fuel diesel yang bertekanan mengikut engine
timing.
B. a mixture between air and fuel more
air D. Memberi keselesaan kepada bahan
api diesel yang bertekanan mengikut en-
C. a mixture between the air and fuel as gine timing.
appropriate
D. a mixture of air and fuel which has a 80. As the load increases and the engine speed
ratio of 1: 14-15 decreases, a governor will
A. reduce fuel flow
76. Excess diesel fuel that is not planned into
the combustion chamber will re -enter the B. close the throttle
tank. What is the component of the fuel? C. change the ignition timing

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4.4 Fuel Injection 455

D. all of the above 85. The vacuum hose from the fuel-pressure
regulator was removed from the regula-
E. none of the above
tor and gasoline dripped out of the hose.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

81. You should wear while working on the Technician A says that isnormal and that
fuel system everything is OK. Technician B says that
one or more of the injectors may be defec-
A. Ear Protection tive, causing the fuel to get into the hose.
B. Safety Boots Which technician is correct?
C. Full face Protection A. Technician A only
D. Hat B. Technician B only
C. Technician A and B
82. Express the good use of mechanical gover-
D. Neither Technician A nor B
nor in the FIP (PE) inline type.
A. It is very accurate to control the Fuel 86. Where is the location of ‘fuel filter’
Injection Volume during low speed and in- paired?
adequate during high speed. A. Above the carburetor nozzle.
B. It is very accurate to control the Fuel B. Among the fuel rail and injector
Injection Volume during high speed and in- C. Among the fuel and carburetor tanks.
adequate during low speed.
D. Among the fuel pumps and fuel tanks
C. Very precisely controlling Low and
High Speed. 87. A blocked or PCV system may cause which
D. All of the above answers. of the following to occur?
A. Rough or unstable idle
83. Is the component used to deliver high pres-
B. Excessive oil consumption
sure from the fuel injection pump to the in-
jector? C. Oil in the air filter housing
A. Low pressure pipe D. All of the above

B. High pressure pipe E. None of the above

C. Minimum pressure pipe 88. The is not one of the subsystem of an

electronic fuel injection system
D. Maximum pressure pipe
A. idle solenoid system
84. The following are the components of the B. air induction system
carburetor (carburetor) system.
C. sensor system
A. Fuel pump (fuel pump)-oil filter (oil fil-
D. computer control system
ter)
B. Carburetor (carburetor)-Oil pump (Oil 89. One of the components of the engine that
Pump) serves to detect combustion in the sislin-
der space is
C. Fuel tank (fuel tank)-spark (spark
plugs) A. Oxygen sensor

D. Fuel filter (fuel filter) -pam fuel (fuel B. MAP Sensor

pump) C. Knock Sensor

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4.4 Fuel Injection 456

D. TPS 94. Choose the right thing on the fuel indica-

tor.
E. Ivy
A. Measure the level of fuel in the tank
90. When the ignition is first, the sound of fuel B. Measure the temperature in the tank
pumps will be heard.This control model
aims to: C. Measuring the smoothness of the API
material system
A. Reducing fuel pressure in the fuel rail
D. All above is true.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. As a signal to the ECU that the work
pump 95. Design using the shape of a piston and
the location of the injector on the edge of
C. Ensure enough fuel on the channel the combustion chamber to produce air and
D. Extend the starter time fuel mixture.
E. Increase the starter motor voltage A. Combustion Chamber
B. Spray-Guided Combustion
91. Fuel pump module or fuel pump is located
in C. Swirl Combustion
D. Tumble Combustion
A. In the body of the body
B. In the burning room 96. How much voltage is required to open a
piezo fuel injector
C. In the exhaust
A. 12-15
D. In ECM
B. 1000
E. In a fuel tank
C. 500
92. A disadvantage of a turbocharger (aka ‘su- D. 95-175
perturbocharger’) is
97. Direct Fuel Injection has better economy
A. backpressure in the exhaust system and less
reduces the efficiency of the engine
A. Parts
B. increased friction losses from gearing
B. Emissions
off the engine result in reduced engine ef-
ficiency C. Fuel Pressure
C. increased propensity for icing D. Voltage

D. critical altitude is reduced 98. Bad will cause an inoperative injector

A. Coil Windings
93. Select all of the correct choices be-
low.Carbon monoxide gas B. Fuel Pump

A. is odourless and tasteless C. CKP Connections

D. CMP Connections
B. is a product of incomplete combustion
C. forms naturally when Oxygen and fuel 99. Should you use silicone based sealers on
combine exhaust system components

D. collects in the cylinders, causing Car- A. yes

bon deposits B. no

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4.4 Fuel Injection 457

C. depends C. MeasuresTransmission Temperature

D. sometimes D. Measures Engine Antifreeze Tempera-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

ture
100. Technician A says that if a PCV valve ra-
tles, then its okay and does not need to 105. Increases the air velocity entering the en-
be replace. Technician B says that if a PCV gine
valve does not ratle, it should be replaced.
Which technician is correct? A. venturi
A. Technician A only B. choke
B. Technician B only C. float
C. Technician A and B D. none of the above
D. Technician A nor B
106. The following contributes to the forma-
101. Below that includes additional compo- tion of photochemical smog except
nents in the gasoline fuel system is
A. nitrogen oxides
A. carburetor
B. phosphorus
B. intake manifold
C. Hydrocarbons
C. fuel tank
D. sunlight
D. fuel return line
E. fuel filter 107. What is the function of the plunger in the
FIP (VE) Distributor Type:
102. What is the use of Fuel Filter?
A. Control the engine speed and output by
A. Make it easy for the engine to turn on.
adjusting the volume of the volume.
B. Avoid the back fire.
B. Inhale diesel fuel and send to the injec-
C. Blocking water from entering carbure- tor as a result of the round.
tor.
C. Prevents diesel fuel from returning to
D. Blocking dust & impurities from enter- plunger.
ing the intake manifold.
D. Adjust the volume of fuel volume dur-
103. In the design , the injector is placed in ing calibration.
the middle of the combustion chamber and
injecting the fuel into a cavity that is like 108. Here are the advantages of electronic
a plate on the piston. throttle control system (etc) except
A. Combustion Chamber A. Eliminate mechanical throttle cables
B. Spray-Guided Combustion B. Helps reduce engine power for Trac-
C. Swirl Combustion tion Control and Electronic Stability Con-
trol systems.
D. Tumble Combustion
C. Eliminates the need for Idle Air Control
104. Engine Coolant Sensor Valve.
A. Measures Air Temperature D. Eliminates the need to the Fuel Pres-
B. Measures Engine Speed sure Regulator

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4.4 Fuel Injection 458

109. The system in the carburetor that works 114. When the throttle valve is closed, most
when the gas pedal is stepped on suddenly of the fuel is delivered through the?
or when the driver carries out overtaking
A. main nozzel
a vehicle is
B. Idle orifice
A. power system
B. acceleration system C. the choke runs the idel

C. primary speed system D. emulsion tube

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. secondary speed system 115. If the gas station does not want to live,
E. sistem idle what components occur in malfunction?
A. Fuel pump relay
110. The two types of fuel injection systems
are; B. Fuel pipe
A. direct and continuous flow C. Injector
B. direct and indirect D. Intake Manifold
C. continuous and non-continuous flow E. Ivy
D. indirect and non-continuous flow
116. Vacuum Leaks often cause a mixture
111. Below are included in the injection fuel
A. Lazy
system components are
B. Perfect
A. Fuel Pump module
B. Sensor EOT C. Rich

C. Sensor TP D. Lean
D. ECM 117. What is the abbreviation name for the In-
E. Chok jection Pump distributor?

112. Technician A says that the low fuel pres- A. PE pump

sure could be caused by a faulty fuel pres- B. PF pump
sure regulator, Technician B says the fuel
C. VE pump
pump could be the cause. Who is right?
D. VF pump
A. A only
B. B only 118. What is the Control Rack function in the
C. Both A & B fuel injection pump?
D. Neither A nor B A. Moves Control Valve to control the
amount of fuel output.
113. An enhance evaporative system is able to
B. Move the Control Pinion to ensure the
detect leaks of which size in the system?
amount of the output of the fire.
A. .010 and .020 inch
C. Moving control sleeve to control the
B. .040 and .060 inch amount of fuel entry.
C. .020 and .040 inch D. Moves control lever to ensure the
D. .060 and .080 inch amount of fuel entry.

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4.4 Fuel Injection 459

119. Express the good use of pneumatic gov- 123. What components that move mechanical
ernor in the FIP (PE) inline type. pump drums?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. It is very accurate to control the Fuel A. Valve
Injection Volume during low speed and in- B. Crank shaft
adequate during high speed.
C. Camshafts
B. It is very accurate to control the Fuel
Injection Volume during high speed and in- D. Arms
adequate during low speed.
124. Measures temperature of air entering the
C. Very precisely controlling Low and engine
High Speed.
A. Throttle Position Sensor
D. All of the above answers.
B. Intake Air Temperature Sensor
120. The purpose of the choke is to? C. Crankshaft Sensor
A. Increase the air to fule mixture D. Coolant Sensor
B. Shut the fule off so that the spark plug
125. An EGR valve is partially stuck open,
does not flood out
would most likely cause what condition?
C. To give the engine a greater amount of
A. Rough idling or stalling
fuel as compared to air
B. Excessive NOx exhausts emissions
D. None of the above
C. Ping (spark knock or detonation)
121. The right statement about the distributor- D. Missing at highway speed
less ignition system is:
A. When one of the ignition coil is dam- 126. The fuel pressure drops rapidly when the
aged the shot system does not work on engine is turned off. Technician A says
all cylinders that one or more injectors could be leaking.
Technician B says that a defective check
B. The progress of the timing ignition op- valve in the fuel pump could be the cause.
posite the rotation of the rotor Which technician is correct?
C. When one of the Busi is dead, his part- A. Technician A only
ner’s nap will not work
B. Technician B only
D. Ignition Coil can be placed far from the
machine C. Technician A and B

E. In each cylinder two spark plugs are in- D. Technician A nor B

stalled
127. Most port fuel injected engines operate
122. Which of the following has a ‘waste- on how much fuel pressure?
gate’? A. 3 to 5 psi
A. carburetor B. 9 to 13 psi
B. supercharger C. 35 to 45 psi
C. superturbocharger D. 55 to 65 psi
D. impulse coupling E. 75 to 85 psi

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4.4 Fuel Injection 460

128. Where is the location of the Fuel Filter 133. The fuel pump inside the fuel tank on a
paired? vehicle equipped with gasoline direct injec-
A. Above the carburetor nozzle tion produces about what fuel pressure?
A. 5 to 10 psi
B. Among the fuel rail and injector
B. 10 to 20 psi
C. Among the fuel and carburetor tanks
C. 35 to 45 psi
D. Among the fuel pumps and fuel tanks
D. 50 to 60 psi

NARAYAN CHANGDER
129. Two technician are discussing clogged E. 100 to 250 psi
EGR passages. Technician A says clogged
EGR passages can cause excessive NOx 134. The PCV system controls which exhaust
exhaust emission. Technician B says that emission(s)?
clogged EGR passages cancause the en- A. Hydrocarbons (HC)
gine to ping (spark knock or detonation).
B. Carbon monoxide (CO)
Which technician is correct?
C. NOx
A. Technician A only
D. Both HC and CO
B. Technician B only
135. In an evaporative fuel system which
C. Both technician A and B
valve(s) is (are) normally closed?
D. Neither technician A nor B
A. Canister purge valve
130. The perfect fuel and air burning of the ve- B. Canister vent valve
hicle will produce C. Both purge and vent valves
A. Carbon dioxide and water D. Neither purge nor vent valves
B. Carbon monoxide and hydrochloric
136. Checks amount of air entering engine
acid
A. Intake Air Temperature Sensor
C. Oxides of nitrogen and ammonia
B. Oxygen Sensor
D. Hydrocarbons
C. Air Flow Sensor
131. Before an evaporative emission monitor D. Throttle Position Sensor
wil run, the fuel level must be where?
137. The following are emissions that need to
A. At least 75% full be controlled according to the Environmen-
B. Over 25% tal Protection Agency (EPA) except
C. Between 15% and 85% A. Carbon monoxide
D. The level of the fuel in the tank is not B. Oxygen
needed to run the monitor test C. Hydrocarbons
132. Too much air and not enough fuel creates D. Nitrogen oxides
a mixture 138. Are the components that constrict fires?
A. 14.7 to 1 A. Fuel Filter.
B. Rich B. Fuel Pump.
C. Lean C. Engine Control Unit (ECU).
D. Stoichiometric D. Fuel Injector.

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4.4 Fuel Injection 461

139. The following conditions that cannot be 144. Atmospheric Pressure, at sea level is
detected by the sensor in the Engine Man- psi
agement System are

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. 12.4
A. TPS connector breaks B. 13.2
B. Air temperature that passes through C. 14.7
ISC Valve
D. 16.8
C. Spark plug leak
145. The special name of the tools to measure
D. Beats from inside the combustion fuel pressure on the injection system is
chamber
A. SCS Connector
E. Oxygen from combustion
B. Fuel Pressure Gauge
140. Fuel is injected directly into the combus- C. Bore Gauge
tion chamber, past the valves. D. Dial Indicator
A. Single-Point Injection E. Fueler gauge
B. Port Injection 146. What is the role of the carburetor in the
C. Sequential Injection petrol fire system?
D. Direct Injection A. To pull the fuel from the tank
B. Components to turn on the engine
141. What is the name of the component in the
C. To add the speed of the vehicle
tank to detect gasoline in the tank?
D. To mix fuel and air to complete the
A. Needle
burning
B. Pointer unit
147. If the noid light does NOT flash when
C. Buoy unit checking an electronic fuel injector which
D. Sender unit of the following isn’t the cause
A. open in the wiring
142. A disadvantage of a fuel injection system
B. bad connection
is
C. faulty injector
A. a greater chance of fuel line blockages
D. control module problem
B. over boosting
148. A system that uses electronic control
C. greater maintenance issues
technology, which is able to supply fuel
D. increased wear on the carburetor and air optimally needed by the engine in
each state, called the system
143. Measure Engine Vacuum
A. Motorcycle ignition system
A. Manifold absolute pressure (MAP) B. Motorcycle cooling system
B. Intake AIr Temperature C. Conventional fuel system
C. Throttle Position Sensor D. Injection fuel system
D. Crankshaft position sensor E. Filling system

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4.4 Fuel Injection 462

149. Is the component that moves the C. Coolant Sensor

camshaft fuel injection pump? D. Crankshaft sensor
A. Belt
155. Give two types of fuel filters (fuel fil-
B. Gear ter)?
C. Shaft A. Katrij and Pam
D. Lever B. Pam of fire and filter material

NARAYAN CHANGDER
150. Checks exhaust gas for combustion effi- C. The cartridge and and the suction bowl
cency D. Savest bowls and electric drums
A. Throttle Position Sensor
156. The system in the carburetor that works
B. ECT Sensor when the vehicle is on the ramp/ high load
C. MAP Sensor is
D. Oxygen Sensor A. power/ power system

151. Declare two types of PAM of API (Fuel B. acceleration system

Pump)? C. system cuk
A. The cartridge and the suction bowl D. primary high speed system
B. Mechanical drums and cartridges E. Secondary high speed system
C. Electric drums and suction bowls 157. Monitor Throttle Shaft Rotation
D. Mechanical drums and electric drums A. Oxygen Sensor
152. What is the purpose of the fuel injector? B. Intake AIr Temperature Sensor
A. To deliver fuel into the engine cylinders C. Throttle Position Sensor
B. To deliver air into the engine cylinders D. Engine Coolant Sensor
C. To deliver air & fuel into the cylinders 158. Where is the air filter position?
D. To deliver burned gases into the cylin- A. At the top of the carburetor nozzle.
ders
B. On the front of the air -way channel
153. What is the function of the tapper in the C. On the part between the entrance and
fuel injection pump to get the pressure of the exhaust
a fire?
D. On all three of the above parts
A. Pull the plunger.
B. Misthlevity plunger. 159. If the throttle plate needs to be cleaned,
what symptoms wil be present regarding
C. Refusing the plunger. the operation of the engine?
D. Pressing the plunger. A. Stalls
154. Detects engine speed B. Rough idle
A. Camshaft sensor C. Hesitation on acceleration
B. Airflow Sensor D. All of the above

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 4.5 fuel ignition 463

4.5 fuel ignition

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

1. What do the initials EGR stand for? 6. A faulty fuel stop solenoid stuck in the
A. Engine Gas Reduction open position would cause the engine not
to
B. Exhaust Global Ready
A. Rev up
C. Emissions Group Recirculation
B. Turn off
D. Exhaust Gas Recirculation
C. Idle
2. It is responsible for holding most of the
fuel in the fuel system. D. Advance

A. Fuel Tank 7. Before removing a distributor cap, which

B. Carburettor one of the following should be noted?
C. Fuel Rail A. Plug lead position
D. Fuel Injectors B. Coil lead position

3. Prior to replacing an oxygen sensor, what C. Rotor arm position

should the technician do? D. Coil ignition feed wire
A. Road test the vehicle to ensure it is at
8. What equipment should be used to carry
operating temperature
out a final check after multi-point fuel in-
B. Release the exhaust pressure from the jectors have been replaced?
exhaust manifold
A. Emission tester
C. Allow the engine to fully cool prior to
removal B. Fuel pressure tester

D. Carry out an oxygen reading from the C. Multimeter

vehicle’s tail pipe D. Oscilioscope
4. Which one of the following faults could 9. Which one of the following types of cat-
cause misfiring only in wet or damp con- alytic converter is used on most modern
ditions? vehicles?
A. Incorrect fuelling A. One way catalyst
B. Moisture on the distributor cap
B. Two way catalyst
C. No rotor arm in the distributor
C. Three way catalyst
D. No voltage to the ignition coil
D. Four way catalyst
5. In a multi-point injection system atomised
fuel is sprayed very close to which one of 10. atomizes the fuel through a small noz-
the following component zle under high pressure.
A. Inlet valves A. Fuel Atomizer
B. Exhaust valves B. Carburetion
C. Engine cylinder wall C. Carburettor
D. Catalytic converter D. Fuel Injector

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4.5 fuel ignition 464

11. A customer has complained of poor running B. Stainless

and high fuel consumption and the techni- C. Copper
cian has diagnosed a partially blocked air
filter. Which one of the following meth- D. Platinum
ods should be used to check that the vehi- 16. Which one of the following does the
cle now meets the manufacturer’s specifi- lambda sensor measure?
cation and customer’s satisfaction?
A. Fuel flow
A. Measure the airflow across MAF sen-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sor B. Carbon content

B. Read the fuel consumption data on the C. Oxygen content

vehicle dash D. Lead content
C. Road test for good running and im- 17. What is the main function of a secondary
proved fuel consumption air injection system
D. Measure the emissions A. To further burn excess hydro-carbons
12. In spark ignition vehicles fitted with elec- and carbon monoxide (HC+CO) in the ex-
tronic engine management systems, which haust manifold
one of the following indicates engine B. To burn excess hydro-carbons and car-
speed and position to the ECU? bon monoxide (HC+CO) in the inlet mani-
fold
A. Ignition switch
C. To further burn excess burn excess
B. Camshaft position sensor
oxides of nitrogen and carbon dioxide
C. Throttle position sensor (NOx+CO2) in the exhaust manifold
D. Fuel pressure regulator D. To burn excess oxides of nitrogen and
carbon dioxide (NOx+CO2) In the inlet
13. From the fuel tank, it sends fuel up the fuel
manifold
line and into the fuel rail where it can be
injected into a cylinder. 18. A vehicle is misfiring and the technician has
A. Fuel Injectors the data logged from the lambda sensor,
which shows that there is high oxygen con-
B. Fuel Pump
tent. What does this indicate?
C. Fuel Pressure Sensor
A. Running rich
D. Fuel Lifters
B. Running okay, faulty sensor
14. Which two of the following will not be fit- C. Running incorrectly due to valve over-
ted to a distributor less ignition system? lap
A. Coil pack and spark plugs D. Running lean
B. Rotor arm and HT leads 19. This component attaches to the inlet mani-
C. Rotor arm and cap fold and holds the fuel injectors in place.
D. Spark plugs and ignition switch A. Fuel Pump
15. Types of Spark Plugs. Choose all that ap- B. Fuel rail
ply. C. Injector holder
A. Iridium D. Carburettor

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4.5 fuel ignition 465

20. If a post zirconium lambda sensor starts A. Carbon Dioxide

to mirror the output voltage of a pre con-
B. Hydrocarbons
vertor lambda sensor, the fault would nor-

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mally lie with the C. NOx
A. Catalytic convertor D. Carbon Monoxide
B. Exhaust baffles
26. Which one of the following is the only
C. Manifold exhaust connection place on a catalytic converter that it is safe
D. Both lambda sensors to use exhaust sealing putty?

21. Which one of the following will check the A. Front

catalytic converter’s operation? B. Top
A. Measuring induction vacuum C. Rear
B. Measuring exhaust emissions D. Bottom
C. Measuring maximum torque
D. Measuring exhaust temperature 27. Which one of the following is the main
reason multi-point injection systems are
22. It is responsible for holding most of the preferred over single-point injection sys-
gas in the fuel system. tems?
A. Fuel Tank A. They lower the fuel economy
B. Carburetor B. They reduce the engine power
C. Fuel Rail C. They increase the engine power
D. Fuel Injectors D. They reduce the engine torque
23. When diesel injectors are being replaced
28. Which one of the following pieces of equip-
what component also needs to be re-
ment should be used to inspect the condi-
newed?
tion of a fuel pump?
A. Diesel fuel filter
A. Inspection lamp
B. Injector sealing washers
B. Mercer gauge
C. Leak off and return pipes
C. Torque wrench
D. Electronic control unit
D. Pressure gauge
24. Which component is responsible for ignit-
ing the air-fuel mixture? 29. Which one of the following would be dif-
A. Ignition Coil ferent on a single-point injection (spi) and
the multi point injection (MPI) fuel sys-
B. Spark Plug
tem?
C. Ignition Lock Cylinder
A. Exhaust manifold location
D. Glow Plug
B. Throttle valve location
25. Re-circulating exhaust gases back into the
C. Inlet valve position
combustion chamber reduces the tempera-
ture of the combustion process and reduces D. Fuel type used

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 4.6 fuel carburation 466

30. Which one of the following methods is B. Spark Plug

used to drive a supercharger? C. Ignition Lock Cylinder
A. Exhaust gases
D. Glow Plug
B. Electrical feed motor
C. Epicyclical gear sets 34. What is one advantages of using a coil per
spark plug system?
D. Belt driven from the crankshaft pulley
A. High tension leads are longer
31. When fitting new spark plugs which one

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. High tension leads are shorter
of the following is important?
A. Adjust the ignition timing C. High tension leads are not required

B. Renew plug leads D. High tension leads can be made from

aluminium
C. Check electrode gaps
D. Check emissions 35. What do the initials MAP stand for?

32. Which one of the following methods should A. Multi Altitude Map
be used to initially test a turbocharger me- B. Manifold Absolute Pressure
chanical actuator? C. Mass Air Point
A. Road testing to full boost
D. Measuring Air Pick-up
B. Using a vacuum tester and gauge
C. Measuring the operating speed 36. Which one of the following types of sensor
are used for air mass control?
D. Place 12v through the actuator and
measure the resistance A. Thermistor
B. Diaphragm
33. Which part is responsible for igniting the
air-fuel mixture in gasoline engines? C. Hot-film
A. Ignition Coil D. Diode

4.6 fuel carburation

1. What is the required temperature range in cessively high CHT reading would indicate
the carburettor in order to get throttle or
refrigerator icing? A. pre ignition
A. -10 degrees to 0 degrees, visible mois- B. detonation
ture is required
C. flooded engine
B. -10 degrees to 0 degrees, visible mois-
ture is not required D. low oil pressure
C. 0 degrees to 10 degrees, visible mois- 3. What system ensures there’s sufficient
ture is required fuel for engine operation when the throttle
D. 0 degrees to 10 degrees, visible mois- control is closed?
ture is not required A. accelerating system
2. A knocking sound accompanied by an ex- B. enrichment system

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4.6 fuel carburation 467

C. idling system 9. What controls the rate at which air flows

D. idle cut-off system through the venturi?

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4. With the engine running it causes the gov- A. the throttle butterfly
ernor flyweights to ? B. the mixture control
A. Open C. the accelerator pump
B. Close
D. the metering jet
C. Stop
D. Blow up 10. The choke valve is operated by:
5. When is impact icing likely? Choose all A. a hand control
that apply
B. engine vacuum
A. When aircraft surfaces are below
freezing C. air temperature
B. When flying into visible moisture >0 D. a heating element
degrees
C. When flying into visible moisture of 11. What would happen if the fuel float got a
SCWD hole in it?
D. When carb heat is not used A. It would explode.

6. What is the following situation called? B. It would fill up with fuel but not make
The mixture explodes rapidly and produces much of a difference.
wildly fluctuating pressures, could cause C. It would fill up with fuel and stop the
engine failure if severe. needle valve from closing of the fuel sup-
A. pre-ignition ply.
B. detonation D. It would cause fuel to leak out of the
C. idle cut-off carburettor.
D. over rich mixture
12. Why does a carburetor need a filter?
7. A carburetor’s purpose is to
A. Dirt could get in and cause damage
A. Increase compression
B. To filter exhaust
B. Controls the speed of an engine
C. Creates spark C. Engines prefer fresh air
D. Mix the proper fuel-air ratio D. none of above
8. Which of the following are advantages of
13. An air cleaner element should be cleaned:
fuel injection system?
A. no refrigeration ice A. each time you start the engine

B. less susceptible to contamination B. once a year or every 100 hours,

whichever is sooner
C. less maintenance
D. more efficient C. every 25 hours of engine use
E. no risk of vapour locking D. once a day

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4.6 fuel carburation 468

14. What ice is mainly due to the mixture ac- C. It limits the amount of air coming into
celerating through the venturi, dropping in the carburetor.
pressure and therefore cooling? D. It controls the engine throttle speed.
A. throttle icing
20. Why is a mixture control required?
B. refrigerator icing
A. To regulate the amount of fuel being
C. impact icing metered
D. intake icing B. To regulate the amount of air being me-

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tered
15. What would the symptom be if the air fil-
ter becomes blocked? C. To increase the rate of mixture flow
A. High Fuel consumption D. To increase the rate of fuel flow as
throttle is opened
B. low fuel consumption
C. blue smoke 21. What is the purpose of the venturi in the
carburettor?
D. lack of power
A. to cool down the fuel/air mixture for
16. In small engines, constant throttle shifts evaporation
are avoided using a B. to heat up the fuel/air mixture for
A. President evaporation
B. Mayor C. to draw out the fuel from the nozzle
C. Governor D. to accelerate air so the throttle butter-
fly doesnt flutter
D. Principal
22. What ice forms immediately downstream
17. What can you expect after using carb heat
of the main metering jet on the venturi?
for suspected carb icing?
A. refrigeration ice
A. the rpm will increase and then reduce
B. throttle ice
B. the rpm will reduce and then increase
C. intake ice
C. the rpm will increase
D. impact ice
D. the rpm will reduce
23. Why does a carburettor have an atomisa-
18. The starting point for carburetor adjust- tion and diffusion system?
ments are made:
A. to improve vapourisation of the air
A. with the gasoline tank full
B. to distribute the mixture to each cylin-
B. with the engine warm der
C. with the needle valve all the way in C. to condense the mixture for smoother
D. none of these are correct flow through the manifold
D. to improve vapourisation of the fuel
19. What function does the choke perform on
a carburetor? 24. What is the first sign of carburettor ice?
A. It pumps fuel to the engine. A. reduction in CHT
B. It creates a Venturi effect. B. reduction in airspeed

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4.6 fuel carburation 469

C. reduction in rpm C. replace the carburetor

D. reduction in EGT D. all of these are correct

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25. Why should the engine be stopped using 30. The final adjustment to the needle valve
idle cut-off? is:
A. to ensure no fuel is left in the tanks A. just when the engine starts to slow
B. to ensure no fuel remains in the sys- down
tem B. as the engine becomes rough
C. because turning the magentos to OFF
C. made when the engine is cold
could cause damage
D. slightly rich of the mid-point
D. because the engine would detonate if
the magentos alone were used 31. Which type of air filter would NOT work
26. This increases the air velocity entering the very well
engine A. Oil-bath
A. venturi B. Oil-wetted
B. choke C. Dry
C. float D. Soapy
D. none of the above
32. What will an over-rich mixture most likely
27. When is carburettor icing most likely? create?
A. at high power settings flying through A. detonation due to too much fuel
cirrostratus
B. pre-ignition due to too much fuel
B. at low power setting when carburettor
temperature is 3 degrees C. detonation due to not enough fuel
C. at high power settings when carb heat D. pre-ignition due to not enough fuel
is not on
33. When should the mixture be leaned?
D. at low power settings when carb heat
is not on A. on a climb
B. on start up
28. What is the following situation? A mix-
ture combusts before it receives a spark C. on descent
from the spark plug D. on alternator failure
A. pre-ignition
34. When assembling the carburetor to the
B. detonation tank, insert the screws but do not tighten
C. flame front advance fully because:
D. high oil temperature A. you have to preload the choke
29. In the event the engine becomes flooded, B. you have to check for fuel leaks
you may have to: C. you have to stagger the tightening se-
A. replace a wet spark plug quence
B. empty the gasoline tank D. none of these are correct

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4.6 fuel carburation 470

35. Refrigeration ice can occur with tempera- B. Reduce airspeed

tures as high as when RH exceeds C. Reduce throttle setting
A. 15 degrees, 15% D. Lean the mixture
B. 25 degrees, 10% E. Enrich the mixture
C. 10 degrees, 50%
41. The Venturi effect moves gas into the cylin-
D. 25 degrees, 50% der by

NARAYAN CHANGDER
36. What will an over-lean mixture most A. Blowing gas like a giant tornado
likely create? B. Reducing atmospheric pressure and
A. detonation due to too much fuel creating a vaccum
B. pre-ignition due to too much fuel C. Dripping gas on top of the piston
C. detonation due to not enough fuel D. Speeds up air flow allowing fuel to rise
D. pre-ignition due to not enough fuel out of float bowl

37. If the engine stumbles or dies out as you 42. What is the dangerous OAT range for re-
move the speed control from slow to fast, frigerator and throttle icing?
it means: A. 0 to 10 degrees
A. you need a new spark plug B. -10 to 25 degrees
B. you need a new carburetor C. -10 to 20 degrees
C. you need a new engine D. -20 to 10 degrees
D. you need a richer mixture
43. How do you get rid of impact icing?
38. In ‘standard’ sea level conditions, mixture A. Carb heat
should be set to
B. Climb into warm sector
A. FULL RICH
C. Descend into warmer air
B. FULL LEAN
D. Increasing throttle setting
C. IDLE CUT OFF
44. What icing is mainly due to fuel evaporat-
D. 50% LEAN
ing and therefore cooling plus moist incom-
39. Which statement is incorrect? ing airflow?
A. Carburettor air is unfiltered A. throttle icing
B. Carb heat should be turned off on final B. refrigerator icing
approach C. impact icing
C. Carb heat should be used on low D. clear ice
power descent
D. If icing is suspected use half carb heat 45. What does FCU stand for?
initially A. fuel carburettor unit

40. What should you do if detonation is expe- B. final carburettor unit

rienced? Choose all that apply. C. fuel control unit
A. Increase airspeed D. final control unit

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4.6 fuel carburation 471

46. What could you use as a warning to pro- C. Venturi

tect the aircraft from carburettor icing? D. Emulsion tube

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A. EGT gauge
52. Fill in the blanks for a fuel injected air-
B. RPM gauge craft:A senses mass of air entering and
C. CHT gauge throttle and mixture positions. The me-
tered fuel passes through the and then
D. CAT gauge
to the in the required cylinder.
47. How do you know when the mixture A. fuel injection nozzle, fuel control unit,
is leaned correctly on a fixed pitch pro- flow divider
peller? B. fuel injection nozzle, flow divider, fuel
A. the rpm increases to a maximum control unit
B. the rpm reduces to 2000rpm C. fuel control unit, fuel injection nozzle,
C. the manifold pressure increases to a flow divider
maximum D. fuel control unit, flow divider, fuel in-
D. the manifold pressure reduces to 18 jection nozzle
inches 53. The diaphragm:
48. The intake valve is associated with the A. is a gasket between fuel tank and car-
buretor
A. Flywheel
B. is essential to choke oepration
B. Muffler
C. acts as a fuel pump
C. Carburetor
D. all of these are correct
D. Sump
54. At full speed what positions are the choke
49. What side of the carburetor are the air and throttle in?
bleeds found on?
A. choke open, throttle open
A. Choke Side
B. choke closed, throttle open
B. Throttle Side C. throttle open, choke open
C. Fuel Bowl D. choke closed, throttle closed
D. Throat
55. Air enters the carburetor through the
50. An engine can stop running for the follow- A. Whistle
ing reason:
B. Blower
A. a clogged vent hole in the gas cap C. Air horn
B. a broken rope on the starter D. none of above
C. a slipping fan belt
56. The diaphragm must be preloaded in order
D. none of these are correct for:
51. The part of the carburetor that forces air A. the fuel pump to operate
to speed up is called the ? B. the throttle to open
A. Fuel bowl C. the engine to run at top speed
B. Throttle plate D. none of these are correct

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 4.7 Combustion Chambers 472

57. when do you get refrigeration ice? C. when the fuel air mixture temperature
A. when flying in rain drops below 0 degrees
B. when OAT drops below-15 degrees D. when RH outside the aircraft is >90%

4.7 Combustion Chambers

1. During the first stroke (Intake), what mixture in the combustion chamber is com-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
valves are open-if any? pressed.
A. Both closed A. Intake/Compression stroke
B. Intake valve open, Exhaust closed. B. Power/Exhaust stroke
C. Both are open C. Intake/Exhaust stroke
D. Intake valve closed, Exhaust valve D. Compression/Power stroke
open.
6. What are the strokes of the four stroke
2. A car engine’s job is to cycle, in correct order?
A. convert fuel into heat A. Intake, Power, Compression, Exhaust
B. convert fuel into motion B. Compression, Intake, Exhaust, Power
C. convert fuel into exhaust C. Intake, Compression, Power, Exhaust
D. none of above D. Power, Intake, Compression, Exhaust

3. We visually inspect the piston for wear 7. The major rotating part of the engine.
and damage including which of the follow- It converts the reciprocating (back-and-
ing? (Select 2) forth) motion of the piston into rotary (cir-
cular) motion. Flywheel is connected to
A. PItting
this.
B. Worn piston and ring A. Piston pin
C. Scored piston B. Connection rod
D. Cross hatching C. Cam shaft
4. The opening from the cylinder where spent D. Crankshaft
gases leave the engine in a 2-cycle engine.
8. During the compression stroke the piston
A. Intake port moves
B. Exhaust port A. up
C. Combustion chamber B. in both directions
D. Reed valve C. the hot gasses out of the cylinder
5. (2-cycle) Stroke where piston is travel- D. down
ing from BDC to TDC. Piston travel cre-
ates negative pressure in the crankcase 9. Used to tighten bolt or nut to a specified
and draws fuel/air/oil mixture in through torque
the intake port and reed valve. Fuel/air A. Torque wrench

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4.7 Combustion Chambers 473

B. Valve spring compressor 15. to produce a loud sound

C. Starter clutch wrench A. Detonation

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D. Plastigage B. Back-fire
C. Resonate
10. compression of air/fuel mixture in the
D. Power
cylinder
A. Exhaust 16. The motion of the piston causes
A. the rotation of the crankshaft
B. Power
B. the rotation of the camshaft
C. Compression
C. the rotation of the piston rods
D. Intake
D. the rotation of the engine
11. The first test you should preform for fuel 17. During the first stroke the valve lets
is ? fuel and air into the cylinder.
A. Visual A. intake
B. Send to a lab B. cylinder
C. Use the supplied tester kit C. compression

D. Taste Test D. head gasket

18. In 2-cycle engines, the opening to the
12. List the strokes of the 4-cycle engine the- crankcase where the fuel/air mixture en-
ory in order. ters.
A. Intake, Power, Compression, Exhaust A. Intake port
B. Intake, Compression, Power, Exhaust B. Exhaust port
C. Exhaust, Power, Compression, Intake C. Combustion chamber
D. Compression, Power, Intake, Exhaust D. Reed valve
19. Link that attaches the piston to the
13. The is the most common type of en-
crankshaft and transfers the up and down
gine.
movement of the piston to rotational
A. head gasket movement in the crankshaft.
B. four-stroke engine A. Piston pin
C. two-stroke engine B. Transfer rod
C. Connecting rod
D. diesel engine
D. Crankshaft rod
14. Broken piston rings are likely to cause:
20. The spark plug is a device typical of
A. blue smoke from the exhaust
A. 4 stroke engines
B. black smoke from the exhaust B. 4 stroke gasoline engines
C. no smoke from the exhaust C. 4 stroke diesel engines
D. white smoke from the exhaust D. none of above

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4.7 Combustion Chambers 474

21. The final stroke gas. B. battery

A. ignites C. spark plugs
B. releases D. none of above
C. goes 27. An engine part found in the cylinder that is
D. takes driven by the combustion of the fuel/air
mixture and moves up and down to turn
22. Where is oil added to lubricate a 2-cycle the crankshaft.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
engine?
A. Piston pin
A. Oil intake port
B. Connecting rod
B. Oil fill cap
C. Engine bearing
C. Dipstick tube
D. Piston
D. Mixed in the Fuel
28. reciprocating means
23. Used to test the fuel system
A. up-down
A. Digital spectrometer
B. up-bottom
B. Squeeze lever
C. right-left
C. Pressure/Vacuum tester
D. forward-backward
D. Carburetor pressure tester
29. Modern cars use internal combustion en-
24. Explosive mixture in engines consisting of gines, but some early models used exter-
atomized fuel and air. Is created in the car- nal combustion engines.What is one exam-
buretor and enters the engine at the intake ple of an external combustion engine?
port or intake manifold.
A. steam engine
A. Ethanol
B. firecracker engine
B. Raw gas
C. hydroponic engine
C. Light oil
D. none of above
D. Fuel/Air Mixture
30. Another name for the second stroke is
25. The action of setting something on fire or which of the following?
starting to burn. In engines, the spark plug A. Compression
lights the compressed fuel/air mixture in
the combustion chamber. B. Intake
A. Intake C. Exhaust
B. Compression D. power
C. Ignition 31. During the combustion stroke the piston
D. Exhaust moves
A. up
26. When a car’s engine is running, power to
operate the radio, CD Player, headlights B. down slighty
and windshield wipers comes from the C. in both directions
A. alternator D. down

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4.7 Combustion Chambers 475

32. What’s another name for the four-stroke C. Power

engine cycle? D. Exhaust

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A. Otto cycle
37. What direction is the piston moving on the
B. Tesla cycle intake stroke?
C. compression cycle A. left
D. none of above B. up
33. Position where the piston is farthest from C. down
the cylinder head and spark plug and the D. right
combustion chamber is largest.
A. BDC 38. In 2-cycle engines, it is the opening that
allows fuel/air mixture to pass into the
B. TDC combustion chamber from the crankcase.
C. Cycle 1 A. Intake port
D. Cycle 2 B. Exhaust port
34. (2-cycle) Stroke where piston is travel- C. Crankcase port
ing from TDC to BDC. Spark plug ignites D. Transfer port
compressed fuel/air mixture in the com-
bustion chamber forcing the piston down- 39. Which of the following connects the rod of
ward. Exhaust port is uncovered allow- the piston?
ing exhaust gases to escape through the A. Rod Cap
exhaust port. Downward piston travel
creates positive pressure in the crankcase B. Connecting Rod
which forces fuel/air/oil mixture into the C. wrist pin
combustion chamber through the transfer D. Rod Bolt
port.
A. Intake/Compression stroke 40. ignition of air/fuel mixture

B. Power/Exhaust stroke A. Spark Plug

C. Intake/Exhaust stroke B. Compression

D. Compression/Power stroke C. Power

D. Exhaust
35. Ignition of the air/fuel mix occurs in be-
tween the following two strokes: and E. Intake

41. Grooves cut into the side surface of the

A. Intake, Power, piston are fitting with that seal in the
B. Power, Exhaust compression and combustion pressure, and
control the lubricating oil film on the wall
C. Compression, Power of the cylinder liner.
D. Intake, Compression A. Gaskets
36. release of the used air/fuel mixture B. O-Rings
A. Intake C. Oil Seals
B. Compression D. Piston Rings

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4.7 Combustion Chambers 476

42. Spark is a necessary element of internal B. sealing devices fitted around the cylin-
combustion engine operation. How do der to improve power
small 4-stroke engines create spark to ig- C. sealing devices fitted around the con-
nite the charge in the combustion cham- necting rods to prevent leakage
ber?
D. none of above
A. The upward force of the piston pro-
vides the spark needed to ignite the 47. Used to test the amount of compression in
charge. the cylinder

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Friction between the ignition armature A. Compression gauge
and the magneto creates an electric arc
that sends high voltage to the spark plug. B. Pressure gauge

C. Fuel in the carburetor is vaporized by C. Leakdown tester

high speed air injected from the choke D. Compression meter
side of the carburetor.
48. Piston force and subsequent motion are
D. None of the above
transferred to the crankshaft on which of
43. The test for spark you learned about is the following engine strokes?
called ? A. Intake
A. Perky sparky B. Compression
B. Brightness test C. Power
C. Armature test D. Exhaust
D. Loaded spark test
49. Valve overlap is best defined as
44. During the exhaust stroke the piston A. a) The period during engine operation
moves when both intake and exhaust valves are
A. up open at the same time near in between
the exhaust and intake strokes
B. in both directions
B. a) The period during engine operation
C. the head bolts
when both intake and exhaust valves are
D. down open at the same time near in between
the intake and compression strokes.
45. Which small engine component delivers the
air-fuel mixture into the combustion cham- C. a) Grinding of the valve seat to pro-
ber? duce a beveled angle of 30 to 45 degrees.
A. Crankshaft D. None of the above
B. Piston 50. A device for igniting the fuel/air mixture
C. Carburetor in an internal combustion engine.
D. Fuel Tank A. Glow plug
B. Combustion chamber
46. What are the rings?
A. sealing devices fitted around the pis- C. Spark Plug
ton to prevent leakage D. Armature

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4.7 Combustion Chambers 477

51. which element has a reciprocating mo- 56. The movement of the piston in the engine
tion? is

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A. cilynder A. Linear
B. piston B. Circular
C. camshaft C. Reciprocal
D. None of the above
D. piston rods
57. the is a device which fits closely in-
52. Minor air leaks cause a lean running condi- side the cylinder and transfers combustion
tion and are most likely caused by which force to the connecting rod
of the following (select 4)
A. piston
A. Cracked Carb Insulator
B. piston rod
B. Damaged gasket
C. ring
C. Leaking Cylinder Base Gasket D. camshaft
D. Spark plug electrodes not gapped cor-
rectly 58. The four-stroke engine works by heating
fuel and air in a
E. Crankshaft seal leak
A. cylinder
53. What are the valves doing on the compres- B. head
sion stroke? C. crankshaft
A. both open D. camshaft
B. intake openexhaust closed
59. A four-stroke engine generates power
C. Intake closedexhaust open time(s) during a complete cycle.
D. both closed A. 1
B. 2
54. The crankshaft is able to continue rotating
after the power stroke has completed as C. 3
a result of inertia created by the D. 4
A. Flywheel 60. During the power stroke the piston moves
B. Blower Shroud
C. Magneto A. up

D. Rewind Starter B. down slighty

C. in both directions
55. What is a disadvantage of a 2-cycle en-
D. down
gine?
A. Reduced power 61. Object cast out of iron or an aluminum al-
loy designed to keep all engine parts to-
B. Increased fuel consumption gether and in alignment.
C. Complex design A. Cylinder head
D. Lubrication at any angle of operation B. Combustion chamber

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4.7 Combustion Chambers 478

C. Power train 67. In the 4-stroke cycle what does TDC mean
D. Engine block A. Top drive centre
62. The crankshaft rotates 170 degrees during B. Top dead centre
which stroke of a four-stroke engine? C. Turning drive centre
A. Intake D. Twisting dead centre
B. Compression 68. A Spark is required for the Power stroke
C. Power cycle, how is this achieved in a petrol en-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Exhaust gine?
A. Heated and compressed air
63. The process of burning something. In en-
gine theory, it is the explosion of the B. Glow plug
fuel/air mixture. C. Spark plug
A. Ignition D. Fire
B. Compression
69. When carrying out a service the engine oil
C. Combustion should be drained when the:
D. Exhaust A. oil is discoloured
64. Which of the following BEST describes the B. engine is running
term TDC? C. engine is warm
A. Furthest point of piston travel away D. engine is cold
from the Crankshaft
70. To make something burn or catch fire
B. Time and distance covered
A. ignite
C. Top of the piston
B. compress
D. Nearest point of piston travel towards
the Crankshaft C. exhaust
D. press
65. The 3 causes of Low Compression caused
by wear or internal damage (Choose 3) 71. Valve overlap occurs between which of the
A. Blown gasket following strokes?
B. Failed bearing A. Intake and Exhaust
C. Worn piston and ring B. Intake and Compression
D. Stuck piston ring C. Power and Exhaust
E. Scored piston D. Exhaust and Compression

66. Corrosion inside a carburetor is usually 72. The air-fuel-oil mixture and the spent
fixed by ? gases are removed from the combustion
A. Ultrasound cleaner chamber in a 2-cycle engine by the
B. Repair is unlikely, replace carb A. Ports
C. Carb cleaner sprayed into the passage- B. Valves
ways C. Exhaust Muffler
D. Boil out tank D. Carburetor

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4.7 Combustion Chambers 479

73. The piston travels from BDC to TDC with C. cylinder

the exhaust open on which stroke? D. head

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A. Intake
79. Position where the piston is closest to the
B. Compression cylinder head and spark plug and the com-
C. Power bustion chamber is smallest.
D. Exhaust A. BDC

74. When visually examining carburetor di- B. TDC

aphragms you are primarily looking for C. Cycle 1
what? (Select 2)
D. Cycle 2
A. Stiffness
80. What direction is the piston moving on the
B. Discoloration
exhaust stroke?
C. Wrinkles
A. left
D. Expiration date
B. up
75. Connecting rods connect the C. down
A. piston to the crankshaft D. right
B. piston to the piston rods
81. Which stroke is designated by the piston
C. piston rods to the cylinder moving from Top to bottom with both the
D. piston to the cyinder intake and exhaust valves in the closed po-
sition?
76. The major inputs of a four-cycle internal
A. Intake
combustion engine are the and
mixed together to make a combustible B. Compression
charge C. Power
A. oxygen, acetylene D. Exhaust
B. gasoline, oxygen
82. What do we use to remove the flywheel
C. diesel, air from the crankshaft
D. spark plug, gasoline A. Bang on it with a hammer
77. THE CRANKSHAFT IS A COMPONENT OF B. Flywheel holder
C. Flywheel remover (Driver & Adaptor)
A. TOP END D. Tap on side with soft faced hammer
B. FRONT END
83. What are the three common ways to ar-
C. BOTTOM END range an engine’s cylinder?
D. DRIVETRAIN A. V-6, V-8, HEMI
78. An opening where spent fuel is released B. inline, V, flat
A. intake C. inline, flat, rotary
B. exhaust valve D. none of above

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 4.8 Supercharging 480

84. The housing for the crankshaft and other 85. The enclosed space in which combustion
related internal parts. In a 2-stroke, takes place in an engine. Is located in the
the fuel/air mixture is drawn into this cylinder between the piston and cylinder
space before transferring to the combus- head and spark plug.
tion chamber.
A. Combustion chamber
A. Combustion chamber
B. Cylinder
B. Cylinder
C. Crankcase C. Crankcase

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Sump D. Sump

4.8 Supercharging
1. The efficiency of a jet engine is higher at 5. The maximum delivery pressure in a ro-
tary air compressor is
A. low speeds
A. 30 bar
B. high speeds
B. 40 bar
C. low altitudes
C. 10 bar
D. high altitudes
D. 20 bar
2. The stagnation pressure rise in a centrifu- 6. Two types of superchargers include:
gal compressor takes place
A. Double and single acting
A. in the diffuser and impeller
B. Turbine and piston
B. increase in flow C. Rotary and reciprocating
C. in the inlet guide vanes only D. Roots-type and centrifugal
D. in the impeller only
7. Which of the following statement is cor-
rect relating to rocket engines?
3. The compressed air may be used
A. The combustion chamber in a rocket
A. . for operating pneumatic drills
engine is directly analogous to the reser-
B. in gas turbine plants voir of a super sonic wind tunnel
C. in starting and supercharging of I.C. B. The stagnation conditions exist at the
engines combustion chamber
D. all of the above C. all of the above
D. The exit velocities of exhaust gases
4. The type of rotary compressor used in gas are much higher than those in jet engine
turbines, is of
8. How are turbochargers lubricated?
A. centrifugal type
A. By engine oil under pressure through
B. axial flow type lines from the engine
C. none of these B. By an internal oil reservoir
D. radial flow type C. By greased fittings

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4.8 Supercharging 481

D. No lubrication is needed, the incoming 14. Which loss is caused due to the leakage of
air cools the turbocharger combustion products past the piston from
cylinder into the crankcase?

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9. Which valve is used on a factory super-
A. Pumping loss
charger to limit boost?
B. Draw down loss
A. Wastegate
C. Blowby loss
B. Bypass valve
D. Scavenging loss
C. Blow-off valve
D. Air valve 15. Rayleigh line flow is a flow in constant
area duct
10. The limiting factor for supercharging of A. with friction but without heat transfer
diesel engine is
B. without friction but with heat transfer
A. Weight
C. with both friction and heat transfer
B. Lubrication
D. without either friction or heat transfer
C. Cooling
16. Which of the following statement is cor-
D. Detonation
rect as regard to centrifugal compres-
11. In a jet propulsion sors?

A. the propulsive matter is ejected from A. The impeller rotates at high speeds
within the propelled body B. The flow of air is parallel to the axis of
the compressor
B. the propulsive matter is caused to flow
around the propelled body C. The static pressure of air in the im-
peller increases in order to provide cen-
C. its functioning does not depend upon
tripetal force on the air
presence of air
D. The maximum efficiency is higher than
D. none of the above
multi-stage axial flow compressors.
12. A jet engine has 17. The axial flow compressor is preferred in
A. propeller in front air-craft gas turbines because of
B. propeller at back A. high pressure rise
C. propeller on the top B. low frontal area
D. no propeller C. higher thrust
D. none of these
13. Engineers calculate engine airflow using
three factors. What does not belong be- 18. The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating
low? air compressors is about
A. Crankcase volume A. 40 to 60%
B. Engine displacement B. 60 to 70%
C. Engine revolutions per minute (RPM) C. 10 to 40%
D. Volumetric efficiency D. 70 to 90%

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4.8 Supercharging 482

19. In a jet engine, the air-fuel ratio is A. diffuser outlet radius

A. 50:1 B. impeller outlet radius
B. 30:1 C. diffuser inlet radius
C. 40:1 D. impeller inlet radius
D. 60:1 25. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in
20. A roket works with maximum overall ef- speed at a given pressure ratio causes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ficiency when air-craft velocity is the A. decrease in flow
jet velocity. B. increase in flow
A. equal to C. increase in flow and decrease in effi-
B. one-half ciency
C. double D. increase in efficiency
D. non of the above 26. The maximum temperature in a gas turbine
is
21. In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle
deviation from the blade angle is a func- A. 700◦ C
tion of B. 300◦ C
A. blade camber and space-chord ratio C. 500◦ C
B. space-chord ratio D. 200◦ C
C. blade camber and incidence angle
27. Intercooling in multi-stage compressors is
D. blade camber done
22. How are superchargers lubricated? A. to enable compression in two stages
A. Through oil lines under pressure com- B. to cool the air at delivery
ing from the engine C. to cool the air during compression
B. An internal oil resevoir D. to minimise the work of compression
C. By greased fittings
28. In the aircraft propellers
D. No lubrication is need because incom-
A. the propulsive matter is ejected from
ing air cools the supercharger
within the propelled body
23. Only rocket engines can be propelled to B. its functioning does not depend upon
space because the presence of air
A. they can generate very high thrust C. the propulsive matter is caused to flow
B. these engines can work on several fu- around the propelled body
els D. none of the above
C. they have high propulsion efficiency 29. What is chemical compound is added in
D. they are not air-breathing engines water so as to enable it to use it as a
coolant?
24. In a centrifugal compressor, the highest
Mach number leading to shock wave in the A. Glycerine
fluid flow occurs at B. Ethanol

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4.8 Supercharging 483

C. Methanol 35. The thrust of a jet propulsion power unit

can be increased by
D. Ethylene glycol

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A. burning fuel after gas turbine
30. Gas turbine as compared to steam turbine B. all of these
A. has less efficiency C. injecting water into the compressor
B. has compressor and combustion cham- D. injecting ammonia into the combustion
ber chamber
C. all of these
36. How is a supercharger driven?
D. requires less space for installation A. By exhaust gases
31. Volumetric efficiency of air cooled engines B. By a mechanical connection through a
as compared to water cooled engine is belt or gear

A. Lower C. By air coming into engine

D. By engine oil
B. Higher
C. Remains same 37. For oblique shock, the downstream Mach
number
D. Cannot say
A. is always more than unity
32. Turbocharging or supercharging to an en- B. is always less than unity
gine is like is to a camp fire.
C. may be less or more than unity
A. Adding Wood
D. can never be unity
B. Adding Water
38. What service operation is MOST important
C. Applying Flame on engines equipped with a turbocharger?
D. Increasing air flow A. Replacing fuel filter

33. How is the turbocharger driven or pow- B. Replacing air filter

ered? C. Regular oil changes
A. By a belt D. Regular exhaust system maintenance
B. By exhaust gases 39. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the
C. By the air coming in to the engine stroke volume of the compressor is known
as
D. By engine oil
A. compressor capacity
34. With the increase in engine speed, the me- B. compression ratio
chanical friction C. compressor efficiency
A. Increases D. mean effective pressure
B. Decreases
40. Rotary compressors are used for deliver-
C. Remains constant ing
D. Cannot say A. small quantities of air at low pressures

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 4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 484

B. large quantities of air at high pres- A. Surface area factoring

sures
B. Linear efficiency
C. small quantities of air at high pres-
C. Bilateral extrusion
sures
D. Volumetric efficiency
D. large quantities of air at low pressures

41. A rocket engine uses for the combus- 45. A turbo-prop is preferred to turbo-jet be-
tion of its fuel. cause

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. its own oxygen A. it can fly at high elevations
B. compressed atmospheric air B. it has high propulsive efficiency at high
speeds
C. surrounding air
C. it can fly at super sonic speeds
D. none of these
D. it has high power for take off
42. The volume of air delivered by the com-
pressor is called 46. The specific fuel consumption of super-
A. free air delivery charged engine as compared to non-
supercharged engine is
B. compressor capacity
A. Higher
C. swept volume
B. Lower
D. none of these
C. Same
43. What is the purpose of an intercooler?
D. Cannot say
A. Reduce air temperature going into en-
gine. 47. The limiting factor for supercharging of
B. Cool turbocharger. petrol engine is
C. Cool engine oil. A. Lubrication
D. Cool exhaust. B. Cooling
C. Detonation
44. What is the measure of how well an en-
gine breathes? D. None of the above

4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling

1. Possible failure related ferrous metal par- tact with the dissimilar metal of the detec-
ticles in turbine engine oil cause an (electri- tor tip.
cal) indicating type magnetic chip detector
C. disturbing the magnetic lines of flux
to indicate their presence by
around the detector tip.
A. bridging the gap between the detector D. none of above
center (positive) electrode and the ground
electrode. 2. What is the purpose of the oil must have
low frictional ?
B. generating a small electric current
that is caused by the particles being in con- A. So that it is not PAIA

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 485

B. To avoid over cooling B. Corrosion

C. So as not to absorb energy C. Vibration

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D. So that no vibration occurs D. Hot
E. To stay stable
E. Oxidation
3. Is the name of the component that serves
to limit the maximum operating pressure 8. The “W” in 5w30 stands for what?
in the lubrication system. A. Wiscosity
A. Oil Relief valve
B. Water
B. Oil pump
C. Wear
C. Oil gallery
D. Winter
D. Oil bypass
E. Oil delivery 9. Is the name of the component that func-
tions to flow oil throughout the lubrication
4. What does the W represent in a multivis-
system.
cosity grade oil?
A. weather / Winter A. Oil Relief valve
B. weight B. Oil pump
C. Waver C. Oil gallery
D. wear D. Oil bypass
5. All of these fluids can be checked with the E. Oil delivery
engine off except:
A. Engine oil 10. The oil used for the operation of the en-
gine can have many additives to support
B. Brake fluid
it to carry out its functions.These additives
C. Transmission fluid are:
D. Windshield washer fluid A. Increase in concentration index
6. Where is the component that serves to B. Foam prevention
limit the maximum pressure is installed
? C. Pour-point depressants

A. Inside Oil Pump D. Very high pressure additives

B. Inside the Oil Strainer E. Determinant & dispensary
C. Inside by Pass Filter
11. What is the rim diameter of a tire that is
D. Inside the Oil Cooler P205/75R16?
E. In the Base Filter
A. 205 inch
7. One of the oil functions to lubricate the B. 75 mm
moving components to reduce the loss of
energy caused by C. 16 mm
A. Friction D. 16 inch

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 486

12. Good oil must meet the general require- 16. What is the name of the Oli channel on the
ments as below, except ? block engine ?
A. The oil must be able to form a layer of A. By pass oil
oil (film oil). B. Oil retrection
B. The oil must have low internal friction C. Oil gallery
so it does not absorb engine power.
D. Oil junction
C. The oil must be stable enough to be
E. Oil strainer

NARAYAN CHANGDER
able to prevent the formation of gum, but
it must be concentrated enough to be able 17. Is the additive name that serves to
to combine cleanly without leaving the re- prevent deposits from sticking to the
maining carbon. crankcase wall and oil reservoir (Sump).
D. The oil must be able to dissolve the A. Anti mild
resin and vernis formed during burning.
B. You are inch
E. The oil must be able to form a carbon
C. Detergent
layer to prevent wear.
D. Oxidation
13. Lubricating oils with high viscosity index
E. Bicycle
ratings are oils
A. in which the viscosity does not vary 18. Is the additive name that serves to keep
much with temperature change. the oil layer attached to components such
as camshaft and lifter to prevent wear.
B. in which viscosity varies considerably
with temperature change. A. Anti mild
C. which have high SAE numbers. B. You are inch
D. none of above C. Anti blisters
D. Anti -oxidation
14. Green fluid is found under a customers car.
This can be cause by: E. Anti Velocity

A. Leaking water pump 19. Bonus:If an engine suddenly has multi-

ple oil leaks from multiple gaskets what
B. Split cooling pipe
would the most likely cause be?
C. Leaking radiator
A. Clogged PCV Valve
D. Any of these can be the cause.
B. A plugged oil filter
15. What is the primary purpose of the oil C. A clogged heater core
breather pressurization system that is
D. Low engine compression
used on turbine engines?
A. Provides a proper oil spray pattern 20. Which of the following is considered a com-
from the main bearing oil jets. mon multi-viscosity engine oil?
B. Allows aeration of the oil for better lu- A. SAE 30
brication because of the air/oil mist. B. 5W-30
C. Prevents foaming of the oil. C. 75W-140
D. none of above D. SAE 50

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 487

21. What does the “W” in a mult-viscosity B. constant speed.

stand for?
C. positive displacement.

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A. Wicked
D. none of above
B. Weight
C. Warranty 27. Is the name of the tool/tools commonly
D. Winter used to measure clereance between the
two gears in the oil pump.
22. When lubricated parts are in motion
molecules roll over one another like micro- A. Dial indicator
scopic ball bearing B. Feeler gauge
A. oil C. Micrometer
B. steel
D. Vernier caliper
C. copper
E. Straight edge
D. tin

23. Oil emulsions are the most effective lubri- 28. A fluids resistance to flow is:
cants in A. Thickness
A. gears
B. Pour-ability
B. light cutting
C. Viscosity
C. heavy cuttings
D. engines D. Grade

24. The lubricant in internal combustion is ex- 29. Oil must be able to dissolve which is
posed to formed during combustion.
A. high temperature A. Air fuel
B. high pressure B. Air and dust
C. low temperature
C. Resin and vernis
D. low pressure
D. Resin and fuel
25. Which of the following lubrication system
components is never located between the E. Vernis and oil.
pressure pump and the engine pressure
system? 30. Is the name of the component that serves
to absorb the heat of the engine oil before
A. Oil temperature bulb. it is accommodated to the oil pan.
B. Fuel line for oil dilution system.
A. Full flow filter
C. Check valve.
B. Oil strainer
D. none of above
C. By pass filter
26. The type of oil pumps most commonly used
on turbine engines are classified as D. Oil cooler
A. variable displacement. E. Oil radiator

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 488

31. Oil pressure in the lubrication system must 36. Failure of lubrication system may caused:
be limited according to factory specifica-
A. Higher fuel consumption
tions Does the component name limit
the pressure. B. Higher usage of lubricant oil
A. Relief valve C. Damage to steering wheel
B. One way valve D. Damage of engine
C. Reducing valve

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. By pass valve 37. Proper oil helps provide a good be-
tween the piston rings and the cylinder
E. Relay valve
wall
32. What can reduce oil density ? A. seal
A. Stress
B. window
B. Hot
C. wax
C. Movement
D. wash
D. Vibration
E. Cold 38. When checking hose conditions, which
would indicate the need for replacement?
33. As a general rule, the mixture setting on
a reciprocating engine operating at or near A. Softening
takeoff power that provides the best cool-
B. Hardening
ing is
A. LEAN. C. Cracks or abrasions
B. FULL RICH. D. All of the above
C. FULL LEAN.
39. Friction that occurs between the layers of
D. none of above oil film is called
34. What type of oil results in low levels of im- A. viscous friction
purities, increases lubricating abilities, re-
duces sludge from forming, and protects at B. greasy friction
extremely high temperatures? C. dry friction
A. conventional D. boundary friction
B. synthetic
C. mineral 40. Is the name of the component that func-
tions to drain oil to the engine system
D. crude when the oil cooler is blocked.
35. Absorbs heat, dissipates heat and helps in A. Oil pump
the cooling system are:
B. Primary oil pump
A. advantages of lubrication
B. disadvantages of lubrication C. Secondary oil pump

C. purpose of lubrication D. By pass valve

D. effect of lubrication E. Retrection valve

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 489

41. These oil are produced to reduce the num- B. Engine oil above normal operating tem-
ber of different types of oil needed to perature.
serve all types of tractor and implements,

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C. Engine oil below normal operating tem-
covering engines, transmission, hydraulic perature.
system, power steering
D. none of above
A. Detergent oil
B. Universal oil 46. Which of the following has the greatest ef-
fect on the viscosity of lubricating oil?
C. Multigrade oil
A. Temperature.
D. none of above
B. Engine RPM.
42. One type of engine oil cooler commonly C. System Pressure.
used is ?
D. none of above
A. Oil to oil
B. Water to oil 47. After performing an oil change, why
should you start the car before checking
C. Air to oil
the oil level?
D. Oil to water
A. To fill up the oil filter with oil
E. Air to water
B. To check for correct oil flow
43. The engine oil temperature regulator is C. To check a double gasket
usually located between which of the fol-
D. To check for leaks
lowing on a dry sump reciprocating en-
gine? 48. The present condition of friction may
A. The scavenger pump outlet and the oil caused:
storage tank. A. loss horsepower
B. The engine oil supply pump and the in- B. less maintanance cost
ternal lubrication system.
C. component wear
C. The oil storage tank and the engine oil
D. less oil drain
supply pump.
D. none of above 49. Oil when pumped and sprayed in the en-
gine lubrication system will form.
44. The maximum pressure in the lubrication
A. Gum
system is controlled by
A. oil pump B. Resin

B. oil filter C. Sulfur

C. valve relief D. Therefore

D. supply voltage E. They

45. In which of the following situations will 50. If the oil in the oil cooler core and annular
the oil cooler automatic bypass valve be jacket becomes congealed, what unit pre-
open the greatest amount? vents damage to the cooler?

A. Engine stopped with no oil flowing af- A. Oil pressure relief valve.
ter runup. B. Airflow control valve.

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 490

C. Surge protection valve. 56. The oil that forms a layer between two
D. none of above components is called the term ?
A. Lubricating oil
51. Oil film between mating parts is called
B. Oil pemdingin
A. hydrodynamic
C. Oil anti friction
B. hypocopic
D. Was the film
C. synergyn

NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Oil cooler
D. moly
57. The recommended aircraft engine lubri-
52. Where is oil stored when the engine is
cants are
off?
A. vegetable, mineral, or synthetic based.
A. Cylinder Head
B. External Storage Tank B. animal, mineral, or synthetic based.

C. Combustion Chamber C. mineral or synthetic based.

D. Oil Pan D. none of above

53. The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its 58. The lubrication system circulates oil
throughout the engine by performing sev-
A. resistance to flow. eral functions. This lubrication system
B. weight, or density. must:
C. rate of change of internal friction with A. Lubricating components that move to
change in temperature. reduce the loss of energy caused by burn-
D. none of above ing.
B. Lubricating the driving components to
54. is the property of a lubricating oil due reduce wear.
to which the oil retains a thin film between
the two surfaces. C. Serves as a cleaner.
A. Oiliness D. It acts as a seal that is a piston ring
and a wall.
B. Film Strength
E. Absorb shocks between the bearing
C. Adhesiveness
and other engine parts, thereby reducing
D. None of the mentioned the noise and extending the age of the en-
gine.
55. Is the name of the component that serves
to filter out a small part of the oil chan- 59. Viscosity refers to the resistance of a
neled from the pump to the oil gallery in liquid to flow. In general, would a
the engine. low or high viscosity oil be used in cold-
A. Full flow filter temperature operation
B. Oil strainer A. High
C. By-pass filter B. Low
D. Oil cooler C. Doesn’t matter
E. Primary oil filter D. none of above

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 491

60. The various grads of oils/referred to D. Oil cooler

A. Japan Society of Automotive Engines. E. Oil water jacket

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B. British Society of Automotive Engines.
65. Is the name of the component that serves
C. American Society of Automotive En-
to clean the oil during the oil out of the oil
gines
pump and before the oil enters the gallery
D. None of the above in the engine.
61. Is the name of the component that func- A. Oil filter
tions to filter out all oil before the oil en-
ters the oil gallery. B. Oil sump

A. Full flow filter C. Oil relief

B. Oil strainer D. Oil bypass
C. Oil pick up E. Oil delivery
D. Oil cooler
E. Primary oil filter 66. Which of the following is not a function of
the lubrication system?
62. Oil picks up the most heat from which of
A. Removing contaminants from inside
the following turbine engine components?
the engine
A. Compressor bearing.
B. Maintaining smooth power flow
B. Turbine bearing. through drivetrain
C. Rotor coupling.
C. Cutting power los; increasing fuel
D. none of above economy
63. Is the name of the component that serves D. Reducing friction and wear between
to store oil in adequate amounts to lubri- moving parts
cate the whole engine and accommodate
oil so that there is enough time for oil to 67. What type of steering system has a pit-
be cold before being pumped back to all man arm?
parts of the engine.
A. parallelogram system
A. Oil filter
B. rack and pinion system
B. Oil sump
C. Oil gallery C. tie rod system

D. Oil bypass D. power steering system

E. Oil delivery
68. What is a bearing alloy that has good an-
64. Is the name of the component that func- tifriction qualities
tions as a heat exchange that moves heat
A. Chrome
from the engine to the engine coolant.
A. Radiator B. Iron

B. Water cooler C. Babbit

C. Air cooler D. magnesium

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 492

69. What will happen to the return oil if the C. Main oil gallery
oil line between the scavenger pump and D. Main oil jacket
the oil cooler separates?
E. Main oil crankshaft
A. The return oil will be pumped over-
board. 74. Comparison of Oli concentration changes
at low temperatures and high tempera-
B. The scavenger return line check valve
tures, mentioned by terms ?
will close and force the oil to bypass di-
rectly to the intake side of the pressure A. The concentration index

NARAYAN CHANGDER
pump. B. Disbursement index
C. Oil will accumulate in the engine. C. pressure index
D. none of above D. temperature index
E. friction index
70. What component in the suspension system
combines the shock, spring, and upper con- 75. As a general rule, a small amount of small
trol arm into one unit? fuzzy particles or gray metallic paste on a
A. tire turbine engine magnetic chip detector
A. indicates an imminent component fail-
B. leaf spring
ure.
C. strut assembly
B. is considered to be the result of normal
D. coil spring wear.
71. Where are sludge chambers, when used C. indicates accelerated generalized
in aircraft engine lubrication systems, usu- wear.
ally located? D. none of above
A. Adjacent to the scavenger pumps. 76. Lubrication is needed because of
B. In the crankshaft throws. A. heat
C. In the oil storage tank. B. friction
D. none of above C. lubricant
D. energy
72. The purpose of a dwell chamber in a tur-
bine engine oil tank is to provide 77. Lubricants come in what forms (check all
A. for a pressurized oil supply to the oil that apply)
pump inlet. A. dry
B. a collection point for sediments. B. semidry
C. separation of entrained air from scav- C. liquid
enged oil. D. friction
D. none of above 78. Which are COMMON multi-viscosity oils:
73. Is the name of the oil channel that pene- A. 0W20
trates the crankshaft from end to end. B. 10W30
A. Oil jacket C. 5W20
B. Jacket gallery D. All answers are common

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 493

79. What is the purpose of the last chance oil 84. Whether the name of the component in
filters? the lubrication engine that produces flow
(flow)

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A. To assure a clean supply of oil to the
lubrication system. A. Oil cooler
B. To prevent damage to the oil spray noz- B. Oil gallery
zle.
C. Oil filter
C. To filter the oil immediately before it
D. Oil pump
enters the main bearings.
E. Main oil gallery
D. none of above
85. The process of reducing friction between
80. Oil cooler can be installed internal in ?
sliding surfaces by introducing a slippery
A. Engine oil pump or smooth substance between them
B. Engine oil filter A. hydration
C. Engine by pass filter B. lubrication
D. Engine full flow filter C. hydrolysis
E. Inside Crankcase Engine D. hydrodynamics

81. What shows Oli’s level according to its 86. Where are wear bar indicators found?
concentration.
A. The drive belt
A. SEA
B. Between the tire tread
B. SAE
C. The ball joints
C. EAS
D. On the struts/ shocks
D. ESA
E. ASE 87. What affects the oil pressure changes in
the engine lubrication system ?
82. What are the 2 types of oil pumps? A. Compression ratio
A. Rotor and Gear B. Gear Ratio
B. Electric and Rotor C. RPM
C. Electric and Gear D. TRD
D. Rotor and Belt Driven E. TRANS
83. Is the name of the component that serves 88. An engine lubrication system pressure re-
to filter out dirt from the first oil ? lief valve is usually located between the
A. Secondary oil filter A. oil cooler and the scavenger pump.
B. Oil strainer B. pump and the internal oil system.
C. Oil cooler C. scavenger pump and the external oil
D. Oil drainer system.
E. Oil boiler D. none of above

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 494

89. Oil pressure in the dry sump lubrication 94. The purpose of a relief valve installed in
system is around the tank venting system of a turbine en-
A. 5 bar-10 bar gine oil tank is to

B. 11 bar-15 bar A. maintain internal tank air pressure at

the ambient atmospheric level regardless
C. 3 bar-8 bar of altitude or rate of change in altitude.
D. 1 bar
B. maintain a positive internal pressure

NARAYAN CHANGDER
90. What advantage do mineral base lubri- in the oil tank after shutdown to prevent
cants have over vegetable oil base lubri- oil pump cavitation on engine start.
cants when used in aircraft engines? C. prevent oil pump cavitation by main-
A. Chemical stability. taining a constant pressure on the oil
pump inlet.
B. Cooling ability.
D. none of above
C. Friction resistance.
D. none of above 95. A good oil has the ability to the effects
of the corrosive by-products of combustion
91. Which of the following bearing types must
be continuously lubricated by pressure A. neutralize
oil? B. vaporize
A. Roller. C. maintain
B. Ball.
D. harmonize
C. Plain.
D. none of above 96. Oil accumulation in the cylinders of an in-
verted in line engine and in the lower cylin-
92. Excessive oil is prevented from accumulat- ders of a radial engine is normally reduced
ing on the cylinder walls of a reciprocating or prevented by
engine by
A. routing the valve operating mecha-
A. the design and shape of the piston nism lubricating oil to a separate scav-
skirt. enger pump.
B. internal engine pressure bleeding past B. reversed oil control rings.
the ring grooves.
C. extended cylinder skirts.
C. oil control rings on the pistons.
D. none of above
D. none of above
97. In a reciprocating engine, oil is directed
93. What is the term used to describe the pro-
from the pressure relief valve to the inlet
cess when gas escapes past the piston
side of the
rings and into the crankcase?
A. inefficiency A. oil temperature regulator.

B. friction B. scavenger pump.

C. cooling C. pressure pump.
D. blow-by D. none of above

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4.9 Engine Friction, Lubrication and Cooling 495

98. What is the primary purpose of the oil to C. at a point after the oil has passed
fuel heat exchanger? through the oil cooler.

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A. Cool the fuel. D. none of above
B. Cool the oil.
103. Function of oil filter
C. De aerate the oil
A. measure level of lubricant oil
D. none of above
B. removes impurities in lubricant oil
99. What determines the minimum particle C. hold the lubricants’ oil
size which will be excluded or filtered by
a cuno type (stacked disc, edge filtration) D. pumps the lubricant oil
filter?
104. Which of these characteristics is desirable
A. Both the number and thickness of the in turbine engine oil?
discs in the assembly.
A. Low flash point.
B. The spacer thickness.
B. High volatility.
C. The disc thickness.
C. High flash point.
D. none of above
D. none of above
100. Where is the oil of a dry sump recipro-
cating engine exposed to the temperature 105. Many components in the lower part of
control valve sensing unit? the engine are directly dependent on the
motor oil for?
A. Engine outlet.
A. cooling
B. Engine inlet.
B. warmth
C. Oil cooler inlet.
C. faster heating
D. none of above
D. easy starting
101. Why is an aircraft reciprocating engine
oil tank on a dry sump lubrication system 106. Which type valve prevents oil from en-
equipped with a vent line? tering the main accessory case when the
engine is not running?
A. To prevent pressure buildup in the re-
ciprocating engine crankcase. A. Check valve.
B. To prevent pressure buildup in the oil B. Relief valve.
tank. C. Bypass valve.
C. To eliminate foaming in the oil tank. D. none of above
D. none of above
107. Below are criteria of lubrication, except
102. In a reciprocating engine oil system, the
A. Resist high temperature
temperature bulb senses oil temperature
B. Prevent ring sticking
A. while the oil is in the hottest area of
the engine. C. Prevent sludge formation
B. immediately before the oil enters the D. Remove the protective oil film on mov-
oil cooler. ing parts

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 4.10 Engine Emissions 496

108. Which of the following is a function of 110. The principal surfaces requiring lubrica-
the fuel oil heat exchanger on a turbojet tion in an IC engine are
engine?
A. cylinder head
A. Increases fuel temperature.
B. crankcase
B. Emulsifies the oil.
C. Aerates the fuel. C. inlet and exhaust manifold

D. none of above D. none of the above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
109. In the following system, lubricating oil is 111. Viscosity index (VI) is a measure for the
carried in separate tanks from where it is change of viscosity with change in
fed to the engine
A. Temperature
A. Mist lubrication system
B. Wet sump system B. Pressure

C. Dry sump system C. Volume

D. Splash system D. All of the above

4.10 Engine Emissions

1. The fastest communication protocol be- fault code structure, and emission moni-
tween service tools and vehicle networks toring strategies. Technician B says HD-
is known as OBD emissions standards for heavy-duty
A. J-1939 diesel-fueled engines began in 2012. Who
is correct?
B. J-1587
A. Tech A
C. J-1708
B. Tech B
D. J-1932
C. Both Techs
2. Which of the following statements about
D. Neither Tech
carbon monoxide is correct?
A. Carbon monoxide is created as a re- 4. Diesel emission standards were not estab-
sult of incomplete combustion of carbon- lished until the
based fuels. A. 1970’s
B. Higher compression pressures and ex- B. 1980’s
cess air used in diesel combustion limit
carbon monoxide formation in diesels. C. 1990’s
C. Both A and B D. 2000’s
D. Neither A nor B 5. Tech A says Diesel engines produce less CO
3. Technician A says HD-OBD has many spe- and less NOx than an equivalent gasoline
cific standards governing everything from engine. Tech B says High combustion tem-
the style, type, and location of electri- peratures and pressure in diesel engines
cal and diagnostic connections, to commu- form NOx. Who is correct?
nication standards, emissions thresholds, A. Tech A

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4.10 Engine Emissions 497

B. Tech B 10. Heavy Duty Diesel Engines have to have a

C. Both Techs certain “Useful Life” as required by emis-
sion regulations. Which of these is cor-

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D. Neither Tech rect?
6. Tech A says each country by law can only A. 1, 000, 000 miles or Ten Years
have one set of emission standards. Tech B. 110, 000 Miles or 10 Years
B says each country can have multiple sets
emissions standards. Which tech is cor- C. 185, 000 Miles or Ten Years
rect? D. 435, 000 miles or Ten Years
A. Tech A
11. Which of the following statements about
B. Tech B
carbon dioxide production is NOT correct?
C. Both Techs
A. Carbon dioxide is best known as a
D. Neither Tech greenhouse gas.

7. Standards of emissions related to off-road B. Typically, CO emissions from diesels

equipment are referred to as stan- are 20-25% lower than an equivalently
dards. powered gasoline-fueled engine.
A. Tier C. Internationally, legislation requires
vehicle manufacturers to limit CO emis-
B. Off-highway
sions from their vehicles.
C. Farm use
D. Carbon dioxide is a normal by-product
D. None of these is correct of combustion of carbon-based fuels.

8. Tech A says Carbon Monoxide production 12. Diesels high compression pressure and ex-
is the same in diesel and gasoline engines. cess combustion air lowers the following
Tech B Says high compression and excess exhaust emission to almost insignificant
fuel create low amount of carbon monox- levels.
ide in diesels. Which Tech is correct?
A. Oxides of nitrogen (NOx)
A. Tech A
B. Particulates (PM)
B. Tech B
C. Hydrocarbon (HC)
C. Both Techs
D. Carbon Monoxide (CO)
D. Neither Tech

9. Technician A says Diesel Emissions were 13. Tech A says Overpressure is the leakage of
established in the 1970’s. Technician B air past the piston rings into the crankcase.
says todays Diesels must comply with reg- Tech B says Blowby is the leakage of air
ulations to reduce emissions. past piston rings. Which tech is correct.

A. Tech A A. Tech A
B. Tech B B. Tech B
C. Both Techs C. Both techs
D. Neither Tech D. Neither tech

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4.10 Engine Emissions 498

14. Which organization sets the standards and 19. An engine manufacturer’s diagnostic data
regulations that the all road going car in link connector may contain pins.
the US must comply to? A. 6
A. EURO B. 9
B. CARB C. 8
C. EFI D. A and B only
D. EPA

NARAYAN CHANGDER
20. Tech A says that a HD-OBD will have 6
15. Modern diesel engines emit pins. Tech B says that it will have 9 pins.
A. Much more emissions than gasoline Who is correct?
engines A. Tech A
B. Close to zero emissions B. Tech B
C. Low emissions but with reduced power C. Both Techs
D. Low emissions but with reduced fuel D. Neither Tech
economy
21. Technician A says hydrocarbon emissions
16. Tech A says refining Diesel fuel from oil are formed as a result of fuel that have
naturally adds sulfur to it. Tech B says been burned completely. Technician B
burning fuel with sulfur in it can contribute says fuels are classified ashydrocarbons
to sulfate emissions and pollution like acid because they are made of mostly hydro-
rain. Which Tech is correct? gen and carbon atoms. Who is correct?
A. Tech A A. Tech A
B. Tech B B. Tech B
C. Both Techs C. Both Techs
D. Neither Tech D. Neither Tech

17. The Fastest communication protocol be- 22. Blowby occurs mostly during which engine
tween service tools and vehicle networks cycle
is A. Intake
A. HD-OBD Lightning B. Compression
B. USB-C C. Power
C. Fast FXI D. Exhaust
D. J-1939
23. Technician A says that creating clean diesel
18. Which acronym is associated with the HD- engines has resulted in diesels using more
OBD warning recognition for the operator fuel and less power output compared to
and technician? older engines. Technician B says that even
A. DIL the latest engine technology has not al-
lowed diesels to operate as cleanly as
B. MIL spark ignited gasoline engines. Who is cor-
C. EIL rect?
D. WIL A. Tech A

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4.10 Engine Emissions 499

B. Tech B 29. Low Combustion temperatures and pres-

sure, lack of oxygen, or sufficient burn typ-
C. Both Tech A and B
ically lead to

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D. Neither Tech A or B A. Good fuel economy and power produc-
tion
24. Which of the following is NOT a source of
automotive emissions? B. Volatile organic compound production

A. exhaust C. Blowby
D. Carbon Monoxide
B. engine crankcase
C. evaporative fuel vapors 30. What forms from hydrocarbons, nitrogen
oxides and sunlight?
D. brake fluid master cylinder
A. rain clouds
25. The is basically a silencer to reduce B. photo chemical smog
noise pollution. C. oxygen
A. muffler D. carbon dioxide
B. tailpipe 31. Low combustion temperatures and pres-
C. exhaust manifold sure, lack of oxygen, or insufficient burn
time typically contribute to which emis-
D. exhaust hanger sion?
26. Opacity testing is based on which test? A. Carbon monoxide
B. Carbon dioxide
A. Steiner Clarity Test
C. Oxides of nitrogen
B. CARB Emissions Initiative
D. None of these is correct.
C. EURO Opacity Test
32. Typically carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions
D. The Snap Acceleration Test from diesels are
27. What are fine particles, smoke and soot A. 20-25% lower than equivalent gasoline
from diesel vehicles? engines

A. carbon monoxide B. 90-100% Lower than equivalent gaso-

line engines
B. hydrocarbons
C. 20-25% higher than equivalent gaso-
C. microcarbons line engines
D. particulate matter D. 90-100% Higher than equivalent gaso-
line engines
28. The First standards to reduce Diesel Emis-
sions Started in which year? 33. Which of the following is a colorless, poi-
sonous and odorless gas?
A. 1970
A. carbon dioxide
B. 1984 B. oxygen
C. 1988 C. nitrogen
D. 1990 D. carbon monoxide

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4.10 Engine Emissions 500

34. Tech A says Particulate emissions can 38. Technician A says blow-by is the leak-
be reduced by making the fuel droplets age of air past the piston rings into the
smaller. Tech B says this can be done by crankcase. Technician B says that in any
using higher pressure and more numerous engine, blow-by occurs mostlyduring the
spray holes. Which Tech is Correct? compression stroke. Who is correct?
A. Tech A A. Tech A
B. Tech B B. Tech B

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Both Techs C. Both Techs
D. Neither Tech D. Neither Tech

35. Technician A says that black smoke from 39. Which of these is associated with HD-OBD
the exhaust of a diesel engine is evidence warnings for operators and Technicians?
of particulate emission. Technician B says A. M.I.L
that black smoke is just soot which will B. OBD Lamp
harmlessly fall to the ground. Who is cor-
rect? C. Evap System
A. Tech A D. J-1939

B. Tech B 40. Which of the following statements about

C. Both Techs sulfates is correct?
A. When diesel fuel is refined from
D. Neither Tech
petroleum oil that is pumped from the
36. Tech A says Diesel and Gasoline engines ground, varying quantities of sulfur natu-
both have Evaporative Emissions Controls. rally combine with oil.
Tech B says Modern Diesels Emit close to B. Burning sulfur contained in fuel pro-
Zero emissions. Which Tech is correct? duces sulfate (SO
A. Tech A C. Both A and B
B. Tech B D. Neither A nor B
C. Both Tech 41. A connects the catalytic converter to
D. Neither Tech the muffler.
A. egr valve
37. Technician A says a common strategy to re-
duce particulate formation is to make fuel B. pcv valve
droplets smaller by using finer atomiza- C. evap/carbon canister
tion. Technician B says this is done by us-
D. exhaust pipe
ing higher pressurization of fuel through
an injector with smaller, more numerous 42. Which standards are the set used for Off-
spray holes. Who is correct? Road diesel engines?
A. Tech A A. Tier
B. Tech B B. CARB
C. Both Techs C. EURO
D. Neither Tech D. HD-OBD

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4.10 Engine Emissions 501

43. Thanks to regulations on emissions, on and 48. What smog score is associated with a Zero
off road diesel engine emissions have been Emission Vehicle?
reduced by

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A. 10
A. 5% B. 6
B. 17% C. 5
C. 20% D. 1
D. 29%
49. Fuels are classified as Hydrocarbons be-
44. Technician A says that sometimes, within cause they
an individual country, multiple emissions A. Create Hydrocarbons as part of the
standards are in force. Technician B says combustion process
that for example, two setsof emissions
standards are used in the United States:a B. Form Hydrocarbons when injected at
federal standard and a state standard high pressure
(New York). Who is correct? C. Because they are liquid carbons
A. Tech A D. Because they are mostly made of Hy-
B. Tech B drogen and Carbon.

C. Both Techs 50. What 3 areas is vehicle pollution generally

D. Neither Tech classified?
A. tailpipe, crankcase and evaporative
45. Modern diesels emit close to emis- emissions
sions.
B. engine, tailpipe and transmission
A. 10 parts per million (PPM) emissions
B. 15 parts per million (PPM) C. engine, valvetrain and combustion
C. 20 parts per million (PPM) emissions
D. Zero D. catalytic, engine and exhaust manifold
emissions
46. Carbon monoxide is a result of
A. Incomplete combustion in carbon 51. Tech A Says Off road diesel equipment has
based fuels no regulations. Tech B says Off road diesel
has its own specialized standards called
B. normally engine operation when used Tier Standards. Which tech is correct?
correctly
A. Tech A
C. Bad Evap System
B. Tech B
D. Bad PCV valve
C. Both techs
47. On-and off-highway vehicle emissions D. Neither tech
from the 1970s to present have been re-
duced by 52. The acronym CARB translates to
A. 27% A. Canadian Air Resource Board
B. 13% B. Chinese Air Resource Board
C. 29% C. California Air Resources Board
D. 39% D. Central Air Resource Board

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 4.11 Engine performance 502

53. Volatile organic compounds (VOCs) enter A. Tech A

our atmosphere through evaporative emis- B. Tech B
sions from hydrocarbon-based fuels. The
chemical reaction creates C. Both Techs
A. Ozone D. Neither Tech
B. Nitrogen 57. Technician A says that diesel engine
C. Carbon crankcase vapors are made up of primar-
ily air leaking past the pistons rings and

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Particulate can be vented directly to the atmosphere
54. HD-OBD has specific standards governing since it has no hydrocarbon or fuel in the
which of these? air. Technician B says that crankcase va-
pors are classified as particulate emissions
A. Style, type, and location of electrical and are no vented to the atmosphere on
and diagnostic connections. late model engines. Who is correct?
B. Communication standards, emission A. Tech A
thresholds
B. Tech B
C. The Fault code structure and emission
monitoring system C. Both Techs

D. All of these. D. Neither Tech

55. Opacity testing is based on 58. Technician A says legal emissions stan-
dards aim to reduce and eliminate the pro-
A. A smoke test duction of noxious substances from all in-
B. The Snap Acceleration Test ternal combustion engines, except diesel-
C. A roadside inspection powered vehicles. Technician B says to-
day’s diesel engines also must comply with
D. None of these is correct. standards to reduce emissions. Who is cor-
56. Tech A says Volatile organic compounds rect?
(VOC’s) mix with chemicals in the atmo- A. Tech A
sphere to create Ozone. Tech B says B. Tech B
Diesel and Gasoline engines create the
same amount of VOC’s. Which one is cor- C. Both Techs
rect? D. Neither Tech

4.11 Engine performance

1. Spark plugs either use a design or D. Taper
a washer type of gasket to form a seal
between the spark plug and the cylinder 2. Which of these statements is true?
head. A. Engine cycle time becomes longer at
higher engine speed (N).
A. Combustion
B. Engine cycle time becomes shorter at
B. Rough higher engine speed (N).
C. Smooth C. Engine cycle time is not a function of

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4.11 Engine performance 503

engine speed (N). 8. Cetane is the measure of how diesel fuel

D. none of above

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A. Changes to vapor
3. What is an engines stroke?
B. Ignites
A. TDC-BDC
C. Flows
B. The diameter of the engines cylinder
D. All of the above
C. The radius of the engines cylinder
D. The thickness of the cylinder wall 9. The data processor function of a PCM re-
ceives the data from the input signal pro-
4. Oil is added during a wet compression test, cessing section and compares it to in the
if the compression readings improve, this memory.
would indicate A. Control module charts
A. incorrect valve timing B. Adaptive learning
B. worn valve stem seals C. Data maps
C. a burny valve D. Self-diagnostics
D. worn piston rings
10. Tech A says that an electronic control unit
5. The power output from the crankshaft of (ECU)/power train control module (PCM)
a piston engine can be expressed in is needed to make electronic fuel injection
(EFI) function correctly. Tech B says that
A. Brake Horsepower
most early EFI systems were throttle body
B. Indicated Power injection (TBI) type systems. Who is cor-
C. Friction Power rect?

D. Maximum Continuous Power A. A

B. B
6. Tech A says that OBD I and OBD II DLC
connectors are different from each other. C. Both
Tech B says that OBD II standardizes the D. none
designations for diagnostic trouble codes
(DTC’s). Who is correct? Select one: 11. The most efficient air/fuel mixture is
A. Tech A A. 12.6:1
B. Tech B B. 14.7:1
C. Both A and B C. 18.5:1
D. Neither A nor B D. 20.4:1

7. Here are OBD types except? 12. Automobile engines normally have:
A. MOBD A. four cylinders
B. CARB OBD II B. six cylinders
C. MAS OBD C. eight cylinders
D. EURO OBD D. all of the above

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4.11 Engine performance 504

13. The capacity to do work is C. Intake air temp

A. Power D. none of above
B. Energy
19. After performing a wet compression test,
C. Torque the pressure in each of the cylinders in-
D. Force creased, but remained below specifica-
tions. Tech A says this is caused by in-
14. Engine oil performs which of the following correct valve timing. Tech B says this is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
functions? caused by worn piston rings. Who is cor-
A. It helps cool the engine rect?
B. It lubricates the engine A. TECH A
C. It cleans the engine B. TECH B
D. All of the above C. BOTH A and B

15. When replacing a cylinder head gasket, D. NEITHER

which type of head bolts should allows be
20. Replacement of gaskets in the crankcase
replaced?
to fix oil leaks due to pressure build-up
A. torque to yield will eventually cause Select one:
B. Grade 5 A. The gasket pop out of place again
C. only the failed ones B. Vacuum leaks
D. those showing fatigue C. The EVAP system leak detector to fail
16. Which of the following is the best tool to D. Drivability issues
measure the voltage output from a throt-
tle position sensor? Select one: 21. This sensor measures pressure in the in-
take manifold
A. Scan tool
A. MAP
B. DVOM
C. DMM B. MAF

D. Digital storage oscilloscope (DSO) C. ECT

D. none of above
17. Which of the following is not part of a con-
necting rod 22. A misfire is detected at the #3 cylinder of
A. I-beam a COP ignition system. There is no power
at the Bat+ terminal of the coil. Which of
B. Lobe
the following is the MOST likely cause of
C. cap this condition?
D. bushing A. Resistance in the primary circuit
18. This is an example of a temperature sen- B. An open between the coil and power
sor source
A. Crankshaft position sensor C. A leak in secondary insualation
B. Throttle position sensor D. Resistance in the secondary circuit

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4.11 Engine performance 505

23. In a vehicle, thermistors are used in vari- 28. Tech A says when the vacuum hose is dis-
ous sensors related to:Select one: connected from the vacuum operated fuel
pressure regulator, fuel pressure should in-

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A. pressure.
crease. Tech B says a restricted fuel return
B. temperature. line will cause low fuel rail pressure. Who
C. voltage is correct?

D. speed. A. TECH A
B. TECH B
24. The can also prevent small amounts of
C. BOTH A AND B
water from getting past it because the pa-
per absorbs the water, causing the fibers D. NEITHER
in thefilter to swell.
29. Tech A states that the PCM of an engine
A. Plastic filter gathers information from various sensors
B. Fine mesh filter and components. Tech B states that the
PCM can also process that information
C. Paper filter
based on stored data and command compo-
D. None of the above nents to operate in specified ways. Who
is correct? Select one:
25. Which position of the VIN number contains
A. Tech A
the model year?
B. Tech B
A. 8th
C. Both A and B
B. 4th
D. Neither A nor B
C. 12th
D. 10th 30. If the coil primary circuit has continuity,
the reading should be 12 volts or more
26. The sends a pulse signal to an elec- when:Select one:
tronic ignition module. A. the ignition switch is on, and the red
A. ballast resistor lead of the multimeter is connected to the
secondary output terminal of the coil and
B. pick up coil the black lead to engine ground.
C. ignition coil B. the ignition switch is off, and the red
D. condenser lead of the multimeter is connected to the
positive terminal of the coil and the black
27. the pulse generator lead to engine ground.
A. fires the spark plugs directly C. the ignition switch is in the run posi-
tion, and the red lead or test light is con-
B. signals the electronic control unit
nected to the negative side of the coil and
C. signals the computer that fires the the black lead to a good ground.
spark plugs directly
D. the ignition switch is off, and the red
D. is used as a tachometer reference sig- lead or test light is connected to the neg-
nal by the computer and has no other func- ative side of the coil and the black lead to
tion a good ground.

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4.11 Engine performance 506

31. In an engine management system, work is C. TPS

done by the actuators, which consist of all D. none of above
of the following EXCEPT:
37. Components used by diesel engines to
A. relays.
drain fuel
B. solenoids
A. Modem
C. modules B. Cable
D. capacitors C. Injector

NARAYAN CHANGDER
32. The on and off time of a stepper motor re- D. Battery
lates to its duty cycle, which is generally
38. Low engine power and a vacuum reading
expressed as a:
that drops as RPM increases would indi-
A. percentage. cate
B. numeric value. A. a restricted catalytic convertor
C. binary number. B. the head gaskets are leaking
D. hexi-decimal value. C. worn valve guides
33. For gasoline to burn properly, it must be D. worn thrust bearings
mixed with the right amount of: 39. This sensor calculates engine load by read-
A. carbon. ing engine vacuum
B. air. A. ECT
C. hydrogen. B. MAP
D. lead. C. CMP
D. none of above
34. Octane requirements are affected by:
40. The volumetric efficiency describes the
A. Compression ratio
A. engine ability to pack its cylinders with
B. Intake air temperature
air.
C. Ignition timing
B. output power from the engine volume.
D. All of the above C. engine efficiency when burning one
35. Which of the following does not relate to unit volume of fuel.
modern piston assemblies? D. engine efficiency as determined from
A. Full-floating pin. the volumetric analysis of combustion
products.
B. Press-fit pin.
41. The speed-density method of determin-
C. Bolted piston pin.
ing the amount of air entering the engine
D. Offset piston pin. takes into account all of the following EX-
CEPT:Select one:
36. This sensor interprets gas pedal move-
ment by the driver and allows for precise A. engine rpm.
throttle control B. manifold absolute pressure.
A. ETC C. air temperature.
B. CMP D. spark knock.

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4.11 Engine performance 507

42. Tech A says that an engine will not start 47. Tech A says that E85 contains 15% gaso-
and run if the ignition coil is tracked. Tech line. Tech B says that E85 contains 85%
B says that the engine will not start if the gasoline. Which tech is correct?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

crankshaft position sensor fails. Who is A. Tech A
correct?
B. Tech B
A. Tech A
C. Both A & B
B. Tech B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both
48. Tech A says that partially clocking the air-
D. Neither flow of the radiator on a diesel equipped
vehicle is OK in very cold climates. Tech
43. This sensor will retard engine timing if its B says that vehicles with diesel engines
senses detonation have very large cooling systems as com-
A. Knock sensor pared to those with gasoline engines.
Which tech is correct?
B. ECT
A. Tech A
C. MAF
B. Tech B
D. none of above
C. Both A & B
44. This sensor has its own internal heater? D. Neither A nor B
A. A/F sensor 49. Engine revolutions per minute are moni-
B. HO2S tored by the sensor
A. vehicle speed
C. TPS
B. crankshaft position
D. none of above
C. mass airflow
45. Engine related freeze-frame data can be D. none of above
accessed from the vehicle’s:Select one:
50. two techs are discussing torque wrenches.
A. electronic brake control module Tech A says that a torque wrench is ca-
(EBCM). pable of tightening a fastener with more
B. transmission control module (TCM). torque than a breaker bar or ratchet. Tech
B says that a torque wrench should be cal-
C. power train control module (PCM).
ibrated regularly. Who is correct?
D. body control module (BCM). A. Tech A
46. What is the pressure release valve called B. Tech B
that protects the turbo if the wastegate C. Both
fails on the turbocharger? Select one:
D. Neither
A. Pop-off valve
51. When engine speed increases what hap-
B. Safety rules pens to volumetric efficiency?
C. Blow-off valve A. Increases
D. Cycle valve B. Decreases

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4.11 Engine performance 508

C. Stays the same A. Tech A

D. none of above B. Tech B
52. Work is equal to C. Both A and B
A. the square root of acceleration D. Neither A nor B
B. Force x Distance
57. When installing an aftermarket exhaust
C. Watts x Force system on an OBD II vehicle

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Mass x Acceleration A. a large amount of back pressure is de-
53. A vacuum gauge is connected to a port on sired
the intake manifold of an engine with poor B. follow manufacturer’s specifications
performance. The needle on the gauge fluc-
C. catalytic converter may be eliminated
tuates between 15 ‘’hg and 20 ‘’hg vac-
uum at idle. This vacuum gauge reading D. catalytic converter efficiency is in-
indicates creased
A. a normal condition
58. What is ethanol made from?
B. late ignition valve or timing
A. Corn/grain
C. a burned exhaust valve
B. Coal
D. a restricted exhaust
C. Crude oil
54. the intake manifold of a port fuel injected
engine. D. Apples
A. uses a dual heat riser 59. Tech A says that the PCV system recircu-
B. contains a leaner air fuel mixture than lates exhaust gases into the intake man-
does the intake manifold of a TBI system ifold. Tech B says that the PCV system
recirculates blowby gases into the intake
C. contains only fuel
manifold. Who is correct? Select one:
D. contains only air
A. Tech A
55. A(n) is a device able to electronically
B. Tech B
communicate with and extract data from
the vehicle’s one or more onboard comput- C. Both A and B
ers.Select one: D. Neither A nor B
A. CANBUS controller
60. Tech A says that open loop is when the
B. Scan tool
PCM pretty much ignore s the oxygen sen-
C. Digital storage oscilloscope sor signals. Tech 8 says that closed loop is
D. Emission analyzer when the PCM shuts off the fu e l injector
s during a collision. Who i s correct?
56. Tech A states that contaminants prevents
the exhaust gases from interacting with A. Tech A
the catalyst converter. Tech B states that B. Tech B
lead and silicone contamination cannot gen-
C. Both A and B
erally be cleaned from the catalyst. Who
is correct? Select one: D. Neither A nor B

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4.11 Engine performance 509

61. If the reach is too , the piston B. Propane

may strike the spark plug while moving
C. CNG
up.Select one:

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A. Long D. M85
B. Short 66. Which of the following equipment is used
C. Both A and B to test for voltage drops and high resis-
D. Neither A nor B tance within the primary circuit? Select
one:
62. Tech A says that spark knock, ping and
A. Spark testers
detonation are different names for abnor-
mal combustion. Tech B says that any ab- B. LED test light
normal combustion raises the temperature
and pressure inside the combustion cham- C. Digital multimeter
ber and can cause severe engine damage. D. Standard test light
Which Tech is correct?
A. Tech A 67. Tech A says that fuel injector cleaning can
be done on or off the car. Tech B says that
B. Tech B
fuel injectors can be checked for flow on
C. Both A & B the car by performing an injector balance
D. Neither A nor B test. Which tech is correct?

63. An exhaust system back-pressure test is A. Tech A

used to:Select one: B. Tech B
A. determine whether there is a restric- C. Both A & B
tion that will create low power.
D. Neither A nor B
B. test the boost pressures that the sys-
tem can produce.
68. The throttle body controls airflow with a
C. test the integrity of the exhaust pipes. valve.
D. test for exhaust leaks. A. solenoid
64. The Thermal efficiency of an engine is the B. two-step
A. brake power divided by indicated C. petcock
power
D. butterfly
B. brake power divided by fuel consump-
tion
69. OBDII codes use a series of grouped
C. volume of the charge divided by piston together to identify which system, compo-
displacement nent, or circuit is at fault.Select one:
D. fuel flow divided by piston displace-
A. Letters
ment
B. Numbers
65. Which is the most widely used alternative
fuel? C. Both A and B
A. E85 D. Neither A nor B

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4.11 Engine performance 510

70. Water is formed by the engine when two 75. Which of the following is not the compo-
molecules from the fuel are drawn into nents in the engine management system?
the combustion chamber and are combined A. Multimeter
with one oxygen molecule.Select one:
B. Sensor
A. Sulfur
C. ECU
B. Carbon
D. Actuator
C. Helium

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Hydrogen 76. The section of a PCM contains the soft-
ware for the computer, as well as a place
71. Catalyst monitoring systems are set up to to retain diagnostic trouble codes (DTC’s),
monitor freeze-frame data, and learned data.
A. the efficiency of the catalytic converter A. Memory and storage
B. how rich or lean the vehicle is running B. Sensor input /output signal process-
ing
C. hydrocarbon emission
C. Data processing
D. carbon monoxide emission
D. Output drivers of a PCM contains the
72. Which of these conditions will produce the software for the computer, as well as a
most efficient engine performance? Select place to retain diagnostic trouble codes
all those that apply. (DTC’s), freeze-frame data, and learned
A. Mixture properly leaned data.

B. Aircraft at full throttle height 77. Tech A says that most electric fuel pumps
C. Low RPM and high manifold pressure are now mounted inside of the fuel tank.
Tech B says that fuel flows through the
D. Carburetor heat selected on center of theelectric pump and is used to
cool the pump. Who is correct?
73. LPG tanks are fitted with a special refu-
eling port and an over-fill protection de- A. Tech A
vice an automatic fuel limiter which en- B. Tech B
sures that the tank cannot be filled past
C. Both A and B
the safe fill limit of Select one:
D. Neither A nor B
A. 60%
B. 70% 78. What sensor allows a gasoline engine,
which requires 92 octane, to run fine on
C. 80%
87 octane gas?
D. 90%
A. HO2S
74. What is the color of the Check Engine’s de- B. TP
pery lamp?
C. KS (knock sensor)
A. Red
D. MAF
B. Blue
79. Catalytic converters were introduced in ve-
C. White hicles in the mid and were designed to
D. Yellow orange reduce exhaust emissions.Select one:

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4.11 Engine performance 511

A. 1950’s A. Tech A
B. 1960’s B. Tech B

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C. 1970’s C. Both A & B
D. 1980’s D. Neither A nor B

80. The upper portion of a two part intake 85. Tech A states that the PCM also commu-
manifold is often called the nicates with other electronic control mod-
ules on the vehicle. Tech B states that the
A. housing
PCM is a gateway node that is connected
B. lower part to each of the other networks. Who is cor-
C. plenum rect?
D. vacuum chamber A. Tech A
B. Tech B
81. A normally aspirated engine is one which
C. Both A and B
A. is not fitted with a supercharger or tur-
bocharger D. Neither A nor B

B. has a turbocharger but no super- 86. Manifolds using this type of construction
charger lighten manifold weight by up to 50% and
C. has a supercharger but no tur- contribute to higher fuel efficiency.Select
bocharger one:

D. has both a supercharger and a tur- A. Cast iron

bocharger B. Light alloy metal castings

82. CKP stands for? C. Heat-resistant polymers and plastics

D. Steel
A. Camshaft position sensor
B. Crankshaft position sensor 87. All of these are advantages of electroni-
cally controlled fuel injection over mechan-
C. Balance shaft position sensor
ical injection systems EXCEPT:
D. none of above
A. continuous air fuel adjustments are
83. The pressure between the pump and the possible.
injectors can be maintained by B. reduced emissions are achieved.
A. Varying the speed of the pump C. fuel can be delivered in a continuous
B. Input from the driver stream.
C. Both A and B D. reduced fuel consumption is achieved.
D. None of the above 88. Tech A states that testing the secondary
air injection system starts with checking
84. Tech A says that E85 fuel systems have for any related DTC’s. Tech B states that
more robust components than traditional all new vehicles have a secondary air injec-
gasoline fuel systems. Tech B says that us- tion system. Who is correct? Select one:
ing E85 helps lower America’s dependence
on foreign crude oil. Which tech is cor- A. Tech A
rect? B. Tech B

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4.11 Engine performance 512

C. Both A and B 93. Tech A says that a defective spark plug

D. Neither A nor B boot can cause an engine misfire. Tech B
says that a tracked ignition coil can cause
89. This sensor monitors the temperature of an engine misfire. Who is correct?
the engine coolant A. Tech A
A. ECT B. Tech B
B. EGT C. Both

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. IAT D. Neither
D. none of above
94. Lead substitute can be added to older ve-
90. Tech A says that coolant circulates through hicles to prevent:
some intake manifolds to help warm them
A. Spark knock
up. Tech B says that some intake mani-
folds use an electric heater grid to warm B. Valve problems
up the intake air. Who is correct? Select C. No starts
one
D. Poor gas mileage
A. Tech A
B. Tech B 95. The of gasoline indicates its resistance
to detonation.
C. Both A and B
A. Color
D. Neither A nor B
B. Octane rating
91. Volumetric efficiency can be calculated by
C. Volatility
A. brake power divided by indicated
D. Distillation curve
power
B. brake power divided by fuel consump- 96. Which of these air-fuel mixtures gives
tion good fuel economy and low exhaust emis-
sions suitable for cruising conditions? Se-
C. volume of the charge divided by piston
lect one:
displacement
A. A slightly lean mixture
D. fuel flow divided by brake power
B. A rich mixture
92. Tech A states that the possible causes of
an abnormal exhaust smoke can be re- C. A slightly rich mixture
searched in the appropriate service infor- D. An extremely rich mixture
mation. Tech B states that applicable TSB’s
most likely list the possible causes of an 97. from our atmosphere is converted to
abnormal exhaust. Who is correct? Select usable food for plants by bacteria in the
one: ground.Select one:
A. Tech A A. Helium
B. Tech B B. Nitrogen
C. Both A and B C. Oxygen
D. Neither A nor B D. Argon

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4.11 Engine performance 513

98. why are EGR gases cooled before entering C. Both A and B
the engine on some engines? D. Neither A nor B

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A. cool exhaust gases are more effective
at controlling NOx emissions 103. What is lug torque measured in?
A. centimeters
B. to help prevent the exhaust from slow-
ing down B. psi
C. to prevent damage to the intake valve C. inches
D. to prevent heating the air-fuel mix in D. foot lbs. or newton meters
the cylinder
104. On newer vehicles, the ignition module
99. Two techs are discussing a no start (no functions are completely controlled by the
spark) condition. Tech A says that an open PCM, in many cases eliminating the need
pickup coil could be the cause. Tech B says for an ignition module.Select one:
that a defective ignition control module A. Optional
could be the cause. Who is correct?
B. Internal
A. Tech A C. External
B. Tech B D. None of the above
C. Both
105. Sensor used to tell the computer the
D. Neither amount of O2 in the exhaust stream?
100. A normally aspirated automobile engine A. ECT
loses about power per 1000 feet of B. EST
altitude.
C. TP
A. 1%
D. HO2S
B. 5%
106. A vehicle emitting smoke from it’s
C. 3%
tailpipe at idle. Which of the following is
D. 6% causing this condition?
101. What is the engine displacement of a V6 A. A leaking fuel injector
engine with a cylinder displacement of 5.5 B. worn piston rings
cubic inches.Formula = Cylinder Displace-
C. a blown head gasket
ment X # of cylinders
D. leaking valve seals
A. 33 cubic inches
B. 23 cubic inches 107. Tech A states that contact breaker point
ignition systems were used on earlier ve-
C. 13 cubic inches
hicles. Tech B states that these systems
D. 22135 square inches required regular maintenance to run prop-
erly. Who is correct? Select one:
102. Manufacturers design their ignition sys-
tems to have an amount of above the A. Tech A
so that misfire is prevented. B. Tech B
A. Required voltage; reserve voltage C. Both A and B
B. Reserve voltage; required voltage D. Neither A nor B

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4.11 Engine performance 514

108. Compression Ratio compares what in an 113. Tech A states that an engine can burn liq-
engine? uid fuel efficiently to produce power. Tech
A. Volume at TDC vs BDC B states that the liquid fuel must be vapor-
ized fullybefore it can be ignited. Who is
B. Area at TDC vs BDC correct?
C. Perimeter at TDC vs BDC
A. Tech A
D. Cubic Inches at TDC vs BDC
B. Tech B
109. An injector pressure drop test to see if

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the injector is restricted with deposits can C. Both A and B
be done using a(n):Select one: D. Neither A nor B
A. oscilloscope.
114. Federal regulations of sulfur content limit
B. pulse tool.
over the road diesel fuel to
C. digital multimeter.
A. 15 PPM
D. fuel line release tool.
B. 30 PPM
110. Here are the types of sensors except?
C. 0 PPM
A. Air flow sensor
D. 87 PPM
B. Coolant temperature sensor
C. Pressure relief valve 115. While testing intake manifold vacuum, a
D. Knock Sensor steady reading of 17 to 20 inches of mer-
cury would indicate
111. Thinking about the Power Available (also
known as Brake Power) and Power Re- A. a good vacuum reading
quired curves, when graphed against TAS, B. a manifold leak
which statement is correct? The dif-
ference between the curves represents C. late ignition timing
power losses due to D. weak valve springs
A. engine friction
B. propeller inefficiency 116. The is hardware related and makes up
the physical portion of the PCM.
C. propeller inefficiency and engine fric-
tion A. Output drivers section
D. drag B. Memory and storage section

112. Avoid topping off the fuel tank because: C. Data processing section
A. It can saturate the charcoal canister D. Signal processing section
B. The extra fuel supply simply spills onto
the ground 117. MAF stands for?
C. The extra fuel increases vehicle A. Mass air flow
weight B. Mass air function
D. The extra fuel goes into the expansion
C. Multi air form
area of the tank and is not used by the en-
gine. D. none of above

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4.11 Engine performance 515

118. The PCM uses all of these inputs to cal- 123. The spark timing for distributorless igni-
culate air flow ratio and speed control EX- tion systems is controlled by the Select
CEPT one:

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A. An engine coolant temperature sensor A. TPS
(ECT
B. PCM
B. An exhaust gas recirculation valve
C. TCM
(EGR
D. EGR
C. An intake air temperature sensor (AIT
D. A throttle position sensor (TPS 124. Tech A says that for any fuel to burn ef-
ficiently, it must be vaporized and fully
119. In an evaporative system, the stores mixed with the proper amount of air. Tech
fuel vapors B says that small particles make it much
easier to vaporize the fuel. Who is cor-
A. purge solenoid
rect?
B. diverter valve
A. A
C. carbon canister
B. B
D. PCV valve
C. Both
120. Concerning diesel fuel, what is the term D. Neither
for the temperature when the wax in
diesel fuel begins to crystallize and clog 125. PCM stands for
filters?
A. Powertrain control module
A. Cloud point
B. Pez candy machine
B. Fluidity
C. Positive Crankshaft movement
C. Cetane
D. none of above
D. Really cold
126. Power is
121. The engine control module uses tempera-
A. the rate of doing work
ture, speed, and load to control the pluse
width of a B. equal to Force x Distance
A. fuel injector C. the capacity to do work
B. vacuum solenoid D. a turning or twisting force
C. diverter valve 127. Tech A says a vacuum leak can cause a
D. purge solenoid lean condition. Tech B says a faulty O2
sensor can cause a lean condition. Who is
122. Volatility is measured with correct?
A. Reid Vapor Pressure A. Tech A
B. A ruler B. Tech B
C. Volatility Bar C. Both
D. PSI D. none of above

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4.11 Engine performance 516

128. What is associated if the check engine 134. What grade is most diesel fuel?
lamp is on?
A. Grade 1
A. Failure to the sensor
B. Grade 2
B. Tires leaked
C. Grade 3
C. Engine jem
D. Grade 4
D. Related to lubrication sitem
135. Vapor lock can occur:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
129. The PCV System
A. As a result of excessive heat near fuel
A. reduces crankcase emissions
lines
B. is designed to improve fuel economy
B. If using a winter blend fuel in warm cli-
C. is designed to improve cold starts mate
D. reduces exhaust temperatures C. During both A and B
130. KS stands for D. During neither A nor B
A. Knock sound
136. Sensor used to tell the computer how
B. Knock sensor much air the engine is taking in though the
C. Kangaroo squeal throttle?
D. none of above A. MAP

131. Tech A says low fuel pressure can cause a B. MAF

no start. Tech B says a cracked spark plug C. AFS
can cause a no start. Who is correct?
D. IAT
A. Tech A
B. Tech B 137. The higher the octane rating:

C. Both A. The harder it is to ignite the fuel

D. none of above B. The more fuel the engine will consume
C. The longer it takes to fill the tank
132. Sensor used to tell the computer the tem-
perature of the engine coolant? D. The more prone to detonation the fuel
A. ECT will be

B. EST 138. When lifting a vehicle, once the vehicle is

C. TP lifted three feet in the air, the lift should
be stopped, and what should? be done
D. HO2S
A. Rock the car back and forth to make
133. All of the following are by-products of in- sure it’s stable
complete combustion except:
B. Place jack stands under the car
A. FE
C. Get a second person to help the car be
B. NOx lifted the rest of the way
C. HC D. Walk away from the lift and start an-
D. CO other job

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4.11 Engine performance 517

139. “Rated Power” is the brake power de- 144. Sensor used to inform the ECM the posi-
veloped by an engine in good condition un- tion of the throttle valve?
der

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A. ECT
A. standard conditions and at a stated B. TCP
RPM
C. TP
B. full throttle
D. APP
C. standard conditions and full throttle
height 145. Tech A says that the engine fuel can be
D. full throttle and at service ceiling created by refining crude oil. Tech B says
that hydrocarbons are a combination of
140. For a gasoline engine, the optimum air to carbon and diesel fuel. Which technician
fuel ratio by mass is about: is right?
A. 12.1:1. A. Tech A
B. 14.7:1. B. Tech B
C. 16.3:1. C. Both A & B
D. 18.5:1. D. Neither A nor B
141. Bidirectional scanners:Select one: 146. The term “stoichiometric ratio” describes
A. can be used to cause various compo- the chemically correct air-fuel ratio neces-
nents to operate on many vehicles. sary to achieve all of these EXCEPT:
B. can only extract data from the vehi- A. complete combustion of the fuel and
cle’s one or more on-board computers. air.
C. are used to place a fault in a computer B. good fuel economy.
system. C. maximum engine power.
D. can only be used to detect engine D. reasonably clean emissions.
faults.
147. This sensor is usually located on the
142. Which of the following measurement transmission and provides information
equipment is used to measure Voltage Sen- about vehicle speed?
sor readings? A. CMP
A. ‘Thermometer. B. VSS
B. ‘Vernier Caliper’. C. MAP
C. ‘Multimeter’. D. none of above
D. Dial Gauge’.
148. The design uses a one-way valve to
143. The emission control system that edmits hold pressure in the system while the pres-
air into the exhaust system is known as sure tester is connected and disconnected
a/an to thefuel rail.
A. PCV system A. O-ring valve
B. clean air package B. Quick-connect valve
C. air injection system C. Schrader valve
D. EGR valve D. Fuel pressure tester valve

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4.11 Engine performance 518

149. Which of these usually increases primar- 154. Which position of the VIN number con-
ily because of the growing gap of the spark tains the engine identification?
plug as it wears over time? Select one: A. 8th
A. Required voltage B. 4th
B. Available voltage C. 12th
C. Reserve voltage D. 10th
D. Primary voltage 155. which component is not in the primary ig-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
nition system?
150. Witch of the following is part of the cylin-
der head? A. spark plug wires

A. combustion chamber B. ignition module

C. pick up coil
B. intake and exhaust ports
D. ignition switch
C. valve guides
D. all of the above 156. a waste spark type of ignition system..
A. fires two spark plugs at a time
151. Force is equal to
B. fires one spark plug wit reverse polar-
A. Acceleration x Mass ity
B. Power x Time C. fires one spark plug with straight po-
larty
C. Distance x Torque
D. all of the choices are correct
D. Brake Power x Distance
157. A carries fuel from the tank to the
152. Torque is engine.Select one:
A. what some IAANZ students do too A. Fuel pump
much of
B. Fuel filler neck
B. a force which produces a turning mo-
C. Fuel rail
tion
D. Fuel supply line
C. measured in Joules
158. A plastigage is used to determine
D. the capacity to do work
A. piston clearance
153. A monitor is a computer’s test of its B. main and rod bearing clearance
system components and circuits for mal-
functions that would cause emissions C. valve spring clearance
to increase times more than FTP D. crankshaft end play
(Federal Test Procedures) regulations al-
lowed.Select one: 159. Tech A says that scavenging creates a
low pressure in the cylinder by means of
A. 1.5 the exhaust gases flowing through the ex-
B. 2.5 haust pipe. Tech B says that increased
back pressure in the exhaust system in-
C. 3
creases the scavenging effect. Who is cor-
D. 3.5 rect? Select one:

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4.11 Engine performance 519

A. Tech A B. Removing the intake manifold and us-

B. Tech B ing a crushed walnut shell blaster to blast
away the carbon

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C. Both A and B
C. Removing the intake manifold and us-
D. Neither A nor B ing a chemical cleaner to soften and dis-
160. Name the gauge used to measure the solve the carbon so it can be removed
pressure of the Efi API system system? D. Induction cleaning
A. Fuel pressure gauge 165. The vehicle identification number (VIN) is
B. Fuel gauge how many characters long?
C. Pressure high gauge A. 15
D. Temperature gauge B. 17
C. 21
161. What is the volumetric efficiency of an en-
gine that intakes 40 cubic inches of air and D. 18
a cylinder displace of 50 cubic inches. For-
166. The opening of an engine’s valves is con-
mula= Volume of air taken into cylinder/
trolled by
cylinder displacement
A. crankshaft
A. 80 %
B. valve springs
B. 70 %
C. intake manifold
C. 60 %
D. camshaft
D. 50 %
167. What is a micrometer used for?
162. Which manual contains information refer-
ring to the amount of time it would take A. To measure wheel base
to complete a repair? B. To check tire pressure
A. Service manual C. To determine temperature
B. Owner’s manual D. Precision measurements
C. Flat-rate or Labor guide manual 168. A vehicle with a full tank of gas was
D. Lubrication manual driven for 400 miles and then refilled with
20 gallons of fuel. How many miles to the
163. to 1 is what ratio gallon did the vehicle get on the trip?
A. Stoichiometric A. 20 mpg
B. air/fuel B. 10 mpg
C. optimum fuel efficiency ratio C. 15 mpg
D. all of the above D. 30 mpg
164. In GDI engines, which of the following is 169. MAP stands for?
the least risky way to remove the carbon
A. Monster atmospheric pressure
on intake valves and runners, especially if
the buildup is very heavy? Select one: B. Manifold absolute pressure
A. Removing the cylinder head, disassem- C. Metric assembly pressure
bling it, and cleaning it D. none of above

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4.11 Engine performance 520

170. Atmospheric pressure is psi at sea 176. Winter blend gasoline

level.
A. Vaporizes more easily than summer
A. 14.5 blend gasoline
B. 14.6 B. Has a higher RVP
C. 14.7
C. Can cause engine drivability problems
D. 14.8 if used during warm weather
171. Types of fuel line connections include all D. All of the above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
of these EXCEPT:
177. A flex fuel vehicle can be identified by
A. banjo bolt fittings.
B. quick couplings. A. Emblems ont he vehicle

C. flare fittings. B. VECI

D. head bolts C. VIN

172. What is the cylinder displacement of an D. Any of the above

engine with a bore of 4.5 “ and a stroke
of 2.75”? Formula = .7854 X D2 X Stroke 178. Which position of the VIN number con-
tains the country of origin?
A. 43.75 cubic inches
A. 1st
B. 43.75 square inches
C. 34.75 inches B. 4th

D. 23.52 cubic inches C. 12th

173. The passenger side is called the side. D. 10th

A. Left 179. What does engine performance not tell us

B. Right about an engine?
C. Front A. Country of Origin
D. Depends on how the vehicle is viewed B. Capability
174. How many crankshaft rotations are C. Power
needed to complete the four stroke cycle
D. Emission ratings
A. one
B. two 180. Tech A says that a GM HEI distributor ro-
tor can burn through and cause an engine
C. three miss during acceleration. Tech B says that
D. four a defective spark plug wire can cause an
engine miss during acceleration. Who is
175. For a non-supercharged engine, the criti-
correct?
cal altitude of an aircraft will be close to
A. Tech A
A. sea level
B. full throttle height B. Tech B
C. service ceiling C. Both
D. none of above D. Neither

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4.11 Engine performance 521

181. A(n) is turned by the crankshaft, com- B. VIN number

presses the air, and forces it into the en- C. Casting numbers
gine.Select one:

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D. All of the above
A. Supercharger
B. Turbocharger 186. A variation in pulse width at a fixed fre-
quency is called:
C. Plenum chamber
A. duty cycle.
D. Helmholtz resonator
B. analog cycle
182. A vehicle with an enhanced EVAP system C. pulse-width modulation
is scanned and a code indicating a small
evaporative emissions leak is detected. A D. digital cycle.
loose or cracked gas cap is suspected. tech- 187. Which sensor produces a square signal
nician A says the cap will not illuminate the wave?
check engine light. Technician B says the
tank a sensor contains a sensor. The PCM A. magnetic sensor
will detect low tank pressure, set a code B. hall effect sensor
and check engine light. who is correct? C. optical sensor
A. Tech A D. both an optical and hall effect sensor
B. Tech B
188. Tech A says that some intake manifolds
C. Both A and B are plastic. Tech B says that some intake
D. Neither manifolds are constructed in two parts or
sections. Who is correct?
183. Tech A says that by adding 10% ethanol
A. Tech A
to gasoline it raises octane by 3 points.
Tech B says that E85 can be used in any B. Tech B
modern vehicle. Which tech is correct? C. Both
A. Tech A D. Neither
B. Tech B
189. Bio-diesel is made from which prod-
C. Both A & B uct(s)?
D. Neither A nor B A. Vegetable oil
184. About how much signal voltage is gener- B. Animal fat
ated by a throttle position sensor at closed C. Used restaurant greases
throttle? Select one:
D. Any of the above
A. 1 volt
190. This sensor uses voltage signals to in-
B. 10 volts form the ECM about the stoichiometric ra-
C. 50 volts tio
D. 100 volts A. TPS
185. What numbers can be found as part of B. MAP
the engine block? C. A/F Ratio sensor
A. RPO numbers D. none of above

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4.11 Engine performance 522

191. This sensor monitors the position of the 196. Tech A states that a relay is a controlled
camshaft device that receives signals from the PCM .
A. CMP Tech B states that a solenoid is a controlled
device that receives signals from the PCM.
B. CKP Who is correct?
C. TPS A. Tech A
D. none of above B. Tech B

NARAYAN CHANGDER
192. why do many port fuel injected engines C. Both Tech A and B
use long intake manifold runners?
D. Neither A nor B
A. to reduce exhaust emissions
197. ECT stands for?
B. to heat the incoming air
A. Electronic control tower
C. to increase high RPM power
B. Engine Coolant temperature
D. to increase low RPM torque
C. Engine calibration timer
193. In an engine management system, moni-
D. none of above
tor various operating conditions.
A. Memory devices 198. What is brake horsepower?
B. Sensors A. Usable HP produced by the engine
C. Control modules B. Power transmitted to the pistons from
D. Data processors burning fuel
C. How much power goes to the wheels
194. Tech A says that a slightly lean mixture
offers good fuel economy and low exhaust D. Amount of brake pressure
emissions. Tech B says that a mixture that
199. Two techs are discussing a turbocharged
is too rich fouls spark plugs and causes in-
engine. Tech A says the wastegate is
complete burning. Who is correct? Select
a component used to control boost pres-
one:
sure. Tech B says when opened, the waste-
A. Tech A gate diverts exhaust gas from the turbine
B. Tech B wheel. Who is correct?
C. Both Techs A and B A. Tech A
D. Neither Tech A nor B B. Tech B
C. Both A and B
195. When the oxygen sensor reaches its op-
erating temperature, around , it sends D. Neither
an output voltage to the control unit to sig-
nal whether the mixture is richer or leaner 200. The main advantage of the distributor-
than a lambda value of 1.Select one: less ignition system is the elimination of all
the mechanical parts included in a distrib-
A. 350◦ F utor assembly such as all of the following
B. 400◦ F EXCEPT:Select one:
C. 600◦ F A. bushings.
D. 750◦ F B. bearings.

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4.11 Engine performance 523

C. the breaker plate assembly. C. Flat-rate or Labor guide manual

D. cam angle sensors. D. Lubrication guide

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201. The VECI label can include all except
207. Volatility is the measure of how easily
A. Engine identification fuel
B. Horsepower & torque ratings A. Condenses
C. Sprak plug type
B. Evaporates
D. Valve lash adjustment
C. Burns
202. ECU engine receives signal from?
D. Flows
A. Sensor
B. Raw 208. In which of the following orders do the
strokes of a four stroke engine occur?
C. Oil
D. Window A. exhaust, intake, power, compression
B. compression, power, intake, exhaust
203. All of the following can be made from re-
fining crude oil except: C. intake, compression, power, exhaust
A. Gasoline D. power, exhaust, compression, intake
B. Kerosene
C. Chassis grease 209. exhaust passages are included in some in-
take manifolds. Tech A says that the ex-
D. Oil filters haust passages are used for exhaust gas
204. What is torque recirculation systems. Tech B says that the
exhaust heat is used to warm the intake
A. Rotational or twisting force around a charge on some engines. Who is correct?
fixed point
A. Tech A
B. Diesel Engines
C. How fast work is done B. Tech B

D. The Crankshaft C. Both

205. The order describing the operation of a D. Neither

four-stroke engine is intake, compression
power, and 210. Tech A says that most fuel-injected vehi-
cles use one or two electrical pumps to sup-
A. air-fuel ply the fuel system with pressurized fuel.
B. intake closes Tech B says that with today’s systems, a
C. exhaust fuel pump is likely to be located inside the
fuel tank. Who is correct?
D. crankshaft
A. A
206. Which manual contains information refer-
ring tot he operation of the MAP sensor? B. B

A. Service manual C. Both A and B

B. Owner’s manual D. Neither

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4.11 Engine performance 524

211. Identify the test in which a hole is drilled A. MAF

in the exhaust pipe in front of the con- B. IAT
verter so that an emission analyzer tube
can be inserted into the exhaust stream C. TPS
entering the converter:Select one: D. none of above
A. EGR test 216. The a PCM typically sends either simple
B. Intrusive test on/off signals or pulse width-modulated
signals to the actuators, depending on the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Idling five-gas test actuator being controlled.
D. Purge flow test A. Output drivers section
212. Mechanical efficiency involves the rela- B. Memory and storage section
tionship between power input and power C. Data processing section
output. It can be calculated by;
D. Signal processing section
A. brake power divided by indicated
power 217. Cleaners and detergents are available

B. brake power divided by fuel consump-

tion A. As an additive
B. In detergent gasoline
C. volume of the charge divided by piston
displacement C. Both A & B
D. fuel flow divided by brake power D. Neither A nor B

213. The engine misfire monitor directly de- 218. IAT stands for
tects a fault by monitoring:Select one: A. Internal air temperature
A. crankshaft rpm. B. Intake air temperature
B. exhaust emissions. C. Inside air test
C. cylinder head temperature. D. none of above
D. transmission output shaft rpm. 219. What is the torque of an engine that
reads 178 horsepower rotating at 1850
214. The EPA requires that the malfunction in- RPM. Formula = (5252 X Horsepower) /
dicator lamp (MIL) turn on and one or more RPM
specific diagnostic trouble codes (DTC’s) be
A. 505 LB-FT
set in memory:Select one:
B. 505 Cubic inches
A. whenever emissions are released.
C. 5.25 Lb-Ft
B. when emissions cross the FTP (Fed-
eral Test Procedure) limit. D. 5252

C. when emissions are twice the FTP 220. A high percentage of oxygen may mean
limit.
D. when emissions are 1.5 times the FTP A. Too little fuel is entering the engine
limit. B. The mixture is too lean
215. What sensor monitors the amount of air C. Lambda is greater than 1
entering the engine? D. All of the above

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4.11 Engine performance 525

221. The most important job of the fuel system 226. Cylinder Displacement is what?
is to optimize engine performance while: A. total volume displaced during one

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A. keeping fuel consumption and emis- stroke
sions to a minimum. B. amount of air inside the cylinder vs
B. keeping car owners happy with accept- how much there could be
able vehicle performance. C. Piston size
C. making sure all DMV rules are adhered D. Fuel usage
to.
D. making sure the highest miles-per- 227. The stoichiometric ratio, also referred to
gallon are achieved. as lambra, is the ratio of air to fuel at
which all of the oxygen in the air and all
222. The specific gravity of diesel fuel is mea- the fuel are completely burned. The stoi-
sured in what units? chiometric ratio for gasoline is:Select one:
A. Hydrometer units A. 34.3:1.
B. API gravity B. 17.2:1.
C. Grade number C. 15.7:1.
D. Cetane number D. 14.7:1.

223. Output device that the computer can use 228. What is engine Bore
to adjust the idle speed of the motor? A. The diameter of the engines cylinder
A. IMA B. The diameter of a piston
B. IOU C. TDC-BDC
C. IAC D. Radius of an engines cylinder
D. IAT
229. Tech A says that a cracked exhaust man-
224. When the oxygen sensor reaches its op- ifold can affect engine operation. Tech B
erating temperature, around, it sends an says that a leaking lower intake manifold
output voltage to the control unit to sig- gasket could cause a vacuum leak. Who is
nal whether the mixture is richer or leaner correct?
than a lambda value of 1. A. Tech A
A. 350◦ F B. Tech B
B. 400◦ F C. Both
C. 600◦ F D. Neither
D. 750◦ F
230. Tech A states that engine management
225. a reluctor is a systems were born out of a need for
A. type of sensor used in the secondary greater efficiency and emission control.
circuit Tech B states that the engine management
system controls the operation of the en-
B. notched ring or pointed wheel gine and all of its related system. Who is
C. type of optical sensor correct? Select one:
D. type of hall effect sensor A. Tech A

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4.11 Engine performance 526

B. Tech B C. TPS
C. Both A and B D. none of above
D. Neither A nor B 236. Tech A states that ignition modules are
used in virtually every type of ignition sys-
231. The vehicle’s VIN number can be located:
tem except the contact breaker point sys-
A. Dash tem. Tech B states that ignition modules
B. B pillar are also used in the contact breaker point
system. Who is correct? Select one:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. VECI label
A. Tech A
D. All of the above
B. Tech B
232. In which city would you find oxygenated
C. Both A and B
fuel sold?
D. Neither A nor B
A. New York City
B. Denver 237. Which engine CANNOT be pushed to high
N?
C. Dallas
A. SIE
D. Miami
B. CIE
233. Donut gaskets use wound steel and C. Both SIE & CIE
filler material, which is shaped into a
round design that, when installed in ball- D. Any engine can be pushed easily to
shaped pipe, provides seal while allowing high N
the pipes to be joined even if they are 238. The on and off time of a stepper motor re-
slightly out of line.Select one: lates to its duty cycle, which is generally
A. Spherical expressed as a:Select one:
B. Cylindrical A. percentage.
C. Spiral B. numeric value.
D. None of the above C. binary number.
D. hexi-decimal value.
234. Tech A says a stuck closed (EGR) exhaust
gas recirculating valve will cause an engine 239. A fuel cell is an electrochemical device
to stumble or fall. Tech B says a stuck open that combines hydrogen and oxygen to
EGR valve will cause detonation. Who is produce Select one:
correct?
A. Water
A. Tech a
B. Syngas
B. Tech B
C. Sulfur
C. Both A and B
D. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Neither
240. HP is equal to approximately how many
235. This sensor is located on the throttle body kiloWatts?
A. CMP A. 75
B. CKP B. 125

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4.11 Engine performance 527

C. 150 A. Gasoline direct injection (GDI)

D. 175 B. Throttle body injection (TBI)

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241. Which type of fuel additive is used at C. Multipoint fuel injection (MPFI)
high altitude to compensate for low O2 D. Electronic fuel injection (EFI)
content?
A. Octane improvers 245. What is the compression ratio of an en-
gine with a clearance volume of 5 cubic
B. Kerosene
inches and cylinder displacement of 30 cu-
C. Oxygenated fuel additive bic inches? Formula = (CD + CV) / CV
D. Dye A. 7:1
242. Tech A says that the firing line shows the B. 8:1
voltage that is required to fire the spark
C. 9:1
plug. Tech B says that spark line shows
the duration of the spark inside the cylin- D. 10:1
der. Who is correct?
246. During what Connecting Socket should be
A. Tech A connected to the vehicle?
B. Tech B
A. Engine off key off
C. Both
B. Engine off key on
D. Neither
C. Engine on key off
243. If the EGR valve of a vehicle is stuck in
D. Engine on key on
an open position, the engine will Select
one: 247. A multi-port fuel injection system
A. Idle excessively rough A. injects fuel through the air induction
B. Display signs of knocking system
C. Ping B. injects fuel into the intake manifold
D. Seize near the valve
C. uses a choke plate for cold weather op-
244. Which of these fuel systems places the
eration
fuel injectors in the cylinder head where
they can spray fuel directly into the com- D. distributes fuel through the throttle
bustion chamber? body

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 5. FLUID MECHANICS

NARAYAN CHANGDER
5.1 Basics
1. Which of the following correctly completes C. Hydrodynamics
the following statement? “Several cans D. none of above
of different sizes and shapes are all filled
with the same liquid to the same depth. 4. Venturimeter is a instrument designed by
Then, “
A. The pressure on the bottom of each A. G. B. Simon
can is the same
B. G. B. Venturi
B. The weight of the liquid on the bottom
of each can is the same C. Pascal

C. The least pressure is at the bottom of D. Boyles

the can with the largest bottom area
5. Cold air exerts pressure than warm
D. the force of the liquid on the bottom of air.
each can is the same
A. the same
2. A beaker is filled with a liquid up to the B. more
mark of one litre and weighed. The weight
of the liquid is found to be 6.5 N. The spe- C. less
cific weight of the liquid will be D. none of above
A. 6.5 kN / m3
6. to store water during the rainy season
B. 6.6 kN / m3 when there is a large flow in the river
C. 6.7 kN / m3 A. STORAGE DAMS
D. 6.8 kN / m3 B. DIVERSION DAMS
3. Study of fluids in motion C. DETENTION DAMS
A. Fluid statics D. DEBRIS DAM
B. Fluid dynamics E. COFFER DAMS

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5.1 Basics 529

7. You are designing an experiment to mea- 12. Natural flow is

sure the viscosity of a substance. You A. a fluid motion
think that if you take a marble with a

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known mass and drop it in various sub- B. due to natural means such as the buoy-
stances; you will get one of the following ancy effect, which manifests itself as the
results: rise of cooler (and denser) fluid and the
fall of warmer (and lighter) fluid.
A. The marble will drop fastest in the
most viscous liquid. C. is due to natural means such as the
buoyancy effect, which manifests itself as
B. The marble will drop the fastest in the the rise of warmer (and lighter) fluid and
least viscous liquid. the fall of cooler (and denser) fluid.
C. The marble will not fall in any of the D. a fluid that is forced to flow over a sur-
liquids. face or in a pipe by external means such
D. The marble will drop at the same as pump or fan.
speed in all liquids.
13. Bernoulli’s principle:Air is flowing through
8. When weight of an object falling freely be- a rocket nozzle. Inside the rocket the air
comes equal to the drag force, then the has a density of 5.25 kg/m3 and a speed
body will move with: of 1.20 m/s. The interior diameter of the
A. Increasing speed rocket is 15.0 cm. At the nozzle exit, the
diameter is 2.50 cm and the density is
B. Decreasing speed
1.29 kg/m3. What is the speed of the
C. Constant speed air when it leaves the nozzle?
D. Constant acceleration A. 123 m/s
9. An Ideal Plastic Fluid has a constant B. 176 m/s
A. shear stress C. 88.0 m/s
B. yield stress D. 45.7 m/s
C. density E. 29.3 m/s
D. specific gravity 14. Viscosity can be described as
10. A is a material that can flow and take A. a physical property of liquids
the shape of its container.
B. a physical property of solids
A. force
C. a chemical property of liquids
B. mass
D. none of above
C. fluid
15. An average man is 850 N and the area of
D. density
the shoes he is standing on is 0.0098 m2.
11. It states that systems in thermal equilib- What is the approximate pressure he is ex-
rium are at the same temperature. erting on the ground?
A. First Law of Thermodynamics A. 87, 000 N/m2
B. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics B. 8, 700 N/m2
C. Second Law of Thermodynamics C. 870 N/m2
D. none of above D. 87 N/m2

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5.1 Basics 530

16. Which direction does buoyant force al- 21. What is a fluid that has no internal friction
ways push? or viscosity and is incompressible?
A. downward A. Fluid Flow
B. upward B. Formal Fluid
C. all directions C. Frictionless Fluid
D. sponge bob
D. Ideal Fluid
17. Ratio of the density of a substance to that

NARAYAN CHANGDER
of water 22. Two fluids 1 and 2 have mass densities of
p1 and p2 respectively. If p1 > p2, which
A. Pressure one of the following expressions will rep-
B. Gravity resent the relation between their specific
C. Specific Density volumes v1 and v2?
D. Specific Gravity A. v1 > v2

18. In 1883, performed a classic set of B. v1 < v2

experiments that showed that the flow C. v1 = v2
characteristic can be predicted using a di-
D. Cannot be determined due to insuffi-
mensionless number, now known as the
cient information.
Reynolds number.
A. Osborne Reynolds 23. The formula for work is:
B. Reynolds Feyman A. d = r x t
C. James Reynolds B. p = m x v
D. Ryan Reynolds C. f = m x a
19. What’s the difference between Cohesion D. w = d x f
and Adhesion?
A. Cohesion is the attraction between the 24. Which one of these are (fluid properties)
same substance and Adhesion is the at- (select more than one answer)
traction of different substances A. fluid density
B. they both attract different substances B. fluid speed
C. They both attract the same substance C. fluid viscosity
D. They don’t attract anything D. fluid specific gravity
20. A balloon filled with air is compressed to
25. The hose nozzle has two settings:one with
half its initial volume. If the tempera-
a small opening and one with a large open-
ture inside the balloon remains constant,
ing. Which setting will make water spray
what happens to the pressure inside the
the farthest?
balloon?
A. It doubles. A. large opening
B. It is half its original value. B. small opening
C. It is 4 times as great. C. same
D. It remains the same. D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 531

26. bar equals to Pascals. 31. For incompressible fluids, density changes
little with changes in what?
A. 105Pa
A. Depth

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B. 1.5 x 106 Pa
B. Temperature
C. 100 Pa
C. Pressure
D. 1000 Pa D. Gravitational acceleration
27. A loaded ship passes from a lake (fresh 32. Fluids flow
water) to the ocean (saltwater). Saltwa- A. from regions of low pressure to re-
ter is more dense than fresh water and as gions of high pressure.
a result the ship will:
B. only when warmed up.
A. ride higher in the water C. from high to low pressure.
B. settle lower in the water D. until evenly spread out.
C. ride at the same level in the water 33. Which of the following is not an example
D. experience an increase in buoyant of units for expressing pressure?
force A. N/m2
B. kg/m2
28. Find the diameter (in mm) of a water
droplet when the pressure inside is 0.05 C. atm
N/cm2 and surface tension is 0.075 N/m D. Pa
A. 0.6 34. Timber dams are made for small heads (2-
B. 0.3 4 m or, rarely, 4-8 m) and usually have
sluices
C. 3
A. deck type buttress dam
D. 6 B. STEEL DAMS
29. The flow of fluid will be laminar when, C. TIMBER DAMS
D. multiple-arch type buttress dam
A. Reynold’s number is less than 2000
E. massive-head type buttress dam
B. the density of the fluid is low
35. Newtonian fluids are
C. both a. and b.
A. Ideal Fluids
D. .none of the above
B. Sublime Fluids
30. Assuming there is an ideal flow, what hap- C. Viscous Fluids
pens to the pressure if there has been D. Real Fluids
an increase in the elevation of a uniform
pipeline? 36. Example of this flow classification are
flow through a pipe/duct
A. it increases
A. external flow
B. it decreases B. internal flow
C. it remains the same C. viscous flow
D. cannot be determined D. inviscid flow

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5.1 Basics 532

37. A water balloon weighing 9.6 N rests on 41. The buoyant force on an object equals 50
a table. The balloon has an area of 8.8 x N. What is the weight of the displaced wa-
10-3 m2 in contact with the table. What ter?
pressure does the balloon exert on the ta- A. 50 N
ble?
B. 50 lbs
A. 0.8448 Pa
C. 50 N/9.8 m/sec2
B. 85578.24 Pa
D. not enough information given

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 0.0092 Pa
42. A 1 kg body whirled at a constant speed of
D. 1.1 x 103 Pa 5.0 m/s around a horizontal circular track
with a radius of 2 meters is accelerated at
38. A block of wood has a density of 0.820 2
Hint:The Formula is ac = vr and Fc =
g/cm3 and dimensions of 19.0 cm, 9.0 cm ma
and 4.0 cm. How large a force will just m
submerge the block in a vat of oil with a A. 12.5 s2
density of 0.920 g/cm3 m
B. 6.25 s2
m
A. 67 N C. 10 s2
B. 0.67 N D. 2.5 sm2
C. 7 N 43. It is fluid entering the region between
D. 6 N cross-sections. If the pipe size varies, the
speed of a liquid also varies so as to keep
39. Two horizontal plates placed 250mm have Q constant, Jin = JoutV1A1 = V2A2
an oil of viscosity 20 poises. Calculate the A. Bernoulli’s Equation
shear stress in oil if upper plate is moved
B. Continuity Equation
with velocity of 1250mm/s.
C. Torrecelli’s Equation
A. 20 N/m2
D. none of above
B. 2 N/m2
C. 10 N/m2 44. What do you call a machine made up of
two or more simple machines?
D. none of the mentioned
A. complicated machine
40. Define turbulent flow. B. compound or complex machine
A. The highly disordered fluid motion that C. comprehensive machine
typically occurs at high velocities and is D. constructive machine
characterized by velocity fluctuations
45. usually built in wide valleys having flat
B. The highly ordered fluid motion charac-
slopes at flanks (abutments)
terized by smooth layers of fluid
A. Gravity Dams
C. The flow of high-viscosity fluids (e.g.
oil) at low velocities B. Embankment Dams

D. The flow of low-viscosity fluids (e.g. C. Arch Dams

air) at high velocities D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 533

46. The purpose of a water tower is to: 52. A rock suspended by a weighing scale
A. Create a reliable source of pressure weight 15N out of water and 10N when
submerged in water. What is the buoyant

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B. Decrease pressure to avoid stress on fore on the rock?
pipes
A. 5N
C. Advertise what town you are in
B. 10N
D. Place cell phone antennas on
C. 15N
47. The Froude’s number for a flow in a chan- D. none of these
nel section is 1. What type of flow is it?
53. What are the common types of energy ex-
A. Sub Critical
change in a fluid system we introduced?
B. Critical
A. Heat
C. Super critical
B. Friction
D. Tranquil
C. Pump
48. it is commonly used to measure small and D. Work
moderate pressure differences.
54. Simplified equation of continuity is repre-
A. manometer sented as
B. barometer A. A1V1 = A1V2
C. thermometer B. A1V1 = A2V2
D. all of the above C. A2V1 = A1V1
49. To calculate pressure you need to know D. A1V2 = A2V2
A. Force & Volume 55. What is viscosity?
B. Density & Volume A. A liquid’s resistance to flow.
C. Power & Area B. a liquids flow.
D. Force & Area C. a liquid
50. Given the pressure of fluid is 170 kN/m2 D. gas to solid.
and specific weight is 6 kN/m3. Calculate 56. What is the field in physics that studies the
the height of a fluid column. motion and the properties of fluids?
A. 1020 m A. fluid dynamics
B. 1000 m B. fluid mechanics
C. 28.33 m C. fluid mechanism
D. 2.83 m D. none of above
51. Which of the following are considered flu- 57. The velocity of the fluid is to the area
ids? of cross section
A. gases A. Directly proportional
B. liquids B. Equal
C. gases or liquids C. Less than
D. non-metallic D. Inversely proportional

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5.1 Basics 534

58. The volumetric flow rate through a pipe 63. A 20 cm3 ball is in a container with
can be calculated as sunflower oil with a density of 940
kg/m3.Determine the pushing force acting
A. Q = ρ Av
on the ball?
B. Q = ρ gv
A. 184000 n
C. Q = ρ gA B. 18400 n
D. Q = ρ gh C. 0, 184

NARAYAN CHANGDER
59. The top of the Dam. These may in some D. 0, 212
cases be used for providing a roadway or
64. Gas
walkway over the dam.
A. non rigid molecules, not fixed shape,
A. Crest nor fixed volume
B. Spillway B. rigid molecules, fixed shape, not fixed
C. Heel volume
D. Toe C. not rigid molecules, not fixed shape,
fixed volume
60. Ball pen works on principle of D. none of above
A. Boyle’s law
65. This is defined as the ratio of the density
B. Newton’s law of a substance to the density of some stan-
C. Viscosity dard substance at a specified temperature
A. Relative Density
D. Capillarity and surface tension
B. Specific Weight
61. A water bed that is 1.5 m wide and 2.5 m C. Specific Volume
long weighs 1055 N. Assuming the entire
lower surface of the bed is in contact with D. Specific Total Energy
the floor, what is the pressure the bed ex-
66. there is no deck slab
erts on the floor?
A. deck type buttress dam
A. 250 Pa
B. STEEL DAMS
B. 260 Pa
C. TIMBER DAMS
C. 270 Pa
D. multiple-arch type buttress dam
D. 280 Pa
E. massive-head type buttress dam
62. When a plate (2 m/s) is moving against 67. According to Charles’ Law, temperature
the jet (v=5 m/s), what is the relative and volume have what type of relation-
speed for calculating the force? ship?
A. 7 A. Direct
B. -7 B. Inverse
C. 3 C. No relationship
D. -3 D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 535

68. measures the volume flow rate of a contin- 73. The maximum constant velocity of an ob-
uous flow stream by momentarily entrap- ject falling vertically downward is called:
ping a segment of the fluid into a chamber

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A. Final velocity
of known volume and releasing that fluid
back into the flow stream on the discharge B. Terminal velocity
side of the meter.
C. Instantaneous velocity
A. positive displacement flowmeter
D. Average velocity
B. positive flowmeter
C. variable area flowmeter 74. the most common type of dams and in gen-
D. variable flowmeter eral the dam means a storage dam unless
qualified otherwise
69. It has a constant yield stress and shear
A. STORAGE DAMS
stress is proportional to velocity gradient.
A. Ideal Plastic Fluid B. DIVERSION DAMS

B. Newtonian Fluid C. DETENTION DAMS

C. Ideal Fluid D. DEBRIS DAM
D. Real Fluid E. COFFER DAMS
70. When a gas is poured out of one container 75. Pressure is measured in what units
into another container, which of the fol-
lowing does NOT occur? A. Moles
A. The gas flows into the new container. B. Newtons
B. The gas changes shape to fit the new C. Pascals
container.
D. Newtons
C. The gas spreads out to fill the new con-
tainer. 76. According to Archimedes, loss in weight is
D. The gas keeps its original volume. equal to
71. What is the relationship between air pres- A. weight of liquid
sure and altitude? B. weight of the body
A. There is no relationship.
C. weight of the liquid displaced by the im-
B. Air pressure increases as altitude in- mersed part of the body
creases.
D. density of liquid
C. Air pressure decreases as altitude in-
creases. 77. Jenny applies a 60 N force to a 20 Kg cart,
D. none of above what is the acceleration of the cart if fric-
tion can be neglected?
72. It has no units and dimensions
A. 1200 m/s/s
A. Specific weight
B. Specific volume B. 0.33 m/s/s
C. Specific gravity C. 20 m/s/s
D. mass density D. 3 m/s/s

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5.1 Basics 536

78. Car brakes and car jacks are examples of 83. They provide sufficient pressure for push-
A. hydraulic systems ing water into ditches, canals, or other con-
veyance systems
B. archimedes’ principle
A. STORAGE DAMS
C. atmospheric pressure
B. DIVERSION DAMS
D. buoyancy
C. DETENTION DAMS
79. Bernoulli’s principle states that the pres- D. DEBRIS DAM

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sure in a fluid as the fluid’s velocity E. COFFER DAMS

A. decreases, decreases 84. The increase of temperature of tempera-

ture results in
B. increases, increases
A. Increase in viscosity of gas
C. decreases, increases
B. Increase in viscosity of liquid
D. goes up, goes up
C. Decrease in viscosity of liquid
80. provide a water supply, or improved habi- D. Increase in viscosity of gas & De-
tat for fish and wildlife. crease in viscosity of liquid
A. STORAGE DAMS 85. AV = constant. This is known as
B. DIVERSION DAMS A. Bernoulli’s equation
C. DETENTION DAMS B. Equation of continuity
D. DEBRIS DAM C. Boyles law
E. COFFER DAMS D. Pascals law

81. What is the unit called that measures 86. The space between two plates
force? (20cm*20cm*1cm), 1 cm apart, is filled
with a liquid of viscosity 1 Poise. The up-
A. weight
per plate is dragged to the right with a
B. meter force of 5N keeping the lower plate sta-
C. Newton tionary. What will be the velocity in m/s
of flow at a point 0.5 cm below the lower
D. kilogram
surface of the upper plate if linear velocity
82. Buoyancy:A 6.1-kg solid sphere, made of profile is assumed for the flow?
metal whose density is 2600 kg/m3, is A. 1.25
suspended by a cord. When the sphere is B. 2.5
immersed in a liquid of unknown density,
the tension in the cord is 26 N. Find the C. 12.5
density of the liquid. D. 0.25
A. 1500 kg/m3 87. Unit for energy is Joule, which is equal to
B. 1400 kg/m3 A. N/m2
C. 1300 kg/m3 B. Nm
D. 1200 kg/m3 C. kgm/s2
E. 1100 kg/m3 D. Mg/m3

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5.1 Basics 537

88. The Gravitational force between to objects 93. Which of the following is dimensionless
is proportional to the product of their
A. Specific weight
and inversely proportional to the square

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of their B. Specific volume
A. weight, masses C. Specific viscosity
B. masses, size D. Specific gravity.
C. masses, distance
94. For real fluid flow, does the basis of the
D. masses, time basis of the Bernulli?
89. is a measure of a physical quantity (with- A. Special full energy loss between two
out numerical values) cues
A. dimension B. Loss of fields along the way
B. unit C. SMAGE RESEARCH
C. constant
D. Local casualties
D. variable
E. the loss of the ropes
90. This type of barometer consists of a small
flexible sealed metal box which expands 95. Which of the following is a change that will
or contracts with small changes in exter- not affect the pressure in a container?
nal air pressure. A. heating or cooling the fluid
A. Aneroid barometer
B. changing the material that the fluid’s
B. Hydrostatic barometer container is made of
C. Angular barometer C. changing the weight of the fluid
D. Android barometer D. increasing the volume of the fluid
91. The value of the viscosity of an ideal fluid
is 96. Which of the following is a good example
of a non-wetting liquid when it is in con-
A. zero tact with a glass tube?
B. unity
A. Water
C. infinity
B. Saltwater
D. more than that of a real fluid
C. Mercury
92. Hydroelevators are said?
D. none of above
A. To the devices to use in compressed
air energy 97. the deck slab is replaced by horizontal
B. Machine’s hydraulic energy to mechan- arches supported by buttresses
ical equipment A. deck type buttress dam
C. To the cars that lift the liquid and do B. STEEL DAMS
the cars
C. TIMBER DAMS
D. To the devices to use hydraulic walnes
D. multiple-arch type buttress dam
E. To the mechanical energy of the liquid
energy of the liquid E. massive-head type buttress dam

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5.1 Basics 538

98. Fluid is a substance which offers no resis- E. 54%

tance to change of
103. For an ideal fluid flowing through a hor-
A. Pressure izontal pipe, Bernoulli’s principle and the
B. Flow continuity equation state that the pressure
C. Shape within the pipe does which of the follow-
ing? (assume measurements are taken
D. Volume along the pipe in the direction of fluid flow.
99. Which of the following is TRUE about Com-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Pressure increases as the pip diame-
pressibility: ter increases
A. solid can be compressed B. pressure decreases as the pipe diam-
B. liquid can be compressed eter increases

C. gas can be compressed C. pressure remains constant as the pipe

diameter increases
D. parameter bulk modulus
D. pressure increases, the decreases as
E. coefficient of volume expansion the pipe diameter increases
100. are defined as dimensional quantities 104. Pascal’s principle:A 12, 000-N car is
that change orvary in the problem. raised using a hydraulic lift, which consists
A. dimensional variables of a U-tube with arms of unequal areas,
B. nondimenisonal variables filled with incompressible oil with a den-
sity of 800 kg/m3 and capped at both
C. dimensional constant ends with tight-fitting pistons. The wider
D. parameters arm of the U-tube has a radius of 18.0
cm and the narrower arm has a radius of
101. Calculate the Froude’s number for a chan- 5.00 cm. The car rests on the piston on
nel having discharge of 261.03 m3/s, the wider arm of the U-tube. The pistons
cross sectional area of 42 m2 and the top are initially at the same level. What is the
width being 6m. force that must be applied to the smaller
A. 0.65 piston in order to lift the car after it has
B. 0.72 been raised 1.20 m? (For purposes of this
problem, you can neglect the weight of the
C. 0.38 pistons.)
D. 0.75 A. 0.954 kN
102. Viscosity:Suppose that the build-up of B. 1.88 kN
fatty tissue on the wall of an artery de- C. 1.96 kN
creased the radius by 10%. By what per-
cent would the arterial pressure difference D. 3.67 kN
produced by the heart have to be increased E. 1.20 kN
to maintain a constant blood flow?
105. If, as a special case, even energy is not al-
A. 48% lowed to cross the boundary, that system
B. 52% is called an/a
C. 50% A. closed system
D. 46% B. open system

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5.1 Basics 539

C. isolated system 111. Convert 36 m2 into cm2.

D. all of the above A. 36 cm2

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106. Consider a hot air balloon. Which state- B. 0.36 cm2
ment is correct? C. 360000 cm2
A. when the buoyant force equals the D. 3600 cm2
force of gravity, the balloon stops rising
112. Air pressure and altitude have what type
B. when the balloon is heated, the air par- of relationship?
ticles in the balloon move more slowly
A. Inverse
C. the balloon rises because the buoyant
force is less than the force of gravity B. Direct

D. as the balloon is heated, it becomes C. No relationship

more dense than the surrounding air D. none of above

107. This is not a fluid with low viscosity 113. If no resistance is encountered by dis-
A. water placement, such a substance is known as

B. Air A. Fluid

C. Tar B. Water

D. Petrol C. Gas
D. Ideal fluid
108. What does the difference between gauge
pressure and absolute pressure equal? 114. The highly ordered fluid motion character-
A. The pressure within the fluid ized by smooth layers of fluid.

B. The pressure at the surface of the fluid A. Laminar Flow

C. The pressure at the bottom of the fluid B. Turbulent Flow

D. Zero C. Transitional Flow

D. Compressible Flow
109. What scientist has established a law on
the transfer of pressure with liquids and 115. Standing on one foot causes the pressure
gases? on the floor to:
A. A. Torricelli A. Increase
B. B. Broun B. Decrease
C. C. Pascal C. Remain constant
D. Newton D. none of above

110. Is the Reynolds to characterize? 116. What device is viscosity measured?

A. Viscosity A. Viscci
B. The existence of the flow B. Areometr
C. Taignment C. Barometer
D. Density D. Kaborimator
E. Dynamic Sent E. Manometer

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5.1 Basics 540

117. When force increases 122. Which law relates pressure and volume?
A. pressure increases A. Boyle’s Law

B. pressure decreases B. Charles’ Law

C. Archimedes’ Principle
C. pressure stays the same
D. Newton’s 3rd Law
D. pressure increases then decreases
123. According to Bernoulli’s theorem in a
118. Researchers rise in a balloon.How does flowing liquid

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the pressure of atmospheric air change A. velocity is inversely proportional to
with an increase in height? pressure
A. Increases B. velocity is directly proportional to pres-
sure
B. Reduces
C. velocity is directly proportional to vol-
C. Does not change ume
D. none of above D. none of above

119. The study of properties of fluids in mo- 124. What does the letter Q indicate in hy-
tion is called draulic equations?
A. raid
A. Fluids Study
B. importance
B. Fluids statics
C. Capture
C. Fluids dynamics D. the count of periods
D. None E. power

120. Does the Bernulli protection? 125. What is TRUE about laminar flow
A. Reynolds number below than 2100
A. The speed of liquid layers,
B. Reynolds number below that 2000
B. Liquid flow rate;
C. Reynolds number below 2010
C. Dar in the secret;
D. Reynolds number above 2100
D. manage a man in its giving;
126. What is the greatest benefit of using hy-
E. the density of liquid. draulics?
A. The multiplication of speed
121. Which statement is false?
B. The multiplication of operating time
A. The density of a gas is constant as long
C. The multiplication of fuel efficiency
as its temperature remains constant.
D. The multiplication of force
B. Gases can be expanded without limit.
127. In one dimensional flow, the flow
C. Gases diffuse into each other and mix
almost immediately when put into the A. is steady and uniform
same container. B. takes place in straight line
D. The molecular weight of a gaseous C. takes place in curve
compound is a non-variable quantity. D. takes place in one direction

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5.1 Basics 541

128. Opening in the dam near the base, pro- 133. constructed for flood control
vided to clear the silt accumulation in the A. STORAGE DAMS
reservoir.

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B. DIVERSION DAMS
A. Abutments
C. DETENTION DAMS
B. Sluice way
D. DEBRIS DAM
C. Gallery
E. COFFER DAMS
D. Free board
134. Which of the following is an example of
129. Buoyancy:A barge is 15.0 m wide and a constant-pressure calorimeter
75.0 m long and has vertical sides. The
bottom of the hull is 1.20 m below the A. A. coffee-cup calorimeter
water surface. What is the weight of the B. B. bomb calorimeter
barge and its cargo, if it is floating in fresh
water of density 1000 kg/m3? C. Either A or B

A. 22.6 MN D. Neither A nor B

B. 13.2 MN 135. Select the correct answer.

C. 1.35 MN A. Key parameter to determine the flow
D. 1.13 MN regime is by Reynolds number

E. 11.3 MN B. Reynolds number for laminar flow is

larger than 2300
130. It represents volume per unit mass C. Reynolds number for turbulent flow is
A. Specific volume smaller than 4000
B. Specific gravity D. Reynolds number for transition flow is
2300>Re>4000
C. Mass density
D. Viscosity 136. A car needs a forwards force to keep
moving because:
131. A buoyant force is a(n) force A. everything needs a force to keep mov-
A. Upward ing.
B. Downward B. gravity is trying to slow it down.
C. Side ways C. it needs a force to balance friction and
D. none of above air resistance.
D. weight balances friction.
132. Which of the following devices does not
use Bernoulli’s equation as its working 137. Do you want to go over the structures
principle? coursework?
A. Venturimeter A. Yes
B. Orifice-meter B. No
C. Pitot tube C. I haven’t read up on it
D. None of the above D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 542

138. According to equation of continuity, D. They have no effect on each other

A1V1 = A2V2 = constant. The constant
is equal to: 143. The study of force which produces motion
in a fluid is called as
A. Flow rate
A. fluid statics
B. Volume of fluid
C. Mass of fluid B. fluid dynamics

D. Density of fluid C. fluid kinematics

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of the above
139. If an object sinks in a fluid,
A. the density of the fluid is greater than 144. An object will rise up in a fluid if
the density of the object A. Gravity and buoyant force equal
B. the density of the fluid is less than the B. Density of object and fluid is equal
density of the object
C. the buoyant force is stronger than
C. the density of the fluid is equal to the gravity
density of the object
D. if the density of the object is greater
D. density has nothing to do with whether
than the fluid
an object sinks or floats, only which state
of matter the object is 145. The entrance of a pipe has a cross-
140. is an instrument designed by G. B. sectional area of 0.6 m2, while the exit’s
Venturi. area is 0.2 m2. If an ideal fluid enters the
pipe at a speed of 1.5 m/s, at what speed
A. Barometer does it leaves the pipe?
B. Hydrometer A. 1.5 m/s
C. Odometer B. 4.5 m/s
D. Venturimeter
C. 45 m/s
141. The flow characteristics of a channel does D. 6 m/s
not change with time at any point. What
type of flow is it? 146. What machine changes chemical energy
A. Steady flow into heat, light and sound energy
B. Uniform flow A. blender
C. Laminar flow B. firecracker
D. Turbulent flow C. lightbulb

142. This is the relationship between area and D. apple

pressure 147. A continuous and homogenous fluid
A. As area increases, the pressure in- medium
creases
A. Fluidity
B. As area increases, the pressure de-
B. Mechanics
creases.
C. As area decreases, the pressure de- C. Continuum
creases D. None of the above

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5.1 Basics 543

148. Solve. A 125 N force acts on 30 m2 area. 153. The speed of fluid increases with
Find its pressure.
A. decrease of area of pipe

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A. 4.17 N/m2 or 4.17 Pa
B. increases of area of pipe
B. 4.20 N/m2 or 4.20 Pa
C. increase of pressure
C. 4 .00 N/m2 or 4.99 Pa
D. None of these
D. none of above
154. Specific weight of water in SI units is
149. The change in length measurements of an equal to
object due to thermal expansion is related
to temperature change by a A. 1000 N/m3

A. volume expansion coefficient B. 10, 000 N/m3

B. length expansion coefficient C. 9.81x103 N/m3

C. linear expansion coefficient D. 9.81X106 N/m3

D. none of above 155. It is a system that does not interact with

its surroundings.
150. What is hydraulic media?
A. insulated system
A. Leakage of the unit length of time
B. isolated system
B. The bottom of the mallet of the MAGL
C. oscillated system
C. Potential uniform length of energy loss
D. none of above
D. Kinetic energy loss of the flow in uni-
form length 156. The English unit for pressure.
E. Full casualties for the uniform length A. psi (pounds per square inch)
of the flow
B. mph
151. The surface tension of mercury at normal
C. lbs
temperature compared to that of water is
D. $$$
A. More
B. Less 157. Surface tension is
C. Same A. Line force
D. More or less depending on the size of B. Force per unit surface area
the glass tube C. For per unit volume
152. The space between two plates D. All the above
(20cm*20cm*1cm), 1 cm apart, is filled
with a liquid of viscosity 1 Poise. 158. Unit for gravity acceleration is
A. 12.5 A. J/s
B. 0.25 B. kPa
C. 1.25 C. N/m2
D. 2.5 D. kgm/s2

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5.1 Basics 544

159. According to the the impulse of the 164. The boundary of the tube of flow is al-
resultant force is equal to change in mo- ways to the velocity of particles.
mentum of the body. A. Perpendicular
A. Principle of conservation of mass B. Parallel
B. Principle of conservation of energy C. 60◦
C. Principle of conservation of momen- D. 30◦
tum

NARAYAN CHANGDER
165. For an incompressible fluid does density
D. All the above
vary with temperature and pressure?
160. When dealing with pressure, area, and A. It varies for all temperature and pres-
force have what type of relationship? sure range
A. Direct B. It remains constant
B. Inverse C. It varies only for lower values of tem-
perature and pressure
C. No relationship
D. It varies only for higher values of tem-
D. none of above perature and pressure
161. The cylindrical portion of short length, 166. Bernoulli’s principle:When you blow
which connects converging and diverging some air above the upper face of a paper
section of venturimeter, is called as strip, the paper rises. This occurs because
A. diffuser A. the air above the upper face of the pa-
B. connector per moves faster, which makes the pres-
sure higher than at the lower face.
C. throat
B. the air above the upper face of the pa-
D. manometer tube per moves faster, which makes the pres-
sure lower than at the lower face.
162. A pressure head of 25 m of water is equal
to C. the air above the upper face of the
paper moves faster but the pressure re-
A. 25 KN/m2 mains constant.
B. 245 KN/m2 D. the air above the upper face of the pa-
C. 2500 KN/m2 per moves slower, which makes the pres-
sure higher than at the lower face.
D. 12.5 KN/m2
E. the air above the upper face of the pa-
163. If an object weighing 50.0 N displaces a per moves slower, which makes the pres-
volume of water with a weight of 10.0 N, sure lower than at the lower face.
what is the buoyant force on the object?
167. On a tractor weighing 5, 4 tons, they are
A. 10 N going to drive across the river on ice.The
total area of the tractor caterpillars is 1,
B. 60 N
5 m2.What pressure will the tractor have
C. 40 N on the ice?
D. 20 N A. 20 kPa

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5.1 Basics 545

B. 36 kPa 173. is concerned with describing fluid motion,

C. 50 kPa without necessarily analyzing the forces
responsible for such motion.

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D. none of above
A. fluid kinematics
168. A rubber ball filled with helium rises
B. fluid statics
up.What will happen with the pressure
of helium in the ball when heights reach, C. fluid mechanics
where the air pressure will become 2 times D. all of the above
lower?
174. The correct statement about the viscosity
A. Will decrease by 2 times
of gases
B. Will increase by 2 times
A. changes with temperature but is prac-
C. Will not change tically unaffected by pressure
D. none of above B. practically unaffected by temperature
169. Surface tension but very much affected by pressure

A. Acts in the plane of interface normal to C. affected considerably temperature

any line in the surface and pressure
B. Is also known as capillarity D. unaffected by temperature and pres-
sure
C. Is a function of the curvature of the in-
terface 175. What is the ideal liquid?
D. Decreases with fall in temperature A. liquid with inaccurate in the inner fric-
tion
170. The amount of matter in an object is the
object’s: B. the density is the same liquid;
A. Mass C. Density is not the same liquid in all di-
rections;
B. Volume
C. Density D. Animated fluids in the perturbation.

D. Area E. Non-domestic friction liquid;

171. Which of the following is a unit of kine- 176. Ideal fluid has
matic viscosity? A. Static condition
A. Stokes B. Zero viscosity
B. Pa-s C. constant viscosity
C. m2=s D. incompressible nature
D. Poise
177. The easiest way to open a heavy door is
172. Not an ideal fluid by applying the force
A. Nonviscous A. Near the hinges
B. Incompressible B. In the middle of the door
C. Fluid’s motion is ready and non turbu- C. At the edge of the door far from the
lent. hinges
D. Compressible D. At the top of the door

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5.1 Basics 546

178. Because density is mass per unit volume, 183. Calculate the height of a column of liquid
an increase in a steel ship’s benzene (d=0.879g/cm3), in meters, re-
A. mass leads to a decrease in its density. quired to exert a pressure of 0.950 atm.

B. volume leads to a decrease in its den- A. 10 m

sity. B. 11 m
C. volume leads to an increase in its den-
C. 11.2 m
sity.
D. 12.2 m

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. density is caused by an increase in its
volume.
184. The air resistance of a car can be reduced
179. A person is standing near the edge of by:
a railroad track when a high-speed train A. making the car bigger.
passes. What happens to the person?
B. giving it a streamlined shape.
A. He or she is pushed away from the
train. C. making the car heavier.
B. He or she is pushed upward in the air. D. putting a roof box on it.
C. He or she is pulled toward the train.
185. The density of water is g/cm3.
D. He or she is pushed downward into the
ground. A. 1

180. What is the prefix for 1021? B. 1000

A. yotta C. 100
B. zetta D. 10
C. exa
186. The component of the total force exerted
D. peta by fluid on a body in the direction parallel
to the direction of motion is called as
181. is caused by the increase of pressure in a
fluid withdepth. A. lift
A. buoyant force B. drag
B. fluid force C. both a. and b.
C. static force
D. none of the above
D. dynamic force
187. It appears that there is a property that
182. Which fluid principle states that, a change
represents the internal resistance of a fluid
in pressure at any point in a confined fluid
to motion or the “fluidity, “ and that prop-
is transmitted in all directions throughout
erty is the
the fluid?
A. viscosity
A. Archimedes’
B. Bernoulli’s B. fluid
C. Buoyant C. density
D. Pascal’s D. surface tension

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5.1 Basics 547

188. which means that the velocity at any C. less than 2000
point in the model flow must be propor- D. 1
tional (by a constant scale factor) to the

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velocity at the corresponding point in the- 194. What is the wetted area for a triangular
prototype flow. channel having depth y and the side slope
A. geometric similarity being Z?
B. kinematic similarity A. Zy2The Area of the Triangle = (1/2)
(base) (height)Base = Zy+Zy = 2ZyArea
C. dimensional homegeneity = (1/2) (2Zy) (y)Area = Zy2.
D. kinetic similarity B. 2Zy
189. Helium balloons rise on earth because C. Zy
A. helium is less dense than air D. Z2 y
B. helium is warmer than air 195. What system used in many applications
C. helium is cooler than air like forklifts or jacks works on Pascal’s
D. helium is more dense than air principle
A. hydraulics
190. Shape is a that helps identify an ob-
ject. B. sprockets

A. physical property C. widgets

B. chemical property D. brakes

C. mass 196. Buoyancy:A person who weighs 550 N

empties her lungs as much as possible and
D. matter
is then completely immersed in water (of
191. What is the formula for Pressure? density 1000 kg/m3) while suspended
from a harness. Her apparent weight is
A. F/A
now 21.2 N. What is her density?
B. F1/A1= F2/A2
A. 1050 kg/m3
C. F1/A2
B. 1040 kg/m3
D. none of above
C. 1030 kg/m3
192. Which of the following is not a unit of D. 960 kg/m3
pressure?
E. 56.1 kg/m3
A. Pa
197. Flow rate:An incompressible fluid flows
B. atm
steadily through a pipe that has a change
C. N/cm2 in diameter. The fluid speed at a location
D. none of these where the pipe diameter is 8.0 cm is 1.28
m/s. What is the fluid speed at a location
193. For laminar flow in a pipe Reynold’s num- where the diameter has narrowed to 4.0
ber should be cm?
A. less than 500 A. 0.32 m/s
B. more than 4000 B. 0.64 m/s

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5.1 Basics 548

C. 1.28 m/s 202. An ideal fluid has a fixed

D. 2.56 m/s A. shear stress
E. 5.12 m/s B. viscosity
C. density
198. whose principle says buoyant force = the
weight of the fluid an object displaces D. specific gravity
A. Archimedes 203. Which is the effect of increase in the tem-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Pascal perature on the surface tension of the liq-
uid?
C. Bernoulli
A. it decreases
D. Einstein
B. it increases
199. Pick the correct application areas of fluid C. it remains the same
mechanics (can choose more than 1 an-
swer) D. None of the above

A. Artificial Heart 204. In a cantilever type , there is a bent

B. Offshore Floating Wind Turbine supporting the upper part of the deck,
which is formed into a cantilever truss.
C. Electrical Sensors Connection
A. deck type buttress dam
D. Prosthetic Limbs
B. STEEL DAMS
E. Piping and Plumbing
C. TIMBER DAMS
200. Flow rate:Water flowing through a pipe D. multiple-arch type buttress dam
suddenly comes to a section of pipe where
E. massive-head type buttress dam
the pipe diameter decreases to 86% of its
previous value. If the speed of the water 205. This fluid possesses viscosity or has finite
in the larger section of the pipe was what shear stress acting on it
is its speed in this smaller section?
A. Real Fluid
A. 49 m/s
B. Ideal Plastic Fluid
B. 42 m/s
C. Non-Newtonian Fluid
C. 31 m/s
D. Newtonian Fluid
D. 27 m/s
206. at a point within a fluid is defined as
201. A 1 kg body whirled at a constant speed the ratio of the force acting perpendicular
of 5.0 m/s around a horizontal circular to a small element of surface area at that
track is accelerated point.
A. towards the center A. Pressure
B. in tangential direction B. Density
C. in straight line C. Statics
D. outward from the circular path D. Magnitude

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5.1 Basics 549

207. A buoyant force acts in the opposite di- B. 18 m/s

rection of gravity. Therefore, which of the
C. 27 m/s
following is true of an object completely

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submerged in water? D. 54 m/s
A. The net force on the object is smaller
212. The following can be done to increase the
than the weight of the object
pressure exerted by the gas EXCEPT
B. The net force on the object is larger
A. increasing the number of collisions of
than the weight of the object
gas molecules per unit time by increasing
C. The net force on the object is equal to the number of gas molecules
the weight of the object
B. increasing the kinetic energy of the
D. The object appears to weigh more than gas by increasing the temperature;
it does in air.
C. increasing the volume of the container
208. Let the top width of a rectangular chan-
D. none of the choices
nel be B and the depth be y, determine the
hydraulic radius of the channel.
213. usually of low height and has a small stor-
A. By/ B+2y age reservoir on its upstream
B. By/ B+ y A. STORAGE DAMS
C. y B. DIVERSION DAMS
D. B
C. DETENTION DAMS
209. the oldest known dam in the world, dat- D. DEBRIS DAM
ing back to the fourth millennium BC
E. COFFER DAMS
A. DAMS
B. SAN ROQUE DAM 214. What is called the properties of the resis-
tance to the danges of a part of the liquid
C. THREE GORGES DAM
in real fluids
D. JAWA DAM
A. Internal friction (viscosity);
210. A force of 400 N acts over an area of 25 B. flow;
m2. Calculate the pressure exerted.
C. tzyiq;
A. 16 Pa
D. force.
B. 25 Pa
C. 400 Pa E. density;

D. 10, 000 Pa 215. According to Bernoulli, as the speed of

a fluid increases the pressure exerted by
211. A water tunnel has a circular cross section
that fluid
where the diameter diminishes from 3.6 m
to 1.2 m. If the velocity of water is 3.0 A. Decreases
m/s in the larger part of the tunnel, what
B. Disappears
is the velocity of the water in the smaller
part of the tunnel? C. Increases
A. 9.0 m/s D. Stays the same

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5.1 Basics 550

216. Which statement is wrong? 220. temporary dam constructed for facilitat-
A. A property that represents this inter- ing construction
nal resistance of a fluid to motion is vis- A. STORAGE DAMS
cosity
B. DIVERSION DAMS
B. The force a flowing fluid exerts on a
body in the flow direction is called the C. DETENTION DAMS
drag force D. DEBRIS DAM

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The force a flowing fluid exerts on a E. COFFER DAMS
body in the flow direction is called the tan-
gential component of force 221. What causes the apparent “weight loss”
D. For liquids, both the dynamic and kine- of an object immersed in water?
matic viscosities are practically indepen-
A. Gravity
dent of pressure
B. Buoyancy
217. Water in a hypodermic syringe moves
from the barrel of the syringe, which has C. Newton’s 1st law
a cross-sectional area of 0.35 cm2, to the D. Newton’s 2nd law
needle of the syringe, which has a cross-
sectional area of 1.3 x 10-4 cm2. If the 222. The pressure due to water at the base of
water moves through the barrel at a speed a pond is measured as 50 kPa. What is
of 0.32 cm/s, what is the speed with the depth of the pond? [density of water
which the water leaves the needle? is 1, 000 kg m-3]
A. 0.860 cm/s2 A. 10 meter
B. 8.6 m/s
B. 12 meter
C. 8.6 m2/s
C. 8 meter
D. 86 kgm/s
D. 5 meter
218. The weight of the water displaced equals
the upward force of water on an object 223. The pressure within a liquid is indepen-
dent on the
A. Pressure
B. Inertia A. volume of the liquid

C. Archimedes’ Principle B. depth within the liquid

D. The Law of Water C. density of the liquid

D. none of the choices
219. The continuity equation is the result of ap-
plication of the following law to the flow
224. The SI unit of density is density is
field
A. First law of thermodynamics A. kg/m3

B. Conservation of energy B. m3/kg

C. Newtons second law of motion C. m3
D. Conservation of mass D. kg

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5.1 Basics 551

225. The weigh of an object as measured in air C. Viscosity

is 35 N using a spring scale. It was then
D. None of the above
submerged in water and its weight is de-

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termined to be 23 N using the same spring 231. Which of the following occurs to a person
scale.How much buoyant force acts on the standing near the edge of a railroad track
object? when a high-speed train passes?
A. 58 N A. the person tends to be pushed away
B. 12 N from the train
C. 16 N B. the person tends to be pulled toward
D. 24 N the train
C. the person tends to be pushed upward
226. A perfect gas
into the air
A. Has constant viscosity
D. the person is unaffected by the train
B. Has zero viscosity
C. Is incompressible 232. It states that the sum of mechanical en-
ergy, potential energy and kinetic energy,
D. None of the above
along a streamline is constant.
227. If a person studies about a fluid which is A. Pascal’s principle
at rest, what will you call his domain of
study? B. Archimedes principle
A. Fluid Mechanics C. Bernoulli’s principle
B. Fluid Statics D. Poisseuille’s Law
C. Fluid Kinematics 233. When an incompressible and non-viscous
D. Fluid Dynamics fluid, flows in streamlined motion from
one place to another, then at every point
228. Two examples of a pulley of it’s path the total energy per unit vol-
A. knife & axe blade ume is constant is called
B. lightbulb & screw A. Principle of mass
C. flagpole hoist & window blinds B. Principle of momentum
D. catapult & teeter totter C. Principle of energy
229. centipoise = D. Bernoulli’s theorem
A. 0.01 (dyne-sec)/cm2
234. A system that multiplies force by trans-
B. 1 poise mitting pressure from a small surface area
C. 10 poise through a confined fluid to a larger surface
D. 1kg/(m-sec) area.
A. hydraulic system
230. The property of a fluid by virtue of which
it offers resistance to shear is called B. archimedes system
A. Surface tension C. pressure system
B. Capillarity D. bernoulli effect

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5.1 Basics 552

235. The property of a fluid which enables it C. Fluid Velocity

to resist tensile stress is known as
D. Potential Energy
A. Compressibility
B. Surface tension 241. The path followed by a small fluid ele-
ment is called
C. Cohesion
A. Streamline
D. Adhesion
B. Turbulent
236. What do we call the the amount of force

NARAYAN CHANGDER
exerted on a certain area? C. Streamline and turbulent
A. fluid D. Viscosity
B. pressure 242. Bernoulli’s principle:You are driving a late
C. buoyant force model convertible car at the 65 mph speed
D. normal force limit with its soft flexible roof closed up
and the windows closed. You observe that
237. Who is your lecturer for this subject the roof
A. Ts. Dr. Siti Hartini Hamdan A. bows inward.
B. Ts. Dr. Siti Kartini Hamdan B. is no different from when the car was
C. Dr. Martini Hamdan at rest.
D. Ts. Dr. Kartini Hamdan C. bows outward.
238. Fluids for which the shearing stress is not D. bows inward only when you are driving
linearly realted to the rate of the shearing uphill.
strain are designated as what? E. bows inward only when you are driving
A. Viscous fluids downhill.
B. Newtonian fluid
243. It is the arrangement made (kind of pas-
C. Non-Newtonian fluid sage) near the top of dam for the pas-
D. none of above sage of surplus/ excessive water from the
reservoir.
239. A 800N man is playing on a seesaw with
son who has a weight of 200N. If the child A. Crest
is sitting 3 meters away, how far will the B. Spillway
man have to sit to balance the seesaw?
C. Heel
A. 0.75m
D. Toe
B. 3m
C. 1.5m 244. It is the pressure at a given point in the
fluid.
D. 1m
A. static pressure
240. At the surface (Datum) of water in a reso-
vir, what is zero? B. dynamic pressure
A. Gauge Pressure C. point pressure
B. Absolute Pressure D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 553

245. As water in a confined pipe speeds up, 250. Coefficient of discharge is

the pressure it exerts against the inner A. actual discharge/ theoretical velocity
walls of the pipe.

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B. actual discharge/ area
A. increase
C. actual discharge/ theoretical dis-
B. decreases charge
C. remains constant if flow rate is con- D. Theoretical discharge /actual dis-
stant charge
D. I have no clue
251. The SI unit of pressure
246. Level or gently sloping tunnel like pas- A. Newton
sage (small room like space) at transverse
or longitudinal within the dam with drain B. Gram
on floor for seepage water. C. Pascal
A. Abutments D. Pound
B. Sluice way
252. This mode of heat transfer occurs when
C. Gallery microwaves, infrared radiation, visible
D. Free board light, or another form of electromagnetic
radiation is emitted or absorbed.
247. An object that has a weight of 50 N floats A. Conduction
on honey. The buoyant force acting on it
is B. Convection
A. greater than 50 N C. Radiation
B. less than 50 N D. Heat index
C. equal to 50 N 253. In a stationary fluid, how does the local
D. not enough information to answer the pressure of the liquid vary?
question A. In the horizontal direction, only
248. Newton’s law of viscosity state that B. With depth only
shear stress is directly proportional to C. Neither with depth nor along the hori-
A. Velocity zontal direction
B. Shear strain D. Both with depth and along the horizon-
tal direction
C. Velocity gradient
D. Viscosity 254. measurement of the difference in height
h of the water surface over an obstruction
249. The weight of a unit volume of a sub- across the channel and the surface suffi-
stance is called the ciently far upstream.
A. specific gravity A. Weir
B. specific weight B. Rotameter
C. density C. Venturi tube
D. specific volume D. Nozzle

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5.1 Basics 554

255. Define Viscosity? A. Linear Translation

A. Resistance to flow of an object B. Linear Deformation
B. Resistance to flow of air C. Angular Deformation
C. Resistance to flow of fluid D. Rotation
D. Resistance to flow of heat
261. is a relation between pressure, velocity,
256. The rise in the level of a liquid in a tube and elevation in steady, incompressible

NARAYAN CHANGDER
is h. What will be the rise in the level if flow, and is expressed along a streamline
the same amount of liquid is poured into a and in regions where net viscous forces
tube of half the diameter. are negligible
A. h A. Bernoulli equation
B. h/2 B. Energy equation
C. 2h
C. Conservation of Mass
D. 0
D. Conservation of Energy
257. The specific volume of a liquid is the re-
ciprocal of 262. How long should the videos of the phase
in the Method of viscosity?
A. weight density
A. Arefiri;
B. mass density
B. Incorrect;
C. specific weight
D. specific volume C. of rabbits;
D. Breastfeeding;
258. How much is the hydrostatic pressure ex-
perienced by a scuba diver at 30 meters E. Preference
below the surface of the ocean?
263. A state of matter in which a substance
A. 302, 820 Pa has neither a definite shape or volume
B. 402, 820 Pa
A. liquid
C. 502, 820 Pa
B. gas
D. 602, 820 Pa
C. solid
259. What could be an indication if heat is
D. viscosity
transferred?
A. A. rise in temperature 264. This principle determines its pressure at
B. B. phase change every point within the fluid, increasing at
the same amount with that of the applied
C. Either A or B external pressure.
D. Neither A nor B A. pascals principle
260. When fluid element moves from one po- B. bouyancy and archimedes principle
sition to another and it undergoes change
C. rawls principle
in its dimensions, what type of motion is
it? D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 555

265. The term refers to those meters in 270. In the analysis of systems that involve
which the minimum cross-sectional area fluid flow, we frequently encounter the
available to the flow through the meter combination of properties u and Pv. For

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varies with the flow rate. convenience, this combination is called
A. variable area flowmeters A. enthalpy
B. variable flowmeters B. entropy
C. positive displacement flowmeter C. internal energy
D. displacement flowmeter D. heat

266. Free surface of the liquid behaves like a 271. What does Bernoulli’s principle state will
membrane under tension and tries to con- happen to the pressure in a fluid as the
tract to the smallest possible area due to speed of the fluid increases?
which of the following property
A. The pressure of the fluid will increase.
A. Surface tension
B. The force of the fluid will increase.
B. Capillarity
C. The area of the fluid will increase.
C. Bulk modulus
D. The pressure of the fluid will decrease.
D. None of the above
272. Which is NOT a unit of pressure?
267. A completely submerged object always
displaces its own A. Atmosphere

A. weight of fluid B. Pascal

B. volume of fluid C. PSI (Pounds per Square Inch)

C. density of fluid D. Newton

D. all of these 273. It is the fraction of water vapor in a gas

E. none of these compared to the saturation value.
A. relative humidity
268. What is the amount of force per unit of
area applied to an object’s surface? B. absolute humidity

A. fluid C. humidity

B. atmospheric pressure D. none of above

C. pressure 274. How would you calculate the force to be

D. density used on a brake of area 0.5cm2 if the slave
cylinder has a 4cm2 area and needs 800N
269. One litre of water occupies a volume of to stop the car.
A. 100 cm3 A. 4 x 800 x 0.5
B. 250 cm3 B. 800/0.5 x 4
C. 500 cm3 C. 0.5 x 4 x 800
D. 1000 cm3 D. 800 x 0.5 /4

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5.1 Basics 556

275. Fluid kinematics means study of D. None of the above

A. flow through venturimeter
280. For incompressible fluids, density
B. pressure acting on closed sluice gate changes little with changes in
C. Reynolds experiment A. depth.
D. Determination of MG B. temperature
276. Which of the following is NOT an exam- C. pressure
ple of turbulent flow?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. free-fall acceleration
A. a river flowing slowly in a straight line
281. A wrench is used to tighten a nut. A 15N
B. a river flowing swiftly around rocks in
perpendicular force is applied 50cm away
rapids
from the axis of rotation, and moves a dis-
C. water flowing unevenly from a fully tance of 10 cm as it turns. What is the
opened faucet torque applied to the wrench?
D. smoke twisting as it moves upward A. 7.5 Nm
from a fire.
B. 1.5 Nm
277. The valley slopes on either side of the
C. 750 Nm
dam wall to which the left & right end of
dam are fixed to. D. 150 Nm
A. Abutments 282. The resistance of a fluid (liquid or gas) to
B. Sluice way a change in shape, or movement of neigh-
C. Gallery boring portions relative to one another.

D. Free board A. Surface tension

B. Viscosity
278. The actual pressure at a given position is
called the C. Adhesion
A. gage pressure D. Cohesion
B. vacuum pressure 283. Portion of dam in contact with ground or
C. absolute pressure riverbed at downstream side.
D. static pressure A. Crest
279. The fluid will rise in capillary when the B. Spillway
capillary is placed in fluid, if C. Heel
A. the adhesion force between molecules D. Toe
of fluid and tube is less than the cohesion
between liquid molecules 284. The normal stress in a fluid will be con-
B. the adhesion force between molecules stant in all directions at a point only if
of fluid and tube is more than the cohesion A. It is incompressible
between liquid molecules
B. It has uniform viscosity
C. the adhesion force between molecules
of fluid and tube is equal to the cohesion C. It has zero viscosity
between liquid molecules D. It is at rest

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5.1 Basics 557

285. The viscosity of a fluid in motion is 1 C. At mean sea level

Poise. What will be it’s viscosity (in Poise) D. All the above
when the fluid is at rest?

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290. Based on the Continuity equation, the vol-
A. 0
ume flow rate of liquid flowing per unit
B. 0.5 time is
C. 1 A. Non of these
D. 2 B. A constant
C. increases with area of cross section
286. Lipids flow because
D. decreases with area of cross section
A. the intermolecular forces between
molecules are weak enough to allow the 291. You may feel the heat from fire along its
molecules to move around. side through
B. the intramolecular forces between A. conduction
molecules are weak enough to allow the B. convection
molecules to move around.
C. radiation
C. the intermolecular forces between
D. heat index
molecules are weak enough to al-
low atoms to form different types of 292. As the moon revolves around a planet in
molecules. an elliptical orbit, at which position is the
D. the intramolecular forces are weak moon traveling slowest?
enough to allow atoms to form different A. when it is nearest from the planet
types of molecules.
B. when it is nearest to the Sun
287. A device that is used to measure atmo- C. when it is farthest to the planet
spheric pressure is a D. when it is farthest from the Sun
A. barometer
293. Which property of the fluid offers resis-
B. thermometer tance to deformation under the action of
C. kilometer shear force?
D. micrometer A. density
B. viscosity
288. A device that is used to measure liquid
C. permeability
pressure is a
D. specific gravity
A. Manometer
B. Barometer 294. It is an enclosure constructed around the
construction site to exclude water so that
C. Thermometer the construction can be done in dry
D. Odometer A. STORAGE DAMS
289. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg B. DIVERSION DAMS
/ m3. C. DETENTION DAMS
A. At normal pressure of 760 mm/Hg D. DEBRIS DAM
B. At 4◦ temperature E. COFFER DAMS

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5.1 Basics 558

295. What is the principle of flotation? C. Surface tension

A. floating objects displace a fluid equal D. Bulk Modulus
to the weight of the fluid displaced
300. “Eureka” is greek for:
B. floating objects displace a fluid equal
to their own weight A. Yippee!
C. floating objects exert an upward buoy- B. Look out!
ant force C. Hey you!

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above D. I found it!
296. Bernoulli’s principle:Consider a very
301. Steel is almost eight times more dense
small hole in the bottom of a tank in diam-
than water. A steel ship can float in wa-
eter filled with water to a height of Find
ter instead of sink because of its
the speed at which the water exits the
tank through the hole. A. mass.
A. 3.13 m/s B. weight.
B. 9.80 m/s C. shape.
C. 31.8 m/s D. density.
D. 34.9 m/s 302. A g or kg is a unit of:
297. When more than 1-dimension is involved A. Mass
in a question, what should you do?
B. Volume
A. Report an error
C. Density
B. Only use the magnitude of the
D. Area
force/velocity for calculation
C. Project force/velocity onto individual 303. The tangential velocity of the water ele-
axis ment having a free vortex is
D. Use vectors in calculation A. directly proportional to its distance
from the centre
298. What is the Froude’s number for a chan-
nel having mean velocity 4.34 m/s and B. inversely proportional to its distance
mean hydraulic depth of 3m? from the centre

A. 0.4m C. directly proportional to its (distance)2

from the centre
B. 0.6m
D. inversely proportional to its (dis-
C. 0.7m tance)2 from the centre
D. 0.8m
304. Which is a type of fluid?
299. Falling droplets of water split into a num-
A. Ideal Synthetic Fluid
ber of small spheres owing to which of the
following property B. Ideal Plastic Fluid
A. Compressibility C. Instantaneous Fluid
B. Viscosity D. Ideal Newtonian Fluid

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5.1 Basics 559

305. Laminar Flow C. solid and gas

A. Re < 2000 D. solid, liquid, and gas

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B. Re > 4000 311. What happens to the pressure acting on
C. 2000 < Re < 4000 an object as it goes deeper in a fluid?
D. Re = 0 A. The pressure decreases.
B. The pressure increases.
306. Bernoulli’s equation cannot be used for
flow of water in river because the flow is C. The pressure remains the same.
A. streamlined D. none of above
B. turbulent 312. curved in plan, with its convexity to-
C. laminar wards the upstream side
D. viscous A. Gravity Dams
B. Embankment Dams
307. If the density of the fluid is twice the den-
sity of an object, what will be the fraction C. Arch Dams
of the object that will be submerged in that D. none of above
fluid
313. Calculation of water pressure force on
A. 1/2 dam is the problem of
B. 2 A. Statics
C. 1/4 B. Kinetics
D. Cannot be determined C. Kinematics
308. An ideal fluid is defined as the fluid which D. Dynamics
is
314. Which of the following is/are assump-
A. Compressible tion/s in Torrecelli’s theorem?
B. Incompressible A. A. The top reservoir and the exit hole
C. Compressible and viscous are open to the atmosphere

D. Incompressible and non-viscous B. B. Zero potential energy at the exit

hole
309. An object weighing 500 Newtons on land C. C. Fluid velocity at the top of the reser-
is placed in water. It then weighs 450 voir is essentially zero
Newtons. What is the Upthrust force?
D. A, B, C
A. 50 N
E. None of the choices
B. 250 N
315. What is the ability to do work the defini-
C. 450 N
tion for?
D. 500 N
A. work
310. What are the states of matter? B. energy
A. solid, liquid, and juice C. force
B. solid and liquid D. strength

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5.1 Basics 560

316. A fluid property, viscosity responsible? ? A. 0.44mm fall

to happen? B. 0.88mm fall
A. No slip condition C. 0.44mm rise
B. No slip condition and the development D. 0.88mm rise
of boundary layer
C. The development of boundary layer 322. The pressure caused by gravity pulling on
the atmosphere.
D. Drag force

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. atmospheric pressure
317. Fluids exert pressure because they B. Upthrust force
A. contain force particles C. pascal pressure
B. are confined to small area D. density pressure
C. have constantly moving particles
323. In a two dimensional flow, the compo-
D. all of these are correct nent of the velocity along the X-axis and
318. If a hydraulic system has 1000 N applied the Y-axis are u = axy and v = bx2 + cy2.
to the input piston and has an area of 81 What should be the condition for the flow
cm2, what is the pressure? field to be continuous?

A. 12.35 Pa A. a + b = 0

B. 12, 346 Pa B. a + c = 0

C. 1235 Pa C. a + 2b = 0

D. 123, 457 Pa D. a + 2c = 0

319. Choose any of the following that related 324. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
to Mechanics (Answer can more than ONE) A. Incompressible
A. stationary B. Inviscous
B. moving bodies C. Viscous & incompressible
C. dynamics D. Inviscous & incompressible
D. stationary and moving bodies 325. Define no slip condition.
320. Energy that comes from the nucleus of an A. A fluid in rest increase at the surface
atom. A form of potential energy. and assumes a maximum velocity relative
A. chemical energy to the surface.
B. Nuclear energy B. A fluid in motion increase at the sur-
face and assumes a maximum velocity rel-
C. Sound energy ative to the surface.
D. Electrical energy C. A fluid in rest comes to a complete stop
321. Find the capillarity rise or fall if a cap- at the surface and assumes a zero velocity
illary tube of diameter .03m is immersed relative to the surface.
in hypothetical fluid with specific gravity D. A fluid in motion comes to a complete
6.5, surface tension 0.25 N/m and angle stop at the surface and assumes a zero
of contact 147◦ . velocity relative to the surface.

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5.1 Basics 561

326. Which correctly completes the state- 331. What happens to air pressure as you
ment? Due to Bernoulli’s principle, the move upward into the atmosphere?
pressure is above an airplane’s wing

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A. increases
than below it.
A. Lower B. decreases

B. Higher C. stays the same

C. different D. none of above
D. similar
332. In a direct strutted , the water pres-
327. The energy possessed by a fluid by virtue sure is transmitted directly to the founda-
of it’s pressure is called tion through inclined struts.
A. Potential energy A. deck type buttress dam
B. Pressure energy B. STEEL DAMS
C. Kinetic energy
C. TIMBER DAMS
D. Heat energy
D. multiple-arch type buttress dam
328. During the opening of a valve in a pipe
E. massive-head type buttress dam
line, the flow is
A. Steady 333. Which method is used exclusively in fluid
B. unsteady mechanics?
C. Uniform A. Lagrangian method
D. Laminar B. Eulerian method
329. Using Bernoulli’s principle, explain why a C. Both Lagrangian and Eulerian methods
nozzle on a fire hose is tapered.
D. Neither Lagrangian nor Eulerian
A. To be more aerodynamically sound. method
B. So that it reduces the pressure on the
water flow, thus increasing the speed and 334. An object will NOT sink if its weight is
distance it may travel. the buoyant force.
C. To increase the potential and kinetic A. Less than or equal to
energy of the water molecules moving
B. Greater than or equal to
through the nozzle.
D. So that it increases the pressure on C. Similar to and almost equal
the water flow, thus increasing the speed D. Different from and almost equal
and distance it may travel.
335. When a fluid fills a closed container, it
330. The relation between head of water and
exerts pressure
head of mercury in u tube manometer is
A. h=12.6 hm A. only on the bottom of the container
B. h= 13.6(hm B. only on the sides of the container
)
C. h = hm Sm
Sw −1 C. only on particles within the fluid
D. Both A and C D. everywhere inside the container

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5.1 Basics 562

336. According to the Particle Model of Mat- C. enthalpy

ter, air is a more compressible fluid than a D. entropy
liquid, because
A. liquid particles are moving at lesser 341. What units are used to measure Den-
speeds sity?
B. liquids have more particles per volume A. kg
C. air particles are moving at greater B. g/cm2

NARAYAN CHANGDER
speeds C. kg/m3
D. air has more particles per volume D. cm3/g
337. A one dimensional flow is one which 342. When a body is placed over a liquid, it
A. Is uniform flow will float if
B. Is steady uniform flow A. gravitational force is equal to the up-
thrust of the liquid
C. Takes place in a straight line
B. gravitational force is less than the up-
D. Involves zero transverse component
thrust of the liquid
of flow
C. gravitational force is more than the up-
338. Which of the following statements does thrust of the liquid
NOT describe an ideal fluid at constant
D. none of the above
temperature?
A. An ideal fluid is incompressible 343. Which of the folliwing is a type of fluid?
B. The flow of an ideal fluid is always A. Ideal Synthetic Fluid
steady B. Real Fluid
C. An ideal fluid has internal friction (vis- C. Instantaneous Fluid
cosity)
D. Galilean Fluid
D. An ideal fluid has constant density
344. When a jet leaving a tank, its velocity is
339. consists of a conical transparent ver- v and the tank is stationary. What is the
tical glass tube containing a “bob”. The work done to the tank?
flow rate is proportional to the height of
the bob. A. 0

A. Rotameter B. Infinity
1 2
B. Venturi tube C. 2 mv

C. Weir D. none of above

D. Nozzle 345. Pressure in fluids with the depth of

the fluid.
340. It measures the amount of heat neces-
sary to raise the temperature of an object A. increases
or system by one degree Celsius B. decreases
A. heat capacity C. stays the same
B. specific heat capacity D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 563

346. The amount of mass in a unit volume of 351. What happens to viscosity in the case of
a substance incompressible fluids as temperature is in-
creased?

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A. mass
A. It remains constant
B. pressure
B. It increases
C. volume
C. It decreases
D. density
D. None of the mentioned
347. A ship floats 0.186 m higher when in sea
water than it does in fresh water. Given 352. If a body floating in a liquid returns back
the density of seawater (1.0250 g/cm3) to its original position, when given a small
and fresh water (1.000 g/cm3), deter- angular displacement, the body is said to
mine how much of the ship’s hull lies be- be in
neath the surface of both kinds of water.
A. neutral equilibrium
A. 7.44 m in sea water, 7.63 in fresh wa-
B. stable equilibrium
ter
C. unstable equilibrium
B. 15.07 m in both
D. none of these
C. 7.63 m in sea water and 7.44 in fresh
water 353. he SI unit for time is
D. The ship would sink in fresh water and A. second (s)
sit at 7 m in sea water.
B. gram (g)
348. Pitot tube measures C. liter (L)
A. atmispheric pressure D. hours (h)
B. Pressure in a car tyre
354. It is a type of calorimeter that is used
C. velocity of flow to measure the energy produced by reac-
D. piezometric pressure tions that yield large amounts of heat and
gaseous products, such as combustion re-
349. The ratio of inertia force and gravita- actions.
tional force is called as
A. constant-pressure calorimeter
A. Reynolds Number
B. constant-volume calorimeter
B. Stokes Number
C. constant-mass calorimeter
C. Froude Number
D. none of above
D. Eulers Number
355. Bernoulli’s equation is obtained by apply-
350. This is also called relative pressure ing law of conservation of.
A. gauge pressure A. Mass
B. atmospheric pressure B. Energy
C. absolute pressure C. Momentum
D. none of above D. Force

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5.1 Basics 564

356. Each of four tires on an automobile has 361. The volumetric change of the fluid caused
an area of 0.026 m2 in contact with the by a resistance is known as
ground. The weight of the automobile is A. Volumetric strain
2.6 x104 N. What is the pressure in the
tires? B. Volumetric index
A. 3.1 x 106 Pa C. Compressibility
B. 1.0 x 106 Pa D. Adhesion
C. 2.5 x 105 Pa

NARAYAN CHANGDER
362. If force due to turbulence is negligible
D. 6.2 x 104 Pa then the equation of motion is known as
equation of motion
357. Naturally occurring flows consist of:
A. Reynold’s equation
A. meteorology
B. Navier-Stokes equation
B. hydrology
C. Euler’s Equation
C. oceanography
D. None
D. theology
363. This energy is for non-flowing fluid and
358. Describe viscosity.
is the sum of all the microscopic forms of
A. No fluid with zero viscosity energy
B. When 2 fluid layers move relative to A. Internal Energy
each other, a friction force develops be-
tween them and the slower layer tries to B. Enthalpy
slow down the faster layer C. Kinetic Energy
C. Cause by cohesive forces between the D. Potential Energy
molecules in liquids and by molecular col-
lisions in gases 364. What do you call the substances that ex-
pand at the same rate in every direction?
D. Flows where the frictional effects are
significant is called inviscid flow regions A. isotropic

359. Property of a fluid by which molecules of B. isentropic

different kinds of fluids are attracted to C. directropic
each other is called D. icontropic
A. Adhesion
365. Which of the following statement is true
B. Cohesion about vapor pressure of a liquid?
C. Viscosity
A. Vapor pressure is closely related to
D. Compressibility molecular activity and temperature of the
liquid
360. Charles’ Law relates what two vari-
ables? B. Vapor pressure is closely related to
molecular activity but independent of the
A. Temperature and volume
temperature of the liquid
B. Pressure and volume
C. Vapor pressure is not affected by
C. Mass and volume molecular activity and temperature of the
D. Weight density and depth liquid

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5.1 Basics 565

D. Vapor pressure is not affected by 371. On a plane surface, the hydrostatic forces
molecular activity and is independent of form a system of parallel forces, and we
the temperature of the liquid often need to determine the magnitude of

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the force and its point of application, which
366. The discharge and velocity of water in a is called the
rectangular channel are 75m3/s and 5m/
s respectively. The hydraulic depth being A. center of pressure
3m calculate the hydraulic radius. B. centroid
A. 1.36m C. center of gravity
B. 1.87m D. all of the above
C. 1.98m
372. A phase change from gas to liquid
D. 2.0m
A. deposition
367. Displacement means B. vaporization
A. to take place
C. sublimation
B. to replace
D. condensation
C. to fill up space
373. What is the main cause of capillarity?
D. to move aside
A. difference in weight of fluids
368. What device is it used to be used for the
sacred life? B. pressure difference

A. ammeter C. temperature difference

B. voltmeter D. velocity gradient
C. monometr 374. Buoyancy:Salt water is more dense than
D. thermometer fresh water. A ship floats in both fresh
water and salt water. Compared to the
E. psychrommet
fresh water, the volume of salt water dis-
369. The highly disordered fluid motion that placed by the ship is
typically occurs at high velocities is known A. greater than the volume of fresh wa-
as ter.
A. laminar flow B. less than the volume of fresh water.
B. transition flow C. the same as the volume of fresh water.
C. turbulent flow
D. erratic flow D. none of above
370. Choose all primary dimensions. 375. The bulk modulus of elasticity
A. Mass A. Has the dimension of 1 / Pressure
B. Volume B. Increases with pressure
C. Velocity C. Is independent of pressure and viscos-
D. Temperature ity
E. Time D. Is directly proportional to flow

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5.1 Basics 566

376. When the body reaches its terminal veloc- 381. What is the formula Charles’ Law?
ity, the acceleration of the body becomes A. V = T
A. Zero B. VT = VT
B. Minimum C. T1 / V1 = T2 / V2
C. Maximum D. V1 / T1 = V2 / T2
D. Half of the initial
382. How does the diameter of a column
(depth) of water affect the pressure at the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
377. What happens to the pressure of an ob-
ject as the area between the object and the bottom of the column?
surface increases? A. No effect
A. The pressure decreases. B. The pressure decreases
B. The pressure increases. C. The pressure increases
C. The pressure remains the same. D. It depend upon the length of the diam-
D. none of above eter.

378. How does a liquid differ from a gas? 383. Solve. If the area of A1 = 0.001 m2 and
the area of A2 = 0.1 m2, external input
A. a liquid has both definite shape and force F1 = 100 N, then the external out-
definite volume, whereas a gas has nei- put force is (F2)?
ther
A. 11, 000 N
B. a liquid has a definite volume, unlike a
B. 10, 000 N
gas
C. 10, 220 N
C. a liquid has a definite volume unlike a
gas D. none of above
D. a liquid has a definite shape whereas 384. Which fluid mechanics principle explained
a gas has a definite volume in terms of the law of conservation of en-
ergy?
379. For very great pressures, viscosity of
most gases and liquids A. Archimedes’
A. Remains the same B. Bernoulli’s

B. Increases C. Pascal’s

C. Decreases D. Poiseuille’s

D. Shows erratic behaviour 385. Define the development of boundary

layer.
380. diverting water of the river into an off-
A. When a fluid is forced to flow over a
taking canal (or a conduit)
curved surface, the boundary layer may
A. STORAGE DAMS no longer remain attached to the surface,
B. DIVERSION DAMS and separates from the surface
C. DETENTION DAMS B. All velocity profiles must have zero val-
ues with respect to the surface at the
D. DEBRIS DAM points of contact between a fluid and a
E. COFFER DAMS solid surface

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5.1 Basics 567

C. The force a fluid exerts on a surface in B. The collision of gas molecules

the flow direction C. Blows of gas molecules against the

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D. The flow region adjacent to the wall in wall of the vessel
which the viscous effects (thus, the veloc-
D. none of above
ity gradients) are significant
391. The fluid travels as parallel layers
386. retards the flow in the river on its down-
(known as streamlines) that do not mix as
stream during floods by storing some flood
they move in the direction of the flow.
water
A. laminar flow
A. STORAGE DAMS
B. turbulent flow
B. DIVERSION DAMS
C. transitional flow
C. DETENTION DAMS
D. DEBRIS DAM D. fluid flow

E. COFFER DAMS 392. The rise or fall of a liquid in a small-

diameter tube inserted into the liquid.
387. The property of water to wet a solid sur-
face when it comes in contact is known as A. capillary effect

A. Surface tension B. meniscus

B. Viscosity C. capillaries
C. Capilary action D. surface tension
D. Vapor pressure 393. If the layers of fluid have frictional force
between them, then it is known as
388. Determine the minimum size of glass tube
that can be used to measure water level if A. viscous
the capillary rise in the tube is restricted to B. Non-viscous
5mm. Consider surface tension of water in
contact with air as 0.073 N/m C. Incompressible

A. 4.46mm D. Both A & B

B. 2.97mm 394. You can measure with grams.

C. 11.9mm A. mass
D. 5.95mm B. volume
389. Which is not a characteristic of Ideal fluid C. conductivity
A. incompressible D. melting point
B. inviscid 395. As the water falls from tap, its speed in-
C. Frictional work is done creases and cross sectional area:
D. No surface tension A. Decreases
B. Increases
390. What is the cause of gas pressure on the
walls of the vessel? C. become zero
A. the action of gravity D. becomes Constant

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5.1 Basics 568

396. Blood has density equal to that of: B. Tangential component of a force acting
A. Mercury on a surface per unit area

B. Honey C. Normal stress in a fluid at rest (= zero

shear stress)
C. water
D. Force per unit area
D. glycerin
402. Which is an example of someone using a
397. Convert 100 cm to m simple machine to do work?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 10 m A. a boy runs across a football field
B. 1 000 m B. a banker counts money
C. 100 m C. a mother pushes a stroller up a ramp
D. 1 m D. a girl eats a sandwich
398. Which of the following statements is true 403. The shear stress at a point in a liquid is
according to Pascal’s Principle? found to be 0.03 N/m2. The velocity gra-
A. Pressure in a fluid is greatest at the dient at the point is 0.15 /sec. What will
walls of the container holding the fluid. be it’s viscosity (in Poise)?
B. Pressure in a fluid is greatest at the A. 20
center of the fluid. B. 2
C. Pressure in a fluid is the same through- C. 0.2
out the fluid.
D. 0.5
D. Pressure in a fluid is greatest at the
top of the fluid. 404. The temperature at which a pure sub-
stance changes phase at a given pressure.
399. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the
A. Saturation Temperature
following
B. Saturation Pressure
A. Newton’s law of motion
C. Vapor Pressure
B. Newton’s law of viscosity
D. Partial Pressure
C. Pascal’s law
D. Continuity equation 405. :Liquids have
A. fixed volume but no fixed shape, high
400. A region chosen for study is separated by
density and are incompressible
the outside region by
B. fixed shape but no fixed volume, high
A. system
density and are incompressible
B. surrounding C. fixed volume but no fixed shape, high
C. boundary density and are compressible
D. none of above D. fixed volume but no fixed shape, low
density and are compressible
401. Define pressure.
A. Normal component of a force acting on 406. Fluid in Fluid Mechanics consists of
a surface per unit area A. Fire and water

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5.1 Basics 569

B. Air and fluid 411. deals with problems associated with flu-
ids at rest. The fluidcan be either gaseous
C. Earth and nature
or liquid.

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D. All of the above
A. fluid statics
407. It is the energy associated with a phase B. fluid dynamics
change of a substance.
C. fluid statistics
A. latent heat
D. fluid kinematics
B. heat index
412. Buoyancy:A hollow steel ball of diameter
C. internal energy
3.0 m barely floats in water. What is the
D. inert energy thickness of the wall of the ball? The den-
sity of iron is 7.87 g/cm3 and that of wa-
408. Which of the following is NOT an exam- ter is 1000 kg/m3.
ple of laminar flow?
A. 6.6 cm
A. a river moving slowly in a straight line
B. 37 cm
B. smoke rising upward in a smooth col-
umn through air C. 131 cm

C. water flowing evenly from a slight D. 79 cm

opened faucet
413. A scalar quantity defined as the ratio of
D. smoke twisting as it moves upward mass per unit volume
from a fire
A. Density
409. Why does a hot air balloon float in air? B. Pressure
A. Air is less dense than water. C. Specific Gravity
B. The density of hot air is less than the D. Relative Density
density of cold air.
C. Air is denser on cold days. 414. The pressure at sea level under standard
conditions is A. 1 atm B. 101.325 kPa
D. The overall density of the balloon and
its basket is less than the density of the A. A only
air. B. B only

410. Which fluid mechanics principle states C. Either A or B

that, a fluid exerts an upward buoyant D. Neither A nor B
force on a immersed object the same in
magnitude to the weight of the volume of 415. Plants get water through the roots be-
fluid displaced by the object? cause of
A. Archimedes’ A. Capillarity
B. Bernoulli’s B. Viscosity
C. Buoyancy C. Surface tension
D. Pascal’s D. Elasticity

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5.1 Basics 570

416. The Bernoulli’s equation is derived based 421. Solid

on Conservation of ? A. rigid molecules, fixed shape, fixed vol-
A. Power ume
B. Energy B. not rigid molecules, not fixed shape,
C. Mass fixed volume
D. Volume C. non rigid molecules, not fixed shape,
nor fixed volume
417. Poise is the unit of

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
A. Mass density
B. Kinematic viscosity 422. Incompressible flow defined as
C. viscosity A. If the viscosity remains nearly con-
stant throughout
D. velocity gradient
B. If the density remains nearly constant
418. For an ideal fluid flowing through a hor- throughout
izontal pipe, Bernoulli’s principle and the
continuity equation state that the pressure C. The volume of every portion of fluids
within the pipe does which of the follow- remains unchanged over the course of its
ing? (Assume measurements are taken motion
along the pipe in the direction of the fluid D. The densities of liquids are essentially
flow). constant, thus the flow of liquids is typi-
A. Pressure increases as the pipe diame- cally compressible
ter increases.
423. The value of the Bulk Modulus of an ideal
B. Pressure decreases as the pipe diam- fluid is
eter increases.
A. zero
C. Pressure remains constant as the pipe
B. unity
diameter increases.
D. Pressure increases, then decreases C. infinity
as the pipe diameter increases. D. less than that of a real fluid
419. The SI unit for specific gravity is 424. A 1200.0 kg car is moving at a rate of
A. kg/m3 30.0 m/s. What is the momentum of the
Car?
B. kg/N
A. 400 kg m/s
C. no unit
D. kg B. 3, 600 kg m/s
C. 36, 000 kg m/s
420. These are generally provided for having
space fordrilling grout holes and drainage D. 1230 kg m/s
holes.
425. A liquid would wet the solid surface if
A. Abutments adhesion forces as compared to cohesion
B. Sluice way forces are
C. Gallery A. Less
D. Free board B. More

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5.1 Basics 571

C. Equal 431. The size of a buoyant force depends on

D. There is no such criterion the object’s:

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A. Mass
426. A submarine can travel both on the sur-
face of the water and underwater because B. Density
it can change its
C. Weight
A. interior pressure.
D. Volume
B. gravitational force.
C. density. 432. The angle of contact in case of a liquid
depends on
D. volume.
A. The nature of the liquid and the solid
427. Calculate the wetted perimeter for a rect-
angular channel having top width of 4.5m B. The material which exists above the
and depth of 3m. free surface of the liquid
A. 12m C. The nature of the liquid and the solid &
B. 10.5m The material which exists above the free
surface of the liquid
C. 7.5m
D. None of the above
D. 15m
428. is imaginary curve whose tangent at 433. This is defined as the ratio of its Mass
each point gives the velocity of the fluid and Volume.
element at the point. A. MASS DENSITY
A. Turbulent B. WEIGHT
B. Streamline
C. Density
C. Fluid flow
D. none of above
D. Water flow
429. is the quotient of Work divided by 434. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract
the time. It is defined as the rate or doing to the smallest possible area due to force
work. of

A. Force A. Surface tension

B. Momentum B. Viscosity
C. Acceleration C. Adhesion
D. Power D. Cohesion
430. Based on their density, which substance
435. The momentum of a fluid boy can be cal-
will sink in water? Density of water is 1
cualted as
g/cm3
A. M = ρ Av2
A. olive oil 0.92 g/cm3
B. gasoline 0.69 g/cm3 B. M = ρ Av
C. skim milk 1.04 g/cm3 C. M = mv2
D. ethanol (fuel) 0.789 g/cm3 D. M = 12 mv2

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5.1 Basics 572

436. The pressure at appoint in a fluid will not C. DETENTION DAMS

be same in all the directions, when the D. DEBRIS DAM
fluid is
E. COFFER DAMS
A. Moving
B. Viscous 441. When you squeeze an air-filled party bal-
loon, you reduce its
C. Viscous & Static
A. volume
D. Viscous & Moving

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. mass
437. Pressure is calculated or we can solve it C. weight
using the formula
D. all of these
A. Pressure = force/area
442. Define Gas Dynamics.
B. Pressure = area/force
A. Motion of incompressible fluids
C. Pressure = distance/time
B. Motion of compressible fluids
D. Pressure = mass/time
C. Flow of gases (especially air) over bod-
438. If you have a bottle filled with water and ies at high or low speeds
will have holes near the top, at the cen- D. Fluids flow that going on significant
ter, and another near the bottom, at which density changes
hole will have higher exit velocity for the
water? 443. In what condition does the substance
transmit pressure only in the direction of
A. near the top
force?
B. at the center
A. In liquid
C. near the bottom
B. In solid
D. cannot be determined C. In gaseous
439. The piston diameters for a hydraulic lift D. none of above
have a ratio of 4 to 1. What must the
minimum ratio of the force on the smaller 444. If a mass and energy is not allowed to
piston to that on the larger piston be for cross the boundary, the system is called
the lift to operate? system.

A. 1:4 A. isolated
B. closed
B. 1:2
C. control volume
C. 1:8
D. none of above
D. 1:16
445. An object will float if the buoyancy force
440. constructed on the upstream of the main exerted on it by the fluid is
dam to divert water into a diversion tun-
nel (or channel) during the construction of A. equal to the weight of the object
the dam B. greater than the weight of the object
A. STORAGE DAMS C. less than the weight of the object
B. DIVERSION DAMS D. cannot be determined

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5.1 Basics 573

446. Which of the following statements is al- 450. If there is bucket full of oil and bucket full
ways true? of water and you are asked to lift them,
which one of the two will require more ef-

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A. Pressure always increases when force
increases or the area acted on increases. fort given that volume of buckets remains
same?
B. Pressure always increases when force
increases or the area acted on decreases. A. Oil bucket
C. Pressure always increases when force B. Water bucket
decreases or the area acted on increases. C. Equal effort will be required to lift both
D. Pressure always increases when the of them
force decreases or the area acted on de-
D. None of the mentioned
creases.
447. Buoyancy:A piece of wood is floating in 451. What is the principal cause of action of
a bathtub. A second piece of wood sits on buoyant force on a body submerged par-
top of the first piece, and does not touch tially or fully in fluid?
the water. If the top piece is taken off and A. Displacement of fluid due to sub-
placed in the water, what happens to the merged body
water level in the tub?
B. Development of force due to dynamic
A. It goes up. action
B. It goes down.
C. Internal shear forces mitigating exter-
C. It does not change. nal forces
D. This cannot be determined without D. None of the mentioned
knowing the volume of the top piece of
wood. 452. Which is the cheapest device for measur-
448. In a vessel 8 cm high, water is poured ing flow / discharge rate.
to the top.What should be the height of A. Venturimeter
the vessel, filled to the top with kerosene,
B. Pitot tube
so that the pressure on the bottom is the
same as in a vessel with water? (Wa- C. Orificemeter
ter density 100th kg/cubic meter, and D. none of above
kerosene density-800 kg/cubic meter)
A. 2, 5 cm 453. In stable equilibrium for completely sub-
B. 10 m. merged bodies what is the relation be-
tween forces?
C. 10 cm
A. Buoyancy force= Weight of body, the
D. none of above
centre of buoyancy is below the centre of
449. The sources of external forces include F1, gravity.
F2, and F3, which are B. Buoyancy force=Weight of body, the
A. Pressure Force centre of buoyancy is above the centre of
B. Solid Boundary gravity.
C. Gravitational Effect C. Buoyancy force < Weight of body
D. None of Above D. Buoyancy force > Weight of body

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5.1 Basics 574

454. What are fluid characteristics? B. Viscosity is primarily due to interaction

A. Molecules move about at random between fluid molecules

B. Strongest inter-molecular bonds C. Viscosity of liquid decreases with in-

crease in temperature
C. Molecules move about each other,
but the volume remains constant due D. Viscosity of a liquid is appreciably af-
to strong cohesive forces between fected by change in pressure
molecules
459. When area increases

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Expands until it encounters the wall of
the container and fills the entire space A. pressure increases
available B. pressure decreases
455. Velocity of flow decreases, if cross sec- C. pressure stays the same
tional area and vice versa.
D. pressure increases then decreases
A. Increases
B. Decreases 460. Determine the weight of an object that
measures 2.4 m2 and exerts 398 Pa of
C. Equal pressure.
D. Less than
A. 398 N
456. A fluid exerts 500 N of force over an area B. 955 N
that measures .5 m2. What is the pres-
sure exerted by the fluid? C. 69.2 N

A. 1, 000 Pa D. 166 N
B. 2, 000 Pa 461. An ideal fluid flows through a pipe made
C. 750 Pa of two sections with diameters of 1 cm
D. 250 Pa and 3 cm, respectively. By what factor
would you have to multiply the velocity of
457. An oil of vicosity 7 poise is used for lu- the liquid flowing through the 1 cm section
brication between shaft and sleeve. The to obtain the velocity of the liquid flowing
diameter of shaft is 0.6 m and it rotates through the 3 cm section?
is 360 rpm. Calculate the power lost in oil A. 9
for a sleeve length of 160mm. The thick-
ness of oil film is 1.0mm B. 6
A. 25.31 kW C. 1/3
B. 50.62 kW D. 1/9
C. 37.97 kW
462. What is the SI unit of pressure?
D. 12.65 kW
A. Kg/m3
458. Choose the wrong statement from below B. Pa
A. Viscosity of a fluid that determines
C. kg m-3
the amount of its resistance to shearing
forces D. N m2

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5.1 Basics 575

463. The ratio of Hydraulic radius and Hy- 467. Two balls, lead and copper, equal to the
draulic depth is 1/2 and the top width of mass are suspended to the rods of the
the channel is 6m, calculate the hydraulic scales.Both balls are lowered into the wa-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

depth of the channel. ter.What will happen to the position of the
A. 1m scales?

B. 2m A. Equilibrium will not be broken

C. 3m B. The iron ball will pull

D. 4m C. The lead ball will pull
D. none of above
464. If radius of droplet becomes half then its
terminal velocity will be:
468. Which one of the following is the unit of
A. Half specific weight?
B. Double A. N/m3
C. One forth B. N/m2
D. Four times C. N/m
465. Why is the base of a dam thicker than the D. N/ms
top part of the dam?
469. Which meter doesn’t measure pressure?
A. The weight, and therefore pressure, in-
crease with depth, so it must withstand A. Piezometer
greater pressure at the base.
B. U-tube manometer
B. The cement, when poured, tends to
C. Dynamometer
settle and naturally form a thicker base.
D. Barometer
C. Architects tend to find the design more
visually appealing.
470. Calculate the hydraulic diameter for a
D. The top is thinner so that the fish in the rectangular duct having 10m width and 6m
upper reservoir can easily jump over the depth.
edge and swim safely downstream.
A. 5.5m
466. Bernoulli’s principle:In a section of hori- B. 6.5m
zontal pipe with a diameter of 3.00 cm the
pressure is 5.21 kPa and water is flowing C. 7.5m
with a speed of 1.50 m/s. The pipe nar- D. 8.5m
rows to 2.50 cm. What is the pressure in
the narrower region if water behaves like 471. Output length of a lever is 12 and the me-
an ideal fluid of density 1000 kg/m3? chanical advantage is 3. What is the input
A. 4.00 kPa length?

B. 7.50 kPa A. 36
C. 5.82 kPa B. 4
D. 6.42 kPa C. .25
E. 4.61 kPa D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 576

472. is the product of mass and accelera- C. Terminating force

tion. D. Frictional force
A. Force
478. A Von Karman Vortex street is an exam-
B. Momentum ple of a
C. Acceleration A. steady flow
D. Power B. uniform flow
473. The magnitudes assigned to the dimen-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. turbulent flow
sions are called D. periodic flow
A. units
479. Assuming there is an ideal flow, what
B. vector happens to the pressure if there has been
C. signs a change in pipe size and elevation along
D. numbers a pipeline?
A. it increases
474. If the mass of an object is 6kg on earth.
what would the mass be on the moon? B. it decreases

A. 6kg C. it remains the same

B. 0kg D. cannot be determined

C. 1kg 480. A balloon lifting in air follow which of the

D. 13kg below mentioned principle
A. Law of gravitation
475. When an object is immersed in a fluid, it
pushes the fluid out of the way and takes B. Archimedes principle
its place. This is C. Principle of Buoyancy
A. Gravity D. All of the above
B. Sinking 481. Velocity of fluid increases where the
C. Fish pressure is:
D. Displacement A. Low

476. It is “safe” to lay on a bed of nails due B. High

to: C. Constant
A. The increased area the nails create D. zero
B. The increased pressure the nails cre- 482. store water for hydroelectric power gen-
ate eration, irrigation or for a flood control
C. The smaller area the nails create project
D. The less force that acts on your body A. STORAGE DAMS

477. An object moving through a fluid experi- B. DIVERSION DAMS

ence a retarding force called: C. DETENTION DAMS
A. Drag force D. DEBRIS DAM
B. Gravitational force E. COFFER DAMS

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5.1 Basics 577

483. Cutting a watermelon in half causes the 489. What is the symbol for buoyant force?
density of the watermelon to:
A. FB

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A. Increase
B. Fg
B. Decrease
C. FO
C. Remain constant
D. FY
D. none of above
484. Fluids tend to move from an area of 490. Which of the following statements about
pressure to an area of pressure floating objects is correct?

A. high, low A. the objects density is greater than the

density of the fluid on which it floats
B. low, high
B. the objects density is equal to the den-
C. fluids don’t flow
sity of the fluid on which it floats
D. none of above
C. The displaced volume of fluid is
485. How can we obtain the absolute pressure greater than the volume of the object
from the gauge pressure? D. They buoyant force equals the objects
A. subtract atmospheric pressure weight
B. add atmospheric pressure
491. Which geometric parameter determines
C. subtract 273 the efficiency of the channel?
D. add 273 A. Hydraulic depth
486. The velocity of a point in a flow is B. Hydraulic radius
A. along the streamline C. Section factor
B. tangent to the streamline D. Normal depth
C. along the pathline
D. tangent to the pathline 492. Bernoulli’s principle:As the speed of a
moving fluid increases, the pressure in the
487. Portion of Dam in contact with ground or fluid
riverbed at upstream side. A. increases.
A. Crest
B. remains constant.
B. Spillway
C. decreases.
C. Heel
D. may increase or decrease, depending
D. Toe on the density of the fluid.
488. There are seven mass, length, time,
temperature, electric current, amount 493. Which of the following represent the ma-
oflight, and amount of matter. jor energy loss

A. primary dimensions A. Bend in pipe

B. fundamental dimensions B. Pipe fittings
C. basic dimensions C. Sudden exoansion
D. all of the above D. Friction loss

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5.1 Basics 578

494. The fluid does not travel in parallel layers, B. Matter and energy can crosses the
but moves in a haphazard manner with boundary of a control mass (system)
only the average motion of the fluid being C. Open system usually encloses a device
parallel to the axis of the pipe. that involves mass flow such as compres-
A. laminar flow sor, turbine and nozzle
B. turbulent flow D. Energy transfer (in the form of heat
C. transitional flow and work) into or out of the close sys-
tem may happen, and the volume does not

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. fluid flow have to be fixed
495. A pipe U filled with water with density of 499. Buoyancy:A 50-cm3 block of wood is
1000 kg/m3. One column of pipe U filled floating partially submerged in water, and
with glycerin with density of 1200 kg/m3. a 50-cm3 block of iron is totally sub-
If the height of glycerin is 4 cm, determine merged in water. Which block has the
the height difference of both columns of greater buoyant force on it?
the pipe.
A. the wood
A. 4 cm
B. the iron
B. 4.45 cm
C. Both have the same buoyant force.
C. 4.8 cm
D. The answer cannot be determined
D. 5 cm without knowing the densities of the
blocks.
496. Why is it hard to breath at high alti-
tudes? 500. To obtain the absolute pressure from the
A. There is too much oxygen in this loca- gauge pressure:
tion. A. subtract atmospheric pressure
B. There is a higher density of air B. add atmospheric pressure
molecules.
C. subtract 273
C. There is a low density of air molecules.
D. add 273
D. The air pressure is greater than at low
altitudes. 501. the remains of an ancient masonry grav-
ity dam on Wadi Rajil at Jawa in Mafraq
497. Locus of all points emerging from single Governorate, Jordan, 58 kilometres (36
reference point known as mi) north of Azraq
A. streamline A. DAMS
B. path line B. SAN ROQUE DAM
C. equipotential line C. THREE GORGES DAM
D. streak line D. JAWA DAM
498. Which statement on Close and Open sys- 502. The viscous force the relative motion
tems are wrong? between the adjacent layers of a fluid in
A. Close system is a system of a fixed motion.Which one of the flowing fits best
mass (no mass transfer across the sys- in the sentence?
tem boundary) A. opposes

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5.1 Basics 579

B. never affects 508. How much work is done if I use 5 New-

C. facilitates tons to move an object 2 meters?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. may effect under certain conditions A. 10 Newtons
503. What depends on the benchmark of liq- B. 10 meters
uid?
C. 10 Joules
A. From the mass of liquid and tempera-
ture D. 7 Joules
B. Did the masses of liquid
509. The moment of a couple is called a
C. From the density of liquid vector.
D. Did the liquid and regret
A. Free
E. The liquid of the liquid
B. Fixed
504. A fluid in equilibrium cannot sustain
C. Spinning
A. Tensile stress
B. Compress stress D. Sliding

C. Shear stress 510. What is the unit of the raid?

D. Bending stress.
A. m
505. Based on their density, which substance
B. N
will sink in water?
A. olive oil 0.92 g/cm3 C. MPa
B. gasoline 0.69 g/cm3 D. With/San
C. skim milk 1.04 g/cm3 E. N/with
D. ethanol (fuel) 0.789 g/cm3
511. An object will NOT sink if its weight is
506. A buoyant force is an upward force ap-
the Upthrust force.
plied on an object by a
A. Substance A. Less than or equal to
B. Fluid B. Greater than or equal to
C. Pressure C. Similar to and almost equal
D. Displacement
D. Different from and almost equal
507. Please choose the correct statement.
A. Flow is steady when there is no change 512. Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of
of fluid properties at a point with time 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the
density of the rock?
B. Example of steady flow is flowing river,
waves A. 7 mL
C. Example of steady flow is turbines, B. 7 g/cm3
pumps, boilers, and condensers
C. 28 g/cm3
D. Flow is unsteady when fluid properties
change at a point with time D. 1/7 g/cm3

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5.1 Basics 580

513. Which of the following are TRUE about D. 92 N

gas / vapor? (Answer may MORE than
E. 110 N
ONE)
A. arranged in a pattern like a lattice 518. According to Archimedes’ principle, if a
B. molecules can rotate body is immersed partially or fully in a
fluid then the buoyancy force is the
C. the order of molecule is inconsistent weight of fluid displaced by the body.
D. molecules move in a brownian motion A. equal to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
514. What is the temperature of the seal of B. less than
the trunk of the liquid, which is the tem-
C. more than
perature in which there is a resistance?
A. the temperature temperature D. unpredictable

B. inversion temperature 519. Coupling between phases

C. thermodynamic temperature A. One-way coupling
D. criticism temperature B. Two-way coupling
E. Spawn point
C. Four-way coupling
515. What are the characteristics of fluid D. All of the above
when shear force is applied?
A. Never stops deforming and ap- 520. Which will result in positive buoyancy?
proaches a constant rate of strain. A. When the buoyant force is greater
B. Deforms continuously under the influ- than the force of gravity
ence of shear stress. B. When the buoyant force is equal to the
C. Stress is proportional to strain. force of gravity
D. Stress is proportional to strain rate. C. When the buoyant force is less than
the force of gravity
516. A process where energy is released is
called D. none of above
A. endothermic 521. Define fluid
B. exothermic
A. substance which has the ability to flow
C. energetic
B. substance which can stand still
D. ballistic
C. substance which can move
517. Buoyancy:A 7.8-kg solid sphere, made of D. fluid is fluid
metal whose density is 2500 kg/m3, is
suspended by a cord. When the sphere 522. In a static fluid
is immersed in water (of density 1000
kg/m3), what is the tension in the cord? A. Resistance to shear stress is small
A. 46 N B. Fluid pressure is zero
B. 61 N C. Linear deformation is small
C. 76 N D. Only normal stress can exist

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5.1 Basics 581

523. Choose SI Units from the following list 528. The pressure less than atmospheric pres-
sure is known as
A. N

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. suction pressure
B. lbf
B. vacuum pressure
C. kJ
C. negative gauge pressure
D. kg
D. all of these
E. ft
529. Which statement is true when applying
524. Which term defined as the sum of forces Bernoulli’s equation?
due to fluid pressure. A. No energy loss due to friction
A. Buoyant force B. There are heat transfer into or out of
B. net force the fluid
C. Resultant force C. The flow is non-steady
D. Pressure D. The fluid is compressible

530. Which statement best describes the con-

525. When external torque is absent the type
tinuity equation for fluids?
of vortex flow is
A. Energy is conserved in a closed sys-
A. Circular vortex flow
tem.
B. Independent vortex flow B. Mass is conserved in a closed system.
C. Free vortex flow C. Linear momentum is conserved in a
D. Forced vortex flow closed system.
D. Angular momentum is conserved in a
526. Internal flow VS External flow closed system.
A. The flow where the fluid is completely E. Charge is conserved in a closed sys-
bounded by solid surfaces tem.
B. The flow of an unbounded fluid over a
531. A 4 kg body whirled at a constant speed
surface (plate, wire, pipe)
of 5.0 m/s around a horizontal circular
C. The viscous effects are limited to track with a radius of 2 meters is acted by
boundary layers near solid surfaces and a centripetal force of Hint:The Formula
to wake regions downstream of bodies v2
is ac = r and Fc = ma
D. Dominated by the influence of viscosity A. 50 N
throughout the flow field
B. 100 N
527. According to Boyle’s Law, pressure and C. 10 N
volume have what type of relationship? D. 5 N
A. Inverse
532. Define Hydrodynamics
B. Direct
A. deal with liquid flows in pipes
C. No relationship
B. flow of gasses through nozzles at high
D. none of above speed

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5.1 Basics 582

C. natural occuring flows 538. Assuming an ideal flow, what happens to

D. motion of incompressible fluids such the pressure if there has been an increase
as water and gasses at low speed in the cross-sectional area of a horizontal
pipeline?
533. Which one of the following is the CGS unit A. it increases
of dynamic viscosity?
B. it decreases
A. Stokes
C. it remains the same
B. Pa-s

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. cannot be determined
C. m2/s
D. Poise 539. Considering the air pressure inside a tire,
which of the following has the highest
534. It is a state of matter consisting of par- value?
tially ionized gas
A. Gauge pressure
A. Solid
B. Atmospheric pressure
B. Liquid
C. Absolute pressure
C. Gas
D. Cannot be determined
D. Plasma
540. Four liquids with densities of 1.260
535. Bernoulli’s principle is widely used in our
g/cm3, 0.690 g/cm3, 0.970 g/cm3, and
daily life. Among the choices, below what
0.870 g/cm3 are poured into a container.
is NOT an example of Bernoulli’s princi-
The liquids form separate layers, with one
ple?
liquid floating above another. What are
A. Aircraft the densities of the liquids, in order from
B. Baseball the liquid at the top to the one at the bot-
tom?
C. Hydraulic Jack
D. Sailing A. 1.260 g/cm3, 0.870 g/cm3, 0.970
g/cm3, , 0.690 g/cm3
536. The velocity of a jet is u, and the velocity B. 0.690 g/cm3, 0.970 g/cm3, 0.870
of a plate is v. To calcualte the jet force, g/cm3, 1.260 g/cm3
we should use
C. 1.260 g/cm3, 0.870 g/cm3, 0.970
A. u − v g/cm3, 0.690 g/cm3
B. u + v D. 0.690 g/cm3, 0.870 g/cm3, 0.970
C. u · v g/cm3, 1.260 g/cm3
u
D. v 541. Coefficient of friction for laminar flow is
537. What happens to a fully submerged ob- given asWhere, Re = Reynold’s numbera.
ject in a fluid with density greater than (Re / 32)b. (32 / Re)c. (Re / 16)d. (16
that of the object? / Re)
A. It will go upwards A. Re/32
B. It will stay on its position B. 32/Re
C. It will sink C. Re/16
D. Cannot be determined D. 16/Re

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5.1 Basics 583

542. Flows in which the frictional effects are C. 0.5-0.6

dominant is normally the wall. D. 0.62

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A. far away from
547. Using the particle model of matter, vis-
B. near to
cosity is described as
C. in between
A. the larger the molecules, the higher
D. adjacent to the viscosity
543. A raft with length of 8.0 m, a width of B. the greater the distance between the
1.6 m, and a thickness of 0.11 m, and particles, the greater the viscosity
a density of 690.0 kg/m3 is placed in a C. the greater the friction between parti-
river. How far below the water’s surface cles, the greater the viscosity
does the bottom of the raft sink?
D. the faster the particles are moving, the
A. 7.6 m greater the viscosity
B. 0.97 m
548. Bernoulli’s principle:Incompressible wa-
C. 0.076 m ter flows out of a large reservoir through a
D. 9.7 m pipe that opens to the atmosphere 5.70 m
below the level of the water in the reser-
544. A circular hatch in the hull of a submarine voir. What is the speed of the water as it
has a radius of 51.2 cm. The submarine comes out of the pipe?
is 451.4 m under water. If atmospheric
pressure above the ocean is 1.01 x 105 A. 1.72 m/s
Pa and the air pressure inside the subma- B. 7.47 m/s
rine is 1.34 x 105 Pa, what net force is
C. 55.8 m/s
exerted on the hatch? (density of sea wa-
ter = 1025 kg/m3) D. 10.6 m/s
A. 3.71 x 106 N E. 27.9 m/s
B. I don’t know, my brain just turned to 549. What are the three variables that com-
mush. pletely describe the macroscopic state of
C. 3.71 x 108 N an ideal gas?
D. 4.51 x 105 Pa A. Pressure, Temperature, and Energy

545. Mention any 3 properties of Fluids B. Pressure, Temperature, and Volume

A. Density, Mass, Volume C. Pressure, Volume, and Energy

B. Density, Specific Volume, Viscosity D. Volume, Temperature, and Energy
C. Capillarity, Evaporation, Transpiration 550. Something that takes up space and has
D. Solid, Fluid, Gas mass.
A. volume
546. Coefficient of discharge for venturimeter
is B. matter
A. 0.96-0.98 C. mass
B. 1.2-1.4 D. density

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5.1 Basics 584

551. A man standing near a fast moving train 556. Pascal’s principle:A 12, 000-N car is
may fall. raised using a hydraulic lift, which consists
A. Away from the train of a U-tube with arms of unequal areas,
filled with incompressible oil and capped at
B. Towards the train both ends with tight-fitting pistons. The
C. On the same place wider arm of the U-tube has a radius of
D. In the direction of train 18.0 cm and the narrower arm has a radius
of 5.00 cm. The car rests on the piston on
the wider arm of the U-tube. The pistons

NARAYAN CHANGDER
552. It is compact and yet, because of its
curved inlet, has a discharge coefficient are initially at the same level. What is
close to unity. the initial force that must be applied to the
smaller piston in order to start lifting the
A. Orifice plate
car? (For purposes of this problem, you
B. Venturi Tube can neglect the weight of the pistons.)
C. Nozzle A. 727 N
D. Weir
B. 926 N
553. When the flow parameters at any given C. 2900 N
instant remains same at every point, then
flow is said to be D. 3330 N
A. Quasi static E. 1.20 kN
B. Steady state 557. Convert 5 cm to mm:
C. Laminar
A. 5, 000mm
D. Uniform
B. 0.5 mm
554. The flow around an aircraft, a car and a
C. 0.05 mm
train can be categorised as
D. 50 mm
A. external flow
B. internal flow 558. The coefficient of discharge for an exter-
C. complex flow nal mouthpiece depends upon
D. surface drag flow A. velocity of liquid

555. Which of the following statements about B. pressure of liquid

completely submerged objects resting on C. area of mouthpiece
the ocean bottom is correct?
D. length of mouthpiece
A. The buoyant force acting on the object
is equal to the object’s weight. 559. What is the equation used to calculate
B. The apparent weight of the object de- pressure?
pends on the object’s density. A. pressure= force/mass
C. The displaced volume of fluid is
B. pressure=area/force
greater than the volume of the object.
C. pressure =mass/volume
D. The weight of the object and the buoy-
ant force are equal and opposite. D. pressure=force/area

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5.1 Basics 585

560. Which of the following correctly states 564. The study that deals with the flow of
how the viscosities of a liquid and a gas gases (especially air) over bodies such as
will change with temperature? aircraft rockets and automobiles at high or

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Viscosity increases with the increase low speeds is called
in temperature of a liquid and decreases A. Hydraulics
with the increase in temperature of a gas B. Hydrodynamics
B. Viscosity increases with the increase C. Aerodynamics
in temperature of a liquid and increases
with the increase in temperature of a gas D. Fluid Dynamics

C. Viscosity decreases with the increase 565. Phases of substances (Answer can be
in temperature of a liquid and decreases more than ONE)
with the increase in temperature of a gas A. solid
D. Viscosity decreases with the increase B. liquid
in temperature of a liquid and increases
C. gas
with the increase in temperature of a gas
D. vapor
561. Which is NOT a property of liquid
566. The velocity vector in a fluid is given
A. A free surface is formed V=5x4+3y2+2z( in metre/sec). What is
B. Regarded as incompressible for all the acceleration of it at point (1, 3, 4)?
practical purposes A. 40 m/s2
C. Expands infinitely in the absence of B. 20 m/s2
pressure
C. 60 m/s2
D. Has definite volume
D. 80 m/s2
562. * Earth Dams:is made of earth (or soil)
567. If air pressure in a tire is measured as 2.0
built up by compacting successive layers of
x 105 Pa, the atmospheric pressure equals
earth, using the most impervious materi-
1.0 x 105 Pa, what pressure does the air
als to form a core and placing more per-
within the tire exert outward on the tire
meable substances on the upstream and
walls?
downstream sides.
A. 1.0 x 105 Pa
A. Gravity Dams
B. 2.0 x 105 Pa
B. Embankment Dams
C. 3.0 x 105 Pa
C. Arch Dams
D. 4.0 x 105 Pa
D. none of above
568. The buoyant force that acts on a 20, 000-
563. Pressure at the bottom of the ocean is N ship is
greatest because:
A. somewhat less than 20, 000 N
A. The water is most dense at the bottom.
B. 20, 000N
B. The water is least dense at the bottom.
C. more than 20, 000N
C. The water is buoyant at the bottom. D. dependent on whether it floats in salt
D. none of above or in fresh water

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5.1 Basics 586

569. These are non-compressible and have con- 574. Which one of the following is the wrong
stant volume but can change shape. statement about capillarity? Magnitudes
A. Solids depends upon
A. The diameter of tube
B. Liquids
B. The specific weight of the liquid
C. Gases
C. Its surface tension
D. Plasma
D. Its viscosity

NARAYAN CHANGDER
570. How does airplane fly based on
575. A cube of wood with a density of 0.780
Bernoulli’s principle?
g/cm3 is 10.0 cm on each side. When
A. Airplanes have jet blasters beneath the cube is placed in water, what buoyant
the wing. force acts on the wood? (fresh water is
B. Gravity creates an equal and opposite 1.00 g/cm3)
reaction because it is not strong A. 7.65 x 103 N
C. High pressure presses up against the B. 7.65 N
low pressure on the bottom of the wing C. 6.40 N
D. High pressure presses up against the D. 5.00 N
low pressure on the top of the wing.
576. is known as equation of continuoty.
571. Every additive term in an equation must A. A/ v = constant
have the same dimensions.
B. V/A = constant
A. law of dimensional homogeneity
C. AV= constant
B. law of dimensional non-homogeneity
D. Av
C. law of dimensional heterogeneity
577. The kinematic viscosity is the
D. law of dimensions
A. ratio of absolute viscosity to the den-
572. Bernoulli’s principle states that as the ve- sity of the liquid
locity of a fluid , the pressure exerted B. ratio of density of the liquid to the ab-
by the fluid solute viscosity
A. increases; increases C. product of absolute viscosity and den-
B. decreases; decreases sity of the liquid
D. product of absolute viscosity and mass
C. increases; decreases
of the liquid
D. decreases; increases
578. Forces acting on fluid which we are con-
573. The section of this dam is approximately sidering in fluid dynamics are (select cor-
triangular like a gravity dam but the sec- rect options more than one)
tion is comparatively thinner A. Fg
A. Gravity Dams B. Fp
B. Embankment Dams C. Fv
C. Arch Dams D. Ft
D. none of above E. Fc

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5.1 Basics 587

579. The energy possessed by a fluid by virtue C. Specific volume

of it’s height or position is above the ref- D. Viscocity
erence line is known as

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585. The Plimsoll line on a ship is a line
A. Pressure energy
A. which measures the mass of the loads
B. Potential energy on the ship
C. Kinetic energy B. which indicates the safe mass that can
D. Heat energy be loaded in the front of the ship
C. which indicates the safe depth to
580. An Ideal Plastic Fluid has shear stress
which the ship can be loaded in different
that is to velocity gradient.
water conditions
A. equal D. which measures the depth to which
B. inversely proportional the ship can be loaded
C. proportional 586. The volume of fluid that flows past some
D. unequal cross-section of a vessel in a time rate of
flow (J).
581. What happens when a person blows be-
A. Time rates
tween two pare cups that are hung by
strings 10 cm apart? B. Acceleration

A. The cups move toward each other. C. Rate of Flow

D. none of above
B. The cups move away from each other.
C. The cups do not move. 587. It is a principle wherein the fluid exerts
an upward force on the object that is equal
D. The cups move upward. to the weight of the fluid
582. An Ideal Fluid is and viscosity. A. pascals principle
A. compressible, has B. bouyancy and archimedes principle
B. compressible, has no C. rawls principle
C. incompressible, has no D. none of above

D. incompressible, has 588. An axe is an example of a

A. pulley
583. The total energy line lies over the hy-
draulic gradient line by an amount equal B. inclined plane
to the C. screw
A. pressure head D. wedge
B. velocity head 589. A is a curve that is everywhere tan-
C. pressure head + velocity head gent to the instantaneous local velocity
vector.
D. pressure head-velocity head
A. streamline
584. The reciprocal of the density is known as B. streakline
A. Specific gravity C. pathline
B. Specific weight D. guideline

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5.1 Basics 588

590. One end of a towel dips into a bucket full 595. Flow inside a pipe or a duct is an example
of water and other end hangs over the of
bucket. It is found that after some time A. external flow
the towel becomes fully wet. It happens
B. turbulent
A. Because of evaporation of water.
C. high-speed
B. Because viscosity of eater is high
D. internal flow
C. Because of gravitational force

NARAYAN CHANGDER
596. the model must be the same shape as the
D. Because of the capillary action of cot-
prototype, but may be scaled by some con-
ton threads
stant scale factor.
591. The transferred heat is directly propor- A. geometric similarity
tional to the following except
B. kinematic similarity
A. A. temperature change C. kinetic similarity
B. B. mass of the substance D. dimensional homogeneity
C. C. specific heat capacity
597. The intensity of pressure at any point, in
D. A, B, C a liquid, is
E. none of the choices A. Directly proportional to the area of the
vessel containing liquid
592. The real or imaginary surface that sepa-
rates the system from its surroundings B. Directly proportional to the depth of
liquid from the surface
A. boundary
C. Directly proportional to the length of
B. system the vessel containing liquid
C. fixed boundary D. Inversely proportional to the depth of
D. movable boundary liquid from the surface

598. In which type of matter, one won’t find

593. A tendency of liquid surface to contract is
a free surface?
due to the following property
A. Solid
A. Cohesion
B. Liquid
B. Adhesion
C. Gas
C. Viscosity
D. Fluid
D. Surface tension
599. A negative Q (heat) means
594. Which of the following is an example of
fluid friction? A. Heat is released by a system into its
surroundings
A. Parachuting to the ground
B. Heat is absorbed by a system from its
B. Skinning your knee on the sidewalk surroundings
C. Opening a bottle of soda C. Cannot be determined
D. Drinking something nasty tasting D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 589

600. Pascal states that 605. The unit of kinematic viscosity is

A. Pressure is force per unit area A. Pa.s

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B. When velocity is higher, the pressure B. Sq.m per sec
is lower
C. Pa.sec / sq. m
C. When force is applied, the pressure is
transmitted equally through the fluid D. Kg.sec sq. / sq. m
D. Pressure transmitted is directly pro-
606. Branch of Fluid mechanics that deals with
portional to the force applied
translation, rotation and deformation of
601. In the one must keep track of the po- fluid elements
sition and velocity of individual particles. A. Dynamics
A. Lagrangian description
B. Rheology
B. Eulerian description
C. Kinematics
C. Newtonian description
D. Hydronics
D. none of the above

602. A hydraulic lift with pistons of radius 49 607. Why does the lift on an airplane wing
cm and 2.5 m is used to lift a mass of increase as the speed of the airplane in-
6.4 x 102 kg a distance of 3.2 m above creases?
the ground. How far must the smaller pis- A. The pressure behind the wing be-
ton be pushed to accomplish this? Assume comes less than the pressure in front of
that both pistons and the incompressible the wing.
fluid have negligible mass.
B. The pressure behind the wing be-
A. 7.53 x 105 m comes greater than the pressure in front
B. 84 m of the wing.
C. 2.4 x 102 m C. The pressure above the wing becomes
D. 46.5 cm less than the pressure below the wing.
D. The pressure above the wing becomes
603. What decreases as you go up in the at-
greater than the pressure below the wing.
mosphere?
A. Altitude 608. Several cans of different sizes and
B. Atmosphere shapes are all filled with the same liquid
to the same depth. Then,
C. Meteors
D. Air Pressure A. The pressure on the bottom of each
can is the same
604. This fluid obeys Newton’s Law of Viscos- B. The weight of the liquid on the bottom
ity of each can is the same
A. Ideal Fluid
C. The least pressure is at the bottom of
B. Newtonian Fluid the can with the largest bottom area
C. Ideal Plastic Fluid D. the force of the liquid on the bottom of
D. Real Fluid each can is the same

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5.1 Basics 590

609. Buoyancy force equals A. greater in the wide part

A. weight of displaced water B. greater in the narrow part
B. the “weight loss” of the object im- C. the same in both parts
mersed in water D. none of above
C. upward force of water 615. What is the correct final result in terms
D. all of these of its significant digits? 2.3601 × 0.34
=

NARAYAN CHANGDER
610. What is the unit for density?
A. 0.802434
A. kg
B. 0.80243
B. kg/m3
C. 0.8024
C. Newton D. 0.802
D. N/m3 E. 0.80
611. Calculate the mean hydraulic radius for a 616. A seesaw is an example of a
channel having 20m2 cross sectional area
A. wedge
and 50m of wetted perimeter.
B. lever
A. 0.4m
C. inclined plane
B. 0.5m
D. pulley
C. 0.6m
617. boundary layer parameters
D. 0.7m
A. boundary layer thickness
612. An object will sink in a fluid if B. displacement thickness, momentum
A. gravity is stronger than buoyant force thickness and energy thickness
B. buoyant force is stronger than gravity C. momentum thickness and energy thick-
ness
C. a fluid can be a gas or a liquid
D. all of the above
D. if the object is solid
618. Tamara rides her skateboard 1.5 meters
613. the property of being reduced to a up a ramp to a height of 0.5 meters above
smaller space by pressure. This prop- ground. What is the ideal mechanical ad-
erty is a consequence of porosity, and the vantage of the ramp?
change of bulk comes from the particles
A. 0.5m
being brought closer together by the pres-
sure. B. 1.5m
A. Surface tension C. 3
B. Viscosity D. 3m
C. Adhesion 619. Unit of mass density
D. Compressibility A. Kg. m3
B. Kg/m3
614. Water flows in a horizontal pipe that is
narrow but then widens. The pressure of C. Kg.m-1
the water moving in the pipe is D. m2/Kg

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5.1 Basics 591

620. Which of the following is in the order C. Equal effort will be required to lift both
from most dense to least dense? of them

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A. winter salt water, summer salt water, D. None of the mentioned
tropical fresh water
625. Fluid is a substance that
B. summer salt water, winter salt water,
tropical fresh water A. Cannot be subjected to shear forces
B. Has the same shear stress at a point
C. tropical fresh water, summer salt wa-
regardless of its motion
ter, winter salt water
C. Cannot remain at rest under action of
D. tropical fresh water, winter salt water,
any shear force
summer salt water
D. Always expands until it fills any con-
621. A force of 230 N applied on a hydraulic tainer
lift raises an automobile weighing 6500 N.
If the applied force is exerted on a 7.0 m2 626. An object weighs 500 N. It displaces 150
piston, what is the area of the piston be- N of water. While in water, the object’s
neath the automobile? weight is
A. 2.0 x 102 m2 A. 500 N
B. 4.0 m2 B. 650 N

C. 0.25 m2 C. .33 N

D. 0.0050 m2 D. 350 N

627. Which of the following correctly

622. What is any substance than can flow and
completes the following statement?
take the shape of the container that holds
“Bernoulli’s principle states that as the ve-
it
locity of a fluid , the pressure exerted
A. pressure by the fluid “
B. atmospheric pressure A. increases; increases
C. fluid B. decreases; decreases
D. density C. increases; decreases

623. Peanut butter is an example of a D. decreases; increases

A. High viscosity liquid 628. A mercury barometer consists of a glass

column from which air has been removed
B. Low viscosity liquid
so that there is negligible pressure above
C. Isnt a liquid at all! Don’t be silly. the mercury column. The pressure on mer-
D. none of above cury in a reservoir pushes the mercury into
the column until the weight of the mer-
624. If there is bucket full of oil and bucket full cury equals the force exerted by the air.
of water and you are asked to lift them, How high does the mercury (13.6 x 103
which one of the two will require more ef- kg/m3) rise when atmospheric pressure is
fort? (Volume of buckets are same) 0.925 x 105 Pa?
A. Oil bucket A. It doesn’t.
B. Water bucket B. 0.925 m

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5.1 Basics 592

C. 1.36 m 634. When pressure is applied to a confined

D. 0.693 m fluid, the increase in pressure is transmit-
ted equally to all parts of the fluid. This
629. What principle states that any object fact is called
completely or partially submerged in a A. Pascal’s Principle
fluid experiences an upward buoyant force
B. Newton’s Principle
equal in magnitude to the weight of the
fluid displaced by the object? C. Archimedes’ Principle

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Archimedes’ Principle D. Bernoulli’s Principle

B. Bernoulli’s Principle 635. In liquids in order to measure the viscos-

C. Newton’s Principle ity of fluid experimentally we consider the
variation of shear stress with respect to
D. Pascal’s Principle what property?
630. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is A. strain
required to determine B. shear strain
A. Reynold’s number C. rate of shear strain
B. Froude’s number D. none of the mentioned
C. Mach number 636. Using a lever, Joe is able to lift a 10,
D. Euler’s number 000 N car off of the ground with a force
of 1000 N. What is the mechanical advan-
631. Almost all fluids are tage of the lever?
A. Ideal Fluid A. 1
B. Sublime Fluid B. 10
C. Viscous Fluid C. 1000
D. Real Fluid D. 100

632. Venturi meter is a device used to mea- 637. What is the formula for Volume?
sure: A. Mass/Volume
A. Pressure of the fluid B. Density x Volume
B. Viscosity of the fluid C. Mass/Density
C. Velocity of the fluid D. none of above
D. Density of the fluid 638. Tunnel constructed to divert or change the
direction of water to bypass the dam con-
633. The Reynolds number for a flow in a chan- struction site. The dam is built while the
nel is 1000. What type of flow is it? river flows through the diversion tunnel.
A. Laminar A. Dead Storage level
B. Turbulent B. Diversion Tunnel:
C. Transition C. Gallery
D. Steady D. Free board

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5.1 Basics 593

639. Choose the wrong statement A. 0 Pa

A. Fluids are capable of flowing B. 5.05 x 104 Pa

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B. Fluids conform to the shape of confin- C. 1.01 x 105 Pa
ing vessel
D. 2.02 x 105 Pa
C. Under equilibrium, fluids can sustain
shear forces 645. Types of Modeling approach
D. Under equilibrium, fluids cannot sus- A. Lagrangian
tain tangential forces
B. Algebra slip model
640. Boyle’s Law and Charles’ Law apply to: C. Two-fluids theory
A. Solids D. All of the above
B. Gases
646. In a single-phase flow of incompressive
C. Plasma
fluid, is constant.
D. none of above
A. Mass flow rate
641. Jodie can’t remove her wedding ring. If B. Volumetric flow rate
she runs the entire ring under hot water,
the hole in the middle will C. Density
A. expand D. Velocity
B. contract 647. The discharge through a channel of trape-
C. stay the same zoidal section is maximum when
D. none of above A. width of channel at the top is equal to
twice the width at the bottom
642. Convert 2.2 bar to MPa.
B. depth of channel is equal to the width
A. 0.022 MPa
at the bottom
B. 0.22 MPa
C. the sloping side is equal to half the
C. 2.2 MPa width at the top
D. none of above D. the sloping side is equal to the width
at the bottom
643. The change of momentum in a fluid body
must be induced by 648. An object will will be partially submerged
A. Inertia force in a fluid if
B. Viscous force A. the weight of an object is greater than
C. External force the buoyant force
D. None of above B. the weight of an object is less than the
buoyant force
644. The gauge pressure for the air in a bal-
C. the weight of an object is equal to the
loon equals 1.01 x 105 Pa. If atmospheric
buoyant force
pressure is equal to 1.01 x 105 Pa, what
is the absolute pressure of the air inside D. the weight doesn’t affect if an object
the balloon? sinks, only its state of matter

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5.1 Basics 594

649. If cross-sectional area of pipe decreases, B. Density of liquids and gases will de-
the speed of fluid must increase according crease
to:
C. Density of liquids and gases will not be
A. Continuity equation affected
B. Bernoulli’s equation D. none of the above answers
C. Torricelli’s theorem
655. largest dam in the Philippines and six-
D. Venture relation
teenth largest in the world

NARAYAN CHANGDER
650. The unit m3 is a unit of: A. DAMS
A. Volume B. SAN ROQUE DAM
B. Mass C. THREE GORGES DAM
C. Density
D. JAWA DAM
D. Area
656. Definition gauge pressure is
651. What is the ratio of weight of all the air
above you to your surface area A. The pressure due to atmosphere at the
surface of the earth depends upon the
A. pressure
head of the air above the surface
B. density
B. The pressure measured by using the
C. fluids pressure measuring equipment in which
D. atmospheric pressure the atmospheric is taken as the datum

652. Which of the following contribute to the C. The sum of the atmospheric pressure
reason behind the origin of surface ten- and gauge pressures
sion? D. The empty space where the pressure
A. only cohesive forces is zero.
B. only adhesive forces 657. What physical quantities of Archimedes
C. neither cohesive forces nor adhesive depend on?
forces A. from body density and fluid density
D. both cohesive forces and adhesive
B. from body volume and body density
forces
C. from the density of the fluid and body
653. What is the pressure acting on the water volume
at a depth of 3ft at 32◦ F?
D. none of above
A. 157.3lb.ft-2
B. 167.3lb.ft-2 658. If the weight of an object is < the BF, the
object will:
C. 177.3lb.ft-2
D. 187.3lb.ft-2 A. Rise
B. Sink
654. If temperature increases
C. Remain at the same level
A. Density of liquids and gases will in-
crease D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 595

659. The energy possessed by a fluid by virtue C. 32.9 m/s

of its velocity i .e due to motion is known D. 23.8 m/s
as

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E. 186 m/s
A. Pressure energy
662. The velocity distribution for fluid flow
B. Potential energy
over a flat plate is given by u=2y-6y2
C. Kinetic energy in which u is the velocity in metre per
D. Electric energy second at a distance of y metre above
the plate. Determine the shear stress at
660. Terminal velocity is: y=0.15m.Take dynamic viscosity of fluid
A. The turbulent speed of an object that as 8.6 poise.
has been slowed by fluid A. 0.172 N/m2
B. The speed of laminar flow B. 0.344 N/m2
C. The drag force on a sphere going con- C. 0.086 N/m2
stant speed in a viscous fluid D. None of the mentioned
D. When the drag force equals the grav-
itational force acting on a falling body 663. What correctly completes the following
now going at a constant speed Cohesive statement? “According to Archimedes’
forces between molecules cause the sur- principle, if a body is immersed partially
face of a liquid to contract to the small- or fully in a fluid then the buoyancy force
est possible surface area. This general ef- is the weight of fluid displaced by the
fect is called surface tension. Forces be- body.”
tween atoms and molecules underlie the A. equal to
macroscopic effect called surface tension. B. less than
These attractive forces pull themolecules
C. more than
closer together and tend to minimize the
surface area. This is another example of D. unpredictable
a submicroscopic explanationfor a macro- 664. Which one of the following is the unit of
scopic phenomenon. The distortion of a mass density?
liquid surface due to adhesive forces be-
tween the surface of the liquid and an ad- A. kg = m3
jacent solid surface. This can result in the B. kg = m2
liquid being pulled up or down a narrow C. kg = m
tube
D. kg = ms
661. Bernoulli’s principle:A level pipe contains
665. Which branchof fluid mechanics deals
a nonviscous, incompressible fluid with
with translation, rotation and deformation
a density 1200 kg/m3 that is flowing
ofthe fluid element without considering
steadily. At one position within the pipe,
the force and energy causing suchmotion
the pressure is 300 kPa and the speed of
is called as
the flow is 20.0 m/s. At another posi-
tion, the pressure is 200 kPa. What is the A. fluid dynamics
speed of the flow at this second position? B. fluid kinematics
A. 567 m/s C. fluid kinetics
B. 16.2 m/s D. hydraulics

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5.1 Basics 596

666. Non-uniform flow C. external resistance to molecule move-

A. A non-uniform flow is one in which ve- ment
locity is constant at a given instant D. random movement that cause the
change of fluid motion
B. A non-uniform flow is one in which ve-
locity is not constant 672. Which one is in a state of failure?
C. A non-uniform flow is one in which ve- A. Solid
locity is not constant at a given instant
B. Liquid

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of the above C. Gas
667. Fluids Mechanics is divided into several D. Fluid
categories. What are they?
673. Buoyancy:A rock is under water in a shal-
A. Hydrodynamics low lake. As the rock sinks deeper and
B. Gas Dynamics deeper into water, the buoyant force on it
C. Aerodynamics A. increases.
D. Naturally occurring flows B. decreases
C. remains constant
668. This fluid does not obey Newton’s Law of
Viscosity D. none of above

A. Real Fluid 674. A is the locus of fluid particles that

have passed sequentially through a pre-
B. Ideal Plastic Fluid
scribed point in the flow.
C. Non-Newtonian Fluid
A. streakline
D. Newtonian Fluid
B. streamline
669. The stress strain relation of Newton on C. pathline
fluid is D. guideline
A. Linear
675. Atmospheric pressure is measured by a
B. Parabolic device called a
C. Hyperbolic A. manometer
D. Inverse type B. barometer
670. Property has two types:primary and sec- C. venturi
ondary. Which part is primary property? D. thermometer
A. pressure 676. A simple U tube manometer connected to
B. force a pipe in which liquid is flowing with uni-
form speed will give which kind of pres-
C. mass
sure?
D. temperature
A. Absolute Pressure
671. Which is true about viscosity: B. Vacuum Pressure
A. internal resistance of fluid to motion C. Gauge Pressure
B. similar to density D. Atmospheric pressure

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5.1 Basics 597

677. If three couples act on a body, the overall B. Sluice way

result is that C. Gallery

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A. The net force is not equal to 0 D. Free board
B. The net force and net moment are
equal to 0. 683. These may also be used to accommodate
the instrumentation for studying the per-
C. The net moment equals 0 but the net formance of dam.
force is not necessarily equal to 0.
A. Abutments
D. The net force equals 0 but the net mo-
ment is not necessarily equal to 0. B. Sluice way
C. Gallery
678. The unit of viscosity is
D. Free board
A. meter2
684. Which is not a type of simple machine?
B. kg-meter/sec
A. spring
C. newton sec/meter2
B. screw
D. newton sec/meter
C. pulley
679. If the flow rate of a liquid is measured at
D. wedge
8.0 x 103 m3/s going through a 20.0 m
radius pipe, which of the following is the 685. If the weight of an object is < the Buoy-
average fluid velocity in the pipe? ant Force, What will happen to the object?
A. 4.0 x 10-2 m/s The object will
B. 0.64 m/s A. Sink
C. 2.0 m/s B. Rise
D. 6.4 m/s C. Remain at the same level
D. Float
680. Practical fluids
A. Are viscous 686. is simultaneous flow of:-Materials
with different states or phases-Materials
B. Possess surface tension
with different chemical properties but in
C. Are compressible the same state or phase
D. Possesses all the above properties A. multiphase flow
681. Study of mechanics of fluids at rest B. single-phase flow
A. Kinematics C. laminar flow
B. Dyamics D. turbulent flow
C. Hydrostatics 687. A phase change from solid directly into
D. None of the above gas
A. melting
682. The space between the highest level of
water in the reservoir and the top of the B. vaporization
dam. C. sublimation
A. Abutments D. deposition

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5.1 Basics 598

688. What does mechanics means? B. Embankment Dams

A. Skilled people who use hardware to re- C. Arch Dams
pair and maintain machinery or machines
D. none of above
B. Physical science that deals with both
stationary and moving bodies under the in- 693. a barrier that stops or restricts the flow
fluences of forces. of water or underground streams
C. Physical science that deals with both A. DAMS

NARAYAN CHANGDER
stationary and moving bodies under the in-
fluences of pressures. B. SAN ROQUE DAM
D. A branch of classical mechanics that C. THREE GORGES DAM
concerned with the study of forces and D. JAWA DAM
their effects on motion
694. An inclined plane wrapped around a rod
689. Calculate the mean hydraulic depth of a
forms this simple machine
channel having top width of 7m and cross
sectional area of 35m2 A. lever
A. 4m B. pulley
B. 5m C. screw
C. 6m D. wedge
D. 7m
695. Stoke is the unit of
690. Select the wrong statement
A. dynamic viscosity
A. An equivalent pipe is treated as an or-
dinary pipe for all calculations B. kinematic viscosity
B. The length of an equivalent pipe is C. specific volume
equal to that of a compound pipe D. specific weight
C. The discharge through an equivalent
pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe 696. is defined as a quantity of matter or a
region in space chosen for study.
D. The diameter of an equivalent pipe is
equal to that of a compound pipe A. system

691. What happens to the velocity of an incom- B. mass

pressible fluid that is pumped and passes C. volume
thru a uniform pipe to a higher elevation?
D. none of the above
A. it increases
B. it decreases 697. An upward force exerted by fluid coun-
teracting force of gravity
C. it remains the same
D. cannot be determined A. Normal force
B. Weight
692. * a massive sized dam fabricated from
concrete or stone masonry C. Tension
A. Gravity Dams D. Buoyant Force

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5.1 Basics 599

698. What are the three energies types in a C. pressure difference between two
fluid flow? points in a channel

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A. Pressure D. pressure difference between two
B. Kinetic points in a pipe
C. Potential 704. What factors affect the gauge pressure
D. Strain within a fluid?
A. fluid density, depth, free-fall accelera-
699. The specific gravity of a liquid has
tion
A. the same unit as that of mass density
B. fluid volume, depth, free-fall accelera-
B. the same unit as that of weight density tion
C. the same unit as that of specific vol- C. fluid mass, depth, free-fall accelera-
ume tion
D. no unit D. fluid weight, depth, free fall accelera-
700. A consequence of energy conservation as tion
applied to ideal fluids
705. How do they tip the barrels?
A. Bouyancy formula
A. Cylindrical, convoyal
B. Continuity Equation
B. Conical and external cylindrical
C. Bernoulli’s Equation
C. Cylindrical, conical and convoidal
D. Torrecelli’s Principle
D. External and internal cylindrical bar-
701. The pressure at any given point of a non- rels
moving fluid is called the E. Congress expanders and narrow bar-
A. Differential Pressure rels
B. Hydrostatic Pressure
706. Which of the following is a fluid?
C. Atmospheric Pressure
A. helium
D. Gauge Pressure
B. ice
702. As an engineer / a technologist, what C. iron
area can you apply fundamental of fluid
mechanics D. gold
A. plumbing system 707. Which of the following is TRUE about ab-
B. wind turbine solute pressure?
C. human body A. it is equal to atmospheric pressure
plus gauge pressure
D. cars and other vehicles
E. air crafts B. it is equal to atmospheric pressure mi-
nus gauge pressure
703. A venturiflume is used to measure C. it is equal to gauge pressure minus at-
A. pressure of liquid mospheric pressure
B. discharge of liquid D. none of above

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5.1 Basics 600

708. resists the forces exerted upon it mainly 713. What device measures in mmHg?
due to shear strength of the soil.
A. baromometer
A. Gravity Dams
B. thermometer
B. Embankment Dams
C. graduated cylinder
C. Arch Dams
D. sphygomometer
D. none of above
714. consists of a sloping deck supported by

NARAYAN CHANGDER
709. They do not have a constant volume or buttresses
shape; they not only take the shape of the
A. deck type buttress dam
container they are in, they try to fill the
entire container. B. STEEL DAMS
A. Solids C. TIMBER DAMS
B. Liquids D. multiple-arch type buttress dam
C. Gases E. massive-head type buttress dam
D. Plasma
715. What is the definition of specific grav-
710. As you climb up a mountain what hap- ity?
pens to the air pressure? A. the weight per unit gravity
A. decreases B. the ratio of the density of water to the
B. increases density of fluid

C. stays the same C. the ratio of the density of a fluid to the

density of water
D. none of above
D. none of above
711. What was the principle Archimedes dis-
covered? 716. are gases and liquids, which can have
no definite size and shape, so they flow
A. Principle of Volume freely.
B. Principle of Density A. Fluids
C. Principle of Buoyancy B. Fluid statics
D. Principle of Gravity
C. Fluid dynamics
712. We use the term for the combined set D. Solid
of dimensional variables, nondimensional
variables, and dimensional constants in 717. An object will sink if the buoyancy force
the problem exerted on it by the fluid is
A. parameters A. equal to the weight of the object
B. dimensions B. greater than the weight of the object
C. variables C. less than the weight of the object
D. constants D. cannot be determined

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5.1 Basics 601

718. What does the net force between two 723. quite suitable for narrow canyons with
levels in a fluid equal? strong flanks which are capable of resist-
ing the thrust produced by the arch action

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A. the weight of the fluid above the top
level A. Gravity Dams
B. the weight of the fluid between the lev- B. Embankment Dams
els
C. Arch Dams
C. the force applied to the fluid’s surface
D. none of above
D. the force applied to the fluid’s sides

719. According to legend, to determine 724. Study of the properties of fluids in motion
whether the king’s crown is made of pure A. Fluid statics
gold, Archimedes measured the crown’s
volume by determining how much water B. Fluid dynamics
it displaced. The density of gold is 19.3
C. Hydrodynamics
g/cm3
D. none of above
A. 31.1 cm3
B. 1.81 x 103 cm3 725. The value of the compressibility of an
C. 22.8 x 103 cm3 ideal fluid is
D. 114 x 103 cm3 A. zero

720. Any substance that can easily flows and B. unity

therefore can easily change shape. C. infinity
A. Fluid
D. more than that of a real fluid
B. Liquid
C. Gas 726. Which of the following properties is NOT
a characteristic of an ideal fluid?
D. Solid
A. laminar flow
721. A powerful tool to reduce the number
of necessary independent parameters in a B. turbulent flow
problem is called C. nonviscous
A. dimensional analysis D. incompressable
B. nondimensional analysis
727. The energy required to raise the temper-
C. differential analysis
ature of the unit mass of a substance by
D. all of the above one degree as the pressure is maintained
constant.
722. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon
A. cp
A. Pressure
B. Distance B. cv

C. Level C. k
D. Density D. R

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5.1 Basics 602

728. Which of the following does a simple ma- C. v1 + v2/4

chine do? D. 2(v1 + v2)
A. allows the users to apply less force
over a longer distance 733. Pressure in a fluid:A cubical box, 5.00 cm
on each side, is immersed in a fluid. The
B. reduce the amount of force needed to gauge pressure at the top surface of the
do work box is 594 Pa and the gauge pressure on
C. change the direction of the applied the bottom surface is 1133 Pa. What is
the density of the fluid?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
force
D. all of the above A. 1000 kg/m3
B. 1100 kg/m3
729. Why can’t Bernoulli’s equation be used
for flow of water in river? Because the C. 1220 kg/m3
flow is D. 2340 kg/m3
A. streamlined E. 12, 000 kg/m3
B. turbulent 734. Density of water is maximum at
C. laminar A. 0◦ C
D. viscous B. 0◦ K
730. It states that when force is applied to C. 4◦ C
a confined, incompressible fluid, the pres- D. 100◦ C
sure increases equally in all directions E. 20◦ C
throughout the fluid.
A. Pascal’s principle 735. Assuming atmospheric pressure to be
1.01x105 Pa and the density of sea water
B. Bernoulli’s principle to be 1025 kg/m3, what is the absolute
C. Archimedes principle pressure at a depth of 35.6 m below the
surface of the ocean?
D. Principal’s principle
A. 4.59 x 105 Pa
731. If an object displaces less water than its B. 3.58 x 105 Pa
weight, the object will
C. 1.01 x 105 Pa
A. float
D. 1.025 x 105 Pa
B. accelerate
736. Describe laminar flow.
C. create friction
A. A flow that alternates between laminar
D. sink
and turbulent
732. Two pipes of diameters d1 and d2 con- B. The highly ordered fluid motion charac-
verge to form a pipe of diameter 2d. If terized by smooth layers of fluid
the liquid flows with a velocity of v1 and
C. The flow of high-viscosity fluids (e.g.
v2 in the two pipes, what will be the flow
oil) at low velocities
velocity in the third pipe?
D. The highly disordered fluid motion that
A. v1 + v2 typically occurs at high velocities and is
B. v1 + v2/2 characterized by velocity fluctuations

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5.1 Basics 603

737. What is altitude? D. 2.05 x 1016 Pa

A. how much something weighs 742. The force that water and other fluids ex-

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B. the distance above sea level ert upward on an object.
C. how big something is A. gravitational force
D. how far away something is B. surface tension
738. :discrete gaseous bubbles in a contin- C. buoyant force
uous liquid. D. cohesive force
A. Bubbly flow
743. which equation is called Prandtl’s univer-
B. Droplet flow sal velocity distribution equation for turbu-
C. Slug flow lent flow in pipe:
D. Annular flow A. u= umax + 5.75 u* log10 (y/R)

739. Pressure in a fluid:At a certain depth in B. u= u + 5.75 u* log10 (y/R)

the ocean, the absolute pressure is p. If C. u= umax + 3.75 u* log10 (y/R)
you go to twice that depth (treating the
D. u= umax + 4.75 u* log10 (y/R)
water as incompressible)
A. the absolute pressure will be 2p. 744. There are two modes of fluid flow:
B. the absolute pressure will be less than A. laminar and turbulent;
2p. B. in the past and asta.
C. the absolute pressure will be greater C. Reference and asta
than 2p.
D. Ideal and stationary;
D. the gauge pressure will not change.
E. Influential rivetes and rabbitly renders
E. the gauge pressure will increase but
will not double. 745. Instead of the deck, the upstream edges
of the buttresses are flared to form mas-
740. storage weir which also diverts water sive heads which span the distance be-
and has a small storage tween the buttresses.
A. STORAGE DAMS
A. deck type buttress dam
B. DIVERSION DAMS
B. STEEL DAMS
C. DETENTION DAMS
C. TIMBER DAMS
D. DEBRIS DAM
D. multiple-arch type buttress dam
E. COFFER DAMS
E. massive-head type buttress dam
741. What is the pressure of at the bottom of
a lake that is 105 m deep? Use the den- 746. When an incompressible and non-viscous
sity of water as 1 000 kg/m3. Use g = fluid, flows steadily through a tube of non
10 m/s/s. uniform cross section then the product of
area of cross section and the velocity of
A. 1.05 x 106 Pa flow is same at every point in the tube.
B. 2.05 x 108 Pa This is
C. 1.05 x 103 Pa A. Principle of mass

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5.1 Basics 604

B. Principle of momentum 752. A Newtonion fluid is defined as the fluid

C. Principle of energy which

D. Principle of continuity A. is incompatible and non-viscous

B. Obeys Newton’s law of viscosity
747. Friction is a contact force that acts in
direction of movement. C. is higly viscous

A. a similar D. is compressible and viscous

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. an opposite 753. According to Pascal, pressure applied to
C. a parallel a fluid

D. a perpendicular A. decreases as it moves through the

fluid
748. Which of the following statements is NOT B. is transmitted unchanged throughout
correct? the fluid
A. A fluid flows C. increases as it moves through the fluid
B. a fluid has a definite shape D. fluctuates as it is transmitted through-
C. molecules of a fluid are free to move out the fluid
past each other
754. Hydraulic signigraphers say?
D. a fluid changes it shape easily
A. To the mechanical energy of the liquid
749. The mass or region outside the system is energy of the liquid
called the B. Machine’s hydraulic energy to mechan-
A. surroundings ical equipment
B. boundary C. To the devices to use hydraulic walnes
C. space D. To the devices to use in compressed
D. void air energy
E. Machine to the mechanical energy of
750. Why does a steel ship float, while a block the liquid to the machines
of the same steel sinks?
A. shape of object 755. The ratio of force, acting perpendicular to
the area, on which it acts known as
B. air is lighter than water
A. Friction
C. the block’s buoyancy is less than its
weight B. Pressure

D. all of the above C. Force

D. Density
751. Atmospheric pressure is caused by the at-
mosphere’s 756. The pulling force that causes this ten-
A. density sion acts parallel to the surface and is
due to the attractive forces between the
B. weight molecules of the liquid. The magnitude of
C. temperature this force per unit length is called
D. response to solar energy A. surface tension

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5.1 Basics 605

B. viscosity C. Rotameter
C. capillary effect D. Weir

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D. adhesion 762. According to legend, to determine
757. It refers to the pressure exerted by a whether the king’s crown was made
fluid (gas or liquid) at any point in space of pure gold, Archimedes measured the
within that fluid, assuming that the fluid is crown’s volume by determining how much
incompressible and at rest. water it displaced. The density of gold is
19.3 g/cm3. If the crown’s mass was
A. Hydrostatic pressure 6.00 ‘ 102 g, what volume of water
B. Hydraulic pressure would have been displaced if the crown
was indeed made of pure gold?
C. Fluidic pressure
A. 31.1 cm3
D. Static pressure
B. 1.81 x 103 cm3
758. is a term used to describe a moving
C. 22.8 x 103 cm3
object, and it is expressed as a product of
mass and velocity. D. 114 x 103 cm3
A. Force 763. This kind of fluid is imaginary and does
B. Momentum not exist
C. Acceleration A. Ideal Fluid
D. Power B. Newtonian Fluid
C. Ideal Plastic Fluid
759. Water pressure at the bottom of a lake
depends on the D. Real Fluid
A. weight of water in the lake 764. This type of manometer is used to mea-
B. surface area of the lake sure pressure difference
C. depth of the lake A. differential manometer
D. all of these B. piezometer
C. bourdon gage
760. What will happen if the gas located in a
tightly closed vessel? D. open manometer
A. Gas mass will increase. 765. It is simply a plate with a hole of speci-
B. Gas pressure increases fied size and position cut in it, which can
then clamped between flanges in a pipeline
C. Gas pressure will decrease.
A. orifice plate
D. none of above
B. flange plate
761. The pressure loss caused by the is C. pipeline plate
lower, but the differential pressure is also
lower than for an orifice plate of the same D. circular plate
diameter ratio. 766. Archimedes’ Principle relates the buoy-
A. Venturi tube ant force to:
B. Nozzle A. The weight of fluid displaced

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5.1 Basics 606

B. The volume of the object 771. Kepler’s First Law of Planetary Motion
C. The mass of the object states that the planetrevolves around the
sun in orbit.
D. The density of the object
A. circular
767. constructed to retain debris such as sand, B. elliptical
gravel, and drift wood flowing in the river C. egg-shaped
with water
D. straight

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. STORAGE DAMS
772. Pressure energy per unit volume of the
B. DIVERSION DAMS
liquid equal to due to the fluid.
C. DETENTION DAMS
A. Hydrostatic pressure
D. DEBRIS DAM
B. Atmospheric pressure
E. COFFER DAMS C. Guage pressure
768. Liquid D. Electric pressure
A. non rigid molecules, not fixed shape, 773. The hydraulic mean depth or the hydraulic
nor fixed volume radius is the ratio of
B. rigid molecules, fixed shape, not fixed A. area of flow and wetted perimeter
volume B. wetted perimeter and diameter of pipe
C. rigid molecules, not fixed shape, not C. velocity of flow and area of flow
fixed volume
D. none of these
D. not rigid molecules, not fixed shape,
fixed volume 774. pushes an ice cube to the top of a glass
of water
769. What is the formula for Mass? A. buoyant force
A. Mass/Volume B. density
B. Density x Volume C. a sinking object
C. Mass/Density D. compressed air
D. none of above
775. are defined as quantities that change or
770. Methane gas in a pipe with a radius of vary in the problem, but have no dimen-
0.43 m has a density of 0.78 kg/m3 and sions.
a speed of 3.8 m/s. The pipe radius nar- A. dimensional variables
rows to 0.19 m, and the gas speed in- B. nondimensional variables
creases to 13 m/s. What is the new den-
sity of the gas? C. dimensional constant
D. parameter
A. 0.78 kg/m3
B. 0.12 kg/m3 776. Which type of fluid flow is when ev-
ery particle that passes a particular point
C. 1.2 kg/m3 moves along the same smooth path trav-
D. Since gas is a fluid, its density will not eled by the particles that passed that point
change. earlier?

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5.1 Basics 607

A. Eddy Current 782. The reason why fluids and gases are not
B. Ideal Flow good conductors of heat is due to the large
distance between atoms in a fluid or a gas.

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C. Laminar Flow
D. Turbulent Flow A. True

777. What must the units of temperature be B. False

in order to be used in the ideal gas law? C. s
A. Celsius
D. none of above
B. Fahrenheit
C. Joules 783. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due
D. Kelvin to property of liquid known as

778. What is the unit of measurement for pres- A. Adhesion

sure? B. Cohesion
A. pascal
C. Surface tension
B. grams
D. Viscosity
C. milliters
D. meters 784. The power transmitted through a pipe is
779. Which of the followings are TRUE about (where w = Specific weight in N/m3, and
liquid: Q = Discharge in m3/s)
A. take the shape of the container A. w x Q x H
B. possess free surface B. w x Q x hf
C. volume is constant compared to gas
C. w x Q (H-hf)
D. strong cohesive bonds compared to
bonds in gas and solid D. w x Q (H + hf)

780. * designed to hold back large volumes of 785. If the weight of an object is < the Buoy-
water. By using concrete, the weight of ant Force, the object will
the dam is actually able to resist the hori-
zontal thrust of water pushing against it. A. Sink
A. Gravity Dams B. Rise
B. Embankment Dams
C. Remain at the same level
C. Arch Dams
D. none of above
D. none of above
781. world’s largest power station in terms of 786. Surface tension has the unit of
installed capacity (22, 500 MW)
A. N/m2
A. DAMS
B. N/m3
B. SAN ROQUE DAM
C. THREE GORGES DAM C. N/m
D. JAWA DAM D. Nm

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5.1 Basics 608

787. What is the property of a liquid due to B. Less than 30 seconds

which its free surface tries to have mini- C. More than 30 seconds
mum surface area?
D. Cannot be determined
A. Viscosity
B. Buoyancy 793. Find the position of centre of buoyancy
for a wooden block of width 3.5 m and
C. Surface tension depth 1 m, when it floats horizontally in
D. Rigidity water. The density of wooden block id

NARAYAN CHANGDER
850 kg/m3 and its length 7.0 m.
788. The device used to raise a flag up a flag
pole is an example of a A. 0.95

A. wheel and axle B. 0.85

C. 1.05
B. lever
D. 1.65
C. inclined plane
D. pulley 794. What will be the diameter (in mm) of a
water droplet, the pressure inside which
789. a 200-meter-tall, 1.2 kilometer long em- is 0.05 N/cm2 greater than the outside
bankment dam on the Agno River pressure? (Take surface tension as 0.075
A. DAMS N/m)
B. SAN ROQUE DAM A. 3
C. THREE GORGES DAM B. 0.3
D. JAWA DAM C. 0.6
D. 6
790. In what direction(s) does air exert pres-
sure? 795. What does the maybe do not regret?
A. everywhere A. Fixed the fluid in the flow
B. downward B. During the flow, the fluid survivors,
C. no where and its activities and hydraulic salaries
D. there is no pressure C. The bottom of the flow, hydraulics and
wage is a mentioned maiden-in-law
791. In equation of continuity, the units of Av D. The stream of the flow throughout the
is given as: longitude is a steady area and a survey
A. Cubic meter E. The bottom of the flow and the surface
B. Cubic meter per second is stable
C. Square meter per second 796. Which of the following statements is not
D. Square meter per square second correct about fluid?

792. If it takes 30 seconds to fill a bucket with A. A fluid has its own volume that can ex-
a garden hose, how long will it take if pand to fill a body.
you cover half of the nozzle of the garden B. A fluid can be compressed.
hose? C. Applying shear stress to a fluid results
A. 30 seconds in a small deflection.

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5.1 Basics 609

D. Applying shear stress to a fluid results 802. Flow rate:Water is flowing in a horizon-
in continuous motion. tal pipe of diameter d. If you want to
change the diameter of this pipe so that

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797. You do not notice atmospheric pressure the speed of the water would be half as
on your body because great as it was, what should be the new
A. it is air. diameter?
B. atmospheric pressure acts evenly on d
A. 4
your body. d
B. 2
C. of gravity.
C. √d
D. the fluids inside your body also exert 2
√
pressure. D. d 2

798. Mr. Howell’s cats’ names are: E. 2d

A. Elijah and Lilly 803. :large bubbles in a continuous liquid.

B. Earl and Lilly A. Bubbly flow
C. Shadow and Felix B. Slug flow
D. Shadow and Whiskers C. Annular flow

799. Is the characteristic of the parallel speci- D. Droplet flow

fied pipeline? 804. Turbulent Flow
A. In all, the characteristics of the paral- A. Re < 2000
lel are the characteristics of the pipeline,
B. Re > 4000
which is the same loss in all of them
C. 2000 < Re < 4000
B. The status of a pipeline is the same
D. Re = 0
C. Earlier of a pipeline is different
D. Princing loss only expects depending 805. In the equation to calculate the nromal ve-
on the other loctiy of a jet to a palte, what is the angle
E. The lengths of the parallel pipe, diame- theta? vnormal = v cos θ
ter and renders are diversified A. Angle between jet flow and plate

800. Turbulent flow is B. Angle between jet flow and the normal
direction of plate
A. Unsteady and regular
C. Angle between jet flow and the perpen-
B. Steady and regular dicular axis to the plate
C. Unsteady and irregular D. Angle between jet flow and the tangen-
D. Steady and regular tial axis to the plate
801. Why do some substances float on wa- 806. A measure of how much mass is con-
ter? tained in a given unit of volume.
A. they are cooler than water A. mass
B. they are more dense than water B. density
C. they are less dense than water C. volume
D. they are warmer than water D. matter

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5.1 Basics 610

807. Coefficient of discharge of a venturimeter 812. consists of a steel framework, with a

is steel skin plate on its upstream face
A. 1.1 A. deck type buttress dam
B. 9.81 B. STEEL DAMS
C. 0.9 C. TIMBER DAMS
D. .5 D. multiple-arch type buttress dam

NARAYAN CHANGDER
808. If a glass tube of 10 mm diameter is im- E. massive-head type buttress dam
mersed in water, what will be the rise or
813. Which principle states that the pressure
fall in capillary? (Take surface tension =
in a fluid decreases as its velocity in-
0.075 N/m, g = 10 m/s2 and angle of
creases?
contact = 0)
A. Archimedes’ Principle
A. 0.75
B. 1.5 B. Bernoulli’s Principle

C. 3 C. Newton’s Principle

D. 6 D. Pascal’s Principle

809. A phase change from solid to liquid 814. This fluid has a shear stress of zero

A. melting A. Ideal Plastic Fluid

B. vaporization B. Newtonian Fluid

C. sublimation C. Non-Newtonian Fluid

D. freezing D. Real Fluid

810. The kinematic viscosity of oil of specific 815. Which is the characteristic of pseudo-
gravity .8 is .0005 .This oil is used for lu- plastic?
brication of shaft of diameter .4 m and ro- A. n is greater than 1
tates at 190 rpm. Calculate the power lost
in the bearing for a sleeve length of 90mm. B. n less than 1
The thickness of the oil film is 1.5mm. C. no deformation
A. 477.65 Watts D. viscosity independent of velocity gradi-
B. 955.31 Watts ent

C. 238.83 Watts 816. hydroelectric gravity dam that spans the

D. None of the mentioned Yangtze River by the town of Sandouping,
in Yiling District, Yichang, Hubei province,
811. The formula for density is China
A. mass/ acceleration A. DAMS
B. volume/ mass B. SAN ROQUE DAM
C. mass/ volume C. THREE GORGES DAM
D. none D. JAWA DAM

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5.1 Basics 611

817. Where did Osborne Reynolds invented B. Convection

the apparatus for investigation of turbu- C. Radiation
lence onset in pipes?

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D. Heat index
A. Massachusetts Institute of Technology
(MIT) 823. Unit for Newton, N is
B. University of Cambridge A. kg/m3
C. Harvard University B. kg
D. University of Manchester C. N/m2

818. Which one of the following is not a unit D. kgm/s2

of dynamic viscosity? 824. A phase change from plasma to gas
A. Pa-s A. deposition
B. N-s/m2 B. vaporization
C. Poise C. deionization
D. Stokes D. ionization
819. Why does an ideal fluid move faster 825. Compare gauge pressure with absolute
through a pipe with decreasing diameter? pressure.
A. the pressure within the fluid increases A. Absolute pressure is pressure in a
B. the pressure within the fluid de- fluid, or pressure exerted by the fluid on
creases the walls of the container, or pressure
at a depth within a fluid due to its own
C. the pipe exerts more pressure on the
weight. Gauge pressure is the total pres-
fluid
sure on the fluid, which equals the pres-
D. the fluid moves downhill sure exerted at the surface plus the abso-
lute pressure.
820. Pressure =
B. Gauge pressure is pressure in a fluid,
A. force/volume
or pressure exerted by the fluid on the
B. volume/area walls of the container, or pressure at a
C. mass/volume depth within a fluid due to its own weight.
Absolute pressure is the total pressure on
D. force/area
the fluid, which equals the pressure ex-
821. The constant discharge passing through erted at the surface plus the gauge pres-
an uniform dia. pipe is sure.
A. Unsteady uniform C. Absolute pressure and gauge pres-
sure are the same thing.
B. nonuniform unsteady
D. Gauge pressure is pressure in the air,
C. uniform steady or pressure exerted by the fluid on the
D. Laminar flow walls of the container, or pressure at the
surface due to the weight of the liquid. Ab-
822. A mode of heat transfer by the macro- solute pressure is the total pressure on
scopic movement of a fluid. the fluid, which equals the pressure ex-
A. Conduction erted at a depth plus the gauge pressure.

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5.1 Basics 612

826. The ability of a metal to allow heat or B. pressure in a fluid is greatest at the
electricity to pass through it. center of the fluid
A. conductivity C. pressure in a fluid is the same through-
B. insulator out the fluid

C. mass D. pressure in a fluid is greatest at the

top of the fluid
D. density
832. Friction factor depends on

NARAYAN CHANGDER
827. Main load-carrying structural elements
of timber dam are made of wood, primarily A. Reynolds number
coniferous varieties such as pine and fir. B. diameter of pipe
A. deck type buttress dam C. roughness of pipe material
B. STEEL DAMS D. all of above
C. TIMBER DAMS
833. Will capillary rise occur and if it occurs
D. multiple-arch type buttress dam what will be capillary rise if glass capillar-
E. massive-head type buttress dam ity tube is immersed in water and experi-
ment is carried out by astronauts in space.
828. What is the density of 20 mL of lead that A. Capillarity rise will not occur
has a mass of 200 g?
B. Capillarity rise will occur infinitely and
A. 10 will come out in form of fountain
B. 20 C. Capillarity rise will occur finitely and
C. 20, 4 will be the whole length of tube
D. 15.6 D. None of the mentioned

829. A fluid which obeys the Newton’s law of 834. The device used to measure the fluid pres-
viscosity is termed as sure is
A. Real fluid A. Hygrometer
B. Ideal fluid B. Calorimeter
C. Newtonian fluid C. Manometer
D. Non newtonian fluid D. Thermometer

830. What does eureka mean in English? 835. Which one of the following is true about
A. I like baths! Bulk Modulus of elasticity?

B. I’ve lost it! A. it is the ratio of compressive stress to

volumetric strain
C. I’ve found it!
B. it is the ratio of compressive stress to
D. I’ve had enough! linear strain
831. Which of the following is true according C. it is the ratio of tensile stress to volu-
to Pascals principle? metric strain
A. pressure in a fluid is greatest at the D. it is the ratio of tensile stress to linear
walls of the container holding the fluid strain

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5.1 Basics 613

836. This is defined as the science that deals C. pressure

with the study of fluids at rest or in motion D. none of above
and the interaction of fluids with solids or

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other fluids at the boundaries 841. It is the energy required to transition one
A. Fluid Mechanics unit of a substance from solid to liquid;
equivalently, the energy liberated when
B. Statics one unit of a substance transitions from
C. Dynamics liquid to solid.
D. Kinematics A. latent heat of vaporization

837. A small shear force is applied on an el- B. latent heat of fusion

ement and then removed. If the element C. latent heat of sublimation
regains it’s original position, what kind of
D. none of above
an element can it be?
A. Solid 842. Level of permanent storage below which
the water will not be withdrawn.
B. Liquid
A. Dead Storage level
C. Fluid
B. Diversion Tunnel:
D. Gaseous
C. Gallery
838. It is the science of measuring the heat ab-
D. Free board
sorbed or evolved during the course of a
chemical reaction or change of state. 843. The most important properties which in-
A. calorimeter fluences the fluid motion to a great extent
is
B. calorimetry
A. Density
C. colorimetry
B. Viscosity
D. colorimeter
C. Specific volume
839. The water retained in the reservoir is
D. Specific weight
later released gradually at a controlled
rate according to the carrying capacity of 844. A brick sinks in water while a wooden
the channel downstream of the detention block of the same size floats. This is be-
dam. cause the brick has a
A. STORAGE DAMS A. lower volume than the wooden block
B. DIVERSION DAMS B. lower density than the wooden block
C. DETENTION DAMS C. higher volume than the wooden block
D. DEBRIS DAM D. higher density than the wooden block
E. COFFER DAMS
845. In statics, a couple is defined as sep-
840. this is known as the amount of force ap- arated by a perpendicular distance.
plied per unit area. A. two forces in the same direction
A. power B. two forces of equal magnitude acting
B. work in the same direction

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5.1 Basics 614

C. two forces of equal magnitude D. the density of the fluid is less than the
D. two forces of equal magnitude acting density of the object
in opposite directions 851. Which of the following is/are true
846. If W is the specific weight and h is the about fluids:I. Fluid is a substance whose
depth of any point from the surface, then molecules move freely past each other.II.
pressure intensity at that point will be Fluid is a substance that deforms discontin-
uously under the action of shear stress.III.
A. H Both liquids and gases are classified as flu-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. W/h ids
C. W X h A. I and II
D. 1 / (W X h) B. I and III
847. The ratio of a fluid’s dynamic viscosity to C. II and III
its mass density is called D. I, II and III
A. Absolute viscosity
852. Choose SI Units from the following list
B. Kinematic Viscosity (you can choose more than 1 answer)
C. Absolute viscosity & Kinematic Viscos- A. N
ity
B. kJ
D. None of the above
C. lb
848. Which location should the water tank be D. ft
constructed in order to supply household
consumers? E. kg

A. At the ground level 853. Which method is used in fluid mechanics?

B. below the ground level A. Lagrangian method
C. highly elevated from the ground B. Eulerian method
D. all are correct C. Both Lagrangian and Eulerian methods
849. What is the SI unit of heat? D. Neither Lagrangian nor Eulerian
method
A. Joule
B. Newton 854. P 1/2pv2+ pgh= constant. This is
C. Watt A. Bernoulli’s equation
D. Pascal B. Equation of continuity
C. Mass energy equation
850. If an object is only partially submerged in
a fluid, which of the following is true. D. Momentum equation
A. The volume of the displaced fluid 855. What is an ideal fluid?
equals the volume of the object
A. A fluid which has no viscosity
B. the density of the fluid equals the den-
sity of the object B. A fluid which is incompressible

C. the density of the fluid is greater than C. A fluid which has no surface tension
the density of the object D. All the above

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5.1 Basics 615

856. Density:What is the radius of a sphere 860. Fluid which show apparent increase in
that has a density of 5000 kg/m3 and a viscosity with time
mass of 6.00 kg?

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A. Ideal fluids
A. 4.98 cm B. Thixotropic
B. 1.27 cm C. Rheopectic
C. 6.59 cm D. Dilatants
D. 1.56 cm
861. Which of the following is NOT a fluid?
E. 7.22 cm
A. carbon dioxide
857. Buoyancy:A board that is 20.0 cm wide, B. hydrogen
5.00 cm thick, and 3.00 m long has a den- C. seawater
sity 350 kg/m3. The board is floating par-
tially submerged in water of density 1000 D. wood
kg/m3. What fraction of the volume of
862. Which of the following forces generally
the board is above the surface of the wa-
act on fluid while considering fluid dynam-
ter?
ics? 1. Viscous force2. Pressure force3.
A. 0.350 Gravity force4. Turbulent force5. Com-
pressibility force
B. 0.650
A. , (3), (4) and (5)
C. zero
B. , (2), (3) and (5)
D. 0.200
C. , (2), (3) and (4)
E. The answer depends on which edge of
the board is vertical. D. , (2), (3), (4) and (5)

858. The metacentric height is the distance be- 863. A closed vessel can sink to a depth of
tween the 20.0 m in water (density is 1.00 g/cm3)
before the external pressure crushes it.
A. centre of gravity of the floating body To what depth could this same container
and the centre of buoyancy be immersed in a deep vat of mercury
B. centre of gravity of the floating body (density is 13.6 g/cm3) without being
and the metacentre crushed?

C. metacentre and centre of buoyancy A. 0.680 m

D. original centre of buoyancy and new B. 1.47 m

centre of buoyancy C. 15.7 m
D. 27.2 m
859. The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity
is: 864. Fluids can also include and
A. ML1T-2 A. solids and liquids
B. M2L1T1 B. solids and gases
C. ML-1T-1 C. liquids and gases
D. ML-1T-2 D. liquids

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 5.2 Properties of Fluids 616

865. Which characteristic of water will allow A. adhesion

a paperclip to remain floating on water B. surface tension
when the paperclip is gently placed on top
of the water? C. solvent properties
D. nonpolar

5.2 Properties of Fluids

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. “Rocks sink and a Rubber Ball floats” is B. 1/80 unit
MOST likely and example of which princi- C. 1 unit
ple:
D. 800 unit
A. Pascal’s Principle
B. Bernoulli’s Principle 5. What does coefficient of viscosity depend
upon?
C. the Quantum Entanglement Principle
A. Mass of particles in fluid
D. Archimedes’ Principle
B. Velocity of particles in fluid
2. is characteristics due to which a fluid
C. Nature of fluid
oppose the motion of a fallen body in it.
D. Area of crossection covered by fluid
A. Viscosity
B. dragging 6. From following word find out one of the
Properties of fluid:wesasmsigondety
C. capillary action
A. mass density
D. fluid at rest
B. weight density
3. An ice cube of density 0.9 g/cm3 floats in
C. sp. gravity
seawater of density 1.30 g/cm3. Which
of the following statements is correct? D. sp. volume
A. 93 % of the volume of ice cube will 7. How can density be decreased?
be submerged beneath the surface of the
seawater. A. by increasing volume and mass
B. 69 % of the volume of ice cube will float B. by decreasing volume and mass
above the surface of the seawater. C. by increasing volume while keeping
C. 69 % of the volume of ice cube will mass the same
be submerged beneath the surface of the D. by increasing mass while keeping vol-
seawater. ume the same
D. 31 % of the volume of ice cube will
8. Low viscosity is when particles are farther
be submerged beneath the surface of the
apart and the cohesive force is stronger.
seawater.
A. True
4. A balloon ‘s volume decreases by 1%
when its pressure is increased by 80%. So B. False
its Bulk modulus is C. I don’t know
A. 80 unit D. none of above

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 617

9. As the velocity of the fluid increases, the B. 200 N

pressure exerted by the fluid decreases is C. 1000N
stated in

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D. 100N
A. Archimedes’ principle.
B. Bernoulli’s principle. 14. Calculate the specific weight and weight of
20dm3 of petrol of specific gravity 0.6.
C. Charles’ law.
A. 5886, 117.2
D. Pascal’s principle.
B. 5886, 234.2
10. In which section do you summarize your
findings and explain what you learned and C. 11772, 117.2
talk about what you would do in future ex- D. None of the mentioned
periments?
15. An eraser has a mass of 4g and a volume
A. Conclusions
of 2cm3. What is its density?
B. Introduction
A. 8 g/cm3
C. Methods
B. 2 g/cm3
D. none of above
C. 1/2 g/cm3
11. According to the equation of continuity D. 24 g/cm3
what is the relationship between velocity
of fluid and area of crossection 16. Surface tension is the property of water in
A. Velocity should be greater than the which
product of distance and area A. water molecules at the surface tend to
B. Velocity is inversely proportional to stick together.
area of crossection B. water spills easily.
C. Velocity is less than the square root of C. water tends to be see-through.
area and distance covered by fluid
D. water tends to push up into a dome
D. Velocity is directly proportional to area over a container before it finally spills.
of crossection
17. The measure of the force of gravity pulling
12. The atmospheric pressure increases as on an object is called
A. The moisture in air increases. A. mass
B. The height above sea level increases. B. weight
C. The temperature of air rises.
C. buoyancy
D. Moving on Earth’s surface towards the
D. pressure
equator.
18. Which is the wrong statement?
13. IN A HYDRAULIC BRAKE SYSTEM, A
FORCE OF 25N CAN BE APPLIEDTO A SUR- A. The viscosity of a fluid is that property
FACE AREA OF 5 cm2 .WHAT FORCE CAN that determines the amount of its resis-
THUS BE EXERTEDON EACH BRAKE CYLIN- tance to a shearing force
DER HAVING AN AREA OF 100 CM 2 . B. Viscosity is due primarily to the inter-
A. 500 N action between fluid molecules

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 618

C. The viscosity of liquids decreases with C. 57 g/mL

an increase in temperature. D. 810 g/mL
D. The viscosity of liquids is appreciably
affected by changes in pressure. 24. A fluid is a substance which deforms con-
tinuously under the application of a
19. Compressibility is a A. shear stress
A. measure of how much a given volume B. compressive stress
of matter increases when placed pressure

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. strain
B. Is a measure of how much a given
volume of matter decreases when placed D. tensile stress
pressure. 25. An object has a density of 0.65 g/cm3
C. Is a measure of its surface area when floating in the water. How many
D. Is the measure of how easily it can percentages of the object will be above the
flow. surface of the water?
A. 65% of the object’s volume is above
20. It is a sub-discipline of fluid mechanics that the water.
describes the flow of fluids.
B. 45% of the object’s volume is above
A. Fluid Mechanics the water.
B. Hydrostatics C. 15% of the object’s volume is above
C. Fluid Dynamics the water.
D. Fluid statics D. 35% of the object’s volume is above
the water.
21. Liquids:Fluid Properties
A. Indefinite Shape & Indefinite Volume 26. Which material would have the greatest
viscosity at normal temperatures?
B. Definite Shape & Indefinite Volume
A. Peanut Butter
C. Definite Shape & Definite Volume
B. Jelly
D. Indefinite Shape & Definite Volume
C. Milk
22. A gas enclosed in a container goes through D. Marshmallow Fluff
a process such that the pressure in the con-
tainer and the volume of the gas are re- 27. Which of the following substances has a
lated as P = Ae(xV ) , (A, x → constant), low viscosity?
then B of gas is? A. syrup
A. A B. melted butter
B. xP C. honey
C. xV D. tar
D. xVP
28. Mercury column in the barometer has a
23. What is the density of a liquid that has a height of at sea level which is equiva-
mass of 27g and a volume of 30mL? lent to 1 atmosphere.
A. 0.9 g/mL A. 76 mm
B. 3 g/mL B. 0.76 mm

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 619

C. 0.076 mm 34. The force created by fluid flowing around

abject is called
D. 0.76 m

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A. turbulence
29. The density of a substance is 1.63 grams B. drag
per millilitre. What is the mass of 0.25
liters of the substance in grams? C. streamlining

A. 704.5 grams D. pressure

B. 0.407 grams 35. What is the mass of the air inside a small
freezer with dimensions 60 cm by 85 cm
C. 407.5 grams
by 100 cm? The density of the air is 1.29
D. 40.75 grams kg/m3 .
A. 0.66 kg
30. Bernoulli’s principle is the form of which
law? B. 1.66 kg
A. Law of conservation of momentum C. 1.25 kg

B. Newtons third law of motion D. 0.97 kg

C. Newton’s second law of motion 36. Terminal velocity is defined as?

D. Law of conservation of energy A. Variable maximum velocity acquired by
a body moving through a viscous medium,
31. a fluid is considers when the sum of its weight, buoyant force
and viscous force becomes zero
A. a gas
B. Constant maximum velocity acquired
B. a gas and a liquid by a body moving through a viscous
C. gas and a solid medium, when the product of its weight,
buoyant force and viscous force becomes
D. a solid
zero
32. What is the correct formula for absolute C. Variable maximum velocity acquired by
pressure? a body moving through a viscous medium,
when the product of its weight, buoyant
A. Pabs = Patm-Pgauge
force and viscous force becomes zero
B. Pabs = Pvacuum-Patm
D. Constant maximum velocity acquired
C. Pabs = Patm+ Pgauge by a body moving through a viscous
medium, when the sum of its weight, buoy-
D. Pabs = Pvacuum + Patm
ant force and viscous force becomes zero
33. High viscosity is when particles are 37. “The force exerted per unit of area” is the
closer together and the cohesive force is BEST definition for which of the following
stronger. terms:
A. True A. Density
B. False B. Weight
C. I don’t know C. Buoyancy
D. none of above D. Pressure

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 620

38. The pressure resulting from a force of 50 44. Opposite of the force of gravity (weight)
N exerted over an area of 5 m2 is on a ship that is floating is called
A. 10 N A. buoyant force.
B. 0.1 N B. lift.
C. 10 N/m2 C. density.
D. 0.1 Pa D. viscosity.
45. Which uses Pascal’s principle?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
39. A matter can be compressible if the a. b.
Intermolecular space is A. aerodynamics
A. Intermolecular space is less B. buoyancy
B. Intermolecular space is more C. hydraulic lift
C. Temperature of matter is low D. changes of state
D. None of the above 46. Hydrodynamics is the study of
A. how solids move through liquids
40. A rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of
2cm3. What is the density of the rock? B. how solids move through fluids
A. 7 mL C. how gases move past solids
B. 7 g/cm3 D. how liquids move through gases
C. 28 g/cm3 47. As temperature increases viscosity
D. 1/7 g/cm3 A. increases
B. stays the same
41. The cause of elasticity of a substance is
C. decreases
A. deformation
D. none of above
B. large internal restoring force
48. A stone weighed 177 N on earth. It was
C. low internal restoring force
dropped in to oil of specific gravity 0.8 on
D. less distance between the molecules a planet whose acceleration due to grav-
ity is 5 sm2 . It displaced oil having weight
42. An object is placed in a tub of water. If the
objects density is less than the density of of 100N. What was the volume of oil dis-
water, the the object will placed by the stone?
A. 25 Litres
A. Float
B. 15 Litres
B. Sink
C. 25 m3
C. Swim
D. None of the mentioned
D. Combust
49. If a wire breaks just after plastic flow be-
N. sec
43. poise = m2 gins then material is
A. 10 A. strong
B. 0.1 B. hard
C. 10−4 C. brittle
D. 1 D. ductile

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 621

50. An instrument with air as fluid was in- 54. There are two identical wires with Young’s
volved in some experiment( specific vol- moduli Y1 and Y2 respectively such that
ume was the characteristic property uti- Y1> Y2. If they are hung from a rigid sup-

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lized) which was conducted during day in port and same weight is applied to them
desert. Due to some reason experiment at their free ends then
couldn’t be conducted during day and had A. elongation in the wires will be same
to be conducted during night. However
there were considerable errors in obtained B. elongation in the first wire will be more
values. What might be the reason of these C. First wire will constrict more
errors?
D. Elongation in the second wire will be
A. It was human error more
B. It was instrumental error
55. Match the following:A Mass density
C. Error was due to the fact that experi- 1.9810B Weight Density 2. 1000C Spe-
ment was conducted at night cific Volume 3. 1D Specific Gracity 4.
D. None of the mentioned 1X10-3
A. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
51. Each of these objects is an example of
what? house, desk, pencil, car B. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
A. metal C. A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
B. wood D. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
C. plastic 56. “Force divided by area” is the equation for
D. matter finding which of the following terms:

52. Assertion:A ship floats higher in the water A. Density

on a high pressure day than on a low pres- B. Weight
sure day.Reason:Floating of ship in the C. Buoyancy
water is not possible because of buoyancy
force which is present due to pressure dif- D. Pressure
ference.
57. Which of the following substances will
A. A and R are true and R is the correct float in water?
reason for A.
A. Substance A with a density of 0.92
B. A and R are true but R is not the cor- g/cm3
rect reason for A.
B. Substance B with a density of 1.2
C. A is true but R is false. g/cm3
D. A and R both are false C. Substance C with a density of 8.9
g/cm3
53. Who gave the formula to find speed of ef-
flux? D. Substance D with a density of 4.4
g/cm3
A. Bernoulli
B. Torrici 58. What is Surface Tension?
C. Archimedes A. surfactant
D. None of the above B. the skin-like outside of water

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 622

C. the ability to move upward against 64. A wire of diameter 2 mm and length 3m
gravity holds a sphere of mass 15 kg. At equilib-
D. a polar molecule rium, a gap of 3 mm is present between
the sphere and the floor. The sphere is
59. Two liquids are poured out of containers at slightly pushed making an angle theta with
the same height & time. Liquid 1 empties the vertical. What would be maximum
from the container before liquid 2. Which value of cos theta so that the sphere does
liquid has a lower viscosity? not rub the floor. Y (of wire) = 2 * 1011
Nm− 2

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. liquid 1
A. 0.79
B. liquid 2
B. 0.59
C. both liquids have the same viscosity
C. .75
D. cannot be determined
D. .84
60. What is adhesion? 65. A fluid’s resistance to flow is its
A. Water’s ability to stick to itself A. viscosity.
B. Water’s ability to stick to other sub- B. density.
stances
C. pressure.
C. The strength of the cohesion of all the
D. buoyancy.
water molecules combined
D. Tape, glue and other adhesives 66. The upward force a fluid places on an ob-
ject immersed in it is called
61. Water is a universal solvent because it A. compressibility
A. It can be found anywhere B. buoyancy
B. It freezes when it gets cold C. viscosity
C. floats when frozen D. pressure
D. Dissolves most substances
67. Which of the following is false?
62. Liquids with very high viscosity flow very A. fluids take the shape of their container
B. fluids have the ability to flow
A. fast C. a fluids molecules are farther apart
B. not at all than a solids
C. slow D. fluids are always less dense than
solids
D. whenever it wants
68. Which of the below has the highest viscos-
63. Young’s modulus is property of ity
A. solids A. syrup
B. solids and liquids B. water
C. solids or liquids C. Pepsi
D. gases D. lemonaide

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 623

69. What will likely happen during shear- C. Marbles

thinning? D. Water

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A. During shear thinning the viscosity of
the fluid reduces as the shear increases. 74. Fluid pressure is directed
B. During shear thinning the pressure of A. in all directions.
the fluid reduces as the shear increases. B. only upward.
C. During shear thinning the viscosity of C. only downward.
the fluid reduces as the shear decreases.
D. always sideways.
D. During shear thinning the viscosity of
the fluid increases as the shear increases. 75. The liquid pressure at a point under wa-
ter in a container does not change although
70. A liquid does not wet the sides of solids if
one factor changed. Which of the follow-
the angle of contact is
ing statements describe the factor that
A. 0 degree changed?
B. 45 degree A. The volume of the container
C. 60 degree B. The density of the liquid
D. 130 degree C. The acceleration of gravity
71. Why is it necessary to mention the tem- D. The depth of the point
perature at which specific gravity is calcu-
lated? 76. The amount of matter in an object is

A. Volume of the substance changes with A. mass

temperature. B. weight
B. Density of the substance changes with C. gravity
temperature.
D. volume
C. Viscosity of the substance changes
with temperature. 77. “The resistance of a fluid to flowing” is
D. Mass of the substance changes with MOST likely the definition for which of the
temperature. following terms:
A. Pressure
72. Molecules are closest together in a a. Gas
b. liquid c. solid d. none of the above B. Density

A. gas C. Buoyancy
B. liquid D. Viscosity
C. solid 78. Which of the energy is not related to
D. none of the above streamline flow of liquid?
A. Potential energy
73. The best example of high viscosity would
be? B. Kinetic energy
A. Honey C. Pressure energy
B. Soap D. Surface energy

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 624

79. According to Bernoulli’s principle what 84. If the buoyant force is equal to the object’s
should remain constant? weight, the object will
A. Product of Pressure and Volume A. float
B. Sum of area and velocity of fluid B. sink
C. Sum of pressure, kinetic energy per C. melt
unit volume and potential energy per unit D. boil
area

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Sum of pressure, kinetic energy per 85. Which state or states of matter is a fluid?
unit volume and potential energy per unit A. gas
volume
B. liquid
80. Capillary Action C. solid
A. The property of water that allows ice D. both gases and liquids
to float on the surface of liquid water
86. What are the density and specific gravity
B. The property of water that allows it to
of a 4 m3 of oil weighs 31, 500 N?
dissolve polar substances
A. The specific weight is 775 N/m3 and
C. When water molecules stick to other
the density is 800 kg.
surfaces
B. The specific weight is 7505 N/m3 and
D. The property of water that allows wa-
the density is 1002 kg.
ter to move up a thin tube (or the stem of
a plant) by itself C. The specific weight is 71875 N/m3
and the density is 202 kg.
81. The best example of a substance with low
D. The specific weight is 7875 N/m3 and
viscosity is?
the density is 802 kg.
A. Honey
87. What is the hull of a large ship to allow it
B. Soap
to float and not sink when made of steal?
C. Marbles
A. helium
D. Water
B. air
82. Mass per unit volume is C. water
A. buoyancy. D. wood
B. density.
88. CALCULATE THE HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE
C. pressure. FOR WATER MOVINGWITH CONSTANT
D. viscosity. VELOCITY AT A DEPTH OF 5 m FROM THE
SURFACE.
83. Force/area is the formula for A. 49 kN 2
A. pressure B. 98 kN 2
B. density C. Since fluid is in motion, we cannot anal-
C. hydraulics yse
D. flow rate D. none of the above

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 625

89. Which of the following is UNTRUE about 94. Two soap bubbles each of radius r are
the behavior of the cornstarch and water touching each other. The radius of curva-
mixture? ture of the common surface will be:

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A. Solid when large stress is applied. A. r
B. A shear thinning fluid B. 2r
C. Becomes more resistant to flow as a C. r/2
force is applied. D. infinite
D. None of the choices mentioned
95. If the buoyant force on an object is equal
90. “The buoyant force on an object is equal to the the weight of the object, then the
to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object will
object” is the basis for which of the fol- A. Sink
lowing principles:
B. Float
A. Pascal’s Principle
C. Swim
B. Bernoulli’s Principle
D. Combust
C. the Quantum Entanglement Principle
D. Archimedes’ Principle 96. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from
a string is immersed in a liquid of relative
91. A wooden block (of weight P and surface density 0.72. If relative density of silver
area X) and a cubic box (of weight Q and is 10, then tension in the string will be
face area Y). The block is placed resting A. 37.12 N
on the box top.Which expression gives the
pressure exerted on the box by the block? B. 42 N

A. P divided by X C. 73 N

B. P divided by Y D. 21 N

C. Q divided by X 97. A along a streamline,

D. Q divided by Y A. The velocity of a liquid of a fluid parti-
cle remains constant
92. A type of surfactant that helps break hy-
B. The velocity of all fluid particles cross-
drogen bonds is
ing a given position is constant
A. honey
C. The velocity of all fluid particles at a
B. syrup given instant is constant
C. soap D. The speed of a fluid particle remains
D. water constant

93. Pressure is measured in 98. Which of these ratios gives the value of
viscosity of fluid?
A. Watt/m.sec
A. Ratio of the shearing stress to the
B. Joule/m3 weight of the fluid
C. Kg/m.sec B. Ratio of the shearing stress to the den-
D. Kg/m.sec2 sity of the fluid

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 626

C. Ratio of the velocity gradient and C. polarity

shearing stress D. adhesion
D. The ratio of the shearing stress to the
velocity gradient 103. Which of these factors affects Viscos-
ity?
99. Water flows between two plates of which
A. Temperature
the upper one is stationary and the lower
one is moving with a velocity V. What will B. Colour

NARAYAN CHANGDER
be the velocity of the fluid in contact with C. Taste
the upper plate?
D. none of above
A. V
B. V/2 104. The pressure in a fluid is affected by
which characteristic of that fluid?
C. 2V
A. the amount of hydrogen atoms in the
D. 0
fluid
100. What is the SI unit use for hydraulic pres- B. the weight of the fluid
sure?
C. the gravity of the fluid
A. Kg/m3
D. the amount of oxygen atoms in the
B. Pa fluid
C. Litre
105. Which of the following is not a unit of
D. Kilometer density?
101. Which of the following is TRUE about the A. grams per ml
specific gravity of a certain substance or B. grams per cubic cm
object?
C. kg per litre
A. When the specific gravity is greater
than one, the substance / object will sink. D. grams per square cm
B. When the specific gravity of the sub- 106. Which would be the least likely to sink
stance is greater than the water, the sub- into soft ground?
stance will float.
A. a loaded lorry with six wheels
C. When the specific gravity is equal to
one, this means that the object will either B. a loaded lorry with four wheels
sink or float. C. an empty lorry with four wheels
D. When the specific gravity is greater D. an empty lorry with six wheels
than one, this means that the object will
neither sink nor float. 107. Anything that has mass and takes up
space is called
102. Which term refers to water having
A. volumevolume
partial positive and a partial negative
charge? B. matter
A. cohesion C. magnetism
B. surface tension D. electricity

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 627

108. If the accuracy of a pressure transducer 113. As the velocity of a fluid increases, the
is 0.01 psi, how should we report its read- pressure will
ings?

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A. increase
A. 52.7 psi
B. stay the same
B. 52.70 psi
C. decrease
C. 52.700 psi
D. All of the above D. none of above

109. If the buoyant force is less than the ob- 114. Viscous force acting on a sphere falling
ject’s weight the object will through a medium depends on velocity of
sphere, viscosity of medium and which
A. float
other factor?
B. sink
A. Volume of sphere
C. melt
B. Mass of sphere
D. boil
C. Amount of fluid displaced when
110. Who discovered that pressure applied dropped in a liquid
to a fluid is transmitted throughout the
fluid? D. Radius of sphere
A. Pascal
115. If the fluid has specific weight of 10 mN3
B. Archimedes for a volume of 100dm3 on a planet which
C. Bernoulli is having acceleration due to gravity 20 sm2 ,
D. Boyle what will be its specific weight on a planet
having acceleration due to gravity 4m s2
?
111. The buoyant force on an object immersed N
in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid A. 5 m3
that the object displaces is known as B. 50 N
m3
A. Pascal’s law N
C. 2 m3
B. Archimedes’ principle
D. none of above
C. the law of particles
D. displacement theory 116. What is the most important consideration
on the surface tension?
112. What are the characteristics of angle of
contact? A. The forces acting on the molecule of a
fluid is different in the bulk and at the sur-
A. For solid-liq. pair angle of contact is
face.
constant.
B. The value of angle of contact depends B. I don’t know.
on nature of liquid and solid in contact. C. The molecules in the surface are quite
C. It depends on medium which exists stressed and they really need Psychologi-
above the free surface of liq. cal treatment.
D. Angle of contact changes with temp., D. Because liquids are not liquids at the
impurity. surface.

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 628

117. From following word find out one of the 122. the surface of water can act like a sort of
Properties of fluid:weigtspcfsciirvay skin due to a property of liquids called
A. Mass Density A. viscosity.
B. Weight Density B. surface tension.
C. Specific gravity C. condensation.
D. Specific volume D. evaporation.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
118. Viscosity is best defined as 123. An object weighing 50 N is floating in a
fluid. What is the buoyant force of the
A. the ability of fluids to transfer forces fluid on the object?
while under pressure
A. Not enough information
B. the mass per unit volume of a sub-
stance B. 50 N

C. the ability of a fluid to create upward C. more than 50 N

forces on objects immersed in it. D. less than 50 N
D. the ability of a fluid to resist flow 124. Force of attraction between similar
molecules is called
119. The bulk modulus of a material of a wire
1m long is B. So the bulk modulus of a 2m A. Cohesive force
long wire of same material will be B. Adhesive force
A. 2B C. Magnetic force
B. B D. gravitational force
C. 2/B
125. Which of the following is LEAST likely to
D. B/2 dissolve in water?

120. The force of a fluid weighing 10N is ap- A. nonpolar fats and oils
plied to an area measuring 2m2. What B. polar sugar molecules
pressure does the fluid create on the sur- C. salt made of a positive sodium ion and
face? a negative chloride ion
A. 20 Nm2 D. all of the substances will dissolve eas-
B. 5 N/m2 ily in water
C. 0.2 m2/N 126. The graph of stress against strain is al-
D. none of above ways
A. straight line
121. “Pressure applied to a fluid is transmit-
ted throughout the fluid” is the basis for B. parabola
which of the following principles: C. Straight line in elastic region
A. Pascal’s Principle D. parabola in elastic region
B. Bernoulli’s Principle
127. If the flow has to be streamline then
C. the Quantum Entanglement Principle what Should be the Reynolds number?
D. Archimedes’ Principle A. Less than 1000

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 629

B. Less than or equal to 1000 132. Which substance below would have a
C. More than 1000 high viscosity?

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D. Between 1000 and 2000 A. vinegar
B. melted butter
128. If the buoyant force on an object is less
than the the weight of the object, then the C. maple syrup
object will D. water
A. Sink 133. how to calculate the mass
B. Float A. m=volume/density
C. Swim B. m=density/volume
D. Combust C. m=density*volume
129. When paper is folded to make a book- D. m=density*g
let, what physical property of the paper 134. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6
changes? is placed in mercury of specific gravity
A. mass 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under
B. weight mercury?
C. shape A. metal piece will sink to the bottom
D. smell B. the metal piece will simply float over
the mercury
130. For calculating liquid isothermal com- C. the metal piece will be immersed in
pressiblity of a crude sample, I increased mercury by half
the cell volume and recorded volumes and
pressures at multiple points. During this D. whole of the metal piece will be im-
procedure pressure dropped below the mersed with its top surface just at mer-
bubble point of the sample. I recorded 5 cury level
points when the pressure was above the 135. Shear stress in static fluid is
bubble point, and 3 points where the pres-
A. always zero
sure was below the bubble point. Which
portion of the recorded data should I use B. always maximum
to calculate liquid compressiblity? C. between zero to maximum
A. All 8 points D. unpredictable
B. 5 points above the bubble point
136. According to Pascal, pressure applied to
C. 3 points below the bubble point a fluid
D. none of above A. increases as it moves through the
fluid.
131. Water beads up on the surface of a penny
because of this property. B. decreases as it moves through the
fluid.
A. Adhesion
C. fluctuates as it is transmitted through-
B. High Surface Tension out the fluid.
C. Universal Solvent D. is transmitted unchanged throughout
D. Changes in Density the fluid.

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 630

137. Should Specific Weight of incompressible 142. What is the specific weight of glycerine
fluid only be taken at STP? with specific gravity of 1.26?
N
A. Yes, as specific weight may show large A. 12.60 m3
variation with temperature and pressure
B. 0.12 mN3
B. No, it can be taken for any tempera-
C. 12 600 mN3
ture and pressure
D. 12 348 mN3
C. It should be taken at standard temper-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ature but pressure may be any value 143. The viscosity of a fluid in motion is 1
D. It should be taken at standard pres- Poise. What will be it’s shear stress when
sure but temperature may be any value the fluid is at rest?

m2
A. 0
138. stokes = sec
B. 0.5
A. 10−6
√ C. 1
B. 10
D. 2
C. 10−4
144. A cork is submerged in water by a spring
m2
D. 1 sec attached to the bottom of a bowl. When-
the bowl is kept in an elevator moving
139. Which of the below is NOT considered a with acceleration downwards, the length
fluid ofspring
A. Earth’s atmosphere A. Increases
B. Ocean Water B. Decreases
C. ketchup C. Remains unchanged
D. Ice cubes D. None of these

140. If 200 m3 of fluid has a weight of 1060N 145. In which types of fluids it is observed
measured on the planet having accelera- that momentum transfer dominates cohe-
tion due to gravity 6.625 m/s2 , what will sive forces with increase in temperature
be it’s specific volume? and hence viscosity increases
A. 0.8 A. Gas

B. 0.7 B. liquid

C. 0.6 C. solid
D. all of the above
D. 0.5
146. A perfect fluid (also known as an ideal
141. how to calculate the volume fluid) is
A. volume=density/mass A. a real fluid
B. volume=density/volume B. the one which obeys perfect gas laws
C. volume=mass/density C. compressive and gaseous
D. volume=density*g D. incompressible and frictionless

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 631

147. Which of the following statements best C. Boyle’s law.

describe shear thickening fluid?
D. Bernoulli’s principle.

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A. Viscosity decreases with stress over
time. 152. “Fluid velocity increases when the flow
B. Viscosity increases with stress over of the the fluid is restricted” is the basis
time. for which of the following principles:

C. Viscosity decreases with increased A. Pascal’s Principle

stress. B. Bernoulli’s Principle
D. Viscosity increases with increased C. the Quantum Entanglement Principle
stress.
D. Archimedes’ Principle
148. Which of the below has the lowest vis-
cosity 153. A substance has a mass of 16 g and a vol-
A. molasses ume of 4 cubic cm, what is it’s density?

B. water A. 64 g/cm3

C. honey B. 20 g/ml
D. sour cream C. 4 g/cm3

149. Which of the following properties D. 12 g/cm3

can be calculated using the formula
154. A pipe 2cm in diameter has a constriction
mass/volume?
of diameter 1 cm .what is the velocity of
A. pressure flow at the constriction, if velocity of flow
B. viscosity in the broader region of the pipe is5 cm/s
C. density A. 10 cm/s
D. buoyancy B. 20 cm/s

150. Which of the following best describes C. 25 cm/s

shear stress? D. 30 cm/s
A. It is an example of normal stress.
155. Ratio of the weight density of a liquid to
B. It acts along the surface, parallel to weight density of standard fluid is
the surface.
A. Equal to the Ratio of the mass density
C. It acts inward, toward the surface,
of a liquid to mass density of standard
and perpendicular to the surface.
fluid
D. It is force per unit mass, acting paral-
B. more than from the Ratio of the mass
lel to an infinitesimal surface element.
density of a liquid to mass density of stan-
151. The buoyant force on an object is equal dard fluid
to the weight of the fluid displaced by the C. Less than from the Ratio of the mass
object is stated in density of a liquid to mass density of stan-
A. Pascal’s principle. dard fluid
B. Archimedes’ principle. D. Equal to 1 always

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 632

156. Which physical property is the amount of C. A is true and R is false.

space something takes up and can be mea- D. A and R both are false.
sured with a graduated cylinder?
A. conductivity 161. A sample of metal weights 210 grams in
air, 180 grams in water and 120 grams in
B. relative density an unknown liquid. Then:-
C. thermal energy A. the density of metal is 3 g/cm3
D. volume B. the density of metal is 7 g/cm3

NARAYAN CHANGDER
157. It is the property of a fluid by virtue of C. density of metal is 4 times the density
its offers resistance to the movement of of the unknown liquid
one layer of fluid over an adjacent layer. D. the metal will float in water
A. Viscosity 162. If a force of 4 N is applied across a face
B. Specific weight of a cube whose sides are 2mm each then
C. Specific gravity stress produced is

D. Fluid friction A. 16N/m2

B. 106N/m2
158. A HYDRAULIC PRESS HAS A RAM OF
C. 1
30 CM DIAMETER AND APLUNGER OF 2
CM DIAMETER. IT IS USED FOR LIFTING D. 4
A WEIGHT OF35kN. FIND THE FORCE RE-
163. Aerodynamics is the study of
QUIRED AT THE PLUNGER.
A. liquids under pressure
A. 233.3kN
B. solids under pressure
B. 311.1kN
C. how objects move through gases
C. 466.6kN
D. how objects move through liquids
D. 0.155Kn
164. Waste water is flowing through a
159. Poise is the unit of, sewage pipe of area 4m2, at a rate of
A. Mass Density 3m/s; What is the velocity of the water
when it reaches a wider portion of the pipe
B. Kinematic Viscosity
of area 6m2?
C. Viscosity
A. 3m/s
D. Velocity Gradient
B. 0m/s
160. Assertion:Surface tension decreases with C. 6m/s
increase in temperature.Reason:On in- D. 2m/s
crease in temperature, Kinetic energy
increases and intermolecular forces de- 165. “The ability of a a fluid (liquid or gas)
crease. to exert an upward force on the object
A. A and R are true and R is the correct immersed in it” is the BEST definition for
reason for A. which of the following terms:

B. A and R are true but R is not the cor- A. Density

rect reason for A. B. Weight

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 633

C. Buoyancy 171. Which statement is true about the viscos-

D. Pressure ity of a liquid?

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A. The stronger the intermolecular
166. The ratio between weight and volume is forces, the more viscous the liquid.
called
B. The smaller the molecules, the more
A. specific weight viscous the liquid.
B. specific gravity C. The higher the temperature, the more
C. specific volume viscous the liquid.
D. mass density D. All of the answers are true.

167. What is displacement? 172. If flow of liquid is horizontal, how does

speed affect the pressure?
A. The ability to float
A. Speed increases then pressure in-
B. Degree of compactness of a substance creases
C. The moving of something from its B. No effect
place or position
C. Speed increases then pressure de-
D. none of above creases

168. Water pressure at the bottom of a lake D. Speed becomes negative then pres-
depends on the sure becomes positive

A. weight of water in the lake. 173. Which tool would be used to measure the
mass of an object?
B. surface area of the lake.
A. balance
C. depth of the lake.
B. graduated cylinder
D. density of the water.
C. meter stick
169. Matter that has the ability to flow (flu- D. spring scale
ids) include
A. gases. 174. A copper ball of radius ‘r’ travels with a
uniform speed ‘v’ in a viscous fluid. If the
B. liquids. ball is changed with anotherball of radius
C. gases and liquids. ‘2r’, then new uniform speed will be:-
D. liquids and solids. A. v
B. 2v
170. An compressible fluid’s specific gravity
was measured on earth, on a planet hav- C. 4v
ing acceleration due to gravity 5.5 times D. 8v
that of earth, and in space at STP. Where
will it be having highest value? 175. If 200 m3 of fluid has a weight of
1060N measured on the planet having ac-
A. on the earth celeration due to gravity 6.625 sm2 , what
B. on the planet will be it’s specific volume?
C. in the space A. 0.8
D. it will be constant everywhere B. 0.7

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 634

C. 0.9 B. A system that uses a gas under pres-

D. 0.5 sure to transmit a force to do work
C. Pascal’s law.
176. An example of a physical property is
D. It uses water to push an object.
A. flammability
B. acidic 182. Liquids with very low viscosity flow very
C. color

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. ability to rust A. fast
B. not at all
177. Which principle do airplanes take advan-
tage of to fly? C. slow
A. Archimedes’ Principle D. whenever it wants
B. Bernoulli’s Principle
183. Find the kinematic viscosity of oil having
C. Pascal’s Principle density 1962 kg/m3 . the force experi-
D. none of above enced for area of 20 m2 is 4.904 kN and
velocity of gradient at that point is 0.2/s.
178. Bulk modulus is the ratio of
A. 0.625
A. shear stress to volumetric strain
B. 1.25
B. volumetric strain to shear stress
C. volumetric strain to compressive C. 2.5
stress D. None of these
D. compressive stress to volumetric
strain 184. What are the specific weight and specific
gravity of 1 liter of liquid which weighs 8
179. Which physical property will change if newtons?
you visit the moon?
A. The specific weight is 9810 kg/m3
A. mass while the specific gravity is 0.82 .
B. volume B. The specific weight is 810 kg/m3
C. density while the specific gravity is 0.82 .
D. weight C. The specific weight is 910 kg/m3
while the specific gravity is 0.28 .
180. atmospheric pressure =
D. The specific weight is 9910 kg/m3
A. 1000 mm of Hg while the specific gravity is 0.72 .
B. 10.3 m of water
N 185. Which uses Bernoulli’s principle?
C. 1.01325 m2
D. 1013.25 Kpa A. hose-ens sprayer
B. skateboard
181. What is a hydraulic system?
C. piston
A. A system that uses a liquid under pres-
sure to transmit a force to do work. D. snowboard

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 635

186. .A log of wood of mass 120 Kg floats in C. d=mass/g

water. The weight that can be put on the D. d=mass*volume
raft to make it just sink, should be (density

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of wood =600 Kg/m3 ) 192. Squeezing a tube of toothpaste causes
toothpaste to come out of the top explains
A. 80kg
what..
B. 50kg A. density
C. 60kg B. pressure applied to fluid
D. 30kg C. buoyancy
187. Pull of gravity on an object: D. that my teeth are clean
A. Gravity 193. Which of the following properties can
B. mass be calculated using the formula vol-
ume/mass?
C. weight
A. specific volume
D. volumer
B. viscosity
188. What is the equation for pressure? C. density
A. Pressure = Force / Surface area D. buoyancy
B. Pressure = Force x Surface area 194. If you double the size of the larger pad of
C. Pressure = Force + Surface area a hydraulic system, how much less force
do you need to apply to the smaller pad to
D. I have a 6 foot squirrel named Antney achieve the same result?
189. Which of the following is not a fluid? A. 1/4 the force
A. WAter B. 1/3 the force
B. Mercury C. 1/2 the force
C. Air D. The same amount of force

D. Sand 195. Which statement/s is/are TRUE? i. flu-

ids are capable of flowing ii. fluids con-
190. Which of these sentences is not suitable form to the shape of the containing ves-
for a professional report? sels iii. fluids at rest cannot resist a shear
A. Opening the valve too quickly will intro- stress
duce large errors in the measurements. A. i, and ii only
B. Opening the valve too quickly will re- B. ii, and iii only
sult in erroneous measurements. C. i, and iii only
C. Opening the valve too quickly will mess D. i, ii, and iii
up the measurements.
196. Toothpaste is very viscous.
D. All of theses sentences are just fine
A. True
191. define density d B. False
A. d=volume/mass C. I don’t know
B. d=mass/volume D. none of above

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 636

197. Airplane flight is explained by which prin- B. Newtons

ciple? C. Pascals
A. Bernoulli D. Kilogram
B. Archimedes
202. The specific gravity of ice is 0.92. What
C. Pascal is the density of ice, and is it greater or
D. none of above less than the density of liquid water at
4.0◦ C?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
198. cm3 of water flows per second through a
A. The density of ice is 920 mkg3 which is
capillary tube of radius a cm and of length
less than the density of liquid water.
‘l’ cm when connectedto a pressure head
of h cm of water. If a tube of the same B. The density of ice is 1030 mkg3 which is
length and radius a/2 cm is connected to greater than the density of liquid water.
the samepressure head, the quantity of C. The density of ice is 1000 mkg3 which is
water flowing through the tube per second equal to the density of liquid water.
will be(in cc):-
D. The density of ice is 920 mkg3 which is
A. 16 greater than the density of liquid water.
B. 4
203. Density is
C. 1
A. matter/solids
D. 8
B. volume/mass
199. Which among the following are the appli- C. gas/liquid
cations of Bernoulli’s equation?
D. mass/volume
A. Speed of efflux
204. Rain drops are spherical in shape because
B. Ventury tube
of
C. Barometer
A. low temperature
D. Hydraulic lift
B. Surface Tension
200. Assertion:The velocity of flow of a liquid C. Viscosity
is smaller when pressure is larger and vice-
D. External forces
versa. Reason:According to Bernoulli’s
theorem, for the streamline flow of all 205. In which experiment is gas expelled from
ideal liquid, the total energy per unit mass the cell?
remains constant.
A. Constant composition expansion
A. A and R are true and R is the correct
B. Differential liberation
reason for A.
C. Both
B. A and R are true but R is not the cor-
rect reason for A. D. none of above
C. A is true and R is false. 206. The concept of continuum in fluid flow
D. A is false but R is true. assumes that the characteristics length of
the flow is:
201. Which is a unit of pressure? A. smaller than the mean free path of the
A. Gram molecules

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5.2 Properties of Fluids 637

B. larger than the mean free path of the Specific Volume 3. No UnitD Specific Grac-
molecules ity 4. Kg/m3

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C. larger than the dimensions of the sus- A. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
pended particles B. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
D. larger than the wavelength of sound in C. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
the medium
D. A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
207. .Assertion:Bernoulli’s equation ideally
212. Assertion:Hot air has more viscosity than
applies to fluids that are non-viscous and
water. Reason:Viscosity is the internal
incompressible.Reason:Bernoulli’s princi-
friction of a moving liquid.
ple is derived from conservation of energy
theorem. A. A and R are true and R is the correct
reason for A.
A. A and R are true and R is the correct
reason for A. B. A and R are true but R is not the cor-
rect reason for A
B. A and R are true but R is not the cor-
rect reason for A. C. A is true and R is false.

C. A is true and R is false. D. A and R both are false

D. A and R both are false 213. Passenger jet in the air increases its
speed. The downward force and the
208. Which of the following is NOT an exam- upward force
ple of a shear thinning fluid?
A. Increases decreases
A. ketchup
B. decreases decreases
B. paint
C. decreases increase
C. blood D. decreases increase
D. corn syrup
214. Which is not a state of matter?
209. Fluids are: A. Solid
A. solids B. Liquid
B. liquids C. Substance
C. gases D. Gas
D. all of the above 215. The supporting force exerted by a fluid
210. Liquids have definite volume but indefi- on an object immersed in it is called
nite A. buoyant force.
A. size B. lift.
B. shape C. density.
C. color D. viscosity.
D. temperature 216. Fluids consist of

211. Match the following:A Mass density A. solids and liquids

1.N/m3B Weight Density 2. M3/KgC B. gases

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 5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 638

C. gases and liquids in the metallic rod l is within elastic limit

D. gases and solids and the rod does not bend, then calculate
the work done by the force F and the en-
217. For an incompressible fluid what remains ergy stored in the rod
same throughout the flow A. YAl 2 /2L
A. Mass of fluid
B. 2L/YAl 2
B. Velocity of fluid
C. Y l 2 /2L

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Area covered by the fluid
D. 2L/Y l 2
D. None of the above
222. Which of the following is the correct di-
218. If water has a density of 1.0 g/cm3, and mension of specific weight?
object X has a density of 1.30 g/cm3, then
N
object X will A. m3
kg
A. float B. m3
B. sink C. N
kg
C. fly D. dimensionless
D. none of above
223. Which statement/s is/are FALSE? i.
219. and play the same role in case When the specific gravity is greater than
of fluids as force and mass play in case of one, the object will float.ii. When the spe-
solids. cific gravity is less than one, then the ob-
A. Pressure and density ject will sink.iii. If the specific gravity is
equal to one, this means that the object
B. Thrust and volume
will neither sink nor float.iv. Specific grav-
C. Thrust and density ity is sometimes called relative density.
D. Pressure and thrust A. i, and ii only
220. Stress-strain relationship for Newtonian B. i, and iii only
fluid is C. i, ii, and iii only
A. linear D. i, ii, and iv only
B. parabolic
224. Specific gravity is what kind of prop-
C. hyperbolic
erty?
D. inverse type
A. Intensive
221. In an experiment a metallic rod of length B. Extensive
L is compressed by a variable force F,
which is slightly greater than the restoring C. None of the mentioned
elastic forces in the rod. If the compression D. It depends on external conditions

5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 639

1. The mass of an object as it moves 6. Gauge pressure is

away from the center of Earth A. Absolute pressure-Atmospheric pres-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. stays the same sure
B. decreases B. Absolute pressure +Atmospheric
pressure
C. increases
C. Atmospheric pressure-Absolute pres-
D. doubles sure

2. Water is air. D. None of these

A. heavier than 7. The formula for pressure is P=

B. lighter than A. area / force

C. the same weight when compared to B. area x time/ force

C. force/ area
D. none of above
D. area+ force
3. A boy rides a skate board down a hill.
Eventually the skate board stops. Which 8. A pressure of 10kPa acts on an area of 0.3
is most responsible for causing the skate- m2. The force acting on the area will be
board to stop? A. 3000 N
A. gravity acting on the skateboard B. 30 N
B. friction acting on the skateboard C. 3 N
C. the mass of the skateboard D. 300 N

D. the mass of the boy 9. Which of the following is NOT a unit of

pressure?
4. The relation between different pressures A. K
is
B. mmHg
A. Absolute Pressure =Atmospheric
pressure +Gauge Pressure C. psi
D. atm
B. Absolute Pressure =Atmospheric
pressure +Vacuum Pressure 10. To reduce friction, one could:
C. Absolute Pressure =Atmospheric A. place extra weight on the object that is
pressure-Gauge Pressure moving
D. Absolute Pressure =Atmospheric B. remove wheels to reduce the down-
pressure-Vacuum Pressure ward pressure in trolleys
C. use a lubricant such as grease
5. As elevation increases,
D. none of above
A. pressure decreases.
11. Which of the following is used to measure
B. pressure increases.
the difference in pressure between two
C. pressure stays the same. points in a pipe, or in two different pipes
D. none of above A. Differential Manometer

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 640

B. Single Column Manometer C. the same density as water.

C. Piezometer Tube D. none of above
D. None of the above 17. How do you turn Ncm2 to Nm2?
12. Any pressure measured above the atmo- A. Divide by 100
spheric zeroof pressure is termed as B. Divide by 10
A. atmospheric pressure C. Times by 100

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. gauge pressure D. none of above
C. absolute pressure
18. A solid
D. vacuum pressure
A. has particles that are far apart
13. the ratio of the weight of all the air B. has a size and shape of its own
above you to your surface area.
C. takes the shape of its container
A. Atmospheric pressure
D. none of above
B. Density
19. What is force per unit area?
C. Fluid
A. upward force
D. Pressure
B. pressure
14. if you increase the air temperature, the
C. fluid
A. air molecules are colliding with one an-
D. density
other MORE frequently
B. air molecules are colliding with one an- 20. applied on an object by a fluid is re-
other LESS frequently lated to the weight of the fluid.
C. air molecules are not colliding with A. Air
one another B. Altitude
D. no change C. Pressure
15. if the volume of the container decreases D. Force
for the same quantity of gas the distances
21. A sudden drop of barometeric pressure at
between the particles also decrease and
a place indicates
there are more collisions of the particles
with the walls of the container. as a re- A. Good weather conditions
sult the gas pressure will? B. Stormy weather conditions
A. stays constant C. Nothing happens
B. decrease D. Drop or rise of temperatures
C. increase 22. pascal of pressure is equal to
D. none of the above A. 1 N/mm2
16. An object will float on water if it is B. 1 N/m2
A. less dense than water. C. 1 KN/m2
B. more dense than water. D. 1MN/m2

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 641

23. What is the guage pressure in Pascals at a 29. Pressure as you cool a fluid down.
depth of 10 m below the water surface?
A. increases

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A. 98100 Pa
B. decreases
B. 9810 Pa
C. 981 Pa C. stays the same

D. 9.81 Pa D. none of above

24. Which of the following decreases pres- 30. What do we call the the amount of force
sure? per unit area applied to an object’s sur-
A. Snow shoes face?
B. Nails A. fluid
C. Pins B. pressure
D. Ice Skates
C. buoyant
25. As temperature rises
D. none of above
A. an atom’s kinetic energy stays the
same 31. Force acts on an object may change
B. an atom’s kinetic energy increases
A. direction
C. an atom’s kinetic energy decreases
B. shape
D. an atom’s mass increases
C. speed
26. The pressure of a liquid on a surface will
always act to the surface. D. all of above
A. Normal
32. What does a barometer measure?
B. Parallel
A. air pressure
C. At an angle less than 90 degree
B. water level
D. At an angle more than 90 degree
C. wind direction
27. The height of free surface above any point
is known as D. wind speed
A. Static Head
33. A scientist has four different liquids and
B. Intensity of pressure
pours them all into a bottle. The silver liq-
C. Datum Head uid sinks to the bottom, the red liquid set-
D. All of the above tles on top of the silver one, and the pink
liquid stays at the surface. Which liquid
28. Objects that have density than water has the smallest density?
will float in water.
A. the pink liquid
A. bigger
B. the silver liquid
B. the same
C. more C. the red liquid
D. less D. the water

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 642

34. A student uses a glue stick with an area of C. the amount of mass in a given space
4 cm2, putting a pressure of 0.5 N/cm2 on D. the weight of an object
her book. Calculate the force she puts on
the glue stick. 40. A piece of copper has a mass of 89g and
A. 1N a volume of 10 cm3. What would be the
density of the copper?
B. 2N
A. 0.89 g/cm3
C. 20N
B. 89 g/cm3

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 15N
C. 8.9 g/cm3
35. Choose two correct applications that exert D. 890 g/cm3
high pressure.
41. Liquid pressure is measured by an instru-
A. Tractors have big and wide wheels
ment called
B. Press a thumbtack into a plank
A. Mammometer
C. Studs on the sole of football boots
B. Manometer
D. Shoulder pad for a school bag
C. Barometer
36. An object with bigger mass and particles D. Thermometer
close to each other is more than likely to
42. Which of the following is a correct equal-
ity for which you could write a conversion
A. sink
factor to solve a gas law problem?
B. float A. 1 atm + 101.3 kPa = 760 mm Hg
C. expand B. 1 atm = 101.3 mm Hg
D. shrink C. 101.3 kPa = 760 torr
37. According to Pascal’s law, pressure at any D. 1 torr = 1 atm
point in a liquid
43. Calculate the area of a dart which hits the
A. Is same in all the directions dartboard with a force of 10 N and pres-
B. Is different in different directions sure of 2000 N/cm2 .
C. More in horizontal direction A. 0.005 cm 2
D. Less in vertical direction B. 0.05 cm2
C. 0.5 cm2
38. Which of these is NOT a unit of pressure
D. 5 cm2
A. Pascals
B. Newtons 44. Boyle’s Law shows the relationship be-
tween between which two factors of a
C. N/m2
gas?
D. N/cm2
A. volume and pressure
39. Density is B. temperature and pressure
A. the amount of mass in an object C. pressure and temperature
B. the amount of space an object takes up D. Volume and mass

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 643

45. the liquid or fluid filled in closed containers 51. If an object’s weight is equal to the amount
exert pressure equally in directions. of water it displaces, the object will

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A. all A. Float
B. only down B. Sink
C. only up C. Expand
D. stays in its position D. Shrink
46. The manometric liquid used in inverted dif-
ferential manometer should have 52. Anything that takes up space and has mass
is
A. High density
A. Matter
B. low density
B. Volume
C. High Surface tension
D. Low viscosity C. Liquid
D. Atom
47. Water can undergo a change of state from
liquid to by decreasing the air pressure 53. The equivalent unit of pascal (Pa) is
on its surface.
A. N m-2
A. gas
B. atm
B. solid
C. mmHg
C. plasma
D. condensation D. none of above

48. What type of liquids are measured using a 54. The upward force on an object is equal to
manometer? A. weight of object
A. Heavy liquids B. volume of the fluid it displaces
B. Medium Liquids
C. weight of liquid it displaces
C. Light Liquids
D. none of the above
D. Heavy and light liquids
55. A person wearing boots and a person
49. Pressure is mathematically defined as
wearing stilleto heels stand on a wooden
A. p = A/F floor. They both have the same weight.
B. P = F/A Which person exerts a greater pressure on
the floor?
C. P = F*A
D. P = A*F A. boots because they have a larger sur-
face area
50. What pressure in kPa is equal to
B. stiletto heels because they have a
725mmHg?
larger surface area
A. 5350 kPa
C. boots because they have a smaller sur-
B. 725 kPa face area
C. 96.7 kPa D. stiletto heels boots because they have
D. 1450 kPa a smaller surface area

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 644

56. mass X acceleration due to gravity C. The pressure increases.

A. weight D. none of above
B. density
62. The device which involves the use of ver-
C. mass tical or inclined liquid columns to measure
D. force pressure

57. A car sinks into a river till 5 meters deep. A. Manometer

Calculate the pressure that supports its

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Anemometer
surface.
C. Speedometer
A. 98000 N
D. Thermometer
B. 49000 N
C. 49000 Pa 63. What is the science behind Magdeburg
D. 98000 Pa hemisphere?
A. water pressure
58. If an object’s surface area is smaller does
it create more or less pressure? B. atmospheric pressure
A. More C. solid pressure
B. Less D. none of above
C. The same
64. A force of 105 N is applied on a table, if
D. none of above the area of contact between the hand push-
59. Where would pressure be the greatest ing the table and the table is 5 m2 . Calcu-
late pressure applied.
A. 10 m deep in a lake at sea level
A. 21 N/m2
B. 5 m deep in a pond on a mountain
B. 20 N/m2
C. top of a mountain 15, 000 feet up
D. on a hill in Oklahoma City (1, 200 ft. C. 25 N/m2
above sea level) D. 23 N/m2
60. True or False:For an object to sink density 65. Density of air is greater
must be than the density of a fluid.
A. at the top of the mountain
A. More
B. at the bottom of the mountain
B. Less
C. at the center of the mountain
C. The same
D. none of above D. none of above

61. A child sits on a three-legged stool. How 66. A Barometer is used to measures
does the pressure change when the child A. Atmospheric pressure
leans over so that only two legs of the
stool touch the floor? B. Vacuum pressure
A. The pressure does not change. C. Very low pressure
B. The pressure decreases. D. Very high pressure

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 645

67. When a fluid is pushed out of the way as 73. Density of a fluid or an object is the
an object is set in it. of an object divided by the volume?
(Hint:what is the formula for density? )

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A. viscosity
B. displacement A. Density
C. area B. Weight
D. pressure C. Mass
68. a gas in a container develops pressure due D. none of above
to ?
A. weight of the gas 74. A hammer hits a nail with a force of 50 N
into some wood. The area of the point of
B. collision of molecules with each other
the nail is 0.02 cm2 . What is the pressure
C. composition of the gas the nail puts on the wood?
D. collision of molecules with the walls of A. 2500 N/cm2
the container
B. 250 N/cm2
69. System that uses fluid to increase a force
C. 190 N/cm3
A. Buoyancy
D. 6000 N
B. Hyrdaulics
C. Mechanical Advantage 75. Define Air Pressure
D. Machine A. The weight of a column of air pushing
70. Liquid pressure is because of the forces be- down on an area
tween the liquid particles and the of B. The Amount of Mass in a given volume
the container.
C. The force pushing on an area
A. Volume
D. The distance above sea level
B. Mass
C. Surface 76. What is the SI Unit for Density?
D. Density A. g / cm3
71. When a diver dives deeper into the ocean, B. g / m3
he will experience liquid pressure
C. kg / m2
A. greater
D. kg / m3
B. less
C. no 77. The pressure is the force acting normally
D. none of above per unit area. So, the pressure is

72. What is the SI Unit for weight? A. a vector quantity

A. newton B. a scalar quantity
B. kilogramme C. either a vector quantity or a scalar
C. metres quantity
D. ampere D. none of above

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 646

78. Which property of matter is determined by B. the study and applications of pressur-
dividing its mass by its volume? ized gas to produce mechanical motion.
A. elasticity C. the study and applications of pressur-
B. buoyancy ized nitrogen to produce mechanical mo-
tion.
C. density
D. the study and applications of pressur-
D. viscosity ized sodium to produce mechanical mo-
tion.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
79. An object with which of the following den-
sities will float on water? 84. What is the pressure in Pascals at a depth
A. 0.7 g/cm3 of 1m below the water surface?
B. 1.2 g/cm3 A. 98100 Pa
C. 3.5 g/cm3 B. 980 Pa
D. 11.4 g/cm3 C. 98 Pa
D. 1 Pa
80. What is the variation observed in temper-
ature in atmosphere with respect to eleva- 85. A mercury water manometer has a gauge
tion difference of 0.8 m. The difference in pres-
A. It goes on decreasing with height sure measured in metres of water is
B. It goes on increasing with height A. 0.8
C. It first increases then decreases B. 1.06
D. It first decreases then increases C. 10.05
D. 8.02
81. A force is applied in a closed container,
the pressure increases the same amount. 86. The ability of a fluid to exert upward force
EX:squeezing a water bottle or toothpaste on objects placed in the fluid is known as
A. Archimede’s Principle A. weight
B. Pascal’s Principle B. thrust
C. Bernoulli’s Principle C. buoyancy
D. none of above D. mass
82. Any liquid, such as water, is a fluid; al- 87. The measurement of force per unit area is
though a liquid changes when it flows, called
its stays the same. A. pressure
A. shape and size B. particles
B. shape and volume C. air tank
C. size and color D. atmospheres
D. size and temperature
88. An object exerts 360 N of force on a sur-
83. define pnumatics. face that has an area of 8.0m2. How much
A. the study and applications of pressur- pressure does the object exert?
ized water to produce mechanical motion. A. 5.625 Pa

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 647

B. 45 Pa 94. Mark and Ann were playing kickball. They

C. 70 Pa both kicked the same ball, but noticed that
Mark kick made the ball travel farther

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D. 45 N than Ann’s. What most likely caused the
difference?
89. Why do ice cubes float in a glass of wa-
ter? A. Mark kicked with less force
A. the ice cubes are more dense than the B. Mark kicked with more force
water C. Mark kick had less friction
B. the water is more dense than the ice D. none of above
cubes
95. S.I unit of weight is
C. the water is more dense than the glass
A. Newton
D. the ice is more dense than the glass
B. Newton meter
90. Pressure decreases when the surface area C. Gram
over which it is applied
D. Kilogram
A. pressure increases
96. The device used to measure pressure is
B. pressure decreases
called
C. pressure stays the same
A. Barometer
D. pressure increases then decreases
B. Anemometer
91. An example of a fluid (check all that apply) C. Speedometer
A. liquid D. Thermometer
B. gas 97. Mercury has
C. water A. Low vapour pressure
D. air B. High vapour pressure
92. Which equation correctly describes the re- C. Zero vapour pressure
lationship between pressure, force, and D. Infinite vapour pressure
area?
98. A wooden block has a volume of 12 cm3
A. pressure = force/area
and a density of 3 g/cm3. What is the
B. force = pressure/area mass of the wooden block?
C. pressure-area = force A. 36g
D. pressure = force x area B. 3g
C. 1g
93. Magnetic force is
D. 8g
A. contact force
B. non-contact force 99. The pressure at a point in the fluid is 4.9
N/cm2 . Find height when the fluid under
C. both a and b consideration is in oil of specific gravity of
D. none of these 0.85.

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 648

A. 5.83 m 105. Atmospheric pressure the lower you

B. 11.66 m go on Earth.

C. 17.49 m A. increases
D. 7.49 m B. decreases
C. stays the same
100. A piece of iron has a weight of 3.5 N
when it is in air and 2.0 N when it is sub- D. has no effect
merged into water. What is the buoyant

NARAYAN CHANGDER
force on the piece of iron? 106. How would the pressure of the gas in an
air tank change if more gas particles are
A. 3.5 N added?
B. 2.0 N
A. As particles are added the pressure in-
C. 1.5 N side the tank would decrease.
D. 0.5 N B. As particles are added the pressure in-
side the tank would increase.
101. Unit of pressure in the SI system
C. As particles are added the pressure on
A. newton-meters
the outside of the tank would increase.
B. pascals
D. none of above
C. meters
D. none of above 107. what is the SI units of pressure
A. torr
102. Convert the pressure 0.75 atm to mm Hg.
B. pascal
A. 99
C. atm
B. 755
C. 570 D. none of above

D. 273 108. The barometric pressure at sea level is

760 mm of Mercury while that on a moun-
103. whose principle says when a fluid’s tain top is 715 mm. If the density of air is
speed increases the pressure of that fluid assumed constant at 1.2 kg/m3, what is
decreases the elevation of the mountain top?
A. Archimedes’
A. 510 m
B. Pascal’s
B. 1020 m
C. Einstein’s
C. 255 m
D. Bernoulli’s
D. 128 m
104. As an object’s mass increases, its gravi-
tational pull will 109. The term fluids generally applies to:
A. decrease A. solid and liquid
B. increase B. liquid and gas
C. stay the same C. solid and plasma
D. get weaker D. water only

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 649

110. A body is said to be under balanced forces C. Specific gravity is equal to that of fluid
when the resultant force applied on that flowing in pipes
body is

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D. None of the mentioned
A. One
115. Will air pressure be higher on top of a
B. Zero
mountain or on the beach?
C. Infinite
A. beach
D. None of these
B. mountain
111. Which equipment works based on the Be-
C. It’s always the same
moulli’s principle?
D. none of above
A. Suction pump
B. Bunsen bumer 116. What conversion factor would you use to
C. Vacuum cleaner convert 56 atm to mmHg?

D. Hydraulic jack A. 760 mmHg / 101.3 kPa

B. 101.3 kPa / 1 atm
112. The devices used for the measuring of
pressure at a point in a fluid by balancing C. 1 atm / 760
the column of fluid by the same or another D. 760 mmHg / 1 atm
column of liquid are known as
A. Manometers 117. When increasing the pressure of water,
the force which it exerts on other objects
B. Mechanical gauges
C. Venturimeter
A. decreases
D. None of the above
B. increases
113. Mechanical gauges are used for C. stays the same
A. Measuring high pressure without high
D. none of above
precision
B. Measuring high pressure with high 118. What happens to the amount of oxygen
precision molecules as altitude increases?
C. Measuring suction pressure without A. fewer molecules
high precision B. more molecules
D. Measuring suction pressure with high
C. same amount of molecules
precision
D. nothing happens to the molecules
114. In the inverted U-tube Differential
manometer, how is the specific gravity 119. As a balloon is blown up, the pressure
of manometric fluid used relative to the inside the ballooon
fluid flowing in the pipes
A. increases
A. Specific gravity is more than that of
B. decreases
fluid flowing in pipes
B. Specific gravity is less than that of fluid C. stays the same
flowing in pipes D. none of above

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 650

120. If you place an object in a fluid and it 125. Mercury is generally used in barometers
sinks which is true because
A. its weight is less than the buoyant A. a. Its vapor pressure is practically
force zero
B. the fluid is more dense than the object B. b. The height of the barometer will be
C. its weight is greater than the buoyant less
force C. c. It is the best liquid

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. dead men tell no tales D. Both a and b
121. When you increase your altitude, the air 126. If a piston has a face of 2cm2 and a force
pressure of 5N is applied what is the total pres-
A. increases sure?
B. decreases A. 2.5N/cm2
C. stays the same B. 0.4N/cm2
D. none of above C. 10N/cm2

122. What happens to molecules when you D. 10N/m2

add heat to them?
127. The atmospheric pressure at sea level at
A. they heat up and don’t move 15◦ c is
B. they heat up and move faster A. 101.3kN/m2
C. they cool down and move slowly B. 10.13N/cm2
D. they cool down and move faster C. 1.033kgf/cm2
123. A student measures the pressure and vol- D. All of these
ume of an empty water bottle to be 1.4
atm and 2.3 L. She then decreases the 128. what is the pressure of (14.7 psi) in
pressure to 0.65 atm. What is the new mmHg
volume? A. 101.3
A. 2.1 L B. 1.013
B. 5.0 L C. 1
C. 8.2 L D. 760
D. 3.9 L
129. If I have 5.6 liters of gas in a piston at a
124. Compared to a man standing on a tall pressure of 1.5 atm and compress the gas
mountain, a man standing at sea level until its volume is 4.8 L, what will the new
pressure inside the piston be?
A. has less atmospheric pressure on him
A. 1.75 atm
B. has more atmospheric pressure on
him B. 1.8 atm
C. weighs less C. 1.3 atm
D. has more mass D. 1.29 atm

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 651

130. When you squeeze a bottle in the middle 136. The pressure of a liquid measured with
with a force what force is applied to the the help of a piezometer tube is
fluid at the top of the bottle A. Vaccum pressure

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A. less force B. Gauge pressure
B. more force C. Absolute pressure
C. the same force D. Atmospheric pressure
D. cannot be predicted
137. Which phrase best describes the particles
131. A force of 240 N is applied to an area in a solid?
of 6.0m2. how much pressure is being ap- A. not moving
plied to the surfaced? B. very far apart
A. 14, 400 Pa C. vibrating in place
B. 40 Pa D. able to slip past one another
C. 240 Pa
138. The standard value of Atmospheric pres-
D. 6.0 m2 sure is
132. What direction is the buoyant force in? A. 760 mm of Mercury
A. Downward B. 1.01325 bar
B. Left C. 10.34 m of water
C. Right D. All of the above
D. Upward 139. Increasing the volume of an object can
make it than the fluid/water it is in.
133. What is the volume of 150 grams of lead
if it has a density of 11.3 g/cm3? A. less dense
A. 13.3 g B. balance out
B. 13.3 cm3 C. sink
C. .075 g D. float
D. 1695 cm3 140. water pressure increases by Pa for
every one meter down in a lake or in an
134. Underwater pressure increases with ocean.
A. Depth A. 2, 000
B. Width B. 10, 000
C. Motion C. 1, 000
D. Volume D. 11, 000
135. What pressure does a 4000N force exert 141. The amount of force that is exerted on a
on the ground if the area is 10 cm2? balloon by the gas inside the balloon is
A. 4 N m-2 A. temperature
B. 4000 N m-2 B. pressure
C. 400 N m-2 C. volume
D. 40 N m-2 D. heat

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 652

142. What is the formula for mass and D. it will exert four times the pressure it
weight? did before
A. w = m/g 148. liquid pressure decreases as the depth
B. w = m-g
A. increases
C. w = mg
B. stays same
D. w = m + g
C. decrease
143. Pressure is equal to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. zero
A. Force/Surface
149. Which cooking device will allow you to
B. Volume/Time heat up water hotter than it’s boiling
C. Force/Density point?
D. Force times gravity A. skillet

144. can be a gas or a liquid B. pressure cooker

A. atmospheric pressure C. crock pot
B. density D. pasta pan
C. fluid 150. Which statement about fluid pressure is
D. pressure true?
A. areas of low pressure spin around re-
145. What is the pressure under a liquid of
gions of high pressure
density 11.35 kg/m3, at a depth (height)
of 65m? B. areas of low pressure are warmer
than areas of high pressure
A. 7230 Pa
C. fluids move from areas of low pres-
B. 0.175 Pa
sure to areas of high pressure
C. 737.75 Pa
D. fluids move from areas of high pres-
D. 65 Pa sure to areas of low pressure
146. Increasing mass of an object can make it 151. if a force on 50 N applies on an area of
A. sink 10m2. The pressure exerted by force is
B. float A. 5
C. balance more B. 50
D. run quickly C. 500
147. If the horse reared up on 2 legs what ef- D. 0.01
fect would it have on the pressure?
152. The intensity of pressure in compressible
A. it will exert half the pressure it did be- fluid will vary with height.
fore
A. directly
B. it will exert the same pressure it did
before B. indirectly

C. it will exert twice the pressure it did C. exponentially

before D. none

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 653

153. Which property of mercury is the main 158. When going higher in the atmosphere the
reason for use in barometers pressure will

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A. High density A. Increase
B. Very low vapour pressure B. Decrease
C. Low compressibility C. Stay the Same
D. none of above D. none of above

154. A submarine is found 20 metres below 159. Magdeburg Hemisphere, straw, syphon,
the surface of the sea. The density of sea and vacuum cleaner are some of the appli-
water is 1020 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2 cations of
What is the pressure due to the sea water A. buoyant force
acting on the submarine?
B. liquid pressure
A. 20.4 Pa
C. air pressure
B. 2.04 x 103 Pa
D. density
C. 2.04 x 102 Pa
160. State the angle at which pressure acts?
D. 2.04 x 105 Pa
A. 420o
155. When two forces, applied on an object, B. 180o
are equal and opposite, then these forces-
C. 90o
A. May move the object.
D. none of above
B. May stop a moving object.
C. May move the object and also cause a 161. The equation for pressure in a liquid is
change in its shape. Pr essure = Gravity × Depth ×
Density Kris dives into a pool of water
D. Do not move the object but may cause with Density 1000kg/ m3 and touches the
a change in its shape. bottom on the pool with their hand, 3.4
metres below the surface. Work out the
156. The strength of force is expressed by? Pressure on their hand.Gravity = 10 N/kg
A. weight A. 34, 000Pa
B. mass B. 340Pa
C. magnitude C. 3, 400Pa
D. longitudinal force D. 340, 000Pa

157. At sea level the atmospheric pressure 162. Which object is more likely to have a
is? greater buoyant force?
A. 10.300Pa A. Tennis ball
B. 10320Pa B. Marble
C. 103.00Pa C. Coin
D. 10300Pa D. Golf ball

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 654

163. What instrument do meteorologists use C. hydrostatic pressure

to measure atmospheric pressure? D. hydraulics
A. barometer
169. The intensity of pressure in a liquid due
B. thermometer to itsdepth will vary with depth.
C. rain gauge A. directly
D. none of above B. indirectly
164. A liquid has no definite shape and C. exponentially

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. a definite shape D. none
B. a definite volume 170. The ratio of an objects mass to its volume
C. no definite shape is its
D. no definite volume A. density
B. pressure
165. What is the instrument called that mea-
sures air pressure? C. buoyancy
A. thermometer D. height
B. ruler 171. A force F acts on 4 different objects, hav-
C. yard stick ing areas given below. In which case, the
pressure exerted will be maximum?
D. barometer
A. 20m2
166. When a planes’ wing moves through air B. 50m2
the air over the top moves faster creating
a force called C. 10m2

A. drag D. 100m2

B. weight displacement 172. The standard atmospheric pressure is

101.32 kPa. The local atmospheric pres-
C. torque
sure is 91.52 kPa. If a pressure at a flow
D. lift path is recorded as 22.48 kPa (gauge), it
is equivalent to
167. What is weight?
A. 69.04 kPa (abs)
A. The magnetic force acting on the body
B. 88.84 kPa (abs)
B. The electric force acting on the body
C. 114.0 kPa (abs)
C. The gravity acting on the body
D. 123.0 kPa (abs)
D. The gravitational force acting on the
body 173. “The intensity of pressure at any point
in a liquidat rest is the same in all direc-
168. the branch of science which deals with
tions.”
the transmission of fluid pressure through
pipes as a source of mechanical force is A. Kirchhoff’s law
called? B. Pascal’s law
A. pascal’s law C. hydrostatic law
B. aerosols D. pressure law

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 655

174. Air pressure decreases as 180. All of the following affect the pressure in
A. velocity increases fluid except
A. shape of container

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B. elevation increases
B. gravity acting on the fluid
C. acceleration decreases
C. depth of fluid in container
D. gravity increases
D. density of fluid
175. The English (here in America) system of
181. Blood pressure is measured with the help
pressure measurement uses to note
of
pressure.
A. Sphygmomanometer
A. newtons per centimeters squared
B. Blood pressure meter
B. pounds per square inch (PSI)
C. Bourdon’s tube
C. degrees Fahrenheit
D. All of the above
D. degrees Celsius
182. A car of weight 6, 400 N has four wheels.
176. As a pressure head, the atmospheric pres- Each wheel has an area of 80 cm2 touching
sure is the road. Find the pressure the car puts on
the ground.
A. 76 cm of mercury
A. 200 N/cm3
B. 74.5 cm of mercury
B. 20 N/cm3
C. 70 cm of mercury
C. 200 N/cm2
D. None of the above
D. 150 N/cm2
177. What 2 states of matter are fluids? 183. What happens to atmospheric pressure
A. solid & liquid as a person goes higher?
B. solid & gas A. Pressure decreases
C. liquid & gas B. Pressure increases
D. solid & plasma C. Pressure remains constant
D. none of above
178. one atmosphere(1 atm) is equal to?
184. Which instrument is used to measure at-
A. 101, 300Pa
mospheric pressure?
B. 101.300pa
A. Hydrometer
C. 100, 300Pa B. Bourdon gauge
D. 101.300kPa C. Barometer
179. Mercury used in manometers because of D. Micrometer screw gauge
its 185. What does N/m2 mean?
A. High Density A. Newtons per squared metre
B. Low vapor pressure B. Kilograms per squared mile
C. Low compressibility C. Squared metres per newton
D. All of the above D. none of above

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 656

186. Fluids exert pressure because they are C. m2

made up of tiny D. Newtons/m2
A. particles that are buoyant
192. The force of a column of air pressing
B. particles that push upward
down is called what?
C. forces that sum together
A. Air Mass
D. moving particles that exert forces
B. Air Pressure

NARAYAN CHANGDER
187. In the metric system, pressure is noted in C. Air
A. newtons per centimeters squared D. Heavy
(N/cm2)
B. pounds per square inch (PSI) 193. a liquid pressure which increases with the
depth of the liquid in a container is called?
C. degrees Fahrenheit
A. gas pressure
D. degrees Celsius
B. hydrostatic pressure
188. The pressure of liquid at the bottom of
C. water pressure
a jug depends on the following factors ex-
cept D. liquid pressure
A. shape of the jug 194. The amount of force pushing on an area
B. depth of liquid is the definition of
C. the density of liquid A. Fluid
D. gravitational field strength B. Viscosity
189. An object with a greater buoyant force C. Barometer
than the weight will D. Pressure
A. Sink
195. If a pressure of 100N/m2 is applied to a
B. Float piston with an area of 1.5m2 what is the
C. Expand total force?
D. Shrink A. 150N

190. A force of 20 N acts over an area of 4m2. B. 75m2

Calculate the pressure C. 0.015N
A. 80 Pa D. 50N
B. 5 Pa
196. a force of 1800N is acting on the surface
C. 80 N area of 0.06m2 .the pressure exerted by
D. 5 N the force will be?
A. 20Pa
191. What would be a correct unit of pres-
sure? B. 2, 000 kPa
A. Newton C. 30kPa
B. Joules D. 360N

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 657

197. N/0.025 m2? 202. Fluid pressures are essentially required

to be studied as these help in designing
A. 20, 000N m-2

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A. Aeroplanes
B. 3, 000n
B. Hydraulic jack
C. none of above
C. Hydraulic accumulator
D. none of above
D. All of the above
198. Ma Ni wears lady shoes. Ma Kyi wears
slippers. They have the same weight. 203. As the space in a container gets smaller,
They walk together on the beach. Which the decreases.
statement is correct? A. pressure
A. The pressure exerted on the sand are B. temperature
the same. C. volume
B. The force exerted on the sand are the D. heat
same.
204. When a rock is placed in a graduated
C. The area exerted by the force are the
cylinder containing water, the height of
same.
the water will
D. none of above
A. increase
199. A piece of cork has a mass of 24g and a B. decrease
density of 6g/cm3 . What is the volume C. remain the same
of the piece of cork?
D. none of above
A. 4g
205. Pressure can be measured in units of
B. 1N
A. newtons
C. 4cm2
B. newtons per square meter
D. 4cm3
C. newtons per centimeter
200. Pressure exerted on an object is ALWAYS D. newtons per cubic centimeter
to the surface.
A. Parallel 206. The pressure caused by the weight of the
atmosphere is called
B. Perpendicular
A. gravity
C. Sideways
B. buoyant force
D. Downward
C. pressure
201. Any substance that does not have a defi- D. atmospheric pressure
nite shape and the ability to flow.
207. The equation for pressure in a liq-
A. solid uid is:Pressure = Gravity x Density x
B. fluid DepthThe gravity on Earth is 10N/kgThe
gravity on the Moon is 1N/kgIs there
C. liquid
more atmospheric pressure on the Moon
D. none of above or on Earth?

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 658

A. Moon 213. The force of causes atmospheric pres-

sure by pulling down on the air.
B. Earth
A. the sun
C. They are the same
B. gravity
D. Not enough information
C. buoyancy
208. An upward force that fluids exert on all D. the equator
matter

NARAYAN CHANGDER
214. What is standard temperature and pres-
A. buoyancy force
sure?
B. buoyant force
A. 1 atm and 0 K
C. atmospheric pressure B. 1 atm and0 0C
D. pressure C. 0 atm and 273 K
209. S.I unit of mass is D. 0 atm and 0 0C

A. Meter 215. g of soft drink is mixed with 530 cm3

B. Joule of water. The volume of the mixture be-
comes 750 cm3. Calculate the density of
C. Kilogram the mixture. [Density of water is 1 g cm-
D. Gram 3]
A. 0.21 g cm-3
210. The stagnation pressure is the sum of
B. 0.71 g cm-3
A. vacuum pressure and static pressure
C. 0.92 g cm-3
B. static pressure and dynamic pressure D. 1.09 g cm-3
C. dynamic pressure and vacuum pres-
sure 216. A fish swimming in an aquarium which is
open to the air. The fish is located 50 cm
D. absolute pressure and dynamic pres- from the surface of water. If it is given
sure that density of water is 1, 000 mkg3 , and at-
mosphere pressure is 100, 000 Pa . What
211. Upward force on an airplane’s wings
is the total pressure experienced by the
A. Drag fish? (take g = 10 sm2 )
B. Thrust A. 5, 000 Pa
C. Lift B. 101, 060 Pa
D. None of the above C. 105, 000 Pa
D. 150, 000 Pa
212. A pascal is equal to
A. 1 m/N 217. What is the pressure of a car tire that
had an initial pressure of 1.8 atm but was
B. 1 kg/m heated from 38◦ C to 123◦ C?
C. 1 N/m2 A. 0.9 atm
D. None of the above B. 2.1 atm

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 659

C. 1.6 atm 223. Water is then air

D. 3.4 atm A. is lighter

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B. is less dense
218. What is the correct formula to calculate
pressure? C. is more dense
A. P=F x A D. has fewer particles
B. P = F/A
224. Now the same two spheres are made to
C. P=A/F be equal volume in the water. The moment
D. P=F+A you release them, which experiences the
greater buoyant force?
219. A(n) in temperature increases the A. wood
number of collisions between molecules to
increase pressure. B. balloon

A. consistency C. same buoyant force

B. decrease D. none of above

C. increase 225. What is the approximate value of gravi-

D. none of above tational field strength on Earth?
A. 10 N/kg
220. The depth of the centre of pressure on a
vertical rectangular gate (4 m wide and 3 B. 20 N/kg
m high) with water up to top surface is C. 100 N/kg
A. 1m D. 1000 N/kg
B. 1.5m
226. How can we increase the gas pressure in-
C. 2m side a sealed container?
D. 2.5 m A. Increase the number of particles in-
side the container
221. What is a correct unit for density?
B. Increase the temperature
A. g
C. Decrease the volume of the container
B. cm2
D. All of these
C. g/cm2
D. g/cm3 227. A constant force is applied to three differ-
ent surface areas. Which area will experi-
222. The weight of an object as it moves ence the greatest pressure?
away from the center of Earth. A. .5 meters squared
A. increases
B. 1.0 meter squared
B. stays the same
C. 1.5 meters squared
C. triples
D. All experience the same amount of
D. decreases pressure

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 660

228. Why is it dangerous to hold your breathe 233. Which of these would be correct to put at
when SCUBA diving? the end of a density answer?
A. Air in your lungs can expand as you de- A. g/cm
scend, damaging them B. cm3
B. Air in your lungs can expand as you as- C. g/ml
cend, damaging them
D. g/lb
C. Water pressure can force water into

NARAYAN CHANGDER
your lungs 234. Increasing gas collision will
D. Your lungs stretch as you go deeper A. equal gas pressure
due to increasing pressure B. decrease gas pressure
C. increase gas pressure
229. Why do you wear studs on grass?
D. increase gas volume
A. Because the studs create more pres-
sure allowing it to grip into the grass. 235. the deeper you go underwater, the is
B. Stylish the pressure of the water pushing down
on you.
C. Creates friction
A. decrease
D. none of above
B. greater
230. The tool used to measure the mass of a C. none of the above
substance or object is a D. increase
A. balance E. stays constant
B. graduated cylinder
236. A measure of how much matter an object
C. ruler has is
D. thermometer A. weight
B. gravity
231. what is the instrument that use to mea-
sure the pressure of closed container C. mass
A. Torricelli D. volume

B. atmosphere 237. Which of the following cannot be the

C. manometer value of absolute pressure of a fluid at any
point?
D. barometer
A. 0
232. Atmospheric pressure the higher you B. 1.013 bar
go on Earth C. -1 bar
A. Stays the same D. 200 bar
B. decrease
238. Buoyant force is an upward force that is
C. increase equal to the weight of fluid
D. has no effect A. displaced

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 661

B. slows down 244. If you’re walking in snow why would you

C. compresses wear boots instead of high heels?

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A. Because boots have a higher surface
D. expands
area making the pressure less and stop-
239. Fluids include and ping you from sinking.

A. solids and liquids B. Because it’s more comfortable

C. No, high heels are better
B. solids and gases
D. none of above
C. liquids and gases
D. liquids 245. Any substance that can flow or move all
on its own is called a
240. A man stands on the ground. Which ac- A. fluid
tion will increase the pressure that the
B. barometer
man exerts on the ground?
C. solid
A. The man slowly bends his knees
D. vacuum
B. The man slowly lies down on the
ground 246. Manometer is used to measure
C. The man slowly raises his arms A. Velocity at a point in a fluid
D. The man slowly raises one foot off the B. Pressure at a point in a fluid
ground C. Discharge of fluid
241. The pressure of the water at the bottom D. All of the above
of a pond is at the surface of the pond. 247. If the pressure at a point is 1m of water,
A. either lower or higher what will be it’s value in terms of m of oil?
(Take, the specific gravity of oil to be 0.8)
B. higher than
A. 0.8
C. same
B. 1
D. lower than
C. 1.25
242. The formula for pressure D. 2.5
A. Pressure = Force divided by Area
248. What is the SI unit for mass?
B. Pressure = Force times Area A. newton
C. Pressure = Area divided by Force B. kilogramme
D. Pressure = Area times Force C. metres
243. hydrostatic pressure of the liquid de- D. joules
pends on: 249. For water, it is 1.0 g/cm3?
A. shape of the container A. density
B. size of the vessel B. fluid
C. size of the container C. pascal
D. depth of the liquid D. buoyancy

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 662

250. is the result of the weight of a column C. Is independent of orientation but de-
of air pushing on an area. pends upon depth
A. air pressure D. Is independent of both depth and ori-
B. density entation
C. volume 256. You fill a glass with ice and water un-
D. none of the above til the the water level is exactly at the
glass’s rim. As the ice melts, the water
251. What does STP stand for?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
level
A. Standard Temperature and Pressure A. rises and water spills out of the glass
B. 1.0 mmHg and 273 degree Kelvin B. remains the same
C. 1.0 degree Celcius and 0 atm C. drops at first and then rises until a lit-
D. 1.0 atm 273 degree Celcius tle water spills out
D. none of above
252. Why is the atmospheric pressure at a
higher altitude lower? 257. When a liquid freezes, its particles get
A. Temperature is high This could result from the pressure
B. Density of air is high A. farther apart; decreasing
C. The layer of air is thin B. closer together; decreasing
D. The volume of air does not change C. farther apart; increasing

253. Force that resists movement between 2 D. closer together; increasing

objects in contact 258. Air pressure is greater
A. Speed A. at the top of the mountain
B. Velocity B. at the bottom of the mountain
C. Acceleration C. at the center of the mountain
D. Inertia
D. none of above
E. Friction
259. of earth’s atmosphere is composed of
254. Which of the following does not affect
A. methane
the pressure beneath the surface of a liq-
uid? B. oxygen
A. Strength of the gravitational field C. argon
B. Area of the liquid surface D. nitrogen
C. Density of the liquid 260. The entire earth atmosphere exerts a
D. Depth of the liquid pressure equivalent to how many feet of
water?
255. For a real fluid moving with uniform ve-
locity, the pressure A. 0

A. Depends upon depth and orientation B. 21

B. Is independent of depth but depends C. 33

upon orientation D. 110

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 663

261. In a U-tube manometer, one end is open B. 768

to the atmosphere, the other end attached C. 1179
to a pressurized gas of gauge pressure 40

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kPa. The height of the fluid column in the D. 7530
atmospheric side is 60 cm, and that on the
266. Pressure increases if you heat something
gas side is 30 cm. The manometic fluid
because the greater temperature causes
used is:(Take g = 9.8 m/s2).
the molecules to move
A. Water
A. faster and collide less.
B. Liquid ammonia
B. slower and collide more.
C. Oil
C. slower and collide less.
D. Mercury
D. faster and collide more.
262. When the gas in air-tight container
is compressed, what will remains un- 267. When two forces act in opposite direc-
changed? tions, then net force acting two forces
A. The gas pressure. A. sum of two factors
B. The number of particles. B. difference between two factors
C. The average kinetic energy of the par- C. both of these
ticles.
D. none of these
D. The frequency of collisions between
the particles and the walls. 268. Which of the following is a mechanical
gauge
263. What is buoyant force?
A. Bourdon’s tube pressure gauge
A. A downward pushing force that a fluid
pushes on an object B. Diaphragm gauge

B. A force that causes an object to sink C. Dead weight pressure gauge

C. A upward pushing force that a fluid D. All of the above

pushes on an object
269. Pressure is equal to force divided by
D. The same as gravity what
264. Fruits falling from trees is an example of A. area
B. mass
A. Muscular force C. time
B. Frictional force D. distance
C. Electrostatic force
270. Volume is the amount of an object
D. Gravitational force
takes up.
265. A pressure gauge reads 57.4 kPa and 80 A. mass
kPa, respectively at heights of 8 m and 5
B. density
m fitted on the side of a tank filled with
liquid in kg/m3? C. space
A. 393 D. none of above

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 664

271. This is a measurement of the amount of C. Expand

matter, or ‘stuff ‘, in an object or sub-
D. Shrink
stance.
A. volume 277. You are driving to your friend’s house
B. density when your tire pressure light comes on in
your car. What should you do?
C. mass
A. stop and let air out of the lowest pres-
D. length sure tire

NARAYAN CHANGDER
272. When depth increases, what happens to B. stop and put air in the lowest pressure
the pressure? tire
A. increases C. stop and put air in the highest pres-
B. decreases sure tire
C. remains the same D. turn around and go home
D. none of above
278. An object weighing 30 N displaces a vol-
273. Choose two factors that affect air pres- ume of water with a weight 20 N. What
sure will the object do?
A. mass A. It will sink
B. volume B. It will float
C. area C. It will fly
D. temperature D. None of these answers
274. The object will be buoyed up if its weight
279. the amount of force per unit area that is
is than the weight of fluid displaced
applies to a surface
A. more
A. atmospheric pressure
B. less
B. density
C. equal
C. fluid
D. none of above
D. pressure
275. Which one among the following is not a
type of non-contact forces? 280. Hot air is less dense than cold air. Could
A. Muscular force a hot air balloon be flown on Mars where
there is no functional atmosphere?
B. Magnetic force
A. yes, warm air always rises, especially
C. Gravitational force
in its weak gravitational field
D. Electrostatic force
B. yes, but the ballon woould have to be
276. When the weight of an object is greater filled with helium instead of hot air
than the buoyant force, the object will C. no, there is no cold air to displace so
A. Sink no buoyant force would excist
B. Float D. none of above

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 665

281. A sample of gas with a volume of 30.0 287. At higher altitudes, which one becomes
mL at 25.0oC is heated to 50.0oC. What true?
is the new volume of the gas?

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A. Higher the altitude, higher the atmo-
A. 60.0 mL spheric pressure.
B. 15.0 mL B. Higher the altitude, greater the force
C. 27.5 mL exerted by air molecules.
D. 32.5 mL C. It’s an example of fluid pressure.
D. The higher you go, lesser is the atmo-
282. which force is non contact force
spheric pressure.
A. gravitational
288. An empty beaker has a mass of 60 grams
B. magnetic
. When mercury is added to the beaker, it
C. electrostatic has a mass of 200 grams . What is the
D. all of the above mass of the mercury?
A. 140 grams
283. Instrument used to measure air pressure
B. 200 grams
A. thermometer
B. barometer C. 140 mL

C. hydrometer D. 260 g

D. manomater 289. A student measures the mass of an 8cm3

block of brown sugar to be 32g. What is
284. increases as elevation decreases on the density of the brown sugar?
Earth’s surface
A. 4 g/cm3
A. atmospheric pressure
B. 40 g/cm3
B. density
C. 4 g/cm2
C. fluid
D. 9 g/cm3
D. pressure

285. Which type of substance does Pascal’s 290. What will happen to the book if no other
principle deal with? forces act upon it?

A. solids A. book will stay at rest

B. fluids B. book will begin to move

C. powders C. mass of the book will increase
D. metals D. gravity on the book will increase

286. What happens to molecules as you cool 291. is the amount of force per unit area
them down that is applied to a surface.
A. they cool down and move slower A. atmospheric pressure
B. they cool down and move faster B. density
C. they heat up and move faster C. fluid
D. they heat up and move slower D. pressure

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 666

292. What is the absolute pressure in Pascals 297. The pressure exerted by a liquid
at a depth of 10 m below the water sur- A. increases with depth.
face?
B. decreases with depth.
A. 98100 kPa
C. is constant
B. 199.425 kPa
D. first increases and then decreases.
C. 981 kPa
298. Absolute pressure in flow system
D. 9.81 Pa

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Is equal to a vaccum pressure
293. When the speed of fluid increases, the B. Is always above local atmospheric
pressure exerted by the fluid decreases pressure
A. Bernoulli’s Principle C. May be above, below or equal to the
local atmospheric pressure
B. Archimede’s Principle
D. Is also called negative pressure
C. Pascal’s Principle
D. Newton’s Principle 299. Given an atmospheric pressure of 1.85
atm, what would be the pressure in torr?
294. What is the definition of “weight”? A. 1406 torr
A. measure of the force of gravity on your B. 0.00243 torr
body C. 187 torr
B. the time it takes to get on a ride D. 27.2 torr
C. the amount of matter in an object 300. As an object falls deeper, what happens
D. the size of an object to the BUOYANT force?
A. remains the same
295. When divers return to the surface of wa-
ter quickly, the pressure is B. increases
A. Increased C. decreases
D. none of above
B. Decreased
C. Not changing 301. The value of pressure increases as the
depth of liquid
D. none of above
A. Remains constant
296. A girl placed a leaf in a stream. After 5 B. Increases
minutes, the leaf moved 100 yards away
C. Decreases
from the girl. Which best explains why
leaf changed it position? D. None of the above
A. the pulling force of the wind 302. Squeezing water out of a bottle is an ex-
ample of what principle?
B. the pushing force of the stream
A. Archimede’s
C. the pulling force of the leaf against the
water B. Pascal’s
D. the pushing force of the leaf against C. Bernoulli’s
the water. D. none of above

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 667

303. Name the instrument which is used to C. grams/milliliter

measure liquid pressure. D. milliliter cubed

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Manometer
309. When you increase your depth under wa-
B. Barometer ter, the water pressure on your body
C. Anemometer A. increases
D. Rain Gauge B. decreases
C. stays the same
304. Which lab tool might you use to measure
the volume of a liquid? D. none of above
A. electric scale 310. The force between two charged bodies is
B. bunsen burner called

C. test tube A. muscular force

B. gravitational force
D. graduated cylinder
C. magnetic force
305. Which of these animals would proba- D. electrostatic force
bly cause the greatest pressure on the
ground? 311. How far above sea level is called what?
A. A fat cow with big feet A. temperature
B. A fat cow with small feet B. altitude
C. A calf with big feet C. greenhouse effect
D. A calf with small feet D. none of above
312. An atmospheric pressure of 76 cm Hg, is
306. Where would you find the largest pres-
equivalent to atm and torr.
sure?
A. 1, 760
A. At the bottom of the ocean
B. 1, 76
B. At the top of Mt Everest
C. 2, 760
C. Close to ground on the Scotch oval
D. 1, 1.76
D. In a rockpool on the Great Barrier Reef
313. What is the equation used to calculate
307. Forces can change the density?
A. slow down or speed up objects only A. density=volume/mass
B. speed, direction or shape of an object B. density=force/area
C. movement of objects but only if they C. density=mass/volume
were already in motion D. density=force/volume
D. none of above 314. Bourdon’s tube is generally made of
308. Which units of measurement are used for A. Tin
volume? B. Mild Steel
A. grams C. Phospor Bronz or Nickel Steel
B. centimeters D. Copper

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 668

315. Why do objects sink or float in H 2? 320. What is hydrostatic pressure?

A. Because their densities are higher or A. The pressure due to a liquid
lower than compared to water B. The pressure of only hydrogen
B. Because their densities are using grav- C. The pressure of ONLY liquids
ity to pull down
D. The pressure of ONLY gasses
C. Because their densities are heavier or
lighter 321. Army tank tracks are useful for travelling

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Because their mass and volumes are through the mud because..
equal A. they decrease the force the vehicle ex-
erts on the ground
316. Pressure exerted by water at the bottom
of the container depends on the of its B. they increase the force the vehicle ex-
column. erts on the ground
A. width C. they decrease the pressure the vehicle
exerts on the ground
B. depth
D. they increase the pressure the vehicle
C. height exerts on theground
D. None of these
322. Which one of the following pressure units
317. The mass per unit volume of a substance represents the LEAST pressure?
is its A. millibar
A. density B. mm of Hg
B. buoyancy C. N/mm2
C. weight D. kgf/cm2
D. fluid pressure
323. unit of measurement in newton per
318. Absolute pressure is equal to square meter?
A. Gauge pressure +Vacuum pressure A. nm-2
B. Atmospheric pressure x Gauge pres- B. Ns-2
sure C. Mn-2
C. Atmospheric pressure + Gauge pres- D. Nm-2
sure
D. Atmospheric pressure-Gauge pres- 324. Two spheres have equal volume in the air.
sure One is a balloon and the other is a solid
wood sphere. When brought into the wa-
319. What happens to pressure as you go ter, the balloon’s radius is the wood’s
deeper under water? radius.
A. it increases A. less than
B. it decreases B. greater than
C. it stays the some C. equal to
D. no soup for you! D. none of above

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 669

325. The law related to variation of pressure 331. An object will if the buoyant force is
in a static fluid is less than the weight.

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A. Bernoullis theorem A. Sink
B. Pascals law B. Float
C. Hydrostatic law C. Expand
D. Archimedes principle D. Shrink

326. can be a gas or a liquid. 332. Measure of the ratio of mass to volume
A. atmospheric pressure A. pressure
B. density B. density
C. fluid C. weight
D. pressure D. fluid
327. How do you Calculate Pressure 333. The moment of a force is:
A. Force(N)/Area(m2) A. its turning effect.
B. Force(kg)/Area(mi2) B. how long it takes to work.
C. Area(m2)/Force(N) C. how far it moves.
D. none of above D. the distance of a force from a pivot.
328. which instrument is used to measure 334. Which situation produces more pressure
height? on the floor?
A. sphygmomanometer A. standing on one foot
B. Altmeter B. standing on two feet
C. hygrometer C. standing on four feet
D. hydrometer D. all produce the same pressure
E. hydrostatic
335. On which celestial object (outer space)
329. Convert 10 kg to Newtons would your mass be the greatest?
A. 0.098 N A. Earth
B. 4.5 N B. Jupiter
C. 100 N C. Sun
D. 98 N D. Your mass doesn’t change on different
celestial objects
330. In a tank of air, as the volume the
pressure 336. give examples of hydraulic system
A. increases, increases A. jack system
B. increases, decreases B. brake system
C. decreases, decreases C. both
D. decreases, increases D. none of above

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 670

337. Pressure variation for compressible fluid 343. The pressure at a point in a fluid at rest
is maximum for which kind of process? is
A. Isothermal A. Independent of direction
B. Adiabatic B. Direction dependent
C. Quasi Static C. Motion dependent
D. None of these D. none of above

344. On which celestial object would you

NARAYAN CHANGDER
338. Force divided by the area it is applied
over is weigh the most?
A. mass A. Earth
B. density B. Jupiter
C. pressure C. Sun
D. volume D. You would weigh the same on all celes-
tial objects
339. A unit of pressure is called a
345. Whether an object sinks or floats de-
A. bernoulli
pends on whether the buoyant force is
B. pascal smaller than its
C. pound A. Weight
D. meter B. Density
340. Atmospheric pressure depends on C. Volume
A. mass D. none of above
B. density 346. What acts as a container that holds the
C. altitude gasses of earth’s atmosphere in place?
D. magnitude A. Gravity
B. Earth’s surface
341. Volume of the submerged object is to
the volume of fluid displaced C. Water
A. equal D. Both A and B
B. more 347. All pressure gauge reads when open
C. less to atmosphere
D. none of above A. Absolute Pressure
B. Atmospheric pressure
342. An ice block measuring 5cm by 5 cm by
5cm has a density of 5g/cm3 . What is C. Zero
the mass of the ice block? D. None of the above
A. 625 g 348. Objects if their weight is equal to
B. 200 g their buoyant force
C. 785g A. float
D. 843g B. move

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 671

C. go faster 354. pressure is a quantity whose units

D. sink can be expressed in the terms of units of
force and area.

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349. You are opening a can of paint with a A. vector
screwdriver. You apply a force of 10 N,
20 cm from the pivot. What is the moment B. none of the above
of the force? C. physical
A. 2 Nm D. scaler
B. 20 Nm E. both C and D
C. 200 Nm
355. A fluid can be
D. 2000 Nm
A. a gas
350. pressure is denoted by?
B. a liquid
A. P
C. a liquid or a gas
B. A
D. a solid
C. F
D. W 356. When the pressure of the fluid is below
Atmospheric, then it is called as
351. What pressure will be exerted by a 10 N
box that has equal sides of 1 meter? A. Gauge Pressure

A. 1 Pa B. Vacuum pressure

B. 2 Pa C. Absolute pressure
C. 5 Pa D. None of the above
D. 10 Pa
357. A liquid exerts pressure in direction.
E. 20 Pa
A. upward
352. Pressure can be thought of as B. downward
A. the closure of a container. C. all
B. how many molecules are in an area. D. sideways
C. how big the molecules are in an area.
358. At what depth is the pressure due to wa-
D. the collision of the molecules of a fluid
ter on a diver equal to the atmospheric
inside the surface of the container that
pressure [Atmospheric pressure at sea
holds those molecules.
level = 100 kPa;density of water = 1, 000
353. mass/volume = kg m-3]

A. force A. 1 m
B. pressure B. 10 m
C. density C. 20 m
D. weight D. 100 m

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 672

359. How close a measurement is to the ac- C. outward in all directions

cepted value is called.. D. diagonally
A. Accuracy
364. What is state of motion?
B. Precision
A. position of rest
C. Significant
B. position of motion
D. Estimate
C. both by the state of rest or motion
360. A balloon will pop in the atmosphere be-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of these
cause..
A. Pressure goes down volume goes up 365. Trying to cook macaroni on the top of a
mountain will take much longer than cook-
B. Pressure goes up volume goes down ing macaroni at sea level. Why is this?
C. temperature goes down volume goes A. The boiling point of water is much
up lower on the top of a mountain so the wa-
D. volume goes down temperature goes ter does not get as hot.
down B. The boiling point of water is much
361. If an object has more mass, then it will higher on the top of a mountain so the wa-
ter will be too hot to cook macaroni.
A. weigh more.
C. Who cooks macaroni on a mountain?
B. weigh less. This question is pointless.
C. weigh the same as an object with less D. The boiling point of water at sea level
mass. is is much lower on the top of a mountain
D. always have more volume than an ob- so the water does not get as hot.
ject with less mass.
366. How do you calculate pressure difference
362. A student wants to find the absolute in fluids?
pressure of water at a point below the A. Density x g x height
surface of water. He has a barometer
and a manometer pressure gauge. The B. Force x g x height
barometer reads 1.3152 bar where as the C. Density x area x height
manometer pressure gauge reads 0.3152 D. g x height x area
bar. What is the absolute pressure? (As-
sume that pressure at one end of the 367. A force creates a pressure of 12 Pa over
manometer is atmospheric.) an area of 6.0 m2. What is the magnitude
A. 1 bar of this force?

B. 1.6304 bar A. 72 N

C. 0.3152 bar B. 12 N

D. 1.3152 bar C. 6.0 N

D. 2 N
363. The air pressure inside a balloon (its in-
ternal air pressure) pushes 368. A fluid is
A. downward A. a solid substance.
B. upward B. a substance that flows.

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 673

C. a weak substance. 374. Pressure exerted at any point of an en-

D. a vast substance. closed liquid is transmitted

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A. towards the sides of vessel.
369. Pascal’s Law states that
B. towards the base of vessel.
A. Pressure is force per unit area
C. in all directions.
B. When velocity is higher, the pressure
is lower D. upwards only.
C. When force is applied, the pressure is 375. The amount of force exerted per unit area
transmitted equally through the fluid of a surface.
D. Pressure transmitted is directly pro- A. buoyancy
portional to the force applied B. Friction
370. Which of the following are units of pres- C. Volume
sure? ( Choose all the correct answers ) D. pressure
A. Pascal
376. A Hydraulic press has a ram of 30 cm di-
B. Pa ameter and a plunger of of 2 cm diameter.
C. Newton It is used for lifting a weight of 35 kN. Find
D. Meter per second sq. the force required at the plunger.
A. 233.3 kN
371. Why won’t you sink in mud if you wear
boots? B. 311.1 kN
A. Because the surface area is larger cre- C. 466.6 kN
ating less pressure. D. 155.5 kN
B. Has air in it to keep you floating. 377. The unit for pressure
C. Because the mud won’t want you. A. Pascal
D. none of above B. Newton
372. Check the box next to each way you can C. Gram
change the pressure in a container (check D. Miles
all that apply)
A. change the weight of the fluid 378. Mass is the measure of in an object.
B. heat or cool the fluid A. weight
C. increase the volume B. density
D. decrease the volume C. matter
D. none of above
373. The upward force exerted by a liquid on
an object immersed in or floating on the 379. Pressure exerted on an object by a fluid
liquid is always to the surface.
A. pressure A. Parallel
B. buoyant force B. Perpendicular
C. normal force C. Downward
D. gravity D. None of the above

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5.3 Pressure and Its Measurement 674

380. Pressure is applied by a fluid of an 386. PSI, torr, mmHG, atm all are units for
object in contact with the fluid. A. temp
A. to the upside B. vol
B. to the downside C. pressure
C. pocket D. weather
D. to all sides 387. Fluid pressure increases as the depth

NARAYAN CHANGDER
381. You put air in your tires, so the amount A. decreases
of air in the tire has increased but the vol- B. stays the same
ume remains the same, so the on the
C. gets warmer
tire walls increases.
D. increases
A. rubber
B. mass 388. Differential manometers are used to mea-
sure
C. weight
A. Pressure in water channels, pipes etc
D. pressure
B. Difference in pressure between two
382. Pressure as you heat a fluid up. points
A. increases C. Atmospheric pressure
B. decreases D. Very low pressure
C. stays the same 389. What is the difference between particles
D. none of above in a gas and a solid?
A. gas particles are closer together
383. if the pressure on an are of 10.5m2 is
B. solid particles move faster than gas
2N/m2. Force on that area is
particles
A. 20N
C. solid particles expand on heating
B. 22N D. gas particles have more kinetic energy
C. 21N than solid particles
D. 105N 390. The air pressure is when closest to
384. an increase in temperature = the earth’s surface.
A. low
A. a decrease in pressure
B. stinky
B. an increase in pressure
C. high
C. no change in pressure
D. thin
D. none of above
391. What instrument is used for measuring
385. Mass of an object divided by volume the low gas pressure?
A. Density A. Barometer
B. Weight B. Altimeter
C. Force C. Manometer
D. none of above D. Bourdon gauge

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 5.4 Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces 675

5.4 Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

1. The resultant upward thrust experienced 6. The upper and lower edges of a square
by a body when immersed in the fluid lamina of length 4 m are at a depths of
A. Density of fluid 1 m and 3 m respectively in water. What
will be the depth (in m) of the centre of
B. Viscosity pressure?
C. Centre of floatation A. 1.33
D. Buoyancy B. 1.57
2. Friction is a force that acts in the direc- C. 2.17
tion of movement. D. 2.33
A. same
7. If an object submerged in water displaces
B. opposite 20 kg of water, then the buoyant force
C. parallel that acts on the object is

D. west A. 20 kg.
B. 20 N.
3. What does friction produce?
C. 200 N.
A. speed
D. 400 N.
B. chemicals
8. Point through which the resultant of the
C. heat
liquid pressure acting on a surface is
D. gravity known as
4. A rectangular block 2m long 1m wide 1m A. Centre of pressure
deep floats in water, the depth of immer- B. Total pressure
sion being 0.5 m. If water weighs 10 C. Liquid pressure
KN/m3, then the weight of the block is
D. Absolute pressure
A. 5KN
B. 10KN 9. The centre of pressure of a surface subject
to fluid pressure is the point?
C. 15KN
A. On the surface at which resultant pres-
D. 20KN sure acts
5. Determine the position of centre of pres- B. On the surface at which gravitational
sure (from the surface), for rectangular force acts
lamina of height ‘h’ immersed vertically in C. At which all hydraulic forces meet
water upto a depth ‘h’ below the free sur-
D. Similar to metacenter
face
A. 2h/3 10. Choose correct answerHydro static pres-
sure is influenced by? 1. The depth of
B. h/3 water 2. density of the liquid 3. Area of
C. 5h/3 the liquid4. Gravity
D. 3h/4 A. , (3), dan (4)

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5.4 Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces 676

B. , (3), dan (4) C. When the metacentre is below the cen-

C. , (2), dan (3) tre of gravity
D. , (2), dan (4) D. Only when the centre of gravity is be-
low its centre of buoyancy
11. How does friction affect speed?
16. The vertical component of the hydrostatic
A. More friction slows an object down.
force on a submerged curved surface is the
B. More friction speeds an object up.
A. Mass of liquid vertically above it

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Friction does not affect speed.
B. Weight of the liquid vertically above
D. none of above
C. Force on a vertical projection of the
12. Consider a U-shaped tube filled with wa- surface
ter with pistons at each end. When pres- D. Product of pressure at the centroid
sure is increased at one end of the tube, and the surface area
pressure at the other side will
17. A floating body is said to be in unstable
A. increase by the same amount.
equilibrium when the metacentre of the
B. increase more if the piston at the out- body is
put end has a greater area.
A. Coinciding with the centre of gravity of
C. decrease if the piston at the output floating body
end has a smaller area.
B. Higher than the centre of gravity of
D. decrease in accord with the conserva- floating body
tion of energy, regardless of piston area.
C. Lower than the centre of gravity of
13. Buoyant force is floating body
A. Equal to volume of liquid displaced D. None of the above
B. Force necessary to maintain equillib- 18. The line of action of the buoyant force acts
rium through the
C. The resultant force acting on a floating
A. Centroid of the horizontal projection of
body
the body
D. The resultant force on a body due to
B. Centroid of the volume of any floating
the fluid surrounding it
body
14. Convert 10 kg to Newtons. (G=mg) C. Centroid of the displaced volume of
A. 0.01 N fluid
B. 1 N D. Centre of gravity of any submerged
body
C. 10 N
D. 100 N 19. Hydrostatic pressure is NOT dependent on
which of these?
15. A floating body is set to be in a state of
stable equilibrium A. Surface Area

A. When its metacentric height is zero B. Depth

B. When the metacentre is above the cen- C. free fall accelaration

tre of gravity D. Surface Area

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5.4 Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces 677

20. If a hydraulic press has a ram of 12.5 cm 25. A diver dive on water with depth of 3 m,
diameter and plunger of 1.25 cm diame- if density of water is 1.000 kg/ m3 . the
ter, what force would be required on the gravity is 10 m/ s2 . The hydrostatic pres-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

plunger to raise a mass of 1 tonne on the sure is N/ m2
ram? A. 3.000
A. 981 N B. 30.000
B. 98.1 N C. 40.000
C. 9.81 N D. 50.000
D. 0.98 N
26. The buoyant force that acts on an object
21. A smooth cylinder lying on a concave sur- submerged in water is due to
face remains in A. equal water pressures on all sides.
A. Stable equillibrium B. greater water pressure on the bottom
B. Unstable equillibrium than on the top.
C. Neutral equilibrium C. the greater volume of the submerged
object compared with the volume of an
D. None of the above
equal weight of water.
22. Intensity of pressure at any point in a fluid, D. whether or not the object is denser
at rest, is the same in all directions is than water.
A. Bernoulli’s theorem
27. Which of the following is the correct rela-
B. Pascal’s law tion between centroid (G) and the centre
C. Newton’s first law of pressure (P) of a plane submerged in a
liquid?
D. Archimedes principle
A. G is always below P
23. If the weight of a body immersed in a fluid B. P is always below G
exceeds the buoyant force then the body
will C. G is either at P or below it.

A. Tend to move downward and it may fi- D. P is either at G or below it.

nally sink
28. The cylindrical tank of 2m diameter is laid
B. Float on the fluid with its horizontal and is filled with water
C. Rise until it’s weight equals the buoy- just to its top. The force on one of its end
ant force plates in KN is

D. Turns upside down A. 123

B. 61.51
24. A ballon lifting in air follows the following
principle? C. 30.76

A. Law of gravitation D. 19.58

B. Archimedes principle 29. The units for pressure are

C. Principle of bouyancy A. N/m2
D. All the abouve B. Pa/m2

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5.4 Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces 678

C. N/kg 35. The variation of pressure diagram of a

D. none of above plane surface which is inclined to the free
water surface
30. The centre of gravity of the volume of liq- A. Linear
uid displaced is called
B. Parabolic
A. Centre of pressure C. Cubical
B. Centre of buoyancy D. Constant

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Metacentre
36. A body floats in stable equilibrium, then
D. None
A. Meta centre is above CG
31. A ship is seen to have enter sea from a B. Metacentre is below CG
river. It’s depth of submergence will
C. Metacentre coincides with CG
A. Increase D. CG is below the centre of buoyancy
B. Decrease
37. What is the SI (metric) unit used to mea-
C. Remain at the same level sure force?
D. Depends on the material of the ship A. pounds

32. A person weighs on the Moon than B. meters

they do on the Earth because the moon is C. kilograms
less massive than the Earth. D. Newtons
A. less
38. When a small angular displacement is
B. more given to a body, floating in a liquid, is
C. the same starts oscillating about some point. This
point is called
D. none of above
A. Geocentre
33. Which weather condition will most likely B. Metacentre
occur when the atmospheric pressure in an
area begins falling? C. Centre of floating body
D. Centre if gravity
A. dry
B. cold 39. A bed was laid down on the floor, the bed
has area of 2 m2 . If the bed has weight
C. rainy
of 120 N what is the pressure?
D. sunny A. 6 N/m2
34. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid B. 60 N/m2
on an immersed body is called C. 24 N/m2
A. Upthrust D. 240 N/m2
B. Buoyancy
40. For a plane surface immersed horizontally,
C. Centre of pressure the centre of pressure lies
D. All the above A. Above centroid

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5.4 Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces 679

B. Below centroid that the centre of the plate is 1m below

C. Coincide with centroid the free surface of water

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D. None A. 981 N
B. 9.81 N
41. The buoyant force that normally acts on a
C. 9810 N
1-kg fish is
D. 98.1 N
A. less than 10 N.
B. 10 N. 46. Low pressure will usually bring what kind
of weather?
C. more than 10 N.
A. Sunny
D. dependent on whether it is in salt wa-
ter or fresh water. B. Calm
C. Stormy
42. State the direction at which pressure
acts? D. none of above
A. 420o 47. An inclined circular plate of diameter 2m
B. 180o lies submerged in a liquid of specific grav-
ity 0.9.The depth of the centroid of plate
C. 90o below the free surface is 1m.The hydro-
D. none of above static pressure on one side of the plate in
KN is
43. Michael observes the air pressure daily.
A. 277.4
Over the last couple of days the air pres-
sure has been dropping. What weather B. 308.2
will Michael most likely observe as a re- C. 30.82
sult?
D. 27.74
A. increasingly clear skies and more wind
48. Centre of pressure on inclined plane is
B. increasingly clear skies and dry
weather A. At the centroid
C. increasingly cloudy skies and possible B. Above the centroid
storms C. Below the centroid
D. none of above D. At meta centre
44. Buoyancy depends upon 49. A submerged body is stable when ( G is
A. Pressure with which the liquid is dis- centre of gravity, B is centre of buoyancy)
placed A. G is located above B
B. Weight of the liquid displaced B. G is located below B
C. Viscosity of liquid C. G is located at B
D. Compressibility of liquid D. None of these

45. Determine the total pressure on a circular 50. For a floating body, if the metacentre is
plate of area of cross section 1m2 which above the centre of gravity, the equilib-
is placed vertically in water in such a way rium is called

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5.4 Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces 680

A. Stable B. Area of immersed surface

B. Unstable C. Both A & B
C. Nuetral D. None of the above
D. None of the above 56. Pressure is the effect of
51. What type of friction does an object at rest A. the weight of all the air above pressing
have? This must be overcome to get the down
object to start moving.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. water vapor in the atmosphere
A. sliding C. greenhouse gases
B. rolling D. solar radiation
C. static
57. The position of centre of pressure on a
D. fluid plane surface immersed vertically in a
static mass of fluid is
52. Which one of the following is not a condi-
tion of equillibrium of a floating body A. At the centroid of submerged area
A. Stable equillibrium B. Always above centroid of area
B. Und table equillibrium C. Always below centroid of area
C. Balanced equillibrium D. None

D. Nuetral equillibrium 58. The metacentric height is affected by the

change in density
53. Centre of buoyancy always
A. True
A. Coincides with centre of gravity
B. False
B. Coincides with the centroid of the vol-
C. Cannot be predicted
ume of fluid displaced
D. Data insufficient
C. Remains above the centre of gravity
D. Remains below the centre of gravity 59. High pressure will usually bring what kind
of weather?
54. Find the total pressure on a circular plate
A. Good
of diameter 3 m immersed in a fluid of spe-
cific gravity 0.75 at a depth of 5 m from B. Bad
the surface on a planet having acceleration C. Both Good and Bad
dueto gravity 7 m/s2.
D. none of above
A. 18.5 N/cm2
60. Butang force is
B. 37 N/cm2
A. Equal to volume of liquid displaced
C. 9.25 N/cm2
B. Force necessary to maintain equillib-
D. None of the mentioned rium
55. For a vertically immersed total pressure C. The resultant force acting on a floating
force on the whole surface is dependant body
on? D. The resultant force on a body due to
A. Density of liquid the fluid surrounding it

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5.4 Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces 681

61. What will be the total pressure (in kN) on C. atmospheric pressure
a vertical square lamina submerged in a D. area per force
tank of oil (S=0.9) as shown in the fig-

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ure? 67. Meta centre is
A. 26.5 A. Point about which body starts oscillat-
ing when it is given small angular displace-
B. 35.3
ment
C. 44.1
B. Point about which line of action of
D. 61.7 force meets the normal axis of body when
it is given angular displacement
62. For an incompressible fluid, does not
change. C. Intersection of line passing through
new centre of buoyancy and centre of
A. volume gravity
B. mass D. All of these
C. surface area
68. A square lamina (each side equal to 2m)
D. density is submerged vertically in water such that
the upper edge of the lamina is at a depth
63. Which of the following is an example of of 0.5 m from the free surface. What will
friction that is helpful? be the total water pressure (in kN) on the
A. Brakes used on a bike lamina?
B. Tires from a car on the road A. 19.62
C. Tread on the bottom of your shoes B. 39.24
D. All are examples that are helpful C. 58.86
D. 78.48
64. The total pressure force on a plane area is
equal to the area multiplied by the inten- 69. A large meta centric height in a vessel
sity of pressure at its centroid, if? A. Improves stability and makes time pe-
A. Area is horizontal riod of oscillation larger
B. Area is vertical B. Improves stability and makes period of
oscillation shorter
C. Area is inclined
C. Has no effect on stability or the period
D. All of the above
of oscillation
65. Metacentric radius is the distance between D. Decreases stability and makes period
A. CG and metacentre of oscillation shorter
B. CG and center of buoyancy 70. A metal block is thrown into a deep
C. Metacentre and centre of buoyancy lake.As it sinks deeper in water, the buoy-
ant force acting on it
D. Metacentre and centroid
A. Increases
66. What is gauge pressure? B. decreases
A. total pressure C. First increases and then decreases
B. change in pressure from the surface D. Remains the same

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 5.5 Buoyancy and Floatation 682

71. When you increase your depth under wa- B. N, kg

ter, the water pressure on your body C. m/s, m/s2
A. increases D. m/s2, m/s
B. decreases
74. When a block of ice floating on water in a
C. stays the same container melts, the level of water in the
D. none of above container
A. Falls

NARAYAN CHANGDER
72. The force exerted by a static fluid on a sur-
face when the fluid comes in contact with B. Rises
the surface C. First falls and then rises
A. Total pressure D. Remains the same
B. Pressure force
75. Centroid of the displaced fluid volume is
C. Buoyant force called
D. Centroid A. Centre of buoyancy

73. Mass is measured in , while weight is B. Metacentre

measured in C. Centre of gravity
A. kg, N D. Centre if pressure

5.5 Buoyancy and Floatation

1. A student lowers a body in a liquid filled in acting on it is
a container. He finds that there is a max- A. 500
imum apparent loss in weight of the body
when B. 400

A. It just touches the surface of the liquid. C. 200

B. It is partially immersed and also D. 100

touches the sides of the container. 4. The density of tap water is lees then that
C. It is completely immersed in the liquid of sea water. If an object is immersed com-
pletely in both one, its loss in weight will
D. It is partially immersed in the liquid.
be
2. If the density of the object placed in a liq- A. Zero in sea water but not so in tab wa-
uid is equal to the density of the liquid, the ter
object will:
B. More in sea water
A. Float half immersed
C. Less in sea water
B. Float wholly immersed
D. Equal in two cases
C. Float completely above the liquid
5. A packet of 400 g and volume 200 cm3 is
D. Sink put in a water tank. The relative density
3. An object of weight 500 N is floating in of packet is
a liquid. The magnitude of buoyant force A. 200

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5.5 Buoyancy and Floatation 683

B. 2 B. The boat’s engine will bog down mak-

C. 4 ing it run out of gas

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D. 400 C. The boat will lose density slowly and
eventually sink
6. If an object is more dense than the fluid
D. The boat will hit the iceberg and drive
which it is in, the buoyant force will be less
under it
and the object will
A. float 11. The mass of water displaced by a solid of
B. sink mass 400 g and volume 150 cm3 is
C. shrink A. 150 cm3
D. expand B. 150g

7. When a solid body is fully immersed in a C. 400g

liquid, the volume of the displaced liquid D. 250g
is:
A. Less then the volume of the solid body 12. Three objects A, B, and C having density
1.12 g cm-3, 0.92 g cm-3 and 2.02 g cm-
B. Equal to the volume of the solid body
3 respectively, are placed in a water tank.
C. Greater then the volume of the sold Which object will sink in water tank?
body
A. A and B
D. Depending upon the manner in which
the body is being immersed in the liquid B. Only A
C. Only B
8. Which of the following do NOT use com-
pressed air to provide buoyancy? D. A and C
A. Airplanes
13. A sample of milk diluted with water has a
B. Scuba divers density of 1040 kgm-3 . If pure milk has
C. Fish a density of 1080 kgm-3. The percentage
of water by volume in milk is:
D. Submarines
A. 0.5
9. Does the depth of a liquid (as in a lake or
a pond or the ocean) affect the buoyant B. 0.4
force? C. 0.6
A. no D. 0.55
B. yes
14. explains why the the buoyant force on a
C. maybe
rock that displaces 5 N of water is 5 N
D. depends
A. Bernouilli’s principle
10. If a boat hits an iceberg bigger than it and B. MAK principal
it has a giant hole what will happen to it?
C. Archimedes. principle
A. The boat will stay afloat but will have
water in it D. Harry Potter’s law

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 5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow 684

15. If we want to determine the volume of a B. A cork has negative buoyancy

solid by immersing it in water, the solid C. A brick has positive buoyancy
should be<br />
D. A penny has neutral buoyancy
A. heavier than water and insoluble in it
B. lighter than water 19. has a weight of 15 N and a buoyant force
of 18 N
C. heavier than water
A. sinking object
D. insoluble in water

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. floating object
16. A plastic mug full of water appears lighter C. buoyed up object
inside water due to
D. my grandmother
A. Buoyant force
20. If relative density is 11.3, the density of
B. Pressure
the substance in SI units is
C. Newton’s third law
A. 1.3 g/cm3
D. Gravitational force
B. 11.3 kg/m3
17. Which bundle weighs more? C. 11.3 x 103 kg/m3
A. 1 kg of nails D. 11.3 x 103 g/cm3
B. 1 kg of cotton
21. Instrument used for measuring the density
C. both have the same weight or relative density of liquids is known as
D. none of above A. Spherometer

18. Which of the following is a true state- B. Mercurymeter

ment? C. Buoyancymeter
A. A rowboat has positive buoyancy D. Hydrometer

5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow

1. Reflection is 3. What types of waves carry energy at a
A. The absorption of light into an object right angle or perpendicular to the direc-
tion of the energy flow?
B. The passing of light through an object
A. Longitudinal waves
C. The bending of light as it bounces off a
surface B. Transverse waves
D. none of above C. Sound waves

2. In a battery, that is a closed circuit the elec- D. P-waves

trons flow from
4. If the velocity is v = 2i + t2j-9 k, then the
A. Positive to negative magnitude of acceleration at t = 0.5 s is
B. Negative to positive
C. One terminal to the other terminal A. 1 m s-2
D. Whichever way, as there is no affect B. 2 m s-2

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5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow 685

C. zero A. The solid matter that waves travel

D. -1 m s-2 through

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B. The gas matter that waves travel
5. Electrical resistance is the through
A. How the electrical current flows C. The liquid matter that waves travel
B. The direction the current flow through
C. Opposition of the flow of current D. The solid, liquid, or gas matter that
D. Gaining of flow from the electrical cur- waves travel through
rent
11. A glass rod becomes positively charged
6. The ratio of total path length travelled by when it is rubbed with silk. This net posi-
the particle in a time interval is equal to tive charge accumulates because the glass
rod
A. average speed
A. loses protons
B. average velocity
B. loses electrons
C. instantaneous speed
D. instantaneous velocity C. gains electrons
D. gains protons
7. In a parallel circuit which of the following
is the same value throughout the circuit? 12. The work done per unit positive charge
A. Voltage A. Resistance
B. Current B. Ohms law
C. Resistance
C. Potential difference
D. Charge
D. Current
8. Rate of flow of charge
13. Identify all relevant examples of Kinetic
A. Resistance Energy
B. Potential difference A. Light
C. Ohms law B. Elastic
D. Current
C. Sound
9. Continuity equation is based on the princi- D. Gravitaional
ple of conservation of
E. Thermal
A. (a)Energy
B. (b)Mass 14. Flow between parallel plates of infinite ex-
tent is considered as
C. (c)Momentum
A. One dimensional
D. Both a and b
B. 2 dimensional
10. Waves can travel through empty space or
C. 3 dimensional
they can travel through a medium. Which
statement best describes a medium? D. None of these

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5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow 686

15. The energy on object possesses due to its 20. Select all that apply to vector quantities
position relative to a reference point
A. Magnitude
A. Albert
B. Size
B. Mechanical energy
C. Gravitational potential energy C. Direction
D. Kinetic energy D. Displacement

16. The sum of gravitational potential and ki-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. Consider the following statement, which
netic energy at a point of the statements are correctly related to
A. Mechanical energy fluid kinematics
B. Ohm’s law A. A streamline is an Imaginary line
C. Gravitational potential energy within the flow for which the Normal at
D. Kinetic energy any point relates to the acceleration at
that point
17. Identify the ways energy can be trans-
B. Convective acceleration is the change
ferred
in velocity with respect to distance only
A. Mechanically
C. Temporal acceleration expresses vari-
B. Electrically
ation of velocity with respect to time only
C. Via radiation
D. Both convective acceleration and tem-
D. Via heating poral acceleration can coexist
18. Which of the following statement is cor-
rect about the stream line and equipoten- 22. If one object is dropped verticallydown-
tial line ward and another object is thrownhorizon-
tally from the same height, thenthe ratio
A. Both can be drawn graphically for vis-
of vertical distance covered byboth objects
cous flow around any boundary
at any instant t is
B. Meshes formed by them are always
squares A. 1
C. they always meet orthogonally B. 2
D. They can be calculated for all boundary C. 4
conditions
D. 0.4
19. v = u + at The magpie accelerates to-
wards a cyclist in order to swoop them. If 23. In the absence of air resistance or any ex-
the magpie ismoving at 6 m/s then acceler- ternal forces, the mechanical energy of an
ates by 1.5 m/s2for the final five seconds object is constant
of the before hitting the cyclist, calculate
the magpie’s speedas it hits the cyclist. A. The law of conservation of energy

A. 1.35 m/s B. The principle of conservation of me-

chanical energy
B. 15 m/s
C. 1.5 m/s C. Ohms law
D. 13.5 m/s D. Kinetic energy

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5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow 687

24. The angle between any two orthogonal D. none of these

unit vectors is
30. The dimension of point mass is

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A. 0
A. 0
B. 90◦
B. 1
C. 180◦
C. 2
D. 360◦
D. kg
25. Current through a conductor is directly pro- 31. A 10. newton force is required to move a
portional to the potential difference across 3.0 kilogram box at constant speed. How
the conductor at constant temperature much power is required to move the box
A. Current 8.0 meters in 2.0 seconds?
B. Potential difference A. 15 W
C. Ohms law B. 20. W
D. Resistance C. 40. W

26. A bird flying in the sky is an example of D. 12 W

A. one dimensional motion 32. I = VR Using Ohm’s Law, calculate the cur-
rent of a wire that is 240 volts and has
B. two dimensional motion
120 Ω of reistance
C. three dimensional motion
A. 2 A
D. none of these
B. 0.2 A
27. Which one of the following physicalquanti- C. 20 A
ties cannot be represented by ascalar? D. 4 A
A. Mass
33. A 0.10 kilogram ball dropped vertically
B. length from a height of 1.00 meter above the
C. momentum floor bounces back to a height of 0.80 me-
D. magnitude of acceleration ter. What is the mechanical energy lost by
the ball as it bounces?
28. The magnitude of average velocity is equal A. .030 J
to average speed when the particle mov-
ing with B. .020 J
C. .078 J
A. variable speed
D. .080 J
B. constant velocity
C. variable velocity 34. Consider the following statement1.Fluids
of low viscosity are all irrotational 2.Rota-
D. constant acceleration
tion of the fluid is always associated with
29. In a steady flow shear stress
A. Local acceleration is 0 A. 1 only
B. Convective acceleration is 0 B. 2 only
C. Both local as well as convective accel- C. Both 1 & 2
eration are zero D. Neither 1 nor 2

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5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow 688

35. a = ∆v
∆t A lizard accelerates from 2 m/sto Natural Bridge is only 2 km south of Purl-
10 m/s in 4 seconds. What is thelizard’s ing Brook Falls.If it took James 6 hours to
average acceleration? get between the towns, then his average
A. 2 m/s2 velocity is?

B. 0.2 m/s2 A. 5 km/h south

C. 0.5 m/s2 B. 3 km/h south

D. 1/2 m/s2 C. 0.3 km/h south

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 4.7 km/h south
36. An alpha particle consists of two protons
and two neutrons. The alpha particles 41. In which of the following case flow net can
charge of +2 elementary charges is equiv- be drawn
alent to
A. Irrotational flow
A. 3.2x10−19 C
B. Steady flow
B. 3.2x1019 C
C. When flow is governed by gravity
C. 8.0x10−20 C
D. 1.2x1019 C D. When flow is not governed by gravity

37. The length of path travelled 42. A change in position

A. Speed A. Velocity
B. Displacement B. Distance
C. Distance C. Speed
D. Velocity D. Displacement

38. A materials opposition to the flow of elec- 43. If Miss Pruden went 800 m due east and
tric current then 200 m due west, determine the dis-
A. Resistance tance travelled and their displacement.
B. Current A. 1000m & 600m East
C. Potentil difference B. 1000m & 600m West
D. Ohms law C. 600m & 600m East

39. Transmission is D. 600m & 600m West

A. The absorption of light into an object 44. A child riding a bicycle at 15 meters per
B. The passing of light through an object second accelerates at-3.0 m/s2 for 4.0
seconds. What is the child’s speed at the
C. The bending of light as it bounces off a end of this 4.0 second interval?
surface
A. 7.0 m/s
D. none of above
B. 3.0 m/s
40. vav = ∆s
∆t it’s 30 km by a slow and wind- C. 12 m/s
ing road between Purling Brook Falls and
the Natural Bridge, but the map shows the D. 27 m/s

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5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow 689

45. A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its 50. The flow in pipe whose valve is being
velocity at half of the height is 10 m /s opened or closed gradually is an example
then the maximum height attained by it is of

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( g = 10m/s2)
A. Steady flow
A. 8m
B. Unsteady flow
B. 20m
C. Rotational flow
C. 10m
D. None of the above
D. 16m
51. Which one of the following can be a set of
46. Steady flow occurs when velocity components of a two dimensional
A. Conditions change steadily with time flow
B. Conditions do not change with time at A. u= x+ y and v= x2+ y2
any point
B. u= x+Y and v= x-y
C. Conditions are same at adjacent point
with time C. u= xy and v= x/y

D. Velocity vector at any point remains D. u=x2+y2 and v= x2-y2

constant
52. The most dense part of a longitudinal
47. Which of the following is NOT a type wave.
of force considered in the Navier-Stokes A. Density
equation?
B. Compression
A. Gravity force
C. Rarefaction
B. Pressure force
D. Amplitude
C. Surface tension force
D. Elastic force 53. Consider the following statement related
to concept of continuity equation and the
48. The velocity potential which follow the concept of control volume in deriving the
equation of continuity is equation
A. X2y A. Continuity equation relates velocity
B. X2-y2 component and density of the fluid at a
point in a fluid flow
C. Cosx
B. Continuity equation assumes that no
D. X2+y2
void occurs in the fluid and fluid mass is
49. A physical quantity that has both magni- neither created nor destroyed
tude and direction C. The shape of control volume of deriv-
A. Scalar quantity ing the equation of continuity is assumed
to be a parallel piped
B. Vector
D. For incompressible fluid the equation
C. Velocity
of continuity does not contain the viscos-
D. Speed ity terms

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5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow 690

54. s = 12 (u + v)t A Gymnosomata ( sea an- C. remains same

gel) starts moving and reaches a velocity D. zero
of 0.05 km/h, and it travels for 3.6 hours.
Determine the sea angel’s displacement. 60. The single vector which has the same ef-
A. 0.09 km fect as the original vectors acting together
B. 0.9 km A. Vector
C. 0.009km B. Scalar quantity

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 0.18 km C. Velocity

55. A unit vector is used to specify D. Resultant vector

A. only magnitude 61. A steady 2D incompressible flow field is

B. only direction represented by u= x+3y+3 and v= 2x-y-8
in this flow field the stagnation point is
C. either magnitude or direction
A. 3, 2
D. absolute value
B. -3, 2
56. The vector product of any two vectors
C. -3, -2
gives a
D. 3, -2
A. vector
B. scalar 62. The energy an object has as a result of the
objects motion
C. tensor
D. collinear A. Acceleration
B. Gravitational potential energy
57. The rate of change of velocity
C. Kinetic energy
A. Speed
D. Mechanical energy
B. Acceleration
C. Velocity 63. A magnetic compass is placed near an in-
sulated copper wire. When the wire is
D. Distance
connected to a battery and a current is
58. What is the value of angle between created, the compass needle moves and
stream lines and equipotential lines at the changes its position. Which is the best ex-
point of intersection in the flow net planation for the production of a force that
causes the needle to move?
A. 0
A. ) The copper wire magnetizes the com-
B. 60 pass needle and exerts the force on the
C. 45 compass needle.
D. 90 B. The compass needle magnetizes the
copper wire and exerts the force on the
59. If a particle has negative velocity andneg- compass needle.
ative acceleration, its speed
C. The insulation on the wire becomes
A. increases charged, which exerts the force on the
B. decreases compass needle.

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5.6 Kinematics of Flow and Ideal Flow 691

D. The current in the wire produces a A. 77.3 m

magnetic field that exerts the force on the B. 78.4 m
compass needle.

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C. 80.5 m
64. A swimmer’s speed in the direction of flow D. 79.2 m
of river is 16 km h-1 . Against the flow
of river, the swimmer’s speed is 8 km h-1 . 69. The rate of change if distance
The swimmer’s speed in still water and the A. Speed
velocity of flow of the river respectively
are B. Acceleration

A. 12 km h-1, 4 km h-1 C. Velocity

D. Distance
B. 4 km h-1, 12 km h-1
C. 24 km h-1, 16 km h-1 70. The type of fluid in which flow and fluid
properties does not change with time at
D. 16 km h-1, 24 km h-1
any given location is known as
65. In the case of a steady uniform flow of a A. Non uniform flow
fluid the acceleration is
B. Rotational flow
A. 0 C. Steady flow
B. 1 D. Unsteady flow
C. Infinity
71. Flow at constant rate through a tapering
D. >1 pipe is
66. The total energy in a system cannot be cre- A. Steady and uniform
ated nor destroyed, only transferred from B. Steady and non uniform
one form to another
C. Unsteady and uniform
A. Distance
D. Unsteady and non uniform
B. The principle of conservation of me-
−d1
chanical energy 72. sav = dt22 −t 1
Using the average speed
C. Ohms law equation calculate the following:At 180s
a car had gone 2460m, and at 240 s it
D. The Law of conservation of energy had gone 3380m. What is the average
speed?
67. A physical quantity that only has magni-
tude A. 1.53 m/s
A. Distance B. 13.5 m/s
B. Vector C. 153 m/s
C. Scalar quantity D. 15.3 m/s
D. Acceleration 73. S = dt Using the speed equation calculate
the following:Davewalks200 metres in 40
68. If an object is dropped from the top ofa seconds. What is hisspeed?
building and it reaches the ground at t= 4 s,
then the height of the building is(ignoring A. 5 m/s
air resistance) (g = 9.8 ms-2) B. 0.2 m/s

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 5.7 Dynamic of Fluid Flow 692

C. 0.5 m/s B. Speed

D. 8000 m/s C. Velocity
74. Electromagnetic radiation behaves like a D. Distance
A. Wave 76. Equation of continuity is based on the prin-
B. Particle ciple of conservation of
C. Both a wave and a particle A. Mass

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of the above B. Energy
75. The rate of change of position C. Momentum
A. Acceleration D. None of these

5.7 Dynamic of Fluid Flow

1. The rule that the buoyant force on an ob- A. Total energy head
ject is equal to the weight of the fluid the B. Potential energy head
object displaces.
C. Piezometric head
A. Pascal’s principle
D. All of above
B. Bernoulli’s principle
C. Archimedes’ principle 5. If the weight density of pure water is 62
pounds/ft3, find the weight of water in a
D. Newton’s Law
swimming pool whose dimensions are 20
2. Water flows steadily along a uniform flow ft by 10 ft by 6 ft.
tube of cross-section area 30cm2. The to- A. 74.400 pounds
tal pressure is 5x104 Pa and static pres-
B. 7, 400 pounds
sure is 4.5x104. Calculate the velocity of
the fluid. C. 68, 400 pounds
A. 3.89 m/s D. 79, 400 pounds
B. 3.16 m/s 6. Bernoullis equation cannot be applied
C. 3.162 m/s when the flow is
D. 3.87 m/s A. Rotational
3. According to Bernoulli’s Principle, when B. Turbulent
the wind speed is high, wind pressure is C. Unsteady
D. All of the above
A. high
B. low 7. The hose nozzle has two settings:one with
a small opening and one with a large open-
C. not enough information ing. Which setting will fill a kiddie pool
D. None of the above fastest?

4. Sum of pressure head and elevation head A. large opening

is called B. small opening

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5.7 Dynamic of Fluid Flow 693

C. same C. 14.5 psi

D. none of above D. none of above

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8. Water flows steadily through a horizon- 13. During a hurricane, the air outside a home
tal pipe of varying cross-section area. At moves much faster than the air inside the
point X of cross-section area 20cm2, the home. Which of the following is possible
velocity is 0.4m/s. Calculate the velocity to happen?
at point Y of cross-section 2.0 cm2
A. The windows can burst inward.
A. 40 m/s
B. The windows can burst outward.
B. 4 m/s
C. The windows cannot burst because the
C. 0.4 m/s pressure inside and outside the home are
D. 0.8 m/s equal.
D. The windows cannot burst because the
9. How does viscosity of a gas and liquid force inside and outside the home are
change as temperature increases? equal.
A. Liquid:DecreasesGas:Decreases
14. How much pressure in N/m2 is a depth of
B. Liquid:DecreasesGas:No change
200 meters of water (do not include the
C. Liquid:No changeGas:Decreases air above the water)?
D. Liquid:DecreasesGas:Increases A. 2, 000, 000
10. Bernoullis equation assumes that B. 2, 000
A. fluid is nonviscous C. 20, 000
B. fluid is steady D. 2
C. fluid is incmpressible 15. A fluid flows through a pipe. If the pipe
D. all the above size varies, the speed of a liquid also
varies so as to keep the flow rate constant,
11. The fluid in which the shearing stress flow ratein = flow rateoutV1A1 = V2A2
within it is proportional to the velocity gra-
A. Bernoulli’s Equation
dient across the sheared section, is called
a fluid. B. Continuity Equation
A. Bingham C. Torrecelli’s Equation
B. Perfect D. none of above
C. Newtonion 16. A free vortex
D. None of these A. Has the velocity decreasing with the
radius
12. Find the pressure on a scuba diver when
she is 12 meters below the surface of the B. Has the velocity increasing with the ra-
ocean. Assume standard atmospheric con- dius
ditions. C. Has constant velocity
A. 222 kPa D. Has the velocity varying inversely with
B. 121000 N/m2 the square of radius

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5.7 Dynamic of Fluid Flow 694

17. To generate lift, a blade is angled so the 22. BONUS ROUNDIt is the sub-part of Fluid
pressure air moves under the blade. Mechanics that studies the flow of Fluid
A. high A. Fluid Dymanics
B. low B. Fluid Dinanics
C. not enough information C. Fluid Dimamics
D. None of the above D. Fluid Dynamics

NARAYAN CHANGDER
18. Branch of applied science that describes 23. In a flow, the particle may posses
the movement of liquid and gases.
A. Potential Energy
A. Fluid Mechanics
B. Kinetic Energy
B. Fluid Dynamics
C. Pressure Energy
C. Equation of Continuity
D. All of these
D. Bernoulli’s Principle
24. At a stagnation point the fluid velocity is
19. Water flows steadily along a horizontal
pipe at a volume rate of 8x10-3m3s-1. A. Zero
If the area of cross-section of the pipe is B. Minimum
20cm2, calculate the velocity of the fluid.
C. Maximum
A. 4.0x10-8 m/s
D. Unity
B. 4.0x10-4 m/s
C. 40 m/s 25. Suppose you have a fluid column with
three levels. The top level has a pressure
D. 4 m/s
of 7, the middle has a pressure of 13, and
20. Stagnation pressure is also called the lower has a pressure of 20. A fourth
level with pressure k is added to the top of
A. field pressure the column. Which of the following could
B. pitot pressure be the possible new pressures for the dif-
ferent levels.
C. surface pressure
A. 14, 26, 60
D. object pressure
B. 16, 22, 29
21. When you are floating on top of water, the
C. 18, 24, 30
only pressure acting on your body is that
of air. As you sink beneath the surface, D. None of the above
for every 33 feet you travel downwards,
how much does the pressure acting on your 26. At stagnation point all the kinetic energy
body change by? is converted into
A. 1.45 psi A. Pressure
B. 14.5 psi B. Velocity
C. 145.0 psi C. Speed
D. 1450.0 psi D. Distance

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5.7 Dynamic of Fluid Flow 695

27. Water flows at a constant speed of 16 31. What atmospheric pressure does a 1 kg
m/s through narrow section of the pipe. cube feel in your house if it has a surface
What is the speed of water in the section area of 600 m2?

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of the pipe where its radius is twice of the A. 0.0016 Pa
initial radius?
B. 0.16 Pa
A. 16 m/s
C. 101300 Pa
B. 12 m/s
D. 10130 Pa
C. 2 m/s
32. Part of a circular pipe has a radius of r1.
D. 4 m/s Later on in the circular pipe, the radius
goes to r2 . What is the ratio of the first
28. In a relatively smooth pipe, if I increase part to the second part of the pipe in terms
the coefficient of friction, what happens to of these two variables?
the Reynold’s number?
A. (r2)2 / (r1)2
A. Increases
B. (r1)2 / (r2)2
B. Decreases C. 1
C. No change D. r1 / r2
D. I don’t know
33. Kinematic viscosity is dependent on which
of the following:
29. According to Bernoulli’s Equation, which
of the following must a steady ideal fluid A. Pressure
flow hold true for? B. Distance
A. Conservation of mass holds true C. Level
B. Velocity and pressure are inversely D. Density
proportional
34. Bernoullis equation refers to the conserva-
C. Total energy is constant along a tion of
streamline, but may vary across stream-
lines A. Mass
B. Momentum
D. Total energy is constant throughout
the pipe in question C. Energy
D. None of these
30. It states that, “in the case of steady flow,
the amount of fluid flowing past one point 35. Suppose you have a liquid of density p
must be the same as the amount of fluid traveling along a diagonal pipe. Initially,
flowing past another point, or the mass the water enters the pipe with a pressure
flow rate is constant.” of 45 psi and a velocity of 0.5 m/s. The
liquid exits the pipe with a pressure of 30
A. Pascal’s Principle
psi and a velocity of 10 m/s. Assuming
B. Buoyancy and Archimedes’ Principle that the pipe is 5 meters long and the liquid
travels a horizontal distance of 3 meters,
C. Equation of Continuity
calculate the density of the liquid. (Use 10
D. Bernoulli’s Principle as your gravitational constant).

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5.7 Dynamic of Fluid Flow 696

A. 0.168 40. In a venturimetre, the divergent cone is

B. 9.825 kept
A. Shorter than convergent cone
C. 1
B. Equal to convergent cone
D. 1.521
C. Longer than convergent cone
36. Moving fluid through a pipe has more pres-
D. None of these
sure, if

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. the stream lines are farther apart 41. The Reynold’s Number quantifies the
viscous movement of different liquids
B. stream lines are parallel
through pipes. If I increase the length of
C. stream lines are close together the pipe that the fluid is flowing through
D. None of these by a factor of 5, then what is the new num-
ber in terms of R1
37. If a friction less pipe that has fluid flowing A. 5R1
through an area of A1 increases its area to
A2, what is the new pressure exerted by B. 10R1
the fluid at any given point in the pipe if C. R1
the velocity remains constant through the D. R1 / 2
pipe change?
A. Increases 42. Under the assumptions of the Bernoullis
eqation, the energy line is
B. Decreases
A. Horizontal
C. Impossible to determine
B. Vertical
D. No change
C. Angular
38. State Bernoulli’s principle as an effect D. Perpendicular
A. increase in speed produces a corre-
43. BONUS ROUNDIt is the branch of science
sponding decrease in pressure
that covers the behavior of fluids in a state
B. increase in velocity produces a corre- of motion or rest.
sponding decrease in pressure
A. Fluid Dynanics
C. increase velocity produces a corre-
B. Fluid Dynamics
sponding increase in pressure
C. Fluid Mechanics
D. Decrease in velocity produces a corre-
sponding decrease in pressure it exerts D. Fluid Mechmics

39. Bernoulli’s Equation holds only for an ideal 44. Find the total pressure in the pipe if the
fluid. An ideal fluid must have each of the static pressure in the horizontal pipe is
following characteristics except: 1.0x104 Pa, assuming that water flows
at a speed of 3 m/s and that it is incom-
A. Streamline flow
pressible, non-viscous and its density is
B. Compressible 103 Kgm-3.
C. No viscosity A. 14 500 Pa
D. No rotational motion B. 10 000 Pa

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5.7 Dynamic of Fluid Flow 697

C. 4 500 Pa 49. What is the difference between the pres-

sure on the bottom of a pool and the pres-
D. 1 000 Pa
sure on the water surface? p is densityg

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45. Bernoulli’s Equation is based on the idea of is gravitational accelerationh is height rel-
conservation of energy. Which of the fol- ative to bottom of pool
lowing forms of energy is not included in A. pg/h
his equation? B. pgh
A. Kinetic Energy C. pg+h
B. Gravitational Potential D. pg-h
C. Flow Work 50. Each term in Bernoulli’s equation has the
unit of
D. All of these are included
A. Nm/N
46. The interior of a submarine located at a B. N
depth of 45 meters is maintained at nor-
C. Nm/kg
mal atmospheric conditions. Find the total
force exerted on a 20 cm by 20 cm square D. Nm/kg2
window. Assume that see water has a
51. It states that, “as the speed of a fluid in-
density of 1000 kg/m3.
creases, there is a simultaneous decrease
A. 18100 N in the pressure of a fluid and a decrease in
it’s potential energy.
B. 1810 N
A. Pascal’s Principle
C. 181000 N
B. Buoyancy and Archimedes’ Principle
D. None of the above
C. Bernoulli’s Principle
47. The Poiseuille Equation is important to D. Equation of Continuity
blood flow in capillaries in the human body
52. Two men go diving in the same lake. One
and insect bodies. What would happen if I
man weighs 170 pounds, and the other
increased the radius of an artery by a fac-
weighs 180. Compare the pressure acting
tor of 2?
on the two men.
A. Flow increases by a factor of 2 A. There is a greater pressure on the
B. Flow increases by a factor of 4 heavier man.
C. Flow increases by a factor of 8 B. There is a lower pressure on the heav-
ier man.
D. Flow increases by a factor of 16
C. The same pressure is being exerted on
48. Laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid ceases both men.
to exist when Reynolds number exceeds D. Cannot be determined with the infor-
mation provided.
A. 1500
B. 1800 53. State Bernoulli’s principle as an equation
A. The pressure, the kinetic energy per
C. 2100
unit volume and the potential energy per
D. 2400 unit volume of the fluid is a constant

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5.7 Dynamic of Fluid Flow 698

B. The pressure, the kinetic energy and 58. Suppose you have a pipeline which nar-
the potential energy per unit volume of the rows at the end. Which statements(s)
fluid is a constant is/are true?
C. sum of the pressure, the kinetic en- A. The area is greater in the wider region.
ergy per unit volume and the potential en-
B. The velocity of the fluid is slower in the
ergy per unit volume of the fluid is a con-
wider region
stant
C. The pressure is lower in the narrower
D. sum of the pressure, the kinetic energy

NARAYAN CHANGDER
region.
per unit volume and the potential energy
per unit volume of the fluid are equal D. All of the above.

54. Debit is 59. Water flows steadily through a horizontal

A. time/volume pipe of varying cross-section area. At a
point A the velocity is 4m/s while the ve-
B. volume/time
locity at point a B is 6 m/s. Calculate the
C. cross -sectional/volume area pressure difference between A and B given
D. density/cross -sectional area that the density of water is 1000kgm-3

55. Which is not the characteristics of dynamic A. 1000 Pa

fluid? B. 20 000 Pa
A. non-turbulent C. 10 000 Pa
B. non-compressible D. 40 000 Pa
C. Viscose
60. In a fluid, where can shear stress occur?
D. steady flow
A. Anywhere
56. What is TRUE about Fluid Dynamics?
B. Only in the center
A. It describes the flow of fluids and
C. The walls of the flow
forces that affects the fluid.
B. It studies aerodynamics and hydrody- D. At increments in the flow
namics 61. A large Reynold number is indicative of
C. It is not connected to Fluid Mechanics what:
D. It shares part with the discussion of A. Smooth and streamline flow
Fluid Mechanics
B. Laminar flow
57. An airplane in level flight whose mass is C. Steady flow
20, 000 kg has a wing area of 60 m2 .
About what is the pressure difference be- D. Highly turbulent flow
tween the upper and lower surfaces of its
62. The continuity equation applies to a pipe
wing? The height of the plane is 6 meters.
that has a cross -sectional area between
Express your answer in N/m2.
one end and another.This means that the
A. 3, 333 debit in the cross -sectional area of one
B. 333 and the other is
C. 10, 000 A. not the same big
D. 10 B. always bigger

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 5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 699

C. always smaller B. A strong wind blows once a train

D. big same passes hence pushing one backwards
which may result to injury

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63. Speed of efflux can be determined by ap-
C. As train passes at high speed, pres-
plying:
sure around it reduces hence one can be
A. Bernoulli’s Equation sucked into the rails
B. Continuity Equation D. One can cause accident
C. Torricelli’s Theorem
67. The window and door of a house are both
D. Newton’s law of motion
left open during a windy day. The door
64. A flow that travels along and collides, re- which opens inwards, tends to slum shut
sulting to change in flow direction. when it is slightly ajar. Explain.
A. Laminar Flow A. Wind blew at a low velocity from inside
B. Laminent Flow hence increasing pressure inside pushing
the door to shut
C. Turculent Flow
B. Wind blew at a high velocity from out-
D. Turbulent Flow
side hence decreasing pressure outside
65. coefficient of discharge of orifice metre is causing door to shut
A. Less than coefficient of dicharge of C. Wind blew at a low velocity from out-
venturimeter side hence increasing pressure inside
B. Greater than coefficient of dicharge of pushing the door to shut
venturimeter D. All the above
C. Equal to coefficient of dicharge of ven-
68. The rule that when force is applied to a
turimeter
confined fluid, the increase in pressure is
D. None of these transmitted equally throughout.
66. It is dangerous to stand close to a railway A. Pascal’s principle
line on which a fast moving train is pass-
B. Bernoulli’s principle
ing. Explain.
C. Archimedes’ principle
A. Train has magnets which can pull one
into rails D. Newton’s Law

5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs

1. The discharge through a triangular notch 2. Gravity dam is an example of
under a constant head of 0.25m if the an- A. Rigid dam
gle of the notch is 120degree and Cd =
0.62 B. Non rigid dam

A. 0.132m3 /s C. Both of the above

B. 0.006m3 /s D. Skip
C. 0.079m3 /s 3. Which one is an ideal temporary dam?
D. 0.316m3 /s A. Steel dam

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 700

B. Timber dam 9. A check dam is a

C. Earth dam A. Flood control structure
D. Solid masonry or concrete gravity dam B. Soil conservation structure
E. Skip C. River training structure
D. Water storage structure
4. Discharge over a rectangular notch is given
by E. Skip

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Hazen’s formula 10. The temporary structures that are built to
B. Chezy’s formula enclose certain worksite is

C. Manning’s formula A. Storage dam

D. Bazin’s formula B. Coffer dam

C. Timber dam
5. error in the measurement of head in tri-
D. Steel dam
angular notch results in %error in dis-
charge 11. The most common type of dam normally
A. 1.5 constructed is
B. 2.5 A. Storage dam
C. 3.5 B. Diversion dam
D. 4.5 C. Detention dam
D. Overflow dam
6. Arch dams are best suitable for which
site? 12. The bank storage increases the reservoir
A. Flat land capacity in deficit period.
A. True
B. plateau
B. False
C. Narrow valley
C. Skip
D. Very wide valley
D. none of above
7. Which of the following is done for erosion
prevention 13. dam which resists are the external
forces by virtue of its self weight.
A. Sod
A. Earthen dam
B. Blanket
B. Gravity dam
C. Corewall
C. Arch dam
D. Cutoff
D. Storage dam
8. Types of flood control reservoirs are
14. The seepage of water through the body
A. A. Retarding reservoir and foundation of the earth dam leads to
B. B. Detention reservoir A. Leaking
C. Both A and B B. Piping
D. None of these C. Sloughing

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 701

D. None of these 20. Which of the following dam is suitable for

narrow valleys?
E. Skip
A. Coffer dam

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15. The type of notch in which the length of B. Arch dam
crest is less than width of upstream flow
C. Gravity dam
is known as
D. Timber dam
A. A. Notch with end contraction
21. Pitot tube is used for measuring
B. B. Notch without end contraction
A. Pressure in a static fluid
C. C. Suppressed notch
B. Velocity in a flowing stream
D. Both b and c C. Total pressure
16. Which type of dam is suitable on shallow D. Dynamic pressure
pervious foundations? 22. The type of arch dam in which upstream
A. Zoned embankment type face is vertical is
B. Homogenous embankment type A. Constant radius arch dam
B. Variable radius arch dam
C. Both Non-homogenous type and ho-
mogenous type C. Vertical arch dam
D. Diaphragm type D. Inclined arch dam
23. If a roadway is to be passed over the top
17. Coefficient of discharge of a mouthpiece of the dam, the dam preferred is
compared to that of an orifice is
A. Earth dam or gravity dam
A. Less
B. Steel dam
B. More C. Timber dam
C. Equal D. All of these
D. None of these E. Skip

18. Theoretical profile of gravity dam is 24. Which of the following zone in Zoned
type embankment prevents piping through
A. Right angled triangle cracks?
B. Tapezoidal A. Central core
C. Isoceles triangle B. Transition zone
D. Skip C. Outer zone
D. Core wall
19. General value of coefficient of velocity of
orifice is 25. Dam constructed with rigid materials such
as stone, concrete, steel or timber is called
A. 0.98
A. Rigid dam
B. 0.64 B. Non rigid dam
C. 0.63 C. Heavy dam
D. 0.65 D. None of these

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 702

26. The discharge for right angular triangular 31. Based on hydraulic design, the dams are
notch classified as
A. Q = 1.417H 5/2 A. Overflow dam and non-overflow dam
B. Q = CdH1/3 B. Rigid dam and non-rigid dam
√ C. Storage dam, diversion dam, detention
C. Q = (8/5)Cd 2gH
dam, coffer dam and debris dam
D. None of these
D. Skip

NARAYAN CHANGDER
27. Full form of MDDL
32. Multiple arch is a type of
A. Maximum drawdown level
A. Debris dam
B. Minimum drawdown level
B. Coffer dam
C. Minimum pool level C. Buttress dam
D. None of these D. Detention dam
E. Skip
33. In an embankment dam, the water pres-
28. For accurate flow measurement in open sure is resisted by
channels, an arrangement for aeration un- A. Shear strength of the material filled
der the nappe is necessary when the weir
B. Self weight of the dam
used is
C. Both shear strength of the material
A. Contracted rectangular and self weight of dam
B. Suppressed rectangular D. Skip
C. Submerged contracted rectangular
34. A structure provided at the downstream
D. Triangular side of dam to protect it from erosion or
scouring is known as
29. is the arrangement made near top of
dam for passage of excess water from the A. Energy dissipators
reservoir. B. Auxillary spillway
A. Sluice way C. Energy retractors
B. Spillway D. Skip
C. Gallery 35. Massive head type dam is a
D. Abutm A. Buttress dam
B. Gravity dam
30. Weir in which water level in downstream
side and upstream side is above crest level C. Timber dam
is called D. Steel dam
A. Drowned weir E. Skip
B. Submerged weir
36. A weir generally used as spillway of a dam
C. Internal weir is
D. Both A and B A. Narrow crested weir

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 703

B. Broad crested weir 42. A small opening of any cross section on the
side or at the bottom of a tank, through
C. Ogee crested weir
which the fluid is flowing is known as

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D. Submerged weir
A. Mouthpiece
37. Average value of cd is given as B. Orifices
A. 0.62 C. Weir
B. 0.64 D. Notch
C. 0.97 43. Force acting on a gravity dam
D. 0.85 A. A.Wave pressure
38. The sheet of water flowing over the bot- B. B.Temperature pressure
tom of a notch is called C. Both A and B
A. Jet D. None of these
B. Nappe
44. If the orifice is discharging water into the
C. Spill atmosphere, it is called
D. Crest A. Free discharging orifice

39. Coefficient of discharge of an external B. Open orifice

mouthpiece is C. Bell mouthed orifice
A. 0.707 D. Sharp discharging orifice
B. 0.855
45. The process of laying and compacting earth
C. 1.00 in layers by power rollers under opti-
D. 0.50 mum moisture content for construction of
earthen dams is known as
40. Coefficient of discharge value of conver- A. Rolled fill method
gent divergent mouth piece is
B. Hydraulic fill method
A. 0.855
C. OMC method
B. 1
D. Compaction
C. 0.707
46. A dam which stores water during floods
D. 0.62
and release it gradually at safe rate when
41. Erosion of embankment slope due to heavy the flood recedes is
rainfall A. Storage dam
A. Sloughing B. Diversion dam
B. Piping C. Detention dam
C. Gullying D. Overflow dam
D. None of these E. Skip

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 704

47. A dam simply raises water level slightly in 52. The most suitable material for the central
the river and thus provides head for carry- impervious core of a zoned embankment
ing water into ditches, canal or other con- type dam is
veyance system to the place of use is A. Clay
A. Storage dam B. Coarse sand
B. Diversion dam C. Silty clay
C. Detention dam D. Clay mixed with fine sand

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Overflow dam 53. Theoretical profile gravity dam
E. Skip A. Rightangled triangle
48. Which type of spillway is provided, when B. Trapezoidal
separate space is not available to provide C. Rectangle
spillway? D. None of these
A. A. Shaft spillway
54. Which one is not an arch dam?
B. B. Morning glory spillway
A. Constant radius dam
C. C. Bell mouth spillway
B. Variable arch dam
D. All of the above C. Constant angle dam
E. Skip D. None of these
49. Which among the following dam is used in E. Skip
flood control
55. Weir may be used to measure
A. Detention dam A. Velocity of flow
B. Coffer dam B. Pressure
C. Debris dam C. Discharge in a river or channel
D. Diversion dam D. Kinetic energy

50. As compared to gravity dam earthen dams 56. If the length of dam is small and height is
more the dam preferred is
A. Are costlier
A. Arch dam
B. Are less Susceptible to failure
B. Rockfill dam
C. Require sound rock foundation
C. Timber dam
D. Require less skilled labour
D. Earthen dam
51. Non rigid materials used for making non 57. In a rectangular notch discharge is directly
rigid dams are proportional to
A. Earth A. H 3/2
B. Tailings B. H 5/2
C. Rockfill C. H 2
D. All of the above D. H 3

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 705

58. The dam which can be constructed even on 64. are masonry structrue placed in open
glacial deposits is channel flow to measure rate of flow

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A. Gravity dam A. Weir
B. Arch dam
B. mouth piece
C. Embankment dam
D. Cupola dam C. Orifice

59. Cantilever type dam is a D. none of these

A. Buttress dam
65. Mouth piece are used to measure
B. Arch dam
A. Velocity
C. Gravity dam
D. Steel dam B. Pressure

60. A rockfill crib type is a C. Viscosity

A. Steel dam D. Rate of flow
B. Rockfill dam
C. Timber dam 66. A constant centre arch dam is best suited
for
D. Buttress dam
E. Skip A. V shaped gorge

61. An impervious wall provided at foundation B. U shaped gorge

level to resist seepage is C. Both U shaped and V shaped gorges
A. Corewall
D. Multi-peaked gorges
B. Cutoff wall
C. Blanket 67. A short pipe having length 2 to 3 times
D. Filter its diameter which can be used to finding
E. Skip discharge is termed as

62. Type of dam where the forces acting on the A. Mouth piece
dam are transmitted onto the abutment B. Notch
rocks is
C. Orifice
A. Gravity dam
B. Earthen dam D. none of these
C. Embankment dam
68. The water in the reservoir below the sill
D. Arch dam of the lowest sluice is
63. is also called available storage A. Dead storage
A. Live storage
B. Valley storage
B. Dead storage
C. Gross storage C. Free storage
D. Valley storage D. Live storage

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 706

69. What for a mouthpiece is introduced 74. Hydraulic failure of earth dam may be due
to
A. To increas value of coefficient of dis-
charge of an orifice A. Overtopping
B. To decrease the loss of head due to B. Wave erosion
sudden enlargement C. Toe erosion
C. To decrease the lossof head due to D. All of the above
sudden contraction
75. The safe distance between Normal Pool

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. To decrease the loss of head at en- Level and top of dam is known as
trance of orifice
A. Gross freeboard
70. Which one is not a non-rigid dam? B. Net freeboard
A. Earth dam C. Berm
B. Rockfill dam D. Skip
C. Combined earth and rockfill dam E. Afflux
D. None of these 76. The head over a ‘V ‘ notch at the end of a
E. Skip channel is 75cm. If an error of 0.15cm is
possible in the measurement of the head
71. The theoretical profile of non rigid dam is then the percentage errorin computing the
duscharge is
A. Trapezoidal
A. 0.33
B. Right angled triangle
B. 0.50
C. Rectangle
C. 1.00
D. Skip
D. 1.50
72. Temporary structure used to divert flow 77. A mouthpiece is introduced to
for the purpose of construction in diverted
area A. Increase the value of coefficient of dis-
charge of an orifice
A. Coffer dam
B. Decrease the loss of head due to sud-
B. Debris dam den enlargement
C. Detention dam C. Decrease the loss of head due to sud-
D. Impounding dam den contraction
D. Decrease the loss of head at entrance
73. The Indian Standard recommendation re- of orifice
garding the uplift pressure of water
78. The crest of auxillary or emergency spill-
A. IS 696-1972 way is at
B. IS 7894-1975 A. FRL
C. IS 2363-1963 B. MDDL
D. None of these C. MWL
E. Skip D. Skip

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 707

79. Examples for gravity dam 84. Selection of site for a dam based on
A. Masonry dam A. Topography

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B. Concrete dam B. Materials

C. Reinforced cement concrete dam C. Reservoir and catchment Area

D. All of these
D. Buttress dam
85. The erosion of embankment slope due to
80. The most ancient gravity dam was built in heavy rainfall is called
A. India A. Sloughing
B. USA B. Gullying
C. Egypt C. Overtopping
D. Germany D. Wave erosion
E. Skip
81. The reservoir which store treated water
for supplying water during emergencies 86. For external mouthpiece value of Cd is
and to meet high water demand of a city given as
is A. 0.855
A. A. Distribution reservoir B. 1
B. B. Storage reservoir C. 0.97
C. C. Service reservoir D. 0.68
D. D. Both a and c 87. A dam which stores water during excess
E. Skip supply
A. Storage dam
82. The arch dam in India is situated in which
B. Impounding dam
state?
C. Conservation dam
A. Kerala
D. Detention dam
B. Karnataka
E. Skip
C. Gujarat
88. For a low gravity dam, the limiting height
D. Maharastra of dam, Hc is
83. is commonly used commonly used em- A. Equal to the height of dam
pirical formula for computing the discharge B. Greater than height of dam
over sharp or narrow crested Weir with or
C. Less than height of dam
without end contraction.
D. Skip
A. Rehbock’s formula
B. Francis formula 89. The discharge through a right angled trian-
gular notch under a constant head of 4m
C. Chezy’s formula is
D. Hagen’s formula A. 51.55 m3 /s

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 708

B. 45.34 m3 /s 95. The total volume of water that can be

stored in the reservoir from full reservoir
C. 30.24 m3 /s
level to maximum water level is known as
D. 25 m3 /s A. Flood absorption capacity
90. The amount of concrete used in buttress B. Surcharge storage
dam is about of the concrete used in C. Outlet surcharge
gravity dam of the same height D. Skip

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 1/4 to 1/2 E. Useful storage
B. 1/2 to 1/3 96. Ratio of actual velocity of jet at vena con-
C. 1/2 to 1 tracta to the theoretical velocity is called
A. Coefficient of discharge
D. None of these
B. Coefficient of velocity
91. Seepage through foundation of an earthen C. Coefficient of contraction
dam is controlled by providing
D. None of these
A. Rock toe
97. Water flow in large sized pipe for large
B. Horizontal blanket flow rate can be measured using
C. Impervious cuttoff A. Orifice
D. Chimney drain B. Notches
C. Venturimetre
92. Weir is an example of D. Elbow meter
A. Coffer dam
98. Internal mouthpiece is also called
B. Storage dam A. Re entrant mouthpiece
C. Diversion dam B. Borda’s mouthpiece
D. Conservation dam C. Submerged mouthpiece
D. Drowned mouthpiece
93. Part of stored water in the reservoir which
is not available for use is called 99. Dam mainly used for irrigation develop-
ment works is
A. Free storage
A. Diversion dam
B. Dead storage
B. Detention dam
C. Valley storage C. Debris dam
D. Live storage D. Conservation dam

94. Relation between Cv, CD, CC 100. When coefficient of discharge is more,
the losses will be
A. CC=Cd X CV
A. More
B. Cd=Cv X CC B. Less
C. Cd=Cc/Cv C. Remains same
D. none of these D. none of above

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5.8 Flow Over Notches and Weirs 709

101. Beaver is a dam C. Straight drop spillway

A. Steel D. Side channel spillway

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B. Timber E. Skip
C. Concrete 107. Theoretical velocity of water with avail-
D. Rockfill able head h and acceleration due to gravity
g
102. Average value of Cv is given as
A. 2(gH)0.5
A. 0.62 B. (2gH)0.5
B. 0.63 C. 2g(H)0.5
C. 0.97 D. 2gh
D. 0.85
108. Nagarjuna Sagar dam is situated in
103. How many types of arch dams are A. Karnataka
present?
B. Andrapradesh
A. 1
C. Orissa
B. 3
D. Maharashtra
C. 4
109. Orificemetre us used for measuring
D. 2
A. Pressure
104. The bottom edge over which the liquid B. Density
flows is known as of the notch
C. Flowrate
A. A. Sill
D. Viscosity
B. B. Nappe
110. A hydraulic structure constructed across a
C. C. Crest
river to store water on its upstream side
D. Both a and b is
E. Both a and c A. Reservoir
105. To prevent overtopping of a dam during B. Dam
the period of peak flood a sufficient mar- C. Wall
gin is left between FRL and top of the dam D. Crest
.It is called
E. Skip
A. Free board
111. Which of the following factors should be
B. Affulx
considered while selecting the type of a
C. Both of the above dam?
D. None of these A. Topography
106. Which type of spillway is suitable for low B. Geological condition
earth dam, weirs, thin arch dam? C. Data about earthquake
A. Ogee spillway D. All of these
B. Trough spillway E. Skip

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 5.9 Viscous Flow 710

112. Life span of timber dam sure discharge through a small channel or
A. 10-20 yrs a tank.
B. 30-40 yrs A. Notch
C. 40-80 yrs B. Weir
D. 80-100 yrs C. Either notch or weir
113. Name the device which is used to mea- D. Neither notch nor weir

NARAYAN CHANGDER
5.9 Viscous Flow
1. A line that represents the total head avail- 5. In pipe flow, the pressure continuously
able to the fluid is called in the direction of flow
A. Fluid line A. Increase
B. Head line B. Decrease
C. Energy line C. No change
D. None of these
D. None of these
2. Consider fully developed flow in a circu-
lar pipe with negligible entrance length ef- 6. In an long pipeline flowing fluids, which of
fects. Assuming the mass flow rate, den- the followings is causing minor loss?
sity and friction factor to be constant, if A. Pipe material
the length of the pipe is doubled and the
diameter is halved, the head loss due to B. Pipe slope
friction will increase by a factor of C. Valves and Bends
A. 4 D. D-W friction factor
B. 16
7. Darcy weisbach friction factor for headloss
C. 32
computation can be obtained from
D. 64
A. Moody’s diagram
3. Max efficiency of power transmission
B. Strange curve
through pipes
A. 66% C. specific energy diagram

B. 66.67% D. Blench’s curve

C. 50% 8. Which of the factors primarily decide
D. 56.67% whether the flow in a circular pipe is lami-
nar or turbulent?
4. Which among the following is an assump-
tion of the Hagen-Poiseuille equation? A. The Prandtl number
A. Fluid is compressible B. The pressure gradient along the length
B. Flow is steady and uniform of the pipe
C. Flow is laminar C. The dynamic viscosity coefficient
D. Flow is taking place in circular pipe D. The Reynolds number

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5.9 Viscous Flow 711

9. For flow above the Hydraulic Gradient line, 15. In the flow through a pipe, the transition
the pressure is from laminar to turbulent flow does not
depend on

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A. Negative
B. Positive A. the velocity of the fluid
C. Zero B. the density of the fluid
D. none of above C. the diameter of the pipe

10. Which of the followings has the form of D. the length of the pipe
Reynolds number? 16. Frictional head loss hf=
ρV L
A. µ A. H/4
∆P
∆x ρ V
B. 2
B. H/3
ρV 2 D C. 3H
C. ν
D. VD D. 4H
ν

11. In order to have a continuous flow through 17. A penstock is 2000 m long and the velocity
a siphon, no portion of the pipe be higher of pressure wave in it is 1000 m/s. Water
than hammer pressure head for instantaneous
A. 10 m closure of valve at the downstream end of
pipe is 60 m. If the valve is closed in 4
B. 5.5 m sec then the peak water hammer pressure
C. 10.33 m head is equal to
D. 7.75 m A. 15 m
12. If Re>4000, then the flow is B. 30 m
A. Laminar C. 60 m
B. Transition D. 120 m
C. Turbulent 18. For dealing with the problems in laminar
D. none of above flow, which of the velocity is assumed to
be the actual velocity of flow?
13. If Re<2000 then the flow is
A. RMS velocity
A. Laminar
B. Average velocity
B. Transition
C. Turbulent C. Absolute velocity

D. none of above D. Relative velocity

14. What is the ratio of maximum velocity 19. Hydraulic graident line (H.G.L.) repesents
to average velocity, for laminar flow be- the sum of
tween parallel plates? A. Pressure head and kinetic head
A. 2 B. kinetic head and datum head
B. 1/2 C. Pressure head, kinetic head and da-
C. 2/3 tum head
D. 3/2 D. Pressure head and datum head

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5.9 Viscous Flow 712

20. If the velocity, pressure, density, etc., 25. Hydraulic Gradient line is always
change at a point with respect to time, the
A. Parallel to the bottom
flow is called
A. uniform B. Above the total energy line
B. compressible C. Below the total energy line
C. unsteady D. none of above
D. incompressible

NARAYAN CHANGDER
26. The shear stress in a round pipe with lam-
21. Which one of the following is a major loss inar flow in it
A. Frictional loss
A. remains constant over the cross-
B. Shock loss section
C. Entry loss B. is zero at the centre and varies linearly
D. Exit loss with pipe radius
22. A compound pipe (new cast iron) system C. is zero at the pipe wall and varies lin-
consists of pipes of length 1800 meter and early to the centre
diameter 50 cm, length 1200 mm and di-
D. varies parabolically across the cross-
ameter 40 cm and length 600 m and diam-
section
eter 30 cm connected in series. The equiv-
alent length of 420 cm diameter pipe will
27. For flow below the Hydraulic grade line,
be nearly
the pressure is
A. 4300 m
A. Positive
B. 4400 m
C. 4500 m B. Negative
D. 3600 m C. Zero

23. The friction factor for laminar flow in a cir- D. none of above
cular pipe is 0.01. This corresponds to a
flow Reynolds number equal to 28. In pipe flow maximum velocity occur at
A. 400 A. Invert level
B. 800 B. Centre
C. 1600
C. Top level
D. 2000
D. Just below the top surface
24. Which one of the following phenomena in
a pipe flow is termed as water hammer? 29. In the case of a pipe running full the Hy-
A. The sudden rise of pressure in a long draulic radius
pipe due to sudden closure of valve A. D/2
B. The rise of a pressure in a pipe flow
B. D/4
due to gradual closure of valve
C. The rise of negative pressure C. D/8
D. The zero pressure in a pipe flow D. D/16

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 5.10 Turbulent Flow 713

30. In case of circular pipe, characteristic C. Kinetic head

length L is as diameter D.
D. All the above

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A. More
B. Same 32. For viscous flow through circular pipe, the
ratio of Average velocity to Maximum ve-
C. less
locity is:
D. none of above
A. 1
31. The height of total energy line from a da-
tum consists of B. 2

A. Pressure head C. 0.5

B. Datum head D. 2/3

5.10 Turbulent Flow

1. What kind of flow can be described as dis- 4. Moody’s Chart is used to determine fric-
organized and chaotic? tion factors for what kind of flow?
A. laminar A. laminar
B. critical B. critical
C. turbulent C. turbulent
D. flow of ideas between PCs and Liberals D. both laminar and turbulent but usually
turbulent
2. If NR=1x105 and the relative roughness
is 2000, compute the friction factor using 5. Darcy’s equation can be used for flow.
Swamee and Jain. A. only laminar
A. 0.0204 B. only turbulent
B. 0.0205 C. both laminar and turbulent
C. 0.0206 D. only critical
D. 0.0207
6. The value of Reynolds number for castor
3. Given NR=5.67x104 what is the friction oil at 77 oF in a 2-in Sch 40 steel pipe
factor for water at 75 oC in hydraulic cop- with a velocity of 10.72 ft/s is and
per tubing, 15mm OD x 1.2 mm wall with the flow is :
a velocity of 1.724 m/s? A. 4200; laminar
A. 0.015 B. 4200; critical
B. 0.020 C. 4200; turbulent
C. 0.024 D. 253; laminar
D. 0.018 E. 253; turbulent

5.11 Flow Through Pipes

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5.11 Flow Through Pipes 714

1. A nozzle converts 6. Darcy-Weisbach equation gives relation

A. Kinetic energy into Pressure energy between

B. Pressure energy to Kinetic energy A. Pressure and temperature

C. Potential energy into Pressure energy B. Mass, volume and pressure

D. All of the above C. Head loss and pressure loss
D. Pressure loss only
2. The power transmitted through the nozzle

NARAYAN CHANGDER
is maximum if the head loss due to friction
7. Water flows through a circular tube with
in pipe is equal to of the total head
a velocity of 2 m/s. The diameter of the
supplied at the inlet of pipe
pipe is 14 cm. Take kinematic viscosity of
A. Half water 10-6 m2/s and density of water
B. One third 1000 kg/m3.

C. One fourth A. 2.8*108

D. Two third B. 2.8*105
C. 2800
3. Which among the following is the formula
for friction factor(f)? D. 28000
A. f = 0.079*Re0.25
8. Water hammer in pipes occurs when
B. f = 0.079/Re0.25
A. Flow of water through pipe is gradually
C. f = 0.079/Re0.5 brought to rest by closing the valve.
D. f = 0.079*Re0.5 B. Flow of water through pipe is suddenly
brought to rest by closing the valve.
4. The head loss at the entrance of the pipe
is that at it’s exit C. Pipe is hit with hammer
A. equal to D. Excessive leakage in the pipe
B. half
9. The nozzle fitted at the end of pipe dis-
C. twice charges water at
D. four times A. High Velocity
5. How is Reynolds number defined as B. High Pressure
A. Ratio of pressures in the inlet to the C. Low Velocity
outlet of a pipe
D. None of the above
B. The product of velocity of the flow and
the diameter of the pipe, divided by the 10. The velocity at which the flow changes
kinematic viscosity of fluid from laminar to turbulent
C. The product of density of the fluid, ve- A. Supersonic Velocity
locity of the flow and the diameter of the
B. Escape Velocity
pipe, divided by the dynamic viscosity of
fluid C. Critical Velocity
D. Ratio of inertia force to viscous force D. None of the above

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 5.12 Flow in Open Channel 715

11. The magnitude of water hammer depends B. Time taken to close the valve
upon C. Elastic properties of pipe material

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A. Length of pipe D. All of the above

5.12 Flow in Open Channel

1. For a given discharge, the critical flow C. Laminar flow
depth in an open channel depends on [CO1, D. Turbulent flow
PO1, C1] [1 mark]
5. A trapezoidal channel is 10.0 m wide at
A. channel geometry only
the base and has a side slope of 4 horizon-
B. channel geometry and bed slope tal to 3 vertical. The bed slope is 0.002.
C. channel geometry, bed slope and The channel is lined with smooth concrete
roughness (Manning’s n = 0.012). Calculate the hy-
draulic radius (in m) for a depth of flow of
D. channel geometry, bed slope, rough- 3.0 m. [CO1, PO1, C3] [3 mark]
ness and Reynolds number
A. 20
2. A rectangular channel carries a certain B. 3.5
flow for which the alternate depths are
C. 3
found to be 3 m and 1m. The critical depth
(in m) for the flow is:[CO1, PO1, C3] [3 D. 2.1
mark] 6. A rectangular open channel needs to be de-
A. 2.60 signed to carry a flow of 2.0 m3/s under
B. 1.65 uniform flow conditions. The Manning’s
roughness coefficient is 0.018. The chan-
C. 1.33 nel should be such that the flow depth is
D. 1.20 equal to half the width, and the Froude
number is equal to 0.5.The bed slope of
3. The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic the channel to be provided is
jump in a rectangular channel is 16.48.The A. 0.0012
Froude number at the beginning of the
jump is [CO2, PO2, C4] [3 mark] B. 0.0021

A. 5.0 C. 0.0025
D. 0.0052
B. 4.0
C. 8.0 7. The discharge in a channel is 8 m3/s. It
is given that the width of the channel is
D. 12.0 3m wide and the depth of flow before the
4. The flow characteristics of a channel does jump is 0.25m. Determine the energy loss
not change with time at any point. Deter- in the system. [CO1, PO1, C3] [3 mark]
mine this type of flow? [CO1, PO1, C2] A. 4.127 m
[1 mark] B. 1.652 m
A. Steady flow C. 2.553 m
B. Uniform flow D. 3.695 m

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5.12 Flow in Open Channel 716

8. At critical depth:[CO1, PO1, C2] [2 mark] 12. The Froude number at the end of a hy-
A. The discharge is minimum for a given draulic jump in a rectangular channel is
specific energy 0.25. The sequent depth ratio of this jump
is
B. The discharge is minimum for a given
specific force A. 2.5

C. The discharge is maximum for a given B. 5.2

specific force C. 8.9

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The discharge is maximum for a given D. 9.8
specific energy
13. For a given discharge, the critical flow
9. A submerged sluice gate is one in which depth in an open channel depends on
the water level on the downstream of the
weir is:[CO1, PO1, C2] [1 mark] A. channel geometry only

A. Is above the crest level B. channel geometry and bed slope

B. Just at the crest level C. channel geometry, bed slope and

roughness
C. Below the crest level
D. channel geometry, bed slope, rough-
D. At the same elevation as the upstream ness and Reynolds number
water surface
14. I f yn < yc What is the flow?
10. In a uniform open channel flow, [CO1,
PO1, C2] [2 mark] A. Subcritical flow
A. the total energy remains constant B. Critical flow
along the channel C. Supercritical flow
B. the total energy line either rises or D. Normal flow
falls along the channel depending on the
state of the flow 15. The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic
C. the specific energy decreases along jump in a rectangular channel is 16.48.The
the channel Froude number at the beginning of the
jump is
D. the line representing the total energy
is parallel to the bed of the channel A. 5.0
B. 4.0
11. The term alternate depthsin open channel
flow is used to designate the depths:[CO1, C. 8.0
PO1, C2] [2 mark] D. 12.0
A. At the beginning and end of a hydraulic
jump 16. The flow in a horizontal, frictionless rect-
angular open channel is supercritical. A
B. Having same kinetic energy for a given smooth hump is built on the channel floor.
discharge As the height of hump is increased, choked
C. Having same specific energy for a condition is attained. With further in-
given discharge crease in the height of the hump, the water
D. At the beginning and end of a gradually surface will
varied flow profile A. rise at a section upstream of the hump

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 5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis 717

B. drop at a section upstream of the C. 15.0 m3/s

hump
D. 17.5 m3/s

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C. rise at the hump
D. drop at the hump 19. The velocity and depth of flow in a 3.0 m
wide rectangular channel are 2.0 m/s and
17. A trapezoidal channel is 10.0 m wide at 2.5 m, respectively. If the channel has its
the base and has a side slope of 4 horizon- width enlarged to 3.5 m at a section, the
tal to 3 vertical. The bed slope is 0.002. discharge past that section is [CO1, PO1,
The channel is lined with smooth concrete C3] [4 mark]
(Manning’s n = 0.012). The hydraulic ra-
A. 10.0 m3/s
dius (in m) for a depth of flow of 3.0 m
is B. 20.0 m3/s
A. 20 C. 15.0 m3/s
B. 3.5 D. 17.5 m3/s
C. 3
20. A submerged weir is one in which the wa-
D. 2.1
ter level on the downstream of the weir
18. The velocity and depth of flow in a 3.0 m is
wide rectangular channel are 2.0 m/s and A. Is above the crest level
2.5 m, respectively. If the channel has its
width enlarged to 3.5 m at a section, the B. Just at the crest level
discharge past that section is C. Below the crest level
A. 10.0 m3/s D. At the same elevation as the upstream
B. 20.0 m3/s water surface

5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis

1. The metric unit for “mass”? B. 2.3 x 10-3mL
A. meter C. 2, 300mL
B. gram D. 2.3 x 10-2mL
C. milliliter 4. You spend $40 on 5 pounds of concrete.
D. second What is the unit rate in dollars per pound?
A. $8 per pound
2. kg
B. $5 per pound
A. 100 g
C. $35 per pound
B. 1000 g D. 0.125 pounds per dollar
C. 10 g
5. Standard notation of 7.8 x 10-2
D. 0.1 g
A. .078
3. How many mL are in 2.3L? A) B) C) D) B. .0780
A. 2.3 x 104mL C. 78

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5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis 718

D. 780 11. Convert 700 centiliters/day to

Liters/year
6. What does the prefix “micro-” repre-
A. 2, 555 Liters/year
sent?
B. 255.5 Liters/year
A. 1, 000, 000
C. 25.55 Liters/year
B. 1/1, 000, 000
D. 2.555 Liters/year
C. 10, 000, 000

NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. has significant figures (sigfigs)
D. 100, 000
A. 4
7. Characteristic dimension in case of pipe B. 3
flow is
C. 2
A. length of pipe D. 1
B. dia of pipe
13. Calculate the density of a cube that is
C. spacing 2.0cm on all sides and has a mass 16.0g.
D. hydraulic radius A. 2.0 g/cm3
B. 3.00g/cm3
8. A solid sphere of diameter 100mm moves
in water at 5m/s. It experiences a drag C. 3.0 g/cm3
of magnitude 19.62N. What would be the D. 2.00 g/cm3
velocity of 5m diameter sphere moving in
air in order to ensure similarity? 14. Refers to how close a measured value is
to an accepted value
A. 20m/s
A. base unit
B. 19 m/s
B. precision
C. 19.23 m/s
C. accuracy
D. 18 m/s D. significant figure
9. Experimental density = 1.05 g/mLActual 15. How many significant figures are in the
density = 1.23 g/mLpercent error? number 203, 400, 000?
A. 17.14% A. 5
B. 185.4% B. 6
C. 14.63% C. 4

D. 19.55% D. 9

16. In case of capillary rise which of the fol-

10. inches/year to yards/day
lowing numbers is important?
A. 88.19 yards/day A. Froude no
B. 7.3 yards/day B. Mach no
C. 2.4 yards/day C. Euler no
D. 4.9 yards/day D. weber no

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5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis 719

17. A bicycle has a speed of 6 m/s. What is 22. How would you write 4.3756 x 104 in
its speed in km/h? (1 km=1000 m) standard form?

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A. 21.6 km/h A. 437, 560, 000
B. 16.67 km/h B. 0.00043756
C. 2.16 km/h C. 43, 756
D. 1.67 km/h D. 4, 3756
18. The flow in a river is 1500cumecs. A dis-
torted model is buildt with horizontal scale 23. What is the first step when solving dimen-
of 1/150 and vertical scale 1/25. The sional analysis problems?
flow rate in the model should be (cumecs) A. Write your plan
A. 0.04 B. Put your “known” over 1
B. 0.06 C. Identify your “known” and “unknown”
C. 0.08 D. Cross out units that are opposite each
D. 0.10 other
19. Expresses any number as a number be- 24. An educated guess or prediction
tween 1 and 10 (known as a coefficient)
multiplied by 10 raised to a power (known A. purpose
as an exponent). Makes it easier to write B. research
large or small quantities.
C. hypothesis
A. metric system
D. experiment
B. scientific notation
C. standard notation 25. Which is the proper way to report this cal-
culation? 12.345 + 3.72
D. dimensional analysis
A. 16.065 because 12.345 has the most
20. A river model is constructed to a horizon- sigfigs
tal scale of 1:1000 and a vertical scale
of 1:100 . A model discharge of 0.1 lps B. 16.1 because 3.72 has the fewest sig-
would correspond to a discharge in the pro- figs
totype, of what magnitude (lps)? C. 16.07 because 3.72 has the fewest
A. 100 decimal places
B. 1000 D. 16 because you always round to the
nearest whole number
C. 10000
D. 100000 26. Which one of the following statements is
not correct
21. What is the correct way to write 203, 420
in scientific notation? A. Models are always similar than the
prototypes.
A. 2.03420 x 106
B. 2.0342 x 10-5 B. Dynamic similarity between a model
and a prototype can be verified can be ver-
C. 20342 x 104 ified by equating reynolds number in a vis-
D. 2.0342 x 105 cous flow

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5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis 720

C. Mach number achieves significance 32. How many centimeters are in an inch?
when the velocity of fluid approaches or A. 2.54 inches
exceeds the sonic velocity
B. 2.54 cm
D. Distorted models are always exagger-
ated on a verical scale C. 12 inches
D. 10 cm
27. A rate is a ratio that compares 2 different
33. What is the second step when solving di-
mensional analysis problems?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. people
A. Write your plan
B. units/measurements
B. Put your “known” over 1
C. fractions
C. Identify your “known” and “unknown”
D. denominators
D. Cross out units that are opposite each
28. You know 1000 mg = 1 g. Convert 2.5 other
grams into milligrams.
34. What is scie ntific notation?
A. 25 mg
A. A long way to write really short num-
B. 25, 000 mg bers
C. 250 mg B. A short way to write really long num-
D. 2500 mg bers
C. I don’t know
29. The value measured in a lab
D. None of the above
A. Accepted value
B. Experimental value 35. Convert 20 tons/year to ounces/day
C. Precision A. .0004 ounces/day
D. Accuracy B. 6.8 ounces/day
C. 109.6 ounces/day
30. To maintain similarity the ratio of dif-
ferent forces at the corresponding points D. 1, 753.42 ounces/day
of model and prototype should be same 36. Which of the following is in correct scien-
A. Geometric tific notation?
B. Kinematic A. 2.30x10-3
C. Dynamic B. 0.230 x 103
D. none C. 230 x 103
D. All of them
31. The pet shop has 2 dogs, 4 cats, and 5
hamsters. What is the ratio of dogs to all 37. What does the prefix “Mega-” repre-
pets? sent?
A. 2:4 A. 1, 000, 000
B. 2:5 B. 1/1, 000, 000
C. 2:11 C. 10, 000, 000
D. 11:2 D. 100, 000

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5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis 721

38. what does kilo equal 44. Convert 62 miles/hour to feet/second

A. million A. 5, 456 feet/second

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. tenth B. .003 feet/second
C. thousand C. 90.9 feet/second
D. hundredth D. 909 feet/second
E. thousandth 45. What is the conversion for m→Hm
39. If a dog can eat 1/3 of a bag of food in A. 1 Hm → 100 m
1/2 week, how many bags of food can B. 1 m → 100 Hm
the dog eat in 1 week?
C. 1 m → 10 Hm
A. 1/6
D. 1000 m → 1 Hm
B. 2/3
C. 3/2 46. what does mega equal
D. 5/6 A. million
B. tenth
40. Convert 6 centigrams/day to kilo-
grams/year C. thousand
A. 2.19 kilograms/year D. hundredth
B. 21.9 kilograms/year E. thousandth
C. .0219 kilograms/year 47. A passenger jet has a speed of 900 km/h.
D. 219 kilograms/year What is its speed in m/s? (1 km = 1000
m)
41. Standard notation of 6.5 x 103 A. 250 m/s
A. 65 B. 324 m/s
B. 650 C. 1, 500 m/s
C. 6500 D. 2, 500 m/s
D. 65000
48. In case of distorted models the velocity
42. Convert 9, 500 feet/year to inches/day scale ratio is equal to
A. 2.2 inches/day A. (Lrv)1/2
B. 312.3 inches/day B. (Lrh)1/2
C. 3, 123.4 inches/day C. (Lr)1/2
D. 31.23 inches/day D. (Lr)2

43. What is the conversion for L → dL 49. liter

A. 1 L → 100 dL A. 100 ml
B. 1000 L → 1 dL B. 1000 ml
C. 1 L → 10 dL C. 10 ml
D. 10 L → 1 dL D. 0.1 ml

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5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis 722

50. Complete the statement:5 cm/min = C. have same vertical and horizontal
m/day(100 cm = 1 m) scale as that of the prototype
A. 72 D. have same Froude NO. as that for the
B. 840 prototypes
C. 7.2
56. What is the proper way to report this cal-
D. 5, 040, 000
culation? 17.34 / 3.45?
51. Convert 70, 000 quarts/year to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 5.026 because the 17.34 has the most
pints/day sigfigs
A. 383.6 pints/day
B. 5.03 because the 3.45 has the fewest
B. 767.1 pints/day sigfigs
C. 1, 534.2 pints/day
C. 5.026087 because you need the most
D. 191.8 pints/day decimal places for accuracy
52. Convert 50 decimeters/week to kilome- D. 5 because you should round the final
ters/year answer to the nearest whole number
A. .026 kilometers/year
B. 2.6 kilometers/year 57. Distorted models are needed for:Rivers 2.
Dams across wide rivers 3.Harbours
C. .26 kilometers/year
D. 26 kilometers/year A. 1 and 2

53. The technique of converting between units B. 2 and 3

is called C. 1 and 3
A. dimensional analysis
D. 1, 2 and 3
B. decimal moving
C. multiplication 58. the proper way to express 34567.01 in
D. division scientific notation WITH three significant
figures is
54. what does deci equal
A. 346 x 102
A. millionth
B. 3.45 x 104
B. tenth
C. billionth C. 3.46 x 104
D. hundredth D. 350
E. thousandth
59. What is 1 liter in ml?
55. The distorted models used in the hydraulic
studies are those which A. 100 ml
A. have exaggeration of the vertical scale B. 1000 ml
and horizontal scale
C. 10 ml
B. are not geometrically similar to the
prototype D. 0.1 ml

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5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis 723

60. A spillway of an irrigation project is to be 64. Mr. Jolly drove 90 km per hour on South
studied by means of model constructed to Luzon Blvd. this morning. How many me-
a scale 1:9 . The prototype discharge is ters per second is this rounded to the near-

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1000 lps . Neglecting the viscous and sur- est tenth of a second?
face tension forces, the required flow rate A. 125
for the model is
B. 30
A. 12.35 lps
C. 25
B. 111.11 lps
D. 800
C. 4.11 lps
65. Calculate the percent error for an experi-
D. 1.37 lps ment that found the density of Aluminum
to be 2.56 g/mL when the known density
61. Water having kinematic viscosity of 0.01
is 2.7g/mL.
stoke flows at a velocity of 2m/s in pipe
of 15 cm diameter. For dynamic similar- A. 13% error
ity, the velocity of oil of kinematic viscos- B. 6.6% error
ity 0.03 stoke in a pipe of same diameter
C. 5.2% error
will be
D. 5.38% error
A. 0.33 m/s
B. 0.66 m/s 66. The SI base unit for mass
A. kilogram
C. 2m/s
B. meter
D. 6 m/s
C. second
62. Water is leaking from a faucet at a rate of D. liter
1 cup per minute. How many quarts would
that be in an hour? 67. What unit is the largest unit
A. 60 quarts/hour A. Km
B. 4 quarts/hour B. cg
C. 15 quarts/hour C. g

D. 240 quarts/hour D. dm
68. Write 7 in scientific notation.
63. Stonehenge II in Hunt, Texas is a scale
model of the ancient construction in Wilt- A. 7 x 100
shire, England. The scale of the model to B. 7 x 101
the original is 3:5. The Altar Stone of C. 7 x 102
the original construction is 4.9 meters tall.
Write and solve a proportion to find the D. 7 x 103
height of the model of the Altar Stone. 69. Convert 2, 500 gallons/year to cups/day
A. 2.94 m A. 109.6 cups/day
B. 3.21 m B. 54.8 cups/day
C. 2.68 m C. 27.4 cups/day
D. 8.17 m D. .43 cups/day

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5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis 724

70. Lynn, Faith, and Jeremy are film anima- 75. The expression of 5008 km in scientific no-
tors. In one 8-hour day, Lynn rendered tation is
203 frames, Faith rendered 216 frames, A. 5.008 x 103 km
and Jeremy rendered 227 frames. How
many more frames per hour did Faith ren- B. 50.08 X 10-4 km
der than Lynn did? C. 5.008 x 10-3 km
A. 1.125 D. 5.008 x 104 km
B. 2 76. A ratio of equivalent values used to ex-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 2.25 press the same quantity in different units;
D. 1.625 is always equal to 1 and changes the units
of a quantity without changing its value
71. In the model of a highway bridge con- A. conversion factor
structed to a scale of 1:25, the force of
water on the pier was measured as 5 N. B. percent error
What is the force on the pier? C. dimensional analysis
A. 15.6 N D. scientific notation
B. 25.3 N 77. You are watching cars driving past you for
C. 78 N a minute and see 20 cars. If this rate con-
tinues, how many cars will pass in a day?
D. 90 N
A. 280 cars/day
72. The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000
B. 104 cars/day
000 000 154 m. What is this number ex-
pressed in scientific notation? C. 28, 800 cars/day
A. 1.54 x 1012 m D. 28, 800 days/car
B. 1.54 x 10-12 m 78. A systematic approach to problem solving
C. 1.54 x 1010 m that uses conversion factors to move from
one unit to another
D. 1.54 x 10-10 m
A. dimensional analysis
73. Convert 20 miles per hour to ft. per sec-
B. conversion factor
ond.
C. scientific notation
A. 29.33
D. percent error
B. 13.64
C. 31.45 79. Scientific notation of .009870
D. 22.48 A. 9.87 x 103
B. 9.87 x 10-3
74. The following footwear is the best in the
laboratory C. 9.870 x 103
A. sandals D. 9.870 x 10-3
B. open-toed shoes 80. What is the SI base unit for Length
C. closed-toe shoes A. Meter
D. shoes appropriate for the weather B. Miles

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5.13 Dimensional and Model Analysis 725

C. Feet 86. the study of matter and the changes that

D. kilometer it undergoes

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A. Chemistry
81. Write the answer in scientific notation. 5
B. mass
x 108-3.4 x 108 =
C. model
A. 2.4 x 108
D. weight
B. 2.4 x 100
C. 1.6 x 100 87. To maintain similarity the ratio of ve-
locity and acceleration at the correspond-
D. 1.6 x 108 ing points of model and prototype should
be same
82. The number 5003.20 has
A. Geometric
A. 4 sigfigs
B. Kinematic
B. 2 sigfigs, same as decimal places
C. Dynamic
C. 6 sigfigs
D. None
D. none of above
88. How would you write 0.0005 in scientific
83. How are rates and unit rates different? notation?
A. A rate has a denominator of 1. A unit A. 50 x 105
rate does not. B. 5 x 10-4
B. A rate is just like a fraction. A unit rate C. 5 x 103
is a ratio.
D. .5 x 103
C. Rates involve a measurement of time,
but unit rates do not. 89. Convert 300 feet/hour into inches/seconds
D. A rate compares two different quanti- A. 10
ties. A unit rate has a denominator of 1. B. 100

84. Ratio of Gravity force to inertial force is C. 1000

called D. 1
A. froude no 90. Which of the following is a UNIT RATE?
B. weber no A. 10 miles / 2 hours
C. reynolds no B. $6 for each hour
D. none of the above C. 1 box / $3
D. 15 pounds every 5 servings
85. Convert 3.5 gallons into cups. (1 girl = 16
cups) 91. What is the conversion for g→mg?
A. 56 cups A. 1 g → 1/1000 mg
B. 0.21875 cups B. 1 g → 100 mg
C. 19.5 cups C. 1000 g → 1 mg
D. 48 cups D. 1 g → 1000 mg

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 5.14 Flow of incompressible and compressible Fluids 726

92. What is 1 m in cm? A. 3 right

A. 100 cm B. 3 left
B. 1000 cm C. 2 right
C. 10 cm D. 2 left
D. 0.1 cm 96. The amount of mass per unit volume; a
physical property
93. what does milli equal

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. conversion factor
A. millionth
B. density
B. tenth
C. scientific notation
C. billionth
D. dimensional analysis
D. hundredth
E. thousandth 97. Convert 14 gal/50 sec to quarts/hour
A. 225 qt/hr
94. An adult cheetah can run up to 70 miles
B. 4032 qt/hr
per hour. About how fast is this in feet
per second? C. 16.8 qt/hr
A. About 103 feet per second D. none of above
B. 360 feet per second 98. Refers to how close a series of measure-
C. 8 and 1/3 feet per second ments are to one another
D. Really fast! A. accuracy
B. precision
95. If you are converting from cm to m, how
many places and in what direction do you C. significant figure
have to move the decimal? D. scientific notation

5.14 Flow of incompressible and compressible Fluids

1. The volume of the liguid in the syringe 300 C. incompressible fluid
cm3. What will be the length of the sy- D. incompressible
ringe, if the cross sectional area equal to
30 cm2? E. incompressibility / low
A. 10 cm 3. An object floats in water, with 75% of its
B. 20 cm volume submerged. What is its approxi-
mate density?
C. 30 cm
A. 250 kg/m3
D. 40 cm
B. 750 kg/m3
2. A/an will reduce its volume in the
C. 1000 kg/m3
presence of an external pressure.
D. 1250 kg/m3
A. reduction of the volume
B. compressible fluid 4. Most of the basic calculations done in fluid

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5.14 Flow of incompressible and compressible Fluids 727

dynamics are done assuming the fluid is C. incompressible fluid

D. incompressible

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A. reduction of the volume
E. incompressibility / low
B. compressible fluid
C. incompressible fluid 7. A basketball has a mass of 0.50 kg and
a volume of 8.0 x 10-3 m3. What is the
D. incompressible
magnitude of the net force on a basketball
E. incompressibility / low when it is fully submerged in water?
5. A/an is a fluid that does not change A. 4.9 N
the volume of the fluid due to external B. 74 N
pressure.
C. 78 N
A. reduction of the volume
B. compressible fluid D. 83 N

C. incompressible fluid 8. In the syringe the large cross sectional

D. incompressible area 20 cm2 and the length of the water
on it is 10 cm. If the small cross sectional
E. incompressibility / low
area 4 cm2, what is the length of it?
6. The compressibility of a fluid is the of A. 50 cm
the fluid due to external pressures acting
on it. B. 25 cm
A. reduction of the volume C. 23 cm
B. compressible fluid D. 35 cm

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 6. POWER PLANT ENGINEERING

NARAYAN CHANGDER
6.1 Basics
1. Steam reforming is currently the least ex- C. Kalpakkam
pensive method of producing D. None of the above
A. Coal
5. Which parameter is used as an index for
B. Biogas the standard of living of the people of a
C. Hydrogen country?
D. Natural gas A. Industrial production
B. Number of vehicles per house
2. The high capacity of Diesel Power Plant
C. Per capita energy consumption
A. Above 10 MW D. Population density
B. Above 10 GW
6. What is the function of sizer in coal han-
C. Above 50 MW dling?
D. Above 50 GW A. To separate the coal depending on size
3. The original source of energy for fossil fu- B. To check the amount of fuel that is sup-
els come from the plied

A. Sun C. To pick the coal of required size

D. To divert the coal flow into different
B. Earth’s Crust
burners
C. Geothermal Energy
7. What is the voltage output of hydrogen-
D. Oceans oxygen fuel cell? (in V)
4. India’s first nuclear power plant was in- A. -1.23
stalled at B. -1.45
A. Torapore C. -1.01
B. Kota D. -.93

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6.1 Basics 729

8. Fire tube boilers are C. greenhouse gases, such as CO2

A. Medium pressure boilers D. radioisotopes with long half-lives

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B. Low pressure boilers
14. Economiser is used to heat
C. High pressure boilers
A. air
D. none
B. feed water
9. In jet condenser the exhaust steam and
cooling water are C. flue gases

A. Mix up together D. all above

B. Flows in separate pipes 15. Which of these fuel cells operates at high
C. One fluid flows in the pipe and other temperatures and pressures?
flows in the shell A. high temperature solid oxide fuel cell
D. Both are separated by the plate
B. alkaline fuel cell
10. Which of these gases or liquids are not C. molten carbon fuel cell
used as source of hydrogen in fuel cells?
D. phosphoric acid fuel cell
A. C2H6
B. C2H2 16. Function of steam separator:
C. C6H6 A. To remove the entrained water parti-
D. C2H5OH cles from the steam conveyed to steam en-
gine
11. What is the purpose of bucket elevators in
B. To increase the temperature of the
coal handling?
steam above saturation point
A. Used to move coal horizontally
C. To increase the temperature of air be-
B. Used to lift coal vertically fore it enters the furnace
C. Used to separate the crushed coal and D. All the above
pulverized coal
D. Used to pour the coal vertically at right 17. Because of Economiser
angles into furnace A. Efficiency increases
12. One benefit of nuclear fission reactions is B. Efficiency decreases
A. nuclear reactor meltdowns C. Water Level increases
B. storage of waste materials D. none of the above
C. biological exposure
18. Cold Water Converted to Hot Water in
D. production of energy
which Circuit?
13. A serious risk factor associated with the A. Air and Flue Gas Circuit
operation of a nuclear power plant is the
production of B. Steam and Water CIrcuit
A. acid rain C. Coal and Ash Circuit
B. helium gas D. Cooling Water Circuit

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6.1 Basics 730

19. Ultimate analysis of fuel means determina- C. small, medium and large
tion of: D. none of the above
A. Higher calorific value of fuel
25. Which components of a fission reactor are
B. Lower calorific value of fuel
used to slow neutrons during a fission re-
C. Percentage of carbon, hydrogen, nitro- action?
gen, sulphur and phosphorous
A. moderators
D. Percentage of fixed carbon, ash,

NARAYAN CHANGDER
volatile matter and moisture B. shields
C. coolants
20. Which of the following is a disadvantage
of most of the renewable energy sources? D. control rods
A. Highly polluting 26. Which one is not a method of feed water
B. High waste disposal cost treatment
C. Unreliable supply A. Thermal treatment
D. High running cost B. Chemical treatment
21. Annual depreciation cost calculated by C. Demineralisation
A. sinking fund method D. Electrostatic precipitation
B. straight method
27. The fuel cell is considered a battery in
C. Both a & b which is continuously replaced.
D. estimates values A. fuel only
22. What product does a nuclear power plant B. oxidizer
produce for its customers? C. both fuel and oxidizer
A. electricity
D. none of the mentioned
B. a turbine
28. The purpose of the high-density concrete
C. hot water
used in some nuclear reactors is to
D. steam
A. shield the reactor walls from radiation
23. he system supplying base and peak loads damage
will be more economical if power is sup- B. shield the reactor personnel from radi-
plied by ation exposure
A. Only gas turbine power plant
C. control the rate of the nuclear reaction
B. Only thermal power plant
D. control the speed of the neutrons
C. Only Diesel power plant
D. Combined operation of various power 29. How the Coal is transferred in to the plant
plants A. Through Conveyors
24. Stokers are classified into B. Through Trucks
A. over feed and underfeed C. Through Ships
B. open and close D. All the Above

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6.1 Basics 731

30. What is the voltage output of methane- 36. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separa-
oxygen fuel cell? (in V) tors are used to remove

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A. -1.16 A. dust
B. -1.06 B. clinkers
C. -1.26 C. iron particles
D. -0.96 D. sand

31. What do control rods do in a nuclear reac- 37. Water tubes in vertical boiler are
tor? A. horizontal
A. Regulate the rate of reaction by ab- B. vertical
sorbing and slowing neutrons
C. inclined
B. Produce electricity
D. none
C. Produce neutrons to increase the rate
of reaction 38. Role of Super heater
D. Reduce heat produced by the uranium A. To Convert Steam into Water
rods B. To Convert Steam into Super Heated
Steam
32. Artificial draught is produced by:
C. To remove Dust Particles
A. Induced fan
D. To remove Moister Content
B. Forced fan
E. None of the above
C. Induced fan and Forced fan
D. All of the above 39. Identify the non-renewable energy re-
source from the following.
33. The energy content of steam is called:
A. Coal
A. Entropy
B. Fuel cells
B. Density
C. Wind power
C. Specific volume
D. Wave power
D. Enthalpy
40. Mechanical equivalent of heat is related
34. Pulverised fuel is used for to:
A. Better burning A. Conservation of mass
B. Saving fuel B. Conservation of energy
C. Obtaining fuel C. Conservation of momentum
D. For economy D. None of the above
35. The type of reactions in a fuel cell is not 41. Which type of conveyor has shorter life
determined by span?
A. fuel and oxidizer combination A. Flight conveyor
B. composition of electrolyte B. Belt conveyor
C. materials of anode and cathode C. Screw conveyor
D. catalytic effects of reaction container D. Grab Bucket conveyor

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6.1 Basics 732

42. Load factor during a period is C. Mech. Energy into Electrical Energy
A. Average Load / Installed Capacity D. Mechanical Energy into Nuclear En-
B. Average Load / Maximum Load ergy

C. Maximum Load / Average Load 48. Flat plat collector absorbs

D. Maximum Load / Installed Capacity A. Directly radiation only
B. Diffuse radiation only
43. Which of the following is not as a conse-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
quence of global warming? C. Direct and Diffuse both
A. rising sea level D. None
B. increased agricultural productivity 49. C+O2 → CO2, Therefore 1kg of carbon re-
worldwide quires how much kg of oxygen?
C. worsening health effects A. 1.67
D. increased storm frequency and inten- B. 2.67
sity
C. 3.67
44. Which of these is not a part of a Gas Tur- D. 4.67
bine Plant?
50. The maximum length of a screw conveyer
A. Compressor
is about
B. Gas Turbine A. 30 metres
C. Combustion chamber B. 40 metres
D. Boiler C. 60 metres
45. Calorific value of Anthracite is approxi- D. 100 metres
mately:
51. The process of combining two hydrogen nu-
A. 12000 KJ/kg clei into a helium atom with the release of
B. 14000 KJ/kg tremendous quantities of energy is called
C. 1000 KJ/kg
A. nuclear fusion
D. 35600 KJ/kg
B. combustion
46. What does WECS stands for?
C. radioactivity
A. Wind energy conversion system
D. nuclear fission
B. Wind engine control system
52. What is the function of Gab bucket con-
C. Wind energy combined system
veyor in coal handling?
D. Wind engine comparison system
A. To lift the coal vertically
47. The alternator is used in power plants B. To crush the coal
which converts C. To move coal from one place to an-
A. Electrical Energy into Mechanical En- other
ergy D. To separate crushed coal and pow-
B. Electrical energy into Solar Energy dered coal

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6.1 Basics 733

53. The capital cost of generating equipment, 59. The localized corrosion caused by oxygen
transmission system and distribution sys- in boilers is called:
tem comes under A. Scaling

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A. Fixed capital B. Pitting
B. Running capital C. Erosion
C. Both fixed and running capital D. None of the above
D. None
60. How much coal is required to generate en-
54. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine the ergy equivalent to the energy generated
calorific value of: by 1 kg of uranium?
A. Solid fuel only A. 30000 tonnes of high grade coal
B. Liquid fuels only B. 300 tonnes of high grade coal
C. Both solid and liquid fuels C. 10000 tonnes of high grade coal
D. Gaseous fuel D. 3000 tonnes of high grade coal

55. The nuclear energy is measured as 61. The use of cooling tower is

A. kWhr A. cool the condenser circulating water

B. curie B. cool the steam comes out from the tur-

bine
C. MW
C. cool the feed water
D. MeV
D. none of the above
56. The efficiency of Fluidized bed combustion
62. High excess air in combustion of fuels re-
boiler is in the order of
sults in
A. 70 %
A. smoky flame
B. 60 % B. increased fuel consumption
C. 80 % C. incomplete combustion
D. 90 % D. none of the mentioned
57. What do Nuclear Power plants Produce? 63. What do Hydro-Electric power plants use
A. Tesla cars to generate electric
B. Electricity A. Light
C. Water B. Water
D. Carbon dioxide C. Heat
D. Air
58. Which of these should not be a properties
of fuel cell electrodes? 64. If steam water content is 5%, its dryness
A. good electrical conductors fraction is:
B. highly resistant to corrosive environ- A. 95%
ment B. 0%
C. should perform charge seperation C. 5%
D. take part in chemical reactions D. None of these

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6.1 Basics 734

65. A major in-stream use of water is for 71. Role of Condenser in Thermal Power Plant
A. producing hydroelectric power A. To Convert Water into steam
B. dissolving industrial wastes B. To convert Coal into Ash
C. agricultural irrigation C. To Filter Foreign Particles
D. domestic use
D. To Convert Steam into Water
66. Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of
sunlight into 72. In overfeeding

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Chemical energy A. Coal is fed above the grate
B. Biogas B. Coal is fed under the grate
C. Electricity C. Coal is fed along with air
D. Geothermal energy D. Coal fed by both above and under the
grate
67. Most widely used material of solar cell is
A. arsenic 73. Space required of a steam power station
B. cadmium A. More than diesel power station
C. silicon B. Equal to diesel power station
D. steel
C. Less than diesel power station
68. Nuclear Fission relies on starting and main- D. None of the above
taining a
A. Continuous force 74. Solid fuel used in power plants
B. A chain reaction A. Thermal
C. A spinning turbine B. Hydro
D. A waterfall C. Diesel
69. Which risk is associated with using nu- D. gas turbine power plant
clear fission to produce energy in a power
plant? 75. What is the gas emitted by nuclear power
plants?
A. depletion of hydrocarbons
B. depletion of atmospheric oxygen A. Hydrogen

C. exposure of workers to radiation B. Methane

D. exposure of workers to sulfur dioxide C. Carbon

70. Which of these components on the boiler D. Oxygen

is used to increase the temperature steam
76. Saturated steam 100% dry contains:
above saturation temperature?
A. Air pre heater A. 0% latent heat

B. Economizer B. 90% latent heat

C. Super heater C. Sensible heat
D. None of the above D. 100% latent heat

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6.1 Basics 735

77. The hydrocarbons cracked with steam in vapor, after that vapor turns electric tri-
fuel cells do not give rise to bunes

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A. CO B. Plutonium radioactivity is making elec-
B. CO2 trons move faster

C. H2 C. They explodes a nuke inside in the big

tower and use that explosion as a power
D. H2O source
78. In impulse turbine the total enthalpy drop D. Uses electro Magnetic wawes to start
occurs in to fusion in the nuclear reactor
A. fixed and moving blades
83. What is the recommended hardness of
B. nozzle boiler feed water?
C. in the moving blades only A. Less than 5 ppm
D. none B. Greater than 5 ppm
79. In what speed range does screw conveyor C. Greater than 1 ppm
run at? D. Less than 1 ppm
A. 60-80 rpm
84. What is a problem commonly associated
B. 20-100 rpm
with nuclear power facilities?
C. 60-120 rpm
A. A small quantity of energy is produced.
D. 90 to 180 rpm
B. Reaction products contribute to acid
80. The efficiency of Rankine Cycle increases rain
by C. It is impossible to control nuclear fis-
A. Increasing condenser pressure sion.
B. Reducing boiler pressure D. It is difficult to dispose of wastes.
C. Increasing boiler pressure and de-
85. What type of cross sections does wind tur-
creasing condenser pressure
bine blades have?
D. Decreasing boiler pressure and in-
A. Penta hedral cross section
creasing condenser pressure
B. Air foiled type cross section
81. Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmo-
spheric air is? C. Radar cross section

A. 22 D. Turbo cross section

B. 20 86. Dead storage is

C. 19 A. Store required coal for 24-30 hrs of the
D. 21 boiler running
B. Store coal for future use
82. How does Nuclear Power Plants works
C. Store coal for 2 days
A. Fuel rods (mostly pluoniyum rods)
heats up the water and water becomes D. Store coal for 5 to 10 days

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6.1 Basics 736

87. The main function of a coolant in a nuclear C. it is inefficient

fission reactor is to D. cheapest form of energy
A. slow down the speed of the neutrons
93. In an air standard Dual cycle, the compres-
B. absorb energy produced by the reac- sion ratio, cut-off ratio, pressure ratio are
tion 18, 1.2, and 1.5 respectively. Take ratio
C. shield the wall of the reactor from ra- of specific heat as 1.4. Find the air stan-
diation damage dard efficiency of Dual cycle.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. adjust the number of neutrons avail- A. 68%
able for reaction
B. 70%
88. The primary source of the energy are C. 80%
A. coal, oil & Uranium D. 90%
B. hydrogen, oxygen and water
94. Fan is located in induced draught
C. wind, biomass and geothermal
A. Near bottom of furnace
D. none of the above
B. Near bottom of chimney
89. Which among the following is not a renew- C. At the of chimney
able source of energy?
D. Anywhere
A. Solar energy
95. How tall is one boiler?
B. Biomass energy
A. 200 feet tall
C. Hydro-power
B. 300 feet tall
D. Geothermal energy
C. 400 feet tall
90. Fuel cell converts chemical energy to elec-
trical energy using a reaction that D. 600 feet tall

A. eliminates combustion of fuel 96. has the widest inflammability limit

B. requires combustion of fuel (explosion limit) of all the gases.

C. requires no ignition of fuel A. Carbon monoxide

D. fuel is not required B. Methane

C. c) Hydrogen
91. Bucket elevators are used for
D. Acetylene
A. carrying coal in horizontal direction
B. carrying coal in vertical direction 97. What is in plant coal handling system?

C. carrying coal in any direction A. Maintenance of coal during emergen-

cies
D. none of above
B. Maintenance of coal inside the boiler
92. What is a positive of using nuclear C. Maintenance of coal inside the power
power? production area
A. it’s 100% safe D. Maintenance of coal while transport-
B. it’s renewable ing/moving it

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6.1 Basics 737

98. What is a chain reaction? A. Minimize energy cost

A. When electrons are emitted causing B. Minimum environmental effects

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electricity
C. Maintain optimum energy procure-
B. When a nuclear fission reaction oc- ment and utilization
curs, the protons emitted can strike other
nuclei in the sample, and cause them to D. All of these
split
103. The operating pressure and temperature
C. When a nuclear fission reaction oc- of supercritical boiler is
curs, the neutrons emitted can strike
other nuclei in the sample, and cause A. < 221 bar and 374◦ C
them to split B. > 150 bar and 300◦ C
D. When a nuclear fission reaction oc- C. > 221 bar and 374◦ C
curs, the electrons emitted can strike
other nuclei in the sample, and cause D. > 221 bar and 374◦ C
them to split
104. Which among the following is not an ad-
99. When load factor and diversity factor in- verse environmental impact of tidal power
creases generation?
A. cost of electricity decreases A. Interference with spewing and migra-
B. cost of electricity also increases tion of fish
C. cost of electricity remains same B. Pollution and health hazard in the es-
tuary due to blockage of flow of polluted
D. cost of electricity increases exponen-
water into the sea
tial
C. Navigational hazard
100. The three types of radiation associated
with nuclear disintegration are , , D. None of the mentioned
and
105. Out of energy, economy, and environ-
A. alpha, beta, and gamma ment
B. alpha, beta, and half-life A. only energy and environment are re-
C. beta, gamma, and half-life lated
D. beta, gamma, and delta B. only energy and economy are related
101. The ratio of heat actually released by 1kg C. all the three are interrelated
of fuel to heat that would be released by D. all the three are independent
complete perfect combustion is called
A. Thermal efficiency 106. What is the distance at which belt con-
veyors can convey?
B. Combustion efficiency
C. Engine efficiency A. 100m

D. Compression efficiency B. 10m

C. 200m
102. The main objective of energy manage-
ment is to D. 500m

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6.1 Basics 738

107. Only throttling calorimeter is used for 112. Rankine cycle comprises of
measuring: A. two isentropic processes and two con-
A. A) Very low dryness fraction upto 0.7 stant volume processes
B. (B) Very high dryness fraction upto B. two isentropic processes and two con-
0.98 stant volume processes
C. (C) Dryness fraction of only low pres- C. two isothermal processes and two con-
sure steam stant pressure processes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. (D) Dryness fraction of only high pres- D. none of the mentioned
sure steam 113. Which of the following have highest op-
erating cost?
108. The Function of solar collectors to convert
A. Hydroelectric power plant
A. Solar energy into electricity
B. Thermal power plant
B. Solar energy into radiations
C. Nuclear power plant
C. Solar energy into thermal energy
D. Solar electric power plant
D. None
114. A fuel cell, in order to produce electricity,
109. Which of the following is an essential re- burns
quirement for a peak load plant A. Helium
A. Capability of working continuously B. Nitrogen
B. Low operating cost C. Hydrogen
C. Capability of quick start D. None of the mentioned
D. Economical and speedy repair 115. The amount of air required for complete
combustion of fuel is called:
110. What is the harm from the depletion of
Earth’s ozone layer? A. Excess air
A. The oxygen content of the atmosphere B. Free air
will decrease C. Stoichiometric air
B. The average temperature of earth’s D. None of the above
surface will increase gradually
116. Which is the most serious environmental
C. Increased amount of Ultra violet radi- effect posed by hazardous wastes?
ation will reach earth’s surface
A. air pollution
D. Sea levels will rise as the polar ice
B. contamination of groundwater
caps will gradually melt
C. increased use of land for landfills
111. Pulverised fuel is used for D. destruction of habitat
A. Better burning
117. The pressure is minimum at the furnace
B. Saving fuel in case of:
C. Obtaining fuel A. Forced draught system
D. For economy B. Induced draught system

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6.1 Basics 739

C. Balanced draught system 123. What is a negative of using nuclear en-

ergy?
D. Natural draught system
A. It smells bad

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118. Which of these fuel cell operates at tem- B. it’s not renewable
perature below 100.C?
C. there are no cons
A. phosphoric fuel cell D. it’s expensive
B. solid polymer electrolyte fuel cell
124. What is a power plant
C. molten carbon fuel cell A. A Plant that gives us energy
D. hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell B. A building or a machine that gives us
electric
119. Super heated steam is
C. Normal plant that uses light to make
A. Steam at a temperature below boiling energy
point of water
D. none of above
B. Steam at a temperature above boiling
125. A ‘stroker’ is a power operated fuel
point of water
mechanism
C. Steam at boiling point of water A. Burning
D. None of the above B. Feeding
120. The unvarying load, which occurs almost C. Handling
the whole day on the power plant is called D. Storage
A. Base load 126. Intial cost of thermal power plant is
B. Peak load than nuclear power plant
A. Higher
C. Average load
B. lower
D. Discrete load
C. more
121. Horizontal axis and vertical axis are the D. none
types of
127. Underfeed stokers are divided into
A. Nuclear reactor A. single and multi retort
B. Wind mills B. chain and belt type
C. Biogas reactor C. all of the above
D. Solar cell D. none of above

122. Which of the following is not suitable to 128. When the nuclei of certain isotopes
uses as peak plant? (atoms) are unstable and spontaneously
decompose, this is called
A. Hydroelectric power plant
A. radioactive
B. Gas power plant B. a melt down
C. Diesel elected plant C. ionization
D. Nuclear power plant D. half-life

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6.1 Basics 740

129. Which element can be used to start nu- B. cooling water passes through the
clear fission reactions? tubes and steam surrounds them
A. plutonium C. steam passes through the cooling
B. phosphorous tubes and cooling water surrounds them
D. all of the above varying with situation
C. hydrogen
D. helium 135. Acid rain is formed due to contribution
from the following pair of gases?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
130. The turbine which is used in tidal power
A. Methane and ozone
plant for getting continues power is
B. Oxygen and nitrous oxide
A. simple impulse type
C. Methane and sulphur dioxide
B. reversible type
D. Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide
C. propeller type
D. None 136. Fuel cells are
A. Carbon cell
131. For which of these devices does negative
charge carriers flow from anode to cathode B. Hydrogen battery
in the external circuit? C. Nuclear cell
A. MHD generator D. Chromium cell
B. Thermionic generator
137. What might be a concern raised by com-
C. Thermoelectric generator munity members if they were told that a
D. Fuel cell nuclear power plant was going to be built
in their neighborhood?
132. How the oxidation of coal is eliminated? A. the threat of a nuclear accident or spill
A. By exposing it to the sunlight B. the air pollution generated by the plant
B. By turning the entire coal heap upside C. coal could be used to produce more en-
down periodically ergy per gram of fuel
C. By circulating air uniformly D. excessive use of petroleum would leak
D. By burning coal at very high tempera- into the water under the ground
tures
138. Name the system that is mainly em-
133. Travelling grate stoker is an example of ployed for the disposal of fly ash.
A. Pneumatic
A. Overfeed B. Hydraulic
B. underfeed C. Both(a) & (b)
C. both overfeed and under feed D. Steam jet system
D. none of the above
139. Which renewable resource generate max-
134. In a shell and tube surface condenser imum power in India?

A. steam and cooling water mix to give A. Wind

the condensate B. Solar

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6.1 Basics 741

C. Geothermal 144. In a power station ‘Load Center’ means

D. Biomass A. Center of maximum load of equip-

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ments
140. In a open feed water heater regenerative B. Center of coal fields
cycle, the enthalpy of steam at the time of
draining is 2940 kJ/kg, and feed water C. Center of gravity of electrical system
enthalpies at inlet and exit of open feed D. Corner of power plant
water heater are 192.32, 641.21 kJ/kg
respectively. Find the mass of steam 145. In a simple Rankine cycle the enthalpy
drained from the turbine. values at the exit from the boiler is
2802.3 kJ/kg, exit from the turbine is
A. 0.163 1862.04 kJ/kg, Pump work is 3 kJ/kg
B. 1.63 and heat supplied is 2677.9 kJ/kg. The
efficiency of the cycle is
C. 1.78
A. 35
D. 1.87
B. 40
141. Carnot cycle comprises of C. 45
A. two isentropic processes and two con- D. 50
stant volume processes
146. What is Nuclear Power?
B. two isentropic processes and two con- A. electric or motive power created by a
stant pressure processes nuclear reactor
C. two isothermal processes and three B. burning of reactive material
constant pressure processes
C. The best renewable resource
D. none of the above
D. burning fossil fuels
142. Which of the following is a prime health 147. When moving neutrons hit the nuclei of
risks associated with greater UV radiation certain other atoms thereby causing them
through the atmosphere due to depletion to disintegrate, and this happens repeat-
of stratospheric ozone? edly, it is said to be a
A. Damage to digestive system A. nuclear chain reaction
B. Increased liver cancer B. alpha radiation
C. Neurological disorder C. nuclear half-life
D. Increased skin cancer D. control rod

148. The overall efficiency of thermal power

143. What mineral is used to create Nuclear
plant is equal to
Power?
A. Rankine cycle efficiency
A. Uranium
B. Carnot cycle efficiency
B. Cobalt
C. Regenerative cycle efficiency
C. Iron
D. Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x
D. Gold generator efficiency

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6.1 Basics 742

149. When steam or water is used to run a 155. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used
turbine, it can generate to
A. Electricity A. utilise heat of flue gases
B. Oil B. increase thermal efficiency
C. Geothermal Energy C. improve condenser performance
D. Uranium D. reduce loss of heat

NARAYAN CHANGDER
150. The main body of reactor is called 156. What is the difference in size of thermal
A. Thermal shielding reactor and fast reactor?
B. Reactor vessel A. Size of thermal reactor is slightly more
than size of fast reactor
C. Reflector
B. Size of thermal reactor is slightly less
D. Biological shielding
than size of fast reactor
151. What is the voltage output of carbon- C. Size of thermal reactor is very much
oxygen fuel cell? (in V) larger than size of fast reactor
A. -.91 D. Both are of same size
B. -1.24
157. Space required of a steam power station
C. -1.02
D. -1.17 A. More than diesel power station
152. Pipes carrying steam are generally made B. Equal to diesel power station
up of C. Less than diesel power station
A. steel D. None of the above
B. cast iron
158. For same maximum pressure and temper-
C. copper ature
D. aluminium A. Diesel cycle efficiency is higher than
that of other two
153. What is power?
B. Diesel cycle efficiency is higher than
A. Energy.
that of other three
B. Rate of changing energy from one form
to another. C. Diesel cycle efficiency is higher than
that of other four
C. Time divided by energy.
D. Diesel cycle efficiency is higher than
D. The amount of force it takes to move a that of other five
physical object.
159. The operation of a commercial nuclear re-
154. Underfeed mechanism is best suited for actor requires an isotope that will undergo
A. Peat and Lignite A. fission and a controlled chain reaction
B. Bituminous and semi bituminous B. fission and an uncontrolled chain reac-
C. peat and bituminous tion
D. all of the above C. fusion and a controlled chain reaction

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6.1 Basics 743

D. fusion and an uncontrolled chain reac- 166. Alternators are rated in

tion
A. kVA.

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160. Which of these components on the boiler B. kW.
is used to recover the waste heat of the
flue gases for heating feed water? C. kVAR.

A. Super heater D. HP.

B. Economizer 167. Control rods in nuclear reactors are com-
C. Pre heater monly made of boron and cadmium be-
cause these two elements have the ability
D. Fusible plug
to
161. What is the ideal site for power plant? A. absorb neutrons
A. In hilly regions
B. emit neutrons
B. On islands
C. decrease the speed of neutrons
C. Near water resources
D. increase the speed of neutrons
D. In centre lands
168. Which of the following statement is true?
162. The modern steam turbines are
I. In homogeneous reactors the nuclear
A. Impulse turbine fuel and the moderator represents a uni-
B. Reaction turbine form mixture in the fluid form.II. In het-
erogeneous reactors separate fuel sludge
C. Impulse-reaction turbine
or roads are inserted in the moderator
D. None
A. Only statement I and II are true
163. In India largest thermal power station is B. Only statement I and III are true
located at
C. Only statement II and III are true
A. Kota
D. Only statement III is true
B. Sarni
C. Chandrapur 169. Which of the following as referred to
D. Neyveli steam boiler are defined as mountings?
A. Safety valve
164. Surge tank is for the protection of
B. Economizer
A. Dam
B. Spillways C. Air pre heater
C. Penstock D. Stop valve
D. Headworks 170. Nuclear Power Plants have many advan-
165. Define the boiler terminology MCR: tages. One of those advantages is

A. Maximum concentration rating A. nuclear weapons

B. Maximum rating B. nuclear waste
C. Maximum continuous rating C. reduced CO2 emissions
D. None of the above D. reactor meltdowns

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6.1 Basics 744

171. The alternator is used in power plants 176. How do Wind tribunes generate electric
which converts A. Giant magnets spins around the coils
A. Electrical Energy into Mechanical En- to generate energy
ergy B. Giant Wind Tribunes does not generate
B. Electrical energy into Solar Energy electric

C. Mechanical Energy into Electrical En- C. Wind Trubines takes nitrogen atoms
ergy from the air and burn them to create heat,

NARAYAN CHANGDER
after Wind tribune uses that herat to gen-
D. Mechanical Energy into Nuclear En- erate electric
ergy
D. none of above
172. The probability of knocking in diesel en- 177. Which of the following equipment is used
gines is increased by for boiling water treatment?
A. high self-ignition temperature A. Pyrometer
B. low volatility B. Dearater
C. high viscosity C. Hydrometer
D. all of the mentioned D. None of the above

173. The efficiency of chimney is approxi- 178. A gas turbine works on

mately A. Carnot cycle
A. 20% B. Brayton cycle
B. 90% C. Dual cycle
C. 10% D. Rankine cycle

D. 65% 179. Besides Coal and natural gas, another

fossil fuel is
174. Draught produced by chimney is de- A. Petroleum/Oil
scribed as:
B. Biomass
A. Induced draught
C. Electricity
B. Natural draught
D. Uranium
C. Forced draught
180. Turbines with how many propellers are
D. Balanced draught used in order to avoid vibrations?
175. Which substance can be used as both a A. 1
coolant and a moderator in a nuclear reac- B. 2
tor?
C. 3
A. graphite D. 4
B. carbon dioxide
181. Useful life time of Condenser in a power
C. heavy water plant
D. helium A. 10 Years

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6.1 Basics 745

B. 20 Years 187. What is Nuclear Waste? (2 answers)

C. 30 Years A. Nuclear plants give off nuclear waste

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D. 40 Years B. Nuclear waste is radioactive waves
C. Nuclear waste is a game
182. Evaporation ratio is defined as:
D. Nuclear waste is from the ground
A. Quantity of steam generation / Quan-
tity of fuel consumption 188. Artificial draught is produced by

B. Quantity of fuel consumption / Quan- A. Forced fan

tity of steam generation B. Induced fan
C. 1 / Quantity of fuel consumption C. Induced and forced fan
D. 1 / Quantity of steam generation D. All
189. All of the following are renewable except
183. Fuel cell performance is not limited by
A. Uranium
A. First law of Thermodynamics
B. Solar
B. Second law of Thermodynamics
C. Hydropower
C. Third law of Thermodynamics D. Food Crops (Biomass)
D. All three laws are applicablev
190. India first nuclear power plant was in-
184. One gram of uranium will produce energy stalled at
equivalent to approximately A. Tarapore
A. 1 Ton of high grade coal B. Kota
B. 4-5 Ton of high grade coal C. Kalpakkam
C. 10 Ton of high grade coal D. None

D. 100 Ton of high grade coal 191. Annual depreciation as per straight line
method, is calculated by
185. Rankine efficiency of a steam power A. The capital cost divided by number of
plant years of life
A. improves in summer as compared to B. The capital cost minus the salvage
that in winter value, is divided by the number Years of
B. improves in winter as compared to that life
in summer C. Investing a uniform sum of money per
C. is unaffected by climatic conditions annum at stipulated rate of interest.
D. none of the above D. None
192. The most common method(s) used for
186. The compression ratio is the ratio of
burning of coal is (are)
A. Swept volume to total volume A. Stroker firing
B. Total volume to swept volume B. Pulverized fuel firing
C. Total volume to clearance volume C. both (A) and (B)
D. None D. None of the above

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6.1 Basics 746

193. Nuclear power plants are usually good to 199. In India the tariff for charging the con-
operate for about sumers or the consumption of electricity is
A. 30-40 years based on
A. straight meter rate
B. 10 years
B. block meter rate
C. 100 years
C. reverse form of block meter rate
D. 90 years
D. two part tariff

NARAYAN CHANGDER
194. In regenerative cycle feed water is
heated by 200. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by

A. exhaust gases A. 1 to 5%
B. 4 to 10%
B. heaters
C. 10 to 12%
C. draining steam from the turbine
D. none of above
D. all above
201. In India, largest thermal power station is
195. What spins the turbine? located at
A. Air A. Kota
B. Water B. Sarni
C. Steam C. Chandrapur
D. Cold air D. Nevyeli

196. The concentration of which gas is highest 202. Junker’s calorimeter is used to determine
in our environment? the calorific value of
A. Oxygen A. Gaseous fuels only
B. Hydrogen B. Solid fuels only
C. Nitrogen C. Liquid fuels only
D. Carbon dioxide D. All of the above

197. Belt conveyer can be used to transport 203. Which type of transportation system is
coal at inclinations upto ideal for transporting coal directly to the
point of consumption?
A. 30◦
A. Road transportation
B. 60◦
B. Sea or river transportation
C. 80◦ C. Transportation by rail
D. 90◦ D. Transportation by air
198. Nuclear Power’s source comes from 204. Which is not a boiler accessory
A. Uranium or Plutonium A. Super heater
B. Coal B. Economizer
C. Natural Gas C. Air preheater
D. Oil and/or Coal D. Pressure gauge

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 6.2 Fuels and Combustion 747

205. The commercial sources of energy are C. Hiring employees

A. solar, wind and biomass D. none of above

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B. fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear
energy 207. Which is a benefit of using nuclear
power?
C. wood, animal wastes and agriculture
wastes A. Makes us less reliant on fossil fuels
D. none of the above B. Exposes workers to hazards in nuclear
206. What is the first step to generating elec- facilities
tricity? C. Generates radioactive nuclear waste
A. Creation of steam D. Causes thermal pollution to water sys-
B. Finding the coal tems

6.2 Fuels and Combustion

1. Ignition temperature is B. oxygen
A. Lowest temperature at catch fire C. dust
B. Higher temperature at catch fire D. carrots
C. Any temperature
5. Where does fusion occur naturally?
D. None of these
A. Underwater
2. Which of the following reactions produces
calcium oxide? B. All around us
A. calcium and oxide C. In the radioactive waste
B. calcium and water D. On the sun
C. calcium and air
6. Which of the following is inflammable Sub-
D. calcium and oxygen stances?
3. Incomplete combustion is harmful to hu- A. Paper
mans because it
B. Straw
A. increases the level of sugar in the
blood C. Wood
B. produces large amounts of carbon D. Petrol
dioxide
7. Water cannot be used as a fire extin-
C. decreases the amount of sugar in the
guisher to put out.
blood
D. produces carbon monoxide that re- A. Burning charcoal
duces the level of oxygen in the blood B. Burning oil
4. What are the reactants in rust? C. Burning paper
A. iron D. Burning cloth

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 748

8. Which of the following is the product of C. paints

the reaction of aluminium and oxygen? D. stoves
A. aluminium oxide.
14. In the presence of water, ignition Temper-
B. metal oxide ature of paper is-
C. aluminium ore A. Decrease
D. aluminium and oxygen B. Increase
C. Remain constant

NARAYAN CHANGDER
9. How are metal oxides formed?
D. None of these
A. When metals react with oxide.
B. When metals react with water. 15. How do nuclear power-plants work?

C. When metals react with air. A. Fusion

B. Half-life
D. When metals react with oxygen.
C. Fission
10. Why are fossils fuels so widely used? D. Fusion or fission
A. They are renewable so they won’t run
16. Formed from dead marine organisms
out.
A. Oil and Natural Gas
B. They pollution they produce is less
compared to renewable energy sources. B. Coal
C. They are easy to obtain and process. C. Fossil Fuels
D. They don’t disrupt the environment D. none of above
when mined from the earth. 17. What is the main chemical component
present in striking surface of a match
11. Three things that are needed for combus-
box?
tion are:
A. Potassium Chlorate
A. oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide
B. Phosphorous
B. fuel, oxygen and carbon dioxide
C. Potassium
C. fuel, heat and oxygen
D. Graphite
D. fuel, heat and carbon dioxide
18. is used to extinguish fire
12. Burning of charcoal in a closed room will A. Oxygen
produce
B. Hydrogen
A. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen dioxide
D. None of these
C. Carbon Monoxide
19. What is NOT product of complete combus-
D. All of these tion?
13. Hydrogen gas obtained from natural gas is A. carbon dioxide
used in B. water
A. motor fuel C. carbon monoxide
B. fertilizers D. none of above

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 749

20. Shyam was cooking potato curry on a C. 100-% (ash-moisture) + %volatile

chulha. To his surprise he observed that matter
the copper vessel was getting blackened

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. 100-% (moisture + volatile matter)
from outside. It may be due to:
A. proper combustion of fuel. 26. Out of these, which is able to control
fires?
B. improper cooking of potato curry.
C. improper combustion of the fuel. A. Oxygen

D. burning of copper vessel. B. Carbon dioxide

C. Nitrogen
21. The coal is mainly
D. All of the above
A. Carbon
B. Nitrogen 27. How much percent is this gas responsible
C. Oxygen for global warming?

D. Sulphur A. 78%
B. 94%
22. Which of the following substance is non-
combustible C. 87%
A. Wood D. 46%
B. Biogas
28. CNG is
C. Kerosene oil
A. highly polluting
D. A piece of stone
B. less polluting
23. Refining is C. not at all polluting
A. extracting petroleum gas
D. none of these
B. separation of various fractions of
petroleum 29. When a candle burns, the substance that
burns is:
C. heating of coal
D. sedimentation of fossil fuel A. Wick
B. Solid Wax
24. In India, vast reserves of natural gas are
found in C. Liquid Wax
A. Tripura D. Wax Vapours
B. Rajasthan 30. magnesium + oxygen → magnesium ox-
C. Maharashtra ideIf you started with 5g of magnesium
D. All of these and 2.5g of oxygen, what mass of magne-
sium oxide would be produced?
25. In proximate analysis of coal, %fixed car-
A. 5g
bon = a) b) c) d)
B. 2.5g
A. 100-% (ash + volatile matter + mois-
ture) C. 7.5g
B. 100-% (ash + moisture) D. 10g

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 750

31. Calculate the maximum theoretical temper- 36. Oil formation occurs where, millions of
ature (t) attained when hydrogen is burnt years ago, there were large oceans. This
in oxygen . The heat of combustion of hy- is because oceans have-
drogen to water vapour is 57.8 Kcals. The A. waves that are constantly moving
specific heat of water vapour is [ 0.463 +
6.2x 10-5 t] t cals/g. B. great numbers of tiny marine animals

A. 4580 0 C C. currents that mix the water thoroughly

B. 4480 0 C D. deep caverns where no light can reach

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 4308 0 C 37. When are oxides of sulpher and nitrogen
realesed?
D. 4380 0 C
A. burning of fossil fuel
32. The ignition temperatures of four sub-
B. burning of coal
stances, P, Q, R, and S, are 125oC, 270oC,
155oC, and 310oC respectively. Which of C. burning of fuel
the following pairs of substances catches D. burning of wood
fire at 250oC?
38. What does incomplete combustion produce
A. Q and S
that complete combustion doesn’t?
B. P and R
A. Carbon Monoxide
C. R and S B. Water
D. P and Q C. Heat
33. What type of fuel is coal? D. Carbon Dioxide
A. Cooking fuel 39. When water is poured over burning wood,
B. Factory Fuel the fire goes off. This is because
C. Household fuel A. (a) The temperature of water goes up
D. Industrial Fuel B. (b) The temperature of wood decrease
C. c) Molecules of water reacts with with
34. Which of the following fuel has highest oxygen present in the flame.
calorific value?
D. (d) The flame vaporizes.
A. Wood
B. coal 40. What is a problem that is linked to the
burning of fossil fuels?
C. Hydrogen
A. Global Warming
D. petrol
B. geothermal energy
35. If heamoglobin is affected then what de- C. solar power panels
creases in our body?
D. none of the above
A. C02
41. Which of the following method can be used
B. H20
to extinguish a flame?
C. 02 A. Reduce temperature below the igni-
D. none of above tion temperature

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 751

B. Remove combustible substance 46. Full form of LPG

C. Cut off air supply A. Light petroleum gas

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. All of them B. Liquified petroleum gas

42. The rusting of iron is an example of C. Long pipe of gas

A. a reduction reaction. D. Long petroleum gas

B. an oxidation reaction. 47. Fuel formed under the earth’s surface by
C. a reaction of iron with water. the decomposition of organic matter is
called
D. a reaction that dissolves iron.
A. organic fuel
43. Moderately hot zone in a candle flame
B. biogas
A. outer zone
C. fossil fuel
B. middle zone
D. underground fuel
C. innermost zone
D. none of above 48. What causes negative ions to be attracted
to the cathode of a primary cell while the
44. When water is poured over burning wood, cell is discharging?
the fire is extinguished. This is because A. A negative charge caused by a loss of
A. (a) The temperature of water goes up electrons
B. (b) The temperature of wood decrease B. A positive charge caused by an excess
of electrons
C. c) Molecules of water reacts with with
oxygen present in the flame. C. A positive charge caused by a loss of
electrons
D. (d) The flame vaporizes.
D. A negative charge caused by an excess
45. Two friends Gaurav and Samik took two of electrons
glass plates and two lighted candles. Gau-
rav held the glass plate inside the flame of 49. The total amount of heat or energy pro-
the candle and Samik held it slightly above duced by one kg of fuel is the
the candle flame. Which of the following
A. heat content
statements is correct?
A. Both Gaurav’s and Samik’s glass B. net calorific value (NCV)
plates will get blackish soot deposition C. gross calorific value(GCV)
B. Neither Samik’s nor Gaurav’s glass D. specific heat
plate will have blackish soot deposition.
C. Gaurav’s glass plate will have black- 50. Acid rain is caused by oxides of
ish soot deposition but Samik’s glass plate A. sulphur, nitrogen
will not.
B. sulphur, carbon
D. Samik’s glass plate will have blackish
C. carbon, nitrogen
soot deposition but Gaurav’s glass plate
will not D. phosphorous, carbon

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 752

51. The products of combustion are C. Powder

A. Carbon dioxide and water D. Liquid
B. Oxygen and water 57. Which one of the following is not a fossil
C. Only carbon dioxide fuel?
D. Only oxygen A. Wood
B. Coal
52. Which one of the following is com-
C. Petroleum

NARAYAN CHANGDER
bustible?
D. Natural Gas
A. Iron nail
B. Glass 58. What are the three basic parts of a cell

C. Stone pieces A. Anode, load, depolarizer

B. Electrodes, electrolyte, container
D. Paper
C. Electrodes, acid, water
53. PCRA stands for D. Anode, cathode, ions
A. pollution control research association
59. When magnesium ribbon burnt it produce
B. petroleum conversation research as-
A. (a) Magnesium hydroxide
sociation
B. b) Magnesium oxide
C. petroleum control research associ-
ated C. (c) Magnesium chloride
D. petrol, coal reserve associated D. (d) Magnesium sulphate
60. Good quality of coal should have % of
54. the octane number, the more compres-
oxygen.
sion the fuel can withstand before detonat-
ing. A. low
A. Minimum B. high

B. Lower C. 100
D. 0
C. Higher
D. Stable 61. The lead-acid cell is an example of which
of the following types of cells
55. What is affected when the carbon monox- A. The dry cell
ide enters the body
B. The primary cell
A. hemoglobin
C. The voltaic cell
B. lungs
D. The secondary cell
C. heart
62. Fuels with lower octane numbers are ideal
D. kidney for engines
56. In a dry cell, what is the consistency of the A. Gasoline
electrolyte? B. Petrol
A. Paste C. Diesel
B. Solid D. CNG

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 753

63. which substance give heat and light after D. Substance P is undergoing sponta-
combustion neous combustion, Q is undergoing rapid
combustion while R is undergoing explo-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Flame
sion.
B. Fuel
C. Combustion 67. Larger and irregular lumps of solid fuel
(e.g. coal) when fired in a boiler or fur-
D. None of these which substance give nace may lead to
heat and light after combustion
A. low thermal efficiency
64. The splitting of a nucleus into smaller nu- B. high excess air
clei is
C. large unburnt particles in the ash
A. fusion
D. all of the above
B. fission
C. half-life 68. Which of the forms of coal has highest per-
centage of carbon?
D. gamma radiation
A. Anthracite
65. Which of these can be used in case of an
B. Bituminous
electric fire?
C. Peat
A. Water
D. Lignite
B. Soda-acid fire extinguisher
C. Carbon di oxide fire extinguisher 69. Like fuel the sun also provides heat and
D. Sand light. The process taking place in the sun
is called
66. Rajiv took three substances P, Q, and R A. Combustion
and burnt them one by one. He noted
down his observations given below. I. B. Nuclear process
Substance P bums quickly producing heat C. Burning
and light. II. Substance Q bums in room
D. All of these
temperature on its own. III. Substance
R bums with the evolution of heat, light, 70. What is the colour of a luminous flame?
and sound. Which of the following state-
ments regarding the given information is A. Blue
correct? B. Black
A. Substances P and Q are undergoing C. Yellow
rapid combustion whereas R is undergo- D. Red
ing explosion.
B. Substances P and R are undergoing 71. Which zone of a flame does a goldsmith
spontaneous combustion whereas Q is un- use for melting gold and silver?
dergoing rapid combustion. A. Outer zone
C. Substance P is undergoing rapid com- B. Middle zone
bustion, Q is undergoing spontaneous
combustion while R is undergoing explo- C. Inner zone
sion. D. All of the above

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 754

72. Where is Kerosene Oil used? 78. Which of the following properties is NOT
A. Buses a characteristic of a good fuel?

B. Thermoelectric Power Plants A. High Ignition temperature

B. Low cost
C. Airplanes
C. Causes minimum pollution
D. Wick stoves and Pressure stoves
D. Readily available
73. Which of the following is not a primary

NARAYAN CHANGDER
fuel? 79. How long does it take for fossil fuels to
form?
A. Animal dung
A. Millions of years
B. Charcoal
B. 2 days
C. Wood
C. 1 day
D. Coal
D. 5 weeks
74. What are the effects of C02?
80. What was the chemical name given to
A. global warming Rust?
B. deforestation A. Carbon
C. flood B. Iron Oxide
D. greenhouse gases increases C. Iron Oxygen
75. . Fire extinguishers D. Magnesium Oxide
A. Cut off the supply of air 81. The unit of energy is a
B. Bring down the temperature of fuel A. megajoule
C. Both (a) & (b) B. Joule
D. None of these C. gram

76. Select the following Pros (Advantages) of D. specific heat

using Wind Energy: 82. Which poisonous gas is formed as a result
A. Renewable of incomplete combustion?
B. It’s a Green Energy A. nitrogen oxide
C. Noise B. carbon monoxide
D. How they look C. Carbon dioxide
D. coal gas
77. Which of the following are true about
LEAD? 83. n which form the calorific value repre-
A. they affect the respiraory system sent?
B. They are produced by burning fuel in A. kilogram
vehicle B. (kJ/kg)
C. they can cuase cancer C. gram
D. they are not poisonous D. both 1 & 3

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 755

84. Which of the following substances not re- 90. An example of a secondary cell is:
quired for combustion?
A. A button cell

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Oxygen
B. An alkaline cell
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. A fuel cell
C. Fuel
D. Heat D. A car battery

85. What is the order of the coefficients for 91. Full form of CNG
this balanced equation. C4H10 + O2 →
A. Condensed neuro gas
CO2 + H2O
A. 1, 1, 4, 1 B. Carbon Nitrogen Gas
B. 1, 5.5, 4, 6 C. Compressed Natural Gas
C. 2, 11, 8, 12 D. Condensed Natural Gas
D. 2, 2, 8, 2
92. Which of these is not a fossil fuel?
86. In this chemical reaction, which is the prod-
uct/s? Magnesium + Oxygen → Magne- A. Coal
sium oxide B. Oil
A. magnesium C. Electricity
B. magnesium and oxygen
D. Natural Gas
C. magnesium oxide
D. oxygen 93. CNG and LPG are the examples of

87. Good ideal fuel is A. Solid fuels

A. Readily available B. Liquid fuels
B. Cheap C. Gaseous fuels
C. Burn easily in air D. They are not fuels
D. All of the above
94. What is called ‘black gold’?
88. Which of the following not derived from
fissile fuel? A. Petroleum
A. LPG B. Coal
B. Diesel C. Coal tar
C. Kerosene D. Natural gas
D. Biogas
95. What does Combustion produce?
89. Ideal fuel has calorific value
A. Energy
A. Zero
B. Low B. Carbon Dioxide

C. Moderate C. Water Vapor

D. High D. All of these

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 756

96. In which form the colfloric value repre- 101. During the process of Combustion which
sent? gas does fuel react with?
A. (kJ/kg) A. Hydrogen
B. gram B. Oxygen
C. kilogram C. Nitrogen
D. both 1 & 3 D. Helium

NARAYAN CHANGDER
97. An example of an uncontrolled fission re-
102. With respect to recharging a primary
action is
or secondary cell, of the following state-
A. Nuclear power plants ments, which one is correct?
B. Radio active decay A. The secondary cell can be recharged
C. Atomic Bomb by passing current through it in the proper
direction
D. On the surface of the sun
B. The primary cell can only be recharged
98. On placing an inverted tumbler over a by changing the electrolyte
burning candle, the flame extinguishes
after some time. This is because of C. The primary cell can be recharged by
non-availability of (a) oxygen (b) water passing current through it in the proper di-
vapours (c) rection

A. oxygen D. The secondary cell can only be

recharged by changing the electrodes
B. water vapour
C. carbon dioxide 103. Which zone represents the partial com-
bustion in candle flame?
D. wax
A. Outer Zone
99. The Number is animportant factor in
determining the quality of diesel fuel B. Middle Zone

A. Octane C. Innermost Zone

B. Cetane D. None of the above

C. Cracking 104. Which is not combustible substance
D. Combustion A. Wood
100. Which of the following defines oxida- B. Cow dung cake
tion?
C. stone
A. A chemical reaction where a sub-
D. paper
stance gains oxygen.
B. A chemical reaction where a sub- 105. The burning of LPG is an example of:
stance loses oxygen.
A. Spontaneous combustion
C. A chemical reaction where a sub-
B. Rapid combustion
stance loses a metal.
C. Explosion
D. A chemical reaction where a sub-
stance gains a metal. D. Slow combustion

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 757

106. The substance that catches fire sponta- 111. Fuel may be
neously in presence of air, at room tem- A. Solid
perature is

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Liquid
A. White phosphorous
C. Gas
B. Rhombic Sulphur
D. All of the three
C. Calcium
112. The combustion of hydrocarbons pro-
D. Iron
duces 2 things:
107. Which type of fire extinguisher should be A. nitrogen and carbon dioxide
used on a fire involving flammable liquids
B. water and hydrogen
such as grease or oil?
C. nitrogen and hydrogen
A. Water
D. water and carbon dioxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Soda acid 113. Burning of which of the following fuels
produce the least amount of carbon diox-
D. Dry chemical ide per unit of energy
108. An ideal fuel is cheap, readily available, A. Coal
easily combustible and easy to transport. B. Oil
It has high calorific value. It does not
C. Natural gas
produce gases or residues that pollute the
environment. Based on the above state- D. All of these produce same amount of
ments which of the following is closest to CO2
being an ideal fuel?
114. What is coal made of?
A. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)
A. decomposed plant remains
B. Kerosene
B. decomposed sea creatures
C. Petrol C. lava
D. Coal D. all of the above
109. The waste materials produced by Com- 115. The substances which have very low ig-
bustion? nition temperature will
A. Helium A. Catch fire easily
B. Carbon Dioxide B. Will not catch fire
C. Oxygen C. Catch fire after some time
D. Nitrogen D. None of these
110. Cetane number is an indicator of the 116. happens naturally due to an unstable
speed of diesel fuel nucleus.
A. Engine A. fission
B. Transmission B. fusion
C. Combustion C. radioactive decay
D. Motor D. K-capture

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 758

117. In analysis of coal, determination of C. Moisture and pressure

is done by Kjeldahl’s method.
D. Cool and moist
A. Volatile matter
B. Nitrogen 123. When a cracker is ignited, a sudden reac-
tion takes place with the evolution of heat,
C. Ash
light and sound. Identify the type of com-
D. Oxygen bustion?
118. Which of the following is an example of A. Explosion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
an oxidation reaction? B. Random combustion
A. Ca + O2 → CaO
C. Rapid combustion
B. Na2O + H2O → NaOH
D. Spontaneous combustion
C. Fe2O3 + CO → Fe + CO2
D. All of the choices are oxidation reac- 124. In determination of carbon and hydrogen
tions. by ultimate analysis, increase in weight of
calcium chloride bulb represents
119. When a substance combines fast with
oxygen giving heat, the phenomenon is A. weight of water formed
known as B. weight of carbon dioxide formed
A. Ignition C. carbon
B. Solidification
D. hydrogen
C. Vaporisation
D. Combustion 125. CO 2 is stored as a liquid in cylinder at
A. high pressure
120. Hydrogen is considered as the best fuel
in terms of: B. low pressure
A. High Ignition temperature C. high temperature
B. High Calorific value D. low temperature
C. Low Calorific value
D. Rapid Combustion 126. Hydrocarbons are fuels containing only:
A. carbon and oxygen
121. is the weight of residue obtained af-
ter burning a weighed amount of dry coal. B. carbon and hydrogen
A. Ash C. carbon dioxide and hydrogen
B. Volatile matter D. hydrogen and nitrogen
C. Moisture
127. What do they affect?
D. Carbon
A. nervous system
122. What conditions are needed to form
coal? B. cardiovascular system
A. Heat and pressure C. respiratory system
B. Heat D. none of above

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 759

128. Cons (Disadvantages) of using Solar En- 133. Which is main constituents of biogas
ergy include:SELECT ALL THAT APPLY A. Nitrogen

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A. It’s Renewable B. Sulphur
B. Expensive to Install C. Methane
C. It is not a constant source of energy D. Ethane
D. All the Above
134. Bitumen is used in
129. What is produced when combustable sub- A. electric generators
stance is in the vapour state and burn
strongly in the presence of of air? B. road surfacing

A. heat C. Coal tar

B. light D. natural gas

C. flame 135. Fuels with a higher octane rating are used

D. fumes in high-performance engines
A. Petrol
130. . If a person’s clothes catches fire, the
best way to extinguish the fire is to: B. Gasoline

A. throw water on the clothes. C. Diesel

B. Use fire extinguisher D. CNG

C. Cover the person with a woolen blan- 136. Which is the hottest part in the flame of
ket the candle
D. cover the person with polythene A. Yellow
Sheet. B. Wax part
131. A piece of paper wrapped on an alu- C. Black
minium pipe does not catch fire easily. D. Blue
Why?
A. Paper is non-combustible in nature 137. During the burning of a candle, the sub-
stance that burns is the:
B. Aluminium is non-combustible in na-
ture A. wick

C. Aluminium pipe does not attain its igni- B. solid wax

tion temperature C. liquid wax
D. Paper wrapped around the pipe does D. wax vapours
not attain its ignition temperature
138. For a fuel to react it must be in the pres-
132. There are following zones of a flame ence of?
A. Two A. water
B. Three B. oxygen
C. Four C. carbon dioxide
D. No any zone D. none of above

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6.2 Fuels and Combustion 760

139. . When a cracker is ignited, a sudden re- 144. Which of these are inexhaustible natural
action takes place with the evolution of resources
heat, light and sound. A large amount of A. Sunlight
gas liberated during this reaction. Such a
B. Coal
reaction is called explosion.
C. Wildlife
A. Explosion
D. Forest/ Minerals
B. Rapid Combustion
145. Calculate the theoretical weight and vol-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Spontaneous Combustion
ume of air at NTP, required for the com-
D. Fire plete combustion of 1 kg of coke
140. A piece of paper wrapped around an alu- A. 8889 liters
minium pipe does not catch fire easily. B. 8789 liters
Which of the following reasons supports C. 8989 liters
the above information?
D. 9899 liters
A. Paper is non-combustible in nature
146. Which of the following is fuel of our
B. Aluminium is non-combustible in na- body?
ture
A. Petrol
C. Aluminium pipe does not attain its igni-
B. Diesel
tion temperature
C. Food
D. Paper wrapped around the pipe does
not attain its ignition temperature D. Water
147. Petrol can be saved by
141. Good fuel is
A. driving at a constant & moderate
A. Readily available
speed
B. Cheap B. ensuring correct type pressure
C. Burn easily in air C. switching off the engine at traffic
D. All of these lights
D. all of these
142. Among other things a good fuel should
have a 148. When coal is burnt in air is formed.
A. High calorific value A. CO
B. High temperature B. CO2
C. Low calorific value C. NO
D. NO2
D. Low temperature
149. Name the gas known to be the supporter
143. Combustion is a of combustion:
A. Chemical process A. Carbon dioxide
B. Physical process B. Oxygen
C. Both of these processes C. Hydrogen
D. None of these processes D. None of the aove

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 6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 761

6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

1. Making a Water Cycle Model1. Add soil B. both are forms of water vapor in the
to a plastic cup.2. Place an ice cube on atmosphere
the soil.3. Use plastic wrap to seal the C. both are forms of water that flow over
top of the cup.4. Place the cup in a loca- Earth’s surface
tion with direct sunlight.Which statement
is the BEST comparison between Earth’s D. both are forms of water that move
water cycle and the model described? through the water cycle

A. The water evaporates down into the 6. On which kind of day would you expect
model’s soil, instead of into the air. the most evaporation from the surface of
B. The ice cube in the model represents a pond?
condensation in Earth’s water cycle. A. cold, rainy
C. When the ice melts, it will model infil- B. cold, sunny
tration as it absorbs into the soil. C. warm, rainy
D. Condensation occurs in the model’s D. warm, sunny
soil, like it occurs in clouds for Earth.
7. I contribute to the water vapor in the air
2. Oxygen is a gas produced by and used and I also make ice convert into water va-
by por I also accelerate when pressure is high
A. plants and animals or low.What phase am I
B. photosynthesis and carbon dioxide A. Evaporation
C. animals and plants B. condensation
D. carbon dioxide and photosynthesis C. sublimation
D. runoff
3. What do you need for evaporation to oc-
cur? 8. Why need Rankine cycle?
A. Kool-Aid A. Needs a more work to produce power
B. Water and Sun B. Needs a more work (bigger pump) to
C. Sugar and Water compress a wet steam compare to satu-
rated water.
D. Air
C. It is difficult to start evaporation at
4. What drives the water cycle? point 1
A. water D. It is difficult to stop condensation at
B. thermal energy from the sun the point 3 (wet steam) andcompress to
point 4 (saturated water).
C. gravity
D. condensation 9. Which example is a form of precipitation?
A. Dew
5. In which ways are precipitation and runoff
similar? B. Fog
A. both are forms of liquid water in the C. Frost
atmosphere D. Hail

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 762

10. With greater difference in temperature be- C. greater than 0 and less than 1
tween the water vapour & the cooler con- D. greater than 1
tact surface
A. the rate of evaporation will increase 16. What is a layer of rock or sediment that
holds water?
B. the rate of condensation will increase
A. glacier
C. the rate of condensation will decrease
B. well

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. aquifer
D. none of above
D. natural spring
11. Inside feedwater heater, heat lost by the
bled steam is 17. How are the effect of reheat and effect
of regeneration on the efficiency of steam
A. less than heat gained by water
power plant compared?
B. equal to heat gained by water
A. effect of reheat is greater that the ef-
C. greater than heat gained by water fect of regeneration on plant efficiency
D. none of above B. effect of regeneration is greater that
the effect of reheat on plant efficiency
12. what is the speed of GasTurbine rotor
Shaft for 50 hertz? C. both the reheat and regeneration have
same effect on efficiency of steam power
A. 3000 RPM plant
B. 2500 RPM D. cannot say
C. 5000 RPM
18. Who proposed that matter was formed of
D. 3600 RPM small indivisible particles?
13. Rain, hail, sleet and snow are all examples A. Dalton
of B. Democritus
A. deposition. C. Thomson
B. frozen water. D. Chadwick
C. precipitation. 19. Where does Nitrogen fixation occur?
D. tornado warning signs. A. on the roots on some plants
14. How is the capacity of vapour power plant B. inside our bodies
expressed? C. in the atmosphere
A. in terms of heat rate D. Nitrogen fixation does not occur
B. in terms of steam rate
20. What are the steps in forming a snowflake
C. in terms of work output
A. the clouds form snow, the snow forms
D. none of the above into a snowflake after melting a little, the
snowflake falls as precipitation
15. Dryness fraction of wet steam is
B. a particle evaporates, the particle col-
A. 0 lects water vapor, water vapor sticks into
B. 1 a hexagonal form, water vapor keeps

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 763

sticking to form branches, the snowflake 26. Mark the correct statement. In Mollier
falls as precipitation. chart,

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C. A particle melts into a hexagonal form, A. hf can be read
water vapor sticks which forms branches, B. vf can be read
lastly the snowflake falls as precipitation
C. both can be read
D. none of above
D. neither hf nor vf can be read
21. Oceans, the atmosphere, and groundwater
are all in the water cycle. 27. After taking a shower, you go to comb
your hair, but can’t see your reflection in
A. Nodes
the mirror, because it’s all fogged over.
B. Sinks What has the water vapor from your hot
C. Reservoirs shower done to your bathroom mirror?
What part of the water cycle does this rep-
D. Stations
resent?
22. Most of the energy that drives the water A. The water has evaporated on the
cycle comes from mirror-evaporation.
A. the sun B. The steam from your shower has pre-
B. Earth’s 4 cores cipitated on the mirror-precipitation.
C. Earth’s Oceans C. The water is running down the mirror-
D. The Equator run-off.
D. The steam has cooled and condensed
23. In real time steam power plant, tempera- onto the mirror-condensation.
ture of steam entering turbine is
A. less than 300 C 28. What is the correct order of the water cy-
cle?
B. between 500 and 600 C
A. cloud, water vapor, rain,
C. above 900
B. water vapor, cloud, rain
D. between 800 and 900 C
C. rain, cloud, water vapor
24. What is Accumulation
D. water vapor, rain, cloud
A. Rain, snow, sleet, and hail
B. Water turning into a gas 29. Animals obtain the nitrogen they need di-
rectly from the
C. The water cycle as one
A. soil in their habitat
D. The collection of water into rivers,
lakes, and oceans B. air they breathe
C. plants they eat
25. When liquid is changed into a gas, it is
called D. bacteria living within them
A. condensation 30. What word best describes when liquid wa-
B. evaporation ter turns into a gas (water vapor).
C. weathering A. condensation
D. erosion B. precipitation

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 764

C. evaporation 36. *What is the main factor that controls

D. sublimation change of state?

31. Explain the process in pump/compressor A. Heat/temperature changes

A. Isentropic expansion takes place and B. Pressure changes

produce work C. Density changes
B. The heat energy is supplied resulting
D. Time changes
in evaporation of the water, therefore the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
temperature remains constant.
37. Place the following scientists in order,
C. Isentropic compression of the wet from earliest to latest:A) Ernest Ruther-
steam returns the steam to its initial fordB) J.J. ThomsonC) John Dalton
state.
A. B, C, A
D. condensation takes place, therefore
the temperature remains constant. B. A, C, B
32. Which loss does present in actual vapour C. C, A, B
power cycle at the exit of the boiler and
D. C, B, A
at the entry of the turbine?
A. friction loss 38. Rankine cycle is a
B. constant pressure heat loss A. practical and ideal cycle
C. both a. and b.
B. ideal cycle
D. none of the above
C. practical cycle
33. The water cycle starts at
D. none of the answer
A. evaporation
B. condensation 39. At which temperature does liquid water
C. precipitation boil?
D. it has not beginning or ending A. 0 F and 32 C
34. Which of the following is an example of B. 32 F and 212 C
precipitation?
C. 100 C and 212 F
A. sleet
D. 32 F and 100 F
B. hail
C. snow 40. Which among the following has the lowest
D. all of the above efficiency than the others, when they are
operated between same pressures?
35. How much of our planet is estimated to be
covered with water? A. Ideal Rankine cycle
A. 68% B. Ideal regenerative cycle
B. 50% C. Carnot cycle
C. 97% D. None. All of the above have same effi-
D. 75% ciency

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 765

41. What is transpiration? ? ? 46. Which best explains why runoff is impor-
A. the process by which plants give off tant?

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moisture into the atmosphere A. It returns water to other locations on
Earth
B. the force of gravity pulling mass to-
wards the center of the earth B. It increases the chance of flooding
C. Liquid to gas C. It makes evaporation occur faster
D. The transfer of heat in a gas or liquid, D. It increases condensation
warmer material rises and cooler falls
47. All of the following are examples of pre-
causing an cycle
cipitation except
42. When water condenses, the liquid water A. rain
particles form B. condensation
A. water vapor C. snow
B. steam D. hail
C. air
48. What are the 4 forms of precipitation?
D. clouds A. rain, sleet, snow, puddles
43. Choose the right sequence for the process B. rain, sleet, snow, thunder
in power plant C. rain, sleet, snow, hail
A. Boiler-Turbine-Condenser-Pump D. none of above
B. Condenser-Boiler-Pump-Turbine
49. Rankine cycle is a
C. Pump-Turbine-Boiler-Condenser
A. gas power cycle
D. Turbine-Condenser-Boiler-Pump B. Vapour power cycle
44. Where does the energy that powers the C. Dual cycle
water cycle come from? D. none of the above
A. plants
50. Steam turbine utilises what to rotate?
B. animals
A. water steam
C. electrical outlets B. natural Gas
D. the sun C. Coal fired fuel
45. What role does the Sun play in the water D. nuclear energy
cycle?
51. Which is the best explanation for how
A. The Sun splits the water molecules and clouds form?
they disappear
A. Energy from the sun causes precipita-
B. The Sun causes clouds to form and tion over the ocean.
they precipitate
B. Energy from the sun causes water to
C. The Sun is not part of the water cycle evaporate from the ocean.
D. The Sun causes water to change form C. Light from the sun reflects off the sur-
and move face of the ocean.

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 766

D. Light from the sun decreases the 57. Much of the water we cannot see is a gas
amount of water vapor in the air over the called
ocean.
A. steam
52. What gives energy to the water cycle? B. water vapor
A. wind C. carbon dioxide
B. sun D. nitrogen
C. precipitation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
58. Human activity can increase CO2 levels in
D. condensation the atmosphere through
53. The water cycle is also known as A. Photosynthesis
A. Hypertonic Solution B. Burning of fossil fuels
B. Hydrological Cycle C. Planting more trees
C. Hyperlogical Cycle D. Removing nitrogen from fertilizer.
D. None of these
59. The process by which a gas changes into a
54. What are underwater mountain ranges liquid
called?
A. Precipiation
A. continental shelf
B. Water Cycle
B. mid-ocean ridges
C. Condensation
C. abyssal plains
D. Evaporation
D. continental slopes
60. The mean temperature of heat addition (
55. Which of these is an example of liquid wa- TH ) in the Rankine cycle can be increased
ter? by
A. Frost
A. reheating the steam
B. Ice
B. increasing superheat
C. Rain
C. increasing pressure ratio between
D. Steam which the cycle works
56. Think about how water would change if an D. all of the above
ice cube tray was filled with water, placed
in the freezer over night, and then left out 61. The elements carbon, oxygen, hydrogen
on the counter the next day. In what order and nitrogen combined make up about
would the phases of water be from when 96% of our bodies (carbon is about 18%).
the tray was filled to when it was left out Carbon is necessary for life because it is
on the counter? a(n)
A. liquid, solid, liquid A. uncommon element in all living things.
B. solid, liquid, gas B. element found only in the atmosphere
C. liquid, solid, gas C. excellent bonder
D. solid, liquid, solid D. is found mostly in dead things.

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 767

62. When changing from a liquid to a gas, the B. Condensation

water molecules are C. Precipitation

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A. freezing and moving away from each D. Accumulation
other.
B. evaporating and moving away from 67. The change from water vapor to liquid wa-
each other ter.
C. condensing and moving closer to each A. condensation
other B. precipitation
D. evaporating and moving closer to each C. evaporation
other
D. none of above
63. The ocean contains percent of the wa-
68. Where is most of Earths fresh water that
ter in the hydrosphere.
we use to drink found?
A. 10%
A. the ocean
B. 66%
B. rivers and streams
C. 97%
C. glaciers
D. 50%
D. underground
64. Which is a chemical change?
69. In the water cycle on Earth, water is in
A. freezing fruit juice which form?
B. slicing a potato A. solid
C. boiling water B. liquid
D. copper metal turning green C. gas
65. A teacher listed the following two pro- D. all of these
cesses.* Process 1:water changing to ice
in a refrigerator* Process 2:steam coming 70. What is the difference between Rankine
out of a kettle filled with hot of water- and Carnot Cycle
Which table correctly identifies the change A. State 3 is saturated water
of state taking place in each example?
B. State 1 is mixture of liquid-vapor
A. Process:Phase ChangeLiquid to
C. state 2 is saturated vapor
gasLiquid to gas
D. state 4 is saturated vapor
B. Process:Phase ChangeLiquid to
gasLiquid to solid 71. Evaporation is
C. Process:Phase ChangeLiquid to gas- A. When water changes from a solid to a
Gas to Liquid liquid.
D. Process:Phase ChangeLiquid to B. When water changes from a gas to a
solidLiquid to gas liquid.
66. What is the process when precipitation col- C. When water changes from a liquid to a
lects into rivers and ponds? gas.
A. Evaporation D. None of the answers.

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 768

72. In what order does the water cycle go? 77. Which Law states that Matter cannot be
created or destroyed during a Chemical
A. Condensation, Runoff, Precipitation,
Change/Reaction?
Evaporation
B. Runoff, Evaporation, Precipitation, A. Conservation of Energy
Runoff B. Conservation of Matter (Mass)
C. Evaporation, Condensation, Precipita- C. Conservation of Momentum
tion, Runoff
D. Conservation of Thermodynamics

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Precipitation, Runoff, Condensation,
Evaporation 78. The handle of a frying pan is often coated
in rubber because rubber provides
73. right after I turn into steam I will go up
into the sky and then I start to change A. Heat insulation
forms ice/water what phase am I B. Heat conduction
A. precipitation C. A low melting point
B. sublimation D. A nonstick surface
C. evapotation
79. Forms of precipitation are-
D. condestation
A. only sleet and snow
74. A set of events that happen over and over B. rain, sleet, hail, and snow
C. only dew and rain
A. Repetition
D. only snow and rain
B. Cycle
C. Loop 80. The Sun directly affects which of the fol-
lowing
D. Deja Vu
A. Evaporation
75. Which is an example of condensation?
B. Condensation
A. A rain puddle dries up
C. Precipitation
B. Clouds releasing precipitation over a
mountain D. Accumulation

C. Rain freezing as it falls to the ground 81. You’ve been playing really hard on a hot
D. Water vapor forming clouds over an summer day. You have been perspiring.
ocean When the perspiration disappears, your
body feels cooler. What part of the water
76. What is the energy source that drives the cycle occurs when your perspiration disap-
water cycle? pears?
A. the sun A. Evaporation
B. the earth B. Condensation
C. water C. Precipitation
D. the moon D. Run-off

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 769

82. Students are boiling water to show how B. water falls as rain, snow, or sleet from
temperature affects water. Which of the the clouds.
following temperatures will students ob-

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C. Water falls to Earth, and it flows over
serve steam evaporating from the wa- land into lakes and streams.
ter?
D. Water changes into water vapor from
A. 104 ◦ F oceans, lakes, and streams.
B. 214 ◦ F
88. What is the process when rain, hail, snow
C. 30 ◦ F or sleet fall from the sky?
D. 55 ◦ F A. Evaporation
83. The sum total of all water on Earth and in B. Condensation
its atmosphere is called the:
C. Precipitation
A. Biosphere
D. Accumulation
B. Terrasphere
89. What plant part is responsible for transpi-
C. Hydrosphere
ration?
D. Liquisphere
A. xylum
84. The scale on a thermometer may be B. chlorophyll
A. Celsius, Fahrenheit, or both C. stomata
B. Heat D. stem
C. Inches
90. What tool measures humidity in the air?
D. Grams
A. anemometer
85. Water in the form of a gas. B. water gauge
A. water vapor C. hygrometer
B. dew point D. barometer
C. ocean current
91. Inside the turbine, steam expansion is
D. humidity
A. isothermal
86. What is the water that runs off Earth’s sur- B. isometric
faces and back into larger bodies of wa-
ter? C. isentropic

A. precipitation D. isenthalpic

B. run-off 92. If a warm wind passes over snow, the

C. infiltration snow can be heated rapidly. When this
happens, the snow can change directly into
D. evaporation water vapor without first becoming liquid
87. Which is considered runoff in the water cy- water. What is the correct term for this
cle? process?

A. Water vapor cools and turns into A. deposition

clouds. B. evaporation

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 770

C. melting C. The water turned into a solid

D. sublimation D. The water evaporated

93. A cloud at ground level 98. Which describes a wind that moves from
A. dew the land to the sea overnight?
A. land breeze
B. stratus
B. sea breeze
C. steam
C. trade winds

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. fog
D. none of above
94. What will be the net change in internal en-
ergy of working fluid of power cycle over 99. How is the sun the major source of energy
the complete cycle? in the water cycle?
A. net change in internal energy of work- A. It provides the energy to condense at-
ing fluid will be positive mospheric water vapor into rain.
B. net change in internal energy of work- B. It provides the energy to create winds
ing fluid will be negative that blow air masses across the Earth.
C. no any net change in internal energy of C. It provides the energy to evaporate
working fluid water on Earth into the atmosphere.
D. none of the above D. It provides the energy needed for wa-
ter to be transported downhill from moun-
95. What process occurs when tiny wa- tains to rivers and oceans.
ter droplets cling together in the atmo-
sphere? 100. What is NOT an example of an insulator
in the kitchen?
A. clouds
A. An oven mitt
B. evaporation
B. Pots and pans
C. condensation
C. A wooden spoon
D. accumulation
D. A plastic measuring cup
96. Precipitation and evaporation are impor-
101. Fog over a lake would be an example of
tant components of the
which part of the water cycle?
A. water cycle.
A. Evaporation
B. carbon cycle.
B. Condensation
C. warming cycle.
C. Precipitation
D. nitrogen cycle.
D. Run-Off
97. Mariah noticed a large puddle on the side-
102. Where is carbon stored in the environ-
walk after a rain storm. A few hours later,
ment?
the puddle was almost gone. Mariah won-
ders what happened to the water.What is A. Fossil fuels
the best explanation of what happened? B. Wood of trees
A. The water soaked into the ground. C. Calcium carbonate (shells and bones)
B. An animal drank the water D. All of the above

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 771

103. The process by which plants give off wa- 108. Jamal filled his swimming pool in the mid-
ter vapor into the atmosphere. dle of his backyard. He observed the wa-
ter level for several weeks and found it

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A. sweating
decreased over time. Which explains why
B. precipitation the water level most likely decreased?
C. condensation A. The volume of water changed because
D. transpiration the air temperature cooled.
B. Plants near the pool used the water via
104. What do the arrows show you in the wa-
transpiration.
ter cycle?
C. Precipitation caused runoff in the pool
A. the amount of water in the cycle
area.
B. the amount of heat in the water cycle
D. There was evaporation caused by the
C. the movement of the water through sun.
the cycles
109. Snow and hail are example of
D. none of above
A. Runoff
105. How is the Sun involved in the creation B. Precipitation
of clouds
C. Condensation
A. Heat from the Sun warms the ocean,
evaporating water. The vapor condenses D. Water vapor
forming clouds
110. Plants use sunlight, air, and water dur-
B. Heat from the Sun causes clouds to ing photosynthesis. Some of the water a
join over oceans. plant takes in is released from the leaves
C. Light from the Sun causes water to into the atmosphere. What is this process
condense, the water then evaporates to called?
form clouds. A. condensation
D. Light from the Sun reflects water va- B. photosynthesis
por forming clouds
C. transpiration
106. What does NOT produce carbon dioxide? D. water cycle
A. Photosynthesis
111. What is an example of a Chemical
B. Burning Fossil Fuels change?
C. Animal respiration A. Ripped paper
D. Plants decaying B. boiled egg

107. What make water move through the wa- C. cracked egg
ter cycle? D. sugar in water
A. the sun 112. Which cycle am I? Nitrification→Assimilation→Ammonificatio
B. the rain Denitrification
C. precipitation A. The Water Cycle
D. the ground B. The Oxygen-Carbon Dioxide Cycle

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 772

C. The Nitrogen Cycle 118. Nitrogen exists in the atmosphere in the

form of
D. The Rock Cycle
A. Nitrogen gas
113. The process of changing liquid water into B. ammonia and ammonium
water vapor.
C. nitrates and nitrites
A. condensation
D. none of above
B. precipitation
119. what is it called when water goes to the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. evaporation clouds?
D. none of above A. precitation
114. Dryness fraction, x= 1 for B. transpiration

A. superheated steam C. evaporation

D. water vapor
B. wet steam
C. dry saturated steam 120. River, streams and oceans are all points
of in the water cycle.
D. water
A. collection
115. What effect does the sun have on surface B. precipitation
water? C. condensation
A. It causes it to boil D. evaporation
B. It causes it to rain
121. How can we differentiate Rankine cycle
C. It causes it to sink from Carnot cycle?
D. It causes it to evaporate A. Heat addition process of Rankine cycle
is reversible isothermal whereas heat ad-
116. Any type of liquid or solid water that dition process of Carnot cycle is reversible
falls to earth’s surface isobaric
A. evaporation B. Heat addition process of Rankine cycle
is reversible isobaric whereas heat addi-
B. condensation
tion process of Carnot cycle is reversible
C. precipitation isothermal
D. runoff C. Heat addition process of Rankine cycle
is reversible isentropic whereas heat ad-
117. If the removal of many plants and trees dition process of Carnot cycle is reversible
increase in a forest, what effect could this isothermal
have on the carbon dioxide and oxygen cy-
D. both cycles are identical except the
cle?
working fluid used
A. CO2 levels decrease
122. Which part of the water cycle involves
B. CO2 levels increase cooling?
C. Nitrogen levels decrease A. Solar Radiation
D. Oxygen levels increase B. Infiltration

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 773

C. Condensation 128. Number of turbines in a single heater Re-

D. All of the Above generative Rankine cycle are

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A. 1
123. Which of the following removes carbon
from the atmosphere? B. 2
A. Combustion (burning) C. 3
B. Respiration D. 4
C. Photosynthesis
129. Nicholas pours a small beaker of water
D. Death
into a vase that contained different layers
124. What is the deepest part of the ocean of soil. What is the reason for the move-
basin? ment of water from the surface of Earth to
the groundwater below?
A. abyssal plains
B. trenches A. gravity

C. rift zones B. precipitation

D. mid-ocean ridge C. runoff

125. what are major components for combined D. transpiration

cycle power plant?
130. Cold ocean currents generally come from
A. GasTurbine
A. The North Pole
B. HRSG or Boiler
C. SteamTurbine B. The South Pole

D. ALL mentioned items C. The Equator

D. Both A and B
126. Some farmers do not use fertilizers and
pesticides on their crops. This helps
131. One cup of water is left outside for two
keep our water supply clean and safe to
days when it was checked there was only
drink. During what process is water most
half a cup left. What happened?
likely to become polluted by chemicals on
plants? A. evaporation; chemical change
A. evaporation B. condensation; physical change
B. runnoff C. evaporation; physical change
C. transpiration
D. condensation; chemical change
D. precipitation
132. The dominant gas in the atmosphere that
127. The is the driving force of the earth’s
forms clouds is
surface.
A. oxygen.
A. sun
B. moon B. nitrogen.
C. stars C. water vapor.
D. none of above D. carbon dioxide.

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 774

133. This process is responsible for most en- 138. What do we call the loss of water vapor
vironmental problems of excess nitrogen from animals?
and phosphorus entering streams, lakes A. transportation
and oceans.
B. transpiration
A. decomposition
C. respiration
B. emissions from automobiles
D. perspiration
C. agriculture and house hold runoff

NARAYAN CHANGDER
139. The gas form of water
D. photosynthesis
A. Water vapor
134. Which process results in cloud forma- B. water cycle
tion?
C. evaporation
A. condensation
D. condensation
B. evaporation
140. Choose the correct process de-
C. precipitation scribed:Plants and animals break down
D. runoff sugars and metabolize them into CO2, wa-
ter and ATP for energy
135. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
A. Respiration
ple of a physical change?
B. Photosynthesis
A. crumpled paper
C. Combustion
B. pencil sharpening
D. Volcanic eruptions
C. shrunken clothing
141. GasTurbine use what to rotate?
D. sour milk
A. natural gas
136. What is the main sources of energy in the B. all answers
water cycle?
C. Air
A. burning fossil fuels
D. ignition
B. clouds releasing precipitation
142. In a simple investigation during science
C. heating of Earth’s surface by the sun
class, hot water is poured into a plastic
D. water being pulled underground by cup.Then the plastic cup is covered with
gravity plastic wrap.After a few minutes, stu-
dents begin to observe water droplets
137. Which of the following is an example of forming on the inside of the plastic wrap.
condensation? What change in the state of water are the
A. Water boiling on a stove students observing on the inside of the
plastic wrap?
B. Puddles on the sidewalk after a hard
rain A. Evaporation
C. water droplets on the outside of a cold B. Melting
drink C. Freezing
D. Snow falling in Colorado D. Condensation

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 775

143. What is the drawback of the steam as a C. it is pumped by large engines into the
working substance in a power cycle? well

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A. in a vapour power cycle, maximum D. it evaporates from inside the Earth
temperature which can be obtained with
best available material is more than the 148. What is it called when liquid changes into
critical temperature of water and requires gas
large superheating A. evaporation
B. it allows only small amount of heat ad- B. condensation
dition at the highest temperature C. water
C. it requires reheat and reheater tubes D. water vapor
are costly
149. On a warm sunny day, Lara placed a
D. all of the above
bowl of water covered with a glass lid
144. What organisms in the ocean absorb the in her backyard. After a few hours, she
most carbon dioxide? observed that tiny drops of water had
formed on the inside of the lid. Which
A. Algae and marine plants
statement best explains Lara’s observa-
B. Ocean mammals, like whales and dol- tion?
phins A. Water condensed from the atmo-
C. Fish sphere and evaporated on the inside of
D. Coral the lid.
B. Water transpired from the bowl and
145. Which reservoir in the water cycle con- condensed on the inside of the lid.
tains the most water?
C. Water evaporated from the bowl and
A. The ice caps condensed on the indside of the lid.
B. The oceans D. Water evaporated from the atmo-
C. Groundwater sphere and condensed on the inside of the
D. Surface water lid.

146. Sugar + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Wa- 150. What are the strategies to increase the
ter + EnergyThis is the “recipe” for efficiency of the rankine cycle?
A. lowering the condenser pressure
A. Photosynthesis
B. all above
B. Nitrification
C. superheating the steam to high tem-
C. Respiration
perature.
D. Nitrogen-fixation
D. increase the boiler pressure.
147. Many Utah towns use water from wells
151. Which parts of the water cycle require en-
for drinking. How does water get into
ergy from the sun?
wells?
A. Evaporation
A. it has to be poured into them from wa-
ter tanks B. Transpiration
B. rain sinks down through the soil into C. Runoff
them D. both Evaporation AND Transpiration

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 776

152. What step of the water cycle occurs when A. Evaporation

clouds become too heavy? B. Condensation
A. Condensation C. Freezing
B. Precipitation D. Melting
C. Runoff
157. Which word contains sleet, snow, hail,
D. Evaporation and ice
A. accumulation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
153. Taylor grows plants in a container called
a terrarium. She keeps the terrarium on a B. run off
sunny windowsill.The terrarium is closed, C. condensation
so Taylor cannot add water to the plants.
However, the plants have enough wa- D. evaporation
ter to grow. Which of these statements E. transpiration
best explains why the plants always have
enough water? 158. the ocean exerts a major influence on
weather and climate by
A. The air cannot hold all of the water va-
A. releasing energy over time
por.
B. globally redistributing the energy
B. Water is unable to evaporate from the
through ocean currents
soil.
C. absorbing energy from the sun
C. Energy from the sun cycles water
through the soil, the plants, and the air. D. all of the above
D. The plants take up water and store it 159. What is it called when plants give off wa-
in their stems and leaves. ter vapor as a waste product?

154. What characteristic defines all chemical A. transpiration

changes? B. evaporation
A. There is a change of state. C. condensation
B. Electricity is produced. D. precipitation
C. A new material is formed. 160. Where is most of the freshwater on Earth
D. Bubbles are produced. found?
A. oceans
155. The sun is so hot so I turn into steam and
go up into the sky what phase am I going B. lakes and rivers
into. C. underground
A. Evaporation D. frozen at the poles
B. Condensation 161. During stage, liquid water rises into
C. Sublimation the sky as a vapor, or gas.
D. Precipitation A. evaporation
B. condensation
156. The increase in the amount of heat, wind
and exposed surface area are factors that C. precipitation
speed up which process? D. runoff (collection)

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 777

162. Water perpetually cycles from the Earth 167. What do ocean currents transfer around
to the atmosphere and back. In the pre- the globe?
vious sentence, what does “perpetually”

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A. Heat
mean?
B. Wind
A. Constantly
C. Goods
B. Frequently
D. Plate Tectonics
C. Occasionally
D. Rarely 168. How do animals get nitrogen?
A. the atmosphere
163. Explain the process in Boiler.
B. eating other organisms
A. Isentropic compression of the wet
steam returns the steam to its initial C. rainwater
state. D. lightning
B. condensation takes place, therefore
the temperature remains constant 169. Which component in HRSG that generates
steam (water change to steam)?
C. Isentropic expansion takes place and
produce work A. Economizer
D. The heat energy is supplied resulting B. Drum
in evaporation of the water, therefore the C. Evaporator
temperature remains constant.
D. Superheater
164. How much of Earth’s freshwater is avail-
170. The process by which water is released
able for use?
by leaves into the atmosphere is called
A. 97%
A. condensation
B. 3%
B. precipitation
C. 2%
C. transpiration
D. 1%
D. evaporation
165. What tool is used to measure wind
speed? 171. What drives ocean currents?
A. Wind Vane A. Global Winds
B. Anemometer B. Sunlight
C. Thermometer C. Whale’s migration
D. Barometer D. Electricity

166. If the plant population decreased, the 172. This provides the power to keep the wa-
amount of carbon would ter cycle running.
A. Stay the same A. The Sun
B. Increase B. The Earth
C. Decrease C. The wind
D. none of above D. living things

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 778

173. What is the process when water turns C. transpiration

into water vapor?
D. runoff
A. Evaporation
B. Condensation 179. After living organisms use nitrogen, de-
composer bacteria convert it back to am-
C. Precipitation monia for plants to use through this pro-
D. Accumulation cess
174. How much of our planet’s water is salt- A. Nitrogen fixation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
water? B. Ammonification
A. 75%
C. Nitrification
B. 1%
D. Dentrification
C. 99%
D. 97% 180. Nathan and Natalie are making breakfast
for their parents. As Nathan heats a pot
175. What force that controls the flow of wa- of water to make coffee, Natalie notices
ter in runoff? steam or water vapor rising from the cof-
A. gravity fee pot. What process causes water to
change from a liquid to a vapor?
B. temperature
C. permeability A. evaporation

D. porosity B. transpiration

176. Water on Earth moves through the water C. precipitation

cycle because of energy that comes from D. cooling
the
A. Earth’s core 181. Critical Thinking Question:What percent-
age of the Earth’s fresh water is available
B. Sun’s heat for drinking?
C. Moon’s gravity
A. 10%
D. Wind’s movement
B. <1%
177. What follows evaporation during the wa- C. 3%
ter cycle? How does this occur?
D. 15%
A. Water evaporates into water vapor
B. Water vapor condenses and forms a 182. Which is an example of solar energy be-
cloud ing absorbed?
C. Water precipitates to the ground A. A warm front brings 3 inches of rain
D. Water runs down into the hydrosphere B. Ice cubes disappearing from a tray in
178. When water is heated in the ocean by the the freezer
sun and turns into water vapor C. Water droplets forming on the outside
A. condensation of a glass of iced tea
B. evaporation D. Clothes drying on a clothes line

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 779

183. What is the Biggest vessel in WSC & B. Evaporation, Condensation, and Pre-
HRSG? cipitation, sun

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A. Hotwell C. Nothing
B. Feed Water Tank D. none of above
C. HP Drum 189. Which is NOT a way that nitrogen com-
D. LP drum pounds are added to the soil?
A. Decay of dead organisms
184. Which statement best describes the
B. Denitrification
movement of liquid water from land back
into a body of water? C. Animal waste
A. condensation D. Nitrogen-fixation
B. evaporation 190. The water that was around when many
C. precipitation hundreds of years ago
A. Is gone, and has been for a long time
D. runoff
B. Is about half way gone
185. What percentage of the earth is covered C. Is the same water we use today
by water?
D. Would be really dirty if it were still
A. 97% around
B. 71%
191. What is the beginning of the water cycle
C. 3% that starts the evaporation process?
D. 80% A. the rain
186. What do you call porous layers of rock B. the wind
that can hold water? C. the sun
A. Aquifer D. none of above
B. Spring 192. Carnot cycle is a
C. Well A. practical cycle
D. Reservoir B. ideal cycle
C. practical and ideal cycle
187. The sun makes the water cycle move.It
makes water on the surface of the Earth D. none of the answer
193. The clouds and the temperature make it
A. evaporate so that i will start to form rain drops and
B. absorb if the temperature is bellow 60 degrees
then I will start to form snow flakes.what
C. percipitate phase am I
D. none of above A. runoff
188. What are the major processes of Water B. precipitation
Cycle? C. sublimation
A. Run-off D. condensation

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 780

194. Humans obtain carbon by eating plants 199. How does a snowflake start off
or eating other animals. Why do humans
A. A Spec (Dirt, Bacteria, etc.)
require carbon?
B. Water Vapor (water in gas form)
A. For cellular respiration.
B. For effective removal of CO2 gas. C. A Piece of Ice

C. For synthesis of all families of macro- D. none of above

molecules.
200. Water vapor in the air changes to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. For synthesis of lipids and carbohy- when it cools.
drates only.
A. liquid
195. What tool is used to determine wind di- B. solid
rection?
C. gas
A. Barometer
D. steam
B. Hygrometer
C. Anemeometer 201. This is released by the weathering of
D. Wind Vane rocks.
A. Carbon
196. Precipitation is
B. Oxygen
A. Any form of water that falls from a
cloud to the Earth. C. Phosphorus
B. Drinkable water that collects under- D. Nitrogen
ground
202. Condensation is when
C. Water that turns to a gas.
D. None of the answers. A. the sun heats up water and turns it into
water vapor
197. Which cycle am I? Evaporation→Condensation→Precipitation→Runoff/
B. water droplets become too heavy and
Groundwater/Transpiration fall from the atmosphere
A. The Nitrogen Cycle C. water gathers in rivers or streams and
B. The Oxygen-Carbon Dioxide Cycle then flows into the ocean and lakes.
C. The Phosphorus Cycle D. water vapor turns into water droplets
forming clouds
D. The Water Cycle

198. Wet clothes left in the Sun dry quickly. 203. As time goes by, and water goes through
What step in the process of the water cy- the water cycle again and again, the
cle helps the clothes dry? amount of water on Earth

A. condensation A. Increases
B. evaporation B. Decreases
C. precipitation C. Stays the same
D. runoff D. Goes up and down

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 781

204. Which of the following describes conden- puddle is gone.What most likely happened
sation? to the puddle of water?
A. It melted

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A. Water turns into steam or vapor and
rises into the air. B. It condensed
B. Water in the air cools down and forms C. It precipitated
droplets.
D. It evaporated
C. Water in clouds falls down to Earth’s
surface. 209. During stage, water attempts to re-
turn to rivers, lakes, or the ocean.
D. Water that falls to Earth’s surface is
A. evaporation
absorbed into the ground.
B. condensation
205. Which term best describes a change in the C. precipitation
water cycle caused by thermal energy be-
ing added? D. runoff (collection)

A. evaporation 210. Which scientist is credited with discover-

ing the negatively charge subatomic parti-
B. freezing
cles in the atom?
C. deposition
A. Neils Bohr
D. precipitation B. Ernest Rutherford
206. What are 2 ways that Carbon is put back C. J.J. Thomson
into the atmosphere? D. Dalton
A. cellular respiration and pollution
211. What converts nitrogen into a useable
B. photosynthesis and pollution form for plants and animals?
C. cellular respiration and photosynthe- A. bacteria
sis B. fungi
D. photosynthesis and fixation C. rain
207. How is the carbon cycle similar to the wa- D. none of above
ter cycle? 212. of the water on earth is , making it
A. Both involve liquid substances falling undrinkable for humans.
to the Earth from the atmosphere? A. fresh water
B. Neither process works at low temper- B. ground water
ature.
C. salt water
C. Both involve the transfer of sub- D. surface water
stances between animals, plants, and the
Earth. 213. Evaporation, condensation, and precipita-
tion are all parts of the
D. Both involve the transfer of sub-
stances between the earth and outer A. Cycle of seasons
space. B. water cycle
208. Mark notices a puddle of water on his C. fog cycle
way home from school.The next day the D. none of above

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 782

214. The amount of water vapor in the air tells 219. what is one kind of precipitation that Mi-
us ami, FL never gets
A. the relative humidity A. snow
B. the amount of precipitation for the day B. sleet

C. the humidity C. hail

D. rain
D. the amount of water in a cloud
220. What should be the critical temperature

NARAYAN CHANGDER
215. What is the only process that removes of working fluid for maximum efficiency of
carbon from the atmosphere? vapour power cycle?
A. combustion A. the working fluid should have critical
B. cellular respiration temperature as low as possible

C. photosynthesis B. the working fluid should have critical

temperature as high as possible
D. decomposition
C. the critical temperature does not af-
fect the efficiency of the vapour power cy-
216. To maximize the work output at turbine,
cle
the specific volume of working fluid should
be- D. none of the above
A. as small as possible 221. A student looks outside her window af-
B. as large as possible ter it has rained. She sees many puddles
of water. later that same day, the puddles
C. constant throughout the cycle are gone. Which process explains why the
D. none of the above puddles are gone?
A. accumulation of runoff
217. Mrs. Jividen and Mrs. Kendrick are out-
B. precipitation
side talking. They notice the sky is look-
ing dark. It is 78 degrees F outside. What C. evaporation
precipitation is most likely to fall from the D. condensation
clouds?
222. Christopher is excited because he heard
A. snow it will snow on Saturday. During which
B. sleet phase of the water cycle would the snow
fall on the ground?
C. rain
A. condensation
D. hail
B. evaporation
218. What is the water cycle? C. precipitation
A. the 3 forms of water D. transpiration
B. the movement of water on, above, or 223. If groundwater reaches earth’s surface,
below the surface of the Earth how does it reenter the water cycle?
C. when water melts A. by transpiration
D. when clouds form B. by evaporation

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 783

C. by accumulation C. The water cycle is a cycle that travels

D. it can’t across the world in one day. Whenever
water evaporates, it will quickly conden-

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224. When changing from a solid to a liquid, sate and travel across the world.
the water molecules are D. none of above
A. melting and moving away from each
other. 228. What is the energy source that powers
the water cycle?
B. evaporating and moving away from
each other A. the sun
C. melting and moving closer to each B. the earth
other C. water
D. freezing and moving closer to each D. the moon
other
229. A student is investigating how water
225. How do plants and animals interact in the changes from a liquid to a solid. Which
CO2/O cycle? information would best be recorded?
A. Plants release O into the atmosphere A. changes in the water’s shape
which animals inhale. Animals exhale CO2
into the atmosphere which is used by B. changes in the water’s color
plants. C. changes in the water’s temperature
B. Animals release O into the atmosphere D. changes in the water’s weight
which plants inhale. Plants release CO2
into the atmosphere which is breath in by 230. Ray holds an ice cube in his hand. After
animals. some time passes, the ice cube begins to
melt. Which word describes the process
C. Plants and animals don’t need each of heat transfer?
other.
A. conduction
D. Plants and animals take in O and re-
lease CO2. B. convection
C. radiation
226. Movements of Ocean’s water
D. none of above
A. Ocean Currents
B. Global Currents 231. Which is NOT a process of the water cy-
cle?
C. Tidal Waves
A. precipitation
D. Tides
B. freezing
227. How does a drop of water from Georgia
can end up watering a forest in China? C. transpiration

A. The water cycle is a cycle that is con- D. evaporation

stantly changing. The water will evapo- 232. Fourth grade students are planning an in-
rate towards China. vestigation to observe water when there
B. The water cycle is constantly moving. are different temperatures. Which of the
This is how the same water from Georgia following investigations would correctly
can may end up in China. show going from a liquid to a solid?

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 784

A. Students can show a liquid to a solid B. Has finished that cycle and moves onto
when the students place a cup of water in a different cycle
the freezer.
C. Disappears
B. Students can show a liquid to a solid
when the students place a cup of water in D. Stays in the stage at which it finished
the sunlight.
237. What is NOT an example or precipita-
C. Students will show liquid to a solid tion?
when the students place a cup of water

NARAYAN CHANGDER
in the microwave. A. Snow
D. Students will show a liquid to a gas B. Rain
when the students place a cup of water C. Wind
in the freezer.
D. Sleet
233. The process by which water falls from
clouds to the earth’s surface as rain, snow, 238. What happens after condensation to
sleet, and hail: cause precipitation?
A. transpiration A. The sun heats water on the Earth’s sur-
B. condensation face.
C. precipitation B. Water in absorbed into the ground.
D. weather C. Clouds fill with moisture and get too
heavy.
234. What makes Earth different from any
other planet we know of? D. Excess water runs downhill.
A. Lava
239. Which of these changes of state would
B. Air involve water absorbing energy?
C. Water A. condensation
D. Hydrogen B. deposition
235. How will the Sun’s energy affect the C. evaporation
ocean, rivers, and lakes?
D. freezing
A. The ocean water will increase due to
the runoff of the rivers. 240. Select the differences between ideal and
B. The rivers and lakes will increase be- actual Rankine cycles:
cause of more precipitation A. Heat transfer equipment are not iso-
C. Heat from the Sun will cause liquid wa- baric
ter to condense and form water vapor.
B. The efficiency of the cycle is lower for
D. Heat from the Sun will cause liquid wa- actual cycles
ter to evaporate and form water vapor.
C. Isentropic efficiencies of turbines and
236. Once water makes it all the way through pumps are 100% for both cycles
the water cycle, the water D. Expansion in the turbines are higher
A. Starts to cycle over again for actual cycles

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 785

241. How about the value of efficiency for D. There will probably be the same
Rankine and Carnot cycle? amount of water on the planet a billion
years form now.

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A. Efficiency of Rankine cycle is equal
Carnot cycle 246. How much of the earth’s water is fresh-
B. Efficiency of Rankine cycle is higher water?
than Carnot cycle A. 50 %
C. Efficiency of Rankine cycle is lower B. 3 %
than Carnot cycle
C. 97 %
D. None of the answer
D. 93 %
242. could increase the amount of oxygen
247. Phosphorous is needed in organisms for
in the air.
the production of
A. Building more houses
A. ADP and ATP.
B. Burning more oil B. Cellular membranes.
C. Paving more streets C. Deoxyribonucleic and ribonucleic
D. Planting more trees acids.
D. All of the answers are correct
243. Which of the following is a type of pre-
cipitation? 248. What is the correct term for rising water
A. snow vapor meeting colder air and turning back
into water droplets?
B. hail
A. dehyderation
C. rain
B. evaporation
D. all of the above
C. condensation
244. On which type of day will the most pond D. precipitation
water evaporate?
A. Hot and sunny 249. When gas changes to a liquid it is called

B. Cool and Rainy

A. condensation
C. Hot and cloudy
B. precipitation
D. Cool and cloudy
C. evaporation
245. There is the same amount of water on D. none of above
Earth now as there was during the time of
the Dinosaurs. Based on this information, 250. When water condenses, the water vapor
which statement is probably true? in the air gets and changes back into
liquid.
A. The total amount of water on the Earth
changes a lot A. cold

B. There is less water now than there B. hot

was during the dinosaurs time. C. warm
C. This does not tell us any information D. solid

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 786

251. What is it called when water collects back 256. Ossi knows that convection is the trans-
into larger bodies of water so that the wa- fer of heat energy. Which transfer of heat
ter cycle is able to begin again? energy is made through convection?
A. collection A. A gas burner heats water.
B. run-off B. The sun warms a person.
C. precipitation C. A hand warms an ice cube.
D. condensation D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
252. Thermal energy travels 257. Combustion is another word for
A. Hot to cold A. photosynthesis
B. Cold to hot B. transpiration

C. Inside to outside C. respiration

D. Outside to inside D. burning

258. The heat from the sun turns the water

253. How do nitrates turn back into nitrogen
into , creating a wet feeling in the air.
gas?
A. water vapor
A. Plants give off nitrogen gas after
they have used all the nitrates that they B. sleet
needed. C. runoff
B. Bacteria turns the nitrates back into ni- D. none of above
trogen gas, which gets released through
the roots of the plant and back into the air. 259. What is the process when water vapor is
cooled as it rises into the air?
C. Animals release nitrogen gas when
they breathe out during respiration. A. Evaporation
D. Plants and animals die, and decom- B. Condensation
posers release nitrogen gas back into the C. Precipitation
air.
D. Accumulation
254. Number of processes in a Simple Rankine 260. Which is true?
cycle are
A. Snowflakes ALWAYS have six sides
A. 2
B. Snowflakes are big
B. 1
C. Snowflakes fall as precipitation
C. 4
D. none of above
D. 3
261. Respiration is a process where living
255. What does not produce carbon dioxide? things (animals) inhale and exhale
A. Photosynthesis A. Oxygen, Nitrogen
B. Burning Fossil Fuels B. Carbon Dioxide, Oxygen
C. Animal respiration C. CO2, O
D. Plants decaying D. Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 787

262. Why does reheating increase the effi- 267. What is the first step in the Water Cycle
ciency of Rankine vapor cycles? (more A. Condensation
than one answers can be possible)

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B. Evaporation
A. Increases heat input of the cycle by di-
viding it in two different streams C. Runoff
B. Decreases heat input of the cycle by D. Precipitation
sending the first turbine outlet to the
268. What do we call water in its gas state?
boiler
A. rain
C. Increases the heating average tem-
perature B. snow
D. none of above C. ice

263. what is meant by Efficiency of combined D. water vapor

cycle? 269. Water falls to Earth as rain after water
A. power factor is greater than 0.9 vapor into clouds.
B. waste heat energy VS The amount of A. evaporates
energy converted into useful electricity.
B. accumulates
C. Efficient operation
C. condenses
D. Efficient time management
D. freezes
264. A is a reservoir that takes up a chem-
270. Which of these is not an example of a liq-
ical element and stores it for a long period
uid?
of time.
A. Sink A. wet steam

B. Source B. fog

C. Bucket C. water vapor

D. Location D. clouds

265. To change from a gas or vapor to a liquid 271. What percentage of Earth’s water is
is freshwater?
A. accumulation A. 75%
B. condensation B. 3%
C. precipitation C. 1%
D. none of above D. 97%

266. What is the process during which water 272. What is the only thing in nature that can
cools and turns from a gas to a liquid? be a solid, liquid, or a gas?
A. Codensation A. oxygen
B. Runoff B. hydrogen
C. Precipitation C. water
D. Evaporation D. helium

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 788

273. As heat energy is added to water, it B. Water in the air cools down and forms
changes states to a gas called droplets.
A. Water Vapor C. Water in clouds falls down to Earth’s
B. Gas surface.

C. Runoff D. Water that falls to Earth’s surface is

absorbed into the ground.
D. Precipitation
278. During evaporation, water changes from

NARAYAN CHANGDER
274. The oceans absorb much of the sunlight a to a
reaching Earth. When water in the oceans
absorb sunlight and heat up, what process A. solid, liquid
can happen to the water? B. gas, liquid
A. accumulation C. liquid, gas
B. condensation D. liquid, solid
C. evaporation 279. What is the effect of superheated steam
D. precipitation on efficiency of Rankine cycle?
A. efficiency of Rankine cycle decreases
275. In which area would the rate of evapora-
with increase in superheat of the steam
tion be the lowest?
B. efficiency of Rankine cycle increases
A. Over the ocean
with increase in superheat of the steam
B. Over the mountains
C. efficiency of Rankine cycle is not af-
C. Over the rainforest fected by change in superheat of the
D. Over the desert steam
D. none of the above
276. What can you infer from the fact that
there is the same amount of water on the 280. Which statement below is supported by
planet now as there was one billion years the information we know about the water
ago? cycle?
A. The total amount of water on earth A. The water we use today to drink and
changes gradually over time. wash with is the same water plants and
B. There will probably be the same animals used millions of years ago in or-
amount of water on the planet a billion der to live.
years from now. B. The water we use today to grow plants,
C. There have been many fluctuations in to wash our clothes and to cook with will
the water cycle over the last billion years. never be used again by any living things.
D. There will be much less water on earth C. Rainwater that infiltrates and soaks
one billion years from now. into the ground is no longer available to
be used by living things.
277. Which of the following describes evpora- D. Saltwater from oceans, lakes, ponds
tion? and streams is evaporated by the Sun to
A. Water turns into steam or vapor and form clouds that return the saltwater to
rises into the air. the Earth as precipitation.

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 789

281. Jessie knows that conduction is the trans- 286. You are planning an investigation to
fer of heat energy. Which transfer of heat show water change from a solid to a liq-
energy is made through conduction? uid. Which of the following experiments

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

would show this?
A. hand heats a snowball
A. Put a cup of water in the freezer.
B. radiator warms a home
B. Put a cup of ice in the sunlight.
C. boiling water heats pasta
C. Put a cup of ice in a cooler.
D. none of above
D. none of above
282. In reheat Rankine cycle, reheat pressure
287. Which of the following events in the wa-
is
ter cycle is an example of solar energy be-
A. less than the pressure at inlet of high ing absorbed?
pressure turbine
A. Snow falling to the ground
B. higher than the pressure at inlet of
B. Clouds releasing rain in the desert
high pressure turbine
C. Water evaporating from the surface of
C. equal to the pressure at inlet of high an ocean
pressure turbine
D. Water vapor condensing and forming
D. none of above giant clouds
283. Condensation falling onto land in the form 288. As water changes state, the water ei-
of rain, sleet, hail, snow, and mist ther absorbs or releases energy. Which of
A. condensation these answers is a process that releases
energy?
B. desublimation
A. snow melting
C. evaporation
B. ice subliming
D. precipitation
C. lake water freezing
284. This list shows some sources of heat.1 D. ocean water evaporating
rays of the sun 2 electric space heater 3
oven with a fan 4 hot plateWhich source(s) 289. What is the correct term for moisture
will transfer heat through convection? that falls to the ground from clouds?

A. 1 only A. Condensation

B. 1 and 2 only B. hibernation

C. evaporation
C. 2 and 3 only
D. precipiation
D. none of above
290. Considering only heat loss (Qloss) in the
285. Clouds are made out of expansion process at the turbine, what is
A. liquid water the correct relation among enthalpies of
steam entering and leaving the turbine (h1
B. water vapor
and h2 respectively), turbine work (WT)
C. cotton candy and heat loss (Qloss)
D. none of above A. h1 = h2-WT-Qloss

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 790

B. h1 = h2 + WT-Qloss A. 114 ◦ F
C. h1 = h2 + WT + Qloss B. 214 ◦ F
D. none of the above C. 30 ◦ F
D. 55 ◦ F
291. Which Degrees is Freezing Point
A. 32 degrees farenheight 296. During stage, water vapor cools into
water droplets, which causes the forma-
B. -8 degrees farenheight tion of clouds.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 40 degrees farenheight A. evaporation
D. 100 degrees farenheight B. condensation
292. What is the Sun’s role in the water cy- C. precipitation
cle? D. runoff (collection)
A. The Sun heats up clouds for precipita-
297. Where does runoff end up?
tion.
A. ponds
B. The Sun provides energy for evapora-
tion. B. streams

C. The Sun melts polar ice caps to add liq- C. rivers

uid water to oceans. D. all of the above
D. The Sun provides energy to plants so 298. What causes water vapor to condense?
they can transpire liquid from their leaves.
A. Evaporation
293. At ideal condition of vapour power cycle, B. heat energy
reversible constant pressure heat rejection C. colder temperatures
is carried out at-
D. collection
A. boiler
299. Explain the process in Turbine
B. turbine
A. The heat energy is supplied resulting
C. condenser
in evaporation of the water, therefore the
D. feed pump temperature remains constant.
294. Which of the following is known as the B. Isentropic expansion takes place and
“sedimentary” cycle because its reservoir produce work
is sedimentary rock? C. condensation takes place, therefore
A. Sulfur cycle the temperature remains constant.

B. Nitrogen cycle D. Isentropic compression of the wet

steam returns the steam to its initial
C. Phosphorus cycle state.
D. Carbon cycle
300. In a Rankine cycle, Efficiency increases by
295. The Glaciers are melting most likely be- A. superheating
cause Earth’s temperatures are rising. A B. regeneration
student wanted to show how heat affects
ice. What temperature does it need to be C. reheating
so that the ice DOES NOT melt? D. all of the above

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 791

301. When water evaporates, it changes into D. Isentropic compression of the wet
a steam returns the steam to its initial
state.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Solid
B. Mixture 306. Which cycle am I? Respiration→PhotosynthesisPhotosynthes
C. Gas A. The Water Cycle
D. Solution B. The Oxygen-Carbon Dioxide Cycle

302. After a hot sunny day, a plant withers C. The Nitrogen Cycle
and dries up. Which explains how this hap- D. The Seasonal Cycle
pens?
307. When water vapor s cooled and forms
A. The hot sun causes respiration of the droplets-
plant’s water.
A. Condensation
B. The hot sun causes precipitation of the
plant’s water. B. Evaportation

C. The hot sun causes transpiration of the C. Transpiration

plant’s water. D. Run-off
D. The hot sun causes condensation of 308. When water , Dew happens
the plant’s water.
A. Run off
303. What does the nucleus of an atom con- B. Transpiration
tain?
C. Evaporation
A. Electrons and neutrons
D. Condenses
B. Neutrinos and positrons
C. Protons and neutrons 309. Which component in HRSG changes satu-
rated wet to dry steam?
D. DNA and RN
A. Economizer
304. Number of heat addition in Reheat Rank- B. Drum
ine cycle is
C. Evaporator
A. 1
D. Superheater
B. 2
C. 3 310. What tool is used to measure the amount
of rain that has fallen?
D. 4
A. Rain Gauge
305. Explain the process in condenser B. Barometer
A. Isentropic expansion takes place and C. Wind Vane
produce work
D. Precipitation
B. The heat energy is supplied resulting
in evaporation of the water, therefore the 311. What is the process during which water
temperature remains constant. changes from a liquid to a gas as it heats
C. condensation takes place, therefore up?
the temperature remains constant. A. Condensation

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 792

B. Precipitation A. condenses
C. Runoff B. evaporates
D. Evaporation C. freezes
312. How long do molecules of groundwater D. transpires
stay in the ground?
317. What is it called when rainwater con-
A. Days tributes to the flow of rivers and
streams?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Weeks
C. Months A. Transformation
D. Anywhere from days to thousands of B. Runoff
years C. Irrigation
313. What is another name for the Water Cy- D. Desertification
cle
318. What word best describes when a solid
A. Circular motion turns directly into a gas, skipping the liq-
B. Phase Change uid state.
C. Water Wheel A. evaporation
D. Water Process B. condensation
314. What does a snowflake fall as C. precipitation
A. Precipitation D. sublimation
B. Evaporation 319. After precipitation occurs, what can the
C. Snow water do?
D. Runoff A. It will infiltrate the ground or runoff.
B. It will freeze and melt.
315. Which step of the water cycle is described
correctly? C. It will evaporate
A. Condensation occurs when vapor D. Nothing will happen to it.
turns into a liquid
320. The reheat cycle allows steam power
B. Evaporation occurs when vapor turns plant-
into a liquid.
A. to use higher pressure ratio
C. Precipitation occurs when water flows
across the land. B. to maintain required quality of steam
at the exit of the turbine
D. Runoff occurs when water falls from
the sky. C. to increase the turbine work
D. all of the above
316. When you go outside on a very cold day,
you can see your breath in the air. This 321. Which ideal process is carried out at the
happens because your breath is warm and turbine in vapour power cycle?
the air outside is cold. The moisture in
your breath cools and into tiny water A. reversible adiabatic compression
droplets. B. reversible adiabatic expansion

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 793

C. reversible constant pressure heat ad- the student include next in the model and
dition why?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. reversible constant pressure heat re- A. Nothing will happen because the water
jection droplet reached the end of the water cy-
cle.
322. On field day, the students in Mr.
B. The water droplet will eventually evap-
Harper’s class bring out bottles of cold wa-
orate because that’s the next step in the
ter to drink. After about 20 minutes, all of
water cycle.
the bottles had little droplets of water on
the outside. What is this an example of? C. The water droplet will turn into rain be-
cause it is precipitation.
A. condensation
D. The water droplet will begin to con-
B. leaking
dense and form a new cloud.
C. runoff
327. What happens to the liquid particles
D. humidity when evaporation takes place?
323. Number of processes in Reheat Rankine A. They lose energy and compact to-
cycle are gether
A. 3 B. They gain energy and compact to-
gether
B. 4
C. They gain energy and move apart
C. 5
D. They lose energy and slow down
D. 6
328. If the air is coming from the desert, what
324. During stage, water falls from the will it feel like?
clouds as rain, sleet, snow or hail.
A. hot and dry
A. evaporation
B. hot a moist
B. condensation
C. cold and dry
C. precipitation
D. cold and moist
D. runoff (collection)
329. Which component in WSC that transfers
325. Jill puts her glass of iced tea on the table steam condensate to Feed Water Tank?
and goes to make lunch. When she returns A. Condenser Vacuum Pump
the outside of is covered in beads of water.
What process is causing this to occur? B. Condensate Extraction Pump

A. Condesation C. Boiler HP Feed Water Pump

D. Boiler LP Feed Water Pump
B. Deposition
C. Evaporation 330. Co-generation cycles have the following
purpose:
D. Sublimation
A. Producing power
326. A student wants to create a model of the B. Producing heat
water cycle to show what happens to a
water droplet that just fell to the ground C. Both
and collects in a puddle. What should D. None

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 794

331. What is another name for the water cy- 336. Plants use to make their own food
cle? during photosynthesis.
A. Carbon Cycle A. water
B. H2O Cycle B. energy from the Sun
C. Hydrologic Cycle C. CO2
D. Nitrogen Cycle D. water, energy from Sun, CO2

337. Select the differences between Carnot

NARAYAN CHANGDER
332. What creates the air pressure difference
between the equator and the poles? and ideal Rankine vapor cycles:

A. The length of the seasons A. Heat gain process is not isothermal in

Rankine cycles
B. The shape of the earth
B. The compressor is substituted with a
C. the duration of the solar year pump in Rankine cycles
D. The amount of direct sunlight each C. Condensation is not isothermal in
area receives Rankine cycles
333. Which of the following go through the D. Moisture contents at the end of the ex-
process of photosynthesis? pansion are higher in the Rankine cycle
A. bees E. Compression and expansion pro-
cesses are not isentropic
B. algae
C. humans 338. What happens during the water cycle?
A. Water changes into different forms
D. mushrooms
and is reused over and over again
334. H0w is precipitation formed? B. Water only turns to vapor and disap-
A. By rain pears when it becomes a cloud
B. By condensation C. The Sun’s light provides water to the
plants
C. precipitation forms in the clouds when
water vapor condenses into bigger and D. none of above
bigger droplets of water. 339. What causes wind to blow?
D. Formed by solid, liquid, and gas A. Differences in longitude
335. Select the reasons why the vapor Carnot B. Shock waves from clouds
cycle is unrealistic: C. Differences in air temperature and
A. Condensation of vapor occurs in the pressure
turbine (more than 10% of liquid) D. The rotation of the earth
B. Condensation of vapor occurs in the
340. In the morning, you observe that water
compressor
droplets have formed on grass. Which
C. Perfect saturation of liquids and va- process occurred when the water droplets
pors are difficult to achieve formed on the grass due to the release of
D. Vapor cycles cannot use compressors thermal energy overnight?
and turbines at the same time A. condensation

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 795

B. deposition 346. Water that falls as rain, snow, sleet, or

C. evaporation hail.

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D. sublimation A. condensation
B. precipitation
341. When humans exhale, we release
C. evaporation
A. Oxygen
D. none of above
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Nitrogen 347. What is runoff?
D. perspiration A. the vapor that is created when the
sun’s hear warms the Earth’s surface.
342. N03 is also known as
B. the excess water that isn’t absorbed
A. ammonia into the ground after it rains.
B. nitrite C. water that is absorbed into the ground
C. nitrogen and collects in rocks and soil.
D. nitrate D. water droplets that combine to form
cloud
343. Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy (Sun-
light) → Sugar + OxygenThis is the 348. Precipitation occurs because
“recipe” for
A. the droplets evaporate in the air
A. water
B. the droplets are too light for the air to
B. respiration hold
C. photosynthesis C. the droplets are too heavy for the air
D. nitrogen-fixation to hold
D. none of above
344. Now it starts to rain and the rain starts
to go into the rivers, oceans, dam’s and
349. Snow, sleet, hail, and rain are all exam-
lakes and then it becomes part of the hy-
ples of
drosphere. What phase Am I
A. evaporation
A. condensation
B. condensation
B. precipitation
C. runoff C. accumulation

D. evaporation D. precipitation

345. What is the name of heat that occurs in 350. What is the process called when water
an economizer? vapor turns to liquid water?
A. Sensible Heat A. evaporation
B. Superheated Heat B. condensation
C. Latent heat of Convection C. precipitation
D. Latent heat of Vaporization D. transpiration

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 796

351. Water droplets falling to the surface of B. Water collection on a leaf on a cool
the Earth from the atmosphere is an ex- night
ample of
C. Water in a freezer changing to ice
A. condensation
D. Water is leaking from the faucet
B. evaporation
C. infiltration 357. What are the 2 common irreversibilities
sources that occur on the ACTUAL VAPOR
D. precipitation POWER CYCLE? (more than one correct an-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
352. On Earth, what process generates most swer)
of the water vapor? A. fluid friction
A. Condensation B. heat loss
B. Evaporation C. elastic deformation of solids
C. Precipitation D. non-spontaneous chemical reaction
D. Transpiration
358. Unit for specific entropy is
353. The explains how water has been re-
A. kJ
cycled through evaporation, condensation
and precipitation over billions of years. B. kJ/KgK
A. water cycle C. kJ/kg
B. carbon cycle D. kJ/K
C. runoff
359. Which of the following is an example of
D. none of above a decomposer?
354. These gases, such as carbon dioxide, trap A. Owl
heat in the Earth’s atmosphere causing
B. Fish
global warming
C. Tree
A. Global warming gases
B. Hot House gases D. Mushroom

C. Green House gases 360. Water on earth constantly moves in a

D. Thermal pollution A. loop
355. What Shape Is A Snowflake B. cycle
A. Hexagon C. straight line
B. Square D. none of above
C. Rhombus
361. What cloud is found at ground level?
D. Circle
A. Cirrus
356. In which example is water vapor con-
B. Stratus
densing?
C. Culumlus
A. Water in a puddle changing to a gas
during a hot day D. Fog

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6.3 Analysis of Steam Cycles 797

362. Which process removes carbon from the 366. What are the drops of water that form
atmosphere? on cool surfaces during the night called?

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A. combustion A. rain
B. cellular respiration B. snow
C. steam
C. photosynthesis
D. dew
D. decomposition
367. The changes to water when it cycles the
363. The total amount of water on Earth earth is called
A. remains constant A. the moon cycle
B. varies as water freezes and melts B. the sun cycle
C. decreases as water is lost through C. the water cycle
evaporation D. the wind cycle
D. increases with increase in precipita- 368. Which is a true statement?
tion
A. Humans depend on oxygen, plants de-
364. What would happen if the Sun is removed pend on carbon dioxide
from the water cycle? B. Plants produce carbon dioxide
A. The water cycle would not include pre- C. Humans depend on carbon dioxide,
cipitation but would continue with ground- plants depend on oxygen
water flow. D. Humans don’t depend on plants for the
B. The water cycle would no longer occur air they need
because the Sun provides the energy for
369. Choose the correct process described:A
evaporation and transpiration.
chemical combination of a carbon based
C. The water cycle would no longer occur fuel with oxygen that produces heat or
because the Sun provides energy for the light and releases CO2
formation of clouds. A. Photosynthesis
D. The water cycle would not include B. Burial and subduction
evaporation and transpiration but would
C. Respiration
continue with condensation.
D. Combustion
365. Most of the water on Earth is found in
370. Number of turbines in a single Reheat
Rankine cycle are
A. The ocean
A. 1
B. Rivers and streams B. 2
C. Glaciers C. 3
D. Underground D. 4

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 6.4 Steam Generators 798

6.4 Steam Generators

1. Why is compounding of steam turbines 6. What is the pH value of water permissible
done? for boiler?
A. To improve efficiency A. 0
B. To reduce the speed of rotor B. 5.5
C. To reduce exit losses C. 6

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. To increase the turbine output D. 8.5
7. The path of flue gases in Thermal power
2. For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, de-
plant is
gree of reaction is
A. Boiler-Economizer-Superheater-Air
A. 0.75
preheater
B. 1
B. Boiler-Superheater-Air preheater-
C. 0.5 Economizer
D. 0.6 C. Boiler-Air preheater-Superheater-
Economizer
3. A boiler that is preassembled at the fac-
D. Boiler-Superheater-Economizer-Air
tory as a self-contained unit with all its
preheater
components, including including the burner,
controls, and auxiliary equipment. 8. Mechanical draft is used when burning
A. Package Boiler A. fuel oil
B. Scotch Marine Boiler B. coal
C. Power Steam Boiler C. gas
D. Low-Pressure Steam Heating Boiler D. all of the above

4. A pipe or steam trap and pipe considered 9. What would be the steam header size for
as a unit, that conducts condensation from a low-pressure steam boiler with four 2”
the supply side to the return side of a steam nozzles?
steam heating system. A. 2”
A. Wet Return B. 3”
B. Steam Header C. 4”
C. Drip D. 6”
D. Thermostatic Air Vent 10. What is the name of the piping con-
figuration designed to prevent complete
5. The induced draft fan is located drainage of the boiler in case of a broken
A. between the burner and the chimney wet return line?
B. inside the air preheater A. the steam header
C. at the burner B. the return header
D. in the first pass of the gases of com- C. the Hartford loop
bustion D. the equalizer line

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6.4 Steam Generators 799

11. Thermal efficiency of well mainta ined B. copper

boiler will be of the order
C. aluminium

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. 0.2
D. nickel
B. 0.4
C. 0.5 17. An air vent that utilizes a temperature-
sensitive element that senses the temper-
D. 0.9
ature difference between steam and non-
12. The basic purpose of drum in boiler is to condensable gas to operate a valve to vent
the gases while preventing steam from es-
A. separate steam from water
caping.
B. serve as storage of feed water for wa-
ter wall A. Equalizing Line

C. remove salts from water B. Thermostatic Air Vent

D. serve as storage space for steam C. Dirt Pocket

13. In reaction turbines steam pressure is used D. Run Out

in stages.
18. The process of draining all the water from
A. many the boiler.
B. one
A. Simmering
C. two
B. Dumping
D. none
C. Blowdown
14. The horizontal piping connecting the boiler
steam outlet or outlets and also serves as D. Makeup Water
a steam reservoir to which the steam main
or mains are connected. 19. For a single stage impulse turbine with a
rotor diameter of 2 m and aspeed of 3000
A. Drip rpmwhen the nozzle angle is 20, the opti-
B. Wet Return mum velocity ofsteam in m/s is
C. Dry Return A. 314
D. Steam Header B. 356
15. is the transfer of heat through a solid C. 668
object, or between two objects, as a result
D. 711
of physical contact.
A. Conduction 20. Valve located on the blowdown line used
B. Convection to release water from the bottom of the
boiler.
C. Radiation
A. Safety Valve
D. none of above
B. Bottom Blowdown Valve
16. Fusible plug for boilers is made of fu sible
metal containing tin, lead, and C. Feedwater Regulator
A. bismuth D. Operating Control

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6.4 Steam Generators 800

21. The oldest form of draft used in a boiler is 27. Which of the following substance will have
draft. same percentage in both proximate and ul-
A. mechanical timate analysis
B. natural A. ash
C. forced B. volatile matter
D. combination C. moisture
D. hydrogen
22. The two settings found on the boiler oper-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ating pressure control are used to 28. When pressure drop is in stages then that
A. set the operating steam pressure turbine is called as
range of the boiler A. velocity compounded impulse turbine
B. eliminate low water B. pressure compounded impulse turbine
C. maintain high and low fire C. velocity compounded reaction turbine
D. warn the operator of flame failure D. none of the mentioned

23. Governors are used to control speed to 29. Assertion (A):Throttle governing is used
A. fuel input ratio only in small steam turbines. Rea-
son(R):At part loads, the efficiency of
B. fuel input steam turbine reduces considerably with
C. fuel input ratio & fuel input throttle governing
D. none of the mentioned A. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
24. Any return line located above the NOWL.
B. Both A and R are individually true but
A. Boiler Return R is not the correct explanation of A
B. Wet Return C. A is true but R is false
C. Dirt Pocket D. A is false but R is true
D. Dry Return
30. A pressure gauge typically used to indicate
25. Steam is classified as the amount of steam present in the boiler.
A. WET STEAM A. Steam Pressure Gauge
B. DRY STEAM B. Operating Control
C. SUPER HEATED STEAM C. Modulating Control
D. ALL THE ABOVE D. Vacuum Gauge
26. A boiler with MAWP of more than 15 psi 31. Rateau steam turbine is
(103.4 kPa) but not more than 100 psi A. reaction steam turbine
(689.5 kPa) and having a heat input less
than 440, 000 Btu/Hr. B. velocity compounded impulse steam
turbine
A. Scotch Marine Boiler
C. pressure compounded impulse steam
B. Low-Pressure Steam Heating Boiler turbine
C. Membrane Boiler D. pressure velocity compounded steam
D. Small Power Boiler turbine

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6.4 Steam Generators 801

32. The modern steam turbines are B. CSA Group

A. impulse turbines C. Fusible Plug

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B. reaction turbines D. Safety Relief Valve
C. impulse-reaction turbines 38. An independent, non-profit, member-
D. none of the above based organization dedicated to advancing
safety, sustainability, and social good.
33. The vertical pipe that connects the boiler A. CSA Group
steam header to the boiler return pipe or
return header. B. Huddling Chamber

A. Equalizing Line C. Dumping

D. Operating Control
B. Three-Elbow Swing Joint
C. Dry Return 39. How many set of nozzles are there in a
simple impulse turbine?
D. Boiler Return
A. one
34. A boiler whose MAWP is not more than 15 B. two
psi (103.4 kPa).
C. three
A. Membrane Boiler
D. four
B. Small High-Pressure Boiler
40. If maximum permissible limit of TDS as in
C. Low-Pressure Steam Heating Boiler
a package boiler is 3000 ppm, percentage
D. Power Steam Boiler make up water is 10% and TDS in feed
water is 300 ppm, then the percentage
35. The piping that conveys steam from the
blow down is
boiler to risers, branches, and heat trans-
fer units (HTU’s). A. 1%
A. Boiler Return B. 2%

B. Dry Return C. 3%
D. 5%
C. Steam Supply Main
D. Equalizing Line 41. Any pressure that is less than atmospheric
pressure.
36. It is an extremely high-temperature vapor A. Vacuum
generated by heating the saturated steam
obtained by boiling water. B. Static Pressure

A. Superheated Steam C. Critical Pressure

D. Discharge Pressure
B. Saturated Steam
C. Unsaturated Steam 42. Where is the lowest visible portion of the
water gauge glass on an LP steam boiler
D. Vapor
to be set during installation?
37. A warning device used to indecate ex- A. at least 4” below the normal operating
treme overheating of the boiler from a low water line on an 8” glass
water condition. B. at least 2” above the lowest safe wa-
A. Huddling Chamber ter line

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6.4 Steam Generators 802

C. at least 1” above the lowest safe wa- B. 9.24 kg/kg of fuel

ter line C. 16.72 kg/kg of fuel
D. level with the lowest safe water line D. 19.52 kg/kg of fuel
43. An impulse turbine produces 50 kW of 48. It is defined as a component in the plant
power when the blade mean speed is 400 cycle that consists of a closed vessel that
m/s. What is the rate of change of mo- uses the heat produced by the combustion
mentum tangential to the rotor? of fuel to efficiently vaporize and convert

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 200 N water into steam at the desired tempera-
B. 175 N ture and pressure.

C. 150 N A. Steam Drum

B. Boiler
D. 125 N
C. Furnace
44. A method of protection against expansion
D. Reheater
and contraction in a piping system using
three 90 degree elbows and connecting 49. Pressure velocity compounding is used in
pipe.
A. Swing Check Valve A. Rateau and Zoelly turbine
B. Three-Elbow Swing B. Curtis and Moore turbine
C. Shutoff Service Valve C. De laval turbine
D. Gate Valve D. Curtis turbine
45. In thermal power plants, the dust of flue 50. What will happen if a combination
gases is trapped by LWCO/water feeder control cannot keep
A. Precipitator up with a drop in the boiler water line?
B. Economizer A. The water feeder control will start the
standby pump to bring the boiler water
C. Superheater
level back up
D. Air preheater
B. The LWCO switch will open and shut off
46. When did he invent it? the fuel supply to the boiler
A. 1722 C. The LWCO switch will start the standby
pump to bring the boiler water level back
B. 1718 up
C. 1716 D. The boiler pressure will increase un-
D. 1734 til the high-pressure limit switch shuts off
E. 1717 the fire

47. when fuel oil with 84.9 % carbon, 11.4 % 51. What is done to increase the rate of heat
hydrogen, 3.2 % Sulphur, 0.4 % oxygen transfer in the Velox boiler?
and 0.1 % ash by weight is burnt with A. The boiler is heated up to very high
20 % excess air, assume complete com- range of temperature
bustion calculate Total air supplied B. Combustion gases are circulated
A. 6.42 kg/kg of fuel through tubes with supersonic speed

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6.4 Steam Generators 803

C. High grade fuel is made use for the B. Power Steam Boiler
combustion C. Low-Pressure Steam Heating Boiler

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D. The size of the boiler is changed as it D. Small High-Pressure Boiler
is flexible
57. A boiler in India should conform to safety
52. Steam velocities in pressure compounding regulations of
is
A. DIN
A. low B. IBR
B. high C. ASTM
C. velocity has nothing to do with pres- D. BS
sure compounding
58. Which of the following is NOT a valid type
D. none of the mentioned
of steam turbines, based on heat drop pro-
53. In steam turbine terminology, diaphragm cess?
refers to A. Condensing turbines with generator
A. Separating wall between rotors carry- B. Back pressure turbines
ing nozzles C. Topping turbines
B. The ring of guide blades between ro- D. Supercritical turbines
tors
59. If a controller with a subtractive differen-
C. A partition between low and high pres-
tial scale is set with a differential pressure
sure sides
of 1 psi on a system to be operated at a
D. The flange connecting the turbine exit minimum of 1 psi, what is the setting for
to the condenser the pressure on the main scale?
54. a direct cause of overheating of the boiler A. 0 psi
tubes is B. 1 psi
A. soot formation C. 11/2 psi
B. operating at high fire D. 2 psi
C. insufficient air 60. A draft system is used to overcome air
D. scale formation on the tubes and gas-flow resistance
A. secondary
55. On Mollier chart, flow th rough t urbine is
represented by’ B. primary
A. horizontal straight line C. forced
B. vertical straight line D. balanced

C. straight inclined line 61. Who did it invent?

D. curved line A. John Snow
B. Deyneris Stormborn
56. A boiler in which steam or other vapor is
generated at a pressure of more than 15 C. Winter Near
psi (103.4 kPa). D. James Watt
A. Membrane Boiler E. Senseya Lanister

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6.4 Steam Generators 804

62. Where would a compound gauge be used 67. A special fitting made for installation at
instead of a pressure gauge? any convenient point along a long run of
pipe for the purpose of absorbing expan-
A. where temperature and pressure need
sion and contraction.
to be read on the same gauge
A. Drip
B. on a high-pressure steam system
B. Expansion Joint
C. on a system that may operate at pres-
sures less than standard atmospheric C. Air Vent

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Steam Header
D. on a system using a PRV for the low-
pressure steam supply 68. What is the required grade for steam main
piping?
63. This is a Byproduct of incomplete combus-
tion? A. 1% or 1/8” per foot
B. 2% or 1/4” per foot
A. Carbon Dioxide
C. 1” per 20 feet
B. Excess Air
D. 1” per 100 feet
C. CO
D. O2 69. What is the required grade for the steam
header piping?
64. Role of Condenser in Steam Power Plant A. 1% or 1/8” per foot
A. To Convert Water into steam B. 2% or 1/4” per foot
B. To convert Coal into Ash C. 1” per 20 feet
C. To Filter Foreign Particles D. 1” per 100 feet

D. To Convert Steam into Water 70. A device designed to permit the flow of air
or non-condensable gases out of the vent,
65. A gate valve in which the threaded stem but stop the flow of steam.
of the valve rises as the valve is opened. A. Air Vent
A. Swing Check Valve B. Swing Check Valve
B. Shutoff Service Valve C. Gate Valve
C. Rising Stem, Outside Stem & Yoke (OS D. Shutoff Service Valve
& Y) Gate Valve
71. What forces are a boiler subjected to dur-
D. Gate Valve ing operation
66. is the transfer of heat within a fluid, A. compression
that is a liquid or gas. It is caused by a B. tension
mixing action within a fluid.
C. shear
A. Conduction D. all of the above
B. Convection
72. boiler water having high alkalinity could
C. Radation develop
D. Combustion A. acidic corrosion

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6.4 Steam Generators 805

B. oxygen pitting C. cracking of the boiler metal due to

C. caustic embrittlement thermal shock

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D. unsteady water line due to increased
D. warping
activity of the boiler water
73. n steam turbine terminology, the loss of
78. Reaction turbine blades are
energy due to higher exit velocity of steam
is called A. Plate profile type
A. velocity loss B. Aerofoil type
B. energy loss C. Circular profile type
C. kinetic loss D. None of the mentioned

D. carry over loss 79. The draught produced by the chimney if

due to the difference between the col-
74. Governing of steam turbines can be done umn of hot gases inside the chimney and
by the following the cold air outside.
A. Nozzle control A. Temperature
B. Throttle control B. Potential
C. Providing additional value and pas- C. Density
sage
D. None of the above
D. none of above
80. The following is the correct order of energy
75. Mechanical draft is produced by conversion in thermal power plants
A. the height of the chimney A. Chemical energy-Mechanical energy-
Electrical energy
B. the diameter of the chimney
B. Mechanical energy-Chemical energy-
C. power-driven fans
Electrical energy
D. steam jets
C. Wind energy-Mechanical energy-
76. Which of the coal has highest calorific Electrical energy
value? D. Heat energy-Electrical energy-
A. anthracite coal Mechanical energy

B. bituminous coal 81. draft is created by a draft fan that

pulls the gases of combustion through the
C. lignite
furnace.
D. peat
A. Forced
77. What can happen if the cold water im- B. Natural
pinges on a directly heated surface within C. Induced
a boiler?
D. Chimney
A. scaling due to precipitation of the dis-
solved hardness in the water 82. What type of valve would be used on a
B. sludge formation due to the rapid cool- low-pressure steam boiler for draining?
ing of the water A. gate valve

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6.4 Steam Generators 806

B. globe valve burner shutdown sequence when steam

C. ball valve demand is met.

D. check valve A. Pressure Control

B. Modulating Control
83. A vertical pipe installed to connect any
heavy foreign material, such as scale or C. Safety Valve
dirt, that might otherwise enter a steam D. Operating Control
trap or strainer.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
88. The air pressure at the fuel bed is reduced
A. Dirt Pocket
below that of atmosphere by means of a
B. Three-Elbow Swing Joint fan placed at or near the bottom of the
C. Equalizing Line chimney to produce a draught. Such a
draught is called
D. Galvanized Pipe
A. Natural draught
84. The following is not a essential component
of steam power plant B. Induced draught

A. Condenser C. Forced draught

B. Cooling tower D. Balanced draught

C. Water pump 89. Steam Boilers must be blown down daily

D. Fuel tank due to formation of this that drops out of
the water when it is turned to steam
85. The undesirable condition that occurs when
A. Mud
steam comes in contact with condensate
pockets formed in sagging or back-graded B. Hydrogen
pipe. C. Oxygen
A. Run Out D. Tears
B. Dry Return
90. Efficiency of nozzle governed turbine is af-
C. Water Hammer (Steam) fected mainly by losses due to
D. Wet Return A. Partial admission
86. Steam enters a De Laval steam turbine B. throttling
with an inlet velocity of 30 m/s and C. Inter-stage pressure drop
leaves with an outlet velocity of 10 m/s.
The work done by 1kg of steam is D. condensation in last stages
A. 400 Nm 91. An electric boiler that generates heat by
B. 600 Nm passing alternating current between two
electrodes immersed in the water con-
C. 800 Nm
tained in the boiler.
D. 1200Nm
A. Package Boiler
87. A pressure control that senses steam pres- B. Electrode Boiler
sure and automatically signals the burner
to initiate the start-up sequence when C. Straight-Tube Water-Tube Boiler
steam pressure is needed and initiate the D. Power Steam Boiler

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6.4 Steam Generators 807

92. Which type of steam separator is used for 98. Which one of the following relationship be-
low pressure (<20 bar) boiler? tween angles of fixed blades and moving
blades corresponds to that of Parson’s tur-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Cyclone Separator
bine?
B. Baffle Separator
A. α 1 = α 2
C. Gravity Separator
D. Choice of Separator doesn’t depend on B. α 1 = β 2
boiler pressure C. α 1 =β 2
93. Mechanical draft can be classified as D. β 1 = β 2
A. pressurized
99. Water added to the boiler to replace wa-
B. natural ter lost from steam leaks, blowdown, and
C. regenerative other losses in the system.
D. forced or induced A. Makeup Water
94. What is the function of air preheater? B. Feedwater Regulator
A. To increase air temperature by flue C. Dumping
gases
D. Normal Operating Water Line
B. To increase water temperature by air
C. To increase steam temperature by air 100. What is the minimum size of boiler feed
line for a boiler having less than 100 sq ft
D. To increase air temperature by steam of heating surface?
95. While steam expands in t urbines, theoret- A. 1/2”
ically t he entropy
B. 3/4”
A. remains constant
C. 1”
B. increases
C. decreases D. 1 1/4”

D. behaves unpredictably 101. Heat is mainly transferred by conduction,

96. What did it produce? convection and radiation in

A. Energy A. Insulated pipes carrying hot water

B. Heat B. Refrigerator freezer coil
C. Steam C. Boiler furnaces
D. none of above D. condensation of steam in a condenser
97. This boiler has flue gasses passing around
102. At which pressure the properties of wa-
the tubes and water flowing through the
ter and steam become identical
tubes
A. 1 bar
A. Fire tube
B. Cast iron B. 273 bar
C. Condensing C. 221 bar
D. Water tube D. 100 bar

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6.4 Steam Generators 808

103. A recessed area in the safety valve disc 108. A gas burner that has multiple tubes
that increases the surface area and total mounted in a side-by-side array with each
force applied when the valve opens. burner being fed fuel and combustion air.
A. Safety Valve A. Low Fire
B. Huddling Chamber B. High Fire
C. Fusible Plug C. Fuel Oil Burner
D. Feedwater Regulator D. Tubular Burner

NARAYAN CHANGDER
104. Equiva lent evaporation of water is the
109. The degree of reaction of an impulse tur-
evaporation “for a feed water supply at
bine:
100◦ C
A. Is less than zero
A. and its corresponding conversion i nto
dry sat urated steam at toooc and 1.033 B. is greater than zero
kg/cm2 C. is equal to zero
B. and its corresponding conversion i nto
D. increases with steam velocity at the in-
dry steam at desired boiler pressure
let
C. conversion i nto steam at atmospheric
condition 110. A check valve that prevents backflow
D. none of the above. through the use of a hinged disc within the
valve body.
105. The heat balance sheet for the boiler A. Boiler Return
shows the
B. Gate Valve
A. complete account of heat supplied by 1
kg of dry fuel and the heat consumed C. Galvanized Pipe
B. moisture present in the fuel D. Swing Check Valve
C. steam formed by combustion of hydro-
111. A water-tube boiler that uses strips of
gen per kg of fuel
metal alloy welded between the tubes to
D. complete combustion of one kg of fuel form a seal.

106. The fusible plug in small boilers is located A. Small High-Pressure Boiler
A. in the drum B. Power Steam Boiler
B. in the fire tubes C. Low-Pressure Steam Heating Boiler
C. above steam dome D. Membrane Boiler
D. over the combustion chamber
112. The thermal efficiency of a steam power
107. Steam power plant should obey station is

A. Diesel Cycle A. 38%

B. Bryton Cycle B. 28%
C. Carnot Cycle C. 40%
D. Rankine Cycle D. 45%

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6.4 Steam Generators 809

113. What happen at water pump? 119. Uses a single or a series of copper rod el-
A. Heat in ements enclosed in waterproof tubes sur-
rounded by water to provide heating by

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Heat out electricity.
C. Work in A. Membrane Boiler
D. Work out B. Low-Pressure Steam Heating Boiler
114. At critical point of water, i.e. p=221 bar, C. Immersion Heater
the latent heat of vaporization is
D. Power Steam Boiler
A. maximum
120. Which of the following statements is
B. minimum
FALSE about pressure compounding?
C. function of temperature
A. Steam pressure is reduced when
D. zero steam moves over the moving blade
115. What is the piece of pipe between the re- B. Multiple set of nozzles is used
turn header and blow-off valve called? C. Rotor speed is not very high
A. the steam line D. Steam expansion takes place in steps
B. the blow-off line
121. The crown of t he fire box is mad e hemi-
C. the blowdown line spherical in order to
D. the return line
A. give maximum space
116. What his influence was influnced on? B. give max imum strength
A. world industry C. resist intense heat in fire box
B. invention of a steam generator D. withstand pressure inside boiler
C. on us
122. The biggest size of thermal power unit
D. none of above operating in India is
117. For steam boilers, the fuel(s) is (are) A. 30 MW
mainly B. 60 MW
A. Bituminous coal
C. 100 MW
B. Fuel oil
D. 500 MW
C. Natural gas
123. The ideal combustion process during
D. All of the above
which methane is burned completely. The
118. Locomotive type boiler is air fuel (AF) ratio for this combustion on a
mass basis is
A. hortzontal multitubular water tube
boiler A. 13.76 kg air / kg fuel
B. water wall enclosed furnace type B. 17.19 kg air / kg fuel
C. vertical tubular fire tube type C. 21.17 kg air / kg fuel
D. hortzontal multi-tubular fire tube type D. 23.12 kg air / kg fuel

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6.4 Steam Generators 810

124. Which of the following varieties of coals C. Pollution

is mostly used in steam boilers
D. none of above
A. non-coking bituminous coal
B. none 129. Fire tube boilers a re lim ited to a maxi-
mum design working pressure of
C. brown coal
A. 1 kg/cm2
D. peat
B. 6 kg/cm2
125. In thermal power plant, turbine is placed

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 17 kg/cm 2
A. before boiler
B. in between boiler and generator D. 100 kg/cm2

C. after generator 130. boiler water is treated to prevent

D. any of the above A. scale
126. How should the minimum capacity rating B. oxygen pitting
of a safety valve to be installed on a boiler
compare to the data provided on the boiler C. caustic embrittlement
rating plate? D. all of the above
A. equal to or greater than the maximum
heat output rating 131. The shell diameter and length of locomo-
tive boiler are
B. equal to or greater than the maximum
fuel input rating A. 1.5 m, 4 m
C. greater than the maximum fuel input B. 1.5 m, 6 m
rating
C. 1 m, 4 m
D. 10% greater than the net rating of the
boiler D. 2 m, 4 m

127. An automatic, full opening, pop-action 132. A valve designed to be used in its fully
pressure relief valve, opened by over pres- open or fully closed position.
sure in a boiler, used to relief the over A. Shutoff Service Valve
pressure of steam, air, or gas before dam-
age occurs. A safety valve is used for gas B. Swing Check Valve
or vapor service only and prevents a boiler C. Rising Stem, Outside Stem & Yoke (OS
from exceeding its MAWP. & Y) Gate Valve
A. Operating Valve
D. Gate Valve
B. Safety Valve
C. Modulating Valve 133. The following is not a component of Ther-
mal power plant
D. Blowdown Valve
A. Condenser
128. What is created by the boilers at the
power plant? B. Cooling tower
A. Smoke C. Turbine
B. Steam D. Fuel tank

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6.4 Steam Generators 811

134. Pressure at the discharge side of a forced C. The feed pressure required is very
draft fan is atmospheric pressure. high, almost 1.2 to 1.4 times the boiler-
pressure

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A. balanced at
D. As it requires absolutely pure feed wa-
B. less than
ter, preparation of feed water is mor-
C. the same as eimportant than in a subcritical pressure
D. greater than boiler

135. The horizontal piping connected to the re- 139. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water
turn port or ports of a steam boiler. per hour from and at 100◦ C is called

A. Boiler Return A. evaporative capacity

B. Steam Header B. factor of evaporation

C. Drip C. equivalent evaporation

D. Expansion Joint D. one boiler h.p.

140. Steel pipe that is cleaned and dipped into

136. A boiler that has water around the tubes
an 870 degree F (465C) molten zinc bath
and flue gasses inside the tubes?
to create a protective coating.
A. Scotch Marine
A. Dirt Pocket
B. A Tube
B. Equalizing Line
C. Copper Fin
C. Galvanized Pipe
D. Jessies Mom
D. Steam Header
137. The equivalent evaporation (kg/hr) of
141. In a gas power cycle, hot combustion gas
a boiler producing 2000 kg/hr ofsteam
having specific heat 0.98 kJ/Kg-K enters
withenthalpy content of 2426 kJ/kg from
the turbine at 25 bar, 1300 K and exits
feed water at temperature40◦ C (liquid en-
at 1 bar. The ratio of specific heat of the
thalpy= 168 kJ/kg, enthalpy of vaporisa-
working fluid is 1.3. The isentropic effi-
tion of water at100◦ C = 2258 kJ/kg) is
ciency of the turbine is 92%. The work
A. 2000 developed (kJ/kg) by the turbine is
B. 2149 A. 614.44
C. 1682 B. 725.95
D. 1649 C. 667.87
D. 576.82
138. Which one of the following statements is
not true for a supercritical steam genera- 142. A boiler that has straight tubes sur-
tor? rounded by gases of combustion.
A. It has a very small drum compared to A. Power Steam Boiler
a conventional boiler
B. Electrode Boiler
B. A supercritical pressure plant has
higher efficiency than a subcriticalpres- C. Straight-Tube Water-Tube Boiler
sure plant D. Small High-Pressure Boiler

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6.4 Steam Generators 812

143. An operating pressure control must be B. Penstock

connected to the C. Spillways
A. main steam line D. Condenser
B. main feedwater line
149. The boiler commonly used in a thermal
C. highest part of the steam side of the plant are
boiler
A. Water tube type
D. water side of the boiler below the
B. Fire tube

NARAYAN CHANGDER
NOWL
C. Both (a) & (b)
144. Steam in water t ube boiler as compared
D. None of these
to fire tube boiler
A. can be raised rapidly 150. Losses that occur when steam is supplied
from boiler to turbine is called as
B. is raised at slower rate
A. regulating loss
C. is raised at same rate
B. friction loss
D. could be r aised at fast/slow rate de-
pending on d esi C. gland loss
D. none of the mentioned
145. Which type of boiler should not be used
for high pressure steam applications 151. Which is NOT steam usage in Malaysia
A. Cast iron A. Clay product
B. Fire tube B. Food-in-can process
C. Water tube C. Oil refinery
D. Straight tube D. Oil palm production

146. hardness is a measure of scale forming E. Power generation

dissolved in water 152. A full-way valve used to regulate fluid
A. minerals flow in which a threaded stem raises
and lowers a wedge-shaped disc that fits
B. pollutants
against a smooth, machined surface, or
C. gases valve seat, within the valve body.
D. none of the above A. Rising stem, outside stem and yoke
(OS & Y) Gate Valve
147. The burner firing rate when the minimum
amount of fuel is burned in the furnace. B. Shutoff Service Valve
A. High Fire C. Thermostatic Air Vent
B. Low Fire D. Gate Valve
C. Tubular Burner 153. Cochran boiler is a
D. Fuel Oil Burner A. horizontal fire-tube boiler
148. The major heat loss in a steam power sta- B. horizontal water-tube boiler
tion occurs in C. veritcal water-tube boiler
A. Heat chamber D. vertical fire tube boiler

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6.4 Steam Generators 813

154. Any return line that is located below the A. 79 m/s

NOWL of a boiler. This return line is com- B. 188m/s
pletely full of condensate water and does

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

not contain steam or air. C. 450 m/s

A. Steam Header D. 900 m/s

B. Wet Return 159. Which one of the following is used to

bring down the speed of an impulse steam
C. Equalizing Line
turbine to practical limits?
D. Expansion Joint
A. Differential Gear
155. A boiler that utilizes a central fluid- B. Compounding of the turbine
backed cylindrical combustion chamber sur- C. A large flywheel
rounded by fire tubes accommodating two
or more flue gas passes. D. A gear box
A. Scotch Marine Boiler 160. In an ideal impulse turbine, the
B. Power Steam Boiler A. Absolute velocity at the inlet of moving
C. Membrane Boiler blade is equal to that at the outlet
B. Relative velocity at the inlet of the mov-
D. Small High-Pressure Boiler
ing blade is equal to that at the outlet
156. On the basis of method of governing, C. Axial, velocity at the inlet is equal to
steam turbines are classified into turbines that at the outlet
with
D. Whirl velocity at the inlet is equal to
A. diffuser governing and nozzle govern- that at the outlet
ing
161. A valve and associated controls that ad-
B. throttle governing and nozzle govern- mit the correct amount of feedwater to the
ing boiler to maintain the NOWL under vary-
C. impulse governing and reaction gov- ing steam loads.
erning A. Makeup Water
D. throttle governing and diffuser govern- B. Blowdown Valve
ing
C. Feedwater Regulator
157. The primary function of a combustion con- D. Modulating Valve
trol system is to regulate the in a
boiler. 162. An automatic pressure relief valve spe-
cially designed to be used as a safety
A. fuel supply
valve or as a relief valve, depending on
B. air supply application. A safety relief valve may be
C. draft used for steam, air, gas, or liquids and pre-
vents a boiler from exceeding its MAWP.
D. all of the above
A. Fusible Plug
158. A single-stage impulse turbine with a di- B. Huddling Chamber
ameter of 120 cm runs at 3000 rpm.If the
bladespeed ratio is 0.42 then, the inlet ve- C. Modulating Valve
locity of steam will be D. Safety Relief Valve

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6.4 Steam Generators 814

163. What is the function of the operating 168. Heat balance in a boiler furnace is im-
pressure control? proved by sending air to the furnace
A. start and stop the pump A. At low temperature
B. turn on or shut off the fuel at the pres- B. At high temperature
sures required for use in the system C. Does not depends on temperature
C. maintain a constant pressure at the in- D. depends on pressure
let to the heat emission units
169. A horizontal branch connection from the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. maintain the steam at a constant tem- main or riser to a heat transfer unit (HTU).
perature
A. Steam Header
164. The three ingredients needed to start a B. Run Out
fire are fuel, heat, and C. Wet Return
A. carbon dioxide D. Boiler Return
B. combustible material 170. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water
C. nitrogen per hour from and at 100 degree celcius is
D. oxygen called
A. evaporative capacity
165. Why is high-quality steel used to make B. factor of evaporation
boilers
C. equivalent evaporation
A. Its cheaper to produce
D. one boiler h.p .
B. It’s easier to bend and use in the man-
ufacturing process 171. compounds are classified as a pollu-
tant because they react with water vapor
C. Because boilers are subjected to high to form sulfuric acid.
stress and heat during operation
A. Carbon
D. to reduce cost
B. Ozone
166. The cost of fuel transportation is maxi- C. Nitrogen
mum in D. Sulfur
A. Hydro-electric power plant
172. The distinguishing feature of Velox boiler
B. Steam power plant is that it
C. Nuclear power plant A. Is drumless
D. Wind power plant B. uses supersonic
C. Operates under supercritical pressure
167. The level of water maintained in the
boiler to ensure safe and efficient opera- D. uses indirect heating
tion. 173. Heat in occur in
A. Normal Operating Water Line NOWL A. Water pump
B. Makeup Water B. Boiler
C. Feedwater Regulator C. Turbine
D. Dumping D. Condenser

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 6.5 Steam Turbines 815

174. Which of the following turbine uses pres- C. Fuel Oil Burner
sure compounding method for reduction of D. High Fire
rotor speed?

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A. Curtis turbine 179. In fire tube boilers, pressure is limited to
B. Rateau and Zoelly turbine A. 16 bar
C. Curtis and Moore turbine B. 32 bar
D. De laval turbine C. 48 bar

175. Which type of boiler can meet rapid D. 64 bar

changes of load
180. Boilers can be equipped with to re-
A. forced circulation type. duce the heat loss from the gases of com-
B. vertical water tube type bustion going to the chimney.
C. horizontal fire tube type A. open feedwater heaters
D. vertical fire tube type B. superheaters

176. The performance of a boiler is NOT mea- C. economizers and air heaters
sured by the D. baffles in uptakes
A. amount of water evaporated per hour
181. A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a
B. steam produced in kg/h 50% reaction stage in a steam turbine<br
C. steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt />are examples of
D. complete combustion of one kg of fuel A. Different types of impulse stages
per hour B. Different types of reaction stages
177. If the enthalpy drop in the moving blades C. A simple impulse stage, a velocity
and fixed blades of a steam turbine is compounded impulse stage and reaction
10 kJ/kg and 15 kJ/kg respectively then stage
what is the degree of reaction? D. A velocity compounded impulse stage,
A. 0.67 a simple impulse stage and a reaction<br
B. 0.6 />stage
C. 0.4 182. Parson’s turbine is
D. 0.33 A. pressure compounded steam turbine
178. A burner that atomizes fuel oil to increase B. simple single wheel, impulse steam
contact with combustion air for maximum turbine
combustion efficiency. C. simple single wheel reaction steam
A. Tubular Burner turbine
B. Low Fire D. multi wheel reaction steam turbine

6.5 Steam Turbines

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6.5 Steam Turbines 816

1. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving C. Sometimes true

blade is two-third of the isentropic en-
D. True only with special attachments
thalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine.
The degree of reaction will be 6. A partly impulsive and partly reaction
A. 0.4 force are the driving forces in case of
B. 0.56 A. An impulse turbine
C. 0.67 B. Fifty percent reaction turbine only

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1.67 C. Sixty percent reaction turbine only
2. The action of steam in a steam turbine is D. Any reaction turbine other than hun-
A. Static dred & zero percent

B. Dynamic 7. A 50% reaction turbine is rotating at

C. Static and dynamic 2400 rpm with a mean blade speed of
100 m/s. The exit angle of blades is
D. Neither static nor dynamic
20 deg. and the velocity ratio is 0.56.
3. Parson’s reaction turbine is a reaction The mean specific volume of steam is 0.65
turbine. cub.m/kg and the mean height of blade is
25 mm. Neglect effect of blade thickness
A. 40 percent on the annulus area. Calculate the useful
B. 50 percent enthalpy drop (kJ/kg) if there are five pair
C. 60 percent of blades in the group.

D. 70 percent A. 117.8
B. 170.2
4. A single stage impulse turbine is provided
with a steam at mass flow rate of 5 kg/s. C. 161.3
Take following data of this turbine:Rotor D. 198.9
diameter: 1.5 mRotor speed: 3500 rpm-
Nozzle angle 15oBlade speed ratio: 0.35 8. What are the classification of Steam Tur-
Velocity coefficient: 0.86Assume that out- bine based on STAGE DESIGN?
let blade angle is 2o less than inlet blade
angle.Find the respective inlet and exit A. Impulse
blade angles, degrees B. Reaction
A. 28.8 and 26.8 C. condensing
B. 25.8 and 23.8
D. non-condensing
C. 22.8 and 20.8
D. 19.8 and 17.8 9. percent of all electricity generation in
the world is by use of steam turbines
5. The driving force in an 50% reaction tur- A. 100
bine is partly impulsive force and partly re-
action force B. 70
A. True C. 80
B. False D. none of above

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6.5 Steam Turbines 817

10. What are the inspection types of steam 15. In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangen-
turbine? tial component of absolute velocity at ro-
tor inlet is 537 m/s and the blade velocity

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. “A” inspection according to require-
is 454 m/s. The power output in kW of
ments
steam will be
B. “B” minor inspection
A. 302 kW
C. “C” major inspection / overhaul
B. 260 kW
D. All the above C. 282 kW
11. The maximum efficiency of a Da-Lavel tur- D. 296 kW
bine is (where α = nozzle angle)
16. Parallel flow turbine are also called as
A. sin2 α turbines.
B. cos2 α A. Axial flow
C. tan2 α B. Radial flow
D. cot2 α C. Both radial flow and axial flow
D. None of the above
12. The blade friction in the impulse turbine re-
duces the velocity of steam by while it 17. In a compound steam engine, the first
passes over the blades stage of expansion is carried out in a high
A. 10% to 15% pressure cylinder whereas the last expan-
sion is completed in low pressure cylinder.
B. 15% to 20% The diameter of high pressure cylinder is
C. 20% to 30% the low pressure cylinder.
D. 30% to 40% A. Equal to
B. Less than
13. The value of specific speed of Kaplan tur-
bine is generally that of the Pelton tur- C. More than
bine. D. None of these
A. Higher than 18. What is typical of a Parson’s reaction tur-
B. Lower than bine?
C. Same as A. Identical moving & fixed blades
D. Unpredictable B. Fixed & moving blades of different
shape
14. What are the basic QA/QC items in an in- C. Pressure drop does not take place in
spection plan? moving blades
A. Items to be inspected D. Pressure drop takes place in the mov-
B. Hold and witness points defined ing nozzle only
C. Parties involved in the inspection 19. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
D. Acceptance criteria defined A. Isothermal flow
E. All the above B. Isentropic flow

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6.5 Steam Turbines 818

C. Isochoric flow 24. In an impulse reaction turbine, the pres-

sure drops gradually and continuously
D. Isobaric flow
over
20. One of the characteristics of reaction tur- A. Fixed blades
bine is B. Moving blades
A. Steam expansion over rotor blades & C. Both fixed and moving blades
relatively low RPM
D. None of these

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Steam expansion over rotor blades &
relatively high RPM 25. The blade speed ratio of an impulse turbine
is
C. Steam expansion over nozzle & rela-
tively low RPM A. Blade velocity / Steam velocity at inlet
B. Blade velocity / Steam velocity at out-
D. Steam expansion over nozzle & rela-
let
tively high RPM
C. Air velocity / Steam velocity at inlet
21. The ratio of isentropic heat drop to the D. None of the above
heat supplied is called
26. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a veloc-
A. Rankine efficiency
ity of 700 m/s which has nozzle angle 20
B. Stage efficiency deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean
peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider
C. Reheat factor
a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Calculate
D. Internal efficiency the diagram power (kW)
A. 160.9
22. The ratio of the work-done on the blades
per kg of steam to the total energy sup- B. 220.8
plied per stage per kg of steam is called C. 108.6
A. Blading efficiency D. 95.3
B. Nozzle efficiency 27. TRUE or FALSE. The speed of Steam Turbine
C. Stage efficiency can be reduced by using reduction gears
D. Mechanical efficiency A. True
B. False
23. In an impulse turbine
C. either
A. The steam is expanded in nozzles only D. neither
and there is a pressure drop and heat
drop 28. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a veloc-
B. The steam is expanded both in fixed ity of 700 m/s which has nozzle angle 20
and moving blades continuously deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean
peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider
C. The steam is expanded in moving a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Calculate
blades only the tangential force (N) on the blades. Ne-
D. The pressure and temperature of glect the friction effects on blades.
steam remains constant A. 532.23

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6.5 Steam Turbines 819

B. 677.67 33. Efficiency of Rankine cycle can be increased

C. 653.58 by

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A. Decreasing initial steam pressure and
D. 536.44
temperature
29. Very High Pressure Turbine works at B. Increasing exhaust pressure
steam pressure up to C. Decreasing exhausts pressure
A. 170 atm D. Increasing the expansion ratio
B. 40 atm
34. The relative efficiency is defined as the
C. 2 atm
A. Ratio of thermal efficiency to Rankine
D. none of above efficiency

30. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a veloc- B. Ratio of brake power to the indicated
ity of 700 m/s which has nozzle angle 20 power
deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean C. Ratio of heat equivalent to indicated
peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider power to the energy supplied in steam
a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Estimate D. Product of thermal efficiency and Rank-
the diagram efficiency (in %) ine efficiency
A. 79.11
35. The shape of blades of is of half-moon
B. 87.56 geometry
C. 75.34 A. Reaction turbine
D. 80.26 B. Impulse turbine

31. is a mechanical device that extracts C. Francis turbine

thermal energy from pressurized steam D. Propeller
and converts it rotary motion
36. In case of an impulse turbine, complete
A. Steam Turbine pressure drop occurs in
B. Generator A. Nozzle only
C. Boiler B. Moving Blades only
D. none of above C. Nozzle and Moving blades
D. None of the above
32. The degree of reaction is defined as the ra-
tio 37. Degree of reaction is defined as
A. Heat drop in the fixed blades to the A. Enthalpy drop in the moving blades to
heat drop in the moving blades the enthalpy drop in the stage
B. Heat drop in the moving blades to the B. Enthalpy drop in the moving blades to
heat drop in the fixed blades the enthalpy drop in the fixed blades
C. Heat drop in the moving blades to the C. Enthalpy drop in the fixed blades to the
total heat drop in the fixed blades enthalpy drop in the moving blades
D. Heat drop in the fixed blades to the to- D. Enthalpy drop in the fixed blades to the
tal heat drop in the moving blades total enthalpy drop in the moving blades

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6.5 Steam Turbines 820

38. The thermal efficiency of a steam turbine 43. The efficiency of steam turbine may be im-
is than that of steam engine proved by
A. Lower A. Reheating of steam
B. Higher B. Regenerative feed heating
C. Same C. Binary vapour plants
D. None of the above D. Any of the above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
39. Which of the following statement is incor- 44. An impulse steam turbine has a number of
rect about the impulse turbine pressure stages with each stage having a
row of nozzles and a single ring of blades.
A. Impulse turbine diaphragm has noz-
With reference to the plane of rotation,
zles mounted on it.
nozzle angle of first stage is 20 deg and
B. Impulse turbine has fixed blade ring at- blade exit angle is 30 deg. The velocity of
tached to the casing. steam leaving the nozzles is 350 m/s and
C. Impulse turbine has pressure drop oc- the mean blade speed is 100 m/s. Deter-
curring only in nozzles. mine the work done in a stage per kg of
steam (kJ/kg). Blade friction factor is 0.8
D. Impulse turbine have incomplete ad- and nozzle efficiency is 0.85.
mission of steam.
A. 56.42
40. In a reaction turbine, when the degree of B. 45.98
reaction is zero, then there is
C. 39.45
A. No heat drop in the moving blades
D. 40.79
B. No heat drop in the fixed blades
45. Steam that has no moisture
C. Maximum heat drop in the moving
blades A. wet steam
D. Maximum heat drop in the fixed blades B. dry steam
C. superheated steam
41. Steam turbine is combustion thermal
prime mover D. none of above
A. Internal 46. A single stage impulse turbine is provided
B. External with a steam at mass flow rate of 5 kg/s.
Take following data of this turbine:Rotor
C. Both internal and external diameter: 1.5 mRotor speed: 3500 rpm-
D. None of the above Nozzle angle 15oBlade speed ratio: 0.35
Velocity coefficient: 0.86Assume that out-
42. Supercritical Pressure Turbine works at let blade angle is 2o less than inlet blade
steam pressure up to angle.Find the Power developed, MW
A. 170 atm A. 1.99
B. 40 atm B. 1.79
C. 225 atm C. 1.59
D. none of above D. 1.39

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6.5 Steam Turbines 821

47. In a reaction turbine at 8 bar. Take velocity coefficient as

A. The steam is allowed to expand in the 0.90. Also, assume that blades are
equiangular and take nozzle angle as

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nozzle, where it gives a high velocity be-
fore it enters the moving blades 20o. The values of the steam properties
are mentioned below:Pr (bar) hf (kJ/kg)
B. The expansion of steam takes place hg (kJ/kg) sf (kJ/kg-K) sg (kJ/kg-K)15
partly in the fixed blades and partly in the 844.64 2792.2 2.4968 6.44488 721.11
moving blades 2769.11 2.0462 6.6628Find the Stage Ef-
C. The steam is expanded from a high ficiency, %
pressure to a condenser pressure in one A. 89
or more nozzles
B. 86
D. The pressure and temperature of
C. 83
steam remains constant
D. 80
48. A reaction turbine follows the law of ,
as it works on the principle of impulse and 52. An impulse steam turbine has a number of
reaction. pressure stages with each stage having a
row of nozzles and a single ring of blades.
A. Impulse momentum
With reference to the plane of rotation,
B. Angular momentum nozzle angle of first stage is 20 deg and
C. Both a. and b. blade exit angle is 30 deg. The velocity
of steam leaving the nozzles is 350 m/s
D. None of the above and the mean blade speed is 100 m/s. Cal-
49. What are the classification of Steam Tur- culate the stage efficiency. Blade friction
bine based on number of STAGES? factor is 0.8 and nozzle efficiency is 0.85.

A. Single-Stage A. 91.26

B. Multi-stage B. 56.60
C. 45.26
C. Cross-Compound
D. 75.26
D. Tandem Compound
53. A dry saturated steam enters the noz-
50. A throttle governed steam engine devel-
zle of a simple impulse turbine at 15
ops 15 kW with 280 kg per hour of steam
bar and 150 m/s. The steam then
and 35 kW with 520 kg per hour of steam.
leaves the nozzle and enters the blades
The steam consumption in kg per hour
at 8 bar. Take velocity coefficient as
when developing 20 kW will be nearly
0.90. Also, assume that blades are
A. 150 kg/h equiangular and take nozzle angle as
B. 210 kg/h 20o. The values of the steam properties
are mentioned below:Pr (bar) hf(kJ/kg)
C. 280 kg/h
hg (kJ/kg) sf (kJ/kg-K) sg (kJ/kg-K)15
D. 340 kg/h 844.64 2792.2 2.4968 6.44488 721.11
2769.11 2.0462 6.6628Find the Velocity
51. A dry saturated steam enters the noz- at the exit of the nozzle, m/s
zle of a simple impulse turbine at 15
bar and 150 m/s. The steam then A. 518
leaves the nozzle and enters the blades B. 488

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6.5 Steam Turbines 822

C. 458 B. Nozzles only

D. 428 C. Both in fixed and moving blades

54. The person’s reaction turbine has D. None of the above

A. Only moving blades 59. The person’s reaction turbine, the degree
B. Only fixed blades of reaction is
C. Identical moving and fixed blades A. 20%

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Fixed and moving blades of different B. 30%
shape C. 40%
55. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge D. 50%
when the steam leaves the blade tip at
60. Which of the following pair(s) is/are cor-
to the direction of the blade motion.
rect
A. 60◦
A. Velocity compounded steam tur-
B. 90◦ bine:Rateau turbine
C. 180◦ B. Pressure compounded steam tur-
D. 270◦ bine:Rateau turbine
C. Velocity compounded steam tur-
56. The action of steam in a steam turbine is
bine:Curtis turbine
D. Pressure compounded steam tur-
A. Static
bine:Curtis turbine
B. Dynamic
61. What are the preparations for a steam tur-
C. Static and dynamic
bine inspection?
D. Neither static nor dynamic
A. Shutdown / outage planning
57. A single stage impulse turbine is provided B. Define scope of standard and specific
with a steam at mass flow rate of 5 kg/s. inspections
Take following data of this turbine:Rotor
C. Identify and ensure all required spare
diameter: 1.5 mRotor speed: 3500 rpm-
parts, and tools are available
Nozzle angle 15oBlade speed ratio: 0.35
Velocity coefficient: 0.86Assume that out- D. Ensure all other resources are avail-
let blade angle is 2o less than inlet blade able (manpower, supervisors, repair
angle.Find Absolute velocity of whirl at workshop)
exit of moving blade, m/s E. All the above
A. 147
62. A compound steam engine in which the
B. 524 high pressure and low pressure cylinders
C. 483 have common piston rod, is called
D. 785 A. Receiver type compound engine

58. In an impulse turbine, the steam is ex- B. Tandem type compound engine
panded in C. Woolf type compound engine
A. Moving blades only D. None of these

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6.5 Steam Turbines 823

63. A 50% reaction turbine is rotating at C. Heat drop in moving blades to the heat
2600 rpm with a mean blade speed of 120 drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in mov-
m/s. The exit angle of blades is 20 deg. ing blades

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and the velocity ratio is 0.56. Calculate
D. Heat drop in fixed blades plus heat
the diagram power (kW) if there are five
drop in moving blades to the heat drop in
pair of blades in the group.. The mean spe-
moving blades
cific volume of steam is 0.65 cub.m/kg
and the mean height of blade is 25 mm. 67. TRUE or FALSE. Steam Turbine can also be
Neglect effect of blade thickness on the an- used for Food Processing
nulus area.
A. True
A. 1324.3
B. False
B. 1635.8
C. either
C. 1864.2
D. neither
D. 1565.3
68. Blading efficiency is also known as
64. -MB fixed at the shaft and FB are attached
at the casing-steam was expanded from A. Stage efficiency
boiler pressure to condenser pressure- B. Diagram efficiency
pressure drop occurs only at the nozzle-
C. Nozzle efficiency
velocity changes the direction of steam
when flow through fixed blades-velocity D. None of these
get loose when flow through MB-Curtis
turbine 69. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a veloc-
ity of 700 m/s which has nozzle angle 20
A. Pressure velocity compounding deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean
B. Pressure compounding peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider
a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Find the
C. Velocity compounding
blade angle in degree, assuming the steam
D. none of above entering the blade without shock.

65. In turbine pressure drop takes place in A. 19.5

moving blades as well. B. 20.6
A. Reaction Turbine C. 33.8
B. Impulse Turbine D. 15.6
C. Both
70. A type of steam turbine primarily used for
D. None driving alternators (or generators)

66. Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio A. non-stationary turbine

of B. stationary turbine with variable speed
of rotation
A. Heat drop in fixed blades to the heat
drop in moving blades C. stationary turbine with constant speed
of rotation
B. Heat drop in moving blades to the heat
drop in fixed blades D. none of above

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6.5 Steam Turbines 824

71. A Francis Turbine is a type of ? velocity will increase-pressure will be re-

A. Impulse Turbine duced until it reaches condenser pressure

B. Screw Turbine A. Pressure compounding

B. pressure velocity compounding
C. Turgo turbine
C. velocity compounding
D. Reaction turbine
D. none of above
72. TRUE or FALSE. Steam Turbine can ONLY be
76. In an impulse steam turbine, absolute ve-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
used for Power Generation
locity at the exit of the blade in com-
A. True parison with the inlet absolute velocity to
B. False the blade
C. either A. Increases
D. neither B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
73. In an impulse turbine
D. Can’t comment
A. The steam is expanded in nozzles only
and there is a pressure drop and heat 77. Steam turbines are used for
drop A. Large marine propulsion
B. The steam is expanded both in fixed B. Electric power generation
and moving blades continuously
C. Direct drive of fans, compressors,
C. The steam is expanded in moving pumps
blades only
D. All of these
D. The pressure and temperature of
steam remains constant 78. There is enthalpy drop only in blades
in case of an impulse steam turbine
74. A 50% reaction turbine is rotating at A. Fixed
2400 rpm with a mean blade speed of 100
m/s. The exit angle of blades is 20 deg. B. Rotating
and the velocity ratio is 0.56. The mean C. Moving
specific volume of steam is 0.65 cub.m/kg D. All of the above
and the mean height of blade is 25 mm.
Neglect effect of blade thickness on the 79. A single stage impulse turbine is provided
annulus area. Calculate the mass flow of with a steam at mass flow rate of 5 kg/s.
steam through the turbine in kg/h. Take following data of this turbine:Rotor
diameter: 1.5 mRotor speed: 3500 rpm-
A. 29340
Nozzle angle 15oBlade speed ratio: 0.35
B. 21147 Velocity coefficient: 0.86Assume that out-
C. 25365 let blade angle is 2o less than inlet blade
angle.Find Blade efficiency, %
D. 30285
A. 80
75. -Boiler pressure doesn’t drop at only one B. 84
nozzle-pressure drop by the number of
stages-Each stages consists a set of noz- C. 86
zles and a ring of MB-When pressure drop, D. 88

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6.5 Steam Turbines 825

80. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a veloc- 84. Steam turbines may be classified according
ity of 500 m/s and having nozzle angle 20 to
deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean

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A. Direction of steam flow
peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider
a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Estimate B. Number of stages
the diagram efficiency (in %), if the rela- C. Mode of steam action
tive velocity is reduced to 80% of that at
inlet due to friction D. All of these
A. 73.35 85. Which of the following is the advantages
B. 70.65 (merits) of using steam turbine?
C. 78.55 A. they cannot be made reversible
D. 79.36 B. they have high rotational speed
81. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a veloc- C. they are cheap
ity of 500 m/s and having nozzle angle 20
D. none of above
deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean
peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider
86. In impulse turbine, when friction is ne-
a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Estimate
glected, the relative velocity of steam at
the axial thrust (N), if the relative velocity
outlet tip of the blade is the relative
is reduced to 80% of that at inlet due to
velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade
friction
A. Equal to
A. 49.65
B. 41.36 B. Less than

C. 25.65 C. Greater than

D. 50.65 D. None of the above

82. What factors affect the timing of turbine 87. Force obtained from the change in pressure
inspection? on the moving blades helps to drive a re-
A. Operating hours action turbine
B. Number of starts and stops A. True
C. Findings from turbine operation B. False
D. Findings from previous turbine inspec- C. Data insufficient
tion
D. Cannot say
E. All the above
88. The purpose of governing in steam tur-
83. An impulse turbine as compared to a re-
bines is to
action turbine, for a given power has
row of blades. A. Maintain the speed of the turbine
A. Equal B. Reduce the effective heat drop
B. Less C. Reheat the steam and improve its qual-
C. More ity
D. None of these D. Completely balance against end thrust

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6.5 Steam Turbines 826

89. Da-laval turbines are mostly used deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean
A. Where low speeds are required peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider
a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Calculate
B. For small power purposes and and low the diagram power (kW) for the turbine.
speeds Neglect friction effects on blades.
C. For small power purposes and and A. 100.25
high speeds
B. 76.43
D. For large power purposes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 150.63
90. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a veloc- D. 200.36
ity of 700 m/s which has nozzle angle 20
deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean 94. Medium Pressure Turbine works at steam
peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider pressure up to
a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Estimate A. 225 atm
the diagram power (kW) if the relative ve-
locity is reduced to 80% of that at inlet B. 40 atm
due to friction C. 2 atm
A. 144.84 D. none of above
B. 543.55
95. is the heat absorbed to convert boiling
C. 232.36 water into steam
D. 182.90 A. heat of fusion
91. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the B. sensible heat
total isentropic heat drop is called C. latent heat (of vaporization)
A. Internal efficiency D. none of above
B. Rankine efficiency
96. A 50% reaction turbine is rotating at
C. Stage efficiency 2400 rpm with a mean blade speed of 100
D. Efficiency ratio m/s. The exit angle of blades is 20 deg.
and the velocity ratio is 0.56. The mean
92. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a veloc- specific volume of steam is 0.65 cub.m/kg
ity of 500 m/s and having nozzle angle 20 and the mean height of blade is 25 mm.
deg. The symmetrical blades have a mean Neglect effect of blade thickness on the an-
peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Consider nulus area. calculate the diagram power
a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Find the (kW) if there are five pair of blades in the
blade angle in degree, assuming the steam group.
enters the blade without shock. A. 429.7
A. 15.1 B. 235.8
B. 45.2 C. 565.3
C. 25.5 D. 691.4
D. 10.4
97. The ratio of work done on the blades per
93. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a veloc- kg of steam to the energy supplied to the
ity of 500 m/s and having nozzle angle 20 blades is called

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6.5 Steam Turbines 827

A. Gross or stage efficiency deg. and the velocity ratio is 0.56. Cal-
B. Diagram or blading efficiency culate the useful enthalpy drop (kJ/kg).
The mean specific volume of steam is 0.65

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C. Nozzle efficiency cub.m/kg and the mean height of blade is
D. Mechanical efficiency 25 mm. Neglect effect of blade thickness
on the annulus area.
98. The first modern steam turbine was in-
A. 161
vented by
B. 132
A. Hero of Alexandria
C. 170
B. Charles Parson
D. 198
C. Robert Boyle
D. none of above 103. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows
through the fixed blades
99. In a reaction turbine when the degree of A. Pressure increases while velocity de-
reaction is zero, then there is creases
A. No heat drop in moving blades B. Pressure decreases while velocity in-
B. No heat drop in fixed blades creases
C. Maximum heat drop in moving blades C. Pressure and velocity both decreases
D. Maximum heat drop in fixed blades D. Pressure and velocity both increases

100. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a ve- 104. Advantages of gashed rotor
locity of 700 m/s which has nozzle angle A. Suitable for high-speed impulse tur-
20 deg. The symmetrical blades have a bine
mean peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Con-
sider a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Esti- B. low manufacturing cost
mate the axial thrust (N) C. can accept shock loads
A. 0.93 D. can withstand a high thermal load
B. 8.45 105. A steam turbine is to operate between
C. 0 150 bar, 600 deg.Celcius and 0.1 bar. The
bucket velocity is limited to 250 m/s and
D. 0.75
the average nozzle efficiency is expected
101. De-Laval turbines are mostly used to be 95% for impulse and 90% for reac-
tion turbine. All stages operate close to
A. Where low speeds are required
the speed corresponding to maximum effi-
B. For small power purposes and low ciency. Nozzle angles can be assumed as
speeds 20 deg. for impulse and reaction stages.
C. For large power purposes Estimate the number of stages required if
all the stages are simple impulse stage.
D. For small power purposes and high
speeds A. 15
B. 10
102. A 50% reaction turbine is rotating at
2600 rpm with a mean blade speed of C. 5
120 m/s. The exit angle of blades is 20 D. 20

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6.5 Steam Turbines 828

106. A dry saturated steam enters the noz- mean peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Con-
zle of a simple impulse turbine at 15 sider a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Cal-
bar and 150 m/s. The steam then culate the tangential forces on the blades
leaves the nozzle and enters the blades (N) for the turbine . Neglect friction ef-
at 8 bar. Take velocity coefficient as fects on blades.
0.90. Also, assume that blades are
A. 546.36
equiangular and take nozzle angle as
20o. The values of the steam properties B. 498.65
are mentioned below:Pr (bar) hf (kJ/kg)

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 660.54
hg (kJ/kg) sf (kJ/kg-K) sg (kJ/kg-K)15
844.64 2792.2 2.4968 6.44488 721.11 D. 254.77
2769.11 2.0462 6.6628Find Blade angle
at exit, degree 110. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a ve-
locity of 500 m/s and having nozzle an-
A. 30
gle 20 deg. The symmetrical blades have a
B. 33 mean peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Con-
C. 36 sider a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Es-
timate the diagram efficiency (in %), as-
D. 39 suming the steam enters the blade without
shock.
107. A 50% reaction turbine is rotating at
2600 rpm with a mean blade speed of 120 A. 79.65
m/s. The exit angle of blades is 20 deg. B. 81.52
and the velocity ratio is 0.56. Calculate
the mass flow of steam through the tur- C. 80.65
bine in kg/h. The mean specific volume D. 91.65
of steam is 0.65 cub.m/kg and the mean
height of blade is 25 mm. Neglect effect 111. A steam turbine, in which a part of the
of blade thickness on the annulus area. steam after partial expansion, is used for
A. 28044 process heating and the remaining steam
is further expanded for power generation,
B. 25365 is known as
C. 35236
A. Back pressure turbine
D. 20365
B. Pass out turbine
108. Steam containing some quantity of mois- C. Low pressure turbine
ture.
D. Impulse turbine
A. wet steam
B. dry steam 112. In general, the flow through a nozzle is
regarded as
C. superheated steam
A. Isentropic
D. none of above
B. Isobaric
109. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a ve-
C. Isothermal
locity of 500 m/s and having nozzle an-
gle 20 deg. The symmetrical blades have a D. Isochoric

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 6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 829

113. The blades of impulse turbine are of B. Increases the efficiency of the turbine
A. profile type and has converging area C. Reduces wear on the blades

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between consecutive blades
D. All of the above
B. airfoil type and has constant area be-
tween consecutive blades 117. A dry saturated steam enters the noz-
C. profile type and has constant area be- zle of a simple impulse turbine at 15
tween consecutive blades bar and 150 m/s. The steam then
leaves the nozzle and enters the blades
D. airfoil type and has converging area
at 8 bar. Take velocity coefficient as
between consecutive blades
0.90. Also, assume that blades are
114. What is EOH? equiangular and take nozzle angle as
20o. The values of the steam properties
A. Enhanced Operating Hours
are mentioned below:Pr (bar) hf (kJ/kg)
B. Equivalent Operating Hours hg (kJ/kg) sf (kJ/kg-K) sg (kJ/kg-K)15
C. Enhanced Overhaul Hours 844.64 2792.2 2.4968 6.44488 721.11
2769.11 2.0462 6.6628Find Blade veloc-
D. Equivalent Overhaul Hours
ity for maximum diagram efficiency, m/s
115. Steam enters an impulse turbine at a ve- A. 220
locity of 500 m/s and having nozzle an-
gle 20 deg. The symmetrical blades have a B. 230
mean peripheral velocity of 300 m/s. Con- C. 240
sider a mass flow rate of 0.75 kg/s. Es-
timate the axial thrust (N), assuming the D. 250
steam enters the blade without shock.
118. Single stage impulse turbine has equal
A. 0 blade angles and nozzle angle of 18o. If
B. 0.01 the blade velocity coefficient is 0.82, then
the maximum possible blade efficiency, %
C. 0.15
D. 1.52 A. 82
B. 84
116. The reheating of steam in a turbine
C. 86
A. Increases the work done through the
turbine D. 88

6.6 Nuclear Power Plants

1. Which of the following are not taken as op- 2. Two things happened to cause the
eration and maintenance cost in economics Fukushima accident were
of nuclear power plant? A. A Flood and a Fire
A. Taxes and insurance B. An Earthquake and Fire
B. Salaries and wages of staff C. A Flood and a Tsunami
C. Cost of waste disposal D. A Tsunami and a Earthquake

D. Cost of processing materials 3. What year was the 3 mile island acci-

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 830

dent? 8. In the “Wolves of Chernobyl” documen-

tary, what kind of rodent is credited with
A. 1990
bringing back the famous water marshes
B. 2011 in Ukraine? We didn’t watch it, use com-
C. 2019 mon sense.
A. beavers
D. 1979
B. field mice
4. Petrochemicals are compounds that are C. squirrels

NARAYAN CHANGDER
made from the fossil fuels
D. dormice
A. Natural gas and water vapor
9. In MOST cases, this is what happens when
B. Petroleum and oil the nuclear fuel is used up.
C. Coal and hydrocarbons A. The waste is recycled
D. Natural gas and petroleum B. The waste is placed in storage
C. The waste is used in other products
5. The land area required for installation of
nuclear power plant is D. The waste is typically dumped in the
ocean
A. more than thermal power plant
10. Pick the item which is an advantage of nu-
B. less than thermal power plant clear power
C. equal to thermal power plant A. It costs a lot of money to build
D. depends on type of construction B. it produces no carbon dioxide
C. Is makes waste that lasts thousands
6. Mass defect is:
of years
A. The difference in mass between the D. Transporting nuclear waste can be a
products and reactants of a chemical re- problem
action
11. The writer’s statement “There are no
B. The binding energy of the nucleons in
‘safe’ levels of radioactivity only ‘accept-
a nucleus
able’ levels” means
C. The energy released in a nuclear reac- A. radioactivity is usually not dangerous.
tion
B. the terms “safe” and “acceptable”
D. The difference between the mass of a have the same meaning
nucleus and the total mass of its compo-
C. most radioactivity released by nuclear
nent nucleons
plants is safe
7. Where is there an abundant supply of He-3 D. all radioactivity is harmful
that we could use in fusion power plants?
12. Who discovered the Neutron
A. On the moon
A. Albert Einstein
B. In nuclear warheads B. John Dean
C. Trapped in underground mines C. James Chadwick
D. In traces in the air D. Neil Bohr

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 831

13. Which parts function is to reduce the en- 18. How much electricity is produced by power
ergy of fast neutrons to thermal neutrons plants in the U.S.
in nuclear power plant?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. 3%
A. Moderator B. 10%
B. Coolant circulator C. 19%
C. Control rods D. 35%
D. Shielding 19. Which of the following statements best ex-
presses the author’s attitude toward nu-
14. Which one of the following actions is the
clear power?
writer most likely to encourage to control
the risk of nuclear accidents? A. Nuclear power plants present too
many risks and should be banned.
A. create separate reprocessing plants
for high level liquid waste. B. Risk of accident and storage problems
must be solved before we shift our energy
B. establish closer and more frequent in-
reliance to nuclear power.
spections of plants by the Nuclear Regula-
tory Commission C. Benefits of nuclear power outweight
the risks.
C. abandon plans for new plants in areas
in which citizens object. D. Negative public opinion suggests nu-
clear power is not feasible.
D. require nuclear plants to find safer lo-
cations for waste storage tanks 20. When does a nuclear power plant create
energy?
15. What is the diameter of wind turbine
A. when uranium is added
blades?
B. when water is added
A. 320 feet
C. when steam turns a turbine
B. 220 feet
D. when heat is added
C. 80 feet
21. + 3He → 4He + +1B + v.
D. 500 feet
Calculate the energy released in
16. What does ANSTO not use its reactor for? MeV. H-1:1.00783uHe-3:3.01603uHe-
4:4.00260u Beta:0.00055uv:no mass
A. Generating electricity
A. 0.02071MeV
B. Scientific research
B. 1.86x1015MeV
C. Purifying silicon
C. 19.3 MeV
D. Creating radioactive medicines
D. 1.86 MeV
17. Radioactive wates may remain dangerous 22. What is the name of the force that holds
for how many years? the nucleus together?
A. Hundreds A. Electromagnetic force
B. Thousands B. Gravitational force
C. Millions C. Strong force
D. Ten thousands D. Weak force

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 832

23. Which of the following is a harmful prod- 28. The wind speed is measured using an in-
uct of nuclear fission? strument called
A. oxygen A. hydrometer
B. carbon dioxide B. Manometer
C. anemometer
C. radiation
D. wind vane
D. water
29. What is an advantage of nuclear energy?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
24. All of the following are problems of nu-
A. radioactive waste
clear energy except
B. it is more reliable than renewable en-
A. storage of radioactive fuel ergy
B. air pollution C. we will never run out
C. security concerns D. it is the safest way to make energy
D. natural disasters (tsunamis, earth- 30. Complete the phrase:‘The longer an ele-
quakes, etc.) ment’s half-life ‘
A. the longer it will take to decay
25. What type of energy is wind energy?
B. the more radioactive it is
A. Renewable energy
C. the less radioactive it is
B. Non-renewable energy
D. the rarer it is
C. Conventional energy
31. Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for
D. Commercial energy
A. more than 5 months
26. Which of the following statements BEST B. few weeks
describes nuclear fusion? C. few days
A. Nuclear fusion is a common source of D. more than 5 years
energy
32. Mining uranium from the ground makes
B. Nuclear fusion usually requires freez- Nuclear power
ing temperatures
A. Efficient
C. Nuclear fusion usually requires a high-
B. Powerful
temperature environment
C. Renewable
D. Nuclear fusion releases a small
D. Non-Renewable
amount of energy compared to most
chemical reactions 33. Pick one which is NOT a change from global
climate change?
27. What country is #1 in Nuclear power?
A. Polar Ice Melt
A. Russia
B. Rising Sea Levels
B. France C. Loss of Coastline
C. The USA D. Loss of Small Islands
D. China E. They ALL are

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 833

34. This process results in an unstable radioac- 40. Most plants under construction inspected
tive isotope like carbon-14 becoming the by the Nuclear Regulalory Commission
more stable isotope, nitrogen-14. were rated

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Tooth Decay A. defective
B. Radioactive Decay B. below average
C. Premature Aging C. average
D. Bone Decay D. above average

35. What is the steam coming from power 41. Which of the following if a positive of nu-
plants made of clear power?
A. Radioactive chemicals A. It is expensive to set up
B. Water vapor B. It does not emit carbon dioxide, which
C. Poison means it does not contribute to climate
change!
D. none of above
C. It produces radiation
36. The element used in nuclear power is D. none of above
A. Plutonium
42. What fuel source is used in most nuclear
B. Uranium 235 reactors?
C. Radium A. Nitrogen
D. Pitchblende B. Oxygen
37. Reflectors of a nuclear reactors are made C. Coal
of D. Uranium
A. Boron
43. The average cost of nuclear power is
B. Cast iron
A. 2.00 a kilowatt hour
C. Beryllium
B. $300 a kilowatt hour
D. Steel
C. 2 cents a kilowatt hour
38. The function of the moderator is to: D. no money a kilowatt hour
A. Slow down neutrons
44. What is the process of producing energy in
B. Absorb neutrons a nuclear power plant?
C. Protect workers from radiation A. The heat released from fission reac-
D. Cool the reactor tions is used to turn the blades of the tur-
bine to generate electricity.
39. The amount of radiation the Average Amer-
ican gets in a year is B. The heat released from fission reac-
tions is used to turn water into steam. The
A. 1000 Rems steam uses it to turns the blades of a tur-
B. 2000 millirems bine to generate electricity.
C. 620 millirems C. None Above:)
D. None D. none of above

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 834

45. The first nuclear power plant was built in C. electron cloud
D. nucleus
A. Russia
51. The best capable alternative source which
B. New York can meet the future energy demand is
C. Shippingport PA A. thermal power plant
D. Japan B. nuclear power plant

NARAYAN CHANGDER
46. Complete the sentence:As time passes the C. hydroelectric power plant
level of radiation produced by a radioac- D. geothermal power plant
tive material
52. A nuclear reaction involves what two
A. Decreases
parts of the atom?
B. Increases
A. electrons and protons
C. Remains constant B. protons and neutrons
D. none of above C. neutrons and electrons
47. The Chernobyl power plant is where the D. nucleus and protons
worst nuclear power disaster happened
back in 1986, name one country that bor- 53. In a nuclear power plant, what is used to
ders Ukraine. change water into steam?

A. Belarus A. The burning of natural gas

B. Fission reactions
B. Italy
C. Heat released from fission reactions
C. Lithuania
D. none of above
D. Turkey
54. E=mc2 is the equation for
48. The nuclear energy is measured as
A. Mass defect
A. MeV
B. Internal energy
B. MW
C. Mass-energy equivalence
C. Curie
D. Einstein
D. None of the above
55. Which type of disposal of nuclear waste is
49. This Nuclear Disaster happened in Russia cheapest and easiest method of all?
in 1986
A. Ground
A. Chernobyl
B. Air
B. Fukishima-Daiichi
C. Space
C. 3 Mile Island
D. Water
D. Shippingport, PA
56. Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant
50. Energy is stored in the of an atom. economics is considered as
A. proton A. running cost
B. neutron B. maintenance cost

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 835

C. capital cost 62. This is the % of power in the U.S. produced

D. development cost by Nuclear.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. 100
57. + 235U → 148La + 85Br + 1n. How
many neutrons are released? B. 50

A. 1 C. 20
B. 2 D. About 2
C. 3 63. What are used to turn wind energy into
D. 4 electrical energy?
A. Turbine
58. Increased interest in nuclear power is due
to B. Generators
A. low energy cost C. Yaw motor
B. lack of significant accidents D. Blades
C. low carbon dioxide emissions 64. In order for Uranium-235 to be able to be
D. new solutions for waste disposal used in a nuclear reactor, its concentration
E. decreased energy independence must be increased from .7 % to 3%. This
is called
59. What is the reactor vessel? A. enrichment
A. The part in which fuels rods are placed. B. decomposition
B. The reactor contains rods of uranium. C. radioactivity
C. Made of mostly cadmium, boron or D. chemical reactivity
hafnium, used to slow down the chain re-
actions. 65. Sometimes spent nuclear fuel can be
D. The part of the nuclear reactor in reused in a process called
which nuclear fission occurs. A. Refining
60. What is the major problem in nuclear B. Milling
plants? C. Reprocessing
A. Drawing out energy D. Enriching
B. Fusion of particles
66. [***] Which of these processes describes
C. Disposal of nuclear waste fission?
D. Handling of fuel A. Uranium releases electrons to create
61. Pick the item which is NOT part of the Nu- electricity
clear Fuel Cycle. B. When a nuclear fission reaction oc-
A. Mining / Milling curs, the electrons emitted can strike
other nuclei in the sample, and cause
B. Refining them to split
C. Enrichment / Reprocessing C. Protons and neutrons change to elec-
D. Pressurization trons because the nuclei are so big

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 836

D. When a nuclear fission reaction oc- D. cause collision with the fast moving
curs, the neutrons emitted can strike neutrons to reduce their speed
other nuclei in the sample, and cause
them to split 72. The amount of carbon in the atmosphere
has increased since the industrial rev-
67. Pick the item which is NOT a natural source olution
of radiation. A. 100%
A. Minerals in the ground B. 200%

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Cosmic rays from space C. 2000%
C. X-Ray machines D. 40ish%
D. Radon in the air 73. With respect to the load centre which loca-
68. Which nuclear fuel is usually used in ther- tion is suitable for stablishment of nuclear
mal nuclear reactor to create fission? power plant?

A. U234 A. Load centre

B. Near load centre but at reasonable dis-
B. U235
tance
C. U236
C. Far away from load centre
D. U237
D. Near chemical industries
69. A material that is fissile can undergo: 74. At what year did the reactor vessel in a
A. Fusion nuclear power plant in Chernobyl, Ukraine
B. Fission overheated?
A. 2498
C. Combustion
B. 2047
D. none of above
C. 1990
70. Which statement is true about isotopes?
D. 1986
A. Isotopes of an element have the same
number of neutrons in their nuclei, but dif- 75. A sub-atomic event in which a uranium nu-
ferent numbers of protons. cleus splits into lighter radioactive materi-
als, neutrons, gamma rays and neutrinos
B. Isotopes of an element have different is called a:
chemical properties.
A. Fusion
C. Isotopes of an element have the same
number of protons in their nuclei, but dif- B. Chain reaction
ferent numbers of neutrons. C. Enrichment
D. Isotopes of an element have the same D. Fission reaction
relative atomic mass.
76. The function of the coolant is to:
71. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to A. Slow down neutrons
A. reduce temperature B. Absorb neutrons
B. extract heat from nuclear reaction C. Protect workers from radiation
C. control the reaction D. Cool the reactor

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 837

77. How long are fuel rods in used storage? 82. Which of the following best defines the
word “subtler” as used in paragraph 2?
A. 100 years

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. slighter
B. one year
B. less obvious
C. 20 years
C. confusing
D. 5-7 years
D. clever
78. One way to initiate a fission reaction is to
penetrate a large nucleus with a 83. This Nuclear Disaster happened in Japan in
2005
A. Neutron
A. Chernobyl
B. Proton
B. Fukishima-Daiichi
C. Electron
C. 3 Mile Island
D. critical mass
D. Shippingport, PA
79. If a nuclear reactor were to have a melt-
84. Plutonium is a radioactive material, ex-
down, radioactive materials could escape
posure to which is hazardous to human
in the form of gases from the reactor
health, and is one of the few materi-
into the atmosphere and harm humans and
als that can be used to make a nuclear
the environment. One safety system that
weapon. The time it takes for half of any
might be able to prevent such an escape is
initial quantity of plutonium to decay into
a:
stable non-radioactive products is roughly:
A. Centrifuge
A. 24 hours
B. Control rod
B. 24 days
C. Containment building
C. 24 years
D. Eectric turbine-generator
D. 24, 000 years
80. Which uranium isotope is found in nuclear 85. Which of the following risks occur most
reactors? frequently at nuclear power plants?
A. Both uranium-235 and uranium-238 A. leakage of untreated nuclear wastes
B. Only uranium-238 B. explosions
C. Only uranium-235 C. earthquakes
D. Only uranium-236 D. gas or steam leaks

81. One disadvantage of nuclear energy is 86. What are used to slow down the chain re-
A. Requires Fossil Fuel actions inside the reactor vessel?

B. it leaves behind radioactive waste A. Cool water

C. there are no disadvantages B. Cooling tower

C. Control rods
D. it emits large amounts of pollution into
the atmosphere D. Fuel rods

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 838

87. During a fission reaction, what bombards 92. What are the two products of nuclear fis-
the nucleus of an atom to break it apart? sion?
A. proton A. energy and lots of nuclei
B. electron B. just one nuclei and energy
C. neutron
C. neutrons and electrons
D. heat energy
D. protons and neutrons
88. A 400 MW nuclear power station would

NARAYAN CHANGDER
produce a equivalent radium of 93. How much wind power does India hold?
A. 100 tons daily A. 20, 000 MW
B. 1000 tons daily
B. 12, 000 MW
C. 500 tons daily
C. 140, 000 MW
D. 10 tons daily
D. 5000 MW
89. What are the two main parts in a nuclear
power plant? 94. Who licences nuclear power plants?
A. Containment building and the cooling A. The FDA
tower
B. The FFA
B. Fuel rods and control rods
C. Heat exchanger and the reactor vessel C. Mr. Mendoza
D. Turbine and the generator D. The NRC (Nuclear Regulatory Commis-
sion)
90. A radioactive isotope has a half life of 30
years. At year 0, there are 400 radioac- 95. How are active liquids of nuclear waste
tive atoms. How many are left after 120 disposed?
years of decay?
A. Stored in concrete tanks and buried un-
A. 50 atoms derground
B. 30 atoms
B. Stored in concrete tanks and buried in
C. 25 atoms sea
D. 12.5 atoms
C. Mixed with other chemicals and left
91. According to the selection, which of the into free atmosphere
following problems is a result of careless- D. They are reused and burnt away in
ness? gaseous fumes
A. Storage tanks containing high-level
waste may leak. 96. What process generates more energy per
B. The concrete in the WNP-2 plant con- mass?
tains air bubbles and water pockets. A. Nuclear fusion
C. Spent elements in nuclear fuel cannot B. Nuclear fission
be recovered.
C. Combustion
D. Storage for fuel rods is only tempo-
rary. D. Radioactive decay

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 839

97. The series of events in which neutrons split C. Mesa Verde Nuclear Facility
from uranium nuclei lead to the splitting of
D. Perry Nuclear Facility
more uranium nuclei is called a:

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A. Fission products 103. The function of the control rods is to:
B. Chain reaction A. Slow down neutrons
C. Isotopes B. Absorb neutrons
D. Neutrinos C. Protect workers from radiation
98. Which of the following is a negative of nu- D. Cool the reactor
clear energy?
A. Nuclear power plants are expensive to 104. Which of the following statements best
build expresses the main idea of the selection?
B. It produces a lot of energy A. Numerous risks and problems have
made nuclear power an unpopular energy
C. It emits carbon dioxide
source.
D. none of above
B. There are fewer risks associated with
99. When a nuclear power plant is ready to be nuclear power than the public believes ex-
shut down and abandoned, it is called ists.
A. decommissioning C. Explosions of the type produced by
B. a melt down atomic bombs are unlikely.
C. impoundment D. The primary problem at nuclear power
plants is structural defects.
D. waste management

100. The nuclear process occurring at a nuclear 105. Currently, most high-level radioactive
power plant. waste from nuclear reactors in the United
States is
A. Nuclear fusion
A. stored deep in ocean trenches
B. Nuclear fission
C. Combustion B. buried in Yucca Mountain

D. Multiplication C. reprocessed into new fuel pellets

D. chemically modified into safe materi-
101. What nuclear process occurs in the sun?
als
A. fission
E. stored at the power plant that pro-
B. fusion duced it
C. endothermic
106. When uranium is first mined out of the
D. atomic bomb
ground, it is called
102. The worst nuclear disaster to happen in A. uranium ore
the United States happened at which
is located in PA. B. plutonium
A. Three Mile Island Nuclear Facility C. milled uranium
B. Babcock Nuclear Facility D. enriched uranium

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 840

107. Pick the item below which is NOT a con- 112. What is the overall efficiency of nuclear
cern about nuclear power. power plant?
A. Terrorists A. 20 to 25%
B. Location concerns B. 25 to 30%
C. 30 to 40 %
C. Safety concerns
D. 50 to 70 %
D. Long-Term Health concerns
113. What city had to be abandoned after the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Containment facilites
Chernobyl nuclear reactor disaster.
108. Risks associated with nuclear power: A. Pripyat
A. can only occur at the plant site B. Kiev
B. may occur when wastes are trans- C. Moscow
ported or recycled D. Socchi
C. are limited to structural problems 114. What is radioactivity?
within the plant
A. An unstable atom releases energy to
D. are primarily a result of carelessness become stable
B. A stable atom gains energy and be-
109. What happens when several fuel rods are
comes unstable
placed together?
C. When a bomb goes off.
A. A series of fission reactions will occur.
D. Negatively charged particles are emit-
B. An explosion will occur. ted from the nucleus
C. The heat exhanger will melt.
115. The price of Uranium per pound is
D. The water will turn into steam then A. .2 cents
generates electricity
B. $46.00
110. Which process do hydrogen atoms use to C. $96.00
make the Sun’s energy? D. $100, 000
A. nuclear fusion
116. What are control rods made of that slows
B. nuclear fission down the chain reactions?
C. nuclear isotope A. Cadmium
D. nuclear meltdown B. Organesee
C. Hafnium
111. Moderate liquid nuclear wastes are dis-
D. Boron
posed into
A. Deep pits 117. Nuclear power plants have many disad-
vantages. One of those disadvantages is
B. Buried underground
C. Left into rivers A. reduced CO2 emissions
D. Left into deep oceans B. stable power

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 841

C. nuclear waste 123. How are moderate active solid wastes

D. reduced pollution to our atmosphere disposed?

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A. Buried underground
118. Radioactive materials have unstable
A. electrons B. Buried under sea
B. protons C. Sent to outer space
C. nuclei D. Left out in streams or rivers
D. neutrons
124. Pick the item which is NOT a greenhouse
119. The first nuclear power plant in India is gas
located at
A. Nitrous Oxide
A. Kolkata
B. Kalapakkam B. Water Vapor

C. Tarapur C. Carbon Dioxide

D. Kerala D. Methane
120. What nuclear process occurs in the sun E. They all ARE
and other stars?
125. The function of the shielding is to:
A. fission
B. fusion A. Slow down neutrons
C. endothermic B. Absorb neutrons
D. atomic bomb C. Protect workers from radiation
121. “Nuclear Energy is SAFE”-Below is indi- D. Cool the reactor
cator that justify this argument.
A. Radioactive waste is a huge problem 126. In economics of nuclear power plant
that cannot be solved taxes and insurance charges are taken as
B. People are unaware that radioactivity-
is not natural A. operating cost
C. It is impossible for nuclear plant to B. maintenance cost
coexist with regional industry, such as
tourism and fishery C. capital cost

D. If you live near a nuclear power plant, D. fixed cost

you’ll only receive about .009 millirem of
radiation each year. 127. In order for Uranium-235 to be able to be
used in a nuclear reactor, its concentration
122. This is what happens when nuclear fuel must be enriched from .7 % to
is used up.
A. 3 %
A. Reprocessing
B. Is placed in storage B. 7%

C. Is used again C. 100%

D. Is sent to Trump’s wall D. 10%

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6.6 Nuclear Power Plants 842

128. The concentration of the lighter isotope 132. Certain isotopes that have a nucleus
of uranium, uranium-235, is vert low in na- that “decomposes” and releases particles
ture relative to the abundance of the heav- (neurtons, beta, alpha) are said to be
ier uranium-238. In most modern reactors, A. radioactive
the abundance of uranium-235 in the fuel
B. a melt down
needs to be enriched by a factor of:
C. ionization
A. 2-3
D. half-life

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 11-18
133. The splitting of an atom’s nucleus into
C. 130-235 two nuclei is called
D. 4-7 A. Nuclear Fission
B. Nuclear Fusion
129. What country are the most nuclear power
plants being “planned” and “constructed” C. Control Rods
in on our planet? D. Fuel Rods
A. China 134. What Element is used to power the Nu-
clear Reactor
B. Russia
A. Uranium
C. United States
B. Radon
D. Germany
C. Mercury
130. atomic unit of mass has how much energy D. Hydrogen
in MeV 135. The U.S. generates of their power us-
A. 1.6 x 10-19 ing Nuclear power

B. 1 A. 20%
B. 90%
C. 69
C. 100%
D. 931
D. 2%
131. Which of the following facts from the se- 136. Which of the following results in the re-
lection best support the statement that ra- lease of nuclear energy?
dioactive waste is an unsolved problem? A. Wind
A. We have already generated over 10, B. Heat
000 tons of nuclear waste.
C. The breaking of nuclear bonds
B. Radioactivity could be released into D. none of above
the environment from activities related to
mining and processing nuclear fuel. 137. What controls the reaction within a nu-
clear reactor?
C. Only a part of nuclear fuel is fission-
able. A. Control Rods
B. Moderator
D. A location for stainless steel tanks con-
taining “high-level-liquid waste” mixed C. Containment building
with molten glass has not been found. D. Reactor Vessel

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 6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 843

138. The Nuclear Reactor is 141. What substance is used as a moderator

A. Small to scatter and slow down neutrons just
enough to increase their capture by Ura-

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B. Large nium and raise the rate of fission?
C. Normal size A. Graphite
D. n’t real B. Purified water
139. How is the heat generated by the reac- C. Uranium-238
tor core of a nuclear power plant used to D. Both A & B
provide power to buildings?
A. It is used directly to heat homes and 142. The first nuclear power plant in the world
offices commissioned in

B. It generates steam, which turns a tur- A. U.S.A

bine, powering a generator B. U.S.S.R (Union of Soviet Socialist Re-
C. It heats a metal which turns into elec- publics)
tricity C. England
D. All of the above D. None of the above

140. This Nuclear Disaster happened in New 143. What is the percentage of electricity nu-
York in 1979 clear power gives us today?
A. Chernobyl A. 25%
B. Fukishima-Daiichi B. 30%
C. 3 Mile Island C. 100%
D. Shippingport, PA D. 10%

6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant

1. What type of energy is being produced D. Three Gorges Dam
when a dam is placed across a river and
water is released to turn a turbine that 3. Are located in hilly areas where dams can
produces electricity? be built and large water reservoir can be
obtained.
A. Wind
A. Hydroelectric power station
B. Geothermal
B. Nuclear power station
C. Hydroelectric
C. Gas turbine power station
D. Solar D. Steam power station
2. What Is the Largest Hydroelectric Power 4. What is a generator?
Plant in the World?
A. A machine that creates radiation.
A. Yangtze River
B. A machine that turns mechanical into
B. Mississippi River electrical energy.
C. Rio Minho C. A type of wind energy

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6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 844

D. A type of geothermal energy 10. What role does gravity play in a hydroelec-
tric dam’s ability to produce electricity?
5. Wind energy is a resource.
A. Gravity causes the penstock to channel
A. nonrenewable water away from the turbine propeller.
B. renewable B. Gravity forces the water to fall down
C. hydroelectric through the penstock and push the tur-
D. solar bine.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Gravity creates the need for water to
6. What is it called when humans generate be pumped past the turbine to the tallrace.
electricity by using the heat of the Earth?
D. Gravity lets the water flow through the
A. Geothermal Energy
penstock and into the generator.
B. Hydroelectric Energy
11. What is one advantage of wind energy out
C. Radiation Energy
of the choices below?
D. none of above
A. Turbines are very expensive
7. Which energy generating station can be B. Wind turbines only create air pollution
considered to be the most dangerous?
C. Wind turbines are inexpensive
A. hydroelectric
D. none of above
B. wind
C. solar 12. What does the greek root “Hydro”
mean?
D. nuclear
A. Earth
8. What is a diversion facility?
B. Air
A. sometimes called run-of-river, facility
channels a portion of a river through a C. Fire
canal or penstock. It may not require the D. Water
use of a dam.
13. What is the most common facility used?
B. It stores energy by pumping water up-
hill to a reservoir at higher elevation from A. Impoundment Facility
a second reservoir at a lower elevation. B. Diversion Facility
C. typically a large hydropower system,
C. Pumped Storage Facility
uses a dam to store river water in a reser-
voir. D. none of above
D. none of above 14. What is an impoundment facility?
9. What is it called when you generate elec- A. typically a large hydropower system,
tricity with a dam and water? uses a dam to store river water in a reser-
A. Geothermal Energy voir.

B. Hydroelectric energy B. sometimes called run-of-river, facility

channels a portion of a river through a
C. Radiation energy canal or penstock. It may not require the
D. Water Power use of a dam.

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6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 845

C. It stores energy by pumping water up- 18. How does a hydroelectric power plant con-
hill to a reservoir at higher elevation from vert energy?
a second reservoir at a lower elevation.

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A. As water flows through the channels
D. none of above toward the generator, it has potential en-
15. Which description gives the steps for cre- ergy. This is changed to electric energy as
ating hydroelectric power? the generator rotates. Some of the elec-
tric energy is used to change water’s en-
A. River water stored in a reservoir flows ergy into kinetic energy.
down a channel in a dam, turning a turbine
as it passes. The turbine is connected to B. As water flows through the channels
a generator that produces electricity, and toward the turbine, it has kinetic energy.
then the water continues downstream. This is changed to potential energy within
B. River water enters a dam through a the turbine. This potential energy is con-
generator. The movement of the water verted to electrical energy by the trans-
through the generator produces electric- former.
ity. Then the water flows out of the dam C. As water flows through the channels
through turbines into a reservoir. toward the turbines, it has kinetic energy.
C. River water enters a dam through This is changed to mechanical energy as
channels. The channels are connected to the water turns the turbines. Then the me-
a transformer, which turns a generator, chanical energy of the turbines is changed
producing electricity. The water is then to electrical energy by the generator.
transported through turbines to wastewa-
ter canals. D. As water flows through the channels
toward the transformer, it has potential
D. River water stored in a reservoir flows energy. This is converted to electrical en-
through a turbine and into a channel in ergy by the transformer, and then the en-
a dam. At the end of the channel, the ergy is magnified by the generator.
water turns a generator, which produces
electricity; then the water flows back up-
19. Water stored behind the dam is known as
stream.
16. Of all the renewable energy sources,
A. Dam
which is used in the greatest amount?
A. hydropower B. Penstock
B. wind C. Water reservoir
C. biomass
D. Spillway
D. geothermal
17. Which sentence describes a way hydroelec- 20. Which country is the global leader in hy-
tric plants are better than other power droelectricity/hydropower generation?
plants? A. China
A. A
B. United States of America
B. B
C. C C. Canada
D. D D. Brazil

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6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 846

21. Read the sentence from the text. The tur- D. “A typical hydroelectric dam is built on
bine than turns a metal shaft in an electric a big river with a large drop in elevation.”
generator. Which dictionary entry best de- E. “Power lines connected the the gen-
fines turbine? erator carry electricity to your home and
A. a natural force that causes things to mine.”
fall
26. In a hydropower plant, what turns to gen-
B. a gate for regulating the flow of water erate electricity?
C. an engine with a part that turns like a

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. turbine
wheel
B. generator
D. a machine for carrying things to differ-
ent levels in a building C. penstock
D. none of above
22. What is used to make a magnetic field in-
side a generator? 27. What source of energy is used to generate
electricity by using the heat of the Earth?
A. wire
A. Geothermal Energy
B. turbine
B. Hydroelectric Energy
C. magnet
C. Solar Energy
D. electricity
D. none of above
23. How many Liters is 500 mL
28. Which statement about hydroelectric
A. 5, 000
power is true?
B. .5
A. It uses a safe, renewable resource.
C. 5
B. It disrupts one of Earth’s never-ending
D. 500 cycles.
24. What else does hydro energy provide and C. It uses water’s potential energy to pro-
improve duce electricity.
A. Flood control D. It uses civilization’s earliest energy re-
source.
B. irrigation
C. navigation 29. Used to increase the height of water level.
D. All of the above A. Dam
B. Penstock
25. Part B Which two sentences from the text
best show the relationship described in C. Water reservoir
part A? D. Spillway
A. “Actually, hydroelectricity and coal- 30. The following are the main components of
fired plants produces electricity in a simi- a hydroelectric plant, EXCEPT:
lar way.”
A. dam
B. “The generator is the motor that pro-
duces electricity.” B. penstock
C. “A hydroelectric plant uses water C. powerhouse
falling water to turn the turbine.” D. coal

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6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 847

31. How many years did it take to com- C. energy from the sun that is converted
plete the biggest hydroelectric plant in the into thermal or electrical energy.
United States?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. energy that comes from splitting
A. 7 years atoms in a reactor to heat water into
B. 9 years steam, turn a turbine and generate elec-
tricity.
C. 5 years
34. The largest hydroelectric plant in the
D. 1 year
United States is on the:
32. Reread paragraph 2 in the passage. Then A. Columbia River
read the events below.EVENT:Moving
B. Mississippi River
water pushes the blades of the tur-
bine.EVENT:The shaft from the turbine C. Sacramento River
spins inside the generator to produce elec- D. none of above
tricity. EVENT:Power lines connected to
the generator carry electricity to people’s 35. What is a small hydroelectricity power
homes. Which statement best explains the plant?
relationship between the events described A. generates 10 MW or less of power.
in the chart? B. has a capacity of more than 30
A. The turbine turns a shaft in the gen- megawatts (MW).
erator, producing electricity that moves C. has a capacity of up to 100 kilowatts
through the power lines.
D. none of above
B. The generator creates electricity that
moves from the power lines to the turbine. 36. What is one disadvantage of hydroelectric
energy?
C. Water is turned into steam, which
makes the turbine turn and creates elec- A. It does not work if you don’t have vol-
tricity that flows through the power lines. canoes nearby.
D. By using the water more than once, the B. It doesn’t work if it is not windy.
water from pumped storage causes the C. It doesn’t work if you don’t have rivers
power lines to carry more electricity to or moving water nearby.
people’s homes. D. We live in a desert
33. What is Hydroelectricity? 37. Hydroelectric power will be
A. having a profound impact on the pro- A. Will be discontinued in the future
cesses of soil degradation and is con-
B. Will be refurbished in the near future
tributing to the desertification of the most
arid areas on the planet. The increase in C. None of the above
the global temperature of the planet pro- D. none of above
duces a rise in the level of the sea, which
will cause the disappearance of islands 38. Part A Select the statement that best de-
and coastal cities. scribes how water produces electricity.
B. a form of energy that harnesses the A. Water is stored during periods elec-
power of water in motion-such as water tricity is not needed.
flowing over a waterfall-to generate elec- B. A coal-fired power plant turns steam
tricity. into electricity.

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6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 848

C. Moving water turns a turbine within a C. 4

generator. D. 8
D. A penstock is needed to create elec-
tricity from water. 44. What is a large hydroelectricity power
plant?
39. What energy resource is used to generate
A. has a capacity of more than 30
electricity with a dam and water?
megawatts (MW).
A. Geothermal Energy
B. generates 10 MW or less of power.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Hydroelectric Energy
C. has a capacity of up to 100 kilowatts.
C. Solar Energy
D. none of above
D. none of above
45. Choose the parts in the production of Hy-
40. Which of the following is NOT one of the droelectricity
top hydropower producing states (as of
2011). A. Water turbine

A. washington B. Motor

B. new york C. Dynamo

C. california D. Rudder
D. texas E. Shaft

41. What is a disadvantage of using non- 46. This takes the water from reservoir to wa-
renewable resources? ter turbine.
A. They have a large carbon footprint. A. Dam
B. They can all be used up over time. B. Penstock
C. They can lead to global warming. C. Surge tank
D. All of these. D. Spillway

42. Which statement describes steps involved 47. After water gains stored energy, what en-
in the production of hydroelectric power? ergy is it converted to when flowing down-
A. Moving water turns a paddle wheel hill?
that helps generate electricity. A. Kinetic Energy
B. The potential energy of water is di- B. Potential Energy
rectly transformed into electrical energy.
C. Nuclear Energy
C. Waterfalls down a pipe to generate
D. Thermal Energy
electricity.
D. Falling water turns a turbine that helps 48. What kind of energy does water gain just
generate electricity. before it spills over the top of a dam?
A. Kinetic energy
43. How many types of hydroelectric plants
are there? B. Potential energy
A. 3 C. Thermal energy
B. 2 D. Chemical energy

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6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 849

49. Which of the following is one of the disad- 53. Bakun Dam is located in:
vantages of geothermal energy?
A. Sabah

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A. Geothermal energy doesn’t work ev- B. Sarawak
erywhere since you need a volcano
nearby. C. Johor
B. Geothermal energy does not work if D. Kelantan
there are no rivers or moving water
nearby. 54. What are the disadvantages of hydroelec-
tricity?
C. Geothermal energy only works on
windy days. A. Hydropower is non-polluting, but does
have environmental impacts. Hydropower
D. none of above facilities can affect land use, homes, and
natural habitats in the dam area. Reser-
50. What is a Pumped Storage facility? voirs may cover people’s homes, impor-
A. It stores energy by pumping water up- tant natural areas, agricultural land, and
hill to a reservoir at higher elevation from archaeological sites.
a second reservoir at a lower elevation. B. Reservoir construction is “drying up”
B. sometimes called run-of-river, facility in the U.S. The construction of surface
channels a portion of a river through a reservoirs has slowed considerably in re-
canal or penstock. It may not require the cent years. Building a dam and reservoir
use of a dam. to support hydroelectric power takes a
lot of money, time, and construction, and
C. typically a large hydropower system, most of the suitable sports to locate hydro
uses a dam to store river water in a reser- plants have already been taken.
voir.
C. Hydroelectricity is hydrology depen-
D. none of above dent. The system depends on precipita-
tion levels, which can fluctuate from year
51. Hydroelectric Power uses what source to
to year, causing instability.
create energy?
D. Impoundment hydropower creates
A. Fire
reservoirs that offer a variety of recre-
B. Air ational opportunities, notably fishing,
swimming, and boating. Most water
C. Water
power installations are required to pro-
D. Rocks vide some public access to the reservoir
to allow the public to take advantage of
52. Some hydroelectric dams have an upper these opportunities.
and a lower reservoir and circulates the
water back up to the top after it falls 55. Which fossil fuel is made of old trees and
down. These are called plants from long ago?
A. diversionaries A. Petroleum
B. pumped storage B. Coal
C. channel storage C. Hydroelectric
D. head storage D. none of above

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6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 850

56. What are the three parts of a typical hy- C. Fossil Fuels
droelectric plant?
D. Human Power
A. An Electric Plant, Water Plant, Con-
crete Structure 61. The power generated from hydroelectric
plan depends on:
B. A reservoir, turbine and a river/dam
C. An electric plant, river/dam and a A. volumetric flowrate of water
reservoir B. height of the fall of water

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above C. wave of water

57. Siphoned water flows out of the bucket D. colour of water

due to ?
62. Take the water from reservoir to water
A. pressure turbine.
B. flowrate A. Dam
C. gravity B. Penstock
D. density C. Surge tank
58. What is a reservoir? D. Spillway
A. a large natural or artificial lake used
63. How is energy converted in a hydroelectric
as a source of water supply.
plant?
B. a stream or river that flows into a
larger stream or main stem (or parent) A. The potential energy of water is con-
river or a lake verted to electrical energy when water
flows past a generator.
C. a stream or river that flows into a
larger stream or main stem (or parent) B. The potential energy of water turns
river or a lake the generator’s turbines, which results in
the production of electrical energy.
D. a recessed, coastal body of water that
directly connects to a larger main body of C. The kinetic energy of water is con-
water, such as an ocean, a lake, or an- verted to electrical energy when water
other bay. flows down the dam’s channel and into the
transformer.
59. The flowrate of the running water can be
D. The kinetic energy of water turns tur-
altered via:
bines; the mechanical energy of the tur-
A. penstock bines turns the generator, which pro-
B. penknife duces electrical energy.

C. pensel 64. When you measure how long it takes to

D. pension fill 500mL beaker, you are measuring
A. flowrate
60. Out of the choices below, which form of
energy makes the most pollution? B. velocity
A. Hydroelectric C. density
B. Geothermal D. gravity

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6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 851

65. Hydropower produces during its oper- is driven by the sun, making it a renew-
ation of electricity generation . able power source, making it a more reli-
able and affordable source than fossil fu-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. zero waste
els that are rapidly being depleted.
B. minimal waste
D. Impoundment hydropower creates
C. a lot of waste reservoirs that offer a variety of recre-
D. a lot of pollution ational opportunities, notably fishing,
swimming, and boating. Most water
66. How do geothermal power stations power installations are required to pro-
work? vide some public access to the reservoir
to allow the public to take advantage of
A. Cold water is heated up and the water
these opportunities.
power turbines under the water and turns
it into electricity. E. Hydropower is non-polluting, but does
have environmental impacts. Hydropower
B. The hot water from inside the earth
facilities can affect land use, homes, and
meets cold air and produces condensation
natural habitats in the dam area. Reser-
which powers the turbines and turns it
voirs may cover people’s homes, impor-
into electricity.
tant natural areas, agricultural land, and
C. Cold water is pumped down and the archaeological sites.
cold water meets the hot water from in-
side the earth to produce steam to power 69. Where is the world’s most powerful pro-
turbines then creating electricity. duction of Hydroelectricity
D. none of above A. Brazil

67. To generate electricity, a dam opens its B. Australia

gates to allow water from the reservoir C. China
to flow through large tubes called
D. Africa
A. penstocks
70. The advantage of hydroelectric power sta-
B. spillway gates
tion.
C. pump station
A. It has the lowest running cost
D. none of above
B. Simple in design and construction
68. What are the benefits of hydroelectricity? C. Very small running operation cost
A. Hydropower is fueled by water, so it’s D. none of above
a clean fuel source, meaning it won’t pol-
lute the air like power plants that burn fos- 71. What is a micro hydroelectricity power
sil fuels, such as coal or natural gas. plant?
B. Hydroelectric power is a domestic A. has a capacity of up to 100 kilowatts.
source of energy, allowing each state to
B. generates 10 MW or less of power.
produce their own energy without being
reliant on international fuel sources. C. Has a capacity of more than 30
megawatts (MW).
C. The energy generated through hy-
dropower relies on the water cycle, which D. none of above

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6.7 Hydroelectric Power Plant 852

72. What are the benefits of renewable en- B. Russia and Germany
ergy C. Latin America and Asia
A. It’s Cheaper over time
D. Some parts of Australia
B. It won’t run out
C. it doesn’t harm the envirnoment 78. The generator of a hydropower plant uses
to help generate electricity.
D. All of the above
A. magnets only

NARAYAN CHANGDER
73. What is the advantage of hydroelectric B. copper wires only
power station?
C. magnets and copper wires
A. Simple in design and construction
D. none of above
B. Low operation and maintenance cost
C. Cheap to build 79. The passage says that hydroelectric plants
D. none of above respond well to rapidly changing demands
for electrical power. Which sentence from
74. What is one advantage of geothermal en- the passage best explains why?
ergy from the options below? A. A coal fired power plant uses steam to
A. Geothermal energy works everywhere turn the turbine blades.
on Earth.
B. The theory is to build a dam on a large
B. Geothermal energy relies on the river that has a large drop in elevation.
power of the sun.
C. at 5:00pm on a hot August week-
C. Geothermal energy makes no pollu- end day, there may be a huge demand for
tion. electricity to run millions of air condition-
D. none of above ers!
D. Pumped storage is a method keep-
75. Hydroelectric power plant can be located
ing water in reserve for peak periods of
at
power demand.
A. canals
B. rivers 80. Presently hydropower plants provide
of the world’s electricity
C. dams
A. 1/5
D. kitchens
B. 1/3
76. What is another name for Hydroelectric-
C. 1/4
ity?
A. hydroelectric power D. 1/8

B. atomic energy 81. To generate electricity, a generator spins

C. insolation a around a stator made of magnets.
D. solar radiation. A. rotor made of copper wire
B. rotor made of magnets
77. Where are most hydroelectric power
plants planned to be built C. stator made of copper wire
A. Most of Europe D. stator made of magnets

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 6.8 Hydraulic Pump 853

6.8 Hydraulic Pump

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

1. Internal leakage between the tip of the C. 35-590 GPM
gear and his house (housing) is called D. 3-60 GPM
A. Top Clearance
7. Vane pumps are efficient than piston
B. Side Clearance pumps, and efficient than gear pumps.
C. Backlash Clearance
A. More; less
D. Down Clearance
B. Less; less
E. Bottom Clearance
C. More; more
2. How many different types of gear pumps D. Less; more
are there?
8. Which of the following is used to machine
A. 1
the rotating group components?
B. 2
A. Lapping machine
C. 3
B. Desktop belt sander?
D. 4
C. Hand grinder
3. How many types of vane pumps? D. Hand file
A. 4
9. Which of the following plates is commonly
B. 2.5 coated in bronze, pinned to the barrel, and
C. 3 rotates at pump rpm?
D. 10 A. Side plate

4. What types of fluids are used with the B. port-plate

gear pump? C. Valve plate
A. Oil D. Bearing plate
B. Water
10. Which Pump handles the most pressure?
C. Gas
A. Vane
D. Sewage
B. Piston
5. What is the highest temperature a vane C. Gear
pump can handle?
D. none of above
A. 700 F
B. 200 F 11. Pump manufacturers will break in an
external-toothed gear pump, causing
C. 1, 000 F which of the following?
D. 500 F A. Cavitation
6. What’s the flow rate of a Piston Pump? B. Aeration
A. 55-6, 000 GPM C. Gear tracks
B. 1-1, 500 GPM D. Gear galling

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6.8 Hydraulic Pump 854

12. Isolating a component from the rest of the B. Low viscosity, high pressure
hydraulic system is the method of in- C. Low viscosity, low pressure
circuit component testing. (Book Page 19)
D. High viscosity, high pressure
A. Component Substitution
B. Component Elimination 18. An increase in flow from the can indi-
cate excessive wear (Page 29)
C. Visual/Audio testing
A. Outlet of an actuator
D. Isolation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Pump
13. Are vane pumps reversible? C. Case drain
A. Yes D. Motor
B. No
19. What do internal and external gear pumps
C. Only Some Types of Pumps excel at?
D. Gear Pumps Only A. Internal gear pumps are best at pump-
14. Internal leakage between one gear and an- ing thick viscosity fluids. External gear
other gear is called pumps excel at pumping thin low viscosity
fluids.
A. Bottom Clearance
B. External gear pumps are best used for
B. Top Clearance pumping low viscosity fluids and high vis-
C. Backlash Clearance cosity fluids
D. Down Clearance C. external and internal gear pumps both
E. Side Clearance can do high and low viscosity without los-
ing performance.
15. What has a discharge pressure of 30 D. None of these
kg/cm 2 is
A. GAL/R 20. What are the advantages of the external
gear pump?
B. SAL/R
A. Higher running speed
C. Wall/r
B. Handles higher viscosity
D. Kal/r
C. Higher operating temperature
E. PAL/R
D. They are louder
16. How do internal gear pumps operate?
21. Which has a volumetric efficiency 75 %-
A. Two External-Cut Gears 85 % is
B. Gear-Within-a-Gear Principle A. External Gear Pump Movable Side
C. Sliding springed arms Plate
D. Mechanism creating a reciprocating B. Internal Gear Pump Movable Side
motion along an axis Plate

17. What is the most common reason of using C. Internal Gear Pump Fixed Side Plate
a gear pump? D. Inline Axial Piston Pump
A. High viscosity, low pressure E. External Gear Pump Fixed Side Plate

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6.8 Hydraulic Pump 855

22. is the result of air bubbles entering the 28. Name an advantage of a Piston Pump.
pump’s inlet (Page 39) A. Pulsating flow

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Cavitation B. heavier duty
B. Pseudo-Cavitation C. Consistent flow rate
C. High pressure D. costly
D. Vortexing 29. Which of the following inline axial piston
23. What can vane pumps move? pump components has the primary respon-
sibility to shut off pump flow?
A. Air
A. Bias spring
B. Water
B. Control piston
C. Fluids and gasses
C. Relief valve
D. Oil D. Bias piston
24. Which of the following pumps requires the 30. What is a conceptual gear pump example?
use of a port plate?
A. A Turbo
A. Crescent
B. A supercharger
B. Spur
C. Coffee Dispenser
C. Helical D. Gas Pump
D. Herringbone
31. A pressure test point using a tee and an
25. Which pump is least efficient? isolation valve allows you to permanently
A. Piston mount a pressure gauge while avoiding
(Book page 24)
B. Gear
A. Full system flow
C. Vane
B. Full system pressure
D. Screw
C. Hydraulic pressure shock
26. Which of the following elements may be D. Contamination
included in a troubleshooting chart?
32. is the formation and collapse of
A. Symptoms encountered gaseous oil cavities in the liquid as it flows
B. Test methods through a pump (Page 32)
C. Remedies A. Cavitation
D. All of these elements can be included B. Pseudo-Cavitation
C. Vortexing
27. level troubleshooting is the process
of determining what failed in a particular D. Viscosity
component (Page 6) 33. Are Vane pumps self-priming
A. Symptom A. No
B. First B. Yes
C. Component C. Maybe
D. Final D. none of above

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6.8 Hydraulic Pump 856

34. What pushes oil into a positive- B. 500-2000 PSI

displacement pump’s inlet? C. 2000-4000 PSI
A. Pilot oil D. 500-3000 PSI
B. Atmospheric Pressure
40. A is evidence of the malfunction you
C. Case pressure observe in a hydraulic system causes a
D. Signal pressure fault (Page 5)
A. Cause

NARAYAN CHANGDER
35. Which of the following pumps has the most
B. Symptom
tolerance for dirt contamination?
C. Remedy
A. Gear pump
D. Failure
B. Vane pump
C. Piston pump 41. Which serves as the transfer of oil from
the tank to the system and as a mechani-
D. All pumps have equal tolerance for cal energy converter to hydraulic energy is
contamination

36. Which serves to avoid the oil vacuum on A. Hydraulics Tank

the side of the suction, is B. Hydraulics Motor
A. Internal Leakage C. Hydraulics Pump
B. Entrapment vacuum groove D. Actuator
C. Entrapment Relief Groove E. Accumulator
D. High pressure oil introduction hole 42. What are the vanes made from?
E. B-Guard A. Steel
37. What materials are gear pumps made out B. Teflon
of? C. Copper
A. copper and Zinc D. Silicon
B. Aluminumand iron 43. Which of the following piston pumps has
C. Cast iron and Stainless steel an eccentric mounted to the pump’s input
shaft?
D. Brassand Bronze
A. Rotating-cam radical piston pump
38. Which of the following vane pumps has B. Rotating-piston radical piston pump
only one inlet and one outlet?
C. Inline axial piston pump
A. Balanced
D. Bent-axis piston pump
B. Rotary
44. The of the swashplate in the axial
C. Unbalanced pump effects displacement:
D. Rolling A. Thickness
39. What is the max PSI a gear pump can pro- B. Speed
duce? C. Angle
A. 10000 PSI D. Leakage

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6.8 Hydraulic Pump 857

45. All of the following components are part 50. Which of the following styles of pumps
of the rotating group, EXCEPT? uses a swash plate?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Barrel A. Rotating-cam radial piston pump
B. piston and slipper assembly B. Rotating-piston radical piston pump
C. valve plate
C. Inline axial piston pump
D. Bearing plate
D. Bent-axis piston pump
46. test ports allow you to take pressure
measurements without breaking into a hy- 51. What does the turning of gears in an ex-
draulic line to install a tee. (Book Page ternal gear pump produce?
26)
A. Flow Path
A. Line
B. Fluid Power
B. System
C. Mechanical Power
C. in-line
D. Volume
D. Valve

47. Which serves to drain oil from the dis- 52. How does a piston pump operate?
charge side to the gear adjacent to the suc- A. Spring loaded arms concentric to inter-
tion side, the goal is that the oil pressure nal
from the balanced discharge side (balance)
so as to slow the wear on the top clear- B. A gear within a gear property
ance is
C. Mechanism creating a reciprocating
A. backlash Clearance motion along an axis
B. Side Clearance D. Two gears meshing together
C. Entrapment Relief Groove
53. During operation, where does the majority
D. Entrapment vacuum groove
of oil travel in an external-toothed gear
E. B-Guard pump?
48. Normal operating temperature for most A. Between the two meshing gears
hydraulic systems is (Book page 21)
B. Around the outside periphery
A. 100 to 135 degrees Fahrenheit
C. Both A and B
B. 250 to 335 degrees Fahrenheit
D. Neither A nor B
C. 135 to 265 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 200 to 300 degrees Fahrenheit 54. How many types of piston pumps are
there?
49. What are the two types of vane pumps?
A. 3
A. Unbalanced and Balanced
B. Rotational and Unbalanced B. 2

C. Balanced and Rotary C. 4

D. None of the above D. 1

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6.8 Hydraulic Pump 858

55. Hydraulics Pump is classified into 2 namely C. Drive Shaft

D. Valve
A. Positive dan Non Positive Displace- E. Side Plate
ment
B. Fixed dan Variable Displacement 61. Which of the following has the best me-
chanical efficiency?
C. External dan Internal Pump
A. Gear pump
D. Piston Pump dan Vane Pump
B. Vane pump

NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Gear Pump dan Propeller Pump
C. Piston pump
56. What is the shape of the divider in an in- D. All pumps pumps have equal mechani-
ternal gear pump? cal efficiency.
A. Crescent 62. The volume of the liquid that is transferred
B. Circle for each cycle (rotation) of the pump is
C. Half Circle called

D. Rectangle A. Positive Displacement

B. Displacement
57. Which among the following pumps have a
fixed amount of discharge? C. Non-Positive Displacement
D. Fixed Displacement
A. Positive displacement pumps
E. Variable Displacement
B. Non-positive displacement pumps
C. Self-priming pumps 63. Before you bleed the system pressure dur-
ing troubleshooting, (Page 14)
D. Jet pumps
A. Check the pump flow rate
58. What type of pump is a piston pump?
B. Check the system pressure
A. Negative displacement pump C. Remove all shields
B. Lil Pump D. Support any over running loads
C. Positive displacement pump
64. What is the range of decibels for a vane
D. Multi-Inverse Pump pump?
59. Which pump uses an impeller? A. 60-80 DB
A. Piston pump B. 65-85 DB
B. Vane pump C. 80-100 DB
C. Gear pump D. None of the above
D. Non-positive-displacement pump 65. In what machinery can you find a Piston
Pump?
60. What distinguishes between Fixed Fixed
type inline axial pistons and variable A. Marine Auxiliary Power
pumps is which can be changed B. Die casting
A. Swash Plate C. Petrochemical industry
B. Piston quality D. Liquid Alloys

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6.8 Hydraulic Pump 859

66. The method of flow measurement re- C. Cam ring

quires a shutoff valve to divert flow from D. Cartridge
the system through the flow meter (Book

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page 24 ) 71. Internal leakage between the gear side
and the plate side is called
A. Inline
A. Bottom Clearance
B. Bypass
B. Side Clearance
C. Isolation
C. Backlash Clearance
D. Re-route
D. Down Clearance
67. External Gear Pump is divided into 2 E. Top Clearance
namely
A. Fixed dan Variable Displacement 72. In the height between the pump inlet and
the surface of the oil in the reservoir is too
B. Balance and Unbalance high can occur (Page 32)
C. Axial and Bent A. Cavitation
D. Fixed dan Movable Side Plate B. Pseudo-Cavitation
E. Axial and radial C. Vortexing
68. To perform an out of circuit test, a com- D. Viscosity
ponent can be placed on a to provide 73. Inline axial piston pumps typically have
basic circuits to test the component (Page how many pistons?
10)
A. Three
A. Reservoir
B. Four
B. Calibration tester
C. Six
C. Test bench
D. None
D. Work cell
74. Which includes the External Gear Pump
69. What is an example of an application of a Movable Side Plate Type is
gear pump? A. Sal/R and Gal/R
A. Pressure Washers B. Gal/r and pal/r
B. gear pumps are not commonly used for C. FAL/R and KAL/R
pumping high viscosity fluids like oil
D. Cal/r and sal/r
C. Gear pumps are most commonly used
for moving air to one place to another E. Folol/ Dan gugal/Offide.

D. Gear pumps are most commonly used 75. Which includes the External Gear Pump
for pumping high viscosity fluids like oil. Fixed Side Plate Type is
A. Sal/r and kal/r
70. What do vane pumps sometimes contain in
order to spreed the process of rebuilding B. Gal/r and pal/r
the pump? C. FAL/R and KAL/R
A. Port plate D. Folol/ fa Ol/ fat/ Fourn?
B. Side plate E. Folol/ Dan gugal/Offide.

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6.8 Hydraulic Pump 860

76. Bent-axis piston pumps use valve plates 81. Measurements during troubleshooting
with what type of shape? are difficult because it requires you to dis-
assemble the system and insert the mea-
A. Flat
suring device. (Book page 22)
B. Partial spherical shape
A. Pressure
C. Octal shape
B. Flow
D. Hex shape
C. Temperature

NARAYAN CHANGDER
77. Which of the following components within D. Viscosity
a variable-.displacement inline axial pis-
ton pump dictates the pumps quality of 82. How much tolerance does the gear pump
flow? have to containments?

A. port plate A. meh tolerance

B. swash plate B. Low tolerance

C. valve plate C. high tolerance

D. Side polate D. Medium tolerance

78. Which serves to avoid oil stuck on the dis- 83. Which of the following is the most popular
type of piston pump found in mobile equip-
charge side is
ment?
A. Entrapment vacuum groove
A. Rotating-cam radical piston pump
B. Internal Leakage
B. Rotating-piston radial piston pump
C. Entrapment Relief Groove
C. Inline axial piston pump
D. High Pressure Oil Introduction Hole
D. Bent-axis piston pump
E. B-Guard
84. Which type of motion is transmitted by hy-
79. Which of the following may cause cavita- draulic actuators?
tion? (Book Page 32) A. linear motion
A. Using an overhead reservoir B. rotary motion
B. increasing the size of a suction line C. both a and b
C. Adding an immersion heater to warm D. none of the above
the fluid
D. Increasing the height of a suction lift 85. One of the non positive displacement
pumps is
80. One part of a vane pump is A. Gear Pump
A. Vane B. Trocoid Pump
B. Gears C. Vane Pump
C. Piston D. Propeller Pump
D. Rails E. Piston Pump

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6.8 Hydraulic Pump 861

86. Which serves to drain oil from the dis- 91. Which of the following has a high volumet-
charge side to the outside of the side ric efficiency?
plate/bushing, the goal is that the oil pres-

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A. Gear pump
sure from the discharge side pressing the
side plate/bushing to move closer to the B. Vane pump
side gear, so that slowing the wear of the
C. Piston pump
side clearance is .
D. All pumps have equal volumetric effi-
A. Entrapment vacuum groove
ciency
B. Internal Leakage
C. Entrapment Relief Groove 92. When working around hydraulic equip-
ment, (Page 11)
D. High Pressure Oil Introduction Hole
E. B-Guard A. Wear loose fitting clothing
B. Wear canvas shoes
87. What is the basic application of a lift
pump? C. Remove any rings
A. Car D. Wear long sleeves
B. Oil field
93. How do External Gear Pumps operate?
C. Water Well
A. Fluid flowing outside of two connected
D. None of the above
gears
88. How many gears are in a external gear B. Gear-Within-A-Gear Principle
pump?
C. Sliding springed arms
A. 4
D. Mechanism creating a reciprocating
B. 1
motion along an axis
C. 2
D. 3 94. pumps organize its pistons parallel to
the shaft.
89. The first step in troubleshooting a hy-
draulic system is to (Book page 50) A. Lift

A. Look up possible faults B. Axial

B. Identify the symptom C. Radial
C. Identify the possible causes D. Push
D. Identify possible test methods
95. The one who has a discharge pressure of
90. Which of the following is NOT a symp- 175 kg/cm2 is
tom of Fixed-displacement pump failure?
A. Kal/r
(Book Page 42)
A. High pump flow B. PAL/R

B. Erratic pressure changes C. SAL/R

C. Low pump pressure D. GAL/R
D. Overheating pump E. Wall/r

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 6.9 Energy Transfer 862

96. Name an advantage of a Gear Pump. C. Fluid loss

A. Can handle foreign materials
B. Helen Keller D. Can handle abrasive materials

6.9 Energy Transfer

1. A bus engine transfers chemical potential B. During transformations and transfers

NARAYAN CHANGDER
energy into so that the bus moves. C. During transfers only
A. thermal energy D. During GPS outages
B. gravitational potential energy
6. Tony is riding in a roller coaster car. After
C. electrical energy the car reaches the highest point on the
D. kinetic energy track, it begins moving downward. What
happens to the potential energy of the car
2. One example of Energy Transfer is as it moves?
A. Hot coffee in a mug warming the mug A. It is destroyed and lost.
and your hands.
B. It remains at a constant level.
B. A computer converting electrical en-
C. It is converted to kinetic energy.
ergy to sound and light energy.
D. It increases as height decreases.
C. Your lamp converting electrical energy
to light and thermal energy. 7. energy is extracted from heat stored
D. Your Xbox converting electrical energy within Earth
into light and sound energy. A. Hydroelectric

3. According to the law of , energy can- B. Geothermal

not be created nor destroyed, but can be C. Nuclear
transfered. D. Wind
A. Conservation of Energy
8. Which of the following is the correct defi-
B. Inertia nition of radiant energy?
C. Acceleration A. energy an object has because of its mo-
D. Conservation of matter tion or postition
B. energy resulting from the flow of
4. Which energy conversion occurs in a
charge particles, such as electrons or ions
gasoline-powered automobile engine?
C. energy of an object due to the random
A. potential to light
motion of its atoms and molecules
B. electrical to chemical
D. energy that is transmitted in the form
C. mechanical to chemical of electromagnetic waves
D. chemical to mechanical
9. The ability to do work is called
5. When is energy lost? A. energy
A. During transformations only B. force

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6.9 Energy Transfer 863

C. newtons 14. Felix has lunch and later the same after-
D. gravity noon plays a game of soccer. This is an
example of which type of energy transfor-

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10. The food you eat provides your body with mation?
energy. A. sound energy to chemical energy
A. nuclear B. radiant energy to chemical energy
B. chemical C. thermal energy to mechanical energy
C. heat D. chemical energy to mechanical energy
D. radiant 15. The flow of energy from an object at a
higher temperature to an object at a lower
11. Which substance does not use oxygen to
temperature.
produce energy?
A. heat
A. coal
B. temperature
B. hydrogen
C. radiation
C. natural gas
D. conduction
D. uranium
16. Computers and cell phones can become
12. What is the difference between potential warm after long periods of use. Which
energy and kinetic energy? statement provides the best explanation
A. Potential energy is the energy of an ob- for why this happens?
ject due to its motion, while kinetic energy A. Kinetic energy is converted to thermal
is energy due to its position. energy.
B. Potential energy is the energy of an ob- B. Sound energy is converted to thermal
ject due to an applied force, while kinetic energy.
energy is energy stored after the applied
C. Electrical energy is converted to ther-
force.
mal energy.
C. Potential energy is the energy stored D. Mechanical energy is converted to
after an applied force, while kinetic en- thermal energy.
ergy is the energy used from the applied
force. 17. The unit of power is
D. Potential energy is the energy of an ob- A. kilowatt (kW)
ject due to its position, while kinetic en- B. Joule (J)
ergy is energy due to its motion.
C. ampere (A)
13. When watching TV there are two types D. volt (V)
of energy present. Which types of energy
helps you to enjoy TV? 18. What role does a generator play in an elec-
trical circuit?
A. light and motion
A. The circuit sends energy through the
B. heat and motion
generator.
C. light and sound B. The generator changes electricity into
D. motion and sound motion.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 864

C. The generator changes mechanical en- A. Solar Energy

ergy into electrical energy. B. Thermal Energy
D. The generator changes the direction C. Nuclear Energy
that energy glows in a circuit.
D. Mechanical Energy
19. is the energy that is stored in the
bonds between atoms. (Examples:food, 24. A hairdryer converts
batteries) A. electrical energy into chemical

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Chemical Energy B. electrical energy into thermal
B. Nuclear Energy C. chemical energy into mechanical
C. Potential Energy D. thermal energy into mechanical
D. Electrical Energy
25. Which of the following chemical energy to
20. The energy an object has due to the motion sound and radiant energy?
of its particles; the total amount of kinetic A. solar calculator
energy of particles in an object.
B. windmill
A. heat
C. glow stick
B. thermal energy
D. firecracker
C. conduction
D. convection 26. Which energy transformation below
matches? Green plants?
21. A resource is an energy source that can
A. chemical to mechanical
be easily reproduced or replaced by nature
B. chemical to heat
A. renewable
B. nonrenewable C. solar to chemical

C. neither D. none of above

D. none of above 27. The flow of electrical energy through a cir-

cuit is called
22. While camping, Mike wanted to build a fire
to keep warm. After collecting wood, he A. electric current
lit a match to start the fire. What type of B. energy
energy change happened when the wood
C. thermal
caught fire?
D. motion path
A. from chemical to light and heat
B. from chemical to potential and heat 28. Which cooking utensil would be the best
conductor of heat energy when placed in
C. from mechanical to kinetic and heat
boiling water?
D. from mechanical to chemical and heat
A. metal whisk
23. is the energy released when the nu- B. plastic fork
cleus of an atom is split apart (during fis-
sion) or combined with another nucleus C. rubber spatula
(during fusion). D. wooden spoon

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6.9 Energy Transfer 865

29. What is the main energy transformation D. She has no energy

that occurs when a bow is drawn across
the strings of a violin? 34. You could find a lot this type of energy at

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the top of a tall tree.
A. Heat energy is changed to electrical
energy. A. Electrical
B. Electrical energy is changed to sound B. Kinetic
energy. C. Potential
C. Mechanical energy is changed to D. Mechanical
sound energy.
D. Electrical energy is changed to me- 35. Which environmental consequence is most
chanical energy. often associated with obtaining energy
from fossil fuels?
30. Where did Bert’s Energy go to?
A. air pollution
A. It went to Dr Jeff
B. noise pollution
B. It went to Izzy’s popcorn Maker
C. disruption of bird migration
C. It didn’t go anywhere and stayed with
Bert D. excessive use of valuable land
D. Dr. Jeff’s Mom took it! 36. Which of the following is true about ALL
energy transformations?
31. Meredith wants to experiment with a sim-
ple battery circuit. She attaches a small A. Energy is never lost; it just changes
motorized fan to the circuit. Which of from one from to another.
these types of energy will NOT be repre- B. Energy never changes forms, only the
sented in this experiment? amount of energy changes.
A. chemical energy C. The end product of all energy transfor-
B. electrical energy mations is electrical energy.
C. heat energy D. The end product of all energy transfor-
D. light energy mations is chemical energy.

32. Water is renewable because it 37. is energy that travels as waves

through the air or water and vibrates the
A. can be frozen
eardrum upon contact.
B. important to all life
A. Mechanical energy
C. can be replaced constantly
B. Thermal energy
D. can evaporate
C. Sound energy
33. A skydiver jumps from a plane and is
D. Light energy
halfway through her descent. At this point
in time she has 38. What does the Law of Conservation of En-
A. Kinetic Energy ergy state?
B. Gravitational Potential Energy A. energy is always created, but not de-
C. Both Kinetic and Gravitational Poten- stroyed
tial Energy B. energy cannot be created or destroyed

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6.9 Energy Transfer 866

C. energy cannot be created, but can be D. Burning fossil fuels can produce smog,
destroyed which can cause respiratory illnesses.
D. energy is always being created and de-
44. Which example BEST demonstrates conduc-
stroyed
tion?
39. Which of the following converts nuclear en- A. a burner warming a pan.
ergy to electrical energy?
B. a refrigerator cooling air.
A. candle

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. an oven circulating hot air.
B. light bulb
D. a microwave warming food.
C. coal power plant
D. nuclear power plant 45. is energy that comes from the sun.

40. The cycle that powers the ocean currents A. Nuclear Energy
and weather is called B. Chemical Energy
A. conduction current C. Electrical Energy
B. radiation D. Solar/Radiant Energy
C. condition current
46. Which best describes the potential of solar
D. convection current
power for future energy use?
41. Earth’s internal heat, or energy is an- A. It is not likely to be used because it pol-
other energy source lutes the environment and contaminates
A. renewable drinking water supplies.
B. chemical B. It is likely to be used because its cap-
C. geothermal ture and storage does not require special
equipment.
D. nonrenewable
C. It is likely to be used because it is a re-
42. Which of the following is a disadvantage newable resource that is indefinitely avail-
of using coal? Choose all that apply. able.
A. It can cause water pollution D. It is not likely to be used because it is
B. It can cause health problems in the less expensive than fossil fuel resources.
miners
47. A student observes that the handle of a
C. It can be dangerous to mine large spoon becomes warm when used for
D. It it difficult to transport serving hot soup. What design change will
reduce the transfer of heat to the student’s
43. Which is most likely a major concern asso- hand the most?
ciated with burning fossil fuels?
A. Put a wooden covering over the han-
A. Burning fossil fuels can pollute the
dle.
oceans.
B. Fix a glass cap on the handle.
B. Burning fossil fuels can remove harm-
ful chemicals from precipitation. C. Wrap a layer of aluminum foil around
C. Burning fossil fuels can remove harm- the handle.
ful chemicals from precipitation. D. Place a steel head on the handle.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 867

48. Which best describes a method of obtain- B. Some of the mechanical energy is de-
ing energy that may cause changes in wa- stroyed during the process of collision.
ter temperature and harm to fish popula-

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C. Mechanical energy from the cue ball is
tions? transformed into light energy.
A. burning coal D. Some of the mechanical energy from
B. using ethanol in cars the cue ball is transformed into sound and
C. installing solar panels on a home thermal energy.
D. generating electricity in a hydroelec- 53. Which device directly converts chemical en-
tric power plant ergy into electrical energy?
49. The useful output energy of a light bulb is A. solar-powered calculator
B. wood-burning stove
A. electrical C. battery-powered flashlight
B. light D. wind-powered sailboat
C. heat
54. A hockey player uses her stick to hit a
D. chemical hockey puck. Which statement describes
50. is the main component of natural gas the overall energy transfer?
A. oxygen A. Energy is transferred from the stick to
the puck.
B. carbon dioxide
B. Energy is transferred from the player
C. methane
to the puck.
D. petroleum
C. Energy is transferred from the puck to
51. What is conservation? the player.
A. Letting nature take its course. D. Energy is transferred from the stick to
B. Preventing humans from having any- the player.
thing to do with it. 55. What does a Sankey diagram show?
C. The prevention of the loss of a re-
A. Power
source through thoughtful management
of it. B. Current
D. Letting businesses take care of a re- C. Efficiency
source. D. none of above
52. Sarah is playing a game of pool. She hits 56. A toy car is released at the top of an in-
the cue ball with the pool stick, and the clined plane. How does the car’s energy
cue ball collides with the pool ball. How- change as it rolls down the inclined plane?
ever, the pool ball does not have as much
mechanical energy as the cue ball. Which A. Both its kinetic energy and potential
of the following best explains how energy energy increase.
is conserved in this situation? B. Both its kinetic energy and potential
A. Mechanical energy from the cue ball is energy decrease.
transformed into gravitational energy of C. Its kinetic energy increases, and its
the pool ball. potential energy decreases.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 868

D. Its kinetic energy decreases, and its C. Sound, mechanical, and electrical
potential energy increases. D. Light, chemical, and mechanical
57. What does reduce mean? 62. What is the energy transformation? sun
A. Consuming less or combining capabili- → apple tree (think about what the plant
ties to get more out of each item. needs for photosynthesis)
B. re-purposing an item after its initial A. chemical to solar
use B. solar to chemical

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. returning a product to its raw material C. heat to chemical
and producing something else with it D. chemical to mechanical
D. throw less material into the trash
63. What form of energy transfer is most
58. Which type of energy transfer occurs in an likely responsible when your clothes dryer
electric motor? dries your clothes?
A. Chemical energy changes into mechan- A. Potential to Chemical to Nuclear
ical energy B. Kinetic to Thermal to Light
B. Mechanical energy changes into elec- C. Chemical to Mechanical to Electrical
trical energy. D. Electrical to Mechanical to Thermal
C. Light energy changes into electrical en- 64. This form of energy does NOT come from
ergy. the sun.
D. Electrical energy changes into mechan- A. Solar
ical energy.
B. Thermal
59. The total potential and kinetic energy of C. Light
the particles of an object is the object’s
D. Sound
A. nuclear energy
65. How did Dr Jeff use sound to break a
B. electromagnetic energy glass?
C. mechanical energy A. He hit it with a hammer.
D. thermal energy B. The glass fell.
60. Which is an example of a renewable en- C. He used his blaster to shoot thru the
ergy resource? glass and take out a squad of stormtroop-
ers!
A. biomass
D. He used sound to vibrate the glass till
B. coal it broke
C. gas
66. Which of these equations is correct?
D. oil use f ul energy trans f erred
A. e f f iciency = total energy trans f erred
61. A television works by transforming elec-
trical energy into what other kinds of en- total energy trans f erred
B. e f f iciency = use f ul energy trans f erred
ergy?
A. Light, thermal, and sound C. energy = e f f iciency × 100%
wasted energy trans f erred
B. Thermal, chemical, and solar D. e f f iciency = total energy tran f erred

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6.9 Energy Transfer 869

67. What is energy transformation? A. converting electrical to potential en-

A. a change of energy from one form to ergy

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another B. converting potential to electrical en-
B. when energy gets more energy added ergy
to it C. converting electromagnetic energy to
C. when energy gets destroyed kinetic energy
D. a change in intensity D. converting kinetic to gravitational en-
ergy
68. The process by which energy is transferred
from a warmer object to a cooler object by 71. Jilly and Fran are camping. They cover
means of physical contact their bottle of milk with a wet cloth. How
A. Thermal Energy does the wet cloth keep the milk cool?
B. Convection A. by conduction
C. Radiation B. by convection
D. Conduction C. by infrared radiation
69. The following steps describe the process of D. by evaporation
generating electricity by burning coal in a
power Plant1. The coal fire converts liquid 72. Stored energy between atoms, ions, and
water to steam. 2. The steam rotates fan- molecule is energy?
like blades of a mechanical turbine. 3. The A. potential
shaft of the turbine spins anelectric gen-
erator.4. The electric power is delivered B. mass
to the consumer over long-distance power C. nuclear
lines. Which energy transformation occurs
during this process? D. chemical
A. Nuclear energy of the steam is con- 73. is the transfer of thermal energy.
verted to thermal energy of the turbine. in
the generator. A. heat
B. Mechanical energy from the turbine is B. cold
converted to electric energy. C. temperature
C. Electric energy from the generator is D. transformation
converted to chemical energy in the power
lines. 74. A family installs a new heating system in
D. Chemical energy from the generator is their home. Which is the most desirable
converted to electric energy in the power result of the new heating system?
lines. A. producing more noise pollution
70. Engineers are building a dam in a river val- B. decreasing the amount of energy used
ley. Once the dam is built, a reservoir
C. increasing the use of natural re-
will develop. If the engineers released the
sources
water at the base of the dam, which en-
ergy transformation are they attempting D. increasing the time it takes to heat the
to achieve? home

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6.9 Energy Transfer 870

75. Renewable energy resources produce less 80. Which object has kinetic energy?
than fossil fuels. A. a rock resting on a cliff
A. pollution B. a car parked in a driveway
B. energy C. a barrel drifting down a waterfall
C. wind D. a house positioned on a mountainside
D. light
81. Which statement best describes what hap-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
pens to a snow skier’s potential energy
76. Through which process do fossil fuels
while gliding down a ski slope?
form?
A. Potential energy is conserved and has
A. Wind and water gradually break rock
an equal value at the top and bottom of
into pieces.
the slope.
B. Volcanic lava cools and hardens after
B. Potential energy is destroyed at a rate
an eruption.
equal to the speed the skier travels down
C. Heat and pressure act on layers of sed- the slope.
iment over time. C. Potential energy is transformed into
D. Acids in rainwater slowly convert rock an equal amount of kinetic energy as the
to other substances. skier moves down the slope.
D. Potential energy is created in an
77. What do you need to add to kinetic energy
amount equal to the change in elevation
in order to find an object’s mechanical en-
as the skier moves down the slope.
ergy?
A. Initial Energy 82. What does re-cycle mean?

B. Gravitational Energy A. consuming less or combining capabili-

ties to get more out of each item.
C. Thermal Energy
B. re-purposing an item after its original
D. Potential Energy use.
78. Which one is an example of Radiant En- C. returning a product to its component
ergy raw materials and using those to produce
something else.
A. moving car
D. throw less material into the trash.
B. visible light
83. Coal makes
C. fission reaction
A. Less energy than wood
D. sound waves
B. More energy than wood
79. A/n energy source is a resource that C. Less energy than peat
can be used in place of fossil fuels
D. Less energy than solar
A. alternative
84. energy is energy from fast-moving
B. pollution
rivers or water flowing downhill through
C. organic dams
D. gas A. nuclear

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6.9 Energy Transfer 871

B. geothermal C. Sound energy is changed into electri-

C. solar cal energy

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D. hydroelectric D. You hand energy is changed into sound
energy
85. Potential energy is energy in stored form.
Kinetic energy is energy that is in motion. 90. Which will most likely lead to an in-
Which of these does NOT describe poten- crease in the use of renewable energy re-
tial energy transforming into kinetic en- sources?
ergy? A. conservation of fossil fuels
A. a bicycle tire spinning B. decreased expense of fossil fuels
B. a boulder rolling down a hill C. decision to choose energy resources
C. a person swinging a hammer that have less impact on the environment
D. a person using a lawn mower filled D. none of above
with gasoline 91. How an object moves from one place to
86. Which is a nonrenewable resource? another is called
A. oil A. energy
B. sunlight B. absorb
C. water C. motion
D. wood D. electric current

87. Everything that is not part of a system is 92. What is depletion?

part of A. Using technology to find more re-
A. gravitational potential energy sources
B. speed B. Using the part of the resource that you
can easily get to .
C. motion
C. Taking all the energy out of an object
D. the environment
D. Using all the resource up.
88. Which are most responsible for creating
acid rain pollution? 93. Electrical energy can be changed into what
other forms of energy?
A. nuclear power plants
A. wind, mechanical, elastic
B. coal-burning power plants
B. light, sound, mechanical
C. hydroelectric power plants
C. solar, sound, gravitational
D. wood-burning power plants
D. hydroelectric, solar, light
89. You play your electric piano, what kind of
energy transfer is taking place when you 94. In which of the following examples is work
play? being done?
A. Electrical energy is changed into sound A. A student pushes on a wall.
energy B. A student lifts her books off the table.
B. Electrical energy is changed into Ther- C. A student holds her book over her
mal energy head during a tornado drill

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6.9 Energy Transfer 872

D. A student studies her book for the sci- B. A marshmallow is burning when held
ence test. above a campfire.

95. Which of these produces thermal energy? C. A hamburger is cooking on a hot grill.

A. Marker D. A metal spoon is heated when held in

a cup of hot tea.
B. Desk
C. Tree 101. An open circuit
A. creates light

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Fire
B. has a break in it
96. When a television is turned on, electrical
energy is transformed into which of these C. turns a lightbulb on
forms of energy? Choose all that apply. D. has no breaks in it
A. sound energy
102. A roller coaster at the top of a hill has
B. thermal energy energy in this energy store.
C. chemical energy A. Gravitational Potential
D. electromagnetic energy B. Thermal
97. Which of these objects has the most kinetic C. Elastic Potential
energy? D. Chemical
A. A 1 1/2 ton car going 60 mph
103. Which of the following forms of energy
B. A 1 1/2 ton car going 70 mph is commonly wasted in energy transfers?
C. A 2 ton truck going 60 mph A. Heat
D. A 2 ton truck going 70 mph B. Light
98. Which of the following radiant energy to C. Kinetic
electrical energy? D. Gravitational
A. solar calculator
104. Whenever a moving object experiences
B. windmill friction, some of its kinetic energy is
C. glow stick turned to
D. firecracker A. mechanical energy
B. potential energy
99. What does a thermometer measure
C. thermal energy
A. Thermal Energy
D. light energy
B. Heat
C. Specific Heat 105. This element is found in all living things
D. Temperature as well as in the earth and oceans
A. oxygen
100. Which activity best demonstrates the
transfer of heat energy through radia- B. nitrogen
tion? C. carbon
A. An egg is frying in a heated pan. D. iron

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6.9 Energy Transfer 873

106. Energy stored in the nucleus of an atom- 111. Energy that travels across distances in
the energy that holds the nucleus together. the form of electromagnetic waves.
The energy in the nucleus of a uranium

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A. Convection
atom is an example.
A. Electrical Energy B. Radiation
B. Nuclear Energy C. Conduction
C. Radiant Energy D. Induction
D. Potential Energy
112. Heat energy is also called energy.
107. Which of the following statements about
A. chemical
thermal energy is true?
A. as you hold a cup of hot water, your B. electrical
hands cool the water C. mechanical
B. as you hold a glass of cold milk, the D. thermal
cold travels to your hand
C. as you hold a cup of cold milk your hand 113. Which is a disadvantage of using solar or
cools the milk wind energy to produce electricity?
D. as you hold a cup of hot water the heat A. They are controlled energy resources.
moves to your hand
B. These energy sources are nonrenew-
108. An object that has a greater mass and able.
has a greater kinetic energy than an object
that has less of each. C. They are an expensive way to produce
energy.
A. mass
D. Their ability to produce energy is incon-
B. motion
sistent and variable.
C. speed
D. heat 114. Sunlight, water, and wind are examples
of inexhaustible forms of energy. What
109. These kind of observations are made us- does inexhaustible mean?
ing instruments such as rulers, balances
and thermometers. A. We will run out at any minute.
A. Qualitative B. We will never run out.
B. Quantitative C. We will run out in 100 years.
C. Scientific D. We will run out in 20 years.
D. none of above
115. What form of energy is also described as
110. What is one disadvantage of using water “energy of motion”?
power?
A. Potential
A. Dams are expensive to build
B. It creates a lot of electricity B. Mechanical

C. It is renewable C. Kinetic
D. none of above D. Electrical

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6.9 Energy Transfer 874

116. Which energy transformation below A. Energy is never created, but can be
matches? An electrical circuit? destroyed when heat is created in an ex-
A. chemical to heat, sound, light, mechan- change
ical B. Energy is never created or destroyed;
it is only transformed from one form of en-
B. solar to heat, sound, light, mechanical
ergy to another.
C. electrical to heat, sound, light, me- C. Energy is never created or destroyed.
chanical It is only created when energy is created

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above from matter.
D. Energy is never destroyed or created
117. What is the energy transformation in hy-
except when there is a nuclear reaction.
droelectric dams?
A. Kinetic to electrical 122. Dams are structures that can produce
electricity from the natural motion of wa-
B. Kinetic to heat ter. Which part of the dam rotates when
C. Electric to kinetic pushed by water to help the generator cre-
ate power for future use?
D. Sound to electric
A. electromagnet
118. light bulbs, Sun B. gasoline
A. mechanical C. motor
B. chemical D. turbine
C. heat 123. What is an example of energy transfer
D. light by HEAT? (Click all that apply)
A. Heat lamp warming food
119. When you plug in your Xbox, electrical
energy is transformed into B. S’more’s in solar oven
C. A windmill powering a farm
A. Sound and light energy
D. Water running through a dam
B. Thermal and chemical energy
124. At the end of a long road trip, Josh no-
C. light and chemical energy
ticed the tires of the care were very hot.
D. mechanical and thermal Which of these caused the tires to become
hot?
120. The following appliances convert electri-
cal energy to other forms of energy. All A. friction between the road and the tires
the appliances produce sound. In which ap- B. heat from the outside air
pliance is sound a useful output? C. heat from the car’s engine
A. Fan D. rubber in the tires
B. Alarm clock 125. What happens to the energy of a pen-
C. Hair dryer dulum as its back-and-forth motion slows
and the pendulum comes to a stop?
D. Drill
A. The energy leaves the pendulum be-
121. Which statement summarizes the Law of cause the passing of time takes energy
Conservation of Energy? away from objects.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 875

B. The energy is transferred to the air be- B. The color of the matter, the shape of
cause the pendulum pushes the air out of the matter, and the smell of the matter.
its path.

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C. The type of matter, the amount of mat-
C. The energy is transformed into poten- ter, and the environment surrounding the
tial energy as the pendulum comes to rest. matter.
D. The energy leaves the pendulum be- D. How happy the matter is, how sad the
cause the motion destroys energy. matter is, or how mad the matter is.
126. Malia burned herself when she touched a
130. Which source of energy is the easiest to
hot iron skillet on the stove. What method
convert directly by an electric generator?
of heat transfer caused the burn?
A. coal
A. conduction
B. convection B. geothermal
C. radiation C. petroleum
D. none of above D. wind

127. Which is an environmental consequence 131. Which form of energy transfer is most re-
of using biomass as a source of energy? sponsible for the creation of Earth’s air and
A. There are no environmental conse- ocean currents?
quences for using biomass as a source of A. conduction
energy.
B. convection
B. Biomass creates harmful emission of
carbon and sulfur, and causes massive C. insulation
cutting of trees. D. radiation
C. Biomass has a great impact on the tem-
perature of fresh water and the amount of 132. What are some ways energy can be gen-
dissolved oxygen. erated at a power plant? [check all that
apply]
D. none of above
A. a swimming pool
128. A is a complete electrical connection
around which current flows or circulates. B. moving water to spin a generator
A. battery C. forest fire
B. wire D. burning coal to produce steam
C. motion
133. What energy transformation occurs from
D. circuit a light bulb?
129. Not all substances transfer energy in the A. Electrical energy = kinetic energy +
same way. What affects the time needed potential energy
to change the temperature of a sample of
B. Electrical energy = electrical energy
matter?
C. Electrical energy = chemical energy
A. The temperature of the matter, the
thermal energy of the matter, and the ve- D. Electrical energy = light energy +
locity of the matter. thermal energy

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6.9 Energy Transfer 876

134. Which of the following devices trans- 139. Today, most of the coal is used to:
forms electrical energy into mechanical en- A. power steamships and steam trains
ergy?
B. heat homes and businesses
A. An e-reader
C. produce electricity
B. a fan
D. make iron and steel
C. a manual pencil sharpener
D. ipod 140. Which is a possible disadvantage of using

NARAYAN CHANGDER
flowing water to produce electricity?
135. Which of the following converts chemical A. ecosystem damage and loss of land
energy to electrical energy?
B. reduced carbon dioxide emission
A. candle
C. only suitable for industrial use
B. light bulb
D. creates reservoirs
C. coal power plant
141. energy is the energy due to the mo-
D. nuclear power plant
tion (kinetic) and position (potential) of an
136. Materials that transfer thermal energy object.
easily A. electrical
A. conductors B. chemical
B. generators C. solar
C. insulators D. mechanical
D. atoms
142. What form of energy is defined as, “the
137. A chef pours a cup of rice into a pot of boil- total potential and kinetic energy of an ob-
ing water and observes the rice swirling ject”.
around in the pot. Which of the following A. Potential
explains the cause of this action?
B. Mechanical
A. Heat transfer by ration makes the rice
C. Kinetic
vibrate.
D. Electrical
B. The rice is carried along by conduction.
C. The chef stirred the pot before the rice 143. A closed circuit has
was added. A. a motor in it
D. The rice is carried along by convection B. a switch in it
currents.
C. two bulbs in it
138. What type of energy is transferred dur- D. no breaks in it
ing a collision?
144. More sulfur dioxide is being added to the
A. Light energy
atmosphere. How will this MOST likely af-
B. Thermal energy fect the hydrosphere?
C. Mechanical energy A. There will be a decrease in sea level.
D. Sound energy B. The acidity of the ocean will increase.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 877

C. There will be an increase in fresh wa- 150. is energy resulting from the flow of
ter. electric charge through a conductor.

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D. none of above A. Thermal energy
B. Electrical energy
145. Which of these has elastic potential en-
ergy? C. Mechanical energy
A. a vase sitting on a shelf D. Chemical energy
B. a stretched rubber band 151. How does a hydroelectric power plant
C. a child moving down a slide demonstrate the Law of Conservation of
Energy?
D. sugars stored in the molecules of food
A. The hydroelectric power plant is a
146. Which of the following is considered an good method of providing energy to many
alternative energy resource? homes and businesses.
A. coal B. The amount of water used in the hy-
droelectric power plant is equal to the
B. biomass amount of electrical energy used in a
C. petroleum home.
D. natural gas C. The amount of potential energy at the
hydroelectric power plant is equal to the
147. When you move your arm, your body amount of electrical energy used in a
changes chemical energy supplied by food home.
into energy. D. The amount of kinetic and potential
A. light energy lost by the water is equal to the
amount of electrical energy produced by
B. electrical
the generator at he hydroelectric power
C. potential plant.
D. mechanical 152. Which of these is a measure of the AV-
ERAGE kinetic energy of the molecules of
148. Which of these objects are producing me-
a material?
chanical energy?
A. heat
A. lamp
B. temperature
B. metal pan
C. thermal energy
C. Boy running
D. bonding energy
D. telephone hanging on wall
153. Heat that is transferred between parti-
149. Which of these has kinetic energy? cles in contact is called
A. a book sitting on a shelf A. radiation
B. hat and gloves on a table B. convection
C. cars parked in a parking lot C. induction
D. a child kicking a soccer ball D. conduction

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6.9 Energy Transfer 878

154. Which example of stewardship best de- 160. When solar panels collect energy and
scribes the careful use of resources? power lights in a home, it is the transfor-
A. recycling mation of which of the following?
B. conservation A. light energy to electrical energy to
C. reforestation light energy
D. none of above B. light energy to chemical energy to light
energy
155. Water is moving in a stream toward the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ocean. What type of energy is this? C. chemical energy to thermal energy to
A. Chemical light energy
B. Heat D. electrical energy to light energy to
C. Kinetic thermal energy
D. Solar
161. What is energy measured in?
156. Why do many communities use resources
A. Joules
other than windmills to obtain energy?
A. Windmills make small amounts of en- B. Watts
ergy.
C. kilograms
B. Some areas have inconsistent winds.
D. Newtons
C. Windmills are visual pollutants.
D. none of above
162. Which energy transformation below
157. A/An is an incomplete electric circuit matches? Water moving over a dam to
in which no current flows. move a generator?
A. closed circuit A. kinetic to chemical
B. thermal energy
B. kinetic to electrical
C. mechanical energy
C. solar to electrical
D. open circuit
D. none of above
158. Which energy transformation occurs in a
toaster?
163. Which is the greatest disadvantage of us-
A. chemical to electric ing solar panels as a primary source of en-
B. electric to thermal ergy?
C. kinetic to chemical A. Resource is limited to daylight hours
D. thermal to potential only.
159. is the capacity to do work B. Solar energy is difficult to store for
A. energy long-term use.
B. light C. Solar panels use too much land area to
C. technology capture the needed energy.
D. geothermals D. none of above

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6.9 Energy Transfer 879

164. What does re-use mean? C. Stored Mechanical Energy

A. Consuming less or combing capabili- D. Gravitational Energy

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ties to get more use out of each item.
B. re-purposing an item after it is used 169. Which BEST describes gold when the tem-
for its original purpose. perature increases?

C. returning a product to its component A. The atoms move more slowly.

materials to be re-made into something B. The atoms move more quickly.
else.
C. The motion of the atoms stays the
D. throw less material into the trash same.
165. Thermal and are the exact same D. The motion of the atoms becomes very
thing. orderly.
A. Heat
170. Does energy flow through an open or
B. Sound closed circuit?
C. Air A. open circuit
D. Electrical
B. closed circuit
166. The total energy of all the particles in a C. both open and closed
substance is called
D. neither
A. temperature
B. thermal energy 171. To is to soak up or take in something.
C. degrees A. motion
D. mass B. absorb
167. Fossil Fuels formed over long periods of C. energy
time after particles in water settled to the D. circuit
sea floor and formed marine mud. What
kinds of particles needed to be present in 172. The degree or intensity of heat present in
the marine mud in order for fossil fuels to a substance or object
form.
A. Temperature
A. Mostly sand and a few small bits of
wood B. Wind
B. Mostly decaying organisms(plants and C. Conduction
animals in the sea) D. Convection
C. Mostly lava and a few sedimentary
rocks 173. Which kind of energy change occurs when
a candle is burning?
D. Mostly metal minerals
A. Chemical to light.
168. Biomass, petroleum, natural gas,
propane, and coal are examples. B. Light to electrical.
A. Chemical Energy C. Solar to heat.
B. Radiant Energy D. Chemical to electrical.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 880

174. Greenhouse gases are often produced as A. The total amount of energy is con-
a result of obtaining and using fossil fuels. served
Which greenhouse gas most likely has the B. The total amount of energy is less after
greatest impact on global warming? a reaction
A. carbon monoxide C. The total amount of energy is more af-
B. carbon dioxide ter a reaction
C. methane D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above 180. Gasoline has stored chemical energy.
175. Which is not a renewable natural re- Which machine could change chemical en-
source? ergy into mechanical energy?

A. Soil A. bicycle

B. Water B. stove

C. Natural Gas C. automobile

D. Living organisms D. flashlight

176. A wind turbine makes use of which type 181. Which of the following statements are
of energy to generate electricity? true according to the Law of Conservation
of Energy?
A. chemical energy
A. Energy must be saved and conserved
B. mechanical energy to stop Global Warming
C. electric energy B. Energy cannot change forms
D. thermal energy C. Kinetic Energy and Mechanical Energy
177. Which energy transformation occurs can be combined
when you light a gas burner? D. Energy cannot be create or destroyed
A. Radiant to Thermal 182. When plants use the sun to produce their
B. Nuclear to Thermal own food during photosynthesis, which of
C. Electric to Chemical the following energy transformations oc-
curs?
D. Chemical to Thermal
A. light energy to chemical energy
178. What happens to the movement of parti- B. chemical energy to light energy
cles as they cool down?
C. chemical energy to thermal energy
A. They slow down
D. none of the above
B. Nothing
C. They don’t move 183. Energy efficiency is expressed in what
units?
D. They speed up
A. Joules
179. According to the Law of Conservation of B. Watts
energy, the amount of energy before and
after a reaction must be the same. Which C. seconds
statement below is true? D. gravity

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6.9 Energy Transfer 881

184. When you eat fruits and vegetables, D. They have the same potential energy
chemical bonds are releasing stored en- because gravity has the same effect on
ergy, this is each one.

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A. thermal energy
189. How do we measure temperature?
B. chemical energy
A. In Degrees
C. mechanical energy
D. kinetic energy B. In Inches
C. In Centimeters
185. Which is the best example that some-
thing has kinetic energy? D. In Pounds
A. a car parked on a steep hill
190. Emma sings into a microphone. The sound
B. a tennis ball rolling across the court is transferred from the microphone to a
C. a picture hanging on the wall loudspeaker that is plugged into the wall.
D. a piece of coal before it’s burned Her voice comes out of the loudspeaker
and sounds much louder than before. In
186. Which items would have this energy this system, sound energy is being trans-
transformation:chemical energy → electri- formed into energy and then back into
cal, light and thermal energy? energy.
A. turning on a flashlight A. electrical; mechanical
B. nuclear power plant B. electrical; sound
C. digesting an apple
C. mechanical; sound
D. tanning bed
D. heat; sound
187. A moving bicycle has energy. What hap-
pens to the energy of the moving bicycle 191. Sara was baking a cake in an oven. When
when the brakes are applied and it stops she opened the door to the oven to check
moving? on the cake, she felt hot air rush by her.
A. It is released as chemical energy. Which type of heat transfer did Sara no-
tice when she opened the oven door?
B. It is stored as potential energy.
A. Radiation
C. It is transformed into heat energy.
D. It is lost due to gravitational energy. B. Refraction
C. Convection
188. A 20-kg ball and a 50-kg ball rest at the
top of a ramp. Which statement best de- D. Conduction
scribes the potential energy of the balls?
A. The 20-kg ball has the greater poten- 192. What energy transformations take place
tial energy because it has less inertia. when a battery-operated radio is in use?
B. They have the same potential energy A. Electrical to chemical to light
because their positions are the same. B. Sound to chemical to mechanical
C. The 50-kg ball has the greater poten-
C. Chemical to electrical to sound
tial energy because it has the greater
mass. D. Light to electrical to thermal

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6.9 Energy Transfer 882

193. A form of radiant energy that comes from 198. Which form of energy is produced when
the sun is called a lamp is switched on?
A. potential A. Sound energy
B. elastic B. Electrical energy
C. solar C. Chemical energy
D. nuclear D. Light energy
199. A metal spoon is used to stir hot choco-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
194. What energy transformation occurs
when a match is lit? late in a ceramic mug. Which statement de-
scribes the direction of heat transfer that
A. Chemical→thermal and electromag- occurs?
netic
A. from the spoon to the mug
B. heat→potential and kinetic
B. from the mug to the spoon
C. electrical→heat and nuclear
C. from the spoon to the hot chocolate
D. kinetic →potential and mechanical D. from the hot chocolate to the spoon
195. is all of the energy that an object has 200. Where does most of earth‘s energy come
because of its motion and its position. from?
A. Thermal energy A. The sun
B. Sound energy B. Mars
C. Light energy C. Wind
D. Mechanical energy D. Water

196. A child picks a ball up from the ground, 201. The rule that energy cannot be created or
then places it on a table. The ball rolls destroyed.
on the table’s surface. Which statement A. Convection
is true?
B. Law of Conservation of Energy
A. The ball has both kinetic and potential C. Kinetic Energy
energy.
D. Chemical Energy
B. The ball does not have kinetic or poten-
tial energy. 202. The Sun is the source of energy for pro-
ducers. However, only about 10 percent
C. The ball has kinetic energy but no po-
of the energy is transferred from produc-
tential energy.
ers to consumers. What happens to the
D. The ball has potential energy but no ki- other 90 percent of the producers’ en-
netic energy. ergy?
197. How do warm ocean currents move to A. Some of it is destroyed, and some of it
cooler ocean regions of Earth? is returned into light energy.
A. by conduction B. Some of it is destroyed, and some of it
is stored as chemical energy.
B. by convection
C. Some of it is released as heat energy,
C. by evaporation and some of it is stored as chemical en-
D. by radiation ergy.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 883

D. Some of it is released as light energy C. Wood

and some of it is stored as chemical en- D. none of above
ergy.

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209. When Sarah plugs her hair dryer into
203. What type of energy is made by vibra- the outlet and turns it on, what energy
tions and does not travel through empty changes will take place in the circuit?
space?
A. Electrical energy will be transformed
A. sound energy to heat and sound energy.
B. light energy B. Electrical energy will be transformed
C. electrical energy to light and sound energy.
D. chemical energy C. Heat energy will be transformed into
electrical energy.
204. Power is measured in
D. Sound energy will be transformed into
A. Watts heat energy.
B. Joules
210. Which part of the car transforms chemical
C. Newtons energy into electrical energy?
D. metres A. the brakes
205. Fuel cells produce B. the battery
A. Fossil Fuels C. the wheels

B. Hydrogen gas D. the accelerator

C. Electricity 211. Which of the following is NOT evidence of

D. Gasoline a transfer of energy that can be observed
when someone steps off a boardwalk and
206. Which of these is NOT an example of an into the sand at a beach?
energy transformation? A. The creation of sound when the person
A. A solar panel lands in the sand
B. A boulder at the bottom of a hill B. The movement of sand when the per-
son lands in the sand
C. A gasoline-powered lawnmower
C. The release of heat from friction when
D. A battery-powered flashlight
the person lands in the sand
207. Where is the energy from the sun stored D. The rebound of force from compres-
on Earth? sion when the person lands in the sand
A. in rocks
212. How is energy transferred from a solar
B. in green plants panel to heat a home?
C. in ocean water A. Light energy moves from the sun to the
D. in animal bodies solar panels.
B. Electrical energy moves from the solar
208. What is one type of biomass energy? panels to the electrical converter.
A. Plastic C. Electrical energy moves from the elec-
B. Sun trical converter to the heater.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 884

D. All of the above C. The heat was transformed into elec-

tricity.
213. Eddie lifts a heavy book onto a table in
the library. The energy that is stored in D. The heat was stored as chemical en-
the book as it sits on the table is an exam- ergy.
ple of 218. Which is an example of something that
A. kinetic energy transfers heat by radiation?
B. potential energy A. the sun

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. conservation of energy B. stove burner
D. solar energy C. hot air balloon
D. wind currents
214. is the energy that allows us to see.
A. Sound energy 219. When a cool metal spoon is left in a cup
of hot chocolate, the spoon becomes hot.
B. Chemical energy This is an example of
C. Light energy A. radiation
D. Mechanical energy B. conduction
215. “Stored energy” is another way of de- C. convection
scribing what energy type? D. condensation
A. Potential 220. Jasmine wanted to build a solar cooker to
B. Electrical make a snack called “S’Mores.” She cov-
C. Kinetic ered a small box with aluminum foil. She
placed a cookie sandwich that contained
D. Mechanical chocolate and marshmallows in the solar
216. Electrical Energy is: cooker. She placed the solar cooker in the
sun. After thirty minutes the chocolate and
A. energy caused by the vibrations of an marshmallows melted. Which of the fol-
object lowing explains why they melted?
B. energy caused by changes in the nu- A. because of the sun’s magnetic energy
cleus of an atom
B. because of the sun’s radiant energy
C. energy of moving electrons
C. because of the sun’s electrical energy
D. energy caused by heat
D. because of the sun’s mechanical en-
217. Juan’s room is suddenly dark when an ergy
incandescent light bulb burns out. He at- 221. A scientist performed an experiment dur-
tempts to replace the old bulb with a new ing which she measured the energy trans-
one but realizes that the old bulb is too hot ferred in each step of her experiment. The
to touch. Juan waits 10 minutes and then total quantity of energy transferred in all
changes the bulb when it is completely cool. of the steps was less than the amount she
What happened to the heat in the bulb? measured at the beginning. What is the
A. The heat was completely destroyed. most likely explanation for this result?
B. The heat was transferred to the air A. Energy was destroyed during certain
around it. steps in the experiment.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 885

B. The steps in the experiment required A. hydrothermal energy

more energy than was available. B. solar energy

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C. The experiments created energy that C. geothermal energy
was then used up at a faster rate.
D. nuclear energy
D. Some energy was transformed into un-
wanted heat or sound that was not de- 226. Which of these best illustrates chemical
tected. potential energy?
222. Which statement is true about conduc- A. a dog playing fetch
tion? B. gasoline in a gas tank
A. Conduction is the transfer of energy C. water moving down a hill
as heat through space without particles of
D. a skydiver about to jump out of a plane
matter colliding.
B. Conduction is the transfer of energy as 227. What forms of energy are involved in
heat by the movement of the heated sub- hammering a nail into wood? Select all
stance itself. that apply
C. Conduction is the transfer of energy A. Sound
as heat between particles as they collide B. Kinetic
within a substance.
C. Electrical
D. Conduction is the transfer of energy as
D. Nuclear
heat between particles of matter that do
not move. 228. Which form of power is the most energy
efficient?
223. is a form of kinetic energy that an
object has because of its motion or its po- A. water turbines
sition; Movement energy (Example:wind B. coal-fired plants
makes a windmill’s arm turn and creates
electricity). C. combustion engines

A. Nuclear Energy D. none of above

B. Mechanical Energy 229. Which object is most likely to have elastic

C. Radiant Energy potential energy?

D. Solar Energy A. a moving arrow

B. a stretched spring
224. Which would least likely have an impact
on global climate changes? C. books on a shelf

A. producing energy using hydroelectric D. acorns falling from a tree

plants 230. In energy transformations, “wasted en-
B. producing energy using coal ergy” usually takes what form?
C. producing energy using oil A. heat
D. producing energy using natural gas B. chemical energy

225. Which renewable resource is used with C. light

photovoltaic cells to produce electricity? D. sound waves

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6.9 Energy Transfer 886

231. Materials that do not transfer thermal en- C. light

ergy easily D. electrical
A. conductors
237. A 14 W energy-saving bulb supplies light
B. generators with about the same brightness as a 60 W
C. insulators incandescent bulb. Which statement best
D. atoms explains how this is possible?
A. The input energy of the energy-saving

NARAYAN CHANGDER
232. What kind of heat is happening when the bulb is much less than that of the incan-
sun heats your body? descent bulb.
A. conduction B. In the energy-saving bulb, the useful
B. convection output energy is almost equal to the un-
C. density wanted output energy.

D. radiation C. The watt-value of a bulb is an indica-

tion of the amount of unwanted output en-
233. According to the Law of Conservation of ergy.
Energy, the total amount of energy in the D. In the incandescent bulb, only a small
universe: amount of output energy is useful light en-
A. decreases ergy.
B. gets created 238. A fire heats a room through what pro-
C. stays the same cess?
D. gets destroyed A. Electromagnetic conduction
B. Convection
234. If your cup of hot chocolate is really hot
that means it has a lot of this type of en- C. Radiation
ergy. D. Conduction
A. Chemical
239. Which BEST explains why a sleeping bag
B. Thermal manufacturing company would use down
C. Electrical feather to stuff the bags?
D. Potential A. The feathers are a good insulator.

235. What is the energy of motion/moving ob- B. The feathers are soft and will not be
jects known as? lumpy.

A. thermal C. The feathers are a good protection

from rain.
B. chemical
D. The feathers are easily replaced when
C. mechanical kinetic they slip out.
D. mechanical potential
240. A stretched rubber band has energy in
236. A windmill is an example of energy. this energy store
A. thermal A. Magnetic
B. mechanical B. Electrostatic

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6.9 Energy Transfer 887

C. Elastic 245. feet on hot sand

D. Nuclear A. conduction

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B. convection
241. The efficiency of a device can be repre-
sented by a Sankey diagram. The amount C. radiation
of energy is represented by D. none of above
A. the length of the arrow
246. All are examples of energy transforma-
B. the width of the arrow tion that regularly goes from kinetic to po-
C. the volume of the arrow tential and back and forth in a repeated
pattern, except
D. the area of the arrow
A. Juggling
242. A compressed spring represents an exam- B. A soccer ball kicked once
ple of what type of energy? C. See-Saw
A. Kinetic D. Swing
B. Nuclear
247. Name a devise that converts energy into
C. Potential light
D. Radiant A. bulb

243. Choose the correct description for the fol- B. telephone

lowing word:tidal power plant C. dog leash
A. Blades of the turbine is turned by D. heater
steam. Steam is produced by a chemi-
cal reaction. Mechanical energy is trans- 248. Which best describes the main concern
ferred to a generator. with using nuclear fission (radioactivity)
as an alternative energy source?
B. Blades turn an axle attached to a gear-
box. The gearbox transfers mechanical A. The number of accidents in power
energy to a generator. plants using nuclear fission is higher than
for other power plants.
C. Up and down movement of water cre-
B. The raw materials for power plants
ates an air column. Changes in the air col-
using nuclear fission are more expensive
umn turn the blades of a turbine.
than for other power plants.
D. Blades of the turbine is turned by
C. The temperatures required for power
falling water. Mechanical energy is trans-
plants using nuclear fission cannot be eas-
ferred to a generator.
ily achieved and controlled.
244. All of the following are components of an D. The disposal of waste from power
electric circuit except plants using nuclear fission is potentially
more hazardous than for other power
A. Wire
plants.
B. Power Source
249. forms when sulfur dioxide and nitro-
C. Seat
gen oxides combine with water in the air
D. Electrical Device and fall to Earth as rain.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 888

A. snow B. Blades of the turbine is turned by

steam. Steam is produced by a chemi-
B. hail
cal reaction. Mechanical energy is trans-
C. acid rain ferred to a generator.
D. clouds C. Blades of the turbine is turned by
falling water. Mechanical energy is trans-
250. Choose the correct description for the fol- ferred to a generator.
lowing word:nuclear power
D. Blades turn an axle attached to a gear-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Blades of the turbine is turned by box. The gearbox transfers mechanical
falling water. Mechanical energy is trans- energy to a generator..
ferred to a generator.
253. The outside window pane in your house
B. Blades turn an axle attached to a gear-
feels very cold to touch on a winter night.
box. The gearbox transfers mechanical
Why does it feels so cold?
energy of a turbine.
A. The cold from the outside is flowing in
C. Up and down movement of water cre- by convection.
ates an air column. Changes in the air col-
umn turn the blades of a turbine. B. The warmth from the inside is flowing
out by convection.
D. Blades of the turbine is turned by
steam. Steam is produced by a chemi- C. The cold from the outside is being con-
cal reaction. Mechanical energy is trans- ducted to the inside.
ferred to a generator. D. The warmth from the inside is being
conducted to the outside.
251. Hydroelectric plants generate power by
utilizing the flow of water to turn a tur- 254. The sun’s energy used by green plants to
bine. This, in turn, generates power that produce food is an example of light energy
is then distributed for use in homes and converted to which other form of energy?
businesses. What type of energy trans- A. kinetic energy
formation is occurring at the hydroelectric
plant? B. heat energy
C. mechanical energy
A. Electric energy is transformed into
light energy. D. chemical energy
B. Kinetic energy is transformed into 255. Light Energy + Carbon Dioxide + =
electric energy. Glucose & Oxygen
C. Light energy is transformed into poten- A. soil
tial energy.
B. nutrients
D. Chemical energy is transformed into ki-
C. plant food
netic energy.
D. water
252. Choose the correct description for the fol-
lowing word:hydro-electric 256. What two forms of energy are given off
by a burning candle?
A. Up and down movement of water cre-
ates an air column. Changes in the air col- A. heat and light
umn turn the blades of a turbine. B. mechanical and electrical

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6.9 Energy Transfer 889

C. nuclear and light 262. is the transfer or movement of en-

ergy from one object or material to an-
D. potential and heat
other or from one form to another.

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257. Which is a possible consequence of using A. Energy transfer
hydropower to produce electricity? B. Motion
A. Dams may flood areas C. Circuit
B. Radioactive waste may be produced D. Sounds
C. air pollution may increase 263. Which renewable energy source would
D. more fossil fuel may be used most likely cause loss of habitat?
A. geothermal
258. Which of the following involves electri- B. hydroelectric
cal energy being transferred into heat en-
ergy? C. solar

A. A heavy box being lifted off a table D. none of above

B. firecrackers exploding in the sky 264. A microwave works by focusing mi-

crowave light on the food inside of
C. baking bread in the oven it. Which type of energy transformation
D. a wax candle burning takes place in a microwave?
A. Light energy is transformed into elec-
259. Potential energy depends on & trical energy.
A. mass, speed B. Heat energy is transformed into elec-
B. mass, position trical energy.
C. Heat energy is transformed into light
C. speed, position
energy.
D. mass, weight D. Electrical energy is transformed into
light energy.
260. A television converts electricity into
A. light. 265. Materials that transfer energy easily.
A. Conductors
B. sound.
B. Insulators
C. light and sound.
C. Heat
D. light, sound, and heat.
D. Energy
261. The variable that is measured through- 266. Choose the correct description for the fol-
out the experiment is the Hint:It may lowing word:wind farm
change as a result of your testing.
A. Blades turn an axle attached to a gear-
A. Controlled Variable box. The gearbox transfers mechanical
B. Responsive Variable energy to a generator.
B. Up and down movement of water cre-
C. Dependent Variable
ates an air column. Changes in the air col-
D. Independent Variable umn turn the blades of a turbine.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 890

C. Blades of the turbine is turned by 271. Heat that is transferred by waves of

falling water. Mechanical energy is trans- “light” that we can feel but not see is
ferred to a generator. called
D. Blades of the turbine is turned by A. radiation
steam. Steam is produced by a chemi- B. convection
cal reaction. Mechanical energy is trans- C. induction
ferred to a generator.
D. conduction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
267. Which energy transformation below 272. Phase change from a gas to a liquid.
matches? Burning coal or carbon-based
fuel at a powerplant? A. condensation
B. evaporation
A. chemical to heat to electrical
C. melting
B. mechanical to chemical to sound
D. deposition
C. electrical to chemical to heat
273. States that energy can neither be created
D. none of above nor destroyed; it only changes form.
A. Law of Conservation of Energy
268. Energy is the ability to cause and in-
fluences almost everything in life. B. Thermal Energy

A. opportunity C. Energy
D. Energy Transfer
B. change
274. What is energy?
C. options
A. It is measured in watts
D. noise
B. It is the ability to do work
269. Power stations produce electrical energy C. It is power
from different fuels.Which fuel causes D. It is fluid motion
least pollution to the atmosphere?
275. Materials that do not transfer energy
A. coal easily.
B. fuel oil A. Insulators
C. natural gas B. Conductors
D. radioactive isotopes C. Energy
D. Heat
270. Sam burns some wood in his fireplace.
When the wood burns, the chemical energy 276. How did Dr Jeff’s Mom transfer energy
stored in the wood is changed into en- back to Bert?
ergy. A. She gave him brand new batteries
A. nuclear B. She threw Bert away
B. electrical C. She did nothing to Bert
D. She used a bike and a generator to
C. thermal
transfer energy back into Bert’s batteries
D. mechanical for later use.

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6.9 Energy Transfer 891

277. A change from one form of energy to an- C. energy transformation

other is called D. thermal energy

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A. work
282. A hot potato at 80 ◦ C is placed in a bowl
B. power of soup at 40 ◦ C. The surrounding room
C. mechanical is at 20 ◦ C. Which correctly describes the
directions of thermal energy transfer?
D. energy transformations
A. potato to soup, and soup to room
278. P.2.2 The U.S.A. and other countries are
B. room to soup, and soup to potato
often promoting the conservation of elec-
tricity and fossil fuels. Which is an advan- C. room to soup, and room to potato
tage of these conservation efforts? D. soup to potato, and potato to room
A. Conservation will allow electricity to
283. Which one of the following will NOT re-
be produced more cheaply.
duce the amount of electricity used by a
B. Conservation will help scientists find household?
more uses for nonrenewable resource.
A. Cover the electric geyser with a ther-
C. Conservation will give scientists more mal insulator.
time to find renewable alternatives to pro-
B. Use the larger plates on the electric
duce electricity.
stove rather than the smaller ones.
D. Conservation will provide all people on
C. Wear warm clothing rather than using
Earth access to electricity.
an electric heater.
279. When a firecracker explodes, stored D. Switch off the light whenever someone
chemical energy turns into sound and light leaves a room.
energy.What other type of energy is also
released during this transformation? 284. Efficiency is
A. thermal energy A. a diagram showing energy transfers

B. nuclear energy B. a way of saying how much energy

something wastes
C. electrical energy
C. the number of joules of energy an ap-
D. mechanical energy pliance uses every second
280. Which of the following is the SI unit for D. a unit for measuring power. there are
recording energy? 1000 watts (W) in a kilowatt (kW)
A. Newtons 285. What is potential energy?
B. Kelvins A. moving energy
C. Watts B. stored energy
D. Joules C. renewable energy
281. The process of energy changing from one D. non renewable energy
form into another 286. Complete burning of plant material re-
A. efficency turns carbon primarily to the:
B. law of conservation of energy A. herbivores

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6.9 Energy Transfer 892

B. water C. chemical energy

C. vegetation D. electrical energy
D. atmosphere 291. power is electricity produced by flow-
287. means “rock oil.” It formed from the ing water.
remains of single-celled aquatic organisms A. Solar
that lived long ago B. Wind
A. methane

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Hydroelectric
B. petroleum D. water
C. organic
292. A student pushes a toy car with his hand.
D. pollute The car travels a distance before slowing
to a stop. The student concludes that the
288. Which statement describes a fixed pul-
motion of the car destroyed the energy
ley?
that his hand put into it. Why is the stu-
A. It decreases the distance you must dent’s conclusion incorrect?
pull.
A. Energy was recycled, but not de-
B. It changes the direction of the force stroyed.
but not the size
B. Energy was converted into sound and
C. It increases the size of the forced ap- heat, but not destroyed.
plied.
C. Energy from the student was gradually
D. It decreases the size of the force but used up, but not destroyed.
not the distance
D. Energy was the force that created the
289. Patrice slides a textbook across a table. motion and stayed constant, but was not
Shortly after the book is released from her destroyed.
hand, it begins to slow down and appears
293. Which of the following actions involves
to lose energy. Which statement best ex-
an energy transformation of changing light
plains where the energy goes as the book
energy into electrical energy?
slows down?
A. using a gasoline-powered car
A. It is transferred to the air in the form
of potential energy. B. using a solar-powered calculator
B. It is transferred to the table in the C. using charcoal on an outdoor grill
form of thermal energy. D. using a battery-powered cell phone
C. It is transferred to the book in the form
294. Which BEST describes how coal forms?
of potential energy.
A. dead dinosaurs rot under heat and
D. It is transferred to Patrice’s hand in pressure
the form of thermal energy.
B. tiny sea animals and plants die and are
290. As a car skids to a stop, friction trans- buried by sediment
forms kinetic energy into C. dead plant and animal material par-
A. thermal energy tially decays over a long period of time
B. solar energy D. none of above

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6.9 Energy Transfer 893

295. What type of energy transfer is most B. mechanical

likely responsible when a plant converts C. kinetic
the suns energy into food?

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D. potentia
A. Chemical to Solar
301. To save energy, what should you do
B. Solar to chemical
when you leave a room?
C. Light to electrical
A. USE ELECTRICAL ENERGY
D. Electrical to chemical
B. SHUT OFF THE LIGHTS AND TELEVI-
296. When energy is moved from one place SION
to another without changing form, this is C. TURN ON THE LIGHTS AND TELEVI-
called energy SION
A. transformation D. HANG YOUR CLOTHES OUTSIDE
B. transmigration 302. which of the following devices uses an
C. transfer outside energy source to transfer thermal
energy from a cool area to a warm area?
D. titration
A. Heat engine
297. Which term describes the energy that is
B. generator
stored due to the height of an object above
the ground? C. refrigerator
A. kinetic energy D. electroscope
B. chemical energy 303. When you raise the first ball into the air,
C. mechanical energy it is given

D. gravitational potential energy A. Kinetic energy

B. Chemical Energy
298. The work output of a machine divided by
C. Potential Energy
the work input is the of the machine.
D. none of above
A. efficiency
B. effort 304. What is the best example of a device that
converts electrical energy to thermal en-
C. power
ergy?
D. resistance A. a toaster
299. Which human activity will lead to more B. a clock radio
carbon in the atmosphere? C. a flashlight
A. riding a bike D. an electric toothbrush
B. using solar power
305. What is boiling water in Celsius (SI
C. planting trees units)?
D. driving a car A. 212
300. Light energy is transformed into what B. 112
kind of energy during photosynthesis? C. 100
A. chemical D. 50

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6.9 Energy Transfer 894

306. These kind of observation use your B. Both transform current from a mag-
senses to observe results. netic field into mechanical energy.
A. Qualitative C. Generators transform mechanical en-
B. Quantitative ergy into electrical energy whereas elec-
tric motors transform electric energy into
C. Scientific mechanical energy.
D. none of above D. Generators transform electrical en-
ergy into mechanical energy whereas

NARAYAN CHANGDER
307. Any form of energy can change into
other form of energy. electric motors transform mechanical en-
ergy into electrical energy.
A. any
312. batteries, food, gasoline
B. two
A. light
C. one
B. heat
D. uno
C. chemical
308. The energy transformation that takes
D. mechanical
place when a flashlight is turned on is
A. Chemical-electrical-light 313. Some power plants pump water down
deep holes into hot rock. The hot rock
B. Chemical-light-electrical
heats the water, which turns the water
C. Electrical-thermal-light into steam. The steam rushes back to
D. Nuclear-light-electrical Earth’s surface and is used to make elec-
tricity. This plant is generating which al-
309. A toy robot can walk and talk and runs on ternative energy resource?
batteries. Which type of energy is stored
A. biomass
in the batteries?
B. wind
A. nuclear
C. solar energy
B. chemical
D. geothermal energy
C. electrical
D. mechanical 314. The energy that something has because it
is moving is called
310. Which energy transformation below A. Potential Energy
matches? Animals eating food?
B. Kinetic Energy
A. electrical to potential
C. Chemical Energy
B. chemical to kinetic
D. none of above
C. potential to chemical
D. none of above 315. Which environmentally safe energy
sources depend heavily on the sun?
311. Which statement describes the relation- A. wind and solar
ship between electric generators and elec-
tric motors? B. nuclear and coal

A. Both use motion in a magnetic field to C. solar and nuclear

produce electric current. D. none of above

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6.9 Energy Transfer 895

316. What type of equipment transfers energy 321. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
from electrical energy to kinetic energy? ple of chemical energy.
A. battery

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A. generator
B. motor B. slice of pizza
C. both C. gasoline
D. none of above D. rolling ball

317. An object in motion is what type of en- 322. What energy transfer must happen for a
ergy? car to go up a hill?
A. Chemical energy to mechanical energy
A. Potential Energy
B. Electrical energy into chemical energy
B. Chemical Energy
C. Heat energy into chemical energy
C. Sound Energy
D. Mechanical energy to nuclear energy
D. Kinetic Energy
323. A simple machine is a basic device that
318. Which example describes the transfer of always does which of the following?
energy from one object to another without
A. makes work easier to do
the presence of matter?
B. reduces the amount of work done.
A. Lava heats the surface of the Earth.
C. increases the size of the applied force
B. A hot cup of tea warms a person’s
hand. D. decreases the size of the applied force
C. The sun warms the atmosphere of the 324. Gravitational Potential Energy is poten-
Earth. tial energy that depends on what?
D. The burner of a stove heats a pan of A. Volume
water. B. Length
319. On a hot summer day, the rooms on the C. Temperature
first floor pf a house stay cooler than the D. Height
rooms on the second floor. What form of
thermal energy flow causes this to occur? 325. Your body transforms the chemical en-
ergy in food into
A. kinetic
A. nuclear energy
B. radiation
B. gravitational potential energy
C. convection
C. solar energy
D. conduction D. mechanical energy
320. This form of energy could be represented 326. Which type of power plant uses one of
by the movement of electrons within cop- Earth’s nonrenewable resources to pro-
per wires. duce electrical energy?
A. Electrical A. wind
B. Light B. solar
C. Sound C. nuclear
D. Mechanical D. hydroelectric

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6.9 Energy Transfer 896

327. A stretched rubber band is released. 332. Energy stored in fuel, matches of a bat-
What is the energy transformation? tery is what type of energy?
A. kinetic to potential energy A. kinetic energy
B. chemical to thermal energy
B. thermal energy
C. kinetic to thermal energy
C. electrical energy
D. potential to kinetic energy
D. chemical energy
328. Potential energy and electric energy can

NARAYAN CHANGDER
combine to form a 333. A resource is an energy source that
A. collision cannot be produced, grown, or restored as
B. mass fast as it is used
C. bomb A. renewable
D. system B. nonrenewable
329. What type of energy includes both kinetic C. neither
and potential energy?
D. none of above
A. mechanical energy
B. chemical energy 334. When the speed of moving particles in-
C. heat energy creases in a substance, this shows an in-
crease in what kind of energy?
D. sound energy
A. chemical energy
330. What is economic depletion?
B. thermal energy
A. Using all of the resource up.
B. Using all of the resource up in the spot C. electrical energy
you are in. D. mechanical energy
C. The cost of getting more of the re-
source is more than you can sell it for. 335. A/An is a closed path that allows
D. When the economy goes into a reces- electricity to flow from one point to an-
sion and people can’t buy your product. other.
A. open circuit
331. Which is an example of conservation of
energy resources? B. energy transfer
A. Niagara Falls, straddling both coun- C. closed circuit
tries, produces electricity for Canada and
the U.S. D. battery
B. Windmills in the Netherlands have
336. A car is an example of energy.
been capturing wind power for more than
2, 000 years. A. kinetic
C. In the U.S., households are replacing B. mechanical
their incandescent light bulbs with com-
pact fluorescent light bulbs. C. potential
D. none of above D. chemical

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6.9 Energy Transfer 897

337. P.2.1 Which is a concern related to 341. What is a battery?

the production of electricity using nuclear A. switch
power?

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B. power source
A. Nuclear power produces too much ex-
cess heat and causes global warming. C. insulator

B. Nuclear power produces radioactive D. none of above

wastes that are difficult to eliminate.
342. T/F Mechanical energy is the sum of
C. Nuclear power is not as efficient in pro- energy and energy in a system.
ducing electricity as are other forms of en-
A. thermal and nuclear
ergy.
B. kinetic and chemical
D. Nuclear power plants take up too much
space for the amount of electricity they C. potential and kinetic
produce. D. nuclear and radiant
338. What is one disadvantage of using wind 343. the temperature scale on which water
power? freezes at 0 and boils at 100
A. It is renewable A. Kelvin scale
B. The wind is everywhere B. conduction
C. It is not always windy C. Fahrenheit scale
D. none of above D. Celsius scale

339. Scientists frequently repeat the experi- 344. What type of equipment has a shaft?
ments of others scientists. Why is this im- A. generator
portant in science?
B. motor
A. Scientists often ask each other for help
in performing experiments. C. both

B. Replication of experiments helps to D. none of above

confirm and verify results.
345. Which would most adversely affect hy-
C. Scientists frequently perform other droelectric power?
scientists’ experiments in order to prac- A. frost
tice their technique.
B. drought
D. Repeating experiments is an effective
way to make sure a laboratory is in opti- C. shortage of uranium
mal condition. D. none of above

340. The transfer of heat through a fluid (liq- 346. What word or words describes kinetic en-
uid or gas) caused by molecular motion. ergy?
A. Convection A. Energy of position
B. Conduction B. stored energy
C. Radiation C. movement
D. none of above D. not moving

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6.9 Energy Transfer 898

347. Large amounts of energy are released C. convection

when the nuclei of atoms join together in D. none of above
a process called
A. area of motion 352. Potential energy is kinetic energy is

B. mass
A. the energy of motion / the energy of
C. nuclear fusion position
D. the environment B. the energy of position / the energy of

NARAYAN CHANGDER
motion
348. When a toaster is in use, electrical energy
is transformed into C. the energy of applied force / the en-
ergy of motion
A. Light energy only
D. the energy of position / the energy of
B. Thermal energy only
applied force
C. Thermal and light energy
353. Mechanical energy is
D. there are no energy transformations
when using a toaster A. energy built up before being in motion
B. energy released in a chemical reaction
349. Some energy transformations involve a
, others involve C. sum of kinetic and potential energy

A. conservation transformation & de- D. none of above

struction transformation 354. Which of these is an example of light en-
B. single transformation & multiple trans- ergy being transformed into chemical en-
formations ergy?
C. single transformation & solitary trans- A. A glow stick lights up when broken.
formation B. Water heated by the sun evaporates.
D. addition transformation & deletion C. A plant makes sugar in the sunlight.
transformation
D. A battery causes a buzzer to vibrate.
350. A building is found to be losing heat to the
355. The area around a magnet that applies a
outside during the winter months. Which
force without actually touching the object
would be the BEST solution to correct this
is called the
design problem?
A. magnetic pole
A. increase the amount of heating
B. lodestone
B. increase surface area of walls
C. magnetic field
C. increase the number of windows
D. magnetic domain
D. increase thickness of insulation
356. Electricity is produced in a hydroelectric
351. A lizard sits on a hot rock to get warm. plant when dam water turns the dam tur-
What type of thermal energy transfer is bine. Which describes this energy trans-
occurring? formation from the turning turbine to elec-
A. radiation tricity?
B. conduction A. mechanical energy into electric energy

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6.9 Energy Transfer 899

B. nuclear energy into electric energy 361. Energy can be or changed from one
C. thermal energy into electric energy type to another.

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D. chemical energy into electric energy A. destroyed
B. transferred
357. Which best describes a ball rolling down
a ramp in relation to energy and change of C. created
energy? D. ignored
A. The ball begins with stored potential
362. What form of energy is being used when
energy which changes to kinetic as the
a person pushes heavy boxes across the
ball begins rolling.
floor?
B. The ball begins with stored kinetic en-
A. Electrical energy
ergy which changes to potential as the ball
begins rolling. B. Mechanical energy
C. The ball begins with stored chemical C. Heat energy
energy and changes to gravitational as it D. Sound energy
begins rolling.
D. The ball begins with stored gravita- 363. To increase the EFFICIENCY of energy use,
tional energy and changes to chemical as we could
it begins rolling. A. Turn off lights when not in use

358. Traditional incandescent light bulbs are B. Keep the car running as you go into the
10 percent efficient. This means that only store
10 percent of the electrical energy used is C. Water the plants in a drought
turned into light. What happens to most D. none of above
of the remaining energy?
A. It is given off as heat. 364. Which of these statements BEST de-
scribes a possible environmental conse-
B. It is given off as sound. quence in constructing a large-scale wind
C. It is used up by the bulb. farm to generate electricity?
D. It is recycled and stored in the bulb. A. Wind farms alter the regional climate.

359. Convert 80 degrees Celsius to Kelvin B. Wind farms can disrupt migrating
wildlife.
A. 353 kelvin
C. Wind farms use a renewable energy
B. -600 kelvin source.
C. 280 Kelvin D. none of above
D. 212 Kelvin
365. What is needed to do work or cause
360. What is a renewable natural resource? change is
A. Coal A. energy
B. Soil B. motion
C. Oil C. speed
D. Natural Gas D. muscles

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6.9 Energy Transfer 900

366. An electromagnet can be created by A. the kinetic energy is changed into po-
wrapping a wire around a nail and attach- tential energy and stored.
ing the two ends of the wire to a battery. B. The kinetic energy is converted into
What happens in an electromagnet? sound energy and thermal energy
A. Electrical energy transforms into me- C. The kinetic energy is destroyed as the
chanical energy. string moves until none remains.
B. Electrical energy produces a magnetic D. Some of the energy is converted to
field.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sound energy and the rest is destroyed.
C. Mechanical energy transforms into
electrical energy. 371. In some states, the law mandates that a
new house has to be built with insulation
D. Mechanical energy produces an elec- in the walls. Why would this be important
tric field. to have?
367. What type of energy is stored in chemical A. Cold outside air is prevented from get-
bonds? ting inside the house.
A. none B. Heat from the outside air is absorbed.

B. chemical potential C. On cold days, it slows down the loss of

heat.
C. thermal
D. Heat is generated to keep the house
D. nuclear warm.
368. Which of the following shows light en- 372. Which of the following natural resources
ergy transforming into chemical energy? are nonrenewable?
A. A battery turning on a flashlight A. Water
B. A plant making its own food through B. Animals
photosynthesis
C. Natural gas
C. An electric stove boiling water D. Wind
D. Breaking a glowstick
373. The end products of cellular respiration
369. When plants convert the sun’s energy are:energy, &
into food, which type of energy is it? A. glucose and oxygen
A. kinetic B. water and glucose
B. chemical C. water and carbon dioxide
C. thermal D. carbon dioxide and oxygen
D. radiant
374. Bailey gently places a few red food col-
370. Damon is a musician playing in a band. At oring crystals at the bottom of a glass
the end of a song, he plucks a single gui- beaker filled with water. She heats the
tar string. The string moves rapidly back beaker with a burner for a few minutes.
and forth. Which of these statements ex- She observes that the red color rises up.
plained what happens to the kinetic energy What causes the color to spread?
of the moving string? A. emissions caused by the heat

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6.9 Energy Transfer 901

B. convection currents in the water B. Electrical to chemical

C. radiation caused by the flame C. Electrical to light

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D. conduction in the glass beaker D. Chemical to electrical

375. Which is a problem with using wind tur- 380. You are playing a video game that is
bines to produce energy? plugged into the wall, how is the energy
A. Wind turbines are efficient only in cer- going from where it is plugged in to the
tain areas. game?

B. Wind turbines occupy a small area of A. Electrical energy into thermal and po-
land. tential energy

C. Wind turbines produce a large amount B. Potential energy into electrical and
of energy. thermal energy

D. Wind turbines create a large amount C. Electrical energy changed into sound
of pollution. energy and light energy
D. Electrical energy into static electricity
376. “Energy is never created or destroyed,
only transferred.” Another way of saying 381. What type of energy is best represented
this is that ‘energy is ‘ by a battery?
A. infinite A. Sound
B. precious B. Thermal
C. conserved C. Mechanical
D. lost D. Chemical

377. In what direction do hot liquids and 382. What energy transformation takes place
gasses move? when a hair dryer is used?
A. Side to Side A. Energy from the sun is transformed to
B. Down chemical energy.

C. Up B. Sound energy is transformed to ther-

mal energy and electrical energy.
D. Back and Forth
C. Electrical energy is transformed
378. What is a renewable resource? to thermal energy and sound en-
A. A resource you can reuse over and ergy.Electrical energy is transformed to
over thermal energy, sound energy, and me-
chanical energy
B. An object you cannot replace
D. Electrical energy is transformed to
C. Fossil fuels thermal energy and sound energy.
D. A resource that has a nearly unlimited
supply 383. A MATCH:mechanical energy (used to
strike the match) > thermal energy > chem-
379. Which of the following energy transfor- ical energy > thermal energy > electromag-
mations occur when a lamp that is plugged netic energy (which you see as light)The
into a wall socket is functioning correctly? following flow map is an example of
A. Chemical to light A. single transformation

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6.9 Energy Transfer 902

B. potential energy A. When her height is increasing and her

C. multiple transformations speed is decreasing

D. the law of conservation B. When her height ad speed are both

equal to zero
384. An ice cube is placed on a hot rock. Which C. When her height is not changing and
of the following is the best explanation for her speed is zero
what will happen?
D. When her speed is increasing and her

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Heat will be transferred from the ice
height is decreasing
to the rock.
B. Heat will be transferred from the rock 388. You get sunburned because of
to the ice.
A. conduction
C. Ice will prevent the rock from losing
B. convection
any of its heat energy.
D. The rock will prevent the ice from los- C. radiation
ing any of its heat energy. D. none of above

385. Which best explains how the Earth’s at- 389. Which fuel does not produce carbon diox-
mosphere is warmed? ide when it burns?
A. Radiation from the sun warms the sur- A. coal
face and through conduction and convec-
tion the atmosphere is heated. B. hydrogen
B. Radiation from the sun warms the sur- C. methane
face and through evaporation and convec- D. petrol
tion the atmosphere is warmed.
C. Convection from the sun warms the 390. Which is NOT a type of fossil fuel?
surface and through evaporation and con- A. Coal
vection the atmosphere is heated.
B. Oil
D. Convection from the sun warms the
surface and through conduction and radi- C. Wood
ation the atmosphere is heated. D. Natural Gas
386. Which of these is a disadvantage of hy-
391. Which statement BEST explains why coal
drogen fuel cells
is used to generate electricity despite the
A. produces pollution amount of pollution produced by burning
B. expensive and flammable coal?

C. heavy and weak A. Compared to other fuels, coal is rela-

tively cheap and plentiful.
D. large and unattractive
B. Compared to other fuels, coal pro-
387. Robin is swinging back and forth from duces more energy per kilogram
a trapeze. In which of the following sit-
C. Coal is a renewable source of energy
uations is her kinetic energy being trans-
formed into potential energy? D. none of above

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6.9 Energy Transfer 903

392. Plants need the sun for energy. B. Sound energy

A. Light / Radiant C. Mechanical energy

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Sound D. Light energy
C. Chemical 398. A simple motor can create electricity by
D. Electrical using the properties of magnets. The pur-
pose of this motor is to transform the elec-
393. ATP is the chemical energy produced in trical energy into what?
the through the conversion of glucose
and A. mechanical energy

A. nucleus, oxygen B. solar energy

B. mitochondria, oxygen C. potential energy

C. nucleus, carbon dioxide D. chemical energy

D. mitochondria, carbon dioxide 399. A measure of how much matter is present

in a substance
394. Lightbulbs use electricity to make light.
What else do lightbulbs often give off? A. Energy

A. Food energy B. Kinetic Energy

B. Heat Energy C. Mass

C. Solar Energy D. Temperature

D. Wind Energy E. Specific Heat

395. The primary reason an ice cube feels cold 400. Turn on a radio and you hear music.
to the touch is that A. Electrical energy changes to light en-
A. conduction causes coldness to leave ergy
the ice. B. Electrical energy changes to chemical
B. radiation from the hand enters the ice. energy

C. conduction causes heat to leave the C. Electrical energy changes to sound en-
hand ergy

D. convection currents leave the hand. D. none of above

396. are energy resources made from 401. How does coal compare to natural gas?
carbon-rich plant and animal remains A. Both are renewable.
A. none B. Both are non-renewable.
B. renewable resources C. Coal is renewable, while natural gas is
C. nonrenewable resources non-renewable.

D. fossil fuels D. none of above

397. is energy that causes a change in tem- 402. Water being held by a dam, is an exam-
perature between materials (sometimes ple of energy.
called heat energy). A. Water
A. Thermal energy B. Dam

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 6.10 Compressors 904

C. Gravitational D. Heat, mechanical, and chemical en-

D. Sound ergy

403. What is kinetic energy? 406. power is

A. moving energy A. a diagram showing energy transfers
B. potential energy B. a way of saying how much energy
C. stored energy something wastes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. renewable energy C. the number of joules of energy an ap-
pliance uses every second
404. When wood is burned as an energy heat
source, which best describes the environ- D. a unit for measuring power. there are
mental consequences? 1000 watts (W) in a kilowatt (kW)
A. thermal pollution and contamination of 407. Which could most likely release a high
water resources dose of radiation to the environment?
B. excess oxygen and water vapor in the A. a nuclear energy power plant
atmosphere
B. a coal-burning power plant
C. deforestation and release of green-
house gases C. a hydroelectric power plant
D. soil contamination and acid precipita- D. none of above
tion
408. Through the process of photosynthesis
405. Household appliances convert electricity which takes place in plants, solar energy
into one of more different forms of energy. from the sun is changed to stored en-
An electric fan can be best described as con- ergy.
verting electricity into
A. chemical
A. Heat and sound energy only
B. electrical
B. Heat and chemical energy only
C. mechanical
C. Heat, sound, and mechanical energy
only D. thermal

6.10 Compressors
1. Prevent process gases from leaking to the A. transfer of kinetic energy
atmosphere where the compressor shaft B. transfer of potential energy
exits the casing.
C. trapping air
A. Lubrication System
D. all of the mentioned
B. Seal System
3. The pressure differential across the ma-
C. Packing
chine increases when flow is reduced by
D. None of the above throttling in either the suction or discharge

2. In steady-flow compressor, compression A. Anti-surge device

occurs by B. Minimum flow recycle

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6.10 Compressors 905

C. Coolers C. equal pressure ratios in two stages

D. Separators D. all of the mentioned

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4. In a reciprocating piston air compressor 9. A start/stop control turns off the motor
of a compressor when the needed is
A. Both valves are never closed reached.

B. Both valves are never open A. Volume

C. The intake valve is open as the piston B. Flow

moves down C. Temperature
D. The intake valve is open as the piston D. Pressure
moves up
10. The ratio of work-done per cycle to the
5. The ideal gas law requires that tempera- stroke volume of the compressor is known
ture be stated as
A. In absolute units A. Compressor capacity
B. In Celsius or Fahrenheit B. Compression ratio
C. In relative units C. Compressor efficiency
D. Degrees above freezing D. Mean effective pressure
6. A two stage compressor 11. The maximum delivery pressure in a ro-
A. Doubles the flow tary air compression is
B. Compresses the same volume of air A. 10 bar
twice B. 20 bar
C. Has two pistons in each cylinder C. 30 bar
D. Has two pistons that move up and D. 40 bar
down at the same time.
12. The of an air compressor is the volume
7. A positive displacement air compressor of free air per minute that the compressor
A. Recompresses the same volume of air will supply at a given pressure.
twice A. Drive power
B. Produces a new volume of air for every B. Maximum pressure
stroke
C. Capacity
C. Compresses the air by increasing the
D. Flow factor
velocity of the air
D. Is best suited for high flow rate appli- 13. For which of these options are compres-
cations sors are not used?

8. The intermediate pressure which produces A. tyres and inflatable toys

minimum work also results in B. Drills and staplers
A. equal discharge temperatures C. TVs and tablets
B. equal work for two stages D. none of above

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6.10 Compressors 906

14. The volume of air delivered by the com- C. both isothermal and adiabatic com-
pressor is called pression
A. Free air delivery D. Isothermal compression
B. Compressor capacity
19. what is compressors make of question
C. Swept volume need more than 1
D. None of the above A. plastic

NARAYAN CHANGDER
15. find out smartest air conditioner ever in B. chips
malaysia qustion need more than 1 C. metal
A. panasonic D. paper
B. daikin E. book
C. mitsubishi electric
20. The following are types of rotary compres-
D. york sors except.
E. hitachi
A. Lobe Compressor
16. Steam nozzle is B. Screw compressors
A. a work producing device C. Liquid Ring Compressors
B. a work consuming device D. None of the above
C. used to increase the kinetic energy of
the fluid 21. Which of the following process will require
minimum work during compression of air
D. used to increase the pressure energy
of the fluid A. Polytropic compression
B. Isentropic compression
17. FAD is defined as
C. Isothermal compression
A. The volume of air handled by the com-
pressor per cycle reduced to atmospheric D. Isochoric compression
conditions
22. In a single-stage air compressor, the pre-
B. The volume of air handled by the com- set pressure limit is
pressor per unit time reduced to suction
A. 120 psi
conditions
C. The volume of air handled by the com- B. 125 psi
pressor per unit time reduced to atmo- C. 112 psi
spheric conditions
D. none of above
D. The volume of air handled by the com-
pressor per cycle reduced to suction con- 23. Most air compressed air safety relief
ditions valves are
A. Adjustable by the machine operator
18. Compression efficiency is compared
against B. Sealed with a lead seal
A. Ideal compression C. Permanently sealed shut
B. adiabatic compression D. Left open

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6.10 Compressors 907

24. Compressor mostly used for supercharging C. It results in minimum work

of IC engines is
D. It permits isothermal compression

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A. Radial flow compressor
B. Axial flow compressor 30. find out zilelai best friend question need
more than 1
C. Roots blower
A. electrolux
D. Reciprocating compressor
B. mitsubishi electric
25. Type of dynamic compressors wherein it
C. panasonic
has few moving parts, energy efficient,
and can provide higher flows. D. daikin
A. Centrifugal compressor E. samsung
B. Axial compressor
31. The intercooling in multistage compressors
C. Single Stage compressor is done
D. None of the above A. To cool the air during compression
26. Have two compression chambers on either B. To cool the air at delivery
side of a piston.
C. To enable compression in two stages
A. Two stage compressor
D. To minimise the work of compression
B. Axial compressor
C. Single Stage Compressor 32. Maximum work is done in compressing air
when the compression is
D. None of the above
A. Improves volumetric efficiency for the
27. Is a form of aerodynamic instability in ax- given pressure ratio
ial compressors or centrifugal compressors
B. Isothermal
A. Separators
C. Adiabatic
B. Coolers
D. Polytropic
C. Variable Speed Driver
D. None of the above 33. find out mitsubishi electric name
28. The most efficient method of compressing A. hitachi
air is to compress it B. saijo denki
A. Isothermal C. mitsubishi electric
B. Adiabatically
D. LG
C. Isentropically
D. Isobarically 34. The pressure is the setting at which
the air compressor is turned off.
29. The clearance volume of the air compressor A. Cut-in
is kept minimum because
B. Cut-out
A. It allows maximum compression to be
achieved C. Max pressure
B. It greatly affects volumetric efficiency D. Safety pressure

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6.10 Compressors 908

35. J/kg is equal to 40. The relationship between pressure, tem-

m2 perature, and volume can be described by
A. 1 s
m2
B. 1 s2 A. Boyle’s Law
m
C. 1 s2 B. Newton’s Law
m
D. 1 s C. The Ideal Gas Law
36. Rotary compressors are used where D. The formula E = MC2

NARAYAN CHANGDER
quantities of gas are needed at relatively
pressure 41. find out zilelai name

A. large, high A. zilelai

B. large, low B. carrier

C. small, high C. panasonic

D. small, low D. daikin

37. The Centrifugal air compressor 42. In a multi-stage compression,

A. Has valves that open and close at the A. lubrication difficulties are reduced
proper time B. explosion hazards are lessened
B. Uses a series of rotors equipped with C. leakage losses are reduced
blades D. all of the mentioned
C. Is only made in a single stage design
43. Cylinder clearance in a compression should
D. Uses an impeller to impart radial mo- be
mentum to the air
A. As large as possible
38. If air pressure is used to clean an area, the B. As small as possible
pressure should be
C. about 50% of sweet volume
A. Full pressure
D. About 100% of swept volume
B. 30 psi or less
C. 100 psi minimum 44. find out hitachi name
D. 200 psi maximum A. hitachi
B. daikin
39. Which of the following is true for a cen-
trifugal compressor? C. zilelai
A. rotation of impeller compresses the D. LG
air
45. Multi-stage compression with intercooling
B. diffuser converts part of KE into inter-
nal energy A. reduces work input

C. typical pressure ratio is around 1.4 to B. increases volumetric efficiency

1 C. helps in better lubrication
D. all of the mentioned D. All of the above

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6.10 Compressors 909

46. In steam nozzle A. The ratio of isothermal work to actual

A. Pressure energy only decreases work

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B. kinetic energy only increases B. The ratio of actual work to isothermal
work
C. pressure energy increases and kinetic
energy decreases C. The ratio of isohermal work to isen-
tropic work
D. pressure energy decreases and kinetic
D. The ratio os isentropic work to isother-
energy increases
mal work
47. The air compressor switch is used to
52. The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating
start and stop the air compressor’s motor.
compressor is defined as the ratio of
A. Pressure
A. the swept volume to actual volume of
B. Vacuum air intake in a cycle
C. Reed B. the swept volume to clearance volume
D. Proximity C. actual volume of air intake in a cycle to
swept volume
48. The multi stage compression as compared
to single stage compression D. the clearance volume to swept volume

A. Improves volumetric efficiency for the 53. The reciprocating piston air compressor
given pressure ratio
B. Reduces work done per kg of air A. Has valves that open and close at the
C. Reduces cost of compressor proper time

D. All of the above B. Is similar to a turbine found in a jet air-

craft
49. The mass flow rate of air compressed in C. Is seldom used because of limited ap-
axial flow compressor is centrifugal plications
compressor.
D. Is only used in large manufacturing
A. lower than plants
B. higher than
54. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with
C. same as clearance volume
D. unpredictable A. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor
with clearance volume
50. Volumetric efficiency of air compressors is
of the order of B. Decreases with increase in compres-
sion ratio Compressed air
A. 20 to 30%
C. Is not dependent upon compression
B. 40 to 50%
ratio
C. 60 to 70% D. May increase or decrease depending
D. 70 to 90% on compressor capacity

51. Isothermal efficiency of a reciprocation air 55. Which one of the following is a rotary roto-
compressor is defined as dynamic compressor

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6.10 Compressors 910

A. Vane Compressor 61. The lowest continuous flow at which the

B. Centrifugal Compressor pump was permitted to operate.

C. Screw compressor A. Lubrication

D. Lobe Compressor B. Variable Speed Driver

C. Seal System
56. Power input required in a reciprocating air
compressor D. Minimum Flow Recycle

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. depends on clearance volume 62. Choose the positive displacement compres-
B. is independent of clearance volume sors among the following (Multiple an-
swers)
C. increases with clearance volume
A. Reciprocating Air Compressors
D. decrease with clearance volume
B. Vane compressors
57. One instrument that is not used to mea- C. Lobe compressors
sure compressor flow rate is a
D. Centrifugal Compressors
A. Flat plate orifice
B. Flow nozzle 63. Volumetric efficiency is
C. Venturi A. The ratio of stroke volume to clearance
volume
D. Pitot tube
B. The ratio of the air actually delivered
58. What does an air compressor typically to the amount of piston displacement
use? C. Reciprocal of compression ratio
A. An electric or gas motor D. Index of compressor performance
B. A Pump to compress the air
64. Compressor duty cycle is
C. Both
A. How long a compressor must rest af-
D. none of above
ter a certain operating time
59. The Roots blower and vane-type compres- B. How long a compressor can operate
sor are the types of between overhauls
A. displacement compressor C. The time needed to fill the tank from 0
B. steady-flow compressor to capacity

C. both of the mentioned D. The maintenance time needed for each

1000 hours of running time
D. none of the mentioned
65. Find the exit velocity of steam, when
60. find out panasonic name steam enters into the nozzle with
A. panasonic 3000kJ/kg and leaves at 1500 kJ/kg.
B. daikin A. 1732 m/s
C. zilelai B. 1372 m/s
D. mitsubishi electric C. 1237 m/s
E. york D. 1111 m/s

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6.10 Compressors 911

66. This compressors use inward stroke of pis- 71. Air compressors force air in a chamber
ton to draw gas into a chamber and then where the volume is decreased to com-
use an outward stroke to positively dis- press the air.

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place the gas. A. Rotary Screw
A. Dynamic Compressor B. Positive Displacement
B. Reciprocating Compressor C. Dynamic Displacement
C. Single Acting Compressor D. Axial Compressor
D. Double Acting Compressor 72. Type of dynamic-type compressors in
which the flow of gas is axial.
67. Ratio of indicated HP and break HP is
known as A. Centrifugal compressor

A. Mechanical efficiency B. Multi-stage compressor

C. Axial compressor
B. Volumetric efficiency
D. None of the above
C. Isothermal efficiency
D. Adiabatic efficiency 73. The value of air sucked by the compressor
during its suction stroke is called
68. In an air compressor system, the tank A. Free air delivery
drain B. Compressor capacity
A. Is used to remove water from the tank C. Swept volume
B. Can serve as a pressure relief valve D. none of the above
C. Should only be opened for annual 74. The crankshaft
cleaning of the tank
A. stores air
D. Should be hard wired shut
B. pushes the piston up
69. The speed of the rotary compressor is C. reduces the volume
as compared to reciprocating air compres- D. none of above
sor
A. High 75. The size of an air compressor is determined
by adding together the of all powered
B. Low items that use the compressor.
C. Equal A. Cylinder volumes
D. None of the above B. Maximum pressure
C. Average free air consumption
70. The pressure of air at the beginning of
the compression stroke is atmospheric D. Capacities
pressure 76. find out electrolux name
A. Equal to A. electrolux
B. Less than B. panasonic
C. More than C. york
D. None of the above D. zilelai

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 6.11 Gas Turbine Power Plants 912

77. Aeroplanes employe following type of 81. In perfect intercooling, gas from inter-
compressor cooler has temperature equal to
A. Radial flow A. inlet temperature
B. Axial flow B. outlet temperature
C. Centrifugal C. intercooler temperature
D. Combination of above D. all of the mentioned

NARAYAN CHANGDER
78. Which compressors are suitable for large 82. The capacity of a compression is 10
volume flow rates of above 1200 m3/min m3/minute.10 m 3/minute refers to

A. Centrifugal compressors A. Standard air

B. Axial flow compressors B. Free air

C. Both a. and b. C. Compressed air

D. Compressed air at delivery pressure
D. None of the above
83. find out saijo denki name
79. In an air compressor system, the is
also called the receiver. A. saijo denki
A. Intake filter/Silencer B. carrier
B. Compressor C. LG

C. Storage tank D. electrolux

D. After-cooler 84. Volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating air

compressor
80. Most safety relief valves have a which
A. increases with pressure ratio
is used to test the operation of the valve.
B. decreases with pressure ratio
A. Test button
C. remains constant with change in pres-
B. Foot switch
sure raito
C. Solenoid D. increases and then decreases with
D. Pull ring pressure ratio

6.11 Gas Turbine Power Plants

1. hot and high pressure air from combustion A. Gas turbine exhaust heating up steam
chamber is given to boiler.
A. alternator B. Gas turbine exhaust combine with
diesel power plant.
B. starting motor
C. Gas turbine turbine will rotate com-
C. compressor pressor.
D. none of above
D. gas turbine
3. What component is placed in between com-
2. How combine cycle work? pressors?

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6.11 Gas Turbine Power Plants 913

A. Regenerator 9. A regenerator is used to

B. Heat Exchanger A. preheat water given to combustion

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chamber
C. Intercooler
B. preheat air given to combustion cham-
D. Reheater
ber
4. What is common between an open cycle C. preheat fuel given to combustion
and closed cycle gas turbines? chamber
A. compressor D. none of above
B. combustion chamber 10. Heat is added to air by
C. re-heater A. by burning fuel in combustion chamber
D. inter-cooler B. by using air heater
C. none of the above
5. Regenerator utilise from exhaust.
D. all of the above
A. temperature
B. heat 11. What is intercooling in gas turbine power
plant?
C. kelvin
A. Removal of heat from combustion gas
D. hot between stages of turbine
6. the output from combustion chamber will B. Removal of heat from compressor be-
be tween stages of compressor
A. hot and high pressure water C. Removal of heat from intake air

B. hot and high pressure fuel D. Removal of heat from exhaust air

C. hot and high pressure air 12. Boiler in combine cycle plant known as
D. hot and high pressure steam A. Heat Recovery Exhaust Generator
B. Heat Combine Steam Generator
7. In Brayton cycle, what thermodynamic pro-
cess is involved during compression? C. Heat Recovery Steam Power

A. adiabatic process D. Heat Recovery Steam Generator

B. isobaric process 13. Which of he following methods can NOT be

used to improve the thermal efficiency of
C. isochoric process
open cycle gas turbine plant?
D. isothermal process
A. condensation
8. The exhaust gas from the gas turbine is B. inter-cooling
given to C. regeneration
A. combustion chamber for combustion D. reheating
B. given out directly to atmosphere
14. Which of the following is not used in gas
C. given to compressor turbine power plant?
D. given to regenerator to preheat the air A. Compressor

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6.11 Gas Turbine Power Plants 914

B. Turbine C. compressor, gas turbine, alternator,

C. Combustion chamber starting motor are all mounted on same
shaft
D. Condenser
D. none of above
15. In Brayton cycle heat is added at constant
, 20. Turbine convert (A) energy to
(B) energy.
A. mass
A. A power propulsion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. pressure
B. A mechanicalB electrical
C. temperature
C. A kinetic potential
D. volume
D. A chemicalB mechanical
16. In a gas turbine power plant, is used
as the working fluid 21. What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-
Turbine called?
A. diesel
A. Reheat cycle
B. coal
B. Rankine cycle
C. water
C. Brayton cycle
D. air
D. Diesel cycle
17. The installation time for a gas turbine
power plant is 22. A closed cycle gas turbine gives effi-
A. Comparatively less than thermal ciency as compared to an open cycle gas
power plant turbine.

B. Comparatively more than thermal A. lower

power plant B. same
C. Equal to thermal power plant C. higher
D. Very much longer than thermal power D. none of above
plant
23. Compressor will squeeze air until the air
18. The compressor compress and gives to get hotter and air increase.
combustion chamber
A. Pressure
A. water
B. Ambient
B. coal
C. Turbine
C. diesel
D. Flight
D. air
24. A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion
19. which is true plant?
A. only gas turbine and alternator is A. external
mounted on shaft
B. open
B. gas turbine, compressor, combustion
chamber, alternator are all mounted on C. internal
same shaft D. cannot say

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6.11 Gas Turbine Power Plants 915

25. What happen in combustion chamber? A. 25%

A. Fuel will injected and it burned with hot B. 51%

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air. C. 72%
B. Air was compressed and getting hot-
D. 90%
ter.
C. Hot air rotate turbine blade. 31. Complete the analogy:Diesel cycle:diesel
engine :gas turbine.
D. Air cooled to ambient temperature.
A. Brayton cycle
26. Which of the following is a type of Gas
B. Carnot cycle
Turbine Plant?
C. Otto cycle
A. Single Acting
B. Double Acting D. Stirling cycle

C. Open 32. Which component of gas turbine power

D. None of the mentioned plant is main cause of its low efficiency?
A. Gas turbine
27. The gas turbine power plant mainly uses
which among the following fuels? B. Combustion chamber
A. Coal and Peat C. Compressor
B. Kerosene oil and diesel oil and resid- D. Starting motor
ual oil
33. The gas turbine act as a prime mover for
C. Gas oil
A. combustion chamber
D. Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel
B. regenerator
28. A is used to start the compressor in a C. hydro electric power plant
gas turbine power plant
D. the alternator
A. alternator
B. starting motor 34. Air and are combined in the combustion
chamber to produce chemical energy.
C. turbine
A. Coal
D. combustion chamber
B. Water
29. Air and is the ingredients that com-
C. Natural gas
bined to spin generator for electricity.
D. Turbine
A. Coal
B. Water 35. Fuel other than natural gas i.e. solid and
liquid fuels can be used in
C. Natural gas
A. open cycle gas turbine power plant
D. Turbine
B. closed cycle gas turbine power plant
30. Pressure at the beginning and after com-
pression of a gas turbine are 1 bar and C. open and closed cycle gas turbine
12 bars, respectively. The maximum tem- power plant
perature that can be employed is 1200 K. D. only natural gas is used in gas turbine
What is the efficiency? power plant

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 6.12 Jet and Rocket Propulsion System 916

36. In which field gas turbines is NOT ap- B. marine propulsion

plied? C. power plant
A. aviation D. steam production

6.12 Jet and Rocket Propulsion System

1. affordable 6. PSLV stands for

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. DC electric motor A. Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
B. Rechargeable Lithium-based batteries B. Pole Satellite Launch Vehicle
C. Internal combustion engine C. Powerful Satellite Launch Vehicle
D. none of above
D. Praphaukar Satellite Launch vehicle
2. What type of gear set, also called a power
split device, allows the electric motors and 7. What was the purpose of NASA’s Apollo
the internal combustion engine to work in- missions?
dependently or together? A. To land a person on the Moon
A. universe B. To visit Mars
B. ring and pinion C. To explore Mercury and Venus
C. planetary D. To put satellites in orbit
D. symmetrical
8. What force is responsible for pulling ob-
3. Which is an advantage of solid rockets jects back down to Earth?
over liquid fueled rockets
A. Thrust
A. Larger thrust capability
B. Gravity
B. active thrust control
C. nozzle cooling C. Force

D. thrust vectoring D. none of above

4. Which type of power pant uses a fuel and 9. ideal for precise control
an oxidizer? A. DC electric motor
A. rocket
B. Rechargeable Lithium-based batteries
B. ramjet
C. Internal combustion engine
C. scramjet
D. none of above
D. reciprocating engine
10. The force supplied by the rocket engine
5. When did the first person walk on the
must be strong enough to overcome
moon?
A. 1965 A. Lift
B. 1969 B. Weight
C. 1973 C. Thrust
D. 1976 D. Acceleration

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6.12 Jet and Rocket Propulsion System 917

11. The force used to provide lift for the rocket 17. What is the function of the nose cone?
is A. to hold the nose cone to the body tube

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A. Weight B. provides thrust
B. Control C. provides stability
C. Thrust D. increases drag
D. Inertia E. reduces drag

12. What was the first spacecraft to dive be- 18. Which gas turbine engine does not have a
tween Saturn and its rings? bypass
A. Cassini A. turbojet

B. Galileo B. ramjet
C. scramjet
C. Juno
D. They all have a bypass
D. Voyager 1
19. Technician A says that a hybrid has multi-
13. The nose cone of the rocket is shaped to ple sources of power. Technician B says
that even though hybrids get better fuel
A. Increase thrust economy, they emit more pollution. Who
is correct?
B. Decrease drag & help provide stability
A. Technician A
C. Increase drag
B. Technician B
D. none of above
C. Technician A & B
14. Name of Indian LPRE D. Neither
A. Vikram 20. What creates the mass/weight of the
B. Vikas rocket? Choose all the apply
C. Vinay A. Passengers
D. Vinayak Mahadev B. Parts of the rocket
C. Fuel
15. Which US state is JPL in?
D. Luggage
A. Virginia
21. When did JPL become part of NASA?
B. Texas
A. 1958
C. New Mexico
B. 1960
D. California
C. 1967
16. What is the function of the engine? D. 1980
A. to hold the nose cone to the body tube 22. Which rocket component provides thrust?
B. provides thrust A. engine
C. provides stability B. nose cone
D. to hold the rocket straight C. launch lug
E. increases drag D. fin

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6.12 Jet and Rocket Propulsion System 918

23. Nozzle is extended and fuel injected in hot C. To help the rocket land safely
gases for extra thrust is called D. To speed the rocket up
A. afterburner
29. Which launch vehicle has liquid strap on
B. ramjet boosters?
C. scramjet A. PSLV
D. turboprop B. ASLV
24. In a hybrid system, what type of drive- C. GSLV MK II

NARAYAN CHANGDER
train system is it when the vehicle’s D. GSLV MK III
wheels are powered only by an electric mo-
30. What are the function of the fins?
tor/generator?
A. to hold the nose cone to the body tube
A. series
B. provides thrust
B. parallel
C. provides stability
C. series/parallel
D. to hold the rocket straight
D. perpendicular
E. increases drag
25. When the rocket engine is falling back
31. In general a higher modulus of elasticity
down towards earth it is in
produces
A. Air resistance
A. a greater resistance to deformation.
B. Free fall B. greater deformation.
C. Velocity C. a greater affinity for elasticity
D. none of above D. a greater stress load
26. the Advantage of Cold Gas are: 32. Which rocket component provides stabil-
A. low cost, simple, Proven, Short Mis- ity?
sions A. fin
B. simple, powerful, proven B. streamer
C. very high Isp C. nose cone
D. expensive, complex, low thrust, high D. shockcord
power
33. Which is part of a solid fuel rocket
27. When a rocket is blasting off into space, A. Flame front
what type of energy does it have?
B. pumps
A. Potential C. oxidizer
B. Kinetic D. liquid fuel tank
C. Gravity
34. widely available
D. none of above
A. Dc electric motor
28. What is the purpose of the parachute? B. Rechargeable Lithium-based batteries
A. To provide stability C. Internal combustion engine
B. To provide thrust D. none of above

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6.12 Jet and Rocket Propulsion System 919

35. Which is NOT a component of a liquid fuel 41. What type of hybrid system, also known
rocket as a mild hybrid, combines the alternator
and starter into one unit that is connected

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A. Fuel tank
to the engine by a drive belt?
B. Oxidizer tank
A. alternator hybrid system
C. pumps
B. belt-alternator-starter (BAS) system
D. propellant mixture
C. EVAP system
36. Which program started the JPL tradition of
D. plug-in hybrid system
“good luck peanuts”?
A. Explorer 42. Technician A says that regenerative brak-
ing is when the electric motor acts as a gen-
B. Pioneer
erator capturing kinetic energy that would
C. Mariner normally be lost as heat. Technician B
D. Ranger says that hybrids don’t need conventional
brakes since they have regenerative brak-
37. Who is missile man of India? ing methods. Who is correct?
A. Edapaadi K Palaniswamy A. Technician A
B. Dr. Sivan B. Technician B
C. Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam C. A & B
D. Dr. Nambinarayanan D. Neither
38. Thrust operates on the principal of which 43. Which university manages JPL?
of Newtons laws of motion
A. Caltech
A. 1st law
B. Johns Hopkins
B. 2nd law
C. Stanford
C. 3rd law
D. Berkeley
D. 4th law

39. What type of power plant has a propeller 44. When was JPL threatened with cancella-
attached to a gas turbine engine tion by the administration?

A. turboprop A. 1969

B. ramjet B. 1972
C. scramjet C. 1975
D. afterburner D. 1981

40. Select the commonly used rocket propel- 45. Which is not a stage of a combustion en-
lants (choose all that apply) gine
A. UDMH, MMH A. intake
B. Nitrogen Tetroxide B. compression
C. LOX, LH2 C. expansion
D. JP-1 D. exhaust

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6.12 Jet and Rocket Propulsion System 920

46. The powerplant found in most ultra light 52. how do you calculate bypass ratio
aircraft are A. bypass volume / core volume
A. two stroke B. bypass volume-core volume
B. four stroke C. bypass volume + core volume
C. diesel D. bypass volume X core volume
D. turbine 53. Which of the following JPL satellites was
NOT launched on Shuttle?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
47. Which is not a rocket system
A. payload system A. Galileo
B. Seasat
B. propulsion system
C. Magellan
C. structural system
D. Cassini
D. launch system
54. Where does a hydrogen PEM fuel cell ve-
48. Which one of the following is most com- hicle get its energy to power an electric
monly used aerodynamic control in a mis- motor?
sile?
A. from the flowing electrons
A. Wing control
B. from the flowing protons
B. Tail control
C. from the high combustion properties
C. Canard control of hydrogen
D. Thrust vector control D. from water
49. Which of these variable can you NOT con- 55. What fuel has one of the simplest hydro-
trol? carbons, making it very clean burning?
A. The amount of fuel in the rocket A. propane
B. The weight of the rocket B. gasoline
C. The amount of wind C. diesel
D. The length of the rocket D. none of the above

50. Select a cruise missile from the following 56. produces no emissions
list A. DC electric motor
A. Agni I B. Rechargeable Lithium-based batteries
B. Prithvi C. Internal combustion engine
C. Agni VI D. none of above
D. Brahmos 57. What is the process of running an electric
current through water to separate the hy-
51. the Advantage of solid rockets engine are: drogen from the oxygen?
A. low cost A. steam reformation
B. simple B. distillation
C. Short Missions C. gasification
D. Proven D. electrolysis

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6.12 Jet and Rocket Propulsion System 921

58. Which is not a stage of a rocket launch 64. Which force will cause the rocket to be pro-
A. powered ascent pelled upwards?

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B. staging A. thrust

C. cutoff B. crosswind

D. pitch C. weight
D. drag
59. Which is one of the following is India’s
first launch vehicle? 65. Which is NOT a property of a four stroke
A. PSLV motor.

B. ASLV A. typically found in automobiles

C. SLV B. four operations occur in two revolu-

tions
D. GSLV
C. found in lawn mowers
60. Rockets were first used in D. typically found in small aircraft
A. 13th century China
66. E85 vehicles can burn a blended fuel that
B. 18th century Europe contains
C. world war 2 A. 85% biodiesel and 15% gasoline
D. 19th century North America B. 85% hydrogen and 15% gasoline
61. What is biodiesel? C. 85% ethanol and 15% gasoline
A. 85% biodiesel and 15% gasoline D. 85% propane and 15% gasoline
B. a biologically enhanced petrodiesel 67. Who is the current director of JPL?
C. diesel from a biosphere A. Laurie Leshin
D. renewable resource made from animal B. John Davies
fats, vegetable oils, or recycled cooking
grease C. Edward Stone
D. Frank Malina
62. The ratio of the increment of some spec-
ified form of stress to the increment of 68. Who was the first person to step on to the
some specified form of strain. moon?
A. Youngs Modulus A. Neil Armstrong
B. moment of elasticity B. Buzz Aldrin
C. deformation gradient C. Peter Andre
D. modulus of compression D. Jacques Chirac

63. produces a lot of horsepower 69. quiet

A. DC electric motor A. DC electric motor
B. Rechargeable Lithium-based batteries B. Rechargeable Lithium-based batteries
C. Internal combustion engine C. Internal combustion engine
D. none of above D. none of above

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6.12 Jet and Rocket Propulsion System 922

70. Which is not a rocket classification 72. Which is NOT a piston powered engine
A. liquid A. two stroke
B. solid B. four stroke
C. electric C. diesel-powered
D. gas D. turbojet
71. Which of the following JPL probes was the
first to take images of another planet? 73. How many stages does PSLV have?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Mariner 3 A. 2
B. Mariner 4 B. 3
C. Mariner 6 C. 4
D. Mariner 7 D. 5

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 PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
7. STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

7.1 Basic
1. The three moments equation is applicable C. Tension
only when
D. None
A. The beam is prismatic
B. There is no settlement of supports 5. Which metal is commonly used for Electri-
cal wires, heating pipes and pots?
C. There is no discontinuity such as
hinges within the span A. Brass
D. The spans are equal B. Bronze

2. When the both ends of beam is fixed, the C. zinc

beam is D. Copper
A. Simply supported beam
6. The tensile strength of ductile materials is
B. Cantilever beam
its compressive strength.
C. Fixed beam
A. equal to
D. Continuous beam
B. less than
3. Mohr’s theorem-1 states
C. greater than
A. E/AI
D. none of the above
B. I/EA
C. A/EI 7. What is the formula for a fixed beam sub-
jected to UDL throughtout
D. A=EI
A. +/-wl2/8
4. Due to the forces acting, a horizontal beam
is in: B. +/-wl/8
A. Shear C. +/-wl2/12
B. Compression D. +/-wl2/24

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7.1 Basic 924

8. The point of contradiction (Point of Con- C. Impact of Resilience

traflexure) occurs D. Proof of Resilience
A. Cantilever Beams
14. A rigid body has Poisson’s ratio equal to
B. Over hanging beams
A. 0
C. Continuous Beam
B. 1
D. All kinds of beams
C. less than 1

NARAYAN CHANGDER
9. SI units of shear force is D. greater than one
A. kN/m
15. U.D.L stands for?
B. kN-m
A. Uniformly diluted length
C. m/N
B. Uniformly developed loads
D. KN
C. Uniaxial distributed load
10. The maximum shear stress developed in a D. Uniformly distributed loads
beam of circular section is the average
shear stress. 16. The deformation of a material caused due
temperature variation develops
A. equal to
A. stress
B. 4/3 times
B. strain
C. 1.5 times
C. both a. and b.
D. twice
D. none of the above
11. Material can conduct heat and electricity,
can be hammered into a shape, or drawn 17. The internal resistance force per unit area
into a wire. is called as
A. metals A. Stress
B. polymers B. Strain
C. ceramics C. Poission’s ratio
D. glass D. Modulus of elasticity

12. Which of the following is indeterminate 18. Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine
structure? deflection in ?
A. Singly rereinforced beam A. Trusses only
B. Propped cantilever beam B. Beam only
C. Over hanging beam C. Rigid frames only
D. Simply supported beam D. Any type of structure

13. is defined as proof of resilience of a 19. A tensile test was conducted on a mild
material per unit volume. steel bar. The diameter and the gauge
length of bat was 3 cm and 20 cm respec-
A. Modulus of Resilience tively. The extension was 0.21mm. What
B. Resilience is the value to strain?

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7.1 Basic 925

A. 0.0010 A. 14, 4 MPa

B. 0.00105 B. 17, 6 MPa

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C. 0.0105 C. 18, 8 MPa
D. 0.005 D. 19, 9 MPa
E. 20, 0 MPa
20. The first moment of area about the axis of
bending for a beam cross-section is: 25. A concrete has a height and unit area of
A. moment of inertia 5 m and 3sq.m., respectively. If it sup-
ports a mass of 30, 000 kg and its height
B. section modulus
changes by 0.025mm, what is its modulus
C. shape factor of elasticity of this concrete?
D. polar moment of inertia A. 2.00 GPa
21. Which stress is induced in a member, when B. 19.6 GPa
expansion or contraction due to tempera- C. 2.00 MPa
ture variation is prevented? D. none of above
A. Compressive stress
26. Which of the following are statically deter-
B. Tensile stress minate beams?
C. Thermal stress A. Only simply supported beams
D. None of the above B. Cantilever, overhanging and simply
supported
22. Maximum shear stress by Mohr’s circle
method is to radius of Mohr’s circle. C. Fixed beams
A. Twice D. Continuous beams
B. Equal 27. stress
C. Three A. the process by which the shape of a
D. Not equal rock changes because of stress
B. the amount of force per square unit
23. A rectangular beam of length l supported
area on a given material
at its two ends carries a central point load
W. The maximum deflection occurs C. stress that occurs when an object is
stretched
A. at the ends
D. stress that occurs when an object is
B. at l/3 from both ends squeezed
C. at the centre
28. You push your finger into a ball of play-
D. none of these doh and it keeps its new shape. This is an
24. A tube cylinder with a length of 2 m has an example of
outer diameter of 50 mm and a diameter A. elasticity
of 30 mm. If the cylinder receives a load of B. plasticity
25 kN, determine the tension on the cylin-
der if the hargamodulus of the cylinder ma- C. hardness
terial is 100 gpa. D. tensile strength

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7.1 Basic 926

29. What is the formula for a Fixed end mo- 34. LAW STATES THAT STRESS IS PROPOR-
ment of a fixed beam when subjected to TIONAL TO STRAIN WITHIIN THE ELASTIC
two equal Loads at equal distance in a LIMIT
beam A. HOOKES
A. 4WL/8 B. PASCAL
B. 7WL/9 C. BERNOULLI
C. 2WL/9 D. ALL THE ABOVE

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 6WL/9 35. If the end portion of beam is extended be-
yond the support is called as
30. TYPE OF STRESS IS
A. Cantillever Beam
A. TENSILE
B. Overhang Beam
B. COMPRESSIVE
C. Fixed Beam
C. SHEAR D. Continous Beam
D. ALL THE ABOVE
36. In spring balances, the spring is used
31. Define the meaning of torsion A. to apply forces
A. the polar moment of inertia of the B. to measure forces
cross-sectional area C. to absorb shocks
B. the outer radius of the shaft D. to store strain energy
C. a moment that twists/deforms a mem- 37. The deformation per unit length is called
ber about its longitudinal axis
A. Strain
D. Section the shaft perpendicular to its
axis at the point where the shear stress B. Stress
is to be determined C. Bulk modulus
D. Elasticity
32. In bending moment diagram, if no load acts
between two sections, then it is repre- 38. The algebraic sum of vertical forces at any
sented by section of a beam is known as
A. horizontal line A. Shear strain
B. inclined line B. Bending Moment
C. vertical line C. Shear Force

D. all of the above D. Shear Stress

39. What does the Modulus of Elasticity de-
33. A material’s ability to resist denting or scribe?
scratching is called:
A. An objects stiffness based on its shape
A. toughness
B. An objects stiffness based on its chem-
B. hardness ical properties
C. tension C. An objects rotation because of inertia
D. torsion D. An objects rotation because of force

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7.1 Basic 927

40. Percentage elongation during tensile test A. 1

is indication of
B. 3

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A. Ductility
C. 5
B. Malleability
D. 7
C. Creep
D. Rigidity 46. A load of 100N falls through a height of
2cm onto a collar rigidly attached to the
41. The value of Poison’s ratio depends upon lower end of a vertical bar 1.5m long and
A. Nature of load, tensile or compressive of 105cm2 cross-sectional area. The up-
per end of the vertical bar is fixed. What
B. Magnitude of load
is the maximum instantaneous elongation
C. Material of test specimen in the vertical bar if E = 200GPa?
D. Dimensions of the test specimen A. 0.245mm
42. THE BODY ON RECEIVING LOAD UNDER- B. 0.324mm
GOES
C. 0.452mm
A. DEFORMATION
D. 0.623mm
B. TEMPERATURE CHANGE
C. MAINTAINS EQUILIBRIUM 47. Resilience can also be termed as
D. BURST OUT A. Stress energy

43. The shape of area of the Strain energy up B. Strain energy

to the elastic limit is C. Modulus
A. Parabola D. Tenacity
B. Rectangle
48. The upward deflection caused by the prop
C. Square
is
D. None
A. Pl3/2EI
44. Degree of indeterminacy of a propped can- B. Pl2/3EI
tilever beam is
C. Pl3/3EI
A. 1
B. 3 D. Pl4/3EI

C. 2 49. Two beams, one of circular cross-section

D. 0 and the other of square cross-section,
have equal areas of cross-sections. When
45. There are two beams of equal length, L and these beams are subjected to bending,
a distributed load, W is acting on centre of
both beams. One of them is simply sup- A. both beams are equally economical
ported at both ends while the other one is B. square beam is more economical
fixed at both ends. Deflection of centre of
C. circular beam is more economical
simply supported beam will be times
that of defection of centre of fixed beam. D. none of these

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7.1 Basic 928

50. What does the Moment of Inertia de- C. P E / A L

scribe? D. A L / P E
A. An objects stiffness related to its
shape 56. A composite material is made of

B. An objects stiffness related to its A. A single material

chemical properties B. Two or more separate materials
C. An objects rotation because of inertia C. Two or more chemically combined ma-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
terials
D. An objects rotation because of force
D. None of these
51. Slope in the beam at any point is measured
in 57. IF BEAM AB span FIXED THEN MFAB direc-
tion is
A. Degrees
A. clock wise
B. Minutes
B. anticlockwise
C. Radians
C. both
D. Metric tonnes
D. nothing above
52. The thermal stress induced in a steel rod is
compressive, if temperature 58. What is the S.I. unit of sectional modulus?

A. decreases A. mm4
B. mm3
B. increases
C. mm2
C. remains constant
D. m
D. none of the above
59. When compared with solids and liquids,
53. UNIT OF YOUNG‘S MODULUS, E is
the gases have
A. N / mm2 A. Minimum volume elasticity
B. N / mm3 B. Maximum volume elasticity
C. N + mm2 C. Maximum Young’s modulus
D. Nmm2 D. Maximum modulus of rigidity
54. Toughened or Tempered glass does what 60. In fixed beams, the maximum deflection at
when it breaks? is reduced.
A. Breaks into sharp shards A. Centre
B. Forms a shatter but is kept held to- B. Supports
gether
C. At point of loading
C. Breaks into small, unsharp pieces
D. Through out
D. Doesn’t really break at all
61. What is the formula for a fixed beam sub-
55. δ l, elongation = jected to point load at A from right support
A. P L / A E A. Wab2 /L
B. P A / L E B. Wa2 b2 /L

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7.1 Basic 929

C. Wa2 b/L 67. a =

D. Wab/L A. 1000 n / m2

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B. 100 n / m2
62. The beam having one end free and one end
fixed is called as C. 10 n/m2
A. Cantilever beam D. 1 n / m2
B. Continuous beam 68. Material made from a combination if two
C. Overhang beam or more different materials, in layers or in
a mixture
D. Simply supported beam
A. Lamination
63. The angle made by the resultant stress
B. Layering
with the normal of the oblique plane is
known as C. Composite
A. Principal Angle D. Alloy
B. Angle of Inclination 69. The stem with a length of 5 m and a cross
C. Resultant Angle section of 50 x 10 mm. Determine the size
of the compression load, if the length is re-
D. Obliquity angle
duced 0, 2 mm.(E = 200 GPA)
64. Respond to changes in temperature by A. 30 kN
changing colour, t-shirts, mugs and tem-
B. 35 kN
perature strips
C. 40 kN
A. Nanomaterials
D. 45 kN
B. Thermochromic materials
E. 50 kN
C. Integrated electronics
D. Thermochronic Materials 70. A beam 6 metres long is fixed at it ends.
It carries a udl of 5 kN/m. Find the maxi-
65. The slope is zero at which support mum bending moment in the beam.
A. Roller support A. 15 kNm
B. Pinned support B. 20 kNm
C. Fixed support C. 35 kNm
D. None of the above D. 40 kNm

66. In a cantilever of span “L” subjected to a 71. The maximum twisting moment a shaft can
concentrated load of “W” at a distance of resist, is the product of the permissible
L/3 from free end. The deflection is shear stress and
A. W L3 /3EI A. polar moment of inertia
B. 14W L3 /81EI B. modulus of rigidity
C. W L3 /81EI C. moment of inertia
D. 8W L3 /81EI D. polar modulus

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7.1 Basic 930

72. What is the formula for a Fixed end mo- 77. In simply supported beams, the slope is
ment of a fixed beam At A when subjected at supports.
to triangular load the maximum intensity A. Minimum
acting at A
B. Zero
A. W L2 /20
C. Maximum
B. W L2 /10
D. Uniform
C. W L2 /30
78. LOAD/ AREA =

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. W L2 /40+
A. STRAIN
73. It is known that the cylinder has a hole
B. STRESS
with a length of 2 m has an outer diame-
ter of 50 mm and a diameter of 30 mm.If C. FORCE
the cylinder receives a load of 25 kN, de- D. ACCELERATION
termine the deformation that occurs in the
cylinder if the price of the elasticity of the 79. In cantilever beams, the extra support is
cylinder material is 100 GPA. known as
A. 0, 4 mm A. Hinch
B. 0, 5 mm B. Prop
C. 0, 6 mm C. Cripple
D. 0, 7 mm D. Indeterminate end
E. 0, 8 mm 80. Shear modulus is the ratio of

74. Hogging is A. linear stress to linear strain

A. Negative bending moment B. linear stress to lateral strain

B. Positive shear force C. volumetric strain to linear strain

D. shear stress to shear strain
C. Positive bending moment
D. Negative shear force 81. How much force is required to shear off a
metal sheet whose thickness is 2mm and
75. Which metal is commonly used for Alloyed width of 40cm? The shear stress is 5 x
with other materials to make bike frames, 107 N/m2.
aeroplane parts?
A. 400 kN
A. Brass
B. 40 kN
B. Bronze
C. 4 kN
C. Aluminium
D. none of above
D. Copper
82. The unit of Young’s modulus of elasticity
76. HOOKE‘S LAW is:
A. ST RESS ∝ ST RAIN A. pascals
B. ST RESS = ST RAIN B. metres
C. ST RESS ÷ ST RAIN C. dimension-less
D. ST RESS + ST RAIN D. newtons

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7.1 Basic 931

83. Two parallel, equal and opposite forces act- 88. A force is defined as a
ing tangentially to the surface of the body A. push
is called as

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B. pull
A. Complementary stress
C. stretch
B. Compressive stress
D. push & pull
C. Shear stress
D. Tensile stress 89. is used to produce due to temperature
variation in indeterminate structures.
84. A steel rod is 2m long and 50mm in diam- A. Stresses
eter. An axial pull of 100kN is suddenly
B. Strains
applied to the rod. What will be the instan-
taneous elongation produced in the rod if C. Deflections
E=22GN/m2? D. Moment
A. 0.0097 mm
90. A tensile load of 60kN is suddenly applied
B. 1.0754 mm to a circular bar of 4cm diameter. What
C. 1.6354 mm will be the maximum instantaneous stress
induced?
D. 1.0186 mm
A. 95.493 N/mm2
85. The compression test is carried on ma- B. 45.25 N/mm2
terials.
C. 0.2 N/mm2
A. ductile
D. 102.45 N/mm2
B. brittle
91. What is the process when stress causes a
C. malleable
material to strain past the elastic limit and
D. plastic material has permanent deformation?
A. Stress
86. A beam which is fixed at one end and free
at other end is known as B. Strain
A. Cantillever Beam C. Elastic Deformation
B. Overhang Beam D. Plastic Deformation
C. Fixed Beam E. Fault

D. Continous Beam 92. A tensile load of 60kN is gradually applied

to a circular bar of 4cm diameter and 5m
87. Which metal is commonly used for Machine long. If the value of E is 2x105N/mm2.
tools, vices and engine blocks Determine Stretch in Rod.
A. Cast iron A. 0.19mm
B. Mild steel B. 1.19mm
C. high Carbon steel C. 1.91mm
D. Stainless steel D. 1.99mm

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7.1 Basic 932

93. For any part of the beam, between two 98. They change colour depending on the
concentrated load Shear force diagram is amount of light hitting the surface. By far
a the most common use of this is in light-
A. Horizontal straight line sensitive glasses, such as sunglasses.
B. Vertical straight line A. Reflective Films
C. Line inclined to x-axis B. Phosphorescent pigments
D. Parabola C. Holograms

NARAYAN CHANGDER
94. A composite bar having two sections D. Photochromic Materials
of cross-sectional area 100mm2 and
200mm2 respectively. The length of both 99. In a two span continuous beam loaded by
the sections is 100mm. What will be UDL, point of contraflexure exist
the total elongation of bar if it is sub-
jected to axial force of 100kN and E = 105 A. At mid support
N/mm2? B. in both spans near middle support
A. 1.0
C. Near end support
B. 1.25
D. At the end support
C. 1.5
D. 2.0 100. is a graphical method of normal,
tangential and resultant stresses on an
95. THE MAXIMUM STRENGTH POSSESSED
oblique plane.
BY A BODY BEFORE FAILURE IS ITS
A. YIELD STRENGTH A. Principal Planes
B. STRESS CONSTANT B. Shear Method
C. ULTIMATE STRENGTH C. Super position
D. ALL THE ABOVE
D. Mohr’s Circle
96. SI units of Bending moment is
101. Principal strain energy theory applies to
A. kN
B. kN/m A. Brittle materials
C. kNm B. Ductile Materials
D. km C. Ductile as well as brittle materials
97. A steel has its yield strength of D. None
200N/mm2 and modulus of elasticity of
1x105MPa. Assuming the material to 102. When mild steel is subjected to a tensile
obey hooks law up to yielding, what will load, its fracture will conform to
be its proof resilience?
A. Star shape
A. 0.8 N/mm2
B. Granular shape
B. 0.4 N/mm2
C. 0.2 N/mm2 C. Cup and cone shape
D. 0.6 N/mm2 D. Fibrous shape

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7.1 Basic 933

103. The actual breaking stress in stress- C. Springs

strain diagram is the ratio of D. None

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A. load at breaking point and original
cross-sectional area 109. The Strain si unit is
B. load at breaking point and reduced A. Meter
cross-sectional area B. Pascal
C. maximum load and original cross- C. Radian
sectional area D. No unit (unitless)
D. yield load and original cross-sectional
area 110. The bending moment on a section is max-
imum where shear force is
104. Total strain energy up to the fracture
A. minimum
point is called
B. maximum
A. Resilience
C. changing sign
B. Proof residence
D. zero
C. Toughness
D. None 111. When a bar is subjected to a change of
temperature and its deformation is pre-
105. What are units for Section Modulus? vented, the stress induced in the bar is
A. m3 A. tensile stress
B. m B. compressive stress
C. m2 C. shear stress
D. m4 D. thermal stress
106. The section modulus of a rectangular sec- 112. The maximum instantaneous extension,
tion(b*d) about an axis through its C.G. produced by an unknown falling weight in
and parallel to the base ‘b’ is a vertical bar of length 3m. what will
A. bd3/3 be the instantaneous stress induced in the
vertical bar and the value of unknown
B. bd3/4
weight if E = 200GPa?
C. bd3/6
A. 100 N/mm2
D. bd3/12
B. 110 N/mm2
107. IN TENSILE STRESS LENGTH C. 120 N/mm2
A. DECREASES D. 140 N/mm2
B. INCREASES
113. What is the formula for a fixed beam sub-
C. REMAINS CONSTANT jected to point Load
D. none of above A. +/-wl2/8
108. Strain energy is stored in B. +/-wl/8
A. Beams C. +/-wl2/12
B. Columns D. +/-wl2/24

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7.1 Basic 934

114. What is the formula for a Fixed end mo- 119. changes induce large stresses in a
ment of a fixed beam when the support fixed beam
sinks by 1mm A. Lateral
A. 6EI/(L*L) B. Deflection
B. 4EI/(L*L) C. Temperature
C. 8EI/(L*L) D. Slope
D. 3EI/(L*L)

NARAYAN CHANGDER
120. The stresses, acting on principal planes
are known as
115. The ability of the material to deform
without breaking is called A. Principal stresses
B. Principal Planes
A. Elasticity
C. Principal Strain
B. Creep
D. Normal Planes
C. Plasticity
D. Brittle 121. The main component of glass is
A. silium
116. Due to forces acting, a pillar supporting a B. silica
bridge is in:
C. sodium
A. compression
D. boride
B. shear
122. The strain energy stored in a specimen
C. tension when stained within the elastic limit is
D. none known as
A. Resilience
117. in most cases, for a given loading, max-
imum stress and deflection of an indeter- B. Plasticity
minate structure are than that of a de- C. Malleability
terminate one. D. Stain energy
A. Larger
123. The independent elastic constants for a
B. Smaller homogeneous and isotropic material are
C. Larger for small load A. E, K, G
D. Smaller for larger load B. E, K
C. K, G
118. Which of the following method is not
used for determining slope and deflection D. E, G
at a point?
124. Continuous beams are
A. Moment area method A. Statically determinate beams
B. Double integration method B. Statically indeterminate beams
C. Isoheytal method C. Statically gravity beams
D. Macaulay’s method D. Framed beams

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7.1 Basic 935

125. The spring balance does not read properly 130. Amazing strength to weight ratio and is
after its long use, because easily moulded/shaped. Resistant to cor-
rosion, rigid/stiff and quite expensive.

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A. The elasticity of spring increases
A. Kevlar
B. The elasticity decreases
B. Carbon fibre
C. Its plastic power decreases
C. GRP
D. Its plastic power increases
D. Tungsten
126. While using three moments equation, a
fixed end of a continuous beam is replaced 131. The maximum instantaneous extension,
by an additional span of produced by an unknown falling weight
through a height of 4cm in a vertical bar of
A. Zero length length 3m and of cross section area 5cm2.
B. Infinite length what will be the instantaneous stress in-
duced in the vertical bar and the value of
C. Zero moment of inertia
unknown weight if E = 200GPa?
D. None of the above
A. 1700 N
127. A tensile load of 60kN is gradually ap- B. 1459.4 N
plied to a circular bar of 4cm diame-
C. 1745.8 N
ter and 5m long. If the value of E is
2x105N/mm2. Determine Strain energy D. 1947.5 N
absorbed in a rod.
132. What will be the stress induced in the rod
A. 35.61Nm if the height through which load is dropped
B. 35.71Nm is zero?

C. 35.81Nm A. P/A
B. 2P/A
D. 35.91Nm
C. P/E
128. The product of the tangential force acting
D. 2P/E
on the shaft and its distance from the axis
of the shaft (i.e. radius of shaft) is known 133. The member is subjected to like direct
as stresses in mutually perpendicular di-
A. flexural rigidity rections
B. torsional rigidity A. Two

C. bending moment B. One

D. twisting moment C. Three

D. Four
129. A member is subjected to a direct stress
in Plane. 134. A weight of 10kN falls by 30mm on a
collar rigidly attached to a vertical bar 4m
A. Four
long and 1000mm2 in section. What will
B. Three be the instantaneous stress (E=210GPa)?
C. Two A. 149.4 N/mm2
D. One B. 179.24 N/mm2

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7.1 Basic 936

C. 187.7 N/mm2 139. which of the following is/are correct?

D. 156.1 N/mm2 A. AREA OF CIRCLE = π R2
π D2
B. AREA OF CIRCLE = 4
135. A steel rod is 2m long and 50mm in di-
ameter. A axial pull of 100kN is suddenly C. AREA OF THE RECTANGLE = Length x
applied to the rod. What will be the in- Breadth
stantaneous stress induced in the rod? D. ALL THE ABOVE
A. 101.89 N/mm2

NARAYAN CHANGDER
140. YOUNG‘S MODULUS is denoted by the
B. 94.25 N/mm2 letter
C. 130.45 N/mm2 A. Y
D. 178.63 N/mm2 B. M
C. E
136. A 5cm cube of substance has its upper-
face displaced by 0.65cm by a tangential D. e
force of 0.25N. Calculate the modulus of
rigidity. 141. UNIT OF STRESS IS
A. NEWTON
A. 769 Pa
B. NEWTON-METRE
B. 7.69 Kpa
C. NEWTON/METRE SQUARE
C. 769 MPa
D. NEWTON-METRE SQUARE
D. none of above
142. Calculate the slope at supports, if the
137. is a horizontal structural member sub- area is 180kNm2 . Take flexural rigidity
jected to transverse loads perpendicular to as 50000.
its axis.
A. 0.0054 radians
A. Strut
B. 0.0072 radians
B. Column
C. 0.0036 radians
C. Beam
D. 0.108 radians
D. Truss
143. m =
138. A load of 100N falls through a height of A. 1000 mm
2cm onto a collar rigidly attached to the
lower end of a vertical bar 1.5m long and B. 100 mm
of 105cm2 cross-sectional area. The up- C. 10 mm
per end of the vertical bar is fixed. What
D. 1 mm
is the strain energy stored in the vertical
bar if E = 200GPa? 144. Young’s modulus is defined a
A. 2.045 N-m A. Tensile strain/Tesnsile stress
B. 3.14 N-m B. Tensile stress*Tensile strain
C. 9.4 N-mm C. Tensile stress/Tensile strain
D. 2.14 N-m D. Length/area

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7.1 Basic 937

145. The bending stress in a beam is bend- 150. A weight of 10kN falls by 30mm on a
ing moment collar rigidly attached to a vertical bar 4m
long and 1000mm2 in section. What will

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A. equal to
be the strain (E=210GPa)?
B. less than
A. 0.00089
C. more than
B. 0.0005
D. directly proportional to
C. 0.00064
146. The beam with more than two support is
D. 0.00098
called
A. Simply Supported beam 151. deformation
B. Continuous beam A. the process by which the shape of a
C. Cantilever Beam rock changes because of stress

D. Fixed beam B. the amount of force per square unit

area on a given material
147. Betti’s Theorem is based on C. stress that occurs when an object is
A. Balancing of external and internal stretched
forces D. stress that occurs when an object is
B. Balancing of work done produced by squeezed
external and internal loadings
152. At the point of contraflexure, the value
C. Balancing of external and internal mo-
of bending moment is
ments
A. Zero
D. Balancing of strain energy produced by
external and internal loadings B. Maximum

148. There is a steel shade with a length of 2 C. Can’t be determined

m and a cross section of 150 mm square, D. Minimum
receiving axial load weighing 15 kN. De-
termine the extension/elongation of the 153. The moment is zero at which type of sup-
stem.If the price = 200 GPA. port
A. 1 mm A. Roller support
B. 2 mm B. Hinged support
C. 3 mm C. Fixed support
D. 4 mm D. Both Roller & hinged support
E. 5 mm
154. These materials can be easily shaped,
149. TheStress si unit is stretched, and are sometimes elastic.
A. Newton A. metals
B. Second B. polymers
C. Pascal C. ceramics/glass
D. Radian TheStress si unit is D. composites

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7.1 Basic 938

155. The number support reaction for Hinged C. Principal Strain

support D. Normal Plane
A. 2
161. Moving train is an example of load.
B. 1
A. Point load
C. 3
B. Cantered load
D. 4 C. Rolling load

NARAYAN CHANGDER
156. What is Ferrous metal D. Uniformly varying load
A. Material that has good electrical resis- 162. Shear force is diagram is representa-
tance tion of<br /> shear force plotted as ordi-
B. Metal that consists of Chromium nate.
C. Metal that has non magnetic proper- A. Scalar
ties B. Aerial
D. Metal that has iron as a base metal C. Graphical
157. Toughness is the ability to absorb energy D. Statically
and: 163. Calculate the maximum deflection of a
A. twist simply supported beam if the maximum
slope at A is 0.0075radians and the dis-
B. resist fracture or breaking
tance of centre of gravity of bending mo-
C. bend ment diagram to support A is 1.33 metres.
D. dent A. 9.975 mm
158. The maximum strain energy stored in a B. 9.5 mm
boby is called as C. 9.25 mm
A. Modulus of Resilience D. 9.785 mm
B. Resilience 164. Resilience of a material plays important
C. Impact of Resilience role in which of the following?
D. Proof of Resilience A. Thermal stress
B. Shock loading
159. What is the other name for a positive
bending moment? C. Fatigue
A. Hogging D. Pure static loading

B. Sagging 165. Calculate the load intensity of fixed beam

if the maximum deflection shall not exceed
C. Inflation
1/ 400 of the span. Take EI as 1010 kN
D. Contraflexure mm2. Assume point load at centre
160. The planes which have no shear stress A. 40 kN
are known as B. 35 kN
A. Principal Planes C. 45 kN
B. Principal stresses D. 60 kN

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7.1 Basic 939

166. The shear stress at the center of a circular 171. What is the relation between maximum
shaft under torsion is stress induced due to sudden loading to
maximum stress the gradual loading?

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A. zero
A. Maximum stress in sudden load is
B. minimum
equal to the maximum stress in gradual
C. Maximum load
D. Infinity B. Maximum stress in sudden load is half
to the maximum stress in gradual load
167. The principle of virtual work can be ap-
plied to elastic system by considering the C. Maximum stress in sudden load is
virtual work of ? twice to the maximum stress in gradual
load
A. internal forces only
D. Maximum stress in sudden load is four
B. external forces only times to the maximum stress in gradual
C. internal as well as external forces load
D. none of the above 172. Which metal is commonly used for Car
bodies and girders?
168. Why are the rails made by I section?
A. Tin
A. It reduces weight
B. Mild steel
B. The stresses that form during the
bending (bending) and loading of the C. high Carbon steel
tracks are reduced. D. Stainless steel
C. State of turmoil 173. The ability of a material to absorb energy
D. All of this when elastically deformed and to return it
when unloaded is called
169. Units of deflection are
A. Elasticity
A. kNm
B. Resilience
B. kN/m C. Plasticity
C. kN D. Strain resistance
D. m
174. What is the formula for fixed end mo-
170. Explain normal stress ment of a fixed beam subjected to point
load at B from right support
A. stress which acts perpendicular, or
normal to, the cross section of the load- A. Wab2 /L
carrying member. B. Wa2 b2 /L
B. branch of applied mechanics that deals C. Wa2 b/L
with the behavior of solid bodies sub-
D. Wab/L
jected to various types of loading
C. is a general term that refers to the ca- 175. FAILURE OF THE MATERIAL TO FIGHT
pacity of a structure to resist loads. AGAINST LOAD IS ALSO CALLED

D. The ratio of the actualstrength to the A. ELIGIBILITY

required strength B. FRACTURE

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7.1 Basic 940

C. WOUND 181. Elastic curve is also known as

D. NATURE LOSS A. Refraction curve

176. Where is the total located in case of Uni- B. Reflection curve

formly distributed load? C. Deflection curve
A. at mid point D. Random curve
B. at two third distance from left corner 182. The maximum stress induced in a body
of the load due to suddenly applied load is twice the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. at end point stress induced when the same load is
D. none of the above A. Applied Suddenly

177. What is the process when stress causes B. Applied Gradually

a material to strain, but afterward the ma- C. Applied Constant
terial returns to its original shape? D. Not Applied
A. Stress
183. Rusting is an example of a(n)
B. Strain
A. chemical property
C. Elastic Deformation
B. physical property
D. Plastic Deformation
C. toughness
E. Fault
D. amorphous property
178. The maximum strain energy stored at
elastic limit is 184. Calculate the slope in a simply supported
beam subjected to point load at centre.
A. Resilience Take the EI into consideration.
B. Proof resilience A. W l 3 /4EI
C. Elasticity B. W l 2 /16EI
D. Malleability C. W l 3 /8EI
179. The total strain energy stored in a body D. W l 4 /6EI
is called as
185. A wire is stretched 3 mm by a force of
A. Proof of Resilience 150 N. Assuming the elastic limit is not ex-
B. Modulus of Resilience ceeded, the force that will stretch the wire
C. Resilience 5 mm is:

D. Impact of Resilience A. 150 N

B. 90 N
180. A 1-m long cord is pulled by a force caus-
ing its length to change by 2mm. Deter- C. 250 N
mine the strain. D. 450 N
A. 0.2 186. In cantilever beams, the deflection is zero
B. 0.02 at
C. 0.002 A. Free and
D. none of above B. Fixed end

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7.1 Basic 941

C. At supports C. MODULUS
D. Through out D. ALL THE ABOVE

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187. It is known that aluminum alloy shaped 192. Example for cantilever beam is
rod with a length of 1 m and a cross sec-
tion of 200 mm square. Receive the com- A. Portico slabs
pressive force of 20 kN. If the aluminum B. Roof slab
alloy modulus is 100 GPA, determine the
C. Bridges
decrease in stem length.
A. 0, 1 mm D. Railway sleepers

B. 0, 2 mm 193. In the torsion equation the term J/R is

C. 0, 3 mm called
D. 0, 4 mm A. shear modulus
E. 0, 5 mm B. section modulus

188. Which metal is commonly used for Roof C. polar modulus

flashing, batteries, radiation shielding? D. none of these
A. Brass
194. Which structure will perform better dur-
B. Lead ing earthquake?
C. Aluminium
A. Statically determinate
D. Copper
B. Statically indeterminate
189. A beam supported on more than two sup- C. Both
ports is called
D. Depends upon magnitude of earth-
A. simply supported beam quake
B. fixed beam
195. The shear force changes suddenly at a
C. overhanging beam
section where there is a
D. continuous beam
A. Couple on the Beam
190. The plane of maximum and minimum nor- B. UDL load
mal stresses are at an angle of to each
other. C. Vertical Point Load
A. 90◦ D. Varying Load
B. 45◦ 196. Bending moment and slope at the end of
C. 60◦ fixed support of a fixed beam loaded by
D. 30◦ UDL is and respectively
A. Minimum, zero
191. CHANGE IN LENGTH/ ORIGINAL LENGTH
IS B. Maximum, Zero
A. STRESS C. Zero, Maximum
B. STRAIN D. Zero, minimum

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7.1 Basic 942

197. In a leaf spring, the length of all the B. The temperature must remain con-
leaves are equal. stant throughout
A. True C. Supports of the member should be un-
B. False yielding

C. None of the above D. It is applicable for prismatic member

only
D. none of above
202. A tensile load of 100kN is suddenly ap-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
198. Good strength to weight ratio. Easily plied to a rectangular bar of dimension
moulded/shaped and is resistant to corro- 2cmx4cm. What will be the instantaneous
sion. Durable and relatively inexpensive. stress in bar?
A. GRP ( Glass reinforced plastic)
A. 100 N/mm2
B. Polmorphic
B. 120 N/mm2
C. Kevlar
C. 150 N/mm2
D. Smart Ceramics
D. 250 N/mm2
199. What is the relation between maximum
203. An unknown weight falls through a
stress induced due to gradual load to max-
height of 10mm on a collar rigidly attached
imum stress the sudden load?
to a lower end of a vertical bar 500cm
A. Maximum stress in gradual load is long. If E =200GPa what will be the value
equal to the maximum stress in sudden of stress?
load
A. 50 N/mm2
B. Maximum stress in gradual load is half
to the maximum stress in sudden load B. 60 N/mm2

C. Maximum stress in gradual load is C. 70 N/mm2

twice to the maximum stress in sudden D. 80 N/mm2
load
204. A propped cantilever beam carrying total
D. Maximum stress in gradual load is four load “W” distributed evenly over its en-
times to the maximum stress in sudden tire length calculate the vertical force re-
load quired in the prop.
200. What is the value of stress induced in the A. 3/4 W
rod due to impact load?
B. W
A. P/A (1 + (1 + 2AEh/PL)1/2)
C. 5/8 W
B. P/A (2 + 2AEh/PL)
D. 3/8 W
C. P/A (1 + (1 + AEh/PL)1/2)
205. THE ABILITY OF THE BODY TO RETURN
D. P/A ((1 + 2AEh/PL)1/2)
BACK TO ITS ORIGINAL SHAPE IS
201. Identify the incorrect statement from A. PLASTICITY
the following regarding applicability of
Maxwell’s reciprocal theorem. B. ELASTICITY

A. It is applicable for elastic member’s C. THERMAL CONDUCTIVITY

only D. ALL THE ABOVE

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7.1 Basic 943

206. What is the modulus of resilience? B. The bridge will be broken

A. The ratio of resilience to volume C. The bridge will be strong

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B. The ratio of proof resilience to the D. The bridge will absorb water
modulus of elasticity
212. Given the Young’s modulus of elastic-
C. The ratio of proof resilience to the
ity below rank the metals according to
strain energy
the magnitude of tensile stress it can
D. The ratio of proof resilience to volume hold from highest to lowest.Aluminum 69
GPaBrass 125 GPaSteel 200 GPa
207. The number of support reaction for fixed
support A. Aluminum, Brass, Steel
A. 1 B. Brass, Aluminum, Steel
B. 2 C. Steel, Brass, Aluminum
C. 3 D. none of above
D. 4 213. How to find the decay of the prismatic
208. In a composite body, consisting of two bar because of its self -weight?
different materials will be same in wl 2
A. E
both materials.
wl 2
B. 2E
A. Stress
wl
B. Strain C. 2E

C. Both of the above D. Firasand t hea

D. None of these 214. Strain energy is used to find

209. A fixed beam is subjected to a couple of A. Stiffness
moment M0 at the centre. The correspond- B. Moment of inertia
ing fixed moment at each end is equal to
C. Deflection
A. M0
D. None
B. M0/2
C. M0/4 215. δ l, elongation-unit is

D. M0/8 A. degree
B. mm
210. The maximum negative bending moment
in fixed beam carrying udl occurs at C. N
A. Mid span D. Nm
B. 1/3 of the span 216. Which metal is commonly used for Coat-
C. Supports ing steel food cans, solder?
D. Half of the span A. Tin
B. Lead
211. What would happen if you crossed a
bridge made of plastic? C. Aluminium
A. You will be safe D. Copper

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7.1 Basic 944

217. The length of a wire is increased by 1 mm D. The ratio of longitudinal strain to

on the application of a certain load. In a stress
wire of the same material but of twice the
length and half the radius, the same force 222. of a beam is a measure of its resis-
will produce an elongation of tance against deflection.
A. 0.5mm A. Strength
B. 2mm B. Stiffness
C. Slope

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 4mm
D. 8mm D. Maximum bending

218. The algebraic sum of moments of all 223. The ratio of stress and strain is known as
forces at any section of a beam is known A. Modulus of elasticity
as
B. Young’s modulus
A. Shear strain
C. Both a. and b.
B. Shear Force
D. None of the above
C. Shear Stress
224. The point where BM is zero after chang-
D. Bending Moment
ing its sign is known as
219. The bulk modulus of three materials are A. Point of Contraflexture
listed below. Arrange them from high-
B. Point of Vertex
est to lowest compressibility.A:2 x 1010
N/m2B:4 x 1010 N/m2C:10 x 1010 C. Point of Thrust
N/m2 D. Point of Equilibrium
A. A, B, C
225. Shear force for UDL varies according
B. B, C, A to straight line law, whereas BM varies
C. C, B, A acording to a
D. none of above A. Straight Line
B. Traingular Shape
220. This refers to the ratio of tensile stress
to tensile strain. C. Circular shape
A. Bulk Modulus of elasticity D. Parabolic Curve
B. Shear Modulus of Rigidity 226. The number of support reaction for Roller
C. Young’s Modulus of elasticity support
D. none of above A. 4

221. What is the factor of safety? B. 3

A. The ratio of stress to strain C. 2

B. The ratio of permissible stress to the D. 1

ultimate stress 227. A nylon string, has a diameter of 2mm, is
C. The ratio of ultimate stress to the per- pulled by a force of 100N. Determine the
missible stress stress.

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7.1 Basic 945

A. 315 MPa B. 60.23 N/mm2

B. 31.5 MPa C. 45.24 N/mm2

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C. 3.15 MPa D. 63.14 N/mm2
D. none of above 233. A cylindrical rod of cross-sectional area A
228. young‘s modulus, E = experienced pressure p due to a compres-
sive force F. If the force applied is reduced
A. STRESS + STRAIN to one-third what happens to pressure?
B. STRESS / STRAIN A. also reduced to one-third
C. STRESS x STRAIN B. tripled
D. STRAIN / STRESS C. remains the same
229. When there is a sudden increase or de- D. none of above
crease in shear force diagram between any
two points, it indicates that there is a 234. With rise in temperature, the Young’s
modulus of elasticity of a material
A. point load at the two points
A. Increases
B. no loading between the two points
B. May increase or decrease
C. uniformly distributed load between the
two points C. Does not change
D. uniformly varying load between the D. Decreases
two points
235. What relationship exists between ap-
230. A brittle material has plied force and strain?
A. No elastic zone A. direct
B. No crumple zone B. indirect
C. No plastic zone C. none at all
D. No tensile zone D. none of above

231. Mathematically, strain energy = 236. When beam is fixed, what is the slope at
both ends?
A. Power
A. maximum
B. Work done
B. zero
C. Young’s Modulus
C. can not say
D. Energy
D. insufficient data
232. A load of 100N falls through a height of
2cm onto a collar rigidly attached to the 237. Which of the following does NOT deter-
lower end of a vertical bar 1.5m long and mine shear modulus?
of 105cm2 cross-sectional area. The upper A. Force
end of the vertical bar is fixed. What is the
maximum instantaneous stress induced in B. Area
the vertical bar if E = 200GPa? C. Shear strain
A. 50.87 N/mm2 D. Volume

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 7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 946

238. one end fixed and other end B. Elastic limit

roller/hinged is called as beam
C. Plastic limit
A. cantilever
D. Yield point
B. propped cantilever
C. overhanging 241. Which metal is commonly used for Cut-
lery, kitchen sinks, door handles?
D. none of the above
A. Tin
239. What is strain energy?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Lead
A. The work done by the applied load In
stretching the body C. Aluminium
B. The strain per unit volume D. Stainless steel
C. The force applied in stretching the
242. Prop reduces in the beam.
body
D. The stress per unit area A. Deflection
B. Slope
240. The limit beyond which the material does
not behave elastically is known as C. Shear
A. Proportional limit D. Torsion

7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials

1. The property of a material by which it can C. Tensile stress decreases at a faster
be drawn into thin wires is rate
A. Ductility D. None of the mentioned
B. Malleability
4. The phenomenon of slow growth of strain
C. Plasticity under a steady tensile stress is called
D. Elasticity A. Yielding
2. The percentage reduction in area of a mem- B. Creeping
ber from a direct tension test indicates C. Breaking
A. Ductility D. None of the mentioned
B. Elasticity
5. The material which fail without apprecia-
C. Malleability ble deformation is called
D. Brittleness
A. Brittle
3. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone B. Elastic
C. Ductile
A. Tensile stress increases in linear pro-
D. Plastic
portion to the stress
B. Tensile stress increases at a faster 6. The hardness is the property of a material
rate due to which it

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 947

A. can be drawn into wires 11. Which of the following pairs is not cor-
rectly matched?
B. breaks with little permanent distortion

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A. Visco-elastic:small plastics zone mate-
C. can cut another metal
rial
D. can be rolled or hammered into thin
B. Strain hardening material:stiffening
sheets
effect felt at some stage
7. The ratio of shear modulus to the modulus C. Orthotropic material:different proper-
of elasticity for a Poisson ratio of 0.4 will ties in three perpendicular directions
be
D. Isotropic material:same physical prop-
A. 5/14 erty in all directions at a point
B. 4/17
12. An electrical conductor
C. 5/16
A. will not allow electricity to pass
D. 7/19 through it
B. will allow electricity to pass through it
8. match the followingColumn I Column II
(a)Materials which can be drawn in the C. will not allow heat to pass through it
form of a wire (i) brittle(b)Materials D. will allow heat to pass through it
which break on increasing stress beyond
the elastic limit (ii)elastomers (c)Materials 13. The stress at which a material fractures
having large elastic limit (iii) ductile under large number of reversals of stress
A. a(i), b(iii), c(ii) is called
B. a(iii), b(i), c(ii) A. Endurance limit
C. a(iii), b(ii), c(i) B. Ultimate strength
D. a(ii), b(iii), c(i) C. Creep
D. Residual stress
9. Hardness test is the ability of a materialto
resist 14. Which one of the following, is a static me-
A. Scratching chanical property?

B. Wear and tear A. Impact strength

C. Indentation. B. Creep strength

D. Fracture C. Fatigue strength

D. Rebound hardness
10. A steel wire is loaded by 2 kg weight. If
the radius of the wire is doubled, then its 15. Energy stored in a material during its de-
extension will become formation is known as
A. half A. Elastic energy
B. four times B. Plastic energy
C. one-fourth C. Strain energy
D. double D. Potential energy

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 948

16. Stress which produces a compression in lat- 22. The property of a material by virtue of
eral direction is which it can be beaten or rolled into plates
A. Volumetric stress is called
A. elasticity
B. Compressive stress
B. plasticity
C. Tensile stress
C. malleability
D. Shear stress
D. ductility

NARAYAN CHANGDER
17. Creep occurs due to sliding of
23. Which of the following properties time-
A. Vacancies dependent?
B. Voids A. Elasticity
C. Grain boundaries B. Brittleness
D. Dislocations C. Hardness
18. The compression test is commonly used for D. Creep
testing
24. The material capable of absorbing large
A. Ductile materials amount of energy prior to fracture
B. Brittle materials A. Elastic
C. Rubber B. Plastic
D. All of the above C. Ductile
D. Brittle
19. The poisson ratio of steel is in the range
of 25. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric
A. 0.25 to 0.33 strain is called
B. 0.23 to 0.27 A. Poisson’s ratio

C. 0.31 to 0.34 B. Young’s modulus

D. 0.32 to 0.42 C. Shear modulus

D. Bulk modulus
20. Comes from nonliving minerals:
26. Tensile strain is defined as
A. thermosetting plastics
∆V
A. V
B. composite
∆l
B. L
C. thermoplastics
F
C. A
D. inorganic materials
h
D. sin θ
21. Flexible means
27. which of the following is the correct rela-
A. bends easily
tion? Y=Young’s modulus & G=modulus of
B. breaks if you bend it rigidity?
C. scratches easily A. Y>G
D. none of above B. NONE OF THESE

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 949

C. Y<G 33. Poisons ratio is an involving factor in

D. Y=G A. Elastic moduli

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28. Which of the following is a relatively duc- B. Stresses
tile material? C. Strain
A. Mild steel D. None of these
B. Cast iron 34. The ratio of decrease in length to original
C. High carbon steel length
D. Bronze A. Tensile strain

29. A bouncy ball is thrown to the floor. It de- B. Compressive strain

forms, then returns to its original shape. C. Shear strain
This is an example of: D. Volumetric strain
A. plasticity
35. A material that resists twisting forces has
B. elasticity good:
C. hardness A. Tensile Strength
D. tensile strength B. Compression Strength
30. Which test is conducted to measure the C. Bending Strength
ability of a material to resist scratching, D. Shear Strength
abrasion, deformation and indentation?
E. Torsional Strength
A. Fatigue test
B. Creep test 36. Which of the following is not one of the
critical points for strength specification on
C. Compression test the stress-strain diagram:
D. Hardness test A. Yield stress
31. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, B. Proportional limit
the C. Necking
A. Tensile strain increases more quickly D. Elastic limit
B. Tensile strain decreases more quickly E. Fracture stress
C. Tensile strain increases in proportion
to the stress 37. Unit of elastic modulus is same as that of

D. Tensile strain decreases in proportion A. Stress

to the stress B. Shear modulus

32. The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain C. Pressure

is known as D. Strain
A. Hookes ratio 38. The degree of ease in which a metal can be
B. Elastic ratio machined is known as
C. Poisson’s ratio A. Elasticity
D. None of these B. Tensile strength

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 950

C. Machineability 44. young’s modulus is maximum for

D. Hardenability A. Lead
B. Brass
39. Property of material particularly useful in
operation of pressing and forging is C. copper
A. Plasticity D. steel

B. Elasticity 45. The ratio of linear stress to linear strain is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Toughness called
A. Modulus of rigidity
D. Malleability
B. Modulus of elasticity
40. For an isotropic material, the relationship C. Bulk modulus
between the Young’s modulus (E), shear
modulus (G), and Poisson ratio(1/m) D. Poisson’s ratio
A. G= E/(1+(1/m)) 46. Poisson’s ratio of cork is
B. G= E/2(1+(1/m)) A. 0
C. G= E/(1+(2/m)) B. 0.3
D. G= E/2(1+(2/m)) C. 0.5
D. Negative
41. Use of ball bearings converts
A. Kinetic friction to static friction 47. The ability of a material to absorb energy-
without fracturing is:
B. kinetic friction to rolling friction
A. Hardness
C. Static friction to kinetic friction
B. Toughness
D. Rolling friction to Kinetic friction
C. Strength
42. An electrical insulator D. Solidness
A. will not allow electricity to pass 48. Which of the following material has maxi-
through it mum ductility?
B. will allow electricity to pass through it A. Mild steel
C. will not allow heat to pass through it B. Copper
D. will allow heat to pass through it C. Zinc
D. Aluminium
43. Ductile materials are defined as:
A. materials that can be subjected to 49. What is the ability of a substance to allow
large strains before it fractures heat, sound, or electricity to flow through
it?
B. materials that exhibit little or no yield-
ing before failure A. Malleability
C. materials that cannot be subjected to B. Ductility
large strains C. Solubility
D. materials that are elastic D. Conductivity

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 951

50. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the B. Shear

breaking stress as compared to ultimate C. Tensile
tensile stress is

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D. Compression
A. More
B. Less 56. If a composite bar of steel and copper is
heated, the copper bar will be under
C. Same
A. Tension
D. More/Less depending on composition
B. Compression
51. The units for elastic potential energy are
C. Shear
D. Torsion
A. Joules, J
B. metres, m 57. Which of the following springs is the
stiffest?
C. centimetres, cm
A. A spring that requires a froce of 2000
D. kilograms, kg
N to compress it by 6.8 m.
52. On the stress-strain curve, there are four B. A spring that requires a force of 4000
regions. Which is the following is not a N to stretch it by 9.0 m.
region on the stress-strain curve:
C. A spring that requires a force of 8000
A. Necking N to compress it by 45 m.
B. Yielding D. A spring that requires a force of 4800
C. Elastic region N to stretch it by 14 m.
D. Strain hardening 58. An heat insulator
E. Ultimate stress A. will not allow electricity to pass
53. Shear modulus is also known as through it
A. Bulk modulus B. will allow electricity to pass through it
B. Modulus of rigidity C. will not allow heat to pass through it
C. Young’s modulus D. will allow heat to pass through it
D. Modulus of resilience 59. Hardness is:
54. Which of the answers below lists actual A. The ability of a material to resist wear,
material properties? abrasion, scratching or denting.
A. Thermal B. How strong a material is.
B. Mechanical C. The ability of a material to absorb en-
ergywithout fracturing.
C. Radiant
D. When a material will not break.
D. Electrical

55. Which type of strength can resist two par- 60. The ability of the material to resist stress
allel forces pushing in opposite direction to without failure is called
each other? A. Strength
A. Torsion B. Hardness

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 952

C. stiffness C. Elastic
D. toughness D. Play Doh

61. Which of the following substance has the 67. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of lateral strain
lowest elasticity? to
A. Copper A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Steel B. Modulus of elasticity

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Rubber C. Longitudinal strain
D. wood
D. Bulk modulus
62. Elastic hysteresis is
68. are elements, compounds, or alloys
A. Lagging of stress behind strain that have properties that include, strength,
B. Lagging of strain behind stress ductility, high melting point, thermal, and
electric conductivity, and toughness.
C. stress is equal to strain
A. Polymers
D. stress/strain=constant
B. Composites
63. The property of a material to regain its
original shape after removing external C. Metals
force is known as D. Ceramics
A. Plasticity
69. change in dimensions is known as
B. Elasticity
A. deformation
C. Ductility
B. formation
D. Conductivity
C. contraction
64. Made of two or more combined materials:
D. strain
A. composite
B. inorganic material 70. The statement/statements is/are TRUE
about elastic deformation..
C. customary system
A. change in shape of a material at low
D. thermoplastics stress that is recoverable after the stress
65. What does malleable mean? is removed

A. able to be shaped B. deformation that is not permanent;

can be completely recovered upon release
B. will break easily of an applied stress
C. can be used for wire C. deformation that is permanent or non-
D. is shiny recoverable after release of the applied
load; accompanied by permanent atomic
66. Which of these is the best example of a displacements
ductile material?
D. The transformation of a metal from
A. Wool elastic deformation to plastic deforma-
B. Copper Wire tions

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 953

71. Relationship between Young’s modulus E, 76. is the material’s ability to stretch,
shear modulus G, bulk modulus K is given bend, or twist without breaking.
by A. Ductility and Malleability

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A. E= 9KG/( 3K+G) B. Brittleness
B. E= 3KG/(9K+G) C. Elasticity
C. E=6KG/3K +G D. Hardness
D. E= 9KG/3G+K 77. occurs when metal is subjected to a
constant tensile load at an elevated tem-
72. Tensile test can be performed on perature?
A. Impact testing machine A. Fatigue
B. Universal testing machine B. Creep

C. Rockwell tester C. Impact

D. Wear
D. Brinell tester
78. A spring has a spring constant of 330 N/m.
73. With which factor, a magnitude of creep How far is the spring compressed if 150 N
doesn’t increase? of force are used?
A. Temperature A. 2.2 m
B. Time B. 0.0014 m
C. Grain Size C. 5.0 m
D. 0.45 m
D. Stress
79. Glue is a type of fastener know as a(n):
74. In solid mechanics, plastic deformation can
A. mold
be defined as deformation in which:
B. adhesive
A. the material return back to its original
position after load is removed C. snap joint
D. mechanical fastener
B. the material undergoes a temporary
change 80. The poissons ratio of stable, isotopes, lin-
C. the material cannot return back to its ear elastic material cannot be less than
original position after load is removed A. 0.50
D. the material undergoes a reversible B. 0.00
process C. -1.00
E. none of the above D. -0.50

75. Cast iron is a 81. An heat conductor

A. will not allow electricity to pass
A. ductile material
through it
B. malleable material B. will allow electricity to pass through it
C. brittle material C. will not allow heat to pass through it
D. tough material D. will allow heat to pass through it

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 954

82. The Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid C. 21

body is D. 36
A. one
88. Consider the following salient points in a
B. infinity stress strain curve of a mild steel bar1.
C. zero Yield point 2. Breaking point3. Yield
Plateau 4. Proportional limit5. Ultimate
D. none of the above
pointThe correct sequence in which they oc-
83. Creep is cur while testing mild steel bar in tension

NARAYAN CHANGDER
from initial zero strain to failure is
A. Gradual increase of plastic strain with
the time at constant load A. 4, 1, 2, 3 and 5
B. Gradual increase of elastic strain with B. 1, 4, 3, 5 and 2
the time at constant load C. 4, 1, 3, 5 and 2
C. Gradual increase of plastic strain with D. 1, 4, 2, 3 and 5
time at varying load
89. If a material can easily be drawn into the
D. Gradual increase of elastic strain with shape of a wire, it is
time at varying load
A. Hard
84. The permanent mode of deformation of a B. Ductile
material known as C. Tough
A. Stiffness D. Malleable
B. Malleability
90. The ability of a material to be formed by
C. Plasticity hammering or rolling is known as
D. Elasticity A. Hardness
85. The ability of a material to resist plastic B. Ductility
deformation known as C. Brittleness
A. Yield strength D. Malleability
B. Tensile strength 91. Modulus of rupture of concrete is a mea-
C. Modulus of elasticity sure of
D. Impact strength A. Flexural tensile strength
B. Direct tensile strength
86. What is the correct unit for strain?
C. Compressive strength
A. Pa
D. Split tensile strength
B. Nm-2
92. is the material’s ability to return to its
C. No unit
near original shape after a stress has been
D. Nm2 applied and removed.
87. Number of independent elastic constants A. Ductility
for an isotropic materials B. Brittleness
A. 2 C. Elasticity
B. 9 D. Hardness

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 955

93. Which of following tests uses spherical in- C. Compressive stress

denter. D. Direct stress

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A. .Brinell test.
99. When equal and opposite forces applied to
B. Vickers Test
a body, tend to elongate it, the stress so
C. Rockwell Test produced, is called
D. Creep Test. A. Shear stress
94. If the material is expand free due to heat- B. Compressive stress
ing it will develop C. Tensile stress
A. Thermal stress D. Transverse stress
B. Tensile stress
100. The substance which shows no elastic af-
C. No stress ter effect practically is
D. No of these
A. steel
95. During a tensile test on a ductile material B. rubber
C. copper
A. Nominal stress at fracture is higher
D. quartz
than the ultimate stress
B. True stress at fracture is higher than 101. The ratio of proportionality of shear
the ultimate stress strain to shear strain is
C. True stress a fracture is the same as A. Poisson’s ratio
the ultimate stress
B. Shear modulus
D. None of the mentioned
C. Modulus of elasticity
96. Stress has the same unit as D. Bulk modulus
A. Sound intensity
102. Bending is the ability to withstand which
B. Work two types of force simultaneously?
C. Pressure A. Compression
D. Strain B. Torsion
97. Example of brittle material: C. Tension
A. iron steel D. Shear
B. aluminium
103. The property of a material due to which
C. concrete it breaks with little permanent distortion,
D. copper is called
A. ductility
98. When force is acting parallel to surface
then the corresponding stress is known as B. brittleness
A. Shear Stress C. malleability
B. Tensile stress D. plasticity

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 956

104. What happens when the stress applied C. 0.08 to 0.18

to the body is increased beyond the max- D. 0.45 to 0.50
imum value and is removed after some
time? 110. The the melting point and the
A. The body will come back to its original the elastic modulus, the higher is creep
position strength.
A. Lower, lower
B. The body will oppose the stress
B. Lower, higher

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The body cannot return to its original
position C. Higher, lower
D. The body becomes hot D. Higher, higher

105. Girders are made in I shape to 111. Creep is a dependent phenomenon.

A. increase its strength A. Temperature
B. make it appear more elegant B. Time
C. reduce the quantity of material used C. Load
D. none of the above D. Stress cycle

106. Brittle means 112. The following tests are hardness test
A. bends easily A. Tensile test.

B. breaks if you bend it B. Vickers Test

C. scratches easily C. Rockwell Test

D. none of above D. Creep Test.

113. The property of a material which does
107. A property that defines a materials abil-
not regain its original shape after remov-
ity to be hammered, pressed, or rolled into
ing external force is known as
thin sheets without breaking.
A. Plasticity
A. Soft
B. Elasticity
B. Malleability
C. Ductility
C. Moldability
D. Conductivity
D. Ductility
114. Match List-1 with List-2List-1A.
108. Plastics that can be heated and shaped
DuctilityB. BrittlenessC. Tenacity D.
one time only:
ToughnessList-21. Failure without warn-
A. composite ing2. Drawn permanently over great
B. thermoplastics changes of shape without rupture3. Ab-
sorption of energy at high stress without
C. inorganic material
rupture4. High tensile strength
D. thermosetting plastics A. A1 B2 C4 D3
109. Poisson’s ratio of rubber is B. A1 B2 C3 D4
A. 0.25 to 0.33 C. A2 B3 C4 D1
B. 0.23 to 0.33 D. A2 B1 C4 D3

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 957

115. Hookes law is applicable to 121. Coefficient of kinetic friction is maximum

A. Anisotropic materials when

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B. Orthotropic materials A. Rubber moves on concrete
C. Isotropic materials B. Copper moves on steel
D. All of the above C. Aluminium moves on steel
D. Teflon moves on Teflon
116. The property which resist the relative
motion between two surface in contact is 122. Poisson’s ratio of aluminum is
called A. 0.5
A. Friction B. 0.33
B. Static friction C. 0.30
C. kinetic friction D. 0.1
D. rolling friction
123. Which of following tests uses pyramid in-
117. At room temperature, most metals are denter
A. solid A. .Brinell test.
B. an alloy B. Vickers Test
C. an alloy C. Rockwell Test
D. gas D. Creep Test.
118. Materials are classified as: 124. is the ability of a material to resist
A. Natural, plastic, and leather. fracturing, when a force is applied to it
B. Natural, synthetic, and mixed. A. Hysteresis
C. Metal, synthetic, and leather. B. Elastomer
D. Metal, plastic, and leather. C. Hardness
D. Toughness
119. N/m2 = dyne /cm2
A. 1 125. Pulling on a rubber band is an example of
what kind of force?
B. 1000
A. shear
C. 100
B. tension
D. 10
C. compression
120. If both the length and radius of the wire D. torsion
are doubled, then how does the modu-
lus of elasticity change? (a) doubled(b) 126. If a force of 0.98 N is applied to a mass
halved(c) becomes one fourth(d) remains of 0.25kg. The coefficient of friction is
unchanged (g=9.8 m/s2)
A. doubled A. 0.2
B. halved B. 0.3
C. becomes one fourth C. 0.4
D. remains unchanged D. 0.5

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 958

127. Which machine records the change in 132. A 10-newton force is required to hold a
length of specimen? stretched spring 0.20 meter from its rest
A. Impact testing machine position. What is the potential energy
stored in the stretched spring?
B. Universal testing machine
A. 1 J
C. Rockwell tester
B. 2 J
D. Brinell tester
C. 5 J

NARAYAN CHANGDER
F
128. The ratio of Aθ is D. 50 J
A. Poisson’s ratio 133. In following Brinell hardness quotation
B. Bulk Modulus (1800 HBW 10/3000/30 ), HBW means
C. Modulus of rigidity A. Test time.
D. Young’s Modulus B. Diameter of indenter
C. The applied force.
129. Two wires have the same material and
length, but their masses are in the ration D. Indenter material.
of 4:3. If they are stretched by the same
134. The bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body
force, their elongations will be in the ratio
is
of
A. infinity
A. 2:3
B. one
B. 3:4
C. zero
C. 4:3
D. none of the above
D. 9:16
135. The property when a material de-
130. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of forms/distorts from stress and retains its
A. Longitudinal stress and longitudinal new shape, it is known as:
strain A. thermosetting
B. Lateral strain and longitudinal strain B. polymerization
C. Longitudinal stress and lateral stress C. elasticity
D. Lateral stress and longitudinal stress D. plasticity
131. Which statement is correct regarding 136. The ability to be stretched and then re-
creep strength? turn to its original shape is?
A. Wrought materials have higher creep A. Elasticity
strength than cast materials
B. Bending Strength
B. With an increase in temperature, C. Malleability
steady state creep rate decreases
D. Ductility
C. Creep strength can be improved by
precipitation hardening 137. Stretching occurs when force is ap-
D. Aromatic rings in polymer decrease plied onto an object.
creep strength A. compressive

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 959

B. tensile 143. The unit of modulus of resilience is

C. radial A. Joule

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D. explosive B. Joules/mm
C. Joule/mm2
138. The graph between the applied force and
D. Joules/mm3
the change in length of a wire within elas-
tic limit is a 144. The law ‘ stress is proportional to strain
A. straight line with zero slope within certain limits’ is formulated by

B. straight line with positive slope A. Thomas young

B. Poisson
C. straight line with negative slope
C. Mohr
D. all of the above
D. Robert Hook
139. Which of the following materials will
145. The material in which large deformation
have the highest Young’s modulus
is possible before the absolute failure or
A. Brass rupture is termed as
B. Copper A. Brittle
C. Mild steel B. Elastic
D. Timber C. Ductile
D. Plastic
140. The fractional change in volume per unit
increase in the pressure is called 146. Select all the correct units for stress.
A. Volume coefficient A. Pa

B. Pressure gradien B. Nm-2

C. Nm2
C. Compressibility
D. No unit
D. Bulk modulus
147. In creep, atoms diffuse along grain
141. Compressibility is reciprocal of boundaries and grains elongate in stress
A. Young’s modulus axis.
A. Dislocation
B. Modulus of elasticity
B. Nabarro-Herring
C. Shear modulus
C. Coble
D. Bulk modulus
D. Solute drag
142. Hooke’s law states
148. The Young’s modulus of air is
A. stress/strain=constant A. zero
B. strain=(stress)2/Y B. infinity
C. stress=Y (strain)2 C. more han 1 but not infinity
D. stress= (1/2)Y D. less than 1 but not zero

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7.2 Mechanical Properties of Materials 960

149. *The strength of a material which resists shear takes place at 45◦ to the direction
force when twisted is: of the applied tensile force.
A. torsion strength A. Both 1 and 2 are true and 2 is the cor-
B. tensile strength rect explanation of 1.

C. shear strength B. Both 1 and 2 are true and but 2 is not

a correct explanation of 1.
D. compression strength
C. 1 is true but 2 is false.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
150. A material capable of absorbing large
D. 1 is false but 2 is true.
amount of energy before fracture is known
as 155. A force of F=500 N is applied to extend
A. plasticity a spring. What is the displacement x of
B. shock proof the spring if its spring constant is k= 500
N/m?
C. toughness
A. 0.1 m
D. ductility
B. 1 m
151. Plastics that can be melted or reshaped: C. 1000 m
A. thermosetting plastics
D. 100m
B. composite
C. thermoplastics 156. The ratio of change in volume to original
volume is known as
D. inorganic materials
A. Poisson’s ratio
152. A mixture of two or more metals is B. Bulk modulus
called:
C. Modulus of rigidity
A. mixture
D. Volumetric strain
B. solution
C. compound 157. The maximum value of poissons ratio for
D. alloy an elastic material os
A. 0.25
153. Which statement about a composite ma-
terial is true? B. 0.50

A. it contains only one chemical element C. 0.75

B. it does not contain any binder D. 0.1
C. it is better than the materials that 158. In following Brinell hardness quota-
make it up tion(1800 HBW 10/3000/30 ), 30 is for
D. it consists of two and only two materi-
A. Test time.
als
B. Diameter of indenter
154. A mild steel tension specimen has a cup
C. The applied force.
and cone fracture at failure.2. Mild steel
is weak in shear and failure of specimen in D. Indenter material.

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 7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 961

159. Bulk Modulus is minimum for which it can acquire hardness through heat
A. Lead treatment is called

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B. Aluminium A. Stiffness
C. Copper B. Toughness
D. Gold C. Hardenability
160. The property possessed by a material, by D. Malleability

7.3 Stress-Strain Relations

1. Function of off-set method for metal (duc- C. Stress/Strain
tile material)? D. Force/Extension.
A. To determine yield strength
5. A nylon rope of length 1.4 m and the cross-
B. To determine cross sectional area sectional area is 7x10-6 m2, stretches 10-
C. To determine elongation 3 m when supporting a force of 100kg. De-
D. To determine fracture stress termine the Young modulus of the nylon!
A. 2x1010 N/m2
2. Which elastic modulus describes the rela-
tionship between stress and strain for a B. 2x10-10 N/m2
trapeze artist swinging through a circu- C. 4x1010 N/m2
lar arc. At the bottom of the swing, the
D. 4x10-10 N/m2
wires supporting the trapeze are longer
than when the trapeze artist simply hangs 6. Choose the correct order of Test &
from the trapeze due to the increased ten- Compression test summary:A) Machine
sion in them. will stretch the specimen until breaking
A. Young’s Modulus pointB) Measure elongation to calculate
the normal strainC) Identify 2 small punch
B. Shear Modulus
marksD) Data of applied load P is recorded
C. Bulk Modulus at frequent intervalsE) Specimens made
D. None of these into standard shape and sizeF) Measure
initial x-sectional area and gauge-length
3. A stiff material has a: distance between 2 marks
A. high spring constant A. C-A-E-F-B-D
B. low spring constant B. C-F-E-A-D-B
C. spring constant of any value C. E-C-F-A-D-B
D. spring constant which is difficult to D. F-A-B-C-E-D
predict
7. This type of elastic modulus measures the
4. The Young’s Modulus is defined as resistance of motion of the planes within
A. The gradient of a stress strain graph a solid parallel to each other.

B. The energy required to stretch a mate- A. Young’s Modulus

rial. B. Shear Modulus

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 962

C. Bulk Modulus 13. The stress is the ratio of the tangen-

D. None of these tial force to the area A of the face being
sheared.
8. Stress is A. tensile stress
A. External force B. shear stress
B. Internal resistive force C. volume stress
C. Axial force D. None of these

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Radial force
14. What happens when stress exceeds
9. Select the correct pair. strain?
A. E value low:Spongy and Ductile mate- A. Nothing happens, the material stays as
rial is
B. E value high:Spongy materialE value B. The material will go back to normal
low:Ductile material
C. The material will stay deformed
C. E value high:Spongy and Ductile mate-
rial D. The material will break

D. E value high:Ductile materialE value 15. Where is the necking region?

low:Spongy material
A. The area between lower yield point
10. If the length of wire is stretched by a load and upper yield point
is doubled, then it’s Young’s modulus will B. The area between the plastic limit and
be elastic limit
A. doubled C. The area between the ultimate point
B. halved and initial point
C. becomes four times D. The area between the ultimate point
and rupture
D. unaffected

11. What Young’s Modulus indicates? 16. What type of force is applied in a tensile
test?
A. Strength of material
A. Tension
B. Stiffness of material
B. Compression
C. Stability of material
C. Shear
D. none of above
D. Torsion
12. When a wire is stretched to double in
length, the longitudinal strain produced in 17. The cross-sectional area is measured
it is in:Choose ALL of the correct answers!!)
A. 0.5 A. inches2
B. 1.0 B. feet2
C. 1.5 C. m2
D. 2.0 D. pounds2

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 963

18. If F is force, k is spring constant and x is A. tensile stress

extension, Hooke’s Law tells us that: B. shear stress

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A. F=k/x C. volume stress
B. x=Fk D. None of these
C. k=Fx
24. Which statement describe ‘yielding’ region
D. F=kx in stress-strain diagram?
19. How to determine nominal or engineering A. Specimen cross-sectional area is de-
stress? creasing when specimen is elongating
P
A. A0 B. Specimen continue to elongate without
δ any increase in load
B. L0
P
C. Specimen return to its original state
C. L0 when load is removed
δ
D. A0 D. Specimen’s x-sectional area is de-
creasing in localized region as its elon-
20. Which point on the stress strain curve oc- gates
curs after the lower yield point?
A. Yield plateau 25. The slope of the stress-strain curve in the
elastic deformation region is
B. Upper yield point
A. Poisson’s ratio
C. Ultimate point
B. Plastic modulus
D. None of the mentioned
C. Elastic modulus
21. In geology, the amount of force per unit
D. None of the mentioned
area that acts on a rock is called
A. stress 26. Which of these cannot undergo deforma-
tion?
B. strain
A. A piece of wood
C. gerth
B. Orange juice
D. pressure
C. Rigid body
22. At which of the following parts of
D. Hydrogen gas
the stress-strain curve metals can be
stretched slightly and still return to their 27. The point of contraflexure is a point where
original shape?
A. Shear force changes sign
A. Elastic range
B. Bending moment changes sign
B. Plastic range
C. Shear force is maximum
C. yield point
D. Bending moment is maximum
D. Fracture point
28. What are the tools used to measure elon-
23. The stress is the ratio of the magnitude gation?
of the external force to the cross sectional
area A where the cross section is perpen- A. Inclinometer
dicular to the force vector. B. Micrometer

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 964

C. Caliper B. the amount of force per square unit

D. Extensometer area on a given material
C. stress that occurs when an object is
29. Ultimate tensile strength of a steel rod is stretched
the stress at which the rod
D. stress that occurs when an object is
A. fractures. squeezed
B. deforms.
34. Which is the correct properties of stress?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. returns to original shape when the A. Stress is a scalar quantity with SI unit
stress is removed of N.m-2
D. becomes soft and starts form necking B. Stress is a vector quantity with SI unit
of N.m-2
30. The thermal stress induced in a steel rod is
compressive, if temperature C. Stress is a scalar quantity with no unit
A. decreases D. Stress is a vector quantity with unit of
Pascal
B. increases
C. remains constant 35. The stress is the ratio of the magnitude
of the total force F exerted on a surface to
D. none of the above the area A of the surface.
31. Which of the following is a true statement A. tensile stress
regarding springs? B. shear stress
A. The higher the value of the spring con- C. volume stress
stant, the stiffer the spring.
D. None of these
B. In Hooke’s law, the force exerted by
the spring acts in the same direction as 36. The Modulus of Elasticity (E) is measured
displacement. in:
C. The higher the value of the spring con- A. inches
stant, the less stiffer the spring B. feet
D. The force exerted by a spring has a C. N/m2 or psi or lb/ft2
quadratic relationship with the displace-
ment form equilibrium. D. pounds

37. Linear Strain is defined as

32. Tensile Strain is
Increase in length A. Ratio of change in length to original
A. original length length
decrease in length
B. original length B. Elongation
change in volume C. Decrease in length
C. original volume
D. all of the answer D. None of these

33. tension 38. Hooke’s law holds good up to

A. the process by which the shape of a A. elastic limit

rock changes because of stress B. breaking point

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 965

C. yield point 43. The total extension in a bar, consists of 3

D. proportionality limit bars of same material, of varying sections
is

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39. Which statement describe ‘necking’ region
A. P/E(L1/A1+L2/A2+L3/A3)
in stress-strain diagram?
A. Decreases fairly uniform in area over B. P/E(L1A1+L2A2+L3A3)
entire gauge length C. PE(L1/A1+L2/A2+L3/A3)
B. Specimen continue to elongate without D. PE(L1/A1+L2/A2+L3/A3)
any increase in load
C. Specimen return to its original state 44. It is expressed as the ratio of the applied
when load is removed force divided by the resisting area.
D. Specimen’s x-sectional area is de- A. stress
creasing in localized region as its elon-
B. strain
gates
C. elongation
40. Which elastic modulus describes the rela-
tionship between stress and strain for a D. tensile strength
block of iron sliding across a horizontal
floor? The friction force between the slid- 45. What is the valid situation to apply Hooke
ing block and the floor causes the block to Law?
deform. A. Can be apply for both linear and non-
A. Young’s Modulus linear elastic behaviour only
B. Shear Modulus B. Can be apply for material has linear-
C. Bulk Modulus elastic behaviour only

D. None of these C. Stress in material can be greater than

proportional limit
41. A wire has natural length L, cross-
sectional area A and E the Young’s modu- D. none of above
lus of its material. Which of the following
46. Hooke’s Law fails when a material reaches
relates correctly the Young’s modulus E to
its
the force constant k of the wire.
A. E= AL/k A. proportional limit
B. E= L/kA B. elastic limit
C. E= kA/L C. fracture point
D. E= kL/A D. yield point
42. Which of the following is not a basic type
47. The modulus of elasticity is also known as:
of strain?
A. Stress
A. Compressive strain
B. Shear strain B. Strain
C. Volume strain C. Hook’s modulus
D. Area strain D. Young’s Modulus

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 966

48. Which point on the stress strain curve oc- 53. This type of elastic modulus measures the
curs after yield plateau? resistance of solids or liquids to changes in
their volume.
A. lower yield point
A. Young’s Modulus
B. Upper yield point
B. Shear Modulus
C. Ultimate point
C. Bulk Modulus
D. Breaking point
D. None of these

NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. What is accounted for by the factor of
safety? 54. Material failure with little or no ductility.

A. Uncertainties A. Brittleness

B. Linear displacements B. Toughness

C. Parabolic displacements C. Ductility

D. None D. Plasticity

55. Which of the following have same unit as

50. Which statement describes ‘strain en-
Young Modulus?
ergy’?
A. Strain
A. Energy stored internally when mate-
rial deformed by external loading B. Stress
B. Energy stored externally when mate- C. Energy
rial deformed by external loading D. Work
C. Energy released when material de-
formed by external loading 56. Given that the maximum load applied to
a specimen is 60 N and the original area
D. none of above of that specimen is 5 mm2, then what is
the ultimate tensile strength for that ma-
51. What is the limiting values of Poisson’s ra- terial?
tio?
A. 300 MPa
A. -1 and 0.5
B. 12 MPa
B. -1 and-0.5
C. 60 MPa
C. -1 and-0.5
D. 30 MPa
D. 0 and 0.5
57. Elastic limit is the point
52. A graph of extension against force for an
A. up to which stress is proportional to
elastic material is:
strain
A. A downward curve
B. At which elongation takes place with-
B. An upward curve out application of additional load
C. A straight line from any point on the x C. Up to which if the load is removed, orig-
and y axis inal volume and shapes are regained
D. A straight line from the origin D. None of the mentioned

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 967

58. The neutral axis of the cross-section a 63. Compressive Strain is

beam is that axis at which the bending increase in length
A. original length
stress is:

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decrease in length
A. zero B. original length
change in volume
B. minimum C. original volume
C. maximum D. all the answers
D. Infinity 64. Which symbol represents Young’s Modu-
59. If the material recovers the original dimen- lus?
sions, when an external load is removed, A. E
this deformation is known as deforma- B. σ
tion
C. ε
A. plastic
D. none of above
B. permanent
C. elastic 65. Safety factor in case of a ductile material
is
D. reversible
A. a) Real stress/unit stress
60. If the section modulus of a beam is in- B. (b) Ultimate stress/maximum stress
creased, the bending stress in the beam
will C. (c) Yield stress/ allowable stress
A. Not change D. (d) None
B. decrease 66. What measurement needed prior to the
C. Increase tension & compression test?
D. No Relation A. Initial x-sectional area
B. The entire gauge length of the speci-
61. Choose the correct Poisson’s Ratio for- men
mula.
εlong C. The mass of the specimen
A. v = εlat
D. Gauge length distance between two
B. v = − εεlong
lat
marks
ε
C. v = − εlong
lat 67. For the same amount of force applied,
D. v = εlat what is the stress on a given object if the
εlong
surface area is halved?
62. What is a weak region in the crustal rock A. half the original
where movement of the Earth occurs? B. remain unchanged
A. Stress C. twice the original
B. Strain D. none of above
C. Elastic Deformation
68. Which of the following is found out by cal-
D. Ductile Deformation culating the area under the stress strain
E. Fault graph?

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 968

A. Toughness C. force
B. Hardness D. pascals
C. Endurance
74. When a rectangular beam is loaded trans-
D. Strength versely, the maximum compressive stress
69. Which point on the stress strain curve oc- is developed on the
curs after the proportionality limit? A. top layer

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Upper yield point B. bottom layer
B. Lower yield point C. neutral axis
C. Elastic limit D. every cross-section
D. Ultimate point
75. Substances that elongate considerably and
70. When a spring fixed at one end is pulled undergo plastic deformation before they
by a force of 8 N, the extension is 40 mm. break are known as
Two such springs are joined in series and
is pulled to produce a total extension of A. brittle material
40 mm. What is the strain energy in the B. ductile material
springs?
C. stiff material
A. 0.04 J
D. plastic material
B. 0.08 J
C. 0.16 J 76. A measure of stiffness-The ability of a ma-
terial to resist stretching when loaded.
D. 0.32 J
A. Modulus of Elasticity
71. which material is hardest
B. Modulus of Plasticity
A. aluminium
C. Cross Sectional Area over Elongation
B. copper
D. Force over axial distance
C. steel
D. none of above 77. In case of a brittle material, the factor of
safety is
72. Unrecoverable elongation beyond the elas-
tic limit. A. Real stress/unit stress
A. Resilience B. Ultimate stress/allowable stress
B. Elastic deformation C. Allowable stress/ Yield stress
C. Elastic Limit D. None
D. Plastic Deformation
78. Example of ductile material
73. What is the amount of deformation in the A. Diamond
direction of the applied force divided by
the initial length of the material B. Ceramic
A. strain C. Glass
B. stress D. Gold

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 969

79. A force F stretching a wire produces an D. 1.00

extension x. The energy stored in the E. 5.00
stretched wire is 1/2Fx only if

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A. the elastic limit is not exceeded 84. The deformation of a material caused due
temperature variation develops
B. the extension is directly proportional
to the force A. stress
C. the cross-sectional area of the wire re- B. strain
mains unchanged C. both a. and b.
D. the weight of the wire is negligible D. none of the above
80. How to determine nominal or engineering 85. Two beams, one having square cross sec-
strain? tion and another circular cross-section, are
A. P subjected to the same amount of bending
A0
moment. If the cross sectional area as well
δ
B. L0 as the material of both the beams are the
C. Directly from strain gauge reading same then
δ A. Maximum bending stress developed in
D. A0
both the beams is the same
81. Pick the suitable units for stress? B. The circular beam experiences more
A. Newton per cubic meter bending stress than the square one
B. Pascal C. The square beam experiences more
C. Newton per square meter bending stress than the circular one

D. Newton D. As the material is same both the

beams will experience same deformation
82. Is a quantity that is that is propor-
tional to the force causing deformation; 86. A Cantilever beam of rectangular cross-
more specifically it i the external force act- section is 1m deep and 0.6 m thick. If the
ing on an object per cross sectional area. beam were to be 0.6 m deep and 1m thick,
then the beam would.
A. stress
A. Be weakened 0.5 times
B. strain
B. Be weakened 0.6 times
C. modulus
C. Be strengthened 0.6 times
D. Length
D. A. Have the same strength as the orig-
83. A steel wire of length 2 m and cross- inal beam because the cross-sectional
sectional area 0.80 x 10-6 m2 has a Young area remains the Same
modulus of 2.0 x 1011 Pa. The upper end
of the wire is fixed and a load of 4 N is tied 87. Which of the following material is the
at the other end. The extension in mm of most elastic?
the wire is A. rubber
A. 0.002 B. copper
B. 0.050 C. brass
C. 0.50 D. steel

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 970

88. Following are the basic types of stress ex- 93. An aluminum sample with a diameter of
cept 1.0 in has been tensile tested. Calculate
A. Tensile stress the engineering stress for an applied load
of 4020 lbs.
B. Compressive stress
A. 5, 118 psi
C. Shear stress
B. 3, 660 psi
D. Volumetric stress
C. 7, 960 psi

NARAYAN CHANGDER
89. Young’s modulus is a proportional constant
D. 1, 990 psi
that relates the force per unit area to
E. 2, 542 psi
A. the fractional change in volume
B. the spring constant 94. Another term for breaking is
C. the pressure A. stress
D. the fractional change in length B. strain
90. A tensile force (P) is acting on a body of C. failure
length (L) and area of cross section (A). D. deformation
The change in length would be
95. What is the deformation of materials in re-
A. P/LAE
sponse to stress?
B. PE/AL
A. Stress
C. PL/AE
B. Strain
D. AL/PE
C. Elastic Deformation
91. Which statement describe ‘strain harden- D. Plastic Deformation
ing’ region in conventional stress-strain di-
agram? E. Fault
A. Decreases fairly uniform in area over 96. The gradient of stress-strain graph repre-
entire gauge length sents
B. Specimen continue to elongate without A. Young Modulus
any increase in load
B. Stress energy
C. Specimen return to its original state
when load is removed C. Strain energy
D. Specimen’s x-sectional area is de- D. Strain energy per volume
creasing in localized region as its elon-
97. What happened to the specimen if the load
gates
is removed upon reaching its elastic limit?
92. A higher modulus indicates that the mate- A. Specimen experience permanent de-
rial is formation
A. harder to deform. B. Specimen will break
B. easier to deform. C. Specimen remains in elongation state
C. more ductile D. Specimen will return to its original
D. None shape

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 971

98. Which symbol represents the “length ‘’? 103. A steel column is 10 m long and 1.2 m in
A. A diameter. It carries a compressive load of
50 x 106 N. If the modulus of elasticity is

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B. E 300 GPa, determine how much the column
C. L is compressed.
D. r A. 1.47 mm

99. What is the stress-strain curve? B. 3.24 mm

A. It is the percentage of stress and stain C. 2.98 mm

B. It is the difference between stress and D. 5.95 mm

strain E. 11.25 mm
C. It is the relationship between stress 104. An aluminum sample with an area of 2.0
and strain in2 has been tensile tested. Calculate the
D. None of the mentioned engineering stress for an applied load of
8000 lbs.
100. what property best describes the abil-
ity to be stretched and return to original A. 4, 000 psi
shape B. 8, 000 psi
A. elasticity C. 16, 000 psi
B. conductor D. none of above
C. hardness
105. When tensile stress is applied axially
D. brittleness on a circular rod itsi) diameter decreas-
esii) length increasesiii) volume decreas-
101. Which of the following statements is NOT
esWhich of the above are true?
TRUE about Young’s Modulus?
A. Only i
A. It does not depends on the length of
the wire. B. Only ii
B. it depends on the material of the wire. C. i & ii
C. It is the ratio of tensile stress to the D. All of The Above
tensile strain if the proportionality limit
106. Which point on the stress strain curve oc-
has not been exceed.
curs after the ultimate point?
D. It is a property of a material that
A. Last point
enables them to return to their original
shape and size when the applied force is B. Breaking point
removed. C. Elastic limit
102. Which of the following is a constant for D. Material limit
materials?
107. This type of elastic modulus measures the
A. Modulus of Elasticity resistance of a solid to a change in its
B. Stress length.
C. Strain A. Young’s Modulus
D. Area B. Shear Modulus

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7.3 Stress-Strain Relations 972

C. Bulk Modulus 112. something that is tough has..

D. None of these A. a low resistance to impact
108. The elastic limit of specific steel is 200 x B. a high resistance to impact
106 Pa. Find the minimum radius a steel C. a low resistance to tension
wire can have (in millimeters) to support
D. a high resistance to tension
a 7, 500 N weight without exceeding its
elastic limit. 113. At ‘yield point’ of a copper wire

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 3.5 mm A. the load hasn’t exceeded the elastic
B. 4.2 mm limit yet; so, Hooke’s law applies
C. 1.5 mm B. the load has already exceeded the
D. 2.9 mm elastic limit and the material has become
plastic
E. 10.5 mm
C. even the plastic stage has passed and
109. Stress-strain diagram has five stages in the wire has snapped already
the material; select the correct sequence of D. Like Brass and Bronze, Copper has no
the stages: yield point
A. Elastic region-Yielding-Strain
hardening-Necking-Fracture 114. An 40 in aluminum wire (E = 20 x 106
psi) has a radius of 0.6 in. A force causes
B. Elastic region-Strain hardening-
the string to stretch 0.30 in. Find the force
Yielding-Necking-Fracture
applied to the string.
C. Elastic region-Yielding-Necking-Strain
A. 94, 247 lb
hardening-Fracture
B. 333, 827 lb
D. Yielding-Elastic region-Necking-Strain
hardening-Fracture C. 77, 804 lb

110. It is measured by the area under the en- D. 169, 646 lb

tire stress-strain curve. E. 15, 247 lb
A. Toughness 115. Hooke’s law states that
B. Resilience
A. the extension is proportional to the
C. Elasticity load when the elastic limit is not exceeded
D. Hardness B. the extension is inversely proportional
to the load when the elastic limit is not ex-
111. compression
ceeded
A. the process by which the shape of a
C. the extension is independent of the
rock changes because of stress
load when the elastic limit is not exceeded
B. the amount of force per square unit
D. load is dependent on extension
area on a given material
C. stress that occurs when an object is 116. This type of material typically exhibits a
stretched yield point, followed by extensive elonga-
D. stress that occurs when an object is tion at almost constant stress.
squeezed A. Rubber

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 7.4 Elastic Constants 973

B. Glass D. No unit
C. Metal 118. What is defined as the area under the

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D. Ceramic stress-strain curve during elastic deforma-
tion?
117. Select all the correct units for Young’s
Modulus A. Strength
A. Pa B. Hardness
B. Nm-2 C. Toughness
C. Jm-3 D. Resilience

7.4 Elastic Constants

1. A 10-newton force is needed to hold a D. none of above
stretched spring 0.20 metres from its rest
5. WHICH OF THESE DESCRIBES THE LAW OF
position. What is the elastic potential en-
CONSERVATION OF ENERGY?
ergy stored in the stretched spring?
A. NO MACHINE IS 100% EFFICIENT
A. 1 J
B. ENERGY IS NEITHER CREATED OR DE-
B. 2 J
STROYED
C. 5 J
C. THE ENERGY RESOURCES OF EARTH
D. 50 J ARE LIMITED
2. Which of the following have the same D. THE ENERGY OF A SYSTEM IS ALWAYS
units? DECREASING
A. Work and Power 6. Calculate the kinetic energy of a moving 4
B. Spring Constant and Elastic Energy kg object travelling at a velocity of 3 m/s.
A. 18 J
C. Power and Potential Energy
B. 36 J
D. Potential Energy and Elastic Energy
C. 12 J
3. A spring extends 5 cm when it is pulled by
D. 6 J
a force of 2N. What is the extension of the
spring if the force increased to 5N? 7. An example of a perfectly plastic body is
A. 7 cm
B. 7.5 cm A. Quartz
B. Putty
C. 12.5 cm
C. Crystal
D. 15 cm
D. Rubber
4. What is another name for the limit of pro-
portionality? 8. The length of a spring is 15 cm and 18 cm
when 0.5 N and 1.0 N is applied on it re-
A. Plastic limit spectively. What is the original length of
B. Elastic limit the spring?
C. Inelastic limit A. 5 cm

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7.4 Elastic Constants 974

B. 8 cm 14. A spring with k=73 N/m is compressed 70

C. 10 cm cm. An object of mass 4 kg is attached to
one end of the compressed spring. What
D. 12 cm is the acceleration of the object at the mo-
9. What units are used to measure power? ment the spring is released?
A. watts A. .078 m/s/s
B. Joules B. 0.17 m/s/s

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. meters C. 13 m/s/s
D. newtons D. 1.3X105 m/s/s

10. The statement that “the energy within a 15. A BMW rear ends a car at the stop light.
system remains constant and cannot be Neither car sticks together. The momen-
created or destroyed, only transformed” tum was conserved in the collision but the
best sums up kinetic energy was not conserved. What
type of collision is this?
A. Something Mr. Lance likes to say.
A. Elastic Collision
B. Life
B. Inelastic Collision
C. Law of Conservation of Energy
C. Perfectly inelastic Collision
D. The scientific method
D. No Collision
E. Newton’s Third Law
16. Potential energy is measured using the
11. What force is applied by a mass of 5 kg
units
hanging at the bottom of a spring?
A. Newtons
A. 0.5 N
B. Joules
B. 5 N
C. Newtons/meter
C. 49 N
D. Meters
D. 490 N
17. Which object(s) show energy elastic?
12. When a bouncing ball hits the ground and
squishes, what is the main type of energy A. bungee cord
that it has because of the deformation? B. a football flying through the air
A. Kinetic C. a rolling ball
B. Gravitational D. car moving at a constant speed
C. Elastic E. a satellite accelerating as it leaves the
D. Chemical earth

13. Geometrical moment of inertia.For a bar of 18. Expression for Relation between elastic
rectangular cross section, constants?
A. I=b 3d /8 A. E = 3K (1 − 2v)
B. I=bd 3/8 B. E = 2G (1 + v)
9KG
C. I=bd 2/8 C. E = 3K+G
D. I=bd 3/12 D. None of these

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7.4 Elastic Constants 975

19. How much elastic potential energy does a 24. A 5-newton force causes a spring to
spring store when it is compressed by 0.2 stretch 0.2 meter. What is the potential
m if it has a spring constant of 5 N/m? energy stored in the stretched spring?

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A. 0.1 J A. 1 J
B. 2 J
B. 0.5 J
C. 0.01 J
C. 0.2 J
D. 5 J
D. 0.1 J
20. OPEC successfully raised the world price of
oil in the 1970s and early 1980s, primar-
25. The units for extension, e, are
ily due to
A. an inelastic demand for oil and a reduc- A. Joules, J
tion in the amount of oilsupplied. B. kilogrmas, kg
B. a reduction in the amount of oil sup-
C. metres, m
plied and a world-wide oil embargo.
C. a world-wide oil embargo and an elas- D. seconds, s
tic demand for oil.
D. a reduction in the amount of oil sup- 26. Young’s modulus is defined by;
plied and an elastic demand for oil. A. Tensile strain/Tesnsile stress
21. A spring which obeys Hooke’s law has an B. Tensile stress x Tensile strain
unstretched length of 10 cm. A load of 20
N is hung from the spring. The new length C. Tensile stress / Tensile strain
of the spring is 36 cm. What is the spring D. Length / area
constant k of the spring?
A. 0.56 N/cm 27. A spring with spring constant 80 N/m is
B. 0.77 N/cm extended by 0.12 metres. What is the
potential energy stored in the stretched
C. 1.3 N/cm
spring?
D. 1.8 N/cm
A. 0.62 J
22. Hooke’s Law describes the behaviour of
which kind of material under tension? B. 0.58 J

A. plastic C. 9.6 J
B. metals only D. 4.8 J
C. elastic
D. non-metals only 28. Kinetic energy is related to the of an
object.
23. Young’s Modulus
A. Position
A. FL/A ∆ L
B. Elasticity
B. Tensile Stress/A ∆ L
C. Tensile Strain/Tensile Stress C. Speed
D. F δ l/yr D. Volume

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7.4 Elastic Constants 976

29. The price elasticity of demand measures 34. If there is a perfectly inelastic collision,
how much which of the following must be true?
A. quantity demanded responds to a A. The total momentum of the system is 0
change in price.
B. The total kinetic energy of the system
B. quantity demanded responds to a is conserved
change in income.
C. The objects stick together after collid-
C. price responds to a change in demand. ing

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. demand responds to a change in sup- D. The total momentum of the system is
ply. not conserved
30. An ideal spring is requires 30 Newtons of
35. The stress is directly proportional to
force in order to stretch 5.0 meters. De-
termine the spring constant (k). A. E
A. 0.17 N/m B. u
B. 6.0 N/m C. y
C. 75 N/m D. R
D. 150 N/m
36. Select the factors that influence how much
31. A spring extends elastically by 0.1 m. It’s gravitational energy an object has.
spring constant is 20N/m. What is the A. Mass
force applied?
B. Speed
A. 0.2
C. Height
B. 0.5
D. Length
C. 2
D. none of above 37. For a spring to store energy elastic it can
be
32. A spring has 30 J elastic potential energy
when it stretched from 24 cm to 28 cm. A. compressed only
Calculate Force applied to the spring. B. compressed or stretched
A. 30 N C. stretched only
B. 90 N D. neither compressed or stretched
C. 60 N
38. A 2.5 kg ball moving at 4.2 m/s collides
D. 120 N with a 2.5 kg stationary ball. If the first
33. A 25, 000 N Car is supported by 4 springs. ball is at rest after the collision, what is
If each spring is deflected by 0.040 m the velocity of the second ball(elastic colli-
what is the spring constant? sion )?
A. 160, 000 N /m A. 2.1 m/s
B. 620, 000 N/m B. 2.5 m/s
C. 630, 000 N/m C. 4.2 m/s
D. 120, 000 N/m D. 8.4 m/s

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7.4 Elastic Constants 977

39. As an object falls, what happens to its 44. The formula to calculate extension is =
gravitational energy? A. Extended length-original length

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A. Increases B. Original length-extended length
B. Decreases C. Extended length + original length
C. Stays the same D. None of the above
D. Need more information. 45. One of the tallest radio towers is in Fargo,
North Dakota. The tower is 639m tall,
40. Which statement most accurately repre-
or about 44 percent taller than the Sears
sents Hooke’s Law?
Tower in Chicago. If a bird lands on top of
A. Extension of a spring is proportional to the radio tower, so that the gravitational
the force applied. potential energy associated with the bird
is 2033J, what is its mass?
B. Extension of a spring is proportional to
the number of coils. A. 3.08 kg
C. Extension of a spring is inversely pro- B. 31.17 kg
portional to the force applied. C. 0.32 kg
D. Thickness of a spring wire is propor- D. 13.13 kg
tional to the force applied.
46. A catapult is used to project a stone.
41. The correct units for energy is Which of the following Energy conversions
takes place as the stone is released.
A. N (newtons)
A. .the Kinetic energy of the stone is con-
B. J (joules)
verted into gravitational potential energy
C. m (meters) B. . The gravitational potential is con-
D. W (watts) verted into kinetic energy of the stone
C. . the elastic potential energy of the cat-
42. What is the name for energy stored by a apult is converted into kinetic energy of
stretched spring? the stone
A. Elastic potential energy D. . the gravitational potential energy is
B. Gravitational potential energy converted to elastic energy.

C. Kinetic energy 47. An advance in farm technology that results

D. none of above in an increased market supply is
A. good for farmers because it raises
43. A 25, 000 N Car is supported by 4 springs. prices for their products but bad for-
If each spring is deflected by 0.040 m consumers because it raises prices con-
what is the approximate spring constant? sumers pay for food.
A. 160, 000 N /m B. bad for farmers because total revenue
will fall but good for consumersbecause
B. 610, 000 N/m
prices for food will fall.
C. 630, 000 N/m
C. good for farmers because it raises
D. 120, 000 N/m prices for their products and alsogood for

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7.4 Elastic Constants 978

consumers because more output is avail- 52. Glass is an example of an elastic material.
able for consumption. A. True
D. bad for farmers because total revenue B. False, Glass does not stretch
will fall and bad for consumersbecause
farmers will raise the price of food to in- C. False, Glass stretched but only a little
crease their total revenue. D. False, but I do not know why

48. The spring constant of an object tells 53. A car moving at a constant speed has 36,
000 J in its kinetic energy store. When the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The distance the spring can stretch
driver applies the brakes, the car stops in
B. It gives a value on how easy or hard it a distance of 100 m. Calculate the force
is to change the objects length. that stops the vehicle.
C. How much force it takes to compress A. 360 N
a spring. B. 36 N
D. How many times a spring can com- C. 360 J
press and stretch
D. 3.6 N
49. “the extension of a spring is directly pro-
54. is the unit of Spring Constant
portional to the force applied on the spring
provided the elastic limit of the spring is A. N
not exceeded. “This is definition of B. N/m
A. Elasticity C. m
B. Hooke’s Law D. none of above
C. Spring Constant 55. The property when a material de-
D. Elastic Potential Energy forms/distorts from stress and retains
its new shape:
50. A spring with original length 30 cm ex-
A. plasticity
tends to 36 cm when stretched by a force
of 90 N. Calculate the spring constant of B. elasticity
the spring C. polymerization
A. 3 N m-1 D. thermoset
B. 15 N m-1
56. A spring with a spring constant of 4N/m is
C. 2.5 N m-1 compressed with 1.2 N. What is the total
D. 1900 N m-1 elastic PE stored in the spring?
A. 1 N
51. Which word describes an object that will
B. 0.31J
return to its original shape when forces
are removed? C. 0.2 J
A. Plastic D. 40 N
B. Inelastic 57. Ee stands for
C. Elastic A. Electrical potential energy
D. none of above B. Extension energy

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7.4 Elastic Constants 979

C. kinetic energy C. 0.5 J

D. Elastic potential energy D. 0.5

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58. Which answer is BEST for identifying the 63. The unit used to measure energy is the
equation you can use to help you plug in a
A. Watt
value for force, when using this equation
to solve for k:k = F ÷ x? B. Newton
A. F =mg C. Joule
B. W = Fd D. meter
C. a = F ÷ m
64. What force should be applied to compress
D. All of these equations will do. a spring by 0.013 m if its spring constant
is k = 1900 N/m?
59. When a bouncing ball hits the ground and
squishes, what is the main type of energy A. 1880 N
that it has? B. 24.7 N
A. Kinetic C. 1900 N
B. Gravitational D. 0.127 N
C. Elastic
65. How might the shape of an object change if
D. Chemical forces act towards each other in a straight
60. The units for k (spring constant) are line?

A. centimetres per kilogram, cm/kg A. It might extend

B. newtons per kilogram, N/kg B. It might compress

C. metres per second, m/s C. It might bend

D. Joules per kg, J/kg D. none of above

61. A spring of length 8 cm stretched to 10 cm 66. A spring with a spring constant of 3 N/m
when 5 N mass is hanged to it. Calculate is compressed by 4 cm. How much poten-
the length of the springs when the two tial energy is stored in the spring?
identical spring arranged in parallel with A. 0.0024 J
the same mass.
B. 0.024 J
A. 9 cm
C. 2.4 J
B. 14 cm
D. 24 J
C. 11 cm
D. 12 cm 67. The measure of the degree of deformation
is
62. If the suspension on a car has a spring con-
A. stress
stant of 100 N/m and is stretched an ex-
tra .10 m what is the EPE? B. strain
A. 500 J C. radius
B. 50 J D. none of these

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7.4 Elastic Constants 980

68. What is the spring constant of a spring 73. If a 1 m long steel wire having area 5 *
that has been extended 0.25 m and is stor- 10-5 is stretched through 1 mm by force
ing 100 J of energy? of 10, 000 N then young modulus of wire
is
A. 25 N/m
A. 2 * 1011 N m-2
B. 1600 N/m
B. 3 N m-4
C. 6400 N/m
C. 4 N m-2
D. 3200 N/m

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 5 N m-2
69. In uniform bending, every element of the
beam is bent with the radius of curva- 74. A piece of silly putty is dropped onto a
ture skateboard as it rolls by. The putty sticks
to the skateboard and moves the direction
A. same the board is moving. What type of colli-
B. different sion is this?

C. doubles A. Inelastic collision

D. none B. Elastic Collision

C. Perfectly Inelastic collision
70. The units for energy elastic are
D. No collision
A. Joules, J
75. If the price elasticity of supply is 0.2, and
B. metres, m
a price increase led to a 3% increase in
C. centimetres, cm quantity supplied, then the price increase
D. kilograms, kg is about
A. 0.07%.
71. A concrete has a height and unit area of
B. 0.60%
5 m and 3sq.m., respectively. If it sup-
ports a mass of 30, 000 kg and its height C. 6%
changes by 0.025mm, what is its modu- D. 15%
lus of elasticity of this concrete? Take
g = 9.81 ms−2 76. Income elasticity of demand measures
A. 2.00 GPa how

B. 19.6 GPa A. the quantity demanded changes as

consumer income changes.
C. 2.00 MPa
B. consumer purchasing power is af-
D. none of above fected by a change in the price of a good.

72. The units for spring constant are C. the price of a good is affected when
there is a change in consumerincome.
A. k
D. many units of a good a consumer can
B. N/m buy given a certain income level.
C. Nm
77. An ideal spring has a spring constant of
D. n/m 25 N/m. Determine the force required to

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7.4 Elastic Constants 981

elongate/displace the spring by 2.0 me- 82. A net force of 430 N acts to stretch an
ters. extension spring. How far will the spring
stretch if its spring constant is 700 N/m?

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A. 13 N
B. 25 N A. 43.9
C. 50 N B. 0.307 m
D. 130 N C. 1.63 m

78. What makes it possible to determine the D. 0.614 m

motion of objects before or after collid-
ing? 83. How can one solve for k when using the
equation F= kx?
A. Conservation of Energy
B. Conservation of Strength A. F ÷ x

C. Conservation of Momentum B. x ÷ F
D. Conservation of Homework C. F × x

79. A force of 470 N is applied to stretch D. F + X

a spring which has a spring constant,
k=1100 N/m. How much does the spring 84. When a beam is subjected to simple bend-
stretch past its free length? ing, is the same in both tension and
compression for the material.
A. 0.214 m
A. Modulus of rigidity
B. 2.34 m
C. 0.427 m B. Modulus of elasticity

D. 5.17X105 m C. Poisson’s ratio

D. Modulus of section
80. A spring has a spring constant of 5N/cm.
What is its extension when loaded with
85. An elastic band stretches 0.10m when a
15N?
force is applied, find it’s spring constant
A. 4cm when it had an EPE of 60 J.
B. 5cm A. 12000 m
C. 3m
B. 20 m
D. 3cm
C. 2 m
81. How much elastic potential energy is D. .2 cm
stored in a bungee cord with a spring
constant of 10.0N/m when the cored is
86. Who discovered Hooke’s law?
stretched 2.00m?
A. Robert Hooke
A. 10J
B. 20J B. Charlie

C. 40J C. Newton
D. 200J D. none of above

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7.4 Elastic Constants 982

87. An 40 in aluminum wire (Young’s Modulus load. At this point the material breaks
= 20 x 106 psi) has a radius of 0.6 in. A when further load is applied.
force causes the string to stretch 0.30 in. D. none of above
Find the force applied to the string.
91. Suppose there is a 6 percent increase in the
A. 94, 247 lb
price of good X and a resulting 6 percent
B. 333, 827 lb decrease in the quantity of X demanded.
C. 77, 804 lb Price elasticity of demand for X is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 169, 646 lb A. 0
E. 15, 247 lb B. 1
C. 6
88. Holding all other factors constant and us-
D. 36
ing the midpoint method, if a candy man-
ufacturer increases production by 20 per- 92. When too many people stand on a bridge
cent when the market price of candy in- it collapses, why?
creases from $0.50 to $0.60, then supply A. Due to increase in stress
is
B. Due to improper construction
A. inelastic, since the price elasticity of
C. Due to overweight
supply is equal to .91.
D. Due to friction
B. inelastic, since the price elasticity of
supply is equal to 1.1. 93. A spring has an extension of 20 cm. Calcu-
C. elastic, since the price elasticity of sup- late the elastic potential energy stored in
ply is equal to 0.91. the spring (k = 100 N/m).
D. elastic, since the price elasticity of sup- A. 2 J
ply is equal to 1.1. B. 5 J
C. 7 J
89. Which are factors that affecting value of
spring constant? D. 1 J
A. length of the spring 94. Collisions can be or
B. diameter of spring A. fast or slow
C. thickness of the spring wire B. far or near
D. mass of the spring C. elastic or inelastic
D. none of the above
90. Elastic limit is
95. Elastic Potential Energy (Ee) is
A. the maximum extension of elastic ma-
terial by the force applied beyond which A. the energy stored in a falling object
the material would not return to its origi- B. the energy stored in the bonds be-
nal length or lost its elastic property . tween atoms
B. this is the point at which the material C. the energy stored in a stretched or
has completely lost its elastic property, compressed (squashed) object e.g. rub-
and instead of elastic it becomes plastic. ber band, spring
C. This the point at which the material D. the energy stored due to an objects
cannot stand any further increase in a speed

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7.4 Elastic Constants 983

96. Curvature of the beam is to bending 100. A rod of length L and diameter D is sub-
moment. jected to a tensile load P. Which of the fol-
lowing is sufficient to calculate the result-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Equal
ing change in diameter?
B. Directly proportion A. Young Modulus
C. Inversely proportion B. Shear Modulus
D. Coincides C. Poisson Ratio

97. Robert stretches a spring with a spring D. Both shear Modulus and Young Modu-
constant of 3 N/m until it is extended by lus
50 cm. What is the elastic potential en- 101. How much energy is stored in a spring
ergy stored by the spring? that is extended 0.25m if its spring con-
A. 0.375J stant is 1000 N/m
B. 2.8J A. 250 J

C. 1J B. 125 J
C. 62.6 J
D. 0.0023
D. 31.3 J
98. How much time is needed to produce 720
Joules of work if 90 watts of power is 102. An elastic material resists a change in
used? shape.

A. 0.125 s A. True
B. False, it will always change shape
B. 8 s
C. False, elastic items stay stretched out
C. 64800 s
D. False, but I do not know why
D. 80 s
103. A box with a mass of 20 kg is moving
99. AS A ROLLER COASTER MOVES DOWN A with a velocity of 3 m/s to the right. How
HILL, POTENTIAL ENERGY IS CONVERTED much kinetic energy does it have?
INTO KINETIC ENERGY, THERMAL EN-
A. 60 J
ERGY, AND SOUND ENERGY. WHAT IS
TRUE ABOUT THE TOTAL ENERGY OF THIS B. 75 J
SYSTEM? C. 90 J
A. ENERGY IS GAINED (CREATED) AS THE D. 180 J
ROLLER COASTER MOVES
104. A force of 20 N is applied by a mass hang-
B. ENERGY IS LOST (DESTROYED) AS THE
ing at the bottom of a spring. How heavy
ROLLER COASTER MOVES
is the mass?
C. THE TOTAL ENERGY REMAINS THE A. 2.0 g
SAME AS THE ROLLER COASTER MOVES
B. 2.0 kg
D. THE TOTAL ENERGY CONSTANTLY
CHANGES AS THE ROLLER COASTER C. 20 g
MOVES D. 20 kg

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7.4 Elastic Constants 984

105. A force of 100 Newtons is applied A. Fifield’s Law

to a spring with a constant of 25 B. Hooke’s Law
N/m. Determine the resulting displace-
ment/elongation. C. Ohm’s Law
A. 0.25 m D. Newton’s Law
B. 0.50 m 111. For a particular good, a 12 percent in-
C. 4.0 m crease in price causes a 3 percent decrease
in quantity demanded. Which of the fol-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 12 m
lowing statements is most likely applica-
106. How much work must be done on a spring ble to this good?
with a spring constant of 1050 N/m to A. There are many substitutes for this
stretch the spring 85 cm? good.
A. 379 J B. The good is a necessity.
B. 446 J C. The market for the good is narrowly
C. 892 J defined.
D. 379312 J D. The relevant time horizon is long.

107. When a pendulum swings, it loses energy 112. If the original length of a spring is 20m
to the and its extended length is 30m. What is
the extension?
A. string
B. air A. 20m

C. nothing B. 12m

D. water C. 75m
D. 45m
108. Which object has elastic potential en-
ergy? E. 10m

A. a hanging leaf 113. A string of natural 1.5cm is extended

B. a burning coal 0.0050m by 0.8N, what will its length be
when the applied force is 3.2N
C. a rolling ball
A. 1.337cm
D. a stretched bow
B. 1.72cm
109. The ability to move, change matter, or to
C. 1.7cm
do work is called
D. 133cm
A. energy
B. kinetic energ;y 114. As an object falls, what happens to its
kinetic energy?
C. energy conversion
A. Increases
D. potential energy
B. Decreases
110. A well-known law states “The extension
of a spring is proportional to the force C. Stays the same.
causing the extension” is known as: D. Need more information

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7.4 Elastic Constants 985

115. What is the kinetic energy of a 1500 120. What is the potential energy of a 1kg
gram object moving at a velocity of 100 mass 1 m above the ground?
m/s

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A. 1.0J
A. 112.5 J B. 9.8J
B. 7, 500, 000 J C. 10J
C. 75 J D. 98J
D. 7, 500 J
121. An 50 in copper wire (Young Modulus =
116. Which of the following items has the 20 x 106 psi) has a radius of 0.5 in. A
property of elasticity? force causes the string to stretch 0.30 in.
Find the force applied to the string.
A. rubber band
A. 94, 247 lb
B. paper clip
B. 3, 827 lb
C. toothpick
C. 77, 804 lb
D. iron nail
D. 11, 423 lb
117. An elastic string of force constant 200 E. 15, 247 lb
N/m is stretched through 0.8 m within its
elastic limit. Calculate the energy stored 122. A stretched rubber band represents what
in the string type of potential energy?
A. 64 J A. gravitational potential energy
B. 80 J B. elastic potential energy
C. 168 J C. chemical potential energy
D. 160 J D. kinetic potential energy

118. When a 1.53 kg mass block is placed on 123. Energy is the ability to do
a spring with a spring constant of 30N/m, A. Nothing
the spring is compressed 0.5m. How much B. Work
energy is stored?
C. Energy
A. 7.5 N
D. Change
B. 3.8 N
C. 15 N 124. m2 is equivalent to

D. 0.127 N A. 2x10-7m2
B. 2x10-4m2
119. If a collision is elastic which of the follow-
C. 200x103m2
ing must be true?
D. 200m2
A. Momentum is not conserved
B. The objects are in an open system 125. A compressed spring in a toy is used to
launch a 5.00-gram ball. If the ball leaves
C. The total momentum is equal to 0
the toy with an initial horizontal speed
D. Kinetic Energy is conserved of 5.00 meters per second, the minimum

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7.4 Elastic Constants 986

amount of potential energy stored in the 130. If an elastic band has a spring constant of
compressed spring was 200 N/m and is stretched an extra 0.15
A. 0.0125 J m what is the EPE?

B. 0.0250 J A. 2.25 J

C. 0.0625 J B. 4.5 J
D. 0.125 J C. 225 J
D. 500 J

NARAYAN CHANGDER
126. A spring stretches 56 cm when a mass
of 450 g hangs on it. What is the spring
131. A spring has a spring constant of 225
constant of this spring?
N/m. A mass is hung on it so that it
A. 0.80 N/m stretches 25 cm. Calculate how much mass
B. 7.88 N/m the spring is supporting.

C. 8.04 N/m A. 5.74 kg

D. 80.4 N/m B. 5.74 g
C. 56.25 kg
127. By how much must a spring be extended
if it has a spring constant of 20 000 N/m D. 56.25 g
band is storing 1024 J of energy?
132. What is the unit for the spring constant?
A. 0.64 m
A. Newton-metres (Nm)
B. 1.0 m
C. 0.25 m B. Newtons per metre squared (N/m2)

D. 0.32 m C. Newtons per metre (N/m)

D. none of above
128. balls collide and bounce off of each other.
During the collision total momentum re- 133. Gravitational potential energy depends
mained constant and total kinetic energy on which two factors?
remained constant. What type of collision
is this? A. mass and height above the ground
A. Inelastic Collision B. distance and speed
B. Elastic Collision C. speed and height above the ground
C. Perfectly Inelastic Collision D. mass and speed
D. No collision occurred
134. Elastic wire extended by 1.0cm when a
129. What happens when the stretching force load of 20g hangs from it. What additional
on an elastic material is released? load will be required to cause further ex-
tension of 2.0cm?
A. The material breaks.
A. 0.04kg
B. The material remains stretched out.
B. 0.042kg
C. It does nothing
C. 0.044kg
D. The material snaps back to its original
shape. D. 0.0421kg

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7.4 Elastic Constants 987

135. “the property of material that enables 140. The elastic potential energy store can be
an object to return to its original shape increased by
and size after the force applied on it is re-

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A. increasing the extension (or compres-
moved. “This is definition for sion) or using an object with a larger
A. spring constant spring constant (a stiffer material)
B. elasticity B. increasing the mass of the object
C. increasing the velocity of the object
C. force
D. raising the object to a greater height
D. extension
141. a spring with a stiffness of 120 N/m is
136. To convert cm to m stretched for 15 cm by a heavy back sus-
A. divide the cm by 100 pended on it. then the elastic potential en-
ergy stored by the spring is:
B. multiply the cm by 100
A. 15 J
C. divide the cm by 1000 B. 1.35 J
D. multiply the cm by 1000 C. 120 J
137. The stress induced in a body, when sud- D. 9 J
denly loaded, is the stress induced 142. Objects with different masses are hung
when the same load is applied gradually. on a 10 cm spring. The diagram shows
A. four times how much the spring stretches. The exten-
sion of the spring is directly proportional
B. twice to the mass hung on it. What is the mass
C. one-half of object M?
D. equal to A. 110 g
B. 150 g
138. Spring constant is measured in
C. 200 g
A. N D. 300 g
B. N/m
143. Which of the following letters represents
C. m the spring constant?
D. none of above A. Ue
B. k
139. An unstretched spring has a length of
0.10 meters. When the spring is stretched C. x
by a force of 16 newtons, its length is D. F
increased to 0.18 meters. What is the
144. Which type of energy increases when you
spring constant of this spring?
compress a spring?
A. 0.89 N/cm
A. elastic potential energy
B. 2.0 N/cm B. kinetic energy
C. 1.6 N/cm C. radiant energy
D. 1.8 N/cm D. sound energy

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7.4 Elastic Constants 988

145. Which type of energy conversion is in- 149. The extension is the
volved when the ball leaves the ground?
A. total length of the spring
A. Kinetic to gravitational
B. change in length of the spring
B. Gravitational to kinetic
C. starting length of the spring
C. Elastic to kinetic
D. none of above
D. Kinetic to elastic
150. In the elastic potential energy equations,

NARAYAN CHANGDER
146. Which of the following statements about ‘k’ stands for
the consumers’ responses to rising gaso-
line prices is correct? A. kinetic
A. About 10 percent of the long-run reduc- B. the length of the spring
tion in quantity demanded arisesbecause C. the spring constant (how stiff the ma-
people drive less and about 90 percent terial is)
arises because they switch tomore fuel-
efficient cars. D. the mass of the spring (in kg)
B. About 90 percent of the long-run reduc- 151. The law which states that within elas-
tion in quantity demanded arisesbecause tic limits strain produced is proportional to
people drive less and about 10 percent the stress producing it is known as
arises because they switch tomore fuel-
efficient cars. A. Bernoulli’s law

C. About half of the long-run reduction in B. Hooke’s law

quantity demanded arises becausepeople C. Stress law
drive less and about half arises because
they switch to morefuel-efficient cars. D. Poisson’s law

D. Because gasoline is a necessity, con- 152. If 9.8 J of work are needed to stretch
sumers do not decrease theirquantity de- a spring 14 cm beyond equilibrium, how
manded in either the short run or the long much work is required to stretch it 18 cm
run. beyond equilibrium?
147. What word best describes Kinetic En- A. 126.2 J
ergy? B. 16.2 J
A. Stored C. 17.2 J
B. Motion
D. 19.2 J
C. Elastic
153. Calculate the elastic potential energy
D. Gravity
stored when the extension is 2m and k is
148. Load is also known as the 3N/m
A. Extension (in m) A. 18J
B. Extended length (in m) B. 9J
C. Force applied (in N) C. 6J
D. Spring constant D. 3J

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7.4 Elastic Constants 989

154. In simple bending, is constant. B. 1, 174, 311 J

A. Shear force C. 575, 412 J

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B. Loading D. 5, 650, 560 J
C. Deformation
160. When will a spring have maximum poten-
D. Bending moment
tial energy?
155. The unit for elastic potential energy is A. At the equilibrium position
A. J
B. When the displacement is at a maxi-
B. N/m mum (either compression or elongation)
C. N C. When the spring is stretched to its
D. m maximum only

156. Which is the formula for calculating elas- D. When the spring is compressed to its
tic PE? maximum only
A. 1/2xk2 161. A spiral spring of natural length 30.0 cm
B. 1/2kx and force constant 20 N/m is compressed
C. kx2 to 20.0 cm. calculate the energy stored in
the spring
D. 1/2k(x2)
A. 0.1 J
157. Which of the following springs is the
strongest? B. 1.0 J

A. A spring that requires a froce of 2000 C. 10.0 J

N to compress it by 6.8 m. D. 100.0 J
B. A spring that requires a force of 4000
N to stretch it by 9.0 m. 162. A rubber band keeps a newspaper tightly
rolled because it
C. A spring that requires a force of 8000
N to compress it by 45 m. A. can be tied tightly
D. A spring that requires a force of 4800 B. exerts elastic force
N to stretch it by 14 m.
C. is unbreakable
158. The energy of moving matter is called
D. none of the above
A. gravitational potential energy
B. elastic potential energy 163. Which of the following would have a
large spring constant?
C. kinetic energy
A. A spring that is stretched to its maxi-
D. potential energy
mum displacement
159. An 800 kg roller coaster cart is sitting B. A spring that is not stretched and flex-
on top of a 720 meter hill. What is the ible.
cart’s potential energy in relation to the
ground? C. A spring that is very thin and stretchy
A. 10.9 J D. A spring that is very stiff and strong

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7.4 Elastic Constants 990

164. The spring scale in the grocery store C. 122 N/m

stretches 0.2m when apples with 100 N
D. 245 N/m
are placed on it. What is the spring con-
stant? 169. Two carts connected by a 0.05m spring
A. 20 N/m hit a wall, compressing the spring to
B. 0.002 N/m 0.02m. The spring constant k is
100N/m.What is the elastic potential en-
C. 500N/m ergy stored from the spring’s compres-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 5 N/m sion?

165. Which elastic modulus describes the re- A. 0.045 J

lationship between stress and strain for B. 0.45 J
a spacecraft carrying a steel sphere to a
C. 0.090 J
planet on which atmospheric pressure is
much higher than on the Earth. The higher D. 0.90 J
pressure causes the radius of the sphere
to decrease. 170. A key determinant of the price elasticity
of supply is
A. Young’s Modulus
B. Shear Modulus A. the ability of sellers to change the
price of the good they produce.
C. Bulk Modulus
B. the ability of sellers to change the
D. None of these amount of the good they produce.
166. Select all the factors that influence the C. how responsive buyers are to changes
amount of elastic energy an object has. in sellers’ prices.
A. Mass D. the slope of the demand curve.
B. Stretching
171. A spring of constant force 1500N/m is
C. Compression acted upon by a constant force of 75N. Cal-
D. Elastic Constant culate the potential energy stored in the
spring.
167. A spring extends elastically by 10 cm
when a force of 20 N is applied to it. A. W = 1.9J
What force would be needed to extend the B. W = 1.8J
spring by 5 cm?
C. W = 1.1J
A. 40 N
D. W = 1.99J
B. 10 N
C. 5 N 172. How might the shape of an object change
D. none of above if forces act away from each other in a
straight line
168. Calculate the spring constant of a spring A. It might extend
that extends through 35 cm when 15 J of
potential energy is stored in it? B. It might compress
A. 43 N/m C. It might bend
B. 85 N/m D. none of above

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7.4 Elastic Constants 991

173. An unstretched spring has a length of 178. A bungee cord has a spring constant of
0.10 m. When the spring is stretched its 112 N/m. How far will it stretch if a 50.0
length is increased to 0.18 m. It has a kg mass is hung from it?

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spring constant of 200 N/m. How much A. 0.229 m
energy is stored in the spring?
B. 0.446 m
A. 8.0 J
C. 2.24 m
B. 0.64 J
D. 4.38 m
C. 3.24 J
D. 6.48 J 179. The formula for calculating elastic poten-
tial energy (Ee) is
174. At the neutral axis, bending stress is
A. 2 x spring constant x extension2
A. Minimum
B. 1/2 x spring constant x extension2
B. Maximum
C. 1/2 x spring constant2 x extension
C. Zero
D. 1/2 x mass x extension2
D. Constant
180. A Spring balance designed for maximum
175. Select the factors that influence how
load of 400N, was used to weigh a load of
much kinetic energy an object has.
500N. When the 500N load was removed,
A. Mass the pointer could not return to zero on the
B. Speed scale because
C. Height A. . the spring balance of a cheap type
D. Length B. . Elastic limit of the material has been
exceeded
176. The maximum stress that can be applied
C. . Pointer was not properly adjusted
to a substance before it becomes perma-
nently deformed and does not return to its D. . 500N load was removed
initial length.
181. A spring extends 1.5m under load 10N.
A. compressibility What is its spring constant?
B. Young’s Modulus A. 0.15N/m
C. elastic limit B. 10N/m
D. bulk modulus C. 6.7N/m
177. Corey pulls a spring with a spring con- D. 15N/m
stant k = 50N/m, stretching it from its
rest length of 0.10m to 0.90m.What is 182. A spring with a spring constant (k) of 5
the elastic potential energy stored in the N/m is stretched 0.2 m. The spring force
spring? is
A. 18.0 J A. 1 N
B. 16.0 J B. 25 N
C. 13.0 J C. 5.2 N
D. 40.0 J D. 4.8 N

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 7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 992

183. The relationship between stretching B. p before is the same as p after

force, F, with the extension, x, of a spring, C. p before is more than p after
is given by the equation:F = kx where k
is the spring constant. What is the unit of D. none of above
k?
187. Which properties of spring that give
A. N m-1 highst value of k? Which of Spring char-
B. N m-2 acteristics gives the highest K value?
A. Thick and Shorttebal and Short

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. kg m-1
D. kg m-1 B. thin and shortnipical and short
C. thick and longtebal and long
184. A 3.0 kg mass is attached to a verti-
cal spring, and after it reaches equilibrium D. Thin and longnipis and long
again, the spring has stretched a distance
of 2.5 cm. What is the spring constant? 188. A 2m wire extends by 4mm what is the
strain?
A. 340 N/m
A. 0.5
B. 420 N/m
B. 2x10-3
C. 870 N/m
C. 2x10-6
D. 1200 N/m
D. 0.005
185. If a force of 20 N stretches a spring 0.5
m, what is the spring constant? 189. SAM STUDIED KINETIC AND POTENTIAL
ENERGY BY OBSERVING APPLES HANG-
A. 10 N/m
ING ON A TREE DURING A FIELD INVESTI-
B. 20 N/m GATION. WHAT TYPE OF ENERGY DO THE
C. 40 N/cm APPLES HAVE?
D. 40 N/m A. KINETIC

186. The law of conservation of momentum B. MECHANICAL

states that, C. GRAVITATIONAL
A. p before is less than p after D. ELASTIC

7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear

1. An example of a rigid joint is C. Crushing a can
A. door hinge D. Wringing out a towel
B. elbow
3. The amount of matter in an object is re-
C. staple ferred to as its
D. brass fastener A. grams
2. What is an example of a torsion force? B. weight
A. Pulling a rope C. force
B. Scissors D. mass

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7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 993

4. What is an example where stress can be 9. is the point that gravity acts on.
useful? A. Base point

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A. Stress cannot be useful B. Checkpoint
B. Cars are designed to take impact of C. Weight of gravity
crashes
D. Center of gravity
C. Buildings fall down after small earth-
quakes 10. You friend steals your paper and pretends
to rip it but doesn’t not apply enough force
D. John A. MacDonald was the first prime
to successfully do so. The paper as exhib-
minister of Canada
ited
5. Static and dynamic loads are described in A. tensile strength
terms of
B. compressive strength
A. forces C. shear strength
B. mass D. torsion strength
C. weight
11. Rocks stressed at high temperatures may
D. movement change shape by folding, but not breaking.
6. The term “load” refers to This is called

A. an external force on a structure A. elastic deformation

B. normal fault
B. a balanced arrangement of mass
C. plastic deformation
C. the necessary resistance of a struc-
ture D. none of above
D. a realistic design of a structure’s 12. A bird sitting on a wire is a load.
forces
A. static
7. What is tensile stress? B. dynamic
A. The stress that is applied along the C. live
axis of a material D. dead
B. The stress that is applied perpendicu-
lar to the axis of a material 13. What is not a force?

C. The stress that is applied in a circular A. Tension

manner around the axis of a material B. Compression
D. The stress that is applied in a diagonal C. Torsion
manner across the axis of a material D. Stear
8. A good design is a between cost and 14. A vertical component that can support a
safety. beam is a
A. Unnecessary part A. truss
B. Balance B. column
C. Point C. cantilever
D. Stop D. girder

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7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 994

15. The primary stress that a pair of scissors 21. What is an example of a dead load?
have to withstand is A. Furniture
A. compression B. Wall beams
B. tension C. People
C. shear D. Snow
D. torsion
22. For fun:who was the first original disney

NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. An object that provides support is called princess?
A. Rapunzel
A. a structure B. Snow White
B. a design C. Elsa
C. the base D. Cinderella
D. supportive
23. If you are making a bicycle, the main struc-
17. :when a structure resists falling over. ture you would need is
A. Aesthetic A. solid
B. Cost B. frame
C. Stable C. shell
D. Design D. combination

18. Beams are improved by: 24. The most common types of bridges are
A. Making an I or L shape inside A. beam, truss, arch, suspension
B. Having less of them when possible B. beam, arch, suspension, support
C. Putting them only outside the building C. suspension, arch, truss, railway
D. Beams cannot be improved D. truss, arch cable, suspension

19. A wall in a structure that supports weight 25. What makes igloos strong?
of a structure. A. They are natural structures.
A. Load bearing wall B. The igloo is a mass structure.
B. Partition wall C. The coldness makes everything stay in
C. Fancy wall a solid state.
D. Composite wall D. The forces acting on the igloo are dis-
tributed equally in all directions.
20. Cars driving across a bridge is an example
of a 26. What is defined as a push or pull?
A. load A. force
B. vroom vroom B. motion
C. heavy C. vector
D. none of above D. speed

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7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 995

27. What is an example of a tension force? 33. changes based on gravity pull.
A. Pulling a rope A. Mass

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B. Scissors B. Weight
C. Crushing a can C. Pounds
D. Wringing out a towel D. Balance
34. When designing, it is important to:
28. Tension forces cause
A. Decide if green is a nice colour to paint
A. normal fault it.
B. reverse fault B. Make sure the stresses are acting on
C. strike-slip fault weak spots
D. none of above C. Distribute load throughout the struc-
ture
29. In order for a structure to be stable, the D. Do least work possible
center of gravity must be
35. Which Shape is incorporated in most truss
A. high
bridges due to its strength?
B. low
A. Triangle
C. in the middle B. Square
D. on the outside C. Parallellogram
30. Tension stress can be useful. How? D. circle
A. Reduces stress 36. Torsion force is
B. Crushing a pop can A. Pulling
C. Strings on a guitar play music B. Compression
D. Increases stress C. Twisting
D. Bend or pull in opposite directions
31. Define Deformations?
37. two plates move apart and the lithosphere
A. Cause a change in size or shape of a
stretches and becomes thinner describes
structure
stress.
B. Born with a funny toe
A. compression
C. A bent finger B. tension
D. A fallen over building C. shear
32. An arch is a strong shape for a structure D. none of above
like a bridge because 38. What force is applied to the cables of a
A. it distributes the load evenly to the suspension bridge?
foundations A. Torsion
B. it is easy to build B. Compression
C. it has a low centre of gravity C. Bending
D. none of above D. Tension

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7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 996

39. The weight of the equipment of a bus ( in- 44. What is Compression force?
cluding all the parts) is called the A. A force that compacts or squeezes a
A. human factor material
B. riding mass B. A force that twists an object

C. dead load C. A force that pulls on a material and

stretches it apart
D. live load
D. A bend or tear in a material by press-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
40. What is Shear force? ing different parts in the opposite direc-
tions at the same time.
A. A force that compacts or squeezes a
material 45. Tension force is
B. A force that twists an object A. Pulling

C. A force that pulls on a material and B. Compression

stretches it apart C. Twisting
D. A bend or tear in a material by press- D. Bend or pull in opposite directions
ing different parts in the opposite direc-
46. A material that is brittle
tions at the same time.
A. is flexible
41. If you are making a container to hold some- B. breaks easily
thing, you would want a structure.
C. is water resistant
A. Frame
D. can be shaped into various forms
B. solid
47. A clay pot is an example of what type of
C. shell structure?
D. combination A. manufactured, frame structure
B. manufactured, mass structure
42. What is the relationship between stress
and strain in a linear elastic material? C. natural, shell structure
A. Stress is proportional to strain D. manufactured, shell structure

B. Stress is inversely proportional to 48. is the task or purpose of a structure.

strain A. shape
C. Stress is equal to strain B. form
D. Stress is proportional to the square of C. function
strain D. magnitude
43. An example of using adhesives is 49. The term deformation refers to
A. soldering together a stool A. the ability of a material to bend under
force without breaking
B. putting together puzzle pieces
B. the change of shape in a structure be-
C. using wood glue to make a bird house
cause the material is unable to resist the
D. nailing together a bird house load acting on it

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7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 997

C. the drag or resistance felt when a load 55. Which of the following explains why a tri-
is placed on a moveable structure angle is more stable than a rectangle?

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D. the change of shape in a structure A. length of sides
when the material absorbs the force act-
B. angles
ing upon it
C. diagonals
50. This type of force is an attraction between
D. vertices
two objects
A. contact 56. What force are we testing when we com-
plete a tensile strength test?
B. gravity
A. Torsion
C. friction
B. Tension
D. none of above
C. Compression
51. An example of a frame structure
D. Bending
A. Egg
E. Shear
B. Pile of mashed potatoes
57. The caps of most mushrooms are hollow.
C. Bike
What kind of structure would they be clas-
D. Snow drift sified as?
A. Shell structure
52. The unit of force is
B. Solid structure
A. m/s
C. Frame structure
B. m/s2
D. Whole structure
C. newton
D. kg 58. If rocks on one side of a fracture have
moved in relative to the rocks on the other
53. a chain link fence is an example of what side, the fracture is called a
type of design?
A. fault
A. manufactured, frame
B. fracture
B. natural, frame
C. stress
C. manufactured, shell
D. none of above
D. manufactured, mass
59. The five types of rigid joints are fasteners,
54. Compression forces cause ties, interlocking shapes, and
A. normal faults A. adhesives and door hinge
B. shear stress B. melted joints and ball-and-socket joint
C. reverse faults C. melted joints and adhesives
D. none of above D. door hinge and dowels

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7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 998

60. This force often acts in opposite directions. 65. What is an example of a live load?
But, to make it different, the forces aren’t A. Floors
aligned with on another.
B. Wall beams
A. Compression
C. Arches
B. Tension
D. Snow
C. Torsion
66. A Christmas ornament hangs on the tree
D. Bending

NARAYAN CHANGDER
with a piece of string. To prevent the
E. Shear string from snapping, it must have
A. tensile strength
61. Which force is the opposite of tension?
B. compression strength
A. Torsion
C. shear strength
B. Compression
D. torsion strength
C. Shear
67. In a building, the walls of the building is a
D. Bending load
62. In a structure, the function of a beam is to A. dynamic
B. dead
A. provide strength and distribute the C. live
force of the load D. all of the above
B. provide an interesting look or texture
68. What is deformation?
C. distribute force from the load to the
A. The change in shape or size of a body
ground
B. The change in volume of a body
D. join two materials together without
the use of glue C. The change in weight of a body
D. The change in density of a body
63. Which of the following is NOT a shell struc-
ture? 69. A structure is anything made of and
put together for a particular
A. bike helmet
A. cardboard and shape
B. egg
B. stuff and thing
C. tent
C. parts and purpose
D. a sea shell
D. concrete and style
64. What are multi-layers of a material 70. Which of the following is a natural struc-
called? ture?
A. Laminations A. A dinner table
B. Layers B. A fishing net
C. Composition C. A leaf
D. Composite D. A balloon

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7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 999

71. If you are making the foundation of a build- 76. The three types of stress that leads to
ing, you would need a structure. faults include:

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A. solid A. tension, compression, and normal
B. frame stress
C. shell B. tension, compression, and shear
stress
D. combination
C. deformation, tension, and shear str-
72. What is Tension force? ress
A. A force that compacts or squeezes a D. none of above
material
B. A force that twists an object 77. What is an example of a compression
C. A force that pulls on a material and force?
stretches it apart A. Pulling a rope
D. A bend or tear in a material by press- B. Scissors
ing different parts in the opposite direc-
tions at the same time. C. Crushing a can
D. Wringing out a towel
73. The force that results when the surface of
one object moves against the surface of an- 78. This force commonly occurs when a load is
other is referred to as applied to a certain part of a material.
A. resistance A. Tension
B. gravity
B. Torsion
C. stress
C. Compression
D. friction
D. Bending
74. If an elevator said that it could only hold
E. Shear
3000 lbs, but it could in fact, hold up to
6000 lbs, the elevator would be said to 79. Three internal forces that are classified by
have the direction in which they act are
A. a small margin of safety A. compression, tension, and exertion
B. safety codes
B. tension, compression, and shear
C. a large margin of safety
C. shear, exertion, and stress
D. well being of safety
D. curvature, twisting, and bending
75. This force acts to twist objects and mate-
rials. 80. Which of the following is a type of fasten-
A. Tension ers?

B. Torsion A. Rivets
C. Compression B. Trailer hitch
D. Bending C. ball-and-socket joint
E. Shear D. dovetail join

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7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 1000

81. Mass is C. shear

A. constantly changing D. none of above
B. the measure of the gravitational force
86. is not a firm foundation.
pulling on something’s mass
C. the amount of matter in something A. Bedrock

D. lost when leaving the atmosphere B. Wet soil

C. Flat ground
82. What is compressive stress?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
A. The stress that is applied perpendicu-
lar to the axis of a material 87. Rocks snap back to their original shape
B. The stress that is applied along the when stress no longer exist. This is called
axis of a material
C. The stress that is applied in a circular A. elastic deformation
manner around the axis of a material
B. fault
D. The stress that is applied in a diagonal
C. fracture
manner across the axis of a material
D. none of above
83. Jupiter has about 317 times more mass
than Earth. What can you infer from this 88. Define a Live Load?
fact?
A. do not move, a permanent force
A. That Jupiter’s gravitational force is
much weaker than on Earth’s gravitational B. a dead body
force. C. things a structure supports through
B. That Jupiter’s gravitational force is regular use, they can move
much stronger than Earth’s gravitational D. a car
force.
89. plates are squeezed together and rocks be-
C. That Jupiter’s and Earth’s gravita-
come thicker. This deformation is called
tional forces are equal.
D. Mass has no effect on the gravitational
force between two objects A. tension
B. shear
84. Define a Dead Load?
C. compression
A. do not move, a permanent force
D. none of above
B. a dead body
C. things a structure supports through 90. Centre of gravity is
regular use, they can move
A. The stability of a structure
D. a car
B. imaginary point where the downward
85. Rocks are pushed sideways in opposite di- force of gravity acts on a structure.
rections. Rocks do not become thinner. C. The amount of Newtons acting on a
A. compression structure.
B. tension D. none of above

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7.5 Tension, Compression and Shear 1001

91. What is an example of a shear force? 97. What is Torsion force?

A. Pulling a rope A. A force that compacts or squeezes a

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B. Scissors material
C. Crushing a can B. A force that twists an object
D. Wringing out a towel C. A force that pulls on a material and
stretches it apart
92. Bending is a combination of which two
stresses? D. A bend or tear in a material by press-
ing different parts in the opposite direc-
A. torsion and shear tions at the same time.
B. tension and compression
98. An adhesive is
C. tension and torsion
A. Wall
D. compression and shear
B. Composite material
93. Which of the following shapes is the
strongest? C. Glue
A. triangle D. Laminations
B. square 99. The MOST common type of joining use in
C. arch modern construction is
D. ovals A. nails, screws, rivets

94. Using fiberglass to create the haul of a ca- B. interlocking pieces

noe and reinforcing it with plastic is an ex- C. frictional mass
ample of what type of material? D. staples and glue
A. layered material
100. A material that is NOT flexible is
B. woven material
A. plastic
C. knit material
D. composite material B. rope
C. brick
95. If you weight 45kg and you are standing
at the bubble tea shop by the school, your D. fabric
weight would be 101. Shear stress cause
A. 45 Newtons
A. normal fault
B. 4.5 Newtons
B. reverse fault
C. 450 Newtons
C. strike slip fault
D. 0.45 Newtons
D. none of above
96. The shape and physical appearance of a
structure is 102. A break in a rock is called.
A. form A. fault
B. function B. deformation
C. stability C. fracture
D. force D. none of above

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 7.6 Torsion of Shafts 1002

7.6 Torsion of Shafts

1. If N is the number of rotation per minute 6. A member is said to be in pure torsion
(RPM) for a rotating shaft subjected to when it’s cross section is subjected into
a torsion T. Identify the expression for A. Axial force
power transmitted by the shaft
B. Bending moment
A. 2 · π · N · T ÷ 60
C. Torsion moment

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 2 · π · N · T
D. Torque
C. π · N · T
7. Best section in torsion
D. π · N · T ÷ 60
A. Hollow circular section
2. Equivalent torque in combined bending and B. Solid circular section
torsion is given by
C. Rectangular section
A. Te = (M 2 + T 2 )1/2
D. Hollow rectagular
B. Te = 1/2(M 2 + T 2 )1/2
8. Which property is not required for shaft
C. Te = M + T
materials?
D. Te = 1/2[M + (M 2 + T 2 )1/2 ] A. High shear and tensile strength
3. Stiffness of a helical spring is expressed B. Good castability
as C. High fatigue strength
A. Deflection per unit load D. none of above
B. Load per unit deflection
9. In a shaft the shear stress is not directly
C. Load per unit diameter proportional to
D. Diameter per unit load A. Radius of shaft
B. Angle of twist
4. In combined bending and torsion equiva-
lent bending moment is C. Length of shaft
A. Me = (M 2 + T 2 )1/2 D. Modulus of rigidity

B. Me = 1/2(M 2 + T 2 )1/2 10. For same weight, same material, same

C. Me = M + (M 2 + T 2 )1/2 length
A. Solid shaft is always stronger than a
D. Me = 1/2[M + (M 2 + T 2 )1/2 ]
hollow shaft
5. For a shaft, the shear stress at a point is B. Solid shaft is always weaker than a hol-
the distance from the axis of the shaft low shaft and strength ratio will depend
upon Do/Di of hollow shaft
A. Equal to
C. Strength of both the shafts in equal
B. Directly proportional to
D. Strength of a solid shaft is always
C. Inversely proportional to
weaker and the strength ratio will depend
D. none of above upon Do/Di of hollow shaft

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7.6 Torsion of Shafts 1003

11. shafts are of equal length and same ma- 16. Torque transmitted by hollow shaft is
terial. the external dila of both the shafts that carried by solid shaft
are same and internal dia. Of hollow shaft

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A. More than
of that of external dia. The ratio of the
strength of solid to hollow shaft is B. Less than
C. Equal to
A. 8/7
D. none of above
B. 17/16
C. 1.5 17. Polar moment of inertia is

D. 16/15 A. The MI about an axis in the plane of

cross section
12. From the torsion equation, name the term B. The product of inertia
represented by letter J
C. About the axis of member
A. radius of curvature D. None of the above
B. diameter
18. Stress in the cross section of a shaft at the
C. polar moment inertia centre
D. joule A. is zero
13. When a shaft is subjected to pure twisting, B. decreases linearly to the maximum
the type of stress developed In the shaft value of at outer surface
is C. both a. and b.
A. Bending stress D. none of the above
B. Axial stress 19. What are the units of torsional rigidity?
C. Shear stress A. Nmm2
D. Normal stress B. N/mm
C. N − mm
14. In a close coiled helical spring subjected
to axial load, other quantities remaining D. N
same. The wire diameter is doubled the 20. The torque transmitted in a hollow shaft
stiffness of spring compared to original can be calculated from
one is times (D3 −D3 )
π
A. 16 × τ × oDo i
A. 2
π (D4o −D4i )
B. 4 B. 16 ×τ × Do
C. 8 π ( Do −D4i
4
)
C. 16 × τ × Di
D. 16 π
16 × τ × D
D. 3

15. Torsional rigidity is the product of 21. The unit of torque is

A. C & J A. Kg m
B. I & J B. Nm
C. G & L C. N/m
D. T & J D. N/m2

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7.6 Torsion of Shafts 1004

22. If the diameter of shaft subjected to torque 27. The is a capacity of a material to ab-
alone, is doubled, then the power can be sorb energy elastically,
increased by times A. Resilience
A. 2 B. Stiffness
B. 4 C. Stored energy
C. 8 D. Torque
D. 16
28. For same length, same material, same

NARAYAN CHANGDER
23. In a shaft subjected to pure twist the shear length
stress pat pant section is maximum at A. Weight of solid shaft is less than
A. Centre of section weight of hollow shaft
B. Mid radius B. Weight of hollow and solid shafts will
be same
C. Surface
C. Sometime more sometime less
D. 3/4 radius from centre
D. Weight of solid shaft is more than
24. A shaft is said to be in pure torsion if weight of hollow shaft
A. Turning moment is applied at one end 29. Twisting moment is a moment applied in
and other end is free the plane of cross section acting
B. Turning force is applied at one end and A. Along longitudinal
other end is free
B. About longitudinal axis
C. Two opposite turning moments are ap-
C. About neutral axis
plied to the shaft
D. None of the above
D. Combination of torsional load and
bending load is applied to the shaft 30. A shaft subjected to a bending moment
M and torque T simultaneously the ratio
25. Two closed coil springs of stiffness k and of the max bending stress to max shear
2k are arranged in series in one case and stress developed in the shaft
in parallel in the other case. The ratio of
stiffness of springs connected in series to A. M/T
parallel is B. 2M/T
A. 1/3 C. T/M
B. 1/9 D. 2T/M
C. 2/3 31. A 10 m solid steel shaft is subjected to
D. 2/9 a torque of 15kNm resulting an angle
of twist of 4o from its original position.
26. Shear stress at the outermost fibres of a Given G = 85 GPa. Calculate:a)The mini-
circular shaft under torsion is mum diameter of the steel shaft.
A. Zero A. 123mm
B. Minimum B. 125mm
C. Maximum C. 121mm
D. Infinity D. 127mm

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7.6 Torsion of Shafts 1005

32. Two shafts in torsion will have equal 37. For two shafts in series or having different
strength if diameters for two parts of length

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A. Only diameter of the shafts is same A. T = T 1 + T 2
B. Only angle of twist of the shaft is same B. T = (T 1.T 2)1/2
C. Only material of the shaft is same C. T = T 1 = T 2
D. Only torque transmitting capacity of D. T = T 1 − T 2
the shaft is same
38. A shaft may be
33. Rectangular shaft subjected to torsion the
maximum shear stress occur at A. Solid

A. Centre B. Hollow

B. Longer side C. Tapered

C. Shorter side D. All of the above

D. Middle of longer side 39. Torsional rigidity is
34. A shaft rotating N rpm under a torque T A. Also known as flexural rigidity.
transmits a power of B. The product of modulus of elasticity
A. T*Pi*N/30 Newton meter per sec and moment of inertia
B. T*pi*N/30 Newton meter per min C. The torque which develops unit twist
per unit length
C. T*pi*N/60 Newton meters / min
D. The product of shear modulus and mo-
D. T*pi*N/60 Newton metre per sec
ment of inertia
35. Two closely coiled helical springs A and B
are respects but for the number of turns 40. Shear stress at the centre of a circular
with A having just 1/2 the number of shaft under torsion is
turns of that of B. What is the ratio of the A. Zero
deflections in terms of spring A to spring
B. Minimum
B?
C. Maximum
A. 1/8
B. 1/4 D. Infinity

C. 1/2 41. A circular shaft is subjected to torsion. The

D. 2/1 shear stress in the cross section.
A. Varies parabolically with the maximum
36. Plane sections remains plane after twist- stress occuring at the centre
ing only when the cross-section is
B. Uniform over the section
A. Rectangular
C. Varies linearly with the radius with the
B. Circular maximum at the circumference and zero
C. Square at the centre
D. none of above D. None of the above

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7.6 Torsion of Shafts 1006

42. A solid cylinder and hollow cylinder having 47. Strength of a shaft
same outer diameter subjected to torsion T.
A. Is equal to maximum shear stress in
Choose the one experiencing higher shear
the shaft at the time of elastic failure
stress.
B. Is equal to maximum shear stress in
A. Hollow cylinder
the shaft at the time of rupture
B. Solid cylinder
C. Is equal to torsional rigidity
C. Equal shear stress in both
D. Is ability to resist maximum twisting

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of the above moment

43. Magnitude of shear stress induced in a 48. Hollow circular shaft will transmit
shaft due to applied torque varies from power than solid circular shaft of same
weight and material
A. Zero at centre and max at circumfer-
ence A. More
B. Zero at circumference and max at cen- B. Less
tre
C. Same
C. Zero at one end and zero at other end
D. None
D. None of these
49. Bending moment M and torque T are ap-
44. Equivalent stiffness when two springs plied to a solid circular shaft. If the bend-
with stiffness S1 And S2 connected by par- ing stress is equal to the max shear stress,
allel then M is equal to
A. S1S2/S1+S2 A. T
B. S1+S2/S1S2 B. 2T
C. S1S2 C. T/2
D. S1+S2 D. T/4

45. Shear stress at the centre of solid shaft 50. Torsional sectional modulus is also known
as
A. Max
A. Polar modulus
B. Min
B. Sectional modulus
C. Zero
C. Torsion modulus
D. Negative
D. Torsional rigidity
46. A is an elastic object that stores me-
chanical energy. 51. Modulus of rigidity is the ratio of
A. Shaft A. Lateral strain and linear strain
B. Spring B. Linear stress and lateral strain
C. Beam C. Shear stress and shear strain
D. Column D. Shear strain and shear stress

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7.6 Torsion of Shafts 1007

52. The dia of a shaft is increased from 30 C. Both cost same

mm to 60 mm, all other conditions remain- D. None of these
ing unchanged, how many times it’s torque

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carrying capacity increases.? 58. When shaft is twisted and untwisted al-
A. 2 ternatively. The type os stress induced
B. 8 A. Bending stress
C. 16 B. Transverse shear
D. 32 C. Torsional shear
D. Axial force
53. shear stress distribution due to torsion on
cross section of solid cylinder will be 59. For two shafts in parallel or for two con-
A. Constant centric shafts
B. Linear A. T = (T 1.T 2)1/2
C. Second degree B. T = T 1 + T 2
D. None of the above C. T = T 1 = T 2
D. T = T 1 − T 2
54. The unit of modulus of rigidity is
A. N/m2 60. The most suitable reason to adopt a hollow
circular section in place of solid circular sec-
B. KNm
tion for a shaft is
C. N/m
A. Weight per unit length is less
D. Nm/S
B. Easy to transport
55. is the torque required to produce unit C. Easy to manufacture
angle of twist for a unit length of material
D. More strength for same weight per
A. Torsional rigidity unit length
B. Stiffness of a shaft
61. The ratio of strengths of solid to hollow
C. Modulus of rigidity shafts, both having outside diameter D
D. Polar modulus and hollow having inside diameter D/2, in
torsion, is
56. If two shafts are connected in parallel,
A. 1/16
then resulting shaft is called
B. 1/4
A. Compound shaft
B. Composite shaft C. 1/2

C. Cumulative shaft D. 15/16

D. Combination shaft 62. The shear stress intensity at any point is

proportional to
57. For transmitting same power, all proper-
ties remaining same, between a solid and A. G
hollow shaft B. L
A. Solid shaft is economical C. r
B. Hollow shaft is economical D. none of above

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7.6 Torsion of Shafts 1008

63. Horse power = metric unit B. 4 times

A. 736 W C. 8 times
B. 746 W D. 16 times
C. 646 W
68. The safe twisting moment for a compound
D. 636 W shaft is equal to the
64. A circular shaft is subjected to a twisting A. Maximum calculated value

NARAYAN CHANGDER
moment T and bending moment M. The ra- B. Minimum calculated value
tio of max bending stress to max shear
stress is given by C. Mean value

A. 4M/T D. Extreme value

B. 2M/T 69. Which parameter is not related angle of
C. M/2T twist?
D. 2T/M A. Member’s length

65. Which of the following is not an assump- B. Polar moment of inertia

tion in derivation of torsion equation? C. Shear modulus
A. Circular shaft remains circular after D. Elastic modulus
twisting
70. Equivalent stiffness of two springs of stiff-
B. Plane section of the shaft remain plane
ness S1 and S2 joined in series given bu
after twisting
A. S1S2/(S1+S2)
C. Material of shaft is isotropic
B. S1+S2/S1S2
D. Angle of twist is proportional to radius
C. S1S2
66. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is ex-
pressed by the D. S1+S2

A. Maximum torque it can transmit 71. Shear stress due to torsion in a hollow
B. Number of cycles it undergoes before shaft
failure A. Max at outer edge
C. Elastic limit upto which it resists tor- B. Min at inner edge
sion, shear and bending stresses torque
required to produce a twist of one radian C. Zero at centre of shaft
per unit length of shaft D. Zero at outer edge
D. maximum power it can transmit at
72. Identify the point where shear stress will
highest possible speed.
be minimum on a cylindrical rod subjected
67. In a closed coiled helical spring subjected to torsion.
to axial load, other quantities remaining A. at center
the same, if the wire dia is doubled, then
B. at outer surface
the stiffness if the spring when compared
to the original one will become C. constant everywhere
A. Twice D. zero everywhere

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7.6 Torsion of Shafts 1009

73. A member subjected to couple produces ro- C. At the middle of longer side
tational motion about its longitudinal axis D. Along the diagonal
called as

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. torsion 79. A shaft is simultaneously subject to a
torque T and bending moment M. The ra-
B. twisting moment tio of maximum shear stress to bending
C. both a. and b. stress is
D. none of the above A. M/T
74. The formula for Torsional stiffness is B. T/M
CJ C. 2M/T
A. L
B. L D. T/2M
CJ
J
C. R 80. Which of the following assumptions are
D. Cθ made in torsion theory?
L
A. Shaft is perfectly straight
75. Which material is suitable for shaft mate-
rial? B. Material of the shaft is heterogeneous

A. High speed steel C. Twist cannot be uniform along the

length of the shaft
B. Stainless steel or high carbon steel
D. All of the above
C. Grey cast iron
D. Steel having approx. 0.4% carbon and 81. Shear stress at the outer edge of a solid
0.8% manganese shaft
A. Max
76. From the torsion equation, name the term
represented by letter θ B. Min
A. angle of twist C. Zero
B. radius D. Negative
C. radius of curvature 82. Shafts connected in parallel
D. diameter A. Resulting shaft is called composite
shaft
77. The shaft is always stepped with di-
ameter at the middle portion and di- B. Resulting shaft is called compound
ameter at the shaft ends. shaft
A. Minimum, maximum C. Angle of twist in each shaft is the same
B. Maximum, minimum D. Torque in each shaft is same
C. Minimum, minimum 83. Pick incorrect statement. The torsional re-
D. Zero, infinity sistance of a shaft is directly proportional
to
78. A rectangular bar has been subjected to
torsion. The maximum shear stress will A. Modulus of rigidity
occur B. Angle of twist
A. At the center C. Reciprocal of length of the shaft
B. At the corner D. Moment of inertia of the shaft section

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 7.7 Shear Force and Bending Moment 1010

7.7 Shear Force and Bending Moment

1. How many support does continuous beam 5. The unit of bending moment is
has? A. Nmm
A. 4 B. kN/mm
B. 2
C. N/mm
C. More than 2
D. kNm

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Less than 2
6. What is the name of the lecturer
2. Which statement is true about cantilever DCC20053 that teaching your class now?
beam?
A. Madam Normah binti Janudin
A. A beam that has more than 1 support
B. Puan Normah binti Jainudin
B. A beam that has 2 free ends
C. Puan Normah binti Zainudin
C. A beam that has 2 fixed supports
D. Miss Normah binti Jainudin
D. A beam that fixed at 1 support and free
at the other end 7. What is a full name for DCC20053
course?
3. A roller support can resist the force from
A. x direction only A. Structures

B. moment force only B. Mechanics of structures

C. y direction only C. Structural of engineering mechanics

D. x and y direction D. Mechanics of civil engineering struc-
tures
4. The beam is classify as a statically deter-
minate beam when: 8. Fixed support also known as
A. it has less than or equal 2 supports A. hinged
B. it has less than or equal 3 unknowns B. pinned
C. it has more than 2 supports C. rigid
D. it has more than 3 unknowns D. roller

7.8 Stresses in Beams

1. Immediate losses in pre-stressed concrete PORT AND ONE END HINGED SUPPORT
are SUBJECTED TO VERTICAL LOADING CAN
BE REGARDED AS
A. Friction
B. Anchorage slip A. FIXED BEAM
C. Elastic shortening B. SIMPLY SUPPORTED BEAM
D. All of the above C. CANTILEVER BEAM
2. A BEAM HAVING ONE END ROLLER SUP- D. OVERHANGING BEAM

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7.8 Stresses in Beams 1011

3. What is the unit of Moment? C. Rectangular

A. N/m D. All the above

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B. Pa
9. In a load-balanced prestressed concrete
C. Nm beam under self load, the cross-section
D. N subjected to
A. Axial stresses
4. when load acts at constant rate at a given
length of beam is called B. Bending stress
A. UVL C. Axial and bending stresses
B. point load D. Axial and shear stresses
C. UDL 10. which of the following losses of pre-
D. Triangular load stresses occurs only in pre tensioning and
not in post tensioning
5. the reaction line rpller suppot with respect
A. elastic shortening
to point of contact is
B. creep
A. obligue
C. shrinkage
B. perpendicular
D. friction
C. obtuse
D. parallel 11. Which of the following is true for bending
moment diagram?
6. A T-shaped retaining wall consists of
A. Total moment of various forces acting
A. One cantilever on the body is the vector sum of all mo-
B. Two cantilever ments
C. Three cantilever B. Total moment of various forces acting
on the body is the algebraic sum of all mo-
D. None of these
ments
7. The bending stress is C. Total moment of various forces acting
A. Directly proportional to the distance of on the body is always zero
layer from the neutral layer D. Total moment of various forces act-
B. Inversely proportional to the distance ing on the body is the vector sum of all
of layer from the neutral layer moments which is perpendicular to each
other forces
C. Directly proportional to the neutral
layer 12. M40 concrete is preferred to M20 concrete
D. Does not depend on the distance of for prestressed concrete to
layer from the neutral layer A. Overcome bursting stresses at the
ends
8. A surface water tank will be economical if
the shape is B. Avoid brittle failure of concrete
A. Circular C. Eliminate the effect of shrinkage
B. Square D. Economic use of cement

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7.8 Stresses in Beams 1012

13. Which of the following basic concept is in- C. Compressive

volved in the analysis of prestressed con- D. none of above
crete members?
A. Combined and bending stresses 19. The moment axis, force and the perpendic-
ular distance in the bending moment dia-
B. Principle stresses gram is lying in
C. Shear stresses A. Two planes perpendicular to each
D. Overhead stresses other

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. A single plane in the direction of the
14. The method of pre-stressing concrete in
force
which pre-stressing wire is tensioned
against the hardened concrete is C. A single plane in the direction of the
force
A. Pre tensioning
D. A single line in the direction of the
B. Post tensioning
force
C. Intial prestressing
20. is the main factor for transfer of stress
D. Jack tensioning to concrete in post tensioned members
15. The bars in cement concrete pavements are A. End bearing
at B. Bond
A. Expansion joints C. Strength
B. contraction joints D. Shrinkage
C. Warping joints
21. The value of moment is negative shown
D. Longitudinal joints that the rotation is
16. The main advantage of prestressed con- A. clockwise
crete piles over traditional reinforced and B. anticlockwise
concrete steel piles is:
C. left
A. Moment carrying capacity D. right
B. Beam carrying capacity
22. What is the allowable upward deflection in
C. Column carrying capacity a prestressed concrete member under ser-
D. Foundation carrying capacity viceability limit state condition?
A. span/250
17. Shear force diagram also known as
B. span/350
A. M diagram
C. span/300
B. V diagram
D. span/500
C. S diagram
D. T diagram 23. Deflections are in pre stressed con-
crete members compared with RCC mem-
18. About Neutral Axis Bending stress is bers
A. Zero A. Less
B. Tensile B. More

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7.8 Stresses in Beams 1013

C. Equal 29. In pre tensioning process of prestressing

the tendons are
D. Can’t predict
A. Bonded to the concrete

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24. Which one is NOT the type of loading B. Partially bonded to the concrete
A. concentrated load C. Not bonded to the concrete
B. concentrated moment D. Generally bonded but sometimes re-
main and bonded to the concrete
C. uniformly separated load
D. uniformly distributed load 30. Fixed beams are
A. One end fixed and other end free
25. An example of a point load is B. both ends fixed
A. a car parked on a bridge C. one end fixed and other end simply
B. snow on a roof supported
D. both ends are roller support
C. wind load on a wall
D. hydro static pressure on a dam 31. The maximum stresses occur at top
most fibre of a simply supported beam.
26. Free-body diagram means . A. Tensile
A. the diagram drawn with free hand B. Compressive
B. the diagram of a body with applied C. Shear
forces D. Bending
C. the diagram of a body with applied 32. What is the minimium concrete mix grade
forces, self-weight and reactions for postensioned concrete
D. the diagram of a freely suspended A. M20
body B. M30
27. Prestressing in concrete can be done by C. M40
D. M50
A. means of hydraulic jacks
B. means of thermal methods 33. The turning effect of a force is known as
the
C. means of support displacement
A. Centre of gravity
D. the use of expanding cement B. Centroid
28. In a simply supported beam subjected to C. Moment of force
uniformly distributed load (w) over the D. Moment of inertia
entire length (l), total load=W, maximum
Bending moment is 34. A BEAM WITH THREE OR MORE THAN
THREE SUPPORTS IS CALLED AS
A. Wl/8 or wl2/8 at the mid-point
A. CANTILEVER BEAM
B. Wl/8 or wl2/8 at the end B. FIXED BEAM
C. Wl/4 or wl2/4 C. CONTINUOUS BEAM
D. Wl/2 D. FIXED BUT

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7.8 Stresses in Beams 1014

35. HInged or Roller support will have re- C. 4%

actions D. 6%
A. 3
41. The attempt to introduce permanently act-
B. 2 ing forces in concrete to resist the elastic
C. 1 forces is:
D. none of the above A. Prestressing
B. Loading
36. Which one is NOT the type of beams

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Pre-straining
A. simply longitudinal beam
D. Bending
B. simply supported beam
C. cantilevered beam 42. The number of reaction components at the
fixed end of beam are
D. overhanging beam
A. 2
37. A simply supported rectangular beam is B. 3
uniformly loaded and is prestressed. The
C. 4
tendon provided for prestressing should be
D. 1
A. Straight, above centroidal axis
B. Straight, below centroidal axis 43. TRUSSES CARRY LOADS AT

C. Parabolic, with convexity upward A. ENDS

B. JOINTS
D. Parabolic, with convexity downward
C. BOTH A & B
38. A fully pre stressed member will be free
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
from stresses under working load mak-
ing the whole section effective 44. Moment of inertia is formula is
A. Tensile A. I = MR2
B. Compressive B. I =MR3
C. Shear C. I = MR
D. All of the above D. I =M/R

39. THE BEAM WHOSE ONE END IS FIXED AND 45. How many types of prestresses loss?
OTHER END IS FREE REFERRED TO AS A. 6
A. SIMPLY FIXED BEAM B. 2
B. SIMPLY SUPPORTED BEAM C. 4
C. CANTILEVER BEAM D. 9
D. FIXED BEAM 46. The type of beam with one is pinned and
other end is roller
40. High strength Steel used in prestressed
concrete can take how much maximum A. Cantilever Beam
strain? B. Simply Supported beam
A. 2% C. Fixed beam
B. 3% D. Continuous Beam

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7.8 Stresses in Beams 1015

47. In prestressed concrete, high-grade con- 53. The losses in prestress in pre tensioning
crete is used for system are due to

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A. Controlling the prestress loss A. Elastic deformation of concrete when
B. Having concrete of low ductility wires are tensioned successively
C. Having concrete of high brittleness B. Friction
D. Having low creep C. Shrinkage and Creep of Concrete
48. ROLLER SUPPORT IN THE BEAM WILL D. none of above
HAVE HOW MANY UNKNOWN REAC-
TIONS 54. Value in Moment diagram can be calculated
A. 3 from
B. 1 A. area of shear force diagram
C. 2 B. only positive area of shear force dia-
D. NO REACTION gram
49. In reinforced concrete members the pre- C. only negative area of shear force dia-
stress is commonly introduced by: gram
A. Tensioning the steel reinforcement D. reaction forces value
B. Tendons
55. What is the formula for shear stress?
C. Shortening of concrete
D. Rings A. Shear resistance/shear area

50. The load which is concentrated or acting at B. Force/unit area

one point is known as C. Bending strain/area
A. Uniformly distributed load
D. Shear stress/length
B. Uniformly Varying load
C. Point load 56. τ is the symbol for
D. None A. normal stress
51. The net effect due to prestressing in pre- B. strain
stressed concrete beams is usually
C. shear stress
A. Tension
D. young modulas
B. bending and compression
C. bending and tension 57. Statically beams are
D. compression A. The beams which can be analysed com-
52. Concrete is weak in? pletely using equations of equillibrium
A. Compression B. The beam which can be analysed using
static equations
B. Tension
C. Loading C. Fixed beams at both ends
D. Bending D. None of the above

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7.8 Stresses in Beams 1016

58. An external force applied on a body is D. The total work done on the body by the
called force
A. Load
63. What is the minimium concrete mix for
B. Moment prestensioned system
C. Pressure A. M20
D. NOTA B. M30
59. For prestressed structural elements, high C. M40

NARAYAN CHANGDER
strength concrete is used primarily be- D. M35
cause
A. Both shrinkage and creep are more 64. Parallel forces acting in opposite directions
B. Shrinkage is less but creep is more A. compression
C. Modulus of elasticity and creep values B. shear
are higher C. tension
D. High modulus of elasticity and low
D. none of above
creep
60. What is the definition of beams? 65. The stress which acts in a direction perpen-
dicular to the area is called
A. members that are straight and have
supports A. Shear stress

B. members that are slender & support B. Normal stress

loadings applied perpendicular to their C. Thermal stress
longitudinal axis
D. None of the mentioned
C. members that are rectangular shape
with mass 66. In the pre tensioning method
D. members that are various type such as A. Tension in concrete is induced directly
static load and impact load by external force
61. Fully prestressed concrete beams B. Tension is induced in the tendons be-
fore concreting
A. Resist all working loads by prestress
C. Concrete continues to be in tension af-
B. Resist the full live load by prestress
ter prestressing
C. Resist the part of the load by prestress
D. none of above
D. Resist only the dead loads
67. At a level between the top and bottom
62. What does the moment of the force mea- of the beam, there will be a layer, which
sure in the bending moment diagram? is neither shortened nor elongated. This
A. The tendency of rotation of the body layer is known as
along with an axis
A. Compressed layer
B. The moment of inertia of the body
B. Tensioned layer
about any axis
C. The couple moment produce by the sin- C. Stressed layer
gle force acting on the body D. Neutral layer

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7.8 Stresses in Beams 1017

68. The basic way of getting the direction of C. Cantilever

the moment caused by the force in a bend-
D. Both ends hinged
ing moment diagram is:

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A. The use of left hand rule with thumb 73. Post tensioning is used for
giving the direction of the moment
A. Long span bridges
B. The use of right hand rule with thumb
B. Short span bridges
giving the direction of the moment
C. The use of right hand rule with forefin- C. Railway sleepers
ger giving the direction of the moment D. None of these
D. The use of left hand rule with forefin-
ger giving the direction of the moment 74. is a structure made of slender mem-
bers which are joined together at their end
69. In a beam of 6 m span with one end hinged points.
and other on roller if 30 kN-m moment is A. TRUSS
acting at 2 m from support A, then the re-
action at A is B. BEAM
A. 15 kN C. PILLAR
B. 7.5 kN D. SUPPORT
C. 5 kN
75. The point at which the entire weight of a
D. 4 kN body may be considered to act.
70. The tendency of rotation of the body along A. Centroid
any axis in the bending moment diagram is
B. Centre of gravity
also called
A. Moment of inertia C. Moment of inertia

B. Moment of couple D. NOTA

C. Torque 76. Squeezing force that acts from opposite
D. Force sides

71. In the design of prestressed concrete struc- A. compression

ture, which of the following limit states B. shear
will come under the limit state of service-
C. tension
ability?
A. Flexure D. none of above
B. Shear 77. The concept which is used in many
C. Deflection branches of civil engineering and building
construction?
D. Cracking
A. Reinforced concrete
72. Which one of the following is indetermi-
nate beam? B. Prestressed concrete
A. Simply supported beam C. Steel concrete
B. One end hinged, other on roller D. Lump sum concrete

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7.8 Stresses in Beams 1018

78. In pre-tensioned beams, which of the fol- A. f = P/A-M/3Z

lowing losses is/ are not considered?
B. f = P/A-Z/M
A. Anchorage slip
C. f = P/A-M/Z
B. Shrinkage
D. D= P/A-M/6Z
C. Creep
D. Relaxation 84. Code for pre-stressed concrete
E. Friction A. IS 456-2000

NARAYAN CHANGDER
79. Development of early cracks in reinforced B. IS 3370-1965
concrete is due to: C. IS 13700-1976
A. Strains of steel D. IS 1343-2012
B. Stresses of steel
85. Which one of the following is wrong in the
C. Ultimate load
list of assumptions for the analysis of pin
D. Bending of steel jointed truss?
80. The coefficient of shrinkage for high grade A. Load acts at joint only
concrete for pretensioners work is B. Self-weight neglected
A. 3x10−4 C. Loads act vertically
B. 5x10−4
D. Ends of members are pin connected
C. 8x10−4
D. None of these 86. Moment of force is calculated by M =
A. F/D
81. Which indian standard code refers to pre-
stressed concrete B. F x D
A. IS 456:2000 C. D /F
B. IS 1343:1980 D. None of the above
C. IS816:2007
87. Time dependent losses in pre stressed con-
D. IS800:2007 crete are
82. Prestress loss due to friction occurs A. (A)Creep in concrete
A. Only in post-tensioned beams B. (B)Shrinkage
B. Only in pre-tensioned C. (C)Friction
C. In both post-tensioned and pre- D. Both A and B
tensioned beams
D. None of the above 88. Pre tensioning is used for

83. A rectangular beam of cross sectional area A. Small span bridges

A and section modulus Z is prestressed con- B. Long span bridges
centrically by force P, the minimium sress
C. Railway sleepers
for the beam subjected to a maximium
bending moment M is D. None of these

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7.8 Stresses in Beams 1019

89. Prestress loss due to Anchorage slip occurs 95. Prestressed concrete is more desirable in
only in case of

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A. Post tensioned beam A. Cylindrical pipe subjected to internal
B. Pre tensioned beam fluid pressure
C. Both of the above B. Cylindrical pipe subjected to external
fluid pressure
D. none of above
C. Cylindrical pipe subjected to equal in-
90. A beam fixed at one end and free at other ternal and external fluid pressures
end is called
D. Cylindrical pipe subjected to end pres-
A. Simply supported beam sures
B. Cantilever beam
96. The prominent prestressed sleepers which
C. Fixed beam have been adopted by railways of various
D. Overhanging beam countries is:
91. In I section maximum shear force is carried A. Single block sleepers
by B. Gauge sleepers
A. Web C. Two block sleepers
B. Flange D. 1) Friction sleepers
C. can not say
97. Prestressed concrete sheet piles are ide-
D. None of these
ally suited for the construction of:
92. Prestress loss due to friction occurs only in A. Air frond bulkheads
A. Post tensioned beam B. Water frond bulkheads
B. Pre tensioned beam C. Half brick walls
C. Both of the above
D. Full brick walls
D. none of above
98. The maximum moment of resistance in a
93. THE FORCES IN THE MEMBERS ARE IN pole is generally required at:
NATURE
A. 1) Base
A. BILATERAL
B. Corner
B. AXIAL
C. Edge
C. BI-AXIAL
D. Middle
D. CUMMULATIVE

94. On bending of a beam, which is the layer 99. The centroid of triangle from its lower in-
which is neither elongated nor shortened? tensity end or apex is always
A. Axis of load A. half of its distance
B. Neutral axis B. 2/3rd of its distance
C. Center of gravity C. full length of its distance
D. Moment of inertia D. 1/3rd of its distance

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 7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1020

100. At the extreme fibre, bending stress is B. Zero

C. Constant
A. Minimum D. Maximum

7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure

1. When a horizontal beam is sagging from 5. In structural engineering, when a beam

NARAYAN CHANGDER
external forces, force on the top edge has been deflected to a point that it no
and force on the bottom edge are longer returns to its original shape.
working simultaneously to cause failure. A. Elastic behavior
A. Tension, compression B. Plastic behavior
B. Gravitational, centrifugal C. Rigidity test
C. External, internal D. Extreme deflection
D. Resistance, effort E. External force
E. Compression, tension
6. What is often the weakest part of a struc-
2. A group of interacting, interrelated, or in- ture?
terdependent elements or parts that func- A. columns
tion together as a whole to accomplish a B. beams
goal.
C. foundations
A. Reverse Engineering
D. joints
B. System
C. Inputs 7. What is the first version of a design
called?
D. Functions
A. proposal
3. A process that repeats a series of steps B. prototype
over and over until the desired outcome is
C. provision
obtained.
D. prospect
A. Measurable
B. Tolerances 8. This condition exists when the force of
compression overcomes an object’s ability
C. Iterative to handle compression.
D. Assemblies A. Buckling
4. Which is true about the moment of inertia B. Snapping
of a material C. Dissipate
A. depends on size D. Transfer
B. depends on shape
9. A rigid, usually horizontal, structural ele-
C. depends on orientation ment is called:
D. all of the choices A. Beam

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1021

B. Pier B. the materials are homogenous and

C. Endeavor isotropic

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C. straight radial lines in a traverse sec-
D. Force
tion remain straight after twisting
10. What is the study of beauty in art and na- D. all of these
ture called?
15. displacement due to load depends on
A. aeronautics
A. shear stress
B. athletics
B. tension
C. aesthetics
C. young’s modulus
D. aerobics
D. modulus of regidity
11. In solid shaft, the stress in the center is
16. Which SolidWorks geometric relation con-
A. maximum strains two lines to lie along the same lin-
B. minimum ear path?
C. average A. Coincident
D. zero B. Colinear
C. Concentric
12. Which tool will allow the user to round a
90◦ edge with a desired radius in Solid- D. Fix
Works? E. Tangent
A. Extrude Boss/Base 17. In SolidWorks, if you wanted a line and an
B. Chamfer arc to share exactly one point (or location),
which geometric relation would you use?
C. Oval/circle tool
A. Tangent
D. Hole wizard
B. Colinear
E. Fillet
C. Concentric
13. In SolidWorks, if you can select a side or D. Parallel
corner of your sketch and move it around,
this is because the sketch is not E. Midpoint

A. A closed figure 18. Which of the following is a sustainable so-

B. Drawn right lution?
A. Place dissimilar materials into recycle
C. Anchored at that corner
bins together
D. Fully defined
B. Minimize waste
E. Shown in an isometric view
C. Produce waste that causes pollution or
14. Which of the following assumptions are goes into a landfill
true for torsion theory in axis symmetric D. Use more non-renewable resources
sections? than renewable resources
A. circular section remains circular after E. Set aside more and more land for land-
twisting fills

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1022

19. What is compression? C. Brooklyn, London and Ambassador

A. a sliding force D. George Washington, Mackinac and
B. a twisting force Seven Mile

C. a squeezing force 24. The acceptable amount of dimensional vari-

D. a pulling force ation that will still allow an object to func-
tion correctly.
20. A 2-D graphic representation of an object A. Smart Dimension

NARAYAN CHANGDER
in which the projecting lines are at right an-
gles to the plane of the projection is called B. Tolerance
a/an C. Iterative
A. Parallel projection D. Assemblies
B. Cavalier projection E. Fillet
C. Orthographic projection
25. is a moment that tends to twist a mem-
D. Mercator projection ber about its longitudinal axis.
E. Cabinet projection A. Inertia
21. It is a good habit in the engineering lab to B. Torque
C. Force
A. Clean up the work area, unplug electri- D. Work
cal tools, put materials and tools away
B. Engage in horseplay and ignore in- 26. if a constant section beam is subjected to
structions uniform bending throughout, it bends as

C. Design your own projects that have A. spherick

nothing to do with the activity of the day B. circular arc
D. Work ahead and try to finish before the C. catenary
instructor
D. parabolic arc
E. Smell and taste the contents of un-
marked containers 27. The moment of inertia of a sphere is
A. the same as circle
22. A projecting structure supported only at
one end, like a shelf bracket or a diving B. the same as sphere rotating on differ-
board is known as a: ent axis
A. Bridge Bracket C. the same as circle in the same axis
B. Bridge Board D. none of the choices
C. Load Support 28. What is the force that squeezes materials
D. Cantilever together?

23. Three types of basic bridges are: A. compression

A. Beam, Arch and Suspension B. tension

B. Golden Gate, Hudson and Chatta- C. shear

hoochie D. torsion

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1023

29. A ductile material may not meet a failure if E. Diagonal

it has been tested for the theories of fail-
ure 34. What are the components of a beam

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bridge?
A. Firstly Maximum Principal Theory
A. arches and buttresses
B. Secondly Maximum Principal Strain
Theory B. just an arch
C. Thirdly Maximum principal strain en- C. just a deck
ergy theory D. columns and beams
D. None
35. In SolidWorks, once you have opened a
30. What is tension? new part, selected Sketch mode, and cho-
sen a plane to sketch in, what should take
A. a sliding force
first priority in your 2-D drawing?
B. a twisting force
A. The shape of the drawing
C. a squeezing force
B. The dimensions of the drawing
D. a pulling force
C. Both characteristics of a sketch are
31. In structural engineering, to make a rect- equally important and should be done si-
angular frame more stable by attaching a multaneously
thin sheet of material across the frame D. none of above
A. Diaphragming
36. Stresses arising when a change in temper-
B. Triangulation ature affects the original length of a body
C. Trussing A. thermal
D. Shelling B. hydraulic
E. Stabilizing C. temperature
32. During this period of history there was D. humidity
an emphasis on strength of materials (esp.
37. A group of parts that are connected and
metals), mathematical theories, develop-
form one unit.
ment of the fine arts. What period of his-
tory was this? A. Assembly
A. Information Age B. Translation
B. Medieval Age C. Rotation
C. Golden Age D. Extrusion
D. Renaissance Age 38. is freehand drawing, which is done
33. A horizontal beam which is only supported without the use of drafting equipment.
at one end is called a A. Board drafting
A. Cantilever B. Sketching
B. Truss C. Dodging
C. Tie D. CAD
D. Strut E. Brainstorming

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1024

39. What is an AED and what is it used for? D. User can include geometric properties
A. Applied EpiPen Delimiter and it can be that reflect his/her design intent
used on a patient having an asthmatic at- E. All of the above
tack
43. What are the components of a suspension
B. Autonomous Epileptic Detainer and it bridge?
can be used to stop a seizure
A. columns and beams
C. Automatic Electronic Defibrillator and
B. arches

NARAYAN CHANGDER
it can be used to record a patient’s heart-
beat C. towers, cables, a deck, and anchors
D. Automatic External Defibrillator and it D. a deck
can be used in the event of a heart attack
44. Any of a set of physical properties whose
E. None of these values determine the characteristics or be-
havior of something.
40. The side of an object is typically se-
lected as the FRONT side in its multiview A. Parameters
drawing. B. Materials
A. largest C. Charts
B. flattest D. Data
C. most asymmetrical 45. Which of the following assumptions is
D. most interesting or detailed false for torsion theory in axis symmetric
E. most expensive sections?
A. circular section remains circular after
41. In SolidWorks, parameters, dimensions, twisting
and relationships allow the user to con-
trol intent, which is how you want B. the materials are homogenous and
the model to behave when modifications isotropic
become necessary. C. straight radial lines in a traverse sec-
tion deformed after twisting
A. design
D. all of these
B. model
C. shape 46. The distance between two bridge supports,
whether they are columns, towers or the
D. extrusion
wall of a canyon is called:
E. fillet
A. Truss
42. What are some benefits of parametric B. Load
modeling in SolidWorks?
C. Force
A. Data can be reused D. Span
B. Designer can update entire system af-
ter changing one parameter 47. In structural engineering, the working load
equals
C. Engineers can quickly evaluate design
variations and alternatives for best solu- A. Live load minus dead load
tion B. Dead load times environmental load

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1025

C. Total load divided by span length C. 108π N/cm

D. Tensile forces plus compressive forces D. 48π N/cm

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

E. Dead load plus live load
53. Shear stress of a shaft depends on
48. The ability to resist collapse and defor- A. moments, torque and inner radius
mation; characteristic of a structure that
is able to carry a realistic load with- B. moments, torque and outer radius
out collapsing or deforming significantly is C. moments, strain and outer radius
known as:
D. torque and outer radius
A. Uniform
B. Stability 54. Which of the following situations are im-
portant enough that corrective actions
C. Gravity should be taken?
D. Viscosity
A. Electrical tools whose cords are frayed
49. What is the force that stretches a material or show bare wires
apart? B. Water on the floor that could pose a
A. compression slipping hazard
B. tension C. Unattended power tool left in the “ON”
position
C. shear
D. torsion D. A classmate is behaving in a way that
is unsafe to himself, herself, or others
50. Which set of dimensioning standards do E. All of the above
most American engineering companies con-
form to? 55. According to the US Department of Labor,
A. ANSI make up the majority of general work-
place accidents. Most of these incidents
B. ISO
are preventable.
C. Neither of these
A. Electrical shocks
D. none of above
B. Slips, trips, and falls
51. A force which acts to shorten the thing it C. Repetitive-motion injuries
is acting on is called:
D. Improper lifting techniques
A. Tension
E. Blunt force trauma
B. Compression
C. Gravity 56. What force or forces help a suspension
D. Motion bridge support both its live and dead
loads?
52. Calculate the torque which a shaft of 3
A. shear
cm diameter safely transmit if the shear
stress is 48N/cm2 B. compression only
A. 27π N/cm C. tension only
B. 81π N/cm D. compression and tension

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1026

57. What is the weight of the structure itself 62. The part of the bridge for traffic.
(columns, beams, nuts, bolts) called? A. deck
A. dead load B. foundation
B. live load C. cables
C. critical load D. towers
D. wind load 63. What can be used in an isometric sketch
to show features that are hidden from

NARAYAN CHANGDER
58. Assembly document and provide in-
structions for how individual parts should view?
be joined to form the final assembly. A. Auxiliary lines
A. parts list B. Center lines
B. drawings C. Extension lines
C. assemblies D. Hidden lines

D. tables E. Dimension lines

64. How power transmission associated to an-
59. Under complex loading, theories of elastic
gular velocity
failure establishes the (a) (b) (c) Both (a)
& (b) A. angular velocity increases directly to
power transmission
A. Margin of failure
B. power transmission independent on
B. Margin of safety velocity
C. both margins of failure and safety C. power transmission is inversely re-
D. none of above lated to velocity
D. these two variables has no relation
60. In SolidWorks, allows the user move a
2-D object about an axis, for 360◦ or less, 65. The selection of materials is primarily dic-
as long as there is no overlap. tated by which of the following factors:
A. Extrude A. Cost
B. Rotate B. Manufacturability
C. Loft C. Sustainability
D. Sweep D. Safety of the material
E. None of the above E. All of the above

61. What type of bridge is the Firth of Forth 66. Which of the following is NOT a basic op-
bridge in Queensferry, Scotland? eration when applying CSG (Constructive
Solid Geometry) approach to CAD model-
A. Beam ing?
B. Cable-stayed A. Join
C. Cantilever B. Cut
D. Arch C. Intersect
E. Suspension D. Delete

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1027

67. If someone appears to be unresponsive, 72. Which type of external forces do structural
medical responders should squares seem to handle the best?

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A. Call 911 and get the PPE A. Axial loads
B. Call the office and Google “CPR” B. Lateral compression
C. Shake him/her harder to obtain a re- C. Shear at opposite corners
sponse D. Lateral tension
D. Call a “Code Yellow” E. Compression at opposite corners
E. Call 911 and get the AED
73. Careful notetaking in your engineering
68. Finding allowable stress after the applica- notebook is helpful
tion of theories of failure ensures A. To go back and identify an error in your
A. Lapses in design calculations
B. Soundness of design B. To estimate the time required for a
similar project in the future
C. breakage of material
C. To recall important steps or discover-
D. both soundness and lapses in design
ies you may have forgotten
69. A property of matter in which the size of a D. To prove when an idea originated
sample does not affect its value, is a mea- E. All of the above
sure of an object’s mass per unit of volume
commonly expressed in units of grams per 74. Under complex loading, theories of elastic
milliliter and kilograms per liter. failures ensure
A. Composites A. stability
B. Viscosity B. instability
C. Physical properties C. both stability and instability
D. Density D. fracture

70. What terms describe the limitations in an 75. Winds, ice storms, hurricanes/typhoons,
engineering design and how success will earthquakes, In structural engineering,
be defined? these are examples of
A. considerations and complications A. Weather load
B. constraints and criteria B. Natural disasters
C. prototype and refinements C. Worst-case scenarios
D. considerations and goals D. Working load
E. Environmental load
71. The Brooklyn Bridge and the San Francisco
Golden Gate Bridge are examples of what 76. All entries in an engineering notebook
types of bridges? should be completed in
A. Beam Bridge A. #2 Pencil
B. Arch Bridge B. Erasable Ink
C. Suspension Bridge C. Permanent Ink
D. Truss Bridge D. Your Chromebook

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1028

77. Stages a product goes through from con- 82. What makes a strong and stable struc-
cept and use to eventual withdrawal from ture?
the marketplace. A. wide base
A. Product life cycle B. triangles
B. Life Cycle Assessment C. decreasing perimeter as structural
C. Raw materials height inreases
D. Recycling D. all of these

NARAYAN CHANGDER
83. Theories of elastic failure help to recognize
78. What do the letters CAD mean in engineer-
ing? A. weakness of materials
A. computer aided design B. strength of materials
B. computer artisitc drawing C. properties of materials

C. computer assisted development D. both strength and weakness of materi-

als
D. computer aided dimensioning
84. What is torsion
79. Which type of truss member is a diagonal A. a squeezing force
that combats tensile forces?
B. A twisting force
A. Strut
C. a sliding force
B. Tie
D. a pulling force
C. Upper Chord
85. What is meant by saying that a 2-D shape
D. Lower Chord is stable?
80. In SolidWorks, which keyboard shortcut A. It resists deforming.
brings up the Orientation menu, which is B. Its resists oxidation.
helpful for changing the perspective from
C. It belongs in a barn.
which you are viewing the object?
D. It is unbreakable.
A. Enter key
E. It is neither an acid nor a base.
B. Spacebar
C. Esc 86. In SolidWorks, “associativity of parts, as-
semblies, and drawings” means
D. Control + Alt + Delete
A. All file types should be saved in the
E. NumLock same folder.

81. To spread forces out over a greater area, B. Changes in one place are automati-
so that no one spot has to bear the brunt cally propagated to associated files.
of the concentrated force is: C. No other programs can open Solid-
Works parts, drawings, or assemblies.
A. Transfer
D. Microsoft Windows will associate
B. Dissipate
*.sldprt files with the SolidWorks soft-
C. Buckling ware.
D. Snapping E. None of the above.

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1029

87. In a horizontal beam, the more material 92. While sketching in Solidworks, which key-
that is in place away from the axis, the board shortcut will bring the sketch plane
better the beam will do at resisting defor- into a perpendicular viewpoint?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

mation A. “F” key
A. Stress
B. Control + “8”
B. Neutral
C. Windows + “L”
C. Axial
D. Control + “7”
D. Lateral
E. None of the above
E. Shearing
93. What is meant by saying that a 2-D shape
88. Maximum principal strain theory is also is strong?
called as
A. It resists deforming.
A. St Venit’s theory
B. Its resists breaking.
B. Haigh theory
C. It smells bad.
C. St.Venant’s theory
D. It is very flexible.
D. none of above
E. It can handle massive tensile forces.
89. A rigid frame composed of short, straight
pieces joined to form a series of triangles 94. What is shear?
or other stable shapes is called a: A. a sliding force, or opposition in differ-
A. Pier ent planes
B. Beam B. a twisting force
C. Truss C. a squeezing force that crushes
D. Bridge D. a pulling force that separates

90. What is a dead load? 95. Under complex or simple loading, strain en-
A. The weight of anything not perma- ergy is
nently attached to the structure. A. External work done
B. Cars B. Internal work done
C. The weight of the structure itself. C. either internal or external
D. People D. neither internal or external
91. Any of various opaque, fusible, ductile, 96. Which type structure would resist shear
and typically lustrous substances that are forces at opposite corners the best?
good conductors of electricity and heat.
A. A square with long sides
A. Metals
B. A rectangle with no diagonal member
B. Ceramics
C. A lattice of squares, where every one
C. Plastics has been triangulated
D. Polymers D. A square with medium sides and no re-
E. Composites inforcement

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7.9 Deflection and Theories of Failure 1030

97. In a 3rd Angle projection, the plane upon C. it could not support its live load
which a view is projected is D. the bridge was hit by wind
A. Beyond the viewer’s eye and the object
102. What force helps an arch bridge support
B. Between the viewer’s eye and the ob- its live and dead loads?
ject
A. shear
C. Tangent to the object itself B. tension
D. Oblique, causing circular objects to ap- C. compression

NARAYAN CHANGDER
pear as ovals
D. torsion
E. Above and to the right of the object
103. What is a live load?
98. “Isometric” means
A. the deck
A. Equal earth B. The weight of anything not perma-
B. Phone home nently attached to the structure.
C. 120◦ each way C. The weight of the structure.
D. Equal measure D. Cables and Towers
E. Equal geometry 104. All reinforced concrete buildings are most
of times:
99. If SolidWorks you can rotate a model by
moving the mouse while holding down the A. Statically determinate
middle mouse button, or you can B. statically indeterminate
A. Use PageUp and PageDown C. mixtured
B. Use the arrow keys D. ustable
C. Click left mouse or right mouse for 105. This bridge is named after an ancient civ-
plus or minus 30◦ of rotation per click ilization who also used the same design in
D. Control + “7” or Control + “8” their coliseums.
E. NumLock A. Greek Suspension Bridge
B. Roman Arch Bridge
100. Where should us number the pages on the
C. Wakanda Vibranium Bridge
engineering notebook?
D. Egyptian Pyramid Bridge
A. Upper Right Corner of each page
B. Upper Left Corner of each page 106. Structural analysis can help answer
which of the following questions:
C. Upper Outer Corner of each page
A. How do the parts interact?
D. Upper Middle of each page
B. What are the good and bad features of
101. Bridge A collapsed because there was too the product?
much traffic on the bridge. The bridge col- C. What has caused the product to suc-
lapsed due because ceed or fail?
A. it could not support its dead load D. What are the materials? Are they ap-
B. it could not support its live & dead propriate?
loads E. All of the above

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 7.10 Thin & Thick Walled Pressure Vessels 1031

107. The smallest unit on a set of classroom 112. What are the three primary file types you
dial calipers is can create with SolidWorks?

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A. Millimeters A. Documents, spreadsheets, and
B. Centimeters databases.
C. Inches B. Parts, assemblies, and catalogs
D. Sixteenths of an inch C. Parts, assemblies, and drawings.
E. Thousandths of an inch D. Simulations, slideshows, and sketches
108. A big part of safety workplace safety is E. Files, folders, and collections.
wearing proper PPE. PPE stands for:
113. What kind of engineer designs bridges?
A. Practical Protection Equipment
A. biomedical engineer
B. Personal Protective Equipment
B. environmental engineer
C. Property Protection Equipment
D. Pulmonary Protective Equipment C. structural engineer
D. computer engineer
109. What do you call the pedestrians, vehi-
cles, cargo, etc. that a bridge is intended 114. There are two beams of equal length L
to accommodate? and a load P is acting on centre of both
A. Live load beams. One of them is simply supported
B. Dead load at both ends while the other one is fixed
at both ends. Deflection of centre of sim-
C. Working load ply supported beam will be times that
D. Suspension of defection of centre of fixed beam.
E. None of these A. 1
110. Bridge B collapsed under its own weight. B. 2
What cause the collapse? C. 3
A. the live load D. 4
B. the environmental load
115. Why does the Engineering Notebook
C. too much traffic on the bridge
have to be in pen or permanent ink?
D. the dead load
A. Because the engineering notebook can
111. If a close coiled helical spring absorbs 30 be used during legal proceedings during a
N-mm of energy while extending by 5-mm, patent dispute.
its stiffness is
B. Because pencil is for middle and ele-
A. 2 mentary school.
B. 4 C. You should NOT use a pen.
C. 2.4 D. Because it makes you look more pro-
D. 10 fessional.

7.10 Thin & Thick Walled Pressure Vessels

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7.10 Thin & Thick Walled Pressure Vessels 1032

1. For a cylinder subjected to internal pres- 7. Which blood vessels take blood TO the
sure only heart?
A. Hoop stress is tensile A. Veins
B. Hoop stress is compressive B. Arteries
C. Radial stress is tensile C. Capillaries
D. radial Stress is compressive D. none of above
8. Main components of vessel are

NARAYAN CHANGDER
2. Joint to increase or decrease the diameter
of a cylinder A. HeadNozzlePRVShell
A. Longitudinal joint B. HeadNozzle PRVSupport
B. Circumferential joint C. Shell NozzleSupportHead
C. Radial joint D. ShellNozzleSupportPRV
D. none of above 9. Carry blood toward heart; mostly oxygen-
3. A thin cylinder subjected to internal fluid poor
pressure is designed based on A. Arteries
A. Hoop Stress B. Veins
B. Longitudinal stress C. Capillaries
C. Shear stress D. none of above
D. Radial stress 10. Sum of radial and hoop stress at any radial
distance in a thick cylinder is
4. How many blood vessel types do humans
have? A. Positive
A. 4 B. Negative
B. 5 C. Constant
C. 3 D. Zero
D. 2 11. Choose the correct answer of the design
criteria for the selection of type of vessel
5. Mention standard for pressure vessels
A. Opertaing temperature and pressure
A. ASME Section VIII Div.1 Div.2 & Div.3
B. Function and location of the vessel
B. Pertamina Standard
C. Nature of fluid
C. Standard PGN
D. All of these
D. Standard Indonesia
12. A thin cylinder of unit length thickness t
6. Which of the following is NOT a type of and radius r subjected to internal pressure
blood vessel? p . What is the circumferential stress
A. Artery A. Pr/2Et
B. Capillary B. Pr/2t
C. Vein C. Pr/t
D. Ventricle D. 2pr/t

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7.10 Thin & Thick Walled Pressure Vessels 1033

13. Where is the location of the Mechanical En- 18. The concept of the pressure vessel was
gineering Department of Andalas Univer- first introduced in year by
sity?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. 1495Leonardo Da Vinci
A. Near Unand Polytechnic B. 1496Leonardi Da Vinci
B. Padang, West Sumatra Province C. 1496Leonardo Da Vinci
C. Southeast Asia D. 1497Leonardo Da Vinci
D. Stone is the answer e 19. Which is the smallest of the 3 blood ves-
sels?
14. For the analysis. Of thick cylinders the the-
ory applicable is A. Veins
B. Arteries
A. Lames theory
C. Capillaries
B. Rankines
D. none of above
C. Poisson
20. Hoop stress is given by
D. Coulombs
A. PD/2t
15. Choose the correct answer for the classifi- B. PD/4t
cation of pressure vessels based on wall
C. PD/8t
thickness
D. none of above
A. Thin wall thickness
B. Thick wall thickness 21. How many types of head pressure ves-
sels?
C. Both a and b
A. 3
D. None of these
B. 5
16. A thin cylinder fails by C. 7
A. Failure of circumferential joint and cor- D. 9
responding failure of end plates E. Anyway a lot
B. Failure of longitudinal joint and corre- 22. What is HMM which is a student organiza-
sponding failure of cylinder surface tion in the Unand Mechanical Engineering
C. Failure of circumferential joint and cor- Department?
responding failure of cylinder surface A. Millennial Human Association
D. Failure of longitudinal joint and corre- B. Engine set
sponding failure of end plates C. Machine Student Association
17. Safety valve can protect the vessel from D. Millennial Student Association
23. What helps prevent High Blood Pressure?
A. Leakage A. Physical Excersise
B. Blockage B. Stress Management
C. Overpressure C. All of the Above
D. Overload D. Low Sodium Diets

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7.10 Thin & Thick Walled Pressure Vessels 1034

24. Pressure exerted on the walls of the blood C. Diving cylinders

vessels is termed
D. All of these
A. Hypertension
B. Vesicular pressure 30. Human blood vessels are

C. Blood Pressure A. artries, capillaries, and atria

D. Heart pressure B. ventricles, atria and pulmonary veins
C. capillaries, artries, and veins

NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. Transfer heat between two or more fluids
is called D. veins, artries, and aorta
A. Regulator
31. Things to consider when making pressure
B. Heat exchanger vessel
C. Turbine A. SizeShapeMaterial
D. Column B. Shape MaterialSafety valves
26. For a thin cylinder diameter is C. SizeSafety ValvesNozzle
A. Greater than or equal to 20t D. MaterialNozzleSize
B. Less than 20 t
32. Why is the banana compote delicious?
C. Greater than or equal to 10 t
A. Because of delicious
D. Less than 10 t
B. Made by Amak in Kampuang
27. Pressure Vessel are used in 3 main indus-
tries; C. The name is just a banana compote

A. Oil & GasAlliedEnergy D. To do it

B. Oil & GasChemicalEnergy E. Choose Ajo All Answers Must Be True
C. Oil & GasFertilizerPetroleum
33. For a thick cylinder when only external
D. Oil & GasFertilizerPharmaceutical pressure acts

28. Home stress in a thin spherical vessel is A. Hoop stress maximum at inner radius
of that in a cylindrical vessel when B. Hoop trust minimum at outer radius
both are subjected to same internal fluid
pressure C. Hoop stress and radial stress both are
compressive
A. Half
D. Hoop stress is tensile and radial stress
B. Twice
is compressive
C. Equal
D. 4 times 34. Types of Pressure Vessels are
A. Horizontal
29. Choose the correct answer for the uses of
pressure vessels B. Vertical
A. Industrial compressed air receivers C. Horizontal & Vertical
B. Domestic hot water storage tanks D. Sadoalah e United

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7.10 Thin & Thick Walled Pressure Vessels 1035

35. Select 3 common type of pressure vessel C. Radial joint

base on their geometry
D. none of above

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A. Cylindrical
B. Spherical 41. A closed container for holding liquid or gas
under high pressure is known as
C. Rectangular
A. Tank
D. Pyramid
B. Receptacle
36. The thickest and strongest blood vessel is
the C. Cask

A. vein D. Vessel
B. artery 42. Carry blood away from heart; mostly
C. capillary oxygen-rich
D. both veins and capillaries A. Arteries
37. Choose the correct answer for the classifi- B. Veins
cation of pressure vessels based on design C. Capillaries
pressure
D. none of above
A. Low pressure vessel
B. Medium pressure vessel 43. What are the uses of pressure vessels?
C. High pressure vessel A. A forum for channeling the aspirations
D. All of these of the fluid talent
B. Fluid cooking place
38. What is Nde?
A. Saving the afterlife C. Fluid storage container

B. Near Death Experience D. Fluid matchmaking place

C. Non Destructive Examination 44. which of the blood vessels do you think
D. Nan is silent have greatest blood pressure

39. are the large, pressurized containers A. veins

heated to high temperature, cylindrical in B. capillaries
shape & hold items that are sealed.
C. atria
A. Pneumatic reservoir
D. arteries
B. Air receiver
C. Nuclear reactor 45. Shear strain in case of a thin spherical pres-
sure vessel is
D. Autoclaves
A. Tensile
40. Joint which give sufficient length by join-
ing two or more cylinders B. Compressive
A. Longitudinal joint C. Constant
B. Circumferential joint D. Zero

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7.10 Thin & Thick Walled Pressure Vessels 1036

46. Variation of hoop stress across the thick- 51. Nature of hoop stress
ness of a thick cylinder A. Tensile
A. Linear B. Compressive
B. Uniform C. Either tensile or compressive
C. Parabolic D. Shear stress
D. Hyperbolic
52. Choose the correct answer for the ASME

NARAYAN CHANGDER
47. is an enclosed vessel that is primarily codes used for pressure vessels under
used to heat liquids. BPVCsection II
A. Heat Exchanger A. Ferrous material specifications
B. Boiler B. Non-ferrous material specifications

C. Reactor C. Specifications for welding rods

D. Column D. All of these

53. Longitudinal stress is of hoop stress

48. Choose the correct answer for the classifi-
cation of pressure vessels based on pres- A. Half
surebearing situation B. Equal
A. Internal pressure vessels C. Twice
B. External pressure vessels D. Four times
C. Both a and b
54. Who is the famous artist domain Minang?
D. None of these
A. Ed Sheeran
49. A thin cylindrical tube with closed ends B. Alan Walker
is subjected toLongitudinal stress = 14 C. David Beckham
n/mm2Hoop stress = 2Shearing stress =
8The max shearing stress is D. It buses

A. 14 55. What are the main parts of the pressure

B. 12 vessel?
A. Head, Shell, Nozzle, Support & Acces-
C. 10
sories
D. 8
B. Head, Arm, Suits, Waist, Legs
50. Select correct statement about a thick C. Head, Neck, Heart, Liver, Lungs
cylinder
D. All is true
A. Provided when internal or external
pressure is high 56. Nature of longitudinal stress
B. Radial stresses are considered A. Tensile
C. Hoop stress varies along the thickness B. Compressive

D. Analysis of thick cylinder is based on C. Either tensile or compressive

lami’s theoty D. Shear stress

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 7.11 Struts and Columns 1037

7.11 Struts and Columns

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1. A vertical column has two moments of in- 6. If the lid on a column is increased to a value
ertia (ie.Ixx and Iyy).The column will tend that on its removal the deflection remains,
to buckle in the direction of the the load is known as
A. Axis of load A. Critical load
B. Perpendicular to the axis of load B. Crippling load
C. Minimum moment of inertia C. Buckling load
D. Maximum moment of inertia D. All of these

2. Buckling load for a given column depends 7. Eulers formula is not valid for mild steel
upon columns when slenderness ratio is
A. Length of column only A. More than 100
B. Least lateral dimension only B. Less than 100
C. Both length and least lateral dimen- C. Less than 80
sion
D. More than 80
D. None of the above
8. Ratio of buckling load of a column fixed at
3. A column that fails due to direct stress is both ends to that of a column fixed at one
end and free at other end is
A. Short column
A. 2
B. Long column
B. 4
C. Medium column
C. 8
D. Slender column
D. 16
4. Inclined member carrying compressive
loads 9. Failing of a very long column is essentially
by
A. Post
A. A.Crushing
B. Stanchion
B. B.Buckling
C. Strut
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Column
D. None
5. Buckling load of a long column given by Eu-
ler’s formula does not depend on 10. Euler’s formula is valid for
A. Elastic property of material A. Short columns
B. Strength of column material B. Long columns
C. Cross sectional properties C. Both short and long columns
D. The end conditions D. None

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7.11 Struts and Columns 1038

11. The allowable stress in long column can be B. Long column

increased by increasing the C. Medium column
A. Slenderness ratio D. Composite column
B. Length of column
17. Load carrying capacity of a column is di-
C. Radius of gyration rectly proportional to
D. Eccentricity A. L2
B. Slenderness ratio

NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of
A. Length of column to radius of gyration C. (Slenderness ratio)−1
B. Effective length of column to least ra- D. Area
dius of gyration 18. When both ends of a column are fixed, the
C. Effective length of column to least mo- crippling load is P.If one end of the column
ment of inertia is made free, the value of crippling load
will be changed to
D. Length of column to least radius of gy-
ration A. P/16
B. P/4
13. In hand formula
C. P/2
A. Crushing load is only considered
D. 4P
B. Buckling load is only considered
C. Both crushing and buckling load is con- 19. Compression member always tends to
sidered buckle in the direction of

D. Buckling load is not considered A. Vertical axis

B. Horizontal axis
14. The buckling load for a column pinned at
C. Minimum cross section
both ends is 10KN.If the ends are fixed,
the buckling load changes to D. Least radius of gyration
A. 40 KN 20. A steel rod 2m long and 40mm in diameter
B. 2.5 KN is used as a column with one end fixed and
the other end free.The crippling load bt Eu-
C. 5 KN
lers formula is? Take EI is 8x109 N/mm2
D. 20 KN A. 4.93 KN
15. Effective length of two ends hinged B. 5 KN
columns is C. 4.39 KN
A. L D. 2.80 KN
B. 2L
21. When both ends of a column are fixed, the
C. 3L effective length is?
D. 4L A. Half it’s length
16. A column whose slenderness ratio is B. Twice its length
greater than 120 is known as C. Its own length
A. Short column D. One fourth of its length

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7.11 Struts and Columns 1039

22. Slenderness ratio have dimensions of 28. A column is said to have failed when it
A. cm reaches

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. cm−1 A. Unstable equilibrium

C. Dimensionless quantity B. Stable equilibrium

C. Neutral equilibrium
D. none of above
D. Plastic equilibrium
23. In case of eccentrically loaded struts,
is preferred 29. The ratio of length of column to the mini-
mum radius of gyration of cross sectional
A. Hollow section
area of column is known as
B. Solid section
A. Slenderness ratio
C. Composite section
B. Buckling ratio
D. Reinforced section C. Crippling ratio
24. In Euler’s formula D. Compressive ratio
A. Crushing load is considered 30. The compression members always tend to
B. Buckling load is only considered buckle in the direction of
C. Both crushing and buckling loads are A. Axis load
considered B. Perpendicular to the axis of load
D. Buckling load is not considered C. Minimum cross section
25. If the length of a column is doubled, the D. Least radius of gyration
critical load becomes
31. Rankine formula holds good for
A. 1/2 of the original value
A. Short column
B. 1/4 of the original value B. Long column
C. 1/8 of the original value C. Medium column
D. 1/16 of the original value D. Both short and long column
26. Practical effective length of a column with 32. Limit of eccentricity for rectangular section
one end fixed and other hinged is of bed is
A. 0.707L A. d/6
B. 0.5L B. d/8
C. 0.8L C. d/3
D. L D. d/12
27. Effective length of two ends fixed column 33. Limit of eccentricity for circular section of
is diameter d is
A. 2L A. d/6
B. L/2 B. d/8
C. L/4 C. d/12
D. L/3 D. d/3

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7.11 Struts and Columns 1040

34. A column is known as medium size if it’s C. Crushing

slenderness ratio is between D. Crippling
A. 160 & 180
40. Rankines theory of columns considers?
B. 32 & 120
A. Both buckling and crushing
C. 20 & 32
B. Only buckling
D. 120 & 160
C. Only crushing

NARAYAN CHANGDER
35. Kern of a column with rectangular cross
D. Neither buckling nor crushing
section is the shape of
A. Diamond 41. The buckling load in steel column is
B. Circular A. Related to length
C. Trapezoidal B. Directly proportional to slenderness
ratio
D. Square
C. Inversely proportional to slenderness
36. A column with maximum equivalent length ratio
has
D. Non linearity of slenderness ratio
A. Both ends fixed
42. For long columns, the value of buckling
B. Both ends hinged
load is Crushing load
C. One end fixed and other end hinged
A. Less than
D. One end fixed and other end free
B. More than
37. The maximum stress intensity at the base C. Equal to
of square column of area A and width b
D. none of above
subjected to load W at eccentricity e is
given by 43. A long column has maximum crippling load
A. W/A(1-6e/b) when its
B. W/A(1+6e/b) A. Both ends are hinged
C. W/b(1+6e/b) B. Both ends are fixed
D. W/b(1+6e/A) C. One end is fixed and the other end is
hinged
38. Effective length of column is basically
D. One end is fixed and other end is
A. A.the distance between the inflation hinged
points
B. B. Distance between hinges, if any 44. Slenderness ratio of a 5m long column
hinged at both ends and having a circular
C. Both A and B cross-section with diameter 160mm is
D. None of the above A. 31.25
39. Short columns fail by B. 62.5
A. Buckling C. 125
B. Bending D. 100

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 7.12 Helical Springs 1041

7.12 Helical Springs

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1. The variety of spring configurations can be force and doesn’t return to its original
classified under shape when the distorting force is re-
A. Three main types moved
B. Six main types C. Can be installed and disassembled al-
most an infinite amount of time and has
C. Five main types
the same strength as un threaded fas-
D. Four main types tener
2. What modifications can be made to the D. none of above
ends of the springs?
A. The ends can be grounded flat so com- 5. A leaf spring is a flat beam designed to
pression can be evenly applied to the deflect under load;
spring, or the ends can be shaped into A. one end is usually firmly anchored,
hooks or eyes so that tension can be ap- while the other is linked by a moveable
plied. shackle to the moving machine part.
B. The ends can be grounded flat so com- B. it is what usually comes to mind when
pression can be unevenly applied to the you talk of springs.
spring, or the ends can be shaped into
hooks or eyes so that torsion can be ap- C. Common applications include automo-
plied. tive suspension (’coil over shocks, en-
gine valve control and supplying actuating
C. The ends can be flared at a 38 degree
force in a clutch.
to be fastened to a hose fitting.
D. none of above
D. none of above
3. The helical spring type is most commonly 6. What are the main varieties of Spring?
seen in, A. Flat / Leaf, Helical, Spiral, Torsion and
A. automotive rear suspension Disk
B. undercarriage legs of some light air- B. Compression, Torsion, Tension
craft
C. Retention, Shock Absorption, Force
C. automotive suspension (’coil over Measurement, Counterbalance
shocks, engine valve control and supply-
ing actuating force in a clutch D. none of above
D. This is the spring providing motive en- 7. What can be done to a flat spiral spring?
ergy in clocks and clockwork engines.
A. It can be force at a tangent to its axis,
4. What are the characteristics of a spring? that it can be wound up to close the space
A. An elastic machine component which between its coils.
can be pressed, stretched or twisted by a B. It can be used wound up and put in a
force and the return to its original shape clock for clockwork engines.
when the distorting force is removed
C. Used to spring load children toys.
B. An elastic machine component which
can be bent, fatigues or annealed by a D. none of above

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7.12 Helical Springs 1042

8. What are alloying elements that can be 12. Additional alloying elements are used in
used in spring steel? spring steel include:
A. Manganese, Chromium, Silicon, Vana- A. Manganese
dium, Molybdenum B. Chromium
B. Magnesium, Chromium, Nickel, Zinc, C. Silicon
Molybdenum
D. Vanadium
C. Copper, Manganese, Silicon, Magne-
E. Molybdenum

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sium, Zinc
D. none of above 13. The helical coil spring is designed to act un-
der
9. What forces can be applied to a leaf spring A. compression, or tension, rarely both,
and what mechanical advantage does the which would be detrimental to the spring’s
it have? life.
A. Compression and Tension, a large B. compression, and tension, compres-
amount of energy can be absorbed in a sion, or tension, always both, which can
small space. be detrimental to the spring’s life.
B. Compression and Tension, a small C. Elasticity, or tension, always both,
amount of energy can be absorbed in a which can be detrimental to the spring’s
small space. life.
C. Compression and Torsion, a large D. none of above
amount of energy can be absorbed in a
small space. 14. What forces can the Conical Spiral Spring
be subjected to?
D. none of above
A. Compressed, Stretched, and reacts to
10. Which of the following are varieties of forces at right angle to its axis.
springs
B. Compressed, Torsion and forces di-
A. flat or leaf rectly imposed on the spring.
B. helical C. X-Force
C. spiral D. none of above
D. torsion 15. Spring index is
E. disk A. ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
11. What is the advantages of leaf springs B. load required to produce unit deflec-
tion
A. Loads can be applied in either tension
or compression (push or pull) ; this is one C. its capability of storing energy
of the main advantages of the design, D. indication of quality of spring
B. relatively large amount of energy the 16. A spring is used in a mechanism to exert
spring can absorb in a small space. force, store, or to absorb energy. What
C. essentially a wire or bar wound into a some familiar uses for springs?
helix. A. Supply motive power, as a counterbal-
D. shaped into hooks or eyes so that ten- ance, as a shock absorber, vibration con-
sion can be applied. trol, force measurement, retention

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7.12 Helical Springs 1043

B. Supply motion power, as a counterbal- C. Tension and Compression simultane-

ance, to generate exponential exertion, vi- ously
bration control, force measurement, re-

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D. none of above
tention
C. Used in car suspension, trampolines, 21. What materials are used to create
pen mechanisms and clock mechanisms springs?

D. none of above A. Alloy steel/spring steel, but rubber

and plastic can be used.
17. The helical spring B. Alloy steel/spring steel, Neoprene and
A. this is probably the most common Buta-N
spring type; it is what usually comes to C. Only alloy steel/spring steel
mind when you talk of springs.
D. none of above
B. The flat spiral can absorb force at a
tangent to its axis; that is, it can be wound 22. What is the advantage of a spiral spring?
up to close the space between its coils. A. The ability to be deflected in a combi-
C. essentially a shaft of uniform cross- nation of ways.
section that stores energy when twisted. B. The ability to be coiled around a shank.
C. The ability to spring down the stairs.
D. none of above
D. none of above
18. Although springs are normally made in an
alloy of steel, often termed spring steel, 23. The stress concentrations in the centre of
materials such as may be used. the spring can be combated by

A. rubber A. adding more leads or by having a ‘dia-

mond ‘ design
B. plastic
B. modifying or grounding flat so com-
C. Wood pression can be evenly applied
D. Glass C. compressing or stretching,
19. The helical spring is sometimes termed a D. winding up to close the space between
its coils.
A. Coil spring 24. If two springs are in parallel then their
B. Leaf spring overall stiffness will be
C. Compressed spring A. half

D. Engine spring B. same

C. double
20. What kind of forces can helical springs be
subjected to? D. unpredictable

A. Tension, Compression, but rarely both, 25. What are the categories for a Compression
which would be detrimental to the springs Spring?
life. A. Cylindrical/Straight, Conical/Tapered,
B. Tension, Compression Barrel/Convex, Hourglass/Concave

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7.12 Helical Springs 1044

B. Cylindrical/Straight, Conical/Tapered, A. Are used when there is not enough

Barrel/Concave, Hourglass/Convex room for a cylindrical spring and can be
C. Hardness, Strength and Elasticity made so that the smaller coils telescope
down into the larger coils. They are sym-
D. none of above metrical apposed to being tapered.
26. Springs are used B. Are used when there is not enough
room for a cylindrical spring and can be
A. to absorb shocks and vibrations made so that the smaller coils telescope

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. to store and release energy down into the larger coils.
C. to measure force C. Are used when there is not enough
room for a leaf spring and can be made
D. for any of the above functions
so that the smaller coils telescope down
27. What are the terms used in spring con- into the larger coils. They are symmetri-
struction? cal apposed to being tapered.
A. Coils, Free Length, Ground Section, D. none of above
Inside Diameter, Length Inside Hooks,
30. The stiffness of spring is,
Length Over Coil, Mean Diameter, Outside
Diameter, Pitch, Wire Diameter A. deflection per unit of axial force
B. Coils, Full Length, Ground Section, In- B. force per unit cross-sectional area of
side Diameter, Hook Diameter, Length spring
Over Coil, Mean Diameter, Outside Diam- C. ratio of mean coil diameter to wire di-
eter, Pitch, Wire Diameter ameter
C. Ductility, Strength, Tension, Compres- D. force required to produce unit deflec-
sion, Elasticity tion
D. none of above
31. If a spring is cut down into two springs,
28. What principal does a Torsion Bar Torque the stiffness of cut springs will be
Wrench use? A. half
A. The drive square in the torque wrench B. same
acts as a torsion bar spring, which acti- C. double
vates gears to show torque on a dial indi-
cator. D. unpredictable
B. The drive square in the torque wrench 32. Helical springs sometimes termed coil
acts a gear to show torque on a dial indi- spring, are one of the most common types.
cator. What are its common applications?
C. The Hippocratic oath A. Automotive Suspension, Engine Valve
D. none of above Control and supplying Actuating Force in
a clutch.
29. Hourglass and Barrel Compression Springs B. Compression, Tension, Torsion
have similar property to Conical Compres-
sion Springs. What is it and what advan- C. Trampolines, Pogo Sticks, Mattress
tage do the Convex and Concave have over Springs
the Tapered Spring? D. none of above

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7.12 Helical Springs 1045

33. Where would disc springs be used? B. As a counterbalance, such as a door

A. Where space is limited and large closing device, and to a certain extent in
car suspension

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

forces are present.
C. As a shock absorber, for instance, in
B. In a clutch disc spring found in automo-
flexible couplings
tive vehicles, crush washers
D. For spacers in push rods, and tappets,
C. In large spaces and where small and other moving parts
forces are present.
38. Where is spring leaf seen?
D. none of above
A. Automotive rear suspension and un-
34. What are the different type of Disc dercarriage legs of some light aircraft.
Springs? B. Automotive front suspension and tail
A. Single, Multiple, Bellville, Lock Washer, plane wheels on some light aircraft.
Diaphragm C. Only on Automotive suspension
B. CD, ROM, Discuss D. none of above
C. Single, Multiple, Bevel, Spring Washer, 39. When the helical extension spring is sub-
Diaphragm jected to axial tensile force, the type of
D. none of above stress induced in the spring wire is
A. tensile stress
35. What are the characteristics of spring
steel? B. compressive stress
C. bending stress
A. Great hardness, strength and elastic-
ity D. torsional shear stress
B. Great hardness, ductility, and malua- 40. A leaf spring is a flat beam designed to
bility deflect under load. How is this done?
C. Force retention, brittleness and low A. One end is firmly anchored, while the
yield strength other is linked by a moveable shackle to
the moving machine part.
D. none of above
B. One end is firmly anchored, while the
36. Spring Steel is a special classification of other is bare to the moving machine part.
steel that has great C. Both end of the are firmly anchored,
A. hardness while the middle part is linked by a move-
able shackle to the moving machine part.
B. strength
C. elasticity D. none of above
D. Conductivity
41. What are two main shapes for a Spiral
E. Brittleness Spring?
A. Spiral/Archimedes and Conical
37. Familiar uses of springs include:
B. Spherical and Cylindrical
A. Supplying motive power, for instance
in toy mechanisms, watches and clocks. C. Spiral/Archimedes and Tapered
Also to close piston engine valves D. none of above

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7.12 Helical Springs 1046

42. What is a Torsion Bar? a force but cannot return to its original
A. A shaft of uniform cross-section that shape when the distorting force is re-
stores energy when twisted. moved.
B. A shaft of uniform cross-section that B. an elastic machine component which
releases energy when twisted. can be pressed, stretched or twisted by a
force and then return to its original shape
C. A shaft of large cross-section that
when the distorting force is removed.
doesn’t stores energy when twisted.
C. an conductive machine component

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
which can be pressed, stretched or
43. The leaf spring type is most commonly twisted by a force and then return to its
seen in, original shape when the distorting force
A. automotive rear suspension is removed.
B. undercarriage legs of some light air- D. an elastic machine component which
craft can be pressed, stretched or twisted by
a force but cannot be returned to its orig-
C. automotive suspension (’coil over
inal shape when the distorting force is re-
shocks, engine valve control and supply-
moved.
ing actuating force in a clutch
D. This is the spring providing motive en- 46. Common Applications of spring steel in-
ergy in clocks and clockwork engines. clude:
44. How can stress concentration in the center A. Springs
of the leaf spring be combated? B. Spring and shake-proof washers
A. By adding more leaf springs or by hav- C. Steel rules
ing a diamond shape design.
D. Measuring tapes
B. By adding tension springs to the ends
of the leaf springs for extra support. E. Feeler gauges
C. By reducing the amount of force ap-
47. The spring operates
plied to the leaf spring.
D. none of above A. within plastic limit
B. within elastic limit
45. A spring is
C. Within fracture limit
A. an ductile machine component which
can be pressed, stretched or twisted by D. Any of the options

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 PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
8. THEORY OF MACHINES

8.1 Basics
1. The coefficient of restitution for inelastic B. Constant velocity ratio
bodies is C. Transmit large power
A. zero D. Bulky construction
B. between zero and one
5. The angle of inclination of the plane, at
C. one which the body begins to move down the
D. more than one plane, is called

2. The frictional torque transmitted in a flat A. angle of friction

pivot bearing, considering uniform pres- B. angle of repose
sure, is C. angle of projection
2 µW R
1
A. D. none of above
3 µW R
2
B.
6. The circle passing through the upper tips
4 µW R
3
C. of the teeth is called
D. µ W R A. pitch circle
3. In a screw jack, the effort required to lift B. circular pitch
the load W is given by C. dedendum circle
A. P = W tan (α − ϕ ) D. addendum circle
B. P = W tan (α + ϕ )
7. The frictional torque transmitted in a con-
C. P = W cos (α − ϕ ) ical pivot bearing, considering uniform
D. P = W cos (α + ϕ ) wear, is
2 µ W R cosec α
1
A.
4. Which of the following is not true about
3 µ W R cosec α
2
gears? B.

4 µ W R cosec α
3
A. Positive drive C.

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8.1 Basics 1048

D. µ W R cosec α 14. The frictional torque transmitted by a cone

clutch is same as that of
8. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is
1−sin ϕ A. flat pivot bearing
A. 1+sin ϕ
1+sin ϕ B. flat collar bearing
B. 1−sin ϕ
C. conical pivot bearing
1−tan ϕ
C. 1+tan ϕ
D. trapezoidal pivot bearing
1+tan ϕ
D.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1−tan ϕ
15. The portion of path of contact from the
9. The frictional torque transmitted by a disc beginning of contact to the pitch point is
or plate clutch is same as that of called
A. flat pivot bearing A. arc of recess
B. flat collar bearing
B. arc of approach
C. conical pivot bearing
C. path of recess
D. trapezoidal pivot bearing
D. path of approach
10. The efficiency of a screw jack is given by
tan(α +ϕ ) 16. A body of mass m moving with a constant
A. tan α
tan α velocity v strikes another body of same
B. tan(α +ϕ ) mass m moving with same velocity but in
tan(α −ϕ ) opposite direction. The common velocity
C. tan α
tan α of both the bodies after collision is
D. tan(α −ϕ )
A. v
11. The number of teeth per unit length of the
B. 2 v
pitch circle diameter is called
A. diametral pitch C. 4 v
B. Module D. 8 v
C. Gear Ratio
17. The wheels of a moving car possess
D. Clearance
A. potential energy only
12. The efficiency of a screw jack is maximum,
B. kinetic energy of translation only
when
A. α = 45 ◦ + ϕ2 C. kinetic energy of rotation only

B. α = 45 ◦ − ϕ2 D. kinetic energy of translation and rota-

tion both
C. α = 90 ◦ +ϕ
D. α = 90 ◦ −ϕ 18. The radius of a friction circle for a shaft of
radius r rotating inside a bearing is
13. Joule is a unit of
A. r sin ϕ
A. force
B. work B. r cos ϕ
C. power C. r tan ϕ
D. none of these D. r cot ϕ

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 8.2 mechanics of machine 1049

8.2 mechanics of machine

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1. What is the fixed point upon which a lever C. treads
rotates? D. strings
A. fulton
7. A double inclined plane that can split ob-
B. fulcrum jects apart?
C. furmen A. wedge
D. falcon B. incline plane
2. The unit of measure for work is C. pulley

A. meters D. none of above

B. joules 8. It is defined as an activity done when a

body or object moves with the application
C. newtons
of external force is
D. millibars
A. Work
3. efficiency is the ratio of (multiple answers) B. Energy
A. work input / work output C. Mechanical Advantage
B. M.A/ V.R D. velocity ratio
C. Work output / Work input 9. A link is one which does not undergo
D. M.A x V.R any deformation while transmitting mo-
tion.
4. Work is done when
A. flexible
A. a force is exerted on an object. B. rigid
B. an object exerts force onto another ob- C. fluid
ject.
D. separate
C. a force is exerted on an object causing
the object to move. 10. Which simple machine would stairs be an
example?
D. an object does not move.
A. wedge
5. The pair of two elements are not held to-
B. pulley
gether in mechanically it is called
C. incline plane
A. lower pair
D. none of above
B. closed pair
11. Which simple machine doesn’t move and
C. open pair
a heavy object can be rolled or pushed up
D. higher pair this machine?
6. A screw is made up of wrapped around A. wheel and axle
a post or rod. B. inclined plane
A. threads C. wedge
B. springs D. screw

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8.2 mechanics of machine 1050

12. what simple machine has a fulcrum? 18. What two parts might make a pulley?
A. lever A. wheel and axle
B. wedge B. wheel and wire
C. pulley C. wheel and screw
D. none of above D. wheel and fulcrum

13. are a sloping surface. 19. What is anything that makes work easier
called?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. pulleys
A. screw
B. inclined planes
B. wedge
C. levers
C. force
D. wheel and axles
D. machine
14. A is again a combination of links con-
nected to each other but no relative motion 20. are made up of a grooved wheel with
exists between them. rope/chain running along the groove.

A. MACHINE A. ramp

B. CONNECTING ROD B. inclined plane

C. pulley
C. MECHANISM
D. lever
D. STRUCTURE
21. is a combination of rigid or restraining
15. The “fixed point” on which a lever rests
parts or bodies from which the machine is
and, or pivots is known as which of the
assembled.
following?
A. MACHINE
A. screw
B. STRUCTURE
B. wheel and axle
C. MECHANISM
C. see saw
D. CONNECTING ROD
D. fulcrum
22. which is an example of rolling pair?
16. The outer plate of bush roller chain is called
A. crankshaft
A. pin plate
B. mirror in car
B. roller plate
C. ball bearings
C. bush plate
D. connecting rod
D. none
23. If the relative motion between them
17. The branch of mechanics which deals with is completely or successfully constrained
only motions and not with the forces then the pair is known as
A. STATIC A. rolling pair
B. KINEMATICS B. kinematic pair
C. KINETICS C. sliding pair
D. DYNAMICS D. cylindrical pair

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8.2 mechanics of machine 1051

24. Turning pair is also called as 30. How much work was done when a force of
A. Cylindrical 12 newtons was applied to an object and
the object move 2 meters?

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B. Prismatic
A. 14 Joules
C. Revolute
B. 24 Joules
D. Screw
C. 14 Newtons
25. Cylindrical Pair has a degree of free-
dom. D. 24 Newtons
A. one 31. which is an example of higher pair?
B. two
A. cylindrical pair
C. three
B. sliding pair
D. four
C. car mirror
26. Which of these is not an example of an in- D. cam and follower
clined plane?
A. ladder 32. It is an assemblage of a number of re-
B. stairs sistant bodies (known as members) hav-
ing no relative motion between them and
C. wall meant for carrying loads having straining
D. driveway action is

27. A seesaw is an example of which ma- A. Machine

chine? B. structure
A. wedge C. Mechanism
B. lever D. Force
C. inclined plane
D. pulley 33. It deals with the forces and their effects
when the machine parts are at rest is
28. A is a rope or chain wrapped around a A. statics
wheel.
B. kinetics
A. wedge
C. kinematics
B. lever
C. pulley D. pair

D. screw 34. A rigid link is one which does not undergo

any deformation while transmitting mo-
29. A 50 N block is lifted 10 m. How much
tion.
work was done?
A. 50000 J A. movable link

B. 5000 J B. flexible link

C. 500 J C. rigid link
D. 50 J D. fluid link

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8.2 mechanics of machine 1052

35. It is the branch of theory of machine which 40. What type of simple machine is found on
deals with the study of relative motion be- the cap of a pickle jar?
tween the various parts of the machine is A. lever
B. inclined plane
A. kinetics
C. screw
B. dynamics
D. wheel and axle
C. kinematics
41. Which type of simple machine would be

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. static found on the bottom of a wagon? ?

36. If you needed to use a lever to move a A. a pulley

heavy object, where is the best place to B. a screw
place the load? C. a wedge
A. next to where the force is applied D. a wheel and axle
B. directly under the fulcrum 42. A simple machine that consists a rigid bar
C. opposite end of the fulcrum that pivot about a fixed point
D. near the fulcrum. A. lever
B. pulley
37. When NO relative motion exists between
C. wheel and axle
links it is called as
D. fulcrum
A. Machine
B. Mechanism 43. A link is one which is partly deformed
in a manner not to affect the transmission
C. Structure of motion.
D. None of the above A. rigid
B. fluid
38. A lever rotates on a fixed point called a
C. flexible
A. screw D. separate

B. wheel 44. What simple machine uses a wheel with

a rod or rods through its center is known
C. ramp
as?
D. fulcrum A. wheel and axle
39. A link is one which is formed by hav- B. pulley
ing a fluid in a container and the motion is C. lever
transmitted through the fluid by pressure
D. none of above
A. fluid
45. A is a device which receives energy
B. flexible and transforms it into some useful work.
C. rigid A. force
D. pneumatic B. structure

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 8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1053

C. mechanism 48. What is a simple machine?

D. machine A. a device that has only one working mo-

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tor
46. A door knob is an example of which ma-
chine? B. a device that makes work easier
A. wheel and axle C. a device that makes more work for a
B. swrew job
C. pulley D. device that is made up of two or more
machines
D. inclined plane
47. Bicycle is an example of another ma- 49. Motion will change in position and of
chine. an object.

A. simple A. displacement
B. compound B. orientation
C. binary C. reference
D. none of these D. none

8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis

1. Motion is the movement of an object or its 4. Which of the following IS NOT accelera-
change in tion?
A. Direction A. change in mass
B. Speed B. change in speed or direction
C. Position C. change in speed
D. change in direction
D. Shape
5. JJ Watt runs at a speed of 10 m/s and
2. this refers to the speed of a moving object runs for 8 seconds. How far did he run?
with a given direction.
A. 80 m
A. speed
B. 0.8 m
B. velocity
C. 1.45 m
C. distance D. 90 m
D. acceleration
6. Which option shows velocity?
3. Cole throws a baseball 38 m from third A. The car was traveling at 75 mph.
base to first base in 1.7 seconds.
B. The car was traveling at 150 mph.
A. Speed C. The car is speeding up.
B. Velocity D. The car is traveling at 100 mph North.
C. Acceleration
7. The train traveled east by southeast at 20
D. none of above m/s.

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1054

A. speed 12. A car brakes and the velocity changes from

B. velocity 30 m/s to 0 m/s in 5 s. What is its accel-
eration?
C. acceleration
A. 6 m/s2
D. none of above
B. -6 m/s2
8. define average acceleration C. .17 m/s2
A. change in velocity divided by velocity to D. -.17 m/s2
make the change

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. change in velocity divided by speed to 13. Which is an example of speed?
make the change A. A car driving 55 miles per hour south.
C. change in velocity divided by displace- B. A bicyclist traveling 10 meters per
ment to make the change hour toward the next town.
D. change in velocity divided by the time C. A roller coaster is traveling 10 meters
taken to make the change per second.

9. If a car is moving on a road at 70 km/hr D. A rocket blasting off at 2, 500 meters

going due north and then changes direction per second toward space.
and starts traveling northeast staying at 14. If a cheetah runs 180 miles in 3 hours,
70 km/hr, what happens to its speed and what is its average speed?
velocity?
A. 60 hours
A. The speed of the car changes, but the
B. 60 miles
velocity stays the same.
C. 60 miles/hour
B. Both the speed and velocity of the car
change. D. 60 miles/second/second
C. Neither the speed nor the velocity of 15. Spencer walked 420 m in 17.5 seconds
the car changes.
A. Speed
D. The velocity of the car changes, but the
B. Velocity
speed stays the same.
C. Acceleration
10. If a question asks “how far”, which of the
D. none of above
following terms is it asking for?
A. mass 16. What is acceleration?
B. acceleration A. A change in speed
C. distance B. Speed + Direction
D. force C. Traveling at a constant speed
D. Only time
11. Which of the following best describes the
Speed of an object? 17. A child rides a bike around the block.
A. 40 m/s2 A. Speed
B. 40 m B. Velocity
C. 40 m/s North C. Acceleration
D. 40 m/s D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1055

18. Sam and Javier drove east to New Orleans 24. The race car sped into the turn as it went
at 55 miles per hour to visit the WWII mu- around the track.
seum.

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A. speed
A. Speed B. velocity
B. Velocity C. acceleration
C. Acceleration D. none of above
D. none of above
25. A football player slows to catch the foot-
19. A boat travels south at 5 m/s ball and is tackled.
A. speed A. speed
B. velocity B. velocity
C. acceleration C. acceleration
D. none of above D. none of above
20. An airplane takes off towards Dallas. 26. Jared went sledding. He reached a top
A. Speed speed of 31 m/s in about 6 seconds. What
was his initial velocity if his acceleration
B. Velocity
was 2 m/s2?
C. Acceleration
A. 28 m/s
D. none of above
B. 43 m/s
21. How far will a train moving at 5.7 km/min C. 19 m/s
go in 45 minutes?
D. 34 m/s
A. 256.5 km
27. A car is traveling north at 17.7 m/s. After
B. 0.12 km
12 s its velocity is 14.1 m/s in the same
C. 7.89 km direction. What is the magnitude and di-
D. none of above rection of the car’s average acceleration.
A. 0.30 m/s2, south
22. An airplane traveling from San Francisco to
Chicago travels 1, 260 km in 3.5 h. What B. 2.7 m/s2, south
is the airplaine’s avearge speed? C. 0.30 m/s2, north
A. 36 km/h D. 2.7 m/s2, north
B. 360 km/h
28. Difference between Speed and Velocity.
C. 4, 410 km/h Which one is FALSE.
D. none of above A. Speed is a Scalar quantity, velocity is a
23. An elevator slows to a stop. Vector Quantity

A. speed B. Speed is a vector quantity, velocity is a

scalar quantity
B. velocity
C. Speed component are Distance, time,
C. acceleration velocity component are Distance, time
D. none of above and direction of motion

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1056

D. Average speed is given by Dis- B. Velocity

tance/time, Average Velocity is given by
C. Acceleration
Displacement/time
D. none of above
E. Speed is distance traveled by an object
per unit time, Velocity is the displacement 34. True or False:You are standing at the bus
covered by an object per unit of time. stop and not moving at all. Since you are
29. A vector is a not moving, your acceleration would be 0
(zero). Support with how you know.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. measurement that includes direction
and magnitude A. True since you are not speeding up,
slowing down or changing directions.
B. a measurement that includes distance
and magnitude B. True since you are traveling no dis-
tance in a certain amount of time.
C. a measurement that includes only di-
rection C. False since you are speeding up, slow-
D. a measurement that is a coordinate ing down and/or changing directions.
system D. False since you were going to get on a
moving bus.
30. If a question asks for acceleration, what
unit should be used to answer the ques- 35. Mikael had an acceleration of-1.5 m/s2.
tion? If he was traveling at 13 m/s, how long
A. g would it take him to reach a complete
stop?
B. kg
C. km A. 8.67 s

D. m/s2 B. -8.67 s
C. 19.5 s
31. The SUV slowed down and turned into a
gas station to get gas. D. -19.5 s
A. speed E. 0.11 s
B. velocity
36. Distance / Time =
C. acceleration
A. Speed
D. none of above
B. Velocity
32. Walking at a slower pace after realizing C. Acceleration
you will be early to school
D. none of above
A. Speed
B. Velocity 37. What two factors does velocity depend
C. Acceleration on?

D. None of the above A. speed and direction

B. distance and time
33. Emylie is in a stunt and her bases throw
her in the air, then catch her. C. speed and time
A. Speed D. distance and direction

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1057

38. A car moving at an average speed of 30 C. 20 km/hr

m/s for 180 seconds (3 hours) has trav-
D. 40 km/hr
eled

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A. 5400 m 44. Jerry runs exactly 2 laps around a 400 me-
B. 6 m ter track. What is the displacement?

C. .17 m A. 800 m S

D. 150 m B. 400 m S
C. 0 m
39. That 2 controls on a cause a change in
speed? D. 200 m S
A. The steering wheel and break
45. A car driving at 50 miles per hour drives
B. The gas pedal and the brake for 2 hours. What distance did it cover?
C. The steering wheel and gas pedal A. 50 miles
D. The break and a car B. 25 miles
40. which describes how velocity changes with C. 100 miles
time? D. 75 miles
A. acceleration
46. The gees fly 23 mph to the south when
B. average speed
they migrate for the winter.
C. gravity
A. speed
D. inertia
B. velocity
41. A motorcycle traveling 35 mi/hr slows as C. acceleration
it approaches a stop sign. This is an exam-
ple of- D. none of above
A. Acceleration 47. Speed with direction.
B. Speed A. Speed
C. Velocity
B. Velocity
D. Distance
C. Acceleration
42. How do speed and velocity differ? D. none of above
A. speed has a Xi and and Xf
48. If a shopping cart rolling down a hill with
B. speed has magnitude
an initial velocity of 2 m/s, accelerates at
C. velocity is a vector a rate of 6 m/s2 for 4 seconds, what will
D. velocity has motion its final velocity be?
A. 26 m/s
43. At what speed would a car have to move
in order to travel 20 kilometers in 2 hours. B. 26 m/s2
A. 5 km/hr C. 22 m/s
B. 10 km/hr D. 22 s

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1058

49. A cart with an initial velocity of 5.0 m/s 54. The SI unit for length or distance is
to the right experiences a constant accel- A. foot (ft)
eration of 2.0 m/s2 to the right. What is
the cart’s displacement during the first 6.0 B. inch (in)
s of this motion? C. mile (mi)
A. 10 m, right D. meter (m)
B. 55 m, right
55. Which of the following is a unit of speed?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 66 m, right
A. km/hr
D. 88 m, right B. Minutes
50. What s the formula for displacement? C. Centimeters
A. Xf-Xi D. meters
B. S = d/t 56. Velocity is
C. S= d x t A. speed and acceleration
D. v = displacement / time B. constant speed

51. A skateboarder travels a constant speed C. a frame of reference

in a northernly direction. D. speed in a given direction
A. speed 57. During rush hour, it takes about 45 min-
B. velocity utes to drive to Conroe traveling at an av-
erage of 40 mi/hr north.
C. acceleration
A. speed
D. none of above
B. velocity
52. What is this? ”40 mph northeast” C. acceleration
A. Speed D. none of above
B. Velocity
58. Calculate the speed of an airplane that
C. Acceleration flew 1, 000 miles in 4 hours.
D. none of above A. 150 mi/hr

53. When an object is traveling at a constant B. 10 mi/hr

velocity: C. 250 mi/hr
A. the acceleration is 0. D. 450 mi/hr
B. the acceleration is in the same direc- 59. Total distance divided by total time is
tion as its velocity.
A. average speed
C. the acceleration is in the opposite di-
rection of its velocity. B. constant speed

D. the acceleration is perpendicular to C. instantaneous speed

the velocity. D. acceleration

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1059

60. A constant speed of 25 m/s traveling on B. Velocity

a circular track is an example of C. Acceleration

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A. Speed D. Direction
B. Velocity
66. Changes in our speed, direction, or both
C. Acceleration are called
D. Direction A. gravity

61. A car travels 30 miles/hr for 3 hours, cal- B. changes

culate the distance it will travel C. acceleration
A. 90 miles D. deceleration
B. 10 miles 67. something speed occurs when an object is
C. 600 miles traveling at the same speed every second.
D. 90 km A. displacement
B. speed
62. John had an acceleration of 0.35 m/s2.
C. constant
He travelled for 91 seconds with this accel-
eration. What would John’s final velocity D. meters
be if he was initially moving at 2.0 m/s?
68. Which type of friction occurs when an ob-
A. 29.85 m/s ject rolls over or rotates on a surface?
B. 33.85 m/s A. sliding
C. 91.7 m/s B. static
D. 262 m/s C. fluid
E. 258 m/s D. rolling

63. miles per hour is an example of an objects 69. A particle moves along the x-axis with ve-
what? locity given by v(t) = 3t2 + 6t for time t
> 0. If the particle is at position x = 2
A. Velocity at time t = 0, what is the position of the
B. Speed particle at t = 1?
C. Acceleration A. 4
D. Inertia B. 6
C. 9
64. Speed in a given direction.
D. 11
A. Speed
B. Velocity 70. When the gradient of a line on a distance
time graph zero what does that mean for
C. Acceleration the speed of the object
D. none of above A. increase
65. A ball rolling west at 5 cm per second is B. decrease
an example of C. zero
A. Speed D. constant

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1060

71. A baseball thrown 90 miles per hour to- A. A car traveling west at a speed of 80
ward home plate is an example of mph.
A. Speed B. A car that goes around a curve at a con-
stant speed.
B. Velocity
C. A car that is stopped at a stop sign.
C. Acceleration
D. A car that is moving at a constant
D. Direction
speed of 60 mph.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
72. An airplane slows down at a rate of 3 76. A particle moves along the x axis with its
m/s2. acceleration given by a(t) = t2-2t for 0 < t
A. Speed < 6. At time t = 0, the velocity is 10. What
is the maximum velocity of this particle on
B. Velocity
the specified interval?
C. Acceleration
A. 10
D. none of above
B. 26
73. What does it mean when a change in ve- C. 40
locity is negative? D. 46
A. The object is speeding up.
77. Light travels at a speed of 186, 000 miles
B. The object is slowing down. per second.
C. The object is changing direction. A. Speed
D. The object is falling down. B. Velocity
74. Acceleration is a speeding up, slowing C. Acceleration
down or a change in direction. Is the D. none of above
following acceleration and if so, which
one? A dancer is warming up. She turns 78. What does acceleration measure?
on music with a good beat and does 10 A. How fast an object is going
pirouettes in a row perfectly on the beat.
B. The fastest speed that an object can
(pirouette is a body spin in ballet)
reach
A. Yes, this is acceleration since the
C. The force with which an object travels
dancers is going a certain speed.
D. The rate at which speed or direction
B. Yes, this is acceleration since the
changes
dancer is changing direction when she
spins. 79. An object accelerates at 2 m/s2 . Assum-
C. No, this is not acceleration since there ing the object starts from rest, how much
is no speeding up, slowing down, or time does it need to accelerate to a speed
change in direction. of 16 m/s?
D. none of above A. 4 s
B. 8 s
75. Which car is accelerating? Remember, ac-
celeration is one of three things-speeding C. 16 s
up, slowing down, or changing direction! D. 1/16 s

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1061

80. A child rides their bike around the block. 86. Acceleration is
A. Speed A. increasing speed

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B. Velocity B. decreasing speed
C. Acceleration C. changing direction
D. none of above D. all of the above
81. Choose every statement that is true of ve- 87. The slope of a velocity vs time graph is:
locity.
A. position
A. Velocity is speed only.
B. speed
B. Velocity is speed and direction.
C. acceleration
C. Velocity is a vector.
D. time
D. Velocity has a direction.
88. John was driving at 35 m/s when he saw
82. mph southeast a cop and slowed down to 31 m/s. He did
A. Speed this in 3 seconds, what was his accelera-
B. Velocity tion?

C. Acceleration A. 1.33 m/s2

D. none of above B. -1.33 m/s2
C. 44 m/s2
83. Which two factors does speed depend on?
D. -44 m/s2
A. distance and direction
B. direction and time 89. Which change to speed would convert a
speed measurement to velocity?
C. distance and time
A. Adding direction
D. distance, time and direction
B. Slowing down
84. A trip from Houston to Galveston will take
about 1 hour driving at an average of 60 C. Speeding up
mi/hr south. D. Maintaining constant speed
A. speed 90. When would acceleration increase most?
B. velocity A. Rolling along a flat plane
C. acceleration
B. Rolling down a steep hill
D. none of above
C. Braking to a stop
85. A system that uses coordinates or back- D. Rolling up a gently sloping hill
ground objects to establish position or to
measure movement of a point in space 91. slow down
A. Frame of reference A. Speed
B. Motion B. Velocity
C. Speed C. Acceleration
D. none of above D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1062

92. When an object accelerates, what about C. Acceleration

its motion changes? D. Direction
A. Speed must change, but not velocity.
98. A dog runs on the sidewalk 9 mi/hr.
B. Both speed and velocity must change.
A. Speed
C. Velocity must change, but not speed.
B. Acceleration
D. Neither speed or velocity can change.
C. Velocity
93. A cyclist turned the corner at a constant

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
speed.
A. Speed 99. Ethan moved the science table 34 cm to the
right(and it annoyed the teacher!)
B. Velocity
A. Speed
C. Acceleration
B. Velocity
D. none of above
C. Acceleration
94. A lizard accelerates from 10 m/s to 2 m/s D. none of above
in 4 seconds. What is the lizard’s average
acceleration? 100. Andres travelled at a speed of 4 m/s.
A. -2 m/s2 How long did it take him to travel 724 m?

B. -1 m/s2 A. 0.006 s

C. 1 m/s2 B. 181 s

D. 2 m/s2 C. 2896 s
D. none of above
95. Mark slams on the brakes after traveling
25 m/s. It takes him 3 seconds to come 101. In the acceleration formula, what does vf
to a complete stop. What is his accelera- stand for?
tion? A. vortex force
A. 8.33 m/s2 B. final velocity
B. -8.33 m/s2 C. final vector
C. 75 m/s2 D. variable f
D. -75 m/s2
102. The train increased its speed as it left the
96. mph is a unit for terminal.
A. Speed A. speed
B. Distance B. velocity
C. Time C. acceleration
D. Direction D. none of above

97. Speed in a given direction is the definition 103. A force that results from two objects slid-
of ing past each other.
A. Speed A. Gravity
B. Velocity B. Friction

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1063

C. Inertia C. staying at constant speed

D. Force D. changing directions

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104. A truck moving 20 m/s is an example of 110. Velocity is both and
A. speed, direction
A. Speed B. direction, mass
B. Distance C. volume, density
C. Velocity D. direction, magnitude
D. Acceleration
111. What is the equation to calculate time?
105. How much time would it take for an ob- A. time = speed/distance
ject to fall 4.7 meters? B. time = distance/speed
A. 0.959 s C. time = speed x distance
B. 4.79 s D. time = distance x speed
C. 0.979 s
112. A dog runs with an initial speed of 7.5
D. none of above m/s to a stop in 15 seconds. What is the
acceleration?
106. Speed equals distance divided by
A. -7.5 m/s
A. time
B. -7.5 m/s2
B. velocity
C. -0.5 m/s2
C. size
D. 0.5 m/s2
D. motion
113. A change in position is called
107. A football is thrown and travels 50 feet
in 5 seconds. What is its velocity? A. velocity
A. 55 ft/s B. displacement

B. 50 ft/s C. acceleration

C. 5 ft/s D. origin

D. 10 ft/s 114. Shona cycles at an average speed of

8km/h. How far has she travelled if she
108. Acceleration is defined as the CHANGE in cycles for 4 hours?
A. time of motion to another place. A. 55km
B. velocity B. 32km
C. distance C. 43km
D. speed D. 32miles
109. Acceleration can be (select all that ap- 115. Acceleration is the rate at which
ply) changes with time.
A. speeding up A. position
B. slowing down B. distance

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1064

C. velocity 121. Which of the following describes the

D. none of the above speed, but not the velocity of an object?
A. 60 miles per hour
116. Lisa was walking with her 40 lb dog at
1.5 m/s. The dog saw a squirrel and ran B. 60 miles per hour south
towards it. The dog reached a top speed C. 30 miles north
of 16 m/s. How far did the dog travel if D. 30 miles per hour south
its acceleration was 1.4 m/s2?
122. A rocket started at rest. After initiating

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 181.25 m
the launch, it had an acceleration of 90
B. 90.63 m m/s2. How long did it take to reach a
C. 6.34 m speed of 2430 m/s?
D. 3.17 m A. 13.5 s
E. 10.36 m B. 65610 s
C. 27 s
117. Change in speed over a given period of
time is D. 32805 s
A. velocity 123. A subway speeds up to leave the station
B. motion is an example of a/n
C. speed A. Speed
D. acceleration B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
118. A car increases speed from 30 mph to 65
mph. D. Direction
A. Speed 124. mi (miles) is a unit for
B. Velocity A. Speed
C. Acceleration B. Distance
D. none of above C. Time

119. You’re in a moving car. Which of the D. Direction

following changes would always mean 125. The Olympian swam 200 meters in 20
there’s been some acceleration? seconds.
A. A change in temperature A. speed
B. A change in time B. velocity
C. A change in location C. acceleration
D. A change in speed D. none of above
120. Moving from 0 m/s to 10 m/s in 2.0 s 126. Find the speed of the bicyclist who took
equals an acceleration of an hour and a half to travel 10 kilometers.
A. 10 m/s2 A. 10 km/h
B. 5 m/s2 B. 600 km/h
C. 20 m/s2 C. 6.67 km/h
D. 0.5 m/s2 D. 90 km/h

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1065

127. How much time did it take Matthew to 132. Velocity is

slow down to a complete stop, after trav- A. distance over time
eling at 30 m/s. His acceleration is-12

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B. distance over time with direction
m/s2
C. change in direction
A. 2.5 s
D. change in speed and direction
B. 360 s
133. speed with direction
C. .4 s
A. Speed
D. -2.5 s
B. Velocity
128. A brand new motorcycle goes from 0 to C. Acceleration
60 mi/hr in 3 seconds.
D. none of above
A. speed
134. Speed or Velocity? :A train is travelling
B. velocity North 220 km/hr
C. acceleration A. Speed
D. none of above B. Velocity
129. John took 90 minutes to bicycle to his C. Neither
grandmother’s house, a total of six kilome- D. Both
ters. What was his speed (pay attention
135. What answer option describes velocity?
to units)?
A. 30 m/s
A. 540 km/hr
B. 30 m east
B. .066 km/hr
C. 30 m/s east
C. 4 km/hr
D. 30 m/s/s
D. 9 km/hr
136. The hurricane is traveling northwest at
130. The force that pulls objects towards 17 mph.
Earth. A. speed
A. Gravity B. velocity
B. Friction C. acceleration
C. Inertia D. none of above
D. Force 137. When a car goes around a corner at 20
mph, why do we say it accelerates?
131. An elevator traveled 15 floors (150 ft)
at a speed of 4.5 m/s. What additional A. The car is accelerating because of the
information is needed to determine the ve- velocity is constant
locity of the elevator? B. The car accelerates because it’s going
20 mph
A. the direction the elevator traveled
C. Cars always accelerate when they are
B. how long the elevator was stationary
in motion
C. how many times the elevator stopped D. The car is accelerating because it’s
D. the total distance the elevator traveled changing direction

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1066

138. An object moving at-5 m/s2 is doing 143. The distance an object travels in a specific
what? amount of time.
A. Speeding up A. Speed
B. Slowing down B. Velocity
C. Moving at the same speed C. Acceleration
D. Stopped D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
144. a snake slithering 20 meters per minute
139. speed is the total distance traveled
divided by the total time the object took. A. speed
A. second B. velocity
B. average C. acceleration
C. meters D. none of above

D. time 145. A group of bike riders took a 4.0 hour

trip. During the first 3 hours, they trav-
140. A bicycle and rider are rolling along at a eled a total of 60 kilometers, but during
velocity of 15 meters per second and crash the last hour they traveled only 10 kilo-
into a brick wall reducing their velocity meters. What was the group’s average
to zero meters per second in 0.5 seconds. speed for the entire trip? Show your work
What was their negative acceleration in on your study guide.
s 15 s ÷ 0.5 s =
this instance? 0 m m
A. 17.5 km/hr
A. -30 meters / second squared
B. 15 km/hr
B. 30 meters/ second squared C. 20 km/hr
C. 15 meters/ second squared D. 30 km/hr
D. -15 meters/ second squared
146. Dave runs a 400 m race with a speed of
141. Find the velocity of a plane that traveled 4 m/s. What time will it take him to finish
3000 miles west in 5 hours. Remember, the race?
Velocity is just Speed (S=D/T) with direc- A. 400 minutes
tion. B. 100 minutes
A. 65 mph west C. 100 seconds
B. 6 mph west D. .25 seconds
C. 600 mph west
147. What quantity can you calculate if you
D. 6000 mph west know that a car’s displacement is 30 kilo-
meters northwest, and it traveled that dis-
142. flying 350 miles per hour west tance in 20 minutes?
A. speed A. motion
B. velocity B. speed
C. acceleration C. velocity
D. none of above D. acceleration

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1067

148. Ray runs 30 feet north, 30 feet west, 153. North, South, East, West
and then 30 feet south. What is the dis- A. Speed
placement?

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B. Velocity
A. 30 feet west
C. Acceleration
B. 90 feet
D. Direction
C. 30 feet south
D. 0 feet 154. How can values for velocity and acceler-
ation be distinguished?
149. Speed is A. Velocity is change in position over
A. the change in distance in a given time time.Acceleration is change in speed over
B. change in direction time.
C. moving in a specific direction B. Velocity is change in speed over
time.Acceleration is change in position
D. moving over time.
150. What is the difference between positive C. Velocity is change in speed divided by
and negative acceleration? change in time.Acceleration is speed with
A. Positive acceleration applies to fast direction
objects; negative acceleration applies to D. Velocity is speed with direc-
slow objects. tion.Acceleration is change in velocity
B. Positive acceleration occurs when ob- over time.
jects speed up; negative acceleration oc- 155. A tornado moves east toward Houston at
curs when objects slow down. 30 km/hr.
C. Positive acceleration applies to ob- A. Speed
jects traveling on earth; negative acceler-
ation applies to objects traveling in space. B. Velocity
D. Positive acceleration is expressed in C. Acceleration
meters per second; negative acceleration D. none of above
is expressed in kilometers per hour.
156. A particle moves in a straight line with a
151. Mrs. Starnes drove 60 mph toward Chic- velocity of v(t) = 2t2. How far does the
fil-A. particle move between times t = 1 and t =
A. Speed 3?
B. Velocity A. 18
C. Acceleration B. 52/3
D. none of above C. 26/3
D. 16
152. Some major league baseball players have
a bat speed of 80 miles per hour. 157. Which of the following is a velocity?
A. Speed A. 10 km/h
B. Velocity B. 5 k/m
C. Acceleration C. 35 m/h
D. none of above D. 78 cm/min upwards

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1068

158. Change of an object’s speed or direction C. direction & acceleration

A. Acceleration D. speed & acceleration
B. Motion
164. An increase or decrease in speed (m/s2),
C. Velocity changing direction, or changing speed and
D. none of above direction
A. Speed
159. An alligator moving 32 kilometers per

NARAYAN CHANGDER
hour is an example of a/n B. Velocity
A. Speed C. Acceleration
B. Velocity D. none of above
C. Acceleration
165. What is your average speed if you take
D. Direction 0.5 h to jog 4, 000 m?
160. A train can speed up at a rate of .053 A. 8000 m/h
m/s/s. What time will it take for it to
B. 2000 m/h
reach a speed of 21 m/s from a standing
stop? C. 0.000125 m/h
A. 1.13 s D. 800 m/h
B. 0.025 s
166. How long does it take to go from Dallas
C. 396 s to Chicago, if it is 1, 000 miles and you
D. 11.13 s drive 80 mph?
A. 12 hours
161. When an objects position changes over
time but the speed of the object does not B. 10 hours
change. C. 12.5 hours
A. Speed
D. 80 hours.
B. Velocity
C. Average Speed 167. What answer option describes speed?

D. Constant Speed A. 30 m/s

B. 30 m east
162. slowing down at a stop sign
C. 30 m/s east
A. speed
D. 30 m/s/s
B. velocity
C. acceleration 168. If a bicyclist travels 30 km in 2 hours, her
D. none of above average speed is
A. 30 km/h
163. To discribe velocity you need to know
? B. 60 km/h
A. speed & direction C. 15 km/h
B. speed & time D. 2 km/h

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1069

169. A baseball catcher throws a ball vertically 173. If you travel 7.5 km and walk for 1.5 h,
upward and catches it in the same spot as what is your average speed?
it returns to the mitt. At what point in the

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A. 5 km/h
ball’s path does it experience zero veloc-
ity and nonzero acceleration at the same B. 11.25 km/h
time? C. 0.2 km/h
A. midway on the way up D. none of above
B. at the top of its path 174. A greyhound dog can run about 40 mph.
C. the instant it leaves the catcher’s hand A. Speed
D. the instant before it arrives in the B. Velocity
catcher’s mitt C. Acceleration
170. Two children, Jack and Jill, ride on a D. none of above
merry-go-round. Jack is at a greater dis-
175. A tin can whirled on the end of a string
tance from the axis of rotation than Jill.
moves in a circle because
Which of the following are true state-
ments? A. the can continually pulls on the string.
A. Jill and Jack have the same tangential B. once the can starts moving, that is its
speed. natural tendency.

B. Jack has a greater tangential speed C. there is a force on the can pulling it
than Jill. outward.
D. there is an inward force acting on the
C. Jill has a greater angular speed than
can.
Jack.
D. Jill has a smaller angular speed than 176. Which of the following are examples of
Jack. velocity? a) 50 mphb) 24 mph Northc) 24
mph Northeast d) 30 mph West
171. Acceleration is defined as the change in A. All but (d)
A. time of motion to another place. B. All are velocity except (a)
B. velocity C. Only (b)
C. distance D. None are velocity
D. displacement 177. a runner speeding up at the start of a race
172. Acceleration describes how an object’s A. speed
velocity is changing. Which of the follow- B. velocity
ing scenarios provides the best example of C. acceleration
an accelerating object?
D. none of above
A. A car driving at a constant speed
178. A swimmer increases her speed as she ap-
B. A book sitting on top of a high shelf
proaches the end of the pool. Her acceler-
C. A toy train traveling in a circle ation is
D. A toy boat floating in a bathtub A. In the same direction as her motion

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1070

B. In the opposite direction of her motion B. 35 s

C. At right angles to her motion C. 0.3 s
D. Zero D. 3.3 s

179. You calculate speed by dividing the dis- 184. turn left
tance moved by ? A. Speed
A. Time B. Velocity

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Velocity C. Acceleration
C. Acceleration D. none of above
D. Vector 185. the constant velocity reached by an ob-
180. For times t > 0, a particle moves on the ject when the force of gravity is balanced
x axis with its acceleration defined by a(t) by the drag force due to air resistance.
= 6t-2. If the velocity of the particle is-7 A. terminal velocity
at t = 1, then at what time is the particle B. drag force
at rest?
C. Newton’s First Law
A. t = 4
D. Newton’s Third Law
B. t = 1
186. You hear that a storm is moving 15 km/h
C. t = 2
north. You have been given the storm’s
D. t = 4/3

181. What must be your average speed in or- A. constant speed

der to travel 350 km in 5.15 h? B. acceleration
A. 66.0 km/h C. average speed
B. 67.0 km/h D. velocity
C. 68.0 km/h 187. A car is going around a curve with con-
D. 69.0 km/h stant speed. Which of the following is not
true?
182. Carrie runs round a track in 80 seconds.
A. The car is accelerating
If the distance of one track is 400 metres,
what was Carrie’s velocity? B. The speed of the car is constant
A. 0.0 m/s C. The velocity is constant
B. 0.2 m/s D. The direction is constantly changing
C. 3.2 m/s 188. Bill runs 400 meters to Andy’s house,
D. 5.0 m/s turns around, and runs 400 meters back
home. What is Bill’s distance?
183. A golf ball accelerates off a tee at A. 0 meters
15m/s2, changing its velocity from 0m/s
to 50 m/s down the fairway. How long B. 400 meters
did it take the golf ball to accelerate? C. 800 meters
A. 750 s D. 1600 meters

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1071

189. An object travels 100 m North then 50 m 194. Speed in a given direction is known as
South. What total distance did it travel?
A. Speed

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A. 150 m
B. Velocity
B. 50 m North
C. Acceleration
C. 50 m South
D. Direction
D. 150 m North
195. A value with magnitude and direction
190. Toward, Away, Up, Down
A. Speed A. Scalar

B. Velocity B. Speed

C. Acceleration C. Velocity
D. Direction D. Vector

191. A car goes around a corner at 20 mph. 196. Olympic runner, Usain Bolt, is able to in-
Why does it accelerate? crease his speed faster than any runner in
A. Because velocity is constant. his heat.

B. Because it’s going 20 mph. A. Speed

C. Anything in motion is accelerating. B. Velocity
D. Because it’s changing direction. C. Acceleration

192. Misty’s Magikarp can move at high D. none of above

speeds. If it started from rest and reached
197. The train traveled west and then changed
a top speed of 27 m/s in 130 m, what was
direction (northwest) at a rate of 30
its acceleration?
km/s.
A. 0.2 m/s2
A. speed
B. 0.1 m/s2
B. velocity
C. 5.6 m/s2
C. velocity and acceleration
D. 2.8 m/s2
D. none of above
E. 4.8 m/s2

193. You rode your dirt bike in a straight line 198. An object with an initial velocity of 3.50
at a constant speed of 10 km/h. Did you m/s moves east along a straight and level
accelerate? path. The object then undergoes a con-
stant acceleration of 1.80 m/s2 east for
A. Acceleration occurred because speed a period of 5.00 s. How far does the ob-
changed. ject move while it is accelerating?
B. Acceleration did not occur because nei- A. 6.30 m
ther speed nor direction changed.
B. 17.5 m
C. Acceleration occurred because you
changed directions. C. 27.2 m
D. none of above D. 40.0 m

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1072

199. The total distance traveled divided by the C. acceleration at a particular velocity
total time taken to travel the distance is
D. acceleration at a particular displace-
?
ment
A. Average speed
B. Mass 205. A boater canoeing at 26 m/min
C. Velocity A. speed
D. Acceleration B. velocity

NARAYAN CHANGDER
200. Speed with a direction C. acceleration
A. speed D. none of above
B. velocity
206. A car speeding up to get on the highway
C. acceleration is an example of
D. none of above A. Speed
201. Which of the following is an example of B. Velocity
acceleration?
C. Acceleration
A. A car travels north at 65 mph.
D. Direction
B. A car drives 120 miles.
C. A car travels 50 mph. 207. Another example of a vector quantity is
D. A car slows down at a red light.
A. Speed
202. What quantity can you calculate if you
know that a car travels 30 kilometers in B. Volume
20 minutes?
C. Acceleration
A. motion
D. Density
B. speed
C. velocity 208. In which state of matter do atoms have
D. acceleration the most energy?
A. Solid
203. A cork floats a distance of 17.5 miles
downriver after a period of 3 hours and 30 B. Liquid
minutes. What was its average speed? C. Gas
A. 7 mph
D. Water
B. 10 mph
C. 9 mph 209. What is speed?
D. 5 mph A. how far you go

204. define instantaneous acceleration B. how much distance is covered over a

period of time
A. acceleration at a particular instant of
time C. how fast you accelerate
B. acceleration at a particular distance D. the change in the location of a object

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1073

210. The boat traveled west towards China at B. Velocity

8 knots.
C. Acceleration

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A. speed
D. Direction
B. velocity
C. acceleration 216. The location of an object relative to its
point of origin is
D. none of above
A. position
211. A football just after being kicked B. distance
A. speed
C. velocity
B. velocity
D. acceleration
C. acceleration
D. none of above 217. The distance traveled in a certain amount
of time
212. Greg was running at 13 m/s when he A. speed
tripped and fell. It took him 14 m to come
to a stop. What was his acceleration? B. velocity
A. -6.04 m/s2 C. acceleration
B. 6.04 m/s2 D. none of above
C. 0.93 m/s2 218. What two measurements are necessary
D. 0.46 m/s2 for calculating speed?
E. 1.08 m/s2 A. Mass and time

213. The Mars rover, Curiosity, can travel at B. Temperature and mass
about 300 feet per hour if it wants to. C. Mass and distance
A. Speed D. Distance and time
B. Velocity
219. Speed is a measure of
C. Acceleration
A. distance covered in an amount of time
D. none of above
B. distance divided by time
214. Which of the following is the correct
C. both of the other choices are correct
equation to solve for time?
A. T = D/S D. none of the choices are correct
speed is a vector
B. T = S/D
C. T = S x D 220. If you traveled 100 meters in 10 seconds
going south, what would your speed be?
D. T = D x S
A. 100m per second
215. A bird flying from 20 meters per second
B. 10m per second south
to 0 meters per second when landing is an
example of a/n C. 10m per second
A. Speed D. 1000m per second

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1074

221. You travel 200 km in 2 h. Your speed A. The inside horse

is 100 km/h. B. The outside horse
A. Constant C. Neither-they both have the same angu-
B. Instantaneous lar speed
C. Average D. none of above
D. Initial 227. A person biking 12 mi/hr northwest

NARAYAN CHANGDER
222. a cheetah running 70 kilometers per hour A. speed
A. speed B. velocity
B. velocity C. acceleration
C. acceleration D. none of above
D. none of above 228. Monarch butterflies fly 12 mph south as
223. Measurement of speed and direction of they migrate.
an object A. Speed
A. Acceleration B. Velocity
B. Speed C. Acceleration
C. Velocity D. none of above
D. none of above 229. The space station orbits Earth at 17, 150
224. A car takes 4 hours to cover a distance, milers per hour.
if it travels at a speed of 120 mph. What A. Speed
should be its speed to cover the same dis- B. Velocity
tance in 1.5 hours?
C. Acceleration
A. 30 mi
D. none of above
B. 180 mi
C. 480 m 230. Mark runs west 3 metres and then turns
and runs north 4 metres. The whole jour-
D. 480 mi ney was 3.5 seconds.What was the mag-
225. It took 3.5 hours for a train to travel the nitude of Marks velocity?
distance between two cities at a velocity A. 0.86 m/s
of 120 miles/hr. How many miles lie be- B. 1.14 m/s
tween the two cities?
C. 1.43 m/s
A. 34 miles
D. 2.00 m/s
B. 420 miles
C. 120 miles 231. A turtle can crawl 3 meters in an hour.

D. 360 miles A. speed

B. velocity
226. Which has greater angular speed, a horse
near the outside rail of a merry-go-round C. acceleration
or a horse near the inside rail? D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1075

232. The speedometer on your car tells you 238. Distance over Time
A. average velocity A. Speed

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B. instantaneous velocity B. Velocity
C. average speed
C. Acceleration
D. instantaneous speed
D. Direction
233. A sailor is able to sail 15 knots in his new
boat. 239. Which TWO of the following are vec-
A. Speed tors?
B. Velocity A. Distance
C. Acceleration B. Displacement
D. none of above C. Speed
234. A measurement of how fast an object is D. Velocity
moving
A. Velocity 240. If a student rides her skateboard on a
straight road and does not speed up or
B. Speed
slow down, she is traveling with a
C. Vector
A. constant acceleration
D. Acceleration
B. constant velocity
235. Which of the following is NOT the unit of
speed? C. positive acceleration

A. meter per second (m/s) D. negative acceleration

B. kilometer per hour (km/hr)
241. A bus travels 2 Km per min in a north
C. mile per hour (mi/hr) direction. Which statement describes the
D. meter, north west (m/NW) bus’s motion?

236. Which of the following is not used to mea- A. Its acceleration was 2 km/min2
sure speed? B. Its velocity was 120 Km/hr Northward
A. Distance
C. Its speed was 120 Km/s Northward
B. Time
D. Its acceleration was 2 km/hr2
C. Color
D. none of above 242. Mariah rides the escalator three floors up
and then turns right to get to her favorite
237. A speedometer shows the speed of store in the mall.
an airplane
A. Speed
A. average
B. instantaneous B. Velocity

C. possible C. Acceleration
D. velocity D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1076

243. You calculate acceleration by ..? B. Both of them are vectors

A. subtracting starting speed from end- C. Velocity has direction and magnitude
ing speed and dividing by time but speed has magnitude only.
B. subtracting ending speed from start- D. Both of them have the same SI unit,
ing speed and dividing by time metres per second (m/s)
C. subtracting distance by direction
249. Find the speed of Sir Azwan after 40 sec
D. Dividing initial speed by final speed at 8 meters.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
244. When a car slows down at a traffic light, A. 5m/s
it is B. 8m/s
A. Accelerating C. 5 mph
B. decreasing its displacement D. 40 mph
C. traveling at constant Velocity
250. Which is an example of velocity?
D. changing direction
A. A car driving 55 miles per hour south.
245. A cheetah can accelerate at up to 6.0 B. A bicyclist traveling 10 meters per
m/s2. How long does it take for the chee- hour.
tah to speed up from 7.0 m/s to 12.0
m/s? C. A roller coaster is traveling 10 meters
per second.
A. 0.5 s
D. A rocket blasting off at 2, 500 meters
B. 0.86 s per second.
C. 12 s
251. The units for acceleration are
D. 0.83 s
A. s
246. Calculate the speed of a sprinter who ran B. m/s
200 meters in 20 seconds.
C. m/s2
A. 10 m/s
D. s/m
B. 10 km/s
C. 10 m/hr 252. change in velocity
D. 10 km/hr A. Speed
B. Velocity
247. Distance is measured using the SI units of
C. Acceleration
A. liters D. none of above
B. grams 253. A rabbit hopping 35 feet per minute is an
C. seconds example of a/n
D. meters A. Speed

248. which statement(s) is/are correct about B. Velocity

speed and velocity? C. Acceleration
A. Both of them are scalars D. Direction

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1077

254. A gray whale travels an average of 120 260. When you are undergoing acceleration in
km per day as it migrates. a car, you

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A. Speed A. speed up
B. acceleration B. slow down
C. force C. make turns
D. mass D. any or all of the above

255. is how fast an object moves in a spe- 261. Which of the following would be a good
cific direction. reference point to describe the motion of a
dog? (select all that apply)
A. velocity
A. the ground
B. speed
B. another dog running
C. displacement
C. a tree
D. distance
D. the dog’s collar
256. The speed at any single instant of time?
262. A car is slowing down from 50 miles per
A. speed hour to 20 miles per hour what is the
B. average speed car doing?
C. instantaneous speed A. accelerating
D. velocity B. accelerating
C. accelerating
257. Calculate the speed of a train that trav-
eled 400 miles in 5 hours. D. Yes the correct answer is acceler-
ating! Pick this one!
A. 20 mph
B. 20 m/s 263. What is the speed of a car that traveled
56 m in 4 seconds?
C. 80 mph
A. 64 m/s
D. 80 m/s
B. 34 m/s
258. Why does a car accelerate as it round a C. 14 m/s
corner at a constant speed?
D. 0.0625 m/s
A. Its direction changes
264. A student was traveling to see his grand-
B. It doesn’t
mother who lives 15 miles north of his
C. It slows down home. He started from rest and main-
D. Its speeds up tained a pace of 4 m/s before stopping at
his grandmother’s house for lunch.Which
259. What do we call the speed of an object of the following best describes the speed,
at a specific moment in time? velocity, and acceleration of the student’s
A. Instantaneous speed walk?
B. Momentum speed A. He traveled at a speed of 4 m/s north
with a velocity of 4m/s north, and his ac-
C. Pinpoint speed celeration increased before stopping for
D. Top speed lunch.

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1078

B. He traveled at a speed of 4 m/s with a D. Speed includes the direction of the mo-
velocity of 4m/s, and his acceleration in- tion of an object; velocity does not include
creased before stopping for lunch. direction of motion.
C. He traveled at a speed of 4 m/s with
a velocity of 4m/s north, and his acceler- 269. Some motorcycles can go from 0 mi/hr to
ation changed when stopping for lunch. 60 mi/hr in under 4 seconds.

D. He traveled at a speed of 4 m/s with A. Speed

a velocity of 4m/s north, and his accel- B. Acceleration

NARAYAN CHANGDER
eration did not change when stopping for
lunch. C. Velocity
D. none of above
265. Kira jogs to a store 72 m away in a time
of 36 s. What is Kira’s average speed?
270. The SI unit for acceleration is
A. 0.5 m/s
A. mph
B. 2 m/s
B. ft/sec2
C. 2 h
C. m/s2
D. none of above
D. none of above
266. A cheetah running 70 miles per hour is an
example of a/n 271. What does speed measure?
A. Speed
A. How fast an object is going
B. Velocity
B. How far an object has traveled
C. Acceleration
C. The rate at which an object slows
D. Direction
down
267. Changes in our speed, direction or both D. The rate at which an object speeds up
are called (a) .
A. gravity 272. The slope on a position vs. time graph
B. changes represents the

C. acceleration A. position
D. displacement B. time

268. Which of the following distinguishes the C. velocity

speed of an object from its velocity? D. acceleration
A. Calculating speed requires knowing
distance; calculating velocity does not re- 273. If a runner has a distance of 786 meters
quire knowing distance. and a time of 16 seconds. What is their
speed?
B. Velocity includes the direction of the
motion of an object; speed does not in- A. 49.125 m/s
clude direction of motion. B. 0.02 m/s
C. Speed includes the time it took the ob-
C. 12576 m/s
ject to travel; velocity does not include
travel time. D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1079

274. The birds fly 23 mph south when they mi- 279. m/s north
grate for winter. A. Speed

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A. speed B. Velocity
B. velocity C. Acceleration
C. acceleration D. none of above
D. none of above 280. You are riding your bike at a velocity of
5 m/s down your street. A dog starts to
275. In each of the following cases, determine
chase you so you start to peddle as fast as
where the car has no acceleration?
you can for the next 2 seconds. You now
A. A car shortly after a stoplight turns have a velocity of 9 m/s. What is your
green. acceleration?
B. A car approaching a red light A. 9 m/s-5 m/s = 4 m/s divided by the
C. A car with the cruise control set at 80 time (2 s) = 2 m/s2 is your acceleration.
km/h B. 9 m/s divided by the time (2 s) = 4.5
D. A car turning a curve at a constant m/s2 is your acceleration.
speed C. 5 m/s divided by the time (2 s) = 2.5
m/s2 is your acceleration.
276. A physical quantity that has both size and
D. 0
direction
A. velocity 281. What two thiings must you know to de-
termine speed?
B. vector
A. distance and direction
C. force
B. direction and time
D. ALL of the above
C. speed and direction
277. A truck slowing down to stop at a red D. time and distance
light is an example of
282. What is Force?
A. Speed
A. A Push
B. Velocity
B. A Pull
C. Acceleration
C. Both a push and pull
D. Direction
D. Either a push or pull
278. A rocket started at rest. After initiat- 283. An object is moving at a constant speed.
ing the launch, it had an acceleration of The object changes direction & continues
90 m/s2. How far did it travel when it moving at the same speed. What caused
reached a speed of 2430 m/s? the object to change direction?
A. 13.5 m A. Inertia & gravity
B. 65610 m B. Momentum
C. 27 m C. Change in speed
D. 32805 m D. An outside force acted upon it

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1080

284. What is Acceleration C. Acceleration

A. The rate of change of velocity D. Direction
B. The speeding up of an object 290. Which is NOT an example of Accelera-
C. The speed and direction of an object’s tion?
motion A. An object speeds up
D. The distance an object travels per unit B. An object slows down
of time C. An object changes direction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
285. What is net force? D. An object is in constant motion.
A. The two forces combined 291. The jogger ran 3 miles in 28 minutes.
B. When a force pulls or pushes to the A. speed
right
B. velocity
C. The overall force acting on an object.
C. acceleration
D. none of above
D. none of above
286. Calculate the speed of a turtle that 292. Scientists follow the humpback whales to
walked 280 centimeters in 7 seconds. Hawaii each winter. They travel at about
A. 40 cm/s 7 miles per hour.
B. 6 cm/s A. Speed
C. 20 cm/s B. Velocity
D. 35 cm/s C. Acceleration
D. none of above
287. Change in velocity over a given period of
time is 293. The motorcycle slowed down as it ap-
A. velocity proached the yield sign.
B. motion A. speed

C. speed B. velocity
C. acceleration
D. acceleration
D. none of above
288. The soccer player kicked the ball harder
to make the goal 294. Acceleration:is the rate of change in
A. speed A. speed
B. velocity B. distance
C. acceleration C. velocity

D. none of above D. displacement

295. A roller coaster travels on a loop
289. A plane traveling 500 miles per hour
from Houston to Dallas (North) is an ex- A. speed
ample of a/n B. velocity
A. Speed C. acceleration
B. Velocity D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1081

296. What information does a velocity give 301. The velocity is always to the line of
that a speed does not give? a circle.

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A. rate of change of distance A. outwards
B. direction B. towards the center
C. units of measurement such as km/h or
C. tangent
mi/h
D. how fast something travels D. faster

297. A ball rolling West at 5 cm per second is 302. define uniform velocity
an example of a/n
A. motion with constant velocity
A. Speed
B. motion with constant time
B. Velocity
C. motion with steady motion
C. Acceleration
D. motion with velocity
D. Direction

298. A student collects data while walking to 303. What unit would you use to measure me-
school one morning. The student uses a ters per second?
timing device to time how long it takes to A. km
walk to school and a pedometer to mea-
sure the distance walked. With the data B. m/s
collected, the student can calculate C. hours
A. acceleration
D. none of above
B. speed
C. velocity 304. A car travels at 15 m/s for 10 s. It then
speeds up with a constant acceleration of
D. Not here
2.0 m/s2 for 15 s. At the end of this,
299. When there is no change in velocity (trav- what is its velocity?
elling at constant velocity), the accelera- A. 15 m/s
tion is
B. 30 m/s
A. negative m/s2.
C. 45 m/s
B. positive m/s2.
C. zero m/s2. D. 375 m/s
D. increasing m/s2. 305. A person walks 60 meters in 1 minute.
E. decreasing m/s2. Then walks 30 meters in 2 minutes. What
is their average speed over the 3 minute
300. Which one of these is an example of ac- walk?
celeration
A. .5 m/s
A. A person walking six miles North
B. An ant moved two feet per minute B. 1 m/s
C. A car turning around a corner C. 2 m/s
D. A plane flew 300 miles per hour D. 5 m/s

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1082

306. The science teacher walked 3 miles in 28 311. A car is safely speeding up from 10 miles
minutes. per hour to 50 miles per hour. what is the
car doing?
A. speed
A. accelerating
B. velocity
B. speeding
C. acceleration
C. stopping
D. none of above
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
307. Sandy drives west during a three-day 312. A child riding her bike turns left to go
road trip. On the first day, she trav- home. This is an example of-
els 300 km and stops for the night. The
next day, she drives for 6 hours and stops A. Speed
900 km from New York City. Which cor- B. Velocity
rectly states the average velocity of the C. Acceleration
woman’s car on the second day?
D. Direction
A. 600 km
313. A cheetah runs a maximum speed of 75
B. 100 km/hr
mph. This is an example of-
C. 150 km west A. Speed
D. 100 km/ hr west B. Velocity
308. What is the unit of measurement when C. Accleration
talking about speed? D. Direction
A. Seconds 314. A snail can crawl 2 meters in 2 hours.
B. Feet and inches A. speed
C. Meters B. velocity
D. Miles per hour C. acceleration
D. none of above
309. A person walks 50 meters directly north,
stops, and then travels 32 meters directly 315. An object travels 200 m in 5 s. The ob-
south. What is their displacement? jects average speed is:
A. 82 meters A. 40 m/s
B. 18 meters B. 60 m/s
C. 28 meters C. 1000 m/s

D. none of above D. 250 m/s

316. The correct formula for calculating Veloc-
310. /s2 is an example of ity
A. Speed A. v = (Xf-Xi) x t
B. Distance B. v = displacement/t
C. Time C. s = t/d
D. Acceleration D. s = displacement/ t

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1083

317. When you have distance over time? B. 30m

A. Speed C. 45m

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B. Velocity D. 60m
C. Acceleration 323. Select example(s) of free fall motion?
D. Destination from the following

318. What is the definition of velocity? A. sky-diver falling from a helicopter to

the ground.
A. When an object changes its speed, di-
rection, or both B. a bird flying around in the sky.

B. An object’s speed in a particular direc- C. a space rocket launching from the

tion ground to the moon.

C. How fast an object traveled in a certain D. a paper airplane gliding a cross a class-
amount of time room.

D. none of above E. a ball falling from a rooftop to a road

surface.
319. You are riding your bike at 9 km/h. Ten
minutes later, your speed is 6 km/h. 324. A car traveling 300 miles in 5 hours is an
example of
A. Acceleration occurred because speed
increased. A. Speed

B. Acceleration occurred because speed B. Velocity

decreased. C. Acceleration
C. Acceleration occurred because you D. Direction
changed directions.
325. Three moving objects are depicted with
D. none of above diagonal lines on a position vs time graph.
320. this is expressed when speed or direction The fastest object will have:
both change. A. the most gentle slope
A. speed B. the highest line
B. velocity C. the lowest line
C. distance D. the steepest slope
D. acceleration 326. Which of the following could describe an
321. The distance covered over time. object that is accelerating?

A. Speed A. An object speeds up.

B. Velocity B. An object slows down.

C. Average Speed C. An object changes direction.

D. Constant Speed D. All of the these.

322. An object went 15 m/s for 3 seconds. 327. The horse ran 44 mph to win the race.
How far did it travel? A. speed
A. 15 m B. velocity

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1084

C. acceleration 332. On a speed-time graph, a perfectly

D. none of above straight horizontal line shows the change
in speed is
328. A student rides the Ferris wheel when A. 0
visiting an amusement park. During the
B. 10
ride, she moves at a constant speed of 3
m/s. Which of the following statements C. 1
best describes the motion of the student D. -10

NARAYAN CHANGDER
on the Ferris wheel?
333. A car accelerates form a standstill to 60
A. The velocity is changing because the di- Km/hr in 10 second. What is its accelera-
rection is changing. tion?
B. The velocity is not changing because A. 60 km/hr/s
the speed is constant.
B. 6 km/hr/s
C. The velocity is increasing because the
C. 3 km/hr/s
direction is changing.
D. 2 km/hr/s
D. The velocity is decreasing because the
speed is constant. 334. What does initial velocity and mean?
A. Initial velocity is the starting value of
329. A motorcycle slows as it comes to a stop
an objects velocity before something hap-
sign.
pens to change it
A. speed
B. Initial velocity is the speed when some-
B. velocity thing changes
C. acceleration C. initial means the letters of my name
D. none of above D. initial is the last velocity something has

330. Motion is 335. Speed is

A. A measure of how fast something A. A change of position over time
moves through a particular distance over B. A speed in a specific direction
a definite time period. Speed is distance C. The rate at which velocity changes
divided by time. over time
B. The rate at which velocity changes D. A measure of how fast something
over time moves through a particular distance over
C. A change of position over time a definite time period. Speed is distance
divided by time.
D. A speed in a specific direction
336. Which of the following is a speed?
331. A possible unit for angular acceleration
is: A. The time at which a bicycle acceler-
ates.
A. rad/s2
B. The length of a racetrack
B. rad/s
C. The path of an elevator
C. N*m D. The rate at which a person slides down
D. Kg*m2 a rope.

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1085

337. If you’re sitting still in a chair reading C. 6.7 miles per hour
this, what is your acceleration?
D. 0.15 miles per hour

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A. 0 m/s/s
B. 1 m/s/s 343. Which control cause only a change in ve-
locity?
C. 2 m/s/s
A. The steering wheel
D. 3 m/s/s
B. The gas pedal and the brake
338. the distance an object travels per unit of
time C. The tyres
A. speed D. The break
B. velocity
344. Which of these is an example of acceler-
C. acceleration ation?
D. none of above A. A car coasts along at 40 km/hr
339. i/hr South is an example of B. A car is parked on the side of the road
A. Speed C. A speeding car brakes to a stop
B. Velocity
D. A car speeds along at 100 km/hr
C. Acceleration
D. Direction 345. When you graph the motion of an object,
you put on the horizontal axis and
340. What is the speed of an object that trav- on the vertical axis.
els 60 meters in 4 seconds?
A. Time, Distance
A. 240 m/s
B. Distance, Time
B. 15 m/s
C. Speed, Time
C. 0.067 m/s
D. 15 mph D. Time, Speed

341. A racecar going from 0 to 60 miles per 346. This occurs when an object speeds up,
hour in 2.5 seconds is an example of a/n slows down, or changes direction.
A. Speed A. Speed
B. Velocity B. Velocity
C. Acceleration C. Acceleration
D. Direction
D. none of above
342. If a car goes from 10 meters a second
to 50 meters a second in 6 seconds, what 347. A hurricane travels 360 km in 15 hours.
is its acceleration? (remember to subtract A. Speed
the final speed from the initial speed to get
your actual speed) B. Velocity
A. 6.7 meters per second squared C. Acceleration
B. 0.15 meters per second squared D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1086

348. Scientists have measured a cheetah run- 353. A car is traveling at 21.0 m/s. It slows
ning across the savanna at 70 m/s. Which to a stop at a constant rate over 5.00 s.
of these data accurately measured the How far does the car travel during those
cheetah’s speed? 5.00 seconds before it stops?
A. 48 m in 6 s A. 4.20 m
B. 600 m in 8 s B. 52.5 m

C. 210 m in 3 s C. 105 m

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 158 m
D. 450 m in 9 s
354. Geese fly about 64 kilometers per hour
349. Km (kilometers) is a unit for when they migrate south.
A. Speed A. Speed
B. Distance B. Velocity
C. Time C. Acceleration
D. Direction D. none of above

355. Turning a corner on a motorcycle is an ex-

350. Which of following gives the best descrip-
ample of
tion of speed?
A. Speed
A. A school bus travels 40 km in an hour.
B. Velocity
B. An airplane flies south for a time of 2
h. C. Acceleration
D. Direction
C. A freight train travels 500 km in a day.
D. A hot air balloon travels at 35 km/h 356. The runner sped up to cross the finish line.
from Albuquerque to Santa Fe. A. speed
B. velocity
351. An airplane accelerates from rest down a
runway at 3.20 m/s2 for 8 s until it finally C. acceleration
lifts off the ground.Determine the velocity D. none of above
at take-off.
357. Which of the following best describes the
A. 0.4 m/s velocity of an object?
B. 2.5 m/s A. 30 m/s
C. 25.6 m/s B. 30 m East
D. none of above C. 30 m/s East
D. 30 m/s2
352. Speed =
A. distance / time 358. An Olympic swimmer increases speed
over the last 10 seconds of the race. This
B. time / distance is an example of-
C. distance * time A. Speed
D. none of above B. Velocity

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1087

C. Acceleration C. distance
D. Direction D. time

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359. The geese fly 23 mph south when they 365. A measurement of the rate of change of
migrate for the winter. position with respect to time
A. speed A. Frame of reference
B. velocity B. Speed
C. acceleration C. Velocity
D. none of above D. none of above

360. A push or pull that causes a change in mo- 366. A car slows down from +32 m/s to +8
tion m/s in 4 s. The acceleration is
A. Friction A. 6 m/s2 opposite the motion
B. Gravity B. 8 m/s2 in the direction of motion

C. Force C. 6 m/s2 in the direction of motion

D. Mass D. 8 m/s2 opposite the motion

367. What is the formula to calculate speed?

361. A car traveling 300 miles in 5 hours is an
example of a/an A. Speed = time/distance
A. Speed B. Speed = distance/time
B. Velocity C. Speed = distance x time
C. Acceleration D. Speed = time x distance
D. Direction 368. A horse galloping East at 10 miles per
hour is an example of a/n
362. Which of the following is an acceptable
velocity measurement? A. Speed
A. 25 m/s North B. Velocity

B. 25 m/s C. Acceleration

C. 25 m D. Direction

D. 25 m North 369. A bicyclist takes a curved, scenic ride

through the park going 4.5 m/s.
363. When you have speed and direction?
A. Speed
A. Velocity
B. Acceleration
B. Speed
C. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. none of above
D. Destination
370. When an object spins it is said to undergo
364. The slope of a position vs time graph is:
A. acceleration A. rotational motion
B. velocity B. angular momentum

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1088

C. axis differentiation 376. The unit meters (m) is used for-

D. rotational axis A. Speed

371. Calculate the speed of a person that biked B. Distance

12, 500 meters in 50 minutes. C. Time
A. 250 m/min D. none of above
B. 300 m/min
377. If a car is traveling forward at 15 m/s,

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 40 m/min
how fast will it be going in 1.2 seconds if
D. 100 m/min the acceleration is-10 m/s/s?

372. On a graph the data table is a result of in- A. 27 m/s

formation collected during an experiment. B. 3 m/s
The data in the table gives to plot.
C. -27 m/s
A. points of origin
D. -3 m/s
B. vectors
C. points of reference 378. An object is undergoing a constant ac-
celeration. If the rate of acceleration is
D. m/s
larger, the velocity reached after a given
373. How far will a person go if they jog for time interval will be:
2 hours at a speed of 12 km/hr? A. no change
A. 6 km B. smaller
B. 0.5 km C. larger
C. 10 km
D. none of the above
D. 24 km
379. David walks 3 km north, and then turns
374. A car starts from rest at a stop light and east and walks 4 km. What is the dis-
reaches 20 m/s in 3.5 s. Determine the tance?
acceleration of the car.
A. 7 km
A. 2.2m/s2
B. 3 km
B. 7.0m/s2
C. 4 km
C. 5.7m/s2
D. 1 km
D. 70m/s2

375. Traveling to Austin from Dallas takes 4 380. How long would it take for a car to travel
hours to go 200 miles. What is the aver- a distance of 200 kilometers if it is travel-
age speed? ing at a velocity of 55 km/hr?

A. 50 mph A. 20 min
B. 20 mph B. 11, 000 min
C. 200 mph C. 3.6 hrs
D. 50 kmh D. 5 hrs

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1089

381. A family takes a trip from Austin, Texas, 386. Which one of these problems represents
to Houston, Texas. All of the following Speed?
are possible velocity values for the fam-

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A. A soccer ball rolling 3 meters East
ily’s trip, EXCEPT
B. Speeding up at the start of a race
A. the velocity for the trip is 103 km/h
B. the velocity for the trip is 103 km/h C. Slowing down in a traffic jam
southeast D. A car traveled 10 meters per second
C. the velocity for the trip is 121 km/h
southeast 387. Which of the following can be used to
measure an object’s speed?
D. the velocity for the trip is 89 km/h
southeast A. Joules
B. Newtons
382. While going to school, a student walks an
average of 5 km/hr west for 12 blocks. C. Miles per hour
A. Speed D. Kilometers per second per second
B. Acceleration
388. The zombie freak went to the cafeteria to
C. Velocity find food. He traveled 2 miles. There was
D. none of above no food! Freaked out, he travelled 2 more
miles to home and watched TV. What was
383. Dorothy was initially at rest. She sped Zombie Freaks displacement?
up to 9 m/s in 24 seconds. What was her
acceleration? A. 4 miles
A. 2.7 m/s2 B. 2 miles
B. -2.7 m/s2 C. 0 miles
C. -0.375 m/s2 D. not finding food
D. 0.375 m/s2
389. A dolphin swimming 40 kilometers per
384. Which could be an example of a balanced hour toward the surface of the water is
force? an example of a/n
A. An asteroid moving at a constant A. Speed
speed through space
B. Velocity
B. A car accelerating from a stop sign
C. Acceleration
C. A box of dishes falling from a counter
D. Direction
D. A rocket taking off
390. A car turns left while maintaining the
385. A car slows down from 60 mph to 25
same speed.
mph.
A. Speed A. Speed

B. Velocity B. Velocity
C. Acceleration C. Acceleration
D. none of above D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1090

391. Define average velocity C. 1 m/s

A. rate of change of distance D. 2 m/s
B. rate of change of displacement 397. Amy runs 2 miles south, then turns
C. rate of change of speed around and runs 3 miles north. What is
displacement?
D. rate of change of time
A. 5 miles
392. Looking for some good old-fashioned fun,
B. 1 miles

NARAYAN CHANGDER
Andrew decides to slide down the hill on a
toboggan. Calculate the time it takes him C. 2 miles
to reach the bottom of the hill if he accel- D. 3 miles
erates at a rate of 4 m/s2 from rest to
achieve a speed of 32 m/s. 398. Velocity is a vector measurement be-
cause it has both a magnitude and a
A. 0.13 s
A. Time
B. 4 s
B. Distance
C. 28 s
C. Direction
D. 8 s
D. Temperature
393. Aiden turned around when he saw a
teacher needed help opening the door. 399. Which of the following is an example of
speed?
A. Speed
A. A car travels north at 65 mph.
B. Velocity
B. A car drives 120 miles.
C. Acceleration
C. A car travels 50 mph.
D. none of above
D. A car slows down at a red light.
394. A CHANGE in speed or direction
400. A parachute on a racing dragster opens
A. Speed and changes the speed of the car from 85
B. Velocity m/s to 45 m/s in a period of 4.5 seconds.
What is the acceleration of the dragster?
C. Acceleration
A. -5 m/s2
D. Direction
B. -9 m/s
395. Slope is equal to C. 5 m/s2
A. rise/run D. 9 m/s2
B. run/rise
401. The two measurements necessary for cal-
C. rise + run culating average speed are
D. rise-run A. Acceleration and time
396. When an object is at rest, what is its B. Velocity and time
speed? C. Distance and time
A. 0 m/s D. Distance and acceleration
B. 3 m/s E. Velocity and distance

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1091

402. Calculate Sally’s’ acceleration . She be- C. km/s2

gins 12 meters from home in the West end D. m/hr2
of town. She ends up at the grocery store

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30 meters away towards the East end of 407. An example of a vector quantity is
town. It took her 30 minutes to get to the A. Scalar
store! It turns out she met her best friend
Josephine, who stopped to talk with Sally. B. Distance
(s2 = seconds squared) C. Mass
A. .6 m/S2 West D. Velocity
B. 18 meters/S2 west to east 408. m/s west
C. .06m/S2 East A. Speed
D. .6 m/S2 East B. Velocity
403. miles per hour North is an example of an C. Acceleration
objects what? D. none of above
A. Speed
409. If an owl has a speed of 50 m/s, and has
B. Velocity a time of 10 s. What is the distance that
C. Average Speed the owl traveled?
D. Constant Speed A. 500 m
B. 5 m
404. Acceleration of an object happens when
it C. 10 m

A. slows down D. none of above

B. speeds up 410. The unit miles per hour (mph) is used for-
C. changes direction A. Speed
D. all of the these B. Distance
C. Time
405. Which of the following objects is not
changing its velocity? D. none of above
A. A golf ball rolling down a ramp 411. A train slows to stop at a station.
B. A skateboard rolling up a hill A. Speed
C. A cue ball rolling forward at a constant B. Velocity
speed
C. Acceleration
D. A marble going around the curve in a
D. none of above
track
412. “Displacement” is
406. A car accelerates from a standstill to 70
m/s in 10 seconds. What is the unit you A. distance and direction
would put on the acceleration? B. distance only
A. m/s C. direction only
B. m/s2 D. speed

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1092

413. While on a trip, a family travels east C. slow down from 50m/s to stop in 2 sec-
from San Antonio to Houston going 70 onds
mph. D. starts from 0 m/s to 20m/s in 5 sec-
A. Speed onds
B. Acceleration 418. Canadian geese can fly approximately 75
C. Velocity miles in 3 hours.
D. none of above A. Speed

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Velocity
414. What is the difference between the veloc-
ity and the speed of an object? C. Acceleration
A. Velocity is a change in distance over D. none of above
time, speed is the change in direction over
419. Whats the formula for speed?
time
A. s = d/t
B. Velocity has a direction associated
with it, while speed has no specific direc- B. a + b = c
tion C. 1 + 2 = 3
C. Velocity has no direction associated D. V=LWH
with it, while speed has a specific direc-
tion. 420. A bike racer travels 17 mi/hr
D. Velocity is the change in speed over A. speed
time, while speed is the change in dis- B. velocity
tance over time. C. acceleration
415. Which is not an example of acceleration? D. none of above
A. a car going around a curve 421. Patrick Beverly runs across the 15-meter
B. a car applying the brakes basketball court. It takes him 3 seconds.
What is his speed?
C. a car going 55 mph on a straight road
A. 5 m/s
D. a car speeding up
B. 45 m/s
416. If a person runs 100 meters in 10 sec-
C. 10 m/s
onds, what is their average speed?
D. 0.12 m/s
A. 100 m/s
B. 10 m/s 422. You ride your bike in a straight line at a
constant speed of 10 km/h.
C. 5 m/s
A. Acceleration occurred because speed
D. 1 m/s increased.
417. In each of the following cases, determine B. Acceleration did not occur because nei-
which car has the greatest acceleration. ther speed nor direction changed.
A. starts from 0 m/s to 20 m/s in 4 sec- C. Acceleration occurred because you
onds. changed directions.
B. speed up from 20m/s to 40m/s in 3 D. Acceleration occurred because speed
seconds decreased.

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1093

423. A polar bear starts at the North Pole. It 428. A train travels 90 km in an hour
travels 1.0 km south, then 1.0 km east, A. Speed
and then 1.0 km north to return to its

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B. Velocity
starting point. This trip takes 45 min.
What was the bear’s average velocity? C. Acceleration
A. 0.00 km/h D. none of above
B. 0.067 km/h 429. A car starts from rest and after 7 seconds
C. 4.0 km/h it is moving at 42 m/s. What is the car’s
average acceleration?
D. 5.3 km/h
A. 0.17
424. this measures how fast an object is mov- B. 1.67
ing with respect to the distance travelled
C. 6
and the time.
D. 7
A. speed
B. velocity 430. Sally ran a marathon, 26.2 miles, in 3
hours.
C. distance
A. Speed
D. acceleration
B. Velocity
425. A trip from Austin to Dallas takes about C. Acceleration
3 hours going 65 mph north. D. none of above
A. Speed
431. Which statement describes a vector?
B. Velocity
A. It has magnitude but no direction
C. Acceleration
B. It has direction but no magnitude
D. none of above
C. It has both direction and magnitude
426. A body moves along the x-axis with its D. It has constant magnitude but no direc-
acceleration at any time t, given by a(t) tion
= 2t-1. If the velocity of the body at t =
0 is-6, what is the total distance traveled 432. Traveling a certain distance in a certain
during the time interval 0 < t < 5? amount of time in a given direction (ex.
m/s north)
A. 5/6
A. Speed
B. 21 5/6
B. Velocity
C. 26 1/6
C. Acceleration
D. 15 1/6 D. none of above
427. A flock of geese flies at a constant speed 433. refers to how fast an object is mov-
as it migrates to Canada. ing.
A. speed A. Speed
B. velocity B. Velocity
C. acceleration C. Acceleration
D. none of above D. Motion

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1094

434. When there is a uniform positive change 438. Acceleration due to gravity is
in velocity (travelling with uniformly in- A. 100 m/s2
creasing velocity), the acceleration is
B. 9.8 m/s2
A. negative constant m/s2.
C. 4.5 m/s2
B. positive constant m/s2.
D. it depends on the mass of the object
C. zero m/s2.
D. increasing m/s2. 439. Which of the following is a unit for accel-

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eration?
E. decreasing m/s2.
A. km/s
435. A type of friction that occurs when air B. m/s2
pushes against a moving object causing it
to negatively accelerate C. mi/hr
A. surface area D. ft
B. air resistance 440. A car travels on a down the highway at
C. descent velocity a constant speed of 70 mph.
D. gravity A. Speed
B. Velocity
436. A meteor moving 480 km per minute
traveling in a south-to-north direction C. Acceleration
passed near earth in 2005. Because the D. none of above
meteor was only 45 m wide and was
27, 700 km above Earth’s surface, it 441. increase speed
was not visible without the aid of a tele- A. Speed
scope.Which describes the meteors mo-
B. Velocity
tion?
C. Acceleration
A. The velocity was 8 km/s northward.
D. none of above
B. The acceleration was 480 km/s2
C. Its speed was 480 km/s northward. 442. Distance over Time is the definition of
D. The acceleration was 8 km/s2 A. Speed

437. A meteor moving 468 km per minute B. Velocity

traveling in a south-to-north direction C. Acceleration
passed near Earth in 2013. Because the D. Direction
meteor was only 45 m wide and was
27, 700 km above Earth’s surface, it 443. A boy on a bicycle travels at a speed of
was not visible without the aid of a tele- 30 kilometers per hour. How many kilo-
scope.Which statement describes the me- meters will he have traveled when he is
teor’s motion? 0.20 hours away from his starting point?
A. Its velocity was 7.8 km/s northward A. 6 km
B. Its acceleration was 468 km/s2 B. 12 km
C. Its speed was 468 km/s northward C. 30 km
D. Its acceleration was 7.8 km/s2 D. 60 km

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1095

444. kicking a soccer ball 15 meters per second 450. An object travels 300 meters in 15 sec-
north onds. This information allows you to cal-
culate its:

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A. speed
B. velocity A. instant speed
B. average speed
C. acceleration
C. acceleration
D. none of above
D. change in speed
445. Distance divided by time is
451. What is the definition of acceleration?
A. speed
A. When an object changes its speed, di-
B. velocity rection, or both
C. displacement B. An object’s speed in a particular direc-
D. acceleration tion
C. How fast an object traveled in a certain
446. The correct equation to calculate speed is
amount of time
A. distance/time D. none of above
B. time/distance
452. A car travels 500 kilometers in 5 hours.
C. distance x time What is the speed of the car?
D. distance/time2 A. 100 km/h
447. Students want to calculate personal av- B. 10000 km/h
erage speed while running on the track. C. 100 mi/hr
What equipment will they need to take to D. 100 m/s
the track to collect data?
A. Computer and timing device 453. What is the equation to calculate speed?
A. speed = distance/time
B. Timing device and anemometer
B. speed = time/distance
C. Spring scale and meter stick
C. speed = time x distance
D. Meter stick and timing device
D. speed = speed/time
448. Acceleration of an object happens when
things 454. A soccer ball travels 50 m in 5 s. What
is the velocity of the ball?
A. slow down
A. 10 m/s
B. go faster
B. 250 m/s
C. change direction (turn) C. 0.1 m/s
D. All of the above D. 50 m/s
449. A car driving to school turned a corner 455. a snail moving 10 miles per hour
A. speed A. speed
B. velocity B. velocity
C. acceleration C. acceleration
D. none of above D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1096

456. What is the difference between velocity 460. A car goes from 6 m/s to 15 m/s in 3
and acceleration? seconds. What is the acceleration of the
car?
A. Velocity of an object is speed in a spe-
cific direction. Acceleration is any change A. 3 s2
in the velocity or direction or both of the B. 3 m/s2
object over time. C. 3 m/s3
B. The Acceleration of an object refers to D. 3 m/s

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the speed in a specific direction. Velocity
implies any change in the acceleration of 461. Time is measured using the SI units of
the object with respect to time. A. minutes
C. velocity has no direction where accel- B. seconds
eration does. C. meters
D. acceleration has no direction, where D. grams
velocity does with respect to time
462. Butterflies flying south at 12 m/hr
457. Define instantaneous velocity. A. speed

A. Velocity at a instant of time along the B. velocity

path of motion C. acceleration
B. Velocity at a specified position along D. none of above
the path of motion 463. Rate at which an object is moving at a
C. Velocity at a specified position or in- given moment of time
stant of time along the path of motion. A. acceleration
D. Velocity at a position or time along the B. instantaneous speed
path of motion. C. velocity
D. average speed
458. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of acceleration? 464. A change in an object’s position with re-
spect to time and in comparison to the po-
A. A car traveling at a steady speed of 20
sition of other objects used as reference
km/hr
points
B. A planet orbiting the sun A. Acceleration
C. A runner sprinting at a rate of 10 m/s B. Frame of reference
and then slowing down at the finish line C. Motion
D. The dot-car traveling down a ramp D. none of above

459. A snail moves 0.013 meters in 1 second. 465. The slope of a velocity vs. time graph
represents the
A. Speed
A. velocity
B. Velocity B. time
C. Acceleration C. acceleration
D. none of above D. position

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1097

466. The dog ran at a rate of 3 m/s. 471. On a distance vs. time graph, the steeper
the slope
A. Speed

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A. the slower the speed
B. Velocity
B. the faster the speed
C. Acceleration
C. less acceleration
D. none of above
D. greater acceleration
467. What is the force that causes centripetal
acceleration when a car goes around a 472. When you know both the speed and direc-
curve? tion of an object’s motion, you know the

A. Friction A. average speed of the object

B. Gravity B. acceleration of the object

C. Normal C. distance the object has traveled

D. Tension D. velocity of the object

473. Which of the following is a complete de-

468. If you know a car traveled 300 km in 3
scription of the velocity of an object in mo-
hours, you can find its
tion?
A. acceleration.
A. A train travels due west at 90 km/h.
B. direction.
B. A 7 kg bowling ball rolls a distance of
C. average speed. 20 m in 3 s.
D. velocity. C. A runner jogs 6 km/h for 10 minutes.
D. Birds fly 600 km south for the winter.
469. A ball starts rolling up a slanted hill. It
starts with a velocity of 2.5 m/s up the 474. A correct measure of velocity would be
hill, slows down for 5 s, stops for an in-
stant, and then rolls back down the hill. A. 300 m/hr
Assuming that the positive direction is up B. 7, 800 m/sec
the hill, what is the magnitude of the ball’s C. 40 kn/hr north
average acceleration as it rolls up the hill?
D. none of above
A. 0.125 m/s2
B. 0.25 m/s2 475. Speed or Velocity? :A turtle is crawling
34 cm/min.
C. -0.5 m/s2
A. Speed
D. 0.75 m/s2
B. Velocity
470. The unit we use to measure acceleration C. Neither
is
D. Both
A. meters / second
476. Which statement is true about an object
B. meters
that is traveling in uniform circular mo-
C. seconds tion?
D. meters / second / second A. The speed of the object varies.

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1098

B. The net force on the object is directed 482. A bamboo plant grows 3.75 cm taller in
toward the center of the circular path. one hour.
C. The direction of the object’s velocity is A. Speed
constant.
B. Velocity
D. The net force on the object is directed
away from the center of the circular path. C. Acceleration
D. none of above
477. Turning a corner on a motorcycle is an ex-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ample of a/n 483. A dog runs with an initial speed of 7.5
A. Speed m/s on a waxed floor. It slides to a stop
B. Velocity in 15 seconds. What is the acceleration?
C. Acceleration A. -7.5 m/s
D. Direction B. -7.5 m/s2

478. Acceleration occurs when an object C. -0.5 m/s2

changes its speed or D. 7.5 mi//hr
A. direction
484. The subway car begins to slow down as
B. force it makes it’s way to the train station.
C. inertia
A. Speed
D. mass
B. Velocity
479. If the average speed of a car is 110
C. Acceleration
km/h, how long will it take the car to
travel 715 km? D. none of above
A. 6 h 485. An object completes 1.5 circular orbits in
B. 6.5 km/h half a minute. It orbits with a radius of 2
C. 6.5 h m. What is the object’s tangential speed?
D. none of above A. 0.15 m/s

480. Which of the following best describes the B. 0.60 m/s

acceleration of an object? C. 1.6 m/s
A. 26 m/s D. 6 m/s
B. 30 m North
486. Acceleration is
C. 15 m/s North
A. A measure of how fast something
D. 45 m/s2
moves through a particular distance over
481. The fastest motorcycle in the world went a definite time period. Speed is distance
376 miles per hour. divided by time.
A. Speed B. The rate at which velocity changes
B. Velocity over time
C. Acceleration C. A speed in a specific direction
D. none of above D. A change of position over time

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1099

487. A car drives north at 400 kilometers per 493. An object speeding up, slowing down,
hour. and/or changing directions.

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A. Speed A. Speed
B. Velocity B. Velocity
C. Acceleration C. Acceleration
D. none of above D. none of above
488. The change in an objects speed. 494. Speed is different from velocity because
A. Velocity A. Velocity has a direction
B. Speed B. Speed uses Distance /Time
C. Acceleration C. Velocity doesn’t include time
D. Inertia D. Velocity doesn’t include distance
489. Which of the following is an example of 495. What makes velocity and acceleration dif-
velocity? fer from speed?
A. A car travels north at 65 mph. A. time
B. A car drives 120 miles. B. distance
C. A car travels 50 mph.
C. direction
D. A car slows down at a red light.
D. time2
490. Scott travels north 5 miles and then goes
496. What is this? A car is traveling 50 mph.
west 3 miles before coming straight back
south 2 miles. What is his distance? A. Speed
A. 10 mi B. Velocity
B. 7 mi C. Acceleration
C. 8 mi D. none of above
D. 6 mi 497. A description of the speed and direction
491. All of the following are examples of ac- of an object’s motion
celeration, except- A. Velocity
A. A car slowing down B. Speed
B. A car making a turn C. Acceleration
C. A car moving at a constant speed D. Vector
D. A car speeding up
498. What is the standard unit of measure-
492. What is velocity? ment for acceleration?
A. the quickness of an object A. Meters per second squared
B. the location of an object B. Seconds per meter
C. acceleration C. Meters per second
D. speed in a specific direction D. Meters

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1100

499. Acceleration is a change in C. Speed

A. speed D. Acceleration
B. velocity 505. Which type of friction occurs when solid
C. direction surfaces slide over each other?
D. position A. rolling

500. A motorist travels for 3.0 h at 80 km/h B. static

NARAYAN CHANGDER
and 2.0 h at 100 km/h. What is her aver- C. sliding
age speed for the trip?
D. fluid
A. 85 km/h
506. A car begins to pick up speed as it goes
B. 88 km/h
down a hill. As it starts down the hill, its
C. 90 km/h initial velocity is 4 m/s. At the bottom of
D. 92 km/h the hill, 2 seconds later, its final velocity is
12 m/s. What is the average acceleration
501. A distance vs. time graph shows an ob- of the car?
ject’s A. 4 m/s3
A. frame of reference B. 4 m
B. speed C. 40 m/s2
C. acceleration
D. 4 m/s2
D. favorite food
507. What do you need to know about an ob-
502. The rate at which velocity changes is ject to calculate its velocity?
called
A. Speed and time
A. motion
B. Speed and direction
B. average speed
C. Speed and velocity
C. instantaneous speed
D. Time and direction
D. acceleration
508. The rate of change in speed is known as
503. A train is accelerating at a rate of 2.0
A. displacement
km/hr/s its initial velocity is 20 km/ hr.
What is its velocity after 30 seconds? B. distance
A. 80 km/ hr C. acceleration
B. 8 km/ hr D. velocity
C. 18 km/ hr 509. You walk 10 meters to math class in 20
D. 10 km/ hr seconds. Your average speed is

504. Can be measured in meters per second A. 2 m/s

(m/s) B. 0.5 m/s
A. Distance C. 200 m/s
B. Time D. 5 m/s

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1101

510. How far an object has moved? 515. A roller coasters accelerates from an ini-
A. displacement tial velocity of of 6.0 m/s to a final veloc-
ity of 70 m/s over 4 seconds. What’s the

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B. distance acceleration?
C. motion A. 24 m/s2
D. reference point B. 18 m/s2
511. Which of the following is NOT a unit of C. 16 m/s2
rotational speed? D. 16 m/s
A. Meters per second 516. A place or object used for comparison to
B. Revolutions per minute determine if another object is in motion is
C. Revolutions per second called a

D. Rotations per second A. comparison point

B. reference point
512. A plane flying 300 mph west toward Cal-
C. point of view
ifornia is an example of
D. motion detector
A. Speed
B. Velocity 517. What is the equation to calculate dis-
tance?
C. Acceleration
A. distance = speed/time
D. Direction
B. distance = time/speed
513. Example of uniform velocity C. distance = speed/distance
A. Brit drives from school to the mall D. distance = speed x time
down a straight road, but slows down be-
cause of traffic. 518. The shortest distance from one point to
another is called the
B. Jonathan goes on a 5 mile run down a
straight path, but slows down due to his A. distance
loss of breath. B. displacement
C. Stevie travels from home to work in C. velocity
a straight line going a constant speed of
D. acceleration
26.8 m/s.
D. George skates from school to the 519. Velocity is the rate at which changes
skate park at a constant speed, but he with time.
doesn’t travel down a straight path. A. distance
514. A snail moving 10 meters per hour is an B. displacement
example of a/n C. speed
A. Speed D. average speed
B. Velocity
520. Traveling a certain distance in a specific
C. Acceleration amount of time (ex. m/s)
D. Direction A. Speed

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1102

B. Velocity C. 300 mph north

C. Acceleration D. 200 mph north
D. none of above
526. In order to describe the velocity of an
521. Calculate the acceleration of Josh riding object, which three pieces of data are
his bicycle in a straight line that speeds up needed?
from 40 m/s to 60 m/s in 50 seconds. A. -The mass of the object in grams-The
A. 0.4 m/s speed at which the object traveled-The

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pull of gravity on the object
B. 0.4 m/s2
C. 4 B. -The distance traveled by the object-
The time taken to travel-The direction of
D. 0.4 travel
522. According to the video you just watched, C. -The mass of the object in grams-The
What is the units for acceleration? time taken to travel-The acceleration of
A. M / s2 the object

B. Meters per second squared D. -The distance traveled by the object-

The force the object had on another object-
C. meters per second per second The mass of the object in grams
D. all of these are correct
527. What is the formula for calculating
523. A runner races in the 100 meter dash. It speed?
takes her 10 seconds to finish. What is
A. S= D x T
her average speed?
A. 10 m/s B. S= T/D

B. 1000 m/s C. S= D/T

C. 100 seconds D. S= D+T
D. 10 seconds 528. A cheetah can accelerate from rest to a
speed of 30.0 m/s in 7.00 s. What is its
524. Select 2:Acceleration is
acceleration?
A. the change in velocity per unit of time
Example : sm2 A. 4.29 m/s3

B. distance divided by time usually repre- B. 4.29 m/s2

sented in m/s in science C. 4.29 m/s1
C. the speed and direction that an object D. 4.29 m/s
is traveling in
D. an increase or decrease in speed; 529. Billy was traveling at 25 m/s for 23 sec-
changing direction onds. How far did he travel?
A. 1.09 m
525. Find the velocity of a truck that travels
75 miles north in 2.5 hours. B. 575 m
A. 187.5 mph north C. 0.92 m
B. 30 mph north D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1103

530. An object completes 1.5 circular orbits in 535. A train travels at a speed of 70 kilome-
half a minute. What is its approximate an- ters per hour for 3 hours, and a car travels
gular velocity? 80 kilometers per hour for 2 hours. Which

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of the two vehicles travels farther?
A. 0.05 rad/s
A. The car travels farther because it trav-
B. 0.30 rad/s
els 210 kilometers.
C. 0.5 rad/s
B. The train travels farther because it
D. 3 rad/s travels 160 kilometers.

531. I have an initial velocity of 10 m/s and C. The car travels farther because it trav-
a final velocity of 20 m/s.I have an accel- els at ta faster speed.
eration of 100 m/s2, how long did this D. The train travels farther because it
take? travels 210 kilometers.
A. 0.2 s
536. Which of the following is NOT a correct
B. 0.1 s unit for speed?
C. 1000 s A. miles per hour
D. 2000 s B. km/min

532. If you are asked how long it takes Whit- C. seconds per hour
ney to bike to McDonald’s, what is a D. cm/s
proper unit you could use to answer the
question? 537. refers to the speed at which an object
changes position.
A. km
A. Speed
B. min
B. Velocity
C. km/min
C. Acceleration
D. m/s2
D. Motion
533. The winning race dog ran at an average
speed 21mph. 538. The distance and direction an object
moves from a starting point is called its
A. Speed
A. displacement
B. Velocity
B. distance
C. Acceleration
C. speed
D. none of above
D. direction
534. A runner speeding up at the start of a
race is an example of a/n 539. Acceleration can be classified as
A. Speed A. Speeding up
B. Velocity B. Slowing Down
C. Acceleration C. Changing directions
D. Direction D. All of the above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1104

540. Which are examples of velocity? a) 546. define uniform acceleration

250 kilometers/hour Westb) 250 kilo- A. velocity change at a constant speed
meters/hour Eastc) 250 kilometers/hour
Northd) 250 kilometers/hour Northwest B. velocity change at a constant rate

A. Only (d) C. velocity change at a constant acceler-

ation
B. All options are velocity
D. velocity change at a constant displace-
C. All are NOT velocity ment

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Only (a)
547. speed is a measurement of an object’s
541. The football player increases his speed to speed at an exact moment in time.
catch the ball. A. instantaneous
A. Speed B. constant
B. Velocity C. distance
C. Acceleration D. speed
D. none of above
548. This term refers to the point where the
542. Check the correct examples of velocity object begins to move from and may re-
A. 6km/h turn to during motion
B. 4 km/h north A. a position
C. 70mph B. a point of reference
D. 70mph east C. a vector
E. 25 feet up D. a point of origin

543. km/hr is an example of 549. A baseball thrown 90 miles per hour to-
ward home plate is an example of a/n
A. Speed
A. Speed
B. Velocity
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
C. Acceleration
D. Distance
D. Direction
544. The velocity of a car heading 100 miles
west in a time of two hours will be 550. The derivative of position is
A. 50 miles/ hour West A. velocity
B. 50 miles/ hour B. acceleration
C. 0.5 miles/ hour C. potato
D. 0.5 meters/ second West D. none of above

545. How many minutes in 1 hrs 551. The rate at which something is moving.
A. 60 minutes A. Speed
B. 100 minutes B. Velocity
C. 85 minutes C. Average Speed
D. 50 minutes D. Constant Speed

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1105

552. A person walking 50 meters per minute. 557. A bowling ball rolling 6.4 m/s
A. Speed A. speed

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B. Velocity B. velocity
C. Acceleration
C. acceleration
D. Direction
D. none of above
553. A student turning left in the hallway to
go to class is an example of a/n 558. (Displacement / Time ) + Direction
A. Speed A. Speed
B. Velocity B. Velocity
C. Acceleration C. Acceleration
D. Direction
D. none of above
554. Caiden is running down the field at first
going 15m/s then after 20 sec is going 559. George walked his dog 2 miles North
30m/s. What is his acceleration? towards Target. After walking for 30
minutes they took a break. What was
A. .75 mph George’s speed?
B. 2m/s
A. 15 mi/hr
C. 0.75m/s2
B. 60 mi/hr
D. 2mph
C. 0.067 mi/hr
555. A car traveling 50 km/hour slows to a
stop, turns right, and then gradually re- D. 4 mi/hr
sumes its original speed in 60 seconds.
560. You ride your bike around the block at a
This could best be described as a change
constant speed of 11 km/h.
in
A. speed A. Acceleration occurred because speed
increased.
B. velocity
B. Acceleration occurred because speed
C. acceleration
decreased.
D. speed, velocity and acceleration
C. Acceleration occurred because you
556. A roller coaster car rapidly picks up speed changed directions.
as it rolls down a slope. As it starts down
D. none of above
the slope, its speed is 4 m/s. But 3 sec-
onds later, at the bottom of the slope, its
561. A boat travels south at 5 meters in 30
speed is 22 m/s. What is its average ac-
seconds.
celeration?
A. speed
A. 5 m/s2
B. 6 m/s2 B. velocity
C. 7 m/s2 C. acceleration
D. 8 m/s2 D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1106

562. Which of the following is a unit of dis- C. Acceleration

tance? D. none of above
A. Km/hr
568. How much time does it take for a car
B. Minutes
travelling at 65 miles/hour to travel 300
C. meters miles?
D. seconds A. 4.6 hours

NARAYAN CHANGDER
563. The distance of an object’s total path is B. 0.22 hours
their C. 19, 500 hours
A. displacement D. none of the above
B. distance
569. A car accelerates from a standstill to 70
C. motion m/s in 10 seconds. What is the accelera-
D. reference point tion?

564. A truck travels down the highway at 70 A. 0.7m/s2

mph northwest. B. 7m/s2
A. Speed C. 14m/s2
B. Velocity D. none of the above
C. Acceleration
570. A truck slowing down to stop at a red
D. none of above light is an example of a/an
565. Which of these objects is NOT accelerat- A. Speed
ing? B. Velocity
A. A plane slowing down to land
C. Acceleration
B. A rocket taking off into space
D. Direction
C. A hiker moving at the same speed for
hours 571. In 2012 a young girl sailed all the way
around the world at about 15 knots west.
D. A rollerblader heading downhill
A. Speed
566. What is the speed of a car that travels
400 m in 20 minutes? B. Velocity

A. 20 miles/hr C. Acceleration

B. 20 m/min D. none of above

C. 800 m/min 572. A bus travels 20 km in 30 minutes. What
D. 200 miles/hr is the average speed of the bus?
A. 20 km/h
567. The flight from NYC to Log Angeles trav-
els at 550 mph west each morning. B. 30 km/h
A. Speed C. 40 km/h
B. Velocity D. 50 km/h

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1107

573. If a car travels North on the highway for 578. The average speed on 933 is 60mph and
50 m, and has a time of 20 s. What is the it is 30 miles from IISSA to Genting High-
velocity? land. How long will it take to get to

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. 2.5 m/s N Genting Higland if I leave at 4pm?

B. 10000 m/s N A. 5min

C. 0.4 m/s B. 30 min
D. 4.0 m/s C. 5hrs
574. When are you undergoing an acceleration D. 30 sec
in a car?
579. An object is if its position changes rel-
A. speed up
ative to another object.
B. slow down
A. in motion
C. make turns
B. at reset
D. All of the above
C. a frame of refence
575. A little freshman moves down the hall at
3.2 m/s. When he sees Luke coming, he D. magical
slows down. After 3.2 s, he is moving at
1.2 m/s. What is his acceleration? 580. What is the equation for force?
A. -0.25 m/s2 A. force=Mass/time
B. -42.9 m/s2 B. force=mass*acceleration
C. -0.625 m/s2 C. force=distance*time
D. -12 m/s2 D. force=velocity*mass
576. A golf ball starts with a speed of 2 m/s
581. Eduardo rode his skateboard 10 meters
and slows at a constant rate of 0.5 m/s2,
in 1 second.
what is its velocity after 2 s?
A. 0 m/s A. Speed
B. 0.5 m/s B. Velocity
C. 1 m/s C. Acceleration
D. 1.5 m/s D. none of above
577. Suppose you are in a car that is going
582. A runner starting from a rest position ac-
around a curve. The speedometer reads a
celerates at a rate of 2 m/s2. What is
constant 30 miles per hour. Which of the
the final velocity of the runner after 6 sec-
following is NOT true?
onds?
A. You and the car are accelerating.
A. 21 m/s/s
B. Your acceleration is constantly chang-
ing. B. 21 m/s
C. Your velocity is constant. C. 12 m/s2
D. Your speed is constant. D. 12 m/s

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1108

583. A car initially moving 4 m/s slows down 588. The jumbo jet is traveling at 500 mph to
and stops at a red light. the north.
A. speed A. speed
B. velocity
B. velocity
C. acceleration
C. acceleration
D. none of above
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
584. What is the unit of force?
A. Kilogram 589. If the position of a particle is represented
B. Meter by s(t) =-t2 + 1, what is its position at t
= 1?
C. Pascal
A. Position = 0
D. Newton
B. Position = 1
585. Which type of friction occurs when ob-
jects are not moving? C. Position = 2
A. static D. Position =-1
B. sliding
590. The tornado is traveling northwest at 20
C. fluid
mph.
D. rolling
A. speed
586. An athlete goes for a run. The athlete
runs 5 kilometers per hour, then makes a B. velocity
right-hand turn, and his speed changes to C. acceleration
8 kilometers per hour. Which statement
best describes the athlete’s run? D. none of above
A. The athlete experienced a decrease in
591. How far will a person go if they jog for
acceleration
2 hours at a speed of 12 km/hr? (For-
B. The athlete experienced no accelera- mula:Distance = Speed x Time)
tion
A. 10 km/hr
C. The athlete experienced an increase in
acceleration B. 24 km/hr
D. The athlete experienced an increase in C. 10 km
speed but experienced no acceleration
D. 24 km
587. When you interpret a distance-time
graph, the speed of the object is deter- 592. Change in velocity / change in time =
mined by
A. Speed
A. looking at the values on the x-axis
B. Velocity
B. looking at the values on the y-axis
C. finding the length of the graph line C. Acceleration
D. finding the slope of the graph line D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1109

593. A object goes from point X to Y and then 598. Acceleration is the rate of change of an
come back from Y to X. What is the dis- object’s
placement and average velocity?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Speed
A. displacement is zero, Average velocity B. Force
is also zero
C. Velocity
B. displacement is increase, Average ve-
locity is also increase D. Momentum

C. displacement is increase, Average ve- 599. A ship sails 5, 635 km from England to
locity is also decrease the United States in 2, 520 hours. What
D. displacement is increase, Average ve- is the ship’s velocity?
locity is also zero A. 1, 610 km/m east
B. 1, 610 km/m west
594. A bicyclist goes around a corner at 4.5
m/s. C. 1, 610 m
A. Speed D. none of above
B. Velocity 600. A bike traveled at 8 m/s
C. Acceleration A. speed
D. none of above B. velocity
595. In a coordinate system, the is the C. acceleration
point at which both variables have the D. none of above
value of zero.
601. What kind of quantity has both a magni-
A. distance
tude and a direction?
B. magnitude
A. scalar
C. origin B. vector
D. vector C. frame of reference
596. What is the velocity of an object that D. time
travels 20 meters in 4 seconds North?
602. At the start of a free fall, the body
A. 80 m/s North
A. accelerates and its velocity is in-
B. 5 m/s creasing.
C. 5 m/s North B. decelerates and its velocity is de-
D. 24 m/s creasing.
C. not accelerating and its velocity is
597. A trip will take about 5 hours traveling
constant.
at an average of 70 mi/hr.
D. not accelerating and its velocity is
A. speed
zero.
B. velocity
603. Velocity does not only tell us the SPEED
C. acceleration of an object. It also tells us the of the
D. none of above object.

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1110

A. size A. Student A-m/s

B. direction B. Student B-s2
C. shape C. Student C-m/s2
D. color D. Student D-m2

604. A car acccelerates from 25 km/hr to 55 609. Acceleration is a speeding up, slowing
km/ hr in 10 seconds. What is its acceler- down or a change in direction. Is the fol-
ation? lowing acceleration and if so, which one?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A swimmer has 10 meters left in the race
A. 4 Km / h/s
and he is neck-in-neck with his competi-
B. 3 Km / h/s tor. He has a surge of adrenaline and pulls
C. 2 Km / h/s ahead to win.
D. 1 Km / h/s A. Yes, this is acceleration since the
swimmer starts to speed up to pull ahead.
605. If the velocity of an object is constant, its
B. Yes, this is acceleration since the
acceleration have to be
swimmer uses the wall to change direc-
A. constant tions.
B. zero C. No, this is not acceleration since there
C. increase is no speeding up, slowing down, or
change in direction.
D. decrease
D. none of above
606. An object travels 5 meters in the 1st sec-
ond of travel, 5 meters during the 2nd sec- 610. Which is a velocity?
ond of travel, and 5 meters during the 3rd A. 5m/s
second. Its velocity is: B. 8m/s/s
A. constant C. 12m/s N
B. decreasing D. 15m/s
C. increasing
611. speed in a given direction
D. changing
A. speed
607. Final position minus the initial position is B. velocity
called
C. acceleration
A. displacement
D. none of above
B. distance
C. magnitude 612. An object starts from rest and reaches a
velocity of 20 m/s after a time of 10 s.
D. time interval What is the rate of acceleration?
608. Four students measure acceleration dur- A. 10 m/s2
ing an investigation, but the data does not B. 200 m/s2
include the appropriate units. Which stu-
dent correctly identifies the unit for accel- C. 30 m/s2
eration? D. 2 m/s2

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1111

613. When the gradient of a line on a distance A. Speed

time graph increases what does that mean B. Velocity
for the speed of the object

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C. Acceleration
A. increases
D. none of above
B. decreases
C. zero 619. A cyclist accelerates from 0 m/s to 8 m/s
in 3 seconds. What is his acceleration? Is
D. constant this acceleration higher than that of a car
614. Find the velocity of a plane that traveled which accelerates from 0 to 30 m/s in 8
3000 miles west in 5 hours. seconds?

A. 65 mph west A. 3 m/s2, higher

B. 6 mph west B. 3 m/s2, lower

C. 600 mph west C. 3.75 m/s2, higher

D. 6000 mph west D. 3.75 m/s2, lower

615. Jacob ran a 5k in 24 minutes. 620. A meteor moving 468 km per minute
traveling in a south-to north direction
A. Speed passed near Earth in 2013. Because the
B. Velocity meteor was only 45 m wide and was
C. Acceleration 27, 700 km above Earth’s surface, it was
not visible without the aid of a telescope.
D. none of above Which statement describes the meteor’s
motion?
616. To describe the distance travelled be-
tween one point and another, which unit A. Its velocity was 7.8 km/s northward
could you use? B. Its acceleration was 468 km/s2
A. m C. Its speed was 468 km/s northward
B. sec D. Its acceleration was 7.8 km/s2
C. m/s
621. An airplane flying northwest takes a turn,
D. m/s2 and flies west.
617. Fred has joined the school ping pong team. A. Speed
On his serve, the ping pong ball is acceler- B. Velocity
ated at 4.6 m/s2. After 2.0 s, how fast
would it be traveling? C. Acceleration

A. 10.2 m/s D. none of above

B. 7.1 m/s 622. During rush hour, it takes about 40 min-

C. 4.9 m/s utes traveling at an average of 35 mi/hr.

D. 9.2 m/s A. speed

B. velocity
618. An airplane travels 1260 km from San
Francisco northeast to Chicago in 3.5 C. acceleration
hours. D. none of above

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1112

623. An object is NOT accelerating if it is mov- C. acceleration

ing
D. none of above
A. in a circle
B. at constant velocity 629. A storm is traveling 25 km/hr eastward
C. at increasing speed A. Speed
D. only as influenced by gravity B. Velocity
624. Which of the following quantities has

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Acceleration
units of velocity? (There could be more
D. none of above
than one correct choice.)
A. 40 km southwest 630. How are speed and velocity different?
B. -120 m/s A. Velocity has direction plus speed
C. 9.8 m/s2 downward
B. Speed includes direction
D. 9.8 m/s downward
C. change in direction
625. Aaron Rodgers throwing a football 50
D. one is normal and one is weird
miles per hour toward the end zone is an
example of a/n
631. Complete the formula:Speed = /Time.
A. Speed
A. Mass
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration B. Distance

D. Direction C. Direction

626. Alan travels 100km in 5hrs. Find his av- D. Weight

erage speed in km/h
632. What is the correct unit for speed and ve-
A. 5km/hr locity?
B. 10km/hr
A. m/s
C. 50km/hr
B. kg
D. 20km/hr
C. km
627. A negative acceleration means that your
object is D. hr

A. not accelerating 633. which statement(s) is/are correct about

B. not moving displacement and distance?
C. speeding up A. Both of them are scalars
D. slowing down B. Both of them are vectors
628. The soccer player ran 50 yards in 5.1 sec- C. Displacement has direction and magni-
onds. tude but distance has magnitude only.
A. speed D. Both of them have the same SI unit,
B. velocity metres.

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1113

634. Which example does NOT show accelera- 639. A train left the station heading towards
tion of an object? Dallas at 75 miles per hour north.

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A. a car turning at 20 km/h A. Speed
B. a person walking a constant speed of B. Velocity
5 km/h C. Acceleration
C. a car speeding up on the freeway D. none of above
D. a mosquito crashing into a windshield
640. A car advertisement states that a certain
635. The unit meters per second (m/s) is used car can accelerate from rest to 70 km/h in
for which of the following? 7 seconds. Find the car’s average acceler-
A. Distance ation.
B. Time A. 5 km/h/s
C. Speed B. 8 km/hr/s
D. none of above C. 10 km/hr/s

636. Distance and direction of an object’s D. 13 km/hr/s

change in position from a starting point 641. You drive 6.0 km at 50 km/h and then
A. displacement another 6.0 km at 90 km/h. Your aver-
B. distance age speed over the 12 km drive will be
C. motion
A. greater than 70 km/h
D. reference point
B. equal to 70 km/h
637. When you have a change in speed or di-
C. less than 70 km/h
rection?
D. exactly 38 km/h
A. Acceleration
E. It cannot be determined from the infor-
B. Speed
mation given because we must also know
C. Velocity directions traveled.
D. Destination
642. A bicyclist leans over as she makes a turn
638. Which of the following statements best down a hill.
describes how the speed and velocity of A. Speed
an object differ?
B. Velocity
A. Velocity specifies speed and direction,
while speed has no specific direction. C. Acceleration

B. Velocity specifies speed, while speed D. none of above

includes a specific direction. 643. The term that best describes an object
C. Velocity specifies a change in speed that is slowing down is
over time, while speed specifies a change A. decelerating
in distance over time.
B. accelerating
D. Velocity specifies a change in distance
over time, while speed specifies a change C. free falling
in velocity over time. D. develocitation

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1114

644. Macie walks in the door of the movie the- C. 2 km/h

ater and then stops to look for an open D. 25 km/h
seat.
A. Speed 649. All of the following are acceptable units
for displacement except
B. Velocity
A. m S
C. Acceleration
B. km up
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. cm to the right
645. Liza is swimming laps from one end of a D. inches
50 meter pool to the other. Going from
one end to the other is considered one lap. 650. A car driving to school suddenly stopped
If she swims four complete laps, which for a student
statement is TRUE? A. speed
A. Her distance and displacement are B. velocity
both zero.
C. acceleration
B. Her distance is zero, but her displace-
ment is 200 meters. D. none of above

C. Her distance is 200 meters, but her dis- 651. A change in the speed or direction
placement is zero. A. speed
D. Her distance and displacement are B. velocity
both 200 meters.
C. acceleration
646. A turtle walking 20 feet per minute D. none of above
through the grass
A. Speed 652. Speed, Velocity, or Acceleration:Driving a
truck 50 milesper hour East fromCalifornia
B. Velocity to Florida.
C. Acceleration A. Speed
D. None of the above B. Velocity
647. Which of the following best describes C. Acceleration
how constant velocity is shown in a speed D. None of the above
time graph?
A. line curving down 653. What pulls a ball back to earth?

B. a straight horizontal line A. Gas

C. a line curving up B. Gravity

D. a straight diagonal line C. Friction

D. Molecules
648. A train that travels 100 kilometers in
4 hours is traveling at what average 654. Example of uniform acceleration
speed? A. A dog taking a nap.
A. 50 km/h B. A racecar who’s velocity changes in
B. 100 km/h equal amounts in equal time intervals.

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8.3 elocity and Acceleration Analysis 1115

C. A person who slows down and speeds B. Velocity

up often while on a run. C. Accleration

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D. A girl playing jump rope. D. Direction
655. Which of the following is a measurement 661. turning a corner on a bike
of velocity?
A. speed
A. 16 m east
B. velocity
B. 25 m/s2
C. acceleration
C. 55 m/hr south
D. none of above
D. 60 km/hr
662. when an object changes its position com-
656. refers to the rate at which an object
pared to a reference point.
changes position.
A. acceleration
A. Speed
B. speed
B. Velocity
C. motion
C. Acceleration
D. Motion D. reference point

657. A biker accelerates from 10 m/s to 20 663. A car accelerates at 2 m/s2. Assuming
m/s in 5 seconds. What is the biker’s av- the car starts from rest, how much time
erage acceleration? does it need to accelerate to a speed of 16
m/s?
A. 4 m/s
A. 4 s
B. 2 s
B. 8 s
C. 2 m/s2
C. 16 s
D. 5 m/s2
D. 1/16 s
658. Is a measurement of how far an ob-
ject moves in total. 664. min (minutes) is a unit for
A. towards A. Speed
B. constant B. Distance
C. away C. Time
D. distance D. Direction

659. The unit second (s) is used for- 665. What is acceleration? What is its unit?
A. Speed A. Change of velocity per unit time. Its
unit is m/s/s or m/s2 or ms-2
B. Distance
C. Time B. Change of speed per unit time. Its unit
is m/s/s or m/s2 or ms-2
D. none of above
C. Change of speed per unit distance. Its
660. A flock of geese migrate south at 12 mph. unit is m/s/m or Hz
This is an example of- D. Change of displacement per unit time.
A. Speed Its unit is m/s or ms-1

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 8.4 Mechanism with Lower Pairs 1116

8.4 Mechanism with Lower Pairs

1. The two elements of a pair are said to form D. Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating
a when they permit relative motion be- steam engine
tween them.
6. The study of forces and its effects between
A. open pair the parts is
B. kinematic pair A. kinetics

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. higher pair B. kinematics
D. lower pair C. strength of materials
2. The shoulder joint of human being is a D. none of the given
A. revolute pair 7. A rigid body possesses degrees of free-
B. cylindrical pair dom.
C. spherical pair A. 3
D. prismatic pair B. 2

3. In an open pair, the two elements of a pair C. 4

A. have a surface contact when in motion D. 6

B. have a line or point contact when in mo- 8. A higher pair has

tion A. Point contact
C. are kept in contact by the action of ex- B. No contact
ternal forces, when in motion
C. Surface contact
D. are not held mechanically
D. None of the above
4. A combination of kinematic pairs joined in
such a way that the relative motion be- 9. The study of relative motion between the
tween the links is completely constrained, parts without concerning about the forces
is called a is

A. structure A. statics

B. mechanism B. kinetics

C. kinematic chain C. kinematics

D. inversion D. Mechanics

5. Which of the following is a turning pair? 10. The purpose of a link is to

A. Ball and socket joint A. Transmit motion

B. Lead screw of a lathe with nut B. Act as a support

C. Shaft with collars at both ends fitted in C. Guide other links

a circular hole D. All of the given choices

8.5 CAD/CAM

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1117

1. What is the name of the software used for C. Outline coordinates

used for 2D CAD? D. All of these

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A. CAD
7. The microcomputer or electronic circuit for
B. Photoshop
controlling an NC machine is a:
C. Sketchup
A. Computer relay
D. 2D design
B. Tool positioning control
2. C0continuity of curve refers to com- C. Computer operating unit
mon
D. Machine control unit
A. point
B. tangent 8. The coating on the glass screen of display
monitors glows when cathode ray falls on
C. normal it. The material used for coating is
D. curvature
A. Phosphor
3. A prototype is: B. Paint
A. non-working model C. Enamel
B. who knows? D. Radium
C. a working model
9. A prototype is a model that
D. None of the above
A. Functions in exactly the same way the
4. Click on the Line icon or type L. Select point final solution would
1 (T1) select point 2 (T2) press Esc / right B. Looks exactly like the final solution will
click select Done above is the stage to cre- but doesn’t function
ate a command?
C. Is constructed with the exact same
A. Line Dimension
materials as the final solution
B. Line
D. none of above
C. Long
10. The main limitation with the electrostatic
D. Long Dimension
plotter is that it requires data in
5. Zoom in & zoom out of an object and any A. Raster format
portion of an object between the edges is
B. stroke format
A. Translation
C. raster or stroke
B. Rotation
D. None
C. Scaling
D. None of these 11. is a rigid body transformation that
moves objects without deformation.
6. To change the position of a circle or ellipse
A. Rotation
we translate:
B. Scaling
A. Center coordinates
B. Center coordinates and redraws the C. Translation
figure in a new location D. All of the mentioned

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1118

12. The name for materials leave a footprint C. located at internal

in terms of the impact their production and
D. none of above
consumption has on the planet
A. Ecological Footprint 17. Before starting an isometric drawing in
B. Digital Footprint Auto-CAD the drafter needs to
C. Smelly Footprint A. Set the grid to isometric
D. Profit Footprint B. Set the current layer to Def-points

NARAYAN CHANGDER
13. How is CIM technology formed? C. Turn Object Snap off
A. Some of the main applications of the
D. none of above
system are wood turning, metallurgy,
glass work, yarn and graphic optimization
18. CAD is used to mass produce products be-
of the entire manufacturing procedure
cause
B. Integrate CAD, CAM, CAM, fall through
CAF (Computer AIDED facilities) technolo- A. it is cheap
gies, which is responsible for the manage- B. it is accurate
ment of documentation and automated
production. C. It saves time
C. provide information and instructions D. All of the above
for machine automation in the creation of
parts, assemblies and circuits;using as a 19. Tapping cycle
starting point the information of the geom-
etry created by the CAD. A. G74

D. none of above B. G84

14. Circular interpolation CCW C. G73

A. G03 D. G83
B. G02
20. Devices used to locate the cursor on-screen
C. G01 are classified as
D. G00
A. Text input devices
15. To print a 3D model, what to do? B. Graphics input devices
A. Send the file to the printer
C. Both a and b
B. Work the STL, through the exocad
model creator D. None of the above
C. Scan it with an intraoral to print di-
21. In computer graphics GKS stands for
rectly
D. none of above A. General Knowledge System

16. In Simple elements nodes are, B. Graphics Kernel System

A. located at the comers of elements C. Graphics Knowledge System

B. located at middle of elements D. None of these

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1119

22. What is the correct description of analog 27. How do you use the TRIM tool?
dental technology?
A. Click the scissors tool and press EN-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Can strengthen assistance to check TER, then click on lines to trim
and diagnose
B. Click the scissors tool, then click on
B. Can pass the message faster lines to trim
C. It depends on the knowledge, skills C. Type TRIM and then click on the lines
and experience of the producer itself you want to trim
D. Can improve the quality of production,
D. Click DELETE and select the lines you
production and work environment
want to get rid of
E. All of the above
28. The technology concerned with the use of
23. DDA Stands for digital computers to perform certain func-
A. Digital differential analyzer tions in design and manufacturing is
B. Digital diagram difference A. CAD
C. Digital differential analysis B. CAM
D. Difference digital analysis C. CAD/CAM
24. You participated in the race and chased D. NONE
the second place, what are you the first
place? 29. All the information entered would go into
A. 1st place the layer
B. Article 2 A. inactive
C. 3rd Place B. on
D. 4th place C. off
25. What is the first step in the engineering D. current
design process?
30. Which high level skill allows me to person-
A. gathering information about an exist-
alise an image off the internet?
ing product
B. gathering information about an exist- A. Texture fill
ing product B. Vectorise
C. recognizing the need for a solution to C. Explode
a problem
D. Cope
D. none of the above
31. ADVANTAGES OF THE CAD-CAM SYSTEM:
26. Which one of the following is an input de-
vice? A. Increase the precision and accuracy of
A. Digitizer the result.

B. Printer B. Facilitate postprocessing work

C. UPS C. TIME SAVING
D. None of these D. All the above answers are correct

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1120

32. What is FMS. 38. Shading to make things look 3D needs to

A. An adaptable collection of automated be done carefully:building up the layers-
machines what is this called?

B. A robotised machine that can under- A. Sketching

take a fixed operation. B. Rendering
C. CAM C. Crating
D. CAD D. shading so hard the paper bursts into

NARAYAN CHANGDER
flames
33. Sets spindle speed ( how fast the tool
turns ) 39. This sensor is used for burglar alarms

A. S A. Temperature
B. Humidity
B. F
C. Movement/Motion
C. T
D. PH
D. G
40. In what years is the first CAD system
34. How can I edit part of a picture sold?
A. Texture fill A. 1965
B. Explode B. 1978
C. Delete C. 1985
D. Copy D. 1990
35. DELMIA software is used for 41. What does the shortcut CTRL+V do?
A. CAD A. copy
B. CAM B. delete
C. CAE C. paste
D. CAPP D. undo

36. Glow in the dark, absorbs light during the 42. The correct order when developing a man-
day and emits it when dark E.G Fire exit ufacturing project is:
signs A. CAD-CAE-CAM
A. Photochromic Materials B. CAE-CAD-CAM
B. Thermochromic Materials C. CAM-CAE-CAD
C. Phosphorescent pigments D. CAD-CAM-CAE
D. Holograms 43. What industries would be the main bene-
ficiaries if they got to incorporate a CIM
37. Which is NOT a Fusion 360 workspace? model?
A. Render A. Automobile
B. Model B. Textile
C. Surface C. Architectural
D. Patch D. Aerospace

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1121

44. There are the five main stages of SCM, ex- 49. More job variety can be well accommo-
cept dated in case of

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. evaluation A. Rigid automation
B. plan B. Flexible automation
C. Manufacture
C. Continuous flow process
D. suppliers
D. None of these
E. cost
45. What is the job of the last digit in a stan- 50. What does CNC stands for?
dard barcode? A. Computer network control
A. It tells the color and size. information.
B. Computer numerical control
It can tell the names and locations where
the jeans are sold. It can give links to the C. Computer nested control
store’s web site. All this inside a simple
D. Computer numerical controller
square.
B. It detects if the barcode was scanned 51. Which geometric transformation does not
correctly. change the basic dimensions of the graph-
C. It tells the store’s web site. ics objects transformed?
D. The locations of where the item is sold. A. Scaling
46. Which movements do the coordinates x, y B. Transition
and z represent on a CNC machine?
C. Rotation
A. For/Bac, up/down, Left/right
D. Both b) and c)
B. Left/right, For/Bac, up/down,
C. Up/down, Left/right, For/bac 52. What is the purpose of a prototype?
D. none of above A. To identify possible and alternative so-
47. Which of the following products is most lutions
likely to be the result of one-off/jobbing B. To determine the problem you are try-
production ing to solve
A. Mobile Phones C. To learn if your design is hard or easy
B. Prosthetics to build
C. Hand Tools D. To test your ideas
D. Laptops
53. Select two disadvantages of CAD/CAM
48. Machinery that has sensing and control de- technology
vices that enable it to operate automati-
cally. A. There are many available softwares
A. Manual B. Software costs are very high
B. Biotech C. All people can access, it becomes little
C. Nanotechnology original
D. Automation D. The created files are very heavy

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1122

54. Which software program would you use to B. Progressive dimensioning

draw your design for output to the laser?
C. Dimensioning of repeated features
A. Techsoft Design V3
D. Chain dimensioning
B. Adobe Photoshop
C. Microsoft Word 59. In thermal analysis problems the primary
field variable is,
D. Solidworks
A. temperature
55. Coolant on

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B. heat flux
A. M08
C. displacement
B. M 09
D. none
C. M18
D. With 0 60. What does it mean?

56. Which of the following describes Durabil- A. Computer-aided design

ity? B. Electric Aid Design
A. The ability to withstand a constant ex- C. Computer Assisted Engineering
ternal force.
D. Scenic Arts College
B. The ability to withstand blows and
shocks. 61. What does the term CAD mean?
C. The ability to resist wear, such as A. Computer Automated Drawing
weathering, over time.
B. Computer Aided Design
D. The ability to change shape by stretch-
ing along its length without snapping. C. Computer Analysis Design
D. Computer Assisted Draughting
57. Zirconia (Zi) can be milled in either a soft
or hard state. What are the benefit of 62. The process of building the structure ma-
milling zirconia in the soft or green state? trix [K] from the element stiffness matri-
(Answer all that apply) ces [K]e is called,
A. It is quicker to mill the restoration com-
A. assembly
pared to milling hard state Zirconia (sin-
tered Zirconia) B. decomposition
B. Reduces wear of milling tools and the C. interpolation
machine
D. extrapolation
C. The milling pucks are cheaper to buy
D. Allows for customisation and infiltra- 63. The primary unit of measurement for en-
tion of colour and stains before sintering gineering drawings and design in the me-
chanical industries is the:
E. The restoration is superior when com-
pared to milling sintered Zirconia A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
58. What is another name for parallel dimen-
sioning? C. Meter
A. Combined dimensioning D. Kilometer

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1123

64. CAD is used to design 69. When disussing the form of a product you
A. top view designs and plans should describe its looks explaining why
the designer has made it look the way it

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. 3D components does and give your own opinion with jus-
C. top view designs tifications
D. 2D components A. Product analysis-Asthetics
B. Product analysis-Easthetics
65. How should the piece or object to be mech-
anized be designed? C. Product analysis-Aesphetics

A. may be D. Product analysis-Aesthetics

B. Zd 70. What are the two variables which need

setting up on the laser cutter?
C. DWG
A. Colour & weight
D. All of the above
B. material & weight
66. When I receive files from an intraoral scan-
C. Colour & size
ner, what do I have to check?
D. Speed & depth
A. We cannot design in exocad with files
of an intraoral. 71. How many folds in the thin walled product
B. That the maxillas are aligned, and the (light) are needed for a distinction?
files defined without shadows or bright- A. 4
ness. B. 3
C. That scanbodys send me, since you C. 2
can only design implanted structures.
D. 1
D. none of above
72. Sets the feed rate of the CNC table
67. What is a CAD system?
A. S
A. They are physical tools that facilitate
B. F
the design and line of garments
C. T
B. They are computerized programs that
allow determining the cost production of D. G
a material 73. When the process is based on computer
C. They are software that allow computer tools that allow the manufacture of de-
-assisted design signed parts, then there is talk of
D. It is the District Administrative Center. A. Computer Aided Design
B. Computer Aided Engineering
68. What program is used to design an object
or piece? C. Computer Aided Manufacturing
A. Prolight Lathe D. none of above
B. AutoCAD 74. Cutter compensation left
C. EdgaCAM A. G23
D. Catia B. G43

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1124

C. G41 80. What is the difference between machine

zero and program zero for the Z axis on
D. G22
the machining center?
75. Canned cycle cancel A. Machine zero is the closest negative
A. G80 point for the spindle; program zero is the
farthest positive point for the spindle.
B. G81
B. Machine zero is the farthest positive
C. G82 point for the spindle; program zero is on

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. G83 the part.
C. Program zero is on an edge of the part;
76. Which of the following are examples of machine zero is on the farthest corner of
CAD software? a part.
A. Microsoft Word D. Program zero is on the farthest corner
of a part; machine zero is on the edge of
B. 2D Design
a part.
C. Google Sketchup
81. What are some applications of CAD/CAM
D. Google Chrome
technology?
77. The standard barcode is called a UPC. A. Simulate the wear of the pieces
What does UPC stand for? B. Simulate the effort of the pieces
A. Uniform Product Code C. Simulate the machine trajectories
B. United Product Code D. Simulate characteristics perceptible to
C. Untitled Product Card smell.

D. Uniform Product Code 82. In which transformation the object can

change its basic dimensions?
78. What should you do if you delete some- A. Translation
thing by mistake!!!
B. Mirror
A. Stop and press undo. You only get 1!
C. Scaling
B. Don’t worry, you can undo loads of
times D. Rotation

C. Call for help! 83. If the no. of nodes increases,

D. Start again A. Accuracy decreases
B. Accuracy increases
79. A machine using incremental coordinates
calculates each new position based on: C. Accuracy remains same
D. None
A. Where home is located when you lived
with your mom. 84. Program zero is:
B. Theprevious position A. Always located on the spindle.
C. A fixed origin. B. Determined by the Dalai Lama.
D. The first referenced position. C. Determined by the programmer.

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1125

D. Determined by the machine tool manu- D. It is the same as CAD

facturer.
90. XY plane selection

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

85. The process in which the detailed specifi- A. G16
cations materials, dimensions, tolerances
and surface rough is made is known as B. C 17
A. decision process C. G18
B. analysis process D. C 19
C. implementation process 91. What information can a QR code contain?
D. refinement process A. color and size
86. What makes thing appear to get smaller B. names and locations where sold.
the further away they are? C. links to the store’s web site
A. Perspex D. All of the above
B. Perplexing
92. Which of the following are advantages of
C. Perspective CAD (choose 2)?
D. Perfection A. Designs can be created but they are
87. Choose the right answer for geometric difficult to edit
modelling technique (choose 3) B. Parts of designs can be easily copied
A. wireframe modeling or repeated

B. surface modeling C. CAD is very inaccurate

C. solid modeling D. CAD software can process complex

stress testing
D. Auto modeling
93. A designer has to be very aware of what
88. What are the alloys that are commonly is acceptable and what is not acceptable to
used for subtractive manufacturing and society, Which is NOT a consideration?
SLM in the dental sector (not including spe-
cialist production centres)? A. Sponsorship
A. Cobalt-Chromium and Palladium alloys B. Moral
B. Titanium, Gold, Palladium, Cobalt- C. Spiritual
Chromium and Platinum alloys D. Cultural
C. Titanium and Cobalt-Chromium alloys
94. Spindle on clockwise
D. Titanium, Cobalt-Chromium and Gold
A. M8
alloys
B. M6
89. What does CAM do?
C. M3
A. Allows you to design anything in 3D
D. none of above
B. Allows you to manufacture your 3D de-
signs 95. What does Just-In-Time (JIT) production
C. Programs a computer to make a spe- help with?
cific design A. Creating waste

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1126

B. Taking away jobs 101. During which step of the design process
C. Increasing efficiency do you test the prototype?
A. Plan, Improvements, Test and Evalu-
D. Making products heavier
ate
96. CAPP involves use of computer in B. Improvements
A. Planning the processes C. Test and Evaluate
B. Determine cutting conditions D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Setting time standards 102. How many components are needed in
D. All of these your 2D tool drawing for at least a merit
A. 6
97. What is the name of the programme used
in CAD/CAM B. 8
A. CAD C. 10
B. Photoshop D. 12
C. Sketchup 103. Which sensor is used when parking cars
D. 2D design to judge distance?
A. Distance
98. This enables organisations to raise invest-
ment from individuals who believe in their B. Proximity
idea, via online marketing C. Pressure
A. Crowd Sourcing D. Movement
B. Crowd Marketing 104. Which of the following is not an advan-
C. Crowd Funding tage of CAD/CAM technology?
D. Fear of Crowds A. Reduce market launch time
B. Know how to use the software for a
99. In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move long time
to the new position (x’, y’) by using the
equation C. Reduce product development costs
A. x’=x+dx and y’=y+dx D. Obtain a stronger and simplest docu-
mentation of design
B. x’=x+dx and y’=y+dy
E. Improve the visualization of sub -
C. X’=x+dy and Y’=y+dx assemblies
D. X’=x-dx and y’=y-dy
105. Examples of non-ferrous metals are (Pick
100. Which of the following software is not a 3)
tool? A. Mild Steel
A. SolidWorks B. Copper
B. BELIEVE C. Aluminium
C. Tinkercad D. High Carbon Steel
D. CATIA E. Titanium

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1127

106. Which stages make tangent arc 111. What is the term when you get an image
A. Click the ARC tangent icon-Select point online and convert it in 2D design?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

1 (T1)-Select Point 2/End of Arc (T2) -The A. Vectorize
Stress of ESC
B. Bitmap
B. Click the ARC-TANGENT icon select
point 1 (T1)-Select point 2/End of Arc (T2) C. Jpeg

C. Click the ARC tangent icon-Select point D. Contour

1 (T1)-End of Bow (T2) -The Esc
112. is a group problem-solving design
D. Click the ARC tangent icon-Select point process.
1 (T1) -tek Esc
A. Brainstorming
107. F in ACCESSFM stand for
B. Creative
A. Function
C. Steps
B. Form
D. Repeated
C. Feasibility
D. none of above 113. Which two disciplines are tied by a com-
mon database?
108. What do the letters in ‘LASER’ stand
for? A. documentation and geometric model-
ing
A. Light Amplification by the Sudden Emis-
sion of Radiation B. CAD and CAM
B. Light Amplification by the Stimulated C. drafting and documentation
Emission of Radiation
D. none of the mentioned
C. Loud Amplification of Sound Emitted
Radiation 114. A sequence of instructions that “tells”
D. Light Attenuation by the Stimulated the machine what operations to perform,
Emission of Rays and where on the material they are to be
done is a/an:
109. Which one of the following is an output
A. Machine software
device?
B. NC program
A. Scanner
B. Keyboard C. Variable point control

C. Drum plotter D. CNC system

D. none of these 115. What machine does 2D design link up
to?
110. CAM stands for?
A. Computer Aided Manufacturing A. Scanner

B. Computer Answer Making B. Laser cutter

C. Computer Added Manufacturing C. Line bender
D. none of above D. Printer

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1128

116. Which of the following was Mr. Goan’s 121. Data acquisition in digital dental technol-
most watched Youtube video? ogy is carried out by two methods, what is
the correct tereminology used to describe
A. Did 9/11 actually happen on the 10th?
them?
A. Direct and Indirect Scamming
B. Are the moon landings, and the moon,
fake? B. Direct and Indirect Scanning
C. How to make a million a day from Bit- C. Intra and Extraoral Scamming

NARAYAN CHANGDER
coin D. Intra and Extraoral Scanning
D. All of the above, at least twice a day
122. In AUTOCAD, command constructs an
117. Retrieval type’ and ‘generative type’ are entity parallel to other entity
the types of A. FILLET
A. CAPP B. CHAMFER
B. GT C. OFFSET
C. FMS D. ARRAY
D. CNC programming 123. Name two CAD products:
118. An advantage of FMS is A. Laser cutter
A. It allows manufacturers to respond to B. 2D Design
fluctuations in the market . C. 3D Printer
B. It allows manufacturers to respond to D. Autodesk Fusion 360
fluctuations in consumer demand.
124. These sensors are used in the greenhouse
C. All are true
except ..
D. The robot machines involved are easily
A. Temperature
reprogrammable.
B. Humidity
119. The cleaning solution used to wash 3D C. Sound
printed resins is called?
D. Light
A. Isopolypropanol
B. Isopropanene 125. Which one of these is NOT a composite?

C. Isopropanol A. GRP

D. Isoprolamine B. laminate wood flooring

C. neoprene
120. The basic geometric entity in computer
D. Concrete
graphics are called as
A. Rectangle 126. What is the inconvenience of the
CAD/CAM software?
B. Model
A. The only inconvenience proposed to
C. Line
mechanize with CAD/CAM is the need for
D. Graphics primitives training and

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1129

B. It does not allow to create own de- 132. Which of the following options is the cor-
signs rect translation of CAD:

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

C. It is a program that occupies a lot of A. Computer Aided Design
space in computers B. Computer Aided Drawing
D. Does not allow 3D and 2D impression C. Computer-aided design
127. What is an example of Continuous pro- D. Computer Aided Drafting
duction?
133. What type of plastic is your earphone
A. Olympic Medals tidy made from?
B. Ikea Furniture A. Acrylic
C. Cars B. PET
D. Screws C. Foamex
D. Plastazote
128. Optional stop
134. A heat treatment process that changes
A. M00
the physical and sometimes also the chemi-
B. M01 cal properties of a material to increase duc-
C. M02 tility and reduce the hardness to make it
more maleable and workable:
D. M03
A. Annealing
129. A graphic software should be B. Annointing
A. Complete C. Annoying
B. Robust D. Anything
C. Economic 135. Cutter compensation cancel
D. All of these A. G43
130. The combination of individual transforma- B. G42
tions into a single is called as C. G41
A. Combination D. G40
B. Concatenation 136. CAD-CAM disadvantages:
C. Translation A. Avoid errors and better prosthesis ad-
D. Transformation justment.
B. Great complexity and cost equipment
131. What are the disadvantages of CAD?
C. Time and money investment to train
A. Staff need to be trained to get the full staff.
use of the software
D. Answers 2 and 3 are correct
B. It is not precise enough
137. In the following geometric modelling tech-
C. It doesn’t look professional
niques, which is not three-dimensional
D. The software is very expensive to buy modelling?

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1130

A. Surface modeling 143. Tool change

B. Wireframe modeling A. M00
C. Solid modeling B. M06
D. Drafting
C. M08
138. Is it called the 1mer Software CAM?
D. M03
A. AUTOCAD
144. Select two advantages of mass produc-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. PRONTO
tion?
C. CAD CAM
D. CAD A. Low cost per unit

139. What type of sensor would be used to de- B. Higher accuracy

tect movement in a room of your house? C. Cheaper machinery
A. Light Sensor D. Increased labour costs
B. Temperature Sensor
C. Motion sensor 145. Why is it said that exocad is intelligent?
D. Pressure Sensor A. Because it designs us only the jobs.
140. In the following geometric primitives. B. Because he warns us with error mes-
which is not a solid entity of CSG mod- sages when we do something we do not
elling: want, or design structures that will not fit.
A. Box C. Because it is able to discriminate the
B. cone parameters we introduce according to
each client.
C. cylinder
D. circle D. none of above

141. These are made from either natural poly- 146. Is the basis of all designs in inven-
mers (from plant products such as corn tors.You use this part of the file to design
starch) or they use these materials to mix parts/elements of the compiler.
with normal plastics to make them break
A. ipt
down faster..
A. Smart materials B. iam
B. Biodegradable Plastics C. dwg
C. Phosphorescent pigments D. cdr
D. Metallic foams
147. CAD computers are basically needed for
142. When do you learn about different con-
struction methods?
A. Modification of design
A. While you are building
B. Once you have settled on a design B. Optimization of design

C. During research and brainstorming C. Creation of design

D. When you identify the challenge D. All of these

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1131

148. Which statement best describes proper 152. Which of these is an advantage of RFID?
guidelines for end milling a pocket with A. Less expensive than Bar code
rounded corners?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Doesn’t need line of sight to scan
A. Take two potatoes and call Major Ger-
bil and the Mole Patrol. C. Less Durable
D. More interesting than Bar Code
B. Select the longest possible end mill to
improve rigidity and reduce deflection. 153. What two things does the barcode tell
C. Use an end mill with a radius greater about a product?
than the pocket’s corner radius during the A. It identifies the maker.
finishing cut.
B. It identifies the product
D. Reduce the step-over of the end mill C. It identifies both the maker and the
if necessary to reduce deflection and im- product.
prove the surface finish.
D. none of above
149. CAD is used to draw
154. The basic geometric building blocks pro-
A. Isometric drawings vided in a CAD/CAM package are
B. 3D components A. points
C. Plan views B. lines
D. 2D drawings C. circles
E. Any of the above D. all of the mentioned

150. When we design in Exocad, should we 155. When finding the solution to an engineer-
think well how we fill the dentont? ing design problem, there is/are usually

A. Without a doubt, we must stop a few A. only one possible correct solution
minutes to reflect the work to be designed B. a very limited number of possible cor-
well, otherwise we will have to repeat it. rect solutions
B. It is important, but not decisive.With C. many possible correct solutions
exocad there are always minimum 2 paths D. none of the above
to do something.
156. CAD/CAM is the relationship between
C. We must fill the dentont, but if we are
wrong, nothing happens, we can always A. Science and engineering
edit it in the middle of the design. B. Manufacturing and marketing
D. none of above C. design and manufacturing

151. Which of the following dimensions can be D. design and marketing

applied in AutoCAD? 157. NC stands for
A. Lineal A. Numerical Control
B. Radio B. Number Case
C. Diameter C. Numeric Control
D. All of the above D. none of above

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1132

158. What is Cad-Cam technology used? B. Storage device

A. It is used to create, modify, analyze C. ALU
and document two -dimensional or three
-dimensional graphic representations (2D D. Monitor
or 3D) of physical objects as an alternative
to manual drafts and product prototypes 163. The tool used to extend a line?
B. It serves to simulate performance A. Extend
with the objective of improving products

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Trim
designs or contributing to engineering
problems for very diverse sectors.It in- C. Fillet
cludes simulation, validation and optimiza-
D. Chamfer
tion of products, processes and manufac-
turing tools.
164. What should you do if you delete some-
C. It is mainly used in aerospace projects thing by mistake in version 2!!!
for complex geometries;Automotive in-
dustry for great variety and high produc- A. Stop and press undo. You only get 1!
tion volume;Machining of molds and tro- B. Don’t worry, you can undo loads of
cales;Leather and footwear industry, etc. times
D. none of above C. Call for help!
159. Which are the 3 categories for Wood: D. Start again
A. Softwood, Hardwood, MDF
165. What is a STL file or stereolithography?
B. Pine wood, Oak wood, Plywood
C. Softwood, Hardwood, Chipboard A. A 3D object based on triangles
D. Softwood, Hardwood, Manufactured B. A cloud of points
Board
C. A text file
160. Easy or comfortable to use D. none of above
A. Ergonomic
B. Economical 166. Cutter compensation right

C. Painful A. G54
D. Environmental B. G40

161. What are the two types of RFID Tags? C. G42

A. Active and Passive D. G41
B. Aggressive and Passive
167. The spline tool is ?
C. Wireless and Wired
A. lines that form balls (linear)
D. Male and Female
B. lines that form boxes (non -linear)
162. The nerve center or brain of any computer
system is known as C. lines that form a circle (linear)
A. CPU D. lines that form curves (non -linear)

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1133

168. Milling units produced for the dental in- B. Lower functionality than its compo-
dustry can be either wet or dry, what are nents
the main resons for wet milling? (Tick all

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C. Higher functionality than its compo-
that apply)
nents
A. To prevent the material from overheat-
D. None of these
ing
B. To clean the machine 173. Which of the following is not needed in a
C. To lubricate the material and reduce title block
wear on the tools A. Scale
D. To wash away the swarf B. Name
E. To speed up the milling process C. Address
169. What are the advantages of using CAD? D. Date
A. It is easy to learn and use 174. Basic transformation of rotation of an im-
B. Precise, accurate drawings/models age takes place about
C. You can easily send and edit designs A. Origin
D. The software is cheap to buy B. Corner of an image
E. You can use CAM to bring your model C. Centre
to life
D. Top plane
170. Point clouds are joined together with
small triangles to form a mesh and saved 175. Which steps could a scientists or engineer
as an STL file, what does STL stand for? go through multiple times before sharing
(Tick all that apply) their prototype to the public?

A. Standard Tessellation Language A. All of the steps of the Engineering De-

sign Process
B. Standard Triangulation Language
B. Test and Evaluate, Create
C. Standard Lithography File
C. Create, Improvements
D. Stereo Lithography File
D. Plan, Create, Test and Evaluate, Im-
171. What color do you set a line for if you provements
want it engraved (not cut all the way
through) 176. What is Digital Image Processing?
A. White A. It’s an application that alters digital
B. Blue videos

C. Red B. It’s a software that allows altering dig-

ital pictures
D. Black
C. It’s a system that manipulates digital
172. A composite material has: medias
A. The same functionality as its compo- D. It’s a machine that allows altering dig-
nents ital images

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1134

177. What is the preferred terminology used B. Computer Aided Manufacture

to describe the methods of automated C. Computer Aided Metal
manufacture that are used in dental tech-
nology? D. Computer -like machine
A. Milling and 3D printing 181. What did designers use before CAD?
B. Adaptive and subtractive manufactur- A. Technical drawing
ing
B. Mind maps

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Additive and subtractive manufactur-
C. Freehand design
ing
D. Nothing
D. Additive and substantive manufactur-
ing 182. The basic geometric transformations are
178. Which sequence best represents the A. Translation
stages of part design and manufacturing? B. Rotation
A. CAM, CAD, NC C. Scaling
B. NC, CAD, CAM D. All of the mentioned
C. CAD, CAM, NC
183. How do leaders manage creativity?
D. CAD, NC, CAM
A. Creativity can never be managed
179. What does Cad-Cam technology mean? B. By defining a process for design
A. Technology involved in the use of com- C. By allowing engineers to build what-
puters to perform tasks of creation, modi- ever they want
fication, analysis and optimization of a de-
sign. D. By changing requirements and as-
sumptions during the design process
B. Use of computer systems for planning,
management and control of the opera- 184. The cam is usually called:
tions of a manufacturing plant A. Codigo F
C. It deals with the use of computer
B. Code a
systems to analyze the geometry gener-
ated by CAD applications, allowing the de- C. Codigo g
signer to simulate and study the behavior D. none of above
of the product to refine and optimize said
design. 185. how many times can you UNDO your
work in 2D Design
D. Technology that allows the design and
manufacture assisted by computer in A. 1
which it is applied in many manufacturing B. 2
processes with or without chip starting in
the manufacture of geometrically complex C. 3
parts D. Unlimited

180. Which of the following options is the cor- 186. When creating a a shape on 2D design.
rect meaning of the acronym CAM: What tool do you use?
A. Computer Aided Machine A. Double path

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1135

B. Contour 191. When engineers develop a model, which

C. Shape step in the engineering process is taking
place?

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D. Vectorize
A. Test and Evaluate
187. Manakah tahapan membuat Three Point B. Creation
Arc.
C. Plan
A. Klik ikon Three Point Arc-Pilih titik
D. Select an approach
3/titik awal (t2)-Pilih titik 2/titik akhir (t3)-
Pilih titik 1/titik singgung (t3)-Tekan Esc 192. These materials react and change with a
B. Klik ikon Three Point Arc-Pilih titik physical change in their environment e.g.
1/titik awal (t1)-Pilih titik 2/titik akhir (t2)- heat, light, electrical current.
Pilih titik 3/titik singgung (t3) A. Smart Materials
C. Klik ikon Three Point Arc-Pilih titik B. Modern materials
1/titik awal (t1)-Pilih titik 2/titik akhir (t2)-
C. Nano materials
Pilih titik 3/titik singgung (t3)-Tekan Esc
D. New Materials
D. Klik ikon Three Point Arc-Pilih titik
2/titik awal (t1)-Pilih titik 2/titik akhir (t1)- 193. Tool radius compensation is most impor-
Pilih titik 3/titik singgung (t3)-Tekan Esc tant during:
188. It is a very popular 3D file format in ani- A. Facing.
mation B. Boring.
A. .STL C. Contouring.
B. .FBX D. Drilling.
C. .PFU 194. Return to R point in canned cycle
D. .SLDPRT A. G91
E. .YHLQMDLG B. G28
189. What is the first stage of the workflow C. G99
for digital dentistry? D. G98
A. Data Application
195. The screen is scanned from left to right.
B. Data Augmentation top to bottom all the time to generate
C. Data Affirmation graphics by:
D. Data Acquisition A. Raster scan
B. Random scan
190. Which sensor would be used to measure
the amount of sunlight when recording C. Vector scan
weather data? D. Stoke writing
A. Light Sensor 196. Which of the following is not a part of
B. Temperature Sensor CAD hardware?
C. Infra-red sensor A. Graphical display terminal
D. Pressure Sensor B. Keyboards

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1136

C. Computer program 201. Which are advantages of CAM.

D. Peripheral equipment A. Expensive set up costs for equipment
B. Machines can run 24/7
197. ou are running a proven program (one run
before) for the first time in a new setup. C. High repetitive accuracy
You are cautiously allowing the first tool D. Training costs and time.
come into its approach position when you
determine that the tool is not going where 202. Commercial CAD software package avail-
able for kinematics analysis andvirtual

NARAYAN CHANGDER
it is suppose to. It is most likely that:
prototyping
A. the spindle speed is not correct
A. CATIA V5
B. the machine zero designation is not
B. Hypermesh
correct
C. ADAMS
C. the programmed coordinates are not
correct D. Master Cam
D. the dry run switch should be turned on 203. What does the GRIDLOCK tool do?
A. Allow you to move your work anywhere
198. What does CAM technology mean?
on the page
A. Movement of the machines without
B. You can only select one thing at a time
programming them
C. You can only click where the dots are
B. Design products with the help of soft-
on the page
ware
D. Makes all the dots disappear
C. The creation of patterns and lines for
them to machine a machine 204. Abilities, Age, Culture, Economic, Gender,
D. Technology that makes machines in- Hobbies, Ethnicity definer which strand
crease their power to manufacture. A. Function
B. Customer
199. WHAT IS CAD/CAM
C. Material
A. It refers to that union between design
and manufacturing by assistance of a com- D. none of above
puter. 205. In science, you first form a hypothesis; in
B. A program to design engineering, you first
C. It is a program that serves to create A. build a prototype
presentations B. define a problem
D. It is a program that allows us to know C. identify criteria
through a variety of topics D. none of the above
200. Which among the following is not a part 206. What type of motor is used to drive a
of the design workstation? CNC machining centers axis?
A. CPU A. servo
B. graphic terminal B. drive
C. Input devices C. sling
D. None D. pusher

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1137

207. When using the laser cutter what colour B. 5

do lines in CAD have to be to cut material? C. 7

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A. Black D. 9
B. Blue
213. What creates a solid or surface body from
C. Green a profile and a path?
D. Red A. Shell
208. This involves manufacturing a number B. Sweep
of identical products, usually by workers C. Extrude
who take on more specialised roles. D. Revolve
A. One off
214. What Colour should the etch/ engrave
B. Batch line be?
C. Mass A. Green
D. Continuous B. Red
209. An engineer has designed and built a pro- C. Blue
totype to improve the brake system of a D. Black
car. What is the next step that the engi-
neer should take in the process? 215. How has CAM negatively impacted tradi-
tional workshops?
A. Design
A. Production can be sped up
B. Test and evaluate
B. Human error is removed
C. Plan
C. Skilled people need to retrain or lose
D. Improvements their job
210. In 2D Design what does custom red do? D. Machines can read the CAD designs di-
rectly
A. It cuts through
B. It does an outline 216. All of these are examples of sensors, ex-
cept
C. It engraves
A. Light
D. it gives the line the colour red
B. Sound
211. command that used in CAM software C. Temperature
(choose 3)
D. Computer
A. extruded
217. Where are the files that we scan and de-
B. revolved
sign?
C. substract
A. Normally, it is saved on disc C of the
D. make a hole PC, in the exocad cad-data folder.
212. How many components are needed to B. On the D disk of the PC.
achieve a pass in the Fusion 360 tool draw- C. We can keep it where we want, be it a
ing pen drive, external hard drive, etc.
A. 3 D. none of above

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1138

218. What does SLA, DLP and LCD mean in 3D 223. Which of the following are virtual mod-
printing? elling techniques?
A. Different print materials A. Finite Element Analysis
B. They are the main printing technolo- B. Computation Fluid Dynamics
gies: laser, projector and screen C. Electronic Point of Sale
C. They are extrusion, yarn and photo- D. Master Production Schedule
chemical printers
224. Moving an object across the screen paral-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above lel to its initial position is called as A)
B) C) D)
219. The number of non-coincidental points re-
quired to define the simplest surface are: A. Movement

A. 4 B. Rotation
C. Translation
B. 3
D. Shifting
C. 2
D. 5 225. Why do we use CAD/CAM?
A. Because takes a long time to cut out
220. Cad stands for? B. It leaves rough edges and messy sur-
A. Computer Added Design face
B. Computer Aided Design C. It is quick and accurate
C. Computer Actual Design D. You can only make one at a time
D. none of above 226. EDP stands for
A. Electronic Data Processing
221. The aims of LEAN production are
which are TRUE (2) B. Engineering Design Process
A. To prevent any waste due to overpro- C. Engineering Development Program
duction D. Employee Discount Program
B. To ensure that there are high levels of 227. The creation of hard copy engineering
waiting between production stages drawings directly from the CAD database
C. To carry excessive stocks of product is known as
parts A. automated drafting
D. To minimise defects during production B. engineering analysis
C. design review and evaluation
222. In order to develop ideas for a new ten-
nis racket, a design team visits three dif- D. geometric modeling
ferent sporting goods stores. What part 228. The models from different CAD soft-
of the design process is this? ware’s can be exchanged using
A. Research and generate ideas A. IGES
B. Select an approach B. ISO
C. Create a model C. GKS
D. none of above D. DIN

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1139

229. What does sustainability mean? 235. Which strand in ACCESS FM helps us un-
A. Avoiding the depletion of natural re- derstand Ecological factors of a product?

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sources in order to maintain ecological A. Environment
balance. B. Earth
B. using only fossil fuels C. Material
C. using only non-renewable resources D. Function
D. none of above
236. Ends CNC program
230. The shape of the Bezier curve is con- A. M03
trolled by
B. With 0
A. Control points
C. Msh
B. Knots
D. T
C. End points
237. These are the advantages of using sensor,
D. All the above
except
231. Positioning (rapid traverse) A. More accurate than human
A. G83 B. No need for human to operate the sen-
B. G00 sor
C. G81 C. Can monitor information constantly
D. G43 D. Faulty sensors can give incorrect re-
sult
232. What does RFID stand for?
238. A modern material is
A. Receiver Frequency Indicator
A. a material that has been recently de-
B. Radio Frequency Identification
veloped for specific applications.
C. Really Funny Idea Dude
B. a material that reacts to a stimulus
D. e
C. a material invented since the year
233. The first cadat systems date from the 2000
decade D. a material with useful properties
A. 1960
239. Examples of ferrous metals are
B. 1950 A. Mild steel
C. 1980 B. Copper
D. 1972 C. Aluminium
234. When did the CAD/CAM software D. High Carbon Steel
arise?
240. The term that is used for geometric mod-
A. 1908 elling like solid modelling, wire frame mod-
B. In the 50’s elling and drafting is known as
C. In the 80’s A. software package
D. In the 70’s B. operating system

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1140

C. application software 246. Name two CAM products you would find
D. none of the mentioned in the D & T Department:
A. CNC Router
241. What functions does the CIM? B. 2D Design
A. Control business development C. Autodesk Fusion 360
B. Automize the processes D. 3D Printer
C. Increase integration levels
247. Spindle on CW

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All of the above A. M01
242. 2D programming types B. M02
A. Machine foot programming C. M03

B. CAD PROGRAMMING D. M04

C. CAM programming 248. What could CAD be used to design?

D. none of above A. Car parts
B. Buildings
243. What is the name of the image created
C. Clothes
from a scan?
D. All of these
A. Spot Cloud
B. Pimple Cloud 249. What is the main disadvantage of CAM?

C. Point Cloud A. Very expensive

B. Unreliable accuracy
D. Rain Cloud
C. Parts look unfinished
244. Manufacturing processes offers signifi- D. Takes up too much space
cantly greater consistency, accuracy, reli-
ability and productivity than human work- 250. What does the computer modelling tech-
ers nique FEA stand for?
A. CAD A. Failure Envelope Assessment
B. CAM B. Finite Element Analysis
C. Automation C. Flaw Eradication Automation
D. Fixed Electronic Augmentation
D. Deforestation
251. By printing with our formlabs, what does
245. When 3D printing resins the design is print time depend on?
manufactured in layers, this process is re-
ferred to as SLA, what does this stand A. Of the microns of definition, height
for? of the work and quantity of files to be
printed.
A. Stereolayerography
B. Of the type of resin chosen, power of
B. Stereolithography light and quantity of product that is left.
C. Stereolayeradhesion C. How clean the sensors and the tray.
D. none of above D. none of above

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1141

252. What is JIT and the its advantages of JIT 256. When using SLM manufacturing methods
(choose 3)? for alloys, what gas is used in the cham-
ber to prevent oxidization of the alloy by

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Manufacturing products as they are
making the atmosphere inert?
needed
A. Hydrogen
B. Involves stock piling products
B. Krypton
C. ‘Just in Time’ manufacture
C. Nitrogen
D. An advantage is that there are no stor-
age costs D. Argon
E. Radon
253. What is the operation of a machine tool
by a series of coded instructions? 257. Is it necessary to have the key on the PC
to work with Exocad?
A. Numerical control
A. It’s not mandatory.
B. Machining control
B. Yes, it is necessary for it to work.Either
C. Loop system control the demo green key or the professional
D. Open loop system control blue key.
C. It depends on each computer.
254. What is the main responsibility of a part
programmer? A part programmer: D. none of above

A. Creates the workpiece blueprint, de- 258. Which is the missing 6 R’s:Reduce Re-
termines the best sequence of cutting op- thinkRefuseRecycleReuse
erations, and selects the best tools for the A. Reform
job.
B. Resale
B. Monitors the CNC machine as it runs
C. Repair
through the part program.
D. Refuse
C. Turns the machining operations re-
quired to make a part into a sequence of 259. This workspace is used to create solids
program codes. with hard edges and flat faces.
D. Cleans the computer system of all un- A. Animation
known codes used in programming. B. Patch
255. Printing of metals is carried out using a C. Model
powdered alloy and a laser to melt the al- D. Sculpt
loy and fuse it together in layers. Which of
the following methods describes this pro- 260. Which is NOT true about CAM?
cess? (Tick all that apply) A. More automation and a smaller work-
A. SLM-Selective Laser Melting force

B. TLM-Targeted Laser Melting B. Is less expensive than older manufac-

turing techniques to set up
C. LPBF-Laser Powder Bed Fusion
C. Higher skilled operatives are required
D. MLMF-Micro Laser Metal Fusion
D. Means making optimal use of CNC
E. DMLM-Direct Metal Laser Melting equipment

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1142

261. The spindle speed for a particular tool in 266. ANSYS is software
a program is incorrect and you wish to re-
A. CAD
duce it. The kind of CNC word you must
change is: B. CAM
A. an S word C. CAE
B. a G word D. None of these

C. an F word 267. Why is it said that exocad is an open pro-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. a T word gram?
A. Because it is free.
262. Design systems can be:
B. Because its code is totally customiz-
A. Direct able, it is compatible with any peripheral
B. Indirect machine and produces files that we can
send to produce anywhere.
C. According to the commercial house
C. Because we can install it on any com-
D. Answers 1 and 2 are correct puter.

263. What is CAD? D. none of above

A. An app that lets you analyze different 268. . Work coordinate system 1 select
design concepts
A. G59
B. A coding program to let you easily
B. G56
write in a computer language
C. G54
C. Computer software used to create 2D
drawings/3D models of designs D. G58
D. Creation and development for any 269. Default layer name given by AUTOCAD is
robot
A. 0
264. What are the advantages of CAM? B. 1
A. Human error is eliminated C. 2
B. The machinery is cheap D. 3
C. Products can be produced 24 hours a
270. What is the purpose of post-curing of 3D
day without the need for lunch breaks
printed resins?
D. Any product can be made, without as-
A. To remove the sticky layer and allow
sembly by a human
the material to reach its full strength
265. Reflection about Y axis is B. Post curing of resins allows for Poly-
morphological changes to occur
A. Y flips
C. To fully cure the resin and allow the
B. X flips
material to reach its final material prop-
C. X-Y flips erties
D. None of the above D. none of above

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1143

271. Which of the following are examples of C. To obtain faster production cycles and
CAM machines? higher quality elaborated products

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A. Laser Cutter D. Thermal and fluid analysis thanks to
B. sewing machine the use of CFD.
C. Pillar Drill 276. What program is used to design and man-
D. Computer ufacture an object or piece in an integrated
way?
272. What is the civilization of those who A. MasterCam
could intuit were the first to use some type
of stroke for the manufacture of their gar- B. SolidWorks
ments? C. AutoCAD
A. Egyptians D. EdgeCAM
B. Maya
277. How should you save your work?
C. Mesopotamicus
A. All on 1 document
D. Persian
B. Different materials, colours and thick-
273. A material that changes in response to its nesses on separate documents.
environment is called: C. Different materials and colours on sep-
A. Simple arate documents
B. Subtle D. Different materials on separate docu-
ments
C. Small
D. Smart 278. What is technology used for?
A. Some of the main applications of the
274. To communicate online with colleagues by
system are wood turning, metallurgy,
profession, what can we use?
glass work
A. The Wetransfer online platform to
B. This technology covers simulation, val-
send files, and remote connections for
idation and optimization of products and
programs such as TeamViewer, Anydesk
manufacturing tools
or Skype
C. It is a system that allows you to use
B. Only by email servers, such as Gmail
computers in the process of industrial
or Hotmail.
manufacturing control, looking for its au-
C. Passing platforms (Nubes) such as tomation.
OneDrive, Dropbox, GoogleDrive the
D. To analyze the solidity and perfor-
Icloud.
mance of the components and assemblies
D. none of above
279. When do you evaluate a design?
275. Why do we use CAD/CAM technology?
A. Before construction
A. To analyze the solidity and perfor-
mance of the components and assem- B. After construction
blies. C. At several stages of the process be-
B. Intelligent verification of disagree- fore, during, and after construction
ments D. When you prepare drawings and plans

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1144

280. What minimum requirements should we B. Size

check on our computer to work fluid with C. Similar processing steps
exocad?
D. Any of these
A. I5 processor, RAM and NVIDIA graph-
ics card. 286. In order to have a plan, what must a de-
B. Hard disk, screen and mouse. signer do?
C. I7 processor, RAM and integrated A. Be able to write a few short state-
ments that explains what the designer

NARAYAN CHANGDER
graphics card.
wants to do
D. none of above
B. Prepare drawings and engineering
281. CAD/CAM is the inter-relationship be- plans
tween
C. Research and brainstorm possible so-
A. engineering and manufacturing lutions
B. engineering and marketing D. All of the above
C. manufacturing and marketing
287. Resources being used faster than they
D. marketing and design are naturally replaced; cannot be syntheti-
cally reproduced this includes coal, gas and
282. When a large amount of design data is to
oil(Pick 2)
be stored we generally use
A. Finite resources
A. COM unit
B. Electrostatic plotter B. Renewable

C. pen plotter C. Infinite resources

D. none D. Non-renewable

283. What is the name of the program used in 288. UCS stands for
most CAD/CAM applications for basic 2D A. User co-ordinate system
drawings.
B. Unique co-ordinate system
A. AutoCAD
C. United co-ordinate system
B. Photoshop
D. Unified co-ordinate system
C. Sketchup
289. Materials that use small particles to
D. 2D design
give them cool properties:-they have med-
284. is an image generation technique. ical uses(antibacterial fabrics)-Self clean-
ing fabrics
A. Raster scan
A. Smart Materials
B. Master scan
B. Nano materials
C. CRT
C. Modern Materials
D. None of these
D. Super alloys
285. In group technology, on part family is on
collection of parts based on 290. The integration of CAD and CAM is called
A. Shape A. Computer Aided Design

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1145

B. Computer Aided Engineering A. The CNC code is obtained and transmit-

C. CAE/CAM ted to the machine

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D. Computer Integrated Manufacturing B. The piece is executed and finished
C. The trajectories of the tools are simu-
291. CAE stands for lated
A. computer aided engineering D. The operations, tools and speed to be
B. computational added engineering used are selected
C. computer assembly engineering E. All of the above
D. computer additional engineering 296. The actual size of the drawing area is
specified by the command
292. Scan data can be used to design dental
appliances across all fields of Dental Tech- A. units
nology, which of the following are exam- B. line
ples of dental CAD software? (Tick all that C. limits
apply)
D. point
A. Exocad
B. Tinkercad 297. Integration of all business function of en-
terprise is
C. 3 Shape
A. CIM
D. Meshmixer
B. CAD CAM
E. Blender for Dental
C. CAE
293. What do microns mean on a machine? D. None of these
A. A 7 microns scanner is more precise
298. CAM stands for
than one of 5.
A. Control Adapter Machining
B. A 5 microns scanner is more precise
than one of 7. B. Computer Aided Mapping
C. The microns in the machinery are indif- C. Computer Access Mode
ferent. D. Computer Aided Machining
D. none of above
299. Peck drilling cycle
294. What is the name of the tool used to A. G03
create the outline of the letter for the
B. G54
keyring?
C. G83
A. Highlight
D. G81
B. Contour
C. Frame 300. Spindle stop
D. Path A. With 0
B. M04
295. Once the design or the CAD stage was
done, to which phase the model would C. M00
pass? D. M05

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8.5 CAD/CAM 1146

301. Cohen Sutherland algorithm is used for C. CAE

D. None of these
A. Line clipping
307. A translation is applied to an object by:
B. Polygon clipping
A. Repositioning it along with a straight-
C. circle clipping
line path
D. rectangle clipping
B. Repositioning it along with a circular
302. When coordinates going into a program path

NARAYAN CHANGDER
are specified relative to the program zero C. Repositioning it along with an elliptical
point, it is called: path
A. the incremental mode D. All of these
B. the absolute mode
308. What 3 Parts does a RFID system con-
C. the rapid mode tain?
D. the canned cycle mode
A. Ram, Power supply and Monitor
303. Incremental programming B. Wheels, Engine, Battery
A. G91 C. Processor, Printer and Scanner
B. G90 D. Tag, Reader and Antenna
C. G98
309. How are the 3D printers controlled con-
D. G99 trolled?
304. The element equations cannot be solved A. For small engines
without, B. For the electronics of the printer
A. Boundary conditions
C. By small engines controlled by the
B. Linear static conditions electronics of the printer
C. Post processing conditions D. By computer
D. None
310. Why is the design process iterative?
305. I am a smart material that is easily bent A. To improve the design
when cool but jump back into shape when
heated above a certain temperature eg. B. Because no single process works for
nitinol every design

A. Shape memory Alloys C. To keep it simple

B. Nano Materials D. To allow for management input
C. Ceramics 311. What is a disadvantage of RFID?
D. Cornstarch polymers A. More expensive than other options
306. Purchasing of raw material, Tools, Jix B. Less Durable
and fixture will be done in activity. C. It is evil
A. CAD D. Has a smaller range than other meth-
B. MRP ods of AIDC

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 8.6 Toothed Gearing 1147

312. Rapid position of the table A. Generation of plans with all kinds of
A. G00 views, details and sections/ high cost of
time and money in the training of the op-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. G01 erator that will work.
C. M30 B. Greater flexibility of the system/
D. G90 strong investment.

313. We will only be able to achieve a great C. Allows the design of three -
job according to our expectations with the dimensional objects such as mechanical
digital flow? pieces, design of civil works, architec-
ture/ work can be hacked
A. Yes, in a high percentage.
D. Improvements in the performance,
B. With technology, we have been able quality and productivity of the pieces,
to establish a similar and homogeneous thanks to the adequacy of the specific
production level for most users.But to characteristics/ training required.
achieve our excellence, we will need a fi-
nal characterization. 317. What safety precautions must be taken
C. The digital flow can never replace when using the laser cutter?
crafts in the shipyard. A. The lid must be closed and the extrac-
D. none of above tion turned on
B. Correct colour of acrylic is used
314. To ornament an object by embedding
pieces of a different material in it, flush C. Acrylic must be placed on the laser cut-
with its surface. ter bed

A. Inlay D. Leave the room

B. Outlie 318. Tool Length compensation + direction

C. Subversion A. G54
D. Inversion B. G43

315. What does CIM mean? C. G83

A. Manufacturing Implementation Center D. G42

B. Manufacturing systems 319. To get a flicker-free image on CRT, image

C. Computer integrated manufacturing is refreshed at a rate

D. Internal manufacturing accessories A. 20 times/sec

B. 60 times/sec
316. What advantages and disadvantages do
you have the use of CAD/CAM technolo- C. 90 times/sec
gies? D. NONE

8.6 Toothed Gearing

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1148

1. The pitch of gear is the distance between C. Only if it is the only “while()” state-
ment in the “for()” loop
A. The top point of each tooth to the cor- D. Never
responding point on the adjacent tooth
6. How do you determine the final gear ratio
B. The distance between two correspond- for a compound gear train?
ing teeth located at the base of the teeth
A. first gear ratio X second gear ratio =
C. One point on a tooth and the corre- final gear ratio

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sponding point on the next tooth mea- B. first gear ratio / second gear ratio =
sured along the pitch circle final gear ratio
D. The angle of the teeth between the top C. driven gear ratio X driver gear ratio =
of the teeth and the base final gear ratio
2. If the driver gear has 160 teeth and turns D. driver gear ratio / driven gear ratio =
at 120 rpm and the driven gear has 40 final gear ratio
teeth, how fast will the driven gear turn?
7. is the flow of electrons directly along
??
a path from the negative to the positive
A. 30 terminal. This current can only flow in one
B. 1.3 direction.
A. Direct Current
C. 480
B. Alternating Current
D. 4800
C. Max Electron Current
3. The Gear causes motion D. none of above
A. Driven
8. A toothed wheel is called a
B. Driving
A. Gear
C. Smallest B. The toothed
D. Biggest C. True
4. If the drive gear has 10 teeth and the D. false
driven gear has 20 teeth, what is the gear
9. The velocity ratio is the ratio of
ratio?
A. Speed of driven to speed of driver
A. 10:20
B. Speed of driver to speed of driven
B. 2.1
C. None of these
C. 1:2
D. none of above
D. 2:1
10. Smooth motion in involute tooth profile is
E. 10 possible due to
5. It is valid to nest a “while()” statement A. variation in pressure angle
inside a “for()” loop: B. constant pressure angle
A. Always C. variation in PCD
B. Only if the “for()” loop runs indefinitely D. None

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1149

11. On a table with four legs, there are 16. A wheel turns 1 and a quarter turn. What
four normal forces and each normal force is the change in angle in radians?
equals of the weight of the table. 3π

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A. 2
A. 1/4 B. 5π
2
B. 1/2 7π
C. 2
C. 1/8 D. 3π
D. 1/4 * 1/2
17. Conically shaped gears that transmit
12. Which of the following is a rechargeable power between shafts that have intersect-
wet cell battery? ing axes of rotation.
A. lead acid A. Spur Gear
B. lithium-ion B. Bevel Gear
C. NiCd C. Rack Gear
D. alkaline D. Crown Gear

13. To calculate any quantity for sprocket and 18. When speed is constant, what happens to
chain systems, you can use any gear ratio the value of torque?
except: A. increases
A. angular velocity (rpm) B. decreases
B. torque (ft lb) C. stays constant
C. diameter (in) D. none of above
D. you can use all gear ratios for 19. Why is it more difficult for a robot to start
sprocket/chain systems moving than it is to keep moving after it
is in motion?
14. What is the difference between Gear Ra-
tios and Mechanical Advantages? A. The coefficient of static friction is
greater than the coefficient of kinetic fric-
A. Mechanical Advantages use torque, tion
Gear Ratios use force
B. The Normal force is greater than when
B. Mechanical Advantages use force, the robot is moving
Gear Ratios use torque
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is
C. There is no difference, they are inter- greater than the coefficient of static fric-
changeable tion
D. Mechanical Advantages use gravity, D. The Normal force is greater when the
Gear Ratios use friction robot is at rest.
15. A converts alternating current to direct 20. What happens to speed when you increase
current. torque?
A. Rectifier A. Speed Increases
B. Rapid electric motor B. Speed decreases
C. Battery C. Speed stays the same
D. Lead-acid battery D. none of above

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1150

21. What is the symbol used to express C. Module

torque? D. Gear ratio
A. Lower Case Greek Tau
27. When a gear is connected to a power
B. Lower Case Greek Epsilon
source it becomes the
C. Lower Case Greek Psi
A. Driven Gear
D. Lower Case Greek Omega
B. Drive Gear

NARAYAN CHANGDER
22. are wheels with teeth that fit to- C. Idler Gear
gether.
D. none of above
A. Tires
B. Gears 28. In order for gears to work, gear teeth
must be in contact.
C. Pulleys
A. rarely
D. Wedges
B. typically
23. Diameter of pitch cylinder is known as
C. occasionally
A. Pitch cylinders
D. always
B. Pitch diameter
C. Pitch circle 29. consists of a single spur of helical gear,
that meshes with teeth in a straight rod
D. Pitch point with teeth cut into it. This gear configura-
tion results in transferring the rotational
24. Diametrical pitch is the ratio of
motion of the gear into linear motion.
A. The pitch diameter to the outer diame-
ter A. rack and pinion gear train

B. Outer diameter to the base circle diam- B. planetary gear train

eter C. worm gear train
C. Pitch diameter to the pitch D. helical gear train
D. Number of teeth to the pitch diameter
30. What direction to you need to pull the rope
25. The results of the operation of any system. to lift a load in a moveable pulley?
Also known as the information produced A. Left
by a computer.
B. Down
A. Input
C. Up
B. Output
D. none of above
C. Algorithm
D. Sensor 31. “CW” is the abbreviation for
A. Clockwise
26. Number of teeth divided by length of pitch
circle diameter is known as B. Constant Wave
A. Circular pitch C. Charge Wait
B. Diametral pitch D. Clock Wait

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1151

32. The pressure angle in a cam depends on C. Punching

A. The angle of ascent D. Rolling

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B. The lift of the follower 38. What is the difference between a belt and
C. Offset between center lines of cam pulley system and gears?
and follower A. The belt is a continuous band that
D. All of the above wraps around the pulleys to transmit
power
33. Friction depends on (SELECT THREE):
B. There are no teeth on gears
A. the load or weight of the object
C. Gears have “slip”
B. the normal or support force
D. A belt and pulley rotates in the same
C. the roughness of the surface direction, gears rotate in opposite direc-
D. the power of the acceleration tions

34. Something put into a system, such as re- 39. When you have a system with a driving
sources, in order to achieve a result. In- gear that is than the driven gear you
formation fed into a system. will increase torque and decrease speed.
A. sensor A. smaller
B. input B. bigger
C. force C. same size
D. output D. thicker

35. In order to calculate angular velocity 40. Deformation results in ; where fric-
tion acts over an area because additional
A. total number of turns/total time in sec- points of contact develop through deforma-
onds tion of the tire.
B. total number of seconds/total number A. traction
of turns
B. static friction
C. total number of turns*total number of
seconds C. a higher normal force

D. total number of turns-total number of D. greater mass

seconds 41. Name the input component on a bicycle?
36. Accelerations are produced by A. Wheels
A. forces B. Load
B. masses C. Output
C. speeds D. Pedals
D. velocities 42. How are gear ratios determined?
37. Automobile gears are generally manufac- A. Teeth of gear:teeth of gear
tured by B. gear shape:gear shape
A. Hobbing C. Speed:torque
B. Stamping D. none of above

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1152

43. What type of gears does the Vex robotics B. increase Speed and increase Torque
kit contain? C. increase Speed and decrease Torque
A. spur D. decrease Speed and increase Torque
B. bevel
49. can best be understood as an increase
C. helical in friction that occurs across the contact
D. rack and pinion area.
A. traction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
44. The motors used in the VEX robotics kit
are: B. static friction
A. hobby servos C. normal force
B. brushless DC motors D. normal friction
C. stepper motors 50. Distance measured along the circumfer-
D. shunt-wound DC motors ence of pitch circle from a point on tooth to
the corresponding point on adjacent tooth
45. In a gear drive the ratio of the can be is known as
used to compute gear ratio.
A. Circular pitch
A. Pitch diameters
B. Diametral pitch
B. Outer diameters
C. Module
C. The gear pitches
D. Gear ratio
D. Shaft diameters
51. Low velocity gears having peripheral ve-
46. The purpose of the idler gear is to either locity
of the driven gear or transfer power to
A. <3 m/s
a location which is farther from the driver
shaft. B. >3 m/s
A. Increase torque C. < 2m/s
B. Change the direction of rotation D. > 2m/s
C. Increase Speed 52. If on a bike, which kind of gear would be
D. Decrease Speed used?
A. belt drive
47. In a involute Gear, the normal to the invo-
lute is tangent to the B. chain drive
A. Pitch circle C. simple gear train
B. Base circle D. bevel gear
C. Addendum Circle 53. True or false; the starting gear is the input
D. Dedendum Circle gear.
A. true
48. When you have a system with a driving
gear that is LARGER than the driven gear B. false
you will C. not enough information
A. decrease Speed and decrease Torque D. none of above

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1153

54. Weight can cause a ball to roll down a hill. 59. When inspecting and troubleshooting a
For a brief moment the ball sits there, then gear drive system, the first step is to iden-
it begins to roll, gradually speed until tify the and its symptoms. Pg 388

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it reaches the foot of the slope.
A. Type of fault
A. increasing
B. Size of the gear
B. decreasing
C. Type of lubrication
C. approaching Normal force
D. Speed of the drive
D. approaching the coefficient of kinetic
friction 60. The gear connected to the input gear is the
55. is something that makes work better,
easier, or faster. A. Output gear
A. Gears B. Idler Gear
B. Force C. Also an input gear
C. An inclined plane D. none of above
D. A machine
61. An example of oscillating motion is
56. The acceleration of an object is inversely
A. A pendulum on a grandfather clock
proportional to the mass of the object. The
greater the mass, the the resulting ac- B. Bevel gears
celeration will be. C. Rack and pinion
A. smaller
D. A chain on a bicycle
B. greater
C. closer to the same 62. Think:If the input gear of the train has 32
teeth turning at 32rpm; it is connected to
D. closer to zero the 24 tooth output gear through a 16
57. Gears are also used to transfer and tooth idler. What is the end result?
from one object to another. A. speed increase, rotation change
A. forces B. no change
B. motion C. speed reduction, no change in rota-
C. air tion)
D. time D. speed increase, no change in rotation

58. You are designing a dragster with a 24 E. speed reduction, rotation change
tooth drive gear. Which would be the best
sized driven gear to use to create maxi- 63. Calculate the tool width of a gear having
mum speed? 30 number of teeth and with module 5 mm

A. 8 A. 6.352 mm
B. 16 B. 5.555 mm
C. 24 C. 7.850 mm
D. 40 D. None

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1154

64. The electric motor uses electricity and 70. The “==” symbol is used to:
transforms it to A. Perform a comparison with no assign-
A. mechanical energy ment
B. chemical energy B. Always evaluate an expression as true
C. potential energy C. Perform a comparison and also an as-
D. hydraulic energy signment

65. Compare to spur gears, helical gears D. Perform an assignment with no com-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
parison
A. Run More smoothly
B. Run with more vibrations and noise 71. With gears, two gears connect at an
angle. These gears can also change the
C. Consume more power
and direction of motion.
D. Run exactly alike
A. bevel-speed
66. If a 20-toothed gear rotates 6 times, how B. bevel-time
many times will a 40-tooth gear rotate?
C. idler-speed
A. 3
D. crown-direction
B. 6
C. 9 72. Gears that have no effect on gear or speed
ratios in a gear train are
D. 12
A. pinion gears
67. The gear train used in automobile steering
systems B. idler gears
A. rack and pinion gear train C. spur gears
B. planetary gear train D. internal gears
C. spur gear train 73. The most important parameter in gear
D. helical gear train anatomy. The number of teeth there are
per inch of circumference of the pitch cir-
68. The ratio of speed of the driver to speed cle.
of driven
A. pitch
A. Gear ratio
B. pitch circle
B. Speed ratio
C. addendum
C. Velocity ratio
D. All the above D. tooth clearance

69. A toothed wheel that works with others to 74. A “char” variable type is 8 bits. This
alter the relation between the speed of an means
engine and the speed of the driven parts. A. it can hold 256 possible values
A. Mechanism B. it is twice as large as an int
B. Driven Gear C. it can only hold “character” data, not
C. Gear numbers
D. none of above D. it can hold 8 possible values

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1155

75. The purpose of the IDLER GEAR is to 81. Driving gear of two mating gear which is
A. change the speed of rotation generally small is known as

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A. Pitch line
B. make the model harder to build
B. Rack
C. add more gears for fun
C. Pinion
D. change the direction of rotation
D. Line of centre
76. What is Input?
82. Which of the following instruments is used
A. Circular motion to measure base pitch of a gear in base
B. A push or pull on an object. tangent method?
A. Gear tooth vernier caliper
C. Information fed into a system.
B. David Brown tangent caliper
D. A twisting force
C. David Brown tangent comparator
77. Which of these use gears? D. David Brown tangent micrometer
A. Car window
83. In order for two gears to mesh, they need
B. Bicycle to have the same size (and shape) teeth
C. Car on the same spacing. It means they must
have the same:
D. ALL of them
A. Gear ratio
78. If you need to move fast, then use a B. Gear aptitude
smaller gear. C. Diametral pitch
A. driven D. Gear crest
B. driving
84. When you compile your program, you are
C. idler
A. Converting your “C” program to ma-
D. train chine language
B. “Piling” program statements, one af-
79. Which of following gear has inclined teeth
ter another
A. Spur gear
C. Sending the program to the controller
B. Helical gear on the robot
C. Spiral gear D. Creating or editing “C” language state-
ments
D. All the above
85. The sprockets on a bicycle are often mis-
80. states that all forces exist in pairs and takenly called gears. Though similar, a
these two forces must be equal by oppo- sprocket interacts with a , while gears
site in direction interact with other gears.
A. Newton’s First Law of Motion A. chain
B. Newton’s Second Law of Motion B. pedal
C. Newton’s Third Law of Motion C. shaft
D. Newton’s Fourth Law of Motion D. rotor

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1156

86. An example of linear motion is B. NG = 96 teeth; dG = 256 mm; dP =

A. A laser 64 mm; C = 160 mm

B. A record player C. NG = 32 teeth; dG = 192 mm; dP =

48 mm; C = 120 mm
C. A windshield wiper
D. none of above
D. A bouncy ball
92. These drive trains are very inefficient; will
87. A force that moves an object is turn only in one direction; and will not back

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. work drive.
B. magic A. worm gear trains
C. the wind B. planetary gear trains
D. the sun C. spur gear trains
88. What is the mechanical advantage of 1:5 D. helical gear trains
gear ratio?
93. What is a gear good for?
A. Torque Advantage
A. Changing direction of motion
B. Speed Advantage
B. Changing torque
C. no Mechanical Advantage
C. Changing speed
D. none of above
D. Changing force of gravity
89. After the following fragment of
code, what is the value of 94. In worm wheel gear speed reduction max-
“count? ”count=5count+=25count- imum is possible
=10count*=10count/=5 A. 1:100
A. 40 B. 200:1
B. 20 C. 300:1
C. 80 D. 1:300
D. 25
95. How can a pinion tighten the buckle on a
90. A is used to raise and lower a flag. pair of skates?
A. pulley A. Using buckles
B. robot B. A handle moves the pinion
C. wedge C. The pinion moves the rack
D. lever D. The rack pulls the buckle tight

91. A spur gearset has a module of 6 mm and 96. is a wheel with an axle around its cen-
a velocity ratio of 4. The pinion has 16 ter to move loads.
teeth. Find the number of teeth on the A. A wheel and axle
driven gear, the pitch diameters, and the
theoretical center-to-center distance. B. A plane

A. NG = 64 teeth; dG = 384 mm; dP = C. Friction

96 mm; C = 240 mm D. A lever

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1157

97. Medium And high velocity gears having pe- 102. A twisting force (a push or pull in a circu-
ripheral velocity lar direction) is what?
A. Torque

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A. 2-5 m/s and >15 m/s
B. 3-25 m/s and >25m/s B. Impact
C. 3-15 m/s and >15 m/s C. Input
D. 3-10m/s and >10 m/s D. Output

98. A comparison of the number of teeth of 103. Gears can change the
one gear to another. A. speed and direction of motion
A. gear total B. speed and time of force
B. gear purpose C. does not change anything
C. gear ratio D. none of above
D. none of above 104. The gear used to convert rotary motion
into translating motion is
99. What is the difference between a gear and
A. Worm and wheel
a sprocket?
B. Crown gear
A. A sprocket is connected directly to an-
other sprocket C. Rack & Pinion
B. A gear is connected by a chain to an- D. Spiral bevel geat
other gear 105. The measure of how fast gear teeth are
C. A sprocket is connected by a chain to traveling in feet per minute is known as
another sprocket pg 371
D. There is no difference, they are inter- A. Gear speed
changeable B. Angular momentum
100. Which formula is used to calculate diame- C. Pitch line velocity
tral pitch? D. Rotational velocity
A. (number of teeth) x (pitch circle diam- 106. Work is done when an object is moved
eter) a certain distance by which of the follow-
B. (pitch circle diameter) / (number of ing?
teeth) A. Force
C. (number of teeth) / (pitch circle diam- B. Velocity
eter)
C. Torque
D. None mentioned D. Momentum
101. A is a mechanical or optical device 107. When on a bike going downhill, what hap-
used to measure angular velocity pens to the speed and torque?
A. tachometer A. Speed decreases; torques increases
B. speedometer B. Speed decreases; torques decreases
C. mileage indicator C. Speed increases; torques decreases
D. velocimeter D. Speed increases; torques increases

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1158

108. What is one disadvantage of a 113. Which of the following can NOT be
Sprocket? changed with gears?
A. It is quiet A. Speed
B. It is expensive
B. Pressure
C. It can slip
C. Torque
D. It smells bad
D. Direction
109. The ideal center distance between two

NARAYAN CHANGDER
gears is that distance which 114. Velocity can be defined as
A. A causes the gears pitch circles to be
A. displacement divided by the time it
tangent to each other
took
B. Produces no backlash
B. how fast something is changing
C. Allows maximum space between the speeds
top land and bottom land
D. Maximizes backlash C. the same as speed
D. distance traveled by the time it took
110. A gear with a diametrical pitch of 16 will
mesh with
115. Movement that goes back and forth in a
A. Any gear having a diametral pitch of 16 straight line
or lower
A. Rotary
B. Any gear having a diametral pitch of 16
or higher B. Linear
C. Only a gear having a diametral pitch of C. Oscillating
16
D. Reciprocating
D. Only a gear having a diametral pitch
greater than 16
116. One of the features of a gear is the tooth
111. What best describes what a load is? profile, which is defined as the
A. a type of simple machine A. Surface area on top of the tooth
B. an example of a lever B. Line on the tooth edge which blends
C. what you are trying to lift with the root
D. the effort C. Surface area of the tooth which is be-
low the pitch circle
112. How are large gears different from small
gears? D. Shape made by the edge of the tooth
A. no difference, they are the same
117. What is a driver gear?
B. small gears turn with more force than
large gears A. the gear attached to a wheel or axle
C. large gears turn with more force than B. the gear attached to the motor
small gears
C. the gear in between
D. large gears have fewer teeth than
small gears D. none of above

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1159

118. Which best describes the relationship be- C. 1440 degrees

tween a small gear with 8 teeth and a D. 360 degrees
large gear with 40 teeth?

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A. 1:5 ratio 124. The gear that you turn is called the
gear and the last gear that you are trying
B. 1:40 ratio to move is called the gear.
C. 1:8 ratio A. driver-driven
D. 1:1 ratio B. leader-follower
119. of motors are motors C. conductor-passenger
A. AC D. host-traveller
B. DC
125. A special helical gear that has only one
C. ACDC tooth that spirals about the central axis
D. two wire like a screw. It must always be coupled
with at least one other gear; with per-
120. The most common type of gears, with pendicular axes of rotation, resulting in a
teeth along the rim; has teeth cut into the change in the orientation of the axis of ro-
outside rim of a metal or plastic disk. tation.
A. spur A. worm
B. helical B. bevel
C. worm C. helical
D. bevel D. spur
121. An example of rotary motion is 126. A short rotating shaft used in machine
A. A bullet in motion tool is called
B. The pendulum in a grandfather clock A. Axil
C. A wheel on a car B. Spindle
D. A running elephant C. Line Shaft
D. Transmission shaft
122. Gear failure enables you to pinpoint
problems with a gear drive. Pg 389 127. Imaginary friction cylinders which by
A. Locations pure rolling together transmit the same
motion as pair of gears is known as
B. Wear patterns
C. Predictions A. Pitch cylinders

D. None of the answers are correct B. Pitch diameter

C. Pitch circle
123. An input gear with 50 teeth turns an out-
put gear with 25 teeth. The input gear D. Pitch point
turns 720 degrees. How many degrees 128. The method of lubrication is used
does the output gear turn? in very high-speed drives which create a
A. 18000 degrees great deal of heat.
B. 36, 000 degrees A. Gas

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1160

B. Air 134. Two mating Spur gear has 60 and 40

C. Spray teeth their module is 5. Determine the
centre to centre distance between the gear
D. Bath axis
129. Mechanisms can change direction, speed, A. 150mm
and force or torque. They can also change
the type of movement. The type of move- B. 200mm
ment that swings back and forth in an arc
C. 250mm

NARAYAN CHANGDER
is called what?
A. Rotary motion D. 60mm
B. Oscillating motion
C. Reciprocating motion 135. Flagpoles use 1 or 2 pulleys to raise and
lower a flag. They are used to lift objects.
D. Linear motion A flag is not heavy. Why are pulleys used
130. is a push or pull. on flagpoles?
A. Friction A. To raise it higher than a person can
B. A Plane reach
C. Work B. To lift a heavy object
D. Force C. To show Canadian pride
131. A rack and pinion drive is an example of D. none of above
a(n) gear drive.
A. Parallel axis 136. What is the Gear Ratio of a driven gear
B. Intersecting Axis with 8 teeth and a driving gear with 32
C. Non-intersecting axis teeth? Make sure ratio is reduced to low-
est terms
D. Moving axis
A. 8:32
132. What is the benefit of an Idler Gear?
A. It allows you to use more gears B. 32:8
B. It allows the output to be the same C. 1:4
torque as the input
D. 4:1
C. It allows the output to be in the same
direction as the input
137. Sloppiness in gear meshing can also cause
D. It is not a benefit , when gear teeth jump over tooth
133. The member of a pair of gears to which spaces and tops of gears grind past each
motion and power are transmitted by the other.
other. The output gear. A. gear gnashing
A. Drive Gear
B. meshing
B. Driven Gear
C. Toothed Wheel C. backlash
D. Bevel Gear D. lubrication

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1161

138. Cars and robots are not limited by the 143. If the output gear is larger than the input
amount of energy they use, but by the rate gear the speed will do what?
at which they use the energy. This is an A. increase

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example of limitation by what?
B. decrease
A. Power
C. stay constant
B. Velocity
D. none of above
C. Work
144. What is the Gear Ratio of a driven gear
D. Force
with 8 teeth and a driving gear with 32
139. Backlash is the teeth?
A. Distance between the bottom land and A. 4
the top land of a gear B. 1/4
B. Difference between the thickness of a C. 0.4
tooth and the width of the tooth space D. 0.25
C. Working depth of a gear
145. Which of the following is not related to
D. DIfference between the runout of two the cam profile?
shafts having meshing gears installed on
each shaft A. Prime Circle
B. Trace point
140. The point on the Cam with maximum pres-
C. Addendum
sure angle in known as the
D. Base Circle
A. Cam center
B. Pitch point 146. What is a sprocket?
C. Trace point A. A sprocket is a metal wheel with teeth
on the outside
D. Prime point
B. A sprocket is a metal wheel with teeth
141. Diametral pitch is a relative measure of on the inside
tooth Pg 349 C. None of the above
A. Speed D. none of above
B. Wear
147. change the axis of rotation by 90 de-
C. Size grees
D. Mesh A. bevel gears and worm gears
142. What is rotary motion? B. planetary gear trains
A. Circular motion C. rack and pinion gear trains
B. A twisting force D. spur gears
C. The output gear. The member of a pair 148. a gear size is measured by?
of gears to which motion and power are
A. teeth
transmitted by the other
B. circumfrence
D. The input gear. The gear which trans-
mits power and motion to the rest of the C. height
system. The input gear. D. length

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1162

149. In order for two gears to mesh, they need 154. An example of reciprocating motion is
to have the same size (and shape) teeth on
A. Yo Yo
the same spacing, known as what?
A. Gear ratio B. Arrow
B. Gear aptitude C. Ferris Wheel
C. Gear pitch D. A pokeball in flight
D. Gear crest

NARAYAN CHANGDER
155. Ratio of angular velocity of the follower
150. Signed int vs unsigned int to the angular velocity of driving gear is
A. wrap at a lower value known as
B. one never wraps, whereas the other A. Gear ration
always does
B. Module
C. wrap at the same value
D. wrap at a high value C. Velocity ratio
D. None mentioned
151. Mating gears turn in what direction?
A. Clockwise 156. Find the work done when a block is
B. Counter-Clockwise moved a distance of 3 ft. by a force of
C. The same direction 15 lbs.

D. Opposite Directions A. 45 lb-ft

152. When gears are equal in size, what hap- B. 5.0 lb-ft
pens to the speed and torque? C. 30 lb-ft
A. Speed increases; torques decreases
D. 0.2 lb-ft
B. Speed decreases; torque increases
C. Speed and torque are constant 157. Which of the following is not the shape
D. none of above of Cam
A. Spiral
153. The driving wheel has 12 teeth, the
driven wheel has 48 teeth B. Knife-edge
A. The larger driven wheel will move 4 C. Globoidal
times as quick as the smaller driving
wheel D. Conjugate
B. The larger driven wheel will move a
158. Check all that apply-Which mechanisms
quarter of the speed of the smaller driv-
that you have modeled in class change
ing wheel
speed?
C. The larger driven wheel will have 4
times the turning force compared to the A. Simple Gear Train
smaller driving wheel B. Simple Gear Train with Idler
D. The larger driven wheel will have a
C. Chain Drive
quarter of the turning force compared to
the smaller driving wheel D. Worm and Wheel

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1163

159. What is a Force? A. Newton’s First Law of Motion

A. The information produced by a com- B. Newton’s Second Law of Motion

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puter. C. Newton’s Third Law of Motion
B. A push or a pull on object. D. Newton’s Fourth Law of Motion
C. Circular motion
165. Cylindrical in shape; these gear teeth are
D. A procedure or formula for solving a
curved; and these gears are often found in
problem.
automobile transmissions
160. All but which of the following are types A. helical
of gear movement?
B. worm
A. Reciprocating
C. bevel
B. Linear
D. spur
C. Oscillating
166. All gears in between the driving gear and
D. Forward
the driven gear that only transmit power
161. The Wait() command will cause your pro- are known as
gram to: A. Idler Gears
A. Pause for a certain number of millisec- B. Trained Gears
onds.
C. Driven Gears
B. Turn off all motors briefly.
D. Driving Gears
C. Turn off the robot controller briefly.
D. Stop and only restart after user input. 167. The overload service factor is the sum of
two factors. They are the type of load ser-
162. On your robot, exists wherever there vice and the service factor. Pg 360
are moving parts in contact with each A. Environment
other.
B. Lubrication method
A. friction
C. Application
B. velocity
D. Maximum speed
C. traction
D. acceleration 168. When an object is at rest, the object is
simply not going to move unless another
163. Select the TWO types of friction that oc- object exerts force on it. Getting a sta-
cur in nature: tionary object to move requires
A. static friction A. acceleration
B. kinetic friction B. force
C. normal friction C. velocity
D. magnetic friction D. friction
164. states that the acceleration of an ob- 169. What are pulleys we use everyday?
ject is directly proportional to the net or to-
tal force acting on the object and inversely A. Flag pole
proportional to the object’s mass. B. Fishing rod

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1164

C. Blinds 175. The input gear turns 2π radians as the

output gear turns 10π radians. If the out-
D. A wheel chair
put gear has 10 teeth, how many teeth
170. The gears are used to connect two paral- does the input gear have?
lel shafts except A. 60 teeth
A. Spur gears B. 20 teeth
B. Helical gear C. 5 teeth

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Double helical gears D. 50 teeth
D. Bevel gears 176. When gear teeth jump over tooth spaces
and the tops of gears grind past one an-
171. Gears are simple machines classified as other. This may lead to damage to the
A. class 1 levers teeth and premature wear.
B. class 2 levers A. gear gnashing
C. screws B. meshing

D. class 3 levers C. backlash

D. engagement
172. Spiral gears are used to transmit power
when the shafts are 177. Assuming that “final” is an int variable,
what is the value of “final” after the fol-
A. Parallel
lowing code fragment? final=17final/=3
B. Intersecting
A. 5
C. Parallel & Intersecting B. 5 2/3
D. neither parallel nor intersecting C. 6
173. A wheel with teeth is a D. 2/3
A. Gear 178. An advantage of sprocket and chain sys-
B. Tire tems is:

C. Square A. they don’t slip

D. none of above B. they don’t require lubrication

C. they require no maintenance
174. Mechanisms can change direction, speed,
D. none of the above
and force or torque. They can also change
the type of movement. The type of move- 179. The input gear has 6 teeth.The output
ment that moves in a straight line in one gear has 48 teeth. The gear ratio is
direction is called what? Make sure ratio is reduced to lowest terms
A. Reciprocating motion A. 1:8
B. Linear motion B. 8:1
C. Rotary motion C. 6:48
D. Oscillating motion D. 48:6

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1165

180. When you increase the speed of the out- C. Prime Circle
put gear torque will do what? D. None of these

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A. decrease
186. is used for connecting two non inter-
B. increase secting and non parallel shaft-
C. stay constant A. Worm wheel
D. none of above B. Spiral bevel gear
181. type of lubricants are nearly only C. Hypoid gear
used in open gearing applications. D. Worm gear
A. Shielded bearing
187. To connect two intersecting shafts we use
B. Hardened
A. Spur gears
C. Thick
B. Helical gear
D. Grease
C. Worm and wheel
182. When gears are equal in size, what is the
D. Bevel gears
gear ratio?
A. 1:2 188. type lubricants are typically used in
non-enclosed applications
B. 1:3
A. Powder
C. 2:5
B. Oil
D. 1:1
C. Gaseous
183. The strength of a battery’s charge is mea-
D. Grease
sured in:
A. volts 189. When discussing simple machines, what
is effort?
B. amps
A. a type of simple machine
C. A’s
B. the force you apply to move an object
D. electrodes
C. what the simple machine is lifting
184. One disadvantage of a helical gears is
D. the point where the lever pivots
A. Excess noise
B. Low effciency 190. Herringbone gears are used to

C. Side thrust A. Avoid interference

D. Excess weight B. Avoid the effect of dynamic load

C. Eliminate axial thrust
185. A circle drawn with center as the cam
center and radius equal to the distance be- D. Reduce wear of teeth
tween the cam centre and the point on the 191. What is the output speed of a gear
pitch curve at which the pressure angle is drive system that has an input speed of
maximum, is called 1000RPM, an input torque of 100 in/lbs
A. Base circle and an output torque of 400 in/lbs?
B. Pitch circle A. 4000 RPM

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1166

B. 1000 RPM 197. is a force that slows objects down

C. 250 RPM when they rub against each other.

D. 16000 RPM A. Plane

B. Friction
192. Gears that are quieter and carry greater
loads at higher speeds; often found in au- C. A wedge
tomobile transmissions D. A lever

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. helical
198. A gear mounted to a straight rod, such
B. spur
that it rotates and moves in a linear fash-
C. conical ion another part .
D. bevel A. Spur Gear
193. What is mechanical advantage? B. Crown Gear
A. Makes things more difficult for hu- C. Bevel Gear
mans
D. Rack and pinion set of Gears
B. The force that is applied to move a load
C. The use of gears 199. An imaginary point where the weight of
an object can be thought of as being con-
D. none of above centrated.
194. The speed of the driving member of a A. center of gravity
gear train to that of the driven member
B. fulcrum
is called what?
A. energy C. radius

B. algorithim D. pitch

C. gear ratio 200. What is the work done when a block is

D. idler gear moved a distance of 6 feet by a force of
15 lbs?
195. A is the ratio of the pitch diameters
A. 90 lb-ft
of each pair of meshing gears.
A. gear ratio B. 45 lb-ft

B. driver gear setting C. 15 lb-ft

C. pitch circle D. 30 lb-ft
D. pitch circumference
201. Part of pitch circle of rack which is a
196. The size of gears is usually specified by straight line is also known as

A. Circular pitch A. Pitch line

B. Outside diameter B. Rack

C. pitch circle diameter C. Pinion
D. inside diameter D. Line of centre

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1167

202. When using gear trains in a robot, trade- 207. What do we call the gear connected to
offs must be made. If the robot needs the output, such as a wheel or mechanism
to increase torque, there will be a propor- in a system?

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tional trade-off in what? A. Drive Gear
A. Speed B. Driven Gear
B. Wheel Radius C. Bigger Gear
C. Friction D. Smaller Gear
D. Weight
208. is a gear where is straight instead of
203. Check all that apply-Mechanisms are gen- a circle
erally used to: A. External gearing
A. Change the direction of movement B. Internal gearing
B. Change the type of movement C. Rack and pinion
C. Change the speed of movement D. All the above
D. Change the amount of torque of force
available to do work 209. A bicycle has 60 teeth on the input gear
(the one connected to the pedals) and 20
204. A gear turns 2 full rotations. How many teeth on the output gear (the one con-
degrees is this? nected to the rear wheel). How many rev-
A. 1080 degrees olutions will the rear wheel make for each
revolution of the pedal?
B. 540 degrees
A. 3 revolutions
C. 720 degrees
B. 2 revolutions
D. 4π
C. 4 revolutions
205. Why are there cogs/ teeth on a gear? D. 5 revolutions
A. to slow it down
210. A gear train is
B. to make it go faster
A. More than two gears that are attached
C. so they can grip / mesh with other together
gears
B. One gear that turns
D. none of above
C. A pulley
206. states that an object at rest will re- D. none of above
main at rest unless acted upon by a force
external to the object, and conversely, an 211. The gear which transmits power and mo-
object in motion will remain in motion un- tion to the rest of the system. The input
less also acted upon by an outside force. gear.
A. Newton’s First Law of Motion A. Drive Gear
B. Newton’s Second Law of Motion B. Driven Gear
C. Newton’s Third Law of Motion C. Toothed Wheel
D. Newton’s Fourth Law of Motion D. Mechanism

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1168

212. A push or pull on an object in a straight B. The driven gear turns 7 times for 1 turn
line. of the drive gear.
A. Force C. The gear goes fast!
B. Input D. none of above
C. Torque
218. In a compound gear train, at least two of
D. Reciprocating the gears must have the same
A. axis of rotation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
213. A gear has 30 teeth with module 4 mm
and pressure angle of 20o. Calculate B. size and shape
length of base tangent in a gear over 7
C. shape and color
teeth space.
D. pitch
A. 21.25 mm
B. 90.23 mm 219. What is a important parameter when
two different diameter gears need to mesh
C. 62.53 mm
properly?
D. None
A. pitch
214. A connected source of rotating gears B. tooth thickness
A. Follower Gear C. addendum circle
B. Driver Gear D. dedendum circle
C. Gear Train
220. What is the highest gear ratio we can
D. Idler Gear make with the gears in our class?
215. On a horizontal surface, the normal force A. 12:1
(N) will always be at least to the B. 18:1
weight (w) of the object.
C. 27:1
A. equal
D. 9:2
B. more than
C. less than 221. A gear drive system using two spur gears
connected by an idler gear is an example
D. close to
of a gear drive.
216. The type of pulley that changes position A. Parallel axis
is?
B. Intersecting axis
A. Fixed Pulley
C. Non-Intersecting
B. Movable Pulley
D. Moving axis
C. Compound Pulley
222. is often called the Law of Inertia.
D. none of above
A. Newton’s First Law of Motion
217. What is the BEST explanation for a gear
train with a 7:1 gear ratio? B. Newton’s Second Law of Motion

A. The drive gear turns 1 time for every 7 C. Newton’s Third Law of Motion
turns of the driven gear. D. Newton’s Fourth Law of Motion

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1169

223. What is the gear ratio is the input gear C. Will never execute the conditional
has 16 teeth and the output gear has 20 code.
teeth?

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D. Will not cause an assignment.
A. 4:5
229. How can you increase the torque supplied
B. 5:4 by the Vex motors?
C. 1.25:1 A. Change the gear ratio
D. 3:1 B. Increase the speed of the robot
224. A PWM value of 0 will cause a Motor C. Increase the size of the wheels
Module to D. Change the PWM of the motor
A. stop moving
230. Line passing through center of rotation of
B. turn full speed CW
two meeting gear is known as
C. turn full speed CCW
A. Pitch line
D. turn on
B. Rack
225. Name the part of a spur that makes other C. Pinion
gears turn?
D. Line of centre
A. Input
231. Newton’s 2nd Law states
B. Teeth
A. force equals the product of the mass
C. Pedals
and acceleration
D. Bevel
B. Force equals acceleration divided by
226. The electrode with the greatest number mass
of electrons is called the C. Mass of an object is the product of the
A. cathode force and the acceleration
B. anode D. Acceleration equals force times mass
C. volt meter 232. These make a job easier.
D. positive terminal A. people
227. What is a idler gear? B. lunchtime
A. the gear attached to a wheel or axle C. machines
B. the gear attached to the motor D. computers
C. the gear in between 233. The “Begin” and “End” blocks are in your
D. none of above program to

228. The code “if (students = 14) {conditional A. Encapsulate your code between start-
code};” ing and ending points

A. Will cause an assignment and execute B. Tell the motors to start and stop
the conditional code. C. Organize your flowchart alphabetically
B. Will only execute the conditional code D. Turn on and then turn off the robot con-
if the value of students is 14. troller

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1170

234. The ratio of output force to the input 239. compare the output (or driven gear)
force applied to a mechanism is known as to the input (or drive gear).
A. Algorithms
A. Pressure B. Automation
B. Weight C. Gear Ratios
C. Mechanical Advantage D. Mechanisms
D. 3.14

NARAYAN CHANGDER
240. results when a force moves an object.
235. Which of the following is not a dry cell A. Work
battery?
B. Gears
A. Lead-acid
C. Friction
B. NiMH
D. A screw
C. Alkaline
D. NiCd 241. Friction is a force that always acts
A. opposed to the object’s motion
236. Friction is the force that an object’s
motion. B. perpendicular to the object’s motion

A. opposes C. in the same direction that the object is

moving
B. increases
D. downwards against the surface
C. decreases
D. creates a coefficient for 242. The part of the motor that turns is typi-
cally called the
237. Which of the following is the differ- A. rotor
ence between oscillating and rotary move-
ment? B. stator

A. Rotary is in a circle while oscillating is C. field coils

on an arc D. brushes
B. Oscillating is in a circle while rotary is 243. The surface of the gear tooth below the
on an arc pitch surface is called
C. There is no difference A. Face
D. none of above B. Bottom tooth
238. An autonomous robot is one that C. Flank
A. Uses its own intelligence or program D. Dedendum
to handle different situations
244. Ratio of circumference of pitch circle to
B. Requires a human operator to carry number of teeth is known as
out its tasks
A. Circular pitch
C. Has mechanisms to perform a variety
of operations B. Diametral pitch

D. Is able to respond to joystick com- C. Module

mands D. Gear ratio

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1171

245. What do we call the gear connected to D. move the location of the rotational mo-
the input power source, such as a motor? tion

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A. Driven Gear E. increase or decrease the angular ve-
B. Bigger Gear locity of the motor

C. Smaller Gear 251. A while() loops is used to

D. Driving Gear A. execute a section of code until a condi-
tion is met
246. To determine how fast a gear is turning
B. check an input repeatedly
in relation to another, you should .
C. wait a specified length of time
A. Observe the direction
D. ensure that the battery has enough
B. Measure the size power for an operation
C. Count the teeth
252. Instead of a keyway and key, the Vex
D. none of above robot uses a that prevents spinning to
lock the wheels and the gears.
247. On a gear, the fulcrum is
A. square axle
A. the center of the gear
B. indicator
B. the radius of the gear
C. keyhole
C. the teeth of the gear
D. Allen wrench setting
D. the diameter of the gear
253. In a gear, the fulcrum is the
248. Where might you find gears?
A. axle, or center of rotation
A. tires
B. pitch circle
B. clock
C. addendum circle
C. chopsticks
D. tooth clearance
D. swimming pool
254. A 10-tooth driver gear meshes with a
249. The three to four digit number in a gear 20-tooth idler gear, which in turn, meshes
specification code indicates both diametral with a 40-tooth driven gear. What is the
pitch and Pg 355 gear ratio of the gear train?
A. Number of teeth A. 80:1
B. Maximum bore size B. 4:1
C. Pitch diameter C. 1:2
D. Pressure angle D. 1:4

250. Using gear trains you can do all of the 255. Which type of gears are used in connect-
following EXECEPT ing two co planer and intersecting shaft
A. increase fuel efficiency A. Spur gear
B. change the rotational direction B. Bevel gear
C. change rotational motion into linear C. Helical gear
motion D. Worm and worm wheel

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1172

256. To calculate any quantity for belt and pul- C. Pitch circle
ley drive systems, you can use all gear ra- D. Pitch point
tios except:
A. angular velocity (rpm) 262. A gear between the driver and the driven
gears used to change rotational direction is
B. number of teeth called what?
C. diameter (in) A. Idler gear
D. torque (ft lb) B. Rotary motion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
257. Ratio of number of teeth on gear to the C. Oscillating
number of teeth on pinion is known as D. Worm gear
A. Circular pitch
263. When inspecting a spur gear drive sys-
B. Diametral pitch tem, you notice a large degree of under-
C. Module cutting of the teeth. What is most likely
the cause?
D. Gear ratio
A. No lubrication
258. The gears used to connect non-parallel B. Too little backlash
and non-intersecting shafts is
C. Acid in the lubricant
A. Straight bevel gears
D. Debris in the lubricant
B. Spiral bevel gears
264. Which of the following components are
C. Spiral gears
inspected by a Tool maker’s microscope?
D. Double helical gears
A. Gauges
259. What is a Gear Train? B. Screw threads
A. 3 or more mating gear C. Dies & fixtures
B. 4 or more mating gears D. All of given
C. Gears that are all on different axles 265. A belt moving two pulleys will spin in
D. Gears that share the same axle directions.
A. identical
260. Analytical checking of gears includes
checking of B. opposite
A. Tooth profile C. both
B. Vibrations D. neither
C. Noise level 266. What is a gear?
D. All mentioned A. The ratio of the speed of the driving
member of a gear train to that of the
261. Circle which corresponds to section of driven member.
equivalents cylinder by a plane normal to
wheel axis is known as B. The part of a machine which contains
two or more pieces arranged so that the
A. Pitch cylinders motion of one compels the motion of the
B. Pitch diameter others.

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1173

C. The effect or influence of one thing on 271. Gear wheel of infinite diameter is also
another. Some impacts are anticipated, known as
and others are unanticipated.

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A. Pitch line
D. A toothed wheel that works with oth- B. Rack
ers to alter the relation between the
C. Pinion
speed of an engine and the speed of the
driven parts. D. Line of centre
272. There are basic methods used to lu-
267. Module of two mating gears must be
bricate a gear drive system. Pg 367
A. Same
A. 2
B. Different B. 5
C. Small C. 3
D. None D. 4

268. Once an object begins to move, op- 273. What is a Driver Gear?
poses the object’s motion. The push nec- A. The gear that the forces is applied to
essary to keep it moving is less than the
B. The gear that provides the most resis-
push needed to set the object in motion.
tance
A. kinetic friction C. The gear that is the largest
B. static friction D. The gear that is the smallest
C. normal friction
274. gears come in pairs that mate to-
D. magnetic friction gether to transfer power between perpen-
dicular shafts that have axes of rotation
269. For a roller follower the trace point is at offset from one another. These gears re-
semble screws; as they spin they turn their
A. At the center point of cam mating wheel.

B. At the can Axis A. Spur gears

B. Bevel Gears
C. At the roller diameter
C. Crown Gears
D. At the center point of roller
D. Worm gears
270. Transfers motion between two shafts
275. A 17-tooth spur pinion has a diame-
running parallel to each other. They are
tral pitch of 8 teeth/in, runs at 1120
characterized by their teeth, which are
rev/min, and drives a gearat a speed of
straight and parallel to the gears axis of
544 rev/min. Find the number of teeth
rotation. This type of gears are very cheap
on the gear and the theoretical center-to-
to produce.
centerdistance.
A. Spur Gear A. NG = 53 teeth; C = 3 in
B. Worm Gear B. NG = 36 teeth; C = 3.5 in
C. Bevel Gear C. NG = 35 teeth; C = 3.25 in
D. Crown Gear D. none of above

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1174

276. What type of gear has slanted teeth 281. Which of the mechanisms that you have
and turn vertical movement into horizon- modeled in class can be used to increase
tal movement? torque and decrease speed?
A. Bevel A. Worm & Wheel
B. Spur B. Rack & Pinion
C. Rack and Pinion Gear C. Lead Screw
D. Helical D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
277. The number of teeth there are per inch of 282. gears change direction of?
circumference of the pitch circle
A. direction
A. pitch
B. speed
B. pitch circle
C. rotation
C. tooth clearance
D. size
D. pressure angle
283. Which is true of a 1:3 ratio?
278. A larger wheel of radius 40cm has a mo-
A. a large gear must turn 3 times to make
ment of 160Nm and is being driven by a
a small gear turn 1 time
smaller wheel of 20cm radius. What is the
moment about the smaller wheel? B. a small gear has to turn 4 times to
make the large gear turn 1 time
A. 20 Nm
C. a large gear has to turn 4 times to
B. 40 Nm
make the small gear turn 1 time
C. 80 Nm
D. a small gear has to turn 3 times to
D. 10 Nm make the large gear turn 1 time

279. Gear tooth vernier is used to measure 284. With a gear, the teeth meet on a flat
surface. This gear can change the and
A. Gear tooth profile
of motion.
B. Module
A. idler-force-load
C. Pitch line thickness of gear tooth
B. crown-speed-direction
D. Addendum and Dedendum
C. bevel-speed-direction
280. Assuming “headcount” is a variable of D. Spur-speed-direction
type unsigned char, and its current value
is 175, what is the most you can add to it 285. What is the name for any objects that you
before it starts to wrap? lift with a pulley?
A. 80 A. Load
B. 81 B. Input
C. 79 C. Output
D. 63, 360 D. Chain

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1175

286. A gear ratio is defined as which of the 291. When you have a system with a drive
following? gear that is LARGER than the driven gear
you will increase Speed and decrease

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A. Teeth of gear:teeth of gear
A. speed
B. gear shape:gear shape
B. ratio
C. Speed:torque
C. Momentum
D. none of above
D. Torque
287. The immersion method is known as the
292. Movement along an arched path; back
method of gear lubrication
and forth
A. Measuring
A. rotary
B. Bath B. oscillating
C. Application C. reciprocating
D. Best D. linear

288. You have a bin full of good tires (”tires”), 293. what is a tooth wheel called?
and you need to know how many will be A. force
left over (”leftovers”) after you take out
all the full sets of 4. The code would look B. gear
like: C. size
A. leftovers = tires % 4 D. all of the above
B. leftovers=tires-(tires/4) 294. The module of gear is given by
C. leftovers=tires/4 A. D/T
D. leftovers = 4 % tires B. 2D/T
C. D/2T
289. A 46 tooth input gear rotates 180 de-
grees. Through what angle does the 36 D. D/3T
tooth output gear rotate?
295. In 2 spur gears in mesh having involute
A. 230 degrees profiles, the line of action is tangential to
B. 140 degrees circle
A. Pitch
C. 8280
B. base
D. 6480
C. addendum
290. The spray lubrication method for gear D. Dedendum
drive systems is generally used in what
type of applications 296. When determining a gear specification by
inspection, because the specification is not
A. Extremely slow, low power
indicated on the gear, your first step is to
B. Moderate to high power and speed determine the of gear. Pg 356
C. Extremely high speed and high heat A. Style
D. None of the answers are correct B. Angle

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1176

C. Type 302. The first step in aligning and installing a

D. Shape spur gear system is
A. Mount gears on the shaft
297. If the wheel of a robot is to roll,
must exist at the point of contact so there B. Inspect gears for wear
can be no slipping between the wheel and C. Mesh the gears
the ground. With at the point of con-
tact, the wheel will roll. prevents the D. Mount and level the motor and driven
component

NARAYAN CHANGDER
wheels from slipping.
A. static friction 303. Check all that apply-Which mechanisms
B. kinetic friction that you have modeled in class can in-
C. normal friction crease torque?

D. rolling friction A. Lead Screw

B. Simple Gear Train with Idler
298. Which of the following DOES NOT use
gears? C. Bevel Gear
A. IPHONE D. Worm & Wheel
B. CAR
304. When speed decreases, what happens to
C. TRAIN the value of torque?
D. CLOCK A. increases
299. What can a gear train do? B. decreases
A. Change output direction C. stays constant
B. Change force D. none of above
C. Change speed
D. All of these 305. What is the gear ratio with a driving gear
with 40 teeth and a driven gear with 8
300. Backlash is sometimes built into the gear teeth? Make sure ratio is reduced to low-
design to aid in , but excessive back- est terms
lash causes play or sloppiness in the mesh- A. 8:40
ing of gears.
B. 1:5
A. lubrication
C. 5:1
B. engagement
C. gear gnashing D. 40:8
D. meshing 306. If using a lawn mower, which kind of
gear would be used?
301. A transmission shaft is subjected to
A. Bending Moment A. belt drive

B. Twisting Moment B. chain drive

C. Both bending and Twisting Moment C. simple gear train
D. Bending moment and Axial load D. bevel gear

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1177

307. Which of the following is a gear head mo- 312. These gears are angled, like a cone; with
tor? teeth cut into the conical faces. They
are specifically designed to transfer power

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A. modified hobby servo
from one axle to another, often perpendic-
B. brushless DC motor ular to each other. The teeth sit on a 45
C. 60 cycle AC motor degree tilt, making the gear conical.
A. bevel
D. permanent magnet DC motor
B. spur
308. Mechanisms can change direction, speed, C. helical
and force or torque. They can also change
D. worm
the type of movement. The type of move-
ment that moves in a circular motion is 313. If there are more than one gear on a sin-
called what? gle shaft, the gear train is called as
A. Rotary motion A. Simple gear train
B. Reciprocating motion B. Compound gear train
C. Oscillating motion C. Reverted gear train
D. Epicyclic gear train
D. Linear motion
314. A wheel on an axel designed to support
309. A “syntax” error is when: movement
A. A program error prevents compilation A. pulley
B. You forget to connect your computer B. gear
C. Your battery is completely discharged C. torque
D. Your program will cause the robot to D. none of above
malfunction 315. Mechanisms can change direction, speed,
and force or torque. They can also change
310. An extreme load suddenly applied to a
the type of movement. A back and forth
gear drive system can cause what type of
movement is called what?
gear failure.
A. rotary movement
A. Tooth breakage
B. reciprocating movement
B. Tooth ripple
C. oscillating movement
C. Tooth Scratching D. linear movement
D. Abrasive wear
316. To INCREASE speed of rotation, you can
311. Which type of tooth profile has double
curvature? A. add more gears
A. cycloidal tooth profile B. change from a LARGE gear to a SMALL
gear
B. involute tooth profile
C. turn the handle less times
C. Both 1 & 2
D. change from a SMALL gear to a LARGE
D. None mentioned gear

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1178

317. The gear train in which first and last gear 323. Which of these is not a simple machine.
are coaxial is called
A. wedge
A. Epicyclic gear train
B. pulley
B. Compound gear train
C. Reverted gear train C. inclined plane

D. Simple gear train D. spring

318. Movement in a circular motion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
324. Which of the following pressure angle in
A. Rotary degree is commonly used for gears-
B. Oscillating A. 15
C. Linear B. 20
D. Reciprocating
C. 25
319. Two different pitch circles generally meet
D. 30
at
A. Pitch cylinders 325. If the driver gear has 160 teeth and the
B. Pitch diameter driven gear has 40 teeth, what is the me-
chanical advantage?
C. Pitch circle
D. Pitch point A. 4

320. Excessive distance between the tooth on B. 40

one gear and the tooth space or gap on the C. .25
mating gear.
D. 200
A. backlash
B. meshing 326. The radial distance of a tooth from the
C. lubrication pitch circle to the top of the teeth-
D. gear gnashing A. Addendum
321. Simplify the ratio of35:14 B. Dedundum
A. 5:2 C. Back lash
B. 2:5 D. None of these
C. 3:1
D. 35:14 327. Making a change is one of the easi-
est ways to change mechanical advantage
322. How many teeth does a spur gear have in a mechanism or system to achieve the
that has a diametral pitch of 16 and a pitch desired speed and/or torque.
diameter of 2
A. gear teeth
A. 32
B. Gear Ratio
B. 8
C. 16 C. drastic
D. 64 D. position

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1179

328. gears look like screw. The teeth on B. Tool maker’s microscope is used to
the screw mesh together with the teeth of measure tooth thickness
a regular gear.

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C. Teeth having wider flanks have less
A. worm-spur strength
B. worm-bevel D. All the above statements are true
C. crown-pinion
334. The kinetic friction of one object sliding
D. bevel-spur along a surface depends LEAST upon:
329. friction is a smaller force than static A. the area of contact
friction B. the coefficient of kinetic friction
A. kinetic C. the Normal force
B. normal
D. surface roughness
C. magnetic
335. In Mechanics, is used as a measure-
D. traction
ment of inertia
330. A “signed” variable type is one that A. Mass
A. can hold either positive or negative B. Normal force
number values
C. Coefficient of static friction
B. is protected with a signature (or pass-
word) D. Coefficient of kinetic friction
C. can only hold positive values 336. when materials deform or flatten
D. is primarily used for sign and not mag- when pressed against a surface.
nitude values A. deformation
331. Maximum angular velocity is also called B. friction
A. free spin C. gnashing
B. spin rate D. meshing
C. rotational velocity
337. The standard Value of addendum is
D. axis of rotation
A. 2 module
332. The input gear has 6 teeth.The output B. 1.157 module
gear has 48 teeth. The gear ratio is
C. 1 module
A. 1:8
D. 3 module
B. 8:1
C. 6:4 338. Movement in one direction along a
straight line
D. none of above
A. singular
333. Which of the following statements is/are
B. Linear
true?
A. Parkinson’s gear tester is used to mea- C. reciprocating
sure variation in centre distance D. none of above

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1180

339. Acceleration can only be achieved if the 344. An if-else statement is used when:
forces or forces causing it exceed the ef- A. You need to do one thing or the other,
fects of but not both.
A. Friction B. You need to do one thing, the other, or
B. Speed neither

C. Normal Force C. You need to do both things, or neither

D. You need to do one thing or both things
D. Traction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
345. is the force that prevents an object
340. The pressure angle of a flat footed fol- from moving in response to a push or a
lower in contact with a circular arc cam is pull.
A. 5o A. static friction
B. 3o B. kinetic friction
C. 0o C. normal friction
D. -1o D. moving friction

346. The point of contact of two pitch circle of

341. A gear drive has a 12-tooth driver gear
mating gears is called-
and an 18-tooth driven gear. If the driver
gear is rotating at 720 rpm the rotational A. Pressure point
speed of the driven gear will be rpm. B. Pitch point
A. 1080 C. Module
B. 680 D. Contact point
C. 480 347. Flanged joints are usually used up to a
D. 280 pressure of
A. 20N/mm2
342. A motor works because of thousands of
B. 2N/mm2
wire loops called
C. 5N/mm2
A. windings
D. 3N/mm2
B. magnets
348. the train value of a gear train is
C. poles
A. Equal to velocity ratio
D. armatures
B. Reciprocal of velocity ratio
343. Why are there two pulleys in a clothes- C. Always greater than unity
line?
D. Always equal to unity
A. So it can move the clothes from one
side to another 349. With rack and pinion gears, a single gear,
called the , meets with a toothed rack.
B. So it can move the clothes down The may slide or stay in one place.
C. So we can hang up the clothes A. rack-pinion
D. none of above B. pinion-rack

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8.6 Toothed Gearing 1181

C. gaps-holes 355. A gear wheel with teeth cut in such a way

D. spur-bevel that two wheels working together have
shafts at an angle to each other.

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350. The relationship between the numbers
A. Simple Gear Train
of teeth on two meshing gears used to
transmit motion. It reflects the change in B. Simple Gear Train with Idler
mechanical advantage resulting from the
C. Bevel Gear
gears.
D. Chain Drive
A. Gear pitch
B. Tooth decay 356. A simple gear train is composed of three
C. Gear ratio gears. Gear A is the driver gear and has
16 teeth, B has 24 teeth, and C has 8 teeth.
D. aspect pitch
If C is the output, what is the gear ratio?
351. Inadequate is the most common cause A. 0.33
of gear failure.
B. 0.5
A. Space
B. Loading C. 1.5
C. Maintenance D. 2
D. Lubrication 357. A mechanical arrangement consisting of a
352. True or false; both speed and torque can toothed wheel driven by a short revolving
increase at the same time. cylinder bearing a screw thread.
A. true A. Worm & Wheel
B. false B. Lead Screw
C. not enough information C. Simple Gear Train
D. none of above D. Chain Drive
353. What is the gear ratio with a driving gear
with 40 teeth and a driven gear with 8 358. What is a compound gear?
teeth? A. a gear train
A. 5 B. stacked gears
B. 1/5 C. a round gear
C. 5/8
D. a gear system
D. 8/5
359. Throw of a cam is the maximum distance
354. What Symbol is used to describe Angular
of the follower from
Velocity?
A. Base Circle
A. Lower Case Greek Tau
B. Lower Case Greek Omega B. Pitch Circle
C. Lower Case Greek Psi C. Root Circle
D. Lower Case Greek Epsilon D. Prime Circle

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 8.7 Gear Trains 1182

8.7 Gear Trains

1. Input output relationship is meshed with gear D, the output gear.
A. parallel Power is supplied at gear A with 200 ft.
lb of torque and is traveling at 400 rpm.
B. perpendicular The necessary torque output for the sys-
C. neither tem is 1600 ft. lb. What should the gear
ratio of the system be?
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 8:1
2. What is the gear ratio in simplest form
B. 4:1
A. 1:1
C. 2:1
B. 12:12
D. 1:8
C. 2:1
5. input/ output motion
D. 1:2
A. rotary
3. A simple gear train is composed of three B. linear
gears. Gear A is the driver and has 84
teeth, bear B has 60 teeth, and gear c has C. oscillating
42 teeth. If the output at gear C is 1200 D. reciprocating
ft. lb, what is the input torque at gear A?
6. A simple gear train is composed of three
A. 600 ft lb
gears. Gear A is the driver and has 84
B. 1200 ft lb teeth, bear B has 60 teeth, and gear c has
C. 1800 ft lb 42 teeth. If gear C rotates at 60 rpm, how
fast is gear A rotating?
D. 2400 ft lb
A. 120 rpm
4. A compound gear train is composed of four B. 90 rpm
gears:A, B, C, and D. Gear A has 120 teeth.
Gear B has 12 teeth and shares a shaft C. 60 rpm
with gear C, which has 24 teeth. Gear C D. 30 rpm

8.8 Static and Dynamic Force Analysis

1. Study the following statements. i) The dis- more useful when degree of static indeter-
placement method is more useful when de- minacy is less than the degree of kinematic
gree of kinematic indeterminacy is greater indeterminacy. The correct answer is
than the degree of static indeterminacy. ii) A. (i) and (iii)
The displacement method is more useful
when degree of kinematic indeterminacy B. (ii) and (iii)
is less than the degree of static indetermi- C. (i) and (iv)
nacy. iii) The force method is more use- D. (ii) and (iv)
ful when degree of static indeterminacy
is greater than the degree of kinematic 2. For a prismatic beam of length L and mo-
indeterminacy. iv) The force method is ment of inertia I, the stiffness factor is

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8.8 Static and Dynamic Force Analysis 1183

A. EI/L 8. if the far end is hinged/pinned carry over

factor is
B. 2EI/L

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A. 0
C. 3EI/L
B. 1
D. 4EI/L
C. 1/2
3. displacement method is adopted when D. 2
A. Dk<Ds
9. The unit load method used in structural
B. Dk>Ds analysis is?
C. Dk=Ds A. applicable only in indeterminate struc-
D. 1 ture
B. another name of stiffness method
4. Which of the following conditions form the
C. an extension of maxwells reciprocal
basis of displacement method
theorem
A. equilibrium conditions D. derived from castiglianos theorem
B. force-displacement conditions
10. The moment distribution method in struc-
C. load applied tural analysis can be trated as
D. load applied A. force method

5. carry over factor is B. displacement method

C. flexibility method
A. carry over moment /applied moment
D. unit load method
B. applied moment/carry over moment
C. carry over moment x applied moment 11. Which of the following structural loads are
not applied commonly to a building?
D. none of above
A. Live load
6. if the free end of a cantilver of span L and B. Dead load
flexuaral regidty EI undergoes a uit dis-
C. Environmental load
placement (without rotation), what is the
bending moment induced at the fre end? D. Rain load
A. 3EI/L2 12. force method is known as
B. 4EI/L2 A. flexibilty method
C. 5EI/L2 B. compatability method
D. 6EI/L2 C. equilibrium method
D. stiffness method
7. Ui is not developed when?
13. Multiple displacement methods are used in
A. Structure elongates
structural analysis.which of the following
B. Structure deforms is not one of these
C. Structure bends A. equilibrium method
D. External force is zero B. method of consistent deformation

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8.8 Static and Dynamic Force Analysis 1184

C. moment distribution method B. x

D. stiffness method C. 0.001x

14. A steel frame consist of members OA, OB, D. 0.01x

OC & OD all having same length L and 19. The square root of the ratio of the inertia
same flexural stiffness EI. if the joint O force of the folowing fluid to the surface
of the frame is rigid and end A and C are tension force is called
fixed B is hinnged and D is free, then ro-
A. Weber number

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tational stiffness of the frame at poin O is
given by B. Reynolds number
A. 6EI/L C. Euler number
B. 8EI/L D. Mach number
C. 10EI/L 20. Which of the following is statically deter-
D. 11EI/L minate structure?
A. Continuous beam
15. The reciprocal theorem of maxwell valid
for structure B. Fixed beam
A. that are elastic C. Two hinged arch
B. having linear force displacement rela- D. Double overhanging
tion
21. If a moment is applied to the hinged end of
C. that are plastic prismatic proped cantilever, then the mo-
D. irrespective of their type ment fixed end will be
A. M
16. Which of the following is not the displace-
ment method B. M/2
A. Equilibrium method C. M/3
B. Column analogy method D. M/4
C. Moment distribution method 22. A fixed beam having a moment of inertia I
D. Kani’s method in mm4 and span 3m settlles 1.5cm at the
one ofthe support .the modulus of elastic-
17. Which of the following methods of struc- ity for the beam is 2.0 x 105 N/mm2 .the
tural analysis is a displacement method BM in N-mm produced due to the settle-
A. moment distribution method ment of support will be
B. column analogy method A. 4I/3
C. three moment equation B. I
D. none of the above C. 2I
D. 3I/4
18. What will be the static lateral force at
10th level of a structure if total gravity 23. What will be Vmax in the above question
load is x and portion assigned to the 10th if the hospital is made up of structural
level is 10%? steel frames?
A. 0.1x A. 0.01813gw

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8.8 Static and Dynamic Force Analysis 1185

B. 0.02813gw 29. Why is base plate provided in short roof

C. 0.04813gw trusses?

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A. For rigidity
D. 0.03813gw
B. For stability
24. Slope integration method is
C. To transmit load effectively
A. equilibrium method
D. As provision for temperature related
B. displacement method expansion/contraction
C. Stiffness method 30. When a structural member of the uniform
D. all of the above section is subjected to a moment at one
end only, then the moment required so as
25. Which of the following similarity parame- to rotate that end to produce a unit slope,
ters are used where the phenomenon of is called
cavitation is likely to occur?
A. Capacity of member
A. Euler’s Law
B. Potential of member
B. Mach Law C. Stiffness of member
C. Weber’s Law D. Resistance of member
D. Froude’s Law
31. Who of the following initially developed
26. Which of the following is carried by truss force method
members? A. Muller
A. flexural load B. Breslau
B. axial load C. Mohr
C. bending load D. James clerk Maxwell
D. shear load 32. A model of a hydraulic turbine is tested at
a head of 1/4th of that under which the
27. if the shear force at a section of a beam
full scale turbine works. The diameter of
under bending moment at that section is?
the model is half of that of the full scale
A. zero turbine. If N is the RPM of the full scale
B. maximum turbine, then the RPM of the model will be
C. minimum A. N/2
D. max/min B. N
C. N/4
28. The moment k required tp rotate the near
end of a prismati beam through unit an- D. 2N
gle without translation, the far end being 33. If a structure has 2j-r no. of members,
fixed is given by then it will be:-
A. EI/L A. unstable
B. 2EI/L B. depends upon structure
C. 8EI/L C. depends upon magnitude of load
D. 4EI/L D. stable

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8.8 Static and Dynamic Force Analysis 1186

34. Force-displacement requirement of stat- 39. ratio of moment shared by member to ap-
ically indeterminate structures depend plied moment at the joint
upon which factor A. distribution factor
A. material’s response B. carry over factor
B. magnitude of load applied C. carry over moment
C. supports D. rotation factor

D. position of load applied 40. force method is adopted when

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Dk=Ds
35. For a homologous model of a pump built to
B. Dk>Ds
a scale ratio of 1:2, fluid and speed being
the same in model and prototype, the ratio C. Ds>Dk
of model power to prototype power is D. 0
A. 1/32 41. Which of the following conditions is used
B. 1/8 in both force and displacement method in
any stage
C. 1/4
A. equilibrium conditions
D. 1/2.82
B. force-displacement conditions
36. what is the carry over factor if far end is C. load applied
fixed D. compatibility conditions
A. 1/2 42. Which type of structure would cost less in
B. 2 terms of materials?

C. 1 A. Both will cost equally

B. Statically indeterminate
D. 0
C. Depends upon loading
37. Stiffness coefficients are used in which of D. Statically determinate
the following method
43. For a linear elastic structural system, min-
A. force method imization of potential energy yield?
B. displacement method A. Compactibility condition
C. both force and displacement method B. constitution relation
D. virtual force method C. Equilibrium relation
D. strain displacement relation
38. Due to some point load anywhere on a
fixed beam the maximum free BM is M. 44. In moment distribution method the sum
The sum of fixed end moments is? of distribution factors of all the members
meeting at any point is always
A. 2M
A. 0
B. M/2 B. 1
C. M C. less than 1
D. 3M D. greater than 1

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 8.9 Flywheels 1187

45. Mohr theorem are used to obtain the slope A. Compactibility deformation
and defletion of bram by
B. Equilibrium of forces
A. double integration method

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C. Both A & B
B. conjugate beam method
C. moment area method D. Over all safety

D. macaulys method 48. which one of the following is correct?

46. Flexibility coefficients are used in which of A. in slope deflection method(SD), forces
the following method are taken into unknowns
A. force method
B. in S-D method, the joint rotations are
B. displacement method taken as unknown
C. both force and displacement method C. S-D method is not appplicable for the
D. virtual force method beams having settlemnent of supports
47. Force method in structural analysis always D. S-D method is also known as force
ensures method of analysis

8.9 Flywheels
1. Flywheel Model consists of three stages, 4. The energy which is stored in a flywheel
except? used in machines is in the form of
A. Attract (Interesting) A. Potential Energy
B. Engage (tying) B. Kinetic Energy
C. Delight (happy) C. Magnetic Energy
D. Attention (Attention) D. Electrical Energy
2. [FLYWEEHL]-Flywheels are typically made 5. Happy target market does not have to
of steel and rotate on conventional bear- closer sales first.Can we make it happy
ings with?
A. TRUE
A. edutainment content
B. FALSE
B. intense attention
C. Can be true or false
C. true all
D. Can not say
D. none of above
3. [FLYWEEHL]-Flywheels are often used to
provide power output in systems 6. Before finishing a Grow session, every-
where the energy source is thing must have been defined in:
A. continuous, continuous A. An action plan with a defined time.
B. not continuous, not continuous B. A commitment letter.
C. continuous, not continuous C. A progress notebook.
D. not continuous, continuous D. none of above

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8.9 Flywheels 1188

7. Here is a force that can accelerate flywheel 11. What is a flywheel?

turnover, except? A. Strategies require the role of con-
A. interest sumers and potential customers.Namely,
B. satisfy consumers by encouraging them to tell people around
them about certain products or services.
C. Make it successful, consumer goals
are achieved B. Strategies carried out on the process
of selling step by step in a business that is
D. provide all consumer demand
run.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
8. Minimze Friction is? C. Marketing strategy models that focus
A. Efforts made by the company to elim- on experience, satisfaction, and customer
inate or minimize the obstacles / distur- happiness.
bances that cause the slow rotation of the
D. Marketing strategies that focus on cre-
flywheel
ating and distributing content that is valu-
B. obstacles that must be faced by the able, relevant, and consistent to attract
company to enter a particular condi- consumers.
tion/market
C. Efforts made by the company to accel- 12. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of
erate the flywheel round, increasing the speed to the mean speed with in a cycle is
strength of the flywheel termed as

D. none of above A. ratio of fluctuation of speed

B. maximum fluctuation speed ratio
9. [GYROSCOPIC]-What is the effect of reac-
tive gyroscopic couple when an aeroplane C. coefficient of fluctuation of speed
takes a right turn and propeller rotates in D. coefficient of fluctuation of energy
anticlockwise direction?
A. The nose and tail of the aeroplane are 13. It is the Flywheel phase in which we gen-
in horizontal plane erate value conversations with customers
through the different channels:
B. The nose of the aeroplane is dipped
and tail is raised A. Delight
C. The nose of the aeroplane is raised B. Attract
and tail is dipped C. Interact
D. None of the above
D. none of above
10. [FLYWEEHL]-What is the coefficient of fluc-
tuation of speed? 14. Why is it important to place the client in
the center?
A. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation
of energy to the mean speed A. If customers are happy with your
brand and your product, they will become
B. The ratio of the minimum fluctuation of
brand ambassadors.
energy to the mean speed
B. It is important to make the client feel
C. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation
very important.
of speed to the mean speed
D. The ratio of the work done per cycle to C. Increase the conversion rate.
the mean speed D. none of above

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8.9 Flywheels 1189

15. [GYROSCOPIC]-The engine of an aero- A. Listen to the client and understand

plane rotates in clockwise direction when their needs.
seen from the tail end and the aeroplane

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B. It focuses on eliminating interference
takes a turn to the left. The effect of gy- seeking to increase cycle speed.
roscopic couple on the aeroplane will be
C. Create a direct relationship between
A. to dip the nose and tail
the FC and the client.
B. to raise the nose and tail
D. none of above
C. to raise the nose and dip of the tail
20. [FLYWEEHL]-The flywheel stores the po-
D. to dip the nose and raise the tail
tential energy.
16. [GYROSCOPIC]-The rotor of a ship rotates A. TRUE
in clockwise direction when viewed from
stern and the ship takes a left turn. The B. FALSE
effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will C. Can be true or false
be D. Can not say
A. to raise the bow and stern
21. Grow’s acronym refers to 4 stages which
B. to raise the bow and lower the stern
are:
C. to lower the bow and stern
A. Objective, reality, options and will.
D. to raise the stern and lower the bow
B. Preparation, personalized meetings,
17. [FLYWEEHL]-Which of the following is guide questions and individual needs.
uses of a flywheel? C. Feedback, objective, reality and spe-
A. Smoothing the power output of an en- cific knowledge.
ergy source D. none of above
B. Energy storage systems
22. [GYROSCOPIC]-The axis of precession is
C. Controlling the orientation of a me- to the plane in which the axis of spin
chanical system is going to rotate.
D. All of the above A. Parallel
18. What is the main objective of the Grow B. Spiral
model? C. Perpendicular
A. Achieve group goals.
D. none of the mentioned
B. Open new communication channels
with my team. 23. Each letter of the word Grow refers to a
stage of the session. What is the objective
C. That the team member manages to
of the letter R?
identify what he wants to achieve and the
frictions that prevent him from achieving A. Define what the current situation is.
it. B. Find the best options to achieve each
D. none of above objective.

19. What is the objective of the free sales C. Generate an action plan.
model? D. none of above

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8.9 Flywheels 1190

24. [FLYWEEHL]-The ratio of the work done C. Customers who voluntarily promote
per cycle to the mean speed company products/services to other
prospective customers
A. Rolling
D. Attention given by prospective cus-
B. Pitching
tomers to the company
C. Steering
28. What can we be able to ask consumers
D. All when consumers are satisfied?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. What is the Grow model? A. convey his satisfaction to us to his so-
cial network
A. A group of group sessions with the aim
of feedback to the member of my team. B. ask him to do repeat orders

B. A training model that will allow you C. ask him to give a reference
to carry out individual feedback sessions D. True all
through questions.
29. In the Grow model, what does the stage
C. A model that focuses on convincing the referring to the word options refer to?
person about what is the behavior to have
A. Generate an action plan.
the future.
B. Define what the current situation is.
D. A model based on feedback sessions
by the leader. C. Find the best options to achieve the ob-
jectives.
26. During the Grow session you must define D. none of above
objectives with the member of your work
team, how should you do it? 30. The source of flywheel strength is?
A. Generate questions that allow identify- A. The power of editaiment content (com-
ing the options and objectives at your dis- bined education + entertainment) for tar-
posal. get market
B. Generate questions that become spe- B. Program strength for target market
cific actions. C. True all
C. Generate questions that allow estab- D. none of above
lishing specific and measurable objectives
in a short period of time. 31. [GYROSCOPIC]-Which of the following
statements is/are false for active gyro-
D. none of above scopic couple?
27. What is Wow Service? A. Reactive gyroscopic couple and active
gyroscopic couple are opposite in direc-
A. Customer experience from the begin- tion
ning of interaction knowing the company
until after using/buying the company’s B. In right hand rule, curled fingers de-
products/services note direction of precession

B. The services provided to the target C. In active gyroscopic couple spin vector
market that are above the target market and precession vector are parallel to each
expectations (unimaginable by the target other
market) D. All the statements are false

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 8.10 Governors 1191

32. In what part of the Flywheel is the client? C. Clients and ambassadors
A. On top D. none of above

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B. In the middle 34. In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning mo-
C. At the beginning of the cycle ment during the compression stroke is

D. none of above A. positive throughout

B. negative throughout
33. They are two elements in which we must
C. positive during major portion of the
focus on increasing the speed of Flywheel:
stroke
A. Strength and friction
D. negative during major portion of the
B. Leads and content stroke

8.10 Governors
1. The voltage at the bus can be controlled C. Has joule as its Unit
by the injection of power of the cor-
D. Has Hz as its unit
rect sign.
A. Real. 5. If the mass of the constraint is negligible
B. Reactive. then what is the kinetic energy of the sys-
tem?
C. Complex.
D. Both real and reactive. A. 0
B. Half the value
2. In a Hartnell governor, the compression of
the spring is the lift of the sleeve. C. Double the value
A. equal to D. Infinite
B. less than
6. When a body is subjected to transverse vi-
C. greater than
brations, the stress induced in a body will
D. none of the mentioned be
3. When there is a reduction in amplitude A. shear stress
over every cycle of vibration, then the
body is said to have B. tensile stress

A. free vibration C. compressive stress

B. forced vibration D. none of the mentioned
C. damped vibration
7. Unit of H of a synchronous machine is:
D. none of the mentioned
A. MJ/MW.
4. Which of the following is correct regarding
isolation factor? B. MJ/MVA..

A. Dimensionless quantity C. MJ/s.

B. Has Newton as its unit D. MW-s

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8.10 Governors 1192

8. Coefficient of fluctuation of energy is ratio 13. Unit of Regulation(R) is

of A. Hz/MVAr.
A. Mean fluctuation energy to work done B. Hz/MVA.
per cycle
C. Hz/MW.
B. Maximum fluctuation energy to work
done per cycle D. Hz-s.
C. Minimum fluctuation energy to work 14. The function of a pilot exciter is:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
done per cycle
A. To supply current to the rotor circuit.
D. Mean fluctuation energy to power gen-
B. To maintain constant voltage excita-
erated per cycle
tion for the main exciter.
9. 4 Area under the daily load curve divided C. To supply variable excitation for the
by 24 gives main exciter.
A. average load D. None of these.
B. maximum demand
15. (2 marks)When two identical AC-
C. units generated generating units are operated in parallel
D. load factor on governor control, and one machine has
a 5% governor droop and the other a
10. . The function of an amplidyne is: 10% droop, the machine with the greater
governor droop will
A. To provide the constant excitation to a
synchronous generator. A. Tend to take the greater portion of the
load changes.
B. To provide large currents to the field
winding of a main exciter. B. Share the load equally with the other
machine.
C. To provide supply to the synchronous
machine. C. Tend to take the lesser portion of the
load changes.
D. None of these.
D. None.
11. Which of the following is a spring con-
trolled governor? 16. The disadvantage of a series capacitor is
that it produces voltage across the ca-
A. Hartnell governor
pacitor under short-circuit condition.
B. Hartung governor
A. Low.
C. Wilson-Hartnell governor
B. High.
D. All of the mentioned
C. Very low.
12. Which of the following systems produce a D. Either (a) or (b).
vibration in the foundation?
17. The ratio of the maximum displacement of
A. Unbalanced machine the forced vibration to the deflection due
B. Balanced machine to the static force, is known as
C. Coupled machine A. damping factor
D. Uncoupled machine B. damping coefficient

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8.10 Governors 1193

C. logarithmic decrement 22. In a signal area system, all generators

working remain in synchronism maintain-
D. magnification factor
ing their relative power angles; such a

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18. For a multicylinder engine, the coefficient group of generators is called
of fluctuation of speed would vary with A. Swing group.
B. Synchronous group.
A. Number of cylinders C. Coherent group.
B. Remains unaffected D. None of these
C. Length of connecting rod 23. In balancing of single-cylinder engine, the
D. Input temperature rotating unbalance is
A. completely made zero and so also the
19. What is a load factor? reciprocating unbalance
A. The ratio of average to maximum de- B. completely made zero and the recipro-
mand. cating unbalance is partially reduced
B. The ratio of maximum demand to aver- C. partially reduced and the reciprocat-
age load. ing unbalance is completely made zero
C. The product of maximum demand and D. partially reduced and so also the recip-
average load. rocating unbalance
D. The ratio of average load to the plant 24. (2 marks) . When the excitation increases,
capacity. the current and the power angle
A. Increases, increases.
20. For two governors A and B, the lift of
sleeve of governor A is more than that of B. Decreases, increases.
governor B, for a given fractional change C. Increases, decreases.
in speed. It indicates that
D. Decreases, decreases
A. governor A is more sensitive than gov-
ernor B 25. In steady state forced vibrations, the am-
plitude of vibrations at resonance is
B. governor B is more sensitive than gov- damping coefficient.
ernor A
A. equal to
C. both governors A and B are equally
B. directly proportional to
sensitive
C. inversely proportional to
D. none of the mentioned
D. independent of
21. main control loops in generating stations
26. The factor which affects the critical speed
are:
of a shaft is
A. ALFC. A. diameter of the disc
B. AVR. B. span of the shaft
C. Both (a) and (b). C. eccentricity
D. None of these. D. all of the mentioned

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8.10 Governors 1194

27. ( 2 marks) Disadvantages of shunt capaci- C. Replacement mass

tors are D. Fixing mass
A. Fall of voltage.
33. ( 2 marks) A thermal generating station
B. Reduction in VArs.
has a installed capacity of 15 MW and sup-
C. Reduction in effectiveness. plies a daily load of 10 MW for 12 hours
D. All of these and 5 MW for remaining 12 hours. The
plant capacity factor for this station is
28. The sensitiveness of the governor as

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 1
the speed range decreases.
B. 0.75
A. remains unaffected
B. decreases C. 0.67

C. increases D. 0.5

D. none of the mentioned 34. 3 The value of diversity factor is than

1
29. If all the masses are in one plane, then in
which of the following condition is possi- A. equal to
ble? B. lesser
A. Resultant only in horizontal C. more
B. Resultant only in vertical D. greater
C. System remains unbalanced
35. For a 4 cylinder engine, when the pres-
D. No limitation sure inside the cylinders exceeds the at-
30. When the flywheel absorbs energy, its mospheric pressure then.
speed A. Work is done by the gases
A. Remains unaffected B. Work is done on the gases
B. Increases C. Work is done on the piston wall
C. Decreases D. Work is done by the piston wall
D. Goes down to 0
36. The effect of hammer blow in a locomotive
31. In a turning moment diagram, the varia- can be reduced by
tions of energy above and below the mean A. decreasing the speed
resisting torque line is called
B. using two or three pairs of wheels cou-
A. fluctuation of energy
pled together
B. maximum fluctuation of energy
C. balancing whole of the reciprocating
C. coefficient of fluctuation of energy parts
D. none of the mentioned D. decreasing the speed and using two or
three pairs of wheels coupled together
32. The mass used to balance the mass defect
is known as 37. A signal area system is one in which:
A. Balancing mass A. It is not connected to any other sys-
B. Defect mass tem.

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 8.11 Linear Vibration Analysis 1195

B. Total demand on the system should be C. longitudinal vibrations

fully met by its own local Generation. D. none of the mentioned

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C. All generators swing together.
40. Increasing which of the following factor
D. All of these. would result in increase of free torsional
vibration?
38. ( 2 marks) More efficient plants are used
as A. Radius of gyration
A. Base load plant B. Mass moment of inertia
B. Peak load plant C. Polar moment of inertia
C. Both 1 and 2 D. Length
D. Non of the above 41. The heart of the speed governor system,
which controls the change in speed, is
39. The critical speed of a shaft with a disc sup-
ported in between is equal to the natural A. Linkage mechanism.
frequency of the system in B. Fly-ball speed governor.
A. transverse vibrations C. Speed changer.
B. torsional vibrations D. Hydraulic amplifier.

8.11 Linear Vibration Analysis

1. The number of wavelengths that pass a C. frequency
point each per second is: D. none of above
A. frequency
4. The SI unit for frequency is
B. period
A. m
C. longitudinal
D. transverse wave B. m/s
C. hertz
2. When the frequency of a wave increases,
what happens to the wavelength? D. s
A. The wavelength is not directly affected 5. Calculate the centripetal force required to
by the frequency of a wave. make a 5 kg ball move 4 m/s in a circle
B. The wavelength increases. with a radius of 2 m.
C. The wavelength decreases. A. 10 N
D. More specific information is needed to B. 20 N
form a conclusion about the wavelength. C. 30 N
3. A is a repeating disturbance or vibra- D. 40 N
tion that transfers energy from place to
place 6. The highest point on a wave is:
A. Wave A. the crest
B. amplitude B. the trough

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8.11 Linear Vibration Analysis 1196

C. the top C. amplitude

D. the coast D. wavelength
7. In a longitudinal wave, the particles move 13. You are moving a ball in a circle using 72 N
? of centripetal force. What would the force
A. back and forth be if you doubled the radius of the circle.
B. up and down A. 18 N
C. vertically B. 36 N

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. in the direction of the hertz C. 72 N
8. Which of the following can sound travel D. 144 N
through?
14. Calculate the mass of an object if it took
A. solid 20 N to rotate it in a circle with a radius
B. liquid of 2 meters with a velocity of 4 m/s
C. gas A. 4.1 kg
D. all of the above B. 3.6 kg
9. A horse gallops around a circular arena. C. 2.5 kg
The centripetal force on the horse is D. 1.8 kg
A. directed outward
15. A satellite of mass m and speed v orbits
B. tension
the Earth at a distance r from the center of
C. directed toward the center of the the Earth. The gravitational field strength
arena due to the Earth at the satellite is equal to.
D. 9.8 N A. v/r
10. Calculate the velocity of an object moved B. v2/r
around a circle with a radius of 1.65 m and C. mv/r
an acceleration of 3.5 m/s2.
D. mv2/r
A. 2.4 m/s
B. 3.6 m/s 16. In a transverse wave, particles move
C. 3.9 m/s ?

D. 4.2 m/s A. back and forth

B. vertically
11. The lowest point on a wave is the:
C. up and down
A. Amplitude
D. wherever the matter’s going
B. Crest
C. Trough 17. The lowest part of the wave is?
D. Wavelength A. trough
12. crest to crest or trough to trough B. crest
A. crest C. point of origin
B. trough D. compression point

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 PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
9. MACHINE DESIGN

9.1 Basics
1. A mechanical component may fail as a re- 4. Which of the following is measure of stiff-
sult of which of the following ness?
A. elastic deflection A. Modulus of elasticity
B. general yielding B. Modulus of plasticity
C. fracture C. Resilience
D. each of the mentioned D. Toughness

2. The buckling load will be maximum for a 5. An aluminium member is designed based
column, if on
A. one end of the column is clamped and A. yield stress
the other end is free B. elastic limit stress
B. both ends of the column are clamped C. proof stress
C. both ends of the column are hinged D. ultimate stress
D. one end of the column is hinged and
6. Use of multiple notches in a V shaped flat
the other end is free
plate will
3. What might be a reason wireless technol- A. Reduce the stress concentration
ogy was created?
B. Increase the stress concentration
A. Electricity can travel further through C. No effect
the air.
D. None of these
B. Hackers could easily steal personal in-
formation. 7. The maximum principle stress theory is
C. Too many wires could overheat and be proper choice for
dangerous. A. Brittle material
D. Devices were not powerful enough. B. Ductile Material

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9.1 Basics 1198

C. Both a and b 13. The phenomenon of decreased resistance

D. None of these of the materials to fluctuating stresses is
the main characteristic of failure.
8. Brittle material is designed with
A. Fracture
A. Yield strength
B. Fatigue
B. Ultimate strength
C. Yielding
C. Both a and b
D. None of the mentioned

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of these
14. Always turn the hand wheel you,
9. A railway wagon moving with a speed of
Never !
1.5m/s is brought to rest by bumper con-
sisting of two springs. Mass of wagon A. towards, away
is 100kg. The springs are compressed by B. away, towards
125mm. Calculate the maximum force act-
C. right, left
ing on each spring.
A. 1200 N D. near, far

B. 1500 N 15. Hydraulic press working under

C. 1800 N A. Impact loading
D. 2000 N B. Dynamic loading
10. You begin and end every stitch line with C. Static loading
this part. It is responsible for “tying” the D. None of these
knot in your fabric.
A. reverse 16. Failure in rivet occurs by which mode?
B. tension control A. Shear
C. handwheel B. Compression
D. stitch/ pattern selector C. Tensile

11. Failure of a material is called fatigue when D. Each of the mentioned

it fails 17. Stress concentration occurs due to
A. at the elastic limit
A. Blow holes
B. below the elastic limit
B. Keyways and splines
C. at the yield point
C. Machining scratches
D. below the yield point
D. Any one of the above
12. The maximum energy that can be stored
in a body due to external loading upto the 18. Which theory is perfect for design of shaft
elastic limit is called when it mades from brittle materials
A. resilience A. Rankine theory
B. proof resilience B. Guest’s theory
C. strain energy C. Vonmises theory
D. modulus of resilience D. St. Venant’s theory

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9.1 Basics 1199

19. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the de- C. emphasis

sign stress is known as D. rhythm

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A. elastic limit
25. Number 2 on the diagram
B. strain
A. Presser foot
C. factor of safety B. Stitch width
D. bulk modulus C. Bobbin winder
20. The stress concentration factors are deter- D. none of above
mined by
26. A concentric spring consists of 2 springs of
A. Theories of photo-elasticity diameter 10mm and 4mm. The net force
B. Theory of elasticity acting on the composite spring is 5000N.
Find the force acting on each of the two
C. Theory of plasticity
springs.
D. None of these
A. 1232.2N and 3767.8N
21. Find the Wahl’s factor if spring index is 6. B. 786.4N and 4213.6N
A. 1.2020 C. 689.7N and 4310.3N
B. 1.2424 D. 645.3N and 4354.7N
C. 1.2525 27. The driving sprocket has 19 teeth and ro-
D. 1.5252 tates at 1100rpm. The pitch of the chain is
18mm. Calculate the velocity of the chain.
22. The frame structure that holds the rotating
A. 5.6m/s
drum, electric motor and other parts were
analysed by means of? B. 6.3m/s
A. The finite element method C. 5.8m/s
B. The scale model D. 5.1m/s

C. The prototype design 28. how many steps are there to machine
stitching
D. none of above
A. 10
23. The stress which vary from a minimum
B. 20
value to a maximum value of the same na-
ture (i.e. tensile or compressive) is called C. 7
A. repeated stress D. 4

B. yield stress 29. The endurance or fatigue limit is defined as

the maximum value of the stress which a
C. fluctuating stress
polished standard specimen can withstand
D. alternating stress without failure, for infinite number of cy-
cles, when subjected to
24. This principle is achieved when all ele-
ments of design work together to create A. static load
a pleasing visual shape image. B. dynamic load
A. harmony C. static as well as dynamic load
B. proportion D. completely reversed load

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9.1 Basics 1200

30. The wire rope is subjected to 36. Which Washing machine was the first form
of the rotating drum?
A. Tensile Stress
A. The scrub board
B. Bending Stress
B. Riby twin-tub Washing machine
C. Both bending and tensile stress
C. Washing machine with a dolly-style ag-
D. None of the listed itator
31. The neutral axis of a beam is subjected to D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. zero stress 37. Short column and long column are classi-
B. maximum tensile stress fied on the basis of
C. maximum compressive stress A. slenderness ratio

D. maximum shear stress B. diameter

C. length
32. Which are the cyclic stresses
D. none of the listed
A. Repeated stresses
38. where should the fabric go
B. Fluctuating stresses
A. on top of the presser foot
C. Both a and b
B. under the presser foot
D. None of these
C. in your back pocket
33. It is use in making fancy Stitches D. in the trash can
A. Embroidery sewing machine
39. When a machine member is subjected to
B. Hi-speed sewing machine torsion, the torsional shear stress set up
C. over edging sewing machine in the member is
D. button hole sewing machine A. zero at both the centroidal axis and
outer surface of the member
34. Rankines theory is used for B. Maximum at both the centroidal axis
A. Brittle material and outer surface of the member
B. Ductile Material C. zero at the centroidal axis and maxi-
mum at the outer surface of the member
C. Alloy
D. none of the above
D. Steel
40. Which form of energy should be used to
35. Propagation of fatigue failure is always successfully communicate with a colony on
due to compressive stresses. a distant planet?
A. Due to bending A. electricity
B. Due to tensile B. radio waves
C. Due to fatigue C. sound
D. None of the listed D. x-rays

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9.1 Basics 1201

41. A beam subjected to bending moment un- A. directly working with the German in-
dergoes which of the following stresses? ventor Otto Lillienthal

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A. Compressive B. their experience building experimental
B. Tensile aircraft during their childhood
C. Both compressive & tensile C. the research and designs of other
inventors which Orville and Wilbur im-
D. None of the mentioned
proved upon
42. What is the purpose of the Washing ma- D. the formal education in Physics that
chine prototype in this presentation? Orville and Wilbur had both received
A. Introduce a new Washing machine de-
sign 47. Bevel gears impose loads on the
shafts.
B. Advertising Washing machine product
to customers A. Radial and thrust
C. For teaching and learning purposes B. Radial
D. none of above C. Thrust

43. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the D. Neither radial nor thrust
ratio of
48. A bracket is shown welded to a vertical
A. elastic limit to the working stress column by means of two fillet welds. The
B. Young’s modulus to the ultimate ten- bending stress induced in the welds can be
sile strength given by
C. endurance limit to the working stress A. My/I
D. elastic limit to the yield point B. 2My/I

44. Which of the following is the definition of C. My/2I

Compliance? D. None of the listed
A. Inverse of Rigidity
49. Guest’s theory is used for
B. Inverse of Stiffness
A. brittle materials
C. Proportional to elastic Limit
B. ductile materials
D. None of the mentioned
C. elastic materials
45. The resistance to fatigue of a material is
D. plastic materials
measured by
A. elastic limit 50. Yield strength is defined as the maximum
B. Young’s modulus stress at which a marked increase in elon-
gation occurs without increase in
C. ultimate tensile strength
A. Load
D. endurance limit
B. Strength
46. Which of the following helped Orville
C. Toughness
and Wilbur to finally create a successful
plane? D. Hardness

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9.1 Basics 1202

51. Taper on the cotter and slot provided on Some airplanes were steam-powered;
A. One side only others had flapping wings, like birds.”

B. Two side B. “The German inventor Otto Lillienthal,

also known as “The Gilder King, “ was ap-
C. All of these pearing in all the papers, showing off his
D. None of these gliding machine, which he’d built based on
his studies of storks.”
52. Choose the answer that best completes
C. “Though his gliders had no motors, in-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the sentence below many of Orville
and Wilbur’s first airplane models crashed, stead coasting purely on air, they could
they persevered and were eventually suc- keep a pilot hanging in the air under the
cessful. right conditions.”

A. Even though D. “When Lillienthal made headlines

again by plunging to his death in August
B. As a result of 1896 during a gliding accident, inven-
C. Initially tors knew they had to improve upon his
D. Above all designs, or else.”

53. These colors are made by mixing equal 57. Sheet metal joints are made leak proof by
parts of two primary colors A. fullering process
A. Secondary B. blanking process
B. Primary C. piercing process
C. Triad D. None of the above
D. Warm Colors
58. Which of the following isn’t a main part of
54. Cotter joint is used in rivet?
A. Tension A. Head
B. Compression B. Shank
C. Both a and b C. Point
D. None of these D. Thread

55. A rivet is specified as a 20mm rivet. What 59. Which of the following tools is used for
does it mean? trimming scallops, clipping threads, and
cutting large eyelets?
A. None of the mentioned
A. Embroidery scissors
B. Shank dia 20mm
B. Needle thread
C. Head dia 20mm
D. Both head and shank dia 20mm C. Dressmaking scissors
D. Thimble
56. Otto Lillienthal’s gliding airplane design
was not a success. What evidence from 60. Which of the following parameters can be
the text supports this statement? obtained by tension test of a standard
A. “By this time, many people had been specimen?
trying to invent an airplane that worked. A. Proportional Limit

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9.1 Basics 1203

B. Yield Strength 66. If slenderness ratio=45, which mode of

C. Percentage Reduction in area failure will dominate?

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D. All of the mentioned A. Buckling

61. Sunk key fits in the keyway of the only B. Compressive Stresses
A. Sleeve C. Both buckling and compressive stress
B. Hub D. Can’t be stated
C. Both sleeve and hub
67. stainless Steel contains
D. neither sleeve and hub
A. 18% Nickel & 8% Chromium
62. The range of general processing is RA.
B. 18% Chromium & 8% Nickel
A. 12.5-25
B. 3.2-6.3 C. 18% Nickel & 8% Vanadium
C. 0.8-1.6 D. 18% Vanadium & 8% Nickel
D. 0.4
68. How does embroidery hoop is being
63. Number 10 on the diagram used?
A. Needle A. Made of wood, bone, metal or plastic
B. Hand wheel B. Use to make eyelets in the fabric to be
C. Bobbin winder embroidered.
D. none of above C. It is also used to keep the fabric
stretched while embroidery stitches are
64. :An arrangement of elements or details
applied to the design
in a product or work of art
A. Elements D. All of the above
B. Principles
69. Which properties ( characteristics) is not
C. Design required in shaft material.
D. Color Theory A. High fatigue strength
65. Rob and Tyrone built a device to move a B. Good machinability
toy car. It is started by shooting a rubber
band from their fingers. The rubber band C. High shear strength
is often not powerful enough to start the D. Good castability
device. What is one way they could im-
prove the results? Use a rubber band 70. Maximum principal theory is also known
so it can be pulled back further and have as
more energy.
A. Guest Theory
A. smaller
B. tighter B. Rankine Theory

C. thicker C. Both a and b

D. larger D. None of these

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9.1 Basics 1204

71. According to Indian standard specifica- C. Extent of loss of life if failure occurs
tions, a grey cast iron designated by ‘FG D. All of these
200’ means that the
A. carbon content is 2% 76. As per maximum shear stress theory, Ssy
is take times Syt
B. maximum compressive strength is 200
A. 5
N/mm2
B. 0.557
C. minimum tensile strength is 200
C. 0.577

NARAYAN CHANGDER
N/mm2
D. maximum shear strength is 200 D. None of these
N/mm2
77. Stress concentration factor is defined as
72. whats the first step to machine stitching the ratio of
A. raise the take up lever and needle to A. maximum stress to the endurance limit
the highest point B. nominal stress to the endurance limit
B. secure stitching at both ends C. maximum stress to the nominal stress
C. start the machine slowly D. nominal stress to the maximum stress
D. slow down on the last few stitches 78. Tomas wants to install a Bluetooth
73. The residential compressive stress by way speaker in his backyard. This will let him
of surface treatment of a machine member listen to music while playing or working
subjected to fatigue loading outside. What is one question he should
ask before placing the speaker? Do I have
A. improves the fatigue life a converter?
B. deteriorates the fatigue life A. wireless
C. does not affect the fatigue life B. electrical
D. immediately fractures the specimen C. sound
74. Rob and Tyrone built a device to move a D. radio wave
toy car. It is started by shooting a rubber
79. What do you call the material that is use
band from their fingers. The rubber band
to trace designs
is often not powerful enough to start the
device. What is one way they could im- A. Measuring Tape
prove the results? Build a to shoot the B. Gauge
rubber band so it is always at the same
C. Pounce
strength.
D. Tracing paper
A. ramp
B. slope 80. This principle of design covers the relation-
ship between each part. 3/5 is aestheti-
C. device
cally pleasing.
D. car A. texture
75. Selection of factor of safety is based on B. shape
A. Reliability of applied load C. line
B. Extent of localized stresses D. proportion

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9.1 Basics 1205

81. Read the following sentences:“If the C. Both a and b

brothers had kept on building bikes and D. None of these
printing poetry, they might have done

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

very well for themselves, and we might 86. The stress represented by sin (t) + 1 be-
have forgotten them by now. But instead, longs to which category?
they used the proceeds from their busi- A. Fluctuating Stresses
ness ventures to fund further tinkering in B. Alternating stresses
a new kind of interest:flying.” As used in
the passage, what does “ventures” most C. Repeated Stresses
nearly mean? D. Reversed Stresses
A. distractions 87. Knuckle pin is designed for
B. inventions A. Shear
C. designs B. Bending
D. projects C. Crushing
D. Torsion
82. is a vertical member subjected to direct
compressive force. 88. Which of the following is not a part of
Knuckle joint?
A. Strut
A. Spigot
B. Beam
B. Kuckle pin
C. Column
C. fork
D. Post
D. eye
83. Which was the most relevant design re- 89. The Poisson’s ratio for steel varies from
striction related to?
A. 0.21 to 0.25
A. The rotating drum
B. 0.25 to 0.33
B. The frame structures
C. 0.33 to 0.38
C. The prototype design D. 0.38 to 0.45
D. none of above
90. Flexible shafts have rigidity in torsion
84. i) Strain is a fundamental behaviour of a making them flexible.
material.ii) Strain does not have a unit. A. Low
A. Both i and ii are true and ii is the cor- B. High
rect explanation of i C. Very high
B. Both i and ii are true but ii is not the D. Infinitely small
correct explanation of i
91. According to Indian standard specifica-
C. i is true but ii is false tions, a plain carbon steel designated by
D. ii is true but i is false 40C8 means that
A. carbon content is 0.04 per cent and
85. Factor of safety is more in case of
manganese is 0.08 per cent
A. Brittle material B. carbon content is 0.4 per cent and man-
B. Ductile Material ganese is 0.8 per cent

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9.1 Basics 1206

C. carbon content is 0.35 to 0.45 per cent C. Multiple of 3

and manganese is 0.60 to 0.90 per cent D. None of the listed
D. carbon content is 0.60 to 0.80 per cent
and manganese is 0.8 to 1.2 per cent 97. In S-N diagram, the graph plotted between
fatigue strength and number of stress cy-
92. The objective of standardization is cles becomes horizontal for which type of
A. Cost reduction materials?

B. Quality improvement A. Ferrous materials

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Mass production B. Non ferrous materials

D. All of these C. Both a and b

D. None of these
93. Element of design:1st thing you notice
A. balance 98. Flexible shafts have rigidity in bending
moment.
B. proportion
A. High
C. emphasis
B. Low
D. line
C. Very high
94. Read the following sentences:“If the D. Extremely low
brothers had kept on building bikes and
printing poetry, they might have done 99. The property of a material which enables
very well for themselves, and we might it to be drawn into wires with the applica-
have forgotten them by now. But instead, tion of a tensile force, is called
they used the proceeds from their busi- A. plasticity
ness ventures to fund further tinkering in
a new kind of interest:flying. “As used in B. elasticity
the passage, what does “ventures “ most C. ductility
nearly mean? D. malleability
A. distractions
100. Which of the following are true about
B. inventions plasticity?
C. designs A. Permanent Deformation
D. projects B. Ability to retain deformation under
95. what should the stitch length be load or after removal of load

A. 3 to 3.5 mm C. Plastic deformation is greater than

elastic deformation
B. 4 to 4.5 mm
D. All of the mentioned
C. 1 to 1.5 mm
D. 2 to 2.5 mm 101. Find the bending stress in the top weld
is , if thickness of weld is ‘t’. Given
96. The number of links of the chain should be P=15kN and e=120mm, y=50mm and I =
always 250000 t
A. Odd A. 230/t
B. Even B. 360/t

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9.1 Basics 1207

C. 200/t C. needle
D. None of the listed D. none of above

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102. When a material is subjected to fatigue 107. The yield point in static loading is as
loading, the ratio of the endurance limit to compared to fatigue loading
the ultimate tensile strength is A. higher
A. 0.20 B. lower
B. 0.35 C. same
C. 0.50 D. Can’t say
D. 0.65
108. The range of the seal per seal is RA.
103. The following care and maintenance of A. 12.5-25
the sewing machine will extend the life
of the machine, ensure the machine works B. 3.2-6.3
well and is reliable. C. 0.8-1.6
A. Dust, oil, service regularly and cover D. 0.4
when not in use
109. Which is not one the issue statement of
B. Dust and cover when not in use hand-washing?
C. Service regularly A. Time consuming
D. Turn off at the power source and cover B. Labour intensive
when not in use.
C. Better cleaning
104. is lost when electricity travels over D. none of above
long distances.
A. Light 110. The unit of force in S.I. units is?

B. Sound A. Kilogram

C. Information B. Newton

D. Heat C. Watt
D. Dyne
105. If the spring have same solid length and
number of coils in the two springs are 111. what should you do if the thread gets tan-
8 and 10, then find the diameter of the gled
spring with 8 coils. It is given diameter of A. completely remove it
spring with 10 coils is 12mm.
B. keep going
A. 9.6 mm
C. try to untangle it while in machine
B. 9 mm
D. cut it
C. 12 mm
D. 15 mm 112. This element of design gives direction to
the look. Can lengthen or widen areas of
106. What is number one on the diagram the body.
A. spool pin A. Form
B. reverse stitch control B. Line

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9.1 Basics 1208

C. Shape 117. The handicraft of decorating fabric or

other materials with needle and thread.
D. Texture
A. BEADWORK
113. Which factor is used to consider the ef- B. EMBROIDERY
fects of direct shear stress and torsional
C. HANDICRAFT
shear stress when curvature effect stress
is not considered? D. POTTERY

A. Shear stress concentration factor 118. The chain drive is same as gear drive.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Wahl shear stress concentration fac- A. Yes
tor B. No, it is intermediate between belt and
gear drive
C. Both a. and b.
C. It is superior to gear drive
D. None of the above
D. It is inferior to gear drive
114. At the neutral axis of a beam 119. Bucking of column means
A. the layers are subjected to maximum A. Lateral deflection
bending stress B. Axial deflection
B. the layers are subjected to tension C. Torsional deflection
C. the layers are subjected to compres- D. None of the listed
sion
120. In static loading, stress concentration is
D. the layers do not undergo any strain more serious in
A. brittle materials
115. What element do we need during the
Evaluation stage? B. ductile materials
C. brittle as well as ductile materials
A. Need recognition
D. elastic materials
B. Problem definition
121. What is this passage mostly about?
C. Thorough analysis
A. the creation of the first motorized air-
D. none of above plane

116. Rob and Tyrone built a device to move a B. the Wright Brothers’ bicycle business
toy car. It is started by shooting a rubber C. Otto Lillienthal’s gliders
band from their fingers. The rubber band D. the first transcontinental flight
is often not powerful enough to start the
device. What is one way they could im- 122. If compressive yield stress and tensile
prove the results? Create a different way yield stress are equivalent, then region of
to the machine. safety from maximum principal stress the-
ory is of which shape?
A. start
A. Rectangle
B. end B. Square
C. open C. Circle
D. close D. Ellipse

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 9.2 Design Against Static Load 1209

123. The scope of the rough processing surface D. none of above

is RA.
127. If the effective length of a column is twice

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A. 12.5-25
the actual length, then the column is
B. 3.2-6.3
A. fixed at both the ends
C. 0.8-1.6
B. hinged at both the ends
D. 0.4
C. fixed at one end and free at the other
124. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is end
more serious in D. fixed at one end and hinged at the
A. brittle materials other end
B. ductile materials 128. The causes of stress concentration is
C. brittle as well as ductile materials A. Variations in cross section
D. elastic materials
B. Variations in load
125. Find the shear stress in the spring wire C. Variations in factor of safety
used to design a helical compression spring
D. None of these
if a load of 1200N is applied on the spring.
Spring index is 6, and wire diameter 7mm. 129. Columns with what slenderness ratio are
A. 452.2N/mm2 not designed with respect to buckling but
are designed for compressive stresses.
B. 468.6 N/mm2
C. 512.2 N/mm2 A. >1

D. None of the listed B. <1

C. >30
126. Why is conceptualization important?
D. <30
A. People need to always measure the
same variable, even if it is for a different 130. Cotter joint is used to connect two rods
study
A. Co-axial
B. People should figure out what kind of
B. Parallel
goals make workers better
C. People might have two different ideas C. Perpendicular
about what a cencept is D. None of these

9.2 Design Against Static Load

1. What type of force is shear? A. True
A. Twisting B. Sometimes
B. Pulling C. False
C. Ripping D. Never
D. Pushing
3. In hot dry climates, homes are tradition-
2. Any object with mass has gravity. ally constructed of

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9.2 Design Against Static Load 1210

A. sun-baked brick, clay or mud 9. connects bone to bone.

B. bamboo A. ligaments
C. long grasses woven together B. tendons
C. muscles
D. long poles and canvas covers
D. cartilage
4. Which type of bridge is held up by pillars
10. Why are triangles so strong?
or columns?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The angles are very flexible and move
A. suspension quite easily.
B. arch B. They are very hard to change from
C. beam their normal shape because each angle is
fixed in place by the side opposite to it.
D. none of above
C. They are very hard to change from
5. A person weighs on the moon than their normal shape because each angle is
they do on Earth. fixed in place by the sides closest to it.
D. Triangles require more materials.
A. less
B. more 11. The weight of a structure and the non-
moving load is supports is called
C. the same
A. a dynamic load
D. none of above B. a mass load
6. Glue is an example of a C. a static load
D. a load weight
A. friction joint
B. bonding joint 12. An example of a fixed joint is
A. a door hinge
C. movable joint
B. an elbow
D. none of above
C. a staple
7. Convert 5.683g to kg D. a knee cap
A. 0.05683 kg 13. What do you add to make a rectangle
B. 0.005683 kg stronger?
A. nothing
C. 568.3 kg
B. starts
D. 5683 kg
C. gumdrops
8. What is one way you might increase the D. triangles!
stability of an object?
14. What is a static load?
A. Lower the center of gravity
A. A load that causes static electricity
B. Raise the center of gravity B. A moving load
C. Increase the height of the object C. A non-moving load
D. Shorten the base of the object D. none of above

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9.2 Design Against Static Load 1211

15. What is an internal force? C. With two feet on the ground, your
A. A force that acts outside a structure mass is distributed over more area

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B. an x-ray force D. With two feet on the ground, your cen-
ter of gravity is closer to the ground
C. A force that acts from within the struc-
ture 21. An external force that moves or changes
D. none of above with time is known as
A. a static load
16. Under which soil conditions would the use
of pilings not be needed? B. a gravitational load

A. sand C. structural variance

B. gravel D. a dynamic load

C. bedrock 22. Where the center of gravity of a circle
D. waterlogged soil lies?
A. At its centre
17. An example of a bonding joint is
B. Anywhere on its radius
A. staples
C. Anywhere on its circumference
B. thumb tacks
D. Anywhere on its diameter
C. welding
D. nails 23. The weight of a couch on Earth is 150 N,
what is it’s mass on Earth?
18. Bending is a combination of:
A. 0.15 kg
A. Tension and Compression
B. 1.5 kg
B. Tension and Torsion
C. 15 kg
C. Compression and Torsion
D. 150 kg
D. Shearing and Tension
24. Structural safety is affected by environ-
19. Which type of bridge uses cables or ropes mental factors such as
to hold it up?
A. soil stability, material failure, over-
A. suspension crowding
B. arch B. climate, building components, terrain
C. beam C. earthquakes, hurricanes, tornados
D. none of above D. terrain, climatic conditions, earth-
quake risk
20. Why are you more likely to fall over if you
stand with only one foot on the ground 25. An example of a movable joint is a
rather than with two feet on the ground?
A. screw
A. With only one foot on the ground, your
alignment is off B. nail

B. With only one foot on the ground, your C. glue

leg lacks tensile strength D. pin joint

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9.2 Design Against Static Load 1212

26. Compression is a force that B. a force that makes a straight material

A. squeezes material together become curved
C. a pulling force that stretches a mate-
B. twists materials
rial
C. pulls materials
D. a pushing force that squeezes a mate-
D. rips materials rial

27. Truss bridges use the shape to 32. Sitting on a chair is an example of

NARAYAN CHANGDER
strengthen the structure. A. Tension
A. Ovals B. Compression
B. Trapezoid C. Gravity
C. Triangle D. Friction
D. rectangle 33. Structural stress can occur when
28. What is an external force? A. a combination of internal and external
forces weaken a structure
A. A force that acts from within the struc-
ture B. there is repeated abnormal use of the
structure
B. A force that acts outside a structure
C. a structure can no longer stand up to
C. an x-ray force the forces acting upon it
D. none of above D. the design is not structurally proven
29. Metal fatigue can occur overtime in a struc- 34. helps absorb the shock when your
ture when bones bump against each other.
A. a combination of internal and external A. tendons
forces weaken a structure B. ligaments
B. there is repeated stress/use of the C. cartilage
structure
D. muscles
C. a structure can no longer stand up to
the forces acting upon it 35. Which joint is NOT a fixed bonding joint?
D. the design is not structurally proven A. glue
B. tape
30. A structure that has its centre of gravity
C. thumb tack
over its support base can resist better
than a structure that does not. D. cement
A. sun’s rays 36. The forces acting on a bridge that are not
B. weight part of the bridge. These could be things
like wind, rain and vehicles.
C. height
A. live loads
D. external forces
B. dead loads
31. What is bending? C. piers
A. a twisting or turning force D. members

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9.2 Design Against Static Load 1213

37. An internal force is one where 42. Which is the best explanation of the term
“weight”?
A. one part of a structure exerts force on

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another part of the same structure. A. A large celestial body that revolves
around a star.
B. one part of a structure absorbs force
form outside the structure B. Measurement of the force of Earth’s
gravity pulling you down.
C. the inside of the structure combines
with the overall force of the structure C. A push or a pull.
D. Attraction between two objects that is
D. the external forces exert pressure on
proportional to the masses of the objects.
the internal supports of the structure
43. The muscles in your body are made of semi-
38. Nails, screws, nuts and bolts are all exam- solid tissue that functions by
ples of
A. contracting and relaxing
A. fixed friction joints
B. lengthening and contracting
B. fixed bonding joints C. shortening and extending
C. movable joints D. supporting and relaxing
D. none of above
44. The function of a structure refers to
39. What is a dynamic load? A. its overall design
A. A moving load B. its use or purpose

B. A non-moving load C. how it is built

D. the technological requirements
C. A load that is always changing
D. none of above 45. Center of gravity is usually located where
A. more weight is concentrated
40. How does a structure maintain structural
B. less weight is concentrated
reliability?
C. less mass is concentrated
A. When the internal forces of a structure
are greater than the external force D. more mass is concentrated

B. When the external forces of a struc- 46. The force on a bridge because of its own
ture are greater than the internal force weight.
C. When the structure is there for you A. tension
when you need it most. B. deck
D. none of above C. dead load
D. live load
41. What type of force is torsion?
A. Twisting 47. Sarah’s mass on Earth is 45kg. If Mars has
1/3 the gravitational force of the Earth,
B. Pushing what is Sarah’s mass?
C. Ripping A. 150 kg
D. Pulling B. 150 N

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9.2 Design Against Static Load 1214

C. 45 kg 53. The bigger a force’s magnitude

D. 45 N A. the stronger it is and the more effect
it will have on a structure
48. Symmetry helps structures to be more sta-
ble because B. the more individuals needed to carry
out the movement
A. weight is distributed evenly
C. the less resistance is necessary to in-
B. weight is distributed unevenly crease the friction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. structures are taller
D. the further away you need to stand
D. none of above when applying pressure
49. Two essential characteristics of effective 54. Engineers use which two conditions to de-
structures are cide what type of bridge is best suited for
A. to stay warm and dry a situation?
B. to remain stable and be mobile A. the kinds of loads and types of vehicles
C. to provide protection and remain sta- B. if the bridge is crossing land or water
ble and the materials for the design
D. to provide protection and security C. the kinds of loads and whether the
bridge is crossing land or water
50. Which bridge usually has triangles?
D. the types of vehicle weight and materi-
A. Suspension als for construction
B. Arch
55. The process of forming a material into
C. Truss wave-like ridges or folds is known as
D. none of the above A. corrugation
51. Complementary forces are those in which B. lamination
C. reinforcing
A. bending occurs after the structure is D. alternation
immobile
B. mobility is hampered by inconsistent 56. The species of mushroom commonly
movement known as Morel is found in the Albertan
aspen forests near sources of nitrogen.
C. different forces act on a structure at
The centre of the mushroom is solid. As
the same time
such, it should be classified as a
D. a quick succession of movements fol-
A. Shell structure
low repeatedly
B. Solid structure
52. These give your body structure and sup-
C. Frame structure
port.
D. Whole structure
A. bones
B. ligaments 57. A static load is also called a
C. cartilage A. live load
D. tendons B. dead load

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 9.3 Shafts, Keys and Couplings 1215

C. resistant load B. flexible and rigid

D. moving load C. strong under tension and hard

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58. A force that stretches or strains. D. strong under tension and flexible
A. compression 60. Characteristics which are important in
B. friction structures are
C. gravity A. function, design, aesthetics
D. tension B. form, function, and design
59. Ligaments in your body are C. seasonal demands and functions
A. hard and rigid D. climate, aesthetics and design

9.3 Shafts, Keys and Couplings

1. Before starting a drill press, always 5. A laminate trimmer is a specialized type of
A. remove the chuck key
B. lower the chuck key A. portable table saw
C. insert the chuck key B. power plane
D. remove the belt from the pulley C. router
D. shaper
2. The saw blade should be held at about a
60-degree angle to the wood when cutting 6. After using a grinding wheel to sharpen a
with a plane iron, the edge must be dressed using
A. hacksaw a(n)
B. ripsaw A. leather strap
C. miter saw B. oilstone
D. crosscut saw C. mill file

3. The handsaw that would be used to make D. soapstone

a scroll cut on a trim piece is the 7. A pneumatic nailer or stapler is powered
A. dovetail saw by
B. back saw A. compressed air
C. coping saw B. batteries
D. ripsaw C. a small fuel cell
4. A large hand plane used for rough work is D. kinetic energy
the
8. If a power tool is making unusual noises,
A. jack plane sounds, or vibrations,
B. block plane A. clean and oil it
C. smoothing plane B. ask another student to trade tools with
D. jointer plane you

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 9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1216

C. report the problem to your supervisor D. lockcing C-clamp

or instructor
11. Which of the following operations is not
D. ignore it and keep working
typically done with a portable table saw?
9. Before performing maintenance or chang- A. dadoing
ing accessories on any power tool, be sure
that it is B. ripping

A. not running C. mitering

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. OSHA-approved D. mortising
C. checked by your supervisor 12. When ripping stock with a portable table
D. disconnected saw, the blade should not project above
the material being cut by more than
10. The clamp whose jaws can be adjusted in-
dependently of one another is the A. 1/16”
A. quick clamp B. 1/8”
B. pipe clamp C. 1/4”
C. hand-screw clamp D. 3/8”

9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints

1. What is the Angle of Countersink Tool used B. Drift drift
on hoes to be threaded? What is the angle C. Rivet Set Set Set
of the counterpen tool used on the holes to
thread? D. Rivet snap Snap Snap

A. 75◦ 4. What ‘V ‘Denotes in Grinding Wheel

B. 80◦ SPECIFICATION 32A46H8V? What does
‘V ‘in the Grinding Wheel Specification
C. 90◦ 32A46H8V?
D. 120◦ A. Bond Bond
2. Which is the grade of tolerance? Which B. Grade grade
grade of patience? C. Abrasive abrasive
A. Bilateral tolerance bilateral patience D. Grain size grain size
B. Unilateral tolerance arbitrary patience
5. Why Slight Convexity is given on the face
C. Fundamental tolerance basic patience of hammer? Why is it a little convex on
D. Fundamental deviation is the basic de- the hammer face?
viation A. To make effective striking to make ef-
3. What is the tool used to form the other fective striking
end of Rivet Head? What is the tool that B. To Avoid Digging of the Edge to avoid
can be used to create another end of the excavation of the edge
Revet Head? C. To Allow Load on Striking Striking to Al-
A. Dolly Dolly low Loading

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1217

D. To Prevent Damage to Work Surface to A. Treat the surfaces to be riveted to-

prevent work surface damage gether with a process called anodic treat-
ment.

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6. Holding Hollow Cylindrical Jobs for Whiche
Vice is used for? Which Vice is used to B. Place a protective separator between
catch hollow cylindrical jobs? areas of potential electrical difference.

A. Pin vice pin vice C. Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by

redesigning the unit according to the rec-
B. Pipe vice pipe vice ommendations outlined in AC 43.13-1A.
C. Hand vice Hand Vice D. none of above
D. Bench vice Bench vice
11. Which part is the frame of Outside Microm-
7. The Removal of Chips for a ReamerWhich eter? What part of the face measuring to
part of the Remar is designed for the re- the outer micrometer frame is fitted?
moval of chips? A. Anvil Anvil
A. Face face B. Barrel Barrel
B. Flute flute C. Spindle spindle
C. Heel heel D. Ratchet Stop Ratchet Stop
D. Cutting edge cutting edge
12. Which Rivet is used to avoid the Rivet
8. Why Marking Tables Are Made of Cast Head? What revenate is used to prevent
Iron? Why are marking tables made of revenate head projection?
cast iron? A. PAN HEAD RIVET PAN HEAD REVET
A. Self lubricating self lubricant B. SNAP HEAD RIVET Snap Head Revet
B. Make More Rigidity Make more stiff- C. Conical HEAD RIVET RIVET THE SUP-
ness PORT HEAKE
C. Maintain the accuracy of Maintain the D. Counter Sunk HEAD RIVET counter
Accuracy sinking head
D. Prevent Thermal Expansion Thermal
13. What is the use of stakes in sheet metal
expansion
work? What is the use of shares in sheet
9. What is the name of the caliper one leg metal work?
with an adjustable divider point and other A. Rest of work rest work
leg? What is the Caliper name that can be
B. Supporting PIEEE Auxiliary Part
adjusted by a divider point and another leg
C. Sharpening sharpening
A. Jenny caliper Jenny Calipa
D. Folding shapes folding shapes
B. Inside caliper inside the caliper
C. Outside caliper exterior caliper 14. Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black.
This would indicate the metal is
D. Spring Joint Caliper Spring Joint
Caliper A. aluminium
B. duralumin
10. (8149) When riveting dissimilar metals to-
gether, what precautions must be taken to C. magnesium alloy
prevent an electrolytic action? D. none of above

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1218

15. What is a drill cutting angle? C. 30◦ & 50◦

A. 59o D. 60◦ & 40◦
B. 12o-15o 20. What is the use of fine pitch hacksaw
C. 125o-135o blades? What is the use of fine pitch
D. none of above hacksa blades?
A. To cut the Cut Soft Metal soft metal
16. What Will Happen If The Spindle Running
B. To cut high speed steel to cut high
Out Of The Center? What happens if the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
speed steel
spindle out of the center while drilling?
C. To Cut High Carbon Steel to cut high
A. Drill will break drill
carbon steel
B. Drills are over -heated drills are hot
D. To Cut Cut Conduit and Other Thin
C. Drill make rough hole drill rough hole Tubes to cut the duct and other thin tubes
D. Over Sized Holes Are Made makes
21. Which Type of Fit, The Tolerance Zone
holes in size over
Of Hole is Below The Tolerance Zone Of
17. Reaming Internal Metric Morse Tapered Shaft? What kind of fit, the tolerance
Holes? Which remor is used for internal zone of the hole is the tolerance zone of
metric morse tapered holes reiming the zone shaft?
A. Helical Fluted Reamer Helic Flute Re- A. Transition FIT transformation fits
mark B. Clearance FIT Clearance Fit
B. Hand Remer with Pilot Pilot C. Shrinkage Fit contraction fits
C. Taper PIN HAND REMER TAPER PIN D. Interference fit interference with FIT
HAND REMER
22. What is the Minor Diameter of Thread?
D. Socket Reamer with Parallel Shank What is the smallest article of the thread?
Socket Remer with Parallel Shank
A. Minor Dia = Major Dia- (2 x Pitch) Mi-
18. What is the Unit of Cutting Speed in nor Dia = Major Dia- (2 x Pitch)
Drilling Operation? Which unit of speed B. Minor Dia = Major Dia + (2 x Pitch)
reduces in drilling operation? Minor Dia = Major Dia + (2 x Pitch)
A. metre/ rev C. Minor Dia = Major Dia + (2 x Depth)
B. mm/ rev Minor Dia = Major Dia + (2 x Depth)
C. m/ min D. Minor Dia = Major Dia- (2 x Depth) Mi-
nor Dia = Major Dia- (2 x deep)
D. mm/ min
23. Which is used to remove drills and sockets
19. What Is The Angle To Be Maintained In The
from the machine spindle? What is used
Blow Pipe And Filler Rod In The Left Ward
to remove drills and sockets from the ma-
Ward Ward Ward Ward Ward WardWhat
chine spindle?
is the angle to be carried out in the Blow
Pipe and Filler Rod in the Left Ward Weld- A. Drift drift
ing Technique? B. Sleeve sleeve
A. 60◦ & 30◦ C. Punch punch
B. 50◦ & 40◦ D. Hammer hammer

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1219

24. A chain removed for routine inspection -ferrous metals using all types of elec-
A. does not need proof loading trodes?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. must be proof loaded to 50% A. Rectifier Set Rectifier Set

C. must be proof loaded to 150% B. Transformer Set Transformer Set

D. none of above C. Motor Generator Set Motor Generator

D. ENGINE GENERATOR SET Engine Gen-
25. What Mechanism is used in the Lever type erator Set
Dial test indicator? What mechanism is
used in the Liver Type Dial Test Indicator? 29. What is the purpose of groover? What is
A. Screw and nut screw and nut the purpose of the grower?

B. Rack and pinion rock and pinion A. Releasing of Seam Seam Release
C. Lever and scroll lever and scroll B. Compress the seam seam
D. WORM AND WORM WEEL WORM AND C. Closing and Locking of Closing and
WARM WEEL Locking of Seam
D. Stress relieving During Seam Opera-
26. What is the use of Dowel in Assembly Tech- tion Relief during Seam Operation
nique? What is the use of dowel in assem-
bly technique? 30. Which part indicates the Reading of Dial
A. Accurate Positioning Of Two or More Test Indicator? Which part of the dial test
Parts The exact position of two or more indicator refers to the reading of?
parts A. STEM Limit
B. Securing components to storage to- B. Anvil Tolerance Zone
gether the TOGETHER
C. Pointer bottom deviation
C. Eliminate the Need for drilling drilling
D. Plunger Plunger
remove the need
D. Increase the efficiency of Fit Fit In- 31. What is the de-merit of 3 jaw chuck? ? 3
crease the Increase What is the D-Merit of the Jaw Chuck? ?
A. Work Can Be Set With EASE Work Eas-
27. Which term indicates the most of the
ily Set
Bond Present Between the Individual Abra-
siveWhat word represents the amount B. Internal and External Jaws are avail-
of bonding between individual abrasion able internal and external jaws available
grains? C. Accuracy decreases accuracy
A. Grain grain D. A wide range of cylindrical and hexag-
B. Grade grade onal work can be able to perform a wide
C. Abrasive abrasive range of cylindrical and hexagonal work

D. Structure structure 32. Which hacksaw blade is used for cutting

for curved lines? Which hacksa blade is
28. Welding Ferrous and Non-Ferrous Metals used to cut along the curved lines?
All Types of Electrode? Which welding
machine designed to supply both AC and A. HSS blade
DC current to weld non -ferrous and non B. All Hard Blade All Hard Blade

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1220

C. Flexible Blade Flexible Blade 37. What is the size of the company? What is
its size by actual measurement after mak-
D. Diamond Blade Diamond Blade
ing the component?
33. What is the production obtained from blast A. LIMIT SIZE Limit Size
furnace? What is the product obtained B. ACTUAL SIZE original measure
from Blast Furnace?
C. Maximum size maximum size
A. PIG Iron
D. Minimum SIZE minimum size

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Cast iron cast iron
38. Why Humming Sound Effects During ARC
C. WROUGHT Iron Soft iron WELDING? Why humming sound effects
D. Malleable iron during arc welding?
A. Long ARC LENGTH LONCE LANK Length
34. What is an integral part of the stock in
vernier bevel protractor? Which is the in- B. Speedy welding fast welding
terior of the Stock in the Vernier Bevel Pro- C. Short ARC welding small arc welding
trator? D. Normal ARC LENGTH Simple Arc
A. Disc disk Length
B. Dial dial 39. Mandatory Warning Plagues and symbols
C. Blade blade A. must be displayed on all flights
D. Main scale is the main level B. must be displayed in the cabin only if
they are legible
35. Which part in drilling machine is to be C. need not be displayed if they are incor-
achieved? Which part of the drilling ma- porated in the flight manual
chine should achieve a different speed?
D. none of above
A. Flat pulley covered flat
40. What are the three factors fires? What
B. Jockey pulley jackie pulle are the three factors that cause the fire?
C. Stepped pulley stepded pulle A. Fuel, heat, oxygen fuel, hot, oxygen
D. Fast and loose pulley fast and loose B. Oxygen, fuel, nitrogen oxygen, fuel, ni-
cover trogen
C. Heat, nitrogen, oxygen heat, nitrogen,
36. (8163) When a piece of aluminum alloy is
oxygen
to be bent using a minimum radius for the
type and thickness of material, D. Fuel, carbon-diooxide, heat fuel,
carbon-dioxide, hot
A. the piece should be bent slowly to elim-
inate cracking. 41. Which Type of Thread is used in screw
B. the layout should be made so that the jack? What type of thread is used in the
bend will be 90◦ to the grain of the sheet. screw jack?
A. Vee Thread Vee Thread
C. less pressure than usual should be ap-
plied with the movable (upper) clamping B. ACME Thread Amazing Thread
bar. C. Knuckle Thread Nakele Thread
D. none of above D. Square Thread Square Thread

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1221

42. A Category-A licenced engineer can sign 47. Proof testing after cable installation is
a Maintenance Release document for <br A. not required
/><br />

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. sometimes required
A. The task he has been locally trained
for. C. always required

B. An aircraft that he has sufficient type D. none of above

ratings for. 48. Which hammer is suitable for riveting?
C. The task that personal in charge by him What hammer is suitable for riveting?
has completed. A. Plastic hammer plastic hammer
D. none of above B. Ball pein hammer ball pain hammer
43. What is the Color Painted On The Acety- C. Cross -pain hammer of cross pein ham-
lene Gas Cylinders? Which color is painted mer
on acetylene gas cylinders? D. Straight pein hammer straight pain
A. Black is black hammer
B. Green green 49. Flammable and running Liquid Fire? What
C. Blue blue firefighter is used for combustible and run-
ning liquid fires?
D. Maroon Maroon
A. Foam Extinguisher foam extinguish
44. The characteristic of a nut that has nylon
B. Halon Extinguisher Hallon Arp
inside is
C. Dry Powder Extinguisher Dry dry extin-
A. Nylon Insert Lock
guisher
B. Insert Jam Lock
D. Carbon Dioxide (CO) Extinguisher Car-
C. Heavy Hex bon Dioxide (CO)
D. Hex
50. Name the Property of Metal to Resist
45. What is the number of fundamental devi- the Effect of Tensile Forces Without Rup-
ation in the bis system? How many basic ture.Name the property of the metal to
tolerance grades are available? prevent the influence of tensile forces
without rupture.
A. 25
A. Ductility ductility
B. 20
B. Tenacity stubbornness
C. 15
C. Elasticity elasticity
D. 26
D. Malleability tenderness
46. What is the accuracy of metric outside mi-
crometer? What is the accuracy of the met- 51. What is the name of Angle Between The
ric exterior micrometer? Axis of Chisel and Job Surface? What is
the angle name between the chisel and
A. 0.01 mm the axis of the job surface while doing the
B. 0.001 mm chip?
C. 0.02 mm A. Rake angle rake angle
D. 0.002 mm B. POINT ANGLE Point angle

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1222

C. Clearance Angle Clearance angle 56. What is the name of the Operation Produc-
D. Angle of Inclination The angle of incli- ing Flat Seat On Drilled Hole? What is the
nation name of the operation that produces a flat
seat on the drilling hole?
52. Whichever Caliper is used to mark the cen- A. Drilling drilling
ter of round bar? Which caliper is used to
determine the middle of the round bar? B. Spot facing spot facing

A. Jenny Caliper Jenny Caliper C. The counter sinking counter sinks

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Inside caliper inside the caliper D. Counter boring counter boring
C. Outside caliper exterior caliper 57. Which Device is used in conjunction with
D. Firm Joint Caliper Rigid Joint Caliper dial test indicator? Which device is used in
combination with the Dial Test Indicator?
53. The ACTUAL SIZE AND ITS CORRESPOND- A. Chuck Chuck
ING BASIC SIZE? What word does the al-
gebrae represent the difference between B. Stand stand
the original size and its related basic C. Tool Rest tool relax
size?
D. Bench vice Bench vice
A. Deviation deviation
58. Which part of the Outside Micrometer En-
B. Actual deviation is actual deviation
sureWhich part of the outer micrometer en-
C. Upper deviation is the upper deviation sures uniform pressure between the mea-
D. Lower deviation below the deviation suring surface?
A. Anvil Anvil
54. (8169) A piece of sheet metal is bent to a
certain radius. The curvature of the bend B. Thimble Thimble
is referred to as the C. Spindle Lock Spindle Lock
A. bend allowance. D. Ratchet Stop Ratchet Stop
B. neutral line.
59. What is the Value of One Vernier Division
C. bend radius. of a Vernier Micrometer? How much is a
D. none of above Vernier division worth of Vernier Micome-
ter?
55. Why Allowance Is Required Wary Making
A. 0.01 mm
Various Types Of Hems And Seams? Why
do you need an allowance when making a B. 0.02 mm
variety of hems and seams? C. 0.009 mm
A. To Make Good Appearance D. 0.002 mm
B. To Prevent Damage to the edges to
prevent damage to the edges 60. Why Ribs Are Provided In The Angle
Plate? Why ribs are provided on the an-
C. To Prevent Over Lapping At The Seam gle plate?
to prevent over laping
A. Provide Provide Flatness flatness
D. Maintain Correct Size And Improve
The Strength Manage the right size and im- B. Prevent Prevent Distortion distortion
prove strength C. Provide provide squareness square

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1223

D. Support the Machined Surface support 65. (8177) On a sheet metal fitting layout
the machine surface with a single bend, allow for stretching by

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. adding the setback to each leg.
61. Which part of Universal Surface Gauge is
used to set scriber at required position? B. subtracting the setback from one leg.
Which part of the Universal Surface Gauge C. subtracting the setback from both legs.
is used to set the required position in the
required position?
D. none of above
A. Snug comfortable
66. Why the cylinder keys are not removed
B. Guide PIN guide pin from the Cylinder Welding? Why can’t the
C. Rocker ARM rocker hand cylinder keys be removed from the cylinder
when welding?
D. Fine Adjustment Screw Fine Adjust-
ment Screw A. To Prevent Gas Leak Gas Leak
B. To adjust the gas supply to adjust the
62. What is the use of groover in sheet metal gas supply
work? What is the use of grower in sheet
C. To Open and Close Frequently to open
metal work?
and close frequently
A. Releasing of Seam Seam Release
D. To Close Quickly In Case Of Fire To
B. Compress the seam seam Close To Close In Fire
C. Closing of Closing Of Seam Seam 67. Whole Measuring? Which part of the
D. Stress relieving During Seam Opera- Bevel Protrator meets with the inclined
tion Relief during Seam Operation surface during measuring?
A. Dial dial
63. The characteristic of a bolt that has a flat
head is B. Disc disk

A. Timber Bolt C. Blade blade

D. Stock stock
B. Elevator Bolt
C. Hex Bolt 68. MAF stands for

D. Lag Bolt A. Magnetic Abrasive Finishing

B. Magnetic Average Finishing
64. (8164) The flat layout or blank length of
C. Magnetic Adhesive Finishing
a piece of metal from which a simple L-
shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 inch is to D. Magnetic Anodizing Finishing
be bent depends upon the radius of the 69. What is the Smaller of the Two Limits?
desired bend. The bracket which will re- Which one is small in two limits of size?
quire the greatest amount of material is
one which has a bend radius of A. ACTUAL SIZE original measure

A. 1/8 inch. B. Maximum limit of SIZE size is the max-

imum limit of
B. 1/2 inch.
C. Minimum limit of size size of minimum
C. 1/4 inch. limit
D. none of above D. Limit of SIZE size

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1224

70. Why Drilled Holes Are Over Sized In B. 1

Drilling Operation? Why are drilling holes C. 5
in drilling operation?
D. 3
A. Drill is not sharp drill not sharp
B. Unequal Lip Length asymmetrical lip 74. Where is the weight of the hammer
length stamped? Where does a stamped hammer
weight?
C. FEED RATE IS TOO HIGH FEED RATE
A. Face face

NARAYAN CHANGDER
Very high
D. Cooling is insufficient cooling is not B. PEIN Pain
enough C. Cheek cheek
71. Why Chalk is applied on the face of the D. Eye hole eye hole
file? Why do the chalk on the file face?
75. What Maintenance Record Mention The
A. To Reduce Excessive Pressure to Re- Date of Machine? Which Maintenance
duce Excessive Stress Record specifies the date of launching the
B. To Increase Chip Rate RATE Chip to in- machine?
crease the removable rate A. Inspection Check List Check List
C. To reduce penetration and pinning B. Equipment record equipment record
spread and reduce pinning
C. PRODUCT MANUAL product manual
D. To Increase Penetration and Pinning
to Increase and Pinning D. Servicing Manual Servicing Manual

72. (8161) If a streamline cover plate is to be 76. Which chisel is used for cutting keyways?
hand formed using a form block, a piece of Which chisel is used to cut the keyways?
dead soft aluminum should first be placed A. Flat chisel flat chisel
over the hollow portion of the mold and B. Cross cut chisel cross -cut chisel
securely fastened in place. The bumping
operation should be C. Punching chisel punching chisel
A. distributed evenly over the face of the D. Diamond Point Chisel Diamond Point
aluminum at all times rather than being chisel
started at the edges or center.
77. Removal of a scratch from a sheet of metal
B. started by tapping the aluminum lightly requires
around the edges and gradually working
A. burnishing
down into the center.
B. blending
C. started by tapping the aluminum in the
center until it touches the bottom of the C. polishing
mold and then working out in all directions. D. none of above

D. none of above 78. What is the term of the termbraic differ-

ence between it? What is the word of
73. How many types of welding are in this algebraic difference between size and its
module? corresponding basic size?
A. 2 A. Deviation deviation

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1225

B. Upper deviation is the upper deviation 83. (8152) Joggles in removed rivet shanks
C. Lower deviation below the deviation would indicate partial

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. Actual deviation is actual deviation A. bearing failure.
B. torsion failure.
79. What arc welding machine can be used
in anywhere in the field work even from C. shear failure.
Electric Lines? Which arc welding machine
D. none of above
can be used anywhere in field work away
from electric lines? 84. What is the tap drill size for m20 x 1.5?
A. Rectifier Set Rectifier Set How much tap drill size for M20 x 1.5?
B. Motor Generator Set Motor Generator A. 18.5
C. ENGINE GENERATOR SET Engine Gen- B. 20
erator Set
C. 19
D. AC WELDING TRANSFORMER AC Weld-
ing Transformer D. 17

80. Name The Joint Made by Fastening Two 85. How chipped out scraper can be repaired?
Edges Of Sheet Metal Together? Name the How can a chiped out scraper repair?
two edges of the sheet metal tightened
A. Filing filing
with each other?
A. HEM HEM B. Lapping Lapping

B. Seam seam C. Chiselling chiselling

C. Notch notch D. Grinding and Honing Grinding and Hon-
ing
D. Groove groove

81. What is the flux used for soldering in the 86. What is the name of the system? If the
form of powder and evaporatesFlux used size of the hole is stable, what is the sys-
for soldering in powder form and evapo- tem name if the shaft is varied?
rates when heating? A. Bilateral system bilateral system
A. Resin Resin B. Unilateral system arbitrary system
B. Zinc chloride zinc chloride
C. Hole Basis System Hole Base System
C. Hydrochloric Acid Hydrochloric Acid
D. Shaft Basis System Shaft Base System
D. Ammonium chloride ammonium chlo-
ride 87. What Method is suitable to Remove the
Broken Stud Very Near to the Surface?
82. (8121) A factor which determines the min-
Which method is suitable for removing a
imum space between rivets is the
broken stud near the surface too?
A. length of the rivets being used.
A. Ezy out method
B. diameter of the rivets being used.
B. Making drill hole
C. thickness of the material being riveted.
C. Prick punch method
D. none of above D. Using square taper punch

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1226

88. What is the upper deviation of the compo- B. Tolerance Orimi

nent size part size
C. Actual size Orimi
A. 0.005
D. Upper deviation is the upper deviation
B. 0.008
C. 19.995 93. How many milling machines are in the man-
ufacturing process laboratory?
D. 20.008
A. 1

NARAYAN CHANGDER
89. What precision is used for comparing and
determining the component of the compo- B. 2
nent? Which accurate device is used to C. 3
compare and determine the diversity in the
sizes of the component? D. 4
A. Micrometer micrometer
94. (8116) Repairs or splices involving
B. Comparators’ similarities stringers on the lower surface of stressed
C. Dial Dial Test Indicator Exam Indicator skin metal wings are usually
D. Vernier Bevel Protector Vernier Bevel A. not permitted.
Protector B. permitted only if the damage does not
90. What cable would you use where temper- exceed 6 inches in any direction.
atures are going to exceed 200 degrees C. permitted but are normally more criti-
C? cal in reference to strength in tension than
A. Aluminium similar repairs to the upper surface.
B. Silver plated D. none of above
C. Nickel plated
95. The skill of the Operator in Practice?
D. none of above Which chart is used to record the opera-
tor’s skill in practice?
91. Which Fire Extinguisher Filled With Car-
bon Tetra Chloride And Bromochlorodiflu- A. Testing chart test chart
oro Methane (BCF) What’s Extinguished
B. Leveling chart leveling chart
Fire With Carbon Tetra Chloride and Bro-
mochlorodifloro Methane (BCF) C. Geometric chart geometric chart
A. Carbon dioxide D. Performance Chart Performance
B. Halon extinguisher Chart
C. Foam extinguisher
96. Hollowing Panel Beating for Mallet?
D. Dry powder extinguisher What type of mallet is used for Holoing
Panel Beating?
92. Which term indicates the difference be-
tween the maximum limit of size and mini- A. Brass mallets brass mallets
mum limit of size? What word represents B. Rubber mallets rubber maleets
the difference between the maximum limit
and the minimum limit of size? C. Wooden mallets wooden malets
A. Deviation deviation D. Bossing Mallets Basing Malets

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1227

97. Type of grinding machine uses two rotary A. Bond Bond

wheels to secure the workpiece in place B. Abrasive abrasive
and the workpiece is not held between cen-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

C. Structure structure
ters. This description is relevant with
D. Grain size grain size
A. Cylindrical Grinding
B. Centerless Grinding 102. Find out the Spindle Speed for Turning DIA
40MM CAST Iron ROD, if the cutting speed
C. Surface Grinding is 15 m/min? If the cutting speed is 15
D. Tool and Cutter Grinding m/min, find the spindle speed to rotate
the diamond 40mm cast iron rod?
98. What is the principle of dial test indicator?
A. 119.3 rpm
What is the principle of dial test index?
B. 100.3 rpm
A. Sliding sliding
C. 219.3 rpm
B. Screw and nut screw and nut
D. 109.4 rpm
C. Rack and pinion rock and pinion
103. Which Caliper Provide Fine Adjustment of
D. WORM AND WORM WEEL WORM AND
Dimensions? What caliper dimensions will
WARM WEEL
be finely adjusted?
99. What is the advantage of stakes in sheet A. Inside caliper inside the caliper
metal work? What is the purpose of B. ODD leg caliper odd leg caliper
shares in sheet metal work?
C. Outside caliper exterior caliper
A. Sharpening sharpening
D. Spring Joint Caliper Spring Joint
B. Supporting Supporting Caliper
C. Rest of workpiece rest workpiece 104. What Is The Property Of Metal That
D. Protect the tool from damage damage Permits No Permanent Distuation Before
to protect Breaking? What is the property of metal
that does not allow permanent distortion
100. What Activity Causes Excessive Wear before breaking up?
and Chattering Of Drilling Whole Drilling?
Which activity that causes drill bit to be A. Tenacity stubbornness
overwhelmed and chatting when drilling? B. Hardness is hardness
A. Too Fast Feed RATE Rate Very Fast C. Brittleness is fragile
Feed D. Toughness stiffness
B. Too Slow Feed Rate Very Slow Feed 105. In a front release connector the pin will
Rate be
C. More cutting speed speed speed A. released from the front and extracted
D. Too Slow Spindle Speed Very slowly from the rear
spindle speed B. released from rear and extracted from
the front
101. What ‘5 ‘Denotes in Grinding Wheel
SPECIFICATION 41A46H5U8? What does C. released from the front and extracted
‘5 ‘refer to the Grinding Wheel Specifica- from the front
tion 41A46H5U8? D. none of above

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1228

106. Why the cutting faces of files are slightly B. Cooling is effective in Effective cooling
bellied on Length wise? The cutting faces C. Insufficient Clearance Angle enough
of files are a little stomach in length? clearance angle
A. Get Proper Grip Over Workpiece Work- D. Unequal Length of Cutting Edge of Cut-
piece ting Edge
B. Filing Flat Surfaces is easy to file eas-
111. What is the maximum swiveling angle of
ier flat surfaces
the compound rest in the lathe machine?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Permit Clearance Between File Face How much is the maximum swiveling an-
And The Workpiece File Allow Clearance gle of compound rest in the lath machine?
between face and Workpiece A. 90◦
D. Ensure More Pressure On Workpiece B. 180◦
Workpiece When Filing
C. 220◦
107. What is the name of the Snap Head D. 360◦
Rivet? What is the tool name used to sup-
port Snap Head Rivet? 112. What is the Unit of Cutting Speed in Turn-
ing? Which one is the turning unit of turn-
A. Dolly Dolly ing speed?
B. Drift drift A. mm/sec
C. Rivet Set Set Set B. m/sec
D. Rivet snap Snap Snap C. m/min
108. What is the effect of improper method of D. mm/min
diagonal filing? 113. What type of power transmission is
A. Uneven surface finish transmitted by Spur Gear? What kind of
B. Scratches on the surface power transmission is transmitted by Spur
Gear?
C. Convexity on the surface
A. Parallel transmission horizontal trans-
D. Improper finish on surface mission
109. What is the Drilled Hole? What is the B. Angular Transmission
reason if the drill hole is larger than the C. Intersecting transmission transmis-
drill size? sion
A. Drill is not sharp drill not sharp D. Perpendicular transmission is perpen-
B. FEED RATE IS TOO HIGH FEED RATE dicular to
Very high 114. What is the function of ac welding trans-
C. Cutting speed is too high cutting speed former? What is the work of AC Welding
Transformer?
D. Unequal Angle of Cutting EDGE Cutting
Edge’s asymmetric angle A. IT Converts to Low Voltage High Cur-
rent Ampere This turns out to be low volt-
110. Why Drilled Holes Are Than Drill Dia? age high current ampere
Why are drill holes in more quantities than B. It converts to high voltage and low
drill dia? curry ampere it turns out to be high volt-
A. Feed ratio is more feed ratio higher age and low current ampere

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1229

C. It converts to low voltage and low A. compressive loads.

curry ampere it turns out to be low volt-
B. shear loads.
age and low current ampere

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C. tension loads
D. IT CONVERTS TO HIGH VOLTAGE AND
HIGH CURRENT AMPERE It becomes high D. none of above
voltage and high current ampere
119. How The Wide Range Of Depth Can Be
115. What is the storing capacity of Oxygen Measured By Depth Micrometer? How to
Cylinder? What is the capacity of the oxy- measure a wide range of depth by depth
gen cylinder storage? micrometer?
A. H with A. Lengthy sleeve long sleeve
B. 10 with B. Lengthy spindle long spindle
C. 14 with C. Adjustable base adjustable base
D. 15 with D. Equipped with a set of extension rods
116. What is the algebraic difference between extension rods
the actual size and its corresponding basic
120. What is the Method of Removing Metal
size? What is the algebraic difference be-
Chips Clogged Between The Teeth Of Files?
tween the original size and its related ba-
What is the method of removing clogged
sic size?
metal chips between the teeth of the
A. Deviation deviation files?
B. Tolerance Orimi A. Brush brush
C. Actual deviation is actual deviation B. Wire brush wire brush
D. Upper deviation is the upper deviation C. Copper strip copper strip
117. How to Extinguish The Flame Use in Gas D. Chalk powder chalk powder
Welding? How to extinguish the flame af-
ter using gas welding? 121. The Poisson’s ratio for cast iron varies
from
A. Shut Off Oxygen And Dip Blow Pipe In
Water Turn off oxygen and dip the blow A. 0.33 to 0.37
pipe in water B. 0.21 to 0.26
B. Shut Off Oxygen And Acetylene Valve
C. 0.31 to 0.34
At A TIME Oxygen and Acetylene Valve at
once D. 0.32 to 0.42
C. Shut Off Oxygen Valve First Next Acety- 122. Which comparator is used in mass produc-
lene Valve Turn off the first acetylene tion? Which comparator is used in heavy
valve of oxygen valve production?
D. Shut Off Acetylene Valve First Next
A. Optical optical
Oxygen Valve First Next Next Oxygen
Valve Turn off Acetylene Valve B. Related to pneumatic air
C. Electronics Electronics
118. (8041) A well-designed rivet joint will
subject the rivets to D. Mechanical Mechanical

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1230

123. (8170) You can distinguish between alu- 128. What Bolt In The Assembly The Rela-
minum and aluminum alloy by tive Movement Between The Workpieces?
A. filing the metal. Which bolt blocks the relative movement
between the workpieces in the assembly?
B. testing with an acetic acid solution.
A. Anti-fatigue bolt anti-fatigue bolt
C. testing with a 10 percent solution of
caustic soda. B. T ‘bolt ‘t bolt
D. none of above C. Body Fit Bolt Body Fit Bolt

NARAYAN CHANGDER
124. What is the main support voltage (220 D. SELF LOCKING BOLT Self -Locking Bolt
or 440 volts)? What is OCV for welding
in the main supply voltage (220 or 440 129. (8182) The oxyacetylene flame for silver
volts) lowering step-down transformer? soldering should be
A. 40 and 100 volt A. oxidizing.
B. 50 and 100 volt B. neutral.
C. 30 and 20 volt C. carburizing.
D. 20 and 25 volt
D. none of above
125. Which sheet metal withstand contact
with water and exposure to Weather? 130. (8127) Rivet pitch is the distance be-
Which sheet metal can withstand water tween the
and atmosphere? A. centers of rivets in adjacent rows.
A. Black iron black iron B. centers of adjacent rivets in the same
B. Copper sheet copper sheet row.
C. Stainless sheet stainless sheet C. heads of rivets in the same row.
D. Galvanised Iron galvanized iron D. none of above
126. What ‘A’ represents in grinding wheel
131. Making Sharp Bends for used for the
specification 32A46H8V?
stake? Which stake are used to make
A. Grade sharp arches?
B. Grain size A. Funnel stake funnel share
C. Type of bond
B. Hatchet Stake Hotchet share
D. Type of abrasive
C. Half Moon Stake Half Moon share
127. What is the drill size for a 10 mm hole,
D. Beak or bick iron nose or bic iron
if under size is 0.2mm and over size is
0.05mm? If the under -size is 0.2 mm and
132. What is the accuracy of a try square?
the over size is 0.05 mm, how much is the
What is the accuracy of the tri square?
drill size to relying the 10 mm hole?
A. 0.02 mm per 10 mm length
A. 8.5 mm
B. 9.75 mm B. 0.004 mm per 10 mm length
C. 10.00 mm C. 0.002 mm per 10 mm length
D. 10.25 mm D. 0.001 mm per 10 mm length

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1231

133. Which chisel is used to remove excess C. PEENING PEENNING

metal from welded and castings? Which
D. Staking stacking
chisel is used to remove excess metal from

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welded joint and casting?
138. (8129) What is indicated by a black
A. Flat chisel flat chisel ‘smoky’ residue streaming back from some
B. Web chisel web chisel of the rivets on an aircraft?
C. Cross cut chisel cross -cut chisel A. Filiform corrosion is occurring be-
D. Half Round chisel half round chisel tween the rivets and the skin.
B. Intergranular corrosion is occurring
134. Why Lime Stone Serves as Flux in the
between the rivets and the skin.
blast furnace? Why does Lime Stone Flux
in Blast Furnace? C. Fretting corrosion is occurring be-
A. To form molten slag to form a molten tween the rivets and the skin.
slag D. none of above
B. To supply the oxygen oxygen to supply
139. How Much Copper Contains in Pyrites?
C. To Burn the Carbon in Coke to shoot
How much copper is in the mineral of
carbon in Coke Coke
pyrites?
D. To Increase The Melting Point of Ore
to increase the melting point of ore A. 0.15
B. 0.32
135. Which rivets are used in light assembly
work? Which rivets are used in light as- C. 0.5
sembly work?
D. 0.45
A. PAN HEAD RIVET PAN HEAD REVET
B. SNAP HEAD RIVET Snap Head Revet 140. Which Term Describes The AXIAL MOVIE
C. Counter Sunk Rivet counter sinked OF CREW IN ONE COMPLETE TURN?
revenate Which word describes the axis of the
screw at a full turn?
D. Conical HEAD RIVET Rewet
A. Lead lead
136. Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be
caused by B. Flank flank

A. heavy landing C. Pitch pitch

B. rotation of the outer race in the wheel D. Depth depth
housing
C. overheating of the brakes 141. Which Type of Taper is provided in the
Drill Shank? What type of tapper is pro-
D. none of above vided in the drill shank?
137. Which Assembly Technique is similar to A. Pin taper pin tapper
riveting method? Which assembly tech-
nique resembles the riveting method? B. Metric taper metric tapper

A. Dowelling doweling C. Morse Taper Morse Tapper

B. PINNING PINNING D. Jarno taper journo tapper

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1232

142. Which punch is used for witness marks? 147. What is the name of tool used to cut the
Which punch is used for witness marks? thicker sheets? What is the name of the
tool used to cut thick sheets?
A. Dot punch dot punch
B. PIN PUNCH PIN punch A. BEND SNIPS Bend Snips

C. Bell punch bell punch B. LEVER SHERS Straight Snips

D. Center punch center punch C. Straight Snips Straight Snips

D. Circle Cutting Machine Circle Cutting

NARAYAN CHANGDER
143. What Happens If The Vice Handle Is Over
Machine
Tightened? What happens if the vice han-
dle is tightened? 148. Which Comes Under Mechanical Occupa-
A. Spindle damage spindle damage tional Hazards? What comes under me-
chanical professional dangers?
B. Hard damage to the jaw damage jaw
C. Fixed jaw damage fixed jaw damage A. Noise-noise

D. Movable Jaw Damage moving jaw B. Toxic is toxic

damage C. Unskilled skilled
144. What is the Angle of Counter Sink Head D. Unguarded machinery not guarded ma-
Screws? What is the angle of counter sink chines
head screws?
149. Why Extra Clearance Given Between
A. 60◦ Bearing And Journal In The Aluminum Al-
B. 90◦ loy Bearing? Why is additional clearance
between bearing and journal in aluminum
C. 105◦
alloy bearing?
D. 120◦
A. To overcome high thermal expansion
145. What is the name of the metal edge? to overcome high thermal expansion
What is the metal edge name at an angle B. To overcome the Overcome Linear Ex-
during welding and cutting activities? pansion linear expansion
A. Kerf Kerf C. To overcome the overcome coefficient
B. Pull the drag expansion coefficient expansion
C. Bevel Bevel D. To Overcome Lubricant to Flow Freely
D. Gouging gogging to overcome the lubricant that flows freely

146. What Is The Helix Angle of General Pur- 150. What is the operation of the end of a
pose Drill? What is the helix angle of the drilled hole? What is the operation of
general purpose drill? beveling at the end of the drill hole?

A. 59◦ A. Reaming Reaming

B. 118◦ B. Spot facing spot facing
C. 27.5◦ C. Counter boring counter boring
D. 8◦ to 12◦ D. The counter sinking counter sinks

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1233

151. Welding the current setting of the current C. Solid Type tap wrench solid type tap
setting? Which factor determines the cur- wrench
rent arrangement during welding?

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D. Double Ended adjustable tap wrench
A. Types of Joint joint types double end adjustable tap wrench
B. Position of Weld’s Position of Weld
156. What is the Operation of Covering?
C. Length of Electrode electrode length Which operation that covers the area of
D. Diameter of Electrode Electrode the metal with molten solder?
A. Pickling pickle
152. What is the use of feeler gauge? What
is the use of Feeer Gauge? B. Swaging swing
A. Check the width width check C. Seaming Seaming
B. Check the height height check D. Tinning Tinning
C. Check the Length Length
157. What ‘46 ‘Represent in Standard
D. Check the gap between the mating Marking System of Grinding Wheel
parts check the gap between intercourse (32A46H8V)? What represents ‘46 ‘in
parts the standard marking system of Grinding
Wheel (32A46H8V)?
153. What is the minimum dimension can mea-
sure with telescopic gauge? A. Grade grade
A. 8.0 mm B. Grain size grain size
B. 12.7 mm C. Type of Bond bonding type
C. 19.0 mm D. Type of abrasive abrasive
D. 150 mm
158. What is the purpose of type ‘S ‘Twist
154. Why Surface Plates Are Stress Relieved Drill? What is the purpose of Type ‘s’
Good Quality Cast Iron? Why do surface twist drill?
plates are made of good quality cast iron A. Used for Hard Material hard material
that reduces stress?
B. Used for high carbon steel for high car-
A. To prevent corrosion corrosion bon steel
B. To prevent breaking breaking C. Used for Soft and Tough Material is
C. To prevent distortion of prevent distor- used for soft and rough material
tion D. Used for Normal Low Carbon Steel for
D. To Prevent Thermal Expansion to pre- normal low carbon steel
vent thermal expansion
159. Which gauge is used to compare the pro-
155. Name the tap wrench used in the Re- file of thread? Which gauge is used to com-
stricted Place.Name the tap wrench used pare the thread profile?
in a controlled place.
A. Plug gauge plug gauge
A. BOX TYPE TAP WRENCH Box Type Tap
B. Feeler Gauge Feeler Gauge
Wrench
B. ‘T ‘handle tap wrench‘ t’ handle tap C. Radius gauge radius gauge
wrench D. Screw pitch gauge screw pitch gauge

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1234

160. (8151) What is generally the best proce- B. 5 to 9%

dure to use when removing a solid shank C. 6 to 9%
rivet?
D. 10 to 12%
A. Drill through the manufactured head
and shank with a shank size drill and re- 165. (8171) The purpose of a joggle is to
move the rivet with a punch. A. allow clearance for a sheet or an ex-
B. Drill to the base of the manufactured trusion.
rivet head with a drill one size smaller B. increase obstruction for a sheet or an

NARAYAN CHANGDER
than the rivet shank and remove the rivet extrusion.
with a punch.
C. decrease the weight of the part and
C. Drill through the manufactured head still retain the necessary strength.
and shank with a drill one size smaller
D. none of above
than the rivet and remove the rivet with
a punch. 166. What is the purpose of “ crowning ‘’ on
D. none of above the cutting edge of chisel? What is the pur-
pose of “Crowning” in the cutting edge of
161. Taper pins resist what loads chisi?
A. shear A. Prevent Prevent Slipping of Chisel
B. tension B. Prevent Digging of Corners Corners
C. compression C. Allow Chisel To Move Freely On
D. none of above Straight Line Smu Allow to move freely
on a straight line
162. What is the included Angle of metric ‘v D. Allow Cutting Edge To Penetrate Into
‘threads? What is the angle that includes The Work Cutting Edge
metric ‘V ‘threads?
A. 45◦ 167. Whistle Scraper is used to scrap the cen-
ter portion of large flat surface? Which
B. 29◦ scraper is used to scrap the middle part of
C. 60◦ a large flat surface?
D. 471/2◦ A. Flat scraper flat scraper
B. Hook scraper hook scraper
163. How the Drill Chucks Are Held On The Ma-
chine Spindle? How do drill chucks put on C. Triangle scraper triangle scraper
the machine spindle? D. Bull-nose scraper bull-nos scraper
A. By ARBOR ARBOR
168. (8165) If it is necessary to compute
B. By sockets by sockets a bend allowance problem and bend al-
C. By sleeves sleeves lowance tables are not available, the neu-
tral axis of the bend can be
D. By Special CLAMP Special clamp
A. represented by the actual length of the
164. What is the range of carbon content in required material for the bend.
cast iron? What is the range of carbon con- B. found by adding approximately one-
tent in cast iron? half of the stock thickness to the bend ra-
A. 2 to 4% dius.

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1235

C. found by subtracting the stock thick- D. Accuracy Decreases as Chuck Gets

ness from the bend radius. Worn Out Chuck Reduces Accuracy

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D. none of above 173. How Many Types Of Bed Ways Are In
169. Why Precision Instruments Are Made Of Center Lathe Machine? How many types
Invar Steel? Why are perfect tools made of bed finger are there in the center Lath
with Inver Steel? Machine?
A. Durability durability A. 2
B. Cheaper in Cost Price in CHEAPER B. 3
C. Surface Finishing is fine Surface Fin- C. 5
ishing Good D. 4
D. Last coefficient of expansion is the low-
est coefficient of expansion 174. What is the unit of feed in drilling oper-
ation? What is the unit of feed in drilling
170. What is the material used to manufacture operation?
rivets? What is the material used for mak- A. m/rev
ing rivets?
B. mm/rev
A. Rubber rubber
C. m/min
B. Synthetic synthetic
D. mm/min
C. Hardened steel hardened steel
D. Mild Steel Mild Steel 175. Calculate the tap drill size for M10 x
1.25.Calculate the tap drill size for M10
171. The Effective Diameter of Screw Threads x 1.25
is used to be used to mostWhich device is
A. 8.8 mm
used to measure an effective diameter of
screw threads? B. 8.7 mm
A. Screw pitch gauge screw pitch gauge C. 8.75 mm
B. Outside micrometer outside the mi- D. 8.65 mm
crometer
176. What Will Cause If The Nozzle Touches
C. Screw thread micrometer screw The Molten Pool? What happens if the
thread micrometer nozzles touch the molten pool?
D. Screw Thread Caliper Gauge Screw
A. Spark spark
Thread Caliper Gauge
B. Smoke smoke
172. What is the merit of three jaw chuck in
C. Back Fire Back Fire
lathe machine? What is the qualification
of three jaw chuck in the Lath Machine? D. Flash back flashback
A. Work Can Be Set With EASE Work Eas- 177. What is the process of breaking down the
ily Set materials into organic compounds and can
B. RUN OUT CANNOT be corrected be used? What is the process of break-
C. Only Round and Hexagonal Compo- ing the ingredients into organic compounds
nents can be placed only round and hexag- and can be used as fertilizer?
onal parts A. Land Fills Fills the Land

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1236

B. Recycling recycling B. Inside Micrometer within the microm-

C. Composting composting eter

D. Burning waste material waste fires C. Dial Dial Vernier Caliper Vernier
Caliper
178. What “ a ‘’ denotes in abc of first aid? D. Vernier Micrometer Vernier Micome-
What does the first aid indicate “A’ ‘in ter
ABC?
183. What is the reason for rough hoes in
A. AIR WAY AWAY WAY

NARAYAN CHANGDER
drilling? What is the cause of tough holes
B. Attention attention in drilling?
C. Attention attention A. Unequal point thinning the unequal
D. Atmosphere atmosphere point thinning
B. Drill POINT NOT IN CENTER NOT in the
179. Dressing Castings for Foundries? What middle of the drill point
kind of capture wheel is used in the
founders for dressing casting? C. Clearance Angle is incorrect clearance
angle wrong
A. Silicate Bond Silicate Bonding
D. Drill cutting edges are not sharp drill
B. Shellac Bond Shellac Bond cutting edges are not sharp
C. Rubber Bond rubber bond
184. Which Angle Determines The Rake An-
D. Resinoid Bond resinoid bond gle Of Drills? Which angle determines the
rake angle of the exercise?
180. What is the Immediate Life Saving Proce-
dure? What is the process of protecting A. Helix Angle Helix angle
the immediate life? B. Core angle core angle
A. FIRST AID first aid C. POINT ANGLE Point angle
B. Call a DOCTOR PHONE D. Chisel edge angle chisel edge angle
C. Pay special attention to Intensive Care 185. Which indicates the Strength of Bond in
D. Medical Treatment Medical Treatment Grinding Wheel? Which one refers to
the strength of the bond in the grinding
181. Which decides the point of Angle of Drill? wheel?
Which one determines the point angle of
A. Grid grid
the drill?
B. Grade grade
A. Drill material drill material
C. Structure structure
B. Job Material Job Material
D. Grain size grain size
C. Cutting speed cutting speed
D. Size of the Size of the drill drill 186. What is the color of aluminum metal?
What is aluminum metal color?
182. Sizes of Point of Power on a Graduated A. Dull white dull white
Dial? Which device is used to increase
small variation in sizes by the pointer in B. White white
the graduate dial? C. Bright white bright white
A. Dial Dial Test Indicator Exam Indicator D. Bluish Grey Color blue gray

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1237

187. Why Center Screw is provided in the Die A. Ammonium chloride ammonium chlo-
Stock? Why is the Center screw provided ride
in the die stock?

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B. Zinc chloride zinc chloride
A. To tighten the die die to tighten C. Resin Resin
B. To adjust the depth of the depth of cut D. Paste paste
cut
192. (8126) Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch
C. To Adjust the DIA of Internal Thread to
is the distance between the
adjust the dia of the internal thread
A. centers of rivets in adjacent rows.
D. To Adjust the DIA of External Thread to
adjust the diagon of external thread B. centers of adjacent rivets in the same
row.
188. What is the name of the drilled hole?
C. heads of rivets in the same row.
What is the name of the process of com-
pleting the drilling hole? D. none of above
A. Reaming Reaming 193. What is the seam used in Sheet Metal
B. Spot facing spot facing Joint for Roofing and Panelling? What is
the seam used in sheet metal joint for roof-
C. Counter boring counter boring ing and paneling?
D. The counter sinking counter sinks A. LAP SEAM LAP SEM
189. Which Scraper is used to scrap Small B. Double Seam Double Seam
Diameter Holes and Deburing Edges of C. Grooved SEAM Ground Seam
Holes? Which scraper is used to double
D. Double Grooved Seam Double Growled
the edges of holes and holes with a small
Seam
diameter?
A. Flat scraper flat scraper 194. Calculate the Weight of Steel Plate Hav-
ing Length of 2000 mm, width of 500
B. Hook scraper hook scraper
mm, thickness of 4 mm and density of
C. Triangular scraper triangular scraper 7.85 g/cm3? Calculate the weight of steel
D. Bull-nose scraper bull-nos scraper plate with a density of 2000 mm, 500 mm
wide, 4 mm thickness and 7.85 g/cm3?
190. Which chisel is used for Separating Ma- A. 21.4 Kg
terials after drilling? Which chisel is used
B. 31.4 Kg
to separate the ingredients after the chain
drilling? C. 41.4 Kg
A. Web chisel web chisel D. 50.4 Kg
B. Flat chisel flat chisel 195. Flammable of Liquefiables Solids are clas-
C. Cross cut chisel cross -cut chisel sified into clashes of flammable liquids
D. Diamond Point Chisel Diamond Point A. Class ‘A ‘Fire Class‘ A’ Fire
chisel B. Class ‘B ‘Fire Class‘ B’ Fire

191. Soldering steel for which Flux is used for? C. Class ‘C ‘Fire Class‘ C’ Fire
Which flux used for soldering steel? D. Class ‘D ‘Fire Class‘ D’ Fire

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1238

196. What is the Class of Fire Caused by Fire 201. Which gauge used to check internal
Wood, Paper, Cloth? What is the fire class thread of components? Which gauge used
caused by fire wood, paper and cloth? to check the internal thread of the parts?
A. Class ‘A ‘Fire Class‘ A’ Fire A. Thread ring gauge thread ring gauge
B. Class ‘B ‘Fire Class‘ B’ Fire B. Taper ring gauge topper ring gauge
C. Class ‘C ‘Fire Class‘ C’ Fire C. Thread plug gauge thread plug gauge
D. Class ‘D ‘Fire Class‘ D’ Fire D. Thread plug gauge thread plug gauge

NARAYAN CHANGDER
197. What is the use of bevel protractor? 202. Which Material Issed To Manufacture
What is the use of bevel protactor? Grade ‘A “ V’ Blocks? Which material
used to make grade ‘A “ V’ blocks?
A. Check the Length Length
A. Tool steel tool steel
B. Set SET THE WORK PIEEE WORKING
PART B. Carbon steel carbon steel

C. Measure the angle angle C. High quality steel high quality steel

D. Measure the depth of the depth D. Closely Grained cast iron closely
grilled cast iron
198. Filing Wood and Leather? Which file is
203. Which one is the personnel saafety?
used to file timber and leather?
What is staff security?
A. Hand file hand file
A. Keep the Machine Cleaning machine
B. Bastard file bastard file clean
C. Rasp cut file rasp cut file B. Concentrate on your work focus on
D. Single Cut file single cut file your work
C. Keep the Gang Way and Floor Clean
199. In the iso metric thread, calculate the tap gangway and keep the floor clean
drill size for m 10 x 1.5 thread.In the ISO
metric thread, calculate the tap drill size D. Keep the tools at their Proper Place
for the m 10 x 1.5 thread. tools in the right place

A. 8.2 mm 204. What are the benefits of Spraying?

B. 8.7 mm A. Saving Time
C. 8.75 mm B. Wasting Time
D. 8.65 mm C. Difficult To Use
D. No Control
200. Which Marking Media is applied to rough
forgings and castings? Which marking me- 205. When dimpling a sheet of metal you
dia is applied to tough forgings and cast- would require
ing?
A. a male die only
A. White Wash White Wash
B. a male and female die
B. Prussian blue prussian blue
C. an oversized rivet and special reaction
C. Copper Sulphate Copper Sulfate block
D. Cellulose lacquer cellulose lacquer D. none of above

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1239

206. When drilling out a rivet, use a drill 211. Which Drilling Machine, The Spindle Head
Is Moved Towards or Away from the Col-
A. same size as the hole
umn? Which drilling machine, moved to-

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B. larger than the hole ward the spindle head column or away?
C. smaller than the hole A. PILLAR DRILLING MACHINE PUTER
DRILING MOOD
D. none of above
B. Gang Drilling Machine gang drilling ma-
207. What is the pitch of hacksaw blade used chine
to cut conduit and other thin tubes? C. Radial drilling machine radial drilling
A. 0.8mm machine
B. 1.0mm D. Sensitive Bench Drilling Machine Sen-
sitive Bench Drilling Machine
C. 1.4mm
212. Which type of thread, the crest and roots
D. 1.8mm
are rounded to form a semi circle? What
kind of thread, crest and roots are rounded
208. What is the term used for the relation-
to form a semi -circle?
ship? What is the word used for the rela-
tionship between two intercourse parts? A. ACME Thread Amazing Thread
A. Fit Fit B. Square Thread Square Thread

B. Limit limit C. Knuckle Thread Nakele Thread

D. Trapezoidal threaded trapezoidal
C. Tolerance Orimi
thread
D. Allowance allowance
213. What is the Principle of Micrometer?
209. What is the material of solder? What is What is the micrometer principle?
the material of the solder? A. Sliding sliding
A. Welding rod welding rod B. Screw and nut screw and nut
B. Synthetic Element Synthetic element C. Rack and pinion rock and pinion
C. Pure metal or alloy pure metal or mix- D. WORM AND WORM WEEL WORM AND
ture WARM WEEL
D. Non Metallic Element Non Metallic Ele- 214. What is th e maximum limit of size if size
ment A. 19.988 mm
210. What is the Material to Manufacture B. 19.979 mm
Bench Vice? What is the material to make C. 20.012 mm
the bench vice?
D. 20.021 mm
A. Tool steel tool steel
215. What is the purpose of slotted Angle
B. High carbon steel high carbon steel Plate? What is the purpose of the slotts
C. Medium Carbon Steel Medium Carbon offered on the slotted angle plate?
Steel A. Job Clamping Job clamping
D. Cast iron cast iron B. Easy handling easily

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1240

C. Reduce Weight Lose Weight 220. How many times can a locking plate be
D. Better Appearance is a better perfor- used?
mance A. once, then discarded

216. Whiche Chisel is used for squaring mate- B. indefinitely providing it is a good fit
rials at the corners, joints? Which chisel around the component to be locked
used to square the materials at the corners C. 3 times, then discarded
and joints?
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Flat chisel flat chisel
B. Cross cut chisel cross -cut chisel 221. (8168) The most important factors
needed to make a flat pattern layout are
C. Diamond Point Chisel Diamond Point
chisel A. radius, thickness, and mold line.
D. Half round nose chisel half -rounded B. radius, thickness, and degree of bend.
nose chisel C. the lengths of the legs (flat sections).
217. Which File Issued To Make The Job Close D. none of above
To The Finishing Size? Which file is used
to make the work close to the size of the 222. What is the vertical distance from crest
work? to the root? What is the vertical distance
from the peak to the source?
A. Single Cut file single cut file
B. Curved cut file curved cut file A. Lead lead

C. Second Cut file second cut file B. Flank flank

D. Double Cut File Double Cut File C. Pitch pitch

D. Depth depth
218. Which chisel is used for cutting oil
grooves? Which chisel can be used to cut 223. A dry joint in soldering is caused by
oil scratches?
A. flux not used
A. Flat chisel flat chisel
B. components not hot enough
B. Web chisel web chisel
C. wrong solder used
C. Half round nose chisel half -rounded
nose chisel D. none of above
D. Diamond Point Chisel Diamond Point
224. (8106) A single-lap sheet splice is to be
chisel
used to repair a section of damaged alu-
219. When riveting two dissimilar sheets of minum skin. If a double row of 1/8-
metal together the joint should be pro- inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable
tected with overlap will be
A. paint A. 1/2 inch.
B. grease B. 3/4 inch.
C. jointing compound C. 13/16 inch.
D. none of above D. none of above

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1241

225. This process refines the surface finish of 230. Which Tool Materials are Manufactured
a component with an exceptionally low by Powder Metallurgy Technique? What
roughness average. This statement is the tool materials are made by powder metal-

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explanation of lurgy technique?
A. Superfinishing A. Carbides Carbides
B. Grinding B. High Speed Steel High Speed Steel
C. Lapping C. High carbon steel high carbon steel
D. Honing D. Medium Carbon Steel Medium Carbon
Steel
226. Which part is mainly supporting the
Lengthy Job in Lathe Machine? Which part 231. What is the term, the top surface joining
supports the long work in the Lath Ma- the Two Sides of a Thread? What is the
chine? word surface that connects on both sides
A. Face Plate Face Plate of the thread?
B. Steady Rest Face Plate A. Root root
C. DOG CARRIER DOOD CARIIR B. Crest Crest
D. Dead center dog carrier C. Flank flank

227. What is the name of the operation to en- D. Pitch pitch

large the hole for given depth? What is 232. Which file is having rows of Teeth Cut in
the name of the operation that makes the One Direction? Which file cut the teeth in
hole in the hole for a given depth? one direction?
A. Reaming Reaming A. Single Cut file single cut file
B. Spot facing spot facing B. Curved cut file curved cut file
C. Counter boring counter boring C. Second Cut file second cut file
D. The counter sinking counter sinks D. Double Cut File Double Cut File
228. A Certificate of Release to Service must
233. Which rivet is used in heavy structural
be issued after,
work? Which revenate is used in heavy
A. a repair has been carried out in accor- construction work?
dance with an approved repair scheme.
A. PAN HEAD RIVET PAN HEAD REVET
B. a re-fuel has been done.
B. SNAP HEAD RIVET Snap Head Revet
C. engine runs.
C. Counter Sunk Rivet counter sinked
D. none of above revenate
229. What is the Color Code for Plastic Waste D. Conical HEAD RIVET Rewet
Bin? What is the color code for plastic
234. Remove Burr and Sharpness from the
waste cans?
edge of component? What is the name of
A. RED red the operation to remove Burr and Sharp-
B. Blue blue ness from the edge of the component?
C. Green green A. Grooving grooving
D. Yellow yellow B. Chamfering Chambering

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1242

C. Turning Step Turning Step 240. What metal is resistant to many types of
D. Plain turning plain turn accids? Any metal is resistant to a wide
variety of acids
235. The pipe flaring angle is A. Tin tin
A. 37o
B. Nicke Nike
B. 25o
C. Lead lead
C. 45o
D. Chromium chromium

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
241. What is the grinding wheel to Run Con-
236. What is the name of the defect, if the centric? What to do after grinding wheel
surface of the Grinding Wheel Develop dressing to drive with concentration?
SmoothIf the surface of the grinding wheel
develops a soft and glazed look, what is A. Truing is true
the name of the error? B. Glazing glazing
A. Glazing glazing C. Loading load
B. Truing is true D. Dressing dressing
C. Loading load
242. What is the last count of much Microme-
D. Dressing dressing
ter? How much is the lowest calculation
237. How The Size Of Drill Bit Is Measured? of the Vernier micrometer?
How is drill bit size measured? A. 0.01 mm
A. Between Between Flutes flute B. 0.02 mm
B. Between the lands of Between the C. 0.001 mm
lands
D. 0.002 mm
C. Between Between Web Web
D. Neck Diameter neck diameter 243. Which Angle is Determined By Helix An-
gle In Drill Bit? What angle is determined
238. Which the below is permanent joint? by the helix angle in the drill bit?
A. Elevator Bolt A. POINT ANGLE Point angle
B. Hex Bolt
B. Rake angle rake angle
C. Riveted Joint
C. Chisel angle chisel angle
D. Nut
D. Clearance Angle Clearance angle
239. Which is used for filling narrow grooves
and angles above 10 ◦ ? Which one is 244. What is the use of reamer? What is the
used to fill the narrow grooves and angles use of the remer?
above 10 ◦ ? A. Drill a hole lay a hole
A. Square file Square file B. Enlarging a hole hole to expand
B. Half Round file half -round file C. Threading a hole threading a hole
C. Triangular file triangular file D. Finishing to correct size of the drilled
D. Knife edge file knife edge file hole drilling hole

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1243

245. What is the DefectWhat is the error that C. Measure Angular Dimension Measure
forms if the tool is not set to the right mid- the angular angle
dle height when the opposite is?

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D. Measure the size of the Measure Size
A. Convex face convex face of Holes, Slots holes and slots
B. Concave Face is a concave face
250. What is the new grinding wheel to Run
C. PIP LEFT IN THE CENTRE is piped in
Concentric? What to do after setting a
the middle of
new grinding wheel to implement concen-
D. Rough surface on the face rough sur- tration?
face on the face
A. Truing is true
246. Why Grey Cast Iron is widely used for
B. Glazing glazing
machine tools? Why is gray cast iron ma-
chine tools widely used? C. Loading load
A. Rapid cooling fast cooling D. Dressing dressing
B. Reduce Reduce vibration vibration
251. What is the purpose of flute in drill?
C. High tensile strength high tensile
What is the purpose of the flute in the
strength
drill?
D. Very Difficult to Machining Matching
Very Hard A. To Drive Out The Chips to overcome
the chips
247. Which part of Universal Surface Gauge
B. To reduce the weight to lose weight
Holds The Scriber? Which part of the uni-
versal surface gauge contains a scriber? C. To reduce the cost of the cost
A. Snug comfortable D. To Increase the Speed speed
B. Guide PIN guide pin
C. Rocker ARM rocker hand 252. Which Bearing Withstands Load is Paral-
lel to its Axis? Which bearing survives the
D. Fine Adjustment Screw Fine Adjust- burden that is parallel to its axis?
ment Screw
A. Needle bearing needle bearing
248. A control cable that has been contami-
nated with acid should be B. Thrust bearing thrust bearing

A. cleaned C. Plain bearing plain bearing

B. cleaned, inspected, and reinspected D. SPLIT BEARING SPLITE Bearing
after a period of time
C. rejected 253. Which scraper is used for scraping large
bearing surface? Which scraper is used to
D. none of above scrap the larger bearing surface?
249. What is the use of telescopic gauge? A. Flat scraper flat scraper
What is the use of telescopic gauge?
B. Hook scraper hook scraper
A. Measure the depth of Measure Depth
C. Triangular scraper triangular scraper
B. Measure External Dimension measure
external size D. Bull-nose scraper bull-nos scraper

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1244

254. What is the first step of avoided accident 258. Which furnace is used to produce wrung?
in workplace? What is the first step to Furnace
prevent the risk in the workplace? A. Blast furnace blast furnace
A. By wearing Safety equip security B. Cupola furnace kupola furnace
equipment by Wearing
C. Puddling furnace pudling furnace
B. Doing Things in One’s Own Way are do-
D. Electric ARC Furnace Electric Arc Fur-
ing things in their own way
nace

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. By observing Safety Precautions by
practicing safety precautions 259. External Threading M16 x 2.0? Calculate
the empty size for external threading M16
D. Doing things with a highly skilled
x 2.0?
working practice doing things with highly
skilled working practice A. 14.0 mm
B. 15.8 mm
255. Why AGRICULTURAL EQUIPMENT IS
MADE UP OF WROUGHT Iron? Why do C. 16.0 mm
agricultural equipment are made of iron? D. 18.0 mm
A. Low Cost is the lower price 260. What is the drill hole size for Dia 16 mm
B. Heavy Weight Overweight reamer? How much is the drillhole size for
Dia 16 mm Remember?
C. Wear the Wear Resistant resistant
clothing A. 15.75 mm
D. Corrosion resistant corrosion resis- B. 15.50 mm
tance C. 14.65 mm

256. How The Distance Of First Rivet is De- D. 16 mm

termined from the Side Edge? How is the 261. What Angle Of The Tool Prevents From
distance of the first revet determined from Getting In The Grove And Causes Break-
the side edge? age? What angle of the tool prevents
A. 3 x Dia of Rivet Rivet 3 x Dia the groove from getting stuck and causes
breakdown?
B. 2 x Dia of 2 x Dia of Rivet Revet
A. Side rake angle side rake angle
C. 2.5 x Dia of Rivet Revet 2.5 x Dia
B. Side Relief Angle Side Relief angle
D. 3.5 x Dia of Rivet Revet 3.5 x Dia
C. Side Clearance Angle Side Clearance
257. Which part of combination set is used to angle
Mark and Check Angle of 90 ◦ and 45 ◦ ? D. Front Clearance Angle Front Clearance
90 ◦ and 45 ◦ What part of the Combina- angle
tion Set is used to determine and check the
angle? 262. What part of the Vernier height gauge is
an intergral part of the main slide? Which
A. Rule
part of the Vernier height gauge is the in-
B. Centre head tergall part of the main slide?
C. Square head A. Jaw jaw
D. Protractor head B. BASE Base

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1245

C. Beam beam B. Tinned iron tind iron

D. Jaw clamp jaw clamp C. Stainless steel stainless steel

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D. Galvanised Iron galvanized iron
263. Which cast Iron has the ability to reduce
vibration and tool chattering in machine 268. What is the Oxygen Cylinder Color?
tools? Which cast iron is the ability to What is the color of the oxygen cylinder?
reduce vibration and tool cubs in machine
A. RED red
tools?
B. Blue blue
A. Gray cast iron gray cast iron
C. Black is black
B. White cast iron white cast iron
D. Maroon Maroon
C. Nodular cast iron nodular cast iron
D. Mallible cast iron melted cast iron 269. Waste Paper Segregation for Bins?
What is the color code of cans to separate
264. What is the equipment used to protect the worst paper?
the body from flying spark? What are the A. RED red
equipment used to protect the body from
B. Blue blue
the flying spark during gas cutting?
C. Block block
A. Leather CAP Leather Cap
D. Green green
B. Leather Apron Leather Apron
C. Leather Shoes leather shoes 270. Tool chatter in Machine Tools? Which cast
iron is the ability to reduce tool chats in
D. Cutting Goggles Cutting Goggles machine tools?
265. What is the minimum distance between A. Gray cast iron gray cast iron
the rivets to Avoid Buckling? What is the B. White cast iron white cast iron
minimum distance between the rivets to
C. Nodular cast iron nodular cast iron
prevent buckling?
D. Mallible cast iron melted cast iron
A. 2 D
B. 2.5 D 271. What is the Range of Metric Screw
Thread Dimension? What range of metric
C. 3 D
screw thread size measured by the screw
D. 3.5 D thread micrometer?
266. How Much Carbon Content Of Steel Is A. From m1 to m6 m1 to m6
Forgeable? How much carbon content B. M1 to M12 M1 to M12
forgeable? C. M1 to M30
A. Up to 1.2 % D. M1 to M32
B. Up to 1.7 %
272. Why the hand taps are chamfered at the
C. Up to 1.9 % lead? Why are the hand taps in the lead?
D. Up to 2.1 % A. Aligning aligning
267. Name the Zinc coated iron? Name of zinc B. Finishing is finishing
coated iron? C. Strengthening to strengthen
A. Black iron black iron D. Gripping Gripping

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1246

273. Why Hand Reamers Have Uneven Spac- purpose of the cellulosic electrode in the
ing Of Teeth? Why is there an uneven gap arc welding process?
of teeth for hand remers? A. Very easy to remove the deposited
A. Reduce reduce chattering chats slag deposited by deposited slag
B. Remove more metals remove more B. Used for high strength steel used for
metals high strength steel
C. Increase the EfficisionCy capacity C. IT is used for low carbon steel it is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
used for low carbon steel
D. Increase the life of the tool tool
D. IT IS SUITABLE FOR ALL POSITION
274. Sharpening the Teeth of Wood Working This is suitable for all locations
Saws? Which file is used to sharpen the
278. Soldering tin sheets for which flux is be-
teeth of a wooden sapling teeth?
ing used? Which flux is used to solder tin
A. Barrete File Barrett File sheets?
B. Tinker’s File Milsa File A. Resin Resin
C. MILLSAW FILE MILSA file B. Paste paste
D. Riffler File Refler File C. Zinc chloride zinc chloride
D. Ammonium chloride ammonium chlo-
275. What is the purpose of clearance in Twist
ride
Drill? What is the purpose of the clearance
angle in the twist drill? 279. A hi-lock collar should be
A. Prevent rough holes in prevent rough A. lubricated before fitting
hoes
B. washed in solvent before fitting
B. Prevent Prevent Over Size Holes Over C. not lubed or washed because they are
Size holes lubed at manufacture
C. Prevent Unequal Angle of Cutting Edgs D. none of above
Prevent the uneven angle of cutting edges
280. What Is The Purpose Of Back Gear Unit
D. Prevent friction of drill behind the
In Lathe Machine? What is the purpose of
edges of cutting edges
the back gear unit in the lath machine?
276. Which part of vernier micrometer is A. Reduce the spindle Speed spindle
marked with vernier scale gradation? speed
Which part of the Vernier Micometer is
B. Increase the Spindle Speed Spindle
marked with the Vernier Scale Gradua-
tion? C. Quick Change Spindle Speed Quick
Change Speed Speed
A. Anvil Anvil
D. To Avoid Abnormal impact on spindle
B. Frame frame spindle
C. Thimble Thimble
281. What is used to complete the Risharp-
D. Barrel Barrel ened Divider Point?

277. What is the purpose of cellulosic elec- A. File file

trode in arc welding process? What is the B. Grinder Grinder

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1247

C. Scraper absence D. Cutting edge will not cut Material Cut-

D. Oil stone oil stone ting Edge Material

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282. (8103) Shallow scratches in sheet metal 287. How to Identify Hight Spots Whole Scrap-
may be repaired by ing? How to detect high spots when scrap-
ing?
A. burnishing.
B. buffing. A. Prussian blue prussian blue

C. stop drilling. B. White chalk white chalk

D. none of above C. Copper Sulphate Copper Sulfate
D. Cellulose lacquer cellulose lacquer
283. What is the expression of 30H7/G6?
What is the expression of 30H7/G6? 288. Holding Small Work That Requires Filing
A. Fit Fit or Drilling for Whiche Vice Issued? Which
B. Limits limits Vice is used to catch a small work that re-
quires filing or drilling?
C. Deviation deviation
A. PIN Vice HSS blade
D. Tolerance Orimi
B. Pipe vice pipe vice
284. Which tool used in sheet metal work to
scribe or arc with a large diameter? Which C. Hand vice Hand Vice
tool is used in sheet metal work to write D. Tool Maker’s Vice Tool Maker Vice
a large diameter circle or arc?
289. Which Type of Rake Angle Make Slope
A. Spring Compass spring compass
From The Front Towards Back Of The Tool?
B. Trammel Tramel What kind of rake angle tool does the front
C. Wing Compass Wing compass from the front to the back?
D. Ordinary compass A. END rake angle end rake angle

285. An aircraft control chain is connected us- B. Side rake angle side rake angle
ing C. Negative rake angle negative rake an-
A. a split link and spring clip gle
B. quick release pins D. Positive top rake angle negative rake
angle
C. nuts and bolts
D. none of above 290. What Is The Reason for Over Heat Drill
Drilling? What is the reason for the drill
286. What Will Happen If The Clearance An- heating while drilling?
gle Of Drill Is More? What happens if the
drill’s clearance angle is high? A. Drill Held Not Correctly Drill Not Right
A. Cutting edge will be blunt cutting edge B. Work is not rigidly heeld work doesn’t
blunt happen strictly
B. Cutting edge will not be sharp cutting C. Clearance Angle is incorrect clearance
edge not sharp angle wrong
C. Cutting edge will become weak cutting D. Flutes Are Clogged With Chips Flours
edge becomes weak Closed With Chips

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1248

291. Convert One Metre Into Millimetre.Turn C. 0.25 to 3.5 mm

a meter into a millimeter. D. 0.50 to 5.0 mm
A. 10 mm
296. Which type of screw threads are rounded
B. 100 mm at the crest and root? What kind of
C. 1000 mm screw threads are rounded at the peak and
root?
D. 10000 mm
A. B.A thread ba thread

NARAYAN CHANGDER
292. What is the name of distortion occurs in B. B.S.F Thread BSF Thread
the weld? What is the distortion name
C. B.S.W Thread BSW Thread
that forms in the weld direction?
D. ACME Thread ACME Thread
A. Angular distorting angular distortion
B. Bending distortion distortion bending 297. How To Stop Bleeding Of Injured Person?
How should the injured person stop bleed-
C. Longitudinal distorting longitudinal dis- ing?
tortion
A. Tie bandage bandage
D. Transverse distortion transverse dis-
B. Apply Ointment Applicable
tortion
C. Apply tincture over the wound tincture
293. Assembly operations are performed by on the wound
human workers using their inherent dex-
D. Apply Pressure Over the Wound-Apply
terity, skill, and judgment. This is the ex-
pressure on the wound
planation of
A. Manual Assembly 298. Connecting rod is, usually, made from
A. low carbon steel
B. Semi-Automated Assembly
B. high carbon steel
C. Automated Assembly
C. medium carbon steel
D. Non-Permanent Assembly
D. high speed steel
294. If a control chain can be lifted clear of a
299. Which sheet metal is Easiest to Joint and
tooth, it should be
Solder? Which sheet is easy to make
A. removed and an elongation check car- metal joint and solder?
ried out
A. Tinned plate tinded plate
B. cleaned, retensioned and inspected af-
B. Lead lead
ter a period of time
C. Galvanised Iron galvanized iron
C. rejected as unserviceable
D. Stainless sheet stainless sheet
D. none of above
300. (8181) Which statement is true in regard
295. What is the range of pitch that can be to welding heat-treated magnesium?
met by screw thread micrometer? What is
A. The welded section does not have the
the range of pitch measured by the screw
strength of the original metal.
thread micrometer?
B. Flux should not be used because it is
A. 0.01 to 0.5 mm very difficult to remove and is likely to
B. 0.02 to 3.5 mm cause corrosion.

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1249

C. Magnesium cannot be repaired by fu- C. Cross -pain hammer of cross pein ham-
sion welding because of the high probabil- mer
ity of igniting the metal.

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D. Straight pein hammer straight pain
D. none of above hammer
301. What Type Abrasive Wheel is used for 305. Name the property of a metal that can be
grinding cemented carbides? What kind of dragged into the wire without rupture
abrasive cycle is used to grind cement car- A. Ductility
bides?
B. Tenacity
A. Green Silicon carbide green silicon car-
bide C. Elasticity
B. Grey Aluminum Oxide Gray Aluminum D. Malleability tenderness
Oxide
306. What is the use of spring pins? What is
C. White aluminum oxide white aluminum the use of Spring Pins?
oxide
A. Easy assembly and disassemble of
D. Brown aluminum oxide brown alu- parts easily separating assembly and
minum oxide parts
302. After welding why would you normalise B. Locate Assemblies With Wide Toler-
to ance In Corresponding Holes Recognize
Meetings with wide tolerance in related
A. remove carbon build up from the
holes
welded joint
C. Keep parts in assembly assembly in
B. release the stresses from the material
Retain the Parts in
C. remove oxidation from the welded
D. Accurate Positioning of Parts is the ex-
joint
act position of the parts
D. none of above
307. What is the name of the poriation? What
303. What operation is carried out in a gang is the name of the thread’s root and the
drilling machine? What operation is done middle part of the crest?
in the gang drilling machine?
A. Root flank
A. Idle Operation Passive Operation
B. Flank flank
B. Repeated operation of drilling of re-
C. Depth depth
peated operation
C. Continuous Milling Operation continu- D. Thread angle thread angle
ous milling operation 308. (8180) Which statement best describes
D. A series of operation of drilling of Suc- magnesium welding?
cessive Operation A. Magnesium can be welded to other
304. Which type of hammer is used for riv- metals.
eting purpose? What type of hammer is B. Filler rod should be nickel-steel.
used for the purpose of revenging? C. Filler rod should be the same composi-
A. Sledge hammer sledge hammer tion as base metal.
B. Ball pein hammer ball pain hammer D. none of above

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1250

309. What is the use of a try square? What is B. Removes the Burr from the hole job
the use of tri square? material
A. To Check Right Angle to check the right C. Provide Smooth Functioning of
angle Reamer Cutting speed
B. To Check Acute Angle to check the se- D. Keep Reamer Concentric With Hole To
rious angle Be Read Drill Size
C. To Check Obtuse Angle to check the 314. What type of drill would you use on car-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
thicker angle bon fibre?
D. To Check Straight Angle to check A. carburundum
straight angle
B. tungsten carbide
310. Why Burr form on the underside of the C. diamond tipped
sheet metal? Why does a bur form in the
bottom of the sheet metal when cutting? D. none of above

A. No Clearance Clearance 315. What is the Extreme Permissible? What

B. Hardened metal hardened metal are the most allowable sizes that the op-
erator intends to make the component?
C. Increase in force energy
A. Basic size is the basic size
D. Excessive Clearance High Clearance
B. ACTUAL SIZE original measure
311. (8179) In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) weld- C. Nominal size nominal size
ing, a stream of inert gas is used to
D. Limits of SIZE size are limits
A. prevent the formation of oxides in the
puddle. 316. What is the name of portion left between
flutes in a drill? What is the name of the
B. concentrate the heat of the arc and
remaining part between the flute in the
prevent its dissipation.
drill?
C. lower the temperature required to
A. LIP lip
properly fuse the metal.
B. Web Web
D. none of above
C. POINT Point
312. What is the upper limit of the component
D. Shank Shank
size part size
A. 0.005 317. What is the use of screw pitch gauge?
What is the use of screw pitch gauge?
B. 0.008
A. Check Lead of the Thread Check the
C. 19.995
bottle of thread
D. 20.008
B. Check the pitch of the thread check the
313. What is the functions of pilot in the hand? pitch of the thread
Which one determines the point angle of C. Check the Minor Dia of Thread Check
the drill? Minor Dia’s Minor Dia
A. Keep Size of hole accurate drill mate- D. Check the Major Dia of Thread Check
rial the main dia of the thread

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1251

318. Which Micrometer Having Provision of 322. What is the weight of hammer used for
Interchangeable Anvils? Which is the Marking Purpose? How much is the ham-
micrometer that contains interchangeable mer weighs used for the purpose of mark-

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unviles? ing?
A. Depth Micrometer Depth Micometer A. 200 grams
B. Inside Micrometer within the microm- B. 250 grams
eter C. 300 grams
C. Outside micrometer outside the mi- D. 450 grams
crometer
323. What is the difference between the size
D. Screw thread micrometer screw and minimum limit of size? What is the
thread micrometer difference between the maximum limit of
size and the minimum limit of size?
319. Which Factor Determine The Selection Of
Wire In Screw Thread Micrometer? Which A. Tolerance Orimi
factor determines the wire option in the B. Basic size is the basic size
screw thread micrometer?
C. Limits of SIZE size are limits
A. Thread angle thread angle
D. Upper deviation is the upper deviation
B. Type of thread and pitch thread and
pitch type 324. What is the effect if clearance is incor-
rect? What is its effect if the clearance
C. Root and crest root and crest angle is incorrect?
D. Major Diameter is the main article A. Over sized holes over sized holes
B. Over -heated drills heated drills
320. What is the disadvantage of ac welding
transformer? What is the disadvantage of C. Rough hoes tough holes
the AC welding transformer? D. Broken drill corrosion resistance
A. More Initial Cost spend more initial
325. Which of the following property is desir-
B. Not free from ARC Blow arc blow able in parts subjected to shock and impact
loads?
C. More Maintenance Cost Maintenance
cost A. Strength
D. Not suitable for welding non ferrous B. Stiffness
metal ferrous non -ferrous metal is not ap- C. Brittleness
propriate to weld
D. Toughness
321. Which Marking Media is poisonous?
326. What is Produced from Blast Furnace?
Which marking media is poisonous?
What is produced from blast furnace?
A. White Wash White Wash A. PIG Iron
B. Prussian blue prussian blue B. Cast iron cast iron
C. Copper Sulphate Copper Sulfate C. WROUGHT Iron Soft iron
D. Cellulose lacquer cellulose lacquer D. Mallible iron softened iron

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1252

327. DRILLING IN CAST Iron? What cutting 332. Name The Property Of Metal That Wit-
fluid is used for drilling in cast iron? hand Shock or Impact? Specify the prop-
erty of metal that can withstand shock or
A. DRY AIR JET Dry Air Jet
effect?
B. Soluble oil soluble oil
A. Tenacity stubbornness
C. Mineral Oil Mineral Oil
B. Hardness is hardness
D. Vegetable oil vegetable oil C. Brittleness is fragile

NARAYAN CHANGDER
328. What is the counter for the threading? D. Toughness stiffness
What is the counter sink angle of cham-
333. What is the Spindle Movement Of One Di-
bering at the end of the drilling hole for
vision Of Thimble With Spindle Thread Of
threading?
0.5mm Pitch? What is the spindle move-
A. 75◦ ment of a section of thimble with a spindle
B. 80◦ thread of a 0.5mm pitch?
A. 0.01 mm
C. 90◦
B. 0.10 mm
D. 120◦
C. 1.00 mm
329. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is D. 10.0 mm
to make the joint
334. What is the low limit of size in dimension
A. free from corrosion
of size
B. stronger in tension
A. 19.988 mm
C. free from stresses
B. 20.028 mm
D. leak-proof C. 20.007 mm
330. Which metal cutting saw is used for cut- D. 19.979 mm
ting different profiles? What metal cutting
335. What is the formula to calculate tap drill
saw is used to cut different profiles?
size? What is the principle to calculate the
A. POWER SAW saw power tap drill size?
B. Circular saw circular saffron A. TAP Drill Size = Major Dia- (2 x Depth)
Tap Drill Size = Major Dia- (2 x deep)
C. CONTOUR BAND SAW looks like a band
B. Tap drill size = Major dia + (2 x depth)
D. Horizontal Band saw the horizontal
band C. Tap drill size = Major dia-(2 + depth)
D. Tap drill size = Major dia + (2 +
331. (8162) A piece of flat stock that is to be depth)
bent to a closed angle of 15◦ must be bent
through an angle of 336. What stake is used to form an arc of a
circle beveled along one side? Which share
A. 165◦ .
is used to make a bevel on one side of the
B. 105◦ . circle?
C. 90◦ . A. Funnel stake funnel share
D. none of above B. Hatchet Stake Hotchet share

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1253

C. Half Moon Stake Half Moon share 341. Why Breakage Of Teeth Occur EasilyWhy
do teeth easily break when cutting and cut-
D. Beak or bick iron nose or bic iron
ting slices of thin walls?

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337. What is the high level formula for the A. HAND FORCE is too Big hand strength
Lean Manufacturing Oee? What is the is too big
highest level principle for Lean Manufac-
B. Cutting section is too short cutting sec-
turing OEE?
tion is very small
A. Availability x QUANTITY X Quality Avail- C. Coarse Blade to be used coarse blade
ability x Size X Quality
D. HAND FORCE Acts Only Upon Few
B. Availability X Productivity X Quality Teeth Hand strength only works on some
Availability X Productivity X Quality teeth
C. Produce Output X Quality X Availability
Produced Output X Quality x Availability 342. Whichever Caliper is used to find the cen-
ter of round bars? Which caliper is used to
D. Produce Output X QUANTITY X Quality find the middle of round bars?
Output X Size X Quality
A. Inside caliper inside the caliper
338. How many strokes per minute should be B. Jenny Caliper Jenny Caliper
used with a hacksaw?
C. Vernier Caliper Vernier Caliper
A. 30
D. Outside caliper exterior caliper
B. 55
343. Which one is used to bring the plats to
C. 60 the most? What is used to bring the plates
D. none of above closer after inserting the rivet in the hole?
A. Drift drift
339. What is the de-merit of the four jaw
chuck? What is the d-marit of four jaw B. Dolly Dolly
chuck? C. Rivet Set Set Set
A. Jaws are reversible jaws reversible D. Caulking tool caulking tool
B. Irregular Shape Job Can Be Held Un-
344. (8117) When straightening members
able to Manage Unleasseed Design Job
made of 2024-T4, you should
C. Heavy Cuts Can Be Given Massive Cuts A. straighten cold and reinforce.
D. Small and finished work will be dam- B. straighten cold and anneal to remove
aged short and finished work stress.
340. Name the tool used to make Fluid Tight C. apply heat to the inside of the bend.
Joint in Riveting? Name of the tool used D. none of above
to make fluid tight joint in riveting?
345. A stud broken off below the surface is
A. Drift drift
removed by
B. Rivet snap Snap Snap
A. using a stud box
C. Fullering Tool Fullering Tool
B. cutting a slot in it and removing with a
D. Caulking tool caulking tool screwdriver

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1254

C. a stud remover tool fitted into a drilled 350. What is the Advantage of Center Screw
hole in Die Stock? What is the purpose of the
D. none of above center screw in the die stock?
A. To tighten the die die to tighten
346. Which process blow out the cylinder
B. To adjust the depth of the depth of cut
valve socket before connecting the regula-
cut
tor? What process blow out the cylinder
valve socket before connecting the regula- C. To Adjust the DIA of Internal Thread to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tor? adjust the dia of the internal thread
A. Cracking cracks D. To Adjust the DIA of External Thread to
adjust the diagon of external thread
B. Back Fire Back Fire
C. Flash BACK Flashback 351. Which is a factor affecting assembly?
D. Pressure testing pressure test A. Material
B. Price
347. Cutting Bronze, Brass and Cast Iron?
Which pitch blade is used to cut bronze, C. Unique
brass and cast iron? D. Weird
A. 0.80 mm
352. 45 ◦ to the corner of the sheet metal?
B. 1.00 mm Which line is cut at an angle of 45 ◦ per
C. 1.40 mm sheet metal corner?
D. 1.80 mm A. Wire notch wire notch
B. Slant Notch Slant Gode
348. Which sheet metal is highly resistant to
corrosion and abruction? Which sheet is C. Square notch square line
the most resistant to metal corrosion and D. Straight notch straight line
abrasion?
353. What is Measured with Telescopic gauge?
A. Copper copper
What is measured with a telescopic
B. Black iron black iron gauge?
C. Aluminum aluminum A. Depth depth
D. Galvanised Iron galvanized iron B. External dimension external size

349. (8175) The sight line on a sheet metal C. Angular Dimension is an angular size
flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box D. Size of Holes, Slots and Recesses Size
brake is measured and marked of Slots and Break
A. one-half radius from either bend tan-
354. Which belongs to Total Producive Main-
gent line.
tenance? Which one belongs to the total
B. one radius from either bend tangent productive management?
line. A. Supply Defective Goods to the cus-
C. one radius from the bend tangent line tomers supply to consumers
that is placed under the brake. B. Unscheduled maintenance mainte-
D. none of above nance not scheduled

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1255

C. Produces Goods Without Increasing C. Undercut undercut

Production Production Production Produc- D. Stray ARC Stray Arc
tion Production

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D. Reduces Maintenance COST Reduces 359. What is the use of Bent Snips? What is
Maintenance Cost the use of bent snips?
A. Groove cut groove groove
355. Why Lime Stone is Added to the Blast Fur-
nace? Why is Lime Stone mixing the min- B. Cut zigzag cut zigzag
eral in Blast Furnace? C. Straight Cut Straight Cut
A. To form molten slag to form a molten D. Circular Cut Circular Cut
slag
B. To supply the oxygen oxygen to supply 360. What is the angle of acme thread? What
is the angle of the ACME thread?
C. To Burnt The Carbon in Coke to burn
carbon in Coke A. 66◦
D. To Increase The Melting Point of Ore B. 55◦
to increase the melting point of ore C. 29◦
356. What is rivet interference? What is reve- D. 45◦
nate intervention?
361. What is the Period Referred as ‘Golden
A. Thickness of the sheet of thickness of
Hours’? What is the period referred to as
sheet
‘Golden Hours’?
B. Article of Diameter of the Rivet Revet
A. First 30 min after the FIRST 30 Minutes
C. Length to form the head the head to After Incident event
form the head
B. FIRST 30 MINUTES After First AID
D. Total Rivet Length Required for Rivet- First Aid first 30 minutes
ing Riveting Total Revet Length
C. FIRST 45 MINUTES OF ADMISSION
357. What is the purpose of drift in riveting FIRST 45 minutes
operation? What is the benefit of the drift D. FIRST 60 Minutes After Treatment
in the riveting operation? Treatment First 60 minutes
A. Place the POSITION The Rivet Rivet
362. Which dimension is measured by using
B. Make Metal to Metal Joint Metal from
screw thread micrometer? What angle is
Metal Joint
measured using the screw thread microm-
C. Align the Holes to be riveted align eter?
holes
A. Pitch of screw thread screw thread
D. Prevent Damage to Rivet HEAD Pre- pitch
vent the damage to the head
B. Minor Dia of Screw Thread Screw
358. Which internal defect welding is invisible Thread’s Small Dia
to naked eye? Which internal error is not C. Major Dia of Screw Thread Screw
visible to the welding eye? Thread’s main dia
A. Spatter spout D. Effective Dia of Screw Thread Screw
B. Porosity porosity Thread’s Effective Dia

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1256

363. Which metal is used to manufacture mag- B. Diamond Point Chisel Diamond Point
nets, ball bearing and cutting tool? Which chisel
metal used for the manufacture of mag- C. Cross cut chisel cross -cut chisel
nets, ball bearing and cutting tool?
D. Half round nose chisel half -rounded
A. Cobalt cobalt nose chisel
B. Cadmium cadmium
368. (8114) When repairing a small hole on a
C. Vanadium Vanadium metal stressed skin, the major considera-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Molybdenum molybdenum tion in the design of the patch should be
A. the shear strength of the riveted joint.
364. Which metal cutting saw is being used to
cut large cross cross section Area? What B. to use rivet spacing similar to a seam
metal cutting saw is used to cut the large in the skin.
cross section area? C. that the bond between the patch and
A. POWER SAW saw power the skin is sufficient to prevent dissimilar
metal corrosion.
B. The contour saw the form of SAW
D. none of above
C. Circular saw circular saffron
369. What is the maximum cutting capacity of
D. Horizontal Band saw the horizontal
snip? How much is the maximum cutting
band
capacity of the snip?
365. A beam of uniform strength has A. 1.2 mm thickness
A. same cross-section throughout the B. 2.0 mm thickness
beam C. 2.5 mm thickness
B. same bending stress at every section D. 3.0 mm thickness
C. same bending moment at every sec-
370. Which ARC Welding Machine Provides
tion
Better Heat Distribution In The Electrode
D. same shear stress at every section And Job? Which arc welding machine of-
fers better heat distribution in electrode
366. What type of abrasive wheel is used for
and job?
grinding die steel? What type of abrasive
cycle is used to grind die steel? A. Rectifier Set Rectifier Set
A. Silicon carbide Sili con carbide B. Motor Generator Set Motor Generator
B. Green Silicon carbide green silicon car- C. Motor Generator Set Motor Generator
bide D. ENGINE GENERATOR SET Engine Gen-
C. White aluminum oxide white aluminum erator Set
oxide 371. Which metal is very soft and heavy in
D. Brown aluminum oxide brown alu- sheet metal work? Which metal is very
minum oxide soft and heavy in sheet metal work?
A. Lead lead
367. Removing materials on the corners of the
keyways? Which chisel is used to remove B. Black iron black iron
the materials in the keyway corners? C. Aluminum aluminum
A. Flat chisel flat chisel D. Copper sheet copper sheet

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1257

372. Which chisel is used for cutting curved D. Used for Normal Low Carbon Steel for
grooves? Which chisel is used to cut normal low carbon steel
curved grooves?

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377. Which Ore is used to extract zinc? What
A. Flat chisel flat chisel is the ore used to pick up zinc?
B. Web chisel web chisel
A. Bauxite bauxite
C. Cross cut chisel cross -cut chisel
B. Galena Galena
D. Half round nose chisel half -rounded
C. Calamine columine
nose chisel
D. Cassiterite Casitarite
373. How many fundamental tolerance grades
are available? How many basic tolerance 378. The purpose of a joggle is
grades are available? A. to act as a tea stopper
A. 18 grade B. to produce a flush fit at a metal joint
B. 25 grade C. to make the holes for a rivet line up
C. 15 grade D. none of above
D. 12 grade
379. What is the defect if pores of the grind-
374. Which Riveting Tool Issed To Form The Fi- ing wheel get clogged? What is the er-
nal Shape Of Rivet? Which riveting tool is ror if the holes of the grinding wheel are
used to create the last shape of revenate? closed?
A. Drift drift A. Drilling drilling
B. Dolly Dolly B. Glazing glazing
C. Rivet Set Set Set C. Loading load
D. Rivet snap Snap Snap D. Dressing dressing
375. What is the accuracy of protractor head 380. What is the angle of countersinking for
in combination set? What is the accuracy riveting? What is the counterpinking an-
of the Protactor Head in the combination gle for riveting?
set?
A. 75◦
A. 1◦
B. 80◦
B. 5◦
C. 90◦
C. 5’
D. 120◦
D. 5”
381. Which Marking Media Provide Clear Lines
376. What is the purpose of type “ n ‘’ Twist
On Machine Finished Surfaces? Which
drills? What is the purpose of type “ n ‘’
marking media offers clear lines on ma-
twist drills?
chine finished surfaces?
A. Used for Hard Material hard material
A. White Wash White Wash
B. Used for browntle material fragile ma-
terial B. Prussian blue prussian blue

C. Used for Soft and Tough Material is C. Copper Sulphate Copper Sulfate
used for soft and rough material D. Cellulose lacquer cellulose lacquer

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1258

382. Which Reamer Will Have a Long Taper used to check the internal clearance of the
Lead? Which Remar is Long Tapper Lead? bearing?
A. HAND REAMER HAND REmer A. Steel Rule Steel rule
B. Socket Reamer Socket Remark B. Feeler Gauge Feeler Gauge
C. Machine Reamer Machine Remark C. Depth gauge depth gauge
D. Helical Fluted Reamer Helic Flute Re- D. Vernier Caliper Vernier Caliper
mark

NARAYAN CHANGDER
387. What type of cutting tool used in mass
383. Which tool is used to make Fluid-Tight production? What type of cutting tool is
Joint by present? Which tool is used to used in heavy production?
make a fluid-brown joint by pressing the A. Solid tools solid tools
Revated Edge plate?
B. Brazed tools Brazed Tools
A. Dolly Dolly
C. Throw Away Type Tools Type Tools
B. Drift drift
D. Inserted Bits with Holders Holders
C. CAULKING TOOL COUALING tool
388. What is the accuracy of vernier bevel
D. Fullering Tool Fullering Tool
protractor? What is the accuracy of the
384. What is the main advantage of ad- Vernier Bevel Protractor?
justable parallel block? What is the A. 1◦
main purpose of the adjustment horizon-
B. 5◦
tal block? Why do surface plates are
made of good quality cast iron that reduces C. 5’
stress? D. 5”
A. To SET DIFFERENT ANGLE to set a dif-
389. Brinelling of a bearing is
ferent angle
A. shallow smooth depressions caused
B. To SET DIFFERENT DEPTH to set a dif-
by the rollers being forced against the cup,
ferent length
due to overtorquing
C. To SET DIFFERENT LENGTH to set a dif-
B. blueing of the bearing due to overheat-
ferent length
ing
D. To set Different height to set different
C. indentations in the race surface
height
caused by continual static vibration
385. Heavy Duty Work for Heavy Grinding D. none of above
MachineWhich grinding machine is used for
heavy duty work? 390. What ‘h ‘denotes in the specifications
of Grinding Wheel 32A46H8V? What
A. Bench Grinder Bench Grinder
does ‘H’ indicate the Grinding Wheel
B. Portable Grinder Portable Grinder 32A46H8V specifications?
C. Pedestal grinder pedestal grinder A. Grain size grain size
D. Surface grinder surface grinder B. Type of abrasive abrasive type

386. Which tool is used to check the internal C. Grade grade

clearance of the bearing? Which tool is D. Structure structure

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9.4 Welded and Riveted Joints 1259

391. Unused holes in an electrical multi-pin B. Preventive Maintenance Prevention

connector should be Management

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A. fitted with pins C. Repairing Activity Repair activities
B. fitted with blanks D. Inspection Activity Checking Activities
C. left open
396. Which Type Of Filler Rod Issed In Gas
D. none of above WeldingWhat type of fill rod is used in
stainless steel gas welding?
392. Select the spindle speed (rpm) for H.S.S
drill dia 24 mm and cutting speed (V) = 30 A. Pure aluminum pure aluminum
m/min to drill mild steel? B. Copper silver alloy copper silver mix-
A. 275 rpm ture
B. 300 rpm C. Columbium stainless steel Colombium
C. 400 rpm stainless steel

D. 450 rpm D. Copper coated mild steel copper

coated mild steel
393. A welded joint as compared to a riveted
joint has strength. 397. Which file has the parallel edges through-
out the length? Which file length does it
A. same
have horizontal edges across?
B. less
A. Hand file hand file
C. more
B. Bastard file bastard file
D. none of above
C. RASP CUT FILE RASP Cut File
394. (8172) When bending metal, the mate- D. Single Cut file single cut file
rial on the outside of the curve stretches
while the material on the inside of the 398. Name the Part Marked as ‘x ‘of the
curve compresses. That part of the mate- file.Name the part identified as the ‘X’ of
rial which is not affected by either stress the file.
is the
A. Heel heel
A. mold line.
B. Edge edge
B. bend tangent line.
C. Ferrule Ferrul
C. neutral line.
D. Shoulder shoulder
D. none of above

395. What is the name of activity carried out 399. Whose file is used for manufacturing of
to prevent break down of Machinery in dies and molds? Which file is used for the
basic maintenance? What is the opera- manufacture of dies and molds?
tional name that is managed to prevent A. Rotary file rotary file
machinery from breaking up in basic man-
B. Tinkers file rotary file
agement?
C. Barrettte File Barrett File
A. Routine Maintenance General Manage-
ment D. Rasp cut file rasp cut file

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 9.5 Friction Clutches 1260

400. (8166) Unless otherwise specified, the D. Helical Fluted Reamer Helic Flute Re-
radius of a bend is the mark
A. inside radius of the metal being 402. What Is The Angle Of Holding The Soft
formed. Metal For Soft Metal? The angle of grab-
B. inside radius plus one-half the thick- bing scrapers for soft metal
ness of the metal being formed. A. 30◦
C. radius of the neutral axis plus one-half B. 60◦

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the thickness of the metal being formed. C. 40◦
D. none of above D. 20◦

401. Which reamer has a long taper lead? In 403. Where would you disconnect a chain?
which membrane is the long tapper lead? A. At a bolted joint.
A. Socket Reamer Socket Remark B. At a spring clip joint.
B. HAND REAMER HAND REmer C. At an riveted joint.
C. Machine Reamer Machine Remark D. none of above

9.5 Friction Clutches

1. Which of these clutch actuation systems 4. Setting the correct amount of play in the
is mostly used in medium and heavy duty linkage between the foot pedal is
trucks?
A. Friction facing
A. Hydraulic actuation systems
B. Clutch adjustment
B. Air assisted hydraulic actuation sys-
tems C. Disconnecting the engine
C. Centrifugal D. Transmission adjustment
D. Mechanical linkage
5. The pressure plate is connected to:
2. What type of clutch has longer wear, will
take more heat, and less release distance A. The flywheel

A. Organic clutches B. The clutch plate

B. Ceramic/Metallic clutches C. The gearbox
C. Multi-disc clutches D. Non of the options are correct
D. none of above
6. The Clutch is able to operate because of
3. Which of the following carries consider- the force called
able inertia as they rotate?
A. Tension
A. Clutch brakes
B. Flywheels B. Friction

C. Friction Discs C. Magnetic

D. Spring clutches D. Gravity

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9.5 Friction Clutches 1261

7. The following is not a Friction clutch 12. Clutch is the amount of torque a clutch
A. (A) Fluid clutch can transmit before it starts to slip.

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A. Capacity
B. (B) Centrifugal clutch
B. Force
C. (C) Cone clutch
C. Energy
D. (D) Disc clutch
D. Torque
E. (Ans:A)
13. Brake is used to the energy possessed
8. What part bolts to the rear of engine; en- by a moving system or mechanism by
closes clutch components. Transmission means of friction.
bolts to the back.
A. A Release
A. throw out bearing
B. B Minimize
B. pressure plate
C. C Maximize
C. flywheel
D. D Absorb
D. clutch housing
E. D Absorb
9. Which of the following pull-type clutches 14. The relative resistance to motion between
uses coaxial springs working against any two bodies in contact with one an-
levers that can reduce clutch pedal effort other is called
by 50%?
A. Clamp force
A. Coil spring style
B. Running Clearance
B. Cone type
C. Coefficient of friction
C. Angle spring style
D. Friction
D. Diaphragm spring type
15. An internal expanding shoe brake is mainly
10. What type of brake is a type of transmis- used in
sion shaft brake geared to one counter-
A. A Hoist
shaft?
B. B Conveyor
A. conventional clutch
C. C Vehicle
B. Torque-limiting clutch
D. D All of the above
C. upshift
E. D All of the above
D. inertia
16. What is clutch shudder? Chose the best
11. Installing a new clutch, you should: option.
A. Put grease on the gearbox input shaft A. It’s when the music in the car is too
B. Put enough grease on the gearbox in- loud.
put shaft B. It’s a vibration
C. Put light cote special grease on the C. It’s a vibration when you press the
gearbox input shaft clutch
D. Put no grease on the gearbox input D. It’s a vibration when you release the
shaft clutch

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9.5 Friction Clutches 1262

17. Which of these is responsible for providing 22. What are the two types of pressure
a channel to transfer torque from engine plates?
to the back of front clutch disc and front A. coil spring
of the rear clutch disc?
B. diaphragm spring
A. Splines
C. torsion spring
B. Clutch cover
D. extension spring
C. Clutch fork

NARAYAN CHANGDER
23. The Purpose of a is to smooth out
D. Intermediate plate
vibrations from the crankshaft assembly
18. What part bolted to crankshaft, smooth and provide one of the friction surfaces
iron face, wears well and dissipates heat for a clutch disc used on manual transmis-
sions/transaxle applications.
A. throw out bearing
A. Travel Damper
B. pressure plate
B. Drive Pin
C. flywheel
C. Pilot Bearing
D. clutch housing
D. Flywheel
19. Tech A says that a limiting torque clutch 24. The diaphragm spring clutch creates clamp
brake is designed to assist in upshifts. load with the use of a spring pushing
Tech B says that a limiting torque clutch on the pressure plate .
brake is also called an upshift brake for
this reason. Who is correct? A. Double diaphragm
A. Tech A B. Straight coaxial

B. Tech B C. Single diaphragm

C. Both tech A and Tech B D. Single Coil

D. Neither Tech A nor Tech B 25. The basic purpose of a clutch is to connect
two rotating
20. Which of these acts upon the servo piston
A. Clutch
to move the cross shift lever in the air as-
sisted hydraulic actuation systems? B. Flywheel
A. pedal C. Brakes
B. Slave cylinder D. Shafts

C. Air pressure 26. The following factor(s) contribute to the

D. Master cylinder effectiveness of the brakes
A. (A) Area of brake linings
21. What are the clutch release mechanisms?
B. (B) Radius of car wheel
A. linkage
C. (C) Amount of pressure applied to shoe
B. cable brakes
C. hydraulic D. (D) All of the above
D. ceramic E. (Ans:D)

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9.5 Friction Clutches 1263

27. What part is a lever that forces the release 31. Which of the following is used to nullify
bearing into pressure plate the difference in the speed between the ro-
tating gear and the stationary main shaft

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A. throw out bearing
in pull-type clutches?
B. pressure plate
A. intermediate plates
C. flywheel
B. Pilot bearings
D. clutch fork
C. Clutch brake
28. Internal and External expanding shoe D. housings
brakes are
32. What is clutch slippage?
A. A Axial brakes
A. A:It’s when power is not transferred
B. B Radial brakes to the wheels
C. C Both (A) and (B) B. B:It’s when you release the clutch
D. D None of the above C. Only A
E. B Radial brakes D. Both A and B

29. Which of the following statements is NOT 33. The release fork in a pull type clutch is
correct concerning a conventional clutch what shape?
brake?
A. U shape
A. The conventional clutch brake is a solid
B. cone-shaped
piece of metal with friction material on ei-
ther side. C. Straight
B. To install a conventional clutch brake, D. “pot” shaped
the transmission must be removed
34. Which of these is not a type of clutch?
C. Aftermarket versions of this brake are
made in a two piece design that allows A. Single disc
them to be replaced without removing the B. Conical
transmission.
C. Centrifugal
D. An oxyacetylene torch is not recom-
mended to remove this type of clutch D. Cylindrical
brake. E. Cylindrical

30. The mechanical brakes are operated by 35. When brakes are applied on a moving ve-
means of hicle; the kinetic energy is converted to
A. (A) levers A. (A) Mechanical energy
B. (B) bell cranks B. (B) Heat energy
C. (C) cams C. (C) Electrical energy
D. (D) all of the above D. (D) Potential energy
E. (Ans:D) E. (Ans:B)

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9.5 Friction Clutches 1264

36. When discussing basic types of clutches 41. The Eaton two-pedal ultra shift transmis-
used in the medium-and heavy duty com- sion system was the first on the market
mercial vehicle industry, Tech A says the that did not use a traditional clutch
two basic types are pull-type and push- linkage.
type. Tech B says a push-type clutch al- A. brake
lows the use of a clutch brake to slow and
stop the transmission gearing. Who is cor- B. pedal
rect? C. actuator

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Tech A D. disc
B. Tech B 42. The provides a mechanical coupling be-
C. Both Tech A and Tech B tween the engines output shaft and the
D. Neither Tech A nor Tech B transmissions input shaft.
A. Disengaged
37. In disc brake, the disc is attached to the
B. Friction
A. (A) wheel
C. shaft
B. (B) axle
D. Clutch
C. (C) suspension system
D. (D) none of the above 43. The energy absorbed by the brake is
E. (Ans:B) A. A Potential energy
B. B Kinetic energy
38. The braking torque depends upon
A. A Final velocity of the system C. C both (A) and (B)

B. B Initial velocity of the system D. D None of the above

C. C The mass of the system E. C both (A) and (B)

D. D All of the above 44. Calculate the braking torque if tension in

E. D All of the above the two sides is 3500N and 1980N with
radius of drum being 160mm.
39. The force required to stop a vehicle is de- A. a) None of the mentioned
pendent on
B. b) 243.20N-m
A. (A) the weight of vehicle
C. c) 223.4N-m
B. (B) the deceleration rate
D. d) 278.6N-m
C. (C) both (A) and (B)
E. Answer:bExplanation:Braking torque=(3500-
D. (D) None of the above
1980)x160/1000.
E. (Ans:C)
45. What type of clutch is used in heavy duty
40. Band brakes require maintenance. applications, longer wearing, able to take
A. Little more slipping without over heating
B. Zero A. Organic clutches
C. Much B. Ceramic/Metallic clutches
D. None of the listed C. Multi-disc clutches
E. Little D. none of above

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9.5 Friction Clutches 1265

46. A cone clutch consists of inner conical sur- 51. The “POT” type flywheel designs, the in-
face and outer cylindrical surface. termediate plate is driven by installed
in the flywheel itself.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Both cylindrical
A. drive pins
B. Both conical
B. pilot bearings
C. Outer conical and inner cylindrical
C. stop pins
D. True
D. release pins
E. Both conical
52. The clutch allows the engine to while
47. For anticlockwise rotation of brake drum the vehicle has stopped.
in block brake, the actuating force or brak-
ing effort is that of clockwise direction. A. Go faster
B. Go slower
A. A More than
C. Disengaged
B. B Less than
D. Engaged
C. C Equal to
D. D Any of the above 53. Hydraulic brakes function on the principle
of
E. A More than
A. Law of conservation of momentum
48. The clutch release bearing is also called the B. Law of conservation of energy
bearing.
C. Pascal’s law
A. Taper
D. None of the above
B. Roller
E. Pascal’s law
C. Thrust
54. What type of clutch has a higher coefficient
D. Throw out of friction, low pressure plate pressure,
lower clutch pedal pressure, smoother op-
49. Double block brake is a type of
eration
A. Band brake
A. Organic clutches
B. Internal expanding shoe brake
B. Ceramic/Metallic clutches
C. Shoe brake
C. Multi-disc clutches
D. None of the above D. none of above
E. Shoe brake
55. In internal expanding shoe brake, the ac-
50. Engine are caused by the acceleration tuating force is usually provided by means
of the engine crankshaft that occurs on of
each cylinder firing. A. A A hydraulic cylinder
A. Torsional vibrations B. B A cam mechanism
B. Firing pulses C. C both (A) and (B)
C. Shaft speeds D. D None of the above
D. Revolutions per minute (RPM) E. C both (A) and (B)

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 9.6 Belt, Rope and Chain Drives 1266

56. What part is a spring loaded device, A. Tech A

locks/unlocks disc and flywheel B. Tech B
A. throw out bearing C. Both tech A and tech B
B. pressure plate D. Neither tech A nor tech B
C. flywheel
61. The following is not a drum brake
D. clutch housing
A. (A) External contracting brake

NARAYAN CHANGDER
57. was banned from use in Friction ma- B. (B) Internal expanding brake
terials in North America due to its health
C. (C) Disc brake
effects.
D. (D) All of the above
A. carbon
E. (Ans:C)
B. brass fiber
C. rubber 62. The brake drum is made of
D. asbestos A. A Aluminium
B. B Steel
58. You should replace a clutch if the:
C. C Cast iron
A. A:Friction surface is worn down
D. D All of the above
B. B:The dampening springs are loose
E. D All of the above
C. C:Center portion is loose
63. What part reduces friction between clutch
D. All options A, B & C are correct
fork and pressure plate?
59. A clutch has: A. throw out bearing
A. One friction plate B. pressure plate
B. Has two friction plates C. flywheel
C. Can have more than two friction plates D. clutch housing
D. All options A, B & C are possible 64. What is the reason for having a clutch in a
60. Tech A says that a larger piston should be vehicle?
used in the slave cylinder, as opposed to A. To transfer the blue tooth to the driver
the master cylinder, of a hydraulic actu- B. To transfer power to the driver
ation systems to have mechanical advan-
tage. Tech B says that ideally, the piston in C. To transfer electrical energy to the
the master cylinder should be larger than gearbox
that of the slave cylinder of a hydraulic ac- D. To transfer power from the engine to
tuation system. Who is correct? the gearbox.

9.6 Belt, Rope and Chain Drives

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9.6 Belt, Rope and Chain Drives 1267

1. power transmitted by the belt, if T1 and A. T0 = (T1-T2)/2

T2 are the tensions in tight and slack sides B. T0 = (T1+T2) /2
and V is the velocity of the belt is given

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

by C. T0 = (T1-T2) x 2
A. (T1-T2)/V D. T0=(T1+T2) x 2
B. (T1-T2)V 7. Crowning of a pulley is done to
C. (T1/T2)V A. Prevent the slipping of a belt
D. (T2/T1)V B. To increase the tension of a belt

2. Spur Gears are used for connecting two C. To increase the angle of contact
D. None of the above
A. Parallel and Coplanar Shafts 8. The stress Produced on the belt is
B. Non Parallel and Coplanar Shafts A. Tensile
C. Parallel and non coplanar Shafts B. Compressive
D. Intersecting and Coplanar Shafts C. Shear
3. In which of the following drives, there is D. Bending
no slip
9. In a cone pulley if the sum of radii of the
A. Open belt drive pulleys on the driving and driven shaft is
B. Crossed belt drive constant then
C. Rope drive A. open belt drive is recommended
D. Chain drive B. cross belt drive is recommended

4. what is the most common type of gear C. Both open and cross belt drive is rec-
used ommended

A. Bevel gear D. The drive is recommended depending

up on the torque transmitted
B. Helical gear
C. Spur gear 10. in open belt drive usually the tight side is
at the
D. none of the above
A. bottom
5. The extension and contraction of the belt B. top
due to relative difference in tension in the
tight and slack sides is called C. side

A. slip D. can be either top or bottom

B. creep 11. The standard pressure angle of a spur gear

C. tilt is

D. sag A. 1.25 degree

B. 8 degree
6. The initial tension (T0) in a belt is given
byWhere T1=Tension on tight side of belt C. 14.5 degree
driveT2=Tension on slack side of belt drive D. 35 degree

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9.6 Belt, Rope and Chain Drives 1268

12. Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio C. 20 degree to 30 degree
of the belt drive D. 50 degree to 60 degree
A. Decreases
18. The ratio of the driving tensions for v belts
B. Increases
is times that of flat belts.
C. Does not change
A. sin$
D. None of the above
B. cos$
13. A number of gears connected together are

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. cosec$
called
D. sec$
A. Gear system
B. Gear tram 19. Which of the following is not true about
C. Gear train gear drives.

D. Worm gear A. Positive drive

B. Constant velocity ratio
14. the centrifugal tension in belts
C. Transmit large power
A. increases power transmitted up to a
certain speed and then decreases D. Bulky construction
B. Have no effect on the power transmit-
20. most important material with which flat
ted
belts are made of is
C. decreases power transmitted
A. balatta
D. increases power transmitted
B. copper
15. velocity ratio of a belt drive is the ratio of C. leather
A. drive speed to driven speed
D. nylon
B. number of teeth on driver pulley to
numbe of teeth on driven pulley 21. The Power transmitted by a belt drive
isWhere T1 and T2 are tensions in tight
C. driven diameter to driver diameter
and slack side respectivelyN-speed, V-
D. speed of driven pulley to speed of Velocity
driver pulley
A. (T1-T2) x N
16. material used for belts which is acid proof B. (T1 + T2) x N
and water proof and it is not effected by
animal oil or aikalies C. (T1-T2) / V
A. nylon D. (T1-T2 ) x V
B. teflon 22. Which type of gears are used to convert
C. balatta rotation in to linear motion
D. leather A. Rack and pinion gears
17. The included angle for V-belt is B. Bevel gears
A. 30 degree to 40 degree C. Spur gears
B. 40 degree to 50 degree D. None of these

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9.6 Belt, Rope and Chain Drives 1269

23. for transmitting power without slip which C. Triangle

one of the following drives is used D. Circular

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A. Belt drive
29. when two pulleys of different diameters
B. Chain drive are connected by means of an open belt
C. Rope drive drive then the angle of contact taken in to
D. cone pulley consideration should be of the
A. Larger pulley
24. which type of gear has teeth that are cut
at an angle to the face of the gear B. Smaller pulley

A. bevel gear C. Average of the two pulley

B. Helical gear D. none of the above

C. Spur gear 30. chain drive use

D. None of these A. Spur gears

25. Which one of the following types of gears B. Sprockets

can have teeth that are stright spiral or C. Worm gears
hypoid D. idler gear
A. Bevel gear
31. The distance between the hinge centre of
B. Helical gear
a link and the corresponding hinge centre
C. Spur gear of the adjacent link of a chain is called
D. None of these A. Pitch of the chain

26. Which type of gear would you use if a B. Bush roller chain
large gear reduction is required C. Block chain
A. Hypoid gear D. none of the above
B. Rack and pinion
32. In which power transmitting drive polygon
C. Worm gear effect is observed
D. None of these A. Chain drive

27. The relative movement of the belt with re- B. belt drive
spect to the pulley due to lower friction is C. gear drive
called
D. Pulley drive
A. slip
33. An open driving belt will cause two pulleys
B. sag
to turn in the same direction .what effect
C. hog will a crossed driving belt have on two pul-
D. creep leys
A. A crossed driving belt will cause two
28. The cross section of V-belt is pulleys to turn in opposite directions
A. Rectangular B. A crossed driving belt will cause two
B. Trapezoidal pulleys to turn in same directions

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 9.7 Bearings 1270

C. A crossed driving belt will cause two A. equal to centrifugal tension

pulleys to cancel each other out B. twice the centrifugal tension
D. none of these
C. thrice the centrifugal tension
34. In a V belt the belt makes contact at D. four times centrifugal tension
A. the bottom of the pulley
36. The type of belt drive in which the driven
B. sides of the groove of the pulley
and driving pulleys rotate in opposite di-
C. sides of the groove and bottom of the rection is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
pulley
A. open belt drive
D. could make contact anywhere
B. cross belt drive
35. FOR maximum power transmitted by belt
the maximum permissible tension in the C. belt drive with guide pulley
belt is D. belt drive with idler pulley

9.7 Bearings
1. The four basic components of a plain bear- 4. Which steel has been heat treated to in-
ing assembly are:bearing, bearing housing, crease its strength?
, and lubricant. (Page 9) A. Cold rolled steel
A. Sleeve B. Stainless steel
B. Race C. Hardened Steel
C. Journal
D. Chrome plated steel
D. Cone
5. is a relatively soft material.
2. If you have ever used a library, you ought
A. Aluminum
to be thankful that all of its materials are
classified into specific categories. If there B. Steel
were no system for the arrangement of all C. Bronze
the books, maps, and other materials, you
D. Babbitt
might have to spend many hours looking
for the item you wanted. classified means: 6. Sintered bronze bearings require
A. discovered (Page 15)
B. examined A. Grease lubrication
C. desired B. Oil lubrication for an oil cup
D. organized C. Soaking the bearing in oil before instal-
lation
3. Anti-friction Bearings are commonly called
D. No additional lubrication
A. ‘rolling element’ bearings
B. roller bearings 7. People who repair watches, cameras, med-
ical equipment, or other precision instru-
C. ball bearings ments need to have a high level of skill
D. Shell bearing and attention to detail. Such work has to

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9.7 Bearings 1271

be done with great exactness and accord- 12. The manufacturer of ball bearings will
ing to professional standards.precision A. precisely machine the external faces if
means:

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

the bearing is to be installed in a double,
A. electronic or duplex,
B. showing skill B. precisely machine the internal faces if
the bearing is to be installed in a double,
C. requiring accuracy
or duplex,
D. very small
C. precisely machine the internal faces
8. The lubrication system requires a great but not if the bearing is to be installed in
deal of space. a double, or duplex,
A. Spray D. precisely machine the external faces
but not if the bearing is to be installed in
B. Oil can a double, or duplex,
C. Oil bath splash
13. During start-up of an engine,
D. Grease
A. the journal surface may float over the
9. Shaft clearance in a plain bearing installa- bearing metal and friction will be rela-
tion is the (Page 46) tively low.
A. Difference between bearing runout B. This should be the only time that wear
and bearing end play does not occur in the bearing.
B. Difference between the shaft diameter C. the journal surface may rest on the
and the bearing bore bearing metal and friction will be rela-
tively high.
C. Distance from the shaft to any fixed ob-
ject D. none of above
D. Difference between the maximum 14. Diametrical clearance is minimal in aircraft
shaft diameter and the minimum shaft bearings,
diameter
A. and rarely exceeds 0.003 thousandths
10. bearings are constructed from fine of an inch, dependent on bearing size and
metal particles. use.

A. Bronze B. Within the clearance, no lubricant is

maintained while the shaft is moving.
B. Aluminum
C. ensure friction is reduced to only that
C. Babbitt present in the backlash itself
D. Sintered metal D. wear always occurs in the bearing.
11. Journal bearings are designed to be used 15. A popular type of glove for doing heavy-
for loads. duty work is one that is made of leather
A. Horizontal and lined with cotton. Leather gives good
protection to the hands from cuts and
B. Vertical burns, while cotton keeps the hands cool
C. Radial and comfortable.lined means:
D. Axial A. crowded

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9.7 Bearings 1272

B. manufactured C. in any application where a narrow

C. covered inside bearing is required, which is capable of
withstanding high speeds and operating
D. closed up with very low friction drag.
16. Anti-friction Bearings are grouped as anti- D. bearing heavy oscillating loads which
friction bearings due to would reduce stress at the tiny area on
A. their ability to almost entirely elimi- which the bearing presses into the race.
nate friction.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. The rotating hour and minute hands of a
B. Can not withstand occilation clock indicate the time of day. rotating
C. Run hotter than plain bearings means:
D. none of above A. moving slowly
17. Which of the following is NOT a component B. lengthening and shortening
of a sliding contact bearing?
C. digital
A. Housing
D. going around a central point
B. Bushing
C. Retainer 22. Standard types of rolling element bearings
you may expect to see on aircraft are:
D. Oil Inlet
A. Roller
18. In a pressure feed system, oil is pumped
from a(n) B. Ball
A. Sump C. Helical
B. Oil well D. Sleeve
C. Oil can
23. When inspecting and troubleshooting a
D. Valvoline container
plain bearing system it is best to use an aid
19. When the moving parts of a machine come such as a table that lists faults and proba-
into contact with one another, there is fric- ble causes plus (Page 54)
tion. To reduce this wear as much as pos- A. Machine number
sible, it is important to make sure that oil
or grease is applied to all the moving parts. B. Lubrication type
Regular lubrication of the machine will en- C. Corrective action
sure a longer life.lubrication means:
D. Temperature variations
A. moving
B. oiling or greasing 24. bearing function is to support and guide a
C. wearing movingmachine member with a minimum .
D. operation A. friction

20. Ball bearings are used in B. thrust

A. accessory drives, C. reaction

B. gearing, D. action

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9.7 Bearings 1273

25. Roller-contact bearings are of two kinds- A. Multiple

ball bearings and roller bearings. Ball B. Coated
bearings are probably the most common

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

kind of bearings. They are usually found C. Angular
in light precision machinery where high D. Split
speeds are maintained. Ball bearings are
a kind of bearing. 30. In a type 1 plain bearing (bronze), the
term “Type 1” refers to the oil inside
A. roller the bearing.
B. plain A. Velocity
C. roller-contact B. Type
D. sliding C. Groove
26. Which of the following is a typical sign of D. Temperature
bearing failure?
31. Before the 1990s, TV viewers in the Gulf
A. Increase in machine efficiency States had only a few choices of channels
B. Increase in machine speed to watch. Each country generally had just
its own, government-run station. In 1991,
C. Increase in operating temperature
satellite TV transmission was introduced
D. Increase in load bearing capacity to the region and immediately became pop-
ular. Later, governments began to give li-
27. The film is designed to completely sepa-
censes for private TV stations. Nowadays,
rate the moving surfaces to ensure
there are numerous choices of channels for
A. friction is reduced to only that present TV viewers.numerous means
in the lubricant itself, and also to cushion
A. limited in number
shock loadings.
B. very many
B. friction is reduced to only contact fric-
tion, and also to cushion shock loadings. C. regional
C. friction is reduced to only compression D. local
friction, and also to cushion shock load-
32. Plain bearings operate on the principle of
ings.
sliding friction. They are sometimes called
D. friction is reduced to only impact fric- “fluid film” or sliding bearings because
tion, and also to cushion shock loadings. they support moving parts on a thin film
of oil.Plain bearings use to reduce fric-
28. A hot bearing is usually a sign of a bearing tion and wear.
in
A. cylindrical rollers
A. Distress
B. lubricated balls
B. Failure
C. tapered rollers
C. Misalignment
D. a fluid film
D. The hot desert
33. Grease is compromised of:
29. Plain bearings are divided into two gen-
eral categories:Solid bearings and A. Mineral Oil only
bearings. B. Mixture of mineral oil and soap

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9.7 Bearings 1274

C. Mixture of synthetic oil and soap 39. Which of the following is NOT a reason for
D. Mixture of Fish & Vegetable Oils bearing failure?
A. Contamination
34. Which shaft material has to be used in food
industry for better corrosion resistance? B. Cooling
A. Cold rolled steel C. Lack of Lubrication
B. Stainless steel D. Spalling
C. Hardened steel

NARAYAN CHANGDER
40. In a Ball bearing
D. Chrome plated steel A. The outer ring may have an external
35. Plain bearings are used only where ax- groove for a snap-ring to retain it in its
ial loads are present. installed position.
A. Split B. The outer corners may be chamfered
to aid installation.
B. Thrust
C. Internally, the races may be especially
C. Ball
deep grooved to take thrust/radial load
D. Linear combinations.
36. The function of bearing is to support and D. Part numbers and other identifying
guide a movingmachine member with a marks will usually be found ground or
minimum etched on the outer race face,
A. friction E. Shields, or seals, can NOT be fitted to
B. thrust the races to retain lubricant and protect
the bearing from contamination.
C. reaction
D. action 41. Oil can lubrication is used to apply oil di-
rectly on the components or into a(n)
37. Plain bearing maintenance includes check-
A. oil cup
ing for dirt, the best solution is usually to
remove the source of the dirt or (Page B. Component
51) C. Reservoir
A. Use a different type of bearing D. Soda
B. Use detergent oil
42. The average service life of sidewalks in
C. Flush and clean daily
Canada is 20-40 years and mainly de-
D. Slow the shaft down pends on the geographic location and qual-
ity of the construction. Especially when
38. Rolling element beatings offer a number
and where climate and soil conditions are
of advantages over plain bearings as fol-
severe, sidewalks become more easily de-
lows:
formed. They may show signs of sinking,
A. they have very high starting faction rising, and cracking, all of which make a
B. they carry heavy loads sidewalk less practical and safe.deformed
means:
C. they are suitable where reversing or
oscillating movements occur A. improved in shape
D. they run hotter than plain bearings B. incorrectly formed

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9.7 Bearings 1275

C. dangerous D. none of above

D. beautiful 48. A common source of vibration in a plain

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43. Fatigue resistance is the ability of the bear- bearing is a bent
ing material to withstand repeated appli- A. Ball
cation of
B. Sleeve
A. Stress
C. Shaft
B. Oil
D. Race
C. Grease
D. Paint 49. The load carrying ability of a plain bearing
material can be expressed as a(n)
44. When specifying plain bearings there are A. PC Factor
typically four features described:the man-
ufacturers code, bore, outside diameter, B. PA Factor
and (Page 28) C. PD Factor
A. Shape D. PV Factor
B. Tolerance
50. A bearing is a part of a machine that holds
C. Porosity or guides moving parts. Bearings support
D. Length a load exerted on them and reduce friction
and wear by enabling rotating or sliding
45. Which of the following is NOT a typical rea- parts to move smoothly.Bearings would
son for use of lubrication? not likely be found in
A. Reduce friction A. a cabinet with sliding drawers
B. Temperature Control B. an electric motor
C. Reduce Corrosion C. a washing machine
D. Reduce Machine Speed D. an electric oven
46. When selecting a plain bearing lubrication 51. When selecting a plain bearing for a given
system, a general rule of thumb is heav- installation, the first step is to calculate
ier oils or grease are recommended for the factor. (Page 37)
(Page 25)
A. P, P, and V
A. High loads and low speeds
B. P, V, and PV
B. Low loads and low speeds
C. V, V, and VP
C. High loads and high speeds
D. Dia x length
D. High speeds and high loads
52. radial or side load acts in a direction that
47. Bearings within the clearance,
is to the shaft
A. a film of lubricant is maintained while
A. perpendicular
the shaft is moving.
B. No lubricant is required B. near

C. Will wear out quicker which protects C. parallel

other components D. around

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9.7 Bearings 1276

53. The best way to install a plain bearing in B. Absorb

a bearing housing is using (Page 16) C. Clean
A. A hammer D. Smash
B. A bearing heater
58. Plain bearings operate on the principle of
C. An arbor press sliding friction. They are sometimes called
D. A drill press “fluid film” or sliding bearings because
they support moving parts on a thin film of

NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. is used where full-film lubrication is oil.Roller-contact bearings operate on the
not possible. principle of rolling friction. These bearings
A. Oil make use of the rolling motion between
parts, which reduces friction better than
B. Plastic plain bearings do.Plain bearings and roller-
C. Grease contact bearings mainly differ in the
D. Seals A. type of lubrication they use
B. speeds at which they operate
55. Roller-contact bearings, the other major
type of bearings, operate on the principle C. method by which they reduce friction
of rolling friction. These bearings make D. amount of load they bear
use of the rolling motion between parts,
which reduces friction better than plain 59. bearings, sometimes called ways or
bearings do.Other advantages these bear- guides, provide a bearing surface for mech-
ings have over the plain type are that anisms that move in a straight line.
they can operate at high speeds and are A. Deep grooved ball
easy to lubricate.Roller-contact bearings
B. Angular ball
are more efficient at reducing friction than
plain bearings because of the C. Linear
A. rolling motion between parts D. Compressed
B. heavier loads they support 60. Roller-contact bearings, the other major
C. less lubrication they require type of bearings, operate on the principle
of rolling friction. These bearings make
D. higher speeds they operate at use of the rolling motion between parts,
56. the major components of a standard ball which reduces friction better than plain
bearing are the: bearings do.Other advantages these bear-
ings have over the plain type are that they
A. outer ring, or race can operate at high speeds and are easy
B. Inner ring, or race to lubricate.Among the four choices below,
the one that is NOT mentioned in the arti-
C. rolling elements
cle as an advantage of roller-contact bear-
D. retainer ings over plain bearings is that they
E. Cashed bearing A. can be lubricated more easily
57. Embeddability is the ability of the bearing B. operate more quietly
lining material to slight dirt particles. C. can operate at higher speeds
A. Resist D. are better at reducing friction

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9.7 Bearings 1277

61. Which of the following is NOT a typical inner ring of a ball bearing and fits into
characteristic of a lubricating oil? the

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Neutralization Number A. separator
B. Viscosity Index B. outer ring
C. Oxygen concentration C. cage
D. Pour Point D. bore
62. Sir Isaac Newton’s famous principle of ac- 65. Iron is the most used of all metals, making
tion and reaction explains equally what up 95% of all the metal produced world-
drives the flight of an inflated balloon wide. When iron is mixed with certain
around the room when you let go of its small amounts of carbon (a non-metal),
neck as well as that of a rocket into space. steel is formed. Steel is said to be an al-
The force that is exerted by gases escap- loy of iron and carbon. Alloys are man-
ing from the base of each pushes them for- ufactured to improve on the properties
ward in an equal and opposite reaction to of their components. Steel is, in fact,
the escape of the gases.exerted means: stronger than iron, and it therefore has
A. applied many uses.alloy means:
B. lost A. small amount of metal
C. wasted B. component of a metal
D. expanded C. property of a metal

63. Ball Bearings are D. mixture of a metal and non-metal

A. finely machined tapers of surface- 66. A bearing is a device that reduces be-
hardened steel roll within inner and outer tween two surfaces while supporting a
rings. load. (Page 8)
B. finely machined discs of surface- A. Heat build up
hardened steel roll within inner and outer
B. Friction
rings.
C. Torque
C. finely machined balls of surface-
hardened steel roll within inner and outer D. Vibration
rings.
67. Jafar buys Turkish coffee from a specialty
D. none of above shop. He selects the coffee beans he
wants and then has them ground into pow-
64. A ball bearing consists of two rings with a
der.powder means:
number of balls fitted between them. The
balls are held in place by metal rings called A. fine particles
“separators.” The space between the 40 B. coffee
inner ring and the outer ring is called the
“cage.” The opening of the inner ring is C. coffee beans
called the “bore.” Ball bearings are made D. supply
in many different sizes to suit the shaft di-
ameters of different machines. The shaft 68. Radial load acts in a direction that is
must fit exactly into the bore of the bear- to the shaft
ing.The shaft of a machine is held by the A. perpendicular

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9.7 Bearings 1278

B. near C. Fixed bearings, floating bearings, uni-

C. parallel versal bearings

D. around D. Single, duplex, triple

73. The PV factor in a plain bearing material

69. A ball bearing consists of two rings with a
is an indication of its (Page 37)
number of balls fitted between them. The
balls are held in place by metal rings called A. Thermal conductivity
“separators.” The space between the in- B. Fatigue resistance

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ner ring and the outer ring is called the
C. Corrosion resistance
“cage.” The opening of the inner ring is
called the “bore.” Ball bearings are made D. Load carrying ability
in many different sizes to suit the shaft di-
74. Some plain bearings used for low speeds
ameters of different machines. The shaft
and light loads need no lubrication be-
must fit exactly into the bore of the bear-
cause they are made of plastic and have
ing.In separator outer ring cage bore a ball
non-metallic linings. There are also self-
bearing, the cage is the
lubricating bearings made of compressed
A. part that does not move and heated metal powder that are used in
B. space between the inner and outer the electric motors of vacuum cleaners and
rings other home appliances.If a plain bearing is
made of plastic or has a non-metallic lining,
C. opening of the inner ring
it is likely to
D. part that pumps lubricant beneath the
A. need little or no lubrication
shaft
B. be used for high speeds and heavy
70. Babbitt is an alloy of (Page 34) loads
A. Steel and copper C. be self-lubricating
B. Bronze, copper and lithium D. be oiled or greased
C. Tin, lead, and antimony 75. Citrus fruits (including oranges and grape-
D. Chromium, copper, and bronze fruit) are a $9 billion industry in the Ameri-
can state of Florida. Sometimes, however,
71. A(n) is a type of bearing system fault. freezing temperatures or hurricanes hit
A. Failed race the industry hard, ruining large amounts
of the crop and causing great economic
B. Misalignment
loss.ruining means
C. Bent shaft
A. planting
D. Knocking noise
B. increasing
72. The three types of plain bearings used in in- C. producing
dustry today are: , , and (Page D. destroying
5)
A. Flange bearings, Pillow Block bear- 76. A noise in a plain bearing is usually a sign
ings, Segmented bearings that the bearing is about to

B. Journal bearings, thrust bearings, lin- A. Go on strike

ear bearings B. Fail

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 9.8 Gears 1279

C. Engage commonly worn. In the 1980s and 1990s,

D. Stop tapered legs, which fit close to the ankle,
were popular. Nowadays, straight legs

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77. The purpose of the groove in a Type 1 bear- are widely preferred.tapered means:
ing is to (Page 13) A. widened
A. Reduce vibration at high speeds B. lengthened
B. Spread oil over the surface of the bear- C. narrowed
ing
D. straightened
C. Absorb heat from the lubricant
79. Plain bearings can accept misalign-
D. Provide an oil reserve within the bear- ment.
ing
A. Some
78. Preferences for different designs of pants B. A lot
change over time. In the 1960s and
1970s, “bell-bottoms, “ whose legs be- C. Very little
came wider from the knees down, were D. No

9.8 Gears
1. What will be the effect of using a 100mm 4. Which of the 3 things are the most impor-
drive gear connected to a 35mm driven tant?
gear. A. Levers
A. the rotational speed of the driven gear
B. Gears
will be faster than the drive gear
C. Pulleys
B. the moment of force on the driven gear
will be greater than on the drive gear D. All of it is important
C. both option 1 and option 2 E. All of it is not important
D. neither option one or option 2 5. Which one is not one of the 4 types of mo-
2. What are revolutions? tion?

A. Wars A. Rotary

B. Turns B. Linear

C. a band C. Recovery
D. ratio D. Reciprocating

3. A circular object that revolves with or 6. How much pulleys can be in the machine at
around an axle the same time?
A. Wheel A. 5
B. Axle B. 9
C. Force C. 1
D. Work D. can be any number

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9.8 Gears 1280

7. The driving gear is 2 times bigger than the 13. When you have a system with a driving
driven gear, this means that gear that is SMALLER than the driven gear
A. the driven gear moves 2 time faster you will decrease Speed and increase the

B. the driven gear moves 2 time slower

A. speed
C. the driving gear moves 2 time faster
D. the driving gear moves 2 time slower B. friction
C. Momentum

NARAYAN CHANGDER
8. What does “rpm” stands for?
D. Moment
A. running pretty much
B. right part manufacturer 14. A large driving gear will cause a smaller
C. revolutions per minute driven gear to
D. run per mile A. multiply the force

9. How is a sprocket gear different from a B. slow down

regular gear? C. speed up
A. They are a different shape.
D. none of above
B. They are many different sizes.
C. They have teeth that go into a chain. 15. What gear fits into another gear on an an-
gle.
D. none of above
A. spur gears
10. What is the formula to find the AMA of a
lever: B. bevel gear

A. AMA = Nout/Nin C. rack and pinion

B. AMA = FR/FE D. crown gear
C. AMA = DR/DE
16. The gear ratio can be calculated by
D. AMA = Wout/Win
A. comparing the number of teeth on
11. The most common gear is the gear with each gear
straight teeth, mounted parallel
B. how long the axel is that connects the
A. bevel gears
B. worm C. how small the driving gear is
C. spur
D. how big the driven gear is
D. idler
17. is a plane that has one end higher than
12. I am the name for more than one gear in a
the other.
line
A. An inclined plane
A. Gear line
B. Gear train B. A wedge
C. Gear chain C. A lever
D. Gear loop D. A screw

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9.8 Gears 1281

18. How many types of levers where covered 24. gears are used to transfer drive on a
in class? 90 degrees angle.

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A. 2 A. Bevel
B. 3 B. Rack and pinion
C. 4 C. Worm
D. 5 D. Compound

19. What must a pulley have 25. is a wheel with a groove for a rope
that is used for lifting.
A. a rope
A. A machine
B. chain
B. A fulcrum
C. string
C. A pulley
D. all the above
D. A wheel and axle
20. Gears roll over each with connecting set of
26. A force applied to a machine to do work

A. axels A. Effort

B. teeth B. Force
C. Axle
C. rollers
D. Load
D. wheels
27. A is a wheel with teeth that meshes
21. What do class 2 levers have in the mid-
with another similar gear that is typically
dle?
larger or smaller.
A. Effort
A. gear
B. Load B. tyre
C. Fulcrum C. pulley
D. none of above D. rack and opinion
22. Wheels with mating teeth can turn each 28. I use a wheel and a rope or belt to lift
other without loads.
A. slipping A. Gear
B. friction B. Pulley
C. gripping C. Lever
D. deteriorating D. Wedge
23. is an inclined plane wrapped around a 29. When 2 or more pulleys are working to-
pole. gether, it is called a
A. Work A. pulley train
B. A pulley B. pulley trolley
C. A screw C. pulley system
D. A fulcrum D. pulley wheel

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9.8 Gears 1282

30. Nutcracker is an example of 36. Gear wheels exert and forces on

each other when they are in contact
A. class 1
A. equal, perpendicular
B. class 2
B. different, opposite
C. class 3
C. equal, opposite
D. none of above
D. none of above
31. Which are examples of a pulley? 37. Scissors are an example of a

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. ramp, ladder A. class 1
B. axe, shovel B. class 2
C. drill, jar lids C. class 3
D. flagpole, crane D. none of above

38. What is the definition of a simple ma-

32. A push or a pull
chine?
A. Force A. A device with electricty
B. Friction B. A device that makes a physical task
C. Wheel harder

D. Effort C. A device that makes a physical task

easier
33. How do you measure effort? D. None of the above
A. Newtons 39. What is the correct equation for calculating
B. Meters a perpendicular distance?

C. Inches A. perpendicular distance = force x mo-

ment
D. none of above
B. perpendicular distance = force / mo-
34. Newton’s law states that for every action, ment
there is an reaction. C. perpendicular distance = moment /
force
A. unequal and opposite
D. none of above
B. equal and similar
40. PBL:How much pulleys did we use?
C. stronger and opposite
A. 1
D. equal and opposite
B. 2
35. How many Simple Machines are there? C. 0
A. 3 D. 4
B. 4 41. Which gear is in your bicycle?
C. 6 A. Drive gear.
D. 5 B. Bevel gear.

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9.8 Gears 1283

C. Spur gear. 47. When there is 2 or more gears working

D. Follow gear. together it is called a

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A. gear machine
42. Which type of gears are very common?
B. gear trolley
A. Wheel gears C. gear system
B. Round gears D. gear train
C. Tunnel gears
48. Spur Gears have
D. none of above
A. Teeth that go straight up and down
43. This is the amount of times a machine mul- when the gear lies flat; can change the
tiplies the effort force used. speed or direction of motion

A. Density B. No teeth they just slide into place

B. Resistance Force C. a sloped rim and the gear teeth are

also sloped
C. Mechanical Advantage
D. none of above
D. Centripetal Force
49. Which of the following decreases when an
44. Which of thefollwoing is a good definition object is lifted using a movable pulley?
for a pulley? A. The distance the object moved
A. a simple machine that uses a grooved B. The amount of force needed
rope to move a load
C. The length of the pulley’s rope
B. a simple machine that uses a rod, ful-
D. The pull of gravity on the object
crum. load and effort to move things
C. a simple machine that uses a rope, 50. To increase the size of the moment, we can
chain, or belt (more than one answer )
D. none of above A. increase the size of the force
B. decrease the size of the force
45. A driving gear will cause a driven gear the
same size to C. increase the distance from the pivot
D. decrease the distance from the pivot
A. multiply the force
B. slow down 51. The resistance force and the effort force
are on the opposite sides of the fulcrum in
C. speed up
this.
D. change direction A. First class
46. This type of pulley is a combination of two B. Second Class
or more pulleys. C. Third Class
A. fixed D. Fourth Class
B. moveable
52. Some objects are more than one kind of
C. compound
D. mechanical advantage A. material

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9.8 Gears 1284

B. simple machine 57. The driving gear is 2 times smaller than

the driven gear, this means that
C. shape
A. the driven gear moves 2 time faster
D. color
B. the driven gear moves 2 time slower
53. Which of the following are benefits of C. the driving gear moves 2 time faster
gears? (more than one answer ) D. the driving gear moves 2 time slower
A. Change the plane of rotation 58. If a load is 10 kg. and there is a mechan-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Increase or decrease the speed of ap- ical advantage of 2, then the effort force
plied motion would be
C. Increase or decrease the applied A. 10 kg.
force B. 2 kg.
D. Provide a drive without slippage C. 5 kg.
D. 2.5 kg.
54. What are levers?
59. Which of these machines / devices do not
A. A part of a machine that moves right use a pulley system
and left.
A. Flagpole
B. A part that is on the outside of the ma-
B. Water well
chine.
C. Elevator
C. A part of a machine that moves up and
D. Tow Truck
down
E. Can opener
D. none of above
60. I am the name of when a belt or chain con-
55. I am the part of the spur gear that makes nects 2 pulleys.
other gears turn. A. Drive system
A. Teeth B. Chain system
B. Wheel C. Belt system
C. Axel D. Pulley system
D. Gear 61. Levers and gears are also known as
A. force increasers
56. Which is true of a driven gear that is 3
B. force multipliers
times larger than the drive gear .
C. force diminishing
A. driven gear will turn 3 times when the
drive gear turns 1 time D. none of above

B. the system increase the turning force 62. This type of pulley stays in one spot and
but reduces the speed by a multiple of 3 is attached to a structure.

C. The system increase speed output but A. fixed

reduces turning force by a multiple of 3 B. moveable
D. the system increase turning force out- C. compound
put and increases speed output. D. mechanical advantage

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9.8 Gears 1285

63. This type of pulley can change position. As 69. What transformation of energy takes
the load is being pulled up, the rope is be- place when moving an object up a ramp?
ing pulled in the same direction.

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A. Potential to kinetic
A. fixed B. Kinetic to potential
B. moveable C. Kinetic to chemical
C. compound D. Chemical to potential
D. mechanical advantage
70. What are pulleys?
64. An appliance with efficiency would be A. A part of a machine that moves up and
considered good. down.
A. 80% or better B. Same as levers
B. greater than 100% C. A part of a machine that moves right
C. 10% and left.
D. 40% D. none of above

65. The gear is always the driving gear 71. What is an example of a lever in the real
world?
A. Compound
A. ski slope
B. rack and pinion
B. wheels on a car
C. bevel
C. seesaw
D. Worm
D. kitchen table
66. Larger gears produce moments
72. A is a simple machine with a fulcrum
A. smaller
and a rigid bar.
B. larger
A. Pivot
C. no
B. Lever
D. none of above
C. Wedge
67. I am the name for any object that you lift D. none of above
with a pulley.
73. Which machine does not use a gear sys-
A. Weight
tem?
B. Load
A. Pencil Sharpener
C. Gear
B. Watch
D. Simple machine C. Treadmill
68. What is a fulcrum? D. Bike
A. the board you use for the lever E. Water spray bottle
B. the point at which a lever pivots 74. I am the type of pulley that changes posi-
C. the top of the lever tion.
D. the board A. Fixed pulley

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9.8 Gears 1286

B. Compound pulley 80. What are some examples of wheels and

axles? select all that are correct
C. Movable pulley
A. Electrical fans
D. None of the above
B. revolving doors
75. Action reaction forces never cancel each C. houses
other out because
D. merry-go-rounds
A. They act on different objects.
E. cars

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. They act on the same objects
81. I have a wheel with teeth that helps other
C. They do not act on objects. wheels with teeth move.
D. none of above A. Pulley
B. Lever
76. What objects have pulleys?
C. Gear
A. Truck
D. Wedge
B. Crane
82. All of these are examples of simple ma-
C. Cars
chines, choose all that apply?
D. none of above A. Roller coaster
77. My buddy and I are hears with slanted B. Firemen with an Axe
teeth. When we work together, we C. Jack (to lift a car)
can turn vertical movement into horizontal
D. Airplane hanger
movement.
E. Wheel and axle
A. Spur gears
B. Spikey gears 83. A Combined Pulley system
A. uses two gear systems
C. Partner gears
B. uses both a fixed pulley and movable
D. Bevel gears pulley.
78. Which of these is not a vector quantity? C. uses a rack and pinion connection
A. displacement D. none of above

B. time 84. Which of the following is an example of a

pulley?
C. velocity
A. flag pole
D. acceleration
B. see saw
79. What is a ramp? C. jump rope
A. A wedge D. none of above
B. A screw 85. what is an example of a wheel and axle?
C. An inclined plane A. doorknob
D. None of the above B. TV

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9.8 Gears 1287

C. refrigerator C. You don’t move the fulcrum, you move

D. none of above the effort force

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D. None of these answers
86. A small driving gear will cause a larger
driven gear to 91. The principle of moments is:
A. multiply the force A. the sum of all the left moments = the
sum of all the right moments
B. slow down
B. the sum of all the small moments about
C. speed up
a point = the sum of all the large mo-
D. none of above ments about a point

87. The amount a pulley multiplies the force C. the sum of all the clockwise moments
into it. about a point = the sum of all the anti-
clockwise moments about that point
A. fixed
D. none of above
B. moveable
92. All of these are examples of simple ma-
C. compound
chines, EXCEPT:
D. mechanical advantage
A. Gears
88. Tweezers are an example of B. Wedge
A. class 1 C. Wheel and Axle
B. class 2 D. Pulley
C. class 3 E. Incline plane
D. none of above 93. Which of the following is not a part of a
lever?
89. Which of the following items do not have
gears? A. Effort
A. A non-digital Clock B. Pivot
B. A lift C. Fulcrum
C. An axe D. Load
D. Wind-up toys 94. The resistance that one surface or object
encounters while in contact with and mov-
90. If you want to decrease the effort force ing across another
when using a lever, where will you move
the fulcrum? A. Friction

A. Closer to the object you want to move B. Radius

B. Farther away from the object you want C. Load

to move D. Wheel

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 10. MATERIAL SCIENCE

NARAYAN CHANGDER
10.1 Basics
1. This measures the force required to make C. Composite
a material flow D. Brittle
A. Strength E. Mellable
B. Viscosity
5. a liquid can be change to a gas by adding
C. Stickiness to it.
D. Flow-ability A. soil
2. Magnets do not attract objects that are B. heat
made of C. juice
A. metal D. none of above
B. stainless steel
6. A polymer made in the laboratory (or in-
C. wood, glass, plastic, cloth, rubber and dustry) usually made from products of
paper. crude oil
D. none of above A. nature polymer
3. Hardness of Materials is a B. natural polymer
A. Physical Property C. protein
B. Chemical Property D. synthetic polymer
C. Mechanical Property 7. Where does the rubber come?
D. Electrical Property A. from the sap of rubber tree
4. Which reinforced concrete is a mate- B. from the clay
rial. C. from the ground
A. Metallic D. from the plant and animal
B. Plastic E. from the sand

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10.1 Basics 1289

8. With glass you can make: 14. Mechanical fastener

A. Bottles and glasses A. the force that holds two atoms to-

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B. Bracelets and bags gether
C. Trousers and shoes B. the desired form is obtained by remov-
D. none of above ing excess material
C. any device that holds two or more
9. Which of the following object can conduc parts in a specific location
electrecity?
D. a material’s ability to resist being
A. iron
twisted around an axis
B. rubber
C. glass 15. What are the main organs of gas exchange
in the respiratory system?
D. leather
A. diapragm
10. We get wood from
B. lungs
A. Plastic
B. Glass C. trachea

C. Fabric D. bronchi
D. Tree 16. The vertical columns of the periodic table
11. Particles that most effects material prop- are called
erties A. Groups
A. Neutrons B. Periods
B. Protons
C. Sections
C. Electrons
D. Cohorts
D. Valence electrons
17. measures the material’s resistance to be-
12. Able to withstand large amounts of stress
ing squeezed
before deformation
A. Hard A. Compression Strength
B. Strong B. flexural strength
C. Tough C. shear strength
D. Brittle D. tensile strength
13. A surface or shape exposed by making a
18. Which of the following has the highest
straight cut through something at right an-
hardness number
gles to the axis.
A. Martensite
A. Interstitial defect
B. crystal defects B. Tempered martensite
C. substitutional defect C. Pearlite
D. Cross-sectional area D. Fine pearlite

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10.1 Basics 1290

19. a crystal or crystalline mass with a branch- 25. Which material is shiny and conducts elec-
ing treelike structure tricity
A. Dendrites A. Plastic
B. Annealing B. Glass
C. Tempering C. Rubber
D. Quenching D. Metal
20. Which of the following is NOT a natural 26. All composites are

NARAYAN CHANGDER
resource? A. Malleable
A. wood B. Strong
B. cotton C. Brittle
C. oil D. All composites have different proper-
D. plastic ties
E. coal 27. The ability of a material to be reshaped
21. A gas can turn into liquid. This change is in all directions without failure; sometimes
called called workability; an important character-
istic of metals.
A. Precipatation
A. Brittleness
B. Condensation
B. Flexible
C. Evaporation
C. Ductility
D. none of above
D. Malleability
22. Process of cutting away materials
28. Which two particles represent an atom and
A. assembly an ion of the same element?
B. Covalent bonding A. no. of protons:4, no. of neutrons:5, no.
C. Shearing of electrons:4
D. Recycling B. no. of protons:5, no. of neutrons:5, no.
of electrons:4
23. Which property is most important for a
raincoat? C. no. of protons:4, no. of neutrons:5, no.
of electrons:3
A. rigid
D. no. of protons:3, no. of neutrons:5, no.
B. hard of electrons:4
C. waterproof
29. Which of the following are clues that a
D. transparent chemical change has occurred. (Select all
24. Materials that are not attracted to mag- that apply)
nets are A. Change in odor
A. non-magnetic B. Change in color
B. magnetic C. Change in size
C. moveable D. Change in state
D. big E. Change in temperature

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10.1 Basics 1291

30. Which material is workable and a good 35. What is an example of a material that can
conductor of heat? be considered both ceramic and compos-
ite?

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A. metal
B. ceramic A. Leather Footballs

C. polymer B. Steel Beams

C. Concrete mixed with Volcanic Ash
D. composite
D. Concrete made with Oyster Shells
31. A defect where atoms occupy the empty
space between existing atoms within a 36. Which material is hard and attracted to a
crystal. magnet
A. point defect A. Wool
B. vacancy B. Wood
C. interstitial C. Metal
D. interfacial D. Cotton
E. metal working 37. Some things are red, yellow or blue. This
tells us that things may come in different
32. Which of the following have a non- Which of the following words would
crystalline structure? best complete the sentence above?
A. Iron A. sizes
B. Quartz B. shapes
C. Silica glass C. colours
D. Tungsten D. textures
33. Which of the following statements is/are 38. Ultimate Tensile Strength (UTS)
true for ultrasonic test?
A. the property that describes how much
A. Equipment used for ultrasonic testing air or water a material will absorb
is portable
B. describes materials in our lives and
B. Complicated shapes can be easily how they can be manipulated
scanned
C. the desired form is obtained by remov-
C. Waves generated are health haz- ing excess material
ardous
D. the breaking stress of a mate-
D. All the above statements are true rial:UTS=breaking force/cross sectional
area
34. Which material is made of a matrix and
reinforcer that together have better prop- 39. The Statue of Liberty is made of copper
erties than the individual materials? that has turned green because it has un-
A. metal dergone a change. What can be said about
this change?
B. ceramic
A. The change is a physical change be-
C. polymer cause the copper in the statue is still
D. composite there.

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10.1 Basics 1292

B. The change is a physical change be- 44. WHAT IS AN EXAMPLE OF A SUBSTANCE

cause a new chemical is formed on the YOU CANNOT SEE?
outside of the statue. A. oxygen
C. The change is not a physical change be- B. metal
cause the color of the statue has changed.
C. diamonds
D. The change is not a physical change be-
D. gold
cause a new chemical is formed on the
outside of the statue. 45. Which state of matter has its own shape?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. liquid
40. What is heat conduction?
B. gas
A. The flow of ice from one object to an-
other C. solid
B. Heat that flows easily from one object D. none of above
to another as the objects are touching 46. Matter can be
C. Something that resist the flow of heat A. a solid
D. An oven mitt is an example of a heat B. a liquid
conductor
C. a gas
41. Whar are the basic source of plastic and D. all of the above
synthetic cloth?
47. Why are metals alloyed?
A. petroleum
A. To improve the appearance of a metal
B. animals B. To make them less likely to corrode
C. plants C. To reduce the amount of iron used
D. rocks D. To change the properties of the metal

42. Earth is different from the other planets in 48. Which of the following is a nonmagnetic
our solar system because it- iron?
A. orbits a star. A. Ferrite
B. has collided with meteorites. B. Austenite
C. has oceans and lakes. C. Cementite
D. Alnico
D. makes up the majority of the mass of
our solar system. 49. Tempering involves
43. Which physical property describes how en- A. Reheating the quenched component to
ergy, such as heat and electricity, can a temperature greater than critical tem-
move through different materials? perature

A. Magnetism B. Increases the brittleness

C. Reheating the quenched component to
B. Physical property
a temperature equal to critical tempera-
C. Conductivity ture
D. Solubility D. None of the mentioned

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10.1 Basics 1293

50. What is a natural material? 56. Select all of the following materials that
do not allow light to pass through it?
A. A material we can get from the sky

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A. wood
B. A material we can get from the air
B. plastic
C. A material we can get from fire
C. glass
D. A material we can get from nature
D. metal
51. Which of the following oxide is neutral? 57. the ability of a substance to be drawn,
A. CO pulled, or extruded through a small open-
ing to produce a wire
B. SnO2
A. Annealing
C. ZnO
B. Ductility
D. SiO2
C. Austenite
52. The ability of matter to dissolve in a liquid D. Cementite
is called
58. The defect that occurs due to a displace-
A. Solubility ment of an ion is known as
B. Reflectivity A. Vacancy defect
C. Conductivity B. Schottky defect
D. magnetism C. Frankel defect
D. Interstitial defect
53. Engineering Materials is another name for
59. What are the names of the magnet poles?
A. Gases
A. south and east
B. Solid Materials
B. north and west
C. Liquid Materials
C. north and south
D. All of the above D. none of above
54. Here is the properties of materials. If we 60. Two or more substances create a
can see through it, it called
A. mixture.
A. strong B. substance.
B. observant C. material.
C. flexible D. particle.
D. transparent 61. If we can see through a material, for ex-
ample a glass or a window, How do we
55. Which is a property of a ceramic?
call that characteristic?
A. flexible A. Strong
B. soft B. Observant
C. reflective C. Flexible
D. insulating D. Transparent

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10.1 Basics 1294

62. What should be done with unused chemi- 66. Bonds that form between two metals are
cals during a lab investigation? called bonds.
A. Return them to the original container A. ionic
B. Dispose according to the instructions B. covalent

C. Dispose in the sink C. metallic

D. pervasive
D. Dispose in the trash
67. Raw materials are

NARAYAN CHANGDER
63. Which statement best describes chemical
A. materials that have been changed
properties of matter?
from their original form.
A. Chemical properties, such as density,
B. materials that are found naturally in
must be observed when a substance is in
the environment and nature.
its natural state at room temperature and
normal atmospheric pressure. C. materials that have been made by
man.
B. Chemical properties, such as reactiv-
ity, must be observed when a substance D. none of above
is in its natural state at room temperature 68. When should goggles be worn in the labo-
and normal atmospheric pressure. ratory?
C. Chemical properties, such as com- A. when liquids are being used
bustibility, are generally observed as the
B. when a heat source is being used
identity of a substance changes and one
or more new substances form. C. when working with glass
D. Chemical properties, such as boiling D. all of the choices
point, are generally observed as the iden- 69. Which of the following produce(s) fab-
tity of a substance changes and one or rics?
more new substances form.
A. cotton plant
64. Surface area of cone is B. rubber tree
3πr h
1 2
A. C. silkworm
B. π r (r + l) D. sheep
{ √ }
C. π r r + r2 + h2 70. Which of the following material in the final
structure of steel increases the strength of
D. π r2 h steel
A. Martensite
65. Which object can absorb water?
P:spongeQ:glass rodR:tissueS:rubber B. Pearlite
band C. Ledeburite
A. P and Q D. Austenite
B. Q and S 71. What type of bonding do polymers have
C. P and R A. ionic
D. R and S B. covalent

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10.1 Basics 1295

C. ionic 77. What are one-dimensional defects?

D. covalent network A. Boundary defect

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B. Point defect
72. A glass of water spilled on the table. You
want to dry the table at once. What are C. Line defect
you going to use? D. Volume defect
A. cotton 78. The circulatory system works with the
B. rug made of cotton cloth system to obtain energy from nutrients
that we eat.
C. plastic cover
A. respiratory
D. tissue paper
B. digestive
73. A metal alloy of steel, chromium, and C. skeletal
sometimes nickel which is used in casket D. nervous
construction; noted for its ability to resist
rust. 79. Carbon Fiber is what type of material?
A. Failure fatigue A. Metal
B. Ceramic
B. Young’s Modulus
C. Polymer
C. stainless steel
D. Composite
D. tensile strength
80. In super conductivity the conductivity of a
74. The tiny oval shaped lymph structure lo- material becomes
cated throughout the body are known as? A. 0
A. Lymph nodes B. 1
B. Spleen C. 100
C. Lymph fluid D. ∞
D. none of above 81. sodium carbonate + hydrochloric acid →
sodium chloride + water + carbon dioxide-
75. We see things when light our eyes. * Which product contains the element hydro-
A. outward gen?
B. come A. hydrochoric acid
B. water
C. enters
C. carbon dioxide SHOW ANSWER
D. inside
D. none of above
76. Who was the first woman mathematician
82. In an covalent bond electrons are
A. Shakuntala devi A. Transferred
B. Hypatia B. Shared
C. Ramanujan C. Created
D. Einstein D. Destroyed

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10.1 Basics 1296

83. The spot where two crystal faces meet is 89. Ryan was trying to bend a metal ruler
the with his hands. Which property of mate-
A. grain boundary rials was he trying to test?
A. Whether the ruler is transparent
B. line dislocation
B. Whether the ruler is flexible.
C. stress fracture
C. Whether the ruler is waterproof.
D. allotrope
D. Whether the ruler is strong.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
84. Which material is transparent?
90. Which one of the following is least sym-
A. glass metrical?
B. rubber A. Tetragonal
C. metal B. Simple cubic
D. wood C. Triclinic
85. Which one of the following is most sym- D. Monoclinic
metrical? 91. Which of the following is formed less
A. Simple cubic cell when cooling rate is decreased
B. Hexagonal A. Pearlite
C. Triclinic B. Fine pearlite
D. Tetragonal C. Bainite
D. Martensite
86. Damp proof course is found
92. Quartz is what type of material?
A. near the ground level
A. Metal
B. near the lintel level
B. Ceramic
C. near the roof level
C. Polymer
D. none of the above
D. Composite
87. the planes in the crystal lattice across
which slip can occur 93. Wood is a natural material that comes
from:
A. grain boundary
A. Siliceous sand
B. Dendrites
B. Petroleum
C. Quenching C. Trees
D. Slip planes D. none of above
88. Material made of a mixture of cooper and 94. What material is a good conductor of heat
tin or aluminum and electricity?
A. Silver A. Wood
B. Nickel B. Ceramics
C. Bronze C. Glass
D. Gold D. Copper

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10.1 Basics 1297

95. Coordination number in simple cubic crys- C. water

tal structure D. none of above

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A. 1
101. Repeatable entity of a crystal structure
B. 2 is known as
C. 3 A. Crystal
D. 4 B. Lattice
96. Which of the following is not a character- C. Unit cell
istic of ionic compounds? D. Miller indices
A. they have high melting point
102. a point defect in a crystalline material
B. they are normally brittle crystalline
produced an atom is removed from a reg-
solids
ular lattice position and replaced with an-
C. they have low boiling point other type of atom
D. they are poor conductor of electricity A. dislocation
when in the solid phase
B. edge dislocation
97. The number of paired electrons in oxygen C. substitutional defect
atom
D. Interstitial defect
A. 6
103. What is Space Lattice?
B. 14
A. It is defined as 3-D arrangement of
C. 16
Lines.
D. 32
B. It is defined as 3-D arrangement of
98. A liquid can be changed to solid by it. Points.
A. heating C. It is defined as 3-D arrangement of
Atoms.
B. coloring
D. None of the above.
C. cooling
D. none of above 104. A diagram that shows how the phases
change with a mixture of two elements.
99. Monomers of ethene in thousand numbers
A. tensile strength
react together in addition polymerization
to produce B. binary phase diagram
A. polyamides C. Failure fatigue
B. polyesters D. Compression Strength
C. poly(ethene) 105. what is the dark shape that is behind you,
D. all of them if you block light?

100. You can make a solution more concen- A. shadow

trated by adding B. shape
A. solute C. vision
B. solvent D. nothing

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10.1 Basics 1298

106. Wood, cotton and rubber are example of B. metal fork

materials. These materials belong to the C. plastic knife
group of
D. wooden spoon
A. Animal
B. Rocks 112. A heat treatment applied to metal to re-
duce brittleness, increase toughness, and
C. Petroleum relieve stresses
D. Plants A. Annealing

NARAYAN CHANGDER
107. Chemical bonds form when atoms B. Quenching
A. combined nuclei C. Tempering
B. give up neutrons D. Stress
C. gain protons 113. The circulatory system works with the
D. share or transfer electrons system to provide our body with oxy-
gen and get rid of CO2 (carbon dioxide).
108. The following materials easily melt when
A. respiratory
placed in a heated frying pan?
B. digestive
A. butter
C. muscular
B. plastic
D. skeletal
C. nail
D. eggplant 114. Thumbnail
A. process of cutting away materials
109. Natural resources are?
B. the force that holds two atoms to-
A. Resources that exist within the envi-
gether
ronment without humans having to inter-
vene, or put them there. C. rough sketches, the first design step
B. Resources that exist within the envi- D. A natural resource that can be re-
ronment through due to human actions. placed
C. Organic substrates found deep within 115. What change happens when solid materi-
the earth’s lithosphere als heated?
D. none of above A. chemical change
110. Material that easily solidifies when B. change in odor
cooled. C. physical change
A. chocolate D. no change at al
B. butter 116. At which temperature does pure water
C. water get freeze(in Fahrenheit)
D. all of the above A. 32

111. Which object has a physical property that B. 100

conducts electricity? C. 0
A. foam cup D. 98.4

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10.1 Basics 1299

117. Glass Wool (Think Insulation) is an exam- 123. Ionic bonds form between
ple of a A. Two metals

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A. Layer Composite
B. Two nonmetals
B. Particulate Composite
C. A metal and a nonmetal
C. Fiber-Reinforced Composite
D. Metalloids
D. Mechanical Composite
124. If you have a material that can conduct
118. Give an example for synthetic polymer electricity well it is probably a
A. wool
A. Metalloid
B. jute
B. Matter
C. polyester
C. Non-metal
D. cotton
D. Metal
119. Atomic packing factor is
125. Figure out the odd one in the following
A. Distance between two adjacent atoms
A. Frenkel defect
B. Projected area fraction of atoms on a
plane B. Tilt boundary
C. Volume fraction of atoms in cell C. Twist boundary
D. None D. Stacking fault
120. Changes that occur due to cooling or heat- 126. The four components of the discipline of
ing is called? materials science and engineering are
A. poperties of matter A. Processing → Structure → Proper-
B. form and function ties → Performance
C. material science B. Structure → Processing → Proper-
D. reversible or irreversible ties → Performance
C. Structure → Processing → Perfor-
121. Inspiration for new types of synthetic
mance → Properties
materials often comes from observations
of D. Structure → Properties → Perfor-
mance → Processing
A. nature
B. television 127. You need to build a prototype of a de-
C. internet sign and need to choose a material that is
strong and able to withstand the outdoor
D. none of above elements. You are not concerned about
122. Materials that are crystaline in structure cost. Which type of material should you
include ceramics and choose?
A. polymers A. Plastic
B. metals B. Wood
C. glass C. Metal
D. composites D. none of above

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10.1 Basics 1300

128. A solid can be changed to a liquid by C. Dielectric strength

adding
D. Strain
A. salt
B. heat 134. Which of the following changes cannot be
reversed?
C. cold
A. An ice cube melting in a glass
D. none of above
B. An egg boiling in hot water
129. a strong, hard metal made of iron and car-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
bon C. Butter melting in a dish

A. brass D. none of above

B. steel 135. A material that returns to its original
C. quench shape after deformation is
D. Toughness A. elastic
130. The way light reflects, or bounces off, an B. plastic
object refers to: C. strong
A. Solubility D. brittle
B. Reflectivity
C. Glass 136. Which of the following is a physical
change?
D. Physical property
A. burning of paper
131. Lunar Eclipse occur
B. cutting of paper
A. When Sun is between Earth and Moon
C. rusting of iron
B. When Earth is between Sun and Moon
D. cooking of food
C. When Moon is between Earth and Sun
D. When Earth is between Sun and other 137. All materials are
celestial bodies A. matter
132. Bronze was first discovered by ancient B. observable
civilizations in
C. natural
A. Indus Valley Civilization (Asia)
D. man-made
B. Sumer (Middle East)
C. Gerzeh (Egypt) 138. Eugene describes the physical property of
a material as “sweet and floral.” What
D. Mayan Civilization (Mesopotamia)
physical property of the material is Eugene
133. Applied stress at the time of fracture most likely observing?
from a test in which stress is perpendic- A. boiling point
ular to the axis of deformation (bending);
generally used to characterize beams. B. shape
A. Flexural strength C. hardness
B. Tensile strength D. odor

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10.1 Basics 1301

139. Rubber is but stone is 145. is strong, waterproof, and easy to

A. flexible, rigid shape into objects such as bottles and bins.

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A. cloth
B. hard, soft
B. plastic
C. strong, weak
C. wood
D. rigid, flexible
D. stone
140. Organs of excretion that maintain home-
ostasis include the kidneys, lungs, skin, 146. Which item is made from a synthetic ma-
and terial?
A. cotton pants
A. bronchus.
B. real leather jacket
B. diaphragm.
C. tissue paper
C. bladder.
D. none of above
D. liver.
147. is known as
141. is an alloy of copper and tin.
A. Googol
A. Brass
B. Googolplex
B. Bronze C. Jiffy
C. Gunmetal D. Google
D. Cupro-nickel
148. What will be created when sand is melted
142. Which of these are non destructive test- with a very high temperature?
ing processes? A. rubber
A. Crack detection B. glass
B. impact testing C. ceramics
C. Tensile testing D. metal
D. Conductivity testing E. fabrics

143. What does AISI steel stand for? 149. What are the parts of a circuit?

A. American-Indian Steel Institute A. wire and battery.

B. battery, wire, electrical appliances
B. American-Indian Society of Iron
and switch
C. American Iron and Steel Institute
C. electrical appliances and battery
D. Alloys, Iron and Steel Institute D. none of above
144. An object that does not return to its orig- 150. What is the material that is used for mak-
inal shape after stress has ing glasses, bottles, doors and windows.
A. Elasticity A. Thick paper
B. Plasticity B. Clear glass
C. Malleability C. Steel
D. Conductivity D. Aluminum

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10.1 Basics 1302

151. This type of material is a good conductor 157. Which category of materials is hard, very
of electricity? brittle, and has no flexibility?
A. polymer A. ceramic/glass
B. metal B. polymer
C. ceramic C. metal
D. glass
D. composite
152. change in shape of a material at low

NARAYAN CHANGDER
stress that is recoverable after the stress 158. Changing a metal’s shape while it re-
is removed. mains a solid.
A. Iron-Carbon Phase Diagram A. point defect
B. Elastic deformation region B. vacancy
C. tensile strength C. interstitial
D. Plastic deformation region D. interfacial
153. In which of the following Bravais lattices, E. metal working
not all axial angles are right angles?
A. Tetragonal 159. If a, b, c are in G.P then are in log a, log
b, log c are in
B. Orthorhombic
A. H.P
C. Cubic
B. G.P
D. Rhombohedral
C. A.P
154. Which of the following are true for nitrid-
ing D. None
A. Nascent oxygen is involved 160. Which of these is an example of synthetic
B. Temperature range 490 to 590’C polymer?
C. Gaseous or liquid medium A. cotton fibers
D. All of the mentioned B. rubber
155. Which of the following is a nonrenewable C. wool
energy source?
D. polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
A. Solar Collector
B. Wind Turbine 161. What is nanomaterials?
C. Fossil Fuel A. Material that smaller than 100 micro
meter particle size
D. Hydroelectric Generator
B. Material that smaller than 100 meter
156. There are states of matter. particle size
A. one
C. Material that smaller than 100 nm par-
B. two ticle size
C. three D. Material that smaller than 100 pico me-
D. none of above ter particle size

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10.1 Basics 1303

162. a linear defect that centers on the line B. flexible

that is defined along the end of the extra
C. strong
half-plane of atoms

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D. waterproof
A. edge dislocation
B. screw dislocation 168. The poorest conductor of heat among
C. Dislocation metals is

D. Interstitial defect A. Lead

B. Mercury
163. Covalent bonds form between
C. Calcium
A. Two metals
D. Sodium
B. Two nonmetals
C. A metal and a nonmetal 169. When you placed water inside the it
D. Metalloids solidifies
A. cooler
164. Dull and an electrical insulator
B. freezer
A. Iron
C. ice box
B. Glass
C. Wood D. all of the above

D. Paper 170. A mixture of two or more metals

165. Which trend(s) is/are found in the peri- A. alloy
odic table? B. brass
A. Down the group, the number of filled C. bronze
electron shells INCREASES
D. steel
B. Across the period, the number of va-
lence electrons DECREASES 171. Which type of cermets are used as an sub-
C. Across the period, metallic character stitute for WC-Co alloy cutting tools?
DECREASES A. TiC-base cermets
D. Across the period, the number of pro- B. ThO2-W
tons INCREASES
C. ThO2-Mo
166. What are we going to do if we want to
D. None of the above
turn water into ice?
A. put it in a cold place to freeze 172. These are examples of manufactured ma-
B. put it in a hot place to melt terials:

C. put it in a stove A. sand

D. none of above B. plastic
C. petrol
167. Material used for containing drinks must
be D. leather
A. clear E. wood

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10.1 Basics 1304

173. What is fundametal of Material Science? C. Aluminum powder

A. involves investigating the relation- D. None
ships that exist between the performance
and properties of materials. 178. Which property means to protect from
water?
B. involves investigating the relation-
ships that exist between the structures A. waterproof
and properties of materials. B. heat-trapping

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. involves investigating the relation- C. opaque
ships that exist between the properties D. soft
and performance of science
179. A sample of a hard, solid binary com-
D. involves investigating the relation-
pound at room temperature did not con-
ships that exist between the structures
duct electricity as a pure solid but became
and properties of science
highly conductive when dissolved in wa-
174. If a material is a good conductor it ter. Which of the following types of inter-
actions is most likely found between the
A. doesn’t let water go through it. particles in the substance?
B. lets water go through it. A. Ionic Solid
C. doesn’t transport heat and electricity B. Metallic Solid
through it.
C. Network Covalent Solid
D. transports heat and electricity through
it. D. Molecular Solid

180. The maximum amount of a substance that

175. A measure of the amount of matter in an
can be dissolved by another substance is
object is:
called the
A. Weight
A. Conductivity
B. Volume
B. Solubility
C. Mass
C. Solvent
D. none of above D. Reflective
176. Which of the following are true about low 181. Tiny, crystalline grains visible when look-
carbon steels ing at a fresh metal sample through a mi-
A. Carbon content < 0.3% croscope
B. Also called as mild steel A. Conductors
C. Are soft and ductile B. Composite
D. All of the mentioned C. Elastics
D. Dendrities
177. Which of the following is used in weld-
ing broken pieces of iron rails and machine 182. The upper chambers of the heart are
parts known as
A. Al(SO4)3 A. valves
B. Solder B. ventricles

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10.1 Basics 1305

C. atria 188. Which category of materials has good

D. septum conductors that have luster?

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A. polymer
183. If the initial molarity of a solution is 2M
and you dilute it to a final volume of 100 B. metal
mL and a final molarity of 0.150M, what
C. ceramic
is the initial volume?
A. 7.5 mL D. glass
B. 15 mL 189. Which of the following activities will
C. 1333 mL change the shape of materials?
D. 200 mL A. bend
184. the intermetallic compound Fe3C, a hard B. twist
and brittle substance
C. stretch
A. Dendrites
D. squash
B. Cementite
C. Martensite E. all of these

D. hardening 190. What type of bonding does glass have

185. John noted some properties of an ob- A. ionic
ject, X, listed below.-weak-absorbent-
flexibleWhich of the following is object X B. covalent
most likely to be? C. ionic
A. towel D. covalent network
B. coin
C. tissue paper 191. Which of the following is classified as a
pure substance. (Select all that apply)
D. none of above
A. Monatomic Element
186. Before compacting the metals, which pro-
cess is annealed to remove the effects of B. Diatomic Element
cold working? C. Compound
A. Machining D. Homogeneous Mixture
B. Crushing
E. Heterogeneous Mixture
C. Shotting
D. All of these 192. Plastics that can be stretched to twice
their normal length, then return to normal
187. What is the name of the reaction used to length when released
make polymers?
A. Elastomers
A. polymerization
B. cracking B. Stretchomers

C. polygonization C. Ferrous
D. precipitation D. Elongators

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10.1 Basics 1306

193. Composite 198. The three states of matter are solid, liq-
A. tiny, crystalline grains visible when uid, and gas. Fill in the blanks. When wa-
looking at a fresh metal sample through ter is frozen it is a
a microscope A. Solid
B. formed by combining two or more ma- B. Liquid
terials to make a new material with a dif- C. Gas
ferent set of properties
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. objects made from clay or other combi-
nations of minerals baked at high temper- 199. The main function of the circulatory sys-
ature tem is
D. the property that describes how much A. To give the body structure and support
air or water a material will absorb.
B. Excrete waste
194. A material’s ability to resist being C. transport blood, nutrients, and gases
squeezed throughout the body
A. Compression Strength D. to transport messages from the body
B. Torsional strength to the brain
C. Tensile Strength 200. Which of the following are true?
D. Tear Strength A. Dyes are used to detect cracks
195. Which of the following are a desirable B. Ultrasound is used to detect cracks
property for a material that is to be made C. Ultrasound is used to detect surface
into a window? (check all that apply) finishes
A. hard D. X-ray is used to detect cracks
B. waterproof E. X-ray is used to detect surface finish
C. opaque to light defects
D. rigid 201. Regions within a crystal where planes of
atoms can slide past one another.
196. Which reactant contains the element car-
bon? A. substitutional
A. calcium chloride B. dislocation
B. hydrochloric acid C. slip plane
C. calcium carbonate D. work-hardening
D. none of above E. grain boundary

197. Identify the homogeneous mixtures. (Se- 202. Fibers, both natural and synthetic, are
lect all that apply) created by large molecules known as
A. Salt Water A. ceramics
B. Soil B. metals
C. Trail Mix C. composites
D. Air D. polymers

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10.1 Basics 1307

203. Annealing of metal is useful because it C. Low density

A. increases workability D. Sharp diffraction pattern

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B. decreases workability
209. Which of the following are the basic
C. increases brittleness source of materials?
D. allows a solid state phase change to A. Plastic
occur
B. Animal
204. The lymphatic structure that closely par-
C. Plant
allell veins are called?
D. Rocks
A. Capillaries
B. Lymph 210. occurs when there is a presence of
C. Lymph Vessels heat.

D. none of above A. cooling

B. freezing
205. Which of the following property is af-
fected by heat treatment C. melting
A. Hardness D. eating
B. Strength
211. Spiral stacking of crystal planes around
C. Ductility the dislocation line
D. All of the mentioned A. edge dislocation
206. Iron possesses BCC crystal structure up B. screw dislocation
to (in degree centigrade)? C. crystal defects
A. 1539
D. Slip planes
B. 768
C. 910 212. The loss of chemical reactivity by some
active metals and alloys, frequently by for-
D. 1410 mation of a thin oxide surface coating.
207. describes the increase in conductivity A. Absorptivity
as a result of incident light; uses to teach B. Combustibility
quantum mechanics.
C. Passivity
A. Polarization
D. Resistivity
B. Plastic Deformation
C. Biocompatibility 213. This type of force moves dislocations
D. Photoconductivity through a crystal:
A. compression
208. Which of the following is characteristic of
non-crystalline structures? B. torsion
A. Long range of periodicity C. tension
B. Well defined structure and geometry D. shear

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10.1 Basics 1308

214. The lower chambers of the heart are C. binary phase diagram
known as D. shear strength
A. valves
220. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
B. ventricles
A. Roentgen:X-Ray
C. atria
B. Newton:Law of Gravitation
D. septum
C. Faraday:Diffusion of gases
215. Which of these are not true about non-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Pasteur:Bacteriology
destructive testing
A. It is generally carried out on unfin- 221. Which of these materials is non-
ished products magnetic?
B. It is generally carried out on finished A. pins
components of products B. metal
C. It is generally carried out on unfin- C. a book
ished components of products
D. paper clips
D. It is only carried out on finished prod-
ucts 222. Which of the following is waterproof?
216. The states, or phases of matter are A. plastic
A. proton, neutron and electron B. wood
B. solid, liquid and gas C. metal
C. on and off D. fabric
D. a mystery E. rubber

217. A bond that forms when electrons are 223. The example for natural material is
transferred is called a/an (choose 2)
A. ionic bond A. mobile
B. covalent bond B. wood
C. hydrogen bond C. wool
D. none of above D. Pen
218. In an ionic bond electrons are 224. Tiny filtering structures where urine is
A. Transferred produced in the kidneys are called
B. Shared A. ureters.
C. Created B. alveoli.
D. Destroyed C. nephrons.
D. bronchi.
219. the formation and propagation of cracks
due to a repetitive or cyclic load 225. The horizontal rows of the periodic table
A. Failure fatigue are called
B. Young’s Modulus A. Groups

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10.1 Basics 1309

B. Periods A. Strength
C. Sections B. Flexibility

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D. Cohorts C. Waterproof
226. What is the correct sequence of the seven D. Transparency
material ages in history?
231. The temperature at which a liquid begins
A. Stone Age-Bronze Age-Iron Age-Glass to form as a material is heated.
Age-Steel Age-Aluminium Age-Plastic Age
A. Melting point
B. Bronze Age-Iron Age-Stone Age-
Plastic Age-Glass Age-Aluminium Age- B. Freezing point
Steel Age C. Boiling point
C. Stone Age-Iron Age-Bronze Age-Glass D. Hollow point
Age-Steel Age-Aluminium Age-Plastic Age
D. Iron Age-Bronze Age-Stone Age-Glass 232. Cotton comes from:
Age-Steel Age-Aluminium Age-Plastic Age A. Petroleum

227. The group 1 elements are known as the B. A plant

A. Alkali Metals C. Stone crushing

B. Alkaline Earth Metals D. none of above
C. Transition Metals 233. A certain crystalline substance that has a
D. Halogens low melting point does not conduct electric-
ity in solution or when melted. This sub-
E. Noble Gases
stance is likely to be
228. Shiny and conducts electricity A. a covalent network solid
A. Glass B. a metallic solid
B. Plastic C. an ionic solid
C. Rubber D. a molecular solid
D. Metal
234. Which material is absorbent?
229. The metals that are the most workable
A. rubber
have:
B. paper
A. no dislocations
C. glass
B. just a few dislocations
C. a lot of dislocations D. plastic

D. none of above 235. The heart is made up of chambers

230. A factory wants to use a certain mate- A. one

rial to make a container to keep bever- B. two
ages. Which of the following properties
C. three
of the material being used is the mist im-
portant? D. four

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10.1 Basics 1310

236. The ability to be drawn into a wire 242. How was the original hook-and-loop vel-
A. Malleable cro fastener invented?
B. Luster A. by using nature in design
C. Conductive B. by reading a book
D. Ductile C. by observing sticky tape
D. by observing kids clothes
237. Resists dents, scratches, and other per-
manent changes under compressive force 243. Hygroscopicity is the property of a mate-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
rial to absorb
A. Hard
A. Carbon Dioxide from air
B. Strong
B. Oxygen from Air
C. Tough
C. Water Vapour from air
D. Brittle
D. Heat from air
238. Manipulating a metal and moving its dis-
locations to strengthen the material. 244. Various samples are subjected to differ-
ent loads in this type
A. substitutional
A. fatigue test
B. dislocation
B. dry penetrate
C. slip plane
C. impact test
D. work-hardening
D. ultrasonic inspection
E. grain boundary
245. The ability of a material to be attracted
239. An alloy of copper and zinc. to a magnetic without needing to be a mag-
A. strain netic itself refers to:
B. bronze A. Metals
C. brass B. Magnetism
D. alloy C. Physical property
240. What material solidifies when cooled or D. Conductivity
placed inside the refrigerator? 246. What is the max. atomic percent of Car-
A. wood bon that can be introduced in Fe?
B. melted chocolate A. 6.67%
C. spoon B. 25%
D. fork C. 73%
D. 2.1%
241. The existence of two or more crystal
structures for any substance, depending 247. Which type of material allows you to cre-
on temperature, is known as ate unique 3D shapes?
A. Allotropy A. Plastic
B. Solidification B. Wood
C. Solubility C. Metal
D. Interstices D. none of above

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10.1 Basics 1311

248. Case carburising involves 254. The maximum strength, in tension

A. Introducing carbon at surface layer (pulling), that can be absorbed without
fracturing, breaking, or snapping.

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B. Heating range 880 to 980’C
A. Biocompatibility
C. Case depths up to 2mm are possible
D. All of the mentioned B. Tensile strength
C. Flexural strength
249. Pick the thermo-plast from the following
D. Plastic deformation
A. Vinyls
B. Epoxies 255. An example of a material that would be
C. Resins a good conductor is:
D. Vulcanized rubber A. Iron

250. Low alloy steel can be listed as below EX- B. Glass

CEPT C. Eggs
A. Medium carbon steel
D. Magnetic
B. High carbon steel
C. Moderate carbon steel 256. The material that can’t absorb water is
called
D. Low carbon steel
A. opaque
251. Bob found a metal can of soup. Which list
describes the most likely physical property B. sink
of the can? C. insulator of heat
A. shiny, hard, reflective D. waterproof
B. very soft, conducts heat
257. What does it mean for an object to be
C. conducts electricity, square
brittle?
D. magnetic, flexible, very soft
A. Able to stretched without losing tough-
252. A measure of how much stress from ness
pulling, or tension, a material can with-
B. Hard and breaks easily
stand before breaking.
A. stainless steel C. Able to be hammered out of shape
without breaking
B. tensile strength
D. The compactness of a material
C. Young’s Modulus
D. shear strength 258. What property of the material is changed
when cooled?
253. Solute + solvent is equal to
A. size
A. Solution
B. Solvent B. texture
C. Solute C. shape
D. Solid D. all of the above

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10.1 Basics 1312

259. What changed happen when liquid mate- 264. Cotton is

rials cooled? A. waterproof
A. chemical change B. hard
B. change in color C. absorbent
C. physical change D. rigid
D. change in odor 265. Which property means can’t see
through?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
260. A type of crystal defect where single
A. waterproof
atoms are affected.
B. heat-trapping
A. point defect
C. opaque
B. vacancy
D. soft
C. interstitial
266. Full form of C.O.D
D. interfacial
A. Chemical oxygen demand
E. metal working B. Control oxygen demand
261. Stress at fracture from a bend (or flex- C. Chemical ozone demand
ure) test. D. Concentration of dissolved oxygen
A. shear strength 267. Define polymer
B. flexural strength A. circular molecule made with many re-
C. tensile strength peating units
B. short molecule made of a few repeat-
D. Compression Strength
ing units
262. Which salt will be produced if magnesium C. long, chain-like molecule made of re-
react with hydrochloric acid? peating units
A. Magnesium oxide D. chain-like molecule that contains hy-
drogen and oxygen
B. Magnesium sulfate
268. heat (metal or glass) and allow it to
C. Magnesium sulfide
cool slowly, in order to remove internal
D. Magnesium chloride stresses and toughen it.
A. Cementite
263. Consider the following with regards to
burning of clay bricks. B. hardening
A. The clay loses its plasticity C. Ductility
D. Annealing
B. Carbonate minerals are decarbonated
C. Some of the carbonaceous matter is 269. Bulletproof vests are made of
burnt A. Polyisoprene
D. Clay mass is converted into glass like B. PET
substance C. PS
E. Ferrous iron is oxidized to ferric form D. Kevlar

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10.1 Basics 1313

270. The border where two crystal grains 276. All of the following object is elasticity ac-
meet. cept

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A. substitutional A. tier
B. dislocation B. balloon
C. slip plane C. book
D. work-hardening D. eraser
E. grain boundary 277. Basic Material can be classify to
271. Tar roads get damaged if there is types
A. No maintenance A. 1
B. Heavy traffic B. 2
C. Stagnation of water on road C. 3
D. No sloping D. 4

272. Tiers of a car is made of rubber because 278. Select all the property of wood
it has the ability to A. floats on water
A. waterproof B. waterproof
B. elasticity C. transparent
C. heat conductor D. absorbent
D. sink
279. Iron is what type of material?
273. the ability to absorb force and flex in dif- A. Metal
ferent directions
B. Ceramic
A. Ductility
C. Polymer
B. Viscosity
D. Composite
C. Elasticity
280. Alloys containing 2.0-6.7% carbon are
D. Density
considered as
274. Hall probe is made up of A. Steel
A. Conductor B. Cast-iron
B. Semi conductor C. Aluminium
C. Super conductor D. Brass 1. Alloys containing 2.0-6.7%
D. None carbon are considered as

275. Graphite is a common allotrope of Carbon. 281. is strong, does not burn and can be
Its crystal structure is: sharp.
A. Hexagonal A. paper
B. Cubic B. rock
C. Orthorhombic C. metal
D. Monoclinic D. plastic

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10.1 Basics 1314

282. The property that describes how much air C. stress at which noticeable plastic de-
or water a material will absorb. formation has occurred
A. Tensile Strength D. any device that holds two or more
B. Porosity parts in a specific location
C. Ductility 288. Which scenario is an example of a physi-
D. Compression Strength cal change?
283. Waterproof material A. Wood is burned in a campfire and is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
turned into ash and smoke.
A. Plastic
B. Wood B. A piece of metal is left in the rain and
forms rust.
C. Fabric
C. Lead is melted into a liquid to form pel-
D. Paper
lets.
284. It is important to protect air quality D. Yeast turns sugar into energy, water,
because- and carbon dioxide gas.
A. storms worsen as air pollution de-
creases. 289. Which is the incorrect sequence of con-
struction?
B. acid rain is caused by air pollution.
C. wind currents change when the air is A. footing-plinth-walls-columns
polluted. B. soil compaction-plinth beam-columns-
D. energy produced by the sun decreases walls
when air is polluted. C. columns-wall-beam-roof
285. Which of the following materials will D. brick laying-lintel-brick laying
float?
A. coin 290. If radius of a circle is increased by 100%
then area is increased by how many per-
B. metal spoon centage?
C. stone
A. 100%
D. empty plastic bottle
B. 200%
286. A table and a cupboard is made of C. 300%
A. wood
D. Unchanged
B. rubber
C. plastic 291. Which of the following is defined as the
ability of the structure to transform into
D. glass
martensite
287. Flame Resistant A. Hardenability
A. something that is treated to not burn B. Strength
as quickly as other materials
C. Toughness
B. materials that allow electric charges
to flow through them easily D. Hardness

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10.1 Basics 1315

292. Which among the following was first hu- B. tensile

man made plastic C. impact

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A. Bakelite D. hardness
B. Polythene
298. Select all the terms that apply to an un-
C. Celluloid glazed ceramic plate
D. Nylon A. Has Luster
293. The three states of matter are solid, liq- B. Dull
uid, and gas. Fill in the blanks. When an C. Brittle
ice cube sits in the sun it turns into a
D. Malleable
A. Solid
B. Liquid 299. When things move, it and makes a
sound
C. Gas
A. bouncy
D. none of above
B. vibrates
294. Why do metals feel cold when we touch C. quite
them with our hand?
D. none of above
A. Metals lose heat to our hand.
B. Metals gain heat from our hand. 300. Which material could not be used for a
spoon?
C. Metals gain less heat from the environ-
ment. A. plastic

D. Metals have a lower temperature than B. fabric

environment. C. wood

295. A shadow is formed when light is * D. metal

A. endured 301. What does it mean for an object to be

B. blocked ductile?

C. checked A. Able to stretched without losing tough-

ness
D. closed
B. Hard and breaks easily
296. Which of the following reaction is not ac- C. Able to be hammered out of shape
companied by elimination of a byproduct without breaking
molecule?
D. The compactness of a material
A. addition polymerization
B. condensation polymerization 302. Why do some materials absorb water?

C. both of the mentioned A. Because some materials are soft that

can easily get water in.
D. none of the mentioned
B. Because some materials have tiny
297. the specimen is pulled apart in this type holes let the water in.
of failure C. Because some materials are made of
A. fatigue plastics.

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10.1 Basics 1316

D. Because some materials are expen- D. a polymer that does not burn when
sive. heated in air

303. Which of the following group of materials 308. Light cannot pass through an mate-
will undergo decay? rial.
A. fish bone, kangkong stem, banana A. Transparent
peeling
B. Opaque
B. empty bottle, broken glasses, broken
C. Oblong

NARAYAN CHANGDER
basin
D. Malleable
C. can of sardines, soda cans, empty bot-
tle of catsup 309. Which property of material is most impor-
D. none of these choice tant when making an umbrella?
A. absorbent
304. Glass is a special type of
B. stretchy
A. polymer
B. metal C. Soft

C. ceramic D. waterproof

D. composite 310. Assembly

305. the amount of energy that a material can A. the process of reusing nonrenewable
withstand when the said load is suddenly materials
applied to it. B. the process of putting parts together
A. tensile strength during the manufacturing process

B. Hardness Impact strength C. the property that describes how much

air or water a material will absorb.
C. Elastic deformation region
D. the movement of light through a mate-
D. Ductility rial or object
306. Argon (Ar) is classified as a
311. which materials are suitable for making
A. Metal clothes?
B. Nonmetal A. Iron and aluminium
C. Metalloid B. Paper and glass
D. none of above C. Cotton and wool
307. Which of the following explain what a D. none of above
non-biodegradable polymer is?
312. Material science includes
A. a polymer that breaks down when
A. searching for new materials.
buried in the soil
B. a polymer that burns in air to form car- B. modifying materials.
bon dioxide and water C. understanding properties of materi-
C. a polymer that doesn’t break down als.
when buried in the soil D. All choices

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10.1 Basics 1317

313. These materials must not produce toxic 318. How can you conserve energy in your
substances and must be compatible with home?
body tissues. Choose the right answer for A. Turn up heat up to warm your home

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this materials. faster
A. Metal B. Open a window and turn on the ac
B. Composites C. Turn off lights when you do not need
C. Biomaterials them

D. Semiconductor D. none of above

319. In which colour of light does photo syn-
314. Arteries carry nutrient and oxygen rich
thesis take place faster?
blood from the heart.
A. Green
A. back to
B. Red
B. away
C. Blue
C. parallel
D. White
D. none of above
320. Which one of the following is not a strong
315. Which category of materials has multiple bond?
parts which enhance the others’ proper- A. van der Waals bond
ties? B. Covalent bond
A. ceramic/glass C. Metallic bond
B. polymer D. Ionic bond
C. metal 321. To pump and circulate blood is the work
D. composite of which organ?
A. lungs
316. In a chemical change, new substances are
formed, for example B. liver
A. heating glass and bending it C. pancreas
B. melting an ice D. heart

C. burning of wood 322. Which of these is a metal?

D. boil water A. gold
B. plastic
317. Torsional strength
C. glass
A. a material’s ability to resist being
D. none of above
twisted around an axis
B. a material’s ability to resist being 323. Coordination number for closest packed
squeezed crystal structure
A. 16
C. a material’s ability to resist being
pulled apart B. 12
D. a material’s ability to resist tearing af- C. 8
ter setting D. 4

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10.1 Basics 1318

324. Vase is the example of material 330. is the strength of an electric field
A. metal necessary to cause significant electric flow
through a dielectric material.
B. polymer
A. Conductivity
C. ceramic
B. Flexural strength
D. advanced
C. Dielectric strength
325. The desired form is obtained by removing D. Tensile strength

NARAYAN CHANGDER
excess material
331. According to the Law of Conservation of
A. Mechanical fastener Mass, what happens to the wood and oxy-
B. Separating process gen when it is burned?
C. Torsional strength A. The wood disappears.
D. Macrostructure B. It stays the same chemically.
C. The atoms in the wood and oxygen re-
326. What material is strong, opaque, water-
arrange and form smoke and ash.
proof, and sinks in water?
D. Nothing.
A. fabric
B. wood 332. Process used to create an object by laser
solidifying layers of powder
C. metal
A. Stereolithography
D. glass
B. Ultra-Sonic Consolidation
327. Which of the following materials will C. Laser Sintering
sink?
D. Fused Deposition Modeling
A. plastic ball
333. Cooling a hot piece of metal rapidly, as in
B. empty plastic bottle
water or oil.
C. metal spoon
A. Dendrites
D. rubber duck toy
B. Quenching
328. Liquid takes the shape of its : C. Tempering
A. container D. Annealing
B. size 334. Melting point of ice on Kelvin scale is
C. color A. 271 k
D. none of above B. 273 k
329. is an example of material that does C. 272 k
not absorb water. D. 274 k
A. sponge
335. An umbrella, a tent and a comb are made
B. rubber ball from material which come from
C. face towel A. plant
D. rug B. animal

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10.1 Basics 1319

C. petroleum C. Metal
D. rock D. none of above

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336. What are the three main types of syn- 342. Three main classes of materials EXCEPT?
thetic materials.
A. metallic
A. Polymers
B. ceramic
B. Ceramics/Glass
C. nanometarial
C. Wood
D. polymeric
D. Metals
343. Below is example of polymers, except
337. Which is of these things are elastic?
A. PVC
A. Glass
B. Polystyrene
B. Gold
C. Polyethylene
C. Rubber
D. Stainless Steel
D. none of above
344. Which of the following is not basic
338. An object that breaks or shatters easily
sources of materials?
is
A. animal
A. Brittle
B. petroleum
B. Hard
C. plant
C. Malleable
D. iron
D. Elastic

339. An ionic bond forms when atoms elec- 345. What is the co-ordination number of sim-
trons. ple cubic structure?

A. gain A. 1

B. share B. 2

C. increase C. 4
D. transfer D. 6

340. below is the code for Material Science 346. The overall framework or large view of
and Engineering subject a material
A. DJJ30133 A. Microstructure
B. DJJ30113 B. Nanotechnology
C. DJJ31103 C. Tear Strength
D. DJJ32131 D. Macrostructure

341. Which type of material does not bond 347. Choose the options that represent mix-
well with glue? tures
A. Plastic A. steel
B. Wood B. chlorine solution

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10.1 Basics 1320

C. water 353. We get papers from

D. neon gas A. Wood
E. potassium hydroxide B. Plastic

348. Which of the following is true C. Fabric

A. Rate of cooling in normalising is faster D. Metal

then in annealing 354. In polymers, a mer is considered one unit
while poly means

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Annealing improves ductility
C. Normalising improves grain structure A. few
D. All of the mentioned B. many

349. Conditioning Process C. one

A. occurs when an element shares elec- D. link

trons to produce a stable structure 355. Which statement is true about plastics?
B. the desired form is obtained by remov- A. They have a wide variety of properties
ing excess material
B. They are always soft and flexible
C. process of using heat, mechanical
force, or chemical action to change the C. They have only harmful effects on soci-
mechanical properties of a material. ety

D. formed by combining two or more ma- D. They are natural materials

terials to make a new material with a dif- 356. Group 1 elements are stored in oil be-
ferent set of properties cause they
350. absorbent means A. Are highly reactive
A. Keeps out water B. Have a low density
B. bend easily C. Are shiny
C. see through D. Are expensive
D. soak up water easily 357. permanent distortion that occurs when a
351. Advanced material have types material is subjected to tensile, compres-
sive, bending, or torsion stresses that ex-
A. 4 ceed its yield strength and cause it to elon-
B. 3 gate, compress, buckle, bend, or twist
C. 2 A. tensile strength
D. 1 B. Hardness Impact strength

352. Terbium(Tb) atomic mass 159 belongs to C. Plastic deformation region

block D. Elastic deformation region
A. S 358. Which of these materials is good for mak-
B. F ing a scarf?
C. P A. wood
D. D B. fabric

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10.1 Basics 1321

C. metal C. Elasticity
D. glass D. Resistivity

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359. Which material(s) undergo plastic defor- 365. What gas is always produced when car-
mation? bonates reacts with acids?
A. Tile A. Oxygen
B. Paper Clip B. Hydrogen
C. Popsicle Stick C. Carbon dioxide
D. Plastic Bag D. Nitrogen

360. Identify the correct sequence? 366. Match the following group 1 items
(Method of atomization) with group 2
A. plaster-mortar-finish items (Application) and select the correct
B. finish-mortar-plaster option 1. D. P. G. Process A. Cop-
C. mortar-plaster-finish per tube2. Mannesmann process B.
Aerospace3. Dissolved gas atomization
D. finish-plaster-mortar C. Electronic framework4. Rotating
361. a measure of how easily a material al- electrodes atomization D. Aluminum
lows electrical current to flow through powder as solid rocket fuel
A. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
A. Stiffness
B. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
B. Passivity
C. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
C. Toxicity
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
D. Conductivity
367. If we say the child has an IQ of 100,
362. A describes what a material is like. what does this means?
A. Shoe A. The performance of the child is below
B. matter average.
C. mass B. The performance of the child is above
D. property average.
C. The mental age of the child is equal to
363. Which machine is used to measure com- his actual age.
pressive strength?
D. The performance of the child cannot be
A. Erichsen machine better.
B. Universal testing machine
368. Which statement best compares and con-
C. Impact testing machine trasts two physical properties of matter?
D. Fatigue testing machine A. Density and solubility are similar be-
cause they both involve water, but they
364. A measure of a material’s ability to dam- are different because density involves dis-
age or disrupt the metabolism of living tis- solving a material and solubility involves
sue floating or sinking a material.
A. Toxicity B. Density and solubility are similar be-
B. Passivity cause they both involve a material’s mass

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10.1 Basics 1322

and volume, but they are different be- D. Composites are when you take 2 or
cause density involves floating materials more matrix and mix them to create a new
and solubility involves sinking materials. material.
C. Boiling points and melting points are
372. Which of these three are true about hard-
similar because they both involve chang-
ness testing?
ing the heat of a material, but they are
different because boiling point involves A. Brinell Hardness is a type of testing to
adding heat to a material and melting force a sphere of metal into a surface

NARAYAN CHANGDER
point involves removing heat from a ma- B. Vickers Hardness is a type of testing
terial. using a diamond indenter
D. Boiling points and melting points are
C. Hardness testing is often carried on
similar because they both involve the
materials after heat treatment
change in a state of a material, but they
are different because boiling point in- D. Hardness tests are measured using a
volves a change from a liquid to a gas combination of numbers and letters to cre-
and melting point involves a change from ate a value e.g. 3mm Sheet Steel could
a solid to a liquid. have a measurement of Rockwell C 71
E. Hardness testing is often carried out
369. Which test would I carry out to measure
on materials before heat treatment
toughness of a material
A. vickers hardness 373. Material Science is the study of the
B. fatigue test of materials
C. charpy impact test A. Properties and Applications
D. visual inspection B. Color and Shape

370. This type of material is very strong, but C. Smell and Use
when it fails, its catastrophic. D. Composition and Chemistry
A. ceramic
374. What is the material of the car tyre?
B. polymer
A. plastic
C. metal
B. rubber
D. composite
C. metal
371. What is the definition of a composite?
D. none of above
A. Composites are when you weld two or
more metals together to form a new type 375. Johnny had three ice cubes in his cup.
of metal. They melted in the hot sun. How can
B. Composites are a combination of two Johnny reverse this change?
or more materials that are bonded to- A. Add more heat to the cup
gether to improve their mechanical or
B. Put his cup of melted water in the
physical properties.
freezer
C. Composites are when you take 2 or
C. Add more ice cubes to the cup
more metals and fuse them through melt-
ing. D. none of above

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10.1 Basics 1323

376. Zinc + sulfuric acid → 382. The three states of matter are solid, liq-
A. Zinc sulfide + hydrogen uid, and gas. Fill in the blanks. When we
boil water it turns into a

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Zinc sulfate + hydrogen
A. Solid
C. Zinc sulfate + Water +Carbon dioxide
B. Liquid
D. Zinc sulfide + water
C. Gas
377. It is a change of material from liquid to
solid D. none of above
A. freezing or cooling 383. Glue is what type of material?
B. melting
A. Metal
C. evaporation
B. Ceramic
D. condensation
C. Polymer
378. A bike rusting is an example of a D. Composite
A. chemical change
B. chemical property 384. A supersaturated interstitial solid solu-
tion of carbon in body-centered tetragonal
C. physical change iron.
D. physical property A. Dendrites
379. Which of the following property or prop- B. Martensite
erties are taken into consideration when
using glass to make a fish tank? (You may C. hardening
select more than one option.) D. Austenite
A. Glass is strong
385. Used to identify the different structures
B. Glass is fragile. of steel that occur at various temperatures
C. Glass is waterproof for a given percentage of carbon.
D. Glass is transparent. A. Iron-Carbon Phase Diagram
380. A material that cools slowly would have B. Hardness Impact strength
A. small crystals C. Plastic deformation region
B. large crystals D. Elastic deformation region
C. many grain boundaries
386. What term do scientists use to describe
D. poor workability the chemical process in which oxygen and
glucose react to release energy inside body
381. What is an alloy
cells?
A. A mixture of metals and gas
A. respiration
B. A mixture of carbon and steel
B. exhaling
C. A homogeneous mixture of metals and
sometimes non metals C. breathing
D. mixture of nonmetals D. inhaling

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10.1 Basics 1324

387. Name the material which is hardest? C. Metal

A. Rubber D. none of above
B. Wood
393. A material’s ability to catch fire and burn;
C. Glass important for organic materials and reac-
D. Pottery tive metals.

388. What are the three phases or states of A. Thermal conductivity

matter?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Conductivity
A. Solid, liquid and gass C. Combustibility
B. Solid, liquid, and wood D. Toxicity
C. Solid, iron, and gas
394. a characteristic tree-like structure of
D. Metal, wood, and paper crystals growing as molten metal solidifies
389. Which of the following mixtures can be A. Cementite
separated with a magnet?
B. Martensite
A. sand and salt
C. Austenite
B. sand and iron filings
D. Dendrites
C. sugar and water
D. saltwater 395. The Law of Conservation of Mass says
that matter can neither be or
390. Type of material that inorganic, crys-
A. created; destroyed
talline in nature, good thermal and electri-
cal conductor? B. recycled; renewed
A. composite material C. subtracted; added
B. metallic material D. joined; separated
C. polymeric material
396. How do you make a ceramic vase
D. ceramic material
A. Make a cut on rubber tree, wait for the
391. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is situ- sap to gather, collect it and process it.
ated in B. Get a lump of clay, shape it, dry it and
A. Karnataka burn it.
B. Maharashtra C. Get some sand, heat it with blowtorch
C. Delhi and shape it.
D. Rajasthan D. none of above

392. You need to build a prototype of a design 397. Which object listed below is mellable?
and need to choose a material that is easy
A. A glass cup
to machine. Which type of material should
you choose? B. A metal cup
A. Plastic C. A nylon cup
B. Wood D. A composite cup

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10.1 Basics 1325

398. Ductility C. Rugby Ball

A. the ability to be pulled or bent without D. Polystyrene

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rupturing
404. What makes the ice cream melt?
B. the overall framework or large view of
a material A. heat
B. refrigerator
C. the property that describes how much
air or water a material will absorb C. cooler
D. the process of reusing nonrenewable D. freezer
materials
405. a mixture of copper and tin
399. Which of the following is a by-product of A. bronze
ethanol production?
B. brass
A. ethanol
C. strain
B. carbon dioxide
D. Torsion
C. glucose
406. Alkenes contain
D. water
A. single bonds
400. The state of having exactly the same B. double bonds
number of positive and negative electrical
charges is known as C. triple bonds

A. electrobalance D. none of above

B. electroneutraility 407. How do we test for hydrogen?

C. electrically stable A. Squeaky pop test
D. stable state B. Hydrogen extinguishes a lit splint
C. Bubbling through lime water
401. Strong material cannot
D. Hydrogen makes a glowing splint re-
A. be bent easily
light
B. be torn easily
408. Most unsymmetrical Bravais lattice in
C. absorb water
terms of axial distances and angles is:
D. float on water
A. Monoclinic
402. An electrical and thermal insulator B. Tetragonal
A. Wood/glass/plastic C. Triclinic
B. Fabric /tissue/silk D. None
C. Metal/polythene/cotton 409. I am white and smooth. You can draw
D. None of them something on me. Who am I?
403. Which one is an example of a nanostruc- A. Paper
ture? B. Floor
A. Wood C. Bag
B. gecko foot D. Hat

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10.1 Basics 1326

410. the ability of a material to be stretched B. Both the identity and the properties of
into a wire a substance change.
A. Elasticity C. The chemical properties of a sub-
B. Solubility stance change, but its physical properties
remain the same.
C. Ductility
D. The physical properties of a substance
D. Malleability change, but its chemical properties re-
main the same.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
411. When does Lunar Eclipse happen
A. Half moon 416. share the same properties
B. Full moon A. No substances
C. Equinox B. Some substances
D. None C. Most substances
412. Which of these are properties of a win- D. All substances
dow?
A. transparent 417. is smooth, flexible and light.

B. strong A. metal

C. soft B. gold
D. flexible C. marble
D. plastic
413. Which of the following statement is false
A. Greater ratio of surface area to vol- 418. When buying take-away food from fast-
ume, more the hardening effect food restaurants, it is important to ensure
B. Spheres cool faster than irregular that the fried food does not become soggy
shaped objects when it is brought home.Which of the fol-
lowing materials is most suitable for pack-
C. Cooling is faster in water than oil ing take-away food to prevent the food
D. Precipitation hardening can also be from becoming soggy?
called age hardening A. Paper bag
414. What kind of material would you want B. Plastic bag
to make an umbrella out of?
C. Styrofoam box
A. rough
D. Food wrap film
B. stretchy
C. soft 419. Expose a sample of material to heat in
order to test it’s property
D. waterproof
A. Optical
415. Which statement best describes what
B. Elasticity
happens during a chemical change?
C. Ductile
A. Some properties of a substance
change, but its identity remains the same. D. Thermal

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10.1 Basics 1327

420. Which of the following can be made of 426. measures the largest shear force a mate-
glass? rials can stand before ripping apart

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A. knife A. shear strength
B. bottle B. Compression Strength
C. boots C. Young’s Modulus
D. pillow D. tensile strength

421. Platelets 427. A chain of repeating units (called

monomers)
A. allow for gases to exchange
A. monomer
B. give blood its color
B. dimer
C. fight infection and disease
C. replicate
D. help clot blood
D. polymer
422. If a material is brittle it
428. Three physical properties that can help
A. breaks when you bend it. identify glass are:
B. changes shape temporarily when you A. It is hard/durable
bend it.
B. It is transparent (you can see through
C. turns into fire when you bend it. it)
D. Turns into water when you bend it. C. It is breakable

423. Which of the following has the lowest D. It is flexible

electrical conductivity? 429. Which among the following is known as
A. quartz Schmid’s factor?
B. graphite A. (cos2 α ) x (cos2 β )
C. glass B. (cos α ) x (sin β )
D. ceramics C. (sin α ) x (sin β )
D. (cos α ) x (cos β )
424. Which of the following is a ceramic mate-
rial? 430. Potassium graphite and calcium graphite
A. LCS can mostly used as which among the fol-
lowing?
B. ABS
A. Moderators
C. Carbon fibre
B. Superconductors
D. Silicon nitrite
C. Semiconductors
425. A mixture of metals is called (an) D. Lubricants
A. alloy
431. Which of these materials is suitablefor
B. combo meal making gloves?
C. zirconium A. paper
D. kool-aid B. wool

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10.1 Basics 1328

C. glass 437. Plastic is smooth, flexible and

D. none of above A. soft
B. light
432. Which material can easily melt under the
sun? C. rigid
D. strong
A. candle
B. crayon 438. Face-centered cubic iron; also iron and
steel alloys that have the FCC crystal struc-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. wax ture.
D. ice A. Martensite
B. Austenite
433. Air is an example of which matter?
C. Ductility
A. Solid
D. Dendrites
B. Liquid
439. The kinds and relative count of elements,
C. Gas
ions, or other constituents in a material
D. none of above A. Composition
434. The reciprocal of electrical conductivity, B. Decomposition
the measure of resistance to flow of elec- C. Alloy
tric current D. Toughness
A. Toxicity
440. The main function of the red blood cells is
B. Passivity to
C. Resistivity A. allow gases to exchange
D. Conductivity B. fight infection
C. give blood its color
435. When a solid material moves from one
allotrope to another this is a D. help clot blood

A. grain boundary 441. What is one function of magnet?

B. solid state phase change A. magnets can attract objects that are
made of metal
C. line defect
B. magnets can attract plastic and rubber
D. point defect objects.
C. magnets can attract everything.
436. The practical use of scientific knowledge,
as in the development of new synthetic D. none of above
materials, is an example of in action.
442. What Chapter did we just finish?
A. nature A. Chapter 2
B. technology B. Chapter 4
C. simple machines C. Chapter A
D. none of above D. Chapter 1

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10.1 Basics 1329

443. Defects in the crystals which arise when 448. A fluid that does not follow the laws of
certain atoms/ions leave their normal physics
sites and occupy positions elsewhere in the

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A. amorphous fluid
lattice.
B. non-Newtonian fluid
A. edge dislocation
C. colloid
B. Dislocation
D. none of above
C. Tempering
449. Malleable means
D. Annealing
A. makes a noise when you hit it
444. Which material is used to make a key? B. does not break if you bend it
A. Wood C. scratches easily
B. Metal D. does not scratch easily
C. Plastic 450. Which category of materials includes
D. Cloth plastics and wool?
A. ceramic/glass
445. Quenching a metal is used to
B. polymer
A. increase strength
C. metal
B. increase workability
D. composite
C. decrease grain boundaries
451. easy to shape or bend
D. force a solid state phase change
A. malleable
446. Which of the following properties is/are B. hardening
likely to be seen in a material for making
sportswear suitable for a hot country like C. Annealing
Singapore? A. StiffB. AbsorbentC. Water- D. Austenite
proofD. Good conductor of heat
452. Flame hardening involves
A. B only
A. Heating the surface above the transfer
B. A and C only formation range
C. B and C only B. Quenching after heating
D. C and D only C. Minimum case depth is 1mm
D. All of the mentioned
447. Magnesium + hydrochloric acid→
A. Magnesium chloride + water 453. a weight or source of pressure borne by
someone or something
B. Magnesium chloride + hydrogen
A. Dendrites
C. Magnesium hydrochloride + hydro-
gen B. vacancy

D. Magnesium chloride + water + car- C. load

bon dioxide D. strain

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10.1 Basics 1330

454. Hard and attracted to a magnet 460. What is matter?

A. Wool A. heavy objects
B. Wood B. light weight objects
C. Metal
C. Anything that has weight and takes up
D. Cotton space
455. Technology that designs materials atom D. hard objects
by atom

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Tensile Strength 461. Tear Strength
B. Chemical bond A. a material’s ability to resist being
C. Macrostructure squeezed
D. Nanotechnology B. a material’s ability to resist tearing af-
ter setting
456. Covalent bonding
C. a material’s ability to resist being
A. something that is treated to not burn
pulled apart
as quickly as other materials
B. materials that allow electric charges D. a material’s ability to resist being
to flow through them easily twisted around an axis
C. a material’s ability to resist being 462. Which of the following apply to all group
twisted around an axis 18 elements?
D. occurs when an element shares elec-
A. Liquids
trons to produce a stable structure
B. Gases
457. This type of material has a low melting
point C. Nonreactive
A. ceramic D. Highly reactive
B. polymer E. Nonmetals
C. glass
D. metal 463. What are the properties of plastic?
A. Waterproof
458. Which material is the most brittle?
A. Aluminum B. Absorbent
B. Steel C. Good conductor of heat
C. Copper D. Poor conductor of heat
D. Glass
464. Metal is but paper is
459. Titanium is what type of material?
A. flexible, rigid
A. Metal
B. Ceramic B. soft, hard

C. Polymer C. strong, hard

D. Composite D. strong, weak

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10.1 Basics 1331

465. Ultrasonic testing is: B. 50

A. Mechanical energy with a speed of C. 10

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propagation faster than the speed of
D. 20
sound
B. Sound which has a frequency or pitch 471. A book is in a state.
above the range of the human ear A. liquid
C. The science of discontinuity detection B. gaseous
using ultrasonic sound
C. solid
D. Mechanical vibrations below the fre-
quency of human hearing D. none of above

466. In space, the sky looks to an astronaut: 472. A force that acts on rock to change its
shape or volume
A. White
B. Blue A. Martensite

C. Black B. Stress

D. Red C. Toughness
D. steel
467. Describes materials in our lives and how
they can be manipulated. 473. Two properties of matter are color and
A. Torsional strength texture. They both describe matter. What
are two more properties that describe mat-
B. Material Science Technology
ter?
C. Elastics
A. useable
D. Ultimate Tensile Strength (UTS)
B. organized
468. Metal is strong, and magnetic. C. Brilliant
A. soft D. Form & Function
B. rough
474. High speed steel belongs to the category
C. shiny
of steel.
D. rocky
A. Alloy
469. Which of these is not a function of alloy B. Stainless
steels?
C. Low carbon
A. Increases strength
D. High carbon
B. Improves ductility
C. Reduces cost 475. Which of the following objects is suitable
to make belt, wallet and handbag?
D. Improves machinability
A. glass
470. The mean weight of 150 students in a
B. rubber
class is 60 kg . Weight if boy is 70 kg and
weight of girl is 55 kg. Number of girls is C. iron
A. 100 D. leather

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10.1 Basics 1332

476. A material is if it allows most light to 481. Which excretory organ eliminates wa-
pass through. ter and some chemical wastes in perspira-
tion?
A. clear
A. lungs
B. strong
B. skin
C. flexible
C. liver
D. waterproof
D. kidneys

NARAYAN CHANGDER
477. Choose TWO (2) characteristics of Metals
482. Listed below are the types of cast iron
A. Atoms in metals and their alloys are ar- EXCEPT
ranged in a random A. grey cast iron
B. these materials are relatively stiff and B. white cast iron
strong, yet are ductile
C. black cast iron
C. Metals are extremely good conductors
D. nodular cast iron
of electricity and heat, and are not trans-
parent to visible light 483. Sun is the main source of
D. Metals are extremely good conductors A. water
of electricity and heat, and are transpar-
B. air
ent to light
C. heat
478. What physical property of a material that D. flood
refers to the point at which a material liq-
uefies on heating or solidifies on cooling? 484. Which material is suitable for making a
T-shirt?
A. melting point
A. wood
B. curie point
B. plastic
C. refractive index
C. metal
D. specific heat
D. fabric
479. What is a type of plastic 485. material is hard and attracted to a
A. Thermostills magnet
B. Thermosinks A. Glass
C. Thermoskates B. Wood

D. Thermosets C. Metal
D. none of above
480. During Stone Age, humans used stone to
486. Which of the following statements is/are
A. cut, pound and crush using stone tools true for cold working process? 1. Cold
B. build houses working process does not provide good
surface finish 2. Cold working process pro-
C. make wheels
duces internal stress in a metal 3. Fa-
D. none of the above tigue strength of metals can be improved

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10.1 Basics 1333

4. Cold working process cannot take place A. Fractional distillation

below recrystallization temperature B. filtration

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A. statement 1 and statement 2 C. crystallization
B. statement 2 and statement 3 D. evaporation
C. statement 3 and statement 4 492. Two integers are selected at random from
D. all the above statements are true integers 1 to 11. If sum of both is even
then the probability of getting of both the
487. Brass is an alloy of copper and integers being odd is
A. Zinc A. 3/11
B. Tin B. 2/11
C. Tin and zinc C. 0
D. Nickel D. 1
488. Select all the examples of polymers. 493. When the sun’s heat dries the rain from
A. water the ground, the puddles disappear. This
change is called
B. oxygen
A. Precipataion
C. protein
B. Condensation
D. latex
C. Evaporation
E. cotton
D. none of above
489. As we dilute a solution 494. A thermoplastic polymer is able to
A. The volume increases and the molarity A. be soft and flexible when heated
(M) increases
B. be rigid and brittle when heated
B. The volume increases and the molarity
C. be only translucent
(M) decreases
D. always be opaque
C. The volume decreases and the molar-
ity (M) increases 495. A defect where new atoms replace an ex-
D. The volume decreases and the molar- isting atom within a crystal.
ity (M) decreases A. substitutional
B. dislocation
490. How much is the Carbon Content (% ) in
high carbon-steel? C. slip plane
A. . 0.5-0.8 D. work-hardening
B. . 0.8-1.5 E. grain boundary

C. 0, 3-0, 5 496. Stages involve in addition polymerization

EXCEPT
D. 0.15-0.3
A. propagation
491. A separation technique which uses a frac-
B. catalyst
tionating column to separate different liq-
uid components in a mixture with different C. termination
boiling points by heating mixture is called D. initiation

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10.1 Basics 1334

497. What is an artificial material? 503. Which of these is not a material?

A. They are created by humans A. glass
B. They are created by animals B. pencils
C. They are created by doctors C. wood
D. They are created by kids D. plastic

498. What is the crystal structures of Noble 504. One thing that often makes people pay

NARAYAN CHANGDER
elements? attention to a material is when it
A. FCC A. fails
B. BCC B. floats
C. HCP C. bounces
D. No Crystal Structure D. reflects light

499. What are the reactants for the reaction 505. Name of things can give out sound? ex-
of magnesium with oxygenMagnesium + cept
oxygen → Magnesium oxide A. guitar, cymbals and speaker
A. Magnesium B. tree, table and book
B. Oxygen C. alarm clock, television and drums
C. Magnesium oxide D. speaker and handphone
D. Magnesium and oxygen
506. lowest temperature at which existence
500. What gas is always produced when a of a liquid phase is possible
metal reacts with acid? A. flexural strength
A. Oxygen B. eutectic point
B. Hydrogen C. Cementite
C. Carbon dioxide D. shear strength
D. Nitrogen
507. Listed below are non-ferrous metals EX-
501. The force that holds two atoms together CEPT
A. Mechanical fastener A. aluminium
B. Chemical bond B. zinc
C. Recycling C. hydrogen
D. Nanotechnology D. copper

502. Which of the following is a natural mate- 508. The tendency of a liquid to keep from
rial? flowing
A. cement A. Passivity
B. cotton B. Toxicity
C. polyester C. Slippery
D. nylon D. Viscosity

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10.1 Basics 1335

509. Materials that become thinner or liquefy B. sticky note

when energy is added to them, such as
C. paper money
blood or ketchup, are known as

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D. batik uniform
A. isotropic
B. colloid 515. The most abundant metal in the earth’s
C. thixotropic crust is
D. dilatant A. Iron

510. All of the following are examples of B. Alluminium

working a metal EXCEPT: C. Calcium
A. pounding D. Sodium
B. stamping
516. Which of the following materials has the
C. melting
ability to absorb water?
D. rolling
A. cotton
511. How can I confirm that a substance is a B. plastic cover
compound?
C. rubber ball
A. If it has different colour within it, it is
a compound D. metal spoon
B. If I CANNOT break it down into smaller
517. deformation of materials in response to
portions, it is a compound
stress
C. If the substance has a fixed melting
point, it is NOT a compound A. brass

D. none of the above B. strain

C. steel
512. What is another term for tempering?
A. recyrystallization D. Toughness

B. annealing 518. The smallest portion of lattice is known

C. spheroidizing as
D. drawing or toughening A. Cube

513. All the objects below have the ability to B. Unit

sink in water accept C. Cell
A. coin D. Unit cell
B. nail
519. material can be divided to class
C. plastic spoon
D. needle A. 1
B. 2
514. Which of the following is not made of
wood. C. 3
A. tissue paper D. 4

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10.1 Basics 1336

520. Water freezing into ice is a 525. Which one of the following is not basic
component of Materials Science?
A. chemical change
A. Cost
B. chemical property
B. Properties
C. physical change
C. Structure
D. physical property
D. Performance
521. Copper carbonate + hydrochloric acid →

NARAYAN CHANGDER
526. Golden ratio is
A. Copper chloride + hydrogen A. 1.414
B. Copper chloride + water B. 1.618
C. Copper chloride + water + hydrogen C. 1.732
D. Copper chloride + water + carbon- D. 3.142
dioxide
527. Which organ of the excretory system
522. Amorphous stores urine until the body is ready to elim-
inate it?
A. the process of reusing nonrenewable
A. ureters
materials
B. urethra
B. shapeless, without form
C. urinary bladder
C. the property that describes how much
air or water a material will absorb D. urea

D. process of cutting away materials 528. Which type of materials exhibit mag-
netism only in presence of an electric
523. Serena is mixing a material into a beaker field?
filled with a liquid. She notices that the A. Diamagnetic materials
material seems to disappear into the liquid.
What physical property of the material is B. Paramagnetic materials
Serena most likely observing? C. Ferromagnetic materials
A. solubility D. None of the above
B. conductivity 529. Example of ceramic material
C. magnetism A. porcelain
D. density B. fiber glass
C. concrete
524. one-dimensional defects that occur in real
crystalline solids and control their plastic D. silicon
deformation
530. Flexible and elastic and a opaque
A. Dislocation A. Fabric
B. Austenite B. Tissue paper
C. Ductility C. Rubber
D. Failure fatigue D. Wood

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10.1 Basics 1337

531. Which general term is used to describe 536. a metallurgical metalworking process
the individual molecules that combine to used to increase the hardness of a metal
make plastics?

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A. Austenite
A. Monomer B. Martensite
B. Polymer C. hardening
C. Molecule D. Annealing
D. Hydrocarbon 537. Which of the following elements has the
highest thermal conductivity?
532. Which of the following is not a charac-
teristic that helps define synthetic materi- A. Zinc
als? B. Copper
A. made from natural resources C. Gold
B. underwent a chemical reaction. D. Aluminum

C. made to fit a specific function 538. When you dilute a solution, which of
these values remains constant?
D. made using metal
A. The molarity (M)
533. All of the following object have the abil- B. The total moles of solute
ity to absorb water accept
C. The volume (V)
A. sponge
D. The concentration
B. paper
539. What do you mean by float on the wa-
C. tissue ter?
D. rain coat A. To stay on top of the water
B. To stay in between the water
534. What mechanical property of a material
refers to the resistance to plastic deforma- C. To stay at the bottom of the water
tion? D. To stop
A. rigidity 540. Which of the following determine the
B. plasticity properties of a polymer?
C. ductility A. chemical nature of the monomer
D. hardness B. length of the polymer chain
C. how the monomers are joined to-
535. The interface separating two adjoining gether
grains having different crystallographic
D. All of the above
orientations.
A. dislocation 541. If you push or pull the object and the ob-
ject does not break, so the object proper-
B. workability ties is
C. grain boundary A. weak
D. vacancy B. strong

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10.1 Basics 1338

C. flexible C. a material’s ability to resist tearing af-

D. transparent ter setting
D. a material’s ability to resist being
542. First metal known to be used by man squeezed
A. Iron
548. Quenching
B. Bronze
A. Consists of heating the component to
C. Silver critical temperature

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Aluminium B. Cooling rapidly

543. Transparent means C. Increases hardness

D. All of the mentioned
A. cannot see through it
B. light passes through it 549. When you put butter in a frying pan and
turned on the gas stove. What will happen
C. light does not pass through
to the butter?
D. only some light passes through A. remain solid
544. a material with a large stress which re- B. becomes liquid
quires a small strain C. becomes gas
A. Hardness D. none of the above
B. Stiffness
550. A synthetic material begins with
C. Brittleness chemically changed to produce a material
D. Corrision with different characteristics.
A. renewable resources
545. Materials that allow electric charges to
flow through them easily B. naturals resources

A. Dendrities C. coal

B. Microstructure D. plastics

C. Conductors 551. imperfection in the regular geometrical

arrangement of the atoms in a crystalline
D. Plastics
solid
546. What are the curtains made of? A. crystal defect
A. they are made of fabric B. Cross-sectional area
B. they are made of glass C. grain boundary
C. they are made of wood D. Tempering
D. they are made of gold 552. Which of the following can be bent using
our hands only?
547. Tensile Strength
A. Wooden table
A. a material’s ability to resist being
twisted around an axis B. Glass door
B. a material’s ability to resist being C. Plastic bag
pulled apart D. Metal box

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10.1 Basics 1339

553. Which of these are metals? 559. What is the application of cast iron?
A. Gold A. Car body

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B. Plastic B. Engine blocks
C. Rubber C. Bridge
D. Copper D. Hammer

554. Which of the following materials has the 560. Which set of properties are commonly as-
highest specific heat? sociated with ceramic materials.
A. copper A. Greeks enjoy throwing them at wed-
B. aluminum dings.
B. High levels of strength, good conduc-
C. iron
tivity and light weight.
D. lead
C. Nice colours
555. Coal, in its raw form, can be used for D. High levels of strength, high levels of
A. building walls heat resistance and quite brittle.
B. cooking food 561. Which of the following is a type of natu-
C. heating ral polymer?
D. making clothing A. Cotton
B. polyester
556. Large molecules made up of small
monomers are called C. polystyrene
A. polymers D. nylon
B. peptides 562. Wet corrosion would only occur with the
C. peptones presence of
D. monomers A. heat
B. electricity
557. Which general size of crystals produce
the most grain boundaries and therefore C. moisture
the most interfacial defects: D. air
A. small crystals
563. What are the three classification of ma-
B. large crystals terials?
C. both A. Metals, Ceramics and Polymers
D. none of above B. Plastic, Rubber and Glass
558. If you wanted to build a house, which ma- C. Carbon, glass and foam
terial is the best to use? D. None of the above
A. clay 564. Biomaterial is the example of mate-
B. rubber rial
C. metal A. basic
D. brick B. advanced

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10.1 Basics 1340

C. nanoengineered 570. Which material is made by joining many

D. wood smaller units together?
A. composite
565. What type of reaction is the follow-
B. metal
ing:HCl + Zn → ZnCl2 + H2
C. polymer
A. Neutralisation
D. ceramic
B. Acid and a metal

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Acid and a carbonate 571. Hardness of metal means that it is
D. Ionic A. resistant to corrosion
B. resistant to bending
566. Which type of bond has an equal sharing
of electrons? C. resistant to abrasion

A. Covalent D. resistant to rupture

B. Ionic 572. Which mixture can be separated using a

C. Metallic filter?
A. sand and iron filings
D. none of above
B. saltwater
567. Which of the following is TRUE about dry
C. sand and water
corrosion
D. none of the above
A. Also known as direct oxidation corro-
sion 573. Choose the ways in which you can change
B. Also known as electrochemical corro- solid materials.
sion A. cutting
C. Causes metal to damage slowly but ef- B. tearing
fectively
C. folding
D. Involves the position of metal in the D. bending
electrochemical series
574. a twisting force
568. The ability of a material to deform, usu-
ally by stretching along its length A. strain

A. plasticity B. bronze

B. ductility C. Torsion
D. alloy
C. malleability
D. elasticity 575. A measure of a material’s ability to ab-
sorb light as it passes through; the ratio
569. select the incorrect spelling of absorbed light to incident light.
A. stretching A. Resistivity
B. skwashing B. Polarization
C. bending C. Absorptivity
D. twisting D. Transmissivity

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10.1 Basics 1341

576. What is Materials all about? 581. Which of the following shows correct
spelling
A. substance of which something is com-
A. matereal

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posed or made
B. earth crust and atmosphere B. matireal

C. stone, wood, clay, skins C. material

D. mataerel
D. ALL
582. Stress at which noticeable plastic defor-
577. Atoms of an element bonded together in mation has occurred
different structures are called
A. Tear Strength
A. ceramics B. Flame Resistant
B. allotropes C. Tensile Strength
C. metals D. Yield strength
D. point defects 583. What is the medical term for watery fluid
inside the lympathic vessels?
578. Once formed, it can be heated and re-
formed over and over again A. Plasma
B. Lymph
A. thermoset
C. Blood
B. thermoplastic
D. none of above
C. elastomer
584. Which of the following is not an alloy?
D. kevlar
A. Brass
579. What does the word ductile mean? B. Tin
A. The ability for a material to be pro- C. Stainless Steel
cessed in several ways D. Bronze
B. The ability for a material to be drawn
585. Induction hardening process involves
out into a thin wire without losing its
strength A. Heating surface by induction in field of
invariable current
C. The ability for a material to be recycled
B. Case depth minimum of 2mm are pro-
D. The ability for an object to pass elec- duced
tricity and heat through it
C. Heating surface by induction in field of
580. act to halt a dislocation’s movement, re- alternating current
quiring a greater amount of force to be ap- D. None of the mentioned
plied to overcome the barrier. This results
586. Which of the following is a synthetic ma-
in an overall strengthening of materials
terial?
A. stainless steel A. wool
B. Pinned dislocations B. silk
C. Stress C. rubber
D. Hardness Impact strength D. steel

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10.1 Basics 1342

587. How many liters would you need to make 593. Synthetic materials
a 1 M solution if you have 6 mol of Sodium A. have only negative effects on the envi-
Hydroxide? ronment
A. 2
B. are obtained directly from nature
B. 3
C. have undergone chemical reactions
C. 4
D. have no similarity to materials in na-
D. 6 ture

NARAYAN CHANGDER
588. Which of these materials is a good con- 594. A student added dilute hydrochloric acid
ductor of heat? to four metals and recorded his results.
A. Wood Which is correct
B. Ceramic A. No reaction with zinc
C. Metal B. Gas given off with copper
D. none of above C. Gas given off with magnesium
589. Capillaries join together D. quickly reacts with iron
A. veins and arteries 595. When you placed water inside the
B. veins and the heart freezer, it
C. arteries and veins A. evaporate
D. heart and valves B. melt

590. Aerated water contains C. solidifies

A. SO2 D. none of the above
B. H2 596. When the material was heated, the tem-
C. NO2 perature was
D. CO2 A. decreased

591. The group 17 elements are part of the B. increased

A. Alkali Metals C. the same

B. Alkaline Earth Metals D. all of the above

C. Transition Metals 597. Which of the following statements is true
D. Halogens for green density?
E. Noble Gases A. Green density increases when particle
strength increases
592. What are NOT ingredients of Good Brick
B. Green density decreases when com-
Earth
pacting speed decreases
A. Silica
C. Green density increases when com-
B. Alumina paction pressure increases
C. Lime D. Green density decreases when appar-
D. Carbon ent density increases

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10.1 Basics 1343

598. Conductors such as metal let flow 603. The process of reusing nonrenewable ma-
through easily? terials

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A. water A. Ductility
B. milk B. Shearing
C. heat C. Recycling
D. oil D. Chemical bond
599. Which element is non structural compo-
604. Plastic is smooth, and light.
nent of building
A. flexible
A. Roof
B. Lintel B. rough

C. Column C. rigid
D. Walls D. strong
E. None of the above 605. Which of the following in NOT a factor
that limits the production of synthetic ma-
600. Which of the following in NOT a key rea-
terials?
son that plastics can harm the environ-
ment? A. natural resource availability
A. They are used to make disposable B. regional climate
items, creating waste. C. regional economic factors
B. They release poisons into the water
D. creation of waste
supply.
C. They last a long time in the environ- 606. Heat makes candle?
ment. A. replace
D. They can break down to form mi- B. change
croplastics.
C. switch
601. How are covalent bonds explained?
D. size
A. When one atom takes the other atom’s
electron 607. Why is glass the best material for win-
B. When the atom shares an electron dows?
with an another atom A. It’s smooth.
C. When the two nucleus merge B. It’s transparent.
D. When the neutrons leave the nucleus C. It’s soft.
602. What is the main function of the excre- D. It’s cheap
tory system?
608. Which material is hard?
A. to collect and remove wastes from the
body A. glass
B. to strengthen skeletal muscles B. brick
C. to protect the nervous system C. metal
D. to bring oxygen to body cells D. all of the above

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10.1 Basics 1344

609. Covalent compounds 615. Presently most used metal in the world
A. Share electrons A. Aluminium
B. transfer electrons B. Gold
C. contain a sea of electrons C. Steel
D. conduct electricity D. Silver
610. Choose the options that represent com- 616. Which of these is true?
pounds

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Hardness is tested using a standard
A. sulfur dioxide machine to make an hole in the surface of
B. air the material
C. lithium metal B. Hardness is tested using a standard
D. NaCl machine to make an indentation in the sur-
face of the material
E. stainless steel
C. The width of the hole determines the
611. relative atomic mass refers to hardness of the material
A. no. of protons + electrons D. ultra sonic testing can be used for
B. no. of protons + neutrons hardness testing
C. no. of neutrons only 617. What are the main organs of the respira-
D. no. of protons only. tory system that allow us to breathe and
for gas exchange to happen?
612. A ripped sheet of paper is an example of
A. diapragm

A. chemical change B. lungs

B. irreversible change C. trachea

C. reversible change D. none of above
D. ripped change 618. A point defect produced when an atom is
placed into the crystal at a site that is nor-
613. This window is made of which two mate-
mally not a lattice point.
rials?
A. Cross-sectional area
A. wood and rubber
B. glass and wood B. Interstitial defect

C. fabric and glass C. substitutional defect

D. none of above D. edge dislocation

614. Which material is transparent and flexi- 619. Ability to absorb energy without fractur-
ble? ing
A. Plasstic A. Hard
B. Plastic B. Strong
C. Rubber C. Tough
D. Fabric D. Brittle

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10.1 Basics 1345

620. Light Transmission 625. is hard and strong and easy to make
into objects such as chairs, tables and
A. the movement of light through a mate-
bookcases.

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rial or object
A. rubber
B. the process of putting parts together
during the manufacturing process B. marble
C. glass
C. the overall framework or large view of
a material D. wood
D. the desired form is obtained by remov- 626. Porous materials are materials
ing excess materia A. having small holes that allow air or liq-
uid to pass through
621. If a material is waterproof it
B. having no hole and do not allow air or
A. is made of ice. liquid to pass through
B. is made of water. C. having no air
C. doesn’t let water go though it. D. all of the above
D. lets water go through it. 627. A Universal donor person have a blood
group:
622. Stainless steel is commonly used to make
pots and pans because A:it is light and A. A
waterproofB:it does not rustC:it is a good B. AB
conductor of heatD:it is durable and does C. O
not melt at temperatures used for cooking
D. B
A. A and B only
628. Handles of cooking pots should be made
B. A, B, and C only of?
C. B and C only A. Metal
D. A, B, C, and D B. Plastic
C. Glass
623. Plastic is
D. none of above
A. absorbent
629. What is an intended purpose?
B. waterproof
A. A group of things that go together
C. strong
B. what something is used for
D. rigid
C. used to describe something
624. What are considered as the building D. none of above
blocks for engineering materials?
630. Metal is , shiny and magnetic.
A. atoms
A. soft
B. elements B. rough
C. matters C. flexibe
D. compounds D. strong

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10.1 Basics 1346

631. Which has the strongest gravitational C. Plastic and oil are use mainly for coat-
field? ings.
A. Sun D. Chromium is added to the steel to en-
B. Earth hance its corrosion resistant properties.
C. Saturn 637. Application of composite material
D. Moon
A. computer

NARAYAN CHANGDER
632. All of the following object come from B. handphone
plant accept
C. aircraft wing
A. rubber
D. DVDs
B. wood
C. cotton 638. White blood cells
D. iron A. allow for gases to exchange
633. Which one of the following is NOT suit- B. give blood its color
able for making a table? C. fight infection and disease
A. wood D. help clot blood
B. metal
C. plastic 639. Changing Shape! We can change the
shape of solid materials by
D. fabric
A. pulling and pushing on them
634. Abel’s medal is given by
B. adding water to them
A. Govt of India
C. burning them
B. Govt of Norway
D. none of above
C. Govt of japan
D. Govt of China 640. Fluids that become thicker when adding
energy, such as oobleck, are called
635. Rock is:
A. isotropic
A. Man-made and light
B. thixotropic
B. Produced by transforming and refining
petroleum C. dilatant
C. A natural and very tough material D. colloid
D. none of above
641. UV rays can be used in water treatment
636. Which of the following statement below as
is an example of corrosion remedial action A. Flocculator
in designs?
B. Hydrolyser
A. Bolts and rivets should be replaced by
proper welding. C. Precipitator
B. Use of corrosion resistant alloys. D. Disinfectant

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10.1 Basics 1347

642. Materials science is the science of 648. Which of the following tools are not used
A. solids when performing a visual inspection test?

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A. Boroscope
B. liquids
B. Stethoscope
C. gases
C. Mirrors
D. microorganisms
D. Endoscope
643. Once an animal is dead, the skin is re- E. X-rays
moved by a
A. hide remover 649. failure by sudden fracture, characteristic
of ceramic materials
B. skinner
A. Brittleness
C. shearer
B. Hardness
D. tanner C. Strength
644. Example for man made material is D. Failure
A. cotton 650. Transparent and flexible
B. glass A. Plasstic
C. Paper B. Plastic
D. Slate C. Rubber

645. What are two-dimensional defects? D. Fabric

E. Polythene
A. Boundary defect
B. Point defect 651. A man jumping out of a moving train is
thrown in
C. Line defect
A. Forward direction
D. Volume defect
B. Backward direction
646. Although ceramic materials have a good C. Upward direction
range of important properties one limita-
tion to their use is that they are often D. Downward direction

A. Too malleable 652. is the ability of a material to return

to its original shape after being pulled,
B. Too brittle
pressed or stretched
C. Too ductile A. electricity conductor
D. Too light B. sink
647. Metal is strong, shiny and C. elasticity
A. magnetic D. heat conductor
B. rough 653. is strong, shiny and magnetic.
C. flexible A. plastic
D. rocky B. graphene

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10.1 Basics 1348

C. metal 659. What is a matrix?

D. glass A. A material used to bond composite ma-
terials
654. What does ‘brittle’ mean? B. A type of carbon fiber
A. Soft C. A type of concrete used in the building
B. Easily breakable industry
D. A type of laminated wood to make
C. Easily bendable

NARAYAN CHANGDER
cheap furniture
D. Tough
660. All of these materials came from animal
655. Use in or on the human body without accept
eliciting a rejection response from the sur- A. leather
rounding body tissues. B. rock
A. Malleability C. wool
B. Resistivity D. silk
C. Toxicity 661. The charasteristics of stainless steel are
D. Biocompatibility determined by
A. resistance
656. a type of point defect in a crystal where
B. high stress
an atom is missing from one of the lattice
sites C. cobalt content
A. vacancy D. chromium content

B. Tempering 662. Atoms joined together by SHARING elec-

trons are?
C. grain boundary
A. Ionic bonds
D. Annealing
B. Covalent bonds
657. A piece of material is flexible if it can C. Metallic Bonds
A. break easily D. James Bonds
B. be torn easily 663. The engineering materials known as plas-
C. be bent easily tics are more correctly called
A. polyvinyl chloride
D. absorb water
B. polymers
658. A force that acts on something to change C. polyethylene
its shape or volume
D. mers
A. load
664. This type of material is made up of non-
B. Dendrites metals
C. strain A. metal
D. Stress B. polymer

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10.1 Basics 1349

C. compound C. ask a friend to sniff it

D. ceramic D. sniff directly

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665. The structural features which ranges
670. Polyester, nylon, acrylic, and acetate, are
from glassy to crystalline; includes grain
all examples of
boundaries and phase structures.
A. polymers
A. Microstructure
B. Plastic deformation B. composites
C. Biocompatibility C. rayons
D. Macrostructure D. natural materials

666. A material’s ability to withstand degra- 671. What property of the material is changed
dation from acids, solvents, water, or oxy- when heated?
gen.
A. size
A. Chemical resistance
B. texture
B. Toughness
C. Tensile strength C. shape

D. Biocompatibility D. all of the above

667. Which of the following best describes 672. a measure of the stiffness of an elastic
why the Moon orbits Earth? material, defined as the ratio of stress to
A. The distance the Moon and Earth are strain.
from the Sun. A. tensile strength
B. The energy reflected from the surface B. shear strength
of Earth.
C. Young’s Modulus
C. The winds generated on Earth by the
energy of the Sun. D. stainless steel
D. The gravitational attraction between
the Moon and Earth. 673. the ability of a material to resist fracture
A. Cementite
668. The ability of a material to stand up to
forces being applied with it bending, shat- B. Ductility
tering or deforming. C. Toughness
A. Hardness
D. strain
B. Strain
C. Strength 674. The materials are continuously magne-
tized throughout the operation in
D. Stress
A. DC applications
669. How should you test for odors during a
lab investigation? B. AC applications
A. listen for any noises C. Both a. and b.
B. waft D. None of the above

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10.1 Basics 1350

675. Which of the following is the purest form C. flax

of iron? D. silk
A. Cast Iron
680. Astatine is found in Group VII. Which
B. Wrought Iron
statement is true regarding astatine? Se-
C. Mild Steel lect all that apply.
D. High Carbon Steel A. It will have the same chemical proper-
ties as chlorine

NARAYAN CHANGDER
676. Which of the following is not one of the
four categories of materials B. It needs one more electron to achieve
a full valence shell
A. Metals
B. Polymers C. It is a metalloid

C. Plastics D. It has the same physical properties as

other elements in Group VII
D. Composites
E. Ceramics/Glass 681. Which materials below are non-
magnetic?
677. The human heart is an organ that pumps
A. gold
blood throughout the body supplying oxy-
gen, nutrients, blood, and hormones to and B. iron
from the tissues removing and other C. glass
wastes.
D. paper
A. hydrogen dioxide
B. carbon moxoide 682. Play Dough is an example of
C. water molecules A. reversible change
D. carbon dioxide B. irreversible change
C. chemical change
678. Ceramics
A. Materials that undergo a permanent D. fun change
change in shape or size when subjected
683. All of the following are the basic sources
to a particular amount of stress
of materials accept
B. The property that describes how much
A. Animal
air or water a material will absorb.
B. Light
C. Describes a material’s ability to return
to its original shape after being stretched C. Plant
D. Objects made from clay or other com- D. Rock
binations of minerals baked at high tem-
perature 684. Sodium (Na) is classified as a
A. Metal
679. Which natural material is most often used
to make paper? B. Nonmetal
A. wood C. Metalloid
B. wool D. none of above

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10.1 Basics 1351

685. Which type of bond has a transfer of an B. Vibration

electron from on atom to another? C. Tension

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A. Covalent
D. Pollution
B. Ionic
691. What can you say about the temperature
C. Metallic
when the material was cooled?
D. none of above
A. temperature decreased
686. The plastic deformation of a metal at a B. temperature increased
temperature below that at which it recrys-
tallizes. C. temperature the same
A. cold working D. none of the above
B. hardening 692. Which of the following object can sink in
C. Failure fatigue water
D. Ductility A. plastic spoon

687. Solid, liquid, gas or plasma; not as simple B. pencil

as it may seem. C. marble
A. Specific heat D. cork
B. Melting point
693. Researchers have crafted a material that
C. Crystal structure collects water from the air. The idea came
D. State from observing what insect?
A. Monarch Butterfly
688. Annealing involves heating the compo-
nent to a temperature B. Praying Mantis
A. Slightly above the critical temperature C. Stenocara beetle
B. Equal to critical temperature D. Grasshopper
C. Slightly less than critical temperature
694. Repeatable unit of polymers
D. None of the mentioned
A. isomer
689. When do temporary magnets lost their B. copolymer
power?
C. homopolymer
A. When they get close to another mag-
net D. mer
B. When they are put underwater 695. Materials that undergo a permanent
C. When the magnetic source is removed change in shape or size when subjected to
a particular amount of stress
D. none of above
A. Plastics
690. is a process of metal reduction from
B. Elastics
the conditions that can be used to the con-
ditions that cannot be used. C. Ceramics
A. Corrosion D. Conductors

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10.1 Basics 1352

696. A good materialfor making an umbrella 702. how easily a metal can be changed into a
should be new shape
A. Heavy and rough A. Slip planes
B. Light and waterproof B. strain
C. Absorbent and shiny C. Quenching
D. none of above D. Workability

NARAYAN CHANGDER
697. Which of the following is flexible? 703. What is a material property?
A. rubber A. Electrical conductivity
B. metal B. Macrostructure
C. cotton C. Metal matrix
D. fabric D. Bronze Age

698. and are example of materials 704. What is created by adhering layers to-
made of the basic source of rocks. gether?
A. Wool, metal A. dilitants
B. Metal, plastic B. ceramics
C. Plastic, soil C. glass
D. Soil, metal D. composites

699. the rapid cooling of a metal to adjust the 705. Elastics

mechanical properties of its original state A. Materials that undergo a permanent
A. Cementite change in shape or size when subjected
B. quench to a particular amount of stress

C. Austenite B. Describes a material’s ability to return

to its original shape after being stretched
D. Ductility
C. Describes materials in our lives and
700. A family of directions is represented by how they can be manipulated.
A. (hkl) D. Objects made from clay or other com-
binations of minerals baked at high tem-
B. <uvw> perature
C. {hkl}
706. A defect where single atoms are missing
D. [uvw] entirely from a crystal structure.
701. Plastic is , flexible, and light. A. point defect
A. rough B. vacancy
B. dull C. interstitial
C. shiny D. interfacial
D. smooth E. metal working

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10.1 Basics 1353

707. A process that turns metal into molten liq- 713. If a material burns easily it
uid and pours that into a die. A. turns into fire when a flame touches it.

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A. Extrusion B. turns into water when a flame touches
B. Molding it.
C. Forming C. turns into gold when a flame touches
it.
D. Casting
D. turns into paper when a flame touches
708. Melted candle become when cooled. it.

A. solid 714. A measure of a material’s ability to allow

the passage of light; the ratio of transmit-
B. liquid
ted light to incident light.
C. gas
A. Absorptivity
D. no changes B. Transmissivity
709. The ability of a material to change shape C. Polarization
without breaking is referred to as D. Resistivity
A. allotrope 715. If a material is elastic it
B. annealing A. can regain its shape
C. workability B. can melt easily.
D. crystal structure C. can retain the shape easily
D. can resist hardness.
710. Veins carry blood the heart.
A. back to 716. Which of the following shows physical
change?
B. away
A. water becomes ice
C. parallel
B. burning a piece of paper
D. none of above
C. burning of wood
711. Alkynes are D. rusting of iron
A. hydrocarbons with only single bonds 717. A common use of ultrasonic testing is:
B. hydrocarbons with double bonds A. Cleaning
C. hydrocarbons with triple bonds B. Detecting of sub-surface indications
D. none of above C. Determination of the test piece ductil-
ity
712. ability to resist breaking when pulled D. Communications
A. vacancy
718. Which property measures the amount of
B. load space an object takes up?
C. tensile strength A. Reflectivity
D. crystal defects B. Mass

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10.1 Basics 1354

C. Conductivity 724. Two sources of energy that are renew-

D. Volume able and available in Virginia are-
A. natural gas and wind power.
719. Renewable
B. coal and hydropower.
A. rough sketches, the first design step
C. petroleum and solar power.
B. the force that holds two atoms to- D. wind power and solar power.
gether
725. Select all the options that show correct

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the process of reusing nonrenewable
materials chemical formula of the ions.
A. Al3+
D. A natural resource that can be re-
placed B. F-
C. O-
720. Which of the following are not true for
carbo nitriding D. Ca+

A. Introducing carbon and nitrogen at E. S2+

surface layer 726. Weak and absorbent
B. Component is heated in range of 650 A. Fabric
to 920’C B. Cardboard
C. Cyaniding is similar to carbo nitriding C. Plastic
except that the medium is liquid
D. Glass
D. This process gives a lower wear resis-
tance compared to case carburising pro- 727. Name an instrument used to measure the
cess intensity of earthquakes?
A. Richter scale
721. What do you mean by to sink?
B. Ammeter
A. To dance
C. Hyeto meter
B. To stay at the bottom
D. Oometer
C. To stay up in the air
728. Metal carbonates react with acid to form
D. To shine

722. The word purified means A. Salt, carboxylic acid and water
A. to make clean B. chloride Salt, carbon dioxide and wa-
ter
B. to mix with other materials
C. Salt and carbonated water
C. to heat
D. Salt and hydrogen
D. none of above
729. The expansion of all materials when
723. Phenomenon of cross slip occurs in heated and contract when cooled.
A. Point imperfections A. Thermal expansion
B. Line imperfections B. Plastic deformation
C. Volume imperfections C. Dielectric strength
D. Surface imperfections D. Thermal conductivity

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10.1 Basics 1355

730. Burning and give off heat 735. In a science lab, Cash mixes two clear liq-
uids together in a beaker. Bubbles are pro-
A. rubbing
duced, and a white solid forms and settles

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. tracing to the bottom. He plans to heat the beaker
C. polishing over low heat and make more observa-
tions. In a science lab, Cash mixes two
D. thingking clear liquids together in a beaker. Bubbles
are produced, and a white solid forms and
731. Carbon (C) is classified as a settles to the bottom. He plans to heat
A. Metal the beaker over low heat and make more
observations.
B. Nonmetal
A. A physical change occurred, so if Cash
C. Metalloid heats it, the white solid will dissolve to
D. none of above form the original mixture of clear liquids.
B. A physical change occurred, so even if
732. Anita places three cubes on a table. One Cash heats it, the white solid will remain.
cube is lead, the second is ice, and the third
C. A chemical change occurred, so if Cash
is balsa wood. The sides of each cube are
heats it, the white solid will dissolve to
exactly 3.5 centimeters long. Which do all
form the original mixture of clear liquids.
three cubes have in common?
D. A chemical change occurred, so even if
A. The same mass
Cash heats it, the white solid will remain.
B. The same weight
736. Work hardening a metal
C. The same volume
A. decreases crystal defects
D. The same temperature
B. can make a metal brittle
733. What happens when a substance under- C. increases workability
goes a physical change? D. allow for movement of line defects
A. Some physical properties change, but 737. what is the endurance/ fatigue limit of a
the substance keeps its identity. material
B. No physical properties change, and the A. the minimum load that won’t cause fail-
substance keeps its identity. ure by fatigue
C. Some physical properties change, and B. the maximum load that won’t cause
the substance changes its identity. failure by fatigue
D. No physical properties change, but the C. the number of cycles to failure
substance changes its identity. D. energy absorbed by a material
734. As a natural material timber is an 738. The type of point defect that can move
A. Isotropic material. through a crystal structure through diffu-
sion is known as (thing of the tile puzzle
B. Heterogeneous material. analogy):
C. Homogeneous material. A. vacancy
D. None of these B. substitutional defect

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 10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1356

C. interstitial A. More than 2% C

D. none of above B. Up to 4% C
739. Commercially pure iron contains up to C. Up to 10% C
0.008% C and steel up to 2% C.What are
the carbon content in Cast iron? D. Up to 7% C

10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. Which of the following phases present in 6. What colour does copper turn when it oxi-
Fe-Fe3C diagram have BCC structure? dises?
A. Ferrite A. Green
B. Austenite B. Brown
C. Cementite
C. Bronze
D. Martensite
D. Blue
2. The structure of an allow consist of 2 types
of atoms, which are 7. An excess of Carbon in the air added to the
A. there are 3 types blast furnace can react to form
B. both main metals A. Carbon Dioxide
C. both alloying agents B. Carbon
D. The atom of the main metal, and alloy-
C. Carbon monoxide
ing agent
D. Calcium Carbonate
3. What type of oxide is:Water
A. Amphoteric Oxide 8. Which of the following are alloys? (choose
B. Basic Oxide 3)
C. Neutral Oxide A. Lead
D. Acidic Oxide B. Bronze
4. Steel is made up of C. Brass
A. iron and carbon D. Aluminium
B. copper and iron
E. Stainless Steel
C. tin and carbon
D. aluminium and nickel 9. Which of the followings is an acidic ox-
ide?
5. What does ductile mean?
A. SO2
A. electricity flows easily
B. quacks like a duck B. H2O

C. can be drawn into a wire C. CO

D. able to bend D. ZnO

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1357

10. Metallic bonding is defined as the electro- 15. Which of these metals would rust easily?
static attraction between: A. Cast Iron

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A. positive charged metal ions and a sea B. Low-Carbon Steel
of neutrons
C. Zinc
B. positive charged metal ions and nega-
D. Copper
tive delocalized electrons
C. negative charged metal ions and a sea 16. Why are alloys more useful than normal
of electrons metals?
A. Because they weaker
D. negative charged metal ions and posi-
tive delocalized electrons B. Because they have less properties
C. Because they have more useful at-
11. Why are metals not useful in their pure tributes
form and need to be alloyed?
D. They are not more useful
A. Most metals are too soft and brittle
17. In a reaction, an acid and a base pro-
B. Most metals are too tough and brittle
duce a salt and a water.
C. Most metals are too hard and difficult A. concentrated
to shape
B. decomposition
D. Most metals are too expensive
C. dilute
12. Iron is a good conductor, malleable and D. neutralization
magnetic. What type of element is Iron?
18. Malleabilising treatment is carried out on
A. Metal
B. Nonmetal A. SG Cat Iron
C. Metalloid B. Grey Cast Iron
D. none of above C. White Cast Iron
D. Nodular Cast Iron
13. Which of the following is not a property of
a metal? 19. The arrangement of valence electrons in a
A. Lustrous metal is modelled after
A. the bohr model
B. Ductile
B. a sea of electrons
C. Brittle
C. a sea band
D. Dense
D. none of above
14. if silicon 111pm is added to magnisium 20. Which reaction is used to keep the furnace
141pm the type of bond will be hot?
A. iterstitial A. CO2 + C → 2CO
B. substitutional B. C + O2 → CO2
C. singular C. Fe2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO
D. corroding D. C + O2 → CO2

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1358

21. magnesium + nitric acid → 26. What do phases in an alloy depend on?
A. Magnesium oxide A. Composition and temperature
B. magnesium nitrate + water B. Composition
C. Magnesium hydroxide + chlorine C. Temperature
D. magnesium nitrate + hydrogen D. none of above

22. Why is alloy hard and strong? 27. Name the metal which is in liquid state.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. due to strong metallic bond between A. Iron
the elements B. Mercury
B. atoms are regularly arranged and can C. Zinc
act as lubricant
D. Aluminium
C. it is made up of mixture of metals
28. A basic oxide reacts with an acid to give
D. due to mismatched size of atoms and
these atoms cant slide past each other A. salt and water
B. carbon dioxide and hydrogen
23. Alloys are important because
C. water and oxygen
A. their properties are often superior to
the component elements D. hydrogen and salt
B. their properties are a blend of the com- 29. Proeutectic constituents observed in cast
ponent elements iron are
C. they never corrode A. Cementite
D. they are less expensive than their com- B. Austenite
ponent elements.
C. Delta iron
24. Layers of atoms slide past each other D. Ferrite
in pure metal but slide past each other
in alloy. 30. :Transition metals are used in chemical pro-
cesses because ?
A. can, cannot
A. They are all very reactive
B. can, can
B. They are all easy to obtain
C. cannot, cannot
C. They act as a catalyst
D. cannot, can
D. They are readily available
25. How are the particles bonded together in
metals? 31. What is the difference between Metals
and Alloys?
A. Attractive forces between atoms and
delocalized electrons A. Alloys are pure substances which ex-
ist in elemental form however Metals are
B. Covalent bonds mixture of two or more metals.
C. Attractive forces between positive and B. Metals are pure substances which ex-
negative ions ist in elemental form however alloys are
D. none of above mixture of two or more metals.

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1359

C. Metals are substances which exist C. Zinc

however alloys are mixture of ten or more D. Carbon
metals.

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D. Metals are pure substances of two al- 37. An example where the metal is annealed
loys however alloys are mixture of two or is
more metals. A. A horseshoe
32. Why would you electroplate a metal? B. Metals for tools such as axes
A. To improve a metals ability to resist C. Work hardened metals which need
corrosion their malleability restored
B. To decrease a metals ability to resist D. none of above
corrosion
38. The property of metals that describes
C. To let more air get to the metal you are their excellent ability to pass on electrical
plating charge
D. To trap a layer of water next to the A. thermal conductor
metal you are electroplating
B. malleable
33. How are the atoms arranged in a metal? C. sonorous
A. In pairs D. electrical conductor
B. In random
39. What observation would you see if a
C. In Layers metal is reacting with water?
D. none of above A. Colour change.
34. Why is the alloy brass used to make coins B. A flame occurs.
and musical instruments? C. Bubbles are formed.
A. The metals that make brass resist cor- D. It gets colder.
rosion
40. Which of the following equation is correct
B. Brass is strong
when metals react with acids?
C. Brass is hard wearing
A. metal + acid → salt + hydrogen
D. All of the above
B. metal + acid → metal hydroxide + hy-
35. What could cause rusting to happen drogen
quickly? C. metal + acid → metal oxide + hydro-
A. salty water gen
B. coat of grease D. metal + acid → metal oxide
C. electroplating with another metal 41. Acid rain is formed when dissolve(s) in
D. burying in muddy ground the water droplets forming part of a cloud.

36. Steel is a ferrous metal composed of which A. metal oxides formed rise and
two elements? B. solid particles produced from fires
A. Iron C. alkaline miniature drops
B. Hydrogen D. non metal oxides rise and

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1360

42. if boron 84pm and carbon 69pm are com- C. Gold

bined what type of alloy is created
D. Zinc
A. multicellular
B. substitutional 48. Types of oxides can be classified as,

C. partial A. metalloic, acidic, neutral, amphoteric

D. interstitial B. acidic and basic

C. basic, acidic and neutral

NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. What is the basis of a metallic bond?
D. amphoteric, basic, acidic, neutral
A. the attraction of neutral metal atoms.
B. the attraction between protons and 49. In the blast furnace, limestone is added to
neutrons.
C. the attraction between positive metal A. Create more heat
ions and interlocking electrons.
B. Turn iron oxide into pure iron
D. the attraction between positive metal
ions and free floating electrons. C. Remove acidic impurities
D. none of above
44. what is a common use for copper
A. making jewelry 50. what are elements
B. making ships A. A substance that has many different
atoms
C. making pipes
D. making radiators B. A substance that is made up of just one
kind of atom
45. Metals with melting points like tita- C. A substance that has only properties
nium are useful because they can with- of a metal
stand high temperatures.
D. A metal which is made of different sub-
A. high
stances
B. low
C. no 51. Which of the following is NOT a character-
istic of most metals?
D. none of above
A. Brittle
46. Which of the following alloy is having best B. Good conductor
casting properties?
C. Ductile
A. Eutectic alloy
D. Malleable
B. Eutectoid alloy
C. Peritectic alloy 52. A mixture of different metals is known as
D. Solid solution alloy A. Metal mix
47. The lease reactive metal B. cement
A. Platinum C. Alloy
B. Copper D. atom

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1361

53. Which of the following is Interstitial solid C. Only the valency electrons are delo-
solution? calised
A. α -Brass

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D. A maximum of 2 electrons are delo-
B. α -Iron calised for each atom

C. β -Brass 59. Most metals can be stretched into long

D. Cementite wires. What is the name of this property
of metals?
54. Which of the following physical properties A. ductile
is not typical of metals?
B. malleable
A. Sonorous
C. brittle
B. Electrical Conductor
D. sonorous
C. Low melting point
D. Maleable 60. how is the quiz
E. I don’t know A. very Bad
B. bad
55. Why must the base line be drawn in pencil
and not pen? C. Good
A. Pencil is good at keeping substances D. Very good
in place.
61. What type of Chemical Bonding is best de-
B. Pencil is soluble in water fined as ‘The bonding between a metal and
C. Pencil is insoluble in water a Non-metal’?
D. Pencil is not coloured A. Intermolecular Bonding

56. Brass is a mixture of what? B. Metallic Bonding

A. iron (metal) ; zinc (metal) C. Ionic Bonding

B. iron (metal) ; carbon (non-metal) D. Covalent Bonding

C. copper (metal) ; tin (matal) 62. Which of the following is product of Eutec-
D. copper (metal) ; zinc (metal) tic transformation in Fe-Fe3C diagram?
A. Pearlite
57. What must be present for iron to rust?
B. Bainite
A. water and oxygen
C. Martensite
B. oxygen alone
D. Iedeburite
C. water alone
D. air alone 63. Stainless steel is used for
A. aeroplanes
58. Which of the following best describes the
arrangement of electrons in a metal? B. surgical instruments
A. All of the electrons are delocalised C. sculptures
B. None of the electrons are delocalised D. microwaves

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1362

64. Which of the following represents an ele- 70. Which of these is NOT an alloy?
ment? A. bronze
A. H2O B. copper
B. H2 C. brass
C. NaCl D. stainless steel
D. CaCO3
71. Why is copper used to manufacture electri-
cal wires?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
65. Select the properties of copper.
A. Good conductor A. It is used because it is ductile, mal-
leable and is a good conductor of electric-
B. Welds easily ity.
C. Does not corrode B. It is used because it has lustre.
D. Rusts easily C. It is used because it is ductile, brittle
and a good conductor of electricity.
66. Any metal that can be rolled or pounded
into flat sheets is D. It is used because it is magnetic.
A. Malleable 72. Which of the following stainless steels is
B. useless non-magnetic?
C. ductile A. AISI 304
D. none of above B. AISI 410
C. AISI 430
67. Unlike non-metals, most metals tend to-
D. None of these
A. conduct electricity and heat well.
73. Which properties occur when a metal has
B. be gases at room temperature.
been work hardened?
C. break easily when hammered.
A. Harder and more malleable
D. have less luster and shine.
B. Harder and more brittle
68. Which of the following alloy is made up of C. Softer and more malleable
copper and tin? D. Softer and more brittle
A. bronze
74. Complete the equation below. Iron + Oxy-
B. brass gen →
C. stainless steel A. Iron oxygen
D. pewter B. Iron oxide
69. Which of the following element is neutral C. Iron oside
element added to alloy steel D. Ion oxide
A. W
75. Why is aluminium used in food contain-
B. Mn ers?
C. Co A. low resistance to corrosion
D. Pb B. low strength and high density

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1363

C. high resistance to corrosion 81. What is an alloy agent?

D. high strength and high density A. A primary metal

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B. A secondary metal
76. If a substance is not soluble in the solvent,
what happens to the spot placed on the C. not a metal
start line? D. The most common metal
A. Dot moves to the top of the paper
82. What does the term ‘malleable’ mean
B. Dot does not move at all when we refer to a metal?
C. Dot moves to the left or right A. Can be bent into new shapes without
breaking
D. Dot moves down to the bottom of the
paper B. Shiny
C. Can be stretched into wires
77. Which of these is a property of metals?
D. Crumble easily
A. It’s malleable
B. It can’t conduct electricity 83. What is the ability of a substance to be
pulled into a thin strand?
C. They are used in food
A. Malleability
D. It’s very brittle
B. Ductility
78. Why do metals have high melting points? C. Conductivity
A. They don’t D. Solubility
B. The negatively charged electrons act 84. The gas produced in the reaction of metal
as a glue to hold the positively charged carbonate and acid is
ions together.
A. Oxygen
C. All the electrons become delocalised
B. Carbon Dioxide
D. none of above
C. Hydrogen
79. Which exceptions in dentistry are not al- D. Nitrogen
loys?
85. What structure do metals have?
A. Gold
A. lattice
B. Silver
B. bit wobbly
C. Platinum
C. some metals, some non-metals joined
D. none of above together

80. Which one is NOT a property of most met- D. none of above

als? 86. :What would you need to electroplate an
A. Ductile object?
B. Malleable A. An anode made from the plating metal,
a cathode made of the metal object to be
C. Magnetic electroplated and an electrolyte made of
D. Sonorous ions of the plating metal

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1364

B. An anode made of the metal object to 92. Electrons that are free to move in metals
be electroplated, a cathode made of from A. delocalized electrons
the plating metal and an electrolyte made
of ions of the plating metal B. oxidation number
C. An anode made of the metal object to C. chemical bond
be electroplated, a cathode made of from D. salts
the plating metal and an electrolyte made
of ions of a transition metal 93. The shine on metal when light falls on it.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above A. luster
B. brittle
87. What particles would you find in a metallic
structure? C. malleable
A. negative ions D. tarnish
B. positive ions 94. Why are electrons in the outer shell of
C. free electrons metal atoms free to move through the
D. free protons whole structure?
A. They have an overall charge
88. Bronze is an alloy of copper and
B. They are delocalized electrons
A. Steel
C. They have ions that can move
B. Iron
D. none of above
C. Tin
D. Carbon 95. Which properties occur when a metal has
been quenched?
89. What type of Chemical Bonding is best de-
fined as ‘The bonding between just Metal A. Harder and more malleable
atoms’? B. Harder and more brittle
A. Intermolecular Bonding C. Softer and more malleable
B. Metallic Bonding D. Softer and more brittle
C. Ionic Bonding
96. Hot gases are released from the blast fur-
D. Covalent Bonding nace at the
90. Rusting can be prevented by? A. Bottom of the furnace
A. Storing in a reactive atmosphere B. Top of the furnace
B. Storing under oil C. Middle of the furnace
C. Storing under water D. No hot gases are released
D. Storing in oxygen
97. What is added to iron in stainless steel to
91. Which of the following is an alloy? prevent corrosion?
A. Aluminium A. Chromium
B. Brass B. Zinc
C. Air C. Aluminium
D. Sodium chloride D. Copper

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1365

98. Which of the following represents Eutectic 104. Eutectic means complete solubility in
transformation in steels? A. Liquid state

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A. L + Ferrite = Austenite B. Solid state
B. Ferrite + Pearlite = Austenite C. Liquid & solid state
C. L = Cementite + Austenite D. Neither liquid nor solid
D. L + Ferrite = Cementite
105. Silicon is a semiconductor and has proper-
99. if a metalic bond is made up of a single ties of both metals and nonmetals. What
element it is known as type of element is Silicon?
A. pure metal A. alloy
B. metallic structure B. metal
C. singular alloy C. metalloid
D. non liquid alloy D. non-metal

100. what are the 2 types of alloys 106. What is a property of transition metals?

A. substitutional A. low melting points

B. additional B. they form coloured compounds

C. not malleable
C. interstitial
D. poor conductors of electricity
D. intracellular
107. Pure metals conduct electricity and can be
101. Iso-morphous means complete solubility
hammered into different shapes. Why are
in
metals sometimes used as alloys?
A. Liquid state
A. Alloys are cheaper than the metals
B. Solid state they are made from.
C. Liquid & solid state B. Alloys are easier to hammer into differ-
D. Neither liquid nor solid state ent shapes.
C. Alloys are harder and keep their shape
102. Examples of Alloys and Metals better.
A. Stainless steel D. Alloys conduct electricity better.
B. Silver
108. Select the ones that are Metals
C. Polystyrene
A. lead
D. Fir
B. krypton
103. Which of these properties is typical of C. gold
metals?
D. carbon
A. Low boiling point
109. What does the term ‘ductile’ mean when
B. Good conductor of electricity we refer to a metal?
C. Low melting point A. Can be bent into new shapes without
D. none of above breaking

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1366

B. Shiny C. silver
C. Can be stretched into wires D. brass
D. Crumble easily 116. What type of Chemical Bonding is best
defined as The bonding between Two Non-
110. Which two elements make up mild steel?
Metals’?
A. aluminium and magnesium
A. Intermolecular Bonding
B. iron and carbon
B. Metallic Bonding

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. copper and zinc
C. Ionic Bonding
D. tin and lead
D. Covalent Bonding
111. Steel generally speaking is made of 117. Alloys are much stronger because
A. iron and carbon A. the particles from the different metals
B. copper and iron help the arrangement to stay in fixed po-
C. tin and carbon sitions

D. zinc and copper B. the different metals bond well

C. the particles from the different metals
112. Brass is an alloy made of mix and disrupt the pattern making it hard
A. copper and zinc for them to slide
B. copper and tin D. none of above
C. copper and nickel 118. Which of the following element causes
D. copper and aluminum grain coarsening in steels?
A. Cobalt
113. Sacrificial protection is?
B. Molybdenum
A. Preventing rusting by keeping air away
C. Niobium
B. Prevents rusting by attaching a more
reactive metal that will oxidise first D. Chromium

C. Preventing rusting by keeping water 119. In general, what can be said of the melt-
away ing points of metals?
D. Applying oil to a metal A. They are low.
B. They are high.
114. The oxidation of a metal, so it becomes
weaker over time is called? C. They are lower than nonmetals.
A. Reduction D. They do not have melting points.
B. Displacement 120. An alloy always contains
C. Corrosion A. A mixture of types of atom, at least one
D. Sacrificial protection of which is a metal
B. A mixture of types of atom, all of which
115. Which is a liquid metal must be metals
A. Mercury C. just one type of atom, arranged in neat
B. Gold rows

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1367

D. two or more types of atom, chemically D. iron and carbon

bonded together
126. I have an object that is dull, brittle, and

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121. Which metal would be suitable for all an insulator, what is it?
of the following uses? # Making aircraft A. metalloid
bodies# Making food containers# Making
overhead power cables B. non-metal
A. aluminium C. metal
B. mild steel D. matter
C. gold 127. Which substances do you find on the left
D. pure iron of the Periodic Table?
A. metalloid
122. Brass is a mixture of
B. non-metals
A. copper and zinc
C. metals
B. silver and gold
D. alloy
C. zinc and iron
D. carbon and copper 128. Can be drawn into wires

123. the biggest difference between substitu- A. Ductile

tional and interstitial alloys are B. Sonorous
A. substitutional alloys have a minor size C. Malleable
difference while interstitial alloys have a D. Flexible
large size difference
B. substitutional alloys have a major size 129. What characteristic of metals makes
difference while intercellular alloys have them good electrical conductors?
a minor size difference A. They have mobile valence electrons.
C. substitutional are liquds found to be B. They have mobile protons.
highly conductive while interstitial are liq-
C. They have mobile cations.
uids that are highly flamable
D. Their crystal structures can be rear-
D. none of the above
ranged easily.
124. What type of oxide is:Potassium oxide
130. Which metal is the best conductor of elec-
A. Amphoteric Oxide tricity?
B. Basic Oxide A. steel
C. Neutral Oxide B. copper
D. Acidic Oxide C. zinc
125. Steel can become stainless when alloyed D. brass
with
131. On Mohs scale of hardness, a steel nail
A. chromium and nickel is 6.5. What element is strong enough to
B. copper and zinc cut/scratch a steel nail?
C. tin and lead A. topaz (8)

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1368

B. corundum (9) 137. Which of the following mixture/s is/are

separated by chromatography?
C. copper (3.5)
A. Pigments from natural colours
D. talc (1)
B. Colours in a dye
132. type of attraction that holds metal atoms C. Colours of flowers extracts
togather
D. All the above
A. nuclear

NARAYAN CHANGDER
138. Why can metals be bent and shaped?
B. atomic
A. Strong forces hold their atoms to-
C. ionic gether
D. coloumbic B. Their atoms are arranged in layers
which slide over each other
133. The retention factor is used
C. Their atoms have a tetrahedral ar-
A. to zero the chromatography scale rangement
B. to identify unknown compounds in a D. none of above
sample
139. High-Sped Steel is often used for?
C. to retain solvent
A. Car Bonnets
D. as a starting tool for chromatography B. Drill Bits
134. chromatography separates the mixture C. Cutlery
of dyes on the basis of their D. Electrical Components
A. density 140. One metal that is liquid at room temper-
B. solubility ature is
C. gravity A. magnesium
D. boiling point B. manganese
C. mercury
135. Which of the following is substitutional
D. sodium
solid solution?
A. Ferrite in steel 141. What element in air reacts with Iron to
make Iron Oxide
B. Single phase brass
A. Carbon
C. Fe3C in steel
B. Oxigen
D. Pearlite C. Oxygen
136. Can be beaten into thin sheets D. Nitrogen

A. Ductile 142. One method of producing carbon dioxide

is to react calcium carbonate with dilute hy-
B. Sonorous
drochloric acid. What is the balanced equa-
C. Malleable tion for the reaction?
D. Flexible A. CaCO3 + HCl −→ CaO + CO2+ HCl

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1369

B. CaCO3 + 2HCl −→ CaCl2 + CO2 + D. Electrolysis is used on low reactive

H2O metals that form weak bonds within the
C. CaCO3 + 4HCl −→ CaCl2 + CO2 + ore

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H2 + H2O 148. Why is bronze a good metal to use in ma-
D. Ca(HCO3)2 + HCl −→ CaCl + 2CO2 chinery?
+ H2O A. it helps in conducting electricity
143. what would you add to an alloy to in- B. it helps in thermal conduction
crease its corrosion resistance C. it increases the strength between met-
A. chromium als
B. nickel D. it has low friction with other metals
C. phosphous 149. What are uses of electroplating?
D. none of above A. Prevent corrosion
B. Prevent tarnishing
144. :Which of these is a property of a transi-
tion metal? C. To improve the appearance of a metal
A. Low melting point D. All of the above
B. High melting point 150. Brass is an alloy of which two metals?
C. poor conductor of heat A. Copper
D. poor conductor of electricity B. Iron

145. It is the steel which does not rust. C. Aluminium

A. Fibre D. Zinc

B. Stainless 151. Which element is in graphite?

C. Plasticine A. Sodium
D. Clay B. Carbon
C. Silicon
146. Tin is commonly used for.
D. Magnesium
A. Electrical components
E. Oxygen
B. Food cans
C. Car parts 152. What is not a property of a metal?
A. Ductile
D. Drill bits
B. Sonorous
147. Why might electrolysis be used instead
C. Malleable
of smelting?
D. Low melting point
A. Electrolysis is faster than smelting
B. Electrolysis is most inexpensive 153. valance electrons have a(n) relation-
ship with attraction
C. Electrolysis is used on highly reactive
metals that form strong bonds within the A. inverse
ore. B. equvilant

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1370

C. cumilative 159. Stainless Steel is normally used for:

D. corrosive A. car bodies
154. Metals like to electrons. B. cutlery
A. Gain C. airplanes

B. Lose D. food packaging

C. Anhilate 160. Which of the following cast iron has high-

est tensile strength?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Juggle
A. White iron
155. Which of the following is NOT usually a
B. Grey iron
property of a metal?
C. SG iron
A. Shiny when cut
D. Mottled iron
B. Good electrical conductor
C. Thermal insulator 161. Which elements are found on the left to
middle of The Periodic Table?
D. Malleable
A. Metals
E. High melting point
B. Nonmetals
156. Recycled aluminium uses less energy
C. Metalloids
than mining and processing bauxite.
D. Candles
A. 65%
B. 75% 162. Definition:an alloy in which the smaller
atoms fit into the spaces between the
C. 85% larger atoms
D. 95% A. Alloy
157. What is electroplating? B. Substitutional alloy
A. Coating of the surface of one metal C. interstitial alloy
with a thick layer of another D. none of above
B. Coating of the surface of one metal
163. Work hardening increases the hardness
with a more reactive metal
of a metal. What property does work
C. Coating of the surface of one metal hardening also increase?
with a less reactive metal
A. Malleability
D. Coating of the surface of a metal with
B. Toughness
a thin layer of another metal
C. Brittleness
158. Corrosion of iron can be prevented by:
D. Ductility
A. Painting it
164. Which of these is a giant covalent struc-
B. Storing the metal in an reactive atmo-
ture?
sphere
A. sand
C. Adding extra oxygen to the air around
it B. table salt
D. Adding salt water, rather than normal C. hydrogen chloride
water D. nitrogen

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1371

165. Which property of metal makes it a good 170. All of the following would classify an el-
choice to make a car engine from? ement as a metal except?
A. dull

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A. it has luster
B. it has a high melting point B. lustre
C. it conducts electricity C. malleable
D. it has magnetism D. hard

166. Which of these groupings of elements are 171. Alloy is a mixture of

considered lustrous? A. non-metals.
A. Metal B. 2 metals only.
B. Nonmetal C. a metal with one or a few other ele-
ments.
C. metalloids
D. none of above
D. Both metals and metalloids
172. Definition:an alloy in which the atoms of
167. The oxide of a metal was found to re- the different elements are about the same
act both with hydrochloric acid and with size, so they can replace each other in the
sodium hydroxide solution. Which one of metal crystal.
the following is the best description of the
A. Alloy
oxide?
B. Substitutional alloy
A. acidic
C. interstitial alloy
B. basic
D. none of above
C. neutral
D. amphoteric 173. Which object is least likely to contain alu-
minium?
168. pearlite is present in % C steel. A. a bicycle frame
A. 0.8 B. a saucepan
B. 2% C. a hammer
C. 4.3% D. an aeroplane body
D. 0.008 174. The chemical symbol for iron
169. Which factors in any item have an im- A. Ir
pact on galvanic corrosion? Bimetal- B. Fe
lic/Galvanic Corrosion C. I
A. Environment (surrounding Environ- D. Fn
ment)
175. Which properties occur when a metal has
B. The differences in the chemical compo-
been tempered?
sition of materials in composition
A. Harder and more malleable
C. Coating and texture of the material
(coatings and finishes) B. Harder and more brittle
D. Adjacent to other materials (Contact C. Softer and more malleable
with Other Materials) D. Softer and more brittle

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1372

176. Iron is made by burning its ore, hematite. 181. if flourine 64 pm and lithium 121pm com-
Hematite contains silica. What reacts with bine what type of combination will occur
this impurity to remove it? A. additional
A. Carbon B. substitutional
B. Carbon Dioxide C. inerstitial
C. Silicon dioxide D. non-corrosive
D. Calcium Oxide

NARAYAN CHANGDER
182. Which properties occur when a metal has
been annealed?
177. What can alloying two or more metals to-
gether do? A. Harder and more malleable
A. Make the metal softer or harder. B. Harder and more brittle
B. Change the color of the metal. C. Softer and more malleable

C. Make the metal edible as a food D. Softer and more brittle

source. 183. Pure iron is
D. Create the energy Mana. A. soft and weak
178. What is the reactant when the product is B. hard and stong
Magnesium and Copper Sulphate C. bendy and brittle
A. Magnesium copperate+ Sulfur D. none of above
B. Copper Magnesised sulphate 184. Which of the following steel is solution
C. Magnesium Sulphate + Copper treated and aged?
D. Magnesium Sulphide + Copper A. HCHC
B. HSLA
179. Which statement about the uses of met-
als is correct? C. HSS

A. Aluminium is used in the manufacture D. Maraging steel

of aircraft as it has a high density. 185. Why is aluminium used in aircraft parts?
B. Aluminium is used to make food con- A. low strength and low density
tainers as it conducts electricity.
B. low strength and high density
C. Stainless steel for cutlery is made by
C. high strength and low density
adding other elements to iron.
D. high strength and high density
D. Stainless steel is used to make chemi-
cal reactors as it corrodes readily. 186. Which of the following constituent is ob-
served as proeutectic as well as preutec-
180. What type of oxide is:Nitrogen Dioxide toid constituent in Fe-Fe3C diagram?
A. Amphoteric Oxide A. Ferrite
B. Basic Oxide B. Pearlite
C. Neutral Oxide C. Delta Iron
D. Acidic Oxide D. Cementite

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1373

187. What is tarnishing? 192. How can alloys be made?

A. When a metal corrodes and breaks A. To heat and melt the components to

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away make liquids, mix them together and let
B. When a metal is exposed to the air and them cool into a solid solution
reacts with the water vapour in the air B. To turn the components into powders,
C. When a metal is exposed to the air and mix them together, and then fuse them
reacts with the oxygen to form an oxide with a combination of high pressure and
layer high temperature.

D. When a non-metal is exposed to the air C. To fire beams of ions into the surface
and reacts with water vapour to make an layer of a piece of metal.
oxide layer D. All of the above

188. Aluminium and Copper is mixed together 193. An example where the metal is quenched
to make an alloy which is used for making is
aeroplane bodies and alloy wheels. What A. A horseshoe
is the name of the alloy?
B. Metals for tools such as axes
A. Duralumin
C. Work hardened metals which need
B. Bronze their malleability restored
C. Steel D. none of above
D. Brass
194. Why do jewelers not create jewelry with
189. Which of the following steel gets work pure gold, silver, or copper?
hardened?
A. It is a soft metal, so it will rub or
A. HCHC scratch away over time.
B. Hadfield Mn steel B. It will not be shiny.
C. HSLA steel C. It is impossible to find a pure form of
D. Dual phase steel these metals.
D. It is too hard to shape into a design.
190. What do metals conduct?
A. heat 195. Which metal is commonly used to form
alloys with a non-metallic element?
B. electricity
A. copper
C. both
B. magnesium
D. neither
C. iron
191. Which element is in diamond? D. zinc
A. Sodium
196. Definition:a substance with metallic prop-
B. Magnesium erties that consists of two or more ele-
C. Carbon ments, at least one of which is a metal
D. silicon A. Alloy
E. Oxygen B. Substitutional alloy

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1374

C. interstitial alloy D. none of above

D. none of above 202. Why are alloys generally used to make
197. True or false? Lead+ sulphuric acid → everyday objects?
Lead chloride + hydrogen A. Alloys are often stronger and less ac-
tive than pure metals.
A. TRUE
B. Alloys have higher melting point than
B. FALSE
pure metals.
C. Lead sulphate + hydrogen

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Alloys are less expensive to produce
D. Lead sulphide + hydrogen than pure metals.
198. Why does rusting weaken the iron? D. Alloys have ionic bonds instead of
metallic bonds.
A. The rust (Iron (III) Oxide) sticks to the
iron 203. Which of these grouping of elements
B. The rust (Iron (III) Oxide) makes the could have the characteristic of lustre
iron lighter (shiny)?
C. The rust (Iron (III) Oxide) makes the A. metal
iron heavier B. non-metal
D. The rust (Iron (III) Oxide) flakes off C. metalloids
and reduces the amount of iron D. both metals and metalloids
199. Where are the non-metallic elements 204. An example where the metal is tempered
found in the periodic table? is
A. In the middle A. A horseshoe
B. In the top rows B. Metals for tools such as axes
C. On the left-hand side C. Work hardened metals which need
D. On the right-hand side their malleability restored
D. none of above
200. The most common element added to iron
to create steel alloy is 205. What are alloys?
A. tungsten A. mixture of two elements, one being a
B. vanadium metal

C. chromium B. An elements

D. carbon C. A atom
D. a mixture of four elements, one being
201. Which of these statements about alloys a metal
is correct?
206. Which substance is not involved in the ex-
A. Most alloys are less useful than the in-
traction of iron from hematite?
dividual elements that they are made from
A. Carbon Monoxide
B. Most alloys are softer than the individ-
ual elements that they are made from B. Carbon
C. Most alloys are harder than the individ- C. Nitrogen
ual elements that they are made from D. None of the above

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1375

207. A pure substance shows spot on a 213. Rusting can be prevented by

chromatogram. A. Storing in a reactive atmosphere

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A. 0 B. Storing under oil
B. 1 C. Storing under water
C. 2 D. Storing in oxygen
D. 3
214. Which properties of metal makes it a
208. element that usually is a gas or brit- good choice to make a cooking pot out of?
tle solid at room temperature, is not mal- Choose TWO
leable or ductile, is a poor conductor of A. it has luster-it is shiny
heat and electricity, and typically is not
shiny B. it is a good conductor of heat

A. nonmetal C. it is ductile-able to be made into a wire

B. metal D. it has a high melting point

C. metalloid 215. If a material can easily be drawn into the

D. semiconductor shape of a wire, it is
A. ductile
209. Alloys is made of size particles while
pure metal is made up of size particles. B. magnetic

A. same, different C. malleable

B. different, same D. sonorous

C. same, same 216. :Which of these is a typical property of a

D. different, different transition metal?
A. Are found unreacted in nature
210. Why is pure iron not used for bridges?
B. Has a reactions sequence
A. Too malleable
C. Forms covalent molecules
B. Too conductive
D. Forms coloured compounds
C. Too resistant to corrosion
D. Not shiny enough 217. Which metal is commonly used when
weight is a concern
211. Rusting is the corrosion of: A. Steel
A. Zinc B. Iron
B. Iron C. Aluminium
C. Lithium D. Tin
D. Nickel
218. Which phrase best describes the arrange-
212. Which property do all metals have? ment of the heavier particles in a metal?
A. Their boiling points are low. A. lattice of positive ions
B. Their densities are low. B. lattice of atoms
C. They conduct electricity. C. lattice of negative ions
D. They react with water. D. molecules of atoms

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1376

219. I can hit a metal with a hammer without 224. In steel, iron is mixed with small amounts
the metal shattering because of its of non-metal,
A. Ductility A. Copper
B. Malleability B. Carbon

C. Conductivity C. Diamonds
D. Wood
D. Lustrousness
225. Why are cords for toasters, televisions,

NARAYAN CHANGDER
220. Why do metals conduct electricity? and phone chargers made of metal wires?
A. They are shiny A. metals are shiny
B. The electrons are held tightly within B. metals are good conductors of heat
the lattice C. metals are good conductors of electric-
C. The valence electrons can move from ity
ion to ion D. metals are magnetic
D. The electrons are shared between two 226. Which of the following cast iron have
metal ions higher carbon equivalent.
221. Which of the following alloy does not A. Grey cast iron
shows liquid plus solid phase during freez- B. White cast iron
ing. C. Malleable Cast iron
A. Eutectic D. SG cast iron
B. Eutectoid
227. What is the purpose of annealing metal
C. Peritectic and when does metal need to be an-
nealed?
D. Hypoeutectic
A. Annealing is used to remove dents af-
222. How would you describe electrons in a ter work hardening
metal? B. Annealing is used to toughen the metal
A. free spirits after work hardening
B. fixed C. Annealing is used to soften the metal
after work hardening
C. delocalized
D. Annealing is used to harden the metal
D. i don’t like to talk about electrons be- after tempering
hind their backs
228. in an interstitial alloy atoms while
223. Which of the following is not a com- they in a substitutional alloy
pound? A. fit in between atoms, stick to the owter
A. HCl surface of metals
B. are always removed, are always
B. Cl
added
C. NaCl
C. fit in between atoms, replace atoms
D. CO2 with similar radii

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1377

D. none of above 234. A substance is soluble if it can be dis-

solved.In paper chromatography, the most
229. What is a major use of aluminium? soluble solute

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A. making brass A. does not move from the start point
B. making cutlery B. stays closest to the start point
C. making electrical wiring C. travels furthest away from the start
point
D. making food containers
D. can be found in the middle of the chro-
230. Why does a bicycle chain that is coated matogram
with oil not rust?
235. Which metal is used in the aircraft indus-
A. oil dissolves any rust that forms try as it is very light?
B. oil reacts with rust causing oxidation A. aluminium
C. oil reacts with oxygen so no rust forms B. copper
D. oil stops oxygen and water getting to C. iron
the chain D. brass
231. Why is steel alloyed with other metals? 236. Which of the following metals so reactive
A. To make It stronger it is stored under oil?

B. To make it lighter A. aluminium

B. copper
C. To make it more resistant to corrosion
C. magnesium
D. All of the above
D. sodium
232. A list of properties of Aluminium is
shown.It conducts heat.It has a low den- 237. Which of the following particles are free
sityIt is resistant to corrosion.Which prop- to drift in metals?
erties make aluminium useful for making A. protons
food storage containers?
B. electrons
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. neutrons
B. 1 and 3 only D. cations
C. 1 only
238. Another word for shiny
D. 3 only
A. Ductile
233. Micro structure of 0.4% carbon steel will B. Sonorous
have ? C. Malleable
A. pro-eutectoid ferrite and pearlite D. Lustrous
B. pro-eutectoid cementite and pearlite
239. What is the difference between alloys
C. pro-eutectoid pearlite and cementite and metals?
D. none of above A. they are the same

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1378

B. metals combine alloys to make them 245. Which of these metals are ferrous?
useful A. Cast Iron
C. Alloys combine properties of pure met- B. Zinc
als to make them more useful
C. Aluminium
D. metals are more useful
D. Copper
240. Galvanizing is a process of:
246. Why are metals good conductors?
A. Applying a Zinc coating to bare steel

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. they have mobile electrons
B. Washing the body with the phosphate
B. they have mobile atoms
coating
C. they have crystal structures that can
C. dipping a body in E-COAT
rearrange
D. Chemically etching primer to steel
D. they have mobile protons
241. Which one of the following metals reacts 247. Alloy that can be used for jewellery, ma-
most vigorously with cold water? chine bearings, and door furniture
A. Sodium A. brass
B. Magnesium B. bronze
C. Copper C. pewter
D. Zinc D. duralumin
242. What is ore? 248. Single phase means
A. Rock found in the earths crust A. same physical & chemical properties
B. Rock that contains metal that can be B. same physical but different chemical
economically extracted properties
C. Rock that is found deep in the earth’s C. different physical & chemical proper-
mantle ties
D. Rock that contains minerals D. any combination can be accepted

243. Which of the following elements acts as 249. A new bicycle is being developed. Two
carbide stabilizer when added to steels. different materials are used in its construc-
A. Cr tion, both of which must be corrosion resis-
tant.Which two metals can be used?
B. Ni
A. Aluminium and mild steel
C. Mo
B. Aluminium and stainless steel
D. Si
C. Mild steel and pure iron
244. Bronze is an alloy made of D. Pure iron and stainless steel
A. aluminum and magnesium
250. An alloy normally used in aircraft con-
B. copper and tin struction
C. lead and tin A. Hard Steel
D. copper and nickel B. Stainless steel

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10.2 Structural of Metals and Alloys 1379

C. Magnesium-aluminium 256. Which of the following element is austen-

ite stabilizer, when added to steels?
D. Brass

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A. Silicon
251. a brittle material is one that B. Manganese
A. will bend C. Chromium
B. fractures under presure D. Cobalt
C. can be crushed easilly 257. Identify the salt in the following
D. none of above equation:Zn(OH)2 + HNO3 → H2O +
Zn(NO3)2zinc + nitric water + zinc nitrate-
252. An unknown substance conducted some hydroxide acid
heat and electricity, had a shiny lustre, and A. Zn(OH)2
broke easily. This element is most likely a
B. HNO3
C. H2O
A. metal
D. Zn(NO3)2
B. non-metal
258. Which gas is produced as a waste prod-
C. metalloid
uct when iron is extracted from its ore in
D. alloy the blast furnace?
A. Carbon dioxide
253. Martensite is having structure.
B. Hydrogen
A. FCC
C. Nitrogen
B. BCT
D. Oxygen
C. BCC
259. What metal is commonly used in Gal-
D. HCP vanising

254. Word Equation Of Metal And HCl Reac- A. Aluminium

tion B. Zinc
A. Chloride Hydrogen Metal C. Tin
B. Hydrogen and Metal Chloride D. Cobalt

C. Hydogen and Metal Chroride 260. Duralumin is an alloy. It contains Alu-

minium, copper and magnesium. It has
D. Hydogen and Metal Chlorine many uses including the manufacture of
cooking utensils and ships.Which state-
255. The elements argon, krypton, and xenon
ment about duralumin and its properties is
are all non-metals. What property would
correct?
these elements have in common?
A. It is a good conductor of electricity.
A. Good conductor of thermal energy
B. It is brittle.
B. Poor conductor of electricity
C. It is soluble in water.
C. Shiny, lustrous surface
D. The aluminium, copper and magne-
D. Soft and malleable sium are chemically combined.

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 10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1380

261. In the blast furnace, Hot air is added to B. nonmetal

the C. metalloid
A. Top of the furnace D. cannot be determined
B. Middle of the furnace
265. Metallic bonding is
C. Bottom of the furnace
A. a type of covalent bond.
D. none of above
B. a type of ionic bond.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
262. Why do metals conduct C. an attraction between positive ions
A. They are shiny and electrons.
B. The electrons are held tightly within D. none of above
the lattice
266. Which is the odd one out?
C. The electrons are delocalised and able
A. Lithium
to move
B. Iron
D. The electrons are shared between two
metal ions C. Copper
D. Zinc
263. Select the Non-Ferrous metals.
A. Zinc 267. What can alloys be found in?
B. Aluminium A. dental fillings
C. Tin B. gold

D. Steel C. musical instruments

D. sellotape
264. A student is given a sample of an un-
known substance. He is asked to de- 268. Alloy that can be used for jewellery, mu-
termine if it is classified as a metal, a sical instruments, and door furniture
metalloid, or a nonmetal. He discovered A. brass
that the unknown element conducted some
heat and electricity, had a shiny luster, and B. bronze
broke easily. This element is most likely a C. mild steel
A. metal D. stainless steel

10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes

1. When objects contract upon cooling creases.
A. volume increases and density in-
creases. 2. When hot metal is placed in cold water
heat will move from until
B. volume increases and density de-
creases. A. metal to water; they are both as hot as
C. volume decreases and density de- the metal
creases. B. water to metal; they are both as hot as
D. volume decreases and density in- the metal

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1381

C. metal to water; they reach equilibrium B. the lowest melting temperature of the
D. water to metal; they reach equilibrium alloy

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C. when a metal undergoes a solid state
3. London forces are stronger in heavier phase change
atoms or molecules, and weaker in lighter
atoms or molecules. Which of these has D. when the metal loses magnetism
the strongest London forces? 8. Which of the following is NOT a covalent
A. F2 network solid
B. Br2 A. diamond
C. I2 B. SiO2
D. Cl2 C. SiC
D. CO2
4. In which state does matter completely fill
its closed container? E. graphene
A. Gas 9. Which type of solid has mobile electrons in
B. Liquid the crystal (sea of electrons)?
C. Solid A. Ionic
D. Ice B. Molecular
C. Metallic
5. Which statement is incorrect in the follow-
ing D. Covalent Network

A. Triple point of water exist at 0.00750 C 10. This type of solid will have the highest boil-
and at 4.5mm pressure ing point.
B. At triple point of water all the three A. ionic
phases of water co-exist Solid cie ↔ Liq- B. metallic
uid water ↔ Vapour
C. network
C. Triple point of water is an invariant
D. covalent
point Degree of freedom F =0
D. At the triple point of water number of 11. Basic state of matter with the least
phases are equal to three amount of energy.
A. solid
6. What is the process of heat transfer where
warmer and cooler fluids, such as water or B. liquid
air, move due to differences in density? C. gas
A. conduction D. none of above
B. convection
12. At the melting point and boiling point what
C. radiation happens?
D. none of above A. The temperature increases
7. The eutectic point is: B. Molecules are changed
A. when a metal changes from a liquid to C. The temperature decreases
a solid D. The temperature remains the same

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1382

13. The resistance of a liquid to flow is called A. 4.6 L

B. 12 L
A. capillary action C. 35 L
B. cohesion D. 44 L
C. surface tension 19. the temperature scale on which 0 is the
D. viscosity temp at which no more energy can be re-
moved

NARAYAN CHANGDER
14. Phase change going from a Solid to a Gas
A. absolute zero
B. Fahrenheit scale
A. Deposition
C. Kelvin scale
B. Sublimation
D. Celsius scale
C. Condensation
20. Pressure is caused by
D. Recombination
A. gravity.
15. Liquids with weak intermolecular forces
B. gas molecules colliding with each
A. contain a lot of kinetic energy other.
B. easily evaporate C. gas molecules colliding with surfaces
C. cannot diffuse of the container.
D. gas molecules reacting with each
D. freeze easily
other.
16. The teacher heats a pot of water. Once
21. A substance’s boiling can be changed by al-
the water reaches 100◦ C, which point has
tering the
the water reached?
A. temperature
A. Boiling
B. pressure
B. Melting
C. size of the pan being heated
C. Freezing
D. time it is heated
D. Evaporating
22. Changing from liquid to gas is called
17. On a phase diagram, the temperature and A. vaporization
pressure at which the phase boundary be-
B. melting
tween the liquid and gas ceases to exist is
called the C. condensation
A. critical point D. sublimation
B. triple point E. deposition
C. boiling point 23. when a liquid becomes vapor, its gas par-
ticles begin to exert
D. freezing point
A. air pressure
18. A gas has a volume of 39 L at STP. What
B. vapor pressure
will its volume be if the temperature in-
creases to 32 ◦ C if the pressure remains C. equilibrium pressure
constant? D. no pressure

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1383

24. Solvus is a line on the phase diagram which C. P=1, C=1

differentiates between
D. P=3, C=3

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A. a liquid and a solid
B. different liquids 30. Phase change from a solid to a liquid.
C. different solids A. melting
D. None B. sublimation

25. The stronger the attraction between C. boiling

molecules, the the melting and boiling D. condensation
points.
A. Higher 31. What is the transition of a solid to a gas
called?
B. Lower
A. Vaporization
C. Attraction does not effect melting and
boiling points B. Depostion
D. none of above C. Sublimation
26. In Kelvin, the freezing point of water is D. Condensation
and the boiling point is
32. The amount of space something takes up
A. 32, 100
is its
B. 32, 212
A. Mass
C. 273, 373
B. Volume
D. 0, 100
C. Thermal Energy
27. The change of state from a solid to a gas
is called D. Temperature
A. sublimation 33. Any part of a mixture that has its own dis-
B. depositoin tinct properties is called a
C. condensation A. phase
D. evaporation B. solid
28. This type of solid will have the lowest boil- C. equilibrium
ing point.
D. boiling
A. ionic
B. molecular 34. When a material changes from solid to liq-
uid, the material is
C. network
A. vaporizing
D. metallic
B. melting
29. In Water system, Maximum number of
phases and components are- C. condensing
A. P=1, C=3 D. depositing
B. P=3, C=1 E. sublimating

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1384

35. Determine which among the choices is not 40. Anything that takes up space and has mass
a type of phase change. is
A. Freezing A. a compound
B. Solid B. an element
C. Melting C. matter

D. Sublimation D. plasma

NARAYAN CHANGDER
41. The curve on a phase diagram which rep-
36. How many phases are present in each
resents the transition between liquid and
of the following systems:a drop of wa-
solid states.
ter placed in a stoppered bottlea piece of
molten ice placed in a beaker covered with A. Melting (or Freezing) curve
a watch glassmixture of N2, H2 and O2. B. Vaporization (or Condensation) curve
A. 2, 2, 1 C. Sublimation (or Deposition) curve
B. 1, 1, 3 D. None of the above
C. 1, 1, 1 42. The describes the only set of conditions
D. 2, 2, 3 under which all three phases can exist in
equilibrium with each other.
37. Select all that apply.The relative strength A. melting point
of intermolecular forces can be used to pre-
B. boiling point
dict differences in bulk properties like:
C. critical point
A. hydrogen bonds
D. triple point
B. boiling point
C. melting point 43. Particles are not so closely spaced and
slide past each other.
D. dipole-dipole
A. solid
38. The transfer of thermal energy from a B. liquid
warmer object to a cooler one. C. gas
A. thermal energy D. none of above
B. heat
44. On a phase diagram, the intersection of
C. temperature the solid, liquid, and gaseous lines is
D. none of above known as the
A. critical point
39. Going from gas to solid is called
B. triple point
A. melting C. phase point
B. vaporization D. intersection point
C. sublimation
45. Particles are widely spaced except when
D. condensation they collide.
E. deposition A. solid

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1385

B. liquid C. The temperature of the system in-

C. gas creases
D. The potential energy of the system

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D. none of above
stays constant
46. Capillary action is the result of adhesion. 50. Which phase change would require the
Which aspect of water is responsible for atoms and molecules of a substance to
this? move faster?
A. Nonpolar covalent bonds that enable A. Condensation
water to dissolve other substances
B. Evaporation
B. Polar covalent bonds that join
C. Freezing
molecules of water to other substances
D. Deposition
C. Hydrogen bonds between water and
another substance 51. Under what conditions does a real gas be-
D. Ionic bonds that enable electrons to have most like an ideal gas?
flow through water and into another sub- A. at high temperatures and low pres-
stance sure
B. at high temperatures and high pres-
47. What best describes the motion of parti-
sures
cles in a solid?
C. at low temperatures and low pressure
A. vibrating slowly in place
D. at low temperatures and high pres-
B. sliding past each other sure
C. moving rapidly in all directions
52. Martensite is
D. none of above
A. Soft
48. Order the states of matter from most B. Ductile
dense to least dense for substances other C. Annealed
than water.
D. Hard
A. Most Dense:Solid > Liquid >
Gas:Least Dense 53. The lowest pressure at which a substance
can exist as a liquid at the critical point is
B. Most Dense:Liquid > Solid >
Gas:Least Dense
A. 1atm
C. Most Dense:Solid > Gas > Liq-
B. critical pressure
uid:Least Dense
C. equilibrium pressure
D. Most Dense:Gas > Liquid >
Solid:Least Dense D. 760 mmHg

49. Which of the following applies to a sub- 54. When water sits in the freezer and freezes
stance boiling into ice, it is because the water has
A. gained mass
A. The potential energy of the system in-
creases. B. gained energy
B. The temperature of the system in- C. lost mass
creases D. lost energy

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1386

55. When the atmospheric pressure equals the 60. This type of solid will generally conduct
equilibrium vapor pressure occurs. electricity when a solid.
A. freezing A. ionic
B. melting B. molecular
C. boiling C. metallic

D. sublimation D. network covalent

61. We measure temperature in degrees

NARAYAN CHANGDER
56. This type of solid forms a regular
repeatingthree-dimensional structure A. Fahrenheit
called a crystal lattice. What type of solid B. Celsius
is this? C. Both
A. amorphous D. Neither
B. crystalline
62. Temperature at which a liquid changes to
C. glass a solid
D. diamond A. Evaporation
B. Melting
57. When considering a binary phase diagram
of a metal alloy, which alloy or metal C. Freezing point
melts first? D. Sublimation
A. the metal on the right of the phase di- 63. The temperature above which a substance
agram cannot exist in the liquid state is
B. the metal on the left of the phase dia- A. critical temperature
gram
B. critical pressure
C. the eutectic mixture C. temperature
D. they all melt at the same time D. pressure
58. Temperature at which a polymorphic sub- 64. When ice sits out on a counter and melts,
stance changes from one form to another it is because the ice has
is called A. gained mass
A. Equilibrium temperature B. gained energy
B. Triple point C. lost mass
C. Boyles temperature D. lost energy
D. Transition temperature 65. is the condition in which two oppos-
ing changes occur at equal rates in a closed
59. Kelvin is degrees Celsius system.
A. 373 A. equilibrium vapor pressure
B. 0 B. sublimation
C. -173 C. equilibrium
D. 200 D. volitile liquid

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1387

66. What is meant by invariant point? 71. On a binary phase diagram for an alloy,
A. Degree of freedom is zero all substances are in the solid phase below
this line

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B. Number of component is zero
A. solidus
C. Number of phases is zero
B. liquidus
D. Non of the above
C. Curie
67. The following is WRONG about a phase di-
D. homogeneous
agram
A. It gives information about transforma- 72. Phase change going from a Gas to a Liquid
tion rates
B. Relative amount of different phases A. Sublimation
can be found under given equilibrium con-
B. Deposition
ditions
C. It indicates the temperature at which C. Ionization
different phases starts to melt D. Condensation
D. Solid solubility limits are depicted by it.
73. Which end of the water molecule has a
68. The temperature and pressure at which the slightly positive charge?
vapor density of the gas and liquid phases A. the oxygen end
of a fluid are equal, at which point there
is no difference between gas and liquid. B. the hydrogen end
A. critical point C. both ends are slightly positive
B. triple point D. neither end is positive
C. supercritical fluid point
74. A phase diagram shows the relationship
D. density equivalence point. between

69. A mixture of two immiscible liquids con- A. pressure, volume, and the three
stitutes a system having the number of phases of matter
phases equal to B. temperature, pressure, and the three
A. 0 phases of matter
B. 1 C. temperature, volume, and the three
phases of matter
C. 2
D. none of above
D. 3

70. Degrees of freedom for a triple point on 75. Particles move relative to each other, but
the phase diagram are remain in contact with each other.

A. 0 A. solid
B. 1 B. liquid
C. 2 C. gas
D. 3 D. none of above

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1388

76. In nature, heat always flows from a: 82. Which of the following best describes tem-
perature?
A. cold object to a warm object.
B. small object to a big object. A. a measure of the average kinetic en-
ergy of particles in a sample of matter
C. warm object to a cold object.
B. the energy transferred between sam-
D. large object to a small object. ples of matter because of a difference in
their temperature
77. The phase change that results from a liquid

NARAYAN CHANGDER
into the gaseous phase is C. the energy stored in a sample of mat-
ter
A. sublimation
D. bond energy
B. melting
C. vaporizing 83. Gibbs phase rule for general system:
D. none of above A. P+F=C-1
B. P+F=C+1
78. In , heat is transferred by the currents
within a fluid. C. P+F=C-2
A. conduction D. F =C-P+2
B. convection 84. State of matter with a definite shape and
C. convection currents definite volume.
D. radiation A. solid
B. liquid
79. What is meant by triple point?
A. Three phases are in equilibrium C. gas

B. Three components are in equilibrium D. none of above

C. Degree of freedom is three 85. You need to melt 45.0 g of ice. It is

D. Non of the above currently at-15 degrees Celsius. What
amount of heat in Joules are required?
80. Phase change of a solid directly to a gas A. 36, 890 J
A. Condensation B. 24, 560 J
B. Freezing point C. 16, 410 J
C. Sublimation D. 18, 720 J
D. Vaporitzation
86. What is standard temperature in chem-
81. Which is an exothermic change? istry?
A. Melting A. 100 degrees Celcius
B. Sublimation B. 0 Kelvin
C. Boiling C. 0 degress F
D. Condensing D. 0 degrees Celcius

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1389

87. Vapourization is the change from 92. What happens to particles when their tem-
perature increases?
A. Solid-Liquid

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A. The particles move slower
B. Liquid-Gas
B. The particles move faster
C. Gas-Liquid
C. The particles lose mass
D. Liquid-Solid
D. The particles gain mass
88. A substance with very weak IMFs is most 93. Following is wrong about a phase dia-
likely to be a at room temperature gram.
A. solid A. It gives information on transformation
rates.
B. liquid
B. Relative amount of different phases
C. gas
can be found under given equilibrium con-
D. need more information ditions.
C. It indicates the temperature at which
89. What happen to the energy of the sys- different phases start to melt.
tem when the molecules collide with each
other? D. solid solubility limits are depicted by it.

A. Energy increases 94. A material can be classified as a liquid if

B. Energy decreases A. It has a definite shape and volume

C. Energy remains the same B. It has a definite shape and variable vol-
ume
D. none of above
C. It has variable shape and a definite vol-
ume
90. Changing from gas to liquid is called
D. Its particles vibrate around a fixed lo-
A. vaporization cation.
B. melting
95. Which of the following will take the
C. condensation longest to evaporate?
D. sublimation A. CH3CH2OH
E. deposition B. CH3OH
C. CH3CH3
91. A 3.00-liter sample of gas is at 288 K and
D. none of above
1.00 atm. If the pressure of the gas is
increased to 2.00 atm and its volume is 96. A container holds three gases:oxygen, car-
decreased to 1.50 liters, what will be the bon dioxide, and helium. The partial pres-
Kelvin temperature of the sample? sures of the three gases are 2.00 atm,
A. 144 K 3.00 atm, and 4.00 atm, respectively.
What is the total pressure inside the con-
B. 432 K tainer?
C. 576 K A. 2 atm
D. 288 K B. 4 atm

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1390

C. 3 atm B. P = 1, F =1
D. 9 atm C. p= 3, F =2
97. What explains the very high melting and D. p= 2, F =3
boiling point of water
102. As a liquid is heated, the particles ki-
A. Strong dipole-dipole bonds between
netic energy
water molecules
A. lose
B. Strong hydrogen bonds between water

NARAYAN CHANGDER
molecules B. gain
C. Dispersion forces which are present in C. break
all molecules
D. remain
D. Asymmetrical shape of the polar
bonds. 103. Gallium melts at 30 Celsius and Iodine
melts at 114 Celsius. What is true about
98. True or false:melting and freezing occur at the attraction between their particles?
the same temperature!
A. Gallium atoms have stronger attrac-
A. True
tion because their melting point is lower
B. False
B. Iodine atoms have stronger attraction
C. I don’t know because their melting point is higher
D. none of above C. Iodine atoms have weaker attraction
99. The change of state from a solid to a gas because their melting point is higher
skipping the liquid state is called D. none of above
A. sublimation
104. No definite shape, but has a definite vol-
B. depositoin ume
C. condensation
A. Gas
D. evaporation
B. Liquid
100. This state of matter has a definite vol- C. Solid
ume but an indefinite shape and takes the
shape of its container. D. none of above
A. Liquid 105. Why is the boiling point in Utah below
B. Solid 212 Fahrenheit?
C. Gas A. Because we have hard water (minerals
D. none of above in the water)
B. Because water always boils at 100 de-
101. ↔ Determine the number of phases, com-
grees Celsius.
ponents and number of degrees of free-
dom for the following systems:(i) N2(g) + C. Because Utah is located above sea
O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g) (ii) Na2SO4 .10H2O ↔ level (lower atmospheric pressure)
Na2SO4 + 10H2O(g) D. Because our water is cleaner than wa-
A. p= 1, F =3 ter in California

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1391

106. The state of matter that has no definite 111. It is a plot wherein a substance is sub-
shape and no definite volume. jected to increasing temperature against
time to measure the amount of energy it

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A. Solid
absorbs and changes state with increasing
B. Liquid temperature.
C. Gas A. Cooling curve
D. Plasma B. Heating curve
107. State of matter with no definite shape C. Time curve
and no definite volume. D. Temperature curve
A. solid 112. An example of condensation is:
B. liquid A. when water freezes into ice
C. gas B. when dew forms on the grass in the
D. none of above morning
C. when water boils
108. A liquid is placed in a closed container.
Equilibrium is reached when D. when dry ice turns directly into a gas
A. all of the molecules in liquid phase turn 113. water have a low vapor pressure be-
into gas phase cause
B. when the rate of evaporation equals A. it has strong london dispersion forces
the rate of condensation acting between its molecules
C. when the rate of evaporation exceeds B. it has strong hydrogen bonds acting
the rate of condensation between its molecules
D. when molecules cease to pass from C. it has a weaker force of attraction be-
the liquid to the vapor state tween its molecules

109. In Gibbs phase rule (2+C=F+P), 2 in the D. it is very volatile

equation implies which of the following 114. The temperature and pressure conditions
two can be changed independently at which the solid, liquid, and vapor of a
A. Pressure and Composition substance can coexist at equilibrium is
B. Pressure and Temperature A. critical point
C. Temperature and Composition B. triple point
D. None C. double point
D. critical pressure point
110. When a system contains only one phase
(solid, liquid or gas), the temperature will 115. have the strongest intermolecular
when it receives energy. forces of attraction.
A. Increase A. Dipole-Dipole
B. Decrease B. Dispersion
C. Not change C. Hydrogen Bonds
D. None of the above D. none of above

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1392

116. Matter exists is 3 states. They are 121. At a triple point

A. Mass, Density and Volume A. both the temperature and pressure
are fixed
B. Shape, Volume and fluid
B. only the temperature is fixed
C. hard, soft and fluid
C. only the pressure is fixed
D. Solid, Liquid and Gas
D. sometimes temperature and some-
117. Which is an example of an ionic crystal? times pressure is fixed

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Quartz 122. Which is an example of a metallic crys-
B. NaCl tal?
C. Ammonia A. Quartz
D. Iron B. NaCl
C. Ammonia
118. The kinetic theory states
D. Iron
A. Particles won’t move if you don’t apply
energy to it. 123. Why does a thermometer display a high
B. Particles only move in liquids and temperature with hot coffee?
gases. A. the molecules are moving slowly &
have many collisions with the thermome-
C. Particles are always in motion.
ter
D. At the same temperature the object
B. the molecules are moving slowly &
that has the most mass heats quicker.
have few collisions with the thermometer
119. The energy of MOTION is C. the molecules are moving quickly &
have many collisions with the thermome-
A. chemical energy
ter
B. radiant energy
D. none of above
C. potential energy
124. Solid Carbon Dioxide is also known as
D. kinetic energy
A. Ice
120. Rank these in order of strength:covalent B. Dry Ice
bondLondon forceshydrogen bonddipole-
dipole attraction C. Gas

A. dipole-dipole>covalent bond>hydrogen D. Toxic Gas

bond>London
125. What is happening when a solid is becom-
B. London>dipole-diple>hydrogen ing a liquid?
bond>covalent bond
A. The particles decrease in motion, col-
C. covalent bond>hydrogen bond>dipole- lapsing the organized structure.
dipole>London
B. The increased movement of particles
D. hydrogen bond>dipole-dipole>London>covalentpushes them completely out of position,
bond collapsing the organized structure.

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1393

C. The particles increase in motion, caus- 131. Your teacher leaves a coffee cup on the
ing the organized structure to flatten into table after brewing a fresh pot. The cup is
a smaller shape. very hot and changes the temperature of

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D. A particle party! the table around it. What happened to the
particles in the table?
126. Some solids can change directly into gas
through a process called A. The particles sped up
A. melting B. The particles got larger
B. vaporization C. The particles got smaller
C. condensation
D. The particles slowed down
D. sublimation
E. deposition 132. Which of the following is TRUE for a sub-
127. In general, substances with stronger in- stance with high viscosity?
termolecular forces have boiling points
A. high vapor pressure
than those with weaker forces
A. Higher B. strong intermolecular force of attrac-
tion
B. Lower
C. The same C. low boiling point
D. none of above D. low heat of vaporization needed
128. The state of matter that has a definite E. low surface tension
volume but no definite shape.
A. Solid 133. Order the states of matter from most
B. Liquid dense to least dense for water.
C. Gas A. Most Dense:Solid > Liquid >
D. Plasma Gas:Least Dense

129. The molecules that make up a are ar- B. Most Dense:Liquid > Solid >
ranged in regular, repeating patterns. Gas:Least Dense
A. Liquid C. Most Dense:Solid > Gas > Liq-
B. Solid uid:Least Dense
C. Vapor D. Most Dense:Gas > Liquid >
D. Gas Solid:Least Dense
130. If the rate of boiling equals the rate of
condensation 134. The structure of alpha ferrite is
A. there is more liquid A. FCC
B. there is more vapor B. BCC
C. the system is in equilibrium
C. HCP
D. the system is working towards equilib-
rium D. None

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1394

135. Real gases deviate from ideal gas behav- C. break

ior because real gas particles have D. remain
A. volume and some attraction for each
141. During a phase change, the temperature
other
A. increases
B. no volume and no attraction for each
other B. decreases
C. no volume but some attraction for C. fluctuates

NARAYAN CHANGDER
each other D. stays the same
D. volume but no attraction for each other 142. According to the KMT, increasing the tem-
136. Particles are closely spaced. perature of particles will
A. give off energy
A. solid
B. increase motion
B. liquid
C. decrease volume
C. gas
D. increase pressure
D. none of above
143. Why does ice float?
137. What does STP stand for in chemistry?
A. As water freezes, it expands and its
A. standard time and pressure density decreases.
B. sick, tired, and puzzled B. As water freezes, it takes up more hy-
C. standard temperature and pressure drogen from the atmosphere, causing it to
have a greater buoyancy.
D. solid temperature and pressure
C. As water freezes, air becomes trapped
138. the physical change of a liquid to by between the hydrogen bonds of water
removal of heat. molecules.
A. freezing D. As water freezes, it takes up more oxy-
B. melting gen from the atmosphere, causing it to
have a greater buoyancy.
C. boiling
144. Which property explains why a meniscus
D. vaporizing
forms when in a graduated cylinder?
139. What is the lowest possible temperature A. Cohesion
on the Kelvin scale?
B. Adhesion
A. boiling point C. Anterior crucial ligament (ACL)
B. insulation D. Vapor Pressure
C. absolute zero
145. The AVERAGE kinetic energy of particles
D. heat in a substance is its
140. As a liquid is heated, the particles vi- A. Mass
brational and rotational energy B. Volume
A. lose C. Thermal Energy
B. gain D. Temperature

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1395

146. Why is the boiling point in Colorado be- B. the same equilibrium vapor pressure
low 100 degrees Celsius? C. different temperatures

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A. Because they have hard water (miner- D. the same amount of kinetic energy
als in the water)
152. What is deposition?
B. Because water always boils at 100 de-
grees Celsius. A. Phase change from gas to solid
C. Because Colorado is located above B. phase change from liquid to solid
sea level (lower atmospheric pressure) C. Phase change from solid to gas
D. Because thier water is cleaner than D. Phase change from liquid to gas
water in California
153. Which is the strongest intermolecular
147. Strongest Intermolecular force present in force below”
HCl? A. Ionic
A. dipole dipole B. Dispersion
B. dispersion C. Hydrogen bonding
C. H-bond D. dipole-dipole
D. ionic 154. What happens in thermal expansion?
148. Phase change of a liquid to a solid A. The number of atoms increase
B. the size of each atom increases
A. Freezing
C. the space between each atom in-
B. Sublimation
creases
C. Condensation
D. none of above
D. Melting
155. The phase diagram for silicon has a solid-
149. Molecules are closest together in a liquid curve with a negative slope. Which
A. Solid of the following is true?
A. Freezing silicon is an endothermic pro-
B. Liquid
cess.
C. Gas
B. Solid silicon has a lower density than
D. none of above liquid silicon.
150. State of matter with a definite volume, C. Solid silicon has a higher density than
but no definite shape. liquid silicon.
A. solid D. The phase diagram cannot be used to
predict which phase of silicon is denser.
B. liquid
156. Which of the following is a factor in de-
C. gas
termining the magnitude of the vapor pres-
D. none of above sure of a liquid?
151. The strength of intermolecular forces A. the color of the liquid
varies between liquids, therefore they will B. the size of the container for the liquid
have C. the type of forces between molecules
A. different equilibrium vapor pressure within the liquid

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1396

D. the strength of the attractive forces 163. The phase change from gas to liquid is
between molecules of the liquid and the called
container
A. melting
157. Au B. condensing
A. metallic
C. vaporizing
B. atomic/molecular
D. subliming
C. covalent network

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. ionic 164. **An ice cube feels cold when we hold
it. Which of the following best explains
158. What is the standard pressure in chem- why?
istry?
A. Heat moves from our hands into the ice
A. 0 atm
cube.
B. 1 atm
B. Cold moves from our hands into the ice
C. 5 atm cube.
D. 10 atm
C. Heat moves from the ice cube into our
159. Boiling hands.
A. liquid to gas D. Cold moves from the ice cube into our
B. gas to solid hands.
C. gas to liquid 165. What is the process of heat transfer
D. solid to liquid where molecules in substances directly
transfer kinetic energy to each other?
160. What is the definition of “entropy”? ?
A. enthalpy A. conduction
B. heat content B. convection
C. disorder C. radiation
D. activation energy D. none of above
161. The state of matter that has no definite
166. Which are both endothermic changes
size or shape is
A. Solid A. Freezing and Melting

B. Liquid B. Freezing and Boiling

C. Gas C. Melting and Boiling
D. none of above D. Freezing and Condensing
162. Which phase change requires breaking 167. What is the freezing point of ice?
the attraction between molecules?
A. 0◦ Celcius
A. Freezing (Liquid to Solid)
B. Melting (Solid to Liquid) B. 50◦ Celcius
C. Deposition (Gas to Solid) C. 75◦ Celcius
D. Condensation (Gas to Liquid) D. 100◦ Celcius

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1397

168. Change from gas to liquid C. 11.2 L

A. condensation D. 0.500 L

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B. evaporation 173. Change from Gas to Solid is called
C. expansion A. Sublimation
D. movemen B. Deposition
169. Sublimation at STP typically occurs in ma- C. Fusion
terials held together by very weak D. condensation
A. intermolecular forces
174. Phase change going from Liquid to Solid
B. phase diagrams
C. boiling point
A. Melting
D. melting point
B. Freezing
170. According the KMT, the particles are in C. Condensation
A. different states D. Sublimation
B. organized patterns
175. Gas can be turned into a plasma on Earth
C. constant motion with the addition of:
D. various containers A. another gas
171. Water striders can walk across the sur- B. great amounts of time
face of calm water. Their feet push the sur- C. great amounts of energy
face of the water down slightly, but they
D. great amounts of liquid
do not break the surface. Why?
A. The insects are light enough so they do 176. What term describes a solid changing to
not break the hydrogen bonds holding the a gas?
water molecules together A. Deposition
B. The insects actually use their wings to B. Sublimation
hover slightly above the water’s surface
and they only skim it with their feet. C. Evaporation

C. The insect’s feet are non-polar, so they D. Freezing

are repelled by the polar water molecules 177. How doe the particles in a gas behave?
and are pushed away from the water’s
surface. A. Neatly organized without any move-
ment.
D. The insects are small enough to see
the individual water molecules, so they B. Move around trapped in a small vol-
are able to step carefully from one ume and with the same surrounding par-
molecule to the next ticles.
C. Move fast enough to break attractions
172. What would be the volume of 0.500 mole and pushing other particles out of the
of an ideal gas at STP? way.
A. 44.8 L D. Move freely in a straight line until they
B. 22.4 L collide with another particle.

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1398

178. All molecules have London forces be- 183. The temperature at which a substance in
tween them, but dipole-dipole and hydro- the liquid state freezes is the same as the
gen bonding are so much stronger that temperature at which the substance
when they are present we can ignore Lon- A. melts
don forces. Which of these has ONLY Lon-
don forces? B. sublimes

A. I2 C. boils

B. NH3 D. condenses

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. OCl2 184. Freezing is
D. SH2 A. Solid to gas
179. The pressure exerted by a vapor in equi- B. Liquid to solid
librium over the liquid at a given tempera- C. Gas to solid
ture is D. Liquid to gas
A. equilibrium
185. The shows the minimum temperature
B. vapor pressure and pressure where a substance can exist
C. phase diagram as both a liquid and a gas. It is the point
D. phase change where it becomes a supercritical fluid. Su-
percritical fluids are used for industrial pro-
180. The reverse change from gas to liquid cesses including an alternative way to dye
is condensation, gas to solid is deposi- fabrics.
tion, and liquid to solid is freezing. These
A. triple point
changes give off heat (heat lost) and are
B. critical point
A. Endothermic process C. phase diagram
B. Physical process D. normal boiling point
C. Chemical process 186. Sublimation at STP typically occurs in ma-
D. Exothermic process terials held together by intermolecular
forces.
181. Formation of a precipitate is usually evi-
A. very weak
dence of
B. moderate
A. the separation of a mixture
C. very strong
B. a chemical change
D. none of above
C. the formation of a mixture
D. a physical change 187. Why does water NOT change tempera-
ture during boiling?
182. This type of solid will conduct electricity
when dissolved. A. Because the molecules of water take
in all the heat to their nucleus
A. ionic
B. Because heat is not the same thing as
B. molecular temperature
C. network covalent C. Because adding heat doesn’t ever
D. metallic change the temperature of water

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1399

D. Because all of the energy is used to B. liquid

overcome the attraction of molecules C. gas

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188. Which of the following would best re- D. none of above
move Sharpie marker from your wall if
this marker is known to be non-water sol- 193. L of nitrogen (N2) gas at STP will have
uble. the same number of molecules as which
sample?
A. salt water
A. 10L of H2O(l) at 273K and 1 atm
B. ammonia (nitrogen trihydride)
B. 10L of H2O(g) at 373K and 1 atm
C. acetone (finger nail polish remover)
C. 10L of H2O(g) at 273K and 1 atm
D. distilled water
D. 10L of H2O(s) at 273K and 1 atm
189. Which of the following describes the
changes in the forces of attraction that oc- 194. How many components are present in the
cur as H2O changes phase froma liquid to following systems? KCl + Water → KCl
a vapor? hydrate

A. H-O bonds break as H-H and O-O A. 3

bonds form. B. 2
B. Covalent bonds between H2O C. 1
molecules are broken. D. 4
C. Hydrogen bonds between H2O
molecules are broken. 195. The partial pressure of gas X is 340 torr.
The partial pressure of gas Y is 264 torr.
D. Ionic bonds between H+ ions and OH- The partial pressure of gas Z is 100 torr.
ions are broken What is the total pressure exerted by the
190. Systems composed of two or more gases in this system?
phases are termed “mixtures” of A. 76 torr
A. Heterogeneous systems B. 440 torr
B. Homogeneous system C. 604 torr
C. Isomorphous D. 704 torr
D. Allotropy 196. Ionic bonds are between and
191. Which compound has the lowest vapor A. nonmetals and nonmetals
pressure at 50◦ C? Use Table H. B. metals and metals
A. ethanoic acid C. metals and nonmetals
B. ethanol D. none
C. propanone
197. In a solid, what keeps each particle
D. water trapped in the same small volume and with
192. Particles vibrate in place and do not the same surrounding particles.
change relative positions. A. strong attractions between particles
A. solid B. ionic bonds

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1400

C. lack of particle motion A. Magnetism

D. low temperatures B. Adhesion
C. Specific Energy
198. Liquids will boil at higher temperatures
at higher pressure because D. Intermolecular attractions
A. it is harder to transfer heat to the liq- 203. Water molecules are attracted to other
uid water molecules
B. the intermolecular attractions are A. cohesion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
weaker B. adhesion
C. the required vapor pressure for boiling C. surface tension
increases
D. capillary action
D. the required vapor pressure for boiling
decreases 204. A mixture of two miscible liquids has the
number of phases equal to
199. Which of the following is true about ki- A. 0
netic energy of an object’s particles, ex-
cept during a change of state? B. 1
C. 2
A. It will increase if energy is added.
D. 3
B. It will increase if energy is removed.
C. It will increase whether energy is 205. Dry ice (at room temperature and at
added or removed. sea level) is an example of which phase
change?
D. It will remain the same regardless of
any change in energy. A. boiling
B. freezing
200. Basic state of matter with an intermedi-
C. condensation
ate (medium) amount of energy.
D. sublimation
A. solid
B. liquid 206. What happens when the speed of parti-
cles decreases?
C. gas
A. Their temperature decreases
D. none of above
B. Their temperature increases
201. A glass of water with ice cubes is an ex- C. Their mass decreases
ample of D. Their mass increases
A. two-phase system.
207. helps determine the maximum num-
B. one-phase system. ber of phases present in an alloy system
C. three-phase system. under equilibrium conditions at any point
in a phase diagram.
D. multi-phase system.
A. Gibbs Phase Rule
202. When you increase the kinetic energy of B. Lever Rule
molecules in a liquid, which of the follow-
ing needs to break in order to turn those C. None of them
molecules into a gas? D. none of above

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1401

208. What property of water allows water A. Crystalline solids all share a lattice
molecules to create a thin layer on top of structure, but have different densities.
water because of strong cohesive bonds. Chemists use the groups to organize the

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A. surface tension solids by density.

B. adhesion B. Crystalline solids all share a lattice

structure and the same types of bonds,
C. capillary action but are composed of different elements.
D. universal solvent These elements affect the way the solid
conducts heat and electricity.
209. The pressure exerted by a vapor in equi-
librium with its corresponding liquid at a C. Crystalline solids all share a lattice
given temperature is structure, but behave differently under
similar conditions.
A. equilibrium pressure
D. Crystalline solids all share a lattice
B. equilibrium vapor pressure structure, but the bonds that hold them to-
C. phase diagram gether at the atomic level differ. The ele-
D. phase change ments that make up the solids also differ.
These differences affect how a solid con-
210. Definite shape and indefinite volume: ducts heat and electricity.
A. solid 213. is the temperature at which the equi-
B. liquid librium vapor pressure of a liquid equals
C. gas the atmospheric pressure

D. plasma A. freezing point

E. no such state B. boiling point

C. melting point
211. When Ice melts why does the tempera-
ture stay at zero for a while before in- D. condensing point
creasing?
214. Gas molecules can easily be compressed
A. The particles must all reach the same because
temperature before the temperature can
A. gas molecules are soft
change.
B. gas molecules are far apart
B. The hot plate wasn’t turned on.
C. gas molecules follow the shape of the
C. The thermometer was not connected
container
correctly.
D. none of above
D. The kinetic energy was too high and
the particles had to slow down. 215. Both the components are mutually solu-
ble in each other in both liquid and solid
212. A friend in your chemistry class is strug-
phase
gling to understand why crystalline solids
are grouped into four main types:network, A. Isomorphous System
molecular, ionic, and metallic. Which ex- B. Binary Isomorphous System
planation below will BEST help him begin
to understand why chemists might have C. Unary Isomorphous System
these groups? D. None of them

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1402

216. In order to convert degrees Celsius to 222. What amount of energy in Joules is
Kelvin you should released when 85.0 grams of steam is
A. add 273 cooled from 145 degrees Celsius to 25 de-
grees Celsius?
B. subtract 273
A. 204, 200 J
C. multiply by 1.8 and add 23
B. -35, 890 J
D. add 100
C. -51, 500 J
217. The degree of freedom at triple point in

NARAYAN CHANGDER
unary diagram for water is D. 51, 500 J
A. 3 E. 35, 890 J
B. 2 223. At what temperature would the reac-
C. 1 tion of vinegar and baking soda occur the
D. 0 fastest?
A. 0oC
218. Select all that apply.The strength of in-
termolecular forces can be used to predict B. 50oC
differences in properties like: C. 75oC
A. hydrogen bonds D. 120oC
B. boiling point
224. Which of the following has the lowest
C. melting point
boiling point?
D. dipole-dipole
A. CaCl2
219. Which is an endothermic change B. PH3
A. Freezing
C. Cl2
B. Boiling
D. N2
C. Condensing
D. Deposition 225. When a substance melts, the kinetic en-
ergy
220. As the temperature of a gas increases,
A. decreases
the pressure will . Assume the volume re-
mains constant. B. stays the same
A. increase C. increases
B. decrease D. decreases then increases
C. be unchanged
226. The temperature at which a solid and a
D. none of above liquid are in equilibrium at 1 atm pressure
221. Change from Solid to Gas is called is the

A. Sublimation A. normal boiling point

B. Deposition B. normal freezing point
C. Fusion C. condensing point
D. condensation D. melting point

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1403

227. The change from solid to gas is called C. Solid

A. Condensation D. Plasma

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B. Sublimation
C. Melting 233. If you were holding a test tube in which
an exothermic reaction was taking place,
D. Freezing
it would
228. Which substance has the weakest inter- A. feel cold, because energy is being re-
molecular forces? leased
A. Substance A, boiling point of 75 ◦ C
B. feel hot, because energy is being re-
B. Substance B, boiling point of 105 ◦ C leased
C. Substance C, boiling point of 25 ◦ C
C. feel hot, because energy is being ab-
D. Substance d, boiling point of 45 ◦ C sorbed
229. Phases are separated from one another D. feel cold, because energy is being ab-
by physical boundaries called sorbed
A. the phase boundaries.
B. the component boundaries. 234. degrees Celsius is K

C. the state boundaries. A. -248

D. the process boundaries. B. 298
230. Some metals, as well as non metals, may C. 125
have more than one crystal structure, a
phenomenon known as D. -125

A. Polymorphism
235. The movement of gas molecules is greatly
B. Allotropy affected by
C. Solid Solution A. the shape of the container
D. Random Oriented Solution
B. size of the container
231. A sample of oxygen at 28.0◦ C has 340.0
C. temperature of the container
kPa. What will its temperature be at
150.0 kPa? D. none of above
A. 132.8 K
B. 132.8 ◦ C 236. The normal boiling point is defined as the
boiling point of a liquid at which is ap-
C. 682.2 K proximately atmospheric pressure at sea
D. 12.35 K level.

232. Which state of matter has a fixed shape A. 100◦ C

and volume and it’s molecules move very
B. 25 kPa
slowly?
A. Liquid C. 101.3 kPa
B. Gas D. 150◦ C

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1404

237. Select all that apply. In the process of C. freezing, condensation

evaporation, D. deposition, evaporation
A. particles at the surface that have
enough energy can escape the liquid and 242. Which phase of matter has the least en-
enter the gas phase. tropy?
B. some of the molecules in a gas will A. solid
have lower energy than the rest and can B. liquid
transition to the liquid phase

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. gas
C. it happens at the surface of liquids and
D. plasma
its one type of vaporization
D. increasing the temperature of a liquid 243. Where does the thermal energy (heat) go
results in more particles having enough during a phase change?
energy to evaporate A. the environment
238. of N2 gas and 22.4L of CO2 gas at STP B. increase the kinetic energy of the sub-
will have the same stance
A. number of atoms C. overcome the intermolecular forces
B. mass of atoms D. Depends on what the phase change is
C. molecular mass
244. is the change of state from a gas di-
D. number of molecules rectly to a solid.
239. What is Thermal expansion? A. sublimation
A. The transfer of thermal energy be- B. deposition
tween materials by the collisions of par- C. condensation
ticles
D. evaporation
B. Is a decrease in a materials volume
when temperature decreases 245. It is the graphical representation of the
C. An increase in a materials volume physical states of a substance under dif-
when temperature increases ferent conditions of temperature and pres-
sure.
D. Chicken fried rice
A. Venn Diagram
240. indicates the critical temperature and
B. States of Matter
critical pressure of a substance.
C. Phase Diagram
A. triple point
D. All of the above
B. critical temperature
C. critical pressure 246. Madani prepares a salt solution for an ex-
D. critical point periment. Determine the number of compo-
nents and phases in in the solution.
241. In which of the following pairs of physical A. Two components in a one-phase sys-
changes are both changes endothermic? tem.
A. freezing, melting B. One component in a two-phase sys-
B. melting, sublimation tem.

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10.3 Equilibrium Diagrams & Phase Changes 1405

C. Two components in a two-phase sys- C. They have the same amount of thermal
tem. energy

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D. One component in a one-phase sys- D. There is no way to tell which one has
tem. more thermal energy

247. Which of these is not an intermolecular 252. A measure of the average kinetic energy
force? of the particles in a sample of matter.
A. covalent bonding A. temperature
B. hydrogen bonding B. meter
C. London dispersion forces C. second
D. dipole-dipole forces D. none of above

248. A Saturated solution of sodium chloride 253. Which statement is incorrect about is the
is a phase system meta stable of water
A. 1 A. Water is carefully cooled below zero
B. 2 degree ceisius give super cooled water

C. 3 B. Meta stable curve is the extension of

Vaporization curve of water
D. 4
C. This curve is present above sublima-
249. As pressure decreases, boiling point tion curve
A. decreases D. Meta stable curve Liquid water is equi-
B. increases librium with solid ice

C. decreases then increases 254. is a tool used to determine weight

D. increases then decreases percent ages of each phase of a binary
equilibrium phase diagram.
250. The relationship among the solid, liquid, A. Lever Rule
and vapor states of a substance is a sealed
container can be represented in a single B. Gibbs phase Rule
graph. A is a graph that describes the C. Hume Rothery
conditions of temperature and pressure at D. None of them
which a substance exists as a solid, liquid,
or gas. 255. The structure of austenite is
A. STP A. FCC
B. Ionic Solids B. BCC
C. phase diagram C. SC
D. Sublimation D. None

251. If Lake Superior and a glass of water 256. It is the combination of pressure and tem-
both have a temperature of 52 degrees, perature at which all three phases of mat-
which has the most thermal energy? ter are at equilibrium.
A. Glass of water A. First Point
B. Lake Superior B. Triple Point

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 10.4 Heat Treatment of Steels 1406

C. Double Point C. convection current

D. Boiling Point D. induction

258. Phase change from a solid to a gas.

257. In , heat is transferred from one parti-
cle of matter to another without the move- A. sublimation
ment of the matter. B. deposition
A. conduction C. condensation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. convection D. evaporation

10.4 Heat Treatment of Steels

1. What property defines a metals ability 5. Annealing is
to withstand twisting, bending, stretching, A. normal cooling
or deformation without breaking.
B. fast cooling
A. Hardness
C. decrease ductility
B. Brittleness
D. refine grain
C. Ductility
D. Toughness 6. Normalising returns the grain structure
back to it’s normal state, but what is the
2. The steel which has 0.83 % of carbon, it heating and cooling method?
increases the of steel. A. Heat below the Upper Critical temper-
A. Hardness ature and cool in still air
B. Strength B. Heat above the Upper Critical Temper-
ature and cool in still air
C. Malleability
C. Heat above the Upper Critical temper-
D. Ductility ature and cool in the oven
3. Annealing steel requires the temperature D. none of above
to be ?
7. Identify the ‘characteristics’ of mate-
A. Below the Upper Critical Temperature rial undergo normalizing and anneal-
B. Below the Lower Critical Temperature ing.(Multiple answer)
C. Above the Lower Critical Temperature A. Soften
D. Above the Upper Critical Temperature B. Weaken
C. More ductile
4. What is the process of heat treatment
toremove the brittleness of hard metal? D. Less internal Stress
A. Hardening E. Less cracking

B. Annealing 8. The cooling rate for annealing is ?

C. Normalising A. Rapid cooling
D. Tempering B. Slow cooling in still air

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10.4 Heat Treatment of Steels 1407

C. Slow cooling in an oven C. Heat treatment

D. Medium cooling D. Tempering

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9. What is the name for a material that can
15. Upon annealing, eutectoid steel converts
easily transfer heat?
to which of the following?
A. A thermal insulator
A. Perlite
B. A thermal conductor
B. Cementite
C. An electrical insulator
D. An electrical conductor C. Austenite
D. Martensite
10. When the steel is quenched, it becomes
hard and ?
16. Which heat treatment process of car-
A. Ductile burisingis done in a heated salt-bath?
B. Malleable A. Liquid carburising
C. Brittle
B. Gas carburising
D. Tough
C. Pack carburising
11. What is the property of quenching oil used D. Gas Nitriding
inheat treatment process for steels?
A. Low viscosity 17. Tick three advantages of annealing steel
B. High viscosity A. Improves machineability of steel
C. Corrosive
B. Increases ductility of steel
D. Emulsification
C. It softens steel
12. how to decrease softness of steel D. It hardens steel
A. by doing annealing
E. produces small grains
B. by doing quenching
C. by doing normalizing 18. What below best describes the strenght
term?
D. by doing stress relieving annealing
A. measure of how much tension the
13. Steel having increase carbon is metal can resist
A. Hardening increases
B. when subjected to stress, it breaks
B. Strength increases without significant plastic deformation
C. Strength decreases C. is the ability of a solid to bend or
D. Ductility improves be hammered into other shapes without
breaking.
14. To get the desired property of steel by
heating and cooling process D. is a heat treatment technique applied
to ferrous alloys, such as steel or cast
A. Normalising iron, to achieve greater toughness by de-
B. Hardening creasing the hardness of the alloy.

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10.4 Heat Treatment of Steels 1408

19. What is the process of heat treatment 24. soaking is

if heatis applied to the surface of the A. soaked to enough time and let the
work rapidlyand quenched immediately by changing happen
spraying withwater?
B. heated to certain temperature
A. Induction hardening
C. soaked to certain temperature
B. Annealing
D. soaked to certain rate
C. Flame hardening
25. Types of heat treatment

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Normalising
A. normalizing
20. Name of the process having fine grains B. normalization
structure and mechanical properties C. fast cooling
A. Annealing D. temperature
B. Tempering 26. Which of the following is the hardest con-
C. Normalising stituent of steel?
D. Hardening A. Ledeburite
B. Austenite
21. What is the operation if steel is heated
C. Bainite
to asuitable temperature and kept at that-
temperature until the carbon has penetrat- D. Martensite
edto the depth required?
27. Name a Non ferrous metal?
A. Carburising
A. Stainless Steel
B. Liquid carburising B. Aluminum
C. Gas carburising C. Tool steel
D. Nitriding D. Cast Iron

22. Heating steel red hot and then fast cooling 28. Which is the heat treatment process if
it is called workis placed in a gas tight container and
heatedin a suitable furnace?
A. annealing
A. Liquid carburising
B. quenching
B. Gas carburising
C. tempering
C. Pack carburising
D. work hardening D. Gas Nitriding
23. In normalizing, cooling is done in which of 29. Explanation:Flame Hardening is a process
the following medium? of heating the surface with a flame above
A. Air critical temperature and then quenching it.
A. Heating surface by induction in field of
B. Water
invariable current
C. Oil
B. Case depth minimum of 2mm are pro-
D. Furnace duced

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10.4 Heat Treatment of Steels 1409

C. Heating surface by induction in field of 34. What is the process of changing thestruc-
alternating current ture and properties of steel by heatingand
cooling?

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D. None of the mentioned
A. Heat treatement ofsteel
30. What is the process of heat treatment B. Austenite
toimprove the machinability of steel?
C. Martensite
A. Normalising
D. Cementite
B. Annealing
35. What is the process of heat treartment
C. Hardening toadd the cutting ability to steel?
D. Tempering A. Tempering
31. The purpose of normalizing steel is to B. Annealing
C. Hardning
A. Hardness
D. Normalising
B. Improves Machinability
C. Remove Internal Stress 36. Which of the metal contains iron?
A. Non-ferrous metals
D. Toughness
B. Non-ferrous metalalloys
32. What below best describes the term an- C. Ferrous metals
nealing?
D. Bronze
A. is the rapid cooling of a workpiece in
water, oil or air to obtain certain material 37. Which heat treament process is a produc-
properties tionmethod of surface hardening?
B. when subjected to stress, it breaks A. Flame hardening
without significant plastic deformation B. Nitriding
C. is the ability of a solid to bend or C. Gas carburising
be hammered into other shapes without D. Induction hardening
breaking.
38. Mild steel can be converted into high car-
D. is a heat treatment that alters the
bons steel by which of the following heat
physical and sometimes chemical proper-
treatment process?
ties of a material to increase its ductility
and reduce its hardness, making it more A. Annealing
workable. B. Normalizing
C. Case hardening
33. Heating steel red hot, quick cooling, and
then reheating the steel before slow cool- D. Nitriding
ing is
39. which one will produce martensite phase
A. annealing A. annealing
B. quenching B. normalizing
C. tempering C. quenching
D. work hardening D. full annealing

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10.4 Heat Treatment of Steels 1410

40. Which of the metal does not contain Iron? D. is a heat treatment technique applied
A. Ferrous metal to ferrous alloys, such as steel or cast
iron, to achieve greater toughness by de-
B. Ferrous metal alloys creasing the hardness of the alloy.
C. Pig iron
45. Which instrument is used for observingvis-
D. Non-Ferrous metal ible exact grain size and structure ofbro-
ken metal?
41. What is the process of heat treatment

NARAYAN CHANGDER
toremove stress and strain formed in A. Power glass
theinternal structure of steel due to re-
B. Microscope
peatedheating?
C. Lens
A. Annealing
D. Reading glass
B. Hardening
C. Normalising 46. Heating steel red hot and then letting it
D. Tempering slow cool is called
A. annealing
42. how to increase hardness of steel
B. quenching
A. by doing annealing
C. tempering
B. by doing quenching
D. work hardening
C. by doing normalizing
D. by doing full annealing 47. Stiffness is when a material can

43. Which is the heat treatement process if- A. Hold its shape without bending
components are heated at 500◦ C in acon- B. Hold its shape without melting
stant circulation of ammonia gas upto100
hours and cooling them in air? C. Hold its shape without erodding

A. Salt bath nitriding D. Hold its shape without breaking

B. Gas nitriding 48. Identify the ‘limitations’ of full anneal-

C. Liquid carburising ing.(Multiple answer)
D. Gas carbursing A. Soften the metal
B. Time that it takes
44. What below best describes the term
quenching? C. Inconvenience to be done
A. is the rapid cooling of a workpiece in D. Ties up ovens for long periods of time.
water, oil or air to obtain certain material
properties 49. FALSE of heat treatment cycle
B. when subjected to stress, it breaks A. heating
without significant plastic deformation
B. cooling
C. is the ability of a solid to bend or
C. annealing
be hammered into other shapes without
breaking. D. soaking

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10.4 Heat Treatment of Steels 1411

50. is a method of heat treating that al- A. Annealing

lows metals to become both strong and B. Normalising
tough.

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C. Hardening
A. annealing
D. Surface hardening
B. quenching
56. “ involves heating the material above
C. tempering
the upper transformation temperature and
D. work hardening then cooled in a temperature controlled
oven. “
51. Which of the following is NOT a quenching
medium used for quenching steel? A. Normalizing
A. Used, black engine oil B. Annealing
B. Sunflower oil C. Quenching
C. Brine D. Tempering

D. Water 57. “Normalizing and annealing are processes

involving heating metal and slowly
52. What does the term “Aesthetics” mean? cooling it to obtain material”.
A. The ability of the material to hold in A. to a critical temperature, to room tem-
heat perature, a softer and less distorted ma-
B. The breakdown of a material that has terial.
a reaction to water B. to a critical temperature, at room tem-
C. The appearance of a material, includ- perature, a softer and less distorted ma-
ing shape, colour and feel terial.
D. The ability to attract a magnet C. to elevated temperature, to room tem-
perature, a softer and less distorted ma-
53. What is the difference between annealing terial
and hardening?
D. none of above
A. The heating temperatures are differ-
ent 58. “ involves heating the material above
the upper transformation temperature and
B. Hardening requires slow cooling then cooling it slowly at room tempera-
C. Hardening requires rapid cooling ture.”
D. The heating & cooling are the same A. Normalizing
54. What two conditions make iron rust B. Annealing

A. Water only C. Quenching

D. Tempering
B. air only
C. water and air 59. In Annealing, cooling is done in which of
the following medium?
D. Hydrochloric acid
A. Air
55. What is the process of heat treatment for-
B. Water
components to have hard wear resisting-
surface and shock resisting core for bet- C. Oil
terservice conditions and longer life? D. Furnace

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 10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials 1412

60. Nickel addition in alloys C. Limit grain growth during heat treat-
A. Increases toughness ment process
B. Increases hardenability and impact re-
sistance D. All of the mentioned

10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. What process is used to change the prop- A. particle-reinforced composites
erties of rubber? B. fiber-reinforced composites
A. Polymerisation C. structural composites
B. Vulcanisation D. nanocomposites
C. Addition of A polymer
6. What is the term for a strong, flexible, nat-
D. Re-enforcement ural polymer made in plants when sugar
molecules join in long threads?
2. Which of the following is not a polymer?
A. cellulite
A. Rubber
B. cellulose
B. Iron
C. cellular
C. PVC
D. cellulyte
D. Teflon
7. The bonding material used in glass rein-
3. Which of the following are ceramics? forced plastic (GRP) is a
A. pottery A. Thermosetting plastic
B. rope B. Glass resin
C. tiles C. Thermo plastic
D. glass D. Natural resin
E. leather
8. The principal types of E-type glass fiber
4. A covalent bond refers to the sharing of are
pairs between atoms. A. a calcium aluminoborosilicate glass
A. proton B. a magnesia aluminosilicate glass
B. neutron C. a high performance glass fiber
C. electron D. none of above
D. isotope 9. What must be used to reinforce concrete
5. Normally composed of both homogeneous when making large structures?
and composite materials, the properties of A. Glass fiber
which depend not only on the properties B. Epoxy resin
of the constituent materials but also on
the geometrical design of the various struc- C. Graphene
tural elements. D. Steel reinforcement-steel bars

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10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials 1413

10. when more than one type of fiber used in 15. Hard but easily broken or cracked
a rainforest plastic the composite is called A. brittle
a

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B. lattice structure
A. particles
C. unreactive
B. hybrid D. insulator
C. materials
16. Thermosets, Thermoplastic, Ceramics ter-
D. none of above masuk kedalam?
A. Matrix-materials
11. considered to be any multiphase material
that exhibits a significant proportion of B. Micro-materials
the properties of both constituent phases C. Fibers
such that a better combination of proper- D. Long fibers
ties is realized
17. Which of the following is not a use of ce-
A. Composites
ramics?
B. Semi-conductors A. storage
C. Biomaterials B. roofing tiles
D. Nanomaterials C. bricks
D. pipes to conduct electricity
12. One of the most advanced and promising
of engineering materials. 18. The type of glass used to make laboratory
A. Polymer-Matrix composites glass ware is
A. Borosilicate glass
B. Metal-Matrix composites
B. Fused glass
C. Ceramic-Matrix composites
C. Lead glass
D. Carbon-Carbon composites
D. Soda glass
13. Most polymers rely on the element for 19. To make composite materials, two materi-
their basic structure. als are needed
A. oxygen A. Fibers and matrix-materials
B. carbon B. Mixed materials and fibers
C. hydrogen C. Reinforced plastics and fibers
D. helium D. Reinforced plastics and matrix-
materials
14. Discontinuous fibers for which a parallel
20. the combination of the first three materi-
alignment of the longitudinal axis of the
als which are metals, ceramics and poly-
fibers in a single direction.
mers
A. continuous A. Composites
B. discontinuous and aligned B. Semi-conductors
C. discontinuous and randomly oriented C. Biomaterials
D. none of above D. Nanomaterials

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10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials 1414

21. A range of hard, durable, non-metallic ma- 26. Which of the following is not a common
terials, which are generally unaffected by aggregate that we talked about?
heat, e.g. china and glass. A. Sand
A. brittle B. Limestone
B. ceramic C. Gravel
C. unreactive D. Crushed Stone
D. heat resistant 27. Reinforced concrete contains in the con-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
crete pillars which makes them stronger
22. Classification of fiber which have rela-
than normal concrete and are able to sup-
tively large diameters; typical materials in-
port larger loads than normal concrete.
clude steel, molybdenum, and tungsten.
A. Steel rods
A. Whiskers
B. Steels sheets
B. Fibers
C. Iron bars
C. Wires
D. Magnesium
D. none of above
28. Many synthetic polymers starts from
23. the percentage of fibers (by volume) in re- A. coal or gas
infoced plastic usually ranges beetwen B. coal or oil
A. 10-60% C. gas or oil
B. 20-60% D. none of these
C. 30-60% 29. consist of particles of one material dis-
D. 40-60% persed in a matrix of a second material
A. particle-reinforced composites
24. The Casting processes is most often cho-
sen over water manufacturing methods be- B. fiber-reinforced composites
cause C. structural composites
A. Very large parts can be produced in D. nanocomposites
one piece
30. The most commonly used matrix materials
B. Can carry most of the load are
C. Can provide additional protection A. epoxies and polyester
D. none of above B. epoxies and phenolic
C. polyester and phenolic
25. Classification of fiber which are either
polycrystalline or amorphous and have D. polyester and silicon
small diameters; fibrous materials are gen- 31. What are the properties of Kevlar?
erally either polymers or ceramics.
A. Heavy, incredible strength, low cost
A. Whiskers
B. Flexible, elastic, ductile
B. Fibers
C. Waterproof, rigid, low cost
C. Wires D. Vibration absorption, incredible
D. none of above strength, abrasion resistance

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10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials 1415

32. These materials may be used at higher ser- 37. These matrix materials are used primarily
vice temperatures than their base-metal for glass fiber-reinforced composites.
counterparts, the reinforcement may im-

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A. Polymer-Matrix composites
prove specific stiffness, specific strength,
abrasion resistance, creep resistance, ther- B. Metal-Matrix composites
mal conductivity, and dimensional stabil- C. Ceramic-Matrix composites
ity. D. Carbon-Carbon composites
A. Polymer-Matrix composites
38. Which of the following is not the aim of
B. Metal-Matrix composites alloying?
C. Ceramic-Matrix composites A. To increase the strength and hardness
D. Carbon-Carbon composites of metal.
B. To prevent corrosion of metal.
33. What type of chemical reaction emits
heat? C. To improve the appearance of metal
A. Exothermic D. To increase the melting point.
B. Endothermic 39. Which is the follow processes increases
C. Decomposition the hardness of a metal?

D. none of above A. Purification

B. Plating
34. A substance made up very long molecules
C. Alloying
containing repeating groups of atoms.
(Formed by joining monomer molecules to- D. Electrolysis
gether.)
40. Polymers can be
A. polymer
A. natural
B. polymer
B. synthetic
C. ceramics
C. natural or synthetic
D. composite materials
D. none of these
35. Reinforced Plastics is commonly used in, 41. Where is cellulose found in fruits and veg-
except gies?
A. Automobile bodies A. cell membranes
B. Sporting goods B. cytoplasm
C. Commercial airplane C. ribosomes
D. Socks D. cell walls
36. Ceramics can conduct 42. The polymers in your body are made of
A. heat A. keratin
B. electricity B. collagen
C. Both heat and electrivcity C. proteins
D. Do not conduct heat and electricity D. starches

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10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials 1416

43. An arrangement of many atoms or other 48. Which of the following types of glass has
particles, which are bonded together in a the lowest melting point and can be blown
fixed regular (grid-like) pattern. into various shapes?
A. brittle A. Lead glass
B. ceramic B. soda lime glass
C. unreactive C. Borosilicate glass
D. Fused silica glass
D. lattice structure

NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. What stands for PMC?
44. Alloy is a
A. Polymer-matrix composites
A. A chemical compound with combina-
B. Pipe-meta composites
tion between metal and non-metal
C. Polymer-mixed composites
B. A salt contain of two or more elements
where the main element is non-metal D. Polymer-micro composites

C. Mixture of two or more elements 50. Materials made of two materials and has
where the main element is metal properties different from the individual
components
D. none of above
A. compounds
45. the advantages of the metal matrix are B. composites
A. Thoughness C. mixtures
B. Density D. none of above
C. Stiffness 51. The most common false statement for rein-
D. Strength forcing fibers for polymer matrix compos-
ites is
46. Made of coarse aggregate, sand, cement A. Glass fibers
and water.
B. Ceramics fibers
A. Concrete C. Optical fibers
B. Plywood D. Boron fibers
C. Robotic materials 52. Which includes matrix materials is
D. Reinforced polymers A. Thermoplastic
E. Fibre/Carbon/Glass B. Themosets

47. Composites with exceptionally high spe- C. Ceramics

cific strengths and moduli have been pro- D. All is true
duced that use low-density fiber and ma-
53. Gravel, small stones or pieces of crushed
trix materials.
rocks used in building.
A. fiber-reinforced composites A. cement
B. particle-reinforced composites B. aggregate
C. structural composites C. sand
D. nanocomposites D. water

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10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials 1417

54. A process by which continuous reinforcing 59. Why do carbon fiber bicycle frames cost
fibers are accurately positioned in a prede- more than aluminum frames?
termined pattern to form a hollow (usually

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A. The carbon fiber and matrix used to
cylindrical) shape.
join the fibers are very expensive
A. Pultrusion
B. The equipment is very expensive
B. Prepreg Production Processes
C. The frames are made using multiple
C. Filament Winding pieces of carbon fiber so the process is
D. none of above labor intensive and requires highly skilled
workers
55. Which of the following is not a composite
material D. Companies have to pay the patent
owner a royalty for each frame they make
A. MDF
B. Carbon fibre 60. What does a mug and a brick house have
in common?
C. Arimid fibre
A. They are both made of stone.
D. Structural concrete
B. They are both made of ceramics.
E. Glass
C. They are both large.
56. Fiber materials usually use
D. Neither have a lid.
A. Thermosets and Thermoplastics
B. Ceramics and Metals 61. Small molecules that make up larger
molecules.
C. Carbon and Alumunium Oxide
D. none of above A. monomer
B. polymer
57. what is reinforcement
C. synthetic
A. fibers or particles that give the com-
posites strength, stiffness and density D. plastic
B. a composite with different sets of
62. Melt Spinning and Dry Spinning are the
properties than its constituent materials
process to create
C. decrease in cracking by distributing
A. Polymer fibers
stress evenly
D. fillers added to save money or modify B. Carbon fibers
properties C. Glass fibers

58. composed of nanosized particles (or D. Graphite fibers

nanoparticles) that are embedded in a ma-
trix material 63. Ceramic is made from

A. particle-reinforced composites A. Marble

B. fiber-reinforced composites B. Cement
C. structural composites C. Silica, SiO2
D. nanocomposites D. Aluminosilicate hydrate

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10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials 1418

64. Classification of fiber which are very thin B. metal matrixs and ceramic matrics
single crystals that have extremely large composite
length-to-diameter ratios; they are among C. polymer matrixs and ceramics matrics
the strongest known materials. composite
A. Whiskers D. none of above
B. Fibers
70. Fibers for which its length is greater than
C. Wires the critical length.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above A. continuous
B. discontinuous and aligned
65. Any substance that will return to its orig-
inal shape and size after it has been C. discontinuous and randomly oriented
stretched or squashed. D. none of above
A. crude oil 71. Which does not include fibers material is
B. ceramic A. Glass
C. elastic B. Graphite
D. addition polymer C. Boron
66. Silica is the made of what 2 elements? D. Ceramics

A. silicon and sulfur 72. In an alloy, at least one of the elements is

a
B. sulfur and carbon
A. nonmetal
C. carbon and oxygen
B. gas
D. silicon and oxygen
C. polymer
67. Which includes fibers material is D. metal
A. Thermoplastic
73. An alloy is harder than its pure metal be-
B. Graphite cause the foreign atoms in the alloy
C. Ceramics A. increase the bond strength between
D. Thermossets the atoms.
B. increase the empty spaces between
68. What is the main ingredient in glass? the atoms.
A. soda ash C. react with the pure metal atoms to
B. limestone form a compound.
C. borax D. reduce the ability of the atoms to slide
across each other.
D. silica
74. reinforced concrete was developed in
69. a composite material is a combination of
A. 1750s
Two or more chemically distance and insol-
uble, these combinations are known as B. 1800s
A. polymer matrixs and fiberreinforced C. 1850s
composite D. 1900s

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10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials 1419

75. When rubber is heated with sulfur. The 80. The following is a reinforcing fibers mate-
sulfur forms cross-links between the rub- rial, except
ber molecules, changing the material’s

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A. Metal fibers
properties.
B. Carbon fibers
A. raw material
C. Glass fibers
B. synthetic polymer
D. Boron fibers
C. vulcanisation
D. polymer 81. Which includes material matrixs, namely
A. Glass
76. A force that holds some atoms tightly to-
gether. B. Carbon

A. sand C. Ceramics

B. bond D. Boron

C. clay 82. A dry mixture of sand and gravel in which

D. ceramic grains are different sizes.
A. Aggregate
77. Matrix composites that may be fabricated
using hot pressing, hot isostatic pressing, B. Cement
and liquid-phase sintering techniques. C. Concrete
A. Polymer-Matrix composites D. none of above
B. Metal-Matrix composites 83. Which is included in the matrix-materials
C. Ceramic-Matrix composites is
D. Carbon-Carbon composites A. Glass

78. Which of the following is not a part of the B. Carbon

concrete mixture? C. Thermossets
A. Portland Cement D. Boron
B. Aggregates 84. This is the measure of how hard a mate-
C. Air rial can be pushed together before it is
D. Water crushed.
A. Bending
79. A combination of two or more chemically
distinct and insoluble phases with a recog- B. Tensile
nizable interface, in such a manner that its C. Compressive
properties and structural performance are D. Shear
superior to those of the constituents acting
independently is called 85. Obtained by using two or more different
A. Chemical reactions kinds of fibers in a single matrix; hybrids
have a better all-around combination of
B. Composite materials properties than composites containing only
C. Alloys a single fiber type.
D. Casted metal A. Hybrid composites

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10.5 Plastics, Ceramics & Composite Materials 1420

B. Metal-Matrix composites 91. These materials break or crumble rather

C. Ceramic-Matrix composites than deform under a load.
A. Elastic
D. Carbon-Carbon composites
B. Plastic
86. What does PVC stand for?
C. Brittle
A. Polyvinyl carbon D. Malleable
B. It does not stand for anything
92. reinforced plastics, also known as

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Polyvinyl chloride
A. PMC
D. Polymer Carbon
B. MMC
87. Ceramics are made by heating and C. CMC
other mineral materials to high tempera- D. none of above
tures.
A. granite 93. Which of the following is not a property of
ceramics?
B. basalt
A. readily absorb moisture
C. obsidian
B. do not conduct electricity
D. clay
C. can withstand high temperatures with-
88. This optical property allows some light to out melting
pass through D. all of the above are properties of ce-
A. transparent ramics

B. translucent 94. These material change their shape when

under a load, but return to their original
C. opaque
shape when load is removed.
D. luster
A. Elastic
89. These material can easily be shaped by B. Plastic
hammering or rolling, and they keep their C. Brittle
new shape.
D. Malleable
A. Elastic
95. used for the manufacture of components
B. Plastic
having continuous lengths and a constant
C. Brittle cross-sectional shape
D. Malleable A. Pultrusion
B. Prepreg Production Processes
90. Breaking down a compound into simpler
substances using heat. C. Filament Winding
A. vulcanisation D. none of above
B. endothermic 96. FRP (fibre reinforced polymers) are
C. composite material A. metallic
D. thermal decomposition B. lightweight

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 10.6 Mechanical Properties 1421

C. inexpensive D. none of above

D. not composites
100. All of the following are examples of syn-

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97. Aside from cellulose, plants make poly- thetic polymers except
mers called A. carpet
A. sugars B. plastic
B. starches
C. hair
C. proteins
D. glue
D. amino acids
101. the fillers modify or improve the proper-
98. Carbon atoms can form covalent ties of the material and/or replace some
bonds. of the polymer volume with a less expen-
A. 1 sive material
B. 2 A. Polymers with Filler
C. 3 B. Cermets
D. 4 C. Concrete
99. The composite industry’s term for D. none of above
continuous-fiber reinforcement preimpreg-
nated with a polymer resin that is only 102. Which or the following are properties of
partially cured. This material is delivered ceramics?
in tape form to the manufacturer, which A. soft
then directly molds and fully cures the
product without having to add any resin. B. hard
A. Pultrusion C. brittle
B. Prepreg Production Processes D. stiff
C. Filament Winding E. flexible

10.6 Mechanical Properties

1. When the intermolecular distance in- 2. A spring fixed at one end elongates by 5
creases due to tensile force, then(a) There cm, when stretched by a force of 100 N.
is no force between the molecules(b) The work done in producing this elongation
There is a repulsive force between the is
molecules(c) There is an attractive force
A. 5J
between the molecules(d) There is zero re-
sultant force between the molecules B. 1.5J
A. A C. 2.5J

B. B D. 3.2J

C. C 3. Physical property
D. D A. density

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10.6 Mechanical Properties 1422

B. tensile strength A. L = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm

C. torsion strength B. L = 100 cm, diameter = 1.0 mm
D. elasticity C. L = 200 cm, diameter = 2.0 mm
D. L = 300 cm, diameter = 3.0 mm
4. It is defined as the amount of deformation
in the direction of the applied force divided 9. A is the substance through which a
by the initial length of the material. wave can travel. Also known as matter.
A. True stress

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Medium
B. True strain B. Energy
C. Engineering strain C. Force
D. Engineering stress D. none of above
5. A uniform metallic wire is stretched by sus- 10. It is defined as ability to sustain dead load
pending a weight from it. If α is the lon- A. Strength
gitudinal strain and Y is the Young’s mod-
ulus, the elastic potential energy per unit B. Resilience
volume is C. True Stress
A. 2Y α D. Ruptures
Y α2
B. 2 11. The radii of two wires of a same material
α2 are in ratio 2:1. if the wires are stretched
C. 2Y
by equal forces, the stress produced in
D. Y α them will be(a) 2:1(b) 4:1(c) 1:4(d) 1:2
6. It takes more energy to produce a wave A. A
with higher crests and deeper troughs, so B. B
the more energy a wave has, the its
amplitude. C. C

A. greater D. D

B. lesser 12. Rhythmic disturbances that carry energy

C. equal without carrying matter
A. Wave
D. none of above
B. Force
7. Young’s modulus is applicable to
C. Energy
A. Solids
D. none of above
B. Liquids
13. The ratio of the change in dimension at
C. Gases
right angles to the applied force to the ini-
D. All of these tial dimension is known as(a) Youngs mod-
ulus(b) Poissons ratio(c) Lateral strain(d)
8. Four uniform wires described below are Shearing strain
made of the same material. The wire
which will have the largest extension, for A. A
a given tension is B. B

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10.6 Mechanical Properties 1423

C. C B. V/25
D. D C. 5V

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14. Select the answer that tells how wave- D. 25V
length is related to frequency for a wave
19. In a wire, when elongation is 2 cm energy
traveling at a constant speed.
stored is E. if it is stretched by 10 cm, then
A. wavelength is equal to frequency the energy stored will be(a) E(b) 2 E(c) 4
B. wavelength is directly proportional to E(d) 25 E
frequency A. A
C. wavelength is inversely proportional B. B
to frequency
C. C
D. a wave with a higher frequency will
D. D
have a longer wavelength
20. Typically this class of polymer exhibits a
15. Hookes law essentially defines(a)
yield point, followed by extensive elonga-
Stress(b) Strain(c) Yield point(d) Elastic
tion at almost constant stress.
limit
A. Rubber-Like
A. A
B. Metal-Like
B. B
C. C C. Glass-Like

D. D D. Ceramic-Like

16. Out of the following materials, whose 21. The SI unit of longitudinal strain is:
elasticity is independent of temperature? A. Metre (m)
(a) Copper(b) Invar steel(c) Brass(d) Silver B. Newton (N)
A. A C. Pascal (Pa)
B. B
D. Unitless
C. C
22. The Young’s modulus of most solids
D. D
A. decrease with increase in tempera-
17. The distance between a point on one wave ture
and the same point on the next cycle of the
B. increase with increase in temperature
wave is called
C. first increase and then decrease
A. wavelength
D. is independent of temperature
B. frequency
C. amplitude 23. It is defined as the ratio of the measured
force to the original cross-sectional area.
D. crest
A. Engineering stress
18. A long spring is stretched by 2 cm and its
P.E is V. If the spring is stretched by 10 B. Stiffness
cm its P.E will be C. True Stress
A. V/5 D. Shear stress

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10.6 Mechanical Properties 1424

24. A stretched rubber has 29. Mechanical property

A. Increased Kinetic energy A. tensile strength
B. Decreased kinetic energy B. density
C. Increased potential energy C. weldability
D. Decreased potential energy D. ability to be recycled
25. The distance from the undisturbed level 30. The number of complete cycles in a given

NARAYAN CHANGDER
(middle of the wave) to the trough or period of time is the of a periodic mo-
crest. tion.
A. Crest A. frequency
B. Amplitude B. period
C. Wavelength C. cycle
D. none of above D. rotations
26. Hooke’s law states that stress and strain
31. The length of a uniform wire is increased
are
by 1 mm on application of a given load.
A. inversely proportional The extension produced when same load is
B. independent of each other applied in a uniform wire of the same ma-
terial, but of length and radius twice that
C. directly proportional of the first is (in mm)
D. none of these
A. 2
27. It resists plastic deformation by prevent- B. 0.5
ing chain slippage.
C. 4
A. Rubber-Like
D. 0.25
B. Metal-Like
C. Glass-Like 32. Which of the following affects the elastic-
ity of a substance?
D. Ceramic-Like
A. Change in Temperature
28. A uniform aluminium wire and a uniform B. Impurity of substance
steel wire of same length and cross section
are attached end to end. The compound C. Hammering and annealing
wire is hung vertically from one end from D. All of these
a rigid support and a load is suspended at
the free end. Y of steel is (20/7) times of 33. When a block of mass M is suspended by
aluminium. The ratio of increase of length a long wire of length L the length of the
of steel wire to aluminium wire is (Neglect wire becomes (L+l). The elastic potential
the weight of wires) energy of the wire is
A. 20:3 A. 1/2MgL
B. 10:7 B. MgL
C. 7:20 C. 1/2Mgl
D. 1:7 D. Mgl

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10.6 Mechanical Properties 1425

34. Four wires whose lengths and diameter re- 39. It is defined as the ratio of the measured
spectively are given below are made of the force to the instantaneous cross-sectional
same material. Which of these will have area at a given elongation.

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the largest extension when same tension
A. Engineering stress
is applied? (a) 0.50 m, 0.50 mm(b) 1.00
mm, 1.00 mm(c) 2.00 m, 2.00 mm(d) 4.00 B. Stiffness
m, 4.00 mm C. True Stress
A. A D. Shear stress
B. B
40. It is defined as ability to carry stress with-
C. C
out changing dimension.
D. D
A. Stiffness
35. With waves energy causes the matter B. Hardness
(medium) to move up and down or back
and forth at right angles to the direction C. Toughness
the wave travels. D. Elasticity
A. Longitudinal
41. Two uniform wires of the same radius and
B. Transverse material have their lengths in the ratio 1:2.
C. Compressional If these are stretched by the same force,
the strain produced in the two wires will
D. none of above
be in the ratio
36. A uniform cable of length L is cut into two A. 1:1
equal lengths of L/2 each. The maximum
load that one of the wires can support is B. 1:2
A. Half the previous value C. 2:1
B. Same as previous value D. 1:4
C. Double the previous value 42. Substances that retain their original config-
D. One-fourth of previous value uration completely and immediately after
the removal of deforming force are called
37. Which of these represent raw material?
A. Elastic substances
A. steel
B. Plastic substances
B. concrete
C. Perfectly elastic substances
C. iron
D. Perfectly plastic substances
D. none of above

38. The following are examples of a medium 43. It is defined as ability to carry stress with-
which mechanical waves travel. out suffering a permanent deformation.
A. Air A. Resilience
B. Water B. Elasticity
C. Strings C. Toughness
D. All of the above D. Stiffness

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10.6 Mechanical Properties 1426

44. The is the highest point on a wave. 50. It is the ratio of the induced transverse
A. Amplitude strain to the axial strain.
B. Trough A. Strain
C. Crest B. Golden ratio
D. none of above
C. Young’s Modulus
45. The lowest point of a transverse wave D. Poisson’s ratio

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Crest
B. Wavelength 51. which material does sound travel the
fastest?
C. Trough
D. none of above A. solid

46. It is defined as ability to absorb energy B. liquid

without suffering permanent deformation. C. gases
A. Toughness
D. none of above
B. Strength
C. Elasticity 52. It is measured by the area under stress-
D. Resilience strain curve.

47. The distance from crest to crest or trough A. Toughness

to trough of a transverse wave is called B. Elasticity
the
C. Resilience
A. Amplitude
B. Wavelength D. Hardness
C. Crest
53. waves need matter (or medium) to
D. none of above transfer energy
48. waves DO NOT NEED matter (or A. Electromagnetic
medium) to transfer energy
B. Mechanical
A. Electromagnetic
B. Mechanical C. Heat

C. Sound D. none of above

D. none of above
54. The time required for one cycle, a complete
49. Longitudinal strain is possible in the case motion that returns to its starting point, is
of(a) Gases(b) Liquid(c) Only solids(d) called the
Only gases & liquids
A. period
A. A
B. revolution
B. B
C. C C. lap
D. D D. none of above

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 10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1427

55. Select the answer(s) that are true about A. Rubber-Like

frequency B. Metal-Like
A. frequency is measured in cycles per

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C. Glass-Like
second, or hertz
B. a wave’s frequency equals the fre- D. Ceramic-Like
quency of the vibrating source producing
57. It is the rate of instantaneous increase in
it
the instantaneous gauge length
C. five cycles per minute is a frequency of
five hertz A. True stress

D. any periodic motion has a frequency B. True strain

56. This class of polymer exhibits very small C. Engineering strain

strain at fracture D. Engineering stress

10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications

1. The special chrome steels of the stain- 4. What term is used to denote a family of
less variety contain how many percent of thermosetting polymers that are reaction
chromium? products of alcohols and acids?
A. 4 to 8 A. Alkaline
B. 9 to 10 B. Alkydes

C. 11 to 17 C. Alcocids
D. Aldehyde
D. 17 to 21
5. The electrical resistance of stainless steels
2. What steel surface hardening process re- can be as much as time that of carbon
quires heating at 1000o F for up to 100 steel.
hours in an ammonia atmosphere, fol-
lowed by slow cooling? A. 5

A. Nitriding B. 6
C. 10
B. Flame hardening
D. 15
C. Precipitaion hardening
D. Carburizing 6. is the property that allows metals and
alloys to be hammered or rolled into thin
3. Which option is a benefit of hot rolling over sheets.
cold rolling? A. Ductility
A. Better surface finish B. Malleability
B. Easier to carry out C. Luster
C. More dimensionally accurate final D. Versatility
product
7. What are the four major alloying elements
D. Cheaper process of austenitic stainless steels?

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1428

A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel C. ductile limit

B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel D. none of above
C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc 13. Fiberglass is an example of which mate-
D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper rial?
A. Alloy
8. The following alloys are the chief alloys
that are die-cast except: B. Nanomaterial
C. Polymer

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Zinc alloys
D. Composite
B. Magnesium alloys
C. Manganese alloys 14. Which of the following materials is used in
pressure sensors?
D. Aluminum alloys
A. Composites
9. The smallest defect that an x-ray could de- B. Piezoelectric
tect in a 10mm-thick plate is
C. Polymers
A. 4 mm D. none of above
B. 1 mm
15. What is the chief ore of zinc?
C. 0.2 mm
A. Cassiterite
D. 200 nm
B. Bauxite
E. 50 nm C. Sphalerite
10. What refers to the deterioration of mate- D. Ilmanite
rial by oscillatory relative motion of small
16. What is the basis of all polymers?
amplitude (20 to 100 µ m) between two
solid surfaces in a corrosive environment? A. Organic compounds
A. Stray current corrosion B. Inorganic compounds

B. Microbiological corrosion C. Ionic compounds

D. Basic compounds
C. Filiform corrosion
D. Fretting corrosion 17. The ability of a plastic to return to its orig-
inal shape and form when softened
11. The main ingredient used to make glass is A. Plastic memory
A. sand B. Nano memory
B. water C. Metal memory
C. gold D. Smart memory
D. none of above 18. Fracture which occurs extremely rapid
without any advanced warning of failure
12. Which of the followings is more important
to be considered if a structure is subjected A. fatigue
to high temperatures B. ductile
A. Endurance limit C. Brittle
B. Creep limit D. none of above

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1429

19. What corrosion occurs under organic coat- 24. Some natural polymers are
ings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines? A. Thereare no natural polymers

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A. Stray current corrosion B. Cellulose and natural rubber
B. Microbiological corrosion C. Polyethyleneand polyvinyl chloride
C. Filiform corrosion D. I don’t know
D. Fretting corrosion
25. Which of the following materials are con-
20. Indicate false statement about stainless sidered as excellent electric conductors?
steel? A. Ceramic
A. The density of stainless steel is about B. Plastic
the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
C. Copper
B. Stainless steels are poor conductors
of heat. D. none of above

C. Stainless steels are poor conductors 26. State three (3) types of atom arrangement
of electricity. in materials
D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli A. Molecular
greater than those of carbon and alloy B. Amorphous
steels.
C. Crystal
21. The most abundant metal on Earth (includ- D. Ionic
ing extracted and in it’s crust) is?
A. Titanium 27. What is the chief ore of titanium?
B. Aluminium A. Sphalerite
C. Copper B. Ilmanite
D. Iron C. Bauxite
D. Cassiterite
22. A mixture that is made of two or more ele-
ments one that is a metal that has 28. What refers to the removal of zinc from
the properties of metal is a(n) brasses?
A. monomer A. Dezincification
B. alloy B. Graphitization
C. polymer C. Stabilization
D. none of above D. Dealloying

23. What is the minimum tensile strength of 29. Manganese steel usually contains how
Gray Cast Iron class 50? many percent of manganese?
A. 25000 lbf/in2 A. 1 to 5
B. 35000 lbf/in2 B. 5 to 10
C. 50000 lbf/in2 C. 11 to 14
D. 100000 lbf/in2 D. 14 to 18

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1430

30. The following are primary alloying ingredi- 35. The most common beta brass with a com-
ents of Group H steel except: position of 60 % copper and 40 % zinc is
A. Molybdenum called

B. Tungsten A. yellow brass

C. Cobalt B. red brass
D. Chromium C. Muntz metal
D. white brass

NARAYAN CHANGDER
31. Ceramics have good ability to resist chem-
ical attack whoever they lack of
36. A catalyst that is a product of the chemical
A. Ductility reaction.
B. Brittleness
A. Photocatalyst
C. Hardness
B. Nanocatalyst
D. Electric conductivity
C. Biocatalyst
32. All engineering materials can be sorted
D. Autocatalyst
into 4 main categories. What are these
4 main categories? Select all correct an-
37. What word means “manufactured in a lab
swers
or chemical plant”?
A. Metals
A. macromolecular
B. Plastics
B. alloy
C. Ceramics
C. synthetic
D. Composites
D. ceramic
E. Polymers

33. Which of the terms listed describes the fol- 38. Which of the following statements about
lowing mechanical property of a material? x-ray is false?
:-The ability of the material to withstand A. X-rays can cause ionization in atoms.
sudden impact without fracturing.
B. X-rays have long wavelengths
A. Stiffness
C. X-rays can help determine the elemen-
B. Toughness
tal composition of a material.
C. Brittleness
D. X-rays are readily absorbed by metals
D. Hardness and bones.
34. These materials are good insulators and
39. A substance that affects the rate of chem-
strong di-electric. They are usually found
ical reaction of materials.
in transmission lines.
A. Alloys A. Polymers

B. Ceramics B. Alloys
C. Nanomaterials C. Inhibitor
D. Composites D. Catalyst

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1431

40. A combination of at least two materials, 45. Which of the followings describes pulling
one of which is a metal whose properties force?
are different from its original form.

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A. Compressive force
A. Metalloid B. Shear force
B. Ceramic C. Tensile force
C. Alloy D. none of above
D. Nanomaterial 46. Which of the following is NOT a hardware
requirement for die casting?
41. What refers to the application of any pro-
cess whereby the surface of steel is al- A. Water-cooled metal cavities
tered so that it will become hard? B. machined metal holding blocks
A. Caburizing C. Ejection mechanism
B. Casehardening D. Metal mold (matching halves)
C. Annealing 47. In a system of designating wrought alu-
D. Surfacehardening minum alloys, what does the second digit
represents?
42. A characterization technique that probes
A. The purity of aluminum
and maps the surface structures of a ma-
terial using photons, electrons, ions or any B. The identity of the alloy
other physical probes. C. The modifications of the alloy group or
A. Microscopy impurity limits

B. Macroscopy D. The alloy group

C. Spectroscopy 48. Materials that are manufactured and used

in small-scale settings.
D. Photoscropy
A. Composites
43. Materials that have high thermal and elec- B. Polymers
tric conductivity, as well as forming bonds
and cations of non-metals. C. Biomedical materials

A. Alloys D. Nanomaterials

B. Metals 49. Materials made by man using both organic

and inorganic substances.
C. Ceramics
A. Synthetic materials
D. Nanomaterials
B. Natural materials
44. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain C. Optical materials
how many percent of molybdenum?
D. Biomedical materials
A. 0.10
50. What is the stress for a round bar of 100
B. 0.20
mm2 in area which is subjected to a tensile
C. 0.30 force of 6000 N?
D. 0.40 A. 6 N/mm2

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1432

B. 60 N/mm2 56. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron

C. 6000 N/mm2 that has a temperature range of room tem-
perature to 1670o F?
D. none of above
A. Beta iron
51. What strong alloy, containing carbon, iron,
B. Gamma iron
and another material like chromium or
nickel, is used to make construction equip- C. Delta iron
ment, bicycle frames, and train rails?
D. Alpha iron

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. bronze
B. steel 57. The Group H steels can be used in what
temperature range?
C. amalgam
A. 600oC to 1100oC
D. none of above
B. 1000oC to 1500oC
52. Magnetic particle inspection
C. 1100oC to 2000oC
A. Works on all materials
D. 200oC to 800oC
B. Works on aluminum alloys
C. Works on steels 58. What are the four most important proper-
D. Works on plastics ties that apply to the serviceability of a
box wrench?
E. Requires water cooling
A. toughness
53. steel reinforced concrete is a
B. strength
A. mixture
C. formable
B. composite
D. machinable
C. alloy
D. none of above E. all of the above

54. What does ASTM stands for? 59. Why are metals useful for making electri-
cal wire?
A. Association of Steel Testing and Mate-
rials A. Metals do not bend.
B. American Society for Testing and Ma- B. Metals hold much heat.
terials
C. Metals are insulators.
C. Asian Society for Testing and Materi-
als D. Metals are conductors.

D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials 60. Something electricity can’t move through
is called a(n)
55. The heaviest materials are generally?
A. Composites A. conductor

B. Polymers B. wire
C. Metals C. shoe
D. Ceramics D. insulator

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1433

61. Indicate the false statement about corro- 66. In the system of designating wrought alu-
sion. minum alloys, the letter F that follows the
number indicates what condition of the al-

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A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to
many forms of corrosion because they are loy?
not good conduction of electricity. A. As fabricated
B. The corroded member in a corrosion B. Strain hardened
cell is the cathode. C. Annealed
C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the cor- D. Artificially aged
rosion protect on many metals.
D. Corrosion of metals is usually electro- 67. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resul-
chemical in nature. furized and rephosphorized carbon steel?
A. 13XX
62. A materials engineering factor that per-
tains to fracture is B. 31XX

A. Impact strength C. 23XX

B. Conductivity D. 12XX

C. Density 68. The thickness limit for ultrasonic inspection

D. Sonic velocity is

E. Poisson’s ration A. 10 mm
B. 1 m
63. Capable of decreasing the rate of reactions
by increasing the required activation en- C. 10 m
ergy. D. 100 m
A. Catalyst E. no technical limit
B. Inhibitor 69. Which sequence correctly represents the
C. Photo catalyst historical use of materials by humans?
D. Autocatalysts A. Metals, Ceramics, Polymers, Compos-
ites
64. What is the equilibrium temperature of
transformation of austenite to pearlite? B. Metals, Polymers, Composites, Ceram-
ics
A. 1000o F
C. Ceramics, Metals, Polymers, Compos-
B. 1333o F ites
C. 1666o F D. Polymers, Ceramics, Metals, Compos-
D. 1222o F ites

65. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for 70. Which of the following materials produces
nickel 3.50 alloy? voltage when subjected to a pressure?
A. 13XX A. Composites
B. 23XX B. Piezoelectric
C. 25XX C. Polymers
D. 31XX D. none of above

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1434

71. Red brass contains about how many per- C. Strength

cent of zinc? D. none of above
A. 20 %
77. What is defined as a local corrosion dam-
B. 15 % aged characterized by surface cavities?
C. 20 % A. Cracking
D. 25 % B. Pitting
C. Cavitation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
72. Which of the following fatigue failures oc-
curs below the yield point? D. Erosion
A. High cycle, low strain rate 78. Why does working a metal make it
B. High cycle, medium strain rate harder?
C. Low cycle, medium strain rate A. it increases the number of slip planes
D. none of above B. it increases the number of vacancies
C. it increases the # of dislocations and
73. What happens when thermosetting poly-
they get jammed at the grain boundaries
mers are heated?
D. the dislocations don’t allow atoms to
A. They become soft
substitute for one another
B. They are deformed
79. Which of the following tests is a non-
C. They become rigid destructive test?
D. All of the above A. Magnetic particle
74. is the ability of a metal to be pulled B. Hardness
into wires. C. Impact
A. Malleability D. none of above
B. Conductivity
80. Which of the followings is/are correct
C. Luster about standard specifications?
D. Ductility A. Standards focus on aspects such as
quality
75. is a mechanical property
B. They are one of the most important
A. Color sources for engineers and designers
B. Density C. They promote safe working practices
C. Ferromagnetism D. All of the above
D. Stiffness
81. What is the scaling off of a surface in
E. Strength flakes or layers as the result of corro-
sion?
76. Which of the following mechanical proper-
ties is the most important consideration A. Expoliation
when selecting materials? B. Corrosion fatigue
A. Brittleness C. Scaping
B. Ductility D. Fretting

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1435

82. Which of the following is a composite? 88. Which of the following is not an NDT tech-
A. fiberglass body of a boat nique?

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B. ceramic tiles on space shuttle A. Radiography
C. glass B. Acoustic emissions
D. wrought iron fence C. Resonant Frequency
83. Alnico is an alloy containing how many per- D. Holography
cent nickel?
E. Tomography
A. 10 %
B. 14 % 89. The usual purpose of dye penetrate inspec-
C. 18 % tion is to
D. 22 % A. Find internal voids

84. The difference between gamma rays and B. Identify surface cracks
x-rays is C. Measure density
A. Speed
D. Assess surface texture
B. Ability to focus
E. Measure porosity
C. Electromagnetic radiation range
D. Exposure 90. Large molecules made by bonding a series
E. X-ray uses film of building blocks.
A. Nanomolecules
85. What is the carbon content of wrought
iron? B. Polymers
A. less than 0.1 percent C. Composites
B. exactly 0.1 percent D. Ceramics
C. more than 0.1 percent
D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent 91. I change colour with heat-eg. a mug

86. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how A. Thermoset

many percent of vanadium? B. Shape memory alloys
A. 0.15 to 0.30 C. Thermochromic materials
B. 0.05 to 0.15
D. Tungsten
C. 0.30 to 0.45
D. 0.45 to 0.60 92. Hard, crystalline solids made by heating
clay and other minerals to high tempera-
87. Bronze is a mixture of the metals and tures are
A. ceramics
A. copper, lead
B. copper, silver B. glasses

C. silver, gold C. alloys

D. copper, tin D. none of above

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1436

93. What is a process for making glass- 98. Which of the following metals is an alloy?
reinforced shapes that can be generate A. Lead
by polling resin-impregnated glass stands
through a die? B. Tin

A. Continuous pultrusion C. Brass

D. Aluminum
B. Bulk molding
C. Vacuum bag forming 99. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal

NARAYAN CHANGDER
graphite?
D. Resin transfer moulding
A. Ductile iron
94. What is not one of the four types of mate- B. Wrought iron
rials we have learned how to classify?
C. Gray iron
A. polymer D. White iron
B. composite
100. What does SAE stands for?
C. metal
A. Society of Automotive Engineers
D. plasma
B. Society of American Engineers
95. What structure is formed when transfor- C. Society of Architects and Engineers
mation occurs at temperatures down to D. Society of Alloy Engineers
the knee of the curve?
101. What refers to a shape achieved by al-
A. Pearlite
lowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?
B. Bainite A. Casting
C. Austenite B. Molding
D. Martensite C. Forming

96. Materials engineering includes the study D. All of the choices

of 102. In a system of designating wrought alu-
A. allotropy minum alloys, a four digit number is used.
What does the first digit indicates?
B. polymorphism
A. The purity of aluminum
C. crystallinity
B. The identity of the alloy
D. microstructures
C. The alloy group
E. all of the above
D. The strength of the alloy
97. The term “bronze” is used to designate 103. Which of the followings describes the cut-
any alloy containing: ting force?
A. copper and zinc A. Compressive force
B. copper and aluminum B. Shear force
C. copper and nickel C. Tensile force
D. copper and tin D. none of above

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1437

104. Cornstarch is a carbohydrate which is 109. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with
made up of long carbon chains. Cornstarch limits on the amount of carbon to less than
is classified as a/an percent.

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A. Alloy A. 2
B. Polymer B. 3
C. Composite C. 4
D. Nanomaterial
D. 1
105. Chemistry includes the study of
110. is a physical property
A. calculus
A. Gold
B. vectors
C. gases B. Corrosion

D. diversion C. Hardness
E. anthropology D. Sound

106. A chemical reaction where two or more E. Thermal conductivity

substances combine to form a new com-
111. is the ability of a material to transfer
plex substance.
heat and energy.
A. Synthesis
A. Ductility
B. Metathesis
B. Conductivity
C. Decomposition
C. Malleability
D. Single Displacement
D. Luster
107. Which of the followings is more impor-
tant to be considered if a component re- 112. Product service life is determined by
quire mechanical work during processing,
such as pressing, drawing, rolling or bend- A. estimates
ing B. market forces
A. Brittleness C. property test
B. Ductility
D. failure analysis
C. Toughness
E. all of the above
D. none of above
113. A collection of several strands of glass
108. Test that is carried out by gripping the
that are mixed with plastic to make it
ends of the test piece in the jaws of the ma-
durable.
chine and applying a steady pulling force.
A. Tensile A. Graphene

B. Compression B. Prosthetic
C. Rockwell C. Fiberglass
D. none of above D. Polystyrene

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1438

114. Which of the following is synthetic 119. What is the chief ore of tin?
fiber? A. Cassiterite
A. Styrene B. Bauxite
B. Cotton C. Ilmanite
C. Rayon D. Galena
D. Hemp 120. The lightest materials are generally?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Wash and wear A. Composites
B. Polymers
115. NDT can be used in
C. Metals
A. Casting D. Ceramics
B. Weldments
121. The wear-resistance of this material is at-
C. Sheet tributed to its ability to , that is, the
D. Extrusions hardness is increased greatly when the
steel is cold worked.
E. All of the above
A. cold harden
116. which among the following is not a ther- B. stress harden
mal property C. cool-temperature
A. Melting temperature D. strain harden
B. Linear expansivity 122. What does AISI stands for?
C. Ductility A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries
D. none of above B. American Institute of Steel Industries
C. Association of Iron and Steel Indus-
117. What is the mixture of gibbsite and dias- tries
pore, of which aluminum is derived?
D. American Iron and Steel Institute
A. Bauxite
123. Physics includes the study of
B. Rutile
A. animals
C. Galera
B. protons
D. Sphalerite C. lipids
118. A form of microscopy where a high en- D. protozoa
ergy beam of electrons is shone on a very E. ethics
thin sample of an object creating a detailed
two-dimensional image. 124. An important property of polymer rein-
forced composite materials is?
A. Scanning Electron Microscopy
A. Hardness
B. Photon Microscopy B. Compression strength
C. Transmission Electron Microscopy C. Strength to weight ratio
D. X-ray D. Conductivity

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1439

125. The term “brass” is very commonly used C. Die casting

to designate any alloy primarily of: D. Stellite 6

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A. copper and zinc E. Phenolic
B. aluminum and iron
131. A large, complex molecule built from
C. copper and aluminum smaller molecules joined together is a(n)
D. zinc and nickel A. monomer
126. What consists of a reinforcing (strength- B. composite
ening) materials and a bonding agent C. polymer
(something that sticks it together) called
the matrix. D. none of above

A. Smart materials 132. Glasses do not have a crystalline struc-

B. Composite materials ture, but they belong to the group be-
cause they share similar properties
C. Modern materials
A. Metals
D. none of above
B. Ceramics
127. What is the approximate chromium range C. Polymers
of a ferritic stainless steel?
D. I don’t know
A. 12 % to 18 %
B. 10 % to 12 % 133. A polymer may be combined with one or
more substances to make a new material
C. 16 % to 20 % called a(n)
D. 20 % to 24 % A. composite
128. Steel is an alloy of one or more elements B. ceramic
combined with C. alloy
A. copper D. none of above
B. iron
134. Which of the followings is more impor-
C. lead tant to be considered if a structure is sub-
D. none of above jected to shock loads:

129. Which of the following does not belong A. Toughness

to the group? B. Hardness
A. Polyethylene C. Brittleness
B. Teflon D. none of above
C. Epoxy 135. What is an advantage that alloys might
D. Porcelain have over many pure metals?

130. A repertoire of carbon steels might in- A. alloys resist rust

clude B. alloys are naturally
A. Gray iron C. alloys are weaker
B. Rebar D. none of above

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10.7 Engineering Alloys & Its Common Applications 1440

136. What refers to the ability of steel to be 140. is a chemical property.

hardened through to its center in large sec- A. Composition
tion?
B. Ionization
A. Malleability
C. Polarization
B. Hardenability
C. Spheroidability D. Texture

D. Rigidity E. Reflectance

NARAYAN CHANGDER
137. A materials engineering factor that is 141. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic
least likely to pertain to corrosion failures at temperature above
is A. 770o C
A. Hardenability B. 550o C
B. Poison’s ratio C. 660o C
C. Alloy makeup D. 440o C
D. Gauge
142. An inorganic non-metallic solid made up
E. Atomic number
of either metal or non-metal compounds,
138. Which form of matter does not take the primarily used in pottery.
shape of its container? A. Alloy
A. liquid B. Composite
B. gas
C. Ceramics
C. solid
D. Polymer
D. air
143. Materials users need repertoires in engi-
139. Reactive Pigments which can be incorpo- neering material categories
rated into paints, dyes, inks and plastics
are called A. Stainless steel
A. Smart Colours B. Concrete
B. Smart plastics C. Cellulose
C. Smart inks D. Citris
D. Smart paints E. Bitumen

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 PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
11. PRODUCTION ENGINEERING

11.1 Casting Processes

1. Which of the following is not true for per- 4. In hot chamber die casting machine
manent mould casting? A. melting unit is an integral part of ma-
A. They are superior in hardness chine
B. can be used for pressure tight vessel B. It is used for high melting (above
(upto 15 Kgf/cm2) 500◦ C) alloys

C. can be used for large size castings C. No pressure is used for forcing the
metal inside the die
D. not suitable for alloys of high tempera-
D. None of the above
ture
5. The most common wood used for pattern
2. Which material is used to make Mold in is
Lost Foam Casting?
A. Devokar
A. foam
B. Plywood
B. sand
C. Teak
C. metal D. Mahogany
D. Resin
6. The allowance on pattern in account of
3. Draft on pattern for casting is shrinkage should be
A. Negative
A. Shrinkage allowance
B. Positive
B. Identification number marked on it
C. Zero
C. Taper to facilitate its removal from
mould D. None of the above

D. Increase in size of cavity due shaking 7. What are the items that can be made from
of pattern Shell Molding?

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11.1 Casting Processes 1442

A. connecting rod 13. Wood for pattern is considered dry when

moisture content is
B. cylinder head
A. Zero percent
C. pipa
B. 5%
D. all wrong
C. Less than 15%
8. What are the ingredients contained in Ex- D. Less than 25%
pendable Molds (usually sand molds)?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. ground 14. When was the Squezee Casting and Rheo-
casting was developed?
B. water
A. 1970s and 1970s
C. composite
B. 1961s and 1960s
D. rubber C. 1960s and 1960s
9. Casting process is preferred for parts hav- D. 1960s and 1970s
ing
15. Shrinkage allowance is made by
A. A few details
A. Adding to external and internal dimen-
B. Many details sions
C. No details B. Subtracting from external and internal
D. Non-symmetrical shape dimensions
C. Subtracting from external dimensions
10. All the patterns are subject to wear due to and adding to internal dimension
A. Ramming and rapping D. Adding to external dimension and sub-
B. Shrinkage of metals tracting from internal dimensions

C. Distortion 16. The pattern most suitable for mass produc-

tion of small castings are
D. Heat of molten metal
A. Match plate pattern
11. Semisolied-metal forming was developed B. Split pattern
in 1970s, when it was put into the com-
mercial production? C. Skelton pattern

A. 1980s D. Single piece

B. 1981s 17. The evaporative-pattern process has a

number of advantages over other casting
C. 1982s
methods. Which one is wrong?
D. 1983s
A. The process can be automated and is
12. Match plate patterns are mostly used in economical for long production runs
B. The casting requires minimal finishing
A. Green sand molding
and cleaning operations
B. Loam molding
C. Inexpensive flasks are satisfactory for
C. Dry sand molding the process
D. Machine molding D. The process is difficult

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11.1 Casting Processes 1443

18. Sand casting consists of C. Follow boards

A. placing a pattern in sand to make an D. Steel table

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imprint
24. In a hot chamber die casting machine
B. incorporating a gating system
A. melting pot is separate from the ma-
C. removing the pattern and filling the
chine
mold cavity with molten metal
B. melting pot is an integral part of the
D. all of the mentioned
machine
19. Metal pattern are used for C. melting pot may have any location
A. Precision castings D. there is no melting pot in die casting
B. Small castings machine
C. Large castings 25. The low permeability in sand can cause
D. Mass production of castings which of the following defects in casting
20. Which of the following is not the type of A. Rough surface
joining process? B. Blow holes
A. adhesive bonding C. Hot Tears
B. brazing D. Drop
C. soldering
26. Mold on Centrifugal Casting is usually
D. none of the mentioned made from?
21. For mounting several patterns at a time, A. iron
following type of pattern is used B. baja
A. Combined pattern
C. graphite
B. Loose piece pattern
D. All is true
C. Sweep pattern
27. In permanent mould casting, the molten
D. Match plate pattern
metal is poured
22. Mechanical working processes are per- A. under external pressure
formed on metals
B. under gravity
A. to achieve optimum mechanical prop-
erties in the metal C. partially under gravity and partially un-
der external pressure
B. to improve the mechanical strength of
the metal D. none of the above
C. to make metal dense 28. Least shrinkage allowance is provided in
D. All of the above the case of following
A. Brass
23. The pattern in the cast of machine molding
are mounted on B. Aluminium
A. Match plates C. Cast iron
B. Molding boards D. Steel

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11.1 Casting Processes 1444

29. The material of pattern in the case of in- D. In this process, molten mteal is poured
vestment casting is into a rotating mold. The axis of rotation is
A. Thermosetting resin usually horizontal, but can be vertical for
short workpieces.
B. Special plastic
C. Synthetic sand 34. Characteristics of Permanent Molds?
D. Wax A. permanent and can be used repeatedly
B. made of metal
30. For gray cast iron, the pattern shrinkage

NARAYAN CHANGDER
allowance is of the order of C. can withstand heat
A. 2 to 5 mm/m D. All is true
B. 5 to 7 mm/m 35. Petrol engine cylinder are made by
C. 7 to 10.5 mm/m A. Shell moulding
D. 10.5 to 13.5 mm/m B. Plaster mould casting
31. In general, the draft on casting is of the C. Investment casting
order of D. Centrifugal casting
A. 1-5 mm/m
36. A big advantage of using synthetic sand in
B. 5-10 mm/m foundry shop is that
C. 10-15 mm/m A. It is less costly
D. 15-20 mm/m B. Its properties can be controlled easily
32. Which of the following is not a component C. It possesses high moisture
of the gating system? D. It possesses high % of clay
A. Pouring cups
37. Green sand molding cannot be used for
B. Sprue
moulds.
C. Pattern
A. Simple
D. Runners
B. Small
33. There are three types of centrifugal cast- C. Medium
ing:trues centrifugal casting, semicentrifu-
D. Complex
gal casting, and centrifuging. How is the
procedure of centrifuging? 38. Which of the following is not used in the
A. involves the solidfication of molten green sand?
metal under high pressue A. Clay
B. mold cavities of ant shape are placed B. Water
at a certain distance from the axis of rota-
tion. The molten metal is poured from the C. Oil
center and is forcet into mold by centrifu- D. Chemicals
gal froces
39. Cope in foundry practice refers to
C. This method is used to cast parts with
rotational symmetry, such as wheel with A. Bottom half of molding box
spokes B. Top of molding box

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11.1 Casting Processes 1445

C. Middle potion of the molding box 45. The shrinkage allowance of brass and cast
iron per meter are 14 mm and 10 mm
D. Coating on the mould face
respectively. If a cast iron pattern is to

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40. The directional solidification in casting can be used to produce brass casting then the
be improved by using shrinkage allowance per meter of master
pattern is
A. (a ) chaplets and riser
A. 14 mm
B. (b)chills and padding
B. 1.4 mm
C. C) Chapplets and padding C. 24 mm
D. ( d)chills and riser D. 4 mm
41. Which of the following are used to mold 46. Which is the limitation of Hot Chamber Die
the sand mixture into shape of the cast- Casting?
ing and may be made of wood, plastic,
A. Used to cast metal with only low melt-
metal?
ing points
A. Vents B. Not suitable for casting large parts
B. Patterns C. The skin is not beautiful.The size is not
C. Cores very accurate.
D. Chills D. Can’t cast all the work pieces

47. Fill the blank !In the vertical flaskless

42. In process wastage of material is high.
molding, chamber wall against which sand
A. Casting is blown and compacted. Then the mold
B. Forming halves are packed with the parting line
oriented and moved along a pouring
C. Machining conveyor
D. Welding A. Carefully, Verticallty

43. The following pattern is used for very B. Vertically, Horizontally

large castings C. Net, Precise
A. Solid pattern D. Horizontally, Vertically
B. Cope and drag pattern 48. Why sand is inexpensive and is suitable as
C. Skeleton pattern a mold material
A. Because sand is too lightly
D. Split pattern
B. Because sand is easy to get
44. Which of the following materials has more C. Because sand is hard to use
shrinkage allowance
D. Because of its high temperature char-
A. Cast iron acteristics and high melting point
B. Brass
49. The distortion in casting cannot be pre-
C. Lead vented by
D. Aluminum alloy A. modification of casting design

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11.1 Casting Processes 1446

B. modification of casting design B. Split patterns

C. providing sufficient machining al- C. Match-plate patterns
lowance to cover the distortion effect
D. Upside pattern
D. providing proper shrinkage allowance
55. Vacuum for vacuum casting
50. The draft allowance on the patterns is pro-
vided in order to A. suck the hot wind
A. Provide good of air in the sand molding B. reduce pressure

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Provide for distortion that might take C. 1 and 2 wrong
place
D. 1 salah
C. Remove the pattern easily from the
molding 56. Which material is used to make pattern in
D. Increase the strength of the molding Shell Mold Casting?
A. foam
51. One of the important advantages of metal
patterns over wooden pattern is that B. sand
A. It is readily available C. metal
B. It is easy to make D. Resin
C. Useful in machine molding
57. When was the DIe casting was devel-
D. Less costly oped?
52. Why is there a permanent casting nozzle A. 1900s
spray? B. 2000s
A. to clean
C. 1800s
B. to cool
D. 1850s
C. to heat up
D. all wrong 58. What kind of manufacturing system you
will use if you have to manufacture a Fer-
53. In Pressure Casting, what presses the rari?
molten metal into metal mold/graphite?
A. Custom
A. Gas
B. Continuous
B. Fire
C. Intermittent
C. Water
D. none of above
D. Metal

54. also called loose or solid patterns, gen- 59. What pattern that evaporative-pattern
erally are used for simpler shapes and low- casting using?
quantity production; they generally are A. One-piece pattern
made of wood and are inexpensive.There
B. Split pattern
are 3 kinds of patterns, the statement
above is the definition of which pattern? C. Polystrene pattern
A. One-piece patterns D. Match-Plate pattern

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11.1 Casting Processes 1447

60. Castings are usually C. 1 mm

A. costlier than forgings D. 1.4 mm

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B. cheaper than forgings
66. Draft allowance is provided for a pattern
C. at the same rate as forging for similar
to
metal
A. Avoid injury to edges of the mould
D. None of the above
B. Avoid distortion of mould
61. The pattern allowance with a slight taper
on all vertical surface is known as C. Provide enough stock for machining
A. Draft D. Provide better finish
B. Distortion
67. Match plate patterns are generally used in
C. Rapping
A. Green sand molding
D. Mould wall movement
B. Pit molding
62. In sand molding the bottom part of the
flask is called C. Machine molding

A. Cope D. Bench molding

B. Cheek
68. The allowance provided on pattern so that
C. Drag it can be easily withdraw from the mould
D. Flask bottom is
A. Raping
63. Which of the following fill the flask uni-
formly with sand under a high-pressure B. Shrinking
stream?
C. Draft
A. Sand slingers
D. Machining
B. cores
C. patterns 69. The allowance on pattern in account of rap-
D. chills ping should be
A. Negative
64. In which of the following technique, the
pattern is covered tightly with a thin sheet B. Positive
of plastic? C. Zero
A. vacuum molding
D. None of the above
B. impact molding
C. blow molding 70. Cast iron and steel pipes are produced by
D. rotational molding
A. slush casting
65. The shrinkage allowance for brass per 100
mm is B. investment casting
A. 2.4 mm C. true centrifugal casting
B. 5.4 mm D. die casting

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11.1 Casting Processes 1448

71. Which of the following is not a casting pro- 76. A bell may cast by using the
cess A. Split pattern
A. shell process B. Segmental pattern
B. Extrusion C. Skelton pattern
C. Semi-centrifuge method D. Sweep pattern
D. Slush process 77. What is Tree on Investment Casting

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. tree
72. Which one is NOT the mahor categories of
Expendable-mold permanent-pattern cast- B. Pattern formed for molds
ing processes? C. Mold that has been prepared
A. Shell mold casting D. Mold candle
B. San casting 78. The centrifugal casting method, is used for
C. Metal casting casting articles of
A. symmetrical shape about horizontal
D. Plaster Mold casting
axis
73. Which of the following is true for sand B. symmetrical shape about vertical axis
castings? C. irregular shape
A. They cannot be used for pressure tight D. sphere shape
vessels
79. The pattern are made to be larger than
B. They are stronger than wrought prod- the size of the castings required to com-
ucts pensate for the
C. They have lower density and poor A. Shrinkage of casting during cooling
strength
B. Shrinkage of molding during casting
D. They have poor ductility C. Porosity of sand
74. Pattern cannot be constructed out of which D. Moisture in sand
of the following materials? 80. What are the uses of furnaces that are of-
A. Wood ten used in casting?
B. Wax A. burning iron

C. Oil B. Burn trees

C. burning
D. Metal
D. burns the oil
75. Which of the following is the type of per-
81. what is usually formed in centrifugal cast-
manent joining process?
ing
A. welding
A. pipa
B. soldering B. bearing
C. both welding and soldering C. Street lights
D. none of the mentioned D. All is true

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11.1 Casting Processes 1449

82. In sand molding, the middle part of joining 88. Which of the following factor is not to be
two flask is called considered while selecting a refractory?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Coupe A. Conductivity
B. Parting line B. Expansion
C. Drag C. Size of the particle
D. Flask-middle D. Permeability

83. Color scheme is employed on pattern in or- 89. The function of cores in casting is to
der to identify the A. form extended parts
A. Pattern allowance B. form internal cavities
B. Cope and drag C. used for directional solidification
C. Location of core print D. none of the above
D. None of the above 90. Which one is the advantages using Dies in
84. The mould is housed in a casting process?

A. Flask A. High prodution rate

B. Cope B. Low production rate

C. Part size limited
C. Drag
D. Pattern have low strength
D. Cheek
91. The taper provided on pattern to its easy
85. Which of the following is not a casting de-
and clean withdraw from the mould is
fect?
called
A. Swell
A. Taper allowance
B. Hot Tears B. Distortion allowance
C. Shrinkage C. Draft allowance
D. Hot Cracks D. Pattern allowance
86. The allowances to be provided in dispos- 92. Surface to be machined are marked on the
able pattern are pattern by the following colour
A. Shrinkage and finish A. Red
B. Distortion B. Yellow
C. Draft C. Black
D. Shake D. Green
87. is used as a pattern material for the 93. Blue color on the pattern is marked for
easy handling of the equipment.
A. Machined surface
A. Wood B. Unfinished surfaces
B. Charcoal C. Loose piece pattern
C. Steel D. Never used in pattern making opera-
D. Lead tion

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11.1 Casting Processes 1450

94. The draft allowance on metallic pattern in 99. Sweep patterns are used for
comparison to wooden ones A. Circular shaped objects
A. Same B. Elliptical shaped objects
B. More C. Rectangular shaped objects
C. Less D. Large shaped objects
D. None of the above
100. For gray cast iron, the volumetric shrink-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
95. are a common type of mounted pat- age is of the order of
tern in which two=piece patterns are con- A. 6%-5%
structed by securing each half of one or B. 5%-3.5%
more split patterns to the opposite sides
of a single plate.Above is the definition of C. 3.5%-2.5%
which pattern? D. 1.9% to negative value
A. One=piece Patterns
101. In permanent mold casting method
B. Split Patterns
A. a )molten metal is poured in a metallic
C. Match-Plate Pattern mold, retained in the mold long enough for
the outer skin to solidify and finally mold
D. Upside Down Patterns
is turned over to remove molten metal still
96. Loose piece pattern are in molten condition
B. b )molten metal is poured and allowed
A. A sort of split pattern
to solidify while the mold is revolving
B. Used when the pattern cannot be
C. c)Molten metal is forced into mold un-
drawn from the mould
der high pressure
C. Similar to core prints
D. d)none of the mentioned
D. Never used in foundry work
102. Which material is used to make Mold in
97. In process molten metal is used to pro- Die Casting?
duce the products. A. steel
A. Casting B. Aluminum
B. Forming C. Tungsten
C. Machining D. Alumina
D. Welding 103. In order to facilitate with draw of pattern
98. Which material is used to make Core in A. Pattern is made smooth
Sand Casting? B. Water is applied on pattern surface
A. foam C. Allowance are made on pattern
B. sand D. Draft is provided on pattern
C. metal
104. Which of the following provides and
D. Resin added projection on a pattern and forms a

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 11.2 Forming Processes 1451

seat to support and locate the core in the 106. What are the advantages of die casting?
mould A. expensive equipment

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A. Mould print
B. no need for expensive workforce
B. Core print
C. a short work process
C. Drag
D. all wrong
D. Cope
105. According to their use, which of the fol- 107. Cam shaft for automotive is manufac-
lowing is not a type of moulding sand? tured by

A. Green Sand A. Casting

B. Dry Sand B. Forging
C. Loam Sand C. Extrusion
D. Wet Sand D. Rolling

11.2 Forming Processes

1. Pick up wrong statement about results of 4. The working temperature of cold working
hot working is below a certain temperature. That tem-
A. Poor surface finish perature is known as?
B. Improvement in mechanical proper- A. Critical temperature
ties B. Recrystallization temperature
C. Refinement of grain structure C. Transition temperature
D. Close tolerances obtained D. Curie temperature
2. Mass production of cooking utensils is usu- 5. In the metal forming process, the stress,
ally done by encountered are
A. Metal spinning A. Less than the yield strength of the ma-
B. Deep drawing terial
C. Coining B. Less than the fracture strength of the
material and greater than yield strength
D. Embossing
C. Greater than the ultimate strength of
3. What are the four types of thermal cut- the material
ting? D. Less than the limit of proportionality
A. Oxy-acetylene, Plasma, Laser, Abra-
sion 6. Which rolling process leads to better sur-
face finish and production of elongated
B. Plasma, Laser, Electric Discharge grains?
Wire Cutting, Sawing
A. Cold rolling
C. Oxy-acetylene, Plasma, Laser, Electric
Discharge Wire Cutting B. Hot rolling
D. Oxy-acetylene, Plasma, Laser, Shear- C. None of the above
ing D. Cold and hot rolling

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11.2 Forming Processes 1452

7. Which is incorrect statement about results 12. Mechanical properties of the metal im-
of hot working proved in hot working due to
A. Annealing operation is not necessary A. Recovery of grains
B. Power requirements are low B. Recrystallisation
C. Surface finish is good C. Grain growth
D. Grain refinement is possible D. Refinement of grain size

NARAYAN CHANGDER
8. The process of hot extrusion is used to pro- 13. What are the four ways of joining?
duce A. Soldering and Brazing
A. certain rods made by aluminum B. Fusion
B. steel pipes for domestic water supply C. Extruding
C. stainless steel tubes used in furniture D. Mechanical Fasteners
D. large size pipes used in city water E. Adhesives
mains
14. Which of the following manufacturing pro-
9. Large size bolt head are made by cesses is mainly considered for producing
A. swaging the components of very high strength?
B. roll forging A. Casting
C. tumbling B. Forging
D. upset forging C. Extrusion
D. Rolling
10. What are ceramics?
A. A combination of one or more metallic 15. Which of the following metal forming pro-
elements with a non-metallic element. cesses is best suitable for making the
wires?
B. A combination of one or more covalent
elements with a non-covalent element. A. Forging

C. A combination of one or more ionic el- B. Extrusion

ements with a non-ionic element. C. Drawing
D. none of above D. Rolling

11. What are the three basic categories of 16. What are two characteristics of thermo-
casting operations, which are determined plastics?
by the type of mould employed? A. Non-Ductile
A. Die Casting, Sand Casting, Hot Rolling B. Freely Injected Into A Mould
B. Investment Casting, Die Casting, Per- C. Can’t Be Remelted or Remoulded
manent Moulding
D. Easily Fabricated
C. Sand Casting, Die Casting, Permanent
Moulding 17. The centre of the extruded product can de-
D. Sand Casting, Investment Casting, velop cracks called as?
Permanent Moulding A. Centre cracking

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11.2 Forming Processes 1453

B. Centre burst 23. In which of the following process frictional

loss is eliminated at the billet container in-
C. Arrow headed fracture
terface?

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D. All of the mentioned
A. Direct
18. In which of the following process no strain B. Indirect
hardening is produced? C. Impact
A. Hot working D. Hydrostatic
B. Cold working 24. Which of the following is not a cold extru-
C. Warm working sion process?
D. Cannot say A. Cold extrusion forging
B. Impact extrusion
19. Which of the following processes is not the
C. Hydrostatic extrusion
type of metal forming process?
D. Cold rolling
A. Extrusion
B. Injection moulding 25. In which of the following process fluid
medium is used to apply the load on the
C. Forging billet?
D. Drawing A. Direct
B. Indirect
20. Which of the following is a type of extru-
sion process? C. Impact
A. Direct D. Hydrostatic

B. Indirect 26. Polymers can also be divided into two ba-

sic groups based on their response to
C. Impact
A. Conductivity
D. All of the mentioned
B. Ductility
21. Extrusion is similar to? C. Malleability
A. Rolling D. Temperature
B. Forming 27. In which of the following process the duc-
C. Welding tility of material decreases?

D. Casting A. Hot working

B. Cold working
22. What are some examples of mechanical
C. Warm working
fasteners? (More than one answer)
D. Cannot say
A. Screws
28. Which of the following processes is not the
B. Clips
type of bulk forming process in the metal
C. Pins forming?
D. Bolts A. Bending

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11.2 Forming Processes 1454

B. Rolling B. Pipe defect

C. Forging C. Tearing
D. Extrusion D. Internal cracking

29. What are the three types of mechanical 35. Which of the following metal forming pro-
cuttings? cesses performs squeezing out of material
A. Sawing, Abrasion, Compression through a hole?
A. Forging

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Shearing, Sawing, Abrasion
C. Shearing, Sawing, Tension B. Rolling

D. Compression, Shearing, Tension C. Drawing

D. Extrusion
30. Which of the following is cold extrusion
process? 36. In which type of extrusion process, the
A. Direct movement of the extruded is in the direc-
tion opposite to that of the deformed force
B. Impact
A. direct
C. Indirect
B. forward
D. None of the above
C. back ward
31. In four high rolling mill the bigger rollers D. die extrusion
are called
A. Guide rolls 37. Which of the following defect is also
known as bamboo defect?
B. Backup rolls
A. Blow hole
C. Main rolls
B. Cold shut
D. Support rolls
C. Surface cracking
32. Spanner is manufactured by D. Pipe defect
A. Rolling
38. After cold forming steel balls are subjected
B. Open die forging to
C. Direct extrusion A. Normalizing
D. Closed die forging B. Tempering
33. What are adhesives? C. Electroplating
A. Separating Agents Between Surfaces D. Stress relieving
B. Sticky Tape 39. An important product manufactured by
C. Glue rolling is
D. Bonding Agents Between Surfaces A. I-section

34. Which of the following defect is also B. Tubes

known as fish tailing? C. Metal rolls
A. Surface cracking D. Rolls

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11.2 Forming Processes 1455

40. What is cold rolling? B. Small Grain Size

A. When a metal is deformed above its re- C. Large Grain Size

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crystallisation temperature.
D. Casting Weight and Size Limited
B. Metal placed in a container and forced
to pass through an opening on one end un- 46. Metals like lead and tin are not worked at
der a plastic flow. temperature around
C. When a metal is deformed below its re- A. 500-600 degree Celsius
crystallisation temperature. B. 200-300 degree Celsius
D. none of above C. 100 degree Celsius
41. Which of the following method can be used D. Room temperature
for manufacturing 2 meters long seamless
metallic tubes? 47. What are two features of sand casting?
A. drawing A. Large Grain Size
B. extrusion B. Cooling Rate Relatively Fast
C. rolling C. Small Grain Size
D. spinning D. Cooling Rate Relatively Slow
42. Which of the following material cannot be 48. Metal extrusion process is generally used
forged? for producing
A. wrought iron A. uniform solid section
B. cast iron B. uniform hollow section
C. mild steel C. uniform solid and hollow section
D. high carbon steel D. varying solid and hollow section
43. Hot working operation is carried at
49. It is required to reduce a stub directly to
A. Recrystallisation temperature strip in one pass Which of the following
B. Near plastic stage temperature rolling mills can do this functions?
C. Below recrystallisation temperature A. Two high mill
D. Above recrystallisation temperature B. Three high mill

44. Which defect arises due to high friction or C. Four high mill
high speed? D. Planetary mill
A. Tearing
50. The ductility of a material with work hard-
B. Surface cracking ening
C. Tearing & Surface cracking A. Increases
D. Flaking B. Decreases
45. What are two features permanent mould- C. Remains unaffected
ing? D. May increase / Decrease depending
A. Casting Weight and Size Unlimited on its tensile strength

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11.2 Forming Processes 1456

51. In metals subjected to cold working, strain C. 11000

hardening effect is due to D. 13000
A. Slip mechanism
57. Which is correct statement about results
B. Twining mechanism of cold working
C. Dislocation mechanism A. It increase correction resistance
D. Fracture mechanism B. It increase strength, elasticity and
hardness with a corresponding decrease
52. In direct extrusion process at higher tem-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
in ductility
perature which of the following is used to
avoid friction? C. Handling of parts is easier

A. Oil D. Dimension tolerances and finish are

high
B. Lubricants
58. In drop forging, forging is done by drop-
C. Molten glasses
ping
D. Wax
A. the work piece at high velocity
53. The following type of deformation of B. the die with hammer at high velocity
metal takes place in cold work. C. the hammer at high velocity
A. Elastic deformation D. a weight on hammer to produce the
B. Plastic deformation requisite impact
C. Viscous deformation 59. What are two advantages of extrusion?
D. Isotropic deformation A. Dedicated Tooling
54. Which of the following is not used because B. Billet To Final Shape Manufacturing
of the problem of handling extruded metal C. High Dimension Accuracy
coming out through moving ram? D. Expensive Equipment
A. Direct
60. Which one of the following is an advan-
B. Indirect tage of forging?
C. Impact A. good surface finish
D. Hydrostatic B. close tolerance
55. In which extrusion process the direction of C. low tooling cost
flow of metal is in same direction as that D. improved physical property
of ram?
61. What is die casting?
A. Direct
A. A metal mould often made of steel or
B. Indirect grey iron, composed of two or more parts.
C. Impact B. The injection of molten metal under a
D. Hydrostatic pressure into a metal die or mould.
C. A mixture of sand and various binding
56. Forging of a plan carbon is carried out at agents are poured into a box containing a
A. 750 0 half pattern of the casting.
B. 9000 D. none of above

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11.2 Forming Processes 1457

62. Which of the following defect tends to 67. Which of the following components are
draw surface oxides and impurities to- manufactured by the sheet metal forming
wards the centre of billet? process?

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A. Blow hole A. Engine blocks
B. Cold shut B. Connecting rods

C. Surface cracking C. Electric wires

D. Car bodies
D. Pipe defect
68. A moving mandrel is used in
63. Which of the following is true about the
extrusion process? A. Wire drawing
B. Tube drawing
A. Structure is homogeneous
C. Metal drawing
B. No time is lost in changing the shape
D. Forging
C. Service life of extrusion tool is too high
D. Its leading end is in good shape as 69. The increase in hardness due to cold work-
compared to rolling ing is called
A. Cold hardness
64. In cold working of metals, the working B. Hot hardening
temperature is
C. Work hardening
A. Room temperature
D. Age hardening
B. Below the recrystallisation tempera-
ture 70. What are the two types of rolling?
C. Above the recrystallisation tempera- A. Hot Rolling
ture B. Warm Rolling
D. Less than the room temperature C. Cold Rolling
D. Abrasion Rolling
65. Mild steel bar used for workshop practical
is manufactured by 71. External screw threads can be produced
A. Rolling fastest by
A. Milling
B. Casting
B. Chasing
C. Forging
C. Casting
D. Extrusion
D. Rolling
66. The important prosperity of a material in
72. Pick up wrong statement about effect of
all metal forming process is
cold working
A. Elasticity A. Increase in strength and hardness
B. Plasticity B. Improved surface finish
C. Ductility C. Close dimensional tolerance
D. Brittleness D. Grain structure is unaffected

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 11.3 powder Metallurgy 1458

73. Depending upon the temperature the form- 74. In which process the cross section of the
ing process can be classified as? metal is reduced by forcing it to flow
through a die under high pressure?
A. Hot working
A. Forging
B. Cold working
B. Forming
C. Warm working C. Extrusion
D. All of the mentioned D. Welding

NARAYAN CHANGDER
11.3 powder Metallurgy
1. Which one is not the powder metallurgy 5. Process of forming metal powder by direct-
product? ing molten metal through an orifice after
A. iron & steel which it is break into small particle using
high pressure fluid is known as?
B. aluminium
A. Atomization
C. tin
B. Reduction
D. zinc
C. Crushing
2. which of below is the limitations and dis- D. Electrolysis
advantage of powder metallurgy?
6. The process yields net-shape, or near-
A. pure metal powders are very expen- net-shape parts, so that little or no machin-
sive to produce ing is required to obtain a finished part in
B. wide range of metaal powder like many cases.
steels, bronze etc A. Pulverisation
C. poor plastic properties except good B. powder metallurgy
strength and elongation
C. Atomic Reduction
D. the geometries are very limit D. Electrolytic process
3. These are the important characteristic of 7. The production of highly porous parts
metal powder’s part EXCEPT by using suitable spacer materials is
A. Strength a well-established technique for titanium
and stainless steel.
B. Power
A. Press forming
C. Machinability
B. Sand casting
D. Durability
C. Metal casting
4. Which one is the third process occur in sin- D. powder metallurgy
tering sequence?
8. Sintering increases
A. point bonding
A. electrical conductivity, density and
B. grain boundary
ductility
C. pores B. electrical conductivity, density and
D. necks brittleness

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11.3 powder Metallurgy 1459

C. porosity, electrical conductivity and 14. is simply the empty space in the prod-
brittleness uct material.

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D. porosity, density and ductility A. Viscosity
B. Malleability
9. The parts produced by Powder metallurgy
C. Porosity
A. always require machining
D. Ductility
B. are of higher dimensional accuracy
C. can not be heat treated 15. Porosity of sintered products can be im-
proved by process of by which the
D. none of the above pores are filled with a lower melting point
10. This is the pre-alloyed powder used in metal by capillary action
powder metallurgy, except? A. Polymerisation
A. stainless steel B. Pulverisation
B. cooper alloy C. Fragmentation
C. high speed steel D. Infiltration
D. aluminum 16. which of the following is the advantages
of powder metallurgy except?
11. Sintering is a process commonly used
to increase the strength and structural in- A. composition of product can be con-
tegrity of a material. Powder metallurgy trolled
use sintering to convert metal powders to B. close dimensional tolerances can be
end-use parts. mantained
A. Mixing C. there are no lost of material
B. heat treatment D. the product has high porosity
C. Pressing 17. In atomization
D. All the above A. passing molten metal through orifice
and cooling it by dropping into water
12. The disintegration of a molten metal into
particles by a rapidly moving gas or liquid B. molten metal is forced through a small
stream or by other means is known as orifice and broken up by a stream of com-
pressed air
A. Mechanical Pulverisation
C. powder of metal is made by ball milling
B. Atomization
D. the hydrogen reduces the oxide to
C. Chemical reduction metallic powder
D. Electrolytic Process
18. metal powder were produce according to
13. Wastage of material in powder metallurgy specific specifications such as:
as scrap is A. shape
A. Large B. flow-ability
B. Medium C. purity
C. Small D. particle size
D. Depends on other factors E. particle size distribution

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11.3 powder Metallurgy 1460

19. The process carried out in powder metal- B. reduction in production time
lurgy is as followsi.) preparation of pow- C. close dimensional tolerence
der ii.) Blending of powder iii.) Compact-
ing of powder iv.) Sintering D. die design limit the size of product
A. i, ii, iii, iv 25. is the process of formation of metal
B. i, iii, ii, iv powder to use in powder metallurgy by
reducing some compound with CO or other
C. ii, i, iii, iv
reducing agents.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. iii, i, ii, iv
A. Reduction
20. Which of the following method is used to B. Atomisation
make powder for brittle metals?
C. Pulverisation
A. Mechanical Pulverisation
D. Electrolytic Process
B. Electrolytic process
26. Copper is the primary metal produced by
C. Chemical Reduction
D. Atomization
A. Atomisation
21. Density in sintered product is improved B. Crushing
byi.) hot pressing ii.) Cold pressing iii.)
Machining iv.) Coining C. Electrolysis

A. i, ii & iv D. Compaction

B. ii & iv 27. Sintering is done to

C. i & iv A. increase final strength
D. i, ii, iii & iv B. decrease final strength
22. A part produced after compaction in pow- C. initially increase and then to decrease
der metallurgy is termed as the strength
A. Welded part D. initially decrease and then to increase
the strength
B. Cast part
C. Forged part 28. Powder metallurgy process consist of the
following operations, in sequence:
D. Green compact
A. powder production, blending, com-
23. Which method is used to make powder of paction, sintering
metals having low melting point?
B. powder production, sintering, com-
A. Mechanical pulverisation paction, blending
B. Electrolytic process C. powder production, compaction,
C. Chemical reduction blending, sintering
D. Atomization D. none of above

24. What is the disadvantage of powder met- 29. Which one is not the particle shape in pow-
allurgy? der metallurgy?
A. no skill labor required A. cylindrical

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 11.4 Metal Cutting and Tool Materials 1461

B. rectangular 32. The process which allows us to create high-

C. spherical quality components, while near-net-shape
dimensional control provides a high de-

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D. cubic gree of control over the manufacturing pro-
30. Which of the following tool is manufac- cess, facilitating the production of complex
tured by powder metallurgy? shapes is

A. High speed steel A. Powder metallurgy

B. Sintered carbides B. Sand Casting

C. High carbon steel C. Machining
D. Low carbon steel D. Metal casting

31. What is the dimensional accuracy in pow- 33. Green strength is

der metallurgy? A. Strength of unsintered components
A. High B. Strength sintered components
B. Medium C. Strength of raw metals
C. Low D. Difference in strength of sintered and
D. Sometimes high, sometimes low unsintered components

11.4 Metal Cutting and Tool Materials

1. It is formed when there is a breakage or D. Cannot say
fracture of chips in the process of metal
cutting 4. Which force acts in longitudinal direction?
A. Continuous Chip A. Cutting force
B. Discontinuous Chip B. Radial force
C. Continuous Chip with Built-up Edge C. Thrust force
(BUE) D. Normal force
D. none of above
5. In order to achieve a specific surface finish
2. In oblique cutting chips are in form of in single point turning the most important
A. Long curl factor to be

B. Flat spiral A. Depth of cut

C. Discontinuous B. Cutting speed
D. Short & Thick C. Feed
D. Tool rake angle
3. Tool life in orthogonal cutting is
A. More than the tool life in oblique cut- 6. In what direction does chip flow in oblique
ting cutting?
B. Less than the tool life in oblique cutting A. Over the tool face
C. Equal to the tool life in oblique cutting B. Side ways

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11.4 Metal Cutting and Tool Materials 1462

C. Normal to chip edge 12. Hot hardness of cutting of cutting tool

should be
D. All the above
A. Large
7. Which of the following does not perform B. Small
metal removal process?
C. Very small
A. Milling Machine
D. None of the mentioned
B. Welding Machine

NARAYAN CHANGDER
13. Angle that controls both directions of chip
C. CNC Machine
flow and strength of the tool tip
D. Grinding Machine A. Side rake angle
8. The relative motion between the work- B. Relief angle
piece and the tool is called C. Rake angle
A. Cutting speed D. None of the mentioned
B. Depth of cut 14. High alloy steel with high carbon content
C. Feed and is widely used in all kinds of process-
ing cutting tools.
D. None
A. High Speed Steels
9. type of cutting is called as three dimen- B. Cast Cobalt Alloys
sional cutting.
C. Carbon Steels
A. Oblique cutting
D. none of above
B. Orthogonal cutting
15. The factor responsible for the formation of
C. Transverse cutting discontinuous chips is
D. Axial cutting A. low cutting speed and large rake angle

10. The term applied to all material-removal B. low cutting speed and small rake angle
processes C. high cutting speed and large rake an-
gle
A. Machining
D. high cutting speed and small rake an-
B. Metal Cutting
gle
C. Chip Formation
16. The cutting edge of tool is perpendicular to
D. none of above the work piece axis is cutting.
11. A notch or groove in the face of a tool par- A. Orthogonal cutting
allel to the cutting edge, to break the con- B. Oblique cutting
tinuity of the chips is called C. Shear cutting
A. Chip breaker D. Trust cutting
B. Chips
17. The cutting speed is maximum while ma-
C. Tool face chining with a high speed steel tool
D. Workpiece A. Cast iron

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11.4 Metal Cutting and Tool Materials 1463

B. Mild steel C. shear cutting

C. Brass D. Trust cutting

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D. Aluminum
23. By increasing feed rate, the amount of
18. The cutting tool removes the metal from heat generated
workpiece in the form of
A. Increases
A. powder
B. Decreases
B. solid blocks
C. Remains constant
C. Chips
D. None of the mentioned
D. all of the above

19. The tool life increases with the 24. The cutting tool wears due to
A. Increase in side cutting edge angle A. Edge wear
B. Decrease in side rake angle B. Crater wear
C. Decrease in nose radius C. Flank wear
D. Decrease in back rake angle D. All of the above
20. Thermal conductivity of cutting tool must 25. The surface of the single point cutting tool
be on which the chips formed in cutting oper-
A. High ation slide is called as
B. Low A. Flank
C. Very low B. Heel
D. None of the mentioned C. Face
21. The correct sequence of the following pa- D. Shank
rameters in order of their maximum to min-
imum influence of tool life is 26. Material removed from a workpiece with
A. Feed rate, depth of cut and cutting the help of a tool.
speed A. Chuck
B. Depth of cut, cutting speed and feed B. Chip
rate
C. Chuck Breaker
C. Cutting speed, feed rate and depth of
cut D. none of above
D. Feed rate, cutting speed and depth of
27. Continuous chips are formed during metal
cut
cutting operation due to
22. The cutting edge is inclined at an acute an- A. ductile work materials
gle with normal to the cutting velocity vec-
tor is called cutting process. B. large rake angle
A. Orthogonal cutting C. high cutting speed
B. Oblique cutting D. all of the above

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11.4 Metal Cutting and Tool Materials 1464

28. In metal cutting, use of low feeds and high A. Metal cutting
cutting speeds are desired when the objec- B. Welding
tive is
C. Casting
A. High metal removal rate
D. Soldering
B. Dry machining
C. Use of soft cutting tool 34. The sheared material begins to along the
cutting tool face in the form of small pieces
D. Surface finish
is called

NARAYAN CHANGDER
29. In the metal cutting process, when the com- A. Chips
pression limit of the metal in front of the
B. Metal block
cutting tool has been exceeded then it is
separated from workpiece and flows C. Cutting tool
A. elastically D. Workpiece
B. plastically 35. Unit of feed is
C. rigidly A. m/min
D. none of the above
B. mm/rev
30. The ductile materials, during machining, C. m/rev
produces
D. mm
A. continuous chips
36. The speed (usually in feet per minute) of a
B. discontinuous chips
tool when it is cutting the work.
C. continuous chips with built up edge
A. Cutting Speed
D. none of the mentioned
B. Metal Removal Rate
31. The built up edge in cutting tools can be C. Feed Rate
eliminated by
D. none of above
A. Fast cutting speed
B. Higher rake angles 37. is the point where the side cutting
edge and end cutting edge intersected.
C. High pressure cutting fluid
A. Heel
D. All of the above
B. Flank
32. Which type of cutting tools has wide appli-
C. Nose
cations on lathes?
D. Shank
A. Single point
B. Multi point 38. The distance advanced by the tool inside
the workpiece is called
C. Both single and multi point
A. Cutting speed
D. None of the above
B. Feed
33. The removing of unwanted material from a
block of metal in the form of chips is called C. Depth o0f cut
as D. None

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11.4 Metal Cutting and Tool Materials 1465

39. Unit of cutting speed is C. >90

A. m/min D. None of the above

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B. m2/min 45. Cutting speed and feed is influenced by the
C. n/mm2
D. mm4 A. Material of the cutting tool

40. Discontinuous chips are formed during ma- B. Material being machined
chining of C. Rigidity of the machine
A. soft metals D. All the above
B. ductile metals
46. Why is metal cutting process used?
C. hard metals
A. To increase dimensional accuracy and
D. brittle metals tolerance
41. Temperature rise in the primary deforma- B. To speed the process
tion zone is generally due to C. Difficult surfaces can be easily ma-
A. Plastic deformation of metal in shear chined
zone D. All the above
B. Friction between tool and chip
47. It is formed when the chips formed dur-
C. Rubbing action of tool piece with the ing cutting operation are without any in-
work piece tervals.
D. None of the mentioned A. Continuous Chip
42. Continuous chips with built up edge are B. Discontinuous Chip
formed during machining of C. Continuous Chip with Built-up Edge
A. brittle metals (BUE)
B. ductile metals D. none of above
C. hard metals 48. A built-up-edge is formed while machining
D. soft metals
A. ductile materials at high speed
43. Tool’s distance traveled during one spindle
revolution. B. ductile materials at low speed
A. Cutting Speed C. brittle materials at high speed
B. Metal Removal Rate D. brittle materials at low speed
C. Feed Rate 49. In metal cutting operation, maximum heat
D. none of above (80 to 85%) is generated in

44. At what angle is tool held in orthogonal A. The shear zone

cutting? B. The chip tool interface
A. 90 C. The tool work interface
B. <90 D. None of the mentioned

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11.4 Metal Cutting and Tool Materials 1466

50. The point at which the cutting tool reaches, 56. Flank wear occurs at
beyond which it will not function satisfac-
A. Tool flank below cutting edge
torily until it is re-ground, is called as
B. Tool shank
A. Tool wear
C. Tool face
B. Tool failure
C. Tool diffusion D. None of the mentioned

D. None of the above 57. A hard material used extensively as cut-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ting tool material, as well as other indus-
51. Tool life is affected by
trial applications.
A. Cutting speed
A. Carbide
B. Depth of cut
B. Cermet
C. Feed
C. Ceramics Alumina
D. All of the above
D. none of above
52. The high cutting speed and large rake an-
gle of the tool will result in the formation 58. Wearing resistance of cutting tool must be
of A. High
A. continuous chips B. Low
B. discontinuous chips
C. Very low
C. continuous chips with built up edge
D. None of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
59. Lead angle in the single point cutting tool
53. Which type of chips form while machining is the angle between
of brittle materials?
A. The end cutting edge and the normal
A. continuous chips to the tool shank
B. Discontinuous chip
B. The portion of side shank immediately
C. Built-up chips below the side cutting edge and the line
D. All of the above with some proportion perpendicular to the base of the tool
C. The tool face and the parallel to the
54. Work done in metal cutting depends on
base of the tool
A. Cutting force and cutting speed
D. Side cutting edge and the side of the
B. Cutting speed and heat generated tool shank
C. Depth of cut and cutting speed
60. A small groove ground back of the cutting
D. none of above edge on the top of a cutting tool to keep
55. In single point tool feed is expressed in the chips short.
A. Millimeter per revolution A. Chuck
B. Centimeter per revolution B. Chip
C. Millimeter C. Chip Breaker
D. none of above D. none of above

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11.4 Metal Cutting and Tool Materials 1467

61. In the orthogonal cutting of metals 66. The relation between the tool life (T) in
minutes and cutting speed (V) in m/min is
A. the cutting edge of the tool is perpen-
(where n = an exponent, which depends

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dicular to the direction of tool travel
upon the tool and work piece and c = A
B. the cutting forces occur in one direc- constant)
tion only
A. VnT = C
C. the cutting edge is wider than the B. VTn = C
depth of cut
C. Vn/T = C
D. all of the mentioned
D. V/Tn = C
62. Find the RPM n=? where v=25m/min,
67. Secondary deformation zone in metal cut-
d=2mm
ting operation is located at
A. 3980.8 RPM
A. Shear plane
B. 3500 RPM
B. Tool chip interface
C. 4000RPM C. Tool work interface
D. 3700.5RPM D. Tool face
63. The angle between side cutting edge and 68. In oblique cutting of the metals, the cutting
end cutting edge is called as edge of the tool is
A. approach angle A. perpendicular to the workpiece
B. nose angle B. parallel to the direction of tool travel
C. side relief angle C. inclined at an angle less than 900 to
the direction of tool travel
D. end relief angle
D. perpendicular to the direction of tool
64. Part of the process of cutting materials travel
by mechanical means, using tools such as
saws, lathes, and milling cutters. 69. What is the angle b/w the tool and mea-
sured at the right angle to the end flank?
A. Machining
A. End relief angle
B. Metal Cutting
B. Side cutting angle
C. Chip Formation
C. Side rake angle
D. none of above
D. End rake angle
65. Which cutting condition affects the cutting 70. In which process cutting edge of the tool
temperature predominantly? will be right angles to the direction of the
A. depth of cut work feed.
B. cutting speed A. Orthogonal cutting

C. feed B. Oblique cutting

D. none of the above has any effect on cut- C. Both 1 & 2

ting D. None

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 11.5 Machining Processes 1468

71. Functions of cutting fluids are D. decrease with increase in both the
A. To cool the cutting tool and the work feed of the tool and the depth of cut
piece
74. Find the cutting speed v=? where
B. To lubricate the chip, tool and work d=2.5mm, n=2500RPM
piece
A. 20.5 m/min
C. To help to carry away the chips
B. 18.5 m/min
D. All of the mentioned
C. 19.6 m/min

NARAYAN CHANGDER
72. The intentional gap provided between D. 25 m/min
punch and die for proper shearing of ma-
terial 75. Crater wear occurs at
A. Clearance A. Tool flank
B. Fracture B. Tool shank
C. Shear C. Tool face
D. none of above D. None of the mentioned
73. The forces required for metal cutting oper-
76. Calculate the power required for machining
ation
of a workpiece on lathe having efficiency
A. increase with increase in the feed of of 85% on full load, when tangential force
the tool and decreases with increase in required is 1200 N and cutting speed 195
the depth of cut m/min.
B. decrease with increase in the feed of A. 4.59 kW
the tool and increases with increase in the
B. 275.29 W
depth of cut
C. increase with increase in both the feed C. 3.315 kW
of the tool and the depth of cut D. insufficient data

11.5 Machining Processes

1. Which does not include Advanced Machin- D. All of the above
ing Processes?
3. In which of the following industries, Non-
A. chemical machining traditional machining methods play an im-
B. drilling machining portant role?
C. water jet machining A. Automobile
D. laser beam machining B. Aerospace
C. Medical
2. What is the reason for using unconven-
tional or advanced machining processes? D. All of the mentioned
A. Complex surfaces 4. Vacuum is the machining medium for?
B. High accuracy and surface finish A. LBM
C. High strength alloys B. WJM

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11.5 Machining Processes 1469

C. EBM 10. Energy source mainly responsible for ma-

terial removal in USM is
D. None of the mentioned

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A. impact of abrasives
5. The dielectric fluid is flushed in thorough B. frequency of vibrations
which part of the electrode in drilling in
EDM? C. amplitude of vibrations
D. none of the above
A. Interior hole
B. Side gaps 11. Electrical Discharge Machining erodes
metal because
C. All of the mentioned
A. metal chemical
D. None of the mentioned
B. high density laser
6. In USM material removal takes place by C. Electric arc jump
A. laser action D. high -speed electrons
B. erosive action 12. Who is the author of the Prosman book
C. abrading action used as a reference
A. Yunus Cengel
D. chemical action
B. Nur Cholis
7. In EDM the material of the tool is C. Fictional
A. Satellite D. james stewart
B. Diamond 13. Which type of electrode is used for drilling
C. Carbide in Electro discharge machining?
D. High speed steel A. Flat electrode
E. Copper B. Cuboidal electrode
C. Tubular electrode
8. Feed of a single point cutting tool most af-
D. Spherical electrode
fects the
A. cutting speed 14. The part of the missile skin panel is usually
formed with a process
B. tool’s life
A. laser beam machining
C. depth of cut
B. chemical machining
D. geometry of the tip C. electrochemical machining
9. In Magnetorheological finishing (MRF) the D. electrical discharge machining
MR fluid consists of Magnetizable parti-
15. Different classifications of Non-traditional
cles is ,
machining based on source of energy are?
A. Iron particles A. Mechanical
B. non-Iron particles B. Thermal
C. Carbonyl Iron Particles C. Chemical and electro-chemical
D. Nikel iron partical D. All of the mentioned

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11.5 Machining Processes 1470

16. Magnetic Abrasive finishing is used for B. Slurry

which of the following application’s?
C. Water
A. Surface finishing
D. gas
B. Cutting
C. Drilling 22. Abrasive flow machining (AFM) is used for

D. Boring
A. de-burring

NARAYAN CHANGDER
17. Other non-conventional processes lay be-
B. etching
hind Laser beam machining in drilling pro-
cess because of which factors below? C. drilling
A. High cost D. cutting
B. Long lead times
23. An is a material that does not allow
C. Low machining speeds electrons to easily flow through it.
D. All of the mentioned A. conductor
18. In Magnetorheological finishing (MRF) B. insulator
which is the n Non-magnetic carrier
C. blanket
medium ,
D. none of above
A. Lead acid
B. silicone oil, mineral oil 24. Typical frequency of vibrations given to
C. AI2O3 USM tool is

D. Carbonyl A. 2-4 kHz

B. 10-20 kHz
19. The AFM process reduces surfacerough-
ness by percent on cast and machined- C. 200-400 kHz
surfaces. D. 20-40 kHz
A. 30%
25. Which of the following is not a magnetic
B. 45 to 50%
field assisted machining process?
C. 75 to 90%
A. Electro-plating process
D. 100%
B. Magnetic abrasive finishing
20. During EDM, the temperature developed at
C. Magnetic float polishing
the point of spark is of the order of
D. All of the mentioned
A. 2, 000◦ C
B. 6, 000◦ C 26. In mechanical machining, material is re-
C. 10, 000◦ C moved by

D. 14, 000◦ C A. Erosion

B. Corrosion
21. IN USM abrasive particles are suspended
in a C. Abrasion
A. oil D. Vaporization

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11.5 Machining Processes 1471

27. USM not works on the principle mentioned 33. The blade on a horizontal band saw to
below continuously cut into the material.
A. runs back and forth

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A. Peizo-electric effect
B. Magneto-strictive effect B. runs in one direction
C. electro-strictive effect C. is not designed
D. Hall effect D. overheats if used

28. Which of the following lenses are used for 34. The process which is a mild steel blade
refocussing the electrons in EBM process? or discs rubbing with a workpiece with a
speed of up to 7600 m/min until the work-
A. Magnetic lens piece is cut, also called the process
B. Electronic lens A. Friction sawing
C. Magnetic & Electronic lens B. Friction grinding
D. None of the mentioned C. Friction honing
29. AJM nozzles are made of D. Friction welding
A. low carbon steel 35. A file card is used to
B. HSS A. identify location of files
C. WC B. repair a file
D. Stainless steel C. record critical production information
D. clean metal particles from the file
30. On a CNC milling machine a movement
along the X direction would move the 36. What is the value of the amplitude ob-
A. cutting tool tained when we use mechanical ampli-
fier?
B. spindle
A. 1-10 micro meter
C. table
B. 10-40 micro meter
D. collet
C. 40-50 micro meter
31. What is the pressure of gas that is to be D. 50-100 micro meter
supplied, for carrying the abrasives?
37. Electro Chemical Machining Using Legal
A. 0.1 to 1.0 kg/cm2 Principles
B. 2.0 to 8.0 kg /cm2 A. Newton’s law
C. 10.0 to 18.0 kg/cm2 B. Archimedes Law
D. 25.0 to 35.5 kg/cm2 C. Faraday’s Law
32. Which of the following is used as dielectric D. Bernoulli’s law
medium in EDM 38. A CIP Stands for ,
A. tap water A. Corbon Iron Process
B. kerosene B. Center in Proecss
C. NaCL solution C. Corbonyl Iron Particale
D. KOH solution D. None of these

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11.5 Machining Processes 1472

39. The selection of non-traditional machin- 44. In MAF, machining forces are controlled by
ing process for a particular application de- which of the following fields?
pends on A. Magnetic field
A. Process capability B. Electric field
B. Economics C. Radioactive field
C. Shapes to be machined D. None of the mentioned
D. Physical parameters of the process 45. Which of the following type of tools, are

NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. All of the above required for magnetic field assisted polish-
ing?
40. Which of the following is most often used A. Rigid tools
to cut raw stock into shorter lengths? B. Expensive tools
A. Vertical band saw C. Magnetic tools
B. Horizontal band saw D. Ultra precession tools
C. Diagonal band saw 46. AFM process is capable to finish and
D. Hack saw , (Main Application of AFM)
A. Marine and Locomotive parts
41. Select the limitations of machin-
B. Various machine parts
ing.(Multiple answers)
C. Construction parts
A. Wasteful of material
D. Automotive andMedical parts
B. Costly
47. Non-Traditional machining can also be
C. Time consuming
called as?
D. Complicated processes A. Contact Machining
42. Which is not included in the machinery pro- B. Non-contact machining
cess is C. Partial contact machining
A. Liquefaction D. Half contact machining
B. Gear manufacture 48. In Magnetorheological abrasive finishing
C. Sawing (MRAF) Name the Abrasive particle used

D. Milling
A. Silicone carbide
43. Which of the following elements of USM B. aluminum oxide
is used to apply working force during ma- C. cerium oxide
chining operation?
D. All mentioned above
A. Tool
49. A chip is a chip that is broken by the
B. Feeding unit use of a chip breaker on the cutting tool.
C. Transducer A. broken continuous
D. None of the mentioned B. broken

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11.5 Machining Processes 1473

C. continuous 55. For longer life of nozzle in AWJM, what

D. flowing type of material is used

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A. Tungsten carbide
50. As the vibration frequency increases, what
happens to material removal rate? B. Sapphire
A. Decreases C. Boron carbide
B. Increases D. Stainless steel
C. Increase and then decrease
56. In Abrasive jet machining, work piece ma-
D. Decrease and then increase
terial of removed by which of thefollowing
51. .Non-Traditional machining is recom- means?
mended when we need which of the fol- A. Vaporization
lowing features?
B. Electro plating
A. Complex shapes
B. High surface quality C. Mechanical abrasion

C. Low-rigidity structures D. Corrosion

D. All of the mentioned 57. A built-up edge condition of a cutting tool
52. The machining system of USM contains causes it to
which of the following components? A. cut more shallow
A. Magnetostrictor B. cut more deeply
B. Concentrator
C. increase the feed rate
C. Tools and slurry
D. reduce friction between the cutting
D. d) All of the mentioned tool and the work piece
53. If a blade breaks or comes off the idler
58. Majority of the material is removed in
wheels, you should
which phase of ECH?
A. immediately turn off the power switch
A. Electro chemical dissolution
B. run and tell your supervisor
B. Mechanical abrasion
C. catch the broken end to prevent it from
whipping around C. Electro chemical dissolution & Me-
D. wait until the broken blade is thrown chanical abrasion
from the machine before notifying your su- D. None of the mentioned
pervisor
59. layers for materials that do not want to
54. The following are not included in the form
react with chemicals are called
of saws in the saw process
A. reagent
A. Hacksaw
B. Band saw B. agilator
C. Circular saw C. maskad
D. Thin saw D. electrolyte

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11.5 Machining Processes 1474

60. Which safety rules should be followed 65. Which of the following factors does not af-
when working around machine tools? fect the magnetic abrasive conglomerates
in MAF?
A. Always wear approved eye protection
A. Abrasive type
B. Never wear loose fitting clothes
B. Abrasive size
C. Proper shoes should be worn at all
times to protect your feet C. Work piece material

D. All these and any other safety rules D. Volume fraction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
66. When using a horizontal band saw to cut
61. grinding wheel pada electro-chemical
stock to a specific length, the saw blade
grinding processes berupa
should touch
A. cathodes equipped with abrasive parti-
A. just the inside of the line you created
cles
on the material
B. Reagent compound B. directly on the line you created on the
C. anode equipped with abrasive parti- material
cles C. approximately 1/8-inch beyond the
D. Electric arc jump line you created
D. just the outside of the line you created
62. Which of the following is not a sub-system on the material
in USM
67. The shape of tool used in USM is
A. Transducer
A. Concave shape
B. abrasive
B. Convex shape
C. Tool
C. Flat shape
D. None of the above
D. shape like the cavity to be produced
63. Which of the following are the materials
68. The workpiece must be included in the vac-
used for making maskants?
uum chamber is the characteristics of the
A. Synthetic materials process
B. Rubber materials A. electron beam machining
C. Polymeric materials B. chemical machining
D. All of the mentioned C. electrical discharge machining
D. electrochemical machining
64. During the cutting action, the tool tip
the metal until the metal’s fracture point 69. the force that is responsible for shearing
is exceeded. of surface peaks in magnetorhelogical fin-
A. shears ishing is ,
A. Normal Forces in work piece and rotat-
B. melts
ing wheel
C. deforms
B. Tangential forces at the surface of
D. slices abrasive particle

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11.5 Machining Processes 1475

C. Normal forces and tangential forces 75. In the advanced machining processes,
what is the full form of MAF?
D. No mechanical forces
A. Magnet Automated Finishing

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70. Current efficiency depends on which of the B. Magnetic Abrasive Finishing
following in ECM?
C. Magnet Assisted Floating
A. Anodic material D. Magnetic Association for Floating
B. Electrolyte
76. Surface defects that may be occurred dur-
C. Anodic material & Electrolyte ing thermal machining are?
D. None of the mentioned A. Micro cracking
B. Heat affected zones
71. Which of the following process comes un-
der mechanical machining? C. Striations
D. All of the mentioned
A. USM
77. Preferable tool properties in EDM are
B. EDM
A. High electrical conductivity, low ther-
C. LBM mal conductivity
D. PAM B. low electrical conductivity, High ther-
mal conductivity
72. Which of the following is an unconven-
tional process of machining? C. High electrical conductivity, High ther-
mal conductivity
A. Milling
D. low electrical conductivity, low ther-
B. AJM mal conductivity
C. Drilling 78. EDM is not suitable for machining of
D. None of the mentioned A. Very hard metals
B. Glass
73. In machining system of AJM, which of the
following controls the relative motion be- C. Fragile metallic components
tween work piece and nozzle? D. None of the above
A. Cam drives 79. Laser Beam Machining using
B. Pantographs A. high density energy laser
C. Trace mechanisms B. dry air with abrasive particles
D. All of the mentioned C. Electric arc jump
D. High pressure water
74. The combination of Electrochemical Machin-
ing and conventional grinding is a process 80. Which of the following material/s is/are
used to hold the abrasives, in MAF?
A. electrical discharge machining
A. Nonmagnetic materials
B. water jet machining B. Ferro magnetic materials
C. chemical machineing C. Ceramic materials
D. electro-chemical grinding processes D. None of the mentioned

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11.5 Machining Processes 1476

81. What happens to the dielectric flushing B. Transmitter

while milling tool is rotated at a high speed C. Transformer
in EDM?
D. Transducer
A. Improved
B. Worsen 87. The grinding wheel is and the work
piece is in ECG process.
C. Reduced
A. Cathode, anode
D. All of the mentioned

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Anode, cathode
82. Which of the following is not the type of
C. Cathode, cathode
nontraditional machining?
D. Anode, anode
A. electrochemical process
B. chemical machining 88. As the temperature increases, what hap-
pens to material’s strength?
C. mechanical energy process
D. none of the mentioned A. increases
B. decreases
83. In a CNC machine operation, zero offset
C. increases and then decreases

A. means that the operator cannot move D. remains same

the part on the work table by any amount 89. Which one of the following statements is
B. allows the operator to move the part not true in case of EDM?
to the most desirable location on the work
A. Erosion takes place both on work piece
table
and tool.
C. requires specialized tooling
B. Gap between tool and work piece is
D. is an advanced programming function controlled by servo mechanism.
84. The heart of the whole USM equipment is C. The size of impression on the work
piece surface is exactly same as that of
A. power supply
electrode (tool).
B. tool
D. The electrode (tool) is made of
C. slurry graphite or copper.
D. Acoustic head
90. In Magnetic abrasive finishing, which of
85. Round stock is specified using the following particles do not contribute to
the material removal?
A. radius and length
A. Abrasive particles
B. diameter and gauge number
B. Magnetic particles
C. diameter and length
C. Non-magnetic particles
D. material number and length
D. All of the mentioned
86. In USM high frequency electrical energy
is converted into mechanical vibrations 91. The dimensions of raw material supplied
through a by metal suppliers are described by the
A. Transporter A. ASTM designation

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11.5 Machining Processes 1477

B. stock size 97. The full form of CMP process is

C. manufacturing size A. Control Machining Process

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D. series number B. Chemical Mechanical Polishing

92. Of the following scientists, who discov- C. Chemico micro process

ered magnetostrictor effect? D. None of these
A. Balamuth 98. In AFM the Layer thickness of thematerial
B. Steve O Flawer removed is of the order of about
C. Joule A. 1 to 10 µ cm.
D. Turing B. 1 to 10 µ m.

93. Spark-erosion Machining is another name C. 1 to 10 µ mm.

from D. 1 to 10 µ
A. chemical machining 99. In machining system of AJM, which is the
B. laser beam machining medium of carrying the abrasivegrains for
C. electro chemical machining machining?

D. electrical-discharge machining A. Liquids

B. Gases
94. In Ultrasonic Machining, magnetostrictor
converts magnetic energy into which type C. Any fluids
of energy? D. None of the mentioned
A. Mechanical energy 100. Which of the following process has high-
B. Electrical energy est rate of metal removal?
C. Thermal energy A. Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)
D. None of the mentioned B. Electro-Chemical Machining (ECM)

95. ECG is a hybrid machining process of which C. Ultrasonic Machining (USM)

material removal mechanisms below? D. Laser Beam Machining (LBM)
A. Mechanical abrasion 101. To machine high quality parts using CHM,
B. Electro chemical dissolution which of the following need not be neces-
C. Mechanical abrasion & Electro chemi- sary?
cal dissolution A. Heat treatment of work piece
D. None of the mentioned B. Grain size of work piece

96. The predominant cutting action in machin- C. Frequency of vibrations

ing involves of the work material to D. Range of work pieces
form
102. In traditional machining, which compo-
A. shear deformation; a chip nent is made of relatively harder mate-
B. plastic deformation, a part rial?
C. shear deformation, a part A. Tool
D. plastic deformation; a chip B. Work piece

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11.5 Machining Processes 1478

C. Holding device 108. Select the advantages of machining (Mul-

D. None of the mentioned tiple answers)
A. Variety of work materials
103. Ultrasonic machining is a
B. No wastes
A. mechanical material removal process
B. chemical material removal process C. Good surface finishes

C. electrical material removal process D. Dimensional accuracy

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. thermal material removal process E. Can be recycles

104. Identify the cutting tool material that ex- 109. Which method mentioned below is used
tensively used in machining. for drilling of large size holes?
A. Carbon steel-Carbide-Diamond-High A. Direct drilling
Speed Steel
B. Drill and ream
B. High speed steel-Carbide-Diamond-
C. Trepanning
High Carbon Steel
C. Carbon Steel-Carbide-Diamond-High D. All of the mentioned
Carbon Steel
110. A very typical process used for the bear-
D. none of above ing surface of the crankshaft and other
similar parts, is the understanding of
105. For machining of plastic material which of
the unconventional process can be used ef- A. Turn broaching
fectively? B. Shaft broaching
A. Electro chemical machining
C. Bearing broaching
B. Electron beam machining
D. Bearing burnishing
C. Abrasive jet machining
D. None of the mentioned 111. In machining system of AJM, what is/are
the gas/es used for carrying theabra-
106. Non-Traditional machining can also be sives?
called as
A. CO2
A. Contact Machining
B. Air
B. Non-contact machining
C. Nitrogen
C. Partial contact machining
D. All of the mentioned
D. Half contact machining

107. In EDM the metal removal is carried out 112. In MAF, ceramic balls and the bearing
by rollers are placed in between which com-
ponents?
A. fracture of work material due to im-
pact of grains A. Abrasives and float
B. electrolysis B. Drive shaft and float
C. melting and vaporization C. Float and magnets
D. none of the above D. Magnets and abrasives

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11.5 Machining Processes 1479

113. Passivation layer in CMP process indi- 118. The trunk of the ultrasonic system is also
cates called as

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A. Chemically reacted layer of surface A. shank
B. Conversion layer due to heat interac- B. horn
tion C. amplifier
C. Layer due to slurry D. all of the above
D. Mechanical distorted layer 119. In abrasive water jet machining, the abra-
114. The magnetorheological Abrasive finish- sive particles are added to the water
ing (MRAF) process mainly used to Finised stream
A. After it exits the nozzle
A. Blind Holes B. Before it enters the pumping unit
B. surface finish C. Just before it enters the nozzle
C. Edge hole D. While it is in the nozzle

D. Used to finish the lenses in optical in- 120. Types of Face Milling
dustry A. Pocket milling
115. In AJM, which of the following materials B. Conventional milling
are used as abrasive grains? C. Slab milling
A. Al2O3 D. Profile milling
B. SiC 121. How much distortion is produced while
C. Glass beads machining using PBM?
D. All of the mentioned A. 10%
B. 20%
116. On the vertical band saw, the blade
guides should be set C. 30%
A. as high above the stock as possible to D. No distortion is produced
avoid rubbing 122. What are the processes where Abrasive
B. so they lightly brush the top of the ma- jet machining can be used?
terial being cut A. Cutting
C. 3/8 inches to 1/2 inches above the B. Cleaning
stock at its thickest point
C. Deburring
D. 2-1/2 inches above the stock D. All of the mentioned
117. How does an Electrical-Discharge Machin- 123. In which type of metal removal process,
ing removes material from work piece? thermal energy is included?
A. By corrosion of chemical process A. conventional machining
B. By electrical sparks B. abrasive Process
C. By melting it with laser beam C. nontraditional machining
D. By spraying the material with water jet D. none of the mentioned

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11.5 Machining Processes 1480

124. The material removal mechanism in B. Cathode and power source

AWJM is C. Power source and anode
A. Melting and vaporisation D. Power source and electrolyte
B. Erosion or localised stress fields
130. Which of the following motions are opted,
C. Ion displacement in order to carry on with the Magnetic
D. Spark erosion abrasive finishing?
A. Rotary motion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
125. zat kimia dalam chemical machining dise-
but B. Oscillatory motion
A. maskant C. Vibratory motion
B. anoda D. All of the mentioned

C. reagent 131. The vertical band saw is used to

D. katoda A. cut metal stock into shorter pieces
B. perform rough cuts to save machining
126. Which of the following materials can be
time
machined using Electro discharge machin-
ing? C. cut intricate curves or patterns
A. Heat resistant alloys D. all of the selections
B. Super alloys 132. Which type of materials can be machined
C. Carbides using Abrasive jet machining?

D. All of the mentioned A. Glass

B. Ceramics
127. Which motion is responsible to determine
C. Hard materials
the geometry of jobs to be machined?
D. All of the mentioned
A. Only Motion of tool
B. Only motion of work piece 133. In abrasive jet machining, as the distance
between the nozzle tip and the work sur-
C. Relative motion between tool and work
face increases, the material removal rate
piece
A. increases continuously.
D. None of the mentioned
B. decreases continuously.
128. Abrasive Jet Micromachining (AJMM) C. decreases, becomes stable and then
Process is used for increases.
A. making finished surfaces D. increases, becomes stable and then
B. thread finishing decreases
C. making grooves 134. Ultrasonic machining is not suitable for
D. cutting machining
A. Glass
129. Electro chemical dissolution phase starts
with the movement of ions between which B. Ceramics
two components? C. Semiconductors
A. Cathode and anode D. Steel

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11.5 Machining Processes 1481

135. Which of the following process has the 141. A machine that uses a computer to control
lowest rate of metal removal? its cutter or table is a
A. CLT

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A. Electro discharge machining
B. Electro chemical machining B. CNC
C. Abrasive jet machining C. NCC
D. Chemical machining D. CCN
E. Electron beam machining 142. How does the current pass between the
two electrodes in ECM?
136. The USM process
A. Electrolytic solution
A. consumes higher power, lower MRR
B. Direct contact of electrodes
B. consumes higher power, higher MRR
C. All of the mentioned
C. consumes lower power, lower MRR
D. None of the mentioned
D. consumes lower power, higher MRR
143. Magnetic Float Polishing is a technique
137. What are the values of general feed rates based on
used for drilling in EDM? A. magneto-dynamic behaviour
A. 0.1 mm/min B. magneto-hydrodynamic behaviour
B. 0.3 mm/min C. kinematic behaviour
C. 0.5 mm/min D. viscosity
D. 0.7 mm/min
144. Which of the following gas, should never
138. Some finishing processes carried out in be used as the carrier of abrasives?
the gear manufacturing process are A. Nitrogen
A. Hardening B. CO2
B. Burnishing C. Oxygen
C. Shaving D. Air
D. Grinding 145. In AWJM, What is the percentage of the
abrasives and water in the mixture?
139. Which of the following operations is not
used as a machining operation? A. 20% water and 80% abrasives
A. Sawing B. 80% water and 20% abrasives
B. Drilling C. 30% water and 70% abrasives

C. Turning D. 70% water and 30% abrasives

D. Slicing 146. During ECM drilling, decrease in feed

rates lead to which type of machining
140. Very thin stock is specified using gaps?
A. four decimal places A. Wider
B. millimeters B. Narrow
C. gauge numbers C. Small
D. decimal equivalents D. None of the mentioned

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11.5 Machining Processes 1482

147. In making gear there are several forms 152. Material removal rate in USM increases
and types of cutters, which of these are with
not included in the type of cutter
A. Decrease in amplitude
A. Circular shaped cutter
B. Decrease in grain size of abrasives
B. On a rack sharper
C. Decrease in frequency
C. And hob
D. A-pinion shaped cutter D. Increase in amplitude

NARAYAN CHANGDER
148. Which one the following statements is 153. abrasive jet machine using
true for Electrical Discharge machining
A. dry air given by abrasive particles
(EDM)? i. The material removal takes
place due to the melting and evaporation B. High pressure water
of the workpiece material.ii. Any elec-
C. Electric arc jump
trical conductor can be machined by this
method.iii. Some light oil like transformer D. High pressure electrons
oil or kerosene oil is used as dielectric.
A. Only i 154. What is the other name of ferromagnetic
material used for holding the abrasives in
B. i & ii MAF?
C. i, ii & iii
A. Magnetic abrasive conglomerate
D. ii & iii
B. Magnetic abrasive holder
149. With an increase in abrasive particle size
in AJM C. Magnetic abrasive container

A. MRR as well as surface finish increase D. Magnetic abrasive ampule

B. MRR decreases but surface finish in-
155. A manufacturing process in which a single
creases
or multiple cutting tool is used to cut away
C. MRR increases but surface finish de- material to leave the desired part shape.
creases. Above statement best describe about
D. none of above A. Material removal process
150. Material in thermal machining is removed B. Machining
by which of the following means?
C. Non-Traditional Machining
A. Vaporization
D. none of above
B. Melting
C. Electro-plating 156. Chemical Machining is based on the prin-
D. All of the mentioned ciple that

151. All kinds of Cutter Insert Face Milling A. chemicals can strengthen metals
A. Wiper B. chemicals are able to conduct electric-
B. Square ity

C. Corner flat C. chemicals are able to erode metals

D. Corner radius D. Metals are able to form chemicals

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 11.6 Joining Processes 1483

157. Sources used in thermal machining are? 162. At what rate slurry is pumped through
A. Ions nozzle in USM?

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A. 10 L/min
B. Plasma
B. 25 L/min
C. Electrons
C. 50 L/min
D. All of the mentioned
D. 75 L/min
158. Material removal takes place in AJM due
to 163. Undesirable characteristic of graphite
electrode is
A. electrochemical action
A. Higher TWR
B. mechanical impact
B. Poor surface finish
C. fatigue failure of the material
C. Brittleness
D. sparking on impact
D. All of the above
159. The following is not a type of Milling Ma-
164. In mechanical machining, material is re-
chine
moved by
A. Vertical
A. Erosion
B. Crossing
B. Vaporization
C. Universal
C. Abrasion
D. Horizontal
D. Corrosion
160. In USM there is no direct contact between 165. Here are the reasons why there is an Ad-
tool and workpiece vanced Machining Processes, except
A. Yes A. workpiece whose tolerance is very pre-
B. No cise
C. Sometimes the tool will be in contact B. an expensive workpiece
with workpiece C. a high -temperature -resistant work-
D. none of the above piece
D. a complicated form of workpiece
161. In chemical machining is material removal
takes by? 166. AWJM can be used to cut
A. Chemical reaction A. Metals
B. Erosion B. Non-metals
C. Electron removal C. Both a and b
D. None of the mentioned D. None of the above

11.6 Joining Processes

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11.6 Joining Processes 1484

1. How many days is the cooling of period? B. Menyambung 2 atau lebih logam
A. 20 days bagian yang disambung dapat dilepas
kembali.
B. 15 days
C. Menyambung 2 atau lebih logam den-
C. 30 day gan melumerkan dan mengalirkan filler
D. none of above metal.

2. Lack of welding process D. Penyambungan bahan logam melalui

NARAYAN CHANGDER
proses pemanasan.
A. The occurrence of distortion and
changes in shape by rapid heating and 6. A fastener with internal threads.
cooling.
A. Lock washer
B. Cheaper production facilities, increase
economic value B. Nut
C. Simpler connection geometry C. Screw
D. Good connection efficiency can be D. Bolt
used at high temperatures.
7. Tick the shaping processes that can be
3. What is the definition of a Non-Ferrous
done on the centre lathe
metal
A. Turning down
A. A metal that contains iron, rusts and is
magnetic B. Cutting a slot
B. A metal that contains iron and doesn’t C. Facing off
rust
D. Taper turning
C. A metal that doesn’t contain iron and
is magnetic E. Welding
D. A metal that does not contain iron,
8. Advantages of snap fit assembly include
doesn’t rust and isn’t magnetic
which of the following
4. What is a non-permanent joining method A. ease of disassembly
in engineering?
B. no heat affected zone
A. A temporary joint that can be disman-
tled without breaking the assembled parts C. no special tools are required
B. A fixed joint can’t be dismantled with- D. stronger joint than with most other as-
out breaking the assembled parts sembly methods
C. A temporary joint that can’t be disman-
9. Which is not included from the design con-
tled without breaking the assembled parts
siderations in welding
D. I don’t know yet
A. Parent metal
5. Pengertian Joining Process B. Filler material
A. Menyambung 2 atau lebih logam
C. Las power
bagian yang disambung tidak dapat
dilepas kembali. D. Cost

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11.6 Joining Processes 1485

10. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about 14. Explain the metal joining process of solder-
the meaning of manufacturing process? ing?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Manufacturing is concerned with mak- A. Soldering is used to permanently join
ing products using various materials. electronic components
B. Converting raw materials into the B. Soldering is used to permanently join
product by using various methods and sheet metal
techniques.
C. Soldering is used to permanently join
C. Product items such as bolts, nuts, and mild steel
bottle are some example of discrete prod-
uct. D. I don’t know yet
D. Discrete products are the product 15. what are the main ingredients which are
that cut into individual pieces of various required to weld metals together
lengths for specific purposes (for example
a roll of aluminum foil) A. ‘An electrical power source to produce
an arc.
11. Find the WRONG EXAMPLE of mechanical
B. ‘Some form of shielding to protect the
fastening method listed below
weld from the air.
A. Clips:to join structural beams in build-
ings C. ‘Filler material to fill the weld joint.

B. Screws:joining pieces of wood, metals, D. all of the answers

plastics (furnitures, pencils, electronic
parts) 16. Which element do Ferrous metals con-
tain?
C. Bolts & Nuts:almost all mechanical
products (machine components) A. Iron
D. Seaming:sheet metal joint (trash can, B. Copper
roof) C. Lead
12. What are not the importance of surface D. Gold
treatment
A. Improve resistance to wear, erosion, 17. What do the letters MIG stand for when
and indentation welding?

B. Modify surface texture (appearance, A. Multi Inert Gas

dimensional accuracy) B. Metal Inert Gas
C. Improve fatigue resistance C. Metal inert Gorillas
D. Reduce product cost. D. Metal in Gas
13. Name a process suitable for permanently
18. What is the main tool used when brazing?
joining copper pipes.
A. Brazing A. A soldering Iron

B. Welding B. A gas torch or an electric-arc welder

C. Dowelling C. A gas brazing torch or a blow torch
D. Nuts and bolts D. I don’t know

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11.6 Joining Processes 1486

19. Which of the following is a non-ferrous 24. What is forging?

metal? A. A CNC process to cut a metal shape
A. Mild steel B. The use of molten metal to form a
B. High carbon steel metal shape
C. Iron C. The use of heat and pressure to form
a metal shape
D. Copper
D. An abrasive process to shape metal

NARAYAN CHANGDER
20. Name the material used to create a joint in
25. Which of the following is a permanent join-
brazing?
ing method
A. Brass Spelter
A. Nuts and bolts
B. Solder B. screws
C. Welding Rods C. Welding
D. I don’t know D. none of above

21. How can you earn profit from the com- 26. What makes soldering different from
pany? welding? Pick one.
A. Fix salary A. Nothing, they are both the same
B. You can earn retail profits by selling B. Soldering melts the two parent metals
products. together, welding does not.
C. Don’t know C. Welding melts the two parent metals
together, soldering does not.
D. none of above
D. You use different filler metal to the par-
22. Select the two types of engineering joining ent metal in welding.
processes?
27. What is rivet? Find the WRONG STATE-
A. Welding & Deburring MENTS about rivet.
B. Welding & Filing A. Most common method of permanent or
semi-permanent mechanical joining is by
C. Welding & Brazing
riveting.
D. I don’t know yet
B. Rivets may be solid or tubular.
23. Which is not included in the characteristics C. Riveting always be done at elevated
of Brazing Process temperatures only.
A. The basic material that is connected D. May be performed by hand or by mech-
does not merge anized means, including the use of pro-
grammable robots.
B. The connection only occurs due to lay-
ing brazing material in the welding field 28. Select 3 things that could cause issues with
C. Brazing Field Must Be Pure Metal welding.

D. Merging includes various tempera- A. Incorrect feed speed of mig wire

tures B. Inadequate shielding gas

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11.6 Joining Processes 1487

C. Travel speed too fast or slow 34. Connect 2 or more metals but the con-
D. Blockage on the trigger nected part can be removed again without
damaging the metal.The statement is

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29. Tick all of the features of soldering A. Fastening Process
A. High temperature B. Joining Process
B. Uses low melting point filler metals C. Soldering Process
around 450 deg melting point
D. Welding Process
C. Stronger than welding
D. Flux must be used. 35. A variety of solderes that apply to elec-
tronic equipment
E. Different parent metals can be joined.
A. Tin-tin, tin-bismuth, tin-tin-guardian
30. Soldering or metal filler that is not appli- B. Tin, tin-bismuth, tin-tin
cable to electronic equipment.
C. Tin, tin, tin-bismuth
A. Tin-Bismuth
D. Cadmium-Pak, Tin-Seng, Tin-Tin Cop-
B. Tin
per
C. Tin-seng
36. Limitation of adhesive bonding are listed
D. Tin-per-guardian
below. Find the INCORRECT statement
31. What is the main tool used when weld- about its limitation
ing? A. Adhesive must be compatible with ma-
A. A gas brazing torch or a blow torch terials being joined

B. A gas torch or an electric-arc welder B. Joints generally not as strong as other

joining methods
C. A soldering Iron
C. Curing times can limit production rates
D. I don’t know yet
D. Service temperatures are NOT limited
32. Which of the following is a non-permanent
joining process? 37. Which of the following is not a part of the
casting process
A. Welding
A. Flask
B. Soldering
B. Runner
C. Fastening
C. Jig
D. Bonding
D. Sprue
33. Name the three components needed to join
a piece of sheet metal using the process 38. Which option should be clicked in the web-
bolting? site for online joining?
A. Bolt, Nail and Washer A. Join gallway
B. Screw, Nut and Washer B. , Joining company
C. Bolt, Nut and Washer C. Join glaz
D. I don’t know yet D. none of above

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11.6 Joining Processes 1488

39. Identify the advantage of using adhesive A. The appearance of components are
bonding? generally improve
A. There are very limited application of B. The need of great care of surface
materials to be joined preparations
B. Cleanliness and surface preparation C. Thin and fragile components can be
prior to application of adhesive are impor- bonded without significant increase of
tant their weight

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Bonding occurs over entire surface D. Materials of very different properties
area of joint can be joined
D. Inspection of bonded joint is difficult 44. Its not the type of joining process
40. Find the WRONG STATEMENTS about A. Bolt and Nut Process
rivet. B. Soldering Process
A. Most common method of permanent or C. Welding Process
semi-permanent mechanical joining is by
riveting. D. Brazing Process

B. Rivets may be solid or tubular. 45. Which best describe reason why mechani-
cal assembly is often preferred compared
C. Riveting always be done at elevated
others?
temperatures only.
A. ease of disassemble
D. May be performed by hand or by mech-
anized means, including the use of pro- B. economies of scale
grammable robots. C. no heat affected zone in the base parts
41. Adhesively bonded joints are strongest un- D. specialization of labor
der which type of stresses
46. What are the main tools used when rivet-
A. cracking ing?
B. cleavage A. A ball pein hammer and an anvil
C. peeling B. A mallet and an anvil
D. shear C. A claw hammer and an anvil
42. Profit Welding Process D. I don’t know yet
A. The more moderate connection geom- 47. There is major difference between solid
etry with perfect air, water, and oil state and fusion welding. What is the dif-
B. The quality of the metal is different ference?
from the parent metal A. Solid state welding-heat and/or pres-
C. The occurrence of distortion and defor- sure are used to achieve coalescence, but
mation by heating and fast cooling no melting of base metals occurs and no
filler metal is added
D. Damage to the inside of the welding
connection is difficult to detect B. Solid state welding-coalescence is ac-
complished by melting the two parts to be
43. Which of these statement is NOT correct joined, in some cases adding filler metal
about the advantages of adhesive joining. to the joint

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11.6 Joining Processes 1489

C. Examples of solid state welding are 52. Name the hand tool that is used to manu-
arc welding and oxyfuel gas welding ally carry out crimping?

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D. There is a liquid or molten phase is A. A soldering iron
present in the joint B. A metal guillotine
48. Which of the following is a Ferrous C. A 5x blade sheet metal crimper
metal?
D. I don’t know yet
A. Mild steel
53. Brazing and soldering are used instead of
B. Aluminium
fusion welding when
C. Copper
A. High strength is required
D. Brass
B. Metals have good weldability
49. Select the non-permanent joining process C. Geometry of joint not suitable forweld-
in engineering? ing
A. Shrink Fitting D. SImilar metals are to be joined
B. Brazing
54. The process of heating with adhesive or
C. Welding filler, which has a melting point below the
D. I don’t know yet melting point of the material to be con-
nected.The statement from the process
50. Identify 2 quality issues with cast metal A. Brazing
parts
B. Welding
A. Incomplete cast
C. Soldering
B. Too much material outside the pattern
shape D. Welding with hot gas
C. Textured surface 55. Drilling, Sawing, Filing and Shearing are all
D. Sprue types of which process?
A. Cutting
51. Adhesive bonding can best be described as
the following EXCEPT: B. Shaping
A. It is among the very least cost method C. Forming
B. Joining process in which a filler mate- D. Joining and fabrication
rial is used to hold two (or more) closely-
spaced parts together by surface attach- 56. Describe mechanical fastening. What is it?
ment Find the CORRECT answer.

C. Adhesive joints very strong joining as A. A very skilled and specialized

good as welded, brazed, or soldered joints worker/person is needed to perform the
fastening process.
D. Used in a wide range of bonding and
sealing applications for joining similar and B. It requires the components have to be
dissimilar materials such as metals, plas- melted before the fasteners are inserted.
tics, ceramics, wood, paper, and card- C. Two or more components may have to
board be joined or fastened in such a way that

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11.6 Joining Processes 1490

they can be taken apart sometime during 62. Name the material used to create a joint in
the product’s service life or life cycle. welding?
D. none of above A. Flux
B. Solder
57. What does MIG stand for?
C. Welding Rods
A. Metal Isolating Gas
D. I don’t know
B. Metal Inert Gas

NARAYAN CHANGDER
63. To use adhesive bonding, the joints must
C. Metal Igniting Gas cannot be subjected to force.
D. Metal Inside Gas A. tensile
B. peeling
58. Name 3 processes for forming polymers
C. compression
A. Extrusion
D. shear
B. Injection moulding
64. Name the two parts of a press former
C. Blow moulding
A. press and die
D. Casting
B. punch and die
59. What PPE is required when welding? C. hit and die
A. A protective jacket, a visor, gauntlets D. slap and die
and spats
65. Name a process suitable for metal and
B. An apron and goggles polymer forming
C. Goggles and safety boots A. Injection moulding
D. I don’t know yet B. Extrusion
C. Blow moulding
60. Which website do you have to visit for on-
line joining process? ? D. Casting

A. Galvecart (www.galwaykart.com) 66. Which part of sand cast preparation pre-

vents air pockets?
B. Company official website (www.glazegalway.com)
A. fettling
B. riser
C. Gallway Foundation (www.galwayfoundation.com)
C. core
D. none of above D. runner

67. Which two match the case hardening

61. What is crimping commonly used for?
source of gas.
A. Lids on metal food cans A. carburizing with nitrogen gas
B. Fittings in gear wheels B. Nitriding with nitrogen gas
C. Rotating parts for turbines C. Boronizing with nitrogen gas
D. I don’t know yet D. carburizing with carbon gas.

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11.6 Joining Processes 1491

68. Which of the following is NOT the type of 73. What is alloyed with steel to make stain-
adhesive? less steel?

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A. Natural adhesives A. copper
B. Synthetic adhesives B. silver
C. Composite adhesives C. chromium
D. Inorganic adhesives D. lead

69. Name a saw most suitable for cutting 74. Listed below are the importance of short
metal peening, EXCEPT:

A. Coping saw A. It improve the fatigue life of the com-

ponent by delaying the initiation of fatigue
B. Hacksaw cracks
C. Tenon saw B. The area being peen become harder.
D. Scroll saw C. It weeken the workpiece
70. Below are the reasons why mechanical as- D. none of above
sembly is often preferred over other meth-
75. Kekurangan dari Bolt and Nut Process
ods, EXCEPT:
A. Berat terpengaruh karena bertambah-
A. Specialization of labor/worker is re-
nya beban.
quired.
B. Dibuat dalam standarisasi.
B. Ease of assembly and disassembly in-
cluding maintenance, parts replacement, C. Digunakan untuk berbagai kondisi op-
or repair. erasi
C. Ease in creating designs that require D. Effisiensi tinggi dalam proses manu-
movable joints such as hinges, sliding faktur.
mechanisms, and adjustable components
76. Select two parts of a screw?
and fixtures.
A. Bolt and Point
D. none of above
B. Bolt and Thread
71. What machine is used for “turning”? C. Thread and Tip
A. Mig welder D. I don’t know yet
B. Pillar drill
77. Select one advantage of adhesive bond-
C. Turret mill ing?
D. Centre Lathe A. It requires careful surface preparation
72. is threaded on both ends. B. It is time consuming
A. cap screw C. It can fill gaps and voids

B. machine bolt D. I don’t know yet

C. machine screw 78. Why is gas used in MIG welding. Pick one
D. stud bolt A. To help melt the metal

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 11.7 unconventional Machining Process 1492

B. To keep the weld clean and strong by D. I don’t know yet

shielding the weld from contaminants in
the air. 81. What are the two types of metal working
screws?
C. To burn and help the weld
A. Pins and Nails
D. none of above
B. Self-tapping and Self-drilling
79. To start a galve business, how much age
C. Nuts and Bolts
is required to be at least?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. I don’t know yet
A. 17 years
B. 18 years 82. Which of the following is NOT an alloy?
C. 20 years A. Aluminium
D. 15 years B. Stainless steel
C. Brass
80. Explain the metal joining process of weld-
ing? D. Bronze
A. A process whereby two or more parts 83. Name the material used to create a joint in
are fused together using high tempera- soldering?
tures
A. Mild Steel
B. A process whereby two or more parts
are bent shaped B. Solder

C. A process whereby two or more parts C. Copper

are cut and filed D. I don’t know yet

11.7 unconventional Machining Process

1. Which of the following are commonly used A. Giving feed to tool
magnetic materials in finishing process? B. Electrolyte supply
A. Silicon Carbide C. Power supply
B. Aluminium Oxide D. None of the mentioned
C. Cubic Boron Nitride
4. Which of the following come under the
D. All of the mentioned main components of ECM?
2. Magnetic lines of force flows on which part A. Feed control system
of the work piece material? B. Work piece holding devices
A. Through the work piece C. Electrolyte supply system
B. Over the surface D. All of the mentioned
C. Above the work piece
5. In ECM equipment, what is the role of elec-
D. Below the work piece trolyte supply system?

3. Feed control system is responsible for A. Giving feed to tool

which action in ECM? B. Electrolyte supply

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 11.8 Numerical Control of Machine Tools 1493

C. Power supply A. Work piece

D. None of the mentioned B. Magnetic and abrasive particles

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6. In which direction, oscillatory motion of C. Magnets
magnets are carried out? D. All of the mentioned
A. Axial to work piece 8. In order to achieve uniform circulation of
B. Perpendicular to work piece abrasives, the magnetic abrasives are un-
C. Inclined to work piece dergone through which of the following?

D. None of the mentioned A. Stirring

B. Oscillation
7. Which of the following materials combine
to form the magnetic abrasive brush in C. Vibration
MAF? D. All of the mentioned

11.8 Numerical Control of Machine Tools

1. You are running a proven program (one run 4. Used to give an extra gripping force for
before) for the first time in a new setup. component machining.
You are cautiously allowing the first tool A. TOOL TURRET
come into its approach position when you
determine that the tool is not going where B. TAILSTOCK
it is supposed to. It is most likely that: C. TAIL ALIGNMENT
A. The datum position hasn’t been set D. TOOL POST
B. Your tool offset is incorrect 5. What is the G code Circular movement
C. You have incorrectly programmed the with feed rate anticlockwise
part A. G00
D. Wrong Programme selected B. G17
2. In CNC programming, circular interpolation C. G03
means programming for D. G02
A. A plunge cut
6. What part of the lathe spins the work
B. An angle cut piece?
C. An arc or radius A. Ways
D. Drilling a hole B. Tool Turret
3. What does the letter “S” represent in a C. Chuck
CNC lathe program D. Spindle
A. Feed rate
7. The depth that a tool is plunged into the
B. Spindle RPM surface is called as
C. Sub-program call A. Depth of cut
D. Tool # / Offset # B. Cutting depth

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11.8 Numerical Control of Machine Tools 1494

C. Tool offset 13. In a CNC lathe program what is the func-

D. Z depth tion of the code line shown below N045
M09
8. System using computer technology to con- A. Constant surface speed control
trol production processes and equipment.
B. Coolant off
A. Computer-Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
C. Maximum spindle speed allowed
B. Industry
D. Per revolution feed rate

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Gadget
D. Cartesian coordinate system 14. The spindle speed for a particular tool in
a program is incorrect and you wish to
9. Moving the along the material or parallel reduce it. What letter in the programme
to the left in a turning center is called? must you look for to edit the spindle
A. Negative X-axis speed.
B. Positive X-axis A. “G”
C. Negative Z-axis B. “F”
D. Positive Z-axis C. “S”
10. The combination of holes read in the char- D. “M”
acter must be converted into an ambiguous
signal, which is used to replace the func- 15. Which M code is required to be pro-
tion of certain machine equipment or equiv- grammed to stop the programme at a
alent to the physical numbers quantity is a given line?
function A. M03
A. Decoder B. M00
B. Program Reader C. M01
C. Buffer Storage
D. M05
D. False interpolator
16. Which axis moves the tool perpendicular
11. What operation is called for in the CNC to the work piece in a turning center?
code line shown below? N3 M06 T03
A. X-axis
A. Optional stop for 3 minutes
B. Y-axis
B. Pause for 3 minutes
C. Z-axis
C. Spindle off for 3 minutes
D. none of above
D. Tool change for tool 3

12. What mode switch position allows pro- 17. What does S2000 mean in a CNC pro-
grams to be modified? gram?
A. Programming and edit A. Feed speed 2000 ipm
B. Auto B. Rapid feed at 2000 ipm
C. Single Block mode C. Set spindle at 2000 rpm
D. Manual data input D. Subroutine go to line 2000

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11.8 Numerical Control of Machine Tools 1495

18. Right hand rule has your thumb as the 24. The button used to activate a CNC program
axis is:

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A. R A. Cycle Start
B. Y B. Full sequence
C. X C. Feed Hold
D. Z D. Power On

19. Sets the length units to be in inches 25. What is the center line of the main spin-
dle?
A. G00
A. X axis
B. G20
B. W axis
C. G21
C. Z axis
D. G01
D. none of above
20. Tacho generator is used to measure
26. Numerical Control Hardware
A. Velocity
A. 4
B. Position
B. 5
C. Time
C. 6
D. None of these
D. 7
21. What does the programming code “G01”
27. The equipment used to determine the tool
represent?
offset is called as
A. Circular interpolation (clockwise)
A. Tool holder
B. End of program, return to first block B. Tool magazine
C. Incremental programming C. Tool presetter
D. Linear interpolation (straight line) D. Chuck
22. Multiple pallets are used in CNC machine 28. In a CNC program what is the function of
tools, basically for the code line shown belowN01 G71
A. Increasing the cost of machine A. Absolute program
B. Ease of handling the job B. Inch program
C. Increasing machine utilization C. Incremental program
D. All of these D. Metric program
23. Which one you can use to Manual control 29. The development of first NC machine tool
the machine? project was awarded to
A. Display system A. Harvard Lab
B. control box B. USAF
C. PC C. MIT
D. none of above D. No of these

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11.8 Numerical Control of Machine Tools 1496

30. Typical lathe applications 35. Tool Holders have following properties
A. turning A. variety of operations
B. threading B. get high accuracy

C. boring C. Flexibility
D. All
D. filing
36. which includes numerical control hardware
31. Which machine tool reduces the number of

NARAYAN CHANGDER
set-ups in machining operation, time spent A. 1.Program Reader2.Decoder 3.Buffer
in setting machine tools and transporta- Storage
tion between sections of machines? B. 1.Interpolator2.Drives 3.Comparator
A. Computer Numerical Control machine C. 1.Decoder 2.Buffer Storage3.Interpolator
tool
B. Direct Numerical Control machine tool D. All answers are correct
C. Adaptive Control Systems 37. Moving the tool toward the material in a
D. Machining centre turning center is called?
A. Negative X-axis
32. What is the difference between a NC and B. Positive X-axis
CNC machine?
C. Negative Z-axis
A. The way they are coded and memory
D. Positive Z-axis
B. how they are ran
38. In a CNC lathe program what is the func-
C. who owns them tion of the code line shown belowN010
D. machinist that use them. F.015
A. Constant surface speed control
33. What mode switch position allows a pro-
gram to be run from within the CNC con- B. Feed per revolution
trol? C. Maximum spindle speed allowed
A. Auto/ Full sequence D. Reference X axis
B. Programming and editing 39. In CNC machine tools, the change of tools
C. Single Block between tool magazine and spindle is ac-
complished by
D. Manual data input
A. Robot
34. In case of complex jobs on machining cen- B. AGV
tres, the machine utilization is prominently
C. ATC
improved by using
D. Conveyor
A. Multiple Pallets
40. Which type of tool magazines are gener-
B. ATC
ally used to handle around 200 toolsin CNC
C. Tool Magazine machines?
D. AGV A. Drum type

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11.8 Numerical Control of Machine Tools 1497

B. Chain type 46. The Tool is held in the CNC milling machine
in
C. Turret type

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A. Adapter
D. Both a) and b)
B. Modular
41. The commonly used hollow tape is C. Pallets
A. Electromecan D. Magazines
B. Photoelectric
47. The display screen mode that lets the op-
C. Photographer erator enter tooling related data is the:
D. Electromagnet A. Tool offset page
B. Datum manager screen
42. CNC lathe machine have the main motor of
CNC lathe machine which drives the main C. Programme edit screen
spindle. Chuck is mounted on this main D. Manual data input screen
spindle
48. What type of coding does a CNC machine
A. CNC HEAD STOCK
use?
B. CNC LATHE GEAR BOX A. G and M codes
C. CNC CONTROL PANEL B. Q codes
D. CNC MACHINE DRIVES C. Bar codes

43. What is the function of M04 in program- D. No codes

ming at CNC lathe machine? 49. FANUC is the name of
A. Spindle Clockwise A. CNC tool
B. Spindle Counterclockwise B. CNC controller
C. Spindle Stop C. CNC job handling device
D. Program Stop D. None

44. What does “M04” mean 50. Tool and fixture design is a task under
A. internal coolant on A. CAD

B. Spindle on CW B. CAM

C. Spindle on CCW C. CAE

D. None of these
D. Tool change
51. The equipment used for the measurement
45. What does G01 input do? of tool-offsets is called as
A. Dwell A. Vernier
B. Linear interpolation B. Micrometer
C. Circular interpolation CW C. CMM
D. Thread cutting D. Tool presetter

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 11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1498

52. On establishing the tool isn’t moving to D. A Collet chuck is quicker to set up
the desired position what below would
you do to prevent an accident occurring? 57. What is the operation called for in the code
line shown belowN200 M05
A. Emergency Stop
B. Single Block A. End of program

C. Cycle Stop B. Spindle motor off

D. Feed rate to zero C. Spindle motor on

NARAYAN CHANGDER
53. The part of CNC machine tool where multi- D. Tool change
ple tools are stored is called as
58. Select Two advantages a thread mill has
A. Tool magazine over a machine tap
B. Spindle A. Quicker cycle times
C. Tool store B. Easier to programme
D. Tool-room
C. Costs lest
54. What holding device/devices would you D. Less tool changes to achieve finished
use to secure a round component in a CNC product
lathe
A. Collet Chuck 59. Which one is disadvantage of the CNC ma-
chine?
B. 3 Jaw Chuck
A. Productivity increase
C. Machine Vice
D. 4 Jaw Chuck B. Flexibility of production
C. High investment
55. The machine tool, in which calculation and
setting of the operating conditions like D. none of above
depth of cut, feed, speed are done during
the machining by the control system itself, 60. Memory devices that store temporary
is called data received from the decoder are
A. Computer Numerical Control System A. Program Reader
B. Direct Numerical Control System B. Buffer Storage
C. Machining Centre System C. Baper Storage
D. Adaptive Control System D. false interpolator
56. Why would you select a Collet chuck over 61. Sets the length units to be in metric
a 3 jaw chuck if both are available?
A. G00
A. A Collet chuck is easier to use
B. G20
B. A Collet chuck is more accurate
C. G21
C. A Collet chuck enables faster machin-
ing D. G01

11.9 Jigs and Fixtures

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1499

1. When close the pipe end is required fitting B. Pan head

of C. Conical head

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. union D. Counter head
B. socket
7. The least locating points required for pri-
C. tee mary surface in 3-2-1 principle is
D. cap A. 2
2. To locate the work piece must be con- B. 3
sidered. C. 4
A. Cost D. 5
B. environment conditions
8. The no of locators used in 3-2-1 principle
C. degrees of freedom is
D. rigidity of tool A. 1
3. are used for closing the end of the pipe B. 2
or fitting which has an external thread C. 6
A. Cap D. 8
B. Plug
9. Choose the correct definition of fixture
C. Reduser
A. A device flexible to the worktable of
D. All of these a machine and locates the work in table
work
4. The workpiece is so arranged in the body
of jig and fixture, considering position of B. A device fixed to the machine and lo-
the tool, that it and other similar work- cates the work in by clamping method.
pieces can occupy only one position. is C. A device fixed to the worktable of a ma-
known as? chine and locates the work in an exact po-
A. Location sition relative to the cutting tool.
B. Clamping D. A device adjustable to the worktable of
a machine and locates the work and con-
C. None of this
troi the cutting tool.
D. 1 and 2
10. Round head rest pin are used for locating
5. Inorder to produce air tight riveted joint
process is required A. Highly polished surface
A. Bevelling B. Cylindrical profile
B. Caulking C. Rough surface
C. Fillering D. Any surface
D. Sealing
11. In a rivetted joint when the rivets in var-
6. The type of rivet head usually used for ious rows are opposite to each other, the
boiler plate rivetting joint is said to be
A. Snap head A. Chain rivet

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1500

B. Diamond rivet 17. Select the correct process involve of

Pre Design Procedure of jig and fix-
C. Zig Zag
turei.Product analysisii. Design analy-
D. None of the above sisiii.Machine analysisiv.Operator analy-
sisv. Fabrication analysis
12. number of pieces to be made is denoted by
A. i, ii, iii
A. X1 B. ii, iii, iv
B. X2

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. i, iii, v
C. n D. i, iii, iv
D. None of the above 18. In boiler plate rivetting, rivet head usually
are
13. What are the uses of jigs and fixtures in
the industry? A. Pan head
A. cropping jigs B. Snap head

B. Degating process C. Conical head

D. Counter sunk head
C. proses cropping blade
D. provision of cutting 19. In 3-2-1 Location, three pins on primary
datum restricts degrees of freedom.
14. Jigs and fixtures are A. 1
A. machining tools B. 3
B. precision tools C. 5
C. both a. and b. D. 7

D. none of the above 20. cost per piece without a jig or fixture is
denoted by
15. Usually drill jig is not clamped to the ma-
A. K1
chine table. Which among the following is
the reason for this? B. K2

A. It is enough for this operation C. T1

D. T2
B. It is easy for operation
C. Number of holes of various sizes are 21. Location must fulfil the following
normally being drilled in different settings A. Dimensional requirements
D. It is a more time consuming device B. Relief for the chip
C. Fool proofing
16. A fixture does not
D. all of the above
A. Holds the workpiece
22. Which fixtures are used for machining
B. Locate the workpiece
parts which must have machined details
C. Guide the tool evenly spaced?
D. All of the above A. Profile fixtures

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1501

B. Duplex fixtures 28. If two locators are attempting to constrain

one freedom of movement it is referred to
C. Indexing fixtures
as

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. None of the above
A. Wrong loading
23. Pipes are designated by there B. Redundant location
A. Bore diameter C. Production
D. Failure of jigs
B. Normal diameter
C. Core diameter 29. What is the pitch of rivet in chain rivetting
A. 4D
D. All of these
B. 2D
24. A location system should positively pre- C. 2.5D
vent wrong loading of the work piece in
D. 3D
a fixture by
A. Checking frequently 30. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint
is 60%, then the ratio of pitch of diameter
B. Fool proofing of rivet is
C. Redundant location A. 0.20
D. 3-2-1 method of location B. 0.33
C. 0.40
25. For profile location which of these given
below is the best location? D. 0.50

A. Sight location 31. Location system must positively prevent

of the work piece by ‘fool proofing’
B. Nested location
A. Wrong loading
C. Vee location
B. sliding
D. Adjustable location
C. lifting
26. Which one of the following tool is used for D. position
holding round pipes?
32. The device which holds the work and guide
A. hand vice the tool
B. pipe vice A. jig
C. leg vice B. fixture
C. leg vice
D. none of these
D. tool post
27. Flat headed rest buttons are used when lo-
33. Will Jigs and Fixtures be used to follow
cating on a
specifications?
A. machined surface
A. decreases an accident rate
B. Casting component surface B. simplify the quality control system
C. None of the above C. be a heating material to a system
D. none of above D. Lights or warning sounds will be

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1502

34. Choose the correct characteristic of jigi. C. tab washer

Heavyii. More accurateiii. Fasted onto the D. key
tableiv. More narrow application
A. i, ii 40. For the location of cylindrical work piece
locator is used
B. i, iii, iv
A. Rest pad
C. ii, iv
B. Conical
D. i, ii, iv

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. V-locator
35. Which are the piles used to carry fluids in D. none of the above
low pressures
41. Size of cast iron pipe is
A. A)Cast iron pipe
A. 50-1200mm
B. B)Wrought iron pipes
B. 60-1300mm
C. Both A and B
C. 70-1400mm
D. None of these
D. 80-1500mm
36. The efficiency of a single rivetted lap joint
42. Which is the formula generally used in the
A. 30% shop floor for length of the snap head riv-
B. 40% ets
C. 55% A. L= T+1.5D
D. 80% B. L=T+2D
C. L=T+4D
37. Pipe fittings are fitted for
D. L=T+0.7D
A. Changeing the direction of pipe
B. Connect a branch with main water sup- 43. What is the main purpose of the degassing
ply pipe process?

C. To connect two or more pipes in differ- A. .Cutting the gate out of the product
ent directions B. Discard the sprue, runner and gate
D. All of these C. Cleaning products from dirt
D. removes the surplus from the product
38. Identify the device which locates, holds
and supports a work 44. With the use of Jigs and fixture
A. chuck A. Labour cost decreases
B. jig B. Labour cost increases
C. fixture C. Labour cost decreases
D. all of the above D. None of the mentioned
39. The fastener used to transmitting torque 45. The thicknes of gib and cotter joint is
from a rotating shaft to a hub or vice versa thickness of cotter
A. circlip A. less than
B. locking ring B. Equal to

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1503

C. more than 51. The key way for a sunk key is provided
D. none of these A. in shaft only

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. neither in shaft nor in hub
46. can be used for inspection and assem-
bly. C. in hub only

A. Fixture D. partly in hub and partly in shaft

B. Jig 52. V-blocks (Vee locators) are used for clamp-

ing as well as locating when faces are in-
C. Locators clined upto
D. None of the above A. 30o
47. V-block can arrest degrees of freedom. B. 12o

A. 5 C. 9o
D. 3o
B. 7
C. 9 53. The degating process is a product exile pro-
cess from gate and runner.This process is
D. 12 happy to
48. This type of jig is employed on multi- A. 1
spindle machines B. 2
A. Index jig C. 3
B. Universal jig D. 4
C. Multi-station jig 54. Size of wrought iron pipe used is
D. Open type jig A. 6-150mm

49. With the use of Jigs and fixture quality B. 7-160mm

control expenses will C. 8-170mm
A. Reduce D. 9-180mm
B. Increases 55. Round headed pins are used for locating
C. Jigs and fixture are not used in any pro- A. Rough surfaces
duction process B. Machined surfaces
D. None of the mentioned C. Both Rough as well as machined
50. With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost D. None
of production will 56. Which tool is used to form the final shape
A. Increase of a rivet during rivetting
B. Decrease A. Rivet set
C. Remains same B. Dolly

D. Jigs are not used in any production pro- C. Drift

cess D. Snap

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1504

57. Which one among the below machine tool 63. The no of joints commonly used in rivetting
does not guide the cutting tool to the work are
piece? A. 3
A. Fixture B. 4
B. Jig C. 2
C. Tennon D. 6
D. Locators 64. What type of failure will occur when rivets

NARAYAN CHANGDER
are smaller than necessary
58. The following is(are) the function(s) of a
jig A. Tearing of plates btwn the holes

A. Holding B. Tearing of plates btwn the edges

C. Shearing of rivet
B. Locating
D. Crushing of plate
C. Guiding
D. All of the above 65. The jigs and fixtures can be constructed
through
59. is used only for machining. A. Casting
A. Fixture B. Fabrication
B. Jig C. Welding
C. Locators D. A & B only
D. None of the above E. All of the above
66. The following type of jig is used for ma-
60. Jigs and Fixtures are used for
chining in more than one plane
A. Mass production
A. Template jig
B. Identical parts production B. Plate type jig
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ C. Open type jig
D. None of the above D. Box type jig
61. In which of the following operation jigs are 67. The distance between the gauge line and
preferred over fixture? the edge of a plate is
A. Drilling A. Diagonal pitch
B. Turning B. Back pitch
C. Milling C. Margin
D. Pitch
D. Grinding
68. Which metal in the following is not used
62. Rivets are generally specified by for making rivet
A. Shape of head A. Low carbon steel
B. Diameter of head B. Brass
C. Diameter of shank C. Aluminum
D. Overall length D. Cast iron

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1505

69. The following type of jig suits best for 75. We can achieve complete constrain on the
drilling of holes in hollow cylindrical com- cylindrical work by using V-locator with
ponents, with relatively smaller outside

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

and inside diameters, such as bushes A. U clamp
A. Solid type jig B. Bed
B. Box type jig C. Strap
C. Open type jig D. none of the above
D. Pot type jig
76. The following is(are) the advantage(s) of
70. The diameter of a rivet by Unwinn’s for- cast jigs or fixtures
mula for a plate of thickness 9mm
A. No heat treatments are required for
A. 12mm the cast jigs and fixtures
B. 15mm B. It prevents the occurrence of tool chat-
C. 24mm ter in milling
D. 18mm C. if cast jigs or fixture drops down, they
don’t get misaligned or de-shaped, al-
71. A device which holds, positions the work though it may break
and guides the tool
D. All of the above
A. chuck
B. jig 77. With the use of Jigs and fixture rate of
production will
C. fixture
A. Increase
D. none of the above
B. Decrease
72. To avoid wrong loading method is used C. Remains same
A. Fool proofing D. Jigs are not used in any production pro-
B. Clamping cess
C. redundant location 78. Fixtures are used in connection with
D. none of the above
A. drilling operation
73. Conical locators are used for locating B. reaming operation
A. Cylindrical objects C. tapping operation
B. Flat objects D. milling operation
C. Tapered holes or shafts
79. Which of the following sentences are true
D. None of the above for jigs and fixtures? 1. Using jigs and fix-
74. For easy loading and unloading of work ture produce work rapidly2. High speed,
piece must be considered. feed and depth of cut can be used in ma-
chining with the help of jigs and fixtures3.
A. Solid supports Jigs and fixture cannot be used in machin-
B. Location system ing of complex and heavy components
C. Rigidity of tool A. (1) and (2)
D. None of the above B. (2) and (3)

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1506

C. (1) and (3) C. Flat head

D. All of the (1), (2) and (3) D. Counter sunk head

80. Standard taper of taper key is 86. Jig is a device which

A. 1 in 50 A. Locates the workpiece

B. 1 in 40 B. Holds & supports the workpiece

C. Guides the cutting tool
C. 1 in 100
D. Does all the above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1 in30
87. Which of the following is not correct about
81. Size of steel pipe used is jig?
A. 10-1800mm A. It is used to hold the work
B. 20-1900mm B. It is used to position the work the work
C. 30-2000mm C. It is used to guide the cutting tool
D. 40-2100mm D. None of the mentioned

82. Which key is used for light duty work? 88. Which of the following statements related
to Cropiing Jigs?
A. saddle key
A. Sprue, gate and runner are rotated so
B. sunk key that they are separated from the product
C. feather key B. Gate is cut using a hot blade or circular
D. woodruff key saw
C. The suitable gate for this type of cut
83. An object in space is free to move in
is a cone shape where the smallest cone
such directions, which is its degrees of
area is connected to the product.
freedom.
D. It is a degating process for the series
A. 9 / branch of leftover material (sprue, gate
B. 8 and runner)
C. 10 89. method of location can arrest degrees
D. 12 of freedom
A. 6
84. The following jig can be used for several
different work pieces and operations B. 8
C. 9
A. Multi-station jig
D. 12
B. Universal jig
C. Index jig 90. With the use of Jigs and fixture quality
control expenses will
D. Template jig
A. Reduce
85. Which rivet is commonly used for struc- B. Increases
tural works
C. Jigs and fixture are not used in any pro-
A. Pan head duction process
B. Snap head D. None of the mentioned

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1507

91. Number of degree of freedom of a work- C. Dimensional

piece in space is equal to
D. None of these

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A. 10
B. 12 97. Which one of the following is used to clamp
the job in relation to the tool in mass pro-
C. 14 duction
D. 16 A. jig
E. 18
B. fixture
92. The best shape for location of a part for C. housing
hole profile is
D. guage
A. Conical Locator
B. Angular Locator 98. Taper on cotter varies from
C. Cylindrical Locator A. 1 in 10 to 1 in 6
D. Round Headed Locator B. 1 in 48 to 1 in 24

93. point location constrains no of DOF C. 1 in 28 to 1 in 24

A. 7 D. 1 in 24 to 1 in 20
B. 8 99. For preventing the wrong loading of a
C. 9 component, the methods used in design is
D. 10 termed as
A. 12 degrees of freedom
94. Which of the following is not correct about
fixture? B. 3-2-1 method of location
A. It is used to hold the work C. Fool proofing
B. It is used to position the work the work D. Indexing
C. It assures high accuracy of parts
100. In 3-2-1 method of location, primary da-
D. It is used to guide the cutting tool tum 3 pins and secondary datum 2 pins col-
lectivley restricts degrees of freedom
95. The system which holds the workpiece
against the cutting forces without causing A. 2
any damage to it, is called? B. 4
A. Clamping C. 6
B. Location
D. 8
C. None of this
D. 1 and 2 101. Keys are generally made of
A. mild steel
96. In a Jig or Fixture, location must be related
to the requirement. B. high carbon steel
A. Finish C. cas iron
B. Cost D. wrought iron

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1508

102. Which one of the following key used in C. Both a and b

autombile shaft?
D. None of these
A. gib head key
B. taper key 108. To locate the work piece, with a male
or female tapered portion from a tapered
C. woodruff key
hole or shaft locator is used.
D. hollow saddle key
A. cylindrical
103. A work piece can be positively arrested

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Conical
by means of 6 pins which is known as
C. Vee
A. 3-2-1 method of location
B. 9 point location D. Diamond pin

C. 8 point location 109. lathe mandrels can be termed as a

D. 5 point location A. jig
104. Redundant location can be avoided by B. fixture
A. using round pin locator C. guage
B. using flat locator
D. template
C. using diamond pin locator
D. none of the above 110. Which among the following is the most
accurate location?
105. Each possible direction of moment of
A. Diamond pin
work in a jig or fixture is considered as
B. Vee locator
A. Parallelism C. Nested locator
B. Perpendicularity D. Sight locator
C. Angularity
D. Degrees of freedom 111. V-Locator can constrain no of DOF
without U clamp
106. What is the function of functioning jigs A. 6
and fixtures?
B. 7
A. As a quality tester
B. the formation of the workpiece C. 8
C. the cutter points on the steel block D. 9
made of iron
112. Name the rivet head used for heavy fab-
D. equipment that will be the guidelines
rication work
of a workpiece
A. Flat head
107. Steel pipes are used for
B. Pan head
A. Water
C. Snap head
B. Water streem seewage or air at high
pressure D. Mushroom

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1509

113. To avoid redundant location, locator used 119. In steam engine the valve rod is con-
is nected to the eccentric by

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A. Cylindrical locator A. knuckle joint
B. Vee locator B. cotter joint
C. Diamond pin locator C. tum buckle

D. Conical locator D. coupling

120. A welded joint as compared to a riveted

114. Elbows and bends are provided at angle
joint has
A. A)90◦ A. Less strength
B. B)45◦ B. More strength
C. Both a and b C. Equal strength
D. None of these D. Comparison not required

115. Lead pipes are used for 121. Fixtures are used in
A. Acid. Transfer A. Milling
B. Water supply B. Shaping

C. Seewage C. Turning

D. Air D. All of the above

122. The following material is commonly used

116. cost of jig or fixture is denoted by for making locating and clamping devices
A. T1 A. High carbon steel
B. T2 B. Low carbon steel
C. K1 C. High speed steel
D. K2 D. Die steel

117. Location of a cylinder is performed by 123. The device which is used to remove work-
which of these? piece from close-fitting locators, after the
workpiece has been removed is called as
A. Conical locator
A. remover
B. Cylindrical locator
B. ejector
C. Vee locator
C. escaper
D. Adjustable locator
D. blocker
118. Standard lengths generally available in 124. A jig is a device used for
A. 5m-6m A. Holding the work
B. 4m-5m B. Guiding the tool
C. 3m-4m C. Loosening the work
D. 2m-3m D. None of these

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11.9 Jigs and Fixtures 1510

125. pins are in the first plane, 2-pins are in 131. Spot the odd one out
second plane and, 1-pin in the plane which A. feather key
perpendicular this location is called as
B. saddle key
A. 3-2-1 Principle of Location
C. woodruff key
B. Redundant Location
D. gib head key
C. Nested Location
D. Diamond pin Location 132. Work piece can be positively confined in
a jig or fixture if condition is satisfied.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
126. Fixture is a production device which A. 12 degrees of freedom
A. holds and locates the workpiece B. Redundant location
B. locate the workpiece C. Fool proofing
C. holds and locate the workpiece D. Sight locators
D. neither holds nor locates the work-
piece 133. For holding round section metal, tubes,
pipes etc vice is used
127. Which of the following is not the advan- A. bench vice
tage of jigs and fictures
B. pipe vice
A. Labor is less skilled
C. leg vice
B. the savings of labor force
D. none of these
C. increases the cost of production
D. simplify the quality control system 134. If thickness of a plate is ‘t’ then the di-
ameter of rivet is
128. How to make holes for taper pin? A. Root t
A. Drilling B. 6 root t
B. reaming