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8 April Shift 1

1. The document provides instructions for a JEE Main exam to be held on April 8th, 2023. It details that the exam will be 3 hours and consist of 90 multiple choice and numerical questions testing Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. 2. The questions are divided into sections for each subject, with Section A consisting of multiple choice questions and Section B consisting of numerical questions. For each correct answer, students will receive +4 marks, and -1 mark for each wrong answer. 3. The document provides examples of multiple choice and numerical questions that may be asked, related to topics in physics such as electric fields, thermodynamics, nuclear physics, and motion in magnetic fields.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
81 views

8 April Shift 1

1. The document provides instructions for a JEE Main exam to be held on April 8th, 2023. It details that the exam will be 3 hours and consist of 90 multiple choice and numerical questions testing Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. 2. The questions are divided into sections for each subject, with Section A consisting of multiple choice questions and Section B consisting of numerical questions. For each correct answer, students will receive +4 marks, and -1 mark for each wrong answer. 3. The document provides examples of multiple choice and numerical questions that may be asked, related to topics in physics such as electric fields, thermodynamics, nuclear physics, and motion in magnetic fields.

Uploaded by

Himanshu
Copyright
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FIITJEE

Solutions to JEE(Main) -2023


Test Date: 8th April 2023 (First Shift)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS


Paper - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.

3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and
Part-C is Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.

5. Section – B : Do any 5 questions out of 10 Questions.

6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

7. Section-B (1 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

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website: www.fiitjee.com.
JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-2

PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1
Q1. Dimension of should be equal to
0 0
(A) L2 / T 2 (B) L/T
(C) T/L (D) T 2 / L2

Q2. In a reflecting telescope, a secondary mirror is used to :


(A) reduce the problem of mechanical support
(B) make chromatic aberration zero
(C) remove spherical aberration
(D) move the eyepiece outside the telescopic tube

Q3. An air bubble of volume 1cm3 rises from the bottom of a lake 40m deep to the surface at a
temperature of 12 C. The atmospheric pressure is 1 105 Pa, the density of water is 1000 kg/m 3
and g = 10 m/s2. There is no difference of the temperature of water at the depth of 40m and on
the surface. The volume of air bubble when it reaches the surface will be :
(A) 3 cm3 (B) 5 cm3
3
(C) 2 cm (D) 4 cm3

Q4. Graphical variation of electric field due to a uniformly charged


insulating solid sphere of radius R, with distance r form the
centre O is represented by : O
R

E E

(A) (B)

r=R r r=R r
E E

(C) (D)

r=R r r=R r

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Q5. Given below are two statements :


Statement I : If heat is added to a system, its temperature must increase.
Statement II : If positive work is done by a system in a thermodynamic process, its volume must
increase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q6. Proton (P) and electron (e) will have same de-Broglie wavelength when the ratio of their
momentum is (assume, mP = 1849 me) :
(A) 43 : 1 (B) 1 : 1849
(C) 1 : 43 (D) 1 : 1

Q7. The weight of a body on the earth is 400N. Then weight of the body when taken to a depth half of
the radius of the earth will be :
(A) Zero (B) 200 N
(C) 100 N (D) 300 N

Q8. An aluminium rod with Young’s modulus Y  7.0  1010 N / m2 undergoes elastic strain of 0.04%.
The energy per unit volume stored in the rod in SI unit is :
(A) 8400 (B) 11200
(C) 2800 (D) 5600
A
Q9. For a nucleus X having mass number A and atomic number Z
z
A. The surface energy per nucleon  bs    a1A 2 / 3 .
Z  Z  1
B. The Coulomb contribution to the binding energy bc   a2
A 4/ 3
C. The volume energy bv  a3 A
D. Decrease in the binding energy is proportional to surface area.
E. While estimating the surface energy, it is assumed that each nucleon interacts with 12
nucleons. ( a1 , a2 , and a3 are constants)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) B, C only (B) C, D only
(C) B, C, E only (D) A, B, C, D only

Q10. For the logic circuit shown, the output


waveform at Y is :
A
0 1 2 3 4
t

B
0 1 2 3 4
t
A

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(A) (B) 0
0
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
t t

(C) 0 (D) 0
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
t t

Q11. A charge particle moving in magnetic field B, has the components of velocity along B as well as
perpendicular to B. The path of the charge particle will be
(A) helical path with axis along magnetic field B
(B) circular path
(C) helical path with the axis perpendicular to the direction of magnetic filed B
(D) straight along the direction of magnetic field B

Q12. A cylindrical wire of mass  0.4  0.01 g has length  8  0.04  cm and radius  6  0.03 mm. The
maximum error in its density will be :
(A) 3.5% (B) 5%
(C) 4% (D) 1%

Q13. The engine of a train moving with speed 10 ms-1 towards a platform sounds a whistle at
frequency 400Hz. The frequency heard by a passenger inside the train is : (neglect air speed.
Speed of sound in air = 330 ms-1)
(A) 388 Hz (B) 400 Hz
(C) 200 Hz (D) 412 Hz

Q14. Two projectiles A and B thrown with initial velocities of 40 m/s and 60m/s at angles 30 and
60  with the horizontal respectively. The ratio of their ranges respectively is
 g  10m / s 
2

(A) 4 : 9 (B) 1 : 1
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 3

Q15.  
At any instant the velocity of a particle of mass 500g is 2t ˆi  3t 2 ˆj ms1. If the force acting on the

 
particle at t  1s is ˆi  x ˆj N. Then the value of x will be :
(A) 6 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 2

Q6. In this figure the resistance of the coil of galvanometer G B


is 2  . The emf of the cell is 4V. The ratio of potential 6 C2
difference across C1 and C2 is : A D
G
3
(A) (B) 1
4 C1 8
5 4 C
(C) (D)
4 5
4V

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Q17. A TV transmitting antenna is 98m high and the receiving antenna is at the ground level. If the
radius of the earth is 6400 km, the surface area covered by the transmitting antenna is
approximately :
(A) 3942 km2 (B) 4868 km2
2
(C) 1240 km (D) 1549 km2

A
Q18. Two forces having magnitude A and are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of
2
their resultant is :
5A 5A
(A) (B)
2 2
5A 5A 2
(C) (D)
4 2

Q19. Given below are two statements :


Statements I: If E be the total energy of a satellite moving around the earth, then its potential
E
energy will be .
2
Statements II: The kinetic energy of a satellite revolving in an orbit is equal to the half the
magnitude of total energy E.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Q20. Certain galvanometer have a fixed core made of non magnetic metallic material.
The function of this metallic material is
(A) to make the magnetic field radial
(B) to bring the coil to rest quickly
(C) to produce large deflecting torque on the coil
(D) to oscillate the coil in magnetic field for longer period of time

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SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

Q1. An electric dipole of dipole moment is 6.0  10 6 Cm placed in a uniform electric field of
1.5  103 NC 1 in such a way that dipole moment is along electric field. The work done in rotating
by 180  in this field will be ________mJ.

Q2. The momentum of a body is increased by 50%. The percentage increase in the kinetic energy of
the body is __________%.

Q3. The magnetic intensity at the centre of a long current carrying solenoid is found to be
1.6  103 Am1. If the number of turns is 8 per cm, then the current flowing through the solenoid is
_________A.

Q4. Two vertical parallel mirrors. A and B are separated by 10cm. A point
object O is placed at a distance of 2cm from mirror A. The distance
of the second nearest image behind mirror A form the mirror A
is________ cm. 2cm
O

10cm

Q5. The moment of inertia of a semicircular ring about an axis, passing through the centre and
1
perpendicular to the plane of ring, is MR2 , Where R is the radius and M is the mass of the
x
semicircular ring. The value of x will be _________.

Q6. An organ pipe 40cm long is open at both ends. The speed of sound in air is 360ms 1. The
frequency of the second harmonic is _________Hz.

Q7. A nucleus with a mass number 242 and binding energy per nucleon as 7.6MeV breaks into two
fragment each with mass number 121. If each fragment nucleus has binding energy per nucleon
as 8.1 MeV, the total gain binding energy is ________MeV.

Q8. An oscillating LC circuit consists of a 75 mH inductor and a 1.2 F capacitor. If the


maximum charge to the capacitor is 2.7 C. The maximum current in the circuit will be
________mA.

Q9. An air bubble of diameter 6mm rises steadily through a solution of density 1750kg/m 3 at the rate
of 0.35cm/s. The co-efficient of viscosity of the solution (neglect density of air) is _________Pas
(given, g = 10ms-2).

Q10. A current of 2 A flows through a wire of cross-sectional area 25.0mm 2. The number of free
28 -6 -1
electrons in a cubic meter are 2.0 × 10 . The drift velocity of the electrons is ________× 10 ms
-19
(given, charge on electron = 1.6 × 10 C).

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PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

Q1. The major product formed in the following reaction is:


CO 2H (i) LiBH
4
Major Product
EtOH
CO 2Et
(ii) H3O+
CO 2H
OH
(A) (B)
CO 2Et
OH
CO 2H
OH
(C) (D)
CO 2H
OH

Q2. The correct order of spin only magnetic moments for the following complex ions is
3 3 3 2
(A) Fe  CN6   Mn  CN6    CoF6   MnBr4 
2 3 3 3
(B) MnBr4    CoF6   Fe  CN6   Mn  CN6 
3 2 3 3
(C)  CoF6   MnBr4   Fe  CN6   Mn  CN6 
3 3 2 3
(D) Fe  CN6    CoF6   MnBr4   Mn  CN6 

Q3. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Lithium and Magnesium do not form superoxide
+ 2+
Statement I: The ionic radius of Li is larger than ionic radius of Mg
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q4. 2IO3  xI  I2H  6I2  6H2 O


What is the value of x?
(A) 2 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 6

Q5. What is the purpose of adding gypsum to cement?


(A) To slow down the process of setting (B) To facilitate the hydration of cement
(C) To speed up the process of setting (D) To give a hard mass

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Q6. Match List I with List II


List I- (Species) List II (Maximum allowed concentration in
ppm in drinking water)
A. F I. < 50 ppm
B. SO24 II. < 5 ppm
C. NO3 III. < 2 ppm
D. Zn IV. < 500 ppm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A-IV, B- III, C-II, D-I (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Q7. Choose the halogen which is most reactive towards S N1 reaction in the given compounds
(A, B, C & D)
Br(a)

B. I(a) I(b)
A.
Br(b)

C. Br(b)
Br(b) D.
Br(a) Br(a)
Me
(A) A  Br(b) ;B  I(a) ;C  Br(a) ;D  Br(a) (B) A  Br(a) ;B  I(a);C  Br(b);D  Br(a)
(C) A  Br(b) ;B  I(b);C  Br(b) ;D  Br(b) (D) A  Br(a) ;B  I(a);C  Br(a) ;D  Br(a)

Q8. Match List I with List II


N2Cl
is reacted with reagent in List-I to form products in List-II

List I- (Reagent) List II (Product)


A. NH2 I. F

B. HBF4 , II. CN

C. Cu,HCl III.
N N NH2

D. CuCN/ KCN IV. Cl

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below :


(A) A-IV, B- III, C-II, D-I (B) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Q9. In chromyl chloride, the number of d-electrons present on chromium is same as in (Given at no.
of Ti: 22,V: 23, Cr:24, Mn:25, Fe:26)
(A) Fe(III) (B) Ti(III)
(C) Mn(VII) (D) V(IV)

Q10. The reaction


1
H2 (g)  AgCl(s)  H (Aq)  Cl (aq)  Ag(s)
2
Occurs in which of the given galvanic cell,
(A) Pt | H2 (g) | KCl(soln ) | AgCl(s) | Ag
(B) Pt | H2 (g) | HCl(soln ) | AgNO3 (soln ) | Ag
(C) Ag | AgCl(s) | KCl(soln ) | AgNO3 | Ag
(D) Pt | H2 (g) | HCl(soln ) | AgCl(s) | Ag

Q11. Which halogen is known to cause the reaction given below:


2Cu2   4X  Cu2 X2 (s)  X2
(A) Only Bromine (B) All halogens
(C) Only chlorine (D) Only Iodine

Q12. Which of the following represent the Freundlich adsorption isotherms?

(A) x (B) x
log
m m
constatnt

p log p

(C) x (D) x
m m
constant

c p1/n
Choose the correct answer from the options given below;
(A) A, B only (B) A,C,D only
(C) A,B, D only (D) B, C, D only

Q13. Match List I with List II


List I List II
A. Saccharin I. High potency sweetener
B. Aspartame II. First artificial sweetening agent
C. Alitame III. Stable at cooking temperature
D. Sucralose IV. Unstable at cooking temperature
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
(A) A-II, B- IV, C-III, D-I (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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Q14. The water gas on reacting with cobalt as a catalyst forms


(A) Ethanol (B) Methanal
(C) Methanoic acid (D) Methanol

Q15. Which of the following complex is octahedral diamagnetic and the most stable?
(A) Na3[CoCl6] (B) K3[Co(CN)6]
(C) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 (D) [Co(H2O)6]Cl2

Q16. Sulphur(S) containing amino acids from the following are:


(a) isoleucine (b) cysteine (c) lysine (d) methionine (e) glutamic acid
(A) a, d (B) a,b,c
(C) b,d (D) b,c,e

Q17. Match List I with List II


List I (Reagents used) List II (Compound with
Functional group
detected)

Alkaline solution of copper sulphate


A. I. HO
and sodium citrate

NH2
B. Neutral FeCl3 solution II.

CHO
C. Alkaline chloroform solution III.

OH
Potassium iodide and
D. IV.
sodium hypochlorite

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :


(A) A-III, B- IV, C-II, D-I (B) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Q18. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Butan -1- ol has higher boiling point than ethoxyethane.
Reason R: Extensive hydrogen bonding leads to stronger association of molecules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A is false but R is true
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is the true but R is false
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q19. Which of the following metals can be extracted through alkali leaching technique?
(A) Cu (B) Pb
(C) Sn (D) Au

Q20. The correct order of electronegativity for given elements is:


(A) Br > C > At > P (B) C > P > At > Br
(C) P > Br > C > At (D) Br > P > At > C

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SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

Q1. Molar mass of the hydrocarbon (X) which on ozonolysis consumes one mole of O3 per mole of
(X) one mole each of ethanal and propanone is ___________ g mol1(Molar mass of C: 12g mol
1
, H= 1g mol1)

Q2. The number of following factors which affect the percent covalent character of the ionic bond
is____________.
(A) Polarising power of cation
(B) Extent of distortion of anion
(C) Polarisability of the anion
(D) Polarising power of anion

Q3. The vapour pressure vs. temperature curve for a solution solvent system is shown below.

1atm
Vapour Pressure

80 81 82 83
Temperature
o
( C)
The boiling point of the solvent is____________ oC.

Q4. The number of given statement/s which is / are correct is____________.


(A) The stronger the temperature dependence of the rate constant, the higher is the
activation energy
(B) If a reaction has zero activation energy, its rate is independent of temperature.
(C) The stronger the temperature dependence of the rate constant, the smaller is the activation
energy.
(D) If there is no correlation between the temperature and the rate constant then it means that the
reaction has negative activation energy.

Q5. The titration curve of weak acid vs strong base with phenolphthalein as indicator) is
shown below. The K phenolphthalein = 4 1010,
Given log 2 = 0.3

12
10
8
pH

0
5 10 15 20 25
VNaOH
The number of following statement/s which is / are correct about phenolphthalein is ____.

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-12

A. It can be used as an indicator for the titration of weak acid with weak base.
B. It begins to change colour at pH = 8.4
C. It is a weak organic base
D. It is colourless in acidic medium

Q6. 0.5 g of an organic compound (X) with 60% carbon will produce__________101 g of CO2 on
complete combustion.

Q7. The number of following statement/s which is/ are incorrect is_____________.
(A) Line emission spectra are used to study the electronic structure
(B) The emission spectra of atoms in the gas phase show a continuous spread of wavelength
from red to violet
(C) An absorption spectrum is like the photographic negative of an emission spectrum
(D) The element helium was discovered in the sun by spectroscopic method

Q8. When a 60 W electric heater is immersed in a gas for 100s in a constant volume container with
adiabatic walls, the temperature of the gas rises by 5oC. The heat capacity of the given gas is
_____JK1(Nearest integer)

Q9. XeF4 reacts with SbF5 to form


z
 XeFmn SbFy 
m + n + y + z = __________________.

Q10.
P=2 atm P=4atm P=3atm
V= 2L V= 3L V= 4L
CH4(g) CO2(g) Ne(g)

Three bulbs are filled with CH4, CO2 and Ne as shown in the picture. The bulbs are connected
through pipes of zero volume. When the stopcocks are opened and the temperature is kept
constant throughout, the pressure of the system is found to be______ atm. (Nearest integer)

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PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

sin x  cos x  2   7   7  


Q1. Let f  x   , x  0,      . Then f  f "  is equal to
sin x  cos x 4  12   12 
2 2
(A) (B)
3 3 3
1 2
(C) (D)
3 3 9

Q2. If the equation of the plane containing the line x  2y  3z  4  0  2x  y  z  5 and



     
perpendicular to the plane r  ˆi  ˆj   ˆi  ˆj  kˆ   ˆi  2ˆj  3kˆ is as ax  by  cz  4 , then

 a  b  c  is equal to
(A) 18 (B) 22
(C) 20 (D) 24

 x  1
Q3. Let I  x    2
dx, x  0 . If lim I  x   0 , then I 1 is equal to

x 1  x ex  x

e1 e2
(A)  loge  e  1 (B)  loge  e  1
e2 e1
e1 e2
(C)  loge  e  1 (D)  loge  e  1
e2 e1

n
1  2  ....  K n
Q4. Let SK 
K
and S
j1
2
j 
A
 
Bn2  Cn  D , where A,B,C,D  N and A has least value.

Then
(A) A + B + C + D is divisible by 5 (B) A + C + D is not divisible by B
(C) A + B is divisible by D (D) A  B  5 D  C 

Q5. If for z    i, z  2  z  4 1  i  , then    and  are the roots of the equation
(A) x 2  x  12  0 (B) x 2  3x  4  0
(C) x 2  2x  3  0 (D) x 2  7x  12  0
Q6. In a bolt factory, machines A, B and C manufacture respectively 20%, 30% and 50% of the total
bolts. Of their output 3, 4 and 2 percent are respectively defective bolts. A bolt is drawn at random
from the product. If the bolt drawn is found the defective, then he probability that it is
manufactured by the machine C is
5 9
(A) (B)
14 28
2 3
(C) (D)
7 7

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-14

Q7. Let R be the focus of the parabola y 2  20x and the line y  mx  c intersect the parabola at two
points P and Q. Let the point G 10, 10  be the centroid of the triangle PQR. If c  m  6 , then
2
PQ  is
(A) 296 (B) 346
(C) 317 (D) 325

9ˆ ˆ
Q8. If the points with position vectors  ˆi  10ˆj  13k,
ˆ 6iˆ  11jˆ  11 k,
ˆ i   j  8kˆ are collinear, then
2
2
19  6  is equal to
(A) 49 (B) 36
(C) 16 (D) 25

x4 y2 z3 x 1 y  3 z  4


Q9. The shortest distance between the lines   and   is
4 5 3 3 4 2
(A) 3 6 (B) 2 6
(C) 6 2 (D) 6 3

Q10. Let the number of elements in sets A and B be five and two respectively. Then the number of
subsets of A x B each having at least 3 and at most 6 elements is :
(A) 792 (B) 782
(C) 752 (D) 772

n
Q11. If the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the expansion of 1  x  are in the ratio 1 : 5 : 20,
then the coefficient of the fourth terms is
(A) 1827 (B) 5481
(C) 3654 (D) 2436

Q12. The number of ways, in which 5 girls and 7 boys can be seated at a round table so that no two
girls sit together, is
2 2
(A) 7  720  (B) 7  360 
2
(C) 126  5!  (D) 720

Q13. The number of arrangements of the letters of the word “INDEPENDENCE” in which all the vowels
always occur together is
(A) 14800 (B) 16800
(C) 18000 (D) 33600

 
 1  cos2  3x    sin3  4x 
Q14. lim      is equal to………
x  0   cos3  4x   
 
5

 
  loge  2x  1  
(A) 9 (B) 18
(C) 15 (D) 24

Q15. Let , ,  be the three roots of the equation x 3  bx  c  0 . If   1   , then


3 3 3 3 3
b  2c  3  6  8  is equal to
(A) 19 (B) 21
169 155
(C) (D)
8 8

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-15

Q16. Negation of  p  q    q  p  is
(A)   q  p (B)   p   q
(C) p    q  (D) q    p 

2 1 0 
Let A   1 2 1 . If adj adj  adj 2A   16  , then n is equal to
n
Q17.  
0 1 2 
(A) 12 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 8

Q18. The area of the region  x, y  : x 2



 y  8  x 2 , y  7 is
(A) 18 (B) 21
(C) 20 (D) 24

 3 1 
   1 1 a b 
Q19. Let P   2 2 
,A  and Q  PAPT . If P T Q2007 P    , then 2a  b  3c  4d equal
 1 3 0 1  c d
 
 2 2 
to
(A) 2005 (B) 2007
(C) 2004 (D) 2006

Q20. Let C  ,   be the circumcenter of the triangle formed by the lines


4x  3y  69 ,
4y  3x  17 , and
x  7y  61 .
2
Then          is equal to
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 17 (D) 18

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-16

SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

n3
Q1. If a is the greatest term in the sequence an  4
, n  1, 2, 3,...., then  is equal to……..
n  147

Q2. If the solution curve of the differential equation


 4
 y  2loge x  dx   xloge x 2  dy  0, x  1  
passes through the points  e,  and e 4 ,  , then  is
 3
equal to……….

Q3. Consider a circle C1 : x 2  y 2  4x  2y    5 . Let its mirror image in the line y  2x  1be
another circle C 2 : 5x 2  5y 2  10fx  10gy  36  0 . Let r be the radius of C2 . Then   r is equal
to………

Q4. Let A  0, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 and R be the relation defined on A such that
R  x,y   A  A : x  y is odd positive int eger or x  y  2 . The minimum symmetric relation, is
equal to………..

5 
Q5. Let 1,  2 be the values of  for which the points  , 1,   and  2, 0, 1 are at equal distance
2 
from the plane 2x  3y  6z  7  0 . If 1  2 , then the distance of the point  1   2 ,  2 , 1  from
x  5 y 1 z  7
the line   is……….
1 2 2

Q6. The largest natural number n such that 3n divides 66! is…………

Q7. Let the mean and variance of 8 numbers x, y, 10, 12, 6, 12, 4, 8 be 9 and 9.25 respectively. If x > y,
then 3x  2y is equal to………

5 6
2
Q8. Let  t  denote the greatest integer  t . Then
  8 cos ec x   5 cot x   dx is equal to………..
 /6

 
Q9.

Let a  6iˆ  9ˆj  12k, ˆ b   ˆi  11jˆ  2kˆ and c be vectors such that a  c  a  b . If a  c  12 ,
 
   
c  ˆi  2ˆj  kˆ  5 , then c  ˆi  ˆj  kˆ is equal to………

7
 1 
Q10. Let  t  denote the greatest integer  t . If the constant term in the expansion of  3x2  5  is
 2x 
 , then   is equal to……..

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-17

FIITJEE
KEYS to JEE (Main)-2023
PART – A (PHYSICS)
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. A
5. A 6. D 7. B 8. D
9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C
13. B 14. A 15. B 16. D
17. A 18 A 19. D 20. B

SECTION - B
1. 18 2. 125 3. 2 4. 18
5. 1 6. 900 7. 121 8. 9
9. 10 10. 25

PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B
5. A 6. DROP 7. B 8. C
9. C 10. D 11. D 12. C
13. C 14. D 15. B 16. C
17. A 18. D 19. C 20. A

SECTION – B
1. 70 2. 3 3. 82 4. 2
5. 2 6. 11 7. 1 8. 1200
9. 11 10. 3

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-18

PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. C
5. D 6. A 7. D 8. B
9. A 10. A 11. C 12. C
13. B 14. B 15. A 16. D
17. C 18 C 19. A 20. C

SECTION - B
1. 5 2. 3 3. 2 4. 19
5. 9 6. 31 7. 25 8. 14
9. 11 10. 1275

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-19

FIITJEE
Solutions to JEE (Main)-2023
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A
1
Sol1. C2 
 0 0
1  L2 
Dimension of = Dimension of C2   2 
 0 0 T 

Sol2. Move the eyepiece outside the telescopic tube.

Sol3.   1000kg / m3 V2 , T2  T1
P1v1 P2 v 2 P2  P0  1 105 Pa.

T1 T2
  1000kg / m3 40 cm
P
 v 2  1 v1
P2
v i  1cm3
5  105 T1  12 C
 5
 1cm3
1 10 P0  1 105 Ra
 5cm3  P1  P0   gh  1 105  1000  10  40  5  105 Ra

k
Sol4. Er  r ; r  R 
R3 R
k r
Er  2 ;  r  R 
r

Sol5.   U  W ; In isothermal process, hit can be added also at constant temperature.


W  PV ; W  0  V  0
Statement I is false but II is true.

h
Sol6. P   e   Momentum P  Momentum e
P

 R 
Sol7. g  g 1 
R   g/ 2
d
2  2R 
W Surface 
 W dR   200N
 2 2

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-20

4
Sol8. Y  7  1010 N / m2 . Strain  0.04% 
10000
1
Energy per unit volume  Stress  Strain
2
1 2
 Y  Strain 
2
2
1  4 
  7  1010   
2  10000 
3
 56  100  5600 J/m .

 A  2Z 2 Z  Z  1
Sol9. EB  a v A  as A 2/3  a A 1/3
 ac     A,Z 
A A1/ 3
Volume Surface Asymmetry Coulomb Pairing
Term Term Term Term Term
So, most appropriate options are C and D

Sol10. Y  A  A  B  B AA
A
 A  A  B B
 A  A  B B Y
 A B

B
BB
A

o o
0 t
1 2 3 4
B

o o
0 t
1 2 3 4

A B Y
=
A
+
B
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

o
t
0 1 2 3 4

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-21


Sol11. Helical path with axis along B V sin V 
B

 V cos 

Sol12. m  0.4  0.01g


  8  0.04cm
r  6  0.03mm
m
Density,  
r2
d dm dr d
 100   100  2  100   100
 m r 
 .01 0.03 0.04 
  2   100
 .4 6 8 
 1 1 1 
     100  4%
 40 100 200 

Sol13. f0  400Hz,Vtrain  10m / s, Vsound  330m / s


 v  v0 
f '  f0    f0 as v 0  v s 
 v  vs 
 f '  400Hz

Sol14. u1  40m / s, 1  30


u2  60m / s, 2  60
2
R1 u12 sin 2  u  sin21
  1
R2 u22 sin 22  u2  sin22
g.
g
2
2 sin60 4 3 2 4
   
  
 3  sin120 9 2  3 9

Sol15. m  500 g

v  2t ˆi  3t 2 ˆj m / s

 dv
 a  2 ˆi  6t ˆj m / s 2
dt
  1 1
F  ma  a  2iˆ  6t ˆj N
2 2
 
 1
 
at t  1sec, F  2iˆ  6 ˆj N  ˆi  3ˆj
2
 x3

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-22

4 4 1 B
Sol16. i   A 6
6  2  8 16 4 C2
1 A D
Vc1  i  6  2    8  2v G
4
1 C1 8
Vc 2  i  2  8    10  2.5 A i
4 C
VC1 2 4
  
VC2 2.5 5 4v

Sol17. h  98m 
  2Rh
h x
 Area  2  2Rh Receiver
3
 2  6400  98  10 
Transmitter
 3942km2
R= 6400 km

2
A 5
Sol18. R  A 2     A
2 2
A/2

Sol19. For a satellite moving in a orbit –


GMm  GMm
E , potential energy = 2E =
2r r
GMm
Kinetic energy =-E=
2r
 Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Sol20. To bring the coil in rest quickly.


SECTION – B
 
Sol1. P  6  10 6 Cm, E  1.5  103 NC1
   
  
Wext   U   P  E   P  E
f

i

 PE  PE  2PE  2  6  10  1.5  103


6

 18  10 3 J  18mJ

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-23

2
 P
P2 P   9 P2
2
Sol2. Ki  ;  
2m 2m 4 2m
2
9  P
  1
k 4  2m
  100    100
k P2
2m
5
  100  125%
4

Sol3. Magnetic intensity H  1.6  103 A / m


n  8per cm  800per meter
 H  ni
H 1.6  103
i   2A
n 8  102

Sol4. 18 A B

18cm 8cm
I2 2cm
I1 O I'1

10cm

1
Sol5. I MR2  MR2  x  1
x

I
Sol6.   40cm
u  360m / s
u
0 
2 
Second Harmonic frequency,
2u u 360  100
20     900Hz.
2  40

Sol7. BE. Per nucleon of M = 7.6 MeV


BE. Per nucleon of m = 8.1 MeV +
Gain in m = 121 m = 121
M = 242
B  E  8.1 121  121  7.6  242
  8.1  7.6   242
 .5  242  121 MeV

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-24

Sol8. C  1.2 F
Q  2.7C C L=75mH
2
Q 1
 Li2
2C 2
Q2 Q 2.7  106
 imax   
LC LC 75  10 3  1.2  10 6
2.7  10 6

90  10 9
2.7  106

3  104
 .9  102 A
 9mA

Sol9. At steady state :- FB


FB  FV
4 3
 r  g  6 nrv
3
4r 3  g 2r 2 g 3
n 
18 rv 9v Fv   1750ky / m
0 coeff of vicosy, n = ?
2 9  106  1750  10 radius r = 3mm
 
9 35  10 4
 10

Sol10. J  neVd i = 2A
j 2
 Vd   A = 25mm
2
ne 25  106  2  1028  1.6  10 19 28
ne = 2 ×10
2  10 3
  25  10 6 m / s
80

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-25

PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A
Sol1.
COOH COOH
(I) LiBH4 / EtOH

COOEt (II) H3O+


OH
LiBH4 will reduce ester and not the carboxylic acid so answer is (I)

Sol2.

[Fe(CN)6]-3 Fe+3 = 3d5 n =1

2 3
d sp

[Mn(CN)6]-3 Mn+3 = 3d4 n =2

2 3
d sp

[CoF6]-3 Co+3 = 3d6 n =4

3 2
sp d

[MnBr4]-2 Mn+2 = 3d5 n =5

3
sp
CN strong field ligand F & Br  are weak field ligand
  n  N  2  BM

Sol3. Lithium & Magnesium form oxide & not superoxide due to small size, ionic size of Li + > ionic size
of Mg+2.

Sol4. 12H  10e   2IO3 


 I2  6H2 O
2I  I2  2e  ]  5
2IO3  10I  12H  6I2  6H2O
x  10

Sol5. Gypsum is added to slow down the process of setting.

Sol6. All four are incorrect


correct answer is
A  III, B  IV , CI, DII

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-26

Sol7.

(A) Benzylic carbocation more stable

(B)
I Allylic carbocation is more stable

(C)
Non bridged tertiary carbocation are more stable
Br

Br Tertiary carbocation are more stable


(D)

Sol8.
OH
N NCl H NH2 N N NH2 + HCl

Coupling reaction


N NCl HBF 4 N NBF 4 F + BF 3 +N 2

Cu / HCl
N NCl Cl + N2 + CuCl

Gatterman reaction

CuCN / KCN
N NCl CN

Sol9. CrO2Cl2
x+4x(2) + 2x(1)=0
x6=0
x=6
5 1 0
Cr(O) 3d 4s Cr(VI) [Ar]3d
5
Fe(III) [Ar]3d
Ti(III) [Ar]3d1
Mn(VII) [Ar]3d0

1
Sol10. H2  H  e (Anode)
2
AgCl(s)  e  Ag (s)  Cl (cathode)
Cell Pt / H2 (g) / HCl(s) | AgCl(s) / Ag

Sol11. Only Iodine will react that way


2Cu2  4I   Cu2I2  I2

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-27

x
Sol12.  p1/n
m
x
 kp1/n
m
x 1
log  logk  logp
m n
Graphically represented by A, B & D only

Sol13. Saccharin First artificial sweetening agent


Aspartame  Unstable at cooking temperature
Alitame  High potency sweetener
Sucralose Stable at cooking temperature.

Co
Sol14. CO  2H2  CH3 OH

Sol15. K 3  Co  CN  6  Co 3  3d6
3
Co  CN 6  CN strong field ligand

2 3
d sp
All the electrons are paired up hence diamagnetic.

Sol16. Cysteine and methionine contain sulphur


O
C
Cysteine SH OH
NH2
O
Methionine CH3 S CH 2 CH2 CH C OH
NH2

Sol17. Alkaline solution of copper sulphate and sodium citrate (test of aldehyde)
CHO

Neutral FeCl3 solution (test of phenol)


OH

Alkaline chloroform solution (test of primary amine)


NH2

Potassium iodide and sodium hypochlorite (iodoform test)


OH

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-28

Sol18. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-OH undergo for intermolecular hydrogen bonding but


CH3-CH2-O-CH2-CH3 has no hydrogen bond since there it no O-H bond.

Sol19. Sn can be extracted by alkali leaching

Sol20. Br = 3.0
C = 2.5
At = 2.2
P = 2.1
SECTION – B
H CH3 CH3
| | |

Sol1. Product of ozonolysis CH3  C  O  O  C  CH3 so hydrocarbon is CH3  CH  C  CH3


formula C5H10 molecular mass = 70

Sol2. According to Fajan’s rule a, b and c are the factor on which percent covalent character of the
ionic bond depend.

Sol3. Boiling point is the temperature at which Solvent

vapour pressure is equal to 1 atm pressure

Solution
1atm

VP

o
Temperature 82 C

Sol4. (A) K  AeEa/RT


Ea Slope =
Ea
logk  log A  log k 2 : 303R
2.303RT
Higher is the value of Ea steeper is the slope.
1 dk Ea
(B) 
K dt RT 2
1
T

Sol5. (B) K  4  10 10


 logk   log 4  10 10
 2log2  log1010
 6  10  9.4
Indicator range pK  1
Is 8.4 to 10.4
(D) In acidic medium it is colourless

60
Sol6. Mass of C   0.5  0.3 gm
100
0.3
Moles of C 
12

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-29

0.3
Moles of CO2 
12
0.3
Mass of CO2   44
12
 1.1 gm
 11 101 gm

Sol7. Statement B is incorrect


Emission spectrum of an atom is discrete spectrum.

Sol8. Heat produced = 100  60


q  CT
100  60  C  5
C  1200

 1
Sol9. XeF4  SbF5   XeF3  SbFe 
2
 XeFm  n SbFy 
m  3 , n  1, y  6 z  1
m  n  y  z  3  1  6  1  11

Sol10. CH4 CO2 Ne


P1V1  P2 V2 P1V1  P2 V2 P1V1  P2 V2
2  2  P2  9 3  4  P2  9 4  3  P2  9
4 12 12
P2  atm P atm P2 
9 9 9
4 12 12 4  12  12 28
Ptotal      3
9 9 9 9 9

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-30

PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION – A
 1 1  
2  sin x  cos x   1
Sol1. f  x   2 2  
 1 1 
2 sin x  cos x 
 2 2 
 
sin   x   1
f  x  4 
 
sin  x  
 4
1
f 'x  
 
1  cos  x  
 4
 
 sin  x  
 4
f "  x  2
 
1  cos  x  
 4
 7   sin  2   1 1
f   1
 4  sin 
 3  1

 2 
 3 
 sin  
 7   2  1
f "   2
 1
 4    3   12
 1  cos  
  2 
 7   7 
f   f "  1
 4   4 

 ˆ ˆ ˆ
Sol2. D.R’s of line n1  5i  7 j  3k
D.R’s of normal of second plane

n2  5iˆ  2jˆ  3kˆ
 
n1  n2  27iˆ  30ˆj  25kˆ
 11 14 
 0, 5 , 5 
A point on required plane is  

Equation of required plane is 27x  30y  25z  4


 a  b  c  22

x 1
 x 1 x  e 2
dx; x  0
Sol3.
 x

x x
let 1  x  e  t  t  1  x  e

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-31

dt
x  ex  ex 
dx
dt
 x  1 dx  x
e
dt
  t  1 t 2
t   t  1
 t  t  1 dt
2

1 1
  t  t  1  dt   t 2
dt

t   t  1 1
 dt   dt
t   t  1 t2
1
 n t  1  n t  1   6
t
1
  
 n x  e x  n 1  x  e x   1  x  ex
c

x  ex 1
 n x
 c
1 x  e 1  x  ex
lim I  x   0  C
x

e 1
I 1  n 
1 e 1 e
1
I 1  ne  n 1  e  
1 e
e2
  n 1  e 
e 1

k 1
Sk 
Sol4. 2
k 2  1  2k
Sk2 
4
n
1  n  n  1 2n  1 2  n n  1 
 S2j   n 
j1 4  6 2 
n  2n2  3n  1 
   n  2
4 6 
n  2n2  9n  13 
  
4 6 
n
 2n2  9n  13 
24  
A  24, B  2, C  9, D  13
5 D  C   20
A + B = 26,
A + B + C = 35 A + B + D = 39

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-32

z  2    i  2    i  4  4i
Sol5.
2
   2  2     4   i    4 
  4  0    4
2 2
   2  16     4 
4  4
 1
    3
    4
Sum of roots = 7
Product of roots = 12

Sol6.
2 3 5
PA  P B   P C 
10 , 10 , 10
Let defective be D
D 3
P  
A
  100
,
D 4
P  
 B  100
D 2
P  
C
  100
5 2

P E   10 100
2 3 3 4 5 2
    
10 100 10 100 10 100
10

28
5

14

y 2  20x y
Sol7.
y  mx  c
 y c   x1, y1 
y 2  20  
 m  P
20y 20c
y2  
m m
R
20y 20c x
y2   0  5, 0 
m m ………..(i)
20
y1  y 2  Q
m
0  y1  y 2  x2 , y2 
 10
Now, 3
y1  y2  30

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-33

20
 30
m
20
m
30
2
m
3
c  m  6 (given)
2
c 6
3
20
c
3
Now from equation (i)
20
20 
2
y  30y  3 0
2
3
y 2  30y  200  0
y  10 , y  20
P  5,10  Q   20, 20 
,
PQ 2  325

9 
, , 8 
Sol8.
 ,10,13 ;  6,11,11 ,  2 
6 1 2
 
3 11   19
2
3
 6 
19 , 19  22  2
117

19 ; 2  41
19   117 ,   123
2 2
19  6   117  123   36


a  b  n  n 
1 2
Sol9. Shortest distance =
n1  n2
 
a   4,  2,  3  n1   4,5,3 
 
b  1,3,4  n2   3,4,2 
i j k
 
n1  n2  4 5 3
3 4 2
  2  i  j  1  kˆ 1   2,1,1

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-34

6  5  7
d 3 6
6

n  A  B   10
Sol10.
10 10 10 10
C3  C4  C5  C6  792

n n
Cr Cr  1
n
5 n
4
Cr 1 Cr
Sol11. ;
nr 1 n   r  1  1
5 4
r ; r 1
n  6r  1 ; n  5r  4
n  29 , r = 5
29
th C3
Coefficient of 4 term =
= 3654.
7
Sol12. 6! C 5  5!
 720  21 150
2
 126   5! 

8! 6!
  16800
Sol13. 3!2! 4!

 1  cos2  3x   sin3  4x 
lim   
x  0  cos3 4x
    loge  2x  15
Sol14.
3
 sin 4x  5
 1  cos  3x   9x 2
2  4x   64 x
lim    

x 0  9x 2  cos3 4x  5
  n 1  2x   5
   32 x
 2x 
 1 9 1 64 
lim 2      18
x2
 2 1 1 32 
3
Sol15. x  bx  c  0
  1 ,   1
 3  b  c  0
1  b  c  0
c b 1
      c
1  c  c  1
b=0
x3  1  0
2
  1 ,    ,   
 b3  2c 3  3 3  63  8 3
0  2  3  6  8  19

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-35

Sol16.
 p  q   q  p
  p  q  q  p 
p  q  q  p
 p  q  q  p
 q  p

A 4
Sol17.

adj adj  adj 2A  
3
 n 1
 2A
8
 2A
8
2 3
A   16n
8
2 3
 22   16n
240  16n
1610  16n
n = 10
Sol18.

y x2

 1, 7  1,7 
y=7
 2, 4   2,4 

2 1 1 2 x

8  x2

1 2 2
 
A  2 7   x 2 dx   8  x 2 dx   x 2 dx 
 0 1 1 
A  20

T
Sol19. Q  PAP
PT Q2007  P
 PT Q2006  Q  P
 P T Q2006  PA P T P
 PT Q2006PA
 A 2007

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-36

 1 2007 
A 2007   
0 1 
a  1, b  2007, c  0, d  1
2a  b  3b  4d  2005

Sol20. 4x  28y  244


4x  3y  69
25y  175
y7
, x = 12
A 12,7 
3x  4y  17
3x  21y  183
25y  200
y8
x  5, y = 8
B  5,8 
17 15
 , 
2 2
2
        
1  16  17
SECTION – B
x3
Sol1. f x 
x 4  147

f ' x 
 
x 4  147 3x 2  x3 4x 3  
2
x 4
 147 
f 'x  0
x   21
f max of f  4  or f  5 
f  4   0.158, f  5   0.161
a5

dy 1 y
Sol2.  
dx x 2xnx
dy y 1
 
dx 22n  x  x
1
I.F.  e  2xnx
dx

1
I.F =  nx  2
y  I.F     n   I.F dx

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-37

nx
y nx   dx
x
3
2
y nx   nx  2  c
3
 4
At point  e, 
 3
y 2
 c
3 3
2
c
3
3
2 2
y nx   nx  2 
3 3

At point e4 , 
3

Sol3. x 2  y 2  4x  2y  5    0
C1  2, 1 , r1  
2x  y  1  0
Image of  2, 1
x  2 y  1 2  4  1  1
 
2 1 5
 x  2  y  1 8
 
2 1 5
16 6
x  2 
5 5
8 13
y  1 
5 5
36
x 2  y 2  2fx  2gy  0
5
c 2  f,g 
36
r2  f 2  g2 
5
36
  f 2  g2 
5
6 13
f ,g
5 5
36 169 36
  
25 25 5
36  169  36

25
  1, r = 1
 r  2

Sol4. A  0, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-38

Odd No. – 3, 7, 9
Even No. – 0, 4, 6, 8, 10
3
C1  5 C1  15
Difference = 2
 6, 4  , 8,6 10, 8 ,  9, 7 
Total = 15 + 4 = 19.

Sol5. 2x  3y  6z  7  0
5 
 2 , 1,   ,  2, 0, 1
 
5  3  6  7
d1 
7
4  6  7
d2 
7
Now,
 15  6  3
15  6   3 or 15  6   3
1  3 or  2  2 as  1   2 

P  1   2  ,  2 ,  3 
P 1, 2, 3 
x  5 y 1 z  7
distance of point P 1, 2, 3  from the line  
1 2 2
18i  18j  9kˆ
d 9
3

Sol6. Exponent of 3 is 66!


 66 
 3   22
 
 22 
 3 7
 
7
3  2
 
Total = 31
n = 31

x  y  52
Sol7. 9
8
x  y  20
For variance
x  9, y  9, 3, 3, 1,  5,  1,  3
x0
2 2
x  9   y  9   54 2

8
 
 0  9.25
2 2
 x  9  11  x   20

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-39

x  7, 13
y  13, 7
3x  2y  3  13  2  7  25

5  /6
2
Sol8. I
 / 6
  8  cos ecx   5 cot x   dx
5  /6 5  /6
2  
  8 cosecx  dx  5 cot x   dx 
  / 6  
 /6 
I1 I2
5  /6
I1  8  dx
 /6

16
I1 
3
5  /6
I2   5 cot x   dx
/ 6

1  4   
I2    
2  6  3
2  16 5 
I 
n  3 3 
2  21  42
 
n  3  3
42
  14
3

   
Sol9. a c  a b
  
 a c b  0  
  
 
a parallel c  b
  
a   c b  
 6, 9, 12     x    ,  y  11 ,  z  2  
x   y  11 z  2
 
2 3 4
4y  44  3z  6
4y  3z  50
6x  9y  12z  12
2x  3y  4z  4
2x  4y  2z  10
y  2z  14
y  2, z  14, x  23

c   23, 2,  14 

c 1,1,1  23  2  14  11

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JEE-MAIN-2023 (8th April-First Shift)-PCM-40

7
 1 
Sol10.  3x2  5 
 2x 
r
7 r  1 

Tr 1  7 Cr 3x 2   5 
 2x 
r2
T3  1275.75
   1275

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