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Ms. Snehal Dhaigude (IAS) Mr. Sagar Misal (IAS)

Mr. Yatish Deshmukh (IPS)

Mr. Mahesh Gite (IPS)

Mr. Jamir Shaikh (IFS)

Mr. Akshay Bhorde (IFS) Mr. Dhananjay Waybhase (IFS)

Mr. Vikram Nadhe (IFS) Mr. Yogesh Kulal (IFS)

Mr. Jitendra Singh (IRPS) Mr. Sangram Shinde (DANICS)

Mr. Kiran Khade (Asst. Commandant CISF)

Mr. Bharat Bhushan (My Mentor)

Ex. SBI PO, Written 5 UPSC Mains

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Arvind Kaynade
(Director, Delhi Upsc Secrets)

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 Writer’s Note

First of all, heartful gratitude to all the students who have trusted us and I wish all
my aspiring brothers and sisters the best of luck in their future endeavours and wish that all
of you contribute the fullest of your potential for the cause of our nation.
We present you the ultimate previous year’s question analysis - the first of its kind in
a market where PYQS from the year 1979-2023 has been arranged in a systematic and topic-
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covered and adding the miscellaneous segment too.
The best part of the book is, it’s the first of a kind in a market where detailed solution of
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 INDEX
Sections Page No

1. Economics 5

2. Indian Polity 43

3. Geography 98

4. Environment 132

5. History & Culture 157

6. Science & Technology 189

7. Miscellaneous 215

8. IMP Repetitive Topics 227

9. Prelims Tips & Tricks : 252

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II ECONOMICS

ECONOMY (1979-2023)

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC »» Therefore, option (a) is the correct

Open Market Operation answer.
1. Which one of the following activities of the 2. With reference to Indian economy,
Reserve Bank of India is considered to be consider the following: (Year-2015)
part of ‘sterilization’? (Year-2023) 1. Bank rate
(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ 2. Open market operations
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment 3. Public debt
systems 4. Public Revenue
(c) Debt and cash management for the Which of the above is/are component/
Central and State Governments components of Monetary Policy?
(d) Regulating the functions of Non- (a) 1 only
banking Financial Institutions
(b) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation : A (c) 1 and 2
»» Sterilization is an action taken by the (d) 1, 3 and 4
Central Bank (such as RBI in India) to
Explanation : C
counterbalance the effects of foreign
exchange interventions on domestic • In order to achieve certain objectives like price
money supply and inflation. stability, economic growth, and employment,
»» It is done to neutralize the impact of the central bank oversees the money supply
inflows or outflows of foreign exchange and interest rates in the economy through a
reserves on the domestic monetary process known as monetary policy.
system. • In India, the Reserve Bank of India
»» Open Market Operations (OMOs) are (RBI) is responsible for formulating and
one of the tools used by the RBI for implementing monetary policy.
sterilization. OMOs are the purchase
• The components of monetary policy in
or sale of government securities by the
India are :
Central Bank in the open market in
order to regulate the money supply in the 1. Bank Rate :
economy. »» The bank rate is the rate at which the RBI
»» When the RBI buys government lends money to commercial banks.
securities, it injects liquidity into the »» It influences the interest rates in the
economy, while when it sells these economy, which, in turn, affects the
securities, it absorbs liquidity from the borrowing and spending behavior of
economy. individuals and businesses.
»» Through OMOs, the RBI can either »» A higher bank rate means higher
inject or drain liquidity from the banking borrowing costs for banks, which can
system in order to maintain price stability lead to higher lending rates and lower
and promote economic growth. borrowing and spending in the economy.
»» This is done to neutralize the inflationary 2. Open Market Operations :
or deflationary impact of foreign »» Open market operations refer to the
exchange interventions on the domestic buying and selling of government
economy. securities by the RBI in the open market.

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II ECONOMICS
»» When the RBI buys government »» It is one of the quantitative (to regulate
securities, it injects money into the or control the total volume of money)
economy, which can stimulate borrowing monetary policy tools that are employed
and spending. by the central bank of a country to control
»» When it sells government securities, it the money supply in the economy.
withdraws money from the economy, 4. Variable reserve rates and Open Market
which can reduce borrowing and Operations are instruments of
spending.
3. Public Debt : (a) Fiscal Policy (Year-1993)
»» Public debt refers to the total amount (b) Monetary Policy
of money owed by the government (c) Budgetary Policy
to individuals, businesses, and other (d) Trade Policy
countries.
»» The RBI manages public debt by buying Explanation : B
and selling government securities, which »» Monetary policy is the process by which
can affect the money supply in the central bank controls the supply of
economy. money, often targeting an inflation rate
4. Public Revenue : or interest rate to ensure price stability.
»» Public revenue refers to the income Open market operations are conducted
received by the government from taxes, by the RBI by way of sale or purchase of
fees, and other sources. government securities (gsecs) to adjust
»» By changing interest rates, the RBI can money supply conditions. The central
have an impact on government revenue bank sells g-sees to suck out liquidity
by changing how people and corporations from the system and buys hack sees to
borrow money and spend it. infuse liquidity into the system. These
3. In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open operations are often conducted on a day-
Market Operations’ refers to (Year-2013) to-day basis in a manner that balances
inflation while helping banks continue
(a) Borrowing by scheduled banks from to lend. The RBI uses OMO along cash
the RBI reserve ratio and statutory liquidity ratio
(b) Lending by commercial banks to to with other monetary policy tools such
industry and trade as repo rate, adjust the quantum and
(c) Purchase and sale of government price of money in the system.
securities by the RBI
(d) None of the above
Explanation : A
»» This is conducted by RBI by way of sale/
purchase of government securities to/
from the market to adjust the rupee
liquidity conditions in the market on
a durable basis. Hence, Option 1 is
correct.
»» If there is excess liquidity, RBI resorts to
the sale of securities and sucks out the
rupee liquidity.
»» Similarly, when the liquidity conditions
are tight, RBI buys securities from the
market, thereby releasing liquidity into Sagar Dhanraj cleared CSE
the market. Prelims 2023

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II ECONOMICS

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Indian Government Bond Yields.

Economic Terminologies/Concept »» This is because the US dollar is a global
(Government Bond, Call Money, currency, and any changes in its interest
rates affect the global financial markets,
T-Bill, Treasury Bill Market.)
including India.
5. Consider the following markets :  »» For example, if the US Federal Reserve
increases its interest rates, it can lead to
1. Government Bond Market
an outflow of funds from India, which
2. Call Money Market can result in an increase in Indian
3. Treasury Bill Market Government Bond Yields.
4. Stock Market 2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India:
How many of the above are included in »» The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which is
capital markets?  (Year-2023) the central bank of India, also influences
the Indian Government Bond Yields.
(a) Only one »» This is because the RBI is responsible
(b) Only two for managing the monetary policy of the
(c) Only three country, which includes setting interest
(d) All four rates.
»» For example, if the RBI increases its
Explanation : B repo rate, it can lead to a decrease in
6. India Government Bond Yields are the demand for government bonds,
influenced by which of the following? which can result in an increase in Indian
Government Bond Yields.
1. Actions of the United States Federal 3. Inflation and short-term interest rates:
Reserve. »» Inflation and short-term interest rates
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India. also influence Indian Government Bond
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates. Yields.
Select the correct answer using the code »» When inflation is high, investors demand
given below: (Year-2021) higher returns to compensate for the loss
of purchasing power.
(a) 1 and 2 only »» Similar to this, investors favor short-
(b) 2 Only term securities over long-term bonds
(c) 3 Only when short-term interest rates are high,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 which can enhance the yield on Indian
government bonds.
Explanation : D
7. With reference of the Indian economy,
Indian Government Bond Yields: consider the following statements:
»» The returns that an investor receives from
1. ‘Commercial Paper’ is a short-term
investing in government securities or
unsecured promissory note.
bonds issued by the Indian government
are known as Indian Government Bond 2. ‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term
Yields. instrument issued by the Reserve Bank
»» These yields are influenced by various of India to a corporation.
factors, some of which are: 3. ‘Call Money’ is a short-term finance
1. Actions of the United States Federal used for interbank transitions.
Reserve: 4. ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest
»» The actions of the United States Federal bearing short-term bonds issued by
Reserve, which is the central bank of the the Scheduled Commercial Banks to
USA, have a significant impact on the corporations.

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II ECONOMICS
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above are included in
correct?(Year-2020) capital markets?  (Year-2023)
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 4 only (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All four
Explanation : C Explanation : B
Markets are mainly of two types- »» The money market is where short-term
»» The money market is where most debt and lending takes place, usually for
short-term transactions are made in one year or less.
monetary assets; it meets the short-term »» The capital market is where long-term
requirements of borrowers and provides assets, such as stocks and bonds, are
liquidity or cash to the lenders. traded.
»» Money market deals in financial assets »» The money market is less risky but also
whose period of maturity is up to one less rewarding than the capital market,
year. which is more volatile but potentially
more profitable.
Short term financial instruments are –
»» Based on this definition, we can see
a) Call money that only two of the above markets are
b) Treasury Bill included in the capital market, that is
c) Commercial Paper Deposit Certificates Government Bond Market and the stock
market.
d) Trade bill
»» The other two, Call Money Market and
»» The capital market is the market for
Treasury Bill Market are part of the
medium and long-term funds.
money market, as they deal with short-
»» Capital Market deals in financial assets
term financial instruments.
whose period of maturity more than one
»» Therefore, option (b) is the correct
year.
answer.
Long term financial instruments are-
9. In the context of the Indian economy,
a) Security Market - Equity, Debt, IPOs, non-financial debt includes which of the
Commodity Markets etc. following?(Year-2020)
b) Non-Security Market - Mutual Funds,
Fixed Deposits, Saving Deposits etc. 1. Housing loans owed by households
»» Call money deals with day - to - day cash 2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
requirement of banks. 3. Treasury bills
»» It is a short-term financial instrument. Select the correct answer using the code
»» Participants in the call money market are given below:
banks and related entities specified by
the RBI. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
»» Notice money deals with loans for 2-14 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
days to banks, it is also a short-term Explanation : D
financial instrument.
• Debt incurred by entities other than financial
8. Consider the following markets : organizations, such as households and non-
1. Government Bond Market financial corporations, is referred to as non-
2. Call Money Market financial debt. In the context of the Indian
economy, non-financial debt includes the
3. Treasury Bill Market following:
4. Stock Market

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1. Housing loans owed by households : Explanation : C
»» This refers to the debt incurred by »» Under the authority granted by the
households for the purpose of buying or Reserve Bank of India Act, the Reserve
constructing a residential property. Bank of India handles public debt and
»» Housing loans are typically long-term offers loans in Indian rupee on behalf of
loans with a repayment period of up to the federal and state governments.
30 years. »» The RBI is the debt manager for both
»» Housing loans are a major component of the Central Government and the State
non-financial debt in India. Governments.
2. Amounts outstanding on credit »» RBI manages the debt of state
cards: governments based upon separate
»» This refers to the debt incurred by agreements.
individuals or households through credit »» Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money
cards. market instruments, are short term debt
»» Credit card debt is typically short-term instruments issued by the Government
debt with high-interest rates. of India and are presently issued in three
»» Credit card debt is also a significant tenors, namely, 91-day, 182 day and 364
component of non-financial debt in days.
India. »» Treasury bills are zero coupon securities
3. Treasury bills : and pay no interest.
»» Treasury bills are short-term government »» They are issued at a discount and
securities that are issued to fund the redeemed at the face value at maturity.
government’s short-term borrowing For example, a 91-day Treasury bill of
requirements. 100/- (face value) may be issued at say
»» Although treasury bills aren’t normally 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, 1.80
thought of as non-financial debt, they and would be redeemed at the face value
are in the context of the Indian economy of 100/-.
because of the large role that the »» The difference between the face value
government plays in the economy. (100) and the maturity value represents
10. Consider the following statements: the investors’ return.
11. Consider the following:  (Year-2001)
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages
and services Government of India 1. Market borrowing
Securities but not any State Government 2. Treasury bills
Securities. 3. Special securities issued to RBI
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Which of these is/are component(s) of
Government of India and there are internal debt?
no treasury bills issued by the State
Governments. (a) I only (b) I and II
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a (c) II only (d) I, II and III
discount from the par value. Explanation : D
Which of the statements given above is/are »» Internal Debt : Internal debt is that part
correct?(Year-2018) of the total debt that is owed to lenders
(a) 1 and 2 only within the country. It is the money the
(b) 3 only government borrows from its own
citizens.
(c) 2 and 3 only
»» The government borrows by issuing
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the Government Bonds and T-Bills
(Treasury Bills). It also includes the
Market borrowings by the government.
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»» The government bonds and T-Bills are »» Niger is cross-pollinated by bees and
traded in the market which is also known other insects.
as Gilt Market. »» The major niger producing states in
»» When government borrows from India are Madhya Pradesh, Orissa,
the domestic sources, the increase in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat and
inflation is less in comparison to simply Jharkhand.
printing the money. »» The average yield of niger in India
is around 266 kg/ha. However, the
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC area under niger cultivation has been
Minimum Support Price (MSP) declining over the years due to various
12. Consider the following statements : factors such as low productivity, lack of
 (Year-2023) government support, amarbel infestation
and increasing preference for paddy.
1. The Government of India provides »» Therefore, option (c) is the correct
Minimum Support Price for niger answer.
Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
13. In India, which of the following can
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. be considered as public investment in
3. Some tribal people in India use niger agriculture?
seed oil for cooking. .
1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for
How many of the above statements are
agricultural produce of all crops
correct?
2. Computerization of Primary
(a) Only one (b) Only two Agricultural Credit Societies
(c) All three (d) None 3. Social Capital development
Explanation : C 4. Free electricity supply to farmers
»» Niger (Guizotia abyssinica) is a minor 5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the
oilseed crop that is grown in India mainly banking system
during kharif season. 6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by
»» It is also known as ramtil or karala. Niger the governments
seeds have high oil content (37-47%) and Select the correct answer using the code
protein content (18-24%).
given below: (Year-2020)
»» The oil is used for cooking, lighting,
lubrication and perfume making. (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
»» The seed cake is used as animal feed and (b) 1, 3, and 4 and 5 only
manure. (c) 2, 3 and 6 only
»» Niger seed oil are also consumed as a
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
condiment by some tribal people.
»» The Government of India provides Explanation : C
Minimum Support Price for niger. So, »» Public investments in agriculture are
statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. those that the government makes to
»» Niger can grow on various types of soils, develop resources or social assets to
from clay loam to sandy loam, as long as boost agricultural productivity.
they are well drained. »» Fixing MSP gives farmers the
»» It can tolerate slight alkalinity and remunerative price without creating any
salinity. It requires moist soil and durable infrastructure.
moderate rainfall (1000-1300 mm). »» Computerization Agri-credit societies
»» Niger is cultivated as a sole crop or mixed improves their productivity by digitising
crop with millets, groundnut or pulses. their functioning.
»» The seed rate varies from 5 to 15 kg/ha
depending on the method of sowing.

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»» Social capital development like 15. Consider the following statements:
agriculture education improves the
knowledge base of farmers paving the 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-
way for improved productivity. seeds, the procurement at Minimum
»» While free electricity and waiver of Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in
agricultural loans creates government any State/UT of India.
liabilities without creating any durable 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the
assets on ground. MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level
»» Creating durable assets is another benefit to which the market price will never
of cold chain infrastructure in lowering rise.
post-harvest losses. Which of the statements given above is/are
14. Which of the following factors/policies correct?(Year-2020)
were affecting the price of rice in India in (a) 1 only
the recent past? (Year-2020) (b) 2 only
1. Minimum Support Price (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Government’s trading (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Government’s stockpiling Explanation : D
4. Consumer subsidies »» While procurement is open-ended, it is
Select the correct answer using the code not unlimited since our buffer stock is
given below: limited.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only »» Market price has no link with Minimum
Support Prices and it can go below or
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
above of MSP depends upon the demand
(c) 2 and 3 only of crop in the market.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 The chief objectives of setting up MSP are:
Explanation : D a) Support farmers from distress sales
»» The Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR) is b) To procure food grains for public
one of the important and most important distribution
liquidity ratios, which indicates the »» Issue Price is the price at which the
level of a company’s ability to afford the procured and buffer stock food grains
interest that is to be paid by the company are provided through the PDS.
for raising debt. It does not measure the »» The MSP is recommended by the
ability to make principal payments on Commission for Agricultural Costs
the debt; instead it depicts how much the and Prices and announced by Cabinet
company can afford to pay the interests Committee on Economic Affairs.
on the debt promptly. »» MSP for sugarcane is known as Fair and
»» The interest coverage ratio is used to see Remunerative Prices.
how well a firm can pay the interest on The Centre currently fixes MSPs for 23
outstanding debt. crops and these are as follows –
»» Also called the times-interest-earned
»» 7 cereals – paddy, wheat, maize, bajra,
ratio, this ratio is used by creditors and
jowar, ragi and barley
prospective lenders to assess the risk of
»» 5 pulses – chana, arhar/tur, urad, moong
lending capital to a firm.
and masur.
»» Although the optimal ratio may differ
»» 7 oilseeds – rapeseed-mustard,
by industry, a larger coverage ratio is
groundnut, soya bean, sunflower,
preferable.
sesamum, safflower and nigerseed.
»» 4 commercial crops – cotton, sugarcane,
copra and raw jute.

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16. The economic cost of food grains to the Explanation : B
Food Corporation of India is Minimum
Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to The Cabinet Committee on Economic
the farmers plus (Year-2019) Affairs covers the following under the
announced Minimum Support Price:
(a) transportation cost only i. Paddy vii. Moong
(b) interest cost only ii. Jowar viii. Urad Other
(c) procurement incidentals and iii. Bajra Crops
distribution cost ix. Cotton
iv. Maize
(d) procurement incidentals and charges x. Groundnut
for godowns v. Ragi
vi. Arhar(Tur) xi. Sunflower Seed
Explanation : C
18. Consider the following statements:
»» The Correct Answer is Option 3 i.e
procurement incidentals and distribution 1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs
cost. and Prices recommends the Minimum
»» The economic cost of food grains Support Prices for 32 crops.
procured by the Food Corporation 2. The Union Ministry of Consumer
of India (FCI) is a total of Minimum Affairs Food and Public Distribution
Support Price and bonus (if any) paid have launched the National Food
to the farmers plus the procurement Security Mission.
incidentals and distribution cost. Which of the statements given above is/
»» FCI’s economic cost has three main
are correct?  (Year-2009)
components - procurement cost,
procurement price, and distribution cost. (a) 1 only
»» The procurement incidentals are (b) 2 only
the initial costs incurred during the (c) Both 1 and 2
procurement of foodgrains.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
»» The distribution costs include freight,
handling charges, storage charges, losses Explanation : D
during transit and establishment cost. »» The Commission for Agricultural Costs
17. Consider the following: (Year-2018) & Prices (CACP) is an attached office
of the Ministry of Agriculture and
1. Areca nut Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
2. Barley It came into existence in January 1965.
3. Coffee It is mandated to recommend minimum
4. Finger millet support prices (MSPs) to incentivize the
cultivators to adopt modern technology,
5. Groundnut
and raise productivity and overall grain
6. Sesamum production in line with the emerging
7. Turmeric demand patterns in the country. CACP
The Cabinet Committee on Economic recommends MSPs of 23 commodities.
Affairs has announced the Minimum 19. Consider the following statements:
Support Price for which of the above?
1. Regarding the procurement of food
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
grains, Government of India follows
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only a procurement target rather than an
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only open-ended procurement policy.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 2. Government of India announces
minimum support prices only for
cereals.
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3. For distribution under Targeted Public »» NAFED is the nodal procurement agency
Distribution System (TPDS), wheat for Oilseeds and pulses, apart from the
and rice are issued by the Government Cotton Corporation of India.
of India at uniform Central issue prices »» So, when the prices of oilseeds, pulses
to the States/Union Territories and cotton fall below MSP, NAFED
Which of the statements given above is/are purchases them from the farmers.
correct?  (Year-2004) »» For distribution under Targeted Public
Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and
(a) 1 and 2 rice are issued by the Government of
(b) 2 only India at uniform central issue prices to
(c) 1 and 3 the States/Union Territories.
(d) 3 only 20. The prices at which the Government
Explanation : C purchases food grains for maintaining the
public distribution system and for building
»» The Minimum Support Prices were up buffer-stocks is known as 
announced by the Government of India (Year-2001)
for the first time in 1966-67 for Wheat
in the wake of the Green Revolution and (a) minimum support prices
extended harvest, to save the farmers (b) procurement prices
from depleting profits. Since then, the (c) issue prices
MSP regime has been expanded to many
(d) ceiling prices
crops. Minimum Support Price is the
price at which government purchases Explanation : B
crops from the farmers, whatever may be »» Minimum Support Price : The
the price for the crops. Minimum Support Prices were
»» The MSP is announced by the announced by the Government of India
Government of India for 25 crops for the first time in 1966-67 for Wheat
currently at the beginning of each season in the wake of the Green Revolution and
viz. Rabi and Kharif. extended harvest, to save the farmers
»» If there is a fall in the prices of the crops, from depleting profits. Since then, the
after a bumper harvest, the government MSP regime has been expanded to many
purchases at the MSP and this is the crops. Minimum Support Price is the
reason that the priced cannot go below price at which government purchases
MSP. So this directly helps the farmers. crops from the farmers, whatever may be
The government decided the support pric- the price for the crops.
es for various agricultural commodities af- »» Procurement prices : Procurement
ter taking into account the following: price of a commodity refers to the price
1. Recommendations of Commission for at which govt. procures the commodity
Agricultural Costs and Prices from producers/manufactures for
maintaining the buffer stock or the
2. Views of State Governments
public distribution system. These prices
3. Views of Ministries are announced by the govt of India on the
4. Other relevant factors. recommendations of the Commission
»» The Department of Agriculture and for Agricultural Costs and Prices before
Cooperation implements the Price the harvest season of the crop.
Support Scheme for Oil Seeds and »» Ceiling Prices : A price ceiling is a
Pulses through the National Agricultural government-imposed price control or
Cooperative Marketing Federation of limit on how high a price is charged for
India Ltd. (NAFED). a product. Governments intend price
ceilings to protect consumers from

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conditions that could make commodities the market-determined rate of exchange.
prohibitively expensive. • The rupee is both convertibles on capital
account and current account.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
Rupee Convertibility BASEL III
21. Convertibility Of rupee implies  22. Basel II relates to which one of the
 (Year : 1994/2015) following?  (Year : 2007)

(a) Being able to convert rupee notes into (a) International standards for safety in
gold civil aviation
(b) Allowing the value of rupee to be fixed (b) measures against cyber crimes
by market forces (c) Measures against drug abuse by sports
(c) Freely permitting the conversion of persons
rupee to other currencies and vice (d) International standards for measuring
versa the adequacy of a bank’s capital.
(d) Developing an international market for Explanation : Answer - D
currencies in India
Explanation : Answer - C
What Is Basel II?
• Basel II is a set of international banking
• The exchange rate was earlier controlled by regulations first released in 2004 by the
RBI for the conversion of Indian currency into Basel Committee on Banking Supervision.
foreign exchange. All the foreign exchange It expanded the rules for minimum capital
earned was to be sold to an authorized dealer. requirements established under Basel I, the
• One had to seek the permission of the central first international regulatory accord, provided
bank to purchase foreign exchange. a framework for regulatory supervision and
• The main purpose behind this was to utilize set new disclosure requirements for assessing
the foreign exchange earned by the residents the capital adequacy of banks.
as per the priorities fixed by the government. Important Points
India is a fast developing country now and
one of the most preferred countries for • Basel II, the second of three Basel Accords,
investment by foreigners. has three main tenets: minimum capital
requirements, regulatory supervision, and
• India could not restrict its foreign trade as It
market discipline.
needs to grow further.
• Building on Basel I, Basel II provided
• So the government has allowed the
guidelines for the calculation of minimum
convertibility of rupee in a phased manner
regulatory capital ratios and confirmed the
on current account transactions.
requirement that banks maintain a capital
• But full convertibility of currency for capital reserve equal to at least 8% of their risk-
account transactions is still a distant dream. weighted assets.
• Convertibility of currency means when the • The second pillar of Basel II, regulatory
currency of a country can be freely converted supervision, provides a framework for
into the foreign exchange at the market- national regulatory bodies to deal with
determined rate of exchange. The exchange systemic risk, liquidity risk, and legal risks,
rate is determined by the demand for and among others.
supply of a currency.
• One weakness of Basel II emerged during
• In general, the convertibility of rupee means the subprime mortgage meltdown and Great
that those who have a foreign exchange (e.g. Recession of 2008 when it became clear that
US dollars, Pound Sterlings, etc.) can get Basel II underestimated the risks involved
them converted into rupees and vice-versa at in current banking practices and that the

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financial system was overleveraged and capital adequacy requirement,
undercapitalized. supervisory requirement, and market
discipline. A minimum capital adequacy
23. Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III, often
requirement of 8% of risk-weighted
seen in the news, seeks to  (Year : 2015)
assets was fixed.
(a) Develop national strategies for the • Basel-III norms:
conservation and sustainable use of »» Basel III norms were issued in 2010 as a
biological diversity response to the financial crisis of 2008.
(b) Improve banking sector’s ability to deal »» It aims to promote a resilient banking
with financial and economic stress and system by focusing on capital leverage
improve risk management funding and liquidity. The capital
(c) Reduce the greenhouse gas emissions adequacy ratio was fixed at 12.9%.
but places a heavier burden on »» The leverage rate was fixed at 3%.
developed countries »» Banks’ strength was improved Liquidity
Coverage Ratio and Net Stable Fund
(d) Transfer technology from developed
Rate.
countries to poor countries to
enable them to replace the use of THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration Index Of Eight Core Industries
with harmless chemicals
24. In India the overall Index of Industrial
Explanation : Answer - B Production, the Indices of Eighth Core
• Basel accords refer to the Banking supervision Industries have combined weight of
accords issued by the Basel Committee on 37.90%. Which of the following are among
banking supervision. The Basel Committee those Eight Core Industries? (Year : 2012)
on banking supervision is a global standard 1) Cement
committee for the regulation of banks. 2) Fertilizers
• It was established by the central bank 3) Natural Gas
governors of 10 countries in 1974. Its
4) Refinery products
objective is to improve the quality of banking
supervision worldwide. The headquarters is 5) Textiles
in Basel, a city in Switzerland. Select the correct answer using the codes
• Basel Norms: given below:
»» Basel norms are the international a) 1 and 5 only
banking regulations to strengthen the b) 2, 3 and 4 only
international banking system.
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
»» It is in the form of an agreement by the
Basel Committee of Banking supervision d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
which mainly focuses on the risk to Explanation : Answer - C
banks and the financial system.
• The eight core industries comprise nearly
• Basel-I norms:
40.27% of the weight of items included in the
»» Basel, I was introduced in 1988 and Index of Industrial Production.
focused on credit risk.
• These core 8 sectors are
»» India adopted Basel 1 guidelines in 1999
as it defines the capital and structure of »» Electricity Steel
risk weights for banks. The minimum »» Refinery products Crude oil
Capital requirement was fixed at 8% of »» Coal Cement
risk-weighted assets. »» Natural gas and Fertilizers
• Basel-II norms: • Important Points
»» Basel II norms were established in 2004 »» According to the data released by the
and were based on three parameters Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the

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eight-core sector industries recorded a highest weightage was given to the Electricity
growth of 5.5% in February 2020. Industry.
»» The eight Core Industries in decreasing THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
order of their weightage : RBI
Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel>
26. The Reserve Bank of India was established
Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas>
in  (Year : 1987)
Cement> Fertilizers.
25. In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, (a) 1935
which one of the following is given the (b) 1947
highest weight?  (Year : 2015) (c) 1952
(a) Coal production (d) 1969
(b) Electricity generation Explanation : Answer - A
(c) Fertilizer production
Brief History
(d) Steel production
• The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank
Explanation : Answer - B of the country. Central banks are a relatively
• A Note on Index of Eight Core Industries recent innovation and most central banks,
(ICI), Base year 2011-12 as we know them today, were established
• The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries around the early twentieth century.
(ICI) is a production volume index. • The Reserve Bank of India was set up on the
ICI measures collective and individual basis of the recommendations of the Hilton
performance of production in selected eight Young Commission. The Reserve Bank of
core industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural India Act, 1934 (II of 1934) provides the
Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, statutory basis of the functioning of the Bank,
Cement and Electricity. which commenced operations on April 1,
• It is compiled and released by Office of the 1935.
Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of The Bank was constituted to
Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), and
»» Regulate the issue of banknotes
Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The
»» Maintain reserves with a view to securing
Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an
monetary stability and
index that shows the growth rates in different
»» To operate the credit and currency
industry groups of the economy in a fixed
system of the country to its advantage.
period of time.
• The Bank began its operations by taking
• It is compiled and published monthly by the
over from the Government the functions
National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of
so far being performed by the Controller
Statistics and Programme Implementation.
of Currency and from the Imperial Bank
• IIP is a composite indicator that measures of India, the management of Government
the growth rate of industry groups classified accounts and public debt.
under: Broad sectors, namely, Mining,
• The existing currency offices at Calcutta,
Manufacturing, and Electricity. Use-based
Bombay, Madras, Rangoon, Karachi, Lahore
sectors, namely Basic Goods, Capital Goods,
and Cawnpore (Kanpur) became branches of
and Intermediate Goods.
the Issue Department. Offices of the Banking
• The eight core sector industries represent Department were established in Calcutta,
about 40% of the weight of items that are Bombay, Madras, Delhi and Rangoon.
included in the IIP.
• Burma (Myanmar) seceded from the
• Note : In The Index of Eight Core Industries Indian Union in 1937 but the Reserve Bank
highest weight is currently possessed by continued to act as the Central Bank for
the Refinery Products Industry. Earlier the

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Burma till Japanese Occupation of Burma Explanation : Answer - C
and later upto April, 1947.
• The Industrial Development Bank of India
• After the partition of India, the Reserve Bank (IDBI) was established in 1964 under an Act
served as the central bank of Pakistan upto of Parliament as a wholly owned subsidiary
June 1948 when the State Bank of Pakistan of the Reserve Bank of India.
commenced operations. The Bank, which
• In 1976, the ownership of IDBI was
was originally set up as a shareholder’s bank,
transferred to the Government of India and
was nationalised in 1949.
it was made the principal financial institution
• An interesting feature of the Reserve Bank for coordinating the activities of institutions
of India was that at its very inception, the engaged in financing, promoting and
Bank was seen as playing a special role developing industry in India.
in the context of development, especially
• IDBI provided financial assistance, both in
Agriculture.
rupee and foreign currencies, for green- field
• When India commenced its plan endeavours, projects as also for expansion, modernization
the development role of the Bank came into and diversification purposes.
focus, especially in the sixties when the
• In the wake of financial sector reforms
Reserve Bank, in many ways, pioneered the
unveiled by the government since 1992, IDBI
concept and practise of using finance to
also provided indirect financial assistance by
catalyse development.
way of refinancing of the loan.
• The Bank was also instrumental in
• After the public issue of IDBI in July 1995,
institutional development and helped set
the Government shareholding in the Bank
up insitutions like the Deposit Insurance
came down from 100% to 75%. IDBI played
and Credit Guarantee Corporation of
a pioneering role, particularly in the pre-
India, the Unit Trust of India, the Industrial
reform era (1964–91), in catalyzing broad-
Development Bank of India, the National
based industrial development in India in
Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development,
keeping with its Government-ordained
the Discount and Finance House of India etc.
‘development banking’ charter.
to build the financial infrastructure of the
country. 28. Which one of the following functions of
• With liberalisation, the Bank’s focus has the Reserve Bank of India is not performed
shifted back to core central banking functions by the other banks?  (Year : 1991)
like Monetary (a) Making advances to agriculturists
• Policy, Bank Supervision and Regulation, (b) Dealing in foreign exchange
and Overseeing the Payments System and
(c) Industrial Refinancing
onto developing the financial markets
(d) Acting as the banker to the Government
• Note : It’s 1935 not 1934! It was established
through RBI Act, 1934. Explanation : Answer - D
27. Which one of the following is NOT an • Reserve Bank of India -The Reserve Bank of
affiliate of the Reserve Bank of India?  India (RBI) was founded in 1935 as a private
 (Year : 1988) organisation before becoming India’s central
bank in 1949.
(a) Agricultural Refinance Corporation
• The RBI’s primary objective is to carry
(b) Deposit Insurance Corporation out comprehensive supervision of the
(c) The Industrial Development Bank of Indian financial sector, which consists of
India commercial banks, financial institutions, and
(d) Unit Trust of India non-banking financing companies.

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Important Points Explanation : Answer - B

• Functions of Reserve Bank of India are as • The current RBI’s accounting year runs from
follows - July to June while the government follows the
1. Monetary Authority : The RBI’s April-March fiscal year.
primary responsibility is developing Key Points
and implementing India’s monetary
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has planned
policy. The RBI’s major problem as
to align its financial year with the centre.
a monetary authority is striking a
balance between “price stability” and • The Central Board of Directors of the RBI
“future economic growth.” recommended to align the accounting year of
RBI with the financial year of the government
2. Currency Issuer : The RBI is in
(April-March), from 2020-21.
charge of printing and releasing fresh
banknotes in India. • The preamble of RBI is to regulate the issue
of Bank notes and keeping of reserves with
3. Regulator and supervisor of the
a view to securing monetary stability in
financial system : RBI establishes the
India and generally to operate the currency
guidelines by which Indian banks and
and credit system of the country to its
the financial system must function.
advantage; to have a modern monetary
4. Government banker : The RBI is the policy framework to meet the challenge of an
retail bank for the Government of increasingly complex economy, to maintain
India, much as retail and commercial price stability while keeping in mind the
banks provide services to the general objective of growth.
public (GOI). For the GOI, RBI also
• The Reserve Bank’s affairs are governed by a
serves as a merchant banker.
central board of directors.
5. Foreign Exchange’s Manager : In
• The board is appointed by the Government
India, all money transfers must follow
of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of
FEMA regulations (Foreign Exchange
India Act.
Management Act). The RBI is in charge
of making sure that transactions follow 30. Consider the following statements
FEMA regulations. regarding Reserve Bank of India : 
6. Banker to Banks : The RBI has an  (Year : 2001)
account with every bank in India. I) It is a banker to the Central
In this account, they maintain their Government.
required reserves and other deposits.
Therefore, RBI also serves as a bank II) It formulates and administers monetary
to the banks in this way. The RBI is policy.
in charge of overseeing interbank III) It acts as an agent of the Government in
transactions. As a rare circumstance, respect of India’s membership of IMF.
RBI may also extend credit to banks. IV) It handles the borrowing programme
• Thus, To accept deposits on interest from of Government of India.
public is not a function performed by Reserve Which of these statements are correct ?
Bank of India. It is a function of Commercial
(a) I and II
Banks.
(b) II, III and IV
29. The accounting year of the Reserve Bank (c) I, II, III and IV
of India is  (Year : 1998)
(d) III and IV
(a) April-March Explanation : Answer - A
(b) July-June
• Functions of RBI : sole authority to issue
(c) October-September
currency; government’s bank; banker’s bank;
(d) January-December
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guardian of money market; lender of the last Other Functions :
resort; sole reservoir of Foreign exchange
• Banker to the Government: performs
reserves; controller of credit; clearing house
merchant banking function for the central
for settling inter bank transactions. It follows
and the state governments; also acts as their
an independent monetary policy.
banker Banker to banks: maintains banking
Main Functions of RBI: accounts of all scheduled banks.
• Monetary Authority: 31. When the Reserve Bank of India announces
»» Formulates, implements and monitors an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what
the monetary policy. does it mean? (Year : 2010)
»» Objective : maintaining price stability
while keeping in mind the objective of (a) The commercial banks will have less
growth. money to lend.
• Regulator and supervisor of the financial (b) The Reserve Bank of India will have
system: less money to lend.
»» Prescribes broad parameters of banking (c) The Union Government will have less
operations within which the country’s money to lend.
banking and financial system functions. (d) The commercial banks will have more
»» Objective: maintain public confidence money to lend.
in the system, protect depositors’ interest
and provide cost-effective banking Explanation : Answer - A
services to the public. Manager of Cash Reserve Ratio
Foreign Exchange:
• Manages the Foreign Exchange according • CRR is an important measure of the Monetary
to the Foreign Exchange Management Act, Policy.
1999. • Monetary Policy is the procedure of regulating
»» Objective : to facilitate external trade the supply of money in an economy by the
and payment and promote orderly country’s monetary authority. A specific
development and maintenance of the CRR is provided to every commercial bank
foreign exchange market in India. in India by the RBI.
• The issuer of the currency : • The Reserve Bank of India is ceremonial to
»» Issues and exchanges currency and make monetary policy under the Reserve
destroys currency and coins that are not Bank of India Act, 1934 and can set the cash
fit for circulation. reserve ratio between 3% and 15%.
»» Objective: to give the public an adequate Value Addition
quantity of supplies of currency notes
• CRR is an important weapon of the Monetary
and coins and in good quality.
Policy which provides the following
• Developmental role :
advantages CRR manages the money supply
»» Performs a wide range of Developmental and the level of inflation in the country.
functions to support national objectives.
• CRR ascertains the security of the reserved
• Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and
amount as the specific amount of the bank’s
Settlement Systems :
deposit is stored with the Reserve Bank of
»» Introduces and upgrades safe and India which can be readily available as per
efficient modes of payment systems in the need of the customers.
the country to meet the requirements of
• CRR also has a primary role to play during
the public at large.
high inflation.
»» Objective: maintain public confidence
in the payment and settlement system. • During high inflation, the Reserve Bank of
India increases the CRR rate to lessen the
amount of money that is available with the

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banks. This reduces the abundant flow of 33. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a
money in the economy. bankers’ bank. This would imply which of
• During the need of funds, the government the following?  (Year : 2012)
can decrease the rate of the CRR to help 1) Other bank retains their deposits with
the banks in providing loans to various the RBI.
businesses and industries for investment.
2) The RBI lends funds to the commercial
• A low rate of CRR also enhances the growth banks in times of need.
rate of the economy.
3) The RBI advises the commercial banks
32. The lowering of bank rate by the Reserve on monetary matters.
Bank of India leads to?  (Year : 2011) a) 2 and 3 only b )1 and 2 only
(a) More liquidity in the market c) 1 and 3 only d )1, 2 and 3
(b) Less liquidity in the market. Explanation : Answer - B
(c) No change in the liquidity in the • The central bank is an apex bank that controls
market. the entire banking system of a country. It is
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by the sole agency of note-issuing and controls
commercial banks. the supply of money in the economy.
Explanation : Answer - A • It performs the following functions as per
the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934:
• It is the interest rate at which a nation’s central
bank lends money to domestic banks, often 1. Banking functions: The Reserve Bank
in the form of very short-term loans. When acts as the Banker, Agent, and Adviser
a bank suffers fund deficiency, it can borrow to the Government of India and states.
money from RBI to continue services. It performs all the banking functions of
• When Bank Rate is increased by the central the State and Central
bank, a commercial bank’s borrowing costs »» Government and it also tenders useful
hikes, which reduce the supply of money advice to the government on matters
in the market. Any reduction in the bank related to economic and monetary
rate and the repo rate will lead to borrowers policy. It also manages the public debt of
getting loans at lower interest rates. the government.
»» It performs the same functions for the
• The lowering of the Bank Rate makes the other commercial banks as the other
domestic banks borrow money at a cheap banks ordinarily perform for their
rate which in turn increased the liquidity in customers. RBI lends money to all the
the market. commercial banks of the country. Hence
• Current Policy Rates- statements 1 and 2 are correct.
»» Policy Repo Rate: 5.90% Reverse Repo 2. Supervisory functions: It supervises
Rate:3.35% other banks and governments into
»» Marginal Standing Facility Rate: 6.15% various economic conditions and
Bank Rate: 5.65% guides them at the time of inflation or
»» Current Reserve Ratios- CRR:4.50% deflation in the economy.
»» SLR: 18.00%.
3. Promotional functions: The central
• (Note: Data is dynamic and hence subject bank also performs promotional
to change.) functions which include integrating
with world economies and maintaining
foreign reserves. They represent the
country’s economy internationally.

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• Advisory Functions: in consultation with the Reserve Bank. The
»» The RBI is also providing advisory current inflation target is pegged at 4% with
functions to both the Central and State -2/+2 tolerance till March 31, 2021.
Governments on both financial matters 35. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces
and also on general economic problems. the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis
However, the above options are limited, points, which of the following is likely to
it does not contain all the four function. happen?  (Year : 2015)
Therefore, statement 3 is not correct
34. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the (a) India’s GDP growth rate increases
commercial banks in matters of  drastically
 (Year : 2013) (b) Foreign Institutional Investors may
bring more capital into our country
1) Liquidity of assets (c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut
2) Branch expansion their lending rates
3) Merger of banks (d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity
4) Winding-up of banks to the banking system
Select the correct answer using the codes Explanation : Answer - C
given below.
• Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the reserve
(a) 1 and 4 only requirement that commercial banks are
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only required to maintain in the form of cash,
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only gold reserves, PSU Bonds, and RBI approved
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 securities before providing credit to the
customers.
Explanation : Answer - D
• When SLR is reduced, the commercial banks
• RBI is called the banker’s bank and regulates can use more money to lend its customers.
the banking sector in India. • If the lending rate is reduced by the bank
• By using mechanisms like CRR, SLR, etc, it to some extent, their profitability won’t be
keeps a check on the liquidity of assets of the hampered in case of a reduction in SLR rate.
banks. Hence statement 1 is correct. Reduction in the Statutory liquidity ratio
• Moreover, RBI also sets rules and regulations (SLR) is done by RBI to increase liquidity in
concerning the merger of banks, their the market.
winding-up operations, and branch • Important Points
expansion. Hence statements 2, 3, and 4 are »» The Monetary Policy rates are fixed
correct. by a 6 member committee called The
Value Addition Monetary Policy Committee. Out of the
6 members, 3 are from RBI and the other
• Monetary Policy Committee It was created in
3 are appointed by GOI.
2016.
Value Addition
• It was created to bring transparency and
accountability in deciding monetary policy. • Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
MPC determines the policy interest rate »» It is the regulator of the entire banking
required to achieve the inflation target. system in India. Governer: Shaktikanta
• The committee comprises six members where Das (25th governor).
Governor RBI acts as an ex-officio chairman. »» Founded : 1 April 1935 in Kolkata.
Three members are from RBI and three are Headquarter: Mumbai.
selected by the government.
• The inflation target is to be set once in a five
year. It is set by the Government of India,

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36. Which of the following statements best Explanation : Answer - C
describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable
• Inflation is a caused when there is an increase
Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’,
in money supply and fall in production. Also
recently seen in the news?  (Year : 2017)
occurs due to rising prices of goods and
(a) It is a procedure for considering services in an economy.
ecological costs of developmental • When inflation occurs it leads to higher
schemes formulated by the Goverment. prices for basic necessities such as food, it
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking can have a negative impact on society.
the financial structure of big corporate • Inflation: Inflation in general terms refers to
entities facing genuine difficulties. the persistent rise in the general price level
(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the in the country over a period of time. During
Government regarding Central Public inflation, there is an increase in the money
Sector Undertakings. supply.
(d) It is an important provision in Causes of Inflation:
‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code’ recently implemented by the • A mismatch between demand and supply.
Government. When demand exceeds supply.
• Increase in money supply and fall in
Explanation : Answer - B
production.
• A new scheme called Sustainable Structuring • Due to changes in demand-side or supply-
of Stressed Assets (S4A) to tackle bad loans side or both.
of big firms was unveiled by RBI. • Types of Inflation:
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), to put real
1) Creeping Inflation: Slows and on
assets back on track and to strengthen the
predictable lines.
lenders’ ability to deal with stressed assets,
unveiled the scheme 2) Galloping Inflation: Very high.
• called Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of 3) Hyper Inflation: Large and accelerating.
Stressed Assets (S4A) — for “reworking the 4) Bottleneck Inflation: When supply falls
financial structure” of big corporate entities drastically and demand remains the
“facing genuine difficulties”. same.
• As per RBI notification about S4A, Scheme • Measures of Inflation:
envisages bifurcation of the outstanding debt »» Wholesale Price Index.
into sustainable debt and equity/quasi-equity »» GDP deflator.
instruments and determines the sustainable »» Consumer Price Index.
debt level for a stressed borrower. 38. Temporary control of inflation can be
effected by  (Year : 1979)
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
(a) Increasing the prices
INFLATION
(b) Increasing the taxes
37. Cause of inflation is  (Year : 1979)
(c) Restraint on the growth of Money
(a) Increase in money supply Supply.
(b) Fall in production (d) Reducing the prices
(c) Increase in money supply and fall in Explanation : Answer - C
production
• In the case of temporary inflation, central
(d) Decrease in money supply and fall in bank generally attempts to reduce the money
production supply in the economy so as to ease the
demand pressure.

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• This helps in arresting price rise in the Explanation : Answer - B
economy. The money supply is reduced
• Causes of 1981-82 Inflation
by raising the cost of and by reducing the
availability of money and credit in the • The sharp rise in oil prices pushed the
economy. already high rates of inflation in several
major advanced countries to new double-
Inflation can be controlled by- digit highs, with countries such as the United
• The surplus budget refers to a budget where States, Canada, West Germany, Italy, the
the estimated total receipts are more than the United Kingdom and Japan tightening their
estimated total expenditure. monetary policies by increasing interest rates.
• In the case of a surplus budget, the government 40. Who among the following is most
takes more money from the economy than it benefitted from inflation ?  (Year : 1989)
injects into it.
(a) Creditors
• It results in a fall in aggregate demand and
price level in the economy and helps to (b) Debtors
combat inflationary situations. (c) Savings bank account holders
• A higher rate of income tax could reduce (d) Government pensioners
spending, demand, and inflationary Explanation : Answer - B
pressures.
• Inflation is a continuous rise in the price
• Another method is to directly or indirectly
level. Inflation means the value of money will
reduce the money supply by enacting policies
fall and purchase relatively fewer goods than
that encourage the reduction of the money
previously.
supply.
• Two examples of this include calling in In summary:
debts that are owed to the government and • Inflation will hurt those who keep cash
increasing the interest paid on bonds so that savings and workers with fixed wages.
more investors will buy them.
• Inflation will benefit those with large debts
• The latter policy raises the exchange rate who, with rising prices, find it easier to pay
of the currency due to higher demand and, back their debts.
in turn, increases imports and decreases
exports. 41. Inflation tends to reduce the share of
labour in the GNP (Gross National
• Both of these policies will reduce the amount
Product) because  (Year : 1991)
of money in circulation because the money
will be going from banks, companies and (a) Wages lag behind prices
investors’ pockets and into the government’s (b) Prices lag behind wages
pocket where it can control what happens to
(c) Profits lag behind prices
it.
(d) Profits lag behind wages
39. The rate of inflation in India in 1981 - 82
went down to the extent of approximately Explanation : Answer - A
 (Year : 1983) • Investors are likely to hear the terms inflation
and gross domestic product (GDP) just about
(a) 5%
every day.
(b) 10%
• They are often made to feel that these metrics
(c) 14% must be studied as a surgeon would study a
(d) 16% patient’s chart before operating.
• Most investors have some concept of what
inflation and GDP mean and how they
interact, but when the best economic minds

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in the world can’t agree on fundamental inflated dollars.
distinctions between how much the U.S. • Low rates of inflation have relatively little
economy should grow, or how much inflation economic impact over the short term. Over
is too much for the financial markets to the medium and the long term, however,
handle, it can be hard to know what to do. even low rates of inflation can complicate
• Individual investors need to find a level of future planning.
understanding that assists their decision- • High rates of inflation can muddle price
making without inundating them with too signals in the short term and prevent market
much unnecessary data. Find out what forces from operating efficiently.
inflation and GDP mean for the market, the
economy, and your portfolio. 43. Which one of the following governmental
steps has proved relatively effective
Important Points in controlling the double digit rate of
• Individual investors need to find a level of inflation in the Indian economy during
understanding of gross domestic product recent years ?  (Year : 1994)
(GDP) and inflation that assists their
decision-making without inundating them (a) Enhanced rate of production of all
with too much unnecessary data. consumer goods
• If the overall economic output is declining, or (b) Streamlined public distribution system
merely holding steady, most companies will (c) Pursuing an export oriented strategy
not be able to increase their profits (which (d) Containing budgetary deficits and
is the primary driver of stock performance); unproductive expenditure
however, too much GDP growth is also Explanation : Answer - D
dangerous.
• Over time, the growth in GDP causes • By containing budgetary deficits and
inflation—inflation, if left unchecked, runs unproductive expenditure government has
the risk of morphing into hyperinflation. proved relatively effective in controlling the
double digit rate of inflation in the Indian
• Most economists today agree that a small
economy during recent years.
amount of inflation, about 1% to 2% a year,
is more beneficial than detrimental to the • The double-digit inflation varies from 10% to
economy. 99% per annum and there is a great difference
between these two limits.
42. A zero rate of Inflation obtains necessarily • Some of the important types of inflation
in a year where the annual rate of inflation based on the rates are as follows:
 (Year : 1993)
1) Creeping Inflation: When the rise in
(a) in every week of the year is zero prices is very slow (less than 3% per
(b) is falling in every week of the year annum). It is called creeping inflation
(c) is both falling and rising in a year because it moves like a snail or creeper.
This type of inflation is regarded as safe
(d) is constant in every week of the year
and essential for economic growth.
Explanation : Answer - C 2) Walking or Trotting Inflation: When
• A zero rate of Inflation obtains necessarily prices rise moderately and the annual
in a year where the annual rate of inflation is inflation rate is a single digit (3% -
both falling and rising in a year. 10%), it is called walking or trotting
• Unexpected inflation tends to hurt those inflation. This is typically a time when
whose money received—in terms of wages the government and RBI take some
and interest payments—does not rise with precautionary measures to control
inflation. Inflation can help those who owe prices.
money that can be paid back in less valuable,

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3) Running or Galloping Inflation: others are published by the Department of
When prices rise rapidly at a rate of Labour.
10% - 99% per annum, it is called
45. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is
running or galloping inflation. Its
sometimes attributed to the “ base effect”.
control requires strong monetary and
What is “base effect”?  (Year : 2011)
fiscal measures, otherwise, it leads to
hyperinflation. (a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in
4) Hyperinflation : When prices rise supply due to failure of crops.
beyond 100% per annum or even (b) It is the impact of the surge in demand
more, it is called hyperinflation. Such due to rapid economic growth.
a situation brings a total collapse of (c) It is the impact of the price levels of
the monetary system because of the previous year on the calculation of
continuous fall in the purchasing inflation rate.
power of money.
(d) None of the statements
44. In India, inflation is measured by the 
Explanation : Answer - C
 (Year : 1997)
• The base effect refers to the impact of the rise
(a) Wholesale Price Index Number in the price level (i.e. last year’s inflation) in
(b) Consumers Price Index for urban non the previous year over the corresponding rise
manual workers in price levels in the current year (i.e., current
(c) Consumers Price Index for agricultural inflation).
workers • If the price index had risen at a high rate in
(d) National Income deflation the corresponding period of the previous
Explanation : Answer - A year leading to a high inflation rate, some
of the potential rise is already factored in,
• The Wholesale Price Index represents the therefore a similar absolute increase in the
price of a basket of wholesale goods. WPI Price index in the current year will lead to
focuses on the price of goods that are traded relatively lower inflation rates.
between corporations. • On the other hand, if the inflation rate was
• It does not concentrate on goods purchased too low in the corresponding period of the
by the consumers. previous year, even a relatively smaller rise in
• The main objective of WPI is monitoring the Price Index will arithmetically give a high
price drifts that reflect demand and supply in rate of current inflation.
manufacturing, construction and industry. Year Price Index Inflation
WPI helps in assessing macroeconomic as
2008 120 20
well as microeconomic conditions of an
economy. 2009 140 16.67
2010 160 14.29
• Inflation rates are based on WPI which is
released by the Office of Economic Advisor • The index has increased by 20 points in all
under the Ministry of Commerce and three years – 2008, 2009, 2010. However, the
Industry. 2011-2012 is the base year for the inflation rate (calculated on a year-on-year
Wholesale Price Index (WPI). basis) tends to decline over the three years
• There are four series, viz the CPI UNME from 20% in 2008 to 14.29% in 2010.
(Urban Non-Manual Employee), CPI AL • This is because the absolute increase of 20
(Agricultural Labourer), CPI RL (Rural points in the price index in each year increases
Labourer), and CPI IW (Industrial Worker). the base year price index by an equivalent
While the CPI UNME series is published amount, while the absolute increase in price
by the Central Statistical Organisation, the index remains the same.

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46. Consider the following statements :  Programme Implementation measures
inflation.
1) Inflation benefits the debtors. »» In India, inflation is primarily measured
2) Inflation benefits the bondholders. by two main indices — WPI (Wholesale
Which of the statements given above is/are Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price
correct? (Year : 2013) Index) which measure wholesale and
(a) 1 only retail- level price changes, respectively.
»» The CPI calculates the difference in
(b) 2 only
the price of commodities and services
(c) Both 1 and 2 such as food, medical care, education,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 electronics etc, which Indian consumers
Explanation : Answer - A buy for use.
47. Which one of the following is likely to be
• Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors
the most inflationary in its effect? 
to debtors i.e. lenders suffer and borrowers
 (Year : 2013)
benefit out of inflation. Bondholders have
lent money (to debtor) and received a bond (a) Repayment of public debt
in return. So he is a lender, he suffers (Debtor (b) Borrowing from the public to finance a
benefits from inflation). Hence statement 1 budget deficit
is correct.
(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a
• Statement 2 has not used specifically the word budget deficit
“inflation-indexed bonds”, hence we cannot
(d) Creating new money to finance a
say Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
budget deficit
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Explanation : Answer - D
Value Addition
• What is Inflation? • The chances of inflation will increase more
»» Inflation refers to the rise in the prices when the government plans to print new
of most goods and services of daily or currency to finance a budget deficit.
common use, such as food, clothing, • When the supply of money increases in the
housing, recreation, transport, consumer market, the customer demand automatically
staples, etc. increases, resulting in the rise of Aggregate
»» Inflation measures the average price Demand.
change in a basket of commodities and Key Points!
services over time. The opposite and rare
• A budget deficit refers to a situation where
fall in the price index of this basket of
total expenditure exceeds the total revenue.
items is called ‘deflation’.
»» Inflation is indicative of the decrease • Deficit financing is a tool that is used to
in the purchasing power of a unit of a generate funds in order to come out with a
country’s currency. This could ultimately budget deficit.
lead to a deceleration in economic • Following are ways to finance a budget:
growth. However, a moderate level of »» Creating new currency
inflation is required in the economy to »» Borrowing from internal sources like
ensure that production is promoted. RBI, issuing bonds, etc.
• Who measures Inflation in India? »» Borrowing from External sources like
»» Inflation is measured by a central WB, IMF, etc.
government authority, which is in »» Borrowing from the public by issuing
charge of adopting measures to ensure bonds at a lower interest rate will not
the smooth running of the economy. create inflation. Similarly, borrowings
In India, the Ministry of Statistics and from banks will not generate inflation.

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48. With reference to inflation in India, which IV) Income Standard of
of the following statements is correct? living
 (Year : 2015)
V) Deficit budgeting Inflation
(a) Controlling the inflation in India is the (a) I and V (b) II and III
responsibility of the Government of (c) III and V (d) None
India only
Explanation : Answer - C
(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role
in controlling the inflation • CPI is a measure of inflation
(c) Decreased money circulation helps in • Export concessions and imposition of taxes
controlling the inflation are made by govt. through fiscal policy Deficit
(d) Increased money circulation helps in Budgeting is also done through fiscal policy.
controlling the inflation • Fiscal policy is a means to use government
Explanation : Answer - C spending and taxation to influence the
economic situation. It is different from the
• Inflation refers to the general increase in the monetary policy that is under the control of
prices of goods and services in an economy the central bank in that country. Together
over a period of time. these two policies can help a country to
• If the money supply increases than the achieve its economic goals. The three main
economy’s ability to produce goods and components of the Fiscal Policy of any
services, then inflation will also increase. country are – government receipts (revenue
During the high inflation period, the and capital), government expenditure
government can reduce the spending to (revenue and capital) and public debt.
decrease the money circulation in the 50. There has been a persistent deficit budget
country. year after year. Which of the following
• Therefore decreased money circulation helps actions can be taken by the government to
in controlling inflation. reduce the deficit?  (Year : 2015)
• Sterilization is the process under which the
RBI absorbs excess liquidity in the economy. 1) Reducing revenue expenditure
2) Introducing new welfare schemes
Value Addition
3) Rationalizing subsidies
• Reserve Bank of India is the authority to
4) Expanding industries
control inflation through monetary policies
which it does by increasing bank rates, repo Select the correct answer using the code
rates, cash reserve ratio, buying dollars, given below.
regulating money supply and availability of (a) 1 and 3 only
credit. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Budget Deficit Explanation : Answer - A
49. Which of the following pairs is/are • Reason For Deficit- A budget deficit occurs
incorrect ?  (Year : 1985) when government spending is more than its
revenues.
I) Consumer Price Inflation
• Reducing revenue expenditure and
Index
Rationalizing subsidies will reduce the
II) Export concessions Fiscal policy deficit. Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct
III) Imposition of taxes Economic
• The increase of taxes is also a way to reduce the
planning
deficit i.e higher taxes increase revenue and

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help to reduce the budget deficit. Introducing THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
new welfare schemes will further enhance the Finance Commission
budget deficit. Hence statement 2 is wrong
52. Finance Commission is appointed after
• Expanding industries will also increase the every  (Year : 1980)
budget deficit as in the short run, it will
not add anything to the tax revenues of (a) 2 years (b) 5 years
the government, and thus will increase the (c) 7 years (d) 10 years
budget deficit. Hence statement 4 is wrong.
Explanation : Answer - B
51. There has been a persistent deficit budget
• Article 280 of the Constitution deals with the
year after year. Which action/actions of the
Finance Commission.
following can be taken by the Government
to reduce the deficit? (Year : 2016) • The finance commission is a constitutional
body appointed by the President of India
1) Reducing revenue expenditure every 5 years. The president lays the report
2) Introducing new welfare schemes of the Finance Commission before both
3) Rationalizing subsidies the houses of the Parliament. The First
Commission was established in 1951.
4) Reducing import duty
• KC Neogy was the Chairman of the first
Select the correct answer using the code
finance commission.
given below.
• The finance commission consists of a
(a) 1 only Chairman and four other members.
(b) 2 and 3 only • Finance commission functions as a Quasi-
(c) 1 and 3 only judicial body.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 • In India, the government’s financial year runs
Explanation : Answer - C from 1st April to 31st March next year.

• Budget deficit is used to define a status 53. Finance Commission is appointed for 
of financial health in which expenditures  (Year : 1982)
exceed revenue. (a) Passing the money bills
• Reducing the revenue expenditure will (b) Approving money bills
certainly help in bridging the gap. Subsidies
(c) Drafting the budget
are a part of expenditure and rationalizing
them would reduce the deficit. (d) Making recommendations to the
President regarding the distribution
• Introducing new welfare schemes will most
between the Union and the States of
likely result in increasing expenditure,
the net proceeds of the taxes
reducing import duty will lead to decrease in
governments revenue. Explanation : Answer - D
Do You Know...? • The Finance Commission is constituted
by the President under article 280 of
UPSC often repeats many questions from
the Constitution, mainly to give its
Mains Examination as well
recommendations on distribution of tax
• How is revenue deficit different from revenues between the Union and the States
budgetary deficit ?  (3 marks/ Year : 1999) and amongst the States themselves.
• Two distinctive features of the Commission’s
work involve redressing the vertical
imbalances between the taxation powers and
expenditure responsibilities of the centre and
the States respectively and equalization of all
public services across the States.

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54. Assertion (A) : Finance Commission aims to Explanation : Answer - C (Self Explanatory)
safeguard the fiscal autonomy of the States.
56. The primary function of the Finance
Reason (R) : Finance Commission is Commission of India is to  (Year : 2000)
constituted every fifth year. (Year : 1989)
(a) Distribute revenue between the Centre
a) Both A and R are true and R is the and the States
correct explanation of A
(b) Prepare the Annual Budget
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correctexplanation of A (c) Advise the President on financial
matters
c) A is true but R is false
(d) Allocate funds to various ministries of
d) A is false but R is true the Union and State Governments
Explanation : Answer - B Explanation : Answer - A
Finance commission: • It is the duty of the Commission to make
• Article 280 of the Constitution of India recommendations to the President as to —
provides for a Finance Commission as a »» the distribution between the Union and
quasi-judicial body. the States of the net proceeds of taxes
which are to be, or may be, divided
• It is constituted by the President of India
between them and the allocation between
every fifth year or at such an earlier time
the States of the respective shares of such
as he considers necessary. The Finance
proceeds;
Commission consists of a chairman and
»» the principles which should govern the
four other members to be appointed by the
grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States
president.
out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
• They hold office for such a period as specified »» the measures needed to augment
by the president in his order. They are eligible the Consolidated Fund of a State
for reappointment. to supplement the resources of the
• The Constitution authorises the Parliament Panchayats in the State on the basis of the
to determine the qualifications of members recommendations made by the Finance
of the commission and the manner in which Commission of the State;
they should be selected. The commission »» the measures needed to augment
submits its report to the president. He lays it the Consolidated Fund of a State
before both the Houses of Parliament along to supplement the resources of the
with an explanatory memorandum as to the Municipalities in the State on the basis
action taken on its recommendations. of the recommendations made by the
55. The main objective of the Eighth Finance Finance Commission of the State;
Commission was  (Year : 1991) »» any other matter referred to the
Commission by the President in the
(a) To suggest new pay scales for Central interests of sound finance.
and State government employees • The Commission determines its procedure
(b) To suggest measures to increase tax and have such powers in the performance
income to the government of their functions as Parliament may by law
(c) To suggest the basis of distribution of confer on them.
Income tax, Excise duties and Levy
duties proceeds between various States
(d) To suggest the basis of providing
financial help/assistance to small scale
industries

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57. Consider the following statements: Explanation : Answer - A
The function (S) of the Finance Powers and Functions of the President of India:
Commission is/are  (Year : 2003)
• The Powers of President of India include -
1) To allow the withdrawal of money out »» Executive powers
of the Consolidated Fund of India. »» Legislative powers
2) To allocate between the States the »» Financial powers
shares of proceeds of taxes. »» Judicial powers
3) To consider applications for grants-in- »» Diplomatic powers
aid from States. »» Military powers
4) To supervise and report on whether »» Emergency powers
the Union and State governments are • In terms of the Financial aspects, the
levying taxes in accordance with the President of India has the following powers
budgetary provisions. and functions:
Which of these statements is/are correct? »» The Money bills require his
recommendation before they can be
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 introduced in Parliament.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 »» The President of India causes to be
Explanation : Answer - B laid before the Parliament the annual
financial statement also called the Union
• Article 280 of the Constitution of India Budget.
provides for a Finance Commission as a »» Also, the President of India shall cause
quasi-judicial body. every recommendation made by the
• It is constituted by the President of India Finance Commission to be laid before
every fifth year or at such earlier time as he each House of Parliament. He has the
considers necessary. power of making advances out of the
• The commission makes recommendations to contingency fund of India to meet any
the president with regard to the distribution unforeseen expenditure.
of the proceeds of taxes between the union Some Important Powers and Functions of:
and the states.
1) The Speaker of Lok Sabha:
• The principle which should govern the »» The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the
grants-in-aid to be given to the states. highest official of the Lower House
• Any other matter referred to the Commission of the Parliament and has the power
by the President in the interest of sound of deciding whether a bill is a Money
finance. Bill or not. He has the responsibility of
58. Who of the following shall cause every maintaining discipline in the house and
recommendation made by the Finance the various motions and resolutions that
Commission to be laid before each House are moved in the house, require his prior
of Parliament?  (Year : 2010) permissions.
2) The Prime Minister of India:
(a) The President of India
»» He gives recommendations to the
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha President for the appointment or
(c) The Prime Minister of India dismissal of ministers as he is the
(d) The Union Finance Minister communicating link between the
President and the council of ministers.
»» The meetings of the council of ministers
are presided over by him and he influences
the decisions. He has the responsibility
of announcing the government policies

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on the floor of the House. the resources of the panchayats and the
3) The Union Finance Minister: municipalities of the state on the basis of
»» He has the responsibility of making the recommendations made by the state
the fiscal policies of the nation and Finance Commission.
presenting the annual Union Budget in Value Addition
the Parliament. • The Chairman of the Commission shall be
59. With reference to the finance commission selected from among persons who have had
of India, which of the following statements experience in public affairs, and the four
is correct?  (Year : 2011) other members shall be selected from among
persons who are, or have been, or are qualified
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign to be appointed as Judges of a High Court;
capital for infrastructure development. or have special knowledge of the finances
(b) It facilities the proper distribution of and accounts of Government, or have had
finances among the public section wide experience in financial matters and in
undertakings. administration, or have special knowledge of
(c) It ensures transparency in financial economics.
administration. 60. Which of the following is/are among
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) the noticeable features of the
given above is correct in his context. recommendations of the Thirteenth
Explanation : Answer - C Finance Commission?  (Year : 2012)
1) A design for the Goods and Services
Finance Commission:
package linked to adherence to the
• Finance Commission is a constitutional body. proposed design.
• Finance Commission was constituted to 2) A design for the creation of lakhs of
recommend the distribution of the net jobs in the next ten years in consonance
proceeds of taxes between the Centre and with India’s demographic dividend
states, and among the states. 3) Devolution of a specific share of central
• It was established under Article 280 of the taxes to local bodies as grants Select the
Indian Constitution. correct answer using the codes given
• The Commission was constituted for every below:
five years by the President. The Commission a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
consists of five members including the c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
chairperson.
Explanation : Answer - C
• As of March 2021, Nand Kishore Singh was
the current chairperson of the 15th Finance • Recommendations of Thirteenth Financial
Commission. Commission-
• Functions of the Finance Commission of »» It recommended that both Center and
India : the states should conclude a ‘Grand
»» The net tax proceeds distribution to Bargain’ to implement model GST.
be divided between the Centre and the »» To incentivize implementation of
states, and the allocation of the same the Grand Bargain, this Commission
between states. (not among the Public recommends sanction of a grant of Rs.
Sector Undertaking). 50,000 crore.
»» The principles governing the grants-in- »» A design for the Goods and Services
aid to the states by the Centre out of the Tax, and a compensation package linked
consolidated fund of India. to adherence to the proposed design.
»» The steps required to extend the Hence statement 1 is correct.
consolidated fund of a state to boost

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»» Devolution of a specified share of central »» (i) 1971 population: 17.5%, 2011
taxes to local bodies as grants. Hence population: 10%,
statement 3 is correct. »» (ii) area: 2% for smaller states, 15% for
»» Fiscal Responsibility and Budget general weight,
Management Act, 2003 need to be »» (iii) forest cover: 7.5%, and
amended to mention the nature of shocks »» (iv) income distance (distance of state’s
which shall require targets relaxation. income from the state having the highest
»» Fiscal deficit to be reduced to 3% of the income): 50%.
gross domestic product (GDP) by 2014– • Fiscal deficit : Fiscal deficit of states should
2015. be aimed at 3% of the Gross State Domestic
»» No such mentions for a design for the Product (GSDP) during the period 2015 to
creation of lakhs of jobs in the next 2020. States will be eligible for a flexibility of
ten years in consonance with India’s 0.25% over this limit. They will be eligible for
demographic dividend. Hence statement this flexibility if their debt-GSDP ratio is less
2 is not correct. than or equal to 25% in the previous year.
61. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance • States will also have an option for an
Commission, which of the following additional borrowing of 0.25% of their
statements is/are correct?  (Year : 2015) GSDP, if their interest payments are less than
or equal to 10% of their revenue receipts in
1) It has increased the share of States the previous year.
in the central divisible pool from 32
• Compensation to states for GST: An
percent to 42 percent.
autonomous and independent Goods and
2) It has made recommendations Services Tax (GST) Compensation Fund is to
concerning sector-specific grants. be set up in order to facilitate compensation
Select the correct answer using the code to states. Revenue compensation to states
given below. for the GST should be for five years. 100%
(a) 1 only compensation should be paid to states in the
first three years, 75% compensation for the
(b) 2 only
fourth year, and 50% compensation should
(c) Both 1 and 2 be paid in the fifth year.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 • Grants to local governments: The total
Explanation : Answer - A grant to local governments for 2015-20 has
been fixed at Rs 2,87,436 crore, of which Rs
• Recommendations of the 14th Commission
2,00,292 crore is recommended to panchayats
include:
and Rs 87,144 crore to municipalities.
• Devolution of taxes to states : Tax
• Grants to local governments should be in two
devolution should be the primary source of
parts-a basic grant and a performance grant.
transfer of funds to states. The share of taxes
For gram panchayats, 90% of the share will
of the centre to states is recommended to be
be basic grants, and 10% will be performance
increased from 32% to 42%.
grants. For municipalities, basic grants and
• Additional budgetary needs of the states will performance grants will constitute 80% and
be filled by grants-in-aid to the states. The 20% of the total grants, respectively.
total revenue deficit grant to states in the
• Performance grants are proposed to be
2015-20 period is recommended to be Rs
introduced with a view to: encourage the
1,94,821 crore.
maintenance of the states’ receipts and
• Weights of indicators for share in taxes: expenditure accounts, and bring about an
The weights of various indicators in the increase in the state’s own revenues.
calculation of states’ share of taxes have
been fixed at the following:

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• Amendments to FRBM (Fiscal achieve the goals specified in the Act. The
Responsibility and Budget Management) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with
Act: The FRBM Act, 2003 should be amended, the responsibility of conducting monetary
to remove the definition of effective revenue policy. This responsibility is explicitly
(difference between revenue deficit and mandated under the Reserve Bank of India
grants for creation of capital assets). Act, 1934.
• An independent fiscal council should • Instruments of Monetary Policy :
be created to evaluate the fiscal policy • Repo Rate : The (fixed) interest rate at
implications of budget proposals, before the which the Reserve Bank provides overnight
budget is announced. States are advised to liquidity to banks against the collateral of
amend their FRBM Acts in a similar manner. government and other approved securities
• Alternatively, the FRBM Act may be replaced under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
with a Debt Ceiling and Fiscal Responsibility • Reverse Repo Rate : The (fixed) interest rate
Legislation, in order to bring greater at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity,
legitimacy to fiscal management. There was on an overnight basis, from banks against the
no recommendation concerning sector- collateral of eligible government securities
specific grants. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT under the LAF.
correct. • Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) :
Do You Know...? »» The LAF consists of overnight as well as
UPSC often repeats many questions from term repo auctions.
»» The aim of the term repo is to help
Mains Examination as well
develop the inter-bank term money
• Discuss the recommendations of the market, which in turn can set market-
Thirteenth Finance Commission which based benchmarks for pricing of loans
have been departure from the previous and deposits, and hence improve the
commissions for strengthening the local transmission of monetary policy.
government finances.  »» The Reserve Bank also conducts variable
 (10 marks / 200 words.2013) interest rate reverse repo auctions,
• What is a Finance Commission? Discuss as necessitated under the market
the main functions of a State Finance conditions.
Commission.  (150 words / 15 marks/2014) • Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) :
• Write short note on Finance Commission. »» A facility under which scheduled
 (150 words / 20 marks./1980) commercial banks can borrow an
additional amount of overnight money
from the Reserve Bank by dipping into
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
Bank Rate portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of
62. Variable instruments of Market Operations interest.
are  (Year : 1993) »» This provides a safety valve against
unanticipated liquidity shocks to the
(a) Fiscal Policy
banking system. Bank Rate :
(b) Monetary Policy »» It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank
(c) Budgetary Policy is ready to buy or rediscount bills of
(d) Trade Policy exchange or other commercial papers.
»» This rate has been aligned to the MSF rate
Explanation : Answer - B
and, therefore, changes automatically
• Monetary policy refers to the policy of as and when the MSF rate changes
the central bank with regard to the use of alongside policy repo rate changes.
monetary instruments under its control to

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• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): • Description: Bank rates influence lending
»» The average daily balance that a bank is rates of commercial banks. Higher bank rate
required to maintain with the Reserve will translate to higher lending rates by the
Bank as a share of such percentage of its banks. In order to curb liquidity, the central
Net demand and time liabilities (NDTL). bank can resort to raising the bank rate and
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) : vice versa.
»» The share of NDTL that a bank is • NOTE : Option A is opposite and hence
required to maintain in safe and liquid without a second thought it should be
assets, such as - government securities, eliminated as one might be tempted to select
cash, and gold. Changes in SLR often that option. So by concept the closest one is
influence the availability of resources in D even if we know the definition.
the banking system for lending to the 64. The lowering of bank rate by the reserve
private sector. bank of India leads to?  (Year : 2011)
• Open Market Operations (OMOs):
»» These include both, outright purchase (a) More liquidity in the market.
and sale of government securities, for (b) Less liquidity in the market.
injection and absorption of durable (c) No change in the liquidity in the
liquidity, respectively. market.
• Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) : (d) Mobilization of more deposits by
»» This instrument for monetary commercial banks
management was introduced in 2004.
Explanation : Answer - A
»» Surplus liquidity of a more enduring
nature arising from large capital inflows is Bank Rate
absorbed through the sale of short-dated
government securities and treasury bills. • It is the interest rate at which a nation’s central
»» The cash so mobilized is held in a bank lends money to domestic banks, often
separate government account with the in the form of very short-term loans. When
Reserve Bank. a bank suffers fund deficiency, it can borrow
money from RBI to continue services.
63. Bank Rate implies the rate of interest 
 (Year : 1995) • When Bank Rate is increased by the central
bank, a commercial bank’s borrowing costs
(a) Paid by the Reserve Bank of India on hikes, which reduce the supply of money
the Deposits of Commercial Banks in the market. Any reduction in the bank
(b) Charged by Banks on loans and rate and the repo rate will lead to borrowers
advances getting loans at lower interest rates.
(c) payable on Bonds • The lowering of the Bank Rate makes the
(d) At which the Reserve Bank of India domestic banks borrow money at a cheap
discounts the Bills of Exchange rate which in turn increased the liquidity in
the market.
Explanation : Answer - D
65. An increase in the Bank Rate generally
• Under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India indicates that the  (Year : 2013)
Act, 1934, the Bank Rate has been defined as
“the standard rate at which the Reserve Bank (a) market rate of interest is likely to fall
is prepared to buy or re-discount bills of (b) Central Bank is no longer making loans
exchange or other commercial paper eligible to commercial banks
for purchase under the Act.” (c) Central Bank is following an easy
• Bank rate is the rate charged by the central money policy
bank for lending funds to commercial banks. (d) Central Bank is following a tight money
policy

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Explanation : Answer - D • As banks get long-term funds at lower rates,
their cost of funds falls. In turn, they reduce
• Bank rate refers to rate at which the Central
interest rates for borrowers.
bank lends money to its clients for long
term. An increase in this rate means that the • LTRO helps RBI to ensure that banks
Central bank is following a tight monetary reduce their marginal cost of funds-based
policy as increase in rates will lead to decrease lending rates, without reducing policy rates.
in money supply thereby leading to decrease ‘Operation Twist’
in inflation and reduction in investment. • ‘Operation Twist is when the central bank
uses the proceeds from the sale of short-term
Bank Rate : securities to buy long-term government debt
• It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is papers, leading to the easing of interest rates
ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange on the long-term papers.
or other commercial papers. • Operation Twist first appeared in 1961 as
66. In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open a way to strengthen the U.S. dollar and
Market Operations’ refers to (Year : 2013) stimulate cash flow into the economy. In
June 2012, Operation Twist was so effective
(a) Borrowing by scheduled banks from that the yield on the 10-year U.S. Treasury
the RBI dropped to a 200-year low.
(b) Lending by commercial banks to 67. With reference to Indian economy,
industry and trade consider the following :  (Year : 2015)
(c) Purchase and sale of government
securities by the RBI 1) Bank rate
(d) None of the above 2) Open market operations
3) Public debt
Explanation : Answer - C
4) Public revenue
• Open Market Operations (OMOs) are
Which of the above is/are component/
market operations conducted by RBI by way
components of Monetary Policy?
of sale/purchase of government securities to/
from the market with an objective to adjust (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
the rupee liquidity conditions in the market (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
on a durable basis. Explanation : Answer - C
• If there is excess liquidity, RBI resorts to the
sale of securities and sucks out the rupee • The monetary policy tool is implemented by
liquidity. the RBI through open market operations,
bank rate, CRR, SLR, the repo rate, reverse
• It is one of the quantitative (to regulate or
repo rate. The bank rate is the rate of interest
control the total volume of money) monetary
at which RBI charges while lending loans to a
policy tools that are employed by the central
commercial bank.
bank of a country to control the money
supply in the economy. • The Open market operations are conducted
by the RBI by the way of sale and purchase
• Hence the correct option is3.
of Government Securities (G-Secs) to adjust
Value Addition liquidity in the market.
Long-term Repo Operations (LTRO) Value Addition
• Under LTRO, RBI will conduct a term repo of • Public debt is the total amount that is
one-year and three-year tenors of appropriate borrowed by the government to meet its
sizes for up to a total amount of Rs 1 lakh development budget.
crore at the prevailing repo rate. • It includes the total liabilities of the Union
government that have to be paid from the
Consolidated Fund of India.

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• The income of the government through taxes, housing that account for nearly a third of the
fees, sale of public goods and services, fines, CPI.
donations, etc are known as public revenue.
69. With reference to India, consider the
Do You Know...? following statements:  (Year : 2010)
UPSC often repeats many questions from 1) The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in
Mains Examination as well India is available on a monthly basis
• A) What is BANK RATE? What is BANK only.
RATE in India at present?  (2 marks/1983) 2) As compared to Consumer Price Index
• Comment on the view that Monetary Policy for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the
in India is used more as a stabilisation device WPI gives less weight to food articles.
than a development tool.  (20 marks/1998) Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC (a) 1 only

Consumer Price Index (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
68. Assume that the consumer price index is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
at (1970=100) and at present it’s 500. This
means that:  (Year : 1988) Explanation : Answer - C
(a) Prices of all goods and commodities • A wholesale price index (WPI) is an index
have increased five times. that measures and tracks the changes in the
(b) Prices of all consumer goods have price of goods in the stages before the retail
increased five times. level. The wholesale Price Index measures
the changes in the prices of goods sold and
(c) Prices of all items in a specified list
traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to
have increased by 400%.
other businesses. Wholesale price indexes
(d) Prices have increased and the weighted (WPIs) are reported monthly in order to
mean price increase for specified items show the average price changes of goods.
is 400%. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Explanation : Answer - C • Wholesale price indexes (WPIs) are one
• The Consumer Price Index measures the indicator of a country’s level of inflation.
overall change in consumer prices based on • Consumer Price Index (CPI) tracks the
a representative basket of goods and services prices of goods and services purchased by
over time. consumers.
• The CPI is the most widely used measure of • The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure
inflation, closely followed by policymakers, that examines the weighted average of prices
financial markets, businesses, and consumers. of a basket of consumer goods and services,
• The widely quoted CPI is based on an index such as transportation, food, and medical
covering 93% of the U.S. population, while care. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
a related index covering wage earners and • It is calculated by taking price changes for
clerical workers is used for cost-of-living each item in the predetermined basket of
adjustments to federal benefits. goods and averaging them. Changes in
• The CPI is based on about 94,000 price quotes the CPI are used to assess price changes
collected monthly from some 23,000 retail associated with the cost of living.
and service establishments as well as 43,000 • The CPI is one of the most frequently used
rental housing units. statistics for identifying periods of inflation
• Housing rents are used to estimate the change or deflation. CPI in India comprises multiple
in shelter costs including owner-occupied series classified based on different economic
groups.
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• There are four series, viz the CPI UNME derived.
(Urban Non-Manual Employee), CPI AL • The Labour Bureau : Labour Bureau also
(Agricultural Labourer), CPI RL (Rural compiles and releases indices to meet the
Labourer) and CPI IW (Industrial Worker). specific requirements of the Index users of
While the CPI UNME series is published the respective states.
by the Central Statistical Organisation, the • The publication also contains various other
others are published by the Department of related information viz., Inflation rate,
Labour. Linking Factors, Centre-wise Group/Sub-
• From February 2011 the CPI (UNME) Group weights andAll-India item wise weight
released by CSO is replaced as CPI (urban), for Old series and New series.
CPI (rural) and CPI (combined). • Headquarters: Chandigarh and Shimla.
Value Addition • It is responsible for the collection, compilation
• WPI has a sub-index called WPI Food Index, and publication of labour statistics and
which is a combination of the Food Articles other information relating to labour such
from the Primary Articles basket, and the as employment and unemployment, wages,
food products from the Manufactured earnings, industrial relations, working
Products basket. conditions etc.
• Even as the WPI is used as a key measure • Conducting research studies and surveys
of inflation in some economies, the RBI no on labour-related matters in organized/
longer uses it for policy purposes, including unorganized sectors covering SC/ ST
setting repo rates. Workers, Women Labour, Contract
Workers and occupational wage surveys in
70. Which of the following brings out the
manufacturing industries, mines, plantations
Consumer Price Index Number for
and service sectors.
Industrial Workers?  (Year : 2015)
Do You Know...?
(a) The Reserve Bank of India
UPSC often repeats many questions from
(b) The Department of Economic Affairs
Mains Examination as well
(c) The Labour Bureau
• Why the Central Statistics Office has notified
(d) The Department of Personnel and
a new series of Consumer Price Index from
Training
this year?  (5 marks/2011).
Explanation : Answer - C
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
• Consumer Price Index Numbers for Growth rate and GDP
Industrial Workers is designed to measure a
change over time in prices of a given basket 71. Growth rate of GDP in last decade was
of goods and services consumed by a defined approximately (Year : 1991)
population (i.e. Industrial Workers). (a) 3%
• This Index is compiled for Industrial (b) 4%
Workers residing in 70 centres of industrial
(c) 5%
importance in the country.
(d) 6%
• The indices are compiled and released
every month based on the weights derived Explanation : Answer - C
from the working Class Family Income and • What was the India’s economic growth
Expenditure Survey and the current prices of during the 1980 and 1990?
the selected items collected from 226 markets
• It is the average annual growth of 7.6 percent
spread over 70 centres.
achieved during the three-year period of
• Based on these centre indices the All-India 1988-91 that largely accounts for the 5.6
index, which is in fact a weighted average, is percent growth during 1981-91. As a major

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outcome of the fragility of growth, the enterprises (CPSEs) for the last three years,
economy crash-landed in 1991- 92 hitting 2010-11, 2011-12 and 2012-13 was Rs
the low growth rate of 0.5 percent. 14,98,018 crore, Rs 18,22,049 crore and Rs
Value Addition 19,45,777 crore respectively.
• The contribution of gross value addition of
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the
CPSEs in the gross domestic product (GDP)
monetary value of all the final goods and
is 6.18%, 6.14%, and 5.85% respectively.
services produced within a country’s borders
in a specific time period, generally 1 year. It • A percentage-wise increase in GDP at current
is a broad measurement of a nation’s overall market prices also witnessed a downward
economic activity. trajectory. It was reported at 12.25% in 2012-
13, down from 15.74% in 2011-12 and 20.17%
• Real Gross Domestic Product is an inflation-
in 2010-11. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
adjusted measure that reflects the value of all
goods and services produced by an economy 73. In the context of Indian economy, consider
in a given year, expressed in base-year prices. the following statements?  (Year : 2011)
• The rate of growth of real GDP has not 1) The growth rate of GDP has steadily
steadily increased in the last decade. It has increased in the last five years.
fluctuated due to various international and
domestic economic pressures. 2) The growth rate in per capita income
has steadily increased in the last five
72. With reference to the Indian economy, years.
consider the following statements:  Which of the statements given above is/are
 (Year : 2010) correct?
1) The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (a) 1 only
has increased by four times in the last (b) 2 only
10 years.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2) The percentage share of Public Sector
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
in GDP has declined in the last 10
years. Explanation : Answer - D
Which of the statements given above is/are • Gross domestic product (GDP) is the
correct? standard measure of the value-added created
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only through the production of goods and services
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor in a country during a certain period.
• It is the sum of gross value added by all
Explanation : Answer - B resident producers in the economy plus any
• The economic scenario in India has been product taxes and minus any subsidies not
pretty stable over the last 5 years. included in the value of the products.
• Despite the economic downturn two years • The growth rate of GDP- (Present times,
back the Indian economy has managed to relevant for upcoming exams) 2016- 8.26%
remain stable. »» 2017- 7.04%
• The India GDP recorded for the period »» 2018- 6.12%
December 2010 stood at 8.20%. Hence, »» 2019-4.18%
statement 1 is Not correct. »» 2020- -10.29%
• However, according to the Centre for • As we can see, it has not been increasing for
Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE) India five years. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
will record a GDP of 9.2% in the year 2011. • GDP per capita is the gross domestic
India’s GDP growth 2010 - 2011 has not been product divided by the midyear population
phenomenal but is certainly encouraging. of the country. The growth rate in per capita
• The turnover of central public sector income-

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»» 2016- 7.4% THEMATIC REPETITIVE
»» 2017- 9.7% Lead Bank
»» 2018- 8.6%
»» 2019- 10.0% 75. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
»» 2020- 4%  (Year : 2012)
• As we can see, it has not been increasing for 1. big banks should try to open offices in
five years. Hence, statement 2 is not correc. each district
74. With reference to Indian economy, 2. there should be stiff competition
consider the following statements: among the various nationalizes banks
 (Year : 2015) 3. individual banks should adopt
particular districts for intensive
1) The rate of growth of Real Gross
development
Domestic Product has steadily
increased in the last decade. 4. all the banks should make intensive
efforts to mobilize deposits
2) The Gross Domestic Product at market
prices (in rupees) has steadily increased Explanation : Answer - C
in the last decade. • Lead Bank Scheme-
Which of the statements given above is/are »» The Lead Bank Scheme, introduced
correct? towards the end of 1969, envisages the
(a) 1 only assignment of lead roles to individual
(b) 2 only banks (both in the public sector and
private sector) for the districts allotted to
(c) Both 1 and 2
them.
(d) Neither I nor 2 »» A bank has a relatively large network
Explanation : Answer - B of branches in the rural areas of a given
district and endowed with adequate
• The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic
financial and manpower resources has
Product had declined due to the recession
generally been entrusted with the lead
in 2008 and other reasons for the next few
responsibility for that district.
years from 8-9% to 5-6%. Hence statement
1 is incorrect. • Objectives of the Lead Bank Scheme:
»» Eradication of unemployment and
• A surge in capital inflows, an inflationary
underemployment.
explosion in global commodity prices, the
»» The appreciable rise in the standard of
global financial meltdown, and the collapse of
living for the poorest of the poor.
international trade are the major challenges
»» Provision of some of the basic needs of
of India for the decline of the rate of growth
the people who belong to poor sections
of Real Gross Domestic Product.
of the society.
Value Addition
76. The Service Area Approach implemented
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the final under the purview of  (Year : 2019)
monetary value of all final goods and services
produced in a country in a year. Real gross (a) Integrated Rural Development led
domestic product is the inflation-adjusted Programme
value of the goods and services in a country. (b) Lead Bank Scheme
• GDP at market prices has always increased C) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
year on year since last decade. Though the Employment Guarantee Scheme
growth rate declined, it has never become (d) National Skill Development Mission
negative. Hence statement 2 is correct.

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Explanation : Answer - B of stimulus and response, with the
intention of using government policy as
• Service area approach (SAA) is a developed
a stimulus to elicit a response from the
version of the ‘area approach’ structure of the
private sector economy.
Lead Bank Scheme.
»» An economic stimulus is commonly
• Under SAA plan each commercial bank / employed during times of recession.
RRB branch in a rural and semi-urban area »» Policy tools often used to implement
is designated to serve 15 to 25 villages for economic stimulus include lowering
the planned and orderly development of the interest rates, increasing government
areas. spending, and quantitative easing.
• Under the Lead bank Scheme, the service
Important Points
area approach was introduced in 1989 for the
planned and orderly development of rural »» Fiscal stimulus differs from expansionary
and semi-urban areas. monetary and fiscal policy more
generally, in that it is a more specifically
targeted and conservative approach to
THEMATIC REPETITIVE policy.
Fiscal Stimulus »» Instead of using monetary and fiscal
policy to replace private sector spending,
77. Which one of the following statements
economic stimulus is supposed to direct
appropriately describes the fiscal stimulus
government deficit spending, tax cuts,
 (Year : 2011)
lowered interest rates, or new credit
(a) It is a massive investment by the creation toward specific key sectors of the
Government in manufacturing sector economy to take advantage of powerful
to ensure the supply of goods to meet multiplier effects that will indirectly
the demand surge caused by rapid increase private sector consumption and
economic growth investment spending.
(b) It is an intense affirmative action of »» This increased private sector spending
the Government to boost economic will then boost the economy out of
activity in the country recession, at least according to the theory.
»» The goal of economic stimulus is to
(c) It is Govemment’s intensive action
achieve this stimulus-response effect so
on financial institutions to ensure
that the private sector economy can do
disbursement of loans to agriculture
most of the work to fight the recession
and allied sectors to promote greater
and to avoid the various risks that might
food production and contain food
come with massive government deficits
inflation
or extreme monetary policy.
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by »» Such risks might include hyperinflation,
the Government to pursue its policy of government defaults, or the (presumably
financial inclusion unintentional) nationalization of
Explanation : Answer - B industry.
• Fiscal stimulus : 78. With reference to Indian economy,
»» It is action by the government to demand-pull inflation can be caused/
encourage private sector economic increased by which of the following? 
activity by engaging in targeted,  (Year : 2021)
expansionary monetary or fiscal 1. Expansionary policies
policy based on the ideas of Keynesian
2. Fiscal stimulus
economics.
»» The term economic stimulus is based 3. Inflation-indexing wages
on an analogy to the biological process 4. Higher purchasing power

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5. Rising interest rates money supply in the economy. This may

result in a credit crunch in the economy. It
Select the correct answer using the code
is costlier to borrow money in the economy
given below.
and it leads to a decreased money supply. So,
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only it can not cause demand-pull inflation in the
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only economy Hence 5 is not correct.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only • Inflation-indexing wages - Inflation indexing
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 wages, wages in the economy is linked
to inflation which means wage moves as
Explanation : Answer - A inflation changes in the economy. Such
Key Points! indexing is provided to reduce the effect of
inflation on wages.
• Inflation is the rate of increase in prices over
a given period of time. • For example - a worker is getting 100 rs as a
wage and inflation in the economy increases
• Inflation is typically a broad measure, such as to 5%, so the wage of the worker increases by
the overall increase in prices or the increase 5% i.e. 105. So effective change in the wages
in the cost of living in a country. is zero and it does not increase/ decrease
• Inflation measures how much more expensive purchasing power. So, it can not lead to a
a set of goods and services has become over a demand to pull inflation in the economy.
certain period, usually a year. Hence 3 is not correct.
• There are mainly two types of inflation:-
1) Demand-pull inflation - This occurs
due to an increase in aggregate demand
in the economy.
2) Cost-push inflation - This occurs
when there is a rise in the price of raw
materials, higher taxes, e.t.c
• Demand-pull inflation is mainly caused
due to :-
»» Depreciation of rupee.
»» Low unemployment rate.
»» Increased borrowing.
• Due to fiscal stimulus - It includes increased
government consumption or lowering of
taxes. Hence 2 is correct.
• When the government spends more freely,
prices go up. Expansionary policies lead to
more economic activity via low-interest rates,
more money with the public etc. Hence 1 is
correct.
• Asset inflation or Increase in Forex reserves–
A sudden rise in exports forces a depreciation
of the currencies involved.
• Higher purchasing Power - When consumers
feel confident, they spend more and take on Prasanth M. cleared CSE &
more debt. This leads to a steady increase in IFoS Prelims 2023
demand, which means higher prices. Hence
4 is correct.
• The rising interest rate - It decreases the

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II INDIAN POLITY

INDIAN POLITY (1979-2023)

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles

42nd and 44th Amendment of State Policy in Part IV.
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed
1. In India, which one of the following Con-
in Part III.
stitutional Amendments was widely be-
lieved to be enacted to overcome the ju- (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the
dicial interpretations of the Fundamental 44th Amendment to the Constitution.
Rights?  (Year-2023) Explanation : C
(a) 1st Amendment »» Right to Privacy is protected as an in-
(b) 42nd Amendment trinsic part of Right to Life and Personal
Liberty under Article Article 21 and the
(c) 44th Amendment
freedoms guaranteed in Part III of the
(d) 86th Amendment Indian Constitution.
Explanation : A »» Right to Privacy has been declared as
a Fundamental Right by the Supreme
»» During the initial months of the working
Court in the case of Justice K.S. Puttas-
of the Constitution, certain difficulties
wamy (Retd) vs Union of India.
were brought to light by judicial deci-
»» The Judgement overruled the verdicts
sions and pronouncements especially
given in M.P. Sharma case in 1958 and
in regard to the chapter on fundamental
the Kharak Singh case in 1961, both of
rights.
which said that the right to privacy is not
»» The Citizen’s right to freedom of speech
protected under the Indian constitution.
and expression guaranteed by article
19(1)(a) had been held by some Courts 3. Which principle among the following was
to be so comprehensive as not to render added to the Directive Principles of State
a person culpable even if he advocates Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the
murder and other crimes of violence. Constitution?(Year-2017)
»» As a result of this, the Constitution (First
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men
Amendment) Act, 1951 was passed.
and women
»» Its object was to amend Article 19 for the
purposes indicated above and to insert (b) Participation of workers in the
provisions fully securing the constitu- management of industries
tional validiity of zamindari abolition (c) Right to work, education and public
laws in general and certain specified assistance
State Acts in particular. (d) Securing living wage and human
»» Therefore, option (a) is the correct conditions of work to workers
answer
Explanation : B
2. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic
part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four
Which of the following in the Constitution new Directive Principles to the original list.
of India correctly and appropriately imply They require the State:
the above statement? (Year-2018) »» To secure opportunities for healthy
development of children (Article 39)
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the
»» To promote equal justice and to provide
42nd Amendment to the Constitution.
free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A)

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»» To take steps to secure the participation statement 1 is not correct.
of workers in the management of »» If it is admitted, then the Speaker/Chair-
industries (Article 43 A) man is to constitute a three-member
»» To protect and improve the environment committee to investigate into the charges.
and to safeguard forests and wild life »» The committee should consist of
(Article 48 A) (a) the chief justice or a judge of the
4. Consider the following statements: Supreme Court,
(b) a chief justice of a high court, and (c)
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of a distinguished jurist.
the Supreme Court of India cannot »» If the committee finds the judge to be
be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok guilty of misbehaviour or suffering from
Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act an incapacity, the House can take up the
1968. consideration of the motion.
2. The Constitution of India defines »» After the motion is passed by each House
and gives details or what constitutes of Parliament by special majority, an ad-
‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ dress is presented to the president for re-
of the Judges of the Supreme Court of moval of the judge. Hence, Statement 4
India. is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect and
3. The details of the process of 4 is correct by elimination we can see
impeachment of the Judges of the that only option C is correct.
Supreme Court of India are given in 4 »» Finally, the president passes an order re-
the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. moving the judge.
4. If the motion for the impeachment »» Statement 2 is not correct: The constitu-
of a Judge is taken up for voting, the tion nowhere defines the term “incapaci-
law requires the motion to be backed ty and proved misbehaviour”.
by each House of the Parliament
and supported by a majority of total THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
membership of that House and by not Law Commission, Human Right Commission,
less than two-thirds of total members Finance Commission, Planning Commission.
of that House present and voting.
5. Consider the following organizations/
Which of the statements given above is/are Bodies in India :  (Year-2023)
correct?(Year-2019)
1. The National Commission for
(a) 1 and 2 Backward Classes
(b) 3 only 2. The National Human Rights
(c) 3 and 4 only Commission
(d) 1, 3 and 4 3. The National Law Commission
Explanation : C 4. The National Consumer Disputes
»» The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates Redressal Commission
the procedure relating to the removal of How many of the above are Constitutional
a judge of the Supreme Court by the pro- bodies?
cess of impeachment. Hence, statement (a) Only one
3 is correct. (b) Only two
»» A removal motion signed by 100 mem-
bers (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 (c) Only three
members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) is (d) All four
to be given to the Speaker/Chairman.
»» The Speaker/Chairman may admit the
motion or refuse to admit it. Hence

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Explanation : A 6. The power to increase the number of judg-
»» National Commission for Backward es in the Supreme Court of India is vested
Classes (NCBC) - was initially constitut- in  (Year-2014)
ed by the Central Govt by the National (a) the President of India
Commission for Backward Classes Act,
(b) the Parliament
1993.
»» The present Commission (8th) has been (c) the Chief Justice of India
accorded Constitutional Status and con- (d) the Law Commission
stituted through “The Constitution (One Explanation : B
Hundred and Second Amendment) Act,
2018” Act, whereby Article 338B has • Parliament of India has the power to make
been inserted, forming a Commission laws, organizing jurisdiction, and modify the
for the socially and educationally back- power of the Supreme Court.
ward classes to be known as National • The number of judges in the Supreme
Commission for Backward Classes. So, court can be increased or decreased by the
point 1 is correct. parliament by the legislature.
»» The National Human Rights Commis- • Hence, option 2 is correct.
sion (NHRC) of India was established • Articles 124 to 147 - Deal with the
on 12 October, 1993. The statute under organization, independence, jurisdiction,
which it is established is the Protection powers, procedures, and so on of the Supreme
of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as Court.
amended by the Protection of Human
»» At present, the Supreme Court consists
Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. So,
of 34 judges (one chief justice and thirty-
point 2 is not correct.
three other judges).
»» National Law Commission - Law Com-
»» The judges of the Supreme Court are
mission of India is a non-statutory body
appointed by the President.
and is constituted by a notification of the
»» The President of India is the head of the
Government of India, Ministry of Law &
Indian State.
Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with
»» He is a part of the Union Executive
a definite terms of reference to carry out
(Article 52-78) along with Vice-
research in the field of law and the Com-
President, Prime Minister, Council of
mission makes recommendations to the
Ministers, and Attorney-General of
Government (in the form of Reports) as
India.
per its terms of reference. So, point 3 is
»» Article 52 - 63 of the Indian constitution,
not correct.
Under these articles, information on
»» National Consumer Disputes Redressal
how a President is elected, his powers
Commission (NCDRC) : The National
and functions, and also his impeachment
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commis-
process is given.
sion (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial
»» The Chief Justice of India is appointed by
commission in India which was set up
the president of India after consultation
in 1988 under the Consumer Protection
with the judges of the Supreme Court
Act of 1986. Its head office is in New Del-
and high courts.
hi. So, point 4 is not correct.
»» Justice Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud has
»» Therefore, option (a) is the correct an-
been appointed as the 50th Chief Justice
swer.
of India (CJI).
»» The Law Commission of India is a non-
statutory, executive body constituted by
the government.
»» Its major function is to work for legal
reforms.

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»» The Commission is established for a Full-time organisation:
fixed tenure of three years and works as »» Vice-chairperson (By Prime minister)
an advisory body to the Ministry of Law »» members (status of Minister of state)
and Justice. »» Part-time members (Maximum two
7. The Government of India has established members from universities, research or-
NITI Aayog to replace the (Year-2015) ganisation etc)
»» Ex-Officio members (maximum 4 mem-
(a) Human Rights Commission bers nominated by Prime minister)
(b) Finance Commission »» Chief executive officer (by Prime minis-
(c) Law Commission ter and having the rank of Secretary)
(d) Planning Commission Secretariat
Explanation : D »» It is working on the principle of coopera-
tive federalism and developing strategies
»» The correct answer is the Planning with the active involvement of states.
Commission. »» It was established with the aim to achieve
»» NITI Aayog (National Institution for sustainable development goals.
Transforming India) has replaced the »» It fosters the involvement of State Gov-
Planning Commission. ernments in the economic policy-mak-
»» The Planning Commission was estab- ing process using a bottom-up approach.
lished in 1950. »» It envisages the vision of Maximum Gov-
Key Points ernance, Minimum Government, echo-
ing the spirit of ‘Cooperative Federalism’.
NITI Aayog -
»» It aims to create knowledge, innovation
»» It was established on 1 January 2015, as and entrepreneurial support systems
the successor to the Planning Commis- through a collaborative community of
sion. national and international experts, prac-
»» It was created by an executive resolution titioners and other partners.
of the Government of India.
»» It is neither a constitutional body nor a 8. Which of the following are associated with
statutory body. ‘Planning’ in India?  (Year-2014)
»» It is a Think Tank of the Government 1. The Finance Commission
of India providing both directional and
2. The National Development Council
policy inputs.
»» It is shaped by a ‘bottom-up’ approach 3. The Union Ministry of Rural
rather than ‘top-down’ approach. Development
The Aayog consist: 4. The Union Ministry of Urban
Development
»» Prime Minister (as chairperson)
»» Chief ministers of all the states and the 5. The Parliament
union territories with the legislature and Select the correct answer using the code
Lt. Governor of other union territories. given below:
(Governing Council) (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
»» Regional council : by the Prime min-
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
ister to tackle the issues in a particular
region consists of the Chief ministers or (c) 2 and 5 only
Lt. Governors of that areas and council (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
chaired by the Chairperson or his nom- Explanation : C
inee.
»» Special invitees consist of experts, spe- • Planning in India is a crucial aspect of the
cialists and practitioners with related do- country’s development process. Several
mains and invited by the Prime minister. institutions and bodies work together to plan

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and implement various policies and schemes. created by the Govt. of
• The following are the institutions associated »» India in 1950 by a resolution. Zonal
with planning in India: councils have been recognized in the
74th Constitutional Amendment Act of
The National Development Council:
1992.
»» The National Development Council
(NDC) is the apex body responsible 10. Consider the following statements:
for formulating and implementing 1. National Development Council is an
development plans in India. organ of the Planning Commission.
»» It is chaired by the Prime Minister of
2. The Economic and Social Planning
India and comprises all Chief Ministers
is kept in the Concurrent List in the
of the states and Union Territories,
Constitution of India.
along with the members of the Planning
Commission. 3. The Constitution of India prescribes
that Panchayats should be assigned
The Finance Commission:
the task of preparation of plans for
»» The Finance Commission is a economic development and social
constitutional body that recommends justice.
the distribution of financial resources
Which of the statements given above is/are
between the Centre and the states.
correct?(Year-2013)
»» It is constituted every five years and
makes recommendations on various (a) 1 only
financial matters, including the sharing (b) 2 and 3 only
of taxes and grants-in-aid. (c) 1 and 3 only
The Parliament: (d) 1, 2 and 3
»» The Parliament of India plays a crucial
Explanation : B
role in the planning process by enacting
laws and approving budgets. »» NDC is listed as an advisory body to the
»» The Parliament approves the Five-Year Planning commission.
Plans and the annual budgets presented »» Moreover, the plans made by the Plan-
by the government. ning commission are placed before NDC
for its acceptance.
9. Which of the following bodies does not/do
»» Hence statement 1 is not correct.
not find mention in the Constitution?
»» Now, the National Development Council
1. National Development Council (NDC) and Planning Commission (PC)
2. Planning Commission has been abolished now.
»» NDC used to advise PC on planning and
3. Zonal Councils
included all CMs and union ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes etc.
given below (Year-2013) »» The Economic and Social Planning is
(a) 1 and 2 only kept in the Concurrent List in the Con-
(b) 2 only stitution of India.
»» Hence statement 2 is correct.
(c) 1 and 3 only
»» The Constitution of India prescribes that
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only Panchayats should be assigned the task
Explanation : D of preparation of plans for economic de-
velopment and social justice.
»» National Development council is not a
»» The 73rd Amendment 1992 added a new
constitutional body. It is an extra-consti-
Part IX to the constitution titled “The
tutional body.
Panchayats” covering provisions from
»» Planning Commission is a non-consti-
Article 243 to 243(O); and a new Elev-
tutional and non-statutory body. It was

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enth Schedule covering 29 subjects with- sustainable and equitable development
in the functions of the Panchayats. as well as help their dissemination to
»» Hence statement 3 is correct. stake-holders.
National Development Council is an organ 11. In India, which of the following review
of the Planning Commission the independent regulators in sectors like
»» Planning Commission was replaced telecommunications, insurance, electrici-
by a new institution – NITI AAYYOG ty, etc.?
on January 1, 2015, with emphasis on
the ‘Bottom –Up’ approach to envisage 1) Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Par-
the vision of Maximum Governance, liament
Minimum Government, echoing the 2) Parliamentary Department Related
spirit of ‘Cooperative Federalism’. Standing Committees
Objectives 3) Finance Commission
»» To foster cooperative federalism 4) Financial Sector Legislative Reforms
through structured support initiatives Commission
and mechanisms with the States on a 5) NITI Aayog
continuous basis, recognizing that strong Select the correct answer using the code
States make a strong nation. given below: (Year-2019)
»» To develop mechanisms to formulate
credible plans at the village level and (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
aggregate these progressively at higher (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2 and 5
levels of government. Explanation : A
»» To ensure, on areas that are specifically
referred to it, that the interests of national »» The correct answer is 1 and 2.
security are incorporated in economic Important Points
strategy and policy. »» In India, there are 24 Department Relat-
»» To pay special attention to the sections ed Standing Committees that comprise
of our society that may be at risk of not members from both Houses of Parlia-
benefitting adequately from economic ment.
progress. »» These committees are ministry specific
»» To provide advice and encourage and may review the working of regula-
partnerships between key stakeholders tors within their respective departments.
and national and international like- »» For example, in August 2012, the Stand-
minded Think Tanks, as well as ing Committee on Energy presented a
educational and policy research report on the functioning of the Central
institutions. Electricity Regulatory Commission’.
»» To create a knowledge, innovation and »» In 2011, the Standing Committee on
entrepreneurial support system through Information Technology had listed the
a collaborative community of national functioning of TRAI for examination.
and international experts, practitioners »» Parliament may also establish ad-hoc
and other partners. committees which may examine the
»» To offer a platform for the resolution of working of regulators.
inter-sectoral and inter-departmental »» For instance, the terms of reference
issues in order to accelerate the of the Joint Parliamentary Committee
implementation of the development (JPC) on the allocation of the 2G spec-
agenda. trum include the review of the policy on
»» To maintain a state-of-the-art Resource spectrum pricing and grant of telecom
Centre, be a repository of research on licences.
good governance and best practices in »» Another example of parliamentary over-
sight through ad-hoc committees is the

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scrutiny of the working of SEBI and RBI share of the Union, which was reduced
by the JPC on the stock market scam. from 68 percent to 58 percent.
»» Finance Commission and NITI Aayog Sector-Specific Grants :
are of advisory nature, they do not re- »» The second statement is incorrect,
view the functioning of any regulator. which means that the Fourteenth
»» The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Finance Commission has not made
Commission was set up once to review recommendations concerning sector-
financial legislation and not regulators in specific grants.
the country. »» Sector-specific grants refer to the funds
12. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance allocated by the central government to
Commission, which of the following state- the States for specific sectors such as
ments is/are correct? (Year-2015) health, education, rural development,
etc.
1. It has increased the share of States »» Instead of sector-specific grants, the
in the central divisible pool from 32 Fourteenth Finance Commission
percent to 42 percent. recommended the creation of a non-
2. It has made recommendations lapsable fund called the “State Disaster
concerning sector-specific grants. Response Fund”.
Select the correct answer using the code »» The State Disaster Response Fund was
given below. aimed at providing States with adequate
(a) 1 only and timely resources to respond to
natural calamities and disasters.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 13. Which of the following is /are among the
noticeable features of the recommenda-
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
tions of the Thirteenth Finance Commis-
Explanation : A sion?(Year-2012)
• Fourteenth Finance Commission : 1. A design for the Goods and Services
»» In order to offer recommendations for Tax, and a compensation package
the allocation of net tax profits between linked to adherence to the proposed
the Union and the States for a five- design
year period, from 1 April 2015 to 31 2. A design for the creation of lakhs of
March 2020, the Fourteenth Finance jobs in the next ten years in consonance
Commission was established in January with India’s demographic dividend
2013.
3. Devolution of a specified share of cen-
Increased Share of States : tral taxes to local bodies as grants
»» The correct statement is 1 only, which Select the correct answer using the codes
means that the Fourteenth Finance given below:
Commission has increased the share of
States in the central divisible pool from (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
32 percent to 42 percent. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
»» The central divisible pool refers to the Explanation : C
taxes collected by the Government of
India that are shared with the States. »» The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.
»» The increase in the share of States was Key Points
aimed at giving them greater financial
»» Recommendations of Thirteenth Finan-
autonomy and flexibility in their
cial Commission-
spending priorities.
»» It recommended that both Center and
»» The increase in the share of States also
the states should conclude a ‘Grand Bar-
meant a corresponding decrease in the

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gain’ to implement model GST. (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
»» To incentivize implementation of the given above is correct in this context
Grand Bargain, this Commission recom- Explanation : D
mends sanction of a grant of Rs. 50,000
crore. »» The correct answer is None of the state-
»» A design for the Goods and Services ments (a), (b) and (c) given above is
Tax, and a compensation package linked correct in this context.
to adherence to the proposed design. Key Points
Hence statement 1 is correct.
»» Devolution of a specified share of central Finance Commission:
taxes to local bodies as grants. Hence »» Finance Commission is a constitutional
statement 3 is correct. body.
»» Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Man- »» Finance Commission was constituted to
agement Act, 2003 need to be amended recommend the distribution of the net
to mention the nature of shocks which proceeds of taxes between the Centre
shall require targets relaxation. and states, and among the states.
»» Fiscal deficit to be reduced to 3% of the »» It was established under Article 280 of
gross domestic product (GDP) by 2014– the Indian Constitution.
2015. »» The Commission was constituted for ev-
»» No such mentions for a design for the ery five years by the President.
creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten »» The Commission consists of five mem-
years in consonance with India’s demo- bers including the chairperson.
graphic dividend. Hence statement 2 is »» As of March 2021, Nand Kishore Singh
not correct. was the current chairperson of the 15th
Additional Information Finance Commission.
Functions of the Finance Commission of
Thirteenth Financial Commission-
India:
»» Constituted on 13th November 2007 un-
»» ​
The net tax proceeds distribution to
der the chairmanship of Vijay L Kelkar.
be divided between the Centre and the
»» Members of the Commission were:
states, and the allocation of the same be-
»» Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar, Chairman
tween states. (not among the Public Sec-
»» B.K. Chaturvedi, Part-time
tor Undertaking).
»» Dr. Indira Rajaraman
»» The principles governing the grants-in-
»» Prof. Atul Sarma
aid to the states by the Centre out of the
»» Dr. Sanjiv Misra
consolidated fund of India.
»» Shri Sumit Bose, Secretary
»» The steps required to extend the con-
»» The 1st Finance Commission was con-
solidated fund of a state to boost the
stituted on 22nd November 1951 under
resources of the panchayats and the mu-
the chairmanship of K.C. Neogi.
nicipalities of the state on the basis of the
14. With reference to the Finance Commission recommendations made by the state Fi-
of India, which of the following statements nance Commission.
is correct? (Year-2011) Additional Information
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign cap- »» The Chairman of the Commission shall
ital for infrastructure development be selected from among persons who
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of have had experience in public affairs, and
finances among the Public Sector Un- the four other members shall be selected
dertakings from among persons who--
(c) It ensures transparency in financial ad- »» are, or have been, or are qualified to be
ministration appointed as Judges of a High Court; or

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»» have special knowledge of the finances the provisions included In it. The Finance
and accounts of Government, or Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
»» have had wide experience in financial • However, the Rajya Sabha can only
matters and in administration, or recommend amendments in the Bill. The bill
»» have special knowledge of economics. has to be passed by the Parliament within 75
days of its introduction. So, statement 1 is
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Finance Bill, Money Bill • As a finance bill is a money bill so no joint
15. With reference to Finance Bill and Money sitting of the two houses is allowed with
Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the regard to a finance bill Under Article 108. So,
following statements :  (Year-2023) statement 3 is not correct.
• Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance
Bill to the Rajya Sabha, It can amend or
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
reject the Bill.
Bills passed by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money
Bill to the Rajya Sabha, It cannot 16. What is the power of Rajya Sabha regarding
amend or reject the Bill, It can only Money Bill?  (Year : 1979)
make recommendations.
(a) It can amend
3. In the case of disagreement between
(b) It can reject it
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya-Sabha,
there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, (c) It can withhold the bill for 14 days to
but a joint sitting becomes necessary make recommendations
for Finance Bill. (d) It has no power regarding Money Bill
How many of the above statements are Explanation : Answer - C
Correct?
• According to the provisions of Article 109
(a) Only one of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has
(b) Only two limited powers with respect to Money Bills.
(c) All three A Money Bill after having been passed by the
(d) None Lok Sabha, and sent to the Rajya Sabha for its
recommendations, has to be returned to Lok
Explanation : A Sabha by the Rajya Sabha, within a period
• A Finance Bill is a Money Bill as defined in of fourteen days from the date of its receipt,
Article 110 of the Constitution. Whereas a with or without amendment.
Financial Bill is an Ordinary bill as it apart 17. Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill
from dealing with money matters also deals passed by the Lok Sabha for a period not
with non-money matters. exceeding  (Year : 1980)
• It deals with the proposals of the government
for levy of new taxes, modification of the (a) 9 days
existing tax structure or continuance of the (b) 14 days
existing tax structure beyond the period (c) 15 days
approved by Parliament are submitted (d) 30 days
to Parliament through this bill. So, it is
introduced as a part of the Annual Financial Explanation : Answer - B
Statement (i.e. Budget) under Article 112. • Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent
• The Finance Bill is accompanied by a to the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha may
Memorandum containing explanations of not amend money bills but can recommend
amendments.

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• To make sure that Rajya Sabha doesn’t 19. Council of Ministers of the Union of India
amend the bill by adding some non-money is responsible to  (Year : 1982)
matters the Lok Sabha Speaker certifies the
bill as a money bill before sending it to the (a) Rajya Sabha
upper house, and the decision of the Speaker (b) Prime Minister
is binding on both the Houses. (c) President
• A money bill must be returned to the Lok (d) Lok Sabha
Sabha within 14 days or the bill is deemed to Explanation : Answer - D
have passed both houses in the form it was
originally passed by the Lok Sabha. • The Union Council of Ministers is the
executive authority of the Government of
India.
Attention Plz..! • It includes the Prime Minister, the Cabinet
• In worst case scenario if you’re unable to recall Ministers, Ministers of State, and sometimes
such factual questions in POLITY, You may Deputy Ministers.
go with your natural INSTINCT, as chances • The Prime Minister is the head of the Council
of Instinct being correct in subjects like polity of Ministers.
is higher as we read it multiple times and our • There is also a smaller executive body called
natural instinct works here. the Union Cabinet which plays the role of
18. Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in  the supreme decision making body of the
 (Year : 1981) Government of India.
• The Council of Ministers is appointed by the
(a) 2 years
President on advice from the Prime Minister.
(b) 3 years
• The Prime Minister can also advise the
(c) 6 years President to remove any of the Ministers
(d) It is never dissolved from the council.
Explanation : Answer - D • The Council of Ministers and the Prime
Minister are collectively responsible to the
• The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and
Lok Sabha.
unlike the Lok Sabha, it cannot be dissolved
at any time. • It means that when a minister introduces
a bill in the Lok Sabha and the Lok Sabha
• Each member of the Rajaya Sabha serves for
happens to disapprove it, the Lok Sabha holds
a term of six years.
the entire Council of Ministers responsible
• But one third of its members retire at the for the bill and not just the Minister alone.
expiration of every two years. A vote of no confidence can be introduced
• The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio against a government at the Lok Sabha.
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. • If it is passed by the Lok Sabha by a majority
vote, then the Prime Minister and the
entire Council of Ministers have to resign
Attention Plz..!
collectively.
• Do read options carefully as sometimes in
hurry thinking question is very easy tend to 20. In which of the following legislatures can a
do a silly mistake, like for example - Every 2 Non member be the Presiding Officer ? 
years it’s members retire so one may in hurry  (Year : 1983)
mark A as correct, second possibility- tenure (a) Lok Sabha
of members is 6 years so one may choose
(b) Rajya Sabha
option C as correct.
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) None of these

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Explanation : Answer - B 22. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha can
be removed by a resolution.  (Year : 1985)
• Rajya Sabha : This is the correct answer.
The Vice President of India, who is also an (a) Passed by a two thirds majority of its
ex officio chairman (chairman of the Rajya total members at that time
Sabha due to his position as vice president), (b) Passed by a simple majority of its total
presides over the Rajya Sabha. He is not a members at that time
Rajya Sabha member.
(c) Moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by
• Lok Sabha : This option is incorrect Lok Sabha
because the speaker is elected from among
(d) None of the above
the members of the Lok Sabha (House of
the People) for a five-year term and is, by Explanation : Answer - A
convention, a member of the ruling party • The Vice President of India is the ex-officio
or alliance. The current Speaker, Om Birla Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and he presides
of the Bharatiya Janata Party, rules over the over the sessions of the house.
17th Lok Sabha.
• The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
• State Assembly : This option is incorrect takes care of the day to day matters of Rajya
because the State Assembly is presided over Sabha and also presides over the meetings of
by a member. The State Legislative Assembly, the house in absence of the Chairman.
also known as Vidhan Sabha or Sasana Sabha,
• The Deputy Chairman is elected from
is an Indian legislative body that governs the
amongst the members of the house and is
country’s states and union territories.
chosen by the Chairman.
21. Which is correct?  (Year : 1984) • The Deputy Chairman can be removed on
(a) Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before 5 a number of grounds like violation of laws,
years parliamentary procedures or he himself has
resigned from the post. Let us study the given
(b) Rajya Sabha lasts only for 6 years
options.
(c) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5
• The Deputy Chairman can be removed by an
years
absolute resolution passed by all the members
(d) Life of Lok Sabha can be extended present in the house during that session.
indefinitely
• This means out of the total if 2/3 of the
Explanation : Answer - C members or more vote against the Deputy
• The President of India has the power to Chairman then he has to be removed from
dissolve Lok Sabha. According to Article his position.
83(2) of the Constitution, the completion • The Deputy Chairman cannot be removed
of five years from the first day of its meeting by a simple majority resolution passed in
amounts to the dissolution of the Lower the house i.e. votes by only more than half of
House. the members do not count for removal. An
• In this case, an election is held to elect the new absolute majority of the house is needed for
Members of Parliament. The Lower House the same. Thus, this option is incorrect.
can also be dissolved earlier by the President • Option C - For removal of the Deputy
on the advice of the Prime Minister. Chairman, the absolute majority needs to be
• It can also be dissolved if the President feels moved and passed by more than 2/3 members
that no viable government can be formed of the Rajya Sabha only. No members of Lok
after the resignation or fall of a regime. Sabha are entitled to do that. This is a wrong
option.

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23. Representation of any State in Rajya Sabha, 24. Which one of the following correctly
is according to  (Year : 1987) reflects the position of the Upper House
of the State legislature as compared to
(a) Population of the State the position of the Upper House of the
(b) Area of the State Parliament?  (Year : 1992)
(c) Fixed number of candidates for each
State (a) While one third of the members of
the Rajya Sabha retire every second
(d) Number of representation in Lok Sabha year, onefourth of the members of
from that State the Legislative Council retire every
Explanation : Answer - A eighteen months
• Rajya Sabha Members are elected by (b) There is no provision for a joint sitting
the elected members of state legislative of the Legislative Assembly and the
assemblies using a method of proportional Legislative Council in the States for
representation. resolving deadlocks while there is
such a provision in the case of the two
• Note: Representation of States in Rajya Sabha
Houses of Parliament
is not equal. It depends on its population.
State with a larger population will have more (c) While no Bill other than a Money Bill
number of seats in Rajya Sabha than those can originate in the State Legislative
with a lesser population. Council, no Bill can originate in the
Rajya Sabha
• Rajya Sabha Elections : There are three types
of representation in Rajya Sabha : (d) While Rajya Sabha has twelve
nominated members, the State
1) Representation of States in Rajya
Legislative Council has none.
Sabha :
»» Members are elected by the elected Explanation : Answer - B
members of state legislative assemblies • Joint sitting is an extraordinary provision
»» Election Principle used – Proportional provided by the constitution to resolve a
Representation by means of Single deadlock between the two Houses over a
Transferable Vote bill. Deadlock occurs if a bill is passed by
2) The population of the state is a factor one house and transmitted to others and it
that decides the representation of states has rejected by the other house, or there are
in Rajya Sabha disagreements or if more than 6 months have
3) Representation of Union Territories passed without passing of bill.
in Rajya Sabha: • This provisions is for Parliament only and
»» Members of Rajya Sabha belonging to not for State Legislature having bicameral
Union Territories are indirectly elected legislatures. Because Rajya Sabha is a
by members of an electoral college, that mandatory House and complementary to the
is constituted for this purpose Lok Sabha while it is not in the case of State
»» Election Principle used – Proportional legislature. Legislative council may or may
Representation by means of Single not exist with legislative Assembly.
Transferable Vote • One third members of the Rajya Sabha and
• Note : Out of 8 union territories, Delhi, Legislative Council retire every second year.
Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir have • Only Ordinary bill can be originated in either
representation in Rajya Sabha. house of the Parliament or either house of
State legislature.
• Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members
while 1/6 of the total members in legislative
council are nominated by the Governor.

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25. Which of the following special powers is to be a deliberative body in addition to
have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by balancing the Lok Sabha’s “fickleness and
the Constitution of India?  (Year : 2012) enthusiasm.”
• Representing the Vulnerable Sections :
a) To change the existing territory of a
State and to change the name of a State »» In the Lok Sabha, women, religious,
ethnic, and linguistic minorities are
b) To pass a resolution empowering the underrepresented (due to first past the
Parliament to make laws in the State post-election system).
List and to create one or more All India »» As a result, an indirect election to the
Services Rajya Sabha (through propositional
c) To amend the election procedure of representation) would allow them to
the President and to determine the participate in the nation’s legislative
pension of the President after his/her process.
retirement • Special Powers of Rajya Sabha :
d) To determine the functions of »» The authority to move a subject from
the Election Commission and to the State List to the Union List for a set
determine the number of Election amount of time (Article 249).
Commissioners. »» Additional All-India Services are being
Explanation : Answer - B developed (Article 312).
»» When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, to
• Rajya Sabha is authorized to do the declare an emergency under Article 352
following for a limited time.
»» It can authorize the parliament to make a
law on a subject enumerated in the state 26. What will follow if a Money Bill is
list (Art.249). substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
»» It can authorize the parliament to create  (Year : 2013)
a new India service common to both the (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with
Centre and the State (Art.312). the Bill, accepting or not accepting the
Special Powers of Rajya Sabha recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill
• Safety Valve of India’s Federal Polity :
further
»» In addition to the well recognised exam-
ples of responsible administration and (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the
judicial review, the Rajya Sabha is an im- Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
portant component of the constitutional (d) The President may call a joint sitting
checks and balances structure. for passing the Bill
»» Unlike the president, legislature, and Explanation : Answer - A
judiciary, the Council of States operates MONEY BILL
as a safety valve inside the legislative, re-
ducing federal tensions. • The definition of the Money bill is laid down
»» The founders of the Indian constitution in Article 110 of the Constitution.
planned to construct a house that would • In case the question arises whether or not
operate as a revisionary house to check the bill proposed is a Money Bill, then the
the lower house’s hasty legislation, which decision of the Lok Sabha Speaker shall
may be passed under populist pressures. prevail.
»» Parliament is not simply a legislative • A Money Bill can only be introduced in the
body, but also a deliberative one, allow- Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the
ing members to discuss important public President. Also, the bill has to be introduced
issues. As a result, the Upper House’s job by a minister only.

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• After the Money Bill gets passed in the Lower Annual Financial Statement.
House (i.e. Lok Sabha)of the Parliament, it is Which of the statements given above is/are
sent to the Upper House (i.e. Rajya Sabha) correct?
for its consideration.
(a) 1 only
• Rajya Sabha has limited powers in case
of a Money Bill, as it cannot reject or (b) 1 and 2 only
amend a Money Bill, it can only make its (c) 2 and 3 only
recommendations. Also, The Rajya Sabha has (d) 1, 2 and 3
to return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 Explanation : Answer - B
days.
• If Rajya Sabha fails to return the bill within • The Constitutional Position of the Rajya
the stipulated time, then the bill is deemed to Sabha as compared with the Lok Sabha can
have passed by both the houses in its original be studied from Following angles:
form. Equal Status with Lok Sabha
• Lok Sabha has the right to either accept or
• Introduction and passage of ordinary bills,
reject all the recommendations made by
Constitutional Amendment bills, and
Rajya Sabha.
financial bills involving expenditure from
• The bill shall be deemed to have passed in the Consolidated Fund of India. Election and
either case, the only difference being- if Lok impeachment of the President. Election and
Sabha accepts the recommendations, the bill removal of the Vice-President.
will be passed in the modified form and if
• Making recommendations to the President
Lok Sabha rejects the recommendations, the
for the removal of Chief Justice and judges
bill will be passed in its original form.
of Supreme Court and high courts, chief
• Finally, the bill is presented to the President. election commissioner and comptroller and
He may either give his assent or withhold his auditor general.
assent to the bill, but cannot return the bill.
• Approval of ordinances issued by the
• Important Points : There are these following President and proclamation of all three types
4 types of bills that are introduced in the of emergencies by the President.
Parliament:
• Selection of ministers and consideration of
1) Ordinary Bills - related to matters the reports of the constitutional bodies like
other than the financial ones. Finance Commission, Union Public Service
2) Money Bills - related to financial Commission, comptroller and auditor
matters like public expenditure, general, etc.
taxation, etc. • Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the
3) Financial Bills - like money bills, these Supreme Court and the Union Public Service
are also related to financial matters but Commission.
are different from money bills.
Unequal Status with Lok Sabha
4) Constitution Amendment Bills-
related with amendments in the • A Money Bill can be introduced only in the
provisions of the Constitution. Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. Rajya
Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill.
27. Consider the following statements:  It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha
 (Year : 2015) within 14 days, either with recommendations
1) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha
reject or to amend a Money Bill. can either accept or reject all or any of the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. In
2) The Rajya Sabha cannot vote the
both cases, the money bill is deemed to have
Demands for Grants.
been passed by the two Houses.
3) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the

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• A financial bill, not containing solely the 29. Which of the following statements is/are
matters of Article 110, also can be introduced correct?  (Year : 2016)
only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya
Sabha. But, concerning its passage, both the 1) A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses
Houses have equal powers. on its prorogation.
• The final power to decide whether a particular 2) A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha,
bill is a Money Bill is vested in the Speaker of which has not been passed by the Lok
the Lok Sabha. Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of
the Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over
the joint sitting of both the Houses. The Select the correct answer using the code
Lok Sabha with greater numbers wins the given below.
battle in a joint sitting. A resolution for the (a) 1 only
discontinuance of the national emergency (b) 2 only
can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not (d) Both 1 and 2
by the Rajya Sabha.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
• The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the council
of ministers by passing a no-confidence Explanation : Answer - B
motion. • A Bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse
28. The Parliament of India acquires the power by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
to legislate on any item in the State List in Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Prorogation
the national interest if a resolution to that does not affect the bills or any other business
effect is passed by the  (Year : 2016) pending before the House.
• A Bill will lapse in following conditions :
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its
»» A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which
total membership
has not been passed by the Lok Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less shall not lapse on a dissolution of the
than two thirds of its total membership House of the People. Hence statement 2
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its is correct.
total membership »» A Bill that is originating in Lok Sabha
(d) Raja Sabha by a majority of not less or transmitted to it by Rajya Sabha but
than two thirds of its members present is pending in the Lok Sabha lapses. Bills
and voting that originate and are passed in the Lok
Sabha but are pending in the Rajya Sabha
Explanation : Answer - D
are also considered lapsed. A Bill pending
• Union Parliament can legislate on any item in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the
in the State List in the national interest if the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect »» A Bill that is passed by both Houses but
by not less than two-thirds of the members pending assent of the president does not
present and voting. lapse.
• Article 249 empowers the parliament to
legislate with respect to a matter in the State
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
List in the national interest. A resolution
passed shall remain in force for such period
Joint Sitting
not exceeding one year as may be specified 30. In which case a joint session of the Lok
therein. Sabha and Rajya Sabha is convened by the
President?  (Year : 1980)
(a) When a Finance Bill is to be passed
by the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
with 2/3rd majority
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(b) To impeach the President 3. More than six months elapse with the
(c) If after a bill has been passed by one bill being received by the other House
House and transmitted to the other without it being passed.
House and the bill is rejected by the • Then, the President can summon a joint
other House sitting unless the bill had elapsed because of
(d) All of the above the Lok Sabha’s dissolution.
• How is the period of the above-mentioned
Explanation : Answer - C
6 months calculated?
Joint Sitting of Parliament »» Those days are not taken into account
when the House is prorogued or
• The Constitution of India provides for a joint adjourned for over 4 consecutive days.
session of the Parliament.
• Conduct of Business :
• India has a bicameral Parliament. To pass any »» According to Article 118, the President
bill, both the Houses (the Lok Sabha and the can make rules for the procedure of the
Rajya Sabha) must concur. The bill has to be joint sitting after due consultation with
passed by both Houses before the President the Lok Sabha Speaker and Rajya Sabha
can give his/her assent. Chairman.
• The founding fathers foresaw situations »» In a joint sitting, any new amendment
where there could be a deadlock between cannot be proposed in the bill, excepting
both Houses of Parliament. those which have been passed by one
• Therefore, they provided for a constitutional House and refused by the other.
mechanism to break this deadlock, in the »» Amendments which are relevant to
form of joint sittings. the matter at discussion can only be
• Joint Sitting of Parliament is Summoned by proposed.
The joint sitting is called by the President. »» About the admissibility of amendments,
the decision of the presiding officer is
• The Speaker presides over a joint sitting.
final.
In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy
»» The bill in a joint sitting is passed by a
Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over it, and
simple majority.
in his absence, the sitting is presided over by
the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. • According to Article 87 of the Constitution,
there are two instances when the country’s
• If any of the above-mentioned people are not
President specifically addresses a joint sitting
available, any Member of Parliament (MP)
of both Houses. They are:
can preside over the sitting by consensus of
both Houses. 1. At the start of the first session after
a general election. This is when the
• The quorum to constitute a joint sitting:
reconstituted ok Sabha meets for the
1/10th of the total number of members of the
first time after being elected.
House.
2. At the start of the first session every
Joint Sitting Constitutional Provision year.
• Article 108 of the Indian Constitution Exceptions to Joint Sittings
provides for a joint sitting of both Houses of
Parliament. Accordingly, a joint session can • There are two exceptions when a joint sitting
be summoned when: If after a bill is passed cannot be summoned. They are for the
by one House and transmitted to the other following bills:
House – 1. Constitution Amendment Bill:
1. The other House rejects this bill, or According to Article 368, the
Constitution can be amended only by a
2. The Houses do not agree on the
2/3rd majority in both Houses. There is
amendments made to the bill, or
no provision for a joint sitting in case of

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a disagreement between both Houses. be held in the case of Money bills or
2. Money Bill (Article 110): As per the constitutional amendment bills.
Constitution, money bills require the • Important Points - The joint sitting of the
Lok Sabha’s approval only. Parliament:
i) Even of the Rajya Sabha does not »» It is called by the President (Article 108).
pass the money bill within 14 days, It is presided over by the Speaker.
the bill is considered passed by both »» In his absence, it is presided over by the
Houses after 14 days is over. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in
ii) The Rajya Sabha can make his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of
recommendations to the Bill which the Rajya Sabha presides. The Chairman
the Lok Sabha is not required to doesn’t preside over the joint session.
accept. »» If any of the above officers are not
present then any other member of the
iii) Thus, in the case of a money bill, the Parliament can preside by consensus of
necessity of a joint sitting does not both the House.
arise.
32. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of
31. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and both the Houses of the Parliament, it has
Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the to be passed by (Year : 2015)
parliament during the passage of 
(a) A simple majority of members present
1) Ordinary legislation and voting
2) Money bill (b) Three-fourths majority of members
3) Constitution amendment bill present and voting
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) Two-thirds majority of the Houses
given below. (Year : 2012) (d) Absolute majority of the Houses
1) 1 only 2) 2 and 3 only Explanation : Answer - A
3) 1 and 3 only 4) 1, 2 and 3
• According to Article 108 of the Constitution,
Explanation : Answer - A the joint sitting of parliament is called by the
• Article 108 of the Indian Constitution President. It is presided by the Speaker of the
provides for a joint sitting of both Houses of Lok Sabha.
Parliament. • The joint sitting of both the houses is also
• Accordingly, a joint session can be held to resolve the deadlock over the passing
summoned when: of key legislation.
»» If after a bill is passed by one House and • The following bills can’t be referred to a
transmitted to the other House – The joint sitting of Parliament :
other House rejects this bill, or • Money bill under Article 110.
»» The Houses do not agree on the • Constitution amendment bill under Article
amendments made to the bill, or 368.
»» More than six months elapse with the
bill being received by the other House Note :
without it being passed. • In the absence of the speaker the Deputy
»» Then, the President can summon a Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence,
joint sitting unless the bill had elapsed the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
because of the Lok Sabha’s dissolution. presides over the joint session. The Chairman
Exception- of the upper house (vice president) doesn’t
»» The joint sitting is held to resolve the preside over the joint session at any means/
deadlock over the ordinary or the cost.
finance bills only. But joint sitting cannot

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(c) Can take help of the Supreme Court
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC (d) Can arrange referendum
Money Bill Explanation : Answer - A
33. What is the power of Rajya Sabha regarding • The President is an integral part of the
Money Bill?  (Year : 1979) Parliament. He exercises Legislative powers
(a) It can amend it in this regard.
(b) It can reject it • Article 111 makes provision for assent by
President. It says that when a bill is sent
(c) It can withhold the bill for 14 days to
to the President after it has been passed
make recommendations
by the Parliament, he can give his assent,
(d) It has no power regarding Money Bill withhold his assent, or return the Bill for
Explanation : Answer - D (Refer Q. No 1) reconsideration.
• However, if Bill is passed again with or
34. When a money bill is passed by the without amendments the President is bound
Parliament, the President has the power to to give his assent to the Bill.
 (Year : 1982)
37. No money bill can be introduced in
(a) Amend it the legislative assembly without there
(b) Reject it commendations of the  (Year : 1989)
(c) Kept it with him (a) Speaker
(d) Return it for reconsideration (b) Governor
Explanation : Answer - B (Self Explanatory) (c) Chief Minister
(d) Finance Minister
35. Who decides whether a Bill is a ‘Money
Bill’ or not?  (Year : 1984) Explanation : Answer - B

(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Money Bill:

(b) President • Article 198 in The Constitution Of India
(c) Prime Minister 1949 states that:
(d) Vice President • A Money Bill shall not be introduced in a
Legislative Council, It can be presented in the
Explanation : Answer - A
Legislative Assembly only.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides • No money bill can be introduced in the
whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or Legislative Assembly of a State, except on
not. A financial bill is not a Money Bill unless the recommendations of the Governor of the
it fulfills the requirements of Article 110. state.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies if a • After a Money Bill has been passed
financial bill is a Money Bill or not. by the Legislative Assembly of a State
36. A Parliamentary bill passed by the Lok having a Legislative Council, it shall be
Sabha is sent to the President for assent. transmitted to the Legislative Council for
The President sends it back to Lok Sabha its recommendations, and the Legislative
for reconsideration. If the Lok Sabha again Council shall within a period of fourteen
sends it back to the President without days from the date of its receipt of the Bill
making any changes, the President  return the Bill to the Legislative.
 (Year : 1987) • Assembly with its recommendations and
(a) Must give his assent to it the Legislative Assembly may thereupon
(b) Can again send the bill for either accept or reject all or any of the
reconsideration recommendations of the Legislative Council.

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• If the Legislative Assembly accepts any of the to be passed by Parliament.
recommendations of the Legislative Council, • A Bill is said to be a Money Bill if it only
the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been contains provisions related to taxation,
passed by both Houses with the amendments borrowing of money by the government,
recommended by the Legislative Council and expenditure from or receipt to the
accepted by the Legislative Assembly. Consolidated Fund of India.
• If the Legislative Assembly does not accept
39. Which one of the following Bills must
any of the recommendations of the Legislative
be passed by each House of the Indian
Council, the Money Bill shall be deemed
Parliament separately, by special majority?
to have been passed by both Houses in the
 (Year : 2003)
form in which it was passed by the Legislative
Assembly without any of the amendments (a) Ordinary Bill
recommended by the Legislative Council. (b) Money Bill
38. Which one of the following statements (c) Finance Bill
about a Money Bill is not correct?  (d) Constitution Amendment Bill
 (Year : 2000)
Explanation : Answer - D
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either
• The procedure for the amendment of the
House of Parliament
Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final as follows:
authority to decide whether a Bill is a
• An amendment of the Constitution can be
Money Bill or not
initiated only by the introduction of a bill for
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money the purpose in either House of Parliament
Bill passed by Lok Sabha and send it for (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha) and not in the
consideration within 14 days state legislatures.
(d) The President cannot return a Money • The bill can be introduced either by a minister
Bill to Lok Sabha for reconsideration or by a private member and does not require
Explanation : Answer - A prior permission of the president.
• A money bill cannot be introduced in Rajya • The bill must be passed in each House
Sabha. by a special majority, that is, a majority
(that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total
• Rajya Sabha can neither reject a Money Bill membership of the House and a majority
nor amend it. of two-thirds of the members of the House
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides present and voting.
whether the Bill is a Money Bill or not. • Each House must pass the bill separately.
• A Deputy Speaker can also certify a Money • In case of a disagreement between the two
Bill in case of the office of the Speaker falling Houses, there is no provision for holding a
vacant. Also, the Speaker’s decision shall be joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose
deemed to be final. of deliberation and passage of the bill.
• Article 110 of the constitution deals with • If the bill seeks to amend the federal
Money Bill in India. provisions of the Constitution, it must also be
• A Money Bill may only be introduced in ratified by the legislatures of half of the states
Lok Sabha, on the recommendation of the by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the
President. It must be passed in Lok Sabha by members of the House present and voting.
a simple majority. • After duly passed by both the Houses
• It may be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its of Parliament and ratified by the state
recommendations, which Lok Sabha may legislatures, where necessary, the bill is
reject if it chooses to. If such recommendations presented to the president for assent.
are not given within 14 days, it will be deemed

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• The president must give his assent to the bill. • Lok Sabha has the right to either accept or
He can neither withhold his assent to the bill reject all the recommendations made by
nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Rajya Sabha.
Parliament • The bill shall be deemed to have passed in
• After the president’s assent, the bill becomes either case, the only difference being- if Lok
an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) Sabha accepts the recommendations, the bill
and the Constitution stands amended in will be passed in the modified form and if
accordance with the terms of the Act. Lok Sabha rejects the recommendations, the
bill will be passed in its original form.
40. What will follow if a Money Bill is
substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? • Finally, the bill is presented to the President.
 (Year : 2013) He may either give his assent or withhold his
assent to the bill, but cannot return the bill.
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with
the Bill, accepting or not accepting the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill Welfare State
further 41. The concept of welfare state is included in
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the the Constitution of India in  (Year : 1982)
Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(a) Preamble
(d) The President may call a joint sitting
for passing the Bill (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fourth Schedule
Explanation : Answer - A
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy
• The definition of the Money bill is laid down
in Article 110 of the Constitution. Explanation : Answer - D
• In case the question arises whether or not 42. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian
the bill proposed is a Money Bill, then the Constitution is enshrined in its 
decision of the Lok Sabha Speaker shall  (Year : 2015)
prevail.
• A Money Bill can only be introduced in the (a) Preamble
Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
President. Also, the bill has to be introduced (c) Fundamental Rights
by a minister only. (d) Seventh Schedule
• After the Money Bill gets passed in the Lower
Explanation : Answer - B
House (i.e. Lok Sabha)of the Parliament, it is
sent to the Upper House (i.e. Rajya Sabha) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
for its consideration.
• The Directive Principles of State Policy are
• Rajya Sabha has limited powers in case
enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution
of a Money Bill, as it cannot reject or
from Articles 36 to 51. They embody the
amend a Money Bill, it can only make its
concept of a welfare state.
recommendations.
• DPSPs are fundamental in the governance of
• Also, The Rajya Sabha has to return the bill to
the country. DPSPs are non-justifiable.
the Lok Sabha within 14 days.
• They apply to both Union and State
• If Rajya Sabha fails to return the bill within
Governments and all other authorities
the stipulated time, then the bill is deemed to
coming under the definition of ‘State’. It is a
have passed by both the houses in its original
borrowed feature from the Constitution of
form.
Ireland.

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• A welfare state is the concept of state 5) To promote harmony and the spirit of
governance in which the state plays an common brotherhood amongst all the
important role in the economic and social people of India transcending religious,
progress of the citizens. The concept of a linguistic, and regional or sectional
welfare state lies in the “Directive Principle diversities;
of State Policy”. 6) To renounce practices derogatory to
• Articles 38 and 39 make the principle of the dignity of women;
distributive justice a reality. Which directs 7) To value and preserve the rich heritage
the establishment of social, economic, and of our composite culture;
political justice. 8) To protect and improve the natural
• The Directive Principle of State Policy is environment including forests, lakes,
described in Articles No. 36 to 51 in Part IV rivers, and wildlife, and to have
of the Constitution. It cannot be enforced by compassion for living creatures;
the court. 9) To develop the scientific temper,
• The Directive Principle of State Policy is humanism, and the spirit of inquiry
derived from the Constitution of Ireland. and reform;
10) To safeguard public property and to
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC: abjure violence.
Fundamental Duties 11) To strive towards excellence in all
spheres of individual and collective
43. Which of the following is not included activity so that the nation constantly
in the list of Fundamental Duties in the rises to higher levels of endeavor and
Constitution?  (Year : 1979) achievement; parent or guardian to
provide opportunities for education to
(a) To safeguard public property and to
his child or, as the case may be, ward
abjure violence
between the age of six and fourteen
(b) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, years.
unity and integrity of India
44. By which Amendment to the Constitution,
(c) Secularism
the Fundamental Duties of the citizens
(d) To abide by the Constitution and were specified?  (Year : 1981)
respect its ideals
(a) 38th
Explanation : Answer - B
(b) 40th
It shall be the duty of every citizen of India (c) 42nd
1) To abide by the Constitution and (d) 44th
respect its ideals and institutions, Explanation : Answer - C
the National Flag and the National
Anthem; • The fundamental duties of citizens were
added to the Constitution by the 42nd
2) To cherish and follow the noble ideals
Constitutional Amendment Act (1976).
which inspired our national struggle
for freedom; • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(1976) included ten Fundamental Duties.
3) To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
unity, and integrity of India; • This amendment added a new part, namely,
Part IVA to the Constitution.
4) To defend the country and render
national service when called upon to • This new part consists of only one Article,
do so; that is, Article 51A which for the first time
specified a code of ten fundamental duties of
the citizens.

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• Later there was an addition of one more Committee, 11 Fundamental Duties were
Fundamental Duty in 2002 by the 86th added to the Indian Constitution.
Amendment Act. • Article 51A deals with the Fundamental
• The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Duties in the Indian Constitution.
Constitution are inspired by the Constitution • The Fundamental Duties in the Indian
of the erstwhile USSR. Constitution were added by the 42nd
• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 is one of the Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.
most important amendments to the Indian • The concept of fundamental duties of the
Constitution. Indian constitution was borrowed from the
• It was enacted by the Indian National USSR(Union of Soviet Socialist Republics).
Congress headed by Indira Gandhi then.
47. Which of the following is/ are among the
Due to the large number of amendments this
fundamental Duties of citizens laid down
act has brought to the Indian Constitution, it
in the Indian Constitution?  (Year : 2012)
is also known as ‘Mini-Constitution.
45. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, 1) To preserve the rich heritage of our
unity and integrity of India, a provision composite culture
has been made in the  2) To protect the weaker sections from
 (Year : 1982, 2015) social injustice
3) To develop the scientific temper and
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy spirit of inquiry
(b) Preamble to the Constitution 4) To strive towards excellence in all
(c) Fundamental Duties spheres of individual and collective
d) Fundamental Rights activity.
Explanation : Answer - C Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
• Preamble finds the mention of the words
“Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity”. a) 1 and 2 only
• However, if you try to focus on the complete b) 2 only
sentence i.e “To uphold and protect the c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a provision mentioned in Article 51-A of the
Explanation : Answer - C
Constitution i.e Fundamental Duties.
• Part IV A of the Indian constitution
46. Under the constitution of India, which one
constitutes fundamental duties for citizens
of the following is not a fundamental duty?
under A 51A.
 (Year : 2011)
(a) To vote in public elections.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
(b) To develop the scientific temper. Panchayati Raj
(c) To safeguard public property
48. Which of the following States has no
(d) To abide by the constitution and respect
Panchayati Raj setup ? 
its ideals.
 (Year : 1979, 1991)
Explanation : Answer - A
(a) Nagaland (b) Assam
• To vote in public elections is not a
(c) Kerala (d) West Bengal
fundamental duty.
• The Swaran Singh Committee is related to Explanation : Answer - A
the Fundamental Duties in India. • Nagaland has no Panchayat Raj institution.
• On the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Currently, the Panchayati Raj system exists

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in all the states except Nagaland. Meghalaya Constitutional Amendment and the thought
and Mizoram, and in all Union Territories process behind this was to make democracy
except Delhi. functional at the local level, and driven by
citizens’ needs and with their participation.
49. Panchayati Raj System was introduced in
the year  (Year : 1981) • Panchayats have been mandated for
economic development, strengthening social
(a) 1948 (b) 1959 justice and implementation of Central and
(c) 1951 (d) 1952 State Government Schemes including those
29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
Explanation : Answer - B
51. The maximum revenue source of village
• The Bihar Panchayat Raj Act of 1947 was the
panchayats is  (Year : 1983)
first to implement the Panchayat Raj system
in the state of Bihar. It was a continuation of (a) Government grants
Lord Ripon’s legacy of local self-government (b) Sales tax
from the British era. Rajasthan later
(c) Voluntary help by village cooperatives
implemented it in Nagaur district on October
2, 1959. (d) Local taxes on lands, fairs and festivals
• After independence, Rajasthan was the first Explanation : Answer - D
state in India to implement the panchayat • The taxes imposed by the Village Panchayats
system. Other state governments adopted are important source of income of Gram
this system in the 1950s and 1960s as laws Panchayats, such as: Taxes on land and
were passed to establish panchayats in houses, the custom duty, the toll tax, License
various states. Maharashtra was the ninth fees on transport and communication, local
state to join the Union. taxes on lands, fairs and festivals.
• In September-October 1959, the first
elections under the Rajasthan Panchayat 52. Panchayati Raj system was adopted to 
Samitis and Zilla Parishads Act, 1959, were  (Year : 1984)
held. The three-tier scheme of Panchayati Raj (a) Make people aware of politics
began on October 2, 1959, with the already
(b) Decentralise the power of democracy
existing Panchayats at the village level under
the Rajasthan Panchayat Act, 1953. (c) Educate the peasants
• Note : You even need to focus on minute facts (d) To introduce a form of local
in polity as one cannot afford to lose marks in selfgovernment at the village, block
subjects like POLITY. and district levels
Explanation : Answer - B
50. Panchayati Raj is mainly aimed at 
 (Year : 1982) • The Panchayati Raj System relates to the local
self-government in India. It was adopted to
(a) Rural employment
decentralize the power of democracy.
(b) Agricultural and rural industries
• Democratic decentralization means that
development
governmental power is divided at the local
(c) Political awareness among village levels rather than concentrated in one place.
people So that citizens can participate and contribute
(d) Giving training to villagers for fighting to governance as per their interests and needs.
elections • According to Gandhiji - By improving the
Explanation : Answer - C condition of villages, the country can be
made unbeatable in all respects.
• The institutions of self-government, known
as Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), were • That is why the organization of Gram
given a constitutional status through the73rd Panchayats was arranged according to
Gandhiji’s imagination under Article 40 in

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the Constitution. Explanation : Answer - C
• The Panchayati Raj Institute was given • Panchayati Raj is a three-tiered Indian
constitutional status through the 73rd administrative organization for rural
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to development.
establish democracy at the grassroots level
• The Panchayati Raj is a system of local self-
and was entrusted with the task of rural
government in India that aims to establish
development in the country.
local self-government in districts, zones, and
53. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in villages.
the States of Rajasthan and 
Important Points
 (Year : 1985)
• The Panchayati Raj System is not applicable
(a) Andhra Pradesh in some locations.
(b) Bihar • According to Article 243 M of the Indian
(c) Gujarat constitution, save for Nagaland, Meghalaya,
(d) Haryana and Mizoram, and all Union Territories
Explanation : Answer - A except Delhi, the Panchayati Raj system
exists in all states and Union Territories.
• After the Constitution came into force, • The Panchayati Raj System is applicable in
Article 40 made a mention of panchayats, and Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Sikkim.
Article 246 empowers the state legislature to
legislate with respect to any subject relating 55. Assertion (A) : Panchayati Raj institutions
to local self-government. were set upto decentralise planning to village
• In 1953, the Rajasthan Panchayat Act level
was enacted and village Panchayats were Reason (R) : Village panchayats are in a
established throughout the state. better position to have a proper appreciation
• The system later came to be known as of their developmental needs. 
Panchayati Raj, which was inaugurated by  (Year : 1990)
the then Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagour in correct explanation of A
Rajasthan. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a
• The first elections under the Rajasthan correct explanation of A
Panchayat Samitis and Zilla Parishads Act, (c) A is true but R is false
1959 were held in September-October 1959. (d) A is false but R is true
• With the already existing Panchayats at the
village level under the Rajasthan Panchayat Explanation : Answer - A
Act, 1953, the three-tier scheme of Panchayati • Panchayati Raj (Council of five officials)
Raj began functioning on 2 October 1959. is the system of local self-government of
54. Which of the following States are not villages in rural India as opposed to urban
covered by the Panchayati Raj ?  and suburban municipalities.
 (Year : 1986) • It consists of the Panchayati Raj Institutions
(PRIs) through which the self-government of
(a) Tripura and Sikkim villages is realized.
(b) Manipur and Assam • They are tasked with “economic
(c) Meghalaya and Nagaland development, strengthening social justice
(d) Assam and West Bengal and implementation of Central and State
Government Schemes including those 29
subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule.”

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• Part IX of the Indian Constitution is the 29 subjects listed in the eleventh schedule
section of the Constitution relating to the of the constitution, and the ability to levy
Panchayats. and collect appropriate taxes, duties,
• It stipulates that in states or Union tolls, and fees.
Territories with more than two million • The Act aims
inhabitants there are three levels of PRIs : »» to provide a three-tier system of
»» The Gram Panchayats at village level Panchayati Raj for all states having a
»» The Panchayat Samiti at the block level population of over two million, to hold
»» The Zila Parishad at the district level. Panchayat elections regularly every five
• In India, the Panchayati Raj now functions years,
as a system of governance in which gram »» to provide seats reserved for scheduled
panchayats are the basic units of local castes, scheduled tribes, and women,
administration. »» to appoint a State Finance Commission
• The system has three levels : Gram Panchayat to make recommendations regarding
(village level), Mandal Parishad or Block the financial powers of the Panchayats,
Samiti or Panchayat Samiti (block level), and to constitute a District Planning
and Zila Parishad (district level). Currently, Committee.
the Panchayati Raj system exists in all states 56. Holding of elections for the Panchayats is
except Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, decided by  (Year : 1990 /1991)
and in all Union Territories except Delhi.
(a) The District Magistrate
• The Panchayats receive funds from three
sources: (b) Constitutional mandate
»» Local body grants, as recommended (c) The State Government
by the Central Finance Commission (d) The Election Commission
Funds for implementation of centrally Explanation : Answer - C
sponsored schemes.
»» Funds released by the state governments • The State Governments are responsible
on the recommendations of the State for the purpose of holding the Panchayat
Finance Commissions. Elections.
»» On 24 April 1993, the Constitutional • The State Election commission manages
(73rd Amendment) Act of 1992 came into the whole and Sole authority of managing
force in India to provide constitutional the Panchayat Elections according to the
status to the Panchayati Raj institutions. guidelines of the State Government.
• This amendment was extended to Pan- • Panchayat elections are held in the States
chayats in the tribal areas of eight states, where Part IX of the Constitution applies as
namely : mandated by the Constitution.
»» Andhra Pradesh • The Panchayat election is dealt with in
»» Gujarat Article - 243K of the Constitution of India in
»» Himachal Pradesh its clause 1.
»» Maharashtra
»» Madhya Pradesh, 57. Of the various sources of income to the
»» Odisha, and Rajasthan Gram Panchayats, one source is 
»» beginning on 24 December 1996.  (Year : 1991)
»» This amendment contains provisions (a) Income tax
for the devolution of powers and
(b) Sales tax
responsibilities to the panchayats,
both for the preparation of economic (c) Professional tax
development plans and social justice, as (d) Levy duties
well as for implementation in relation to

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Explanation : Answer - C • Panchayati Raj Act came into force on 24th
April 1993.
• The sources of income of the village Panchayat
(gram Panchayat) may be divided into some • April 24th is observed as the national
broad headings. Each Gram Panchayat has Panchayati Raj Day since 2010.
its own fund. • Important committees constituted for
• The Panchayati Raj generally refers to the recommendations regarding Panchayati
local self-government of villages in rural Raj in India:
India as opposed to urban and suburban »» Balwant Rai Mehta committee.
municipalities, this system was introduced »» V.T. Krishnammachari committee.
by a constitutional amendment in 1992. »» Ashok Mehta Committee.
• Taxes in Village Panchayats are: »» G.V.K. Rao Committee.
»» L.M. Singhvi Committee.
»» House Tax.
»» P.K. Thungon Committee.
»» Profession Tax.
»» Vehicle Tax. • One of the primary suggestions of the Balwant
Rai Mehta committee is the formation of a
• Tax on agricultural land and for specific
three-tier Panchayati Raj structure.
purposes. Water Tax.
• The 3-tier system recommended by this
58. What is the system of governance in the committee are:
Panchayati Raj setup?  (Year : 1996) »» Gram Panchayat at the village level.
(a) Single tier structure of local self »» Panchayat Samiti at the block level.
government at the village level »» Zila Parishad at the district level.
(b) Two tier system of local self government 59. Which one of the following was NOT
at the village and block levels proposed by the 73rd Constitutional
(c) Three tier structure of local self Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?
government, at the village, block and  (Year : 1997)
district levels (a) Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural
(d) Four tier system of local self government local bodies will be reserved for women
at the village, block, district and state candidates at all levels
levels (b) The States will constitute their Finance
Explanation : Answer - C Commissions to allocate resources to
Panchayati Raj Institutions
• Panchayati Raj is a system of local self-
government. (c) The Panchayati Raj elected
functionaries will be disqualified to
»» District Level Panchayat
hold their offices if they have more
»» Block Level Panchayat
than two children
»» Village Level Panchayat
• Panchayati Raj is a system of governance in (d) The elections will be held in six months
which Gram Panchayat are the basic units of time if Panchayati Raj bodies are
administration. superceded or dissolved by the State
government
• The Panchayati raj system was given
constitutional standing by the Indian Explanation : Answer - C
constitution’s 73rd Amendment Act. The • Option A : This choice is mistaken in light
73rd amendment act added a new Part of the fact that “Presentation of reservation
IX and Article 243 to 243 O to the Indian of 33% of complete number of seats and
Constitution. workplaces for ladies with arrangement for
• The term Panchayati raj was coined by pivot” was proposed in 73rd amendment.
Jawahar Lal Nehru. • Option B : This choice is inaccurate
on the grounds that “Foundation of a

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quinquennial State Finance Commission to 61. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in
suggest devolution of assets from the State 1993, there are several fresh provisions
Government to the rustic and metropolitan deviating from the past. Which one of the
Local Bodies” was proposed in the 73rd following is not one such provision? 
amendment.  (Year : 1999)
• Option C : This choice is totally right on the (a) A number of added responsibilities
grounds that there was no such alteration in the area of agriculture, rural
proposed. development, primary education and
• Option D : This choice is wrong since social forestry among others.
“Compulsory direct of Local Body decisions (b) Elections being made mandatory for
at regular intervals and lead of races before all posts at the time they are due.
the expiry of the term of the Local Body or
before the expiry of a time of a half year from (c) A statutory representation for women
the date of its disintegration” was proposed in the panchayats, upto a third of the
in 73rd amendment. strength.
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat
60. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in members, so as to ensure their
India in October, 1959 in  (Year : 1998) punctuality and accountability.
(a) Rajasthan Explanation : Answer - D
(b) Tamil Nadu • Regular remuneration to the panchayat
(c) Kerala members, so as to ensure their punctuality
(d) Karnataka and accountability” is not included under
Explanation : Answer - A 73rd Amendment Act 1993.
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
• After the Constitution came into force, 1992 has added a new Part IX to the Indian
Article 40 made a mention of panchayats, and constitution titled “The Panchayats”.
Article 246 empowers the state legislature to
• The new Part covers provisions from Article
legislate with respect to any subject relating
243 to 243(O)
to local self-government.
• It also introduced the 11th Schedule covering
• In 1953, the Rajasthan Panchayat Act
29 subjects within the functions of the
was enacted and village Panchayats were
Panchayats.
established throughout the state.
• The core objective behind the amendment;
• The system later came to be known as
Panchayati Raj, which was inaugurated by • Provide adequate autonomy to local
the then Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal governments.
Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagour in • Provide adequate powers to take decisions in
Rajasthan. matters transferred to local governments.
• The first elections under the Rajasthan • Devolution of functions, finance and
Panchayat Samitis and Zilla Parishads Act, functionaries.
1959 were held in September-October 1959. • Ensuring social justice and local economic
• With the already existing Panchayats at the development.
village level under the Rajasthan Panchayat • To cover all aspects of rural development and
Act, 1953, the three-tier scheme of Panchayati human development.
Raj began functioning on 2 October 1959. • The Amendment Act implemented article 40
of the DPSPs which states that the “State shall
take steps to organize village panchayats and
endow them with such powers and authority
as may be necessary to enable them to
function as units of self-government”.
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62. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, • The act provides for the reservation of not
1992 refers to the  (Year : 2000) less than one-third of the total number of
seats for women.
(a) Generation of gainful employment
for the unemployed and the 63. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to
underemployed men and women in be held within:  (Year : 2009)
rural area
A) 1 month
(b) Generation of employment for the
B) 3 months
able bodied adults who are in need
and desirous of work during the lean C) 6 months
agricultural season D) 1 year
(c) Laying the foundation for strong and Explanation : Answer - C
vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in
• If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to
the country (Answer)
be held within six months from the date
(d) Guarantee of right to life, liberty and of dissolution. The term Panchayati Raj in
security of person, equality before India signifies the system of rural local self-
law and equal protection without government.
discrimination
• It had been established after the advice of
Explanation : Answer - C the Balwant Rai Mehta committee, which
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is established by the Govt. of India in 1957.
1992 added a new Part-IX to the Constitution This committee has three-tier panchayat
of India. This part is entitled ‘The Panchayats’ governance such as Gram Panchayat,
and consists of provisions from Articles 243 Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad.
to 243 O. • As a result of this scheme the first Panchayat
• The Act gives constitutional status to the system introduced in Rajasthan in 1959.
Panchayati raj institutions. This system observed a lack of people’s
participation.
• The state governments are under
constitutional obligation to adopt the new • To overcome this failure a new committee
Panchayati raj system in accordance with the named Ashok Mehta committee gives a
provisions of the act. two-tier governance plan in 1977. The two-
tier plan was Zila Parishad and Mandal
• The act provides for a Gram Sabha as the
Panchayat.
foundation of the Panchayati raj system.
• This Panchayati Raj faced a major
• The act provides for a three-tier system
constitutional amendment in 1992 that
of Panchayati raj in every state, that is,
brings back the three-tier system again.
panchayats at the village, intermediate, and
This amendment added a new part to the
district levels.
Constitution, namely, added Part IX titled
• All the members of panchayats at the village, The Panchayats.
intermediate and district levels shall be
• This amendment adds a Three-tier system
elected directly by the people.
of panchayats at the village, intermediate
• Further, the chairperson of panchayats at Mandal, and district levels except in States
the intermediate and district levels shall be with a population is below 20 lakhs (Article
elected indirectly—by and from amongst the 243B)
elected members thereof.
• The Panchayat is constituted under Article
• The act provides for the reservation of seats 243 to 243 (O).
for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in
every panchayat (i.e., at all the three levels)
in the proportion of their population to the
total population in the panchayat area.

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64. The constitution (73rd amendment) planning committee to consolidate
Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the the plans prepared by panchayats and
Panchayati Raj institutions in the country, municipalities in the District and to
provides for which of the following? (Year prepare a draft development plan for
: 2011) District as a whole. This provision is
mandated by the 74th constitutional
1) Constitution of district planning amendment act, 1992. This provision
committees. deals with the Urban Local bodies,
2) State election commissions to conduct Article 243-ZD. Hence, statement 1 is
all panchayat elections. incorrect.
3) Establishment of state finance 65. The fundamental object of Panchayati
commission. Raj system is to ensure which among the
State the correct answer using the codes following?  (Year : 2015)
given below :
1) People’s participation in development
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2) Political accountability
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3) Democratic decentralization
Explanation : Answer - C 4) Financial mobilization
The salient features of the act are : Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
1) Gram Sabha - It is a body consisting of
persons registered in the electoral rolls (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
of a village comprised within the area (b) 2 and 4 only
of Panchayat at the village level. (c) 1 and 3 only
2) Three -Tier System - The act provides (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
for a three-tier system of Panchayati Explanation : Answer - C
raj in every state, that is, panchayats at
the village, intermediate, and district • The Panchayati Raj institutions are meant
levels. State Election Commission to promote grass-root democracy and
to hold Election of Members and development.
Chairpersons at every level. Hence, • Its aim is to evolve a system of democratic
statement 2 is correct. decentralization and people’s participation
3) Reservation of Seats with a view to ensure rapid, speedy socio-
4) Duration of Panchayats - The act economic progress and provide adequate
provides for a five-year term of office justice. Hence statement 1 and 3 is correct.
to the panchayat at every level. • Political accountability can be achieved in
5) State Election Commission - The any system with democratic rule. Hence
superintendence, direction and control statement 2 is incorrect.
of the preparation of electoral rolls Value Addition
and the conduct of all elections to • A committee constituted in 1957 by the
the panchayats shall be vested in the National Development Council which was
state election commission. Hence, headed by Balwant Rai Mehta suggested a
statement 3 is correct. three-tier PRIs, namely, Grama Panchayats
6) Finance Commission - The governor (GPs) at the village level, Panchayat Samiti
of a state shall, after every five years, (PSs) at the block level, and Zilla Parishad
constitute a finance committee to (ZPs) at the district level.
review the financial position of the • L.M.Singhvi committee in 1986
panchayats. Every state shall constitute recommended constitutional status to the
at the District level, a District panchayats.

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• The Panchayat Raj System was first established 64th Constitutional Amendment
in the state of Rajasthan in Nagaur district
• Article 356 amended to permit President’s
on 2nd Oct 1959 while the second state was
rule up to three years and six months in the
Andhra Pradesh. Resource mobilization is an
state of Punjab.
outcome of PRI, not an objective of PRI.
Thematic Repetitive Topic - DPSP 67. Directive Principles of State Policy are
included in which part of the Indian
66. Which Amendment of the Constitution Constitution?  (Year : 1982)
gave priority to Directive Principles over
Fundamental Rights?  (a) Part IV
 (Year : 1981/1986) (b) Part III
(c) Part II
(a) 36th Amendment
(d) Part I
(b) 38th Amendment
(c) 40th Amendment Explanation : Answer - A
(d) 42nd Amendment • The Sapru Committee in 1945 suggested
two categories of individual rights. One
Explanation : Answer - D
being justiciable and the other being non-
• Principles of State Policy over Fundamental justiciable rights.
Rights : • The justiciable rights, as we know, are the
»» 42nd amendment states, “no law Fundamental rights, whereas the non-
implementing any of the Directive justiciable ones are the Directive Principles
Principles could be declared of State Policy.
unconstitutional on the grounds that it • DPSP are ideals which are meant to be kept in
violated any of the Fundamental Rights”. mind by the state when it formulates policies
»» This constitutional amendment is also and enacts laws.
called a Mini-Constitution.
• There are various definitions to Directive
42nd Constitutional Amendment Principles of State which are given below:
• The 42nd Amendment gave primacy to the »» They are an ‘instrument of instructions’
Directive Principles, by stating that “no law which are enumerated in the Government
implementing any of the Directive Principles of India Act, 1935.
could be declared unconstitutional on »» They seek to establish economic and
the grounds that it violated any of the social democracy in the country.
Fundamental Rights”. »» DPSPs are ideals which are not legally
enforceable by the courts for their
• This amendment added Socialist, Secular in
violation.
the Preamble, Fundamental duties in Part
IVA, Tribunal Part XIV A, and many more 68. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive
amendments to the constitution therefore this Principles of State Policy in the Indian
amendment also called Mini-Constitution. Constitution is to establish: (Year : 2002)
62nd Constitutional Amendment (a) political democracy
• Extend reservation for SCs and STs and (b) social democracy
nomination of Anglo Indian members in (c) Gandhian democracy
Parliament and State Assemblies for another (d) social and economic democracy
ten years i.e. up to 2000.
Explanation : Answer - D
• (In January 2020, the Anglo-Indian reserved
seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures • The purpose of the inclusion of Directive
of India were abolished by the 104th Principles of State Policy in the Indian
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.) Constitution is to establish social and

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economic democracy. and wildlife The State shall endeavor to
• Directive Principles are mentioned in Part protect and improve the environment and
IV from Article 36 to Article 51 of the Indian to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the
Constitution. country.
• These principles differ from fundamental • Article 43A: The State shall take steps, by
rights which are discussed in an earlier suitable legislation or in any other way,
chapter. While fundamental rights are to secure the participation of workers
enforceable, Directive Principles are not in the management of undertakings,
enforceable by the courts. establishments, or other organizations
• Directive principles are in the nature engaged in any industry.
of instruments of instructions to the • Article 41: Right to work, to education and
government of the day to do something to public assistance in certain cases The
positive. Directive Principles are directions State shall, within the limits of its economic
given by the constitution to the state. capacity and development, make effective
• Directive Principles attempt to provide socio- provision for securing the right to work, to
economic foundations to Indian democracy. education and to public assistance in cases
of unemployment, old age, sickness and
• The Directive Principles are non-justiciable disablement, and in other cases of undeserved
by the judicial process does not mean that want.
they are of subordinate importance.
70. Which of the following is/are included in
69. Which one of the following Articles of the the Directive Principles of State policy?
Directive Principles of State Policy deals  (Year : 2008)
with the promotion of international peace
and security?  (Year : 2002) 1) Prohibition of traffic in human beings
and forced labour
(a) 51 (b) 48 A
2) Prohibition of Consumption except
(c) 43 A (d) 41 for medicinal purposes of intoxicating
Explanation : Answer - A drinks and of other drugs which are
injurious to health
• Article 51 of the Directive Principles of
State Policy deals with the promotion of Select the correct answer using the code
international peace and security. given below :
Key Points (a) 1 Only
• Article 51 : Promotion of international peace (b) 2 Only
and security The State shall endeavor to: (c) Both 1 and 2 Only
(a) promote international peace and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
security; Explanation : Answer - B
(b) maintain just and honorable relations
• Articles 36-51 under Part-IV of the Indian
between nations;
Constitution deal with Directive Principles
(c) foster respect for international law of State Policy (DPSP). They are borrowed
and treaty obligations in the dealings from the Constitution of Ireland.
of organized peoples with one
• Indian Constitution has not originally
another; and encourage settlement of
classified DPSPs but on the basis of their
international disputes by arbitration
content and direction.
Part IVA Fundamental Duties.
• They are usually classified into three types-
Value Addition Socialistic Principles :
• Article 48A: Protection and improvement 1) Gandhian Principles
of environment and safeguarding of forests
2) Liberal-Intellectual Principles

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3) Article 47 of the DPSP deals with 3600 Coverage - DPSP
Prohibition of the consumption except • They are the constitutional instructions or
for medical purposes of intoxicating recommendations to the State in legislative,
drinks and of other drugs which are executive and administrative matters where
injurious to health. the phrase ‘Directive Principles of State
• Article 23 of the Fundamental Rights deals Policy’ denotes the ideals that the ‘State’ (as
with the Prohibition of Traffic in human defined in Article 36) should keep in mind
beings and forced labour. while formulating policies and enacting laws.
• Article 16 of the Fundamental Rights deals • They resemble the ‘Instrument of
with equality of opportunity in matters of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government
public employment and prevents the State of India Act of 1935; in Hon. Dr. Ambedkar’s
from any sort of discrimination on the words the Directive Principles are like the
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, instrument of instructions, which were
place of birth, residence, or any of them. issued to the Governor-General and to the
71. Consider the following statements Governors of the colonies of India by the
regarding the Directive Principles of State British Government and is merely another
Policy:  (Year : 2015) name for the instrument of instructions with
only difference that they are instructions to
1) The Principles spell out the the legislature and the executive.
socioeconomic democracy in the • They constitute a very comprehensive
country. economic, social and political programme for
2) The provisions contained in these a modern democratic State to aim at realizing
Principles are not enforceable by any the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and
court. fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the
Which of the statements given above is/are Constitution which embody the concept of a
correct? ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’,
which existed during the colonial era i.e.
(a) 1 only
they seek to establish economic and social
(b) 2 only democracy in the country. Hence, Statement
(c) Both 1 and 2 1 is correct.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 • They are non-justiciable in nature i.e. they
Explanation : Answer - C are not legally enforceable by the courts for
their violation and therefore, the government
• The Directive Principles of State Policy are (central, state and local) cannot be compelled
enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution to implement them but the Constitution (in
from Articles 36 to 51. Article 37) itself says that these principles are
• This idea was borrowed from the Irish nevertheless fundamental in the governance
Constitution of 1937, which had copied it of the country and it shall be the duty of the
from the Spanish Constitution. State to apply these principles in making
• These principles were described as ‘novel laws. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
features’ of the Indian Constitution by • Though non-justiciable in nature, they help
Dr BR Ambedkar and along with the the courts in examining and determining
Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy the constitutional validity of a law, as the
of the Constitution and is the soul of Supreme Court has many times ruled that if
the Constitution, also described as the a court finds that the law in question seeks
‘Conscience of the Constitution’. to give effect to a Directive Principle, it
may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in
relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or
Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such
law from unconstitutionality.
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members in the Council were different. They
opposed it at every stage, raising procedural
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC :
and constitutional objections. The opposition
Legislative Council of State members described the Chief Minister as the
72. Which of the following States in India has “murderer” of democracy.
no Legislative Council?  (Year : 1979) 74. What is the minimum percentage of the
(a) Tamil Nadu strength of opposition required in a State
legislature for the appointment of an
(b) Bihar
opposition leader?  (Year : 1985)
(c) West Bengal
(d) Maharashtra (a) 20%
(b) 25%
Explanation : Answer - C
(c) 40%
• Note: The Legislative Council of Tamil Nadu
(d) None of the above
had been abolished in 1986. (This question is
of 1979) Explanation : Answer - D
• In 2010, the Legislative Assembly of Tamil • minimum 10% of seats is needed by a
Nadu passed a resolution for the revival of party to act as the opposition party in the
the Legislative Council in the state. legislature. Official Opposition is a term used
• Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the in India to designate the political party which
Tamil Nadu Legislative Council Act, 2010 has secured the largest number of seats in the
which provided for the creation of Legislative Lower House of parliament (Lok Sabha) but
Council in the state. is not a part of the ruling party or coalition.
• However, before this Act was enforced, the This party forms the opposition party in the
Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu passed Parliament.
another resolution in 2011 seeking the 75. If the Speaker of the State Legislative
abolition of the proposed Legislative Council. Assembly decides to resign, he should
• Legislative Council of Telangana has been in submit his resignation to the (Year : 1986)
existence from Jun 2, 2014 after bifurcation
from the state of Andhra Pradesh. (a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
73. certain bill was passed by a State legislature
(c) Judge of the High Court
in August 1982 but did not receive the
assent of the State Governor. It was  (d) President
 (Year : 1983) Explanation : Answer - B
(a) Bihar Press Bill • The Speaker of the House of the Legislative
(b) Jammu & Kashmir Resettlement Bill Assembly of a state submits his resignation
(c) Tamil Nadu Press bill to the governor of the state. The Governor of
the state is a nominated by the president.
(d) Orissa Land Reforms Bill
• As the speaker submits his resignation to the
Explanation : Answer - A Governor.
• The controversial Bihar Press Bill, which • Let’s talk about the governor :
amends provisions of the Indian Penal Code »» The governor of a state is appointed by
and the Code of Criminal Procedure to deal the president.
with “indecent or scurrilous” reports, was »» A person to become a Governor should
adopted in the Bihar Council amid uproar. be a citizen of India and has completed
• The bill was passed by the Assembly on July the age of 35.
31 in the midst of loud protests from the »» Maximum tenure of governor is 5 years.
Opposition. But the tactics of opposition

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76. Which one of the following correctly 77. If in an election to a State Legislative
reflects the position of the Upper House Assembly the candidate who is declared
of the State legislature as compared to elected loses his deposit, it means that
the position of the Upper House of the  (Year : 1995)
Parliament?  (Year : 1992)
(a) the polling was very poor
(a) While one-third of the members of (b) the election was for a multimember
the Rajya Sabha retire every second constituency
year, one-fourth of the members of (c) the elected candidate’s victory over his
the Legislative Council retire every nearest rival was very marginal
eighteen months
(d) a very large number of candidates
(b) There is no provision for a joint sitting contested the election
of the Legislative Assembly and the
Legislative Council in the States for Explanation : Answer - D
resolving deadlocks while there is • According to the Representation of People
such a provision in the case of the two Act, 1951, it is mandatory for every candidate
Houses of Parliament contesting a Parliamentary or Assembly
(c) While no Bill other than a Money Bill election to deposit a certain security amount.
can originate in the State Legislative • To contest a Parliamentary election, the
Council, no Bill can originate in the amount is Rs 25,000 and in case of an
Rajya Sabha Assembly election, it is Rs 10,000.
(d) While Rajya Sabha has twelve • This amount is deposited with the Election
nominated members, the State Commission and is called a security deposit
Legislative Council has none in the election. The deposit amount is
Explanation : Answer - B mandated to ensure only serious candidates
file nomination to contest elections.
• Joint sitting is an extraordinary provision
provided by the constitution to resolve a • The Election Commission of India takes many
deadlock between the two Houses over a steps to conduct free and fair parliamentary
bill. Deadlock occurs if a bill is passed by and assembly elections in the country. So the
one house and transmitted to others and it deposit of security amount is one of them.
has rejected by the other house, or there are 78. Which of the following Constitution
disagreements or if more than 6 months have Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the
passed without passing of bill. Councils of Ministers at the Centre and
• This provisions is for Parliament only and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of
not for State Legislature having bicameral the total number of members in the Lok
legislatures. Because Rajya Sabha is a Sabha and the total numbers of members
mandatory House and complementary to the of the Legislative Assembly of that state,
Lok Sabha while it is not in the case of State respectively?  (Year : 2007)
legislature. Legislative council may or may
(a) 91st
not exist with legislative Assembly.
(b) 93rd
• One third members of the Rajya Sabha and
Legislative Council retire every second year. (c) 95th
• Only Ordinary bill can be originated in either (d) 97th
house of the Parliament or either house of Explanation : Answer - A
State legislature.
• Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003:
while 1/6 of the total members in legislative • Made the following provisions to limit
council are nominated by the Governor. the size of Council of Ministers, to debar

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defectors from holding public offices, and to Article 75:
strengthen the anti-defection law.
• They are appointed by the President on the
• The total number of ministers, including the advice of Prime Minister.
Prime Minister, in the Central Council of
• They along with the Prime Minister of India
Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total
form 15% of the total strength of the lower
strength of the LokSabha.
house i.e. Lok Sabha (The number cannot
• A member of either house of Parliament exceed 15%) 91st Amendment Act provided
belonging to any political party who is for the disqualification of the minister
disqualified on the ground of defection shall when he stands disqualified as a member of
also be disqualified to be appointed as a Parliament.
minister. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• A Minister ceased to exist as one if he is not
• The total number of ministers, including the a member of either house of Parliament for
Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers six consecutive months. Parliament decides
in a state shall not exceed 15% of the total the salary and allowances of the council of
strength of the Legislative Assembly of that ministers.
state. But, the number of ministers, including
the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less 79. Consider the following statements : The
than 12. Constitution of India Provides that
• A member of either House of a state 1) The Legislative Assembly of each State
legislature belonging to any political party shall Consist of not more than 450
who is disqualified on the ground of defection members chosen by direct election
shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a from territorial constituencies in the
minister. State
• A member of either House of Parliament or 2) A person shall not be qualified to be
either House of a State Legislature belonging chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative
to any political party who is disqualified on the Assembly of a State if he/she is less
ground of defection shall also be disqualified than 25 years of age.
to hold any remunerative political post. Which of the statements given above is/are
• The expression “remunerative political correct? (Year : 2008)
post” means :-
(a) 1 Only
»» Any office under the central government
or a state government where the salary or (b) 2 Only
remuneration for such office is paid out (c) Both 1 and 2
of the public revenue of the concerned (d) Neither 1 nor 2
government; or
Explanation : Answer - B
»» Any office under a body, whether
incorporated or not, which is wholly • Subject to the provisions of Article 333,
or partially owned by the central the Legislative Assembly of each State shall
government or a state government, and consist of not more than five hundred, and
the salary or remuneration for such not less than sixty, members chosen by direct
office is paid by such body, except where election from territorial constituencies in the
such salary or remuneration paid is State.
compensatory in nature. • For the purposes of clause ( 1 ), each State
• The provision of the Tenth Schedule (anti- shall be divided into territorial constituencies
defection law) about the exemption from in such manner that the ratio between the
disqualification in case of split by one-third population of each constituency and the
of members of the legislature party has been number of seats allotted to it shall, so far
deleted. It means that the defectors have no as practicable, be the same throughout
more protection on grounds of splits. the State Explanation In this clause, the

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expression population means the population Members of the Legislative Council:
as ascertained at the last preceding census
• One-third of the MLCs are elected by the
of which the relevant figures have been
state’s MLAs.
published.
• Another 1/3rd by a special electorate
• Provided that the reference in this
comprising sitting members of local
Explanation to the last preceding census
governments such as municipalities and
of which the relevant figures have been
district boards, 1/12th by an electorate of
published shall, until the relevant figures for
teachers and another 1/12th by registered
the first census taken after the year 2000 have
graduates.
been published, be construed as a reference
to the 1971 census. • The remaining members are appointed by
the Governor for distinguished services in
80. 1) The Legislative Council of a State in various fields namely, literature, science, art,
India can be larger in size than half of the cooperative movement and social service.
Legislative Assembly of that particular
State. 
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
Prime Minister
2) The Governor of a State nominates the
Chairman of Legislative Council of that 81. Which one of the following statements is
particular State. correct? The Prime Minister of India 
 (Year : 1996)
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?  (Year : 2015) (a) Is free to choose his ministers only
from among those who are members
(a) 1 only
of either House of the Parliament
(b) 2 only
(b) Can choose his cabinet colleagues after
(c) Both 1 and 2 due counselling by the President of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 India in this regard
Explanation : Answer - D (c) Has full discretion in the choice of
persons who are to serve as ministers
• Legislative Council: in his cabinet
»» Under Article 171 of the Constitution,
(d) Has only limited powers in the choice
the size of the State Legislative Council
of his cabinet colleagues because of the
cannot be more than one-third of the
discretionary power vested with the
membership of the State Legislative
President of India.
Assembly.
»» However, the size of the legislative Explanation : Answer - C
council cannot be less than 40 members. • The Prime Minister has complete discretion
Hence statement 1 is incorrect. in the matter of appointment of cabinet
»» The tenure of a Member of the Legislative ministers provided the person so chosen
Council (MLC) is six years, with one- becomes a Member of Parliament (if not an
third of the members retiring every two MP at present) within a period of six months
years. It is a permanent body and is not from the date of appointment as provided in
subject to dissolution. Art.75(5).
• The tenure of a Member of the Legislative
• Hence PM has complete discretion to choose
Council (MLC) is six years, with one-third of
his ministers in the Cabinet not necessarily
the members retiring every two years.
from the two Houses of Parliament but can
• The Chairman of the Legislative Council is also choose any other person.
elected by the members from amongst itself.
• That person should become member of
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
either house within 6 months from the date
he enters the office.

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82. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to 2) Each of the Ministries is assigned to a
the Upper House of Parliament Minister by the President of India on
 (Year : 1997) the advice of the Prime Minister.
(a) He will not be able to vote in his favour Which of the statements given above is/
in the event of a noconfidence motion are correct? (Year : 2009)
(b) He will not be able to speak on the A) 1 only
Budget in the Lower House B) 2 only
(c) He can make statements only on the C) Both 1 and 2
Upper House D) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) He has to become a member of the Explanation : Answer - B
Lower House within six months after
being sworn in as the Prime Minister • Article 74 of the Indian Constitution addresses
Explanation : Answer - A the position of the Council of Ministers
(COM), whereas Article 75 addresses
Application Based Question the ministers’ appointment, obligation,
• The Prime Minister of India cannot tenure, vows, salaries, qualifications, and
participate in voting on a no-confidence reimbursements.
motion against her/his government if she/he • It does not encounter a structure to conduct
is a member of the Rajya Sabha. official government business. The Deputy
• The no-confidence motion is a motion that is Ministers and the other two categories of
introduced against the ruling government in ministers serve no collective purpose.
the elected house i.e Lok Sabha and not in the • The Council of ministers has all powers,
upper house i.e Rajya Sabha. but only in theory. The cabinet ascertains
• As it is a motion brought up only in Lok its processes and carries out the cabinet’s
Sabha, if the Prime Minister is a member of decisions.
Rajya Sabha, then she/he cannot vote in a • The ministers are cooperatively accountable
No-Confidence motion. to the Parliament’s Lower House (Lok
• Process for the No-Confidence Motion: Sabha). It is a larger body made up of 60 to
»» A requirement for the introduction of 70 government members
a No-Confidence motion is given to • The procedure for forming a state-level
the speaker of the house which is to be Council Of Ministers (COM) is similar to
supported by a minimum of 50 members. forming a Union COM.
»» The Speaker will give time within the next • Following every election, the group or party
10 days for discussion on the motion in with the most seats in the State Legislative
the house. Assembly appoints its leader.
»» After the discussion, the voting takes
• After that, the Governor instructs him
place.
to frame the ministry. In short, the Chief
»» If the No-Confidence Motion is passed
Minister is nominated by the leader of the
in the House the Council of Ministers
majority of the vote in the State Legislative
must resign as they have lost majority in
Assembly.
the House.
• Following this, the Chief Minister then
83. With reference to Union Government
appoints his cabinet. He discloses his list of
statements:
ministers to the Governor, who nominates
consider the following them as ministries officially.
1) The Ministries and Departments of the
Government of India are created by the
Prime Minister on the advice of the
Cabinet Secretary.

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84. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of 2) The “Prime Minister” is the ex officio
his/ her appointment  (Year : 2012) Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
1) Need not necessarily be a member of Which of the statements given above is/are
one of the Houses of the Parliament correct? (Year : 2015)
but must become a member of one of (a) 1 only
the Houses within six months (b) 2 only
2) Need not necessarily be a member of (c) Both 1 and 2
one of the Houses of the Parliament (d) Neither 1 nor 2
but must become a member of the Lok
Sabha within six months Explanation : Answer - D
3) Must be a member of one of the Houses • The Executive Powers of the Union of India
of the parliament is vested in the President.
4) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha • The Cabinet Secretary (and not the Prime
Explanation : Answer - A Minister) is the ex-officio head of the Civil
Services Board.
Prime Minister Appointment What is the Civil Services Board (CSB)?
• Article 75 - The Prime Minister is appointed • Civil Services Board is responsible for the
by the President, who also appoints other entry-level recruitment and subsequent job
ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. promotions below the rank of Joint Secretary.
• Article 75(1) - The Council is collectively • As per a state government notification
responsible to the Lok Sabha. dated June 2, CSB will be headed by Chief
• It is the duty of the Prime Minister to Secretary, with Personnel Secretary, and
communicate to the President all decisions either Financial Commissioner (Revenue) or
of Council of Ministers relating to the Home Secretary (who so ever is senior in the
administration of affairs of the Union and pecking order) as its members.
proposals for legislation and information • The board provides for the state to follow the
relating to them. Centre’s guidelines on giving a fixed tenure of
Important Points at least two years for cadre officers.
• President shall hold office for 5 years • They cannot be transferred before that and if
• He can also resign by writing under his hand anyone recommends their transfer then the
addressed to the Vice-President (doctrine of board will examine and affect it.
necessity) communicated to the Speaker. He • The final authority is the Chief Minister.
may also be impeached as per Article 61 for
violation of the constitution.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
• Presidential continue to hold his office until
his successor enters his office. President is
Supreme Court
eligible for re-election. 86. The appointment of the Judges of Supreme
• Qualification of president he is a citizen of Court is done by  (Year : 1991)
India. he must be of 35 years.
(a) The Prime Minister on the advice of
• he must be qualified for the election as a the Union Cabinet
member of the house of the people.
(b) The President in consultation with the
• he shall not hold any office of profit. Chief Justice of India
85. Consider the following statements:  (c) The Prime Minister in consultation
with the Chief Justice
1) The Executive Power of the Union of
India is vested in the “Prime Minister”. (d) The President in consultation with the
Law Commission of India

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Explanation : Answer - B • The Supreme Court may refuse to give its
opinion according to Article 143 in cases
• The Judges of the Supreme Court are
where it does not consider such an exercise
appointed by the President under Article
to be acceptable or unfavorable.
124(4) and 217 of the Constitution of India.
• Under Article 143 of the constitution the
• The Supreme Court judges are appointed on
President is allowed to seek the opinion of
the recommendation of the collegium. If the
the Supreme court on the following issues-
collegium approves the names, they are sent
Any topic of Law or fact of public Interest
to the President of India through the Union
government for appointments. • Any controversy resulting from any pre-
constitution treaty, agreement etc. The
87. Which of the following statements Supreme Court can, in the first case give or
regarding jurisdiction of the Supreme refuse to give its opinion, while in the second
Court are correct ?  (Year : 1994) case, it must give its advisory opinion. The
I) It is binding on the Supreme Court to guidance provided in this way is not binding
give its opinion on any matter referred on the President.
to it by the President. • The right answer to this is Option B i.e. I
II) The full bench of the Supreme Court and III
hears any reference made to it under its 88. The power of the Supreme Court of India
power of advisory jurisdiction. to decide disputes between the Centre and
III) The opinion given by the Supreme the States falls under its  (Year : 1996)
Court on a reference under advisory
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
jurisdiction is not binding on the
government. (b) Appellate jurisdiction
IV) Not more than one reference at a (c) Original jurisdiction
time can be made to the Supreme (d) Constitutional jurisdiction
Court under its power of advisory Explanation : Answer - C
jurisdiction.
Select the answer from the codes given • The power of the Supreme Court of India to
below: decide disputes between the center and the
states falls under its original jurisdiction.
Codes: • Original jurisdiction means the power to hear
(a) I and II (b) I and III and determine a dispute in the first instance.
(c) II and III (d) II and IV • It is under Article 131 of the Indian
Explanation : Answer - B Constitution.
• The Supreme Court has been given exclusive
• The supreme has advisory jurisdiction over original jurisdiction which extends to
matters that have been referred to it by the disputes:
President of India. It is under article 143 of »» between the Government of India and
the constitution. one or more States
• This enables the President to obtain the »» between the Government of India and
Supreme Court’s opinion on any question one or more States on one side and one
of law or matter of public interest which he or more States on the other between two
finds urgent. or more States.
• The opinion is only advisory, which the • However, this jurisdiction shall not extend to
President is free to follow or not to follow. a dispute arising out of the treaty, agreement,
However, while the opinion given may etc. which is in operation and excludes such
not be binding in the exercise of advisory jurisdiction. The jurisdiction is extremely
jurisdiction, it is entitled to considerable wide, provided the dispute is a justiciable
weight. one.

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Advisory Jurisdiction: India and one or more States or between the
Government of India and any State or States
• It is under Article 143 of the Constitution.
on one side and one or more States on the
• The Supreme Court has special advisory other or between two or more States.
jurisdiction in matters which may specifically
• Article 32 of the Constitution gives an
be referred to it by the President of India
extensive original jurisdiction to the
under Article 143 of the Constitution.
Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of
Appellate Jurisdiction: Fundamental Rights.
• The Supreme Court has also a very wide • The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme
appellate jurisdiction over all Courts and Court can be invoked by a certificate granted
Tribunals in India in as much as it may, in its by the High Court concerned under Article
discretion, grant special leave to appeal under 132(1), 133(1) or 134 of the Constitution in
Article 136 of the Constitution from any respect of any judgement, decree or final order
judgment, decree, determination, sentence, of a High Court in both civil and criminal
or order in any cause or matter passed or cases, involving substantial questions of law
made by any Court. as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
• Writ Jurisdiction : • The Supreme Court has special advisory
»» A person whose right is infringed by jurisdiction in matters which may specifically
an arbitrary administrative action may be referred to it by the President of India
approach the Court for an appropriate under Article 143 of the Constitution.
remedy. 90. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of
»» The Constitution of India, under Arti- the Supreme Court of India with respect
cles 32 and 226 confers writ jurisdiction to any matter included in the Union List of
on Supreme Court and High Courts, re- Legislative Powers rests with 
spectively for enforcement/protection of  (Year : 2003)
fundamental rights of an Individual.
(a) The President of India
89. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice
(b) The Chief Justice of India
to the President on a matter of law or fact
 (Year : 2001) (c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, justice and
(a) On its own initative Company Affairs
(b) Only if he seeks such advice
Explanation : Answer - C
(c) Only if the matter relates to the
Fundamental Rights of citizens • The Parliament can enlarge the jurisdiction
(d) Only if the issue poses a threat to the and power of the Supreme Court on any
unity and integrity of the country. matter in the Union List.
• Jurisdiction is the power of a state to affect
Explanation : Answer - B persons, property, and circumstances within
• Supreme Court acts as an advisor to the its territory.It may be exercised through
President of India only when the President legislative, executive, and judicial actions.
asks for such advice. It is not binding on the • An example of jurisdiction is a court having
President. control over legal decisions made about
• It is under Article 143 - Advisory Jurisdiction. certain groups of towns.
Jurisdiction of Supreme Court • A Parliament is a legislative body of
government.
• The Supreme Court has original, appellate • Generally, a modern parliament has three
and advisory jurisdiction. functions:
• Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends
1) Representing the Electorate.
to any dispute between the Government of

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2) Making laws • The President may, notwithstanding anything
3) Overseeing the government via in the proviso to article 131, refer to a dispute
hearings and inquiries. of the kind mentioned in the said proviso
to the Supreme Court for opinion and the
91. Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court shall, after such hearing as it
Supreme Court of India tenders advice to thinks fit, report to the President its opinion
the President of India on matters of law or thereon.
fact. (Year : 2010)
• Essential aspects of Advisory Jurisdiction
1) On its own initiative (on any matter of of the Supreme Court :
larger public interest). • Article 143 does not speak of the
2) If he seeks such an advice. administration of justice or any adjudication.
3) Only if the matters relate to the It is not adjudication but consultation, an
Fundamental Rights of the citizens. advisory function designed to assist the
Which of the statements given above is/are President (the Executive).
correct? • Accordingly, there is to be no judgment,
decree, or order but opinion to be forwarded
(a) 1 only
to the President in a report.
(b) 2 only
• Its scope is, however, wider, as it provides
(c) 3 only that any question of law or fact of public
(d) 1 and 2 only importance may be referred by the President
Explanation : Answer - B for the consideration of the Supreme Court
• The opinion of the Supreme Court is only
• The supreme court of India tenders advice to advisory and not binding. The President is
the President of India on matters of law or free to follow or not to follow.
fact if he seeks such advice. Hence, statement
1 is Not correct. Article 143 of the Indian 92. What is the provision to safeguard the
Constitution confers upon the Supreme autonomy of the supreme court of India?
Court advisory jurisdiction.  (Year : 2012)
• According to Article 143 of the Indian 1) While appointing the Supreme Court
Constitution, the President may seek the judges, the president of India has to
opinion of the Supreme Court on any consult the CJI.
question of law or fact of public importance
2) The SC judges can be removed by the
on which he thinks it expedient to obtain such
CJI only
an opinion. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
3) The salaries of judges are charged on
• The President of India may seek advice on
the consolidated fund of India to which
any matters of law or fact. Hence, statement
the legislature does not have to vote.
3 is Not correct.
4) All appointments of officers and staffs
Value Addition of the SC are made by the govt only
• Article 143 - Power of President to consult after CJI
Supreme Court:- Which of the statements given above is/are
• If at any time it appears to the President that correct?
a question of law or fact has arisen, or is a) 1 and 3 only
likely to arise, which is of such a nature and
b) 3 and 4 only
of such public importance that it is expedient
to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court c) 4 only
upon it, he may refer the question to that d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Court for consideration and the Court may, Explanation : Answer - A
after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to
the President its opinion thereon. • The Constitution has made the following

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provisions to safeguard and ensure the • Ban on Practice after Retirement
independent and impartial functioning of »» The retired judges of the Supreme Court
the Supreme Court : are prohibited from pleading or acting in
• Mode of Appointment: any Court or before any authority within
»» The judges of the Supreme Court are the territory of India. This ensures that
appointed by the President (which they do not favour anyone in the hope of
means the cabinet) in consultation with future favour.
the members of the judiciary itself (ie, • Power to Punish for its Contempt
judges of the Supreme Court and the high »» The Supreme Court can punish any
courts). Hence statement 1 is correct. person for its contempt.
»» This provision curtails the absolute »» Thus, its actions and decisions cannot be
discretion of the executive as well as criticised and opposed by anybody.
ensures that the judicial appointments »» This power is vested in the Supreme
are not based on any political or practical Court to maintain its authority, dignity
considerations. and honour. Freedom to Appoint its
»» SC Judge can be removed by his office by Staff.
an order of President. He can order for »» The Chief Justice of India can appoint
removal of SC Judge only after an address officers and servants of the Supreme
by Parliament has been presented to him Court without any interference from the
in the same session for such removal. executive. He can also prescribe their
Hence statement 2 is incorrect. conditions of service. Hence statement
• Security of Tenure: 4 is incorrect.
»» The judges of the Supreme Court are • Its Jurisdiction cannot be Curtailed
provided with the Security of Tenure. »» The Parliament is not authorised to
»» They can be removed from office by the curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the
President only in the manner and on the Supreme Court.
grounds mentioned in the Constitution. »» The Constitution has guaranteed to
»» This means that they do not hold the Supreme Court, the jurisdiction of
their office during the pleasure of the various kinds.
President, though they are appointed by »» However, Parliament can extend the
him. same. Separation from Executive
»» This is obvious from the fact that no judge »» The Constitution directs the State to take
of the Supreme Court has been removed steps to separate the Judiciary from the
(or impeached) so far. Expenses Charged Executive in the public services.
on Consolidated Fund »» This means that the executive authorities
»» The salaries, allowances and pensions of should not possess judicial powers.
the judges and the staff as well as all the »» Consequently, upon its implementation,
administrative expenses of the Supreme the role of executive authorities in
Court are charged on the Consolidated judicial administration came to an end.
Fund of India. • Fixed Service Conditions
»» Thus, they are non-votable by the
»» The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave
Parliament (though they can be discussed
and pension of the judges of the Supreme
by it). Hence statement 3 is correct.
Court are determined from time to
• Conduct of Judges cannot be Discussed time by the Parliament. They cannot be
»» The Constitution prohibits any changed to their disadvantage after their
discussion in Parliament or in a State appointment except during a financial
Legislature with respect to the conduct emergency. Thus, the conditions of
of the judges of the Supreme Court in service of the judges of the Supreme
the discharge of their duties, except Court remain the same during their term
when an impeachment motion is under of office.
consideration of the Parliament.
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93. Which of the following are included in 94. The power of the Supreme Court of India
the original jurisdiction of the Supreme to decide disputes between the Centre and
Court?  (Year : 2012) the States falls under its  (Year : 2014)
1) Dispute between the Government of (a) Advisory jurisdiction
India and one or more States (b) Appellate jurisdiction.
2) A dispute regarding elections to either (c) Original jurisdiction
House of the parliament or that of (d) Writ jurisdiction
Legislature of a State
3) A dispute between the Government of Explanation : Answer - C
India and Union Territory • The power of the Supreme Court of India to
4) A disputes between two or more States. decide disputes between the center and the
Select the correct answer using the codes states falls under its original jurisdiction.
given below: • Original jurisdiction means the power to hear
and determine a dispute in the first instance.
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
• It is under Article 131 of the Indian
c) 1 and 4 d) 3 and 4
Constitution.
Explanation : Answer - C • The Supreme Court has been given exclusive
• Article-131: Original Jurisdiction: original jurisdiction which extends to
»» The SC (as a federal court of India) disputes:
possesses Original jurisdiction to »» between the Government of India and
decide the disputes arising between one or more States
different units of the Indian Federation »» between the Government of India and
like: Centre and one or more states; or one or more States on one side and one
Centre & any state (s) on one side and or more States on the other between two
one or more states on the other; or Two or more States.
or more states. »» However, this jurisdiction shall not
»» Original jurisdiction of the Supreme extend to a dispute arising out of the
Court extends to any dispute between treaty, agreement, etc. which is in
the Government of India and one or operation and excludes such jurisdiction.
more States. The jurisdiction is extremely wide,
»» Between the Government of India and provided the dispute is a justiciable one.
any State or States on one side and one or Value Addition
more States on the other or between two • Advisory Jurisdiction:
or more States, if insofar as the dispute
»» It is under Article 143 of the Constitution.
involves any question (whether of law or
»» The Supreme Court has special advisory
of fact) on which the existence or extent
jurisdiction in matters which may
of a legal right depends.
specifically be referred to it by the
»» In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution
President of India under Article 143 of
of India gives an extensive original
the Constitution.
jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in
• Appellate Jurisdiction:
regard to enforcement of Fundamental
Rights. »» The Supreme Court has also a very wide
»» It is empowered to issue directions, appellate jurisdiction over all Courts
orders or writs, including writs in the and Tribunals in India in as much as
nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, it may, in its discretion, grant special
prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari leave to appeal under Article 136 of the
to enforce them. Constitution from any judgment, decree,
determination, sentence, or order in any
cause or matter passed or made by any
Court.
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• Writ Jurisdiction: • The Legislature and the Executive participate
»» A person whose right is infringed by directly in the law-making process but it’s the
an arbitrary administrative action may judiciary that safeguards Public Interest by
approach the Court for an appropriate checking into overreach, misuse, and error
remedy. of law.
»» The Constitution of India, under Articles • The Supreme Court is also an interpreter and
32 and 226 confers writ jurisdiction Guardian of the constitution.
on Supreme Court and High Courts, • The authority to amend the constitution is
respectively for enforcement/protection with Parliament but the Supreme Court has
of fundamental rights of an Individual. the authority to examine the validity of these
95. The power to increase the number of judges amendments. (Amend constitution except
in the Supreme Court of India is vested in for Basic structure: Keshavananda Bharati
 (Year : 2014) case)
• The supreme court ensures that all the
(a) The President of India
government branches perform their duties
(b) The Parliament in accordance with the constitution through
(c) The Chief Justice of India various checks and balances.
(d) The Law Commission • The President of India is the head of the State.
Explanation : Answer - B • Article 53: The executive power vested in
the President and shall be either directly or
• The power to increase the number of judges
through an officer subordinate to him in
in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
accordance with this constitution.
the “Parliament”. In the Indian Constitution,
Parliament is authorized to regulate judges. • Article 56 (2): The President may, for
violation of the Constitution, be removed
• The number of judges in the Supreme Court,
from office by impeachment in the manner
the Bill of 2019, was increased by four judges.
provided in article 61.
• With this, the total number of judges including
the Chief Justice has been increased from 31 You Know...?
to 34. Under Article 124, the Constitution of UPSC often repeats many questions from
India provides for a Supreme Court. Mains Examination as well
96. Who/Which of the following is the • What is the position of the Supreme Court
custodian of the Constitution of India? under the Constitution of India? Discuss its
 (Year : 2015) role as the guardian of the Constitution? .
 (40 marks / 250 words/ 1995)
(a) The President of India
• What is the position of the Supreme Court
(b) The Prime Minister of India under the Constitution of India? How far
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat does it play its role as the guardian of the
(d) The Supreme Court of India Constitution?. (30 marks / 250 words/2002)
Explanation : Answer - D • The Supreme Court of India keeps a check
on the arbitrary power of the Parliament to
• The Supreme Court is the Custodian of the amend the constitution. Discuss critically.
Constitution of India.  (150 words / 20 marks/2013)
• It is the guardian of fundamental rights
(Article 32). It has the power of Judicial
review.
• Indian Judiciary is an integrated, powerful,
and independent judiciary.

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it is passed by the Lok Sabha by a majority
vote, then the Prime Minister and the
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
entire Council of Ministers have to resign
Council of Ministers collectively.
97. Council of Ministers of the Union of India 99. India has Parliamentary democracy
is responsible to the  (Year : 1980) system because (Year : 1987)
(a) Parliament (a) Members of the Lok Sabha are elected
(b) President by the public
(c) Prime Minister (b) Council of Ministers is responsible to
(d) Chief Justice the Legislature
Explanation : Answer - A (c) Of distribution of power between the
Centre and the States
• Note: “Parliament in General, Lok Sabha in
(d) Of a single constitutional framework
Particular.”
• The Union Council of Ministers is the Explanation : Answer - B
executive authority of the Government of • Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
India. It includes the Prime Minister, the represents the democratic system. Hence
Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and option 1 is incorrect.
sometimes Deputy Ministers. The Prime • Article 75(3) states that the Council of
Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to
Ministers. There is also a smaller executive the House of the People.
body called the Union Cabinet which plays
• A parliamentary system is a system of
the role of the supreme decision making
democratic governance of a state in which
body of the Government of India.
the executive derives its democratic
98. Council of Ministers of the Union of legitimacy from, and is held accountable to,
India is responsible to  (Year : 1982) the legislature (parliament).
(a) Rajya Sabha • The Executive forms a part of the legislature.
In India, the person should be a member
(b) Prime Minister
of parliament to become a member of the
(c) President executive.
(d) Lok Sabha
100. There is a Parliamentary System of
Explanation : Answer - D Government in India because the 
• The Council of Ministers is appointed by the  (Year : 2015)
President on advice from the Prime Minister. (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the
• The Prime Minister can also advise the people
President to remove any of the Ministers (b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
from the council.
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
• The Council of Ministers and the Prime
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to
Minister are collectively responsible to the
the Lok Sabha
Lok Sabha. It means that when a minister
introduces a bill in the Lok Sabha and the Explanation : Answer - D
Lok Sabha happens to disapprove it, the Lok
3600 Coverage
Sabha holds the entire Council of Ministers
responsible for the bill and not just the • Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of
Minister alone. the people chosen by direct election on the
• A vote of no confidence can be introduced basis of the adult suffrage.
against a government at the Lok Sabha. If

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• The maximum strength of the House and other expenditure relating to his office.
envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which
102. With reference to Indian Public
is made up by election of upto 530 members
Finance, consider the following statements:
to represent the States, upto 20 members
 (Year : 2004)
to represent the Union Territories and not
more than two members of the Anglo- 1) Disbursements from Public Accounts
Indian Community to be nominated by the of India are subject to the Vote of
Hon’ble President, if, in her/his opinion, that Parliament.
community is not adequately represented in 2) The Indian Constitution provides for
the House. the establishment of a Consolidated
• After coming into effect of The Constitution Fund, a Public Account and a
(One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, Contingency Fund for each State.
2019, the provision of special representation 3) Appropriations and disbursements
of the Anglo-Indian community in the House under the Railway Budget are subject
of the People by nomination has not been to the same form of parliamentary
extended further. control as other appropriations and
• The total elective membership is distributed disbursements.
among the States in such a way that the ratio Which of the statements given above are
between the number of seats allotted to each correct?
State and the population of the State is, so far
as practicable, the same for all States. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : Answer - B
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC -
Department Of Revenue • The Constitution describes the detailed
procedure in which the finances of the nation
101. In the estimation of expenditure are managed. Both the Union and the state
charged on the Consolidated Fund of have powers to raise as well as disburse funds.
India, the Parliament has  (Year : 1989)
• The Constitution states that expenditure can
(a) No power to discuss be made from public funds only in a manner
(b) Full power to discuss. that has been stated in the constitution itself.
(c) Full power to discuss during financial • It also states that no tax can be imposed
emergency. except by authority of law. Also, executive
authorities like the ministers can use public
(d) None of the above
money only if sanctioned by the legislature.
Explanation : Answer - B • Article 266 and 267 of the constitution
• Expenditure charged upon the Consolidated provides for the creation of the following
Fund of India is non-votable by the three kinds of funds :
Parliament. It can only be discussed by the 1) Consolidated fund of India: It is a
Parliament. fund to which all receipts are credited
• Expenditure made from the Consolidated and all payments are debited.
Fund of India has to be voted by the 2) Public account of india: All other
Parliament. public money (other than those which
• The charged expenditure is non-votable are credited to the Consolidated Fund
by the Parliament, that is, it can only be of India) received by or on behalf of the
discussed by the Parliament, while the other Government of India shall be credited
type has to be voted by the Parliament. to the Public Account of India.
• The list of the charged expenditure is: 3) Contingency Fund of India: It
Emoluments and allowances of the President is created to meet unexpected
emergencies.
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To attempt this question ,we also need to • Therefore the correct statements are 2 and
understand what the budget is! 3 . Option (B )is correct.
• The budget is the estimate of all the • Note : Unlike the Public Accounts of
expenditures and revenue of the government India , money can be withdrawn from
for a given financial year. the Consolidated fund of India only after
parliament’s approval. One should not get
• The presentation of the budget is followed
confused between Public Accounts of India
by voting on the demand for grants that are
and Contingency Fund of India because both
included in the budget.
of these are operated by executive action. Only
• It is followed by the passing of the the President can allow for money to be used
Appropriation bill without which no money from this fund for unforeseen expenditure
can be used from the Consolidated Fund of pending authorisation at Parliament.
India.
103. Which one of the following is responsible
• Finally , the Finance Bill is passed to
for the preparation and presentation of
implement the financial proposals of the
Union Budget to the Parliament? 
government for the given year.
 (Year : 2010)
Let us look at the statements given to us
(a) Department of Revenue
• Statement 1 says Disbursements from Public
Accounts of India are subjected to vote of (b) Department of Economic Affairs
Parliament. (c) Department of Financial Services
• Public money ,except those credited to (d) Department of Expenditure
Consolidated Fund of India, received by the Explanation : Answer - B
government is credited to the Public Account
of India. • For preparing the budget to be presented in
Parliament, Department of Economic Affairs
• This includes provident fund deposits,
is responsible for preparation of Union
judicial deposits, savings bank deposits,
Budget and not the Revenue Department.
departmental deposits etc. However
Since the Budget division is part of Economic
payments from this account can be made
Affairs, so Finance Secretary will coordinate
without
for designing and implementation of Budget
• Parliament’s appropriation. In other words process. It is noted that past authorization
disbursements from Public Accounts of India is needed in order to withdraw any amount
are not subjected to vote of Parliament as it from Consolidated Fund of India. Indian
is operated by mere executive action. This Public Account can be operated by executive
statement is therefore incorrect. action where there will be no authorization
• Statement 2 says that the Indian Constitution needed from Parliament.
provides for the establishment of a
Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a 104. The authorization for the withdrawal of
Contingency fund for each state. It is true that funds from consolidated fund of India
each state of India has its own Consolidated must come from?  (Year : 2011)
fund, a Public Account and a Contingency (a) The president of India.
Fund. Therefore this statement is correct.
(b) The parliament of India.
• Statement 3 says appropriations and
(c) The prime minister of India.
disbursements under the Railway budget are
subjected to the same form of Parliamentary (d) The union finance minister.
control as other appropriation and
disbursements. In 2016, the railway budget
was merged with the general budget and its
now its appropriation and disbursement is
same as that of the general budget

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Explanation : Answer - B • Provident fund deposits, savings bank
deposits, remittances etc are credited to the
Consolidated Fund of India: Public Account.
• Consolidated Fund is constituted under • The Public Account is operated by the
Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India. executive action i.e. payment from this
All expenditures of the government are account can be made without Parliamentary
incurred by this fund. appropriation. Hence Option 3 is Not
• All revenues received by the Centre by Correct.
way of taxes (Income Tax, Central Excise, • The Constitution of India provides for
Customs and other receipts) and all non-tax the following three kinds of funds for the
revenues in connection with the conduct of Central government:
Government business are credited into the 1. Consolidated Fund of India (Article
Consolidated Fund. 266)
• All loans raised by the Government by the 2. Public Account of India (Article 266)
issue of Public notifications, treasury bills 3. Contingency Fund of India (Article
(internal debt), and loans obtained from 267)
foreign governments and international
institutions (external debt) are credited into Consolidated Fund of India
this fund. • It is a fund to which all receipts are credited
• No amount can be withdrawn from the and all payments are debited.
Consolidated Fund without authorization • No money out of this fund can be appropriated
from the Parliament. (issued or drawn) except in accordance
105. WithreferencetotheUnionGovernment, with parliamentary law. Hence Option 2 is
consider the following statements  correct.
 (Year : 2015) Public Account of India
1) The Department of Revenue is • All other public money (other than those
responsible for the preparation of which are credited to the Consolidated Fund
Union Budget that is presented to the of India) received by or on behalf of the
Parliament Government of India shall be credited to the
2) No amount can be withdrawn from the Public Account of India.
Consolidated Fund of India without • This account is operated by executive action,
the authorization from the Parliament that is, the payments from this account can be
of India. made without parliamentary appropriation.
3) All the disbursements made from Public Such payments are mostly in the nature of
Account also need the authorization banking transactions.
from the Parliament of India. Contingency Fund of India
Which of the statements given above is/are • This fund is placed at the disposal of the
correct? president, and he can make advances out of it
(a) 1 and 2 only to meet unforeseen expenditure pending its
(b) 2 and 3 only authorisation by the Parliament.
(c) 2 only • The fund is held by the finance secretary
on behalf of the President. Like the public
(d) 1, 2 and 3
account of India, it is also operated by
Explanation : Answer - C executive action.
• The budget is prepared by the Department
of Economic Affairs. Hence Option 1 is Not
Correct.

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108. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Constitution contains (Year : 1985)
Schedules (a) States and Union Territories
106. Which language has been added (b) Salaries of the President, Governors of
recently to the Eighth Schedule of the States, Judges of Supreme Court, etc.
Constitution of India?  (Year : 1979) (c) Union List, State’ List and Concurrent
(a) Urdu List
(b) Sanskrit (d) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
(c) Sindhi Explanation : Answer - C
(d) Assamese • Subjects under Union List, State List and
Explanation : Answer - C Concurrent List
• The subjects that are enumerated under the
• The Sindhi language was added in the 8th
Union List are mentioned below.
schedule by the 21st Amendment Act of
1967. Aspirants should know the Union List subjects,
• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution State List subjects and Concurrent List for the
originally included 14 languages. prelims and mains exam.
• The 71st Amendment, enacted in 1992,
included three more languages, i.e. Konkani, Union List Subjects:
Meitei (Manipuri), and Nepali. • Some of the important subjects are:
• The 92nd Amendment, added Bodo, Dogri, 1. Defence
Santhali, and Maithali in 2003, raising the
total number of languages to 22. 2. Army
• There are 22 languages that have been 3. International Relations
recognized in the eighth schedule of the 4. Ports
Indian constitution. 5. Railways
• Part XVII of the Indian constitution deals 6. Highways
with the official languages of India from 7. Communication
articles 343 to 351.
State List Subjects:
• In all the 22 official languages the Hindi
language is spoken by most Indians. • Some of the important subjects are:
107. TheEighthScheduleofIndianConstitution 1. Public order
contains  (Year : 1984) 2. Police
3. Public health and sanitation
(a) Fundamental Rights
4. Hospitals and dispensaries
(b) Directive Principles
5. Betting and gambling
(c) A list of 18 languages recognised by the
Constitution Concurrent List Subjects:
(d) Number of States and Union Territories • Some of the important subjects are:
Explanation : Answer - C 1. Education
• Currently, There are 22 languages that have 2. Forest
been recognized in the eighth schedule of the 3. Trade unions
Indian constitution. 4. Marriage
5. Adoption
6. Succession

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109. Which of the following languages are • It deals with the Anti defection law i.e,
included in the Eighth Schedule of the provisions as to disqualification on the
Indian Constitution?  (Year : 1985) ground of defection.
(a) Sindhi and English • Decision on questions as to disqualification
on the ground of detection :-
(b) English and Kashmiri
»» If any question arises as to whether a
(c) Kashmiri and Konkani member of a House has become subject
(d) Sindhi and Kashmiri to disqualification under this Schedule,
Explanation : Answer - D the question shall be referred for the
decision of the Chairman or, as the case
• The Eighth Schedule of the Indian may be, the Speaker of such House and
Constitution includes 22 languages. his decision shall be final
Originally, it had 14 languages but presently »» Provided that where the question
there are 22 languages. which has arisen is as to whether the
• The 22 languages are Chairman or the Speaker of a House has
»» (1) Assamese, »» (12) Oriya, become subject to such disqualification,
»» (2) Bengali, »» (13) Punjabi, the question shall be referred for the
»» (3) Gujarati, »» (14) Sanskrit, decision of such member of the House
»» (4) Hindi, »» (15) Sindhi, as the House may elect in this behalf and
»» (5) Kannada, »» (16) Nepali, his decision shall be final.
»» (6) Kashmiri, »» (17) Manipuri, 111. If a new State of the Indian Union is
»» (7) Urdu »» (18) Konkani, to be created, which one of the following
»» (8) Malayalam, »» (19) Bodo, Schedules of the Constitution must be
»» (9) Telugu, »» (20) Santhali, amended ?  (Year : 2001)
»» (10) Marathi, »» (21) Maithili
»» (11) Tamil, »» (22) Dogri. (a) First (b) Second
• Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment (c) Third (d) Fifth
Act of 1967. Explanation : Answer - A
• Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were added
by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992. • If a new state of the Indian Union is to be
created, the First Schedule of the Constitution
• Bodo, Dogri, Maithali, and Santhali were
must be amended.
added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
• The First Schedule of the Indian constitution
• Part XVII, Article 343 - 351 of the constitution
deals with the lists of States and Union
deals with Official Language.
Territories of India and their changes. Article
• Note - English is not under 8th Schedule. 1 to Article 4 comes under the First Schedule.
110. Which one of the following Schedules • Originally in 1950, there are 8 schedules
of the Constitution of India contains But at present, there are 12 schedules in the
provisions regarding Anti Defection Act?  Indian constitution.
 (Year : 1989)
112. Which one of the following statement
(a) Second Schedule correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of
(b) Fifth Schedule the Constitution of India? 
 (Year : 2001, 2004)
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule (a) It lists the distribution of power
between the Union and the States
Explanation : Answer - D
(b) It contains the languages listed in the
• The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution
Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment
Act.

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(c) It contains the provisions regarding the • The Seventh Schedule of the Indian
administration of tribal areas Constitution deals with the three legislative
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States lists i.e. Union, State, and Concurrent. The
eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
Explanation : Answer - D deals with the 22 official languages recognized
Schedule of the Indian Constitution by the Indian Constitution.
• The Ninth Schedule of the Indian
»» There are 12 Schedules in the Constitution
Constitution deals with the state acts and
of India.
regulations that deal with land reforms and
• The First Schedule of the Indian the abolition of the zamindari system. It also
Constitution contains the name of States deals with the acts and regulations of the
and Union Territories. Parliament dealing with other matters.
• Second Schedule of Indian Constitution • The tenth Schedule of the Indian
contains the provisions in relation to Constitution contains the provisions
allowances, privileges, emoluments of relating to disqualification of the members
President of India, Governers of Indian of Parliament and State Legislatures on the
States, Speaker of Lok Sabha & Deputy ground of defection.
Speaker of Lok Sabha, Chairman of Rajya
• The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian
Sabha & Deputy, Chairman of Rajya Sabha,
Constitution contains the provisions
Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Legislative
that specify the powers, authority, and
Assemblies of the Indian States, Chairman
responsibilities of Panchayats.
and Deputy, Chairman of Legislative
Councils of the Indian States, Supreme Court • The Twelfth Schedule of the Indian
Judges, High Court Judges and Comptroller Constitution contains the provisions
& Auditor General Of India (CAG). that specify the powers, authority, and
responsibilities of Municipalities.
• The third Schedule of the Indian
Constitution contains the forms of oath • Note : In hurry don’t confuse it with 5th
and affirmation for Union Ministers of India, schedule.
Parliament Election Candidates, Members 113. Which one of the following schedules of
of Parliament (MPs), Supreme Court the Indian Constitution lists the names of
Judges, Comptroller and Auditor General, states and specifies their territories? 
State Ministers, State Legislature Elections’  (Year : 2003)
Candidates, State Legislature Members, and
High Court Judges. (a) First (b) Second
• The fourth Schedule of the Indian (c) Third (d) Fourth
Constitution contains the provisions in Explanation : Answer - A (Self Explanatory)
relation to the allocation of seats for States
and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha. 114. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian
Hence option 2 is correct. Constitution was added by  (Year : 2003)
• The fifth Schedule of the Indian (a) First Amendment
Constitution contains the provisions in
(b) Eighth Amendment
relation to the administration and control of
scheduled areas and scheduled tribes. (c) Ninth Amendment
• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian (d) Forty second Amendment
Constitution contains the provisions in Explanation : Answer - A
relation to the administration of tribal areas
in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, • The constitution states that all the laws
and Mizoram. existing or made after the enactment of
the Constitution shall be invalid if they are
violative of the Fundamental Rights.

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• Since Nationalisation of land occurred to be • Union List originally had 97 subjects but at
the necessity of the hour after independence present, it deals with 100 subjects.
for acquiring lands from the zamindars and • Some of the important subjects that are
distribute them among marginalised section enumerated under Union List such as
to the society. Defence, Military, Navy, Air forces, Atomic
• But because the right to property was Energy, Mineral Resources, Economy,
fundamental rights, questions were raised Highways, Railways
regarding this step of the Government and • Agriculture, Fisheries and Public Health
judiciary interfered by declaring any such law comes under State List in the 7th Schedule.
as illegal because of constitutional mandate. • Earlier, the State List dealt with 66 subjects but
• The first constitutional amendment Act now it has 61 subjects. Some of the important
of 1951 added Ninth Schedule in the subjects that are enumerated under State List
Constitution to shield act of the government such as Public Health and sanitation, Police,
of acquiring property as not discriminatory Public Order, Burials and burial grounds,
and excluding judicial review on acts listed Hospitals and dispensaries, Tolls, Betting and
in Ninth Schedule. gambling.
• It was done under tenure of the then PM • The 7th Schedule of Indian Constitution
Hon. Pandit Nehru (1947-1964) comes under Article 246, which deals with
115. Which one of the following subjects the division of powers among various subjects
is under the Union List in the Seventh between Central and State Governments and
Schedule of the Constitution of Indian ?  it comprises three lists such as Union List,
 (Year : 2006) State list and Concurrent list.

(a) Regulation of labour and safety in 116. Which schedule of the Constitution of
mines and oilfields india contains special provisions for the
administration and control of Scheduled
(b) Agriculture Areas in several States?  (Year : 2008)
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health (a) Third
(b) Fifth
Explanation : Answer - A
(C) Seventh
• The Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution (d) Ninth
is mainly concerned with the allocation and
distribution of powers as well as its functions Explanation : Answer - B
between Union and States. • The fifth Schedule of the Constitution of
• Therefore the division or classification India contains special provisions for the
of legislative powers between the Union administration and control of scheduled
Government (Parliament Legislature) and areas in some states.
State Government (State Legislatures) is • The Fifth Schedule under Article 244(1) of
specified through three kinds of the list the Constitution defines Scheduled Areas.
mentioned in the seventh schedule: • Article 244 (1) of the Indian Constitution
1. Union List – List I defines Scheduled Areas as the areas defined
2. State List – List II by the President of India and are mentioned
3. Concurrent List – List III in the fifth schedule of the Constitution.
• The element of the regulation of labour and • Scheduled Areas as such areas as the President
safety in mines and oilfields comes under may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas
the Union List in the 7th Schedule of the after consultation with the Governor of that
Constitution of India. State.

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• The provisions regarding the administration 118. Which one of the following Schedules
and control of Scheduled and Tribal Areas of of the Constitution of India contains
any state except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, provisions regarding antidefection? 
and Mizoram four states are mentioned  (Year : 2014)
under this schedule.
(a) Second Schedule
Value Addition (b) Fifth Schedule
• The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 (2) of (e) Eighth Schedule
the Constitution defines Tribal areas.
(d) Tenth Schedule
• The Sixth Schedule mentions the provisions
related to the tribal areas of the four states – Explanation : Answer - D
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. • The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the
• The tribal areas in these four states come Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment
under the name of ‘Autonomous Districts, Act.
but the state still has its executive authority • It deals with the Anti defection law i.e,
over them. The Third Schedule contains the provisions as to disqualification on the
forms of Oaths or Affirmations. ground of defection.
• The Ninth Schedule contains provisions as to • Decision on questions as to disqualification
the validation of certain Acts and Regulations. on the ground of detection:-
117. Under which one of the following »» If any question arises as to whether a
Constitution Amendments Acts, four member of a House has become subject
languages were added to the languages to disqualification under this Schedule,
under the Eighth schedule of the the question shall be referred for the
Constitution of India, thereby raising decision of the Chairman or, as the case
their number to 22? (Year : 2008) may be, the Speaker of such House and
his decision shall be final
(a) Constitution (90th Amendment) Act »» Provided that where the question
(b) Constitution (91st Amendment) Act which has arisen is as to whether the
(c) Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act Chairman or the Speaker of a House has
(d) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act become subject to such disqualification,
the question shall be referred for the
Explanation : Answer - C decision of such member of the House
• The 92nd Amendment act of the as the House may elect in this behalf and
Constitution of India, officially known as The his decision shall be final.
Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) 119. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and
Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India
to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, are made in order to  (Year : 2015)
Dogri, Maithili, and Santali languages,
thereby raising the total number of languages (a) Protect the interests of Scheduled
listed in the schedule to 22. Tribes
• The Eighth Schedule lists languages that the (b) Determine the boundaries between
Government of India has the responsibility States
to develop. (c) Determine the powers, authority and
• The Constitution (Ninety-second responsibilities of Panchayats
Amendment) Act, 2003, was introduced in (d) Protect the interests of all the border
the Lok Sabha on 18 August 2003. States
• The act was introduced by then Deputy Explanation : Answer - A
Prime Minister Lal Krishna Advani and
sought to amend the Eighth Schedule to the
Constitution.
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• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution • The executive is responsible to the legislature
deals with the administration and control for its policies and acts. (Hence option 3 is
of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in correct)
any state except the four states of Assam, • The executive is not responsible to the
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. legislature for its policies and acts i.e the
• The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on executive and legislature work independently
the other hand, deals with the administration in the Presidential form of government.
of the tribal areas in the four northeastern
121. A Parliamentary System’ of
states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Government is one in which  (Year : 2020)
Mizoram.
• It protects the interest of Schedule tribes. (a) all political parties in the Parliament
Hence Option 1 is Correct. are represented in the Government
• It does not relate to the boundaries of states. B) the Government is responsible to the
Hence Option 2 is Not Correct. Parliament and can be removed by it
• It excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas C) the Government is elected by the
from the application of the Panchayati Raj peopleand can be removed by them
system. D) the Goverment is chosen by the
• This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, Parliament but cannot be removed by
customs, religious laws, social and political it before completion of a fixed term
institutions are not tampered with. Hence Explanation : Answer - B
Option 3 is also Not Correct. It does not
protect the interests of the border States. • Parliamentary system, a democratic form of
Hence Option 4 is Not Correct. government in which the party (or a coalition
of parties) with the greatest representation
in the parliament (legislature) forms the
THEMATIC REPETITIVE government, its leader becoming prime
Parliamentary System minister or chancellor.
• Executive functions are exercised by
120. The main advantage of the
members of the parliament appointed by the
parliamentary form of government is that
prime minister to the cabinet.
 (Year : 2017)
• The parties in the minority serve in
a) the executive and legislature work opposition to the majority and have the duty
independently. to challenge it regularly.
b) it provides continuity of policy and is • Prime ministers may be removed from
more efficient. power whenever they lose the confidence
c) the executive remains responsible to of a majority of the ruling party or of the
the legislature. parliament.
d) the head of the government cannot be • The parliamentary system originated in
changed without election. Britain and was adopted in several of its
former colonies.
Explanation : Answer - C
Important Points
• The Constitution of India provides for a
parliamentary form of government, both at • In the Indian democratic setup, the
the Centre and in the States. Government is responsible to the Parliament
and can be removed by it.
• Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary
system of government at the Union level and • Specifically, it is the Lok Sabha for which
Articles 163 and 164 contain provisions with the council of ministers is collectively
regard to the States. responsible.

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• This form of government where the centre is
responsible to the elected representatives of
the Parliament, is called the “Parliamentary
form of government”. Hence, Option 2 is the
correct answer.

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II GEOGRAPHY

GEOGRAPHY (1979-2023)

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC »» Kanwar jheel, as it is locally called, is

RIVERS (Jhelum, Krishna, Gandak, located 22 km north-west of Begusarai
Tungabhadra, Godavari, Cauvery, town.
Mahanadi, Narmada.) »» It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to
meandering of Gandak river, a tributary
1. Consider the following statements : 
of Ganga, in the geological past. So,
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular statement 3 is correct..
Lake. »» Therefore, option (b) is the correct
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru answer.
Lake. 2. With reference to the Indus river system,
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed of the following four rivers, three of them
Kanwar Lake. pour into one of them which joins the
How many of the statements given above Indus direct. Among the following, which
are correct?  (Year-2023) one is such river that joins the Indus direct?
 (Year-2021)
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (a) Chenab
(c) All three (b) Jhelum
(d) None (c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
Explanation : B
Explanation : A
• Wular Lake :
»» Is the largest freshwater lake in India and »» The Chenab River immediately connects
is located in Jammu and Kashmir. It lies to the Indus River.
at the north end of the Vale of Kashmir, »» Two rivers, the Chandra and the Bhaga,
20 miles (32 km) north-northwest of meet in Tandi in Himachal Pradesh to
Srinagar. form the Chenab River.
»» The lake controls the flow of the Jhelum »» Before merging with the Indus River in
River, which traverses it. So, statement Pakistan, it flows through Jammu and
1 is correct. Kashmir and Punjab.
• Kolleru Lake : »» The other three rivers, Jhelum, Ravi, and
Sutlej, join the Chenab River before it
»» Is fed directly by water from the seasonal
meets the Indus River.
Budameru and Tammileru streams and is
»» The Jhelum River joins the Chenab
connected to the Krishna and Godavari
River near Trimmu, the Ravi River near
systems by over 68 inflowing drains and
Ahmadpur Sial, and the Sutlej River near
channels.
Uch Sharif.
»» It serves as a habitat for migratory birds.
»» Thus, the Krishna River does not directly 3. In which of the following regions of India
feed Kolleru Lake. So, statement 2 is not are shale gas resources found?
correct.
1. Cambay Basin  (Year-2016)
• Kanwar Lake :
2. Cauvery Basin
»» Also known as Kabar Taal, is the largest
freshwater lake in Bihar. 3. Krishna-Godavari Basin

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Select the correct answer using the code South.
given below. »» Hemavati, Harangi, Amaravati, Shimsha
(a) 1 and 2 only are the few important tributaries.
(b) 3 only River Krishna :
(c) 2 and 3 only »» The river extends over the states of
Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Karnataka and finally empties into the
Explanation : D Bay of Bengal.
»» Krishna river originates in the Western
• Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
Ghats near Mahabaleshwar.
(MoPNG) has identified six basins as
»» Ghatprabha, Malprabha, Tungabhadra,
potentially shale gas bearing.
Bhima, and Musi are the few important
• These are: tributaries
»» Cambay, Assam-Arakan, Gondwana,
River Godavari :
Krishna-Godavari, Kaveri, and the Indo-
Gangetic plain. »» The Godavari River rises from
»» Shales are fine-grained sedimentary Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of
rocks that can be rich resources of Maharashtra.
petroleum and natural gas. »» The basin extends over the states
»» Shale rocks are usually found adjacent to of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh,
rocks containing useable/ drinking water Chhattisgarh, Odisha, smaller parts in
known as ‘aquifers’. Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union
»» Shale Gas is trapped under low permeable Territory of Puducherry. And finally
rocks. drains into the Bay of Bengal.
»» Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha and
4. Recently, linking of which of the following Manjira are the few important tributaries.
rivers was undertaken?  (Year-2016)
River Narmada :
(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra »» It is the largest west flowing river.
(b) Godavari and Krishana »» It acts as the boundary between North
(c) Mahanadi and Sone and South India.
»» It originates in the Amarkantak plateau,
(d) Narmada and Tapti
where the Vindhya and Satpura mountain
Explanation : B ranges meet.
»» The correct answer is Godavari and »» It flows through the states of Madhya
Krishna. Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat
»» Pattiseema Lift Irrigation project is before emptying into the Arabian sea.
the first river-linking project in India, 5. Consider the following pairs : (Year-2014)
connecting the Godavari with Krishna.
»» The project has been launched in Andhra Wetlands Confluence of rivers
Pradesh. Confluence of Beas
1. Harika Wetlands
River Kaveri : and Sutlej
»» It flows through the states of Karnataka Keoladeo Ghana Confluence of Banas
2.
and Tamil Nadu. National Park and Chambal
»» It rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri Confluence of Musi
Hill of the Western Ghats in the state of 3. Kolleru Lake
and Krishna
Karnataka.
»» It is the third-largest river in south India
after Godavari and Krishan and drains
into the Bay of Bengal.
»» It is also known as the Ganges of the
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Which of the above pairs is/are correctly species, 7 turtle species, and a variety of
matched? other invertebrates.
(a) 1 only Kolleru Lake
(b) 2 and 3 only »» It is a freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh.
(c) 1 and 3 only »» It was previously a lagoon.
»» It was designated a wetland of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 international importance in November
Explanation : A 2002 under the international Ramsar
»» The correct answer is 1 only. Convention.
»» It lies between the Godavari and Krishna
Harike Wetland
river deltas.
»» It is one of the largest man-made »» Many birds migrate here in winters,
wetlands of northern India. such as Siberian cranes, ibis, and painted
»» This wetland shares its area with the storks.
Tarntaran, Ferozpur, and Kapurthala »» The lake was an important habitat for
districts of Punjab. an estimated 20 million residents and
»» It came into existence after the migratory birds, including the grey or
construction of a barrage near the spot-billed pelican.
confluence of rivers Sutlej and Beas in
1952. 6. The correct sequence of the eastward
»» It is also a Ramsar site. flowing rivers India from north to south is
»» Harike is a significant site for birds 
migrating from across the international (Year-2002)
frontiers. (a) Subranarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari,
»» The wetland area is spread over about 41 Krishana, Pennar, Vagai
km2 and supports more than 400 avian (b) Subranarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari,
species. Cauvery, Vagai
»» Harike also harbours endangered aquatic
mammalian as well as reptilian fauna like (c) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari,
the Indus river dolphin, smooth-coated Krishna, Cauvery, vagai
otter, and seven species of rare freshwater (d) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna,
turtles. Godavari, Cauvery, Pennar
Keoladeo Ghana National Park Explanation : A
»» It is a man-made and man-managed »» Subarnarekha :- It flows through the
wetland in Rajasthan. It is also declared Indian states of Jharkhand, West Bengal
a World Heritage site. and Odisha.
»» It is situated at the confluence of the »» Mahanadi :- It drains an area of around
Gambhir and Banganga rivers. 141,600 square kilometres (54,700 sq mi)
»» It was designated as a Ramsar site under and has a total course of 858 kilometres
the Wetland Convention in October (533 mi). The river flows through the
1981. states of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh
»» There is open grassland that provides and Odisha.
a habitat for breeding, wintering, and »» Godavari :- Its source is in
staging migratory birds. Triambakeshwar, Maharashtra. It flows
»» The 29 km2 (11 sq mi) reserve is locally east for 1,465 kilometres, draining the
known as Ghana. states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra
»» These diverse habitats are home to Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
approximately 366 bird species, 379 floral »» Krishna :- The Krishna river originates in
species, 50 species of fish, 13 species of the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar
snakes, 5 species of lizards, 7 amphibian at an elevation of about 1,300 metres

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(4,300 ft), in the state of Maharashtra in Codes : A B C D
central India. (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
»» Pennar :- The Penna rises in the Nandi
Hills in Chikkaballapur District of (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 3 4 2
Karnataka state, and runs north and Explanation : B
east through the states of Karnataka and »» The Mettur Dam is one of the largest
Andhra Pradesh to empty into the Bay of dams in India and the largest in Tamil
Bengal. Nadu, located across the river Cauvery
»» Cauvery :- The Kaveri river rises at where it enters the plains
Talakaveri on the Brahmagiri range in »» The Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam is also
the Western Ghats, Kodagu district of known as Almatti Dam is a hydroelectric
the state of Karnataka, at an elevation of project on the Krishna River in North
1,341 m above mean sea level and flows Karnataka,
for about 800 km before its outfall into »» The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a gravity dam
the Bay of Bengal. on the Narmada river near Navagam,
»» Vaigai :- It originates in Varusanadu Gujarat in India.
Hills, the Periyar Plateau of the Western »» The Gandhi Sagar Dam is one of
Ghats range, and flows northeast the four major dams built on India’s
through the Kambam Valley, which lies Chambal River. The dam is located in the
between the Palani Hills to the north Mandsaur, Neemuch districts of the state
and the Varushanad Hills to the south. of Madhya Pradesh.
The river empties into the Palk Strait
near Uchipull, close to Pamban bridge in 9. The Almatti Dam is on the river 
Ramanathapuram Distric . (Year-1997)
»» The correct answer is A (a) Godavari
7. The Ravva offshore block, with great (b) Cauvery
potential for oil, is located in  (Year-1999) (c) Krishna
(a) Krishna - Godavari basin (d) Mahanadi
(b) Cauvery basin Explanation : C
(c) Mahanadi basin »» The Almatti Dam is a hydroelectric
(d) Palar - Pennar basin project. on the Krishna River in North
Explanation : A Karnataka.
»» Ravva oil and gas field is located in the 10. Which one of the following rivers thrice
shallow offshore area of the Krishna- forks into two streams and reunites a few
Godavari basin on the eastern coast of miles further on, thus forming the islands
India. of Srirangappattanam, Sivasamudram and
Srirangam?  (Year-1997)
8. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below (a) Cauvery
the Lists:  (Year-1999) (b) Tungabhadra
 (c) Krishna
List-I (Rivers) List-II (Dams) (d) Godavari
A. Cauvery 1. Almatti
Explanation : A
B. Krishna 2. Mettur
C. Narmada 3. Gandhi Sagar »» River Cauvery has formed three big
islands on her journey from Talacauvery
D. Chambal 4. Sardar Sarovar
to join the Bay of Bengal Sea.

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»» The islands formed are Srirangapatna, systems by over 68 inflowing drains and
Shivanasamudra in Karnataka and channels.
Srirangam in Tamil Nadu. »» It serves as a habitat for migratory birds.
»» All the three islands are pilgrimage »» Thus, the Krishna River does not directly
centers with temples dedicated to Lord feed Kolleru Lake. So, statement 2 is not
Ranganatha. correct.
11. Which of the following rivers flows • Kanwar Lake :
westward?  (Year-1983) »» Also known as Kabar Taal, is the largest
freshwater lake in Bihar.
(a) Krishna »» Kanwar jheel, as it is locally called, is
(b) Cauvery located 22 km north-west of Begusarai
(c) Mahanadi town.
(d) Narmada »» It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to
meandering of Gandak river, a tributary
Explanation : D of Ganga, in the geological past. So,
»» Narmada and Tapi are two large rivers statement 3 is correct..
that flow westward. »» Therefore, option (b) is the correct
answer.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC 13. Match the columns: (Year-1997)
LAKES (Wular, Kolleru)
List 1 List 2 (States)
12. Consider the following statements :
(Lakes)
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular A. Wular 1 Rajasthan
Lake. B. Chilka 2. Orissa
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru C. Loktak 3. Manipur
Lake. D. Nakki 4. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed 5. Madhya Pradesh
Kanwar Lake.
Select the correct answer from the codes
How many of the statements given above
given below:
are correct?  (Year-2023)
ABCD
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (a) 5 2 3 4 (b) 3 5 2 1
(c) All three (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 5 2
(d) None Explanation : C
Explanation : B »» Wular Lake is one of the largest fresh
water lakes in Asia.
• Wular Lake : »» It is sited in Bandipora district in the
»» Is the largest freshwater lake in India and Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir.
is located in Jammu and Kashmir. It lies »» Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake
at the north end of the Vale of Kashmir, in Northeast India in Manipur, and is
20 miles (32 km) north-northwest of famous for the phumdis floating over it.
Srinagar.
»» The lake controls the flow of the Jhelum 14. Which one of the following is an artificial
River, which traverses it. So, statement lake?(Year-2018)
1 is correct. (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
• Kolleru Lake : (b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
»» Is fed directly by water from the seasonal
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
Budameru and Tammileru streams and is
connected to the Krishna and Godavari (d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
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Explanation : A the Indus river dolphin, smooth-coated
»» Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai otter, and seven species of rare freshwater
Lake is a manmade lake located in the turtles.
Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Keoladeo Ghana National Park
Tamilnadu, India. »» It is a man-made and man-managed
»» Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then wetland in Rajasthan. It is also declared
Collector of Madurai, was instrumental a World Heritage site.
in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the »» It is situated at the confluence of the
Kodaikanal town which was developed Gambhir and Banganga rivers.
by the British and early missionaries »» It was designated as a Ramsar site under
from USA. the Wetland Convention in October
15. Consider the following pairs : (Year-2014) 1981.
»» There is open grassland that provides
Confluence of a habitat for breeding, wintering, and
Wetlands staging migratory birds.
rivers
»» The 29 km2 (11 sq mi) reserve is locally
Confluence of
1. Harika Wetlands known as Ghana.
Beas and Sutlej
»» These diverse habitats are home to
Confluence approximately 366 bird species, 379 floral
Keoladeo Ghana
2. of Banas and species, 50 species of fish, 13 species of
National Park
Chambal snakes, 5 species of lizards, 7 amphibian
Confluence of species, 7 turtle species, and a variety of
3. Kolleru Lake
Musi and Krishna other invertebrates.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly Kolleru Lake
matched? »» It is a freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh.
»» It was previously a lagoon.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
»» It was designated a wetland of
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 international importance in November
Explanation : A 2002 under the international Ramsar
Convention.
»» The correct answer is 1 only.
»» It lies between the Godavari and Krishna
Harike Wetland river deltas.
»» It is one of the largest man-made »» Many birds migrate here in winters,
wetlands of northern India. such as Siberian cranes, ibis, and painted
»» This wetland shares its area with the storks.
Tarntaran, Ferozpur, and Kapurthala »» The lake was an important habitat for
districts of Punjab. an estimated 20 million residents and
»» It came into existence after the migratory birds, including the grey or
construction of a barrage near the spot-billed pelican.
confluence of rivers Sutlej and Beas in
1952. THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
»» It is also a Ramsar site. Teak, Sandalwood, Oak
»» Harike is a significant site for birds
migrating from across the international 16. Consider the following trees : (Year-2023)
frontiers. 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
»» The wetland area is spread over about 41 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
km2 and supports more than 400 avian
species. 3. Teak (Tectona grandis)
»» Harike also harbours endangered aquatic
mammalian as well as reptilian fauna like

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How many of the above are deciduous 18. The discovery of Oak flora in 1966 added
trees? a new chapter to the history of Indian
(a) Only one Sericulture. Which one of the following
states is the leading producer of Oak tasar
(b) Only two silk? 
(c) All three
(d) None. (a) Assam  (Year-1998)
(b) Bihar
Explanation : B
(c) Manipur
»» Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
(d) Orissa
is an evergreen tree, which means they
retain their leaves throughout the year Explanation : B
and do not shed them seasonally. So, »» Much of Tassar silk is produced in the
point 1 is not correct. Bhagalpur (where it is called Bhagalpur
»» Mahua (Madhuca indica) is found in silk) in Bihar and Malda district of West
the dry deciduous type of forests like the Bengal. Sericulture is the rearing and
Forests of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. management of silk moth for silk fibre.
So, point 2 is correct. »» Initially, it was done on leaves of
»» Teak (Tectona grandis) is a moist mulberry tree but later the knowledge
deciduous tree. Teak wood forests are of equal capability of worm to survive
mainly found in North East India. So, on oak tree leaves, the silk fiber and
point 3 is correct. fabric production underwent a huge
»» Therefore, option (b) is the correct production.
answer. »» The silk produced using oak tree leaves is
17. In India, in which one of the following called Tassar silk.
types of forests is teak a dominant tree 19. Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3
species?(Year-2015) and 4 in the rough outline map given: 
(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest Among these, those which were threatened
(b) Tropical rain forest in 1997 by a serious epidemic include:
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest (Year-1997)
(d) Temperate forest with grasslands
Explanation : A
»» Tropical moist decidous forests are
found in areas of moderate rainfall of
100 to 200 cm per annum, mean annual
temperature of about 27°C and the
average annual relative humidity of 60 to
75 per cent.
»» Teak trees are the most dominant species
of trees found in these forests.
»» Bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood,
khair, kusum, arjun, mulberry are some
of the other commercially important (a) teak forests of 3 and 4
species found. (b) oak forests of 1 and sal forests of 2
(c) sal forests of 3
(d) sandal wood forests of 4

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Explanation : C hardwood tree species placed in the
»» Sal forests of 3 were threatened by a flowering plant family Lamiaceae. Some
disease that led to their fast decline in forms of teak are known as Burmese teak
number. 22. If you travel through the Himalayas, you
20. Which one of the following pairs is are likely to see which of the following
correctly matched? (Year-1997) plants naturally growing there?

(a) Teak : Jammu and Kashmir 1. Oak

(b) Deodar : Madhya Pradesh 2. Rhododendron
(c) Sandalwood : Kerala 3. Sandal wood
(d) Sundari : West Bengal Select the correct answer using the code
given below: (Year-2014)
Explanation : D
(a) 1 and 2 only
»» Teak is not found in Jammu and Kashmir. (b) 3 only
Deodar is found primarily in forests of
Himachal Pradesh. (c) 1 and 3 only
»» Sundari trees are found in Sundarban. (d) 1, 2 and 3
forests of West Bengal and hence, only Explanation : A
fourth match is correct.
»» In the middle region of the Himalayas,
21. Match List I with List II and select the oak and rhododendron are the trees that
correct answer using the codes given below are observed.
the Lists: (Year-1983) »» They can be seen while traveling through
the Himalayas as they are part of the
List I List II natural vegetation of the region.
(Timber) (Country) »» Sandalwood is found in tropical
A. Cedar 1. Myanmar deciduous forests or monsoon forests
B. Douglas Fir 2 Canada which are found in Western Ghats,
C. Mahogany 3. Mexico Deccan plateau, northern plains and foot
D. Teak 4. Honduras hills of Himalayas.
»» Thus, sandalwood grows naturally
Codes:
in Himalaya foothills and not in the
ABCD Himalayas.
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3241
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2314 THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
Ranges, Hills, Western Ghats and
Explanation : B
Eastern Ghats
»» Cedar Blanco means white cedar and
is also known as Mexican white cedar 23. Consider the following statements : 
or cedar-of-Goa is a species of cypress 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence
native to Mexico and Central America. of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
»» Douglas fir (Pseudotsuga Menzies) is 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the
an evergreen conifer of the pine family easternmost part of Satpura Range.
(Pinaceae). ... Menzies occurs in Canada
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the
»» Mahogany is a straight-grained,
southernmost part of Western Ghats.
reddish-brown timber of three tropical
hardwood species of the genus Swietenia, How many of the statements given above
indigenous to the Americas and part of are correct?  (Year-2023)
the pantropical chinaberry family (a) Only one (b) Only two
»» Teak (Tectona grandis) is a tropical
(c) All three (d) None

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Explanation : D National Park.
»» Amarkantak is a pilgrimage town »» It is part of “Project Tiger” which is to
located in the Anuppur District of conserve populations of tiger and reduce
Madhya Pradesh, India. in trafficking and poaching of tigers.
»» It is known for being the source of the »» Project Tiger was launched by the
Narmada River, Mahanadi and Son Government of India in 1973.
Rivers. 25. The Narmada river flows to the west, while
»» It is located in South Eastern Madhya most other large peninsular rivers flow to
Pradesh. So, statement 1 is not correct. the east. Why? (Year-2013)
»» The Biligirirangan Hills, do not
constitute the easternmost part of the 1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
Satpura Range and are located in the 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the
Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka, Satpuras.
India. 3. The land slopes to the west from
»» They are part of the Eastern Ghats Central India
mountain range, not the Satpura Range. Select the correct answer using the code
So, statement 2 is not correct. given below.
»» The Seshachalam Hills, also known as
(a) 1 only
the Tirumala Range are hill ranges of
the Eastern Ghats, located in southern (b) 2 and 3
Andhra Pradesh. They are bounded by (c) 1 and 3
the Rayalaseema uplands in the west and (d) None
northwest and the Nandyal Valley in the
Explanation : A
northeast. So, statement 3 is not correct.
»» Therefore, option (d) is the correct The following points explain the reason
answer. behind the Narmada river flowing to the
24. From the ecological point of view, which west:
one of the following assumes importance 1. Linear Rift Valley:
in being a good link between the Eastern »» The Narmada river occupies a linear rift
Ghats and the Western Ghats? valley that was formed due to geological
(Year-2017) faulting.
»» A rift valley is a lowland region that
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
forms when the Earth’s crust is pulled
(b) Nallamala Forest apart.
(c) Nagarhole National Park »» It is a result of the movement of tectonic
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve plates.
»» The Narmada river flows along this linear
Explanation : A
rift valley from east to west.
• Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve : 2. No Barrier to Flow:
»» It is located in the Erode district of Tamil »» The Narmada river flows between the
Nadu and is part of Western ghats and Vindhyas and the Satpuras, which are
Eastern ghats. two mountain ranges in central India.
»» Sathyamangalam forest range is an »» However, there is no significant barrier
important wildlife corridor in Nilgiri to the flow of the river. Hence, the river
Biosphere Reserve. flows smoothly from east to west.
»» It is a genetic link between the four 3. Slope of the Land:
other protected areas which it adjoins, »» The land slopes to the west from central
including the Billigiriranga Swamy India.
Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, »» This means that the elevation of the land
Mudumalai National Park, and Bandipur decreases as we move towards the west.
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»» As a result, the Narmada river flows 29. Which one of the following statements is
towards the west, where the land is at a not correct? (Year-2005)
lower elevation compared to the east. 
»» Thus, the Narmada river flows to the
west because it occupies a linear rift (a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher
valley that was formed due to geological in their northern region
faulting. (b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in
the Western Ghats
26. The river which flows between Vindhya
and Satpura ranges is (Year-1982) (c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura.
 (d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys
are said to be old rift valleys.
(a) Narmada
Explanation : A
(b) Tapti
(e) Mahanadi »» The Western Ghats are relatively higher in
middle region as compared to northern
(d) Godavari and southern region.
Explanation : B 30. Consider the following : (Year-2004)
»» Tapti flows between Vindhya and Satpura
range. 1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
27. The oldest mountains are (Year-1979)
 3. Satpura Range
What is the correct sequence of the above
(a) Himalayas from the north to the south?
(b) Aravallis (a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3
(c) Satpura (c) 1-3-2 (d) 2-3-1
(d) Vindhyas
Explanation : B
Explanation : B
»» The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills
»» The Aravalli range is the oldest fold in Madhya Pradesh state of central
mountains in India. India. Western Ghats hills are known as
28. Which one of the following statements is Sahayadari which runs along the western
not correct? (Year-2010) coast of India. The Satpura Range is a
 range of hills in central India. The range
rises in eastern Gujarat state running
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher east through the border of Maharashtra
in their northern and Madhya Pradesh to the east till
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in Chhattisgarh.
the Western Ghats 31. Which one of the following mountain
(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura. ranges is spread over only one State in
(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys India?
are rift valleys
(a) Aravalli  (Year-1995)
Explanation : A
(b) Satpura
»» The Western Ghats are relatively higher (c) Ajanta
in middle Western ghats and hence, the
(d) Sahyadri
first statement is incorrect
Explanation : C
»» Ajanta range is spread only through one
state i.e Maharashtra.

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32. Match the following: (Year-1989) Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?(Year-2017)
A. Doddabetta 1. Nilgiri (a) 1 and 2 only
B. Makalu 2. Himalaya
(b) 3 only
C. Dhupgarh 3. Aravali
(c) 2 and 3 only
D. Guru Shikhar 4. Satpura
(d) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer from the codes Explanation : B
given below:
• Statement 1 is incorrect :
ABCD
»» The Indian Himalayan Region (IHR)
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 includes the states of Jammu & Kashmir,
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 4 1 2 3 Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim,
and Arunachal Pradesh, as well as the
Explanation : C
hilly areas of two more states: Assam and
»» Doddabetta is the highest mountain in West Bengal.
the Nilgiri Hills at 2,637 metres. Makalu »» It is a portion of the Himalayas located
is the fifth highest mountain in the entirely inside India.
world at 8,485 metres. It is located in the • Statement 2 is incorrect :
Mahalangur Himalayas 19 km southeast »» Western Ghats are a chain of mountains
of Mount Everest, on the border between running parallel to India’s western coast,
Nepal and China. Mount Dhupgarh or approximately 30-50 km inland.
Dhoopgarh is the highest point in the • The Western Ghats traverse the States
Satpura Range and in Madhya Pradesh, of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa,
Guru Shikhar, a peak in the Arbuda Maharashtra and Gujarat.
Mountains of Rajasthan, is the highest
point of the Aravalli Range. • Only statement 3 is correct :
»» Pulicat Lake formerly Pralaya Kaveri is
33. The river which flows between Vindhya the second largest brackish water lake or
and Satpura ranges is (Year-1982) lagoon in India, after Chilika Lake.
 »» It straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh
(a) Narmada and Tamil Nadu states with over 40% of
it in Andhra Pradesh and 60% in Tamil
(b) Tapti
Nadu situated on the Coromandal Coast
(e) Mahanadi in South India.
(d) Godavari »» The lake encompasses the Pulicat Lake
Explanation : B Bird Sanctuary. The Satish Dhawan
Space Centre is located on Sriharikota, a
»» Tapti flows between Vindhya and Satpura barrier island that divides the lake from
range. the Bay of Bengal.
34. Consider the following statements: 35. In which of the following regions of
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over India are you most likely to come across
five States only. the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural
habitat?
2. Western Ghats are spread over five
(Year-2016)
States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States (a) Sand deserts of northwest India
only. (b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and
Kashmir
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats
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Explanation : D two concerns of development and
»» Great Indian hornbills are found in environment protection, by watering
the forests of Nepal, India, Mainland down the environmental regulation
Southeast Asia, and Sumatra. regime proposed by the Western Ghats
»» Great Indian hornbill is listed as Ecology Experts Panel’s Gadgil report in
Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of 2012.
Threatened Species. (ii) They’re associated with Western Ghat
»» They are listed under Schedule I of the conservation plan.
Wildlife Protection Act of India. 37. Three of the following criteria have
• Great Hornbills are found in three separate contributed to the recognition of Western
areas in South Asia; Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions
»» The Western Ghats, as hotspots of biodiversity: (Year-2011)
»» The Himalayan foothills in Uttaranchal
to south Nepal 1. Species richness
»» Bhutan and northeast India. 2. Vegetation density
»» They are also found in Myanmar, islands 3. Endemism
in the Mergui archipelago, southern 4. Ethno-botanical importance
China, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, 5. Threat perception
Thailand, peninsular Malaysia, and in
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm
Sumatra, Indonesia.
and humid conditions
»» They are also found in primary evergreen
and moist deciduous forests, mainly in Which three of the above are correct
lowland forests, but they can be found up criteria in this context?
to 2,000 meters in some areas. (a) 1, 2 and 6
»» The Great Hornbill is the state bird of (b) 2, 4 and 6
Kerala and Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) 1, 3 and 5
»» Hornbill Festival is also celebrated
between 1st to 10th December every year (d) 3, 4 and 6
in Nagaland. Explanation : C
36. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and »» Endemism is an important dimension
‘Kasturirangam Committee Report’, why the Western Ghats Sri Lanka and
sometimes seen in the news, are related to Indo-Burma regions are classified under
(Year-2016) biodiversity hotspots.
»» Many species endemic to the region are
(a) Constitutional reforms
threatened and are not found anywhere
(b) Ganga Action Plan else in the world.
(c) Linking of rivers »» The other statements of species richness
(d) Protection of Western Ghats and threat perception also follow.
Explanation : D 38. Consider the following :  (Year-2004)
(i) The Gadgil Commission was an 1. Mahadeo Hills
environmental research commission 2. Sahyadri Parvat
appointed by the Ministry of 3. Satpura Range
Environment and Forests of India.
What is the correct sequence of the above
»» The Commission submitted the report to
from the north to the south?
the Government of India on 31 August
2011. (a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3
»» The Kasturirangan Committee (c) 1-3-2 (d) 2-3-1
Report has sought to balance the

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Explanation : B constitute the easternmost part of the
»» The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills Satpura Range and are located in the
in Madhya Pradesh state of central Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka,
India. Western Ghats hills are known as India.
Sahayadari which runs along the western »» They are part of the Eastern Ghats
coast of India. The Satpura Range is a mountain range, not the Satpura Range.
range of hills in central India. The range So, statement 2 is not correct.
rises in eastern Gujarat state running »» The Seshachalam Hills, also known as
east through the border of Maharashtra the Tirumala Range are hill ranges of
and Madhya Pradesh to the east till the Eastern Ghats, located in southern
Chhattisgarh. Andhra Pradesh. They are bounded by
the Rayalaseema uplands in the west and
39. Which one of the following mountain northwest and the Nandyal Valley in the
ranges is spread over only one State in northeast. So, statement 3 is not correct.
India? »» Therefore, option (d) is the correct
answer.
(a) Aravalli  (Year-1995)
(b) Satpura 41. At which one of the following places
two important rivers of India originate;
(c) Ajanta
while one of them flows towards north
(d) Sahyadri and merges with another important river
Explanation : C flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other
one flow towards Arabian Sea?  (Year-
»» Ajanta range is spread only through one
2009)
state i.e Maharashtra.
40. Consider the following statements : (a) Amarkantak
(b) Badrinath
1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence
(c) Mahabaleshwar
of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
(d) Nasik
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the
easternmost part of Satpura Range. Explanation : A
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the »» The correct answer is Option 1 :
southernmost part of Western Ghats. Amarkantak.
How many of the statements given above »» Amarkantak is a significant geographical
are correct?  (Year-2023) location in India, known as the “King of
Pilgrimage Sites” due to its religious and
(a) Only one
ecological importance.
(b) Only two »» It is situated in the Maikal mountain
(c) All three range of the central Indian state of
(d) None Madhya Pradesh.
»» At Amarkantak, two important rivers
Explanation : D
of India, the Narmada and the Son,
»» Amarkantak is a pilgrimage town originate.
located in the Anuppur District of »» The Narmada River is one of the most
Madhya Pradesh, India. prominent rivers in India.
»» It is known for being the source of the »» It originates from the Amarkantak
Narmada River, Mahanadi and Son plateau and flows in a northward
Rivers. direction through the states of Madhya
»» It is located in South Eastern Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
Pradesh. So, statement 1 is not correct. »» The river finally empties into the Arabian
»» The Biligirirangan Hills, do not Sea, forming a vast estuary known as the

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Gulf of Khambhat or the Gulf of Cambay. THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
»» On the other hand, the Son River, another Westerlies
significant river in India, also originates
from the Amarkantak plateau. 43. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are
»» It flows in a northwest direction stronger and persistent than in northern
through the states of Madhya Pradesh, hemisphere. Why ?  (Year : 2011)
Chhattisgarh, Bihar, and Jharkhand
before merging with the Ganges River. 1) Southern hemisphere has less landmass
»» The Ganges River, in turn, flows towards as compared to northern hemisphere.
the Bay of Bengal. 2) Coriolis force is higher in southern
»» Therefore, one can see that while the hemisphere as compared to northern
Narmada River flows towards the hemisphere.
Arabian Sea, the Son River merges with Which of the statements given above is/are
the Ganges, which flows towards the Bay correct?
of Bengal. (a) 1 only
»» Amarkantak is considered a sacred place
by Hindus as it is believed to be the (b) 2 only
meeting point of the holy rivers Narmada (c) Both 1 and 2
and Son. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
»» The region is also ecologically rich and Explanation : Answer - A
is known for its dense forests, waterfalls,
and biodiversity. • The Southern hemisphere has less landmass
»» The Amarkantak plateau serves as a as compared to the northern hemisphere.
watershed for several other rivers and • The Northern Hemisphere’s surface is about
tributaries in central India. 40% landmass and is covered by about 60%
»» In summary, Amarkantak is the place water in Northern Hemisphere.
where two important rivers of India, the • The Southern Hemisphere’s surface is about
Narmada and the Son, originate. 20% landmass and is covered by 80% water.
»» The Narmada River flows towards the
• Westerlies :
Arabian Sea, while the Son River merges
»» They are prevailing winds that blow from
with the Ganges, which flows towards
the west at midlatitudes.
the Bay of Bengal.
»» These are the winds in the middle
42. Which one of the following rivers latitudes between 35 and 65 degrees
originates at Amarkantak ? (Year-2007) latitude.
(a) Damodar »» These are strongest in the winter when
pressure over the pole is low, and weakest
(b) Mahanadi in summer when the polar high creates
(c) Narmada stronger polar easterlies.
(d) Tapti »» The winds are predominantly from the
Explanation : C southwest in the Northern Hemisphere
and from the northwest in the Southern
»» The Narmada originates in Amarkantak, Hemisphere.
the highest peak of the Vindhyachal »» Westerlies are particularly strong,
Range, it flows westward through Madhya especially in the southern hemisphere,
Pradesh including Hoshangabad and where there is less land in the middle
Gujarat before finally ending its journey latitudes to cause the flow pattern to
in the Gulf of Khambat amplify or become more north-south
oriented.

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»» This creates frictional or drags in the • The westerlies are stronger in the Southern
motion which ultimately slows the hemisphere due to the vast ocean and
Westerlies down. Hence, statement 1 is comparatively less land.
correct. • They are best observed between 40 to
»» Because the Earth rotates on its axis, 60-degree latitude and these latitudes are also
circulating air is deflected toward the known as Roaring forties, Furious fifties, and
right in the Northern Hemisphere shrieking sixties. There are fluctuations in
and toward the left in the Southern the subpolar region. Thus, they produce wet
Hemisphere. This deflection is called the spells due to variation in weather.
Coriolis effect.
»» The amount of deflection the air makes Important Points
is directly related to both the speed at • The moist air masses that cause winter rains
which the air is moving and its latitude. in the North-Western region of India part
»» Therefore, slowly blowing winds will be of Western disturbances that originate from
deflected only a small amount, while the Mediterranean sea. Hence statement 2 is
stronger winds will be deflected more. correct.
The Coriolis force is zero right at the
equator. It is maximum at the poles. THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
»» Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Ganga Dolphin
44. The winds which blow between 30° N and
60° S latitudes throughout the year are 45. Other than poaching, what are the possible
known as westerlies.  (Year : 2015) reasons for the decline in the population
of Ganges River Dolphins?  (Year : 2014)
The moist air masses that cause winter
rains in North-Western region of India are 1) Construction of dams and barrages on
part of westerlies. rivers
2) Increase in the population of crocodiles
Which of the statements given above is/are
in rivers
correct?
3) Getting trapped in fishing nets
(a) 1 only accidentally
(b) 2 only 4) Use of synthetic fertilizers and other
(c) Both 1 and 2 agricultural chemicals in cropfields in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the vicinity of rivers
Explanation : Answer - B Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
• Westerlies are permanent winds.
(a) 1 and 2 only
• Westerlies are prevailing winds that flow
(b) 2 and 3 only
from the west towards the East.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
• It flows between 30°N-60°N and 30°S-60°S
degrees latitude. Hence statement 1 is NOT (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct. Explanation : Answer - C
• It is also known as anti trades winds as it
originates from the high-pressure area Horse Key Points.!
latitude and flows towards the subpolar low- • The increase in the population of the
pressure area. crocodile in the river is nothing to do with
• The blows from South West to North East the decline in the Ganges River Dolphins.
in the Northern hemisphere and from Hence Statement 2 is Not Correct.
North west to the south east in the southern • It is threatened primarily by the damming of
hemisphere. rivers for irrigation and electricity generation,
which degrades the habitat, and isolates the
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populations; preventing seasonal migration. • Threats: Ganges river dolphin is facing
• The Ganges river dolphin has dwindled severe threats from water development
abysmally to less than 2000 during the last projects, Pollution, hunting, and death due
century owing to direct killing, habitat to accidental catch in fishing gear.
fragmentation by dams and barrages, and • Species Conservation Project- to conserve
indiscriminate fishing. these endangered dolphins by Wildlife
• The Gangetic river dolphin is India’s national Institute of India. (“Development of
aquatic animal and is popularly known as conservation action plan for Dolphins” in
‘Susu’. The declaration was made in 2009 in 2016.
the National Ganga River Basin Authority’s Important Points
(NGRBA) first meeting.
• It has a fairly thick body with light grey-
• National Dolphin Day is celebrated each year brown skin often with a hue of pink, a long
on April 14th. pointed snout, and visible teeth in both the
46. Which one of the following is the national upper and lower jaws. This mammal has a
aquatic animal of India?  (Year : 2015) forehead that rises steeply and has very small
eyes.
(a) Saltwater crocodile • Their eyes lack a lens and therefore function
(b) Olive ridley turtle solely as a means of detecting the direction
(c) Gangetic dolphin of light.
(d) Gharial • They tend to swim with one fin trailing along
Explanation : Answer - C the substrate while rooting around with their
beak to catch shrimp and fish. The fins are
• The Gangetic Dolphin is the National Aquatic large and the dorsal fin is triangular and
Animal of India. undeveloped.
• It represents the purity of the river Ganga as • River Dolphins are solitary creatures and
it can only survive in pure and fresh water. females tend to be larger than males.
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests
notified the Ganges River Dolphin as the
National Aquatic Animal on 18th May 2010. THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
• Scientific name : Platanista gangetica
Climate & Rainfall
• it is one of the five river dolphins found in 47. A geographic region has the following
the world. distinct characteristics:  (Year : 2010)
• They are locally known as Susu, because of 1) Warm and dry climate
the noise they make while breathing.
2) Mild and wet winter.
• This species inhabits parts of the Ganges,
3) Evergreen oak trees.
Meghna, and Brahmaputra rivers in India,
Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh, and the The above features are the distinct
Karnaphuli River in Bangladesh. characteristics of which one of the
following regions?
• Gangetic dolphin is a critically endangered
species in India and therefore, has been (a) Mediterranean
included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (b) Eastern China
(Protection) Act, 1972. (c) Central Asia
• They are listed as Endangered on IUCN red (d) Atlantic coast of North America
list. The species is listed under Appendix I of
CITES. Explanation : Answer - A
• The main reasons for the decline in the • The Mediterranean region is the region
population of the species are poaching and surrounding the Mediterranean Sea.
habitat degradation.
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• Mediterranean Region is located on the the Pacific coastal regions, and the Huang
western margins of continents between 30° He, Chiang Jiang, and Xi Jiang river valleys,
to 45° North and south latitudes. as well as the northeast region of Manchuria,
• This includes places from Europe, South where winters tend to be drier and more
America, North America, Africa, Asia, and severe.
Australia. • Eastern China region experiences warm,
• The Mediterranean region is characterized wet summers and mild winters. It is the
by warm dry summers and cool wet winters. most populated and the most conducive to
Hence, Statement 1 & 2 are correct. agriculture.
• There is moderate rainfall during the winter • Most of eastern China and China proper,
months. when compared to the rest of China,
• Forests are found in the wetter parts and experience milder temperatures.
along the higher altitudes. • Western China, which includes the remote
• cork, olive, mulberry, and some types of regions of Tibet and Xinjiang Uygur, is
pines, cedars, and chestnuts are found in characterized by dramatic mountain ranges
the region. The main crops are wheat, olives, and desert plateaus.
vine, citrus fruits, barley, etc. 48. Which one of the following is the
• Most of the east and northeast margins of characteristic climate of the Tropical
the continents are covered by temperate Savannah Region?  (Year : 2012)
evergreen and deciduous trees.
a) Rainfall throughout the year
• Quercus ilex i.e. the evergreen oak, holly oak,
b) Rainfall in winter only
or holm oak, is a large evergreen oak native to
the Mediterranean region. Hence, Statement c) An extremely short dry season
3 is correct. d) A definite dry and wet season
Value Addition Explanation : Answer - D
• Central Asia is the central region of Asia, Tropical Savannah Region
extending from the Caspian Sea in the west
to the border of western China in the east. • Savannas - also known as tropical grasslands
• It is bounded on the north by Russia and on - are found to the north and south of tropical
the south by Iran, Afghanistan, and China. rainforest biomes. It is also known as Tropical
wet and dry in the Koeppen classification.
• The region consists of the former Soviet
republics of Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, • The largest expanses of savanna are in
Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan, and Turkmenistan. Africa, where much of the central part of the
continent, for example, Kenya and Tanzania,
• Central Asia experiences very dry climatic
consists of tropical grassland. Savanna
conditions, and inadequate precipitation.
grasslands can also be found in Brazil in
• Central Asia experiences hot summers and South America.
cool winters, with much sunshine and very
• Savanna regions have two distinct seasons - a
little precipitation.
wet season and a dry season. There is very
• The scarcity of water has led to very uneven little rain in the dry season.
population distribution, with most people
• In the wet season, vegetation grows, including
living along the fertile banks of the rivers
lush green grasses and wooded areas.
or along the fertile mountain foothills in
the southeast; comparatively few live in the • As you move further away from the equator
vast arid expanses of central and western and its heavy rainfall, the grassland becomes
Kazakhstan and western Uzbekistan and drier and drier - particularly in the dry
Turkmenistan. season. Savanna vegetation includes scrub,
grasses, and occasional trees, which grow
• Eastern China consists of the capital region,
near water holes, seasonal rivers or aquifer

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49. Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and running from west to east north of the
the people used to be nomadic herders.” Tropic of Capricorn.
The above statement best describes which • Indian Savanna :
of the following regions?  (Year : 2013) »» Certain parts across Northern Karnataka,
(a) African Savannah Southern Maharashtra and Telangana
exhibit characteristics of both semi-arid
(b) Central Asian Steppe and savanna climate. Due to irrigation
(c) North American Prairie and cultivation, this region is different
(d) Siberian Tundra from other savanna regions.
Explanation : Answer - B 50. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical
characteristic of  (Year : 2014)
• Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism is a
primitive subsistence activity, in which the (a) Equatorial climate
herders rely on animals for food, clothing, (b) Mediterranean climate
shelter, tools and transport.
(c) Monsoon climate
• They move from one place to another along
(d) All of the above climates
with their livestock, depending on the amount
and quality of pastures and water, thus there Explanation : Answer - C
is an irregular pattern of movement. • Monsoon type of climate:
• When we come to the statement given in »» It is best developed in the Indian
the question, it says: Climate is extreme, subcontinent, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos,
rainfall is scanty and the people used to be Cambodia, parts of Vietnam, and south
nomadic herders. china and northern Australis.
• The question says “used to” and “not use to”, »» This type of climate is characterized by
it is in fact describing the Nomadic empires the onshore wet monsoon in summer
such as Mongols and the question checks and offshore dry monsoon in winter.
your history via geography. Hence the »» The basic cause of monsoon climates is
correct answer is B. the difference in the rate of heating and
• Siberian Tundra must be opted out even if cooling of land and sea.
you take it as “use to be” because, in Tundra, »» Monsoon refers to the seasonal reversal
the main economic activity is not Nomadic in the wind direction during a year.
herding but is Hunting. Hunting and trapping »» The monsoon type of climate is
reindeer have provided food and hides to the characterized by a distinct seasonal
local population. pattern.
Value Addition • Equatorial type of climate:
»» Equatorial type of climate is found in the
• African Savanna :
Amazon basin in South America, Congo
»» The belt includes West African Sudan basin in Africa, Guinea coast in Africa,
and then curves southwards into East and much of the Indo-Malaysian region,
Africa and southern Africa north of the eastern Central America, some islands
Tropic of Capricorn. in the Caribbean Sea, western Colombia,
• South American Savanna : and eastern Madagascar.
»» There are two distinct regions namely »» This type of climate is located till 5
the llanos of the Orinoco basin [north of degrees to 10 degrees on either side of
equator] and the compos of the Brazilian the equator.
Highlands [South of equator]. • Warm Temperate Western Margin Climate:
• Australian savanna : »» It is also called a Mediterranean type of
»» The Australian savanna is located south of climate because most of the areas falling
the monsoon strip (northern Australia) under this climate are situated around
the Mediterranean Sea.
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»» This climate has developed between Value Addition
300C and 450C latitudes in both the
hemispheres in the western part of the Warm Temperate Western Margin Climate:
continents. • It is also called a Mediterranean type of
»» The climate of Central Chile is of climate because most of the areas falling
temperate Mediterranean type of climate. under this climate are situated around the
»» This climate region includes Southern Mediterranean Sea.
Italy, Greece, Western Turkey, Syria, • This climate has developed between 300C and
Lebanon, Western Israel, North Coastal 450C latitudes in both the hemispheres in the
Africa, central and Southern California western part of the continents.
in the USA, Central Chile in South
• The climate of Central Chile is of temperate
America, Cape Town area in South
Mediterranean type of climate.
Africa, and the coastal zones of Southern
and Southwest Australia. • This climate region includes Southern Italy,
Greece, Western Turkey, Syria, Lebanon,
51. Each day is more or less the same, the Western Israel, North Coastal Africa, central
morning is clear and bright with a sea and Southern California in the USA, Central
breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, Chile in South America, Cape Town area
heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then in South Africa, and the coastal zones of
rain comes with thunder and lightning. But Southern and Southwest Australia.
rain is soon over.” Which of the following
• Summers are warm and bright and winters
regions is described in the above passage?
are mild and cool.
 (Year : 2015)
Monsoon type of climate
(a) Savannah
(b) Equatorial • It is best developed in the Indian subcontinent,
Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, parts
(c) Monsoon
of Vietnam, and south china and northern
(d) Mediterranean Australis. This type of climate is characterized
Explanation : Answer - B by the onshore wet monsoon in summer and
offshore dry monsoon in winter.
• Equatorial climate:
• The basic cause of monsoon climates is the
»» Rainforests are located in the equatorial
difference in the rate of heating and cooling
climate region. They are hot and wet all
of land and sea.
year-round with a humid climate.
»» The temperatures are constant Sudan or Savannah Climate
throughout the year with little variation.
• It is a transitional type of climate found
The annual rainfall is high as it rains
between the equatorial forests and the trade
almost every day.
wind hot deserts.
»» Equatorial type of climate is found in the
Amazon basin in South America, Congo • It is confined within the tropics and is best
basin in Africa, Guinea coast in Africa, developed in Sudan in the Africa Continent.
and much of the Indo-Malaysian region, • Sudan Climate includes West Africa Sudan,
eastern Central America, some islands East Africa, and southern Africa north of the
in the Caribbean Sea, western Colombia, Tropic of Capricorn.
and eastern Madagascar. • In South America, there are two distinct
»» This type of climate is located till 5 regions of savanna north and south of the
degrees to 10 degrees on either side of equator, namely the llanos of the Orinoco
the equator. basin and the campus of the Brazilian
Highlands.

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• The Australian Savanna is located south of • Gravity from both the Sun and the Moon pull
the monsoon strip and north of the Tropic water across the Earth’s surface. Just as the
of Capricorn. It is characterized by high Earth pulls water downwards (in waterfalls,
temperatures throughout the year ranging for example), the weaker gravitational pull of
between 240C and 270C. the Sun and Moon pull water sideways across
the Earth.

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Most Important : SPRING TIDE

Tides • It is a tide in which the difference between
high and low tide is the greatest. Spring tides
52. High tides at antipodes are caused due to occur when the Moon is either new or full,
 (Year : 1986) and the Sun, the Moon, and the Earth are
(a) Gravitational pull of the moon and the aligned. When this is the case, their collective
sun gravitational pull on the Earth’s water is
strengthened.
(b) Gravitational pull of the sun
• Definition :-
(c) Centrifugal, centripetal and
gravitational pull of the sun • Some of the standard and recognised
definitions are mentioned below:
(d) Centrifugal, centripetal and
»» “Either of the two tides that occur at or
gravitational pull of the sun and the
just after the new moon and full moon
moon
when the tide-generating force of the
Explanation : Answer - C sun acts in the same direction as that of
• High tides and low tides are caused by the moon, reinforcing it and causing the
the moon. The moon’s gravitational pull greatest rise and fall in tidal level. The
generates something called the tidal force. highest spring tides (equinoctial springs)
occur at the equinoxes.” Or “A spring tide
• The tidal force causes Earth and its water to
is an unusually high tide that happens at
bulge out on the side closest to the moon and
the time of a new moon or a full moon.”
the side farthest from the moon. These bulges
- Collins dictionary.
of water are high tides.
»» “It is a tide of the greater-than-average
• The periodic short-term rise and fall in the range around the times of new moon and
sea level are known as Tide. full moon.” - Merriam-Webster.
• The moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent
Causes of Spring Tides
and a lesser extent the sun’s gravitational pull,
are the major causes for the occurrence of • The various reasons why spring tides occur
tides. Another factor is a centrifugal force are mentioned below:
that acts opposite to the gravitational pull of »» The forces that contribute to tides are
the earth. called tidal constituents.
• Tides occur due to a balance between all »» The moon’s gravitational pull on the
these forces. Tides are the rise and fall of sea earth is the major tidal constituent.
levels around the world. There are two high »» The greater gravitational force between
tides and two low tides each day. the objects is close to each other.
• The size of the high and low tides change »» The sun and moon both exert
over the month. gravitational force on the earth.
»» The moon’s pull is stronger than the sun.
• During a full moon or a new moon, the
»» Because it is much closer to the earth
difference between the high and low tide is
than the sun.
at its greatest.
»» It exerts a tidal force on the whole earth.
• This is because when the Earth, the Sun, and
the Moon are in a line, the gravitational pull
is at its strongest.
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Effects of Spring Tide 54. Consider the following statements : 

• The most prominent effect of spring tide is  (Year : 2000)
on the tides that take place in the oceans or I) Tides are of great help in navigation
seas. and fishing.
• As we have studied earlier, Spring tides occur II) High tide enables big ships to enter or
when there is a full moon or new moon. leave the harbour safely.
• During these events, the gravitational pull III) Tide prevents siltation in the harbours.
experienced by the Earth is very high because
IV) Kandla and Diamond Harbour are
it experiences the pull from both the sun as
tidal ports.
well as from the moon.
Which of these statements are correct ?
• This results in the occurrence of high tides in
the seas or the oceans. (a) I and IV
(b) II, III and IV
53. Neap tides are produced in the first and
third quarters of the Moon. Then,  (c) I, II and III
 (Year : 1991) (d) I, II, III and IV
(a) The Moon and the Sun are in Explanation : Answer - D
conjunction with the other planets • Tides move water in and out and this helps in
(b) The Moon and the Sun are in opposition better fishing. The reason is fish are easier to
with each other catch when they feed and tides dictate this.
(c) The attractions of the Sun and the • Small fishes gets confused during turbulent
Moon are at right angles to each other waters of tide and get cauught. Large fishes
(d) The Moon and the Sun are in quadrant feed during tide gets trapped.
position to each other • During high tide water rushes into harbours.
Explanation : Answer - C High tides makes the sea water rush into the
mouth of the river.
• Neap tides occur when the sun and moon are • This helps big ships to enter or exit harbour
at right angles to each other and the forces safely. Tides take away the terrigenous
of the sun and moon tend to counteract one material bought by the rivers at the river
another. Seven days after a spring tide, the harbours and prevents siltation.
sun and moon are at right angles to each
• High tides are very advantageous for ships to
other.
move in and out in some ports like kandla,
• When this happens, the bulge of the ocean Mangalore and Diamond harbour port.
caused by the sun partially cancels out the
bulge of the ocean caused by the moon. This 55. Assertion (A): During the Neap Tides, the
produces moderate tides known as neap high tide is lower and the low tide is higher
tides. than usual. 
• During Neap Tides, High tides are a little Reason (R): The Neap Tide, unlike the
lower and low tides are a little higher than Spring Tide, occurs on the New Moon
average. Neap tides occur during the first and instead of on the Full Moon.  (Year : 2001)
third quarter moon when the moon appears
“half full.” They are about 20% lower than the (a) Both A and R are individually true, and
normal tide. R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but
R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

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Explanation : Answer - C 3) Centrifugal force of the Earth
• The reason for lower high tide and higher Select the correct answer using the code
low tide is - as it occurs on the new moon. So given below. (Year : 2015)
the gravitational pull of the moon is less than (a) 1 only
the full moon. (b) 2 and 3 only
• Neap tide, tide of minimal range occurring (c) 1 and 3 only
near the time when the Moon and the Sun
(d) 1, 2 and 3
are in quadrature.
• This condition is geometrically defined as the Explanation : Answer - D
time at which the line from the Earth to the • The periodical rise and fall of the sea level is
Moon is at right angles to the line from the known as tide.
Earth to the Sun. • The Moon’s gravitational pull is the major
• Thus, the tide-producing effects of the Sun cause of a tide. Hence statement 2 is correct.
and the Moon cancel each other, and tidal • Sun’s gravitational pull and centrifugal force
ranges are usually 10 to 30 percent less than due to the gravitational pull of the earth
the mean tidal range. to a lesser extent so causes types. Hence
56. Which one of the following statements is statements 1 and 3 are correct. The movement
incorrect?  (Year : 2004) of water is caused by Meteorological effects
like winds and atmospheric pressure change
(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider and is known as surges.
rears experience high tides.
• The tide-generating force is the difference
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf between the gravitational attraction of the
is connected with the open sea by a Moon and the centrifugal force.
narrow channel.
• Tides vary in frequency, direction, and
(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters movement from place to place and from time
the narrow and shallow estuary of a to time.
river.
• Based on frequency, they are classified into
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the the semi-diurnal, diurnal, and mixed tide.
river Hooghly is of crucial importance
• Springtide: when the sun, moon, and earth
to Kolkata as port.
are in a straight line the height of the tide is
Explanation : Answer - A higher and this occurs on a full moon period.
• Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears • Neap tide: when the moon and the sun are
experience high tides is incorrect. The gulfs at right angles to each other the forces of the
with wide fronts and narrow rears experience sun and the moon tend to counteract each
higher tides. The in and out movement of other. It occurs twice a month.
water into a gulf through a channels called a
tidal current.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
• Tidal currents occur in conjunction with the
Steel Industry
rise and fall of the tide. The vertical motion
of the tides near the shore causes the water to 58. The steel industry in India is lagging
move horizontally, creating currents. When behind its objectives due to less availability
a tidal current moves toward the land and of  (Year : 1984)
away from the sea, it “floods.”
(a) Iron ore
57. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to (b) Coking coal
which among the following?
(c) Power
1) Gravitational force of the Sun (d) Technology
2) Gravitational force of the Moon
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Explanation : Answer - B • The imports are mainly to compensate for the
lack of good quality coal, especially coking
• The domestic availability of washed coking
coal from the mining sources in the country.
coal is less as compared to the amount which
is required. • Coking coal is imported by the state-run
Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and
• This causes problem for the steel industry in
other steel manufacturing units mainly to
India.
bridge the gap between the requirement and
• Though, India is an important iron and steel indigenous availability and to improve the
producing country in the world yet, we are quality. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
not able to perform to our full potential
• India does not have enough reserves for good
largely.
quality coking coal and most of it is imported
• Reasons for low productivity of iron and from Indonesia, South Africa, Russia, and
steel includes which of the following Australia. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
reasons:
• Experts say, it is this requirement of coking
»» High costs and limited availability of coal added with power plants whose boilers
coking coal are designed to run only on imported coal,
»» Lower productivity of labor which is likely to continue importing coal in
»» Irregular supply of energy the coming years.
»» Poor infrastructure.
• The coal requirement will not end any time
59. Despite having large reserves of coal, why soon.
does India import millions of tonnes of • Älso, we have power plants at the coasts
coal?  (Year : 2012) which are based on imported coal.
1) It is the policy of India to save its own • Their boilers are designed only for imported
coal reserves for future and import it coal. They will continue to use imported coal.
from other countries for the present • So, it is only the third category of thermal
use. power plants which were using imported coal
2) most of the power plants in India are as a substitute for domestic coal because if its
coal based and they are not able to get scarcity, which we can do something about.
sufficient applies of coal from within • Thus, India imports millions of tonnes of
the country coal due to a lack of availability of good coal.
3) Steel companies need large quantity of Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
coking coal which has to be imported.
60. In India, the steel production industry
Which of the statements given above is/are requires the import of  (Year : 2015)
correct ?
(a) saltpetre
a) 1 only
(b) rock phosphate
b) 2 and 3 only
(c) coking coal
c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : Answer - C
Explanation : Answer - B
• Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in
• The lack of coking coal reserves that are used
the production of Steel.
as a raw material in steelmaking and allied
industries is the main reason India imports • It is used in the production of fertilizers,
millions of tonnes of coal. tree stump removal, rocket propellants and
fireworks.
• Coal in India is used either from domestic
sources, mostly mined by coal India, or is • It is one of the major constituents of
imported. gunpowder (black powder) and has been used
since the Middle Ages as a food preservative.

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• Rock phosphate is used in the production of a region, town, or country. Hence, Statement
fertilizer and not for the production of Steel. 1 is correct.
• India imports coking coal. Hence Option 3 • Trademark licensing is the process by which a
is Correct. registered trademark owner, called a licensor
• The production of steel requires 0.8 tonnes of or proprietor, allows another party, called
coking coal to produce one tonne of Steel. a licensee, to make and distribute specific
products or services under the licensor’s
trademark agreement.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC - • Trademark licensing is a type of merchandise
Geographical Indication (GI) agreement. Whereas GI is not licensed but
has to be registered with the Registrar of GIs.
61. Inorder to comply with TRIPS Agreement,
Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
India enacted the Geographical Indications
of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, • Geographical Indication is assigned to the
1999. The difference / differences between agricultural goods/products natural, or
a “Trade Mark” and a Geographical manufactured goods and handicrafts. Hence,
Indication is / are:  (Year : 2010) Statement 3 is Not correct.
• Geographical Indications are covered as a
1) A Trade Mark is an individual or a component of intellectual property rights
company’s right whereas a Geographical (IPRs) under the Paris Convention for the
Indications is a community’s right. Protection of Industrial Property.
2) A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas • In India, Geographical Indications
a Geographical Indication cannot be registration is administered by the
licensed. Geographical Indications of Goods
3) A Trade Mark is assigned to the (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
manufactured goods whereas the • GI is governed by the World Trade
Geographical Indications is assigned to Organisation’s (WTO’s) Agreement on Trade-
the agricultural goods / products and Related Aspects of Intellectual Property
handicrafts only. Rights (TRIPS) at the international level.
Which of the statements given above is/are • Darjeeling tea was the first product of India
correct? to be accorded with the GI tag.
(a) 1 only
62. Which of the following has/have been
(b) 1 and 2 only accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status?
(c) 2 and 3 only
1) Banaras Brocades and Sarees
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2) Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
Explanation : Answer - B
3) Tirupathi Laddu
• A trademark is a type of intellectual property Select the correct answer using the code
consisting of a recognizable sign, design, given below. (Year : 2015)
or expression which identifies products or
(a) 1 only
services of a particular source from those of
others, although trademarks used to identify (b) 2 and 3 only
services are usually called service marks. (c) 1 and 3 only
• The trademark owner can be an individual, (d) 1, 2 and 3
business organization, or any legal entity. Explanation : Answer - C
• Geographical Indication(GI) is a name or a
sign given to certain products that relate to a • The Banaras sarees and brocades, renowned
specific geographical location or origins like for intricate designs of silk and gold threads,
have been assigned geographical indication
(GI) status in 2009. Banaras Brocade Sarees
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are made of finely woven silk and decorated 64. The shaded portion in the following map
with intricate designs using zari. represents  (Year :1986/1987)
• Tirupathi Laddu has been accorded GI tag in
the year 2014.
Value Addition
• India, as a member of the World Trade
Organization (WTO), enacted the
Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration & Protection)Act, 1999 that
has come into force with effect from 15th
September 2003.
• Darjeeling Tea was the first Indian product to
get the geographical indication tag, in 2004.
(a) Deciduous forests
• A geographical indication is a tag that is
(b) Tropical evergreen forests
accorded to the products that have a specific
geographical origin and possess qualities or a (c) Subtropical evergreen forests
reputation that are due to that origin. (d) None of the above
Explanation : Answer - A
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC 65. The shaded area shown in the map of India
‘‘Forests In India & World’’  (Year : 1986)
63. Tropical rain forests appear in which of
the following regions ? (Year : 1983)
(a) South America, South Africa and
Central Europe
(b) Central America, parts of Australia,
Guinea Coast
(c) Congo basin, Central America, South
East Asia
(d) North and South of the Congo basin
Explanation : Answer - D (a) Tropical wet evergreen forests
(b) Deciduous forests
• The Tropical Rainforest is a forest occurring
(c) Wet temperate forests
in tropical areas of heavy rainfall. It is
abundant with many species of wildlife and (d) Mangrove forests
vegetation. Rain forests cover less than two Explanation : Answer - A
percent of the Earth’s surface.
• In India, evergreen forests are found in the
• The largest rainforests are in the Amazon
western slopes of the Western Ghats in States
River Basin (South America), the Congo
such as Kerala and Karnataka.
River Basin (western Africa), and throughout
much of Southeast Asia. • They are also found in hills of Jaintia and
Khasi.
• Smaller rainforests are located in Central
America, Madagascar, Australia and nearby • Some of the trees found in Indian Tropical
islands, India, and other locations in the Forests are rosewood, mahogany, and ebony.
tropics. • Tropical Evergreen Forests
»» The tropical wet evergreen forest in India
is usually found in areas receiving more
than 200 cm of rainfall and having a
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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II GEOGRAPHY
temperature of 15-30 degrees Celsius. of Asia, having an area of 3,287,263 sq. km.
»» They occupy about 7% of the earth’s making it the seventh largest country in
surface. the world and is the second most populous
»» They are found mostly near the equator. country in the world having a population of
»» They have sparse undergrowth 1,352,642,280.
interspersed with clearings • Complete answer : The forest area of India
»» They have a scarce presence of litter according to the Government, as of 2019 is
(organic matter settling on the ground) 712,249 sq. km of the total geographical area
»» These forests are dense and multi- of the country that is 3,287,263 sq. km.
layered. • So the forest cover is approximately 20%
»» They harbor many types of plants and of the geographical land area. In terms of
animals. fraction it is of the geographical land area.
»» The forests constitute an important part
of the environment and ecology. • The forest area is divided into different
»» These trees are an important component categories like Very dense, Moderately dense,
of the Forest Biology and ecosystem, that Open forest.
helps to promote life in the ecosystem. • The state of Arunachal Pradesh has the largest
»» This allows the plants and animal life to forest area of 66,964 sq. km.
harmonize and live with one another in • Which is 79.96% of the total land area of the
absolute peace. state. The state of Chhattisgarh has a forest
66. The largest reserve of ‘Sal’ forests is found area of 55,457 sq. km making it the second
in  (Year : 1989) largest forest area state and it covers 41.09%
of the total land area of Chhattisgarh.
(a) Nilgiri hills • The state of Punjab has the lowest forest cover
(b) Dehradun valley in terms of its percentage of land having a
(c) The Aravallis forest area of 1,837 sq. km which is3.65% of
(d) Eastern Peninsula the total land area. Hence, the correct option
is A.
Explanation : Answer - D • Note :The states of Arunachal Pradesh, Goa,
• The largest reserve of sal forests is found in Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Maharashtra have
eastern peninsula. a forest area of more than 50,000 sq. km.
• Sal Forest is a type of forest that is dominated There has been an increase in forest area of
by a single plant species, which is commonly 0.21% since 2015.
known as the Sal tree or Shorea robusta. It 68. Assertion (A) : Mangroves are very
belongs to the category of ‘Tropical Moist specialised forest ecosystems of tropical and
Deciduous Forest’. subtropical regions bordering certain sea
• The distribution of Sal forests is under the coasts.
control of topography, geology, and soil. Reason (R) : They stabilise the shoreline
67. What proportion of geographical land and act as bulwark against encroachments
area is under actual forest cover in India? by sea.  (Year : 1996)
 (Year : 1992) In the context of the above two statements,
(a) One-fifth which one of the following is correct ?
(b) One-fourth (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
(c) One-third correct explanation of A
(d) Two-fifths (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation of A
Explanation : Answer - A
(c) A is true but R is false
• Hint : India is a country in the continent
(d) A is false but R is true

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Explanation : Answer - A 69. Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3
and 4 in the rough outline map given: 
• Mangrove, that grow in dense thickest
 (Year : 1998)
or forests along tidal estuaries, in salt
marshes, and on muddy coasts; and that
characteristically have prop roots—i.e.,
exposed supporting roots.
• The term mangrove also applies to thickets
and forests of such plants.
• Respiratory or knee roots (pneumatophores)
are characteristic of many species; they
project above the mud and have small
openings (lenticels) through which air enters, Among these, those which were threatened
passing through the soft spongy tissue to the in 1997 by a serious epidemic include
roots beneath the mud mangrove habitat.
• Mangroves are extremely important to the (a) Teak forests of 3 and 4
coastal ecosystems they inhabit. Physically, (b) Oaks forests of 1 and sal forests of 2
they serve as a buffer between marine (c) Sal forests of 3
and terrestrial communities and protect (d) Sandalwood forests of 4
shorelines from damaging winds, waves, and
floods. Explanation : Answer - C
• Mangrove thickets improve water quality by • Sal forest of Madhya Pradesh indicates ‘3’ in
filtering pollutants and trapping sediments the given India map. In 1997 Sal forest were
from the land, and they reduce coastal badly affected by the insects which cause
erosion. destruction of Sal forest by turning the trees
• Ecologically, they provide habitat for a dry.
diverse array of terrestrial organisms, and • Sal Forest a forest type dominated by a single
many species of coastal and offshore fish plant species, commonly known as Sal tree
and shellfish rely exclusively on mangroves (Shorea robusta). It belongs to the category
as their breeding, spawning, and hatching ‘Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest’. The
grounds. distribution of Sal forests is controlled by the
• Because of their high salt tolerance, conditions of topography, geology, and soil.
mangroves are often among the first species • Sal forests are mainly distributed in the South
to colonize mud and sandbanks flooded and Southeast Asia, occurring along the base
by seawater, but an increase in coastal of Tropical Himalayas from Assam to Punjab,
development and altered land use led to a in the eastern districts of Central India, and
decline in global populations. on the Western Bengal Hills.
• Several species are listed as vulnerable or • Sal forests have the widest distribution
endangered on the International Union for amongst all Dipterocarps, extending over an
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of estimated area of 13 million hectares in India
Threatened Species. alone, and Bangladesh and Nepal together
have over one million hectare.
70. Amongst the following Indian States
which one has the minimum total forest
cover?  (Year : 2004)
(a) Sikkim
(b) Goa
(c) Haryana
(d) Kerala
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Explanation : Answer - C • North Andamans is characterized by the
wet evergreen type, with plenty of woody
• India has a total forest area of 697,898 sq.km,
climbers.
with a percentage of 21.235%. Punjab,
Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat • The North Nicobar Islands (including Car
and Bihar have the lowest percentage of Nicobar and Battimalv) are marked by the
Forests in India. complete absence of evergreen forests, while
such forests form the dominant vegetation
• These 6 states along with the UT-Daman &
in the central and southern islands of the
Diu has forest percentages less than 10%.
Nicobar group.
»» Punjab -3.52%
»» Haryana -3.59% • Grasslands occur only in the Nicobars, and
»» Rajasthan -4.7% Uttar Pradesh - 5.96% while deciduous forests are common in the
Gujarat - 7.48% Andamans. The present forest coverage is
»» Bihar - 7.74% claimed to be 86.2% of the total land area.
»» Daman & Diu - 8.28% Value Addition
• The reasons behind the above states having • This a typical forest coverage is made-up of
quite less percentages are, Punjab and twelve types namely :
Haryana are small states and the people
(1) Giant evergreen forest
of these 2 states are highly dependent on
Agriculture. So most of its land area has been (2) Andamans tropical evergreen forest
utilized for the agricultural needs. (3) Southern hilltop tropical evergreen forest
• A large percentage of the area in Rajasthan (4) Cane brakes
and Gujarat has been covered with the Thar (5) Wet bamboo brakes
Desert and the Rann of Kutch. (6) Andamans semi-evergreen forest
• Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are the states with (7) Andamans moist deciduous forest
the highest population and also have the
(8) Andamans secondary moist deciduous
highest population density in India.
forest
• Because of this population explosion, these 2
(9) Littoral forest
states have a very less percentage of the forest
area. (10) Mangrove forest
• Daman & Diu, being a UT, has a very less (11) Brackish water mixed forest
area of 102 sq.km(39 sq.mi) and is totally (12) Submontane hill valley swamp forest.
urbanized with a population density of 2400/
sq.km (6200/sq.mi). Hence it has a very low
forest area percentage.
71. Which one of the following regions of
India has a combination of mangrove
forest, evergreen forest and deciduous
forest?  (Year : 2015)
(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
(b) South-West Bengal
(c) Southern Saurashtra
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Explanation : Answer - D
• The epiphytic vegetation, mostly ferns, and
orchids are found in South Andaman forests.
Moist deciduous forests are found in the Vipin cleared CSE & IFoS
Middle Andamans. Prelims 2023

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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC the air, resulting in the formation of clouds.

Cyclones • This whole system of clouds and winds
spins and grows. This entire cycle continues
72. Which one of the areas marked as A, B, C
resulting in a cyclone.
and D in the given figure of the cyclone,
witnesses heavy torrential short duration • When the winds reach a speed of 63 mph, it is
rainfall accompanied by thunderstorms? called a tropical storm, when the winds reach
 (Year : 1999) a speed of 119 kmph it is called a tropical
cyclone or hurricane.
73. Assertion (A) : The surface winds spiral
inwards upon the centre of the cyclone. 
Reason (R) : Air descends in the centre of
the cyclone.  (Year : 2002)
(a) Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but
R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(a) A (b) B
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) C (d) D
Explanation : Answer - C
Explanation : Answer - B
• Cyclone is a large scale air mass that rotates
• The area marked by ‘B’ witnesses torrential around a strong center of low atmospheric
downpours accompanied by thunder and pressure.
lightning because in this area, maximum
upliftment of warm air mass takes place. • Cyclones are characterized by inward
spiraling winds that rotate about a zone of
• In the given figure ‘B’ lies between two low pressure.
cyclone zone ‘A’ and ‘D’. At the ‘B’ marked
region rainfall would be accompanied by • The largest low-pressure systems are polar
thunder storms. vortices and extratropical cyclones of the
largest scale (the synoptic scale).
How is a Cyclone formed? • Warm-core cyclones such as tropical cyclones
• When it comes to the formation or and subtropical cyclones also lie within the
strengthening of a cyclone, Cyclogenesis synoptic scale.
plays a crucial role. • Upper level cyclones can exist without the
• It is an umbrella term to identify several presence of a surface low, and can pinch
different processes that result in a cyclone. off from the base of the tropical upper
Tropical cyclones are formed over warm tropospheric trough during the summer
ocean water near the equator. Warm moist air months in the Northern Hemisphere.
near the surface of the ocean rises upwards. • The surface winds spiral inwards upon the
This creates a low-pressure area near the centre of the cyclone because air descends at
surface. the centre of the cyclone.
• This results in the movement of cooler air 74. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern
from surrounding areas into the low-pressure Pacific regions in tropical latitudes,
area. cyclone does not originate. What is the
• Now even this cool air becomes warm and reason?  (Year : 2015)
moist and rises up.
(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
• The above cycle keeps continuing. The warm
moist air which rises up, cools the water in (b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone
seldom occurs
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(c) Coriolis force is too weak Do You Know...?
(d) Absence of land in those regions UPSC often repeats many questions from
Explanation : Answer - B Mains Examination as well
• Reasons for the lack of cyclone formation • The recent cyclone on east coast of India was
in the South Atlantic Sea called “Phailin”. How are tropical cyclones
named across the world? 
1) Surface temperatures run a shade
 (5 Marks/ 2013)
cooler than the one ideal for tropical
cyclone formation. Climatologically
high values of vertical wind shear THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
across that basin throughout the year Ocean Currents
even in summer.
75. Match the Columns:  (Year : 1985)
2) Vorticity: Lack of pre-existing centres
of rotation in the area. Southeastern coast of Florida
(A) U.S.A.
3) Absence of tropical waves. (1) current
4) The Intertropical Convergence Zone West coast of South Kuroshio
(ITCZ), which shifts toward the north (B) Africa (2)
current
in northern summer and toward the
Southwestern coast of Beneguella
south in the southern summer, usually (C) South America (3)
stays at or north of the equator. current
»» The tropospheric vertical wind shear is Southeastern coast of Peruvian
(D) Japan (4)
much too strong and there is typically no current
inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
over the ocean. (a) 2 3 4 1 (c) 1432
»» Without an ITCZ to provide synoptic
(b) 1 3 4 2 (d) 2431
vorticity and convergence resulting
in large-scale spin and thunderstorm Explanation : Answer - B
activity as well as having strong wind • The Florida Current, is a thermal ocean
shear, it becomes very difficult to generate current that flows from the Straits of Florida
tropical cyclones. around the Florida Peninsula and along
»» ITCZ stays at or near the equator and the southeastern coast of the United States
does not shift southward over the before joining the Gulf Stream Current near
south Atlantic or South Pacific region. Cape Hatteras. Its contributing currents are
Therefore, these regions do not have the the Loop Current and the Antilles Current.
ITCZ over them which is a major cause
»» The Benguela Current is a cold, wide
of the lack of cyclones.
current that flows northwards along the
»» Lower sea temperatures are also a reason.
west coast of southern Africa. It is an
Important Points Eastern Boundary Current and forms
• Cyclone, any large system of winds that the eastern flank of the South Atlantic
circulates about a centre of low atmospheric Gyre The ocean current “begins” roughly
pressure in a counterclockwise direction to where the eastward-flowing South
the north of the Equator and a clockwise Atlantic Current swings northward at
direction to the south. the Agulhas.
»» The Peruvian Current, also called the
Humboldt Current, is a cold, low-salinity
ocean current that flows north along the
western coast of South America. It is an
eastern boundary current flowing in the
direction of the equator, and extends
500–1,000 km (310–620 mi) offshore.
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»» The Kuroshio a warm northeasterly found to carry the icebergs as far as the
ocean current, off the coast of JAPAN. Bermuda triangle towards the south.
This current is also called the gulf stream
77. In the given map, which one of the following
of the Pacific or Japan Current. Kuroshio
pairs of ocean currents is shown? 
means “the black stream” in Japanese,
 (Year : 1999)
named after the deep ultramarine color
of the high salinity water, which is found
flowing north of the current’s axis.
76. Which of the following is cold ocean
current?  (Year : 1989)
(a) Labrador
(b) Gulf Stream
(c) Kuro Shio
(d) None of these
Explanation : Answer - A
• The cold current among the following given (a) Benguela and Falkland
options is Labrador Current.
(b) Canary and Humboldt
• This Labrador Current flows in the North
(c) Agulhas and Guinea
Atlantic Ocean.
(d) Benguela and Guinea
• The cold current flows till the Labrador coast
from the Arctic Ocean. Explanation : Answer - D
• This cold wave also meets the warm waves • In the given map, the Guinea and Benguela
that are moving and outward in Gulf Stream. ocean currents are shown, which flows in the
• The combination of these cold current and central western and south western sides of
hot current produces heavy fog. Africa.
• The Gulf Stream is a warm Current. It flows • Benguela Current, oceanic current that
in the Atlantic Ocean. The origin of this wave is a branch of the West Wind Drift of the
occurs at the Gulf of Mexico and this current Southern Hemisphere.
flow till Florida. This stream further splits in • It flows northward in the South Atlantic
the northern and southern stream. Ocean along the west coast of southern
• The KuroShio as the name suggests is known Africa nearly to the Equator before merging
as Japan Current. It is also known as Black with the westward-flowing Atlantic South
current. Equatorial Current.
• It is a warm ocean current and flows in the • Guinea Current, surface oceanic current of
North Pacific Ocean. the Atlantic Ocean, the eastward continuation
• This is the same as the Gulf Stream in the of the Atlantic Equatorial Countercurrent,
north Atlantic. off the western coast of Africa near the Gulf
• It is a western boundary current and is of Guinea.
powerful. • The warm, highly saline Guinea Current
• Hence, the correct option is A reaches a depth of less than 660 feet (200 m).
• Note : These cold currents even have a 78. Which one of the following factors is
tendency to go very far away either towards responsible for the change in the regular
the South or towards the east then their direction of the ocean currents in the
normal flow. This creates very many problems Indian Ocean?  (Year : 1997)
for the travel ships because these waves also
(a) Indian Ocean is ‘half an ocean’
carry the icebergs with them. They were
(b) Indian Ocean has monsoon drift
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(c) Indian Ocean is a landlocked ocean 4) Ocean currents are affected by the
(d) Indian Ocean has greater variation in configuration of the ocean.
salinity Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation : Answer - B (a) 1 and 2
• Indian Ocean has monsoon drift due to (b) 2, 3 and 4
which it is responsible for the change in the (c) 1, 3 and 4
regular direction of the ocean currents in the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Indian Ocean.
• Due to the monsoon drift of Indian Ocean, Explanation : Answer - D
its regular direction of the ocean currents • Surface Currents are generally wind driven
changes twice a year. movements of water at or near the ocean’s
Indian Ocean Currents and Monsoons surface.
• Thermohaline currents (which are caused
• The currents in the northern portion of the by variation of temperature and salinity and
Indian Ocean change their direction from density) are slow deep currents that affect
season to season in response to the seasonal bulk of the seawater beneath the Pycnocline.
rhythm of the monsoons.
• Due to uneven heating by the sun, water in
• The effect of winds is comparatively more Equatorial regions is warm, while that in
pronounced in the Indian Ocean. Polar regions is much colder.
• Winter Circulation : • The currents in the Atlantic Ocean operate to
»» Under the influence of prevailing reduce this energy imbalance and redistribute
trade winds [easterly trade winds], the the energy.
north equatorial current and the south
• In the Atlantic Ocean in the Northern
equatorial current start from the south
Hemisphere currents are set up in clockwise
of Indonesian islands, moving from east
loops called gyres.
to west.
• Oceanic factors include the pressure
• This raises the level of western Indian
gradient, temperature variations and salinity
(south-east of horn of Africa) ocean by few
differences.
centimeters. And this creates a counter-
equatorial current which flows between • Ex-oceanic factors are atmospheric pressure
the north equatorial current and the south and winds, evaporation and precipitation.
equatorial current in west-east direction. • Tides caused by the gravitational pull of
• The north-east monsoons drive the water the Moon and the Sun also play role in the
along the coast of Bay of Bengal to circulate forming of oceanic currents.
in an anti-clockwise direction. 80. Consider the following factors: 
• Similarly, the water along the coast of Arabian  (Year : 2012)
Sea also circulate in an anti-clockwise
circulation. 1) Rotation of the Earth
2) Air pressure and wind
79. Consider the following statements: 
3) Density of ocean water
 (Year : 2002)
4) Revolution of the Earth
1) Ocean currents are the slow surface Which of the above factors influence the
movement of water in the ocean. ocean currents?
2) Ocean currents assist in maintaining
a) 1 and 2 only
the Earth’s heat balance.
b) 1,2 and 3 only
3) Ocean currents are set in motion
primarily by prevailing winds. c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and4.

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Explanation : Answer - B Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. However, several
hundred mi. (km.) north of the equator, the
• Factors affecting Ocean Currents-
winds are much weaker, in comparison
1) Density- • The stronger winds to the south pile up water
»» Varying density caused by temperature where the winds are weak.
and salinity in oceans led to vertical • As a result, the surface of the ocean can be up
currents in oceans. to 6 in. (15 cm.) higher and the thermocline
2) Air pressure and wind : as much as 328 ft. (100 m.) deeper than it is
»» Monsoon winds are responsible for the directly to the north.
seasonal reversal of ocean currents in the • The excess water flows eastward under the
Indian Ocean. influence of the Earth’s rotation, giving rise
»» Further influence of atmospheric to the equatorial countercurrents. In the
pressure and insolation causes variation Indian Ocean, the equatorial countercurrent
in winds movements which affects ocean is located several hundred mi. (km.) south of
currents eventually. the equator.
3) Rotation of Earth- • In all three oceans, the equatorial
»» The Coriolis effect is a result of the countercurrent is concentrated in the upper
rotation of the earth. 656 ft. (200 m.), above the thermocline. The
»» Coriolis force causes the mater to move intensity of the equatorial countercurrent
right in the northern hemisphere and left varies from season to season and from month
in the southern hemisphere. to month.
4) Revolution of Earth : • The strongest seasonal changes occur in the
»» The Revolution of the earth does not Atlantic Ocean.
influence the ocean currents. • Eastward flow reaches a maximum in the
Important Points summer and fall, with speeds of up to 12 in.
(30 cm.) per second, and disappears in the
• The primary forces that influence the currents
spring.
are:
• Seasonal changes are weaker in the Pacific
»» Heating by solar energy; wind; gravity;
Ocean. Here, the equatorial countercurrent
Coriolis force.
exists year-round, and is strongest in the fall
• The secondary forces that influence the
and winter, with speeds slightly.
currents are :
»» Temperature difference; Salinity Important Points
difference • Thermocline : Region of strongest decrease
81. What explains the eastward flow of the in temperature with increasing depth.
equatorial counter-current?  (Year : 2015).
(a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis
(b) Convergence of the two equatorial
currents
(c) Difference in salinity of water
(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the
equator
Explanation : Answer - B
• The equatorial countercurrents are driven by
a distinct surface wind pattern in the tropics.
• Strong westward trade winds result in
westward surface flow in most of the tropical Priyanka Kumari cleared CSE
Prelims 2023
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ENVIRONMENT (1979-2023)

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC »» So, Statement-I is correct but

Marsupials, Lion-Tailed Macaque, Great Indian Statement-II is incorrect.
Busturd, Musk Deer, Asiatic wild Ass Indian Wild »» Therefore, option (c) is the correct
Buffalo, Orangutan answer.
1. Consider the following statements : 2. A class of animals known as Marsupials is
a characteristic feature of  (Year-2001)
Statement I :  (Year-2023)
»» Marsupials are not naturally found in (a) Africa
India. (b) Australia
Statement II (c) South America
»» Marsupials can thrive only in montane (d) South East Asia
grasslands with no predators. Explanation : B
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? »» Marsupials are an infraclass of mammals
living primarily in Australia.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are »» A distinctive characteristic, common to
correct and Statement II is the correct many species, is that most of the young
explanation for Statement-I are carried in a pouch.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are »» Well-known marsupials include
correct and Statement II is not the kangaroos, wallabies, the koala, possums,
correct explanation for Statement I opossums, wombats, and the Tasmanian
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II devil.
is incorrect · »» Other marsupials include the numbat,
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement bandicoots, bettongs, the bilby, quolls,
II is correct and the quokka. Hence, answer must be
B.
Explanation : C
3. Consider the following ‘Fauna : 
»» Marsupials (Metatheria) are pouched (Year-2023)
mammals, that is mammals in which the
females bear their young alive but in an 1. Lion-tailed Macaque
almost foetal state and, in most species, 2. Malabar Civet
carry them within an external pocket or 3. Sambar Deer
pouch formed by a flap of dermal tissue How many of the above are generally
on the abdomen. nocturnal or most active after sunset?
»» The most familiar marsupials are the
kangaroos. (a) Only one
»» The Marsupials are native to Australia. (b) Only two
»» They are not naturally found in India. So, (c) All three
statement 1 is correct. (d) None
»» Marsupials are mostly found in arid
and semi-arid regions and not only in Explanation: B
montane grasslands with no predators. »» Lion-tailed macaque, also known as
So, statement 2 is not correct. the wanderoo, thrives in the upper
canopy of tropical evergreen rainforests

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and monsoon forests, at a wide range 5. Which one of the following groups
of elevations, from 330 to 6,000 ft of animals belongs to the category of
(100–1,850 m). They are endemic to the endangered species?  (Year-2012)
Western Ghats.
»» Lion-tailed macaques are diurnal and (a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red
live in groups of 10 to 20 individuals. So, Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
point 1 is not correct. (b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and
»» Malabar Civet is a nocturnal and elusive Great Indian Bustard
anima. (c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus
»» It is endemic to Western Ghats of India. Monkey and Saras (Crane)
They are mainly found in Wooded plains (d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull,
and hill slopes of evergreen rainforests. Hanuman Langur and Cheetal
So, point 2 is correct.
Explanation : A
»» Sambar deer is native to the Indian
subcontinent and Southeast Asia that »» Endangered Species in India Some
is listed as a vulnerable species on the animal species in India are threatened
IUCN Red List since 2008. with extinction, and they are categorized
»» Sambar are nocturnal or crepuscular as endangered species.
animals and rest during the day under »» The Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer,
the cover of heavy forest. So, point 3 is Red Panda, and Asiatic Wild Ass are
correct. some of the endangered species in India.
»» Therefore, option (b) is the correct »» Great Indian Bustard : The Great Indian
answer. Bustard is a large bird that is native to
India. It is critically endangered, with
4. In which of the following States is lion-
only about 150 individuals left in the
tailed macaque found in its natural
wild. The major threat to the bird is
habitat?
habitat loss due to agricultural activities
1. Tamil Nadu and hunting.
2. Kerala »» Musk Deer : The Musk Deer is a shy
3. Karnataka animal that is found in the Himalayas.
It is endangered due to habitat loss and
4. Andhra Pradesh poaching for its musk gland, which is
Select the correct answer using the codes used in traditional medicine.
given below: (Year-2013) »» The Red Panda : is a small, arboreal
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only mammal that is found in the eastern
Himalayas. It is endangered due to
(b) 2 only
habitat loss and poaching for its fur.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only »» Asiatic Wild Ass : The Asiatic Wild Ass
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is a large animal that is found in the
Explanation : A Indian subcontinent. It is endangered
due to habitat loss and hunting for its
»» The lion-tailed macaques are only native meat and hide.
to India.
»» There, they live in the Western Ghats hills 6. A sandy and saline area is the natural
and mountains of southwestern India. habitat of an Indian animal species. The
»» They are primarily endemic to small and animal has no predators in that area
severely fragmented rainforests of the but its existence is threatened due to the
Western Ghats in Karnataka, Kerala and destruction of its habitat. Which one of the
Tamil Nadu. following could be that animal? (Year-
2011)
(a) Indian wild buffalo

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(b) Indian wild ass »» It is a rare and endangered species of
(c) Indian wild boar wild ass found only in the Indian state of
(d) Indian gazelle Gujarat.
»» Hunting or poaching of Indian wild ass
Explanation : D is strictly prohibited under the Act.
»» In the last century, the Indian wild 3. Wild buffalo -
ass lived all over the dry regions of »» Wild buffalo is a Schedule II animal
northwestern India and western Pakistan under the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
including Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Sind and 1972.
Baluchistan. »» It is an endangered species of buffalo
»» Today, it survives only in the Little Rann, found in the Indian subcontinent.
and a few stray towards the Great Rann »» Hunting or poaching of wild buffalo is
of Kutch with some reaching bordering allowed under some provisions provided
villages in the Jalore district of the Indian by law.
State of Rajasthan. • The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
7. According to the Wildlife (Protection) provides for the protection of wild animals
Act, 1972, which of the following animals and plants in India.
cannot be hunted by any person except »» It lists several animals in Schedules I, II,
under some provisions provided by law? III, and IV, and their hunting or poaching
is regulated under the Act.
1. Gharial »» Gharial and Indian wild ass are Schedule
2. Indian wild ass I animals, and their hunting or poaching
3. Wild buffalo is strictly prohibited under the Act.
Select the correct answer using the code »» Wild buffalo is a Schedule II animal, and
given below. (Year-2017) its hunting or poaching is allowed under
some provisions provided by law.
(a) 1 only
8. Which of the following are the most likely
(b) 2 and 3 only
places to find the musk deer in its natural
(c) 1 and 3 only habitat?(Year-2020)
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
Explanation : D
2. Gangotri National Park
• According to the Wildlife (Protection) 3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
Act, 1972, the following animals cannot be 4. Manas National Park
hunted by any person except under some
Select the correct answer using the code
provisions provided by law :
given below:
1. Gharial -
»» Gharial is a Schedule I animal under the (a) 1 and 2 only
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. (b) 2 and 3 only
»» It is a critically endangered species (c) 3 and 4 only
of crocodile found in the Indian (d) 1 and 4 only
subcontinent.
»» Hunting or poaching of gharial is strictly Explanation : A
prohibited under the Act. »» Musk deer largely can be seen in
2. Indian wild ass - Himalayan states.
»» Indian wild ass is a Schedule I animal »» States such as Jammu and Kashmir,
under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim,
1972. and Arunachal Pradesh.
»» It inhabits high alpine environments
above altitudes of 2,500 m.

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»» Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and Gangotri »» Langur is not amongst ape family. In
National Park in Uttarakhand. Hence, 1 India, monkey is found of one family-
and 2 are correct. Cercopithecidae.
»» Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar »» In further classification: Cercopithecidae
Pradesh and Manas National Park in is divided among two groups- Langur
Assam. Hence, 3 and 4 are not correct. and Macqau.
9. Which one of the following makes a tool
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in
a tree or a log of wood?  (Year-2023) Butterflies, Wasps, Honey Bees
11. Which of the following organisms perform
(a) Fishing cat
waggle dance for others of their kin to
(b) Orangutan indicate the direction and the distance to a
(c) Otter source of their food?  (Year-2023)
(d) Sloth bear
(a) Butterflies
Explanation: B (b) Dragonflies
»» Orangutans are the largest arboreal (c) Honeybees
mammal, spending most of their time in (d) Wasps
trees. Long, powerful arms and grasping
hands and feet allow them to move Explanation : C
through the branches. »» Honeybees live in colonies with one
»» These great apes share 96.4% of our genes queen running the whole hive.
and are highly intelligent creatures. »» Worker honeybees are all females and
»» They have been observed as using sticks are the only bees most people ever see
for fishing out bugs from bark. flying around outside of the hive.
»» Researchers have also spotted orangutans »» They forage for food, build the
using sticks to extract seeds from fruit honeycombs, and protect the hive.
and scrape insects from a hole in a tree »» Honey bees use “waggle dance” to
in the wild. communicate the direction, distance,
»» The name orangutan means “man of the and quality of a resource to nestmates
forest” in the Malay language. by encoding celestial cues, retinal optic
»» In the lowland forests in which they flow, and relative food value into motion
reside, orangutans live solitary existences. and sound within the nest.
»» They feast on wild fruits like lychees, »» Therefore, option (c) is the correct
mangosteens, and figs, and slurp water answer.
from holes in trees. 12. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall
»» They make nests in trees of vegetation to in the population of species of butterflies,
sleep at night and rest during the day. what could be its likely consequence/
»» Therefore, option (b) is the correct consequences?(Year-2017)
answer.
1. Pollination of some plants could be
10. Among the following, which one is not an adversely affected.
ape?(Year-2008)
2. There could be a drastic increase in the
(a) Gibbon fungal infections of some cultivated
(b) Gorilla plants.
(c) Langur 3. It could lead to a fall in the population
(d) Orangutan of some species of wasps, spiders and
birds.
Explanation : C

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Select the correct answer using the code compared to the number of ovules
given below: available for pollination.
(a) 1 only »» Pollination by wind is more common
amongst abiotic pollinations-
(b) 2 and 3 only »» Wind pollination also requires that the
(c) 1 and 3 only pollen grains are light and non-sticky
(d) 1, 2 and 3 so that they can be transported in wind
Explanation : C currents.
»» They often possess well-exposed stamens
»» Statement 1 and 3 are correct. Butterflies (so that the pollens are easily dispersed
are pollinating insects. They help in into wind currents) and large often-
pollination of many flowering plants. feathery stigma to easily trap airborne
Butterflies also act as a lower member of pollen grains.
the food chain. »» Wind pollinated flowers often have a
»» A number of animals, including birds single ovule in each ovary and numerous
and mice feed on butterfly. flowers packed into an inflorescence; a
»» As populations of butterfly diminish, familiar example is the corn cob – the
so will populations of birds and other tassels you see are nothing but the stigma
animals that rely on them as a food and style which wave in the wind to trap
source. pollen grains.
»» This loss of the butterfly is the beginning »» Wind-pollination is quite common in
of the “butterfly effect.” Statement 2 is grasses.
not correct.
Pollination by water-
13. Consider the following kinds of organisms: »» It is quite rare in flowering plants and
1. Bat is limited to about 30 genera, mostly
monocotyledons.
2. Bee
»» In most of the water-pollinated species,
3. Bird pollen grains are protected from wetting
Which of the above is/are pollinating by a mucilaginous covering.
agent/agents?(Year-2012) Additional Information
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only Biotic agents
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 »» Entomophily : pollination by Insects.
Explanation : D Eg. Bee.
»» The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. »» Ornithophily : pollination by birds.
»» Chiropteriphily : pollination by bats.
Key Points
Hence 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Agents for Pollination- »» Malacophily : pollination by slug and
»» Plants use two abiotic (wind and water) snail.
and one biotic (animals) agent to achieve
pollination.
»» The majority of plants use biotic agents
for pollination. Only a small proportion
of plants use abiotic agents.
»» Pollen grains coming in contact with the
stigma is a chance factor in both wind
and water pollination. To compensate
for this uncertainty and associated loss
of pollen grains, the flowers produce Abhilash Bhandari cleared CSE
an enormous amount of pollen when Prelims 2023

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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Select the correct answer using the code
IUCN, UNEP, CITES given below. (Year-2015)
14. ‘Invasive Species Specialist ‘Group’ (a) 1 only
(that develops Global Invasive Species (b) 2 and 3 only
Database) belongs to which one of the (c) 1 and 3 only
following organizations?  (Year-2023)
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) The International Union for Explanation : B
Conservation of Nature
• International Union for Conservation of
(b) The United Nations Environment
Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN): -
Programme
»» IUCN is an international organization
(c) The United Nations World Commission
that works towards protecting the natural
for Environment and Development
environment and conserving natural
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature resources.
Explanation:A »» It is not an organ of the United Nations, but
»» The Global Invasive Species Database it has observer status at the UN General
was developed and is managed by the Assembly. - IUCN runs thousands of
Invasive Species Specialist Group’ of field projects around the world to better
the Species Survival Commission of the manage natural environments and
International Union for Conservation of promote sustainable development.
Nature. »» It is composed of both government and
»» It was developed as part of the global civil society organizations.
initiative on invasive species led by • Convention on International Trade in
the erstwhile Global Invasive Species Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Programme (GISP) in 2000. Flora (CITES):
»» The GISD over the past two years and »» CITES is an international agreement
has been redesigned with support from between governments that aims to ensure
»» the Abu Dhabi Environment Agency, that international trade in specimens of
the Italian Ministry of Environment and wild animals and plants does not threaten
ISPRA - the Institute for Environmental their survival. - It is legally binding on
Protection and Research, Italy. the States that have joined it.
»» Therefore, option (a) is the correct »» CITES provides a framework for
answer. regulating international trade in
15. With reference to the International Union endangered species and their products,
for Conservation of Nature and Natural including live animals, plants, and their
Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on parts and derivatives.
International Trade in Endangered Species »» It does not take the place of national
of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which laws and regulations, and countries are
of the following statements is/are correct? expected to enforce their own laws to
ensure compliance with CITES.
1. IUCN is an organ of the United • Statement 1 is partially correct as IUCN is
Nations and CITES is an international not an organ of the United Nations.
agreement between governments. • Statement 2 is correct as IUCN runs
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects thousands of field projects around the world.
around the world to better manage • Statement 3 is correct as CITES is legally
natural environments. binding on the States that have joined it, but
3. CITES is legally binding on the States it does not take the place of national laws.
that have joined it, but this Convention • Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
does not take the place of national laws.
16. The “Red Data Books” published by the
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International Union for Conservation of 17. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported
Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) by UNEP, has been developed for
contain lists of (Year-2011) (Year-2021)
1. Endemic plant and animal species (a) Assessing the carbon footprint of
present in the biodiversity hotspots. building operations around the world.
2. Threatened plant and animal species. (b) Enabling commercial farming entities
3. Protected sites for conservation of around the world to enter carbon
nature and natural resources in various emission trading.
countries. (c) Enabling governments to assess the
Select the correct answer using the codes overall carbon footprint caused by
given below; their countries.
(a) 1 and 3 (d) Assessing the overall carbon footprint
caused by the use of fossil fuels by the
(b) 2 only world in a unit time.
(c) 2 and 3
Explanation : A
(d) 3 only
»» Carbon footprint of an entity is the total
Explanation : B amount of greenhouse gases that are
»» The correct answer is 2 only. generated by that entity.
Key Points »» Option A is correct, The Common
Carbon Metric is a protocol developed by
Red Data Books: United Nations Environment Program’s
»» The “Red Data Books” published by the Sustainable Buildings & Climate
International Union for Conservation of Initiative (UNEP-SBCI) for measuring
Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) energy use & reporting GHG emissions
is the world’s most comprehensive from Building Operations.
inventory of the global conservation »» Its purpose is to support greenhouse gas
status of plant and animal species. (GHG) emissions reductions through
»» Red data book is beneficial for providing accurate measurement of energy
detailed information for studies and efficiency improvements in building
researches. operations.
»» It also helps in monitoring programs on
18. Consider the following statements in
rare and endangered species. It thus helps
respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna
in protecting the species that are on the
and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
verge of extinction. Hence, statement 2
is correct. 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United
»» The red list contains only the names of Nations Environment Programme
the endangered species, however, the (UNEP).
Red Data Book contains information 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure
about the species that are on the verge of that trade in wild plants and animals
extinction. is not a threat to the conservation of
»» It divides species into nine categories: nature.
Not Evaluated, Data Deficient, Least
Which of the above statements is/are
Concern, Near Threatened, Vulnerable,
correct?(Year-2017)
Endangered, Critically Endangered,
Extinct in the Wild and Extinct. Hence, (a) 1 only
statement 1 and 3 are incorrect. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Explanation : B to set up the International Bank for
»» It is a NGO, not a bureau under UNEP. Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
So, 1 is wrong. popularly known as World Bank and the
»» TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC International Monetary Fund (IMF).The
Committee, a steering group composed IMF was set up to foster monetary stability
of members of TRAFFIC’s partner at global level.
organizations, WWF and IUCN. • The IBRD was created to speed up post-
»» It is working globally on Wildlife trade war reconstruction. The two institutions are
monitoring network. known as the Bretton Woods twins.
»» It specializes in investigating and • Kyoto Protocol is about cutting emissions
analysing wildlife trade trends, patterns, of greenhouse gases. It is an international
impacts and drivers to provide the treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
leading knowledge base on trade in wild Kyoto Protocol applies to 6 greenhouse gases;
animals and plants carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide,
hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons,
sulfur hexafluoride. It is an extension to the
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC 1992 UNFCCC.
Montreal Protocol • Nagoya protocol is about benefit-sharing
19. Which one of the following is associated from the gains by genetic resources. The
with the issue of control and phasing out Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic
of the use of ozone-depleting substances? Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing
 (Year : 2015) of Benefits Arising from their Utilization
(ABS) is a supplementary agreement to the
(a) Bretton Woods Conference UN Convention on Biological Diversity
(b) Montreal Protocol (CBD) This protocol is a legal framework for
(c) Kyoto Protocol the implementation of one of the objectives
of the Convention on Biological Diversity,
(d) Nagoya Protocol
which is the fair & equitable sharing of
Explanation : Answer - B benefits arising out of the utilization of
genetic resources.
• The Montreal Protocol on substances that
deplete the Ozone Layer is an international • The protocol was adopted in 2010 in Nagoya,
treaty designed to protect the ozone layer Japan.
by phasing out the production of numerous • It entered into force in October 2014.
substances that are responsible for ozone • The objective of the protocol is the fair and
depletion. equitable sharing of benefits coming from the
• It is a protocol to the Vienna Convention for utilization of genetic resources and helping
the Protection of the Ozone Layer. in the conservation & sustainable usage of
• It was agreed on 16th September 1987 and biodiversity.
entered into force on 1st January 1989. • The protocol creates obligations for members
• Bretton Woods conference relates to the IMF to incorporate measures in respect of access
and the World Bank. to genetic resources, sharing of benefits, and
compliance.
• The United Nations Monetary and Financial
Conference (1944), commonly known as • It is one of the important environmental
Bretton Wood conference, was held in Bretton protocols of the world.
Woods, New Hampshire, USA to regulate the
international monetary and financial order
after the conclusion of World War II.
• The conference resulted in the agreements

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Do You Know...? • The dugong is the only sirenian in its range,

which spans the waters of some 40 countries
UPSC often repeats many questions from
and territories throughout the Indo-West
Mains Examination as well Pacific.
• What does Montreal Protocol deal with? • The dugong is largely dependent on seagrass
Discuss its role in protecting earth’s communities for subsistence and is thus
environment.  (Year : 2001) restricted to the coastal habitats which
• (c) What is ozone pollution?  (Year : 1988) support seagrass meadows, with the largest
• Explain the phenomenon of ozone depletion, dugong concentrations typically occurring
its causes and effects? What effects are needed in wide, shallow, protected areas such as
to reduce it?  (Year : 2007) bays, mangrove channels, the waters of large
• What do you understand by depletion of inshore islands and inter-reefal waters.
ozone layer and why is it considered harmful? • The northern waters of Australia between
Name ozone depleting substances and Shark Bay and Moreton Bay are believed to
processes, what international ramifications be the dugong’s contemporary stronghold.
took place to protect the ozone layer and 21. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal
what was the target agreed upon?  found in India, which of the following
 (Year : 2003) statements is/are correct?
1) It is a herbivorous marine animal.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC 2) It is found along the entire coast of
Dugong India.
20. The marine animal called dugong which is 3) It is given legal protection under
vulnerable to extinction is: Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972.
(a) Amphibian  (Year : 2009)
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Bony fish given below: (Year : 2015)
(c) Shark
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Mammal
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Explanation : Answer - D
Explanation : Answer - C
• Dugongs are cousins of manatees and share a
• Dugong, also called ‘Sea Cow’ is one of
similar plump appearance, but have a dolphin
the four surviving species in the Order
fluke-like tail.
Sirenia and it is the only existing species of
• And unlike manatees, which use freshwater herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in
areas, the dugong is strictly a marine the sea including in India.
mammal. Commonly known as “sea cows,”
• Dugongs are protected in India and occur in
dugongs graze peacefully on sea grasses
the Gulf of Mannar, PalkBay, Gulf of Kutch
in shallow coastal waters of the Indian and
and Andaman and Nicobar islands.
western Pacific Oceans.
• Once abundant in Indian waters, the Dugong
• It is one of four living species of the order
population has now reduced to about 200
Sirenia, which also includes three species of
individuals and is believed to be continuously
manatees.
declining in its number and range.
• It is the only living representative of the once-
• Dugong conservation is nothing but coastal
diverse family Dugongidae; its closest modern
conservation being a flagship species in its
relative, Steller’s sea cow (Hydrodamalis
range. In order to conserve and manage the
gigas), was hunted to extinction in the 18th
declining populations of dugong in India, the
century.
Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate

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Change under the Government of India IV : Corbett — Uttarakhand
constituted a ‘Task Force for Conservation V : Periyar — Kerala
of Dugongs’ to look into the entire gamut of VI : Dudwa — U.P.
issues related to the conservation of dugongs
and implementation of the ‘UNEP/CMS 23. Match the columns : (Year : 1985)
Dugong MoU’ in India and also to facilitate
the country to act as the leading nation in Kaziranga Gujarat
(A) (1)
the South Asia Sub-region with respect to National Park
dugong conservation. Gir National Madhya
(B) Park (2)
• The Task Force has analyzed the entire Pradesh
spectrum of issues linked to dugong and Bandipur Assam
their habitat conservation in India and (C) (3)
National Park
herewith recommends the following
goals and objectives for Conservation and Kanha Karnataka
(D) (4)
Management Plan for Dugongs (Dugong National Park
dugon) and their habitats in India.
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 4 2
• It is given legal protection under Schedule
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 2 3 1
I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Vulnerable in IUCN Red List. Explanation : Answer - B
• Kaziranga National Park - Assam
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC • Gir National Park - Gujarat
National Parks • Bandipur National Park - Karnataka
22. Which of the following parks/ sanctuaries • Kanha National Park - Madhya Pradesh
is/are correctly matched with their 24. Match List I (National Park/Sanctuary)
location:  (Year : 1985) with List II (state) and select the correct
I: Ghana — Assam answer using the codes given below the
Lists:  (Year : 2004)
II : Gir — Rajasthan
III : Manas — Assam List I (National List II (State)
IV : Corbett — M.P. Park Sanctuary)
V: Periyar — Kerala Kanger Ghati
A) 1) Chhattisgarh
VI : Dudwa — U.P. National Park
Nagerhole
B) 2) Haryana
National Park
(a) I only
Kugti Wild- Himachal
(b) All C) 3)
life Sanctuary Pradesh
(c) V and VI
Sultanpur
(d) III, V and VI D) Bird Sanctu- 4) Karnataka
Explanation : Answer - D ary

I: Ghana — Rajasthan (Keoladeo Ghana (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 1 4 3 2

National Park, also called Bharatpur (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 3 4
National Park, wildlife sanctuary in
Explanation :
eastern Rajasthan state, northwestern
India, just south of the city of Kanger Ghati National
Bharatpur.) A. Chhattisgarh
Park
II : Gir — Gujrat Nagerhole National
B. Karnataka
III : Manas — Assam Park

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Kugti Wildlife Himachal (5) Tripura

C. Sanctuary
Pradesh. (a) 2 1 5 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
Sultanpur Bird (c) 2 3 5 1 (d) 4 1 2 3
D. Haryana
Sanctuary
Explanation : Answer - B
25. Consider the following statements: 
 (Year : 2005) • Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary is located in
northeastern Goa, India in Ponda taluka.
1) Silent Valley National Park is in the The total area of the park is 8 km². It is a
Nallamalai range. popular destination for both tourists and
2) Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project schoolchildren.
is proposed to be built near the Silent • Kanger Ghati National Park was declared a
Valley National Park. national park in 1982 by the Government
3) The Kunthi river originates in Silent of India. Among the various protected areas
Valley’s rainforests. in the country, the Kanger Valley National
Which of the statements is/are correct? Park near Jagdalpur, in the Bastar region of
Chhattisgarh is one of the densest national
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only parks.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 • The Orang National Park also known as Rajiv
Explanation : Answer - C Gandhi Orang National Park which is located
on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River
• Silent Valley National Park is situated in in the Darrang and Sonitpur districts of
Nilgiri Hills of Western Ghats. The park is Assam and covers an area of 78.81 square
bound by Attappadi reserved forest to the kilometres .It was established as a sanctuary
east and vested forest of Palaghat division in 1985.
and Nilamber division to the south-west
• Established in 1962 over a forest area of about
respectively.
304.03 square kilometres, the Ushakothi
• Silent Valley National Park is a national park Sanctuary is situated at a distance of about 22
in Kerala, India. It is located in the Nilgiri kilometres from Sambalpur, Orrisa.
hills, has a core area of 89.52 km², which is
surrounded by a buffer zone of 148 km². This 27. Which one of the following is located is
national park has some rare species of flora located in the Bastar region? (Year : 2007)
and fauna. This area was explored in 1847 by
(a) Bandhavgarh National Park
the botanist Robert Wight.
(b) Dandeli Sanctuary
26. Match List-I (National Park/Wildlife (c) Rajai National Park
Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select
(d) Indravati National Park
the correct answer using the code given
below the list:  (Year : 2005) Explanation : Answer - D

List I List II • Bastar is a district in the state of Chhattisgarh.

Bondle Wild- • The headquarters of Bastar district and Bastar
(A) (1) Orissa division is Jagdalpur.
life Sanctuary
Kangerghat • It is known for the beautiful forests and
(B) (2) Assam tribal culture,because of this it is called as the
National Park
Orang Sanc- cultural capital of the state.
(C) (3) Chhattisgarh • There are 70 percent tribal communities in
tuary
Ushakothi the population of Bastar, such as Gond, Maria,
(D) Wildlife (4) Goa Muriya, Bhatra, Halba, Dhruva community.
Sanctuary • Bandhavgadh National Park
»» It is spread at vindhya hills in Madhya

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Pradesh. It is known for the Royal Bengal • The Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary is also
Tigers. known as the Top Slip and it is located about
»» The density of the Tiger population at thirty-seven kilometers from the Pollachi
Bandhavgarh is the highest known in town.
India. • It is separated from the Nilgiri Hills by
• Dandeli Sanctuary the Palghat Gap on the north and the
»» It is located in Uttara Kannada District Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary to its west
of Karnataka. also to the Eravikulam National Park and the
»» It is the second largest sanctuary in Chinnar WLS to its south.
Karnataka and is located on the banks • There are many places of natural and scenic
of River Kali. It is surrounded by thick beauty in the Anamalai wildlife sanctuary.
forests and hills of the Kannada District. Many of them are the Grass hills, Karianshola,
• Rajaji National Park Anaikunthi Shola, groves, waterfalls, teak
»» It is located in the Shivalik range of forests, reservoirs, and dams.
Himalayas and spread over 820 kms. • There are arrangements for exploring the
»» It covers a part of over three districts of sanctuary on elephant back or by van ride.
Uttarakhand: Haridwar, Dehradun and
Pauri Garhwal. 29. Which one among the following has the
»» The park has been created in 1983 by maximum number of National Parks ?
the amalgamation of three sanctuaries -  (Year : 2008)
Rajaji Sanctuary and National park (estd. (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
1948) Motichur sanctuary (estd. 1964)
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
and Chilla sanctuary (estd. 1977).
(c) Assam
• Indravati National Park
»» It is a national park located in Bijapur (d) Meghalaya
district of Chhattisgarh state of India. Explanation : Answer - A
»» It is located in Bastar Region.
• Andaman & Nicobar has 9 national parks.
»» It is home to one of the last populations
of rare wild buffalo. • Arunachal Pradesh has 2 national parks.
• Assam has 6 national parks.
28. Which one of the following is also known
as Top Slip ?  (Year : 2007) • Meghalaya has 2 national parks.

(a) Simlipal National Park 30. Consider the following pairs : Protected
Area Well Known for  (Year : 2010)
(b) Periyar Wilddlife Sanctuary
(c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary 1) Bhiterkanika, Orissa — Salt Water
(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and Crocodile
National Park 2) Desert National Park, Rajasthan —
Great Indian Bustard
Explanation : Answer - D
3) Eravikulam, Kerala — Hootak Gibbon
• The Topslip is located near Pollachi in the Which of the pairs given above is/are
state of Tamil Nadu, India, at an altitude of correctly matched?
eight hundred feet from the sea level on the
Anamalai mountain range. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
• The Topslip is blessed with an altitude, (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
salubrious climate, and a variety of the flora Explanation : Answer - B
and fauna.
• Bhitarkanika National Park:
• Its picturesque location and the fabulous
»» This is located in the Kendrapara district
scenery have made it a more popular location
of Odisha.
for the many movie sequences.

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»» The national park obtained the status of (b) 2 and 3 only
Ramsar site on 19 August 2002. (c) 1 and 3 only
»» The national park is known for Salt Water (d) 1, 2 and 3
Crocodile (Crocodylus porous), Indian
Python, King Cobra, Balck Ibis, etc. Explanation : Answer - C
The national park contains the largest • The fixed boundary of a National Park is
populations of endangered Saltwater described in the Wildlife Protection Act,
crocodiles in India. 1972.
»» The crocodiles found here are unique in
• The legislation states the actual area of the
the fact that 10% of the adults exceed 6
National Park which is notified by the state
m in length.
government. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Desert National Park:
• A biosphere reserve conserves an ecosystem
»» The national park is located in the
and not just few specific species of plants and
Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan. The
animals. Hence, statement 2 is Not correct
sanctuary was declared a national park
in 1980. • The difference between a Sanctuary and
»» The national park is well known for the a National Park mainly lies in the vesting
magnificent bird Great Indian Bustard of rights of people living inside. Unlike
that migrates locally in different seasons. a Sanctuary, where certain rights can be
»» The national park is the only place allowed, in a National Park, no rights are
where these species are found naturally allowed. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Rajasthan State Bird (Great Indian Value Addition
Bustard), State animal (Camel) and State • A National park is an area with enough
tree (Khejri), and State flower (Rohida). ecological, geo-morphological, and natural
• Eravikulam National Park: significance with rich fauna and flora. It is
»» It is the first national park of Kerala and designed to protect and develop wildlife or
located in the Idukki and Ernakulam its environment.
districts of Kerala. The sanctuary got the • National parks in India are IUCN category
status of a national park in the year 1978. II protected areas.
»» The main fauna species found in the
• Activities like grazing, hunting, forestry or
national park are - Niligiri tahr, Nilgiri
cultivation, etc. are strictly prohibited.
marten, Nilgiri langur, stripe-necked
mongoose, red disk bush brown, etc. • No human activity is permitted inside the
Hoolock Gibbon: national park except for the ones permitted
»» This ape is found in the Gibbon Wildlife by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state.
Sanctuary near Kaziranga in Assam. India’s first national park was established in
1936 as Hailey National Park, now known as
31. Consider the following statements:  Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand.
 (Year : 2010)
• There are 104 existing national parks in India
1) The boundaries of a National Park are covering an area of 40501.13 km2, which is
defined by legislation. 1.23% of the geographical area of the country
2) A Biosphere Reserve is declared to (National Wildlife Database, May 2019).
conserve a few specific species of flora • Wildlife Sanctuary:-
and fauna. »» Any area other than area comprised with
3) In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic any reserve forest or the territorial waters
interference is permitted. can be notified by the State Government
Which of the statements given above is/are to constitute as a sanctuary if such
correct? area is of adequate ecological, faunal,
floral, geomorphological, natural. or
(a) 1 only zoological significance, for the purpose

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of protecting, propagating or developing for the nearby area.
wildlife or its environment. »» Kaziranga is a vast stretch of tall elephant
»» The difference between a Sanctuary and grass, marshland and dense tropical
a National Park mainly lies in the vesting moist broadleaf forests crisscrossed by
of rights of people living inside. Unlike four main rivers — Brahmaputra, Diphlu,
a Sanctuary, where certain rights can be Mora Diphlu, and Mora Dhansiri and
allowed, in a National Park, no rights are has numerous small water bodies.
allowed. • Silent Valley National Park
»» No grazing of any livestock is permitted »» The River Kunthi descending from the
inside a National Park while in a Niligiri hills above from an altitude of
Sanctuary, the Chief Wildlife Warden 2000 m flows about 25 km through the
may regulate, control or prohibit it. There valley.
are a total of 551 wildlife sanctuaries in »» Locally known as Kunthi puzha (puzha
India. in Malayalam means river) the river
• Biosphere reserves :- never turns brown; it is crystal clear,
»» Biosphere reserves are the protected perennial and wild.
areas meant for the conservation of flora 33. Which one of the following National Parks
and fauna. has a climate that varies from tropical to
»» The Biosphere Reserves are identified by subtropical, temperate and arctic? 
the Man and Biosphere Reserve Program  (Year : 2015)
of UNSECO started in 1971 to promote
sustainable development. (a) Khangchendzonga National Park
»» There are 18 Biosphere Reserves in India (b) Nandadevi National Park
out of which 12 are a part of the World (c) Neora Valley National Park
Network of Biosphere Reserves, based
(d) Namdapha National park
on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere
(MAB) Programme list. Explanation : Answer - D
32. Consider the following pairs National • Namdapha National Park
Park River flowing through the Park  »» The Namdapha National Park is the
 (Year : 2013) largest protected area in the Eastern
Himalaya biodiversity hotspot It
1) Corbett National Park : Ganga
is located in Arunachal Pradesh in
2) Kaziranga National Park : Manas Northeast India.
3) Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri »» The area is also known for extensive
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly Dipterocarp forests, comprising the
matched? northwestern parts of the ecoregion of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rainforests.
»» The habitat changes with increasing
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None altitude from tropical moist forests to
Explanation : Answer - D Montane forests, temperate forests and at
the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows
Value Addition and perennial snow.
• Rivers In Jim Corbett National Park • Khangchendzonga National Park
»» The Ramganga river (Ramganga is »» Khangchendzonga and Nandadevi
a tributary of Ganga) along with its National park do not have tropical
significant tributaries Sonanadi, Palain, vegetation.
and Mandal forms the prominent »» Khangchendzonga National Park is
hydrological resource for the Corbett. also known as Kanchenjunga Biosphere
»» The river Kosi also flows by national park Reserve is a National Park and a
and serves as a significant water resource Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim. It

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was inscribed to the UNESCO World Lake forms the Keibul Lamjao National
Heritage Sites list in July 2016. Park which is a continuous mass of Phumdi
• Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve occupying an area of 40 km2.
»» Nanda Devi National Park is situated in • The lake is rich in biodiversity and has been
three districts of Uttarakhand (Chamoli designated as a wetland of International
in Garhwal, Pithoragarh in Kumaon and Importance under RAMSAR Convention in
Bageshwar). 1990 and was also listed under the Montreux
»» Nanda Devi National Park together with Record in 1993, “a record of Ramsar sites
Valley of Flowers is encompassed in the where changes in ecological character have
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. occurred, are occurring or are likely to
»» This reserve has been part of the occur” and is therefore also governed by the
UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Reserves since 2004. Neora Valley • Phumdi are floating swampy islands made of
National Park thick mat of humus and dead vegetation, 1/5
»» Neora Valley National Park is situated of which is above water and the remaining
in the Kalimpong district, West Bengal, 4/5 are below the surface of water.
India and was established in 1986. It • Phumdi are a heterogeneous mass of soil,
spreads over an area of 88 km² and is one vegetation and organic matter at various
of the richest biological zones in entire stages of decomposition. It provides a
Eastern India. magnificent vista of green floating islands all
»» It is the land of the elegant red panda in over the lake.
the pristine undisturbed natural habitat
with rugged inaccessible hilly terrain • A Phumdi may be initiated with a small mass
and rich diverse flora and fauna making of undecomposed organic matter or dense
this park an important wilderness zone. growth of water hyacinth that accumulates
some suspended silt and is gradually
34. Which of the following National colonised by grasses and other herbaceous
Parks is unique in being a swamp with plants.
floating vegetation that supports a rich • The high proportion of vegetable matter in
biodiversity?  (Year : 2015) the Phumdi gives it a specific gravity and
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park high buoyancy to keep it afloat.
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park • The maximum thickness of a Phumdi is 8
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park ft. but its thickness varies in time and space
depending on the conditions during its
(d) Sultanpur National Park formative stage.
Explanation : Answer - B • The core of Phumdi is composed of detritus
• Keibul Lamjao National Park is unique in material, which is black in colour and is
being a swamp with floating vegetation that highly spongy. Bhitarkanika National Park
supports a rich biodiversity. Bhitarkanika National Park
Keibul Lamjao National Park • Bhitarkanika National Park is a 145 km2
• It is the only floating park in the world (56 sq mi) large national park in northeast
located in the Bishnupur district of the North Kendrapara district in Odisha in eastern
Eastern state of Manipur. India.
• It is an integral part of Loktak Lake (140 • It was designated on 16 September 1998 and
km2), the largest natural freshwater lake obtained the status of a Ramsar site on 19
in the north-eastern region with a unique August 2002.
ecosystem called ‘Phumdi’ (a Manipuri • The area is also been designated as second
word meaning “floating mats of soil and Ramsar site of the State after the Chilika Lake.
vegetation”); south western portion of Loktak

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• It is surrounded by Bhitarkanika Wildlife • For over one hundred year now, Sultanpur
Sanctuary, which spread over 672 km2 (259 Jheel has been attracting birds. But it was
sq mi). only in 1969, at the Conference of the
• Gahirmatha Beach and Marine Sanctuary International Union of Conservation of
are to the east, separating swamp region and nature and Natural resources (IUCN) in New
mangroves from the Bay of Bengal. Delhi, that the potential of this wetland was
• The national park and wildlife sanctuary is highlighted in official quarters.
inundated by the rivers Brahmani, Baitarani, • Peter Jackson of the IUCN, together with the
Dhamra, Pathsala. It hosts many mangrove late Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi were
species, and is the second largest mangrove instrumental in this regard and consequently
ecosystem in India. on April 2, 1971, the Jheel (an area of 1.21 sq.
• The national park is home to Saltwater Km.)
crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), Indian • was accorded Sanctuary status under section
python, king cobra, black ibis, darters and 8 of the Punjab Wildlife Preservation Act of
many other species of flora and fauna. 1959. The status of the park was upgraded
to National Park under Section 35 of the
Keoladeo Ghana National Park Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 on July 5th,
• Keoladeo National Park or Keoladeo 1991.
Ghana National Park formerly known as • Simultaneously the area was increased to
the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary in Bharatpur, 1.42 sq. Km. The National Park has been
Rajasthan, India is a famous avifauna carved out of the land of Sadhrana, Chandu,
sanctuary that hosts thousands of birds, Sultanpur and Saidpur villages.
especially during the winter season.
• Over 230 species of birds are known to be
resident. It is also a major tourist centre with THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
scores of ornithologists arriving here in the Sustainable Development
hibernal season. It was declared a protected 35. A World Summit with representation
sanctuary in 1971. from all the countries will be held in
• It is also a World Heritage Site. In an area Johannesburg in September 2002 on the
characterized by sparse vegetation, the park subject of  (Year : 2002)
is the only spot which has dense vegetation
and trees. (a) AIDS control
• The principal vegetation types are tropical (b) Global terrorism
dry deciduous forests intermixed with dry (c) Human rights
grasslands. (d) Sustainable development
• Where the forest has degraded, the greater Explanation : Answer - D
part of the area is covered with shrubs and
medium-sized trees. • The Johannesburg Declaration on
Sustainable Development
• The park is a freshwater swamp and is
flooded during the monsoon. The rest of the »» was adopted at the World Summit on
area remains dry. Sustainable Development (WSSD),
sometimes referred to as Earth Summit
Sultanpur National Park 2002, at which the Plan of Implementation
• Sultanpur National Park is situated in of the World Summit on Sustainable
Gurgaon district of Haryana on Gurgaon- Development was also agreed upon.
Farrukh Nagar road. The Johannesburg Declaration builds on
earlier declarations made at the United
• Distance of the park is around 50 Km from
Nations Conference on the Human
Delhi & 15 km from Gurgaon.
Environment at Stockholm in 1972, and

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the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 37. What is Rio+20 Conference, often
1992. While committing the nations of mentioned in the news?  (Year : 2015)
the world to sustainable development,
it also includes substantial mention of (a) It is the United Nations Conference on
multilateralism as the path forward. Sustainable Development
• In terms of the political commitment of (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World
parties, the Declaration is a more general Trade Organization
statement than the Rio Declaration. (c) It is a Conference of the
• It is an agreement to focus particularly on Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
“the worldwide conditions that pose severe Change
threats to the sustainable development of (d) It is a Conference of the Member
our people, which include: chronic hunger; Countries of the Convention on
malnutrition; foreign occupation; armed Biological Diversity
conflict; illicit drug problems; organized Explanation : Answer - A
crime; corruption; natural disasters; illicit
arms trafficking; trafficking in persons; • It is the United Nations Conference on
terrorism; intolerance and incitement to Sustainable Development.
racial, ethnic, religious and other hatreds; • The Earth Summit was held in Rio de Janeiro,
xenophobia; and endemic, communicable Brazil in 1992. It is also known as the Rio
and chronic diseases, in particular HIV/ Summit.
AIDS, malaria and tuberculosis • Rio +20 refers to the United Nations
36. Where was the World Summit on Conference on Sustainable Development
Sustainable Devlopment (Rio+10) held?  that took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in
 (Year : 2008) June 2012. As it was 20 years to the summits
of 1992 and 2012, it is referred to as Rio + 20.
(a) Davos (b) Nova Scotia • The objective of the Rio+20 -
(c) Johannesburg (d) Shanghai »» This conference aimed to bring
Explanation : Answer - C together the governments, international
institutions and major (NGO) groups to
• The World Summit on Sustainable agree on a range of smart measures for
Development was also known as Earth Poverty reduction Clean energy
Summit II or Rio +10 which was organised • Sustainable development.
after 10 years of the first Earth Summit 1992
»» Sustainable Development includes
at Rio de Janeiro to discuss on the sustainable
economic development, social
development by the United Nations.
development, and environmental
• The Summit gives a political statement in protection.
the form of a Johannesburg Declaration, to
be agreed by world leaders, reaffirming their THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
commitment to work towards sustainable IUCN
development.
38. The “Red Books’’ published by the
• The World Summit on Sustainable
international union for conservation of
Development was also known as Earth
nature and natural resources (IUCN)
Summit II or Rio +10 which was organised
contain lists of?  (Year : 2011)
after 10 years of the first Earth Summit in
Rio de Janeiro to develop consensus on (a) Endemic plant and animal species
the sustainable development by the United present in the biodiversity hotspots.
Nations. (b) Threatened plant and animal species.
(c) Protected sites for conservation of
nature and natural resources in various
countries.
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Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : Answer - B Explanation : Answer - B

Red Data Book • International Union for Conservation of

Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
• The “Red Data Book” published by the • IUCN is a network of environmental
International Union for Conservation of organizations founded as the International
Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) is the Union for the Protection of Nature in
world’s most comprehensive inventory of October 1948 in Fontainebleau, France.
the global conservation status of plant and Hence, Statement 1 is NOT correct
animal species.
• It promotes nature conservation and the
• Red data book is beneficial for providing ecologically sustainable use of natural
detailed information for studies and resources.
researches. It also helps in monitoring
programs on rare and endangered species. It • It changed its name to the International
thus helps in protecting the species that are Union for Conservation of Nature and
on the verge of extinction. Hence, statement Natural Resources (IUCN) in 1956.
2 is correct. • IUCN is composed of both government and
• The red list contains only the names of the civil society organizations which harness the
endangered species, however, the Red Data experience, resources.
Book contains information about the species • Headquarters : Gland, Switzerland.
that are on the verge of extinction. • The IUCN maintains the IUCN Red List of
• It divides species into nine categories : Not Threatened Species, which was established in
Evaluated, Data Deficient, Least Concern, 1964.
Near Threatened, Vulnerable, Endangered, • IUCN also played a fundamental role in the
Critically Endangered, Extinct in the Wild creation of key international conventions,
and Extinct. including the Ramsar Convention on
Wetlands (1971), the World Heritage
39. With reference to the International Union
Convention (1972), the Convention on
for Conservation of Nature and Natural
International Trade in Endangered Species,
Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on
(1974), and the Convention on Biological
International Trade in Endangered Species
Diversity (1992), UNFCCC, etc.
of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which
of the following statements is/are correct? • Caring for the Earth was published by the
 (Year : 2015) three organizations in the run-up to the
1992 Earth Summit. The IUCN was granted
1) IUCN is an organ of the United official observer status at the United Nations
Nations and CITES is an international General Assembly in 1999.
agreement between governments. • The IUCN’s activities are organized into
2) IUCN runs thousands of field projects several theme-based programs ranging
around the world to better manage from business and biodiversity to forest
natural environments. preservation to water and wetlands
3) CITES is legally binding on the States conservation, climate change, conservation,
that have joined it, but this Convention and poverty reduction, etc.
does not take the place of national laws. • The IUCN’s funding comes from several
governments, agencies, foundations, member
organizations, and corporations.

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Important Points THEMATIC REPETITIVE
• Convention on International Trade in Virus , Bacteria, Fungus
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora 40. Consider the following kinds of organisms
(CITES)
• CITES is an international agreement adopted 1. Bacteria.
in March 1973 to regulate worldwide 2. Fungi
commercial trade in wild animal and plant 3. Flowering plants
species to ensure that international trade Some species of which of the above kinds of
does not threaten the survival of any species. organisms are employed as bio pesticides
• Although CITES is legally binding on state  (Year : 2012)
parties to the convention but does not take (a) 1 only
the place of national laws, rather it provides
a framework to be respected by each Party, (b) 2 and 3 only
which has to adopt its own domestic legislation (c) 1 and 3 only
to ensure that CITES is implemented at the (d) 1, 2 and3.
national level to implement its goals. Explanation : Answer - D
• Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Biopesticides, a contraction of ‘biological
• CITES classifies plants and animals according
pesticides’, include several types of pest
to three categories, or appendices, based on
management intervention: through predatory,
how threatened they are.
parasitic, or chemical relationships.
• Appendix I lists endangered species that are
• The term has been associated historically with
at risk of extinction. It also prohibits outright
biological pest control – and by implication,
the commercial trade of these plants and
the manipulation of living organisms.
animals; however, some may be transported
internationally in extraordinary situations • Bacteria are microscopic, single-celled
for scientific or educational reasons. organisms that thrive in diverse environments.
• Appendix II species are those that are not • These organisms can live in soil, the
threatened with extinction but that might ocean, and inside the human gut. Humans’
suffer a serious decline in number if a trade relationship with bacteria is complex.
is not restricted; their trade is regulated by • Fungi are eukaryotic organisms; i.e., their
permit. cells contain membrane-bound organelles
• Appendix III species are protected in at least and clearly defined nuclei.
one country that is a CITES member and that • Fungi grow from the tips of filaments
has petitioned others for help in controlling (hyphae) that make up the bodies of the
international trade in that species. organisms (mycelia), and they digest organic
• In addition to plants and animals and their matter externally before absorbing it into
parts, the agreement also restricts trade in their mycelia.
items made from such plants and animals, • The flowering plants, also known as
such as clothing, food, medicine, and Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta are the
souvenirs. most diverse group of land plants.
• Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-
producing plants.
• They are distinguished from gymnosperms by
characteristics including flowers, endosperm
within their seeds, and the production of
fruits that contain the seeds.

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41. With reference to the food chains in chain is the major conduit for energy
ecosystems, which of the following kinds flow.
of organism is/are known as decomposer »» Against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem,
organism/organisms?  (Year : 2013) a much larger fraction of energy flows
through the detritus food chain than
1. Virus through the grazing food chain.
2. Fungi
42. Which of the following statements is/are
3. Bacteria correct? Viruses can infect
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. 1. Bacteria
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Fungi
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3 3. Plants
‘Select the correct answer using the code
Explanation : Answer - B given below.  (Year : 2016)
• Key Points (a) 1 and 2 only
»» Bacteria and Fungi both are known as (b) 3 only
decomposer organisms.
»» Bacteria are important decomposers; (c) 1 and 3 only
they can break down any kind of organic (d) 1, 2 and 3
matters. Explanation : Answer - D
»» Fungi are primary decomposers, they not
only decompose the surface organisms • Viruses can infect almost any kind of host
but can also penetrate deep into the that has living cells.
organic matters. • Animals, plants, fungi, and bacteria etc. can
• Hence option 2 is correct. get infected by a virus.
Value Addition • It can replicate only inside the living cells of
an organism.
• Grazing food chain
• Viruses infect all types of life forms.
»» The consumers which start the food
chain, utilizing the plant or plant part as • A bacteriophage is a virus that infects and
their food, constitute the grazing food replicates within a bacterium.
chain. • Mycoviruses are viruses that infect fungi.
»» For example, in a terrestrial ecosystem, • A host of other Viruses affect plants.
the grass is eaten by a caterpillar, which
is eaten by a lizard, and the lizard is eaten
by a snake. THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPICS
»» In the Aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton Biosphere reserve, Botanical gardens, National
(primary producers) are eaten by Park, Wildlife Sanctuary
zooplankton which are eaten by fishes
and fishes are eaten by pelicans. 43. Which one of the following is not a site for
• Detritus food chain in-situ method of conservation of flora? 
 (Year : 2011)
»» This type of food chain starts from the
organic matter of dead and decaying (a) Biosphere Reserve
animals and plant bodies from the (b) Botanical Garden
grazing food chain.
(c) National Park
»» Dead organic matter or detritus-feeding
organisms are called detrivores or (d) Wildlife Sanctuary
decomposers. Explanation : Answer - B
»» The detrivores are eaten by predators.
»» In an aquatic ecosystem, the grazing food

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II ENVIRONMENT
• In-Situ method of conservation : • National Park
»» The in-situ method of conservation »» This is an area set aside by a national
is also called an on-site conservation government to preserve the natural
method. environment.
»» It means the conservation of biodiversity »» This area is maintained for the purpose of
in their natural habitats itself. protecting & propagating or developing
»» Examples : National parks, biosphere wildlife therein or its environment.
reserves, parks, sanctuaries. »» There are 101 existing national parks in
• Ex-Situ method of conservation: India covering an area of 1.23% of the
»» It means the conservation of biological geographical area of the country.
diversity outside their natural habitats • Wildlife sanctuaries
through different techniques. »» This is an area where animal habitats and
»» Examples include Zoo, Captive breeding, their surroundings are protected from
Aquarium, Botanical garden, Seed, and any sort of disturbance.
Gene bank. »» The capturing, killing and poaching of
44. The most important strategy for the animals is strictly prohibited in these
conservation of biodiversity together with regions.
traditional human life is the establishment »» There are 553 existing wildlife
of  (Year : 2014) sanctuaries in India covering3.64 % of
the geographical area in India.
(a) biosphere reserves
(b) botanical gardens THEMATIC REPETITIVE
(c) national parks
Sustainable Development
Johannesburg in 2002
(d) wildlife sanctuaries
45. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes
Explanation : Answer - A
seen in the news, consider the following
• The most important strategy for the statements:
conservation of biodiversity together with
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable
traditional human life is the establishment of
development.
biosphere reserves.
2. It originated in the World Summit
• Biosphere Reserves
on Sustainable Development held in
• These reserves are established to protect Johannesburg in 2002.
larger areas of natural habitat than a typical
Which of the statements given above is/are
national park or animal sanctuary.
correct? (Year : 2016)
• The site must contain a protected and
minimally disturbed core area of value of (a) 1 only
nature conservation. (b) 2 only.
• Sustainable development of reserves is based (c) Both1 and 2
on local community efforts. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• It includes terrestrial, marine and coastal Explanation : Answer - A
ecosystems.
• There are 18 biosphere reserves in India. • Agenda 21 is a comprehensive plan of action
to be taken globally, nationally and locally
Value Addition by organizations of the United Nations
• Botanical gardens System, Governments, and Major Groups in
»» It is a place where ferns, conifers and every area in which human impacts on the
flowering plants are grown and displayed environment.
for the purposes of research and • Agenda 21 is a product of the Earth Summit
education. (UN Conference on Environment and

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Development) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, THEMATIC REPETITIVE
in 1992. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Mahseer
• It is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented
47. Consider the following pairs: (Year :2019)
action plan of the United Nations with regard
to sustainable development.
Wildlife Naturally Found
• Note : The full implementation of Agenda 21, in
the Programme for Further Implementation
1. Blue-finned Cauvery River
of Agenda 21 and the Commitments to the
Mahseer
Rio principles, were strongly reaffirmed at the
World Summit on Sustainable Development 2. Irrawaddy Chambal River
(WSSD) held in Johannesburg, South Africa Dolphin
from 26 August to 4 September 2002. 3. Rusty-spotted Eastern Ghats
Cat
46. The Partnership for action on Green
economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism Which of the pairs given above are
to assist countries transistion towards correctly matched?
greener and more inclusive economies,
(a) 1 and 2 only
emerged at (Year : 2018)
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. The Earth summit on Sustainable (c) 1 and 3 only
Development 2002, Johannesburg
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The United Nations Conference on
Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Explanation : Answer - C
Janeiro • In the river Cauvery, the Mahseer community
3. The United Nations Framework comprises a “blue-finned” and an “orange-
Convention on Climate Change 2015, finned, hump-backed” fish.
Paris • While it is not yet known whether these are
4. The World Sustainable Development distinct species or 2 different phenotypes,
Summit 2016, New Delhi evidence suggests that the hump-backed
Explanation : Answer - B phenotype is endemic to the river, whereas
the blue-finned phenotype was introduced in
• In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations the 1980s. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Conference on Sustainable Development) • Irrawaddy Dolphin is a critically endangered
was held in Brazil. species.
• The Partnership for Action on Green • They are found in coastal areas in South
Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as and Southeast Asia, and in three rivers: the
a response to the call at Rio+20 to support Ayeyarwady (Myanmar), the Mahakam
those countries wishing to embark on greener (Indonesian Borneo) and Mekong.
and more inclusive growth trajectories.
• In India, it is found in Lake Chilika and not
• PAGE represents a mechanism to coordinate the Chambal river. Hence, statement 2 is not
UN action on the green economy and to assist correct.
countries in achieving and monitoring the
• Rusty Spotted Cat is one of the world’s
emerging Sustainable Development Goals.
smallest feline.
• Four UN organizations, including ILO, UN
• In India, it was long thought to be confined
Environment, UNIDO and UNITAR initially
to the south, but records have established
joined forces to be able to provide countries
that it is found over much of the country.
with broad and tailored support.
• It was observed in eastern Gujarat’s Gir
National Park, in Maharashtra’s Tadoba-
Andhari Tiger Reserve and along India’s
Eastern Ghats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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48. Which of the following is not a bird ? THEMATIC REPETITIVE
 (Year : 2022) Acid Rain
(a) Golden Mahseer 49. Acid rain is caused by the pollution Of
(b) Indian Nightjar environment by
(c) Spoonbill (a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(d) White Ibis (b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
Explanation : Answer - A (c) ozone and carbon dioxide
• Golden Mahseer (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
»» It roughly translates as Mahi – fish and Explanation : Answer - D
sher – tiger, and hence is also referred as
tiger among fish. • The correct answer is nitrous oxide and
»» It is a large cyprinid and known to be sulphur dioxide.
the toughest among the freshwater sport • Definition of Acid Rain - Rain or any other
fish. Hence Option 1 is correct. form of precipitation that has a higher level of
»» The body color of an adult Golden hydrogen ions (i.e. low pH < 5.6), is termed
Mahseer is golden on the dorsal side and as Acid Rain.
the fins are reddish-yellow. • Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen which are
»» Also, the fish is characterized by their acidic in nature are responsible for causing
large scales and thick powerful lips with Acid Rain.
relatively longer barbels (sensory hair- • Human activities like the burning of fossil
like organs in front of the mouth) fuels, volcanic activities, etc. result in the
Value Addition formation of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen
• Indian Nightjar oxides.
»» The Indian nightjar is a small nightjar • These oxides after oxidation and reaction
bird that is a resident breeder in open with water are the major contributors to Acid
lands across South Asia and Southeast Rain.
Asia. Following chemical reactions occur:
»» Like most nightjars, it is crepuscular and
1. 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) + 2H2O (l) →
is best detected from its characteristic
2H2SO4 (aq)
calls at dawn and dusk/
2. 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) + 2H2O (l) →
• Spoonbill
4HNO3 (aq)
»» Spoonbills are tall white waterbirds with
long spatulate black bills and long black Aftermaths of Acid Rain:
legs. 1. Deteriorates plant and animal life in
»» In-flight they fly with necks and legs the aquatic ecosystem.
extended, in the water they feed with 2. It corrodes water pipes resulting in the
elegant sideward sweeps of their bill. leaching of heavy metals (iron, lead,
• White Ibis copper) into drinking water.
»» White Ibises are wetland birds. 3. It damages buildings and other
»» They use freshwater marshes, coastal structures made of metal or stone (eg.
estuaries, mangroves, flooded pastures, Taj Mahal)
mudflats, and swamps. 4. Chemical reaction occurring at the
»» They usually forage in shallow areas surface of Taj Mahal
with less than 8 inches of water, but they
also use lawns and parks, especially in CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
southern Florida.

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Important Points Sources of compounds causing acid rain:
»» The term Acid Rain was first coined by • Natural Resources : - Seas and oceans,
Scottish chemist Robert Angus Smith in Volcanic eruptions, Biological processes
the year 1852. in the soil e.g., Decomposition of Organic
»» Normal rainwater is weakly acidic due to matter
the presence of carbonic acid, which is • Man-made sources : - Burning of coal
formed due to the absorption of carbon (60%), Petroleum products (30 % of S02)
dioxide from the atmosphere. and smelting of metal sulfides ores to obtain
50. Consider the following: the pure metals, Industrial production of
sulphuric acid in metallurgical, chemical,
1. Carbon monoxide and fertilizers industries.
2. Nitrogen oxide • Nitrogen From :
3. Ozone »» Natural Resources : - Lightning,
4. Sulphur dioxide Volcanic eruptions
Excess of which of the above in the »» Anthropogenic sources : - Forest fires,
Combustion of Oil, Coal, And Gas
51. environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
 (Year : 2022)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation : Answer - B
• The term ‘acid rain’ refers to the deposition
of wet or dry acidic materials from the
atmosphere on the earth’s surface.
• The phenomenon of Acid rain was discovered
in the 19th century by Robert Angus Smith,
a pharmacist from Manchester (United
Kingdom), who noted that there were high
levels of acidity in rain falling over industrial
regions of England and compared them to
the much lower levels of acidity in rain falling
over less polluted areas near the coast and
agricultural regions.
• Although most conspicuously associated
with rainfall, the pollutants may fall on the
earth’s surface either in the form of snow, Soubhagya cleared CSE & IFoS
sleet, hail, or fog or in the dry form of gases Prelims 2023
or particulate matter.
• Smokes emitted from the industries are
the major source of sulfur dioxide whereas
smoke emitted from the motor vehicle is the
major source of nitrogen oxide. Hence only
2 and 4 are correct.

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II HISTORY & CULTURE

HISTORY & CULTURE (1979-2023)

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC (c) Vaishnavism

Jainism, Buddisum, Shaivism, Vaishnavism (d) Shaivism
1. “Souls are not only the property ‘of ani- Explanation: B
mal and plant life, but also of rocks, run- • Option (b) is correct: The “Sthanakvasi” sect
ning water and many other natural objects belongs to Jainism.
not looked ‘on as living by other religious
sects.” Sthanakvasi:
»» It is a branch of Svetambara Jainism that
The above statement reflects one of the
was started in 1653 AD by a merchant
core beliefs of which one of the following
named Lavaji.
religious sects of ancient India? 
»» It holds that the path to soul purification
(Year-2023)
and achieving Nirvana/Moksha does not
(a) Buddhism include idol worship.
(b) Jainism »» Sthanakvasi acknowledges 32 of the
(c) Shaivism Svetambara canonical Jain Agamas (text
detailing Mahavira’s teachings)
(d) Vaishnavism
3. Anekantavada is a core theory and philo-
Explanation : B
phy of which one of the following?
»» The central tenet of Jainism is non-vio- (Year-2009)
lence. No other religion lays as much em-
phasis on non-violence as Jainism. (a) Buddhism
»» As Jainism placed great emphasis on (b) Janism
non-violence, strict observers of the faith (c) Sikhism
wear a muslin (d) Vaishnavism
»» cloth around their mouth and nose so
that they would not inhale small insects Explanation : B
even by mistake. »» Anekantavada, meaning “non-abso-
»» To avoid trampling on ants and other in- lutism,” is one of the basic principles of
sects, Jain monks used feathers to sweep Jainism that encourages acceptance of
the path before walking. relativism and pluralism. According to
»» Jains could not practise agriculture or this doctrine, truth and reality are per-
other crafts that involve killing or injury ceived differently from different points
to living organisms. of view, and no single point of view is the
»» Hence, they took to trading and mon- complete truth. The word anekantavada
ey-lending and excelled in it. is a compound of two Sanskrit words
»» As a result, they were closely associated : Anekanta “manifoldness” and vada
with urbanisation. “school of thought.”
»» Therefore, option (b) is the correct an-
swer.
2. Which reference to the religious practices
in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

(a) Buddhism (Year-2018)

(b) Jainism

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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Buddhist theology.

Stupa »» Votive stupas - (LEH) : Votive stupas
are constructed to commemorate visits
4. With reference to ancient India, consider or gain spiritual benefits. Can be made
the following statements :  (Year-2023) from metal, stone, glass, etc
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in »» So, statement 3 is correct.
origin. »» Therefore, option c is the correct
answer.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of
relics. 5. Which one of the following statements is
3 . Stupa was a votive and commemorative correct?  (Year-2021)
structure in Buddhist tradition. (a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the
How many of the statements given above Waghora river.
are correct? (b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the
(a) Only one Chambal river.
(b) Only two (c) Pandu-Lena Cave Shrines lie in the
(c) All three gorge of the Narmada river.
(d) None (d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the
Godavari river.
Explanation : C
Explanation : A
• The practice of preserving the remains of an
important personality below accumulated »» Ajanta caves lie in the Basaltic gorge of
earth was long in existence. Waghora river. So option A is correct.
»» Sanchi stupa is in Raisen district of
• But, stupa as a concept as we know today
Madhya Pradesh, Chambal doesn’t pass
originated with Buddhism only.
through Raisen district. B is wrong.
• According to Buddhist sources, the remains »» Pandu – lena caves lie in Nashik district
of the Buddha’s body were divided into on the north face of a hill called Trirasmi,
eight parts and placed under the Stupas. So, So C is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct. »» Amravati Stupa lies on the bank of
• According to Buddhist sources, the remains Krishna river, not Godavari river, So D
of the Buddha’s body (relics) were divided is incorrect.
into eight parts and placed under the stupas. »» Ajanta Caves are located in the state of
So, statement 2 is correct. Maharashtra, India.
• According to a, Cunningham, Maisey and »» They are a group of 30 rock-cut Buddhist
Foucher the Stupas can be classified into cave monuments that date back to the
five categories: 2nd century BCE to the 6th century CE.
»» Relic stupas : Relic stupas are those in »» The caves are situated in the Sahyadri
which the relics of Buddha and other hills and are cut into the side of a cliff
religious persons are buried. – SANCHI. that overlooks the Wagora river.
»» Object stupas : Object stupas are those »» The Wagora river is a tributary of the
in which the objects belonging to the Godavari river which flows through the
Buddha or his disciples are buried. Deccan plateau in central India.
»» Commemorative stupas (VAISHALI) : »» The Ajanta Caves are famous for their
Commemorative stupas are those which exquisite rock-cut sculptures and paint-
are built to commemorate events in the ings that depict the life and teachings of
life of Buddha and his disciples. Buddha.
»» Symbolic Stupas (ANURADHAPURA) »» These caves are also a UNESCO World
: Symbolic stupas are those which are Heritage site and a major tourist attrac-
built to symbolise various aspects of tion in India.

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II HISTORY & CULTURE
6. Consider the following historical places:  »» Vishakhadatta’s Mudrarakshasa (7th/8th
century) revolves around the manoeu-
1. Ajanta Caves vres of Chanakya to win
2. Lepakshi Temple »» Over Rakshasa, a minister of the Nandas,
3. Sanchi Stupa to Chandragupta’s side.
Which of the above places is/are also »» His Devichandragupta centres on an in-
known for mural paintings? (Year-2013) cident set in the reign of the Gupta king
Ramagupta.
(a) 1 only »» Narrative literature such as the Pancha-
(b) 1 and 2 only tantra (5th–6th centuries) and the Kath-
(c) 1, 2 and 3 asaritsagara (Ocean of Streams of Stories,
(d) None 11th century) are collections of popular
folk tales that ordinary people may have
Explanation: B known, listened to, and enjoyed. So, pair
»» Ajanta Caves have mural paintings in 1 is not correctly matched.
caves 1, 2 , 16 and 17. »» Nayacandra Suri wrote the Hammi-
»» Some of the paintings were commis- ra-mahakavya, which is among the latest
sioned by Harisena of Vakataka dynasty. important works of Sanskrit Literature.
»» The theme of the paintings was Jataka So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
tales. »» Milindapanha (1st century BCE–1st cen-
»» Lepakshi Temple is renowned for be- tury CE), which consists of a dialogue
ing one of the best repositories of mural on various philosophical Issues between
paintings of the Vijaynagar kings. king Milinda—no doubt the Indo-Greek
»» Sanchi Stupa has many beautiful sculp- Menander—and the monk Nagasena.
tures but not mural paintings. So, pair 3 is Not correctly matched.
»» Somadeva followed up the concepts of
the Arthashastra tradition comprising
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
mandala, sadgunyam, and four upayas
Personality in his Nitivakyamrita (the nectar of the
7. With reference to ancient Indian History, Niti - lessons).
»» The author has also attached importance
Consider the following pairs :  (Year- to the acquisition of land, which, accord-
2023) ing to him, is better than that of money,
which is better than acquiring the land.
Literary work Author »» He has also referred to the importance
Devi chandragupta Bilhana of the king’s three powers (shaktis) af-
Hammira- Nayachandra Suri ter Kautilya, such as the intellectual, the
Mahakauya material, and the volitional. So, pair 4 is
Milinda-panha Nagatjuna correctly matched.
»» Therefore, option (b) is the correct an-
Nitivakyamrita Somadeva Suri
swer.
How many of the above pairs are Correctly 8. Match List I with list II and select the cor-
matched? rect answer using the codes given below
(a) Only one the list
(b) Only two
List I : List II
(c) Only three
1. Prabandha
(d) All four A. Varahamihira
Chintamanl
Explanation : B
B. Visakhadatta 2. Mrchchhakatikam

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C. Sudraka 3. Brhat Samhita Select the correct answer from the codes
given below
4. Devi
D. Bilhana ABCD
Chandraguptam
5. Vikra- (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2134
mankadevacharita (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3412
Codes :  (Year-1997) Explanation : C
A BC D »» Self Explanatory
(a) 3 4 5 2 (b) 3425 11. The following were famous scholars in an-
(c) 5 3 4 1 (d) 1352 ciant India  (Year-1983)
Explanation : B 1. Ashvaghosh
»» Brihat-Samhita is an script written in 2. Nagarjuna
Indian sanskrit by Author Varahamihira. 3. Vasumitra
»» Devi-ChandraGuptam is an script
4. Buddhaghosa
written in Indian sanskrit by Author Vi-
sakhadutta . Which of them was/were contemporary of
»» Mrichchha katikam is an script written kanishka?
in Indian sanskrit by Author Sudraka. (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
»» Vikramankadeva Charita is an script (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
written in Indian sanskrit by Author Bil-
hana. Explanation : D

9. Who among the following was not a con- »» Asvaghosa : Asvaghosa is the Great-
temporary of the other three  (Year-2005) est Indian Poet Prior to Kalidasa. He is
known as first Sanskrit Dramatist of the
(a) Bimbsara World. He was the court writer and reli-
(b) Gautama Buddha gious advisor of Kushana king Kanishka.
(c) Milinda »» Nagarjuna : Nagarjuna founded the
Madhyamika school of Mahayan Bud-
(d) Prasenjit
dhism. He was contemporary of Kanish-
Explanation : C ka.
»» Menander I known in Indian Pali sourc- »» Vasumitra : Kanishka patronised Bud-
es as Milinda was an Indo-Greek King dhist scholars like Vasumitra, Asvagosha
of the Indo-Greek Kingdom (155-130 and Nagarjuna. He also convened the
BC). Menander was also a patron of Fourth Buddhist Council to discuss mat-
Buddhism, and his conversations with ters relating to Buddhist theology and
the Buddhist sage Nagasena are record- doctrine.
ed in the important Buddhist work, the »» Buddhaghosa : He was a 5th- century
Milinda Panha (“The Wisdom of Milin- Indian Theravada Buddhist commenta-
da”; panna meaning “wisdom” in Pali). tor and scholar and was not contempo-
All others are contemporary of Budha rary of Kanishka.
around 5th/6th BC.
10. Match the following  (Year-1989)

A. Charak 1 Samkhya
B. Nagarjuna 2. Sanskrit author
C.Kapila 3 Ayuerveda
D.Gorakhnath 4 Rasaratnakara

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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Explanation : Answer - C

Buddha and Places associated with him • Gujarati has not been declared as a classical
12. Which of the following Kingdoms were language.
associated with the life of the Buddha?  • The Ministry of Culture provides the
 (Year : 2014 & 2015) guidelines regarding Classical languages.
• There are six languages that enjoy the
1. Avanti
‘Classical’ status in India:
2. Gandhara »» Tamil (declared in 2004)
3. Kosala »» Sanskrit (2005)
4. Magadha »» Kannada (2008)
Select the correct answer using the code »» Telugu (2008)
given below. »» Malayalam (2013)
»» Odia (2014)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
• All the Classical Languages are listed in the
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Explanation : Answer - B • The following criteria were laid down to find
the eligibility of languages to be classified as
• Gautama Buddha was an ascetic and spiritual
Classical language.
teacher of ancient India who lived during the
6th or 5th century BCE. • High antiquity of its early texts history over
period of 1500- 2000 years.
• He was the founder of Buddhism and is
revered by Buddhists as a fully enlightened • A body of ancient literature which is
being who taught a path to Nirvana, freedom considered a valuable heritage by generations
from ignorance, craving, rebirth and of speakers.
suffering. • The literary tradition is original and not
• Both the kingdoms of Gandhara and Kosala borrowed from another speech community.
were related to Gautama Buddha’s life. His • The classical language and literature being
mother was a princess from the Kosalan distinct from modern, there may also be a
dynasty. But the kingdoms of Avanti and discontinuity between the classical language
Magadha were not directly related to the and its later forms or its offshoots.
life of Buddha. Instead Magadha is closely
14. Which one of the following was given
related with Mahavira.
classical language status recently? 
 (Year : 2015)
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC: (a) Odia
Classical Languages (b) Konkani
13. Consider the following languages:  (c) Bhojpuri
 (Year : 2014) (d) Assamese
1) Gujarati Explanation : Answer - A
2) Kannada • A classical language has its own literary
3) Telugu tradition as well as a substantial and ancient
Which of the above has/have been declared corpus of written literature.
as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the • Classical languages are often dead languages,
Government? or display a high degree of diglossia, as
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only spoken dialects diverge from the classical
written language through time.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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• A high antiquity of its early texts/recorded THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
history over a period of 1,500-2,000 years, Feudal system
a body of ancient literature/texts that is
considered a valuable heritage by generations 15. With reference to Indian history, which of
of speakers, and a literary tradition that is the following is/are the essential element/
original and not borrowed from another elements of the feudal system? 
speech community are all required for a  (Year : 2015)
language to be classified as classical. 1) A very strong centralized political
• Six Indian languages have been designated authority and a very weak provincial or
as classical languages : Tamil, Telugu, local political authority.
Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia. 2) Emergence of administrative structure
Tamil is the first language to be given that based on control and possession of
rank. In 2004, Tamil was designated as a land
classical language.
3) Creation of lord-vassal relationship
A) Odia : This is the correct answer. between the feudal lord and his
Following approval by the Union overlord Select the correct answer
Cabinet on February 20, 2014, the using the code given below.
Odia (Odia) language became the (a) 1 and 2 only
country’s sixth classical language. Odia
is regarded as the first Indo-Aryan (b) 2 and 3 only
language, and its classification as a (c) 3 only
classical language was based on the fact (d) 1, 2 and 3
that it bears no resemblance to Hindi, Explanation : Answer - B
Sanskrit, Bengali, or Telugu.
B) Konkani: This option is incorrect • The terms feudalism and feudal system were
because Konkani is not given the generally applied to the early and central
status of classical language. Konkani Middle Ages—the period from the 5th
is an Indo-Aryan language spoken century, when central political authority in
predominantly along India’s western the Western empire disappeared, to the 12th
coast by the Konkani people. century, when kingdoms began to emerge
as effective centralized units of government
C) Bhojpuri: Because Bhojpuri does not
Broadly defined, it was a way of structuring
have the status of a classical language,
society around relationships derived from
this option is wrong. Bhojpuri is an
the holding of land in exchange for service or
Indo-Aryan language spoken by 51
labour (lord-vassal relationship).
million people in India’s Northern-
Eastern region and Nepal’s Terai area. • Use of the term feudalism to describe India
Western Bihar and eastern Uttar applies a concept of medieval European
Pradesh are the main areas where it is origin, according to which the landed nobility
spoken. held lands from the Crown in exchange for
military service, and vassals were in turn
D) Assamese: Assamese, also known as
tenants of the nobles, while the peasants
Asamiya, is an Indo-Aryan language
(villains or serfs) were obliged to live on their
spoken mostly in the state of Assam in
lord’s land and give him homage, labor, and a
northeast India, where it is an official
share of the produce, notionally in exchange
language. Because Assamese does not
for military protection. The term Indian
have the status of a classical language,
feudalism is an attempt to classify Indian
this option is wrong.
history according to a European model.
• Feudalism, in its various forms, usually
emerged as a result of the decentralization
of an empire ; especially in the Carolingian

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empires which both lacked the bureaucratic administrative functions, creating
infrastructure necessary to support cavalry feudalism.
without the ability to allocate land to these THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
mounted troops. Hundi (Terminolgy)
• A person became a vassal by pledging
political allegiance and providing military, 17. Which of the following phrases defines the
political, and financial service to a lord. A lord nature of the Hundi generally referred to
possessed complete sovereignty over land or in the sources of the post Harsha period?
acted in the service of another sovereign,  (Year : 2020)
usually a king. If a lord acted in the service (a) An advisory, issued by the king to his
of a king, the lord was considered a vassal subordinates
of the king. As part of the feudal agreement,
B) A diary to be maintained for daily
the lord promised to protect the vassal and
accounts
provided the vassal with a plot of land. This
land could be passed on to the vassal’s heirs, C) A bill of exchange
giving the vassal tenure over the land. D) An order from the feudal lord to his
subordinates
16. Assertion (A) : The origin of feudal system
in ancient India can be traced to military Explanation : Answer - C
campaigns. • Hundi is a financial instrument that
Reason (R) : There was considerable developed in Medieval India for use in trade
expansion of the feudal system during the and credit transactions.
Gupta period. (Year : 2000) • They were used as -
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the »» As remittance instruments (to transfer
correct explanation of A funds from one place to another)
»» As credit instruments (to borrow money)
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a
»» trade transactions (as bills of exchange).
correct explanation of A
Do You Know...?
(c) A is true, but R is false
UPSC often repeats many questions from
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Mains Examination as well
Explanation : Answer - A • What is Hundi?  (Year : 2006)
• The origin of feudal system in ancient India THEMATIC TOPICS - TERMINOLOGY
can be traced to military campaigns because (Parivrajaka, Shramana)
the feudal lords provided military help to the
18. With reference to the cultural history
king during the war.
of India, the memorizing of chronicles
• There was considerable expansion of feudal dynastic histories, and epic tales was the
system during Gupta period. Feudalism in profession of who of the following? 
India originations the era of post-Mauryan  (Year : 2016)
especially after the Gupta dynasty.
• Certain political and administrative 1. Shramana
developments resulted in the feudal state 2. Parivraajaka
institutions. 3. Agrahaarika
• Some of these were: 4. Magadha
»» The practice of giving land to Brahmin
Explanation : Answer - D
and Buddhist monks and later to civil
servants for military and administrative • Memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories
services. These financial offers meant or epic tales was the work of a different group
the transfer of all sources of income of people, the Sutas and Magadhas, who were
and the establishment of police and the descendants of priestly families of the

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Vedic period.
• Shramana means seeker, one who performs
acts of austerity, ascetic.
• Agraharika means one who probably looked
after the lands given in charity.
• Parivraajaka literally means ‘one who roams
about all round the place.’
19. With reference to the cultural history of
India, consider the following pairs:
1. Parivrajaka - Renunciant and Wanderer
2. Shramana - Priest with a high status
3. Upasaka - Lay follower of Buddhism
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched? (Year : 2020)
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only Husnain Khan Cleared
4. 1, 2 and 3 CSE Prelims
Explanation : Answer - B
• The correct match is as follows-
1) Parivrajaka - Renunciant and
Wanderers
2) Shramana - refer to the ascetics and
renouncers of ancient India. The
shamans included a variety of ascetics,
as well as the monks and lay followers
of various sects - Buddhist, Jaina,
Ajivika, and others,
3) Upasaka - Lay follower of Buddhism
• Important Points
»» The list of some of the important priests
of the Vedic period is as follows-
»» Adhvaryu - was the administrative
priest.
»» Rtvij - was the sacrificial priest and
it covered all different type of priests
employed at the sacrifice.
»» hotri, potr, nestr, Agnidh, prasast,
adhvaryu and brahman- seven priests
present in Rtvij.
»» The pot, ne, and brahman belonged to
the ritual of the soma sacrifice.

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MODERN HISTORY (1979-2023)

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC foundation for the Indianisation of

Acts - (1773 - 1947) public services.
»» Therefore, option (D) is the correct
1. By which one of the following Acts was the answer.
Governor General of Bengal designated as
the Governor General of India?  2. Consider the following statements: 
(Year-2023) 1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor
(a) The Regulating Act General who established a regular
police force in India on the British
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
pattern
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
2. A Supreme Court was established at
(d) The Charter Act of 1833 Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773.
Explanation : D 3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect
in the year 1860.
Charter Act of 1833
Which of the statements given above is/are
• The Charter Act of 1833 was a significant
correct?(Year-2005)
constitutional instrument defining the scope
and authority of The East India Company. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
• The liberal and utilitarian philosophy of (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Bentham was made popular by the Provisions Explanation : B
of this Act.
»» Lord Cornwallis first Governor General
Following were the important provisions:
established a regular police force on the
»» The English East India Company ceased British pattern in India.
to be a commercial agency in India.
»» In other words, it would function 3. Match List 1 (Acts of Government of
hereafter as the political agent for the India) with List II (Provisions) and select
Crown. the correct answer using the codes given
»» The Governor-General of Fort William below the lists: (Year-2002)
was hereafter called ‘the Governor – List I (Acts of Colonial Government of
General of India’. India)
»» Thus, Bentinck was the first Governor-
General of India’. A. Charter Act, 1813
»» A Law Member was appointed to the B. Regulating Act
Governor-General’s Council. T. B. C. Act of 1858
Macaulay was the first Law Member of D. Pitt’s India Act
the Governor- General-in-Council. List II (Provisions)
»» The Act categorically stated “that no
native of India, nor any natural born 1. Set up a Board of Control in Britain to
subject of His Majesty, should be fully regulate the East India Company’s
disabled from holding any place, office, affair in India
or employment, by reason of his religion, 2 Company’s trade monopoly in India
place of birth, descent or colour”. was ended
»» It was this enactment which laid the

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3. The power to govern was transferred D. Governor Gen- 4. Gibert John
from East India Company to British eral and Crown Elliot Murray
Crown Representatives Kynymond, Earl of
4. The Company’s Director were asked (Under Govern- Minto
to present to the British Government ment of India Act,
all correspondence and documents 1935)
pertaining to the administration of the
Codes : A B C D
company
Codes : ABCD (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3415
(c) 2 3 4 5 (d) 4231
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1342
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1432 Explanation : A
Explanation : A »» Self Explanatory.
»» Charter Act, 1813 - Company’s trade 5. Write the correct chronological order of
monopoly in India was ended the following (Year-1987)
»» Regulating Act - The Company’s A. Pitt’s India Act
directors were asked to present to the
B. Rowlatt Act
British government all correspondence
and documents pertaining to the C. Regulating Act
administration of the company D. Indian Councils Act
»» Act of 1858 - The power to govern was Codes:
transferred from the East India Company
(a) A, C, D, B
to the British Crown
»» Pitt’s India Act - Set up a Board of (b) B, A, C, D
Control in Britain to fully regulate the (c) C, A, D, B
East India Company’s affairs in India (d) D, B, A, C
»» Therefore, the correct answer is A-2,
Explanation : C
B-4, C-3, D-1.
»» Regulating Act : The Regulating Act of
4. Match List I with List II and select the
1773, formally recognised the British
correct answer by using the codes given
Parliament’s right to control Indian
below the lists: (Year-1996)
affairs.
List-I : List-II »» Pitt’s India Act : Under Pitt’s India Act,
1784 a Board of Control, consisting of
A.Governor Gen- 1. Archibald
six members was constituted and would
eral of Presidency Percival Wavell,
include one of the secretaries of state, the
of Fort William Viscount and Earl
Chancellor of the Exchequer and four
in Bengal (under Wavell
privy councilors.
Regulating Act,
»» Rowlatt Act : The Anarchical and
1773)
Revolutionary Crimes Act, 1919,
B. Governor 2. James Andrew popularly known as the Rowlatt Act,
General of India Broun Ramsay, wos a legislative act passed by the
(under Charter Earl andMarques of Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on
Act, 1833) Dalhousie March 18, 1919, indefinitely extending
C. Governor Gen- 3. Charles Corn- the emergency measures of preventive
eral and Viceroy wallis 2nd, Earl and indefinite detention, incarceration
of India (Under First Marques of without trial and judicial review enacted
Indian Councils Cornwallis in the Defence of India Act 1915 during
Act, 1858) the First World War, The Indinn Councils

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Act. 1909 This Act is also known as against some vernacular press people.
Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley »» There was now a popular protest against
was the then Secretary of State for India this act. The act was later repealed by
and Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of Lord Ripon, who followed Lard Lytton.
India). It considerably Increased the size 8. Match List 1 (Acts of Government of
of the legislative councils, both Central India) with List II (Provisions) and select
and provincial. the correct answer using the codes given
6. Which of the following Acts was below the lists: (Year-2002)
introduced by the Britishers to remove
the shortcomings of the Regulating Act? List I (Acts of Colonial Government of
(Year-1986) India)
A. Charter Act, 1813
(a) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
B. Regulating Act
(b) Rowlatt Act
C. Act of 1858
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
D. Pitt’s India Act
(d) Government of India Act 1919
List II (Provisions)
Explanation : A
1. Set up a Board of Control in Britain to
The correct option is A Pitt’s India Act fully regulate the East India Company’s
»» Pitt’s India Act 1784 or the East India affair in India
Company Act 1784 was passed in the 2 Company’s trade monopoly in India
British Parliament to rectify the defects was ended
of the Regulating Act 1773. 3. The power to govern was transferred
»» It resulted in dual control or joint from East India Company to British
government in India by Crown in Crown
Great Britain and the British East India 4. The Company’s Director were asked
Company, with crown having ultimate to present to the British Government
authority. all correspondence and documents
»» With this act, East India Company’s pertaining to the administration of the
political functions were differentiated company
from its commercial activities for the
first time. Codes : ABCD
»» The relationship between company (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1342
and crown established by this act (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1432
kept changing with time until the
Explanation : A
Government of India Act 1858 provided
for liquidation of the British East India »» Charter Act, 1813 - Company’s trade
Company. monopoly in India was ended
»» Regulating Act - The Company’s
7. Which one of the following pairs is not
directors were asked to present to the
correctly matched? (Year-2004)
British government all correspondence
(a) Pitt’s India Act : Warren Hastings and documents pertaining to the
(b) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie administration of the company
(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon »» Act of 1858 - The power to govern was
transferred from the East India Company
(d) Ilbert Bill : Ripon to the British Crown
Explanation : C »» Pitt’s India Act - Set up a Board of
»» Vernacular Press Act of 1878 gagged the Control in Britain to fully regulate the
press and result was some proceedings East India Company’s affairs in India

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»» Therefore, the correct answer is A-2, Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on
B-4, C-3, D-1. March 18, 1919, indefinitely extending
9. The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime the emergency measures of preventive
Act (1919) was popularly known as the indefinite detention, incarceration
without trial and judicial review enacted
(a) Rowlatt Act  (Year-1996) in the Defence of India Act 1915 during
(b) Pitt’s India Act the First World War, The Indinn Councils
Act. 1909 This Act is also known as
(c) Indian Arms Act
Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley
(d) Ilbert Bill was the then Secretary of State for India
Explanation : A and Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of
India). It considerably Increased the size
• The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes
of the legislative councils, both Central
Act, 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt
and provincial.
Act, was a legislative act passed by the
Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on 11. Which of the following Acts was
March 18, 1919, indefinitely extending the introduced by the Britishers to remove
emergency measures of preventive indefinite the shortcomings of the Regulating Act?
detention, incarceration without trial and (Year-1986)
judicial review enacted in the Defence of
(a) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
India Act 1915 during the First World War.
(b) Rowlatt Act
10. Write the correct chronological order of (c) The Charter Act of 1793
the following (Year-1987)
(d) Government of India Act 1919
A. Pitt’s India Act Explanation : A
B. Rowlatt Act
The correct option is A Pitt’s India Act
C. Regulating Act
»» Pitt’s India Act 1784 or the East India
D. Indian Councils Act
Company Act 1784 was passed in the
Codes: British Parliament to rectify the defects
(a) A, C, D, B of the Regulating Act 1773.
(b) B, A, C, D »» It resulted in dual control or joint
government in India by Crown in
(c) C, A, D, B
Great Britain and the British East India
(d) D, B, A, C Company, with crown having ultimate
Explanation : C authority.
»» With this act, East India Company’s
»» Regulating Act : The Regulating Act of
political functions were differentiated
1773, formally recognised the British
from its commercial activities for the
Parliament’s right to control Indian
first time.
affairs.
»» The relationship between company
»» Pitt’s India Act : Under Pitt’s India Act,
and crown established by this act
1784 a Board of Control, consisting of
kept changing with time until the
six members was constituted and would
Government of India Act 1858 provided
include one of the secretaries of state, the
for liquidation of the British East India
Chancellor of the Exchequer and four
Company.
privy councilors.
»» Rowlatt Act : The Anarchical and
Revolutionary Crimes Act, 1919,
popularly known as the Rowlatt Act,
wos a legislative act passed by the

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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC: defunct in 1948.

Congress Socialist Party • MN ROY and Communist International
12. Match the columns :  (Year : 1987) »» The October Revolution in Russia (1917)
ignited the spark of left wing ideology in
(A) M. N. Roy (i) Swarajist Party India and other parts of the world.
(B) C. R. Das (ii) Hindustan Socialist »» By the second decade of the 20th century,
Republican the political thinking in India swung
Association between Gandhian ideology and radical
(C) Chandra (iii) Congress Socialist Communism.
Shekhar Party »» This was so much that Bengali militant
Azad nationalist Manabendra Nath Roy
(D) Acharya (iv) Communist became one of the founders of global
Narendra International Communism.
Dev 13. Who among the following was a prominent
a b c d leader of the Congress Socialist Party? 
 (Year : 1996)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (a) M. N. Roy
(C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (b) Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (c) Pattam Thanu Pillai
Explanation : Answer - A (d) Acharya Narendra Dev
»» Self Explanatory Explanation : Answer - D
Value Addition • Acharya Narendra Dev was a freedom fighter
and founding President of Congress Socialist
• The Swaraj Party or the Congress-Khilafat Party (CSP). He was jailed several times
Swarajya Party was formed on 1 January 1923 during the freedom movement and post
by C R Das and Motilal Nehru. The formation independence led the Socialist Party and
of the Swaraj Party came after various later Praja Socialist Party.
significant events like the withdrawal of non-
cooperation movement, the government of • Acharya Narendra Dev, who was born on
India act 1919 and 1923 elections. October 31 1889, in a lawyer’s family in
Sitapur in Uttar Pradesh. Acharya Narendra
• The Hindustan Socialist Republican Dev was the person who remained a member
Association (HSRA) was a revolutionary of the All India Congress Committee (AICC)
party set up by Ram Prasad Bismil and his from 1916 to 1948 and who was one of the
associates to fight against British colonial foremost socialist leaders, Buddhist scholars,
rule in India and achieve independence for and educationists of the country.
the country through an armed rebellion if
necessary. • Narendra Dev spent his formative years
in Faizabad, the twin town of Ayodhya,
• The Congress Socialist Party was founded in and attended the Lucknow session of the
1934 by Jai Prakash Narayan, Ram Manohar Congress with his father in 1899 when he was
Lohia and Acharya Narendra Deva. It was a only ten years old.
Socialist group within the Congress Party.
• Narendra Dev came to be known as “Acharya”
• It was formed by members of the Congress when he took over Kashi Vidyapeeth, an
over ideological differences with Mahatma educational institution that was opened as
Gandhi. Independence and Socialism were part of the freedom struggle, as its Vice-
its goals. chancellor in 1926.
• Ram Manohar Lohia published a journal • On May 17, 1934 in Patna, Narendra Dev
called, ‘Congress Socialist.’ The party became presided over the founding convention of the

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Congress Socialist Party. 15. With reference to Congress Socialist Party,
• Narendra Dev was a polyglot and knew consider the following statements: 
Hindi, Urdu, Persian, Bengali, Pali, French  (Year : 2015)
and German language. 1) It advocated the boycott of British
14. Which of the following statements are true goods and evasion of taxes.
of the Congress Socialist Party?  2) It wanted to establish the dictatorship
 (Year : 1988) of proletariat.
(1) It was a forum for various kinds of 3) It advocated separate electorate for
Socialists in India. minorities and oppressed classes.
(2) It was a rival organisation of Indian Which of the statements given above is/are
National Congress. correct?
(3) It championed the cause of workers (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
and peasants. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Choose the correct answer from the codes Explanation : Answer - C
given below:
• Congress Socialist Party was a socialist
(a) 1, 2 and 3 group within the Indian National Congress
(b) 1 and 2 only (INC). It was founded in 1934 by Jayaprakash
(c) 1 and 3 only Narayan and Acharya Narendra Dev.
(d) 2 and 3 only • Jayaprakash Narayan’s book: Why
Explanation : Answer - C socialism? – the relevance of socialism in
India. Ram Manohar Lohia published a
• The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was Journal: Congress socialist.
born within the Congress on May 17, 1934, • The ideology of CSP:
in Patna with Acharya Narendra Dev as
• They believed in Marxist Ideas, Gandhism,
president and Jayaprakash Narayan (JP) as
Liberal, and Social democracy of the west.
general secretary. It’s joint secretaries were
They owe allegiance to Indian National
Minoo Masani , Mohan Lal Gautam, N G
Congress (INC)
Gorey and EMS namboodaripad.
• Goals: Nationalism and Independence,
• Congress socialist party’s beginning can be
traced to a preliminary consultation held • They joined hands with the Bourgeois or
at Patna in May 1934, where an organising Middle class along with Bringing in workers
committee was formed with Jayaprakash and peasants to create a broad base for
Narayan as convener. Congress.
• This was followed by the regular all-India • Demands: Abolition of capitalism, the
conference held in Bombay in October where zamindari system, and princely states.
the constitution of the party was adopted. • Incorporate radical socio-economic
• Among the voluminous material on the birth measures for the upliftment of distressed
and development of the Congress Socialist people into the Congress work program.
Party, a prominent place should be given to a
book written by Jaya Prakash Narayan under
the title, Why Socialism.
• To draft the Party’s constitution, policy
and programme a draft committee was
constituted under the Chairmanship of
Acharya Narendra Deva and Jayaprakash
Narayan as Secretary.

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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Explanation : Answer - C

Government of India Act, 1919 • Dyarchy, also spelled diarchy, system of
16. The DYARCHY was introduced by the double government introduced by the
Government of India Act, 1919 postulated Government of India Act (1919) for the
which of the following ?  (Year : 1980) provinces of British India. It marked the first
introduction of the democratic principle
(a) A system of dual government in Bengal into the executive branch of the British
(b) Backward classes were entitled to vote administration of India. Though much-
(c) A few subjects were transferred to criticized, it signified a breakthrough in
the Provincial Ministries and the rest British Indian government and was the
retained by the Executive Council forerunner of India’s full provincial autonomy
(d) Hindus and Muslims could vote (1935) and independence (1947). Dyarchy
separately was introduced as a constitutional reform

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by Edwin Samuel Montagu (secretary of state (4) The Indian Act, 1947 — Provincial
for India, 1917–22) and Lord Chelmsford Independence Legislature
(viceroy of India, 1916–21). (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
17. Which of the following Acts gave (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
representation to Indians for the first time Explanation : Answer - B
in legislatures ?  (Year : 1985)
• Indian Councils Act, 1909 - The Indian
(a) The Indian Councils Act. 1909 Councils Act 1909, generally referred to
(b) The Indian Councils Act, 1919 as the Morley-Minto or Minto-Morley
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935 Reforms, was an Act of the UK Parliament
(d) None of the above that resulted in a small increase in Indian
participation in British India’s governance. In
Explanation : Answer - A 1906, the Muslim League was founded by an
• The Indian Councils Act commonly known elite aimed at promoting Muslim interests,
as the “Morley- Minto reforms” of 1909 preventing Hindu supremacy over Muslims
was passed by the British Parliament in an through a parliamentary system and
attempt to widen the scope of the legislative advancing the Muslim perspective in post-
councils, increase the participation of Indians October 1907 deliberations on constitutional
in governance and formally introduced the reforms.
principle of elections in India for the very • Govt. of India Act, 1919 : An act of the
first time. Hence, this is the correct option. Parliament of the United Kingdom was the
• The Government of India Act of 1919 Government of India Act 1919. It was passed
was passed to expand the participation of in order to increase Indian involvement
Indians in the system of management and in India’s government. In the report of the
administration. It had a set of principal Secretary of State for India, Edwin Montagu,
reforms such as dyarchy was introduced at and the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford, the Act
a provincial level and it made provisions for embodied the amendments suggested. Ten
the classification of central and provincial years were protected by the Act, from 1919
subjects. However, it wasn’t this Act that to 1929.
introduced the principle of elections for the • Govt. of India Act, 1935 : An act of the
first time. Hence, this is not the correct Parliament of the United Kingdom was the
option. Government of India Act 1935. In August
• The Government of India Act 1935 had 1935, it originally obtained Royal assent.
proposed to establish an All India Federation Before the Greater London Authority Act,
and this federation was to consist of Provinces 1999 exceeded it, it was the longest Act of
and Princely states both being a single unit. Parliament ever enacted.
This act gave 10% of the voters the right to • Indian Independence Act, 1947 : The
vote. There was a partial reorganization of Indian Independence Act of 1947 is an Act of
the provinces. the UK Parliament separating British India
into the two new independent dominions
18. Which of the following pairs are correct
of India and Pakistan. On 18 July 1947, the
 (Year : 1985)
Act obtained Royal Assent and thus India
(1) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 — and Pakistan, comprising the regions of West
Provincial Autonomy (modern-day Pakistan) and East (modern-
(2) The Government of Act, 1919 — day Bangladesh), came into being on 15
Introduction of India Dyarchy August.
(3) The Government Act, 1935 — Proposal
for a Federation of India

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19. Which of the following Acts was Explanation : Answer - C
introduced by the Britishers to remove the
• Indian Council Act, 1909 proved to be the
shortcomings of the Regulating Act ? 
most short lived of all the British constitutional
 (Year : 1986)
experiments in India. The Indian Councils
(a) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 Act 1909, commonly known as the Morley-
(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919 Minto, was an Act of the Parliament of the
United Kingdom that brought about a limited
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
increase in the involvement of Indians in the
(d) Government of India Act 1919 governance of British India.
Explanation : Answer - A • Time span of given acts:
• The Pitt’s India Act, 1784 also called the East »» Indian Councils Act of 1861 – 31 years
India Company Act, 1784 was passed by the Indian Councils Act of 1892 – 17 years
British Parliament to correct the defects of Indian Councils Act of 1909 – 10 years
the Regulating Act of 1773. This act resulted Government of India Act 1919 – 16 years
in dual control of British possessions in India 21. The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed
by the British government and the Company the basis of:  (Year : 2004)
with the final authority resting with the
government. This act continued in effect until (a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
1858. The act is named after William Pitt the (b) The Government of India Act, 1919
Younger, Britain’s Prime Minister when the (c) The Government of India Act, 1935
act was passed. (d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
Features: Explanation : Answer - B
»» This act made a distinction between the
commercial and political activities of the • The legislature of India Act 1919 was passed
East India Company. by the British Parliament to additionally
»» For the first time, the term ‘British extend the investment of Indians in the
possessions in India’ was used. Government of India.
»» This act gave the British government • Since the demonstration encapsulated
direct control over Indian administration. changes as suggested by a report of Edwin
»» The Company became subordinate to Montagu {Secretary of State for India} and
the British government unlike as in the Lord Chelmsford {Viceroy and Governor
previous Regulating Act of 1773, where General}, it is additionally called Montague-
the government only sought to ‘regulate’ Chelmsford Reforms or essentially Mont-
matters and not take over. Ford Reforms.
»» This act established the British Crown’s • The most prominent element of the
authority in the civil and military demonstration was the “end of considerate
administration of its Indian territories. imperialism” and the presentation of a capable
Commercial activities were still a government in India. This demonstration
monopoly of the Company. covered a long time from 1919 to 1929.
20. The most shortlived of all of Britain’s • Simultaneously, any remaining zones of
constitutional experiments in India was government (the ‘held rundown’) stayed
the  (Year : 1999) heavily influenced by the Viceroy. The ‘held
rundown’ included guard (the military),
(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861 international concerns, and correspondences.
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892 • The Imperial Legislative Council was
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909 broadened and changed. It turned into a
(d) Government of India Act of 1919 bicameral lawmaking body for all of India.
The lower house was the Legislative Assembly

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of 145 individuals, of which 104 were chosen • Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy.
and 41 were named, with a residency of three • However, the federation never came into
years. being as the princely states did not join it.
• The upper house was the Council of State, • It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and
comprising 34 chosen and 26 named introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place.
individuals, with a residency of five years. • The provinces were allowed to act as
• The Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms or autonomous units of administration in their
even more immediately known as Mont- defined spheres.
Ford Reforms were changes introduced by • Moreover, the Act introduced responsible
the traveler government in British India to Governments in provinces, that is, the
introduce self-regulating establishments Governor was required to act with the advice
dynamically in India. of ministers responsible to the provincial
• The changes take their name from Edwin legislature.
Montagu, the Secretary of State for India • This came into effect in 1937 and was
during the last pieces of the First World discontinued in 1939. It provided for the
War, and Lord Chelmsford, Viceroy of India adoption of dyarchy at the Centre.
somewhere in the range of 1916 and 1921.
• Consequently, the federal subjects were
• The changes were sketched out in the divided into reserved subjects and transferred
Montagu-Chelmsford Report arranged subjects. However, this provision of the Act
in 1918 and shaped the premise of the did not come into operation at all.
Government of India Act 1919.
• It introduced bicameralism in six out of
22. The distribution of powers between eleven provinces.
the Centre and the States in the Indian • Thus, the legislatures of Bengal, Bombay,
Constitution is based on the scheme Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United
provide in the  (Year : 2012) Provinces were made bicameral consisting
a) Morley Minto reforms 1909 of a legislative council (upper house) and a
legislative assembly (lower house).
b) Montagu Chelmsford act 1919
• However, many restrictions were placed
c) Govt. of India act, 1935
on them. It further extended the principle
d) Indian independence act 1947 of communal representation by providing
Explanation : Answer - C separate electorates for depressed classes
(Scheduled Castes), women and labour
• Government of India Act of 1935 : The
(workers).
Act marked a second milestone towards a
completely responsible government in India. • It abolished the Council of India, established
(First one being the GOI of 1919) It was a by the Government of India Act of 1858. The
lengthy and detailed document having 321 secretary of state for India was provided with
Sections and 10 Schedules. a team of advisors.
• The features of this Act were as follows: • It extended the franchise. About 10 percent
of the total population got the voting right.
• It provided for the establishment of an All-
India Federation consisting of provinces and • It provided for the establishment of a Reserve
princely states as units. Bank of India to control the currency and
credit of the country.
• The Act divided the powers between the
Centre and units in terms of three lists– • It provided for the establishment of not only
Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), a Federal Public Service Commission but
Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) also a Provincial Public Service Commission
and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 and Joint Public Service Commission for two
items). or more provinces.

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• It provided for the establishment of a Federal 24. The people of India Commission agitated
Court, which was set up in 1937. against the arrival of Simon Commission
because  (Year : 2013)
23. Which of the following is/ are the principal
feature(s) of the Government of India Act, (a) Indians never wanted the review of the
1919?  (Year : 2012) working of the Act of 1919
1) Introduction of dyarchy in the (b) Simon Commission recommended the
executive government of the provinces. abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the
Provinces
2) Introduction of separate communal
electorates for Muslims (c) there was no Indian member in the
Simon Commission
3) Devolution of legislative authority by
the centre to the provinces Select the (d) the Simon Commission suggested the
correct answer using the codes given partition of the country.
below: Explanation : Answer - C
a) 1 only • The Simon Commission was a group of seven
b) 2 and 3 only British Members of Parliament of the United
c) 1 and 3 only Kingdom that came to India in 1928 to study
d) 1, 2 and 3 constitutional reform.
Explanation : Answer - C • The people of India were outraged, as the
Simon Commission, which was to determine
• The Government of India Act, 1919 divided the future of India, did not include a single
the provincial subjects into two parts— Indian member in it.
transferred and reserved. • The people of India agitated against the
»» The transferred subjects were to be arrival of the Simon Commission because
administered by the governor with there was no Indian member in the Simon
the aid of ministers responsible to the Commission.
Legislative Council. • The Government of India Act 1919 made a
»» The reserved subjects, on the other provision for a review committee on its work
hand, were to be administered by the after 10 years.
governor and his executive council
without being responsible to the • However, the conservative government
Legislative Council. This dual scheme was staring at defeat and it felt that this
of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’ constitutional question couldn’t be left in the
which means the double rule. However, hands of an inexperienced labour party.
this experiment was largely unsuccessful. • Thus the Indian statutory commission
The government of India Act 1919 gave popularly known as the Simon Commission
the provinces more legislative powers was appointed in 1927.
provided for the framing of rules for • However, as no Indian was on the committee
the devolution of authority between it was met with boycott unanimously
the Centre and the Provinces. However, throughout India by all parties. The Muslim
judicial review was prohibited. league was split on this but Jinnah carried the
Note: majority with him in favour of the boycott.
• Statement 2 is wrong as it was done in • Recommendations of the Simon
GOI,1909. Commission [1927] : The recommendations
were a continuation of communal
representation, the abolition of diarchy, an
extension of responsible government in
provinces, creation of the Indian Federation
of British India and princely states.

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• The new government of the labour party was of Ministers responsible to the legislative
in power and the PM Ramsey McDonald council.
declared that once the Simon committee • The reserved subjects were to be administered
submits its report a round table would be by the Governor and his executive council
convened to discuss dominion status to India. without being responsible to the legislative
• Following this declaration a conference of council. This dual scheme of governance was
all major leaders met and issued the Delhi known as ‘dyarchy’–a term derived from the
manifesto, it made clear that the purpose of Greek word diarche which means the double
the round table wouldn’t be too discuss when rule.
dominion status would be given but to make • It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism
an implementation plan. and direct elections in the country. The
• Viceroy Irwin told Gandhiji that such Indian legislative council was replaced by a
a promise can’t be made. Hence the bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper
confrontation was necessary. House (Council of State) and a Lower House
(Legislative Assembly).
25. The Government of India Act of 1919
clearly defined  (Year : 2015) • The majority of members of both the Houses
were chosen by direct election. It granted
(a) the separation of power between the franchises to a limited number of people
judiciary and the legislature based on property, tax, or education.
(b) the jurisdiction of the central and • It required that the three of the six members
provincial governments of the Viceroy’s Executive Council (other
(c) the powers of the Secretary of State for than the Commander-in-Chief) were to be
India and the Viceroy Indian.
(d) None of the above • It extended the principle of communal
representation by providing separate
Explanation : Answer - B
electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians,
• The British Government declared for the first Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.
time on August 20, 1917, that its objective • It created a new office of the High
was the gradual introduction of responsible Commissioner for India in London and
Government in India. The Government of transferred to him some of the functions
India Act of 1919 was enacted, which came hitherto performed by the Secretary of State
into force in 1921. for India.
• This Act is also known as Montagu- • It provided for the establishment of a public
Chelmsford Reforms (Montagu was the service commission. Hence, a Central Public
Secretary of State for India and Lord Service Commission was set up in 1926 for
Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India). recruiting civil servants. It separated, for
The features of this Act were as follows: the first time, provincial budgets from the
• It relaxed the central control over the Central budget and authorized the provincial
provinces by demarcating and separating the legislatures to enact their budgets.
central and provincial subjects. The central • It provided for the appointment of a statutory
and provincial legislatures were authorized to commission to inquire into and report on its
make laws on their respective list of subjects. working after ten years of its coming into
• The structure of the government continued force.
to be centralized and unitary.
• It further divided the provincial subjects into
two parts– transferred and reserved.
• The transferred subjects were to be
administered by the Governor with the aid

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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC • The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British
ROWLATT ACT government to increase their grip on power
over the common folk.
26. Which important event immediately
• This law was passed in March 1919 by the
preceded Jallianwala Bagh massacare ?
Imperial Legislative Council which gave
 (Year : 1980)
them the power to arrest any person without
(a) Rowlatt Act enactment any trial.
(b) Communal award • To abolish this act, Gandhi and the other
(c) Coming of Simon Commission leaders called for a Hartal (suspension of
work) to show Indians’ objection to this rule,
(d) Quit India Movement
called the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
Explanation : Answer - A
28. Who was the Viceroy of India when the
• The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919 and Rowlatt Act was passed?  (Year : 2008)
became law in March 1919, the protests
became more aggressive and vocal, (a) Lord Irwin
especially in the Punjab region, where all (b) Lord Reading
communication systems such as Railway and (c) Lord Chelmsford
the Telegraph services were disrupted. (d) Lord Wavell
• The “Rowlatt Act” came up against the Indians
Explanation : Answer - C
and it simply means that without any trials
or proceedings they would be arrest and face • Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy when the
deportation of any person on mere Suspicion Rowlatt Act was passed. It was passed in
of Sedition and Revolt in the region. 1919, despite opposition from Indians.
• Two of the most visible faces of this protest • Lord Chelmsford served as Governor
were Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr Satya Pal General and Viceroy of India from 1916 to
were taken into custody by the Police and 1921. Important events during his tenure
secretly transported away from the area. included Lucknow Pact (1916), Khilafat
• For against these two arrests and dominance Movement, Emergence of Gandhi as national
of the Rowlatt Act, Mahatma Gandhi started leader, passing of Rowlatt Act and Jallianwalla
a Strike against this arrest. Bagh Tragedy (1919), Non-Cooperation
Movement, Third Afghan War and Treaty
• However, as the movement started by Gandhi
of Rawalpindi, August Declaration (1917),
came to be known, the “Rowlatt Satyagraha”
Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (1919).
left the British totally unmoved as they did
not see the peaceful ‘hartal’ as a threat. 29. During the Indian Freedom Struggle,
• Note : Preceded means comes before why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular
something. indignation?  (Year : 2009)
27. Which one of the following aroused a A) It curtailed the freedom of religion
wave of popular indignation that led to B) It suppressed the Indian traditional
the massacare by the British at Jallianwala education
Bagh?  (Year : 2007) C) It authorized the government to
(a) The arms Act imprison people without trial
(b) The Public Safety Act D) It curbed the trade union activities
(c) The Rowlatt Act Explanation : Answer - C
(d) The Vernacular Press Act • Rowlatt Acts, (February 1919), legislation
Explanation : Answer - C passed by the Imperial Legislative Council,
the legislature of British India.

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• The acts allowed certain political cases 31. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha,
to be tried without juries and permitted which of the following statements is/are
internment of suspects without trial. correct?  (Year : 2015)
• Their object was to replace the repressive 1) The Rowlatt Act was based on the
provisions of the wartime Defence of India recommendations of the ‘Sedition
Act (1915) by a permanent law. Committee’.
• They were based on the report of Justice 2) In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried
S.A.T. Rowlatt’s committee of 1918. to utilize the Home Rule League.
• The Rowlatt Acts were much resented by an 3) Demonstrations against the arrival of
aroused Indian public. All nonofficial Indian Simon Commission coincided with
members of the council (i.e., those who were Rowlatt Satyagraha.
not officials in the colonial government)
voted against the acts. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
• Mahatma Gandhi organized a protest
movement that led directly to the Massacre (a) 1 only
of Amritsar (April 1919) and subsequently (b) 1 and 2 only
to his noncooperation movement (1920–22). (c) 2 and 3 only
The acts were never actually implemented. (d) 1, 2 and 3
30. The Rowlatt Act aimed at  Explanation : Answer - B
 (Year : 2012)
a) Compulsory economic support to war • Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms and
efforts Government of India Act, 1919
b) Imprisonment without trial and • In line with the government policy
summary procedures for trial contained in Montagu’s statement of August
1917, the government announced further
c) Suppression of the khilafat movement
constitutional reforms in July 1918, known as
d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom Montagu-Chelmsford or Montford Reforms
of the press based on which the Government of India
Explanation : Answer - B Act, 1919 was enacted.
• The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes • The British government was not prepared to
Act of 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt part with or even share its power with the
Act, was a law that applied in British India. Indians and once again resorted to the policy
of ‘carrot and stick’.
• It was a legislative council act passed by the
Imperial Legislative Council in Delhi on • The carrot was represented by the
18 March 1919, indefinitely extending the insubstantial Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms,
emergency measures of preventive indefinite while measures such as the Rowlatt Act
detention, imprisonment without trial and represented the stick through which it
judicial review enacted in the Defence of decided to arm itself with extraordinary
India Act 1915 during the First World War. powers to suppress any discordant voice
against the reforms.
• It was enacted in the light of a perceived
threat from revolutionary nationalists The Rowlatt Act
of re-engaging in similar conspiracies as • Just six months before the Montford
had occurred during the war which the Reforms were to be put into effect, two bills
Government felt the lapse of the Defence of were introduced in the Imperial Legislative
India Act would enable. Council. One of them was dropped, but the
other, an extension to the Defence of India
Regulations Act 1915 was passed in March
1919.

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• It was what was officially called the Anarchical advance towards self-rule as a reward
and Revolutionary Crimes Act, but popularly for their contribution to the war, they
known as the Rowlatt Act. were given the Montford Reforms with
• It was based on the recommendations made its very limited scope and the shockingly
in the previous year to the Imperial Legislative repressive Rowlatt Act, they felt betrayed
Council by the ‘Sedition Committee’ or the »» More so Gandhi, who had been at the
Rowlatt Commission, headed by the British forefront in offering cooperation in the
judge, Sir Sidney Rowlatt, to investigate the British war effort, and who had even
‘seditious conspiracy’ of the Indian people. offered to encourage recruitment of
• (The committee had recommended that Indians into the British Indian forces
activists should be deported or imprisoned called the Rowlatt Act the “Black Act”
without trial for two years and that even and argued that not everyone should
possession of seditious newspapers would be get punishment in response to isolated
adequate evidence of guilt.) political crimes. Gandhi called for a mass
protest at all Indian level but soon, having
• All the elected Indian members of the seen the constitutional protest meet with
Imperial Legislative Council voted against ruthless repression, Gandhi organised a
the bill but they were in a minority and Satyagraha Sabha and roped in younger
easily overruled by the official nominees. All members of Home Rule Leagues and the
the elected Indian members who included Pan Islamists.
Mohammed Ali Jinnah, Madan Mohan »» The forms of protest finally chosen
Malaviya, and Mazhar Ul Haq resigned in included observance of a nationwide
protest. hartal (strike) accompanied by fasting
• The act allowed political activists to be tried and prayer, and civil disobedience
without juries or even imprisoned without against specific laws, and courting arrest
trial and allowed the arrest of Indians without and imprisonment.
a warrant on the mere suspicion of ‘treason’ »» Gandhi said that salvation would come
where suspects could be tried in secrecy when masses were awakened and became
without recourse to legal help. active in politics.
• A special cell consisting of three high court »» Satyagraha was to be launched on April
judges was to try such suspects and there 6, 1919, but before it could be launched,
was no court of appeal above that panel. there were large-scale violent, anti-
This panel could even accept evidence not British demonstrations in Calcutta,
acceptable under the Indian Evidences Act. Bombay, Delhi, Ahmedabad, etc.
• The law of habeas corpus, the basis of civil »» Especially in Punjab, the situation
liberty, was sought to be suspended. became so very explosive due to wartime
• The object of the government was to replace repression, forcible recruitments, and
the repressive provisions of the wartime ravages of disease, that the Army had to
Defence of India Act (1915) with a permanent be called in.
law. So the wartime restrictions on freedom »» April 1919 saw the biggest and the most
of speech and assembly were re-imposed in violent anti-British upsurge since 1857.
India. The Lieutenant Governor of Punjab,
Sir Michael O’Dwyer, is said to have
• There was strict control over the press
used aircraft strafing against the violent
and the government was armed with a
protestors.
variety of powers to deal with anything the
authorities chose to consider as terrorism or
revolutionary tactics.
• Satyagraha Against the Rowlatt Act or
Rowlatt Satyagraha
»» Just when the Indians expected a huge

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Simon Commission • Key Proposals of the Cabinet Mission Plan:

• The Government of India Act, 1919 had »» Rejected the demand for a sovereign
a provision that a commission would be Pakistan. Grouping of existing assemblies
appointed ten years from the date to study into 3 sections A, B, C. Provincial
the progress of the government scheme and autonomy and residual powers.
suggest new steps. »» Three-tier executive and legislature at
the province, princely states, and union
• An all-white, seven-member Indian Statutory
level. Union government will be in-
Commission, popularly known as the Simon
charge only of defense, foreign affairs,
Commission (after the name of its chairman,
and communications.
Sir John Simon), was set up by the British
government under Stanley Baldwin’s prime 33. Which one of the following leaders of the
ministership on November 8, 1927. Congress was totally in favour of Cabinet
• The commission was to recommend to Mission Plan ?  (Year : 1999)
the British government whether India was (a) Mahatma Gandhi
ready for further constitutional reforms and
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
along what lines. Hence Rowlatt satyagrah
took place in 1919, 8 years before the Simon (c) Sardar Patel
commission. (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Explanation : Answer - C
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC • Sardar Patel was totally in favour of Cabinet
CABINET MISSION Mission Plan.
• Sardar Vallabhai Patel was a lawyer
32. Which one of the following is not correct
and influential political leader in the
about the Cabinet Mission Plan? 
Indian independence movement. After
 (Year : 1996)
independence, he was crucial in the
(a) Provincial grouping integration of over 500 princely states into the
(b) Interim Cabinet of Indians Indian Union. He served as the first Deputy
(c) Acceptance of Pakistan Prime Minister of India.
(d) Constitution framing right • The Cabinet Mission Plan was a statement
made by the Cabinet Mission and the Viceroy,
Explanation : Answer - C Lord Wavell, on May 16, 1946, that contained
• The cabinet mission recommended an proposals regarding the constitutional future
undivided India. of India in the wake of Indian political
parties and representatives not coming to an
• Cabinet Mission Plan:
agreement.
»» The Cabinet Mission plan was announced
in the year 1946 by Attlee, the Prime • The Cabinet Mission’ came to India aimed
minister of England. Cabinet Mission is to discuss the transfer of power from the
composed of three Cabinet Ministers of British government to the Indian leadership,
England. with the aim of preserving India’s unity and
»» Sir Pethick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, granting it independence.
Alexander. 34. With reference to the Cabinet Mission,
»» The main objective of the Cabinet which of the following statements is/are
Mission Plan was to transfer the power correct?  (Year : 2015)
from the British government to the
Indian leadership The cabinet mission 1) It recommended a federal government.
recommended an undivided India and 2) It enlarged the powers of the Indian
rejected the demand of the Muslim courts.
League for a separate Pakistan.

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3) It provided for more Indians in the ICS. Which of these statements are correct ?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) I and III (b) II and IV
given below. (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, and IV
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 Explanation : Answer - B
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None
• Sarojini Naidu was the second woman to be
Explanation : Answer - A the President of the Congress (1925, Kanpur)
• According to cabinet mission plan the first being Annie Besant (1917, Calcutta).
country could have a Federal government A.O.
consisting of the British and the Indian. • Hume was the founder of INC in 1885. Alfred
• The Federation was supposed to look after Webb was the President of the Congress
the national and international problems in 1894 at Madras. C.R. Das acted as the
like the Defence, communication, the President in 1921 in Ahmedabad session.
foreign affairs and the international trade 36. Consider the following  (Year : 2015)
while the provinces were to enjoy complete
autonomy in Provincial subjects like police, 1) The first woman President of the Indian
agriculture, industries, educational and many National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
other local problems. It did not made any 2) The first Muslim President of the Indian
recommendation related to courts or ICS. National Congress was Badruddin
Do You Know...? Tyabji.
Which of the statements given above is/are
UPSC often repeats many questions from correct?
Mains Examination as well
(a) 1 only
• What were the proposals of Cabinet Mission
Plan? Analyse the reactions of the Congress (b) 2 only
and the league to the proposals.  (c) Both 1 and 2
 (35 marks 1989) (d) Neither I nor 2
• What was the Cabinet Mission Plan? How Explanation : Answer - B
was the ‘grouping clause’ fundamental to it?
What was its impact on the attitude of the • First woman President of INC was Annie
Congress and the League ? (30 marks/1991) Besant. Hence option 1 is not correct. First
Muslim male President was Badruddin
Tyabji.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC • Annie Besant :
SAROJINI NAIDU »» She is considered as the founder of the
Theosophical Society in India.
35. Consider the following statements about
»» She was the first woman President of
the Indian National Congress 
Indian National Congress in the Calcutta
 (Year : 2000)
session in 1917.
I) Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to »» In 1898, she was instrumental in setting
be the President of the Congress. up Central Hindu College, which in 1911
II) C.R. Das was in prison when he culminated as Banaras Hindu University
functioned as the President of the with her joint efforts with Madan Mohan
Congress. Malviya.
III) The first Britisher to become the • Badruddin Tyabji :
President of the Congress was Alan »» Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim
Octavian Hume. President of the 3rd session of Indian
National Congress (INC) that was held
IV) Alfred Webb was the President of the
at Madras in 1887. Hence statement 2 is
Congress in 1894.
correct.
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»» He was the first Indian barrister, first • It was formally proposed by
Muslim Chief Justice of Bombay High • Nawab Salimullah Khan and supported by
Court. Hakim Ajmal Khan, Maulana Muhammad
• Sarojini Naidu : Ali Jauhar, Zafar Ali Khan, Syed Nabiullah,
»» Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian a barrister from Lucknow, and Syed Zahur
woman to become President of INC Ahmad, an eminent lawyer, as well as several
in the Kanpur session in 1925. She was others.
awarded by British “Kaiser-i-Hind • Badruddin Tyabji was not associated with the
medal” for her work during the plague Muslim League but he was the first Muslim
epidemic in India. president of INC in 1887 at Madras.
Do You Know...? • Aligarh Muslim University is a public central
UPSC often repeats many questions from university in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh, India,
which was originally established by Sir Syed
Mains Examination as well
Ahmad Khan as the Muhammadan Anglo-
• Why have the following become famous ?  Oriental College in 1875. Muhammadan
 (10 mark / 1998) Anglo-Oriental College became Aligarh
i) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan Muslim University in 1920, following the
ii) Seth Jamnalal Bajaj Aligarh Muslim University Act.
iii) S. Satyamurti
iv) Udham Singh THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
v) Sarojini Naidu PERSONALITES : Dadabhai Nauroji,
37. Which of the following pairs are correctly R C Dutt, etc.
matched ?  (Year : 1998)
38. The most effective contribution made by
Mohammadan Anglo Dadabhai Nauroji to the cause of Indian
I) Theodore Beck Oriental College, National Movement was that he 
Aligarh  (Year : 1990)
II) Ilbert Bill Ripon (a) Brought the problems of Indians to the
Pherozshah Indian National notice of the British.
III)
Mehta Congress (b) Exposed the economic exploitation of
Badruddin India by the British.
IV) Muslim League
Tyabji (c) Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and
Select the correct answer using the codes restored the selfconfidence of Indians.
given below: (d) Stressed the need for eradication of all
(a) I, II, III and IV the social evils before anything else.
(b) II and lV Explanation : Answer - B
(c) I, III and IV • Dadabhai Naoroji exposed the economic
(d) I, II and III exploitation of India by the British in his book
Explanation : Answer - D ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’.
• Swami Dayanand, Swami Vivekanand etc.
• The All-India Muslim League was a political interpreted the ancient Indian texts and
party established in 1906 in the British Indian restored the self-confidence of Indians, not
Empire. Dadabhai Naroji. Hence statement 3 is not
• Its strong advocacy for the establishment correct.
of a separate Muslim-majority nation-state, • In pursuit of their agenda for social reform,
Pakistan, successfully led to the partition of political rights, and economic regeneration,
British India in 1947 by the British Empire. Indian liberals, including Naoroji,

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employed a variety of measures. These 40. Who among the following leaders did not
included educational enterprise, creation believe in the drain theory of Dadabhai
of a reading public sphere, formation of Naoroji ?  (Year : 1996)
political associations, petitions to the
Raj administration, counter-preaching, (a) B.G. Tilak
historicism, turning of the defence witnesses, (b) R.C. Dutt
and both upward & downward hermeneutics. (c) M.G. Ranade
39. Which one of the following statements does (d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
correctly defines the term ‘drain theory’ as Explanation : Answer - D
propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji? 
• Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was loyal to the British
 (Year : 1993)
and he felt that the development of Muslims
(a) That the resources of the country were was only possible under colonial rule. So,
being utilised in the interest of Britain he did not believe in the drain of theory of
(b) That a part of India’s national wealth Dadabhai Naoroji.
or total annual product was being • Further, Sir syed Ahmed Khan felt that the
exported to Britain for which India got Indian National Congress did not work
no material return towards the uplifment of the Indian Muslim
(c) That the British Industrialists were community. One example was when the
being given an opportunity to invest Congress demanded political representation
in India under the protection of the according to the population.
imperial power • This meant that the Hindu majority would
(d) That the British goods were being be in power and Sir Syed felt that the wider
imported to the country making it interests of the Muslims, especially in terms
poorer day by day of education, would be neglected. Thus he
opposed the Indian National Congress.
Explanation : Answer - B
41. The most effective contribution made by
• In 1867, Dadabhai Naoroji put forward the Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian
‘drain of wealth’ theory in which he stated National Movement was that he 
that the Britain was completely draining  (Year : 2012)
India The drain of wealth was the portion
of India’s wealth and economy that was not 1) Exposed the economic exploitation of
available to Indians for consumption. India by the British
• He said that the British were exploiting 2) Interpreted the ancient Indian texts
Indian resources in two ways: stored
»» Home charges and unrequited export. 3) Stressed the need for eradication of all
• Home charges referred to the interest paid the social evils before anything else.
to England by Indians for ‘developing’ India. Which of the statements given above is/
The British who were working in India sent are correct?
their savings to England.
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
• Unrequited exports shook the Indian
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
economy, because a significant amount of
money was taken from India by the British, Explanation : Answer - A
while India received minimum returns. In
• Dadabhai Naoroji exposed the economic
these two ways, wealth was essentially being
exploitation of India by the British in his
drained from the subcontinent, according to
book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’.
Naoroji
Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Swami Dayanand, Swami Vivekanand etc.
interpreted the ancient Indian texts and

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restored the self-confidence of Indians, not • After 1860 as the reality of social development
Dadabhai Naroji. Hence statement 2 is not in India failed to conform to their hopes and
correct. they began to notice that while progress in
• In pursuit of their agenda for social reform, new directions was slow and halting, overall
political rights, and economic regeneration, the country was regressing and under
Indian liberals, including Naoroji, developing.
employed a variety of measures. These • Three names stand out among the large
included educational enterprise, creation number of Indians who initiated and carried
of a reading public sphere, formation of out the economic analysis of British rule
political associations, petitions to the during the years 1870-1905.
Raj administration, counter-preaching, • Dadabhai Naoroji, R C Dutt, G.V. Joshi, G.
historicism, turning of the defence witnesses, Subramaniya Iyer, G.K. Gokhale, Prithwis
and both upward & downward hermeneutics. Chandra Ray, and hundreds of other political
Hence statement 3 is not correct. workers and journalists analyzed every
• Now Note : Even though for social reform aspect of the economy and subjected the
naroji contributed he did not keep it before entire range of economic issues and colonial
anything else, hence statement 3 is an extreme economic policies to minute scrutiny.
statement and hence should be eliminated • They raised basic questions regarding the
• In 1895 he became a member of the royal nature and purpose of British rule.
commission on India expenditure. • They were able to trace the process of the
• In 1893 he helped to form an Indian colonialization of the Indian economy and
Parliamentary Committee to attend to Indian conclude that colonialism was the main
interests. obstacle to India’s economic development.
42. Who of the following was/were economic • Dadabhai Naoroji :
critic/critics of colonialism in India?  »» Dadabhai Naoroji, known in the pre-
 (Year : 2015) Gandhian era as the Grand Old Man of
India.
1) Dadabhai Naoroji »» Born in 1825, he became a successful
2) G. Subramania Iyer businessman but devoted his entire life
3) R. C. Dutt and wealth to the creation of a national
Select the correct answer using the code movement in India. Work: Poverty and
given below. Un-British Rule in India
»» The Drain Theory was established by
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only him.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 • Romesh Chandra Dutt :
Explanation : Answer - D »» a retired ICS officer, published The
Economic History of India at the
• The Indian national movement was deeply beginning of the 20th century in which
rooted in an understanding of the nature and he examined in minute detail the entire
character of colonial economic domination economic record of colonial rule since
and exploitation. 1757.
• Its early leaders, known as Moderates, were • G Subramania Iyer:
the first in the 19th century to develop an »» Founder of ‘The Hindu’ in 1878.
economic critique of colonialism. »» Tamil Newspaper; “Swadesmaitran” in
• They raise awareness via nationalist agitation 1882.
through popular lectures, pamphlets,
newspapers, dramas, songs, and Prabhat
pheries.

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43. The theory of economic drain from India Explanation : Answer - D
to England was propounded by 
• The per capita income in India was Rs. 20 in
 (Year : 1983)
1867-68, was ascertained for the first time by
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji Dadabhai Naoroji.
(b) R. C. Dutt • The average income earned per person in a
(c) B. G. Tilak particular area in a specific year is called as
Per Capita Income. It is found by dividing the
(d) L. K. Jha
total income of an area by its total population.
Explanation : Answer - A
• The drain of wealth was the portion of India’s THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC :
wealth and economy that was not available
Swadeshi Movement
to Indians.In 1867, Dadabhai Naoroji put
forward the ‘drain of wealth’ theory in which 46. Swadeshi movement started during 
he stated that the Britian was completely  (Year : 1979)
draining India.
(a) Anti-Bengal partition movement
• He mentioned this theory in his book Poverty
and Un-British Rule in India. (b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
44. Which one of the following Indian leaders
(d) None of the above
was dismissed by the British from the
Indian Civil Service ?  (Year : 1999) Explanation : Answer - A
(a) Satyendranath Tagore • Swadeshi Movement started in India during
(b) Surendranath Banerji Anti-Bengal Partition agitation. It started
at Calcutta Town Hall, Bengal on 7 August
(c) R. C. Dutt
1905.
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
• Boycott Movement was also launched with it.
Explanation : Answer - B • The Khilafat and non-cooperation movement
• Surendranath Banerji cleared the competitive took place in 1919-22.
examination in 1869, but was barred owing • The Champaran Satyagraha of Gandhi took
to a dispute over his exact age. place in the year 1917. The protest against the
• After clearing the matter in the courts, Rowlatt Act in the year 1919.
Banerjee cleared the exam again in 1871 and 47. Which one of the following was the
was posted as assistant magistrate in Sylhet. most immediate factor for the spread of
• However, Banerjee was dismissed soon Swadeshi and Boycott agitation during the
from his job owing to racial discrimination. first decade of the present century? 
Satyendranath Tagore in 1863 became the  (Year : 1988)
first Indian to qualify the ICS.
(a) Curzon’s attempt to control the
45. That the per capita income in India was Rs. Universities
20 in 1867-68, was ascertained for the first (b) Curzon’s design to curtail the sphere of
time by  (Year : 2000) local self-government
(a) M. G. Ranade (c) Curzon’s partition of Bengal
(b) Sir W. Hunter (d) Curzon’s plan to curb the growing
(c) R. C. Dutta popularity of the Indian National
Congress
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

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Explanation : Answer - C »» Very soon, this movement started
gaining momentum with the help of the
• The immediate cause for the launch of the
entire Bengali middle-class intelligentsia.
Swadeshi Movement was the partition of
»» After the partition of Bengal, the
Bengal done by Lord Curzon.
Swadeshi movement got a big boost,
• Swadeshi Movement : because of the integration of the boycott
»» This was a comprehensive movement movement with the Swadeshi movement.
that lasted 6 years. »» Tilak called this movement “Bahishkar
»» Although this was regarded as a cultural Yoga“ and most of the Bengali
movement celebrating the rich harvest intelligentsia that was initially not in
of history, the rich traditions like folk favor of the boycott movement got
music, paintings, the culture of Bengal integrated with the Swadeshi movement.
were highlighted. »» This was primary learning for the
»» But very soon, it got integrated with the national movement.
political upheavals that followed after »» According to Bal Gangadhar Tilak,
the partition of Bengal. Krishna Kumar and Lala Lajpat Rai, it was training in
Mitra, in his newspaper, ‘Sanjivani’ ‘self-determination’, ‘self-help’, and ‘self-
highlighted the prospects of national reliance’.
education and ‘Economic Swadeshi’.

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48. Moderates and extremists of the Indian Curzon.
National Congress differed mainly on the (b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous
issue of  (Year : 1989) imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya
(a) Swaraj Tilak.
(b) Swadeshi (c) The arrest and deportation of Lala
Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh, and passing
(c) Boycott of the Punjab Colonization Bill.
(d) National education (d) Death sentence pronounced on the
Explanation : Answer - A Chapekar brothers.
• Moderates & Extremists : Explanation : Answer - A
»» Moderates believed in Liberalism and • The immediate cause for the launch of the
Moderate Politics. They believed that the Swadeshi Movement was the partition of
British rulers were merely unaware of Bengal done by Lord Curzon.
the plight of the Indian masses and that
• Swadeshi Movement :
once they were made aware the British
authorities would do their utmost to »» This was a comprehensive movement
improve the lives of the local populace. that lasted 6 years.
»» The Extremist leaders firmly believed »» Although this was regarded as a cultural
that the British had no interest of the movement celebrating the rich harvest
Indian people in mind. It was evident of history, the rich traditions like folk
from the lacklustre response from the music, paintings, the culture of Bengal
authorities during a plague or famine. were highlighted.
»» The moderates found their support base »» But very soon, it got integrated with the
in the Zamindars and the upper-middle- political upheavals that followed after
class The extremists found their support the partition of Bengal. Krishna Kumar
bases among the educated middle-class Mitra, in his newspaper, ‘Sanjivani’
and lower classes Moderates wanted highlighted the prospects of national
greater autonomy and self-rule while education and ‘Economic Swadeshi’.
still under the nominal rule of the British »» Very soon, this movement started
crown Extremists wanted completed gaining momentum with the help of the
independence from British rule entire Bengali middle-class intelligentsia.
»» After the partition of Bengal, the
• Moderates limited their struggle to
Swadeshi movement got a big boost,
constitutional means Extremists often used
because of the integration of the boycott
extra-constitutional methods often during
movement with the Swadeshi movement.
their activities Prayer, Petition, Persuasion,
»» Tilak called this movement “Bahishkar
and Philanthropy. Their demands were
Yoga“ and most of the Bengali
constitutional, and so was their agitation.
intelligentsia that was initially not in
Their methods were regarded as ‘Passive
favor of the boycott movement got
Resistance’.
integrated with the Swadeshi movement.
• Extremists were radical in terms of their »» This was primary learning for the
approach, and believed in militant methods national movement.
including but not limited to the assassination »» According to Bal Gangadhar Tilak,
of key personnel - Dadabai Naoroji, A.O. and Lala Lajpat Rai, it was training in
Hume Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak. ‘self-determination’, ‘self-help’, and ‘self-
49. What was the immediate cause for the reliance’.
launch of the Swadeshi movement?  50. Which one of the following movements
 (Year : 2010) has contributed to a split in the Indian
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord National Congress resulting in the

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emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists?

 (Year : 2015)
(a) Swadeshi Movement
b) Quit India Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement
Explanation : Answer - A
• Swadeshi movement was the result of the
partition of Bengal.
• After the partition of the Bengal Swadeshi
and Boycott Movement was adopted as a
means of integration. It was aimed at self
Reliance, self-determination, and self-help. Shobhit Pandey cleared CSE & IFoS
• Bande Mataram became the theme song of Prelims 2023
this movement.
• Swadeshi movement. along with the Boycott
Movement aimed at boycotting foreign-
made goods and adopting Indian goods as
an alternative. Boycott and public burning
of foreign clothes, picketing of shops selling
foreign goods were adopted.
• The Shivaji and Ganpati festivals were
organized by Tilak to deliver the Swadeshi
message to the masses. The National College
of Bengal was founded with Aurobindo
Ghosh as its principal.
• The national education council was
established in August 1906. It also changed
the character of the Indian National Congress.
• The Congress split into moderates and
extremists at the Surat session which
weakened the Swadeshi Movement.
Do You Know...?
UPSC often repeats many questions from
Mains Examination as well
• How far was the swadeshi movement linked
with the Boycott? Analyse the nature of mass
participation in the movement. 
 (35 marks/1992)
• How did the Swadeshi movement in Bengal
influence the nationalist politics? 
 (10 marks/ 1998)
• Trace the origin of the Swadeshi movement. Saurabh R. Shinde
How did it involve the masses?  cleared CSE Prelims 2023
 (30 marks / 2000).

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SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY (1979-2023)

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC 2. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which

MISSILES :(Agni V, IV, II), Ballistic, Cruise of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Consider the following statements : 1. It is surface-to-surface missile.
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled
at subsonic speeds throughout their 3. It can deliver one tonne nuclear
flights, while cruise missiles are rocket- warhead about 7500 km away.
powered only in the initial phase of Select the correct answer using the codes
flight. given below. (Year-2014)
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic (a) 1 only
cruise missile, while BrahMos is a (b) 2 and 3 only
solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic
missile. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is (d) 1, 2 and 3
fare correct?  (Year-2023) Explanation : A
(a) 1 only Agni-IV
(b) 2 only »» Agni - IV is the fourth in the Agni series
(c) Both 1 and 2 of missiles which was earlier known as
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Agni II prime. Agni-IV bridges the gap
between Agni II and Agni III.
Explanation : D »» CLASS : Intermediate-range ballistic
»» Cruise missiles are jet-propelled at missile (IRBM)
subsonic speeds throughout their flights, »» It is surface to surface missile
while ballistic missiles are rocket- »» WARHEAD : Nuclear or conventional
powered only in the initial (boost) phase »» RANGE : 3,000 – 4,000 km
of flight, after which they follow an arcing »» PROPULSION : Two-stage solid
trajectory to the target. So, statement 1 propellant
is not correct. »» PAYLOAD : 1,000 kg
»» The Agni-V is an Indian intercontinental 3. The range of Agni-II missile is around
ballistic missile (ICBM) with a range of (Year-2001)
over 5,000 km.
»» BrahMos is a universal long-range (a) 500 km 
supersonic cruise missile system that can (b) 2000 km
be launched from land, sea and air. (c) 3500 km
»» BRAHMOS has been jointly developed
(d) 5000 km
by DRDO, India, and NPOM, Russia. So,
statement 2 is not correct. Explanation : B
»» Therefore, option (d) is the correct »» The range of Agni-2 ballistic missile is
answer 1 nor 2 around 2000 km.
4. In the field of space technology, India has

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demonstrated during 1994, her capability 7. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the
to context of (Year-2021)
(Year-1995)
(a) Genes introduced in the genetically
(a) design advance intercontinental modified plants
ballistic missile warning systems (b) Development of India’s own satellite
(b) build satellites navigation system
(c) build stealth missiles (c) Radio collar for wildlife tracking
(d) launch geo-stationary satellites (d) Spread of viral diseases
Explanation : A Explanation : D
»» An intercontinental ballistic missile »» Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2
(ICBM) is a guided ballistic missle with (ACE2) is a protein on the surface of
a minimum range of 5,500 kilometers many cell types.
primarily designed for nuclear weapons »» It is an enzyme that generates small
delivery. proteins – by cutting up the larger
5. Tomahawk, a cruise missile was used in protein angiotensinogen –that then go
(Year-1991) on to regulate functions in the cell.
»» Using the spike-like protein on its
(a) World War II surface, the SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to
(b) Iran-Iraq War ACE2.
(c) Gulf War »» Hence, ACE2 acts as a cellular doorway
that is a receptor for the virus that causes
(d) World War I
COVID-19.
Explanation : C »» The spike protein of SARS-CoV-2 can
»» Tomahawk, a cruise missile was used in adopt at least 10 structural states in order
Gulf war. to cling onto angiotensin-converting
enzyme 2 (ACE2) receptor cells in
humans.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
8. With reference to the Indian Regional
Satellite Navigation System Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS),
6. Which one of the following countries has consider the following statements: (Year-
Its own Satellite System?  (Year-2023) 2018)
(a) Australia 1. IRNSS has three satellites in
(b) Canada geostationary and four satellites in
geosynchronous orbits.
(c) Israel
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about
(d) Japan
5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
Explanation : D 3. India will have its own satellite
»» Japan is the country that has its own navigation system with full global
satellite navigation system. coverage by the middle of 2019.
»» The system is called the Quasi-Zenith Which of the statements given above is/are
Satellite System (QZSS) and it is designed correct?
to augment the existing GPS system,
(a) 1 only
providing more accurate and reliable
positioning and timing information (b) 1 and 2 only
within Japan and surrounding regions. (c) 2 and 3 only
»» Therefore, option (d) is the correct (d) None
answer.

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Explanation : A
• Statement 1 is correct :
»» It is also known as NAVIC.
»» It was developed in India by Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO).
»» It consists of 7 active satellites, 3 satellites
are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO) and 4
satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous
Orbit (GSO).
• Statement 2 is incorrect :
»» It is an independent satellite-based
navigation system to provide positioning,
navigation and timing services for users
over Indian as well as the region extending
up to 1500 km from its boundary, which
is its primary service area.
»» It is expected to provide a position
accuracy of better than 20 m in the
primary service area.
9. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen
in the news in the context of (Year-2017)
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways Salman Khan cleared CSE
Explanation : B Prelims 2023

»» The correct answer is option 2 i.e.

Maintenance of Tiger Reserves.
»» The National Tiger Conservation
Authority (NTCA), has upgraded
monitoring mechanism for the Tigers
in tiger reserves (TRs) of the country
by introducing Monitoring System
for Tiger-Intensive Protection and
Ecological Status, known as M-STrIPES.
»» The android-based monitoring software,
M-STrIPES, will be used across all the
TRs of the country.

Jitin Yadhav cleared CSE

Prelims 2023
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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC »» Using the spike-like protein on its

Viral Diseases and Drugs surface, the SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to
ACE2.
10. Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked »» Hence, ACE2 acts as a cellular doorway
about with reference to which one of the that is a receptor for the virus that causes
following?  (Year-2023) COVID-19.
(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by »» The spike protein of SARS-CoV-2 can
mosquitoes adopt at least 10 structural states in order
to cling onto angiotensin-converting
(b) Converting crop residues into packing
enzyme 2 (ACE2) receptor cells in
materials.
humans.
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics
12. There are more anti-bacterial drugs than
(d) Producing biochar from Thenno
anti-viral drugs because (Year-1989)
Chemiceil conversion of biomass
Explanation : A (a) Bacterial diseases are intra-cellular.
(b) Viral diseases are intra-cellular.
»» The Wolbachia method is simple.
when Aedes aegypti mosquitoes carry (c) Virus are smaller than bacteria.
Wolbachia, the bacteria compete with (d) Drugs can penetrate bacteria more
viruses like dengue, Zika, chikungunya effectively
and yellow fever. Explanation : B
»» This makes it harder for viruses to
reproduce inside the mosquitoes. »» Anti-viral medicines have been
»» And the mosquitoes are much less likely much more difficult to develop than
to spread viruses from person to person. antibacterial drugs because viral diseases
»» This means that when Aedes aegypti are intra-cellular and thus, there are
mosquitoes carry natural Wolbachia plenty of chances that antiviral can
bacteria, the transmission of viruses like damage host cells where the viruses
dengue, Zika, chikungunya and yellow reside.
fever is reduced. 13. The characteristic feature of virus is that
»» Therefore, option (a) is the correct (Year-1989)
answer.
(a) It is made of fats.
11. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the
(b) It multiplies only on dead animals.
context of (Year-2021)
(c) It multiplies only in hosts.
(a) Genes introduced in the genetically (d) It lacks chlorophyll
modified plants
Explanation : C
(b) Development of India’s own satellite
navigation system »» The characteristic feature of Virus that
(c) Radio collar for wildlife tracking makes it stand distinctly compare to
other microorganism is that unlike
(d) Spread of viral diseases
them, it multiplies only in hosts. They are
Explanation : D obligate paresites.
»» Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2
(ACE2) is a protein on the surface of
many cell types.
»» It is an enzyme that generates small
proteins – by cutting up the larger
protein angiotensinogen –that then go
on to regulate functions in the cell.

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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Explanation : D

Drones »» Some of the application of drones:
14. Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which »» Aerial photography for journalism and
one of the following situations?  film
(Year-2023) »» Express shipping and delivery
»» Gathering information or supplying
(a) Collecting DNA samples from air In a essentials for disaster management
habitat at one go »» Thermal sensor drones for search and
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup Of rescue operations
avian spedes of a habitat »» Geographic mapping of inaccessible
(c) Using air-borne devices to collect terrain and locations
blood samples from moving Animals »» Building safety inspections
»» Precision crop monitoring
(d) Sending drones to inaccessible Areas
»» Unmanned cargo transport
to collect plant and anima Samples
»» Law enforcement and border control
from land surfaces and Water bodies
surveillance
Explanation : A »» Storm tracking and forecasting
»» Aerial metagenomics” typically refers hurricanes and tornadoes
to the study of genetic material (such
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
as DNA or RNA) collected from the air,
(GENETICS) DNA, DNA Barcoding, DNA Finger
usually in the form of airborne particles
Printing, Mitochondrial DNA, Recombinant
or aerosols.
DNA Techonology
»» It involves analysing the microbial
communities present in the air and 16. Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which
characterising their genetic diversity. one of the following situations? 
»» Ecologists have thought of this, and it (Year-2023)
certainly works for things like animal
(a) Collecting DNA samples from air In a
droppings.
habitat at one go
»» But these, too, must first be detected and
collected—and they will identify only (b) Understanding the genetic makeup Of
the animal that dropped them. avian spedes of a habitat
»» Therefore, option (a) is the correct (c) Using air-borne devices to collect
answer. blood samples from moving Animals
15. Consider the following activities: (d) Sending drones to inaccessible Areas
(Year-2020) to collect plant and anima Samples
from land surfaces and Water bodies
1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
Explanation : A
2. Inspecting the craters of active
volcanoes »» Aerial metagenomics” typically refers
to the study of genetic material (such
3. Collecting breath samples from
as DNA or RNA) collected from the air,
spouting whales for DNA analysis
usually in the form of airborne particles
At the present level of technology, which or aerosols.
of the above activities can be successfully »» It involves analysing the microbial
carried out by using drones? communities present in the air and
(a) 1 and 2 only characterising their genetic diversity.
(b) 2 and 3 only »» Ecologists have thought of this, and it
certainly works for things like animal
(c) 1 and 3 only
droppings.
(d) 1,2 and 3

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»» But these, too, must first be detected and efficiently recognize known species and
collected—and they will identify only speed the discovery of species yet to be
the animal that dropped them. found in nature.
»» Therefore, option (a) is the correct »» There have been reports of DNA barcodes
answer. used in distinguishing species of tropical
17. Consider the following statements : DNA Lepidoptera (an order of insects that
Barcoding can be a tool to : (Year-2022) includes butterflies and moths which are
similar).
1. assess the age of a plant or animal. »» DNA barcodes effectively distinguish
2. distinguish among species that look among species in three Lepidoptera
alike. families from Area de Conservación
3. identify undesirable animal or plant Guanacaste in northwestern Costa Rica.
materials in processed foods. Hence option 2 is correct.
»» However, DNA barcoding is not known
Which of the statements given above is/are
to be used for the assessment of age of
correct?
living organisms.
(a) 1 only
18. With reference to the recent developments
(b) 3 only in science, which one of the following
(c) 1 and 2 statements is not correct? (Year-2019)
(d) 2 and 3
(a) Functional chromosomes can be
Explanation : D created by joining segments of DNA
»» DNA barcoding is the identification of taken from cells of different species.
a species by the characteristic sequence (b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can
of a standard short section of DNA in its be created in laboratories.
genome. (c) A piece of DNA taken out from an
»» DNA barcoding is done by comparing animal cell can be made to replicate
an individual DNA sequence with a outside a living cell in a laboratory.
reference library of such DNA sections (d) Cells taken out from plasma and
(called sequences). animals can be made to undergo cell
»» The introduction of DNA barcoding division in laboratory petri dishes.
represents a promising approach for food
authentication, being broadly applied in Explanation : A
fish species. • Pieces of artificial functional DNA can
»» DNA barcoding has been successful be created in laboratories: Scientists have
when applied to seafood because the developed techniques to create artificial
number of species is high in comparison DNA molecules that can be used to modify
to other animal sources, such as cattle, existing genetic material or to create entirely
sheep, goat, and horse, enhancing the new organisms with desired traits.
effectiveness of the approach. »» This is done through a process called
»» DNA barcoding techniques were used synthetic biology, which involves the
to explore the composition of roasted design and construction of biological
barley tea (Hordeum vulgare), which systems and devices from synthetic
was exported to a certain country from DNA.
China but then returned, due to the • A piece of DNA taken out from an animal
detection of other undesirable plant cell can be made to replicate outside a living
components present. cell in a laboratory: This is possible through
»» Contaminants were found. Hence option a technique called polymerase chain reaction
3 is correct. (PCR), which allows for the amplification of
»» DNA barcoding will allow users to a specific segment of DNA.

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»» This technique has revolutionized the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
field of genetics and is used in a wide (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
range of applications, from medical
diagnostics to forensic analysis. Explanation : C
• Cells taken out from plants and animals »» Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a
can be made to undergo cell division in molecule that contains the biological
laboratory petri dishes: This is a common instructions that make each species
technique used in cell culture, where cells are unique.
grown in a controlled environment outside »» DNA, along with the instructions it
of their natural habitat. contains, is passed from adult organisms
»» By providing the right nutrients and to their offspring during reproduction.
conditions, cells can be induced to »» DNA sequencing is an important tool for
divide and grow in laboratory settings. determining the thousands of nucleotide
This is used in a variety of applications, variations associated with specific
from pharmaceutical research to tissue genetic diseases. Hence, statement 2 is
engineering. not correct.
»» Individual genetic profiling is already
19. Engineering) allows genes to be transferred being used routinely to prescribe
1. Across different species of plants therapies for patients with HIV, breast
2. From animals to plants cancer, lymphoblastic leukemia and
colon cancer and in the future will be used
3. From microorganisms to higher to tailor treatments for cardiovascular
organisms disease, cancer, asthma, Alzheimer’s
Select the correct answer using the codes disease and depression.
given below. (Year-2013) »» DNA sequencing also underpins
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only pharmacogenomics.
»» This is a relatively new field that is leading
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the way to more personalized medicine.
Explanation : D »» Pharmacogenomics looks at how a
»» Recombinant DNA are DNA sequences person’s individual genome variations
which result from bringing genetic affect their response to a drug.Beyond
material form different sources. medicine, DNA sequencing is now used
»» The genes can be transferred between any for- Genetic testing for paternity and
species that is across differetn species of other family relationships.
plants from animals to plants and from »» It also helps identify crime suspects and
microorganisms to higher organisms. victims involved in catastrophes.
»» The technique is also vital to detecting
20. At present, scientists can determine the bacteria and other organisms that may
arrangement or relative positions of genes pollute the air, water, soil and food.
or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How »» In addition, the method is important to
does this knowledge benefit us? the study of the evolution of different
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of population groups and their migratory
livestock patterns as well as determining pedigree
for seed or livestock. Hence, statement 1
2. It is possible to understand the causes
is correct.
of all human diseases.
»» It is possible to develop disease-resistant
3. It is possible to develop disease resistant animal breeds. Hence, statement 2 is
animal breeds. correct.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/
are correct? (Year-2011)

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Where is DNA found? instructions to make a protein is known
»» In organisms called eukaryotes, DNA as a gene.
is found inside a special area of the cell »» The size of a gene may vary greatly,
called the nucleus. ranging from about 1,000 bases to 1
»» Because the cell is very small, and million bases in humans. Genes only
because organisms have many DNA make up about 1 percent of the DNA
molecules per cell, each DNA molecule sequence.
must be tightly packaged. How are DNA sequences used to make
»» This packaged form of the DNA is called proteins?
a chromosome. »» DNA’s instructions are used to make
»» Besides the DNA located in the nucleus, proteins in a two-step process.
humans and other complex organisms »» First, enzymes read the information in a
also have a small amount of DNA in cell DNA molecule and transcribe it into an
structures known as mitochondria. intermediary molecule called messenger
»» Mitochondria generate the energy the ribonucleic acid, or mRNA.
cell needs to function properly. »» Next, the information contained in the
What is DNA made of? mRNA molecule is translated into the
»» DNA is made of chemical building blocks “language” of amino acids, which are the
called nucleotides. building blocks of proteins.
»» (Asked in UPSC CAPF Exam) These »» This language tells the cell’s protein-
building blocks are made of three parts: a making machinery the precise order in
phosphate group, a sugar group and one which to link the amino acids to produce
of four types of nitrogen bases. a specific protein.
»» To form a strand of DNA, nucleotides are »» This is a major task because there are
linked into chains, with the phosphate 20 types of amino acids, which can be
and sugar groups alternating. placed in many different orders to form
»» The four types of nitrogen bases found a wide variety of proteins.
in nucleotides are adenine (A), thymine 21. Which organelle in the cell, other than
(T), guanine (G) and cytosine (C). nucleus, contains DNA?  (Year-2001)
»» The order, or sequence, of these bases,
determines what biological instructions (a) Centriole
are contained in a strand of DNA. (b) Golgi apparatus
»» For example, the sequence ATCGTT (c) Lysosome
might instruct for blue eyes, while (d) Mitochondrion
ATCGCT might instruct for brown.
»» The complete DNA instruction book, or Explanation : D
genome, for a human, contains about 3 »» Other than nucleus, DNA is also found
billion bases and about 20,000 genes on in mitochondria.
23 pairs of chromosomes. »» Mitochondrial DNA(mtDNA or mDNA)
• What does DNA do? is the DNA located in mitochondria:
»» DNA contains the instructions needed cellular organelles within eukaryotic cells
for an organism to develop, survive and that convert chemical energy from food
reproduce. into a form that cells can use, adenosine
»» To carry out these functions, DNA triphosphate(ATP).
sequences must be converted into
messages that can be used to produce
proteins, which are the complex
molecules that do most of the work in
our bodies.
»» Each DNA sequence that contains
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22. Which of the following features of DNA »» Hence, Assertion and Reason both are
makes it uniquely suited to store and individually true and R is the correct
transmit genetic information from explanation of A.
generation to generation? (Year-2001) 24. Which one of the following techniques
(a) Complementarity of the two stands can be used to establish the paternity of a
(b) Double helix child?  (Year-1997)
(c) Number of base pairs per turn (a) Protein analysis
(d) Sugar-phosphate backbone (b) Chromosome counting
Explanation : A (c) Quantitative analysis of DNA
»» Genetic information is stored within the (d) DNA finger-printing
chemical structure of the molecule DNA. Explanation : D
»» The molecule consists of : Two »» DNA paternity testing is the use of DNA.
backbones, which spiral around each profiling also known as genetic or DNA
other in the well-known double helix fingerprinting to determine whether two
formation. Strings of four chemicals, individuals are biologically parent and
called “bases”, running along the child.
backbone are complimentary to each »» A paternity test establishes genetic
other on opposite sides of the parallel proof whether a man is the biological
axis, father of an individual, and a maternity
23. Assertion (A): DNA Finger printing’ has test establishes whether a woman is the
become a powerful tool to establish paternity biological mother of an individual.
and identity of criminals in rape and assault 25. Mitochondrial DNA in an individual
cases. comes from (Year-1991)
Reason (R): Trace evidences such as hairs, (a) Male parent
saliva and dried semen are adequate for
(b) Female parent
DNA analysis.  (Year-2000)
(c) Both parents
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the
(d) Neither of the parents
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a Explanation : B
correct explanation of A »» In most multicellular organisms,
(c) A is true, but R is false Mitochondrial DNA(mtDNA) is
(d) A is false, but R is true inherited from the mother(maternally
inherited).
Explanation : A »» In sexual reproduction, mitochondria
»» The techniques used in DNA finger are normally inherited exclusively
printing have applications in wide from the mother, the mitochondria in
range of fields such as paleontology, mammalian sperm are usually destroyed
archaeology, various fields of biology, by the cell after fertilization.
criminology and medical diagnostics. »» Also, most mitochondria are present at
»» It has been widely used because in the base of the sperm’s tail, which is used
biological classification, it can help for propelling the sperm cells; sometimes
to show evolutionary change and the tail is lost during fertilization.
relationships at the molecular level, and
it has the advantage of being able to be
used even when only very small samples,
such as tiny pieces of preserved tissue
from extinct animals, are available.
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26. Which one of the following techniques has (d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by
helped to solve many mysteries involving conducting series ~f drug trials in a
murders, robberies and rapes? population ·
(Year-1991) Explanation : A
(a) Gene splicing »» Microsatellite DNA is utilised in genetic
(b) Computer tomography analysis, more specifically in molecular
(c) DNA fingerprinting genetics and genomics.
(d) Gene cloning »» Microsatellites are small DNA sequences
made up of repeating units.
Explanation : C »» They are also known as short tandem
»» DNA fingerprinting, also known as DNA repeats (STRs) or simple sequence
profiling is a popular technique that repeats (SSRs).
helped to solve many mysteries involving »» These repeating units, which are typically
murders, robberies and rapes along with 1-6 base pairs in length, are repeated in
issues relating to the maternity and tandem, and the amount of repetitions
faternity of a child. varies between individuals.
»» The number of repeats at a certain
27. Which one of the following techniques
microsatellite locus might vary greatly
can be used to establish the paternity of a
between people in a population because
child?(Year-1997)
microsatellite DNA is highly variable.
(a) Protein analysis »» Researchers can analyse the genetic
(b) Chromosome counting structure, population dynamics, and
evolutionary relationships among
(c) Quantitative analysis of DNA
various species of animals by analysing
(d) DNA finger-printing microsatellite DNA.
Explanation : D »» Microsatellite markers are very valuable
in population genetics, conservation
»» DNA paternity testing is the use of DNA.
genetics, and phylogenetic research.
profiling also known as genetic or DNA
»» Therefore, option (a) is the correct
fingerprinting to determine whether two
answer.
individuals are biologically parent and
child. 29. In the context of recent advances in human
»» A paternity test establishes genetic reproductive technology, “Pronuclear
proof whether a man is the biological Transfer” is used for (Year-2023)
father of an individual, and a maternity
(a) Fertilization of egg in vitro by the
test establishes whether a woman is the
donor sperm
biological mother of an individual.
(b) Genetic modification of sperm
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC producing cells
GENETICS - Stem cell & Clonal Propogration (c) Development of stem cells into
functional embryos
28. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of (d) Prevention of mitochondrial diseases
which one of the following?  (Year-2023) in offspring
(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships Explanation : D
among various species of fauna »» Pronuclear transfer involves the transfer
(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform of pronuclei from one zygote to another.
into diverse functional tissues »» This technique first requires fertilisation
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of of healthy donated eggs (provided by the
horticultural plants mitochondrial donor) with the intended
male parent sperm.
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»» Simultaneously, the intending mother’s and animals.
affected oocytes are fertilised with the »» It can lead to changes in physical traits,
intending father’s sperm. like eye colour, and disease risk.
»» By using a technique, called ‘Maternal »» The genomic editing system is mostly
Spindle transfer’, the maternal DNA injected into the cytoplasm of zygotes
is put into the egg of a donor woman, or into pre-implantation embryos, after
which is then fertilized using the father’s which genetic screening is used to select
sperm. the embryos with a corrected genomic
»» The procedure was developed to help pattern in the absence of detectable off-
existing In- vitro-Fertilization (IVF) target genetic modifications.
treatments in which mothers have »» For the first-time disease gene-edited out
mitochondrial diseases. of human embryo was published in 2017.
»» Mutations in maternal DNA are a »» Scientists in the US have repaired a
cause of mitochondrial disease, a disease-causing mutation in the DNA
heterogeneous group of diseases that can of early-stage human embryos and said
lead to premature death, sometimes in that taking a step closer to engineering
infancy or childhood. babies free of inherited disorders. Hence
»» Most mitochondrial diseases lack statement 2 is correct.
specific treatments, and women who »» Scientists are developing gene therapies -
carry the causative mutations are at high treatments involving genome editing - to
risk of transmitting the diseases to their prevent and treat diseases in humans.
offspring. »» Human-induced pluripotent stem cells
30. Consider the following statements: They have been hailed as an effective
(Year-2020) replacement for human embryonic stem
cells and a prime candidate cell source
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in for regenerative medicine aims.
the cells that produce eggs or sperms of »» The researchers tried combining human
a prospective parent. induced pluripotent stem cells with pig
2. A person’s genome can be edited before embryos.
birth at the early embryonic stage. »» Many of the embryos were much smaller
3. Human /induced pluripotent stem than normal and seemed to grow more
cells can be injected into the embryo of slowly.
a pig. »» Hence, so far there has not been a success
in growing human organs in pigs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
»» But this experiment shows that human-
correct?
induced pluripotent cells can be injected
(a) 1 only into pigs embryo. Hence statement 3 is
(b) 2 and 3 only correct.
(c) 2 only 31. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently
(d) 1, 2 and 3 in the news, which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct? (Year-2012)
Explanation : D
»» Germline gene therapy Under this 1. Stem cells can be derived from
therapy, required DNA is transferred mammals only.
into the cells that produce reproductive 2. Stem cells can be used for screenings
cells, eggs or sperm, in the body. new drugs.
»» Hence statement 1 is correct. 3. Stem cells can be used for medical
»» Genome Editing It is a method that therapies.
lets scientists change the DNA of many
organisms, including plants, bacteria,

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Select the correct answer using the codes healthy heart muscle cells in the
given below. laboratory and then transplant those cells
(a) 1 only into patients with chronic heart disease.
»» In people who suffer from type 1
(b) 2 and 3 only diabetes, the cells of the pancreas that
(c) 3 only normally produce insulin are destroyed
(d) 1, 2 and 3 by the patient’s own immune system.
Explanation : B »» New studies indicate that it may be
possible to direct the differentiation
»» Stem cells have the remarkable potential of human embryonic stem cells in cell
to develop into many different cell types culture to form insulin-producing
in the body during early life and growth. cells that eventually could be used in
»» They serve as a sort of internal repair transplantation therapy for persons with
system, dividing essentially without limit diabetes.
to replenish other cells as long as the
person or animal is still alive. 32. With reference to the latest developments
»» When a stem cell divides, each new cell in stem cell research, consider the following
has the potential either to remain a stem statements:(Year-2002)
cell or become another type of cell with 1. The only source of human stem cells
a more specialized function, such as a are the embryos at blastocyst stage
muscle cell, a red blood cell, or a brain 2. The stem cells can be derived a without
cell. causing destruction to blastocysts
»» They are unspecialized cells capable
of renewing themselves through cell 3. The stem cells can regenerate
division, sometimes after long periods of themselves in vitro virtually forever
inactivity. 4. Indian research centres also created a
»» Second, under certain physiologic or few cell lines which can be developed
experimental conditions, they can be into many types of tissues.
induced to become tissue- or organ- Which of these statements are correct?
specific cells with special functions. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
»» In some organs, such as the gut and bone
marrow, stem cells regularly divide to (b) 1, 2 and 3
repair and replace worn out or damaged (c) 1, 2 and 4
tissues. (d) 3 and 4
»» In other organs, however, such as the Explanation : D
pancreas and the heart, stem cells only
divide under special conditions. »» Stem cells come from a variety of sources
»» There are many ways in which human including blood, bone marrow, umbilical
stem cells can be used in research and cord blood and adipose tissue.
the clinic. »» The stem cells can not be derived without
»» Studies of human embryonic stem cells causing destruction to blastocysts.
will yield information about the complex 33. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are
events that occur during human mentioned in the context of (Year-2021)
development.
»» Human stem cells are currently being (a) Clonal propagation of crop plants.
used to test new drugs. (b) Developing genetically modified crop
»» New medications are tested for safety plants.
on differentiated cells generated from (c) Production of plant growth substances.
human pluripotent cell lines. (d) Production of biofertilizers.
»» It may become possible to generate

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Explanation : B area and production estimates, drought,
»» Bollgard1 and Bollgard 2 help in and irrigation monitoring, assessment
developing genetically modified crop based on vegetable conditions, flood risk
plants. zone mapping and flood assessment,
»» Bollgard cotton provides in-built Hydro-geomorphologic maps for locating
protection for cotton against destructive underground water resources for drilling
Bollworm infestations, and contains well, Water use planning estimates land
an insecticidal protein from a naturally use and land cover mapping, forest survey,
occurring soil microorganism, Bacillus prospecting coastal studies environment
thuringiensis (Bt). impact analysis, wetland mapping, etc.
»» Bollgard Bt cotton (single-gene Additional Note
technology) is India’s first biotech
Remote Sensing Satellite Launch Year
crop technology approved for
commercialization in India in 2002. Radar imaging satellite 1 2012 2012
(RISAT 1)
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Megha-Tropiques 2011 2011
Indain Remote Sensing Satellites Resource sat 2011 2011
Cartosat 2B 2010 2010
34. In which of the following activities are
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites RISAT 2 2009 2009
used? IMS 1 2008 2008
Cartosat 2A 2008 2008
1) Assessment of crop productivity
Cartosat 2 2007 2007
2) Locating groundwater resources
Cartosat 1 2005 2005
3) Mineral exploration
Resource sat 1 2003 2003
4) Telecommunications
Do You Know...?
5) Traffic studies
Select the correct answer using the code UPSC often repeats many questions from
given below.  (Year : 2015) Mains Examination as well
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only • What is remote sensing? What are its uses
especially in the Indian context? 
(b) 4 and 5 only
 (Year : 1998)
(c) 1 and 2 only
• What is remote sensing? Describe the status
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 of remote sensing in India.  (Year 1993)
Explanation : Answer - A
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
• Indian Remote Sensing satellite Bhaskar 1 Nano Technology
launched in 1979 began the era of remote
35. There is some concern regarding the
sensing in India. Bhaskar 2 was launched in
nanoparticles of some chemical elements
1981.
that are used by the industry in the
• Indian Remote Sensing satellite system came manufacture of various products. Why? 
into existence after the successful launch  (Year : 2014)
of IRS 1A in 1988. Indian Remote Sensing
the largest civilian Remote Sensing satellite 1) They can accumulate in the
constellation in the world. environment, and contaminate water
• It provides imaginary in spatial, spectral, and and soil.
swath resolutions. 2. They can enter the food chains.
• Indian Remote Sensing satellite is used for 3. They can trigger the production of free
various applications like pre-harvest crop radicals.

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Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only

(b) 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation : Answer - D Explanation : Answer - C

• A nanoparticle is defined as a particle of • Nanotechnology is the development and

matter that is between 1 and 100 nanometres the use of techniques to study physical
(nm) in diameter. phenomena and develop new devices and
material structures in the physical size range
• Nanoparticles are formed through the
from 1 to 100 nanometres (nm).
breaking down of larger particles or by
controlled assembly processes. • 1 nanometre is equal to one billionth of a
meter.
• Nanoparticles are used in the manufacture
of scratchproof eyeglasses, crack-resistant • It has an impact on almost all sectors of the
paints, anti-graffiti coatings for walls, economy.
transparent sunscreens, stain- repellent • The research on nanotechnology covers
fabrics, self-cleaning windows, and ceramic many fields like health, food, computing,
coatings for solar cells. textile, energy, transport, space, agriculture,
• Nanoparticles can also be used in stronger, etc.
lighter, cleaner, and “smarter” surfaces Used in Drug Delivery and Gene Therapy:
and systems. The toxicity of nanoparticles
depends on their chemical composition. • Nanosystems have different biological
properties from large-sized systems.
• The properties of particles may change in
unpredictable ways at nanoparticle form. • This biological property could be used
effectively to overcome problems in drug and
• Impact of Nanoparticles:
gene therapy.
»» They can accumulate in the environment,
• In drug therapy, we face the problems of
and contaminate water and soil. They
inefficacy or nonspecific effects; hence,
can enter food chains.
nanosystems are being developed for targeted
»» They can trigger the production of free
drug therapy.
radicals. Nanoparticles may cross cell
membranes. • In gene therapy using non-viral systems,
»» Nanoparticles can reach the blood and the main issues are relatively transient gene
may reach other target sites such as expression and lower efficiency than viral
the liver, heart, or blood cells and may vectors.
cause damage to cells as they stay for a • Research efforts have focused on
persistently long time. understanding the barriers in gene delivery
so that non-viral systems can be developed
36. With reference to the use of nano-
that are as effective as viral systems in gene
technology in health sector, which of the
transfection.
following statements is/are correct? 
 (Year : 2015) Do You Know...?
1) Targeted drug delivery is made possible UPSC often repeats many questions from
by nano-technology. Mains Examination as well
2) Nano-technology can largely • Explain how nano-science and nano-
contribute to gene therapy. technology have revolutionized modern
technology.  (30 marks/2006)

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• What is ‘nanotech’? Give a brief account • Among conventional power sources, batteries
of its basic concepts, materials used and must be replaced while solar panels rely on a
applications.  (10 marks/2009) source of sunlight. On the other hand, plants
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC can survive in the shade, naturally moving
Hydrogen Fuel into position to maximize the potential of
absorbing sunlight.
37. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source
• They can be installed in wastewater treatment
of sustainable energy. Why?  (Year : 2011)
plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.
1) They use living organisms as catalysts Hence, statement 3 is correct.
to generate electricity from certain Value Addition.
substrates.
• At the London Zoo, a fern has started taking
2) They use a variety of inorganic
its own selfies, the Zoological Society of
materials as substrates.
London (ZSL) announced.
3) They can be installed in waste water
• ZSL scientists had laid the groundwork for
treatment plants to cleanse water and
the feat earlier this year, with the ultimate
produce electricity.
aim of using plants to power camera traps
Which of the following statements given and sensors in the wild. This they achieved
above is/ are correct ? by installing microbial fuel cells in Pete, a
(a) 1 only maidenhair fern.
(b) 2 and 3 only 38. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which
(c) 1 and 3 only hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to
(d) 1, 2 and 3 generate electricity, consider the following
statements :  (Year : 2015)
Explanation : Answer - C
1) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the
Microbial fuel cells : fuel cell emits heat and water as by-
• A microbial fuel cell is a device that converts products.
chemical energy to electrical energy by 2) Fuel cells can be used for powering
the action of microorganisms. Hence, buildings and not for small devices like
statement 1 is correct. They are devices that laptop computers.
use bacteria as catalysts to oxidize organic 3) Fuel cells produce electricity in the
and inorganic matter and generate current. form of Alternating Current (AC).
Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Which of the statements given above is/are
• A research paper from the Massachusetts correct?
Institute of Technology earlier this year
(a) 1 only
explained that electrons produced by the
bacteria are transferred to the negative (b) 2 and 3 only
terminal and flow to the positive terminal. (c) 1 and 3 only
• In a statement on the ZSL website, (d) 1, 2 and 3
Conservation Technology Specialist Al Explanation : Answer - A
Davies explained: “Plants naturally deposit
biomatter as they grow, which in turn feeds • If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, fuel cells
the natural bacteria present in the soil, emit only heat and water as byproducts.
creating energy that can be harnessed by Hence statement 1 is correct. Fuel cells could
fuel cells and used to power a wide range of power our cars, with hydrogen replacing
vital conservation tools remotely, including petroleum fuels.
sensors, monitoring platforms and camera • Fuel cells can power almost any portable
traps.” device or machine that uses batteries. Laptop
computers, cellular phones, and hearing
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aids could be powered by portable fuel cells. individual in the population is equally
Hence statement 2 is incorrect. susceptible host for Swine Flu. Hence,
• Hydrogen-powered fuel cells are more statement 1 is correct.
energy-efficient than traditional combustion • There are no specific drugs available for swine
technologies. Fuel cells produce electricity flu in pigs, and treatment is thus supportive.
in the form of direct current (DC). Hence • Antibiotics have no role in the primary
statement 3 is incorrect. treatment of Swine Flu. Four antiviral agents,
zanamivir (Relenza), oseltamivir (Tamiflu),
peramivir (Rapivab), and baloxavir
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC marboxil (Xofluza), have been reported to
Swine Flu help prevent or reduce the effects of swine
39. Consider the following statements:  flu if taken within 48 hours of the onset of
 (Year : 2010) symptoms. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Outbreaks of swine flu in pigs can be
1) Every individual in the population is prevented through vaccination against the
equally susceptible host for Swine Flu. viruses.
2) Antibiotics have no role in the primary • Providing a clean and dry environment and
treatment of Swine Flu. keeping infected pigs separate from healthy
3) To prevent the future spread of Swine pigs are essential approaches to controlling
Flu in the epidemic area, the swine the disease. To prevent the future spread of
(pigs) must all be culled. Swine Flu in the epidemic area killings of
Which of the statement given above is/are pigs are not a good idea. Hence, statement 3
correct? is Not correct.
(a) 1 and 2 only 40. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the
(b) 2 only news with reference to which one of the
(c) 2 and 3 only following diseases?  (Year : 2015)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) AIDS (b) Bird flu
Explanation : Answer - A (c) Dengue (d) Swine flu
• Swine flu, also called Swine influenza, hog Explanation : Answer - D
flu, or pig flu is a respiratory disease of pigs • Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
that is caused by an influenza virus. The first (AIDS) is caused by the human
flu virus isolated from pigs was influenza A immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV is
H1N1 in 1930. transmitted through unsafe sexual acts if the
• Since the 1930s three other subtypes of flu other person is also infected with the virus.
viruses also have been isolated from pigs, • Some of the infectious agents, such as HIV,
including H1N2, H3N1, and H3N2. hepatitis B, and syphilis, can also be passed
• The emergence of H3N2 in pigs occurred on from an infected mother to a newborn
in the late 1990s and is suspected of having baby and can also be transmitted via blood
been transmitted to pigs from humans. transfusions.
• Although swine influenza viruses are similar • HIV infection may also be transmitted
to the influenza viruses that circulate among through contaminated blood products,
humans, swine viruses possess distinct syringes, and needles used for injection, etc.
antigens.
Value Addition
• Symptoms of swine flu in humans are similar
• Zika, dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever
to most influenza infections: fever (100 F
are all mosquito-borne diseases transmitted
or greater), cough, nasal secretions, fatigue,
to humans by the Aedes aegypti mosquito.
and headache. Hence, we can say that every
Influenza A (H1N1) virus emerged in 2009.
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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
• Swine flu is caused by influenza type A H1N1. Modified (GM) crops by GEAC, NOC from
Bird flu is caused by a viral strain H5N1. the State/UT Government is required.
• Bt cotton is the only GM crop which has been
approved for commercial cultivationin
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC India.
Genetic Engineering
• The IndianCouncil of Agricultural Research
41. The Genetic Engineering Approval (ICAR) conducted study during (2012
Committee, whose permission is required -2015) on impact of Bt cotton on 2700 cotton
for cultivation of any genetically modified growing farmers belonging to 18 major
crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under cotton growing districts of Maharashtra
the Union Minister of  (Year : 2003) and it was observed that the average seed
cotton yield increased after the adoption of
(a) Agriculture Bt Cotton. Also, ICAR has done the feeding
(b) Environment and Forests studies of Bt cotton on various animals viz.,
(c) Commerce and Industry broiler chickens, lambs, cows and goat which
(d) Rural Development was found to be safe.
Explanation : Answer - B • This information was given by the Minister
of State for Environment, Forest & Climate
• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Change, Shri Ashwini Kumar Choubey in a
Committee (GEAC) is the statutory written reply in Lok Sabha.
committee constituted under the “Rules for
the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and 42. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Storage of Hazardous Micro Organisms/ Committee is constituted under the 
Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells  (Year : 2015)
(Rules, 1989)” framed under Environment (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(Protection) Act, 1986. Applications are
considered by GEAC as per theprovisions of (b) Geographical Indications of Goods
the Rules, 1989 and amendments thereafter. (Registration and Protection) Act,
Every set of application has specific form 1999
and pre-requisite documents along with (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
recommendations, wherever needed. (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
• Clearance of Genetic Engineering Appraisal Explanation : Answer - C
Committee (GEAC) is mandatory for
the environmental release of Genetically • The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Modified (GM) crops. Committee was constituted under the
Environment Protection Act 1986. The nodal
• As per the ‘’Rules 1989’’, State/UT
ministry is Ministry of Environment and
Biotechnology Coordination Committees
Forest.
and District Level Committees are responsible
for monitoring instances of illegal cultivation • Its main function is to approve activities
of GM crops and taking appropriate action involving large scale use of hazardous and
under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. recombinants in industrial production.
The Chief Secretary of State/UT is the • It is also responsible for the approval of
Chairperson for the StateBiotechnology proposals regarding the release of genetically
Coordination Committee (SBCC). Any engineered organisms and products into
complaints that come to thenotice of GEAC the environment. It conducts experimental
secretariat are sent to the Chief Secretary. field trials before releasing any genetically
• For the consideration of any application engineered organism into the environment.
related to confined field trials of Genetically

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What is a GM crop? • NPT Opened for Sign - 1 July 1968

• A GM crop is a transgenic crop. • Enter into Force - 1970 (March)
• It is a plant that has a novel combination • Signing NPT means - India can’t Pursue
of genetic material obtained through Nuclear Programs.
biotechnology that adds a new quality to the 44. Which of the following republics, besides
parent crop like herbicide-tolerance. Russia, are nuclear powers?  (Year : 1992)
Value Addition
1) Ukraine
• Bt cotton is the only non-food GM crop
2) Georgia
cultivated in India.
3) Belarus
Do You Know...?
4) Kazakhstan
UPSC often repeats many questions from (a) 1, 2 and 4
Mains Examination as well (b) 2, 3 and 4
• What is meant by ‘Genetic Engineering’? (c) 1, 2 and 3
What are the promises and dangers (d) 1, 3 and 4
associated with it ? Do you recommend
that India should go ahead in developing this Explanation : Answer - D
technology?  (20 marks/1981) • Georgia is a non-nuclear weapon state
• What is genetic engineering? Why is party to the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation
important these days?  (40 marks/1998). of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) and the
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
Nuclear Proliferaton Treaty (CTBT), and has an Additional Protocol in
force with the International Atomic Energy
43. India is opposed to the Nuclear Agency (IAEA).
Nonproliferation Treaty (NPT) because 
45. Consider the following countries:
 (Year : 1991)
1) China 2) France
(a) It is discriminatory against the
nonnuclear powers 3) India 4) Israel
(b) It forbids India to use nuclear energy 5) Pakistan
for peaceful purposes Which among the above are Nuclear
(c) It aims at making South Asia a nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the
free zone Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear
Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear
(d) It allows Pakistan to develop its own
Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)? 
nuclear capability
 (Year : 2015)
Explanation : Answer - A
(a) 1 and 2 only
• The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
the Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT, is an
international treaty whose objective is to (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and Explanation : Answer - A
weapons technology, to promote cooperation
• The objective of Non-Proliferation treaty is
in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and
to inhibit the spread of nuclear weapons and
to further the goal of achieving nuclear
weapons technology, to promote cooperation
disarmament and general and complete
in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy,
disarmament.
and to further achieve the goal of nuclear
disarmament.

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• The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of innovations and outstanding traditional
Nuclear Weapons (NPT), entered into force knowledge. Hence, Statement 2 is not
in March 1970. correct.
• Nuclear-weapon states (NWS) consists of the • MISSION: Its mission is to help India become
United States, Russia, China, France, and the a creative and knowledge-based society by
United Kingdom. expanding policy and institutional space for
Do You Know...? grassroots technological innovators.
• OBJECTIVES:
UPSC often repeats many questions from »» NIF scouts, support and spawn’
Mains Examination as well grassroots innovations developed by
• Twenty-five years’ term of Nuclear Non- individuals and local communities
Proliferation Treaty will come to an end in in any technological field, helping in
1995. Some important members want it to be human survival without any help from
renewed, as it is, for another 25 or 50 years. the formal sector.
What are its basic provisions and how will its »» NIF helps grassroots innovators and
renewal adversely affect India’s interests?  outstanding traditional knowledge
 (35 marks/ 1992). holders get due recognition, respect, and
reward for their innovations.
»» It also tries to ensure that such innovations
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPI diffuse widely through commercial and/
National Innovation Foundation (NIF) or non-commercial channels, generating
46. Which of the following statements is/are material or non-material incentives for
correct regarding National Innovation them and others involved in the value
Foundation-India (NIF)?  (Year : 2015) chain.
• INITIATIVES:
1) NIF is an autonomous body of the »» NIF recognizes grassroots innovators
Department of Science and Technology and school students at the national
under the Central Government. level in its various National Biennial
2) NIF is an initiative to strengthen the Grassroots Innovation Award Functions
highly advanced scientific research in and annual Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam Ignite
India’s premier scientific institutions Children Award functions.
in collaboration with highly advanced »» NIF has also set up an augmented
foreign scientific institutions. Fabrication Laboratory (Fab Lab) for
Select the correct answer using the code product development and strengthening
given below. in-house research.
• The INSPIRE Award - MANAK (Million
(a) 1 only
Minds Augmenting National Aspiration and
(b) 2 only Knowledge) is being revamped and executed
(c) Both 1 and 2 by the Department of Science & Technology
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 and National Innovation Foundation-India
to align it with the action plan for the “Start-
Explanation : Answer - A
up India” initiative.
• The National Innovation Foundation - India • Grassroots Innovation Design Studio
(NIF) is an autonomous body set up in March (GRIDS) facilitates formal design inputs to the
2000 with the assistance of the Department grassroots innovations at premier institutes
of Science and Technology under the Central viz NID Ahmedabad, IIT Gandhinagar, NIT
Government at Ahmedabad, Gujarat. Hence, Srinagar, Srishti School of Arts, Design &
Statement 1 is correct. Technology, Bengaluru.
• VISION: It is India’s national initiative to
strengthen the grassroots technological
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• Students’ Club for Augmenting Innovations • The inverted model of innovation implies
(SCAI) is a nationwide student movement, that children invent, engineers & designers
comprising students from India’s best fabricate and companies commercialize.
management and technology institutes that • Innovations’ exhibition at the President
provides product development, mentoring, House and The Festival of Innovation and
and monitoring support to innovators Entrepreneurship (FINE) Since 2010, the
and traditional knowledge holders at the Rashtrapati Bhavan has been hosting an
grassroots. exhibition of innovations near its Mughal
• Micro Venture Innovation Fund (MVIF) is Garden to showcase the creativity and
one of its kind of dedicated risk fund in the ingenuity of common people.
world, set up with the support of SIDBI in • Since 2015, NIF and Rashtrapati Bhavan is
October 2003 and operationalized in January organizing a Festival of Innovation which
2004 that provides financial support to comprises roundtables on various topics
grassroots innovators. in relation to Innovation in addition to the
• Grassroots Technological Innovations Exhibition.
Acquisition Fund (GTIAF) sanctioned in • NIF is in the process of constructing a
2011 and operationalized in 2012 obtains the National Inclusive Innovation Centre for
rights of technologies from innovators after Development (NIICenD) at Amrapur village
compensating them for the same, with the in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
purpose of disseminating and diffusing them • It aims to achieve the global standards of
at low or no cost for the larger benefit of the design and affordable excellence in terms
society. of greenery, accommodation of interest of
• Gandhian Inclusive Innovation Challenge non-human sentient beings, the natural flow
Awards aim towards developing new solutions of water, wind & light, net-zero and renew-
for three challenges: paddy transplanter, ability of the structure so that after even 100
wood stove, and tea leaf- plucking machine. years of existence, most parts of the building
• The Grassroots to Global (G2G) model remain usable.
propagated by NIF has proved that Indian Do You Know...?
innovators can match anyone in the world
when it comes to solving problems creatively UPSC often repeats many questions from
and they perform better than others in Mains Examination as well
generating greater sustainable alternatives by • What do you understand by the term
using local resources frugally. “Innovation”? Discuss the need for launching
• NIF provides in situ incubation of grassroots a national innovation policy in India. 
technologies to the innovator at his/her place.  (250 words/25 marks/2012).
All incubation facilities (financial or technical
support, mentoring, etc.) are extended to the
innovator at his place where he continues to THEMATIC REPETITIVE :
work on his/her ideas or innovations. Nanoparticles
• NIF has established community workshops 47. There is some concern regarding the
in different rural areas of the country at the nanoparticles of some chemical elements
premises of seasoned innovators so that that are used by the industry in the
other grassroots innovators of the region can manufacture of various products. Why? 
have access to fabrication facilities locally.  (Year : 2014)
Also, they could learn from the experiences
of seasoned innovators. This is expected to 1. They can accumulate in the
promote the conversion of an idea into a environment, and contaminate water
prototype faster. and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.

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3. They can trigger the production of free 3. Nanoparticles of some commercial
radicals. products which enter the environment
Select the correct answer using the code are unsafe for humans.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?  (Year : 2022)
(b) 3 only (a) ‘1 only
C) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2
Explanation : Answer - D (d) 2 and 3
Explanation : Answer - D
• A nanoparticle is defined as a particle of
matter that is between 1 and 100 nanometres • A nanoparticle is a small particle that ranges
(nm) in diameter. between 1 to 100 nanometres in size.
• Nanoparticles are formed through the • They could be generated by natural processes
breaking down of larger particles or by or could be made artificially and released
controlled assembly processes. into the environment. Hence, statement 1 is
• Nanoparticles are used in the manufacture not correct.
of scratchproof eyeglasses, crack-resistant • Because of their submicroscopic size, they
paints, anti-graffiti coatings for walls, have unique material characteristics, and
transparent sunscreens, stain- repellent manufactured nanoparticles may find
fabrics, self-cleaning windows, and ceramic practical applications in a variety of areas,
coatings for solar cells. including medicine, engineering, catalysis,
• Nanoparticles can also be used in stronger, and environmental remediation.
lighter, cleaner, and “smarter” surfaces and • There are three major physical properties
systems. of nanoparticles
• The toxicity of nanoparticles depends on 1. They are highly mobile in the free state.
their chemical composition. 2. They have enormous specific surface
• The properties of particles may change in areas.
unpredictable ways at nanoparticle form. 3. They may exhibit quantum effects.
Impact of Nanoparticles: Thus, nanoparticles have a vast range
• They can accumulate in the environment, of compositions, depending on the use
and contaminate water and soil. or the product.
• Among metal and metal oxide nanoparticles
• They can enter food chains.
potentially present in cosmetics, those
• They can trigger the production of free containing titanium dioxide and zinc oxide
radicals. are common ingredients added to obtain
• Nanoparticles may cross cell membranes. sufficient sun protection. The silver and gold
• Nanoparticles can reach the blood and may nanoparticles are also added to increase the
reach other target sites such as the liver, heart, antimicrobial and healing properties of some
or blood cells and may cause damage to cells cosmetic formulations. Hence, statement 2
as they stay for a persistently long time. is correct.
48. Consider the following statements : • Impact of Nanoparticles :
»» They can accumulate in the environment,
1. Other than those made by humans, and contaminate water and soil.
nanoparticles do not exist in nature. »» They can enter food chains.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides »» They can trigger the production of free
are used in the manufacture of some radicals.
cosmetics.
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»» Nanoparticles may cross cell membranes. life.
»» Nanoparticles can reach the blood and • Higgs-Boson particle is named after 2
may reach other target sites such as scientists those are Peter Higgs and Satyendra
the liver, heart, or blood cells and may Nath Bose.
cause damage to cells as they stay for a
persistently long time. Hence, statement 50. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser
3 is correct. Interferometer Space Antenna project?
 (Year : 2017)

THEMATIC REPETITIVE (a) To detect neutrinos

Higgs Boson, Gravitational Waves , e-LISA B) To detect gravitational waves
C) To detect the effectiveness of missile
49. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs defence system
boson particle have become frequent
D) To study the effect of solar flares on our
news in the recent past. What is/are the
communication systems
importance) importances of discovering
this particle?  (Year : 2013) Explanation : Answer - B

1. It will enable us to under- stand as to • The correct answer is To detect gravitational

why elementary particles have mass. waves. evolved Laser Interferometer Space
2. It will enable us in near future to Antenna (eLISA).
develop the technology of transferring • The evolved Laser Interferometer Space
matter from one point to another Antenna (eLISA) is a mission led by the
without traversing the physical space European Space Agency.
between them. • The purpose of eLISA project is to detect
3. It will enable us to create better fuels and accurately measure gravitational waves.
for nuclear fission. Hence option 2 is correct.
Select the correct answer using the codes • LISA would be the first dedicated space-
given below.  based gravitational wave detector.
(a) 1 only • These gravitational waves are emitted by the
supermassive black holes that reside in the
(b) 2 and 3 only
centres of many galaxies.
(c) 1 and 3 only
• In addition, eLISA will measure the signals of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 thousands of compact binary star systems in
Explanation : Answer - A the Milky Way.
• Recently scientists observed the merger of
• The Higgs particle was discovered by British
giant blackholes’ billions of light.
physicist Peter Higgs in the 1960s.
• It is also known as the “God Particle”. 51. Recently scientists observed the merger
• This was proposed to understand as to why of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light
elementary particles have mass. years away from the Earth. What is the
significance of this observation?
Key Points  (Year : 2019)
• Higgs - Boson particle is a part of invisible
(a) Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
energy field i.e. Higgs field in the universe.
B) Gravitational waves’ were detected.
• This is a fundamental particle which provide
mass to other particles existing in the C) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel
universe, resulting in the creation of stars, through wormhole’ confirmed.
planets, etc. d) It enabled the scientists to understand
• When the Higgs field doesn’t provide mass to ‘singularity’
particles then there will be no gravity and no
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Explanation : Answer - B (C) LISA Pathfinder
• Billions of light-years away from the earth, (D) Evolved LISA
two black holes have collided to create a Explanation : Answer - D
larger one.
• The correct answer is Evolved LISA.
• Gravitational waves are created when two
black holes orbit each other and merge. Key Points
• It has a mass more than 80 times that of the • LISA- Laser Interferometer Space Antenna.
Sun. • It is a laser interferometric gravitational
• The resulting energy released in the form wave observatory in space with 3 spacecraft
gravitational waves as the two holes spiralled in heliocentric orbit and million km arm
in towards each other. length.
About Gravitational Waves • eLISA is a mission aiming at exploring the
Gravitational Universe from space for the
• Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in space- first time.
time caused by some of the most violent and
energetic processes in the Universe. • It involves scientists from eight European
countries- Denmark, France, Germany, Italy,
• Albert Einstein predicted the existence of The Netherlands, Spain, Switzerland, and
gravitational waves in 1916 in his general the UK as well as the support of several US-
theory of relativity. based ones.
• Einstein’s mathematics showed that massive • e-LISA mission-
accelerating objects (such as neutron stars
or black holes orbiting each other) would • It consists of a “Mother” and two “Daughter”
disrupt space-time in such a way that ‘waves’ spacecraft.
of undulating space-time would propagate in • The three satellites will form a precision
all directions away from the source. interferometer, with the two Daughter
• These cosmic ripples would travel at the speed spacecraft connected to the Mother one by 1
of light, carrying with them information million km long laser beams.
about their origins, as well as clues to the • This interferometer will be capable of
nature of gravity itself. detecting gravitational waves at frequencies
• The strongest gravitational waves are in the range of 0.1 MHz to 1 Hz.
produced by cataclysmic events such as • Such a frequency interval is not accessible on
colliding black holes, supernovae (massive Earth due to arm length limitations.
stars exploding at the end of their lifetimes), • eLISA is designed with orbits that allow
and colliding neutron stars. the three satellites to maintain their near-
• Other waves are predicted to be caused by the equilateral triangular configuration.
rotation of neutron stars that are not perfect • A passing gravitational wave alters the proper
spheres, and possibly even the remnants of relative distance between the spacecraft,
gravitational radiation created by the Big which will be sensed by detectors on each
Bang. spacecraft.
52. “The experiment will employ a trio of • eLISA will coherently measure the frequency,
spacecraft flying in formation in the shape phase, and polarization of gravitational
of an equilateral triangle that has sides waves passing through it, allowing scientists
one million kilometres long, with lasers to resolve overlapping signals and locating
shining between the craft.” The experiment them on the sky.
in question refers to .... (Year : 2020)
(A) Voyager-2
(B) New Horizons

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

Value Addition Value Addition

• Voyager 2 is the only spacecraft to study all »» CFTRI has recently informed that it is
four of the solar system’s giant planets at working on probiotic food to protect
close range. It also discovered a 14th moon at children that are prone to the third
Jupiter. It was the first human-made object to wave of Covid infection. Know all about
fly past Uranus. probiotic food and how it would help
• NASA’s New Horizons spacecraft is the to save children from the third wave of
first spacecraft to explore Pluto. The New Covid 19.
Horizons mission is currently extended • About CFTRI:
through 2021 to explore additional Kuiper »» The Central Food Technological
Belt objects. Research Institute (CFTRI) is a lab of
• LISA Pathfinder was a mission that CSIR in Mysore.
successfully demonstrated technologies »» It is working to develop food that can
needed to build a future space-based boost immunity and prevent diseases.
gravitational wave observatory for detecting »» It is currently working on developing
ripples in space-time produced by merging probiotic food to help the children who
black holes. The European Space Agency can be affected by the third wave of
plans a follow-up mission- the Laser Covid 19.
Interferometer Space Antenna (LISA), in 54. Consider the following statements in
2034. respect of probiotics:
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria
THEMATIC REPETITIVE and yeast.
Probiotics 2. The organisms in probiotics are found
in foods we ingest but they do not
53. Consider the following statements about
naturally occur in our gut.
probiotic food:  (Year : 2008)
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk
1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria sugars.
which are considered beneficial to Which of the statements given above is/are
humans correct?  (Year : 2022)
2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining
(a) 1 only
gut flora.
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 Only Explanation : Answer - C
(c) Both 1 and 2 Key Points
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Probiotics are live microorganisms that
Explanation : Answer - C are intended to have health benefits when
• Both are correct statements. consumed or applied to the body. They can be
found in yogurt and other fermented foods,
• Probiotics are living bacteria and yeasts
dietary supplements, and beauty products.
that are good for our health, especially our
digestive system. We usually think of Bacteria • Probiotics are live bacteria and yeasts that are
as something that causes diseases. thought to be beneficial in preventing several
health conditions.
• They are usually consumed as supplements
or yoghurts and are also referred to as “good

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bacteria.”.
• Probiotics are beneficial in the following
ways :
»» Stronger immune system
»» Improved digestion
»» Increased energy from the production of
vitamin B12
»» Better breath because probiotics
»» Healthier skin
»» Reduced cold and flu
»» Healing from leaky gut and inflammatory
bowel disease
»» Weight loss
• The different types of friendly bacteria include
Lactobacillus acidophilus, Lactobacillus
bulgarius Lactobacillus reuteri, etc.
• They are available to our body by consuming
probiotics like Kefir, yoghurt, raw cheese, etc.
• Yogurt is a well-known food source of
probiotics. Certain strains of bacteria in
yogurt have ß-D-galactosidase, which is
an enzyme that helps break down lactose
in dairy products into the sugars glucose
and galactose. Thus Probiotics help in the
digestion of milk sugars. Hence, statement 3
is correct.
• Probiotics are foods that are made up of good
live bacteria or yeasts that naturally stay in
the human body.
• The human body is a host to good and bad
bacteria.
• Whenever one gets an infection, there are Bhartendra Deshmukh cleared CSE
more bacteria that are bad. Prelims 2023

• Probiotics are foods that are made up of good

live bacteria or yeasts that naturally stay in the
human body. Probiotics are a combination of
live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• Probiotics live naturally in your body. L.
acidophilus is a probiotic bacteria that
naturally occur in the human gut. The most
common place linked to beneficial microbes
Dinesh LIET & SCOPE BATCH Student
in your gut (mostly large intestines), but Prelims 2023
there are other places like the mouth, urinary
tract, skin, lungs, etc where these probiotics
are found. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II MISCELLANEOUS

MISCELLANEOUS (1979-2023)

THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC community to supply basic human needs,

Wooden Ploughs such as iron ploughs instead of wooden
ploughs.
1. The substitution of steel for wooden
ploughs in agricultural production is an
example of ....... (Year : 2015) THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
World Economic Forum Reports
(a) Labour-augmenting technological
progress 3. Which one of the following issues the
(b) Capital-augmenting technological ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report
progress periodically?  (Year : 2015)
(c) Capital-reducing technological (a) The Asian Development Bank
progress
(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction
(d) None of the above and Development
Explanation : Answer - B (c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
• Capital refers to capital goods such as (d) The World Bank
manufacturing plants, machinery, tools, or Explanation : Answer - D
any equipment that can be used to produce
other goods. • ‘Global Economic Prospects’ is a World Bank
Group flagship report.
• The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs
in agricultural production increases the • It examines global economic developments
productivity thereby encourages steel and prospects, with a special focus on
production. Hence it is capital-augmenting emerging markets and developing economies.
technological progress. It is issued twice a year, in January and June.
• Labour-augmenting is the technology that • The January edition includes in-depth
increases the skills and productivity of the analyses of topical policy challenges. The June
existing labour. edition contains shorter analytical pieces.
• Commodity Markets Outlook is now
2. If instead of wooden ploughs iron ploughs
released as its own report, also contained in
are used it would be an example of ..............
this collection. Important Points
 (Year : 1983)
• World Bank Group is a unique global
(a) Obsolete technology partnership of five institutions working for
(b) Appropriate technology sustainable solutions that reduce poverty
(c) Redundant technology and build shared prosperity in developing
countries.
(d) Ultimate technology
• They are International Bank for
Explanation : Answer - B Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
• Appropriate technology is small-scale provides loans, credits, and grants.
technology. It is simple enough that people International Development Association
can manage it directly and on a local level. (IDA) provides low- or no-interest loans to
low-income countries.
• Appropriate technology makes use of skills
and technology that are available in a local • The International Finance Corporation
(IFC) provides investment, advice, and asset
management to companies and governments.

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• The Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA) • The World Development Report (WDR) is
insures lenders and investors against political an annual report published since 1978 by the
risk such as war. International Bank for Reconstruction and
• The International Centre for the Settlement Development (IBRD) or World Bank.
of Investment Disputes (ICSID) settles • Each WDR provides in-depth analysis of a
investment-disputes between investors and specific aspect of economic development.
countries. Past reports have considered such topics as
agriculture, youth, equity, public services
4. Which of the following organizations
delivery, the role of the state, transition
brings out the publication known as
economies, labour, infrastructure, health, the
‘World Economic Outlook’?  (Year : 2014)
environment, risk management, and poverty.
(a) The International Monetary Fund • The reports are the Bank’s best-known
(b) The United Nations Development contribution to thinking about development.
Programme 6. The theme of the World Development
(c) The World Economic Forum Report, 2001 is  (Year : 2001)
(d) The World Bank
(a) From Plan to Market
Explanation : Answer - A (b) Knowledge for Development
• World Economic Outlook is a report (c) Attacking Poverty
published by the International Monetary (d) The State in the Changing World
Fund twice a year.
Explanation : Answer - C
• The analyses entailing global economic
development in the near and medium term • World Development Report, 2001 :-
are shared in this report. »» This report focuses on the dimensions of
• The international economy is discussed in poverty, and how to create a better world,
length, including the concerns that affect free of poverty.
industrialised nations, emerging nations, »» The analysis explores the nature, and
and economies that are transitioning to the evolution of poverty, and its causes, to
market. present a framework for action.
• It also details topics of pressing current »» The opportunity for expanding poor
interests. The second World Economic people’s assets is addressed, arguing that
Outlook report is released in October 2022 major reductions in human deprivation
and reflected upon the economic growth are indeed possible, that economic
projections going forward. growth, inequality, and poverty
reduction, can be harnessed through
• World Economic Outlook is a survey
economic integration, and technological
conducted and published by the International
change, dependent not only on the
Monetary Fund.
evolvement of markets, but on the
5. “World Development Report” is an annual choices for public action at the global,
publication of ..... (Year : 2002) national, and local levels.
»» Actions to facilitate empowerment
(a) United Nations Development
include state institutional responsiveness
Programme
in building social institutions which will
(b) International Bank of Reconstruction improve well-being, and health, to allow
and Development increased income- earning potential,
(c) World Trade Organisation access to education, and eventual
(d) International Monetary Fund removal of social barriers.
»» Security aspects are enhanced, by
Explanation : Answer - A
assessing risk management towards

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II MISCELLANEOUS
reducing vulnerability to economic
crises, and natural disasters. UN-HABITAT
»» The report expands on the dimensions
• The United Nations Human Settlements
of human deprivation, to include
Programme, UN-HABITAT, is the United
powerlessness and voicelessness,
Nations agency for human settlements.
vulnerability and fear.
»» International dimensions are explored, • It was established in 1978 as an outcome
through global actions to fight poverty, of the first United Nations Conference on
analyzing global trade, capital flows, and Human Settlements and Sustainable Urban
how to reform development assistance Development held in Vancouver, Canada,
to forge change in the livelihoods of the 1976.
poor. • The role assigned to the agency by the UN’s
General Assembly is to promote socially and
7. As per the UN – Habitat’s Global Report
environmentally sustainable towns and cities
on Human Settlement 2009, which one
with the goal of providing adequate shelter
among the following regions has shown
for all.
the fastest growth rate of urbanization in
the last three decades?  (Year : 2010) • UN-Habitat’s Global Report on Human
Settlement:
(a) Asia »» The report is prepared by the United
(b) Europe Nation’s General Assembly.
(c) Latin America and Caribbean »» The Global Report on Human Settlement
(d) North America provides the most authoritative and up-
to-date assessment of conditions and
Explanation : A trends in the world’s cities and other
• UN-Habitat’s Global Report on Human human settlements.
Settlement 2009 - »» The report includes informative graphics,
»» According to the report, urban growth case studies, and extensive statistical data,
will be less rapid in developed regions, in which makes this report an essential tool
Latin America and the Caribbean, and in and reference for researchers, academics,
transitional countries of East Europe, all planners, public authorities, and civil
of which are already highly urbanized, society organizations around the world.
but rapid in Africa and Central, South 8. Which one of the following countries
and East Asia, which are currently less occupies the first place in the “Global
urbanized. Competitive Report” of World Economic
»» China is expected to double its urban Forum ?  (Year : 2000)
population from about 40% of its
national population from 2006 to 2030 (a) USA (b) Singapore
to more than 70% by 2050. (c) Hong Kong (d) France
»» The report points out the fact that Explanation : Answer - A
urbanization in Asia is mainly due to the
high level of mobility of the population • The Global Competitiveness Report 2000 is
from villages to the cities. published by the World Economic Forum.
»» The chart and the table are shown The Report is the result of a collaboration
below will provide the global trends in between the World Economic Forum and the
urbanization. Center for International Development (CID)
at Harvard University.
• Growth Competitiveness Ranking 2000 -
»» United States, Singapore, Luxembourg
Netherland, Ireland, Finland.

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9. According to the World Development • It was founded in July 1961.
Report, low income economies are those • The stated mission of the organization is to
for which the per capita GNP in 1994 was campaign for “a world in which every person
 (Year : 1998) enjoys all of the human rights enshrined
(a) US $ 925 or less in the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights and other international human rights
(b) US $ 825 or less instruments”.
(c) US $ 725 or less • Amnesty International is a global movement
(d) US $ 525 or less of more than 7 million people who take
Explanation : Answer - C injustice personally.
• The organisation was awarded Nobel Peace
• According to World Development Report,
Prize in 1977 for the “defence of human
low income economies are those for which
dignity against torture”.
the per capita GNP in 1994 was US $ 725 or
less. Do You Know...?
Value Addition UPSC often repeats many questions from
• World Development Report 2021 : Data Mains Examination as well
for Better Lives explores the tremendous • Describe the role of Amnesty International
potential of the changing data landscape to in securing human rights. 
improve the lives of poor people, while also  15 Marks/200 Words
acknowledging its potential to open back • Write about : Expanding role of Amnesty
doors that can harm individuals, businesses, International.  15 Marks /200 Words
and societies. It studies the various uses of
data as a public good as well as harnessed
by private players to enhance productivity. It THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
explores the mechanism that could be put in Disarmament
place for ensuring the gainful and sustainable
use of data . 11. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,
Disarmament and Development for 2014
was given to which one of the following? 
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC  (Year : 2015)
Amnesty International
(a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
10. Amnesty International is..... (Year : 2015) (b) Indian Institute of Science
(a) An agency of the United Nations to (c) Indian Space Research Organisation
help refugees of civil war. (d) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
(b) A global Human Rights Movement. Explanation : Answer - C
(c) A non-governmental voluntary • The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,
organization to help very poor people. Disarmament and Development is the
(d) An inter-governmental agency to cater prestigious award accorded annually by India
to medical emergencies in war-ravaged to individuals or organizations in recognition
regions. of creative efforts toward promoting
Explanation : Answer - B international peace, development and a new
international economic order; ensuring that
• Amnesty International is a non- scientific discoveries are used for the larger
governmental organization with its good of humanity, and enlarging the scope of
headquarters in the United Kingdom focused freedom.
on human rights. It was founded by Peter
• ISRO Received the award in 2014.
Benenson.

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• The Indian Space Research Organisation THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC
is the space agency of the Government of International Organisation
India and has its headquarters in the city of
Bangalore It harnesses space technology for 13. India is a member of which among the
national development while pursuing space following?  (Year : 2015)
science research and planetary exploration. 1) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
• The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is 2) Association of South-East Asian nation
India’s premier nuclear research facility,
3) East Asia Summit
headquartered in Trombay, Mumbai,
Maharashtra. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
• The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is
a public, deemed, research university for (a) 1 and 2 only
higher education and research in science, (b) 3 only
engineering, design, and management. (c) 1, 2 and 3
• The institute was established in 1909 with (d) India is a member of none of them
active support from Jamsetji Tata.
Explanation : Answer - B
• Tata Institute of Fundamental Research is a
public deemed research university located in • India is a member of the East Asia Summit.
Mumbai. It is dedicated to basic research in • India is a member of ASEAN+6, not the
mathematics and the sciences. Association of South-East Asian Nations
• TIFR is considered as one of the outstanding (ASEAN). India is also not a member of
research institutes in India. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation(APEC).
12. Match List I with List II and select the • Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation(APEC)
correct answer using the codes given • The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
below the lists: List I (Award / Prize) List (APEC) is an inter-governmental forum for
II (Recipient)  (Year : 2001) 21 member economies in the Pacific Rim.
• It aims to promote free trade throughout the
Indira Gandhi Asia-Pacific region
Archibishop
I) Prize for Peace A)
Desmond Tutu • APEC started in 1989, in response to the
Disarmament
growing interdependence of Asia-Pacific
Jamnalal Bajaj Dr. Gurudev economies and the advent of regional trade
II) B)
Award Khush blocs in other parts of the world. It aimed
International Dr. M.S. to establish new markets for agricultural
III) Gandhi Peace products and raw materials beyond Europe.
C) Swaminathan
Prize • APEC is headquartered in Singapore.
Wolf Prize Nelson
IV) D) • APEC’s 21 member economies are
Mandela Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada;
Explanation : Answer - A Chile; People’s Republic of China; Hong
Kong, China; Indonesia; Japan; Republic
• Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament of Korea; Malaysia; Mexico; New Zealand;
and Development was given to Archibishop Papua New Guinea; Peru; The Philippines;
Desmond Tutu, Jamnalal Bajaj award was The Russian Federation; Singapore; Chinese
given to Dr. M.S. Swaminathan, International Taipei; Thailand; United States of America;
Gandhi Peace Prize was given to Nelson Vietnam
Mandela and World Prize was given to Dr.
• Association of South-East Asian Nations
Gurudev Khush.
(ASEAN)
»» The Association of Southeast Asian
Nations is a regional intergovernmental

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II MISCELLANEOUS
organization comprising ten countries in • Two side agreements to NAFTA aimed
Southeast Asia. to establish high common standards
»» The ASEAN promotes intergovernmental in workplace safety, labor rights, and
cooperation and facilitates economic, environmental protection, to prevent
political, security, military, educational, businesses from relocating to other countries
and socio-cultural integration among its to exploit lower wages or looser regulations.
members and other countries in Asia. • The United States-Mexico-Canada
• The motto of ASEAN is “One Vision, One Agreement (USMCA), which was signed on
Identity, One Community”. East Asia Nov. 30, 2018, and went into full force on
Summit (EAS) July 1, 2020, replaced NAFTA. NAFTA was a
• The East Asia Summit (EAS) established in controversial agreement: By some measures
2005 is a forum of 18 regional leaders for (trade growth and investment), it improved
strategic dialogue and cooperation on the key the U.S. economy; by others (employment,
political, security, and economic challenges balance of trade), it hurt the economy.
facing the Indo-Pacific region. 15. ‘They are fantastically diverse. They speak
• The EAS comprises the ten member states of hundreds of languages and dialects. They
the Association of Southeast Asian Nations comprise scores of ethnic groups. They
(ASEAN) – Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, include highly industrialised economies
Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, and upcoming economies. They span half
Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam – along the surface of the earth and are home to
with 8 members Australia, China, Japan, two-fifths of the world’s population.” The
India, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, group of countries referred to here belongs
Russia and the United States. to  (Year : 1996)
14. The latest regional economic block to be (a) SAPTA (b) APEC
formed is  (Year : 1994)
(c) EC (d) CIS
(a) ASEAN (b) COMECON Explanation : Answer - B
(c) APEC (d) NAFTA
• The group of countries referred here belongs
Explanation : Answer - D to APEC which has 18 member countries.
• The North American Free Trade Agreement They are USA, Australia, Canada, Mexico,
(NAFTA) was implemented to promote trade Japan, China, Hong Kong, Taiwan, South
between the U.S., Canada, and Mexico. Korea, Indonesia, Brunei, Philippines,
Singapore, Malaysia, Thailand, Papua New
• The agreement, which eliminated most tariffs
Guinea, New Zealand and Chile.
on trade between the three countries, went
into effect on Jan. 1, 1994. Numerous tariffs— • This group of countries cover over half of the
particularly those related to agricultural surface of the earth and are home to more
products, textiles, and automobiles—were than two-fifth of the world population.
gradually phased out between Jan. 1, 1994, 16. With reference to the international
and Jan. 1, 2008. meeting held in the year 2006, which of the
Important Points ! following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
 (Year : 2007)
• The North American Free Trade Agreement
(NAFTA) was implemented in 1994 to 1) NAM Summit : Havana
encourage trade between the U.S., Mexico, 2) APEC Meeting : Bangkok
and Canada. NAFTA reduced or eliminated
3) EU-India Summit : Helsinki
tariffs on imports and exports between the
three participating countries, creating a huge 4) UN Climate Change : Geneva
free-trade zone. Conference

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Select the correct answer using the codes (d) Promote trade in agricultural
given below:  commodities between countries of the
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only North and South
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Explanation : Answer - B
Explanation : Answer - B WTO
• NAM :- • The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the
»» NAM has sought to “create an only global international organization dealing
independent path in world politics with the rules of trade between nations. At its
that would not result in member States heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated
becoming pawns in the struggles between and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading
the major powers.” nations and ratified in their parliaments.
»» It identifies the right of independent • The WTO’s goal is to help producers of
judgment, the struggle against goods and services, exporters, and importers
imperialism and neo-colonialism, and conduct their business.
the use of moderation in relations with • One of the most important features is that
all big powers as the three basic elements it is a forum where results come out after
that have influenced its approach. serious negotiations.
• At present, an additional goal is facilitating a • Essentially, the WTO is a place where
restructuring of the international economic governments who are members go, in order
order. to sort out the trade problems they face with
• The Seventh EU-India Summit will be held each other.
on October 13th in Helsinki. The annual • The first step is to talk. The WTO was born
summits take place alternately in New out of negotiations, and everything the WTO
Delhi and in the capital of the incumbent does is the result of negotiations.
European Union presidency - at present held
• The bulk of the WTO’s current work comes
by Finland - under the existing framework of
from the 1986-94 negotiations called the
EU-India relationship, which was given the
Uruguay Round.
shape of a ‘strategic partnership’ at the EU-
India Summit of 2004 in The Hague. The 18. Consider the following countries: 
Joint Action Plan (JAP) adopted at the New  (Year : 2009)
Delhi Summit in 2005 was a comprehensive
1) Brunei Darussalam
programme of EU-India engagement in the
coming years. As the EU-India strategic 2) East Timor
partnership has started to attract interest in 3) Laos
Europe, India and at the international level, it Which of the above is/are member/
would be pertinent to carry out an overview members of ASEAN?
of this strategic partnership on the eve of the
A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 only
summit.
C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3
17. The emerging trading blocs in the world,
such as NAFTA, ASEAN and the like, are Explanation : Answer - C
expected to  (Year : 1996) • The Association of Southeast Asian Nations
is a geo-political and economic organization
(a) Act as constrictions in free trade across
of 10 countries located in Southeast Asia
the world
which was formed on 8 August 1967 by
(b) Promote free trade on the lines laid Indonesia Malaysia the Philippines Singapore
down by the WTO and Thailand. Since then membership has
(c) Permit transfer of technology between expanded to include Brunei Burma Myanmar
member countries Cambodia Laos and Vietnam.

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II MISCELLANEOUS
• Australia sees Southeast Asia at the heart Clause’ appear in the news frequently in
of a peaceful, stable and resilient Indo- the context of the affairs of the World Trade
Pacific. It is of profound significance for Organisation.
our future – strategically, economically, and • World Trade Organisation (WTO)
diplomatically. ASEAN brings together ten • WTO is the only global international
Southeast Asian states – Brunei, Cambodia, organization dealing with the rules of trade
Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, between nations.
the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and
Vietnam – into one organisation. • It was created by Uruguay Round negotiations
(1986-94) with a membership of 164
• ASEAN’s success has helped support regional members representing 98 percent of world
security and prosperity for more than 50 trade. It was established on 1 January 1995
years and it is uniquely placed to address with its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
critical regional issues.
• The WTO’s agreements are often called
Do You Know...? the Final Act of the Uruguay Round of
UPSC often repeats many questions from Multilateral Trade Negotiations, signed in
Mains Examination as well Marrakesh, Morocco on 15 April 1994. The
WTO superseded the GATT as the umbrella
• Why was ASEAN formed? Who are its organization for international trade.
members? What has ASEAN achieved so
• Agreement on Agriculture
far? What stand has it taken in respect of
problems in Afghanistan and Kampuchea? »» It came into force on 1 January 1995.
 (250 words / 25 marks) »» The preamble to the Agreement
recognizes that the agreed long-term
• What is ASEAN PLUS? What is its nature
objective of the reform process initiated
and duty?  (150 Words / 10 marks)
by the Uruguay Round to establish a fair
• What do ASEAN stand for?  (1 marks) and market-oriented agricultural trading
• Write about India and East Asia Summit system.
(EAS).  (20 words / 2 marks). »» The reform program comprises specific
commitments to reduce support and
protection in the areas of domestic
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC support, export subsidies, and market
World Trade Organisation access, and through the establishment
of strengthened and more operationally
19. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, effective GATT rules and disciplines.
‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary »» The Agreement also takes into account
and Phytosanitary Measures’ and Peace non-trade concerns, including food
Clause’ appear in the news frequently in security and the need to protect the
the context of the affairs of the  environment, and provides special and
 (Year : 2015) differential treatment for developing
(a) Food and Agriculture Organization countries, including an improvement in
the opportunities and terms of access
(b) United Nations Framework Conference
for agricultural products of particular
on Climate Change
export interest to these Members.
(c) World Trade Organization
20. Which of the following were the aims
(d) United Nations Environment
behind the setting up of the World Trade
Programme
Organization (WTO)? (Year : 1996)
Explanation : Answer - C
I) Promotion of free trade and resource
• The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, flows across countries.
‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary
II) Protection of intellectual property
and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace
rights.
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III) Managing balanced trade between Singaporean Government was the official
different countries. host of the Ministerial.
IV) Promotion of trade between the former 23. The Ministerial Meeting of the WTO
East Block countries and the western held in December 1999 was unsuccessful
world. because it attempted to link trade with
21. Select the correct answer by using the  (Year : 2010)
codes given below: Codes:
I) Labour related issues
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I and II II) Environment related issues
(c) II and III (d) I and IV III) Terrorism related issues
Explanation : Answer - A IV) Debt related issues
• The WTO’s overriding objective is to help Which of these statements are correct?
trade flow smoothly, freely, fairly, and (a) I, III and IV (b) I and II
predictably. (c) II and III (d) II and IV
• Apart from above, other functions Explanation : Answer - B
performed by WTO are :
»» Administering WTO trade agreements. • The 1999 Seattle WTO protests, sometimes
»» Conducting forum for trade negotiations. referred to as the Battle of Seattle, were a series
»» Handling trade disputes. of protests surrounding the WTO Ministerial
»» Monitoring national trade policies. Conference of 1999, when members of the
»» Providing technical assistance and World Trade Organization (WTO) convened
training for developing countries. at the Washington State Convention and
»» Cooperation with other international Trade Center in Seattle, Washington on
organizations. November 30, 1999. The Conference was to
be the launch of a new millennial round of
22. One of the important agreements reached trade negotiations.
in the 1996 Ministerial Conference of
WTO relates to (Year : 1997) • The negotiations were quickly overshadowed
by massive street protests outside the hotels
(a) Commerce in Information Technology and the Washington State Convention and
(b) Multilateral Agreement on Investment Trade Center. The protests were nicknamed
(c) Multifibre Agreement “N30”, akin to J18 and similar mobilizations,
and were deemed controversial by the
(d) Exchange of Technical Personnel media. The large scale of the demonstrations,
Explanation : Answer - A estimated at no fewer than 40,000 protesters,
dwarfed any previous demonstration in the
• Trade, foreign, finance and agriculture
United States against a world meeting of any
Ministers from more than 120 World Trade
of the organizations generally associated with
Organization Member governments and
economic globalization, such as the WTO,
from those in the process of acceding to
the International Monetary Fund, and the
the WTO participated in a Ministerial
World Bank.
Conference in Singapore from 9 to 13
December 1996. The Conference was the 24. The earlier name of WTO was 
first since the WTO entered into force on 1  (Year : 2001)
January 1995. It included plenary meetings
and various multilateral, plurilateral and (a) UNCTAD (b) GATT
bilateral business sessions. These examined (c) UNIDO (d) OECD
issues related to the work of the WTO’s first Explanation : Answer - B
two years of activity and the implementation
of the Uruguay Round Agreements. The

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WTO • The Codex Alimentarius is a collection of

• It is the successor to the General Agreement international food safety standards that have
on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which was been adopted by the Codex Alimentarius
created in 1947. Hence, Option B is correct. Commission (the “Codex”). The Codex
is based in Rome and funded jointly by
• The Uruguay Round (1986-94) of the GATT
the FAO and the WHO.In the early 1960s,
led to the WTO’s creation. WTO began
the Food and Agriculture Organization
operations on 1st January 1995.
(FAO) of the United Nations and the World
• The Agreement Establishing the WTO, Health Organization (WHO) recognized
commonly known as the “Marrakesh the importance of developing international
Agreement”, was signed in Marrakesh, standards for the purposes of protecting
Morocco in 1994. WTO is an international public health and minimizing disruption
organization dealing with the rules of trade of international food trade. The Joint
between nations. FAO/WHO Food Standards Program was
• The main difference between GATT and established, and the Codex Alimentarius
WTO was that GATT mostly dealt with Commission was designated to administer
trade in goods, the WTO and its agreements the program.
could not only cover goods but also trade in
Do You Know...?
services and other intellectual properties like
trade creations, designs, and inventions. UPSC often repeats many questions from
• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland. Mains Examination as well
• The WTO has 164 members (including • “In the WTO negotiations over the years
European Union) and 23 observer of the DOHA Rounds, India appears to be
governments (like Iran, Iraq, Bhutan, Libya, diluting its stand on agriculture issues to
etc). India is a founder member of the 1947 pursue perceived gains in services”. Critically
GATT and its successor, the WTO. examine this statements. (20 marks/1992)
25. As regards the use of international food
• What do WTO stand for?  (2 marks/ 2002)
safety standards as reference point for
the dispute settlements, which one of the • What is WTO? What are India’s functioning?
following does WTO collaborate with?  (10 marks/2004)
 (Year : 2010)
• Discuss the reasons for the failure of the
(a) Codex Alimentarius Commission.
Seattle Millennium talks on the WTO
(b) International Federation of Standards (World Trade Organisation). Discuss some
Users. implications of this failure for the Indian
(c) International Organization for economy.  (15 marks/2000).
Standardization.
(d) World Standards Cooperation.
Explanation : Answer - A
• The WTO’s SPS Agreement states that “to
harmonize sanitary and phytosanitary
measures on as wide a basis as possible,
Members shall base their sanitary or
phytosanitary measures on international
standards, guidelines or recommendations”.
The Agreement names the joint FAO/WHO
Codex Alimentarius as the relevant standard-
setting organization for food safety.

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THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC Which of the statements given above is /

are correct?
BRICS
(a) 1 only
26. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the
(b) 2 only
news, is related to the affairs of ......
 (Year : 2015) (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) ASEAN (b) BRICS
Explanation : Answer - B
(c) OECD (d) WTO
• BRICS is the acronym coined for an
Explanation : Answer - B
association of five major emerging national
• During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and
(2014) the leaders signed the Agreement South Africa. Originally there were 4 nations
establishing the New Development Bank grouped as “BRIC” (or “the BRICS”).
(NDB). • South Africa became the member in 2010
• Fortaleza Declaration stressed that the NDB and was last to join. Hence Statement 2 is
will strengthen cooperation among BRICS Correct. The BRIC grouping’s first meeting
and will supplement the efforts of multilateral was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia.
and regional financial institutions for global
Value Addition About
development thus contributing to sustainable
BRICS Structure
and balanced growth. Hence, Option 2 is
correct. • BRICS does not exist in form of organization,
• NDB’s key areas of operation are clean but it is an annual summit between
energy, transport infrastructure, irrigation, the supreme leaders of five nations. The
sustainable urban development and Chairmanship of the forum is rotated
economic cooperation among the member annually among the members, in accordance
countries. with the acronym B-R-I-C-S. BRICS
cooperation in the past decade has expanded
• The NDB functions on a consultative
to include an annual programme of over 100
mechanism among the BRICS members with
sectoral meetings.
all the member countries possessing equal
rights. • Salient Features -
»» Together, BRICS accounts for about 40%
Value Addition of the world’s population and about 30%
• NDB is headquartered in Shanghai. of the GDP (Gross Domestic Product),
• At the Fourth BRICS Summit in New making it a critical economic engine.
Delhi (2012) the possibility of setting up a It’s an emerging investment market and
new Development Bank was considered to global power bloc.
mobilize resources for infrastructure and Do You Know...?
sustainable development projects in BRICS
and other emerging economies, as well as in UPSC often repeats many questions from
developing countries. Mains Examination as well
• Compare the significance of IBSA and
27. With reference to a grouping of countries
BRICS in the context of India’s multilateral
known as BRICS, consider the following
diplomacy.  (100 words/10 marks/2012)
statements:  (Year : 2014)
1) The First Summit of BRICS was held in
Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2) South Africa was the last to join the
BRICS grouping.

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channels.
THEMATIC REPETITIVE TOPIC: • Construction of field channels, land shaping,
Command Area Development Programme rotational water supply to ensure equitable
distribution are an integral part of the
28. Consider the following statements:  scheme. It was restructured into Command
 (Year : 2015) Area Development and Water Management
Program 2004.
1) The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits
Programme was launched during Do You Know...?
1996-97 to provide loan assistance to UPSC often repeats many questions from
poor farmers. Mains Examination as well
2) The Command Area Development
• Describe the use of ‘Command Area
Programme was launched in 1974-
Development’ in India. (1997)
75 for the development of water-use
efficiency. • Describe the use of ‘Command Area
Development’ in India.  (2 marks/2000)
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : Answer - B
• The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits
Programme was launched in 1996-97 to give
loan assistance to the states to help them to
develop its major irrigation projects which
are in an advanced stage of completion.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Projects : Major, medium, and extension,
renovation and modernization projects which
were cleared by the Planning Commission
are in an advanced stage of construction.
• Surface minor irrigation schemes states of Suraj LIET & SCOPE BATCH
North East, hilly States, drought-prone areas STUDENT
were also covered under AIBP assistance
since 1999 -2000. The assistance was shared
between the centre and state in the ratio 2:1.
• Command Area Development Programme
• The command area development programme
was launched in 1974-75 to bridge the gap
between irrigation potential actually utilised
major and medium irrigation schemes.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Delivery of irrigation water to the fields is the
ultimate objective of this scheme.
• A command area development authority
was established to maximize productivity Priyanka Kumari cleared CSE
Prelims 2023

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SECTION : WORLD MAPPING

1. Consider the following pairs : (b) Borneo

(c) Java
Region often in Country (d) Sri Lanka
news 6. Consider the following pairs :
1. Chechnya Russian Federation
2. Darfur Mali Regions sometimes Country
3. Swat Valley Iraq mentioned in news
Catalonia Spain
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched? (Year : 2014) Crimea Hungary
Mindanao Philippines
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Oromia Nigeria
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the pairs given, above are cor-
2. Turkey is located between  (Year : 2014)
rectly matched ?  (Year : 2018)
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea (d) 2 and 4 only
3. Which one of the following countries of 7. Consider the following pairs:
South-West Asia does not open out to the
Mediterranean Sea?  (Year : 2014) Sea Bordering
(a) Syria Country
(b) Jordan 1. Adriatic Sea Albania
(c) Lebanon 2. Black Sea Croatia
(d) Israel 3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Morocco
4. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of
Sea
the following countries?  (Year : 2014)
5. Red Sea Syria
1) Jordan
Which of the pairs given above are correct-
2) Iraq
ly matched? (Year : 2019)
3) Lebanon
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
4) Syria
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: (c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 8. Consider the following countries : 
 (Year : 2022)
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only 1) Azerbaijan
5. Which of the following is geographically 2) Kyrgyzstan
closest to Great Nicobar ?  (Year : 2017) 3) Tajikistan
4) Turkmenistan
(a) Sumatra
5) Uzbekistan

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Which of the above have borders with Af-

ghanistan ?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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SECTION : RIVERS & MAPPING

1. Two important rivers - one with its source 4. Consider the following pairs (Year : 2013)
in Jharkhand (and known by a different
name in Odisha), and another with its National Park River flowing
source in Odisha - merge at a place only through the Park
a short distance from the coast of Bay 1. Corbett National
Ganga
of Bengal before flowing into the sea. Park
This is an important site of wildlife and 2. Kaziranga Na-
Manas
biodiversity and a protected area. Which tional Park
one of the following could be this?  3. Silent Valley
Kaveri
 (Year : 2011) National Park
(a) Bhitarkanika Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
(b) Chandipur-on-sea matched?
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea (a) 1 and 2
(d) Simlipal (b) 3 only
2. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong (c) 1 and 3
rivers originate in Tibet and flow through (d) None
narrow and parallel mountain ranges
5. Other than poaching, what are the possible
in their upper reaches Of these rivers,
reasons for the decline in the population
Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its
of Ganges River Dolphins? 
course to flow into India. This “U” turn is
 (Year : 2014)
due to  (Year : 2011)
1. Construction of dams and barrages on
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
rivers
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles
young Himalayas
in rivers
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets
tertiary folded mountain chains
accidentally
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other
3. The Narmada river flows to the west, while agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in
most other large peninsular rivers flow to the vicinity of rivers
the east. Why?  (Year : 2013) Select the correct answer using the code
1. It occupies a linear rift valley. given below.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the (a) 1 and 2 only
Satpuras. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. The land slopes to the west from (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Central India. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

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6. Consider the following pairs : 9. Which of the following is/are tributary
tributaries of Brahmaputra? 
Confluence of
Wetlands 1. Dibang
rivers
2. Kameng
1. Confluence of Beas
Harike Wetlands 3. Lohit
and Satluj/Sutlej
2. Keoladeo Ghana Confluence of Ban- Select the correct answer using the code
National Park as and Chambal given below. (Year : 2016)
3. Confluence of (a) 1 only
Kolleru Lake
Musi and Krishna (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly (c) 1 and 3 only
matched? (Year : 2014) (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only 10. In which of the following regions of India
(b) 2 and 3 only are shale gas resources found?  )
(e) 1 and 3 only 1. Cambay Basin
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Cauvery Basin
7. Consider the following rivers: 3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
Select the correct answer using the code
1. Vamsadhara
given below. (Year : 2016
2. Indravati
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Pranahita
(b) 3 only
4. Pennar
(c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above are tributaries of
Godavari? (Year : 2015) (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) 1, 2 and 3 11. Recently, linking of which of the following

rivers was undertaken?  (Year : 2016)
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra
(d) 2 and 3 only (b) Godavari and Krishna
8. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (c) Mahanadi and Sone
an initiative of six countries, which of (d) Narmada and Tapti
the following is/are not a participant/ 12. Which of the following are the key features
participants?  (Year : 2015) of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority
1. Bangladesh (NGRBA)?  (Year : 2016)
2. Cambodia 1. River basin is the unit of planning and
3. China management.
4. Myanmar 2. It spearheads the river conservation
5. Thailand efforts at the national level.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. One of the Chief Ministers of the
given below: States through which the Ganga flows
becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on
(a) 1 only rotation basis.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 5

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given Below. 16. Consider the following pairs:)
(a) 1 and 2 only
Famous place River
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Pandharpur Chandrabhaga
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Hampi Malaprabha
13. With reference to river Teesta, consider
the following statements: Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?  (Year : 2019
1) The source of river Teesta is the same
(a) 1 and 2 only
as that of Brahmaputra but it flows 2)
through Sikkim. (b) 2 and 3 only
2) River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and (c) 1 and 3 only
it is a tributary of river Teesta. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3) River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal 17. Consider the following pairs
on the border of India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are Naturally
Wildlife
correct? (Year : 2017) found in
(a) 1 and 3 only 1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River
(b) 2 only Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal
2.
River
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. If you want to see gharials in their natural Which of the pairs given correctly
habitat, which one of the following is the matched? (Year : 2019)
best place to visit? (Year : 2017) (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Chambal River (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Pulicat Lake (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Deepor Beel 18. Consider the following pairs 
 (Year : 2019)
15. Which of the following is/are the possible
consequence/s of heavy sand mining in Glacier River
riverbeds ? (Year : 2018)
1. Bandarpunch Yamuna
1) Decreased salinity in the river 2. Bara Shigri Chenab
2) Pollution of groundwater 3. Milam Mandakini
3) Lowering of the water-table 4. Siachen Nubra
Select the correct answer using the code 5. Zemu Manas
given below :
Which of the pairs correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 5

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19. Consider the following pairs: 3) Ravi
4) Sutlej
River Flows into
23. consider the following rivers: 
1. Mekong Andaman Sea
2. Thames Irish Sea 1) Brahmani
3. Volga Caspian Sea 2) Nagavali
4. Zambezi Indian Ocean 3) Subarnarekha
4) Vamsadhara
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?  (Year : 2020) Which of the above rise from the Eastern
Ghats? (Year : 2021)
(a) 1 and 2 only
1) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
2) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
3) 3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4 only
4) 1 and 3
20. Which of the following Protected areas are
located in Cauvery basin? 24. Gandikota canyon of South India was
created by which one of the following
1. Nagarhole National Park. rivers ?  (Year : 2022)
2. Papikonda National Park.
(a) Cauvery
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Manjira
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Pennar
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Tungabhadra
given below: (Year : 2020)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
21. Which one of the following statements is
correct?  (Year : 2021)
1) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of
Waghora river.
2) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of
Chambal river.
3) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the
gorge of Narmada river.
4) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of
Godavari river.
22. With reference to the Indus river system,
of the following four rivers, three of them
pour into one of them which joins the Indus
direct. Among the following, which one is
such river that joins the Indus direct?
1) Chenab (Year : 2021)
Nikhil Murthy Cleared
2) Jhelum CSE Prelims 2023

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SECTION : NATIONAL PARK, TIGER RESERVES, WILDLIFE SANCTURIES,

WETLANDS, LAKES , etc.

1. Which one of the following is not a site for Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
in-situ method of conservation of flora? matched? (Year : 2013
 (Year : 2011) (a) 1 and 2
(a) Biosphere Reserve (b) 3 only
(b) Botanical Garden (c) 1 and 3
(c) National Park (d) None
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary 5. The most important strategy for the
2. In which one among the following conservation of biodiversity together with
categories of protected areas in India are traditional human life is the establishment
local people not allowed to collect and use of  (Year : 2014)
the biomass? (Year : 2012) (a) biosphere reserves
(a) Biosphere Reserves (b) botanical gardens
(b) National Parks (e) national parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar (d) wildlife sanctuaries
Convention 6. Which of the following National
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries Parks is unique in being a swamp with
3. Consider the following pairs: floating vegetation that supports a rich
biodiversity?  (Year : 2015)
Nokrek Bio - sphere Garo Hills (a) Bhitarkanika National Park
1.
Reserve
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake Barail Range
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
Namdapha National Dafla Hills
3. (d) Sultanpur National Park
Park
7. Which one of the following National Parks
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly has a climate that varies from tropical to
matched? (Year : 2013) subtropical, temperate and arctic? 
(a) 1 only  (Year : 2015)
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Khangchendzonga National Park
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Nandadevi National Park
(d) None (c) Neora Valley National Park
4. Consider the following pairs) (d) Namdapha National Park
8. From the ecological point of view, which
National Park River flowing one of the following assumes importance
through the in being a good link between the Eastern
Park Ghats and the Western Ghats?
1. Corbett National  (Year : 2017)
Ganga
Park
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
2. Kaziranga National
Manas (b) Nallamala Forest
Park
3. Silent Valley Nation- (c) Nagarhole National Park
Kaveri
al Park (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

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9. Recently there was a proposal to translocate 13. Which one of the following protected
some of the lions from their natural habitat areas is well known for the conservation
in Gujarat to which one of the following of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer
sites ?  (Year : 2017) (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard
ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
(a) Corbett National Park  (Year : 2020)
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(a) Kanha National Park
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Manas National Park
(d) Sariska National Park
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
10. Which one of the following National Parks (d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
lies completely in the temperate alpine
zone?  (Year : 2019) 14. Which of the following are the most likely
places to find the musk deer in its natural
(a) Manas National Park habitat?  (Year : 2020)
(b) Namdapha National Park
1) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Neora Valley National Park
2) Gangotri national Park
(d) Valley of flowers Nationa Park
3) Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
11. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala 4) Manas national Park
Biosphere Reserve?  (Year : 2019)
Select the correct answer using the given
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney code below
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad (a) 1 and 2 only
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and
(c) 3 and 4 only
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and
Silent Valley National Park (d) 1 and 4 only
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram 15. With reference to India’s Desert National
and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; Park, which of the following statements
and Mukurthi National Park are correct?  (Year : 2020)
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife 1. It is spread over two districts.
Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-
2. There is no human habitation inside
Srisailam Tiger Reserve
the Park.
12. Which of the following Protected areas are 3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great
located in Cauvery basin? Indian Bustard.
1. Nagarhole National Park. Select the correct answer using the code
2. Papikonda National Park. given below:
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (a) 1 and 2 only
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 1 and 3 only
given below: (Year : 2020) (d) 1,2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only 16. Consider the following Protected areas:
(b) 3 and 4 only  (Year : 2012)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Bandipur
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans
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Which of the above are Tiger Reserves?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
17. Consider the following pairs

1. Dampa Tiger Re- Mizoram

serve
2. Gumti Wildlife Sikkim
Sanctuary
3. Saramati Peak Nagaland
Which of the above pairs is /are correctly
matched?  (Year : 2014)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
18. The Term ‘M-STrIPES’ is some times seen
in the news in the context of.... 
 (Year : 2017)
Megha cleared CSE
(a) Captive breeding of wild fauna Prelims 2023
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves.
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System.
(d) Security Of National Highways.
19. Among the following Tiger Reserves,
which one has the largest area under
“Critical Tiger Habitat” ? (Year : 2020)
(a) Corbett
(b) Ranthambore
(c) Nagarjunasagar- Srisailam
(d) Sunderbans
20. In which one of the following States is
Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
 (Year : 2018)
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya Mansi cleared CSE
Prelims 2023
(d) Nagaland

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SECTION : WETLAND

1. With reference to the wetlands of India, 2. It works at the field level to develop
consider the following statements :  and mobilize knowledge, and use the
practical experience to advocate for
1. The country’s total geographical area better policies.
under the category of wetlands is
recorded more in Gujarat as compared Select the correct answer using the code
to other States. given below. (Year : 2014)
2. In India, the total geographical area (a) 1 only
of coastal wetlands larger than that of (b) 2 only
wetlands. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct? (Year : 2012)
4. Consider the following pairs :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Wetlands Confluence
(c) Both 1 and 2 of rivers
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Harike Wetlands Confluence
of Beas and
2. If a wetland of international importance Satluj/Sutlej
is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’,
2. Keoladeo Ghana Confluence
what does it imply?  (Year : 2014)
National Park of Banas and
(a) Changes in ecological character have Chambal
occurred, are occurring or are likely 3. Kolleru Lake Confluence
to occur in the wetland as a result of of Musi and
human interference. Krishna
(b) The country in which the wetland is
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
located should enact a law to prohibit
matched? (Year : 2014)
any human activity within five kilo
metres from the edge of the wetland. (a) 1 only
(c) The survival of the wetland depends (b) 2 and 3 only
on the cultural practices and traditions (e) 1 and 3 only
of certain communities living in its (d) 1, 2 and 3
vicinity and therefore the cultural
diversity therein should not be 5. Consider the following statements: 
destroyed. 1) Under Ramsar Convention, it
(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage is mandatory on the part of the
Site’. Government of India to protect
3. With reference to a conservation and conserve all the wetlands in the
organization called Wetlands territory of India.
International’, which of the following 2) The Wetlands (Conservation and
statements is/are correct? Management) Rules, 2010 were framed
by the Government of India based
1. It is an intergovernmental organization on the recommendations of Ramsar
formed by the countries which are Convention.
signatories to Ramsar Convention.

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3) The Wetlands (Conservation and surface runoff, subsoil percolation and
Management) Rules, 2010 also evaporation.
encompass the drainage area or (b) Algae from the nutrient base upon
catchment regions of the wetlands as which fish, crustaceans, molluscs,
determined by the authority. birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Wetlands play a vital role in
correct? (Year : 2019) maintaining sedimentation balance
(a) 1 and 2 only and soil stabilization.
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals
(c) 3 only and excess nutrients.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
6. ‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool
available for promoting the adoption of
 (Year : 2021)
1) Environmentally responsible
practices in electronics recycling
industry.
2) Ecological management of ‘Wetlands
of International Importance’ under the
Ramsar.
3) Sustainable practices in the cultivation
of agricultural crops in degrade lands.
3) ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in
the exploitation of natural resources.
7. Consider the following pairs :

Wetland Lake Location Finally Dreams Comes True ...

Hokera Wetland Punjab Nikhil Murthy cleared CSE Prelims 2023

Renuka Wetland Himachal Pradesh

Rudrasagar Lake Tripura
Sasthamkotta Lake Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched ? (Year : 2022)
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
8. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the
lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands
function as its kidneys.” Which one of
the following functions of wetlands best
reflects the above statements? 
 (Year : 2022)
(a). The water cycle in wetlands involves Husnain cleared CSE
Prelims 2023

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SECTION : INSTITUTIONS, ORGANISATIONS, DEPARTMENTS, REPORTS

& INDEX etc.

1. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 4. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing

developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the
Development Initiative with UNDP news. Which of the following has declared
support covers which of the following?  that ranking?  (Year : 2016)
1 Deprivation of education, health, assets (a) Organization for Economic
and services at household level Cooperation and Development
2 Purchasing power parity at national (OECD)
level (b) World Economic Forum
3 Extent of budget deficit and GDP (c) World Bank
growth rate at national level (d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Select the correct answer using the codes
5. Which of the following is/are the indicator/
given below : (Year : 2012)
indicators used by IFPRI to compute the
(a) 1 only Global Hunger Index Report? 
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Undernourishment
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Child stunting
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Child mortality
2. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Select the correct answer using the code
Production, the Indices of Eight Core given below. (Year : 2016)
Industries have a combined weight of 37-
90% Which of the following are among (a) 1 only
those Eight Core Industries? (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Cement (c) 1 , 2 and 3
2. Fertilizers (d) 1 and 3 only
3. Natural gas 6. Which of the following gives ‘Global
4. Refinery products Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the
5. Textiles countries of the world?  (Year : 2017)
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) World Economic Forum
given below : (Year : 2012) (b) UN Human Rights Council
(a) 1 and 5 only (c) UN Women
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) World Health Organization
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 7. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 the following ?  (Year : 2018)
3. In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, 1) Amnesty International
which one of the following is given the
2) International Court of Justice
highest weight?  (Year : 2015)
3) The Office of UN Commissioner for
(a) Coal production Human Rights
(b) Electricity generation 4) World Justice Project
(c) Fertilizer production
(d) Steel production

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8. Which one of the following is not a sub- 11. With reference to ‘Global Environment
index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Facility’, which of the following statements
Business Index’?  (Year : 2019) is/are correct?  (Year : 2014)
(a) Maintenance of law and order (a) It serves as financial mechanism for
(b) Paying taxes ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’
(c) Registering property and ‘United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change’.
(d) Dealing with construction permits
(b) It undertakes scientific research on
9. The “Red Data Books” published by the environmental issues at global level.
International Union for Conservation of (c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate
Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) the transfer of technology and funds to
contain lists of - (Year : 2011) underdeveloped countries with specific
1. Endemic plant and animal species aim to protect their environment.
present in the biodiversity hotspots d) Both (a) and (b)
2. Threatened plant and animal species. 12. With reference to a grouping of countries
3. Protected sites for conservation of known as BRICS, consider the following
nature and natural resources in various statements:  (Year : 2014)
countries.
1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in
Select the correct answer using the codes Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
given below:
2. South Africa was the last to join the
(a) 1 and 3 BRICS grouping.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is /
(c) 2 and 3 are correct?
(d) 3 only (a) 1 only
10. With reference to Bombay Natural History (b) 2 only
Society (BNHS), consider the following (c) Both 1 and 2
statements :  (Year : 2014) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is an autonomous organization 13. consider the following statements
under the Ministry of Environment regarding ‘Earth Hour’ :
and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNES-
action-based research, education and CO.
public awareness. 2. It is a movement in which the
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails participants switch off the lights for
and camps for the general public. one hour on a certain day every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. It is a movement to raise the awareness
correct? about the climate change and the need
to save the planet.
(a) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is /
(b) 2 only are correct? (Year : 2014)
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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14. Which of the following organizations 18. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’,
brings out the publication known as ‘World ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary
Economic Outlook’?  (Year : 2014) and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace
Clause’ appear in the news frequently in
(a) The International Monetary Fund the context of the affairs of the...
(b) The United Nations Development  (Year : 2015)
Programme
(c) The World Economic Forum (a) Food and Agriculture Organization
(d) The World Bank (b) United Nations Framework Conference
on Climate Change
15. With reference to the International Union (c) World Trade Organization
for Conservation of Nature and Natural
Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on (d) United Nations Environment
International Trade in Endangered Species Programme
of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of 19. Which of the statements regarding ‘Green
the following statements is/are correct? Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United 1. It is intended to assist the developing
Nations and CITES is an international countries in adaption and mitigation
agreement between governments. practices to counter climate change.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP,
around the world to better manage OECD, Asian Development Bank and
natural environments. World Bank.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States Select the correct answer using the code
that have joined it, but this Convention given below:  (Year : 2015)
does not take the place of national laws. (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only
given below: (Year : 2015)
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
20. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,
(c) 1 and 3 only Disarmament and Development for 2014
(d) 1, 2 and 3 was given to which one of the following? 
16. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the  (Year : 2015)
news, is related to the affairs of  (a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
 (Year : 2015)
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(a) ASEAN (c) Indian Space Research Organization
(b) BRICS (d) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
(c) OECD 21. Amnesty International is  (Year : 2015)
(d) WTO
(a) an agency of the United Nations to
17. Which one of the following issues the help refugees of civil wars
‘Global Economic Prospects’ report
periodically?  (Year : 2015) (b) a global Human Rights Movement
(c) a non-governmental voluntary
(a) The Asian Development Bank organization to help very poor people
(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction (d) an inter-governmental agency to cater
and Development to medical emergencies in war-ravaged
(c) The US Federal Reserve Bank regions
(d) The World Bank
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22. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable involved in scientific forestry research
Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the to develop eco-friendly and climate
 (Year : 2015) adaptation technologies for sustainable
forest management.
(a) Asian Development Bank
3. It assists the countries in their
(b) International Monetary Fund ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions
(c) United Nations Environment from Deforestation and Forest
Programme Degradation+)’ efforts by providing
(d) World Bank them with financial and technical
23. India is a member of which among the assistance.
following?  (Year : 2015) Select the correct answer using the code
given below:  (Year : 2015)
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
(a) 1 only
2. Association of South-East Asian
Nations (b) 2 and 3 only
3. East Asia Summit. (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1, 2 and 3
given below: 26. With reference to an organization known
(a) 1 and 2 only as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the
following statements is/are correct? 
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 1. It is a Global Partnership of
(d) India is a member of none of them Conservation Organizations.
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’
24. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim
originated from this organization.
Association for Regional Cooperation
(IOR-ARC)’, consider the following 3. It identifies the sites known/referred
statements :  (Year : 2015) to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity
Areas’.
1. It was established very recently in Select the correct answer using the code
response to incidents of piracy and given below: (Year : 2015)
accidents of oil spills.
(a) 1 only
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime
security only. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only 27. ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for
(b) 2 only Action’, often seen in the news, is 
 (Year : 2015)
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) a strategy to tackle, the regional ter-
rorism, an outcome of a meeting of the
25. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon
Shanghai Cooperation Organization.
Partnership Facility’, which of the
following statements is/are correct? (b) a plan of action for sustainable
economic growth in the Asia-Pacific
1. It is a global partnership of govern- Region, an outcome of the deliberations
ments, businesses, civil society and in- of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum.
digenous peoples. (c) an agenda for women’s empowerment,
2. It provides financial aid to universities, an outcome of a World Conference
individual scientists and institutions convened by the United Nations.

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(d) a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, 32. What is/are the importance/importances
a declaration of the East Asia Summit. of the ‘United Nations Convention to
28. With reference to the Indian Renewable Combat Desertification’?
Energy Development Agency Limited 1. It aims to promote effective action
(IREDA), which of the following through innovative national
statements is/are correct? programmes and supportive inter-
1. It is a Public Limited Government national partnerships.
Company. 2. It has a special/particular focus on
2. It is a Non-Banking Financial South Asia and North Africa regions,
Company. and its Secretariat facilitates the
allocation of major portion of financial
Select the correct answer using the code resources to these regions.
given below: (Year : 2015)
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach,
(a) 1 only encouraging the participation of local
(b) 2 only people in combating the desertification.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below: (Year : 2016)
29. Which of the following is/are the indicator/ (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
indicators used by IFPRI to compute the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Global Hunger Index Report?  33. With reference to the International
1. Undernourishment Monetary and Financial Cornmittee
2. Child stunting (IMFC), consider the following statements:
3. Child mortality 1. IMFC discusses matters of concern
Select the correct answer using the code affecting the global economy, and
given below. (Year : 2016) advises the International Monetary
Fund (IMF) on the direction of its
(a) 1 only
work.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. The World Bank participates as
(c) 1 , 2 and 3 observer in IMFC’s meetings.
(d) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
30. In the context of which of the following do correct? (Year : 2016)
you sometimes find the terms `amber box, (a) 1 only
blue box and green box’ in the news? 
(b) 2 only
 (Year : 2016)
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) WTO affairs (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) SAARC affairs
34. With reference to ‘Organization for
(c) UNFCCC affairs the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
(d) India-EU negotiations on FTA\ (OPCW)’, consider the following
31. Recently, which one of the following statements :  (Year : 2016)
currencies has been proposed to be added 1. It is an organization of European
to the basket of IMF’s SDR?  Union in working relation with NATO
 (Year : 2016) and WHO.
(a) Rouble (b) Rand 2. It monitors chemical industry to
(c) Indian Rupee (d) Renminbi prevent new weapons from emerging.

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3. It provides assistance and protection (b) 2 only
to States (Parties) against chemical (c) 2 and 3 only
weapons threats. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: 37. With reference to an initiative called ‘The
Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity
(a) 1 only (TEEB)’, which of the following statements
(b) 2 and 3 only is/are correct?  (Year : 2016)
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and World Economic Forum.
35. With reference to ‘stand up india scheme’, 2. It is a global initiative that focuses on
which of the following statement is/are drawing attention to the economic
correct?  (Year : 2016) benefits of biodiversity.
1. Its purpose is to promote 3. It presents an approach that can
entrepreneurship among SC/ST and help decision-makers recognize,
women entrepreneurs. demonstrate and capture the value of
ecosystems and biodiversity.
2. It provides for refinance through
SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 38. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?  (Year : 2016)
36. The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally
Important Agricultural Heritage System Proper design and effective implementation
(GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural of UN-REDD+ Programme can
systems. What is the overall goal of this significantly contribute to....
initiative? (Year : 2016) 1. protection of biodiversity
1. To provide modern technology, 2. resilience of forest ecosystems
training in modern farming methods 3. poverty reduction
and financial support to local Select the correct answer using the code
communities of identified GIAHS so given below.
as to greatly enhance their agricultural
productivity. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly (b) 3 only
traditional farm practices and their (c) 2 and 3 only
associated landscapers, agricultural (d) 1, 2 and 3
biodiversity and knowledge systems of
39. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? 
the local communities.
 (Year : 2016)
3. To provide Geographical Indication
status to all the varieties of agricultural (a) It is an international accounting tool
produce in such identified GIAHS. for government and business leaders
Select the correct answer using the code to understand, quantify and manage
given below. greenhouse gas emissions.
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to
(a) 1 and 3 only
offer financial incentives to developing
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44. ‘European Stability Mechanism’,
countries to reduce greenhouse gas
sometimes seen in the news, is an 
emissions and to adopt eco-friendly
 (Year : 2016)
technologies.
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement (a) agency created by EU to deal with the
ratified by all the member countries impact of millions of refugees arriving
of the United Nations to reduce from Middle East.
greenhouse gas emissions to specified (b) agency of EU that provides financial
levels by the year 2022. assistance to eurozone countries.
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ (c) agency of EU to deal with all the
initiatives hosted by the World Bank. bilateral and multilateral agreements
40. Which of the following is not a member of on trade.
`Gulf Cooperation Council’? (Year : 2016) (d) agency of EU to deal with the conflicts
arising among the member countries.
(a) Iran
45. With reference to the Agreement at the
(b) Saudi Arabia
UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which
(c) Oman of the following statements is/are correct?
(d) Kuwait
1. The Agreement was signed by all the
41. ‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is member countries of the UN and it will
prepared by the  (Year : 2016) go into effect in 2017.
(a) European Central Bank 2. The Agreement aims to limit the
(b) International Monetary Fund greenhouse gas emissions so that the
rise in average global temperature by
(c) International Bank for Reconstruction
the end of this century does not exceed
and Development
2 °C or even 1.5 °C above pre-industrial
(d) Organization for Economic levels.
Cooperation and Development
3. Developed countries acknowledged
42. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive their historical responsibility in global
Economic Partnership’ often appears in warming and committed to donate $
the news in the context of the affairs of a 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help
group of countries known as developing countries to cope with
 (Year : 2016) climate change.
(a) G20 (b) ASEAN Select the correct answer using the code
(c) SCO (d) SAARC given below. (Year : 2016)

43. Consider the following statements:  (a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only
1. The International Solar Alliance was (c) 2 and 3 only
launched at the United Nations Climate
Change Conference in 2015. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Alliance includes all the member 46. Consider the following statements in
countries of the United Nations. respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna
Which of the statements given above is/are and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): 
correct? (Year : 2016) 1) TRAFFIC is a bureau under United
(a) 1 only Nations Environment Programme
(b) 2 only (UNEP).
(c) Both 1 and 2 2) The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure
that trade in wild plants and animals
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is not a threat to the conservation of
nature.
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Which of the above statements is/are 50. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial
correct? (Year : 2017) Conference on Housing and Urban
(a) 1 only Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the
following statements:
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 1) The first APMCHUD was held in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging
Urban Forms — Policy Responses and
47. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ Governance Structure’.
seen in the news refers to  2) India hosts all the Annual Ministerial
 (Year : 2017) Conferences in partnership with ADB,
(a) ASEAN APEC and ASEAN.
(b) BRICS Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) EU correct? (Year : 2017)
(d) G20 (a) 1 only
48. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1) The Nuclear Security Summits are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
periodically held under the aegis of the
United Nations. 51. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change
2) The International Panel on Fissile Alliance’, which of the following statements
Materials is an organ of International is/are correct?  (Year : 2017)
Atomic Energy Agency. 1) It is an initiative of the European
Which of the statements given above is/are Union.
correct? (Year : 2017) 2) It provides technical and financial
(a) 1 only support to targeted developing
(b) 2 only countries to integrate climate change
into their development policies and
(c) Both 1 and 2
budgets.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3) It is coordinated by World Resources
49. Consider the following statements:  Institute (WRI) and World Business
Council for Sustainable Development
1) The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian
(WBCSD).
Standards (BIS) is mandatory for
automotive tyres and tubes. Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
2) AGMARK is a quality Certification
Mark issued by the Food and (a) 1 and 2 only
Agriculture Organisation (FAO). (b) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 2 and 3 only
correct? (Year : 2017) (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only 52. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
(b) 2 only  (Year : 2017)
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 infrastructure in Asia and financed by
credit from the Asian Development
Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration that
facilitates the preparation and

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structuring of complex infrastructure (c) Both 1 and 2
Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to (d) Neither 1 nor 2
enable mobilization of private sector
and institutional investor capital. 55. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment
Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in
(c) Collaboration among the major banks the news in the context of negotiations
of the world working with the OECD held between India and ..... 
and focused on expanding the set  (Year : 2017)
of infrastructure projects that have
the potential to mobilize private (a) European Union
investment. (b) Gulf Cooperation Council
(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks (c) Organization for Economic
to finance and facilitate infrastructure Cooperation and Development
development in the world (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
53. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat 56. Consider the following statements: 
in the United Nations programme working
towards a better urban future, which of the 1) India has ratified the Trade Facilitation
statements is/are correct?  Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2) TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial
1) UN-Habitat has been mandated by the
Package of 2013.
United Nations General Assembly to
promote socially and environmentally 3) TFA came into force in January 2016.
sustainable towns and cities to provide Which of the statements given above is/are
adequate shelter for all. correct? (Year : 2017)
2) Its partners are either governments or (a) 1 and 2 only
local urban authorities only. (b) 1 and 3 only
3) UN-Habitat contributes to the overall (c) 2 and 3 only
objective of the United Nations system
(d) 1, 2 and 3
to reduce poverty and to promote
access to safe drinking water and basic 57. India enacted The Geographical
sanitation. Indications of Goods (Registration and
Select the correct answer using the code Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply
given below: (Year : 2017) with the obligations to  (Year : 2018)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 1) ILO
(b) 1 and 3 only 2) IMF
(c) 2 and 3 only 3) UNCTAD
(d) 1 only 4) WTO
54. Consider the following statements:  58. International Labour Organization’s
Conventions 138 and 182 are related to 
1) Climate and Clean Air Coalition  (Year : 2018)
(CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate
Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 1) Child labour
group of countries. 2) Adaptation of agriculture practices to
2) The CCAC focuses on methane, black global climate change
carbon and hydrofluorocarbons. 3) Regulation of food prices and food
Which of the statements given above is/are security
correct? (Year : 2017) 4) Gender parity at the workplace
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
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59. In the Indian context, what is the 62. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral
implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Now” is an initiative launched by 
Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic  (Year : 2018)
Energy Agency (IAEA)’?  (Year : 2018)
(a) The Intergovernmental panel on
(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come Climate Change
under IAEA safeguards. (b) The UNEP Secretariat
(b) The military nuclear installations come (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
under the inspection of IAEA (d) The World Meteorological
(c) The country will have the privilege Organization
to buy uranium from the Nuclear
Suppliers Group (NSG). 63. The Global Competitiveness Report is
published by the  (Year : 2019)
(d) The country automatically becomes a
member of the NSG. (a) International Monetary Fund
60. Consider the following countries :  (b) United Nations Conference on Trade
 (Year : 2018) and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
1. Australia
(d) World Bank
2. Canada
3. China 64. Consider the following statements: 
4. India 1) The United Nations Convention against
5. Japan Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol
6. USA against the Smuggling of Migrants by
Land, Sea and Air’.
Which of the above are among the ‘free-
trade partners’ of ASEAN ? 2) The UNCAC is the ever-first legally
binding global anti-corruption
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 instrument.
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 3) A highlight of the United Nations
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 Convention against Transnational
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the
inclusion of a specific chapter aimed
61. The Partnership for Action on Green at returning assets to their rightful
Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanim to owners from whom they had been
assist countries transition towards greener taken illicitly.
and more inclusive economies, emerged at
 (Year : 2016) 4) The United Nations Office on Drugs
and Crime (UNODC) is mandated
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable by its member States to assist in the
Development 2002, Johannesburg implementation of both UNCAC and
(b) The United Nations Conference on UNTOC.
Sustainable Development 2012, Rio Which of the statements given above are
de Janeiro correct? (Year : 2019)
(c) The United Nations Framework (a) 1 and 3 only
Convention on Climate Change 2015, (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Paris
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) The World Sustainable Development
Summit 2016, New Delhi (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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65. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Which of the statements given above are
Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the correct? (Year : 2021)
following statements: 1) 1 and 2 only
1) AIIB has more than 80 member 2) 2 and 3 only
nations. 3) 1 and 3 only
2) India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 4) 1, 2 and 3
3) AIIB does not have any members from 69. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported
outside Asia. by UNEP, has been developed for 
Which of the statements given above is/are  (Year : 2021)
correct? (Year : 2019)
1) Assessing the carbon footprint of
(a) 1 only building operations around the world
(b) 2 and 3 only 2) Enabling commercial farming entities
(c) 1 and 3 only around the world to enter carbon
(d) 1, 2 and 3 emission trading
66. Gold tranche(Reserve tranche) refers to 3) Enabling governments to assess the
 (Year : 2020) overall carbon footprint caused by
their countries
(a) A loan system of World bank 4) Assessing the overall carbon footprint
(b) One of the operations of a central bank caused by the use of fossil fuels by the
(c) A credit system of WTO granted to its world in a unit time
members 70. Consider the following statements: 
(d) A credit system granted by IMF to its
members 1. 21st February is declared to be
International Mother Language Day by
67. In which one of the following groups are UNICEF.
all the four countries members of G20 ? 
 (Year : 2020) 2. The demand that Bangla has to be one
of the national languages was raised in
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.
Turkey Which of the above statements is/are
(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New correct? (Year : 2021)
Zealand a) 1 only
(c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam b) 2 only
(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South c) Both 1 and 2
Korea
d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. With reference to ‘Water Credit’, consider
the following statements : 71. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and
“Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the
1) It puts microfinance tools to work in provisions of lending by which one of the
the water and sanitation sector. following?  (Year : 2022)
2) It is a global initiative launched (a) Asian Development Bank
under the aegis of the World Health
Organization and the World Bank. (b) International Monetary Fund
3) It aims to enable the poor people (c) United Nations Environment
to meet their water needs without Programme Finance Initiative
depending on subsidies. (d) World Bank

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72. With reference to the “G20 Common Which of the statements given above are
Framework”, consider the following correct? (Year : 2022)
statements: (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
1) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
together with the Paris Club. (c) 2, 3 and 5 only
2) It is an initiative to support Low Income (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Countries with unsustainable debt.
75. In the context of In WHO Air Quality
Which of the statements given above is/are Guidelines, consider the following
correct? (Year : 2022) statements:
(a) 1 only
1) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should
(b) 2 only not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean
(c) Both 1 and 2 of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2) In a year, the highest levels of ozone
73. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors pollution occur during the periods of
the emission reduction pledges of different inclement weather.
countries is a :  (Year : 2022) 3) PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier
and enter the bloodstream.
(a) Database created by coalition of
research organisations 4) Excessive ozone in the air can trigger
asthma.
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate
Change” Which of the statements given above are
correct? (Year : 2022)
(c) Committee under “United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate (a) 1, 3 and 4
Change” (b) 1 and 4 only
(d) Agency promoted and financed (c) 2, 3 and 4
by United Nations Environment (d) 1 and 2 only
Programme and World Bank
76. Consider the following:  (Year : 2022)
74. Consider the following statements : 
1) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
1) “The Climate Group” is an international 2) Missile Technology Control Regime
non-profit organization that drives
climate action by building large 3) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
networks and runs them. India is a member of which of the above ?
2) The International Energy Agency in (a) 1 and 2 only
partnership with the Climate Group (b) 3 only
launched a global initiative “EP100”. (c) 2 and 3 only
3) EP100 brings together leading (d) 1, 2 and 3
companies committed to driving
innovation in energy efficiency and 77. With reference to the United Nations
increasing competitiveness while General Assembly, consider the following
delivering on emmission reduction statements:  (Year : 2022)
goals. 1) The UN General Assembly can grant
4) Some Indian companies are members observer status to the non-member
of EP100. States.
5) The International Energy Agency is the 2) Inter-governmental organisations can
Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. seek observer status in the UN General
Assembly.

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3) Permanent Observers in the UN 80. Which one of the following statements best
General Assembly can maintain reflects the issue which Senkaku Islands,
missions at the UN headquarters. sometimes mentioned in the news? 
Which of the statements given above are  (Year : 2022)
correct ? (a) It is generally believed that they are
(a) 1 and 2 only artificial islands made by a country
(b) 2 and 3 only around South China Sea.
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) China and Japan engage in maritime
(d) 1, 2 and 3 disputes over these islands in East
China Sea
78. Consider the following countries  (c) A permanent American military base
 (Year : 2022) has been set up there to help Taiwan to
1) Armenia increase its defence capabilities.
2) Azerbaijan (d) Through International Courts of
3) Croatia Justice declared them as no man’s land,
some South-East Asian countries claim
4) Romania
them.
5) Uzbekistan
Which of the above are members of the
Organization of Turkic States?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
79. With reference to the United Nations
Convention on the Law of Sea, consider
the following statements: (Year : 2022)
1) A coastal state has the right to establish
the breadth of its territorial sea up to a
limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles,
measured from baseline determined in
accordance with the convention.
2) Ships of all states, whether coastal or
land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent
passage through the territorial sea.
3) The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not
extend beyond 200 nautical miles from
the baseline from which the breadth of
the territorial sea in measure.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Vikas Yadav cleared CSE
Prelims 2023
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II HACKS & TRICKS

UPSC CSE PRELIMS-2023

• This Techniques will help immensely to any candidates appearing in UPSC CSE Exam

REALITY
Paper Setter Panel Vs CSE Aspirant

↓ ↓

10 lakh students & to set question in 4 options Choose any 1 option among (A) (B) (C) (D)
only

Tough Task → so paper setters usually plays Probability of getting 25% correct answer.
with words while framing statements.
↓
↓
If you apply logics/ elimination then this
Such words gives us hints to arrive at right probability may reach at 75% to 100%
answers.

LAST % YEARS UPSC PRELIMS CUT OFF

Year General OBC SC ST EWS

2022 88.22 87.54 74.08 69.35 82.83
2021 87.54 84.85 75.41 70.71 80.14
2020 92.51 89.12 74.84 68.71 77.55
2019 98 95.34 82 77.34 90
2018 98 96.66 84 83.34 -
2017 105.34 102.66 88.66 88.66 -

MARKS TALLY

No. Questions
↓
Attempted 90+ Skipped Less than 10
↓
Correct Wrong
25 Question - 65 Questions - based on
25 * 2 = 50
100% accuracy elimination and logic, an 25 X 0.66 = 16.50
40 * 2 = 80
based on past one average student can get 40+
year study questions correct. Net Gain 130-16.50 = 113.50+

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II HACKS & TRICKS

SECTION : 50+ Elimination Techniques

Hello Dear students

As you know Preliminary stage is an important phase in Journey of UPSC Preparation. You
might have seen, Many of us had gone empty handed without clearing UPSC Preliminary stage.

Day by day nature of UPSC Prelims Examination becoming tougher & that’s why many of us
says in Sarcastic manner “UPSC is Unpredictable Service Commission’’. It means UPSC may ask
anything under the Sun..!

You might have read news published by ndtv on 13th April 2015 with title ‘India’s Top
Economic Advisor flunked the IAS Exam’ (Ref. www.ndtv.com) This news was about failure of Hon.
Arvind subramanian Sir during his UPSC Journey.

Dear Future IAS officers,

“upsc is not Exam of Knowledge, one should have knowledge of UPSC Exam as well ...!’’
UPSC is not unpredictable service Commission; It is usually predictable service commission.

Here, we don’t want to blow our trumpet but whatever the efforts we put for Our LIET & SCOPE
Batch students, that simple analysis we are sharing here.....

You may be amazed after knowing this Simple way of clearing prelims

Arvind Sir Cheat Code No. 1 -

• UPSC Thematic Repetitive Topics Without Changing Question Number.
In the year 2023 (SET-A) Q. 37 Joint Sitting
2015 (SET-A) Q. 37 Joint Sitting
In the year 2023 (SET-A) Q. 47 Jainism
2013 (SET-A) Q. 47 Jainism
And Many More
In the year 2014 (SET-A) Q.97 Nanoparticles
2022 (SET-A) Q. 97 Nanoparticles
In the year 2013 (SET-A) Q.64 Cotton
2021 (SET-A) Q.64 Cotton
In the year 2013 (SET-A) Q.35 Wildlife
2017 (SET-A) Q.35 wildlife
In the year 2013 (SET-A) Q.96 Higgs boson Particle
2019 (SET-A) Q.97 Higgs boson Particle
In the year 2019 (SET-A) Q21 Thematic Repetitive crop
2022 (SET-A) Q21 Thematic Repetitive crop
Q.22 Thematic Repetitive crop

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 PRELIMS MADE EASY VOLUME - II HACKS & TRICKS

In the year 2017 (SET-A) Q.65 G-20

2020 (SET-A) Q.65 G-20
And Many more Hacks
• You can cross-check as well
You may shocked after knowing such kind of Analysis done by Arvind sir.

Though UPSC is asking Thematic Repetitively Topic but even they are not changing Question number
also.

Is really UPSC Prelim Easy?

Yes! Off Course...!

UPSC Prelims is easy but students from Tier-3 & Tier-4 Pockets strata are became Customer of this
Upsc Market runned propoganda & Financially, many Lice are sucking bloods of innocent Aspirants.

 As per our Research of last 45+ years Question papers, there are approx. 125+ Thematic Topics &
50+ Tips & Tricks which will help you to score 120+ Marks in Prelims.

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