This document contains multiple choice questions about clinical chemistry and laboratory procedures. It addresses topics like lipoprotein electrophoresis, quality control procedures, biological sample collection and handling, laboratory safety protocols, and interpretation of clinical chemistry results. The questions cover a wide range of essential information for medical technologists including analyte measurement techniques, specimen requirements, error detection, lean management strategies, and conditions indicated by abnormal lab values.
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CC Completion Exam Cycle 21
This document contains multiple choice questions about clinical chemistry and laboratory procedures. It addresses topics like lipoprotein electrophoresis, quality control procedures, biological sample collection and handling, laboratory safety protocols, and interpretation of clinical chemistry results. The questions cover a wide range of essential information for medical technologists including analyte measurement techniques, specimen requirements, error detection, lean management strategies, and conditions indicated by abnormal lab values.
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CC COMPLETION EXAM 1 CYCLE 2 15.
Select the arrangement of lipoproteins electrophoresed on
1. Chief counterion of Sodium cellulose acetate or agarose at ph 8.6 Chloride -chylo>beta>prebeta>alpha+ 2. In the CDC reference method for TG measurement, what reagents 16. Which of the ff procedures is useful in determining if a QC alert is are used in the extraction and adsorption steps respectively? caused by deteriorated QC materials or a problem the method? Chloroform and silicic acid Repeating measurement on a new sample of the QC 3. Exposure to biological hazards via aerosol may be due to material 1. Flaming inoculating loops 17. Which of the ff values of ABG analysis support the presence of 2. Spills on laboratory and formaldehyde gram-negative sepsis? 3. Centrifugation of infected fluids Low pH, HCO3 and normal pCO2 (bonus ni ma’am basta 4. Expelling a spray from needles effect ng metabolic acidosis) 1,2,3,4 - sepsis resulting metabolic acidosis 4. What is the relationship of BUN to the glomerular filtration rate 18. Drug of abuse that is not a CNS depressant include: (GFR)? 1. Barbiturates Inversely proportional 2. Methaqualone - If the GFR is high = BUN will low; low GFR = high BUN 3. Benzodiazepines 5. Cortisol is an analyte that is affected by diurnal variation. It is 4. Cannabinoids highest in the ___ and lowest in the _____. Only 4 is correct Morning; evening 19. What is the standard clinical specimen for blood glucose 6. A disproportionate rise in BUN over creatinine leading to a rise in measurement? their ratio is indicative of the presence of a Plasma Prerenal disease 20. Interfering substances that cause a negative bias in the alkaline - Pre renal affects GFR (decrease) BUN will accumulate thus picrate method for creatinine determination include: increase 1. Glucose 2. Hemoglobin 3. Protein 4. Bilirubin - Renal and Post renal disease: BUN and Creatinine will rise 2 and 4 are correct together; remain to be the normal ratio (renal and post renal) 21. Which of the ff strategies are incorporated in the lean concept of 7. Heavy metal that has high affinity to keratin, this it can be quality laboratory management? identified in hair and nail samples 1. Plan-do-check-act Arsenic 2. DMAIC 8. A patient undergoing the Atkins diet is expected to have increased 3. Sort-set in order-shine-standardize-sustain levels of what NP? 4. Organization-personnel-assessments-process improvement Urea 1 and 3 correct 9. Which of the ff statement is false regarding chronic toxicity? 22. Color of serum or plasma in presence of hemolysis? a. Single exposure, dose is sufficient to cause toxic effects – Pink Acute toxicity 23. AccuVein is a handheld medical device that helps medical staff b. Affects different organ system visualize veins before phlebotomy. This device works by c. Accumulation of the toxicant or toxic effects Emitting infrared light abdsorbed by hemoglobin in RBC d. Several exposures to dose insufficient to cause toxic effect 24. Which of the ff are minor lipoproteins? 10. In organophosphate poisoning, which of the ff enzyme is used to 1. IDL 2. LpX 3. Lp(a) d. Beta-VLDL reflect acute toxicity? Two of these a. Pseudocholinesterase – if mentioned Acute toxicity 25. A patient suffering from liver cirrhosis has the ff chemistry result b. b. 5’-nucleotidase Albumin: increased c. Acetylcholinesterase – if there’s no acute/chronic specified Ammonia: increased d. Angiotension Converting Enzyme Total bilirubin: normal - Acute toxicity: Acetyle AST: normal 11. Which of the ff sample is not useful for the detection of mercury ALT: normal poisoning? ALP: normal a. Stool b. hair c. urine d. blood Which of these results do not coincide with the patient’s condition? 12. In laboratory safety, health care facilities are required to have Albumin and Total Bilirubin policies that address - Albumin and total bilirubin always decreased in cirrhosis 1. Exposures to biological hazards - Enzymes can be normal 2. Epidemic emergencies 26. The ff are assayed as part of the liver function test panel except 3. Exposures to ergonomic hazards a. Bilirubin 4. Act-of-God occurrences b. ammonia 1, 2 , 3, 4 are correct c. prothrombin 13. Reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or d. total bilirubin percutaneous contact with blood or other potentially infectious - Others: ALT, AST, Lactate dehydrogenase, ALP, total protein, materials that may results from the performance of an employee’s 27. Which of the ff PPE is/are not used to prevent exposure of mucous duties membrane from splashes? a. Accidental exposure 1. Mask 2. Lab gown 3. Goggles 4. Gloves b. indirect exposure 2 and 4 are correct c. occupational exposure 28. In what portion of the QC chart are dependent variables located? d. direct exposure Y-axis (ordinate) 14. In which of these clinical conditions may blood cholesterol be 29. A medtech handling a lipemic sample performed serum blanking. increased? After the procedure, the lipemic sample remains turbid. Which of a. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis c. Malnutrition the ff is the best course of action? b. SLE d. Direct exposure Perform ultracentrifugation 30. Cholelithiasis causes obstruction that blocks the biliary tree. This 53. What electrolyte is the chief plasma cation that primarily functions condition is indicated by increased levels of in maintaining osmotic pressure? ALP, GGT, direct and total bilirubin Sodium 31. In the lean concept of quality laboratory management, nonvalued 54. Which of the ff results would be most consistent with high risk for activities are referred to as coronary heart disease? Wastes A. 50mg/dl HDL, 180 mg/dl total cholesterol 32. A medtech is tasked to collect a trough specimen for TDM. B. 55mg/dl HDL, 170 mg/dl total cholesterol Generally, a trough specimen is collected C. 45mg/dl HDL, 210 mg/dl total cholesterol 30 minutes before the drug is administered D. 20mg/dl HDL, 250mg/dl total cholesterol 33. How long should an in-patient be seated in a supine position before - The lower HDL the more at risk; the higher TC the more at risk blood is drawn to avoid problems with hemoconcentration and 55. Panic reactions, otherwise referred to as bad trips, is associated hemodilution? with what drug of abuse? 20 minutes LSD 34. Which of the ff best describes an outlier in the QC chart? 56. Drug of choice for absence seizures Control value that goes beyond +/- 2SD Ethosuximide - Presence of 1 outlier = warning - Secondary: Valproic acid - 2 outliers = reject 57. Proper centrifugation for plasma preparation after phlebotomy 35. Two control sera are desirable for each general chemistry Within 1hr at 1000 x g for 10 mins procedure. Which of the combination would be appropriate? 58. Which of the ff lipoproteins does not contain Apo B? Mean of normal and high abnormal ranges HDL 36. Majority of testing errors recorded in the laboratory occurs in what 59. Considering clinical utility, which of the ff test for cardiac markers is phase? the most useful in diagnosing AMI Pre-analytical Troponin I assay 37. Defects in six sigma process is measured using 60. What electrolyte is expected to be increased in a serum sample DPMO from a patient with thrombocytosis? 38. What parameter in the liver function test panel is reflective of liver K disease when decreased? 61. When is the best time to collect a blood sample for fasting blood Total protein glucose determination? 39. Which of the ff lipid profile parameter is expected to be falsely In the morning after 8 hours of fasting elevated on a serum specimen from a non-fasting patient? 62. The ff are causes hypokalemia except Triglycerides a. Insulin infusion to diabetes c. alkalosis 40. The trinder reaction is employed in the colorimetric determination b. vomiting d. DM of what drug? 63. Complete and proper centrifugation of collected blood sample is a salicylate process that is performed in what phase of testing? 41. What organ is primarily affected in hypoglycemic states? Pre-analytical Brain 64. System that is applied to reduce wastes or nonvalued activities 42. Fasting plasma glucose = 115mg/dl lean 2-hour plasma glucose = 130mg/dl 65. In the enzymatic method for cholesterol determination, what is the HbA1c = 6.0% most commonly used peroxidase in coupling H2O2 to a The result above indicated chromogenic substrate Prediabetes, impaired fasting glucose a. Horseradish peroxidase c. rabbit peroxidase - (Review page 209 of Henrys) b. pooled human peroxidase d. asparagus peroxidase 43. Anion gap is most clinically significant in cases of 66. Not true about proficiency testing (NEQUAS) Metabolic acidosis a. Comparison of results to a reference value 44. Which of the ff set of strategies is the most effective in laboratory b. Form of quality control safety programs to contain hazards? c. Otherwise known as external quality assessment a. Work practice controls and engineering controls d. Included as part of the analytical phase b. Work practice controls and PPE 67. Coupling enzyme used in the reference method for glucose c. Engineering controls and PPE determination d. Work practice controls, engineering controls and PPE G6PD 45. Hyperbilirubinemia seen in Dubin-Johnson syndrome is due to 68. What is the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis? Excretion deficits Vomiting 46. Poor renal perfusion would result to 69. Blood concentration of ethanol that will lead to deep coma Pre-renal azotemia 300 mg/dl (250-400 always choose the best) 47. HLA-DR/DQ on chromosome 6 is a genetic marker for 70. Which of the ff is not a manifestation of chronic lead toxicity? Type 1 DM 1. Peripheral neuropathy 3. Wrist drop and foot drop 48. Low C-peptide concentration 2. Basophilic stippling 4. Pica Type 1 DM 4 only 49. A sharp peak gamma region on serum electrophoresis is seen in 71. Concept related to the Six Sigma process except what condition? a. Measures defect per million opportunities Multiple myeloma (monoclonal gammopathy) b. Aims to decrease product or service variation 50. If a blood gas specimen is left exposed to air, which of the ff c. Steps include Define, Measure, Analyze, improve and Control changes will occur? d. Involves streamlining laboratory operations pO2 and pH increases, pCO2 decrease 72. The ff are laboratory hazard prevention strategies under 51. intermediate substance in the bicarbonate buffer system engineering controls except carbonic acid 1. Biohazard bags 52. the ff, if done repetitively are ergonomic hazard except 2. Warning signs centrifugation 3. Centrifuge safety buckets 4. Eyewash station a. Condensation method, red positive result 2 and 4 are correct b. Copper reduction method, yellow positive result 73. This lipoprotein with a density range similar to LDL and an c. Condensation method, green positive result electrophoretic migration pattern similar to VLDL that is associated d. Copper reduction method, blue positive result with obstructive jaundice 88. The ff are true about delta check except Lp(a) a. Comparison of a patient’s result to other patient’s result 74. In TDM, the point of equilibrium between drug dosage intake and within the day drug elimination is referred to as b. Most useful in detecting samples altered by IV dilution Steady state c. Capable of detecting analytical errors. 75. Type IV hyperliproteinemia is associated with an increased level of d. Most useful in detecting mislabeled samples a. VLDL b. CM c. LDL d. TAG 89. According to OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard and 76. Which of the ff sample is given the highest priority for testing? Chemical Hygiene Plan, who should assess and supply information a. STAT – potassium level of a patient in the critical care unit about the hazards of chemicals used in laboratories? b. Myoglobin level of a patient presumed to have had acute a. Employer c. manufacturer myocardial infarction b. employee d. safety officer c. ASAP – arterial blood gas analysis of a patient in the 90. What lipoprotein accounts for postprandial turbidity of plasma? emergency department a. VLDL b. HDL c. Chylomicrons d. LDL d. Random blood glucose level of a patient suffering from 91. Crack, a potent drug of abuse, is derived from diabetic ketoacidosis a. Cannabis plant b. coca plant c. poppy plant d. cactus plant 77. What is the cut-off point for the serum cholesterol level of 92. Which of the ff diseases result from the familial absence of high- individuals belonging to the 40 and above age group? density lipoprotein? a. Moderate Risk >240; High Risk >250 c. a. Tay-sachs disease c. Krabbe disease Moderate Risk >220; High Risk >240 b. Tangier disease d. Gaucher disease b. Moderate Risk >240; High Risk >260 d. 93. Intermediate-Density Lipoprotein (IDL) is increased in what type of Moderate Risk >250; High Risk >260 dyslipoproteinemia? 78. What is the most abundant cation in the body? a. IIb b. IV c. IIa d. III a. K b. Na c. Mg d. Ca 94. Placing blood in the wrong evacuated tube is a common 79. The following are technical problems caused by personnel errors in preanalytical error that occurs the investigation of unacceptable proficiency testing results except a. After collection c. after analysis a. Misalignment of instrument probes c. b. During collection d. before collection pipetting or dilution error 95. In QC, a laboratory result that is more than 2SD from the mean is b. Incorrect handling of reagents or calibrators d. expected to occur incorrect preparation of reagents and calibrators a. 10% of the time c. 20% of the time 80. Which of the ff blood collection devices is helpful when obtaining a b. 3% of the time d. 5% of the time sample from veins of the hand or ankle? 96. The following cases may result in pseudohyperkalemia except a. Two-way needle c. syringe a. Using serum in patients with thrombocytosis b. Evacuated system d. lancet b. Increase potassium uptake in leukocytosis 81. Congenital minimata disease c. Hemolysis due to frantic blood collection a. Elemental mercury c. inorganic mercury d. Patients with extremely high blasts counts b. Metallic mercury d. organic mercury 97. What anticoagulant should be utilized when collecting arterial 82. A hemolyzed sample for electrolyte assay using indirect ISE is blood for ammonia determination? expected to have a. Double oxalate c. EDTA a. Increased sodium and potassium values b. Heparin d. sodium citrate b. Decreased sodium and potassium values 98. In the six sigma concept, what is used to express the degree of c. Decreased sodium and increased potassium values variability that exists in products or services? d. Increased sodium and decreased potassium values a. Mean b. DPMO c. Standard Deviation d. CV 83. Which of the ff is performed to monitor glucose levels for the past 99. The fasting serum plasma glucose level of a male patient is 3 weeks? 199mg/dl using glucose oxidase method. Which of the ff is the best a. Random glucose testing course of action in order to establish hyperglycemia? b. Glycosylated hemoglobin testing a. Confirm the result on the same day using a new sample from c. fructosamine testing the patient d. oral glucose tolerance testing b. Confirm the result on a subsequent day using a new sample 84. What is the normal BUN-Creatinine ratio? from the patient a. 20:1 b. 10:1 c. 10-20:1 d. 15:1 c. Confirm the result by performing OGTT using the same 85. Which of the ff statements is false about high density lipoprotein sample from the patient (HDL)? d. Confirm the result using hexokinase method using the same a. Migrates slowest on electrophoresis sample from the patient b. Functions for reverse cholesterol transport 100. Lipemic sample c. Heaviest among the lipoprotein a. 300mg/dl b. 350mg/dl c. 370mg/dl d. Inversely related to atherosclerosis risk d.400mg/dl 86. OSHA strongly recommends wearing gloves as a barrier protection in the ff instances except except a. When an intern is undergoing phlebotomy training b. When a medical laboratory scientist has cuts or open wounds c. When a support staff is encoding in the office d. When laboratory personnel anticipate hand contamination 87. Which of the ff is true regarding Dubowski method for glucose determination? CC COMPLETION EXAM 2 CYCLE 2 17. Serum protein electrophoresis is most important in determining 1. Not true about the Active site the presence of a. Area where catalysis occurs c. region on the a. Bridging effect in the beta and gamma regions correlated surface of a substrates with nephrotic syndrome b. Region on the surface of enzymes d. area where binding b. A significant increase in the gamma region signifying occurs monoclonal gammopathy 2. Malate dehydrogenase is added to the AST reaction to catalyze c. Increased concentrations of plasma proteins associated with the conversion of chronic inflammation a. Alpha-ketoglutarate to aspartate d. A significant decrease in albumin concentration correlated b. Oxaloacetate to malate with liver cirrhosis c. aspartate to oxaloacetate 18. Cholelithiasis causes obstruction that blocks the biliary tree. This d. alpha-ketoglutarate to malate condition is indicated by increased levels of 3. Chloride in serum is reported at 95 mEq/L. what is its equivalent ALP, GGT, direct and total bilirubin in SI units? 19. In fluorometry, which of the ff type of light has a long wavelength a. 9.5mmol/L b. 105mmol/L c. 47.5mmol/L d. 95mmol/L but a low energy? 4. UV light in the electromagnetic spectrum has a 1. Fluorescent light Short wavelength 2. Phosphorescent light 5. In maintaining acid-base balance, what organ exerts its control by 3. Emitted light regulating the concentration of HCO3 in the body? 4. Excited light kidneys 1 and 3 are correct 6. Under what conditions should the sample for blood gas 20. Low serum total protein level is usually seen in the ff condition determination be maintained while it is in transport to the except laboratory? a. Malignancy c. starvation Anaerobic, in ice water b. liver failure d. glomerular disease - Important factor to be considered in a sample: should prevent 21. The direction in which albumin migrates during electrophoretic from glycolysis and ambient air/environment separation of serum proteins, at pH 8.6, is determined by 7. The ff cases may result in pseudohyperkalemia except The ionization of the carboxyl groups, yielding a net negative a. Hemolysis due to frantic blood collection charge b. Increase potassium uptake in leukocytosis 22. Which of the ff are co-enymes? c. Patients with extremely high blasts counts 1. Magnesium 3. Cl d. Using serum in patients with thrombocytosis 2. Vitamin B12 4. NAD 8. When using Biuret method for quantitating serum total protein, 2 and 4 are correct the intensity of the color produced is dependent on the - Co-enzymes: organic Number of peptide bonds that react - Activators: inorganic - Atleast 2 peptide bonds para ma-count 23. Which of the ff hormones increases blood calcium level by 9. If a blood gas specimen is left exposed to air, which of the ff increasing the renal absorption of calcium? changes will occur? Calcitriol pO2 and pH increase, pCO2 decrease - Calcitriol governs the renal reabsorption of Calcium; PTH is the 10. in laboratory assays, which of the ff fractions contribute/s to the next best answer total bilirubin value? - PTH main action is in the bone matrix (promotes bone 1. Unconjugated bilirubin 3. Conjugated bilirubin dissolution); and needed in activation of Vitamin B (Calcitriol 2. Delta-bilirubin 4. Azobilirubin active form of vit. B) 1, 2, and 3 are correct 24. Bilirubin is transported from reticuloendothelial cells to the liver 11. Expected results of a patient suffering from primary male by hypogonadism albumin Decreased testosterone, increased FSH and LH 25. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in 12. Which of the ff is false regarding unconjugated bilirubin? 1. Gilbert syndrome a. Transported to the liver bound to albumin 2. Hemolytic anemia b. Enters hepatocytes via passive diffusion 3. Jaundice of the newborn c. Predominantly exists in its trans- form 4. Rotor syndrome d. Does not undergo photoisomerization 1, 2 and 3 are correct 13. Protein fraction that travels the farthest toward the anode in 26. Which of the ff plasma proteins is specific for beta fraction? serum protein electrophoresis 1. Lipoprotein a. Albumin b. beta globulin c. alpha globulin d. gamma 2. Transferrin globulin 3. Complement 14. Chief plasma cation, the main function of which is osmotic 1, 2, and 3 are correct pressure regulation 27. Which of the ff pairs is not correct? a. K b. Cl c. Na d. Ca a. Potassium – major intracellular cation 15. Which of the ff is true about partially compensated respiratory b. magnesium – major intracellular anion alkalosis? c. chloride – major extracellular anion a. HCO3 is higher than normal b. patient is d. sodium – major extracellular cation hyperventilating c. pCO2 is 28. Which of the ff situation will increase serum potassium levels? higher than normal d. decreased renal reabsorption 1. Patient opens and closes his first repeatedly during of HCO3 venipuncture 16. Which of the ff amylase method is typically based upon a rate 2. Minimal hemolysis reaction? 3. Extreme thrombocytosis starch-iodine 1, 2 and 3 are correct 29. Effect in bilirubin assay values when there is an increased 46. An analyzer can perform any test on any sample in any sequence concentration of delta bilirubin Random access testing 1. Increased conjugated bilirubin 47. Catecholamines are secreted by the 2. Increased unconjugated bilirubin a. Adrenal medulla c. pituitary 3. Increased total bilirubin b. Kidney d. adrenal cortex 4. Decreased unconjugated bilirubin 48. Which of the ff is considered a characteristic feature of polyclonal 1 and 3 are correct gammopathy as seen in chronic inflammatory disorder? 30. Light source used in fluorometers a. Sharp spike in gamma region Xenon b. Diffused broad gamma band - Also hydrogen discharge lamp c. Increase alpha-1 and alpha-2 fractions 31. Which of the ff are considered as negative acute phase reactants? d. Bridging effect between gamma and beta regions Albumin and prealbumin 49. What is normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in 32. The danger of kernicterus is a certainty at bilirubin levels arterial blood? exceeding 20:1 20mg/dl 50. What enzymes are clinically significant in muscular dystrophy? 33. Which of the given analytes is/are not assayed as part of the liver a. AST, ALT, aldolase c. CK, Aldolase. AST function tests? b. CK, AST, ALT d. ALT, aldolase, LDH 1. Ammonia 51. A patient with liver disease has serum transaminase that are 2- 2. Prothrombin time fold higher than the upper reference limit. You would expect 3. LDH ALT to be greater than AST 4. Lipids 52. Which condition is would most likely be characterized by 2 and 4 are correct elevation of both unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin 34. Physiologic increase in ALP level fractions? 1. Puberty a. All of the above c. hepatitis 2. Paget’s disease b. Bile duct obstruction d. erythroblastosis fetalis 3. Pregnancy 53. The presence of this ALP isoenzyme depends on the blood group 4. Pellagra and secretor status of an individual 1 and 3 are correct a. Bone c. placental 35. What AAS component serves as the atomizer? b. liver d. intestinal a. Monochromator 54. What enzymes are clinically significant in myocardial infarction? b. Flame CK, AST, LDH c. Lamp - But Troponin I is still the best/better because it rises more rapidly. d. Chopper 55. Valinomycin enhances the selectivity of the electrode used to 36. Primary compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis quantitate Hyperventilation Potassium (basta VP) 37. What is the clinical significance of an elevated acid phosphatase? 56. LD catalyzes the ff reaction: Prostatic cancer Lactate + NAD pyruvate + NADH 38. The most important buffer in plasma is the: As the reaction is written which of the ff techniques can be used a. Phosphate/biphosphate pair c. Hemoglobin/imidazole pair to assess LD activity? b. Sulfate/bisulfate pair d. bicarbonate/carbonic acid a. Measure the decrease in absorbance at 340nm as NADH is 39. Which of the ff hormones is regulates the body’s metabolic rate? produced Thyroxine b. Measure the increase in absorbance at 340nm as NADH is 40. Which of the ff best describes as monochromator? produced a. Measures the intensity of light falling on a detector c. Measure the colorimetric product pyruvate b. Determines the critical angle of refraction of dispersed light d. Measure the colorimetric product NADH c. Measures the intensity of light which falls on diffraction 57. Which of the ff works by decreasing blood calcium levels? gratings Calcitonin d. Disperses polychromatic light into its separate wavelength 58. Respiratory acidosis compensation 41. Involves reshaping of the active site in order to bind the substrate Increased HCO3 reabsorption, increased pH with high affinity 59. A 20:1 bicarbonate to carbonic acid ratio means that the pH of Induced fit blood is 42. What is the hormone that controls the reabsorption of sodium in 7.40 the kidney? 60. The most abundant amino acid in the body that is involved in Aldosterone more metabolic processes than any other amino acid 43. The ff are considered as interferences that affect serum albumin Glutamine assays involving both BCG and HABA dyes except 61. What class of enzyme uses NAD+/NADH as a coenzyme? a. Salicylate b. heparin c. hemolysis d. bilirubin oxidoreductase 44. Which of the ff physiologic processes is not a function of the liver? 62. The most heat labile fraction of ALP is obtained from a. Metabolism of glucose c. detoxification of drugs Bone b. synthesis of proteins d. excretion of ammonia 63. Type of testing in which more than one test is performed at the 45. This serves to separates samples and test reactions in continuous same time on a given sample flow analyzers Parallel testing a. Air bubbles c. containers - Batch testing: load all the samples at the same time and one test b. Cuvettes d. tubings (serves as is done reaction vessels) - Random access: any test, any sample - Common problem: presence of carry over - Sequential testing: multiple test analyzed after given ….. o Prevent: washing out 64. In fluorometry, which of the ff correctly describes the relationship 83. The relative migration rate of proteins on cellulose acetate is of the wavelength and energy of the emitted light? based on Inversely proportional Ionic charge 65. Cretinism in infants is caused by 84. In the Jendrassik Grof reaction for the total bilirubin, bilirubin hypothyroidism reacts with diazotized sulfanilic acid to form: 66. What component of a double beam in space spectrophotometer a. Azobilirubin c. diazon bilirubin is not duplicated? b. b. biliverdin d. bilirubin glucoronide Light source 85. Strobe light is used to calibrate 67. An enzyme assay that is involves the continuous measurement of centrifuge change in concentration as a function of time. 86. in uncompensated metabolic acidosis, which of the ff ABG a. Multipoint c. spectrophotometric parameters will be normal? b. b. endpoint d. kinetic a. pO2 c. plasma bicarbonate 68. The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage of b. plasma carbonic acid d. pCO2 ethanol intake is 87. serum samples for LD isoenzyme analysis should be stored at GGT what temperature? 69. Which of the ff is a low molecular weight protein that is found in a. 37 deg C c. plasma bicarbonate the cell surfaces of nucleated cells? b. plasma carbonic acid d. pCO2 a. Beta-microglobulin c. alpha 2 macroglobulin 88. For albumin assay, absorbance at 630nm is less likely to be b. CRP d. ceruloplasmin affected by the bilirubin or hemoglobin in the sample. Which dye 70. Enzymes assayed that aid in the assessment of liver function gives a much greater absorbance change at 630nm that it would include all of the ff except at 500 nm? a. LD c. ALP a. BCG b. CV c. CK d. BCP b. GGT d. 5’-Nucleotidase 89. Transferase enzyme 71. What acid-base disturbance is associated with emphysema CK involving the accumulation of fluid in the alveolar sacs? 90. Metabolic acidosis compensation Respiratory acidosis Decrease pco2, incrased ph 72. The most anodal protein fraction seen in nephrotic syndrome is 91. What is the recommended SI unit for enzyme activity? Albumin Moles per liter per second 73. What condition involves the absence of the activity of glucuronyl 92. What estrogen has the greatest concentration in urine during transferase resulting to persistent increased level of unconjugated pregnancy? bilirubin and kernicterus in neonates? a. hCG b. estradiol c. estriol d. progesterone a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome c. Dub-Johnson syndrome 93. hyperbilirubinemia seen in Dubin-Johnson syndrome is due to b. Physiologic liver immaturity d. hemolytic anemia Excretion deficits 74. Which of the ff best describes alkaline phosphatase? 94. In enzyme measurement, reactants are combined, the reaction a. Primarily found in cardiac muscle proceeds for a designated time, then stopped before b. Decreased in Paget’s disease measurement is made. c. Decreased in 3rd trimester of a normal pregnancy a. Coupled enzyme reaction assay c. kinetic assay d. Increased in obstructive jaundice b. Fixed time assay d. spectrophotometric assay 75. This is considered as the most sensitive detector to low levels of 95. Hemolysis will interfere with the ff enzyme measurements except light in pectrophotometry? AST a. Barrier layer cell c. photodiode 96. An arterial blood sample is received in the laboratory 15 mins. b. Photomultiplier tube d. diode array After the collection with a bubble in the syringe. The medical 76. AMS method that measures the disappearance of the substrate technologist shoud a. Amyloclastic c. continuous monitoring a. Reject the sample because the pH will be falsely decreased b. saccharogenic d. chromogenic b. Perform the test immediately 77. Most popular and versatile type of analyzer c. Reject the sample because pO2 will be falsely decreased Discrete d. Reject the sample because the pCO2 will be falsely 78. What instrument requires a primary and a secondary decreased monochromator? 97. Growth hormone inhibiting hormone a. Fluorometer c. nephelometer a. Thyroxine c. cortisol b. double beam in time spectrophotometer d. AAS b. b. somatostatin d. epinephrine 79. Which of the ff is the primary mechanism for vasopressin (ADH) 98. Sodium determination by indirect ion selective is falsely release? decreased by Hyperosmolar plasma a. Elevated chloride levels c. decreased albumin levels 80. What condition involves the absence of the activity of glucoronyl b. Decreased protein levels d. elevated lipid levels transferase resulting to persistent increased level of unconjugated 99. The following are correct pairings of the analyte and the bilirubin and kernicterus in neonates respective electrode used for its measurement except Criggler-najjar syndrome a. pO2: Clarke electrode c. HCO3: Sanz electrode 81. Given the ff results: ALP = slight increase; AST = marked increase; b. pH: Glass electrode d. pCO2: ALT = marked increase and GGT=slight increase Severinghaus electrode Acute hepatitis 100. which of the ff organs produces corticotropin? 82. Which of the ff is incorrect regarding isoenzymes? a. neurohypophysis c. adenohypophysis a. Otherwise referred to as isoenzyme b. hypothalamus d. adrenal gland b. Different forms of the enzyme c. organ and/or tissue specific d. Catalyze the different reactions