Foriegn Exchange Exposure & Risk Management
Foriegn Exchange Exposure & Risk Management
1. INTRODUCTION
Coupled with globalization of business, the raising of capital from the international capital markets
has assumed significant proportion during the recent years. The volume of finance raised from
international capital market is steadily increasing over a period of years, across the national
boundaries. Every day new institutions are emerging on the international financial scenario and
introducing new derivative financial instruments (products) to cater to the requirements of
multinational organizations and the foreign investors.
To accommodate the underlying demands of investors and capital raisers, financial institutions and
instruments have also changed dramatically. Financial deregulation, first in the United States and
then in Europe and Asia, has prompted increased integration of world financial markets. As a result
of the rapidly changing scenario, the finance manager today has to be global in his approach.
In consonance with these remarkable changes, the Government of India has also opened Indian
economy to foreign investments and has taken a number of bold and drastic measures to globalize
the Indian economy. Various fiscal, trade and industrial policy decisions have been taken and new
avenues provided to foreign investors like Foreign Institutional Investors (FII's) and NRI's etc., for
investment especially in infrastructural sectors like power and telecommunication etc.
The basic principles of financial management i.e., efficient allocation of resources and raising of
funds on most favourable terms and conditions etc. are the same, both for domestic and international
enterprises. However, the difference lies in the environment in which these multi-national
organizations function. The environment relates to political risks, Government's tax and investment
policies, foreign exchange risks and sources of finance etc. These are some of the crucial issues
which need to be considered in the effective management of international financial transactions and
investment decisions.
Under the changing circumstances as outlined above, a finance manager, naturally cannot just be a
silent spectator and wait and watch the developments. He has to search for "best price" in a global
market place (environment) through various tools and techniques. Sometimes he uses currency and
other hedges to optimize the utilization of financial resources at his command.
However, the problems to be faced by him in the perspective of financial management of the
multinational organizations are slightly more complex than those of domestic organizations. While
the concepts developed earlier in the previous chapters are also applicable here, the environment
in which decisions are made in respect of international financial management is different and it forms
the subject matter of this chapter for discussion. In this chapter we shall describe how a finance
manager can protect his organization from the vagaries of international financial transactions.
An exchange rate is, simply, the price of one nation’s currency in terms of another currency, often
termed the reference currency. For example, the rupee/dollar exchange rate is just the number of
rupees that one dollar will buy. If a dollar will buy 100 rupees, the exchange rate would be expressed
as ` 100/$ and the rupee would be the reference currency.
Equivalently, the dollar/ rupee exchange rate is the number of dollars one rupee will buy. Continuing
the previous example, the exchange rate would be $0.01/` (1/100) and the dollar would now be the
reference currency. Exchange rates can be for spot or forward delivery.
The foreign exchange market includes both the spot and forward exchange rates. The spot rate is
the rate paid for delivery within two business days after the day the transaction takes place. If the
rate is quoted for delivery of foreign currency at some future date, it is called the forward rate. In the
forward rate, the exchange rate is established at the time of the contract, though payment and
delivery are not required until maturity. Forward rates are usually quoted for fixed periods of 30, 60,
90 or 180 days from the day of the contract.
(a) The Spot Market: The most common way of stating a foreign exchange quotation is in terms of
the number of units of foreign currency needed to buy one unit of home currency. Thus, India quotes
its exchange rates in terms of the amount of rupees that can be exchanged for one unit of foreign
currency.
Illustration 1
If the Indian rupee is the home currency and the foreign currency is the US Dollar then what is the
exchange rate between the rupee and the US dollar?
Solution
One can buy 0.0217 US dollars for one Indian rupee.
` 46.08 Indian rupees are needed to buy one US dollar.
(b) The Forward Market: A forward exchange contract occurs when buyers and sellers of currencies
agree to deliver the currency at some future date. They agree to transact a specific amount of
currency at a specific rate at a specified future date. The forward exchange rate is set and agreed
by the parties and remains fixed for the contract period regardless of the fluctuations in the spot
exchange rates in future. The forward exchange transactions can be understood by an example.
A US exporter of computer peripherals might sell computer peripherals to a German importer with
immediate delivery but not require payment for 60 days. The German importer has an obligation to
pay the required dollars in 60 days, so he may enter into a contract with a trader (typically a local
banker) to deliver Euros for dollars in 60 days at a forward rate – the rate today for future delivery.
So, a forward exchange contract implies a forward delivery at specified future date of one currency
for a specified amount of another currency. The exchange rate is agreed today, though the actual
transactions of buying and selling will take place on the specified date only. The forward rate is not
the same as the spot exchange rate that will prevail in future. The actual spot rate that may prevail
on the specified date is not known today and only the forward rate for that day is known. The actual
spot rate on that day will depend upon the supply and demand forces on that day. The actual spot
rate on that day may be lower or higher than the forward rate agreed today.
An Indian exporter of goods to London could enter into a forward contract with his banker to sell
pound sterling 90 days from now. This contract can also be described as a contract to purchase
Indian Rupees in exchange for delivery of pound sterling. In other words, foreign exchange markets
are the only markets where barter happens – i.e., money is delivered in exchange for money.
assigned codes to currencies of each country. These codes are 3 lettered codes and are used
internationally in cross border communications. Some of the common codes used in
communication are as follows:
SWIFT uses common language for financial transactions and uses a centralized data processing
system. It is important to note that SWIFT is only a standardized communication system and
not a transaction settlement system.
The SWIFT connects various financial institutions in more than 200 countries. The SWIFT plays
an important role in Foreign Exchange dealings because of the following reasons:
∗ In addition to validation statements and documentation it is a form of quick settlement as
messaging takes place within seconds.
∗ Because of security and reliability helps to reduce Operational Risk.
∗ Since it enables its customers to standardise transaction it brings operational efficiencies and
reduced costs.
∗ It also ensures full backup and recovery system.
∗ Acts as a catalyst that brings financial agencies to work together in a collaborative manner for
mutual interest.
(c) There are problems of reliability, delivery, and limited payment avenues and general lack of trust
among customers, and doubts about the service provider.
Similar to domestic payment gateways there are International Payment Gateways that offers
global/multi-currency payments, as well as an interface with multiple languages. Chances of
customer conversion increases when a prospective customer sees the price of a product or
service in their currency. International Payment Gateways let merchants offer their international
customers the ability to pay in the currency they know best – their own. These Payment
gateways not only accelerate but also make international payments and transactions easy.
Customers can easily benchmark prices if it is quoted in their own currency. If anybody travels
to the US or China or the UK or any other country, any expenditure is preceded by a conversion
to the Indian rupee.
It should however be noted that all dealings whether delivery has taken place or not effects the
Exchange Position but Cash Position is effected only when actual delivery has taken place.
Therefore, all transactions affecting Cash position will affect Exchange Position not vice versa.
Illustration 2
Suppose you are a dealer of ABC Bank and on 20.10.2014 you found that balance in your Nostro
account with XYZ Bank in London is £65,000 and you had overbought £35,000. During the day
following transaction have taken place:
£
DD purchased 12,500
Purchased a Bill on London 40,000
Sold forward TT 30,000
Forward purchase contract cancelled 15,000
Remitted by TT 37,500
Draft on London cancelled 15,000
What steps would you take, if you are required to maintain a credit Balance of £7,500 in the Nostro
A/c and keep as overbought position on £7,500?
Solution
Exchange Position:
To maintain Cash Balance in Nostro Account at £7,500 you have to sell £20,000 in Spot which will
bring Overbought exchange position to Nil. Since bank require Overbought position of £7,500 it has
to buy the same in forward market.
The following table is an extract from the Bloomberg website showing the Foreign Exchange Cross
rates prevailing on 14/09/2012.
USD CNY JPY HKD INR
KRW SGD EUR
USD – 0.1583 0.0128 0.129 0.0184
0.0009 0.8197 1.3089
CNY 6.3162 – 0.0809 0.8147 0.1161
0.0057 5.177 8.2667
JPY 78.08 12.362 – 10.072 1.435
0.0701 64 102.17
HKD 7.7526 1.2274 0.0993 – 0.143
0.0069 6.3546 10.148
INR 54.405 8.613 0.6955 7.005 – 0.0488 44.505 71.067
KRW 1,114.65 176.5476 14.2965 143.9908 20.4965 – 914.8582 1,459.05
SGD 1.2202 0.1932 0.0156 0.1574 0.0224 0.0011 – 1.5961
EUR 0.7642 0.121 0.0098 0.0986 0.014 0.0007 0.6263 –
Source :http://www.bloomberg.com/markets/currencies/cross-rates/
Students will notice that the rates given in the rows are direct quotes for each of the currencies listed
in the first column and the rates given in the columns are the indirect quotes for the currencies listed
in the first row. Students can also verify that in every case above.
5.3 Bid, Offer and Spread
A foreign exchange quotes are two-way quotes, expressed as a 'bid' (sell ) and an offer' (or ask/Buy)
price. Bid is the price at which the dealer is willing to buy another currency. The offer is the rate at
which he is willing to sell another currency. Thus, a bid in one currency is simultaneously an offer in
another currency. For example, a dealer may quote Indian rupees as `48.80 - 48.90 vis-a-vis dollar.
That means that he is willing to buy dollars at `48.80/$ (sell rupees and buy dollars), while he will
sell dollar at ` 48.90/$ (buy rupees and sell dollars). The difference between the bid and the offer is
called the spread. The offer is always higher than the bid as inter-bank dealers make money by
buying at the bid and selling at the offer.
Bid - Offer
% Spread = × 100
Bid
It must be clearly understood that while a dealer buys a currency, he at the same time is selling
another currency. When a dealer wants to buy a currency, he/she will ask the other dealer a quote
for say a million dollars. The second dealer does not know whether the first dealer is interested in
buying or selling one million dollars. The second dealer would then give a two-way quote (a bid/offer
quote). When the first dealer is happy with the ‘ask’ price given by the second dealer, he/she would
convey “ONE MINE”, which means “I am buying one million dollars from you”. If the first dealer had
actually wanted to sell one million dollars and had asked a quote and he is happy with the ‘bid’ price
given by the second dealer, he/she would convey “ONE YOURS”, which means “I am selling one
million dollars to you”.
market. Generally, the margin is quoted in annualized percentage terms. e.g., in this case,
extrapolating the premium of six months to twelve months, it can be said that US dollar is likely to
have a premium of 80 paise per year [40 paise per six months X 2] which means on a base rate of
61.53, the annualized premium [=0.8*2*100/61.53] is 2.60% p.a. In market parlance, forward
premium is quoted in percentage terms and this is the basis of calculation. Actually, the forward
market in foreign exchange is an interest rate market and is not a foreign exchange market. Because
it compares interest rate of one currency with that of another over a period of time. In fact, some
banks include FX forward traders under their interest rate segment rather than FX segment.
5.7 Forward point determination
The number of ‘basis points’ from the spot rate to arrive at the forward rate in the above discussions
is also referred to as forward points. The points are added to the spot rate when the [foreign] currency
is at a premium and deducted from the spot rate when the [foreign] currency is at a discount, to
arrive at the forward rate. This is when the rates are quoted in direct method. In case of indirect rate
quotations, the process will be exactly the opposite. The forward point may be positive or negative
and marked accordingly or specifically mentioned so. The forward points represent the interest rate
differential between the two currencies e.g., if the spot exchange rate is GBP 1 = 1.6000 - 1.6010
USD and if the outright forward points are 5-8, then the outright forward exchange rate quote is GBP
1 = $ 1.6005 - 1.6018. The number of forward points between the spot and forward is influenced by
the present and forward interest rates, the ‘length’ of the forward and other market factors. Forward
point is not a rate but a difference in the rate between two currencies, the currency which carries
lower interest rate is always at a premium versus the other currency. This is the same as stating that
if a currency has a relatively higher ‘yield’, then it will cost less in the forward market and a currency
having lower yield will cost more in the forward market. If there is an aberration to this, arbitrage
opportunity arises, which itself will push the prices to equilibrium. If the forward points are mentioned
simply as 5/8, then a doubt arises as to whether it is at premium, and hence has to be added or at
discount and hence to be deducted. The spot market always has the lowest bid- ask spread and the
spread will steadily widen as the duration lengthens.
This is because the uncertainty and the liquidity concerns increase as we go forward in time. If we
add 5/8 to the left and right side, the spread will widen and hence fits into the argument.
Hence, a quote such as 5/8 or 43/45 with increasing numbers from left to right means the foreign
currency is at premium. This looks like a workaround to calculate but the reader can visualize the
logic.
Forward points are equivalent to pips in the spot market which we discussed earlier. They are quoted
to an accuracy of 1/100th of one point e.g., if EUR/USD rates for spot and forward are 1.1323 &
1.1328, then the forward point is 5 because one pip or point is worth 0.0001 in EUR/USD.
In foreign exchange market, banks consider customers as ‘merchants’ for historical reasons. It may
look ridiculous to call an NRI who has remitted dollars to India as a merchant but exchange rates
applied to all types of customers including that for converting inward remittance in USD to INR are
called merchant rates as against the rates quoted to each other by banks in the interbank market,
which are called interbank rates. This term is important because there are guidelines issued by
FEDAI [Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India] to banks on these merchant rates as there
is customer service element involved in these.
Till 1998, FEDAI prescribed what ‘margins’ are to be loaded by banks onto the ongoing interbank
exchange rate for quoting to customers i.e., to arrive at the merchant rates. This was because, most
customer affecting costs like interest rates were then controlled by regulators.
As a part of liberalization, banks got the freedom to quote their own rates. Since then, banks decide
themselves what should be the margin depending on the bank’s ‘position’. The only rule that is still
existing in the FEDAI rule book is rule 5A.8 which states that “Settlement of all merchant transactions
shall be effected on the principle of rounding off the Rupee amounts to the nearest whole Rupee
i.e., without paise”. This means if an exporter or an individual has received USD 1234 and if the
applicable exchange rate is 61.32, then the amount to be credited to customer’s account is ` 75669
and not ` 75668.88, less charges if any. This rule will be similarly applicable for import or outward
remittance transactions also. This rule is more a matter of common sense and does not have any
meaningful impact on customer transactions. In fact, in some of the banking software, amount is
always rounded off.
After the discontinuation of gold standard in 1971 by USA, the foreign exchange market was in
turmoil. Initially, RBI had kept sterling as the intervention currency pegging the rupee exchange rate
for historical reasons and due to political legacy. Effective 1975, rupee was delinked from sterling
and was linked to a basket of currencies. It should be noted that the concept of RBI/FEDAI advising
the fixed exchange rate was discontinued long ago. The sterling schedule was abolished from the
beginning of 1984. FEDAI issued detailed guidelines to banks on how to calculate exchange rates
under the new freedom, the minimum & maximum profit margin and the maximum spread between
the buying and selling rates. All these are now redundant now. There were arguments for and against
giving freedom to banks for loading margins by banks themselves on the ongoing interbank rate.
However, the liberalization wave overruled the skeptics.
The International Division of any bank calculates the merchant rates for a variety of transactions like
import bill, export bill, inward & outward remittance etc. and advises the same in the morning with
standard spread loaded to all branches. It is called card rate. For a walk-in customer, for transactions
of small value [what is small varies with the bank], this is applied.
However, for regular customers and for transactions of high value, always a better rate is sought
from the dealing room. Card rates advised in the margin are generally not changed unless there is
too much volatility.
(1 + rD) = Amount that an investor would get after a unit period by investing a rupee in the
F
domestic market at rD rate of interest and (1 + rF ) is the amount that an investor by investing
S
in the foreign market at rF that the investment of one rupee yield same return in the domestic
as well as in the foreign market.
The Uncovered Interest Rate Parity equation is given by:
S1
r + rD = (1 + rF )
S
Where,
S1 = Expected future spot rate when the receipts denominated in foreign currency is converted into
domestic currency.
Thus, it can be said that Covered Interest Arbitrage has an advantage as there is an incentive to
invest in the higher-interest currency to the point where the discount of that currency in the forward
market is less than the interest differentials. If the discount on the forward market of the currency
with the higher interest rate becomes larger than the interest differential, then it pays to invest in the
lower-interest currency and take advantage of the excessive forward premium on this currency.
8.2 Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
Why is a dollar worth ` 48.80, JPY 122.18, etc. at some point of time? One possible answer is that
these exchange rates reflect the relative purchasing powers of the currencies, i.e., the basket of
goods that can be purchased with a dollar in the US will cost ` 48.80 in India and ¥ 122.18 in Japan.
Purchasing Power Parity theory focuses on the ‘inflation – exchange rate’ relationship. There are
two forms of PPP theory: -
The ABSOLUTE FORM, also called the ‘Law of One Price’ suggests that “prices of similar products
of two different countries should be equal when measured in a common currency”. If a discrepancy
in prices as measured by a common currency exists, the demand should shift so that these prices
should converge.
An alternative version of the absolute form that accounts for the possibility of market imperfections
such as transportation costs, tariffs, and quotas embed the sectoral constant. It suggests that
‘because of these market imperfections, prices of similar products of different countries will not
necessarily be the same when measured in a common currency.’ However, it states that the rate of
change in the prices of products should be somewhat similar when measured in a common currency,
as long as the transportation costs and trade barriers are unchanged.
In Equilibrium Form:
PD
S=α
PF
Where,
S(`/$) = spot rate
PD = is the price level in India, the domestic market.
PF = is the price level in the foreign market, the US in this case.
α = Sectoral price and sectoral shares constant.
For example, A cricket bat sells for ` 1000 in India. The transportation cost of one bat from Ludhiana
to New York costs ` 100 and the import duty levied by the US on cricket bats is
` 200 per bat. Then the sectoral constant for adjustment would be 1000/1300 = 0.7692.
It becomes extremely messy if one were to deal with millions of products and millions of constants.
One way to overcome this is to use a weighted basket of goods in the two countries represented by
an index such as Consumer Price Index. However, even this could break down because the basket
of goods consumed in a country like Finland would vary with the consumption pattern in a country
such as Malaysia making the aggregation an extremely complicated exercise.
The RELATIVE FORM of the Purchasing Power Parity tries to overcome the problems of market
imperfections and consumption patterns between different countries. A simple explanation of the
Relative Purchase Power Parity is given below:
Assume the current exchange rate between INR and USD is ` 50 / $1. The inflation rates are 12%
in India and 4% in the US. Therefore, a basket of goods in India, let us say costing now ` 50 will
cost one year hence ` 50 x 1.12 = ` 56.00.A similar basket of goods in the US will cost USD 1.04
one year from now. If PPP holds, the exchange rate between USD and INR, one year hence, would
be ` 56.00 = $1.04. This means, the exchange rate would be ` 53.8462 / $1, one year from now.
This can also be worked backwards to say what should have been the exchange rate one year
before, taking into account the inflation rates during last year and the current spot rate.
Expected spot rate = Current Spot Rate x expected difference in inflation rates
(1 + Id )
E(S1) = S0 x
(1 + If )
Where,
E(S1) is the expected Spot rate in time period 1
S0 is the current spot rate (Direct Quote)
Id is the inflation in the domestic country (home country)
If is the inflation in the foreign country
According to Relative PPP, any differential exchange rate to the one propounded by the theory is
the ‘real appreciation’ or ‘real depreciation’ of one currency over the other. For example, if the
exchange rate between INR and USD one year ago was ` 45.00. If the rates of inflation in India and
USA during the last one year were 10% and 2% respectively, the spot exchange rate between the
two currencies today should be
S0 = 45.00 x (1+10%)/(1+2%) = ` 48.53
However, if the actual exchange rate today is ` 50,00, then the real appreciation of the USD against
INR is ` 1.47, which is 1.47/45.00 = 3.27% and this appreciation of the USD against INR is explained
by factors other than inflation.
PPP is more closely approximated in the long run than in the short run, and when disturbances are
purely monetary in character.
8.3 International Fisher Effect (IFE)
International Fisher Effect theory uses interest rate rather than inflation rate differentials to explain
why exchange rates change over time but it is closely related to the Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
theory because interest rates are often highly correlated with inflation rates.
According to the International Fisher Effect, ‘nominal risk-free interest rates contain a real rate of
return and anticipated inflation’. This means that if investors of all countries require the same real
return, interest rate differentials between countries may be the result of differential in expected
inflation.
The IFE theory suggests that foreign currencies with relatively high interest rates will depreciate
because the high nominal interest rates reflect expected inflation. The nominal interest rate would
also incorporate the default risk of an investment.
The IFE equation can be given by:
rD – PD = rF – ∆PF
or
PD – PF = ∆S = rD –rF
The above equation states that if there are no barriers to capital flows the investment will flow in
such a manner that the real rate of return on investment will equalize. In fact, the equation represents
the interaction between real sector, monetary sector and foreign exchange market.
If the IFE holds, then a strategy of borrowing in one country and investing the funds in another
country should not provide a positive return on average. The reason is that exchange rates should
adjust to offset interest rate differentials on the average. As we know that purchasing power has
not held over certain periods and since the International Fisher Effect is based on Purchasing Power
Parity (PPP). It does not consistently hold either because there are factors other than inflation that
affect exchange rates, the exchange rates do not adjust in accordance with the inflation differential.
8.4 Comparison of PPP, IRP and IFE Theories
All the above theories relate to the determination of exchange rates. Yet, they differ in their
implications.
The theory of IRP focuses on why the forward rate differs from the spot rate and on the degree of
difference that should exist. This relates to a specific point of time.
Conversely, PPP theory and IFE theory focuses on how a currency’s spot rate will change over time.
While PPP theory suggests that the spot rate will change in accordance with inflation differentials,
IFE theory suggests that it will change in accordance with interest rate differentials. PPP is
nevertheless related to IFE because inflation differentials influence the nominal interest rate
differentials between two countries.
Theory Key Variables Basis Summary
Interest Rate Parity Forward rate Interest rate The forward rate of one
(IRP) premium (or differential currency will contain a
discount) premium (or discount) that is
determined by the differential
in interest rates between the
two countries. As a result,
covered interest arbitrage will
provide a return that is no
higher than a domestic return.
Purchasing Power Percentage Inflation rate The spot rate of one currency
Parity (PPP) change in spot differential. w.r.t. another will change in
exchange rate. reaction to the differential in
inflation rates between two
countries. Consequently, the
purchasing power for
consumers when purchasing
goods in their own country will
be similar to their purchasing
power when importing goods
from foreign country.
International Fisher Percentage Interest rate The spot rate of one currency
Effect (IFE) change in spot differential w.r.t. another will change in
exchange rate accordance with the
differential in interest rates
between the two countries.
Consequently, the return on
uncovered foreign money
market securities will on
average be no higher than the
return on domestic money
market securities from the
perspective of investors in the
home country.
Market Participants
The participants in the foreign exchange market can be categorized as follows:
(i) Non-bank Entities: Many multinational companies exchange currencies to meet their import
or export commitments or hedge their transactions against fluctuations in exchange rate.
Even at the individual level, there is an exchange of currency as per the needs of the
individual.
(ii) Banks: Banks also exchange currencies as per the requirements of their clients.
(iii) Speculators: This category includes commercial and investment banks, multinational
companies and hedge funds that buy and sell currencies with a view to earn profit due to
fluctuations in the exchange rates.
(iv) Arbitrageurs: This category includes those investors who make profit from price differential
existing in two markets by simultaneously operating in two different markets.
(v) Governments: The governments participate in the foreign exchange market through the
central banks. They constantly monitor the market and help in stabilizing the exchange rates.
Transaction exposure
Impact of setting outstanding obligations entered into before change in
exchange rates but to be settled after the change in exchange rates
Time
essence of economic exposure is that exchange rate changes significantly alter the cost of a firm’s
inputs and the prices of its outputs and thereby influence its competitive position substantially.
Effects of Local Currency Fluctuations on Company’s Economic Exposure (Cash inflow)
Variables influencing the inflow Revaluation Devaluation
of cash in Local currency impact impact
Local sale, relative to foreign Decrease Increase
competition in local currency
Company’s export in local currency Decrease Increase
Company’s export in foreign currency Decrease Increase
Interest payments from foreign investments Decrease Increase
Effects of Local Currency Fluctuations on Company’s Economic Exposure (Cash outflow)
Variables influencing the Revaluation Devaluation
outflow of cash in local currency impact impact
Company’s import of material Remain the same Remain the same
the same denoted in local currency
Company’s import of material Decrease Increase
denoted in foreign currency
Interest on foreign debt Decrease Increase
Foreign exchange risk management is a critical component of any business that deals with
international transactions. It involves the identification, assessment, and mitigation of risks
associated with fluctuations in foreign currency exchange rates. The importance of foreign exchange
risk management cannot be overstated, and here are some reasons why:
(i) Protection against volatility: Exchange rates are highly volatile and can change rapidly, which
can result in significant losses for a business. Foreign exchange risk management helps to
protect against this volatility by allowing businesses to lock in exchange rates in advance,
providing greater stability and certainty in financial planning.
(ii) Cost reduction: Effective foreign exchange risk management can help businesses reduce
costs associated with foreign transactions. By minimizing currency exchange rate losses and
reducing the need for hedging, businesses can save significant amounts of money in the long
run.
(iii) Competitive advantage: Companies that effectively manage their foreign exchange risks can
gain a competitive advantage over their competitors. They can offer more competitive prices
and more attractive payment terms, which can help to attract and retain customers.
(iv) Improved cash flow: Foreign exchange risk management can also help businesses to improve
their cash flow by providing greater visibility and predictability in their international
transactions. This can help businesses to better manage their cash flow and ensure that they
have sufficient funds to meet their obligations.
(v) Compliance with regulations: Many countries have regulations in place that require
businesses to manage their foreign exchange risks. Failure to comply with these regulations
can result in significant fines and penalties. Effective foreign exchange risk management can
help businesses to stay in compliance with these regulations and avoid potential legal issues.
In summary, foreign exchange risk management is critical for businesses that engage in international
transactions. It helps to protect against volatility, reduce costs, gain a competitive advantage,
improve cash flow, and ensure compliance with regulations. By managing foreign exchange risks
effectively, businesses can achieve greater financial stability and success in the global marketplace.
Should the seller elect to invoice in foreign currency, perhaps because the prospective customer
prefers it that way or because sellers tend to follow market leader, then the seller should choose
only a major currency in which there is an active forward market for maturities at least as long as
the payment period. Currencies, which are of limited convertibility, chronically weak, or with only a
limited forward market, should not be considered.
The seller’s ideal currency is either his own, or one which is stable relative to it but often the seller
is forced to choose the market leader’s currency. Whatever the chosen currency, it should certainly
be one with a deep forward market. For the buyer, the ideal currency is usually its own or one that
is stable relative to it, or it may be a currency of which the purchaser has reserves.
(ii) Leading and Lagging: Leading and Lagging refer to adjustments at the time of payments in
foreign currencies. Leading is the payment before due date while lagging is delaying payment post
the due date. These techniques are aimed at taking advantage of expected devaluation and/or
revaluation of relevant currencies. Lead and lag payments are of special importance in the event
that forward contracts remain inconclusive. For example, Subsidiary b in B country owes money to
subsidiary a in country A with payment due in three months’ time and with the debt denominated in
US dollar. On the other side, country B’s currency is expected to devalue within three months against
US dollar, vis-à-vis country A’s currency. Under these circumstances, if company b leads -pays early
- it will have to part with less of country B’s currency to buy US dollars to make payment to company
A. Therefore, lead is attractive for the company. When we take reverse the example-revaluation
expectation- it could be attractive for lagging.
(iii) Netting: Netting involves associated companies, which trade with each other. The technique
is simple. Group companies merely settle inter affiliate indebtedness for the net amount owing. Gross
intra-group trade, receivables and payables are netted out. The simplest scheme is known as
bilateral netting and involves pairs of companies. Each pair of associates nets out their own
individual positions with each other and cash flows are reduced by the lower of each company's
purchases from or sales to its netting partner. Bilateral netting involves no attempt to bring in the net
positions of other group companies.
Netting basically reduces the number of inter-company payments and receipts which pass over the
foreign exchanges. Fairly straightforward to operate, the main practical problem in bilateral netting
is usually the decision about which currency to use for settlement.
Netting reduces banking costs and increases central control of inter-company settlements. The
reduced number and amount of payments yield savings in terms of buy/sell spreads in the spot and
forward markets and reduced bank charges.
(iv) Matching: Although netting and matching are terms which are frequently used
interchangeably, there are distinctions. Netting is a term applied to potential flows within a group of
companies whereas matching can be applied to both intra-group and to third-party balancing.
Matching is a mechanism whereby a company matches its foreign currency inflows with its foreign
currency outflows in respect of amount and approximate timing. Receipts in a particular currency
are used to make payments in that currency thereby reducing the need for a group of companies to
go through the foreign exchange markets to the unmatched portion of foreign currency cash flows.
The prerequisite for a matching operation is a two-way cash flow in the same foreign currency within
a group of companies; this gives rise to a potential for natural matching. This should be distinguished
from parallel matching, in which the matching is achieved with receipt and payment in different
currencies but these currencies are expected to move closely together, near enough in parallel.
Both Netting and Matching presuppose that there are enabling Exchange Control regulations. For
example, an MNC subsidiary in India cannot net its receivable(s) and payable(s) from/to its
associated entities. Receivables have to be received separately and payables have to be paid
separately.
(v) Price Variation: Price variation involves increasing selling prices to counter the adverse
effects of exchange rate change. This tactic raises the question as to why the company has not
already raised prices if it is able to do so. In some countries, price increases are the only legally
available tactic of exposure management.
Let us now concentrate on price variation in inter-company trade. Transfer pricing is the term used
to refer to the pricing of goods and services, which changes hands within a group of companies. As
an exposure management technique, transfer price variation refers to the arbitrary pricing of inter -
company sales of goods and services at a higher or lower price than the fair price, arm’s length
price. This fair price will be the market price if there is an existing market or, if there is not, the price
which would be charged to a third-party customer. Taxation authorities, customs and excise
departments and exchange control regulations in most countries require that the arm’s length pricing
should be used.
(vi) Asset and Liability Management: This technique can be used to manage balance sheet,
income statement or cash flow exposures. Concentration on cash flow exposure makes economic
sense but emphasis on pure translation exposure is misplaced. Hence, our focus here is on asset
liability management as a cash flow exposure management technique.
In essence, asset and liability management can involve aggressive or defensive postures. In the
aggressive attitude, the firm simply increases exposed cash inflows denominated in currencies
expected to be strong or increases exposed cash outflows denominated in weak currencies. In
contrast, the defensive approach involves matching cash inflows and outflows according to their
currency of denomination, irrespective of whether they are in strong or weak currencies.
(B) External Techniques: Under this category range of various financial products are used which
can be categorized as follows:
(i) Money Market Hedging: At its simplest, a money market hedge is an agreement to exchange
a certain amount of one currency for a fixed amount of another currency, at a particular date. For
example, suppose a business owner in India expects to receive 1 Million USD in six months. This
Owner could create an agreement now (today) to exchange 1 Million USD for INR at roughly the
current exchange rate. Thus, if the USD dropped in value by the time the business owner got the
payment, he would still be able to exchange the payment for the original quantity of U.S. dollars
specified.
Advantages and Disadvantages of Money Market Hedge: Following are the advantages and
disadvantages of this technique of hedging.
Advantages
(a) Fixes the future rate, thus eliminating downside risk exposure.
(b) Flexibility with regard to the amount to be covered.
(c) Money market hedges may be feasible as a way of hedging for currencies where forward
contracts are not available.
Disadvantages include:
(a) More complicated to organize than a forward contract.
(b) Fixes the future rate - no opportunity to benefit from favourable movements in exchange rates.
(ii) Derivative Instruments: A derivatives transaction is a bilateral contract or payment
exchange agreement whose value depends on - derives from - the value of an underlying asset,
reference rate or index. Today, derivatives transactions cover a broad range of underlying - interest
rates, exchange rates, commodities, equities and other indices.
In addition to privately negotiated, global transactions, derivatives also include standardized futures
and options on futures that are actively traded on organized exchanges and securities such as call
warrants.
The term derivative is also used to refer to a wide variety of other instruments. These have payoff
characteristics, which reflect the fact that they include derivatives products as part of their make-up.
Transaction risk can also be hedged using a range of financial derivatives products which include:
Forwards, futures, options, swaps, etc. These instruments are discussed in detailed manner in
following pages.
Companies importing goods are also exposed to foreign currency risk. To mitigate this, they can use
forward contracts for all their liabilities. When foreign Currency is depreciating, one can book a long-
term forward contract which will be used in future when foreign currency is appreciating.
12.1 Forward Rate – Premium and Discount
The change in value in a forward contract is broadly equal to the change in value in the underlying.
Forwards differ from options in that options carry a different payoff profile. Forward contracts are
unique to every trade. They are customized to meet the specific requirements of each end-user. The
characteristics of each transaction include the particular business, financial or risk-management
targets of the counterparties. Forwards are not standardized. The terms in relation to contract size,
delivery grade, location, delivery date and credit period are always negotiated.
In a forward contract, the buyer of the contract draws its value at maturity from its delivery terms or
a cash settlement. On maturity, if the price of the underlying is higher than the contract price the
buyer makes a profit. If the price is lower, the buyer suffers a loss. The gain to the buyer is loss to
the seller.
Forwards Rates: The forward rate is different from the spot rate. Depending upon whether the
forward rate is greater than the spot rate, given the currency in consideration, the forward may
either be at a 'discount' or at a 'premium'. Forward premiums and discounts are usually expressed
as an annual percentage of the difference between the spot and the forward rates.
Premium: When a currency is costlier in forward or say, for a future value date, it is said to
be at a premium. In the case of direct method of quotation, the premium is added to both the
selling and buying rates.
Discount: If the currency is cheaper in forward or for a future value date, it is said to be at a
discount. In case of direct quotation, the discount is deducted from both the selling and buying
rate. The following example explains how to calculate Premium / Discount both under
Indirect/Direct quotes.
To calculate the Premium or Discount of a currency vis-à-vis another, we need to find out how much
each unit of the first currency can buy units of the second currency. For instance, if the Spot rate
between INR and USD is ` 55 to a dollar and the six months forward rate is ` 60 to a dollar, it is
clear the USD is strengthening against the Rupee and hence is at a premium which also means that
Rupee is at discount.
The premium of USD against INR is ` 5 for six months in absolute terms. However, forward premium
is always expressed as an annual percentage. Therefore, this premium is calculated as
[ (Forward Rate – Spot rate) / (Spot rate) ] x (12/6)
= (60 – 55 )/(55) x 12/6 = 18.18%
Rupee is at discount and to calculate the discount, we need to find out how many dollars each Rupee
can buy today and six months from now. Therefore, the Spot rate of USD in terms of INR today is
USD 1/55 = $ 0.01818 and six months from now is USD 1/60 = $ 0.01667. The discount is calculated
as:
[ (Forward Rate – Spot rate) / (Spot rate) ] x (12/6)
= (0.01667 – 0.01818) / 0.01818 x 12/6
= – 0.00151 / 0.01818 x 12/6 = – 16.61%
The minus sign implies that the Rupee is at discount.
Another important point to be noted in the above example, is that the forward premiums do not equal
forward discount always. In the aforesaid example, for instance, the rupee is trading at a discount
of 16.67% while the dollar is trading at a premium of 18.18%.
12.2 Fate of Forward Contracts
Whenever any forward contract is entered, normally it meets any of the following three fates.
(A) Delivery under the Contract
(B) Cancellation of the Contract
(C) Extension of the Contract
Further above of fates of forward contract can further classified into following sub-categories.
(A) Delivery under the Contract
(i) Delivery on Due Date
(ii) Early Delivery
(iii) Late Delivery
(B) Cancellation of the Contract
(i) Cancellation on Due Date
(ii) Early Cancellation
(iii) Late Cancellation
(C) Extension of the Contract
(i) Extension on Due Date
(ii) Early Extension
(iii) Late Extension
Let us discuss each of above executions one by one.
Delivery on Due Date
This situation does not pose any problem as rate applied for the transaction would be rate originally
agreed upon. Exchange shall take place at this rate irrespective of the spot rate prevailing.
Illustration 3
On 1st June 2015 the bank enters into a forward contract for 2 months for selling US$ 1,00,000 at
` 65.5000. On 31st July 2015 the spot rate was ` 65.7500/65.2500. Calculate the amount to be
debited in the customer’s account.
Solution
The bank will apply rate originally agreed upon i.e., ` 65.5000 and will debit the account of the
customer with ` 65,50,000.
Early Delivery
The bank may accept the request of customer of delivery before due date of forward contract
provided the customer is ready to bear the loss if any that may accrue to the bank as a result of this.
In addition to some prescribed fixed charges bank may also charge additional charges comprising
of:
(a) Swap Difference: This difference can be loss/ gain to the bank. This arises on account of
offsetting its position earlier created by early delivery as bank normally covers itself against
the position taken in the original forward contract.
(b) Interest on Outlay of Funds: It might be possible early delivery request of a customer may
result in outlay of funds. In such bank shall charge from the customer at a rate not less than
prime lending rate for the period of early delivery to the original due date. However, if there
is an inflow of funds the bank at its discretion may pass on interest to the customer at the
rate applicable to term deposits for the same period.
Illustration 4
On 1 October 2015 Mr. X an exporter enters into a forward contract with a BNP Bank to sell US$
1,00,000 on 31 December 2015 at ` 65.40/$. However, due to the request of the importer, Mr. X
received amount on 28 November 2015. Mr. X requested the bank the take delivery of the remittance
on 30 November 2015 i.e., before due date. The inter-banking rates on 28 November 2015 was as
follows:
Spot ` 65.22/65.27
One Month Premium 10/15
If bank agrees to take early delivery then what will be net inflow to Mr. X assuming that the prevailing
prime lending rate is 18%.
Solution
Bank will buy from customer at the agreed rate of ` 65.40. In addition to the same if bank will charge/
pay swap difference and interest on outlay funds.
(a) Swap Difference
Solution
The contract shall be cancelled at the 1 month forward sale rate of ` 47.5200 as follows:
AUD bought from customer under original forward contract at ` 47.2500
On cancellation it is sold to him at ` 47.5200
Net amount payable by customer per AUD ` 00.2700
Thus, total cancellation charges payable by the customer ` 27,000
Late Cancellation
In case of late cancellation of Forward Contract, the provisions of Automatic Cancellation (discussed
later on) shall be applied.
Extension on Due Date
It might also be possible that an exporter is not able to export goods on the due date. Similarly, it
might also be possible that an importer is not able to pay on due date. In both of these situations an
extension of contract for selling and buying contract is warranted. Accordingly, if earlier contract is
extended first, it shall be cancelled and rebooked for the new delivery period. In case extension is
on due date it shall be cancelled at spot rate as like cancellation on due date (discussed earlier) and
new contract shall be rebooked at the forward rate for the new delivery period.
Illustration 7
Suppose you are a banker and one of your export customers has booked a US$ 1,00,000 forward
sale contract for 2 months with you at the rate of ` 62.5200 and simultaneously you covered yourself
in the interbank market at ` 62.5900. However, on due date, after 2 months your customer comes
to you and requests for cancellation of the contract and also requests for extension of the contract
by one month. On this date quotation for US$ in the market was as follows:
Spot ` 62.7200/62.6800
1 month forward ` 62.6400/62.7400
Determine the extension charges payable by the customer assuming exchange margin of 0.10% on
buying as well as selling.
Solution
Cancellation
First the original contract shall be cancelled at Spot Selling Rate as follows:
US$/` Spot Selling Rate ` 62.7200
Add: Margin @ 0.10% ` 0.06272
` 62.78272
(ii) Swap Loss (Difference): The loss arises on account of offsetting its position at the spot rate
on the date of cancellation and taking opposite position of offsetting position at earliest
forward rate.
(iii) Interest on Outlay of Funds: Interest on the difference between the rate entered by the bank
in the interbank market and actual spot rate on the due date of contract of the opposite
position multiplied by the amount of foreign currency amount involved. This interest shall be
calculated for the period from the due date of maturity of the contract and the actual date of
cancellation of the contract or 3 working days whichever is later.
Please note in above in any case there is profit by the bank on any course of action same shall not
be passed on the customer as normally passed cancellation and extension on or before due dates.
Illustration 9
An importer booked a forward contract with his bank on 10th April for USD 2,00,000 due on 10th
June @ ` 64.4000. The bank covered its position in the market at ` 64.2800.
The exchange rates for dollar in the interbank market on 10th June and 13th June were:
10th June 13th June
Spot USD 1= ` 63.8000/8200 ` 63.6800/7200
Spot/June ` 63.9200/9500 ` 63.8000/8500
July ` 64.0500/0900 ` 63.9300/9900
August ` 64.3000/3500 ` 64.1800/2500
September ` 64.6000/6600 ` 64.4800/5600
Exchange Margin 0.10% and interest on outlay of funds @ 12%. The importer requested on 14th
June for extension of contract with due date on 10th August.
Rates to be rounded off to 4 decimals in multiples of 0.0025.
On 10th June, Bank Swaps by selling spot and buying one month forward.
Calculate:
(i) Cancellation rate
(ii) Amount payable on $ 2,00,000
(iii) Swap loss
(iv) Interest on outlay of funds, if any
(v) New contract rate
(vi) Total Cost
Solution
(i) Cancellation Rate:
The forward sale contract shall be cancelled at Spot TT Purchase for $ prevailing on the date
of cancellation as follows:
$/ ` Market Buying Rate ` 63.6800
Less: Exchange Margin @ 0.10% ` 0.0636
` 63.6163
Rounded off to ` 63.6175
(ii) Amount payable on $ 2,00,000
Bank sells $2,00,000 @ ` 64.4000 ` 1,28,80,000
Bank buys $2,00,000 @ ` 63.6175 ` 1,27,23,500
Amount payable by customer ` 1,56,500
(iii) Swap Loss
On 10th June the bank does a swap sale of $ at market buying rate of ` 63.8000 and forward
purchase for June at market selling rate of ` 63.9500.
Bank buys at ` 63.9500
Bank sells at ` 63.8000
Amount payable by customer ` 0.1500
Swap Loss for $ 2,00,000 is ` = ` 30,000
(iv) Interest on Outlay of Funds
On 10th June, the bank receives delivery under cover contract at ` 64.2800 and sell spot at
` 63.8000.
Bank buys at ` 64.2800
Bank sells at ` 63.8000
Amount payable by customer ` 0.4800
Outlay for $ 2,00,000 is ` 96,000
Interest on ` 96,000 @ 12% for 3 days ` 96
(v) New Contract Rate
The contract will be extended at current rate
$/ ` Market forward selling Rate for August ` 64.2500
Add: Exchange Margin @ 0.10% ` 0.0643
` 64.3143
(c) Loss is restricted while there is unlimited There is potential/risk for unlimited
gain potential for the option buyer. gain/loss for the futures buyer.
(d) An American option contract can be A futures contract has to be honoured by
exercised any time during its period by the both the parties only on the date specified.
buyer.
The notional principal (i.e. the face value of a security) on above swap, except currency swaps, is
used to calculate the payment streams but are not actually exchanged. Interim payments are usually
netted - the difference is paid by one party to the other.
Like forwards, the main users of swaps are large multinational banks or corporations. Swaps create
credit exposures and are individually designed to meet the risk-management objectives of the
participants.
15.1 Interest Rate Swaps
Interest Rate Swap has been covered in detail in the Chapter 12 of this Study Material. Please refer
the same from there.
15.2 Currency Swaps
It involves an exchange of liabilities between currencies. A currency swap can consist of three
stages:
A spot exchange of principal - this forms part of the swap agreement as a similar effect can
be obtained by using the spot foreign exchange market.
Continuing exchange of interest payments during the term of the swap - this represents a
series of forward foreign exchange contracts during the term of the swap contract. The
contract is typically fixed at the same exchange rate as the spot rate used at the outset of the
swap.
Re-exchange of principal on maturity.
A currency swap has the following benefits:
Treasurers can hedge currency risk.
It can provide considerable cost savings. A strong borrower in the Japanese Yen market may
be interested in borrowing in the American USD markets where his credit rating may not be
as good as it is in Tokyo. Such a borrower could get a better US dollar rate by raising funds
first in the Tokyo market and then swapping Yen for US dollars.
The swap market permits funds to be accessed in currencies, which may otherwise command
a high premium.
It offers diversification of borrowings.
A more complex version of a currency swap is a currency coupon swap, which swaps a fixed-or-
floating rate interest payment in one currency for a floating rate payment in another. These are also
known as Circus Swaps.
In a currency swap the principal sum is usually exchanged:
At the start;
At the end;
At a combination of both; or
Neither.
Many swaps are linked to the issue of a Eurobond. An issuer offers a bond in a currency and instru-
ment where it has the greatest competitive advantage. It then asks the underwriter of the bond to
provide it with a swap to convert funds into the required type.
15.3 Commodity Swaps
It is a kind of series of Future Contracts involving settlement on the basis of notional amount over
multiple dates at predetermined specified reference prices or related commodities indices. Although
this swap strategy can be used for any type of commodity but is primarily used in hedging oil price
risks.
15.4 Equity Swaps
An equity swap is an arrangement in which total return on equity or equity index in the form of
dividend and capital is exchanged with either a fixed or floating rate of interest.
• If the Expiry Reference Rate is less than the Strike Rate, there is neither right nor obligation
on the Counterparty to buy the Notional Amount. The Counterparty will be able to buy at the
prevailing market rate, thus retaining participation in any INR appreciation without any
limitation.
Example
Notional Amount: USD 500,000.00 – Strike Rate – ` 78.00/USD
18. CONCLUSION
Thus, on account of increased globalization of financial markets, risk management has gained more
importance. The benefits of the increased flow of capital between nations include a better
international allocation of capital and greater opportunities to diversify risk. However, globalization
of investment has meant new risks from exchange rates, political actions and increased
interdependence on financial conditions of different countries.
All these factors- increase in exchange rate risk, growth in international trade, globalization of
financial markets, increase in the volatility of exchange rates and growth of multinational and
transnational corporations- combine to make it imperative for today’s financial managers to study
the factors behind the risks of international trade and investment, and the methods of reducing these
risks.
3. XYZ LTD Bank, Amsterdam, wants to purchase ` 25 million against £ for funding their Nostro
account and they have credited LORO account with Bank of London, London.
Calculate the amount of £’s credited. Ongoing inter-bank rates are per $, ` 61.3625/3700 &
per £, $ 1.5260/70.
4. ABC Ltd. of UK has exported goods worth Can $ 5,00,000 receivable in 6 months. The
exporter wants to hedge the receipt in the forward market. The following information is
available:
Spot Exchange Rate Can $ 2.5/£
Interest Rate in UK 12%
Interest Rate In Canada 15%
The forward rates truly reflect the interest rates differential. Find out the gain/loss to UK
exporter if Can $ spot rates (i) declines 2%, (ii) gains 4% or (iii) remains unchanged over next
6 months.
5. On April 3, 2016, a Bank quotes the following:
Spot exchange Rate (US $ 1) INR 66.2525 INR 67.5945
2 months’ swap points 70 90
3 months’ swap points 160 186
In a spot transaction, delivery is made after two days.
Assume spot date as April 5, 2016.
Assume 1 swap point = 0.0001,
You are required to:
(i) ascertain swap points for 2 months and 15 days. (For June 20, 2016),
(ii) determine foreign exchange rate for June 20, 2016, and
(iii) compute the annual rate of premium/discount of US$ on INR, on an average rate.
6. JKL Ltd., an Indian company has an export exposure of JPY 10,000,000 receivable August
31, 2014. Japanese Yen (JPY) is not directly quoted against Indian Rupee.
The current spot rates are:
INR/US $ = ` 62.22
JPY/US$ = JPY 102.34
It is estimated that Japanese Yen will depreciate to 124 level and Indian Rupee to depreciate
against US $ to ` 65.
In which market will you cover the transaction, London or New York, and what will be the
exchange profit or loss on the transaction? Ignore brokerages.
9. On January 28, 2013 an importer customer requested a Bank to remit Singapore Dollar (SGD)
2,500,000 under an irrevocable Letter of Credit (LC). However, due to unavoidable factors,
the Bank could effect the remittances only on February 4, 2013. The inter-bank market rates
were as follows:
(i) Determine the net exposure of each foreign currency in terms of Rupees.
(ii) Are any of the exposure positions offsetting to some extent?
11. The following 2-way quotes appear in the foreign exchange market:
Spot 2-months forward
RS/US $ `46.00/`46.25 `47.00/`47.50
Required:
(i) How many US dollars should a firm sell to get ` 25 lakhs after 2 months?
(ii) How many Rupees is the firm required to pay to obtain US $ 2,00,000 in the spot
market?
(iii) Assume the firm has US $ 69,000 in current account earning no interest. ROI on Rupee
investment is 10% p.a. Should the firm encash the US $ now or 2 months later?
12. Z Ltd. importing goods worth USD 2 million, requires 90 days to make the payment. The
overseas supplier has offered a 60 days interest free credit period and for additional credit
for 30 days an interest of 8% per annum.
The bankers of Z Ltd offer a 30 days loan at 10% per annum and their quote for foreign
exchange is as follows:
`
Spot 1 USD 56.50
60 days forward for 1 USD 57.10
90 days forward for 1 USD 57.50
$/Pound Probability
1.60 0.15
1.70 0.20
1.80 0.25
1.90 0.20
2.00 0.20
16. An importer customer of your bank wishes to book a forward contract with your bank on 3 rd
September for sale to him of SGD 5,00,000 to be delivered on 30th October.
The spot rates on 3rd September are USD 49.3700/3800 and USD/SGD 1.7058/68. The swap
points are:
USD /` USD/SGD
Spot/September 0300/0400 1st month forward 48/49
Spot/October 1100/1300 2nd month forward 96/97
Spot/November 1900/2200 3rd month forward 138/140
Spot/December 2700/3100
Spot/January 3500/4000
Calculate the rate to be quoted to the importer by assuming an exchange margin of 5 paisa.
17. A company operating in Japan has today affected sales to an Indian company, the payment
being due 3 months from the date of invoice. The invoice amount is 108 lakhs yen. At today's
spot rate, it is equivalent to ` 30 lakhs. It is anticipated that the exchange rate will decline by
10% over the 3 months period and in order to protect the yen payments, the importer proposes
to take appropriate action in the foreign exchange market. The 3 months forward rate is
presently quoted as 3.3 yen per rupee. You are required to calculate the expected loss and
to show how it can be hedged by a forward contract.
18. ABC Co. have taken a 6 month loan from their foreign collaborators for US Dollars 2 millions.
Interest payable on maturity is at LIBOR plus 1.0%. Current 6-month LIBOR is 2%.
Enquiries regarding exchange rates with their bank elicits the following information:
Spot USD 1 ` 48.5275
6 months forward ` 48.4575
(i) What would be their total commitment in Rupees, if they enter into a forward contract?
(ii) Will you advise them to do so? Explain giving reasons.
19. Excel Exporters are holding an Export bill in United States Dollar (USD) 1,00,000 due 60 days
hence. They are worried about the falling USD value which is currently at ` 45.60 per USD.
The concerned Export Consignment has been priced on an Exchange rate of ` 45.50 per
USD. The Firm’s Bankers have quoted a 60-day forward rate of ` 45.20.
Calculate:
(i) Rate of discount quoted by the Bank
(ii) The probable loss of operating profit if the forward sale is agreed to.
20. In International Monetary Market an international forward bid for December, 15 on pound
sterling is $ 1.2816 at the same time that the price of IMM sterling future for delivery on
December, 15 is $ 1.2806. The contract size of pound sterling is £ 62,500. How could the
dealer use arbitrage in profit from this situation and how much profit is earned?
21. An Indian importer has to settle an import bill for $ 1,30,000. The exporter has given the
Indian exporter two options:
(i) Pay immediately without any interest charges.
(ii) Pay after three months with interest at 5 percent per annum.
The importer's bank charges 15 percent per annum on overdrafts. The exchange rates in the
market are as follows:
Spot rate (` /$) : 48.35 /48.36
3-Months forward rate (`/$) : 48.81 /48.83
The importer seeks your advice. Give your advice.
22. DEF Ltd. has imported goods to the extent of US$ 1 crore. The payment terms are 60 days
interest-free credit. For additional credit of 30 days, interest at the rate of 7.75% p.a. will be
charged.
The banker of DEF Ltd. has offered a 30 days loan at the rate of 9.5% p.a. Their quote for
the foreign exchange is as follows:
Spot rate INR/US$ 62.50
60 days forward rate INR/US$ 63.15
90 days forward rate INR/US$ 63.45
Which one of the following options would be better?
(i) Pay the supplier on 60th day and avail bank loan for 30 days.
(ii) Avail the supplier's offer of 90 days credit.
23. A company is considering hedging its foreign exchange risk. It has made a purchase on 1st
July, 2016 for which it has to make a payment of US$ 60,000 on December 31, 2016. The
present exchange rate is 1 US $ = ` 65. It can purchase forward 1 $ at ` 64. The company
will have to make an upfront premium @ 2% of the forward amount purchased. The cost of
funds to the company is 12% per annum.
In the following situations, compute the profit/loss the company will make if it hedges its
foreign exchange risk with the exchange rate on 31st December, 2016 as:
(i) ` 68 per US $.
(ii) ` 62 per US $.
(iii) ` 70 per US $.
(iv) ` 65 per US $.
24. Following information relates to AKC Ltd. which manufactures some parts of an electronics
device which are exported to USA, Japan and Europe on 90 days credit terms.
Cost and Sales information:
Japan USA Europe
Variable cost per unit `225 `395 `510
Export sale price per unit Yen 650 US$10.23 Euro 11.99
Receipts from sale due in 90 Yen 78,00,000 US$1,02,300 Euro 95,920
days
Foreign exchange rate information:
Yen/` US$/` Euro/`
Spot market 2.417-2.437 0.0214-0.0217 0.0177-0.0180
3 months forward 2.397-2.427 0.0213-0.0216 0.0176-0.0178
3 months spot 2.423-2.459 0.02144-0.02156 0.0177-0.0179
Advise AKC Ltd. by calculating average contribution to sales ratio whether it should hedge its
foreign currency risk or not.
25. EFD Ltd. is an export business house. The company prepares invoice in customers' currency.
Its debtors of US$. 10,000,000 is due on April 1, 2015.
Market information as at January 1, 2015 is:
Exchange rates US$/INR Currency Futures US$/INR
Spot 0.016667 Contract size: ` 24,816,975
1-month forward 0.016529 1-month 0.016519
3-months forward 0.016129 3-month 0.016118
Initial Margin Interest rates in India
1-Month ` 17,500 6.5%
3-Months ` 22,500 7%
On April 1, 2015 the spot rate US$/INR is 0.016136 and currency future rate is 0.016134.
Which of the following methods would be most advantageous to EFD Ltd?
(i) Using forward contract
(ii) Using currency futures
(iii) Not hedging the currency risk
30. The rate of inflation in India is 8% per annum and in the U.S.A. it is 4%. The current spot
rate for USD in India is ` 46. What will be the expected rate after 1 year and after 4 years
applying the Purchasing Power Parity Theory.
31. On April 1, 3 months interest rate in the UK £ and US $ are 7.5% and 3.5% per annum
respectively. The UK £/US $ spot rate is 0.7570. What would be the forward rate for US $ for
delivery on 30th June?
32. An importer requests his bank to extend the forward contract for US$ 20,000 which is due for
maturity on 30th October, 2010, for a further period of 3 months. He agrees to pay the required
margin money for such extension of the contract.
Contracted Rate – US$ 1= ` 42.32
The US Dollar quoted on 30-10-2010:-
Spot – 41.5000/41.5200
3 months’ Premium -0.87% /0.93%
Margin money for buying and selling rate is 0.075% and 0.20% respectively.
Compute:
(i) The cost to the importer in respect of the extension of the forward contract, and
(ii) The rate of new forward contract.
33. XYZ LTD, an Indian firm, will need to pay JAPANESE YEN (JY) 5,00,000 on 30 th June. In
order to hedge the risk involved in foreign currency transaction, the firm is considering two
alternative methods i.e. forward market cover and currency option contract.
On 1st April, following quotations (JY/INR) are made available:
Spot 3 months forward
1.9516/1.9711. 1.9726./1.9923
The prices for forex currency option on purchase are as follows:
Strike Price JY 2.125
Call option (June) JY 0.047
Put option (June) JY 0.098
For excess or balance of JY covered, the firm would use forward rate as future spot rate.
You are required to recommend cheaper hedging alternative for XYZ LTD.
34. ABC Technologic is expecting to receive a sum of US$ 4,00,000 after 3 months. The company
decided to go for future contract to hedge against the risk. The standard size of future contract
available in the market is $1000. As on date spot and futures $ contract are quoting at ` 44.00
& ` 45.00 respectively. Suppose after 3 months the company closes out its position futures
are quoting at ` 44.50 and spot rate is also quoting at ` 44.50. You are required to calculate
effective realization for the company while selling the receivable. Also calculate how company
has been benefitted by using the future option.
35. Gibralater Limited has imported 5000 bottles of shampoo at landed cost in Mumbai, of
US $ 20 each. The company has the choice for paying for the goods immediately or in 3
months’ time. It has a clean overdraft limited where 14% p.a. rate of interest is charged.
Calculate which of the following method would be cheaper to Gibralter Limited.
(i) Pay in 3 months’ time with interest @ 10% p.a. and cover risk forward for 3 months.
(ii) Settle now at a current spot rate and pay interest of the over draft for 3 months.
The rates are as follows:
Mumbai ` /$ spot : 60.25-60.55
3 months swap points : 35/25
36. An American firm is under obligation to pay interests of Can$ 1010000 and Can$ 705000 on
31st July and 30th September respectively. The Firm is risk averse and its policy is to hedge
the risks involved in all foreign currency transactions. The Finance Manager of the firm is
thinking of hedging the risk considering two methods i.e. fixed forward or option contracts.
It is now June 30. Following quotations regarding rates of exchange, US$ per Can$, from the
firm’s bank were obtained:
Spot 1 Month Forward 3 Months Forward
0.9284-0.9288 0.9501 0.9556
Price for a Can$ option on a U.S. stock exchange (cents per Can$, payable on purchase of
the option, contract size Can$ 50000) are as follows:
Strike Price Calls Puts
(US$/Can$) July Sept. July Sept.
0.93 1.56 2.56 0.88 1.75
0.94 1.02 NA NA NA
0.95 0.65 1.64 1.92 2.34
According to the suggestion of finance manager if options are to be used, one month option
should be bought at a strike price of 94 cents and three month option at a strike price of 95
cents and for the remainder uncovered by the options the firm would bear the risk itself. For
this, it would use forward rate as the best estimate of spot. Transaction costs are ignored.
Recommend, which of the above two methods would be appropriate for the American firm to
hedge its foreign exchange risk on the two interest payments.
37. Zaz plc, a UK Company is in the process of negotiating an order amounting €2.8 million with
a large German retailer on 6 month’s credit. If successful, this will be first time for Zaz has
exported goods into the highly competitive German Market. The Zaz is considering following
3 alternatives for managing the transaction risk before the order is finalized.
(a) Mr. Peter the Marketing head has suggested that in order to remove transaction risk
completely Zaz should invoice the German firm in Sterling using the current €/£
average spot rate to calculate the invoice amount.
(b) Mr. Wilson, CE is doubtful about Mr. Peter’s proposal and suggested an alternative of
invoicing the German firm in € and using a forward exchange contract to hedge the
transaction risk.
(c) Ms. Karen, CFO is agreed with the proposal of Mr. Wilson to invoice the German first
in €, but she is of opinion that Zaz should use sufficient 6-month Sterling Future
contracts (to the nearest whole number) to hedge the transaction risk.
Following data is available
Spot Rate € 1.1960 - €1.1970/£
6-months forward points 0.60 – 0.55 Euro Cents.
6-month Future contract is currently trading at € 1.1943/£
6-month Future contract size is £62,500
After 6-month Spot rate and future rate € 1.1873/£
You are required to
(a) Calculate (to the nearest £) the £ receipt for Zaz plc, under each of 3 above proposals.
(b) In your opinion which alternative you consider to be most appropriate.
38. Columbus Surgicals Inc. is based in US, has recently imported surgical raw materials from
the UK and has been invoiced for £ 480,000, payable in 3 months. It has also exported
surgical goods to India and France.
The Indian customer has been invoiced for £ 138,000, payable in 3 months, and the French
customer has been invoiced for € 590,000, payable in 4 months.
Current spot and forward rates are as follows:
£ / US$
Spot: 0.9830 – 0.9850
Three months forward: 0.9520 – 0.9545
US$ / €
Spot: 1.8890 – 1.8920
Four months forward: 1.9510 – 1.9540
Current money market rates are as follows:
UK: 10.0% – 12.0% p.a.
France: 14.0% – 16.0% p.a.
USA: 11.5% – 13.0% p.a.
You as Treasury Manager are required to show how the company can hedge its foreign
exchange exposure using Forward markets and Money markets hedge and suggest which
the best hedging technique is.
39. XYZ Ltd. a US firm will need £ 3,00,000 in 180 days. In this connection, the following
information is available:
Spot rate 1 £ = $ 2.00
180 days forward rate of £ as of today = $1.96
Interest rates are as follows:
U.K. US
180 days deposit rate 4.5% 5%
180 days borrowing rate 5% 5.5%
A call option on £ that expires in 180 days has an exercise price of $ 1.97 and a premium of
$ 0.04.
XYZ Ltd. has forecasted the spot rates 180 days hence as below:
Future rate Probability
$ 1.91 25%
$ 1.95 60%
$ 2.05 15%
Which of the following strategies would be most preferable to XYZ Ltd.?
(a) A forward contract;
(b) A money market hedge;
(c) An option contract;
(d) No hedging.
Show calculations in each case
40. A Ltd. of U.K. has imported some chemical worth of USD 3,64,897 from one of the U.S.
suppliers. The amount is payable in six months time. The relevant spot and forward rates are:
Spot rate USD 1.5617-1.5673
6 months’ forward rate USD 1.5455 –1.5609
The borrowing rates in U.K. and U.S. are 7% and 6% respectively and the deposit rates are
5.5% and 4.5% respectively.
Currency options are available under which one option contract is for GBP 12,500. The option
premium for GBP at a strike price of USD 1.70/GBP is USD 0.037 (call option) and USD 0.096
(put option) for 6 months period.
The company has 3 choices:
(i) Forward cover
(ii) Money market cover, and
(iii) Currency option
Which of the alternatives is preferable by the company?
41. Nitrogen Ltd, a UK company is in the process of negotiating an order amounting to €4 million
with a large German retailer on 6 months credit. If successful, this will be the first time that
Nitrogen Ltd has exported goods into the highly competitive German market. The following three
alternatives are being considered for managing the transaction risk before the order is finalized.
(i) Invoice the German firm in Sterling using the current exchange rate to calculate the
invoice amount.
(ii) Alternative of invoicing the German firm in € and using a forward foreign exchange
contract to hedge the transaction risk.
(iii) Invoice the German first in € and use sufficient 6 months sterling future contracts (to
the nearly whole number) to hedge the transaction risk.
Following data is available:
Spot Rate € 1.1750 - €1.1770/£
Required:
(a) Calculate to the nearest £ the receipt for Nitrogen Ltd, under each of the three
proposals.
(b) In your opinion, which alternative would you consider to be the most appropriate and
the reason thereof.
42. Sun Ltd. is planning to import equipment from Japan at a cost of 3,400 lakh yen. The company
may avail loans at 18 percent per annum with quarterly rests with which it can import the
equipment. The company has also an offer from Osaka branch of an India based bank
extending credit of 180 days at 2 percent per annum against opening of an irrecoverable letter
of credit.
Additional information:
Present exchange rate ` 100 = 340 yen
180 day’s forward rate ` 100 = 345 yen
Commission charges for letter of credit at 2 per cent per 12 months.
Advice the company whether the offer from the foreign branch should be accepted.
43. NP and Co. has imported goods for US $ 7,00,000. The amount is payable after three months.
The company has also exported goods for US $ 4,50,000 and this amount is receivable in
two months. For receivable amount a forward contract is already taken at ` 48.90.
The market rates for Rupee and Dollar are as under:
Spot ` 48.50/70
Two months 25/30 points
Three months 40/45 points
The company wants to cover the risk and it has two options as under:
(A) To cover payables in the forward market and
(B) To lag the receivables by one month and cover the risk only for the net amount. No
interest for delaying the receivables is earned. Evaluate both the options if the cost of
Rupee Funds is 12%. Which option is preferable?
44. A customer with whom the Bank had entered into 3 months’ forward purchase contract for
Swiss Francs 10,000 at the rate of ` 27.25 comes to the bank after 2 months and requests
cancellation of the contract. On this date, the rates, prevailing, are:
Spot CHF 1 = ` 27.30 27.35
One month forward ` 27.45 27.52
What is the loss/gain to the customer on cancellation?
45. A bank enters into a forward purchase TT covering an export bill for Swiss Francs 1,00,000
at ` 32.4000 due 25th April and covered itself for same delivery in the local interbank market
at ` 32.4200. However, on 25th March, exporter sought for cancellation of the contract as the
tenor of the bill is changed.
In Singapore market, Swiss Francs were quoted against dollars as under:
Spot USD 1 = Sw. Fcs. 1.5076/1.5120
One month forward 1.5150/ 1.5160
Two months forward 1.5250 / 1.5270
Three months forward 1.5415/ 1.5445
and in the interbank market US dollars were quoted as under:
Spot USD 1 = ` 49.4302/4455
Spot / April 4100/4200
Spot/May 4300/4400
Spot/June 4500/4600
Calculate the cancellation charges, payable by the customer if exchange margin required by
the bank is 0.10% on buying and selling.
46. Your forex dealer had entered into a cross currency deal and had sold US $ 10,00,000 against
EURO at US $ 1 = EURO 1.4400 for spot delivery.
However, later during the day, the market became volatile and the dealer in compliance with
his management’s guidelines had to square – up the position when the quotations were:
Spot US $ 1 INR 31.4300/4500
1 month margin 25/20
2 months margin 45/35
Spot US $ 1 EURO 1.4400/4450
1 month forward 1.4425/4490
2 months forward 1.4460/4530
What will be the gain or loss in the transaction?
47. You have following quotes from Bank A and Bank B:
Bank A Bank B
SPOT USD/CHF 1.4650/55 USD/CHF 1.4653/60
3 months 5/10
6 months 10/15
SPOT GBP/USD 1.7645/60 GBP/USD 1.7640/50
3 months 25/20
6 months 35/25
Calculate :
(i) How much minimum CHF amount you have to pay for 1 Million GBP spot?
(ii) Considering the quotes from Bank A only, for GBP/CHF what are the Implied Swap
points for Spot over 3 months?
48. M/s Omega Electronics Ltd. exports air conditioners to Germany by importing all the
components from Singapore. The company is exporting 2,400 units at a price of Euro 500 per
unit. The cost of imported components is S$ 800 per unit. The fixed cost and other variables
cost per unit are ` 1,000 and ` 1,500 respectively. The cash flows in Foreign currencies are
due in six months. The current exchange rates are as follows:
`/Euro 51.50/55
`/S$ 27.20/25
After six months the exchange rates turn out as follows:
`/Euro 52.00/05
`/S$ 27.70/75
(A) You are required to calculate loss/gain due to transaction exposure.
(B) Based on the following additional information calculate the loss/gain due to transaction
and operating exposure if the contracted price of air conditioners is ` 25,000 :
(i) the current exchange rate changes to
`/Euro 51.75/80
`/S$ 27.10/15
(ii) Price elasticity of demand is estimated to be 1.5
(iii) Payments and receipts are to be settled at the end of six months.
49. Your bank’s London office has surplus funds to the extent of USD 5,00,000/- for a period of
3 months. The cost of the funds to the bank is 4% p.a. It proposes to invest these funds in
London, New York or Frankfurt and obtain the best yield, without any exchange risk to the
bank. The following rates of interest are available at the three centres for investment of
domestic funds there at for a period of 3 months.
London 5 % p.a.
New York 8% p.a.
Frankfurt 3% p.a.
The market rates in London for US dollars and Euro are as under:
London on New York
Spot 1.5350/90
1 month 15/18
2 months 30/35
3 months 80/85
London on Frankfurt
Spot 1.8260/90
1 month 60/55
2 months 95/90
3 months 145/140
At which centre, will be investment be made & what will be the net gain (to the nearest pound)
to the bank on the invested funds?
50. Drilldip Inc. a US based company has a won a contract in India for drilling oil field. The project
will require an initial investment of ` 500 crore. The oil field along with equipments will be
sold to Indian Government for ` 740 crore in one year time. Since the Indian Government will
pay for the amount in Indian Rupee (`) the company is worried about exposure due exchange
rate volatility.
You are required to:
(a) Construct a swap that will help the Drilldip to reduce the exchange rate risk.
(b) Assuming that Indian Government offers a swap at spot rate which is 1US$ = ` 50 in
one year, then should the company should opt for this option or should it just do
nothing. The spot rate after one year is expected to be 1US$ = ` 54. Further you may
also assume that the Drilldip can also take a US$ loan at 8% p.a.
51. You as a dealer in foreign exchange have the following position in Swiss Francs on
31st October, 2009:
Swiss
Francs
Balance in the Nostro A/c Credit 1,00,000
Opening Position Overbought 50,000
Purchased a bill on Zurich 80,000
Sold forward TT 60,000
ANSWERS/ SOLUTIONS
Answers to Theoretical Questions
1. Please refer paragraph 10.
2. Please refer paragraph 4.
Answers to the Practical Questions
1. Here we can assume two cases (i) If investor is US investor then there will be no impact of
appreciation in $. (ii) If investor is from any other nation other than US say Indian then there
will be impact of $ appreciation on his returns.
First we shall compute return on bond which will be common for both investors.
(Price at end - Price at begining)+ Interest
Return =
Price at begining
£
£ receipt as per Forward Rate (Can $ 5,00,000/ Can$ 2.535) 1,97,239
£ receipt as per Spot Rate (Can $ 5,00,000/ Can$ 2.40) 2,08,333
Loss due to forward contract 11,094
£
£ receipt as per Forward Rate (Can $ 5,00,000/ Can$ 2.535) 1,97,239
£ receipt as per Spot Rate (Can $ 5,00,000/ Can$ 2.50) 2,00,000
Loss due to forward contract 2,761
Bid Ask
Swap Points for 2 months (a) 70 90
Swap Points for 3 months (b) 160 186
Swap Points for 30 days (c) = (b) – (a) 90 96
Swap Points for 15 days (d) = (c)/2 45 48
Swap Points for 2 months & 15 days (e) = (a) + (d) 115 138
Bid Ask
Spot Rate (a) 66.2525 67.5945
Swap Points for 2 months & 15 days (b) 0.0115 0.0138
66.2640 67.6083
Bid Ask
Spot Rate (a) 66.2525 67.5945
Foreign Exchange Rates for 66.2640 67.6083
20 th June 2016 (b)
Premium (c) 0.0115 0.0138
Total (d) = (a) + (b) 132.5165 135.2028
Average (d) / 2 66.2583 67.6014
6. Since the direct quote for ¥ and ` is not available it will be calculated by cross exchange rate
as follows:
`/$ x $/¥ = `/¥
62.22/102.34 = 0.6080
Spot rate on date of export 1¥ = ` 0.6080
Expected Rate of ¥ for August 2014 = ` 0.5242 (` 65/¥124)
Forward Rate of ¥ for August 2014 = ` 0.6026 (` 66.50/¥110.35)
(i) Calculation of expected loss without hedging
7. The bank (Dealer) covers itself by buying from the market at market selling rate.
Rupee – Dollar selling rate = ` 42.85
Dollar – Hong Kong Dollar = HK $ 7.5880
Rupee – Hong Kong cross rate = ` 42.85 / 7.5880
= ` 5.6471
Profit / Loss to the Bank
Amount received from customer (1 crore × 5.70) ` 5,70,00,000
Amount paid on cover deal (1 crore × 5.6471) ` 5,64,71,000
Profit to Bank ` 5,29,000
8. Amount realized on selling Danish Kroner 10,00,000 at ` 6.5150 per Kroner = ` 65,15,000.
Cover at London:
Bank buys Danish Kroner at London at the market selling rate.
Pound sterling required for the purchase (DKK 10,00,000 ÷ DKK 11.4200) = GBP 87,565.67
Bank buys locally GBP 87,565.67 for the above purchase at the market selling rate of
` 74.3200.
The rupee cost will be = ` 65,07,88
Profit (` 65,15,000 - ` 65,07,881) = ` 7,119
Cover at New York:
Bank buys Kroners at New York at the market selling rate.
Dollars required for the purchase of Danish Kroner (DKK10,00,000 ÷ 7.5670) = USD
1,32,152.77
Bank buys locally USD 1,32,152.77 for the above purchase at the market selling rate of
` 49.2625.
The rupee cost will be = ` 65,10,176.
Profit (` 65,15,000 - ` 65,10,176) = ` 4,824
The transaction would be covered through London which gets the maximum profit of
` 7,119 or lower cover cost at London Market by (` 65,10,176 - ` 65,07,881) = ` 2,295
9. On January 28, 2013 the importer customer requested to remit SGD 25 lakhs.
To consider sell rate for the bank:
US $ = `45.90
Pound 1 = US$ 1.7850
(ii) In Japanese Yen, the net exposure is payable, and the forward rate is quoted at a
discount, effectively offsetting the position. Likewise, in the remaining currencies, the
net exposures are in receivables, and the related currencies are at a premium,
offsetting the positions in their respective currencies.
11. (i) US $ required to get ` 25 lakhs after 2 months at the Rate of ` 47/$
` 25,00,000
∴ = US $ 53191.489
` 47
(iii) Convert GBP to USD at New York GBP 6,230,650.155 × 1.6231 USD 10,112,968.26
There is net gain of USD 10,112968.26 less USD 10,000,000 i.e. USD 112,968.26
14. (i) Under the given circumstances, the USD is expected to quote at a premium in India
as the interest rate is higher in India.
(ii) Calculation of the forward rate:
1 + R h F1
=
1 + R f Eo
Where: Rh is home currency interest rate, Rf is foreign currency interest rate, F1 is end
of the period forward rate, and Eo is the spot rate.
1 + ( 0.10/2 ) F1
Therefore =
1 + ( 0.04 / 2 ) 55.50
1 + 0.05 F1
=
1 + 0.02 55.50
1.05
or × 55.50 =
F1
1.02
58.275
or = F1
1.02
or F1 = `57.13
(iii) Rate of premium:
57.13 - 55.50 12
× × 100 =
5.87%
55.50 6
15. (i) Calculation of expected spot rate for September, 2009:
Therefore, the expected spot value of $ for £ for September, 2009 would be $ 1.81.
(ii) If the six-month forward rate is $ 1.80, the expected profits of the firm can be
maximised by retaining its pounds receivable.
16.
(ii) It is seen from the forward rates that the market expectation is that the dollar will
depreciate. If the firm's own expectation is that the dollar will depreciate more than
what the bank has quoted, it may be worthwhile not to cover forward and keep the
exposure open.
If the firm has no specific view regarding future dollar price movements, it would be better to
cover the exposure. This would freeze the total commitment and insulate the firm from undue
market fluctuations. In other words, it will be advisable to cut the losses at this point of time.
Given the interest rate differentials and inflation rates between India and USA, it would be
unwise to expect continuous depreciation of the dollar. The US Dollar is a stronger currency
than the Indian Rupee based on past trends and it would be advisable to cover the exposure.
19. (i) Rate of discount quoted by the bank
(45.20 - 45.60) × 365 × 100
= = 5.33%
45.60 × 60
(ii) Probable loss of operating profit:
(45.20 – 45.50) × 1,00,000 = ` 30,000
20. Buy £ 62500 × 1.2806 = $ 80037.50
Sell £ 62500 × 1.2816 = $ 80100.00
Profit $ 62.50
Alternatively, if the market comes back together before December 15, the dealer could unwind
his position (by simultaneously buying £ 62,500 forward and selling a futures contract. Both
for delivery on December 15) and earn the same profit of $ 62.5.
21. If importer pays now, he will have to buy US$ in Spot Market by availing overdraft facility.
Accordingly, the outflow under this option will be
`
Amount required to purchase $130000[$130000 X `48.36] 6286800
Add: Overdraft Interest for 3 months @15% p.a. 235755
6522555
If importer makes payment after 3 months then, he will have to pay interest for 3 months @
5% p.a. for 3 month along with the sum of import bill. Accordingly, he will have to buy $ in
forward market. The outflow under this option will be as follows:
$
Amount of Bill 130000
Add: Interest for 3 months @5% p.a. 1625
131625
Amount to be paid in Indian Rupee after 3 month under the forward purchase contract
` 6427249 (US$ 131625 X ` 48.83)
Since outflow of cash is least in (ii) option, it should be opted for.
22. (i) Pay the supplier in 60 days
If the payment is made to supplier in 60 days the applicable ` 63.15
forward rate for 1 USD
Payment Due USD 1 crore
Outflow in Rupees (USD 1 crore × ` 63.15) ` 63.15 crore
Add: Interest on loan for 30 [email protected]% p.a. ` 0.50 crore
Total Outflow in ` ` 63.65 crore
(ii) Availing supplier’s offer of 90 days credit
Amount Payable USD 1.00000 crore
Add: Interest on credit period for 30 [email protected]% p.a. USD 0.00646 crore
Total Outflow in USD USD 1.00646 crore
Applicable forward rate for 1 USD ` 63.45
Total Outflow in ` (USD 1.00646 crore ×` 63.45) ` 63.86 crore
23.
(`)
Present Exchange Rate `65 = 1 US$
If company purchases US$ 60,000 forward premium is
60000 × 64 × 2% 76,800
Interest on `76,800 for 6 months at 12% 4,608
Total hedging cost 81,408
If exchange rate is `68
Then gain (`68 – `64) for US$ 60,000 2,40,000
Less: Hedging cost 81,408
Net gain 1,58,592
If US$ = `62
Then loss (`64 – `62) for US$ 60,000 1,20,000
Add: Hedging Cost 81,408
Total Loss 2,01,408
If US$ = `70
Then Gain (`70 – `64) for US$ 60,000 3,60,000
Less: Hedging Cost 81,408
Total Gain 2,78,592
If US$ = `65
Then Gain (` 65 – ` 64) for US$ 60,000 60,000
Less: Hedging Cost 81,408
Net Loss 21,408
Total
(` )
Sum due Yen 78,00,000 US$1,02,300 Euro 95,920
Unit input price Yen 650 US$10.23 Euro 11.99
Unit sold 12000 10000 8000
Variable cost per unit ` 225/- ` 395/- ` 510/-
Variable cost ` 27,00,000 ` 39,50,000 ` 40,80,000 ` 1,07,30,000
26.
Spot Rate = `40,00,000 /US$83,312 = 48.0123
Forward Premium on US$ = [(48.8190 – 48.0123)/48.0123] x 12/6 x 100
= 3.36%
(iii) Place DM 1503.76 in the money market for 3 months to obtain a sum of DM
Principal: 1503.76
Add: Interest @ 7% for 3 months = 26.32
Total 1530.08
(iv) Sell DM at 3-months forward to obtain Can$= (1530.08x0.67) = 1025.15
(v) Refund the debt taken in Can$ with the interest due on it, i.e.,
Can$
Principal 1000.00
Add: Interest @9% for 3 months 22.50
Total 1022.50
Net arbitrage gain = 1025.15 – 1022.50 = Can$ 2.65
28. The only thing lefts Rohit and Bros to cover the risk in the money market. The following steps
are required to be taken:
(i) Borrow pound sterling for 3- months. The borrowing has to be such that at the end of
three months, the amount becomes £ 500,000. Say, the amount borrowed is £ x.
Therefore
(ii) Convert the borrowed sum into rupees at the spot rate. This gives: £493,827 × ` 56 =
` 27,654,312
(iii) The sum thus obtained is placed in the money market at 12 per cent to obtain at the
end of 3- months:
(iv) The sum of £500,000 received from the client at the end of 3- months is used to refund
the loan taken earlier.
From the calculations. It is clear that the money market operation has resulted into a
net gain of ` 483,941 (` 28,483,941 – ` 500,000 × 56).
If pound sterling has depreciated in the meantime. The gain would be even bigger.
1 + in A
S1 = S0
1 + in B
1 + (0.075) × 3
S1 = £0.7570 12
1 + (0.035) × 3
12
1.01875
= £0.7570
1.00875
= £0.7570 × 1.0099 = £0.7645
= UK £0.7645 / US$
32. (i) The contract is to be cancelled on 30-10-2010 at the spot buying rate of US$ 1
= ` 41.5000
Less: Margin Money 0.075% = ` 0.0311
= ` 41.4689 or ` 41.47
US$ 20,000 @ ` 41.47 = ` 8,29,400
` 2,47,109
Since outflow of cash is least in case of Option same should be opted for. Further if
price of INR goes above JY 2.125/INR the outflow shall further be reduced.
34. The company can hedge position by selling future contracts as it will receive amount from
outside.
Company would like to take out 20 contracts for July and 14 contracts for September
respectively. Therefore costs, if the options were exercised, will be:
July Sept.
Can $ US $ Can $ US $
Decision: As the firm is stated as risk averse and the money due to be paid is certain, a fixed
forward contract, being the cheapest alternative in the both the cases, would be
recommended.
37. (i) Receipt under three proposals
(a) Proposal of Mr. Peter
€ 2.8 million
Invoicing in £ will produce = = £ 2.340 million
1.1965
(b) Proposal of Mr. Wilson
Forward Rate = € 1.1970-0.0055 = 1.1915
€ 2.8 million
Using Forward Market hedge Sterling receipt would be =
1.1915
£ 2.35 million
(c) Proposal of Ms. Karen
The equivalent sterling of the order placed based on future price (€1.1943)
€ 2.8 million
= = £ 2,344,470 (rounded off)
1.1943
£2,344,470
Number of Contracts = = 37 Contracts (to the nearest whole number)
62,500
€ Receipt
Amount to be hedged = € 590,000
(i) Forward market hedge
Sell 4 months' forward contract accordingly, amount
receivable after 4 months will be (€ 590,000 x1.9510) = US$ 1,151,090
(ii) Money market hedge
For money market hedge Columbus shall borrow in
€ and then translate to US$ and deposit in US$
For receipt of € 590,000 in 4 months (@ 5.33% interest)
amount required to be borrowed now (€590,000 ÷ 1.0533) = € 560,144
With spot rate of 1.8890 the US$ deposit will be = US$ 1,058,113
Deposit amount will increase over 4 months
(@3.83% interest) will be = US$ 1,098,639
In this case, more will be received in US$ under the forward hedge.
39. (a) Forward contract: Dollar needed in 180 days = £3,00,000 x $ 1.96 = $5,88,000/-
(b) Money market hedge: Borrow $, convert to £, invest £, repay $ loan in 180 days
Amount in £ to be invested = 3,00,000/1.045 = £ 2,87,081
Amount of $ needed to convert into £ = 2,87,081 x 2 = $ 5,74,162
Interest and principal on $ loan after 180 days = $5,74,162 x 1.055 = $ 6,05,741
(c) Call option:
Expected Prem./ Exercise Total Total price Prob. Pi pixi
Spot rate in unit Option price per for
180 days unit £3,00,000xi
1.91 0.04 No 1.95 5,85,000 0.25 1,46,250
1.95 0.04 No 1.99 5,97,000 0.60 3,58,200
2.05 0.04 Yes 2.01* 6,03,000 0.15 90,450
5,94,900
Add: Interest on Premium @ 5.5% (12,000 x 5.5%) 660
5,95,560
* ($1.97 + $0.04)
GBP = 1 1
to
USD 1.5617 USD 1.5673
GBP = 1 1
to
USD 1.5455 USD 1.5609
42. Option I (To finance the purchases by availing loan at 18% per annum):
Advise: Option 2 is cheaper by (1092.03 – 1006.13) lakh or ` 85.90 lakh. Hence, the offer
may be accepted.
43. (A) To cover payable and receivable in forward Market
Amount payable after 3 months $7,00,000
Forward Rate ` 48.45
Thus Payable Amount (`) (A) ` 3,39,15,000
Amount receivable after 2 months $ 4,50,000
Forward Rate ` 48.90
Thus Receivable Amount (`) (B) ` 2,20,05,000
Interest @ 12% p.a. for 1 month (C) ` 2,20,050
Net Amount Payable in (`) (A) – (B) – (C) ` 1,16,89,950
(B) Assuming that since the forward contract for receivable was already booked it shall be
cancelled if we lag the receivables. Accordingly, any profit/ loss on cancellation of
contract shall also be calculated and shall be adjusted as follows:
Amount Payable ($) $7,00,000
Amount receivable after 3 months $ 4,50,000
Net Amount payable $2,50,000
Applicable Rate ` 48.45
Amount payable in (`) (A) ` 1,21,12,500
Profit on cancellation of Forward cost ` 2,70,000
(48.90 – 48.30) × 4,50,000 (B)
Thus, net amount payable in (`) (A) + (B) ` 1,18,42,500
Since net payable amount is least in case of first option, hence the company should cover
payable and receivables in forward market.
Note: In the question it has not been clearly mentioned that whether quotes given for 2 and
3 months (in points terms) are premium points or direct quotes. Although above solution is
based on the assumption that these are direct quotes, but students can also consider them
as premium points and solve the question accordingly.
44. The contract would be cancelled at the one-month forward sale rate of ` 27.52.
`
Francs bought from customer under original forward contract at: 27.25
It is sold to him on cancellation at: 27.52
Net amount payable by customer per Franc 0.27
= £ 3,28,947
Less: Amount Invested $ 5,00,000
Interest accrued thereon $ 5,000
= $ 5,05,000
Equivalent amount of £ required to pay the
above sum ($ 5,05,000/1.5430*) = £ 3,27,285
Arbitrage Profit =£ 1,662
(ii) If investment is made at New York
Gain $ 5,00,000 (8% - 4%) x 3/12 = $ 5,000
Equivalent amount in £ 3 months ($ 5,000/ 1.5475) £ 3,231
(iii) If investment is made at Frankfurt
Convert US$ 500,000 at Spot Rate (Cross Rate) 1.8260/1.5390= € 1.1865
Euro equivalent US$ 500,000 = € 5,93,250
Add: Interest for 3 months @ 3% =€ 4,449
= € 5,97,699
3 month Forward Rate of selling € (1/1.8150) = £ 0.5510
Sell € in Forward Market € 5,97,699 x £ 0.5510 = £ 3,29,332
Less: Amounted invested and interest thereon = £ 3,27,285
Arbitrage Profit = £ 2,047
Since out of three options the maximum profit is in case investment is made in New
York. Hence it should be opted.
* Due to conservative outlook.
50. (a) The following swap arrangement can be entered by Drilldip.
(i) Swap a US$ loan today at an agreed rate with any party to obtain Indian
Rupees (`) to make initial investment.
(ii) After one year swap back the Indian Rupees with US$ at the agreed rate.
In such case the company is exposed only on the profit earned from the
project.
Year 0 Year 1
(Million US$) (Million US$)
Buy ` 500 crore at spot rate of 1US$ = ` 50 (100.00) ----
Swap ` 500 crore back at agreed rate of ` 50 ---- 100.00
Sell ` 240 crore at 1US$ = ` 54 ---- 44.44
Interest on US$ loan @8% for one year ---- (8.00)
(100.00) 136.44
The Bank has to buy spot TT Sw. Fcs. 5,000 to increase the balance in Nostro account to
Sw. Fcs. 30,000.
This would bring down the oversold position on Sw. Fcs. as Nil.
Since the bank requires an overbought position of Sw. Fcs. 10,000, it has to buy forward Sw. Fcs.
10,000.