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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
32 views21 pages

2 5452144468952100974Pdf 240127 183655

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Balamani
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VISIONIAS

www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2024 – Test – 4134


C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rdof the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
1. Consider the following statements: 4. Consider the following statements about the
1. Article 1 states India as Bharat which is Indian Judiciary:
a 'Union of States and Union Territories'.
1. The strength of judges in the Supreme
2. The expression of 'Union of India' is
Court can be increased by Parliament.
wider in extent than the expression
'Territory of India'. 2. The strength of judges in the High
Which of the statements given above Courts can be increased by the President.
is/are not correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Consider the following Directive Principles (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of State Policy (DPSPs):
1. To minimize inequalities in income,
5. In the context of various political systems
status, facilities, and opportunities
prevailing in the world, consider the
2. To promote equal justice and to provide
free legal aid to the poor following countries:
3. To secure opportunities for the healthy 1. China
development of children 2. Vietnam
How many of the above DPSPs were added 3. Cuba
through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
4. Argentina
(a) Only one
(b) Only two How many of the above countries are
(c) All three currently governed by One Party System?
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
3. Consider the following statements about the
(c) Only three
fundamental rights under Article 21 of the
(d) All four
Indian Constitution:
1. If it is violated by the State, there is an
explicit provision in the Constitution for 6. Consider the following statements regarding
grant of compensation by the State. the Fundamental Rights:
2. The protection under it can be available 1. Constitutional remedies are not available
only against arbitrary executive action
if all the rights are violated by the
and not against arbitrary legislative
action. private individuals.
3. In the Maneka case 1978, the Supreme 2. Some of the Fundamental Rights are not
Court of India recognized the expression self-executory.
‘due process of law’ under Article 21. Which of the statements given above is/are
How many statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 and 2
2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
7. With reference to the Constitution of India, 10. Consider the following statements about the
consider the following statements: Sessions Judge:
1. The Indian Constitution seeks to impart
1. The District judge, when hearing a
more flexibility to a written Federal
Constitution than the Constitution of the criminal case, is known as the Sessions
United States. Judge.
2. Some provisions in the Constitution of 2. The Sessions Judge can sentence a
India can only be amended with the
person to life imprisonment but cannot
ratification of two-thirds of the State
award a death sentence.
legislatures with a special majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. The Sapru Report of 1945 holds an
important place in the Constitutional history
11. Consider the following pairs:
of India for shaping the key provisions of the
Constitutional Important changes
Constitution because it emphasized the need
for Amendment
1. Inclusion of provisions for the protection 1. 1st : Made the right to
of minority rights. Amendment property a legal right
2. Inclusion of non-justiciable Directive
Act, 1951 from the fundamental
Principles of State Policy
3. Inclusion of non-justiciable Fundamental right
duties 2. 52nd : A member disqualified
Select the correct answer using the code Amendment for defection cannot be
given below.
Act, 1985 a minister
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. 77th : Provided reservation in
(c) 1 and 2 only Amendment promotions to SCs and
(d) 1 and 3 only Act, 1995 STs
4. 91st : Stipulated the upper
9. Consider the following statements regarding
Amendment limit for the number of
Theocracy:
1. Religious principles often guide political Act, 2003 Council of Ministers at
decision-making. both central and state
2. State generally supports and promotes a levels
particular religion.
How many pairs given above are correctly
3. Freedom of Religion is guaranteed.
How many of the above statements are matched?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
12. Which political system prioritizes the 15. Which of the following statements is not
protection of individual rights and limits the correct about the remuneration of Judges in
power of government through a written
India?
constitution?
(a) Benevolent Despotism (a) The salaries of the Supreme Court
(b) Autocracy judges are charged on the Consolidated
(c) Constitutionalism Fund of India.
(d) Plutocracy
(b) The pensions of the Supreme Court
13. Consider the following pairs: judges are charged on the Consolidated
Military Exercise India and Associated Fund of India.
Nations
(c) The salaries of the High Court judges are
1.TARKASH : United States of
charged on the Consolidated Fund of the
America
2. Exercise Desert : Iran respective State.
Flag (d) The pensions of the High Court judges
are charged on the Consolidated Fund of
3. Exercise : Egypt
Cyclone-I the respective State.

How many of the above pairs are correctly


16. The "libertarian" political ideology
matched?
(a) Only one advocates for:
(b) Only two (a) strong government control over the
(c) All three
economy and individual freedoms.
(d) None
(b) limited government intervention and
14. With reference to personalities associated maximum individual liberties.
with the making Constitution of India,
(c) social equality and wealth redistribution.
consider the following pairs:
Personality Their Role in (d) a mix of conservative and liberal
Constitution Making policies.
1. H.V.R. : Chief Draftsman of
Iyengar the Constitution
17. Consider the following words/phrases:
2. Prem Behari : Calligrapher of the
Narain Raizada Constitution 1. Universal Adult Franchise
3. Sir B.N. Rau : Legal advisor to the 2. Right to Work
Constituent Assembly
3. Union Cabinet
4. S.N. : Secretary to the
How many of the above words/phrases
Mukerjee Constituent
Assembly do not find mention in the Constitution of
How many pairs given above are correctly India?
matched?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs (b) Only two
(c) Only three pairs (c) All three
(d) All four pairs (d) None
4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
18. Consider the following activities: 21. Recently, India’s payment system Unified
1. Rainwater harvesting Payments Interface (UPI) and its equivalent
2. Organic farming
network PayNow, were integrated to enable
3. Sawmills
4. Commercial use of wood faster remittances between the two countries

How many of the above-mentioned activities at a competitive rate.


are permitted in the eco-sensitive zones PayNow is a payment system of which of the
(ESZ)??
following nations?
(a) Only one
(a) Nepal
(b) Only two
(c) Only three (b) Singapore
(d) Only four (c) Bhutan
(d) U.A.E
19. Consider the following statements:
1. Millet International Initiative for
Research and Awareness (MIIRA) is an 22. Which of the following are features of the
initiative of the United Nations launched federal government?
on the sidelines of declaring 2023 as the 1. Written Constitution
International Year of Millets.
2. Independent Judiciary
2. MIIRA secretariat will be in Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Dual sovereignty

correct? Select the correct answer using the code


(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 3 only
20. Which of the following statements is correct (d) 1, 2 and 3
about Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP)?
23. With reference to Channapatna toys,
(a) The idea of DPSP is borrowed from
Soviet Union Constitution (erstwhile consider the following statements:
Russia). 1. They are a particular form of toys that
(b) They resemble the ‘Instrument of are manufactured in Karnataka.
Instructions’ enumerated in the
2. The artisans use ivory wood for making
Government of India Act, 1935.
toys.
(c) They are legally enforceable by the
courts for their violation. Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) In Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), correct?
Supreme Court held that the
(a) 1 only
Fundamental Rights can not be amended
(b) 2 only
by the Parliament by enacting the
Constitutional Amendment Acts for the (c) Both 1 and 2
implementation of the DPSPs. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
24. Gross Domestic Climate Risk Report, which 26. Consider the following statements:

is released by Cross Dependency Initiative Statement-I: Additional Surveillance


(XDI) measures
Mechanism (ASM) on securities is levied
(a) The effect on the Gross Domestic
jointly by SEBI and Exchanges with the
Product of a country due to climate
change. intention to protect investors from market

(b) The risk posed to built environment volatility and unusual changes in share price.

across the world due to extreme weather Statement-II: The shortlisting of securities
events.
under ASM is regarded as an adverse action
(c) The percentage of Budget allocation to
against the concerned company/entity.
its Gross Domestic Product(GDP) by

countries in mitigation and adaptation to Which one of the following is correct in

climate change. respect of the above statements?


(d) The risk posed by built environment (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
across the world to natural environment.
correct and Statement-II is the correct

explanation for Statement-I.


25. Consider the following pairs :

Form of Feature (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

government correct and Statement-II is not the

1. Oligarchy : government by a correct explanation for Statement-I.


small group of very
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
powerful people
incorrect.
2. Totalitarianism : seeks to subordinate

all aspects of (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II

individual life to the is correct.

authority

3. Anarchy : absence of
27. Virovory Halteria, which is recently seen in
government
news is a/an
How many of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched? (a) Cryptocurrency

(a) Only one pair (b) Virus eating organism


(b) Only two pairs (c) Antivirus Software
(c) All three pairs
(d) Non-Fungible Token
(d) None
6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
28. With reference to provisions of the 30. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The creation of All India
Government of India Act 1935, consider the
Services needs a constitutional amendment
following statements: with half of the states ratifying the
amendment.
1. As per the Act, every bill passed by the
Statement-II: All India Services play a
Central Legislature would be subjected significant role in liaison, cooperation, and
coordination in federal relations between the
to veto by the British Crown.
center and states.
2. The Provincial legislatures were Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
conferred jurisdiction over the Police
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
system. correct. and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
3. It removed the distinction between
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
transferred and reserved subjects in the correct and Statement-II is not the·
correct explanation for Statement-I
provinces and the whole administration (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
was entrusted with the ministers incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
responsible to the legislature. is correct
How many of the above statements are
31. How many of the following constitutional
correct? amendments given below are related to
(a) Only one changes in the first schedule?
1. 7th amendment
(b) Only two 2. 12th amendment
(c) All three 3. 35th amendment
4. 100th amendment
(d) None Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) Only one
29. Consider the following: (b) Only two
1. Population control (c) Only three
(d) All four
2. Preserving natural environment
32. In the federal system set up by the
3. Voting percentage
constitution of India, which of the following
How many of the above may depend on the subjects are under the union list?
1. Citizenship
successful implementation of fundamental
2. Insurance
duties enshrined in the Indian constitution? 3. Census
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Only one
given below.
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3
7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
33. Shumang Leela is a festival associated with 37. Consider the following statement regarding
which of the following states? the amendment procedure for the
(a) Manipur
constitution of India:
(b) Assam
1. The expression “total membership”
(c) Odisha
(d) West Bengal means the total number of members
comprising the House irrespective of
34. UPNEXT India 2023 Event, which is whether there are vacancies or absentees
recently seen in news is an initiative of
on any account
(a) Agricultural and Processed Food
Products Export Development Authority 2. The expression “present and voting”,

(APEDA) means members who vote for “ayes”, or


(b) Apparel Export Promotion Council “noes” or any abstention from voting by
(AEPC)
a member.
(c) Marine Products Export Development
Which of the statements given above is/are
Authority (MPEDA)
(d) Khadi and Village Industries correct?

Commission (KVIC) (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
35. In which of the following cases, the Supreme
(c) Both 1 and 2
Court of India held that the Preamble is an
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
integral part of the Constitution?
1. Berubari Union case, 1960
2. Keshavananda Bharati case,1973 38. Which of the following statements is correct
3. LIC of India case, 1995 about the judicial review of the Indian
Select the correct answer using the code
judiciary?
given below.
(a) 2 only (a) The Constitution defines the term

(b) 2 and 3 only judicial review as the power of the


(c) 1 and 2 only Supreme Court to examine the actions of
(d) 1 and 3 only
the government and determine whether

they are consistent with the Constitution.


36. In a proportional representation electoral
system, how are seats in the legislative body (b) Only the Supreme Court of India is a

allocated? court of review.


(a) Based on a winner-takes-all system (c) The scope of Judicial review in India is
(b) According to the proportion of votes
narrower than that of the USA.
received by political parties.
(d) The laws included in the 9th Schedule of
(c) Determined by a panel of judges
(d) Allocated based on the wealth or social the Indian Constitution are exempt from
status of candidates judicial review.
8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
39. With reference to Basavanna, consider the 42. Which of the following is/are the
following statements : applications of "Quasicrystals", which is
1. He was a social reformer during the often seen in the news?
reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king 1. Non-stick frying pans
Bijjala I. 2. Needles for acupuncture
2. He presided over the Sharana movement 3. Razor blades
which attracted people from all castes. Select the correct answer using the code
3. He introduced a new public institution given below.
Anubhava Mantapa to discuss spiritual (a) Only one
(b) Only two
questions of life.
(c) All three
How many of the above statements are
(d) None
correct?
(a) Only one
43. Consider the following statements :
(b) Only two
Statement-I: There have been no
(c) All three
referendums in India since independence.
(d) None
Statement-II: Constitution of India does not
have a specific provision for or against the
40. Which of the following countries have a referendum.
constitutional monarchy? Which one of the following is correct in
1. Canada respect of the above statements?
2. Thailand (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. Norway correct and Statement-II is the correct
Select the correct answer using the code explanation for Statement-I
given below. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) 2 only correct and Statement-II is not the
(b) 1 and 3 only correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(d) 1, 2 and 3 incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
41. The Article 20 of the Constitution of India is correct
talks about the right against self-
incrimination. In this context, right against 44. Consider the following statements regarding
self-incrimination does not extend to which Atmanirbhar Clean Plant Programme, which
is recently launched in 2023 Budget :
of the following activities?
1. It is a programme to establish waste-
1. Obtaining DNA from the accused
water treatment plants to check river
2. Voice Samples of the accused
pollution.
3. Compulsory exhibition of the body of
2. The programme will be anchored by the
the accused
National Horticulture Board which in
4. Compulsory production of the material
turn will set up Clean Plant Centres
objects
across the country.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
45. Apart from the Directives included in Part 47. Consider the following pairs:

IV, there are some other Directives Wildlife Sanctuary State


contained in other Parts of the Constitution.
1. Shendurney Wildlife : Kerala
In this context, which of the following
Sanctuary
Directives is/are not contained in the Part IV
2. Bankapura Wolf Wildlife : Karnataka
of the constitution?
Sanctuary
1. Claims of Scheduled Casts and

Scheduled Tribes to services 3. Kaimur Wildlife : Tamil Nadu

2. To provide adequate facilities for Sanctuary

instruction in the mother-tongue at the How many of the above pairs are correctly

primary stage of education to children matched?


belonging to linguistic minority groups (a) Only one pair
3. Development and promotion of the (b) Only two pairs
Hindi Language
(c) All three pairs
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) None of the pairs
given below.
(a) 2 only
48. With reference to the Unlawful Activities
(b) 2 and 3 only
(Prevention) Act, 1967, consider the
(c) 1 and 3 only
following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Under this act both Indian and foreign

46. Consider the following statements regarding nationals can be charged.

the 'Schengen Zone', which is often seen in 2. It is applicable only to offenses

the news: committed inside Indian territory.


1. The area is named after a small village 3. Investigation of cases can be conducted
in Luxembourg. by officers of the rank of Superintendant
2. Both European Union (EU) and non-EU
of Police (SP) or above.
members can be part of 'Schengen Zone'.
How many of the above statements are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None


10 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
49. With reference to the Constitution of India, 51. Consider the following statements with
respect to the term ‘Justice’ in Preamble:
consider the following statements:
1. The combination of social, economic,
1. The original Constitution adopted on and political justice denotes what is
November 26, 1949, contained Seven known as ‘distributive justice’.
2. Economic justice denotes the non-
fundamental rights.
discrimination between people based on
2. The objectives resolution was economic factors.
Which of the statements given above is/are
unanimously adopted by the Constituent
correct?
Assembly on January 22, 1947. (a) 1 only
3. The Constitution Assembly of India was (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
dissolved with the commencement of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution of India.
52. Consider the following statements about the
How many of the statements given above are
High Court of India:
correct? 1. The Judges of the High Courts are
(a) Only one appointed by the Governor.
2. The Judges of the High Courts can only
(b) Only two
be removed by the President on the
(c) All three recommendation of the Parliament.
3. An eminent jurist can be eligible for
(d) None
appointment as a Judge of a High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are
50. With reference to the act for the Good correct?
(a) 2 only
Government of India, consider the following
(b) 3 only
statements: (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It ended the system of double
Government by abolishing the Board of 53. Consider the following statements regarding
Control and Court of Directors. fundamental duties under Article 51A:
1. They are inspired by the Constitution of
2. It did not provide separation of functions
the United States of America.
and all the authority for governance of 2. They serve as an aid in the interpretation
of the Constitution.
India was vested in the Governor-
3. If any law is intended to give effect to
General in Council. fundamental duties, such a law can be
Which of the statements given above is/are considered reasonable in relation to
Article 14.
correct?
How many of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only correct?
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
54. Consider the following statements: 56. Consider the following statements regarding
Statement-I: The 100th Constitutional the Global Partnership for Financial
Inclusion (GPFI):
Amendment was passed to enforce the
1. It is the main implementing organization
exchange of territories between India and
for the International Monetary Fund's
Bangladesh. Financial Inclusion Action Plan.
Statement-II: To resolve such disputes, 2. India and Italy will be the new co-chairs
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution provides of the GPFI for three years from 2024.
for a constitutional amendment under Article Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
368.
(a) 1 only
Which one of the following is correct in (b) 2 only
respect of the above statements? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct. and Statement-II is the correct
57. Ultraviolet Transient Astronomy Satellite
explanation for Statement-I
(ULTRASAT), a space telescope mission
(b) Both Statement I and Statement-II that is an ultraviolet observatory with a large
correct and Statement-II is not the· field of view is developed by
correct explanation for Statement-I (a) National Aeronautics and Space
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Administration (NASA)
(b) Israeil Space Agency (ISA)
incorrect
(c) Indian Space Research Organisation
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(ISRO)
is correct (d) The Japan Aerospace Exploration
Agency (JAXA)
55. With reference to British and Indian
58. Consider the following statements:
Parliamentary systems, consider the
Statement-I: W20 (Women 20) is an official
following statements:
engagement group under the G20 which was
1. British parliamentary system is based on an initiative of India established during its
the doctrine of the sovereignty of presidency.
Parliament. Statement-II: Its primary objective is to
ensure that gender considerations are
2. Unlike Britain, in India, a person who is
mainstreamed into G20 discussions.
not a member of Parliament can also be
Which one of the following is correct in
appointed as minister. respect of the above statements?
3. Unlike Britain, in India, ministers are (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
required to countersign the official acts correct and Statement-II is the correct
of the Head of the State. explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
How many statements given above are
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct? correct explanation for statement-I
(a) Only one (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(b) Only two incorrect
(c) All three (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct
(d) None
12 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
59. Consider the following statements regarding 62. Consider the following countries :
Munich Security Conference : 1. Russia
1. It was an initiative of Germany in 2022 2. Kazakhstan
in reaction to Russian Invasion of
3. Armenia
Ukraine.
4. Uzbekistan
2. The conference is only focused on
5. Belarus
military issues.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above-mentioned countries
correct? are members of the Collective Security
(a) 1 only Treaty Organisation (CSTO)?
(b) 2 only (a) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only four
(d) All five
60. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: In USA a person is not only a
citizen of the country but also of the 63. Consider the following statements regarding
particular state to which he belongs. National Population Register:
Statement-II: All federal countries have a 1. It is mandatory for every usual resident
system of double citizenship. of India to register in the NPR.
Which one of the following is correct in 2. It includes both Indian citizens as well as
respect of the above statements? foreign citizens.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
correct?
explanation for Statement-I
(a) 1 only
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the (b) 2 only
correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II 64. Consider the following statements regarding
is correct
Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder:
1. He shall not be entitled for registration
61. Consider the following statements regarding
as a voter.
the citizenship provisions in the Indian
constitution: 2. He shall not be entitled to the right to
1. Part III of the Indian Constitution deals equality of opportunity in matters of
with the citizenship aspect in India. public employment.
2. Constitution identifies the persons who 3. He shall be eligible to nominated as a
became citizens of India at its member of Rajya Sabha.
commencement i.e. on January 26, 1950. How many of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
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65. Consider the following countries: 68. If a court violates the principles of natural
1. Indonesia justice, then it is the most suitable writ to be
granted by the superior courts. It is not
2. Brazil
available against legislative bodies and
3. Mexico private individuals or bodies.
How many of the countries given above Which of the following writs has been
described by the passage given above?
have a presidential form of government?
(a) Quo Warranto
(a) Only one (b) Certiorari
(b) Only two (c) Habeas Corpus
(c) All three (d) Mandamus

(d) None
69. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Preamble was enacted by the
66. In the context of Citizenship rights in India, Constituent Assembly after the rest of the
Constitution was already enacted.
consider the following statements regarding
Statement-II: The Preamble inserted in the
Assam Accord: Constitution at end was to ensure that it was
1. It states that all persons who came to in conformity with the Constitution as
adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Assam prior to 1-1-1966 will be
Which one of the following is correct in
deported to their home country. respect of the above statements?
2. It was signed during the prime (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
ministership of Indira Gandhi. correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II ate
correct? correct and Statement-II is not the
(a) 1 only correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(b) 2 only
incorrect
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

70. Which of the following statements is correct


67. What is the primary objective of a direct
about the appointment of Judges in High
democracy? Courts?
(a) To maximize individual liberties and (a) Ad-hoc judges during the lack of
Quorum can be appointed by the
rights
President of India.
(b) To establish a system of checks and (b) Retired judges can be appointed
balances temporarily by the President of India.
(c) To concentrate power in the hands of a (c) Additional judges can be appointed by
the President of India.
small group of elites
(d) Acting judges can be appointed by the
(d) To involve citizens directly in decision- Chief Justice of the particular High
making through popular votes Court.
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71. Consider the following statements with 73. Consider the following statements:

reference to the Article 16 of Indian Statement-I: Norovirus is a viral infection

Constitution: that affects mainly the Central Nervous


1. It prohibits discrimination both by the system in children below 6 years.
State and private individuals. Statement-II: The virus is capable of
2. Parliament can not prescribe residence surviving low temperatures and is highly
as a condition for employment or contagious.
appointment in a state or union territory. Which one of the following is correct in
3. The Court can not issue the mandamus respect of the above statements?
to provide reservation or promotion.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
How many statements given above are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
correct?
explanation for Statement-I
(a) Only one
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) Only two
correct and Statement-II is not the
(c) All three
correct explanation for Statement-I
(d) None
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is

incorrect
72. Consider the following statements:
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
1. Charaideo Moidams are known as the
is correct
‘Pyramids of Assam' because it contains

sacred burial grounds of Ahom kings


74. In the context of representative democracies
and queens.
in the world, the term gerrymandering refers
2. Charaideo city was the original capital
to
of the Ahom Kings.
(a) practice of allowing citizens to vote on
3. Charaideo city was built by Chaolung
proposed changes to district boundaries.
Sukhapa who was the founder of the
(b) system of appointing judges to oversee
Ahom dynasty.
the redistricting process.
How many of the above statements are
(c) manipulating district boundaries to gain
correct?

(a) Only one an unfair political advantage.

(b) Only two (d) legal and ethical practice used to

(c) All three maintain the integrity of district

(d) None boundaries.


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75. Consider the following pairs: 77. Consider the following statements:
Alternate Definition
Statement-I: Each state of India has its own
Dispute
Resolution High Court.
(ADR)
Statement-II: The Constitution of India
Mechanism
1. : It is a non-binding procedure states that there shall be a High Court for
Arbitration in which an impartial third each state.
party assists the parties to a
dispute in reaching a Which one of the following is correct in
mutually satisfactory and respect of the above statements?
agreed-upon settlement of the
dispute. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

2. : It is a binding procedure in correct and Statement-II is the correct


Conciliation which an impartial third party
explanation for Statement-I

t
bo
assists the parties to a dispute

4_
in reaching a mutually (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

02
satisfactory agreement on a
correct and Statement-II is not the

s2
settlement of the dispute.

rie
3. : It is a non-binding procedure correct explanation for statement-I
se
st
Negotiation of dispute resolution without (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Te

the intervention of any third


@

party. incorrect
=
st

How many of the above pairs are correctly (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Te

matched?
ng

(a) Only one pair is correct


hi

(b) Only two pairs


ac
co

(c) All three pairs


78. Which of the following best describes the
ll

(d) None
ra

term "Communication Hotline" in


fo

76. Consider the following pairs with regard to


re

International relations?
he

the Office of Registrar General of India


m

(RGI): (a) Restriction or blockade of Internet data


D

1. It is mandatory to secure the approval of


flow between two countries.
the Office of the RGI for the inclusion of
any community in the Scheduled Tribe (b) The communication channel was opened
list.
by United Nations in disputed or war-
2. It comes under the Ministry of Home
Affairs. torn regions.
3. It gives estimates of fertility and
(c) Open and Interoperable communication
mortality using the Sample Registration
System. Network access agreement between two
How many of the above statements are
countries.
correct?
(a) Only one (d) A special and direct phone line between
(b) Only two the heads of government in different
(c) All three
(d) None countries.
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79. Consider the following provisions in the 82. With reference to the Indian Independence
Constitution of India: Act 1947, consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental Rights 1. This act introduced an interim
2. Directive Principles of State Policy Constitution to be in effect until the day
3. Fundamental Duties of independence.
4. Fifth Schedule 2. As per this act, Constituent Assembly
How many of the above provisions of the was made a fully sovereign legislative
Constitution provide for the formation/ body.
promotion of Co-operative Societies? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) Only three (b) 2 only
(d) All Four (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. Jaipur Declaration, which is recently seen in
news is associated with which of the 83. Which of the following countries have a
following objectives? written constitution?
(a) To achieve responsible use of artificial 1. Israel
intelligence in the military 2. USA
(b) To end AIDS in children by 2030 3. France
(c) To achieve long-term goal of safety and Select the correct answer using the code
security of Railway organizations given below.
(d) To achieve the conservation and (a) 1 and 2 only
restoration of one trillion trees within (b) 3 only
this decade (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Which of the following statements about the
seat of the Supreme Court is not correct? 84. Which of the statements given below is not
(a) The Constitution declares Delhi as the correct regarding the procedure for an
seat of the Supreme Court. amendment to the Constitution?
(b) The Constitution authorizes the (a) A private member can propose an
President of India to appoint any other amendment bill to the constitution.
place as the seat of the Supreme Court. (b) The introduction of a constituion
(c) The provision of declaration of the any amendment bill does not require prior
other place as the seat of the Supreme permission of the president.
Court is only optional and not (c) The constitutional amendment bill can
compulsory. be discussed in a joint sitting of two
(d) No court can give any direction either to houses for discussion.
the President or to the Chief Justice to (d) The President must give assent to
appoint any other place as a seat of the constitutional amendment bill passed by
Supreme Court. the parliament.
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85. Consider the following Directive Principles 88. Amrit Dharohar Scheme which is announced
contained in the Part IV of the Indian in the 2023 Union Budget aims to
Constitution: (a) Facilitate the transition towards a low
1. Equal justice and free legal aid Carbon Economy.
2. Organisation of village panchayats (b) Promote alternative fertilizers and
3. Living wage for the workers balanced use of chemical fertilizers.
4. Participation of workers in the (c) Establish 500 new 'Waste to Wealth'
management of the industries Plants
How many of the above given Directive (d) Promote values of local communities in
Principles are based on the Gandhian conserving Wetland Ecosystem.
ideology?
(a) Only one 89. In the context of Citizenship in India, which
(b) Only two of the following are the modes of acquiring
(c) Only three citizenship as prescribed by 1955
(d) All four Citizenship Act?
1. Birth
86. Consider the following statements with 2. Descent
reference to the FIR and Charge Sheet: 3. Registration
1. FIR is a preliminary report while the 4. Naturalisation
charge sheet is a final report. 5. Incorporation of Territory
2. FIR is prepared by the investigation Select the correct answer using the code
officer while the charge sheet is given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
prepared by the victim of the crime.
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only
3. FIR is filed in the police station while a
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
charge sheet is filed in court.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
How many of the above statements are
correct?
90. Consider the following Fundamental Rights
(a) Only one
mentioned in the Indian Constitution:
(b) Only two
1. Equality before law and equal protection
(c) All three
of laws (Article 14)
(d) None
2. Protection in respect of conviction for
offences (Article 20)
87. Consider the following statements with
3. Right to elementary education (Article
respect to 'Quo-Warranto' writ:
21A)
1. It is issued by the court to enquire into
4. Freedom to manage religious affairs
the legality of claim of a person to a
(Article 26)
public office.
5. Right of minorities to establish and
2. It can be sought by any interested person
administer educational institutions
and not necessarily by the aggrieved
(Article 30)
person. How many of the above given Fundamental
Which of the statements given above is/are Rights are available to both citizens of India
correct? and foreigners?
(a) 1 only (a) Only two
(b) 2 only (b) Only three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only four
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All five
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91. Consider the following statements: 93. Consider the following statements regarding

Statement-I: Viceroy Canning nominated Agriculture and Processed Food Products

three Indians to the central council–the Raja Export Development Authority (APEDA):

of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala, and Sir 1. It is an apex organization under the

Dinkar Rao. Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Statement-II: The Indian Councils Act 1861 2. Most agricultural products along with

provided for the first time the association of marine products are covered under

Indians with the executive councils. APEDA.

Which one of the following is correct in Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
respect of the above statements?
(a) 1 only
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) 2 only
correct and Statement-II is the correct
(c) Both 1 and 2
explanation for Statement-I
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

correct and Statement-II is not the


94. Which of the following are generally
correct explanation for Statement-I
considered duties of citizenship?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
1. Paying taxes
incorrect
2. Defending the country
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
3. Owning property
is correct
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
92. Consider the following constitutional
(a) 1 only
features:
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. Doctrine of Sovereignty of Parliament
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Presence of a nominal Executive
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Dissolution of the lower house of the

Parliament 95. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar which of


How many of the above are the essential the following is a ‘novel feature’ of the
features of the Parliamentary government as Indian Constitution?
provided under the Constitution of India? (a) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(a) Only one (b) Provisions of National Emergency
(b) Only two (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) All three (d) Indestructible Nature of Indian
(d) None Federation
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96. With reference to the Citizenship Act 1955, 98. Consider the following statements about the

in which of the following cases the contempt of court:


1. Wilful disobedience of any judgment of
citizenship of a person can be deprived by
the court is a criminal contempt.
the government? 2. The consent of the Attorney General of
1. If a citizen has, within five years after India is mandatory when a private

registration or naturalization, been citizen wants to initiate a case of


contempt of court against a person.
imprisoned in any country for two years.
3. At present, there is no separate legal law
2. If a citizen has been ordinarily residing dealing with contempt of court.
out of India for seven years How many of the above statements are
correct?
continuously.
(a) Only one
3. If a citizen has shown disloyalty to the
(b) Only two
Constitution of India. (c) All three
Select the correct answer using the code (d) None

given below.
99. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 3 only
Statement-I: The Fazl Ali Commission
(b) 2 and 3 only accepted the theory of ‘one language-one
(c) 1 only state’ in principle.
Statement-II: The Commission viewed that
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the unity and integrity of India was a prime
consideration.
97. Project 39A, recently seen in the news, is Which one of the following is correct in
associated with: respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) Indian Navy’s 30 years plan for
correct. and Statement-II is the correct
indigenous nuclear submarine
explanation for Statement-I
construction. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II

(b) criminal reforms advocacy group. correct and Statement-II is not the·
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) a target of doubling India’s nuclear
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
capacity by 2039.
incorrect
(d) an aim to eliminate lymphatic filariasis (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II

by 2039 is correct

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100. Consider the following personalities:
1. Sucheta Kriplani
2. Usha Mehta
3. Captain Lakshmi Sahgal
4. Begum Aizaz Rasul
5. Annie Mascarene
How many of the above leaders were part of
the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

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