1: BLA

Part 1(20 points)

Questions 1-4 Complete the notes below:
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
NOTES ON SPORTS CLUB
Example answer: Name of club: ..........Kingswell
Facilities available:
Golf: 1------ Keep-fit -----------
2-- swimming
Classes available: Kick-boxing 3-------- yoga (classes)--------------
Additional facility: 4----------(a) salad bar ------------ (restaurant opening soon)
Questions 5-8 Complete the table below:
Write NO MORE THAN TWO NUMBERS for each answer.
MEMBERSHIP SCHEMES
Type Use of Cost of Times Joining fee Annual subscription fee
facilities classes
GOLD All Free Any time £250 5. £ -------
SILVER All 6. £-----500--- From 7. --10 (am)—to- 4.30 (pm) £225 £300
BRONZE Restricted £3 From 10.30 to 3.30 weekdays £50 8. £---180------
only
Question 9 and 10
Complete the sentences below:
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
9. To join the centre, you need to book an instructor’s --- assessment ---- .
10. To book a trial session, speak to David --- Kynchley -----. (0458 95311).
Part 2(10 points) Questions 11-16 What change has been made to each part of the theatre?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11-16.
RIVENDEN CITY THEATRE
A. doubled in number
B. given separate entrance
C. reduced in number
D. increased in size
E. replaced
F. strengthened
G. temporarily closed
Part of the theatre
11. box office............................. ---B--
12. shop..................................... ---G--
13. ordinary seats....................... --C----
14. seats for wheelchair users...... ---A----
15. lifts....................................... ---E----
16. dressing room....................... ------D--
Questions 17-20
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Play Dates Starting time Tickets available Price
Royal Hunt October 13th to 18.---7--pm For 19.--- Monday --- 20. £--18----
of the Sun and ---- Thursday ---
17. ------(October
(the)) 19th ---
Part I: You will hear a conversation between Peter and Jim talking about some details for the shared
accommodation.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)
PLAN FOR SHARING ACCOMODATION

Example: Answer:
The discussion topic lease for next year

The total rent: Peter £110 & Jim £ (1)……80……………………..

Car parking: in the (2) ……garage……………………..

A place to buy things: (3) …supermarket………………………..because Jim works

there

The fees they should share: (4) ……petrol…………………….. fees

The appliances needed: - The landlord will provide the microwave.

- The (5) ………heater…………………...is needed in the
kitchen.
- Peter will bring some dining room and living room furniture
- Jim will buy a (6) …toaster………………………..at the store

Location of the telephone: in the (7) …kitchen………………………..

Move-in date: (8) ………1st June…………………..

Watching the game together: (9) ……Fri eve……………………..

What Jim needs to do before the move-in: take (10) …exam……….. in the morning

Part II: You'll have an HR representative of “Earn and Learn” giving some information about her company
(10 points)
Questions 11-12
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
11. The program is made for travelers to make: ……money……………………
12. The program operates in cooperation with: ……school……………………

Questions 13-16
What is the internship stipulation of each country below?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 13-16.
Internship Stipulation
A. home stay
B. no summer program
C. minimum time requirement
D. formal report required
E. specific time period
F. agriculture
Country
13. USA : …E……….
14. Australia: …C……….
15. South Africa: …F……….
16. India: …A……….

Questions 17-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
17. What should you do to get the Global Traveling Certificate?
A. Record activity every day.
B. Formal report.
C.Talk the experience with the assessor.
18. You can apply for the certificate
A. only after you come back.
B. while on the trip.
C. before you leave.
19. When should you pay the final installment?
A. The day before you leave.
B. One month before you return.
C. Before you can get your plane ticket.
20. Before your application, you need
A. to take a health check.
B. to attend the workshop.
C. to meet people with whom you will work.
DE 2:
SECTION A. LISTENING (20 points)
Part I: Listen to the conversation about note-taking, and write down the missing information in the notes. (10
points)

Note-taking skills
1. You can copy (1) ………anything……… that is written (2) on the board…………… or on overhead
transparencies. Test questions often (3) …come………….. from material that is presented in these ways.
2. You’d better (4) ……organize………. the notes after class.
3. Try to summarise the points in your (5) ……own words……… It will be easier for you to remember your
notes.
4. You should (6) …review………… your notes to fill in gaps while the information is still (7) …fresh………
in your mind. The purpose of taking notes is to help you (8) remember………….. information.
5. If you seem to be missing something, you should (9) compare…………. Notes with your classmate or see the
(10) ……instructor………….

Part II: Listen to a talk on tuition fees. (10 points)

Questions 11- 15. Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D
11. When are tuition fees going to increase?
A. October 2000 B. December 2000
C. September 2001 D. December 2001
12. The reasons that cause the fees to increase:
A. Faculties and staff salaries have increased
B. International students office has been enlarged
C. New faculty has been added in the home office
D. Tuition fees have been increased in many other universities
13. Since 1998, the tuition fees __________
A. have been increased many times B. have been increased once only
C. have been increased continually D. have never been increased
14. The University College of the Caribou is raising its fees to _________
A. $ 3,600 per term B. $ 3,800 per term
C. $ 13,800 per term D. $ 13,800 per year
15. At many instituitions, the tuition fees for academic courses _______
A. in the first two years are higher than those in the last two years
B. in the last two years are higher than those in the first two years
C. for the four years are the same
D. are different in each year
Questions 16 and 20: Write T for true statement or F for false one.
16. The university has decided to charge the same tuition for all four years. …T…………..
17. The speaker would like to discuss only the fees with students in the …F…………..
office.
18. The speaker’s office is in Building 539 …F…………..
19. The university values the students’ opinion. …T…………..
20. Students can phone 741-2755 ……F………..

DE 3:
SECTION A – LISTENING (30 points)
There are three parts of the listening section. You will hear each part twice.
Part I – You will hear a radio interview about the Black Death. For questions 1-6, choose the best answer A, B,
C or D (12 points).
1. What does the interviewer say about the Black Death?
A. It has killed more people than any other plague.
B. It is the most recent form of plague to affect Europe.
C. It has been completely wiped out.
D. It mainly affected people in medieval London.
2. What did the research Sue talks about involve?
A. digging up a whole graveyard
B. examining victims' bone structure
C. conducting tests on bacteria from plague victims’ bones and teeth
D. taking samples from skeletons of victims in various locations
3. How many people are infected by the Black Death today?
A. 13,000 B. 3,000 C. 30,000,000 D. 1340
4. What conclusion have researchers drawn about the Black Death?
A. It’s just as deadly today as it was in the past.
B. It has changed very sightly since medieval times.
C. It affects people in more countries than it used to.
D. It is now much more deadly than it was in the past.
5. There are fewer deaths from the plague today because
A. the symptoms are less severe.
B. it is treatable with antibiotics.
C. there are fewer rodents than in medieval times.
D. people in general are more knowledgeable about its causes.
6. How did a 50-year-old man contract the plague?
A. He was bitten by an infected cat. B. He touched a dead mouse.
C. He was bitten by fleas. D. It is not clear.
Part II – Listen to a woman speaking about solar panels and decide whether the statements are True or False
(10 points).
1. The woman says they installed solar panels as they wanted to use a form of clean energy. F
2. They were promised that they would have to pay less for electricity. T
3. The company made a mistake with the number of panels they could install. F
4. The woman hadn't taken into consideration repairs that would need to be done to the panels. T
5. The woman's husband regrets not choosing more modern panels. T
Part III – You will hear someone talking about a project on an alternative form of fuel. For questions 1-8,
complete the sentences with a word or a short phrase (8 points).
1. The students on Project BioBus intend to cover _____________ over 24,000 km ____ on their tour.
2. According to the speaker, biodiesel comes from ___ vegetable oil ______________.
3. The aim of school visits is _________ to demonstrate ________ how easily biodiesel can be used in school buses.
4. The BioBus heads for fast food restaurants for __ refueling _______________.
5. As biodiesel is a clean burning fuel, _____ harmful emissions ____________ from school buses can be greatly
reduced.
6. The __________ production (process)_______ of biodiesel forms part of a science demonstration in schools labs.
7. The team members ________ divide _________ their daily tasks up while traveling.
8. The speaker describes the team's daily programme as ___ hectic ______________.
SECTION A. LISTENING (20 points)
Part 1. For questions from 1-5, listen to a radio interview with two recruitment experts, Judie Bradwell and Gary
Smart about how candidates should behave at job interviews, and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according
to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.(10 pts)
1. What is Jodie’s opinion of the research she mentions?
A. She’s skeptical about it.
B. She’s very impressed by it.
C. She regards it as unrealistic.
D. She doubts how influential it will be.
2. Gary fears that the research they are discussing could lead to______
A. over-complicated recruitment procedures.
B. inappropriate behaviour at job interviews.
C. people taking job interviews too seriously.
D. the wrong people being selected at interviews.
3. Jodie reminds Gary that the research deals with______
A. attitudes that interviewers are unaware of.
B. issues that interviewers discuss after the interview.
C. impressions that may be adjusted during an interview.
D. behaviour that may help identify the weaker candidates.
4. According to Jodie, how do interviewers respond to candidates’ body language?
A. They notice when people behaving unnaturally.
B. They are looking for signs of positive character traits.
C. They are suspicious when it doesn’t match what they hear.
D. They make allowances for the fact that people are nervous.
5. In conclusion, what advice does Jodie give candidates about body language?
A. It’s a good idea to practice sending out the right signals.
B. It should be adjusted to match that of the interviewers.
C. It shouldn’t be something you worry about too much.
D. It’s better not to think about it during the interview.
II. You will hear part of an interview with Paul Wrightsman, the director of ‘Scubatours’, a tour company
which specialises in diving holidays. He is discussing the contents of a recent environmental report
about coral reefs. For questions 1–5, complete the notes with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A
NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces. (10 points)
CORAL REEFS AT RISK
1. Reefs affected worldwide approximately (a)…… 60 ………… per cent, especially South-East Asia and (b)……
the Caribbean ………………
2. There is no telling whether the statistic will (a)……… stampede ………………
customers from booking scuba-diving holidays, or will dissuade (b)…… ecologically – minded ………………...
clients from going on diving holidays.
3. Causes of the problem:
 Construction of airports and harbours
 (a) ……… Sewage discharge …………………….
 (b) ……… Over – fishing …………………….
4. ▪ Pollution from (a)…………… fertilizers …………… and (b) ………………… oil spills …………..
5. ▪Catching fish by means of (a)……… dynamiting (dynamite) ………………….and (b)…… cyanide
………………..........
The interview with Paul Wrightsman continues. For questions 6–10, decide which statements are true and
which are false. Write T if you think the statement is true and F if you think it is false. Write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes.
6. Fish are inevitably threatened with extinction as a result of tourists visiting coral reefs. F
7. Many countries with coral reefs earn most of their income from tourism. T
8. Irresponsible tourists might be tempted to damage coral reefs. T
9. Tour operators are unable to influence hotel’s environmental politics. F
10. Cleaning up the environment in areas with coral reefs is not cost-effective in the long term. F
SECTION A. LISTENING (20 points)
Part 1. (10 pts) You will hear part of a discussion between two well-known business people, Sam Boland and
Jimmy Glynn, and a radio current affairs show host about a recent newspaper article on the subject of jobless
graduation. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
Write your answer in the space provided.
1. What does Jimmy say about the qualifications graduate jobseekers have?
A. they help them avoid having to take 'survival jobs'
B. few graduates are sufficiently qualified for the jobs available
C. few degrees teach skills relevant in the workplace
D. they are not really an advantage in the present job market
2. Why is Sam wary of employing graduates in his own company?
A. their superior performance can lead to workplace hostility
B. they can have a damaging effect on the chemistry of their team
C. he prefers to hire unskilled workers and invest in training
D. they only accept positions above lesser-skilled employees
3. In what respect have things changed since the speakers were job-seeking graduates?
A. jobseekers used not to lie about their qualifications
B. jobseekers used to pretend they had better qualifications
C. jobseekers used to be far fresher and more enthusiastic
D. jobseekers used not to mind dumbing down their CVs
4. Why does Jimmy have some sympathy for graduates?
A. he admires their sense of entitlement
B. they were too young to understand what they voted for
C. they have accumulated huge debts at college
D. they are victims of other people's incompetence.
5. Jimmy believes that college-goers of the future should
A. not rule out the Arts and Humanities.
B. work for foreign in preference to local firms
C. choose their courses of study carefully.
D. be selective about where they study.
Part 2. (10 pts) You will hear an interview with a psychologist about friendships. For questions 6-10, listen
and decide whether the following sentences are true (T) or false (F).
6. According to the presenter, we have to adjust our friendship as our lives changes 6. T7. F8. F9. F10. T
7. Barbara warns that foul-weather friends never want you to be happy
8. The danger of a trophy friend is that he/she will inhibit your social life.
9. A sisterly friend will be as close to your family as she is to you.
10. According to Barbara, a good friend doesn’t expend too much of your time and energy.
Task 2: Complete the summary by filling in the missing information.
CLASS CLARIFICATIONS
Before you come to class, you are supposed to (1) ___ read the material __________________ to be able to follow
the lecture.
All assignments must be (2) ___________ typewritten _________ and _______ submitted _____________ on the
due date to receive full credit.
The grade for a(n) (3) ________ late assignment _____________ will be lowered by one letter per day past the due
date.
All exams must be completed (4) ______ on schedule _____________________. Unexpected absence must be
reported to the teacher via (5) ________ phone_____________ (either home or office) and/or ___________ email
____________.
A(n) (6) _____________ make-up exam _________ must be arranged within 7 days of the scheduled date.
Questions on the regular exam are usually multiple-choice ones, while makeups are always (7) ___________ short
answer ______________ tests.
In the class, your (8) _______ seat(s)_____ will be assigned.
Your attendance accounts for (9) ____________15%___________ of the final score.
You can request an incomplete for (10) ______ illness _________ or other _______ personal problems
DE 3:
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (30 POINTS)
PART 1: Read the sentences below. You are going to hear two women talking about a holiday in France. Read
the sentences, and choose the best option: A, B, or C, to complete the statements about the recording.
1. Paula's friend says that
A. she has been ill. B. Paula doesn't look very well. C. she's pleased to see Paula.

2. Before the trip, Paula

A. was enthusiastic about It. B. wanted to go to the Lake District. C. didn't tell anybody she was going.

3. Before Mark and Paula went to Paris,

A. Mark's boss didn't want him to go.
B. Paula arranged for somebody to look after the hamster.
C. Paula's sister promised to look after the children.

4. The journey across the Channel

A. was very smooth. B. was unpleasant for Paula. C. lasted eight hours.

5. The return trip from Paris was

A. disturbed by a flood. B. an enjoyable experience. C. earlier than planned.

PART 2: Read the statements and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F).
1. The speaker has come from the Theosophical Society.
2. One of the main points of the talk is to save money.
3. She thinks students should do more housework.
4. She argues that plastic containers won't biodegrade quickly.
5. She warns that asthma sufferers should be careful with her recipes.

PART 3: You are going to hear two separate recordings about the uses of plastics.
1-5: Complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words or number for each space
1. According to the speaker, the three factors contributing to the success of plastics today are safety, __________ and
______________.
2. _______________ and other food products are wrapped in plastic to protect them from contamination.
3. The use of plastics in major appliances ensures that they will _________________ corrosion.
4. Experts have calculated that a kilo of plastic packaging can lead to a reduction of ________ in wasted food.
5. Plastic parts have made air conditioners as much as ___________________ more efficient since the 1970s.
6-10: Complete the notes. Write no more than three words of numbers in each space.
A history of plastic bag
1957 introduction of (6) _______________
1966 Around one third of packaging in (7) ___________ consists of plastic bags
1969 ‘New York City Experiment’:
(8) __________________ collected in plastic bags
(9) _______________ Plastic grocery bags first manufactured commercially
 2002 New Irish tax of (10) ______________ per carrier bag
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (30 POINTS)
PART 1: Read the sentences below. You are going to hear two women talking about a holiday in France. Read
the sentences, and choose the best option: A, B, or C, to complete the statements about the recording.
1. Paula's friend says that
A. she has been ill. B. Paula doesn't look very well. C. she's pleased to see Paula.

2. Before the trip, Paula

A. was enthusiastic about It. B. wanted to go to the Lake District. C. didn't tell anybody she was going.

3. Before Mark and Paula went to Paris,

A. Mark's boss didn't want him to go.
B. Paula arranged for somebody to look after the hamster.
C. Paula's sister promised to look after the children.

4. The journey across the Channel

A. was very smooth. B. was unpleasant for Paula. C. lasted eight hours.

5. The return trip from Paris was

A. disturbed by a flood. B. an enjoyable experience. C. earlier than planned.

PART 2: Read the statements and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F).
1. The speaker has come from the Theosophical Society. F
2. One of the main points of the talk is to save money. T
3. She thinks students should do more housework. F
4. She argues that plastic containers won't biodegrade quickly. T
5. She warns that asthma sufferers should be careful with her recipes. F

PART 3: You are going to hear two separate recordings about the uses of plastics.
1-5: Complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words or number for each space
1. According to the speaker, the three factors contributing to the success of plastics today are safety, ______
performance (and) value ____ and ______ Meat
6. ________.
7. ________ resist _______ and other food products are wrapped in plastic to protect them from contamination.
8. The use of plastics in major appliances ensures that they will _________________ corrosion.
9. Experts have calculated that a kilo of plastic packaging can lead to a reduction of ____3.74 kilos ____ in wasted
food.
10. Plastic parts have made air conditioners as much as ___ fifty percent ________________ more efficient since the
1970s.
6-10: Complete the notes. Write no more than three words of numbers in each space.
A history of plastic bag
1957 introduction of (6) ____(the) sandwich bag ___________
1966 Around one third of packaging in (7) __(the) bread industry _________
consists of plastic bags
1969 ‘New York City Experiment’:
(8) __ garbage/trash/refuse or rubbish ________________ collected in
plastic bags
(9) Plastic grocery bags first manufactured commercially
________1973_______
2002 New Irish tax of (10) ____15 cents __________ per carrier bag

DE KBB

SECTION A- LISTENING (20 points)

Section 1. Complete the note below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER. (10 points)
THE NATIONAL ART CENTRE
Well known for : 1............. classical music/ (classical/music)
concerts..............
Complex consists of: concert rooms
theatres
cinemas
art galleriess
public library
restaurants
a 2.......... bookshop/bookstore....................
Historical background: 1940- area destroyed by bombs
1960s- 1970s- Centre was 3 ......... planned........... and built

Managed by: the 4............ City Council.......................

Open: 5 .......... 363................. days per year

Section 2: Choose the best answer for each question below. (10 points)
6. Paul wanted to get work experience in South America because he wanted
A. to teach English there. B. to improve his Spanish. C. to learn about Latin American life
7. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in ?
A. construction B. Agriculture C. tourism
8. Why did Paul change from one project to another?
A. His first job was not well organized. B. He found doing the routine work very boring.
C. The work was too physically demanding.
9. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to
A. respect family life B. develop trust C. use money wisely
10. What does Paul say about his project manager?
A. He let Paul do most of the work. B. His plans were too ambitious. C. He was very supportive of Paul
SECTION A : LISTENING (20 points)
Part 1. Listen and write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. (10 points)
PRIME RECRUITMENT
Employee record
Surname: Riley
Email: (1) ____ EDWINARI / edwinari [email protected]
Nationality: (2) _____ New zealander ______________
Reference (professional): Name: John Keen
Job: manager of (3) ____ play centre / play centre _______________
Reference ( personal): Name: Eileen Dorsini
Job: (4) ______(a) professor _____________
Special qualifications: Current (5) ______ first aid _____________ certificate
Certificate of competence in sailing.

Part 2. You will hear part of a psychologist being interviewed about friendship. Choose the answer (A, B C or
D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points)
6. From three to five years old, children ________
A. are happy to play alone. B. prefer to be with their family.
C. have rather selfish relationships D. have little idea of ownership.
7. From age five to eight or ten, children ________
A. change their friends more often.
B. decide who they want to be friends with.
C. admire people who don‟t keep to rules.
D. learn to be tolerant of their friends.
8. According to Sarah Browne, adolescents ________
A. may be closer to their friends than to their parents.
B. develop an interest in friends of the opposite sex.
C. choose friends with similar personalities to themselves.
D. want friends who are dependable.
9. Young married couple ________
A. tend to focus on their children. B. often lose touch with their friends.
C. make close friends less easily. D. need fewer friends than single people.
10. In middle or old age people generally prefer ________
A. to stay in touch with old friends. B. to see younger friends more often.
C. to have friends who live nearby. D. to spend more time with their friends.

DE 2:
SECTION A: LISTENING
Questions 1-5 : Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
1. Why did a port originally develop at Manham?
A.It was safe from enemy attack.
B It was convenient for river transport.
C It had a good position on the sea coast.

2. What caused Manham’s sudden expansion during the Industrial Revolution?

A the improvement in mining techniques
B the increase in demand for metals
C the discovery of tin in the area

3. Why did rocks have to be sent away from Manham to be processed?

A shortage of fuel
B poor transport systems
C lack of skills among local people

4. What happened when the port declined in the twentieth century?

A The workers went away.
B. Traditional skills were lost.
C Buildings were used for new purposes.

5. What did the Manham Trust hope to do?

A discover the location of the original port
B provide jobs for the unemployed
C rebuild the port complex
Questions 6-10
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Tourist attractions in Manham

Place Featres and activities Advice

specially adapted miners’ .... trains ..........

the mine is .... dark.......(7) and enclosed -
(6) take visitors into
copper mine unsuitable for children and animals
the mountain
 classrooms and a special exhibition of ...... a........ guided tour ...(9).. ended
village school
games .........(8)

The George’ (old the ship’s wheel (was lost but has now been
children shouldn’t use the ....(10)... ladder/ladders
sailing ship) restored)
SECTION 1 (10pts)
Questions 1-4
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

NOTES ON SOCIAL PROGRAMME

Example Number of trips per month Answer 5
Visit places which have:
 historical interest
 good 1. _______ Shopping ___________
 2. _______ Guided tours ________________
Cost: between 5.00 pounds and 15.00 pounds per person
Note: special trips organised for groups of 3. ______ More than 12___________ people
Time: departure – 8.30 a.m. and return – 6.00 p.m.
To reserve a seat: sign name on the 4. __ Notice board _____________ 3 days in advance
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

WEEKEND TRIPS
Place Date Number of Optional extra
seats
St Ives 5. ______13th February 16 Hepworth Museum
________
London 16th February 45 6. ____ Tower of London
_________
7. ________ Bristol 3rd March 18 S.S. Great Britain
_______
Salisbury 18th March 50 Stonehenge
Bath 23rd March 16 8. __ American museum
___________
For further information:
Read the 9. ___________ student newspaper ______ or see Social Assistant: Jane 10. _____
Yentob ____________

SECTION 2 (10pts)
Questions 11 -20
You will hear a talk by a tour guide about travel to Enzia.
Complete the notes by filling in the blanks with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each
answer.
Notes
VISAS
Now Eznina visas are needed by almost all nationalities.
Normal visas last 11. _______90 days _______________
You need to pay 12. ___________30 pounds ___________ for the visa.
Price may change from time to time
Some Enzian consulates neighbouring countries require you to provide a letter to 13. _________ Confirm
your nationality ________
You can get information of major embassies on 14. ______ Page 13________________ of the student
handbook.
If you want to re-enter Eznia, you must get a multi-entry visa.

SOME MISCELLANEOUS GENERAL ADVICE

If you carry a lot of money, you need to complete a 15. ________________ Currency form ______
Remember to declare all your items, especially expensive items, on a 16. ______ Tourist export form
________________
You are advised to carry a health certificate. The one you need is the 17. _________ BM276_____________

NOTES FOR STUDENTS

If you wish to get a youth fare card, you should show your 18. _____ International student card
_________________
Due to the bureaucracy in Eznia, you are advised to take at least 19. _______12_______________ passport
photos with you.

CURRENCY
Pounds and US dollars are not very useful now in Eznia, so you should take 20. ___Yen, Australian
dollar___________________ or with you.
Credit cards are not acceptable because of fraud scandals.

SECTION A. LISTENING (20 points)

Part I : You will hear a man telephoning a library to find out about joining. Listen and complete the
form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear
the recording TWICE. (10 points)

LIBRARY INFORMATION
 For registration, must take
- two(1)_____ (passport) photos/ (passport) photographs __________and
- two forms of I.D. E.g. driving license, (2)____ (a) bank statement _________
 Cost to join per year(with out current student card): (3) £_____125 (per
year)________
 Number of items allowed: (members of public)(4)______ 8_________
 Loan times: four weeks
 Fines start at (5) £_____1.50__________
 Computers can be booked up to (6)___ 48____________hours in advance
Library holds most national papers, al l(7)____ local papers/ local newspapers
________,and magazines
 Need(8)____ (a) card/ cards ___________to use photocopier
Answer
 Creative Writing class
- tutor is John(9)______ Grantingham ________
- held on(10)_____ Friday ________evenings

Part II: You will hear a student called Shona giving a presentation on her research report. Listen and choose
the best answer A, B, or C. You will hear the recording TWICE. (10 points)
1. In order to set up her research programme, Shona got .
A. advice from personal friends in other countries
B. help from students in other countries
 C. information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries
2. What types of people were included in the research?
A. young people in their first job
B. men who were working
C. women who were unemployed
3. Shona says that in her questionnaire her aim was .
A. to get a wide range of data
B. to limit people's responses
C. to guide people through interviews
4. What do Shona’s initial results show about medical services in Britain?
A. Current concerns are misrepresented by the press.
B. Financial issues are critical to the government.
C. Reforms within hospitals have been unsuccessful.
5. Shona needs to do further research in order to .
A. present the government with her findings
B. decide the level of extra funding needed
C. identify the preferences of the public
SECTION A- LISTENING (30 points)
Part I. Part I. You will hear a talk about New City developments, listen and choose the best answers A, B, C or D.
Write your answer in the numbered blanks given bellow.
(10 points)
New city developments
1. What is unusual about Brackenside pool?
A. its architectural style B. its heating system
C. its method of water treatment D. its method of air treatment
2. Local newspapers have raised worries about
A. the late opening date. B. the post of the project
C. the size of the facilities. D. the competition for the public
3. What decision has not yet been made about the pool?
A. whose statue will be at the door B. the exact opening times
C. who will open it D. the unique design
4. The Central Park Playground has just won
A. the Global Village Award. B. The unique design Award
C. The representative feature of the City. D. the Douglas Award for safety
5. Which is NOT TRUE about The Central Park Playground
A. The designers did want to avoid being too literal
B. El Dorado are games replicating the search for mines full of precious stones.
C. Eastwards to Europe is the most modern choice of all the areas
D. The opening date for our Global Playground is 10th July
Part II. You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman about Transport. Listen and complete the notes
below.
Write ONE WORD OR NUMBERS/ LETTERS for each answer. Write your answer on the numbered blanks
given below. (10 points)

Transport Survey
Travelled to town today: (0) by bus
Name: Luisa (1) ____ Hardie _____
Address: (2) ____19____ White Stone Rd
Area: Bradfield
Postcode: (3) ____ GT82LC _____
Occupation: (4) _____ hairdresser ____
Reason for visit to town: to go to the (5) ___ dentist/ dentist’s ______
Suggestions for improvement:
 better (6) ____ lighting _____
  have more footpaths
 more frequent (7) __ trains _______
Things that would encourage cycling to work:
 having (8) ___ safe ______ parking places for bicycles
 being able to use a (9) ___ shower ______ at work
 the opportunity to have cycling (10) ____ training _____ on busy roads
Part III. You will hear a talk about CULTURE. Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
Write your answer on the numbered blanks given below. (10 points)
1. The speaker knows the reason he is interested in the culture of other countries. F
2. When he travels, he learns wonderful, strange, amazing and interested things about other cultures. T
3. He knew that Americans had the same culture as him. F
4. Understanding the culture of other people is very important because it helps us all to work better. F
5. The speaker thinks everyone is trying to learn about other cultures. T
SECTION A: LISTENING (30 points)
Part I. You will hear a young student asking the social organizer of his school for information about organized
trips. (20 points)
Question 1-10: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER
for each answer.

NOTES ON SOCIAL PROGRAMME

Number of trips per month: (1) ………5……………

Cost: between (2) ………. £5.00 …………… and (3) …£15.00……………
per person
Note: special trips organized for groups of (4) … more than 12……… people
Time: departure – 8.30 a.m.
return – 6.00 p.m.
To reserve a seat: sign name on the (5) …… notice board …… 3 days in advance

WEEKEND TRIPS
Place Date Number of seats Optional extra

St Ives 13th February 16 Hepworth Museum

London 16th February (6) …45…….. The Tower of London

(7)……… 3rd March 18 S.S Great Britain

Bristol…
Salisbury 18th March 50 (8) … Stonehenge ………
Bath (9) 23rd March 16 American Museum

For further information:

Read the student newspaper or see Social Assistant: Jane (10) …… Yentob …………

Part II. You will hear part of an interview with a woman called Barbara Darby, who works as a casting
director in the film industry. Choose the option (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
(10 points)

1. According to Barbara, a casting director needs above all ______.

A. to learn from experience B. to be a good communicator
C. to have a relevant qualification D. to have a natural feel for the job
2. Barbara says that she looks for actors who ______.
A. can play a variety of roles B. complement each other
C. accept her way of working D. think deeply about a part
 3. At which stage in the casting process does Barbara meet the actors?
A. before she goes to see them performing live
B. once the director has approved them
C. before a final short list is drawn up
D. as soon as a final selection is made
4. Barbara explains that what motivates her now is a need for ______.
A. personal satisfaction B. professional recognition
C. a glamorous lifestyle D. financial security
5. What made Barbara give up her job for a while?
A. She'd become tired of travelling.
B. She was ready to try something new.
C. She felt she'd been put under too much pressure.
D. She found that she was no longer as committed to it.
SECTION A : LISTENING (20 points)
Part I. Questions 1-10
You will hear two colleagues Joan and Peter organising a Christmas dinner. As you listen, complete the form
below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each numbered blank.

NOTES – Christmas Dinner

Date of dinner: 21 December

Choices for venue:
* First choice (1) ……… Rajdoot …………………………Tel. number: not know
* Second choice (2) ……………… Park View (Hotel)…………………Tel. number: 777192
*Third choice (3) …………London Arms…………… Tel. number: (4). ………
208657……………
Price per person: £12
Restaurant must have vegetarian food and a (5) … no/non-smoking section/ area ……………..
…………..
Menu: First course - French Onion Soup OR Fruit Juice
Main course - (6) …………… Roast Dinner … OR Lentil curry
Dessert - Plum Pudding OR Apple Pie
- Coffee
Restaurant requires from us:
(7). ……£50 deposit/ 50 pound(s) deposit/ deposit (of) £50/ 50 pound(s)………… and letter of
confirmation.
And we must (8)……… choose (the) menu …………… in advance.
Must confirm in writing by: (9) ……4 November/ 4th (of) November …………..
Put notice in the (10) ……… Newsletter …………

You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer about her life in Berlin, the capital of Germany.
For each question, choose the best answer A, B or C.
11. How long has Britta lived in Berlin?
A. four years B. six years C. twenty years
12. What does Britta say about living in Berlin?
A. She can’t sleep at night because of the traffic noise.
B. She misses the museums and theatres in Bonn.
C. She likes living in a big, busy city.
13. The area of Berlin where Britta lives is ____ .
A. a rather expensive place to live.
B. a good place to eat out.
C. a long way from the city centre.
14. How does Britta usually travel around in Berlin?
A. She walks. B. She uses her bicycle. C. She uses the tram or bus.
15. Britta says that her nephew, Philippe, likes going______
A. to the park with her. B. to the shops with his parents. C. to a gallery with her.

Part III: Questions 16 - 20

You are going to listen to a talk about the Student Union. As you listen, fill in the gaps in the notes below by
writing NO MORE THAN ONE WORD.
All fulltime students automatically belong to the Student Union and have full voting and membership rights. Part-
time students also have (16) ___ access ____ to what the Union has to offer. Further details of this are available from
the Student Union offices. The Union is (17) ____affiliated ___ to the NUS, which represents students on a nationwide
level. Students can take advantage of reduce price travel facilities and a wide range of reductions on (18) __ consumer
_____ goods, through the Student (19) ___ discount ____ Card. The Social Committee of The Student Union organizes
dances and other entertainments, including the Folk Club, Womb Cinema, and the Third Eye, which caters for a more
developed taste in music, theatre, art and poetry. The Student Union also finances over twenty clubs and societies for a
wide range of (20) ___ interests ____. You can get details of these from the Student Union offices.