10 April Shift 2
10 April Shift 2
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.
3. This question paper contains Three Parts. Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and
Part-C is Mathematics. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
4. Section – A : Attempt all questions.
6. Section-A (01 – 20) contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
7. Section-B (1 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question
is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-2
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles pf oxygen and 4 moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system will be,
(A) 16RT (B) 8RT
(C) 11RT (D) 4RT
7
Q2. The half life of a radioactive substance is T. The time taken, for disintegrating th part of its
8
original mass will be :
(A) T (B) 2T
(C) 3T (D) 8T
Q3. Young’s moduli of the material of wires A and B are in the ratio of 1 : 4, while its area of cross
sections are in the ratio of 1 : 3. If the same amount of load is applied to both the wires, the
amount of elongation produced in the wires A and B will be in the ratio of [Assume length of wires
A and B are same ]
(A) 1 : 12 (B) 12 : 1
(C) 1 : 36 (D) 36 : 1
Q4. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the screen in a Young’s double slit experiment
where phase difference between two waves of same amplitude are / 3 and / 2, respectively are
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 3
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2
Q5. A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long vertical copper tube. After some
time the magnet will
(A) oscillate inside the tube
(B) move down with an acceleration greater than g
(C) move down with an acceleration equal to g
(D) move down with almost constant speed
Q6. For a periodic motion represented by the equation y sin t cos t the amplitude of the motion
is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 2
Q7. The amplitude of magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis is
6.0 107 T. The maximum value of electric field in the electromagnetic wave is
(A) 180 Vm 1 (B) 2 1015 Vm1
(C) 5 1014 Vm1 (D) 6.0 107 Vm1
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-3
Q8. A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of the following statement is NOT true.
(A) There is no heat supplied to the system
(B) There is no change in the internal energy
(C) The change in the internal energy is equal to the work done on the gas.
(D) The temperature of the gas increases.
Q9. Two projectiles are projected at 30 and 60 with the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of
the maximum height attained by the two projectiles respectively is :
(A) 1: 3 (B) 3 : 1
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 3
Q13. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A : An electric fan continues to rotate for some time after the current is switched off.
Reason R : Fan continues to rotate due to inertia of motion.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) A is correct but R is not correct
(C) A is not correct but R is correct
(D) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-4
Q14. In a metallic conductor, under the effect of applied electric field, the free electric of the conductor
(A) move in the straight line paths in the same direction
(B) drift from higher potential to lower potential.
(C) move with the uniform velocity throughout from lower potential to higher potential
(D) move in the curved paths from lower potential to higher potential
Q15. A message signal of frequency 3kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of frequency 1.5 MHz.
The bandwidth of the amplitude modulated wave is
(A) 6 MHz (B) 3 kHz
(C) 6 kHz (D) 3 MHz
Q16. The time period of a satellite, revolving above earth’s surface at a height equal to R will be
(Given g 2 m / s2 . R = radius of earth)
(A) 2R (B) 8R
(C) 4R (D) 32R
Q18. The distance between two plates of a capacitor is d and its capacitance is C1, when air is the
2d
medium between the plates. If a metal sheet of thickness and of the same area as plate is
3
C
introduced between the plates, the capacitance of the capacitor becomes C2. The ratio 2 is
C1
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 1
Q19. In an experiment with vernier callipers of least count 0.1 mm, when jaws are joined together the
zero of vernier scale lies right to the zero of the main scale and 6th division of vernier scale
coincides with the main scale division. While measuring the diameter of a spherical bob, the zero
th
of vernier scale lies in between 3.2cm and 3.3cm marks, and 4 division of vernier scale
coincides with the main scale division. The diameter of bob is measured as
(A) 3.25 cm (B) 3.22 cm
(C) 3.18 cm (D) 3.26 cm
Q20. A person travels x distance with velocity v 1 and then x distance with velocity v 2 in the same
direction. The average velocity of the person is v, then the relation between v, v 1 and v2 will be.
1 1 1 2 1 1
(A) (B)
v v1 v 2 v v1 v 2
v1 v 2
(C) v (D) v v1 v 2
2
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-5
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. A rectangular block of mass 5kg attached to a horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic
motion of amplitude 1m and time period 3.14s. The maximum force exerted by spring on block is
_________N.
_
Q2. An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical wire having
uniform linear charge density 2 10 8 C m1 in circular path +
+
under the influence of attractive electrostatic field as shown in +
the figure. The velocity of electron with which it is revolving is + e
-
+
_________ 10 6 ms 1. Given mass of electron 9 1031 kg +
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
Q3. If the maximum load carried by an elevator is 1400 kg (600 kg – Passengers + 800 kg – elevator),
which is moving up with a uniform speed of 3 ms-1 and the frictional force acting on it is 2000 N,
then the maximum power maximum power used by the motor is_________kW (g = 10 m/s2)
Q4. If 917 A be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series
will be _________ A .
Q5. A rectangular parallelepiped is measured as 1cm 1cm 100cm. If its specific resistance is
3 107 m, then the resistance between its two opposite rectangular faces will be
________ 10 7 .
Q8. A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a long solenoid that has 50 turns per centimetre and
carries a sinusoidally varying current of amplitude 2.5A and angular frequency 700rad s-1. The
central axes of the loop and solenoid coincide. The amplitude of the emf induced in the loop
is x 10 4 V. The value of x is_________.
22
(Take, )
7
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-6
Q9. A force of Pkˆ acts on the origin of the coordinate system. The about the point (2,-3) is
a x
P aiˆ bjˆ , The ratio of is . The value of x is –
b 2
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-7
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
H2NC
(i) LiAlH4
(ii) H3O+ 'X'
O
The product ‘X’ is :
HO
HO
Q2. Number of water molecules in washing soda and soda ash respectively are:
(A) 10 and 1 (B) 1 and 0
(C) 10 and 0 (D) 1 and 10
Q3. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: The energy required to form Mg2 from Mg is much higher than that required to
produce Mg
Reason R: Mg2 is small ion and carry more charge than Mg
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A is true but R is false
(B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(C) A is false but R is true
(D) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-8
B. V H2 O 6
2 II. 0.6
C. Mn H2 O 6
3 III. 0
D. Fe H2 O 6
3 IV. 0.8
Q6. The reaction used for preparation of soap from fat is:
(A) alkaline hydrolysis reaction (B) reduction reaction
(C) an addition reaction (D) an oxidation reaction
Q7. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Physical properties of isotopes of hydrogen are different.
Reason R: Mass difference between isotopes of hydrogen is very large.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) A is false but R is true
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. H3C C CH3
CH3
D. C
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-9
Q9. In Carius tube, an organic compound ‘X’ is treated with sodium peroxide to form a mineral acid ‘Y’
The solution of BaCl2 is added to ‘Y’ to form a precipitate ‘Z’. Z is used for the quantitative
estimation of an extra element. ‘X’ could be.
(A) Cytosine (B) Methionine
(C) A nucleotide (D) Chloroxylenol
Q10. Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from the following is:
(A) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH.
(B) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkene
(C) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed by hydrolysis.
(D) Ozonlysis of alkene.
Q11. The correct order of acidity of the following hydroxyl compound is:
A. CH3OH
B. (CH3)3COH
C. OH
D. OMe OH
E. O 2N OH
Q12. The correct relationships between unit cell edge length ‘a’ and radius of sphere ‘r’ for face-
centred and body-centred cubic structures respectively are:
(A) r 2 2a and 4r 3a (B) 2 2 r a and 4r 3a
(C) r 2 2a and 3r 4a (D) 2 2 r a and 3r 4a
Q13. Gibbs energy vs T plot for the formation of oxides is given below:
100
200 eO
2F
+O
2
300 O2
Fe 2C
Go of O3
+O
2 C+O2 CO2
400
2 CO
500 nO
2Z
600 + O2
(kJ / mol) Zn
800
o
OC 200
o
400
o o
600 800o 1000o 1200 1400o
o
T
For the given diagram, the correct statement is
(A) At 600oC, CO cannot reduce FeO
(B) At 600oC, C can reduce ZnO
(C) At 600oC, C can reduce FeO
o
(D) At 600 C, CO can reduce ZnO
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-10
Q14. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: 3.1500g of hydrated oxalic acid dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will
result in 0.1 M oxalic acid solution.
Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is 126 g mol1
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A is false but R is true
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q17. The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction is:
CH3O Cl
Anhy
'P'
AlCl3 (major)
O 2N
H3CO CH3
(A) (B)
CH3 O
O 2N CH3
O2 N
CH3 CH3
CH3O H3 CO NO2
(C) (D)
O2 N O2 N OCH 3
CH3 CH3 CH3
Q18. The correct order of the number of unpaired electrons in the given complexes is
A. [Fe(CN)6]3
B. [FeF6]3
C. [CoF6]3
D. [Cr(oxalate)3]3
E. [Ni(CO)4]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) E < A < B < D < C (B) E < A< D < C < B
(C) A < E < C < B < D (D) A < E < D < C < B
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-11
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-12
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. The number of molecule from the following which contain only two lone pair of electron
is________. H2O, N2, CO, XeF4,NH3,NO,CO2,F2
3
Q2. An aqueous solution of volume 300cm contains 0.63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the
solution at 300 K is 1.29 mbar. The molar mass of the protein is_______ g mol1
Given: R = 0.083 L bar K1 mol1.
Q4. In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate anion involves a gain of __ electrons.
Q6. For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic moment is 4.90 BM. This metal ions has ______ number
of unpaired electrons.
Q7. The difference in the oxidation state of Xe between the oxidized product of Xe formed on
complete hydrolysis of XeF4 and XeF4 is____________
Q9. The specific conductance of 0.0025 M acetic acid is 5105 S cm 1 at a certain temperature. The
dissociation constant of acetic acid is___________107.
2
Consider limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH as 400 S cm sol1.
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-13
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. Let be the mean and be the standard deviation of the distribution
xi 0 1 2 3 4 5
fi k2 2k k2 1 k2 1 k2 1 k 3
where f i 62 . If x denotes the greatest integer x , then 2 2 is equal to
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 6 (D) 9
Q2. Let A 2, 3, 4 and B 8, 9, 12 . Then the number of elements in the relation
R a , b a , b A B, A B : a
1 1 2 2 1 divides b2 and a2 divides b1 is
(A) 24 (B) 12
(C) 18 (D) 36
1
Q3. If Sn 4 11 21 34 50 .... to n terms, then S29 S9 is equal to
60
(A) 220 (B) 226
(C) 223 (D) 227
5! 6! 7!
1
Q4. If A
5! 6! 7!
6! 7! 8! , then adj adj 2A is equal to
7! 8! 9!
12
(A) 2 (B) 220
8
(C) 2 (D) 216
p q
Q5. If the coefficients of x and x 2 in 1 x 1 x are 4 and -5 respectively, then 2p 3q is equal to
(A) 66 (B) 63
(C) 69 (D) 60
Q6. Eight persons are to be transported from city A to city B in three cars of different makes. If each
car can accommodate at most three persons, then the number of ways, in which they can be
transported, is
(A) 1680 (B) 3360
(C) 560 (D) 1120
Q7. Let a die be rolled n times. Let the probability of getting odd numbers seven times be equal to the
probability of getting odd numbers nine times. If the probability of getting even numbers twice is
k
, then k is equal to
215
(A) 15 (B) 90
(C) 60 (D) 30
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-14
Q8. ˆ b 3iˆ 5kˆ and c ˆi ˆj 2kˆ . Let d be a vector which is perpendicular to both
Let a 2iˆ 7ˆj k,
a and b and c d 12 . Then ˆi ˆj kˆ c d is equal to
(A) 44 (B) 42
(C) 24 (D) 48
x 2 x e 2 x 1x
x
1 e
x
1
Q9. For , , , , if
e x
log e x dx C , where e and C is
e x n 0 n!
constant of integration, then 2 3 4 is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) -8 (D) -4
Q10. Let A be the point 1, 2 and B be any point on the curve x 2 y 2 16 . If the centre of the locus of
the point P, which divides the line segment AB in the ratio 3 : 2 is the point C , , then the
length of the line segment AC is
3 5 2 5
(A) (B)
5 5
4 5 6 5
(C) (D)
5 5
Q11. Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the ellipse 15x 2 19y 2 285 . Then the common
tangents are inclined to the minor axis of the ellipse at the angle
(A) (B)
3 6
(C) (D)
4 12
Q12. If the points P and Q are respectively the circumcenter and the orthocenter of a ABC , then
PA PB PC is equal to
(A) OP (B) 2QP
(C) PQ (D) 2PQ
2022 22
Q13. Let the number 22 2022 leave the remainder when divided by 3 and when divided
by 7. Then 2 2 is equal to
(A) 13 (B) 5
(C) 20 (D) 10
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-15
t2 2
4
f x x dx 3 t , t 0 . Then f 4 is equal to
2 3
Q16. Let f be a continuous function satisfying
0
2 3
(A) 2 1 (B) 1
16 16
3 2
(C) 1 (D) 2 1
16 16
Q17.
The statement p p q is equivalent to
(A) p q (B) p q q
(C) p q p (D) p q
2 2 x 1 2
Q18. Let S x , : 91 tan x 9tan x 10 and tan2 , then 14 is equal to
2 2 xS 3 6
(A) 8 (B) 64
(C) 16 (D) 32
2z 3i
Q19. Let S z x iy : is a real number . Then which of the following is NOT correct?
4z 2i
1 1 1
(A) x, y 0, (B) y , ,
2 2 2
1
(C) y x 2 y 2 (D) x 0
4
Q20. Let the image of the point P 1, 2, 6 in the plane passing through the points
A 1, 2, 0 , B 1, 4, 1 and C 0, 5, 1 be Q , , . Then 2 2 2
is equal to
(A) 76 (B) 65
(C) 70 (D) 62
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-16
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q1. Let S be the set of values of , for which the system of equations
6x 3y 3z 4 2
2x 6y 4z 1 ,
3x 2y 3z has no so solution. Then 12 is equal to……….
S
Q2. The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can be formed using all the digits 2, 1, 2, 3 is equal
to……..
Q3. Let the foot of perpendicular from the point A 4, 3, 1 on the plane P : x y 2z 3 0 be N. If
B 5, , , , is a point on plane P such that the area of the triangle ABN is 3 2 , then
2 2 is equal to……….
Q5. Let the quadratic curve passing through the point 1, 0 and touching the line y x at 1, 1 be
y f x . Then the x-intercept of the normal to the curve at the point , 1 in the first
quadrant is……….
Q6. Let the equations of two adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD be 2x 3y 23 and
5x 4y 23 . If the equation of its one diagonal AC is 3x 7y 23 and the distance of A from the
other diagonal is d, then 50 d2 is equal to………
E
Q7. In the figure, 1 2 and
2
3 BE 4 AB . If the area of CAB is
2
C D
1
A B
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-17
2x
Q8. If the domain of the function f x sec 1 is , , , then 3 10 21 is
5x 3
equal to……
1
Q10. Let the tangent at any point P on a curve passing through the points 1, 1 and , 100 ,
10
intersect positive x-axis and y-axis at the points A and B respectively. If PA : PB 1: k and
dy
k
y y x is the solution of the differential equation e dx kx , y 0 k , then 4y 1 5loge 3 is
2
equal to……..
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-18
FIITJEE
KEYS to JEE (Main)-2023
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D
5. D 6. C 7. A 8. B
9. D 10. D 11. D 12. C
13. A 14. D 15. C 16. D
17. A 18. C 19. C 20. B
SECTION – B
1. 20 2. 8 3. 48 4. 3668
5. 3 6. 2 7. 34 8. 44
9. 3 10. 80
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B
5. B 6. A 7. A 8. B
9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B
13. C 14. D 15. C 16. C
17. C 18 B 19. C 20. B
SECTION - B
1. 4 2. 40535 3. 4 4. 3
5. 1 6. 4 7. 2 8. 3
9. 66 10. 1
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-19
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D
5. B 6. A 7. C 8. A
9. B 10. A 11. A 12. C
13. B 14. C 15. A 16. C
17. C 18. D 19. A 20. B
SECTION - B
1. 24 2. 26664 3. 7 4. 27
5. 11 6. 529 7. 6 8. 24
9. 16 10. 5
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-20
FIITJEE
Solutions to JEE (Main)-2023
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A
Sol1. u n1cv1T. n2Cv 2 T
R 4R
T T
y1 1 y2 1
2R 4R
T
7 5
1 1
5 3
RT 5 6
u 11RT
A0
Sol2. A
2n
7 A
A 0 A 0 n0
8 2
2n 8
x=3
Time taken = 3T
yA 1 A A 1 A F
Sol3. ? A 1 A 1
yB 4 A B 3 B F3 B
A FA A A B B
B A A y A FB B
A A B yB
3 4 12 : 1
B A A y A
Sol4. I I1 I2 2 I1 I2 cos
IP I I 2 I2 cos 60
1
2I 2I
2
3I
IQ I1 I2 2 I1 I2 cos
IQ I I 2I cos / 2
2I
IP 3
3:2
IQ 2
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-21
E
Sol7. C E CB
B
3 108 6 107
18 10
180 v m 1
Sol8. Q u w By
for Adiabatic, Q 0
u w By
u w ON
u2 sin2 1
Sol9. H1
2g
u2 sin2 2
H2
2g
2
H1 sin21 sin30
H2 sin2 2 sin60 2
H1 1 4
1: 3
H2 4 3
Sol10. g1 g 2 R sin
At pole g1 g 0
At equator, g1 g 2 R 90
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-22
Sol13. Fan continues to rotate due to inertia of motion, even after the current is Smoothened off.
2R
Sol16. T
v
2 R
GM
R
2 R
gR
R
T 2
g
R
2
2
T 4R
Sol17. Diamagnetic materials get magnetised in the opposite direction to the external magnetic filed.
Therefore, they have a tendency to move away from stronger part to the weaker part of the field.
A
Sol18. C1
d
A A
C2
t 2d t
d t d
k 3
3A
C2
d
C2
3:1
C1
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-23
2x 2x
Sol20. v
t x x
v1 v 2
2
v
1 1
v1 v 2
2 1 1
v v1 v 2
SECTION - B
2
Sol1. F ma m A
2
2
F 5 1
T
2
2 3.14
5 1
3.14
54
20N
Sol2. 2 10 8 cm1
v2
eE m
r
2k mv 2
e
r r
2ek
v
m
1.6 1019 9 109 2 10 8
2
9 1031
4 1.6 1013 8 106 m / s 2
1 1 1
Sol4. R z2 2 2
n
1 n2
1 1 1
Lyman min R z2 12 2
1 R z2 1 1
2
Balmar min
2
2
B 1 4
B 4 L 4 917 3668 A
L 1 1
3 107 102
Sol5. R
A 1 100 10 4
3 107 = 3
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-24
0 I
Sol6. B 0 I
4 r 4r
4 107 14 22 107 14
4 2.2 102 7 2.2 10 2
2 10 4 T
1 1 1
Sol7.
v u f
1 1 1
v 6 24
1 1 1 3
v 24 6 24
24
v cm
3
24 54
u 10
3 3
1 1 1
v u f
1 3 1
v 54 9
1 1 3
v 9 54
1 63 3
v 54 54
54
v cm
3
Distance b/w Image and object
54
16
3
18 16
34cm
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-25
2P ˆj 3p ˆi
3Piˆ 2P ˆj
P 3iˆ 2ˆj
a x 3
x3
b 2 2
Sol10. A 1v1 A 2 v 2
210 4 4 10 10 6 v
v 20cm s1
PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A
Sol1.
O
C (I) LiAlH4
H2N H2N
(II) H3O+
O OH
Since LiAlH4 is strong reducing agent, it will reduce amide into amine and carbonyl into alcohol.
LiAlH4 can not reduce carbon- carbon multiple bond.
Sol3. Energy required to form Mg2+ is higher than that of Mg+ as Mg2+ has smaller size and more
charge.
2
Sol4. A Ti H2 O 6 Ti2 d2 t 22g eg0 CFSE 0.4 2 0.8
2
B V H2O 6 V 2 d3 t 32g eg0 CFSE 0.4 3 1.2
3
C Mn H2 O 6 Mn3 d4 t 32g eg1 CFSE 0.4 3 0.6 0.6
3
D Fe H2 O 6 Fe3 d5 t 32g eg2 CFSE 0.4 3 0.6 2 0
Sol7. Isotopes of hydrogen differ in physical properties due to their large mass difference.
Sol8. The intermediate which is less stable will have higher hydride affinity.
Among given intermediates the order of stability is D > B > A > C
Hydride affinity order will be C > A > B > D.
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-26
Sol11. Acidic strength of organic compounds depends on the stability of its conjugate base:
Higher the stability of C.B, higher is the acidic strength.
-H
(A) CH3 OH CH3 O
Me Me
(B) C OH -H C O
Me Me
Me Me
(C) -H
OH O
(D) Me -H
O OH Me O O
(E) NO 2 -H
OH NO 2 O
Order of stability of conjugate base E > C > D > A > B and thus acidic strength is
E>C>D>A>B
Sol12. in FCC
a 2 2r
and FCC BCC
BCC
4r 3 a
2 a 4r 3 a 4r
Sol13. In the Ellingham diagram, the reducing agent must have graph placed below.
At 600oC, the graph of C + O2 CO2 is below to the graph of Fe + O2 2FeO and
therefore can reduce.
3.15
Sol14. Assertion:- 0.025 moles in 250 ml
126
1L = 0.025 4 = 0.1 mole.
i.e 0.1 M
23
Sol15. (A) 16gm of CH4 i.e 1 mole i.e 6.0210 number of molecules, now one CH4 has
10electrons
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-27
Sol17.
CH3O
H3CO Cl
anhyd.AlCl3
O 2N
O 2N
CH3O MeO
O2N O 2N
H
3
Sol18. (A) Fe CN6 Fe3 d5 (Strong field ligand) t 52g eg0
Number of unpaired e is 1.
3
(B) FeF6 Fe 3 d5 (W.F.L) t 32g eg2
Number of unpaired e = 5.
3
(C) CoF6 Co 3 d6 (W.F.L) t 42g eg2
Number of unpaired e = 4
3
(D) Cr oxalate 3 Cr 3 d3 (W.F.L) t 32g eg0
Number of unpaired e = 3
(E) Ni CO 4 Ni d10 (S.F.L) eg4 t 62g
Number of unpaired e = 0
Sol19.
CH CH2
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-28
SECTION – B
Sol1.
O F
N N , C O , F X
H H ,
F F
Sol6. n n 2 4.9
n n 2 25
4 4 2 25
n4
Sol7. XeF4 H2 O
XeO3
+4 +6
1000K 1000 5 10 5
Sol9. m 20
C 0.0025
20
m 0.05
400
2
C 2 0.0025 0.05
Ka 6.56 10 6
1 0.95
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-29
i.e Ka 66 107
1 1 1
Sol10. RH z2 2 2
n1 n2
hc
hcRH (3)2
n 1 2
n
2
2 2
n 1 n
17
1.47 10 J 2n 1
2.18 10 J 9 n 12 n2
18
2n 1
0.74 2 2
n 1 n
3
i.e n 1
4
PART – C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION – A
Sol1. fi 62 k 2 2k k 2 1 k 2 1 k 2 1 k 3 62
3k 2 4k 64 0
k 4 3k 16 0
k 4 , as k is frequency.
fixi2 fixi2
2 2 2 2
fi fi
0 8 4 15 8 15 16 17 25 1
62
500 2
8
62 31
2 2 8
so
Sol2. a1, b1 , a2 , b2 A B 2 8
a1a2 A & b1, b2 B here b depends on a and b on a
2 1 1 2 3 9
a1 divides b2 each element has 2 choices
total ways = 3 x 2 = 6 4 12
a2 divides b1 each element has 2 choices total ways = 3 x
2=6
so,
a1, b1 , a2 , b2 6 6 36 ways
Sol3.
Sn 4 11 21 34 50 .....t n 1 t 4
Sn 4 11 21 .....t n 1 t n
0 4 7 10 13 .... t n
t n 4 7 10 ...
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-30
n
8 n 1 3
2
n
t n 3n 5
2
3 5 3 n n 1 2n 1 5 n n 1
Sn n2 n
2 2 12 4
n n 1 n n 1n 3
Sn
4
2n 1 5 2
29 30 32 9 10 12
S 30 S9
2 2
29 30 32 9 10 12
S30 S9
2 2
30 29 32 36
2
S30 S9 30 446
S S9
30 223
60
apply, R2 R2 R1
R3 R3 R1
1 6 42
A 0 1 14 A 2
0 2 30
n 1
2
adj adj 2A B
Now, B
4
B
4
2A
4
23 A
4
212 A 216
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-31
p p 1 q q 1
pq 5
2 2
p2 q2 2pq p q 10
pq 4 2
p q p q 10
16 p q 10
p q 26
Solve p q 26 & p q 4
p 15, q 11
2p 3q 63
3 3 2
1
Sol7. Probability of getting odd no. = Probability of getting even number =
2
P x 7 P x 9
n C7 qn 7 p7 n C9 qn 9 p9
n n
1 1
n C7 n C9 n C7 n C9
2 2
n 79
P x 2 16 C2 q16 2 p2
now,
16
16 1
C2
2
16 15 1
16
2 2
k 60
k 60
215 215
Sol8.
Let d a b
now c d 12
1 1 2
2 7 1 12
3 0 5
35 110 3 2 0 21 12
35 13 42 12
2 d 2 35iˆ 13ˆj 21kˆ
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-32
1 1 1
ˆ ˆ ˆ
i j k c d 2 1 1 2
35 13 21
now
2 1 21 26 1 21 70 1 13 35
2 47 91 22 44
x x
x x
Sol9. Let e t n e nt
x nx 1 nt
1 1
x nx 1 dx dt
x t
1
nx dx dt
t
1 dt 1
t 2 2 tdt 3 dt
t t t
t2 1
C
2 2t 2
2x 2x
1 x 1 e
C
2e 2x
2, 2, 2, 2
2 3 4 4
Sol10.
3 2 A 1, x
B 4 cos , 4 sin
A 1, 2 P h, k B 4 cos , 4 sin C
12cos 2 12sin 4
h ;k
5 5
5h 2 12cos , 5k 4 12sin
2 2
5h 2 5k 4 144
2 2
Generate it 5x 2 5y 4 144
2 2
2 4 144
x y
5 5 25
2 4
Centre C , , ; A 1,2
5 5
2 2
2 4
AC 1 2
5 5
9 36 3
25 25 5
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-33
x2 y2
Sol11. 1 , tangent y mx 19m2 15
19 15
It is also tangent to x 2 y 2 16
19m2 15 1
4m
2
1 m 3
1
tan ; so angle made with the y-axis is
3 6 3
a b c 2p q
A a
Sol12. G
3 3
PA AB PC a p b p c p
2 1
3a 3p
2p q 3p
Q q G
P p
ap
B b C c
PQ
Sol13. 22 3.7 1
2022 3.674 0
2022
So, 1 0
=1
22 7.3 1
2022 7.288 6
7.288 7 1
22
So, 12022 1
=2
Now, 2 2 1 4 5
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-34
x y6 z8
Sol15. A , 2 6, 5 8
1 2 5
x5 y 7 z2 5 2 6 7 5 8 2
meet
4 3 1 4 3 1
5 2 1 5 6
1
4 3 1
A 1, 4, 3
So,
3 2 6 3 5 8 6
B
6 3 1
3 2 3 5 14
3
6 3 1
B 3,0,7
Mid point of A & B 2,2,2
2 2 2 2 2 14
d 4
2
22 2 1
f x 2 x x2
2 4
f
4 16
Sol17. p p q p p q
2
Sol18. take 9 tan t x
9
x 10 x 2 10x 9 0
x
x 1, 9
2
9 tan t 90 , 91
t 0, ,
4 4
tan2 tan2 tan2
12
12
2 2
2 3 3 2
14 8 3
1 2 1
14 64 3 32
Now 6 6
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-35
2z 3i 2x i 2y 3
Sol19. 4z 2i 4x 1 4y 2
2x i 2y 3 4x i 4y 2
2 2
4x 4y 2
For it to be real
2x 2 4y 4x 2y 3 0
4x 8xy 8xy 2x 0 x 0
2z 3i i 2y 3 1
; here y
4z 2i i 4y 2 2
x 1 y 2 z
0 2 1 0 x y 2z 3 0
Sol20.
1 3 1
now find image of 1, 2, 6
x 1 y 2 z 6 2 1 2 12 3
1 1 2 1 1 4
5, 6, 2
SECTION – B
6 3 3
A 2 6 4 0 9 3 7 2 0 1 3 2 3 1 0
Sol1.
3 2 3
2 1
For no solution or infinite solution 1, ,
3 3
4 2 3 3
1 1 6 4 24 4 50 2 9 6
2
2 1
1 0 for any or 1, ,
3 3
2 1
So, 12 12 1 24
2 3
4!
Sol2. 2, 1, z, 3, total possible number = 12
2
Each number will come three times in each column
So column sum = 3 1 2 2 3 24
Sum of all elements - 24 103 24 102 24 101 24
24 1111 26664
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-36
4323
so A 6
2
12 1 22 N
1 6 2
area of ABN AN BN 3 2 BN 12
2 6 B
2 2 2
So, AB AN BN
AB2 6 12 AB 3 2
2 2 2
AB 5 4 3 1 3 2 ………(i)
5, , lies on the x y 2z 3 0 5 2 3 0
2 8
2 2
From equation (i) 3 2 1 2 8 3 1
18 1 42 25 20 2 2 1
52 18 9 0 5 3 3 0
3, 2 8 2
2 2 4 6 9 7
Sol4. x2 2 y x
2
Solve for x x 2 2,2
x2 x 2 0 1,1
x 2 x 1 0
x2
2,0
x 2 2 x x2 x 2 0
x 2 x 1 0 x 1
2 2 2
x2 2 dx x
2
A x dx 2 dx
1 1 2
required area
2 2 2
x2 x3 x3
2x 2x
2 1 3 1 3 2
9 8 3
A 6A 27 16 2
2 3
So, 6A 16 2 27
y ax 2 bx c
Sol5.
1, 0 1 a b c
1
b
2
dy
2ax b
Slope dx
at
1, 1 2a b
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-37
dy
y x, 1
dx
1 1
2a b 1 a c
4 4
2
1 2 x 1 x 2 2x 1 x 1
y x
4 2 4 4 4
2
a, a 1 4 a 1 a 1
a 1, 3 In first quadrant 3, 4
dy 2x 2 x 1
dx 4 2
dy 1
3, 4 2
at dx normal slope = 2
y 4 1
x 3 2 put y 0, x 11
1 7 D C
Sol6. Mid point M , 3x 7y 23
2 2 M
7 5x 4y 23
7
y7
Equation of BD 2
x 1 1
1 A 2x 3y 23 B 1, 7
2
y 7x 0
4, 5
28 5
d 50d2 529
50
CD BE BD E
Sol7. tan 2
AB AB
BE AC
AB AB
4 2
tan 2 tan 1
3 D
4
tan 2 tan 1
3
1
1 2 tan 1 cot 1 1 A B
Given 2
tan 1 tan 2 1
Let tan 1 m1, tan 2 m2
4
m1 m 2 & m1m2 1
3
1 4
m1 3m12 4m1 3 0
m1 3
m1 3
3m1 1 0
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-38
1
m2 3, m1
so, 3
1 AC
CAB AC AB tan
area of 2 AB
1
2 3 3 AB tan 1 AB
2
1
2 3 3 AB 2 tan
2 6
2
AB 2 2 2 3 3
3 12 6 3 3 3
Perimeter of CDE CD CE DE
AB AB sec 600 BE BD
4
AB AB sec 600 AB AB tan300
3
4 1
8 3 1 2
3
3
6
1 2x
Sol8. Domain of sec 5x 3
2x
1
5x 3
2x 5x 3
0
5x 3
7x 3
0
5x 3
3 3
x ,
5 7
2x
1
5x 3
2x 5x 3
0
5x 3
3 x 1
0
5x 3
3
x 1,
5
3 3 3
x 1, ,
5 5 7
Overall
3 3
1, ,
5 7
3 3
3 10 21 3 1 20 21 7
5
3 12 19 24
3 10 21 24
so
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-39
2 2d 2 d
Sol9. Let series be , , 2, 2 d r, 2 2d r 2
r2 r
here r = 2,
2 2d 2 d 49
sum of all 5 terms 2 2 d 2 4 2 2d
4 2 2
1 d d 49
1 2 4 2d 8 8d
2 2 2 2
31 49
9d d1
2 2
a 2 2d r 2 16
So, 4
Sol10. y y1 m x x1
K
y B P x1, y1
A x1 1 , 0
m
B 0, y1 mx1 1
y A
k x1 1
m y mx1
x1 & 1 y1
k 1 k 1
k mx1 y1 mx1 y1
x1 and y1
m k 1 k 1
k mx1 y1 mx1 y1 y
x1 and 1
m k 1 k 1
ky1 ky
x1 m 1 0
m x1
dy ky
Generalise
dx x
dy dx
k nC
y x
yx k C
1, 1 C 1 ,
1 1
10 , 100 100 10 k 1 k 2
dy
k
Now, e dx kx 2x 1
2
dy
n 2k 1
dx
y n 2x 1 dx constant
2x 1 n 2x 1 1
y constant
2
1
y x n 2x 1 x C
2
x 0, y 2 c 2
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JEE-MAIN-2023 (10th April-Second Shift)-PCM-40
3
x 1, y n3 1 2
2
4y 1 6n3 4
So, 4y 1 5n3 6n3 4 5n3
n3 4
5.08
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